Class 11 – Samacheer Kalvi

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Introduction to Java Script

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Introduction to Java Script

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Java Script Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which provided a common scripting language for web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Application
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Java
(d) Java Script
Answer:
(d) Java Script

Question 2.
Expand CGI
(a) Common Gateway Interface
(b) Complex Gateway Information
(c) Common Gateway Information
(d) Complex Gateway Interface
Answer:
(a) Common Gateway Interface

Question 3.
JavaScript programming language is used to develop the
(a) Dynamic Web Page
(b) Window
(c) Web Page
(d) Home Page
Answer:
(a) Dynamic Web Page

Question 4.
The Dynamic Web Page help to save server’s
(a) Work
(b) Route
(c) Traffic
(d) Pvath
Answer:
(c) Traffic

Question 5.
User entered data, is validated before sending it to server is called ………………………
(a) Server traffic
(b) Dynamic Web Page
(c) Server Route
(d) Web server
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Web Page

Question 6.
Java Scripts can be implemented using which statements?
(a) <head>
(b) <Java>
(c) <script>
(d) <text>
Answer:
(c) <script>

Question 7.
Expand DHTML
(a) Distance Hyper Text Markup language
(b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language
(c) Distance High Text Markup language
(d) Dynamic High Text Markup language
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language

Question 8.
How many attributes are used in <script> tag in the scripting
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 9.
Which attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be sent to “Text/JavaScript”
(a) Language
(b) Text 1
(c) Type
(d) Body
Answer:
(c) Type

Question 10.
The shortcut key to reload file in the browser is
(a) F2
(b) F3
(c) F4
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 11.
JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between
(a) Command
(b) Scripts
(c) Tokens
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Tokens

Question 12.
A Data value for variable that appears directly in a program by using a
(a) Loop
(b) Literal
(c) Statement
(d) Text
Answer:
(b) Literal

Question 13.
Which is mostly used to give a warning message to users?
(a) Alert Dialog Box
(b) Confirm box
(c) Prompt box
(d) Display box
Answer:
(a) Alert Dialog Box

Question 14.
In the below snippet, value of x is var x = 250 + 2 – 200;
(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 48
(d) 42
Answer:
(b) 52

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a syntax of <script> tag?
Answer:
<script language = “javascript”
type = “text/javascript”>
JavaScript code
</script>

Question 2.
What is scope of variables and types of scope variable?
Answer:
The spope of a variable is the life time of a variable of source code in which it is defined.

A global variable has global scope; it can be defined everywhere in the JavaScript code.
Variables declared within a function are defined only within the body of the function. They are local variables and have local scope.

Question 3.
Write a notes on type casting in JavaScript?
Answer:
Type conversion is the act of converting one data type into a different data type which is also called as casting. In JavaScript there are two type of casting:

Implicit casting and
Explicit casting

Question 4.
How many Literals are there in JavaScript and mention its types?
Answer:
There are five Literals in JavaScript. They are Integer, Floating point, Character, String and Boolean.

Question 5.
What is conditional operator give suitable example?
Answer:
The ?: is the conditional operator in JavaScript, which requires three operands, hence it is called the ternary operator. The syntax is:
var variablename = (condition) ?
value 1 : value2;
In the syntax, condition may be relational expression or logical expression. First condition will be evaluated, if the condition returns true then the value of the left side of the color is assigned to the variable otherwise the value of the right side of the colon will be assigned the variable.
Eg: var result = (10 > 15) ? 100 : 150;

Question 6.
What are the comments in Java Script?
Answer:
A very important aspect of good programming style is to insert remarks and comments directly in source code, making.it more readable to yourself as well as to others. Any comments you include will be ignored by the JavaScript interpreter. There are two types of comments, Single line and Multiple line comments. Single-line comments begin with a double slash (//), causing the interpreter to ignore everything from that point to the end of the line. Multiple line comments begins with /* and ends with */.
Eg:
//JavaScript single line comment//
Multiple line comments begins with /* and ends with */.

Question 7.
Write note on types of Operator?
Answer:
The type of operator is used to get the data type (returns a string) of its operand. The operand can be either a literal or a data structure such as a variable, a function, or an object. The – operator returns the data type.
Syntax
typeof operand
or
typeof (operand)

typeof returns:
boolean, function, number, string, and undefined. The following table summarizes possible values returned by the typeof operator.

Question 8.
Write the role of variable in Java Script?
Answer:
JavaScript Variables : Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Question 9.
What is the uses of prompt dialog box?
Answer:
The prompt dialog box is very useful when the user want to pop-up a text box to get user input. Thus, it enables you to interact with the user. The user needs to fill in the text box field and then click OK.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of programming language?
Answer:

In HTML we have learnt how to develop static web pages. But in real life web pages must be interactive. So to develop such interactive pages (Dynamic Web page ) JavaScript programming language is used.
User entered data in the Dynamic Web page can be validated before sending it to the server. This saves server traffic, which means less load on your server.
JavaScript includes such items as Textboxes, Buttons, drag-and-drop components and sliders to give a Rich Interface to site visitors. For example Creating a New email account in any service provider.

Question 2.
Brief the basic data types in Java Scripts?
Answer:
The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

A string is a list of characters, and a string literal is indicated by enclosing the characters in single or double quotes. Strings may contain a single character or multiple characters, including whitespace and special characters such as \n (the newline).
Numbers can be integer or floating-point numerical value and numeric literals are specified in the natural way.
Boolean can be any one of two values: true or false. Boolean literals are indicated by using true or false directly in the source code.

Question 3.
Write note on string Operator?
Answer:
The + operator performs addition on numbers but also serves as the concatenation operator for strings. Because string concatenation has precedence over “numeric addition, + will, be interpreted as string concatenation if any of the operands are strings. + operator which is also called as the string concatenation operator.

Question 4.
Write about <script> tag?
Answer:
<script language= “javascript”
type= “text / javascript”>
JavaScript code
</script>
The <SCRIPT> tag takes two important attributes

Language:
This attribute specifies that the scripting language. Typically, its value will be javascript. Although recent versions of HTML (Extensible HyperText Markup Language – XHTML, its successor) have phased out the use of this attribute is optional.

Type:
This attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be set to “text/javascript”.

Question 5.
What are the uses of Logical Operators?
Answer:
Logical operators perform logical (boolean) operations. Logical operators combine or invert boolean values. Once comparisions are made , the logical operations && (AND),|| (OR) and !(NOT) can be used to create more complex conditions.

Question 6.
Difference between the Increment and Decrement operator?
Answer:
Increment Operator (++):

The ++ operator increments its single operand.
The operator converts its operand to a number, adds 1 to that number and assigns the incremented value back into the variable.
When ++ is used before the operand, where it is known as the pre-increment operator. When used after the operand, where it is known as the post-increment operator.
1. Eg: var m = 1, n= ++m;
2. var m = 1, n = m++;

Decrement Operator (–):

The – – operator decrement its single operand.
It converts the value of the operand to a number subtracts 1 and assigns the decremented value back to the operand.
When ++ is used before the operand, it decrements the value. When used after the operand, it decrements the operand but returns the undecremented value.
1. Eg: var m = 2, n = -m;
2. var m = 2, n= m –;

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain about the popup dialog boxes in Java Script?
Answer:
Java Script supports three important types of dialog boxes. Dialog boxes are also called as Popup Boxes. These dialog boxes can be used to raise an alert, or to get confirmation on any input or to have a kind of input from the users. JavaScript supports three kind of popup boxes: Alert box, Confirm box, and Prompt box.

Alert Dialog Box:
An alert dialog box is mostly used to give a warning message to the users. For example, if one input field requires to enter some text but the user does not provide any input, then as a part of ‘validation, you can use an alert box to give a warning message.

Alert box gives only one button “OK” to select and proceed. The syntax of alert box is Alert (“Message”); (or) Window.alert(“Message”);

Example:
alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);
(or) window.alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);
(or) Window. alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);

Confirm Dialog Box:
A confirmation dialog box is mostly used to take user’s consent on any option. It displays a dialog box with two buttons: OK and Cancel. If the user clicks on the OK button, the confirm( ) will return true. If the user clicks on the Cancel button, then confirm( ) returns false.

The syntax of confirm dialog box is
confirm (“message”);
(or)
window confirm(“message”);
Eg:
confirm (“Hai Do you want to continue:”);

Prompt Dialog Box:
The prompt dialog box is displayed using a method called prompt( ) which takes two parameters:

(i) a label which you want to display in the text box

(ii) a default string to display in the text box. This dialog box has two buttons: OK and the prompt() will return the entered value form the text box. If the user clicks the Cancel button, the prompt() returns null, The Syntax of prompt dialog box is,
Prompt (“Message”, “defaultValue”);
(or)
window.prompt(“sometext”, “defaultText”);

Eg:
prompt (“Enter your Name:”, “Name”);
(or)
window.prompt (“Enter your Name:”, “Name”);

Question 2.
Explain about the Arithmetic operator with suitable example?
Answer:
JavaScript supports all the basic arithmetic operators like addition (+), subtraction (-), multiplication (*), division (/), and modulus (%, also known as the remainder operator).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Java Script Additional Questions and Answers

I.Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
JavaScript 1.0 was introduced by:
(a) Java corporation
(b) Netscape and Sun Inc
(c) Oracle corporation
(d) Microsoft corporation
Answer:
(b) Netscape and Sun Inc

Question 2.
Which client-side technology provides many advantages over traditional CGI server-side scripts?
Answer:
(a) C
(b) C + +
(c) JavaScript
(d) Java
Answer:
(c) JavaScript

Question 3.
Which tag is normally recommended that JavaScript should be kept it within the tag?
(a) <head>
(b) <title>
(c) <body>
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) <head>

Question 4.
Which <script> tag attribute specifies that the scripting language?
(a) Type
(b) Language
(c) Name
(d) Value
Answer:
(b) Language

Question 5.
Which button can be used to reload the file into the browser?
(a) OK
(b) Refresh
(c) Submit
(d) Ignore
Answer:
(b) Refresh

Question 6.
JavaScript is a:
(a) Case-sensitive language
(b) Low level language
(c) Machine language
(d) Assembly language
Answer:
(a) Case-sensitive language

Question 7.
What is the JavaScript single line comment?
(a) “/”
(b) “//”
(c) */*
(d) *//*
Answer:
(b) “//”

Question 8.
What is the JavaScript multiline comment?
(a) “/**/”
(b) “*/ /*”
(c) “//”
(d) /* /*
Answer:
(a) “/**/”

Question 9.
Which is used to separate the statements in JavaScript?
(a) (:) colon
(b) (;) semicolon
(c) (,) comma
(d) (.) full stop
Answer:
(b) (;) semicolon

Question 10.
Which is a data value for variable that appears directly in a program?
(a) Variable
(b) Constant
(c) Literal
(d) Boolean
Answer:
(c) Literal

Question 11.
An identifier is simply a:
(a) Variable
(b) Name
(c) Value
(d) Boolean
Answer:
(b) Name

Question 12.
In JavaScript certain are used as reserved words?
(a) Keywords
(b) Identifiers
(c) Variable
(d) String
Answer:
(a) Keywords

Question 13.
Which is the keyword for declared variable?
(a) Float
(b) Var
(c) Int
(d) Str
Answer:
(b) Var

Question 14.
Variable name is also known as:
(a) Identifier
(b) Constant
(c) String
(d) Float
Answer:
(a) Identifier

Question 15.
…………………. is a list of characters, and a string literal by enclosing single or double quotes?
(a) Numbers
(b) Boolean
(c) String
(d) Constant
Answer:
(c) String

Question 16.
Which literals are indicated by any one of two values true or false?
(a) String
(b) Numbers
(c) Boolean
(d) Constants
Answer:
(c) Boolean

Question 17.
Which is the first character for naming a variable?
(a) Letter
(b) An underscore (_)
(c) ($) doller sign
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
Which type of variable can be defined everywhere in the JavaScript?
(a) Global
(b) Local
(c) String
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(a) Global

Question 19.
Which type of variable can be defined only within the body of the function?
(a) Global
(b) Local
(c) String
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(b) Local

Question 20.
Which is a fixed value given to a variable in source code?
(a) String
(b) Global
(c) Literal
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(c) Literal

Question 21.
The act of converting one data type into a different data types:
(a) Type conversion
(b) Arithmetic expression
(c) Relational expression
(d) Logical expression
Answer:
(a) Type conversion

Question 22.
Which casting occurs automatically in JavaScript when you change the data stored in a variable?
(a) Implicit
(b) Explicit
(c) Internal
(d) External
Answer:
(a) Implicit

Question 23.
Which is the formation of one or more variables and / or constants joined by operators?
(a) Constant
(b) An expression
(c) Variable
(d) String
Answer:
(b) An expression

Question 24.
Which is known as the remainder / modulus operator?
(a) I
(b) *
(c) –
(d) %
Answer:
(d) %

Question 25.
Which is an assignment operator?
(a) /
(b) *
(c) =
(d) –
Answer:
(c) =

Question 26.
Relational operators are also called as:
(a) Assignment operators
(b) Arithmetic operators
(c) Comparison operators
(d) Relational operators
Answer:
(a) Assignment operators

Question 27.
Which symbol is used as ‘not equal to’ in relational operator?
(a) = =
(b) \ =
(c) !
< (d)\>
Answer:
(b) \ =

Question 28.
Which operator is used as the string concatenation of JavaScript?
(a) &
(b) +
(c) ++
(d) I
Answer:
(b) +

Question 29.
Which operator is used to increment value?
(a) +
(b) + +
(c) ~~
(d) ~
Answer:
(b) + +

Question 30.
Which operator is used to decrement value?
(a) +
(b) + +
(c) – –
(d) –
Answer:
(c) – –

Question 31.
Which operator is used to get the data type of its operand?
(a) Numeric
(b) Typeof
(c) String
(d) Float
Answer:
(b) Typeof

Question 32.
Which is the conditional operator?
(a) d
(b) :
(c) ?:
(d) ! :
Answer:
(c) ?:

Question 33.
How many dialog boxes are supported by JavaScripts?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 34.
Dialog boxes are also called as:
(a) Text boxes
(b) Combo boxes
(c) List boxes
(d) Popup boxes
Answer:
(d) Popup boxes

Question 35.
Which is mostly used to give a warning message to the users?
(a) Alert dialog box
(b) Confirm box
(c) Prompt box
(d) Textbox
Answer:
(a) Alert dialog box

Question 36.
What is the puipose of prompt dialog box?
(a) User input
(b) User output
(c) Read data
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) User input

Question 37.
…………………. you include will be ignored by the Java script interpreter.
(a) Constant
(b) Comment
(c) Logical operator
(d) Relational Operator
Answer:
(b) Comment

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define CGI?
Answer:
JavaScript had truly bridged the gap between the simple world of HTML and the more complex Common Gateway Interface (CGI) programs on the Server. It provides a common scripting language for Web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Applications.

Question 2.
How can you use <script> tag in JavaScript?
Answer:
JavaScript can be implemented using <script>… </script> tags. The <script> tag containing JavaScript can be placed anywhere within in the web page, but it is normally recommended that should be kept it within the <head> tags. The <script> tag alerts the browser program to start interpreting all the text between these tags as a script commands.

Question 3.
What is meant by lexical structure of a programming language?
Answer:
The lexical structure of a programming language is the set of elementary rules that specifies how to write programs in that language. It is the lowest-level syntax of a language. The Lexical structure specifies variable names, the delimiter characters for comments, and how one program statement is separated from the next.

Question 4.
What are the names used as tokens in JavaScript?
Answer:
Identifiers, operators, punctuator, constants and keywords.

Question 5.
What are the style of comments supported by JavaScript?
Answer:
JavaScript supports two styles of comments. Any text follow a “//” and the end of a line is treated as a single line comment and is ignored by JavaScript. Any text between the characters “ /* */” is also treated as a multiline comment.

Question 6.
What is the role of identifier?
Answer:
An identifier is simply a name. In JavaScript, identifiers are used to name variables, functions and to provide labels for certain loops in JavaScript code.

Question 7.
What is a variable?
Answer:
Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Question 8.
What are the basic types of data types?
Answer:
Every variable has a data type that indicates what kind of data the variable holds. The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

Question 9.
What is the purpose of operator?
Answer:
An operator combines the values of its operands in some way and evaluates to a new value. Operators are used for JavaScript’s arithmetic expressions, comparison expressions, logical expressions, assignment expressions.

Question 10.
What is an expression?
Answer:
An expression is simply one or more variables and/or constants joined by operators. An expression is evaluated and produces a result. The result of all expressions may be either an integer or floating-point value or Boolean value.

Question 11.
What are the types of expression?
Answer:
There are three types of expressions as follows,

Arithmetic expressions
Relational expressions
Logical expressions.

Question 12.
What is the Use of unary + and – operator?
Answer:
+ has no effect on numbers but causes non¬numbers to be converted into numbers.
– Negation (changes the sign of the number or converts the expression to a number and then changes its sign).

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the steps to be followed to code JavaScript language?
Answer:

Enter HTML and JavaScript code using any text editor.
Save the latest version of this code.
Use any browser to see the result. Eg: Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, etc…
If this is a new document, open the file via browser’s Open Menu. If the document is already loaded in the Memory, to reload the file into the browser use “Refresh” or press F5 button.

Question 2.
How to assign values to variables in JavaScript?
Answer:
Variables can be assigned initial values when they are declared as follows:
var numericData1 = 522;
var stringData = “JavaScript
has strings\nIt sure does:;
var numericData = 3.14;
var booleanData = true;

Question 3.
Explain JavaScript literals with suitable examples?
Answer:
A literal is a fixed value given to a variable in source code. Literals are often used to initialize variables. Values may be Integer, Floating point, Character, String and Boolean.
Eg:
var int_const=250; //Integer constant//
var float_const=250.85; //
Floating point constant//
var char_const=’A’; //
Character constant//
var string_const- “Raman”; //
String constant//
var boolean_const=true; //
Boolean constant//
write statement:
General Syntax:
document write (“string” + var);

Question 4.
What is an assignment operator? Give example?
Answer:
An assignment operator is the operator used to assign a new value to a variable, Assignment operator can also be used for logical operations such as bitwise logical operations or operations on integral operands and Boolean operands.

In JavaScript = is an assignment operator, which is used to assign a value to a variable. Often this operator is used to set a variable to a literal value, for example, ..
var number1=10;
var number2=number1;
var name=”Computer Science”;
var booleanvar=true;

Question 5.
What are the rules that should be followed to use logical operators?
Answer:
Best practice is to use logical operators on boolean operands. However, operands of any type can be combined. The strict rules are as follows:

For && (AND) the result is false if the first operand is false; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
For || (OR) the result is true if the first operand is true; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
For ! (NOT) the result is true if the operand is false; otherwise, the result is true.

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the lexical structure of a JavaScript program?
Answer:

Though JavaScript is a case-sensitive language. It is good programming practice to type the command in lowercase.
JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between tokens (identifiers, operators, punctuator, constants and keywords) in programs.
JavaScript supports two styles of comments. Any text follow a “//” and the end of a line is treated as a single line comment and is ignored by JavaScript. Any text between the characters “ /* */” is also treated as a multiline comment.
JavaScript uses the semicolon (;) to separate statements. Many JavaScript programmers use semicolons to explicitly mark the ends of statements.
A literal is a data value for variable that appears directly in a program.

Question 2.
What are the rules that should be followed for naming variable in JavaScript?
Answer:

The first character must be a letter or an underscore (_). Number cannot be as the first character.
The rest of the variable name can include any letter, any number, or the underscore. You can’t use any other characters, including spaces, symbols, and punctuation marks.
JavaScript variable names are case sensitive. That is, a variable named Register Number is treated as an entirely different variable than one named register number.
There is no limit to the length of the variable name.
JavaScript’s reserved words cannot be used as a variable name. All programming languages have a supply of words that are used internally by the language and that cannot be used for variable names.

Question 3.
Write the JavaScript program using various variables?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>Declaring Variables in JavaScript </Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” var numericData1 = 522;
var stringData = ” JavaScript has strings\n It sure does”;
var numericdata = 3.14;
var booleanData = true;
document.write (“Numeric Data:” +numericData 1);
document.write(“<br> String Data:” +stringData);
document.write(“<br> Floating Data:” +numericData);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 4.
Write a JavaScript program using all arithmetic operators?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To test Arithmetic Operators in JavaScript
</Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type=” “text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522/ value2 = 10;
document.write(“<br>Data1 :” +value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 :” +value2);
var sum = value1+value2;
var diff = value1-value2;
var prod = value1*value2;
var res = value1/value2;
var rem = value1%value2;
document.write(“<br><br>The Sum of’ Datal and Data! :” +sum);
document.write (“<br>The Difference of Data1 and Data2 :” +diff) ;
document.write(“<br>The Product of Data1 and Data2 :” +prod);
document.write(“<br>The Result after Division of Datal and Data2:” +res);
document.write(“<br>The Remainder after Division of Datal and Data2 :” +rem);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 5.
Write the relational / comparison operators using JavaScript?
Answer:
Relational operators are also called as Comparison operators, they compares two values and the result is true or false. JavaScript provides a rich set of relational operators including == (equal to), != (not equal to), < (less than), > (greater than), <= (less than or equal to), and >= (greater than or equal to). Using a relational operator in an expression causes the expression to evaluate as true if the condition holds or false if otherwise.

Question 6.
Write a JavaScript program using logical operator?
Answer:
<Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript’ type=”text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522, value2=10;
document.write(“<br>Data1 + value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 +value2);
var res1= ( (value1>100) && (value1>601));
var res2= ( (value1>100) || (value1>601) );
var res3=(!(value!!=value2));
document.write(“<br><br>Whether Data!>100.AND Data1>601:”+res1);
document .write (“<brxbr>Whether Data1>600 OR Data1>601:”+ res2) ;
document.write(“<br>Whether!Data!!= Data2 +res3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 7.
Write a JavaScript program using + operator for concatenating string?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To Concatenating (+) Operators in JavaScript </Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language= “javascript” type=”text/javascript”>
var String1 = “Java”;

var String2 = “Script”;
var String3=String1+String2;
document.write(“<br>String1 :” +String1);
document.write(“<br>String2 :” +String2);
document.write(“<br><br>Concatenated String of String1 and String2:” +String3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 8.
Write a JavaScript program using “typeof operator”?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To test typeof Operator in JavaScript </Title> </Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type= “text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522, value2= “JavaSript”; value3=true;
document.write(“<br>Value1=”+value1+ “and its data Type is ttypeof(value1));
document.write (“<br>Value2=” +value2+”and its data Type is : +typeof(value2));
document.write (“<br>Value3=”+value3+”and its data Type is +typeof(value3));
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Introduction to Java Script Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter Chapter 18 Tamil Computing Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Tamil Computing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
List of the search engines supporting Tamil?
Answer:
Google, Bing and Yahoo are takes first three places respectively. Google and Bing provide searching facilities in Tamil, which me you can search everything through Tamil. A Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 2.
What are the keyboard layouts used in Android?
Answer:
Sellinam and Ponmadal are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that works on android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 3.
Write a short note about Tamil Programming Language?
Answer:
Programming languages to develop software to computers and smart phones are available only in English. Now, efforts are taken to develop programming languages in Tamil.

Based on Python programming language, the first Tamil programming language “Ezhil” (எழில்) is designed. With the help of this programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil:

Question 4.
What is TSCII?
Answer:
TSCII (Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange) is the first coding system to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non- English computers. This encoding scheme was registered in IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) unit of ICANN.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Tamil Virtual Academy?
Answer:
With the objectives of spreading Tamil to the entire world through Internet, Tamil Virtual University was established on 17th February 2001 by the Government of Tamilnadu.

Now, this organisation functioning with the name “Tamil Virtual Academy”. This organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage etc… from kindergarten to under graduation level.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Tamil Computing Additional Important Questions and Answer

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Human civilization developed with the innovation of computer in the …………………….
(a) 11th century
(b) 13th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 20th century
Answer:
(d) 20th century

Question 2.
…………………… is not just a language, it is our identity, our life and our source.
(a) English
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Tamil
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) Tamil

Question 3.
Getting government services through internet is known as
(a) e-library
(b) e-govemance
(c) Tamil programming language
(d) Tamil translation applications
Answer:
(b) e-govemance

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is e-governance?
Answer:
Getting Government services through internet is known as e-Govemance. Govt, of Tamil Nadu has been giving its services through Internet.

One can communicate with Govt, of Tamil Nadu from any comer of the state. One can get important’announcements, government orders, and government welfare schemes from the web portal of Govt. of. Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Write short notes on e-library?
Answer:
E-Libraries are portal or website of collection of e-books. Tamil e-Library services provide thousands of Tamil Books as ebooks mostly at free of cost. It is the most useful service to Tamil people who live far away from their home land.

Question 3.
Explain Tamil translation applications?
Answer:
Thamizpori (தமிழ்பொறி) is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equalent to English words. Using this application, we can translate small English sentences into Tamil. Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language and vice versa.

Question 4.
Define Tamil office automation application?
Answer:
Famous Office automation software like Microsoft Office, Open Office etc., provides complete Tamil interface facility. These softwares are downloadable and installed in your computer.

After installation, your office automation software environment will be completely changed to Tamil. Menu bars, names of icons, dialog boxes will be shown in Tamil. Moreover, you can save files with Tamil names and create folders with Tamil names.

Question 5.
Explain ISCII?
Answer:
Indian Script Code for Information Interchange (ISCII ), is one of the encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil. It was unified with Unicode.

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Unicode?
Answer:
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced on October 1991.

While introduction of this scheme, can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, – Unicode is the suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 2.
Define tamil typing and interface software?
Answer:
Tamil is mostly used to type documents in word processors and search information from internet. Typing Tamil using Tamil interface software is the familiar one among the different methods of typing. This is the simplest method of typing Tamil in both Computer and Smart phones.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Tamil in internet?
Answer:
Internet is the best information technological device, through which we get know everything from Internet. In 2017 a study conducted by KPMG a Singapore based organization along with google, reported that, Tamil topped the list, among the most widely used languages in India where 42% are using the Internet in Tamil. Moreover in 2021 onwards, 74% of people in India will access internet using Tamil and it will be in the top usage of Internet in India.

Question 4.
Explain Tamil operating system?
Answer:
An operating system is needed to access electronic systems such as computer and smart phone. Microsoft Windows is very popular operating system for personal computers.

Linux is another popular open source operating system. Operating systems are used to access a computer easily. An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in understandable form. Thus, all operating systems used in computers and smart phones offered environment in Tamil.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the incorrect sentence from the following:
(a) Bile juice emulsifies the fat.
(b) Chyme is a digestive acidic food in the stomach.
(c) Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol.
(d) Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.
Answer:
(d) Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.

Question 2.
What is chyme?
(a) The process of conversion of fat into small droplets.
(b) The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet.
(c) The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.
(d) The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.
Answer:
(c) The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.

Question 3.
Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(b) Gastrin and insulin
(c) Cholecysokinin and secretin
(d) Insulin and glucagon
Answer:
(c) Cholecysokinin and secretin.

Question 4.
The sphincter of Oddi guards ……………
(a) Hepatopancreatic duct
(b) Common bile duct
(c) Pancreatic duct
(d) Cystic duct
Answer:
(a) Hepatopancreatic duct

Question 5.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of ……………
(a) Glucose
(b) Amino acids
(c) Na
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Which one is incorrectly matched?
(a) Pepsin – stomach
(b) Renin – liver
(c) Trypsin – intestine
(d) Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
(b) Renin – liver

Question 7.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by …………….
(a) Lymph vessels within villi
(b) Walls of stomach
(c) Colon
(d) Capillaries within villi
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels within villi

Question 8.
First step in digestion of fat is ……………..
(a) Emulsification
(b) Enzyme action
(c) Absorption by lacteals
(d) Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
(a) Emulsification

Question 9.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of ……………..
(a) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) Protein into polypetide
(d) Caseinogen into casein
Answer:
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin

Question 10.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?

Column I	Column II
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin	(i) intestinal juice
(b) Hydrolysis of starch	(ii) Amylases
(c) Digestion of fat	(iii) Lipases
(d) Salivary gland	(iv) Parotid

Answer:
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin – (i) intestinal juice

Question 11.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I	Column – II
(P) Small intestine	(i) Largest factory
(Q) Pancreas	(ii) Absorption of Water
(R) Liver	(iii) Carrying electrolytic solution
(S) Colon	(iv) Digestion and absorption

(a) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)
(b) (P – iii) (Q – ii) (R – i) (S – iv)
(c)(P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)
(d) (P – ii) (Q – iv) (R – iii) (S – i)
Answer:
(a) (P-iv ) ( Q – iii ) ( R- i ) ( S – ii)

Question 12.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column I	Column II
(p) Small intestine	(i) 23 cm
(q) Large intestine	(ii) 4 meter
(r) Oesophagus	(iii) 12.5 cm
(s) Pharynx	(iv) 1.5 meter

(a) (P – iv) (Q – ii) (R – i) (S – iii)
(b) (P – ii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – iii)
(c) (P – i) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – iv)
(d) (P – iii) (Q – i) (R – ii)(S – iv)
Answer:
(b) (P – ii ) ( Q – iv ) ( R – i ) (S – iii)

Question 13.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I	Column II
(p) Lipase	(i) Starch
(q) Pepsin	(ii) Cassein
(r) Renin	(iii) Protein
(s) Ptyalin	(iv) Lipid

(a) (P – iv) (Q – ii)(R – i)(S – iii)
(b) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)
(c) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)
(d) (P – iii) (Q – ii) (R – iv) (S – i)
Answer:
(c) (P – iv ) ( Q – iii ) ( R – ii) ( S – i)

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of liver?
(a) Production of insulin
(b) Detoxification
(c) Storage of glycogen
(d) Production of bile
Answer:
(a) Production of insulin

Question 15.
Assertion : (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine.
Reason : (B) Absorption of water takes place in large intestine.
(a) Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but B is false
(d) A is false but B is true
Answer:
(d) A is false but B is true

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi?
(a) They possess microvilli.
(b) They increase the surface area.
(c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels.
(d) They only participate in digestion of fats.
Answer:
(d) They only participate ¡n digestion of fats.

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 17.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:

The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi.
It is involved in the process of absorption and the cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli.
A brush border appearance increases the surface area enormously.
Villi are not present in the stomach, because absorption does not occur and digestion happens with the help of gastric juices.

Question 18.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet It is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Liver does not secrete digestive enzymes. It contains bile pigments hilirubin and hiliverdin which are the break down products of haemoglobin of dead RBCs. bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipase to digest lipids.

Question 19.
List the chemical changes that starch molecule undergoes from the time it reaches the small intestine.
Answer:
In the small intestine, starch digestion gets completed. The pancreatic juice contains pancreatic amylases which acts on polysaccharide and convert into disaccharides (maltose). These cretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. It contains maltose, lactose and sucrose. These convert maltose, lactose and sucrose into monosaccharides, glucose and fructose.

In the small intestine, complex carbohydrates are converted into simple ghicose. fructose and galactose. These are absorbed by active transport.

Question 20.
How do proteins differ from fats in their energy value and their role in the body?
Answer:
The calorific value and physiological fiel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal respectively. Fat has a calorific value of 9.45 Kcal and the physiological fuel value of 9 Kcal per gram. Proteins are the source of amino acids required for growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent. They replace the worn out protoplasm. They are important for the production of many enzymes. hormones and plasma. The catabolism of amino acids releases toxic nitrogenous wastes which are removed by the kidneys.

Question 21.
Digestive secretions are secreted only when needed. Discuss.
Answer:
Digestive glands are exocrine glands which secrete biological catalysts called enzymes. These enzyme convert the complex. insoluble foodmaterials like carbohydrates, proteins and lipids into simplex, soluble food materials like glucose and fructose, amino acids and fatty acids and glycerol. These digestive ccretions act only when food materials are available in the alimental)’ canal.

Question 22.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:
A – Right and left hepatic duct of liver.
B – Common bile duct.
C – Pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung)
D – Sphincter of oddi
E – Gall bladder.

In-Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
Though the bile juice of liver has no digestive enzyme but is very essential for proper digestion of food, especially of the fats. Discuss the following?
(a) What is composition of bile?
(b) How it helps in digestion of fats and other nutrients of food?
(c) How it helps in absorption of fats?
Answer:
The bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Question 2.
What would happen if HCl is not secreted in the stomach?
Answer:
The gastric juice contains HCl and proenzymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH – 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction. So, if HCl is not secreted in stomatch, digestion of protein and destruction of harmful micro organisms will be affected.

Question 3.
What features of the small intestine enables it to absorb digested food efficiently?
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa into the blood and lymph. The villi in the lumen of ileum are the absorbing units, consisting of a lacteal duct in the middle surrounded by fine network of blood capillaries. The process of absorption involves active, passive and facilitated transport.

Question 4.
What happens to the protein molecules in food, from the time it is swallowed, to the time its products are built up in the cytoplasm of a muscle cell?
Answer:
Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids. Proteins are source of amino acids required for growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent; large quantities are excreted as nitrogenous waste.

Textbook Activities Solved

Test for Starch :
Add a few drops of iodine to the given warm food sample. If any starch is present in the given food sample it will change the colour of the iodine from brown to blue black.

2. Test for protein :
Mix the given food sample with 3 mL of water in a test tube. Shake the mixture, and then add a few drops of Biuret solution. If protein is present, the colour of the solution will change to purple.

3. Test for glucose :
Mix the given food sample with 3 mL of water in a test tubes. Shake the mixture, and then add a few drops of Benedict’s solution. Keep the test tube in a water bath and heat carefully. If glucose is present, the colour of the solution will change from blue to green to brick red depending upon the amount of glucose.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved
Choose the correct Answer
Question 1.
How pepsin is differing from trypsin? [DPMT 1993]
(a) It digests protein in acidic medium
(b) It digests protein in alkaline medium
(c) It digests carbohydrate in acidic medium
(d) It digests carbohydrate in alkaline medium
Answer:
(a) It digests protein in acidic medium

Question 2.
Human intestine is large because ………… [DPMT1996]
(a) Bacteria in the food moves slowly
(b) Substances of food digest slowly
(c) It provide more space for the absorption of digested food
(d) It provide more space for the storage of food
Answer:
(c) It provide more space for the absorption of digested food

Question 3.
How the epidermal cells in the stomach of vertebrate animal is protected against HCl? [NCERT1981]
(a) HCl is dilute
(b) Epidermal cells defense the function of HCl
(c) HCl is neutralized in stomach
(d) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucus
Answer:
(d) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucus

Question 4.
By what the major part of mammalian teeth is made up ?
(a) Root
(b) Pulp
(c) Dentin
(d) Enamel
Answer:
(c) Dentin

Question 5.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of what? [BHU 2000]
(a) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) Protein into polypetide
(d) Casernogen into casein
Answer:
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin .

Question 6.
Secretin stimulates production of ………… [MPPMT 2002]
(a) Saliva
(b) Gastric juice
(c) Bile
(d) Pancreatic juice
Answer:
(d) Pancreatic juice

Question 7.
Pepsin acts in ………… [HPPMT 2001]
(a) Basic medium
(b) Acidic medium
(c) Neutral medium
(d) All type of medium
Answer:
(b) Acidic medium

Question 8.
Enzyme trypsin is secreted by ………… [AFMC 20031
(a) Duodenum
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Stomach
Answer:
(c) Pancreas

Question 9.
The number of teeth that grow twice in the human life is ………… [AFMC 2002, 2004]
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 10.
The number of teeth that grow once in the human life is ………… [DPMT BHU 1986]
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 28
Answer:
(d) 28

Question 11.
Cholesterol is synthesised in ………… [M.RPMT 2000]
(a) Bninner’s glands
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(b) Liver

Question 12.
Largest gland in human body is ………… [JK, CMEE 2003]
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(a) Liver

Question 13.
Muscular contraction of alimentary canal are ………… [CMC 2003]
(a) Circulation
(b) Deglutition
(c) Churning
(d) Peristalsis
Answer:
(d) Peristalsis

Question 14.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first absorbed by ………… [BV2000J]
(a) Lymph vessels
(b) Villi
(c) Blood capillaries
(d) Hepatic portal vein
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels

Question 15.
Trypsin changes ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Proteins into peptones
(b) Fats into fatty acids
(c) Starch and glycogen into maltose
(d) Maltose into its components
Answer:
(a) Proteins into peptones

Question 16.
Secretin hormone is produced by ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Stomach
(b) Liver
(c) Intestine
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(c) Intestine

Question 17.
Narrow distal part of stomach is ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Cardiac
(b) Pharynx
(c) Duodenum
(d) Pylorus
Answer:
(d) Pylorus

Question 18.
pH suitable for ptyalin actions is ………… [AFMC 1996]
(a) 6 – 8
(b) 7 – 8
(c) 3 – 2
(d) 9 – 3
Answer:
(c) 3 – 2

Question 19.
What will happen if bile duct gets choked? [DPMT 1991]
(a) Feces become dry
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralised
(c) There will be little digestion in intestine
(d) Little absorption of fat will occur
Answer:
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralised

Question 20.
Digestion of both starch and protein is carried out by ………… [AFMC 19961
(a) Gastric juice
(b) Gastric lipase
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Ptyalin
Answer:
(c) Pancreatic juice

Question 21.
What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin? [CPMT 2000]
(a) All proteins
(b) Proteolytic enzymes
(c) Produced in stomach
(d) Act at pH lower than 7
Answer:
(a) All proteins

Question 22.
Enterokinase is ………… [BHU l997]
(a) Pancreatic hormone
(b) Intestine hormone
(c) Pancreatic enzyme
(d) Component of Intestinal juice
Answer:
(d) Component of Intestinal juice

Question 23.
Which enzyme initiates protein digestion? [MPPMT l997
(a) Pepsin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Aminopeptidase
(d) Carboxypeptidase
Answer:
(a) Pepsin

Question 24.
The enzyme which does not directly act upon food substrate is …………
(a) Trypsin
(b) Lipase
(c) Enterokinase
(d) Arnylopsin
Answer:
(c) Enterokinase

Question 25.
Pepsin is secreted by …………… [CPMT 1997]
(a) Peptic cells
(b) Zymogen cells of stomach
(c) Zymogcn cells of duodenum
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(a) Peptic cells

Question 26.
Pepsinogen is activated by …………..
(a) Chymotrypsin
(b) Trypsin
(c) HCl
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(c) HCl

Question 27.
Contraction of gall bladder is induced by …………
(a) Gastrin
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Secretin
(d) Enterogastrone
Answer:
(b) Cholecystokinin

Question 28.
Hormone that stimulates stomach to secrete gastric juice is …………
(a) Run
(b) Enterokinase
(c) Enterogastron
(d) Gastrin
Answer:
(d) Gastrin

Question 29.
Water is largely absorbed in ………… [CPMT 1999]
(a) Stomach
(b) Oesophagus
(c) Small intestine
(d) Colon
Answer:
(d) Colon

Question 30.
HCl is secreted by ………… [DPMT 2002]
(a) Zymogen cells
(b) Kupifer’s cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Mucous cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 31.
Jaundice is a disease of ………… [APMEE 1999]
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Duodenum
Answer:
(b) Liver

Question 32.
Which is different? [BHU 1999]
(a) Gastrin
(b) Secretin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) Glucagon
Answer:
(C) Ptyalin

Question 33.
Gastrin is ………… [BHU 1999]
(a) Hormone
(b) Enzyme
(c) Nutrient
(d) Digestive secretion
Answer:
(a) Hormone

Question 34.
Saliva contains enzyme ………… [CPAÍT 2003]
(a) Enterokinase
(b) Ptyalin/ Amylase
(c) Chymotrypsin
(d) Lipase
Answer:
(b) Ptyalin) Amylase

Question 35.
In human being cellulose is digested by …………
(a) Enzyme
(b) Symbiotic bacteria
(c) Symbiotic protozoAnswer:
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Symbiotic bacteria

Question 36.
Enzyme lactase occurs in ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Saliva
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Intestinal juice
(d) Stomach
Answer:
(c) Intestinal juice

Question 37.
Protein I enzyme is absent in ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Saliva
(b) bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Intestinal juice
Answer:were:
(b) Bile

Question 38.
Dental formula shows ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Structure of teeth
(b) Monophyodont or diphyodont condition
(c) Number and type of teeth in both jaws
(d) Number and type of teeth in one half of both jaws
Answer:
(c) Number and type of teeth ¡n both jaws

Question 39.
pH of gastric juice / stomach is …………
(a) 1.5-3.0
(b) 5.0-6.8
(c) 7.0 -9.0
(d) 6.0 -8.0
Answer:
(a) 1.5 -3.0

Question 40.
In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of ptyalin on starch is ………… [AuMS 2000]
(a) Enhanced
(b) Reduced
(c) Unaffected
(d) Stopped
Answer:
(b) Reduced

Question 41.
Bile salts take part in ………… [AMU 2000]
(a) Digestion of carbohydrates
(b) Brokedowri of proteins
(c) Emulsification of fat
(d) Absorption of glycerol
Answer:
(c) Emulsification of fat

Question 42.
Digestive juice contains catalytic agents called ………… [PMT 000]
(a) Vitamins
(b) Hormones
(c) Enzymes
(d) Nitrates
Answer:
(c) Enzymes

Question 43.
Which is not the function of liver? [DPMT 2001]
(a) Production of insulin
(b) Detoxification
(c) Storage of glycogen
(d) Production of bile
Answer:
(a) Production of insulin

Question 44.
Fat absorbed from gut is trAnswer:ported in blood …………
(a) Micelles
(b) Liposomes
(c) Chemomicrons
(d) Chlymicrons
Answer:
(a) Micelles

Question 45.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of ………… [AMU 2001]
(a) Glucose
(b) Amino acids
(c) Na+
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 46.
Which one is not matched? [Har. PMT 2002]
(a) Pepsin – stomach
(b) Renin – liver
(e) Trypsin – intestine
(d) Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
(b) Renin – liver

Question 47.
What is cholecystokinin?
(a) Bile pigment
(b) Gastro-intestinal hormone
(c) Enzyme
(d) Lipid
Answer:
(b) Gastro-intestinal hormone

Question 48.
Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ………… [CPMT2002J
(a) Enterogesterone
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(c) Gastrin

Question 49.
Which one is wisdom teeth? [CPMT 2002]
(a) Third molar, four in number
(b) Third molar, two in number
(c) Second molar, four in number
(d) Second molar, two in number
Answer:
(a) Third molar, four in number

Question 50.
in humans, digestion is ………… [BHU 2002]
(a) Intercellular
(b) Intracellular
(c) Extracellular
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(b) intracellular

Question 51.
Gall bladder takes part in ………… [RPMT 2002]
(a) Secretion of bile
(b) Storage of bile
(c) Formation of bile salts
(d) Formation of enzymes
Answer:
(b) Intracellular .

Question 51.
Gall bladder takes part in ………… [RPMT 2002]
(a) Secretion of bile
(b) Storage of bile
(c) Formation of bile salts
(d) Formation of enzymes
Answer:
(b) Storage of bile

Question 52.
Renin acts on milk protein and changes ………… [JIPMER 2002]
(a) Caesinogen into caesin
(b) Caesin into paracaesin
(c) Caesinogen into paracaesin
(d) Paracaesin into Caesinogen
Answer:
(a) Caesinogen into caesin

Question 53.
Glucose is stored in liver as ………… [AFMC 2003]
(a) Starch
(b) Glycogen
(c) Cellulose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Glycogen

Question 54.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids, and monoglycerides takes place by …………
(a) Lymph vessels within villi
(b) Walls of stomach
(c) Colon
(d) Capillaries within villi
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels within villi

Question 55.
Which ones are bile salts?
(a) Haemoglobin and biliverdin
(b) Bilirubin and biliverdin
(c) Bilirubin and Haemoglobin
(d) Sodium glycolate and taurocholate
Answer:
(d) Sodium glycolate and taurocholate

Question 56.
Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice called ……………. [Har PMT 2003]
(a) Pepsin
(b) HCl
(c) Renin
(d) Mucus
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 57.
Epithelial cells involved in the absorption of digested food have on their free surface ……………. [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Zymogen granules
(b) Pinocytic vesicles
(c) Phagocytic vesicles
(d) Microvilli
Answer:
(d) Microvilhi

Question 58.
The first step in the digestion of fat is …………… [BIIU 2003]
(a) Emulsification
(b) Enzyme action
(c) Absorption by lacteals
(d) Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
(a) Emulsification

Question 59.
DNA-ase and RNA-ase are enzymes produced by …………… [BHU 2003]
(a) Salivary glands
(b) Pancreas
(c) Stomach
(d) Intestine
Answer:
(b) Pancreas

Question 60.
Carboxypeptidase is secreted by …………….
(a) Pancreas
(b) Stomach
(c) Salivary glands
(d) Intestine
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 61.
Secretin and Cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in …………
(a) Pyloric stomach
(b) Duodenum
(c) Ileum
(d) Oesophagus
Answer:
(b) Duodenum

Question 62.
Crown of teeth is covered by ………… [AFMC 2005]
(a) Dentin
(b) Enamel
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:

Question 63.
Both the crown and root of teeth are covered by a layer of a bony hard substance called ………… [J&K CET 2005]
(a) Enamel
(b) Dentin
(c) Bony socket
(d) Cementum
Answer:
(d) Cementum

Question 64.
Lysozymes are found in ………… [MPPMT 2004]
(a) Saliva
(b) Tears
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) Mitochondria
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b) both

Question 65.
Which of the following is not present in pancreatic juice? [HPPMT 2005]
(a) Trypsinogen
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Parasitic
(d) lipase
Answer:
(c) Parasitic

Question 66.
Which of the following statement is not correct? [NEET 2015]
(a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of the intestine and secrete mucus.
(c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of the stomach and secrete HCI.
(d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase.
Answer:
(a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen

Question 67.
Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonates? [NEET20I6]
(a) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(b) Insulin and glucagon
(c) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(d) Gaston and Insulin
Answer:
(a) Cholecystokinin and secretin

Question 68.
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the ………… [AIPMT / NEET 2016]
(a) gastrin secreting cells
(b) parietal cells
(c) peptic cells
(d) acidic cells
Answer:
(b) parietal cells

Question 69.
The enzymes that are not present is succus entericus is ……………… [RE-A IPMTNEE T 2015]
(a) lipase
(b) maltase
(c) nucleases
(d) nucleosîdase
Answer:
(c) nucleases

Question 70.
Which of the following are not polymerase? [NEET 2017]
(a) Proteins
(b) Polysaccharides
(c) Lipids
(d) Nucleic acids
Answer:
(c) Lipids3

Question 71.
A baby aged two years is admitted to playschool and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? [NEET 2017]
(a) Canines
(b) Pre-Molars
(c) Molars
(d) Incisors
Answer:
(b) Pre-Molars

Question 72.
Which cells of crypts of Leiberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme? [NEET 2017]
(a) Paneth cells
(b) Zymase cells
(c) Kupfer cells
(d) Argentaffin cells
Answer:
(a) Paneth cells

Question 73.
The hepatic portal veins drain blood to the liver from ………… [NEET 2017]
(a) Stomach
(b) Kidneys
(c) Intestine
(d) Heart
Answer:
(c) Intestine

Question 74.
Which of the following options best represent the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? [NEET2O17]
(a) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(b) Peptidase, Amylase, pepsin, renin
(c) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(d) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, renin.
Answer:
(c) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase

Question 75.
Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. [NEET 2017]
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segments.
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light-absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.
OPTION
(a) a, c and d
(b) a and e.
(c) b, e, and d
(d) a and b
Answer:
(a) a, c and d

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Digestion and Absorption Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct Answer
Question 1.
Which of the following is the last phase of the process of digestion?
(a) ingestion
(b) assimilation
(c) eqestion
(d) digestion
Answer:
(c) eqestion

Question 2.
Which of the following teeth are the cutting teeth?
(a) incisors
(b) canines
(c) premolars
(d) molars
Answer:
(a) incisors

Question 3.
Plague formed on the teeth is mineral salts of ……………..
(a) sodium
(b) magnesium and manganese
(c) potassium
(d) calcium and magnesium
Answer:
(d) calcium and magnesium

Question 4.
Which muscle regulates the opening of oesophagus into the stomach?
(a) pyloric sphincter
(b) cardiac sphincter
(c) anal sphincter
(d) epiglottis
Answer:
(a) pyloric sphincter

Question 5.
The ‘V’ shaped part of the small intestine is …………
(a) ileum
(b) jejunum
(c) duodenum
(d) colon
Answer:
(c) duodenum

Question 6.
…………….. is the longest part of the small intestine
(a) Ileum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Duodenum
(d) Rectum
Answer:
(a) Ileum

Question 7.
Villi are concerned with
(a) secretion of enzymes
(b) secretion of mucus
(c) digestion of food
(d) absorption of digested food
Answer:
(d) absorption of digested food.

Question 8.
Peyer’s patches produce
(a) monocytes
(b) lymphocytes
(c) basophils
(d) neutrophils
Answer:
(b) lymphocytes

Question 9.
Which of the following are non-functional in human beings?
(a) Small intestine
(b) Duodenum
(c) lleum
(d) Vermiform appendix
Answer:
(d) Vermiform Appendix

Question 10.
…………… is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph vessels and sympathetic nerve fibres that control the secretions of intestinal juice.
(a) Serosa
(b) Sub-mucosa
(c) Mucosa
(d) Muscularis
(b) Sub-mucosa

Question 11.
………… secrete HCl in the stomach.
(a) Peptic cells
(b) Goblet cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Zymogen cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 12.
…………. stores bile secreted by the liver.
(a) Pancreatic duct
(b) Duodenum
(c) Hepatic duct
(d) Gall bladder
Answer:
(d) Gall bladder

Question 13.
Detoxification is one of the functions of –
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) pancreas
(d) stomach
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 14.
Which is the antibacterial agent present in the saliva?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Mucus
(c) Lysozyme
(d) Bicarbonates
Answer:
(c) Lysozyme

Question 15.
Salivary amylase hydrolyses …………
(a) proteins
(b) carbohydrate
(c) fats
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(b) carbohydrate

Question 16.
Pepsin is an enzyme ………….
(a) amylolytic
(b) lipolytic
(c) proteolytic
(d) proenzyme
Answer:
(c) proteolytic

Question 17.
Which enzyme acts on milk protein in infants in the presence of calcium ions?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Lipase
(d) Renin
Answer:
(d) Renin

Question 18.
Which is the active enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsin
(c) Trypsinogen
(d) Chymotrypsinogen
Answer:
(b) Trypsin

Question 19.
What are the breakdown products of haemoglobin?
(a) Bile salts
(b) Bilirubin and biliverdin
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(d) Cholesterol

Question 20.
Which of the following does not contain any enzyme?
(a) Gastric juice
(b) Bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Succus entericus
Answer:
(b) Bile

Question 21.
Identify the odd one ……….
(a) maltose
(b) lactose
(c) sucrose
(d) sucrase
Answer:
(d) sucrase

Question 22.
At the end of digestion, fats are converted into ………..
(a) amino acids
(b) glycerol and fatty acids
(c) glucose
(d) galactose
Answer:
(b) glycerol and fatty acids

Question 23.
Protein coated fat globules are called …………
(a) micelles
(b) villi
(c) microvilli
(d) chylomicrons
Answer:
(d) chylomicrons

Question 24.
The calorific value of carbohydrates is ………….
(a) 9.45
(b) 4.1
(c) 3.5
(d) 6.5
Answer:
(b) 4.1

Question 25.
Retaining feces in the rectum due to poor intake of fibre in the diet is called ………..
(a) vomiting
(b) indigestion
(c) constipation
(d) diarrhea
Answer:
(c) constipation

Question 26.
Which one of the following occurs due to reverse peristalsis?
(a) Vomiting
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Constipation
(d) Indigestion
Answer:
(a) Vomiting

Question 27.
The failure of the liver to break down haemoglobin is called……………….
(a) gall stone
(b) jaundice
(c) appendicitis
(d) hernia
Answer:
(c) appendicitis

Question 28.
Degeneration and destruction of liver cells resulting in an abnormal blood vessel and bile duct leading to the formation of fibrosis are known as ………………
(a) gall stones
(b) jaundice
(c) hernia
(d) liver cirrhosis
Answer:
(d) liver cirrhosis

Question 29.
What causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct, and hepato-pancreatic duct?
(a) Gall stones
(b) Jaundice
(c) Hernia
(d) Liver cirrhosis
Answer:
(a) Gall stones

Question 30.
Appendicitis is the inflammation of the ……………..
(a) caecum
(b) liver
(c) appendix
(d) rectum
Answer:
(c) appendix

Question 31.
Diarrhea happens due to ……………….
(a) taking in of more volume of water
(b) defective liver
(c) inflammation of the appendix
(d) the inability of the colon to absorb fluid from the feces
Answer:
(d) the inability of the colon to absorb fluid from the feces

Question 32.
The erosion of the mucosa in the stomach or duodenum is referred to as ……………….
(a) stomach ache
(b) peptic ulcer
(c) duodenal cancer
(d) diarrhea
Answer:
(b) peptic ulcer

Question 33.
The storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue is ……………
(a) peptic ulcer
(b) kwashiorkor
(c) jaundice
(d) obesity
Answer:
(d) obesity

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
Breakdown of macromolecules of food into micromolecules is ………….
Answer:
Digestion.

Question 2.
The tearing teeth are called as ……………….
Answer:
Canines

Question 3.
The deposition of calcium and magnesium salts on the teeth forms a hard layer called ……………..
Answer:
Tartar/calculus/plaque.

Question 4.
The oral cavity leads into a short common passage for food and air called ____________
Answer:
Pharynx.

Question 5.
Two masses of lymphoid tissues called are located at the sides of the pharynx.
Answer:
Tonsils.

Question 6.
The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the ……………
Answer:
Pyloric sphincter.

Question 7.
The inner wall of the stomach has many folds called which unfold to accommodate a large meal.
Answer:
Gastric rugae.

Question 8.
The wall of the duodenum has glands which secrete mucus and enzymes.
Answer:
Brunner’s.

Question 9.
The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called …………..
Answer:
Villi.

Question 10
are the mucus-secreting goblet cells and lymphoid tissue which produce lymphocytes.
Answer:
Peyer‘s patches.

Question 11.
The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of the villi called …………….
Answer:
Crypts of Leiberkuhn.

Question 12.
Caecum and vermiform appendix are an important sites for digestion in herbivores.
Answer:
Cellulose.

Question 13.
The dilations of the colon are called ……………..
Answer:
Haustra

Question 14.
The enlargement of the anal column causes …………..
Answer:
Piles/hemorrhoids

Question 15
………. is the outermost layer of the wall of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
Serosa.

Question 16.
The enzyme secreting cells of gastric glands are called cells.
Answer:
Peptic or zymogen.

Question 17.
The cells secrete HCl in the stomach.
Answer:
Parietal or oxyntic.

Question 18.
The is the largest gland in our body.
Answer:
Liver.

Question 19.
Each lobe of the liver is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the ……………
Answer:
Glisson’s capsule.

Question 20.
The detoxifies toxic substances.
Answer:
Liver.

Question 21.
The opening of the hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of
Answer:
Oddi.

Question 22
____ gland is both exocrine and endocrine.
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 23.
The successive waves of muscular contraction by which bolus passes down through the oesophagus are called __________
Answer:
Peristalsis.

Question 24
activates pepsinogen.
Answer:
HCl.

Question 25.
Renin converts caseinogen into casein in the presence of ions.
Answer:
Calcium.

Question 26
activates trypsinogen.
Answer:
Enterokinase.

Question 27.
Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and
Answer:
Peptones.

Question 28.
mucosa into the blood and lymph.
Answer:
Absorption.

Question 30.
The chylomicrons are transported within the intestinal villi.
Answer:
Lacteals.

Question 31.
The large intestine absorbs more amount of vitamins, some minerals, and certain drugs.
Answer:
Water.

Question 32.
The eqestion of feces through the anal opening is called ……………..
Answer:
Defecation

Question 33
_____________ are the major source of cellular fuel which provides energy.
Answer:
Carbohydrates.

Question 34
_________ are the best-reserved food stored in our body?
Answer:
Lipids.

Question 35.
Marasmus is a deficiency disease.
Answer:
Protein.

Question 36
is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of the stomach.
Answer:
Indigestion.

Question 37
is caused due to hepatitis viral infection.
Answer:
Jaundice.

Question 38.
The crystallized cholesterol in the bile forms …………….
Answer:
Gall stones.

Question 39
…………. is a structural abnormality in which the superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly
Answer:
Hiatus hernia.

Question 40.
Treatment for diarrhoea is known as therapy.
Answer:
Oral hydration.

Question 41
refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining in the stomach or duodenum.
Answer:
Peptic ulcer.

Question 42.
The ulcer is mostly due to infection caused by the bacterium
Answer
Helicobacter pylori.

Question 43
…………… is caused due to the storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue.
Answer:
Obesity.

III. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of bicarbonate in saliva?
Answer:

The bicarbonate of saliva keeps the pH at 5.8 – 7.4 level.
If the pH level decreases the acidity of saliva increases the enamel of teeth is affected.

Question 2.
What are the components of food?
Answer:
The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, fibre, and water.

Question 3.
What is the composition of bile?
Answer:
Bilirubin, Biliverdin, bile salts cholesterol phospholipid.

Question 4.
Why do plants not require a digestive system?
Answer:
Plants are autotrophs. They prepare their own food using CO₂, H₂O in the presence of sunlight trapped by the chlorophyll pigment present in the leaves. There is no need for the digestive system for plants as they use starch as such.

Question 5.
How is bile helped in the absorption of fat?
Answer:

The villiin the lumen of illem are the absorbing units consisting of a lacteal duct.
The fatty acids are absorbed by the capillaries of villi.

Question 6.
Define:
(a) Ingestion: The taking in of food is called ingestion.
(b) Digestion: The breakdown of the macromolecules into micromolecules by the action of digestive enzymes is called digestion.
(c) Absorption: The taking in of digested food materials into the bloodstream is called absorption.
(d) Assimilation: The conversion of absorbed food materials into components of cells is called assimilation.
(e) Egestion: The elimination of the undigested substances from the body is called egestion.

Question 7.
What is the thecodont dentition?
Answer:
Every tooth in human beings is embedded in a socket in the jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the thecodont dentition.

Question 8.
Why do we feel uneasy when we eat milk and milk product?
Answer:

To digest the lactose of milk the enzyme lactase is needed.
If this enzyme is absent or deficient in the intestine the lactose may be decomposed by bacteria and releases gas.
Hence there may be bloating stomach cramps and diarrhea.

Question 9.
What is heterodont dentition?
Answer:
Human beings have four different types of teeth namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars. This is known as heterodont dentition.

Question 10.
For what findings of Robin Warren and Barry marshall got nob el prize for the year 2005?
Answer:
Robin Warren and Barry Marshall have discovered that Helicobacter pylon is the causative agent of peptic ulcers. For the findings, they were awarded a noble prize in the year 2005.

Question 11.
What is gingivitis?
Answer:
Mineral salts like calcium and magnesium are deposited on the teeth and form a hard layer of ‘tartar’ or calculus called plaque. If the plaque formed on teeth is not removed regularly, it would spread down the tooth into the narrow gap between the gums and enamel and causes inflammation, called gingivitis, which leads to redness and bleeding of the gums and to bad smell.

Question 12.
What is enamel?
Answer:
The hard chewing surface of the teeth is made of enamel and helps in the mastication of food.

Question 13.
What is succus entericus? Write about its role in digestion.
Answer:

The Brunner’s glands and the intestinal glands all together secrete a juice known as succus entricus.
The intestinal and pancreatic enzymes are involved in digestion. Eg. Lipase amylase

Question 14.
What is the function of the cardiac sphincter?
Answer:
A cardiac sphincter or gastroesophageal sphincter regulates the opening of oesophagus into the stomach.

Question 15.
Give short notes on bacterias present in the body of man?
Answer:

There are 100 million bacteria present in the body of a man.
In our digestive system, there are beneficial bacteria, harmful bacteria, and neutral bacteria are seen.
Most of the bacteria are present in our large intestine. Here only the digestion ends.

Question 16.
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
Answer:
The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the pyloric sphincter. It periodically allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and also prevents regurgitation of food.

Question 17.
What is meant by assimilation?
answer:
All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substances for their activities and incorporate in into their protoplasm this process is called assimilation.

Question 18.
Write a short note on the small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine assists in the final digestion and absorption of food. It is the longest part of the alimentary canal and has three regions, a ‘U’ shaped duodenum (25 cm long), a long coiled middle portion jejunum (2.4m long), and highly coiled ileum (3.5 m long).

The wall of the duodenum has Brunner’s glands which secrete mucus and enzymes. The ileum is the longest part of the small intestine and opens into the caecum of the large intestine.

The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi which are involved in the process of absorption and the cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance that increases the surface area enormously.

Along with Villi, the ileal mucosa also contain mucus-secreting goblet cells and lymphoid tissue known as Peyer’s patches which produce lymphocytes. The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of villi called the crypts of Leiberkuhn.

Question 19.
Explain the structure of the large intestine.
Answer:
The large intestine consists of the caecum, colon, and rectum. The caecum is a small blind pouch-like structure that opens into the colon and it possesses a narrow finger-like tubular projection called the vermiform appendix.

Both caecum and vermiform appendix are large in herbivorous animals and act as an important site for cellulose digestion with the help of symbiotic bacteria. The colon is divided into four regions – an ascending, a transverse, a descending part, and a sigmoid colon.

The colon is lined by dilations called haustra (singular – haustrum) (Figure). The “S” shaped sigmoid colon (pelvic colon) opens into the rectum. Rectum is concerned with temporary storage of feces. The rectum open out through the anus. The anus is guarded by two anal sphincter muscles. The anal mucosa is folded into several vertical folds and contains arteries and veins called anal columns. Anal column may get enlarged and causes piles or haemorrhoids.

Question 20.
Explain the internal structure of the gut.
Answer:
The wall of the alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum consists of four layers (Figure) namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa. The serosa (visceral peritoneum) is the outermost layer and is made up of thin squamous epithelium with some connective tissues. Muscularis is made of smooth circular and longitudinal muscle fibres with a network of nerve cells and parasympathetic nerve fibres which controls peristalsis.

The submucosal layer is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph vessels and the sympathetic nerve fibres that control the secretions of intestinal juice. The innermost layer lining the lumen of the alimentary canal is the mucosa which secretes mucous.

Question 21.
Explain the salivary glands.
Answer:
There are three pairs of salivary glands in the mouth. They are the largest parotids gland in the cheeks, the sub-maxillary sub-mandibular in the lower jaw, and the sublingual beneath the tongue. These glands have ducts such as Stenson’s duct, Wharton’s duct, and Bartholin’s duct or duct of Rivinis respectively (Figure). The salivary juice secreted by the salivary glands reaches the mouth through these ducts. The daily secretion of saliva from salivary glands ranges from 1000 to 1500 mL.

Question 22.
Write a short note on gastric glands.
Answer:
The wall of the stomach is lined by gastric glands. Chief cells or peptic cells or zymogen cells in the gastric glands secrete gastric enzymes and Goblet cells secrete mucus. The Parietal or oxyntic cells secrete HCl and an intrinsic factor responsible for the absorption of Vitamin B₁₂ called Castle’s intrinsic factor.

Question 23.
Explain the structure of the liver.
Answer:
The liver, the largest gland in our body, is situated in the upper right side of the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm. The liver consists of two major left and right lobes; and two minor lobes. These lobes are connected with diaphragm. Each lobe has many hepatic lobules (functional unit of liver) and is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the Glisson’s capsule.

Liver cells (hepatic cells) secrete bile which is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder. The duct of gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the common bile duct.

The bile duct passes downwards and joins with the main pancreatic duct to form a common duct called the hepato-pancreatic duct. The opening of the hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi (Figure). Liver has high power of regeneration and liver cells are replaced by new ones every 3-4 weeks.

Question 24.
Write the functions of the liver.
Answer:
Apart from bile secretion, the liver also performs several functions.

Destroys aging and defective blood cells.
Stores glucose in the form of glycogen or disperses glucose into the bloodstream with the help of
pancreatic hormones.
Stores fat-soluble vitamins and iron.
Detoxifies toxic substances.
Involves in the synthesis of non-essential amino acids and urea.

Question 25.
Write on the secretions of the pancreas.
Answer:
The second-largest gland in the digestive system is the Pancreas, which is a yellow coloured, compound elongated organ consisting of exocrine and endocrine cells. It is situated between the limbs of the ‘U’ shaped duodenum.

The exocrine portion secretes pancreatic juice containing enzymes such as pancreatic amylase, trypsin and pancreatic lipase and the endocrine part called Islets of Langerhans secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon. The pancreatic duct directly opens into the duodenum.

Question 26.
Explain the digestion in the buccal cavity.
Answer:
The smell, sight, and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. Mechanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing food. It is called mastication.

The saliva contains water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– and HCO₃), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme, and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein). The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating, and adhering the masticated food into a bolus.

About 30 percent of polysaccharides, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose). The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Question 27.
Explain the digestion in the stomach.
Answer:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement chums and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes.

The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth. The gastric juice contains HCl and proenzymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction. The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl (Figure). Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is renin which helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions. This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging.

Question 28.
Explain the digestion in the small intestine.
Answer:
The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscular layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic analyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the breakdown products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in the emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids. The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose.

Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

Question 29.
Explain the process of absorption of the digested food.
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa into the blood and lymph. The villi in the lumen of the ileum are the absorbing units, consisting of a lacteal duct in the middle surrounded by fine network of blood capillaries. The process of absorption involves active, passive, and facilitated transport.

Small amounts of glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends upon concentration gradients. However, some of the substances like fructose are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na⁺.

This mechanism is called facilitated transport. Nutrients like amino acids, glucose, and electrolytes like Na⁺ are absorbed into the blood against the concentration gradient by active transport. The insoluble substances like fatty acids, glycerol, and fat-soluble vitamins are first incorporated into small, spherical water-soluble droplets called micelles and are absorbed into the intestinal mucosa where they are re-synthesized into protein-coated fat globules called chylomicrons which are then transported into the lacteals within the intestinal villi and eventually empty into the lymphatic duct.

The lymphatic ducts ultimately release the absorbed substances into the bloodstream. While the fatty acids are absorbed by the lymph duct, other materials are absorbed either actively or passively by the capillaries of the villi (Figure). Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed by simple diffusion or active transport. Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. The absorption of substances in the alimentary canal takes place in the mouth, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

However maximum absorption takes place in the small intestine. Absorption of simple sugars, alcohol, and medicines takes place in the stomach. Certain drugs are absorbed by blood capillaries in the lower side of the tongue and mucosa of the mouth. Large intestine is also involved in the absorption of more amounts of water, vitamins, some minerals, and certain drugs.

Question 30.
Write a note on assimilation.
Answer:
Absorbed substances are transported through blood and lymph to the liver through the hepatic portal system. From the liver, nutrients are transported to all other regions of the body for utilization. All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substance for their activities and incorporate into their protoplasm, this process is called assimilation.

Question 31.
Write a paragraph on egestion.
Answer:
The digestive waste and unabsorbed substances in the ileum enter into the large intestine and it mostly contains fibre called roughage. The roughage is utilized by symbiotic bacteria in the large intestine for the production of substances like vitamin K and other metabolites. All these substances are absorbed in the colon along with water.

The waste is then solidified into the fecal matter in the rectum. The fecal matter initiates a neural reflex causing an urge or desire for its removal. The egestion of feces through the anal opening is called defecation. It is a voluntary process and is carried out by a peristaltic movement.

Question 32.
Write on carbohydrates and lipids.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are sugar and starch. These are the major source of cellular fuel which provides energy. The caloric value of carbohydrate is 4.1 calories per gram and its physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal per gram. Lipids are fats and derivatives of fats, are also the best-reserved food stored in our body which is used for production of energy. Fat has a caloric value of 9.45 Kcal and a physiological fuel value of 9 Kcal per gram.

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on proteins.
Answer:
Proteins are a source of amino acids required for the growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent; large quantities are excreted as nitrogenous waste. The caloric value and physiological fuel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal respectively. According to ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research) and WHO (World Health Organization), the daily requirement of protein for an average Indian is 1 gm per 1 kg body weight.

Question 34.
What is Sphincter of Oddi?
Answer:

Liver cells secrete bile which is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder.
The duct of the gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the common bile duct.
The bile duct passes downwards and joins with the main pancreatic duct to form a common duct called the hepatopancreatic duct.
The opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a Sphincter called the Sphincter of Oddi.

Question 35.
What is peritonitis?
Answer:

It is the inflammation of the vermiform appendix. Leading to serve abdominal pain.
The treatment involves the removal of appendix by surgery.
If the treatment is delayed the appendix may rupture and results in an infection of the abdomen called peritonitis.

Question 36.
What is constipation?
Answer:
In this condition, the feces are retained within the rectum because of irregular bowel movement due to poor intake of fibre in the diet and lack of physical activities.

Question 37.
What is vomiting?
Answer:
It is reverse peristalsis. Harmful substances and contaminated food from the stomach are ejected through the mouth. This action is controlled by the vomit center located in the medulla oblongata. A feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.

Question 38.
Write a short note on jaundice.
Answer:
It is the condition in which liver is affected and the defective liver fails to break down haemoglobin and to remove bile pigments from the blood. The deposition of these pigments changes the colour of the eye and skin yellow. Sometimes, jaundice is caused due to hepatitis viral infections.

Question 39.
Write a short note on liver cirrhosis.
Answer:
Chronic disease of the liver results in degeneration and destruction of liver cells resulting in an abnormal blood vessel and bile duct leading to the formation of fibrosis. It is also called deserted liver or scarred liver. It is caused due to infection, consumption of poison, malnutrition, and alcoholism.

Question 40.
Write a short note on gall stones.
Answer:
Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder. The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile. The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct, and also hepato-pancreatic duct causing pain, jaundice, and pancreatitis.

Question 41.
What is appendicitis?
Answer:
It is the inflammation of the vermiform appendix, leading to severe abdominal pain. The treatment involves the removal of the appendix by surgery. If treatment is delayed the appendix may rupture and results in infection of the abdomen, called peritonitis.

Question 42.
Give short notes on the pharynx.
Answer:

The oral cavity leads into a common passage for food and air is called the pharynx.
The oesophagus and the trachea open to the pharynx.
Food passes into the oesophagus through a wide opening called a gullet at the back of the pharynx.
A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis during swallowing.
Two masses of lymphoid tissue called tonsils are also located at the sides of the pharynx.

Heart bum is also common in those with a hiatus hernia. In this condition, stomach contents travel back into the oesophagus or even into the oral cavity and cause pain in the center of the chest due to the eroding nature of acidity.

Question 43.
Write a short note on diarrhea.
Answer:
It is the most common gastrointestinal disorder worldwide. It is sometimes caused by bacteria or viral infections through food or water. When the colon is infected, the lining of the intestine is damaged by the pathogens, thereby the colon is unable to absorb fluid.

The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the fecal discharge is known as diarrhoea. Unless the condition is treated, dehydration can occur. Treatment is known as oral hydration therapy. This involves drinking plenty of fluids – sipping small amounts of water at a time to rehydrate the body.

Question 44.
Give an account of the histology of the gut.
Answer:
The wall of the alimentary canal from oesophagus to the rectum consists of four layers.
1. Serosa Layer:
It is the outermost layer and is made up of thin squamous epithelium.

2. Muscular Layer:
It is made of smooth circular and longitudinal muscle fibres with a network of nerve cells of parasympathetic nerve fibers.

3. Submucosal Layer:
It is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph, and sympathetic nerve fibers that control the secretions of intestinal juice.

4. Mucosa Layer:
It is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal which secretes mucous.

Question 45.
What is obesity?
Answer:
It is caused due to the storage of excess of body fat in adipose tissue. It may induce hypertension, atherosclerotic heart disease, and diabetes. Obesity may be genetic or due to excess intake of food, endocrine, and metabolic disorders.

Question 46.
Write a note on BMI.
Answer:
Degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI). A normal BMI range for adults is 19 – 25; above 25 is considered as obese. BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of body height in meters. For example, a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 cm would have a BMI of 19.5.
That is BMI = 50 / 1.62= 19.5

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Respiration

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Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 6 Respiration Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Respiration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Breathing is controlled by ………..
(a) cerebrum
(b) medulla oblongata
(c) cerebellum
(d) pons
Answer:
(b) medulla oblongata

Question 2.
Intercostal muscles are found between the ………..
(a) vertebral column
(b) sternum
(c) ribs
(d) glottis
Answer:
(c) ribs

Question 3.
The respiratory structures of insects are ………..
(a) tracheal tubes
(b) gills
(c) green glands
(d) lungs
Answer:
(a) tracheal tubes

Question 4.
Asthma is caused due to ………..
(a) inflammation of bronchus and bronchioles
(b) inflammation of branchiole
(c) damage of diaphragm
(d) infection of lungs
Answer:
(d) infection of lungs

Question 5.
The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is ………..
(a) sigmoid
(b) straight line
(c) curved
(d) rectangular hyperbola
Answer:
(a) sigmoid

Question 6.
The Tidal Volume of a normal person is ………..
(a) 800 mL
(b) 1200 mL
(c) 500 mL
(d) 1100- 1200 mL
Answer:
(c) 500 mL

Question 7.
During inspiration, the diaphragm ………..
(a) expands
(b) unchanged
(c) relaxes to become dome-shaped
(d) contracts and flattens
Answer:
(d) contracts and flattens

Question 8.
CO₂ is transported through blood to lungs as ………..
(a) carbonic acid
(b) oxyhaemoglobin
(c) carbamino haemoglobin
(d) carboxy haemoglobin
Answer:
(c) carbamino haemoglobin

Question 9.
When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called ………..
(a) vital capacity
(b) tidal volume
(c) residual volume
(d) inspiratory reserve volume
Answer:
(b) tidal volume

Question 10.
Vital capacity is ………..
(a) TV + IRV
(b) TV + ERV
(c) RV + ERV
(d) TV + TRV + ERV
Answer:
(d) TV + TRV + ERV

Question 11.
After a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to ………..
(a) more CO₂ in the blood
(b) more O₂ in the blood
(c) less CO₂ in the blood
(d) less CL in the blood
Answer:
(b) more O₂ in the blood

Question 12.
Which of the following substances in tobacco smoke damage the gas exchange system?
(a) carbon monoxide and carcinogens
(b) carbon monoxide and nicotine
(c) carcinogens and tar
(d) nicotine and tar
Answer:
(d) nicotine and tar

Question 13.
Column I represents diseases and column II represents their symptoms. Choose the correctly paired option

Column I	Column II
(P) Asthma	(i) Recurring of bronchitis
(Q) Emphysema	(ii) Accumulation of WBCs in alveolus
(R) Pneumonia	(iii) Allergy

(a) P = iii, Q = ii, R = i
(b) P = iii, Q = i, R = ii
(c) P = ii, Q = iii, R = i
(d) P = ii, Q = i, R = iii
Answer:
(a) P = iii, Q = ii, R = i

Question 14.
Which of the following best describes the process of gas exchange in the lungs?
(a) Air moves in and out of the alveoli during breathing.
(b) Carbon dioxide diffuses from deoxygenated blood in capillaries into the alveolar air.
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air.
(d) Oxygen diffuses from alveolar air into deoxygenated blood.
Answer:
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air.

Question 15.
Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
(P) IC	i. maximum volume of air breathe in after forced.
(Q) EC	ii. Volume of air present after expiration in lungs.
(R) VC	iii. Volume of air inhaled after expiration.
(S) FRC	iv. Volume of air present after expiration in lungs.

(a) P – i, Q – ii, R – iii, S – iv
(b) P – ii, Q – iii, R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii, Q – iii , R – i, S – iv
(d) P – iii, Q – iv , R – i, S – ii
Answer:
(d) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii

Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
(P) Tidal volume	i. 1000 to 1100 ml
(Q) Residual volume	ii. 500 ml
(R) Expiratory reserve volume	iii. 2500 to 3000 ml
(S) Inspiratory reserve volume	iv. 1100 to 1200 ml

(a) P – ii, Q – iv , R – i, S – iii
(b) P – iii. Q – ii , R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii, Q – iv , R – iii, S – i
(d) P – iii , Q – iv , R – i, S – ii
Answer:
(a) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 17.
Name the respiratory organs of flatworm, earthworm, fish, prawn, cockroach, and cat.
Answer:
Flatworm – Body surface
Earthworm – Body wall
Fish -Gills
Prawn -Gills
Cockroach -Trachea
Cat -Lungs

Question 18.
Name the enzyme that catalyses the bicarbonate formation in RBCs.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 19.
Air moving from the nose to the trachea passes through a number of structures. List in order of the structures.
Answer:

Question 20.
Which structure seals the larynx when we swallow?
Answer:
Epiglottis.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 21.
Resistance in the airways is typically low. Why? Give two reasons.
Answer:

As the cartilaginous rings present in the trachea provide an easy way for air. The bronchi have ‘C’ shaped curved cartilage plates to ensure that the air passage does not collapse.
The rigidity of bronchioles prevents them from collapsing. Thus the air reaches the lungs without any disturbances.

Question 22.
How the body makes long-term adjustments when living in high altitude?
Answer:
When a person lives at a higher altitude, the body makes respiratory and hematopoietic adjustments. Kidneys accelerate the production of the hormone erythropoietin which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. This improves the binding of 02 with hemoglobin.

Question 23.
Why is pneumonia considered a dangerous disease?
Answer:
In pneumonia there is inflammation of the lungs leads to the damage of alveoli. As there are sputum production Nasal congestion, sore throat and shortness of breath it is considered as a dangerous disease.

Question 24.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in any other part of the respiratory system. Discuss.
Answer:
The alveolar region is highly vascular. Each alveolus is made up of highly permeable and thin layers of squamous epithelial cells. The barrier between the alveoli and the capillaries is thin and diffusion of gases takes place from higher partial pressure to low er partial pressure. Hence, gaseous exchange takes place in the aboral region only but not in any other part of the respiratory system.

Question 25.
Sketch a flow chart to show the pathway of airflow during respiration.
Answer:

Question 26.
Explain the conditions which create problems in oxygen transport.
Answer:
When a person travels from sea level to elevations above 8000 feet where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of O₂ are lowered, he will have symptoms of acute mountain sickness, headache, shortness of breath nausea, and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

When a person descends deep into the sea the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.
It leads to keep more oxygen in the circulation.
But that leads to an increase in blood nitrogen leads to nitrogen narcosis.
When he ascends to the surface he will suffer from a condition called bends.
Large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings.
Symptom: Pain in joints and muscles, Stroke.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
The length of human trachea is about ……….. [Gujarat CETQB]
(a) 6 inches
(b) 12 cm
(c) 12 inches
(d) 18 cm
Answer:
(b) 12 cm

Question 2.
Hamburger’s phenomenon is also known as ……….. [CPMT1988,1991, AMU2001, JLPMER 2002]
(a) HCO₃ shift
(b) Na+ shift
(c) H+ shift
(d) Chloride shift
Answer:
(d) Chloride shift

Question 3.
Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is ……….. [CPMT1990]
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(a) 20%

Question 4.
Respiratory movements are controlled by ……….. [APMEE 1978, CPMT 1998]
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Crura cerebri
Answer:
(c) Medulla oblongata

Question 5.
At higher CO₂ concentration, oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will ……….. [CPMTX 990]
(a) Move to left
(b) Move to right
(c) Become irregular
(d) Move upwardly
Answer:
(b) Move to right

Question 6.
Chloride shift is required for transport of ……….. [CPMT 1990]
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide

Question 7.
Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known ……….. [CMPTl 992, AMU 2000]
(a) Inspiratory capacity
(b) Total Lung capacity
(c) Tidal volume
(d) Residual volume
Answer:
(c) Tidal volume

Question 8.
Oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to the right on the decrease of ……….. [AMU 1992]
(a) Acidity
(b) Carbon dioxide concentration
(c) Temperature
(d) pH
Answer:
(d) pH

Question 9.
Double membrane pleural sac ……….. [JKCMEE 1992]
(a) Envelops the kidneys
(b) Envelops the brain
(c) Envelops the lungs
(d) Lines the nasal passage
Answer:
(c) Envelops the lungs

Question 10.
The volume of air remaining in lungs after maximum respiratory’ effort is ……….. [JKCMEE 1992, Har. PMT 2003]
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Residual volume
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Tidal volume
Answer:
(b) Residual volume

Question 11.
In expiration, the diaphragm becomes ………..
(a) Flattened
(b) Relaxed
(c) Straightened
(d) Arched
Answer:
(b) Relaxed

Question 12.
Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to the respiratory surface by only ………..
(a) Plasma and erythrocytes
(b) Plasma
(c) Erythrocytes
(d) Erythrocytes and leucocytes
Answer:
(a) Plasma and erythrocytes

Question 13.
Respiratory centre is situated in ……….. [CPMT1980,2002, BHU1995, MPPMT1998, RPAPT2006]
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(b) Medulla oblongata

Question 14.
Air is breathed through ……….. [APMEE 1999]
(a) Trachea → lung → laiynx → phaiynx → alveoli
(b) Nose → larynx → pharynx → alveoli → bronchioles
(c) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(d) Nose → mouth → lungs.
Answer:
(c) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

Question 15.
Which is false?
(a) Blood from the right side of the heart is carried to the lungs by the pulmonary artery
(b) Pleura is the double covering of the kidney
(c) Pancreas is both exocrine & endocrine gland
(d) Scurvy is due to a vitamin C deficiency
Answer:
(b) Pleura is the double covering of the kidney

Question 16.
The volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is ………..
(a) residual volume
(b) vital volume
(c) tidal volume
(d) normal volume
Answer:
(c) Tidal volume

Question 17.
Body tissue obtain oxygen from hemoglobin due to its dissociation in tissues is caused by ……….. [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Low oxygen concentration and high carbon dioxide concentration
(b) Low oxygen concentration
(c) Low carbon dioxide concentration
(d) High carbon dioxide concentration
Answer:
(b) Low oxygen concentration

Question 18.
Lungs have a number of alveoli for ………..[MPPMT 1995]
(a) Having spongy texture and proper shape
(b) More surface area for diffusion of gases
(c) More space for the increasing volume of inspired air
(d) More nerve supply
Answer:
(b) More surface area for diffusion of gases

Question 19.
Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is ………..
(a) Inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air
(b) Inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage of residual air
(c) An efficient system of ventilation with no residual air
(d) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air
Answer:
(d) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air

Question 20.
During the transport of CO₂ blood does not become acidic due to ………..
(a) Neutralisation of H₂CO₂ by Na₂CO₃
(b) Absorption by leucocytes
(c) Blood buffers
(d) Non-accumulation
Answer:
(c) Blood buffers

Question 21.
At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will ………..
(a) Increase in number
(b) Decrease in number
(c) Decrease in size
(d) increase in size
Answer:
(a) Increase in number

Question 22.
CO₂ is transported ………..
(a) as dissolved in blood plasma
(c) as carbamino haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) as carbamino haemoglobin and carbonic acid

Question 23.
Maximum amount 70-75% of carbon dioxide transport occurs. [RPMT1996, 1998, MPPMT1998, CPMT 1998, BV 2002]
(a) Dissolved in plasma
(b) Carbaminohaemoglobin complex
(c) Bicarbonate
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Bicarbonate

Question 24.
Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of ………..
(a) Fibrous cartilage
(b) Calcified cartilage
(c) Elastic cartilage
(d) Hyaline cartilage
Answer:
(d) Hyaline cartilage

Question 25.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in blood through ………..
(a) Platelets and corpuscles
(b) RBCs and WBCs
(c) WBCs and serum
(d) RBCs and plasma
Answer:
(d) RBCs and plasma

Question 26.
About 1500 ml of air left in lungs is called ………..
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Residual volume
(d) Vital capacity
Answer:
(c) Residual volume

Question 27.
Which one protects the lungs? [BHU1990]
(a) Ribs
(b) Vertebral column
(c) Sternum
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 28.
Which one has the lowest value?
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume
(d) Expiratory reserve volume
Answer:
(b) Vital capacity

Question 29.
A child was killed through asphyxiation. Postmortem confirmed it because a piece of lung put in water ………..[MPPMT 1996]
(a) Settled down
(b) Kept floating
(c) Had blood spots
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Kept floating

Question 30.
The amount of oxygen present in one gram of haemoglobin is ……….. [AII MS 1997, Har. PMT, 2000]
(a) 20 ml
(b) 1-34 ml
(c) 13-4 ml
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 1-34 ml

Question 31.
A molecule of haemoglobin carries how many oxygen molecules ……….. [MPPMT 1997, CFMT 2002, JCMEE 2004]
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 32.
In carbon monoxide poisoning there is ……….. [AFMC 1997]
(a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration
(b) Decrease in oxygen availability
(c) Decrease in free haemoglobin
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Decrease in free haemoglobin

Question 33.
Exchange of gases in lung alveoli occurs through ……….. [AFMC 2002]
(a) Active transport
(b) Osmosis
(c) Simple diffusion
(d) Passive transport
Answer:
(c) Simple diffusion

Question 34.
Haemoglobin is …………
(a) Vitamin
(b) Skin pigment
(c) Blood carrier
(d) Respiratory pigments
Answer:
(d) Respiratory pigments

Question 35.
Vocal cords occur in ………..
(a) Pharynx
(b) Larynx
(c) Glottis
(d) Bronchial tube
Answer:
(b) larynx

Question 36.
The cells which do not respire ……….. [4FMC 2001]
(a) Epidermal cells
(b) Sieve cells
(c) Cortical cells
(d) Erythrocytes
Answer:
(d) Erythrocytes

Question 37.
Hiccough (hiccup) is due to the activity of ………..
(a) Intercostal muscles
(b) Food in the air tract
(e) Diaphragm
(d) Inadequate oxygen in the environment
Answer:
(c) Diaphragm

Question 38.
Bicarbonate formed inside erythrocytes moves out to plasma while chloride of plasma passes into erythrocytes. The phenomenon is called ………..
(a) Bicarbonate shift
(b) Carbonation
(c) Hamburger phenomenon
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Hamburger phenomenon

Question 39.
The respiratory centre of the brain is stimulated by ……….. [AllMS 2000]
(a) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood
(b) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood
(c) Oxygen content in venous blood
(d) Oxygen content in arterial blood
Answer:
(d) Oxygen content in arterial blood

Question 40.
A higher CO₂ concentration of blood causes ……….. [AMU 2001]
(a) Slow diffusion of CO₂ from the blood
(b) Slow transport of CO₂ from the blood
(c) Slow diffusion of O, from blood
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(c) Slow diffusion of O₂ from blood

Question 41.
Gases diffuse over the respiratory surface because of ………..
(a) O, is more in alveoli than in blood
(b) 02 is more in blood than in tissues
(c) CO₂ is more in alveoli than in blood
(d) PCO₂ is more in blood than in tissues
Answer:
(a) 02 is more in alveoli than in blood

Question 42.
Dissociation curve of 02 (which is dissociation from Hb) shifts to the rights ………..
(a) 02 concentration decrease
(b) CO₂ concentration decreases
(c) CO₂ concentration increase
(d) Chloride concentration increases
Answer:
(c) CO₂ concentration increase

Question 43.
Thoracic cage of man is formed of ……….. [MPPMT 2002]
(a) Ribs and sternum
(b) Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae
(c) Ribs, sternum, and lumbar vertebrae
(d) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
Answer:
(b) Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae

Question 44.
Vital capacity of lung is equal to ……….
(a) IRV + ERV + TV
(b) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
(c) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(d) IRV + ERV
Answer:
(a) IRV + ERV + TV

Question 45.
Dead space is ………….
(a) Upper respiratory tract
(b) Nasal chambers
(c) Alveolar space
(d) Lower respiratory tract
Answer:
(a) Upper respiratory tract

Question 46.
Carbon monoxide contained in Tobacco smoke ……….. [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Is carcinogenic
(b) Causes gastric ulcers
(c) Reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
(d) Raises blood pressure
Answer:
(c) Reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Question 47
What is correct?
(a) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation
(b) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation
(c) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary ventilation
(d) Both are variable
Answer:
(b) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation

Question 48.
An increase in CO₂ concentration shall cause ………..
(a) Slower and shallower breathing
(b) Slower and deeper breathing
(e) Faster and deeper breathing
(d) No effect on breathing
Answer:
(c) Faster and deeper breathing

Question 49.
Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with reduced surface area in heavy smokers. the condition is called ………..
(a) Silicosis
(b) Emphysema
(c) Asthma
(d) Bronchitis
Answer:
(b) Emphysema

Question 50.
SARS is caused by a variant of ……….. [AIIMS 2004]
(a) Pneumococcus pneumonia
(b) Common cold by Corona virus
(c) Asthma
(d) Bronchitis
Answer:
(b) Common cold by Corona virus

Question 51.
During inspiration ……….. [JJPMER 2004, RPMT 20051
(a) Diaphragm and external muscles relax
(b) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles relax
(c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
(d) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles contract
Answer:
(c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract

Question 52.
Mountain sickness at high altitude is due to ……….. [CPMT 2005]
(a) Excess CO₂ in blood
(b) Decreased CO₂ in air
(c) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen
(d) Decreased efficiency of haemoglobin
Answer:
(c) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen

Question 53.
Capacity of human lungs for air in a healthy person is ………..
(a) 3000 ml
(b) 1500 ml
(c) 1000 ml
(d) 500 ml
Answer:
(a) 3000 ml

Question 54.
Rate of breathing is controlled by ………….
(a) Amount of freely available oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide in the blood
(c) Muscular functions of the body
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Carbon dioxide in the blood

Question 55.
During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted into ………..
(a) Glycogen
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Starch
(d) Lactic acid
Answer:
(d) Lactic acid

Question 56.
How much pulmonary air is expired normally? [ PMT 2005]
(a) 70°io
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(d) 32%

Question 57.
Which is incorrect?
(a) Presence of non-respiratory air sacs increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(b) In insects, circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(c) Principle of counter-current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
(d) Residual air in the lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
Answer:
(b) In insects, circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

Question 58.
The percentage of oxygen being carried by blood plasma is ………..
(a) 6-9%
(b) 3-6%
(c) 2-3%
(d) 1-2%
Answer:
(c) 2-3%

Question 59.
Name of the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls: [RE-NEET 2015]
(a) Asthma
(b) Pleurisy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(c) Emphysema

Question 60.
Asthma may be attributed to ……….. [AIPMT/NEET 2016]
(a) bacterial infection of the lungs
(b) an allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(c) inflammation of the trachea
(d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
Answer:
(b) an allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

Question 61.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking: [RE-NEET 2016]
(a) Emphysema
(b) Asthma
(c) Respiratory acidosis
(d) Respiratory alkalosis
Answer:
(a) Emphysema

Question 62.
Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration. [NEET 20171]
(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume
Answer:
(d) Residual Volume

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Respiration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Insects respire through ………..
(a) body surface
(b) trachea
(c) gills
(d) book lungs
Answer:
(b) trachea

Question 2.
Which of the following does not belong to the conducting zone of the respiratory system?
(a) trachea
(b) bronchioles
(c) larynx
(d) alveoli
Answer:
(d) alveoli

Question 3.
The trachea is supported by the ………..
(a) long structure
(b) cartilage
(c) multiple cartilaginous rings
(d) ligaments
Answer:
(c) multiple cartilaginous rings

Question 4.
Which of the following is right regarding the bronchioles?
(a) the trachea divides into bronchioles
(b) bronchioles have cartilaginous rings
(c) bronchioles collapse when the air pressure is more
(d) bronchioles are without cartilaginous rings
Answer:
(d) bronchioles are without cartilaginous rings

Question 5.
The lungs are protected ventrally by ………..
(a) vertebral column
(b) sternum
(c) ribs
(d) diaphragm
Answer:
(b) sternum

Question 6.
The function of pleural fluid is to ………..
(a) keep the lungs intact
(b) protect the lungs from getting firm
(c) maintain the texture of the lungs
(d) reduces friction when lungs expand and contract
Answer:
(d) reduce friction when lungs expand and contract

Question 7.
Which of the following happens during inspiration?
(a) Diaphragm becomes dome-shaped
(b) internal intercostal muscles contract
(c) volume of the thoracic chamber increases
(d) ribs are pulled downward
Answer:
(c) volume of the thoracic chamber increases

Question 8.
The amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is called the ………..
(a) residual volume
(b) inspiratory reserve volume
(c) dead space
(d) tidal volume
Answer:
(d) tidal volume

Question 9.
The normal value of IRV is ………..
(a) 500 mL
(b) 2500-3000 mL
(c) 1100-1200 mL
(d) 150 mL
Answer:
(b) 2500-3000 mL

Question 10.
UV + RV =
(a) EC
(b) TLC
(c) IC
(d) VC
Answer:
(b) TLC

Question 11.
Which of the following is not involved in gaseous exchange?
(a) expiratory reserve volume
(b) inspiratory reserve volume
(c) residual volume
(d) dead space
Answer:
(d) dead space

Question 12.
Each haemoglobin can combine with molecules of oxygen.
(a) one
(b) four
(c) three
(d) two
Answer:
(b) four

Question 13.
The ferric state of haemoglobin ………..
(a) binds with oxygen
(b) binds with carbon dioxide
(c) does not bind with oxygen
(d) does not bind with carbon dioxide
Answer:
(c) does not bind with oxygen

Question 14.
Which of the following is incorrect with regard to the formation of oxyhemoglobin in the alveoli?
(a) high pCO₂
(b) less H+ concentration
(c) low pCO₂
(d) low temperature
Answer:
(a) high pCO₂

Question 15.
Carbon dioxide is carried in the RBCs as ………..
(a) bicarbonate ions
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbonic acid
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin
Answer:
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin

Question 16.
The formation of is catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in RBCs ………..
(a) carbonates
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin
(c) carbonic acid
(d) bicarbonates
Answer:
(c) carbonic acid

Question 17.
The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm center is highly sensitive to ………..
(a) CO₂ alone
(b) H⁺ alone
(c) O₂
(d) CO₂ and H⁺
Answer:
(d) CO₂ and H⁺

Question 18.
Which is known as the respiratory rhythm centre?
(a) cerebellum
(b) pons varoli
(c) medulla oblongata
(d) infundibulium
Answer:
(c) medulla oblongata

Question 19.
When a person travels to higher elevations, he may develop the symptoms of acute mountain sickness. This is because of ………..
(a) nitrogen narcosis
(b) high level of carbon dioxide in the blood
(c) low immunity
(d) poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin

Question 20.
Erythropoietin hormone stimulates the bone marrow to produce more ………..
(a) WBCs
(b) RBCs
(c) Platelets
(d) Electrolytes
Answer:
(b) RBCs

Question 21.
When a person goes deep into the sea, he/she develops complications due to ………..
(a) the increased partial pressure of O₂
(b) increase in blood nitrogen content
(c) the increased partial pressure of CO₂
(d) the decrease in the pressure in the surrounding water
Answer:
(b) increase in blood nitrogen content

Question 22.
Scuba divers need to face the problem of ………..
(a) nitrogen narcosis
(b) low oxygen content
(c) high carbon dioxide content
(d) lower pressure
Answer:
(a) nitrogen narcosis

Question 23.
Narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is called as ………..
(a) emphysema
(b) bronchitis
(c) asthma
(d) pneumonia
Answer:
(c) asthma

Question 24.
Gradual break down of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of the gaseous exchange is ………..
(a) bronchitis
(b) emphysema
(c) asthma
(d) tuberculosis
Answer:
(b) emphysema

Question 25.
What causes bronchitis?
(a) Decrease in the surface area of alveoli
(b) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(c) inflammation of bronchi
(d) collection of fluid in the bronchi
Answer:
(c) inflammation of bronchi

Question 26.
Which of the following is caused by bacteria?
(a) pneumonia
(b) emphysema
(c) silicosis
(d) tuberculosis
Answer:
(d) tuberculosis

Question 27.
Which of the following is occupational respiratory disease?
(a) tuberculosis
(b) emphysema
(c) silicosis
(d) pneumonia
Answer:
(c) silicosis

Question 28.
Why does smoking affect the oxygen supply to the body?
(a) haemoglobin fails to bind with O₂
(b) haemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide
(c) Nicotine makes the heart heat faster
(d) Blood vessels are narrowed
Answer:
(b) haemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide

Question 29.
COPD is the ………..
(a) emphysema and chronic bronchitis
(b) asthma and emphysema
(c) emphysema
(d) asthma, chronic bronchitis and emphysema
Answer:
(d) asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Oxygen is necessary for the breakdown to release energy.
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 2
……………. produce sound in human beings.
Answer:
Larynx/vocal cords.

Question 3.
……………… are the respiratory organs in most of the aquatic arthropods and molasses.
Answer:
Gills.

Question 4.
The ciliated epithelial cells lining the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles secrete …………….
Answer:
Mucus.

Question 5
divides thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity.
Answer:
Diaphragm.

Question 6.
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as …………
Answer:
Ventilation/breathing.

Question 7
……………. is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs.
Answer:
Inspiration.

Question 8.
……………… In a relaxed stage, the diaphragm is shaped.
Answer:
Dome.

Question 9.
The expulsion of air from the lungs to the atmosphere is known as ……………..
Answer:
Expiration.

Question 10
………….. in an instrument used to measure the volume of air involved in breathing movements.
Answer:
Spirometer.

Question 11.
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration is ……………
Answer:
Residual volume.

Question 12.
The maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration is …………..
Answer:
Vital capacity.

Question 13.
The total volume of air a person can inhale after normal inspiration is …………….
Answer:
Inspiratory capacity.

Question 14.
The total volume of air a person can exhale after normal inspiration is ……………..
Answer:
Expiratory capacity.

Question 15.
…………….. is the total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration.
Answer:
Total lung capacity.

Question 16.
The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute is called ……………
Answer:
Minute respiratory volume.

Question 17
……………… is the air that is not involved in gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Dead space.

Question 18
………………. is the pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.
Answer:
Partial pressure.

Question 19.
Haemoglobin belongs to the class of …………..
Answer:
Conjugated protein.

Question 20.
Haemoglobin is made up of iron and the rest colourless protein
Answer:
Haem, globin.

Question 21.
The ferric state of haemoglobin is called …………….
Answer:
Methemoglobin.

Question 22
……………. is the respiratory pigment present in the blood.
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 23.
The blood of human being is red due to the presence of …………….
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 24.
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver about mL of O, to the tissues.
Answer:
5.

Question 25.
About 70% of CO₂ transport occurs as ions.
Answer:
Bicarbonate.

Question 26.
The reversible reaction of formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water is catalyzed by the enzyme called …………………
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 27
center present in pons Varoli region of the brain moderates the function of the respiratory rhythm center.
Answer:
Pneumotaxic.

Question 28
……………… is the hormone secreted by kidneys to stimulate the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.
Answer:
Erythropoietin.

Question 29.
The increase in the nitrogen content in blood heads to a condition called ………………..
Answer:
Nitrogen narcosis.

Question 30.
The skin turns bluish-black during poisoning.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 31.
Dust, drugs, pollen grains, fish, prawns are common for asthma.
Answer:
Allergens.

Question 32.
Cigarette smoking reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls and it is known as ……………….
Answer:
Emphysema.

Question 33.
Cough, shortness of breath, and sputum in the lungs are the symptoms of ………………
Answer:
Bronchitis.

Question 34.
Tuberculosis is caused by ……………….
Answer:
Mycobacterium tubercular

Question 35.
Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the complication of the disease …………..
Answer:
Tuberculosis.

Question 36.
Long exposure to dust gives rise to inflammation leading to ………………
Answer:
Fibrosis.

Question 37
……………… and asbestosis are occupational respiratory diseases resulting from inhalation of particles of silica from sand grinding and asbestos into the respiratory tract.
Answer:
Silicosis.

Question 38
……………… causes narrowing of blood vessels resulting in an increase in blood pressure and coronary heart disease.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 39.
……………….. Smoking lowers the count in men.
Answer:
Sperm.

Question 40
…………….. is the chemical present in the cigarette smoke that causes addiction.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 41.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is due to
Answer:
Smoking.

Question 42.
A non-smoker who inhales cigarette smoke involves in smoking.
Answer:
Passive.

Question 43.
Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma, COPD, cancer may be caused due to
Answer:
Smoking.

Question 44.
Cigarette smoke contains thousands of chemicals and even small quantities of
Answer:
Arsenic.

Question 45.
The presence in the cigarette smoke damages the gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Tar.

III. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
What is Tidal volume?
Answer:
Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath
Ex. 500 ml

Question 2.
What are the functions of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The five primary functions of the respiratory system are –

To exchange O₂ and CO₂ between the atmosphere and the blood.
To maintain homeostatic regulation of body pH.
To protect us from inhaled pathogens and pollutants.
To maintain the vocal cords for normal communication (vocalization).
To remove the heat produced during cellular respiration through breathing.

Question 3.
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
Answer:

The additional volume of air a person can inspire by forceful inspiration is called inspiratory reserve volume.
The normal value is 2500 – 3000 ml.

Question 4.
What is the function of hairs and mucus in the nasal cavity?
Answer:
The hairs and mucus filter the dust particles present in the air passing through the nostrils.

Question 5.
What is meant by vital capacity?
Answer:

The maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration.
VC = ERV + TV + IRV

Question 6.
What are the layers of the diffusion membrane of the alveolus?
Answer:
The diffusion membrane of the alveolus is made up of three layers. They are:

The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli.
The endothelium of the alveolar capillaries and
The basement substance found in between them.

Question 7.
What are the cells of the squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli?
Answer:
The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli are composed of Type I and Type II cells. Type I cells are very thin so that gases can diffuse rigidly through them. Type II cells are thicker. They synthesize and secrete a substance called surfactant. It lowers the surface tension in the alveoli and prevents pulmonary edema.

Question 8.
What is meant by total lung capacity?
Answer:

The total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration is called total lung capacity.
Total lung capacity = Vital capacity + Residual volume.
TLC = VC + RV

Question 9.
What is pleura? What is its function?
Answer:
The lungs are covered by a double-layered pleural membrane containing several layers of elastic connective tissues and capillaries. It encloses the pleural fluid which reduces friction when the lungs expand and contract.

Question 10.
What is the function of Goblet cells?
Answer:

The mucous membrane lining the airway contains goblet cells which secrete mucus rich in glycoprotein.
Microorganisms and dust particles attach to the mucus films and are carried upwards to pass down the gullet during normal swallowing.

Question 11.
Explain the human respiratory system.
Answer:
The human respiratory system constitutes the conducting zone and the respiratory zone. The conducting zone includes the external nostril, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and the lungs which contain alveoli.

The parts from the external nostrils up to the bronchioles conduct the air and hence they are called the conducting zone. This zone humidifies and warms the incoming air. The nasal cavity has fine hairs and mucus which filter dust particles in the incoming air.

At the junction of the pharynx and larynx, there is a flap called epiglottis. This closes the respiratory tract while swallowing thus preventing the entry of food particles into the trachea and choking. The ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles secrete mucus rich in glycoprotein.

Microorganisms and dust particles attach to the mucus films and are carried upwards to pass down the gullet during normal swallowing. The trachea is a semi-flexible tube supported by multiple cartilaginous rings that expands upto the mid-thoracic cavity.

And the level of the 5th theoretic vertebra, it divides into right and left bronchi which divide into secondary and tertiary bronchi and further divide into terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles. Bronchi have ‘c’ shaped curved Cartilage plates to ensure that the air passage does not collapse as air pressure changes during breathing. The bronchioles do not have cartilaginous rings but they have the rigidity to prevent them from collapsing but are surrounded by smooth muscle which contracts or relaxes to adjust the diameter of these airways.

The fine respiratory bronchioles terminate into highly vascularised thin-walled-pouch-like air sacs called alveoli. It is made up of thin squamous epithelial cells, the endothelium of the alveolar capillaries, and the basement substance are found in between them.

The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli, the endothelium of the alveolar capillaries, and the basement substance found in between them. The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli are composed of Type I and Type II cells.

Type I cells are very thin so that gases can diffuse rapidly through them. Type II cells are thicker, synthesize, and secrete a substance called Surfactant. The lungs are light spongy tissues endorsed in the thoracic cavity bound dorsally by the vertebral column and ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs, and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. The lungs are covered by a double-walled pleural membrane containing several layers of elastic connective tissues and capillaries. It encloses the pleural fluid. It reduces friction when the lungs expand and contract.

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of breathing.
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as ventilation or breathing. Inspiration and expiration are the two phases of breathing. Inspiration is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs and expiration is the movement of alveolar air that diffuses out of the lungs.

Lungs do not contain muscle fibres but expands and contracts by the movement of the ribs and diaphragm. The diaphragm is a sheet of tissue which separates the thorax from the abdomen. In a relaxed state, the diaphragm is dome-shaped.

Ribs are moved by the intercostal muscles. External and internal intercostal muscles found between the ribs and the diaphragm helps in creating pressure gradients. Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs (intrapulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric pressure; likewise, expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and outwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis, forcing the lungs to expand the pulmonary volume. The increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in the intrapulmonary’ pressure forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure.

This process is called inspiration. Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the diaphragm and sternum to return to its dome shape and the internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume. This results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs. This process is called expiration.

Question 13.
Write a short note on respiratory volumes.
Answer:
Tidal Volume (TV) Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath. It is approximately 500 mL., i.e. a normal human adult can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute. During vigorous exercise, the tidal volume is about 4-10 times higher.

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by forceful inspiration is called Inspiratory Reserve Volume. The normal value is 2500-3000 mL.

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) Additional volume of air a person can forcefully exhale by forceful expiration is called Expiratory Reserve Volume. The normal value is 1000-1100 mL. Residual Volume (RV) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It is approximately 1100 – 1200 mL.

Question 14.
Write a short note on respiratory capacities.
Answer:
Vital capacity (VC) the maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration. A person first inspires maximally then expires maximally. VC = ERV + TV + IRV

1. Inspiratory capacity (IC) The total volume of air a person can inhale after a normal expiration. includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume. IC = TV + IRV

2. Expiratory capacity (EC) The total volume of air a person can exhale after a normal inspiration. It includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume. EC = TV + ERV

3. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) The total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration is called Total Lung Capacity. This includes the vital capacity and the residual volume. It is approximately 6000 mL. TLC = VC+ RV

4. Minute Respiratory Volume The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute is called minute respiratory volume.

Question 15.
What is the reason for the lungs to lose elasticity?
Answer:

The elastin present in the Songs gives its elastic nature.
People with emphysema and bronchitis have difficulty in exhaling because the enzyme elastase destroys the elastin around the alveoli and reduces the elasticity of the lungs.

Question 16.
How does a gaseous exchange take place in the alveoli?
Answer:
The primary site for the exchange of gases in the alveoli. The uptake of 02 and the release of CO₂ occur between the blood and tissues by simple diffusion driven by partial pressure gradient of O₂ and CO₂. Partial pressure is the pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.

It is represented as pO₂ for oxygen and pCO₂ for carbon- dioxide. Due to pressure gradients, O₂ from the alveoli enters the blood and reaches the tissues. CO₂ enters into the blood from the tissues and reaches alveoli for elimination. As the solubility of CO₂ is 20-25 times higher than that of O₂, the partial pressure of CO₂ is much higher than that of O₂.

Question 17.
Write the note on respiratory pigments.
Answer:
Haemoglobin belongs to the class of conjugated protein. The iron-containing pigment portion haem constitutes only 4% and the rest colourless protein of the histone class globin. Hemoglobin has a molecular weight of 68,000 and contains four atoms of iron, each of which can combine with a molecule of oxygen.

Methaemoglobin If the iron component of the haem moieties is in the ferric state, then the normal ferrous state, is called methemoglobin. Methaemoglobin does not bind O₂. Normally RBC contains less than 1% methemoglobin.

Question 18.
Explain the transport of oxygen In blood.
Answer:
Molecular oxygen is carried in blood in two ways: bound to hemoglobin within the red blood cells and dissolved in plasma. Oxygen is poorly soluble in water, so only 3% of the oxygen is transported in the dissolved form. 97% of oxygen binds with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin (HbO₂). The rate at which haemoglobin binds with O₂ is regulated by the partial pressure of O₂.

Each haemoglobin carries maximum of four molecules of oxygen. In the alveoli high pO₂, low pCO₂, low temperature and less H+ concentration, favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues low p02, high pCO₂, high H+ and high temperature favours the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin.

A sigmoid curve (S-shaped) is obtained when the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen is plotted against pO₂. This curve is called the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. This S-shaped curve has a steep slope for pO₂ values between 10 and 50 mm Hg and then flattens between 70 and 100 mm Hg. Under normal physiological conditions, every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver about 5 mL of O₂ to the tissues.

Question 19.
Explain the transport of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Blood transports CO₂ from the tissue cells to the lungs in three ways:
1. Dissolved in plasma:
About 7 – 10% of CO₂ is transported in a dissolved form in the plasma.

2. Bound to haemoglobin:
About 20 – 25% of dissolved CO₂ is bound and carried in the RBCs as carbaminohaemoglobin (Hb CO₂)
CO₂ + Hb → Hb CO₂

3. As bicarbonate ions in plasma about 70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions. This is influenced by pC0₂ and the degree of haemoglobin oxygenation. RBCs contain a high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase, whereas small amounts of carbonic anhydrase is present in the plasma.

At the tissues, the pCO₂ is high due to catabolism and diffuses into the blood to form HCO₂ and H⁺ ions. When CO₂ diffuses into the RBCs, it combines with water forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₂) catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase. Carbonic acid is unstable and dissociates into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions.

Carbonic anhydrase facilitates the reaction in both directions.

The HCO₃^– moves quickly from the RBCs into the plasma, where it is carried to the lungs. At the alveolar site where pCO₂ is low, the reaction is reversed leading to the formation of CO₂ and water. Thus CO₂ trapped as HCO₃^– at the tissue level is transported to the alveoli and released out as CO₂. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers 4 mL of CO₂ to the alveoli for elimination.

Question 20.
How is respiration regulated?
Answer:
A specialized respiratory center present in the medulla oblongata of the hindbrain called the respiratory rhythm center is responsible for this regulation. Pneumotaxic centre present in ponsvaroli region of the brain moderates the function of the respiratory rhythm centre to ensure normal breathing.

The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm center is highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺. And H⁺ are eliminated out by the respiratory process. Receptors associated with the aortic arch and carotid artery send necessary signals to the rhythm center for remedial action. The role of O₂ is insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm.

Question 21.
Write the flow chart of the events during inspiration and expiration.
Answer:
Events in inspiration and expiration

Question 22.
What is nitrogen narcosis? What is its effect?
Answer:
When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume. This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation. This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis.

When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood-forming bubbles. Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including a stroke.

The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers. During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish-black.

Question 23.
Explain the disorders of the respiratory system.
Answer:
Asthma – It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing. Common allergens for asthma are dust, drugs, pollen grains, certain food items like fish, prawns and certain fruits etc. Emphysema – Emphysema is chronic breathlessness caused by the gradual breakdown of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of gaseous exchange, i.e., widening of the alveoli is called emphysema. The major cause for this disease is cigarette smoking, which reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis- The bronchi when it gets inflated due to pollution smoke and cigarette smoking, causes bronchitis. The symptoms are cough, shortness of breath, and sputum in the lungs. Pneumonia- Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or viruses is called pneumonia. The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.

Tuberculosis- Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculate. This infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones. The collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this disease. Occupational respiratory disorders- The disorders due to one’s occupation of working in industries like grinding or stone breaking, construction sites, cotton industries, etc.

Dust produced affects the respiratory tracts. Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. Silicosis and asbestosis are occupational respiratory diseases resulting from the inhalation of particles of silica from sand grinding and asbestos into the respiratory tract. Workers, working in such industries must wear protective masks.

Question 24.
What are the effects of smoking?
Answer:
Smoking is inhaling the smoke from burning tobacco. There are thousands of known chemicals which include nicotine, tar, carbon monoxide, ammonia, sulfur dioxide, and even small quantities of arsenic. Carbon monoxide and nicotine damage the cardiovascular system and tar damages the gaseous exchange system.

Nicotine is the chemical that causes addiction and is a stimulant which makes the heart beat faster and the narrowing of blood vessels results in raised blood pressure and coronary heart diseases. The presence of carbon monoxide reduces oxygen supply. Lung cancer, cancer of the mouth, and larynx are more common in smokers than non-smokers.

Smoking also causes cancer of the stomach, pancreas, and bladder and lowers sperm count in men. Smoking can cause lung diseases by damaging the airways and alveoli and results in emphysema and chronic bronchitis. These two diseases along with asthma are often referred to as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

When a person smokes, nearly 85% of the smoke released is inhaled by the smoker himself and others in the vicinity, called passive smokers, are also affected. Guidance or counseling should be done in such users to withdraw from this habit.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Respiration Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Javascript Functions

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter Chapter 16 Javascript Functions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Javascript Functions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Javascript Functions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The parameters work as:
(a) local variable
(b) global Variable
(c) file variable
(d) block variable
Answer:
(a) local variable

Question 2.
Predefined functions are also called as:
(a) library functions
(b) storage functions
(c) instructions
(d) commands
Answer:
(a) library functions

Question 3.
Larger programs are divided into smaller are called:
(a) modules
(b) block
(c) sets
(d) group
Answer:
(a) modules

Question 4.
Which of the following is used to enhance re-usability and program clarity?
(a) Functions
(b) Modules
(c) Sets
(d) Instructions
Answer:
(a) Functions

Question 5.
Which of the following allow the programmer to modularize a program?
(a) Library functions
(b) User defined functions
(c) Normal functions
(d) Ordinary functions
Answer:
(b) User defined functions

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a function in JavaScript?
Answer:
A function is a block of JavaScript code that is defined once but may be executed or invoked any number of times. Functions are used to encapsulate code that performs a specific task.

Question 2.
What is the use of function?
Answer:
Sometimes functions are defined for commonly required tasks to avoid the repetition entailed in typing the same statements over and over. More generally, they are used to keep code that performs a particular job in one place in order to enhance re-usability and program clarity.

Question 3.
Write a note on Library functions?
Answer:
Pre-defined functions are already defined in the JavaScript library which are also called Library functions. For example isNaN( ), toUpperCase( ), toLowerCase( ), length( ), alert( ), prompt( ),write( ) etc… are pre-defined functions.

Question 4.
Write a note on user defined functions?
Answer:
User-defined functions allow the programmer to modularize a program. Most computer programs that solve real-world problems are much large, occupy more space in the computer memory and takes more time to execute. Hence such large programs are divided into small programs are called modules.

Question 5.
Write the syntax of functions?
Answer:
The format of a function definition is –
Function function-name(parameters list)
{
Declaration of variable Executable statements;
}

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the cube of a number using function?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> print the cube number
</title>
</head>
<Title>
Function cube</Title>
<Script type = “text/Javascript”>
<!—
var input = window.prompt (“Enter value : ”, “0”);
var v = parselnt (input); var c = cube (v);
document, write In (“<br><h4><u> cube function </u> </h4>”);
document, write In (“Number *V* “<br> The cube =” *C);
function cube (x)
{
var cube = x* x * x; return c;
}
//–>
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>
OUTPUT
Enter value : 5
Cube Function Number : 5
The cube : 125

Question 2.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the sum of 10 numbers using function?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<Title> Function sum of 10 Numbers </Title>
<Script type = “text/Javascript”>
<!—
var input 1 = window.prompt (“Enter initial value : ”, “0”);
var input 2 = window.prompt (“Enter final value : ”, “0”);
var v1 = parse Int (input 1);
var v2 = parse Int (input 2);
var r = res (v1 , v2);
document, write In (“<br><h4><u> Function for sum of 10 Numbers </u> </h4>”);
document, write In (“Initial Number : “ +v1+” <br> Final Number : “+v2+”<br>
The result =”+r);
function result (n)
{
var r = n* (n+1)/2
return r;
//–>
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>
OUTPUT
Enter initial value : 1
Enterfinal value : 10
Function for sum of 10 numbers
Initial No : 1
FinalNo : 10
The result : 55

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Javascript Functions Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
…………………… often use their argument values to compute a return value that becomes the value of the function invocation expression.
(a) function
(b) parameter
(c) non-parameter
(d) expression
Answer:
(a) function

Question 2.
…………………… method returns the element that has the ID attribute with the specified value.
(a) elements [o]
(b) getElementByid( )
(c) Nan ( )
(d) NaN (“A”)
Answer:
(b) getElementByid( )

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the types of function?
Answer:
JavaScript supports two types functions. They are:

Pre-defined or Library Functions
User-defined Functions

Question 2.
Define NaN( )?
Answer:
The is NaN( ) function is used to check whether the given value or variable is valid number. This function returns true if the given value is not a number. For example is NaN(“12”), is NaN(“A”).

Question 3.
What are the different types of predefined functions?
Answer:

III. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write a program to find the sum of 2 numbers?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>Function Example</title>
<script type=“text/JavaScript”>
var input1=window.prompt(“Enter Value 1 “0”);
var input2=window.prompt(“Enter Value2 “0”);
var v1=parselnt(input1);
var v2=parselnt(input2);
var s=sum(v1,v2);
document.writeln(“<br><h4><u>Example for Function</u></h4>”);
document.writeln(“First No + v1 + “ <br>Second No + v2 + “<br> The Sum =” + s);
function sum(x, y)
{
var s=x+y;
return s;
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write a program to validate whether the entered value is a number or not?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>Example Program to test isNan( ) Function</title>
</head>
<body>
<h4><u>Example Program to test isNan() Function</u></h4>
<script language=“JavaScript”>
function checknum( )
{
var n=document.form1.text1 .value;
if(isNaN (n)==true)
{
document.form1.text2.value=“Not a Number +n;
}
else
{
document, form 1 ,text2.value=“It is Number : ”+n;
}
}
</script>
<form name=“form1’’>
Enter a Number 1:
<input type=“text” name=“textl” size=3>
<br><br>
<input type= “button” value=“Click to Check” onClick=“checknum( )”>
<input type=“text” name=“text2” size=30>
<br>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write a program using functions to have an online quiz?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>On-line Quiz</title>
<script type= “text/JavaScript”>
function checkAnswer( )
{
//var myQuiz=document.getElementById(“myQuiz”);
if (document.getElementById(“myQuiz”).elements[0],checked)
alert(“Congratulations, Your Answer is correct”);
else
alert(“Your Answer is incorrect, Please try Again”);
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
<form id=“myQuiz” aotion=“JavaScript:checkAnswer( )”>
<p> Which is not a Programming Language: <br>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“Word” />
<label> MS-Word</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“Cobol” />
<label> COBOL</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“CPP” />
<label> C++</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“VB” />
<label>Visual BASIC</label><br><br>
<input type=“submit” name-“submit” value=“Submit” />
<input type=“reset” name=“reset” value=“Reset” />
</p>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Javascript Functions Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following deals with procedures, practices and values?
(a) Piracy
(b) Programs
(c) Virus
(d) Computer ethics
Answer:
(d) Computer ethics

Question 2.
Commercial programs made available to the public illegally are known as:
(a) freeware
(b) warez
(c) free software
(d) software
Answer:
(b) warez

Question 3.
Which one of the following are self-repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves?
(a) Cirases
(b) Worms
(c) Spyware
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) Worms

Question 4.
Which one of the following tracks a user visits a website?
(a) Spyware
(b) Cookies
(c) Worms
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) Cookies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a malicious program on computer systems?
(a) Worms
(b) Trojans
(c) Spyware
(d) Cookies
Answer:
(d) Cookies

Question 6.
A computer network security that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic is:
(a) Cookies
(b) Virus
(c) firewall
(d) Worms
Answer:
(c) firewall

Question 7.
The process of converting cipher text to plain text is called:
(a) encryption
(b) decryption
(c) key
(d) proxy server
Answer:
(b) decryption

Question 8.
e-commerce means:
(a) electronic commerce
(b) electronic data exchange
(c) electric data exchange
(d) electronic commercialization
Answer:
(a) electronic commerce

Question 9.
Distributing unwanted e-mail to others is called:
(a) scam
(b) spam
(c) fraud
(d) spoofing
Answer:
(b) spam

Question 10.
Legal recognition for transactions are carried out by:
(a) Electronic Data Interchange
(b) Electronic Data Exchange
(c) Electronic Data Transfer
(d) Electrical Data Interchange
Answer:
(a) Electronic Data Interchange

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is harvesting?
Answer:
A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to other’s account(s).

Question 2.
What are Warez?
Answer:
Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called Warez.

Question 3.
Write a short note on cracking?
Answer:
Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified. A cracker (also called a black hat or dark side hacker) is a malicious or criminal hacker. “Cracking” meAnswer:trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data.

Question 4.
Write two types of cyber attacks?
Answer:

Cyber Attack	Function
Virus	A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
Worms	Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
Spyware	Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software. ‘
Ransomware	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Question 5.
What is a Cookie?
Answer:
A cookie is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of firewalls?
Answer:
A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside, the network.

They are generally categorized as network- based or host-based. Network based firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LAN [Local area Network], WAN [Wide Area Network] and intranets.

Question 2.
Write about encryption and decryption?
Answer:
Encryption and decryption are processes that ensure confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information. Encryption is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data (called cipher-text).

Decryption is the reverse process of converting the cipher-text back to plaintext. Encryption and decryption are done by cryptography. In cryptography a key is a piece of information (parameter) that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.

Question 3.
Explain symmetric key encryption?
Answer:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption. The main disadvantage of the symmetric key encryption is that all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to Encrypt the data before they can decrypt it. If anybody intercepts the key information, they may read all message.

Question 4.
What are the guidelines to be followed by any computer user?
Answer:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

Honesty: Users should be truthful while using the internet.
Confidentiality: Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
Respect: Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
Professionalism: Each user should maintain professional conduct.
Obey The Law: Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
Responsibility: Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions.

Question 5.
What are ethical issues? Name some?
Answer:
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must, be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.
Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

Cyber crime
Software Piracy
Unauthorized Access
Hacking
Use of computers to commit fraud
Sabotage in the form of viruses

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the various crimes happening using computer?
Answer:

Crime	Function
Crime Function	Hacking, threats, and blackmailing towards a business or a person.
Cyber stalking	Harassing through online
Malware	Malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions including stealing, encrypting or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions and monitoring user’s computer activity without their permission.
Harvesting	A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s).
Identity theft	It is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
Intellectual property theft	Stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company. _
Salami slicing	Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction.

Question 2.
What is piracy? Mention the types of piracy. How can it be prevented?
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes:

(i) Stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized meAnswer:and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

(ii) Downloading software from illegal network sources.

An entirely different approach to software piracy is called shareware, acknowledges the futility of trying to stop people from copying software and instead relies on people’s honesty. Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly.
To prevent unauthorized access, Firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), Virus and Cpntent Scanners, Patches and Hot fixes are used.

Question 3.
Write the different types of cyber attacks?
Answer:

Cyber Attack	Function
Virus	A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
Worms	Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
Spyware	Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.
Ransomware	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A moral code that is evaluated as right is …………………..
(b) viruses
(c) cracking
(d) ethics
Answer:
(d) ethics

Question 2.
………………… is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals for financial gain.
(a) intellectual property theft
(b) Identity theft
(c) Salami slicing
(d) Spoofing
Answer:
(b) Identity theft

Question 3.
Stealing data from a computer system without the knowledge or permission is called
(a) warez
(b) hacking
(c) cracking
(d) phishing
Answer:
(b) hacking

Question 4.
One of the most common virus is ……………………..
(a) Ransomware
(b) Spyware
(c) worms
(d) Trojan
Answer:
(d) Trojan

Question 5.
…………………….. is the intermediary between the end users and a web browser.
(a) Firewall
(b) Proxy server
(c) Cookies
(d) Warez
Answer:
(b) Proxy serve

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is hacking?
Answer:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents.

Question 2.
What is proxy server? Explain its working?
Answer:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the end users and a web server. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resources available from a different server. The proxy server examines the request, checks authenticity and grants the request based on that. Proxy servers typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time.

Question 3.
Mention any 2 reasons as to why the websites use cookies?
Answer:

To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Website.

Question 4.
What is meant by MITM?
Answer:
Man-in-the-middle attack (MITM; also Janus attack) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Question 5.
Define software piracy?
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is cyber crime?
Answer:
A cyber-crime is a crime which involves computer and network. This is becoming a growing threat to society and is caused by criminals or irresponsible action of individuals who are exploiting the widespread use of Internet. It presents a major challenge to the ethical use of information technologies. Cyber-crime also poses threats to the integrity, safety and survival of most business systems.

Question 2.
Write a short note on ethics?
Answer:
Ethics means “What is wrong and What is Right”. It is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers. An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ethics. Morals refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society. Similarly, in cyber-world, there are certain standards such as

Do not use pirated software
Do not use unauthorized user accounts
Do not steal others’ passwords
Do not hack

Question 3.
Differentiate Spyware and Ransomware?
Answer:

Spyware	Ransomware
Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the ‘ organizations millions each year.

Question 4.
What are the types of encryption?
Answer:
There are two types of encryption schemes as listed below:

(i) Symmetric Key encryption:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.

(ii) Public key encryption:
Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric function. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process.

Question 5.
Write down the points to be noted to be safe from cyber crime?
Answer:
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

Complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
When using anti-virus software, keep it up-to-date.

IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain public key encryption and asymetric encryption in digital certificate?
Answer:
1. Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process. One of the keys is typically known as the private key and the other is known as the public key.

2. The private key is kept secret by the owner and the public key is either shared amongst authorized recipients or made available to the public at large. The data encrypted with the recipient’s public key can only be decrypted with the corresponding private key.

3. A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication is one of the example of Asymmetric Encryption. A certificate is a package of information that identifies a user and a server. It contains information such as an organization’s name, the organization that issued the certificate, the users’ email address and country, and user’s public key.

4. When, a server and a client require a secure encrypted communication, they send a query over the network to the other party, which sends back a copy of the certificate. The other party’s public key can be extracted from the certificate. A certificate can also be used to uniquely identify the holder.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:

Spam
Fraud
Cyber stalking
Spoofing
Virus
Worms

Answer:

Spam: Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet users.
Fraud: Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
Cyber stalking: Harassing through online.
Spoofing: It is a malicious practice in which communication is send from unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
Virus: A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
Worms: Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

Question 3.
Explain digital signature with a functional diagram?
Answer:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message, as well as acknowledging information given by the signer. To create a digital signature, signing software (email) creates a one-way hash of the electronic data to be signed. The user’s private key to encrypt the hash, returning a value that is unique to the hashed data.

The encrypted hash, along with other information such as the hashing algorithm, forms the digital signature. Any change in the data, even to a single bit, results in a different hash value. This attribute enables others to validate the integrity of the data by using the signer’s public key to decrypt the hash. If the decrypted hash matches a second computed hash of the same data, it proves that the data hasn’t changed since it was signed.

If the two hashes don’t match, the data has either been tampered with in some way (indicating a failure of integrity) or the signature was ,created with a private key that doesn’t correspond to the public key presented by the signer (indicating a failure of authentication).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which image format was standardize by W3C?
(a) JPEG
(b) SVG
(c) GIF
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) SVG

Question 2.
The tag used to insert an image in HTML:
(a) Image
(b) Picture
(c) Img
(d) Pic
Answer:
(c) Img

Question 3.
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using:
(a) <marquee>
(b) <img>
(c) <embed>
(d) <text>
Answer:
(a) <marquee>

Question 4.
Inline sound can be inserted using which of the following tag?
(a) <inline>
(b) <backgroundsound>
(c) <bgsound>
(d) <sound>
Answer:
(c) <bgsound>

Question 5.
Which value causes the audio play as long as the page is in view?
(a) Stop
(b) Never Stop
(c) Continue
(d) Infinite
Answer:
(d) Infinite

Question 6.
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are:
(a) method and action
(b) name and size
(c) post and get
(d) type and name
Answer:
(a) method and action

Question 7.
The tag is used to create dropdown list box in HTML is:
(a) <dropdown>
(b) <select>
(c) <listbox>
(d) <input>
Answer:
(b) <select>

Question 8.
Match the following:

Answer:
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
List out the popular image formats?
Answer:
Most of the browsers supports, GIF, JPEG and PNG images formats. HTML – 5 introduces SVG images. One format of image can be converted to another format by using Image editing applications such as Photoshop, Picasa, GIMP etc…

Question 2.
Write down the general format of marquee?
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive. – General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>.

Question 3.
What is inline sound or movie?
Answer:
The inline refers to audio or video files are handled as part of the page. These media files play the audio or video when the page is visible in the browser window. The external refers, linking external audio or video files as url.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of <input> tag?
Answer:
Most of the form controls are created by using <input> tag. The <input> is an empty tag used to create different form elements or controls such as text box, radio buttons and so on.

Question 5.
Which tag is used to specify the list of items in dropdown list box?
Answer:
The <select> tag is used to create dropdown listbox in HTML. It provides a list of various options as a dropdown list. This element is more helpful when a number of options are to be displayed in a limited space. The <option> tag is used to specify list items.

Question 6.
What are the major attributes are available in <textarea> tag?
Answer:
The <Textarea> tag used to receive multi line text data as input. It is a container tag. The main attributes of <Textarea> are –
Name:
Used to define name to the control.

Rows:
Specifies the number of rows in the text area control.

Cols:
Specifies the number of columns in the text area, (number of characters in a line).

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on familiar images format. GIF (Graphical Interchange Format):
Answer:
This format is one of the popular format for animated images. It was developed by CompuServe. Usually this image format is suitable for presenting tiny animated images, logos, icons, line art etc… It is not suitable for photographic work, because it uses maximum of 256 colours. Animated GIF do not support sound or playback control.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG is the most popular image format supported by all web browsers. This format is suitable for photographic images. Unlike GIF, JPEG can include any number of colours.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
PNG is designed as a replacement for GIF. It is also supported by all browsers.

SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics):
SVG is a graphics format that was developed for web. It was standardized by World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) in 2001. All current web browsers supports basic features of SVG.

Question 2.
How will you scroll the text in HTML?
Answer:
In HTML, a piece of text or image can be moved horizontally or vertically by using <marquee> tag. This feature makes a web page as more attractive.

General format:
<marquee> Text or image to be scroll </marquee>
Attributes of <marquee>

Height and Width:
These attributes are used to set height and width of the marquee. The values should be either in pixels or in percentage of browser window.

Direction:
This is used to specify the direction of the movement of text or image. The text or image will move towards right to left by default. So, the default direction is left. The Possible values are ‘up’, ‘down’, ‘left’ or ‘right’.

Behaviour:
This attribute is used to specify the type of scrolling. The values are ‘scroll’, ‘slide’ and ‘alternate’.

Scrolldelay:
This attribute is used to define the time delay between each jump. The time unit should be in seconds.

Scrollamount:
This is used to define the speed of the scroll.

Loop:
This is for defining how many times the marquee element should repeat on the screen. The default value is ‘infinite’, which me the marquee element scrolls endlessly.

Bgcolor:
This is used to specify the background color to the marquee elements.

Hspace and Vspace:
This is for defining the horizontal and vertical space around the marquee. The value can be in pixels or percentage.

Question 3.
Explain the main attributes used with <form> tag?
Answer:
The important attributes used with the <form> tag are method and action attributes.

Method:
The method attribute of the form tag is used to identify how the form element names and values will be sent to the server.

The get method will append the names of the form elements and their values to the URL.
The post method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets.

Action:
The action attribute identifies the server side program or script that will process the form. The action will be the name of a Common Gateway Interface (CGI) program written in programming languages like Perl, JavaScript, PHP or Active Server Pages (ASP).

Question 4.
Explain the values of <input> tag’s type attribute?
Answer:
Attributes of <input> tag’s Type:
This attribute is used define the type of control to be created by <input> tag. The values of type attribute is listed below:
Value of type attribute

Text
Password
Checkbox
Reset
Submit
Radio Button
Button

Description:

Create a Text Box. The element used to get all kind of text input such as name, address etc…
Similar as Text box. But, while entering data, the characters are appearing as coded symbols such as asterisk.
Check box is an element appearing like a small square box. When the user click on the square a tiny tick’mark will appear inside the square. This element is used to select multiple options.
It is a special command button used to clear all the entries made in the form.
It is also a special command button used to submit all the entries made in the form to the backend server.
Radio button is used to select any one of the multiple options from the list. This element looks like a small circle, when the user select an item, a tiny dot will appear within the circle. If the user selects another option, previously selected option will be deselected. This means, user can select any one of the given option form a group.
This is a standard graphical button on the form used to call functions on click.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
HTML – 5 introduces ………………….. image.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) SVG
(d) PNG
Answer:
(c) SVG

Question 2.
The popular format for animated images:
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) SVG
(d) PNG
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 3.
GIF was developed by:
(a) google
(b) microsoft
(c) sun
(d) Compuserve
Answer:
(d) Compuserve

Question 4.
Which format does not support animated sound and playback control?
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) SVG
(d) PNG
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 5.
Which format is suitable for photographic images?
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) SVG
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) JPEG

Question 6.
The PNG format is designed as a replacement format for:
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) SVG
(d) PNQ
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 7.
The <IMG> tag along with the attribute is:
(a) src
(b) width
(c) height
(d) vspace
Answer:
(a) src

Question 8.
The default direction of the <marquee> is:
(a) left
(b) right
(c) top
(d) bottom
Answer:
(a) left

Question 9.
The default value of marquee scrolls:
(a) finite
(b) infinite
(c) 1 second
(d) many seconds
Answer:
(b) infinite

Question 10.
Which is referred to audio or video files are handled as part of the page?
(a) inline
(b) embed
(c) src
(d) img
Answer:
(a) inline

Question 11.
…………………. tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage.
(a) inline
(b) embed
(c) src
(d) no embed
Answer:
(b) embed

Question 12.
……………………. tag is may be used as an alternate to display some other media files.
(a) inline
(b) embed
(c) src
(d) no embed
Answer:

Question 13.
What is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag?
(a) inline
(b) embed
(c) src
(d) no embed
Answer:
(d) no embed

Question 14.
What is the special element of the form in html?
(a) Name
(b) Submit
(c) Text
(d) Box
Answer:
(b) Submit

Question 15.
What is the method will append the names of the form elements and their values?
(a) Form
(b) Get
(c) Post
(d) Action
Answer:
(b) Get

Question 16.
What method will send the names and values of the form elements as packets?
(a) Form
(b) Get
(c) Post
(d) Action
Answer:
(c) Post

Question 17.
What is the special command button used to clear all the entries made in the form?
(a) Reset
(b) Submit
(c) Button
(d) Text
Answer:
(a) Reset

Question 18.
What is the standard graphical button on the form used to call function?
(a) Reset
(b) Submit
(c) Button
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Button

Question 19.
Which tag is used to receive multiline text data as input?
(a) <form>
(b) <submit>
(c) <textarea>
(d) <inline>
Answer:
(c) <textarea>

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
How can you inserts images with html document?
Answer:
The <IMG> tag along with the attribute src (Source) is used to add images in HTML document.

General format:
<img src = image_name_with_ extension>
(or)
<img src = URL>
Eg:
<img src = imagel.gif>

Question 2.
How can you use the Alt attribute of <img>?
Answer:
Alt (Alternative Text):
The alt attribute within <img> tag is used to describe the image, so that some text is conveyed even when the image cannot be displayed.
Eg:
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”>

Question 3.
What is the use of width and height attributes?
Answer:
Width and Height attributes are used to set the width and height of an image. The values of these attributes should be either pixels or percentage of its actual size.

If these attributes are not specified, the browser displays the image in its original size.
Vspace (Vertical space) and
Hspace (Horizontal space)

Question 4.
What is the use of <embed> ta| and <no embed> tag?
Answer:
The <embed> tag is used to attach an audio or video file easily within webpage. This tag includes the controls of the multimedia automatically in the browser. The <noembed> tag may be used as an alternate to display some other media file, in the case of the browser does not support <embed> tag.

Question 5.
What is the use of src attribute?
Answer:
Src is the primary attribute used with <embed> tag. The src attribute used to specify the name of the media file with its source location. Other attributes such as alt, height, width and align are used as it is used with <img>.

Question 6.
What is the use of <form> tag?
Answer:
The <form> tag is used to create a form. An HTML from starts with <form> and ends with </form> tag. Forms contain many types of form elements, such as text boxes, radio buttons, check boxes, buttons and drop-down lists.

Question 7.
What are the different types of form controls?
Answer:
In HTML, there are different types of form controls are used to collect data. They are Text box, Password, Checkbox, Radio buttons, Text area, Select box, Submit and Reset Button.

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the align attributes used to align the image?
Answer:
The align attribute used to aligns the image with respect to the base line of the text. This attribute has the following values.

Bottom – Aligns the bottom of the image with the baseline of the text. This is the default setting.
Middle – Aligns the middle of the image with the baseline of the text.
Top – Aligns the top of the image with the baseline of the text.

Question 2.
How can you define the background music attribute?
Answer:
Music can be played in the background to a webpage, while the page is viewed. This is known as ‘inline’ sound or movie. The <bgsound> tag is used to attach an inline sound file in HTML.

The src attribute is used to define the location of the media file. Volume attribute used to adjust volume control. The loop attribute defines the duration of play. The ‘infinite’ value causes the audio play as j long as the page is in view.

Question 3.
Explain the forms attribute submit and name?
Answer:
The form has a special element, which is submit button, which will submit the entries of a form to a server application to process the entries. Each element in the form is assigned a name using the name attribute.

Users enter values into the text boxes, or make selections from the radio buttons* check boxes, and drop down lists. The values they enter or select are passed with the name of the corresponding form element to the Web server.

Question 4.
Write the html code to insert an inline image?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Inserting Images </title>
</head>
<body>
<hl align = center>
Bharathiyar </hl>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif>
</body>
</html>

Question 5.
Write the html code using marquee tag?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Marquee </title>
</head>
<body>
<marquee> <b> The Government of Tamilnadu </b>,
Directorate of School
Education </marquee>
<marquee direction=right>
Welcome to <b> The State Council of Educational Research and Training </b>, Tamilnadu </marquee>
</body>
</html>

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the html code using <img> attributes?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Inserting Images </title>
</head>
<body>
<h1 align = center> Mahakavi Bharathi </h1>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width = 20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width = 20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width = 20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20> <br>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width = 20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width = 20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20>
<img src = bharathiyar.gif alt = “National Poet of India”
Width =20% Height = 25% vpace = 20 Hspace = 20> <br>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write the html code to adding audio and video files?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Adding Multimedia Files </title>
</head>
<body>
<img src=”D:\Images\TN_Logo.png” alt=”Govt. of Tamilnadu Logo” height=25% width=15%>
<marquee> Welcome to <b> The State Council of Educational Research and Training </b>, Tamilnadu </marquee>
<embed src=”D:\CS_Videos\CS_Video.mp4″ width=50% height=50%> </embed> </body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write the html code to form and form controls?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Login Form </title>
<body>
<h3 align=center> TamilNadu State Council of Educational Research
and Training, Chennai </h3>
<Form Action =”mailto:abed.xyz0com” method=post>
<p> User Name:
cinput type = text name=”user_name” size = 20 maxlength = 15> </p>
<p> Password:
<Input type = password name=”pass” size = 20 maxlength = 15> </p>
<Input type = reset value =”Clear”>
<Input type = submit value =”Login”>
</Form>
</body>
</html>

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Read More »

Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of ________.
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

Question 2.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 3.
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books” is said by
(a) R.N.Carter
(b) Menhar
(c) J.R.Batlibai
(d) Kohler
Answer:
(c) J.R.Batlibai

Question 4.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ______.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Accountant General of India
(c) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) The Cost and Management Accountant of India
Answer:
(d) The Cost and Management Accountant of India

Question 5.
Outstanding wages is a ________.
(a) Nominal account
(b) Personal account
(c) Real account
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(d) Representative personal account

Question 6.
The process of finding the net amount from the totals of debit and credit columns in a ledger is known as ______.
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(d) Balancing

Question 7.
The total of the debit column is short by ₹ 500 in the trial balance. This difference will be _____.
(a) Debited to suspense account
(b) Credited to suspense account
(c) Adjusted to any of the debit balance
(d) Adjusted to any of the credit balance
Answer:
(a) Debited to suspense account

Question 8.
Purchase of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in:
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Question 9.
In Triple column cash book, the balance of bank overdraft brought forward will appear in ______.
(a) Cash column credit side
(b) Cash column debit side
(c) Bank column debit side
(d) Bank column credit side
Answer:
(d) Bank column credit side

Question 10.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the help of ______.
(a) Bank statement
(b) Petty Cash book
(c) Cash book
(d) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book
Answer:
(d) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book

Question 11.
The total of purchases book was undercast. Which of the following accounts should be credited in the rectifying journal entry?
(a) Purchases account
(b) Creditors account
(c) Suspense account
(d) Debtors account
Answer:
(c) Suspense account

Question 12.
The difference in trial balance is taken to _______.
(a) The capital account
(b) The trading account
(c) The suspense account
(d) The profit and loss account
Answer:
(c) The suspense account

Question 13.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is ________.
(a) Decreasing every year
(b) Uniform in all the years
(c) Increasing every year
(d) Fluctuating every year
Answer:
(a) Decreasing every year

Question 14.
Advertisement expenses amounted to ₹ 5 crores to introduce a new product is _______.
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital receipt
Answer:
(b) Revenue expenditure

Question 15.
Short term loan is ________.
(a) Liquid liability
(b) Current liability
(c) Fixed liability
(d) Contingent liability
Answer:
(b) Current liability

Question 16.
Bank overdraft should be shown ________.
(a) In the trading account
(b) On the assets side
(c) Profit and Loss account
(d) On the liabilities side
Answer:
(d) On the liabilities side

Question 17.
Closing stock is valued at _______.
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Cost price or market price whichever is higher
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower
Answer:
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower

Question 18.
Prepaid salary will be shown on _______.
(a) Debit side of trading account
(b) Assets side of Balance sheet
(c) Debit side of profit and loss account
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 19.
One of the limitations of computerised accounting system is ________.
(a) System failure
(b) Accuracy
(c) Versatility
(d) Storage
Answer:
(a) System failure

Question 20.
Accounting software is an example of _______.
(a) Utility software
(b) System software
(c) Application software
(d) Operating software
Answer:
(c) Application software

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Complete the accounting equation

Answer:

Question 22.
Prepare Furniture A/c from the following transactions.

2017		₹
Jan. 1	Furniture in hand	20,000
Jan. 1	Purchased furniture for cash	10,000
Jan. 30	Sold furniture	4,000

Answer:

Question 23.
Prepare a trial balance with the following information:

Answer:

Question 24.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Home Appliances.

Answer:

Question 25.
What is bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
If every entry in the cash book matches with the bank statement, then bank balance will be the same in both the records. But, practically it may not be possible. When the balances do not agree with each other, the need for preparing a statement to explain the causes arises. This statement is called bank reconciliation statement (BRS).

Question 26.
Rectify the following errors discovered before the preparation of trial balance:
(a) Returns inward book was undercast by ₹ 1,000
(b) Returns outward book was overcash by ₹ 2,000
Answer:
(a) Returns inward book should be debited ₹ 1,000
(b) Returns outward book should be debited ₹ 2,000

Question 27.
What is annuity method of calculating depreciation?
Answer:
To calculate the amount of depreciation, annuity factor is used. Annuity factor can be found out from the annuity table or by using formula.
Amount of depreciation is computed as follows:
Amount of depreciation = Annuity factor × Original cost of the asset.

Question 28.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

Question 29.
Write the components of Computerised Accounting System (CAS)?
Answer:
Components of CAS can be classified into six categories, namely,

Hardware
Software
People
Procedure
Data
Connectivity.

Question 30.
The Trial balance as on 31st December 2018 is given below:

Particulars	Debit	Credit
Loan @ 10% p.a	–	4,00,000
Interest paid on loan	30,000	–

Pass adjusting entry for interest on loan outstanding ₹ 10,000
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write the objectives of Accounting.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of accounting:

To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events
To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise
To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise
To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirements
To protect the properties of an enterprise and
To ascertain the solvency and liquidity position of an enterprise

Question 32.
In a Business concern “Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Why?
Answer:
This concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money, are recorded in the accounts. Since, money serves as the medium of exchange transactions expressed in money are recorded and the ruling currency of a country is the measuring unit for accounting.

Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.
For example, working conditions in the work place, strike by employees, efficiency of the management, etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Question 33.
Complete the missing information:

Answer:

Question 34.
Balan who has a car driving school gives you the following ledger balances. Prepare trial balance as on 31st December, 2016.

Answer:

Question 35.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017 from the following information:
(a) Balance as per bank statement (pass book) is ₹ 25,000
(b) No record has been made in the cash book for a dishonour of a cheque for ₹ 250
(c) Cheques deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 3,500 were not yet collected
(d) Bank charges of ₹ 300 have not been entered in the cash book.
(e) Cheques issued amounting to ₹ 9,000 have not been presented for payment
Answer:

Question 36.
Calculate the amount of depreciation and depreciation rate from the following by using ‘straight line method’.

	₹
Purchase price of a machinery	2,00,000
Transportation cost	2,000
Installation cost	18,000
Estimated scrap value	10,000
Estimated life	10 years

Answer:

Note:
Cost of the asset = Purchase price + Transportation cost + Installation cost
= 2,00,000 + 2,000 + 18,000 = ₹ 2,20,000

Question 37.
Write any three differences between capital, revenue and deferred revenue expenditure.
Answer:

Question 38.
From the following details for the year ended 31st March, 2018, prepare trading account:

Answer:

Question 39.
The Trial Balance of Mr.Aravind on 31.3.15 shows capital ₹ 15,00,000. During that year he withdrew ₹ 1,00,000 for his personal use.
Adjustment: Charge interest on drawings at 5%
Pass adjusting entry and transfer entry.
Answer:
Interest on drawings = ₹ 1,00,000 × 5/100 = ₹ 5000. The adjusting entry is:

Question 40.
Pass Adjusting Entries for the following adjustments in the books of Mr.MuraIi.
(a) Closing stock – ₹ 10,000
(b) Interest received in advance – ₹ 5,000
(c) Depreciation on Machinery – ₹ 8,500
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Mrs. Saraswathy is a sole trader dealing in sports items. From the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of March, 2017.

March		₹
1	Commenced business with cash	5,00,000
2	Cash deposited into bank	2,50,000
3	Purchased goods from Ravi	1,00,000
4	Sales made to Kumar, who deposited the money through CDM	20,000
5	Sold goods to Vivek, on credit	50,000
6	Cash purchases	30,000
7	Dividend directly received by bank	3,000
8	Salaries paid through ECS	6,000
9	Money withdrawn from ATM	9,000
10	Cricket balls donated to a trust	2,500

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following errors were located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that their exists a suspense account. Rectify them.
(i) Bought goods from Lakshmi on credit for ₹ 500. Credited to her account as ₹ 50.
(ii) Purchased machinery for cash ₹ 2,000 was posted to machinery account.
(iii) Salaries ₹ 2,800 were posted as ₹ 18,000
(iv) The total of sales book ₹ 890 was carried forward as ₹ 980
(v) The total of purchase book was undercast by ₹ 1,000
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Show the direct ledger postings for the following transactions:

2015		₹
June 1	Subash commenced business with cash	50,000
June 5	Sold goods for cash	10,000
June 8	Goods purchased for cash	5,000
June 20	Goods purchased from Shankar on credit	6,000

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in three column cash book of Mr. Raja.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Prepare accounting equation for the following transactions.

(i) Mrs. Rani started business with cash	₹ 50,000
(ii) Opened bank account with a deposit of	₹ 10,000
(iii) Bought goods from Ravi on credit for	₹ 12,000
(iv) Sold goods (costing 10,000) for	₹ 15,000
(v) Salaries paid for	₹ 5,000

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book stores.

Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Ram and Co. purchased on 1st April 2014, a plant and machinery for ₹ 6,50,000 and spend ₹ 50,000 on its installation. After having used it for three years, it was sold for ₹ 4,00,000. Depreciation is to be provided every year at the rate of 15% per annum on the fixed instalment method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Prepare plant and machinery account and depreciation account for three years.
Answer:
Workings:

[OR]

(b) From the following balances obtained from the books of Mr. Ramesh, prepare trading and profit and loss account.

Closing stock on December 31.12.17 was ₹ 10,000/-
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Enter the following transactions in Rahim’s petty cash book with analytical columns under imprest system:

2017		₹
Jan. 1	Balance on hand	250
Jan. 1	Cash received from chief cashier	1,750
Jan. 2	Purchased pencil, rubber and paper	200
Jan. 4	Sent documents to Head office by Registered post	150
Jan. 5	Travelling expenses paid to salesman	200
Jan. 17	Paid for sundry expenses	80
Jan. 19	Paid for office expenses	100
Jan. 11	Paid for letter pad	175
Jan. 13	Paid to Amutha on account	65
Jan. 15	Paid for repairs to furniture	80
Jan. 18	Carriage paid	90
Jan. 20	Brought postal stamps	50
Jan. 22	Paid for telephone charges	175

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars of Meenakshi Traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March 2018.
(i) Debit balance as per cash book ₹ 10,500.
(ii) Cheque deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 5,500 credited by bank, but entered twice in the Cash book.
(iiii) Cheques issued and presented for payment amounting to ₹ 7,000 omitted in the cash book.
(iv) Cheque book charges debited by the bank ₹ 200 not recorded in the cash book.
(v) Cash of ₹ 1,000 deposited by a customer of the business in cash deposit machine not recorded in the cash book.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) The following are the extracts from the trial balance:

Particulars

Dr. (₹)

Cr.(₹)

Sundry Debtors Bad debts

Provision for doubtful debts

75,000

5,000

2,000

Additional Information:
(i) Additional bad debts ₹ 5,000
(ii) Provision for bad and doubtful debts @ 5% on sundry debtors.
You are required to pass necessary adjusting entries and show how these items will appear in profit and loss account and balance sheet.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Roobini and Co., and post them to ledger.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Consider the following balances, extracted from the books of Jain as on 31st December 2016. Prepare the final accounts.

Adjustments:
(i) Salaries outstanding for December, 2016 amounted to ₹ 600
(ii) Provide depreciation on furniture @ 10% p.a
(iii) Provide Interest on capital for the year @ 5 % p.a
(iv) Stock on 31st December, 2016 ₹ 14,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write the advantages of Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
Advantages of Computerised Accounting System:
The main advantages of computerised accounting system are as follows:

Faster processing: Computers require far less time than human beings in performing a particular task. Therefore, accounting data are processed faster using a computerised accounting system.

Accurate information: There is less space for error because only one account entry is needed for each transaction unlike repeated posting of the same accounting data in manual system.

Reliability: Computer systems are immune to boredom, tiredness or fatigue. Therefore, these can perform repetitive functions effectively and are highly reliable.

Easy availability of information: The data are easily available and Can be communicated to different users at the same time.

Up-to-date information: Account balances will always be up to date since the records are automatically updated as and when accounting data are entered or stored.

Efficiency: The computer based accounting system ensures better use of time and resources.

Storage and retrieval: Computer based systems require a fractional amount of physical space as compared to the books of accounts in the form of journals, ledgers and accounting registers.

Works as a motivator to employees: Employees using computer systems feel more valued as they are trained and specialised for the job.

Automated document production: Accounting reports like trial balance and financial statements are generated automatically and are easily accessible just by a click of the mouse.

MIS Reports: It is easier to monitor and control the business using the real time management reports generated by the computerised information systems.

Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The term is used to describe a programming approach based on classes and objects is ……………….
(a) OOP
(b) POP
(c) ADT
(d) SOP
Answer:
(a) OOP

Question 2.
The paradigm which aims more at procedures ……………….
(a) Object Oriented Programming
(b) Procedural programming
(c) Modular programming
(d) Structural programming
Answer:
(b) Procedural programming

Question 3.
Which of the following is a user defined data type?
(a) class
(b) float
(c) int
(d) object
Answer:
(a) class

Question 4.
The identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is ……………….
(a) class
(b) object
(c) structure
(d) member
Answer:
(b) object

Question 5.
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as ……………….
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(b) Encapsulation

Question 6.
Insulation of the data from direct access by the program is called as ……………….
(a) Data hiding
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Data hiding

Question 7.
Which of the following concept encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created?
(a) Class
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(d) Abstraction

Question 8.
Which of the following is the most important advantage of inheritance?
(a) data hiding
(b) code reusability
(c) code modification
(d) accessibility
Answer:
(b) code reusability

Question 9.
“Write once and use it multiple time” can be achieved by ……………….
(a) redundancy
(b) reusability
(c) modification
(d) composition
Answer:
(b) reusability

Question 10.
Which of the following supports the transitive nature of data?
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Inheritance

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
How is modular programming different from procedural programming paradigm?
Answer:
Modular programming:

Emphasis on algorithm rather than data.
Programs are divided into individual modules.
Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data.
Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.

Procedural programming:

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
All data items are global.
Suitable for small sized software application.
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.

Question 2.
Differentiate classes and objects.
Answer:
Class:

Class is a blue print or template from which objects are created.
Class doesn’t allocate memory when it is created.
Class is a logical entity.

Object:

Object is an instance of a class.
Objects allocate memory when it is created.
Object is a physical entity.

Question 3.
What is polymorphism?
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Question 4.
How is encapsulation and abstraction are interrelated?
Answer:
Abstraction means giving only essential things and hiding unnecessary details. Encapsulation is the binding of data members and methods together in a capsule to avoid accidental changes to data from external users, i.e., encapsulation is the bundling of related algorithms and data.

Question 5.
Write the disadvantages of OOP.
Answer:

Size: Object Oriented Programs are much larger than other programs.
Effort: Object Oriented Programs require a lot of work to create.
Speed: Object Oriented Programs are slower than other programs, because of their size.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is paradigm? Mention the different types of paradigm.
Answer:
Paradigm means organizing principle of a program. It is an approach to programming. There are different approaches available for problem solving using computer. They are Procedural programming, Modular Programming and Object Oriented Programming.

Question 2.
Write a note on the features of procedural programming.
Answer:
Important features of procedural programming

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs
All data items are global
Suitable for small sized software application
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type. This is time consuming.
Example: FORTRAN and COBOL.

Question 3.
List some of the features of modular programming.
Answer:
Important features of Modular programming:

Emphasis on algorithm rather than data
Programs are divided into individual modules
Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data
Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.
Example: Pascal and C.

Question 4.
What do you mean by modularization and software reuse?
Answer:

Modularization : where the program can be decomposed into modules.
Software re – use : where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Question 5.
Define information hiding.
Answer:
Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Write the differences between Object Oriented Programming and Procedural Programming
Answer:
Object Oriented Programming:

Emphasizes on data rather than algorithm.
Data abstraction is introduced in addition to procedural abstraction.
Data and its associated operations are grouped in to single unit.
Programs are designed around the data being operated.
Example: C++, Java, VB.Net, Python

Procedural Programming:

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
All data items are global.
Suitable for small sized software application.
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.
Example: FORTRAN and COBOL

Question 2.
What are the advantages of OOPs?
Answer:
Re – usability : “Write once and use it multiple times” you can achieve this by using class. Redundancy: Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

Easy Maintenance : It is easy to maintain and modify existing code as new objects can be created with small differences to existing ones.

Security : Using data hiding and abstraction only necessary data will be provided thus maintains the security of data.

Question 3.
Write a note on the basic concepts that supports OOPs?
Answer:
The Object Oriented Programming has been developed to overcome the drawbacks of procedural and modular programming. It is widely accepted that object – oriented programming is the most important and powerful way of creating software.

The Object – Oriented Programming approach mainly encourages:

Modularization: where the program can be decomposed into modules.
Software re – use: where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

Data Abstraction.
Encapsulation.
Modularity.
Inheritance.
Polymorphism.

Encapsulation:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class.

The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

Data Abstraction:
Abstraction refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details. Classes use the concept of abstraction to define a list of abstract attributes and function which operate on these attributes. They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In procedural programming all data items are ……………….
(a) Cobol
(b) global
(c) fortan
(d) class
Answer:
(b) global

Question 2.
Class represents a group of similar ……………….
(a) objects
(b) modules
(c) arrays
(d) data
Answer:
(a) objects

Question 3.
………………. is an example of object oriented programming.
(a) Python
(b) Java
(c) VB.Net
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
………………. refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details.
(a) Redundancy
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(c) Abstraction

Question 5.
………………. is about binding the data variables and functions together in class.
(a) Data abstraction
(b) Modularization
(c) Redundancy
(d) Encapsulation
Answer:
(d) Encapsulation

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is procedural programming?
Answer:
Procedural means a list of instructions were given to the computer to do something. Procedural programming aims more at procedures. This emphasis on doing things.

Question 2.
What is a class?
Answer:
A Class is a construct in C++ which is used to bind data and its associated function together into a single unit using the encapsulation concept. Class is a user defined data type. Class represents a group of similar objects.

Question 3.
What is modularity?
Answer:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Question 4.
What are the main features of OOP?
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

Data Abstraction
Encapsulation
Modularity
Inheritance
Polymorphism

Question 5.
What is redundancy?
Answer:
Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about objects.
Answer:
Objects: Represents data and its associated function together into a single unit. Objects are the basic unit of OOP. Basically an object is created from a class. They are instances of class also called as class variables. An identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is called object.

Question 2.
What is Encapsulation and data binding?
Answer:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain about features of object oriented programming.
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming

Data Abstraction
Encapsulation
Modularity
Inheritance
Polymorphism

Encapsulation:
1. The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction.

2. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding.

3.. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration

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Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Chemical Coordination and Integration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textbook Evaluation Solved
Choose The Correct Answer
Question 1.
The maintenance of constant internal environment is referred as .
(a) Regulation
(b) Homeostasis
(c) Co-ordination
(d) Hormonal control
Answer:
(b) Homeostasis

Question 2.
Which of the following are exclusive endocrine glands?
(a) Thymus and testis
(b) Adrenal and ovary
(c) Parathyroid and adrenal
(d) Pancreas and parathyroid
Answer:
(c) Parathyroid and adrenal

Question 3.
Which of the following hormone is not secreted under the influence of pituitary gland?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Glucocorticoids
Answer:
(A) Insulin

Question 4.
Spermatogenesis in mammalian testes is controlled by?
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(c) FSH and prolactin
(d) GH and prolactin
Answer:
(A) Follicle stimulating hormone

Question 5.
Serum calcium level is regulated by?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) FSH
(c) Pancreas Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Thyroid and parathyroid
Answer:
(d) Thyroid and parathyroid

Question 6.
Iodised salt is essential to prevent?
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer:
(c) Goitre

Question 7.
Which of the following gland is related with immunity?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Thymus
(d) Parathyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Thymus

Question 8.
Which of the following statement about sex hormones is correct?
(a) Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone
(b) Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and softens pelvic ligaments during child birth
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by both sertoli cells and corpus luteum
(d) Progesterone produced by corpus luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone

Question 9.
Hypersecretion of GH in children leads to
(a) Cretinism
(b) Gigantism
(c) Graves disease
(d) Tetany
Answer:
(b) Gigantism

Question 10.
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of …………….
(a) Low secretion of growth hormone
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland
(c) Over secretion of pars distalis
(d) Deficiency of iodine in diet.
Answer:
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland

Question 11.
The structure which connects the hypothalamus with the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the
(a) Dendrites of the neurohypophysis
(b) Axons of the neurohypophysis
(c) Bands of white fibers from the cerebellar region
(d) Hypophysial portal system
Answer:
(b) Axons of the neurohypophysis

Question 12.
Comment on homeostasis?
Answer:
Homeostasis: Maintenance of the constant internal environment of the body by the different coordinating systems.

Question 13.
Which one of the following statement is correct
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in the stomach
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones

Question 14.
Which of the given option shows all wrong statement for thyroid gland Statements
(i) It inhibits the process of RBC formation
(ii) It helps in the maintenance of water and electrolytes
(iii) It’s more secretion can reduce blood pressure
(iv) It stimulates osteoblast
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 15.
Hormones are known as chemical messengers? Justify?
Answer:
Hormones are chemical messengers because they act as organic catalysts and co-enzymes to perform specific functions in the target organs.

Question 16.
Write the role of oestrogen in ovulation?
Answer:
Oestrogen is the ovarian hormone secreted during the proliferation phase of the menstrual cycle from the 6th day to the 14th day of the cycle. On the 14th day of the cycle, under the influence of luteinizing hormone, the ovum is released from the graffian follicles. This process is known as ovulation.

Question 17.
Comment on Acini of thyroid gland?
Answer:

The thyroid gland is a bilobed gland. Each lobe is made up of many lobules.
The lobules consist of follicles called acinus. Each acinus is lined with glandular cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells.
The lumen of the acinus is filled with colloid which contains thyroglobulin molecules.

Question 18.
Write the causes for diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipid?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is caused due to reduced secretion of insulin. As a result, the blood glucose level is elevated. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to under secretion of ADH or vasopressin. As a result, reabsorption of water gets affected and hende large amount of urine is produced.

Question 19.
Specify the symptoms of acromegaly?
Answer:
Acromegaly is due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. The symptoms are an overgrowth of hand bones, feet bones, Jawbones malfunctioning of gonads enlargement of Viscera. Tongue, lungs, heart, liver spleen, thyroid, and adrenal gland.

Question 20.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms:-

Retarded skeletal growth.
Absence of sexual maturity
Retarded mental ability
Thick and short limbs
Thick wrinkled skin
Bloated face
Protruded enlarged tongue
Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature, and elevated blood cholesterol levels

Question 21.
Briefly explain the structure of the thyroid gland?
Answer:

It is the largest endocrine gland.
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped bi-lobed gland located below the larynx on each side of the upper trachea.
The two lateral lobes are connected by a median tissue mass called isthmus.
Each lobe is made up of many lobules.
The lobules consist of follicles called acini.
Each animus is lined with glandular cuboidal squamous epithelial cells.
The lumen of the acinus is filled with colloid a thick glycoprotein mixture consisting of thyroglobulin molecules.

Question 22.
Name the layers of the adrenal cortex and mention their secretions?
Answer:
A pair of adrenal glands are located at the anterior end of the kidneys. Elence, they are called suprarenal glands. The outer region is called the cortex and the inner region is the medulla. The adrenal cortex has three distinct zones,

Zona Glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

1. Zona Glomerulosa:

It is the outer thin layer. It constitutes about 15% of the cortex.
It secretes mineralocorticoids.

2. Zona fasciculata:

It is the middle wide layer constituting about 15% of adrenal cortex.
It secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen.

3. Zona reticularis:

It is the inner zone of adrenal cortex.
It constitutes about 10% of adrenal cortex.
It constitutes about 10% of adrenal cortex.
It secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Question 23.
Differentiate hyperglycemia from hypoglycemia?
Answer:

Hyperglycemia	Hypoglycemia
1. Elevation in the blood sugar level is called hyperglycemia	1. Decrease in the blood sugar level is called hypoglycemia.
2. This happens due to reduced secretion of insulin.	2. This happens due to increased secretion of insulin.

Question 24.
Write the functions of CCK?
Answer:
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet. It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge.

Question 25.
Growth hormone is important for normal growth. Justify the statement?
Answer:
Growth hormone promotes growth of all the tissues and metabolic process of the body. It influences the metabolism of carbohydrate, proteins and lipids. It increases the rate of protein biosynthesis in the cells.

It stimulates chondrogenesis (cartilage formation), osteogenesis (bone formation) and helps in the retention of minerals like nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus, sodium etc in the body. It increases the release of fatty acid from adipose tissue and decreases the rate of glucose utilization for energy by the cells. The hyposecretion of growth hormones causes dwarfism in children.

Question 26.
Pineal gland is an endocrine gland, write its role?
Answer:

As pineal gland secretes the hormone melotonin it is an endocrine gland.
Melotonin hormone plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm of our body and maintains the normal sleep-wake cycle.
It also regulates the timing of sexual maturation of gonads.
Melatonin also influences metabolism pigmentation menstrual cycle and defence mechanism of our body.

Question 27.
Comment on the functions of adrenalin?
Answer:
Adrenalin increases liver glycogen breakdown into glucose and increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells. During emergency, it increases heart beat rate and blood pressure.lt stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow. It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and nervous tissue.

Question 28.
Predict the effects of removal of pancreas from the human body?
Answer:

Surgical removal of pancreas is due to some clinical reasons is known as pancreatectomy.
The following are the effect of pancreatectomy.
There may be hypoglycemic and hyperglycemic manifestation. As there is a complete absence of endogenous insulin and glycogen leads to pancreatic diabetic mellitus. There may be anastomatic ulcer.
There may be low level of fat souble vitamin.
There may be weight loss
There may be chronic diarrohea
There may be loss of appetite
There may be fatiqueness and vomiting, Elevated cholesterol level
There may be poor life expectancy.
There may be physical emotional cognitive and social functional declining. 30. Write a detailed account of gastrointestinal tract hormones.
These are specialized endocrine cells present in gastro-intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin cholecystokinin secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides.
Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HC1 and Pepsinogen.
Cholecystokinin is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.
It acts on the gall bladder to release in to duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge.
Secretion acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity.
Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits, gastric secretion and motility.

Question 29.
Enumerate the role of kidney as an endocrine gland?
Answer:
Kidney has endocrine tissues which act as partial endocrine gland. It secretes renin, erythropoietin and calcitripl. Renin is secreted by juxta glomerular cells. It increases blood pressure when angiotensin is formed in blood.

Erythropoietin is also secreted by the juxta glomerular cells of the kidney and stimulates erythropoieis in bone marrow. Calcitriol is secreted by proximal tubes of nephrons. It is an active form of vitamin D3 which promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption from intestine and accelerates bone formation.

Question 30.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro-intestial tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HC1 and pepsinogen.

Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet. It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

In-Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
Pituitary gland is located in a depression in the sphenoid bone of skull below the brain, so is also called hypothalamus cerebri. Discuss the following:
(a) Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body?
(b) Discuss the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining physiological processes?
(c) How does the posterior lobe of pituitary help in osmoregulation?
Answer:
(a) Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body because it regulates the activity of other endocrine glands such as adrenal gland, thyroid gland, testis and ovary.

(b) The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary gland to release or inhibit pituitary hormone releasing factor production thus maintaining Homeostasis of the body.

(c) The posterior lobe of pituitary helps in osmoregulation by secreting the hormones namely vasopressin and oxytocin which increases tubular reabsorption of water in the nephrons.

Question 2.
Endocrine glands control and coordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones. Due to certain physiological reasons, the blood glucose level of an otherwise normal person?
(a) Give the possible cause for the increases in blood glucose level?
(b) What is the chemical nature of this hormone? Discuss its role in the body?
(c) How can this condition be reversed?
Answer:
(a) Stress and anxiety could have been the possible causes for the sudden increase in blood glucose level.

(b) Insulin is a polypeptide hormone. Insulin is secreted by the Islets of Langerhans of pancreas. It helps in converting glucose into glycogen or fat and allowing-oxidation of glucose inside the cells. Thus, insulin helps maintain the blood sugar level.

Question 3.
Identify the peaks of FSH, LH, Oestrogen and Progesterone hormones through out the menstrual cycle?
Answer:

Oestrogen, FSH are in the peak during the follicular phase (6 -13 days) of menstruation. LH is at the peak during ovulation that is on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Progesterone is at the peak in the luteal phase of menstruation (14 – 28 days).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Chemical Coordination and Integration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is not related to hormones?
(a) They are secreted by ductless glands
(b) They act on the target
(c) They act as chemical messengers
(d) They play an important role in digestion
Answer:
(d) They play an important role in digestion

Question 2.
Which of the following is a partial endocrine?
(a) Thymus gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Gonads
(d) Parathyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Gonads

Question 3.
Which of the following is the function of Growth Hormone?
(a) It increases blood pressure
(b) It influences the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
(c) It stimulates melanin synthesis in melanocytes
(d) It promotes reabsorption of water by nephrons
Answer:
(b) It influences the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids

Question 4.
Which of the following stimulates milk secretion after the child birth in females?
(a) Luteotropic hormone
(b) Luteinizing hormone
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Somatotropin
Answer:
(a) Luteotropic hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following is the reason for calling vasopressin as the anti Jiuretic hormone?
(a) It promotes dilution of urine
(b) It reduces dilution of urine
(c) It increases blood pressure
(d) It constricts blood vessels
Answer:
(b) It reduces dilution of urine

Question 6.
A person is unable to sleep normally. He may not get proper secretion of?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Vasopression
(c) Melatonin
(d) Oxytocin
Answer:
(c) Melatonin

Question 7.
Why is parathormone called hypercalcemic hormone?
(a) It decreases blood calcium level
(b) It increases blood potassium level
(c) It increases blood calcium level
(d) It decreases blood potassium level
Answer:
(b) It increases blood potassium level

Question 8.
Which of the following is not the function of cortisol?
(a) It produces anti inflammatory reactions
(b) It stimulates RBC production
(c) It supresses the immune response
(d) It regulates water and electrolyte balance of the body
Answer:
(d) It regulates water and electrolyte balance of the body

Question 9.
Which adrenal hormone is concerned with maintaining electrolytes, osmotic pressure and blood pressure?
(a) Cortisol
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Adrenalin
Answer:
(c) Aldosterone

Question 10.
Which of the following hormones prepares the body for meeting emergency situations?
(a) Aderenalin and noradrenalin
(b) Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
(c) Cortisol and Aldosterone
(d) Glucocorticoids and corticosterone
Answer:
(a) Aderenalin and noradrenalin

Question 11.
Which of the following is the function of insulin?
(a) It promotes Glycogenolysis
(b) It increases the uptake of glucose into the body cells
(c) It promotes gluconeogenesis
(d) It reduces the cellular uptake and utilization of glucose
Answer:
(b) It increases the uptake of glucose into the body cells

Question 12.
Which of the following is the functiion of Glucogon?
(a) It increases the cellular utilization of glycogen into glucose
(b) It promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
(c) It inhibits the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
(d) It inhibits the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
Answer:
(b) It promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

Question 13.
Which of the following promotes the appearance of secondary sexual characters in male and female respectively?
(a) Testosterone and progesterone
(b) Progesterone and testosterone
(c) Testosterone and oestrogen
(d) Oestrogen and testosterone
Answer:
(c) Testosterone and oestrogen

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of progesterone?
(a) Implantation of zygote in the uterus
(b) Decreasing the contraction of uterus
(c) Formation of placenta
(d) Maturation of reproductive organs
Answer:
(d) Maturation of reproductive organs

Question 15.
Which of the following hormone is secreted by proximal tubules of nephron?
(a) Renin
(b) Calcitriol
(c) Erythropoietin
(d) Cholecystokinin
Answer:
(b) Calcitriol

Question 16.
A person attains a maximum of 4 feet height. What could be the reason for this?
(a) Hypersecretion of somatotropic hormone
(b) Hypersecretion of ACTH
(c) Hyposecretion of TSH
(d) Hyposecretion of somatotropic hormone
Answer:
(d) Hyposecretion of somatotropic hormone

Question 17.
An excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults lead to ……………….
(a) Gigantism
(b) Dwarfism
(c) Acromegaly
(d) Cretinism
Answer:
(c) Acromegaly

Question 18.
Why does cretenism occur?
(a) Hypothyroidism in adults
(b) Hypothyroidism in infants
(c) Hyperthroidism in adults
(d) lower level of iodine in blood
Answer:
(b) Hypothyroidism in infants

Question 19.
Increased heartbeat, high BP and protrusion of eyeball are the characteristics of …………….
(a) Endemic goitre
(b) Tetany
(c) Myxodema
(d) Grave’s disease
Answer:
(d) Grave’s disease

Question 20.
Hypocalcemia occures due to?
(a) Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
(b) Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone
(c) Hypersecretion of cortisol
(d) Hyposecretion of cortisol
Answer:
(b) Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone

Question 21.
Demineralization occurs due to?
(a) Hypoparathyroidism
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer:
(d) Hyperparathyroidism

Question 22.
Hyper pigmentation of skin and low metabolic rate are the symptoms of …………………..
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Grave’s disease
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(b) Addison’s disease

Question 23.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s diesease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

Question 24.
In Type I diabetes ………………
(a) Insulin is produced in sufficient quantity
(b) Insulin resistance occurs
(c) Insulin is produced more
(d) Insulin is not produced
Answer:
(d) Insulin is not produced

Question 25.
Excessive intake of food in diabetes is called as …………………..
(a) Polydipsia
(b) Polyurea
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Ketosis
Answer:
(c) Polyphagia

Question 26.
The hyposecretion of vasopressin results in …………….. ?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Ketosis
(d) Hyperglycemia
Answer:
(b) Diabetes insipidus

Question 27.
What does peptide hormone do as it cannot cross the phospholipid cell membrane?
(a) It combines with cAMP
(b) It binds to the receptors on the exterior cell surface
(c) It combines with steroids
(d) It combines with adenylate cyclases
Answer:
(a) It binds to the receptors on the exterior cell surface

Question 28.
In case of steroids hormones, dimer of receptor-hormone complex is formed. What does it do then?
(a) It binds with golgi complex
(b) It binds with tRNA
(c) It binds with mRNA
(d) It binds with DNA
Answer:
(d) It binds with DNA

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The hormones are converted into inactive compounds by the …………………….. and excreted by the ……………………..
Answer:
(liver, kidneys )

Question 2.
Hormones act as …………………….. to perform specific functions in the target organs.
Answer:
( organic catalysts / coenzymes )

Question 3.
The pituitary gland is controlled by the ……………………..
Answer:
(hypothalamus)

Question 4.
Hypothalamus produces …………………….. which regulate the secretions of the pituitary gland.
Answer:
(neurotransmitters)

Question 5.
The pituitary gland is located in the bony cavity of the sphenoid bone called ……………………..
Answer:
( sella turcica)

Question 6.
The pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus by a stalk called ……………………..
Answer:
(infundibulum)

Question 7.
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland originates from the embriyonic invagination of pharyngeal epithelium called ……………………..
Answer:
(Rathke’s pouch)

Question 8.
…………………….. decreases the rate of glucose
Answer:
(Growth Hormone)

Question 9.
ACT4 stimulates melanin synthesis in ……………………..
Answer:
(Melanocytes)

Question 10.
LH is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
(Interstitial cell stimulating Hormone)

Question 11.
FSH and LH are collectively referred as ……………………..
Answer:
(gonadotropins)

Question 12.
High prolactin secretion during lactation supresses LH secretion and ……………………..
Answer:
(ovulation)

Question 13.
…………………….. promotes reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal tubules of nephron.
Answer:
(ADH / vasopressin )

Question 14.
…………………….. stimulates ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Answer:
(oxytocin)

Question 15.
The pineal gland secretes …………………….. which plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm of our body.
Answer:
(melatonin)

Question 16.
The two lateral lobes of thyroid gland are connectd by a median tissue mass called ……………………..
Answer:
(isthmus)

Question 17.
…………………….. gland produces ‘T’ lymphocytes which provides cell mediated immunity.
Answer:
(Thymus)

Question 18.
…………………….. produces anti inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response.
Answer:
(cortisol)

Question 19.
…………………….. increases the breakdown of liver glycogen into glucose
Answer:
(Adrenalin)

Question 20.
Both adrenalin and nor adrenalin are ……………………..
Answer:
(catecholamines)

Question 21.
…………………….. stimulates the reabsorption of sodium and water.
Answer:
(Aldosterone)

Question 22.
The beta cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(Insulin)

Question 23.
The alpha cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(glucagon)

Question 24.
The delta cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(somatostatin)

Question 25.
Insulin inhibits the breakdown of …………………….. into glucose.
Answer:
(glycogen)

Question 26.
…………………….. is called a hypoglycemic hormone.
Answer:
(Insulin)

Question 27.
…………………….. promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
Answer:
(Glucogon)

Question 28.
The breakdown of glucose is called ……………………..
Answer:
(glycogenolysis)

Question 29.
The synthesis of glucose from non – carbohydrate molecules is called ……………………..
Answer:
(gluconeolysis)

Question 30.
…………………….. reduces the cellular update and utilization of glucose.
Answer:
(Glugocon)

Question 31.
…………………….. is called a hyperglycemic hormone.
Answer:
(Glucogon)

Question 32.
The …………………….. cells of testes secrete male sex hormone.
Answer:
(Leydig)

Question 33.
…………………….. is reposible for development of secondary sexual charactes of female.
Answer:
(Oestrogen)

Question 34.
…………………….. prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum.
Answer:
(Progesterone)

Question 35.
…………………….. on the atrial wall secretes atrial natriuretic factor to reduce the blood pressure .
Answer:
(cardiocytes)

Question 36.
…………………….. increases blood pressure when angiotension is formed in blood.
Answer:
(Renin)

Question 37.
stimulates the erythyropoiesis in bone marrow.
Answer:
(Erythropoietin)

Question 38.
…………………….. is the hormone secreted by proximal tubules of nephron which promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption from intestine.
Answer:
(Calcitriol)

Question 39.
…………………….. stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen.
Answer:
(Gastrin)

Question 40.
…………………….. stimulates the release of bile into duodenum and secretion of panereatic enzymes.
Answer:
(Cholecystokinin)

Question 41.
…………………….. acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralise the acidity.
Answer:
(secretin)

Question 42.
…………………….. is caused due to hyposecretion of growth hormone in children.
Answer:
(dwarfism)

Question 43.
…………………….. is caused due to hypersecretion of growth hormone in childre.
Answer:
(Gigantism)

Question 44.
…………………….. is caused due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults.
Answer:
(Acromegaly)

Question 45.
The hypothyroidism in children causes ……………………..
Answer:
(cretinism)

Question 46.
The hyposecretion of thyriod in adults causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Myxodema)

Question 47.
Myxodema is otherwise called ……………………..
Answer:
(Gull’s disease)

Question 48.
The hypersecretion of thyriod gland causes as ……………………..
Answer:
(exopthalmic goitre)

Question 49.
The hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Tetany)

Question 50.
The exophthalmic goiter is called as ……………………..
Answer:
(Grave’s disease/thyrotoxicosis)

Question 51.
Due to hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone serum …………………….. level decreases.
Answer:
(calcium)

Question 52.
Demineralization is caused due to ……………………..
Answer:
(hyperparathyroidism)

Question 53.
…………………….. is caused due to hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids from the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
(Addison’s disease)

Question 54.
The hypersecretion of cortisol causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Cushing’s syndrome)

Question 55.
Type II diabetes is caused due to ……………………..
Answer:
(insulin resistance)

Question 56.
Type I diabetes is ……………………..
Answer:
insulin-dependent

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Exocrine glands and Endocrine glands?
Answer:

Exocrine	Endocrine glands
1. Exocrine glands have ducts to carry their secretions.	1. Endocrine glands do not have ducts to carry their secretions. They are directly released into the blood. Hence these are called ductless glands.
2. These are concerned with digestion and other functions.	2. These are concerned with growth, puberty, metabolism, and maintenance of homeostasis.
3. eg. liver, tear gland, mammary gland.	3. eg. pituitary gland, thyroid gland.

Question 2.
If you are encountered suddenly by a person. What may be your other reactions?
Answer:
As there is a more supply of blood to the skeletal muscles during an emergency due to the secretion of adrenalin I will flee from the spot.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the hypothalamus?
Answer:
Hypothalamus maintains homeostasis, blood pressure, body temperature, the cardio and fluid-electrolyte balance of the body. It influences various emotional responses.

Question 4.
What is the function of hormones?
Answer:
Hormones may speed up or slow down or alter the activity of the target cells.

Question 5.
What are the lobes of adenohypophysis?
Answer:
Pars distalis, Pars intermedia and Pars tuberalis.

Question 6.
What are exocrine glands?
Answer:
Exocrine glands have a duct that carries their substances to the membrane surfaces.
Ex. Salivary gland, Gastric gland.

Question 7.
Name the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland?
Answer:
The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes six tropic hormones such as growth hormone (GH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulation hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), luteotropic hormone (LTH), and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) (in lower animals only). The posterior lobe of the pituitary secretes the hormones namely vasopressin and oxytocin.

Question 8.
What is the chemical nature of the hormone of amine?
Answer:
They are small water-soluble derived from tyrosine or tryptophan.
Ex. Adrenalin, noradrenalin, melatonin, and thyroid hormone.

Question 9.
Write on the role of Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Adreno cortico tropic hormone? Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) or thyrotropin?
Answer:
TSH is a glycoprotein hormone, which stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete Triiodothyronine (T₃) and thyroxine (T₄). TSH secretion is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism. Its release from the anterior pituitary is induced by the thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). When thyroxine level in the blood increases, TRH acts on both the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TSH secretion.

Adreno cortico tropic hormone (ACTH):
ACTH is a peptide hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. It stimulates melanin synthesis in melanocytes, induces the release of fatty acids from adipose tissues, and stimulates insulin secretion. ACTH secretion is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism.

Question 10.
Point out the nature of hormones of Adenohypophysis
Answer:

Growth Hormone or somatotrophic hormone (GH) Peptide hormone
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) or ThyrotropinGlycoprotein hormone
Adreno corticotropic Hormone (ACTH) – Peptide hormone
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) – Glycoprotein hormone
Luteinizing hormone (LH) – Glycoprotein hormone
Luteotropic hormone (LTH) or luteotropin or lactogenic hormone or Prolactin or mammotropin – Protein hormone

Question 11.
What is the role of the Luteinizing hormone (LH)?
Answer:
Luteinizing Hormone is a glycoprotein hormone which is also known as interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH). In males, ICSH acts on the interstitial cells of the testis to produce the male sex hormone, testosterone. In females, LH along with FSH matures the ovarian follicles.

LH independently induces ovulation, maintains the corpus luteum, and promotes synthesis and release of ovarian hormones. FSH and LH are collectively referred to as gonadotropins. FSH and LH are not produced during childhood. The secretion of FSH and LH starts only during the prepubertal period.

Question 12.
What is the significance of Luteotropic hormone (LTH)?
Answer:
Luteo Tropic Hormone is also called luteotropin or lactogenic hormone or prolactin or mammotropin. It is a protein hormone which stimulates milk secretion after the child birth in females. High prolactin secretion during lactation suppresses LH secretion and ovulation since it induces the corpus luteum hence named as luteo tropic hormone.

Question 13.
What are the hormones of neurohypophysis?
Answer:
(i) Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
ADH is a peptide hormone which promotes reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal tubules of nephron and thereby reduces loss of water through urine. Hence it is called as anti diuretic hormone. It also causes constriction of blood vessels when released in large amount and increases blood pressure. ADH deficiency causes Diabetes insipidus which induces the production of large amount of urine.

(ii) Oxytocin (means quick birth):
It is a peptide hormone which stimulates vigorous contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus during childbirth and ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

Question 14.
What are the functions of follicle stimulation hormone?
Answer:
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH):
FSH is a glycoprotein hormone which regulates the functions of the gonads (ovary and testis). In males, FSH along with androgens acts on the germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules and stimulates the production and release of sperms (spermatogenesis). In females, FSH acts on the ovaries and brings about the development and maturation of gratfran follicles.

Question 15.
Write on the role of the parathyroid gland?
Answer:
In human, four tiny parathyroid glands are found in the posterior wall of the thyroid glands. This gland is composed of two types of cells, the chief cells and oxyphil cells. The chief cells secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the functions of oxyphil cells are not known. Parathyroid hormone or parathormone (PTH).

PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone. It is a peptide hormone involved in controlling the calcium and phosphate homeostasis. The secretion of PTH is controlled by calcium level in the blood. It increases the blood calcium level by stimulating osteoclasts to dissolve the bone matrix.

As a result calcium and phosphate are released into the blood. PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium and excretion of phosphates by the renal tubules and promotes activation by vitamin D to increase calcium absorption by intestinal muscosal cells.

Question 16.
Write a paragraph on the Thymus gland?
Answer:
Thymus gland is partially an endocrine and partially a lymphoid organ. It is a bilobed structure located just above the heart and aorta, behind the sternum. It is covered by fibrous capsule and anatomically it is divisble into an outer cortex and an inner medulla.

It secretes four hormones such as thymulin, thymosin, thymopoietin and thymic humoral factor (THF). The primary function of thymus is the production of immunocompetent ‘T’ lymphocytes which provides cell-mediated immunity.

Question 17.
Explain the hormones secreted by Adrenal gland?
Answer:
A pair of adrenal glands are located at the anterior end of the kidneys, hence also called suprarenal glands. Anatomically the outer region is the cortex and the inner region is the medulla.

Histologically the adrenal cortex has three distinct zones, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis. Zona glomerulosa an outer thin layer constitutes about 15% of adrenal cortex, and secretes mineralocorticoids.

Zona fasciculata, the middle widest layer constitutes about 75% of adrenal cortex and secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen. Zona reticularis, an inner zone of adrenal cortex constitute about 10% of adrenal cortex and secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Adrenal medulla:
It is the central part of adrenal gland and is composed of ovoid and columnar cells, which are found around the network of blood capillaries. Adrenalin (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) are the two hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla. Both adrenalin and noradrenalin are catecholamines.

Function of adrenal hormones:
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis (the life-saving activity). Cortisol is a glucocorticoid invloved in maintaining cardiovascular and kidney functions.

It produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response. It stimulates RBC production. It is also known as stress combat hormone. Mineralocorticoids regulate water and electrolyte balance of our body.

Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium and water and eliminates potassium and phosphate ions through excretion,, thus it helps in maintaining electrolytes, osmotic pressure and blood pressure. Adrenal androgen plays a role in hair growth in the axial region, pubis and face during puberty.

The adrenal medulla secretes the hormones adrenalin and noradrenalin and is referred to as “3F hormone” (fight, flight and fright hormone). Adrenalin increases liver glycogen breakdown into glucose and increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells.

During emergency it increases heart beat rate and blood pressure. It stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow. It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles therby increases the metabolic rate of skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles and nervous tissue.

Question 18.
What are the causes of myxoedema? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Hypo secretion of thyroid in adults causes myxedema or Gull’s disease.
The symptoms are

Decreased mental activity
Memory loss
The slowness of movement speech
General weakness of body
Dry coarse skin
Scarce hair
Puffy appearance
Disturbed sexual function
Low BMR
Poor appetite
Subnormal body temperature

Question 19.
Explain the endorenal function of gonads?
Answer:
Testis:
A pair of testis is present in the scrotal sac of males. The testis functions as a sex organ and also as an endocrine gland. The testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells or Leyding cells. The Leyding cells secrete several male sex hormones, collectively called androgens, mainly testosterone.

Functions of testosterone:
Under the influence of FSH and LH testosterone initiates maturation of male reproductive organs, and the appearance of secondary sexual characters, muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, masculine voice and male sexual behaviour. It enhances the total bone matrix and plays a stimulating role in the process of spermatogenesis.

Ovary:
Females have a pair of ovaries located in the pelvic region of the abdomen. The ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues. Besides producing the eggs or ova, the ovaries secrete the steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone. Oestrogen is responsible for the maturation of reproductive organs and the development of secondary sexual characters at puberty. Along with progesterone, oestrogens promote breast development and initiate cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.

Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum. It decreases uterine contraction during pregnancy and stimulates mammary glands and milk secretion. It is responsible for premenstrual changes in the uterus and is essential for the formation of the placenta.

Question 20.
Write the disorders associated with growth hormone?
Answer:
Dwarfism is due to hyposecretion of growth hormone (GH) in children, skeletal growth and sexual maturity are arrested. They attain a maximum height of 4 feet only. Gigantism is due to hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in children. Overgrowth of the skeletal structure occurs (up to 8 feet) and the visceral growth is not appropriate with that of limbs.

Acromegaly is due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. Overgrowth of hand bones, feet bones, jawbones, malfunctioning of gonads, enlargement of viscera, tongue, lungs, heart, liver, spleen, and endocrine gland-like thyroid, adrenal, etc., are the symptoms of acromegaly.

Question 21.
Why adrenalin is a hormone of flight fright and fight?
Answer:

Adrenalin during the time of emergency increases liver glycogen.
It increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells.
It increases heartbeat rate and blood pressure.
It stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow.
It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and increases the metabolic rate of skeletal muscles cardiac muscles and nervous tissue. Hence it is known as a hormone of fight-flight and fright hormones.

Question 22.
List the functions of testosterone.
Answer:

Testosterone initiates the maturation of male reproductive organs.
It is responsible for the secondary sexual characters like muscular growth facial and axillary hair masculine voice and male sexual behavior.
It enhances the total bone matrix.
It plays a stimulating role in spermatogenesis.

Question 23.
Write a paragraph on Addison’s disease?
Answer:
Addison’s disease is caused due to hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids from the adrenal cortex. Muscular weakness, low BP, loss of appetite, vomiting, hyperpigmentation of the skin, low metabolic rate, subnormal temperature, reduced blood volume – weight loss are the symptoms that occur in Addison’s disease. Reduces aldosterone secretion increases urinary excretion of Na Cl. and decreases potassium excretion leading to dehydration.

Question 24.
Write a paragraph on Cushing’s syndrome?
Answer:
Cushing’s syndrome is caused due to excess secretion of cortisol. Obesity of the face and trunk, redness of the face, hand, feet, thin skin, excessive hair growth, loss of minerals from bone (osteoporoses) systolic hypertension are features of Cushing’s syndrome. Suppression of sexual function like atrophy of gonads is the other symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome.

Question 25.
Write on Hypoglycaemia?
Answer:
Hypoglycemia is due to increased secretion of insulin thereby blood glucose level decreases. In this disorder blood, glucose level lowers than the normal fasting index. Increased heartbeat, weakness, nervousness, headache, confusion, lack of coordination, slurred speech, serious brain defects like epilepsy and coma occur.

Question 26.
Endocrine glands control and co-ordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones. Due to certain physiological reasons; the blood glucose level of an otherwise normal person
a) Give the possible cause for the increase in blood glucose level.
b) What is the chemical nature of this hormone? Discuss its role in the body.
c) How can this condition be reversed.
Answer:

Insulin hormone plays an important role in glucose homeostasis.
If insulin secretion is reduced a condition called hyperglycemia occurs in our body ie. Diabetes mellitus.
As a result glucose level is elevated.
The reason for this is in the absence of insulin the uptake of glucose especially into muscle and fat cells is prohibited.
At the same time breakdown of glycogen to glucose, the conversion of amino acids or fats to glucose is enhanced. Thus glucose level increases.
Moreover in Type II diabetes also known as Non-insulin-dependent diabetes caused due to reduced sensitivity to insulin also called insulin resistance is due to obesity and inadequate exercise the tissues are not able to utilize glucose. And so the blood glucose level increases.

Question 27.
Explain the mechanism of hormone action?
Answer:
Peptide hormones cannot cross the phospolipid cell membrane and bind to the receptors on the exterior cell surface. They are transported to the golgi, which is the site of modification. It acts as a first messenger in the cell. Hormones on binding to their receptors do not enter target cell but generate the production of second messengers such as cyclic AMP (cAMP), which in turn regulates cellular metabolism.

This is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase. The interaction between the hormone at the surface and the effect brought out by cAMP within the cell is known as signaling cascade. At each step there is a possibility of amplification.

One hormone molecule may bind to multiple receptor molecule before it is degraded.
Each receptor may activate several adenylate cyclases each of which make many camps.
Thus there is more signal after each step.

The actions of CAMP are terminated by phosphodiesterases. The effect of peptide hormones like insulin, glucagon, somatotropin are uauslly short-lived because they work through second messenger system.

Steroid hormones can easily cross the cell membrane and bind to their receptors, which are intracellular or intranuclear. Upon binding to the receptors, they pair up with another receptor – hormone complex (dimerize). This dimer can then bind to DNA and alter its transcription.

The effect of steroid hormones such as aldosterone, FSH is long-lived, as they alter the amount of mRNA and protein in a cell.

Amino acid-derived hormones are derived from one or two amino acid with a few additional modifications. Thyroid hormone is synthesised from tyrosine and includes the addition of several iodine atoms. Epinephrine an amino acid derivative may function through second messenger system like peptide hormone or they may actually enter the cell and function like steroid hormones.

Question 28.
Tabulate the major hypothalamic hormones and their functions?
Answer:

S.No	Hormones	Functions
1.	Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)	Stimulate the secretion of TSH
2.	Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)	Stimulates the secretion of FSH
3.	Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)	Stimulates the secretion of ACTH
4.	Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)	Stimulates the secretion of GH
5.	Prolactin releasing hormone (PRH)	Stimulates the secretion of Prolactin
6.	Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)	Stimulates the secretion of LH
7.	MSH releasing hormone	Stimulates the secretion of MSH
8.	Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)	Inhibits the secretion of GH
9.	Prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)	Inhibits the secretion of Prolactin
10.	MSH inhibiting hormone	Inhibits the secretion of MSH

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration Read More »