Class 11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Work, Energy and Power Textual Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Work, Energy and Power Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
A uniform force of (\(2 \hat{i}+\hat{j}\)) + N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces from position \((3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\) m to \((5 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j})\) m. Th e work done by the force on the particle is
[AIPMT model 2013]
(a) 9 J
(b) 6 J
(c) 10 J
(d) 12 J
Answer:
(c) 10 J

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 2.
A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of [AIPMT model 2004]
(a) \(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
(b) 1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 23
Answer:
(d) 1 : 23

Question 3.
A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s-1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction?
(Take g = 10 ms-2) [AIPMT 2009]
(a) 20 J
(b) 30 J
(c) 40 J
(d) 10 J
Answer:
(a) 20 J

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 4.
An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water ? [AIPMT 2009]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 1
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)

Question 5.
A body of mass 4 m is lying in xv-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal speed v the total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is [AIPMT 2014]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 7
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3}{2} m v^{2}\)

The potential energy calculator to find how much energy is stored in an object raised off the ground.

Question 6.
The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done
(a) by the system against a conservative force
(b) by the system against a non-conservative force
(c) upon the system by a conservative force
(d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
Answer:
(a) by the system against a conservative force

Question 7.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 8
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 8.
The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is
(a) always negative
(b) zero
(c) always positive
(d) not defined
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 9.
If the linear momentum of the obj ect is increased by 0.1 %, then the kinetic energy is increased by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) 0.01%
Answer:
(b) 0.2%

Question 10.
If the potential energy of the particle is Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 7031, then force experienced by the particle is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 16
Answer:
(c) F = -βx

Question 11.
A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
(a) v
(b) v2
(c) v3
(d) v4
Answer:
(c) v4

Question 12.
Two equal masses m1 and m2 are moving along the same straight line with velocities 5 ms-1 and -9 ms-1 respectively. If the collision is elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of Wj and m2, respectively
(a) -4 ms-1 and 10 ms-1
(b) 10 ms-1 and 0 ms-1
(c) -9 ms-1 and 5 ms-1
(d) 5 ms-1 and 1 ms-1
Answer:
(c) -9 ms-1 and 5 ms-1

Question 13.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function) [IIT 2004]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 20
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 21

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 14.
A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F(x) = -kx + ax3. Here, k and a are positive constants. For x ≥ 0, the functional form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is [IIT 2002]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 22
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 23

Question 15.
A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the other. Then, the long piece will have a force constant of
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 24
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3}{2} k\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Work, Energy and Power Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain how the definition of work in physics is different from general perception.
Answer:
The term work is used in diverse contexts in daily life. It refers to both physical as well as mental work. In fact, any activity can generally be called as work. But in Physics, the.term work is treated as a physical quantity with a precise definition. Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied on a body displaces it.

Question 2.
Write the various types of potential energy. Explain the formulae.
Answer:
(a) U = mgh
U – Gravitational potential energy
m – Mass of the object,
g – acceleration due to gravity
h – Height from the ground,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 26
u – Elastic potential energy
k – String constant; x-displacement.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 27
U – electrostatic potential energy
\(\varepsilon_{0}\) = absolute permittivity
q1, q2 – electric charges

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
Write the differences between conservative and non-conservative forces. Give two examples each.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 28

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of elastic and inelastic collision.
Answer:
In any collision process, the total linear momentum and total energy are always conserved whereas the total kinetic energy need not be conserved always. Some part of the initial kinetic energy is transformed to other forms of energy. This is because, the impact of collisions and deformation occurring due to collisions may in general, produce heat, sound, light etc. By taking these effects into account, we classify the types of collisions as follows:
(a) Elastic collision
(b) Inelastic collision
(a) Elastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before collision) is equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as elastic collision, i.e.,
Total kinetic energy before collision = Total kinetic energy after collision
(b) Inelastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before collision) is not equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as inelastic collision, i.e.,
Total kinetic energy before collision ≠ Total kinetic energy after collision
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 261
Even though kinetic energy is not conserved but the total energy is conserved. This is because the total energy contains the kinetic energy term and also a term ∆Q, which includes all the losses that take place during collision. Note that loss in kinetic energy during collision is transformed to another form of energy like sound, thermal, etc. Further, if the two colliding bodies stick together after collision such collisions are known as completely inelastic collision or perfectly inelastic collision. Such a collision is found very often. For example when a clay putty is thrown on a moving vehicle, the clay putty (or Bubblegum) sticks to the moving vehicle and they move together with the same velocity.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
Define the following
(a) Coefficient of restitution
(b) Power
(c) Law of conservation of energy
(d) Loss of kinetic energy in inelastic collision.
Answer:
(a) The ratio of velocity of separation after collision to the velocity of approach before collision
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 281
(b) Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 29
Its unit is watt.
(c) The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be transformed from one form to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant.
(d) In perfectly inelastic collision, the loss in kinetic energy during collision is transformed to another form of energy like sound, thermal, heat, light etc. Let KEi be the total kinetic energy before collision and KEf be the total kinetic energy after collision.
Total kinetic energy before collision,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 30
Total kinetic energy after Collision,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 31
Then the loss of kinetic energy is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 32

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Work, Energy and Power Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain with graphs the difference between work done by a constant force and by a variable force.
Answer:
Work done by a constant force: When a constant force F acts on a body, the small work done (dW) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by the relation,
dW = (F cos θ) dr ..(1)
The total work done in producing a displacement from initial position ri to final position rf is,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 33
The graphical representation of the work done by a constant force is shown in figure given below. The area under the graph shows the work done by the constant force.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 34
Work done by a variable force: When the component of a variable force F acts on a body, the small work done (dW) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by the relation
dW = F cos θ dr [F cos θ is the component of the variable force F]
where, F and θ are variables. The total work done for a displacement from initial position ri to final position rf is given by the relation,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 35
A graphical representation of the work done by a variable force is shown in figure given below. The area under the graph is the work done by the variable force.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 36

Question 2.
State and explain work energy principle. Mention any three examples for it.
Answer:
(i) If the work done by the force on the body is positive then its kinetic energy increases.
(ii) If the work done by the force on the body is negative then its kinetic energy decreases.
(iii) If there is no work done by the force on the body then there is no change in its kinetic energy, which means that the body has moved at constant speed provided its mass remains constant.
(iv) When a particle moves with constant speed in a circle, there is no change in the kinetic energy of the particle. So according to work energy principle, the work done by centripetal force is zero.

Question 3.
Arrive at an expression for power and velocity. Give some examples for the same.
Answer:
The work done by a force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}\) for a displacement \(d \vec{r}\) is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 37
Left hand side of the equation (i) can be written as
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 38
Since, velocity is Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 39. Right hand side of the equation (i) can be written as dt
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 391
Substituting equation (ii) and equation (iii) in equation (i), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 40
This relation is true for any arbitrary value of dt. This implies that the term within the bracket must be equal to zero, i.e.,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 41
Hence power \(\mathrm{P}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \vec{v}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 4.
Arrive at an expression for elastic collision in one dimension and discuss various cases.
Answer:
Consider two elastic bodies of masses m1 and m2 moving in a straight line (along positive x direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in figure given below.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 42
In order to have collision, we assume that the mass m] moves faster than mass m2 i.e., u1 > u2. For elastic collision, the total linear momentum and kinetic energies of the two bodies before and after collision must remain the same.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 43
From the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Total momentum before collision (pi) = Total momentum after collision (pf)
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2 …(i)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 44
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 45
This means that for any elastic head on collision, the relative speed of the two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction. Further note that this result is independent of mass.
Rewriting the above equation for v1 and v2,
v1 = v2 + u2 – u2 …(vi)
Or v2 = u1 + v1 – u2 …(vii)
To find the final velocities v1 and v2:
Substituting equation (vii) in equation (ii) gives the velocity of as m1 as
m1 (u1 – v1) = m2(u1 + v1 – u2 – u2)
m1 (u1 – y1) = m2 (u1 + + v1  – 2u2)
m1u1 – m1v1 = m2u1 + m2v1 + 2m2u2
m1u1 – m2u1 + 2m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v1
(m1– m2) u1 + 2m2u2 = (m1 + m2) v1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 46
Similarly, by substituting (vi) in equation (ii) or substituting equation (viii) in equation (vii), we get the final velocity of m2 as
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 47
Case 1: When bodies has the same mass i.e., m1 = m2,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 48
The equations (x) and (xi) show that in one dimensional elastic collision, when two bodies of equal mass collide after the collision their velocities are exchanged.
Case 2: When bodies have the same mass i.e., m1 = m2 and second body (usually called target) is at rest (u2 = 0),
By substituting m1 = m2 = and u2 = 0 in equations (viii) and equations (ix) we get,
from equation (viii) ⇒ v1 = 0 …(xii)
from equation (ix) ⇒ v2 = u1 ….. (xiii)
Equations (xii) and (xiii) show that when the first body comes to rest the second body moves with the initial velocity of the first body.
Case 3: The first body is very much lighter than the second body
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 49
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (viii) by m2, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 50
Similarly the numerator and denominator of equation (ix) by m2, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 501
The equation (xiv) implies that the first body which is lighter returns back (rebounds) in the opposite direction with the same initial velocity as it has a negative sign. The equation (xv) implies that the second body which is heavier in mass continues to remain at rest even after collision. For example, if a ball is thrown at a fixed wall, the ball will bounce back from the wall with the same velocity with which it was thrown but in opposite direction.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 51
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (xiii) by m1, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 52
The equation (xvi) implies that the first body which is heavier continues to move with the same initial velocity. The equation (xvii) suggests that the second body which is lighter will move with twice the initial velocity of the first body. It means that the lighter body is thrown away from the point of collision.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
What is inelastic collision? In which way it is different from elastic collision. Mention few examples in day to day life for inelastic collision.
Answer:
Inelastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before collision) is not equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as inelastic collision, i.e.,
Total kinetic energy before collision ≠ Total kinetic energy after collision
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 53
Even though kinetic energy is not conserved but the total energy is conserved. This is because the total energy contains the kinetic energy term and also a term ∆Q, which includes all the losses that take place during collision. Note that loss in kinetic energy during collision is transformed to another form of energy like sound, thermal, etc. Further, if the two colliding bodies stick together after collision such collisions are known as completely inelastic collision or perfectly inelastic collision. Such a collision is found very often. For example when a clay putty is thrown on a moving vehicle, the clay putty (or Bubblegum) sticks to the moving vehicle and they move together with the same velocity.
Difference between Elastic & in elastic collision
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 54

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Numerical Problems

Question 1.
Calculate the work done by a force of 30N in lifting a load of 2 Kg to a height of 10m(g = 10 ms-1)
Answer:
Given: F = 30 N, load (m) = 2 kg; height = 10 m, g = 10 ms-2
Gravitational force F = mg = 30 N
The distance moved h = 10 m
Work done on the object W = Fh = 30 × 10 = 300 J.

Question 2.
A ball with a velocity of 5 ms-1 impinges at angle of 60° with the vertical on a smooth horizontal plane. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, find the velocity and direction after the impact.
Answer:
Given: Velocity of ball: 5 ms-1
Angle of inclination with vertical: 60°
Coefficient of restitution = 0.5.
Note: Let the angle reflection is θ’ and the speed after collision is v’. The floor exerts a force on the ball along the normal during the collision. There is no force
parallel to the surface. Thus, the parallel component of the velocity of the ball remains unchanged. This gives
v’ sin θ’ = v sin θ …… (i)
Vertical component with respect to floor = v’ cos θ’ (velocity of separation)
Velocity of approach = v cos θ
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 60
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 601
from (i) and (ii)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 61
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 62

Question 3.
A bob of mass m is attached to one end of the rod of negligible mass and length r, the other end of which is pivoted freely at a fixed center O as shown in the figure.
What initial speed must be given to the object to reach the top of the circle?
(Hint: Use law of conservation of energy). Is this speed. less or greater than speed obtained in the section 4.2.9?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 63
Answer:
To get the vertical speed given to the object to reach the top of the circle, law of conservation of energy can be used at a points (1) and (2)
Total energy at 1 = Total energy at 2
∴ Potential energy at point 1 = 0
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 64
from eqn (i)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 641
In this case bob of mass m is connected with a rod of negligible mass, so the velocity of bob at highest point can be equal to zero i.e. v2 = 0
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 65
The speed of bob obtained here is lesser than the speed obtained in section 4.2.9. It is only because of string is replaced by a massless rod here.

Question 4.
Two different unknown masses A and B collide. A is initially at rest when B has a speed v. After collision B has a speed v/2 and moves at right angles to its original direction of motion. Find the direction in which A moves after collision.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 66

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 20 g strikes a pendulum of mass 5 kg. The centre of mass of pendulum rises a vertical distance of 10 cm. If the bullet gets embedded into the pendulum, calculate its initial speed.
Answer:
Given: m1 = 20 g = 20 × 10-3 kg; m2 = 5 kg; s = 10 × 10-2 m.
Let the speed of the bullet be v. The common velocity of bullet and pendulum bob is V. According to law of conservation of linear momentum.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 67
The bob with bullet go up with a deceleration of g = 9.8 ms-2. Bob and bullet come to rest at a height of 10 × 10-2 m.
from III rd equation of motion
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 68

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Conceptual Questions

Question 1.
A spring which in initially in un-stretched condition, is first stretched by a length x and again by a further length x. The work done in the first case W1 is one third of the work done in second case W2. True or false?
Answer:
The amount of work done to stretching distance x
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 691
Total work done in stretching the spring through a distance 2x is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 701
Extra work required to stretch the additional x distance is
W = W2 – W1 = 4W1 – W1 = 3W1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 712
Hence it is true

Question 2.
Which is conserved in inelastic collision? Total energy (or) Kinetic energy?
Answer:
In inelastic collision total energy is only conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved. A part of kinetic energy is converted into some other form of energy such as sound, heat energy.
Note: The linear momentum is also conserved.

Question 3.
Is there any net work done by external forces on a car moving with a constant speed along a straight road?
Answer:
If the car moves at constant speed, then there is no change in its kinetic energy. It implies that if there is no change in kinetic energy then there is no work done by the force on the body provided its mass remains constant.

Question 4.
A car starts from rest and moves on a surface with uniform acceleration. Draw the graph of kinetic energy versus displacement. What information you can get from that graph?
Answer:
A car starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. The graph between kinetic energy and displacement, is a straight line.
The slope of KE and displacement graph gives net force acting on the car to keep the car with uniform acceleration.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 72

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
A charged particle moves towards another charged particle. Under what conditions the total momentum and the total energy of the system conserved?
Answer:
Coulomb force is acting in between the charged particles Internal force is a conservative force. If no external forces act or the work done by external forces is zero then the mechanical energy of the system and also total linear momentum also remains constant.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Work, Energy and Power Additional Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Thrust and linear momentum
(a) Thrust and linear momentum
(b) Work and energy
(c) Work and power
(d) Power and energy
Answer:
(b) Work and energy

Question 2.
The rate of work done is called as
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) force
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(b) power

Question 3.
Unit of work done
(a) Nm
(b) joule
(c) either a or b
(d) none
Answer:
(c) either a or b

Question 4.
Dimensional formula for work done is
(a) MLT-1
(b) ML2T2
(c) M-1L-1T2
(d) ML2T-2
Answer:
(d) ML2T-2

Question 5.
When a body moves on a horizontal direction, the amount of work done by the gravitational force is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 6.
The amount of work done by centripetal force on the object moving in a circular path is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) positive
(d) negative
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 7.
The work done by the goal keeper catches the ball coming towards him by applying a force is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 8.
If the angle between force and displacement is acute then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) maximum
Answer:
(a) positive

Question 9.
If the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) maximum
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 10.
If the angle between force and displacement is obtuse, then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) minimum
Answer:
(b) negative

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 11.
The area covered under force and displacement graph is
(a) work done
(b) acceleration
(c) power
(d) kinetic energy
Answer:
(a) work done

Question 12.
The capacity to do work is
(a) force
(b) energy
(c) work done
(d) power
Answer:
(b) energy

Question 13.
The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called as
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) none
Answer:
(b) kinetic energy

Question 14.
The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called as
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) none
Answer:
(a) potential energy

Question 15.
1 erg is equivalent to
(a) 10-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J
Answer:
(a) 10-7 J

Question 16.
1 electron volt is equivalent to
(a) 10-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J
Answer:
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J

Question 17.
1 kilowatt hour is equivalent to
(a) 10-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J
Answer:
(d) 3.6 × 10-6 J

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 18.
1 calorie is equivalent to
(a) 10-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 106 J
Answer:
(c) 4.186 J

Question 19.
The amount of work done by a moving body depends on the
(a) mass of the body
(b) velocity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) time
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
The kinetic energy of a body is given by
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 301
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)

Question 21.
Kinetic energy of the body is always
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) negative
(d) positive
Answer:
(d) positive

Question 22.
If the work done by the force on the body is positive then its kinetic energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) zero
(d) either increases or decreases
Answer:
(a) increases

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 23.
If p is the momentum of the particle then its kinetic energy is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 312
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{p}^{2}}{2 \mathbf{m}}\)

Question 24.
If two objects of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are moving with the same momentum then the kinetic energy will be greater for
(a) m1
(b) m2
(c) m1 or m2
(d) both will have equal kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) m2

Question 25.
For a given momentum, the kinetic energy is proportional to
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 321
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{m}}\)

Question 26.
Elastic potential energy possessed by a spring is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 331
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2

Question 27.
Potential energy stored in the spring depends on
(a) spring constant
(b) mass
(c) gravity
(d) length
Answer:
(b) mass

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 28.
Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). If they are stretched by the same force then (u1, u2 are potential energy of the springs) is
(a) u1 > u2
(b) u2 > u1
(c) u1 = u2
(d) u1 ≥ u2
Answer:
(b) u2 > u1

Question 29.
Conservative force is
(a) electrostatic force
(b) magnetic force
(c) gravitational force
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 30.
Non conservative force is
(a) frictional force
(b) viscous force
(c) air resistance
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 31.
If the work done is completely recoverable, then the force is
(a) conservative
(b) non-conservative
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) frictional in nature
Answer:
(b) non-conservative

Question 32.
The work done by the conservative forces in a cycle is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) infinity
(d) having negative value
Answer:
(a) zero

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 33.
Negative gradient of potential energy gives
(a) conservative force
(b) non conservative force
(c) kinetic energy
(d) frictional force
Answer:
(a) conservative force

Question 34.
When a particle moving in a vertical circle, the variable is/are
(a) velocity of the particle
(b) tension of the string
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) mass of the particle
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 35.
Which of the following is zero at the highest point in vertical circular motion?
(a) velocity of the particle
(b) tension of the spring
(c) potential energy
(d) none
Answer:
(a) velocity of the particle

Question 36.
The body must have a speed at highest point in vertical circular motion to stay in the circular path
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 702
Answer:
(a) \(\geq \sqrt{\mathbf{g r}}\)

Question 37.
The body must have a minimum speed of lowermost point in vertical circular motion to complete the circle
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 713
Answer:
(c) \(\geq \sqrt{5 \mathrm{gr}}\)

Question 38.
The rate of work done is
(a) energy
(b) force
(c) power
(d) energy flow
Answer:
(c) power

Question 39.
The unit of power is
(a) J
(b) W
(c) J s-1
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 40.
One horse power (1 hp) is
(a) 476 W
(b) 674 W
(c) 746 W
(d) 764 W
Answer:
(c) 746 W

Question 41.
The dimension of power is
(a) ML2T-2
(b) ML2T-3
(c) ML-2T2
(d) ML-2T3
Answer:
(b) ML2T-3

Question 42.
kWh is the practical unit of
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) electrical energy
(d) none
Answer:
(a) energy

Question 43.
If a force F is applied on a body and the body moves with velocity v, the power will be
(a) F.V
(b) F/V
(c) FV2
(d) FW2
Answer:
(a) F.V

Question 44.
A body of mass m is thrown vertically upward with a velocity v. The height at which the kinetic energy of the body is one third of its initial value is given by
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 75
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{v^{2}}{6 g}\)
Solution:
Initial Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 76. The loss in K.E will be the gain in potential energy
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 767

Question 45.
A body of mass 5 kg is initially at rest. By applying a force of 20 N at an angle of 60° with horizontal the body is moved to a distance of 4 m. The kinetic energy acquired by the body is
(a) 80 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 40 J
(d) 17.2 J
Answer:
(c) 40 J
Solution:
The work done is equal to its kinetic energy
∴ K.E gained = Fs cos θ = 20 × 4 cos 60° = 40 J.

Question 46.
A bullet is fired normally on an immovable wooden plank of thickness 2 m. It loses 20% of its kinetic energy in penetrating a thickness 0.2 m of the plank. The distance penetrated by the bullet inside the wooden plank is
(a) 0.2 m
(b) 0.8 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 1.5 m
Answer:
(c) 1 m
Solution:
The wood offers a constant retardation. If the bullet loses 20% of its kinetic energy by penetrating 0.2m. it can penetrate further into 4 × 0.2 = 0.8 m with the remaining kinetic energy. So the total distance penetrated by the bullet is 0.2 + 0.8 = 1 m.

Question 47.
Which of the following quantity is conserved in all collision process?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) linear momentum
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none.
Answer:
(b) linear momentum

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 48.
The kinetic energy is conserved in
(a) elastic collision
(b) inelastic collision
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Elastic collision

Question 49.
The kinetic energy is not conserved in
(a) Elastic collision
(b) In elastic collision
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) In elastic collision

Question 50.
In inelastic collision, which is conserved
(a) linear momentum
(b) total energy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 51.
If the two colliding bodies stick together after collision such collisions are
(a) elastic collision
(b) inelastic collision
(c) perfectly inelastic collision
(d) head on collision
Answer:
(c) perfectly inelastic collision

Question 52.
When bubblegum is thrown on a moving vehicle, it sticks is an example for
(a) elastic collision
(b) inelastic collision
(c) perfectly inelastic collision
(d) none
Answer:
(c) perfectly inelastic collision

Question 53.
Elastic collision is due to
(a) conservative force
(b) non conservative force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electrostatic force
Answer:
(b) non conservative force

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 54.
Inelastic collision is due to
(a) conservative force
(b) non conservative force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electrostatic force
Answer:
(b) non conservative force

Question 55.
If the velocity of separation is equal to the velocity of approach, then the collision is
(a) conservative force
(b) non conservative force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electrostatic force
Answer:
(a) conservative force

Question 56.
For elastic collision, coefficient of restitution is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0 < e < 1
(d) ∞
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 57.
For inelastic collision co-efficient of restitution is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0 < e < 1
(d) ∞
Answer:
(c) 0 < e < 1

Question 58.
For perfectly inelastic collision, coefficient of restitution is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0 < e < 1
(d) ∞
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 59.
The ratio of velocities of equal masses in an inelastic collision with one of the masses is stationary is
60. A box is dragged across a surface by a rope which makes an angle 45° with the horizontal. The tension in the rope is 100 N when the box is dragged 10 m. The work done is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 80
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1-e}{1+e}\)

Question 60.
A box is dragged across a surface by a rope which makes an angle 45° with the horizontal. The
tension in the rope is 100 N when the box is dragged 10 m. The work done is
(a) 707.1 J
(b) 607.1 J
(c) 1414.2 J
(d) 900 J
Answer:
(a) 707.1 J
Solution:
The component of force acting along the surface is T cos θ
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 800
∴ Work done = T cos θ × x
= 10o cos 45° × 10
= 707.1 J

Question 61.
A position dependent force F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done is
(a) 35 J
(b) 70 J
(c) 135 J
(d) 270 J
Answer:
(c) 135 J
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 81

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 62.
In gravitational field, the work done in moving a body from one point into another depends on
(a) initial and final positions
(b) distance between them
(c) actual distance covered
(d) velocity of motion
Answer:
(c) initial and final positions

Question 63.
A particle of mass “m” moving with velocity v strikes a particle of mass “2m” at rest and sticks to it. The speed of the combined mass is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 82
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{v}{3}\)
Solution:
According to conservation of linear momentum
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 83

Question 64.
A force of (\(10 \hat{i}-3 \hat{j}+6 \hat{k}\)) N acts on a body of 5 kg and displaces it from (\(6 \hat{i}+5 \hat{j}-3 \hat{k}\)) to (\(10 \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+7 k\)) m. The work done is
(a) 100 J
(b) 0
(c) 121 J
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) 121 J
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 84

Question 65.
A 9 kg mass and 4 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their momentum is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 9 : 4.
Answer:
(b) 3 : 2
Solution:
Given that K.E are equal
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 85

Question 66.
If momentum of a body increases by 25% its kinetic energy will increase by
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 125%
(d) 56.25%
Answer:
(d) 56.25%
Solution:
Let momentum of p1 = 100% momentum of p2 = 125%.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 86

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 67.
A missile fired from a launcher explodes in mid air, its total
(a) kinetic energy increases
(b) momentum increases
(c) kinetic energy decreases
(d) momentum decreases
Answer:
(a) kinetic energy increases

Question 68.
A bullet hits and gets embedded in a wooden block resting on a horizontal friction less surface. Which of the following is conserved?
(a) momentum alone
(b) kinetic energy alone
(c) both momentum and kinetic energy
(d) no quantity is conserved
Answer:
(a) momentum alone

Question 69.
Two balls of equal masses moving with velocities 10 m/s and -7 m/s respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after collision will be
(a) 3 ms-1 and 17 ms-1
(b) -7 ms-1 and 10 ms-1
(c) 10 ms-1 and -7 ms-1
(d) 3 ms-1 and -70 ms-1
Answer:
(b) -7 ms-1 and 10 ms-1

Question 70.
A spring of negligible mass having a force constant of 10 Nm-1 is compressed by a force to a distance of 4 cm. A block of mass 900 g is free to leave the top of the spring. If the spring is released, the speed of the block is
(a) 11.3 ms-1
(b) 13.3 × 101 ms-1
(c) 13.3 × 10-2 ms-1
(d) 13.3 × 10-3 ms-1
Answer:
(c) 13.3 × 10-2 ms-1
Solution:
We know that, the potential energy of the spring = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2. Here the potential energy of the spring is converted into kinetic energy of the block.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 90

Question 71.
A particle falls from a height ftona fixed horizontal plate and rebounds. If e is the coefficient ” of restitution, the total distance travelled by the particle on rebounding when it stops is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 91
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 912
S = h + 2e2h + 2e4h + 2e6h + …..
S = h + 2h (e2 + e4 + e6 +…)
By using binomixal expansion we can write it as
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 92

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 72.
If the force F acting on a body as a function of x then the work done in moving a body from x = 1 m to x = 3m is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 923
(a) 6 J
(b) 4 J
(c) 2.5 J
(d) 1 J
Answer:
(b) 4 J

Question 73.
A boy “A” of mass 50 kg climbs up a staircase in 10 s. Another boy “B” of mass 60 kg climbs up a Same staircase in 15s. The ratio of the power developed by the boys “A” and “B” is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 93
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 94

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define work, energy, power.
Answer:
Work: Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied on a body displaces it.
Energy: Energy is defined as the ability to do work.
Power: The rate of work done is called power.

Question 2.
Discuss the possibilities of work done to be zero.
Answer:
Work done is zero in the following cases.
(i) When the force is zero (F = 0). For example, ,a body moving on a horizontal smooth frictionless surface will continue to do so as no force (not even friction) is acting along the plane. (This is an ideal situation.)
(ii) When the displacement is zero (dr = 0). For example, when force is applied on a rigid wall it does not produce any displacement. Hence, the work done is zero as shown in figure.
(iii) When the force and displacement are perpendicular (0 = 90°) to each other, when a body moves on a horizontal direction, the gravitational force (mg) does not work on the body, since it acts at right angles to the displacement as shown in Figure (b). In circular motion the centripetal force does not do work on the object moving on a circle as it is always perpendicular to the displacement as shown in Figure (c).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 95

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
Derive the relation between momentum and kinetic energy.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass m moving with a velocity v. Then its linear momentum is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 96
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 97
Multiplying both the numerator and denominator of equation (i) by mass m
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 98
where | \(\vec{p}\) | is the magnitude of the momentum. The magnitude of the linear momentum can be obtained by
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 99
Note that if kinetic energy and mass are given, only the magnitude of the momentum can be calculated but not the direction of momentum. It is because the kinetic energy and mass are scalars.

Question 4.
How can an object move with zero acceleration (constant velocity) when the external force is acting on the object?
Answer:
It is possible when there is another force which acts exactly opposite to the external applied force. They both cancel each other and the resulting net force becomes zero, hence the object moves with zero acceleration.

Question 5.
Why should the object be moved at constant velocity when we define potential energy?
Answer:
If the object does not move at constant velocity, then it will have different velocities at the initial and final locations. According to work-kinetic energy theorem, the external force will impart some extra kinetic energy. But we associate potential energy to the forces like gravitational force, spring force and coulomb force. So the external agency should not impart any kinetic energy when the object is taken from initial to final location.

Question 6.
Derive an expression for potential energy near the surface of the earth.
Answer:
The gravitational potential energy (U) at some height h is equal to the amount of work required to take the object from ground to that height h with constant velocity. Let us consider a body of mass m being moved from ground to the height h against the gravitational force as shown.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 100
The gravitational force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{g}\) acting on the body is, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{g}=-m g \hat{j}\) (as Gravitational potential energy the force is in y direction, unit vector \(\hat{j}\) is used). Here, negative sign implies that the force is acting vertically downwards. In order to move the body without acceleration (or with constant velocity), an external applied force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{a}\), equal in magnitude but opposite to that of gravitational force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{g}\) has to be applied on the body i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{a}=-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{g}\).
This implies that \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{a}=+m g \hat{j}\). The positive sign implies that the applied force is in vertically upward direction. Hence, when the body is lifted up its velocity remains unchanged and thus its kinetic energy also remains constant.
The gravitational potential energy (U) at some height h is equal to the amount of work required to take the object from the ground to that height h.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 101
Since the displacement and the applied force are in the same upward direction, the angle between them, θ = 0°. Hence, cos 0° = 1 and | \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{a}\) | = mg and | \(d \vec{r}\) | = dr.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 102

Question 7.
Explain force displacement graph for a spring.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 7030
Since the restoring spring force and displacement are linearly related as F = – kx, and are opposite in direction, the graph between F and x is a straight line with dwelling only in the second and fourth quadrant as shown in Figure. The elastic potential energy can be easily calculated by drawing a F – x graph. The shaded area (triangle) is the work done by the spring force.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 103

Question 8.
Explain the potential energy – displacement graph for a spring.
Answer:
A compressed or extended spring will transfer its stored potential energy into kinetic energy of the mass attached to the spring. The potential energy-displacement graph is shown in Figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 105
In a frictionless environment, the energy gets transferred from kinetic to potential and potential to kinetic repeatedly such that the total energy of the system remains constant. At the mean position,
∆KE = ∆U

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 9.
Define unit of power.
Answer:
The unit of power is watt. One watt is defined as the power when one joule of work is done in one second.

Question 10.
Define average power and instantaneous power.
Answer:
The average power is defined as the ratio of the total work done to the total time taken.
Pav = total work done/total time taken The instantaneous power is defined as the power delivered at an instant
pinst = dw/dt

Question 11.
Define elastic and inelastic collision.
Answer:
In any collision, if the total kinetic energy of the bodies before collision is equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies after collision then it is called as elastic collision.
In a collision the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies before collision is not equal to the . total final kinetic energy of the bodies after collision. Then it is called as inelastic collision.

Question 12.
What will happen to the potential energy of the system.
If (i) Two same charged particles are brought towards each other
(ii) Two oppositely charged particles are brought towards each other.
Answer:
(i) When the same charged particles are brought towards each other, the potential energy of the system will increase. Because work has to be done against the force of repulsion. This work done only stored as potential energy.
(ii) When two oppositely charged particles are brought towards each other, the potential energy of the system will decrease. Because work is done by the force of attraction between the charged particles.

Question 13.
Define the conservative and non-conservative forces. Give examples of each.
Answer:
Conservative force : e.g., Gravitational force, electrostatic force.
Non-Conservative force : e.g., forces of friction, viscosity.

Question 14.
A light body and a heavy body have same linear momentum. Which one has greater K.E ?
Answer:
Lighter body has more K.E. as K.E. = \(\frac{p^{2}}{2 m}\) and for constant p, K.E. \(\propto \frac{1}{m}\)

Question 15.
The momentum of the body is doubled, what % does its K.E change?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 120

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 16.
A body is moving along a circular path. How much work is done by the centripetal force?
Answer:
W = FS cos 90° = 0.

Question 17.
Which spring has greater value of spring constant – a hard spring or a delicate spring?
Answer:
Hard spring.

Question 18.
Two bodies stick together after collision. What type of collision is in between these two bodies? .
Answer:
Inelastic collision.

Question 19.
State the two conditions under which a force does not work.
Answer:

  1. Displacement is zero or it is perpendicular to force.
  2. Conservative force moves a body over a closed path.

Question 20.
How will the momentum of a body changes if its K.E. is doubled?
Answer:
Momentum becomes \(\sqrt{2}\) times.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 21.
K.E. of a body is increased by 300 %. Find the % increase in its momentum.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 122

Question 22.
A light and a heavy body have same K.E., which of the two have more momentum and why?
Answer:
Heavier body.

Question 23.
Does the P.E. of a spring decreases or increases when it is compressed or stretched?
Answer:
Increases because W.D. on it when it increases is compressed or stretched.

Question 24.
Name a process in which momentum changes but K.E. does not.
Answer:
Uniform circular motion.

Question 25.
What happens to the P.E. of a bubble when it rises in water?
Answer:
Decreases.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 26.
A body is moving at constant speed over a frictionless surface. What is the work done by the weight of the body?
Answer:
W = 0.

Question 27.
Define spring constant of a spring.
Answer:
It is the restoring force set up in a string per unit extension.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Short Answer Questions 2 Marks

Question 28.
How much work is done by a coolie walking on a horizontal platform with a load on his head? Explain.
Answer:
W = 0 as his displacement is along the horizontal direction and in order to balance the load on his head, he applies a force on it in the upward direction equal to its weight. Thus angle between force and displacement is zero.

Question 29.
Mountain roads rarely go straight up the slope, but wind up gradually. Why?
Answer:
If roads go straight up then angle of slope 0 would be large so frictional force f = µ mg cos θ would be less and the vehicles may slip. Also greater power would be required.

Question 30.
A truck and a car moving with the same K.E. on a straight road. Their engines are simultaneously switched off which one will stop at a lesser distance?
Answer:
By Work – Energy Theorem,
Loss in K.E. = W.D. against the force × distance of friction
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 125
∴ Truck will stop in a lesser distance because of greater mass.

Question 31.
Is it necessary that work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature? Why?
Answer:
No. W.D. is zero only in case of a conservative force.

Question 32.
How high must a body be lifted to gain an amount of P.E. equal to the K.E. it has when moving at speed 20 ms-1. (The value of acceleration due to gravity at a place is 9.8 ms-2).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 132

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 33.
Give an example in which a force does work on a body but fails to change its K.E.
Answer:
When a body is pulled on a rough, horizontal surface with constant velocity. Work is done on the body but K.E. remains unchanged.

Question 34.
A bob is pulled sideway so that string becomes parallel to horizontal and released. Length of the pendulum is 2 m. If due to air resistance loss of energy is 10%, what is the speed with which the bob arrived at the lowest point.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 133

Question 35.
Two springs A and B are identical except that A is harder than B (KA > KB) if these are stretched by the equal force. In which spring will more work be done?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 134
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 135

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 36.
Find the work done if a particle moves from position r1 = to a position \((3 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-6 \hat{k})\) to a position \(\vec{r}_{2}=(14 \hat{i}+13 \hat{j}-9 \hat{k})\) under the effect of force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=(4 \hat{i}+\hat{j}+3 \hat{k}) \mathrm{N}\)
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 138

Question 37.
Spring A and B are identical except that A is stiffer than B, i.e., force constant kA > kB. In which spring is more work expended if they are stretched by the same amount?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 139

Question 38.
A ball at rest is dropped from a height of 12 m. It loses 25% of its kinetic energy in striking the ground, find the height to which it bounces. How do you account for the loss in kinetic energy?
Answer:
If ball bounces to height h’, then
mgh’ = 75% of mgh
∴ h’ = 0.75 h = 9 m.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 39.
Which of the two kilowatt hour or electron volt is a bigger unit of energy and by what factor?
Answer:
kwh is a bigger unit of energy.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 140

Question 40.
A spring of force constant K is cut into two equal pieces. Calculate force constant of each part.
Answer:
Force constant of each half becomes twice the force constant of the original spring.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Short Answer Questions 3 Marks

Question 41.
A car of mass 2000 kg is lifted up a distance of 30 m by a crane in 1 min. A second crane does the same job in 2 min. Do the cranes consume the same or different amounts of fuel? What is the power supplied by each crane? Neglect Power dissipation against friction.
Answer:
t1 = 1 min = 60 s, t2 = 2 min = 120 s
W = Fs = mgs = 5.88 × 105 J
As both cranes do same amount of work so both consume same amount of fuel.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 152

Question 42.
20 J work is required to stretch a spring through 0.1m. Find the force constant of the spring. If the spring is further stretched through 0.1 m, calculate work done.
Answer:
P.E. of spring when stretched through a distance 01m,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 153
when spring is further stretched through 01m, then P.E. will be :
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 154

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 43.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, how much electric power is consumed by the pump. The efficiency of the pump is 30%.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 155

Question 44.
A ball bounces to 80% of its original height. Calculate the mechanical energy lost in each bounce.
Answer:
Let Initial P.E. = mgh
P.E. after first bounce = mg × 80% of h = 0.80 mgh
P.E. lost in each bounce = 0.20 mgh
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 156

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Obtain an expression for the critical vertical of a body revolving in a vertical circle
Answer:
Imagine that a body of mass (m) attached to one end of a massless and inextensible string executes circular motion in a vertical plane with the other end of the string fixed. The length of the string becomes the radius (r) of the circular path (See figure).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 160
Let us discuss the motion of the body by taking the free body diagram (FBD) at a position where the position vector (\(\vec{r}\)) makes an angle θ with the vertically downward direction and the instantaneous velocity is as shown in Figure.
There are two forces acting on the mass.
1. Gravitational force which acts downward
2. Tension along the string.
Applying Newton’s second law on the mass, in the tangential direction,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 161
The circle can be divided into four sections A, B, C, D for better understanding of the motion. The four important facts to be understood from the two equations are as follows:
(i) The mass is having tangential acceleration (g sin θ) for all values of θ (except θ = 0°), it is clear that this vertical circular motion is not a uniform circular motion.
(ii) From the equations (ii) and (i) it is understood that as the magnitude of velocity is not a constant in the course of motion, the tension in the string is also not constant.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 162
Hence velocity cannot vanish, even when the tension vanishes.
These points are to be kept in mind while solving problems related to motion in vertical circle.
To start with let us consider only two positions, say the lowest point 1 and the highest point 2 as shown in Figure for further analysis. Let the velocity of the body at the lowest point 1 be \(\vec{v}_{1}\), at the highest point 2 be \(\vec{v}_{2}\) and \(\vec{v}\) at any other point. The direction of velocity is tangential to the circular path at all points. Let \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}_{1}\) be the tension in the string at the lowest point and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}_{2}\) be , the tension at the highest point and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}\) be the tension at any other point. Tension at each point acts towards the center. The tensions and velocities at these two points can be found by applying the law of conservation of energy.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 163
For the lowest point (1)
When the body is at the lowest point 1, the gravitational force \(m \vec{g}\) which acts on the body (vertically downwards) and another one is the tension \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}_{1}\), acting vertically upwards, i.e. towards the center. From the equation (ii), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 164
For the highest point (2)
At the highest point 2, both the gravitational force mg on the body and the tension T2 act downwards, i.e. towards the center again.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 165
From equations (iv) and (ii), it is understood that T1 > T2. The difference in tension T1 – T2 is obtained by subtracting equation (iv) from equation (ii).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 166
The term Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 7032 can be found easily by applying law of conservation of energy at point 1 and also at point 2.
Note: The tension will not do any work on the mass as the tension and the direction of motion is always perpendicular.
The gravitational force is doing work on the mass, as it is a conservative force the total energy of the mass is conserved throughout the motion.
Total energy at point 1 (E1) is same as the total energy at a point 2 (E2)
E1 = E2
Potential energy at point 1, U1 = 0 (by taking reference as point 1)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 167
Similarly, Potential energy at point 2, U2 = mg (2r) (h is 2r from point 1)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 168
From the law of conservation of energy given in equation (vi), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 169
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 170
Substituting equation (vii) in equation (iv) we get,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 171
Therefore, the difference in tension is
T1 – T2 = 6 mg …(viii)
Minimum speed at the highest point (2)
The body must have a minimum speed at point 2 otherwise, the string will slack before reaching point 2 and the body will not loop the circle. To find this minimum speed let us take the tension T2 = 0 in equation (iv).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 172
The body must have a speed at point 2, \(v_{2} \geq \sqrt{g r}\) to stay in the circular path.
Maximum speed at the lowest point 1
To have this minimum speed (\(v_{2}=\sqrt{g r}\)) at point 2, the body must have minimum speed also at point 1.
By making use of equation (vii) we can find the minimum speed at point 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 173
Substituting equation (ix) in (vii),
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 174
The body must have a speed at point 1, \(v_{1} \geq \sqrt{5 g r}\) to stay in the circular path.
From equations (ix) and (x), it is clear that the minimum speed at the lowest point 1 should be v 5 times more than the minimum speed at the highest point 2, so that the body loops without leaving the circle.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 2.
Obtain the expressions for the velocities of the two bodies after collision in the case of one dimensional elastic collision and discuss the special cases.
Answer:
Consider two elastic bodies of masses m1 and m2 moving in a straight line (along positive x direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 180
In order to have collision, we assume that the mass m1 moves faster than mass m2 i.e., u1 > u2.
For elastic collision, the total linear momentum and kinetic energies of the two bodies before and after collision must remain the same
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 181
From the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Total momentum before collision (pi) = Total momentum after collision (pf)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 182
For elastic collision,
Total kinetic energy before collision KEi = Total kinetic energy after collision KFf
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 183
After simplifying and rearranging the terms,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 184
Using the formula a2 – b2 = (a + b) (a – b), we can rewrite the above equation as
m1(u1 + v1)(u1 – v1) = m2 (v2 + u2) (v2 – u2) …(iv)
Dividing equation (iv) by (ii) gives,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 185
This means that for any elastic head on collision, the relative speed of the two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction. Further note that this result is independent of mass.
Rewriting the above equation for V1 and v2,
v1 = v2 + u2 – u1
Or v2 = u1 + v1 – u1
To find the final velocities v1 and v2 :
Substituting equation (vii) in equation (ii) gives the velocity of m1 as
m1 (u1 – v1 ) = m2 (u1 + v1 – u2 – u2)
m1u1 – m1v1 = m2(u1 + v1 – 2u2)
m1u1 + 2m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 186
Similarly, by substituting (vi) in equation (ii) or substituting equation (viii) in equation (vii), we get the final velocity of m2 as
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 1901
Case 1: When bodies has the same mass i.e., m1 = m2,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 191
The equations (x) and (xi) show that in one dimensional elastic collision, when two bodies of equal mass collide after the collision their velocities are exchanged.
Case 2: When bodies have the same mass i.e., m1 = m2 and second body (usually called target) is at rest (u2 = 0),
By substituting m1m2 = and u2 = 0 in equations (viii) and equations (ix) we get, from equation
(viii) ⇒ V1 = 0 …(xii)
from equation (ix) ⇒ v2 = u1 … (xiii)
Equations (xii) and (xiii) show that when the first body comes to rest the second body moves with the initial velocity of the first body.
Case 3: The first body is very much lighter than the second body
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 192
Similarly, Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (ix) by m2, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 193
v2 = 0
The equation (xiv) implies that the first body which is lighter returns back (rebounds) in the opposite direction with the same initial velocity as it has a negative sign. The equation (xv) implies that the second body which is heavier in mass continues to remain at rest even after collision. For example, if a ball is thrown at a fixed wall, the ball will bounce back from the wall with the same velocity with which it was thrown but in opposite direction.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 194
Similarly,
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (xiii) by m1, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 195
The equation (xvi) implies that the first body which is heavier continues to move with the same initial velocity. The equation (xvii) suggests that the second body which is lighter will move with twice the initial velocity of the first body. It means that the lighter body is thrown away from the point of collision.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Numerical Questions

Question 1.
A body is moving along z-axis of a coordinate system under the effect of a constant force F = Find the work done by the force in moving the body a distance of 2 m along z-axis.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 196
\(\mathrm{W}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}=2 \mathrm{J}\)

Question 2.
Water is pumped out of a well 10 m deep by means of a pump rated 10 KW. Find the efficiency of the motor if 4200 kg of water is pumped out every minute. Take g = 10 m/s2.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 197

Question 3.
A railway carriage of mass 9000 kg moving with a speed of 36 kmph collides with a stationary carriage of same mass. After the collision, the carriages get coupled and move together. What is their common speed after collision? What type of collision is this?
Answer:
m1 = 9000 kg, u1 = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
m2 = 9000 kg, u2 = 0, v = v1 = v2 = ?
By conservation of momentum:
m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v
∴ v = 5 m/s
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 198
As total K.E. after collision < Total K.E. before collision
∴ collision is inelastic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 4.
In lifting a 10 kg weight to a height of 2m, 230 J energy is spent. Calculate the acceleration with which it was raised.
Answer:
W = mgh + mah = m(g + a)h
∴ a = 1.5 m/s2.

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 0.02 kg is moving with a speed of 10 ms-1. It can penetrate 10 cm of a wooden block, and comes to rest. If the thickness of the target would be 6 cm only, find the K.E. of the bullet when it comes out.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 199
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 200

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 6.
A man pulls a lawn roller through a distance of 20 m with a force of 20 kg weight. If he applies the force at an angle of 60° with the ground, calculate the power developed if he takes 1 min in doing so.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 201

Question 7.
A body of mass 0.3 kg is taken up an inclined plane to length 10 m and height 5 m and then allowed to slide down to the bottom again. The coefficient of friction between the body and the plane is 0.15. What is the
(i) work done by the gravitational force over the round trip?
(ii) work done by the applied force over the upward journey?
(iii) work done by frictional force over the round trip?
(iv) kinetic energy of the body at the end of the trip?
How is the answer to (iv) related to the first three answers?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 202
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 203
(i) W = FS = – mg sin θ × h = -14.7 J is the W.D. by gravitational force in moving plane.
W’ = FS = + mg sin θ × h = 14.7 J is the W.D. by gravitational force in moving the body down the inclined plane.
∴ Total W.D. round the trip, W1 = W + W’ = 0
(ii) Force needed to move the body up the inclined plane,
F = mg sin θ + fk = mg sin θ + µkR = mg sin θ + µk mg cos θ
∴ W.D. by force over the upward journey is
W2 = F × l = mg (sin θ + µk cos θ)l = 18.5 J
(iii) W.D. by frictional force over the round trip,
W3 = -fk(l + l) = -2fkl = -2µkcos θ l = -7.6 J
(iv) K.E. of the body at the end of round trip
= W.D. by net force in moving the body down the inclined plane
= (mg sin θ – µkcos θ) l
= 10.9 J
⇒ K.E. of body = net W.D. on the body.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 8.
Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with same speed of 2 ms-1 towards each other along a frictionless horizontal surface. The two blocks collide, stick together and come to rest. Consider the two blocks as a system. Calculate work done by
(i) external forces and
(ii) Internal forces.
Answer:
Here no external forces are acting on the system so :
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{ext}}=0 \Rightarrow \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{ext}}=0\)
According to work-energy theorem :
Total W.D. = Change in K.E.
or Wext + = Final K.E. – Initial K.E.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 2012

Question 9.
A truck of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 15 ms-1 in 5 seconds. Calculate
(i) its acceleration,
(ii) its gain in K.E.,
(iii) average power of the engine during this period, neglect friction.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 2013

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

Question 10.
An elevator which can carry a maximum load of 1800 kg (elevator + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 2 ms-1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 4000 N. Determine the minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator in watts as well as in horse power.
Answer:
Downward force on the elevator is :
F = mg + f = 22000 N
∴ Power supplied by motor to balance this force is :
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 2022

Question 11.
To simulate car accidents, auto manufacturers study the collisions of moving cars with mounted springs of different spring constants. Consider a typical simulation with a car of mass 1000 kg moving with a speed 18.0 kmh-1 on a smooth road and colliding with a horizontally mounted spring of spring constant 6.25 × 10-3 Nm-1. What is the maximum compression of the spring?
Answer:
At maximum compression xm, the K.E. of the car is converted entirely into the P.E. of the spring.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power 2031

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Students can Download Physics Chapter 3 Laws of Motion Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Chapter 3 Laws of Motion Textual Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers are pushed towards the right due to
(a) inertia of direction
(b) inertia of motion
(c) inertia of rest
(d) absence of inertia
Answer:
(a) inertia of direction

Question 2.
An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the force F is [IIT JEE 1994]
(a) Less than mg
(b) Equal to mg
(c) Greater than mg
(d) Cannot determine
Answer:
(c) Greater than mg

Question 3.
A vehicle is moving along the positive x direction, if sudden brake is applied, then
(a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x direction
(b) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along positive x direction
(c) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
(d) frictional force acts in downward direction
Answer:
(a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x direction

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The normal force formula is defined as the force that any surface exerts on any other object.

Question 4.
A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the book. If this force is considered as reaction force, what is the action force according to Newton’s third law?
(a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
(b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
(c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table

Question 5.
Two masses m1 and m2 are experiencing the same force where m1 < m2 The ratio of their acceleration \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\) is –
(a) 1
(b) less than 1
(c) greater than 1
(d) all the three cases
Answer:
(c) greater than 1

Question 6.
Choose appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing net acceleration along negative y direction. (Each arrow mark represents the force acting on the system).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 7.
A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double inclined plane (shown in figure) will experience –
(a) greater acceleration along the path AB
(b) greater acceleration along the path AC
(c) same acceleration in both the paths
(d) no acceleration in both the paths
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
(a) greater acceleration along the path AC

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Question 8.
Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown. In the first case only a force F1  is applied from the left. Later only a force F2  is applied from the right. If the force acting at the interface of the two blocks in the two cases is same, then F1 : F2 is [Physics Olympiad 2016]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
Answer:
(c) 2 : 1

Question 9.
Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is –
(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non zero
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(b) need not be zero

Question 10.
An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an angle 0. The coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is lay. The maximum static friction experienced by the mass is –
(a) mg
(b) µs mg
(c) µs mg sin θ
(d) µs mg cos θ
Answer:
(d) µs mg cos θ

Question 11.
When the object is moving at constant velocity on the rough surface –
(a) net force on the object is zero
(b) no force acts on the object
(c) only external force acts on the object
(d) only kinetic friction acts on the object
Answer:
(a) net force on the object is zero

Question 12.
When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface –
(a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
(b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero
(c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero
(d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero
Answer:
(c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero

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Question 13.
The centrifugal force appears to exist –
(a) only in inertial frames
(b) only in rotating frames
(c) in any accelerated frame
(d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames
Answer:
(b) only in rotating frames

Question 14.
Choose the correct statement from the following –
(a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action reaction pairs
(b) Centripetal forces is a natural force
(c) Centrifugal force arises from gravitational force
(d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion
Answer:
(d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion

Question 15.
If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force acting on him –
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) increases and then decreases
Answer:
(a) increases

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of inertia. Write two examples each for inertia of motion, inertia of rest and inertia of direction.
Answer:
The inability of objects to move on its own or change its state of motion is called inertia. Inertia means resistance to change its state. There are three types of inertia:
1. Inertia of rest:
The inability of an object to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest.
Example:

  • When a stationary bus starts to move, the passengers experience a sudden backward push.
  • A book lying on the table will remain at rest until it is moved by some external agencies.

2. Inertia of motion:
The inability of an object to change its state of uniform speed (constant speed) on its own is called inertia of motion.
Example:

  • When the bus is in motion, and if the brake is applied suddenly, passengers move forward and hit against the front seat.
  • An athlete running is a race will continue to run even after reaching the finishing point.

3. Inertia of direction:
The inability of an object to change its direction of motion on its own is called inertia of direction.
Example:

  • When a stone attached to a string is in whirling motion, and if the string is cut suddenly, the stone will not continue to move in circular motion but moves tangential to the circle.
  • When a bus moving along a straight line takes a turn to the right. The passengers are thrown towards left.

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Question 2.
State Newton’s second law.
Answer:
The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum –
\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = \(\frac{d \bar{p}}{d t}\)

Question 3.
Define one newton.
Answer:
One newton is defined as the force which acts on 1 kg of mass to give an acceleration 1 ms-2 in the direction of the force.

Question 4.
Show that impulse is the change of momentum.
Answer:
According to Newton’s Second Law
F = \(\frac {dp}{dt}\) i.e. dp = Fdt
Integrate it over a time interval from ti  to tf
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Pi → initial momentum of the object at ti
Pf → Final momentum of the object at tf
Pf – Pi = ∆p = change in momentum during the time interval ∆t.
\(\int_{t_{i}}^{t_{f}} \mathrm{F} \cdot d t=\mathrm{J}\) is called the impulse.
If the force is constant over the time interval ∆t, then
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Hence the proof.

Question 5.
Using free body diagram, show that it is easy to pull an object than to push it.
Answer:
When a body is pushed at an arbitrary angle θ [0 to \(\frac {π}{2}\)], the applied force F can be resolved into two components as F sin 0 parallel to the surface and F cos 0 perpendicular to the surface as shown in figure. The total downward force acting on the body is mg + F cos θ. It implies that the normal force acting on the body increases. Since there is no acceleration along the vertical direction the normal force N is equal to
Npush = mg + F cos θ …………(1)
As a result the maximal static friction also increases and is equal to
\(f_{S}^{\max }\) = \(\mu_{r} \mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{push}}\) = µs(mg + F cos θ) ……(2)
Equation (2) shows that a greater force needs to be applied to push the object into motion.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

When an object is pulled at an angle θ, the applied force is resolved into two components as shown in figure. The total downward force acting on the object is –
Npull = mg – F cos θ ………….(3)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Equation (3) shows that the normal force is less than – Npush. From equations (1) and (3), it is easier to pull an object than to push to make it move.

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Question 6.
Explain various types of friction. Suggest a few methods to reduce friction.
Answer:
There are two types of Friction:
(1) Static Friction:
Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force fs lies between
\(0 \leq f_{s} \leq \mu_{s} \mathrm{N}\)
where, µs – coefficient of static friction
N – Normal force

(2) Kinetic friction:
The frictional force exerted by the surface when an object slides is called as kinetic friction. Also called as sliding friction or dynamic friction,
fk – µkN
where µk – the coefficient of kinetic friction
N – Normal force exerted by the surface on the object

Methods to reduce friction:
Friction can be reduced

  • By using lubricants
  • By using Ball bearings
  • By polishing
  • By streamlining

Question 7.
What is the meaning by ‘pseudo force’?
Answer:
Pseudo force is an apparent force which has no origin. It arises due to the non-inertial nature of the frame considered.

Question 8.
State the empirical laws of static and kinetic friction.
Answer:
The empirical laws of friction are:

  • Friction is independent of surface of contact.
  • Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than coefficient of static friction.
  • The direction of frictional force is always opposite to the motion of one body over the other.
  • Frictional force always acts on the object parallel to the surface on which the objet is placed,
  • The magnitude of frictional force between any two bodies in contact is directly proportional to the normal reaction between them.

Question 9.
State Newton’s third law.
Answer:
Newton’s third law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Question 10.
What are inertial frames?
Answer:
Inertial frame is the one in which if there is no force on the object, the object moves at constant velocity.

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Question 11.
Under what condition will a car skid on a leveled circular road?
Answer:
On a leveled circular road, if the static friction is not able to provide enough centripetal ’force to turn, the vehicle will start to skid
\(\mu_{s}<\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Prove the law of conservation of linear momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
In nature, conservation laws play a very important role. The dynamics of motion of bodies can be analysed very effectively using conservation laws. There are three conservation laws in mechanics. Conservation of total energy, conservation of total linear momentum, and conservation of angular momentum. By combining Newton’s second and third laws, we can derive the law of conservation of total linear momentum. When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other.

The particle 1 exerts force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) on particle 2 and particle 2 exerts an exactly equal and opposite force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) on particle 1 according to Newton’s third law.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) = –\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) ……..(1)
In terms of momentum of particles, the force on each particle (Newton’s second law) can be written as –
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) = \(\frac{d \vec{p}_{1}}{d t}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) = \(\frac{d \vec{p}_{2}}{d t}\) ………(2)
Here \(\vec{p}_{1}\) is the momentum of particle 1 which changes due to the force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) exerted by particle 2. Further Po is the momentum of particle \(\vec{p}_{2}\) This changes due to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) exerted by particle 1.
Substitute equation (2) in equation (1)
\(\frac{d \vec{p}_{1}}{d t}\) = – \(\frac{d \vec{p}_{2}}{d t}\) …………(3)
\(\frac{d \vec{p}_{1}}{d t}\) + \(\frac{d \vec{p}_{2}}{d t}\) = 0 ………(4)
\(\frac {d}{dt}\)(\(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\)) = 0
It implies that \(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\) = constant vector (always).
\(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\) is the total linear momentum of the two particles (\(\vec{p}_{tot}\) = \(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\)).It is also called as total linear momentum of the system. Here, the two particles constitute the system. From this result, the law of conservation of linear momentum can be stated as follows.

If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system (\(\vec{p}_{tot}\)) is always a constant vector. In other words, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time. Here the word ‘conserve’ means that \(\vec{p}_{1}\) and \(\vec{p}_{2}\) can vary, in such a way that \(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\) is a constant vector.

The forces \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) are called the internal forces of the system, because they act only between the two particles. There is no external force acting on the two particles from outside. In such a case the total linear momentum of the system is a constant vector or is conserved.

Meaning of law of conservation of momentum:
1. The Law of conservation of linear momentum is a vector law. It implies that both the magnitude and direction of total linear momentum are constant. In some cases, this total momentum can also be zero.

2. To analyse the motion of a particle, we can either use Newton’s second law or the law of conservation of linear momentum. Newton’s second law requires us to specify the forces involved in the process. This is difficult to specify in real situations. But conservation of linear momentum does not require any force involved in the process. It is convenient and hence important.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

For example, when two particles collide, the forces exerted by these two particles on each other is difficult to specify. But it is easier to apply conservation of linear momentum during the collision process.

Examples:
Consider the firing of a gun. Here the system is Gun+bullet. Initially the gun and bullet are at rest, hence the total linear momentum of the system is zero. Let \(\vec{p}_{1}\) be the momentum of the bullet and \(\vec{p}_{2}\) the momentum of the gun before firing. Since initially both are at rest,

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Total momentum before firing the gun is zero, \(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}\) = 0.
According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, total linear momentum has to be zero after the firing also.

When the gun is fired, a force is exerted by the gun on the bullet in forward direction. Now the momentum of the bullet changes from \(\vec{p}_{1}\) to \(\vec{p}_{1}\) To conserve the total linear momentum of the system, the momentum of the gun must also change from \(\vec{p}_{2}\) to \(\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}\). Due to the conservation of linear momentum, \(\vec{p}_{1}\) + \(\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}\) = 0.

It implies that \(\vec{p}_{1}^{\prime}\)= \(\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}\), the momentum of the gun is exactly equal, but in the opposite direction to the momentum of the bullet. This is the reason after firing, the gun suddenly moves backward with the momentum (-\(\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}\)). It is called ‘recoil momentum’. Th is is an example of conservation of total linear momentum.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
What are concurrent forces? State Lami’s theorem.
Answer:
Concurrent force:
A collection of forces is said to be concurrent, if the lines of forces act at a common point.

Lami’s Theorem:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lami’s theorem states that the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between the other two forces.
i.e. |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\)|∝ sin α, |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\)| ∝ sin β, |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\)| ∝ sin γ,

Question 3.
Explain the motion of blocks connected by a string in

  1. Vertical motion
  2. Horizontal motion.

Answer:
When objects are connected by strings and When objects are connected by strings and a force F is applied either vertically or horizontally or along an inclined plane, it produces a tension T in the string, which affects the acceleration to an extent. Let us discuss various cases for the same.

Case 1:
Vertical motion:
Consider two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1> m2) connected by a light and in-extensible string that passes over a pulley as shown in Figure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Let the tension in the string be T and acceleration a. When the system is released, both the blocks start moving, m2 vertically upward and mk, downward with same acceleration a. The gravitational force m1g on mass m1 is used in lifting the mass m2. The upward direction is chosen as y direction. The free body diagrams of both masses are shown in Figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Applying Newton’s second law for mass m2 T \(\hat{j}\) – m2 g \(\hat{j}\) = m2 a \(\hat{j}\) The left hand side of the above equation is the total force that acts on m2 and the right hand side is the product of mass and acceleration of m2 in y direction.
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T = m2 g = m2 a ……….(1)
Similarly, applying Newton’s second law for mass m2
T \(\hat{j}\) – m1 g\(\hat{j}\) = m1a\(\hat{j}\)
As mass m1 moves downward (-\(\hat{j}\)), its acceleration is along (-\(\hat{j}\))
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T = m1g = -m1a
m1g – T = m1a ………..(2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
m1g – m2g = m1a + m2a
(m1 – m2)g = (m1 + m2)a …………(3)
From equation (3), the acceleration of both the masses is –
a = (\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))g ………..(4)
If both the masses are equal (m1 = m2), from equation (4)
a = 0
This shows that if the masses are equal, there is no acceleration and the system as a whole will be at rest.
To find the tension acting on the string, substitute the acceleration from the equation (4) into the equation (1).
T = m2g = m2(\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))
T = m2g + m2 (\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))g ……….(5)
By taking m2g common in the RHS of equation (5)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Equation (4) gives only magnitude of acceleration.
For mass m1, the acceleration vector is given by \(\vec{a}\) = –\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)\(\hat{j}\)
For mass m2, the acceleration vector is given by \(\vec{a}\) = \(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) \(\hat{j}\)

Case 2:
Horizontal motion:
In this case, mass m2 is kept on a horizontal table and mass m1, is hanging through a small pulley as shown in figure. Assume that there is no friction on the surface
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
As both the blocks are connected to the un stretchable string, if m1 moves with an acceleration a downward then m2 also moves with the same acceleration a horizontally.
The forces acting on mass m2 are

  • Downward gravitational force (m2g)
  • Upward normal force (N) exerted by the surface
  • Horizontal tension (T) exerted by the string

The forces acting on mass m1 are

  • Downward gravitational force (m1g)
  • Tension (T) acting upwards

The free body diagrams for both the masses is shown in figure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Applying Newton’s second law for m1
T\(\hat{i}\) – m1g\(\hat{j}\) = -m1a\(\hat{j}\) (alongy direction)
By comparing the components on both sides of the above equation,
T – m1g = -m1a …………(1)
Applying Newton’s second law for m2
Ti = m1ai (along x direction)
By comparing the components on both sides of above equation,
T = m2a ………….(2)
There is no acceleration along y direction for m2.
N\(\hat{j}\) – m2g\(\hat{j}\) = 0
By comparing the components on both sides of the above equation
N – m2g = 0
N = m2g ……….(3)
By substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we can find the tension T
m2a – m1g = -m1a
m2a + m1a = m1g
a = \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)g …………(4)
Tension in the string can be obtained by substituting equation (4) in equation (2)
T = \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)g ………..(5)

Comparing motion in both cases, it is clear that the tension in the string for horizontal motion is half of the tension for vertical motion for same set of masses and strings. This result has an important application in industries. The ropes used in conveyor belts (horizontal motion) work for longer duration than those of cranes and lifts (vertical motion).

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Question 4.
Briefly explain the origin of friction. Show that in an inclined plane, angle of friction is pqual to angle of repose.
Answer:
If a very gentle force in the horizontal direction is given to an object at rest on the table it does not move. It is because of the opposing force exerted by the surface on the object which resists its motion. This force is called the frictional force. During the time of Newton and Galileo, frictional force was considered as one of the natural forces like gravitational force. But in the twentieth century, the understanding on atoms, electron and protons has changed the perspective.

The frictional force is actually the electromagnetic force between the atoms on the two surfaces. Even well polished surfaces have irregularities on the surface at the microscopic level. The component of force parallel to the inclined plane (mg sin θ) tries to move the object down. The component of force perpendicular to the inclined plane (mg cos θ) is balanced by the Normal force (N).
N = mg cos θ ………(1)

When the object just begins to move, the static friction attains its maximum value
fs = \(f_{s}^{\max }\) = µs N
This friction also satisfies the relation
\(f_{s}^{\max }\) = µs mg sin θ ……….(2)
Equating the right hand side of equations (1) and (2),
(\(f_{s}^{\max }\))/N = sin θ / cos θ
From the definition of angle of friction, we also know that
tan θ = µs ………..(3)
in which θ is the angle of friction.
Thus the angle of repose is the same as angle of friction. But the difference is that the angle of repose refers to inclined surfaces and the angle of friction is applicable to any type of surface.

Question 5.
State Newton’s three laws and discuss their significance.
Answer:
First Law:
Every object continues to be in the state of rest or of uniform motion (constant velocity) unless there is external force acting on it.

Second Law:
The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum

Third Law:
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Significance of Newton’s Laws:
1. Newton’s laws are vector laws. The equation \(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = m\(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\) is a vector equation and essentially it is equal to three scalar equations. In Cartesian coordinates, this equation can be written as Fx\(\hat{i}\) + Fy\(\hat{j}\) + Fz\(\hat{j}\) = max\(\hat{i}\) + may\(\hat{j}\) + maz\(\hat{j}\)
By comparing both sides, the three scalar equations are

Fx = max The acceleration along the x-direction depends only on the component of force acting along the x – direction.
Fy = may The acceleration along the y direction depends only on the component of force acting along the y – direction.
Fz = maz The acceleration along the z direction depends only on the component of force acting along the z – direction.
From the above equations, we can infer that the force acting along y direction cannot alter the acceleration along x direction. In the same way, Fz cannot affect ay and ax. This understanding is essential for solving problems.

2. The acceleration experienced by the body at time t depends on the force which acts on the body at that instant of time. It does not depend on the force which acted on the body before the time t. This can be expressed as
\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\)(t) = m\(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\)(t)
Acceleration of the object does not depend on the previous history of the force. For example, when a spin bowler or a fast bowler throws the ball to the batsman, once the ball leaves the hand of the bowler, it experiences only gravitational force and air frictional force. The acceleration of the ball is independent of how the ball was bowled (with a lower or a higher speed).

3. In general, the direction of a force may be different from the direction of motion. Though in some cases, the object may move in the same direction as the direction of the force, it is not always true. A few examples are given below.

Case 1:
Force and motion in the same direction:
When an apple falls towards the Earth, the direction of motion (direction of velocity) of the apple and that of force are in the same downward direction as shown in the Figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Case 2:
Force and motion not in the same direction:
The Moon experiences a force towards the Earth. But it actually moves in elliptical orbit. In this case, the direction of the force is different from the direction of motion as shown in Figure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Case 3:
Force and motion in opposite direction:
If an object is thrown vertically upward, the direction of motion is upward, but gravitational force is downward as shown in the Figure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Case 4:
Zero net force, but there is motion:
When a raindrop gets detached from the cloud it experiences both downward gravitational force and upward air drag force. As it descends towards the Earth, the upward air drag force increases and after a certain time, the upward air drag force cancels the downward gravity. From then on the raindrop moves at constant velocity till it touches the surface of the Earth. Hence the raindrop comes with zero net force, therefore with zero acceleration but with non-zero terminal velocity. It is shown in the Figure

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

4. If multiple forces \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{3}\),……. \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{n}\) act on the same body, then the total force (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{net}\)) is equivalent to the vectorial sum of the individual forces. Their net force provides the acceleration.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{net}\) = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{3}\) + ……… + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{n}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Newton’s second law for this case is –
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{net}\) = m\(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\)
In this case the direction of acceleration is in the direction of net force.
Example:
Bow and arrow

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

5. Newton’s second law can also be written in the following form.
Since the acceleration is the second derivative of position vector of the body \(\left(\vec{a}=\frac{d^{2} \vec{r}}{d t^{2}}\right)\)
the force on the body is –
\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = m\(\frac{d^{2} \vec{r}}{d t^{2}}\)
From this expression, we can infer that Newton’s second law is basically a second order ordinary differential equation and whenever the second derivative of position vector is not zero, there must be a force acting on the body.

6. If no force acts on the body then Newton’s second law, m = \(\frac{d \vec{v}}{d t}\) = 0
It implies that \(\overline{\mathrm{v}}\) = constant. It is essentially Newton’s first law. It implies that the second law is consistent with the first law. However, it should not be thought of as the reduction of second law to the first when no force acts on the object. Newton’s first and second laws are independent laws. They can internally be consistent with each other but cannot be derived from each other.

7. Newton’s second law is cause and effect relation. Force is the cause and acceleration is the effect. Conventionally, the effect should be written on the left and cause on the right hand side of the equation. So the correct way of writing Newton’s second law is –
m\(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) or \(\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\)

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Question 6.
Explain the similarities and differences of centripetal and centrifugal forces.
Answer:
Salient features of centripetal and centrifugal forces.
Centripetal Force:

  • It is a real force which is exerted on the body by the external agencies like gravitational force, tension in the string, normal force etc.
  • Acts in both inertial and non-inertial frames
  • It acts towards the axis of rotation or center of the circle in circular motion
    \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{P}}}\right|\) = mω2r = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
  • Real force and has real effects
  • Origin of centripetal force is interaction between two objects.
  • In inertial frames centripetal force has to be included when free body diagrams are drawn.

Centrifugal Force:

  • It is a pseudo force or fictitious force which cannot arise from gravitational force, tension force, normal force etc.
  • Acts only in rotating frames (non-inertial frame)
  • It acts outwards from the axis of rotation or radially outwards from the center of the circular motion
    \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{I}}_{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{f}}}\right|\) = mω2r = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
  • Pseudo force but has real effects
  • Origin of centrifugal force is inertia. It does not arise from interaction. In an inertial frame the object’s inertial motion appears as centrifugal force in the rotating frame.
  • In inertial frames there is no centrifugal force. In rotating frames, both centripetal and centrifugal force have to be included when free body diagrams are drawn.

Question 7.
Briefly explain ‘centrifugal force’ with suitable examples.
Answer:
To use Newton’s first and second laws in the rotational frame of reference, we need to include a Pseudo force called centrifugal force. This centrifugal force appears to act on the object with respect to rotating frames.

Circular motion can be analysed from two different frames of reference. One is the inertial frame (which is either at rest or in uniform motion) where Newton’s laws are obeyed. The other is the rotating frame of reference which is a non – inertial frame of reference as it is accelerating.

When we examine the circular motion from these frames of reference the situations are entirely different. To use Newton’s first and second laws in the rotational frame of reference, we need to include a pseudo force called ‘centrifugal force’. This ‘centrifugal force’ appears to act on the object with respect to rotating frames. To understand the concept of centrifugal force, we can take a specific case and discuss as done below.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Free body diagram of a particle including the centrifugal force Consider the case of a whirling motion of a stone tied to a string. Assume that the stone has angular velocity ω in the inertial frame (at rest). If the motion of the stone is observed from a frame which is also rotating along with the stone with same angular velocity ω then, the stone appears to be at rest.

This implies that in addition to the inward centripetal force – mω2r there must be an equal and opposite force that acts on the stone outward with value +mω2r . So the total force acting on the stone in a rotating frame is equal to zero (-mω2r + mω2 r = 0). This outward force +mω2r is called the centrifugal force. The word ‘centrifugal’ means ‘flee from center’.

Note that the ‘centrifugal force’ appears to act on the particle, only when we analyse the motion from a rotating frame. With respect to an inertial frame there is only centripetal force which is given by the tension in the rstring. For this reason centrifugal force is called as a ‘pseudo force’. A pseudo force has no origin. It arises due to the non inertial nature of the frame considered. When circular motion problems are solved from a rotating frame of reference, while drawing free body diagram of a particle, the centrifugal force should necessarily be included as shown in the figure.

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Question 8.
Briefly explain ‘rolling friction’.
Answer:
The invention of the wheel plays a crucial role in human civilization. One of the important applications is suitcases with rolling on coasters. Rolling wheels makes it easier than carrying luggage. When an object moves on a surface, essentially it is sliding on it. But wheels move on the surface through rolling motion. In rolling motion when a wheel moves on a surface, the point of contact with surface is always at rest. Since Rolling and kinetic friction the point of contact is at rest, there is no relative motion between the wheel and surface.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Hence the frictional fore is very less. At the same time if an object moves without a wheel, there is a relative motion between the object and the surface. As a result frictional force is larger. This makes it difficult to move the object. The figure shows the difference between rolling and kinetic friction. Ideally in pure rolling, motion of the point of contact with the surface should be at rest, but in practice it is not so.

Due to the elastic nature of the surface at the point of contact there will be some deformation on the object at this point on the wheel or surface as shown in figure. Due to this deformation, there will be minimal friction between wheel and surface. It is called ‘rolling friction. In fact, rolling friction’ is much smaller than kinetic friction.

Question 9.
Describe the method of measuring angle of repose.
Answer:
When objects are connected by strings and When objects are connected by strings and a force F is applied either vertically or horizontally or along an inclined plane, it produces a tension T in the string, which affects the acceleration to an extent. Let us discuss various cases for the same.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Case 1:
Vertical motion:
Consider two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1> m2) connected by a light and in extensible string that passes over a pulley as shown in Figure.

Let the tension in the string be T and acceleration a. When the system is released, both the blocks start moving, m2 vertically upward and mk, downward with same acceleration a. The gravitational force m1g on mass m1 is used in lifting the mass m2. The upward direction is chosen as y direction. The free body diagrams of both masses are shown in Figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Applying Newton’s second law for mass m2
T \(\hat{j}\) – m2g\(\hat{j}\) = m2a\(\hat{j}\) The left hand side of the above equation is the total force that acts on m2 and the right hand side is the product of mass and acceleration of m2 in y direction.
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T = m2g = m2a ……….(1)

Similarly, applying Newton’s second law for mass m2
T \(\hat{j}\) – m1g\(\hat{j}\) = m1a\(\hat{j}\)
As mass mj moves downward (-\(\hat{j}\)), its acceleration is along (-\(\hat{j}\))
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T = m1g = -m1a
m1g – T = m1a ………..(2)

Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
m1g – m2g = m1a + m2a
(m1 – m2)g = (m1 + m2)a …………(3)
From equation (3), the acceleration of both the masses is –
a = (\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))g ………..(4)
If both the masses are equal (m1 = m2), from equation (4)
a = 0
This shows that if the masses are equal, there is no acceleration and the system as a whole will be at rest.
To find the tension acting on the string, substitute the acceleration from the equation (4) into the equation (1).
T = m2g = m2(\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))
T = m2g + m2 (\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\))g ……….(5)
By taking m2g common in the RHS of equation (5)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Equation (4) gives only magnitude of acceleration
For mass m1, the acceleration vector is given by \(\vec{a}\) = –\(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)\(\hat{j}\)
For mass m2, the acceleration vector is given by \(\vec{a}\) = \(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) \(\hat{j}\)

Case 2:
Horizontal motion:
In this case, mass m2 is kept on a horizontal table and mass m1, is hanging through a small pulley as shown in figure. Assume that there is no friction on the surface
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
As both the blocks are connected to the un stretchable string, if m1 moves with an acceleration a downward then m2 also moves with the same acceleration a horizontally.
The forces acting on mass m2 are

  1. Downward gravitational force (m2g)
  2. Upward normal force (N) exerted by the surface
  3. Horizontal tension (T) exerted by the string

The forces acting on mass m1 are

  1. Downward gravitational force (m1g)
  2. Tension (T) acting upwards

The free body diagrams for both the masses is shown in figure 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Applying Newton’s second law for m1
T\(\hat{i}\) – m1g\(\hat{j}\) = -m1a\(\hat{j}\) (alongy direction)
By comparing the components on both sides of the above equation,
T – m1g = -m1a …………(1)
Applying Newton’s second law for m2
T\(\hat{i}\) = m1a\(\hat{i}\) (along x direction)
By comparing the components on both sides of above equation,
T = m2a ………….(2)
There is no acceleration along y direction for m2.
N\(\hat{j}\) – m2g\(\hat{j}\) = 0
By comparing the components on both sides of the above equation
N – m2g = 0
N = m2g ……….(3)
By substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we can find the tension T
m2a – m1g = -m1a
m2a + m1a = m1g
a = \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)g …………(4)
Tension in the string can be obtained by substituting equation (4) in equation (2)
T = \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)g ………..(5)

Comparing motion in both cases, it is clear that the tension in the string for horizontal motion is half of the tension for vertical motion for same set of masses and strings. This result has an important application in industries. The ropes used in conveyor belts (horizontal motion) work for longer duration than those of cranes and lifts (vertical motion).

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 10.
Explain the need for banking of tracks.
Answer:
In a leveled circular road, skidding mainly depends on the coefficient of static friction py. The coefficient of static friction depends on the nature of the surface which has a maximum limiting value. To avoid this problem, usually the outer edge of the road is slightly raised compared to inner edge. This is called banking of roads or tracks. This introduces an inclination, and the angle is called banking angle. “Let the surface of the road make angle 9 with horizontal surface. Then the normal force makes the same angle 9 with the vertical. When the car takes a turn.Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

there are two forces acting on the car:
(a) Gravitational force mg (downwards)
(b) Normal force N (perpendicular to surface)
We can resolve the normal force into two components N cos θ and N sin θ. The component balances the downward gravitational force ‘mg’ and component will provide the necessary centripetal acceleration. By using Newton second law.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

The banking angle 0 and radius of curvature of the road or track determines the safe speed of the car at the turning. If the speed of car exceeds this safe speed, then it starts to skid outward but frictional force comes into effect and provides an additional centripetal force to prevent the outward skidding.

At the same time, if the speed of the car is little lesser than safe speed, it starts to skid inward and frictional force comes into effect, which reduces centripetal force to prevent inward skidding. However if the speed of the vehicle is sufficiently greater than the correct speed, then frictional force cannot stop the car from skidding.

Question 11.
Calculate the centripetal acceleration of Moon towards the Earth.
Answer:
The centripetal acceleration is given by a = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\) This expression explicitly depends on Moon’s speed which is nontrivial. We can work with the formula
ω2Rm = am
am is centripetal acceleration of the Moon due to Earth’s gravity, ω is angular velocity
Rm is the distance between Earth and the Moon, which is 60 times the radius of the Earth.
Rm = 60R = 60 x 6.4 x 106 = 384 x 106 m
As we know the angular velocity ω = \(\frac { 2π}{ T }\) and T = 27.3 days = 27.3 x 24 x 60 x 60 second = 2.358 x 106 sec.
By substituting these values in the formula for acceleration
a6 = \(\frac{\left(4 \pi^{2}\right)\left(384 \times 10^{6}\right)}{\left(2.358 \times 10^{8}\right)^{2}}\) = 0.00272 ms-2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Conceptual Questions

Question 1.
Why it is not possible to push a car from inside?
Answer:
While trying to push a car from outside, he pushes the ground backwards at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction, so car can be moved. But the person sits inside means car and the person becomes a single system, and the force given will be a internal force. According to Newton’s third law, total internal force acting on the system is zero and it cannot accelerate the system.

Question 2.
There is a limit beyond which the polishing of a surface increases frictional resistance rather than decreasing it why?
Answer:
Friction is a contact force. Friction is directly proportional to area of contact. In the normal surfaces there are bumps to interlock the surfaces in contact. But the surfaces are polished beyond certain limit. The area of contact will be increased and the molecules come closer to each other. It increases electrostatic force between the molecules. As a result it increases friction.

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Question 3.
Can a single isolated force exist in nature? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No. According to Newton’s third law, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. So, whatever case we consider, if there is an action there is always a reaction. So it is impossible.

Question 4.
Why does a parachute descend slowly?
Answer:
A parachute descends slowly because the surface area of parachute is large so that air gives more resistance when it descends down.

Question 5.
When walking on ice one should take short steps. Why?
Answer:
Let R represent the reaction offered by the ground. The vertical component R cos θ will balance the weight of the person and the horizontal component R sin θ will help the person to walk forward.
Now, normal reaction = R cos θ
Friction force = R sin θ
Coefficient of friction, µ = \(\frac {R sin θ}{R cos θ }\) = tan θ
In a long step, θ is more. So tan θ is more. But p has a fixed value. So, there is danger of slipping in a long step.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 6.
When a person walks on a surface, the frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is opposite to the direction of motion. True or false?
Answer:
False. In frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is in the direction of his motion. Frictional force acts as an external force to move the person. When the person trying to move, he gives a push to ground on the backward direction and by Newton’s third law he is pushed by the ground in the forward direction. Hence frictional force acts along the direction of motion.

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Question 7.
Can the coefficient of friction be more than one?
Answer:
Yes. The coefficient of friction can be more than one in some cases such as silicone rubber. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of frictional force to normal force, i.e. F = μR. If p is greater than one means frictional force is greater than normal force. But in general case the value is usually between 0 and 1.

Question 8.
Can we predict the direction of motion of a body from the direction of force on it?
Answer:
Yes. The direction of motion is always opposite to the force of kinetic friction. By using the principle of equilibrium, the direction of force of static friction can be determined. When the object is in equilibrium, the frictional force must point in the direction which results as a net force is zero.

Question 9.
The momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. True or false?
Answer:
True. The total momentum of a system of particles is always constant i.e. conserved. When no external force acts on it.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Numerical Problems

Question 1.
A force of 50 N act on the object of mass 20 kg. shown in the figure. Calculate the acceleration of the object in x and y directions.
Answer:
Given F = 50 N and m = 20 kg
(1) component of force along x – direction
Fx = F cos θ
= 50 x cos 30° = 43.30 N
ax = \(\frac{F_{x}}{m}\) = \(\frac {43.30}{20}\) =2.165 ms-2

(2) Component of force along y – direction
Fy = F sin θ = 50 sin 30° = 25 N
ay = \(\frac{F_{y}}{m}\) = \(\frac {25}{20}\) = 1.25 ms-2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
A spider of mass 50 g is hanging on a string of a cob web as shown in the figure. What is the tension in the string?
Answer:
Given m = 50 g, T = ?
Tension in the string T = mg
= 50 x 10-2 x 9.8 = 0.49 N

Question 3.
What is the reading shown in spring balance?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
When a spring balance hung on a rigid support and load is attached at its other end, the weight of the load exerts a force on the rigid support in turn support exerts equal and opposite force on that load, so that balance will be stretched. This is the principle of spring balance. Flence the answer is 4 kg.
Given: m = 2 kg, 0 = 30°.
Resolve the weight into its component as mg sin θ and mg cos θ.
Here mg sin θ acts parallel to the surface
∴ W = mg sin θ
= 2 x 9.8 x sin 30° = 2 x 9.8 x \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 9.8 N

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Question 4.
The physics books are stacked on each other in the sequence: +1 volumes 1 and 2; +2 volumes 1 and 2 on a table
(a) Identify the forces acting on each book and draw the free body diagram.
(b) Identify the forces exerted by each book on the other.
Answer:
Let m1, m2, m3, m4, are the masses of +1 volume I and II and +2 volumes I & II
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

(a) Force on book m4

  • Downward gravitational force acting downward (m3g)
  • Upward normal force (N3) exerted by book of mass m3
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion |

(b) Force on book m3

  • Downward gravitational force (m3g)
  • Downward force exerted by m4 (N4)
  • Upward force exerted by m2 (N2)
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

(c) Force on book m2

  • Downward gravitational force (m2g)
  • Downward force exerted by m3 (N3)
  • Upward force exerted by m1 (CN1)
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

(d) Force on book m1

  • Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m1g)
  • Downward force exerted by m2 (N2)
  • Upward force exerted by the table (Ntable)
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
A bob attached to the string oscillates back and forth. Resolve the forces acting on the bob in to components. What is the acceleration experienced by the bob at an angle θ.
Answer:
The gravitational force (mg) acting downward can be resolved into two components as mg cos θ and mg sin θ
T – tension exerted by the string.
Tangential force FT = maT = mg sin θ
∴ Tangential acceleration aT = g sin θ
Centripetal force Fc = mac = T – mg cos θ
ac = \(\frac { T – mg cos θ }{ m }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 6.
Two masses m1 and m2 are connected with a string passing over a friction-less pulley fixed at the comer of the table as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction of mass m1 with the table is µs Calculate the minimum mass m3 that may be placed on m1to prevent it from sliding. Check if m1 = 15 kg, m2 = 10 kg, m3 = 25 and µs = 0.2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Solution:
Let m3 is the mass added on m1
Maximal static friction
\(f_{s}^{\max }\) = µsN = µs (m1 + m3 )g
Here
N = (m1 + m3 )g
Tension acting on string = T = m2 g
Equate (1) and (2)
µs(m1 + m3) = m2g
µsm1 + µsm3 = m2
m3 = \(f_{s}^{\max }\) – m1

(ii) Given,
m1 = 15 kg, m2 = 10 kg : m3 = 25 kg and µs = 0.2
m3 = \(f_{s}^{\max }\) – m1
m3 = \(\frac {10}{ 0.2 }\) – 15 = 50 – 15 = 35 kg
The minimum mass m3 = 35 kg has to be placed on ml to prevent it from sliding. But here m3 = 25 kg only.
The combined masses (m1 + m3) will slide.

Question 7.
Calculate the acceleration of the bicycle of mass 25 kg as shown in Figures 1 and 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Given:
Mass of bicycle m = 25 kg
Fig. I:
Net force acting in the forward direction, F = 500 – 400 = 100 N
acceleration a = \(\frac { F}{ m }\) = \(\frac { 100 }{25}\) = 4 ms-2

Fig. II:
Net force acting on bicycle F = 400 – 400 = 0
∴ acceleration a = \(\frac { F}{ m }\) = \(\frac { 0}{25}\) = 0

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Question 8.
Apply Lami’s theorem on sling shot and calculate the tension in each string?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Given F = 50 N, θ = 30°
Here T is resolved into its components as T sin θ and T cos θ as shown.
According to Lami’s theorem,
\(\frac { F}{sin θ}\) = \(\frac { T}{sin (180 – θ)}\) = \(\frac { T}{sin (180 – θ)}\)
\(\frac { F}{sin θ}\) = \(\frac { T}{sin θ}\)
\(\frac { F}{2 sin θ cos θ}\) = \(\frac { T}{sin θ}\) [T = \(\frac { T}{2 cos θ}\) ]
T = \(\frac {T}{2 cos θ}\) = \(\frac { 50}{ 2 cos 30}\) = 28.868 N

Question 9.
A football player kicks a 0.8 kg ball and imparts it a velocity 12 ms-1. The contact between the foot and ball is only for one – sixtieth of a second. Find the average kicking force.
Answer:
Given,
Mass of the ball = 0.8 kg
Final velocity (V) =12 ms-1 and time t =\(\frac {1}{60}\) s
Initial velocity = 0
We know the average kicking force
F = ma = \(\frac {m(v – u)}{t}\) = \(\frac{0.8(12-0)}{\left(\frac{1}{60}\right)}\)
F = 576 N

Question 10.
A stone of mass 2 kg is attached to a string of length 1 meter. The string can withstand maximum tension 200 N. What is the maximum speed that stone can have during the whirling motion?
Solution:
Given,
Mass of a stone = 2 kg,
length of a string = 1 m
Maximum tension = 200 N
The force acting on a stone in the whirling motion is centripetal force. Which is provided by tension of the string.
Tmax = Fmax = \(\frac{m \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{max}}^{2}}{r}\)
200 = \(v_{\max }^{2}\) = 100
\(v_{\max }^{2}\) = 10 ms-1

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Question 11.
Imagine that the gravitational force between Earth and Moon is provided by an invisible string that exists between the Moon and Earth. What is the tension that exists in this invisible string due’ to Earth’s centripetal force? (Mass of the Moon = 7.34 x 1022 kg, Distance between Moon and Earth = 3.84 x 108 m).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the moon = 7.34 x 1022 kg
Distance between moon and earth = 3.84 x 108 m
Centripetal force = F = \(\frac{m \mathrm{V}^{2}}{r}\) = \(\frac{7.34 \times 10^{22} \times\left(1.023 \times 10^{3}\right)^{2}}{3.84 \times 10^{8}}\) = 2 x 1020

Question 12.
Two bodies of masses 15 kg and 10 kg are connected with light string kept on a smooth surface. A horizontal force F = 500 N is applied to a 15 kg as shown in the figure. Calculate the tension acting in the string.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Given,
m1  = 15 kg, m2  = 10 kg, F = 500 N
Tension acting in the string T = \(\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) F
T = \(\frac {10}{25}\) x 500 = 200 N

Question 13.
People often say “For every action there is an equivalent opposite reaction”. Here they meant ‘action of a human’. Is it correct to apply Newton’s third law to human actions? What is meant by ‘action’ in Newton third law? Give your arguments based on Newton’s laws.
Answer:
Newton’s third law is applicable to only human’s physical actions which involves physical force. Third law is not applicable to human’s psychological actions or thoughts.

Question 14.
A car takes a turn with velocity 50 ms-1 on the circular road of radius of curvature To m. Calculate the centrifugal force experienced by a person of mass 60 kg inside the car?
Answer:
Given,
Mass of a person = 60 kg
Velocity of the car = 50 ms-1
Radius of curvature = 10 m
Centrifugal force F = \(\frac{m \mathrm{V}^{2}}{r}\) = \(\frac{60 \times(50)^{2}}{10}\) = 15,000 N

Question 15.
A long stick rests on the surface. A person standing 10 m away from the stick. With what minimum speed an object of mass 0.5 kg should he thrown so that it hits the stick. (Assume the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.7).
Answer:
Given,
Distance (s) = 10 m
Mass of the object (m) = 0.5 kg
Coefficient of kinetic friction (µ) = 0.7
Work done in moving a body in horizontal surface ω = µR x s = µmg x s
This work done is equal to initial kinetic energy of the object
\(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\) = µ mg s
\(\left|v^{2}\right|\) = 2 µgs = 2 x 0.7 x 9.8 x 10
v2 = 14 x 9.8 = 137. 2
v = 11. 71 ms-1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Additional Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The concept “force causes motion” was given by –
(a) Galileo
(b) Aristotle
(c) Newton
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) Aristotle

Question 2.
Who decoupled the motion and force?
(a) Galileo
(b) Aristotle
(c) Newton
(d) Joule
Answer:
(a) Galileo

Question 3.
The inability of objects to move on its own or change its state of motion is called as –
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) inertia
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) inertia

Question 4.
Inertia means –
(a) inability
(b) resistance to change its state
(c) movement
(d) inertial frame
Answer:
(b) resistance to change its state

Question 5.
When a bus starts to move from rest, the passengers experience a sudden backward push is an example for –
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Inertia of rest
(d) back pull
Answer:
(c) Inertia of rest

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Question 6.
If the brake is applied in the moving bus suddenly, passengers move forward is an example for –
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Inertia of rest
(d) back pull
Answer:
(a) Inertia of motion

Question 7.
In whirling motion, if the string is cut suddenly, the stone moves tangential to circle is an –
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Inertia of rest
(d) back pull
Answer:
(b) Inertia of direction

Question 8.
Newtons laws are applicable in –
(a) Inertial frame
(b) non inertial frame
(c) in any frame
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Inertial frame

Question 9.
The accelerated train is an example for –
(a) inertial frame
(b) non-inertial frame
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) non-inertial frame

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Question 10.
Rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to –
(a) acceleration
(b) work done
(c) force
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) force

Question 11.
The product of mass and velocity is –
(a) force
(b) impulse
(c) momentum
(d) acceleration
Answer:
(c) momentum

Question 12.
Unit of momentum –
(a) kg ms-2
(b) kg ms-1
(c) MLT-2
(d) MLT-1
Answer:
(b) kg ms-1

Question 13.
According to Newton’s third law –
(a) F12 = F21
(*) F12 = -F21
(c) F12 + F21 = 0
(d) F12 x F21 = 0
Answer:
(a) F12 = F21

Question 14.
According to Newton’s third law –
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}=-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}\)
(c) \(\mathrm{F}_{12}+\mathrm{F}_{21}\) = 0
(d) \(\mathrm{F}_{12}x\mathrm{F}_{21}\) = 0
Answer:
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}=-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}\)

Question 15.
The law which is valid in both inertial and non-inertial frame is –
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Newton’s third law

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Question 16.
When a force is applied on a body, it can change –
(a) velocity
(b) momentum
(c) direction of motion
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 17.
The rate of change of velocity is 1 ms-2 when a force is applied on the body of mass 75 gm the force is –
(a) 75 N
(b) 0.75 N
(c) 0.075 N
(d) 0.75 x 10-3 N
Answer:
(c) Force is given by
F = m a
= 75 gm x 1 cm s-2 = 75 x 10-3 x 1 = 75 x 10-3 = 0.075 N

Question 18.
The action and reaction forces acting on –
(a) same body
(b) different bodies
(c) either same or different bodies
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) different bodies

Question 19.
Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of –
(a) velocity
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) Inertia
Answer:
(d) Inertia

Question 20.
Inertia of a body has direct dependence on –
(a) velocity
(b) area
(c) mass
(d) volume
Answer:
(c) mass

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Question 21.
If a car and a scooter have the same momentum, then which one is having greater speed?
(a) scooter
(b) car
(c) both have same velocity
(d) data insufficient
Answer:
(a) scooter

Question 22.
Newton’s second law gives –
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \propto \frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=m \vec{a}\)
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 23.
1 dyne is –
(a) 105N
(b) 10-5N
(c) 1N
(d) 10-3N
Answer:
(b) 10-5N

Question 24.
If same force is acting on two masses m1 and m2, and the accelerations of two bodies are a1 and a2 respectively, then –
(a) \(\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}}=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}}\)
(b) \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}}\)
(d) m1 a1 + m2a2 = 0
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}}\)

Question 25.
If a force \(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = 3\(\hat{i}\) – 4\(\hat{j}\) N produces an acceleration of 10 ms-2 on a body, then the mass of a body is –
(a) 10 kg
(b) 9 kg
(c) 0.9 kg
(d) 0.5 kg
Answer:
\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = 3\(\hat{i}\) – 4\(\hat{j}\)
Magnitude:
|\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\)| = \(\sqrt{9+16}\) = \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5N
F = ma
⇒ m = \(\frac{|\mathrm{F}|}{a}\) = \(\frac{5}{10}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 kg

Question 26.
A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms-1. How long does the body take to stop?
(a) 0.75 s
(b) 1.33 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 35 s
Answer:
Acceleration a = \(\frac{-F}{m}\) = \(\frac{50}{20}\) = – 2.5 ms-2
u = l5 ms-1
v = 0
t = ?
v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2.5t
t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}\) = 6s

Question 27.
Rain drops come down with –
(a) zero acceleration and non zero velocity
(b) zero velocity with non zero acceleration
(c) zero acceleration and non zero net force
(d) none
Answer:
(a) zero acceleration and non zero velocity

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Question 28.
If force is the cause then the effect is –
(a) mass
(b) potential energy
(c) acceleration
(d) Inertia
Answer:
(c) acceleration

Question 29.
In free body diagram, the object is represented by a –
(a) line
(b) arrow
(c) circle
(d) point
Answer:
(d) point

Question 30.
When an object of mass m slides on a friction less surface inclined at an angle 0, then normal force exerted by the surface is –
(a) g cos θ
(b) mg cos θ
(c) g sin θ
(d) mg tan θ
Answer:
(b) mg cos θ

Question 31.
The acceleration of the sliding object in an inclined plane –
(a) g cos θ
(b) mg cos θ
(c) g sin θ
(d) mg sin θ
Answer:
(c) g sin θ

Question 32.
The speed of an object sliding in an inclined plane at the bottom is –
(a) mg cos θ
(b) \(\sqrt{2 s g sin θ}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{2 s g cos θ}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2 s g tan θ}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\sqrt{2 s g sin θ}\)

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Question 33.
The acceleration of two bodies of mass m1 and m2 in contact on a horizontal surface is –
(a) \(a=\frac{\mathbf{F}}{m_{1}}\)
(b) \(a=\frac{F}{m_{2}}\)
(c)  \(a=\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(d) \(a=\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)
Answer:
(c)  \(a=\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

Question 34.
Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) in contact with each other on frictionless, horizontal surface. If a horizontal force F is given on m1, set into motion with acceleration a, then reaction force on mass m1 by m2, is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F} m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{\mathrm{F} m_{1}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{\mathrm{F} m_{2}}\)
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{F} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{F} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

Question 35.
If two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then acceleration of masses –
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(b) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}\) g
(c) \(\frac{2 m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(d) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{2 m_{1} m_{2}}\) g
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g

Question 36.
if two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2)tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then acceleration of masses –
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(b) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}\) g
(c) \(\frac{2 m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(d) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{2 m_{1} m_{2}}\) g
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g

Question 37.
Three massses is in contact as shown. If force F is applied to mass m1, the acceleration of three masses is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion q37
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)

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Question 38.
Three masses in contact is as shown above. If force F is applied to mass m1 then the contact force acting on mass m2 is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)

Question 39.
Three masses is contact as shown. It force F is applied to mass m1, then the contact force acting on mass m3 is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)

Question 40.
Two masses connected with a string. When a force F is applied on mass m2. The acceleration produced is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion q40
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{\mathbf{F}}{m_{1}-m_{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\mathrm{F}}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

Question 41.
Two masses connected with a string. When a force F is applied on mass m2. The force acting on m1 is –
(a) \(\frac{m_{1} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{2} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{m_{1}} \mathbf{F}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{m_{2}} \mathbf{F}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{m_{2} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

Question 42.
If a block of mass m lying on a frictionless inclined plane of length L height h and angle of inclination θ, then the velocity at its bottom is –
(a) g sin θ
(b) g cos θ
(c) \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2 a sin θ}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)

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Question 43.
If a block of mass m lying on a frictionless inclined plane of length L, height h and angle of inclination θ, then the time take taken to reach the bottom is –
(a) g sing θ
(b) sin θ \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)
(c) sin θ \(\sqrt{\frac{g}{h}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sin \theta} \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sin \theta} \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)

Question 44.
A rocket works on the principle of conservation of –
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) angular momentum
(d) linear momentum
Answer:
(b) mass

Question 45.
A bomb at rest explodes. The total momentum of all its fragments is –
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) always 1
(d) always greater then 1
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 46.
A block of mass m1 is pulled along a horizontal friction-less surface by a rope of mass m2 If a force F is given at its free end. The net force acting on the block is –
(a) \(\frac{m_{1} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}-m_{2}}\)
(b) F
(c) \(\frac{m_{2} \mathrm{F}}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{1} \mathrm{F}}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right)}\)
Answer:
(b) F

Question 47.
A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by a rope. The tension in the rope will be same at all the points –
(a) if the rope is accelerated
(b) if the rope is mass less
(c) always
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) if the rope is mass less

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Question 48.
The lines of forces act at a common point is called as –
(a) concurrent forces
(b) co-planar forces
(c) equilibrium
(d) resultant
Answer:
(a) concurrent forces

Question 49.
If the lines of forces act in the same plane, they can be –
(a) concurrent forces
(b) coplanar forces
(c) either concurrent force or coplanar forces
(d) Lami’s force
Answer:
(d) concurrent forces

Question 50.
Lami’s theorem is applicable only when the system of forces are is –
(a) same plane
(b) different plane
(c) equilibrium
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) equilibrium

Question 51.
Due to the action of internal forces of the system, the total linear momentum of the system is –
(a) a variable
(b) a constant
(c) always zero
(d) always infinity
Answer:
(c) always zero

Question 52.
The velocity with which a gun suddenly moves backward after firing is –
(a) linear velocity
(b) positive velocity
(c) recoil velocity
(d) v1 + v2
Answer:
(c) recoil velocity

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Question 53.
If a very large force acts on an object for a very short duration, then the force is called as –
(a) Newtonian force
(b) impulsive force
(c) concurrent force
(d) coplanar force
Answer:
(A) impulsive force

Question 54.
The unit of impulse is –
(a) Nm
(b) Ns
(c) Nm2
(d) Ns-2
Answer:
(b) Ns

Question 55.
The force which always opposes the relative motion between an object and the surface where it is placed is –
(a) concurrent force
(b) frictional force
(c) impulsive force
(d) coplanar force
Answer:
(b) frictional force

Question 56.
The force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface is –
(a) static friction
(b) kinetic friction
(c) friction
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) static friction

Question 57.
When the object is at rest, the resultant of gravitational force and upward normal force is –
(a) Static force
(b) zero
(c) one
(d) infinity
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 58.
The magnitude of static frictional force d lies between –
(a) 0 ≤ f ≤ µsN
(b) 0 ≥f ≥ µsN
(c) 0 and 1
(d) 0 and minimal static frictional force.
Answer:
(a) 0 ≤ f ≤ µsN

Question 59.
The unit of co-efficient of static friction is –
(a) N
(b) N m
(c) N s
(d) no unit
Answer:
(d) no unit

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Question 60.
If the object is at rest and no external force is applied on the object, the static friction acting on the object is –
(a) µsN
(b) zero
(c) one
(d) infinity
Answer:
(d) no unit

Question 61.
When object begins to slide, the static friction acting on the object attains –
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) maximum

Question 62.
The static friction does not depend upon –
(a) the area of contact
(b) normal force
(c) the magnitude of applied force
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) the area of contact

Question 63.
Which of the following pairs of materials has minimum amount of coefficient of static friction is –
(a) Glass and glass
(b) wood and wood
(c) ice and ice
(d) steel and steel
Answer:
(c) ice and ice

Question 64.
Kinetic friction is also called as –
(a) sliding friction
(b) dynamic friction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) static friction
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

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Question 65.
The unit of coefficient of kinetic friction is/has –
(a) Nm
(b) Ns
(c) Nm2
(d) no unit
Answer:
(d) no unit

Question 66.
The nature of materials in mutual contact decides –
(a) µs
(b) µk
(c) µs or µk
(d) none
Answer:
(c) µs or µk

Question 67.
Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than –
(a) O
(b) one
(c) µs
(d) µsN
Answer:
(c) µs

Question 68.
The static friction –
(a) increases linearly
(b) is constant
(c) zero
(d) varies parabolically
Answer:
(a) increases linearly

Question 69.
The kinetic friction –
(a) increases linearly
(b) is constant
(c) zero
(d) varies parabolically
Answer:
(b) is constant

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Question 70.
Kinetic friction is independent of –
(a) nature of materials
(b) temperature of the surface
(c) applied force
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) applied force

Question 71.
The angle between the normal force and the resultant force of normal force and maximum frictional force is –
(a) angle of friction
(b) angle of repose
(c) angle of inclination
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) angle of friction

Question 72.
The angle friction θ is given by –
(a) tan µs
(b) tan-1 µs
(c) \(\frac{f S^{\mathrm{max}}}{N}\)
(d) sin-1 µs
Answer:
(b) tan-1 µs

Question 73.
The angle of inclined plane with the horizontal such that an object placed on it begins to slide is –
(a) angle of friction
(b) angle of repose
(c) angle of response
(d) angle of retardation
Answer:
(b) angle of repose

Question 74.
Comparatively, which of the following has lesser value than others?
(a) static friction
(b) kinetic friction
(c) Rolling friction
(d) skiping friction
Answer:
(c) Rolling friction

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Question 75.
The origin of friction is –
(a) electrostatic interaction
(b) electromagnetic interaction magnetic
(c) photon interaction
(d) interaction
Answer:
(b) electromagnetic interaction

Question 76.
Friction can be reduced by –
(a) polishing
(b) lubricating
(c) using ball bearings
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) using ball bearings

Question 77.
For a particle revolving in a circular path, the acceleration of the particle is –
(a) along the tangent
(b) along the radius
(c) along the circumference of the circle
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) along the radius

Question 78.
A particle moves along a circular path under the action of a force. The work done by the force is –
(a) Positive and non zero
(b) zero
(c) Negative and non zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 79.
A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal frictionless table. Which of the following is conserved?
(a) Momentum and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy alone
(c) Momentum alone
(d) potential energy alone
Answer:
(c) Momentum alone

Question 80.
The origin of the centripetal force can be –
(a) gravitational force
(b) frictional force
(c) coulomb force
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 81.
Centripetal acceleration is –
(a) \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
(b) \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)
(c) r v2
(d) rω
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)

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Question 82.
Centripetal acceleration is –
(a) \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
(b) r ω2
(c) rv2
(d) rω
Answer:
(c) rω2

Question 83.
The centripetal force is –
(a) \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
(b) rω2
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 84.
When a car is moving on a circular track the centripetal force is due to –
(a) gravitational force
(b) frictional force
(c) magnetic force
(d) elastic force
Answer:
(b) frictional force

Question 85.
If the road is horizontal then the normal force and gravitational force are –
(a) equal and along the same direction
(b) equal and opposite
(c) unequal and along the same direction
(d) unequal and opposite
Answer:
(b) equal and opposite

Question 86.
The velocity of a car for safe turn on leveled circular road –
(a) \(v \leq \sqrt{\mu_{s} r g}\)
(b) \(v \geq \sqrt{\mu_{s} r g}\)
(c) \(v=\sqrt{\mu_{s} rg}\)
(d) \(v \leq \mu_{s} rg\)
Answer:
(a) \(v \leq \sqrt{\mu_{s} r g}\)

Question 87.
In a leveled circular road, skidding mainly depends on –
(a) µs
(b) µk
(c) acceleration
(d) none
Answer:
(a) µs

Question 88.
The speed of a car to move on the banked road so that it will have safe turn is –
(a) µsrg
(b) \(\sqrt{r g \tan \theta}\)
(c) rg tan θ
(d) r2g tan θ
Answer:
(b) \(\sqrt{r g \tan \theta}\)

Question 89.
Centrifugal force is a –
(a) pseudo force
(b) real force
(c) forced acting towards center
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) pseudo force

Question 90.
Origin of centrifugal force is due to –
(a) interaction between two
(b) inertia
(c) electromagnetic interaction
(d) inertial frame
Answer:
(b) inertia

Question 91.
Centripetal force acts in –
(a) inertial frame
(b) non inertial frame
(c) both (a) and (h)
(d) linear motion
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

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Question 92.
Centrifugal force acts in –
(a) inertial frame
(b) non inertial frame
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) linear motion
Answer:
(b) non inertial frame

Question 93.
A cricket ball of mass loo g moving with a velocity of 20 ms-1 is brought to rest by a player in 0.05s the impulse of the ball is –
(a) 5 Ns
(b) – 2 Ns
(c) – 2.5 Ns
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) – 2 Ns
mass = 0.1 kg
Initial velocity t = 20 ms-1
Final velocity y = 0
Change in momentum in impulse = m(v – u) = 0.1(0 – 20) = – 2 Ns

Question 94.
If a stone tied at the one end of a string of length 0.5 m is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed 6 ms-1  then the acceleration of the shone is –
(a) 12 ms-2
(b) 36 ms-2
(c) 2π2 ms-2
(d) 72 ms-2
Answer:
(d) Centripetal acceleration = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\) = \(\frac{6^{2}}{0.5}\) = \(\frac{36}{0.5}\) = 72 ms-2

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Question 95.
A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane with angle of inclination 30° with horizontal. If .is 0.7, then the frictional force is –
(a) 17.82 N
(b) 1.81 N
(c) 3.63 N
(d) 2.1 N
Answer:
(a) Frictional force = µmg cos θ = 0.7 x 3 x 9.8 cos 30° = 17.82 N

Question 96.
Two masses 2 kg and 4 kg are tied at the ends of a mass less string and which is passing over a friction-less pulley. The tension in the string is –
(a) 3.68 N
(b) 78.4 N
(c) 26 N
(d) 13.26 N
Answer:
(c) Tension in the string T = \(\frac{2 m_{1} m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right)}\)g
T = \(\frac{2 x 2 x 4}{2 + 4}\) x 9.8 = \(\frac{16}{6}\) x 9.8 = 26.13 N

Question 97.
A bomb of 10 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of mass 4 kg and 6 kg. if the velocity of 4 kg mass is 6 ms-1 then the velocity of 6 kg is –
(a) – 4 ms-1
(b) – 6 ms-1
(c) – 24 ms-1
(d) – 2.2 ms-1
Answer:
(a) According to law of conservation of momentum
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
v2 = –\(\frac{m_{1} v_{1}}{m_{2}}\) = \(\frac{4 x 6}{6}\) = -4ms-1

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Question 98.
A body is subjected under three concurrent forces and it is in equilibrium. The resultant of any two forces is –
(a) coplanar with the third force
(b) is equal and opposite to third force
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 99.
An impulse is applied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 20° with respect to velocity vector. The angle between the impulse vector and the change in momentum vector is –
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°
Answer:
(a) Impulse and change in momentum are in same direction. So the angle is zero.

Question 100.
A bullet of mass m and velocity v1 is fired into a large block of wood of mass M. The final velocity of the system is-
(a) \(\frac{v_{1}}{m+\mathrm{M}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m v_{1}}{m+\mathrm{M}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m+m}{m} v_{1}\)
(d) \(\frac{m+m}{m-M} v_{1}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{m v_{1}}{m+\mathrm{M}}\)

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Question 101.
A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The co – efficient of static friction is 0.4. The force of friction between the block and floor is –
(a) 2.8 N
(b) 7.8 N
(c) 2 N
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) The force required to move = = µR = µmg = 0.4 x 2 x 9.8 = 7.84 N

Question 102.
A truck weighing 1000 kg is moving with velocity of 50 km/h on smooth horizontal roads. A mass of 250 kg is dropped into it. The velocity with which it moves now is –
(a) 12.5 km/h
(b) 20 km/h
(c) 40 km/h
(d) 50 km/h
Answer:
(c) According to law of conservation of linear momentum
m2 v2 = (m1 + m2)v2
v2 = \(\frac{m_{1} v_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) = \(\frac{1000 \times 50}{1250}\) = 40 km/h

Question 103.
A body of mass loo g is sliding from an inclined plane of inclination 30°. if u = 1.7, then the frictional force experienced is –
(a) \(\frac{3.4}{\sqrt{3}}\)N
(b) 1.47 N
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3.4}\)N
(d) 1.38 N
Answer:
(b) Frictional force F = µ mg cos θ = 1.7 x 0.1 x 10 cos 30°= \(\frac{1.7}{2}\) x \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.47 N

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)

Question 1.
A passenger sitting in a car at rest, pushes the car from within. The car doesn’t move, why?
Answer:
For motion, there should be external force.

Question 2.
Give the magnitude and directions of the net force acting on a rain drop falling with a constant speed.
Answer:
as \(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\) = 0 so \(\overline{\mathrm{F}}\) = 0.

Question 3.
Why the passengers in a moving car are thrown outwards when it suddenly takes a turn?
Answer:
Due to inertia of direction.

Question 4.
You accelerate your car forward. What is the direction of the frictional force on a package resting on the floor of the car?
Answer:
The package in the accelerated car (a non inertial frame) experiences a Pseudo force in a direction opposite to that of the motion of the car. The frictional force on the package which acts opposite to this pseudo force is thus in the same direction (forward) as that of the car.

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Question 5.
What is the purpose of using shockers in a car?
Answer:
To decrease the impact of force by increasing the time for which force acts.

Question 6.
Why are types made of rubber not of steel?
Answer:
Since coefficient of friction between rubber and road is less than the coefficient of friction between steel and road.

Question 7.
Wheels are made circular. Why?
Answer:
Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.

Question 8.
If a ball is thrown up in a moving train, it comes back to the thrower’s hands. Why?
Answer:
Both during its upward and downward motion, the ball continues to move inertia of motion with the same horizontal velocity as the train. In this period, the ball covers the same horizontal distance as the train and so it comes back to the thrower’s hand.

Question 9.
Calculate the force acting on a body which changes the momentum of the body at the rate of 1 kg-m/s2 .
Answer:
As F = rate change of momentum
F = 1 kg-m/s2 = 1N

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Question 10.
On a rainy day skidding takes place along a curved path. Why?
Answer:
As the friction between the types and road reduces on a rainy day.

Question 11.
Why does a gun recoils when a bullet is being fired?
Answer:
To conserve momentum.

Question 12.
Why is it difficult to catch a cricket ball than a tennis ball even when both are moving with the same velocity?
Answer:
Being heavier, cricket ball has higher rate of change of momentum during motion so more force sumed.

Question 13.
The distance travelled by a moving body is directly proportional to time. Is any external force acting on it?
Answer:
As s ∝ t, so acceleration a = 0, therefore, no external force is acting on the body.

Question 14.
Calculate the impulse necessary to stop a 1500 kg car moving at a speed of 25 ms-1.
Answer:
Use formula I = change in momentum = m(v – u) (Impulse – 37500 Ns)

Question 15.
Lubricants are used between the two parts of a machine. Why?
Answer:
To reduce friction and so to reduce wear and tear.

Question 16.
What provides the centripetal force to a car taking a turn on a level road?
Answer:
Force of friction between the type and road provides centripetal force.

Question 17.
A body is acted upon by a number of external forces. Can it remain at rest?
Answer:
Yes, if the external forces acting on the body can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a closed polygon taken in the same order.

Question 18.
Bodies of larger mass need greater initial effort to put them in motion. Why?
Answer:
As F = ma so for given a, more force will be required to put a large mass in motion.

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Question 19.
An athlete runs a certain distance before taking a long jump Why?
Answer:
So that inertia of motion may help him in his muscular efforts to take a longer jump.

Question 20.
Action and reaction forces do not balance each other. Why?
Answer:
As they acts on different bodies.

Question 21.
The wheels of vehicles are provided with mudguards. Why?
Answer:
When the wheel rotates at a high speed, the mud sticking to the wheel flies off tangentially, this is due to inertia of direction. If order that the flying mud does not spoil the clothes of passer by the wheels are provided with mudguards.

Question 22.
China wares are wrapped in straw paper before packing. Why?
Answer:
The straw paper between the China ware increases the Time of experiencing the jerk during transportation. Hence impact of force reduces on China wares.

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Question 23.
Why is it difficult to walk on a sand?
Answer:
Less reaction force.

Question 24.
The outer edge of a curved road is generally raised over the inner edge Why?
Answer:
In addition to the frictional force, a component of reaction force also provides centripetal force.

Question 25.
Explain why the water doesn’t fall even at the top of the circle when the bucket full of water is upside down rotating in a vertical circle?
Answer:
Weight of the water and bucket is used up in providing the necessary centripetal force at the top of the circle.

Question 26.
Why does a speedy motor cyclist bends towards the center of a circular path while taking a turn on it?
Answer:
So that in addition of the frictional force, the horizontal component of the normal reaction also provides the necessary centripetal forces.

Question 27.
An impulse is applied to a moving object with a force at an angle of 20° wr.t. velocity vector, what is the angle between the impulse vector and change in momentum vector ?
Answer:
Impulse and change in momentum are along the same direction. Therefore angle between these two vectors is zero.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 28.
A man getting out of a moving bus runs in the same direction for a certain distance. Comment.
Answer:
Due to inertia of motion.

Question 29.
If the net force acting upon the particle is zero, show that its linear momentum remains constant.
Answer:
As F x \(\frac {dp}{dt}\)
when F = 0, \(\frac {dp}{dt}\) = 0 so P = constant

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Question 30.
A force of 36 dynes is inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 60°. Find the acceleration in a mass of 18 g that moves in a horizontal direction.
Answer:
F = 36 dyne at an angle of 60°
Fx = F cos 60° = 18 dyne
Fx = max
So ax = \(\frac{F_{x}}{m}\) = 1 cm /s2

Question 31.
The motion of a particle of mass m is described by h = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\) gt2. Find the force acting on particle.
Answer:
a = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\) gt2
find a by differentiating h twice w.r.t.
a = g
As F = ma so F = mg (answer)

Question 32.
A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force of F = -kx with k= 15 Nmr-1. What will be its initial acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin?
Answer:
As F = ma so F = -kx = ma
a = \(\frac {-kx}{m}\)
for x = 20 cm, ⇒ a = -10 m/s2.

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Question 33.
A 50 g bullet is fired from a 10 kg gun with a speed of 500 ms-1. What is the speed of the recoil of the gun?
Answer:
Initial momentum = 0
Using conservation of linear momentum mv + MV = 0
V = \(\frac {-mv}{M}\) ⇒ V = 2.5 m/s

Question 34.
Smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then slides a distance d. If the time taken of slide on rough incline is n times as large as that to slide than on a smooth incline. Show that coefficient of friction, µ = \(\left(1-\frac{1}{n^{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
When there is no friction, the block slides down the inclined plane with acceleration. a = g sin θ
when there is friction, the downward acceleration of the block is a’ = g (sin θ – µ cos θ)
As the block Slides a distance d in each case so
d = \(\frac {1}{2}\) at2 = \(\frac {1}{2}\) a’t’2
\(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}}=\frac{t^{\prime 2}}{t^{2}}=\frac{(n t)^{2}}{t^{2}}\) = n2
or \(\frac {g sin θ}{g(sin θ – µ cos θ)}\) = n2
Solving, we get (Using θ = 45°)
µ = 1 – \(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\)

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Question 35.
A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. When the lift is at rest spring balance reads 49 N of a body hang on it. If the lift moves:

  1. Downward
  2. upward, with an acceleration of 5 ms2
  3. with a constant velocity.

What will be the reading of the balance in each case?
Answer:
1.  R = m(g – a) = 49 N
so = m = \(\frac {49}{9.8}\) = 5 kg
R = 5 (9.8 – 5)
R = 24 N

2. R = m(g + a)
R = 5 (9.8 + 5)
R = 74 N

3.  as a = 0 so R = mg = 49 N

Question 36.
A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling of room by a string 2 m long is oscillating. At its mean position the speed of a bob is 1 ms-1. What is the trajectory of the ‘oscillating bob if the string is cut when the bob is –

  1. At the mean position
  2. At its extreme position.

Answer:

  1. Parabolic
  2. vertically downwards

Question 37.
A block placed on a rough horizontal surface is pulled by a horizontal force F. Let f be the force applied by the rough surface on the block. Plot a graph of f versus F.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Unto point A, f = F (50 Long as block is stationary) beyond A, when F increases, block starts moving f remains constant.

Question 38.
A mass of 2 kg is suspended with thread AB. Thread CD of the same type is attached to the other end of 2 kg mass.

  • Lower end of the lower thread is pulled gradually, hander and hander is the downward direction so as to apply force on AB Which of the thread will break & why?
  • If the lower thread is pulled with a jerk, what happens?

Answer:

  • Thread AB breaks down
  • CD will break.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 39.
A block of mass M is held against a rough vertical wall by pressing it with a finger. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is p and the acceleration due to gravity is g, calculate the minimum force required to be applied by the finger to held the block against the wall?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
For the block not to fall f = Mg
But f = µR = µF so
µF = Mg
F = \(\frac {Mg}{µ}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Laws of Motion Short Answer Questions (3 Marks) & Numericals

Question 40.
A block of mass 500 g is at rest on a horizontal table. What steady force is required to give the block a velocity of 200 cm s-2 in 4 s?
Answer:
Use F – ma
a = \(\frac {v – u}{ t }\) = \(\frac {200- 0}{ 4 }\) = 50 cm/s2
F = 500 x 50 = 25,000 dyne.

Question 41.
A force of 98 N is just required to move a mass of 45 kg on a rough horizontal surface. Find the coefficient of friction and angle of friction?
Answer:
F = 48 N,R = 45 x 9.8 = 441 N
µ = \(\frac {F’}{ R}\) = 0.22
Angle of friction θ = tan-1 0.22 = 12°24′

Question 42.
Calculate the force required to move a train of 2000 quintal up on an incline plane of 1 in 50 with an acceleration of 2 ms-2. The force of friction per quintal is 0.5 N.
Answer:
Force of friction = 0.5 N per quintal
f = 0.5 x 2000 = 1000 N
m = 2000 quintals = 2000 x 100 kg
sin θ = \(\frac {1}{50}\), a – 2 m/s2
In moving up an inclined plane, force required against gravity
mg sin θ = 39200 N
And force required to produce acceleration = ma
= 2000 x 100 x 2 = 40,0000 N
Total force required = 1000 + 39,200 + 40,0000 = 440200 N.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 43.
A force of 100 N gives a mass m1, an acceleration of 10 ms-2 and of 20 ms-2 to a mass m2.
What acceleration must be given to it if both the masses are tied together?
Answer:
Suppose, a = acceleration produced if m1 and m2 are tied together,
F = 100 N
Let a1 and a2 be the acceleration produced in m1 and m2 respectively.
∴ a1 and a2 = 20ms-2 (given)
Again m1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{a_{1}}\) and m2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{a_{2}}\)
⇒ m1 = \(\frac {100}{10}\) = 10kg
and m2 = \(\frac {100}{20}\) = 5kg
∴ m1 + m2 = 10 + 5 = 15
so, a = \(\frac{\mathbf{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) = \(\frac {100}{15}\) = \(\frac {20}{3}\) = 6.67 ms2

Question 44.
The pulley arrangement of figure are identical. The mass of the rope is negligible. In (a) mass m is lifted up by attaching a mass (2m) to the other end of the rope. In (b), m is lifted up by pulling the other end of the rope with a constant downward force F = 2 mg. In which case, the acceleration of m is more?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Case (a):
a = \(\frac {2m – m}{2m + m}\) g = a = \(\frac {g}{3}\)
Case (b):
FBD of mass m
ma’ = T – mg
ma’ = 2 mg – mg
⇒ ma’ = mg
a’ = g
So in case (b) acceleration of m is more.

Question 45.
Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. What is the
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
(a) Force on the particle for t < 0, t > 4s, 0 < t < 4s?
(b) Impulse at t = 0 and t = 4s?
(Consider one dimensional motion only)
Answer:
(a) For t < 0. No force as Particles is at rest. For t > 4s, No force again particle comes at rest.
For 0 < t < 4s, as slope of OA is constant so velocity constant i.e., a = 0, so force must be zero.

(b) Impulse at t = 0
Impulse = change in momentum
I = m(v – w) = 4(0 – 0.75) = 3 kg ms-1
Impulse at t = 4s
1 = m(v – u) = 4 (0 – 0.75) = -3 kg ms-1

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 46.
What is the acceleration of the block and trolley system as the figure, if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley and the surface is 0.04? Also Calculate friction in the string: Take g = 10 m/s2, mass of the string is negligible.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Free body diagram of the block
30 – T = 3a
Free body diagram of the trolley
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
T – fk = 20 a ………….(2)
where fk = µk= 0.04 x 20 x 10 = 8 N
Solving (i) & (ii), a = 0.96 m/s2 and T = 27.2 N

Question 47.
Three blocks of masses ml = 10 kg, m2 = 20 kg are connected by strings on smooth horizontal surface and pulled by a force of 60 N. Find the acceleration of the system and frictions in the string.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Solution:
All the blocks more with common acceleration a under the force F = 60 N.
F = (m1 + m2 + m3)a
a = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\) = 1 m/s2
to determine, T1 →Free body diagram of m1.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
T1 = m1a = 10 x 1 = 10 N
to determine, T2 →Free body diagram of m3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
F – T2 = m3a
Solving, we get T2 = 30 N

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 48.
The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5m away from the open end. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15 on a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 m/s2. At what distance from the starting point does the box fall off the truck ? (ignore the size of the box)
Answer:
Force on the box due to accelerated motion of the truck
F = ma = 40 x 2 = 80 N (in forward direction)
Reaction on the box, F’ = F = 80 N (in backward direction)
Force of limiting friction, f = µR = 0 .15 x 40 x 10 = 60 N
Net force on the box in backward direction is P = F’ f = 80 – 60 = 20 N
Backward acceleration in the box = a= \(\frac {p}{m}\) = \(\frac {20}{40}\) = 0.5 ms-2
t = time taken by the box to travel s = 5 m and falls off the truck, then from
s = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\) at2
5 = 0 x t + \(\frac {1}{2}\) x 0.5 x t2
t = 4.47
If the truck travels a distance x during this time
then x = 0 x 4.34 +\(\frac {1}{2}\) x 2 x (4.471)2
x = 19.98 m

Question 49.
A block slides down as incline of 30° with the horizontal. Starting from rest, it covers 8 m in the first 2 seconds. Find the coefficient of static friction.
Use s = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\) at2
a = \(\frac{2 s}{t^{2}}\) at2 as u = 0
µ = \(\frac{g sin θ – a}{g Cos θ }\)
Putting the value and solving, µ = 0.11

Question 50.
A helicopter of mass 2000 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 15 m/s2 . The total mass of the crew and passengers is 500 kg. Give the magnitude and direction of the:
(a) Force on the floor of the helicopter by the crew and passenger.
(b) Action of the rotor of the helicopter on the surrounding air
(c) Force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air (g = 10 m/s2 )
Answer:
(a) Force on the floor of the helicopter by the crew and passengers
= apparent weight of crew and passengers
= 500(10+ 15)
=12500 N

(b) Action of rotor of helicopter on surrounding air is Obviously vertically downwards, because helicopter rises on account of reaction of this force. Thus force of action
= (2000 + 500) (10 + 15)
= 2500 x 25
= 62,500 N

(c) Force on the helicopter due to surrounding air is obviously a reaction. As action and reaction are equal and opposite, therefore
Force of reaction F’ = 62,500 vertically upwards.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 51.
A rectangular box lies on a rough inclined surface. The coefficient of friction between the surface and the box is (µ). Let the mass of the box be m.

  1.  At what angle of inclination θ of the plane to the horizontal will the box just start to slide down the plane ?
  2. What is the force acting on the box down the plane, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased to a > θ.
  3. What is the force needed to be applied upwards along the plane to make the box either remain stationary or just move up with uniform speed ?
  4. What is the force needed to be applied upwards along the plane to pk kg f make the box move up the plane with acceleration a ?

Answer:
1. When the box just starts sliding
µ = tanθ
or 0 = tan-1 µ

2. Force acting on the box down the plane
= mg (sin a – µ cos a)

3. Force needed mg (sin a + µ cos a)

4. Force needed = mg (sin a + µ cos a) + ma.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 52.
Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg are suspended with help of mass less in extensible string as shown. Calculate T1 and T2 when system is going upwards with acceleration m/s2. (Use g 9.8 m/s2)
Answer:
According Newton’s second law of motion
(1) T1 – (m1 + m2)g = (m1 + m2)a
T1 = (m1 + m2)(a + g) = (5 + 3) (2 + 9.8)
T1 = 94.4 N

(2) T2 – m2g = m2a
T2 = m2 (a + g)
T2 = 3(2 + 9.8)
T2 = 35.4 N

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

Question 53.
There are few forces acting at a Point P produced by strings as shown, which is at rest. Find the forces F1 & F1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Answer:
Using Resolution of forces IN and 2N and then applying laws of vector addition. Calculate for F1 & F1.
F1 = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) N, F2 = \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}\)N

Question 54.
A hunter has a machine gun that can fire 50g bullets with a velocity of 150 ms A 60 kg tiger springs at him with a velocity of 10 ms-1. How many bullets must the hunter fire into the target so as to stop him in his track?
Answer:
Given m = mass of bullet = 50 gm = 0.50 kg
M = mass of tiger = 60 kg
v = Velocity of bullet – 150 m/s
V = Velocity of tiger = – 10 m/s
(v It is coming from opposite direction n = no. of bullets fired per second at the tiger so as to stop it.)
Pi = 0, before firing ……..(i)
Pf = n (mv) + MV …………(ii)
∴ From the law of conservation of momentum,
Pi = Pf
⇒ 0 = n (mv) + MV
n = \(\frac{MV}{mv}\) = \(\frac{-60 \times(-10)}{0.05 \times 150}\) = 80

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 55.
Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 5 kg are connected by an ideal string passing over a pulley. The block of mass 2 kg is free to slide on a surface inclined at an angle of 30° with the horizontal whereas 5 kg block hangs freely. Find the acceleration of the system and the tension in the string.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion
Let a be the acceleration of the system and T be the Tension in the string. Equations of motions for 5 kg and 2 kg blocks are
5g – T = 5a
T – 2g sin θ – f = 2a
where f = force of limiting friction
= µR = µ mg cos θ = 0.3 x 2 g x cos 30°
Solving (1) & (2)
a = 4.87 m/s2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 1.
Construct a quadratic equation with roots 7 and -3.
Solution:
Let the given roots be α = 7 and β = -3
Sum of the roots α + β = 7 + (-3)
α + β = 7 – 3 = 4
Product of the roots αβ = (7)(-3)
αβ = -21
The required quadratic equation is
x2 – (sum of two roots) x + Product of the roots = 0
x2 – 4x – 21 = 0

Question 2.
A quadratic polynomial has one of its zeros 1 + \(\sqrt{5}\) and it satisfies p(1) = 2. Find the quadratic polynomial.
Solution:
Given α = 1 + \(\sqrt{5}\) So, β = 1 – \(\sqrt{5}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 1
The quadratic polynomial is
p(x) = x2 – (α + β)x + αβ
p(x) = k (x2 – 2x – 4)
p( 1) = k(1 – 2 – 4) = -5 k
Given p (1) = 2
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 2

The Polynomial Roots Calculator will find the roots of any polynomial with just one click.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 3.
If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + \(\sqrt{2}\)x + 3 = 0, form a quadratic polynomial with zeroes 1/α, 1/β.
Solution:
α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + \(\sqrt{2}\)x + 3 = 0
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 4.
If one root of k(x – 1)2 = 5x – 7 is double the other root, show that k = 2 or – 25.
Solution:
k(x – 1)2 = 5x – 7
(i.e.,) k(x2 – 2x + 1) – 5x + 7 = 0
x2 (k) + x(-2k – 5) + k + 1 = 0
kx2 – x(2k + 5) + (k + 7) = 0
Here it is given that one root is double the other.
So let the roots to α and 2α
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 5
2(4k2 + 25 + 20k) = 9k (k + 7)
2(4k2 + 25 + 20k) = 9k2 + 63k
8k2 + 50 + 40k – 9k2 – 63k = 0
-k2 – 23k + 50 = 0
k2 + 23k – 5o = 0
(k + 25)(k – 2) = 0
k = -25 or 2

Question 5.
If the difference of the roots of the equation 2x2 – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0 is equal to their product then prove that a = 2.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 6.
Find the condition that one of the roots of ax2 + bx + c may be
(i) negative of the other
(ii) thrice the other
(iii) reciprocal of the other.
Solution:
(i) Let the roots be α and -β
Sum of the roots = – b/a = 0 ⇒ b = 0

(ii) Let the roots be α, 3α
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 7

Question 7.
If the equations x2 – ax + b = 0 and x2 – ex + f = 0 have one root in common and if the second equation has equal roots that ae = 2(b + f).
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 8

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 8.
Discuss the nature of roots of
(i) -x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
(ii) 4x2 – x – 2 = 0
(iii) 9x2 + 5x = 0
Solution:
(i) -x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
x2 – 3x – 1 = 0 ———- (1)
Compare this equation with the equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 ——– (2)
we have a = 1, b = -3, c = -1
Discriminant = b2 – 4ac
b2 – 4ac = (-3)2 – 4 × 1 × – 1
= 9 + 4 =13
b2 – 4ac = 13 > 0
∴ The two roots are real and distinct.

(ii) 4x2 – x – 2 = 0
4x2 – x – 2 = 0 ——(3)
Compare this equation with the equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 (4)
we have a = 4 , b = – 1, c = – 2
Discriminant = b2 – 4ac
b2 – 4ac = (-1)2 – 4 (4) (-2)
= 1 + 32
= 33
b2 – 4ac = 33 >0
∴ The two roots are real and distinct.

(iii) 9x2 + 5x = 0
9x2 + 5x = 0 ——- (5)
Compare this equation with the equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 ——– (6)
we have a = 9, b = 5 , c = 0
Discriminant = b2 – 4ac
b2 – 4ac = 52 – 4 × 9 × 0
b2 – 4ac = 25 > 0
∴ The two roots are real and distinct.

Question 9.
Without sketching the graphs find whether the graphs of the following functions will intersect the x- axis and if so in how many points.
(i) y = x2 + x + 2
(ii) y = x2 – 3x – 1
(iii) y = x2 + 6x + 9
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 20
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 21

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Completing the Square Calculator is a free online tool that displays the variable value for the quadratic equation using completing the square method.

Question 10.
Write f(x) = x2 + 5x + 4 in completed square form.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 22

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 Additional Questions

Question 1.
Find the values of k so that the equation x2 = 2x (1 + 3k) + 7(3 + 2k) = 0 has real and equal roots.
Solution:
The equation is x2 – x(2) (1 + 3k) + 7 (3 + 2k) = 0
The roots are real and equal
⇒ ∆ = 0 (i.e.,) b2 – 4ac = 0
Here a = 1, b = -2 (1 + 3k), c = 7(3 + 2k)
So b2 – 4ac = 0
⇒ [-2 (1 + 3k)]2 – 4(1) (7) (3 + 2k) = 0
(i.e.,) 4 (1 + 3k)2 – 28 (3 + 2k) = 0
(÷ by 4) (1 + 3k)2 – 7(3 + 2k) = 0
1 + 9k2 + 6k – 21 – 14k = 0
9k2 – 8k – 20 = 0
(k – 2)(9k + 10) = 0
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 23
To solve the quadratic inequalities ax2 + bx + c < 0 (or) ax2 + bx + c > 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 2.
If the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 – 5x + c = 0 are both equal to 10 then find the values of a and c.
Solution:
The given equation is ax2 – 5x + c = 0
Let the roots be α and β Given α + β = 10 and αβ = 10
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 24

Question 3.
If α and β are the roots of the equation 3x2 – 4x + 1 = 0, form the equation whose roots are \(\frac{\alpha^{2}}{\beta}\) and \(\frac{\beta^{2}}{\alpha}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 25
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 26

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 4.
If one root of the equation 3x2 + kx – 81 = 0 is the square of the other then find k.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 27

Question 5.
If one root of the equation 2x2 – ax + 64 = 0 is twice that of the other then find the value of a.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 28

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Get the free “Partial Fraction Calculator” widget for your website, blog, WordPress, Blogger, or iGoogle.

Resolve the following rational expressions into partial fractions

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 1
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 2

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 3
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 5
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 45
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 55

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 6
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 8
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 9
Equating nuemarator on bothsides we get
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 98

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 146
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 11
Equating numerator on both sides
(x – 2)2 = A(x2 + 1) + (Bx + c)(x)
Put x = 0
1 = A
Equating co-eff of x2
1 = A + B
(i.e.,) 1 + B = 1 ⇒ B = 0
put x = 1
A(2) + B + C = 0 (i.e.,) 2A + B + C = 0
2 + 0 + C = 0 ⇒ C = -2
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 12

Question 7.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 13
Solution:
Since numerator and denominator are of same degree
we have divide the numerator by the denominator
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 14
Substituting the value in ….(1)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 145

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 8.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 15
Solution:
Numerator is of greater degree than the denominator
So dividing Numerator by the denominator
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 16
⇒ 21x + 31 = A(x + 3) + B(x + 2)
Put x = -3
-63 + 31 = B(-1)
B = 32
Put x = -2
-42 + 31 = A(1) + B(0)
A = -11
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 17

Question 9.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 18
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 19
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 20

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 10.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 21
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 22
Equating Numerator on both sides we get
6x2 – x + 1 = A(x2 + 1) + (Bx + c)(x + 1)
6 + 1 + 1 = A(2) + 0 ⇒ 2A = 8 ⇒ A = 4
Equating co-eff of x2
6 = A + B
(i.e.,) 4 + B = 6 ⇒ B = 6 – 4 = 2
put x = 0
1 = A+ C
4 + C = 1 ⇒ C = 1 – 4 = -3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 23

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 11.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 24
Solution:
Since Numerator and are of same degree divide Numerator by the denominator
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 25
equating Numerator on both sides we get
x – 5 = A(x + 3) + B(x – 1)
Put x = -3
-3 -5 = A(0) + B(-4)
-4B = -8 ⇒ B = 2
Put x = 1
1 – 5 = A(4) + B(0)
4A = -4 ⇒ A = -1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 26

Question 12.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 27
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 28

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 Additional Questions

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 29
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 30

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 31
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 32

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 33
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 34
Equating nemerator on b/s
9 = A(x+2)2 + B(x – 1)(x + 2) + C(x – 1)
Put x = -2
9 = A(0) + B(0) + C(-3)
-3C = 9 ⇒ C = -3
Put x = 1
9 = A (1 + 2)2 + B (0) + C(0)
9A = 9
A = 1
Put x = 0
9 = 4A – 2B – C
9 = 4(1) – 2B + 3
9 – 7 = -2B
2 = -2B
B = -1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 35

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 36
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 133

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 38
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 39
0 = 0 + B(1 + 2)
3B = 0 ⇒ B = 0
Put x = -2
(-2)3 – 1 = A(-2 – 1) + B(0)
-8 – 1 = -3A
-9 = -3A
A = 9/3 ⇒ A = 3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.9 40

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Students can Download Physics Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Textual Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon,
(a) position of particles
(b) relative distance between particles
(c) masses of particles
(d) force acting on particle
Answer:
(d) force acting on particle

Question 2.
A couple produces, [AIPMT 1997, AIEEE 2004]
(a) pure rotation
(b) pure translation
(c) rotation and translation
(d) no motion [AIPMT 1997]
Answer:
(a) pure rotation

Question 3.
A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to positive X – axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is –
(a) zero
(b) increasing with x
(c) decreasing with x
(d) remaining constant [IIT 2002]
Answer:
(d) remaining constant

Question 4.
A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force 30 N?
(a) 0.25 rad s-2
(b) 25 rad s-2
(c) 5 m s-2
(d) 25 m s-2
[NEET 2017]
Answer:
(b) 25 rad s-2

Question 5.
A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the container rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular bisector, its moment of inertia,
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) depends on direction of rotation. [IIT 1998]
Answer:
(a) increases

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Use this kinetic energy calculator to help you find out the energy of an object in motion. This KE calculator makes use of the kinetic energy formula

Question 6.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes,
(a) L
(b) L / 2
(c) 2 L
(d) L / 2 [AFMC 1998, AIPMT 2015]
Answer:
(d) L / 2

Question 7.
A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular momentum of the particle remain conserved about –
(a) the center point of the circle.
(b) the point on the circumference of the circle
(c) any point inside the circle.
(d) any point outside the circle. [IIT 2003]
Answer:
(a) the center point of the circle.

Question 8.
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along –
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
(c) the radius
(d) tangent to the path [AIPMT 2012]
Answer:
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation

Question 9.
Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through center and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω1. They are brought in to contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is-
(a) \(\frac {1}{4}\) I(ω1 – ω22
(b) I(ω1 – ω22
(c) \(\frac {1}{8}\) I(ω1 – ω22
(d) \(\frac {1}{2}\) I(ω1 – ω22
Answer:
(a) \(\frac {1}{4}\) I(ω1 – ω22

Question 10.
A disc of moment of inertia Ia is rotating in a horizontal plane about its symmetry axis with a constant angular speed to. Another disc initially at rest of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially on to the rotating disc. Then, both the discs rotate with same constant angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to friction in this process is-
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 11.
The ratio of the acceleration for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle 0 without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is –
(a) 5 : 7
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 7 : 5
[AIPMT 2014]
Answer:
(a) 5 : 7

Question 12.
From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the center is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis passing through it?
(a) 15MR2/32
(b) 13MR2/32
(c) 11MR2/32
(d) 9MR2/32 [NEET 2016]
Answer:
(b) 13MR2/32

Question 13.
The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without sliding on an inclined plane of vertical height h is,
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3} g h}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{10}{7} g h}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{2gh}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{2} g h}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3} g h}\)

Question 14.
The speed of the center of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is vQ. A point on the rim in level with the center will be moving at a speed of speed of,
(a) zero
(b) v0
(c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v0
(d) 2 v0
[PMT 1992, PMT 2003, IIT 2004]
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v0

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Question 15.
A round object of mass m and radius r rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force,
(a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
(b) decreases the rotational motion.
(c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion ,
(d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy [PMT 2005]
Answer:
(d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define center of mass.
Answer:
The center of mass of a body is defined as a point where the entire mass of the body appears to be concentrated.

Question 2.
Find out the center of mass for the given geometrical structures.
(a) Equilateral triangle
(b) Cylinder
(c) Square
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
(a) For equilateral triangle, center of mass lies at its centro-id.
(b) For cylinder, center of mass lies at its geometrical center.
(c) For square, center of mass lies at the point where the diagonals meet.

Question 3.
Define torque and mention its unit.
Answer:
Torque is defined as the moment of the external applied force about a point or axis of rotation. The expression for torque is,
\(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 4.
What are the conditions in which force cannot produce torque?
Answer:
The forces intersect (or) passing through the axis of rotation cannot produce torque as the perpendicular distance between the forces is 0 i.e. r = 0.
∴ \(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\) = 0

Question 5.
Give any two examples of torque in day – to – day life.
Answer:

  • The opening and closing of a door about the hinges.
  • Turning of a nut using a wrench.

Question 6.
What is the relation between torque and angular momentum?
Answer:
We have the expression for magnitude of angular momentum of a rigid body as, L = I ω. The expression for magnitude of torque on a rigid body is, τ = I α.
We can further write the expression for torque as,
τ = I\(\frac {dω}{dt}\) (∴ α = \(\frac {dω}{dt}\))
Where, ω is angular velocity and α is angular acceleration. We can also write equation,
τ = \(\frac {d(Iω)}{dt}\)
τ = \(\frac {dL}{dt}\)

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Question 7.
What is equilibrium?
Answer:
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium where both its linear momentum and angular momentum remain constant.

Question 8.
How do you distinguish between stable and unstable equilibrium?
Answer:
Stable Kquilibrium:

  • The body tries to come back to equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
  • The center of mass of the body shifts slightly higher if disturbed from equilibrium.
  • Potential energy of the body is minimum and it increases if disturbed.

Unstable Equilibrium:

  • The body cannot come back to equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
  • The center of mass of the body shifts slightly lower if disturbed from equilibrium.
  • Potential energy of the body is not minimum and it decreases if disturbed.

Question 9.
Define couple.
Answer:
A pair of forces which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and separated by a perpendicular distance so that their lines of action do not coincide that causes a turning effect is called a couple.

Question 10.
State principle of moments.
Answer:
Principle of moment states that when an object is in equilibrium the sum of the anticlockwise moments about a point is equal to the sum of the clockwise moments.

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Question 11.
Define center of gravity.
Answer:
The center of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 12.
Mention any two physical significance of moment of inertia
Answer:
Moment of inertia for point mass,
I = \(m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)
Moment of inertia for bulk object,
I = ∑\(m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)

Question 13.
What is radius of gyration?
Answer:
The radius of gyration of an object is the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to an equivalent point mass, which would have the same mass as well as the same moment of inertia of the object.

Question 14.
State conservation of angular momentum.
Answer:
The law of conservation of angular momentum states that when no external torque acts on the body the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant.

Question 15.
What are the rotational equivalents for the physical quantities, (i) mass and (ii) force?
Answer:
The rotational equivalents for (i) mass and (ii) force are moment of inertia and torque respectively.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 16.
What is the condition for pure rolling?
Answer:
In pure rolling, there is no relative motion of the point of contact with the surface when the rolling object speeds up or shows down. It must accelerate or decelerate respectively.

Question 17.
What is the difference between sliding and slipping?
Sliding:

  • Velocity of center of mass is greater than Rω i.e. VCM > Rω.
  • Velocity of transnational motion is greater than velocity of rotational motion.
  • Resultant velocity acts in the forward direction.

Slipping:

  • Velocity of center of mass is lesser than Rω. i.e. VCM < Rω
  • Velocity of translation motion is lesser than velocity of rotational motion.
  • Resultant velocity acts in the backward direction.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the types of equilibrium with suitable examples.
Answer:

  • Transnational motion – A book resting on a table.
  • Rotational equilibrium – A body moves in a circular path with constant velocity.
  • Static equilibrium – A wall – hanging, hanging on the wall.
  • Dynamic equilibrium – A ball decends down in a fluid with its terminal velocity.
  • Stable equilibrium – A table on the floor
  • Unstable equilibrium – A pencil standing on its tip.
  • Neutral equilibrium – A dice rolling on a game board.

Question 2.
Explain the method to find the center of gravity of a irregularly shaped lamina.
Answer:
There is also another way to determine the center of gravity of an irregular lamina. If we suspend the lamina from different points like P, Q, R as shown in figure, the vertical lines I PP’, QQ’, RR’ all pass through the center of gravity. Here, reaction force acting at the point of suspension and the gravitational force acting at the center of gravity cancel each other and the torques caused by them also cancel each other.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Determination of center of gravity of plane lamina by suspending

Question 3.
Explain why a cyclist bends while negotiating a curve road? Arrive at the expression for angle of bending for a given velocity.
Answer:
Let us consider a cyclist negotiating a circular level road (not banked) of radius r with a speed v. The cycle and the cyclist are considered as one system with mass m. The center gravity of the system is C and it goes in a circle of radius r with center at O. Let us choose the line OC as X – axis and the vertical line through O as Z – axis as shown in Figure.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

The system as a frame is rotating about Z – axis. The system is at rest in this rotating frame. To solve problems in rotating frame of reference, we have to apply a centrifugal force (pseudo force) on the system which will be \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) This force will act through the center of gravity. The forces acting on the system are,

  • gravitational force (mg)
  • normal force (N)
  • frictional force (f)
  • centrifugal force (\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)).

As the system is in equilibrium in the rotational frame of reference, the net external force and net external torque must be zero. Let us consider all torques about the point A in Figure.
For rotational equilibrium,
τnet = 0
The torque due to the gravitational force about point A is (mg AB) which causes a clockwise turn that is taken as negative. The torque due to the centripetal force is I BC which causes an (\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) BC) Which causes an anticlockwise turn that is taken as positive.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
While negotiating a circular level road of radius r at velocity v, a cyclist has to bend by an angle 0 from vertical given by the above expression to stay in equilibrium (i.e. to avoid a fall).

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a rod about its center and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform rod of mass (M) and length (l) as shown in figure. Let us find an expression for moment of inertia of this rod about an axis that passes through the center of mass and perpendicular to the rod. First an origin is to be fixed for the coordinate system so that it coincides with the center of mass, which is also the geometric center of the rod. The rod is now along the x axis. We take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance (x) from the origin. The moment of inertia (dI) of this mass (dm) about the axis is, dI = (dm) x2
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) of the rod is, λ = \(\frac {M}{l}\)
The (dm) mass of the infinitesimally small length as, dm = λ dx = \(\frac {M}{l}\) dx
The moment of inertia (I) of the entire rod can be found by integrating dl,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin, the limits for integration are taken from to – l/2 to l/2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 5.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform ring of mass M and radius R. To find the moment of inertia of the ring about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to the plane, let us take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) of length (dx) of the ring. This (dm) is located at a distance R, which is the radius of the ring from the axis as shown in figure.
The moment of inertia (dl) of this small mass (dm) is,
dI = (dm)R2
The length of the ring is its circumference (2πR). As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) is,
λ = \(\frac {mass}{lengh}\) = \(\frac {M}{2πR}\)
The mass (dm) of the infinitesimally small length is,
dm = λ dx = \(\frac {M}{2πR}\) dx
Now, the moment of inertia (I) of the entire ring is,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies To cover the entire length of the ring, the limits of integration are taken from 0 to 2πR.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 6.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:
Consider a disc of mass M and radius R. This disc is made up of many infinitesimally small rings as shown in figure. Consider one such ring of mass (dm) and thickness (dr) and radius (r). The moment of inertia (dl) of this small ring is,
dI = (dm)R2
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit area (σ) is σ = \(\frac {mass}{area}\) = \(\frac{M}{\pi R^{2}}\)
The mass of the infinitesimally small ring is,
dm = σ 2πr dr = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\pi \mathrm{R}^{2}}\) 2πr dr
where, the term (2πr dr) is the area of this elemental ring (2πr is the length and dr is the thickness), dm = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) r dr
dI = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) r3 dr
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies The moment of inertia (I) of the entire disc is,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 7.
Discuss conservation of angular momentum with example.
Answer:
When no external torque acts on the body, the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant. This is known as law of conservation of angular momentum.
τ = \(\frac {dL}{dt}\)
If τ = 0 then, L = constant.
As the angular momentum is L = Iω, the conservation of angular momentum could further be written for initial and final situations as,
Iiωi = Iiωi (or) Iω = constant
The above equations say that if I increases ω will decrease and vice – versa to keep the angular momentum constant.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
There are several situations where the principle of conservation of angular momentum is applicable. One striking example is an ice dancer as shown in Figure A. The dancer spins slowly when the hands are stretched out and spins faster when the hands are brought close to the body.

Stretching of hands away from body increases moment of inertia, thus the angular velocity decreases resulting in slower spin. When the hands are brought close to the body, the moment of inertia decreases, and thus the angular velocity increases resulting in faster spin. A diver while in air as in Figure B curls the body close to decrease the moment of inertia, which in turn helps to increase the number of somersaults in air.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 8.
State and prove parallel axis theorem.
Answer:
Parallel axis theorem:
Parallel axis theorem states that the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of its moment of inertia about a parallel axis through its center of mass and the product of the mass of the body and the square of the perpendicular distance between the two axes.

If IC is the moment of inertia of the body of mass M about an axis passing through the center of mass, then the moment of inertia I about a parallel axis at a distance d from it is – given by the relation,
I = IC + M d2
Let us consider a rigid body as shown in figure. Its moment of inertia about an axis AB passing through the center of mass is IC. DE is another axis parallel to AB at a perpendicular distance d from AB. The moment of inertia of the body about DE is I. We attempt to get an expression for I in terms of IC. For this, let us consider a point mass m on the body at position x from its center of mass.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The moment of inertia of the point mass about the axis DE is, m (x + d)2. The moment of inertia I of the whole body about DE is the summation of the above expression.
I = ∑ m (x + d)2
This equation could further be written as,
I = ∑ m(x2 + d2 + 2xd)
1= ∑ (mx2 + md2 + 2 dmx)
l = ∑ mx2 + md2 + 2d ∑ mx
Here, ∑ mx2 is the moment of inertia of the body about the center of mass. Hence,IC = ∑ mx2
The term, ∑ mx = 0 because, x can take positive and negative values with respect to the axis AB. The summation (∑ mx) will be zero.
Thus, I = IC + ∑ m d2 = IC + (∑m) d2
Here, ∑ m is the entire mass M of the object (∑ m = M).
I = IC + Md2

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 9.
State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
Answer:
Perpendicular axis theorem:
This perpendicular axis theorem holds good only for plane laminar objects. The theorem states that the moment of inertia of a plane laminar body about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body such that all the three axes are mutually perpendicular and have a common point.

Let the X and Y – axes lie in the plane and Z – axis perpendicular to the plane of the laminar object. If the moments of inertia of the body about X and Y-axes are IX and IY respectively – and IZ is the moment of inertia about Z-axis, then the perpendicular axis theorem could be expressed as,
IZ = IX + IY

To prove this theorem, let us consider a plane laminar object of negligible thickness on which lies the origin (O). The X and Y – axes lie on the plane and Z – axis is perpendicular to it as shown in figure. The lamina is considered to be made up of a large number of particles of mass m. Let us choose one such particle at a point P which has coordinates (x, y) at a distance r from O.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The moment of inertia of the particle about Z – axis is, mr2.
The summation of the above expression gives the moment of inertia of the entire lamina about Z – axis as, IZ = ∑ mr2
Here, r2 = x2 + y2
Then, IZ = ∑ m (x2 + y2)
IZ = ∑ m x2 + ∑ m y2
In the above expression, the term ∑ m x2 is the moment of inertia of the body about the Y-axis and similarly the term ∑ m y2is the moment of inertia about X- axis. Thus,
IX = ∑ m y2 and IY = ∑ m x2
Substituting in the equation for Iz gives,
IZ = IX + IY
Thus, the perpendicular axis theorem is proved.

Question 10.
Discuss rolling on inclined plane and arrive at the expression for the acceleration.
Answer:
Let us assume a round object of mass m and radius R is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping as shown in figure. There are two forces acting on the object along the inclined plane. One is the component of gravitational force (mg sin θ) and the other is the static frictional force (f). The other component of gravitation force (mg cos θ) is cancelled by the normal force (N) exerted by the plane. As the motion is happening along the incline, we shall write the equation for motion from the free body diagram (FBP) of the object.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution C
For transnational motion, mg sin θ is the supporting force and f is the opposing force, mg sin θ f = ma
For rotational motion, let us take the torque with respect to the center of the object. Then mg sin 0 cannot cause torque as it passes through it but the frictional force f can set torque of Rf = Iα
By using the relation, a = rα, and moment of inertia I = mK2 we get,
Rf = mK2 \(\frac {a}{R}\); f = ma \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)\)
Now equation becomes,
mg sin θ – ma \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)\) = ma
mg sin θ = ma + ma \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)\)
a \(\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{K}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)\) = g sin θ
After rewriting it for acceleration, we get,
a = \(\frac{g \sin \theta}{\left(1+\frac{K^{2}}{R^{2}}\right)}\)
We can also find the expression for final velocity of the rolling object by using third equation of motion for the inclined plane.
v2 = u2 + 2as. If the body starts rolling from rest, u = 0. When h is the vertical height of the incline, the length of the incline s is, s = \(\frac {h}{sin θ}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies By taking square root,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The time taken for rolling down the incline could also be written from first equation of motion as, v = u + at. For the object which starts rolling from rest, u = 0. Then,
t = \(\frac {v}{a}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The equation suggests that for a given incline, the object with the least value of radius of gyration K will reach the bottom of the incline first.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Conceptual Questions

Question 1.
When a tree is cut, the cut is made on the side facing the direction in which the tree is required to fall. Why?
Answer:
A cut on the tree is made on the side facing the direction in which the tree is required to fall because that side will no longer be supported by the normal force from the bottom, therefore the gravitational force tries to rotate it. So the torque given by the gravity to the tree makes the tree fall on the side as anticipated.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
Why does a porter bend forward while carrying a sack of rice on his back?
Answer:
When a porter carries a sack of rice, the line of action of his center of gravity will go away from the body. It affects the balance, to avoid this he bends. By which center of gravity will realign within the body again. So balance is maintained.

Question 3.
Why is it much easier to balance a meter scale on your finger tip than balancing on a match stick?
Answer:
A meter scale is larger then a match stick. So the center of gravity for meter scale is higher than a matchstick when we keep it vertically. It is easier to balance the object whose center of gravity is higher than the object whose centro of gravity is lower. So, it is hard to balance a match stick than a meter scale.

Question 4.
Two identical water bottles one empty and the other filled with water are allowed to roll down an inclined plane. Which one of them reaches the bottom first? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Mass of the empty water bottle mostly concentrated on its surface. So moment of inertia of empty water bottle is more than the bottle filled with water. As we know, moment of inertia is inversely proportional to angular velocity. Therefore, the bottle filled with water whirls with greater speed and reaches the ground first.

Question 5.
Write the relation between angular momentum and rotational kinetic energy. Draw a graph for the same. For two objects of same angular momentum, compare the moment of inertia using the graph.
Answer:
Let a rigid body of moment of inertia I rotate with angular velocity ω.
The angular momentum of a rigid body is, L = Iω
The rotational kinetic energy of the rigid body is, KE = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) Iω2.
By multiplying the numerator and denominator of the above equation with I, we get a relation between L and KE as,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
It resembles with y = Kx2. If angular momentum is same for two objects, kinetic energy is inversely proportional to moment of inertia.
Moment of inertia of the object whose kinetic energy is lesser will have greater magnitude.

Question 6.
Three identical solid spheres move down through three inclined planes A, B and C all same dimensions. A is without friction, B is undergoing pure rolling and C is rolling with slipping. Compare the kinetic energies EA, EB and EC at the bottom.
Answer:
Even though, the three identical solid spheres of same dimensions move down through three different inclined plane, according to the law of conservation of energy, the potential energy possessed by these three solid spheres will be converted into kinetic energies. So the kinetic energies EA, EB and EC are equal at the bottom.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 7.
Give an example to show that the following statement is false. Any two forces acting on a body can be combined into single force that would have same effect.
Answer:
A single force i.e. resultant of two forces acting on a body depends upon the angle between them also. The simple example for this is if two forces 5 N and 5 N acting on the object in the opposite direction, the single resultant force acting on the body is zero. But, if two forces acting on the object along the same direction, then the resultant i.e. the single force is 5 + 5 = 10 N. Hence the given statement “any two forces acting on a body can be combined into single force that would leave same effect” is wrong.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Numerical Problems

Question 1.
A uniform disc of mass 100 g has a diameter of 10 cm. Calculate the total energy of the disc when rolling along a horizontal table with a velocity of 20 cm s-2.
Answer:
Given,
Mass of the disc = 100 g = 100 x 10-3 kg = \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\)kg
Velocity of disc = 20 cm s-1 = 20 x 10-2 ms-1 = 0.2 ms-1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Question 2.
A particle of mass 5 units is moving with a uniform speed of v = \(3 \sqrt{2}\) units in the XOY plane along the line y = x + 4. Find the magnitude of angular momentum.
Answer:
Given,
Mass = 5 units
Speed = v = \(3 \sqrt{2}\) units
Y = X + 4
Angular momentum = L = m(\(\bar{r} \times \bar{v}\))
= m(x\(\hat{i}\) +y\(\hat{j}\))x(v\(\hat{i}\) + v\(\hat{j}\)) = m[xv\(\hat{k}\)-vy\(\hat{k}\)] = m[xv\(\hat{k}\)– v(x + 4)\(\hat{k}\)]
L = -mv\(\hat{k}\) = -4 x 5 x \(3 \sqrt{2}\)\(\hat{k}\) = – 60\(\sqrt{2}\)\(\hat{k}\)
L = 60\(\sqrt{2}\) units.

Question 3.
A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. If its angular velocity increases from 20π rad/s to 40π rad/s in 10 seconds, find the number of rotations in that period.
Answer:
Given,
Initial angular velocity ω0 = 20 π rad/s
Final angular velocity ω = 40 π rad/s
Time t = 10 s
Solution:
Angular acceleration α = \(\frac{\omega-\omega_{0}}{t}\) = \(\frac {40π – 20π }{ 10 }\)
α = 2π rad/s2
According to equation of motion for rotational motion
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The number of rotations = n = \(\frac {θ}{ 2π }\)
n = \(\frac {300π}{ 2π }\) = 150 rotations.

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Question 4.
A uniform rod of mass m and length / makes a constant angle 0 with an axis of rotation which passes through one end of the rod. Find the moment of inertia about this gravity is.
Answer:
Moment of inertia of the rod about the axis which is passing through its center of gravity is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Moment of inertia of a uniform rod of mass m and length l about one axis which passes through one end of the rod
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 5.
Two particles P and Q of mass 1 kg and 3 kg respectively start moving towards each other from rest under mutual attraction. What is the velocity of their center of mass?
Answer:
Given,
Mass of particle P = 1 kg Mass of particle Q = 3 kg
Solution:
Particles P and Q forms a system. Here no external force is acting on the system,

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
We know that M = \(\frac {d}{dt}\) (VCM ) = f
It means that, C.M. of an isolated system remains at rest when no external force is acting and internal forces do not change its center of mass.

Question 6.
Find the moment of inertia of a hydrogen molecule about an axis passing through its center of mass and perpendicular to the inter-atomic axis.
Given: mass of hydrogen atom 1.7 x 1027kg and inter atomic distance is equal to 4 x 10-10m.
Answer:
Given,
Inter-atomic distance : 4 x 10-10 m
Mass of H2 atom : 1.7 x 10-27 kg
Moment of inertia of H2 =
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 7.
On the edge of a wall, we build a brick tower that only holds because of the bricks’ own weight. Our goal is to build a stable tower whose overhang d is greater than the length l of a single brick. What is the minimum number of bricks you need?
(Hint: Find the center of mass for each brick and add.)
Answer:
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Length of the brick = l
Length of the overhang = d
The mono of bricks can be decided only by using the concept of position of center of gravity. The first brick is in contact with the ground and it will not fall over.
Let one end of brick 2 is coinciding with the center of brick 1 i.e. x = 0.
∴ The position of n brick is
xn = (n – 1) \(\frac {L}{4}\)
The center of gravity is in the midway between the center of brick 2 and the center of brick n.
position of G =
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
brick tower will fall when G >\(\frac {L}{4}\) it shows that n > 4.

Question 8.
The 747 boing plane is landing at a speed of 70 m s-1. Before touching the ground, the wheels are not rotating. How long a skid mark do the wing wheels leave (assume their mass is 100 kg which is distributed uniformly, radius is 0.7 m, and the coefficient of friction with the ground is 0.5)?
Answer:
The types of the plane will leave a skid mark if the speed of the types in contact with ground is lesser than the velocity of the plane. The condition for this is –
v > ω
(When the type attained an angular velocity of V/R)
The types will stop the skidding and starts the rolling.
The forces acting on the wheel after the plane touches down are,
N – P Normal force W – weight
The wheel is not accelerating means
N = ω
The torque about the center of the wheel is
τ = RF = µωR
The angular acceleration is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
According to equation of motion, time taken to stop the skidding by the wheel is,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Q8
The six mark will have a length of
l = vt = 70 x 0.03 = 2.1 m
Note:
The 747 is resting on the runway, supported by 16 wheels under the wing, and 2 under the nose total length is 68.63 m. The normal force experienced by plane through its 16 wheels is ω = 232 KN.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Additional Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The changes produced by the deforming forces in a rigid body are –
(a) very large
(b) infinity
(c) negligibly small
(d) small
Answer:
(c) negligibly small

Question 2.
When a rigid body moves all particles that constitute the body follows-
(a) same path
(b) different paths
(c) either same or different path
(d) circular path
Answer:
(b) different path

Question 3.
For bodies of regular shape and uniform mass distribution, the center of mass is at –
(a) the comers
(b) inside the objects
(c) the point where the diagonals meet
(d) the geometric center
Answer:
(d) the geometric center

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Question 4.
For square and rectangular objects center of mass lies at –
(a) the point where the diagonals meet
(b) at the comers
(c) on the center surface
(d) any point
Answer:
(a) the point where the diagonals meet

Question 5.
Center of mass may lie –
(a) within the body
(b) outside the body
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only at the center
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The dimension of point mass is –
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 7.
The motion of center of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by their internal forces –
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces
(b) only if they are along the line joining the particles
(c) only if acts perpendicular to each other
(d) only if acting opposite
Answer:
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces

Question 8.
A circular plate of diameter 10 cm is kept in contact with a square plate of side 10 cm. The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The center of mass of the system will be
(a) inside the circular plate
(b) inside the square plate
(c) At the point of contact
(d) outside the system
Answer:
(6) inside the square plate

Question 9.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend on
(a) masses of particles
(b) position of the particles
(c) distribution of masses
(d) forces acting on the particles
Answer:
(d) forces acting on the particles

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Question 10.
The center of mass of a solid cone along the line from the center of the base to the vertex is at –
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) th of its height
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) of its height
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) th of its height
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) th of its height
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) th of its height

Question 11.
All the particles of a body are situated at a distance of X from origin. The distance of the center of mass from the origin is –
(a) ≥ r
(b) ≤ r
(c) = r
(d) > r

Question
A free falling body breaks into three parts of unequal masses. The center of mass of the three parts taken together shifts horizontally towards –
(a) heavier piece
(b) lighter piece
(c) does not shift horizontally
(d) depends on vertical velocity
Answer:
(c) does not shift horizontally

Question 13.
The distance between the center of carbon and oxygen atoms in the gas molecule is 1.13 A. The center of mass of the molecule relative to oxygen atom is –
(a) 0.602 Å
(b) 0.527 Å
(c) 1.13 Å
(d) 0.565 Å
Answer:
(b) 0.527 Å
Given,
Inter atomic distance = 1.13 Å
Mass of carbon atom = 14
Mass of oxygen atom = 16
Let C.M. of molecule lies at a distance of X from oxygen atom-
i.e. m1r1 = m2r2
16 X = 14(1.13 – X)
30 X = 15.82
X = 0.527 Å

Question 14.
The unit of position vector of center of mass is-
(a) kg
(b) kg m2
(c) m
(d) m2
Answer:
(c) m

Question 15.
The sum of moments of masses of all the particles in a system about the center of mass is-
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 16.
The motion of center of mass depends on-
(a) external forces acting on it
(b) internal forces acting within it
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) external forces acting on it

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Question 17.
Two particles P and Q move towards with each other from rest with the velocities of 10 ms-1 and 20 ms-1 under the mutual force of attraction. The velocity of center of mass is-
(a) 15 ms-1
(b) 20 ms-1
(c) 30 ms-1
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) zero

Question 18.
The reduced mass of the system of two particles of masses 2 m and 4 m will be –
(a) 2 m
(b) \(\frac {2 }{ 3 }\)y m
(c) \(\frac {3}{ 2 }\)y m
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m

Question 19.
The motion of the center of mass of a system consists of many particles describes its –
(a) rotational motion
(b) vibratory motion
(c) oscillatory motion
(d) translator y motion
Answer:
(c) oscillatory motion

Question 20.
The position of center of mass can be written in the vector form as –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 21.
The positions of two masses m1 and m2 are x1 and x2. The position of center of mass is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 22.
In a two particle system, one particle lies at origin another one lies at a distance of X. Then the position of center of mass of these particles of equal mass is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
(a) \(\frac {X}{2}\)

Question 23.
Principle of moments is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 24.
Infinitesimal quantity means –
(a) collective particles
(b) extremely small
(c) nothing
(d) extremely larger
Answer:
(b) extremely small

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Question 25.
In the absence of external forces the center of mass will be in a state of –
(a) rest
(b) uniform motion
(c) may be at rest or in uniform motion
(d) vibration
Answer:
(c) may be at rest or in uniform motion

Question 26.
The activity of the force to produce rotational motion in a body is called as –
(a) angular momentum
(b) torque
(c) spinning
(d) drive force
Answer:
(b) torque

Question 27.
The moment of the external applied force about a point or axis of rotation is known as –
(a) angular momentum
(b) torque
(c) spinning
(d) drive force
Answer:
(b) torque

Question 28.
Torque is given as –
(a) \(\vec{r}\) . \(\vec{F}\)
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)
(c) \(\vec{F}\) x \(\vec{r}\)
(d) r F cos θ
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 29.
The magnitude of torque is –
(a) rF sin θ
(b) rF cos θ
(c) rF tan θ
(d) rF
Answer:
(a) rF sin θ

Question 30.
The direction of torque ácts –
(a) along \(\vec{F}\)
(b) along \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
(c) Perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\)
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
Answer:
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)

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Question 31.
The unit of torque is –
(a) is
(b) Nm-2
(c) Nm
(d) Js-1
Answer:
(c) Nm

Question 32.
The direction of torque is found using –
(a) left hand rule
(b) right hand rule
(c) palm rule
(d) screw rule
Answer:
(b) right hand rule

Question 33.
if the direction of torque is out of the paper then the rotation produced by the torque is –
(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) straight line
(d) random direction
Answer:
(a) clockwise

Question 34.
If the direction of the torque is inward the paper then the rotation is –
(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) straight line
(d) random direction
Answer:
(a) clockwise

Question 35.
if \(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{F}\) are parallel or anti parallel, then the torque is –
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) infinity
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 36.
The maximum possible value of torque is –
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) \(\vec{r}\) + \(\vec{F}\)
(d) rF
Answer:
(d) rF

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Question 37.
The relation between torque and angular acceleration is –
(a) \(\vec{τ}\) = \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\)
(b) \(\vec{α}\) = \(\frac{\vec{\tau}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
(c) \(\vec{α}\) = I \(\vec{τ}\)
(d) \(\vec{τ}\) = \(\frac{\vec{\alpha}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{α}\) = \(\frac{\vec{\tau}}{\mathrm{I}}\)

Question 38.
Angular momentum is –
(a) \(\vec{P}\) x \(\vec{r}\)
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{P}\)
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\frac{r}{\vec{p}}}\)
(d) \(\vec{r}\) . \(\vec{P}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{P}\)

Question 39.
The magnitude of angular momentum is given by –
(a) rp
(b) rp sin θ
(c) rp cos θ
(d) rp tan θ
Answer:
(b) rp sin θ

Question 40.
Angular momentum is associated with –
(a) rotational motion
(b) linear motion
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) circular motion only
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 41.
Angular momentum acts perpendicular to –
(a) \(\vec{r}\)
(b) \(\vec{P}\)
(c) both \(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{P}\)
(d) plane of the paper
Answer:
(c) both \(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{P}\)

Question 42.
Angular momentum is given by –
(a) \(\frac {I}{ω}\)
(b) τω
(c) Iω
(d) \(\frac {ωI}{2}\)
Answer:
(c) Iω

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Question 43.
The rate of change of angular momentum is –
(a) Torque
(b) angular velocity
(c) centripetal force
(d) centrifugal force
Answer:
(a) Torque

Question 44.
The forces acting on a body when it is at rest –
(a) is gravitational force
(b) Normal force
(c) both gravitational as well as normal force
(d) No force is acting
Answer:
(c) both gravitational as well as normal force

Question 45.
The net force acting on a body when it is at rest is –
(a) gravitational force
(b) Normal force
(c) Sum of gravitational and normal force
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) zero

Question 46.
If net force acting on a body is zero, then the body is in –
(a) transnational equilibrium
(b) rotational equilibrium
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) transnational equilibrium

Question 47.
If the net torque acting on the body is zero, then the body is in –
(a) transnational equilibrium
(b) rotational equilibrium
(c) mechanical equilibrium
(d) none
Answer:
(b) rotational equilibrium

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Question 48.
when the net force and net torque acts on the body is zero then the body is in –
(a) transnational equilibrium
(b) rotational equilibrium
(c) mechanical equilibrium
(d) none
Answer:
(d) none

Question 49.
When the net force and net torque acts on the body is zero then the body is in –
(a) static equilibrium
(b) Dynamic equilibrium
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) transnational equilibrium
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 50.
When two equal and opposite forces acting on the body at two different points, it may give –
(a) net force
(b) torque
(c) stable equilibrium
(d) none
Answer:
(b) torque

Question 51.
The torque in rotational motion is analogous to in transnational motion –
(a) linear momentum
(b) mass
(c) couple
(d) force
Answer:
(d) force

Question 52.
Which of the following example does not constitute a couple?
(a) steering a car
(b) turning a pen cap
(c) ball rolls on the floor
(d) closing the door
Answer:
(c) ball rolls on the floor

Questioner 53.
If the linear momentum and angular momentum are zero, then the object is said to be in –
(a) stable equilibrium
(b) unstable equilibrium
(c) neutral equilibrium
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 54.
When the body is disturbed, the potential energy remains same, then the body is in –
(a) stable equilibrium
(b) unstable equilibrium
(c) neutral equilibrium
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) neutral equilibrium

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Question 55
The point where the entire weight of the body acts is called as –
(a) center of mass
(b) center of gravity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) pivot
Answer:
(b) center of gravity

Question 56.
The forces acting on a cyclist negotiating a circular Level road is /are –
(a) gravitational force
(b) centrifugal force
(c) frictional force
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 57.
While negotiating a circular level road a cyclist has to bend by an angle θ from vertical to stay in an equilibrium is-
(a) \(\tan \theta=\frac{r g}{r^{2}}\)
(b) θ = \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\right)\)
(c) θ = \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{r g}{r^{2}}\right)\)
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) θ = \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\right)\)

Question 58.
Moment of inertia for point masses –
(a) m2r
(b) rw2
(c) mr2
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) mr2

Question 59.
Moment of inertia for bulk object –
(a) rm2
(b) rw2
(c) \(m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)
(d) \(\Sigma m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\Sigma m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)

Question 60.
For rotational motion, moment of inertia is a measure of –
(a) transnational inertia
(b) mass
(c) rotational inertia
(d) invariable quantity
Answer:
(c) rotational inertia

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Question 61.
Unit of moment of inertia –
(a) kgm
(b) mkg-2
(c) kgm2
(d) kgm-1
Answer:
(c) kgm2

Question 62.
Dimensional formula for moment of inertia is –
(a) [ML-2]
(b) [M2L-1]
(c) [M-2]
(d) [ML2]
Answer:
(d) [ML2]

Question 63.
Moment of inertia of a body is a –
(a) variable quantity
(b) invariable quantity
(c) constant quantity
(d) measure of torque
Answer:
(a) variable quantity

Question 64.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the length is –
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)Ml2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)Ml2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)M(l2 + b2 )
(d) Ml2
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)Ml2

Question 65.
Moment of inertia ofa thin uniform rod about an axis passing through one end and perpendicular to the length is-
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)Ml2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)Ml2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)M(l2 + b2 )
(d) Ml2
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)Ml2

Question 66.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform rectangular sheet about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the plane of the sheet is-
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)Ml2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)Ml2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)M(l2 + b2 )
(d) Ml2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)M(l2 + b2 )

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Question 67.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center of gravity and perpendicular to the plane is –
(a) MR2
(b) 2 MR2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)MR2
(d) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)MR2
Answer:
(a) MR2

Question 68.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and lying on the plane (along diameter) is –
(a) MR2
(b) 2 MR2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2

Question 69.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane is –
(a) MR2
(b) 2 MR2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2

Question 70.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center lying on the plane (along diameter is)
(a) MR2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(c) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) MR2
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) MR2

Question 71.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform hollow cylinder about an axis of the cylinder is –
(a) MR2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(c) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) MR2
Answer:
(a) MR2

Question 72.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform hollow cylinder about an axis of the cylinder is –
(a) MR2
(b) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{2}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{4}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
Answer:
(b) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{2}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)

Question 73.
Moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder about an axis passing through the center and along the axis of the cylinder is –
(a) MR2
(b) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{2}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{4}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2

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Question 74.
Moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder about as axis passing perpendicular to the length and passing through the center is –
(a) MR2
(b) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{2}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2
(d) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{4}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)
Answer:
(d) M\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}^{2}}{4}+\frac{l^{2}}{12}\right)\)

Question 75.
Moment of inertia of a thin hollow sphere about an axis passing through the center along its diameter is
(a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(b) \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)MR2
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2

Question 76.
Moment of inertia of a thin hollow sphere about an axis passing through the edge along its tangent is –
(a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(b) \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)MR2
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)MR2

Question 77.
torment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere about an axis passing through the center along its diameter is –
(a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(b) \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)MR2
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)MR2

Question 78.
Moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere about an axis passing through the edge along its tangent is –
(a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(b) \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)MR2
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)MR2
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)MR2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)MR2

Question 79.
The ratio of K2/R2 of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane is-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{ 5 }\)
(d) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(a) 1

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Question 80.
The ratio of K2/ R2 of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane is –
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) \(\frac {1}{ 2 }\)
(d) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac {1}{ 2 }\)

Question 81.
When no external torque acts on the body, the net angular momentum of a rotating body.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) increases or decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer:
(d) remains constant

Question 82.
Moment of inertia of a body is proportional to –
(a) ω
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ ω }\)
(c) ω2
(d) \(\frac{1}{\omega^{2}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ ω }\)

Question 83.
When the hands are brought closer to the body, the angular velocity of the ice dancer –
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) constant
(d) may decrease or increase
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 84.
When the hands are stretched out from the body, the moment of inertia of the ice dancer –
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) constant
(d) may decrease or increase
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 85.
The work done by the torque is –
(a) F. ds
(b) F. dθ
(c) τ dθ
(d) r.dθ
Answer:
(c) τ dθ

Question 86.
Rotational Kinetic energy of a body is –
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mr
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) Iω2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)Iv2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mω2
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) Iω2

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Question 87.
Rotational kinetic energy is given by –
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mr
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)Iv2
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{I}}\)
(d) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{L}^{2}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{I}}\)

Question 88.
If E is a rotational kinetic energy then angular momentum is-
(a) \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{IE}}\)
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{E}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{I}}\)
(c) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{E}^{2}}\)
(d) \(\frac{E}{I^{2} \omega^{2}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{IE}}\)

Question 89.
The product of torque acting on a body and angular velocity is –
(a) Energy
(b) power
(c) work done
(d) kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) power

Question 90.
The work done per unit time in rotational motion is given by –
(a) \(\vec{F}\) .v
(b) \(\frac {dθ}{dt}\)
(c) τ ω
(d) I ω
Answer:
(c) τ ω

Question 91.
While rolling, the path of center of mass of an object is –
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) circle
Answer:
(a) straight line

Question 92.
In pure rolling, the velocity of the point of the rolling object which comes in contact with the surface is –
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) 2 VCM
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 93.
In pure rolling velocity of center of mass is equal to –
(a) zero
(b) Rω
(c) \(\frac { ω }{ R }\)
(d) \(\frac { R }{ ω }\)
Answer:
(b) Rω

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Question 94.
In pure rolling, rotational velocity of points at its edges is equal to-
(a) Rω
(b) velocity of center of mass
(c) transnational velocity
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) Rω

Question 95.
Sliding of the object occurs when –
(a) Vtrans < Vrot
(b) Vtrans = Vrot
(c) Vtrans > Vrot
(d) Vtrans = 0
Answer:
(c) Vtrans > Vrot

Question 96.
Sliding of the object occurs while –
(a) Vtrans = Vrot
(b) VCM = Rω
(c) VCM < Rω
(d) VCM > Rω
Answer:
(d) VCM > Rω

Question 97.
Slipping of the object occurs when –
(a) Vtrans < Vrot
(b) Vtrans = Vrot
(c) Vtrans > Vrot
(d) Vtrans = 0
Answer:
(a) Vtrans < Vrot

Question 98.
Slipping of the object occurs when –
(a) Vtrans = Vrot
(b) VCM = Rω
(c) VCM < Rω
(d) VCM > Rω
Answer:
(c) VCM < Rω

Question 99.
In sliding, the resultant velocity of a point of contact acts along –
(a) forward direction
(b) backward direction
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) tangential direction
Answer:
(a) forward direction

Question 100.
In slipping, the resultant velocity of a point of contact acts along –
(a) forward direction
(b) backward direction
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) tangential direction
Answer:
(b) backward direction

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Question 101.
When a solid sphere is undergoing pure rolling, the ratio of transnational kinetic energy to rotational kinetic – energy is –
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 1 : 5
(d) 5 : 1
Answer:
(b) 5 : 2

Question 102.
Time taken by the rolling object in inclined plane to reach its bottom is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 103.
The velocity of the rolling object on inclined plane at the bottom of inclined plane is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 104.
Moment of inertia of an annular disc about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc is –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 105.
Moment of inertia of a cube about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to face is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ma}^{2}}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{3}\) Ma2
(c) \(\frac {Ma}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ma}^{2}}{12}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ma}^{2}}{6}\)

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Question 106.
Moment of inertia of a rectangular plane sheet about an axis passing through center of mass and perpendicular to side b in its plane is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ml}^{2}}{12}\)
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ma}^{2}}{12}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{Mb}^{2}}{12}\)
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{Ml}^{2}}{6}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{Mb}^{2}}{12}\)

Question 107.
Rotational kinetic energy can be calculated by using –
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω2
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^{2}}{2I}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\) Lω
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^{2}}{2I}\) )

Question 108.
The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of radius r about a certain axis is r. The distance of that axis from the center of the sphere is –
(a) \(\frac{2}{5}\)r
(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{5}}\)r
(c) \(\sqrt{0.6r}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{0.6r}\)
From parallel axis theorem
I = IG + Md2
mr2 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) mr2 + md2
d = \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{5}}\)r = \(\sqrt{0.6r}\)

Question 109.
A wheel is rotating with angular velocity 2 rad/s. It is subjected to a uniform angular acceleration 2 rad/s2 then the angular velocity after 10 s is
(a) 12 rad/s
(b) 20 rad/s
(c) 22 rad/s
(d) 120 rad/s
Answer:
(c) 22 rad/s
ω = ω0 + αt
Here ω0 = 2 rad/s,
α = 2 rad/s2
ω = 10 s
ω = 2 + 2 x 10 = 22 rad/s

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Question 110.
Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB (Ib > IA) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively,
then,
(a) LB > LA
(b) LA > LB
(c) LA = \(\frac{L_{B}}{2}\)
(d) LA = 2LB
Answer:
(a) LB > LA

Question 111.
Three identical particles lie in x, y plane. The (x, y) coordinates of their positions are (3, 2), (1, 1), (5, 3) respectively. The (x, y) coordinates of the center of mass are –
(a) (a, b)
(b) (1, 2)
(c) (3, 2)
(d) (2, 1)
Answer:
(c) The X and Y coordinates of the center of mass are
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 112.
A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 10 cm is rotating about its axis with a frequency of 20/π. The rotational kinetic energy of the cylinder
(a) 10 π J
(b) 12 J
(c) \(\frac{6 \times 10^{2}}{\pi}\) J
(d) 3 J
Answer:
(b) 12 J
Given,
M = 3 kg
R = 0.1 m
v = 20 / π
Angular frequency ω = 2πv = \(\frac{2π x 20}{π}\) = 40 rad/s-1
Moment of inertia of the cylinder about its axis = I = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mR2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 3 x (0.1)2 = 0.015 kg m2
K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 0.015 x (40)2 = 12 J

Question 113.
A circular disc is rolling down in an inclined plane without slipping. The percentage of rotational energy in its total energy is
(a) 66.61%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 22.22%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 33.33%
Rotational K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Iω2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)(\(\frac{1}{2}\)MR22 = \(\frac{1}{4}\) MR2ω2
Transnational K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MV2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)M(Rω)2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) MR2ω2
Total kinetic energy = Erot + Etrans = \(\frac{1}{4}\) MR2ω2\(\frac{1}{2}\)M(Rω)2 = \(\frac{3}{4}\) MR2ω2
% of Erot = \(\frac{E_{\text {rot }}}{E_{\text {Tot }}}\) x 100% = 33.33%

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Question 114.
A sphere rolls down in an inclined plane without slipping. The percentage of transnational energy in its total energy is
(a) 29.6%
(b) 33.4%
(c) 71.4%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(c) 71.4%
Rotational K.e. Erot =
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 115.
Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block in the direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the center of mass is –
(a) 30 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 5 m/s
Answer:
(c) According to law of conservation of linear momentum
MV = (M + M) VCM
VCM = \(\frac{MV}{M + M}\) = \(\frac{10 × 10}{10 + 4}\) = 10 ms-1

Question 116.
A mass is whirled in a circular path with constant angular velocity and its angular momentum is L. If the string is now halved keeping the angular velocity the same, the angular momentum is –
(a) \(\frac{L}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{L}{2}\)
(c) L
(d) 2L
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{L}{4}\)
We know that
angular momentum L = Mr2
Here, m and co are constants L α r2
If r becomes \(\frac{r}{2}\) angular momentum becomes \(\frac{1}{4}\) th of its initial value.

Question 117.
The moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring of mass 1 kg and radius 20 cm rotating about the axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is –
(a) 4 x 10-2 kg m2
(b) 1 x 10-2 kg m2
(c) 20 x 10-2 kg m2
(d) 10 x 10-2 kg m2
Answer:
(b) Moment of inertia I = MR2 = 1 x (10 x 10-2)2 = 1 x 10-2 kg m2.

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Question 118.
A solid sphere is rolling down in the inclined plane, from rest without slipping. The angle of inclination with horizontal is 30°. The linear acceleration of the sphere is –
(a) 28 ms-2
(b) 3.9 ms-2
(c) \(\frac{25}{7}\)ms-2
(d) \(\frac{1}{20}\)ms-2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{25}{7}\)ms-2
We know that,a =
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 119.
An electron is revolving in an orbit of radius 2 A with a speed of 4 x 105 m /s. The angular momentum of the electron is [Me = 9 x 10-31 kg]
(a) 2 x 10-35 kg m2 s-1
(b) 72 x 10-36 kg m2 s-1
(c) 7.2 x 10-34 kg m2 s-1
(d) 0.72 x 10-37 kg m2 s-1
Answer:
(b) Angular momentum L = mV x r = 9 x 10-31 x 4 x 105 x 2 x 10-10 = 72 x 10-36kg m2 s-1

Question 120.
A raw egg and hard boiled egg are made to spin on a table with the same angular speed about the same axis. The ratio of the time taken by the eggs to stop is –
(a) =1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) When a raw egg spins, the fluid inside comes towards its side.
∴ “1” will increase in – turn it decreases ω. Therefore it takes lesser time than boiled egg.
∴\(\frac {time fìr raw egg}{time for boiled egg}\) < 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)

Question 1.
What is a rigid body?
Answer:
A rigid body is the one which maintains its definite and fixed shape even when an external force acts on it.

Question 2.
When an object will have procession? Give one example.
Answer:
The torque about the axis will rotate the object about it and the torque perpendicular to the axis will turn the axis of rotation when both exist simultaneously on a rigid body the body will have a procession.
Example:
The spinning top when it is about to come to rest.

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Question 3.
Define angular momentum. Give an expression for it.
Answer:
The angular momentum of a point mass is defined as the moment of its linear momentum.
\(\vec{L}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{p}\) or L = rp sin θ

Question 4.
When an angular momentum of the object will be zero?
Answer:
If the straight path of the particle passes through the origin, then the angular momentum is zero, which is also a constant.

Question 5.
When an object be in-mechanical equilibrium?
Answer:
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium when both its linear momentum and angular momentum remain constant.

Question 6.
Derive an expression for the power delivered by torque.
Answer:
Power delivered is the work done per unit time. IF we differentiate the expression for work done with respect to time, we get the instantaneous
power (P).
p = \(\frac{dw}{dt}\) = τ \(\frac{dθ}{dt}\)
p = τ dω

Question 7.
A boy sits near the edge of revolving circular disc

  1. What will be the change in the motion of a disc?
  2. If the boy starts moving from edge to the center of the disc, what will happen?

Answer:

  1. As we know L = Iω = constant if the boy sits on the edge of revolving disc, its I will be increased in turn it reduces angular velocity.
  2. If the boy starts moving towards the center of the disc, its I will decrease in turn that increases its angular velocity.

Question 8.
Are moment of inertia and radius of gyration of a body constant quantities?
Answer:
No, moment of inertia and radius of gyration depends on axis of rotation and also on the distribution of mass of the body about its axis.

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Question 9.
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. Which principle of physics is being used? Explain.
Answer:
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. This is based on law of conservation of angular ~ momentum. When the cat is about to fall, it curls its body to decrease the moment of inertia and increase its angular velocity. When it lands it stretches out its limbs. By which it increases its moment of inertia and inturn it decreases its angular velocity. Hence, the cat lands safety.

Question 10.
About which axis a uniform cube will have minimum moment of inertia ?
Answer:
It will be about an axis passing through the center of the cube and connecting the opposite comers.

Question 11.
State the principle of moments of rotational equilibrium.
Answer:
∑ =\(\bar{\tau}\) = 0

Question 12.
Write down the moment of inertia of a disc of radius R and mass m about an axis in its plane at a distance R / 2 from its center.
Answer:
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) MR2

Question 13.
Can the couple acting on a rigid body produce translator motion ?
Answer:
No. It can produce only rotatory motion.

Question 14.
Which component of linear momentum does not contribute to angular momentum?
Answer:
Radial Component.

Question 15.
A system is in stable equilibrium. What can we say about its potential energy ?
Answer:
PE. is minimum.

Question 16.
Is radius of gyration a constant quantity ?
Answer:
No, it changes with the position of axis of rotation.

Question 17.
Two solid spheres of the same mass are made of metals of different densities. Which of them has a large moment of inertia about the diameter?
Answer:
Sphere of smaller density will have larger moment of inertia.

Question 18.
The moment of inertia of two rotating bodies A and B are IA and IB (IA > IB) and their angular momenta are equal. Which one has a greater kinetic energy ?
Answer:
K = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{I}}\) ⇒ KA > KA

Question 19.
A particle moves on a circular path with decreasing speed. What happens to its angular momentum?
Answer:
As \(\vec{L}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x m\(\vec{v}\) i.e., \(\vec{L}\) magnitude decreases but direction remains constant.

Question 20.
What is the value of instantaneous speed of the point of contact during pure rolling ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 21.
Which physical quantity is conserved when a planet revolves around the sun ?
Answer:
Angular momentum of planet.

Question 22.
What is the value of torque on the planet due to the gravitational force of sun ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 23.
If no external torque acts on a body, will its angular velocity be constant ?
Answer:
No.

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Question 24.
Why there are two propellers in a helicopter ?
Answer:
Due to conservation of angular momentum.

Question 25.
A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley moving uniformly with speed V on a smooth horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner, then what is the effect of the speed of the centre of mass of the (trolley + child) system ?
Answer:
No change in speed of system as no external force is working.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 26.
State the factors on which the moment of inertia of a body depends.
Answer:

  • Mass of body
  • Size and shape of body
  • Mass distribution w.r.t. axis of rotation
  • Position and orientation of rotational axis

Question 27.
On what factors does radius of gyration of body depend?
Answer:
Mass distribution.

Question 28.
Why the speed of whirl wind in a Tornado is alarmingly high?
Answer:
In this, air from nearly regions get concentrated in a small space, so I decreases considerably. Since Iω = constant so ω increases so high.

Question 29.
Can a body be in equilibrium while in motion? If yes, give an example.
Answer:
Yes, if body has no linear and angular acceleration then a body in uniform straight line of motion will be in equilibrium.

Question 30.
There is a stick half of which is wooden and half is of steel, (i) it is pivoted at the wooden end and a force is applied at the steel end at right angle to its length (ii) it is pivoted at the steel end and the same force is applied at the wooden end. In which case is the angular acceleration more and why?
Answer:
I (first case) > 1 (Second case)
∴ τ r = l α
⇒ α (first case) < α (second case)

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Question 31.
If earth contracts to half of its present radius what would be the length of the day at equator?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 32.
An internal force cannot change the state of motion of center of mass of a body. Flow does the internal force of the brakes bring a vehicle to rest?
Answer:
In this case the force which bring the vehicle to rest is friction, and it is an external force.

Question 33.
When does a rigid body said to be in equilibrium? State the necessary condition for a body to be in equilibrium.
Answer:
For translation equilibrium
∑ Fext  = 0
For rotational equilibrium
∑ \(\overline{\mathrm{τ}}\)ext  = 0

Question 34.
How will you distinguish between a hard boiled egg and a raw egg by spinning it on a table top’
Answer:
For same external torque, angular acceleration of raw egg will be small than that of Hard boiled egg.

Question 35.
Equal torques are applied on a cylinder and a sphere. Both have same mass and radius. Cylinder rotates about its axis and sphere rotates about one of its diameter. Which will acquire greater speed and why?
Answer:
τ = I α α = \(\frac { τ }{ I }\)
α in cylinder, αC = \(\frac{\tau}{I_{C}}\)
α in sphere, αS = \(\frac{\tau}{I_{S}}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 36.
In which condition a body lying in gravitational field is in stable equilibrium?
Answer:
When vertical line through center of gravity passes through the base of the body.

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Question 37.
Give the physical significance of moment of inertia. Explain the need of fly wheel in Engine.
Answer:
It plays the same role in rotatory motion as the mass does in translator y motion.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Short Answer Questions (3 Marks)

Question 38.
Three mass point m1, m2, m3 are located at the vertices of equilateral A of side ‘a’. What is the moment of inertia of system about an axis along the altitude of A passing through mi?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 39.
A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed ω0 is placed lightly (without any linear push) on a perfectly friction less table. The radius of the disc is R. What are the linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc shown in figure. Will the disc roll?
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
For A VA = R ω0 in forward direction
For B = VB = R ω0 in backward direction R
For C, VC = \(\frac {R}{2}\) ω0 in forward direction disc will not roll.

Question 40.
Find the torque of a force 7\(\hat{i}\) – 3\(\hat{j}\) – 5\(\hat{k}\) about the origin which acts on a particle whose position vector is \(\hat{j}\) +\(\hat{j}\) – \(\hat{j}\)
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Numericals

Question 41.
Three masses 3 kg, 4 kg and 5 kg are located at the comers of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. Locate the center of mass of the system.
Answer:
(x,y) = (0.54 m, 0.36 m)

Question 42.
Two particles mass 100 g and 300 g at a given time have velocities 10\(\hat{j}\) – 7\(\hat{j}\) – 3\(\hat{j}\) and 7\(\hat{i}\) – 9 \(\hat{j}\) + 6\(\hat{k}\) ms-1 respectively. Determine velocity of center of mass.
Answer:
Velocity of center of mass = \(\frac{31 \hat{i}-34 \hat{j}+15 \hat{k}}{2}\) ms-1

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Question 43.
From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular disc of radius R / 2 is cut out. The center of the hole is at R / 2 from the center of original disc. Locate the center of gravity of the resultant flat body.
Answer:
Center of mass of resulting portion lies at R/6 from the center of the original disc in a direction opposite to the center of the cut out portion.

Question 44.
The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds,

  1. What is its angular acceleration (assume the acceleration to be uniform)
  2. How many revolutions does the wheel make during this time ?

Answer:
a = 4π rad s-2
n = 576

Question 45.
A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its center. When two coins, each of mass 5 g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm, what is the mass of the meter stick?
Answer:
m = 66.0 gm.

Question 46.
A solid sphere is rolling op a friction less plane surface about its axis of symmetry. Find ratio of its rotational energy to its total energy.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 47.
Calculate the ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a disc of the same radius with respect to the axis passing through their centers and perpendicular to their planes.
Answer:
2 : 1

Question 48.
Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and I2 about their respective axes (normal to the disc and passing through the center), and rotating with angular speed col and ω2 are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident,

  1. What is the angular speed of the two – disc system ?
  2. Show that the kinetic energy of the combined system is less than the sum of the initial kinetic energies of the two discs. How do you account for this loss in energy ? Take ω1 ≠ ω2.

Answer:

  1. Let co be the angular speed of the two-disc system. Then by conservation of angular momentum
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
  2. Initial K.E. of the two discs.
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Hence there is a loss of rotational K.E. which appears as heat.
When the two discs are brought together, work is done against friction between the two discs.

Question 49.
In the HCL molecule, the separating between the nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 Å (1Å = 10-10m). Find the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that the chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom is concentrated in all its nucleus.
Answer:
As shown in Fig. suppose the H nucleus is located at the origin. Then,
x1 = 0, x2 = 1.27 Å, m1 = 1, m2 = 35.5
The position of the CM of HCl molecule is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Thus the CM of HCl is located on the line joining H and Cl nuclei at a distance of 1.235 Å from the H nucleus.

Question 50.
A child stands at the center of turn table with his two arms out stretched. The turn table is set rotating with an angular speed of 40 rpm. How much is the angular speed of the child if he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/3 times the initial value?

  1. Assume that the turn table rotates without friction
  2. Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of rotation.

How do you account for this increase in kinetic energy ?
Answer:
Here ω = 40 rpm, I2 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) I1
By the principle of conservation of angular momentum,
I1ω1 = I2ω2 or I1 x 4o = \(\frac {2}{5}\) I1 ω1 or ω2 = 100 rpm
(ii) Initial kinetic energy of rotation –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
new kinetic energy of rotation –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Thus the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is 2.5 times its initial kinetic energy of rotation. This increase in kinetic energy is due to the internal energy of the child which he uses in folding his hands back from the out stretched position.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 51.
To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s-1 an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N m. What is the power required by the engine? Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Here ω = 200 rad s-1, τ = 180 N m
Power, P = τω = 180 x 200 = 36,000 W = 36 kW.

Question 52.
A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its center of gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on each front and back wheel.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
For transnational equilibrium of car
NF + NB = W = 1800 x 9.8 = 17640 N
For rotational equilibrium of car
1.05 NF = 0.75 NB
1.05 NF = 0.75(17640 – NF )
1.8 NF = 13230
NF = 13230 / 1.8 = 7350 N
NB = 17640 – 7350 = 10290 N
Force on each front wheel = \(\frac {7350}{ 2 }\) = 3675 N
Force on each back wheel = \(\frac {10290}{ 2 }\) = 5145 N

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Derive an expression for center of mass for distributed point masses.
Answer:
A point mass is a hypothetical point particle which has nonzero mass and no size or shape. To find the center of mass for a collection of n point masses, say,m1 , m2, m3 ….. mwe have to first choose an origin and an appropriate coordinate system as shown in Figure. Let, x1, x2, x3 …….. xn be the X – coordinates of the positions of these point masses in the X direction from the origin.
The equation for the X coordinate of the center of mass is,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
where, ∑ mi ¡s the total mass M of all the particles. ( ∑ mi = M).Hence,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Similarly, we can also find y and z coordinates of the center of mass for these distributed point masses as indicated in figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
Hence, the position of center of mass of these point masses in a Cartesian coordinate system is (xCM, yCM zCM). in general, the position of center of mass can be written in a vector form as,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
where, is the position vector of the center of mass and \(\vec{r}_{i}\) = xi \(\hat{j}\) + yi\(\hat{j}\) + zi\(\hat{k}\) is the position vector of the distributed point mass; where, \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{j}\), and \(\hat{j}\) are the unit vectors along X, Y and Z-axis respectively.

Question 2.
Discuss the center of mass of two point masses with pictorial representation.
Answer:
With the equations for center of mass, let us find the center of mass of two point masses m1 and m2, which are at positions x1 and x2 respectively on the X – axis. For this case, we can express the position of center of mass in the following three ways based on the choice of the coordinate system.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

(1) When the masses are on positive X-axis:
The origin is taken arbitrarily so that the masses m1 and m2 are at positions x1 and x2 on the positive X-axis as shown in figure (a). The center of mass will also be on the positive X- axis at xCM as given by the equation,
\(x_{\mathrm{CM}}=\frac{m_{1} x_{1}+m_{2} x_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

(2) When the origin coincides with any one of the masses:
The calculation could be minimized if the origin of the coordinate system is made to coincide with any one of the masses as shown in figure (b). When the origin coincides with the point
mass m1, its position x1 is zero, (i.e. x1 = 0). Then,
\(x_{\mathrm{CM}}=\frac{m_{1}(0)+m_{2} x_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
The equation further simplifies as,
xCM = \(\frac{m_{2} x_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

(3) When the origin coincides with the center of mass itself:
If the origin of the coordinate system is made to coincide with the center of mass, then, xCM = O and the mass rn1 is found to be on the negative X- axis as shown in figure (c). Hence, its position x1 is negative, (i.e. – x1).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
The equation given above is known as principle of moments.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 3.
Derive an expression for kinetic energy in rotation and establish the relation between rotational kinetic energy and angular momentum.
Answer:
Let us consider a rigid body rotating with angular velocity ω about an axis as shown in figure. Every particle of the body will have the same angular velocity ω and different tangential velocities v based on its positions from the axis of rotation. Let us choose a particle of mass mi situated at distance ri from the axis of rotation. It has a tangential velocity vi given by the relation, vi = ri ω. The kinetic energy KEi. of the particle is,
KEi = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{i} v_{i}^{2}\)
Writing the expression with the angular velocity,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mi(riω)2 = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\)ω2

For the kinetic energy of the whole body, which is made up of large number of such particles, the equation is written with summation as,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\sum m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\right)\)ω2
where, the term ∑ mirir is the moment of inertia I of the whole body. ∑ mirir
Hence, the expression for KE of the rigid body in rotational motion is –
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
This is analogous to the expression for kinetic energy in transnational motion.
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Relation between rotational kinetic energy and angular momentum
Let a rigid body of moment of inertia I rotate with angular velocity ω.
The angular momentum of a rigid body is, L = Iω
The rotational kinetic energy of the rigid body is, KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
By multiplying the numerator and denominator of the above equation with I, we get a relation between L and KE as,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Question 4.
Discuss how the rolling is the combination of transnational and rotational and also be possibilities of velocity of different points in pure rolling.
Answer:
The rolling motion is the most commonly observed motion in daily life. The motion of wheel is an example of rolling motion. Round objects like ring, disc, sphere etc. are most suitable for rolling. Let us study the rolling of a disc on a horizontal surface. Consider a point P on the edge of the disc. While rolling, the point undergoes transnational motion along with its center of mass and rotational motion with respect to its center of mass.

Combination of Translation and Rotation:
We will now see how these transnational and rotational motions arc related in rolling. If the radius of the rolling object is R, in one full rotation, the center of mass is displaced by 2πR (its circumference). One would agree that not only the center of mass. but all the points Of l the disc are displaced by the same 2πR after one full rotation. The only difference is that the center of mass takes a straight path; but, all the other points undergo a path which has a combination of the transnational and rotational motion. Especially the point on the edge undergoes a path of a cyclonic as shown in the figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

As the center of mass takes only a straight line path. its velocity vCM is only transnational velocity vTRANS (vCM = vTRANS). All the other points have two velocities. One is the transnational velocity vTRANS (which is also the velocity of center of mass) and the other is the rotational velocity vROT (vROT = rω). Here, r ¡s the distance of the point from the center of mass and o is the angular velocity. The rotational velocity vROT is perpendicular to the instantaneous position vector from the center of mass as shown in figure (a). The resultant of these two velocities is v. This resultant velocity y is perpendicular to the position vector from the point of contact of the rolling object with the surface on which it is rolling as shown in figure (b).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

We shall now give importance to the point of contact. In pure rolling, the point of the rolling object which comes in contact with the surface is at momentary rest. This is the case with every point that is on the edge of the rolling object. As the rolling proceeds, all’the points on the edge, one by one come in contact with the surface; remain at momentary rest at the time of contact and then take the path of the cycloid as already mentioned.
Hence, we can consider the pure rolling in two different ways.
(i) The combination of transnational motion and rotational motion about the center of mass.
(or)
(ii) The momentary rotational motion about the point of contact.
As the point of contact is at momentary rest in pure rolling, its resultant velocity v is zero (v = o). For example, in figure, at the point of contact, vTRANS is forward (to right) and vROT is backwards (to the left).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

That implies that, vTRANS and vROT are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (v = vTRANS – vROT = 0). Hence, we conclude that in pure rolling, for all the points on the edge, the magnitudes of vTRANS and vROT are equal (vTRANS = vROT) As vTRANS = vCM and vROT = Rω, in pure rolling we have,
vCM = Rω

We should remember the special feature of the above equation. In rotational motion, as per the relation v = rω, the center point will not have any velocity as r is zero. But in rolling motion, it suggests that the center point has a velocity vCM given by above equation vCM – Rω. For the topmost point, the two velocities vTRANS and vROT are equal in magnitude and in the same direction (to the right). Thus, the resultant velocity v is the sum of these two velocities, v = vTRANS + vROT In other form, v = 2 vCM as shown in figure below.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 5.
Derive an expression for kinetic energy in pure rolling.
Answer:
As pure is the combination of transnational and rotational motion, we can write the total kinetic energy (KE) as the sum of kinetic energy due to transnational motion (KETRANS) and kinetic energy due to rotational motion (KEROT).
KE = KETRANS + KEROT ………(i)
If the mass of the rolling object is M, the velocity of center of mass is vCM, its moment of inertia about center of mass is ICM and angular velocity is ω, then
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies
With center of mass as reference:
The moment of inertia (ICM) of a rolling object about the center of mass is, ICM = MK2 and vCM = Rω. Here, K is radius of gyration.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

With point of contact as reference:
We can also arrive at the same expression by taking the momentary rotation happening with respect to the point of contact (another approach to rolling). If we take the point of contact as o, then,
KE = \(\frac {1}{2}\) I0ω2

Here, I0 is the moment of inertia of the object about the point of contact. By parallel axis
theorem, I0 = ICM + MK2 Further we can write, I0 MK2 + MR2. With vCM = Rω or ω = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{CM}}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

As the two equations (v) and (vi) are the same, it ¡s once again confirmed that the pure tolling problems could be solved by considering the motion as any one of the following two cases.
(i) The combination of transnational motion and rotational motion about the center of mass.
(or)
(ii) The momentary rotational motion about the point of contact.

Question 6.

  1. Can a body in translator y motion have angular momentum? Explain.
  2. Why is it more difficult to revolve a stone by tying it to a longer string than by tying it to a shorter string?

Answer:
(1) Yes, a body in translatory motion shall have angular momentum unless fixed point about which angular momentum is taken lies on the line of motion of body
\(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{L}}|\) = rp sin θ
= 0 only when θ = O° or 180°

(2) MI of stone I = ml2 (l – length of string) l is large, a is very small
τ = Iα
α = \(\frac {τ}{I}\) = \(\frac{\tau}{m l^{2}}\)
if l is large a is very small.
∴ more difficult to revolve.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 7 Cell Cycle Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Cell Cycle Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The correct sequence in cell cycle is …………… .
(a) S-M-G1-G2
(b) S-G1-G2-M
(c) G1-S-G2-M
(d) M-G-G2-S
Answer:
(c) G1-S-G2-M

Question 2.
If mitotic division is restricted in G1 phase of the cell cycle then the condition is known as …………… .
(a) S Phase
(b) G2 Phase
(c) M Phase
(d) G0 Phase
Answer:
(d) G0 Phase

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 3.
Anaphase promoting complex APC is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?
(a) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(b) Chromosomes will not condense
(c) Chromosomes will not segregate
(d) Recombination of chromosomes will occur
Answer:
(b) Chromosomes will not condense

Question 4.
In S phase of the cell cycle …………… .
(a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(b) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(c) Chromosome number is increased
(d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
Answer:
(a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell

Question 5.
Centromere is required for …………… .
(a) Transcription
(b) Crossing over
(c) Cytoplasmic cleavage
(d) Movement of chromosome towards pole
Answer:
(d) Movement of chromosome towards pole

Question 6.
Synapsis occur between …………… .
(a) mRNA and ribosomes
(b) Spindle fibres and centromeres
(c) Two homologous chromosomes
(d) A male and a female gamete
Answer:
(c) Two homologous chromosomes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 7.
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at …………… .
(a) Diplotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Zygotene
Answer:
(b) Pachytene

Question 8.
Colchicine prevents the mitosis of the cells at which of the following stage …………… .
(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Prophase
(d) Interphase
Answer:
(b) Metaphase

Question 9.
The paring of homologous chromosomes on meiosis is known as …………… .
(a) Bivalent
(b) Synapsis
(c) Disjunction
(d) Synergids
Answer:
(b) Synapsis

Question 10.
Anastral mitosis is the characteristic feature of …………… .
(a) Lower animals
(b) Higher animals
(c) Higher plants
(d) All living organisms
Answer:
(c) Higher plants

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 11.
Write any three significance of mitosis.
Answer:
Exact copy of the parent cell is produced by mitosis (genetically identical).

  1. Genetic stability – daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.
  2. Repair of tissues – damaged cells must be replaced by identical new cells by mitosis.
  3. Regeneration – Arms of star fish.

Question 12.
Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis.
Answer:
Difference Between Mitosis and Meiosis:

Difference Between Mitosis and Meiosis

Mitosis

Meiosis

1. One division 1. Two divisions
2. Number of chromosomes remains the same 2. Number of chromosomes is halved
3. Homologous chromosomes line up separately on the metaphase plate 3. Homologous chromosomes line up in pairs at the metaphase plate
4. Homologous chromosome do not pair up 4. Homologous chromosome pairup to form bivalent
5. Chiasmata do not form and crossing over never occurs 5. Chiasmata form and crossingover occurs
6. Daughter cells are genetically identical 6. Daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cells
7. Two daughter cells are formed 7. Four daughter cells are formed

Question 13.
Given an account of G0 phase.
Answer:
Some cells exit G1 and enters a quiescent stage called G0, where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation. Cells can exist for long periods in G0 phase. In G0 cells cease growth with reduced rate of RNA and protein synthesis. The G0 phase is not permanent. Mature neuron and skeletal muscle cell remain permanently in G0 .Many cells in animals remains in G0 unless called onto proliferate by appropriate growth factors or other extracellular signals. G0 cells are not dormant.

Question 14.
Differentiate Cytokinesis in plant cells and animal cells.
Answer:
1. Cytokinesis in Plant Cells:
Division of the cytoplasm often starts during telophase. In plants, cytokinesis cell plate grows from centre towards lateral walls centrifugal manner of cell plate formation. Phragmoplast contains microtubules, actin filaments and vesicles from golgi apparatus and ER. The golgi vesicles contains carbohydrates such as pectin, hemicellulose which move along the microtubule of the pharagmoplast to the equator fuse, forming a new plasma membrane and the materials which are placed their becomes new cell wall.

The first stage of cell wall construction is a line dividing the newly forming cells called a cell plate. The cell plate eventually stretches right across the cell forming the middle lamella. Cellulose builds up on each side of the middle lamella to form the cell walls of two new plant cells.

2. Cytokinesis in Animal Cells:
It is a contractile process. The contractile mechanism contained in contractile ring located inside the plasma membrane. The ring consists of a bundle of microfilaments assembled from actin and myosin. This fibril helps for the generation of a contractile force. This force draws the contractile ring inward forming a cleavage furrow in the cell surface dividing the cell into two.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 15.
Write about Pachytene and Diplotene of Prophase I.
Answer:
1. Pachytene: At this stage bivalent chromosomes are clearly visible as tetrads. Bivalent of meiosis I consists of 4 chromatids and 2 centromeres. Synapsis is completed and recombination nodules appear at a site where crossing over takes place between non – sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. Recombination of homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of the stage but the chromosomes are linked at the sites of crossing over. This is mediated by the enzyme recombinase.

2. Diplotene: Synaptonemal complex disassembled and dissolves. The homologous chromosomes remain attached at one or more points where crossing over has taken place. These points of attachment where ‘X’ shaped structures occur at the sites of crossing over is called Chiasmata. Chiasmata are chromatin structures at sites where recombination has been taken place. They are specialised chromosomal structures that hold the homologous chromosomes together.

Sister chromatids remain closely associated whereas the homologous chromosomes tend to separate from each other but are held together by chiasmata. This substage may last for days or years depending on the sex and organism. The chromosomes are very actively transcribed in females as the egg stores up materials for use during embryonic development. In animals, the chromosomes have prominent loops called lampbrush chromosome.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Cell Cycle Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
Most of the neurons in the brain are in …………… stage.
(a) G1
(b) S
(c) G2
(d) G0
Answer:
(d) G0

Question 2.
Short, constricted region in the chromosome is …………… .
(a) Kinetochore
(b) Centromere
(c) Satellite
(d) Telomere
Answer:
(b) Centromere

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 3.
Robert Brown discovered the nucleus in the cells of …………… roots.
(a) Mirabilas
(b) Orchid
(c) Moringa
(d) Oryza
Answer:
(b) Orchid

Question 4.
Scientist who described chromosomes for the first time is …………… .
(a) Robert Brown
(b) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(c) Boveri
(d) Anton Schneider
Answer:
(d) Anton Schneider

Question 5.
Number of chromosomes in onion cell is …………… .
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 16

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 6.
Longest part of the cell cycle is …………… .
(a) Prophase
(b) G1 Phase
(c) Interphase
(d) Sphase
Answer:
(c) Interphase

Question 7.
Eukaryotic cells divides every …………… .
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 1
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 8.
Cell cycle was discovered by …………… .
(a) Singer & Nicolson
(b) Prevost & Dumans
(c) Schleider & Schwann
(d) Boveri
Answer:
(b) Prevost & Dumans

Question 9.
G0 stage is called as …………… stage.
(a) Quiescent
(b) Metabolically active
(c) Synthesis of DNA
(d) Replication
Answer:
(a) Quiescent

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 10.
…………… protein acts as major check point in phase.
(a) Porins
(b) Kinases
(c) Cyclins
(d) Ligases
Answer:
(c) Cyclins

Question 11.
Replication of DNA occurs at …………… phase.
(a) G0
(b) G1
(c) S
(d) G2
Answer:
(c) S

Question 12.
Condensation of interphase chromosomes into mitotic forms is done by …………… proteins.
(a) MPF
(b) APF
(c) AMF
(d) MAF
Answer:
(a) MPF

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 13.
Which of the following is also called as direct division?
(a) Amitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) Reduction division
Answer:
(a) Amitosis

Question 14.
Cells of mammalian cartilage undergoes …………… .
(a) Amitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) Equational division
Answer:
(a) Amitosis

Question 15.
Yeast cells undergo …………… .
(a) Open mitosis
(b) Closed mitosis
(c) Amitosis
(d) Meiosis
Answer:
(b) Closed mitosis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 16.
…………… is the longest phase in mitosis.
(a) Anaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Prophase
(d) Interphase
Answer:
(c) Prophase

Question 17.
The DNA protein complex present in the centromere is …………… .
(a) Cyclin
(b) Kinesis
(c) MPF
(d) Kinetochore
Answer:
(d) Kinetochore

Question 18.
…………… protein induces the break down of cohesion proteins leading to chromatid separation during mitosis.
(a) APC
(b) MPF
(c) Cyclin
(d) Kinetochore
Answer:
(a) APC

Question 19.
Regeneration of arms of star fish is due to …………… .
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) Budding
Answer:
(c) Mitosis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 20
…………… is called as reduction division.
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Amitosis
(d) Budding
Answer:
(a) Meiosis

Question 21.
Bivalents occur at …………… stage.
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
Answer:
(a) Zygotene

Question 22.
Recombination of chromosomes occur at …………… .
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
Answer:
(c) Pachytene

Question 23.
Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs at …………… .
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(c) Diakinesis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 24.
Number of daughter cells formed at the end of Meiosis I is …………… .
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 25.
…………… division leads to genetic variability.
(a) Mitotic
(b) Amitotic
(c) Meiotic
(d) Equational
Answer:
(c) Meiotic

Question 26.
Crossing over occurs at …………… stage.
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
Answer:
(c) Pachytene

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 27.
Which of the following is not a mitogen?
(a) Giberellin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Kinetin
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 28.
In plants mitosis occurs at …………… cells.
(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Meristem
(c) Xylem
(d) Parenchyma
Answer:
(b) Meristem

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 29.
Which of the following alone is formed in the division of plant cells?
(a) Aster
(b) Centrioles
(c) Spindle
(d) Microtubules
Answer:
(c) Spindle

Question 30.
Amphiastral type cell division is seen in …………… cells.
(a) Fungal
(b) Algal
(c) Plant cells
(d) Animal
Answer:
(d) Animal

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Name the two types of nuclear division.
Answer:
The two types of nuclear division:

  1. Mitosis and
  2. Meiosis.

Question 2.
Define Cell Cycle.
Answer:
A series of events leading to the formation of new cell is known as cell cycle.

Question 3.
Who discovered the Cell Cycle?
Answer:
Prevost & Dumans in 1824.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 4.
Draw a tabular column showing the duration of various phase in the cell cycle of human cell.
Answer:
A tabular column showing the duration of various phase in the cell cycle of human cell:

Cell cycle of a proliferating human cell

Phase

Time Duration (in hrs)

1. G2 1. 11
2. S 2. 8
3. G2 3. 4
4. M 4. 1

Question 5.
Define C – Value.
Answer:
C – Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

Question 6.
Which is the longest phase of cell cycle? What happens during that phase?
Answer:
Interphase is the longest phase. Cells are metabolically active and involved in protein synthesis and growth.

Question 7.
Name the phases which comprises the Interphase.
Answer:
The phases which comprises the Interphase:

  1. G1 Phase
  2. S Phase and
  3. G2 Phase.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 8.
Name the proteins involved in the activation of genes & their proteins to perform cell division.
Answer:
Kinases & Cyclins.

Question 9.
What do you mean by G0 stage?
Answer:
G0 stage is called as quiescent stage, where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation.

Question 10.
What is the role of MPF in Cell cycle?
Answer:
Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF) brings about condensation of interphase chromosomes into the mitotic form.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Karyokinesis & Cytokinesis.
Answer:
Between Karyokinesis & Cytokinesis:

  • Karyokinesis: Karyokinesis refers to the nuclear division.
  • Cytokinesis: Cytokinesis refers to the cytoplasmic division.

Question 12.
Point out any two cell – types which remain G0 phase.
Answer:
Mature neurons and Skeletal muscle cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 13.
Why amitosis is called as incipient cell division?
Answer:
Amitosis is also called incipient cell division. Since there is no spindle formation and chromatin material does not condense.

Question 14.
List out the disadvantages of Amitosis.
Answer:
The disadvantages of Amitosis:

  • Causes unequal distribution of chromosomes.
  • Can lead to abnormalities in metabolism and reproduction.

Question 15.
Mitosis also called as equational division – Justify.
Answer:
At the end of mitosis the number of chromosomes in the parent and the daughter (Progeny) cells remain the same so it is also called as equational division.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 16.
Enumerate the stages of mitosis.
Answer:
Mitosis is divided into four stages prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.

Question 17.
Define an aster.
Answer:
In animal cell the centrioles extend a radial array of microtubules towards the plasma membrane when they reach the poles of the cell. This arrangement of microtubules is called an aster. Plant cells do not form asters.

Question 18.
What is metaphase plate?
Answer:
The alignment of chromosome into compact group at the equator of the cell is known as metaphase plate.

Question 19.
What is Kinetochore?
Answer:
Kinetochore is a DNA – Protein complex present in the centromere DNA, where the microtubules are attached. It is a trilaminar disc like plate.

Question 20.
How will you calculate the length of the S period.
Answer:
Length of the S period = Fraction of cells in DNA replication × generation time.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 21.
Which type of cell division occurs in reproductive cells? What will be the result?
Answer:
Meiosis takes place in the reproductive organs. It results in the formation of gametes with half the normal chromosome number.

Question 22.
Define Synapsis.
Answer:
In Zygotene, pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place and it is known as synapsis.

Question 23.
What do you understand by independent assortment?
Answer:
The random distribution of homologous chromosomes in a cell in Metaphase I is called independent assortment.

Question 24.
Define Mitogen. Give an example.
Answer:
The factors which promote cell cycle proliferation is called mitogen.
Example: gibberellin. These increase mitotic rate.

Question 25.
What are mitotic poisons.
Answer:
Certain chemical components act as inhibitors of the mitotic cell division and they are called mitotic poisons.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 26.
Distinguish between Anastral & Amphiastral.
Answer:
Between Anastral & Amphiastral:
Anastral:

  1. This is present only in plant cells.
  2. No asters or centrioles are formed only spindle fibres are formed during cell division.

Amphiastral:

  1. This is found in animal cells.
  2. Aster and centrioles are formed at each pole of the spindle during cell division.

Question 27.
Draw a simple diagram to show the Amitosis.
Answer:
The Amitosis:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle 1

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
What is the role of nucleus in the cell?
Answer:
The role of nucleus in the cell:

  • Control activities of the cell.
  • Genetic information copied from cell to cell while the cell divides.
  • Hereditary characters are passed onto new individuals when gametic cells fuse together in sexual reproduction.

Question 2.
What are restriction points? Mention its role in Cell cycle.
Answer:
The checkpoint called the restriction point at the end of G1 it determines a cells fate whether it will continue in the cell cycle and divide or enter a stage called G0 as a quiescent stage and probably as specified cell or die.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 3.
Point out the reasons responsible for the arresting of the cell in G1 phase?
Answer:
Cells are arrested in G1 due to:

  • Nutrient deprivation
  • Lack of growth factors or density dependant inhibition
  • Undergo metabolic changes and enter into G0 state.

Question 4.
Write a note on G0 phase.
Answer:
Some cells exit G1 and enters a quiescent stage called G0, where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation. Cells can exist for long periods in G0 phase. In G0 cells cease growth with reduced rate of RN A and protein synthesis. The G0 phase is not permanent. Mature neuron and skeletal muscle cell remain permanently in G0. Many cells in animals remains in G0 unless called onto proliferate by appropriate growth factors or other extracellular signals. G0 cells are not dormant.

Question 5.
List out the events taking place in S – Phase.
Answer:
S Phase – Synthesis phase – cells with intermediate amounts of DNA Growth of the cell continues as replication of DNA occur, protein molecules called histones are synthesised and attach to the DNA. The centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm. DNA content increases from 2C to 4C.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 6.
Distinguish between Karyokinesis & Cytokinesis.
Answer:
Karyokinesis:

  1. Involves division of nucleus.
  2. Nucleus develops a constriction at the center and becomes dumbellshaped.
  3. Constriction deepens and divides the nucleus into two.

Cytokinesis:

  1. Involves division of cytoplasm.
  2. Plasma membrane develops a constriction along nuclear constriction.
  3. It deepens centripetally and finally divides the cell into two cells.

Question 7.
Explain the differences between closed and open mitosis.
Answer:
Between closed and open mitosis:

  1. In closed mitosis, the nuclear envelope remains intact and chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of a spindle within the nucleus. Example: Yeast and slime molds.
  2. In open mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and then reforms around the 2 sets of separated chromosome. Example: Most plants and animals cells.

Question 8.
What happens to plant cells at the end of Telophase in Mitosis?
Answer:
In plants, phragmoplast are formed between the daughter cells. Cell plate is formed between the two daughter cells, reconstruction of cell wall takes place. Finally the cells are separated by the distribution of organelles, macromolecules into two newly formed daughter cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 9.
Bring out the significance of Meiosis.
Answer:
The significance of Meiosis:

  • Meiosis maintains a definite constant number of chromosomes in organisms.
  • Crossing over takes place and exchange of genetic material leads to variations among species. These variations are the raw materials to evolution. Meiosis leads to genetic variability by partitioning different combinations of genes into gametes through independent assortment.
  • Adaptation of organisms to various environmental stress.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the mitosis of Plant Cell & Animal Cell.
Answer:
Plants:

  1. Centrioles are absent
  2. Asters are not formed
  3. Cell division involves formation of a cell plate
  4. Occurs mainly at meristem.

Animals:

  1. Centrioles are present
  2. Asters are formed
  3. Cell division involves furrowing and cleavage of cytoplasm
  4. Occurs in tissues throughout the body.

Question 11.
Explain briefly about Endomitosis.
Answer:
The replication of chromosomes in the absence of nuclear division and cytoplasmic division resulting in numerous copies within each cell is called endomitosis. Chromonema do not separate to form chromosomes, but remain closely associated with each other. Nuclear membrane does not rupture. So no spindle formation. It occurs notably in the salivary glands of Drosophila and other flies. Cells in these tissues contain giant chromosomes (polyteny), each consisting of over thousands of intimately associated, or synapsed, chromatids. Example: Polytene chromosome.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 12.
How G0 cells help in Closing Technology?
Answer:
Since the DNA of cells in G0, do not replicate. The researcher are able to fuse the donor cells from a sheep’s mammary glands into G0, state by culturing in the nutrient free state. The G0, donor nucleus synchronised with cytoplasm of the recipient egg, which developed into the clone Dolly.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Draw and label the various stages of Prophase I.
Answer:
Label the various stages of Prophase I:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle 2

Question 2.
Explain in detail about the various stages of Prophase I.
Answer:
The various stages of Prophase I:
1. Prophase I – Prophase I is of longer duration and it is divided into 5 substages – Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis.

2. Leptotene – Chromosomes are visible under light microscope. Condensation of chromosomes takes place. Paired sister chromatids begin to condense.

3. Zygotene – Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place and it is known as synapsis. Chromosome synapsis is made by the formation of synaptonemal complex. The complex formed by the homologous chromosomes are called as bivalent (tetrads).

4. Pachytene – At this stage bivalent chromosomes are clearly visible as tetrads. Bivalent of meiosis I consists of 4 chromatids and 2 centromeres. Synapsis is completed and recombination nodules appear at a site where crossing over takes place between non – sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. Recombination of homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of the stage but the chromosomes are linked at the sites of crossing over. This is mediated by the enzyme recombinase.

5. Diplotene – Synaptonemal complex disassembled and dissolves. The homologous chromosomes remain attached at one or more points where crossing over has taken place. These points of attachment where ‘X’ shaped structures occur at the sites of crossing over is called.

6. Chiasmata: Chiasmata are chromatin structures at sites where recombination has been taken place. They are specialised chromosomal structures that hold the homologous chromosomes together. Sister chromatids remain closely associated whereas the homologous chromosomes tend to separate from each other but are held together by chiasmata. This substage may last for days or years depending on the sex and organism. The chromosomes are very actively transcribed in females as the egg stores up materials for use during embryonic development. In animals, the chromosomes have prominent loops called lampbrush chromosome.

7. Diakinesis – Terminalisation of chiasmata. Spindle fibres assemble. Nuclear envelope breaks down. Homologous chromosomes become short and condensed. Nucleolus disappears.

Question 3.
Describe the process of Cytokinesis in Plant cell & Animal Cell.
Answer:
1. Cytokinesis in Plant Cell: Division of the cytoplasm often starts during telophase. In plants, cytokinesis cell plate grows from centre towards lateral walls – centrifugal manner of cell plate formation. Phragmoplast contains microtubules, actin filaments and vesicles from golgi apparatus and ER. The golgi vesicles contains carbohydrates such as pectin, hemicellulose which move along the microtubule of the pharagmoplast to the equator fuse, forming a new plasma membrane and the materials which are placed there becomes new cell wall.

The first stage of cell wall construction is a line dividing the newly forming cells called a cell plate. The cell plate eventually stretches right across the cell forming the middle lamella. Cellulose builds up on each side of the middle lamella to form the cell walls of two new plant cells.

2. Cytokinesis in Animal Cells:
It is a contractile process. The contractile mechanism contained in contractile ring located inside the plasma membrane. The ring consists of a bundle of microfilaments assembled from actin and myosin. This fibril helps for the generation of a contractile force. This force draws the contractile ring inward forming a cleavage furrow in the cell surface dividing the cell into two.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 4.
What are the significances of Mitosis.
Answer:
Exact copy of the parent cell is produced by mitosis (genetically identical).

  1. Genetic stability – Daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.
  2. Growth – As multicellular organisms grow, the number of cells making up their tissue increases. The new cells must be identical to the existing ones.
  3. Repair of tissues – Damaged cells must be replaced by identical new cells by mitosis.
  4. Asexual reproduction – Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are identical to the parent. Example Yeast and Amoeba.
  5. In flowering plants, structure such as bulbs, corms, tubers, rhizomes and runners are produced by mitotic division. When they separate from the parent, they form a new individual. The production of large numbers of offsprings in a short period of time, is possible only by mitosis. In genetic engineering and biotechnology, tissues are grown by mitosis (i.e. in tissue culture).
  6. Regeneration – Arms of star fish

Question 5.
Explain the various phases in Cell Cycle.
Answer:
The different phases of cell cycle are as follows:
1. Interphase: Longest part of the cell cycle, but it is of extremely variable length. At first glance the nucleus appears to be resting but this is not the case at all. The chromosomes previously visible as thread like structure, have dispersed. Now they are actively involved in protein synthesis, at least for most of the interphase. C – Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

2. G1 Phase: The first gap phase – 2C amount of DNA in cells of G1 The cells become metabolically active and grows by producing proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and cell organelles including mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. Many checkpoints control the cell cycle. The checkpoint called the restriction point at the end of G1 it determines a cells fate whether it will continue in the cell cycle and divide or enter a stage called G0 as a quiescent stage and probably as specified cell or die. Cells are arrested in G1 due to:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle 3
3. Nutrient deprivation: Lack of growth factors or density dependant inhibition. Undergo metabolic changes and enter into G0 state. Biochemicals inside cells activates the cell division. The proteins called kinases and cyclins activate genes and their proteins to perform cell division. Cyclins act as major checkpoint which operates in G1 to determine whether or not a cell divides.

4. G0 Phase: Some cells exit G1 and enters a quiescent stage called G0, where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation. Cells can exist for long periods in G0 phase. In G0 cells cease growth with reduced rate of RNA and protein synthesis. The G0 phase is not permanent. Mature neuron and skeletal muscle cell remain permanently in G0. Many cells in animals remains in G0 unless called on to proliferate by appropriate growth factors or other extracellular signals. G0 cells are not dormant.

5. S phase – Synthesis phase – cells with intermediate amounts of DNA. Growth of the cell continues as replication of DNA occur, protein molecules called histones are synthesised and attached to the DNA. The centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm. DNA content increases from 2C to 4C.

6. G2 – The second Gap phase – 4C amount of DNA in cells of G2 and mitosis. Cell growth continues by protein and cell organelle synthesis, mitochondria and chloroplasts divide. DNA content remains as 4C. Tubulin is synthesised and microtubules are formed. Microtubles organise to form spindle fibre. The spindle begins to form and nuclear division follows.

One of the proteins synthesized only in the G2 period is known as Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF). It brings about condensation of interphase chromosomes into the mitotic form. DNA damage checkpoints operates in G1 S and G2 phases of the cell cycle.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 6.
List out the important features of Chromosomes.
Answer:
The four important features of the chromosome are:
1. The shape of the chromosome is specific: The long, thin, lengthy structured chromosome contains a short, constricted region called centromere. A centromere may occur any where along the chromosome, but it is always in the same position on any given chromosome. The number of chromosomes per species is fixed: For example the mouse has 40 chromosomes, the onion has 16 and humans have 46.

2. Chromosomes occur in pairs: The chromosomes of a cell occur in pairs, called homologous pairs. One of each pair come originally from each parent. Example, human has 46 chromosomes, 23 coming originally from each parent in the process of sexual reproduction. Chromosomes are copied: Between nuclear divisions, whilst the chromosomes are uncoiled and cannot be seen, each chromosome is copied. The two identical structures formed are called chromatids.

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Given that the average duplication time of E.coli is 20 minutes. How much time will two E.coli cells takes to become 32 cells?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle 4
One cells takes 80 minutes to form 16 cells. If 2 cells undergoes division simultaneously, it take 160 minutes (2 hours 40 minutes) to form 32 cells.

Question 2.
Complete the cell cycle by filling the gaps with respective phases.
Answer:
X= S phase or Synthesis phase
Y= M phase or Mitosis phase
Z= G0 phase
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle 5

Question 3.
Telophase is reverse of prophase – Comment
Answer:
Events in Prophase:

  1. Nuclear membrane disappears
  2. Nucleolus disappear
  3. Spindle fibre begins to form
  4. Chromosomes threads condeme to form chromosomes

Events in Telophase:

  1. Nuclear membrane reappears
  2. Nucleolus reappears
  3. Spindle fibre disappears
  4. Chromosomes decondeme to form chromosomes

Question 4.
Name the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs.
Answer:
Uncontrolled cell division & abnormal growth of cells leads to the pathological condition called tumor or cancer.

Question 5.
Microspores are produced in the multiples of four, why?
Answer:
Microspores are haploid spores produced from diploid microspores mother cells. Each microspores mother cell (2n) undergoes meiosis producing four Microspores (n). Because a complete meiotic division yields 4 cells. Thus microspores are produced in multiples of four.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 6.
Between Prokaryotes & Eukaryotes, which cell has a shorter cell division time.
Answer:
Prokaryotes like bacteria undergo simple form of cell division called binary fission which will get completed with in a hour, whereas Eukaryotic cell division (mitosis) takes nearly 24 hours to get completed. Hence Prokaryotes have shorter cell division time.

Question 7.
Though Prokaryotic cell division differs from Eukaryotic cell division, both show certain common aspects during cell division. Explain.
Answer:
Whether a cell is Prokaryote or Eukaryote, while undergoing division, the following events must occur in common.

  1. Replication of DNA.
  2. Cytokinesis at the end of cell division.

Question 8.
An anther has 1204 pollen grains. How many Pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?Explain.
Answer:
301 – Pollen mother cells: 301 Pollen mother cells undergo meiosis producing 1204 pollen grains. Because at the end of meiosis, each pollen mother cells produces 4 pollen grains.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 7 Cell Cycle

Question 9.
A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitosis. What will be the chromosome number during metaphase?
Answer:
During S phase of interphase, the genetic material of the cell is duplicated. So during metaphase, the chromosome number(chromatid number) will be doubled thus 64 chromosomes (chromatids) will be present.

Question 10.
Why sibilings show disimilarities?
Answer:
Though born to same parents, siblings show dissimilarities and variation due to the crossing over and recombination of chromosomes during meiosis.

Question 11.
Ramu’s met with an accident while riding cycle and got wounded in his leg. After few days, the wound was healed and the skin becomes normal. How?
Answer:
Ramu’s wound was healed because of the mitotic division. As a result of mitosis, new cells are produced and damaged tissues were repaired resulting the damaged skin to become normal.

Question 12.
A flower of tomato plant following the process of sexual reproduction produces 240 viable seeds. What is the minimum number of microspore mother cells involved in this process?
Answer:
60 microspore mother cells are involved in providing 240 pollen grains. Because each microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis producing four pollen grains (i.e. 60 × 4 = 240). Each pollen grain produces two male gametes of which one undergoes true fertilization of ovule producing seeds. Other male gamete participate in double fertilization.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Cycle Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

Question 1.
Solve 2x2 + x – 15 ≤ 0.
Solution:
To find the solution of the inequality
ax2 + bx + c ≥ 0 or ax2 + bx +c ≤ 0 (for a > 0)
First we have to solve the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0
Let the roots be a and P (where a < P)
So for the inequality ax2 + bx + c ≥ 0 the roots lie outside α and β
(i.e.,) x ≤ α and x ≥ β
So for the inequality ax2 + bx + c ≤ 0. The roots lie between α and β
(i.e.,) x > α and x < β (i.e.) a ≤ x ≤ β
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

The inequality solver will then show you the steps to help you learn how to solve it on your own.

Question 2.
Solve -x2 + 3x – 2 ≥ 0
Solution:
-x2 + 3x – 2 ≥ 0 ⇒ x2 – 3x + 2 ≤ 0
(x – 1) (x – 2) ≤ 0
[(x – 1) (x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 1 or 2.
Here α = 1 and β = 2. Note that α < β]
So for the inequality (x – 1) (x – 2) ≤ 2
x lies between 1 and 2
(i.e.) x ≥ 1 and x ≤ 2 or x ∈ [1, 2] or 1 ≤ x ≤ 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 Additional Questions

Question 1.
Solve for x.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 5
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 6
Select the intervals in which (3x +1) (3x – 2) is positive
(3x + 1) > 0 and (3x – 2) > 0 or
3x +1 < 0 and 3x – 2 < 0
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 25
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 26

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 8
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 9

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Tissue and Tissue System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Refer to the given figure and select the correct statement:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 4
(i) A, B, and C are histogen of shoot apex
(ii) A Gives rise to medullary rays
(iii) B Gives rise to cortex
(iv) C Gives rise to epidermis
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (in) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) only

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 2.
Read the following sentences and identify the correctly matched sentences.
(i) In exarch condition, the protoxylem lies outside of metaxylem.
(ii) In endarch condition, the protoxylem lie towards the centre.
(iii) In centarch condition, metaxylem lies in the middle of the protoxylem.
(iv) In mesarch condition, protoxylem lies in the middle of the metaxylem.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Question 3.
In Gymnosperms, the activity of sieve tubes are controlled by:
(a) Nearby sieve tube members.
(b) Phloem parenchyma cells.
(c) Nucleus of companion cells.
(d) Nucleus of albuminous cells.
Answer:
(c) Nucleus of companion cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 4.
When a leaf trace extends from a vascular bundle in a dicot stem, what would be the arrangement of vascular tissues in the veins of the leaf?
(a) Xylem would be on top and the phloem on the bottom
(b) Phloem would be on top and the xylem on the bottom
(c) Xylem would encircle the phloem
(d) Phloem would encircle the xylem
Answer:
(a) Xylem would be on top and the phloem on the bottom

Question 5.
Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have:
(a) vascular bundles arranged in a ring
(b) cambium for secondary growth
(c) vessels with elements arranged end to end
(d) cork cambium
Answer:
(b) cambium for secondary growth

Question 6.
Why the cells of sclerenchyma and tracheids become dead?
Answer:
The cells of sclerenchyma and tracheids become dead because they lack protoplasm.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 7.
Explain sclereids with their types.
Answer:
Sclereids are dead cells, usually these are isodiametric but some are elongated too. The cell wall is very thick due to lignification. Lumen is very much reduced. The pits may simple or branched. Sclereids are mechanical in function. They give hard texture to the seed coats, endosperms etc., Sclereids are classified into the following types.

  1. Branchysclereids or Stone cells: Isodiametric sclereids, with hard cell wall. It is found in bark, pith cortex, hard endosperm and fleshy portion of some fruits. eg: Pulp of Pyrus.
  2. Macrosclereids: Elongated and rod shaped cells, found in the outer seed coat of leguminous plants. eg: Crotalaria and Pisum sativum.
  3. Osteosclereids (Bone cells): Rod shaped with dilated ends. They occur in leaves and seed coats. eg: seed coat of Pisum and Hakea.
  4. Astrosclereids: Star cells with lobes or arms diverging form a central body. They occur in petioles and leaves. eg: Tea, Nymphae and Trochodendron.
  5. Trichosclereids: Hair like thin walled sclereids. Numerous small angular crystals are embedded in the wall of these sclereids, present in stems and leaves of hydrophytes. eg: Nymphaea leaf and Aerial roots of Monstera

Question 8.
What are sieve tubes? Explain.
Answer:
Sieve tubes are long tube like conducting elements in the phloem. These are formed from a series of cells called sieve tube elements. The sieve tube elements are arranged one above the other and form vertical sieve tube. The end wall contains a number of pores and it looks like a sieve. So it is called as sieve plate. The sieve elements show nacreous thickenings on their lateral walls. They may possess simple or compound sieve plates.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 1
The function of sieve tubes are believed to be controlled by campanion cells In mature sieve tube, Nucleus is absent. It contains a lining layer of cytoplasm. A special protein (P. Protein = Phloem Protein) called slime body is seen in it. In mature sieve tubes, the pores in the sieve plate are blocked by a substance called callose (callose plug). The conduction of food material takes lace through cytoplasmic strands. Sieve tubes occur only in Angiosperms.

Question 9.
Distinguish the anatomy of dicot root from monocot root.
Answer:
The anatomy of dicot root from monocot root:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 2

Question 10.
Distinguish the anatomy of dicot stem from monocot stem.
Answer:
The anatomy of dicot stem from monocot stem:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Tissue and Tissue System Other Important Questions & Answers

I. Choose the correct answer. (1 Mark)
Question 1.
Who is the father of plant anatomy?
(a) David Muller
(b) Katherine Esau
(c) Nehemiah Grew
(d) Hofmeister
Answer:
(c) Nehemiah Grew

Question 2.
The study of internal structure and organisation of plant is called:
(a) plant taxonomy
(b) plant anatomy
(c) plant physiology
(d) plant ecology
Answer:
(b) plant anatomy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 3.
The book “Anatomy of seed plants” is written by:
(a) Hanstein
(b) Schmidt
(c) Nicholsen
(d) Katherine Esau
Answer:
(d) Katherine Esau

Question 4.
The term meristem is coined by:
(a) Nageli
(b) Robert
(c) Stevers
(d) Clowes
Answer:
(a) Nageli

Question 5.
Which of the statement is not correct?
(a) Meristematic cells are self perpetuating
(b) Meristematic cells are most actively dividing cells
(c) Meristematic cells have large vacuoles
(d) Meristematic cells have dense cytoplasm with prominent nucleus
Answer:
(c) Meristematic cells have large vacuoles

Question 6.
Apical cell theory is proposed by:
(a) David brown
(b) Hofmeister
(c) Land mark
(d) Clowes
Answer:
(b) Hofmeister

Question 7.
The tunica is:
(a) the peripheral zone of shoot apex, that forms cortex
(b) the inner zone of shoot apex, that forms stele
(c) the peripheral zone of shoot apex, that forms epidermis
(d) the inner zone of shoot apex, that forms cortex and stele
Answer:
(c) the peripheral zone of shoot apex, that forms epidermis

Question 8.
Which of the histogens gives rise to root cap?
(a) Plerome
(b) Periblem
(c) Dermatogen
(d) Calyptrogen
Answer:
(d) Calyptrogen

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 9.
Quiescent centre concept was proposed by:
(a) Lindall
(b) Clowes
(c) Holstein
(d) Sanio
Answer:
(b) Clowes

Question 10.
Parenchyma cells which stores resin, tannins, calcium carbonate and calcium oxalate are termed as:
(a) critoblast
(b) chromoblasts
(c) idioblasts
(d) astroblasts
Answer:
(c) idioblasts

Question 11.
Petioles of banana is composed of:
(a) storage parenchyma
(b) stellate parenchyma
(c) angular collenchyma
(d) prosenchyma
Answer:
(b) stellate parenchyma

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Sclerenchyma is a dead cell
(b) It lacks protoplasm
(c) The cell walls of these cells are uniformly thickened
(d) Sclerenchyma are actively dividing cells
Answer:
(d) Sclerenchyma are actively dividing cells

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 13.
The seed coat of ground nut is made up of:
(a) stone cells
(b) osteosclereids
(c) macrosclereids
(d) parenchyma cells
Answer:
(b) osteosclereids

Question 14.
Plant fibers are modified:
(a) sclerenchyma cells
(b) collenchyma cells
(c) parenchyma cells
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) sclerenchyma cells

Question 15.
The term xylem was introduced by:
(a) Alexander
(b) Nageli
(c) Holstein
(d) Schemidt
Answer:
(b) Nageli

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 16.
What type of xylem arrangement is seen in Selaginella sp?
(a) Endarch
(b) Exarch
(c) Centrarch
(d) Mesarch
Answer:
(c) Centrarch

Question 17.
In cross section, the tracheids are:
(a) hexagonal in shape
(b) rectangular in shape
(c) triangular in shape
(d) polygonal in shape
Answer:
(d) polygonal in shape

Question 18.
In grasses the guard cells in stoma are:
(a) bean shaped
(b) irregular shaped
(c) dumbbell shaped
(d) bell shaped
Answer:
(c) dumbbell shaped

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 19.
Bulliform cells are present in:
(a) mango
(b) grasses
(c) ground nut
(d) potato
Answer:
(b) grasses

Question 20.
The sunken stomata:
(a) reduce water loss by transpiration
(b) increase water loss by transpiration
(c) increase heat loss by evaporation
(d) neither reduce nor increase water loss by transpiration
Answer:
(a) reduce water loss by transpiration

Question 21.
In Ocimum the trichomes are:
(a) non – glandular
(b) fibrous
(c) glandular
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) glandular

Question 22.
In dicot stem, the hypodermis is generally:
(a) parenchymatous
(b) sclerenchymatous
(c) collenchymatous
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) collenchymatous

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 23.
Casparian strips contain thickenings of:
(a) calcium carbonate and calcium oxalate
(b) carbohydrate, protein and lignin
(c) crystal of calcium oxalate
(d) lignin, suberin and some other carbohydrates
Answer:
(d) lignin, suberin and some other carbohydrates

Question 24.
Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Albuminous cells in gymnosperms are a nucleated parenchyma cells.
(b) Albuminous cells in gymnosperms are nucleated collenchyma cells.
(c) Albuminous cells in gymnosperms are nucleated, thin walled parenchyma cells.
(d) Albuminous cells in gymnosperms are a nucleated sclerenchyma cells.
Answer:
(c) Albuminous cells in gymnosperms are nucleated, thin walled parenchyma cells.

Question 25.
Secondary phloem is derived from:
(a) apical meritesm
(b) vascular cambium
(c) primary phloem
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) vascular cambium

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 26.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) The outer most layer of the root is called piliferous layer.
(b) The chief function of piliferous layer is protection.
(c) Piliferous layer is made up of parenchyma cells with intracellular space.
(d) Piliferous layer is made up of parenchyma cells without intracellular space.
Answer:
(d) Piliferous layer is made up of parenchyma cells without intracellular space.

Question 27.
In beans, the metaxylem vessels are generally:
(a) polygonal in shape
(b) circular in shape
(d) rectangular in shape
(d) triangular in shape
Answer:
(a) polygonal in shape

Question 28.
Who discovered the Annular collenchyma?
(a) Clowes
(b) Sanio
(c) Nageli
(d) Duchaigne
Answer:
(d) Duchaigne

Question 29.
The main function of xylem is:
(a) to conduct the minerals to various parts of plants
(b) to conduct oxygen to various parts of plant body
(c) to conduct water and minerals from root to the other parts of the plant body
(d) to conduct stored food to various parts of plant body
Answer:
(c) to conduct water and minerals from root to the other parts of the plant body

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 30.
In maize the vascular bundles are:
(a) scattered
(b) concentric
(c) excentric
(d) radial
Answer:
(a) scattered

Question 31.
stomata in leaves of a plant are used for:
(a) transpiration
(b) transpiration and gas exchange
(c) gas exchange
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) transpiration and gas exchange

Question 32.
Which of the statement is not correct?
(a) Palisade parenchyma cells are seen beneath the upper epidermis
(b) Palisade parenchyma cells contain more chloroplasts
(c) Palisade parenchyma cells are irregularly shaped
(d) The function of palisade parenchyma is photosynthesis
Answer:
(c) Palisade parenchyma cells are irregularly shaped

Question 33.
Spongy parenchyma cells are:
(a) irregularly shaped
(b) elongated cylindrical cells
(c) very lightly arranged cells
(d) with more number of chloroplasts than palisade parenchyma
Answer:
(a) irregularly shaped

Question 34.
The main function of spongy parenchyma is:
(a) photosynthesis
(b) exchange of gases
(c) exchange of minerals
(d) water transport
Answer:
(b) exchange of gases

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 35.
All mesophyll cells in monocot leaf are nearly:
(a) isodiametric and thick walled
(b) irregular and thick walled
(c) isodiametric and thin walled
(d) irregular and thin willed
Answer:
(c) isodiametric and thin walled

Question 36.
Structurally, hydathodes are modified:
(a) cambium tissue
(b) parenchyma
(c) pith
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 37.
Hydathodes occurs in the leaves of:
(a) desert plants
(b) submerged aquatic plants
(c) floating aquatic weeds
(d) forest trees
Answer:
(b) submerged aquatic plants

Question 38.
The process of guttation is seen in:
(a) grasses
(b) dicot plants
(c) desert plants
(d) Nerium
Answer:
(a) grasses

Question 39.
Salt glands are present in:
(a) xerophytes
(b) hydrophytes
(c) halophytes
(d) merophytes
Answer:
(c) halophytes

Question 40.
The term sieve tubes is coined by:
(a) Schleiden
(b) Hanstein
(c) Tsehireh
(d) Hartig
Answer:
(d) Hartig

II. Answer the following. (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define the tissue?
Answer:
A tissue is a group of cells that are alike in origin, structure and function. The study of tissue is called Histology.

Question 2. What are the different types of plant tissue?
Answer:
The two types of principal groups are:

  1. Meristematic tissues
  2. Permanent tissues.

Question 3.
Mention any, two characters of meriste – matic tissue.
Answer:
Two characters of meriste – matic tissue:

  1. The meristematic cells are isodiametric and they may be, oval, spherical or polygonal in shape.
  2. They have generally dense cytoplasm with prominent nucleus.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 4.
Mention the function of apical meristem.
Answer:
Present in apices of root and shoot. It is responsible for increase in the length of the plant, it is called as primary growth.

Question 5.
What is mean by carpus?
Answer:
It is the inner zone of shoot apex,that forms cortex and stele of shoot.

Question 6.
Explain apical cell theory?
Answer:
Apical cell theory is proposed by Nageli. The single apical cell or apical initial composes the root meristem. The apical initial is tetrahedral in shape and produces root cap from one side. The remaining three sides produce epidermis, cortex and vascular tissues. It is found in vascular cryptogams.

Question 7.
What is meant by angular collenchyma?
Answer:
It is the most common type of collenchyma with irregular arrangement and thickening at the angles where cells meet., eg: Hypodermis of Datum and Nicotiana.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 8.
Explain briefly Branchysciereids or Stone cells.
Answer:
Isodiametric sclereids, with hard cell wall. It is found in bark, pith cortex, hard endosperm and fleshy portion of some fruits. eg: Pulp of Pyrus.

Question 9.
What is Filiform Sclereids?
Answer:
The sclereids are present in the leaf lamina of Olea europaea. They are very much elongated fibre like and about 1mm length.

Question 10.
Distinguish between Libriform fibres and Fibre tracheids.
Answer:
Between Libriform fibres and Fibre tracheids:

Libriform fibres

Fibre tracheids

1. These fibres have slightly lignified secondary walls with simple pits. These fibres are long and narrow. 1. These are shorter than the libriform fibres with moderate secondary thickenings in the cell walls. Pits are simple or bordered.

Question 11.
What are bast fibres?
Answer:
These fibres are present in the phloem. Natural Bast fibres are strong and cellulosic. Fibres obtaining from the phloem or outer bark of jute, kenaf, flax and hemp plants. The so called pericyclic fibres are actually phloem fibres.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 12.
What is meant by endarch type of xylem arrangements?
Answer:
Protoxylem lies towards the .centre and meta xylem towards the periphery this condition is called Endarch. It is seen in stems.

Question 13.
What are the types of cells present in phloem?
Answer:
Phloem consists of four types of Cells:

  1. Sieve elements
  2. Companion cells
  3. Phloem parenchyma
  4. Phloem fibres.

Question 14.
Define epiblema?
Answer:
It is made up of single layer of parenchyma cells which are arranged compactly without intercellular spaces. It is devoid of epidermal pores and cuticle. Root hair is always single celled, it absorbs water and mineral salts from the soil. The another important function of piliferous layer is protection.

Question 15.
Explain bulliform cells in grasses.
Answer:
Some cells of upper epidermis (eg: Grasses) are larger and thin walled. They are called bulliform cells or motor cells. These cells are helpful for the rolling and unrolling of the leaf according to the weather change.

Question 16.
What is meant by Sunken Stomata?
Answer:
In some Xerophytic plants (eg: Cycas, Nerium), stomata is sunken beneath the abaxial leaf surface within stomatal crypts. The sunken stomata reduce water loss by transpiration.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 1 7.
Mention any two functions of epidermal tissue system in plants.
Answer:
Two functions of epidermal tissue system in plants:

  1. This system in the shoot checks excessive loss of water due to the presence of cuticle.
  2. Epidermis protects the underlying tissues.

Question 18.
Define chlorenchymo?
Answer:
Sometimes in young stem, chloroplasts develop in peripheral cortical cells, which is Called chlorenchyma.

Question 19.
What is meant by casparian strips?
Answer:
In true root endodermis, radial and inner tangential walls of endodermal cells possess thickenings of lignin, suberin and some other carbohydrates in the form of strips they are called casparian strips.

Question 20.
What are albuminous cells?
Answer:
The cytoplasmic nucleated parenchyma, is associated with the sieve cells of Gymnosperms. Albuminous cells in Conifers are analogous to companion cells of Angiosperms. It also called as strasburger cells.

Question 21.
Describe briefly radial types of vascular Bundles.
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are present on different radii alternating with each other. The bundles are separated by parenchymatous tissue. (Monocot and Dicot roots).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 22.
Define stele?
Answer:
All the tissues inside the endodermis comprise the stele. This includes pericycle, vascular system and pith.

Question 23.
What is meant by cambium?
Answer:
Cambium consists of brick shaped and thin walled meristematic cells. It is one to four layers in thickness. These cells are capable of forming new cells during secondary growth.

Question 24.
Define silica Cells?
Answer:
Some of the epidermal cells of the grass are filled with silica. They are called silica cells.

Question 25.
Define, hydathode?
Answer:
A hydathode is a type of epidermal pore, commonly found in higher plants. Structurally, hydathodes are modified stomata, usually located at leaf tips or margins, especially at the teeth. Hydathodes occur in the leaves of submerged aquatic plants such as ranunculus fluitans as well as in many herbaceous land plants.

III. Answer the following. (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain apical cell theory.
Answer:
Apical cell theory is proposed by Hofmeister (1852) and supported by Nageli (1859). A single apical cell is the structural and functional unit. This apical cell governs the growth and development of whole plant body. It is applicable in Algae, Bryophytes and in some Pteridophytes.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 2.
Explain histogen theory.
Answer:
Histogen theory is proposed by Hanstein (1868) and supported by Strassburgur. The shoot apex comprises three distinct zones.

  1. Dermatogen: It is a outermost layer. It gives rise to epidermis.
  2. Periblem: It is a middle layer. It gives rise to cortex.
  3. Plerome: It is innermost layer. It gives rise to stele.

Question 3.
What is meant by quiescent centre concept?
Answer:
Quiescent centre concept was proposed by Clowes (1961) to explain root apical meristem activity. These centre is located between root cap and differentiating cells of the roots. The apparently inactive region of cells in root promeristem is called quiescent centre. It is the site of hormone synthesis and also the ultimate source of all meristematic cells of the meristem.

Question 4.
Explain the term “sclereids”.
Answer:
Sclereids are dead cells, usually these are isodiametric but some are elongated too. The cell wall is very thick due to lignification. Lumen is very much reduced. The pits may simple or branched. Sclereids are mechanical in function. They give hard texture to the seed coats, endosperms etc.

Question 5.
Explain briefly about plant fibres.
Answer:
Fibres are very much elongated sclerenchyma cells with pointed tips. Fibres are dead cells and have lignified walls with narrow lumen. They have simple pits. They provide mechanical strength and protect them from the strong wind. It is also called supporting tissues. Fibres have a great commercial value in cottage and textile industries.

Question 6.
Write briefly about xylem fibres.
Answer:
The fibres of sclerenchyma associated with the xylem are known as xylem fibres. Xylem fibres are dead cells and have lignified walls with narrow lumen. They cannot conduct water but being stronger provide mechanical strength. They are present in both primary and secondary xylem. Xylem fibres are also called libriform fibres.
The fibres are abundantly found in many plants. They occur in patches, in continuous bands and sometimes singly among other cells. Between fibres and normal tracheids, there are many transitional forms which are neither typical fibres nor typical tracheids. The transitional types are designated as fibre – tracheids. The pits of fibre – tracheids are smaller than those of vessels and typical tracheids.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 7.
Explain companion cells.
Answer:
The thin walled, elongated, specialized parenchyma cells, which are associated with die sieve elements, are called companion cells. These cells are living and they have cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus. They are connected to the sieve tubes through pits found in the lateral walls. Through these pits cytoplasmic connections are maintained between these elements. These cells are helpful in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes. Usually the nuclei of the companion cells serve for the nuclei of sieve tubes as they lack them. The companion cells are present only in Angiosperms and absent in Gymnosperms and Pteridophytes. They assist the sieve tubes in the conduction of food materials.

Question 8.
Distinguish between meristematic tissue and permanent tissue.
Answer:
Between meristematic tissue and permanent tissue:

Meristematic tissue

Permanent tissue

1. Cells divide repeatedly 1. Do not divide
2. Cells are undifferentiated 2. Cells are fully differentiated
3. Cells are small and Isodiametric 3. Cells are variable in shape and size
4. Intercellular spaces are absent 4. Intercellular spaces are present
5. Vacuoles are absent 5. Vacuoles are present
6. Cell walls are thin 6. Cell walls maybe thick or thin
7. Inorganic inclusions are absent 7. Inorganic inclusions  are present

Question 9.
Write down the differences between tracheids and fibres.
Answer:
The differences between tracheids and fibres:

Tracheids

Fibres

1. Not much elongated 1. Very long cells
2. Posses oblique end walls 2. Posses tapering end walls
3. Cell walls are not as thick as fibtres 3. Cell wall are thick and lignified
4. Possess various types of thickenings 4. Possess only pitted thickenings
5. Responsible for the conduction and also mechanical support 5. Provide only mechanical support

Question 10.
Give a brief answer on subsidiary cells in plant leaves.
Answer:
Stomata are minute pores surrounded by two guard cells. The stomata occur mainly in the epidermis of leaves. In some plants addition to guard cells, specialised epidermal cells are present which are distinct from other epidermal cells. They are called Subsidiary cells. Based on the number and arrangement of subsidiary cells around the guard cells, the various types of stomata are recognised, The guard cells and subsidiary cells help in opening and closing of stomata during gaseous exchange and transpiration.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 11.
Explain the term trichomes.
Answer:
There are many types of epidermal outgrowths in stems. The unicellular or multicellular appendages that originate from the epidermal cells are called trichomes. Trichomes may be branched or unbranched and one or more one celled thick. They assume many shapes and sizes. They may also be glandular (eg: Rose, Ocimum) or non – glandular.

Question 12.
What do you understand about hypodermis in plant tissue system.
Answer:
One or two layers of continuous or discontinuous tissue present below the epidermis, is called hypodermis. It is protective in function. In dicot stem, hypodermis is generally collenchymatous, whereas in monocot stem, it is generally sclerenchymatous. In many plants collenchyma form the hypodermis.

Question 13.
What is meant by pith?’
Answer:
The central part of the ground tissue is known as pith or medulla. Generally this is made up of thin walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces. The cells in the pith generally stores starch, fatty substances, tannins, phenols, calcium oxalate crystals, etc.

Question 14.
Explain the piliferous layer as epiblema.
Answer:
The outermost layer of the root is known as piliferous layer. It consists of single row of thin – walled parenchymatous cells without any intercellular space. Epidermal pores and cuticle are absent in the piliferous layer. Root hairs that are found in the piliferous layer are always unicellular. They absorb waer and mineral salt from the soil. Root hairs are generally short lived. The main function of piliferous layer is protection of the inner tissues.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 15.
What is meant by stele in plant stem?
Answer:
The central part of the stem inner to the endodermis is known as stele. It consists of pericyle, vascular bundles and pith. In dicot stem, vascular bundles are arranged in a ring around the pith. This type of stele is called eustele.

Question 16.
Explain the nature of phloem in dicot stem.
Answer:
Primary phloem lies towards the periphery. It consists of protpphloem and metaphloem. Phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells and phloem parenchyma. Phloem fibres are absent in primary phloem. Phloem conduct organic foods material from the leaves to other parts of the plant body.

Question 17.
Explain the mesophyll layer of leaf.
Answer:
The ground tissue that is present between the upper and lower epidermis of the leaf is called mesophyll. Here, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. All the mesophyll cells are nearly isodiametric and thin walled. These cells are compactly arranged with limited intercellular spaces. They contain numerous chloroplasts.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 9 Tissue and Tissue System

Question 18.
Mention any three differences between stomata and hydathodes.
Answer:
Stomata:

  1. Occur in epidermis of leaves, young stems.
  2. Stomatal aperture is guarded by two guard cells.
  3. The two guard cells are generally surrounded by subsidiary cell.

Hydathodes:

  1. Occur at the tip or margin of leaves that are grown in moist shady place.
  2. Aperture of hydathodes are surrounded by a ring of cuticularized cells.
  3. Subsidiary cells are absent.,

Question 19.
What are halophiles? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Halophiles:

  1. Plants that grow in salty environment are called Halophiles.
  2. Plant growth in saline habitat developed numerous adaptations to salt stress. The secretion of ions by salt glands is the best known mechanism for regulating the salt content of plant shoots.
  3. Salt glands typically are found in halophytes. (Plants that grow in saline environments)

IV. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain Histogen theory, Korper Kappe Theory and Quiescent Centre Concept with diagrams.
Answer:
Histogen Theory: Histogen theory is proposed by Hanstein (1868) and supported by Strassburgur. The histogen theory as appilied to the root apical meristem speaks of four histogen in the meristem. They are respectively

  1. Dermatogen: It is a outermost layer. It gives rise to root epidermis.
  2. Periblem: it is a middle layer. It gives rise to cortex.
  3. Plerome: It is innermost layer. It gives rise to stele.
  4. Calyptrogen: it gives rise to root cap.
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 9

Korper Kappe Theory: Korper kappe theory is proposed by Schuepp. There are two zones in root apex – Korper and Kappe.

  1. Korper zone forms the body.
  2. Kappe zone forms The cap.

This theory is equivalent to tunica corpus theory of shoot apex.The two divisions are distinguished by the type of T (also called Y divisions). Korper is characterised by inverted T division and kappe by straight T divisions.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 10

Quiescent Centre Concept: Quiescent centre concept was proposed by Clowes (1961) to explain root apical meristem activity. These centre is located between root cap and differentiating cells of the roots. The apparently inactive region of cells in root promeristem is called quiescent centre. It is the site of hormone synthesis and also the ultimate source of all meristematic cells of the meristem.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 11

Question 2.
Describe the structure and function of different kinds of parenchyma tissues?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 12
Parenchyma is generally present in all organs of the plant. It forms the ground tissue in a plant. Parenchyma is a living tissue and made up of thin walled cells. The cell wall is made up of cellulose. Parenchyma cells may be oval, polyhedral, cylindrical, irregular, elongated or armed. Parenchyma tissue normally has prominent intercellular spaces. Parenchyma may store various types of materials like, water, air, ergastic substances. It is usually colourless. The turgid parenchyma cells help in giving rigidity to the plant body. Partial conduction of water is also maintained through parenchymatous cells. Occsionaliy Parenchyma cells which store resin, tannins, crystals of calcium carbonate, calcium oxalate are called idioblasts. Parenchyma is of different types and some of them are discussed as follows. Types of paranchyma:
(i) Aerenchyma: Parenchyma which contains air in its intercellular spaces. It helps in aeration and buoyancy. eg: Nymphae and Hydrilia.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 13

(ii) Storage Parenchyma: parenchyma stores food materials. eg: Root and stem tubers.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 14

(iii) Stellate Parenchyma: Star shaped parenchyma. eg: Petioles of Banana and Canna.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 15

(iv) Chlorenchyma: Parenchyma cells with chlorophyll. Function is photosynthesis, eg: Mesophyll of leaves.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 16

(v) Prosenchyma: parenchyma cells became elongated, pointed and slightly thick walled. It provides mechanical support.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 17

Question 3.
Describe the types of tracheids with diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 18
Types of secondary wall thickenings in tracheids and vessels:
Tracheids are dead, lignified and elongated cells with tapering ends. Its lumen is broader than that of fibres. In cross section, the tracheids are polygonal. There are different types of cell wall thickenings due to the deposition of secondary wall substances. They are annular (ring like), spiral (spring like), scalariform (ladder like) reticulate (net like) and pitted (uniformly thick except at pits). Tracheids are imperforated cells with bordered pits on their side walls. Only through this conduction takes place in Gymnosperms. They are arranged one above the other. Tracheids are chief water conducting elements in Gymnosperms and Pteridophytes. They also offer mechanical support to the plants.

Question 4.
Compare the different types of plant tissues.
Answer:
The different types of plant tissues:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 5

Question 5.
Compare the vascular tissues of plant.
Answer:
The vascular tissues of plant:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 6

Question 6.
Draw and label the various parts of T.S. of dicot root.
Answer:
Draw and label the various parts of T.S. of dicot root:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 8

Question 7.
Explain in detail about the vascular bundles of monocot stem.
Answer:
1. Vascular bundles: Vascular bundles are scattered (atactostele) in the parenchyma ground tissue. Each vascular bundle is surrounded by a sheath of sclerenehymatous fibres called bundle sheath. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, endarch and closed. Vascular bundles are numerous, small and closely arranged in the peripheral portion. Towards the centre, the bundles are comparatively large in size and loosely arranged. Vascular bundles are skull or oval shaped.

2. Phloem: The phloem in the monocot stem consists of sieve tubes and companion cells. Phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres are absent. It can be distinguished into an outer crushed protophloem and an inner metaphloem.

3. Xylem: Xylem vessels are arranged in the form of ‘Y’ the two metaxylem vessels at the base. In a mature bundle, the lowest protowylem disintegrates and forms a cavity known as protoxylem lacuna.

Question 8.
Draw and label the various parts of monocot stem.
Answer:
The various parts of monocot stem:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 7

Question 9.
Explain the various parts of sunflower leaf with neat diagram.
Answer:
1. Anatomy of a Dicot Leaf – sunflower Leaf: Internal structure of dicotyledonous leaves reveal epidermis, mesophyll and vascular tissues.

2. Epidermis: This leaf is generally dorsiventral. It has upper and lower epidermis. The epidermis is usually made up of a single layer of cells that are closely packed. The cuticle on the upper epidermis is thicker than that of lower epidermis. The minute opening found on the epidermis are called stomata. Stomata are more in number on the lower epidermis than on the upper epidermis.

A stomata is surrounded by a pair of bean shaped cells are called guard cells. Each stoma internally opens into an air chamber. These guard cells contain chlotroplasts. The main function of epidermis is to give protection to the inner tissue called mesospyll. The cuticle helps to check transpiration. Stomata are used for transpiration and gas exchange.

3. Mesophyll: The entire tissue between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll (GK meso = in the middle, phyllome = leaf). There are two regions in the mesophyll. They are palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma. Palisade parenchyma cells are seen beneath the upper epidermis. It consists of vertically elongated cylindrical cells in one or more layers. These are compactly arranged and are generally without intercellular spaces. Palisade parenchyma cells contain more chloroplasts than the spongy parenchyma cells.

The function of palisade parenchyma is photosynthesis. Spongy parenchyma lies below the palsied parenchyma. Spongy cells are irregularly shaped. These cells are very loosly arranged with numerous airspaces. As compared to palisade cells, the spongy cells contain number of chloroplasts. Spongy cells facilitate the exchange of gases with the help of air spaces. The air space that is found next to the stomata is called respiratory cavity or substomatal cavity. Å

4. Vascular tissue: Vascular tissue are present in the veins of leaf. Vascular bundles are conjoint collateral and closed. Xylem is present towards the upper epidermis, while the phloem towards the lower epidermis. Vascular bundles are surrounded by a compact layer by a parenchymatous cells called bundle sheath or border parenchyma.

Xylem consists of metaxylem and protoxylem elements. Protoxylem is present towards the upper epidermis, while the phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells and phloem parenchyma. Phloem fibres are absent. Xylem sonsists of vessels and xylem parenchyma. Tracheids and xylem fibres are absent.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System 19
Solution To Activity
Text Book Page No. 10
Question 1.
Cell lab: Students prepare the slide and identify the different types tissues.
Answer:
Preparing a slide of plant tissue.
Objective:

  1. Using hand cutting method to make thin slice of dicot root.
  2. To make slide and stain of plant sample.
  3. To observe the plant sample under microscope.

Materials:

  1. A young dicot root
  2. Compound microscope
  3. Slide
  4. Cover slip
  5. Eosin stain

Method:

  1. Place 2 cm of young dicot root on a glass slide or plate.
  2. Cut thin slices of the root through the region of maturation.
  3. Stain it with Eosin.
  4. Fix one or two of the sections in a slide and put a cover slip.
  5. To observe the sample under a compound microscope and record the parts of the sample.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Reproductive Morphology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family …………… .
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Brassicaceae
Answer:
(a) Fabaceae

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 2.
Gynoecium with united carples is termed as …………… .
(a) apocarpous
(b) multicarpellary
(c) syncarpous
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) syncarpous

Question 3.
Aggregate fruit develops from …………… .
(a) multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary
(b) multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary
(c) multicarpellary ovary
(d) whole inflorescence
Answer:
(a) multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary

Question 4.
In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession the position of the youngest floral bud shall be …………… .
(a) proximal
(b) distal
(c) intercalary
(d) anywhere
Answer:
(b) distal

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 5.
A true fruit is the one where …………… .
(a) only ovary of the flower develops into fruit
(b) ovary and calyx of the flower develops into fruit
(c) ovary, calyx and thalamus of the flower develops into fruit
(d) all floral whorls of the flower develops into fruit
Answer:
(a) only ovary of the flower develops into fruit

Question 6.
Find out the floral formula for a bisexual flower with bract, regular, pentamerous, distinct calyx and corolla, superior ovary without bracteole?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 1

Question 7.
Give the technical terms for the following:
(a) A sterile stamen
(b) Stamens are united in one bunch
(c) Stamens are attached to the petals
Answer:
(a) A sterile stamen – Staminode
(b) Stamens are united in one bunch – Monadelphous
(c) Stamens are attached to the petals – Epipetalous (petalostemonous)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 8.
Explain the different types of placentation with example.
Answer:
The different types of placentation with example:

  1. Marginal: It is with the placentae along the margin of a unicarpellate ovary. Example: Fabaceae.
  2. Axile: The placentae arises from the column in a compound ovary with septa. Example: Hibiscus, tomato and lemon.
  3. Superficial: Ovules arise from the surface of the septa. Example: Nymphaeceae.
  4. Parietal: It is the placentae on the ovary walls or upon intruding partitions of a unilocular, compound ovary. Example: Mustard, argemone and cucumber.
  5. Free – central: It is with the placentae along the column in a compound ovary without septa. Example: Caryophyllaceae, Dianthus and primrose.
  6. Basal: It is the placenta at the base of the ovary. Example: Sunflower (Asteraceae) Marigold.

Question 9.
Differentiate between aggregate fruit with multiple fruit.
Answer:
1. Aggregate fruit:
Aggregate fruits develop from a single flower having an apocarpous pistil. Each of the free carpel is developed into a simple fruitlet. A collection of simple fruitlets makes an aggregate fruit. An individual ovary develops into a drupe, achene, follicle or berry. An aggregate of these fruits borne by a single flower is known as an etaerio. Example: Magnolia, Raspberry, Annona and Polyalthia.

2. Multiple or Composite fruit: A multiple or composite fruit develops from the whole inflorescence along with its peduncle on which they are borne.

  • Sorosis: A fleshy multiple fruit which develops from a spike or spadix. The flowers fused together by their succulent perianth and at the same time the axis bearing them become fleshy or juicy and the whole inflorescence forms a compact mass. Example: Pineapple, Jack fruit and Mulberry.
  • Syconus: A multiple fruit which develops from hypanthodium inflorescence. The receptacle develops further and converts into fleshy fruit which encloses a number of true fruit or achenes which develops from female flower of hypanthodium inflorescence. Example: Ficus.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 10.
Explain the different types of fleshy fruit with suitable example?
Answer:
The fleshy fruits are derived from single pistil, where the pericarp is fleshy, succulent and differentiated into epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp. It is subdivided into the following:

  1. Berry: Fruit develops from bicarpellary or multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary. Here the epicarp is thin, the mesocarp and endocarp remain undifferentiated. They form a pulp in which the seeds are embedded. Example: Tomato, date palm, grapes and brinjal.
  2. Drupe: Fruit develops from monocarpellary, superior ovary. It is usually one seeded. Pericarp is differentiated into outer skinny epicarp, fleshy and pulpy mesocarp and hard and stony endocarp around the seed. Example: Mango and coconut.
  3. Pepo: Fruit develops from tricarpellary inferior ovary. Pericarp terns leathery or woody which encloses, fleshy mesocarp and smooth endocarp. Example: Cucumber, watermelon, bottle gourd and pumpkin.
  4. Hesperidium: Fruit develops from multicarpellary, multilocular, syncarpous, superior ovary. The fruit wall is differentiated into leathery epicarp with oil glands, a middle fibrous mesocarp. The endocarp forms distinct chambers, containing juicy hairs. Example: Orange and lemon.
  5. Pome: It develops from multicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary. The receptacle also develops along with the ovary and becomes fleshy, enclosing the true fruit. In pome the epicarp is thin skin like and endocarp is cartilagenous. Example: Apple and pear.
  6. Balausta: A fleshy indehiscent fruit developing from multicarpellary, multilocular inferior ovary whose pericarp is tough and leathery. Seeds are attached irregularly with testa being the edible portion. Example: Pomegranate.

Textbook Activity Solved

Prepare a diet chart to provide balanced diet to an adolescent (a school going child) which includes food items (fruits, vegetable and seeds) which are non – expensive and are commonly available.
Diet Chart for an Adolescent:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Reproductive Morphology Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
Placentation in tomato and lemon is …………… .
(a) parietal
(b) marginal
(c) free – central
(d) axile
Answer:
(d) axile

Question 2.
The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to …………… .
(a) endosperm
(b) endocarp
(c) mesocarp
(d) embryo
Answer:
(a) endosperm

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 3.
Geocarpic fruits are seen in …………… .
(a) carrot
(b) groundnut
(c) radish
(d) turnip
Answer:
(b) groundnut

Question 4.
Keel is characteristic petal of the flowers of …………… .
(a) Gulmohar
(b) Cassia
(c) Calotropis
(d) Bean
Answer:
(d) Bean

Question 5.
When the calyx is coloured and showy, it is called …………… .
(a) petaloid
(b) sepaloid
(c) bract
(d) spathe
Answer:
(a) petaloid

Question 6.
Bracts are modified leaves which bear flowers in their axils. Identify the plant which has a large showy brightly coloured bract …………… .
(a) Jasmine
(b) Euphorbia
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Bougainvillea
Answer:
(d) Bougainvillea

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 7.
A flower which can be divided into equal vertical halves, by more than one plane of division is …………… .
(a) zygomorphic
(b) cyclic
(c) actinomorphic
(d) heteromorphic
Answer:
(c) actinomorphic

Question 8.
In Theobroma cocoa, the inflorescence arise from …………… .
(a) terminal shoot
(b) axillary part
(c) trunk of plant
(d) leaf node
Answer:
(c) trunk of plant

Question 9.
The type of inflorescence seen in Caesalpinia is …………… .
(a) corymb
(b) compound corymb
(c) capitulum
(d) umbel
Answer:
(a) corymb

Question 10.
Head is the characteristic of …………… family.
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Asteraceae
(d) Solanaceae
Answer:
(c) Asteraceae

Question 11.
Thyrsus is a type of …………… inflorescence.
(a) raceme
(b) cyme
(c) mixed
(d) special
Answer:
(c) mixed

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 12.
Number of whorls in a complete flower is …………… .
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(d) four

Question 13.
Monoclinous flower will have …………… .
(a) androecium
(b) gynoecium
(c) both androecium & gynoecium
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both androecium & gynoecium

Question 14.
If unisexual and bisexual flowers are seen in same plant then the plant is said to be …………… .
(a) polyphyllous
(b) polygamous
(c) hermaphroditic
(d) dioecious
Answer:
(b) polygamous

Question 15.
…………… is a raceme of cymes.
(a) Verticil
(b) Cyathium
(c) Umbel
(d) Thyrsus
Answer:
(d) Thyrsus

Question 16.
Unit of perianth is …………… .
(a) petal
(b) sepal
(c) tepal
(d) stamen
Answer:
(c) tepal

Question 17.
Number of floral parts per whorl is called …………… .
(a) curosity
(b) atrocity
(c) merosity
(d) porosity
Answer:
(c) merosity

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 18.
What is the green cap – like part of brinjal fruit?
(a) Corolla
(b) Perianth
(c) Calyx
(d) Pistil
Answer:
(c) Calyx

Question 19.
Butterfly shaped corolla is seen in …………… type.
(a) rosaceous
(b) caryophyllaceous
(c) cruciform
(d) papilionaceous
Answer:
(d) papilionaceous

Question 20.
Inflorescence seen in Daucas carota is …………… .
(a) umbel
(b) corymb
(c) compound umbel
(d) compound corymb
Answer:
(c) compound umbel

Question 21.
Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower bud is called …………… .
(a) adhesion
(b) aestivation
(c) placentation
(d) cohesion
Answer:
(b) aestivation

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 22.
Which is not a part of pistil?
(a) Style
(b) Stigma
(c) Connective tissue
(d) carpel
Answer:
(c) Connective tissue

Question 23.
The type of calyx in brinjal is …………… .
(a) caducous
(b) deciduous
(c) persistent
(d) fugacious
Answer:
(c) persistent

Question 24.
Sterile stamen is called …………… .
(a) pistillode
(b) sessile
(c) staminode
(d) apostamen
Answer:
(c) staminode

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 25.
Other name for gynoecium is …………… .
(a) carpel
(b) pistil
(c) style
(d) overy
Answer:
(b) pistil

Question 26.
Cavity found inside the ovary is called …………… .
(a) lobule
(b) locule
(c) lacuna
(d) labium
Answer:
(b) locule

Question 27.
Which part of saffron flower is used as flavouring agent?
(a) Carpel
(b) Anther
(c) Style
(d) Stigma
Answer:
(d) Stigma

Question 28.
If the ovary is inferior, then the flower is …………… .
(a) hypogynous
(b) epigynous
(c) perigynous
(d) epihypogynous
Answer:
(b) epigynous

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 29.
Fabaceae members show …………… placentation.
(a) basal
(b) parietal
(c) superficial
(d) marginal
Answer:
(d) marginal

Question 30.
The side of the flower facing mother axis is called as …………… side.
(a) anterior
(b) posterior
(c) lateral
(d) dorsi – ventral
Answer:
(b) posterior

Question 31.
Which of the following option represents calyx?
(a) C
(b) Ca
(c) K
(d) Ka
Answer:
(c) K

Question 32.
…………… are the products of pollination & fertilization.
(a) Seeds
(b) Ovules
(c) Fruits
(d) Vegetables
Answer:
(c) Fruits

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 33.
Study of fruits is called as …………… .
(a) honology
(b) pomology
(c) horticulture
(d) apology
Answer:
(b) pomology

Question 34.
Fruit wall can also be called as …………… .
(a) endocarp
(b) epicarp
(c) pericarp
(d) mericorp
Answer:
(c) pericarp

Question 35.
Which part of the apple fruit does we eat?
(a) Perianth
(b) Involucre
(c) Thalamus
(d) Bracteole
Answer:
(c) Thalamus

Question 36.
The false septum seen in siliqua fruits is …………… .
(a) frenulum
(b) micropyle
(c) raphae
(d) replum
Answer:
(d) replum

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 37.
The type of fruit in Ricinus in …………… .
(a) lomentum
(b) cremocarp
(c) regma
(d) nut
Answer:
(c) regma

Question 38.
Jack fruit is an example for …………… .
(a) syconus
(b) siliqua
(c) sorosis
(d) nut
Answer:
(c) sorosis

Question 39.
Which of the following is not a schizocarpic fruit?
(a) Cremocarp
(b) Regma
(c) Samara
(d) Carcerulus
Answer:
(c) Samara

Question 40.
After fertilization …………… modifies into seed.
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) carpel
(d) stigma
Answer:
(b) ovule

Question 41.
In groundnuts, which part nourishes the embryo?
(a) Endosperm
(b) Albumin
(c) Cotyledons
(d) Carpel
Answer:
(c) Cotyledons

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 42.
…………… are the means for perpetuation of species.
(a) Fruits
(b) Seeds
(c) Corolla
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(b) Seeds

Question 43.
…………… is the second whorl of the flower.
(a) Calyx
(b) Corolla
(c) Gynoecium
(d) Perianth
Answer:
(b) Corolla

Question 44.
…………… is a ripened ovule.
(a) Carpel
(b) Pistil
(c) Seed
(d) Fruit
Answer:
(c) Seed

Question 45.
Imperfect flowers will have …………… essential whorl(s).
(a) only 1
(b) 2
(c) none
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) only 1

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
How will you define inflorescence?
Answer:
An inflorescence is a group of flowers arising from a branched or unbranched axis with a definite pattern.

Question 2.
Where does the inflorescence axis arise in cauliflorous type of inflorescence?
Answer:
In cauliflorous type, inflorescence developed directly from a woody trunk. Example: Theobroma cocoa.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 3.
Name any two mixed inflorescences.
Answer:
Two mixed inflorescences:

  1. Thyrsus and
  2. Verticillaster.

Question 4.
When a flower is said to be complete?
Answer:
A flower is said to be complete when it has all the four whorls (calyx, corolla, androecium & gynoecium).

Question 5.
What is a sessile flower?
Answer:
A flower without a pedicel or stalk is said to be sessile flower.

Question 6.
Define merosity.
Answer:
Number of floral parts per whorl is called merosity.

Question 7.
Write the units of (a) Perianth and (b) Calyx.
Answer:
The units of (a) Perianth and (b) Calyx:

  1. (a) Perianth – tepals and
  2. (b) Calyx – sepals

Question 8.
Name the three types of petals in papilionoceous corolla.
Answer:
The three types of petals in papilionoceous corolla:

  1. Vexillum (standard)
  2. wings (alae)
  3. petals (carina)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 9.
What is a staminode? Give example.
Answer:
Sterile stamen is called staminode. e.g. Cassia

Question 10.
Define Pollinium.
Answer:
When the pollen grains are fused together as a single main, it is said to be pollinium.

Question 11.
List out the parts of a pistil.
Answer:
Ovary, style and stigma.

Question 12.
Define aestivation.
Answer:
Arrangement of sepals and petals in a floral bud.

Question 13.
What is mother axis?
Answer:
The branch that bears the flower is called mother axis.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 14.
What do you understand by the term “Pomology”?
Answer:
The branch of horticulture that deals with the study of fruits and their cultivation is called pomology.

Question 15.
How the seeds are classified based on endosperm?
Answer:
(a) Albuminous seed or Endospermous seed.
(b) Ex – Albuminous seed or non – Endospermous seed.

Question 16.
What is Spathe?
Answer:
In spadix, entire inflorescence is covered by a brightly coloured or hard bract called a spathe.

Question 17.
Differentiate Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary.
Answer:
Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary:

  1. Apocarpous: A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels. Example: Annona
  2. Syncarpous: A pistil contains two or more carpels which are connate. Example: Citrus and Tomato

Question 19.
Give examples for following fruit types: (a) Berry (b) Hesperidium
Answer:
(a) Berry: Tomato
(b) Hesperidium: Orange

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Distinguish between Monoecious & Dioecious.
Answer:
Between Monoecious & Dioecious:

  1. Monoecious: Both male and female flowers are present in the same plant, e.g., Coconut
  2. Dioecious:  Male and female flowers are present on separate plants, e.g., Papaya

Question 2.
Explain Bilateral symmetry.
Answer:
In bilateral symmetry the flower can be divided into equal halves in only one plane. Zygomorphic flower can efficiently transfer pollen grains to visiting pollinators. Example: Pisum.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 3.
Differentiate Apopetalous from Sympetalous.
Answer:
Apopetalous from Sympetalous:

  1. Apopetalous (or) Polypetalous: Petals are distinct, e.g., Hibiscus.
  2. Sympetalous (or) Gamopetalous: Petals are fused, e.g., Datura.

Question 4.
Define Placentation & mention their types.
Answer:
The mode of distribution of placenta inside the ovary is called placentation. Types of placentation: Marginal, Axile, Superficial, Parietal, Free – central and Basal.

Question 5.
Write the floral formula for the Hibiscus rosasinensis.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 3

Question 6.
What are Parthenocarpic fruit?
Answer:
Development of fruits without fertilization are called Parthenocarpic fruit. They are seedless fruits. Example: Banana.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 7.
From which type of flowers does the aggregate fruit develops?
Answer:
Aggregate fruits develop from a single flower having an apocarpous pistil. Each of the free carpel is develops into a simple fruitlet. A collection of simple fruitlets makes an aggregate fruit.

Question 8.
Classify seeds based on their cotyledons.
Answer:
Based on the number of cotyledons present, two types of seeds are recognized.

  1. Dicotyledonous seed: Seed with two cotyledons.
  2. Monocotyledonous seed: Seed with one cotyledon.

Question 9.
List out any 3 significances of seed.
Answer:
3 significances of seed:

  1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for next generation.
  2. Seeds of various plants are used as food, both for animals and human.
  3. Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction so they provide genetic variations and recombination in a plant.

Question 10.
What is the importance of inflorescence.
Answer:
Function of inflorescence is to display the flowers for effective pollination and facilitate seed dispersal. The grouping of flowers in one place gives a better attraction to the visiting pollinators and maximize the energy of the plant.

Question 11.
Draw the line diagram for the following inflorescence.
Answer:
(a) Simple Dichasium:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 5

(b) Compound Dichasium:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 4

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain the various types of Schizocarpic fruit.
Answer:
This fruit type of intermediate between dehiscent and indehiscent fruit. The fruit instead of dehiscing rather splits into number of segments, each containing one or more seeds. They are of following types:

  1. Cremocarp: Fruit develops from bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary and splitting into two one seeded segments known as mericarps. e.g., Coriander and Carrot.
  2. Carcerulus: Fruit develops from bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary and splitting into four one seeded segments known as nutlets, e.g., Leucas, Ocimum and Abutilon.
  3. Lomentum: The fruit is derived from monocarpellary, unilocular ovary. A leguminous fruit, constricted between the seeds to form a number of one seeded compartments that separate at maturity, e.g., Desmodium, Arachis and Mimosa.
  4. Regma: They develop from tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior, trilocular ovary and splits into one – seeded cocci which remain attached to carpophore, e.g., Ricinus and Geranium.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of flowers based on the position of ovary.
Answer:
Based on the position of ovary, a flower can be classified as:

  1. Hypogynous: The term is used for sepals, petals and stamens attached at the base of a superior ovary, e.g. Malvaceae.
  2. Epihypogynous: The term is used for sepals, petals and stamens attached at the middle of the ovary (half – inferior), e.g. Fabaceae and Rosaceae.
  3. Epigynous: The term is used for sepals, petals and stamens attached at the tip of an inferior ovary, e.g. Cucumber, apple and Asteraceae.
  4. Perigynous: The term is used for a hypanthium attached at the base of a superior ovary.
  5. Epiperigynous: The term is used for hypanthium attached at the apex of an inferior ovary.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 3.
Classify the anthers based on their mode of attachment.
Answer:
The anthers based on their mode of attachment:

  1. Basifixed: (Innate) Base of anther is attached to the tip of filament, e.g., Brassica, Datura
  2. Dorsifixed: Apex of filament is attached to the dorsal side of the anther, e.g. Citrus, Hibiscus
  3. Versatile: Filament is attached to the anther at midpoint, e.g., Grasses
  4. Adnate: Filament is continued from the base to the apex of anther, e.g. Verbena, Ranunculus, Nelumbo.

Question 4.
Define aestivation. Explain its types with example.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 6

Question 5.
Distinguish between racemose and cymose inflorescence.
Answer:
Racemose inflorescence

  1. Main axis of unlimited growth
  2. Flowers arranged in an acropetal succession
  3. Opening of flowers is centripetal
  4. Usually the oldest flower at the base of the inflorescence axis.

Cymose inflorescence:

  1. Main axis of limited growth
  2. Flowers arranged in a basipetal succession
  3. Opening of flowers is centrifugal
  4. Usually the oldest flower at the top of the inflorescence axis.

Question 6.
Write in detail about head inflorescence.
Answer:
Head: A head is a characteristic inflorescence of Asteraceae and is also found in some members of Rubiaceae. Example: Neolamarkia cadamba and Mitragyna parvifolia; and in some members of Fabaceae – Mimosoideae, example: Acacia nilotica, Albizia lebbeck, Mimosa pudica (sensitive plant). Torus contains two types of florets:

  1. Disc floret or tubular floret.
  2. Ray floret or ligulate floret.

Heads are classified into two types:

  1. Homogamous head: This type of inflorescence exhibits single kind of florets. Inflorescence has disc florets alone. Example: Vernonia, Ageratum or Ray florets alone. example: Launaea, Sonchus.
  2. Heterogamous head: The inflorescence possesses both types of florets. Example: Helianthus, Tridax.

Disc florets at the centre of the head are tubular and bisexual whereas the ray florets found at the margin of the head which are ligulate pistilate (unisexual).
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 7
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 8

Question 7.
List out the significance of fruits.
Answer:
The significance of fruits:

  1. Edible part of the fruit is a source of food, energy for animals.
  2. They are source of many chemicals like sugar, pectin, organic acids, vitamins and minerals.
  3. The fruit protects the seeds from unfavourable climatic conditions and animals.
  4. Both fleshy and dry fruits help in the dispersal of seeds to distant places.
  5. In certain cases, fruit may provide nutrition to the developing seedling.
  6. Fruits provide source of medicine to humans.

Question 8.
Draw a flow chart depicting the classification of fruits.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology 9

Question 9.
Explain in detail about any two special inflorescence.
Answer:
The inflorescences do not show any of the development pattern types are classified under special type of inflorescence.
1. Cyathium: Cyathium inflorescence consists of small unisexual flowers enclosed by a common involucre which mimics a single flower. Male flowers are organized in a scorpioid manner. Female flower is solitary and centrally located on a long pedicel. Male flower is represented only by stamens and female flower is represented only by pistil. Cyathium may be actinomorphic (Example: Euphorbia) or zygomorphic (Example: Pedilanthus) Nectar is present in involucre.

2. Hypanthodium: Receptacle is a hollow, globose structure consisting unisexual flowers present on the inner wall of the receptacle. Receptacle is closed except a small opening called ostiole which is covered by a series of bracts. Male flowers are present nearer to the ostiole, female and neutral flowers are found in a mixed manner from middle below. Example: Ficus sp. (Banyan and Pipal).

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Brinjal fruit has persistent calyx. Have you ever noticed the same in any other fruits? Name them.
Answer:
Tomato, Lady’s finger, guava and chilli also have persistent calyx.

Question 2.
Whether parthenocarpic fruits develop endosperm? Why?
Answer:
No, parthenocarpic fruits are developed without fertilization, but endosperm will form only after fertilization. So parthenocarpic fruits do not have endosperm.

Question 3.
Ovary develops into fruit after fertilization. While eating an Apple which part do you eat? Explain.
Answer:
Apple belongs to false fruit. In false fruits, apart from the ovary, non – carpellary parts also develop into fruit. In apple, the thalamus develops into fleshy edible part.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 4.
Cremocarp and Carcerulus both are schizocarpic fruits yet they differ. How?
Answer:
Cremocarp:

  1. Fruit develops from syncarpous inferior ovary.
  2. Ripened fruit split into two, one – seeded segments called mericarps.

Carcerulus:

  1. Fruit develops from syncarpous superior ovary.
  2. Ripened fruit split into four, one – seeded segments called nutlets.

Question 5.
Mango and coconut are ‘drupe’ type of fruits. In Mango, the edible part is fleshy mesocarp. What does the milk of tender coconut represent?
Answer:
Endosperm is the liquid (milk) potable part of tender coconut, which is rich in nutrients and is formed as a result of triple fusion.

Question 6.
Pick out correct ratio of the male flower to female flower in cyathium inflorescence and explain it?
(a) one : one
(b) one : many
(c) many : many and
(d) many : one.
Answer:
(a) One : one – Cyathium has single female flower represented by pistil and male flower represented by stamen.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 7.
Pollen differs from pollinium. How?
Answer:
Pollen are microspores which produces male gametes, whereas pollinium refers to the single mass of fused pollen grains.

Question 8.
Sunflower is not a flower – Justify your answer.
Answer:
Sunflower is actually an inflorescence not a single flower. The inflorescence of sunflower is capitulum composed of disc florets and ray florets.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 4 Reproductive Morphology

Question 9.
Flower is a modified shoot for reproduction – Give possible evidence.
Answer:
Modified shoot for reproduction:

  • Floral leaves (sepals and petals) are modified leaves.
  • Floral and vegetative buds both emerge either in terminal or axillary position.
  • Foliage leaves and floral leaves have identical arrangement on stem.

Question 10.
Is tomato a fruit or vegetable? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, tomato is a fruit. Because it develops from the ripened ovary and bears seeds, whereas vegetable refers to all other plant parts like root, stem and leaves.

Question 11.
What is caruncle? Where it is seen? How it helps the plant?
Answer:
Caruncle is the fleshy outgrowth at the base of seed. Usually caruncle helps in the seed dispersal, particularly by ants (Myrmecophily).

Question 12.
Both the prefixes (Uni – and Mono -) have the same meaning i.e. one in number. Does it mean that unisexual and monoecious are the same?
Answer:
That unisexual and monoecious:

  1. Unisexual refers to the sex of flower (i.e. whether it has anther or carpel).
  2. Monoecious refers to the plant bearing both the sexes in their flowers.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 14 Respiration Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The number of ATP molecules formed by complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid is:
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 2.
During oxidation of two molecules of cytosolic NADH + H+, number of ATP molecules produced in plants are:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 3.
The compound which links glycolysis and Krebs cycle is:
(a) succinic acid
(b) pyruvic acid
(c) acetyl CoA
(d) citric acid
Answer:
(c) acetyl CoA

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
Reason (R): Succinyl CoA is phosphorylated into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation.
(a) A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A
(b) A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A

Question 5.
Which of the following reaction is not . involved in Krebs cycle.
(a) Shifting of phosphate from 3C to 2C
(b) Splitting of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate of into two molecules 3C compounds.
(c) Dephosphorylation from the substrates
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 6.
What are enzymes involved in phosphorylation and dephosphorylation reactions in EMP pathway?
Answer:
(i) Enzymes involved phosphorylation in EMP pathway:

  • Hexokinase
  • Phospho – fructokinase
  • Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate dehydrogenase

(ii) Enzymes involved in dephosphorylation in EMP pathway:

  • Phospho glycerate kinase,
  • Pyruvate kinase

Question 7.
Respiratory quotient is zero in succulent plants. Why?
Answer:
In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO2 but O2 is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 8.
Explain the reactions taking place in mitochondrial inner membrane.
Answer:
In plants, an additional NADH dehydrogenase (External) complex is present on the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria which can oxidise cytosolic NADH + H+. Ubiquinone (UQ) or Coenzyme Quinone (Co Q) is a small, lipid soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria.

Question 9.
What is the name of alternate way of glucose breakdown? Explain the process involved in it?
Answer:
During respiration breakdown of glucose in cytosol occurs both by glycolysis (about 2 / 3) as well as by oxidative pentose phosphate pathway (about 1 / 3). Pentose phosphate pathway was described by Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann (1938). Hence, it is also called Warburg – Dickens – Lipmann pathway. It takes place in cytoplasm of mature plant cells. It is an alternate way for breakdown of glucose.

It is also known as Hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP Shunt) or Direct Oxidative Pathway. It consists of two phases, oxidative phase and non – oxidative phase. The oxidative events convert six molecules of six carbon Glucose – 6 – phosphate to 6 molecules of five carbon sugar Ribulose – 5 phosphate with loss of 6CO2 molecules and generation of 12 NADPH + H+ (not NADH). The remaining reactions known as non – oxidative pathway, convert Ribulose – 5 – phosphate molecules to various intermediates such as Ribose – 5 – phosphate(5C), Xylulose – 5 – phosphate(5C), Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate(3C), Sedoheptulose – 7 – Phosphate (7C), and Erythrose – 4 – phosphate (4C). Finally, five molecules of glucose – 6 – phosphate is regenerated. The overall reaction is:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 1
The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose – 6 – phosphate yield 6CO2 and 12 NADPH + H+. The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme which is inhibited by high ratio of NADPH to NADP+.

Question 10.
How will you calculate net products of one sucrose molecule upon complete oxidation during aerobic respiration as per recent view?
Answer:
When the cost of transport of ATPs from matrix into the cytosol is considered, the number will be 2.5 ATPs for each NADH + H+ and 1.5 ATPs for each FADH2 oxidised during electron transport system. Therefore, in plant cells net yield of 30 ATP molecules for complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose. But in those animal cells (showing malate shuttle mechanism) net yield will be 32 ATP molecules. Since sucrose molecule gives, two molecules of glucose and net ATP in plant cell will be 30 × 2 = 60. In animal cell it will be 32 × 2 = 64.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Respiration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose the correct answer (1 Mark)
Question 1.
The term respiration was coined by:
(a) Lamark
(b) Kerb
(c) Pepys
(d) Blackman
Answer:
(c) Pepys

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 2.
In floating respiration the substrates are:
(a) carbohydrate or protein
(b) carbohydrate or fat
(c) protein or fat
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) carbohydrate or fat

Question 3.
The discovery of ATP was made by:
(a) Lipman
(b) Hans Adolt
(c) Warburg
(d) Karl Lohman
Answer:
(d) Karl Lohman

Question 4.
The end product of glycolysis is:
(a) pyruvate
(b) ethanol
(c) malate
(d) succinate
Answer:
(a) pyruvate

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 5.
On hydrolysis, one molecule of ATP releases energy of:
(a) 8.2 K cal
(b) 32.3 kJ
(c) 7.3 K cal
(d) 7.8 K cal
Answer:
(c) 7.3 K cal

Question 6.
Which of the following is known as terminal oxidation:
(a) glycolysis
(b) electron transport chain
(c) Kreb’s cycle
(d) pyruvate oxidation
Answer:
(b) electron transport chain

Question 7.
Identify the link reaction:
(a) conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid
(b) conversion of glucose into ethanol
(c) conversion of acetyl CoA into CO2 and water
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A
Answer:
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 8.
Who was awarded Nobel prize in 1953 for the discovery of TCA cycle?
(a) Lipmann
(b) Hans Adolf Kreb
(c) Petermitchell
(d) Dickens
Answer:
(b) Hans Adolf Kreb

Question 9.
Kreb’s cycle is a:
(a) catabolic pathway
(b) anabolic pathway
(c) amphibolic pathway
(d) hydrolytic pathway
Answer:
(c) amphibolic pathway

Question 10.
Electron transport system during aerobic respiration takes place in:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) chloroplast
(d) golgi apparatus
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 11.
The oxidation of one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to:
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 3 ATP
(c) 4 ATP
(d) 2.5 ATP
Answer:
(b) 3 ATP

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 12.
In aerobic prokaryotes each molecule of glucose produces:
(a) 36 ATP
(b) 32 ATP
(c) 34 ATP
(d) 38 ATP
Answer:
(d) 38 ATP

Question 13.
Cyanide acts as electron transport chain inhibitor by preventing:
(a) synthesis of ATP from ADP
(b) flow of electrons from NADH + H+
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a3 to O2
(d) oxidative phosphorylation
Answer:
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a3 to O2

Question 14.
Respiratory quotient for oleic acid is:
(a) 0.69
(b) 0.71
(c) 0.80
(d) 0.36
Answer:
(b) 0.71

Question 15.
End products of fermentation in yeast is:
(a) pyruvic acid and CO2
(b) lactic acid qnd CO2
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO2
(d) mixed acid and CO2
Answer:
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO2

Question 16.
The end products of mixed acid fermentation in enterobacteriaceae are:
(a) lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid, CO2 and H2
(b) lactic acid, formic acid and CO2
(c) lactic acid, ethanol, CO2 and O2
(d) ethanol, formic acid, CO2 and H2
Answer:
(a) lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid, CO2 and H2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 17.
The external factors that affect the respiration are:
(a) temperature, insufficient O2 and amount of protoplasm
(b) temperature, insufficient O2 and high concentration of CO2
(c) temperature, high concentration of CO2 and respiratory substrate
(d) temperature, high concentration of CO2 and amount of protoplasm
Answer:
(b) temperature, insufficient O2 and high concentration of CO2

Question 18.
Pentose phosphate pathway was described by:
(a) Pepys and Black man
(b) Kreb and Embden
(c) Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann
(d) Warburg and Pamas
Answer:
(c) Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann

Question 19.
The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by the enzyme:
(a) glucose, 1, 6 diphosphate dehydrogenase
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) fructose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 20.
In pentose phosphate pathway the glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme is inhibited by high ratio of:
(a) FADH to FAD
(b) glucose to glucose – 6 – phosphate
(c) NADPH to NADP
(d) GTPH to GTP
Answer:
(c) NADPH to NADP

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 21.
In plant tissue erythrose is used for the synthesis of:
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Xanthophill
(c) Erythrocin
(d) Arithocyanin
Answer:
(d) Arithocyanin

Question 22.
As per the recent view, when a glucose molecule is completely aerobically oxidised, the net yield of ATP in plant cell is:
(a) 38
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 30

Question 23.
Identify the electron transport inhibitor:
(a) phosphophenol
(b) dinitrophenol
(c) xylene
(d) indol acetic acid
Answer:
(b) dinitrophenol

Question 24.
The phenomenon of climacteric is present in:
(a) banana
(b) coconut
(c) cauli flower
(d) brinjal
Answer:
(a) banana

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 25.
Cyanide resistant respiration is known to generate heat in thermogenic tissues as high as:
(a) 35° C
(b) 38° C
(c) 40° C
(d) 51° C
Answer:
(d) 51° C

Question 26.
Match the following:

Substrate

RQ

A. Palmitic acid (i) 1.6
B. Oleic acid (ii) 4.0
C. Tartaric acid (iii) 0.36
D. Oxalic acid (iv) 0.71

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii); C – (i); D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
(c) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (iii)
(d) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (ii)
Answer:
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)

Question 27.
Indicate the correct statement:
(a) In Bryophyllum, carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid
(b) In opuntia, the Respiratory Quotient value is 0.5
(c) Alcoholic fermentation takes place in enterobacteriaceae
(d) Muscles of vertebrate does not have lactate dehydrogenase enzyme
Answer:
(a) In Bryophyllum, carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 28.
The order of aerobic respiration in plant cell is:
(a) glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, pyruvate oxidation and electron transport chain
(b) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidate, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain
(c) pyruvate oxidation, glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain
(d) none of the above order
Answer:
(b) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidate, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain

Question 29.
The complete reactions of glycolysis take place in:
(a) mitochondria
(b) cristae
(c) cytoplasm
(d) outer membrane of mitochondria
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 30.
The Co – enzyme quinone is a proton carrier located within:
(a) outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) cytoplasm
(c) inner membrane of mitochondria
(d) matrix of mitochondria
Answer:
(c) inner membrane of mitochondria

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 31.
How many molecules of CO2 are produced during link reaction:
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 32.
In the case of ground nut, during seed germination they use:
(a) carbohydrate as respiratory substrate
(b) fat alone as respiratory substrate
(c) fat and protein as respiratory substrate
(d) protein alone as respiratory substrate
Answer:
(c) fat and protein as respiratory substrate

Question 33.
Lactic acid fermentation takes place in:
(a) yeast
(b) bacillus
(c) enterobacteriaceae
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) bacillus

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 34.
The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose-6-phosphate in pentose phosphate pathway yield:
(a) 6 CO2 and 12 NADPH + H+
(b) 6 CO2 and 10 NADPH + H+
(c) 8 CO2 and 16 NADPH + H+
(d) 8 CO2 and 14 NADPH + H
Answer:
(a) 6 CO2 and 12 NADPH + H+

Question 35.
Ribose – 5 – phosphate and its derivatives are used in the synthesis of:
(a) lignin
(b) coenzyme A
(c) anthocyanin
(d) xanthophyll
Answer:
(b) coenzyme A

II. Answer the following (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define respiration?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O2 is taken in and CO2 is liberated.

Question 2.
What is meant by protoplasmic respiration?
Answer:
Respiration utilizing protein as a respiratory substrate, it is called protoplasmic respiration. Protoplasmic respiration is rare and it depletes structural and functional proteins of protoplasm and liberates toxic ammonia.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 3.
What do you understand by compensation of point?
Answer:
The point at which CO2 released in respiration is exactly compensated by CO2 fixed in photosynthesis that means no net gaseous exchange takes place, it is called compensation point.

Question 4.
Explain briefly about aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Respiration occurring in the presence of oxygen is called aerobic respiration. During aerobic respiration, food materials like carbohydrates, fats and proteins are completely oxidised into CO2, H2O and energy is released.

Question 5.
What is anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
In the absence of molecular oxygen glucose is incompletely degraded into either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid. It includes two steps:

  1. Glycolysis
  2. Fermentation

Question 6.
What do you know about transition reaction?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration the pyruvate with coenzyme A is oxidatively decarboxylated into acetyl CoA by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. This reaction is irreversible and produces two molecules of NADH + H+ and 2CO2. It is also called transition reaction or Link reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 7.
Who is Sir Hans Adolf Krebs?
Answer:
Sir Hans Adolf Krebs was born in Germany on 25th August 1900. He was awarded Nobel Prize for his discovery of Citric acid cycle in Physiology in 1953.

Question 8.
Explain briefly about amphibolic pathway.
Answer:
Krebs cycle is primarily a catabolic pathway, but it provides precursors for various biosynthetic pathways thereby an anabolic pathway too. Hence, it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question 9.
Mention the role of NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in electron transport system.
Answer:
NADH dehydrogenase contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non – heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe – S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADH (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 10.
What is oxidative phosphorylation?
Answer:
The transfer of electrons from reduced coenzyme NADH to oxygen via complexes I to IV is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) which is called Oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 11.
Mention any two electron transport chain inhibitors.
Answer:
Two electron transport chain inhibitors:

  1. 2, 4 DNP (Dinitrophenol) – It prevents synthesis of ATP from ADP, as it directs electrons from Co Q to O2.
  2. Cyanide – It prevents flow of electrons from Cytochrome a3 to O2.

Question 12.
Define respiratory quotient.
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide given out and volume of oxygen taken in during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient.

Question 13.
What are the significances of Respiratory Quotient?
Answer:
The significances of Respiratory Quotient:

  1. RQ value indicates which type of respiration occurs in living cells, either aerobic or anaerobic.
  2. It also helps to know which type of respiratory substrate is involved.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 14.
Explain the term alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
The cells of roots in water logged soil respire by alcoholic fermentation because of lack of oxygen by converting pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol and CO2. Many species of yeast (Saccharomyces) also respire anaerobically. This process takes place in two steps:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 2

Question 15.
Mention any two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
Two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation:

  1. In bakeries, it is used for preparing bread, cakes, biscuits.
  2. In beverage industries for preparing wine and alcoholic drinks.

Question 16.
What do you understand by the term mixed acid fermentation?
Answer:
This type of fermentation is a characteristic feature of Enterobacteriaceae and results in the formation of lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid and gases like CO2 and H2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 17.
Mention any two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants.
Answer:
Two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants:

  1. The amount of protoplasm and its state of activity influence the rate of respiration.
  2. Concentration of respiratory substrate is proportional to the rate of respiration.

Question 18.
What is the control mechanism of pentose phosphate pathway?
Answer:
The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme which is inhibited by high ratio of NADPH to NADP+.

Question 19.
Write down any two significance of pentose phosphate pathway.
Answer:
Two significance of pentose phosphate pathway:

  1. HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products,
  2. Coenzyme NADPH generated is used for reductive biosynthesis and counter damaging the effects of oxygen free radicals.

III. Answer the following (3 Marks)

Question 1.
In biosphere how do plants and animals are complementary systems, which are integrated to sustain life?
Answer:
In plants, oxygen enters through the stomata and it is transported to cells, where oxygen is utilized for energy production. Plants require carbon dioxide to survive, to produce carbohydrates and to release oxygen through photosynthesis, these oxygen molecules are inhaled by human through the nose, which reaches the lungs where oxygen is transported through the blood and it reaches cells. Cellular respiration takes place inside or the cell for obtaining energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 2.
What will happen, when you sleep under a tree during night time?
Answer:
If you are sleeping under a tree during night time you will feel difficulty in breathing. During night, plants take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide and as a result carbon dioxide will be abundant around the tree

Question 3.
What are the factors associated with compensation point in respiration?
Answer:
The two common factors associated with compensation point are CO2 and light. Based on this there are two types of compensation point. They are CO2 compensation point and light compensation point. C3 plants have compensation points ranging from 40 – 60 ppm (parts per million) CO2 while those of C4 plants ranges from 1 – 5 ppm CO2.

Question 4.
Why do you call ATP as universal energy currency of cell?
Answer:
ATP is a nucleotide consisting of a base- adenine, a pentose sugar – ribose and three phosphate groups. Out of three phosphate groups the last two are attached by high energy rich bonds. On hydrolysis, it releases energy (7.3 K cal or 30.6 KJ / ATP) and it is found in all living cells and hence it is called universal energy currency of the cell.

Question 5.
What is a redox reaction?
Answer:
NAD+ + 2e + 2H+ → NADH + H+
FAD + 2e + 2H+ → FADH2
When NAD+ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide – oxidised form) and FAD (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) pick up electrons and one or two hydrogen ions (protons), they get reduced to NADH + H+ and FADH2 respectively. When they drop electrons and hydrogen off they go back to their original form. The reaction in which NAD+ and FAD gain (reduction) or f lose (oxidation) electrons are called redox reaction (Oxidation reduction reaction). These reactions are important in cellular respiration.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 6.
Write down any three differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

  • It occurs in all living cells of higher organisms.
  • It requires oxygen for breaking the respiratory substrate.
  • The end products are CO2 and H2O.

Anaerobic Respiration:

  • It occurs yeast and some bacteria.
  • Oxygen is not required for breaking the respiratory substrate.
  • The end products are alcohol, and CO2 (or) lactic acid.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The significance of Kreb’s cycle:

  1. TCA cycle is to provide energy in the form of ATP for metabolism in plants.
  2. It provides carbon skeleton or raw material for various anabolic processes.
  3. Many intermediates of TCA cycle are further metabolised to produce amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids.
  4. Succinyl CoA is raw material for formation of chlorophylls, cytochrome, phytochrome and other pyrrole substances.
  5. α – ketoglutarate and oxaloacetate undergo reductive amination and produce amino acids.
  6. It acts as metabolic sink which plays a central role in intermediary metabolism.

Question 8.
Derive the respiratory quotient for carbohydrate as substrate in oxidative metabolism.
Answer:
The respiratory substrate is a carbohydrate, it will be completely oxidised in aerobic respiration and the value of the RQ will be equal to unity.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 3

Question 9.
Write down the characteristic of Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
The characteristic of Anaerobic respiration:

  1. Anaerobic respiration is less efficient than the aerobic respiration.
  2. Limited number of ATP molecules is generated per glucose molecule.
  3. It is characterized by the production of CO2 and it is used for Carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Question 10.
Distinguish between glycolysis and fermentation.
Answer:
Glycolysis:

  1. Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid.
  2. It takes place in the presence or absence of oxygen.
  3. Net gain is 2ATR
  4. 2 NADH + H+ molecules are produced.

Fermentation:

  1. Starts from pyruvic acid and is converted into alcohol or lactic acid.
  2. It takes place in the absence of oxygen.
  3. No net gain of ATP molecules.
  4. 2 NADH + H+ molecules are utilised.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 11.
Write down any three external factors, that affect respiration in plants.
Answer:
Three external factors, that affect respiration in plants:

  1. Optimum temperature for respiration is 30°C. At low temperatures and very high temperatures rate of respiration decreases.
  2. When sufficient amount of O2 is available the rate of aerobic respiration will be optimum and anaerobic respiration is completely stopped. This is called Extinction point.
  3. High concentration of CO2 reduces the rate of respiration

Question 12.
How alcoholic beverages like beer and wine is made?
Answer:
The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol takes place in malted barley and grapes through fermentation. Yeasts carryout this process under anaerobic conditions and this Conversion increases ethanol concentration. If the concentration increases, it’s toxic effect kills yeast cells .and the left out is called beer and wine respectively.

IV. Answer the following (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Give the schematic representation of glycolysis or EMP pathway.
Answer:
The schematic representation of glycolysis or EMP pathway:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 4

Question 2.
Write down the biochemical events in Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The biochemical events in Kreb’s cycle:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 5

Question 3.
Mention the schematic diagram of the various steps involved in pentose phosphate pathway.
Answer:
The schematic diagram of the various steps involved in pentose phosphate pathway:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 6

Question 4.
Describe the events in electron transport chain in plant cell.
Answer:
During glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle the respiratory substrates are oxidised at several steps and as a result many reduced coenzymes NADH + H+ and FADH2 are produced. These reduced coenzymes are transported to inner membrane of mitochondria and are converted back to their oxidised forms produce electrons and protons. In mitochondria, the inner membrane is folded in the form of finger projections towards the matrix called cristae.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 14
In cristae many oxysomes (F1 particles) are present which have election transport carriers are present. According to Peter Mitchell’s Chemiosmotic theory this electron transport is coupled to ATP synthesis. Electron and hydrogen (proton) transport takes place across four multiprotein complexes (I – IV). They are

(i) Complex – I (NADH dehydrogenase: It contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non – heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe – S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADH (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ).
NADH + H+ + UQ ⇌ NAD+ + UQH2
In plants, an additional NADH dehydrogenase (External) complex is present on the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria which can oxidise cytosolic NADH + H+ Ubiquinone (UQ) or Coenzyme Quinone (Co Q) is a small, lipid soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria.

(ii) Complex – II (Succinic dehydrogenase): It contains FAD flavoprotein is associated with non – heme iron Sulphur (Fe – S) protein. This complex receives electrons and protons from succinate in Krebs cycle and is converted into fumarate and passes to ubiquinone.
Succinate + UQ → Fumarate + UQH2

(iii) Complex – III (Cytochrome bc1 complex): This complex oxidises reduced ubiquinone (ubiquinol) and transfers the electrons through Cytochrome bc1 Complex (Iron Sulphur center bc1 complex) to cytochrome c. Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of inner membrane and act as a. mobile carrier to transfer electrons between complex III to complex IV.
UQH2 + 2Cyt coxidised  ⇌  UQ + 2Cyt creduced  + 2H+

(iv) Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase): This complex contains two copper centers (A and B) and cytochromes a and as. Complex IV is the terminal oxidase and brings about the reduction of 1/2 O2 to H2O. Two protons are needed to form a molecule of H2O (terminal oxidation).
2Cyt coxidised + 2H+ + 1/2 O⇌  2Cyt creduced + H2O

The transfer of electrons from reduced coenzyme NADH to oxygen via complexes I to IV is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) which is called Oxidative phosphorylation. The F0F1 – ATP synthase (also called complex V) consists of F0 and F1. F1 converts ADP and Pi to ATP and is attached to the matrix side of the inner membrane. F0 is present in inner membrane and acts as a channel through which protons come into matrix.

Oxidation of one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP and oxidation of one molecule FADH2 produces 2 molecules of ATP within a mitochondrion. But cytoplasmic NADH + H+ yields only two ATPs through external NADH dehydrogenase. Therefore, two reduced coenzyme (NADH + H+) molecules from glycolysis being extra mitochondrial will yield 2 × 2 = 4 ATP molecules instead of 6 ATPs. The Mechanism of mitochondrial ATP synthesis is based on Chemiosmotic hypothesis.

According to this theory electron carriers present in the inner mitochondrial membrane allow for the transfer of protons (H+). For the production of single ATP, 3 protons (H+) are needed. The terminal oxidation of external NADH bypasses the first phosphorylation site and hence only two ATP molecules are produced per external NADH oxidised through However, in those animal tissues in which malate shuttle mechanism is present, the oxidation of external NADH will yield almost 3 ATP molecules.

Complete oxidation of a glucose molecule in aerobic respiration results in the net gain of 36 ATP molecules in plants. Since huge amount of energy is generated in mitochondria in the form of ATP molecules they are called ‘power house of the cell’. In the case of aerobic prokaryotes due to lack of mitochondria each molecule of glucose produces 38 ATP molecules.

Question 5.
Define respiratory quotient. Explain the derivation of respiratory quotient for various substrates oxidised :
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide given out and volume of oxygen taken in during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient or Respiratory ratio. RQ value depends, upon respiratory substrates and their oxidation.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 13
(i) The respiratory substrate is a carbohydrate, it will be completely oxidised in aerobic respiration and the value of the RQ will be equal to unity.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 7
(ii) If the respiratory substrate is . a carbohydrate it will be incompletely oxidised when it goes through anaerobic respiration and the RQ value will be infinity.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 8
(iii) In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO2 but O2 is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 9
(iv) When respiratory substrate is protein or fat, then RQ will be less than unity.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 10
(v) When respiratory substrate is an organic acid the value of RQ will be more than unity.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 11

Question 6.
Describe an experiment to demonstrate the production of CO2 in aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Take small quantity of any seed (groundnut or bean seeds) and allow them to germinate by imbibing them. While they are germinating place them in a conical flask. A small glass tube containing 4 ml of freshly prepared Potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution is hung into the conical flask with the help of a thread and tightly close the one holed cork. Take a bent glass tube, the shorter end of which is inserted into the conical flask through the hole in the cork, while the longer end is dipped in a beaker containing water.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration 12
Observe the position of initial water level in bent glass tube. This experimental setup is kept for two hours and the seeds were allowed to germinate. After two hours, the level of water rises in the glass tube. It is because, the CO2 evolved during aerobic respiration by germinating seeds will be absorbed by KOH solution and the level of water will rise in the glass tube.
CO2 + 2KOH → K2CO3 + H2O
In the case of groundnut or bean seeds, the rise of water is relatively lesser because these seeds use fat and proteins as respiratory substrate and release a very small amount of CO2. But in the case of wheat grains, the rise in water level is greater because they use carbohydrate as respiratory substrate. When carbohydrates are used as substrate, equal amounts of CO2 and O2 are evolved and consumed.

Textbook Page No. 145

Question 1.
How many ATP molecules are produced from one sucrose molecule?
Answer:
One sucrose molecules gives rise to two glucose molecules. The net production of ATP during complete oxidation of one glucose molecule in plant cell is 36 ATP. Therefore one sucrose molecule yields 36 x 2 = 72 ATP molecules.
As per recent view in plants cells, one molecules of glucose, after complete aerobic oxidation yields only 30 ATP molecules and hence one sucrose molecule yield only 30 x 2 = 60 ATP molecules.

Textbook Page No. 156

Question 1.
Why Microorganisms respire anaerobically?
Answer:
Some of the microorganism live in environments devoid of oxygen and they have to adopt themselves in anoxic condition. Hence they respire anaerobically and they are called anaerobic microbes.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions 14 Respiration

Question 2.
Does anaerobic respiration take place in higher plants?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration some time occur in the root of some water – logged plants.

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