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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is an nalgesic?
(a) Streptornycin
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) Asprin
(d) Penicillin
Answer:
(c)Asprin

Question 2.
Dettol is the mixture of ……………
(a) Chioroxylenol and bithionol
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol
(c) phenol and iodine
(d) terpineol and bithionol
Answer:
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 3.
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics
(b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues
(c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant
(d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants
Answer:
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

Question 4.
Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from ……………..
(a) cellulose
(b) toluene
(c) cyclohexene
(d) starch
Answer:
(b) toluene

Question 5.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called …………….
(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets
Answer:
(a) antagonists

Question 6.
Aspirin is a/an ……………..
(a) acetylsalicylic acid
(b) benzoyl salicylic acid
(c) chlorobenzoic acid
(d) anthranilic acid
Answer:
(a) acetylsalicylic acid

Question 7.
Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-1
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-2

Question 8.
Natural rubber has ………..
(a) alternate cis – and trans – configuration
(b) random cis – and trans-configuration
(c) all cis – configuration
(d) all trans – configuration
Answer:
(c) all cis – conflguration

Question 9.
Nylon is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(a) polyamide

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 10.
Terylene is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(c) polyester

Question 11.
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-3
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-4

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?
(a) HDPE
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 6
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 13.
Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is ………….
(a) ethane
(b) prop – 2 – enenitrile
(c) chioroethene
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane
Answer:
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane

Question 14.
Assertion: 2 – methyl – I ,3 – butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through aniònic addition polymerisation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is ………….
(a) novesirol
(b) seldane
(c) salvarsan
(d) Chioramphenicol
Answer:
(a) novestrol

Question 16.
The drug used to induce sleep is …………..
(a) paracetamol
(b) bithional
(c) chioroquine
(d) equanil
Answer:
(d) equanil

Question 17.
Which of the following is a co – polymer?
(a) Orlon
(b) PVC
(c) Teflon
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 18.
The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is ……………
(a) polystyrene
(b) PAN
(c) polyester
(d) polythene
Answer:
(b) PAN

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 19.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
(b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
(c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
Answer:
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Question 20.
A mixture of chioroxylenol and terpinecol acts as ……………
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(a) antiseptic

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which chemical is responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol?
Answer:
1. Chloroxylenol and

2. Terpineol are the chemicals responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol. But among these two, chloroxylenol plays more important role. Chioroxylenol is an antiseptic and disinfectant which is used for skin disinfection and cleaning surgical instruments.

Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotics is a chemical substance produced by one microorganism, that selectively inhibits the growth of another micro organism. Example : penicillins and cephalosporins.

Question 3.
Name one substance which can act as both analgesic and antipyretic.
Answer:
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a chemical substance which lowers body temperature (to normal) and also reduces body pain. Therefore it acts as both antipyretic and analgesic.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 4.
Write a note on synthetic detergents.
Answer:
1. Synthetic detergents are formulated products containing either sodium salts of alkyl hydrogen suiphates or sodium salts of long chain alkyL benzene suiphonic acids.

2. Synthetic detergents are three types. They are

  • anionic detergents – sodium lauryl sulphate.
  • Cationic detergents – n – hexadecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride.
  • Non-ionic detergents – Pentaerythrityl stearate.

3. Synthetic detergents can be used even in hard water, while soaps cannot be used in hard water.

4. The cleansing action of detergents are similar to the cleansing action of soaps.

5. When detergents are dissolved in water its hydrocarbon part attaches itself to grease and oil particles. Whereas its ionic part remains attached to water. Therefore when dirty clothes are agitated in solution of detergents then dirty particles sticks to the hydrocarbon part of detergents and at the same time the water loving ionic part pulls away this dirt from clothes.

Question 5.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Answer:
An tisep tics

  1. Antiseptics are chemical substance which prevent the growth of micro organizers and may even kill them but are not harmful to living tissues.
  2. They are generally applied to living tissues such as wounds, cuts bulks and diseased surfaces.
  3. All the antiseptics are disinfectants.
  4. They are not ingested or swallowed.
  5. e.g., Povidone – iodine, Benzalkonium – Chloride

Disinfectants

  1. Disinfectants are chemical substances which kill microorganism or stop their growth but are harmful to human tissues.
  2. Disinfectants are applied to inanimated objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments etc.
  3. All the disinfectants are not antiseptics.
  4. They can be injected or swallowed.
  5. e.g. Alcohol, chlorine compunds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 6.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:
Food preservatives are chemical substances are capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of micro organisms.
Examples:

  1. Acetic acid is used mainly as a preservative for preparation of pickles.
  2. Sodium meta suiphite is used as preservative for fresh vegetables and fruits.
  3. Sodium benzoate is used as preservative for juices.

Question 7.
Why do soaps not work ¡n hard water?
Answer:
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long – chain falty acids. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. When soaps are dissolved in hard water, these ions displace sodium or potassium from insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids. These insoluble salts separate as scum.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-5
This is the reason why soaps do not work in hard water.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 8.
What are drugs? How are they classified?
Answer:
A drug is a substance that is used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefits of the recipient. it is used for the purpose of diagnosis, prevention cure or relief of a disease.

Classification of drugs:
Drugs care classified based on their proportions such as chemical structure, pharmacological effect, target system, site of action etc.

1. Classification based on the chemical structure:
In this classification, drugs with a common chemical skelton are classified into a single group. For example, ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin etc. all have similar structure and are classified into a single group called penicillin.

Similarly we have other group of drugs such as opiates, steroids, catecholamines etc. Compounds having similar chemical structure are expected to have similar chemical properties. However, their biological actions are not always similar.

2. Classification based on the pharmacological effect:

  • In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on their biological effect that they produce on the recipient.
  • For example, the medicines that have the ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as antibiotics.
  • This kind of grouping will provide the full range of drugs that can be used for a particular disease.

3. Classification based on the target system:

  • In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system (or) process that they target in the recipient.
  • This classification is more specific than the pharmacological classification.
  • For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erythromycin inhibit the protein synthesis (target) in bacteria and are classified in a same group. However their mode of action is different.
  • Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new aminoacids to the protein.

4. Classification based on the site of action:

  1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors etc, which are referred as drug targets.
  2. We can classify the drug based on the drug target with which it binds.
  3. This classification is highly specific compared to the others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 9.
How the tranquilizers work in body?
Answer:

  1. They are neurologically active drugs.
  2. Tranquilizer acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransitter dopamine in the brain.
  3. This drug is used for treatment of stress anxiety, depression, sleep disorders and severe mental diseases like schizophrenia.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 10.
Write the structural formula of aspirin.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-6

Question 11.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
Answer:
Mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents:
1. The cleansing action of both soaps and detergents from their ability to lower the surface tension of water, to emulsify oil or grease and to hold them in a suspension in water.

2. This ability is due to the structure of soaps and detergents.

3. In water a sodium soap dissolves to form soap anions and sodium cations. For example, the following chemical equation shows the ionisation of sodium palmitate.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-7

4. A soap anion consists of a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxylate group on one end. The hydrocarbon chain, which is hydrophobic, is soluble in oils or grease. The ionic part is the carboxylate group which is hydrophilic, is soluble in water.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-8

5. In water, detergent dissolves to form detergent anions and sodium cations. For example the following chemical equations show the ionisation of sodium alkyl sulphate and sodium alkyl benzene sulphate.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-9

6. The following explains the cleansing action of a soap or detergent on a piece of cloth with a greasy stain.

  1. A soap or detergent anion consists of a hydrophobic part and a hydrophilic part.
  2. Soap or detergent reduces the surface tension of water. Therefore the surface of the cloth is wetted thoroughly.
  3. The hydrophobic parts of the soap or detergents anions are soluble in grease.
  4. The hydrophilic parts of the anions are soluble in water.
  5. Scrubbing or mechanical agitation helps to pull the grease away from the cloth and the grease is broken into smaller droplets.
  6. Repulsion between the droplets causes the droplets to be suspended in water, fonning an emulsion.
  7. Thus the droplets do not coagulate or,redeposit on the cloth. Rinsing washes away the droplets.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 12.
Which sweetening agent are used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient?
Answer:
Artificial sweetening agents such as,

  1. saccharin
  2. Alitame
  3. Aspartame

can be used in preparing sweets for diabetic patients.

Question 13.
What are narcotic and non – narcotic drugs. Give examples.
Answer:
1. Narcotic drug is an addictive drug that reduces pain, induces sleep and may alter mood or behaviour. Example: Morphine and codeine.

2. Non – narcotic drug are chemical substance (medications) used to control pain and inflammation. They are available at drugstores without a prescription or by prescription when given at higher doses. Example: Acetaminophen and paracetamol.

Question 14.
What are anti fertility drugs? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially drugs are chemical substances which suppress the action of hormones that promote pregnancy. These drugs actually reduce the chances of pregnancy and act as a protection. Antifertility drugs are made up of derivatives of synthetic progesterone or a combination of derivatives of oestrogen and progesterone. Example : Ethynylestradiol, menstranol and norcthynodrel etc.

Question 15.
Write a note on co – polymer.
Answer:

  1. A polymer containing two or more different kinds of monomer units is called a co-polymer.
  2. Co – polymers have properties quite different from the homopolymers.
  3. The structural units of co-polymers are derived from the different monomers may be present in regular, alternation or in random order or strings of several units of one kind may alternate with strings of another.
  4. For example, Buna – S, Buna – N, Nylon – 6,6 etc. Buna – S contains styrene and butadiene monomer units.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 16.
What are bio degradable polymers? Give examples.
Answer:

  1. The materials that are readily decomposed by micro organisms in the environment are called biodegradable.
  2. Natural polymers degrade on their own after certain period of time but the synthetic polymers do not.
  3. The biopolymers which disintergrates by themselves in biological systems during a
  4. certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation are called biodegradable polymers.

Examples:

  1. Polyhydroxy butyrate (PHB)
  2. Polyhydroxy butyrate – co – hydroxyl valerate (PHBV)
  3. Polylactic acid (PLA)

Question 17.
How is terylene prepared?
Answer:
The monomers are ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid or dimethýlterephthalate. When these monomers are mixed and heated at 500K in the presence of zinc acetate and antimonytrioxide catalyst, terylene (or dacron) is formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-10

Question 18.
Write a note on vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:

  1. Natural rubber is very soft and brisky. it has high water absorption capacity and low tensile strength. Its properties can be improved by a process called vulcanization.
  2. Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 polyisoprene chains through disuiphide ( – S – S – ) bonds.
  3. The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization. When 3 to 10% sulphur is used the resultant rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.
  4. Following properties of rubber CH3

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-11

Question 19.
Classify the following as linear, branched or cross linked polymers …………………..

  1. Bakelite
  2. Nylon
  3. polvthene

Answer:

  1. Bakelite – cross linked polymer
  2. Nylon – Linear polymer
  3. Polythene – Linear polymer

Question 20.
Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting.
Answer:
Difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting:
Thermoplastic

  1. They soften on heating and harden on cooling, and they can be remoulded.
  2. They consists of linear long çhain polymers and low molecular weights polymers.
  3. All the polymer chains are held together by weak Vanderwaals forces.
  4. They are weak, soft and less brittle.
  5. They are formed by additon polymerisation
  6. They are soluble in organic solvents.
  7. Example: PVC, polythene, polystrene etc.

Thermosetting

  1. They do not soften on heating and they cannot be remoulded.
  2. The consist of three dimensional network structure and high molecular weight polymers.
  3. All the polymer chains are linked by strong covalent.
  4. They are strong, hard and more brittle.
  5. They are formed by condensation polymerisation.
  6. They are insoluble in organic solvents.
  7. Example: Bakelite, melamine etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 1 mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The substance that is used to modify physiological system for the benefit of the recipient is called …………….
(a) a drug
(b) a dye
(c) a food preservative
(d) soap
Answer:
(a) a drug

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 2.
Which one interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response?
(a) Detergent
(b) cleansing agent
(c) medicine
(d) food preservative
Answer:
(c) medicine

Question 3.
The ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and a minimum curative dose is called …………..
(a) iso electric point
(b) therapeutic index
(c) critical point
(d) iso thermal point
Answer:
(b) therapeutic index

Question 4.
Which one of the following does not belong to penicillin group?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) catecholamine
(d) mithicillin
Answer:
(c) catecholamine

Question 5.
Which of the following does belongs to penicillin group drugs?
(a) Mithicillin
(b) opiates
(c) steroids
(d) catecholamine
Answer:
(a) Mithicillin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) atenolol
(c) amlodipine
(d) propranolol
Answer:
(a) erythromycin

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) amoxicillin
(b) cefixime
(c) amlodipine
(d) ampiciflin
Answer:
(c) amlodipine

Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amoxicillin
(c) cefixime
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(a) atenolol

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belongs to antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amlodipine
(c) propranolol
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 10.
Which one of the following inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis?
(a) streptomycin
(b) erythromycin
(c) atenolol
(d) amlodipine
Answer:
(a) streptomycin

Question 11.
Which one of the following prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein?
(a) atenolol
(b) streptomycin
(c) erythromycin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(c) erythromycin

Question 12.
Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) folic cid
(d) sodium benzoate
Answer:
(b) sulphanilamide

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 13.
Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA
(b) DHPS
(c) TNB
(d) GTN
Answer:
(a) PABA

Question 14.
Which of the following is called PABA?
Answer:
(a) p – nitro benzanilic acid
(b) p – amino butyric acid
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid
(d) p – amido benzene suiphonyl chloride
Answer:
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids
(b) antioxidant
(c) antibiotics
(d) antagonists
Answer:
(d) antagonists

Question 16.
Which of the following is used in the reduced sleepiness?
(a) caffeine
(b) morphine
(c) suiphanilide
(d) p – aminobenzene sulphonic acid
Answer:
(a) caffeine

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform
(b) chloropicrin
(c) morphine
(d) coffeine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an example of antacid?
(a) Histamine
(b) cimetidine
(c) ranitidine
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 19.
Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) ranitidine
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 20.
Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) antibiotic
(c) analgesic
(d) opioids
Answer:
(a) Tranquilizer

Question 21.
Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine
(b) diazepam
(c) histamine
(d) PABA
Answer:
(b) diazepam

Question 22.
Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium
(b) cimetidinc
(c) chiorofom
(d) adenosine
Answer:
(a) valium

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic
(b) antiseptic
(c) antioxidant
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(d) antipyretic

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an anti inflamatory drug?
(a) morphine
(b) coheinc
(c) aspirin
(d) histidine
Answer:
(c) aspirin

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used to cure headache, muscle strain, arthritis?
(a) acetaminophen
(b) ibuprofen
(c) aspirin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 26.
Which one of the foLlowing is used in the prevention of heart attacks?
(a) aspirin
(b) ibuprofen
(c) paracetamol
(d) morphine
Answer:
(a) aspirin

Question 27.
Which one of the following is an example of an àntipyretic?
(a) acetyl salicylic acid
(b) methyl salicylate
(c) paraldehyde
(d) diethyl ether
Answer:
(a) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 28.
Which one of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory drug?
(a) aspirin
(b) morphine
(c) haloperidol
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(d) ibuprofen

Question 29.
Which of the following is a major tranquilizer?
(a) diazepam
(b) valium
(c) clozapine
(d) alprazolm
Answer:
(c) clozapine

Question 30.
Which of the following is a minor tranquilizer?
(a) haloperidol
(b) clozapine
(c) morphine
(d) valium
Answer:
(d) valium

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 31.
Consider the following statements
(i) Tranquilizers act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
(ii) Histamines stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
(iii) The antibiotic cimetidine inhibits the bacterial growth.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (¡) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 32.
Consider the following statements
(i) Acetaminophen reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin
(ii) opioids relieve pain and produce sleep and are addictive
(iii) Aspirin finds useful in the pain of terminal cancer.
Which of the above statement is/arc not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 33.
Which of the following are addictive and poisonous drug?
(a) ibuprofen
(b) aspirin
(c) morphine
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 34.
Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine
(b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid
(d) histidine, ranitidine
Answer:
(a) morphine, codeine

Question 35.
Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine
(b) Propofol
(c) iso flurane
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(a) lidocaine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 36.
Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol
(b) isoflurane
(c) ranitidine
(d) omeprazole
Answer:
(b) isoflurane

Question 37.
Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia
(b) lidocaine
(c) omeprazole
(d) iso fharane
Answer:
(d) iso fharane

Question 38.
Which one of the following is an inhalational general anaesthetic?
(a) procain
(b) iso fiurane
(c) lidocaine
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(b) iso fiurane

Question 39.
Which one of the following is an antacid?
(a) omeprazole
(b) rabeprazole
(c) milk of magnesia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 40.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Propofol cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
(ii) Ibuprofen is used for major surgical procedures.
(iii) Lidocaine is used to relieve burning sensation in the chest / throat area.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 41.
Which one of the following is not an antacid?
(a) propofol
(b) ranitidine
(c) omeprazole
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(a) propofol

Question 42.
Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine
(b) ampicillin
(c) erythromycin
(d) milk of magnesia
Answer:
(a) cetrizine

Question 43.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis?
(a) eryLhromycin
(b) azithromycin
(c) penicillin
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Question 44.
Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and skin infections?
(a) ampicillin
(b) penicillin
(c) terfenadine
(d) azithromycin
Answer:
(d) azithromycin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 45.
Which one of the following is used to treat urinary tract infection and respiratory infections?
(a) doxycycline
(b) karamycin
(c) ciprolloxacin
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(c) ciprolloxacin

Question 46.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholera, acne vulgaris?
(a) fluoro quinolone
(b) aminoglycosides
(c) tetracycline
(d) macrolides
Answer:
(c) tetracycline

Question 47.
Which one of the following is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria?
(a) kanamycin
(b) gentamycin
(c) neomycin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase?
(a) doxy cycline
(b) kanamycin
(c) ciprofloxacin
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(c) ciprofloxacin

Question 49.
Which one of the following is an antiseptic?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) alcohol
(c) menstranol
(d) chlorine compounds
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen peroxide

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 50.
Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine
(b) ethynyles tradiol
(c) norethindrone
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(a) povidone – iodine

Question 51.
Consider the following statements
(i) Oestrogen, menstranol are synthetic hormones that suppresses ovulation / fertilisation,
(ii) Norethindrone used in birth control pills.
(iii) Chlorine compounds are used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 52.
Which one of the following is used as a preservative for the preparation of pickles and preservation of vegetables?
(a) sodium acetate
(b) acetic acid
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) salicylic acid
Answer:
(b) acetic acid

Question 53.
Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Palm oil
(c) sodium meta suiphite
(d) sulphur dioxide
Answer:
(c) sodium meta suiphite

Question 54.
Which one of the following is used as an emulsifier?
(a) sodium meta suiphite
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) sodium bi carbonate
Answer:
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 55.
Which method is used to preserve food?
(a) pasteurisation & irration
(b) chilling and freezing
(c) drying and dehydration
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 56.
Which one of the following act as an antioxidant?
(a) Palmîtic acid
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene

Question 57.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
(ii) Flouring agents reduces the aroma of the food.
(iii) Antioxidants produce the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 58.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Sorbitol
(b) mannitol
(c) xylitol
(d) cresol
Answer:
(d) cresol

Question 59.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Butyl hydroxy toluene
(b) Butylated hydroxy anisole
(c) Aspartame
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(c) Aspartame

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 60.
Identify the artificial sweeteners.
(a) Saccharin, sucralose
(b) culutaric acid, glycollic acid
(c) BHT, BHA
(d) GTN, TNG
Answer:
(a) Saccharin, sucralose

Question 61.
Glyceryl ester of long chain fatty acids are called …………..
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) antiseptic
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(a) soap

Question 62.
Which one of the following describes the quality of soap?
(a) TFT value
(b) TFM value
(c) PPM value
(d) TFP value
Answer:
(b) TFM value

Question 63.
Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) disinfectant
(d) antiseptic
Answer:
(b) detergent

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an anionic detergent?
(a) n – hexa decyl tri methyl ammonium chloride
(b) Peifla erythntyl stearate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) 3 – hydroxy – 2, 2 bis (hydroxy methyl) propyl heptonoate
Answer:
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 65.
Which of the following is an example of catìonic detergent?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) sodium pahnitate
(c) sodium dodecyl benzene suiphonate
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride
Answer:
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride

Question 66.
Which one of the following is an example of non-ionic detergent?
(a) sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) n – hexa decyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate
(d) N, N, N – trimethyl hexa decan – 1 – aminium chloride
Answer:
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate

Question 67.
Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk
(b) PVC, Polythene
(c) Buna – N, Buna – S
(d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
Answer:
(a) cellulose, silk

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 68.
Which one of the following is a synthetic rubber?
(a) Neoprene
(b) cellulose
(c) silk
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(a) Neoprene

Question 69.
Which one of the following is a semisynthetic polymer?
(a) poly isoprene
(b) viscose rayon
(c) nylon
(d) terylene
Answer:
(b) viscose rayon

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a cross linked polymer?
(a) poly propylene
(b) bakelite
(c) melamine
(d) urea formaldehyde
Answer:
(a) poly propylene

Question 71.
Identify the thermo setting plastic?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) neoprene
(c) melamine
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) melamine

Question 72.
Which of the following is a thermoplastic?
(a) bakelite
(b) melamine
(c) urea formaldehyde
(d) polystrene
Answer:
(d) polystrene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 73.
Which one of the following is an elastomer?
(a) nylon 6,6
(b) terylene
(c) buna – S
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) buna – S

Question 74.
Which one of the following is an example for addition polymer?
(a) polyethylene
(b) PVC
(c) teflon
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 75.
Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) polyester
(c) PVC
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) polyester

Question 76.
Which one of the following is not an additional polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 66
(d) teflon
Answer:
(c) Nylon 66

Question 77.
Consider the following statements
(i) Nylon-6, 6 are polymerchains form fibres by hydrogen bonding.
(ii) Thermoplastic become hard on heating and soft on cooling and cannot be remoulded.
(iii) Cellulose and silk are synthetic polymers.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct? ,
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 78.
Which one of the following is used as an free radical initiator in the preparation of polystrene?
(a) hydrogen peroxide
(b) methyl chloride
(c) Benzoyl peroxide
(d) Benzyl peroxide
Answer:
(c) Benzoyl peroxide

Question 79.
Which mechanism is followed in the synthesis of polystrene?
(a) free radical polymerisation
(b) cationic polymensation
(c) Anionic polymerisation
(d) SN1 mechanism

Question 80.
Which one of the polymer is used as insulation for cables, making toys?
(a) HDPE
(b) LDPE
(c) teflon
(d) orlon
Answer:
(b) LDPE

Question 81.
Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide
(b) zeigler natta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(b) zeigler natta catalyst

Question 82.
Identify the zeiglar natta catalyst.
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI
(b) (C2H5)4Pb + TiCl4
(c) AICl3 + HCI
(d) ZnCI2 + Cone. HCI
Answer:
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 83.
Which of the following is used to make bottles and pipes?
(a) LDPE
(b) Terylene
(c) PVC
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(a) LDPE

Question 84.
Which polymer is used in preparing non-sticking utensils?
(a) orlon
(b) PAN
(c) teflon
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(c) teflon

Question 85.
Which one of the following is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters?
(a) orlon
(b) terylene
(c) polyester
(d) nylon
Answer:
(a) orlon

Question 86.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of Nylon 6, 6?
(a) caprolactam + hydrazine
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine
(c) methanal + ammonia
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine

Question 87.
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) polyethylene
(d) terylene
Answer:
(c) polyethylene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 88.
Which one is used in the manufacture of nylon-6?
(a) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(b) succinic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid
(d) adipic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
Answer:
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid

Question 89.
Which one of the following is the other name of nylon 6, 6?
(a) poly urethane
(b) urotropine
(c) poly caprolactum
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide
Answer:
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide

Question 90.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of tyrecards fabrics?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) orlon
(d) dacron
Answer:
(b) nylon 6

Question 91.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of terylene?
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
(b) phthalic auhydride + phenol
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 92.
Name the catalyst used in the preparation of terylene?
(a) zeiglar natta catalyst
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide
(c) benzoyi peroxide
(d) ammonium persuiphate
Answer:
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide

Question 93.
Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) terylene

Question 94.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of bakelite?
(a) ethane 1, 2 – diol + benzene 1, 4 – dicarboxylic acid
(b) phenol + methanal
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) isoprene + methanal
Answer:
(b) phenol + methanal

Question 95.
Linear polymer of phenol formal dehyde is called
(a) novolac
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(a) novolac

Question 96.
Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac
(b) soft bakelite
(c) hard bakelite
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) navolac

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 97.
Which one of the following thermo setting plastic is used in paints?
(a) melamine
(b) hard bakelite
(c) navolac
(d) soft bakelite
Answer:
(c) navolac

Question 98.
Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde
(b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde
(d) navolac
Answer:
(b) melamine formal dehyde

Question 99.
What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanal
(b) melamine + methanal
(c) styrene + butadiene
(d) adipic acid + methanal
Answer:
(c) styrene + butadiene

Question 100.
Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon
(d) sulphur
Answer:
(d) sulphur

Question 101.
Which one of the following is a natural rubber?
(a) Buna-S
(b) Buna-N
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene

Question 102.
The raw material is used in the manufacture of ieoprene?
(a) isoprene
(b) chloroprene
(c) 1, 3 – buta diene
(d) vinyl chloride
Answer:
(b) chloroprene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 103.
Which one of the following rubber is used in the manufacture of chemical container and conveyer belts?
(a) Buna – N
(b) neo prene
(c) Buna – S
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(b) neo prene

Question 104.
The raw materials required for the manufacture of Buna – N are …………..
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene
(b) chloro prene + buta – 1, 3 – diene
(c) terephthalic acid + ethane 1, 2 – diol
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene

Question 105.
Which of the following are required to prepare Buna – S?
(a) vinyl cyanide + 1, 3 – butadiene
(b) chioro prene + buta -1, 3 – diene
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene
(d) isoprene + styrene
Answer:
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene

Question 106.
Which of the following used in medical field such as surgical sutures, 1asma substitute?
(a) PHBV
(b) PLA
(c) PCE
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 107.
Which one of the following is not an example of biodegradable plastic?
(a) polyhydroxy butyrate
(b) poly glycollic acid
(c) polythene
(d) poly caprolactone
Answer:
(c) polythene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 108.
Which of the following is an example for bio degradable plastic?
(a) polystyrene
(b) poly vinyl chloride
(c) bakelite
(d) polylactic acid
Answer:
(d) polylactic acid

Question 109.
Which one of the following is used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled release of drugs?
(a) PHB
(b) PHBV
(c) PGA
(d) PLA
Answer:
(b) PHBV

Question 110.
Glycine and e-amino caproic acid polymenses to give …………..
(a) glycyl amine
(b) nylon 6, 6
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6

Question 111.
Which one of the following is used in making automobiles and foot wear?
(a) Bun – S
(b) Buna – N
(c) natural rubber
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) Bun – S

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an insulator and making conveyor belts?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) neoprene
(d) Buna – N
Answer:
(c) neoprene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 113.
Which type of nylon is used in making brushes, synthetic fibres, parachute, ropes and carpets?
(a) nylon – 2
(b) nylon – 6
(c) nylon 6,6
(d) nylon – 2, nylon 6
Answer:
(c) nylon 6,6

Question 114.
Which one is used in making non-breakable cups and laminated sheets?
(a) bakelite
(b) urea formaldehyde
(c) PHBV
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) urea formaldehyde

Question 115.
Which of the polymer is used in making fibres, safety belts, lyre cords and ropes?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) Nylon
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) terylene

Question 116.
Identify the monomer of nylon – 2.
(a) adipic + Hexamethylene tetramine
(b) caprolactam
(c) vinyl chloride
(d) chioroprene
Answer:
(b) caprolactam

Question 117.
Which of the following is a fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) neoprene
(c) PVC
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) nylon

Question 118.
Identify the food preservative which is most commonly used by food producers?
(a) sodium cloride
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) baking soda
(d) benzoic acid
Answer:
(a) sodium cloride

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 119.
Which of the following act as an antiseptic and disinfectant respectiely?
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol
(b) 1% phenol, 0.2% phenol
(c) 2% phenol, 20% phenol
(d) 20% phenol, 2% phenol
Answer:
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol

Question 120.
Identify the narcotic which is used as an analgesic.
(a) phenol
(b) equanil
(c) morphine
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 121.
What type of drug pencillin is?
(a) anaesthetic
(b) antibiotic
(c) antipyretic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(b) antibiotic

Question 122.
Ranitidine is used as an …………
(a) antioxidant
(b) antiseptic
(c) antacid
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(c) antacid

Question 123.
Aspirin is chemically named as ………….
(a) methyl salicylate
(b) ethyl salicylate
(c) o – hydroxy benzoic acid
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(d) acetyl salicylic acid

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 124.
Which of the following can be used an analgesic without causing addiction and any modification?
(a) morphine
(b) n – acetyl paraminophenol
(c) diazepam
(d) tetra hydro catenol
Answer:
(c) diazepam

Question 125.
Tranquilisers are substances used for the treatment of ……………..
(a) cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) mental diseases
(d) blood infection
Answer:

Question 126.
Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-12
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-13

Question 127.
Which of the following represents a soap?
(a) C17H35COOk
(b) C17H35COOH
(c) C15H31COOOH
(d) (C17H35COO)2Ca
Answer:
(a) C17H35COOk

Question 128.
Which of the following drug is an analgesic?
(a) iodex
(b) valium
(c) analgin
(d) quinine
Answer:
(c) analgin

Question 129.
An antipyretic is …………
(a) chioro quinine
(b) paracetamol
(c) morphine
(d) ranitidine
Answer:
(b) paracetamol

Question 130.
Streptomycin is effective in the treatment of ……………
(a) tuberculosis
(b) malaria
(c) typhoid
(d) cholera
Answer:
(a) tuberculosis

Question 131.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc is ………………….
(a) streptomycin
(b) aspirin
(c) penicillin
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 132.
The substances which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called ………………..
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antioxidants
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(a) tranquilizers

Question 133.
The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is ……………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-14
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-15

Quesiton 134.
Which of the following acts as an antioxidant in edible oils?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Answer:
(d) Vitamin E

Question 135.
Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
(a) insulin
(b) inulin
(c) chioroquine
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(a) insulin

Question 136.
Which of the following terms means pain killer?
(a) antibiotics
(b) analgesic
(c) antiseptic
(d) antioxidant
Answer:
(b) analgesic

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 137.
The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste as the sugar and is stable at cooking temperature is …………….
(a) aspartame
(b) saccharin
(c) sucralose
(d) alitame
Answer:
(c) sucralose

Question 138.
The role of phosphate in detergent powder is …………..
(a) control pH level of the detergent water mixture
(b) remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from water that causes hardness of water
(c) provide whiteness to the fabric
(d) more soluble in soft water
Answer:
(b) remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from water that causes hardness of water

Question 139.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) oxytocin
(c) penicillin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(b) oxytocin

Question 140.
Commonly used antiseptic ‘dettoP is a mixture of …………..
(a) O – chloro phenozylenol + terpeneol
(b) O – cresol + terpenol
(c) phenol + terpeneol
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol
Answer:
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as ……………..
  2. The drug which interacts with macro molecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapautic and useful biological response is called ………………
  3. ……………..is a substance that is used to modifS’ or explore physiological systems for the benefit of the recepient.
  4. Higher the value of …………….. safer is the drug
  5. The medicines that have ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as ……………..
  6. Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called …………….. and those which are important for communication systems are called ……………..
  7. Many bacteria need …………….. in order to produce an important coenzyme, folic acid
  8. When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces ……………..
  9. Morphine that used as a pain killer suppress the …………….. that causes pain.
  10. Histames stimulate the secretion of …………….. by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
  11. …………….. acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neuro transmitter dopamine in the brain.
  12. …………….. reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
  13. …………….. are drugs that used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation
  14. …………….. relieve pain and produces steeps and they are additive.
  15. …………….. neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
  16. …………….. cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous SyStem.
  17. …………….. anaesthetics are often used for major surgical procedures.
  18. …………….. provide relief from allergic effects.
  19.  …………….. inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
  20. …………….. inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
  21. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms applied to living tissues.
  22. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms used on inanimate objects.
  23. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called ……………..
  24. Flavouring agents added to food enhance the …………….. of the food.
  25. …………….. are substances which retard the oxidative deteriorations of food.
  26. Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called ……………..
  27. Chemically soap is a …………….. or …………….. salt of higher fatty acids.
  28. …………….. is a sodium salt alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
  29. The quality of soap is described interrns of …………….. and the …………….. quantity in the soap better is its quality
  30. …………….. become soft on heating and hard on cooling and they can be remoulded.
  31. …………….. donot become soft on heating but set to an infusible mass upon heating.
  32. In the manufacture of Teflon. the monomer used is ……………..
  33. …………….. is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters
  34. …………….. is a monomer which polymerises to give nylon – 6.
  35. Para hydroxyl methyl phenols poíymerises to give a linear polymer called ……………..
  36. The monomer of natural rubber is ……………..
  37. For the vulcanization of natural rubber …………….. is used and heated to 100° 150°C.
  38. …………….. polymers are used in medical field such as surgical sutures, plasma substitute.
  39. A drug that binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function is called ……………..
  40. …………….. reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin-induced increase in temperature.

Answer:

  1. chemotheropy
  2. medicine
  3. Drug
  4. therapeutic index
  5. antibiotics
  6. enzymes, receptors
  7. PABA
  8. sleepiness
  9. neuro transmitters
  10. HCI
  11. Tranquilizers
  12. Analgesics
  13. Antipyretic
  14. Narcotic Analgegics (or) opioids
  15. Antacids
  16. General anaesthetics
  17. Inhalational general
  18. Antihistamines
  19. Antimicrobials
  20. Fluoroquinolones
  21. Antiseptic
  22. Disinfectants
  23. food additives
  24. aroma
  25. Antioxidant
  26. artificial sweatness
  27. sodium, potassium
  28. Detergent
  29. TFM, TFM
  30. Thermoplastic
  31. Thermosetting
  32. tetra fluoroethylene
  33. orIon (or) PAN
  34. Caprolactam
  35. novolac
  36. cis – isoprene (OR) 2 – methyl buta- 1, 3 – diene
  37. sulphur
  38. Biodegradable
  39. antagonists
  40. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (or) NSAIDS

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-16
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-17
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-18
Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-19
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-20
Answer:
(a) 3 2 4 1

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-21
Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 7.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-22
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-23
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 9.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-1
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-2
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-24
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 13.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-25
Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 14.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-26
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 15.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-27
Answer:
(b) 2 3 4 1

Question 16.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-28
Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer the drug.
Reason (R): Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and the minimum curative dose.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R dOes not explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is.wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by enzymes. This principle is applied to kill many pathogens.
Reason (R): The enzyme actions are highly essential for normal functioning of the system.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): The drugs acts as an inhibitor to the enzyme catalyst.
Reason (R): A drug molecule that has a similar geometry (shape) as the substrate is administered, it can also bind to the enzyme and inhibit its activity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Aspirin is an antipyretic and useful in the prevention of heart attacks.
Reason (R): Aspirin reduces fever and also prevent platelet coagulation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Opioids produces coma and even death.
Reason (R): Opioids releive pain and produce sleep and drugs are addictive and also poisonous in nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Milk of magnesia and aluminium hydroxide are usually used as antacids.
Reason (R): Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 are weak bases and they neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Procaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics and cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness.
Reason (R): They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Antioxidant such as butyl hydroxy toluene (BHT) and butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) are added as good additives.
Reason (R): Antioxidants retard the oxidative deterioration of food which contain fat and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assrtion(A): Saccharin, sucralose are artificial sweeteners.
Reason (R): Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertlon(A): Sulphur dioxide and suiphites are also used as food additive.
Reason (R): They act as antimicrobial agents, antioxidant and enzyme inhibitors.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Asscrtion(A): During soap preparation, common salt is added to the reaction mixture.
Reason (R): Common salt decreases the solubility of soap and it helps to precipitate out from the aqueous solution.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Higher the TFM quantity in the soap, better is its quality.
Reason (R): The quality of the soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). Grade I soap should have 76% minimum TFM value.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Natural rubber becomes strong and elastic when heated with sulphur.
Reason (R): Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 – polyisoprene chains through disulphide – s – s bonds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Artificial sweeteners are added to the food to control the intake of calories.
Reason (R): Most of the artificial sweeteners are inert and do not metabolise in the body,
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Penicillin (G) is an antihistamine.
Reason (R): Penicillin G is effective against gram positive as well as gram negative bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 16.
Assertlon(A): Enzymes have active sites that hold substrate molecule for a chemical reaction.
Reason (R): Drugs compete with natural substate by attaching covalently to the active site of enzyme.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soaps in ethanol.
Reason (R): Ethanol made things invisible.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Sodium chloride is added to precipitate soap after saponification.
Reason (R): Hydrolysis of esters of long chain fatty acids by alkali produces soap in colloidal form.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertlon(A): Aspirin has antipyretic properties.
Reason (R): Aspirin gives relief from pain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 20.
Assertlon(A): Bithional is added to soap as an antiseptic.
Reason (R): Bithional is a suipha drug and destroy bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

VI. Find out the correct pair.

Question 1.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin, cetrizine, cephalosporin.
Answer:
Cetrizine. It is an antihistamine whereas others belongs to penicillin group.

Question 2.
Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, erythromycin, cimetidine, ranitidine.
Answer:
Erythromycin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antacids.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 3.
Halo peridol, clozapine, aiprazolam, aspirin, diazepam.
Answer:
Aspirin. It is an analgesic and antipyretic whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 4.
Acetamino phenol, ibuprofen, aspirin, morphine.
Answer:
Morphine. It is an opioids (narcotic analgesic) whereas others are non narcotic analgesics.

Question 5.
Morphine, heroin, hydrocodone, codeine, ibuprofen.
Answer:
Ibuprofen. It is a non narcotic analgesic whereas others are narcotic analgesics.

Question 6.
Procaine, lidocaine, cemitidine, propofol, iso flurane.
Answer:
Ccmitidine. It is an antacid whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 7.
Omeprazole, rabeprazole, iso flurane, ranitidine, cemitidine.
Answer:
Isoflurane. It is an anaesthetic whereas others are antacids.

Question 8.
Cetrizine, levocetrizine, trefenadine, ampicillin, desloratatide.
Answer:
Ampicillin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antihistamines.

Quesiton 9.
Penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosorins, hydrogen peroxide, carbapenems.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. it is an antiseptic where as other are antimicrobials.

Question 10.
Hydrogen peroxide, povidone – iodine, chlorine compounds, benzalkonium chloride.
Answer:
Chlorine compounds. It is a disinfectant whereas others arc antiseptic.

Question 11.
Ethynylestradiol, menstranol, hydrogen peroxide, norethindrone, norethynodrel.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. It is an antiseptic and a disinfectant whereas otheres are antifertility drugs.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 12.
Sodium benzoate, salt of sorbic acid, acetic acid, sodium bi carbonate, sodium meta suiphite.
Answer:
Sodium bi carbonate. It is a baking soda whereas others are food preservatives.

Question 13.
BIIT, BHA, SO2, Vitamin E, sorbitol.
Answer:
Sorbitol. It is a sugar substituent where as others are antioxidants.

Question 14.
Saccharin, butyl hydroxy toluene, aspartane, sucralose, alitaine.
Answer:
Butyl hydroxy toluene, It is an antioxidant where as others are artificial sweetening agents.

Question 15.
Cellulose, polyester, silk.
Answer:
Polyester. It is a synthetic polymer whereas others are natural polymer.

Question 16.
PVC, polythene, LDPE, cellulose, HDPE, bakelite
Answer:
Cellulose, It is a natural polymer whereas others are synthetic polymers.

Question 17.
Polythcne, PVC, Bakelite, polystrene.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is thermosetting plastic whereas others are thermoplastic.

Question 18.
Nylon 66, polyethylene, PVC, teflon.
Answer:
Nylon 66. It is a condensation polymer whereas others are addition polymers.

Question 19.
Neoprene, bakelite, Buna – S, Buna – N.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is a thermosetting plastic whereas others are synthetic rubber.

Question 20.
Nylon 66, Nylon 6, terylene, teflon, bakelite, melamine.
Answer:
Teflon. It is an additional polymer whereas others are condensation polymers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 2 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term

  1. medicine
  2. chemotherapy

Answer:
1. Medicine:
The drug which interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response is called medicine.

2. Chemotherapy:
The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as chemotherapy.

Question 2.
Define the term therapeutic index.
Answer:
1. Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug (above which it becomes toxîc) and the minimum curative dose (below which the drug is ineffective).

2. Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer is the drug.

Question 3.
Write about the classification of drugs based on the target system.
Answer:
1. In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system that they target in the recepient. For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erthyromycin inhibit the protein synthesis in bacteria and are classified in the same group.

2. However their mode of action is different. Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein.

Question 4.
Explain about the classification of drug based on the site of action.
1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors which are referred as drug targets. The drug is classified based on the drug target with which it binds.

2. This classification is highly specilic compared to others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 5.
What are

  1. antagonists
  2. agonists.

Answer:

  1. The drugs which binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists.
  2. There are drugs which mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor. Those type of drugs are called agonists.

Question 6.
What is the difference between an agonist and antagonist?
Answer:

  1. Agonist and antagonist act in opposite directions. Agonist is a substance which combines with cell receptor to produce some reaction that is typical for that substance.
  2. On the other hand antagonist is the chemical which opposes or reduces the natural function.

Question 7.
Explain the action of agonist and antagonist with proper example.
Answer:
When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces sleepiness. So adenosine is an agonist. On the other hand, the antogonist drug coffeine binds to the adenosine receptor and makes it inactive. This results in the reduced sleepiness (wakefulness).

Question 8.
Why ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide?
Answer:
To treat acidity, weak base such as magnesium hydroxide is used. But this weak base make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of much acid. This treatment only relieves the symptoms and does not control the cause. But ranitine stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall which binds the receptor and inactivate them. So ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide.

Question 9.
What is meant by non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs? Give example.
Answer:
Non – steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin – induced increase in temperature. eg., ibuprofen.

Question 10.
What are narcotic analgesics? Give examples.
Answer:

  1. Narcotic analgesics are opioids that relieve pain and produce sleep. These drugs are addictive. In poisonous dose, these produces coma and ultimately death. eg, morphine, codeine,
  2. These drugs are used for short term or long term relief of severe pain. Mainly used for post operative pain. Pain of terminal cancer.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 11.
What are general anaesthetics? Give example.
Answer:

  1. General anaesthetics are drugs cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system. e.g., propofol, iso flurane.
  2. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 12.
What are local anaesthetics? Give example. Mention its uses.
Answer:

  1. Local anaesthetics cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibre to the brain. e.g., procaine, lidocaine
  2. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

Question 13.
Draw the structure of propofol? Mention its use.
Answer:
Propofol structure:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-29

Question 14.
What are antihistamines? Give example and mention its use.
Answer:

  1. Antihistamines block histamine release from histamine – 1 receptors.
  2. eg., cetirizine, terfenadine, levocetirizine.
  3. It is used to provide relief from the allergic effects.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 15.
What are antimicrobials? Mention its function and its uses.
Answer:

  1. Antimicrobials inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
  2. e.g., penicillin, ampicillin.
  3. It is used to treat skin infections, dental infections, ear infections, respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, urinary tract infections and gonorrhoea.

Question 16.
Draw the structure of penicillin? Give its use.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-30
Penicillin is used to treat all type of infections pneumonia, urinary tract infections.

Question 17.
Draw the structure of ampicillin
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-31

Question 18.
Write a note about macrolids.
Answer:

  1. Macrolids targets bacterial ribosomes and prevent protein production. e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin
  2. It is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastro intestinal tract and skin infections.

Question 19.
What are fluoroquinolones? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

  1. Fluoro quinolones inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
  2. e.g., clinafloxacin, ciprofloxacin
  3. It is used to treat urinary tract infections, skin infections and respiratory infections, pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 20.
What are tetracydines? Mention its function and uses.
Answer:

  1. Tetracyclines inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis via interaction with the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. eg., doxycycline, minocycline.
  2. It is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, infections of the respiratory tract, cholera.

Question 21.
What are aminoglycosides? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

  1. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus stopping bacteria from making proteins.
  2. It is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria.

Question 22.
What are food additives? Give example.
Answer:

  1. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called food additives.
  2. e.g., Aroma compounds, antioxidants, preservatives, stabilizers, food colours, buffering substances are food additives.

Question 23.
Explain about antioxidants.
Answer:

  1. Antioxidants are substances which retard the oxidative deteriotations of food. Food containing fats and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid, .
  2. To prevent the oxidation of fats and oils, chemical BHT (butyl hydroxy toluene), BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole) are added as antioxidants.
  3. These materials readily undergo oxidation by reacting with free radicals generated by the oxidation of oils there by stop the chain reaction of oxidation of food.
  4. Sulphur dioxide, suiphites are also used as antioxidant and also act as antimicrobial agents and enzyme inhibitors.

Question 24.
What are sugarsubstituents? Give example.
Answer:
The compounds that are used like sugars for sweetening, but are metabolised without the influence of insulin are called sugar substituents. e.g., sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 25.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give example.
Answer:
Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners. e.g., saccharin, aspartame, sucralose, alitame.

Question 26.
Define TFM value.
Answer:

  1. The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after spliting with mineral acids.
  2. Higher the TFM value in the soap, better is its quality.
  3. As per BIS standards, Grade I soaps should have 76% minimum TFM value.

Quesiton 27.
Write a note about natural rubber and give Its structure.
Answer:
1. Rubber is a naturally occuring polymer. It is obtained from the latex that excludes from cuts in the bark of rubber tree.

2. The monomer unit of natural rubber is cis – iso prene (2 – methyl buta – 1,3 – diene). Thousands of isoprene units are linearly linked together in natural rubber. NaturaL rubber is not so strong (or) elastic. The properties of natural rubber can be modified by the process called vulcanization.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-32

Question 28.
How is neoprene prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. The free radical polymerisation of the monomer 2 – chloro buta 1,3 – diene (chioroprene) gives neoprene.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-33

2. It is used in the manufacture of chemical container, conveyer belts.

Question 29.
How Is Buna – N prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Buna – N is prepared by the polymerisation of acrylonitile and buta – 1, 3 – diene
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-34

2. It is used in the manufacture of hoses and tank linings.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 30
How would you prepare Buna – S? Give its use.
Answer:
Buna – S is prepared by the polymerisation of buta – 1, 3 – diene and styrene in the ratio of 3 : 1 in the presence of sodium.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-35

Uses:
It is used in making pneumatic tires in shoe heels and soles, and in gaskets.

Question 31.
How will you prepare PHBV? Give its use?
Answer:
1. The biodegrable polymer PHBV (Poly hydroxy butyrate-co hydroxyl valerate) is prepared by the polymerisation of monomers 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxy pentanoic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-36

2. It is used in orthopacdic devices añd in controlled release of drugs.

Question 32.
How would you prepare Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6 polymers?
Answer:
Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6 is a co polymer which contains polyamide linkages. It is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of monomers glycine and E-amino caproic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-37

Question 33.
What are natural and synthetic polimers? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Natural polymers:
Polymers which are found in nature, i.e., in animal and plants are called natural polymers. For example, proteins, starch, cellulose etc.

Synthetic polymers:
Man – made polymers are called synthetic polymers. For example plastics, synthetic fibres.

Question 34.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Answer:
Homopolyers:
Polymers whose repeating structural units are dervied from only one type of monomer units are called homopolymers. For example, polythene, PVC, PAN etc.

Copolymers:
Polymers whose repeating units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are called co-polymers. For example, l3una – S, Buna – N, Nylon 6, 6 etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 35.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?
Answer:
Addition polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation, a large number of molecules of same or different monomers simply add to the other unit, leading to the formation of macromolecule. Addition polymerisation generally occurs among molecules containing double and triple bonds.

Condensation polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of independent condensation reactions usually with the elimination of simple molecules like water, alcohol, ammonia etc.

Question 36.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon – 6 and Nylon 6, 6?
Answer:
Nylon 6 – Caprolactam. Nylon 6,6 – Adipic acid and Hexamethylenediamine

Question 37.
Write the names and structure of the monomers of the following polymers:

  1. Buna – S
  2. Buna – N
  3. Dacron
  4. Neoporene

Answer:
1. Butadiene, CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 ; Styrene, C6H5 – CH = CH2

2. Butadiene, CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 ; Acrylonitrile, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-38

3. Terephthalic acid,Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-39 ; Ethylene glycol (Ethane – 1, 2 – diol)Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-40

4. Chloroprene,Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-41 ; 2 – Chloro – 1, 3 – butadine is the monomer of neoprene.

Question 38.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Answer:
Dacron is obtained by condensation polymerisation of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid with the elimination of water molecules:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-42

Question 39.
What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Answer:
Polymers which disintegrate by themselves over a period of time due to environmental degradation by bacteria, etc. are called biodegradable polymers. Example: PHBV (poly hydroxy butrate – co – β hydroxyvalcrate)

Question 40.
What is the difference between elastomers and fibres? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Elastomers

  1. These are rubber like solids with elastic properties.
  2. These are held by the weak inter – molecular forces.
  3. Example: Buna-S and Buna-N.

Fibres

  1. These are th thread forming solids which possess high tensile strength and high modulus.
  2. These are held together by strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding.
  3. Example: Nylon 6, 6 and polyesters (terylene)

Question 41.
What are thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Thermoplastics:
Thermoplastics are linear polymers which can be repeatedly softened on heating and hardened on cooling and hence can be used again and again without any change in chemical composition and mechanical strength.

Thermosetting polymers:
Thermosetting polymers, are permanently setting polymers. On heating in a mould, they get hardened and set and cannot be softened again. This hardening on heating is due to cross linking between different polymeric chains which give rise to a three dimensional network solid. Example – Bakelite.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 42.
Differentiate between addition and condensation polymers based on the mode of polyrnerisation. Give one example of each type. 1
Answer:
Addition polymers

  1. They are formed by adding monomers to a growing polymer chaìn without loss of any molecule.
  2. They are formed from unsaturated compounds.
  3. Example: Polyethene, polypropene.

Condensation polymers

  1. They are formed by combining monomers together with the loss of small molecules like H2O, NH3, CO2 etc.
  2. Monomers have di or polyfunctional groups.
  3. Example: Nylon – 6, 6, Nylon – 6, Terylene.

Question 43.
Distinguish between ‘chain growth potymerisatlon and step growth polymerisation’ and give one example of each.
Answer:
Chain growth polymerisation

  1. Only one repeating unit is added at a time.
  2. Reaction is fast and polymer is formed at once. Example – polythene.

Step growth polymerisatlon

  1. Any two species present can react.
  2. Polymer is formed in gradual steps. Examply – Nylon-6, 6.

Question 44.
How are biopolymers more beneficial than synthetic polymers?
Answer:
Durability of synthetic polymers is advantageous, however it presents a serious waste disposable problem. In renewal of the disposable problem, biodegradable polymers are useful to us. Biopolymers arc safe in use. They disintegrate by themselves in biological system during a certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation and hence, are biodegradable. As a result, they do not cause any pollution.

Question 45.
Give the method of preparation of polyacrylonitrile?
Answer:
The addition polymerisation of acrylonitrile in the presence of a peroxide catalyst leads to the formation of polycrylonitrile. It is used as a substitute for wool in making fibres such as orlon or acrilan.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-43

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 3 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the structures of

  1. Suiphanilamide
  2. p – nltro benzoic acid

Answer:
1. Suiphanilamide
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-44

2. p – nitro benzoic acid:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-45

Question 2.
Draw the structure of

  1. Adenosine (Agonist)
  2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

Answer:
1. Adenosinc (Agonist)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-46

2. Caffeine (Antagonist)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-47

Question 3.
Explain about

  1. Analgesics
  2. Antlinflammatory drugs
  3. Antipyretlcs

Answer:
1. Analgesics:
They alleviate pain by reducing local inflammatory response. They reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
Example: Paracetamol (Crocin).

2. Anti inflammatory drug:
They are used for short term pain relief and for modest pain like head ache, muscle strain, bruising or arthritis.
Example: Ibuprofen, Aspirin.

3. Antipyretics:
These drugs have many effects such as reducing fever, and preventing platelet coagulation.
Example: Aspirin.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 4.
Explain about anaesthetics with their types.
Answer:
1. Local anaesthetics: It causes loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain. Example: Procaine, Li do Caine. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

2. General anaesthetics:
They cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
Example: Propofol, Isoflurane. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 5.
Draw the structure of

  1. procaine
  2. Lidocaine

Answer:
1. Procaine
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-48

2. Lidocaine
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-49

Question 6.
Explain about antacids?
Answer:

  1. Antacids neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
  2. They are used to relieve burning sensation in the chest, throat area caused by acid reflux. Example – Milk of magnesia, alumminium hydroxide, Ranitidine, Cemitidino, Omeprazole, Rabeprazole.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Antiseptic and Disinfectants.
Answer:
1. Antiseptic:
They are the drugs used to stop (or) slow down the growth of micro organism and they are applied to living tissue (body). Example: H2O2.

2. Disinfectant:
They are the drugs used to stop or slow the growth of micro organism and they are applied on inanimate objects (non living surfaces). Example: Chlorine compounds.

Question 8.
What are the advantages of food additives?
Answer:

  1. Uses of preservatives reduce the product spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
  2. Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
  3. Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
  4. Antioxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 9.
Differentiate soap and detergents?
Answer:
Soap

  1. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid.
  2. Soaps are made from animal (or) plant fats and oils.
  3. Soaps have lesser cleansing action.
  4. Soaps are bio degradable.
  5. Soaps are less effective in hard water.
  6. They have a tendency to form a scum in hard water.
  7. Example: Sodium palmitate.

Detergent

  1. Detergent is sodium salt of alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
  2. Detergents are made from petrochemicals.
  3. Detergents have more cleansing action.
  4. Detergents are non – bio degradable.
  5. Detergents are more effective even in hard water.
  6. They do not form scum with hard water.
  7. Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

Question 10.
What is LDPE? Give its preparation and uses.
Answer:
1. LDPE is low density poiy ethylene. It is formed by heating ethene at 2000 to 300°C under oxygen as a catalyst. This reaction follows free radical mechanism. The peroxide formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-50

2. LDPE is used as insulation for cables, making toys.

Question 11.
What is HDPE? Cive its preparation and use.
Answer:

  1. IIDPE is high density polyethylene. it is prepared by the polymerisation of ethylene at. 373k and 6 to 7 atm. using zeiglar Natta Catalyst)
  2. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-51
  3. It is used to make bottles, pipes.

Question 12.
What is Orlon? Give its preparation and use.
Answer:
1. Orlon is poiy acrylonitrite (PAN). It is prepared by the addition of polymerisation of vinyl cyanide using a peroxide initiator.

2.Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-52

3. It is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters etc.

Question 13.
How will you prepare Nylon 6,6.? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Nylon 6,6 can be prepared by mixing equimolar adipic acid and hexamethylene diaminc. With the elimination of water to form amide bonds.

2. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-53

3. It is used in textiles, manufacture of cards.

Question 14.
How will you prepare Nylon – 6? Give its use.
1. Capro tactum on heating at 533k in an inert atmosphere with traces of water gives E amino caproic acid which polymerises to give Nylon 6.

2.Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-54

3. It is used in the manufacture of tyre cards, fabrics.

Question 15.
What is bakeite? How is it prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
1. Bakelite is a thermo setting plastic. It is prepared from the monomers such as phenol and formaldehyde. The condensalion polymerisation take place in the presence of acid or base catalyst.

2. Phenol reacts with methanal to form ortho or para hydroxyl methyl phenols which on further reaction with phenol gives linear polymer called novolac. Novolac on further healing with formaldehyde undergoes cross linkages to form bakelite.

3.Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-55

4.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-56

  1. Novolac is used in paints.
  2. Soft bakelites are used in making glue for binding laminated wooden planks and in varnishes.
  3. Hard bakelites are used to prepare combs, pens.

Question 16.
How Is melamlue prepared? Give its use?
Answer:
Melamine and formaldehyde are the monomers. They undergo condensation polymerisation to form melamine formaldehyde resin.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-57
Uses : It is used in making unbreakable crockery.

Question 17.
How is urea formaldehyde prepared?
Answer:
It is formed by condensation polymerisation of the monomers urea and formaldehyde. Uses – it is used in decorative laminates, textiles, wrinkle resistant fabrics, paper and glue wood.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-58

Question 18.
Mention one use of each of the following:

  1. Ranitidine
  2. Paracetamol
  3. Tincture of iodine.

Answer:

  1. Rnitidine is used as an antacid.
  2. Paracetamol is used to bring down the body temperature during high fever.
  3. Tincture of iodine is used as an antiseptic. It is 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water.

Question 19.
Describe the following with suitable examples:

  1. Preservatives
  2. Artificial sweetening agents.

Answer:
1. Preservatives:
Preservatives are the substances which are used to prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. Examples – Sodium benzoate, Common salt.

2. Artificial sweetening agents:
These are the chemical substances which are used to create sweet taste in food items in place of sugar.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 20.
Give one important use of each of the following:

  1. Bithional
  2. Chioramphenicol
  3. Streptomycin
  4. Paracetamol

Answer:

  1. Bithional is added to soap so as to impart antiseptic properties to the soap.
  2. Chioramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic used in curing typhoid, meningitis.
  3. Streptomycin is used for the treatment of T.B (Tuberculosis).
  4. Paracetamol is an antipyretic used in bringing down temperature in high fever.

Question 21.
What are detergents? How are they classified? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are suiphonate or hydrogen sulphate salts of long chain hydrocarbons containing 12-18 carbon atoms.
Types of detergents

  1. Cationic detergents
  2. Anionic detergents
  3. Non-ionic detergents

Advantages of detergents over soaps: Unlike soaps they work well even with hard water. They can work well even in acidic water. They are more effective than soaps.

Question 22.

  1. What class of drug is Ranitidine?
  2. If water contains dissolved Ca2+ ions, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which will you use for cleaning clothes?
  3. Which of the following is an antisepctic? 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol.

Answer:

  1. It is an antacid.
  2. In this case we use synthetic detergents because it give foam with hard water.
  3. 0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 23.
Define the following by giving one example of each:

  1. Antiseptics
  2. Antioxidants
  3. Narcotic analgesics

Answer:

  1. Antiseptics are the chemicals applied to the living tissues either to kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Example : dettol.
  2. Antioxidants are the compounds which retards the action of oxygen on food and reduces its rate of decomposition by oxidation. Example: BHA.
  3. Narcotic analgesics are the chemicals used for the relief of pst operative pain. Example – morphine.

Question 24.
In order to wash clothes which cleaning agent what will you prefer and why: soap or synthetic detergents? Give one advantage of soaps and synthetic detergents each.
Answer:
Soaps have straight hydrocarbon chains and are easily degraded by bacteria present in the sewage water and hence, do not cause water pollution. Most of the detergents are non – biodegradable and hence cause water pollution of rivers and waterways. So, one will prefer soap.

Question 25.
Name the action of the following on the human body.

  1. Aspirin
  2. Penicillin
  3. Phenacetin
  4. Morphine
  5. Analgin
  6. Luminal
  7. Seconal
  8. Streptomycin

Answer:

  1. Aspirin is an analgesic which is used for relieving pain. It also prevents heart attack.
  2. Penicillin is an antibiotic used against large number of infections caused by various cocci, gram positive bacteria, etc. It is an effective drug for pneumonia, bronchitis, sore throat.
  3. Phenacetin is an antipyretic drug used to bring down the temperature of body in high fever.
  4. Morphine is an strong analgesic. It is a narcotic drug. It cause addiction. It gives relief from acute pain, induce sleep and unconsciousness in higher doses.
  5. Analgin is an antipyretic and analgesic. It brings down the temperature of body in fever and give relief from pain.
  6. Luminal produces sleep and it is a habit forming drug. It is also called a sedative tranquilliser.
  7. Seconal is an antidepressant (tranquiliser). Sometimes the patients are highly depressed and loses self – confidence. This drug produces feeling of well being and improved efficiency.
  8. Streptomycin is used as an antibiotic. It is used to cure tuberculosis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 5 mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain free radical polymerisation with example.
Answer:
1. When alkenes are heated with free radical initiator such as benzoyl peroxide, they undergo polymerisation reaction. For example, styrene polymerises to polystrene when it is heated with a peroxide initator. The mechanism involves the following steps.

2. Initiation – Formation of free radical.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-59

3. Propagation step.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-60

4. Chain growth will continue with the successive addition of several thousands of monomer units.

5. Termination:
The above chain reaction can be stopped by stopping the supply of monomer or by coupling of two chains or reaction with an impurity such as oxygen.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-61

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of forces operating between their molecules? To which of these classes does nylon-6,6 belong?
Answer:

  1. Elastomers: The polymer chains are held together by weak intermolecular forces. Example – Buna – S, Buna – N, Neoprene.
  2. Fibres: They have strong forces of attraction. Example – Polymides, (Nylon 6,6), polyesters.
  3. Thermoplastics: They are long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. Example – Polythene, polystyrene.
  4. Thermosetting plastics: They do not become soft on heating and cannot be remoulded. Example – Bakelite, Nylon – 6,6, belong to fibres.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-62

Common Errors

1. Medicines – Molecular fonnula are not given only structural fotmula are drawn.

Rectifications

1. It is written by counting the C, H, O, N in the compound. For example. Aspirin on Acetyt salicylic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life-63

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The term is used to describe a programming approach based on classes and objects is ……………….
(a) OOP
(b) POP
(c) ADT
(d) SOP
Answer:
(a) OOP

Question 2.
The paradigm which aims more at procedures ……………….
(a) Object Oriented Programming
(b) Procedural programming
(c) Modular programming
(d) Structural programming
Answer:
(b) Procedural programming

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
Which of the following is a user defined data type?
(a) class
(b) float
(c) int
(d) object
Answer:
(a) class

Question 4.
The identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is ……………….
(a) class
(b) object
(c) structure
(d) member
Answer:
(b) object

Question 5.
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as ……………….
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(b) Encapsulation

Question 6.
Insulation of the data from direct access by the program is called as ……………….
(a) Data hiding
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Data hiding

Question 7.
Which of the following concept encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created?
(a) Class
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(d) Abstraction

Question 8.
Which of the following is the most important advantage of inheritance?
(a) data hiding
(b) code reusability
(c) code modification
(d) accessibility
Answer:
(b) code reusability

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 9.
“Write once and use it multiple time” can be achieved by ……………….
(a) redundancy
(b) reusability
(c) modification
(d) composition
Answer:
(b) reusability

Question 10.
Which of the following supports the transitive nature of data?
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Inheritance

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
How is modular programming different from procedural programming paradigm?
Answer:
Modular programming:

  • Emphasis on algorithm rather than data.
  • Programs are divided into individual modules.
  • Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data.
  • Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.

Procedural programming:

  • Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
  • All data items are global.
  • Suitable for small sized software application.
  • Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.

Question 2.
Differentiate classes and objects.
Answer:
Class:

  • Class is a blue print or template from which objects are created.
  • Class doesn’t allocate memory when it is created.
  • Class is a logical entity.

Object:

  • Object is an instance of a class.
  • Objects allocate memory when it is created.
  • Object is a physical entity.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
What is polymorphism?
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Question 4.
How is encapsulation and abstraction are interrelated?
Answer:
Abstraction means giving only essential things and hiding unnecessary details. Encapsulation is the binding of data members and methods together in a capsule to avoid accidental changes to data from external users, i.e., encapsulation is the bundling of related algorithms and data.

Question 5.
Write the disadvantages of OOP.
Answer:

  1. Size: Object Oriented Programs are much larger than other programs.
  2. Effort: Object Oriented Programs require a lot of work to create.
  3. Speed: Object Oriented Programs are slower than other programs, because of their size.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is paradigm? Mention the different types of paradigm.
Answer:
Paradigm means organizing principle of a program. It is an approach to programming. There are different approaches available for problem solving using computer. They are Procedural programming, Modular Programming and Object Oriented Programming.

Question 2.
Write a note on the features of procedural programming.
Answer:
Important features of procedural programming

  1. Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs
  2. All data items are global
  3. Suitable for small sized software application
  4. Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type. This is time consuming.
  5. Example: FORTRAN and COBOL.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
List some of the features of modular programming.
Answer:
Important features of Modular programming:

  1. Emphasis on algorithm rather than data
  2. Programs are divided into individual modules
  3. Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data
  4. Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.
  5. Example: Pascal and C.

Question 4.
What do you mean by modularization and software reuse?
Answer:

  1. Modularization : where the program can be decomposed into modules.
  2. Software re – use : where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Question 5.
Define information hiding.
Answer:
Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Write the differences between Object Oriented Programming and Procedural Programming
Answer:
Object Oriented Programming:

  • Emphasizes on data rather than algorithm.
  • Data abstraction is introduced in addition to procedural abstraction.
  • Data and its associated operations are grouped in to single unit.
  • Programs are designed around the data being operated.
  • Example: C++, Java, VB.Net, Python

Procedural Programming:

  • Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
  • All data items are global.
  • Suitable for small sized software application.
  • Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.
  • Example: FORTRAN and COBOL

Question 2.
What are the advantages of OOPs?
Answer:
Re – usability : “Write once and use it multiple times” you can achieve this by using class. Redundancy: Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

Easy Maintenance : It is easy to maintain and modify existing code as new objects can be created with small differences to existing ones.

Security : Using data hiding and abstraction only necessary data will be provided thus maintains the security of data.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
Write a note on the basic concepts that supports OOPs?
Answer:
The Object Oriented Programming has been developed to overcome the drawbacks of procedural and modular programming. It is widely accepted that object – oriented programming is the most important and powerful way of creating software.

The Object – Oriented Programming approach mainly encourages:

  1. Modularization: where the program can be decomposed into modules.
  2. Software re – use: where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

  1. Data Abstraction.
  2. Encapsulation.
  3. Modularity.
  4. Inheritance.
  5. Polymorphism.

Encapsulation:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class.

The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

Data Abstraction:
Abstraction refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details. Classes use the concept of abstraction to define a list of abstract attributes and function which operate on these attributes. They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In procedural programming all data items are ……………….
(a) Cobol
(b) global
(c) fortan
(d) class
Answer:
(b) global

Question 2.
Class represents a group of similar ……………….
(a) objects
(b) modules
(c) arrays
(d) data
Answer:
(a) objects

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
………………. is an example of object oriented programming.
(a) Python
(b) Java
(c) VB.Net
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
………………. refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details.
(a) Redundancy
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(c) Abstraction

Question 5.
………………. is about binding the data variables and functions together in class.
(a) Data abstraction
(b) Modularization
(c) Redundancy
(d) Encapsulation
Answer:
(d) Encapsulation

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is procedural programming?
Answer:
Procedural means a list of instructions were given to the computer to do something. Procedural programming aims more at procedures. This emphasis on doing things.

Question 2.
What is a class?
Answer:
A Class is a construct in C++ which is used to bind data and its associated function together into a single unit using the encapsulation concept. Class is a user defined data type. Class represents a group of similar objects.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 3.
What is modularity?
Answer:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Question 4.
What are the main features of OOP?
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

  1. Data Abstraction
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Modularity
  4. Inheritance
  5. Polymorphism

Question 5.
What is redundancy?
Answer:
Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about objects.
Answer:
Objects: Represents data and its associated function together into a single unit. Objects are the basic unit of OOP. Basically an object is created from a class. They are instances of class also called as class variables. An identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is called object.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Question 2.
What is Encapsulation and data binding?
Answer:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain about features of object oriented programming.
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming

  1. Data Abstraction
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Modularity
  4. Inheritance
  5. Polymorphism

Encapsulation:
1. The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction.

2. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding.

3.. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

Data Abstraction:
Abstraction refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details. Classes use the concept of abstraction to define a list of abstract attributes and function which operate on these attributes.

They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the collection of variables of the same type that an referenced by a common name?
(a) int
(b) float
(c) Array
(d) class
Answer:
(c) Array

Question 2.
Array subscripts always starts with which number?
(a) – 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 0

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
int age[ ]={6, 90, 20, 18, 2}; How many elements are there in this array?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 5

Question 4.
cin >> n[3]; To which element does this statement accepts the value?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 5.
By default, a string ends with which character?
(a) \o
(b) \t
(c) \n
(d) \b
Answer:
(a) \o

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is Traversal in an Array?
Answer:
Accessing each element of an array at least once to perform any operation is known as “Traversal”. Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of “traversal”.

Question 2.
What is Strings?
Answer:
A string is defined as a sequence of characters where each character may be a letter, number or a symbol. Each element occupies one byte of memory. Every string is terminated by a null (‘\0’, ASCII code 0) character which must be appended at the end of the string.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
What is the syntax to declare two – dimensional array.
Answer:
The declaration of a 2 – D array is
data – type array_name[row – size] [col – size];
In the above declaration, data-type refers to any valid C++ data – type, array _ name refers to the name of the 2 – D array, row – size refers to the number of rows and col-size refers to the number of columns in the 2 – D array.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Define an Array. What are the types?
Answer:
“An array is a collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name”. An array is also a derived datatype in C++.
There are different types of arrays used in C++. They are:

  1. One – dimensional arrays
  2. Two – dimensional arrays
  3. Multi – dimensional arrays

Question 2.
Write a note on Array of strings.
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first Index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2 – D array has the declaration:
char name [7][10];
In the above declaration,
No. of rows = 7;
No. of columns =10;
We can store 7 strings each of maximum length 10 characters.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to accept and print your name.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{
charname[5];
cout<< “Enter your name:”; cin >>name;
cout<< “My name is”<< name;
}
Output:
Enter your name: PRIYA
My name is PRIYA

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions 

Question 1.
Write a C++ program to find the difference between two matrix.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 1

Output
Enter 3*3 Array 1 Elements :
10 11 12
13 14 15
16 17 18

Enter 3*3 Array 2 Elements :
123
456
789

Subtracting array (array1 – array2)
Result of Array 1 – Array2 is :
9 9 9
9 9 9
9 9 9

Question 2.
How will you pass two dimensional array to a function explain with example.
Answer:
Passing 2”D array to a function
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 2

Output:
Displaying Values
3 4
9 5
7 1

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The data elements in the structure are also known as ………………..
(a) objects
(b) members
(c) data
(d) records
Answer:
(a) objects

Question 2.
Structure definition is terminated by
(a) :
(b) }
(c) ;
(d) ::
Answer:
(c) ;

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
What will happen when the structure is declared?
(a) it will not allocate any memory
(b) it will allocate the memory
(c) it will be declared and initialized
(d) it will be only declared
Answer:
(b) it will allocate the memory

Question 4.
What is the output of this program?
Answer:
#include
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

struct student
{
int n;
char name[10];
};
student s;
s.n = 123;
strcpy(s.name, “Balu”);
cout <<s.n;
cout<< s.name << endl;

return 0; }
(a) 123Balu
(b) BaluBalu
(c) Balul23
(d) 123 Balu
Answer:
(d) 123 Balu

Question 5.
A structure declaration is given below,
struct Time
{
int hours;
int minutes;
int seconds;
} t;
Using above declaration which of the following refers to seconds.
(a) Time.seconds
(b) Time::seconds
(c) seconds
(d) t. seconds
Answer:
(d) t. seconds

Question 6.
What will be the output of this program?
#include
using namespace std;
struct Shoe Type
{
string name;
double price;
};
int main()
{
ShoeType shoel, shoe2;
shoe 1.name = “Adidas”;
shoel.price = 9.99;
cout << shoel.name << “#” << shoel.price<<endl;
shoe2 – shoel;
shoe2.price = shoe2.price / 9;
cout << shoe2.name << “#”<< shoe2.price;
return 0;
(a) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 1.11
(b) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 9.11
(c) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 11.11
(d) Adidas # 9.11; Adidas # 11.11
Answer:
(a) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 1.11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 7.
Which of the following is a properly defined structure?
(a) struct {int num;}
(b) struct sum {int num;}
(c) struct sum int sum;
(d) struct sum {int num;};
Answer:
(d) struct sum {int num;};

Question 8.
A structure declaration is given below,
struct employee
{
int empno;
char ename[10];
} e[5];
Using above declaration which of the following statement is correct?
(a) cout << e[0].empno << e[0].ename;
(b) cout << e[0].empno << ename;
(c) cout << e[0]->empno << e[0] → ename;
(d) cout << e.empno << e.ename;
Answer:
(a) cout << e[0].empno << e[0].ename;

Question 9.
Which of the following cannot be a structure member?
(a) Another structure
(b) Function
(c) Array
(d) variable of double datatype
Answer:
(b) Function

Question 10.
When accessing a structure member, the identifier to the left of the dot operator is the name of …………………
(a) structure variable
(b) structure tag
(c) structure member
(d) structure function
Answer:
(c) structure member

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Define structure. What is its use?
Answer:
Structure is a user – defined which has the combination of data items with different data types. This allows to group of variables of mixed data types together into a single unit. The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other.

Question 2.
To store 100 integer number which of the following is good to use?
Array or Structure. State the reason.
Answer:
Array is good to use.
Reasons:

  1. All 100 numbers are integer type.
  2. Array index helps to access the numbers quickly.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
What is the error in the following structure definition?
struct employee {inteno ;chamame [20] ;char dept;}
Employee e1,e2;
Answer:
Errors:

  1. ‘i’ is missing.
  2. Spaces are missing at two places
  3. Structure name given wrongly.

Corrected structure:
struct employee {int eno; char ename [20];

char dept;}
employee e, e2;

Question 4.
Write a structure definition for the structure student containing examno, name and an array for storing five subject marks.
Answer:
struct student
{
long examno;
char name [50];
int marks [5];
};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
Why for pacing a structure to a function call by reference is advisable to us?
Answer:
In this method of passing the structures to functions, the address of a structure variable /object is passed to the function using address of(&) operator. So any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
How will you pass a structure to a function?
Answer:
A structure variable can be passed to a function in a similar way of passing any argument that is of built – in data type.
If the structure itself is an argument, then it is called “call by value”. If the reference of the structure is passed as an argument then it is called, “call by reference”.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 2.
The following code sums up the total of all students name starting with ‘S’ and display it. Fill in the blanks with required statements.
Answer:
struct student {int exam no, lang, eng, phy, che, mat, csc, total; char name[15];};
int main()
{
student s[20];
for(int i = 0;i<20;i++)
{
………………….. //accept student details
}
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
………………….. //check for name starts with letter “S”
………………….. // display the detail of the checked name
}
return 0;
}
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 3

Question 3.
How to access members of a structure? Give example.
Answer:
Once objects of a structure type are declared, their members can be accessed directly. The syntax for that is using a dot(.) between the object name and the member name.
Example: student.name;
if the members are a pointer type, then is used to access the members.
Let name be a character pointer in student like char*name
It can be accessed student → name,
struct
{

long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
student;

}
The student can be referred as reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like student.roll no, student.age, and student.weight.

Question 4.
Write the syntax and an example for structure.
Answer:
Structure is declared using the keyword ‘struct’. The syntax of creating a structure is given below.
struct structure_name {

type member_name 1;
type member_name2;

} reference_name;
An optional field reference_name can be used to declare objects of the structure type directly.
Example:
struct Student
{

long rollno;
int age;
float weight;

};

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
What is called anonymous structure? Give an example.
Answer:
A structure without a name/tag is called anonymous structure.
Example:
struct
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
};
The student can be referred as reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like student.rollno, student.age and student.weight.

PART – 4
IV. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Explain array of structures with example.
Answer:
A class may contain many students. So, the definition of structure for one student can also be extended to all the students. If the class has 20 students, then 20 individual structures are required. For this purpose, an array of structures can be used. An array of structures is declared in the same way as declaring an array with built – in data types like int or char.
Program that reads the details of 20 students and prints the same.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 4

Output:
Enter the details of 20 students
Enter the details for student 1

Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
160.5
Enter the weight:
46.5
Enter the details for student2
Enter the age:
18

Question 2.
Explain call by value with respect to structure.
Answer:
When a structure is passed as argument to a function using call by value method, any change made to the contents of the structure variable inside the function to which it is passed do not affect the structure variable used as an argument.
#include
using namespace std;
struct Employee
{
char name[50];
int age;
float salary;
};
void printData(Employee); // Function declaration
int main()
{

Employee p;
cout << “Enter Full name:”; cin >> p.name;
cout << “Enter age:”; cin >> p.age;
cout << “Enter salary:”; cin >> p.salary;
// Function call with structure variable as an argument
printData(p);
return 0;

}
void printData(Employee q)
{

cout << “\nDisplaying Information.” << endl;
cout << “Name:” << q.name << endl;
cout <<”Age:” << q.age << endl;
cout << “Salary:” << q.salary;

}

Output:
Enter Full name: Kumar
Enter age : 55
Enter salary : 34233.4
Displaying Information.
Name : Kumar
Age : 55
Salary : 34233.4
In the above example, a structure named Employee is declared and used. The values that are entered into the structure are name, age and salary of a Employee are displayed using a function named printData(). The argument for the above function is the structure Employee. The input can be received through a function named readData().

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to add two distances using the following structure definition, struct Distance!
int feet;
float inch;
}d1, d2, sum;
Answer:
int main()
{

cout << “Enter 1st distance:” << end1;
cout << “Enter feet:”; cin >> d1.feet;
cout << “Enter inch:”; cin >> d1.inch;
cout << “\n information for 2nd distance:” << end1;
cout << “Enter feet:”; cin >> d2.feet;
cout << “Enter inch:”; cin >> d2.inch;
sum.feet = d1 . feet + d2.feet;
sum.inch = d1.inch + d2.inch;
if (sum.inch > 12)
{
++ sum.feet;
sum.inch = 12;
}
cout << end1; “Sum of distance =” << sum.feet << “feet” << sum.inch << “inches”;
return 0;

}

Output:
Enter 1 st distance
Enter feet: 6
Enter inch: 3.4
Enter 2nd distance
Enter feet: 5
Enter inch: 10.2
Sum of distances = 12 feet 1.6 inches

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to declare and accept an array of professors. Display the details of the department= “COMP.SCI” and the name of the professors start with ‘A’. The structure “college” should contain the following members.
prof id as integer
name and Department as character array
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 5
Output
Professor 1
Enter id of professor: 100
Enter name of the professor: John
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 2
Enter id of professor: 101
Enter name of the professor: Janardhan
Enter name of the department: ECE

Professor 3
Enter id of professor: 102
Enter name of the professor: Albert
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 4
Enter id of professor: 103
Enter name of the professor: Asha
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 5
Enter id of professor: 104
Enter name of the professor: Han
Enter name of the department: EEE

Name of the professor starting with A
Professor 1
Enter id of professor: 102
Enter name of the professor: Albert
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 2.
Enter id of professor: 103
Enter name of the professor: Asha
Enter name of the department: CS

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 5.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:
#include
#include
#include
#include
using namespace std;
struct books {
char name[20], author[20];
}a[50];
int main()
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 6
Output:
Details of Book No. 1
Book name : Programming
Book author : Dromy
Details of Book No. 2
Book Name : C++ Programming
Book Author : Bjame Stroustrup
1 Iprogrammingl Dromy
2| C++ Programming | Bjame Stroustmp

Question 6.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 7
Output
First student
roll no : 1
name : Brown
Phone no. : 123443
Second Student
roll no : 2
name : Sam
Phone no. : 1234567
Third Student
roll no : 3
name : Addy
Phone no. : 1234597844

Question 7.
Debug the error in the following program
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 8
Corrected Program:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 9

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The size of the array is referred to as its ………………..
(a) dimension
(b) direction
(c) location
(d) space
Answer:
(a) dimension

Question 2.
The subscript in bracket can be a variable, a constant or an expression to ………………..
(a) character
(b) integer
(c) long double
(d) float
Answer:
(b) integer

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of ………………..
(a) memory allocation
(b) call by reference
(c) traversal
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) traversal

Question 4.
Syntax of character array declaration is ………………..
(a) int array char name [size];
(b) char array [ ];
(c) char_name[size];
(d) char array – name[size];
Answer:
(d) char array – name[size];

Question 5.
During ……………….. the array of elements cannot be initialized more than its size.
(a) declaration
(b) initialization
(c) assigning
(d) execution
Answer:
(b) initialization

Question 6.
2 – D array memory representation have ……………….. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) only 1
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
Pass an array to a function in C++, the function needs the array name as ………………..
(a) a function
(b) an argument
(c) global object
(d) string
Answer:
(b) an argument

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 8.
Objects declared along with structure definition are called ………………..
(a) structure
(b) nested structure
(c) global objects
(d) memory
Answer:
(c) global objects

Question 9.
A structure without a name tag is called ………………..
(a) homogenous structure
(b) anonymous structure
(c) array of structure
(d) dynamic memory
Answer:
(b) anonymous structure

Question 10.
Array of structure is declared in the same way as declaring an array with ………………..
(a) built – in data type
(b) data type
(c) undefined
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) built – in data type

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the formula to calculate memory space allocated for an array?
Answer:
Number of bytes allocated for type of array x Number of elements.

Question 2.
Write a C++ program to check palindrome or not using array.
Answer:
Program to check palindrome or not
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 10
Output:
Enter a string : madam The String is palindrome

Question 3.
Write about returning structures from functions.
Answer:
A structure can be passed to a function through its object. Therefore, passing a structure to a function or passing a structure object to a function is the same because structure object represents the structure. Like a normal variable, structure variable(structure object) can be passed by value or by references / addresses. Similar to built-in data types, structures also can be returned from a function.

Question 4.
What is the output of the following program?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 11
Output:
Enter a string: welcome to C++ programming
You entered char array: welcome to C++ programming

Question 5.
What is global object?
Answer:
Objects declared along with structure definition are called global objects.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 6.
What is the condition of structure assignments?
Answer:
Structure assignment is possible only if both structure variables/objects are same type.

Question 7.
Why structures are usually passed by reference method?
Answer:
Structures are usually passed by reference method because it saves the memory space and executes faster.

Question 8.
What is the size of the following highlighted variable in terms of byte if it is compiled in dev C++?
Answer:
struct A{ float f[3]; char ch[5];long double d;};
struct B{Aa; int arr[2][3];}b[3]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 12

Question 9.
Is the following snippet is fully correct. If not identify the error.
Answer:
struct suml{ int n1,n2;}s1;
struct sum2{int n1,n2}s2;
cin >> s1.n1 >> s1.n2; s2=s1;
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 13

Question 10.
Differentiate array and structure.
Answer:
Array:

  • An array is a collection of variables of same data type.
  • Array data are accessed using index.
  • Array allocates static memory
  • Array element access takes lesser time.

Structure:

  • A structure is a collection of variables of different data type.
  • Structure elements are accessed using operator.
  • Structures allocate dynamic memory.
  • Structure elements takes more time.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 11.
What are the different ways to initialize the structure members?
Answer:
Values can be assigned to structure elements similar to assigning values to variables.
Example
balu.rollno= “702016”;
balu.age= 18;
balu.weight= 48.5;
Also, values can be assigned directly as similar to assigning values to Arrays.
balu={702016, 18, 48.5};

Question 12.
What is wrong with the following C++ declarations?
Answer:
A. struct point (double x, y )
B. struct point { double x, double y };
C. struct point { double x; double y }
D. struct point { double x; double y;};
E. struct point { double x; double y;}
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures 14

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about initialization of 2 – D array.
Answer:
The array can be initialized in more than one way at the time of 2-D array declaration.
For example
int matrix[4][3] = {
{10,20,30},// Initializes row 0
{40,50,60},// Initializes row 1
{70,80,90},// Initializes row 2
{100,110,120}// Initializes row 3
}; .
int matrix[4][3] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, 120};
Array’s row size is optional but column size is compulsory.

Question 2.
What is row major order and column major order?
Answer:
In row – major order, all the elements are stored row by row in continuous memory locations, that is, all the elements in first row, then in the second row and so on. The memory representation of row major order is as shown below;
Row major order:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Column major order:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 3.
What is array of strings?
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2 – D array has the declaration: char Name[6][10];
In the above declaration, the 2 – D array has two indices which refer to the row size and column size, that is 6 refers to the number of rows and 10 refers to the number of columns.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to access array elements using pointer with sample output.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

int data [5];
cout << “Enter elements:”;
for(int i = 0; i <5; ++i) cin >> data [i];
cout << “You entered:”;
for (int i = 0; i < 5;++i)
cout << endl << *(data +i);

}
return 0;
Output:
Enter elements:
1
2
3
5
4
You entered:
1
2
3
5
3

Question 5.
Write a program to assign data to members of a structure variable and display the contents.
Answer:
C++ Program that assigns data to members of a structure variable and displays the contents
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Output:
Enter Full name:
Ezhil Enter age:
27
Enter salary:
40000.00
Displaying Information.
Name: Ezhil
Age: 27
Salary: 40000.00

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 6.
What is called nested structure? Give example.
Answer:
The structure declared within another structure is called a nested structure. Nested structures act as members of another structure and the members of the child structure can be accessed as parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name, struct dob
{
int date;
char month[3];
int year;
} ;
Values can be assigned to this structure as follows.
dob = {25, “DEC”, 2017}

Question 7.
Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s),if any. Underline each, correction.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 8.
What is the difference among the following two programs?
Answer:
(a) #include
struct point { double x; double y;};
int main() {
struct point test;
test.x = .25; testy = .75;
cout << test.x << test.y;
return 0;
}

(b) #include
struct { double x; double y;} Point;
int main(void) {
Point test={.25,.75};
return 0;
}

(a) Output

  1. 0.250.75
  2. Named structure point is created.

(b)

  1. No output: Error
  2. Anonymous structure point is created.

Question 9.
For the following structure definition write the user defined function to accept data through keyboard.
struct date{ int dd,mm,yy};
struct item {int item id;char name[10];float price;date datemanif;}
Answer:
void accept (item & i)
{

cout << “\n Enter the Item id”; cin >> i.id;
cout << “\n Enter the item name:”; cin >> i.name;
cout << “\n Enter the item price:”; cin >> i.price;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing day:”; cin >> i.date.dd;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing month:”; cin >> i.date.mm;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing year:”; cin >> i.date.yy;

}

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 10.
Write a user defined function to return the structure after accepting value through keyboard. The structure definition is as follows: struct Item{int item no;float price;};
Answer:
item accept (item i)
{

cout << “\n Enter the Item No:”; cin >> i.no;
cout << “\n Enter the Item Price:”; cin >> i.price;
return i;

}

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write C++ program to find transpose of a matrix.
Answer:
C++ Program to find transpose of a matrix
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Output:
Enter rows and columns of matrix:
2 3
Enter elements of matrix
Enter elements of a1 1 = 1
Enter elements of a1 2 = 2
Enter elements of a1 3 = 9
Enter elements of a2 1 = 0
Enter elements of a2 2 = 4
Enter elements of a2 3 = 7
Entered matrix:
1 2 9 0 4 7
Transpose of matrix:
10 2 4 9 7

Question 2.
Write C++ program to sort words in dictionary order.
C++ Program to find transpose of a matrix
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Output:
Enter 10 words:
Kalai
Artqueen
Visalatchi
Jaya
Dhanush
In lexicographical order:
Artqueen
Dhanush
Jaya
Kalai
Visalatchi

Question 3.
Explain memory representation of 2 – D array.
Answer:
Normally, the two – dimensional array can be viewed as a matrix. The conceptual view of a 2 – D array is shown below:
int A[4][3];
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
In the above example, the 2 – D array name A has 4 rows and 3 columns.
Like one – dimensional, the 2 – D array elements are stored in continuous memory. There are two types of 2 – D array memory representations. They are:

  1. Row – Major order
  2. Column – Major order

For example
intA[4][3] = {

{8,6,5},
{2,1,9},
{3,6,4},
{4,3,2},

Row major:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Column major order
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Question 4.
Let an organisation have three employees. If we want to read and print all their details, write a C++program for the following structure definition
struct Employee
{

char name [50];
int age;
float salary;

};
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Output:
Enter the details of 3 employees:
Enter the details of Employee 1
Enter name:
Lilly

Enter age:
42

Enter salary:
40000.00

Enter the details of Employee 2
Enter name:
Aster

Enter age:
38

Enter salary:
60000.00

Enter the details of Employee 3
Enter name:
Jasmine

Enter age:
45

Enter salary:
80000.00

Displaying Information:
The details of Employee 1
Name : Lilly
Age : 42
Salary : 40000.00

The details of Employee 2
Name : Aster
Age : 38
Salary : 60000.00

The details of Employee 3
Name : Jasmine
Age : 45
Salary : 80000.00

Question 5.
Explain returning structures from functions with an example.
Answer:
A structure can be passed to a function through its object. Therefore, passing a structure to a function or passing a structure object to a function is the same because structure object represents the structure. Like a normal variable, structure variable (structure object) can be passed by value or by references / addresses. Similar to built – in data types, structures also can be returned from a function.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Output:
Enter Employee Id : 10
Enter Employee Name : Ajay
Enter Employee Age : 25
Enter Employee Salary : 15000
Employee Id : 10
Employee Name : Ajay
Employee Age : 25
Employee Salary : 15000

Question 6.
Write output of the following program.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures
Output:
Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
160.5
Enter the weight:
46.5
The Date of birth Enter the day:
25
Enter the month:
NOV
Enter the year:
2017
The values entered for Age, height and weight are
18 160.5 46.5
His date of Birth is:
25 – NOV – 2017

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [15 x 1 = 15]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
How many equivalents of Sodium sulphate is formed when Sulphuric acid is completely neutralized with a base NaOH?
(a) 0.2
(b) 2
(c) 0.1
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 1

Question 2.
Consider the orbitals A, B and C, which as following n and l values,
A ⇒ n = 3 and l = 1
B ⇒ n = 4 and l = 2
C ⇒ n = 2 and l = 0
Arrange the orbitals in increasing energy level.
(a) C < B < A
(b) C < A < B
(c) A < B < C
(d) B < A < C
Answer:
(b) C < A < B

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 3.
The law of triads is obeyed by
(a) Fe, CO, Ni
(b) C, N, O
(c) He, Ne, Ar
(d) Al, Si, P
Answer:
(a) Fe, CO, Ni

Question 4.
Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is, hydrated
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate
(b) Calcium aluminium silicate
(c) Zinc aluminium borate
(d) Lithium aluminium hydride
Zeolite is sodium aluminium silicate. (NaAlSi2O6 H2O)
Answer:
(a) Sodium aluminium silicate

Question 5.
Assertion : Generally alkali and alkaline earth metals form superoxides.
Reason : There is a single bond between O and O in superoxides.
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) both assertion and reason are false

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Among alkali and alkaline earth metals, K, Rb and Cs alone forms superoxides. Superoxide O2- has 3 electron bond.

Question 6.
Rate of diffusion of a gas is
(a) directly proportional to its density
(b) directly proportional to its molecular weight
(c) directly proportional to its square root of its molecular weight
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight
Answer:
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight

Question 7.
The values of AH and AS for a reaction are respectively 30 kJ mol-1 and 100 JK 1 mol-1. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is:
(a) 300K
(b) 30K
(c) 100K
(d) 20°C
Answer:
(a) 300K

∆G = ∆H – T∆S
At 300 K, ∆G = 30000 J mol-1 – 300 K x 100 J K-1 mol-1
∆G = 0 above 300 K ; ΔG will be negative and reaction becomes spontaneous.

Question 8.
If x is the fraction of PCl5 dissociated at equilibrium in the reaction, PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 then starting with 0.5 mole of PC15, the total number of moles of reactants and products at equilibrium is ……………………… .
(a) 0.5 – x
(b) x + 0.5
(c) 2x + 0.5
(d) x + l
Answer:
(b) x + 0.5

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Solution:

PCl5 PC13 Cl2
Initial no. of moles 0.5
No . of moles dissociated X
No. of moles at equilibrium 0.5 – x X x

Total no. of moles at equilibrium = 0.5 – x + x + x = 0.5 + x

Question 9.
Which of the following concentration terms is/are independent of temperature?
(a) molality
(b) molarity
(c) mole fraction
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a) and (c)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Solution:
Molality and mole fraction are independent of temperature.

Question 10.
Which one of the following is a correct set?
(a) H2O, sp3, bent
(b) H2O, sp2, linear
(c) NH44+, dsp2, square planar
(d) CH4, dsp2, tetrahedral
Answer:
(a) H2O, sp3, bent

Question 11.
The IUPAC name of the compound is
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 2
(a) 2,3 – Diemethylheptane
(b) 3- Methyl -4- ethyloctane
(c) 5-ethyl -6-methyl octane
(d) 4- Ethyl -3 – methyloctane
Answer:
(d) 4- Ethyl -3 – methyloctane

Question 12.
Which of the following is correct order of the stability of carbocations?
(a) +CH3 > +CH2 CH2 > +CH(CH3)2 > +C(CH3)3
(b) +CH2CH3 > +CH3 > +CH(CH3)2 > +C(CH3)3
(c) +C(CH3)3 > +CH(CH3)2 > +CH2CH3 > +CH3
(d) +CH(CH3)2 > +CH3 > +CH2CH3 > +C(CH3)3
Answer:
(c) +C(CH3)3 > +CH(CH3)2 > +CH2CH3 > +CH3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 13.
where A is,
(a) Zn
(b) Cone. H2SO4
(c) Ale. KOH
(d) Dil. H2SO4
Answer:
(c) Ale. KOH

Question 14.
Match the compounds given in Column I with suitable items given in Column II.

Column I (Compound) Column II (Uses)
A. Iodoform 1. Fire extinguisher
B. Carbon tetrachloride 2. Insecticide
C. CFC 3. Antiseptic
D. DDT 4. Refrigerants

Code:
(a) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3
(b) A → 3, B → 2, C → M, D → 1
(c) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3, D → 4
(d) A → 3, B → 1, C → 4, D → 2
Answer:
(d) A → 3, B → 1, C → 4, D → 2

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 15.
Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous because it …………………………… .
(a) Combines with O2 present inside to form CO2
(b) Reduces organic matter of tissues
(c) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen
(d) Dries up the blood
Answer:
(c) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen

Part-II

Answer any six questions in which question No. 20 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What is meant by plasma state? Give an example.
Answer:
The gaseous state of matter at very high temperature containing gaseous ions and free-electron is referred to as the Plasma state, e.g. Lightning.

Question 17.
Give the electronic configuration of Mn2+ and Cr3+.
Answer:
Mn (Z = 25) Mn → Mn2+ + 2e
Mn2+ electronic configuration is Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
Cr (Z = 24) Cr → Cr3+ + 3e
Cr3+ electronic configuration is Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 18.
Do you think that heavy water can be used for drinking purposes?
Answer:

  1. Heavy water (D2O) contains a proton and a neutron. This makes deuterium about twice as heavy as protium, but it is not radioactive. So heavy water is not radioactive.
  2. If you drink heavy water, you don’t need to worry about radiation poisoning. But it is not completely safe to drink, because the biochemical reaction in our cells are affected by the difference in the mass of hydrogen atoms.
  3. If you drink an appreciable volume of heavy water, you might feel dizzy because of the density difference. It would change the density of the fluid in your inner ear. So it is unlikely to drink heavy water.

Question 19.
Mention the methods used for liquefaction of gases.
Answer:

  1. Linde’s method: Joule-Thomson effect is used to get liquid air or any other gas.
  2. Claude’s process: In addition to Joule-Thomson effect, the gas is allowed to perform mechanical work so that more cooling is produced.
  3. Adiabatic process: This method of cooling is produced by removing the magnetic property of magnetic material e.g. Gadolinium sulphate. By this method, a temperature of 10-4 K i.e. as low as zero Kelvin can be achieved.

Question 20.
Calculate the entropy change of a process, possessing ΔHt = 2090 J mole-1. Sn(α, 13°C) = Sn(β, 13°C).
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 21.
What is reaction quotient?
Answer:
Consider a.homogeneous reversible reaction
For the above reaction under non-equilibrium conditions, reaction quotient Q is defined as the ratio of the product of active masses of reaction products raised to the respective stoichiometric coefficients in the balanced chemical equation to that of the reactants.

Under non equilibrium conditions,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 4

Question 22.
Write the structural formula for the following compounds,
(a) Cyclohexa-1,4-diene
(b) Ethynyl Cyclohexane
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 5

Question 23.
What are free radical initiators? Give an example.
Answer:
The types of reagents that promote homolytic cleavage in substrate are called as free radical initiators. They are short lived and are highly reactive.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Example:

  • Azobisisobutyronitrile (AIBN)
  • Benzoyl peroxide

Question 24.
Complete the reaction and mention name of the reaction.
CH3CH2Br + (CH3)2 LiCu → ?
Answer:
This reaction is known as Corey-House Mechanism.

Part-III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
A compound contains 50% of X (atomic mass 10) and 50% Y (atomic mass 20). Give its empirical formula.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 6
∴ The Empirical Formula is X2Y
Empirical Formula mass = 20 + 20 = 40
Molecular mass = Sum of atomic mass = 40
n = 1, Molecular formula = (Empirical Formula )n = (X2Y)1 = X2Y.

Question 26.
Explain Davisson and termer experiment.
Answer:

  • The wave nature of electron was experimentally confirmed by Davisson and Germer.
  • They allowed the accelerated beam of electrons to fall on a nickel crystal and recorded the diffraction pattern.
  • The resultant diffraction pattern is similar to the X-ray diffraction pattern.
  • The finding of wave nature of electron leads to the development of various experimental techniques such as electron microscope, low energy electron diffraction etc.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 27.
What are the importance of hydrogen bonding in proteins?
Answer:

  • Hydrogen bonds occur in complex biomolecules such as proteins and in biological systems.
  • For example, hydrogen bonds play an important role in the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), since it holds together the two helical nucleic acid chains.
  • In these systems, hydrogen bonds are formed between specific pairs, for example, with a thymine unit in one chain bonding to an adenine unit in another; similarly, a cytosine unit in one chain bonds to a guanine unit in another.
  • Intramolecular hydrogen bonding also plays an important role in the structure of polymers, both synthetic and natural.

Question 28.
What is the reason behind the cause of ear pain while climbing a mountain? How it can be rectified?
Answer:

  • When one ascends a mountain in a plain, the external pressure drops while the pressure within the air cavities remains the same. This creates an imbalance.
  • The greater internal pressure forces the eardrum to bulge outward causing pain.
  • With time and with the help of a yawn or two, the excess air within your ear’s cavities escapes thereby equalizing the internal and external pressure and relieving the pain.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 29.
A mixture of gases contains 4.76 mole of Ne, 0.74 mole of Ar and 2.5 mole of Xe. Calculate the partial pressure of gases, if the total pressure is 2 atm, at a fixed temperature.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 7

Question 30.
Write the various definition of first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The first law of thermodynamics states that “the total energy of an isolated system remains constant though it may change from one form to another” (or) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but may be converted from one form to another.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 31.
How will you detect nitrogen from organic compounds?
Answer:
Detection of Nitrogen: The following reactions are involved in the detection of nitrogen with formation of prussian blue precipitate conforming the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 8

Question 32.
Distinguish between carbocation and carbanion.
Answer:

Carbocation Carbanion
In a carbocation carbon bearing positive charge. In a carbanion carbon bearing negative charge.
Carbon bearing positive charge has sp2 hybridization. Carbon bearing negative charge has sp3 hybridization.
It has a planar structure. It has a pyramidal structure.
E.g.: CH3+, (CH3)2CH, (CH3)3C+etc. E.g.: CH3-CH2, CH3-CHO, (CH3)2CH etc.

Question 33.
What are particulate pollutants? Explain any three.
Answer:

  1. Particulate pollutants are small solid particles, and liquid droplets suspended in air. Examples: dust, pollen, smoke, soot and liquid aerosols.
  2. Types of Particulates: Particulates in the atmosphere may be of two types:
    • viable particulate and
    • non-viable particulate.
  3. The viable particulates are small size living organisms such as bacteria, fungi moulds and algae which are dispersed in air.
  4. The non-viable particulates are small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in air. There are four types of non-viable particulates in the atmosphere. They are
    (a) Smoke (b) Dust (c) Mist (d) Fumes
  5. Smoke: Smoke particulate consists of solid particles formed by combustion of organic matter. For example, cigarette smoke, oil smoke, smokes from burning of fossil fuels, garbage arid dry leaves.
  6. Dust: ft is composed of fine solid particles produced during crushing and grinding of solid materials. For example, sand from sand blasting, saw dust from wood works and fly ash from power generating units.
  7. Mist: They are formed by particles of sprayed liquids and condensation of vapours in air. For example, sulphuric acid mist, herbicides and insecticides sprays can form mists.
  8. Fumes: They are obtained by condensation of vapours released during sublimation, distillation, boiling arid calcination and by several other chemical reactions. For example, organic solvents, metals and metallic oxides.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) The stabilization of a half-filled d-orbital is more pronounced than that of the p-orbital. Why? (3)
(ii) What are degenerate orbitals? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the preparation of hydrogen using electrolysis. (3)
(ii) Why hydrogen gas is used as fuel? (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) The exactly half-filled orbitals have greater stability. The reason for their stability are.
1. symmetry
2. exchange energy.

1. Symmetry: The half filled orbitals are more symmetrical than partially filled orbitals and this symmetry leads to greater stability.

2. Exchange energy: The electrons with same spin in the different orbitals of the same subshell can exchange their position. Each such exchange release energy and this is known as exchange energy. Greater the number of exchanges, greater the exchange energy and hence greater the stability.

In d-orbital, 10 exchanges are possible but in p-orbital 6 exchanges are possible. So, d-orbital with 5 unpaired electrons (10 exchanges)n i.e. half filled is more stable than p-orbital with 3 unpaired electrons (6 exchanges).

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

(ii)

  • Three different orientations in space that are possible for a p-orbital. All the three p-orbitals, namely px, py and pz have same energies and are called degenerate orbitals.
  • In the presence of magnetic or electric field, the degeneracy is lost.

[OR]

(b) (i) High purity of hydrogen (>99.9%) is obtained by the electrolysis of water containing traces of acid or alkali or electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide using a nickel anode and iron cathode. This process is not economical for large scale production.

At anode: 2OH → H2O + ½ O2 + 2e
At cathode: 2H2O + 2e → 2OH + H2
Overall reaction: H2O → H2 + ½ O2

(ii) Hydrogen bums in air, virtually free from pollution and produces significant amount of energy. This reaction is used in fuel cells to generate electricity.
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2 O(l) + energy

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 35.
(a) (i) What is lattice energy? (2)
(ii) Write down the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl2. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) What is the effect of added inert gas on the reaction at equilibrium? (2)
(ii) Explain the equilibrium constants for heterogeneous equilibrium. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Lattice energy is defined as the amount of energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into gaseous constituent.
(ii) Born-Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl2.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 9

[OR]

(b) (i) When an inert gas (i.e., a gas which does not react with any other species involved in equilibrium) is added to an equilibrium system at constant volume, the total number of moles of gases present in the container increases, that is, the total pressure of gases increases, the partial pressure of the reactants and the products are unchanged. Hence at constant volume, the addition of inert gas has no effect on the equilibrium.
(ii) Equilibrium constants for heterogeneous equilibrium:
Consider the following heterogeneous equilibrium.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 10

The equilibrium constant for the above reaction can be written as
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 11

A pure solid always has the same concentration at a given temperature, as it does not expand to fill its container, i.e. it has same number of moles L-l of its volume. Therefore, the concentration of a pure solid is constant. The above expression can be modified as follows.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 12

The equilibrium constant for the above reaction depends only the concentration of carbon dioxide and pot the calcium carbonate or calcium oxide. Similarly, the active mass (concentration) of the pure liquid does not change at a given temperature. Consequently, the concentration terms of pure liquids can also be excluded from the expression of the equilibrium constant.

For example,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 13

Since, H2O (1) is a pure liquid the K can be expressed as \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{c}}=\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}^{+}(\mathrm{aq})\right]\left[\mathrm{HCO}_{3}^{-}(\mathrm{aq})\right]}{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}(\mathrm{g})\right]}\)

Question 36.
(a) (i) Explain why the aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water during winter season rather than warm water during the summer? (3)
(ii) What is osmosis? (2)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the shape of following molecule by using VSEPR theory. (3)
(a) BeCl2 (b) NH3 (c) H2O
(ii) Which bond is stronger or σ or π? Why?
Answer:
(a)
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 14

(ii) Osmosis is a spontaneous process by which the solvent molecules pass through a semipermeable membrane from a solution of lower concentration to the solution of higher concentration.
[OR]
(b) (i)
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 15

(ii)

  • Sigma bonds (σ) are stronger than Pi bonds (π). Because, sigma bonds are formed from bonding orbitals directly between the nuclei of the bonding atoms, resulting in greater overlap and a strong sigma bond (axial overlapping).
  • Pi bonds results from overlap of atomic orbitals that are in contact through two areas of overlap (lateral overlapping). Pi bonds are more diffused bonds than sigma bonds.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Question 37.
(a) (i) How inductive effect helps to explain reactivity and acidity of carboxylic acids? (3)
(ii) HCOOH is more acidic than CH3COOH. Why? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Suggest a simple chemical test to distinguish propane and propene. (2)
(ii) Write a notes on Wurtz-fitting reaction. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Reactivity of carboxylic acid:

  • When a highly electronegative atom such as halogen is attached to a carbon then it makes the C-X bond polar.
  • In such cases the -I effect of halogen facilitates the attack of an incoming nucleophile at the polarized carbon and hence increases the reactivity.
    Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 16
  • If a -I group is attacher neared to a carbonyl carbon, it decreases the availability of electron density on the carbonyl carbon and hence increases the rate of the nucleophilic addition reaction.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Acidity of carboxylic acid:
1. When a halogen atom is attached to the carbon which is neared to the carboxylic acid group, its -I effect withdraws the bonded electrons towards itself and makes the ionization of H+ easy.
2. The acidity of various chloro acetic acid is in the following order.
Cl3C –  COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > CICH2COOH. The strength of the acid increases with increase in the -effect of the group attached to the carboxyl group.
3. Similarly the following order of acidity in the carboxylic acids is due to the +1 effect of alkyl group.
(CH3)3CCOOH < (CH3)2 CHCOOH < CH3COOH

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 17
Out of Acetic acid and Formic acid, Formic acid is conidered stronger because, CH3 group in Acetic acid contriubutes electron density towards the O – H bond, making it harder to remove the H+ ion and making Acetic acid a weaker acid that Formic acid.

∴ Formic acid is more acidic one.

[OR]

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

(b) (i) Chemical test to distinguish between propane and propene
Bromine water test: Propene contains double bond, therefore when we pour the bromine water to propene sample, it decolourises the bromine water whereas propane which is a saturated hydrocarbon does not decolourise the bromine water.
Baeyer’s test: When propene reacts with Bayer’s reagent it gives 1,2 dihydroxy propane. Propane does not react with Baeyer’s reagent.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 18

(ii) When a solution of bromobenzene and iodomethane in dry ether is treated with metallic sodium, toluene is formed.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 19

Question 38.
(a) An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C2H5Cl reacts with KOH gives compound B and with alcoholic KOH gives compound C. Identify A, B and C explain the reactions. (5)
(b) Write an essay on water pollution. (5)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium 20

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

[OR]
I – Water Pollution:

  1. Water is essential for life. The slogan “Save water, water will save you”, tell us the importance of water.
  2. Water pollution is defined as ‘The addition of foreign substances or factors like heat which degrades the quality of water, so that it becomes health hazard or unfit to use.
  3. The source of water pollution is classified as point and non-point source. Easily identified source of place of pollution is called as point source, e.g. Municipal and industrial discharge pipes. Non-point source cannot be identified easily, e.g. Acid rain and mining wastes.

II – Causes of water pollution:

  • Microbiological (Pathogens): Disease-causing micro organisms like bacteria, viruses and protozoa are most serious water pollutants. They come from domestic sewage and animal excreta.
  • Organic wastes: Organic matter such as leaves, grass, trash etc. can also pollute water. Water pollution is caused by excessive phytoplankton growth within water. Micro organisms present in water decompose these organic matter and consume dissolved oxygen in water.
  • Chemical wastes: A whole variety of chemicals from industries, such as metals and solvents are poisonous to fish and other aquatic life. Some toxic pesticides can accumulate in fish and shell fish and poison the people who eat them.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Harmful effects of chemical water pollutants.

  • Cd and Hg can cause kidney damage.
  • Pb – poisoning can lead to severe damage of kidneys, liver, brain etc. It also affect central nervous system.
  • Poly-chlorinated bipbenol causes skin diseases and are carcinogenic in nature.

III – Quality of drinking water:
Now a days most of us hesitate to use natural water directly for drinking because biological, physical or chemical impurities from different sources mix with surface water or ground water.

Institutes like WHO, BIS and ICMR have prescribed standards for quality of drinking water. Standard characteristics prescribed for deciding the quality of drinking water by BIS, in 1991 are shown in below table.

Characteristics Desirable limit
Physico-chemical Characteristics
pH 6.5 to 8.5
Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) 500 ppm
Total Hardness (as CaC03) 300 ppm
Nitrate 45 ppm
Chloride 250 ppm
Sulphate 200 ppm
Fluoride 1 ppm
Biological Characteristics
Escherichia Coli (E.Coli) Not at all
Coliforms Not to exceed 10 (In 100 ml water sample)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?
(a) D(+) Glucose
(b) L(+) Glucose
(c) D(-) Fructose
(d) D(+) Galactose
Answer:
(c) D(-) Fructose

Question 2.
The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below Respectively is ………………..
(a) L – Erythrose, L – Threose, L – Erythrose, D – Threose
(b) D – Threose, D – Erythrose, L – Thrcose, L – Erythrose
(c) L – Etythrose, L – Threose, D – Erythrose, D – Threose
(d) D – Erythrose, D – Threose, L – Erythrose, L – Threose
Answer:
(d) D – Erythrose, D – Threose, L – Erythrose, L – Threose

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 3.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) maltose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(b) Sucrose

Question 4.
Glucose(HCN) Product (hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) A, the compound A is ………………..
(a) Heptanoic acid
(b) 2 – lodohexane
(c) Heptane
(d) Heptanol
Answer:
(a) Heptanoic acid

Question 5.
Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the presence of little hydrochloric acid, it becomes levorotatory.
Reason: Sucrose hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this change in sign of rotation is observed.
(a) If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) if both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(a) If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Qustion 6.
The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from ……………..
(a) Amino acids Protein DNA
(b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
(c) DNA RNA Prnteins
(d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) DNA RNA Proteins

Question 7.
In a protein, various amino acids liked together by …………..
(a) Peptide bond
(b) Dative bond
(c) α – Glycosidic bond
(d) β – Glycosidic bond
Answer:
(a) Peptide bond

Question 8.
Among the following the achiral amino acid is …………..
(a) 2 – ethylalanine
(b) 2 – methyiglycine
(c) 2 – hydroxymethyiscrine
(d) Tryptophan
Answer:
(c) 2 – hydroxymethylserine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 9.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is ………………
(a) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
(b) the sugar component in RNA is 2’ – deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
(c) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’ – deoxyribose
(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
Answer:
(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’ – deoxyribose

Question 10.
In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in ……………….
(a) NH2 – CH(R) – COOH
(b) NH2 – CH(R) – COO
(c) H3N – CH(R) – COOH
(d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO
Answer:
(d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO

Question 11.
Which one of the following is not produced by body?
(a) DNA
(b) Enzymes
(c) Hormones
(d) Vitamins
Answer:
(d) Vitamins

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 12.
The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively ……………..
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 4 and 2
(c) 5 and 1
(d) 1 and 5
Answer:
(d) 1 and 5

Question 13.
Vitamin B2 is also known as …………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Thiamine
(c) Nicotinamide
(d) Pyridoxine
Answer:
(a) Riboflavin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 14.
The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are …………..
(a) Cytosine and Adenine
(b) Cytosine and Guanine
(c) Cytosine and Thiamine
(d) Cytosine and Uracil
Answer:
(c) Cytosine and Thiamine

Question 15.
Among the following L – serine is …………..
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-1
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-2

Question 16.
The secondary structure of a protein refers to ………………
(a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone
(b) hydrophobic interaction
(c) sequence of a-amino acids
(d) α – helical backbone
Answer:
(d) α – helical backbone

Question 17.
Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B
Answer:
(b) Vitamin K

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 18.
Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives ……………
(a) L – Glucose
(b) D – Fructose
(c) D – Ribose
(d) D – Glucose
Answer:
(d) D – Glucose

Question 19.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
(c) Denaturation makes protein more active
(d) Insulin maintains the sugar level of in the human body
Answer:
(c) Denaturation makes protein more active

Question 20.
Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?
(a) It does not form oxime
(b) It does not react with Grignard reagent
(c) It does not form osazones
(d) It does not reduce tollens reagent
Answer:
(b) It does not react with Grignard reagent

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 21.
If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence of complementary strand would be ……………..
(a) TACGAACT
(b) TCCGAACT
(c) TACGTACT
(d) TACGRAGT
Answer:
(a) TACGAACT

Question 22.
Insulin, a hormone chemically is ………….
(a) Fat
(b) Steroid
(c) Protein
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 23.
a – D (+) Glucose and ß – D (+) glucose are ………………..
(a) Epimers
(b) Anomers
(c) Enantiomers
(d) Conformational isomers
Answer:
(b) Anomers

Question 24.
Which of the following are epimers?
(a) D(+) – Glucose and D(+) – Galactose
(b) D(+) – Glucose and D(+) – Mannose
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 25.
Which of the following amino acids are achiral?
(a) Alanine
(b) Leucine
(c) Proline
(d) Glycine
Answer:
(a) Alanine

II. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What type of linkages hold together monomers of DNA?
Answer:

  1. Phospho diester linkages hold together monomers of DNA
  2. Phosphoric acid forms phospho diester bond between neucleotides
  3. The sugar – phosphate linkage forms the backbone of each strand of DNA.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-3

Question 2.
Give the differences between primary and secondary structure of proteins.
Answer:
Primary structure of proteins

  1. Linear sequence of amino acids
  2. Composed of peptide bonds formed between amino acids.
  3. Formed during translation.
  4. Involved in post – translational modifications.

Secondary structure of proteins

  1. Folding of the peptide chain into an a-helix and 13-sheet.
  2. Encompasses hydrogen bonds
  3. Forms collagen, elastin action, myosin, and keratin – like fibres.
  4. Involved in forming structures such as cartilages, ligaments, skins etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 3.
Name the Vitamins whose deficiency cause

  1. rickets
  2. scurvy

Answer:

  1. Vitamin – D deficiency causes rickets disease.
  2. Vitamin – C deficiency causes scurvy disease.

Question 4.
Write the Zwitter ion structure of alanine.
Zwitter ion structure of alanine
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-4

Question 5.
Give any three difference between DNA and RNA.
Answer:
DNA

  1. It is mainly present in nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast .
  2. It contains deoxyribose sugar
  3. Base pair A = T. G = C
  4. Double stranded molecules
  5. Its life time is high
  6. it is stable and not hydrolysed easily by alkalis
  7. It can replicate itself

RNA

  1. It is mainly present in cytoplasm, nucleolus and ribosomes
  2. It contains ribose sugar
  3. Base pair A = U. C = G
  4. Single stranded molecules
  5. It is Short lived
  6. It is unstable and hydrolyzed easily by alkalis
  7. It cannot replicate itself. It is formed from DNA.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 6.
Write a short note on peptide bond.
Answer:
1. The amino acids are linked covalently by peptide bonds.

2. The carbonyl group of the first amino acid react with the amino group of the second amino acid to give an amide linkage (- CONH) between these aminoacids. This amide linkage is called peptide bond.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-5

3. The resulting compound is called a dipeptide. Because, two amino acids are inovived for getting one peptide bond.

4. If large number of amino acids combined through peptide bond, the resulting giant molecule is called a protein.

5. The amino end of the peptide is known as N-terminal, while the carboxy end is called C – terminal.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 7.
Give two difference between Hormones and vitamins.
Answer:
hormones

  1. Hormones are produced in the endocrine or ductless glands.
  2. Hormones are not stored in the body. These are produced as and when required.
  3. They are effective in low concentration. Their excess or deficiency may cause hormonal disorders.
  4. Hormones influence the genes to produce specific enzymes required during metabolism.
  5. Example: Insulin

Vitamins

  1. Vitamins (except Vitarnin – D) are not produced in the body. Vitamin must be supplied in the diet.
  2. Vitamins are stored in the body upto certain extent.
  3. They are needed in small quantity. Excess vitamins are excreted. Their deficiency causes
  4. malfunctioning called deficiency diseases or avitaminosis.
  5. They act as co-enzymes and help enzymes to perform their function.
  6. Example: Vitamin A, B, C, D, E and K

Question 8.
Write a note on den atu ration of proteins.
Answer:
Denaturation of proteins.
1. In general, protein has a unique three – dimensional structure formed by interactions such as disuiphide bond, hydrogen bond, hydrophobic and electrostatic interactions.

2. These interactions can be disturbed when the protein is exposed to a higher temperature in certain chemicals such urea, alternation of pH, ionic strength etc. It leads to the loss of the three – dimensional structure.

3. The process of a protein losing its higher order structure without losing the primary structure, It is called denaturation of protein. When a protein denatures, its biological function is also lost.

4. Since the primary structure is intact, this process can be reversed in certain proteins. This can happen spontaneously upon restoring the original conditions or with the help of special enzymes called cheperons.

5. Example: Coagulation of egg white by action of heat.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 9.
What are reducing and non – reducing sugars?
Answer:
1. Reducing sugars:
Those carbonhydrates which contain free aldehyde or ketonic group and reduces Fehling’s solution and Tollen’s reagent are called reducing sugars. All monosacehaides whether aldose or ketone are reducing sugars.

2. Non – reducing sugars:
Cabohydrates which do not reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution are called non – reducing sugars. Example Sucrose. They do not have free aldehyde group.

Question 10.
Why carbohydrates are generally optically active?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are generally optically active because they have one or more chiral carbon atoms in their molecules. For example, Glucose has four chiral carbons and therefore it is optically active.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-6

Question 11.
Classify the following into monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharldes.

  1. Starch
  2. fructose
  3. sucrose
  4. lactose
  5. maltose

Answer:

  1. Starch – Polysaccharides
  2. Furctose – Mono saccharides
  3. Sucrose – Oligo saccharide
  4. Lactose – Oligo saccharide
  5. Maltose – Oligo saccharide

Surcose, Lactose and Maltose are typical disaccharides

Question 12.
How are vitamins classified?
Answer:
Vitamins are classified into two groups based on their solubility in water and in fat. They are,

  1. Water – soluble vitamins
  2. Oil or fat – soluble vitamins

Water – soluble vitamins – Vitamins which dissolve in water are called water soluble vitamins. Examples – Vitamins of B group and Vitamin C Oil or fat – soluble vitamins: Vitamins which dissolve in oils or fat are called oil or fat – soluble vitamins. Examples – Vitamin A, D, E and K

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 13.
What are hormones? Give examples.
Answer:
Hormone is an organic substance that is sëcreted by one tissue into the blood stream and induces a physiological response in other tissues. It is an inter cellular signaling molecule. Virtually every process is a complex organism is regulated by one or more hormones. Example, insulin, epinephrine, estrogen, androgen etc.

Question 14.
Write the structure of all possible dipeptides which can be obtained from glycine and atanine.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-7
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-8
Therefore two dipeptides structures are possible from glycine and alanine. They are

  1. glycyl alanine and
  2. Alanyl glycine

Question 15.
Define enzymes.
Answer:
There are many biochemical reactions that occur in our living cells. Digestion of food and harvesting the energy from them, and synthesis of necessary molecules required for various – cellular functions are examples for such reactions. All these reactions are catalysed by special proteins called enzymes.
(or)
Enzymes are bio catalysts produced by the living cells which catalyse many biochemical reactions in animal and plant bodies. They are more specific in their action.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 16.
Write the structure of – D (+) glucopyranose.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-9

Question 17.
What are different types of RNA which are found in cell?
Answer:
RNA molecules are classified according to their structure and function into three major types.

  1. Ribosomal RNA (r – RNA)
  2. Messenger RNA (m – RNA)
  3. Transfer RNA (t – RNA)

r-RNA:
rRNA is mainly found in cytoplasm and in ribosomes, which contain 60% RNA and 40% protein. Ribosomes are the sites at which protein synthesis takes place.

t – RNA:
tRNA molecules have lowest molecular weight of all nucleic acids. They consist of 73 – 94 nucleotides in a single chain. The function of tRNA is to carry amino acids to the sites of protein synthesis on ribosomes.

m – RNA:
mRNA is present in small quantity and very short lived. They are single stranded, and their synthesis takes place on DNA. The synthesis of mRNA from DNA strand is called transcription. mRNA carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Question 18.
Write a note on formation of – helix.
AnsweR:
1. In the α – helix sub – structure, the aminoacids are arranged in a right handed helical (spiral) structure and are stabilised by the hydrogen bond between the carbonyl oxygen one aminoacid (nth residue) with amino hydrogen of the fifth residue (n + 4th residue)

2. The side chains of the residues protrude outside of the helix. Each turn of an α – helix contains about 3.6 residues and is about 5.4 A long.

3. The amino acid proline produces a line in the helical structure and often called as a helical breaker due to its rigid cyclic structure.

4. Many fibrous proteins such as ct-Keratin in hair, nails, wool, skin and myosin in muscles have α – helix structure. Stretching property of human hair is due to the helical structure of α – keratin in hair.

5. Structure of a-helix.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-10

Question 19.
What are the functions of lipids in living organism?
Answer:

  1. Lipids are the integral component of cell membrane. They are necessary of structural integrity of the cell.
  2. The main function of triglycerides in animals is as an energy reserve. They yield more energy than carbohydrates and proteins.
  3. They act as protective coating in aquatic organisms.
  4. Lipids of connective tissue give protection to internal organs.
  5. Lipids help in the absorption and transport of fat soluble vitamins.
  6. They are essential for activation of enzymes such as lipases.
  7. Lipids act as emulsifier in fat metabolism.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 20.
Is the following sugar, D – sugar or L – sugar?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-11

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules 1 mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is the most abundant organic compounds in every living organism?
(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Hormones
Answer:
(c) Carbohydrates

Question 2.
What is the general chemical name of carbohydrates?
(a) Poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketones
(b) Poly hydroxy esters
(c) Poly amino acids
(d) Poly carboxylic esters.
Answer:
(a) Poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketones

Question 3.
Which process is utilized in the synthesis of carbohydrates in green plants?
(a) Oxidation
(b) Redox reaction
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Reduction
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds are optically active?
(a) Glycine
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Ethanol
(d) Meso tartaric acid
Answer:
(b) Carbohydrates

Question 5.
Which of the following is optically inactive?
(a) 2 – butanol
(b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Glucose
(d) Meso tartaric acid
Answer:
(d) Meso tartaric acid

Question 6.
How many isomers are possible for glucose that have 4 asymmetic carbon atoms?
(a) 8 isomers
(b) 16 isomers
(c) 2 isomers
(d) 4 isomers
Answer:
(b) 16 isomers

Question 7.
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are in glucose?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 4

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 8.
Which of the following rotates the plane polarised light in clockwise direction?
(a) L(-) Glucose
(b) D (glucose)
(c) L – fructose
(d) L – Glyceraldehyde
Answer:
(b) D (glucose)

Question 9.
Which one of the following is levorotatory?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-12
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-13

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a monosaccharide?
(a) Fructose
(b) Ribose
(c) Erythrose
(d) Maltose
Answer:
(d) Maltose

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a monossachande?
(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
(c) Surcose
(d) Cellulose
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 12.
The number of carbon atoms present in Erythrose is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 13.
What is the amount of glucose present in human blood?
(a) 150 mg/dI
(b) 50 mg/dl
(c) 100 mg/dl
(d) 1000 mg/dl
Answer:
(c) 100 mg/dl

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 14.
Which one of the following is called blood sugar?
(a) Erythrose
(b) Ribose
(c) Ribulose
(d) Glucose
Answer:

Question 15.
Acid hydrolysis of starch at high temperature and pressure produces
(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) both fructose and glucose
(d) maltose
Answer:
(b) glucose

Question 16.
The other name of glucose is …………
(a) dextrose
(b) blood sugar
(c) aldohexose
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 17.
Which one is formed as major product when glucose is on reduction with concentrated HI and red P at 3 73K?
(a) 2 – iodohexane
(b) 3 – iodohexane
(c) n – hexane
(d) 4 – iodohexane
Answer:
(c) n – hexane

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 18.
Which one of the product is formed when glucose reacts with bromine water?
(a) n – hexane
(b) Gluconic acid
(c) Saccharic acid
(d) Hexanoic acid
Answer:
(c) Saccharic acid

Question 19.
Which one of the following is formed when glucose react with Conc. HNO3?
(a) Gluconic acid
(b) Glutaric acid
(c) Saccharic acid
(d) Hexanoic acid
Answer:
(c) Saccharic acid

Question 20.
Which one of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 21.
Which of the following form pentacetate with acetic anhydide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Lactose
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(d) Both a & b

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 22.
Which one of the reagent does not react with glucose?
(a) Acetic anhydride
(b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Sodium bi suiphite
(d) Bromine water
Answer:
(c) Sodium bi suiphite

Question 23.
The specific rotation of pure α and β (D) glucose are respectively.
(a) 18.7°, 112°
(b) 112°, 18.7°
(c) 90°, 90°
(d) 120°, 20°
Answer:
(b) 112°, 18.7°

Question 24.
Sugar differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ……………….
(a) epimers
(b) isomers
(c) anomers
(d) monomers
Answer:
(a) epimers

Question 25.
Which enzyme is utilised in the conversion of galactose to glucose?
(a) Maltose
(b) Epimerase
(c) Invertase
(d) Zymase
Answer:
(b) Epimerase

Question 26.
The other name of fructose is ……………
(a) Ketohexose
(b) fruit sugar
(c) levulose
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 27.
Hydrolysis of mutin in acidic medium gives ……………
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) both a & b
(d) maltose
Answer:
(b) fructose

Question 28.
Invert sugar is a mixture of equal amount of ……………..
(a) lactose + maltose
(b) diastose + galactose
(c) glucose + fructose
(d) starch + cellulose
Answer:
(c) glucose + fructose

Question 29.
Which enzyme is used in the conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose?
(a) Zymase
(b) Invertase
(c) Diastase
(d) Maltase
Answer:
(b) Invertase

Question 30.
Which one of the following is the sweetest of all known sugars?
(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(c) Fructose

Question 31.
Which is the product formed when fructose undergoes partial reduction with sodium amalgam and water?
(a) Sorbital + mannitol
(b) D – mannose + D – galactose
(c) Gluconic acid + saccharic acid
(d) Aldehyde + ketone
Answer:
(a) Sorbital + mannitol

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 32.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert fructose into sorbitol and mannitol?
(a) LiAlH4
(b) Hl / Red P
(c) Na / Hg
(d) Conc. HNO3
Answer:
(c) Na / Hg

Question 33.
Fructose on oxidation with concentrated nitric acid gives
(a) glyceric acid + oxalic acid
(b) glycoffic acid + tartaric acid
(c) tartronic acid + mesoxalic acid
(d) acetic acid + hexanoic acid
Answer:
(b) glycoffic acid + tartaric acid

Question 34.
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in fructose?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 35.
Two monosaccharides are linked by to form a disaccharide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-14
Answer:
(a) glycosidic linkage

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 36.
Which of the following is not an example of disaccharide?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Lactose
(c) Maltose
(d) Cellulose
Answer:
(d) Cellulose

Question 37.
The enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is …………….
(a) zymase
(b) invertase
(c) diastase
(d) maltase
Answer:
(b) invertase

Question 38.
Which one of the following contains a mixture of glucose, fructose and sucrose?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Bectroot
(c) Honey
(d) Mango
Answer:
(c) Honey

Question 39.
Consider the following statements
(i) in sucrose, C1 of a – D – glucose is joined to C2 of D – fructose.
(ii) Two monosaccharides are linked by glycosidic linkage.
(iii) In sucrose, C2 of a – D – glucose is joined to C1 of D – fructose.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 40.
Which one of the following is an example of non – reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Dextrose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(d) Sucrose

Question 41.
Which one of the following on hydrolysis give galactose and glucose?
(a) Maltose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(c) Lactose

Question 42.
Which one of the following is called milk sugar?
(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Raffinose
Answer:
(a) Lactose

Question 43.
Which of the following is the major source of maltose?
(a) Honey
(b) Apple
(c) Sprouting barley
(d) Grapes
Answer:
(c) Sprouting barley

Question 44.
Which one is produced during digestion of starch by the enzyme α – amylase?
(a) Maltose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(a) Maltose

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 45.
Consider the following statements
(I) Maltose consists two molecules of α – D glucose units linked by an α – 1, 4 glycosidic bond.
(ii) Maltose act as non-reducing sugar.
(iii) Maltose is produced during digestion of cellulose by the enzyme a-amylase.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(d) (ii) & (iii)

Question 46.
Which one of the following is hetero polysaccharide?
(a) Starch
(b) Heparin
(c) Cellulose
(d) Glycogen
Answer:
(b) Heparin

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a homopolysaccharide?
(a) Hyaluronic acid
(b) Heparin
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Starch
Answer:
(d) Starch

Question 48.
Consider the following statements
(I) Starch contains 80% of amylase and about 20% amylopectin.
(ii) Polysaccharides are called sugars.
(iii) Lactose act as a reducing agent.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii)

Question 49.
Which one of the following gives blue colour with amylose and purple colour with amylopectin?
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) Iodine solution
(d) Bromic water
Answer:
(c) Iodine solution

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 50.
Which colour is formed when amylose is treated with iodine solution?
(a) Purple
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Violet
Answer:
(c) Blue

Question 51.
Which colour is formed when amylopectin is treated with iodine solution?
(a) Purple
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Red
Answer:
(a) Purple

Question 52.
Which one of the following is the major constituent of plant cell walls?
(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glycogen
(d) Amylose
Answer:
(b) Cellulose

Question 53.
Consider the following statements
(i) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide.
(ii) The glucose molecules in cellulose arc linked by β(1, 4) glycosidic bond.
(iii) Cotton is almost pure starch.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (ii)
Answer:
(d) (i) & (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 54.
Which of the following enzyme can hydrolyse the cellulose?
(a) Invertase
(b) Glycosidase
(c) Zymase
(d) Diastase
Answer:
(b) Glycosidase

Question 55.
Which one of the following is called gun cotton?
(a) Nitrated ester of cellulose
(b) Cellulose acetate
(c) Glyceryl trinitrate
(d) Trinitrotoluene
Answer:
(a) Nitrated ester of cellulose

Question 56.
Which one of the following is called animal starch?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Glycogen
(c) Lactose
(d) Fat
Answer:
(b) Glycogen

Question 57.
Consider the following statements
(i) The excessive glucose in the body is stored in the form of arnylose and amylopectin.
(ii) Glycogeri is present in the liver and muscle of animals.
(iii) Protein is stored in the body as glycogen and in plant as starch.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (¡) & (iii)
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 58.
Which one of the following is stored in the body as glycogen and in plant as starch?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin
(c) Fat
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(d) Carbohydrates

Question 59.
Which one of the following act as shock absorber and lubricant?
(a) Glycosamino glycans
(b) Glycogen
(c) Cellulose nitrate
(d) Rayon explosive
Answer:

Question 60.
Which biomolecule is the most abundant in all living organisms?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Vitamins
(c) Hormones
(d) Proteins
Answer:
(d) Proteins

Question 61.
Which of the following is mainly present in proteins?
(a) 3 – keto acid
(b) 1 – amino acid
(c) α, β – ketol
(d) amide and acids
Answer:
(b) 1 – amino acid

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 62.
Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?
(a) Alanine
(b) Valine
(c) Glycine
(d) Proline
Answer:
(c) Glycine

Question 63.
Proteins are generally …………..
(a) poly amides
(b) polyesters
(c) polymer
(d) poly peptide
Answer:
(d) poly peptide

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an example for fibrous protein?
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Insulin
(c) Keratin
(d) Enzymes
Answer:
(c) Keratin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 65.
Which one of the following is an example for globular protein?
(a) Kerating
(b) Myoglobin
(c) Collagen
(d) Etastin
Answer:
(b) Myoglobin

Questin 66.
Consider the following statement
(i) The amino acids arc linked electro valently by peptide bonds in proteins.
(ii) Fibrous proteins are linear molecules similar to fibres.
(iii) Globular proteins have a linear shape.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) & (iii)

Question 67.
Consider the following statement
Answer:
(I) The relative arrangement of amino acids in the polypeptide chain called the secondary structure of protein.
(ii) α – Helix and β – strands are two most common sub structures formed by proteins.
(iii) α – Helix and β – strands further folds to form the three dimensional arrangement in tertiary structure of proteins.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 68.
Which of the following act as structural backbones?
(a) Keratine, collagen
(b) Myoglobin, insulin
(c) Glycine, proline
(d) Alanine, cysteine
Answer:
(a) Keratine, collagen

Question 69.
Which protein control the glucose level in the blood?
(a) Kerating, collagen
(b) Insulin, glucagon
(c) Glycine, proline
(d) Alanine, myoglobin
Answer:
(b) Insulin, glucagon

Question 70.
Which one of the following act as catalyst in the interconversion of carbonic acid to water and carbondioxide?
(a) Lactose
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Glycosidase
(d) Invertase
Answer:
(b) Carbonic anhydrase

Question 71.
Which enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to fructose and glucose?
(a) Lactase
(b) invertase
(c) Sucrase
(d) Zymase
Answer:
(c) Sucrase

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 72.
Lactase enzyme hydrolyses the lactose into its constituent as …………..
(a) glucose, fructose
(b) glucose, galactose
(c) fructose only
(d) glucose only
Answer:
(b) glucose, galactose

Question 73.
Consider the following statement
(i) Lipids are the principal components of cell membranes including cell walls.
(ii) Enzymes are biocatalysts that catalyse a specific biochemical reaction.
(iii) Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to fructose and glucose.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) & (iii)

Question 74.
Which one help in the absorption and transport of fat soluble vitamins?
(a) Lipids
(b) Protein
(c) Enzyme
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Lipids

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 75.
Which one act as emulsifier in fat metabolism?
(a) Enzymes
(b) Fats
(c) Lipids
(d) Proteins
Answer:
(c) Lipids

Question 76.
Which one of the following is fat soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin A
Answer:
(d) Vitamin A

Question 77.
Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 78.
Which one of the following deficient disease of Vitamin A?
(a) Cheilosis
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Convulsions
(d) Perncious Anaemia
Answer:
(b) Xerophthalmia

Question 79.
Which Vitamin deficiency leads to cheilosis?
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B2
(d) Vitamin B5
Answer:
(c) Vitamin B2

Question 80.
Which one of the following vitamin deficiency leads to Rickets?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(d) Vitamin D

Question 81.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to Hair loss, muscle pain?
(a) Biotin
(b) Niacin
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Thiamine
Answer:
(a) Biotin

Question 82.
The deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to the disease ………………..
(a) convulsions
(b) beriberi
(c) Pernicious anaemia
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(c) Pernicious anaemia

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 83.
Which of the following is the chemical name of vitamin B12?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Cobalamin
(c) Pyridoxime
(d) Riboflavin
Answer:
(b) Cobalamin

Question 84.
Night blindness and kertinisation of skin is the chemical name of Vitamin B12?
(a) vitamin B1
(b) vitamin C
(c) vitamin A
(d) vitamin B12
Answer:
(c) vitamin A

Question 85.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to the disease megaloblastic anaemia?
(a) Vitamin B9
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin B2
Answer:
(a) Vitamin B9

Question 86.
Which one of the following is rich in liver oil, carrot, mango and papaya?
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin A
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin A

Question 87.
Which of the vitamin deficiency leads to photosensitive dermatitis (or) pellagra?
(a) Vitamin B5
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B3
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin B3

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 88.
Depression, Hair loss, muscle pain are due to the deficiency of vitamin ……………..
(a) A
(b) B12
(c) B2
(d) B7
Answer:
(d) B7

Question 89.
The chemical name of vitamin B9 is …………….
(a) biotin
(b) folic acid
(c) niacin
(d) thiamin
Answer:
(b) folic acid

Question 90.
Which of the following is rich in citrus, fruits, tomato, amia and leafy vegetables?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(a) Vitamin C

Question 91.
Consider the following statement
(i) Vitamin D functions in the adsorption and maintenance of calcium.
(ii) Vitamin E act as an antioxidant.
(iii) Vitamin C functions in blood clotting.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(c) (i) & (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 92.
Which vitamin is rich in cotton seed oil, sunflower oil, wheat germ oil and all vegetable oils?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin E

Question 93.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to the disease osteomalacia?
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(a) Vitamin D

Question 94.
Which one of the following is mainly required for blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(d) Vitamin K

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 95.
Consider the following statement
(i) Nucleic acid are biopolymers of nucleotides.
(ii) Controlled hydrolysis of DNA and RNA yield 3 components namely a nitrogeneous base, a pentose sugar and sulphate group.
(iii) DNA and RNA are the molecular repositories that carry genetic information in every organism.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) & (iii)

Question 96.
Which one of the following is found in cytoplasm and in nbosomers which contain 60% RNA and 40% protein.
(a) Ribosomal RNA
(b) Messenger RNA
(c) Transfer RNA
(d) DNA
Answer:
(a) Ribosomal RNA

Question 97.
Consider the following statement .
(i) Ribosomes are the sites at which protein synthesis takes place.
(ii) Messenger RNA carried genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.
(iii) t RNA consist of 20 – 40 nucleotides in a single chain.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 98.
What is the name of the process of synthesis of mRNA from DNA strand?
(a) Transpiration
(b) Transcription
(c) Transformation
(d) Trans esterification
Answer:
(b) Transcription

Question 99.
Consider the following statement
(i) DNA mainly present in cytoplasm, nucleolus and ribosomes.
(ii) RNA is stable and not hydrolysed easily by alkalis.
(iii) DNA can replicate itself.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) & (ii)

Questin 100.
Who invented DNA finger printing?
(a) Sir Alec Jeffrey
(b) Rosalind Franklin
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Maurice Wilkins
Answer:
(a) Sir Alec Jeffrey

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 101.
Which one of the following can act as energy carriers?
(a) GTN
(b) ATP
(c) FAD
(d) Cyclic AMP
Answer:
(b) ATP

Questin 102.
Adenosine 3’, 5’- cyclic monophosphate a chemical messenger is otherwise called …………….
(a) ATP
(b) cyclic ADP
(c) cyclic AMP
(d) 3’P – ADP
Answer:
(c) cyclic AMP

Question 103.
Consider the following statement
(i) Endocrine glands make hormones.
(ii) Hormones may be classified as either protein (or) steroids
(iii) Hormones are intracellular signalling molecule.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 104.
Which one of the following is a steroid?
(a) Insulin
(b) Epinephrine
(c) mutin
(d) Estrogen
Answer:
(d) Estrogen

Question 105.
Which one of the following is a protein hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Androgen
(c) Cortisol
(d) Estrogen
Answer:
(a) Insulin

Question 106.
The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is …………….
(a) thymine
(b) cytosine
(c) guanine
(d) adenine
Answer:
(c) guanine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 107.
DNA multiplication is called ………….
(a) transcription
(b) transformation
(c) transduction
(d) replication
Answer:
(d) replication

Question 108.
Insulin is a protein which plays the role of ……………
(a) an antibody
(b) a hormone
(c) an enzyme
(d) a transporting agent
Answer:
(b) a hormone

Question 109.
Which metal is present in Vitamin B12?
(a) Ca (II)
(b) Zn (II)
(c) Fe (II)
(d) Co (III)
Answer:
(d) Co (III)

Question 110.
The helical structure of protein is stablized by ………………
(a) oxygen bonds
(b) peptide bonds
(c) dipeptide bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
(d) hydrogen bonds

Question 111.
The cell membranes are mainly composed of ………….
(a) carbohydrates
(b) proteins
(c) phospholipids
(d) fats
Answer:
(c) phospholipids

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 112.
Which one of the following is a polysaccharide?
(a) Nylon
(b) Amylose
(c) Ribose
(d) Polyethene
Answer:
(b) Amylose

Question 113.
Ribose ¡san example of …………….
(a) keto hexose
(b) aldohexose
(c) aldo pentose
(d) disaccharide
Answer:
(c) aldo pentose

Question 114.
Sucrose molecule is made up of …………..
(a) a gluco pyranose and fructo pyranose
(b) a glyco pyranose and fructo furanose
(c) a gluco furanose and fructo pyranose
(d) a gluco furanose and fructo furanose
Answer:
(b) a glyco pyranose and fructo furanose

Question 115.
A nucleotide consists of ……………….
(a) base and sugar
(b) base and phosphate
(c) sugar and phosphate
(d) base, sugar and phosphate
Answer:
(d) base, sugar and phosphate

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 116.
Which of the following is responsible for heredity character?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Proteins
(d) Hormones
Answer:
(a) DNA

Question 117.
The base adenine present in …………….
(a) DNA only
(b) RNA only
(c) Both DNA & RNA
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Both DNA & RNA

Question 118.
The protein which maintains the blood sugar level in the human body is …………..
(a) haemoglobin
(b) oxytocin
(c) insulin
(d) ptyalin
Answer:
(c) insulin

Question 119.
Ascorbic acid is a …………
(a) vitamin
(b) enzyme
(c) protein
(d) hormone
Answer:
(a) vitamin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 120.
Which of the following is not a constitutent of RNA?
(a) Ribose
(b) Phosphate
(c) Adenine
(d) Pyridine
Answer:
(d) Pyridine

Question 121.
Which one is fouñd in ATP ribonucleotide?
(a) Guanine
(b) Uracil
(c) Adenine
(d) Inulin
Answer:
(c) Adenine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 122.
Which substance is not present in nucleic acid?
(a) Cytosine
(b) Adenine
(c) Thymine
(d) Guanidine
Answer:
(d) Guanidine

Question 123.
In nucleic acid, the correct sequence is ……………..
(a) base – phosphate sugar
(b) phosphate – base – sugar
(c) sugar – base – phosphate
(d) base – sugar – phosphate
Answer:
(d) base – sugar – phosphate

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 124.
The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by ……………….
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Meicher
(c) Emil Fischer
(d) Khorana
Answer:
(a) Watson and Crick

Question 125.
Which substance is not present in nucleic acid?
(a) Cytosine
(b) Adenine
(c) Thymine
(d) Guanidine
Answer:
(d) Guanidine

Question 126.
In DNA, the complementary bases are ……………….
(a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
(b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
(d) adenine and guanine; thymine and uracil
Answer:
(b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

Question 127.
The structure of DNA is …………….
(a) linear
(b) single helix
(c) double helix
(d) triple helix
Answer:
(c) double helix

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 128.
A gene is a segment of molecule of ……………
(a) DNA
(b) m – RNA
(c) t – RNA
(d) protein
Answer:
(a) DNA

Question 129.
The deficiency of vitamin C causes …………….
(a) scurvy
(b) rickets
(c) pyrrohea
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(a) scurvy

Question 130.
Which sugar is present in DNA?
(a) Deoxyribose
(b) Ribose
(c) D – fructose
(d) D – glucose
Answer:
(a) Deoxyribose

Question 131.
The base present ¡n DNA but not in RNA is …………..
(a) guanne
(b) adenine
(c) uracil
(d) thymine
Answer:
(d) thymine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 132.
Mutation of DNA occurs due to changes in the sequence of one of the following.
(a) Bases
(b) Ribose units
(c) Phosphate units
(d) Sugar units
Answer:
(a) Bases

Question 133.
Blood calcium level can be increased by the administration of ……………….
(a) glucogon
(b) calcitonin
(c) thyroxine
(d) paratharmone
Answer:
(d) paratharmone

Question 134.
The first hormone chemically synthesised in the laboratory is …………….
(a) cortisone
(b) insulin
(c) adrenaline
(d) eastrone.
Answer:
(b) insulin

Question 135.
RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains ……………
(a) Ribose sugar and tymine
(b) Ribose sugar and uracil
(c) Doxyribose sugar and thymine
(d) Deoxy ribose sugar and uracil
Answer:
(b) Ribose sugar and uracil

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 136.
The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is ……………..
(a) adrenaline
(b) insulin
(c) cortisone
(d) bile acid
Answer:
(b) insulin

Question 137.
Enery is stored in our body in the form of ………….
(a) ATP
(b) ADP
(c) Fats
(d) carbohydrates
Answer:
(a) ATP

Question 138.
Nucleic acid is a polymer of …………….
(a) Nucleosides
(b) a – aminoacids
(c) nucleotides
(d) glucose
Answer:
(c) nucleotides

Question 139.
Which one of the following is named as peptides?
(a) Esters
(b) Salts
(c) Amides
(d) Ketones
Answer:
(c) Amides

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 140.
Irreversible precipitation of proteins is called ……………
(a) denaturation
(b) hydrolysis
(c) transformation
(d) trans esterification
Answer:
(a) denaturation

Question 141.
Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?
(a) Valine
(b) Lysinc
(c) Histidine
(d) Glycine
Answer:
(d) Glycine

Question 142.
Proteins are hydrolysed by enzymes into …………….
(a) dicarboxylic acid
(b) hydroxy acids
(c) amino acids
(d) aromatic acids
Answer:
(c) amino acids

Question 143.
Which one of the protein transports oxygen in the blood stream?
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Insulin
(c) Albumin
(d) Haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) Haemoglobin

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 144.
Enzymes in the living systems …………..
(a) provide energy
(b) provide immunity
(c) catalyse biological process
(d) transport oxygen
Answer:
(c) catalyse biological process

Question 145.
Which compound can exist in a dipolar state?
(a) C6H5 CH2 CH (N = CH2) COOH
(b) (CH3)2 CH – CH (NH2) COOH
(c) C6H5CONH CH2 COOH
(d) HOOC – CH2 – CH2 – CO – COOH
Answer:
(b) (CH3)2 CH – CH (NH2) COOH

Question 146.
Haemoglobin is …………….
(a) an enzyme
(b) a globular protein
(c) a vitamin
(d) carbohydrate
Answer:
(b) a globular protein

Question 147.
The number of essential amino acid in man is …………….
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 10

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 148.
Which one of the biomolecule is insoluble in water?
(a) Keratin
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Ribonuclease
(d) Aclenine
Answer:
(a) Keratin

Question 149.
Which of the following is used in our body as a fuel for muscles and nerves and to build and repair body tissues?
(a Cane sugar
(b) Fructose
(c) Proteins
(d) Glucose
Answer:
(c) Proteins

Question 150.
The bond that determines the secondary structure of proteins is …………..
(a) coordinate bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) peptide bond
Answer:
(c) hydrogen bond

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 151.
Which of the following monosaccharide is a pentose?
(a) Galactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Arabinose
Answer:
(d) Arabinose

Question 152.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
(a) Leucine
(b) Albumin
(c) Inulin
(d) Maltase
Answer:
(c) Inulin

Question 153.
Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollens reagent. it shows the presence of ……………..
(a) an acidic group
(b) an alcoholic group
(c) a ketonic group
(d) an aldehydic group
Answer:
(d) an aldehydic group

Question 154.
The compound which does not contain an asymmetric carbon atom is …………….
(a) glyceraldehyde
(b) glycine
(c) glucose
(d) fructose
Answer:
(b) glycine

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 155.
Which one of the following compounds is found abundantly in nature?
(a) Fructose
(b) Starch
(c) Glucose
(d) Cellulose
Answer:
(d) Cellulose

Question 156.
Blood sugar is the same as ……………
(a) glucose
(b) galactose
(c) glycogen
(d) fructose
Answer:
(a) glucose

Question 157.
Which of the following is an aldohexose?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glucose
(d) Raffinose
Answer:
(c) Glucose

Question 158.
Glucose and mannose are …………..
(a) epimers
(b) anomers
(c) keto hexoses
(d) disaccharides
Answer:
(a) epimers

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 159.
Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Fructose

Question 160.
In fructose, the possible optical isomers are …………..
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 8
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 161.
Which one of the following is not used to convert glucose into gluconic acid?
(a) Br2 water
(b) Cone. HNO3
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) Fehling’s solution.
Answer:
(b) Cone. HNO3

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. Chemically, carbohydrates are defined as …………. or …………. with a general formula
  2. …………. are synthesised by green leaves during photo synthesis.
  3. Almost all …………. are optically active as they have one or more chiral carbon.
  4. …………. are carbohydrates that cannot be hydrolysed further and are also called simple sugars.
  5. Erythrose is an example of ………….
  6. Glyceraldehyde is an example of …………. in monosaccharides.
  7. Glucose in human blood about …………. and it also known as ………….
  8. Ribulose is an example of ………….
  9. Glucose solution is optically active and it rotates the plane polarised light in …………. direction and so it called
  10. Glucose when oxidised with con.HNO3 gives ………….
  11. The reaction of glucose with Tollents reagent or Fehlmg’s solution confirms the presence of …………. group in glucose.
  12. The exact special arrangement of – OH groups in glucose was given by ………….
  13. The two isomers differ only in the configuration of C1 carbon are called ………….
  14. The cyclic structure of glucose with 5 carbon and one oxygen atom is called ………….
  15. The slow interconversion of α – D glucose and β – D glucose via open chain form under equilibrium is called ………….
  16. Sugars differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ………….
  17. …………. is present abundantly in fruts and hence it is also called fruit sugar.
  18. The solution having equal amount of glucose and fructose is termed as ………….
  19. Partial reduction of fructose with sodium amalgam and water produces …………. and …………. which are at second carbon.
  20. The reaction sodium amalgam and water with fructose confirms the presence of ………….
  21. The cyclic form of fructose is called ………….
  22. Disaccharides have general formula ………….
  23. In disaccharides, two monosaccharides are linked by …………. called ………….
  24. …………. is primary mixture of glucose, fructose and sucrose.
  25. Sucrose is also called …………. sugar.
  26. …………. is produced during digestion of starch by the enzyme a-amylase
  27. Starch contains about 20% …………. and about 80% of .
  28. Starch is used for …………. in plants.
  29. Cotton is almost pure ………….
  30. …………. is the storage polysaccharides of animals.
  31. …………. act as shock absorber and lubricant
  32. Proteins are polymers of ………….
  33. Orinithine and citrulline are called ………….
  34. At a specific pH value the net charge of an amino acid in neutral is called ………….
  35. Except …………. all other amino acids are optically active.
  36. In proteins, the amino acids are linked covalently by ………….
  37. The process of a protein, losing its higher order structure without losing the primary structure is called ………….
  38. Proteins such as …………. , …………. act as structural back bones.
  39. …………. and …………. controls the glucose level in the blood.
  40. …………. are biocatalysts that catalyse a specific biochemical reaction.
  41. …………. act as protective coating in aquatic organisms.
  42. Lipids act as …………. in fat metabolism.
  43. …………. help in the absorption and transport of fat soluble vitamins.
  44. Vitamin A, D, E and K …………. are vitamins.
  45. The chemical name of Vitamin A is ………….
  46. …………. deficiency leads to the disease cheilosis.
  47. …………. deficiency leads to the disease pellagra.
  48. …………. is a part of coenzyme A in carbohydrate protein and fat metabolism.
  49. …………. is rich in mushroom, avocada, egg yolk, sunflower oil.
  50. …………. deficiency leads to pernicious Anaemia.
  51. All citrus fruits and amla are rich in vitamin ………….
  52. …………. functions in blood clotting.
  53. Nucleic acids are bio polymers of ………….
  54. Both DNA and RNA have two major purine bases …………. and ………….
  55. The recurring deoxyribonucleotie units of DNA contains …………. and the ribonucleotide units of RNA contain
  56. The molecule with the phosphate group is called a ………….
  57.  The specific association of the two chains of the double helix in DNA is known as ………….
  58. t RNA molecule consists of …………. nucleotides in a single chain
  59. The synthesis of mRNA from DNA strand is called ………….
  60. …………. carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.
  61. …………. was first invented by Sir Alec Jeifry.

Answer:

  1. polyhydroxy aldehydes, ketoses, C(H2O)
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. carbohydrates
  4. Monosaccharides
  5. monosaccharide
  6. aldotriose
  7. 100 mg/dI, blood sugar
  8. ketopentose
  9. clockwise, dextrose
  10. glucaric acid (or) saccharic acid
  11. aldehyde
  12. Emil Fischer
  13. anomers
  14. pyranose form
  15. mutarotation
  16. epimers
  17. fructose
  18. invert sugar
  19. sorbitol, mannitol, epimers
  20. keto group
  21. furanose form
  22. Cn(H2O)n-1
  23. oxide, linkage, glycosidic linkage
  24. honey.
  25. invert (or) non reducing
  26. maltose
  27. amylose, amylopectin
  28. energy storage
  29. cellulose
  30. glycogen
  31. hyaluronate (or) glycosaminoglycans
  32. α – amino acids
  33. non – protein amino acids
  34.  iso electric point
  35. glycine
  36. peptide bonds
  37. denaturation
  38. keratin, collagen
  39. Insulin, glucagon
  40. Enzymes
  41. Lipids
  42. emulsifier
  43. Lipids
  44. fact – soluble
  45. retinol
  46. Vitamin B2
  47. Vitamin B3
  48. Vitamin B5
  49. Vitamin B5
  50. Vitamin B12
  51. C
  52. Vitamin K
  53. nucleotides
  54. adenine, guanine
  55.  2’ – doxy – D -ribose, D-ribose
  56.  nucleoside
  57. complementary base pairing
  58. 73 -94
  59. transcription
  60. mRNA
  61. DNA finger printing.

III. Match the column I and Column II using the code given below the column.

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-15
Answer:
(a) 4 3 2 1

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-16
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-17
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-18
Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-19
Answer:
(d) 2 3 4 1

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-20
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-21
Answer:
(d) 2 3 4 1

Question 7.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-22
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-23
Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 9.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-24
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-25
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-26
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 11.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-27
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-28
Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertlon(A): Almost all carbohydrates are optically active.
Reason (R): All carbohydrates have one or more chiral carbon atoms.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Glucose is called blood sugar.
Reason (R): Human blood contains about 100 mg/di of glucose hence it is called blood sugar.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertlon(A): Glucose is called aldohexose as well as dextrose.
Reason (R): Glucose contain an aldehyde group and it rotates the plane polarised light in the clockwise direction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Glucose contains an aldehyde group and it occupies one end of the carbon chain.
Reason (R): When glucose is oxidised by bromine water, it gets oxidised to gluconic acid confirms the position of aldehyde group.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Glucose contains one primary alcohol group at the end of the carbon chain.
Reason (R): When glucose is oxidised by strong oxidising agent conc.HNO3 it gives glucaric acid proves the presence of- CH2OH group at one end of carbon chain in glucose.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Glucose and mannose are epimers.
Reason (R): Sugars differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre are called epimers.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Fructose is called levulose and keto hexose
Reason (R): Fructose contains a ketone group and fructose rotates the plane polarised light in anic1ockwise direction.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) A is correct hut R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Sucrose is called invert sugar.
Reason (R): During hydrolysis of sucrose, the optical rotation of the reaction mixture changes from dextro to levo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Sucrose is a non reducing sugar.
Reason (R): in sucrose. C1 of α – D glucose and C2 of D-fructose are joined together by glycosidic bond. Both the carbonyl carbons are involved in glycosidic bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 10.
Assertion(A): A disaccharide lactose act as reducing sugar.
Reason (R): In lactose, β – D galactose and β – D glucose are linked by β – 1, 4 – glycosidic bond in which aldehyde group is not involved.
(a) A is correct but R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Lactose is referred to as milk sugar.
Reason (R): It is extracted from sprouted barley.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are worng.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Maltose, a disaccharide acts as a reducing sugar.
Reason (R): Maltose consists of two molecules of α – D glucose with linked by α, 1, 4 – glycosidic bond and one glucose has the carbonyl group.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Except glycine all other amino acids are optically active.
Reason (R): Glycine does not contain chira! carbon atom whereas in all other amino acids have chiral carbon atom.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explantion of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Enzymes have active sites and substrates, reactive sites on their surfaces respectively.
Reason (R): Active and reactive sites push the enzyme and substrate molecules away from each other.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Enzymes are defined as biological proteins.
Reason (R): Chemically all enzymes are globular proteins.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Assertion(A): DNA and RNA molecules are found in the molecules of the cell.
Reason (R): On heating, enzymes do not lose their specific activity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Vitamin D can be stored in our body.
Reason (R): Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin.
(a) A is correct but R not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Glycine must be taken through diet.
Reason (R): It is an essential amino acid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are wrong.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): In proteins, amino acids are linked through peptide bonds.
Reason (R): Peptide bonds are glycosidic (or) oxygen bridges.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Monosaccharides are held by glycocidic bonds.
Reason (R): Monosaccharides are macro molecules.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are wrong.

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
Glucose, fructose, galactose, mannose, sucrose.
Answer:
Sucrose, It is a disaccharide whereas other are monosaccharides.

Question 2.
Glucose, aldo hexose, dextrose, blood sugar, fruit sugar.
Answer:
Fruit sugar, It is the name of fructose, All others are indicating glucose only.

Question 3.
Fructose, fruit sugar, milk sugar, levulose, ketohexose.
Answer:
Milk sugar, It is the name of lactose, All others are indicating fructose only.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 4.
Mannose, sucrose, lactose, maltose, diastose.
Answer:
Mannose, It is a monosaccharide whereas otheres are disaccharide.

Question 5.
Keratm, glucose, mannose, starch, cellulose.
Answer:
Keratin, It is a protein whereas others are carbohydrates.

Question 6.
Keram, collagen, glycine, alanine, inulin, instilin.
Answer:
Inulin, It is a carbohydrates whereas others arc proteins.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 7.
Glycine, alanine, histidine, cultamine, proline, serine.
Answer:
Histidine. it is an essential amino acid whereas others are non essentîal amino acids.

Question 8.
Valine, phenyl alanine, histidine, lysine, alanine.
Answer:
Alanine, It is non essential amino acid whereas others are essential amino acids.

Question 9.
Invertase, maltase, zymase, maltose, lactase.
Answer:
Maltose, It is a carbohydrates whereas others are enzymes.

Question 10.
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Vitamin K.
Answer:
Vitamin C is water soluble vitamins whereas others are fat soluble vitamins.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules 2 Mark Questions and Answers

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Define carbohydrates. Give example.
Answer:

  1. Carbohydrates are defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes (or) ketoses with a general formula Cn(H2O)n.
  2. They are considered as hydrates of carbon containing hydrogen and oxygen in the same ratio as in water.
  3. Example: Glucose, sucrose, cellulose.

Question 2.
Draw the structure of

  1. D – Glucose
  2. D – Fructose.

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-29

Question 3.
Draw the structure of sucrose
Answer:
Sucrose C12H22O11 is a disaccharide
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-30

Question 4.
Explain photosynthesis.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are synthesised by green leaves during photosynthesis, a complex process in which sunlight provides the energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Glucose is then converted into other carbohydrates and is consumed by animals.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-31

Question 5.
Draw and explain the structure of glyceraldehyde.
Answer:
1. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-32

2. D – Glyceraldehyde and L – Glyceraldehyde are two enantiomers.

3. D (or) (+) is dextre rotatory and L (or) (-) is levo rotatory.

Question 6.
What is meant by dextro and levo rotatory?
Answer:
1. Fischer has devise a projection formula to reláte the two enantiomeric forms. Base on this, carbohydrates are named as D or L.

2. + and – sign indicates the dextro rotatory and levo rotatory respectively.

3. Dextre rotatory compound rotate the plane of plane polarised light in clockwise direction while the levo rotatory compounds rotate in anticlockwise direction.

4. Dextro rotatory compounds are represented as D (+) or L (+) and the levo rotatiory compounds as D (-) or L (-).
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-33

Question 7.
Give examples for the following.

  1. Aldotriose
  2. Ketotriose
  3. Aldotetrose
  4. Ketotetrose

Answer:

  1. Aldotriose – Glyceraldehyde
  2. Ketotriose – Dihydroxy acetone
  3. Aldotetrose – Erythrose
  4. Ketotetrose – Erythrulose

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 8.
Give examples for the following.

  1. Aldo pentose
  2. Keto pentose
  3. Aldo hexose
  4. Ketohexose

Answer:

  1. Aldo pentose – Ribose
  2. Keto pentose – Ribulose
  3. Aldo hexose – Glucose
  4. Keto hexose – Fructose

Question 9.
Explain the action of Conc.HNO3 with fructose with equation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-34

Question 10.
Write a note about glycogen?
Answer:
1. Glycogcn is the storage polysaccharide of animals. It is present in the liver and muscles of animals. Glycogen is called as animal starch.

2. Glycogen on hydrolysis gives glucose molecules. Structurally glycogen resembles amylo pectin with more branching. In glycogen the branching occurs every 8 – 14 glucose units opposed to 24 – 30 units in amylopectin. The excessive glucose in the body is stored in the form of glycogen.

Question 11.
What are amino acid? Give its structure.
Answer:
1. Amino acids are compounds which contain an amino group and a carboxylic group. Protein molecules are made up of α, β, γ – amino acids.

2. The protein molecules are mde up of a-amino acids which can be represented by the following general formula.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-35

3. There are 20 amino acids commonly found in protein molecules.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 12.
Define iso electric point.
Answer:
At a specific pH value, the net charge of an amino acid in neutral is called iso electric point. At a pH value above the iso electric point the amino acid will be negatively charged and positively charged at pH values below the iso electric point.

Question 13.
Whatis zwitter ion? Give its structure.
Answer:
1. At aqueous solution, the proton from cabroxyl group can be transferred to the amino group of an amino acid leaving these groups with opposite charges.

2. Despite having both positive and negative charges, this molecule is neutral and has amphotenc behaviour. These ions are called zwitter ions.

3. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-36

Question 14.
What are hormones? Mention their functions. Name some hormones.
Answer:
1. Hormones are organic compounds (eg. peptide or a steroid) that is secreted by endocrine glands. It is an inter cellular signalling molecule and induces a physiological response. Hormones maintain blood pressure, blood volume and electrolyte balance, embryogenesis, hunger, eating behaviour and digestion.

2. The major endogrine glands are the pituitary, pineal, thymus. thyroid, adrenal glands and pancreas. In addition men produces hormones in their testes and women produces hormones in their ovary.

Question 15.
What are the expected products of hyrolysis of lactose?
Answer:
Since lactose is a disaccharide, therefore on hydrolysis it gives two molecules of monosaccharides, i.e., one molecule each of D – (+) – glucose and D – (+) – galactose
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-37

Question 16.
Glucose or sucrose are soluble in water by cyclohexane or benzene (simple six membered ring compounds) are insoluble in water. Explain.
Answer:
Glucose and sucrose molecules contain many – OH groups and hence are capable of forming H – bond with water molecules. On the other hand, cyclohexane and benzene are hydrocarbon and hence they cannot form H-bond with water. Therefore, glucose and sucrose are soluble in water whereas cyclohexane and benzene are insoluble in water.

Question 17.
How do you explain the absence of aldehyde group in the pentaacetate of D – glucose?
Answer:
Since pentaacetate of D – glucose are not oxidised either by Tollen’s reagent or Fehling’s solution. This indicates the absence of aldehyde group.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 18.
Why cannot Vitamin C be stored in our body?
Answer:
Vitamin C is water soluble, therefore it is readily excreted in urine and hence cannot be stored in the body.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?
Answer:
In disaccharides or polysaccharides, monosaccharides are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by loss of a water molecule. Such a linkage between two monosaccaride units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.

Question 20.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Essential amino acids:
Amino acids which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be obtained through regular diet are known as esential amino acids. Foe example: Valine, Leucine.

Non – essential amino acids:
The amino acids which can be synthesised in the body by itself are known as non – essential amino acids. For example: glycine, alanine.

Question 21.
What is the effect of denaturaion on the structure of proteins?
Answer:
During the denaturation process, 2° and 3° structure of proteins are destroyed by 1° structure remains intact. For example: curdling of milk.

Question 22.
How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Answer:
Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their solubility in water or fat.
1. Water soluble vitamins:
These include vitamins of ‘B’ group (except B12) and vitamin ‘C’.

2. Fat soluble vitamin:
These include vitamins A, D, E and K. They are stored in liver and adipose tissues. Vitamin ‘K’ is responsible for the coagulation of blood.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 23.
What are nucleic acids? Mention their two important functions.
Answer:
Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides containing a pentose sugar, heterocyclic base and a phosphate group. They help in synthesis of proteins. They are also responsible for the transfer of genetic characters from one generation to the next generation.

Question 24.
What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Answer:
Nucleoside is formed by the condensation of a purine or pyrimidine base with pentose sugar at position 1. When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid at 5 position of sugar moiety, we get a nucleotide. Hence a nucleotide has three units – Phosphate group, pentose sugar and a base, whereas nucleoside has two units – pentose sugar and a base.

Question 25.
Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.
Answer:
Main functions of carbohydrates in plants:

  1. Carbohydrates are used as storage molecules as starch in plants.
  2. Cell wall of bacteria and plants is made up of cellulose.

Question 26.
Name two components of starch. How do they differ from each other structurally?
Answer:
The two components of starch are:

  1. Amylose
  2. Amylopectin

Amylose is a straight chain polymer of α – D – (+) glucose, while amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of α – D – glucose.

Question 27.
Name the four bases present in DNA. Which one of these is not present in RNA?
Answer:
DNA contains four bases, viz; adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), thymine (T). RNA also contain four bases, first three bases are same as in DNA but the fourth one is uracil(U).

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 28.
Name two fat soluble vitamins, their sources and the diseases caused due to their deficiency in diet.
Answer:

Vitamins

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D

Sources

  1. Fish, liver oil, carrot
  2. Sunlight, milk, egg yolk

Deficiency Diseases

  1. Night blindness
  2. Rickets and osteomalacia

Question 29.
Name two water soluble vitamins, their sources and the diseases caused due to their deficiency in diet.
Answer:

Vitamins

  1. Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
  2. Vitamin C

Sources

  1. Yeast. milk, vegetables.
  2. Citrus fruits, amia and green leafy vegetables.

Deficiency Diseases

  1. Ben – ben
  2. Scurvy (bleeding gums)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules 3 mark Question and Answers

VII. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the methods of preparation of glucose.
Answer:
1. When sucrose is boiled with diI-H2SO4 in alcoholic solution, hydrolysis take place and glucose and fructose are formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-38

2. Glucose is produced commercially by the hydrolysis of starch with dilute HCL at high temperature and pressure.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-39

Question 2.
What happens when glucose reacts with

  1. Br2 / H2O
  2. Conc.HNO3

Answer:
1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-40

2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-41

Question 3.
How will you prove the presence of aldehyde group in glucose?
Answer:
Glucose is oxidised to gluconic acid with ammoniacal silver nitrate (Tollen’s reagent) and alkaline copper sulphate (Fehling’s solution). Tollen’s reagent is reduced to metallic silver and Fehling’s solution to cuprous oxide (red precipitate). These reactions confirm the presence of an aldehye group in glucose.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-42
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-43

Question 4.
Define

  1. Epimers
  2. Epimerisation.

Answer:
1. Sugar differing at an asymmetric centre is known as epimers.

2. The process by which one epimer is converted into other is called epimerisation and it requires the enzyme epimersase.

3. Galactose is converted to glucose by this manner in our body.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-44

Question 5.
Explain the methods of preparation of fructose with equations.
Answer:
1. Fructose is obtained from sucrose by heating with dilute H2SO4 (or) with the enzyme invertase.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-45

2. Fructose is prepared commercially by the hydrolysis of Inulin (a polysaccharide) in acidic medium
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-46

Question 6.
What happens when fructose is treated with sodium amalgam and water?
Answer:
When fructose is treated with sodium amalgam and water, partial reduction take place and the products formed are epimers of sorbitol and mannitol. New asymmetric carbon is formed at C – 2. This reaction confirms the presence of keto group in fructose.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-47

Question 7.
Explain about the cyclic structure of fructose?
Answer:
Fructose forms a five membered ring similar to furan. Hence it is called furanose form. When fructose is a component of a saccharide as in sucrose, it usually occurs in furanose form.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-48

Question 8.
Explain about the structure, nature and properties of sucrose.
Answer:
1. Sucrose commonly known as table sugar is the most abundant disaccharide. It is obtained mainly from juice of sugar cane and sugar beets. Insects such as honey bees have the enzyme mvetase that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose into glucose and fructose mixture.

2. Honey is primarily a mixture of glucose, fructose and sucrose. On hydrolysis sucrose yields equal amount of glucose and fructose units.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-79

3. Sucrose (+66.6°) and glucose (52.5°) are dextrorotatory compounds while fructose is levo rotatory (- 92.4°)

4. During hydrolysis of sucrose the optical rotation of the reaction mixture changes from dextro to levo. Hence sucrose is also as invert sugar.

5. Structure:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-49
In sucrose C1 of α – D glucose is joined to C2 of D – Fructose. The glycosidic bond thus formed is called α, 1, 2 – glycosidic bond. Since both the carbonyl carbons are involved in the glycosidic bonding, sucrose is a non – reducing sugar.

Question 9.
Prove that sucrose is

  1. invert sugar
  2. non – reducing sugar.

Answer:
1. Sucrose is an invert sugar: Sucrose (+66.6°) and glucose (+52.5°) are dextro rotatory compounds while fructose is levo rotatory (- 92.4°). During hydrolysis of sucrose, the optical rotation of the reaction mixture changes from dextro to levo. Hence sucrose is also called invert sugar.

2. In sucrose, C1 of α – D glucose is joined to C2 of α – D fructose. The glycosidic bond thus formed is called α – 1, 2 – glycosidic bond. Since both the carbonyl carbons (reducing groups) are involved in the glycosidic bonding, sucrose is a non – reducing sugar.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 10.
Write a note about lactose
Answer:
1. Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk of mammals and hence it is referred to as milk sugar.

2. On hydrolysis, it yeilds galactose and glucose. The β – D galactose and β – D glucose are linked by β – 1, 4 – glycosidic bond. the aldehyde carbon is not involved in the glycosidic linkage. Hence it retains its reducing property and is called a reducing sugar.

3. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-50

Question 11.
Lactose act as reducing sugar. Justify this statement.
Answer:

  1. Lactose is a disaccharide and contains one galactose unit and one glucose unit.
  2. In lactose, the β – D galactose and β – D glucose are linked by β – 1, 4 – glycosidic bond.
  3. The aldehyde carbon is not involved in the glycosidic bond hence it retains its reducing property and is called a reducing sugar.

Question 12.
Write about maltose with its structure.
Answer:
1. Maltose is extracted from malt and it is called malt sugar. Malt from sprouting barely is the major source of maltose. Maltose is produced during digestion of starch by the enzyme α – analyse.

2. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-51

3. Maltose consists of two molecules of α – D glucose units linked by an α – 1, 4 – glycocidic bond between anomeric carbon ofone unit and C – 4 of the other unit. Since one of the glucose has the carbonyl group intact it act as a reducing sugar.

Question 13.
Sucrose and maltose are disaccharides but sucrose Is a non reducing sugar while maltose Is a reducing sugar. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Sucrose is a disaccharide that composed of α – D glucose and β – D fructose. In sucrose Cl of α – D glucose is joined to C2 of D – fructose. The glycosidic bond thus formed is called α – 1, 2- glycosidic bond. Since both the carbonyl carbons (reducing carbons) are involved in the glycosidic bonding, sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

2. But maltose contains two molecules of x – D glucose units that are linked by an α – 1, 4 – glycosidic bond. Anomeric carbon of one unit and C – 4 of other unit are connected together. Smce one of the glucose bas the carbonyl group intact it acts as reducing sugar.

Question 14.
Give brief account of nature and structure of cellulose.
Answer:
1. Cellulose is the major constituent of plant cell walls. Cotton is almost pure cellulose. On hydrolysis, cellulose yields D – glucose molecules

2. Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide. The glucose molecules are linked by β (1, 4 -) glycoside bond.

3. Structure of cellulose.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-52

Question 15.
What are the uses of cellulose?
Answer:

  1. Cellulose is used extensively in manufacturing paper, cellulose fibres and rayon explosive.
  2. Gun cotton – nitrated ester of cellulose an explosive is prepared from cellulose.
  3. Cellulose act as food for animals

Question 16.
Human cannot use cellulose as food – Why?
Answer:
Human cannot use cellulose as food because our digestive systems do not contain the necessary enzymes such as glycosidases (or) cellulases that can hydrolyse the cellulose. But animals contain cellulose enzyme in their digestive system and they can digest cellulose. So cellulose can used as food for animals but not for human.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 17.
What are the major classification of proteins? Give example?
Answer:
1. Proteins are classified based on their structure into two major types. They are fibrous protein and glubular protein.

2. Fibrous proteins are linear molecules similar to fibres. They are generally insoluble in water and are held together by disulphide bridges and weak inter molecular hydrogen bonds. These proteins often used as structural proteins. Example, Keratin, Collagen.

3. Globular proteins have an overall spherical shape. The poly peptide chain is folded into a spherical shape. These proteins are usually soluble in water and have many functions including catalysis.

Question 18.
Explain the mechanism of enzyme action?
Answer:
1. Enzymes are bio catalysts that catalyse a specific bio chemical reaction. They generally activate the reaction by reducing the activation energy by stabilising the transition state.

2. In a typical reaction, enzyme E binds with the substrate molecule leversity to produce an enzyme – sybstate complex. During this stage the substrate is converted into product and

3. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-53

Question 19.
Explain about the nature, classification and properties of lipids (or) write a note about lipids.
Answer:
1. Lipids are organic molecules that are soluble in organic solvents such as chloroform and methanol and are insoluble in water. Lipids means fat. They are the principal component of cell membrane including cell walls.

2. Lipids act as energy source for living systems. Fat provide 2 – 3 fold higher energy compared to carbohydrates or proteins.

3. Based on their structure, lipids can be classified as simple lipids, compound lipids and derived lipids.

4. simple lipids can be further classified into fats, which are esters of long chain fatty acids fats, with glycerol (triglycerides) and waxes which are esters of fatty acid with long chain monohydric alcohols (Bees wax)

5. Compound lipids are the esters of simple fatty acid with glycerol which contain additional group. Based on the groups attached, they are further classified into phospholipids, glycolipids and lipproteins. Phospho lipids contain a phospho ester linkage while the glycolipids contain a sugar molecule attached. The iipo proteins are complexes of lipid with proteins.

Question 20.
Write the chemical name, sources and deficient disease of the following.

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin K

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-54

Question 21.
What are the biological functions of nucleic acids?
Answer:

  1. Energy carriers (ATP)
  2.  Components of enzyme cofactors. Example – Co enzyme A, NAD, FAD
  3. Chemical messengers. Example – Cyclic AMP, CAMP

Question 22.
What happens when D – glucose is treated with the following reagents?

  1. HI
  2. Bromine water
  3. HNO3

Answer:
1. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-55

2.Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-56

3. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-57

Question 23.
Define the following as related to proteins.

  1. Peptide linkage
  2. Primary structure
  3. Denaturation

Answer:
1. Peptide linkage:
Amino acids are bifunctional molecules with NH2 group at its one end and COOH at the other. Therefore, the COOH of one molecule and NH2 of another molecule can interact with elimination of a H,O molecule to form an amide like linkage called peptide bond or peptide linkage.

2. Primary structure:
The sequence in which amino acids are linked together in a polypeptide chain forms the primary structure.

3. Denaturation:
The process by which secondary and tertiary structure of proteins get disturbed by change of pH or temperature, so that they are not able to perform their functions, is called denaturation of proteins.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 24.
Difference between Globular and fibrous proteins.
Answer:
Globular proteins

  1. They form α – helix structure
  2. They are soluble in water.
  3. They are cross lined condensation polymers of acidic and basic amino acids.

Fibrous Proteins

  1. They have – plcated structure.
  2. They are insoluble in water.
  3. They are linear condensation polymeric proteins.

Question 25.
Explain what is meant by

  1. a peptide linkage
  2. a glycosidic linkage.

Answer:
1. Peptide linkage:
Polymers of x – amino acids are connected to each other by peptide bond or peptide linkage. Chemically peptide linkage is an amide formed between – COOH group and NH2 group.

2. Glycosidic linkage:
The two monosaccharide units are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by the loss of a water molecule. Such a linkage between two mono saecharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.

Question 26.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give one example of each type.
Answer:
1. Essential amino acids:
Amino acids which are not synthesised by the human body are called essential amino acids. Example – Valine, Leucinc.

2. Non – essential amino acids:
Amino acids which are synthesised by human body are called non – essential amino acids. Example – Glycine, Aspartic acid, etc.

Question 27.
Mention the type of linkage responsible for the formation of the following.

  1. Primary structure of proteins
  2. Cross linking of polypeptide chains.
  3. α – helix formation
  4. β – sheet structure.

Answer:
Type of Structure

  1. Primary structure of proteins
  2. Cross linking of polypeptide chains
  3. α – helix
  4. β – sheet structure

Type of linkages

  1. Peptide bond or peptide linkage
  2. Polypeptide linkage
  3. Hydrogen bond
  4. Intermolecular hydrogen bond

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 28.
Name the chemical components which constitute nucleotides. Write any two functions of nucleotides in a cell.
Answer:
Nucleotides are made up of a heterocyclic base containing nitrogen, a five carbon atom – moeity and a phosphate group.
Example:

  1. AMP (adenosine monophosphate)
  2. ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and
  3. ATP (adenosine triphospate)

Functions:

  1. Act as energy carriers
  2. They synthesise proteins

Question 28.
Name the main disease caused due to lack of vita min and its source in each of the following. A, B6 and E.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-58

Question 29.
Define the following and give one example of each.

  1. Isoelectric point
  2. Mutarotation
  3. Enzymes

Answer:
1. Isoelectric point:
It is the pH at which +ve and – ve charges on zwitter ion are equal. Example amino acid exists as zwitter ion at pH = 5.5 to 6.3.

2. Mutarotation:
It is a spontaneous change in optical rotation when an optically active substance is dissolved in water. Example α – glucose, when dissolved in water, then its optical rotation changes from 1110 to 52.5°.

3. Enzymes:
Enzymes are biocatalysts which speeds up the reactions in biosystems. They are highly specific and selective in their action. Chemically all enzymes are proteins.

Question 30.
What is denaturation and renaturation of proteins? Give reason: Amylose present in the saliva becomes inactive in the stomach.
Answer:
1. The process of disruption of 2° and 3° structure of proteins without changing its primary structure is called denaturation.

2. In stomach the pH is acidic, therefore amylose becomes inactive. That is why digestion of carbohydrates does not take place in stomach.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 31.
Define the following terms.

  1. Nucleotide
  2. Anomers
  3. Essential amino acids

Answer:
1. Nucleotide:
It is the monomer unit of DNA which is formed by a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphoric acid.

2. Anomers:
Anomers are cyclic monosaccharides which are differing from each other in the configuration of C – 1 if it is an aldose or in the configuration at C – 2 if it is a ketose.

3. Essential amino acids:
The amino acids cannot be synthesised by the body and are essential for the body.

Question 32.
Which one of the following is disaccharide.

  1. Starch, Maltose, Fructose, Glucose.
  2. Write the name of vitamin whose deficiency causes bone deformities in children.

Answer:

  1. Maltose
  2. Vitamin D

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Quesiton 33.
Write the major classes in which the carbohydrates are divided depending upon whether thee undergo hydrolysis and if so, the number of products formed.
Answer:
On the basis of hydrolysis, carbohydrates are divided into three major classes:
1. Monosaccharides. These cannot be hydrolysed into simpler molecules. These are further classified as aldoses, and ketoses.

2. Oligosaccharides. These carbohydrates on hydrolysis give 2-10 units of mono-saccharides. For example – Sucrose.

3. Polysaccharides. These are high molecular mass carbohydrates which give many molecules of monosaccharides on hydrolysis. Form example: Cellulose, starch.

Question 34.

  1. What changes occur in the nature of egg proteins on boiling?
  2. Name the type of bonding which stabilises the a-helix structure in proteins.

Answer:
1. On boiling, protein of egg gets denatured. Thus, due to coagulation water get absorbed.

2. Hydrogen bonding between
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-59

Question 35.
Answer the following questions briefly.

  1. What are reducing sugars?
  2. What is meant by denatu ration of a protein?
  3. How is oxygen replenished in our atmosphere?

Answer:
1. Reducing sugar:
All those carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s solution and Tollens’ reagent are referred to as reducing sugars. All monosaccharides whether aldose or ketose are reducing sugars.

2. Denaturation of a protein:
When 2° and 3° structure of a protein is destroyed due to the physical changes like temperature, change in pH, it is called denaturation of a protein.
Example: Coagulation of egg white on boiling.

3. We take oxygen from atmosphere and release CO2. Plants take up CO2 and H2O from the atmosphere to prepare their food in the presence of sunlight and release O2 thus O2 is replenished in atmosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules 5 mark Questions Answers

VIII.Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How would you prove the structure of glucose? (OR) Elucidate the structure of glucose.
Answer:
1. Elemental analysis and molecular weight determination show that the molecular formula of glucose is C6H12O6.

2. On reduction with Conc.HI and red P at 373K, glucose gives a mixture of n – hexane and 2 – iodohexane indicating that the six carbon atoms are bonded linearly.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-60

3. Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime and with HCN to form cyanohydrin. These reactions indicate the presence of carbonyl group in glucose.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-61

4. Glucose gets oxidised to gluconic acid with bromine water with bromine water suggests that the carbonyl group is an aldchyde group and it occupies one end of the carbon chain. When glucose is oxidised by conc.HNO3, glucaric acid is formed and it suggest that the other end Id occupied by a primary alcoholi.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-62

5. Glucose is oxidised to gluconic acid with ammoniacal silver nitrate (Toiles reagent) and alkaline copper sulphate (Fehling’s solution). These reactions further confirm the presence of an aldehyde group.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-63

6. Glucose forms penta acetate with acetic anhydride suggesting the presence of five alcohol groups.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-64

7. Glucose is a stable compound and does not undergo dehydration easily. It indicates that not more than one hydroxyl group is bonded to a single carbon atom. Thus the five hydroxyl groups are attached to five different carbon atoms and the sixth carbon is an aldehyde group.

8. The exact special arrangement of – OH groups was given by Emil Fischer as follows.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-65

9. D (+) glucose has D configuration and it is dextro rotatoly.

Question 2.
Explain about the cyclic structure of Glucose.
Answer:
1. Fischer identified that the open chain Penta hydroxyl aldehyde structure of glucose that he proposed did not completely explain its chemical behaviour.

2. Unlike simple aldehyde, glucose did not form crystalline hisuiphite compound with sodium bisuiphite. Glucose does not give Schifis test and pent.a acetate derivative of glucose was not oxidised by Tollen’s reagent. This behaviour could not be explained by open chain structure.

3.Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-66

4. In order to explain these it was proposed that one of the hydroxyl group reacts with aldehyde group to form a cyclic structure (hemiacetal form). This also results in the conversation of the achiral aldehyde carbon into a chiral one leading the possibility of two isomers. These two isomers differ only in the configuration of C1 carbon. These isomers are called anomers.

5. The two anomeric forms of glucose are called – and β – forms. This cyclic structure of glucose is similar to pyran, a cyclic compound with 5 carbon and one oxygen atom, and hence is called pyranose form.

6. The specific rotation of pure α – and 3 – (D) glucose are 112° & 18.7° respectively. However, when pure form any one of these sugars dissolved in water, slow interconversion of – D glucose and β – D glucose via open chain form until equilibrium is established giving constant specific rotation + 53°. This phenomenon is called mutarotation.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 3.
Explain about the structure of Fructose. (OR) Elucidate the structure of Fructose.
Answer:
1. Elemental analysis and molecular weight determination of fructose show that it has the molecular formula C6H12O6.

2. Fructose on reduction with Hl and red phosphoms gives a mixture of n – hexane (major product) and 2 – iodohexane (minor product). This reaction indicates that the six carbon atoms in fructose are in a straight chain.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-67

3. Fructose reacts with NH2OH and HCN. It shows the presence of carbonyl groups in the molecules of fructose.

4. Fructose reacts with acetic anhydride in the presence of pyridine to form penta acetate. This reaction indicates the presence of’ five hydroxyl groups in a fructose molecule.

5. Fructose is not oxidized by bromine water. This rules out the possibility of presence of an aldehyde (-CHO) group.

6. Partial reduction of fructose with sodium amalgam and water produces mixtures of sorbitol and mannitol which are epimers at second carbon. New asymmetric carbon is formed at C – 2. This confirms the presence of keto group.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-68

7. On oxidation with nitric acid, it gives glycolic acid and tartane acids which contain smaller number of carbon atoms than in fructose. This shows that a keto group is present in C – 2. It also shows the presence of 10 alcoholic groups at C- 1 and C- 6. From the above reaction the structure of fructose is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-69

This shows that a keto group is present in C – 2. It also shows the lpresence of 10 alcoholic groups at C – 1 and C – 6. From the above reaction the structure of fructose is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-70

Question 4.
Describe about the structure, nature and properties of starch.
Answer:

  1. Starch is used for energy storage in plants. Potatoes, corn, wheat and rice are the rich sources of starch.
  2. It is a polymer of glucose in which glucose molecules are lined by α (1,4) glycosidic bonds.
  3. Starch can be separated into two fractions namely, water soluble amylose and water insoluble amylo pectin. Starch contain about 20% of amylase and about 80% amylopectin.
  4. Amylose is composed of unbranched chains upto 4000 α – D glucose molecules joined by α (1,4) glycosidic bonds.
  5. At branch points, new chains of 24 to 30 glucose molecules are linked by α (1,6) glycosidic bonds with iodine solution amylose gives blue colour while amylo pectin gives a purple colour.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-72

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-73

Question 5.
Explain about the structure of proteins.
Answer:
1. Proteins are polymers of amino acids. Their three dimensional structure depends mainly on the sequence of amino acids. The protein structure can be described at four hierarchal levels called primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures.

Primary structure of proteins:
Proteins are polypeptide chains made up of amino acids connected through peptide bonds. The relative arrangement of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain is called the primary structure of the protein.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-74

Secondary structure of proteins:
The amino acids in the polypeptide chain forms highly, regular shapes through the hydrogen bond between the carbonyl oxygen and the
neighbouring amine hydrogen of the main chain, α – Helix and β – strands or sheets are two most common substructures formed by proteins.

α – Helix:
In the α – helix sub – structure, the amino acids are arranged in a righthanded helical (spiral) structure and are stabilised by the hydrogen bond. The side chains of the residues protrude outside of the helix. Each turn of an α – helix contains about 3.6 residues and is about 5.4 A long.

β – Strands:
β – Strands are extended peptide chain rather than coiled. The hydrogen bond occur between main chain carbonyl group one such strand and the amino group of the adjacent strand resulting in the formation of a sheet like structure. This arrangement is called β – sheets.

Tertiary structure:
The secondary structure elements (α – helix & β – sheets) further folds to form a three dimensional arrangement. This tertiary structure of proteins are stabilised by the interactions between the side chains of the amino acids. These interactions include the disulphide bridges between cysteine residues, electrostatic, hydrophobic, hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions.

Quaternary Structure:
The oxygen transporting protein, haemoglobin contains four polypeptide chains while DNA polymerase enzyme that make copies of DNA, has ten polypeptide chains. In these proteins the individual polypeptide chains interacts with each other to form the multimeric structure which known as quaternary structure. The interactions that stabilises the tertiary structures also stabilises the quaternary structures.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 6.
What are the biological importance of proteins?
Answer:
Proteins are the functional units of living things play vital role in all biological processes

  1. All biochemical reactions occur in the living systems are catalysed by the catalytic proteins called enzymes.
  2. Proteins such as keratin, collagen acts as structural back bones.
  3. Proteins are used for transporting molecules (Haemogiobin), organelles (Kinesins) in the cell and control the movement of molecules in and out of the cells (Transporters).
  4. Antibodies help the body to fight various diseases.
  5. Proteins are used as messengers to coordinate many functions. Insulin & glucagon controls the glucose level in the blood.
  6. Proteins act as receptors that detect presence of certain signal molecules and activate the proper response.
  7. Proteins are also used to store metals such as iron (Femtin) etc.

Question 7.
Write the chemical name, source and deficient disease of the following

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin B2
  4. Vitamin B3
  5. Vitamin B5

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-75

Question 8.
Write the chemical name, source and deficient disease of the following

  1. Vitamin B6
  2. Vitamin B7
  3. Vitamin B9
  4. Vitamin B12
  5. Vitamin C

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-76

Question 9.
Explain about the composition and structure of nucleic acids.
Answer:
1. Nucleic acids are biopolymers of nucleotides. Controlled hydrolysis of DNA and RNA yields three components namely a nitrogeneous base, a pentose sugar and phosphate group.

2. Nitrogen base.
(a) These are nitrogen containing organic compounds which are derivatives of two parent compounds, pyrimidine and purine.
(b) Both DNA and RNA have two major purine bases, adenine (A) and guanine (G). In both DNA and RNA, one of the pyrimidines is cytosinc (C), but the second pyrimidine is thymine (T) ¡n DNA and uracil (U) in RNA.

3. Pentose Sugar.
Nucleic acids have two types ofpentoses. The recurring deoxyribonucleotide units of DNA contain 2’ – dcoxy – D – ribose and the ribonucleotide units of RNA contain D – ribose. In nucleotides, both types of pentoses are in their – furanose form.

4. Phosphate group.
Phosphoric acid forms phosphor diester bond between nucleotides. Based on the number of phosphate group present in the nucleotides, they are classified mono nucleotide, dinucleotide and trinucleotide.

5. The molecule without the phosphate group is called a nucleoside. A nucleotide is derived from a nucleoside by the addition of a molecule of phosphoric acid.

6. Sugar + Base → Nucleoside
Nucleoside + Phosphate → Nucleotidc
Nucleotide → Polynucleotide (Nucleic Acid)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 10.
Describe about the double strand helix structure of DNA.
Answer:
1. Watson and Crick postulated a 3 – dimensional model of RNA structure which consisted of two antiparallel helical DNA chains wound around the same axis to form a right handed double helix.

2. Th e hydrophilic backbones of alternating deoxyribose and phosphate groups are on the outside of the double helix, facing the surrounding water. Th e purine and pyrimidine bases of both strands are stacked inside the double helix,

with their hydrophobic and ring structures very close together and perpendicular to the long axis, thereby reducing the repulsions between the charged phosphate groups. The offset pairing of the two strands creates a major groove and minor groove on the surface of the duplex.

3. The model revealed that there are 10.5 pairs (36A°) per turn of the helix and 3.4A° between the stacked bases. They also found that each base is hydrogen bonded to a base in opposite strand to form a planar base pair.

4. Two hydrogen bonds are formed between adenine and thymine and three hydrogen bonds are formed between guanine and cytosine. Other pairing tends to destablize the double helical structure. This specific association of the two chains of the double helix is known as complementary base pairing.

5. The DNA double or duplex is held together by two forces.

  • Hydrogen bonding between complementary base pairs.
  • Base – stacking interactions.

The complementary between the DNA strands is attributable to the hydrogen bonding between base pairs but the base stacking interactions are largely non-specific, make the major contribution to the stability of the double helix.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-77

Question 11.
Explain about the types of RNA molecules.
Answer:
1. Ribonucleic acids are similar to DNA. Cells contain upto eight times high quantity of RNA than DNA. RNA is found in large amount in the cytoplasm and a lesser amount in the nucleus.

2. RNA molecules are classified according to their structure and function into three major types.

  1. Ribosomal RNA (r – RNA)
  2. Messenger RNA (m – RNA)
  3. Transfer RNA (t – RNA)

3. r – RNA:
r – RNA is mainly found in cytoplasm and in ribosomes, which contain 60% RNA and 40% protein. Ribosomes are the sites at which protein synthesis takes place.

4. t – RNA:
t – RNA molecules have lowest molecular weight of all nucleic acids. They consist of 73 – 94 nucleotides in a single chain. The function of t – RNA is to carry amino acids to the sites of protein synthesis on ribosomes.

5. m – RNA:
m – RNA is present in small quantity and very short lived. They are single stranded and their synthesis take place on DNA. The synthesis m-RNA from DNA strand is called transcription. m – RNA carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 12.
Explain about DNA finger printing process.
Answer:
1. DNA finger printing is one of the most accurate methods for placing an individual at the scene of a crime has been a finger print.

2. The DNA finger print is unique for every person and can be extracted from traces of sample from blood, saliva, hair etc. By using this method, we can detect the individual specific variation in human DNA.

3. In this method, the extracted DNA is cut at specific points of varying lengths in the formation of DNA fragments of varying lengths which were analysed by technique called gel electrophoresis. This method separates the fragments based on their size. The gel containing the DNA fragments are then transferred to a nylon sheet using a technique called blotting. Then the fragments will undergo autoradiography in which they were exposed to DNA probes.

4. A piece of X-ray film was then exposed to the fragments, and a dark mark was produced at any point where a radioactive probe had become attached. The resultant pattern of marks could then be compared with other samples.

5. DNA finger printing is based on slight sequence differences between individuals. These methods are providing decisive in court cases world wide.

Common Errors

  1. Carbohydrates & Enzyme names are different.
  2. Peptide bond and amide bond are different.
  3. Vitamins: Solubility based classification
  4. Main source of vitamin

Rectifications

1. Carbohydrates name should end as – ose.
Eg. Diatose, maltose
Enzyme name should end as – ase.
Eg. Diastase, maltase

2. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules-78

3. Vitamin A, D, E, K – fat soluble. Vitamin C, B complex are water soluble.

4. Milk:
Vitamin A, B1, B2, B6, B7, D (6 Vitamins)
Green Vegetables:
B1, B3, B7, K (4 vitamins)
Liver:
B1, B2, B3, B7

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 70 Marks

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

PART -1

Answer all the questions. [15 x 1 = 15]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element remains constant?
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Both carbon and oxygen
(d) Neither carbon nor oxygen
Answer:
(b) Oxygen

Reaction 1 : 2 C + O2 → 2 CO
2 x 12 g carbon combines with 32 g ofoxygen.
Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon = \(\frac{2 \times 12}{32}\) x 8 = 6

Reaction 2 : C + O2 → CO2
12 g carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen.
Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon = \(\frac{12}{32}\) x 8 = 3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 2.
Electronic configuration of species M2+ is Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight is 56.
The number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is ………………… .
(i) 26
(b) 22
(c) 30
(iv) 24
Answer:
(c) 30

Solution:
M2+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 ; M : Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8
Atomic number = 26
Mass number = 56
No. of neutrons = 56 – 26 = 30

Question 3.
Assertion: Helium has the highest value of ionization energy among all the elements known Reason: Helium has the highest value of electron affinity among all the elements known
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation for the assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion
(c) Assertion is true and the reason is false
(d) Both assertion and the reason are false
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true and the reason is false

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 4.
At room temperature normal hydrogen consists of
(a) 25% ortho form + 75% para form
(b) 50% ortho form + 50% para form
(c) 75% ortho form + 25% para form
(d) 60% ortho form + 40% para form
Answer:
(c) 75% ortho form + 25% para form

Question 5.
Match the following.
List-I List-II
A. Beryllium – 1. Sacrificial anode
B. Calcium – 2. X-ray tube radiation window
C. Magnesium – 3. Scavenger to remove oxygen in TV
D. Barium – 4. Getter in vacuum tubes
Code: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 .2
(d) 1 3 2 4
Answer:
(b) 2 4 1 3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 6.
Which of the following pair will diffuse at the same rate?
(a) CO2 and N2O
(b) CO2 and NO
(c) CO2 and CO
(d) N2O and NO
Answer:
(a) CO2 and N2O

Question 7.
An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 x 10-3 m3 to 1 x 10-2 m3 at 300K against a constant pressure at 1 x 103 Nm-2. The work done is ………………… .
(a) -900 J
(b) 900 kJ
(c) 270 kJ
(d) -900 kJ
Answer:
(a) -900 J

w = PΔV
w = – (1 x 105 Nm-2) (1 x 10-2 m3 – 1 x 10-3 m3)
w = 105 (10-2 – 10-3) Nm
w = 105(10 – 1) 10-3) J
w = 105 (9 x 10-3) J
w = 9 x 102 J
w = -900 J

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 8.
At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 1
The reaction between K1 and K2 is …………………. .
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 2
Answer:
b

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 9.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Henry’s law is applicable at moderate temperature and pressure only.
(ii) Highly soluble gases obey’s Henry’s law.
(iii) The gases react with the solvent do not obey Henry’s law.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) only

Question 10.
Which one of the following is the likely bond angles of sulphur tetrafluoride molecule?
(a) 120°, 80°
(b) 109°.28
(c) 90°
(d) 89°, 117°
Answer:
(d) 89°, 117°

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 4

Solution:
Normal bond angle in regular trigonal bipyramidal are 90° and 120°. Due to l.p – b.p repulsion, bond angle is reduced to 89°, 117° option (d).

Question 11.
The method used to estimate nitrogen in foods and fertilisers is
(a) Dumas method
(b) Kjeldahl’s method
(c) Carius method
(d) Oxide method
Answer:
(b) Kjeldahl’s method

Question 12.
Which of the following carbocation will be most stable?
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 5
Answer:
d

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 13.
Which one of the following is used as a soil sterilizing agent?
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 6
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 7

Question 14.
Which of the following pair of oxides is responsible for acid rain?
(a) Chloroform
(b) Chloral
(c) Iodoform
(d) Chloropicrin
Answer:
(d) Chloropicrin

Question 15.
Which of the following pair of oxides is responsible for acid rain?
(a) SO3 + NO2
(b) CO2 + CO
(c) N2O + CH4
(d) O2 + H2
Answer:
(a) SO3 + NO2

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

PART- II

Answer any six questions.in which question No. 20 is compulsory.

Question 16.
Calculate the number of moles present in 9g of ethane?
Answer:
Mass of ethane = 9 g
Molar mass of ethane C2H6 = 30 g mol-1.
\(\text { No. of moles }=\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molar mass }}=\frac{9}{30}=0.3 \mathrm{mol}\)

Question 17.
Why did halogens act as oxidizing agents?
Answer:
Halogens act as oxidizing agents. Their electronic configuration is ns2 np5. So all the halogens are ready to gain one electron to attain the nearest inert gas configuration. An oxidizing agent is the one which is ready to gain an electron. So all the halogens act as oxidizing agents. Also halogens are highly electronegative with low dissociation energy and high negative electron gain enthalpies. Therefore, the halogens have a high tendency to gain an electron. Hence they act as oxidizing agents.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 18.
Would it be easier to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest?
Answer:
It is difficult to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest. This is because the reduced atmospheric pressure is less effective in pushing water into the straw at the top of the mountain because gravity falls off gradually with height. The air pressure falls off, there isn’t enough atmospheric pressure to push the water up in the straw all the way to the mouth.

Question 19.
Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature. Prove it.
Answer:
Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature as it reacts with both acid and alkali.

  • Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na2BeO2 + 2H2O
    (Acidic)
  • Be(OH)2 + 2HC1 → BeCl2 + 2H2O
    (Basic)

Question 20.
An engine operating between 127°C and 47°C takes some specified amount of heat from a high temperature reservoir. Calculate the percentage efficiency of an engine.
Answer:
Given: T1 = 127°C = 127 + 273 = 400K
T2 = 47°C = 47 + 273 = 320 K
% efficiency q?
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 8

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 21.
Calculate the formal charge on each atom of carbonyl chloride (COCl2)?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 9

Question 22.
Why we need to purify the organic compounds?
Answer:
In order to study the structure, physical properties, chemical properties and biological properties of organic compounds, they must be in the pure state. So organic compounds must be purified.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 23.
What are electrophiles? Give an example.
Answer:
Electrophiles: Electrophiles are reagents that are attracted towards negative charge or electron rich center. They are either positively charged ions or electron deficient neutral molecules.

Example:
CO2, A1Cl3, BF3, FeCl3, NO+, NO2+, etc.

Question 24.
Complete the reaction, C2H5NH2
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 10

Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 11

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
On the formation of SF6 by the direct combination of S and F2, which is the limiting reagent? Prove it.
Answer:
SF6 is formed by burning Sulphur in an atmosphere of Fluorine. Suppose 3 moles of S is allowed to react with 12 moles of Fluorine.
\(\mathrm{S}_{(\mathrm{o}}+3 \mathrm{F}_{2_{(\mathrm{g})}} \rightarrow \mathrm{SF}_{6(\mathrm{g})}\)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

As per the stoichiometric reaction, one mole of S reacts with 3 moles of fluorine to complete the reaction. Similarly, 3 moles of S requires only 9 moles of fluorine.

∴ It is understood that the limiting reagent is Sulphur and the excess reagent is Fluorine.

Question 26.
Explain about the significance of de-Broglie equation.
Answer:

  • \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}\) This equation implies that a moving particle can be considered as a wave and a wave
    can exhibit the properties of a particle.
  • For a particle with high linear momentum (mv) the wavelength will be so small and cannot be observed.
  • For a microscopic particle such as an electron, the mass is of the order of 10 31 kg, hence the wavelength is much larger than the size of atom and it becomes significant.
  • For the electron, the de Broglie wavelength is significant and measurable while for the iron ball it is too small to measure, hence it becomes insignificant.

Question 27.
What are all the factors that influences electron affinity?
Answer:
Factors that affects electron affinities are size of the atom, effective nuclear charge, screening effect.

  • \(Electron affinity \propto \frac{1}{\text { Size of the atom }}\)
  • Electron affinity QC Effective nuclear charge
  • \(Electron affinity \propto \frac{1}{\text { Screening effect }}\)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 28.
Describe about the biological importance of sodium and potassium.
Answer:

  • Monovalent sodium and potassium ions are found in large proportions in biological fluids.
  • These ions perform important biological functions such as maintenance of ion balance and nerve impulse conduction.
  • Sodium – Potassium play an important role in transmitting nerve signals.
  • A typical 70 kg man has 90 g of Na and 170 g of K.
  • Sodium ions are found on the outside of cells, being located in blood plasma and in the interstitial fluid which surrounds the cells. These ions participate in the transmission of nerve signals, in regulating the flow of water across cell membranes and in the transport of sugars and amino acids into cells.
  • Potassium ions are the most abundant cations within cell fluids, where they activate many enzymes, participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with sodium, are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

Question 29.
What are the conventions adopted in writing the thermochemical equation?
Answer:
A thermochemical equation is a balanced stoichiometric chemical equation that includes the enthalpy change (ΔH).

Conventions adopted in thermochemical equations:

  • The coefficients in a balanced thermochemical equation refer to number of moles of reactants and products involved in the reaction.
  • The enthalpy change of the reaction ΔH has unit kJ.
  • When the chemical reaction is reversed, the value of ΔH is reversed in sign with the same magnitude.
  • Physical states (gas, liquid, aqueous and solid) of all species is important and must be specified in a thermochemical reaction since ΔH depends on the phases of reactants and products.
  • If the thermochemical equation is multiplied throughout by a number, the enthalpy change is also be multiplied by the same number value.
  • The negative sign of \(\Delta \mathrm{H}_{r}^{o}\) indicates the reaction to be an exothermic and the positive sign of \(\Delta \mathrm{H}_{r}^{o}\) indicates an endothermic type of reaction.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 30.
Calculate the work done when 2-moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 500 mL to a volume 2 L at 25°C and normal pressure.
Answer:
Given
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 12

Question 31.
For a gaseous homogeneous reaction at equilibrium number of moles of products are greater than the number of moles of reactants. Is K is larger or smaller than Kr.
Answer:
For a homogeneous reaction at equilibrium, number of moles of products (np) are greater than the number of moles of reactants (nR), then Δng = +ve
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 13

Question 32.
Explain – Resonance.
Answer:
(i) Certain organic compounds can be represented by more than one structure and they differ only in the position of bonding and lone pair of electrons. Such structures are called resonance structure and this phenomenon is called as resonance.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

This phenomenon is also called as mesomerism or mesomeric effect.
(ii) For example, the structure of aromatic compounds such as benzene and conjugated system like 1,3 butadiene cannot be represent by a single structure and their observed properties can be explained on the base of a resonance hybrid.
(iii) Resonance structure of benzene.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 14
(I) and (II) are called, as resonance hybrids of benzene.
(iv) For 1,3 butadiene:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 15

(I), (II) and (III) are called as resonance hybrids of 1,3 butadiene.

Question 33.
Toluene undergoes nitration easily than benzene. Why?
Answer:

  • Toluene has a methyl group on the benzene ring which is electron releasing group and hence activate the benzene ring by pushing the electrons on the benzene ring.
  • CH3 group is ortho – para director and ring activator. Therefore in toluene, ortho and para positions are the most reactive towards an electrophile, thus promoting electrophilic substitution reaction.
  • The methyl group hence makes it around 25 times more reactive than benzene. Therefore it undergoes nitration easily than benzene.
    Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 16

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) Explain about the classification of matter. (3)
(ii) What is a combination reaction? Give an example. (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Define – electronegativity. (2)
(ii) How Moseley determined the atomic number of an element using X-rays. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Classification of matter:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 17
(ii) When two or more substances combine to form a single substance, the reactions are called combination reactions.
A + B → C
Example: 2 Mg + O2 → 2MgO
[OR]
(b) (i) Electronegativity is the relative tendency of an element present in a covalently bonded molecule, to attract the shared pair of electrons towards itself.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

(ii)

  • Henry Moseley studied the X-ray spectra of several elements and determined their atomic numbers (Z).
  • He discovered a correlation between atomic number and the frequency of X-rays generated by bombarding an element with high energy of electrons.
  • Moseley correlated the frequency of the X-ray emitted by an equation as, \(\sqrt{\mathfrak{v}}=a(\mathrm{Z}-b)\)
    Where u = Frequency of the X-rays emitted by the elements. a and. b = Constants.
  • From the square root of the measured frequency of the X-rays emitted, he determined the atomic number of the element.

Question 35.
(a) Explain the following observations,
(i) Aerated water bottles are kept under water during summer. (3)
(ii) Liquid ammonia bottle is cooled before opening the seal. (2)
[OR]
(b) Derive the relation between ΔH and ΔU for an ideal gas. (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) In aerated water bottles, CO2 gas is passed through the aqueous solution under pressure because the solubility of the gas in water is not very high. In summer, the solubility of the gas in water is likely to decrease because of the rise in temperature. Thus, in summer, more ’ of gas will be present above the liquid surface in the glass bottle. In case, the pressure of the gas becomes too high, the glass will not be able to withstand the pressure and the bottle may explode. To avoid this, the bottles are kept under water. As a result, the temperature is likely to decrease and the solubility of CO2 is likely to increase in aqueous solution resulting in decreased pressure.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

(ii) Liquid ammonia bottle contains the gas under very high pressure. If the bottle is opened as such, then the sudden decrease in pressure will lead to a large increase in volume of the gas. As a result, the gas will come out of the bottle all of a sudden with force. This will lead to the breakage of the bottle and also causes accident However, if the bottle is cooled under tap water for sometime, there will be a decrease in the volume of a gas to a large extent. If the seal is opened now, the gas will come out of the bottle at a slower rate, reduces the chances of accident.
[OR]
(b) Relation between ΔH and ΔU for an ideal gas.
1. When the system at constant pressure undergoes changes from an initial state with Hp U1, V1 and P parameters to a final state with H2, U2, V2 and P parameters, the change in enthalpy AH, is given by
∆H = U + PV
2. At initial state H1 = U1 + PV1 ……………….. (1)
At final state H2 = U2 + PV2 ……………….. (2)
(2) – (1) ⇒ (H2 – H1) = (U2 – U1) + P (V2 – V1)
∆H = ∆U + P∆V …………………… (3)
Considering ∆U = q + w ; w = – P∆V
∆H = q + w + PAV
∆H = qp – PAV+ PAV
∆H = qp ………………… (4)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

qp is the heat absorbed at constant pressure and is considered as heat content.

3. Consider a closed system of gases which are chemically reacting to produce product gases at constant temperature and pressure with V. and Vf as the total volumes of the reactant and product gases respectively, and n. and nf are the number of moles of gaseous reactants and products. Then,
For reactants: PVi = niRT
For products : P Vf = nf RT

Then considering reactants as initial state and products as final state,
P (Vf – Vi) = (nf – ni) RT
P∆V = ∆ng RT

We know
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT …………………. (5)

Question 36.
(a) (i) What are heterogenous equilibrium? Give an example. (2)
(ii) The atmospheric oxidation of NO 2NO(g) + O2(g) = 2NO2(g) was studied with initial pressure of 1-atm of NO and 1-atm of O2. At equilibrium partial pressure of oxygen is 0.52 atm. Calculate Kp of the reaction. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the factors influencing the solubility of the solutes. (3)
(ii) Why the carbonated drinks are stored in a pressurised container? (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Heterogeneous equilibrium: If the reactants and products of a reaction in equilibrium are in different phases, then it is called as heterogeneous equilibrium.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 18

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

(b) (i) Factors influencing solubility:
Nature of solute and solvent: Sodium chloride, an ionic compound readily dissolves in , polar solvent such as water but it does not dissolve in non polar solvent such as benzene. Most of the organic compounds dissolve in organic solvent and do not dissolve in water.

Effect of temperature: Generally, the solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature. The dissolution of NaCl does not vary as the maximum solubility is achieved at normal temperature. The dissolution of ammonium nitrate is endothermic, the solubility increases with increase in temperature. The dissolution of ceric sulphate is exothermic and the solubility decreases with increase of temperature. In the case of gaseous solute in liquid solvent the solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

Effect of pressure: Generally the change in pressure does not have any significant effect in the solubility of solids and liquids as they are not compressible. However, the solubility of gases generally increases with increase of pressure.

(ii)

  • The carbonated beverages contain CO2 dissolved in them. To dissolve the CO2 in these drinks, CO2 gas is bubbled through them under high pressure.
  • These containers are sealed to maintain the pressure. When we open these containers at atmospheric pressure, the pressure of the CO2 drops to the atmospheric pressure level and hence bubbles of CO2 rapidly escape from the solution and show effervescence.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 37.
(a) (i) Explain – paper chromatography. (3)
(ii) What are stereo-isomerism? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the homolytic fission of a covalent bond? (3)
(ii) Why chloroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid? (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) 1. It is an example of partition chromatography. A strip of paper acts as an adsorbent.
This method involves continues differential pardoning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phase. In paper chromatography, a special quality paper known as chromatographic paper is used. This paper act as a stationary phase.
2. A strip of chromatographic paper spotted at the base with the solution of the mixture is suspended in a suitable solvent which acts as the mobile phase. The solvent rises up and flows over the spot. The paper selectivity retains different components according to their different partition in the two phases where a chromatogram is developed.
3. The spots of the separated coloured components are visible at different heights from the position of initial spots on the chromatogram. The spots of the separated colourless compounds may be observed either under ultraviolet light or by the use of an appropriate spray reagent.

(ii) Stereo-isomerism: The isomers which have same bond connectivity but different arrangement of groups or atoms in space are known as stereoisomers. This phenomenon is known as stereoisomerism.

[OR]

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

(b) (i)

  • Homolytic cleavage is the process in which a covalent bond breaks symmetrically in such way that fcach of the bonded atoms retains one electron.
  • This type of cleavage occurs under high temperature or in the presence of UV light.
  • In a compound containing non-‘polar covalent bond formed between atoms of similar electronegativity, in such molecules the cleavage of bonds results into free radicals.
  • For example, ethane undergo homolytic fission to produce, two methyl free radicals.
    Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 19

(ii) Chloro acetic acid:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 20
Chloro acetic acid has Cl-group and it has high electronegativity and shows -I effect. Therefore Cl-atom to facilitate the dissociation of O-H bond very fastly. Whereas in the – case of acetic acid, has CH3 group and it shows +1 effect, therefore dissociation of O-H bond will be more difficult. Thus chloro acetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Question 38.
(a) Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 21
Identify A and B (major products).
(ii) Describe the mechanism of sulphonation of benzene. (3)
[OR]
(b) An organic compounds A of a molecular formula C6H6 which is simple aromatic hydrocarbon. A reacts with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 to give B. B reacts with NaOH at 350°C and 300 atm pressure to give C. B again reacts with ammonia at 250°C and 50 atm pressure to give D. Identify A, B, C and D explain the reaction. (5)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 22
(ii) Step 1: Generation of SO3 electrophile: 2H2SO4 → H3O + SO3 + HSO4
Step 2: Attack of the electrophilic on benzene ring to form Armenian ion:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 23
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium 24

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

A C6H6 Benzene
B C6H5Cl Chlorobenzene
C C6H5OH Phenol
D C6H5NH2 Aniline

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 11 Functions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Functions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following header file defines the standard I/O predefined functions?
(a) stdio.h
(b) math.h
(c) string.h
(d) ctype.h
Answer:
(a) stdio.h

Question 2.
Which function is used to check whether a character is alphanumeric or not?
(a) isalpha()
(b) isdigit()
(c) isalnum()
(d) islower()
Answer:
(c) isalnum()

Question 3.
Which function begins the program execution?
(a) isalpha()
(b) isdigit()
(c) main()
(d) islower()
Answer:
(c) main()

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
Which of the following function is with a return value and without any argument?
(a) x = display(int, int)
(b) x = display()
(c) y = display(float)
(d) display(int)
Answer:
(b) x = display()

Question 5.
Which is return data type of the function prototype of add(int, int);?
(a) int
(b) float
(c) char
(d) double
Answer:
(a) int

Question 6.
Which of the following is the scope operator?
(a) >
(b) &
(c) %
(d) ::
Answer:
(d) ::

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Define Functions.
Answer:
A large program can typically be split into small sub – programs (blocks) called as functions where each sub-program can perform some specific functionality. Functions reduce the size and complexity of a program, makes it easier to understand, test and check for errors.

Question 2.
Write about strlen() function.
Answer:
The strlen() takes a null terminated byte string source as its argument and returns its length. The length does not include the null(\0) character.

Question 3.
What are importance of void data type? void type has two important purposes:
Answer:

  1. To indicate the function does not return a value.
  2. To declare a generic pointer.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
What is Parameter and list its types?
Answer:
Arguments or parameters are the means to pass values from the calling function to the called function. The variables used in the function definition as parameters are known as formal parameters. The constants, variables or expressions used in the function call are known as actual parameters.

Types : Default arguments and Constant Arguments.

Question 5.
Write a note on Local Scope.
Answer:

  1. A local variable is defined within a block. A block of code begins and ends with curly braces { }.
  2. The scope of a local variable is the block in which it is defined.
  3. A local variable cannot be accessed from outside the block of its declaration.
  4. A local variable is created upon entry into its block and destroyed upon exit.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
What is Built – in functions?
Answer:
C++ provides a rich collection of functions ready to be used for various tasks. The tasks to be performed by each of these are already written, debugged and compiled, their definitions alone are grouped and stored in files called header files. Such ready – to – use sub programs are called pre – defined functions or built – in functions.

Question 2.
What is the difference between isupper() and toupper() functions?
Answer:
isupper():

  • This function is used to check the given character is uppercase.
  • This function will return 1 if true otherwise 0.

toupper():

  • This function is used to convert the given character into its uppercase.
  • This function will return the upper case equivalent of the given character. If the given character itself is in upper case, the output will be the same.

Question 3.
Write about strcmp() function.
Answer:
The strcmp() function takes two arguments: string1 and string2. It compares the contents of string1 and string2 lexicographically.
The strcmp() function returns a:

  1. Positive value if the first differing character in string1 is greater than the corresponding character in string2. (ASCII values are compared)
  2. Negative value if the first differing character in string1 is less than the corresponding character in string2.
  3. 0 if string1 and string2 are equal.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
Write short note on pow() function in C++.
Answer:
The pow() function returns base raised to the power of exponent. If any argument passed to pow() is long double, the return type is promoted to long double. If not, the return type is double. The pow() function takes two arguments:

  1. base – the base value
  2. exponent – exponent of the base

Example:
cout << pow(5, 2);

Output:
25

Question 5.
What are the information the prototype provides to the compiler?
Answer:
The prototype above provides the following information to the compiler:

  1. The return value of the function is of type long.
  2. Fact is the name of the function.
  3. The function is called with two arguments:
    • The first argument is of int data type.
    • The second argument is of double data type, int display(int, int) // function prototype//.

The above function prototype provides details about the return data type, name of the function and a list of formal parameters or arguments.

Question 6.
What is default arguments? Give example.
Answer:
In C++, one can assign default values to the formal parameters of a function prototype. The Default arguments allows to omit some arguments when calling the function.
1. For any missing arguments, complier uses the values in default arguments for the called function.

2. The default value is given in the form of variable initialization.
Example : void defaultvalue(int n1 = 10, n2 = 100);

3. The default arguments facilitate the function call statement with partial or no arguments.
Example :

  1. defaultvalue (x, y);
  2. defaultvalue (200, 150);
  3. defaultvalue (150);
  4. defaultvalue (x, 150);

4. The default values can be included in the function prototype from right to left, i.e., we cannot have a default value for an argument in between the argument list.
Example:

  1. void defaultvalue (int n1=10, n2);//invalid prototype.
  2. void defaultvalue (int n1, n2 = 10);//valid prototype.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Explain Call by value method with suitable example.
Answer:
This method copies the value of an actual parameter into the formal parameter of the function. In this case, changes made to formal parameter within the function will have no effect on the actual parameter.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
Output:
Example : Function call by value
Enter the Value for A : 5
The Value inside display function (a * a) : 25
The Value inside main function 5

Question 2.
What is Recursion? Write a program to find GCD using recursion.
Answer:
A function that calls itself is known as recursive function. And, this technique is known as recursion.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
Output:
Enter two numbers: 81 153
gcd : 9

Question 3.
What are the different forms of function return? Explain with example.
Answer:
The return statement:
Returning from the function is done by using the return statement. The return statement stops execution and returns to the calling function. When a return statement is executed, the function is terminated immediately at that point. The return statement is used to return from a function. It is categorized as a jump statement because it terminates the execution of the function and transfer the control to the called statement.
Syntax:
return expression/variable;

Example : retum(a + b); retum(a);
return; // to terminate the function

The Returning values:
The functions that return no value is declared as void. The data type of a function is treated as int, if no data type is explicitly mentioned. For example,
For Example:
int add (int, int);
add (int, int);
In both prototypes, the return value is int, because by default the return value of a function in C++ is of type int.

Returning Non – integer values:
A string can also be returned to a calling statement.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
Output:
Example: Function with Non Integer Return Chennai

The Returning by reference:
#include
using namespace std;
int main( )
{

int n 1 = 150;
int &n 1 ref = n1;
cout << “\nThe Value of N1 = “<< n1 << “and n 1 Reference =”<< n 1 ref;
n 1 ref++;
cout << “\n After nl increased the Value of N1 =”<< n1;
cout << “and n 1 Reference = ”<< n 1 ref;
retum(0);

}
Output:
The Value of N1 = 150 and nl Reference =150
After n1 increased the Value of N1 = 151 and n1 Reference =151

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
Explain scope of variable with example.
Answer:
Scope refers to the accessibility of a variable.
There are four types of scopes in C++

  1. Local Scope
  2. Function Scope
  3. File Scope
  4. Class Scope

1. Local Scope:

  • A local variable is defined within a block. A block of code begins and ends with curly braces {}.
  • The scope of a local variable is the block in which it is defined.
  • A local variable cannot be accessed from outside the block of its declaration.
  • A local variable is created upon entry into its block and destroyed upon exit;
    Example:
    int main( )
    {
    int a,b;   //Local variable
    }

2. Function Scope:

  • The scope of variable within a function is extended to the function block and all sub-blocks therein.
  • The lifetime of a function scope variable is the lifetime of the function block.
    Example:
    int. sum(intx, int y);  //x and y has function scope.

3. File Scope:

  • A variable declared above all blocks and functions (including main()) has the scope of a file.
  • The lifetime of a file scope variable is the lifetime of a program.
  • The file scope variable is also called as global variable.
    Example:
    #include
    using namespace std;
    int x,y; //x and y are global variable
    void main()
    {
    ……..
    }

4. Class Scope:

  • Data members declared in a class has the class scope.
  • Data members declared in a class can be accessed by all member functions of the class.
    Example:
    Class example
    {

int x,y; //x and y can be accessed by print() and void():
void print();
Void total();

  };

Question 5.
Write a program to accept any integer number and reverse it.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
Output:
Enter number : 1 2 3
Reverse number: 3 2 1

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Functions Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
………………. is the name of the function.
(a) Pre – defined
(b) Built – in
(c) Library
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
………………. is used to check whether the given character is an alphabet or not.
(a) isalnum()
(b) isalpha()
(c) isalph()
(d) isal()
Answer:
(b) isalpha()

Question 3.
The strcpy() function takes two arguments of ……………….
(a) target and source
(b) upper and lower
(c) base and exponent
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) target and source

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
………………. takes a null terminated byte string source as its argument and returns its length.
(a) strcpy()
(b) strlen()
(c) strcmp()
(d) strcat()
Answer:
(b) strlen()

Question 5.
The pow() function takes the two arguments of ……………….
(a) target and source
(b) upper and lower
(c) base and exponent
(d) source and exponent
Answer:
(c) base and exponent

Question 6.
………………. is the name of the function.
(a) fact
(b) task
(c) arguments
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The C++ program always have main() function to begin the program execution.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) null
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 8.
Arguments are also called as ……………….
(a) variable
(b) constant
(c) function
(d) parameters
Answer:
(d) parameters

Question 9.
In C++ the arguments can be passed to a function in ………………. ways.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 10.
Inline functions execute faster but requires more ……………….
(a) variables
(b) pointers
(c) memory
(d) functions
Answer:
(c) memory

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about reusability.
Answer:

  1. Few lines of code may be repeatedly used in different contexts. Duplication of the same code can be eliminated by using functions which improves the maintenance and reduce program size.
  2. Some functions can be called multiple times with different inputs.

Question 2.
What is user – defined functions?
Answer:
C++ also provides the facility to create new functions for specific task as per user requirement. The name of the task and data required (arguments) are decided by the user and hence they are known as User-defined functions.

Question 3.
What is constant arguments and write its syntax?
Answer:
The constant variable can be declared using const keyword. The const keyword makes variable , value stable. The constant variable should be initialized while declaring. The const modifier enables to assign an initial value to a variable that cannot be changed later inside the body of the function.
Syntax:
(const )

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
What are the advantages of inline functions?
Answer:
Advantages of inline functions:

  1. Inline functions execute faster but requires more memory space.
  2. Reduce the complexity of using STACKS.

Question 5.
What is function scope?
Answer:
Function Scope:

  1. The scope of variables declared within a function is extended to the function block, and all sub – blocks therein.
  2. The life time of a function scope variable, is the life time of the function block. The scope of.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is divide and conquer?
Answer:
Divide and Conquer

  1. Complicated programs can be divided into manageable sub programs called functions.
  2. A programmer can focus on developing, debugging and testing individual functions.
  3. Many programmers can work on different functions simultaneously.

Question 2.
Define library functions.
Answer:
C++ provides a rich collection of functions ready to be used for various tasks. The tasks to be performed by each of these are already written, debugged and compiled, their definitions alone are grouped and stored in files called header files. Such ready – to – use sub programs are called pre – defined functions or built – in functions or Library Functions.

Question 3.
What is isdigit()? Give example.
Answer:
This function is used to check whether a given character is a digit or not. This function will return 1 if the given character is a digit, and 0 otherwise.

Example:
using namespace std;
#include
#include int main( )
{

char ch;
cout << “\n Enter a Character:”; cin >> ch;
cout << “\n The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is << isdigit(ch);

}
Output – 1
Enter a Character: 3
The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is : 1

Output – 2
Enter a Character: A
The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is :0

Question 4.
Write a program using pow() and sin() function.
Answer:
The pow() function returns base raised to the power of exponent. The sin() function takes a single argument in radians.
#include
#include using namespace std;
int main ()
{

double base, exponent, result;
base = 5;
exponent = 4;
result = pow(base, exponent);
cout << “pow(“ << base << “A” << exponent <<”) =” << result;
double x = 25;
result = sin(x);
cout << “\nsin(“<< x <<”)=”<<result;
return 0;

}
Output:
pow (5^4) = 625
sin (25) = – 0.132352

Question 5.
What is return statement with example?
Answer:
The return statement stops execution and returns to the calling function. When a return statement is executed, the function is terminated immediately at that point. The return statement is used to return from a function. It is categorized as a jump statement because it terminates the execution of the function and transfer the control to the called statement.

Example:
return(a + b); return(a);
return; // to terminate the function

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 6.
What is scope resolution operation?
Answer:

  1. The scope operator reveals the hidden scope of a variable. The scope resolution operator (::) is used for the following purposes.
  2. To access a Global variable when there is a Local variable with same name. An example using Scope Resolution Operator.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain about generating random numbers with suitable program.
Answer:
The srand() function in C++ seeds the pseudo random number generator used by the rand() function. The seed for rand() function is 1 by default. It means that if no srand() is called before rand(), the rand() function behaves as if it was seeded with srand( 1). The srand() function takes an unsigned integer as its parameter which is used as seed by the rand() function. It is defined inor header file.
#include
#include using namespace std; int main()
{

int random = rand(); /* No srand() calls before rand(), so seed = 1*/
cout << “\nSeed = 1, Random number =” << random;
srand(10);
/* Seed= 10 */
random = rand();
cout << “\n\n Seed =10, Random number =” << random;
return 0;

}
Output:
Seed = 1, Random number = 41
Seed =10, Random number 71

Question 2.
Explain about Inline functions with a suitable program.
Answer:
An inline function looks like normal function in the source file but inserts the function’s code directly into the calling program. To make a function inline, one has to insert the keyword inline in the function header.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
Output:
Enter the Principle Amount Rs. :60000
Enter the Number of Years : 10
Enter the Rate of Interest :5
The Simple Interest = Rs. 30000

Question 3.
Write about function prototype.
Answer:
C++ program can contain any number of functions. But, it must always have only one main() function to begin the program execution. We can write the definitions of functions in any order as we wish. We can define the main() function first and all other functions after that or we can define all the needed functions prior to main(). Like a variable declaration, a function must be declared before it is used in the program. The declaration statement may be given outside the main() function
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions
The prototype above provides the following information to the compiler:

  1. The return value of the function is of type long.
  2. Fact is the name of the function.
  3. The function is called with two arguments:
    • The first argument is of int data type.
    • The second argument is of double data type, int display(int, int)//function prototype//

The above function prototype provides details about the return data type, name of the function and a list of formal parameters or arguments.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 4.
Explain about address method.
Answer:
This method copies the address of the actual argument into the formal parameter. Since the address of the argument is passed, any change made in the formal parameter will be reflected back in the actual parameter.
#include
using namespace std;
void display(int & x) //passing address of a//
{

x = x*x;
cout << “\n\n The Value inside display function (n1 x n1) :”<< x ;

}
int main()
{
intn 1;
cout << “\n Enter the Value for N1 cin >> n1;
cout << “\n The Value of N1 is inside main function Before passing:” << n1;
display(n1);
cout << “\n The Value of N1 is inside main function After passing (n1 x n1):”<< n1; retum(O);
}

Output:
Enter the Value for N1 : 45
The Value of N1 is inside main function Before passing : 45
The Value inside display function (n1 x n1) : 2025
The Value ofNl is inside main function After passing (n1 x n1): 2025

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Question 5.
Given data: Principal amount Rs. 50000

Number of years 5
Rate of interest 7

To find the simple interest of the above mentioned given data. Write a C++ program using inline functions.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
inline float simple interest(float p1, float n 1, float r 1)
{

float sil=(pl*nl*rl)/100;
retum(sil);

}
int main ()
{

float si,p,n,r;
cout << “\n Enter the Principle Amount Rs. :”; cin >> p;
cout << “\n Enter the Number of Years :”; cin >> n;
cout << “\n Enter the Rate of Interest :”; cin >> r;
si = simple interest(p, n, r);
cout << “\n The Simple Interest = Rs.” << si;
return 0;

}

Output:
Enter the Principle Amount Rs. : 50000
Enter the Number of Years : 5
Enter the Rate of Interest : 7
The Simple Interest = Rs. 17500

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 70 Marks

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Part – I

Answer all the questions.
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
Choose the disproportionation reaction among the following redox reactions.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 1
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 2

Solution:
\(P_{4}(s)+3 N a O H+3 H_{2} \rightarrow P H_{3}(g)+3 N a H_{2} P O_{2}(a q)\)

Question 2.
Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 3

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i) and (ill) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Solution:
(ii) l can have the values from O to n-1
n = 2; possible ‘l’ values are 0, 1 hence l = 2 is not possible.
(iv) for l = O; m = – 1 not possible
(v) for n = 3 l = 4 and m = 3 not possible

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius?
\((a) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathrm{Li}^{+}_{(\mathrm{eq})}\)
\((b) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{eq})}^{2+}\)
\((c) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Li}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}\)
\((d) \mathbf{L}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathbf{N} \mathbf{a}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}<\mathbf{K}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}\)
Answer:
\(\text { (d) } \mathbf{L} \mathbf{i}_{(\mathbf{z} q)}^{+}<\mathbf{N} \mathbf{a}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}<\mathbf{K}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}\)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 4.
Statement – I: The magnetic moment of para-hydrogen is zero.
Statement – II: The spins of two hydrogen atoms in para H2 molecule neutralise each other.
(a) Statements – I and lIare correct and Statement-Il is the correct explanation of statement – I.
(b) Statements – I and H are correct but Statement-Il is not the correct explanation of statement – I.
(e) Statement – I is correct lut Statement-Il is wrong.
(d) Statement – I is wrong but Statement-Il is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statements – I and lIare correct and Statement-Il is the correct explanation of statement – I.

Question 5.
Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the reaction,
\(\mathbf{M}^{+}(\mathrm{g}) \frac{\text { Aqueous }}{\text { Medium }} \rightarrow \mathrm{M}^{+}(\mathrm{aq})\)
(a) Na
(b) Li
(c) Rb
(d) K
Answer:
(b) Li

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 6.
The value of universal gas constant depends upon
(a) Temperature of the gas
(b) Volume of the gas
(c) Number of moles of the gas
(d) units of Pressure and volume
Answer:
(d) units of Pressure and volume

Question 7.
The heat of formation of CO and CO, are —26.4 kcal and —94 kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be …………………… .
(a) +26.4 keal
(b) -67.6 kcal
(c) -120.6 kcal
(d) +52.8 kcal
Answer:
(b) -67.6 kcal

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 5

Question 8.
In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant for the forward reaction is 2.5 x 102 and the equilibrium constant is 50. The rate constant for the reverse reaction is
(a) 11.5
(b) 5
(c) 2 x 102
(d) 2 x 10-3
Answer:
(b) 5

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 24

Question 9.
The Vant Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is ………………………………. . [NEET]
(a) O
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Solution: Ba(OH)2 dissociates to form Ba2 and 20H- ion
\(\alpha=\frac{(i-1)}{(n-1)}\)
i = α (n – 1) + 1
∴ n = i = 3 (for Ba (OH)2, α = 1)

Question 10.
Match the list I and list II using the correct code given below in the list:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 6
Code: A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Answer:
(a) 4 3 2 1

Question 11.
Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed is due to the formation of
(a) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]2
(b) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3
(c) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]2
(d) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]3
Answer:
(b) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 12.
What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion?
(a) sp2
(b) spd2
(c) sp2
(d) sp2d
Answer:
(a) sp2

Question 13.
Statement – I: Boiling point of methane is lower than that of butane.
Statement – II: The boiling point of continuous chain alkanes increases with increase in length of carbon chain.
(a) Statement -I and II are correct and statement – II is correct explanation of statement – I.
(b) Statement – I and II are correct but statement – II is not correct explanation of statement – I.
(c) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is wrong.
(d) Statement – II is wrong but statement – 1 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement -I and II are correct and statement – II is correct explanation of statement – I.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 14.
In the reaction
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 7
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 8
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 9

Question 15.
Which of the following binds with haemoglobin and reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?
(a) CO2
(b) NO2
(c) SO3
(d) CO
Answer:
(d) CO

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Part – II
Answer any six questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle.
Answer:
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of values of all four quantum numbers”.
Illustration: H(Z = 1) Is1.

One electron is present in hydrogen atom, the four quantum numbers are n – 1, / = 0, m = 0 and s = + ½. For helium Z = 2. He: Is2. In this one electron has the quantum number same as that of hydrogen. n = l, l = 0m = 0 and s = + ½. For other electron, fourth quantum number is different. i.e. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 and s = – ½.

Question 17.
Give the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
Answer:

  • The electronic configuration of lanthanides is 4f1-14 5d10-1 6s2.
  • The electronic configuration of actinides is 5f1-14 6d10-1 7s2.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 18.
Why alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals?
Answer:

  1. The strength of metallic bond in alkaline earth metals is higher than alkali metals due to the presence of 2 electrons in its outermost shell as compared to alkali metals, which have only 1 electron in valence shell. Therefore, alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals.
  2. The alkaline earth metals have greater nuclear charge and more valence electrons, thus metallic bonding is more effective. Due to this they are harder than alkali metals.

Question 19.
What are the limitations of the thermodynamics?
Answer:

  1. Thermodynamics suggests feasibility of reaction but fails to suggest rate of reaction. It is concerned only with the initial and the final states of the system. It is not concerned with the path by which the change occurs.
  2. It does not reveal the mechanism of a process.

Question 20.
Write the application of equilibrium constant?
Answer:

  • predict the direction in which the net reaction will take place
  • predict the extent of the reaction and
  • calculate the equilibrium concentrations of the reactants and products.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 21.
How much volume of 6 M solution of NaOH is required to prepare 500 ml of 0.250 M NaOH solution?
Answer:
6% \(\frac{v}{v}\) aqueous solution contains 6g of methanol in 100 ml solution.

∴ To prepare 500 ml of 6% v/v solution of methanol 30g methanol is taken in a 500 ml standard flask and required quantity of water is added to make up the solution to 500 ml.

Question 22.
Define – Inductive effect.
Answer:

  • It is defined as the change in the polarization of a covalent bond due to the presence of adjacent . bonded atoms or groups in the molecule. It is denoted as I-effect.
  • Atoms or groups which lose electron towards a carbon atom are said to have a +1 effect.
    Example, CH3 -, (CH3)2 CH (CH3)2 C- etc.
  • Atoms or groups which draw electrons away from a carbon atom are said to have a -I effect.
    Example, -NO2 -I, -Br, -OH, C6H5 etc.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 23.
How will you convert n-hexane into benzene? ,
Answer:
Alkanes with six to ten carbon atoms are converted into homologous of benzene at higher temperature and in the presence of a catalyst. This process is known as aromatisation.

For example, n -Hexane passed over Cr2O3 supported on alumina at 873 K gives benzene.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 10

Question 24.
Why haloalkanes have higher boiling point than parent alkanes having the same number of carbons?
Answer:
Haloalkanes have higher boiling point than the parent alkane having the same number of carbon atoms because the intermolecular forces of attraction and dipole-dipole interactions are comparatively stronger in haloalkanes.

Part-III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 25 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 25.
Balance the following equations by using oxidation number method.
K2Cr2O7 + KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 11
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 12

Question 26.
Explain the periodic trend of ionization potential.
Answer:
(a) The energy required to remove the most loosely held electron from an isolated gaseous atom is called as ionization energy.
(b) Variation in a period.

Ionization energy is a periodic property.
On moving across a period from left to right, the ionization enthalpy value increases. This is due to the following reasons.

  • Increase of nuclear charge in a period
  • Decrease of atomic size in a period

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Because of these reasons, the valence electrons are held more tightly by the nucleus. Therefore, ionization enthalpy increases.

(c) Variation in a group
As we move from top to bottom along a group, the ionization enthalpy decreases. This is due to the following reasons.

  • A gradual increase in atomic size
  • Increase of screening effect on the outermost electrons due to the increase of number of inner electrons.

Hence, ionization enthalpy is a periodic property.

Question 27.
Distinguish between hard water and soft water.
Answer:

Hard water Soft water
Presence of magnesium and calcium in the form of bicarbonate, chloride and sulphate in water makes hard water. Presence of soluble salts of calcium and magnesium in water makes it soft water.
Cleaning capacity of soap is reduced when used in hard water. Cleaning capacity of soap is more when used in soft water.
When hard water is boiled deposits of insoluble carbonates of magnesium and calcium are obtained. When soft water is boiled, there is no deposition of salts.

Question 28.
Explain how the equilibrium constant Kc predict the extent of a reaction.
Answer:
(i) The value of equilibrium constant Kc tells us the extent of the reaction i.e., it indicates how far the reaction has proceeded towards product formation at a given temperature.
(ii) A large value of Kc indicates that the reaction reaches equilibrium with high product yield on the other hand, lower value of Kc indicates that the reaction reaches equilibrium with low product yield.
(iii) If Kc > 103, the reaction proceeds nearly to completion.
(iv) If Kc < 10-3 the reaction rarely proceeds.
(v) It the Kc is in the range 10-3 to 103, a significant amount of both reactants and products are present at equilibrium.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 29.
How many moles of solute particles are present in one litre of 10-4 M K2SO4?
Answer:
In 10-4 M K2 SC4), solution, there are 10-4 moles of potassium sulphate.
K2SO4 molecule contains 3 ions (2K+ and 1 SO42-)
1 m;ole of I^SO,, contains 3 x 6.023 x 1023 ions
10″4 mole of K2SO4 contains 3 x 6.023 x 1023 x 10-4 ions = 18.069 x 1019

Question 30.
Draw the Lewis structures for the following.
(i) SO42-
(ii) O3
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 13

Question 31.
Write a short notes on hyperconjugation.
Answer:

  • The delocalization of electrons of a bond is called as hyperconjugation. It is a special stabilizing effect that results due to the interaction of electrons of a cr bond with the adjacent empty non-bonding P-orbitals resulting in an extended molecular orbital.
  • Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.
  • For example, in propene, the a- electrons of C—H bond of methyl group can be delocalised into the n- orbital of doubly bonded carbon as represented below.
    Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 14

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Question 32.
How will you prepare propyne using alkyene dihalide?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 15

Question 33.
Explain how the oxides of sulphur pollute the atomospheric air? Give its harmful effects.
Answer:

  • Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning sulphur-containing fossil fuels and by roasting of sulphide ores.
  • SO2 is a poisonous gas for both animals and plants. SO2 causes eye irritation, coughing and respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis.
  • SO2 is oxidised to more harmful SO3 gas in the presence of particulate matter present in the polluted air:
    SO3 combines with atmospheric water vapour to form H2SO4 which comes down along with rain in the form of acid rain:
  • Acid rain causes stone leprosy, affect aquatic ecosystem, corrode water pipes and causes respiratory ailment in humans and animals.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Part – IV

Answer all the questions.

Question 34.
(a) Urea is prepared by the reaction between ammonia and arbondioxide.
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH2)2 CO(aq) + H2O(l)
In one process, 637.2 g of NH3 are allowed to react with 1142 g of CO2.
(i) Which of the two reactants is the limiting reagent? (2)
(ii) Calculate the mass of (NH2)2 CO formed. (2)
(iii) How much Of the excess reagent in grams is left at the end of the reaction? (1)
[OR]
(b) (i) A student reported the ionic radii of isoelectronic species X3+, Y2+ and Z as 136 pm, 64 pm and 49 pm respectively. Is that order correct? Comment. (2)
(ii) Explain any three factors which influence the ionization energy. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH4)2 CO(aq) + H2O(l)
2 moles 1 mole 1 mole
No. of moles of ammonia =\(\frac{637.2}{17}\) = 37.45 mole
No. of moles of CO2 = \(\frac{1142}{44}\) = 25.95 mole

As per the balanced equation, one mole of C02 requires 2 moles of ammonia.
∴ No. of moles of NH3 required to react with 25.95 moles of CO2 is
= \(\frac{2}{1}\) x 25.95 = 51.90 moles.
∴ 37.45 moles of NH3 is not enough to completely react with CO2 (25.95 moles).
Hence, NH3 must be the limiting reagent, and CO2 is excess reagent.
(ii) 2 moles of ammonia produce 1 mole of urea.
∴ Limiting reagent 37.45 moles of NH3 can produce \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 37.45 moles of urea.
= 18.725 moles of urea.
∴ The mass of 18.725 moles of urea = No. of moles x Molar mass
= 18.725 x 60
= 1123.5 g of urea.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

(iii) 2 moles of ammonia requires 1 mole of CO2.
∴ Limiting reagent 37.45 moles of NH3 will require \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 37.45 moles of CO2.
= 18.725 moles of CO2.
∴ No. of moles of the excess reagent (CO2) left = 25.95 – 18.725 = 7.225
The mass of the excess reagent (C02) left = 7.225 x 44
= 317.9 g of CO2.
[OR]

(b) (i) X3+, Y2+, Z are isoelectronic.
∴ Effective nuclear charge is in the order
\(\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{Z}<\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{Y^{2+}}<\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{X^{3+}}\) and hence, ionic radii should be in the order \(r_{z}>r_{y^{2}}>r_{x^{3+}}\)
∴ The correct values are:

Species Ionic radii
Z 136
Y2+ 64
X3+ 49

(ii) 1. Size of the atom: If the size of an atom is larger, the outermost electron shell from the nucleus is also larger and hence the outermost electrons experience lesser force of attraction. Hence it would be more easy to remove an electron from the outermost shell. Thus, ionization energy decreases with increasing atomic sizes.
\(Ionization enthalpy \propto \frac{1}{\text { Atomic size }}\)

2. Magnitude of nuclear charge: As the nuclear charge increases, the force of attraction . between the nucleus and valence electrons also increases. So, more energy is required to remove a valence electron. Hence I.E increases with increase in nuclear charge.
Ionization enthalpy α nuclear charge

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

3. Screening or shielding effect of the inner electrons: The electrons of inner shells form a cloud of negative charge and this shields the outer electron from the nucleus. This screen reduces the coulombic attraction between the positive nucleus and the negative outer electrons. If screening effect increases, ionization energy decreases.
\(Ionization enthalpy \propto \frac{1}{\text { Screening effects }}\)

4. Penetrating power of subshells s, p, d and f: The s-orbital penetrate more closely to the nucleus as compared to p-orbitals. Thus, electrons in s-orbitals are more tightly held by the nucleus than electrons in p-orbitals. Due to this, more energy is required to remove a electron from an s-orbital as compared to a p-orbital. For the same value of ‘n’, the penetration power decreases in a given shell in the order, s > p > d > f.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

5. Electronic configuration: If the atoms of elements have either completely filled or exactly half filled electronic configuration, then the ionization energy increases.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write the important common features of group 2 elements? (3)
(ii) What is meant by retrograde solubility? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Derive a general expression for the equilibrium constant Kp and Kc for the reaction. (3)
(ii) Write the Kp and Kc for NH3 formation reaction. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i)

  • Group 2 elements except beryllium are commonly known as alkaline earth metals because their oxides and hydroxides are alkaline in nature and these metal oxides are found in the Earth’s crust.
  • Many alkaline earth metals are used in creating colours and used in fireworks.
  • Their general electronic configuration is ns2.
  • Atomic and ionic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than alkali metals, on moving down the group, the radii increases.
  • These elements exhibit +2 oxidation state in their compounds.
  • Alkaline earth metals have higher ionizatoin enthalpy values than alkali metals and they are less electropositive than alkali metals.
  • Hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metals decreases as we go down the group.
  • Electronegativity values of alkaline earth metals decrease down the group.
  • Alkaline earth metal salts moistened with concentrated hydrochloric acid gave a characteristic coloured flame, when heated on a platinum wire in a flame.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

(ii) Gypsum is a soft mineral and it is less soluble in water as the temperature increases. This is known as retrograde solubility, which is a distinguishing characteristic of gypsum.

[OR]

(b) (i) Consider a general reaction in which all reactants and products are ideal gases.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 25

The equilibrium constant kc is
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 16
The ideal gas equation is PV = nRT or P = \(\frac{n}{V}\) RT Since, Active mass = molar concentration = \(\frac{n}{V}\)
p = Active mass x RT

Based on the above expression, the partial pressure of the reacants and products can be expressed as,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 17

By comparing equation (1) and (4), we get Kp = Kc (RT)(Δng) ………………………. (5)

where Δng is the difference between the sum of number of moles of products and the sum of number of moles of reactants in the gas phase.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 18
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 19

Question 36.
(a) (i) 0.24 g of a gas dissolves in 1 L of water at 1.5 atm pressure. Calculate the amount of dissolved gas when the pressure is raised to 6.0 atm at constant temperature. (3) (ii) What is a vapour pressure of liquid? (2)

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the ionic bond formation in MgO and CaF2. (3)
(ii) What is bond angle?
Answer:
(a) (i) \(P_{\text {solute }}=\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{H}} x_{\text {solute in solution }}\)
At pressure 1.5 atm, \(p_{1}=\mathbf{K}_{\mathrm{H}} x_{1}\)  ……………. (1)
At pressure 6.0 atm, \(p_{2}=\mathbf{K}_{\mathbf{H}} \boldsymbol{x}_{\mathbf{2}}\) ………………… (2)
Dividing equation (1) by (2)
We get \(\frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{x_{1}}{x_{2}} \Rightarrow \frac{1.5}{6.0}=\frac{0.24}{x_{2}}\)
Therefore \(x_{2}=\frac{0.24 \times 6.0}{1.5}=0.96 \mathrm{g} / \mathrm{L}\)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

(ii) 1. The pressure of the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid is called vapour pressure of the liquid at the given temperature.
2. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to vapour pressure of pure solvent.
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = \(\frac{p_{\text {solvent }}^{\circ}-p_{\text {solution }}}{p_{\text {solvent }}^{\circ}}\)

[OR]

(b) (i) Magnesium oxide (MgO) :
Electronic configuration of Mg – ls2 2s2 2p5 3s2
Electronic configuration of O – ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

  • Magnesium has two electrons in its valence shell and oxygen has six electrons in its valence shell.
  • By losing two electrons, Mg acquires the inert gas configuration of Neon and becomes a dipositive cation, Mg2+:
    \(\mathrm{Mg} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Mg}^{2+}+2 e^{-}\)
  • Oxygen accepts the two electrons to become a dinegative oxide anion, O2- thereby attaining the inert gas configuration of Neon:
    \(0+2 e^{-} \longrightarrow 0^{2-}\)
  • These two ions, Mg2+ and O2- combine to form an ionic crystal in which they are held together by electrostatic attractive forces.
  • During the formation of magnesium oxide crystal 601.6 kJ mol-1 energy is released. This favours the formation of magnesium oxide (MgO) and its stabilisation.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

CaF2, Calcium fluoride:

  • Calcium, Ca : [Ar] 4s2 Fluorine, F : [He] 2s2 2p5
  • Calcium has two electrons in its valence shell and fluorine has seven electrons in its valence shell.
  • By losing two electrons, calcium attains the inert gas configuration of Argon and becomes a dipositive cation, Ca2+.
  • Two fluorine atoms, each one accepts one electron to become two uninegative fluoride ions (F-) thereby attaining the stable configuration of Neon.
  • These three ions combine to form an ionic crystal in which they are held together by electrostatic attractive force.
  • During the formation of calcium fluoride crystal 1225.91 kJ mol-1 of energy is released. This favours the formation of calcium fluoride, CaF2 and its stabilisation.

(ii) Covalent bonds are directional in nature and are oriented in specific direction in space. This directional nature creates a fixed angle between two covalent bonds in a molecule and this angle is termed as bond angle.

Question 37.
(a) (i) 0.33 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.397 g of Mg2P2O7 by the analysis. Calculate the percentage of P in the compound. (3)
(ii) Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds. (2)
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 20.

[OR]

(b) (i) Describe the mechanism of nitration of benzene. (3)
(ii) How will you prepare m-dinitro benzene. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Weight of organic substance (w) = 0.33g
Weight of Mg2P2O7 (x) = 0.397g
Percentage of phosphorous = \(\frac{62}{222} \times \frac{x}{w} \times 100=\frac{62}{222} \times \frac{0.397}{0.33} \times 100=33.59 \%\)
(ii) (a) 4-chloropent-2-ype .
(b) Acetophenone

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

(b) (i) Step-1: Generation of NO2 electrophile.
HNO3 + H2SO4 → NO2 + HSO4 + H2O

Step-2: Attack of the electrophile on benzene ring to form arenium ion.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 21

Question 38.
(a) Complete the following reaction, identify the products.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 22

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium
[OR]
(b) (i) What is green chemistry?
(ii) Differentiate – BOD and COD.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 23
[OR]
(b) (i)

  • Green chemistry is a chemical philosophy encouraging the design of products and processes that reduces or eliminates the use and generation of hazardous substances.
  • Efforts to control environmental pollution resulted in the development of science for the synthesis of chemicals favourable to the environment.
  • Green chemistry means the science of environmentally favourable chemical synthesis.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

(ii)

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

Chemical oxygen demand (COD)

The total amount of oxygen (in milligrams) consumed by microorganisms in decomposing the waste in one litre of water at 20°C for a period of 5 days is called biochemical oxygen demand (BOD). Chemical oxygen demand is defined as the amount of oxygen required by the organic matter in a sample of water for its oxidation by a strong oxidising agent like K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium for a period of 2 hours.
Its value is expressed in ppm. Its value is expressed in mg/litre.
BOD is used as a measure of degree of water pollution. COD is a measure of amount of organic compounds in a water sample.
BOD is only a measurement of consumed oxygen by microorganims to decompose the organic matter. COD refers to the requirement of dissolved oxygen for both the oxidation of organic and inorganic constituents.
Clean water would have BOD value less than 5 ppm. Clean water would have COD value greater than 250 mg/litre.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium English Medium

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 10 Flow of Control Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Flow of Control Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
What is the alternate name of null statement?
(a) No statement
(b) Empty statement
(c) Void statement
(d) Zero statement
Answer:
(b) Empty statement

Question 2.
In C++, the group of statements should enclosed within:
(a) { }
(b) []
(c) ()
(d) <>
Answer:
(a) { }

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 3.
The set of statements that are executed again and again in iteration is called as:
(a) condition
(b) loop
(c) statement
(d) body of loop
Answer:
(d) body of loop

Question 4.
The multi way branching statement:
(a) if
(b) if … else
(c) switch
(d) for
Answer:
(c) switch

Question 5.
How many types of iteration statements exist?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 6.
How many times the following loop will execute? for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++)
(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 11
Answer:
(b) 10

Question 7.
Which of the following is the exit control loop?
(a) for
(b) while
(c) do … while
(d) if … else
Answer:
(c) do … while

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 8.
Identify the odd one from the keywords of jump statements:
(a) break
(b) switch
(c) goto
(d) continue
Answer:
(a) break

Question 9.
A loop that contains another loop inside its body:
(a) Nested loop
(b) Inner loop
(c) Inline loop
(d) Nesting of loop
Answer:
(a) Nested loop

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is a null statement and compound statement?
Answer:
Null statement:
The “null or empty statement” is a statement containing only a semi colon. It takes the following form:
;// it is a null statement.
Null statement are commonly used as place holders in iteration statements or as statements on which to place labels at the end of compound statements or functions.

Compound statement:
C++ allows a group of statements enclosed by pair of braces { }. This group of statements is called as a compound statement or a block.
The general format of compound statement is:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 1

Question 2.
What is selection statement? Write it’s types.
Answer:
The selection statement means the statements are executed depends – upon a condition. If a condition is true, a true block (a set of statements) is executed, otherwise a false block is executed. This statement is also called decision statement or selection statement because it helps in making decision about which set of statements are to be executed.

Types:

  1. Two way branching
  2. Multiway branching

Question 3.
Correct the following code segment:
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 2

Question 4.
What will be the output of the following code:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 3
If the input given is

  1. 2000
  2. 2003
  3. 2010?

Answer:
1. Output
(Input = 2000)
Leap

2. Output
(Input = 2003)
Not leap Year

3. Output (Input = 2010)
Not leap Year

Question 5.
What is the output of the following code?
for (int i = 2; i < = 10 ; i + = 2)
cout<<i;
Answer:
Output:
2 4 6 8 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 6.
Write a for loop that displays the number from 21 to 30.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

for (int = 21; i < 31; i++)
cout << “value of i:” << i << endl;
return 0;
}
Output:
Value of i: 21
Value of i: 22
Value of i: 23
Value of i: 24
Value of i: 25
Value of i: 26
Value of i: 27
Value of i: 28
Value of i: 29
Value of i: 30

Question 7.
Write a while loop that displays numbers 2,4, 6, 8 ……………… 20.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 4
Output:
2 4 6 8 10 12 13 14 16 18 20

Question 8.
Compare an if and a? : operator.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 5

PART – 3 III.
III. Answers to all the questions Question

Question 1.
Convert the following if – else to a single conditional statement:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 7
Answer:
a = (x> =10)? m + 5:m;

Question 2.
Rewrite the following code so that it is functional:
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 6

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to print multiplication table of a given number.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main ()
{

int num;
cout << “Enter Number to find its multiplication table”; cin >> num;
for (int a = 1; a < = 10; a++)
{
cout << num << “*” << a << “=” << num*a << endl;
}
return( );

}

Question 4.
Write the syntax and purpose of switch statement.
Answer:
The switch statement is a multi – way branch statement. It provides an easy way to dispatch execution to different parts of code based on the value of the expression. The switch statement replaces multiple if – else sequence.
The syntax of the switch statement is;
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 8

Question 5.
Write a short program to print following series:
(a) 1 4 7 10 …… 40
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main ()
{

cout << “\n PRINT SERIES” ;
for (int i = 1; i< 40; i = i + 3)
cout << i << “1+”;
cin.get();
return ();
}

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Explain control statement with suitable example.
Answer:
Control statements are statements that alter the sequence of flow of instructions.
Types of control statements:
1. Selection statement:
The selection statement means the statement (s) executed, depends upon a condition. If a condition is true, a true block (a set of statements) is executed otherwise a false block is executed. This statement is also called decision statement or selection statement because it helps in making decision about which set of statements are to be executed.
Example:

  1. If
  2. Switch

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 9

2. Iteration (or looping) statement:
An iteration (or loop) is a sequence of one or more statements that are repeatedly executed until a condition is satisfied. These statements are also called as control flow statements. It is used to reduce the length of code to reduce the time to execute program and takes less memory space.

Example:

  1. While
  2. do ….. while
  3. for

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 10

Question 2.
What is entry control loop? Explain any one of the entry control loop with suitable example.
Answer:
An entry control loop checks the condition at the time of entry and if condition or expression becomes true then control transfers into the body of the loop, for loop and while loop are the examples of Entry Controlled Loop. A while loop is a control flow statement that allows the loop statements to be executed as long as the condition is true.
Type: Entry control loop
Syntax:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 11

Control flow:
Step 1 : Test – expression is evaluated to either True or False;
Step 2 : If test – expression is true;
(a) The body of the loop is executed.
(b) Control is transferred to step 1.
Step 3: If test – expression is false, the control exits the while loop.
Example:
int a = 1;
while (a<=10)
{

cout << a << ‘\t+’;
a+=2;

}

Output:
1 3 5 7 9

Question 3.
Write a program to find the LCM and GCD of two numbers.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 12

Question 4.
Write programs to find the sum of the following series:
(a) x – \(\frac{x^{2}}{2 !}\) + \(\frac{x^{3}}{3 !}\) + \(\frac{x^{4}}{4 !}\) + \(\frac{x^{5}}{5 !}\) – \(\frac{x^{6}}{6 !}\)
(b) x + \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + \(\frac{x^{3}}{3}\) + ……… + \(\frac{x^{n}}{n}\)
Answer:
(a)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 13
(b) # include
using namespace std;
# include int main()
{

int M, L;
float sum = 0;
cout << “Enter the value for M:”; cin >> M;
cout << “Enter the number of terms”; cin >> L;
for (int i = 1; i<=m; i++)
sum = Sum + Pow(m,i)/i;
cout << “Sum=” << Sum << endl;
cin.get();
return 0;

}

Question 5.
Write a program to find sum of the series
S = 1 + x + x2 + ………….. + xn
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
# include int main()
{

int x, n;
float sum = 0;
cout << “Enter the value for x:”; cin >> x;
cout << “Enter the number of terms”; cin >> n;
for (int i = 0; i<=n; i++)
sum = Sum + Pow(x,i);
cout << “Sum=” << Sum << endl;
cin.get( );
return 0;

}

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Flow of Control Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The empty statement is otherwise called as ………………..
(a) Control statement
(b) Zero statement
(c) Null statement
(d) Block statement
Answer:
(c) Null statement

Question 2.
Selection statement is also called as ………………..
(a) Decision statement
(b) Sequence statement
(c) Null statement
(d) Compound statement
Answer:
(a) Decision statement

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 3.
Iteration statement is called as ………………..
(a) Null statement
(b) Block statement
(c) Selection statement
(d) Looping statement
Answer:
(d) Looping statement

Question 4.
In C++ any non – zero is iterated as true ……………….. and zero is treated as false.
(a) positive numbers
(b) negative numbers
(c) prime numbers
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) negative numbers

Question 5.
……………….. is a multi – path decision making statement.
(a) if
(b) if – else
(c) else – if
(d) if – else ladder
Answer:
(d) if – else ladder

Question 6.
Syntax of the conditional operator is ………………..
(a) expression 1? expression 2: expression 3
(b) expression 1: expression 2
(c) expression 1! expression 2: expression 3
(d) expression 1: expression 2: expression 3
Answer:
(a) expression 1? expression 2: expression 3

Question 7.
……………….. is more efficient than if-else statement.
(a) Control statement
(b) Switch statement
(c) Empty statement
(d) Null statement
Answer:
(b) Switch statement

Question 8.
When a switch is a part of the statement sequence of another switch, then it is called as ………………..
(a) if – else ladder
(b) Switch statement
(c) Nested switch statement
(d) Empty statement
Answer:
(c) Nested switch statement

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 9.
C++ supports types of iteration statements.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Every loop has ……………….. elements that are used for different purposes.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 11.
……………….. is used to transfer the control from one place to another place without any condition in a program.
(a) Break statement
(b) Continue statement
(c) goto statement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) goto statement

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is if statement? Write it’s syntax.
Answer:
The if statement evaluates a condition, if the condition is true then a true – block (a statement or set of statements) is executed, otherwise the true – block is skipped. The general syntax of the if statement is:
if (expression)
true – block;
statement – x;

Question 2.
Write a program to check whether a person is eligible to vote using if statement.
C++ program to check whether a person is eligible to vote using if statement
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 14
Output:
Enter your age: 23
You are eligible for voting ….
This statement is always executed.

Question 3.
What is nested if? Mention it’s types.
Answer:
An if statement contains another if statement is called nested if. The nested can have, one of the following three forms.

  1. If nested inside if part
  2. If nested inside else part
  3. If nested inside both if part and else part

Question 4.
Write the syntax for if – else ladder.
Answer:
The syntax of if – else ladder:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 15

Question 5.
What is nested switch statement?
Answer:
When a switch is a part of the statement sequence of another switch, then it is called as nested switch statement. The inner switch and the outer switch constant may or may not be the same.

Question 6.
What are loop elements?
Answer:
Every loop has four elements that are used for different purposes. These elements are

  1. Initialization expression
  2. Test expression
  3. Update expression
  4. The body of the loop

Question 7.
Write C++ program to sum the numbers from 1 to 10.
Answer:
C++ program to sum the numbers from 1 to 10 using for loop
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control 16
Output:
The sum of 1 to 10 is 55

Question 8.
Rewrite the given program.
Answer:
C++ program to sum the numbers from 1 to 10 using for loop
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control
C++ program to sum the numbers from 1 to 10 using for loop
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control
Output:
The sum of 1 to 10 is 55

Question 9.
Write a program to display numbers from 1 to 10 except 6 using continue statement.
Answer:
C++ program to display numbers from 1 to 10 except 6 using continue statement
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{
if (i = 6)
continue;
else
cout << i << ” ”
}
return 0;
}
Output:
1 2 3 4 5 7 8 9 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 10.
What will be the output of the following code.
Answer:
int a, b, largest;
cout << “\n Enter any two numbers:”; cin >> a >> b;
largest = (a > b)? a:b;
cout << “\n Largest number:” << largest;
return 0;
Output:
Enter any two numbers:
5 10
Largest number: 10

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is sequence statements?
Answer:
The sequential statement are the statements that are executed one after another only once from top to bottom. These statements do not alter the flow of execution. These statements are called as sequential flow statements. They always end with a semicolon (;).

Question 2.
Write the syntax of nested switch statement.
Answer:
The syntax of the nested switch statement is; switch (expression)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 3.
Write short notes on Test expression.
Answer:
The test expression is an expression or condition whose value decides whether the loop – body will be executed or not. If the expression evaluates to true (i.e., 1), the body of the loop is executed, otherwise the loop is terminated. In an entry – controlled loop, the test – expression is evaluated before the entering into a loop whereas in an exit – controlled loop, the test – expression is evaluated before exit from the loop.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 4.
What is do – while loop? Write it’s syntax.
Answer:
The do – while loop is an exit-controlled loop. In do-while loop, the condition is evaluated at the bottom of the loop after executing the body of the loop. This means that the body of the loop is executed at least once, even when the condition evaluates false during the first iteration.
The do – while loop syntax is:
do {
Body of the loop;
} while(condition);

Question 5.
What are the differences between break and continue statement.
Answer:
Break:

  • Break is used to terminate the execution of the loop.
  • It breaks the iteration.
  • When this statement is executed, control will come out from the loop and executes the statement immediate after loop.
  • Break is used with loops as well as switch case.

Continue:

  • Continue is not used to terminate the execution of loop.
  • It skips the iteration.
  • When this statement is executed, it will not come out of the loop but moves/jumps to the next iteration of loop.
  • Continue is only used in loops, it is not used in switch case.

Question 6.
What are the important things to know about switch statement?
Answer:
There are some important things to know about switch statement. They are

  1. A switch statement can only work for quality of comparisons.
  2. No two case labels in the same switch can have identical values.
  3. If character constants are used in the switch statement, they are automatically converted to their equivalent ASCII codes.
  4. The switch statement is more efficient choice than if in a situation that supports the nature of the switch operation.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
What are the key differences between if else and switch statement?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 2.
Explain about parts of a loop.
Answer:
Every loop has four elements that are used for different purposes. These elements are:

  1. Initialization expression
  2. Test expression
  3. Update expression
  4. The body of the loop

1. Initialization expression(s) : The control variable(s) must be initialized before the control enters into loop. The initialization of the control variable takes place under the initialization expressions. The initialization expression is executed only once in the beginning of the loop.

2. Test Expression : The test expression is an expression or condition whose value decides whether the loop-body will be executed or not. If the expression evaluates to true (i.e., 1), the body of the loop is executed, otherwise the loop is terminated.

In an entry – controlled loop, the test – expression is evaluated before the entering into a loop whereas in an exit-controlled loop, the test – expression is evaluated before exit from the loop.

3. Update expression : It is used to change the value of the loop variable. This statement is executed at the end of the loop after the body of the loop is executed.

4. The body of the loop : A statement or set of statements forms a body of the loop that are executed repetitively. In an entry – controlled loop, first the test-expression is evaluated and if it is nonzero, the body of the loop is executed otherwise the loop is terminated. In an exit – controlled loop, the body of the loop is executed first then the test – expression is evaluated. If the test – expression is true the body of the loop is repeated otherwise loop is terminated.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 3.
Explain about jump statements.
Answer:
Jump statements are used to interrupt the normal flow of program. Types of Jump Statements are:

  1. goto statement
  2. break statement
  3. continue statement

The goto statement is a control statement which is used to transfer the control from one place to another place without any condition in a program.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control
A break statement is a jump statement which terminates the execution of loop and the control is transferred to resume normal execution after the body of the loop.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control
The continue statement works quite similar to the break statement. Instead of terminating the loop (break statement), continue statement forces the loop to continue or execute the next iteration. When the continue statement is executed in the loop, the code inside the loop following the continue statement will be skipped and next iteration of the loop will begin.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control

Question 4.
Programs to produce the following design using nested loops.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 10 Flow of Control
Output
Enter number of rows: 5
1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium
Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 70 Marks

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

PART-I

Answer all the Questions. [15 x 1 = 1]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
Match the List-I with List-Il using the correct code given below the list.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 1
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 2.
The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. Xl and X2 will be ……………… .
(a) \(\frac{\lambda_{1}}{\lambda_{2}}=1\)
(b) λ1 = 2λ2
(c) \(\lambda_{1}=\sqrt{25 \times 50} \lambda_{2}\)
(d) 2λ1 = λ2
Answer:
(b) λ1 = 2λ2

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 2

Question 3.
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it? (NEET 2016 Phase-l)
(a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(b) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(c) AI3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
(d) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
Answer:
(a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 4.
For decolourisation of I mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of H202 required is
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 7/2
Answer:
(c) 5/2

Question 5.
The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain (B). Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed. Solid (C) on heating gives back X. (B) is ………………………. .
(a) CaCO3
(b) Ca(OH)2
(c) Na2CO2
(d) NaHCO3
Answer:
(b) Ca(OH)2

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 3

Question 6.
Which law is used in the process of enriching the isotope of U235 from other isotopes?
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(c) Graham’s law of diffusion
(d) Charles’ law
Answer:
(c) Graham’s law of diffusion

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 7.
The enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Cr2O3 are -1596 kJ and -1134 kJ, respectively. ΔH for reaction 2A1 + Cr2O3 → 2Cr + Al2O3 is …………………… .
(a) -1365 kJ
(b) 2730 kJ
(c) -2730 kJ
(d) -462 kJ
Answer:
(d) -462 kJ

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 4

Question 8.
Solubility of carbon dioxide gas in cold water can be increased by
(a) increase in pressure
(b) decrease in pressure
(c) increase in volume
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) increase in pressure

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Solution:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 5

increase in pressure, favours the forward reaction.

Question 9.
Two liquids X and Y on mixing gives a warm solution. The solution is
(a) ideal
(b) non-ideal and shows positive deviation from Raoults law
(c) ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
(d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
Answer:
(d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law

Solution: ΔHmix is negative and show negative deviation from Raoults law.

Question 10.
Which of the following molecules have bond order equal to 1?
(a) NO, HF, HC1, Li2, CO
(b) H2, Li2, HF, Br2, HC1
(c) Li2, B2, CO, NO, He2+
(d) B2, CO, He2+, NO, HF
Answer:
(b) H2, Li2, HF, Br2, HC1

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 11.
How many cyclic and acyclic isomers are possible for the molecular formula C3H60?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 12.
Statement-I: Fluoro acetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid
Statement-II: Fluorine has high electronegativity and it is facilitate to dissociate the O-H bond easily.
(а) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.
(b) Statement-I and II are correct but statement-II is not correct explanation of statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong.
(d) Statement-I is wrong but statement-II is correct
Answer:
(а) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.

Question 13.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons in which all the bonds between the carbon atoms are single bond.
(ii) Alkenes are saturated hydrocarbons in which atleast one carbon – carbon double bond is present.
(iii) Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons in which atleast one carbon – carbon triple bond is present.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) only (ii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 14.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 6 Product X is ……………….. .
(a) CH4
(b) C2H6
(c) HCHO
(d) CH3OH
Answer:
(a) CH4

Question 15.
Eutrophication causes reduction in
(a) dissolved oxygen
(b) dissolved nitrogen
(c) dissolved salts
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) dissolved oxygen

Part-II

Answer any six questions in which question No. 22 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 16.
Explain about the factors that affect electronegativity?
Answer:

  • Effective nuclear charge: As the nuclear charge increases, electronegativity also increases along the periods.
  • Atomic radius: The atoms in smaller size will have larger electronegativity.

Question 17.
How do you convert para-hydrogen into ortho-hydrogen?
Answer:
Para hydrogen can be converted into ortho hydrogen by the following ways:

  • By treating with catalysts platinum or iron.
  • By passing an electric discharge.
  • By heating > 800°C.
  • By mixing with paramagnetic molecules such as O2, NO, NO2.
  • By treating with nascent/atomic hydrogen.

Question 18.
Gases don’t settle at the bottom of a container?
Answer:
Gases by definition are the least dense state of matter. They have negligible intermolecular forces of attraction. So they are all free to roam separately. So the least dense gas particles will not sink at the bottom of a container.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 19.
Define – Normality.
Answer:
Normality (N): It is defined as the number of gram equivalents of solute in 1 litre of the solution.
\(\mathrm{N}=\frac{\text { Number of gram equivalent of solute }}{ \text { Volume of solution (in }\mathrm{L})}\)

Question 20.
If there is no change in concentration why is the equilibrium state considered dynamic?
Answer:
At chemical equilibrium the rate of two opposing reactions are equal and the concentration of reactants and products do not change with time. This condition is not static and is dynamic, because both the forward and reverse reactions are still occurring with the same rate and no macroscopic change is observed. So chemical equilibrium is in a state of dynamic equilibrium.

Question 21.
In CH4, NH3 and H20 the central atom undergoes sp3 hybridization – yet their bond angles are different. Why?
Answer:

  1. In CH4, NH2 and H2O the central atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation. But their bond angles are different due to the presence of lone pair of electrons.
  2. It can be explained by VSEPR theory. According to this theory, even though the hybridisation . is same, the repulsive force between the bond pairs and lone pairs are not same.
  3. Bond pair-Bond pair < Bond pair — Lone pair < Lone pair -Lone pair
    So due to the varying repulsive force the. bond pairs and lone pairs are distorted from regular geometry and organise themselves in such a way that repulsion will be minimum and stability will be maximum.
  4. In case of CH4, there are 4 bond pairs and no lone pair of electrons. So it remains in its regular geometry, i.e., tetrahedral with bond angle = 109° 28’.
  5. H2O has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs. There is large repulsion between Ip-lp. Again repulsion between Ip-bp is more than that of 2 bond pairs. So 2 bonds are more restricted to form inverted V shape (or) bent shape molecule with a bond angle of 104° 35’.
  6. NH3 has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair. There is repulsion between Ip-bp. So 3 bonds are more restricted to form pyramidal shape with bond angle equal to 107° 18’.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 22.
Identify the compound in the following reaction,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 7
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 8

Question 23.
ClassIfy the following compounds in the form of alkyl, allylic, vinyl, benzyllc halides,
(a) CH2 = CH – CH2 CI
(b) C6H5CH2I
(c) CH3 – CH – CH3
(d) CH2 = CH – Cl
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 9

Question 24.
Define — Smog.
Answer:

  1. Smog is a combination of’ smoke and fog which form droplets that remains suspended in the air.
  2. Smog is a chemical misture of gases that forms a brownish yellow haze. It mainly consists of ground level ozone, oxideš of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, SO2, acidic aerosols and some other gases.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Explain how effective nuclear charge is related with stability of the orbital?
Answer:

  1. In a multi-electron atom, in addition to the electrostatic attractive force between the electron and nucleus, there exists a repulsive force among the electrons.
  2. These two forces are operating in the opposite direction. This results in the decrease in the nuclear force of attraction on electron.
  3. The net charge experienced by the electron is called effective nuclear charge.
  4. The effective nuclear charge depends on the shape of the orbitals and it decreases with increase in azimuthal quantum number.
  5. The order of the effective nuclear charge felt by a electron in an orbital within the given shell is s > p > d > f.
  6. Greater the effective nuclear charge, greater is the stability of the orbital. Hence, within a given energy level, the energy of the orbitals are in the following order s < p < d < f.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 26.
Write a notes on hydrogen sponge.
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen sponge (or) Metal hydride e.g., palladium-hydrogen system is a binary hydride (Pdll).
(ii) Upon heating, H atoms diffuse through the metal to the surface and recombine to form molecular hydrogen. Since no other gas behaves this way with palladium, this process has been used to separate hydrogen gas from other gases:
\(2 \mathrm{Pd}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{PdH}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(iii) The hydrogen molecule readily adsorb on the palladium surface, where it dissociates into atomic hydrogen. The dissociated atoms, dissolve into the interstices or voids (octahedral or tetrahedral) of the crystal lattice.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 10
(iv) Technically, the formation of metal hydride is by chemical reaction but it behaves like a physical storage method, i. e., it is absorbed and released like a water sponge. Such a reversible uptake of hydrogen in metals and alloys is also attractive for hydrogen storage and for rechargeable metal hydride battery applications.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 27.
In what way lithium differs from other metals of the same group?
Answer:

Lithium Other elements of the family
Very hard. Very Soft.
High melting and boiling point. Low melting and boiling point.
Least reactive. More reactive.
Reacts with nitrogen to get Li3N. No reaction.
Reacts with bromine slowly. Reacts violently.
Burnt in air gives monoxide only. Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium Burnt in air gives peroxides also, apart from monoxides. K, Rb and Cs gave superoxides.
Compounds are partially soluble in water. Highly soluble in water.
Lithium nitrate decomposes to form an oxide. Other metals on heating gives nitrite.
Extremely small in size. Comparatively large in size.
Li+ has greater polarizing power. Other M+ ions have comparatively larger polarizing power.

Question 28.
A 0.25 M glucose solution at 370.28 K has approximately the pressure as blood does what is the osmotic pressure of blood?
Sol.
C = 0.25 M
T = 370.28 K
(π)glucose = CRT
(π) = 0.25 mol L-1 x 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1 x 370.28K
= 7.59 atm

Question 29.
Write the important principles of VSEPR theory to predict the shape of molecules.
Answer:

  1. The shape of a molecule depends upon the no. of electron pairs around the central atom.
  2. There is a repulsive force between the electron pairs, which tend to repel one another.
  3. The electron pairs in space tend to occupy such positions that they are at maximum distance, so that the repulsive force will be minimum.
  4. A multiple bond is treated as if it is a single bond and the remaining electron pairs which constitute the bond may be regarded as single super pair.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 30.
0.26 g of an organic compound gave 0.039 g of water and 0.245 g of CO2 on combustion. Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.26 g
Weight of water = 0.039 g
Weight of CO2 = 0.245 g

Percentage of hydrogen
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
0.039 g of water contains = \(\frac{2}{18} \times \frac{0.039}{0.26} \text { of } \mathrm{H}\)
∴ % of hydrogen = \(\frac{0.039}{0.26} \times \frac{2}{18}\) x 100 = 1.66%

Percentage of carbon
44 g of CO2 contains 12 g of C
0. 245 g of CO2 contains = \(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{0.245}{0.26}\) g of C
% of Carbon = \(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{0.245}{0.26}\) x 100 = 25.69%

Question 31.
How will you distinguish l-butyne and 2-butyne?
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 11
Answer:
In l-butyne, terminal carbon atom contains atom one acidic hydrogen, therefore it will react with silver nitrate in the presence of ammonium hydroxide to give silver butynide. Whereas 2-butyne does not undergo such type of the reaction, because of the absence of acidic hydrogen.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 12

Question 32.
Write the structure of the following compounds,
(a) l-Bromo-4 -ethyl cyclohexane
(b) 1, 4-Dichlorobut-2-ene
(c) 2-Chloro-3-methyl pentane
Answer:
(a) l-bromo-4 ethylcyclo hexane
(b) 1,4-dichloro but-2-ene
(c) 2-chloro-3-methyl pentane Br
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 13

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 33.
Explain how does green house effect cause global warming.
Answer:

  1. The earth’s atmosphere allows most of the visible light from the sun to pass through and reach the earth’s surface. As earth’s surface is heated by sunlight, it radiates a part of this energy back towards the space as longer IR wavelengths.
  2. Some of the heat is trapped by CH4, CO2, CFCs and water vapour present in the atmosphere. They absorb IR radiations and block a large portion of earth’s emitted radiations.
  3. The radiations thus absorbed is partly remitted to the earth’s surface. Therefore the earth’s surface gets heated up by a phenomenon called greenhouse effect.
  4. Thus greenhouse effect is defined as the heating up of the earth surface due to trapping of infrared radiations reflected by earth’s surface by CO2 layer in the atmosphere. The heating up of the earth through the greenhouse effect is called global warming.

Part-IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) Write the steps to be followed for writing empirical formula. (3)
(ii) What do you understand by the terms empirical formula and molecular formula? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the shape of s and p-orbital. (2)
(ii) The mass of an electron is 9.1 x 10-31 kg. If its kinetic energy is 3.0 x 10-25 J. Calculate its wavelength. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Empirical formula shows the ratio of numher of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Steps for finding the Empirical formula:
The percentage of the elements in the compound is determined by suitable methods and from the data collected; the empirical formula is determined by the following steps.

  1. Divide the percentage of each element by its atomic mass. This will give the relative number of atoms of various elements present in the compound.
  2. Divide the atom value obtained in the above step by the smallest of them so as to get a simple ratio of atoms of various elements.
  3. Multiply the figures so obtained, by a suitable integer if necessary in order to obtain whole number ratio.
  4. Finally write down the symbols of the various elements side by side and put the above numbers as the subscripts to the lower right hand of each symbol. This will represent the empirical formula of the compound.
  5. Percentage of Oxygen = 100 – Sum of the percentage masses of all the given elements.

(ii)

Empirical Formula Molecular Formula
It is the simplest formula. It is the actual formula.
It shows the ratio of number of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound. It shows the actual number of different types of atoms present in one molecule of the compound.

(b) (i) s-orbital: For is orbital, l = 0, m = 0, f(θ) = 1/√2 and g((φ) = 1√2π. Therefore, the angular distribution function is equal to 1/2√π. i.e. it is independent of the angle θ and φ. Hence, the probability of finding the electron is independent of the direction from the nucleus. So, the shape of the s orbital is spherical.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 14

p-orbital: For p orbitals l = 1 and the corresponding m values are -1, 0 and +1. The three different m values indicates that there are three different orientations possible for p orbitals. These orbitals are designated as px, py and pz. The shape of p orbitals are dumb bell shape.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 15

(ii) Step I. Calculation of the velocity of electron
Kinetic energy =1/2 mu2 = 3.0 x 10-25 J = 3.0 x 10-25 kg m2 s-2

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 16

Step II. Calculation of wavelength of the electron According to de Broglie’s equation,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 17

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 35.
(a) (i) Explain the exchange reactions of deuterium, (2)
(ii) Explain the action of soap with hard water. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Derive ideal gas equation. (3)
(ii) CO2 gas cannot be liquified at room temperature. Give the reason. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Deuterium can replace reversibly hydrogen in compounds either partially or completely depending upon the reaction conditions. These reactions occur in the presence of deuterium.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 18

(ii) Action of soap with hard water:

  • The cleaning capacity of soap is reduced when used in hard water.
  • Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids.
  • When soap is added to hard water, the divalent magnesium and calcium cations present in hard water relict with soap.
  • The sodium salts present in soaps are converted to their corresponding magnesium and calcium.salts which are precipitated as scum or precipitate.
    Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 19

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

(b) (i) Ideal gas equation:
The gaseous state is described completely using the following four variables T, P, V and n. Each gas law relates one variable of a gaseous sample to another while the other two variables are held constant.

Therefore, combining all equations into a single equation will enable to account for the change in any or all of the variables.

Boyle’s law: V α \(\frac{1}{P}\)
Charles’ law: V α T
Avogadro’s law: V α n

We can combine these equations into the following general equation that describes the physical behaviour of all gases.
\(\mathrm{V} \propto \frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)

The above equation can be rearranged to give PV = nRT – Ideal gas equation.

Where, R is also known as Universal gas constant.
(ii) Only below the critical temperature, by the application of pressure, a gas can be liquefied. CO2 has critical temperature as 303.98 K. Room temperature means (30 + 273 K) 303 K. At room temperature, (critical temperature) even by applying large amount of pressure CO2 cannot be liquefied. Only below the critical temperature, it can be liquefied. At room temperature, CO2 remains as gas.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

Question 36.
(a) (i) Why deep-sea divers use air diluted with helium gas in their air tanks? (3)
(ii) What is molal depression constant? Does it depend on nature of the solute. (2)

[OR]

(b) (i) Write the resonance structures for ozone molecule and N20? (2)
(ii) Draw MO diagram of CO and calculate its bond order. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Deep-sea divers carry a compressed air tank for breathing at high pressure under water. This air tank contains nitrogen and oxygen which are not very soluble in blood and other body fluids at normal pressure.
2. As the pressure at the depth is far greater than the surface atmospheric pressure, more nitrogen dissolves in the blood when the diver breathes from tank.
3. When the divers ascends to the surface, the pressure decreases, the dissolved nitrogen comes out of the blood quickly forming bubbles in the blood stream. These bubbles restrict blood flow, affect the transmission of nerve impulses and can even burst the capillaries or block them. This condition is called “the bends” which are painful and dangerous to life.
4. To avoid such dangerous condition they use air diluted with helium gas (11.7 % helium, 56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% oxygen) of lower solubility of helium in the blood than nitrogen.

(ii) Kf = molar freezing point depression constant (or) cryoscdpic constant. ΔTf = Kf. m, where ΔTf = depression in freezing point, m = molality of the solution Kf= cryoscopic constant If m = 1, ΔTf = kf

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

i. e., cryoscopic constant is equal to the depression in freezing point for 1 molal solution cryoscopic constant depends on the molar concentration of the solute particles. Kf is directly proportional to the molal concentration of the solute particles.
\(\Delta \mathrm{T}_{f}=\mathrm{K}_{f} \times \frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

WB = mass of the solute, WA = mass of solvent, MB = molecular mass of the solute.

[OR]

(b)
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Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

  • Electronic configuration of C atom: Is2, 2s2 2p2
    Electronic configuration of O atom: ls2 2s2 2p4
  • Electronic configuration of CO molecule is: \(\sigma 1 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 1 s^{2} \sigma 2 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 2 s^{2} \pi 2 p_{y}^{2} \pi 2 p_{z}^{2} \sigma 2 p_{x}^{2}\)
  • Bond order = \(\frac{N_{b}-N_{a}}{2}=\frac{10-4}{2}=3\)
  • Molecule has no unpaired electron, hence it is diamagnetic.

Question 37.
(a) (i) What are cis-trans isomerism? Explain with example.
(ii) Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds,
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 21

[OR]

(b) (i) What is enzymatic browning?
(ii) How will you convert nitrile into primary amine?
Answer:
(a) (i)

  • Geometrical isomers are the stereoisomers which have different arrangement of groups or atoms around a rigid framework of double bonds. This type of isomerism occurs due to restricted rotation of double bonds or about single bonds in cyclic compounds.
  • In 2-butene, the carbon-carbon double bond is sp2 hybridised. The carbon-carbon double bond consists of a a bond and a n bond. The presence of π bond lock the molecule in one position. Hence, rotation around C = C bond is not possible.
  • Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 22
  • These two compounds are termed as geometrical isomers and are termed as cis and trans form.
  • The cis isomer is the one in which two similar groups are on the same side of the double bond. Thetrans isomer is that in which two similar groups are on the opposite side of the double bond. Hence, this type of isomerism is called cis-trans isomerism.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

(ii)
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 23

[OR]

(b) (i) 1. Apples contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase (PPO) also known as tyrosinase.
2. Cutting an apple exposes its cells to the atmospheric oxygen and oxidizes the phenolic compounds present in apples. This is called the “enzymatic browning” that turns a cut apple brown.
3. In addition to apples, enzymatic browning is also evident in bananas, pears, avocados and even potatoes.

(ii) Converting nitrile into primary amine:
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 24

Question 38.
(a) An organic compound (A) of a molecular formula C2H4, decolourises bromine water. (A) on reacts with Cl2 gives (B). (A) reacts with HBr to give (C). (A) reacts with hydrogen in the presence of Ni to give D. Identify A, B, C and D. Explain the reactions. (5)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the harmful effects of acid rain. (3)
(ii) What is Eutrophication? (2)
Answer:
(a) 1. C2H4 (A), decolorises the bromine water. Therefore it contains double bond. Hence (A) is ethylene.
Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 25

[OR]

(b) (i)

  1. Acid rain causes damage to buildings made us of marbles. This attack on marble is termed as stone leprosy.
    CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
  2. Acid rain affects plant and animal life in aquatic ecosystem.
  3. It is harmful for agriculture, as it dissolves in the earth and removes the nutrients needed for the growth of plants.
  4. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as iron, lead and copper into drinking water which have toxic effects.
  5. It causes respiratory ailment in humans and animals.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium English Medium

(ii) Eutrophication: When the growth of algae increases in the surface of water, dissolved oxygen in water is greatly reduced. This phenomenon is known as eutrophication. Due to this growth of fishes gets inhibited.

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