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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 6 Specification and Abstraction

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 6 Specification and Abstraction

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Specification and Abstraction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following activities is algorithmic in nature?
(a) Assemble a bicycle
(b) Describe a bicycle
(c) Label the parts of a bicycle
(d) Explain how a bicycle works
Answer:
(a) Assemble a bicycle

Question 2.
Which of the following activities is not algorithmic in nature?
(a) Multiply two numbers
(b) Draw a kolam
(c) Walk in the park
(d) Braid the hair
Answer:
(d) Braid the hair

Question 3.
Omitting details inessential to the task and representing only the essential features of the task is known as ………………..
(a) specification
(b) abstraction
(c) composition
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(b) abstraction

Question 4.
Stating the input property and the input-output relation a problem is known ………………..
(a) specification
(b) statement
(c) algorithm
(d) definition
Answer:
(a) specification

Question 5.
Ensuring the input – output relation is ………………..
(a) the responsibility of an algorithm and the right of the user.
(b) the responsibility of the user and the right of the algorithm.
(c) the responsibility of the algorithm but not the right of the user.
(d) the responsibility of both the user and the algorithm.
Answer:
(a) the responsibility of an algorithm and the right of the user.

Question 6.
If i = 5 before the assignment i : = i – 1 after the assignment, the value of i is ………………..
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 7.
If O < i before the assignment i : = i – 1 after the assignment, we can conclude that
(a) 0 < i
(b) 0 ≤ i
(c) i = 0
(d) 0 ≥ i
Answer:
(b) 0 ≤ i

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Define an algorithm.
Answer:
An algorithm is a step by step sequence of statements intended to solve a problem. An algorithm starts execution with the input data, executes the statements and finishes execution with the output data.

Question 2.
Distinguish between an algorithm and a process.
Answer:
Algorithm:

An Algorithm is a sequence of instructions to solve a problem.
Elements of a process are abstracted in algorithms.
Example: Algorithm can be compared to a recipe

Process:

A process is executing of instructions to accomplish the intended task.
A process is actual execution of the steps to solution.
Example: A process can be compared to cooking.

Question 3.
Initially, farmer, goat, grass, wolf = L, L, L, L and the farmer crosses the river with goat. Model the action with an assignment statement. Model of the action with an assignment statement:
Answer:

— farmer, goat,grass,wolf = L,L,L,L.
Farmer,goat: = R,R
– farmer,goat,grass,wolf = R,R,L,L
– farmer: = L
— farmer,goat,grass,wolf = L,R,L,L
farmer,grass: = R,R
— farmer,goat,grass,wolf = R,R,R,L
farmer,goat: = L,L
— farmer,goat,grass, wolf = L,L,R,L
farmer, wolf: = R,R
— farmer,goat,grass, wolf = R,L,R,R
farmer: = L
— farmer,goat,grass,wolf = L,L,R,R
farmer, goat: = R,R
— farmer,goat,grass,wolf = R,R,R,R

Question 4.
Specify a function to find the minimum of two numbers.
Answer:

– – minimum (a,b)
– – inputs : a, b are real numbers.
– – output: result: = minimum (a,b)

Question 5.
If \(\sqrt{2}\) = 1.414, and the square_root() function returns – 1.414, does it violate the following specification?

– – square – root(x)
– – inputs: x is a real number, x > 0
– – outputs: y is a real number such that y² = x

Answer:
No, because (- 1.414)² = 2, which satisfies input – output relation (y² = x)

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
When do you say that a problem is algorithmic in nature?
Answer:
A Problem is algorithmic in nature when its solution involves the construction of an algorithm. Also when the

Input data and output data of the problem is specified.
Relation between the input data and the output data is specified.

Question 2.
What is the format of the specification of an algorithm?
Answer:
Let P be the required property of the inputs and Q the property of the desired outputs.
Format of specification of an algorithm:

Algorithm name (Inputs)
Inputs – P
Outputs – Q

Question 3.
What is abstraction?
Answer:
Abstraction:
It is the facility to define objects. It also involves removal of unnecessary attributes and defining only essential attributes. For example, when we represent the state of a process we select only the variables essential to the problem and ignore inessential details.

Question 4.
How is state represented in algorithms?
Answer:
The state represented in a algorithm is set of variables. At any place the value of the variables are substituted and evaluation is done.

Question 5.
What is the form and meaning of assignment statement?
Answer:
Assignment statement is used to assign values to the variables.
The variable on the left side of the assignment operator and a value on the right side.
Variable : = Value

Question 6.
What is the difference between assignment operator and equality operator?
Assignment Operator:
Assignment operator is used to assign the values to the variable.

Equality Operator:
The equality operator is used to compare the values of both the variables and the result is true or false.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write the specification of an algorithm hypotenuse w hose inputs are the lengths of the two shorter sides of a right angled triangle, and the output is the length of the third side.
Answer:

hypotenuse (a, b)
– – inputs: a, b are real numbers, a > 0, b > 0
– – outputs: c² = a² + b² wrhere c is real number, c > 0

Question 2.
Suppose you want to solve the quadratic equation ax² + bx + c – 0 by an algorithm. quadratic_solve (a, b, c)
— inputs : ?
— outputs: ?
You intend to use the formula and you are prepared to handle only real number roots. Write a suitable specification.

Answer:

Quadratic – solve (a, b, c)
– – inputs: b² – 4 ac > = 0 where a, b, c are real numbers, a ≠ 0
– – outputs: and x² are real numbers such that a(x₁)² + bx₁ + c = 0 and a(x₂)² + bx₂ + c = 0

Question 3.
Exchange the contents: Given two glasses marked A and B. Glass A is full of apple drink and glass B is full of grape drink. For exchanging the contents of glasses A and B, represent the state by suitable variables, and write the specification of the algorithm.
Answer:
Let the variables a, b, c represent the glass A, glass B and Glass C respectively. Variables A, B, C can store values APPLE, GRAPE or EMPTY.

Specification:

Exchange ( )
– – inputs: a, b, c := APPLE, GRAPE, EMPTY
– – outputs: a, b,c: = GRAPE, APPLE, EMPTY

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Specification and Abstraction Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an example of process?
(a) Braid the hair
(b) Adding three numbers
(c) Cooking a dish
(d) Walk in the Road
Answer:
(c) Cooking a dish

Question 2.
Who was a Hungarian Mathematician?
(a) G. Polya
(b) John Wiley
(c) Krysia Broda
(d) Steve Vickers
Answer:
(a) G. Polya

Question 3.
How many basic building blocks construct an algorithm?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 4.
……………….. state the properties of the given input and the relation between the input and the output.
(a) Composition
(b) Abstraction
(c) Decomposition
(d) Specification
Answer:
(d) Specification

Question 5.
……………….. how many control flow statement are there to alter the control flow depending on the state?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
What is the specification of the algorithm?
Answer:
(a) divide (A + B)
(b) square – root (n)
(c) square – root (x)
(d) adding (A, B)
Answer:
(b) square – root (n)

Question 7.
……………….. statement is used to store a value in a variable.
(a) Assignment
(b) Sequential control flow
(c) Alternative control flow
(d) Iterative
Answer:
(a) Assignment

Question 8.
The data stored in a variable is also called a ………………..
(a) process
(b) data
(c) value
(d) constant
Answer:
(c) value

Question 9.
Each part of algorithm is known as ………………..
(a) input
(b) function
(c) variable
(d) program
Answer:
(b) function

Question 10.
……………….. is the left side of the assignment.
(a) variable
(b) value
(c) operator
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) operator

Question 11.
If i: = 3 before the assignment, i: = i + 1 after the assignment ………………..
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 12.
If i: = 2 before the assignment, then i: = i * 3 after the assignment is ………………..
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 0
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 13.
If i: = 10 before the assignment, then i: = i % 2 after the assignment
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 0
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 14.
If – – m, n = 22, 5 and m, n : = m + 3, n – 1 then the value of m and n are ………………..
(a) 25, 4
(b) 24,5
(c) 22, 5
(d) 23,21
Answer:
(a) 25, 4

Question 15.
Initially the values of P and C are 4 and 5 respectively
– – P, C : = 4, 5
P : = C
C : = P. Then find P and C
(a) 4 and 4
(b) 5 and 4
(c) 5 and 5
(d) 4 and 5
Answer:
(c) 5 and 5

Question 16.
What are the values of variable m and n after the assignments in line (1) and line (3)?
1. m, n : = 2, 5
2. – – m, n = ?, ?
3. m, n : = m + 3, n – 1
4. – – m, n = ?, ?
(a) 4, 5
(b) 5, 4
(c) 5,5
(d) 4, 4
Answer:
(b) 5, 4

Question 17.
How many Algorithmic designing techniques are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 18.
which one of the following is the assignment operator?
(a) =
(b) = =
(c) + = =
(d) + +
Answer:
(a) =

Question 19.
which one of the following is the equality operator?
(a) =
(b) = =
(c) + +
(d) – –
Answer:
(b) = =

Question 20.
which one of the following is the comment line in algorithm?
(a) + +
(b) 1 1
(c) – –
(d) = =
Answer:
(c) – –

Question 21.
Which one of the following statements are not executed the computers?
(a) Comment line
(b) Header file
(c) cin
(d) cout
Answer:
(a) Comment line

Question 22.
The values of the variables when the algorithm starts is ………………..
(a) stage
(b) initial stage
(c) initial state
(d) starting state
Answer:
(c) initial state

Question 23.
The values of the variables when the algorithm finishes is ………………..
(a) final stage
(b) final state
(c) last stage
(d) last state
Answer:
(b) final state

Question 24.
Instructions of a computer are also known as ………………..
(a) commands
(b) statements
(c) Abstractions
(d) Functions
Answer:
(b) statements

Question 25.
Which one of the following is not a building block of algorithm
(a) data
(b) state
(c) variables
(d) functions
Answer:
(b) state

Question 26.
Which are the named boxes used for storing data?
(a) data
(b) variables
(c) control flow
(d) functions
Answer:
(b) variables

Question 27.
Reasoning:
I. We can store a value in a variable using assignment operator.
II. We can change the value in a variable using assignment operator.
III. Assignment operator is = =
(a) I and III is true
(b) I and II is true
(c) II and III is true
(d) I, II, III is true
Answer:
(b) I and II is true

Question 28.
The order of execution of statement is called :
(a) Composition
(b) Functions
(c) Control flow
(d) Specifications
Answer:
(c) Control flow

Question 29.
In which one of the control flow statements, if the condition is false, then alternative statement will be executed ………………..
(a) Sequential
(b) iterative
(c) selection
(d) alternative
Answer:
(d) alternative

Question 30.
In which one of the following control flow, the statements are repeated until the conditon becomes false ………………..
(a) Sequential
(b) iterative
(c) selection
(d) alternative
Answer:
(b) iterative

Question 31.
If the statement are executed one after the other, then it is control flow.
(a) Sequential
(b) iterative
(c) selection
(d) alternative
Answer:
(a) Sequential

Question 32.
A is like a sub algorithm.
(a) function
(b) data
(c) variable
(d) state
Answer:
(a) function

Question 33.
Which one of the following is not a techniques for designing algorithms?
(a) specifications
(b) abstraction
(c) encapsulation
(d) composition
Answer:
(c) encapsulation

Question 34.
Fill in the box given below figure ………………..

(a) processing
(b) solving
(c) algorithm
(d) functions
Answer:
(c) algorithm

Question 35.
How many parts are there in specification is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 36.
The first part of the specification is ………………..
(a) Input
(b) Output
(c) property of inputs
(d) The name of the algorithm and the inputs
Answer:
(d) The name of the algorithm and the inputs

Question 37.
Identify the statement which is not true?
(a) An instruction describes an object
(b) specification is one of the algorithm design techniques
(c) An algorithm is a step by step sequence of instructions
Answer:
(a) An instruction describes an object

Question 38.
In multiple variable assignment statement, the number of variables and the number of expressions must ………………..
(a) differ at least by 1
(b) not equal to 1
(c) equal to 0
(d) be equal
Answer:
(d) be equal

Question 39.
Sequential, Alternative and Iterative comes under the classification of ……………….. :
(a) Building blocks of algorithm
(b) control flow statements
(c) Algorithm design techniques
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(b) control flow statements

Question 40.
To execute in a computer, an algorithm must be expressed using the statement of ………………..
(a) Object code
(b) Machine Language
(c) Assembler
(d) Programming Languages
Answer:
(d) Programming Languages

Question 41.
If the variable already has a value, and you are assigning a new value, what will happen to the old variable?
(a) retained
(b) added
(c) lost
(d) becomes 0
Answer:
(c) lost

Question 42.
Identify the function name: square (A + B) ………………..
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A + B
(d) square
Answer:
(d) square

Question 43.
Identify the correct statement ………………..
(a) The first part of specification is name of the algorithm with input
(b) Second one is input properties with comments
(c) Third one is relation between input – output
(d) All the three are correct statements
Answer:
(d) All the three are correct statements

Question 44.
Find the wrong statement from the following ………………..
(a) The state of a process can be represented by a set of variables in an algorithm
(b) The state at any point of execution is simply the values of the variables at that point.
(c) As the values of the variables are changed, the state remains constant.
(d) As a process evolves, the state changes.
Answer:
(c) As the values of the variables are changed, the state remains constant.

Question 45.
The input and output are passed between an algorithm and the user through ………………..
(a) data
(b) assignment
(c) stage
(d) variables
Answer:
(d) variables

Question 46.
Match the following

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 4,3,2, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer:
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

Question 47.
Match the following

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2
(b) 1,2, 3, 4
(c) 4,3,2, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer:
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 48.
Which one of the following statements are used to annotate a program for the human readers?
(a) comments
(b) state
(c) variables
(d) functions
Answer:
(a) comments

Question 49.
In specification, the input and output can be written using ………………..
(a) English
(b) Mathematical notation
(c) Binary format
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 50.
Which one of the following defines the rights and responsibilities of the designer and the user?
(a) Abstraction
(b) Composition
(c) Decomposition
(d) Specification
Answer:
(d) Specification

Question 51.
Which one of the following is the most effective mental tool used for managing complexity?
(a) Specification
(b) Abstraction
(c) Composition
(d) Decomposition
Answer:
(b) Abstraction

Question 52.
How will be the input and output passed between an algorithm and the user ………………..
(a) comments
(b) Assignment
(c) Variable
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Variable

Question 53.
The goal of the algorithm is ………………..
(a) to state the input properties
(b) to state the output properties
(c) to divide into functions
(d) to establish the input output relation
Answer:
(d) to establish the input output relation

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define State.
Answer:
The state of a process can be represented by a set of variables in an algorithm. The State at any point of execution is simply the values of the variables at that point.

Question 2.
Mention the three different types of Chameleons.
Answer:
There are three different types of chameleons: red chameleons, green chameleons, and blue chameleons.

Question 3.
Define variable.
Answer:
The data stored in a variable is also known as the value of the variable. We can store a value in a variable or change the value of variable, using an assignment statement.

Question 4.
Write the basic building blocks of algorithms.
Answer:

Data
Variables
Control flow
Functions

Question 5.
Define control flow.
Answer:
The order in which the statements are executed may differ from the order in which they are written in the algorithm. This order of execution of statements is known as the control flow.

Question 6.
What are the basic principles and techniques for designing Algorithms.
Answer:

Specification
Abstraction
Composition
Decomposition

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define Alternative control flow statement.
Answer:
In alternative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, one statement is executed; if the condition is false, an alternative statement is executed.

Question 2.
What is Decomposition?
Answer:
We divide the main algorithm into functions. We construct each function independently of the main algorithm and other functions. Finally, we construct the main algorithm using the functions. When we use the functions, it is enough to know the specification of the function. It is not necessary to know how the function is implemented.

Question 3.
Write the Iterative control flow statement.
Answer:
In iterative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, a statement is executed. The two steps of testing the condition and executing the statement are repeated until the condition becomes false.

Question 4.
Define functions.
Answer:
The parts of an algorithm are known as functions. A function is like a sub-algorithm. It takes , an input, and produces an output, satisfying a desired input output relation.

Question 5.
Write the following (i) initial state (ii) final state
Answer:
The values of the variables when the algorithm starts is known as the initial state, and the values of the variables when the algorithm finishes is known as the final state.

Question 6.
What is the desired relation between the inputs A and B, and the output q and r?
Answer:
1. The two outputs q (quotient) and r (remainder) should satisfy the property
A = q X B + r,
and
2. The remainder r should be less than the divisor B,
0 < r < B
Combining these requirements, we will specify the desired input-output relation as
– outputs: A = q X B + r and 0 < r < B.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the three control flow statement.
Answer:
There are three important control flow statements to alter the control flow depending on the state.

In sequential control flow, a sequence of statements are executed one after another in the same order as they are written.
In alternative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, one statement is executed; if the condition is false, an alternative statement is executed.
In iterative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, a statement is executed. The two steps of testing the condition and executing the statement are repeated until the condition becomes false.

Question 2.
Explain Algorithm Design Techniques.
Answer:
There are a few basic principles and techniques for designing algorithms.
1. Specification:
The first step in problem solving is to state the problem precisely. A problem is specified in terms of the input given and the output desired. The specification must also state the properties of the given input, and the relation between the input and the output.

2. Abstraction:
A problem can involve a lot of details. Several of these details are unnecessary for solving the problem. Only a few details are essential. Ignoring or hiding unnecessary details and modeling an entity only by its essential properties is known as abstraction. For example, when we represent the state of a process, we select only the variables essential to the problem and ignore inessential details.

3. Composition:
An algorithm is composed of assignment and control flow statements. A control flow statement tests a condition of the state and depending on the value of the condition, decides the next statement to be executed.

4. Decomposition:
We divide the main algorithm into functions. We construct each function independently of the main algorithm and other functions. Finally, we construct the main algorithm using the functions. When we use the functions, it is enough to know the specification of the function. It is not necessary to know how the function is implemented.

Question 3.
Explain the specification format.
Answer:
Specification format: We can write the specification in a standard three part format:

The name of the algorithm and the inputs
Input : the property of the inputs
Output : the desired input – output relation

The first part is the name of the algorithm and the inputs. The second part is the property of the inputs. It is written as a comment which starts with – inputs: The third part is the desired input – output relation. It is written as a comment which starts with – outputs:. The input and output can be written using English and mathematical notation.

Question 4.
What are the values of variables m and n after the assignments in line (1) and line (3)?

m, n : = 2, 5
– – m, n = ?, ?
m,n: = m + 3, n – 1
– – m, n = ?, ?

The assignment in line (1) stores 2 in variable m, and 5 in variable n.

The assignment in line (3) evaluates the expressions m + 3 and n – 1 using the current values of m and n as
m + 3 , n – 1
= 2 + 3, 5 – 1
= 5, 4
and stores the values 5 and 4 in the variables m and n, respectively.

m, n : = 2, 5
– – m, n = 2, 5
m, n : = m + 3, n – 1
– – m, n = 2 + 3, 5 – 1 = 5, 4

Values of the variables after the two assignments are shown in line (2) and line (4).

Question 5.
Explain the Basic Building Blocks of Algorithms.
Data:
Algorithms take input data, process the data, and produce output data. Computers provide instructions to perform operations on data. For example, there are instructions for doing arithmetic operations on numbers, such as add, subtract, multiply and divide. There are different kinds of data such as numbers and text.

Variables:
Variables are named boxes for storing data. When we do operations on data, We need to store the results in variables. The data stored in a variable is also known as the value of the variable. We can store a value in a variable or change the value of variable, using an assignment statement.

Control flow:
An algorithm is a sequence of statements. However, after executing a statement, the next statement executed need not be the next statement in the algorithm. The statement to be executed next may depend on the state of the process. Thus, the order in which the statements are executed may differ from the order in which they are written in the algorithm. This order of execution of statements is known as the control flow.

There are three important control flow statements to alter the control flow depending on the state.

In sequential control flow, a sequence of statements are executed one after another in the same order as they are written.
In alternative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, one statement is executed; if the condition is false, an alternative statement is executed.
In iterative control flow, a condition of the state is tested, and if the condition is true, a statement is executed. The two steps of testing the condition and executing the statement are repeated until the condition becomes false.

Functions:
The parts of an algorithm are known as functions. A function is like a sub algorithm. It takes an input, and produces an output, satisfying a desired input output relation.

Question 6.
Explain specification.
Answer:
Specification:
To solve a problem, first we must state the problem clearly and precisely. A problem is specified by the given input and the desired output. To design an algorithm for solving a problem, we should know the properties of the given input and the properties of the desired output. The goal of the algorithm is to establish the relation between the input and the desired output.

An algorithm is specified by the properties of the given input and the relation between the input and the desired output. In simple words, specification of an algorithm is the desired input – output relation. The inputs and outputs are passed between an algorithm and the user through variables. The values of the variables when the algorithm starts is known as the initial state, and the values of the variables when the algorithm finishes is known as the final state.

Let P be the required property of the inputs and Q the property of the desired outputs. Then the algorithm S is specified as

algorithm name (inputs)
– – inputs : P
– -outputs: Q

This specification means that if the algorithm starts with inputs satisfying P, then it will finish with the outputs satisfying Q. A double dash – indicates that the rest of the line is a comment. Comments are statements which are used to annotate a program for the human readers and not executed by the computer. Comments at crucial points of flow are useful, and even necessary, to understand the algorithm. In our algorithmic notation, we use double dashes (-) to start a comment line. (In C++, a double slash // indicates that the rest of the line is a comment).

Specification format:
We can write the specification in a standard three part format:

The name of the algorithm and the inputs.
Input: the property of the inputs.
Output: the desired input – output relation.

Specification as contract:
Specification of an algorithm serves as a contract between the designer of the algorithm and the users of the algorithm, because it defines the rights and responsibilities of the designer and the user. Ensuring that the inputs satisfy the required properties is the responsibility of the user, but the right of the designer. The desired input-output relation is the responsibility of the designer and the right of the user. Importantly, if the user fails to satisfy the properties of the inputs, the designer is free from his obligation to satisfy the desired input – output relation.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Text Biodiversity and its Conservation Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following region has maximum biodiversity?
(a) Taiga
(b) Tropical forest
(c) Temperate rain forest
(d) Mangroves
Answer:
(b) Tropical forest

Question 2.
Conservation of biodiversity within their natural habitat is _________
(a) In-situ conservation
(b) Ex-situ conservation
(c) In vivo conservation
(d) In vitro conservation
Answer:
(a) In-situ conservation

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not coming under in-situ conservation?
(a) Sanctuaries
(b) Natural parks
(c) Zoological park
(d) Biosphere reserve
Answer:
(c) Zoological park

Question 4.
Which of the following is considered a hotspot of biodiversity in India?
(a) Western ghats
(b) Indo-gangetic plain
(c) Eastern Himalayas
(d) A and C
Answer:
(d) A and C

Question 5.
The organization which published the red list of species is _________
(a) WWF
(b) IUCN
(c) ZSI
(d) UNEP
Answer:
(b) IUCN

Question 6.
Who introduced the term biodiversity?
(a) Edward Wilson
(b) Walter Rosen
(c) Norman Myers
(d) Alice Norman
Answer:
(b) Walter Rosen

Question 7.
Which of the following forests is known as the lungs of the planet Earth?
(a) Tundra forest
(b) Rain forest of north east India
(c) Taiga forest
(d) Amazon rain forest
Answer:
(d) Amazon rain forest

Question 8.
Which one of the following are at high risk extinction due to habitat destruction?
(a) Mammals
(b) Birds
(c) Amphibians
(d) Echinoderms
Answer:
(c) Amphibians

Question 9.
Assertion: The Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable for speciation and diversity of organisms.
Reason: The climate seasons, temperature, humidity and photoperiod are more or less stable and congenial.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion correctly.

Question 10.
Define endemism.
Answer:
Endemism: A species or a taxon which is confined to a specific area.
E.g: Nilgiri Thar

Question 11.
How many hotspots are there in India? Name them.
Answer:
India encloses 4 biodiversity hotspots. They are

Himalayan
Indo-Burma
Western ghats
Sunderland

Question 12.
What are the three levels of biodiversity?
Answer:

Genetic Diversity
Species Diversity
Community / Ecosystem Diversity

Question 13.
Name the active chemical found in the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria. What type of diversity does it belong to?
Answer:
Rauwolfia vomitoria can be cited as an example of genetic diversity. Reserpine is an active chemical extracted from Rauwolfia vomitoria.

Question 14.
“Amazon forest is considered to be the lungs of the planet”-Justify this statement.
Answer:
Amazon rain forest is known as the “lungs of the planet” since a great proportion of CO₂ released due to anthropogenic activities are uptaken by their dense tropical forests, which is homologous to the functioning of human beings except for the difference in gases.

Question 15.
Red data book-What do you know about it?
Answer:
Red Data Book or Red list is a catalogue of taxa facing the risk of extinction. IUCN – International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources, which is renamed as WCU – World Conservation Union (Morges Switzerland) maintains the Red Databook. The concept of Red list was mooted in 1963.
The purpose of preparation of Red List are:

To create awareness on the degree of threat to biodiversity
Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction
Provide global index on declining biodiversity
Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation of action

Information on international agreements on conservation of biological diversity Red list has eight categories of species.

Extinct
Extinct in wild
Critically Endangered
Endangered
Vulnerable
Lower risk
Data deficiency
Not evaluated

Question 16.
Extinction of a keystone species led to the loss of biodiversity – Justify.
Answer:
A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without the keystone species, a particular ecosystem would be dramatically disturbed or even ceased. Keystone species either directly or indirectly affects every species in a particular ecosystem. If a keystone species is lost or removed no other organism would compensate its ecological niche.

Example: Jaguar is a keystone species. As a top predator, it plays a crucial role in the ecosystem. Without jaguar there is an exponential increase in herbivoral population that would decimate the plants of the ecosystem. At one point even the herbivore populations also get declined due to the lack of vegetation. Thus jaguar acts a keystone species.

Question 17.
Compare and Contrast the insitu and ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
In-situ conservation

Conservation of plants and animals in their natural habitat.
Example: National parks

Ex-situ conservation

Conservation of selected or rare plants or animals in place outside their natural habitat.
Example: Off-site collections.

Question 18.
What are called endangered species? Explain with examples.
Answer:

A species which has been categorized as very likely to become extinct.
Example: Bengal tiger, Polar bears.

Question 19.
Why do we find a decrease in biodiversity distribution, if we move from the tropics towards the poles?
Answer:
There is a decrease in biodiversity as we move from tropics towards poles due to a drop in temperature which makes the condition unfavourable for the majority of organisms to survive.

Question 20.
What are the factors that drive habitat loss?
Answer:
Natural habitats are destroyed for the purpose of settlement, agriculture, mining, industries and construction of highways. As a result, species are forced to adapt to the changes in the environment or move to other places. If not, they become victim to predation, starvation, disease, and eventually die or result in human-animal conflict.

Question 21.
Where are biodiversity hotspots normally located? Why?
Answer:
Hotspots are areas characterized with high concentration of endemic species experiencing unusual rapid rate of habitat modification loss. Norman Myers defined hot spots as “regions that harbour a great diversity of endemic species and at the same time, have been significantly impacted and altered by human activities.”

Question 22.
Why is biodiversity so important and worthy of protection?
Answer:
Biodiversity reflects the number of different organisms and their relative frequencies in an ecological system and constitutes the most important functional component of a natural ecosystem. It helps to maintain ecological processes, create soil, recycle nutrients, influence climate, degrade waste and control diseases. It provides an index of health of an ecosystem. The survival of human race depends on the existence and wellbeing of all life forms (plants and animals) in the biosphere.

Question 23.
Why do animals have greater diversification than plant diversity?
Answer:
The distribution of plants and animals is not uniform around the world. Organisms require different sets of conditions for their optimum metabolism and growth. Plants in general have the ability to withstand and overcome environmental fluctuations. Moreover, the majority of plants are autotrophs so they can synthesize their own food, hence they show minimal modifications. In the case of animals, they have to tolerate climatic fluctuations, migrate to other areas in search of food, or adapt themselves or their body parts according to food they consume thus varying from ancestors leading to the evolution of new species. Hence it is understood that climatic conditions food source, predation, competition, and other natural forces lead to much diversification among animals than in plants.

Question 24.
Alien species invasion is a threat to endemic species – substantiate this statement.
Answer:
Exotic species are organisms often introduced unintentionally or deliberately for commercial purposes, as biological control agents and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away from the local species and is considered as the second major cause for the extinction of species. Tilapia fish (Jilabi kendai) (Oreochromis Mozambique) introduced from east coast of South Africa in 1952 for its high productivity into Kerala’s inland waters, became invasive, due to which the native species such as Puntius dubius and Labeo kontius face local extinction. Amazon sailfin catfish is responsible for destroying the fish population in the wetlands of Kolkata. The introduction of the Nile Perch, a predatory fish into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 nature species of cichlid fish in the lake.

Question 25.
Mention the major threats to biodiversity caused by human activities. Explain.
Answer:
Human activities, both directly and indirectly are today’s main reason for habitat loss and biodiversity loss. Fragmentation and degradation due to agricultural practices, extraction (mining, fishing, logging and harvesting) and development (settlements, industrial and associated infrastructures) leads to habitat loss and fragmentation leads to formation of isolated, small and scattered populations and as endangered species.

Some of the other threats include specialised diet, specialized habitat requirement, large size, small population size, limited geographic distribution and high economic or commercial value. Large mammals by virtue of their size require larger areas to obtain the necessities of life – food, cover and mates than do smaller mammals. Individual home range of Lion can be about 100 square Km. Mammals have specialized dietary needs such as carnivores, frugivores and the need to forage over much larger areas than general dietary herbivores and omnivores. Mammals also have low reproductive output other than small rodents

Question 26.
What is mass extinction? Will you encounter one such extinction in the near future.
Answer:
Enumerate the steps to be taken to prevent it.
The Earth has experienced quite a few mass extinctions due to environmental catastrophes. A mass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago during the Permian, where 90% of shallow water marine invertebrates disappeared.

Question 27.
In north eastern states, the jhum culture is a major threat to biodiversity – substantiate.
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, plots of natural tree vegetation are burnt away and the cleared patches 1 are farmed for 2-3 seasons, after which their fertility reduces to a point where crop production is no longer profitable. The farmer then abandons this patch and cuts down a new patch of fqrest trees elsewhere for crop production.This system is practiced in north-eastern regions of India. When vast areas are cleared and burnt, it results in loss of forest cover, pollution and discharge of CO₂, which in turn attributes to loss of habitat and climate change which has an 1 impact on the faunal diversity of that regions.

Question 28.
List out the various causes for biodiversity losses.
Answer:
The major causes for biodiversity decline are:

Habitat loss, fragmentation and destruction (affects about 73% of all species),
Pollution and pollutants (smog, pesticides, herbicides, oil slicks and GHGs).
Climate change.
Introduction of alien/exotic species.
Overexploitation of resources (poaching, indiscriminate cutting of trees, overfishing, hunting and mining).
Intensive agriculture and aquacultural practices.
Hybridization between native and non-native species and loss of native species
Natural disasters (Tsunami, forest fire, earthquakes and volcanoes).
Industrialization, Urbanization, infrastructure development, Transport – Road and Shipping activity, communication towers, dam construction, unregulated tourism and monoculture are a common area of specific threats.
Co-extinction

Question 29.
How can we contribute to promoting biodiversity conservation?
Answer:

identify and protect all threatened species
identify and conserve in protected areas the wild relatives of all the economically important organisms
identify and protect critical habitats for feeding, breeding, nursing, resting of each species
resting, feeding, and breeding places of the organisms should be identified and protected.
Air, water, and soil should be conserved on a priority basis
Wildlife Protection Act should be implemented

Question 30.
‘Stability of a community depends upon its species diversity’ – Justify the statement.
Answer:
Species diversity leads to a stable community because an area with more species diversity always leads to higher productivity thus maintains a stable community.

Question 31.
Write a note on

Protected areas
Wildlife sanctuaries
WWF.

Answer:
(i) Protected areas are biogeographical areas, where biological diversity along with natural and cultural resources is protected, maintained, and managed through legal measures. Protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, community reserves, and biosphere reserves.

(ii) Any area other than the area comprised of any reserve forest or the territorial waters can be notified by the State Government to constitute as a sanctuary if such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance. This is for the purpose of protecting, endangered factual species. Some restricted human activities are allowed inside the sanctuary area. Ecotourism is permitted, as long as animal life is undisturbed.

(iii) WWF stands for World Wide Fund for nature is an international NGO working in the field of wildlife conservation.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Biodiversity and its Conservation Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Who coined the term Bio-diversity?
Answer:
Walter Rosen.

Question 2.
Which is not an indices of species diversity?
(a) Alpha diversity
(b) Beta diversity
(c) Delta diversity
(d) Gamma diversity
Answer:
(c) Delta diversity

Question 3.
Total number of mega biodiversity countries in the world is __________
(a) Twelve
(b) Fifteen
(c) Seventeen
(d) Nineteen
Answer:
(c) Seventeen

Question 4.
How many number of biogeographic zones are there in India?
(a) Twelve
(b) Seventeen
(c) Ten
(d) Fifteen
Answer:
(c) Ten

Question 5.
The most important pattern of biodiversity is __________
(a) Longitudinal gradient in diversity
(b) Latitudinal gradient in diversity
(c) Polar gradient diversity
(d) Equatorial gradient in diversity
Answer:
(A) Latitudinal gradient in diversity

Question 6.
Which of the following denotation is correct regarding increasing diversity?
(a) Poles < Equator
(b) Equator < Pole
(c) Pole = Equator
(d) Latitude = Longitude
Answer:
(a) Poles < Equator

Question 7.
Select the proper sequence indicating the increasing order of biodiversity __________
(a) Polar, Temperate and Polar
(b) Tropics, Temperate and Polar
(c) Temperate, Tropic and Polar
(d) Polar, Tropic and Temperate
Answer:
(a) Polar, Temperate and Polar

Question 8.
Select the correct linear equation describing the species-area relationship.
(a) log C = log S + Z log A
(b) Z log A = log S + log C
(c) log S = log C + Z log A
(d) log C = log S ± Z log A
Answer:
(c) log S = log C + Z log A

Question 9.
If meat-eating animals are called carnivores, how do you call the animals that thrive mostly on fruits?
Answer:
Frugivore

Question 10.
Wild ass is endemic to __________
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Deccan Peninsula
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Indian desert
Answer:
(d) Indian desert

Question 11.
Which is considered as the Biogeographical Gateway of India?
(a) the Himalayas
(b) Andaman & Nicobar
(c) North-East India
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) North-East India

Question 12.
Species introduced deliberately in an area are referred as __________
(a) Endemic species
(b) Vulnerable species
(c) Exotic species
(d) Extinct species
Answer:
(c) Exotic species

Question 13.
Tilapia fish (Oreochromis Mozambique) is exotic breed from __________
(a) Mexico
(b) South Africa
(c) Canada
(d) Central America
Answer:
(b) South Africa

Question 14.
Mention the correct number of biodiversity hotspots identified throughout the world __________
(a) 29
(b) 16
(c) 34
(d) 46
Answer:
(c) 34

Question 15.
Which is not an accepted biodiversity hotspot of India?
(a) Indian Himalayas
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Burma
(d) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(d) Deccan Plateau

Question 16.
A species is considered as extinct ________
(a) When its member is confined to a particular area
(b) When its member is maintained in a non-native area
(c) When none of its members is alive in the native area
(d) When none of its members alive anywhere in the world
Answer:
(d) When none of its members are alive anywhere in the world.

Question 18.
The concept of Red list was noted in __________
(a) 1953
(b) 1963
(c) 1973
(d) 2003
Answer:
(b) 1963

Question 19.
Match the following
(a) Tiger reserves in India (i) 4
(b) Hotspots in India (ii) 104
(c) Biosphere reserves in India (iii) 27
(d) National parks in India (iv) 18
Answer:
a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

Question 20.
Statement 1: Biodiversity is the assemblage of different life forms.
Statement 2: The term biodiversity was introduced by Edward Wilson.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect

Question 21.
Statement 1: India is the seventh-largest country in the world in terms of area.
Statement 2: It includes ten biogeographic areas.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 22.
Statement 1: Western Ghats extend from South Gujarat to Karnataka.
Statement 2: Wild ass is an endemic species of Western Ghats
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Question 23.
Statement 1: Exotic species are non-native organisms.
Statement 2: Sailfin catfish is an exotic species in India.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

2-Mark Questions

Question 1.
Define biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variability among living organisms from all sources, including terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are a part. This includes diversity within species, between species and ecosystems of a region.

Question 2.
Who coined the term biodiversity? Name the levels of biodiversity.
Answer:
The term biodiversity was coined by Walter Rosen (1986). The levels of biodiversity are – Genetic diversity, Species diversity and ecosystem diversity.

Question 3.
What is species richness? Give example.
The number of species per unit area at a specific time is called species richness, which denotes the measure of species diversity.
Example: Western ghats have more amphibian species than Eastern ghats.

Question 4.
Enlist the factors that determine the distribution of biodiversity.
Answer:
Temperature, precipitation, distance from the equator (latitudinal gradient), the altitude from sea level (altitudinal gradient) are some of the factors that determine biodiversity distribution patterns.

Question 5.
What are the most important causes of biodiversity loss?
Answer:
Habitat loss, fragmentation, and destruction.

Question 6.
Name any two alien animal species introduced in India.
Answer:

Tilapia fish (Oreochromis mosambicus)
African Apple snail (Achatina Fulica)

Question 7.
Name any four biogeographic zones in India.
Answer:

Himalayas
Indian deserts
Trans-Himalayan region
Western ghats.

Question 8.
What do you mean by the term co-extinction?
Answer:

Coextinction of a species is the loss of a species as a consequence of the extinction of another.
Example: orchid bees and forest trees by cross-pollination.

Question 9.
What are the natural causes of biodiversity loss?
Answer:
Natural threats include spontaneous jungle fires, tree falls, landslides, defoliation by insects, or locust attack.

Question 10.
Define hotspots.
Answer:
Hotspots are areas characterized by a high concentration of endemic species experiencing an unusual rapid rate of habitat modification loss.

Question 11.
What will be the consequences of the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Loss of biodiversity has an immense impact on plant and animal life. The loss of diversity leads to,

Extinction of species
Dramatic influence on the food chain and food web in. It will lead to immediate danger for food necessity

Question 12.
Name the four biodiversity hotspots in India.
Answer:

Himalayas
Western ghats
Indo-Burma region
Sundaland

Question 13.
What does IUCN stand for?
Answer:
IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.

Question 14.
Define species extinction. What makes a species to become extinct?
Answer:
A species is considered extinct when none of its members are alive anywhere in the world. Environmental changes and population characteristics are the two major reasons for species extinction.

Question 15.
When a species is considered locally extinct?
Answer:
A species is considered to be locally extinct when it is no longer found in an area it once inhabited but is still found elsewhere in the wild.

Question 16.
State the mission of IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN’s mission is to influence, encourage, and assist societies throughout the world to conserve nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.

Question 17.
What is the Red list? How many categories of species are mentioned in the Red list?
Answer:
Red List or Red databook is a catalogue of taxa facing risk of extinction. It has 8 categories of species.

Question 18.
Mention any four categories of species mentioned in Red data book.
Answer:

Extinct
Endangered
Extinct in wild
Vulnerable

Question 19.
How a national park can be defined?
Ans:
The national park is a natural habitat that is notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park due to its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association of importance. No human activity is permitted inside the national park except the activities permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.

Question 20.
Name any two species that are extinct due to human activities.
Answer:

Dodo of Mauritius
Steller’s cow of Russia

Question 21.
Define in-siu conservation.
Answer:
Conservation of animals in their natural habitat is called in-site conservation.
E.g National parks.

Question 22.
What is the goal of “Project Tiger”?
Answer:
The project ensures a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats, protecting them from extinction and preserving areas of biological importance as a natural heritage.

Question 23.
Give the number of national parks in India. Name any two of them in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
India has 104 National Parks. Guindy National Park (Chennai) and Mudumalai National Park (Nilgiris) are located in Tamil Nadu.

Question 24.
State the role of Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves are designated to deal with the conservation of biodiversity, economic and social development, and maintenance of associated cultural values.

Question 25.
Name few endangered species protected in Arignar Anna Zoological Park.
Answer:
Royal Bengal Tiger, Lion Tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Langur and Gray Wolf.

Question 26.
Give the names of two methods of in-situ conservation.
Answer:

Wildlife Sanctuaries
Biosphere reserve

3 – Mark Questions

Question 27.
Point out the biosphere reserves in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Nilgiris (Tamil Nadu – Kerala)
Agasthya malai (Tamil Nadu – Kerala – Karnataka)
Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)

Question 28.
Write a note on Sacred Groves.
Answer:
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any groves of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world.

Question 29.
What is ex-situ conservation?
Answer:
Ex-situ conservation of selected rare plants/ animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes offsite collections and gene banks.

Question 30.
Why Red list is prepared periodically?
Answer:
The purpose of preparation of Red List are:

To create awareness on the degree of threat to biodiversity
Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction
Provide global index on declining biodiversity
Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation of action
Information on international agreements on the conservation of biological diversity

Question 31.
Name the types of extinctions.
Answer:

Natural Extinction
Mass Extinction
Anthropogenic Extinction

Question 32.
Point out the human activities that threaten biodiversity.
Answer:
Direct and indirect human activities have a detrimental effect on biodiversity. Direct human, activities like change in local land use, species introduction or removal, harvesting, pollution, and climate change contribute a greater pressure on the loss of biodiversity. Indirect human drivers include demographic, economic, technological, cultural, and religious factors.

Question 33.
Extinction of Dodo bird led to the danger of Calvaria tree – Justify,
Answer:
Another example of co-extinction is the connection between the Calvaria tree and the extinct bird of Mauritius Island, the Dodo. The Calvaria tree is dependent on the Dodo bird for completion of its life cycle. The mutualistic association is that the tough home endocarp of the seeds of the Calvaria tree are made permeable by the actions of the large stones in birds’ gizzards and digestive juices thereby facilitating easier germination. The extinction of the Dodo bird led to the imminent danger of the Calvaria tree coextinction.

Question 34.
Give an account on slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, plots of natural tree vegetation are burnt away and the cleared patches are farmed for 2-3 seasons, after which their fertility reduces to a point where crop production is no longer profitable. The farmer then abandons this patch and cuts down a new patch of forest trees elsewhere for crop production. This system is practiced in the north-eastern regions of India. When vast areas are cleared and burnt, it results in loss of forest cover, pollution, and discharge of CO₂ which in turn attributes to a loss of habitat and climate change which has an impact on the faunal diversity of that region. Impact of Industrialization on Biodiversity – Comment. Industrialization is a major contributor to climate change and a major threat to biodiversity.

Energy drives our industries, which is provided by the burning of fossil fuels. This increases the emission of CO₂, a GHG, leading to climate change. Due to large scale deforestation, the emitted CO₂ cannot be absorbed fully, and its concentration in the air increases. Climate change increases land and ocean temperature changes precipitation patterns and raises the sea level. This inturn results in melting of glaciers, water inundation, less predictability of weather patterns, extreme weather conditions, an outbreak of squalor diseases, migration of animals, and loss of trees in the forest. Thus, climate change is an imminent danger to the existing biodiversity.

Question 36.
What are exotic species? Explain with example.
Answer:
Exotic species are organisms often introduced unintentionally or deliberately for commercial purposes, as biological control agents, and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away from the local species and is considered as the second major cause for the extinction of species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. Tilapia fish (Jilabi kendai) (Oreochromis mosambicus) introduced from the east coast of South Africa in 1952 for its high productivity into Kerala’s inland waters, became invasive, due to which the native species such as Puntius dubious and Labeo kontius face local extinction.

Question 37.
Write a brief note on Habitat fragmentation.
Answer:
Habitat fragmentation is the process where a large, continuous area of habitat is both, reduced in area and divided into two or more fragments. Fragmentation of habitats like forest land into croplands, orchard lands, plantations, urban areas, industrial estates, transport, and transit systems has resulted in the destruction of complex interactions amongst species, (food chain and webs) destruction of species in the cleared regions, the annihilation of species restricted to these habitats (endemic) and decreased biodiversity in the habitat fragments. Animals requiring large territories such as mammals and birds are severely affected.

The elephant corridors and migratory routes are highly vulnerable. The dwindling of many well-known birds (sparrows) and animals can be attributed to this.

Question 38.
Write a note on the biogeographic area – the Gangetic plains.
Answer:
Gangetic Plains: These plains are relatively homogeneously defined by the Ganges river system and occupy about 11% of the country’s landmass. This region is very fertile and extends up to the Himalayan foothills. Fauna includes rhinoceros, elephant, buffalo, swamp deer, hog-deer.

Question 39.
Compare Alpha diversity with Beta diversity.
Answer:

Alpha diversity: It is measured by counting the number of taxa (usually species) within a particular area, community, or ecosystem.
Beta diversity: It is species diversity between two adjacent ecosystems and is obtaining by comparing the number of species unique to each of the ecosystems.

Question 40.
What is species diversity?
Answer:
Species diversity refers to the variety in number and richness of the species in any habitat. The number of species per unit area at a specific time is called species richness, which denotes the measure of species diversity. The Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. The more the number of species in an area the more is the species richness. The three indices of diversity are – Alpha, Beta and Gamma diversity.

Question 41.
State the principle of Stockholm declaration – 1972.
Answer:
The natural resources of the Earth, including air, water, land, flora and fauna of natural ecosystems must be safeguarded for the benefit of the present and future generations through careful planning and management, as appropriate – Principle of the Stockholm Declaration. 1972.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 42.
Give an account on genetic diversity and community diversity.
Answer:
Genetic diversity refers to the differences in genetic make-up (number and types of genes) between distinct species and to the genetic variation within a single species; also covers genetic variation between distinct populations of the same species. Genetic diversity can be measured using a variety of molecular techniques. India has more than 50,000 genetic variants of Paddy and 1000 variants of Mango. Variation of genes of a species increases with diversity in size and habitat.

It results in the formation of different races, varieties and subspecies. Rouwolfia vomitaria, a medicinal plant growing in different ranges of the Himalayas shows differences in the potency and concentration of the active ingredient reserpine due to genetic diversity. Genetic diversity helps in developing adaptations to changing environmental conditions. Community/Ecosystem diversity is the variety of habitats, biotic communities, and ecological processes in the biosphere. It is the diversity at the ecosystem level due to the diversity of niches,

trophic levels, and ecological processes like nutrient cycles, food webs, energy flow, and several biotic interactions. India with its alpine meadows, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, grasslands, and deserts has one of the greatest ecosystem diversity on Earth.

Question 43.
Why Tropical regions are rich in biodiversity?
Answer:
The reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the Tropics are:

Warm tropical regions between the tropic of Cancer and Capricorn on either side of the equator possess congenial habitats for living organisms.
Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable not only for speciation but also for supporting both variety and number of organisms.
The temperatures vary between 25°C to 35°C, a range in which most metabolic activities of living organisms occur with ease and efficiency.
The average rainfall is often more than 200 mm per year.
Climate, seasons, temperature, humidity, photoperiods are more or less stable and encourage both variety and numbers.
Rich resource and nutrient availability.

Question 44.
What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species-area relationship?
Answer:
German Naturalist and Geographer Alexander von Humboldt explored the wilderness of South American jungles and found that within a region the species richness increased with the increasing area but upto a certain limit. The relationship between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats, and freshwater fishes) turned out to be the rectangular hyperbola. On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation.

log S = log C + Z log A where S = Species richness
A = Area
Z = Slope of the line
(regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept
Regression coefficient Z generally has a value of 0.1-0.2 regardless of taxonomic group or region. However, in the case of the species-area relationship in very large areas like entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper (Z-value in the range of 0.6-1.2). For example, in the case of the fruit-eating (frugivorous) birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different continents, the slope is found to be a steeper line.

Question 45.
Point out any 5 functional attributions of biodiversity.
Answer:
The major functional attributes are:

continuity of nutrient cycles or biogeochemical cycles (N₂, C, H₂O, P, S cycles)
soil formation, conditioning, or maintenance of soil health (fertility) by soil microbial diversity along with the different trophic members
increases ecosystem productivity and provide food resources
act as water traps, filters, water flow regulators, and water purifiers (forest cover and vegetation)
climate stability (forests are essential for rainfall, temperature regulation, CO₂ absorption, which in turn regulate the density and type of vegetation)
forest resource management and sustainable development

Question 46.
Explain in detail about various types of extinctions.
There are three types of Extinctions
Answer:

Natural extinction: It is a slow process of replacement of existing species with better-adapted species due to changes in environmental conditions, evolutionary changes, predators, and diseases. A small population can get extinct sooner than a large population due to inbreeding depression (less adaptivity and variation)
Mass extinction: The Earth has experienced quite a few mass extinctions due to environmental catastrophes. Amass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago during the Permian, where 90% of shallow-water marine invertebrates disappeared.
Anthropogenic extinction: These are abetted by human activities like hunting, habitat destruction, overexploitation, urbanization, and industrialization. Some examples of extinctions are Dodo of Mauritius and Steller’s sea cow of Russia. Amphibians seem to be at higher risk of extinction because of habitat destruction. The most serious aspect of the loss of biodiversity is the extinction of species. The unique information contained in its genetic material (DNA) and the niche it possesses are lost forever.

Question 47.
Give a comparative account on ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
Ex-Situ Conservation: It is the conservation of selected rare plants/ animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes offsite collections and gene banks. Offsite Collections: They are live collections of wild and domesticated species in Botanical gardens, Zoological parks, Wildlife safari parks, Arborata (gardens with trees and shrubs). The organisms are well maintained for captive breeding programmes.

As a result, many animals which have become extinct in the world continue to be maintained in Zoological Parks. As the number increases in captive breeding, the individuals are selectively released in the wild. In this way, the Indian crocodile and Gangetic dolphins have been saved from extinction.

Gene Banks: Gene banks are a type of biorepository which preserves genetic materials. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be stored for long periods in seed banks, gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions for long periods using cryopreservation techniques. However, it is not economically feasible to conserve all biological wealth and all the ecosystems. The number of species required to be saved from extinction far exceeds the conservation efforts.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
What will be the result, if the relationship between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa are plotted on a long scale?
Answer:
A rectangular hyperbola.

Question 2.
What may be the reasons for the entry of wild lives into the agricultural lands or towns?
Answer:

Habitat lose / Habitat fragmentation
Lack of food or water source

Question 3.
When does a species is categorized as endangered?
Answer:
A species that has been categorized as very likely to become extinct is an endangered species.

Question 4.
Give any two examples of anthropogenic extinction.
Answer:
Dodo of Mauritius Steller’s cow of Russia

Question 5.
Mention any two species that had become extinct very recently.
Answer:

George, the tree snail (Achatinella apexfulva)
Sudan – northern white rhinoceros (Ceratotherium simum)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Operating system is a ……………….
(a) Application Software
(b) Hardware
(c) System Software
(d) Component
Answer:
(c) System Software

Question 2.
Identify the usage of Operating Systems ……………….
(a) Easy interaction between the human and computer
(b) Controlling input & output Devices
(c) Managing use of main memory
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of an Operating System?
(a) Process Management
(b) Memory Management
(c) Security management
(d) Compiler Environment
Answer:
(d) Compiler Environment

Question 4.
Which of the following OS is a Commercially licensed Operating system?
(a) Windows
(b) UBUNTU
(c) FEDORA
(d) REDHAT
Answer:
(a) Windows

Question 5.
Which of the following Operating systems support Mobile Devices?
(a) Windows 7
(b) Linux
(c) BOSS
(d) iOS
Answer:
(d) iOS

Question 6.
File Management manages ……………….
(a) Files
(b) Folders
(c) Directory systems
(d) All the Above
Answer:
(d) All the Above

Question 7.
Interactive Operating System provides ……………….
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)
(b) Data Distribution
(c) Security Management
(d) Real Time Processing
Answer:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)

Question 8.
Android is a ……………….
(a) Mobile Operating system
(b) open Source
(c) Developed by Google
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Which of the following refers to Android operating system’s version?
(a) JELLY BEAN
(b) UBUNTU
(c) OS/2
(d) MITTIKA
Answer:
(a) JELLY BEAN

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of memory management in Operating System?
Answer:

Allocating memory is easy and cheap
Any free page is ok, OS can take first one out of.list it keeps
Eliminates external fragmentation
Data (page frames) can be scattered all over PM
Pages are mapped appropriately anyway
Allows demand paging and pre – paging
More efficient swapping
No need for considerations about fragmentation
Just swap out page least likely to be used

Question 2.
What is the multi – user Operating system?
Answer:
A Multi – user Operating system is a computer operating system (OS) that allows multiple users on different computers or terminals to access a single system with one OS on it.

Question 3.
What is a GUI?
Answer:
GUI – Graphical User Interface – It allows the use of icons or other visual indicators to interact with electronic devices, rather than using only text via the command line. For example, all versions of Microsoft Windows utilize a GUI, whereas MS – DOS does not.

Question 4.
List out different distributions of Linux operating system.
Answer:
Different server distributions in Linux OS:

Ubuntu
Linux Mint
Debian
Fedora
RedHa.

Question 5.
What are the security management features available in Operating System?
Answer:
Security Management features:

File access level security
System level security
Network level securny.

Question 6.
What is multi – processing?
Answer:
Multiprocessing is one of the features of operating system. It has two or more processors for a single running process. Each processor works on different parts of the same task or two or more different tasks.

Question 7.
What are the different Operating Systems used in computer?
Answer:
Different operating system used:

Single user, single Task Operating system
Multi user operating system
Multiprocessing operating system
Distributed Operating system

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Time – sharing features?
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Time Sharing Option (TSO)
Advantages:

Each task and each user get its time.
Systems have to give time to these application individual tasks and other applications also, so that all system behave correctly.
Reduces the CPU ideal time

Disadvantages:

Problem in Reliability
It consumes many resources so it need special operating systems.
Need High specification hardware

Question 2.
Explain and List out examples of mobile operating system.
Answer:
A Mobile Operating System (or mobile OS) is an operating system that is specifically designed to run on mobile devices such as phones, tablets, smart watches, etc.
Example: Apple IOS

Google android : Android is a mobile OS developed by Google, based on Linux and designed for smart phones and tabs. iOS was developed by Apple.
Example : Android, ColorOS, LGUX, MIUI.

Question 3.
What are the differences between Windows and Linux Operating system?
Answer:
Windows:

Microsoft windows is a proprietary OS which is commercial.
Windows can be modified only by the company that owns it.
Difficult to customize.
Vulnerable to virus and malware attacks.

Linux:

Linux is open source, i.e., free licensed.
Linux can be modified by anyone.
Easy to customize.
More secure.

Question 4.
Explain the process management algorithms in Operating System.
Answer:
The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor: FIFO, SJF, Round Robin, Based on priority.

First In First Out (FIFO) Scheduling – This algorithm is based on queuing technique. Technically, the process that enters the queue first is executed first by the CPU, followed by the next and so on. The processes are executed in the order of the queue.
Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling – This algorithm works based on the size of the job being executed by the CPU.
Round Robin Scheduling – Round Robin (RR) Scheduling algorithm is designed especially -for time sharing systems, jobs are assigned and processor time in a circular method.
Based on priority – The given job (process) is assigned on a priority. The job which has higher priority is more important than ether jobs.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the concept of a Distributed Operating System.
Answer:
The data and application that are stored and processed on multiple physical locations across the world over the digital network (intemet/intranet). The Distributed Operating System is used to access shared data and files that reside in any machine around the world. The user can handle the data from different locations. The users can access as if it is available on their own computer.

The advantages of distributed Operating System are as follows:

A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 2.
Explain the main purpose of an operating system.
Operating system has become essential to enable the users to design applications without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure of hardware.
Operating system manages all the software and hardware. Most of the time there are many different computer programmes running at the same time, they all need to access the computers, CPU, memory and storage. The need of operating system is basically – an interface between the user and the hardware.

Operating System works as translator, while it translates the user request into machine language(Binary language), processes it and then sends it back to Operating System. Operating System converts processed information into user readable form.

Uses of Operating Systems:

to ensure that a computer can be used to extract what the user wants it do.
Easy interaction between the users and computers.
Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
Controlling Input and Output Devices
Manage the utilisation of main memory.
Providing security to user programs.

Question 3.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of open source operating systems.
Answer:
The benefits of open source are tremendous and have gained huge popularity in the IT field in recent years. They are as follows:

Open source (OS) is free to use, distribute and modify.
Open source is independent of the company as author who originally created it.
It is accessible to everyone. Anyone can debug the coding.
It doesn’t have the problem of incompatible formats that exits in proprietary software.
It is easy to customize as per our needs.
Excellent support will be provided by programmers who will assist in making solutions.

Some of the disadvantages are:

Latest hardware are incompatible, i.e. lack of device drivers.
It is less user friendly and not as easy to use.
There may be some indirect costs involved such as paying for external support.
Malicious users can potentially view it and exploit any vulnerability.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Software is classified into ………………. types.
(a) five
(b) two
(c) four
(d) six
Answer:
(b) two

Question 2.
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as ………………. categories.
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not an algorithm?
(a) NTFS
(b) FIFO
(c) SJE
(d) Round Robin
Answer:
(a) NTFS

Question 4.
The operating system provides ………………. levels of securities to the user end.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) seven
(d) ten
Answer:
(a) three

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a prominent operating system?
(a) UNIX
(b) IOS
(c) GUI
(d) Android
Answer:
(c) GUI

Question 6.
………………. is a family of multitasking.
(a) LINUX
(b) Microsoft Windows
(c) UNIX
(d) iOS
Answer:
(a) LINUX

Question 7.
Which one of the following comes under proprietary licence?
(a) Apple Mac OS
(b) Google’s Android
(c) UNIX
(d) LINUX
Answer:
(a) Apple Mac OS

Question 8.
The LINUX operating system was originated in ……………….
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

Question 9.
………………. is the second most popular mobile operating system globally after Android.
(a) Microsoft Windows
(b) iOS
(c) UNIX
(d) LINUX
Answer:
(b) iOS

Question 10.
Which one of the following is an application software to play audio and video files?
(a) Audio Player
(b) Media Player
(c) VLC Player
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) VLC Player

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a System software?
(a) Operating System
(b) Language Processor
(c) Both a & b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a set of instructions that perform specific tasks?
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Processor
(d) I/O devices
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 13.
Hardware and software are managed by ……………….
(a) GUI
(b) OS
(c) Bootstrap
(d) keyboard
Answer:
(b) OS

Question 14.
The process of starting computer operation automatically when the power is turned on is called ……………….
(a) Booting
(b) Compiling
(c) executing
(d) Storing
Answer:
(a) Booting

Question 15.
An OS that allows only a single user to perform a task at a time is called as ……………….
(a) Single user os
(b) Single task os
(c) Both a & b
(d) Multi tasking os
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 16.
Identify the single user and single task OS?
(a) MS – DOS
(b) UNIX
(c) LINUX
(d) iOS
Answer:
(a) MS – DOS

Question 17.
Identify the multi-user OS?
(a) Windows
(b) Linux
(c) UNIX
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 18.
To build a cheap computer, ………………. os is used.
(a) Windows
(b) Raspbion OS
(c) iOS
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Raspbion OS

Question 19.
GUI stands for ……………….
(a) Geo User Interact
(b) Global User Inter Change
(c) Graphical User Interface
(d) Global User Interface
Answer:
(c) Graphical User Interface

Question 20.
A ………………. is the unit of work or program in a computer.
(a) Process
(b) Code
(c) Concept
(d) Log file
Answer:
(a) Process

Question 21.
The operating system processes are executed by ……………….
(a) User code
(b) System code
(c) Task
(d) Program
Answer:
(b) System code

Question 22.
System level security is provided by ………………. in a multi user environment.
(a) Permission
(b) execute
(c) Password
(d) Security code
Answer:
(c) Password

Question 23.
NTFS is a ……………….
(a) game
(b) file management technique
(c) os
(d) System level security
Answer:
(b) file management technique

Question 24
………………. os is used to access shared data that resides in any machine around the world.
(a) Time sharing
(b) fixed
(c) MS – Dos
(d) distributed
Answer:
(d) distributed

Question 25.
Unix was developed in the year ……………….
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
(d) 1960
Answer:
(a) 1970

Question 26.
Unix was developed by?
(a) Ken Thompson
(b) Dennis Ritchie
(c) Both a & b
(d) Ricki Mascitti
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 27.
………………. is a windows alternative open source operating system.
(a) React OS
(b) Boss
(c) Redhat
(d) Fedora
Answer:
(a) React OS

Question 28.
Google has developed ………………. for wrist watches.
(a) Android wear
(b) Android wrist
(c) Android wrist watches
(d) Android watches
Answer:
(a) Android wear

Question 29.
Which among the following is not an android moblie open source versions?
(a) Dotnut
(b) Froyo
(c) Nougat
(d) Alpha
Answer:
(a) Dotnut

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
An operating system is a software which serves as the interface between a user and a computer.

Question 2.
What are the different types of Operating System?
Answer:
Single user and single task operating system, Multi user operating system, Multi – Processing Operating system, Time sharing Operating system.

Question 3.
What is Real Time operating system?
Answer:
It is a multi – tasking and multi user operating system designed for real time based applications such as robotics, weather and climate prediction software etc.,

Question 4.
What is meant by Distributed Operating system?
Answer:
The data and applications are stored and processed on multiple locations in an around world over the digital network.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of Distributed Operating system?
Answer:
Resources can be used in different locations. Improves interaction with customers and clients. Reduces load on host computers. The data can be exchanged via email and chat.

Question 6.
What is an Interactive Operating system?
Answer:
This is the operating system that provides a GUI through which the user can navigate and interact.

Question 7.
Explain Round Robin Scheduling.
Answer:
This type of scheduling is also known as Time sharing scheduling process. In this, each program is given a fixed amount of time to execute.

Question 8.
What is Memory Management?
Answer:
It is the main functionality of an operating system which handles or manages primary memory and moves processes back and forth between main memory and disk during execution.

Question 9.
Mention different management techniques?
Answer:
Single continuous allocation, Partitioned allocation, Paged memory management, Segmented memory management.

Question 10.
What is Linux?
Answer:
Linux is a family of open-source operating systems.

Question 11.
What is an Android?
Answer:
Android is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on the Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets.

Question 12.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Application software and System software

Question 13.
What is Process Management?
Answer:
Process management is a function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other.

Question 14.
What is Round Robin Scheduling?
Answer:
This algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems.

Question 15.
What are the 3 levels of security?
Answer:

File Access Level
System Level
Network Level.

Question 16.
Name an OS which is Multitasking and Multi – user operating system.
Answer:
UNIX.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on Android.
Answer:
Android:
Android is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. Google has further developed Android TV for televisions, Android Auto for cars and Android Wear for wrist watches, each with a specialized user interface. Variants of Android are also used on game consoles, digital cameras, PCs and other electronic gadgets.

Question 2.
Why the operating system is needed?
Answer:
Need for operating system:
Operating System has become essential to enable the users to design applications without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure of hardware. Operating System manages all the Software and Hardware. Most of the time there are many different computer programmes running at the same time, they all need to access the Computers, CPU, Memory and Storage. The need of Operating System is basically – an interface between the user and hardware.

Operating System works as translator, while it translates the user request into machine language(Binary language), processes it and then sends it back to Operating System. Operating System converts processed information into user readable form.

Question 3.
Write a note on OS for mobile devices.
Answer:
Operating systems for mobile devices:
Mobile devices such as phones, tablets and MP3 players are different from desktop and laptop computers and hence they need special Operating Systems. Examples of mobile Operating Systems are Apple iOS and Google Android. The iOS running on an iPad is Operating systems for mobile devices generally are not as fully featured as those made for desktop and laptop computers and they are not able to run all software.

Question 4.
Write a note on iOS – iphone OS.
Answer:
iOS (formerly iPhone OS) is a mobile Operating System created and developed by Apple Inc., exclusively for its hardware. It is the Operating System that presently powers many of the company’s mobile devices, including the iPhone, iPad and iPod Touch. It is the second most popular mobile Operating System globally after Android.

Question 5.
What is a software? Explain its types in detail.
Answer:
A software is a set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.
Types of Software:
Software is classified into two types:

Application Software
System Software

Application Software:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

System Software:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 6.
Write note on single user OS?
Answer:
An os allows only a single user to perform a task at a time. It is called as a single user and single task os.
Example : MS – DOS.

Question 7.
Write note on Raspbion os?
Answer:
Raspbion os is a platform that is designed to teach how to build a computer, working principle of every part of a circuit board, write code apps or games. The platform is available in pre – designed kits.

Question 8.
Explain the memory management activities done by os?
Answer:

Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
Determining which processes and data to more in and out of memory.
Allocation and de – allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage collection).

Question 9.
Define Process?
Answer:

A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer.
A word processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process.
A system task, such as sending output to printer or screen can also be called as a process.

Question 10.
How are the processes classified on process management?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of process they are classified as two categories:

Operating system process which is executed by system code.
User processes which is executed by user code.

Question 11.
Name the activities done by os related with the process management?
Answer:

Scheduling processes and threads on the cpu.
Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
Suspending and resuming processes.
Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Question 12.
Write note an Fault Tolerance?
Answer:

The operating systems should be robust.
When there is a fault, the operating system should not crash, instead the os have fault tolerance capabilities and retain the existing state of system.

Question 13.
Write note on File Allocations Table (FAT).
Answer:

Any type of data in a computer is stored in the form of flies and directories / folders through File Allocation Table (FAT).
The FAT stores general information about files like file name, type (text or binary), size, starting address and access mode (sequential / indexed / indexed – sequential / direct / relative).

Question 14.
Give an example for Time – Sharing concept?
Answer:
Let us assume that there are three processes called P_1,P_2, P₃ and time allocated for each process 30,40, 50 minutes. If the process P₁ completes with in 20 minutes then processor takes the next Process P₁ for the execution. If the process P₂ could not complete within 40 minutes, then the current process P₂ will be paused and switch over to the next process P₃.

Question 15.
Write note on React OS.
React os is a windows – alternative open source os which is being developed on the principles of windows – without using any of the microsoft code.

Question 16.
List any 6 Android Mobile Open Source OS.
Answer:

Honey comb
Jelly Bean
Kitkat
Lollipop
Marshmallow
Nougat

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write six uses of operating system.
Answer:
The main use of Operating System is

to ensure that a computer can be used to extract what the user wants it do.
Easy interaction between the users and computers.
Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
Controlling Input and Output Devices
Manage the utilization of main memory.
Providing security to user programs.

Question 2.
Draw the diagram for the key features of the operating system.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain User Interface?
Answer:
User Interface:
User interface is one of the significant feature in Operating System. The only way that user can make interaction with a computer. If the computer interface is not user – friendly, the user slowly reduces the computer usage from their normal life. This is the main reason for the key success of GUI (Graphical User Interface) based Operating System. The GUI is a window based system with a pointing device to direct I/O, choose from menus, make selections and a keyboard to enter text. Its vibrant colours attract the user very easily. Beginners are impressed by the help and pop up window message boxes. Icons are playing vital role of the particular application.

Now Linux distribution is also available as GUI based Operating System. The following points are considered when User Interface is designed for an application.

The user interface should enable the user to retain this expertise for a longer time.
The user interface should also satisfy the customer based on their needs.
The user interface should save user’s precious time. Create graphical elements like Menus,Window,Tabs, Icons and reduce typing work will be an added advantage of the Operating System.
The ultimate aim of any product is to satisfy the customer. The User Interface is also designed to satisfy the customer.
The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with a little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File)

Question 4.
Explain Memory Management?
Answer:
Memory Management:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
Allocation and de – allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 5.
Explain process Management.
Answer:
Process Management:
Process management is function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other. A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.

A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

Operating System processes which is executed by system code.
User Processes which is execute by user code.

All these processes can potentially execute concurrently on a single CPU. A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs.
Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
Suspending and resuming processes.
Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
Providing mechanisms for process communication.

The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor.

FIFO
SJF
Round Robin
Based on Priority

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the possible structure of X?
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
(b) CH₃ – CH(OH) – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – C (OH) (CH₃)₂
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH (OH) – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
Hint:
2R – OH + Na → 2RONa + 2H₂ ↑ 2 moles of alcohol gives 1 mole of H₂ which occupies
22.4L at 273K and 1 atm
number of moles of alcohol = \(\frac{2 \text { moles of } \mathrm{R}-\mathrm{OH}}{22.4 \mathrm{L} \text { of } \mathrm{H}_{2}}\) x 560 mL = 0.05 moles
number of moles = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { molar mass }}\)
= molar mass = \(\frac{3.7}{0.05}\) = 74 g mol^-1
General formula for
R – OH C_n H_2n+1 – OH
n(12) + (2n+1) (1) + 16 +1 = 74
14n = 74 – 18
14n = 56
n = \(\frac { 56 }{ 4 }\) = 4
The 2° alcohol which contains 4 carbon is CH_n CH(OH)CH₂ CH₃

Question 2.
Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give tertiary alcohol.
(a) benzaldehyde
(b) propanoic acid
(c) methyl propanoate
(d) acetaldehyde
Answer:
(c) methyl propanoate
Hint:

Question 3.

This ‘X’ is …………..

Answer:

Hint:
hydro boration – Anti markownikoff product
i.e CH₃ – CH₂ – CH – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH

Question 4.
In the reaction sequence, Ethane

Ethan – 1, 2 – diol. A and X respectively are ………….
(a) Chioroethane and NaOH
(b) ethanol and H₂SO₄
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃
(d) ethanol and H₂O
Answer:
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃
Hint:

Question 5.
Which one of the following is the strongest acid ………..
(a) 2 – nitrophenol
(b) 4 – chlorophenol
(c) 4 – nitrophenol
(d) 3 – nitrophenol
Answer:
(c) 4 – nitrophenol

Question 6.

on treatment with Con. H₂SO₄, predominately gives ……………..

Answer:

Hint:

Question 7.
Carbolic acid is …………..
(a) Phenol
(b) Picric acid
(c) benzoic acid
(d) phenylacetic acid
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 8.
Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis …………..
(a) Dichioro methane
(b) trichioroethane
(c) trichloro methane
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) trichloro methane (Riemer Tiemann reaction)
Hint:

Question 9.

(a) (CH₃)₃ CCH = CH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
(c) CH₂ = C(CH₃)CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(d) CH₂ = C (CH₃) – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
Hint:

Question 10.
The correct IUPAC name of the compound,

(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
(b) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – chloropentan – 1 – ol
(c) 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl – 4 – chiorobutan – 1 – ol
(d) 4 – chioro – 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
Answer:
(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol

Question 11.
Assertion: Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 12.
In the reaction Ethanol
is ………………
(a) ethane
(b) ethoxyethane
(c) ethylbisuiphite
(d) ethanol
Answer:
(d) ethanol
Hint:

Question 13.
The reaction

can be classified as
(a) dehydration
(b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
(d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
Answer:
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
Hint: Cyclic alcohol → sodium cyclic alkoxide → williamson ether synthesis

Question 14.
Isoprophylbcnzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives …………
(a) C₆H₅COOH
(b) C₆H₅COCH₃
(c) C₆H₅COC₆H₅
(d) C₆H₅ – OH
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – OH (phenol)

Question 15.
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason: In the case of phenol. the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by resonance.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false,.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 16.
HO CH₂ CH₂ – OH on heating with periodic acid gives ………..
(a) methanoic acid
(b) Glyoxal
(c) methanol
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) methanol

Question 17.
Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile radiators?
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) Neopentyl alcohol
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol
Answer:
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol

Question 18.

is an example of …………..
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) cyclic reaction
(c) Williamson reaction
(d) Kolbe reactions
Answer:
(c) Kolbe reactions

Question 19.
One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C₃H₈O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound (A) is ……………
(a) propan – 2 – ol
(b) propan- 1- ol
(c) ethoxy ethane
(d) methoxy ehane
Answer:
(d) methoxy ehane
Hint:

Question 20.
Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot HI?

Answer:

Hint:

Question 21.
Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /
(a) SN¹ reactions
(b) SN² reaction
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) electrophilic substitution
Answer:
(b) SN² reaction

Question 22.
On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
(a) red colour
(b) violet colour
(c) dark green colour
(d) no colouration
Answer:
(b) violet colour

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
IdentIfy the product (s) is / are formed when 1 – methoxy propane is heated with excess HI. Name the mechanism involved in the reaction
Answer:
1-methoxy propane is heated with excess HI, yields two products named as Methyl iodide and 1- iodo propane.
Step 1:

Step 2.

Step 3:

Step 4:

Overall reaction:

This reaction ivvolves nucleophilic substitution reaction mechanism. (SN¹)

Question 2.
Draw the major product formed when 1 – ethoxyprop – 1 – ene is heated with one equivalent of HI
Answer:

This reaction follows SN¹ mechanism because in this reaction the more stable carbocation is formed that is double bonded carbocation. Therefore, the given molecule reacts with HI to form ethanol and 1- iodo prop – 1 – ene.

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable reagent to prepare secondary alcohol with identical group using Grignard reagent.
Answer:
Acetaldehyde reacts with Grignard reagent to give addition product, which on further undergoes acid hydrolysis to yield secondary alcohol, that is isopropyl alcohol.

Question 4.
What is the major product obtained when two moles of ethyl magnesium bromide is treated with methyl benzoate followed by acid hydrolysis
Answer:

Question 5.
Predict the major product, when 2-methyl but – 2 – ene is converted into an alcohol in each of the following methods.

Acid catalysed hydration
Hydroboration
Hydroylation using bayers reagent

Answer:
1. Acid catalysed hydration:

2. Hydroboration.

3. Hydroxylation using bayers reagent:

Question 6.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point and give a reason for your ordering

Butan – 2 – ol, Butan – 1 – SI, 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol
Propan – 1 – ol, propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol, propan – 1, 3 – diol, propan – 2 – ol

Answer:
1. Boiling points increases regularly as the molecular mass increases due to a corresponding increase in their Van der waal’s force of attraction. Among isomeric alcohols 2° – alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decreases in the extent

of H-bonding because of steric hindrance. Thus the boiling point of Butan – 2 – ol is lower than that of Butan – 1 – ol. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol < Butan – 2 – ol < Butan – 1 – ol

2. 2°-alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decrease in the extent of H – bonding because of steric hindrance. Therefore Propan – 1 – ol has higher boiling point than Propan – 2 – ol. Hydrogen group increases, boiling point also increases. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, propan – 2 – ol < Propan – 1 – ol < propan – 1, 3 – diol < propan -1, 2, 3 – triol

Question 7.
Can we use nucelophiles such as NH₃, CH₃O for the Nucleophilic substitution of alcohols
Answer:
1. Increasing order of nucleophilicity,
NH₃ < – OH^⊕ < CH₃O^⊖-

2. Higher electron density will increase the nucleophilicity.

3. Negatively charged species are almost always more nucleophiles than neutral species.

4. RO^⊖ has an alkyl group attached, allowing a greater amount of polarizability. This means oxygen’s lone pairs will be more readily available to reach in RO^⊖ than in OH^⊖. Hence CH₃O – is the better nucleophile for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols. NH₃ cannot act as nucleophiles for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols.

Question 8.
Is it possible to oxidise t – butyl alcohol using acidified dichromate to form a carbonyic compound.
Answer:
3° – alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction under normal conditions, but at elevated temperature, under strong oxidising agent cleavage of C – C bond takes place to give a mixture of carboxylic acid.

Yes, it is possible. t – butyl alcohol is readily oxidsing in acidic solution (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) to a mixture of a ketone and an acid each containing lesser number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol. The oxidation presumably occur via alkenes formed through dehydration of alcohols under acidic conditions.

Question 9.
What happens when 1 – phenyl ethanol is treated with acidified KMnO₄.
Answer:
1 – phenyl ethanol reacts with acidified KMnO₄ to give Acetophenone.

Question 10.
Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.
Mechanism of acid catlaysed dehydration of ethanol:
Step1:
Protonation of ethanol.

Step 2:
Elimination of water molecule.

Question 11.
How is phenol prepared form

chlorobenzene
isopropyl benzene

Answer:
1. From Chioro benzene:
According to Dow’s process, when Chiorobenzene is hydrolysed with 6 – 8% NaOHat 300 bar and 633K in a closed vessel, sodium phenoxide is formed which on treatment with dilute HCl gives phenol.

2. For isopropyl benzene:
On passing air to a mixture of cumene (isopropyl benzene) and 5% aqueous sodium carbonate solution, cumene hydroperoxide is formed by oxidation. It is treated with dilute acid to get phenol and acetone.

Question 12.
Explain Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
Kolbe’s (or) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction:
In this reaction, phenol is first converted into sodium phenoxide which is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic substitution reaction with CO₂. Treatment of sodium phenoxide with CO₂ at 400K, 4 -7 bar pressure followed by acid hydrolysis gives salicylic acid.
Answer:

Question 13.
Writes the chemical equation for Williamson synthesis of 2 – ethoxy – 2 – methyl pentane starting from ethanol and 2 – methyl pentan – 2 – ol
Answer:
Step 1:

Step 2:

Step 3:

Williamson’s synthesis occurs by SN² – mechanism and primary alkyl halides are more reactive in SN² reactions. Therefore ethanol is converted into ethyl bromide.

Question 14.
Write the structure of the aldehyde, carboxylic acid and ester that yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – ol.
Answer:
1. Aldehyde yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – 3n – ol is

2. Acid yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – ol is

3. Ester yield 4 – methylpent – 2 0 en – 1 – ol is

The above-shown compounds undergo a reduction reaction to yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – l – ol.

Question 15.
What is metamerism? Give the structure and IUPAC name of metamers of 2 – methoxy propane
Answer:
Metamerism:
It is a special type of isomerism in which molecules with the same formula, same functional group, but different only in the nature of the alkyl group attached to oxygen.

Ethoxy ethane and 1-methoxy propane are metamers of 2-methoxy propane.

Question 16.
How are the following conversions effected

benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol
benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid

Answer:
1. Conversion of benzyl chloride into benzyl alcohol:

2. Conversion of benzyl alcohol into benzoic acid:

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

Question 18.
O.44g of a monohydric alcohol, when added to methyl magnesium iodide in ether, liberates at STP 112 cm³ of methane with PCC the same alcohol form a carbonyl compound that answers silver mirror test. Identify the compound.
Answer:
0.44g of monohydric alcohol liberates 112 cm³ of methane.

Mass of monohydric alcohol which gives 22400 cm3 of methane = \(\frac{22400 \times 0.44}{112}\) = 88
C₅H₁₂O molecular fórmula has mass number 88 and it shows eight possible isomers. But neopentyl alcohol reacts with PCC to form neopentyl aldehyde, which shows positive silver mirror test. Therefore, compound is. neopentyl alcohol (or) 2, 2 – dimethyl propan – l – ol.

Question 19.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

Question 20.
Phenol is distilled with Zn dust gives (A) followed by friedel – crafts alkylation with propyl chloride to give a compound B, B on oxidation gives (C). Identify A,B and C.
Answer:

Question 21.

Identify A, B, C, D and write the complete equation.
Answer:

Question 22.
What will be the product for the following reaction

Answer:

Question 23.
How will you convert acetylene into n – butyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question 24.
Predict the product A, B, X and Y in the following sequence of reaction

Answer:

Question 25.
3,3 – dimethylbutan – 2 – ol on treatment with conc. H₂SO₄ to give tetramethyl ethylene as a major product. Suggest a suitable mechanisms
Answer:

According to Saytzeff’s rule the dehydration of 3,3 – dimethylbutan – 2 – ol gives a mixture of alkenes. But the secondary carbocation formed in this reaction undergoes rearrangement to form a more stable tertiary

carbocation which further, undergoes to 13 – elimination leads more stable product, that is 2,3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene (more yield). According to Saytzeff’s nile, 2, 3 – dimethyl pent- 2 – ene is the major product.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Classify the following alcohols as 1⁰, 2⁰, and 3⁰ and give their IUPAC Names.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write all the possible isomers of alcohol having the molecular formula C₁₅H₁₂O and their IUPAC names.
Answer:
Eight isomers are possible for C₁₅H₁₂O. They are,

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable carbonyl compound for the preparation of pent – 2 – en – 1 ol using LiAlH₄.
Answer:

Question 4.
2 – methylpropan – 2 – ene
Answer:

Question 5.
How will you prepare the following using Grignard reagent.

t – butyl alcohol
allyl alcohol

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the products in the following reactions. Write their IUPAC names and mention the mechanism involved in the reactions.

Answer:
1.
This reaction involves E₁ – mechanism.

2.
This reaction ivolves SN² – mechanims.

3. Step 1:

Step 2:

This reaction involves SN² Mechanims.

Question 7.
What is the major product obtained when 2,3 – dimethyl pentan – 3 – ol is heated in the presence of H₂SO₄
Answer:

According to Saytzeff’s rule, 2, 3 – dimethyl pent – 2 – ene is the major product.

Question 8.
Which of the following set of reactants will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

Answer:
Step 1:

step 2:

Chemically both sets equally possible. In Set – 1, the Br-atom is activated by the electron-withdrawing effect of the – NO₂ group. Therefore nucleophilic attack by CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.

Step 1:

Step 2:

Inset – 2, nucleophilic attack by 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide ion on methyl bromide gives the desired ether.

Since alkyl halides (CH₃Br) are more reactive than aryl halides in nucleophilic substitution reactions, therefore set – 2 reactants are preferred.

Question 9.
What happens when m – cresol is treated with an acidic solution of sodium dichromate?
Answer:

When m – cresol is treated with acidic solution of sodium dichromate it gives 4 – hydroxy benzoic acid.

Question 10.
When phenol is treated with propan – 2 – ol in the presence of HF, Friedel – Craft reaction takes place. Identify the products.
Answer:

Question 11.
Given the IUPAC name for the following ethers and classify them as simple or mixed.
Answer:

Question 12.
1. Which of the following reaction will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

4 – nitro – 1 – bromobenzene + sodium methoxide.
4 – nitrosodium phenoxide + bromomethane

Answer:
1. Set – 1:

2. set – 2:

Chemically both sets equally possible. In Set – 1, the Br – atom is activated by electron-withdrawing effect of – NO₂ group. Therefore nucleophilic attack by CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.
Step 1:

Step 2:

In set – 2, nucleophilic attack by 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide ion on methyl bromide gives the desired ether.

Since alkyl halides (CH₃Br) are more reactive than aryl halides in nucleophilic substitution reactions, therefore set – 2 reactants are preferred.

Question 13.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acid strength. propan – 1 – ol, 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol, 3 – nitrophenol, 3,5 – dinitrophenol, phenol, 4 – methyiphenol.
Answer:
Phenols are stronger acids than alcohols because the phenoxide ion left after the removal of proton is stabilized by resonance while the alkoxide ion left after the removal of a proton from alcohol is not stabilized. Thus propan – 1 – ol is much weaker acid than any phenol.

Thus propan- 1 – ol is a much weaker acid than any phenol. We know that electron-donating groups decrease the acidic character and stronger is the electron-donating group, weaker is the phenol.

Compare to propan – 1 – ol, 4 – methyl phenol is stronger acidic character. But comparing phenol and 4-methyl phenol, phenol is stronger acidic. Since electron-withdrawing groups increase the acidic character of phenols and the effect is more pronounced at the para position than at the meta position.

Therefore 4 – nitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3 – nitrophenol. Further, as the number of electron-withdrawing groups increases the acidic strength further increases. Therefore 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3, 5 – dintiro phenol. It may be noted here that although the two nitro groups in 3, 5 – dinitrophenol are at m – position with respect to OH group,

their combined effect is however greater than one nitro group at p – position. Therefore 3, 5 – dinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 4-nitro phenol. Thus, the overall increasing order of acid strength is. Propan – 1 – 01 < 4 – methyl phenol < phenol < 3 – nitrophenol < 3, 5 – dinitrophenol < 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol.

Question 14.
1 mole of HI is allowed to react with t – butyl methyl ether. Identify the product and write down the mechanism of the reaction.
Answer:
Step 1:

Step 2

Step 3:

Overall reaction:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is trihydric alcohol?
(a) Glycol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Sorbitol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 2.
Identify the monohydric unsaturated alcohol.

Answer:

Question 3.
Which one of the following is named as sorbital?

Answer:

Question 4.
Which one of the following is primary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 5.
Which of the following is dihydric alcohol?
(a) Ethenol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol
(d) Propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of secondary (2°) alcohol?
(a) Propan – 2 – ol
(b) Phenyl methanol
(c) Ethenol
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(a) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 7.
Which one of the following is tertiary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 8.
Which of the following is a primary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 9.
Which one of the following find application in proper functioning of our eyes?
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Retinol
(c) Phenol
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(b) Retinol

Question 10.
Which is the storage of vitamin – A?
(a) Retinol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(a) Retinol

Question 11.
The important component in our cell membrane is ………….
(a) Retinol
(b) Phenol
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(c) Cholesterol

Question 12.
Which acts as an additive to petrol?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(b) Ethanol

Question 13.
Which one of the following vitamin is stored in Retinol?
(a) Vitamin – B₁₂
(b) Vitamin – A
(c) Vitamin – C
(a) Vitamin – D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin – A

Question 14.
Which alcohol is used as skin cleanser for injection?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) 1 -propanol
(d) 2-propanol
Answer:
(d) 2-propanol

Question 15.
Which one of the following is used as an industrial solvent?
(a) Methanol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(a) Methanol

Question 16.
2 – methyl but – 3 – en – 2 – ol belongs to which type of alcohol?
(a) 3° alcohol
(b) 2° alcohol
(c) 1° alcohol
(d) Aromatic alcohol
Answer:
(a) 3° alcohol

Question 17.
The IUPAC name of

(a) 1 – methyl – 2 – propanol
(b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol
(c) Tertibutyl alcohol
(d) 2 – propanol
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol

Question 18.
The TUPAC name of CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH is …………
(a) Allyl alcohol
(b) Propenc – 2 – ol
(c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI
(d) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer:
(c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI

Question 19.
In methanol, – OH group attached to carbon is ………..
(a) sp hybridised atom
(b) sp³ hybridised atom
(c) sp² hybridised atom
(d) dsp² hybridised atom
Answer:
(c) sp² hybridised atom

Question 20.
Which one of the following is C – O – H bond angle in methanol?
(a) 109.5°
(b) 104°
(c) 90°
(d) 108.9°
Answer:
(d) 108.9°

Question 21.
Primary alkyl halides undergoes substitution by ……….
(a) SN¹ reaction
(b) SN_i reaction
(c) SN² reaction
(d) SN reaction
Answer:
(c) SN² reaction

Question 22.
What is the product formed when propene is hydrolysed in the presence of mineral acid?
(a) Propan – 1 – ol
(b) Propan – 2 – ol
(c) Iso butyl alcohol
(d) 2 – mcthyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(b) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 23.
The product formed when phenyl magnesium bromide treated with methanal and hydrolysed is ………..
(a) Phenyl methanal
(b) Phenol
(c) Phenyl methanol
(d) Benzyl benzoate
Answer:
(c) Phenyl methanol

Question 24.
To get Butan – 2 – ol, Ethyl magnesium bromide is treated with followed by hydrolysis.
(a) HCHO
(b) CH₃COCH₃
(c) CO₂
(d) CH₃CHO
Answer:
(d) CH₃CHO

Question 25.
Which one of the following is formed when Butyl magnesium bromide is treated with propanone followed by hydrolysis?
(a) Tertiary butyl alcohol
(b) Isopropyl alcohol
(c) 2 – methyl hexan – 2 – ol
(d) Propan – 1 -ol
Answer:
(c) 2 – methyl hexan – 2 – ol

Question 26.
Which one of the following is used to get propan – 2 – ol by the reaction with CH₃MgBr?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethyl in ethanoate
(d) Propanone
Answer:
(c) Ethyl in ethanoate

Question 27.
Crotanaldehyde on reaction with LiAlH₄ and water produces
(a) Ethanol
(b) Propan – 2 – ol
(c) Methanol
(d) But – 2 – en – 1 – ol
Answer:
(d) But – 2 – en – 1 – ol

Question 28.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the conversion of Bcnzoic acid to Benzyl alcohol?
(a) Ni
(b) LiAIH₄ / H₂O
(c) Sn / HCI
(d) Zn / NaOH
Answer:
(b) LiAIH₄ / H₂O

Question 29.
What is the product formed when acetone is treated with LiA1H4 and 1120?
(a) Isobutyl alcohol
(b) n – butyl alcohol
(c) Propan – 2 – ol
(d) Propan – 1 – ol
Answer:
(c) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 30.
Which one of the following is formed when ethene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethylene glycol
(c) Propane – 1, 2 – diol
(d) Glycerol
Answer:
(b) Ethylene glycol

Question 31.
Which one of the following is named as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(b) acidified KMnO₄
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
(d) LiAlH₄
Answer:
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄

Question 32.
The alkaline hydrolysis of fats to give glycerol is known as …………
(a) Esterification
(b) Hydroboration
(c) Hydration
(d) Saponification
Answer:
(d) Saponification

Question 33.
Which one of the following alcohol reacts immediately with Lucas reagent?
(a) Primary alcohol
(b) Tertiary alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Secondary alcohol
Answer:
(b) Tertiary alcohol

Question 34.
Which one of the following is called Lucas reagent?
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(b) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous A1CI₃
(c) LiAIH₄ + H₂O
(d) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
Answer:
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 35.
Which alcohol gives red colour in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) 2° alcohol
(b) 3° alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) 1° alcohol
Answer:
(d) 1° alcohol

Question 36.
Which colour is given by secondary alcohol in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
Answer:
(c) Blue

Question 37.
Which mechanism is followed in the reaction of 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol with HBr?
(a) E₁ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) SN² mechanism
(d) SN¹ mechanism
Answer:
(d) SN¹ mechanism

Question 38.
Which mechanism is followed in the conversion of ethanol to bromoethane by HBr?
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) SN² mechanism
(c) E₁ mechanism
(d) E₂ mechanism
Answer:
(c) E₁ mechanism

Question 39.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the reaction of methanol with thionyl chloride?
(a) Pyridine
(b) pyrrole
(c) THF
(d) Nickel
Answer:
(a) Pyridine

Question 40.
The mechanism of the reaction of ethanol with PCl₃ is ……………..
(a) SN¹
(b) SN²
(c) E₂
(d) E₁
Answer:
(b) SN²

Question 41.
Which one of the following reagent is used in the conversion of Ethanol to ethene?
(a) Zn + Hg / H₂O
(b) LiAlH₄
(c) acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄

Question 42.
Primary alcohol undergoes dehydration by ………
(a) E₁ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) SN¹ mechanism
(d) SN² mechanism
Answer:
(b) E₂ mechanism

Question 43.
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration by ……….
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) E₁ mechanism
(d) SN² mechanism
Answer:
(c) E₁ mechanism

Question 44.
Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of alcohols in the dehydration reaction?
(a) 1° < 2° < 3°
(b) 2° < 1° < 3°
(c) 3° < 2° < 1°
(d) 3° < 1° < 2°
Answer:
(a) 1° < 2° < 3°

Question 45.
Which of the following is the product formed when 3,3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol reacts with conc.H₂SO₄?
(a) 2, 3 – dirnethyl but – 1 – ene
(b) 2,3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene
(c) 3, 3 – dimethyl but – 1 – ene
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 46.
The oxidising agent used to prepare aldehyde (or) ketone from alcohol, the reagent used is …………..
(a) acidified Na₂Cr₂O₇
(b) alkaline KMnO₄
(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate
(d) conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate

Question 47.
The product formed when propan – 2 – ol is treated with dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) and oxalyl chloride followed by the addition of Et₃N is ……….
(a) Oxalyl chloride
(b) Propanal
(c) Ethanoic aicd
(d) Propanone
Answer:
(d) Propanone

Question 48.
Which reaction is used to convert alcohol to ketone/aldehyde in the presence of DMSO?
(a) Lucas test
(b) Swern oxidation
(c) Biological oxidation
(d) Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
(b) Swern oxidation

Question 49.
Which product is formed when propan- 1 – ol is oxidised by pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)?
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Propane
(d) Propene
Answer:
(a) Propanal

Question 50.
Which one of the enzyme is produced in liver to detoxify the alcohol?
(a) Diastase
(b) Zymase
(c) Invertase
(d) Dehydrogenase alcohol
Answer:
(d) Dehydrogenase alcohol

Question 51.
What is ADH and NAD?
(a) Alcohol dehydrogenase and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(b) Acid dehydration and Nitrogen addition
(c) Alcohol dehydration and Nicotine addiction
(d) Adeninc hydrogenase and Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Answer:
(a) Alcohol dehydrogenase and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

Question 52.
What is the main reaction takes place when 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol reacts with Cu at 573 K?
(a) Dehydrogenation
(b) Oxidation
(c) Dehydration
(d) Hydrogenation
Answer:
(c) Dehydration

Question 53.
Name the product formed when tertiary butyl alcohol is treated with Cu at 573 K?
(a) 2 – methyl prop – 1 – ene
(b) 2 – methyl prop – 2 – ene
(c) propene
(d) 1 – butene
Answer:
(a) 2 – methyl prop – 1 – ene

Question 54.
Which one of the following product is formed when propan – 2 – ol is treated with Cu at 573 K?
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Propan – 1 – ol
(d) Propane
Answer:
(b) Propanone

Question 55.
What is the name of the reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid?
(a) Esterification
(b) Saponification
(c) Ethenfication
(d) Hydroxylation
Answer:
(a) Esterification

Question 56.
Which one of the following is formed when ethan – 1, 2 – diol is treated with PI₃?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyne
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(c) Ethene

Question 57.
Which reagent is used to convert ethylene glycol to ethylene?
(a) HI
(b) I₂
(c) PI₃
(d) Conc. H₂ SO₄
Answer:
(c) PI₃

Question 58.
What is the product formed when ethylene glycol is heated at 773 K?
(a) Ethanal
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethane
(d) Oxirane
Answer:
(d) Oxirane

Question 59.
Which reagent is used to convert ethan – 1, 2 – diol into Ethanal?
(a) Anhydrous ZnCI₂
(b) Dilute. H₂SO₄
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(c) Either (a) or (b)

Question 60.
Name the product formed when ethan- 1, 2-diol is treated with anhydrous ZnCl₂.
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethane
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(d) Ethanal

Question 61.
Which one of the following is formed when ethane – 1, 2 – diol is treated with Conc. H₂ SO₄?
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethanoic acid
(d) Ethene
Answer:
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
(a) Methanal
(b) Methanol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(a) Methanal

Question 63.
Identify the product formed when glycerol is treated with nitric acid and conc. H₂SO₄?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Glyceryl triacetate
(c) Prop – 2 – enal
(d) Glyceric acid
Answer:
(a) Nitroglycerine

Question 64.
What will be the product formed when propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol is treated with KHSO₄?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) TNG
(c) Prop – 2 – enal
(d) Allyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Nitroglycerine

Question 65.
Oxidation of glycerol with dil.HNO₃ gives ………
(a) Meso oxalic acid
(b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid
(c) Glycerose
(d) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone
Answer:
(b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid

Question 66.
Oxidation of glycerol with Fenton reagent gives ………..
(a) Glyceraldehyde + Dihydroxyacetone
(b) Glyceric acid + Tartronic acid
(c) Meso oxalic acid
(d) Oxalic acid
Answer:
(a) Glyceraldehyde + Dihydroxyacetone

Question 67.
Which one of the following products is formed when glycerol is oxidised with acidified KMnO₄?
(a) Meso oxalic acid
(b) Oxalic acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Glyceric acid
Answer:
(b) Oxalic acid

Question 68.
Which one of the following is used as a solvent for paints, varnishes and gum?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanol
(c) Methanal
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(b) Methanol

Question 69.
Which one of the following is used as fuel for aeroplanes?
(a) Methanol + Ethanol
(b) Ethanol + Petrol
(c) Ethanol + Propanol
(d) Butanol + Methanol
Answer:
(b) Ethanol + Petrol

Question 70.
Which one of the following is used as a beverage as well as a preservative for biological specimens?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Ethanol

Question 71.
Which one of the following is used as an anti-freezer in automobile radiators?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Ethylene glycol
Answer:
(d) Ethylene glycol

Question 72.
Which one of the following is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Ethylene glycol
Answer:
(a) Glycerol

Question 73.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of cosmetics and transparent soaps?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 74.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of explosive dynamite and cordite by mixing it with clay?
(a) Glycol
(b) Glycerol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Benzaldehyde
Answer:
(b) Glycerol

Question 75.
Which alcohols is used in making printing inks and stamp pad ink?
(a) Glycol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 76.
Except which alcohol, other alcohols are weaker acid than water?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Phenol
(c) Methanol
(d) Propanol
Answer:
(c) Methanol

Question 77.
Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidity in alcohol?
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol
(b) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol
(c) 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol
(d) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol
Answer:
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol

Question 78.
Which one of the following is more acidic?
(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Phenol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 79.
The JUPAC name of Phioroglucinol is ………….
(a) 4 – methyl phenol
(b) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
(d) 1, 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene
Answer:
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene

Question 80.
The other name of 1 , 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is called ……….
(a) Phloroglucinol
(b) Quinol
(c) Pyrogallol
(d) Hydroxy quinol
Answer:
(c) Pyrogallol

Question 81.
The other name of 3, 5 – dihydroxy toluene is known as …………
(a) Orcinol
(b) Quinol
(c) Pyrogallol
(d) Resorcinol
Answer:
(a) Orcinol

Question 82.
The IUPAC name of Catechol is known as ………..
(a) 1, 3 – dihydroxy benzene
(b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene

Question 83.
The name of

is …………
(a) Phloroglucinol
(b) pyrogallol
(c) Quinol
(d) Resorcinol
Answer:
(a) Phloroglucinol

Question 84.
The name of

(a) Pyrogallol
(b) Hydroxy cresol
(c) Orcinol
(d) Phloroglucinol
Answer:
(c) Orcinol

Question 85.
The reaction of chiorobenzene with NaOH is known as ………..
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Riemcr – Ticmann reaction
(c) Dow’s process
(d) Cumene synthesis
Answer:
(c) Dow’s process

Question 86.
Which one of the product is formed when benzene and propene is heated at 523K?
(a) Cumene
(b) 2 – ethyl benzene
(c) 2 – propyl benzene
(d) Ethyl enthanoate
Answer:
(a) Cumene

Question 87.
What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with zinc dust?
(a) Cumene
(b) Toluene
(c) Ethyl benzene
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(d) Benzene

Question 88.
The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ……….
(a) Dow’s process
(b) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(d) Williamson ether synthesis
Answer:
(b) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 89.
Name the product formed when phenol is heated with ammonia in the presence of anhydrous
ZnCl₂.
(a) Benzene
(b) Aniline
(c) Anisole
(d) Phenylacetate
Answer:
(b) Aniline

Question 90.
What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with benzoyl chloride in the presence of a base?
(a) Phenylacetate
(b) Phenyl ethanoate
(c) Phenyl benzoate
(d) Benzyl acetate
Answer:
(c) Phenyl benzoate

Question 91.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇?
(a) Benzoic acid
(b) Phenyl amine
(c) Phenylacetate
(d) 1, 4 – benzoquinone
Answer:
(d) 1, 4 – benzoquinone

Question 92.
Hydrogenation of phenol in the presence of Nickel gives ………
(a) cyclo hexane
(b) cyclo hexanol
(c) benzene
(d) cumene
Answer:
(b) cyclo hexanol

Question 93.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol reacts with a mixture of Conc. HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄?
(a) Ortho nitrophenol
(b) Para nitrophenol
(c) 1, 2 – dinitrophenol
(d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol
Answer:
(d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol

Question 94.
What will be the product formed when phenol reacts with bromine water?
(a) 0 – bromo phenol
(b) P – bromo phenol
(c) 1, 3, 5 – tri bromo phenol
(d) 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol
Answer:
(d) 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol

Question 95.
The conversion reaction of phenol of salicylic acid is known as
(a) Schottan – Baumann reaction
(b) Riemer – Ticmann reaction
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction
(d) Williamson’s synthesis
Answer:
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction

Question 96.
The reagent used for the conversion of phenol into salicylaldehyde is ………..
(a) CHCI₃ / NaOH
(b) I₂/ KOH
(c) Zn
(d) Br₂ / CCl₄
Answer:
(a) CHCI₃ / NaOH

Question 97.
What is the name of the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali?
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Cumene synthesis
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction
(d) Schottan – Baumann reaction
Answer:
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction

Question 98.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with chloroform and sodium hydroxide.
(a) Chiorobenzene
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Salicylic acid
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) Salicylaldehyde

Question 99.
What are the reagents required to prepare phenolphthalein?
(a) Phenol + Phthalic acid
(b) Phenol + Benzene
(c) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride
(d) Phenol + Aniline
Answer:
(c) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride

Question 100.
Which one of the following is formed when Phenol reacts with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) P – hydroxy diazo phenol
(b) P – hydroxy azobenzene
(c) O – hydroxy benzene
(d) O – hydroxy azobenzene
Answer:
(b) P – hydroxy azobenzene

Question 101.
Which reagent gives purple colouration with phenol?
(a) Anhydrous AlCl₃
(b) Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(c) Neutral FeCI₃
(d) HCI + ZnCI₂
Answer:
(c) Neutral FeCI₃

Question 102.
Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with ………..
(a) Methanol
(b) Methanal
(c) Ethanal
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(b) Methanal

Question 103.
Which one of the following is used as an antiseptic – carbolic lotion and carbolic soaps?
(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Methanol
(c) Glycol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(d) Phenol

Question 104.
The product formed when formaldehyde reacts with phenol is ……..
(a) Bakelite
(b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Azodye
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(a) Bakelite

Question 105.
Which one of the following is a simple ether?

Answer:

Question 106.
Which one of the following is an example for mixed ether?
(a) Methoxy methane
(b) Phenoxy benzene
(c) Methoxy benzene
(d) Ethoxy ethane
Answer:
(c) Methoxy benzene

Question 107.
The IUPAC name of

(a) 1 – methoxyl isopropyl ethane
(b) 2 – methoxy – 2 – methyl propane
(c) 2, 2 – dimethyl 2- methoxy ethane
(d) Methoxy tertiary butane
Answer:
(b) 2 – methoxy – 2 – methyl propane

Question 108.
The IUPAC name of C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅ is ……..
(a) Diphenyl ether
(b) Phenoxy methane
(c) Phenoxy benzene
(d) Ethoxy benzene
Answer:
(c) Phenoxy benzene

Question 109.
Which one of the following is not a simple ether?
(a) C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
(b) CH₃ – O – CH₃
(c) C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅
(d) C₂H₅ – O – C₂H₅
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃

Question 110.
What is the name of the reaction when ethanol is treated with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K?
(a) Intermolecular dehydration
(b) Intramolecular dehydration
(c) Dehydrogenation
(d) Dehydro halogenation
Answer:
(a) Intermolecular dehydration

Question 111.
Identify the product formed when ethanol is treated with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K?
(a) Ethene
(b) Ethane
(c) 2 – butanol
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(d) Diethyl ether

Question 112.
The reaction of sodium methoxide with ethyl bromide follows
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) SN² mechanism
(c) E₁ reaction
(d) E₂ reaction
Answer:
(b) SN² mechanism

Question 113.
The product formed when tertiary butyl bromide and sodium methode are reacted together is ……….
(a) 2 – methyl – 2 – methoxy propane
(b) ethoxy ethane
(c) 2 – methyl – prop – 1 – ene
(d) 2 – methyl but – 1 – ene
Answer:
(c) 2 – methyl – prop – 1 – ene

Question 114.
Identify the product formed when diazomethane reacts with Ethanol in the presence of HBF₄?
(a) Methoxy ethane
(b) Ethoxy ethane
(c) Diethyl ether
(d) Ethyl isopropyl ether
Answer:
(a) Methoxy ethane

Question 115.
What arc the products formed when methoxy ethanc is treated with hydroiodic acid?
(a) Phenol + iodomethane
(b) Todomethane + Ethanol
(c) lodoethane + Methanol
(d) lodobenzene + Methane
Answer:
(b) Todomethane + Ethanol

Question 116.
What are the products formed when methoxy benzene is treated with HI?
(a) C₆H₅OH + CH₄
(b) CH₃I + C₆H₆
(c) C₆H₅ OH + CH₃I
(d) C₂H₅I + C₆H₆
Answer:
(c) C₆H₅ OH + CH₃I

Question 117.
The mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis is …………
(a) E₁
(b) E₂
(c) SN²
(d) SN¹
Answer:
(c) SN²

Question 118.
When diethyl ether is exposed to excess oxygen, the reaction taken place is …………
(a) reduction
(b) hydrogenation
(c) dehydrogenation
(d) auto oxidation
Answer:
(d) auto oxidation

Question 119.
Which one of the following is formed when Diethyl ether is treated with dil.H₂SO₄?
(a) CH₃CH₂HSO₄
(b) CH₃ – CH₂OH
(c) CH₂ = CH₂
(d) CH₃ – CH₃
Answer:
(b) CH₃ – CH₂OH

Question 120.
Which one of the following is formed when diethyl ether reacts with Cl2 in the presence of light?

Answer:

Question 121.

In the above reaction A and B are
(a) CH₃ CH₂ OH + CH₃ – CH₂ Cl
(b) CH₃ – CH₂Cl + CH₃ COOH
(c) CH₃ COOH + CH₃ COOCH₃
(d) CH₃ – CH₂CI + CH₃COOCH₂CH₃
Answer:
(d) CH₃ – CH₂CI + CH₃COOCH₂CH₃

Question 122.
Anisole undergoes bromination with Br₂ in acetic acid in the absence of catalyst, the major product formed is ………..
(a) O – bromoan isole
(b) P – bromoan isole
(c) Benzyl bromide
(d) Bromo benzene
Answer:
(b) P – bromoan isole

Question 123.
Anisole reacts with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI₃ and CS₂ to give ……..
(a) 2 – methoxy toluene
(b) 4 – methoxy toluene
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 124.
Which one of the following is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethoxy ethane
(c) Methoxy ethane
(d) Methoxy propane
Answer:
(b) Ethoxy ethane

Question 125.
Which one of the following is a precursor to the synthesis of perfumes and insecticide pheromones?
(a) Phenol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Anisole
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(c) Anisole

Question 126.
Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?
(a) (CH₃)₂C CH₂
(b) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
(d) CH₃ – CH = CH₂
Answer:
(a) (CH₃)₂C CH₂

Question 127.
Ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
(a) the dipolar character of ethers
(b) alcohols having resonance structures
(c) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
Answer:
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

Question 128.
An organic compound A containing C, H and O has a pleasant odour. On boiling A with Conc.H₂SO₄, colourless gas is produced which decolourises bromine water and alkaline KMnO₄. The organic liquid A is ………..
(a) C₂H₅COOCH₃
(b) C₂HOH
(c) C₂H₅CI
(d) C₂H₆
Answer:
(b) C₂HOH

Question 129.
Chloroethane reacts with X to form diethyl ether. What is X?
(a) NaOH
(b) H₂SO₄
(c) C₂H₅ONa
(d) C₂H₅Cl
Answer:
(c) C₂H₅ONa

Question 130.
In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound D is ……….
(a) Butanal
(b) n-butyl alcohol
(c) propan – 1 – ol
(d) Propanal
Answer:
(c) propan – 1 – ol

Question 131.
Propan – 1 – ol and Propan – 2 – ol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(a) PCI₅
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation with K₂ Cr₂0₇
(d) Ozonolysis
Answer:
(c) Oxidation with K₂ Cr₂0₇

Question 132.
Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except
(a) Sodium
(b) NaOH / I₂
(c) Neutral FeCI₃
(d) Br₂ / H₂O
Answer:
(a) Sodium

Question 133.
in cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators to …………
(a) bring down the specific heat of water
(b) lower the viscosity
(c) reduce the viscosity
(d) make water a better lubricant
Answer:
(a) bring down the specific heat of water
(i.e.) lowering down the freezing point of water.

Question 134.
Main constituent of dynamite is ………..
(a) nitro benzene
(b) nitroglycerine
(c) Picric acid
(d) TNT
Answer:
(b) nitroglycerine

Question 135.
Diethyl ether finds use in medicine as …………
(a) a pain killer
(b) a hypnotic
(c) an antiseptic
(d) an anaesthetic
Answer:
(d) an anaesthetic

Question 136.
Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives
(a) Diphenyl ether
(b) P – hydroxy azo benzene
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(b) P – hydroxy azo benzene

Question 137.
The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with ZnCl₂ + Conc.HCl at room temperature is ………..
(a) Rutan – 1- ol
(b) Butan – 2- ol
(c) 2 – methyl – propan – 1 – ol
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol

Question 138.
Propanone is the product obtained by dehydrogenation of …………
(a) Propan – 2 – ol
(b) Propan – 1 – ol
(c) Propanal
(d) n – propyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 139.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Phenol is less acidic than ethanol
(b) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
(c) Phenol is more acidic than carboxylic acid
(d) Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid
Answer:
(b) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol

Question 140.
The reaction of ethylene glycol with Pl₃ gives ………..
(a) CH₂ = CHI
(b) ICH₂ – CH₂I
(c) CH₂ = CH2₂
(d) CH = CH
Answer:
(a) CH₂ = CHI

Question 141.
During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with Conc. H₂SO₄, the initiation step is ………..
(a) protonatlon of alcohol
(b) formation of carbocation
(c) elimination of water
(d) formation of carbanion
Answer:
(a) protonatlon of alcohol

Question 142.
Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO₂ at 400 K and 4 – 7 bar pressure to give ………
(a) Sodium salicylate
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Catechol
(d) Pyrogallol
Answer:
(a) Sodium salicylate

Question 143.
The reaction of C₂ H₅OH with Cone. H₂ SO₄ does not give ………..
(a) Ethylene
(b) Diethyl ether
(c) Acetylene
(d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
Answer:
(c) Acetylene

Question 144.
Which of the following gives ketone on oxidation?

Answer:

Question 145.
Phenol is treated with Br₂ /H₂O and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is …………
(a) m – bromo phenol
(b) 2,4 – dibromo phenol
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol
(d) 1, 2 – dibromo benzene
Answer:
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol

Question 146.
Which compound has the highest boiling point?
(a) Acetone
(b) Diethyl ether
(c) Methanol
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(d) Ethanol

Question 147.
When phenol reacts with NH₃ in the presence of ZnCl₂ at 300°C, it gives ………..
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) 1° amine

Question 148.
Azo dyes are prepared from …………
(a) Aniline + Phenol
(b) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride
(c) Phenol + Benzene diazonium chloride
(d) Aniline + Phthalic anhydride
Answer:
(c) Phenol + Benzene diazonium chloride

Question 149.
A compound that easily undergoes bromination is ………….
(a) Phenol
(b) Toluene
(c) Benzene
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 150.
When glycerol is treated with P₂O₅ (or) KHSO₄ the product formed is ……….
(a) CH₂ = CH – CH₃
(b) CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH
(c) CH₂ = CH – CHO
(d) CH₂ = C = CH₂
Answer:
(c) CH₂ = CH – CHO

Question 151.
The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions is ………….
(a) CH₃ – O – C₂H₅
(b) C₆H₅ – O – CH₃
(c) C₂H₅ – O – C₂H₅
(d) CH₃ – O – CH₃
Answer:
(b) C₆H₅ – O – CH₃

Question 152.
With anhydrous ZnCl₂, ethylene glycol gives …………
(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Acetylene
(c) Acetaldehyde
(d) Dioxan
Answer:
(c) Acetaldehyde

Question 153.
Fats on alkaline hydrolysis give …………
(a) Oil + Soap
(b) Soap + Glycol
(c) Soap + Ester
(d) Soap + Glycerol
Answer:
(d) Soap + Glycerol

Question 154.

B. in this reaction A and B are respectively
(a) Alkene, Alkyne
(b) Alkanal, Alkene
(c) Alkyne, Alkanal
(d) Alkyne, Alkene
Answer:
(b) Alkanal, Alkene

Question 155.
The oxygen atom in ether is …………
(a) very active
(b) replaceable
(c) comparatively inert
(d) less active
Answer:
(c) comparatively inert

Question 156.
Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives ………….
(a) O – cresol
(b) P – cresol
(c) Phioroglucinol
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(c) Phioroglucinol

Question 157.
Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of RMgX with …………
(a) CO₂
(b) HCHO
(c) CH₃CHO
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(b) HCHO

Question 158.
The dehydration of alcohol is an example of ………….
(a) Bimolecular elimination reaction
(b) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(c) Unimolecular elimination reaction
(d) internal substitution reaction
Answer:
(c) Unimolecular elimination reaction

Question 159.
Ethanol is converted into Ethoxy ethane ………….
(a) by heating with cone. H₂SO₄ at 443 K
(b) by heating with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K
(c) by heating with excess oxygen
(d) by heating with hydrogen
Answer:
(b) by heating with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K

Question 160.
Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

Answer:

II. Fill in the blanks

Cholesteryl alcohol commonly known as …………. is an important component in our ………….
…………. the storage form of vitamin A, finds application in proper functioning of our eyes.
Methanol s used as an …………. solvent.
Isopropyl alcohol is used as …………. for injection.
CH₂CHOH is called as ………….
An example of hexahydric alcohol is ………….
The IUPAC name of glycerol is ………….
The TUPAC name of Neopentyl alcohol is ………….
The TUPAC name of CH₂ CH – CHOH is ………….
In methanol, the – OH group attached to …………. hybridised carbon atom.
The bond angle C – OH in methanol is ………….
alkyl halides undergo substitution by SN² reaction whereas …………. and …………. alkyl halides undergo substitution by SN¹ reaction.
Addition of H₂O to an unsymmetric alkene in the process of sulphuric acid follows ………….
Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent to aldehydes/ketones take place in the presence …………. followed by acid hydrolysis gives .
With RMgx …………., …………. gives l°alcohol.
Butyl Magnesium bromide reacts with propanone to give ………….
…………. is used to prepare a secondary alcohol with identical group.
Hydroboration yields an …………. product.
…………. is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol by reduction reaction of carbonyl compound.
…………. occurs in natural fats and in long chain fatty acids in form of triglycerides.
The alkaline hydrolysis of fats gives glycerol and the reaction is known as ………….
In Lucas test …………. alcohol do not react at room temperature.
In Victor Meyer’s test no colouration will be observed in case of ………….
Alkyl halide formation from primary alcohol follows …………. mechanism.
Alkyl halide formation from tertiary alcohol follows …………. mechanism.
The reaction between methanol and thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine follows…………. mechanism.
…………. alcohols undergo dehydration by E₂ mechanism whereas alcohols undergo dehydration by E₁ mechanism.
To stop the oxidation reaction of alcohol at aldehyde / ketone stage …………. is used as an oxidising agent.
In …………. oxidation dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as an oxidising agent.
The fermentation of food consumed by an animal produces …………..
The detoxify the alcohol, the liver produces an enzyme called ………….
…………. present in the animals act as an oxidising agent and …………. catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohol into non-toxic aldehydes.
Ethylene glycol, when heated to 773 K, it forms ………….
The reagent used to convert ethane 1, 2 -diol to ethanal is ………….
When Ethane – 1, 2 -diol is treated with conc.H₂S0₄, it forms ………….
The intermediate product formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid is ………….
The final product formed when glycol reacts with periodic acid is ………….
The IUPAC name of Acrolein (or) CH₂ = CH – CHO is ………….
Oxidation of glycerol with dilute nitric acid gives …………. and ………….
Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives ………….
Oxidation of glycerol with Fenton’s reagent gives ………….
LTA is known as ………….
Oxidation of glycerol with acidified KMnO₄ gives ………….
FeSO₄ + H₂O₂ is called ………….
…………. is used as a substitute for petrol under the name and used as fuel for aeroplane.
…………. is used as an anti-freezer in automobile radiators.
…………. is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages.
…………. is used in the manufacture of transparent soap, printing ink and stamp pad ink.
Glycerol is used in the manufacture of explosives like and by mixing with ………….
Except …………. all other alcohols are weaker acid than water.
The electron withdrawing groups such as – NO₂, – Cl enhances the acidic nature of phenol especially when they are present at …………. positions.
The LUPAC name of hydroxy quinol is ………….
The IUPAC name of orcinol is ………….
The other name of 1, 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is ………….
The reaction of chioro benzene with aqueous NaOH to give phenol is known as ………….
The product formed when benzene diazonium chloride is boiled with hot water is ………….
The IUPAC name of curnene is ………….
Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with ………….
The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ………….
The reagent used in the conversion of phenol to 1, 4 – benzo quinone is ………….
When phenol is treated with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄, the product formed is ………….
Phenol reacts with bromine water to give a precipitate of ………….
The conversion reaction of phenol to salicylic acid is known as ………….
The conversion reaction of phenol into salicylaldehyde is known as ………….
The product formed when phenol is treated with phthalic anhydride in the presence of Conc.H₂SO₄ is ………….
…………. dye is Ibmied when phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in an alkalin
solution.
Phenol gives …………. colouration with neutral FeCI₃.
Phenol formaldehyde is known as ………….
The IUPAC name of tertiary butyl methyL ether is known as ………….
C₆H₅O – CH₂ – CH₃ is known as ………….
The mechanism take place when alkyl halide is treated with alcohol solution of sodiunalkoxide is ………….
The dipole moment of diethyl ether is ………….
The reaction take place when ethers are exposed to oxygen is ………….
…………. is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery.
…………. is used as a refrigerant.

Answer:

cholesteroL, cell membrane
Retinol
industrial
skin cleanser
vinyl alcohol (or) ethenol
Sorbitol
propan – 1, 2, 3 – tnol,
2, 2 – ditnethyl propan – 1 – ol
prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
sp³
108.9°
1°, 2°, 3°
Markownikoff’s rule
dry ether, alcohol
formaldehyde, HCHO
2-methyl hexan – 2 – ol
Formate ester
Anti-Markownikoft’s
LiAlH₄
Glycerol
Saoinufucatuib
Primary
Tertiary alcohol
SN²
SN¹
SN²
Pnmary, Tertiary
pyridinium chlorochromate
Swer
alcohol
alcohol dehydrogenase ALH
NAD,ADH
epoxide (or) 1,2-epoxy ethane (or) oxirane
dil.H₂SO (or) anhydrous ZnCI₂
1,4 – dioxane
cyclic periodate ester
formaldehyde
prop – 2 – enal
glycenc acid, Tartronic acid
Meso oxalic acid
glycerose (or) a mixture of glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone
Lead tetraacetate
Oxalic acid
44. Fenton’s reagent
Ethanol, Power alcohol
Ethylene glycol
Glycerol
Glycerol
dynamite, cordite, china clay
Methanol
ortho and para
1, 2, 4 – trihydroxy benzene
3, 5 – dihydroxy toluene
Pyrogallol
Dows process
Phenol
2 – phenyl propane
Zinc dust
Schotten-Baumann reaction
acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
2,4, 6 – trinitro phenol (or) Picric acid
white, 2,4, 6-tribromo phenol
Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction
Riemer-Tiemann Reaction
Phenolphthalein
P-hydroxy azobenzene (or) Red-orange dye
Purple
Bakelite
2-methoxy – 2 – methyl propane
Phenatole (or) Ethoxy benzene
SN²
1.18 D
auto oxidation
Diethyl ether
Diethyl ether

III. Match the following Colum – I with Column – II ysubg tge cide guveb below.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) 4 3 2 1

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 5.

Answer:
(b) 4 3 1 2

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 7.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 12.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 15.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 16.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 17.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): P – nitro phenol is having lower pK_a value than phenol.
Reason (R): The electron with drawing group – NO₂ at para position enhances the acidic nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)BothAand Rare wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Alcohols cannot be used as solvent for Grignard reagent.
Reason (R): Alcohols are decomposed by Grignard reagents to give alkane.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Phenols are soluble in alcohols.
Reason (R): Phenols are soluble in alcohol due to the formation of inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong .
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Phenol is insoluble in NaHCO₃ solution but acetic acid is soluble.
Reason (R): Phenols are weakly acidic and hence they dissolve only in strong base and insoluble in weak base like NaHCO₃. But acetic acid is a stronger acid than phenol and so it is soluble in weak base NaHCO₃.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Glycol is more viscous than ethanol.
Reason (R): Glycol contains two hydroxyl groups and the inter molecular hydrogen bonding is made much stronger resulting in a polymeric structure. This leads to high viscosity than ethanol.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Ethanol is a weaker acid than Phenol.
Reason (R): Sodium ethoxidc may be prepared by the reaction of ethanol with sodium metal but phenol reacts with NaOH.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Both alcohol and ether have higher boiling point.
Reason (R): Both are having intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetra hedral angle.
Reason (R): There is a repulsion between the two bulkier R groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and arc wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assertion(A): P-nitro phenol is a stronger acid than o – nitro phenol.
Reason (R): Intra molecular hydrogen bonding in o – nitro phenol make it as a weaker acid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Phenol is more reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R): In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbo cations is more resonance stabilized.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol on treatment with Br₂ in CS₂ at 273 K.
Reason (R): Bromine polarizes in CS₂.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are incorrect
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and are incorrect

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.
Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide due to resonance.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Boiling point of ethanol is higher in comparison to methoxy methane.
Reason (R): Ethanol is associated with inter molecular hydroxide bonding whereas in methoxy methane, inter molecular hydrogen bonding is not present.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are not correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): (CH₃)₃ C – O – CH₃ on reaction with HI gives CH₃OH and (CH₃)₃C – I as the main products and not (CH₃)₃ C – OH and CH₃I.
Reason (R): (CH₃)₃ C + (Tertiary carbo cation) is more stable and reacts with HI to form (CH₃)₃ C – I as main product.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): The bond angle (C – O – H) in methanol is reduced to 108.9° from the regular tetra hedral bond angle of 109.5°.
Reason (R): In methanol, two lone pairs of electrons are present in oxygen atom and due to lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the bond angle is reduced.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Assertion(A): LiAlH₄ is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohols from carbonyl compounds.
Reason (R): LiAlH₄ does not reduce the carbon – carbon double bond present in the carbonyl carbon compound.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Primary alcohols are more acidic than tertiary alcohol.
Reason (R): Alkyl groups (electron releasing group) increases the electron density on oxygen and decreases the polar nature of – OH bond. Hence it results in the decrease in acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are not correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 18.
Assertion(A): P – cresol is less acidic than phenol.
Reason (R): Alkyl substituted phenols show a decreased acidity due to the electron releasing + I effect of alkyl group.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): O – nitro phenol is slightly soluble in water whereas P – nitro phenol is more soluble in water.
Reason (R): O – nitro phenol has intra molecular hydrogen bonding whereas P – nitro phenol has inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wiong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Inter molecular dehydration of alcohol is not a suitable method of prepare mixed ethers.
Reason (R): When a mixture of two different alcohols are used, mixture of different ethers are formed and they are difficult to separate.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 2 Mark Questions and Answers

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write the molecular formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

Vinyl alcohol
Sorbitol

Answer:
1. Vinyl alcohol
CH₂ = CHOH
IUPAC name: Ethenol

2. Sorbitol
HO – CH₂ – (CHOH)₄ – CH₂OH
IUPAC name : Hexan – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 – hexol

Question 2.
Write the structural formula of the following compounds.

Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
Prop – 3 – en – 1 – ol

Answer:
1. Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol : CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH

2. Prop – 3 – en – 1 – oI :

Question 3.
Write the structural formula of the following compound.

Phenyl methanol
2 – methyl – but – 3 – en – 2 – ol

Answer:
1. Phenyl methanol : C₆H₅ – CH₂OH

2. 2 – methyl – but – 3 – en – 2 – ol :

Question 4.
Write the possible isomers for the formula

C₂H₆O
C₃H₈O

Answer:
1. C₂H₆O

2. C₃H₈O
(a) CH₃ CH₂ – CH₂ OH : Propan – 1 – ol

(b)
Propan – 1 – ol

(a) and (b) – Position isomerism
(a) and (c) – Functional isomerism

Question 5.
Explain about the structure of methanol.
Answer:
1. In methanol, one of the sp³ hybridised orbital of oxygen linearly overlap with the sp³ hybridised orbital of carbon to form a C – O, a bond and another sp³ hybridised orbitai linearly overlap with 1s orbital of hydrogen atom to form a O – H a bond.

3. The remaining two sp3 hybridised orbitais of oxygen are occupied by two lone pairs of electrons. Due to the lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the C – O – H bond angle in methanol is reduced to 108.9° from the regular tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5°.

Question 6.
Convert phenyl magnesium bromide to phenyl methanol (or) How would you prepare phenyl methanol from Grignard reagent?
Answer:

Question 7.
How will you prepare Butan-2-ol from ethanal? (or) Convert Ethyl Magnesium bromide into 2 – Butanol (or) Starting from acetaldehyde, how would you obtain butan – 2 – ol?
Answer:

Question 8.
Convert propanone into 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol.
Answer:

Question 9.
Starting from butyl magnesium bromide, how would you obtain 2 – methyl bexan – 2 – ol?
Answer:

Question 10.
What happens when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with ethl methanoate followed by acid hydrolysis?
Answer:

Question 11.
LiAlH₄ is a best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol. Prove it.
Answer:
LiAIH₄(Lithium Aluminium Hydride) does not reduce the carbon – carbon double bond present in the carbonyl compound and hence it is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol.

Question 12.
Convert acetone into propan – 2 – ol.
Answer:

Question 13.
How would you get Benzyl alcohol from Benzoic acid.
Answer:

Question 14.
Starting from ethyl ethanoate, how would you prepare ethanol?
Answer:

Question 15.
How will you prepare 4 – alkyl – 4 – hydroxy butanoic acid?
Answer:
When two or more functional groups are present in a molecule a less vigorous sodium borohydride is used as a reducing agent to reduce the more reactive group. For example, if a compound contains both carbonyl and carboxyl group, NaBH₄ reduces the carbonyl group.

Question 16.
What is saponification? Explain with equation.
Answer:
The alkaline hydrolysis of fats gives glycerol and soap then the reaction is known as saponification.

Question 17.
What happens when thionyl chloride is treated with methanol?

The above reaction follows SN² mechanism in the presence of pyridine.

Question 18.
Answer:
1. In Swern oxidation method, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as the oxidising agent and it converts alcohols to ketones / aldehydes.

2. When propan – 2 – ol is treated with DMSO and oxalyl chloride followed by the addition of triethylamine, it produces Propanone.

Question 19.
Explain biological oxidation with an example.
Answer:
Biological oxidation is the fermentation of the food consumed by an animal produces alcohol. To detoxify the alcohol, the liver produces an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) present in the animals acts as a oxidising agent and ADH catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohols into non-toxic aldehyde.

Question 20.
What is esterificatloin? Explain with equation.
Answer:
Alcohols react with carboxylic acids in the presence of an acid to give esters. This reaction is known as Esterification.

Question 21.
How would you convert ethylene glycol into ethene?
Answer:

Question 22.
Explain the action of conc.HNO₃ and conc.H₂SO₄ with ethan – 1, 2 – diol.
Answer:

Question 23.
What happens when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
Answer:
Ethylene glycol on treatment with periodic acid gives formaldehyde. This reaction is selective for vicinal 1, 2 – diols and it proceeds through a cyclic periodate ester intermediate.

Question 24.
How is glycerol reacts with fuming nitric acid? (or) How would you convert glycerol into nitroglycerine?
Answer:

Question 25.
What happens when conc.H₂SO₄ or KHSO₄ is heated with glycerol?
Answer:
Dehydration:

Question 26.
Mention the uses of methanol.
Answer:

Methanol is used as a solvent for paints, varnishes, shellac, gums, cement, etc.
Methanol is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, perfumes and formaldehyde.

Question 27.
What are the uses of ethylene glycol?
Answer:

Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in automobile radiator
Its dinitrate is used as an explosive with DNG.

Question 28.
Write a note about acidity of aliphatic alcohols.
Answer:
1. According to Bronsted theory, an acid is defined as a proton donor and the acid strength is the tendency to give up a proton. Alcohols are similarly acidic when compared with water. Except methanol, all other alcohols are weaker acid than water. The K_a value for water is 1.8 x 10^-16 where as for alcohols the Ka value in the order 10^-18 to 10^-16.

2. 2C₂H₅ – OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ ↑
This reaction explains the acidic nature of alcohol as it liberates H₂ gas with Na metal.

Question 29.
Alcohol can act as Bronsted base. Prove this statement.
Answer:
Alcohols can also act as a Bronsted bases. It is due to the presence of unshared electron pairs on oxygen which make them to accept proton. So proton acceptor are Bronsted bases. i.e., alcohols are Bronsted bases.

Question 30.
What are cresols? Give examples.
Answer:
Methyl Phenols are called cresols.
They are

Question 31.
How is phenol obtained from benzene suiphonic acid?
Answer:

Question 32.
How is Aniline converted into Phenol?
Answer:
Aniline is diazotized with nitrous acid (NaNO₂ + HCI ) at 273 – 278K to give benzene diazonium chloride which on further treatment with hot water in the presence of mineral acid gives phenol.

Question 33.
How will you convert phenol into benzene?
Answer:
Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with Zinc dust.

Question 34.
What happens when phenol is heated with NH₃?
Answer:

Question 35.
What happens when phenol is heated with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇?
Answer:

Question 36.
How is phenol treated with Nickel?
Answer:

Question 37.
O – nitro phenol is slightly soluble ¡n water where as P-nitro phenol is more soluble. Cive reason.
Answer:
O-nitro phenol is slightly soluble in water and more volatile due to intra molecular hydrogen bonding, whereas P-nitro phenol is more soluble in water and less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 38.
Explain Reimer Tiemann reaction.
Answer:
On treating phenol with CHCl₃ / NaOH, a – CHO group is introduced at ortho position. This reaction proceeds through the formation of substituted benzal chloride intermediate.

Question 39.
How is phenolphthalein prepared from phenol?
Answer:
On heating phenol with phthalic anhydride in presence of con.H₂SO₄, phenolphthalein is obtained,

Question 40.
What is Coupling reaction? Give equation.
Answer:
Phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in an alkaline solution to form p-hydroxy azobenzene(a red orange dye).

Question 41.
Write a note about the structure of ethereal oxygen.
Answer:
The structure of ethereal oxygen which is attached to two alkyl groups is similar to the structure of – OH group of alcohol. The oxygen atom is sp³ hybridized. Two sp³ hybridized orbitals of oxygen linearly overlap with two sp³ hybrid orbitais of the carbon which are directly attached to the oxygen forming two
C – O ‘σ’ bonds.

The C – O – C bond angle is slightly greater than the tetrahedral bond angle due to the repulsive interaction between the two bulkier alkyl groups.

Question 42.
Write the structure and common name of

Ethoxy benzene
Phenoxy benzene

Answer:
1. C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃ : Ethoxy benzene (or) Phenetole (or) Ethyl phenyl ether

2. C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅ : Phenoxy benzene (or) Diphenyl ether (or) Phenyl ether

Question 43.
What happens when ethanol reacts with conc. H₂SO₄ Sulphuric acid at 413 K?
Answer:
When ethanol reacts with con.H₂SO₄ at 413 K, inter molecular dehydration take place and diethyl ether is formed as product.

Question 44.
Explain the action of diazomethane with ethanol.
Answer:
Methyl ethers can be prepared when ethanol is treated with diazomethane in presence of fluoro boric acid.

Question 45.
Ether are miscible with water. Justify this statement.
Answer:
1. Oxygen of ether can also form Hydrogen bond with water and hence they are miscible with water.

2. Ethers dissolve wide range of polar and non-polar substances.

Question 46.
Ether bottle should not be kept open. Why?
Answer:
1. When ether bottle is kept open, they are exposed to atmospheric oxygen and slowly oxidised to form hydroperoxides and dialkyl peroxides. These are explosive in nature. Such a spontaneous oxidation by atmospheric oxygen is called autooxidation.

Question 47.
Explain the action of hydrogen iodide with anisole (or) methoxy benzene. –
Answer:

Question 48.
What are the uses of anisole?
Answer:

Anisole is a precursor to the synthesis of perfumes and insecticide pheromones,
It is used as a pharmaceutical agent.

Question 49.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Answer:
Alcohols can form H-bond with water molecules and break the H-bond already existing between the water molecules. Therefore, they are soluble in water.

On the other hand hydrocarbons do not have the ability to form H-bond with water molecules. Hence they are insoluble in water.

Question 50.
Explain why is ortho nitrophenol more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol?
Answer:
Ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol because nitro group is an electron withdrawing and it will increase +ve charge on the oxygen atom to make it more acidic whereas – OCH₃ group is an electron releasing group and it will decrease +ve charge on the oxygen atom, thus making it less acidic and hence the O – H bond will not break easily.

Question 51.
Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Answer:
Ethanol undergoes intermolecular H-bonding due to the presence of a hydrogen atom attached to the electronegative oxygen atom. As a result, ethanol exists as associated molecules.

Consequently, a large amount of energy is required to break these hydrogen bonds. Therefore, the boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane which does not form H-bonds.

Question 52.
What happens when phenol is treated with ¡ce cold bromine dissolved in CS₂?
Answer:

Question 53.
What happens when phenol is treated with excess of nitrating mixture? (Give equation only).
Answer:

Question 54.
Describe the mechanism by which the hydroxyl group attached to an aromatic ring is more acidic than the hydroxyl group attached to an alkyl group. How does the presence of nitro group in phenol affects its acidic character?
Answer:
1. The reaction of phenol with aqueous sodium hydroxide solution indicates that phenol is a stronger acid than alcohols in water.

2. Because phenoxide ion formed is stabilised by resonance whereas alkoxide ion formed is destabilised by positive inductive effect of alkyl group.

3. Presence of electron withdrawing group such as nitro group enhances the acidic strength of phenol. lt is due to the effective delocalisation of the negative charge in phenoxide ion.

Question 55.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare the acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 3 Mark Questions and Answers

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Give one example for each of the following with their structure and IUPAC name.

1° alcohol
2° alcohol
3° alcohol

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the structure of the following compounds.

Phenyl methanol
1 – Phenyl ethanol
2 – Phenyl propan – 2 – ol

Answer:

Question 3.
Write the structures and IUPAC names of the following compounds.

Tertiary butyl alcohol
Neopentyl alcohol
Isobutyl alcohol

Answer:
1.
2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol (Tertiary butyl alcohol)

2.
2, 2 – dimethyl propan – 1 – ol (Neopentyl alcohol)

3.
2 – methyl propan – 1- ol (Isobutyl alcohol)

Question 4.
Draw the structures and write the IUPAC name of the following compounds.

Benzyl alcohol
Allyl alcohol
Cyclohexyl alcohol

Answer:
1.
Phenyl methanol (Benzyl alcohol)

2. CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol (Allyl alcohol)

3.
Cyclo hexanol (Cyclohexyl alcohol)

Question 5.
Describe Lucas test used to distinguish Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols.
Answer:
When alcohols are treated with Lucas agent (conc. HCI + anhydrous ZnCl₂) at room temperature, tertiary alcohols react immediately to form a turbidity due to the formation of alkyl chloride which is insoluble in the medium. Secondary alcohols react within 10 minutes to form a turbidity of alkyl chloride where primary alcohols do not react at room temperature.

Question 6.
Explain the mechanism of the reaction of alkyl halide formation from primary alcohol.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain SN¹ mechanism of Tertiary alcohols reaction with HBr.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain the mechanism involved in the reaction of phosphorous trichloride with Ethanol. SN² reaction of Ethanol with PCl₃
Answer:

Question 9.
Describe Saytzeff’s rule with example.
Answer:
1. During intramolecular dehydration, if there is a possibility to form a carbon – carbon double bond at different locations, the preferred location is the one that gives the more (highly) substituted alkene i.e., the stable alkene.

2. For example, the dehydration of 3, 3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol gives a mixture of alkenes. The secondary carbocation formed in this reaction undergoes rearrangement to form a more stable tertiary carbocation.

Question 10.
Explain the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 11.
Explain about catalytic dehydrogenation of 1⁰, 2⁰ and 3⁰ alcohols
Answer:

Question 12.
Describe about the oxidation reaction of ethylene glycol with dilute nitric acid.
Answer:
When dilute nitric acid (or) alkaline KMnO₄ is used as the oxidizing agent, the following products are formed.

Question 13.
Explain about the oxidation reaction of Glycerol with different oxidising reagents.
Answer:

Oxidation of glycerol with dii. FINO₃ gives glyceric acid and tartronic acid.
Oxidation of glycerol with Conc. HNO₃ gives mainly glyceric acid.
Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives as meso oxalic acid.
Oxidation of glycerol with Br₂ /H₂O (or) NaOBr (or) Fenton reagent (FeSO₄ + H₂O₂)
gives a mixture of glyceraldehyde and dihydroxy acetone(glycerose).
On oxidation with HIO₄ or Lead tetra acetate (LTA) it gives formaldehyde and formic acid.
Acidified KMnO₄ oxidises glycerol into oxalicacid.

Question 14.
What are the uses of ethanol.
Answer:

Ethanol is used as an important beverage.
It is also used in the preparation of
- Paints and varnishes
- Organic compounds like ether, chloroform, iodoform, etc.,
- Dyes, transparent soaps.
As a substitute for petrol under the name power alcohol used as fuel for aeroplane.
It is used as a preservative for biological specimens.

Question 15.
Mention the uses of Glycerol.
Answer:

Glycerol is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages.
It is used in the manufacture of cosmetics and transparent soaps.
It is used in making printing inks and stamp pad ink and lubricant for watches and clocks.
It is used in the manufacture of explosive like dynamite and cordite by mixing it with china clay.

Question 16.
Compare the acidity of 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
Answer:
1. The acidic nature of the alcohol is due to the polar nature of O – H bond. When an electron withdrawing -I groups such as – Cl, – F etc… is attached to the carbon bearing the OH group, it withdraws the electron density towards itself and thereby facilitating the proton donation.

2. In contrast, the electron releasing group such as alkyl group increases the electron density on oxygen and decreases the polar nature of 0 – H bond, I lence it results in the decrease in acidity.

3. On moving from primary to secondary and tertiary alcohols, the number of alkyl groups which attached to the carbon bearing -OH group increases, which results in the following order of acidity.
1°alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° >alcohol

For example

Question 17.
What are dihydric phenols? Give three examples.
Answer:
When benzene ring has 2 – OH groups, it is called Dihydric phenol.

Question 18.
What are Trihydric phenols. Give example.
Answer:
When 3 – OH groups are present in benzene ring, it is called trihydric phenol.

Question 19.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₇H₈O with their names C₇H₈O
Answer:
1. C₆H₅ – CH₂OH : Benzyl alcohol

2. C₆H₅ – O – CH₃ : Anisole

Question 20.
Explain about the bromination of phenol.
Answer:
1. Phenol reacts with bromine water to give a white precipitate of 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol.

2. When phenol reacts with Br₂ in the presence of CS₂ or CCl₄ at 278K. a mixture of ortho and para bromo phenols are formed.

Question 21.
Differentiate phenols from alcohol.
Answer:
Test to differentiate alcohols and phenols:
1. Phenol react with benzene diazonium chloride to form a red orange dye, but ethanol has no reaction with it.

2. Phenol gives purple colouration with neutral feme chloride solution, alcohols do not give such coloration with FeCI₃.

3. Phenol reacts with NaOH to give sodium phenoxide. Ethyl alcohol does not react with NaOH

Question 22.
What are the uses of phenol?
Answer:

About half of world production of phenol is used for making phenol formaldehyde resin. (Bakel ite).
Phenol is a starting material for the preparation of
- drugs such as phenacetin, Salol, aspirin, etc.
- phenolphthalein indicator.
- explosive like picric acid.
It is used as an antiseptic – carbolic lotion and carbolic soaps.

Question 23.
Write the structure formula and IUPAC name of the following.

n – heptyl phenyl ether
Isopentyl phenyl ether
Dimethyl glycolate

Answer:

Question 24.
ExplaIn about the mechanism of intermolecular dehydration of ethanol with conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K.
Answer:
When ethanol reacts with conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K, inter molecular dehydration takes place and the product formed is Ethoxy ethane.
Mechanism:

Question 25.
Explain about the mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis.
Answer:
When an alkyl halide is heated with an alcoholic solution of sodium alkoxide, the corresponding ether is formed. This reaction involves SN² mechanism.

Mechanism:

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism involved in the reaction between Tertiary alkyl halide and primary alkoxide with eample.
Answer:
When tertiary alkyl halide reacts with primary alkoxide, elimination dominates and succeeds over substitution to form an alkene.

Question 27.
Explain about the reaction mechanism of methoxy ethane with HI.
Answer:
Ethers can undergo nucleophilic substitútion reactions with HI.

Ethers having primary alkyl group undergo SN² reaction whereas tertiary alkyl ether undergo SN¹ reaction. Protonation of ether is followed by the attack of halide ion. The halide ion preferentially attacks the less sterically hindered of the two alkyl groups which are attached etherial oxygen.

Question 28.
What are the uses of diethyl ether.
Answer:

Diethyl ether is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery.
It is a good solvent for organic reactions and extraction.
It is used as a volatile starting fluid for diesel and gasoline engine.
It is used as a refrigerant.

Question 29.
Classify the following as primary secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Answer:
Primary alcohols:

Secondary alcohols:

Tertiary alcohols:

Question 30.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system.

Answer:

Question 31.
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal?

Answer:

Question 32.
You are given benzene, conc H₂SO₄ and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Answer:

Question 33.
How will you convert ethanol to acetone ?
Answer:

Question 34.
How are the following conversions carried out?

Phenol to Toluene
Ethanol to 1, 1 – dichloroethane.

Answer:

Question 35.
How are the following conversions carried out ? (Write the reactions and conditions in each case):

Ethanol to 2 – propanol
Phenol to Acetophenone

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 5 Mark Questions and Answers

II. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Victor Meyer’s test used to distinguish 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
Answer:
Victor Meyer’s test :
This test is based on the behaviour of nitro alkanes formed by the three types of alcohols with nitrous acid and it consists of the following steps.

Alcohols are converted into alkyl iodide by treating with I₂/P.
Alkyl iodides so formed is then treated with AgNO₂ to form nitro alkane.
Nitro alkanes are finally treated with HNO₂ (mixture of NaNO₂/HCl) and the resultant solution is made alkaline with KOH.

Result:

Primary alcohol gives red colour
Secondary alcohol gives blue colour.
No colouration will be observed in tertiary alcohol.

1° alcohol:

2°alcohol:

3°alcohol:

Question 2.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₄H₁₀O, write their IUPAC names and structures.
Answer:
C₄H₁₀O – 7 Isomers

Question 3.
Explain about mechanism involved in the dehydration of tertiary alcohols.
Answer:
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration by E₁ mechanism. It involves the formation of a carbocation.
Step 1:

Step 2:
Dissociation of oxonium ion to form a carbocation

Step 3:
Deprotonation of carbocation to form an alkene

Question 4.
Explain about the various dehydration reactions of ethylene glycol.
Answer:
Ethylene glycol undergoes dehydration reaction under different conditions to form different products.
1. When ethylene glycol is heated to 773K, it forms epoxides.

2. When heated with dilute sulphuric acid (or) anhydrous ZnCl₂ under pressure in a sealed tube, it gives acetaldehyde.

3. When distilled with Conc. H₂SO₄, glycol forms 1, 4 – dioxane

Question 5.
Explain the following reactions.

Schotten-Baumann reaction
Kolbe’s reaction
Reimer – Tiemann reaction

Answer:
1. Schotten – Baumann reaction:

2. Kolbe’s reaction:

3. Reimer – Tiemann reaction.

Question 6.
Describe the following electrophilic substitution reaction using phenol.

Nitrosation
Nitration
Sulphonation

Answer:
1. Nitrosation:
Phenol can be readily nitrosoated at low temperature with nitrous acid.

2. Nitration:
Phenol can be nitrated using 20% nitric acid at room temperature, a mixture of ortho and para nitro phenols are formed.

3. Phenol when treated with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄, picric acid is formed.

4. Sulphonation:
Phenol when reacts with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 280K, o – phenol suiphonic acid is formed as major product. But when the reaction is carried out at 313K, the major product is p – phenol suiphonic acid.

Question 7.
What happens when diethyl ether reacts with following reagents.

excess O₂
Cl₂ / light
PCI₅
dil.H₂SO₄ / H₂O
CH₂COCI /Anhydrous ZnCI₂.

Answer:
Auto – oxidation:

Question 8.
Explain the aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions of anisole with equations. Aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions:
Answer:
1. Halogenation:

2. Nitration.

3. Friedel Craft’s alkylation.

4. Friedel Craft’s acylation.

Question 9.
Starting from phenol, how would you prepare the following compounds.

Benzene
Aniline
Anisole
1, 4, benzoqulnone
Cyclohexanol

Answer:

Question 10.
A compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C₄H₁₀O is unreactive towards sodium metal. it does not add Bromine water and does not react with NaHSO₃ solution. On refluxing ‘A’ with excess of HI, it gives ‘B’ which reacts with aqueous NaOH to form ‘C’. ‘C’ can be converted into ‘B’ by reacting with red P and I₃. ‘C, on treating with conc. H₂SO₄ forms ‘D’. ‘D’ decolounses bromine water. Identify A to D and write the reactions involved.
Answer:

‘A’ is not an alcohol therefore it does not react with sodium metal. ‘A’ is also not an aldehyde or a ketone as it does not react with NaHSO3. ‘A’ is not an unsaturated hydrocarbon as it does not add Br₂ (aq). So, it is likely to be a ether.

Question 11.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O on reaction with conc.H₂SO₄ at 443 K gives an unsaturated hydrocarbon (B). (B) on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent produces (C) of molecular formula C₂H₆O₂. (C) on reaction with anhydrous ZnCI₂ produces (D) of molecular formula C₂H₄O. (D) reduces Tollen’s reagent. Identify A, B, C and D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 443 K produces ethene by intermolecular dehydration. So, (A) is ethanol – CH₃CH₂OH.

2. Ethene on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent (cold, dilute alkaline KMnO₄) produces ethylene glycol as product (C).

3. Ethylene glycol on reaction with anhydrous ZnCI₂ dehydration and tautomerisation take place to give actaldehyde as product (D).

Question 12.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium and gives (B). (B) on reaction with methyl bromide produces (C) of molecular formula C₃H₈O. (C) on reaction with excess III produces (D) and (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Na metal and liberates H₂ gas means it must be an alcohol. From the molecular formula it is identified as ethanol – CH₃ – CH₂OH (A).

2. Ethanol on reaction with Na metal to produce sodium ethoxide as (B) with liberation of H₂ gas.

3. Sodium ethoxide on reaction methyl bromide undergo Williamson’s synthesis to produce methoxy ethane as (C).

4. Methoxy ethane on reaction with excess HI will give Ethyl iodide and Methyl iodide as (D) and (E).

Question 13.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula CH₄O on mild oxidation gives (B) of formula CH₂O that reduces tollen’s reagent. (B) on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis will give (C) of molecular formula C₂H₆O which liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium. Identify A, B, C and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified from the molecular formula as methanol (CH₃OH).

2. CH₃OH – methanol on mild oxidation will give formaldehyde as (B). Aldehydes reduce Tollen’s reagent to silver mirror. So, (B) is HCHO (methanal)

3. Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgBr, followed by acid hydrolysis produces primary alcohol and (C) is identified from the formula as CH₃ – CH₂OH – Ethanol. Ethanol liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium.

Question 14.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts with metallic Na and liberates H₂ gas. (A) on mild oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (B) of molecular formula C₂H₄O. (B) on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis gives (C) of molecular formula C₃H₅O. (C) gives Blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (C) on mild oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (D) of formula C₃H₆O. identify A, B, C, D and
explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Na metal and liberates H₂ gas means it must be alcohol. From the molecular formula it is identified as Ethanol (CH₃ – CH₂OH).

2. Ethanol on oxidation with Cu at 573 K undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation and produces Acetaldehyde as product (B).

3. Acetaldehyde on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by hydrolysis will give Isopropyl alcohol as (C).

4. Propan – 2 – ol is secondary alcohol and so it gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (C) on reaction with Cu at 573 K will give Propanone as (D).

Question 15.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃H₈O gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (A) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (B) which further reacts with Methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis yields (C) of molecular formula C₄H₁₀O. (C) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (D) of formula C4H8. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test means it must be a secondary alcohol. From the formula, it is identified as
Propan – 2- ol (A)

2. Propan – 2 – ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives Propanone as (B).

3. Propanone on treatment with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis will yield Tertiary butyl alcohol (CH₃)₃C – OH as (C).

4. Tertiary butyl alcohol on reaction with copper at 573 K undergoes dehydration reaction to

Question 16.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃H₆ on reaction with Conc. H₂SO₄ and H₂O gives ClH₅O as (B) as a MarkownikoWs product. (B) on oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (C) of formula C₃H₆O. (C) on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis yields (D) as C₄H₁₀O which will not give any colour in Victor Meyer’s test. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) is identified from the molecular formula as CH₃ – CH = CH₂ propene.

2. Propene on hydrolysis in acid medium, Markownikoff’s rule is followed and the product formed is
Propan – 2- ol as (B)

3. Propan – 2 – ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K undergoes dehydrogenation reaction to produce Propanone as (C).

4. Propanone on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis gives tertiary butyl alcohol (D). It will not give any colouration in Victor Meyer’s test.

Question 17.
An aromatic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅Cl on reaction with aqueous NaOH gives (B) of formula C6H60 that give violet colouration with neutral FeCI₃. (B) on reaction with ammonia in presence of anhydrous ZnCI₂ gives (C) of formula C₆H₇N. Identify A, B, C and explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. An aromatic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅Cl is identified as chioro benzene.

2. Chioro benzene on reaction with aqueous NaOH produces phenol as (B).

3. Phenol gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃. Phenol on treated with NH₃ in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂ gives Aniline as (C).

Question 18.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives white precipitate with bromine water. (A) on reaction with NaOH gives (B). (B) reacts with methyl iodide in presence of dry ether gives (C) of molecular formula C₇H₈O which will not liberate H₂ gas with metallic Na. (C) on reaction with acetvl chloride gives (D) and (E) of formula which are position isomers. Identify A, B, C, D & E and explain the reaction.
Answer:
1. An organic compound gives white precipitate with bromine water means it must be a phenol. From the molecular formula it is identified as C₆H₅OH.

2. Phenol on reaction with NaOH gives (B) as sodium phenoxide C₆H₅ONa.

3. Sodium phenoxide on reaction with methyl iodide in the pressure of dry ether undergo Williamsons synthesis and gives Anisole as (C).

4. Anisole on reaction with acetyl chloride undergoes Fnedel Craft’s acetylation and yield O – methoxy acetophenone and p-methoxy acetophenone as (D) and (E).

Question 19.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅CI on reaction with aqueous NaOH gives (B) of formula C₆H₆O. (B) on reaction with NaOH gives (C) of formula C₆H₅ONa. (C) on treatment with CO₂, followed by acid hydrolysis yield (D) of formula C₇H₆O₃ an aromatic hydroxy acid. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

(A) is identified from the formula as C₆H₅CI – Chloro benzene.
Chloro benzene on treatment with aqueous NaOH yeilds C₆H₅OH – phenol as (B).
Phenol on reaction with NaOH produces sodium phenoxide C₆H₅ONa as (C).
Sodium phenoxide on reaction with CO₂, followed acid hydrolysis, Kolbe’s reaction takes place to give Salicylic acid as (D).

Question 20.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆HN₂Cl on boiling with hot water gives (B) of molecular formula C₆H₆O. (B) on reaction with Zinc dust gives (C) a simplest aromatic hydrocarbon. (C) on reaction with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI₂ gives (D) of molecular formula C₇H₈. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reaction.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified from the formula as Benzene diazonium chloride – C₆H₅N₂Cl.

2. Benzene diazonium chloride when boiled with hot water produces phenol as (B).

3. Phenol on reaction with Zinc dust gives Benzene as (C) which is simplest aromatic hydrocarbon.

4. Benzene on treatment with (C) methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃, Friedel Crafts reaction take place and the product formed is Toluene as (D).

Question 21.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃. (A) reacts benzene diazoniurn chloride in basic medium to give (B) as an azo dye. (A) reacts with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ gives (C) of formula C₆H₄O₂. (A) on reaction with H₂ in the presence of nickel gives (D) of formula C₆H₁₂O. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1. (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃ means it must be Phenol – C₆H₅OH.

2. Phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in the presence of basic medium to produce p-hydroxy azo benzene, a red orange dye as (B).

3. Phenol on reaction with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ undergoes oxidation reaction to give 1, 4 – benzo quinone as (C).

4. Phenol on reaction with H₂, in the presence of Nickel gives cyclohexanol as (D).

Question 22.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆ reacts with propylene in the presence of H₃PO₄ at 532 K gives (B) of formula C₉H₁₂ . (B)on air oxidation gives C₉H₁₂O₂ as (C). (C) on acidification with H₂SO₄ gives (D) of formula C₆H₆O and (E) of formula C₃H₆O. Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified as benzene from the molecular formula.

2. Benzene reacts with propylene in the presence of H₃PO₄ gives cumene as (B).

3. Cumene on air oxidation produces cumene hydroperoxide as (C).

4. Cumene hydroperoxide on treatement with H₂SO₄ yield phenol as (D) and acetone as (E).

Question 23.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts P/I₂ gives (B) which on further reaction with silver nitrite gives (C) of formula C₂H₅NO₂. (C) on treatment with nitrous acid yield (D) of formula C₂H₄N₂O₃. (D) on reaction with KOH give red color product (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E. From the final product (E) red colour product, it is identified these reactions are the reactions of primary alcohols in Victor Meyer’s test.
Answer:

Question 24.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃HO on reaction P/I₂ gives C₃H₇I as (B). (B) on reaction with AgNO₂ produces (C) with formula C₃H₇NO₂. (C) on reaction with nitrous acid gives (D) of molecular formula C₃H₆N₂O₃. (D) on reaction with KOH produces blue colour. Identify A, B. C, D and explain the reaction.
Answer:
From the final colour blue, this reaction are considered as reactions of secondary alcohol in Victory Meyer’s. (A) is identified as 2 – propanol.

Question 25.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₄H₁₀O gives no colouration in Victor Meyer’s test. (A) on reaction with P / I₂ gives (B) of formula C₄H₉I. (B) on treatment with nitrous acid gives (C) of formula C₃H₉NO₂. (C) does not react with KOH. Identify A, B, C and explain.
Answer:
C₄H₁₀O gives no colouration in Victor Meyer’s test means it must be tertiary alcohol. So (A) is tertiary butyl alcohol. The reactions involved are,

Common Errors

Writing IUPAC names may be difficult and students may get confused.
Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols functional groups may get confused. Phenol, aromatic alcohols are differenet.
Benzene ring should be drawn properly.
Skeleton carbon chain may be a problem to students.

Rectifications

1. Parent hydrocarbon – longest carbon chain. Lowest number of the carbon having functional group. Arrangement of substitutents in alphabetical order. Alcohol – Name should end in the word ol.

2. Primary alcohol – CHI₂OH, Secondary alcohol > CHOH, Tertiary alcohol > COH – OH gp/ directly attached to benzene ring is
Phenol
It is not aromatic alcohol
– OH gp/ is attached to the side chain of the benzene ring is an aromatic alcohol.

Benzyl alcohol

3. Altemat double bond along with regular hexagon is ben zeane.
Benzene (C₆H₆) If you draw the above structure without double bonds, it is cyclo hexane.
Cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂)

4.
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
n-heptane

CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
Pent – 1 – ene

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 9 Applications of Biotechnology

Leave a Comment / Class 12 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 9 Applications of Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 9 Applications of Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Applications of Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of ______
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID
Answer:
(d) SCID

Question 2.
Dolly, the sheep was obtained by a technique known as _______
(a) Cloning by gene transfer
(b) Cloning without the help of gametes
(c) Cloning by tissue culture of somatic cells
(d) Cloning by nuclear transfer
Answer:
(d) Cloning by nuclear transfer

Question 3.
The genetic defect adenosine deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by ______
(a) Enzyme replacement therapy
(b) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having ADA cDNA
(c) administering adenosine deaminase activators
(d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.
Answer:
(d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.

Question 4.
How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin?
(a) Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13
(b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids
(c) Chain A has 20 and chain B has 30 amino acids
(d) Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids
Answer:
(b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

Question 5.
PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of ______
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
(b) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
(c) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(d) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
Answer:
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis

Question 6.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a Virus
(d) It remains active at a high temperature
Answer:
(d) It remains active at a high temperature

Question 7.
ELISA is mainly used for ______
(a) Detection of mutations
(b) Detection of pathogens
(c) Selecting animals having desired traits
(d) Selecting plants having desired traits
Answer:
(b) Detection of pathogens

Question 8.
Transgenic animals are those which have
(a) Foreign DNA in some of their cells
(b) Foreign DNA in all their cells
(c) Foreign RNA in some of their cells
(d) Foreign RNA in all their cells
Answer:
(b) Foreign DNA in all their cells

Question 9.
Recombinant Factor VIII is produced in the ______ cells of the Chinese Hamster
(a) Liver cells
(b) blood cells
(c) ovarian cells
(d) brain cells
Answer:
(c) ovarian cells

Question 10.
Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called ______
(a) Subunit recombinant vaccines
(b) attenuated recombinant vaccines
(c) DNA vaccines
(d) conventional vaccines
Answer:
(a) Subunit recombinant vaccines

Question 11.
Mention the number of primers required in each cycle of PCR. Write the role of primers and DNA polymerase in PCR. Name the source organism of the DNA polymerase used in PCR.
Answer:

For each cycle of PCR two primers are required.
Primers are the small fragments of single stranded DNA or RNA which serves as template for initiating DNA polymerization.
DNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesize DNA molecules by pairing the Deoxyribo Nucleotides leading to formation of new strands.
DNA polymerase used in PCR is Taq polymerase which is isolated from a thermophilic bacteria called Thermus aquatics.
Taq polymerase will remain active ever at very high temperature (80°C) and hence used in PCR amplification technique.

Question 12.
How is the amplification of a gene sample of interest carried out using PCR?
Answer:
Denaturation, renaturation or primer annealing, and synthesis or primer extension, are the three steps involved in PCR. The double-stranded DNA of interest is denatured to separate into two individual strands by high temperature. This is called denaturation. Each strand is allowed to hybridize with a primer (renaturation or primer annealing). The primer-template is used to synthesize DNA by using Taq – DNA polymerase. During denaturation, the reaction mixture is heated to 95 °C for a short time to denature the target DNA into single strands that will act as a template for DNA synthesis.

Annealing is done by rapid cooling of the mixture, allowing the primers to bind to the sequences on each of the two strands flanking the target DNA. During primer extension or synthesis the temperature of the mixture is increased to 75°C for a sufficient period of time to allow Taq DNA polymerase to extend each primer by copying the single-stranded template.

At the end of incubation, both single template strands will be made partially double-stranded. The new strand of each double-stranded DNA extends to a variable distance downstream. These steps are repeated again and again to generate multiple forms of the desired DNA. This process is also called DNA amplification.

Question 13.
What is genetically engineered Insulin?
Answer:
The insulin synthesized by recombinant DNA technology is called genetically engineered Insulin. It was the first ever pharmaceutical product of DNA technology. In 1986, human insulin was marked under the trade name Humulin.

Question 14.
Explain how “Rosie” is different from a normal cow.
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein-enriched milk, which contained the human alpha-lactalbumin (2.4 gm/litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 15.
How was Insulin obtained before the advent of rDNA technology? What were the problems encountered?
Answer:
Conventionally, Insulin was isolated and refined from the pancreas of pigs and cows to treat diabetic patients. Though it is effective, due to minor structural changes, the animal insulin caused allergic reaction in few patients.

Question 16.
ELISA is a technique based on the principles of antigen-antibody reactions. Can this technique be used in the molecular diagnosis of a genetic disorder such as Phenylketonuria?
Answer:
Yes, ELISA test can be done to diagnose phenylketonuria. The affected person does not produce the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. If specific antibodies are developed against the enzyme and ELISA is performed, the unaffected person will show positive result due to antigen and antibody reaction, whereas the affected individual produces negative result. [Note: phenylketonuria is an inherited metabolic disorder that causes the accumulation of phenylalanine (an amino acid) in body cells due to defect in the synthesizing of an enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase]

Question 17.
Gene therapy is an attempt to correct a Genetic defect by providing a normal gene into the individual. By this the function can be restored. An alternate method would be to provide gene product known as enzyme replacement therapy, which would also restore the function. Which in your opinion is a better option? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Though both Gene therapy and Enzyme replacement therapy helps to restore the genetic defects, Gene therapy is much better than Enzyme replacement therapy. Because, in Gene therapy once the defective gene is repaired using normal gene, the affected individual gains complete recovery whereas, in Enzyme replacement therapy, the respective enzyme or protein has to be provided periodically and does not offer a permanent cure. Moreover, when compared to Gene therapy, Enzyme replacement therapy is highly expensive.

Question 18.
What are transgenic animals? Give examples.
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of extra (foreign/exogenous) DNA into the genome of the animals to create and maintain stable heritable characters. The foreign DNA that is introduced is called the transgene and the animals that are produced by DNA manipulations are called transgenic animals or genetically engineered or genetically modified organisms.
Example: Mice, Cow

Question 19.
If a person thinks he is infected with HIV, due to unprotected sex, and goes for a blood test. Do you think a test such as ELISA will help? If so why? If not, why?
Answer:
Yes, ELISA is a highly sensitive and precise procedure and can detect antigens even in the range of a nanogram. So, it can be used to detect HIV in the blood.

Question 20.
Explain how ADA deficiency can be corrected?
Answer:
The right approach for SCID treatment would be to give the patient a functioning ADA which breaks down toxic biological products. In some children, ADA deficiency could be cured by bone marrow transplantation, where defective immune cells could be replaced with healthy immune cells from a donor. In some patients, it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is injected into the patient.

During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 21.
What are DNA vaccines?
Answer:
Genetic immunization by using DNA vaccines is a novel approach that came into being in 1990. The immune response of the body is stimulated by a DNA molecule. A DNA vaccine consists of a gene encoding an antigenic protein, inserted onto a plasmid, and then incorporated into the cells in a target animal. DNA instructs the cells to make antigenic molecules which are displayed on its surfaces. This would evoke an antibody response to the free-floating antigen secreted by the cells. The DNA vaccine cannot cause the disease as it contains only copies of a few of its genes. DNA vaccines are relatively easy and inexpensive to design and produce.

Question 22.
Differentiate between Somatic cell gene therapy and Germline gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic Cell Gene Therapy:

Therapeutic genes transferred into the somatic cells.
Introduction of genes into bone marrow cells, blood cells, skin cells etc.
Will not be inherited in later generations.

Germ Line Gene Therapy:

Therapeutic genes transferred into the germ cells.
Genes introduced into eggs and sperms.
Heritable and passed on to later generations.

Question 23.
What are stem cells? Explain its role in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells found in most multicellular animals. These cells maintain their undifferentiated state even after undergoing numerous mitotic divisions. Stem cell research has the potential to revolutionize the future of medicine with the ability to regenerate damaged and diseased organs. Stem cells are capable of self-renewal and exhibit ‘cellular potency’. Stem cells can differentiate into all types of cells that are derived from any of the three germ layers ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.

Question 24.
One of the applications of biotechnology is ‘gene therapy” to treat a person born with a hereditary disease

What does “gene therapy” mean?
Name the hereditary disease for which the first clinical gene therapy was used.
Mention the steps involved in gene therapy to treat this disease.
Gene therapy is the process in which the defective genes are replaced with normal genes leading to the expression of proper phenotype.

Answer:

SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency) disease was the first disease treated by using gene therapy.
There are two strategies involved in gene therapy namely Gene augmentation therapy, which involves the insertion of DNA into the genome to replace the missing gene product and Gene inhibition therapy, which involves the insertion of the anti-sense gene which inhibits the expression of the dominant gene.

Question 25.
PCR is a useful tool for early diagnosis of Infectious disease. Elaborate.
Answer:
The specificity and sensitivity of PCR is useful for the diagnosis of inherited disorders (genetic diseases), viral diseases, bacterial diseases, etc., The diagnosis and treatment of a particular disease often requires identifying a particular pathogen. Traditional methods of identification involve culturing these organisms from clinical specimens and performing metabolic and other tests to identify them. The concept behind PCR based diagnosis of infectious diseases is simple – if the pathogen is present in a clinical specimen its DNA will be present.

Its DNA has unique sequences that can be detected by PCR, often using the clinical specimen (for example, blood, stool, spinal fluid, or sputum) in the PCR mixture.

Question 26.
What are recombinant vaccines? Explain the types.
Answer:
Vaccines developed by using recombinant DNA technology are called recombinant vaccines. Subunit recombinant vaccines, attenuated recombinant vaccines, DNA vaccines are the types of recombinant vaccines.

Question 27.
Explain why cloning of Dolly, the sheep was such a major scientific breakthrough?
Answer:
The development of Dolly was a remarkable achievement in scientific field and it demonstrates thatthe DNA from differentiated adult cells can also be used to develop into an entire organism.

Question 28.
Mention the advantages and disadvantages of cloning.
Answer:

Offers benefits for clinical trials and medical research. It can help in the production of proteins and drugs in the field of medicine.
Aids stem cell research.
Animal cloning could help to save endangered species.
Animal and human activists see it as a threat to biodiversity saying that this alters evolution which will have an impact on populations and the ecosystem.
The process is tedious and very expensive.
It can cause animals to suffer.
Reports show that animal surrogates were manifesting adverse outcomes and cloned animals were affected with disease and have high mortality rate.
It might compromise human health through consumption of cloned animal meat.
Cloned animals age faster than normal animals and are less healthy than the parent organism as discovered in Dolly
Cloning can lead to occurrence of genetic disorders in animals.
More than 90% of cloning attempts fail to produce a viable offspring.

Question 29.
Explain how recombinant Insulin can be produced.
Answer:
Production of insulin by recombinant DNA technology started in the late 1970s. This technique involved the insertion of human insulin gene on the plasmids of E. coli. The polypeptide chains are synthesized as a precursor called pre-pro insulin, which contains A and B segments linked by a third chain (C) and preceded by a leader sequence. The leader sequence is removed after translation and the C chain is excised, leaving the A and B polypeptide chains Explain the steps involved in the production of recombinant hGH.

Using recombinant DNA technology hGH can be produced. The gene for hGH is isolated from the human pituitary gland cells. The isolated gene is inserted into a plasmid vector and then is transferred into E. coli. The recombinant E. coli then starts producing human growth hormone. The recombinant E. coli are isolated from the culture and mass production of hGH is carried out by fermentation technology.

Question 30.
Explain the steps involved in the production of recombinant hGH.
Answer:
Using recombinant DNA technology hGH can be produced. The gene for hGH is isolated from the human pituitary gland cells. The isolated gene is inserted into a plasmid vector and then is transferred into E. coli. The recombinant E. coli then starts producing human growth hormone. The recombinant E. coli are isolated from the culture and mass production of hGH is carried out by fermentation technology.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Applications of Biotechnology Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Statement 1: Human Insulin is a polypeptide
Statement 2: It is composed of 52 amino acids
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.

Question 2.
Statement 1: Rosie was the first transgenic goat.
Statement 2: Meat is enriched with the human protein.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Question 3.
Statement 1: Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine is a live vaccine.
Statement 2: It is obtained by cloning the HB antigen gene in yeast.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.

Question 4.
Statement 1: ADA deficiency was the first disease treated by gene therapy.
Statement 2: ADA is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder.
(a) Statement 4 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.

Question 5.
Statement 1: Attenuated recombinant vaccines are live vaccines.
Statement 2: Polio is a live vaccine.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Interferons are used to treat herpes zoster.
Reason (R): Interferons are antiviral proteins.
(a) R explains A.
(b) Both A and Rare incorrect.
(c) A is correct. R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(a) R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): PCR is an amplification technique used in biotechnology.
Reason (R): Using PCR multiple copies of DNA can be generated.
(a) R explains A.
(b) Both A and Rare incorrect.
(c) A is correct. R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(a) R explains A.

Question 8.
The B-chain of Insulin is composed of aminoacids __________
(a) 70
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
Answer:
(b) 30

Question 9.
The gene for the formation of factor VIII is located in __________
(a) 20th Chromosome
(b) 12th Chromosome
(c) X-chromosome
(d) Y-chromosome
Answer:
(c) X-chromosome

Question 10.
The genetic defect in the synthesis of factor VIII results in __________
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Anaemia
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Haemophilia
Answer:
(c) Haemophilia

Question 11.
Name the scientists who discovered Interferons?
Answer:
Alick Issac and Jean Lindemann

Question 12.
Which is the first synthetic vaccine produced?
(a) Polio Vaccine
(b) Hepatitis B Vaccine
(c) BCG Vaccine
(d) MMR Vaccine
Answer:
(b) Hepatitis B Vaccine

Question 13.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(i) The first clinical gene therapy was given by French Anderson.
(ii) For a four year old boy with ADA deficiency.
(iii) ACD is a autosomal dominant metabolic disorder.
(iv) Where patients have non-functioning B – lymphocytes.
(a) i and iv only
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, ii and iv
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) ii, iii and iv

Question 14.
Identify the correct statement(s).
(i) Totipotency is the ability of single cell to produce a whole organism.
(ii) Pluripotency refers to ability of stem cell with apotential to differentiate into any kind of germ layers.
(iii) Unipotency refers to ability of stem cell to differentiate into one cell type.
(iv) Oligopotency refers to stem cells to differentiate into few cell types.
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 15.
Identify those proper sequence of ELISA testing.
(a) Coating → Blocking → Detection → Read out
(b) Detection → Read out → Coating → Blocking
(c) Read out → Coating → Detection → Blocking
(d) Blocking → Detection → Read out → Coating
Answer:
(a) Coating → Blocking → Detection → Read out

Question 16.
PCR technique was developed by
(a) Eva Engvall
(b) Peter Perlmanin
(c) Kary Mullis
(d) Wilmut
Answer:
(c) Kary Mullis

Question 17.
Arrange the steps of PCR in proper sequence.
(a) Denaturation, Primer extension, Renaturation
(b) Renaturation, Denaturation, Primer extension
(c) Primer extension, Denaturation, Renaturation
(d) Denaturation, Renaturation, Primer extension
Answer:
(d) Denaturation, Renaturation, Primer extension

Question 18.
The first cloned organism was.
(a) Goat
(b) Cow
(c) Sheep
(d) Pig
Answer:
(c) Sheep

Question 19.
The first transgenic clone of sheep was called as
(a) Rosie
(b) Dolly
(c) Sameera
(d) Joel
Answer:
(b) Dolly

Question 20.
In cloning process of Dolly, how many embryos were implemented by Ian Wilmut and Campbell, out of which one successful Dolly was developed?
(a) 267
(b) 211
(c) 287
(d) 307
Answer:
(b) 277

Question 21.
The term Biotechnology was coined by
Answer:
Karl Ereky

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
How insulin controls blood sugar level?
Answer:
Insulin controls the blood sugar level by facilitating the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose for the release of energy.

Question 2.
State the role of Somatostatin and Somatotropin in human beings.
Answer:
Both somatostatin and somatotropin are peptide hormones which helps in growth and development by increasing the uptake of amino acids and promoting protein synthesis.

Question 3.
Mention the manifestation of the disease – Haemophilia-A
Answer:
Haemophilia A is a X-linked disease which is characterised by prolonged clotting time and internal bleeding.

Question 4.
Define Interferons.
Answer:
Interferons are proteinaceous, antiviral, species specific substances produced by mammalian cells when infected with viruses. They stimulate the cellular DNA to produce antiviral enzymes which inhibit viral replication and protect the cells.

Question 5.
Who discovered Interferons? On which basis it was classified?
Answer:
Interferons were discovered by Alick Isaacs and Jean Lindemann in 1957. It is classified as P and y interferons based on the structure.

Question 6.
Name the disease that are treated by using interferons.
Answer:
Interferons are used for the treatment of various diseases like cancer, AIDS, multiple sclerosis, hepatitis C and herpes zoster.

Question 7.
Recombinant vaccines are better than conventional ones – Justify.
Answer:
The recombinant vaccines are generally of uniform quality and produce less side effects as compared to the vaccines produced by conventional methods.

Question 8.
Point out four types of recombinant vaccines.
Answer:

Subunit recombinant vaccines
Attenuated recombinant vaccines
Edible vaccines
DNA vaccines

Question 9.
What are subunit recombinant vaccines? Mention its advantages.
Answer:
Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called subunit vaccines. The advantages of these vaccines include their purity in preparation, stability and safe use.

Question 10.
Define Attenuated recombinant vaccines.
Answer:
Attenuated recombinant vaccines includes genetically modified pathogenic organisms (bacteria or viruses) that are made nonpathogenic and are used as vaccines. Such vaccines are referred to as attenuated recombinant vaccines.

Question 11.
List out the benefits of recombinant vaccines.
Answer:
Vaccines produced by recombinant techniques have definite advantages like producing target proteins, long lasting immunity and trigger immune response only against specific pathogens with less toxic effects.

Question 12.
Name the two strategies involved in gene therapy
Answer:

Gene augmentation therapy.
Gene inhibition therapy.

Question 13.
Comment on SCID.
Answer:
ADA deficiency or SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. It is caused by the deletion or dysfunction of the gene coding for ADA enzyme. In these patients the nonfunctioning T-Lymphocytes cannot elicit immune responses against invading pathogens.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Gene augmentation therapy and gene inhibition therapy.
Answer:
Gene augmentation therapy which involves insertion of DNA into the genome to replace the missing gene product and Gene inhibition therapy which involves insertion of the anti sense gene which inhibits the expression of the dominant gene.

Question 15.
Define the terms

Totipotency
Unipotency

Answer:

Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to divide and produce all of the differentiated cells in an
organism.Unipotency refers to the ability of the stem cells to differentiate into only one cell type.

Question 16.
What are the best sources of stem cells in mammals?
Answer:
Placenta, Umbilical cord, amniotic sac, amniotic fluid.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two molecular diagnostic techniques used for early diagnosis of diseases?
Answer:

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique.
Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA)

Question 18.
What does ELISA stands for? Who invented this technique?
Answer:
Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA). It was invented by Eva Engvall and Peter Perlmanin.

Question 19.
Name the various kinds of ELISA.
Answer:
There are four kinds of ELISA namely, Direct ELISA, Indirect ELISA, sandwich ELISA and competitive ELISA.

Question 20.
Simply define the PCR technique. Also mention its inventor.
Answer:
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an invitro amplification technique used for synthesising multiple identical copies (billions) of DNA of interest. The technique was developed by Kary Mullis in the year 1983.

Question 21.
Expand PCR and name the steps involved in the process.
Answer:

PCR – Polymerase Chain Reaction.
Denaturation, Renaturation or Primer annealing and Primer extension are the three steps in PCR technique.

Question 22.
For which disease does the first clinical gene therapy was done? Who accomplished it?
Answer:
The first clinical gene therapy was done for SCID. Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency disease is caused by ADA deficiency. It was done by French Anderson in 1990.

Question 23.
Define Transgenesis.
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of foreign DNA (exogenous DNA) into the genome of the other organism to create and maintain stable heritable characters.

Question 24.
What are the Genetically Modified Organisms?
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of extra (foreign/ exogenous) DNA into the genome of the animals to create and maintain stable heritable characters. The foreign DNA that is introduced is called the transgene and the animals that are produced by DNA manipulations are called transgenic animals or genetically engineered or genetically modified organisms.

Question 25.
What does Biological Product refer to?
Answer:
A biological product is a substance derived from a living organism and used for the prevention or treatment of disease. These products include antitoxins, bacterial and viral vaccines, blood products, and hormone extracts.

Question 26.
Define cloning. Name the first organism developed by cloning.
Answer:
Cloning is the process of producing genetically identical individuals of an organism either naturally or artificially. The first cloned organism is a sheep named Dolly.

Question 27.
Who developed Dolly? How many embryos were aborted to develop a single Dolly?
Answer:
Dolly- The first cloned organism (sheep) was developed by Lam Wilmut and Campbell. Out of 29 embryos implanted only one Dolly was developed.

Question 28.
Define Biotechnology.
Answer:
Biotechnology is defined as “any technological application that uses biological systems, living organisms or derivatives thereof, to make or modify products or processes for specific use”.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 29.
Briefly explain the structure of insulin.
Answer:
Human insulin is synthesized by the (5 cells of Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It is formed of 51 amino acids which are arranged in two polypeptide chains, A and B. Polypeptide chain A has 21 amino acids while the polypeptide chain B has 30 amino acids. Both A and B chains are attached together by disulfide bonds.

Question 30.
Who was the first to discover the role of insulin against diabetes? From which organism does was insulin isolated?
Answer:
Best and Banting in 1921, isolated insulin from the pancreatic islets of a dog and demonstrated its effectiveness against diabetes.

Question 31.
How “Rosie” differs from a normal cow? Explain.
Answer:
Rosie, the first transgenic cow produced human protein-enriched milk, which contained the human alpha-lactalbumin. The protein-rich milk (2.4 gm/litre) was a nutritionally balanced food for newborn babies than the normal milk produced by the cows.

Question 32.
Point out any two microbes that play crucial role in recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:

Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Escherichia coli

Question 33.
What are Edible vaccines?
Answer:
Edible vaccines are prepared by molecular pharming using the science of genetic engineering. Selected genes are introduced into plants and the transgenic plants are induced to manufacture the encoded protein. Edible vaccines are mucosal targeted vaccines which cause stimulation of both systemic and mucosal immune response. At present edible vaccines are produced for human and animal diseases like measles, cholera, foot and mouth disease and hepatitis.

Question 34.
How the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine is produced in laboratory?
Answer:
Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine as a subunit vaccine is produced by cloning hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) gene in the yeast, Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question 35.
Suggest few methods to treat SCID.
Answer:
SCID caused by ADA deficiency could be cured by bone marrow transplantation where defective immune cells could be replaced with healthy immune cells from donor. It can also be treated by enzyme replacement therapy in which functional ADA is injected into patient’s body where it breaks down toxic biological product.

Question 36.
How gene therapy is done to treat ADA deficiency?
Answer:
During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 37.
How does Somatic cell therapy differ from germline gene therapy?
Answer:
Somatic cell therapy involves the insertion of a fully functional and expressible gene into a target somatic cell to correct a genetic disease permanently whereas Germline gene therapy involves the introduction of DNA into germ cells which is passed on to successive generations. Gene therapy involves the isolation of a specific gene and making its copies and inserting them into target cells ’to make the desired proteins.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Pluripotency and Multipotency.
Answer:

Pluripotency refers to a stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into any of the three germ layers-ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.
Multipotency refers to the stem cells that can differentiate into various types of cells that are related. For example, blood stem cells can differentiate into lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils etc.

Question 39.
Write a short note on stem cell banks.
Answer:
Stem cell banking is the extraction, processing and storage of stem cells, so that they may be used for treatment in the future, when required. Amniotic cell bank is a facility that stores stem cells derived from amniotic fluid for future use. Stem cells are stored in banks specifically for use by the individual from whom such cells have been collected and the banking costs are paid.

Cord Blood Banking is the extraction of stem cells from the umbilical cord during childbirth. While the umbilical cord and cord blood are the most popular sources of stem cells, the placenta, amniotic sac and amniotic fluid are also rich sources in terms of both quantity and quality.

Question 40.
State any two uniqueness of ELISA test.
Answer:

ELISA is highly sensitive and can detect antigen even in nanograms.
ELISA test does not require radioisotopes or radiation counting apparatus.

Question 41.
What is ELISA test?
Answer:
ELISA – Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay is a biochemical procedure done to detect the presence of specific antibodies or antigens or hormones in a sample of serum, urine etc.

Question 42.
Elucidate the methodology of ELISA test.
Answer:
During diagnosis the sample suspected to contain the antigen is immobilized on the surface of an ELISA plate. The antibody specific to this antigen is added and allowed to react with the immobilized antigen. The anti-antibody is linked to an appropriate enzyme like peroxidase. The unreacted anti-antibody is washed away and the substrate of the enzyme (hydrogen peroxidase) is added with certain reagents such as 4-chloronaphthol. The activity of the enzyme yields a coloured product indicating the presence of the antigen.

Question 43.
Whether PCR is applicable for RNA molecules? Explain.
Answer:
The PCR technique can also be used for amplifications of RNA in which case it is referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR). In this process the RNA molecules (mRNA) must be converted to complementary DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The cDNA then
serves as the template for PCR.

Question 44.
How PCR helps forensic personnel?
Answer:
PCR technique can also be used in the field of forensic medicine . A single molecule of DNA from blood stains, hair, semen of an individual is adequate for amplification by PCR. The amplified DNA is used to develop DNA fingerprint which is used as an important tool in forensic science.Thus, PCR is very useful for identification of criminals. PCR is also used in amplification of specific DNA segment to be used in gene therapy.

Question 45.
Role of PCR in phylogenetics. Explain.
Answer:
The differences in the genomes of two different organisms can be studied by PCR. PCR is very important in the study of evolutions, more specifically phylogenetics. As a technique which can amplify even minute quantities of DNA from any source, like hair, mummified tissues, bones or any fossilized materials.

Question 46.
Enumerate the use of biological products.
Answer:
Antibodies are substances that react against the disease causing antigens and these can be produced using transgenic animals as bioreactors. Monoclonal antibodies, which are used to treat cancer, heart disease and transplant rejection are produced by this technology. Natural protein adhesives are non toxic, biodegradable and rarely trigger an immune response, hence could be used to reattach tendons and tissues, fill cavities in teeth, and repair broken bones.

Question 47.
Name the principles underlying cloning technique.
Answer:

Nuclear transfer
Totipotency (ability of a cell to develop into entire organism)

5 – Mark Questions

Question 48.
Explain in detail about stem cell therapy.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells found in most of the multi cellular animals. These cells maintain their undifferentiated state even after undergoing numerous mitotic divisions.

Stem cell research has the potential to revolutionize the future of medicine with the ability to regenerate damaged and diseased organs. Stem cells are capable of self renewal and exhibit ‘cellular potency’ Stem cells can differentiate into all types of cells that are derived from any of the three germ layers ectoderm, endoderm arid mesoderm.

In mammals there are two main types of stem cells – embryonic stem cells (ES cells) and adult stem cells. ES cells are pluripotent and can produce the three primary germ layers ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. Embryonic stem cells are multipotent stem cells that can differentiate into a number of types of cells. ES cells are isolated from the epiblast tissue of the inner cell mass of a blastocyst. When stimulated ES can develop into more than 200 cells types of the adult body. ES cells are immortal they can proliferate in a sterile culture medium and maintain their undifferentiated state.

Adult stem cells are found in various tissues of children as well as adults. An adult stem cell or somatic stem cell can divide and create another cell similar to it. Most of the adult stem cells are multipotent and can act as a repair system of the body, replenishing adult tissues.The red bone marrow is a rich source of adult stem cells.

The most important and potential application of human stem cells is the generation of cells and tissues that could be used for cell based therapies. Human stem cells could be used to test new drugs.

Question 49.
Describe the role of PCR in clinical field.
Answer:
PCR In Clinical Diagnosis: The specificity and sensitivity of PCR is useful for the diagnosis of inherited disorders (genetic diseases), viral diseases, bacterial diseases, etc., The diagnosis and treatment of a particular disease often requires identifying a particular pathogen. Traditional methods of identification involve culturing these organisms from clinical specimens and performing metabolic and other tests to identify them.

The concept behind PCR based diagnosis of infectious diseases is simple – if the pathogen is present in a clinical specimen its DNA will be present. Its DNA has unique sequences that can be detected by PCR, often using the clinical specimen (for example, blood, stool, spinal fluid, or sputum) in the PCR mixture. PCR is also employed in the prenatal diagnosis of inherited diseases by using chorionic villi samples or cells from amniocentesis. Diseases like sickle cell anemia, P-thalassemia and phenylketonuria can be detected by PCR in these samples. cDNA from PCR is a valuable tool for diagnosis and monitoring retroviral infections – eg. Tuberculosis by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Several virally induced cancers, like cervical cancer caused by Papilloma virus can be detected by PCR. Sex of human beings and live stocks, embryos fertilized invitro can be determined by PCR by using primers and DNA probes specific for sex chromosomes. PCR technique is also used to detect sexlinked disorders in fertilized embryos.

Question 50.
Enumerate the steps involved in producing transgenic animals.
Answer:
The various steps involved in the production of transgenic organisms are,

Identification and separation of desired gene.
Selection of a vector (generally a virus) or direct transmission.
Combining the desired gene with the vector.
Introduction of transferred vector into cells, tissues, embryo or mature individual.
Demonstration of integration and expression of foreign gene in transgenic tissue or animals. Transgenic animals such as mice, rat, rabbit, pig, cow, goat, sheep and fish have been produced.

Question 51.
List out the uses of Transgenesis.
Answer:

Transgenesis is a powerful tool to study gene expression and developmental processes in higher organisms.
Transgenesis helps in the improvement of genetic characters in animals.Transgenic animals serve as good models for understanding human diseases which help in the investigation of new treatments for diseases.Transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, Alzheimer’s, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and sickle cell anemia.
Transgenic animals are used to produce proteins which are important for medical and pharmaceutical applications.
Transgenic mice are used for testing the safety of vaccines.
Transgenic animals are used for testing toxicity in animals that carry genes which make them sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals exposed to toxic substances and their effects are studied.
Transgenesis is important for improving the quality and quantity of milk, meat, eggs and wool production in addition to testing drug resistance.

Question 52.
Describe the procedure by which Dolly was developed.
Answer:
Dolly was the first mammal (Sheep) clone developed by Ian Wilmut and Campbell in 1997. Dolly, the transgenic clone was developed by the nuclear transfer technique and the phenomenon of totipotency. Totipotency refers to the potential of a cell to develop different cells, tissues, organs and finally an organism.

The mammary gland udder cells (somatic cells) from a donor sheep (ewe) were isolated and subjected to starvation for 5 days. The udder cells could not undergo normal growth cycle, entered a dormant stage and became totipotent. An ovum (egg cell) was taken from another sheep (ewe) and its nucleus was removed to form an enucleated ovum. The dormant mammary gland cell/udder cell and the enucleated ovum were fused. The outer membrane of the mammary cell was ruptured allowing the ovum to envelope the nucleus.

The fused cell was implanted into another ewe which served as a surrogate mother. Five months later dolly was bom. Dolly was the first animal to be cloned from a differentiated somatic cell taken from an adult animal without the process of fertilization.

Question 53.
What are the ethical issues about cloning.
Answer:
Biotechnology has given to the soceity cheap drugs, better fruits and vegetables, pest resistant crops, indigenious cure to diseases and lot of controversy. This is mainly because the major part

of the modem biotechnology deals with genetic manipulations. People fear that these genetic manipulations may lead to unknown consequences. The major apprehension of recombinant DNA technology is that unique microorganisms either inadvertently or deliberately for the purpose of war may be developed that could cause epidemics or environmental catastrophies. Although many are concerned about the possible risk of genetic engineering, the risks are in fact slight and the potential benefits are substantial.

Higher Order Thinking (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
The immune system of a person is suppressed,. In ELISA test, the result is positive

Name the disease associated with this.
Why did he loose his immunity?

Answer:

AIDS caused by Human Immuno Vims.
In AIDS, the pathogen destroys the T-lymphocytes which forms the major immune resouce of our body.

Question 2.
Why do children cured by enzyme replacement therapy for ADA deficiency need periodic treatment? Suggest a permanent solution for this issue.
Answer:
During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 3.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae, acts as a best host than Encherichia coli for the production of recombinant interferons. Yes or No? Support your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The Saccharomyces cerevisiae, is the best source of recombinant interferon than E-coli. Since E-coli does not possess the machinery for glycolysation of protein.

Question 4.
Isolation of blood to treat Haemophilia A is practically impossible. Give reason.
Answer:

Requirement of large quantity of blood.
Risk of transmission of blood-related diseases like AIDS.

Question 5.
Functional Insulin differs from its pre-hormonal form. How?
Answer:
Pro-Insulin contains A and B segments linked by a C – chain and preceded by a leader sequence. Whereas the functional Insulin contains only A and B chain formed by the excision of the C-chain and leaders sequence after translation.

Question 6.
Whether PCR can be done for RNA molecules? Explain.
Answer:
The PCR technique can also be used for amplification of RNA in which case it is referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR). In this process, the RNA molecules (mRNA) must be converted to complementary DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The cDNA then serves as the template for PCR.

Question 7.
Suggest any two techniques for early diagnosis of bacterial/viral human diseases.
Answer:
PCR and ELISA

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 11 Capital and Revenue Transactions

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 11 Capital and Revenue Transactions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 11 Capital and Revenue Transactions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Capital and Revenue Transactions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is ……………….
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 2.
Expenditure incurred ₹ 20,000 for trial run of a newly installed machinery will be ……………….
(a) Preliminary expense
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Deferred revenue expenditure
Answer:
(c) Capital expenditure

Question 5.
Revenue expenditure is intended to benefit ……………….
(a) Past period
(b) Future period
(c) Current period
(d) Any period
Answer:
(c) Current period

Question 6.
Pre – operative expenses are ……………….
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Prepaid revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
(d) Capital expenditure

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by revenue expenditure?
Answer:
The expenditure incurred for day to day running of the business or for maintaining the earning capacity of the business is known as revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. It is incurred to generate revenue for a particular accounting period. The revenue expenditure may be incurred in relation with revenue or in relation with a particular accounting period.

Question 2.
What is capital expenditure?
Answer:
It is an expenditure incurred during an accounting period, the benefits of which will be available for more than one accounting period. It includes any expenditure resulting in the acquisition of any fixed asset or contributes to the revenue earning capacity of the business. It is non-recurring in nature.

Question 3.
What is capital profit?
Answer:
Capital profit is the profit which arises not from the normal course of the business. Profit on sale of fixed asset is an example for capital profit.

Question 4.
Write a short note on revenue receipt.
Answer:
Receipts which are obtained in the normal course of business are called revenue receipts. It is recurring in nature. The amount received is generally small.

Question 5.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred
revenue expenditure.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure.
Answer:

S. No.	Capital Expenditure	Revenue Expenditure
1	Purchase cost of fixed assets.	Maintenance expenses of fixed assets.
2	Purchase cost of long term investments.	Insurance premium.
3	Expenses to increase the earning capacity of fixed assets.	Postage and stationery.

Question 2.
Distinguish between capital receipt and revenue receipt.
Answer:

S. No.	Characteristics	Capital Receipt	Revenue Receipt
1	Nature	Non-recurring in nature.	Recurring in nature.
2	Size	Amount is generally substantial.	Amount is generally smaller.
3	Distribution	These amounts are not available for distribution as profits.	The excess’of revenue receipts over the revenue expenses can be used for distribution as profits.

Question 3.
What is deferred revenue expenditure? Give two examples.
Answer:
An expenditure, which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure. The benefit usually accrues for a period of two or more years. It is for the time being, deferred from being charged against income. It is charged against income over a period of certain years. Examples: Considerable amount spent on advertising and major repairs to plant and machinery.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
State whether the following expenditures are capital, revenue or deferred revenue.
(a) Advertising expenditure, the benefits of which will last for three years.
(b) Registration fees paid at the time of registration of a building.
(c) Expenditure incurred on repairs and whitewashing at the time of purchase of an old building in order to make it usable.
Answer:
(a) Deferred revenue expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Capital expenditure

Question 2.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue.
(a) Registration expenses incurred for the purchase of land.
(b) Repairing charges paid for remodelling the old building purchased.
(c) Carriage paid on goods purchased.
(d) Legal expenses paid for raising of loans.
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure

Question 3.
State whether they are capital and revenue.
(a) Construction of building ₹ 10,00,000.
(b) Repairs to furniture ₹ 50,000.
(c) White-washing the building ₹ 80,000.
(d) Pulling down the old building and rebuilding ₹ 4,00,000.
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure

Question 4.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue.
(a) ₹ 50,000 spent for railway siding.
(b) Loss on sale of old furniture.
(c) Carriage paid on goods sold.
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital loss
(c) Revenue expenditure

Question 5.
State whether the following are capital, revenue and deferred revenue.
(a) Legal fees paid to the lawyer for acquiring a land ₹ 20,000.
(b) Heavy advertising cost of ₹ 12,00,000 spent on introducing a new product.
(c) Renewal of factory licence ₹ 12,000.
(d) A sum of ₹ 4,000 was spent on painting the factory.
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Deferred revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure

Question 6.
Classify the following receipts into capital and revenue.
(a) Sale proceeds of goods ₹ 75,000.
(b) Loan borrowed from bank ₹ 2,50,000.
(c) Sale of investment ₹ 1,20,000.
(d) Commission received ₹ 30,000.
(e) ₹ 1,400 wages paid in connection with the erection of new machinery.
Answer:
(a) Revenue receipts
(b) Capital receipts
(c) Capital receipts
(d) Revenue receipts
(e) Capital expenditure

Question 7.
Identify the following items into capital or revenue.
(a) Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
(b) Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
(c) ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
(d) Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
(e) Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
(e) Revenue expenditure

Textbook Case Study Solved

Question 1.
Sadhana decides to start a business of selling air – conditioners. She buys different brands of air – conditioners. She also buys a delivery van, some furniture and some tools to fix air- conditioners. She buys some stationery items and cleaning liquid. She spends some amount on advertising her shop. She records the entire amount spent in the trading account.
Now, discuss on the following points:

Question 1.
Is it correct to record the entire amount spent in the first year of trading in the trading account? What impact will it have on the profit for the year?
Answer:
It is not correct to record the entire amount spent in the first year of trading in the trading account. It will be shown as a capital expenditure. For example: furniture and delivery van.

Question 2.
What are her fixed assets?
Answer:

A delivery van.
Some furniture.
Some tools.

Question 3.
Does she apply accounting concepts? If not which is the concept she does not apply?
Answer:
No, she does not apply accounting concepts. She does not apply business entity concepts.

Question 4.
Can you help Sadhana to classify the expenditure?
Answer:
Yes, I can help Sadhana to classify the expenditure:

Capital expenditure

Revenue expenditure

Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Non-recurring

Recurring

Non-recurring

1. Delivery Van

2. Furniture

3. Tools

1. Air-conditioners

2. Stationery items

3. Cleaning liquid

She spends some amount on advertising her shop.

Question 5.
What other capital, revenue and deferred revenue expenditure her business may incur in the future?
Answer:
In the future:

Capital expenditure

Revenue expenditure

Deferred Revenue Expenditure

1. Building extension

2. Computer for office use

3. Other furniture

1. Air-conditioners

2. Other home appliances

A huge advertising.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Capital and Revenue Transactions Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Cost of acquisition of land and building is an example of ………………
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital receipts
(d) Revenue receipts
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 2.
There are types of expenditure ………………
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 3.
……………… expenditure is recurring in nature.
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital loss
(d) Capital profit
Answer:
(b) Revenue expenditure

Question 4.
Considerable amount spent on advertising is an example of ……………… expenditure.
(a) capital
(b) revenue
(c) deferred
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) deferred

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is capital receipt?
Answer:
Receipt which is not revenue in nature is called capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature. The amount received is normally substantial. It is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Question 2.
Write any two features of revenue expenditure.
Answer:

It is recurring in nature.
It is incurred for maintaining the earning capacity of the business.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write three features of deferred revenue expenditure.
Answer:

It is a revenue expenditure, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods.
It is not fully written off in the year of actual expenditure. It is written off over a period of certain years.
The balance available after writing off (i.e., Actual expenditure – Amount written off) is shown on the assets side balance sheet.

Question 2.
What are the classifications of expenditures?
Answer:

Capital expenditure
Revenue expenditure
Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 3.
Write any three examples of revenue expenditure.
Answer:

Purchase of goods for sale
Administrative, selling and distribution expenses
Manufacturing expenses

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Depreciation Accounting

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 10 Depreciation Accounting Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Depreciation Accounting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Depreciation Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Under straight line method, the amount of depreciation is ……………..
(a) Incfeasing every year
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Constant for all the years
(d) Fluctuating every year
Answer:
(c) Constant for ail the years

Question 2.
If the total charge of depreciation and maintenance cost are considered, the method that provides a uniform charge is ……………..
(a) Straight line method
(b) Diminishing balance method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Insurance policy method
Answer:
(b) Diminishing balance method

Question 3.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is ……………..
(a) Uniform in all the years
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Increasing every year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Decreasing every year

Question 4.
Depreciation provided on machinery is debited to ……………..
(a) Depreciation account
(b) Machinery account
(c) Trading account
(d) Provision for depreciation account
Answer:
(a) Depreciation account

Question 5.
Cash received from sale of fixed asset is credited to ……………..
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Fixed asset account
(c) Depreciation account
(d) Bank account
Answer:
(b) Fixed asset account

Question 6.
Depreciation is provided on ……………….
(a) Fixed assets
(b) Current assets
(c) Outstanding charges
(d) All assets
Answer:
(a) Fixed assets

Question 7.
Depreciation is caused by ……………..
(a) Lapse of time
(b) Usage
(c) Obsolescence
(d) a, b and c
Answer:
(d) a, b and c

Question 8.
Depreciation is the process of ……………..
(a) Allocation of cost of the asset to the period of its useful life
(b) Valuation of assets
(c) Maintenance of an asset in a state of efficiency
(d) Adding value to the asset
Answer:
(a) Allocation of cost of the asset to the period of its useful life

Question 9.
For which of the following assets, the depletion method is adopted for writing off cost of the asset?
(a) Plant and machinery
(b) Mines and quarries
(c) Buildings
(d) Trademark
Answer:
(b) Mines and quarries

Question 10.
A depreciable asset may suffer obsolescence due to ……………..
(a) Passage of time
(b) Wear and tear
(c) Technological changes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Technological changes

Question 11.
Which method shall be efficient, if repairs and maintenance cost of an asset increases as it grows older?
(a) Straight line method
(b) Reducing balance method
(c) Sinking fund method
(d) Annuity method
Answer:
(b) Reducing balance method

Question 12.
Depreciation is to be calculated from the date when ……………..
(a) Asset is put to use
(b) Purchase order is made
(c) Asset is received at business premises
(d) Invoice of assets is received
Answer:
(a) Asset is put to use

Question 13.
If the rate of depreciation is same, then the amount of depreciation under straight line method vis – a – vis written down value method will be
(a) Equal in all years
(b) Equal in the first year but higher in subsequent years
(c) Equal in the first year but lower in subsequent years
(d) Lower in the first year but equal in subsequent years
Answer:
(b) Equal in the first year but higher in subsequent years

Question 14.
Residual value of an asset means the amount that it can fetch on sale at the of its useful life.
(a) Beginning
(b) End
(c) Middle
(d) None
Answer:
(b) End

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by depreciation?
Answer:
The process of allocation of the relevant cost of a fixed asset over its useful life is known as depreciation. It is an allocation of cost against the benefits derived from a fixed asset during an accounting period.

Question 2.
List out the various methods of depreciation.
Answer:

Straight line method or fixed instalment method or Original cost method.
Written down value method or Diminishing balance method or Reducing balance method.
Sum of years digits method.
Machine hour rate method.
Depletion method.
Annuity method.
Revaluation method.
Sinking fund method.
Insurance Policy method.

Question 3.
Give the formula to find out the amount and rate of depreciation under straight line method of depreciation.
Answer:
1. Amount of depreciation per year =
2. Rate of depreciation =

Question 4.
What is annuity method?
Answer:
Under this method, not only the original cost of the asset but also the amount of interest on the investment is taken into account while computing depreciation. The idea of considering interest is that if the investment is made in any other asset instead of the relevant fixed asset, it . would have earned a certain rate of interest. To calculate the amount of depreciation, annuity factor is used. Annuity factor can be found out from the annuity table or by using formula. Amount of depreciation is computed as follows:
Amount of depreciation = Annuity factor x original cost of the asset.

Question 5.
What is sinking fund method?
Answer:
This method is adopted especially when it is desired not merely to write off an asset but also to provide enough funds to replace an asset at the end of its working life. Under this method, the amount charged as depreciation is transferred to depreciation fund and invested outside the business. The investment is made in safe securities which offer a certain rate of interest. Interest is received annually and reinvested every year along with the amount of annual depreciation. On the expiry of the life of the asset, the investments are sold and the sale proceeds are used for replacement of the asset. This method of depreciation is suitable for assets of higher value. This method is also known as depreciation fund method.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of providing depreciation?
Answer:

To find out the true profit or loss
To present the true and fair view of financial position
To facilitate replacement of fixed assets
To avail tax benefits
To comply with legal requirements

Question 2.
What are the causes for depreciation?
Answer:

Wear and tear
Efflux of time
Obsolescence
Inadequacy for the purpose
Lack of maintenance
Abnormal factors

Question 3.
State the advantages and limitations of straight line method of depreciation.
Answer:
Advantages:

Simple and easy to understand
Equality of depreciation burden
Assets can be completely written off
Suitable for the assets having fixed working life

Limitations:

Ignores the actual use of the asset
Ignores the interest factor
Total charge on the assets will be more when the asset becomes older
Difficulty in the determination of scrap value

Question 4.
State the advantages and limitations of written down value method of depreciation.
Answer:
Advantages:

Equal charge against income
Logical method

Limitations:

Assets cannot be completely written off
Ignores the interest factor
Difficulty in determining the rate of depreciation
Ignores the actual use of the asset

Question 5.
Distinguish between straight line method and written down value method of providing depreciation.
Answer:

IV. Exercises

Straight line method:

Question 1.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹ 40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹ 2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method.
Answer:
Calculation of amount of depreciation
Amount of depreciation =
Original cost = Purchase of plant + Erection charges = ₹ 40,000 + ₹ 2,000 = ₹ 42,000
Estimated life = 5 years = \(\frac{₹ 42000-0}{5 \text { years }}\) = ₹ 8,400/-

Question 2.
A company purchased a building for ₹ 50,000. The useful life of the building is 10 years and the residual value is ₹ 2,000. Find out the amount and rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Answer:
(1) Calculation of amount of depreciation:
Amount of depreciation =
Original cost = ₹ 50,000
residual value = ₹ 2,000
Estimated life = 10 years
\(\frac{50,000-2,000}{10 \text { years }}\) = \(\frac { 48,000 }{ 10 }\) = ₹ 4,800/-

(2) Calculation of rate of depreciation:
rate of depreciation = = \(\frac { 48,000 }{ 50,000 }\) x 100 = 9.6%

Question 3.
Furniture was purchased for ₹ 60,000 on 1-7-2016. It is expected to last for 5 years. Estimated scrap at the end of five years is ₹ 4,000. Find out the rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Answer:
(1) Amount of depreciation =
Original cost = ₹ 60,000
Scrap value = ₹ 4,000
Estimated life = 5 years
= \(\frac{60,000-4,000}{5 \text { years }}\) = \(\frac { 56,000 }{ 5 }\) = ₹ 11,200/-

Question 4.
Calculate the rate of depreciation under straight line method from the following information: Purchased a second hand machinery on 1.1.2018 for ₹ 38,000 On 1.1.2018 spent ₹ 12,000 on its repairs
Expected useful life of machine is 4 years
Estimated residual value ₹ 6,000
Answer:
Original cost – residual value
(1) Calculation of amount of depreciation =
Original cost = Purchase of machinery + repair charges = 38,000 + 12,000 = 50,000
Residual value = 6,000
Estimated life = 4 years = \(\frac{50,000-6,000}{4 \text { years }}\) = ₹ 11,000/-
(2) Rate of depreciation =

= \(\frac { 11,000 }{ 50,000 }\) x 100 = 22 %

Question 5.
Calculate the rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Purchase price of a machine ₹ 80,000
Expenses to be capitalised ₹ 20,000
Estimated residual value ₹ 4,000
Expected useful life ₹ 4 years
Answer:
Original cost – residual value =
Original cost = Machine purchased + capitalised expenses
80,000 + 20,000 = 1,00,000
Residual value = 4,000
Estimated life = 4 years
= \(\frac{1,00,000-4,000}{4 \text { years }}\) = \(\frac { 96,000 }{ 4 }\) = ₹ 24,000/-

Question 6.
Machinery was purchased on 1^st January 2015 for ₹ 4,00,000. ₹ 15,000 was spent on its erection and ₹ 10,000 on its freight charges. Depreciation is charged at 10% per annum on straight line method. The books are closed on 31^st March each year. Calculate the amount of depreciation on machinery for the first two years.
Answer:
Calculation of depreciation:
Original cost = Machinery purchased + erection charges + freight charges
= 4,00,000 + 15,000 + 10 ,000
= 4,25,000

First year depreciation = ₹ 10,625
Second year depreciation = ₹ 42,500

Question 7.
An asset is purchased on 1.1.2016 for ₹ 25,000. Depreciation is to be provided annually according to straight line method. The useful life of the asset is 10 years and its residual value is ₹ 1,000. Accounts are closed on 31^st December every year. You are required to find out the rate of depreciation and give journal entries for first two years.
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =
Original cost = ₹ 25,000
Residual value = ₹ 1,000
Estimated life = 10 years
= \(\frac{25,000-1,000}{10 \text { years }}\) = \(\frac { 24,000 }{ 10 }\) = ₹ 24,000/-

(2) Rate of depreciation =
= \(\frac { 2,400 }{ 25,000 }\) x 100 = 9.6%
Journal Entries for first two years

Question 8.
From the following particulars, give journal entries for 2 years and prepare machinery account under straight line method of providing depreciation:
Machinery was purchased on 1.1.2016
Price of the machine ₹ 36,000
Freight charges ₹ 2,500
Installation charges ₹ 1,500
Life of the machine 5 years
Answer:
Calculation of Asset of depreciation:
Amount of depreciation =
Original cost = Price of the machine + Freight charges + Installation charges
= 36,000 + 2,500 + 1,500 = ₹ 40,000
= \(\frac { 40,000 – 0 }{ 5 years }\) = ₹ 8,000
Journal Entries for 2 years

Machinery

Question 9.
A manufacturing company purchased on 1^st April, 2010, a plant and machinery for ₹ 4,50,000 and spent ₹ 50,000 on its installation. After having used it for three years, it was sold for ₹ 3,85,000. Depreciation is to be provided every year at the rate of 15% per annum on the fixed instalment method. Accounts are closed on 31^st March every year. Calculate profit or loss on sale of machinery.
Answer:
Calculation of Profit or Loss on sale of Machinery

Note: If the selling price is more than the book value is called profit.
Selling price – Book value = Profit 3,85,000 – 2,75,000 = 1,10,000
Profit on sale of Machinery is = ₹ 1,10,000.

Question 10.
On 1^st April 2008, Sudha and Company purchased machinery for ₹ 64,000. To instal the machinery expenses incurred was ₹ 28,000. Depreciate machinery 10% p.a. under straight line method. On 30^th June, 2010 the worn out machinery was sold for ₹ 52,000. The books are closed on 31^st December every year. Show machinery account.
Answer:
Workings:

If Book value is more than the selling price it is called loss.
Book value – selling price = loss
71,300 – 52,000 = 19,300
Loss on sale of machinery is = 19,300
Machinery

Question 11.
Ragul purchased machinery on April 1, 2014 for ₹ 2,00,000. On 1^st October 2015, a new machine costing ₹ 1,20,000 was purchased. On 30^th September 2016, the machinery purchased on April 1, 2014 was sold for ₹ 1,20,000. Books of accounts are closed on 31^st March and depreciation is to be provided at 10% p.a. on straight line method. Prepare machinery account and depreciation account for the years 2014 – 15 to 2016 – 17.
Answer:
Workings

Machinery

Written down value method

Question 12.
An asset is purchased for ₹ 50,000. The rate of depreciation is 15% p.a. Calculate the annual depreciation for the first two years under diminishing balance method.
Answer:
Workings: Calculation of depreciation of Machinery

Question 13.
A boiler was purchased on 1st January 2015 from abroad for ₹ 10,000. Shipping and forwarding charges amounted to ₹ 2,000. Import duty ₹ 7,000 and expenses of installation amounted to ₹ 1,000. Calculate depreciation for the first 3 years @10% p.a. on diminishing balance method assuming that the accounts are closed 31^st December each year.
Answer:
Calculation of amount of depreciation on diminishing balance method:

2015 Depreciation ₹ 2,000
2016 Depreciation ₹ 1,800
2017 Depreciation ₹ 1,620

Question 14.
A furniture costing ₹ 5,000 was purchased on 1.1.2016, the installation charges being ₹ 1,000. The furniture is to be depreciated @ 10% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. Pass journal entries for the first two years.
Answer:

Journal Entries

Question 15.
A firm acquired a machine on 1^st April 2015 at a cost of ₹ 50,000. Its life is 6 years. The firm writes off depreciation @ 30% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31^st December every year. Show the machinery account and depreciation account for three years starting from 1^st April 2015.
Answer:
Workings:

Machinery

Depreciation A/c

Question 16.
A firm purchased a machine for ₹ 1,00,000 on 1-7-2015. Depreciation is written off at 20% on reducing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31^st December each year. Show the machinery account upto 31-12-2017.
Answer:
Workings:

MachineryA/c

Question 17.
On 1^st October 2014, a truck was purchased for ₹ 8,00,000 by Laxmi Transports Ltd. Depreciation was provided @ 15% p.a. under diminishing balance method. On 31^st March 2017, the above truck was sold for ₹ 5,00,000. Accounts are closed on 31^st March every year. Find out the profit or loss made on the sale of the truck.
Answer:
Calculation of Profit or loss on sale of truck:

Note: If Book value is more than the selling price it is called loss:
Book value – selling price = Loss
5,34,650 – 5,00,000 = 34,650
∴ Loss on sale of truck = ₹ 34,650

Question 18.
On 1^st January 2015, a second hand machine was purchased for ₹ 58,000 and ₹ 2,000 was spent on its repairs. On 1^st July 2017, it was sold for ₹ 28,600. Prepare the machinery account for the years 2015 to 2017 under written down value method by assuming the rate of depreciation as 10% p.a. and the accounts are closed on 31^st December every year.
Answer:
Calculation of profit or loss on sale of machinery

Note: If Book value is more than the selling price it is called loss.
Book value – selling price = loss
46,170 – 28,600 = 17,570
∴ Loss on sale of machinery = ₹ 17,570

Question 19.
Raj & Co purchased a machine on 1^st January 2014 for ₹ 90,000. On 1^st July 2014, they purchased another machine for ₹ 60,000. On 1^st January 2015, they sold the machine purchased on 1^st January 2014 for ₹ 40,000. It was decided that the machine be depreciated at 10% per annum on diminishing balance method. Accounts are closed on 31^st December every year. Show the machinery account for the years 2014 and 2015.
Answer:
Workings

Note: If Book value is more than the selling price is called loss.
Book value – selling price = loss
81,000 – 40,000 = 41,000
Machinery

Textbook Case Study Solved

Question a.
Lucky & Co’s income statement shows a loss of ₹ 3,000. The owner thinks that there is no need to provide for depreciation as the company has made a loss. He also suggests his accountant to change the method of depreciation for the next year so as to avoid the loss. But, the accountant is hesitant to make the necessary changes suggested by his owner.
Now, discuss on the following points:

Question 1.
Do you agree on the point that there is no need to charge depreciation when the company has made a loss?
Answer:
No, I don’t agree on the point that there is no need to charge depreciation when the company has made a loss. We have to charge depreciation whether profit or loss, otherwise we cannot find out the actual profit or loss.

Question 2.
Why does the accountant hesitate to make the changes suggested by his owner?
Answer:
The accountant hesitates to make the changes suggested by his owner because it will differ the profit or loss for the business. The depreciation is a necessary one, so it must be deducted every year.

Question 3.
What are the accounting principles not followed if the accountant agrees to his owner’s suggestion?
Answer:
If the accountant agrees to his owner’s suggestion, they will not follow double entry system.

Question 4.
Do you think charging depreciation could be the only reason for the company’s loss?
Answer:
No, charging depreciation could not be the only reason for the company’s loss, because the business activities are subject to change but the depreciation is compulsory when the business is running.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Depreciation Accounting Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause ……………….
(a) Owen
(b) Wheeler
(c) Spicer and Pegler
(d) R.N. Carter
Answer:
(d) R.N. Carter

Question 2.
Certain assets whether used or not become potentially less useful with the passage of time ……………….
(a) Efflux of time
(b) Lack of maintenance
(c) Abnormal factors
(d) Wear and tear
Answer:
(a) Efflux of time

Question 3.
The normal use of a tangible asset results in physical deterioration which is called ……………….
(a) Wear and tear
(b) Abnormal factors
(c) Obsolescence
(d) Efflux of time
Answer:
(a) Wear and tear

Question 4.
Allocation of acquisition cost of intangible fixed assets such as goodwill is called ……………….
(a) Abnormal factors
(b) Wear and tear
(c) Amortization
(d) Obsolescence
Answer:
(c) Amortization

Question 5.
………………. is also known as residual value.
(a) Book value
(b) Scrap value
(c) Amortization
(d) Wear and tear
Answer:
(b) Scrap value

Question 6.
The following formula is used to complete the rate of depreciation under ……………….
(a) Written down value method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Machine hour rate method
(d) Annuity method
Answer:
(a) Written down value method

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State R.N. Carter’s definition of depreciation.
Answer:
According to R.N. Carter, “Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause”.

Question 2.
What is wear and tear?
Answer:
The normal use of a tangible asset results in physical deterioration which is called wear and tear. When there is wear and tear, the value of the asset decreases proportionately.

Question 3.
What is obsolescence?
Answer:
It is a reduction in the value of assets as a result of the availability of updated alternative assets. This happens due to new inventions and innovations.

Question 4.
What is Straight line method?
Answer:
Under this method, a fixed percentage on the original cost of the asset is charged every year by way of depreciation. Hence it is called original cost method. As the amount of depreciation remains equal in all years over the useful life of an asset, it is also called as fixed instalment method.

Question 5.
What is written down value method?
Answer:
Under this method, depreciation is charged at a fixed percentage on the written down value of the asset every year. Hence, it is called written down value method.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on sum of years of digits method.
Answer:
This method is similar to the diminishing balance method. The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing year after year in proportion to the unexpired life of the asset. This method is suitable for those assets having more profitability of obsolescence and increased repair charges as the assets grow older. Under this method, amount of depreciation per year is calculated by multiplying the cost of the asset and the number of remaining years of life and dividing it by the sum of the digits of all years of life of the asset.

Question 2.
What is machine hour rate method?
Answer:
Under this method, depreciation per machine hour is calculated. The cost of the machinery after deducting the residual value, if any, is divided by the estimated working hours of the machine to find the depreciation per hour. The actual depreciation for any given period depends upon the working hours during that year. The special feature of this method is that depreciation is found directly in proportion to the actual use of the asset. Under this method life of the asset is estimated in hours and not in years.

Question 3.
What is Depletion method?
Answer:
Depletion means exhaustion of natural resources. That is depletion means quantitative reduction in the content of assets. This is applicable to those assets that get exhausted due to extraction and exploitation. Examples: mines and oil fields, etc. Under this method, depreciation rate is calculated on the basis of the estimated quantities of the output during the whole life of the asset.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Evolution

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Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 6 Evolution Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Evolution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The first life on Earth originated __________
(a) in air
(b) on land
(c) in water
(d) on mountain
Answer:
(c) in water

Question 2.
Who published the book “Origin of species by Natural Selection” in 1859?
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Hugo de Vries
Answer:
(a) Charles Darwin

Question 3.
Which of the following was the contribution of Hugo de Vries?
(a) Theory of mutation
(b) Theory of natural Selection
(c) Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(d) Germplasm theory
Answer:
(a) Theory of mutation

Question 4.
The wings of birds and butterflies is an example of __________
(a) Adaptive radiation
(b) convergent evolution
(c) divergent evolution
(d) variation
Answer:
(b) convergent evolution

Question 5.
The phenomenon of “ Industrial Melanism” demonstrates __________
(a) Natural selection
(b) induced mutation
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) geographical isolation
Answer:
(a) Natural selection

Question 6.
Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of __________
(a) connecting links
(b) seasonal migration
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) parasitism
Answer:
(c) adaptive radiation

Question 7.
Who proposed the Germplasm theory?
(a) Darwin
(b) August Weismann
(c) Lamarck
(d) analysis of bones
Answer:
(b) August Weismann

Question 8.
The age of fossils can be determined by __________
(a) electron microscope
(b) weighing the fossils
(c) carbon dating
(d) analysis of bones
Answer:
(c) carbon dating

Question 9.
Fossils are generally found in __________
(a) igneous rocks
(b) metamorphics
(c) volcanic rocks
(d) sedimentary rocks
Answer:
(d) sedimentary rocks

Question 10.
Evolutionary history of an organism is called __________
(a) ancestry
(b) ontogeny
(c) phylogeny
(d) paleontology
Answer:
(c) phylogeny

Question 11.
The golden age of reptiles was __________
(a) Mesozoic era
(b) Cenozoic era
(c) Paleozoic era
(d) Proteroic era
Answer:
(a) Mesozoic era

Question 12.
Which period was called “Age of fishes”?
(a) Permian
(b) Triassic
(c) Devonian
(d) Ordovician
Answer:
(c) Devonian

Question 13.
Modem man belongs to which period?
(a) Quaternary
(b) Cretaceous
(c) Silurian
(d) Cambrian
Answer:
(a) Quaternary

Question 14.
The Neanderthal man had the brain capacity of __________
(a) 650 – 800cc
(b) 1200cc
(c) 900cc
(d) 1400c
Answer:
(d) 1400c

Question 15.
List out the major gases seem to fie found in primitive Earth.
Answer:
C0₂, NH₃, UV and Water vapour

Question 16.
Explain the three major categories in which fossilization occur.
Answer:
(i) Actual remains are the most common method of fossilization. When marine animals die, their hard parts such as bones and shells, etc. are covered with sediments and are protected from further deterioration. They get preserved as such as they are preserved in vast ocean; the salinity in them prevents decay. The sediments become hardened to form definite layers or strata. For example, Woolly Mammoth that lived 22 thousand years ago were preserved in the frozen coast of Siberia as such. Several human beings and animals living in die ancient city of Pompeii were preserved intact by volcanic ash which gushed out from Mount Vesuvius.

ii) Petrifaction – When animals die the original portion of their body may be replaced molecule for molecule by minerals and the original substance being lost through disintegration. This method of fossilization is called petrifaction. The principle minerals involved in this type fossilization are iron pyrites, silica, calcium carbonate and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. ‘

iii) Natural moulds and casts – Even after disintegration, the body of an animal might leave indelible impression on the soft mud which later becomes hardened into stones. Such impressions are called moulds. The cavities of the moulds may get filled up by hard minerals and get fossilized, which are called casts. Hardened faecal matter termed as coprolites, occur as tiny pellets. Analysis of the coprolites enables us to understand the nature of diet, the pre¬historic animals thrived.

Question 17.
Differentiate between divergent evolution and convergent evolution with one example for each.
Answer:
Divergent Evolution:

Divergent evolution is a result of homology.
Eg: The wings of bird and the forelimbs of human both are homologous structures modified according to functions. In birds, it is used for flight and in humans used for writing and other purposes.

Convergent Evolution:

Convergent evolution is a result of analogy,
E.g: Root modification in sweet potato, and stem modification in potato are analogous structures both performing same function i.e., storage,

Question 18.
How does Hardy-Weinberg’s expression (p² + 2pq + q² = 1) explain that genetic equilibrium is maintained in a population? List any four factors that can disturb the genetic equilibrium.
Answer:
The allele frequencies in a population are stable and are constant from generation to generation in the absence of gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, recombination and natural selection. If a population is in a state of Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, the frequencies of alleles and genotypes or sets of alleles in that population will remain same over generations. Evolution is a change in the allele frequencies in a population over time. Hence population in Hardy Weinberg is not evolving.

Suppose we have a large population of beetles, (infinitely large) and appear in two colours ’ dark grey (black) and light grey, and their colour is determined by ‘A’ gene. ‘AA’ and ‘Aa’ beetles are dark grey and ‘aa’ beetles are light grey. In a population let’s say that ‘ A’ allele has frequency (p) of 0.3 and ‘a’ allele has a frequency (q ) of 0.7. Then p+q= 1.

If a population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium the genotype frequencycan be estimated by Hardy Weinberg equation.
(p + q)² = p² + 2pq + q²
p² = frequency of AA
2pq = frequency of Aa
q²= frequency of aa
p = 0.3, q = 0.7 then,
p² = (0.3)² = 0.09 = 9 %AA
2pq = 2(0.3) (0.7) = 0.42 = 42 % Aa
q2 = (0.7)² 0.49 = 49 % aa
Hence the beetle population appears to be in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium. When the beetles in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium reproduce the allele and genotype frequency in the next generation would be: Let’s assume that the frequency of ‘A’ and ‘a’ allele in the pool of gametes that make the next generation would be the same, then there would be no variation in the progeny. The genotype frequencies of the parent appears in the next generation.
(i.e. 9% AA, 42% Aa and 49% aa).

If we assume that the beetles mate randomly (selection of male gamete and female gamete in the pool of gametes), the probability of getting the offspring genotype depends on the genotype of the combining parental gametes.

Question 19.
Explain how mutations, natural selection and genetic drift affect Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:
Natural selection occurs when one allele (or combination of alleles of differences) makes an organism more or less fit to survive and reproduce in a given environment. If an allele reduces fitness, its frequencies tend to drop from one generation to the next.

The evolutionary path of a given gene (i.e) how its allele’s change in frequency in the population across generation, may result from several evolutionary mechanisms acting at once. For example, one gene’s allele frequencies might be modified by both gene flow and genetic drift, for another gene, mutation may produce a new allele, that is favoured by natural selection.

Genetic drift / Sewall Wright Effect is a mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population change over a generation due to chance (sampling error). Genetic drift occurs in all population sizes, but its effects are strong in a small population. It may result in a loss of some alleles (including beneficial ones) and fixation of other alleles. Genetic drift can have major effects, when the population is reduced in size by natural disaster due to the bottleneck effect or when a small group of population splits from the main population to form a new colony due to the founder’s effect.

Although mutation is the original source of all genetic variation, mutation rate for most organisms is low. Hence new mutations on allele frequencies from one generation to the next is usually not large.

Question 20.
How did Darwin explain the fitness of organisms?
Answer:
Organisms struggle for food, space and mate. As these become a limiting factor, competition exists among the members of the population. Darwin denoted struggle for existence in three ways

Intra-specific struggle between the same species for food, space and mate Inter-specific struggle with different species for food and space. Struggle with the environment to cope with the climatic variations, flood, earthquakes and drought, etc.

According to Darwin, nature is the most powerful selective force. He compared origin of species by natural selection to a small isolated group. Darwin believed that the struggle for existence resulted in the survival of the fittest. Such organisms become better adapted to the changed environment.

Question 21.
Mention the main objections to Darwinism.
Answer:
Some objections raised against Darwinism were

Darwin failed to explain the mechanism of variation.
Darwinism explains the survival of the fittest but not the arrival of the fittest.
He focused on small fluctuating variations that are mostly non-heritable.
He did not distinguish between somatic and germinal variations.
He could not explain the occurrence of vestigial organs, overspecialization of some organs like large tusks in extinct mammoths and oversized antlers in the extinct Irish deer, etc.

Question 22.
Taking the example of Peppered moth, explain the action of natural selection. What do you call the above phenomenon?
Answer:
Natural selection can be explained clearly through industrial melanism. Industrial melanism is a classical case of Natural selection exhibited by the peppered moth, Bistort betularia. These were available in two colours, white and black. Before industrialization peppered moth both white and black coloured were common in England. Pre-industrialization witnessed white colpured background of the wall of the buildings hence the white coloured moths escaped from their predators. Post industrialization, the tree trunks became dark due to smoke and soot let out from the industries.

The black moths camouflaged on the dark bark of the trees and the white moths were easily identified by their predators. Hence the dark coloured moth population was selected and their number increased when compared to the white moths. Nature offered positive selection pressure to the black coloured moths. The above proof shows that in a population, organisms that can adapt will survive and produce more progenies resulting in increase in population through natural selection.

Question 23.
Darwin’s finches and Australian marsupials are suitable examples of adaptive radiation – Justify the statement.
Answer:
Darwin’s finches are the birds whose common ancestor arrived on the Galapagos about 2 million years ago. During that time, Darwin’s finches have evolved into 14 recognized species differing in body size, beak shape and feeding behavior. Changes in the size and form of the beak have enabled different species to utilize different food resources such as insects, seeds, nectar from cactus flowers and blood from iguanas, all driven by Natural selection. Genetic variation in the ALX1 gene in the DNA of Darwin finches is associated with variation in the beak shape. Mild mutation in the ALX1 gene leads to phenotypic change in the shape of the beak of the Darwin finches.

Marsupials in Australia and placental mammals in North America are two subclasses of mammals they have adapted in similar way to a particular food resource, locomotory skill or climate. They were separated from the common ancestor more than 100 million years ago and each lineage continued to evolve independently. Despite temporal and geographical separation, marsupials in Australia and placental mammals in North America have produced varieties of species living in similar habitats with similar ways of life. Their overall resemblance in shape, locomotory mode, feeding and foraging are superimposed upon different modes of reproduction. This feature reflects their distinctive evolutionary relationships.

Over 200 species of marsupials live in Australia along with many fewer species of placental mammals. The marsupials have undergone adaptive radiation to occupy the diverse habitats in Australia, just as the placental mammals have radiated across North America.

Question 24.
Who disproved Lamarck’s Theory of acquired characters? How?
Answer:
Lamarck’s “Theory of Acquired characters” was disproved by August Weismann who conducted experiments on mice for twenty generations by cutting their tails and breeding them. All mice bom were with tail. Weismann proved that change in the somatoplasm will not be transferred to the next generation but changes in the germplasm will be inherited.

Question 25.
How does the Mutation Theory of De Vries differ from Lamarck and Darwin’s view in the origin of new species?
Answer:
According to de Vries, sudden and large variations were responsible for the origin of new species, whereas Lamarck and Darwin believed in the gradual accumulation of all variations as the causative factors in the origin of new species.

Question 26.
Explain stabilizing, directional and disruptive selection with examples.
Answer:
i. Stabilising selection (centipetal selection): This type of selection operates in a stable environment as shown in fig. The organisms with average phenotypes survive whereas the extreme individuals from both ends are eliminated. There is no speciation but the phenotypic stability is maintained within the population over a generation. For example, measurements of sparrows that survived the storm clustered around the mean, and the sparrows that failed to survive the storm clustered around the extremes of the variation showing stabilizing selection.

ii. Directional Selection: The environment” which undergoes gradual change is subjected to directional selection, as shown in fig. This type of selection removes the individuals from one end towards the other end of phenotypic distribution. For example, size differences between male and female sparrows. Both male and female look alike externally but differ in body weight. Females show directional selection in relation to body weight.

iii. Disruptive selection: (centrifugal selection) When homogenous environment changes into heterogenous environment this type of selection is operational as shown in fig. The organisms of both the extreme phenotypes are selected, whereas individuals with average phenotype are eliminated. This results in splitting of the population into sub population/species. This is a rare form of selection but leads to formation of two or more different species. It is also (called adaptive radiation. (E.g:) Darwin’s finches beak size in relation to seed size inhabiting Galapagos islands. Group selection and sexual selection are other types of selection. The two major group selections are Altrusim and Kin selection.

Question 27.
Rearrange the descent in human evolution.
Answer:
Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus →Homo habilis
Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

Question 28.
Differentiate between the eating habit and brain size of Australopithecus and Ramapithecus.
Answer:

	Australopithecus	Ramapithecus
Eating Habit	Herbivores	Omnivores
Brain Size	350- 450 cc	200 – 300 cc

Question 29.
How does the Neanderthal man differ from the modern man in appearance?
Answer:
Neanderthal man differ from the modem human in having a semierect posture, flat cranium, sloping forehead, thin large orbits, heavy brow ridges, protruding jaws and no chin.

Question 30.
Mention any three similarities found common in Neanderthal man and Homo sapiens. Common characters showed by Neanderthal man and Homo sapiens are:
Answer:

Usage of Fire
Burying of dead bodies
Protecting themselves from predators

Question 31.
According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to
(а) Intraspecific competition
(b) Interspecific competition
(c) Competition within closely related species.
(d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
Answer:
(d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.

Question 32.
A population will not exist in Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium if
(a) Individuals mate selectively
(b) There are no mutations
(c) There is no migration
(d) The population is large
Answer:
(a) Individuals mate selectively

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Evolution Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Identify the incorrect statement in concern with Neanderthals.
(a) Neanderthal human was found in Germany.
(b) They possessed flat cranium.
(c) They used to bury their dead.
(d) Their brain size is of 650 – 800 cc
Answer:
(d) Their brain size is of 650 – 800 cc

Question 2.
Which of the following statement does not satisfy the Hardy Weinberg’s principle?
(a) A population undergoing random mating
(b) Small-sized population
(c) Population where there is no mutation or gene flow
(d) Absence of natural selection
Answer:
(b) Small-sized population

Question 3.
Match column I with column II

Answer:
(a) a – iii b – ii c – iv d – i

Question 4.
Placental mammals develop during _______
(a) Eocene
(b) Oligocene
(c) Pliocene
(d) Paleocene
Answer:
(d) Paleocene

Question 5.
Identify the correct sequence from oldest to youngest
(а) Cambrian → Permian → Devonian → Silurian → Ordovician
(b) Permian → Silurian → Devonian → Ordovician → Cambrian
(c) Permian → Devonian → Silurian → Cambrian → Ordovician
(d) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Permian
Answer:
(d) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian Devonian → Permian

Question 6.
Match the scientists with their terminologies used
(a) Biogenesis (i) Oparin
(b) Prebiotic soup (ii) Henry Bastin
(c) Coacervates (iii) Thomas Huxley
(d) Abiogenesis (iv) Haldane
(a) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i
(b) a – ii b – iv c – i d – iii
(c) a – iii b – i c – iv d – ii
(d) a – i b – iv c – iii d – ii
Answer:
(b) a – ii b – iv c – i d – iii

Question 7.
Anatomical structures that have similar functions but not similar structures are called
(a) Homologous structures
(b) Vestigial structures
(c) Analogous structures
(d) Generalized structures
Answer:
(c) Analogous structures

Question 8.
Who propounded the theory of recapitulation?
(a) Ernst Von Haeckel
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Thomas Huxley
(d) Oparin
Answer:
(c) Ernst Von Haeckel

Question 9.
Mammal in human male is
(a) Atavistic organ
(b) Rudimentary Organ
(c) Vestigial organ
(d) Homologous structure
Answer:
(c) Vestigial organ

Question 10.
Which of the following is/are not examples of analogous structure
(a) Wings of Birds and Bats
(b) Wings of Birds and Insects
(c) Thom of Bougainvillea and Tendril of cururbita
(d) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
(i) a, b, c
(ii) a and c
(iii) b and d
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(ii) a and c

Question 11.
identify the mismatched pairs
(a) Thom of Bougainvillea and Tenrdril of – Analogy
(b) Forelimbs of whale and cat – Analogy
(c) Octopus eye & Mammalian eye – Homology
(d) Root of sweet potato & stem of potato – Homology
Answer:
(a) Thorn of Bougainvillea & Terdril of crucurbita – Analogy

Question 12.
Witnesses for evolution are found in
(a) Rocks
(b) Ocean beds
(c) Fossils
(d) Desert
Answer:
(c) Fossils

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Oparin used the term coacervates
Reason (R): Coacervates are colloidal particles in an aqueous environment
(a) Both A and Rare incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) Both A and R are correct. R explains A.
(d) A is correct R is incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct. R explains A.

Question 14.
According to the theory of spontaneous generation, life originated from
(a) Cosmic particles
(b) Non-living materials
(c) Coacervates
(d) Sea
Answer:
(b) Non-living materials

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Hardy – Weinberg principle states that the allelic frequency of a population remains constant
Reason (R) : Constancy is maintained through natural selection and mutation
(a) A is true R is false
(b) A is false R is true
(c) Both A and R are true
(d) R explains
Answer:
(a) A is true R is false

Question 16.
Calculate the allelic frequency of Aa. frequency of 0.7
(a) 0.67
(b) 0.42
(c) 0.36
Answer:
(b) 0.42

Question 17.
Match the following

Answer:
(a) a – iv b – i c – ii d – iii

Question 18.
Genetic drift leads to
(a) Mutation
(b) Bottle neck effect
(c) Immigration
(d) Isolation
Answer:
(b) Bottleneck effect

Question 19.
Atavism refers to
(a) Inheritance of triat by mother
(b) Inheritance of triat by father
(c) Criss-cross inheritance
(d) Inheritance of characters not shown by parents
Answer:
(d) Inheritance of characters not shown by parents

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
State the theory of spontaneous generation.
Answer:
According to the theory of spontaneous generation or Abiogenesis, living organisms originated from non-living materials and occurred through stepwise chemical and molecular evolution over millions of years. Thomas Huxley coined the term abiogeneis.

Question 2.
List the four eras of geological time scale.
Answer:

Precambrian era
Paleozoic era
Mesozoic era
Cenozoic era

Question 3.
Which periods of paleozoic era are referred as

Age of fishes
Invertebrates

Answer:

Age of fishes – Devonian period
Age of invertebrates – Cambrian period

Question 4.
Point out the epochs of carboniferous period.
Answer:

Pennsylvanian
Mississippian

Question 5.
Compare relative dating with absolute dating.
Answer:
Relative dating is used to determine a fossil by comparing it to similar rocks and fossils of known age. Absolute dating is used to determine the precise age of a fossil by using radiometric dating to measure the decay of isotopes

Question 6.
Wing of a cockroach and the wing of parrot. What do you infer from this statement with reference to evolution?
Answer:
Both the wings of cockroach and bird are different in structure but similar in their function. Thus, they are analogous structure that brings about convergent evolution.

Question 7.
Name the scientists who propounded the following theories.

Mutation theory
Chemical theory of evolution

Answer:

Mutuation theory was propounded by Hugo de Vries.
Chemical theory of evolution was propounded by Oparin and Haldane

Question 8.
Define fossilization and mention its types.
Answer:
Fossilization is the process by which plant and animal remains are preserved in sedimentary rocks. It is of three major types,

Actual remains
Petrifaction
Natural moulds and casts.

Question 9.
Name the principle minerals involved in petrifaction.
Answer:
Iron pyrites, silica, calcium carbonate and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.

Question 10.
What is meant by petrifaction?
Answer:
When animals die the original portion of their body may be replaced molecule for a molecule by minerals and the original substance being lost through disintegration. This method of fossilization is called petrifaction. The principal minerals involved in this type of fossilization are iron pyrites, silica, calcium carbonate and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.

Question 11.
Define analogous organ with an example.
Answer:
Organisms having different structural patterns but similar function are termed as analogous structures. For example, the wings of birds and insects are different structurally but perform the same function of flight that brings about convergent evolution.

Question 12.
Mention any four organs homologous to human hand.
Answer:
Flippers of whale, wings of bat, wings of bird and forelimb of horse.

Question 13.
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Pisum sativum represent homology. How?
Answer:
The thorn of Bougainvillea and the tendrils of Curcurbita and Pisum sativum represent homology. The thorn in former is used as a defence mechanism from grazing animals and the tendrils of latter is used as a support for climbing.

Question 14.
Which type of evolution is brought out by homologous structures and analogous structures?
Answer:
Homologous structures brings about divergent evolution. Analogous structures brings about convergent evolution.

Question 15.
What are vestigial organs? Give example.
Answer:
Structures that are of no use to the possessor, and are not necessary for their existence are called vestigial organs. Vestigial organs may be considered as remnants of structures which were well developed and functional in the ancestors, but disappeared in course of evolution due to their non-utilization.
E.g: Human appendix.

Question 16.
Human appendix is a vestige. Give reason.
Answer:
Human appendix is the remnant of caecum which is functional in the digestive tract of herbivorous animals like rabbit. Cellulose digestion takes place in the caecum of these animals. Due to change in the diet containing less cellulose, caecum in human became functionless and is reduced to a vermiform appendix, which is vestigial.

Question 17.
What are connecting link? Give example.
Answer:
The organisms which possess the characters of two different groups (transitional stage) are called connecting links. Example Peripatus (connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda) Archaeopteryx (connecting link between Reptiles and Aves).

Question 18.
Name one fossilised connecting link between reptiles and Aves also one living connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:
Archaeopteryx – connecting link between Reptiles and Aves.
Peripatus – Connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 19.
Why it is considered as a connecting link?
Answer:
Peripatus is a worm that shown the characters of both Annelidia and Arthropoda. Hence it is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 20.
Atavistic organs – comment.
Answer:
Sudden appearance of vestigial organs in highly evolved organisms is called atavistic organs. For example, the presence of tail in human baby is an atavistic organ.

Question 21.
Define Ontogeny and Phytogeny.
Answer:

Ontogeny refers to the life history of an individual.
Phytogeny refers to the evolutionary history of a race.

Question 22.
Who proposed the theory of recapitulation? State the theory.
Answer:
Ernst Von Haeckel proposed the theory of recapitulation, which states that life history of an individual briefly repeats the evolutionary history of the race.

Question 23.
Name few Neo – Lamarckists.
Answer:
Cope, Osborn, Packard and Spencer.

Question 24.
Who proposed the theory of acquired characters? Also, mention the scientist who disproved it.
Answer:
The theory of acquired characters was proposed by Jean-Baptise de Lamarck and it was disproved by August Weismann.

Question 25.
Point out the basic principles of Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Answer:
Overproduction, the struggle for existence, Universal occurence of variation, Survival of fittest and Natural selection.

Question 26.
Name any four Neo – Darwinists.
Answer:
Gregor Mendel, August Weismann, Russel Wallace and Heinrich.

Question 27.
Enumerate the salient features of mutation theory.
Answer:

Mutations or discontinuous variations are transmitted to other generations.
In naturally breeding populations, mutations occur from time to time.
There are no intermediate forms, as they are fully-fledged.
They are strictly subjected to natural selection.

Question 28.
Who proposed the Mutation theory? Name the organism on which the experiment was carried out.
Answer:
Mutation theory was put forth by Hugo de Vries. Based on the experiments in Oenothera Lamarckian (The evening primrose plant).

Question 29.
What are the basic factors of modern synthetic theory that leads to evolution?
Answer:
Gene mutation, Chromosomal mutation, Genetic recombination, Natural selection and Reproductive isolation.

Question 30.
Name the scientists who supported modern synthetic theory.
Answer:
Sewell Wright, Dobzhansky, Huxley and Simpson.

Question 31.
Define point mutation.
Answer:
Gene mutation refers to the changes in the structure of the gene. It is also called gene/point mutation. It alters the phenotype of an organism and produces variations in their offsprings.

Question 32.
Point out the factors that alters the allelic frequency of a population.
Answer:
Natural selection, Genetic drift, Mutation and Geneflow

Question 33.
Mention any two differences between Homo habilis and Homo erectus
Answer:

Homo habilis: The brain capacity was between 650-800 cc. They were probably vegetarians.
Homo erectus: The brain capacity was around 900 cc. They probably ate meat.

Question 34.
Write a brief note on Homo sapiens with respect to evolution.
Answer:
Homo sapiens or modem humans arose in Africa some 25,000 years ago and moved to other continents and developed into distinct races. They had a brain capacity of 1300 – 1600 cc. “They started cultivating crops and domesticating animals.

Question 35.
Define evolution.
Answer:
The term evolution describes heritable changes in one or more characteristics of a population of species from one generation to the other.

3 – Mark Question

Question 36.
Write a short note on Big Bang theory.
Answer:
Big bang theory explains the origin of the universe as a singular huge explosion in physical terms. The primitive Earth had no proper atmosphere but consisted of ammonia, methane, hydrogen, and water vapour. The climate of the Earth was extremely high. UV rays from the Sun split up water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. Gradually the temperature cooled and the water vapour condensed to form rain. Rainwater filled all the depressions to form water bodies. Ammonia and methane in the atmosphere combined with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and other gases.

Question 37.
Theory of chemical evolution states that organisms have evolved from inorganic substances. If so, what was the atmospheric condition that favoured evolution?
Answer:
The atmosphere was devoid of O₂, and with high level of CO₂, NH₃ and UV radiations.

Question 38.
Name the periods of Mesozoic era. Also mention the flora and fauna dominates during that periods.
Answer:

Mesozoic era is divided into three periods namely Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous.
Dominating Fauna : Reptiles and Dinosaurs Dominating
Flora : Conifers, Ferns and Ginkgon.

Question 39.
Which era is referred as Age of Mammals? What are the periods of that era? And also mention the fauna during the periods.
Answer:
Cenozoic era is called as Age of Mammals. Tertiary and Quaternary are the two periods of Cenozoic era. Tertiary periods marks the abundance of mammalian fauna. Quaternary period marks the beginning of human social life.

Question 40.
Write a short note on Cenozoic era.
Answer:
Cenozoic era (Age of mammals) is subdivided into two periods namely Tertiary and Quaternary. Tertiary period is characterized by abundant mammalian fauna. This period is subdivided into five epochs namely, Paleocene (placental mammals, Eocene (Monotremes except duck billed Platypus and Echidna, hoofed mammals and carnivores), Oligocene (higher placental mammals appeared), Miocene (origin of first man like apes) and Pliocene (origin of man from man like apes). Quaternary period witnesses decline of mammals and beginning of human social life.

Question 41.
Name the gaseous mixture used in Urey – Miller’s experiment. Which type of physical force is applied to generate amino acids?
Answer:
Ammonia, Methane, Hydrogen, Water vapour are the gaseous mixture allowed to circulate over electric discharge from a tungsten electrode.

Question 42.
Which is the most common methods of fossilization? Explain how it occurs.
Answer:
Actual remains – The original hard parts such as bones, teeth or shells are preserved as such in the Earth’s atmosphere. This is the most commpn method of fossilization. When marine animals die, their hard parts such as bones and shells, etc., are covered with sediments and are protected from further deterioration.

They get preserved as such as they are preserved in vast ocean; the salinity in them prevents decay. The sediments become hardened to form definite layers or strata. For example, Woolly Mammoth that lived 22 thousand years ago were preserved in the frozen coast of Siberia as such. Several human beings and animals living in the ancient city of Pompeii were preserved intact by volcanic ash which gushed out from Mount Vesuvius.

Question 43.
What are coprolites? Mention its role in phytogeny.
Answer:
Coprolites are the hardened faecal matters occurs as small pieces. Analysing the coprolites helps to understand the nature of diet of pre-historic animals.

Question 44.
What are moulds and casts?
Answer:
Even after disintegration, the body of an animal might leave indelible impression on the soft mud which later becomes hardened into stones. Such impressions are called moulds. The cavities of the moulds may get filled up by hard minerals and get fossilized, which are called casts.

Question 45.
How will you compute the age of fossil?
Answer:
The age of fossils can be determined using two methods namely, relative dating and absolute dating. Relative dating is used to determine a fossil by comparing it to similar rocks and fossils of known age. Absolute dating is used to determine the precise age of a fossil by using radiometric dating to measure the decay of isotopes.

Question 46.
“Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” – comment on the statement with example.
Answer:
The embryonic stages of a higher animal resemble the adult stage of its ancestors. Appearance of pharyngeal gill slits, yolk sac and the appearances of tail in human embryos are some of the examples.

Question 47.
Biogenetic law is not universal – justify.
Answer:
The biogenetic law is not universal and it is now thought that animals do not recapitulate the adult stage of any ancestors. The human embryo recapitulates the embryonic history and not the adult history of the organisms.

Question 48.
How macro molecules like DNA and RNA play their crucial role in evolutionary history?
Answer:
Molecular evolution is the process of change in the sequence composition of molecules such as DNA, RNA and proteins across generations. It uses principles of evolutionary biology and population genetics to explain patterns in the changes of molecules.

One of the most useful advancement in the development of molecular biology is proteins and other molecules that control life processes are conserved among species. A slight change that occurs over time in these conserved molecules (DNA, RNA and protein) are often called molecular clocks. Molecules that have been used to study evolution are cytochrome (respiratory pathway) and rRNA (protein synthesis).

Question 49.
Explain the principles of Lamarckian theory.
Answer:

The theory of use and disuse – Organs that are used often will increase in size and those that are not used will degenerate. Neck in giraffe is an example of use and absence of limbs in snakes is an example for disuse theory.
The theory of inheritance of acquired characters – Characters that are developed during ’ the life time of an organism are called acquired characters and these are then inherited.

Question 50.
Write a note on Mutation theory.
Answer:
Hugo de Vries put forth the Mutation theory. Mutations are sudden random changes that occur in an organism that is not heritable. De Vries carried out his experiments in the Evening Primrose plant (Oenothera Lamarckian) and observed variations in them due to mutation. According to de Vries, sudden and large variations were responsible for the origin of new species whereas Lamarck and Darwin believed in gradual accumulation of all variations as the causative factors in the origin of new species.

Question 51.
What do you mean by “adaptive radiation”? Give example.
Answer:
The evolutionary process which produces new species diverged from a single ancestral form becomes adapted to newly invaded habitats is called adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiations are best exemplified in closely related groups that have evolved in relatively short time. Darwin’s finches and Australian marsupials are best examples for adaptive radiation.

Question 52.
Darwins finches are the classical examples studied for adaptive radiation. Explain.
Answer:
Darwin’s finches are the birds whose common ancestor arrived on the Galapagos about 2 million years ago. During that time, Darwin’s finches have evolved into 14 recognized species differing in body size, beak shape and feeding behavior. Changes in the size and form of the beak have enabled different species to utilize different food resources such as insects, seeds and nectar from cactus flowers and blood from iguanas, all driven by Natural selection. Genetic variation in the ALX1 gene in the DNA of Darwin finches is associated with variation in the beak shape. Mild mutation in the ALX1 gene leads to a phenotypic change in the shape of the beak of the Darwin finches.

Question 53.
What is microevolution?
Answer:
Microevolution (evolution on a small scale) refers to the changes in allele frequencies within a population. Allele frequencies in a population may change due to four fundamental forces of evolution such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation and gene flow.

Question 54.
Name the major types of Natural Selection.
Answer:

Stabilising Selection
Directional Selection
Disruptive Selection

Question 55.
What do you mean by gene flow?
Answer:
The movement of genes through gametes or movement of individuals in (immigration) and out (emigration) of a population is referred to as gene flow. Organisms and gametes that enter the population may have new alleles or may bring in existing alleles but in different proportions than those already in the population. Gene flow can be a strong agent of evolution.

Question 56.
Give an account on Genetic drift. Mention its impact on a population.
Answer:
Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population change over a generation due to chance (sampling error). Genetic drift occurs in all population sizes, but its effects are strong in a small population. It may result in a loss of some alleles (including beneficial ones) and fixation of other alleles. Genetic drift can have major effects, when the population is reduced in size by natural disaster due to bottleneck effect or when a small group of population splits from the main population to form a new colony due to the founder’s effect.

Question 57.
State Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:
The allele frequencies in a population are stable and are constant from generation to generation in the absence of gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, recombination and natural selection.

Question 58.
Write in brief about the characters of Australian ape-man.
Answer:
Australopithecus lived in East African grasslands about 5 mya and was called the Australian ape man. He was about 1.5 meters tall with bipedal locomotion, omnivorous, semi-erect, and lived in caves. Low forehead, brow ridges over the eyes, protruding face, lack of chin, low brain capacity of about 350 – 450 cc, human-like dentition, lumbar curve in the vertebral column were his distinguishing features.

Question 59.
Who is Cro-Magnon?
Answer:
Cro-Magnon was one of the most talked about forms of modem human found from the rocks of Cro-Magnon, France and is considered as the ancestor of modem Europeans. They were not only adapted to various environmental conditions but were also known for their cave paintings, figures on floors and walls.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 60.
Explain Oparin – Haldane hypothesis on evolution.
Answer:
According to the theory of chemical evolution, primitive organisms in the primordial environment of the Earth evolved spontaneously from inorganic substances and physical forces such as lightning, UV radiations, volcanic activities, etc. Oparin (1924) suggested that the organic compounds could have undergone a series of reactions leading to more molecules. He proposed that the molecules formed colloidal aggregates or ‘coacervates’ in an aqueous environment. The coacervates were able to absorb and assimilate organic compounds from the environment. Haldane (1929) proposed that the primordial sea served as a vast chemical laboratory powered by solar energy.

The atmosphere was oxygen-free and the combination of CO₂, NH₂ and UV radiations gave rise to organic compounds. The sea became a ‘hot’ dilute soup containing large populations of organic monomers and polymers. They envisaged that groups of monomers and polymers acquired lipid membranes and further developed into the first living cell. Haldane coined the term prebiotic soup and this became the powerful symbol of the Oparin-Haldane view on the origin of life (1924-1929). Oparin and Haldane independently suggested that if the primitive atmosphere was reducing – and if there was an appropriate supply of energy such as lightning or UV light then a wide range of organic compounds can be synthesized.

Question 61.
How Urey – Miller’s experiment supports the origin of life?
Answer:
Urey and Miller (1953), paved way for understanding the possible synthesis of organic compounds that led to the appearance of living organisms is depicted in the Figure In their experiment, a mixture of gases was allowed to circulate over electric discharge from a tungsten electrode. A small flask was kept boiling and the steam emanating from it was made to mix with the mixture of gases (ammonia, methane, and hydrogen) in the large chamber that was connected condensed to form water which ran down the ‘U’ tube.

Experiment was conducted continuously for a week and the liquid was analyzed. Glycine, alanine, beta-alanine, and aspartic acid were identified. Thus Miller’s experiments had an insight as to the possibility of abiogenetic synthesis of large amount of variety of organic compounds in nature from a mixture of sample gases in which the only source of carbon is methane. Later in similar experiments, the formation of all types of amino acids, and nitrogen bases were noticed.

Question 62.
Give a detailed account of Modern Synthetic Theory.
Answer:
Sewell Wright, Fisher, Mayer, Huxley, Dobzhansky, Simpson and Haeckel explained Natural Selection in the light of Post-Darwinian discoveries. According to this theory gene mutations, chromosomal mutations, genetic recombinations, natural selection and reproductive isolation are the five basic factors involved in the process of organic evolution.

Gene mutation refers to the changes in the structure of the gene. It is also called gene/ point mutation. It alters the phenotype of an organism and produces variations in their off +springs.
Chromosomal mutation refers to the changes in the structure of chromosomes due to deletion, addition, duplication, inversion or translocation. This too alters the phenotype of an organism and produces variations in their offspring.
Genetic recombination is due to crossing over of genes during meiosis. This brings about genetic variations in the individuals of the same species and leads to heritable variations.
Natural selection does not produce any genetic variations but once such variations occur it favours some genetic changes while rejecting others (driving force of evolution).
Reproductive isolation helps in preventing interbreeding between related organisms

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HO’ts) Questions

Question 1.
Name the connecting link for the following groups of organisms.

Annelida and Arthropoda
Reptiles and Aves
Pisces and Amphibians
Reptiles and Mammals

Answer:

Peripatus
Archeopteryx
Lungfish
Platypus

Question 2.
Point out any four condition under which Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium is not attained.
Answer:

Selected mating
Flow of genes (either by immigration or emigration)
Occurance of mutation
Definite population size

Question 3.
Why are analogous structures a result of convergent evolution?
Answer:
Analogous structures are not anatomically similar though they perform same function.

Question 4.
Organs which are of no use to the organism is called as vestige. Name any four vestigal organs that can be noticed in your body.
Answer:
Wisdom teeth, Mammae in male, Body hair and Coccyx.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 12 Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 12 Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 12 Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Closing stock is an item of ……………..
(a) Fixed asset
(b) Current asset
(c) Fictitious asset
(d) Intangible asset
Answer:
(b) Current asset

Question 2.
Balance sheet is ……………..
(a) An account
(b) A statement
(c) Neither a statement nor an account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) A statement

Question 3.
Net profit of the business increases the ……………..
(a) Drawings
(b) Receivables
(c) Debts
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 4.
Carriage inwards will be shown ……………..
(a) In the trading account
(b) In the profit and loss account
(c) On the liabilities side
(d) On the assets side
Answer:
(a) In the trading account

Question 5.
Bank overdraft should be shown ……………..
(a) In the trading account
(b) Profit and loss account
(c) On the liabilities side
(d) On the assets side
Answer:
(c) On the liabilities side

Question 6.
Balance sheet shows the …………….. of the business.
(a) Profitability
(b) Financial position
(c) Sales
(d) Purchases
Answer:
(b) Financial position

Question 7.
Drawings appearing in the trial balance is ……………..
(a) Added to the purchases
(b) Subtracted from the purchases
(c) Added to the capital
(d) Subtracted from the capital
Answer:
(d) Subtracted from the capital

Question 8.
Salaries appearing ill the trial balance is shown on the ……………..
(a) Debit side of trading account
(b) Debit side of profit and loss account
(c) Liabilities side of the balance sheet
(d) Assets side of the balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Debit side of profit and loss account

Question 9.
Current assets does not include ……………..
(a) Cash
(b) Stock
(c) Furniture
(d) Prepaid expenses
Answer:
(c) Furniture

Question 10.
Goodwill is classified as ……………..
(a) A current asset
(b) A liquid asset
(c) A tangible asset
(d) An intangible asset
Answer:
(d) An intangible asset

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on trading account.
Answer:
Trading refers to buying and selling of goods with the intention of making profit. The trading account is a nominal account which shows the result of buying and selling of goods for an accounting period. Trading account is prepared to find out the difference between the revenue from sales and cost of goods sold.

Question 2.
What are wasting assets?
Answer:
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation. Examples: mines and quarry.

Question 3.
What are fixed assets?
Answer:
Fixed assets are those assets which are acquired or constructed for continued use in the business and last for many years such as land and building, plant and machinery, motor vehicles, furniture, etc.

Question 4.
What is meant by purchases returns?
Answer:
Goods purchased which are returned to suppliers are termed as purchases returns or returns outward.

Question 5.
Name any two direct expenses and indirect expenses.
Answer:
Direct expenses:

Carriage inwards or freight inwards
Wages Indirect expenses:

Indirect expenses:

Office and administrative expenses
Selling and distribution expenses

Question 6.
Mention any two differences between trial balance and balance sheet.
Answer:

S.No.	Basis	Trial Balance	Balance Sheet
1.	Nature	Trial balance is a list of ledger balances on a particular date.	Balance sheet is a statement showing the position of assets and liabilities on a particular date.
2.	Purpose	Trial balance is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of the accounting entries made.	Balance sheet is prepared to ascertain the financial position of a business.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of preparing trading account?
Answer:

Provides information about gross profit or gross loss.
Provides an opportunity to safeguard against possible losses.

Question 8.
What is the need for preparing profit and loss account?
Answer:

Ascertainment of net profit or net loss
Comparison of profit
Control on expenses
Helpful in the preparation of balance sheet.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are final accounts? What are its constituents?
Answer:
Businessmen want to know the profitability and the financial position of the business. These can be ascertained by preparing the final accounts or financial statements. The final accounts or financial statements include the following:

Income statement or trading and profit and loss account; and
Position statement or Balance sheet.

Question 2.
What is meant by closing entries? Why are they passed?
Answer:
Balances of all the nominal accounts are required to be closed on the last day of the accounting year to facilitate the preparation of trading and profit and loss account. It is done by passing necessary closing entries in the journal proper. Purchases has debit balance and purchases returns has credit balance. At the end of the accounting year, the balance in purchases returns account is closed by transferring to purchase account.

Question 3.
What is meant by gross profit and net profit?
Answer:

If the amount of sales exceeds the cost of goods sold, the difference is gross profit.
Sales – Cost of goods sold = Gross profit.
If the total of the credit side of the profit and loss account exceeds the debit side, the difference is termed as net profit.

Question 4.
“Balance sheet is not an account” – Explain.
Answer:
A balance sheet is a part of the final accounts. However, the balance sheet is a statement and not an account. It has no debit or credit sides and as such the words ‘To’ and ‘By’ are not used before the names of the accounts shown therein.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of preparing a balance sheet?
Answer:
Balance sheet discloses the financial position of a business on a particular date, it gives
the balances only for the date on which it is prepared. It shows the financial position of the business according to the going concern concept.

Question 6.
What is meant by grouping and marshalling of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
1. The term ‘grouping’ means showing the items of similar nature under a common heading. For example, the amount due from various customers will be shown under the head‘sundry debtors’.

2. ‘Marshalling’ is the arrangement of various assets and liabilities in a proper order. Marshalling can be made in one of the following two ways:

In the order of liquidity
In the order of permanence

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Prepare trading account in the books of Sivashankar from the following figures:

Answer:
Trading account of Sivashankar

Question 2.
Prepare trading account in the books of Mr. Sanj ay for the year ended 31^st December 2017:

Answer:
Trading account of Mr. Sanjay for the year ended 31^st December, 2017

Question 3.
Prepare trading account in the books of Mr. Sanj ay for the year ended 31^st December 2017:

Answer:
Trading account of Saravanan for the year ended 31^st December, 2017

Question 4.
From the following details for the year ended 31^st March, 2018, prepare trading account

Answer:
Trading account for the year ended 31^st March, 2018

Question 5.
Ascertain gross profit or gross loss from the following:

Answer:
Profit and Loss Account

Question 6.
From the following balances taken from the books of Victor, prepare trading account for the year ended December 31,2017:

Answer:
Trading Account of Victor for the year ended 31^st December, 2017

Hint : Closing stock will not appear in trading account because of adjusted purchases have been given.

Question 7.
Compute cost of goods sold from the following information:

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 10,000 + 80,000 + 7,000 – 15,000
= ₹ 82,000
Note: Indirect expenses do not form part of cost of goods sold.

Question 8.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 30,000 + 2,00,000 + 0 – 20,000
= ₹ 2,10,000

Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is
\(\frac { 30 }{ 70 }\) x 100 = 42.85% (42.857142 ……….)
Gross profit = 42.85% on 2,10,000 i.e., \(\frac { 42.85 }{ 100 }\) x 2,10,000 = ₹ 90,000
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross Profit
= 2,10,000 + 90,000 (Fractions to be rounded)
= ₹ 3,00,000

Question 9.
Prepare profit and loss account in the books of Kirubavathi for the year ended 31^st December, 2016 from the following information:

Answer:
Profit and loss account of Kirubavathi for the year ended 31^st Dec, 2016

Question 10.
Ascertain net profit or net loss from the following:

Answer:
Profit and loss account

Question 11.
From the following details, prepare profit and loss account.

Answer:
Profit and loss account

(Hint: Freight inwards will not appear in profit and loss account as it is a direct expense)

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare profit and loss account for the year ending 31^st December, 2016.

Answer:
Profit and loss account for the year ended 31^st December, 2016

Question 13.
From the following balances obtained from the books of Mr. Ganesh, prepare trading and profit and loss account:

Answer:
Trading and Profit & loss account of Mr. Ganesh

Question 14.
From the following balances extracted from the books of a trader, ascertain gross profit and net profit for the year ended March 31,2017:

Answer:
Trading and Profit & Loss account for the year ended 31^st March, 2017

Question 15.
From the following particulars, prepare balance sheet in the books of Bragathish as on 31^st December, 2017:

Answer:
Balance Sheet of Bragathish as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 16.
Prepare trading and profit and loss account in the books of Ramasundari for the year ended 31^st December, 2017 and balance sheet as on that date from the following information:

Answer:
Trading and Profit & Loss a/c of Ramasundari for the year ended 31 Dec, 2017 Cr.

Balance Sheet of Ramasundari as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 17.
From the Trial balance, given by Saif, prepare final accounts for the year ended 31^st March, 2018 in his books:

Answer:
Trading and Profit & Loss a/c of Saif for the year ended 31 March, 2018

Balance Sheet of Saif as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 18.
Prepare trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet in the books of Deri, a trader, from the following balances as on March 31, 2018.

Answer:
Trading and Profit & Loss a/c of Deri for the year ended 31^st March, 2018

Balance Sheet of Deri as on 31^st March, 2018

Textbook Case Study Solved

Question 1.
Mr. Abhinav started a small shop of selling dairy products. He wanted to maintain proper books of accounts. But, he had very little knowledge of accounting. He maintained only three books – purchases, sales and cash book by himself. He bought some dairy products and a refrigerator to store the milk products for which the payment was made by cheque but recorded the same in the purchases book. He also spent for the transportation charges and paid some money to the person who unloaded the stock. He recorded the same in the cash book.

He made both cash and credit sale for the next few weeks. He entered the entire sales in the sales book. In the middle of the month, he was in need of some money for his personal use. So he took some money, but did not record in the books.
Now, discuss on the following points:

Question 1.
Do you think Mr. Abhinav needs an accountant? Why do you think so?
Answer:
Yes, Mr. Abhinav needs an accountant because he records all cash and credit transactions.

Question 2.
Does he maintain enough books of accounts?
Answer:
Yes, he maintains enough books of accounts.

Question 3.
What other books do you think that he needs to maintain?
Answer:
He needs to maintain a petty cashbook.

Question 4.
What will be the impact on the profit, if he records the purchase of refrigerator in the purchases book?
Answer:
The purchase book will be overcast because this transaction will be recorded in proper journal.

Question 5.
Is it important to record the money taken for personal use? Will it affect the final accounts?
Answer:
Yes, then only the actual profit or loss can be found out in the business.

Question 6.
Identify some of the accounting principles relevant to this situation.
Answer:
Some of the accounting principles relevant to this situation are: matching principles, business entity concept, money measurement concept, dual output concept, periodicity concept and going concern concept.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – I Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Income statement is divided into ……………….. parts.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 2.
The first part of the income statement is ………………..
(a) Final account
(b) Trading account
(c) Profit and Loss account
(d) Balance Sheet
Answer:
(b) Trading account

Question 3.
Balances of all ……………….. accounts are required to be closed on the last day of the accounting year.
(a) Nominal
(b) Personal
(c) Real
(d) Representative personal
Answer:
(a) Nominal

Question 4.
Trading account is a ……………….. account.
(a) Personal
(b) Nominal
(c) Real
(d) Representative personal
Answer:
(b) Nominal

Question 5.
Sales – Gross Profit = ………………..
(a) Sales
(b) Cost of goods sold
(c) Gross profit
(d) Gross loss
Answer:
(b) Cost of goods sold

Question 6.
……………….. account is the second part of income statement.
(a) Trading
(b) Profit and Loss
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Final
Answer:
(b) Profit and Loss

Question 7.
Which one is correctly matched?
(a) Bad debts – Indirect expense
(b) Wages – Asset
(c) Salary – Trading account
(d) Net Profit – Asset
Answer:
(a) Bad debts – Indirect expense

Question 8.
Balances of all the personal and real account are shown in ………………..
(a) Trading account
(b) Profit and loss account
(c) Income statement
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(d) Balance sheet

Question 9.
A balance sheet is a part of the ……………….. account.
(a) Trading
(b) Profit and Loss
(c) Income statement
(d) Final
Answer:
(d) Final

Question 10.
……………….. is a summary of the personal and real accounts.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Final account
(c) Trading account
(d) Profit and loss account
Answer:
(a) Balance sheet

Question 11.
The balance sheet of business concern can be presented in the ……………….. forms.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 12.
Marshalling can be made in one of the ……………….. ways.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) two

Question 13.
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation.
(a) Wasting assets
(b) Nominal assets
(c) Liquid assets
(d) Current assets
Answer:
(a) Wasting assets

Question 14.
……………….. liabilities are not shown in the balance sheet.
(a) Contingent
(b) Current
(c) Liquid
(d) Fixed
Answer:
(a) Contingent

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 14 Computerised Accounting

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 14 Computerised Accounting Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 14 Computerised Accounting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Computerised Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
In accounting, computer is commonly used in the following areas:
(a) Recording of business transactions
(b) Payroll accounting
(c) Stores accounting
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Customised accounting software is suitable for ………………
(a) Small, conventional business
(b) Large, medium business
(c) Large, typical business
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Large, medium business

Question 3.
Which one is not a component of computer system?
(a) Input unit
(b) Output unit
(c) Data
(d) Central Processing Unit
Answer:
(c) Data

Question 4.
An example of output device is ………………
(a) Mouse
(b) Printer
(c) Scanner
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(b) Printer

Question 5.
One of the limitations of computerised accounting system is ………………
(a) System failure
(b) Accuracy
(c) Versatility
(d) Storage
Answer:
(a) System failure

Question 6.
Expand CAS ………………
(a) Common Application Software
(b) Computerised Accounting System
(c) Centralised Accounting System
(d) Certified Accounting System
Answer:
(b) Computerised Accounting System

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a method of codification of accounts?
(a) Access codes
(b) Sequential codes
(c) Block codes
(d) Mnemonic codes
Answer:
(a) Access codes

Question 8.
TALLY is an example of ………………
(a) Tailor – made accounting software
(b) Ready – made accounting software
(c) In – built accounting software
(d) Customised accounting software
Answer:
(b) Ready – made accounting software

Question 9.
People who write codes and programs are called as ………………
(a) System analysts
(b) System designers
(c) System operators
(d) System programmers
Answer:
(d) System programmers

Question 10.
Accounting software is an example of ………………
(a) System software
(b) Application software
(c) Utility software
(d) Operating software
Answer:
(b) Application software

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
A computer can be described as an electronic device designed to accept raw data as input, processes them and produces meaningful information as output. It has the ability to perform arithmetic and logical operations as per given set of instructions called program. Today, computers are used all over the world in several areas for different purposes.

Question 2.
What is CAS?
Answer:
Computerised accounting system (CAS) refers to the system of maintaining accounts using computers. It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of hardware and software in order to keep and produce accounting records and reports.

Question 3.
What is hardware?
Answer:
The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. Hardware consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.

Question 4.
What is meant by software?
Answer:
A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

Question 5.
What is accounting software?
Answer:
The main function of CAS is to perform the accounting activities in an organisation and generate reports as per the requirements of the users. To obtain the desired results optimally, need based software or packages are to be installed in the organisation.

Question 6.
Name any two accounting packages.
Answer:

Readymade software
Customised software

Question 7.
Give any two examples of readymade software.
Answer:

Tally
Busy

Question 8.
What is coding?
Answer:
Code is an identification mark, generally, computerised accounting involves codification of accounts.

Question 9.
What is grouping of accounts?
Answer:
In any organisation, the main unit of classification is the major head which is further divided, into minor heads. Each minor head may have number of sub – heads. After classification of accounts into various groups.

Question 10.
What are mnemonic codes?
Answer:
A mnemonic code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify a piece of information.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various types of accounting software?
Answer:

Readymade software
Customised software and
Tailormade software

Question 2.
Mention any three limitations of computerised accounting system.
Answer:
Heavy cost of installation, Cost of training and fear of unemployment

Question 3.
State the various types of coding methods.
Answer:
Sequential codes, block codes and mnemonic codes.

Question 4.
List out the various reports generated by computerised accounting system.
Answer:

Liabilities and capital
Assets
Revenues and
Expenses.

Under Liabilities and Capital:
Capital, Non – current liabilities and current liabilities.

Under Assets:
Non – current assets and Current assets.

Question 5.
State the input and output devices of a computer system.
Answer:
Input devices: keyboard, optical scanner, mouse, joystick, touch screen and stylus.
Output devices: Monitor and printer.

Textbook Case Study Solved

Question 1.
The manager of a medium – sized business is considering the introduction of computerised accounting system. Some staff feels that it is an opportunity to learn new skill. The manager has promised free framing for their staff, So, the staff realise that their own skill can be enhanced. Also, there is a demand for highly skilled staff. But, some staff feels threatened by these changes. They feel that they may not be able to leam new skill. Moreover, some of them are nearing their retiring age. So they think that it is not needed for them. But the manager expects the cooperation from all the staff.
Now, discuss on the following points:

Question 1.
Will it be expensive for the business to introduce computerised accounting system?
Answer:
No, it will not be expensive. It may be integrated with enhanced MIS, multi – lingual and data organisation capabilities to simplify all the business processes easily and cost – effectively.

Question 2.
Will everyone get the access to use the computers? In such a case, how to protect data?
Answer:
It is an opportunity to leam new skill at free of cost. Retrieval of data is easier as the records are kept in soft copy in data base. By giving instructions, data can be retrieved quickly.

Question 3.
“People at the retirement age are not required to leam new skill” – Do you think so?
Answer:
No, the computerised accounting system is easy to leam by everyone. It is not a difficult one to retiring people also.

Question 4.
What are the factors to be considered by the managers before introducing CAS?
Answer:
The manager has to give an opportunity to leam new skill to his employees. It will take time but he has to face the employees problems:

Heavy cost of installation.
Cost of training.
Fear of unemployment.
Disruption of work and so on.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Computerised Accounting Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one is output device?
(a) Monitor
(b) Keyboard
(c) Mouse
(d) Optical scanner
Answer:
(a) Monitor

Question 2.
Components of CAS can be classified into …………….. categories.
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Five
(d) Three
Answer:
(a) Six

Question 3.
Which one is operating system?
(a) File manager
(b) COBOL
(c) Windows
(d) PASCAL
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 4.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Land & building – current assets
(b) Goodwill – non – current liabilities
(c) Patents – intangible assets
(d) Sales – expenses
Answer:
(c) Patents – intangible assets

Question 5.
There are …………….. methods of codification.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Three

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Expands of MIS and CPU.
Answer:

MIS – Management Information System
CPU – Central Processing Unit

Question 2.
Mention any two features of CAS.
Answer:

Simple and integrated
Speed

Question 3.
What is utility software?
Answer:
These are designed specifically for managing the computer device and its resources.

Question 4.
What is system operators?
Answer:
People who operate the systems and use it for different purposes. They are also called as end users.

Question 5.
What do you mean by DATA?
Answer:
The facts and figures that are fed into a computer for further processing are called data.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the types of people interacting with a computer system?
Answer:

System analysts
System programmers
System operators

Question 2.
What is opearating system? Give two examples.
Answer:
A set of tools and programs to manage the overall working of a computer using a defined set of hardware components is called an operating system.
Example:

DOS
Windows.

Question 3.
Mention any three advantages of CAS.
Answer:

Faster processing
Accurate information and
Reliability

Question 4.
What are the three types of procedures in a computer system?
Answer:

Hardware oriented procedure
Software oriented procedure and
Internal procedure

Question 5.
Can you explain data?
Answer:
The facts and figures that are fed into a computer for further processing are called data. Data are raw input until the computer system interprets them using machine language, stores them in memory, classifies them for processing and produces results in conformance with the instructions given to it. Processed and useful data are called information which is used for decision making.