Bhagya – Samacheer Kalvi

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is an nalgesic?
(a) Streptornycin
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) Asprin
(d) Penicillin
Answer:
(c)Asprin

Question 2.
Dettol is the mixture of ……………
(a) Chioroxylenol and bithionol
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol
(c) phenol and iodine
(d) terpineol and bithionol
Answer:
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol

Question 3.
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics
(b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues
(c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant
(d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants
Answer:
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

Question 4.
Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from ……………..
(a) cellulose
(b) toluene
(c) cyclohexene
(d) starch
Answer:
(b) toluene

Question 5.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called …………….
(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets
Answer:
(a) antagonists

Question 6.
Aspirin is a/an ……………..
(a) acetylsalicylic acid
(b) benzoyl salicylic acid
(c) chlorobenzoic acid
(d) anthranilic acid
Answer:
(a) acetylsalicylic acid

Question 7.
Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

Answer:

Question 8.
Natural rubber has ………..
(a) alternate cis – and trans – configuration
(b) random cis – and trans-configuration
(c) all cis – configuration
(d) all trans – configuration
Answer:
(c) all cis – conflguration

Question 9.
Nylon is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(a) polyamide

Question 10.
Terylene is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(c) polyester

Question 11.
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

Answer:

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?
(a) HDPE
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 6
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 13.
Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is ………….
(a) ethane
(b) prop – 2 – enenitrile
(c) chioroethene
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane
Answer:
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane

Question 14.
Assertion: 2 – methyl – I ,3 – butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through aniònic addition polymerisation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is ………….
(a) novesirol
(b) seldane
(c) salvarsan
(d) Chioramphenicol
Answer:
(a) novestrol

Question 16.
The drug used to induce sleep is …………..
(a) paracetamol
(b) bithional
(c) chioroquine
(d) equanil
Answer:
(d) equanil

Question 17.
Which of the following is a co – polymer?
(a) Orlon
(b) PVC
(c) Teflon
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 18.
The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is ……………
(a) polystyrene
(b) PAN
(c) polyester
(d) polythene
Answer:
(b) PAN

Question 19.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
(b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
(c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
Answer:
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Question 20.
A mixture of chioroxylenol and terpinecol acts as ……………
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(a) antiseptic

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which chemical is responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol?
Answer:

Two main constituents of dettol is chloroxylenol and terpineol.
But among these two chloroxylenol plays an important role as an antiseptic.

Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotics is a chemical substance produced by one microorganism, that selectively inhibits the growth of another micro organism. Example : penicillins and cephalosporins.

Question 3.
Name one substance which can act as both analgesic and antipyretic.
Answer:
Aspirin can act as both analgesic and antipyretic,

Question 4.
Write a note on synthetic detergents.
Answer:
1. Synthetic detergents are formulated products containing either sodium salts of alkyl hydrogen suiphates or sodium salts of long chain alkyL benzene suiphonic acids.

2. Synthetic detergents are three types. They are

anionic detergents – sodium lauryl sulphate.
Cationic detergents – n – hexadecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride.
Non-ionic detergents – Pentaerythrityl stearate.

3. Synthetic detergents can be used even in hard water, while soaps cannot be used in hard water.

4. The cleansing action of detergents are similar to the cleansing action of soaps.

5. When detergents are dissolved in water its hydrocarbon part attaches itself to grease and oil particles. Whereas its ionic part remains attached to water. Therefore when dirty clothes are agitated in solution of detergents then dirty particles sticks to the hydrocarbon part of detergents and at the same time the water loving ionic part pulls away this dirt from clothes.

Question 5.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Answer:
Antiseptics

Antiseptics are chemical substance which prevent the growth of micro organizers and may even kill them but are not harmful to living tissues.
They are generally applied to living tissues such as wounds, cuts bulks and diseased surfaces.
All the antiseptics are disinfectants.
They are not ingested or swallowed.
e.g., Povidone – iodine, Benzalkonium – Chloride

Disinfectants

Disinfectants are chemical substances which kill microorganism or stop their growth but are harmful to human tissues.
Disinfectants are applied to inanimated objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments etc.
All the disinfectants are not antiseptics.
They can be injected or swallowed.
e.g. Alcohol, chlorine compunds.

Question 6.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:

Food preservatives are substances capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of microorganisms.
Ex.: Acetic acid, Sodium metasulphite, Sodium benzoate.

Question 7.
Why do soaps not work ¡n hard water?
Answer:
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long – chain falty acids. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. When soaps are dissolved in hard water, these ions displace sodium or potassium from insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids. These insoluble salts separate as scum.

This is the reason why soaps do not work in hard water.

Question 8.
What are drugs? How are they classified?
Answer:

A drug is a substance that is used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefit of the recipient.
It is used for the purpose of diagnosis, prevention cure/relief of disease.

Drugs are classified based on their properties such as

Chemical structure
Pharmacological effect
Target system
Site of action

Question 9.
How do the tranquilizers work in the body?
Answer:

They are neurologically active drugs.
Tranquilizer acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
This drug is used for treatment of stress anxiety, depression, sleep disorders and severe mental diseases like schizophrenia.

Question 10.
Write the structural formula of aspirin.
Answer:

Question 11.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
Answer:
Mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents:
1. The cleansing action of both soaps and detergents from their ability to lower the surface tension of water, to emulsify oil or grease and to hold them in a suspension in water.

2. This ability is due to the structure of soaps and detergents.

3. In water a sodium soap dissolves to form soap anions and sodium cations. For example, the following chemical equation shows the ionisation of sodium palmitate.

4. A soap anion consists of a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxylate group on one end. The hydrocarbon chain, which is hydrophobic, is soluble in oils or grease. The ionic part is the carboxylate group which is hydrophilic, is soluble in water.

5. In water, detergent dissolves to form detergent anions and sodium cations. For example the following chemical equations show the ionisation of sodium alkyl sulphate and sodium alkyl benzene sulphate.

6. The following explains the cleansing action of a soap or detergent on a piece of cloth with a greasy stain.

A soap or detergent anion consists of a hydrophobic part and a hydrophilic part.
Soap or detergent reduces the surface tension of water. Therefore the surface of the cloth is wetted thoroughly.
The hydrophobic parts of the soap or detergents anions are soluble in grease.
The hydrophilic parts of the anions are soluble in water.
Scrubbing or mechanical agitation helps to pull the grease away from the cloth and the grease is broken into smaller droplets.
Repulsion between the droplets causes the droplets to be suspended in water, fonning an emulsion.
Thus the droplets do not coagulate or,redeposit on the cloth. Rinsing washes away the droplets.

Question 12.
Which sweetening agent are used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient?
Answer:
Sweetening agent used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient are Saccharin, Aspartame, alitame etc…

Question 13.
What are narcotic and non – narcotic drugs. Give examples.
Answer:
1. Narcotic drug is an addictive drug that reduces pain, induces sleep and may alter mood or behaviour. Example: Morphine and codeine.

2. Non – narcotic drug are chemical substance (medications) used to control pain and inflammation. They are available at drugstores without a prescription or by prescription when given at higher doses. Example: Acetaminophen and paracetamol.

Question 14.
What are anti-fertility drugs? Give examples.
Answer:
Anti-fertility drugs are synthetic hormones that suppress ovulation/fertilization.
Ex.: Synthetic oestrogen – i) Ethynylestradiol ii) Menstranol
Synthetic Progesterone – i) Norethindrone ii) Norethynodrel

Question 15.
Write a note on copolymer.
Answer:

A polymer containing two or more different kinds of monomer units is called a co-polymer.
Co – polymers have properties quite different from the homopolymers.
The structural units of co-polymers are derived from the different monomers may be present in regular, alternation or in random order or strings of several units of one kind may alternate with strings of another.
For example, Buna – S, Buna – N, Nylon – 6,6 etc. Buna – S contains styrene and butadiene monomer units.

Question 16.
What are biodegradable polymers? Give examples.
Answer:

Natural polymers which degrade on their own or by microorganisms after a certain period of time are called biodegradable polymers.
Ex.: Poly hydroxybutyrate (PHB), Polyglycolic acid (PGA), Polylactic acid (PLA)

Question 17.
How is terylene prepared?
Answer:
The monomers are ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid or dimethýlterephthalate. When these monomers are mixed and heated at 500K in the presence of zinc acetate and antimony trioxide catalyst, terylene (or dacron) is formed.

Question 18.
Write a note on the vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:

When natural rubber is heated with sulphur it becomes strong and elastic. This process is known as vulcanization of rubber.
Natural rubber is mixed with 3-5% sulphur and heated at 100-150°C.
This causes the cross-linking of the cis-1,4- polyisopre’ne chains through disulphide (-S-S-) bonds.
The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization.
If 1 – 3% sulphur is added the rubber is soft and stretchy.
If 3 -10% sulphur is added the rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.

Question 19.
Classify the following as linear, branched or cross-linked polymers …………………..

Bakelite
Nylon
polythene

Answer:

Bakelite – cross-linked polymer
Nylon – Linear polymer
Polythene – Linear polymer

Question 20.
Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting.
Answer:
Difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting:
Thermoplastic

They soften on heating and harden on cooling, and they can be remoulded.
They consists of linear long çhain polymers and low molecular weights polymers.
All the polymer chains are held together by weak Van der Waals forces.
They are weak, soft and less brittle.
They are formed by adding a polymerisation
They are soluble in organic solvents.
Example: PVC, polythene, polystrene etc.

Thermosetting

They do not soften on heating and they cannot be remoulded.
They consist of a three-dimensional network structure and high molecular weight polymers.
All the polymer chains are linked by strong covalent.
They are strong, hard and more brittle.
They are formed by condensation polymerisation.
They are insoluble in organic solvents.
Example: Bakelite, melamine etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 1 mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The substance that is used to modify the physiological system for the benefit of the recipient is called …………….
(a) a drug
(b) a dye
(c) a food preservative
(d) soap
Answer:
(a) a drug

Question 2.
Which one interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response?
(a) Detergent
(b) cleansing agent
(c) medicine
(d) food preservative
Answer:
(c) medicine

Question 3.
The ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and a minimum curative dose is called …………..
(a) iso electric point
(b) therapeutic index
(c) critical point
(d) iso thermal point
Answer:
(b) therapeutic index

Question 4.
Which one of the following does not belong to penicillin group?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) catecholamine
(d) mithicillin
Answer:
(c) catecholamine

Question 5.
Which of the following does belongs to penicillin group drugs?
(a) Mithicillin
(b) opiates
(c) steroids
(d) catecholamine
Answer:
(a) Mithicillin

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) atenolol
(c) amlodipine
(d) propranolol
Answer:
(a) erythromycin

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) amoxicillin
(b) cefixime
(c) amlodipine
(d) ampiciflin
Answer:
(c) amlodipine

Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amoxicillin
(c) cefixime
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(a) atenolol

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belongs to antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amlodipine
(c) propranolol
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 10.
Which one of the following inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis?
(a) streptomycin
(b) erythromycin
(c) atenolol
(d) amlodipine
Answer:
(a) streptomycin

Question 11.
Which one of the following prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein?
(a) atenolol
(b) streptomycin
(c) erythromycin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(c) erythromycin

Question 12.
Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) folic cid
(d) sodium benzoate
Answer:
(b) sulphanilamide

Question 13.
Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA
(b) DHPS
(c) TNB
(d) GTN
Answer:
(a) PABA

Question 14.
Which of the following is called PABA?
Answer:
(a) p – nitro benzanilic acid
(b) p – amino butyric acid
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid
(d) p – amido benzene suiphonyl chloride
Answer:
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids
(b) antioxidant
(c) antibiotics
(d) antagonists
Answer:
(d) antagonists

Question 16.
Which of the following is used in the reduced sleepiness?
(a) caffeine
(b) morphine
(c) suiphanilide
(d) p – aminobenzene sulphonic acid
Answer:
(a) caffeine

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform
(b) chloropicrin
(c) morphine
(d) coffeine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an example of antacid?
(a) Histamine
(b) cimetidine
(c) ranitidine
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 19.
Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) ranitidine
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 20.
Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) antibiotic
(c) analgesic
(d) opioids
Answer:
(a) Tranquilizer

Question 21.
Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine
(b) diazepam
(c) histamine
(d) PABA
Answer:
(b) diazepam

Question 22.
Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium
(b) cimetidinc
(c) chiorofom
(d) adenosine
Answer:
(a) valium

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic
(b) antiseptic
(c) antioxidant
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(d) antipyretic

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an anti inflamatory drug?
(a) morphine
(b) coheinc
(c) aspirin
(d) histidine
Answer:
(c) aspirin

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used to cure headache, muscle strain, arthritis?
(a) acetaminophen
(b) ibuprofen
(c) aspirin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 26.
Which one of the foLlowing is used in the prevention of heart attacks?
(a) aspirin
(b) ibuprofen
(c) paracetamol
(d) morphine
Answer:
(a) aspirin

Question 27.
Which one of the following is an example of an àntipyretic?
(a) acetyl salicylic acid
(b) methyl salicylate
(c) paraldehyde
(d) diethyl ether
Answer:
(a) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 28.
Which one of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory drug?
(a) aspirin
(b) morphine
(c) haloperidol
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(d) ibuprofen

Question 29.
Which of the following is a major tranquilizer?
(a) diazepam
(b) valium
(c) clozapine
(d) alprazolm
Answer:
(c) clozapine

Question 30.
Which of the following is a minor tranquilizer?
(a) haloperidol
(b) clozapine
(c) morphine
(d) valium
Answer:
(d) valium

Question 31.
Consider the following statements
(i) Tranquilizers act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
(ii) Histamines stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
(iii) The antibiotic cimetidine inhibits the bacterial growth.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (¡) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 32.
Consider the following statements
(i) Acetaminophen reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin
(ii) opioids relieve pain and produce sleep and are addictive
(iii) Aspirin finds useful in the pain of terminal cancer.
Which of the above statement is/arc not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 33.
Which of the following are addictive and poisonous drug?
(a) ibuprofen
(b) aspirin
(c) morphine
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 34.
Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine
(b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid
(d) histidine, ranitidine
Answer:
(a) morphine, codeine

Question 35.
Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine
(b) Propofol
(c) iso flurane
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(a) lidocaine

Question 36.
Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol
(b) isoflurane
(c) ranitidine
(d) omeprazole
Answer:
(b) isoflurane

Question 37.
Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia
(b) lidocaine
(c) omeprazole
(d) iso fharane
Answer:
(d) iso fharane

Question 38.
Which one of the following is an inhalational general anaesthetic?
(a) procain
(b) iso fiurane
(c) lidocaine
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(b) iso fiurane

Question 39.
Which one of the following is an antacid?
(a) omeprazole
(b) rabeprazole
(c) milk of magnesia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 40.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Propofol cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
(ii) Ibuprofen is used for major surgical procedures.
(iii) Lidocaine is used to relieve burning sensation in the chest / throat area.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 41.
Which one of the following is not an antacid?
(a) propofol
(b) ranitidine
(c) omeprazole
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(a) propofol

Question 42.
Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine
(b) ampicillin
(c) erythromycin
(d) milk of magnesia
Answer:
(a) cetrizine

Question 43.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis?
(a) eryLhromycin
(b) azithromycin
(c) penicillin
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Question 44.
Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and skin infections?
(a) ampicillin
(b) penicillin
(c) terfenadine
(d) azithromycin
Answer:
(d) azithromycin

Question 45.
Which one of the following is used to treat urinary tract infection and respiratory infections?
(a) doxycycline
(b) karamycin
(c) ciprolloxacin
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(c) ciprolloxacin

Question 46.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholera, acne vulgaris?
(a) fluoro quinolone
(b) aminoglycosides
(c) tetracycline
(d) macrolides
Answer:
(c) tetracycline

Question 47.
Which one of the following is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria?
(a) kanamycin
(b) gentamycin
(c) neomycin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase?
(a) doxy cycline
(b) kanamycin
(c) ciprofloxacin
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(c) ciprofloxacin

Question 49.
Which one of the following is an antiseptic?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) alcohol
(c) menstranol
(d) chlorine compounds
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 50.
Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine
(b) ethynyles tradiol
(c) norethindrone
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(a) povidone – iodine

Question 51.
Consider the following statements
(i) Oestrogen, menstranol are synthetic hormones that suppresses ovulation / fertilisation,
(ii) Norethindrone used in birth control pills.
(iii) Chlorine compounds are used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 52.
Which one of the following is used as a preservative for the preparation of pickles and preservation of vegetables?
(a) sodium acetate
(b) acetic acid
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) salicylic acid
Answer:
(b) acetic acid

Question 53.
Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Palm oil
(c) sodium meta suiphite
(d) sulphur dioxide
Answer:
(c) sodium meta suiphite

Question 54.
Which one of the following is used as an emulsifier?
(a) sodium meta suiphite
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) sodium bi carbonate
Answer:
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid

Question 55.
Which method is used to preserve food?
(a) pasteurisation & irration
(b) chilling and freezing
(c) drying and dehydration
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 56.
Which one of the following act as an antioxidant?
(a) Palmîtic acid
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene

Question 57.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
(ii) Flouring agents reduces the aroma of the food.
(iii) Antioxidants produce the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 58.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Sorbitol
(b) mannitol
(c) xylitol
(d) cresol
Answer:
(d) cresol

Question 59.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Butyl hydroxy toluene
(b) Butylated hydroxy anisole
(c) Aspartame
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(c) Aspartame

Question 60.
Identify the artificial sweeteners.
(a) Saccharin, sucralose
(b) culutaric acid, glycollic acid
(c) BHT, BHA
(d) GTN, TNG
Answer:
(a) Saccharin, sucralose

Question 61.
Glyceryl ester of long chain fatty acids are called …………..
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) antiseptic
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(a) soap

Question 62.
Which one of the following describes the quality of soap?
(a) TFT value
(b) TFM value
(c) PPM value
(d) TFP value
Answer:
(b) TFM value

Question 63.
Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) disinfectant
(d) antiseptic
Answer:
(b) detergent

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an anionic detergent?
(a) n – hexa decyl tri methyl ammonium chloride
(b) Peifla erythntyl stearate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) 3 – hydroxy – 2, 2 bis (hydroxy methyl) propyl heptonoate
Answer:
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 65.
Which of the following is an example of catìonic detergent?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) sodium pahnitate
(c) sodium dodecyl benzene suiphonate
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride
Answer:
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride

Question 66.
Which one of the following is an example of non-ionic detergent?
(a) sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) n – hexa decyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate
(d) N, N, N – trimethyl hexa decan – 1 – aminium chloride
Answer:
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate

Question 67.
Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk
(b) PVC, Polythene
(c) Buna – N, Buna – S
(d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
Answer:
(a) cellulose, silk

Question 68.
Which one of the following is a synthetic rubber?
(a) Neoprene
(b) cellulose
(c) silk
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(a) Neoprene

Question 69.
Which one of the following is a semisynthetic polymer?
(a) poly isoprene
(b) viscose rayon
(c) nylon
(d) terylene
Answer:
(b) viscose rayon

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a cross linked polymer?
(a) poly propylene
(b) bakelite
(c) melamine
(d) urea formaldehyde
Answer:
(a) poly propylene

Question 71.
Identify the thermo setting plastic?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) neoprene
(c) melamine
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) melamine

Question 72.
Which of the following is a thermoplastic?
(a) bakelite
(b) melamine
(c) urea formaldehyde
(d) polystrene
Answer:
(d) polystrene

Question 73.
Which one of the following is an elastomer?
(a) nylon 6,6
(b) terylene
(c) buna – S
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) buna – S

Question 74.
Which one of the following is an example for addition polymer?
(a) polyethylene
(b) PVC
(c) teflon
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 75.
Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) polyester
(c) PVC
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) polyester

Question 76.
Which one of the following is not an additional polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 66
(d) teflon
Answer:
(c) Nylon 66

Question 77.
Consider the following statements
(i) Nylon-6, 6 are polymerchains form fibres by hydrogen bonding.
(ii) Thermoplastic become hard on heating and soft on cooling and cannot be remoulded.
(iii) Cellulose and silk are synthetic polymers.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct? ,
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Question 78.
Which one of the following is used as an free radical initiator in the preparation of polystrene?
(a) hydrogen peroxide
(b) methyl chloride
(c) Benzoyl peroxide
(d) Benzyl peroxide
Answer:
(c) Benzoyl peroxide

Question 79.
Which mechanism is followed in the synthesis of polystrene?
(a) free radical polymerisation
(b) cationic polymensation
(c) Anionic polymerisation
(d) SN¹ mechanism

Question 80.
Which one of the polymer is used as insulation for cables, making toys?
(a) HDPE
(b) LDPE
(c) teflon
(d) orlon
Answer:
(b) LDPE

Question 81.
Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide
(b) zeigler natta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(b) zeigler natta catalyst

Question 82.
Identify the zeiglar natta catalyst.
(a) TiCI₄ + (C₂H₅)₃AI
(b) (C₂H₅)₄Pb + TiCl₄
(c) AICl₃ + HCI
(d) ZnCI₂ + Cone. HCI
Answer:
(a) TiCI₄ + (C₂H₅)₃AI

Question 83.
Which of the following is used to make bottles and pipes?
(a) LDPE
(b) Terylene
(c) PVC
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(a) LDPE

Question 84.
Which polymer is used in preparing non-sticking utensils?
(a) orlon
(b) PAN
(c) teflon
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(c) teflon

Question 85.
Which one of the following is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters?
(a) orlon
(b) terylene
(c) polyester
(d) nylon
Answer:
(a) orlon

Question 86.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of Nylon 6, 6?
(a) caprolactam + hydrazine
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine
(c) methanal + ammonia
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine

Question 87.
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) polyethylene
(d) terylene
Answer:
(c) polyethylene

Question 88.
Which one is used in the manufacture of nylon-6?
(a) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(b) succinic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid
(d) adipic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
Answer:
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid

Question 89.
Which one of the following is the other name of nylon 6, 6?
(a) poly urethane
(b) urotropine
(c) poly caprolactum
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide
Answer:
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide

Question 90.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of tyrecards fabrics?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) orlon
(d) dacron
Answer:
(b) nylon 6

Question 91.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of terylene?
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
(b) phthalic auhydride + phenol
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid

Question 92.
Name the catalyst used in the preparation of terylene?
(a) zeiglar natta catalyst
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide
(c) benzoyi peroxide
(d) ammonium persuiphate
Answer:
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide

Question 93.
Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) terylene

Question 94.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of bakelite?
(a) ethane 1, 2 – diol + benzene 1, 4 – dicarboxylic acid
(b) phenol + methanal
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) isoprene + methanal
Answer:
(b) phenol + methanal

Question 95.
Linear polymer of phenol formal dehyde is called
(a) novolac
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(a) novolac

Question 96.
Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac
(b) soft bakelite
(c) hard bakelite
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) navolac

Question 97.
Which one of the following thermo setting plastic is used in paints?
(a) melamine
(b) hard bakelite
(c) navolac
(d) soft bakelite
Answer:
(c) navolac

Question 98.
Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde
(b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde
(d) navolac
Answer:
(b) melamine formal dehyde

Question 99.
What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanal
(b) melamine + methanal
(c) styrene + butadiene
(d) adipic acid + methanal
Answer:
(c) styrene + butadiene

Question 100.
Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon
(d) sulphur
Answer:
(d) sulphur

Question 101.
Which one of the following is a natural rubber?
(a) Buna-S
(b) Buna-N
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene

Question 102.
The raw material is used in the manufacture of ieoprene?
(a) isoprene
(b) chloroprene
(c) 1, 3 – buta diene
(d) vinyl chloride
Answer:
(b) chloroprene

Question 103.
Which one of the following rubber is used in the manufacture of chemical container and conveyer belts?
(a) Buna – N
(b) neo prene
(c) Buna – S
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(b) neo prene

Question 104.
The raw materials required for the manufacture of Buna – N are …………..
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene
(b) chloro prene + buta – 1, 3 – diene
(c) terephthalic acid + ethane 1, 2 – diol
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene

Question 105.
Which of the following are required to prepare Buna – S?
(a) vinyl cyanide + 1, 3 – butadiene
(b) chioro prene + buta -1, 3 – diene
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene
(d) isoprene + styrene
Answer:
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene

Question 106.
Which of the following used in medical field such as surgical sutures, 1asma substitute?
(a) PHBV
(b) PLA
(c) PCE
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 107.
Which one of the following is not an example of biodegradable plastic?
(a) polyhydroxy butyrate
(b) poly glycollic acid
(c) polythene
(d) poly caprolactone
Answer:
(c) polythene

Question 108.
Which of the following is an example for bio degradable plastic?
(a) polystyrene
(b) poly vinyl chloride
(c) bakelite
(d) polylactic acid
Answer:
(d) polylactic acid

Question 109.
Which one of the following is used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled release of drugs?
(a) PHB
(b) PHBV
(c) PGA
(d) PLA
Answer:
(b) PHBV

Question 110.
Glycine and e-amino caproic acid polymenses to give …………..
(a) glycyl amine
(b) nylon 6, 6
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6

Question 111.
Which one of the following is used in making automobiles and foot wear?
(a) Bun – S
(b) Buna – N
(c) natural rubber
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) Bun – S

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an insulator and making conveyor belts?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) neoprene
(d) Buna – N
Answer:
(c) neoprene

Question 113.
Which type of nylon is used in making brushes, synthetic fibres, parachute, ropes and carpets?
(a) nylon – 2
(b) nylon – 6
(c) nylon 6,6
(d) nylon – 2, nylon 6
Answer:
(c) nylon 6,6

Question 114.
Which one is used in making non-breakable cups and laminated sheets?
(a) bakelite
(b) urea formaldehyde
(c) PHBV
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) urea formaldehyde

Question 115.
Which of the polymer is used in making fibres, safety belts, lyre cords and ropes?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) Nylon
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) terylene

Question 116.
Identify the monomer of nylon – 2.
(a) adipic + Hexamethylene tetramine
(b) caprolactam
(c) vinyl chloride
(d) chioroprene
Answer:
(b) caprolactam

Question 117.
Which of the following is a fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) neoprene
(c) PVC
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) nylon

Question 118.
Identify the food preservative which is most commonly used by food producers?
(a) sodium cloride
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) baking soda
(d) benzoic acid
Answer:
(a) sodium cloride

Question 119.
Which of the following act as an antiseptic and disinfectant respectiely?
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol
(b) 1% phenol, 0.2% phenol
(c) 2% phenol, 20% phenol
(d) 20% phenol, 2% phenol
Answer:
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol

Question 120.
Identify the narcotic which is used as an analgesic.
(a) phenol
(b) equanil
(c) morphine
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 121.
What type of drug pencillin is?
(a) anaesthetic
(b) antibiotic
(c) antipyretic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(b) antibiotic

Question 122.
Ranitidine is used as an …………
(a) antioxidant
(b) antiseptic
(c) antacid
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(c) antacid

Question 123.
Aspirin is chemically named as ………….
(a) methyl salicylate
(b) ethyl salicylate
(c) o – hydroxy benzoic acid
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(d) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 124.
Which of the following can be used an analgesic without causing addiction and any modification?
(a) morphine
(b) n – acetyl paraminophenol
(c) diazepam
(d) tetra hydro catenol
Answer:
(c) diazepam

Question 125.
Tranquilisers are substances used for the treatment of ……………..
(a) cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) mental diseases
(d) blood infection
Answer:

Question 126.
Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent?

Answer:

Question 127.
Which of the following represents a soap?
(a) C₁₇H₃₅COOk
(b) C₁₇H₃₅COOH
(c) C₁₅H₃₁COOOH
(d) (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca
Answer:
(a) C₁₇H₃₅COOk

Question 128.
Which of the following drug is an analgesic?
(a) iodex
(b) valium
(c) analgin
(d) quinine
Answer:
(c) analgin

Question 129.
An antipyretic is …………
(a) chioro quinine
(b) paracetamol
(c) morphine
(d) ranitidine
Answer:
(b) paracetamol

Question 130.
Streptomycin is effective in the treatment of ……………
(a) tuberculosis
(b) malaria
(c) typhoid
(d) cholera
Answer:
(a) tuberculosis

Question 131.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc is ………………….
(a) streptomycin
(b) aspirin
(c) penicillin
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Question 132.
The substances which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called ………………..
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antioxidants
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(a) tranquilizers

Question 133.
The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is ……………

Answer:

Quesiton 134.
Which of the following acts as an antioxidant in edible oils?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Answer:
(d) Vitamin E

Question 135.
Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
(a) insulin
(b) inulin
(c) chioroquine
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(a) insulin

Question 136.
Which of the following terms means pain killer?
(a) antibiotics
(b) analgesic
(c) antiseptic
(d) antioxidant
Answer:
(b) analgesic

Question 137.
The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste as the sugar and is stable at cooking temperature is …………….
(a) aspartame
(b) saccharin
(c) sucralose
(d) alitame
Answer:
(c) sucralose

Question 138.
The role of phosphate in detergent powder is …………..
(a) control pH level of the detergent water mixture
(b) remove Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions from water that causes hardness of water
(c) provide whiteness to the fabric
(d) more soluble in soft water
Answer:
(b) remove Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions from water that causes hardness of water

Question 139.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) oxytocin
(c) penicillin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(b) oxytocin

Question 140.
Commonly used antiseptic ‘dettoP is a mixture of …………..
(a) O – chloro phenozylenol + terpeneol
(b) O – cresol + terpenol
(c) phenol + terpeneol
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol
Answer:
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol

II. Fill in the blanks.

The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as ……………..
The drug which interacts with macro molecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapautic and useful biological response is called ………………
……………..is a substance that is used to modifS’ or explore physiological systems for the benefit of the recepient.
Higher the value of …………….. safer is the drug
The medicines that have ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as ……………..
Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called …………….. and those which are important for communication systems are called ……………..
Many bacteria need …………….. in order to produce an important coenzyme, folic acid
When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces ……………..
Morphine that used as a pain killer suppress the …………….. that causes pain.
Histames stimulate the secretion of …………….. by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
…………….. acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neuro transmitter dopamine in the brain.
…………….. reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
…………….. are drugs that used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation
…………….. relieve pain and produces steeps and they are additive.
…………….. neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
…………….. cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous SyStem.
…………….. anaesthetics are often used for major surgical procedures.
…………….. provide relief from allergic effects.
…………….. inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
…………….. inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
…………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms applied to living tissues.
…………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms used on inanimate objects.
The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called ……………..
Flavouring agents added to food enhance the …………….. of the food.
…………….. are substances which retard the oxidative deteriorations of food.
Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called ……………..
Chemically soap is a …………….. or …………….. salt of higher fatty acids.
…………….. is a sodium salt alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
The quality of soap is described interrns of …………….. and the …………….. quantity in the soap better is its quality
…………….. become soft on heating and hard on cooling and they can be remoulded.
…………….. donot become soft on heating but set to an infusible mass upon heating.
In the manufacture of Teflon. the monomer used is ……………..
…………….. is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters
…………….. is a monomer which polymerises to give nylon – 6.
Para hydroxyl methyl phenols poíymerises to give a linear polymer called ……………..
The monomer of natural rubber is ……………..
For the vulcanization of natural rubber …………….. is used and heated to 100° 150°C.
…………….. polymers are used in medical field such as surgical sutures, plasma substitute.
A drug that binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function is called ……………..
…………….. reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin-induced increase in temperature.

Answer:

chemotheropy
medicine
Drug
therapeutic index
antibiotics
enzymes, receptors
PABA
sleepiness
neuro transmitters
HCI
Tranquilizers
Analgesics
Antipyretic
Narcotic Analgegics (or) opioids
Antacids
General anaesthetics
Inhalational general
Antihistamines
Antimicrobials
Fluoroquinolones
Antiseptic
Disinfectants
food additives
aroma
Antioxidant
artificial sweatness
sodium, potassium
Detergent
TFM, TFM
Thermoplastic
Thermosetting
tetra fluoroethylene
orIon (or) PAN
Caprolactam
novolac
cis – isoprene (OR) 2 – methyl buta- 1, 3 – diene
sulphur
Biodegradable
antagonists
Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (or) NSAIDS

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 5.

Answer:
(a) 3 2 4 1

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 15.

Answer:
(b) 2 3 4 1

Question 16.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer the drug.
Reason (R): Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and the minimum curative dose.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R dOes not explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is.wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by enzymes. This principle is applied to kill many pathogens.
Reason (R): The enzyme actions are highly essential for normal functioning of the system.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): The drugs acts as an inhibitor to the enzyme catalyst.
Reason (R): A drug molecule that has a similar geometry (shape) as the substrate is administered, it can also bind to the enzyme and inhibit its activity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Aspirin is an antipyretic and useful in the prevention of heart attacks.
Reason (R): Aspirin reduces fever and also prevent platelet coagulation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Opioids produces coma and even death.
Reason (R): Opioids releive pain and produce sleep and drugs are addictive and also poisonous in nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Milk of magnesia and aluminium hydroxide are usually used as antacids.
Reason (R): Mg(OH)₂ and Al(OH)₃ are weak bases and they neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Procaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics and cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness.
Reason (R): They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Antioxidant such as butyl hydroxy toluene (BHT) and butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) are added as good additives.
Reason (R): Antioxidants retard the oxidative deterioration of food which contain fat and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assrtion(A): Saccharin, sucralose are artificial sweeteners.
Reason (R): Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertlon(A): Sulphur dioxide and suiphites are also used as food additive.
Reason (R): They act as antimicrobial agents, antioxidant and enzyme inhibitors.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Asscrtion(A): During soap preparation, common salt is added to the reaction mixture.
Reason (R): Common salt decreases the solubility of soap and it helps to precipitate out from the aqueous solution.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Higher the TFM quantity in the soap, better is its quality.
Reason (R): The quality of the soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). Grade I soap should have 76% minimum TFM value.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Natural rubber becomes strong and elastic when heated with sulphur.
Reason (R): Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 – polyisoprene chains through disulphide – s – s bonds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Artificial sweeteners are added to the food to control the intake of calories.
Reason (R): Most of the artificial sweeteners are inert and do not metabolise in the body,
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Penicillin (G) is an antihistamine.
Reason (R): Penicillin G is effective against gram positive as well as gram negative bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 16.
Assertlon(A): Enzymes have active sites that hold substrate molecule for a chemical reaction.
Reason (R): Drugs compete with natural substate by attaching covalently to the active site of enzyme.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soaps in ethanol.
Reason (R): Ethanol made things invisible.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Sodium chloride is added to precipitate soap after saponification.
Reason (R): Hydrolysis of esters of long chain fatty acids by alkali produces soap in colloidal form.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertlon(A): Aspirin has antipyretic properties.
Reason (R): Aspirin gives relief from pain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 20.
Assertlon(A): Bithional is added to soap as an antiseptic.
Reason (R): Bithional is a suipha drug and destroy bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

VI. Find out the correct pair.

Question 1.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin, cetrizine, cephalosporin.
Answer:
Cetrizine. It is an antihistamine whereas others belongs to penicillin group.

Question 2.
Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, erythromycin, cimetidine, ranitidine.
Answer:
Erythromycin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antacids.

Question 3.
Halo peridol, clozapine, aiprazolam, aspirin, diazepam.
Answer:
Aspirin. It is an analgesic and antipyretic whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 4.
Acetamino phenol, ibuprofen, aspirin, morphine.
Answer:
Morphine. It is an opioids (narcotic analgesic) whereas others are non narcotic analgesics.

Question 5.
Morphine, heroin, hydrocodone, codeine, ibuprofen.
Answer:
Ibuprofen. It is a non narcotic analgesic whereas others are narcotic analgesics.

Question 6.
Procaine, lidocaine, cemitidine, propofol, iso flurane.
Answer:
Ccmitidine. It is an antacid whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 7.
Omeprazole, rabeprazole, iso flurane, ranitidine, cemitidine.
Answer:
Isoflurane. It is an anaesthetic whereas others are antacids.

Question 8.
Cetrizine, levocetrizine, trefenadine, ampicillin, desloratatide.
Answer:
Ampicillin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antihistamines.

Quesiton 9.
Penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosorins, hydrogen peroxide, carbapenems.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. it is an antiseptic where as other are antimicrobials.

Question 10.
Hydrogen peroxide, povidone – iodine, chlorine compounds, benzalkonium chloride.
Answer:
Chlorine compounds. It is a disinfectant whereas others arc antiseptic.

Question 11.
Ethynylestradiol, menstranol, hydrogen peroxide, norethindrone, norethynodrel.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. It is an antiseptic and a disinfectant whereas otheres are antifertility drugs.

Question 12.
Sodium benzoate, salt of sorbic acid, acetic acid, sodium bi carbonate, sodium meta suiphite.
Answer:
Sodium bi carbonate. It is a baking soda whereas others are food preservatives.

Question 13.
BIIT, BHA, SO₂, Vitamin E, sorbitol.
Answer:
Sorbitol. It is a sugar substituent where as others are antioxidants.

Question 14.
Saccharin, butyl hydroxy toluene, aspartane, sucralose, alitaine.
Answer:
Butyl hydroxy toluene, It is an antioxidant where as others are artificial sweetening agents.

Question 15.
Cellulose, polyester, silk.
Answer:
Polyester. It is a synthetic polymer whereas others are natural polymer.

Question 16.
PVC, polythene, LDPE, cellulose, HDPE, bakelite
Answer:
Cellulose, It is a natural polymer whereas others are synthetic polymers.

Question 17.
Polythcne, PVC, Bakelite, polystrene.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is thermosetting plastic whereas others are thermoplastic.

Question 18.
Nylon 66, polyethylene, PVC, teflon.
Answer:
Nylon 66. It is a condensation polymer whereas others are addition polymers.

Question 19.
Neoprene, bakelite, Buna – S, Buna – N.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is a thermosetting plastic whereas others are synthetic rubber.

Question 20.
Nylon 66, Nylon 6, terylene, teflon, bakelite, melamine.
Answer:
Teflon. It is an additional polymer whereas others are condensation polymers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 2 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term

medicine
chemotherapy

Answer:
1. Medicine:
The drug which interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response is called medicine.

2. Chemotherapy:
The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as chemotherapy.

Question 2.
Define the term therapeutic index.
Answer:
1. Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug (above which it becomes toxîc) and the minimum curative dose (below which the drug is ineffective).

2. Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer is the drug.

Question 3.
Write about the classification of drugs based on the target system.
Answer:
1. In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system that they target in the recepient. For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erthyromycin inhibit the protein synthesis in bacteria and are classified in the same group.

2. However their mode of action is different. Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein.

Question 4.
Explain about the classification of drug based on the site of action.
1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors which are referred as drug targets. The drug is classified based on the drug target with which it binds.

2. This classification is highly specilic compared to others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 5.
What are

antagonists
agonists.

Answer:

The drugs which binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists.
There are drugs which mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor. Those type of drugs are called agonists.

Question 6.
What is the difference between an agonist and antagonist?
Answer:

Agonist and antagonist act in opposite directions. Agonist is a substance which combines with cell receptor to produce some reaction that is typical for that substance.
On the other hand antagonist is the chemical which opposes or reduces the natural function.

Question 7.
Explain the action of agonist and antagonist with proper example.
Answer:
When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces sleepiness. So adenosine is an agonist. On the other hand, the antogonist drug coffeine binds to the adenosine receptor and makes it inactive. This results in the reduced sleepiness (wakefulness).

Question 8.
Why ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide?
Answer:
To treat acidity, weak base such as magnesium hydroxide is used. But this weak base make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of much acid. This treatment only relieves the symptoms and does not control the cause. But ranitine stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall which binds the receptor and inactivate them. So ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide.

Question 9.
What is meant by non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs? Give example.
Answer:
Non – steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin – induced increase in temperature. eg., ibuprofen.

Question 10.
What are narcotic analgesics? Give examples.
Answer:

Narcotic analgesics are opioids that relieve pain and produce sleep. These drugs are addictive. In poisonous dose, these produces coma and ultimately death. eg, morphine, codeine,
These drugs are used for short term or long term relief of severe pain. Mainly used for post operative pain. Pain of terminal cancer.

Question 11.
What are general anaesthetics? Give example.
Answer:

General anaesthetics are drugs cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system. e.g., propofol, iso flurane.
They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 12.
What are local anaesthetics? Give example. Mention its uses.
Answer:

Local anaesthetics cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibre to the brain. e.g., procaine, lidocaine
They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

Question 13.
Draw the structure of propofol? Mention its use.
Answer:
Propofol structure:

Question 14.
What are antihistamines? Give example and mention its use.
Answer:

Antihistamines block histamine release from histamine – 1 receptors.
eg., cetirizine, terfenadine, levocetirizine.
It is used to provide relief from the allergic effects.

Question 15.
What are antimicrobials? Mention its function and its uses.
Answer:

Antimicrobials inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
e.g., penicillin, ampicillin.
It is used to treat skin infections, dental infections, ear infections, respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, urinary tract infections and gonorrhoea.

Question 16.
Draw the structure of penicillin? Give its use.
Answer:

Penicillin is used to treat all type of infections pneumonia, urinary tract infections.

Question 17.
Draw the structure of ampicillin
Answer:

Question 18.
Write a note about macrolids.
Answer:

Macrolids targets bacterial ribosomes and prevent protein production. e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin
It is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastro intestinal tract and skin infections.

Question 19.
What are fluoroquinolones? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

Fluoro quinolones inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
e.g., clinafloxacin, ciprofloxacin
It is used to treat urinary tract infections, skin infections and respiratory infections, pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis.

Question 20.
What are tetracydines? Mention its function and uses.
Answer:

Tetracyclines inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis via interaction with the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. eg., doxycycline, minocycline.
It is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, infections of the respiratory tract, cholera.

Question 21.
What are aminoglycosides? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

Aminoglycosides bind to the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus stopping bacteria from making proteins.
It is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria.

Question 22.
What are food additives? Give example.
Answer:

The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called food additives.
e.g., Aroma compounds, antioxidants, preservatives, stabilizers, food colours, buffering substances are food additives.

Question 23.
Explain about antioxidants.
Answer:

Antioxidants are substances which retard the oxidative deteriotations of food. Food containing fats and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid, .
To prevent the oxidation of fats and oils, chemical BHT (butyl hydroxy toluene), BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole) are added as antioxidants.
These materials readily undergo oxidation by reacting with free radicals generated by the oxidation of oils there by stop the chain reaction of oxidation of food.
Sulphur dioxide, suiphites are also used as antioxidant and also act as antimicrobial agents and enzyme inhibitors.

Question 24.
What are sugarsubstituents? Give example.
Answer:
The compounds that are used like sugars for sweetening, but are metabolised without the influence of insulin are called sugar substituents. e.g., sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol.

Question 25.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give example.
Answer:
Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners. e.g., saccharin, aspartame, sucralose, alitame.

Question 26.
Define TFM value.
Answer:

The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after spliting with mineral acids.
Higher the TFM value in the soap, better is its quality.
As per BIS standards, Grade I soaps should have 76% minimum TFM value.

Quesiton 27.
Write a note about natural rubber and give Its structure.
Answer:
1. Rubber is a naturally occuring polymer. It is obtained from the latex that excludes from cuts in the bark of rubber tree.

2. The monomer unit of natural rubber is cis – iso prene (2 – methyl buta – 1,3 – diene). Thousands of isoprene units are linearly linked together in natural rubber. NaturaL rubber is not so strong (or) elastic. The properties of natural rubber can be modified by the process called vulcanization.

Question 28.
How is neoprene prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. The free radical polymerisation of the monomer 2 – chloro buta 1,3 – diene (chioroprene) gives neoprene.

2. It is used in the manufacture of chemical container, conveyer belts.

Question 29.
How Is Buna – N prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Buna – N is prepared by the polymerisation of acrylonitile and buta – 1, 3 – diene

2. It is used in the manufacture of hoses and tank linings.

Question 30
How would you prepare Buna – S? Give its use.
Answer:
Buna – S is prepared by the polymerisation of buta – 1, 3 – diene and styrene in the ratio of 3 : 1 in the presence of sodium.

Uses:
It is used in making pneumatic tires in shoe heels and soles, and in gaskets.

Question 31.
How will you prepare PHBV? Give its use?
Answer:
1. The biodegrable polymer PHBV (Poly hydroxy butyrate-co hydroxyl valerate) is prepared by the polymerisation of monomers 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxy pentanoic acid.

2. It is used in orthopacdic devices añd in controlled release of drugs.

Question 32.
How would you prepare Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6 polymers?
Answer:
Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6 is a co polymer which contains polyamide linkages. It is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of monomers glycine and E-amino caproic acid.

Question 33.
What are natural and synthetic polimers? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Natural polymers:
Polymers which are found in nature, i.e., in animal and plants are called natural polymers. For example, proteins, starch, cellulose etc.

Synthetic polymers:
Man – made polymers are called synthetic polymers. For example plastics, synthetic fibres.

Question 34.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Answer:
Homopolyers:
Polymers whose repeating structural units are dervied from only one type of monomer units are called homopolymers. For example, polythene, PVC, PAN etc.

Copolymers:
Polymers whose repeating units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are called co-polymers. For example, l3una – S, Buna – N, Nylon 6, 6 etc.

Question 35.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?
Answer:
Addition polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation, a large number of molecules of same or different monomers simply add to the other unit, leading to the formation of macromolecule. Addition polymerisation generally occurs among molecules containing double and triple bonds.

Condensation polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of independent condensation reactions usually with the elimination of simple molecules like water, alcohol, ammonia etc.

Question 36.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon – 6 and Nylon 6, 6?
Answer:
Nylon 6 – Caprolactam. Nylon 6,6 – Adipic acid and Hexamethylenediamine

Question 37.
Write the names and structure of the monomers of the following polymers:

Buna – S
Buna – N
Dacron
Neoporene

Answer:
1. Butadiene, CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂ ; Styrene, C₆H₅ – CH = CH₂

2. Butadiene, CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂ ; Acrylonitrile,

3. Terephthalic acid, ; Ethylene glycol (Ethane – 1, 2 – diol)

4. Chloroprene, ; 2 – Chloro – 1, 3 – butadine is the monomer of neoprene.

Question 38.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Answer:
Dacron is obtained by condensation polymerisation of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid with the elimination of water molecules:

Question 39.
What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Answer:
Polymers which disintegrate by themselves over a period of time due to environmental degradation by bacteria, etc. are called biodegradable polymers. Example: PHBV (poly hydroxy butrate – co – β hydroxyvalcrate)

Question 40.
What is the difference between elastomers and fibres? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Elastomers

These are rubber like solids with elastic properties.
These are held by the weak inter – molecular forces.
Example: Buna-S and Buna-N.

Fibres

These are th thread forming solids which possess high tensile strength and high modulus.
These are held together by strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding.
Example: Nylon 6, 6 and polyesters (terylene)

Question 41.
What are thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Thermoplastics:
Thermoplastics are linear polymers which can be repeatedly softened on heating and hardened on cooling and hence can be used again and again without any change in chemical composition and mechanical strength.

Thermosetting polymers:
Thermosetting polymers, are permanently setting polymers. On heating in a mould, they get hardened and set and cannot be softened again. This hardening on heating is due to cross linking between different polymeric chains which give rise to a three dimensional network solid. Example – Bakelite.

Question 42.
Differentiate between addition and condensation polymers based on the mode of polyrnerisation. Give one example of each type. 1
Answer:
Addition polymers

They are formed by adding monomers to a growing polymer chaìn without loss of any molecule.
They are formed from unsaturated compounds.
Example: Polyethene, polypropene.

Condensation polymers

They are formed by combining monomers together with the loss of small molecules like H₂O, NH₃, CO₂ etc.
Monomers have di or polyfunctional groups.
Example: Nylon – 6, 6, Nylon – 6, Terylene.

Question 43.
Distinguish between ‘chain growth potymerisatlon and step growth polymerisation’ and give one example of each.
Answer:
Chain growth polymerisation

Only one repeating unit is added at a time.
Reaction is fast and polymer is formed at once. Example – polythene.

Step growth polymerisatlon

Any two species present can react.
Polymer is formed in gradual steps. Examply – Nylon-6, 6.

Question 44.
How are biopolymers more beneficial than synthetic polymers?
Answer:
Durability of synthetic polymers is advantageous, however it presents a serious waste disposable problem. In renewal of the disposable problem, biodegradable polymers are useful to us. Biopolymers arc safe in use. They disintegrate by themselves in biological system during a certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation and hence, are biodegradable. As a result, they do not cause any pollution.

Question 45.
Give the method of preparation of polyacrylonitrile?
Answer:
The addition polymerisation of acrylonitrile in the presence of a peroxide catalyst leads to the formation of polycrylonitrile. It is used as a substitute for wool in making fibres such as orlon or acrilan.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 3 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the structures of

Suiphanilamide
p – nltro benzoic acid

Answer:
1. Suiphanilamide

2. p – nitro benzoic acid:

Question 2.
Draw the structure of

Adenosine (Agonist)
Caffeine (Antagonist)

Answer:
1. Adenosinc (Agonist)

2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

Question 3.
Explain about

Analgesics
Antlinflammatory drugs
Antipyretlcs

Answer:
1. Analgesics:
They alleviate pain by reducing local inflammatory response. They reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
Example: Paracetamol (Crocin).

2. Anti inflammatory drug:
They are used for short term pain relief and for modest pain like head ache, muscle strain, bruising or arthritis.
Example: Ibuprofen, Aspirin.

3. Antipyretics:
These drugs have many effects such as reducing fever, and preventing platelet coagulation.
Example: Aspirin.

Question 4.
Explain about anaesthetics with their types.
Answer:
1. Local anaesthetics: It causes loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain. Example: Procaine, Li do Caine. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

2. General anaesthetics:
They cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
Example: Propofol, Isoflurane. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 5.
Draw the structure of

procaine
Lidocaine

Answer:
1. Procaine

2. Lidocaine

Question 6.
Explain about antacids?
Answer:

Antacids neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
They are used to relieve burning sensation in the chest, throat area caused by acid reflux. Example – Milk of magnesia, alumminium hydroxide, Ranitidine, Cemitidino, Omeprazole, Rabeprazole.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Antiseptic and Disinfectants.
Answer:
1. Antiseptic:
They are the drugs used to stop (or) slow down the growth of micro organism and they are applied to living tissue (body). Example: H₂O₂.

2. Disinfectant:
They are the drugs used to stop or slow the growth of micro organism and they are applied on inanimate objects (non living surfaces). Example: Chlorine compounds.

Question 8.
What are the advantages of food additives?
Answer:

Uses of preservatives reduce the product spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
Antioxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Question 9.
Differentiate soap and detergents?
Answer:
Soap

Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid.
Soaps are made from animal (or) plant fats and oils.
Soaps have lesser cleansing action.
Soaps are bio degradable.
Soaps are less effective in hard water.
They have a tendency to form a scum in hard water.
Example: Sodium palmitate.

Detergent

Detergent is sodium salt of alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
Detergents are made from petrochemicals.
Detergents have more cleansing action.
Detergents are non – bio degradable.
Detergents are more effective even in hard water.
They do not form scum with hard water.
Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

Question 10.
What is LDPE? Give its preparation and uses.
Answer:
1. LDPE is low density poiy ethylene. It is formed by heating ethene at 2000 to 300°C under oxygen as a catalyst. This reaction follows free radical mechanism. The peroxide formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.

2. LDPE is used as insulation for cables, making toys.

Question 11.
What is HDPE? Cive its preparation and use.
Answer:

IIDPE is high density polyethylene. it is prepared by the polymerisation of ethylene at. 373k and 6 to 7 atm. using zeiglar Natta Catalyst)
It is used to make bottles, pipes.

Question 12.
What is Orlon? Give its preparation and use.
Answer:
1. Orlon is poiy acrylonitrite (PAN). It is prepared by the addition of polymerisation of vinyl cyanide using a peroxide initiator.

3. It is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters etc.

Question 13.
How will you prepare Nylon 6,6.? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Nylon 6,6 can be prepared by mixing equimolar adipic acid and hexamethylene diaminc. With the elimination of water to form amide bonds.

3. It is used in textiles, manufacture of cards.

Question 14.
How will you prepare Nylon – 6? Give its use.
1. Capro tactum on heating at 533k in an inert atmosphere with traces of water gives E amino caproic acid which polymerises to give Nylon 6.

3. It is used in the manufacture of tyre cards, fabrics.

Question 15.
What is bakeite? How is it prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
1. Bakelite is a thermo setting plastic. It is prepared from the monomers such as phenol and formaldehyde. The condensalion polymerisation take place in the presence of acid or base catalyst.

2. Phenol reacts with methanal to form ortho or para hydroxyl methyl phenols which on further reaction with phenol gives linear polymer called novolac. Novolac on further healing with formaldehyde undergoes cross linkages to form bakelite.

Novolac is used in paints.
Soft bakelites are used in making glue for binding laminated wooden planks and in varnishes.
Hard bakelites are used to prepare combs, pens.

Question 16.
How Is melamlue prepared? Give its use?
Answer:
Melamine and formaldehyde are the monomers. They undergo condensation polymerisation to form melamine formaldehyde resin.

Uses : It is used in making unbreakable crockery.

Question 17.
How is urea formaldehyde prepared?
Answer:
It is formed by condensation polymerisation of the monomers urea and formaldehyde. Uses – it is used in decorative laminates, textiles, wrinkle resistant fabrics, paper and glue wood.

Question 18.
Mention one use of each of the following:

Ranitidine
Paracetamol
Tincture of iodine.

Answer:

Rnitidine is used as an antacid.
Paracetamol is used to bring down the body temperature during high fever.
Tincture of iodine is used as an antiseptic. It is 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water.

Question 19.
Describe the following with suitable examples:

Preservatives
Artificial sweetening agents.

Answer:
1. Preservatives:
Preservatives are the substances which are used to prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. Examples – Sodium benzoate, Common salt.

2. Artificial sweetening agents:
These are the chemical substances which are used to create sweet taste in food items in place of sugar.

Question 20.
Give one important use of each of the following:

Bithional
Chioramphenicol
Streptomycin
Paracetamol

Answer:

Bithional is added to soap so as to impart antiseptic properties to the soap.
Chioramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic used in curing typhoid, meningitis.
Streptomycin is used for the treatment of T.B (Tuberculosis).
Paracetamol is an antipyretic used in bringing down temperature in high fever.

Question 21.
What are detergents? How are they classified? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are suiphonate or hydrogen sulphate salts of long chain hydrocarbons containing 12-18 carbon atoms.
Types of detergents

Cationic detergents
Anionic detergents
Non-ionic detergents

Advantages of detergents over soaps: Unlike soaps they work well even with hard water. They can work well even in acidic water. They are more effective than soaps.

Question 22.

What class of drug is Ranitidine?
If water contains dissolved Ca²⁺ ions, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which will you use for cleaning clothes?
Which of the following is an antisepctic? 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol.

Answer:

It is an antacid.
In this case we use synthetic detergents because it give foam with hard water.
0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic.

Question 23.
Define the following by giving one example of each:

Antiseptics
Antioxidants
Narcotic analgesics

Answer:

Antiseptics are the chemicals applied to the living tissues either to kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Example : dettol.
Antioxidants are the compounds which retards the action of oxygen on food and reduces its rate of decomposition by oxidation. Example: BHA.
Narcotic analgesics are the chemicals used for the relief of pst operative pain. Example – morphine.

Question 24.
In order to wash clothes which cleaning agent what will you prefer and why: soap or synthetic detergents? Give one advantage of soaps and synthetic detergents each.
Answer:
Soaps have straight hydrocarbon chains and are easily degraded by bacteria present in the sewage water and hence, do not cause water pollution. Most of the detergents are non – biodegradable and hence cause water pollution of rivers and waterways. So, one will prefer soap.

Question 25.
Name the action of the following on the human body.

Aspirin
Penicillin
Phenacetin
Morphine
Analgin
Luminal
Seconal
Streptomycin

Answer:

Aspirin is an analgesic which is used for relieving pain. It also prevents heart attack.
Penicillin is an antibiotic used against large number of infections caused by various cocci, gram positive bacteria, etc. It is an effective drug for pneumonia, bronchitis, sore throat.
Phenacetin is an antipyretic drug used to bring down the temperature of body in high fever.
Morphine is an strong analgesic. It is a narcotic drug. It cause addiction. It gives relief from acute pain, induce sleep and unconsciousness in higher doses.
Analgin is an antipyretic and analgesic. It brings down the temperature of body in fever and give relief from pain.
Luminal produces sleep and it is a habit forming drug. It is also called a sedative tranquilliser.
Seconal is an antidepressant (tranquiliser). Sometimes the patients are highly depressed and loses self – confidence. This drug produces feeling of well being and improved efficiency.
Streptomycin is used as an antibiotic. It is used to cure tuberculosis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 5 mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain free radical polymerisation with example.
Answer:
1. When alkenes are heated with free radical initiator such as benzoyl peroxide, they undergo polymerisation reaction. For example, styrene polymerises to polystrene when it is heated with a peroxide initator. The mechanism involves the following steps.

2. Initiation – Formation of free radical.

3. Propagation step.

4. Chain growth will continue with the successive addition of several thousands of monomer units.

5. Termination:
The above chain reaction can be stopped by stopping the supply of monomer or by coupling of two chains or reaction with an impurity such as oxygen.

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of forces operating between their molecules? To which of these classes does nylon-6,6 belong?
Answer:

Elastomers: The polymer chains are held together by weak intermolecular forces. Example – Buna – S, Buna – N, Neoprene.
Fibres: They have strong forces of attraction. Example – Polymides, (Nylon 6,6), polyesters.
Thermoplastics: They are long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. Example – Polythene, polystyrene.
Thermosetting plastics: They do not become soft on heating and cannot be remoulded. Example – Bakelite, Nylon – 6,6, belong to fibres.

Common Errors

1. Medicines – Molecular fonnula are not given only structural fotmula are drawn.

Rectifications

1. It is written by counting the C, H, O, N in the compound. For example. Aspirin on Acetyt salicylic acid.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 13 Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The term is used to describe a programming approach based on classes and objects is ……………….
(a) OOP
(b) POP
(c) ADT
(d) SOP
Answer:
(a) OOP

Question 2.
The paradigm which aims more at procedures ……………….
(a) Object Oriented Programming
(b) Procedural programming
(c) Modular programming
(d) Structural programming
Answer:
(b) Procedural programming

Question 3.
Which of the following is a user defined data type?
(a) class
(b) float
(c) int
(d) object
Answer:
(a) class

Question 4.
The identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is ……………….
(a) class
(b) object
(c) structure
(d) member
Answer:
(b) object

Question 5.
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as ……………….
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(b) Encapsulation

Question 6.
Insulation of the data from direct access by the program is called as ……………….
(a) Data hiding
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Data hiding

Question 7.
Which of the following concept encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created?
(a) Class
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(d) Abstraction

Question 8.
Which of the following is the most important advantage of inheritance?
(a) data hiding
(b) code reusability
(c) code modification
(d) accessibility
Answer:
(b) code reusability

Question 9.
“Write once and use it multiple time” can be achieved by ……………….
(a) redundancy
(b) reusability
(c) modification
(d) composition
Answer:
(b) reusability

Question 10.
Which of the following supports the transitive nature of data?
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Inheritance

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
How is modular programming different from procedural programming paradigm?
Answer:
Modular programming:

Emphasis on algorithm rather than data.
Programs are divided into individual modules.
Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data.
Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.

Procedural programming:

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
All data items are global.
Suitable for small sized software application.
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.

Question 2.
Differentiate classes and objects.
Answer:
Class:

Class is a blue print or template from which objects are created.
Class doesn’t allocate memory when it is created.
Class is a logical entity.

Object:

Object is an instance of a class.
Objects allocate memory when it is created.
Object is a physical entity.

Question 3.
What is polymorphism?
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Question 4.
How is encapsulation and abstraction are interrelated?
Answer:
Abstraction means giving only essential things and hiding unnecessary details. Encapsulation is the binding of data members and methods together in a capsule to avoid accidental changes to data from external users, i.e., encapsulation is the bundling of related algorithms and data.

Question 5.
Write the disadvantages of OOP.
Answer:

Size: Object Oriented Programs are much larger than other programs.
Effort: Object Oriented Programs require a lot of work to create.
Speed: Object Oriented Programs are slower than other programs, because of their size.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is paradigm? Mention the different types of paradigm.
Answer:
Paradigm means organizing principle of a program. It is an approach to programming. There are different approaches available for problem solving using computer. They are Procedural programming, Modular Programming and Object Oriented Programming.

Question 2.
Write a note on the features of procedural programming.
Answer:
Important features of procedural programming

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs
All data items are global
Suitable for small sized software application
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type. This is time consuming.
Example: FORTRAN and COBOL.

Question 3.
List some of the features of modular programming.
Answer:
Important features of Modular programming:

Emphasis on algorithm rather than data
Programs are divided into individual modules
Each modules are independent of each other and have their own local data
Modules can work with its own data as well as with the data passed to it.
Example: Pascal and C.

Question 4.
What do you mean by modularization and software reuse?
Answer:

Modularization : where the program can be decomposed into modules.
Software re – use : where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Question 5.
Define information hiding.
Answer:
Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Write the differences between Object Oriented Programming and Procedural Programming
Answer:
Object Oriented Programming:

Emphasizes on data rather than algorithm.
Data abstraction is introduced in addition to procedural abstraction.
Data and its associated operations are grouped in to single unit.
Programs are designed around the data being operated.
Example: C++, Java, VB.Net, Python

Procedural Programming:

Programs are organized in the form of subroutines or sub programs.
All data items are global.
Suitable for small sized software application.
Difficult to maintain and enhance the program code as any change in data type needs to be propagated to all subroutines that use the same data type.
Example: FORTRAN and COBOL

Question 2.
What are the advantages of OOPs?
Answer:
Re – usability : “Write once and use it multiple times” you can achieve this by using class. Redundancy: Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

Easy Maintenance : It is easy to maintain and modify existing code as new objects can be created with small differences to existing ones.

Security : Using data hiding and abstraction only necessary data will be provided thus maintains the security of data.

Question 3.
Write a note on the basic concepts that supports OOPs?
Answer:
The Object Oriented Programming has been developed to overcome the drawbacks of procedural and modular programming. It is widely accepted that object – oriented programming is the most important and powerful way of creating software.

The Object – Oriented Programming approach mainly encourages:

Modularization: where the program can be decomposed into modules.
Software re – use: where a program can be composed from existing and new modules.

Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

Data Abstraction.
Encapsulation.
Modularity.
Inheritance.
Polymorphism.

Encapsulation:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class.

The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

Data Abstraction:
Abstraction refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details. Classes use the concept of abstraction to define a list of abstract attributes and function which operate on these attributes. They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming Techniques Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In procedural programming all data items are ……………….
(a) Cobol
(b) global
(c) fortan
(d) class
Answer:
(b) global

Question 2.
Class represents a group of similar ……………….
(a) objects
(b) modules
(c) arrays
(d) data
Answer:
(a) objects

Question 3.
………………. is an example of object oriented programming.
(a) Python
(b) Java
(c) VB.Net
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
………………. refers to showing only the essential features without revealing background details.
(a) Redundancy
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(c) Abstraction

Question 5.
………………. is about binding the data variables and functions together in class.
(a) Data abstraction
(b) Modularization
(c) Redundancy
(d) Encapsulation
Answer:
(d) Encapsulation

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is procedural programming?
Answer:
Procedural means a list of instructions were given to the computer to do something. Procedural programming aims more at procedures. This emphasis on doing things.

Question 2.
What is a class?
Answer:
A Class is a construct in C++ which is used to bind data and its associated function together into a single unit using the encapsulation concept. Class is a user defined data type. Class represents a group of similar objects.

Question 3.
What is modularity?
Answer:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Question 4.
What are the main features of OOP?
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming:

Data Abstraction
Encapsulation
Modularity
Inheritance
Polymorphism

Question 5.
What is redundancy?
Answer:
Inheritance is the good feature for data redundancy. If you need a same functionality in multiple class you can write a common class for the same functionality and inherit that class to sub class.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about objects.
Answer:
Objects: Represents data and its associated function together into a single unit. Objects are the basic unit of OOP. Basically an object is created from a class. They are instances of class also called as class variables. An identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour is called object.

Question 2.
What is Encapsulation and data binding?
Answer:
The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain about features of object oriented programming.
Answer:
Main Features of Object Oriented Programming

Data Abstraction
Encapsulation
Modularity
Inheritance
Polymorphism

Encapsulation:
1. The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together into a single unit is known as Encapsulation. It implements abstraction.

2. Encapsulation is about binding the data variables and functions together in class. It can also be called data binding.

3.. Encapsulation is the most striking feature of a class. The data is not accessible to the outside world, and only those functions which are wrapped in the class can access it. These functions provide the interface between the object’s data and the program. This encapsulation of data from direct access by the program is called data hiding or information hiding.

They encapsulate all the essential properties of the object that are to be created. The attributes are called data members because they hold information. The functions that operate on these data are called methods or member function.

Modularity:
Modularity is designing a system that is divided into a set of functional units (named modules) that can be composed into a larger application.

Inheritance:
Inheritance is the technique of building new classes (derived class) from an existing Class (base class). The most important advantage of inheritance is code reusability.

Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is the ability of a message or function to be displayed in more than one form.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Polymorphism

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Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 15 Polymorphism Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Polymorphism

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Polymorphism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following refers to a function having more than one distinct meaning?
(a) Function Overloading
(b) Member overloading
(c) Operator overloading
(d) Operations overloading
Answer:
(a) Function Overloading

Question 2.
Which of the following reduces the number of comparisons in a program?
(a) Operator Overloading
(b) Operations overloading
(c) Function overloading
(d) Member overloading
Answer:
(c) Function overloading

Question 3.
void dispchar(char ch = ‘$\ int size=10)
{

for(int i = 1;i< = size;i ++)
cout << ch;

}
How will you invoke the function dispchar() for the following input?
To print $ for 10 times
(a) dispchar();
(b) dispchar(ch,size);
(c) dispchar($,10);
(d) dispchar(T, 10 times);
Answer:
(c) dispchar($,10);

Question 4.
Which of the following is not true with respect to function overloading?
(a) The overloaded functions must differ in their signature.
(b) The return type is also considered for overloading a function.
(c) The default arguments of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading.
(d) Destructor function cannot be overloaded.
Answer:
(d) Destructor function cannot be overloaded.

Question 5.
Which of the following is invalid prototype for function overloading
(a) void fun (intx);
void fun (char ch);
(b) void fun (intx);
void fun (inty);
(c) void fun (double d);
void fun (char ch);
(d) void fun (double d);
void fun (inty);
Answer:
(a) void fun (intx);
void fun (char ch);

Question 6.
Which of the following function(s) combination cannot be considered as overloaded function(s) in the given snippet?
void print(char A,int B); // F1
void printprint(int A, float B); // F2
void Print(int P=10); // F3
void printQ; // F4
(a) F1, F2, F3, F4
(b) F1, F2, F3
(c) F1, F2, F4
(d) F1, F3, F4
Answer:
(d) F1, F3, F4

Question 7.
Which of the following operator is by default overloaded by the compiler?
(a) *
(b) +
(c) + =
(d) = =
Based on the following program answer the questions (8) to (10)
#include
using namespace std;
class Point {
private:
int x, y; .
public:
Point(int x1,int y1)
{

x=x1;y=y1;

}
void operator+(Point & pt3);
void show() {cout << “x =” << x << “y =” << y; }
};
void Point: :operator + (Point & pt3)
{

x+=pt3.x;
y += pt3.y;

}
int main()
{

Point pt1(3, 2),pt2(5, 4);
pt1+pt2;
pt1.show();
return 0;
}

Answer:
(b) +

Question 8.
Which of the following operator is overloaded?
(a) +
(b) Operator
(c) : :
(d) =
Answer:
(a) +

Question 9.
Which of the following statement invoke operator overloading?
(a) pt1 + pt2;
(b) Point pt1(3, 2),pt2(5, 4);
(c) ptl.show();
(d) return 0;
Answer:
(d) return 0;

Question 10.
What is the output for the above program?
(a) x = 8, y = 6
(b) x = 14, y = 14
(c) x = 8, y = 6
(d) x = 5, y = 9
Answer:
(d) x = 5, y = 9

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is function overloading?
Answer:

The ability of the function to process the message or data in more than one form is called function overloading.
In other words, function overloading means two or more functions in the same scope share the same name but their parameters are different.

Question 2.
List the operators that cannot be overloaded.
Answer:
Operator that are not overloaded is as follows:

scope operator (::)
sizeof
member selector.
member pointer selector *
ternary operator ?:

Question 3.
class add{int x; public: add(int)}; Write an outline definition for the constructor.
Answer:
add (int temp)
{

x = temp;

}

Question 4.
Does the return type of function help in overloading a function?
Answer:
No. The return type of a function does not help in overloading a function. Only arguments are considered.

Question 5.
What is the use of overloading a function?
Answer:
Function overloading is not only implementing polymorphism but also reduces the number of comparisons in a program and makes the program execute faster. It also helps the programmer by reducing the number of function names to be remembered.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What are the rules for function overloading?
Answer:
Rules for function overloading:

The overloaded function must differ in the number of its arguments or data types.
The return type of overloaded functions is not considered for overloading the same data type.
The default arguments of overloaded functions are not considered as part of the parameter list in function overloading.

Question 2.
How does a compiler decide as to which function should be invoked when there are many functions? Give an example.
Answer:
When you call an overloaded function (when there are many functions with same name), the compiler determines the most appropriate definition to use by comparing the argument types used to call the function with the parameter types specified in the definitions. The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called overload resolution.
Example:
#include using namespace std; void print (int i)
{

cout<< “It is integer” <<i<< endl;

}

void print (string c)

{

cout<< “It is string”<< c << endl;

}
int main ()
{

print (10);
print (“Good”);
return 0;

}
Output:
It is integer 10
It is string Good

Question 3.
What is operator overloading? Give some example of operators which can be overloaded.
Answer:
The term operator overloading refers to giving additional functionality to the normal C++ operators like It is also a type of polymorphism in which an operator is overloaded to give user-defined meaning to it.

For example, ‘+’ operator can be overloaded to perform addition on various data types, like for Integer, String (concatenation), etc.

Question 4.
Discuss the benefit of constructor overloading?
Answer:

Function overloading can be applied for constructors, as constructors are special functions of classes.
A class can have more than one constructor with a different signature.
Constructor overloading provides the flexibility of creating multiple type of objects for a class.

Question 5.
class sale ( int cost, discount; public: sale(sale &); Write a non-inline definition for constructor specified;
Answer:
class sale
{

int cost, discount;
public:
sale (sale&);

};
// non inline constructor
sale: : sale(sale&s)
{

cost = s.cost;
discount = s.discount;

}

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What are the rules for operator overloading?
Answer:
Rules for operator overloading:

The precedence and associativity of an operator cannot be changed.
No new operators can be created, only existing operators can be overloaded.
Cannot redefine the meaning of an operator’s procedure, we cannot change how integers are added. Only additional functions can be to an operator.
Overloaded operators cannot have default arguments.
When binary operators are overloaded, the left-hand object must be an object of the relevant class.

Question 2.
Answer the question (i) to (v) after going through the following class.
classBook
{
intBookCode ; char Bookname[20];float fees;
public:
Book() //Function 1
{
fees = 1000;
BookCode = 1;
strcpy (Bookname, “C++”);
}
void display(float C) //Function 2
{
cout << BookCode << “:”<< Bookname << “:”<< fees << endl;
~ Book() //Function 3
{
cout << “End of Book Object”<< endl;
}

Book (intSC, char S[ ], float F); //Function 4

};
1. In the above program, what are Function 1 and Function 4 combined together referred to?
2. Which concept is illustrated by Function3? When is this function called/ invoked?
3. What is the use of Function3?
4. Write the statements in main to invoke function1 and function2
5. Write the definition for Function4.
Answer:

Constructor overloading (function 1 and function 4 are constructors with different signatures in the class book)
Function 3 is destructor of the class. Function 3 is executed when the object of the class book goes out of scope.
Function 3 is destructor of the class.
- Destructor (function3) will free resources if any that the object may have acquired during its lifetime
- Destructor function removes the memory of an object which was allocated by the constructor at the time of creating an object. Thus frees the unused memory.
book b;
b.display (4.5);
Book: :Book (int sc.char.s[], float, F) // Function 4
{
Book Code = SC
strcpy (Book name, S);
fees = F;
}

Question 3.
Write the output of the following program.
Answer:
include
using namespace std;
class Seminar
{
int Time;
public:
Seminar()
{

Time = 30; cout << “Seminar starts now” << endl;

}
void Lecture()
{
cout << “Lectures in the seminar on”<< endl;
}
Seminar(int Duration)
{

Time=Duration;cout<< “Welcome to Seminar”<<endl;

}
Seminar(Seminar &D)
{

Time=D.Time;cout<< “Recap of Previous Seminar Content”<<endl;

}
~Seminar()
{
cout<< “Vote of thanks”<<endl;
}
};
int main()
{

Seminar s1, s2(2), s3(s2);
s1.Lecture();
return 0;

}
Output:
Seminar starts now
Welcome to seminar
Recap of previous seminar content
Lectures in the seminar on
Vote of thanks
Vote of thanks
Vote of thanks

Question 4.
Debug the following program.
Answer:

Corrected Program

Output
Enter string: God
Enter string: Bless
The first string is: God
The Second-string is: Bless
The concatenated string is: God Bless

Question 5.
Answer the questions based on the following program
#include
#include
using namespace std;
class comp
{
public:
char[10];
void getstring(char str[10])
{
strcpy(s,str);
}
void operator = = (comp);
};
void comp::operator = = (comp ob)
{
if(strcmp(s,ob.s) = = 0)
cout << “\nStrings are Equal”;
else
cout<< “\nStrings are not Equal”;
}
int main()
{
comp ob, ob1;
char stringl[10], string2[10];
cout << “Enter First String:”; cin >> string1;
ob.getstring(string1);
cout<< “\n Enter Second String:”; cin >> string2;
ob1.getstring(string2);
ob = = obi;
return 0;
}

Mention the objects which will have the scope till the end of the program.
Name the object which gets destroyed in between the program.
Name the operator which is overloaded and write the statement that invokes it.
Write out the prototype of the overloaded member function.
What types of operands are used for the overloaded operator?
Which constructor will get executed? Write the output of the program.

Answer:

Objects: ob and obi of main ()
Object ob of void operator = = (comp ob);
Overloaded operator: = =
Statement that invokes: ob = = ob1;
void operator = = (comp ob):
Operands used are the objects of the class comp
The default constructor generated by the compiler will be executed.[comp();]

Output 1
Enter first string: hello Enter second string: hello String are equal

Output 2
Enter first string: hello Enter second string: fine String are not equal.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The number and types of a function’s parameters are called the …………………
(a) overload resolution
(b) function’s signature
(c) function overloading
(d) operator overloading
Answer:
(b) function’s signature

Question 2.
The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called …………………
(a) overload resolution
(b) prototype
(c) polymorphism
(d) operator overload
Answer:
(a) overload resolution

Question 3.
The return type of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading same …………………
(a) polymorphism
(b) prototype
(c) data type
(d) overloading
Answer:
(c) data type

Question 4.
………………… cannot have default arguments.
(a) Operator overloading
(b) Overloaded operators
(c) Function overloading
(d) prototype
Answer:
(b) Overloaded operators

Question 5.
The mechanism of giving special meaning to an operator is known as …………………
(a) operator overloading
(b) parameter
(c) function overloading
(d) polymorphism
Answer:
(a) operator overloading

Question 6.
Operator overloading provides new definitions for most of the ………………… operators.
(a) *
(b) + = =
(c) +
(d) C++
Answer:
(d) C++

Question 7.
The overloaded operator is given using the keyword ………………… followed by an operator symbol.
(a) operator
(b) data type
(c) object
(d) function
Answer:
(a) operator

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Give the syntax for operator overloading.
Answer:
RetumType classname :: Operator Operator Symbol (argument list)
{

\\ Function body

}
Example: Deposit Deposit: : operator + (Deposit dl);

Question 2.
Write a program for function overloading.
C++ Program to demonstrate function overloading
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
void print(int i)
{cout << “It is integer” << i <<endl;}
void print(double f)
{ cout << “It is float” << f <<endl;}
void print(string c)
{ cout << “It is string” << c <<endl;}
int main() {

print(10);
print(10.10);
print(“Ten”);
return 0;

}
Output:
It is integer 10
It is float 10.1
It is string Ten

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is function signature?
Answer:
The ability of the function to process the message or data in more than one form is called as function overloading. It implies that two or more functions in the same scope share the same name but their parameters are different. In this situation, the functions that share the same name are said to be overloaded and the process is called function overloading. The number and types of a function’s parameters are called the function’s signature.

Question 2.
Explain overload resolution.
Answer:
When you call an overloaded function, the compiler determines the most appropriate definition . to use, by comparing the argument types you have used to callthe function with the parameter types specified in the definitions. The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called overload resolution.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Give the output of the following program.
Answer:

Output:
value of x is 7
value of x is 9.132
value of x and y is 85,64

Question 2.
Write the coding for the following output using constructor overloading.
Output:
Constructor without parameters..
Parameterized constructor…
Copy Constructor…
Enter data… 20 30
Object a:
The numbers are..20 30
The sum of the numbers are.. 50
Object b :
The numbers are..10 20
The sum of the numbers are.. 30
Object c..
The numbers are..10 20
The sum of the numbers are.. 30
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
class add
{
int num1, num2, sum;
public:
add()
{
cout << “\n Constructor without parameters…”;
num1 = 0;
num2 = 0;
sum = 0;
}
add (int s1, int s2 )
{
cout << “\n Parameterized constructor…”;
num1= s1;
num2=s2;
sum=0;
}
add (add &a)
{
cout << “\n Copy Constructor…”; ‘
num1 = a.num1;
num2 = a.num2;
sum = 0;
}
void getdata()
{
cout << “\n Enter data …”; cin>>num 1 >> num2;
}
void addition()
{
sum=num 1 + num2;
}
void putdata()
{
cout << “\n The numbers are..”;
cout < cout << “\n The sum of the numbers are..” << sum; }
};
int main()
{
add a, b (10, 20), c(b);
a. getdata();
a. addition();
b. addition();
c. addition();
cout << “\n Object a : “;
a. putdata();
cout << “\n Object b : “;
b. putdata();
cout << “\n Object c..”;
c. putdata();
return 0;
}

Question 3.
Write a program to find the area of a rectangle using constructor overloading in a class.
Answer:
Output:
Enter the value of length and breadth 10 20
Non parameterized constructor
area of Rectangle is 60
Parameterized constructor with one argument
area of Rectangle 8
Parameterized constructor with two argument
area of Rectangle 10
copy constructor
area of Rectangle 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Polymorphism Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 11 Functions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Functions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following header file defines the standard I/O predefined functions?
(a) stdio.h
(b) math.h
(c) string.h
(d) ctype.h
Answer:
(a) stdio.h

Question 2.
Which function is used to check whether a character is alphanumeric or not?
(a) isalpha()
(b) isdigit()
(c) isalnum()
(d) islower()
Answer:
(c) isalnum()

Question 3.
Which function begins the program execution?
(a) isalpha()
(b) isdigit()
(c) main()
(d) islower()
Answer:
(c) main()

Question 4.
Which of the following function is with a return value and without any argument?
(a) x = display(int, int)
(b) x = display()
(c) y = display(float)
(d) display(int)
Answer:
(b) x = display()

Question 5.
Which is return data type of the function prototype of add(int, int);?
(a) int
(b) float
(c) char
(d) double
Answer:
(a) int

Question 6.
Which of the following is the scope operator?
(a) >
(b) &
(c) %
(d) ::
Answer:
(d) ::

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Define Functions.
Answer:
A large program can typically be split into small sub – programs (blocks) called as functions where each sub-program can perform some specific functionality. Functions reduce the size and complexity of a program, makes it easier to understand, test and check for errors.

Question 2.
Write about strlen() function.
Answer:
The strlen() takes a null terminated byte string source as its argument and returns its length. The length does not include the null(\0) character.

Question 3.
What are importance of void data type? void type has two important purposes:
Answer:

To indicate the function does not return a value.
To declare a generic pointer.

Question 4.
What is Parameter and list its types?
Answer:
Arguments or parameters are the means to pass values from the calling function to the called function. The variables used in the function definition as parameters are known as formal parameters. The constants, variables or expressions used in the function call are known as actual parameters.

Types : Default arguments and Constant Arguments.

Question 5.
Write a note on Local Scope.
Answer:

A local variable is defined within a block. A block of code begins and ends with curly braces { }.
The scope of a local variable is the block in which it is defined.
A local variable cannot be accessed from outside the block of its declaration.
A local variable is created upon entry into its block and destroyed upon exit.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
What is Built – in functions?
Answer:
C++ provides a rich collection of functions ready to be used for various tasks. The tasks to be performed by each of these are already written, debugged and compiled, their definitions alone are grouped and stored in files called header files. Such ready – to – use sub programs are called pre – defined functions or built – in functions.

Question 2.
What is the difference between isupper() and toupper() functions?
Answer:
isupper():

This function is used to check the given character is uppercase.
This function will return 1 if true otherwise 0.

toupper():

This function is used to convert the given character into its uppercase.
This function will return the upper case equivalent of the given character. If the given character itself is in upper case, the output will be the same.

Question 3.
Write about strcmp() function.
Answer:
The strcmp() function takes two arguments: string1 and string2. It compares the contents of string1 and string2 lexicographically.
The strcmp() function returns a:

Positive value if the first differing character in string1 is greater than the corresponding character in string2. (ASCII values are compared)
Negative value if the first differing character in string1 is less than the corresponding character in string2.
0 if string1 and string2 are equal.

Question 4.
Write short note on pow() function in C++.
Answer:
The pow() function returns base raised to the power of exponent. If any argument passed to pow() is long double, the return type is promoted to long double. If not, the return type is double. The pow() function takes two arguments:

base – the base value
exponent – exponent of the base

Example:
cout << pow(5, 2);

Output:
25

Question 5.
What are the information the prototype provides to the compiler?
Answer:
The prototype above provides the following information to the compiler:

The return value of the function is of type long.
Fact is the name of the function.
The function is called with two arguments:
- The first argument is of int data type.
- The second argument is of double data type, int display(int, int) // function prototype//.

The above function prototype provides details about the return data type, name of the function and a list of formal parameters or arguments.

Question 6.
What is default arguments? Give example.
Answer:
In C++, one can assign default values to the formal parameters of a function prototype. The Default arguments allows to omit some arguments when calling the function.
1. For any missing arguments, complier uses the values in default arguments for the called function.

2. The default value is given in the form of variable initialization.
Example : void defaultvalue(int n1 = 10, n2 = 100);

3. The default arguments facilitate the function call statement with partial or no arguments.
Example :

defaultvalue (x, y);
defaultvalue (200, 150);
defaultvalue (150);
defaultvalue (x, 150);

4. The default values can be included in the function prototype from right to left, i.e., we cannot have a default value for an argument in between the argument list.
Example:

void defaultvalue (int n1=10, n2);//invalid prototype.
void defaultvalue (int n1, n2 = 10);//valid prototype.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Explain Call by value method with suitable example.
Answer:
This method copies the value of an actual parameter into the formal parameter of the function. In this case, changes made to formal parameter within the function will have no effect on the actual parameter.

Output:
Example : Function call by value
Enter the Value for A : 5
The Value inside display function (a * a) : 25
The Value inside main function 5

Question 2.
What is Recursion? Write a program to find GCD using recursion.
Answer:
A function that calls itself is known as recursive function. And, this technique is known as recursion.

Output:
Enter two numbers: 81 153
gcd : 9

Question 3.
What are the different forms of function return? Explain with example.
Answer:
The return statement:
Returning from the function is done by using the return statement. The return statement stops execution and returns to the calling function. When a return statement is executed, the function is terminated immediately at that point. The return statement is used to return from a function. It is categorized as a jump statement because it terminates the execution of the function and transfer the control to the called statement.
Syntax:
return expression/variable;

Example : retum(a + b); retum(a);
return; // to terminate the function

The Returning values:
The functions that return no value is declared as void. The data type of a function is treated as int, if no data type is explicitly mentioned. For example,
For Example:
int add (int, int);
add (int, int);
In both prototypes, the return value is int, because by default the return value of a function in C++ is of type int.

Returning Non – integer values:
A string can also be returned to a calling statement.

Output:
Example: Function with Non Integer Return Chennai

The Returning by reference:
#include
using namespace std;
int main( )
{

int n 1 = 150;
int &n 1 ref = n1;
cout << “\nThe Value of N1 = “<< n1 << “and n 1 Reference =”<< n 1 ref;
n 1 ref++;
cout << “\n After nl increased the Value of N1 =”<< n1;
cout << “and n 1 Reference = ”<< n 1 ref;
retum(0);

}
Output:
The Value of N1 = 150 and nl Reference =150
After n1 increased the Value of N1 = 151 and n1 Reference =151

Question 4.
Explain scope of variable with example.
Answer:
Scope refers to the accessibility of a variable.
There are four types of scopes in C++

Local Scope
Function Scope
File Scope
Class Scope

1. Local Scope:

A local variable is defined within a block. A block of code begins and ends with curly braces {}.
The scope of a local variable is the block in which it is defined.
A local variable cannot be accessed from outside the block of its declaration.
A local variable is created upon entry into its block and destroyed upon exit;
Example:
int main( )
{
int a,b; //Local variable
}

2. Function Scope:

The scope of variable within a function is extended to the function block and all sub-blocks therein.
The lifetime of a function scope variable is the lifetime of the function block.
Example:
int. sum(intx, int y); //x and y has function scope.

3. File Scope:

A variable declared above all blocks and functions (including main()) has the scope of a file.
The lifetime of a file scope variable is the lifetime of a program.
The file scope variable is also called as global variable.
Example:
#include
using namespace std;
int x,y; //x and y are global variable
void main()
{
……..
}

4. Class Scope:

Data members declared in a class has the class scope.
Data members declared in a class can be accessed by all member functions of the class.
Example:
Class example
{

int x,y; //x and y can be accessed by print() and void():
void print();
Void total();

};

Question 5.
Write a program to accept any integer number and reverse it.
Answer:

Output:
Enter number : 1 2 3
Reverse number: 3 2 1

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Functions Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
………………. is the name of the function.
(a) Pre – defined
(b) Built – in
(c) Library
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
………………. is used to check whether the given character is an alphabet or not.
(a) isalnum()
(b) isalpha()
(c) isalph()
(d) isal()
Answer:
(b) isalpha()

Question 3.
The strcpy() function takes two arguments of ……………….
(a) target and source
(b) upper and lower
(c) base and exponent
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) target and source

Question 4.
………………. takes a null terminated byte string source as its argument and returns its length.
(a) strcpy()
(b) strlen()
(c) strcmp()
(d) strcat()
Answer:
(b) strlen()

Question 5.
The pow() function takes the two arguments of ……………….
(a) target and source
(b) upper and lower
(c) base and exponent
(d) source and exponent
Answer:
(c) base and exponent

Question 6.
………………. is the name of the function.
(a) fact
(b) task
(c) arguments
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The C++ program always have main() function to begin the program execution.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) null
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 8.
Arguments are also called as ……………….
(a) variable
(b) constant
(c) function
(d) parameters
Answer:
(d) parameters

Question 9.
In C++ the arguments can be passed to a function in ………………. ways.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 10.
Inline functions execute faster but requires more ……………….
(a) variables
(b) pointers
(c) memory
(d) functions
Answer:
(c) memory

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about reusability.
Answer:

Few lines of code may be repeatedly used in different contexts. Duplication of the same code can be eliminated by using functions which improves the maintenance and reduce program size.
Some functions can be called multiple times with different inputs.

Question 2.
What is user – defined functions?
Answer:
C++ also provides the facility to create new functions for specific task as per user requirement. The name of the task and data required (arguments) are decided by the user and hence they are known as User-defined functions.

Question 3.
What is constant arguments and write its syntax?
Answer:
The constant variable can be declared using const keyword. The const keyword makes variable , value stable. The constant variable should be initialized while declaring. The const modifier enables to assign an initial value to a variable that cannot be changed later inside the body of the function.
Syntax:
(const )

Question 4.
What are the advantages of inline functions?
Answer:
Advantages of inline functions:

Inline functions execute faster but requires more memory space.
Reduce the complexity of using STACKS.

Question 5.
What is function scope?
Answer:
Function Scope:

The scope of variables declared within a function is extended to the function block, and all sub – blocks therein.
The life time of a function scope variable, is the life time of the function block. The scope of.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is divide and conquer?
Answer:
Divide and Conquer

Complicated programs can be divided into manageable sub programs called functions.
A programmer can focus on developing, debugging and testing individual functions.
Many programmers can work on different functions simultaneously.

Question 2.
Define library functions.
Answer:
C++ provides a rich collection of functions ready to be used for various tasks. The tasks to be performed by each of these are already written, debugged and compiled, their definitions alone are grouped and stored in files called header files. Such ready – to – use sub programs are called pre – defined functions or built – in functions or Library Functions.

Question 3.
What is isdigit()? Give example.
Answer:
This function is used to check whether a given character is a digit or not. This function will return 1 if the given character is a digit, and 0 otherwise.

Example:
using namespace std;
#include
#include int main( )
{

char ch;
cout << “\n Enter a Character:”; cin >> ch;
cout << “\n The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is << isdigit(ch);

}
Output – 1
Enter a Character: 3
The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is : 1

Output – 2
Enter a Character: A
The Return Value of isdigit(ch) is :0

Question 4.
Write a program using pow() and sin() function.
Answer:
The pow() function returns base raised to the power of exponent. The sin() function takes a single argument in radians.
#include
#include using namespace std;
int main ()
{

double base, exponent, result;
base = 5;
exponent = 4;
result = pow(base, exponent);
cout << “pow(“ << base << “A” << exponent <<”) =” << result;
double x = 25;
result = sin(x);
cout << “\nsin(“<< x <<”)=”<<result;
return 0;

}
Output:
pow (5^4) = 625
sin (25) = – 0.132352

Question 5.
What is return statement with example?
Answer:
The return statement stops execution and returns to the calling function. When a return statement is executed, the function is terminated immediately at that point. The return statement is used to return from a function. It is categorized as a jump statement because it terminates the execution of the function and transfer the control to the called statement.

Example:
return(a + b); return(a);
return; // to terminate the function

Question 6.
What is scope resolution operation?
Answer:

The scope operator reveals the hidden scope of a variable. The scope resolution operator (::) is used for the following purposes.
To access a Global variable when there is a Local variable with same name. An example using Scope Resolution Operator.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain about generating random numbers with suitable program.
Answer:
The srand() function in C++ seeds the pseudo random number generator used by the rand() function. The seed for rand() function is 1 by default. It means that if no srand() is called before rand(), the rand() function behaves as if it was seeded with srand( 1). The srand() function takes an unsigned integer as its parameter which is used as seed by the rand() function. It is defined inor header file.
#include
#include using namespace std; int main()
{

int random = rand(); /* No srand() calls before rand(), so seed = 1*/
cout << “\nSeed = 1, Random number =” << random;
srand(10);
/* Seed= 10 */
random = rand();
cout << “\n\n Seed =10, Random number =” << random;
return 0;

}
Output:
Seed = 1, Random number = 41
Seed =10, Random number 71

Question 2.
Explain about Inline functions with a suitable program.
Answer:
An inline function looks like normal function in the source file but inserts the function’s code directly into the calling program. To make a function inline, one has to insert the keyword inline in the function header.

Output:
Enter the Principle Amount Rs. :60000
Enter the Number of Years : 10
Enter the Rate of Interest :5
The Simple Interest = Rs. 30000

Question 3.
Write about function prototype.
Answer:
C++ program can contain any number of functions. But, it must always have only one main() function to begin the program execution. We can write the definitions of functions in any order as we wish. We can define the main() function first and all other functions after that or we can define all the needed functions prior to main(). Like a variable declaration, a function must be declared before it is used in the program. The declaration statement may be given outside the main() function

The prototype above provides the following information to the compiler:

The return value of the function is of type long.
Fact is the name of the function.
The function is called with two arguments:
- The first argument is of int data type.
- The second argument is of double data type, int display(int, int)//function prototype//

The above function prototype provides details about the return data type, name of the function and a list of formal parameters or arguments.

Question 4.
Explain about address method.
Answer:
This method copies the address of the actual argument into the formal parameter. Since the address of the argument is passed, any change made in the formal parameter will be reflected back in the actual parameter.
#include
using namespace std;
void display(int & x) //passing address of a//
{

x = x*x;
cout << “\n\n The Value inside display function (n1 x n1) :”<< x ;

}
int main()
{
intn 1;
cout << “\n Enter the Value for N1 cin >> n1;
cout << “\n The Value of N1 is inside main function Before passing:” << n1;
display(n1);
cout << “\n The Value of N1 is inside main function After passing (n1 x n1):”<< n1; retum(O);
}

Output:
Enter the Value for N1 : 45
The Value of N1 is inside main function Before passing : 45
The Value inside display function (n1 x n1) : 2025
The Value ofNl is inside main function After passing (n1 x n1): 2025

Question 5.
Given data: Principal amount Rs. 50000

Number of years 5
Rate of interest 7

To find the simple interest of the above mentioned given data. Write a C++ program using inline functions.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
inline float simple interest(float p1, float n 1, float r 1)
{

float sil=(pl*nl*rl)/100;
retum(sil);

}
int main ()
{

float si,p,n,r;
cout << “\n Enter the Principle Amount Rs. :”; cin >> p;
cout << “\n Enter the Number of Years :”; cin >> n;
cout << “\n Enter the Rate of Interest :”; cin >> r;
si = simple interest(p, n, r);
cout << “\n The Simple Interest = Rs.” << si;
return 0;

}

Output:
Enter the Principle Amount Rs. : 50000
Enter the Number of Years : 5
Enter the Rate of Interest : 7
The Simple Interest = Rs. 17500

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 11 Functions Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the collection of variables of the same type that an referenced by a common name?
(a) int
(b) float
(c) Array
(d) class
Answer:
(c) Array

Question 2.
Array subscripts always starts with which number?
(a) – 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 3.
int age[ ]={6, 90, 20, 18, 2}; How many elements are there in this array?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 5

Question 4.
cin >> n[3]; To which element does this statement accepts the value?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 5.
By default, a string ends with which character?
(a) \o
(b) \t
(c) \n
(d) \b
Answer:
(a) \o

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is Traversal in an Array?
Answer:
Accessing each element of an array at least once to perform any operation is known as “Traversal”. Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of “traversal”.

Question 2.
What is Strings?
Answer:
A string is defined as a sequence of characters where each character may be a letter, number or a symbol. Each element occupies one byte of memory. Every string is terminated by a null (‘\0’, ASCII code 0) character which must be appended at the end of the string.

Question 3.
What is the syntax to declare two – dimensional array.
Answer:
The declaration of a 2 – D array is
data – type array_name[row – size] [col – size];
In the above declaration, data-type refers to any valid C++ data – type, array _ name refers to the name of the 2 – D array, row – size refers to the number of rows and col-size refers to the number of columns in the 2 – D array.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Define an Array. What are the types?
Answer:
“An array is a collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name”. An array is also a derived datatype in C++.
There are different types of arrays used in C++. They are:

One – dimensional arrays
Two – dimensional arrays
Multi – dimensional arrays

Question 2.
Write a note on Array of strings.
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first Index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2 – D array has the declaration:
char name [7][10];
In the above declaration,
No. of rows = 7;
No. of columns =10;
We can store 7 strings each of maximum length 10 characters.

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to accept and print your name.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{
charname[5];
cout<< “Enter your name:”; cin >>name;
cout<< “My name is”<< name;
}
Output:
Enter your name: PRIYA
My name is PRIYA

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
Write a C++ program to find the difference between two matrix.
Answer:

Output
Enter 3*3 Array 1 Elements :
10 11 12
13 14 15
16 17 18

Enter 3*3 Array 2 Elements :
123
456
789

Subtracting array (array1 – array2)
Result of Array 1 – Array2 is :
9 9 9
9 9 9
9 9 9

Question 2.
How will you pass two dimensional array to a function explain with example.
Answer:
Passing 2”D array to a function

Output:
Displaying Values
3 4
9 5
7 1

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The data elements in the structure are also known as ………………..
(a) objects
(b) members
(c) data
(d) records
Answer:
(a) objects

Question 2.
Structure definition is terminated by
(a) :
(b) }
(c) ;
(d) ::
Answer:
(c) ;

Question 3.
What will happen when the structure is declared?
(a) it will not allocate any memory
(b) it will allocate the memory
(c) it will be declared and initialized
(d) it will be only declared
Answer:
(b) it will allocate the memory

Question 4.
What is the output of this program?
Answer:
#include
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

struct student
{
int n;
char name[10];
};
student s;
s.n = 123;
strcpy(s.name, “Balu”);
cout <<s.n;
cout<< s.name << endl;

return 0; }
(a) 123Balu
(b) BaluBalu
(c) Balul23
(d) 123 Balu
Answer:
(d) 123 Balu

Question 5.
A structure declaration is given below,
struct Time
{
int hours;
int minutes;
int seconds;
} t;
Using above declaration which of the following refers to seconds.
(a) Time.seconds
(b) Time::seconds
(c) seconds
(d) t. seconds
Answer:
(d) t. seconds

Question 6.
What will be the output of this program?
#include
using namespace std;
struct Shoe Type
{
string name;
double price;
};
int main()
{
ShoeType shoel, shoe2;
shoe 1.name = “Adidas”;
shoel.price = 9.99;
cout << shoel.name << “#” << shoel.price<<endl;
shoe2 – shoel;
shoe2.price = shoe2.price / 9;
cout << shoe2.name << “#”<< shoe2.price;
return 0;
(a) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 1.11
(b) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 9.11
(c) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 11.11
(d) Adidas # 9.11; Adidas # 11.11
Answer:
(a) Adidas # 9.99; Adidas # 1.11

Question 7.
Which of the following is a properly defined structure?
(a) struct {int num;}
(b) struct sum {int num;}
(c) struct sum int sum;
(d) struct sum {int num;};
Answer:
(d) struct sum {int num;};

Question 8.
A structure declaration is given below,
struct employee
{
int empno;
char ename[10];
} e[5];
Using above declaration which of the following statement is correct?
(a) cout << e[0].empno << e[0].ename;
(b) cout << e[0].empno << ename;
(c) cout << e[0]->empno << e[0] → ename;
(d) cout << e.empno << e.ename;
Answer:
(a) cout << e[0].empno << e[0].ename;

Question 9.
Which of the following cannot be a structure member?
(a) Another structure
(b) Function
(c) Array
(d) variable of double datatype
Answer:
(b) Function

Question 10.
When accessing a structure member, the identifier to the left of the dot operator is the name of …………………
(a) structure variable
(b) structure tag
(c) structure member
(d) structure function
Answer:
(c) structure member

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Define structure. What is its use?
Answer:
Structure is a user – defined which has the combination of data items with different data types. This allows to group of variables of mixed data types together into a single unit. The structure provides a facility to store different data types as a part of the same logical element in one memory chunk adjacent to each other.

Question 2.
To store 100 integer number which of the following is good to use?
Array or Structure. State the reason.
Answer:
Array is good to use.
Reasons:

All 100 numbers are integer type.
Array index helps to access the numbers quickly.

Question 3.
What is the error in the following structure definition?
struct employee {inteno ;chamame [20] ;char dept;}
Employee e1,e2;
Answer:
Errors:

‘i’ is missing.
Spaces are missing at two places
Structure name given wrongly.

Corrected structure:
struct employee {int eno; char ename [20];

char dept;}
employee e, e2;

Question 4.
Write a structure definition for the structure student containing examno, name and an array for storing five subject marks.
Answer:
struct student
{
long examno;
char name [50];
int marks [5];
};

Question 5.
Why for pacing a structure to a function call by reference is advisable to us?
Answer:
In this method of passing the structures to functions, the address of a structure variable /object is passed to the function using address of(&) operator. So any change made to the contents of structure variable inside the function are reflected back to the calling function.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
How will you pass a structure to a function?
Answer:
A structure variable can be passed to a function in a similar way of passing any argument that is of built – in data type.
If the structure itself is an argument, then it is called “call by value”. If the reference of the structure is passed as an argument then it is called, “call by reference”.

Question 2.
The following code sums up the total of all students name starting with ‘S’ and display it. Fill in the blanks with required statements.
Answer:
struct student {int exam no, lang, eng, phy, che, mat, csc, total; char name[15];};
int main()
{
student s[20];
for(int i = 0;i<20;i++)
{
………………….. //accept student details
}
for(int i=0;i<20;i++)
{
………………….. //check for name starts with letter “S”
………………….. // display the detail of the checked name
}
return 0;
}
Answer:

Question 3.
How to access members of a structure? Give example.
Answer:
Once objects of a structure type are declared, their members can be accessed directly. The syntax for that is using a dot(.) between the object name and the member name.
Example: student.name;
if the members are a pointer type, then is used to access the members.
Let name be a character pointer in student like char*name
It can be accessed student → name,
struct
{

long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
student;

}
The student can be referred as reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like student.roll no, student.age, and student.weight.

Question 4.
Write the syntax and an example for structure.
Answer:
Structure is declared using the keyword ‘struct’. The syntax of creating a structure is given below.
struct structure_name {

type member_name 1;
type member_name2;

} reference_name;
An optional field reference_name can be used to declare objects of the structure type directly.
Example:
struct Student
{

long rollno;
int age;
float weight;

};

Question 5.
What is called anonymous structure? Give an example.
Answer:
A structure without a name/tag is called anonymous structure.
Example:
struct
{
long rollno;
int age;
float weight;
};
The student can be referred as reference name to the above structure and the elements can be accessed like student.rollno, student.age and student.weight.

PART – 4
IV. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Explain array of structures with example.
Answer:
A class may contain many students. So, the definition of structure for one student can also be extended to all the students. If the class has 20 students, then 20 individual structures are required. For this purpose, an array of structures can be used. An array of structures is declared in the same way as declaring an array with built – in data types like int or char.
Program that reads the details of 20 students and prints the same.

Output:
Enter the details of 20 students
Enter the details for student 1

Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
160.5
Enter the weight:
46.5
Enter the details for student2
Enter the age:
18

Question 2.
Explain call by value with respect to structure.
Answer:
When a structure is passed as argument to a function using call by value method, any change made to the contents of the structure variable inside the function to which it is passed do not affect the structure variable used as an argument.
#include
using namespace std;
struct Employee
{
char name[50];
int age;
float salary;
};
void printData(Employee); // Function declaration
int main()
{

Employee p;
cout << “Enter Full name:”; cin >> p.name;
cout << “Enter age:”; cin >> p.age;
cout << “Enter salary:”; cin >> p.salary;
// Function call with structure variable as an argument
printData(p);
return 0;

}
void printData(Employee q)
{

cout << “\nDisplaying Information.” << endl;
cout << “Name:” << q.name << endl;
cout <<”Age:” << q.age << endl;
cout << “Salary:” << q.salary;

}

Output:
Enter Full name: Kumar
Enter age : 55
Enter salary : 34233.4
Displaying Information.
Name : Kumar
Age : 55
Salary : 34233.4
In the above example, a structure named Employee is declared and used. The values that are entered into the structure are name, age and salary of a Employee are displayed using a function named printData(). The argument for the above function is the structure Employee. The input can be received through a function named readData().

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to add two distances using the following structure definition, struct Distance!
int feet;
float inch;
}d1, d2, sum;
Answer:
int main()
{

cout << “Enter 1st distance:” << end1;
cout << “Enter feet:”; cin >> d1.feet;
cout << “Enter inch:”; cin >> d1.inch;
cout << “\n information for 2nd distance:” << end1;
cout << “Enter feet:”; cin >> d2.feet;
cout << “Enter inch:”; cin >> d2.inch;
sum.feet = d1 . feet + d2.feet;
sum.inch = d1.inch + d2.inch;
if (sum.inch > 12)
{
++ sum.feet;
sum.inch = 12;
}
cout << end1; “Sum of distance =” << sum.feet << “feet” << sum.inch << “inches”;
return 0;

}

Output:
Enter 1 st distance
Enter feet: 6
Enter inch: 3.4
Enter 2nd distance
Enter feet: 5
Enter inch: 10.2
Sum of distances = 12 feet 1.6 inches

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to declare and accept an array of professors. Display the details of the department= “COMP.SCI” and the name of the professors start with ‘A’. The structure “college” should contain the following members.
prof id as integer
name and Department as character array
Answer:

Output
Professor 1
Enter id of professor: 100
Enter name of the professor: John
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 2
Enter id of professor: 101
Enter name of the professor: Janardhan
Enter name of the department: ECE

Professor 3
Enter id of professor: 102
Enter name of the professor: Albert
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 4
Enter id of professor: 103
Enter name of the professor: Asha
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 5
Enter id of professor: 104
Enter name of the professor: Han
Enter name of the department: EEE

Name of the professor starting with A
Professor 1
Enter id of professor: 102
Enter name of the professor: Albert
Enter name of the department: CS

Professor 2.
Enter id of professor: 103
Enter name of the professor: Asha
Enter name of the department: CS

Question 5.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:
#include
#include
#include
#include
using namespace std;
struct books {
char name[20], author[20];
}a[50];
int main()

Output:
Details of Book No. 1
Book name : Programming
Book author : Dromy
Details of Book No. 2
Book Name : C++ Programming
Book Author : Bjame Stroustrup
1 Iprogrammingl Dromy
2| C++ Programming | Bjame Stroustmp

Question 6.
Write the output of the following C++ program
Answer:

Output
First student
roll no : 1
name : Brown
Phone no. : 123443
Second Student
roll no : 2
name : Sam
Phone no. : 1234567
Third Student
roll no : 3
name : Addy
Phone no. : 1234597844

Question 7.
Debug the error in the following program
Answer:

Corrected Program:

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The size of the array is referred to as its ………………..
(a) dimension
(b) direction
(c) location
(d) space
Answer:
(a) dimension

Question 2.
The subscript in bracket can be a variable, a constant or an expression to ………………..
(a) character
(b) integer
(c) long double
(d) float
Answer:
(b) integer

Question 3.
Displaying all the elements in an array is an example of ………………..
(a) memory allocation
(b) call by reference
(c) traversal
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) traversal

Question 4.
Syntax of character array declaration is ………………..
(a) int array char name [size];
(b) char array [ ];
(c) char_name[size];
(d) char array – name[size];
Answer:
(d) char array – name[size];

Question 5.
During ……………….. the array of elements cannot be initialized more than its size.
(a) declaration
(b) initialization
(c) assigning
(d) execution
Answer:
(b) initialization

Question 6.
2 – D array memory representation have ……………….. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) only 1
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
Pass an array to a function in C++, the function needs the array name as ………………..
(a) a function
(b) an argument
(c) global object
(d) string
Answer:
(b) an argument

Question 8.
Objects declared along with structure definition are called ………………..
(a) structure
(b) nested structure
(c) global objects
(d) memory
Answer:
(c) global objects

Question 9.
A structure without a name tag is called ………………..
(a) homogenous structure
(b) anonymous structure
(c) array of structure
(d) dynamic memory
Answer:
(b) anonymous structure

Question 10.
Array of structure is declared in the same way as declaring an array with ………………..
(a) built – in data type
(b) data type
(c) undefined
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) built – in data type

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the formula to calculate memory space allocated for an array?
Answer:
Number of bytes allocated for type of array x Number of elements.

Question 2.
Write a C++ program to check palindrome or not using array.
Answer:
Program to check palindrome or not

Output:
Enter a string : madam The String is palindrome

Question 3.
Write about returning structures from functions.
Answer:
A structure can be passed to a function through its object. Therefore, passing a structure to a function or passing a structure object to a function is the same because structure object represents the structure. Like a normal variable, structure variable(structure object) can be passed by value or by references / addresses. Similar to built-in data types, structures also can be returned from a function.

Question 4.
What is the output of the following program?
Answer:

Output:
Enter a string: welcome to C++ programming
You entered char array: welcome to C++ programming

Question 5.
What is global object?
Answer:
Objects declared along with structure definition are called global objects.

Question 6.
What is the condition of structure assignments?
Answer:
Structure assignment is possible only if both structure variables/objects are same type.

Question 7.
Why structures are usually passed by reference method?
Answer:
Structures are usually passed by reference method because it saves the memory space and executes faster.

Question 8.
What is the size of the following highlighted variable in terms of byte if it is compiled in dev C++?
Answer:
struct A{ float f[3]; char ch[5];long double d;};
struct B{Aa; int arr[2][3];}b[3]

Question 9.
Is the following snippet is fully correct. If not identify the error.
Answer:
struct suml{ int n1,n2;}s1;
struct sum2{int n1,n2}s2;
cin >> s1.n1 >> s1.n2; s2=s1;

Question 10.
Differentiate array and structure.
Answer:
Array:

An array is a collection of variables of same data type.
Array data are accessed using index.
Array allocates static memory
Array element access takes lesser time.

Structure:

A structure is a collection of variables of different data type.
Structure elements are accessed using operator.
Structures allocate dynamic memory.
Structure elements takes more time.

Question 11.
What are the different ways to initialize the structure members?
Answer:
Values can be assigned to structure elements similar to assigning values to variables.
Example
balu.rollno= “702016”;
balu.age= 18;
balu.weight= 48.5;
Also, values can be assigned directly as similar to assigning values to Arrays.
balu={702016, 18, 48.5};

Question 12.
What is wrong with the following C++ declarations?
Answer:
A. struct point (double x, y )
B. struct point { double x, double y };
C. struct point { double x; double y }
D. struct point { double x; double y;};
E. struct point { double x; double y;}

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about initialization of 2 – D array.
Answer:
The array can be initialized in more than one way at the time of 2-D array declaration.
For example
int matrix[4][3] = {
{10,20,30},// Initializes row 0
{40,50,60},// Initializes row 1
{70,80,90},// Initializes row 2
{100,110,120}// Initializes row 3
}; .
int matrix[4][3] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, 120};
Array’s row size is optional but column size is compulsory.

Question 2.
What is row major order and column major order?
Answer:
In row – major order, all the elements are stored row by row in continuous memory locations, that is, all the elements in first row, then in the second row and so on. The memory representation of row major order is as shown below;
Row major order:

Column major order:

Question 3.
What is array of strings?
Answer:
An array of strings is a two – dimensional character array. The size of the first index (rows) denotes the number of strings and the size of the second index (columns) denotes the maximum length of each string. Usually, array of strings are declared in such a way to accommodate the null character at the end of each string. For example, the 2 – D array has the declaration: char Name[6][10];
In the above declaration, the 2 – D array has two indices which refer to the row size and column size, that is 6 refers to the number of rows and 10 refers to the number of columns.

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to access array elements using pointer with sample output.
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

int data [5];
cout << “Enter elements:”;
for(int i = 0; i <5; ++i) cin >> data [i];
cout << “You entered:”;
for (int i = 0; i < 5;++i)
cout << endl << *(data +i);

}
return 0;
Output:
Enter elements:
1
2
3
5
4
You entered:
1
2
3
5
3

Question 5.
Write a program to assign data to members of a structure variable and display the contents.
Answer:
C++ Program that assigns data to members of a structure variable and displays the contents

Output:
Enter Full name:
Ezhil Enter age:
27
Enter salary:
40000.00
Displaying Information.
Name: Ezhil
Age: 27
Salary: 40000.00

Question 6.
What is called nested structure? Give example.
Answer:
The structure declared within another structure is called a nested structure. Nested structures act as members of another structure and the members of the child structure can be accessed as parent structure name. Child structure name. Member name, struct dob
{
int date;
char month[3];
int year;
} ;
Values can be assigned to this structure as follows.
dob = {25, “DEC”, 2017}

Question 7.
Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s),if any. Underline each, correction.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is the difference among the following two programs?
Answer:
(a) #include
struct point { double x; double y;};
int main() {
struct point test;
test.x = .25; testy = .75;
cout << test.x << test.y;
return 0;
}

(b) #include
struct { double x; double y;} Point;
int main(void) {
Point test={.25,.75};
return 0;
}

(a) Output

0.250.75
Named structure point is created.

(b)

No output: Error
Anonymous structure point is created.

Question 9.
For the following structure definition write the user defined function to accept data through keyboard.
struct date{ int dd,mm,yy};
struct item {int item id;char name[10];float price;date datemanif;}
Answer:
void accept (item & i)
{

cout << “\n Enter the Item id”; cin >> i.id;
cout << “\n Enter the item name:”; cin >> i.name;
cout << “\n Enter the item price:”; cin >> i.price;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing day:”; cin >> i.date.dd;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing month:”; cin >> i.date.mm;
cout << “\n Enter the item manufacturing year:”; cin >> i.date.yy;

}

Question 10.
Write a user defined function to return the structure after accepting value through keyboard. The structure definition is as follows: struct Item{int item no;float price;};
Answer:
item accept (item i)
{

cout << “\n Enter the Item No:”; cin >> i.no;
cout << “\n Enter the Item Price:”; cin >> i.price;
return i;

}

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write C++ program to find transpose of a matrix.
Answer:
C++ Program to find transpose of a matrix

Output:
Enter rows and columns of matrix:
2 3
Enter elements of matrix
Enter elements of a1 1 = 1
Enter elements of a1 2 = 2
Enter elements of a1 3 = 9
Enter elements of a2 1 = 0
Enter elements of a2 2 = 4
Enter elements of a2 3 = 7
Entered matrix:
1 2 9 0 4 7
Transpose of matrix:
10 2 4 9 7

Question 2.
Write C++ program to sort words in dictionary order.
C++ Program to find transpose of a matrix
Answer:

Output:
Enter 10 words:
Kalai
Artqueen
Visalatchi
Jaya
Dhanush
In lexicographical order:
Artqueen
Dhanush
Jaya
Kalai
Visalatchi

Question 3.
Explain memory representation of 2 – D array.
Answer:
Normally, the two – dimensional array can be viewed as a matrix. The conceptual view of a 2 – D array is shown below:
int A[4][3];

In the above example, the 2 – D array name A has 4 rows and 3 columns.
Like one – dimensional, the 2 – D array elements are stored in continuous memory. There are two types of 2 – D array memory representations. They are:

Row – Major order
Column – Major order

For example
intA[4][3] = {

{8,6,5},
{2,1,9},
{3,6,4},
{4,3,2},

Row major:

Column major order

Question 4.
Let an organisation have three employees. If we want to read and print all their details, write a C++program for the following structure definition
struct Employee
{

char name [50];
int age;
float salary;

};
Answer:

Output:
Enter the details of 3 employees:
Enter the details of Employee 1
Enter name:
Lilly

Enter age:
42

Enter salary:
40000.00

Enter the details of Employee 2
Enter name:
Aster

Enter age:
38

Enter salary:
60000.00

Enter the details of Employee 3
Enter name:
Jasmine

Enter age:
45

Enter salary:
80000.00

Displaying Information:
The details of Employee 1
Name : Lilly
Age : 42
Salary : 40000.00

The details of Employee 2
Name : Aster
Age : 38
Salary : 60000.00

The details of Employee 3
Name : Jasmine
Age : 45
Salary : 80000.00

Question 5.
Explain returning structures from functions with an example.
Answer:
A structure can be passed to a function through its object. Therefore, passing a structure to a function or passing a structure object to a function is the same because structure object represents the structure. Like a normal variable, structure variable (structure object) can be passed by value or by references / addresses. Similar to built – in data types, structures also can be returned from a function.

Output:
Enter Employee Id : 10
Enter Employee Name : Ajay
Enter Employee Age : 25
Enter Employee Salary : 15000
Employee Id : 10
Employee Name : Ajay
Employee Age : 25
Employee Salary : 15000

Question 6.
Write output of the following program.
Answer:
Output:
Enter the age:
18
Enter the height:
160.5
Enter the weight:
46.5
The Date of birth Enter the day:
25
Enter the month:
NOV
Enter the year:
2017
The values entered for Age, height and weight are
18 160.5 46.5
His date of Birth is:
25 – NOV – 2017

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Arrays and Structures Read More »

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 70 Marks

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Part – I

Answer all the questions.
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
Choose the disproportionation reaction among the following redox reactions.

Answer:

Solution:
$P_{4}(s)+3 N a O H+3 H_{2} \rightarrow P H_{3}(g)+3 N a H_{2} P O_{2}(a q)$

Question 2.
Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i) and (ill) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)

Solution:
(ii) l can have the values from O to n-1
n = 2; possible ‘l’ values are 0, 1 hence l = 2 is not possible.
(iv) for l = O; m = – 1 not possible
(v) for n = 3 l = 4 and m = 3 not possible

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius?
$(a) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathrm{Li}^{+}_{(\mathrm{eq})}$
$(b) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{eq})}^{2+}$
$(c) \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Li}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}>\mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}$
$(d) \mathbf{L}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}<\mathbf{N} \mathbf{a}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}<\mathbf{K}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}$
Answer:
$\text { (d) } \mathbf{L} \mathbf{i}_{(\mathbf{z} q)}^{+}<\mathbf{N} \mathbf{a}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}<\mathbf{K}_{(\mathbf{a} \mathbf{q})}^{+}$

Question 4.
Statement – I: The magnetic moment of para-hydrogen is zero.
Statement – II: The spins of two hydrogen atoms in para H₂ molecule neutralise each other.
(a) Statements – I and lIare correct and Statement-Il is the correct explanation of statement – I.
(b) Statements – I and H are correct but Statement-Il is not the correct explanation of statement – I.
(e) Statement – I is correct lut Statement-Il is wrong.
(d) Statement – I is wrong but Statement-Il is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statements – I and lIare correct and Statement-Il is the correct explanation of statement – I.

Question 5.
Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the reaction,
$\mathbf{M}^{+}(\mathrm{g}) \frac{\text { Aqueous }}{\text { Medium }} \rightarrow \mathrm{M}^{+}(\mathrm{aq})$
(a) Na
(b) Li
(c) Rb
(d) K
Answer:
(b) Li

Question 6.
The value of universal gas constant depends upon
(a) Temperature of the gas
(b) Volume of the gas
(c) Number of moles of the gas
(d) units of Pressure and volume
Answer:
(d) units of Pressure and volume

Question 7.
The heat of formation of CO and CO, are —26.4 kcal and —94 kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be …………………… .
(a) +26.4 keal
(b) -67.6 kcal
(c) -120.6 kcal
(d) +52.8 kcal
Answer:
(b) -67.6 kcal

Solution:

Question 8.
In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant for the forward reaction is 2.5 x 10² and the equilibrium constant is 50. The rate constant for the reverse reaction is
(a) 11.5
(b) 5
(c) 2 x 10²
(d) 2 x 10^-3
Answer:
(b) 5

Solution:

Question 9.
The Vant Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is ………………………………. . [NEET]
(a) O
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Solution: Ba(OH)₂ dissociates to form Ba2 and 20H- ion
$\alpha=\frac{(i-1)}{(n-1)}$
i = α (n – 1) + 1
∴ n = i = 3 (for Ba (OH)₂, α = 1)

Question 10.
Match the list I and list II using the correct code given below in the list:

Code: A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Answer:
(a) 4 3 2 1

Question 11.
Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed is due to the formation of
(a) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₂
(b) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃
(c) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₂
(d) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₃
Answer:
(b) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃

Question 12.
What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion?
(a) sp²
(b) spd²
(c) sp²
(d) sp²d
Answer:
(a) sp²

Question 13.
Statement – I: Boiling point of methane is lower than that of butane.
Statement – II: The boiling point of continuous chain alkanes increases with increase in length of carbon chain.
(a) Statement -I and II are correct and statement – II is correct explanation of statement – I.
(b) Statement – I and II are correct but statement – II is not correct explanation of statement – I.
(c) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is wrong.
(d) Statement – II is wrong but statement – 1 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement -I and II are correct and statement – II is correct explanation of statement – I.

Question 14.
In the reaction

Answer:

Question 15.
Which of the following binds with haemoglobin and reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?
(a) CO₂
(b) NO₂
(c) SO₃
(d) CO
Answer:
(d) CO

Part – II
Answer any six questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle.
Answer:
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of values of all four quantum numbers”.
Illustration: H(Z = 1) Is¹.

One electron is present in hydrogen atom, the four quantum numbers are n – 1, / = 0, m = 0 and s = + ½. For helium Z = 2. He: Is². In this one electron has the quantum number same as that of hydrogen. n = l, l = 0m = 0 and s = + ½. For other electron, fourth quantum number is different. i.e. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 and s = – ½.

Question 17.
Give the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
Answer:

The electronic configuration of lanthanides is 4f^1-14 5d^10-1 6s².
The electronic configuration of actinides is 5f^1-14 6d^10-1 7s².

Question 18.
Why alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals?
Answer:

The strength of metallic bond in alkaline earth metals is higher than alkali metals due to the presence of 2 electrons in its outermost shell as compared to alkali metals, which have only 1 electron in valence shell. Therefore, alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals.
The alkaline earth metals have greater nuclear charge and more valence electrons, thus metallic bonding is more effective. Due to this they are harder than alkali metals.

Question 19.
What are the limitations of the thermodynamics?
Answer:

Thermodynamics suggests feasibility of reaction but fails to suggest rate of reaction. It is concerned only with the initial and the final states of the system. It is not concerned with the path by which the change occurs.
It does not reveal the mechanism of a process.

Question 20.
Write the application of equilibrium constant?
Answer:

predict the direction in which the net reaction will take place
predict the extent of the reaction and
calculate the equilibrium concentrations of the reactants and products.

Question 21.
How much volume of 6 M solution of NaOH is required to prepare 500 ml of 0.250 M NaOH solution?
Answer:
6% $\frac{v}{v}$ aqueous solution contains 6g of methanol in 100 ml solution.

∴ To prepare 500 ml of 6% v/v solution of methanol 30g methanol is taken in a 500 ml standard flask and required quantity of water is added to make up the solution to 500 ml.

Question 22.
Define – Inductive effect.
Answer:

It is defined as the change in the polarization of a covalent bond due to the presence of adjacent . bonded atoms or groups in the molecule. It is denoted as I-effect.
Atoms or groups which lose electron towards a carbon atom are said to have a +1 effect.
Example, CH₃ -, (CH₃)₂ CH (CH₃)₂ C- etc.
Atoms or groups which draw electrons away from a carbon atom are said to have a -I effect.
Example, -NO₂ -I, -Br, -OH, C₆H₅ etc.

Question 23.
How will you convert n-hexane into benzene? ,
Answer:
Alkanes with six to ten carbon atoms are converted into homologous of benzene at higher temperature and in the presence of a catalyst. This process is known as aromatisation.

For example, n -Hexane passed over Cr₂O₃ supported on alumina at 873 K gives benzene.

Question 24.
Why haloalkanes have higher boiling point than parent alkanes having the same number of carbons?
Answer:
Haloalkanes have higher boiling point than the parent alkane having the same number of carbon atoms because the intermolecular forces of attraction and dipole-dipole interactions are comparatively stronger in haloalkanes.

Part-III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 25 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Balance the following equations by using oxidation number method.
K₂Cr₂O₇ + KI + H₂SO₄→ K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃+ I₂ + H₂O
Answer:

Question 26.
Explain the periodic trend of ionization potential.
Answer:
(a) The energy required to remove the most loosely held electron from an isolated gaseous atom is called as ionization energy.
(b) Variation in a period.

Ionization energy is a periodic property.
On moving across a period from left to right, the ionization enthalpy value increases. This is due to the following reasons.

Increase of nuclear charge in a period
Decrease of atomic size in a period

Because of these reasons, the valence electrons are held more tightly by the nucleus. Therefore, ionization enthalpy increases.

(c) Variation in a group
As we move from top to bottom along a group, the ionization enthalpy decreases. This is due to the following reasons.

A gradual increase in atomic size
Increase of screening effect on the outermost electrons due to the increase of number of inner electrons.

Hence, ionization enthalpy is a periodic property.

Question 27.
Distinguish between hard water and soft water.
Answer:

Hard water	Soft water
Presence of magnesium and calcium in the form of bicarbonate, chloride and sulphate in water makes hard water.	Presence of soluble salts of calcium and magnesium in water makes it soft water.
Cleaning capacity of soap is reduced when used in hard water.	Cleaning capacity of soap is more when used in soft water.
When hard water is boiled deposits of insoluble carbonates of magnesium and calcium are obtained.	When soft water is boiled, there is no deposition of salts.

Question 28.
Explain how the equilibrium constant K_c predict the extent of a reaction.
Answer:
(i) The value of equilibrium constant K_c tells us the extent of the reaction i.e., it indicates how far the reaction has proceeded towards product formation at a given temperature.
(ii) A large value of K_c indicates that the reaction reaches equilibrium with high product yield on the other hand, lower value of K_c indicates that the reaction reaches equilibrium with low product yield.
(iii) If K_c> 10³, the reaction proceeds nearly to completion.
(iv) If K_c < 10^-3 the reaction rarely proceeds.
(v) It the K_c is in the range 10^-3 to 10³, a significant amount of both reactants and products are present at equilibrium.

Question 29.
How many moles of solute particles are present in one litre of 10^-4 M K₂SO₄?
Answer:
In 10^-4M K₂SC₄), solution, there are 10^-4 moles of potassium sulphate.
K₂SO₄ molecule contains 3 ions (2K⁺ and 1 SO_4^2-)
1 m;ole of I^SO,, contains 3 x 6.023 x 10²³ ions
10″4 mole of K₂SO₄ contains 3 x 6.023 x 10²³ x 10^-4 ions = 18.069 x 10¹⁹

Question 30.
Draw the Lewis structures for the following.
(i) SO_4^2-
(ii) O₃Answer:

Question 31.
Write a short notes on hyperconjugation.
Answer:

The delocalization of electrons of a bond is called as hyperconjugation. It is a special stabilizing effect that results due to the interaction of electrons of a cr bond with the adjacent empty non-bonding P-orbitals resulting in an extended molecular orbital.
Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.
For example, in propene, the a- electrons of C—H bond of methyl group can be delocalised into the n- orbital of doubly bonded carbon as represented below.

Question 32.
How will you prepare propyne using alkyene dihalide?
Answer:

Question 33.
Explain how the oxides of sulphur pollute the atomospheric air? Give its harmful effects.
Answer:

Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning sulphur-containing fossil fuels and by roasting of sulphide ores.
SO₂ is a poisonous gas for both animals and plants. SO₂ causes eye irritation, coughing and respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis.
SO₂ is oxidised to more harmful SO₃ gas in the presence of particulate matter present in the polluted air:
SO₃ combines with atmospheric water vapour to form H₂SO₄ which comes down along with rain in the form of acid rain:
Acid rain causes stone leprosy, affect aquatic ecosystem, corrode water pipes and causes respiratory ailment in humans and animals.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions.

Question 34.
(a) Urea is prepared by the reaction between ammonia and arbondioxide.
2NH_3(g) + CO_2(g) → (NH₂)₂ CO_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
In one process, 637.2 g of NH₃ are allowed to react with 1142 g of CO₂.
(i) Which of the two reactants is the limiting reagent? (2)
(ii) Calculate the mass of (NH₂)₂ CO formed. (2)
(iii) How much Of the excess reagent in grams is left at the end of the reaction? (1)
[OR]
(b) (i) A student reported the ionic radii of isoelectronic species X³⁺, Y²⁺ and Z^– as 136 pm, 64 pm and 49 pm respectively. Is that order correct? Comment. (2)
(ii) Explain any three factors which influence the ionization energy. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) 2NH_3(g) + CO_2(g) → (NH₄)₂ CO_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
2 moles 1 mole 1 mole
No. of moles of ammonia =$\frac{637.2}{17}$ = 37.45 mole
No. of moles of CO₂ = $\frac{1142}{44}$ = 25.95 mole

As per the balanced equation, one mole of C02 requires 2 moles of ammonia.
∴ No. of moles of NH3 required to react with 25.95 moles of CO₂ is
= $\frac{2}{1}$ x 25.95 = 51.90 moles.
∴ 37.45 moles of NH₃ is not enough to completely react with CO₂ (25.95 moles).
Hence, NH₃ must be the limiting reagent, and CO₂ is excess reagent.
(ii) 2 moles of ammonia produce 1 mole of urea.
∴ Limiting reagent 37.45 moles of NH₃ can produce $\frac{1}{2}$ x 37.45 moles of urea.
= 18.725 moles of urea.
∴ The mass of 18.725 moles of urea = No. of moles x Molar mass
= 18.725 x 60
= 1123.5 g of urea.

(iii) 2 moles of ammonia requires 1 mole of CO₂.
∴ Limiting reagent 37.45 moles of NH₃ will require $\frac{1}{2}$ x 37.45 moles of CO₂.
= 18.725 moles of CO₂.
∴ No. of moles of the excess reagent (CO₂) left = 25.95 – 18.725 = 7.225
The mass of the excess reagent (C02) left = 7.225 x 44
= 317.9 g of CO₂.
[OR]

(b) (i) X³⁺, Y²⁺, Z^– are isoelectronic.
∴ Effective nuclear charge is in the order
$\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{Z}<\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{Y^{2+}}<\left(Z_{\text {eff }}\right)_{X^{3+}}$ and hence, ionic radii should be in the order $r_{z}>r_{y^{2}}>r_{x^{3+}}$
∴ The correct values are:

Species	Ionic radii
Z	136
Y²⁺	64
X³⁺	49

(ii) 1. Size of the atom: If the size of an atom is larger, the outermost electron shell from the nucleus is also larger and hence the outermost electrons experience lesser force of attraction. Hence it would be more easy to remove an electron from the outermost shell. Thus, ionization energy decreases with increasing atomic sizes.
$Ionization enthalpy \propto \frac{1}{\text { Atomic size }}$

2. Magnitude of nuclear charge: As the nuclear charge increases, the force of attraction . between the nucleus and valence electrons also increases. So, more energy is required to remove a valence electron. Hence I.E increases with increase in nuclear charge.
Ionization enthalpy α nuclear charge

3. Screening or shielding effect of the inner electrons: The electrons of inner shells form a cloud of negative charge and this shields the outer electron from the nucleus. This screen reduces the coulombic attraction between the positive nucleus and the negative outer electrons. If screening effect increases, ionization energy decreases.
$Ionization enthalpy \propto \frac{1}{\text { Screening effects }}$

4. Penetrating power of subshells s, p, d and f: The s-orbital penetrate more closely to the nucleus as compared to p-orbitals. Thus, electrons in s-orbitals are more tightly held by the nucleus than electrons in p-orbitals. Due to this, more energy is required to remove a electron from an s-orbital as compared to a p-orbital. For the same value of ‘n’, the penetration power decreases in a given shell in the order, s > p > d > f.

5. Electronic configuration: If the atoms of elements have either completely filled or exactly half filled electronic configuration, then the ionization energy increases.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write the important common features of group 2 elements? (3)
(ii) What is meant by retrograde solubility? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Derive a general expression for the equilibrium constant K_p and K_c for the reaction. (3)
(ii) Write the K_p and K_c for NH₃ formation reaction. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i)

Group 2 elements except beryllium are commonly known as alkaline earth metals because their oxides and hydroxides are alkaline in nature and these metal oxides are found in the Earth’s crust.
Many alkaline earth metals are used in creating colours and used in fireworks.
Their general electronic configuration is ns².
Atomic and ionic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than alkali metals, on moving down the group, the radii increases.
These elements exhibit +2 oxidation state in their compounds.
Alkaline earth metals have higher ionizatoin enthalpy values than alkali metals and they are less electropositive than alkali metals.
Hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metals decreases as we go down the group.
Electronegativity values of alkaline earth metals decrease down the group.
Alkaline earth metal salts moistened with concentrated hydrochloric acid gave a characteristic coloured flame, when heated on a platinum wire in a flame.

(ii) Gypsum is a soft mineral and it is less soluble in water as the temperature increases. This is known as retrograde solubility, which is a distinguishing characteristic of gypsum.

[OR]

(b) (i) Consider a general reaction in which all reactants and products are ideal gases.

The equilibrium constant k_c is

The ideal gas equation is PV = nRT or P = $\frac{n}{V}$ RT Since, Active mass = molar concentration = $\frac{n}{V}$
p = Active mass x RT

Based on the above expression, the partial pressure of the reacants and products can be expressed as,

By comparing equation (1) and (4), we get K_p= K_c (RT)^(Δng) ………………………. (5)

where Δn_g is the difference between the sum of number of moles of products and the sum of number of moles of reactants in the gas phase.

Question 36.
(a) (i) 0.24 g of a gas dissolves in 1 L of water at 1.5 atm pressure. Calculate the amount of dissolved gas when the pressure is raised to 6.0 atm at constant temperature. (3) (ii) What is a vapour pressure of liquid? (2)

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the ionic bond formation in MgO and CaF₂. (3)
(ii) What is bond angle?
Answer:
(a) (i) $P_{\text {solute }}=\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{H}} x_{\text {solute in solution }}$
At pressure 1.5 atm, $p_{1}=\mathbf{K}_{\mathrm{H}} x_{1}$ ……………. (1)
At pressure 6.0 atm, $p_{2}=\mathbf{K}_{\mathbf{H}} \boldsymbol{x}_{\mathbf{2}}$ ………………… (2)
Dividing equation (1) by (2)
We get $\frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{x_{1}}{x_{2}} \Rightarrow \frac{1.5}{6.0}=\frac{0.24}{x_{2}}$
Therefore $x_{2}=\frac{0.24 \times 6.0}{1.5}=0.96 \mathrm{g} / \mathrm{L}$

(ii) 1. The pressure of the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid is called vapour pressure of the liquid at the given temperature.
2. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to vapour pressure of pure solvent.
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = $\frac{p_{\text {solvent }}^{\circ}-p_{\text {solution }}}{p_{\text {solvent }}^{\circ}}$

[OR]

(b) (i) Magnesium oxide (MgO) :
Electronic configuration of Mg – ls² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s²
Electronic configuration of O – ls² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁴

Magnesium has two electrons in its valence shell and oxygen has six electrons in its valence shell.
By losing two electrons, Mg acquires the inert gas configuration of Neon and becomes a dipositive cation, Mg²⁺:
$\mathrm{Mg} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Mg}^{2+}+2 e^{-}$
Oxygen accepts the two electrons to become a dinegative oxide anion, O^2- thereby attaining the inert gas configuration of Neon:
$0+2 e^{-} \longrightarrow 0^{2-}$
These two ions, Mg²⁺ and O^2- combine to form an ionic crystal in which they are held together by electrostatic attractive forces.
During the formation of magnesium oxide crystal 601.6 kJ mol^-1 energy is released. This favours the formation of magnesium oxide (MgO) and its stabilisation.

CaF₂, Calcium fluoride:

Calcium, Ca : [Ar] 4s² Fluorine, F : [He] 2s² 2p⁵
Calcium has two electrons in its valence shell and fluorine has seven electrons in its valence shell.
By losing two electrons, calcium attains the inert gas configuration of Argon and becomes a dipositive cation, Ca²⁺.
Two fluorine atoms, each one accepts one electron to become two uninegative fluoride ions (F-) thereby attaining the stable configuration of Neon.
These three ions combine to form an ionic crystal in which they are held together by electrostatic attractive force.
During the formation of calcium fluoride crystal 1225.91 kJ mol^-1 of energy is released. This favours the formation of calcium fluoride, CaF₂ and its stabilisation.

(ii) Covalent bonds are directional in nature and are oriented in specific direction in space. This directional nature creates a fixed angle between two covalent bonds in a molecule and this angle is termed as bond angle.

Question 37.
(a) (i) 0.33 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.397 g of Mg₂P₂O₇ by the analysis. Calculate the percentage of P in the compound. (3)
(ii) Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds. (2)

[OR]

(b) (i) Describe the mechanism of nitration of benzene. (3)
(ii) How will you prepare m-dinitro benzene. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Weight of organic substance (w) = 0.33g
Weight of Mg₂P₂O₇ (x) = 0.397g
Percentage of phosphorous = $\frac{62}{222} \times \frac{x}{w} \times 100=\frac{62}{222} \times \frac{0.397}{0.33} \times 100=33.59 \%$
(ii) (a) 4-chloropent-2-ype .
(b) Acetophenone

(b) (i) Step-1: Generation of NO₂ electrophile.
HNO₃ + H₂SO₄ → NO₂ + HSO₄ + H₂O

Step-2: Attack of the electrophile on benzene ring to form arenium ion.

Question 38.
(a) Complete the following reaction, identify the products.

[OR]
(b) (i) What is green chemistry?
(ii) Differentiate – BOD and COD.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) (i)

Green chemistry is a chemical philosophy encouraging the design of products and processes that reduces or eliminates the use and generation of hazardous substances.
Efforts to control environmental pollution resulted in the development of science for the synthesis of chemicals favourable to the environment.
Green chemistry means the science of environmentally favourable chemical synthesis.

(ii)

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)	Chemical oxygen demand (COD)
The total amount of oxygen (in milligrams) consumed by microorganisms in decomposing the waste in one litre of water at 20°C for a period of 5 days is called biochemical oxygen demand (BOD).	Chemical oxygen demand is defined as the amount of oxygen required by the organic matter in a sample of water for its oxidation by a strong oxidising agent like K₂Cr₂O₇ in acidic medium for a period of 2 hours.
Its value is expressed in ppm.	Its value is expressed in mg/litre.
BOD is used as a measure of degree of water pollution.	COD is a measure of amount of organic compounds in a water sample.
BOD is only a measurement of consumed oxygen by microorganims to decompose the organic matter.	COD refers to the requirement of dissolved oxygen for both the oxidation of organic and inorganic constituents.
Clean water would have BOD value less than 5 ppm.	Clean water would have COD value greater than 250 mg/litre.

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Read More »

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 90 Marks

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Part-I

Answer all the Questions. [15 x 1 = 15]
Choose the most appropriate answers from the given alternatives and write the option code and corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The oxidation number of Carbon in CH₂F₂ is …………………………. .
(a) + 4
(b) – 4
(c) 0
(d) + 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 2.
The energy of an electron in the third orbit of hydrogen atom is – E. The energy of an electron in the first orbit will be.
(a) – 3E
(b) $-\frac{E}{3}$
(c) $-\frac{E}{9}$
(d) – 9E
Answer:
(d) – 9E

Question 3.
The effective nuclear charge experienced by d1 electron in the given electronic configuration, (Is)² (2s, 2p)⁸ (3s, 3p)⁸ (3d)¹ (4s)² is ……………………. .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2.1
(d) 6.9
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 4.
The type of H-bonding present in orthonitro phenol and p-nitro phenol are respectively.
(a) Inter molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding
(b) Intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding
(c) Intra molecular H-bonding and no H-bonding
(d) Intra molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding
Answer:
(b) Intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding

Question 5.
When CaC₂ is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric furnace, the compound formed is
(a) Ca(CN)₂
(b) CaNCN
(c) CaC₂N₂
(d) CaNC₂
Answer:

Question 6.
When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, on cooling occurs because the molecules …………………………. .
(a) are above the inversion temperature
(b) exert on attractive force on each other
(c) do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy
(d) collide with loss of energy
Answer:
(b) exert on attractive force on each other

Question 7.
Among the following statements, which on is/are correct?
(i) During cyclic process the amount of heat absorbed by the surrounding is equal to work done on the surrounding.
(ii) Refractive index is an example for intensive property.
(iii) If the enthalpy change of a process is positive then the process is spontaneous.
(iv) The entropy of an isolated system increases during spontaneous process.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(d) (ii) only

Question 8.
If Kb and Kf for reversible reaction are 0.8 x 10 5 and 1.6 x 10^ respectively, the value of equilibrium constant is.
(a) 20
(b) 0.2 x 10^-1
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.2
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 9.
Assertion: Mixture of carbon tetrachloride and chloroform show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Reason: In the mixture, the inter molecular force of attraction between chloroform and carbon tetrachloride is weaker than those between molecules of carbon tetrachloride and chloroform molecules.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 10.
Shape and hybridisation of IF₅ are
(a) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d²
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d
(c) Square pyramidal, sp³d²
(d) Octahedral, sp³d²
Answer:
(c) Square pyramidal, sp³d²

Question 11.
Which of the following is optically active?
(a) 3-chloro pentane
(b) 2-chloro propane
(c) meso-tartaric acid
(d) glucose
Answer:
(d) glucose

Question 12.
Which of the following species is not electrophile in nature? ‘
(a) Cl⁺
(b) BH₃
(c) H₃O⁺
(d) ⁺NO₂
Answer:
(c) H₃O⁺

Question 13.
group is ortho para directing and deactivating group.
(a) amino
(b) methyl
(c) halogen
(d) aldehyde
Answer:
(c) halogen

Question 14.
The raw material for Rasching process is
(a) chloro benzene
(b) phenol
(c) benzene
(d) anisole
Answer:
(c) benzene

Question 15.
cause kidney damage.
(a) Cadmium, Mercury
(b) Lead, Cadmium
(c) Freon, Fluoride
(d) Copper, Cadmium
Answer:
(a) Cadmium, Mercury

Part-II

Answer any six from the following questions. Question No. 24 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What is syngas? How it is prepared?
Answer:
The mixture of CO and H₂ gases are called syngas.
Preparation: C + H₂O → CO + H₂

Question 17.
Write any two similarities between beryllium and aluminum.
(i) Beryllium and aluminium have same electronegativity values.
(ii) BeCl₂ and A1C1₃ forms dimeric structure. Both are soluble in organic solvents and are strong Lewis acids.

Question 18.
What is inversion temperature?
Answer:
The temperature below which a gas obey Joule-Thomson effect is called inversion temperature
$\text { (T) } . \quad \mathrm{Ti}=\frac{2 \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{Rb}}$

Question 19.
What is the effect of added inert gas on the reaction of equilibrium?
Answer:
When an inert gas (i.e., a gas which does not react with any 6ther species involved in equilibrium) is added to an equilibrium system at constant volume, the total number of moles of gases present in the container increases, that is, the total pressure of gases increases, the partial pressure of the reactants and the products are unchanged. Hence at constant volume, addition of inert gas has no effect on equilibrium.

Question 20.
Linear form of carbon dioxide molecule has two polar bonds. Yet the molecule has zero dipole moment. Why?
Answer:

The linear form of carbon dioxide has zero dipole moment, even though it has two polar bonds.
In C02, there are two polar bonds [C = O], which have dipole moments that are equal in magnitude but have opposite direction.
Hence the net dipole moment of the CO₂ is μ = μ₁ + μ₂ = μ₁ + (- μ₁) = 0
In this case, $\mu=\vec{\mu}_{1}+\vec{\mu}_{2}=\vec{\mu}_{1}+\left(-\vec{\mu}_{1}\right)=0$

Question 21.
How do you detect the presence of nitrogen and sulphur together in an organic compound?
Answer:
If both N and S are present, a blood-red colour is obtained due to the following reactions

Question 22.
What happens when acetylene undergoes ozonolysis?
Answer:
When acetylene undergoes ozonolysis,

Question 23.
What is Green chemistry?
Answer:

Green chemistry is a chemical philosophy encouraging the design of products and processes that reduces or eliminates the use and generation of hazardous substances.
Efforts to control environmental pollution resulted in development of science for the synthesis of chemicals favourable to environment.
Green chemistry means science of environmentally favourable chemical synthesis.

Question 24.
Calculate the orbital angular momentum for d and f orbital.
Answer:
Orbital angular momentum = √1(1 (1+1) h/2π.
For d orbital = √(2 x 3) h/2π = √6 h/2π
For f orbital = √(3(3 + 1)) h/2π = √12 h/2π

Part-III

Answer any six froita the following questions. Q. No. 33 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What do you understand by the term mole?
Answer:
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains 6.023 x 10²³ particles such as atoms, molecules or ions. It is represented by the symbol “n”.

Question 26.
Ionisation potential of nitrogen is greater than that of oxygen. Explain by giving appropriate reason.
Answer:
N (Z = 7) Is² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹. It has exactly half filled electronic configuration and it is more stable. Due to stability, ionization energy of nitrogen is high.

O (Z = 8) Is² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹ It has incomplete electronic configuration and it requires less ionization energy. I.E₁ N > I.E₁ O

Question 27.
Among the alkali metal halides, which is covalent? Explain with reason.
Answer:
All alkali metal halides are ionic crystals. However lithium halides shows covalent character, as it is the smallest cation that exerts high polarising power on the halides.

Question 28.
Derive ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The gaseous state is described completely using the following four variables T, P, V and n. Each gas law relates one variable of a gaseous sample to another while the other two variables are held constant.

Therefore, combining all equations into a single equation will enable to account for the change in any or all of the variables.

Boyle’s law: V α $\frac{1}{P}$
Charles’law: V α T
Avogadro’s law: V α n

We can combine these equations into the following general equation that describes the physical behaviour of all gases.
$\mathrm{V} \propto \frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}$
$\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}$, where R = Proportionately constant.

The above equation can be rearranged to give PV = nRT – Ideal gas equation. Where, R is also known as Universal gas constant.

Question 29.
Define molar heat capacity. Give its unit.
Answer:
Molar heat capacity is defined as “the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance in raising the temperature by 1 Kelvin”. It is denoted as C_m.

Unit of Molar heat capacity: SI unit of C_m is JK^-1mol^-1.

Question 30.
What is vapour pressure of a liquid? What is relative lowering of vapour pressure?

The pressure of the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid is called vapour pressure of the liquid at the given temperature.
The relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to vapour pressure of pure solvent.
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = $\frac{p_{\text {solvent }}-p_{\text {solution }}}{p_{\text {solvent }}}^{\circ}$

Question 31.
Explain a suitable method for purifying and separating liquids present in a mixture having very close boiling point.
Answer:
Fractional distillation: This method is used to purify and separate liquids present in the mixture having their boiling-point close to each other. The process of separation of the components in liquid mixture at their respective boiling points in the form of vapours and the subsequent condensation of those vapours is called fractional distillation. This method is applied in distillation of petroleum, coal tar and crude oil.

Question 32.
What is polymerisation? Explain the two types of polymerisation reaction of acetylene.
ANswer:
A polymer is a large molecule formed by the combination of large number of small molecules (monomers). This process is known as polymerisation.

Acetylene undergoes two types of polymerisation reactions, they are:

Linear polymerisation
Cyclic polymerisation

(i) Linear polymerisation: Acetylene forms linear polymer, when passed into a solution of cuprous chloride and ammonium chloride.

(ii) Cyclic polymerisation: Acetylene undergoes cyclic polymerisation on passing through red hot iron tube. Three molecules of acetylene polymerises to form benzene.

Question 33.
The bond length between all the four carbon atoms is same in 1,3 – butadine. Explain with reason.
Answer:

1,3-butadiene is a conjugated molecule with four overlapping p-orbital on adjacent atoms. And π-electrons are delocalised over four atoms. This shortens the bond length of central C – C bond. Thus, the bond length between all the four C-atoms are same in 1,3-butadiene.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) What are auto redox reactions? Give example.
(ii) Define orbital. What are the n and 1 values of 3p_x and 4d_x²-y² electron?
[OR]
(b) (i) Why hydrogen peroxide is stored in plastic containers, not in glass container?
(ii) Give the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
Answer:
(a) (i) Auto redox reactions: It is a redox reaction in which a substance act as both the oxidizing agent and the reducing agent. (Reaction occur in the same substance)

(ii) 1. Orbital is a three dimensional space which the probability of finding the electron is maximum.
2. For 3p_x electron – n value =3, l value =1
3. For 4d_x²-y² electron n value = 4, l value = 2

[OR]

(b) (i) The aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide is spontaneously disproportionate to give oxygen. The reaction is slow but it is explosive when it is catalyzed by metal or alkali dissolved from glass. For this reason, its solution are stored in plastic bottles.
$\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{i})}+1 / 2 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}$

(ii) 1. The electronic configuration of lanthanides is 4f^1-14 5d^0-1 6s².
2. The electronic configuration of actinides is 5f^1-14 6d^0-1 7s².

Question 35.
(a) (i) Why blue colour appears during the dissolution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia?
(ii) What is Boyle’s temperature? What happens to real gases above and below the Boyle’s temperature?

[OR]

(b) (i) Derive the relation between KP and Kc for general homogeneous gaseous reaction.
(ii) How do you measure heat changes of a constant pressure?
Answer:
(a) (i) M + (x + y)NH₃ → [M(NH₃)_x]⁺ + [e(NH₃)_y]^–
The blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in the visible region of light and thus imparts blue colour to the solution. The solutions are paramagnetic and on standing slowly liberate hydrogen resulting in the formation of amide. In concentrated solution, the blue colour changes to bronze colour and become diamagnetic.

(ii)

Over a range of low pressures, the real gases can behave ideally at a particular temperature called as Boyle temperature or Boyle point.
The Boyle point varies with the nature of the gas.
Above the Boyle point, the compression point Z > 1 for real gases i.e. real gases show positive deviation.
Below the Boyle point, the real gases first show a-decrease for Z, reaches a minimum and then increase with increase in pressure. So, it is clear that at low pressure and at high temperature, the real gases behave as ideal gases.

[OR]

(b) (i) Consider a generaL reaction in which all reactants and products arc ideal gases.

P = Active mass x RT
Based on the above expression, the partial pressure of the reactants and products can be expressed as.
$\begin{array}{ll}
p_{A}^{x}=[\mathrm{A}]^{x} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{x} & p_{\mathrm{B}}^{y}=[\mathrm{B}]^{y} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{y} \\
p_{\mathrm{C}}^{\prime}=[\mathrm{C}]^{\prime} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{\prime} & p_{\mathrm{D}}^{m}=[\mathrm{D}]^{m} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{m}
\end{array}$

On substitution in equation (2),

where Δn_g is the difference between the sum of number of moles of products and the sum of number of moles of reactants in the gas phase.

(ii) 1. Measurement of heat change at constant pressure can be done in a coffee cup calorimeter.
2. We know that ΔH = q_p (at constant P) and therefore, heat absorbed or evolved, q_p at constant pressure is also called the heat of reaction or enthalpy of reaction, ΔH_r.
3. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system loses heat to the surroundings. Therefore, q_p will be negative and Reaction AH. will also be negative. Mixture
4. Similarly in an endothermic reaction, heat is absorbed, q_p is positive and ΔH_r will also be positive.

Question 36.
(a) (i) Draw the M.O. diagram of oxygen molecule. Calculate its bond order and magnetic character.
(ii) Draw and explain the graph obtained by plotting solubility versus temperature for calcium chloride.

[OR]

(b) (i) Write the IUPAC names of the following compunds:

(ii) Calculate the formal charge on carbon and oxygen for the following structure

(a)

1. Electronic configuration of O atom is Is² 2s² 2p⁴
2. Electronic configuration of O₂ molecule is

3. Bond order $\frac{N_{b}-N_{a}}{2}=\frac{10-6}{2}=2$
4. Molecule has two unpaired electrons, hence it is paramagnetic.

(ii) Even though the dissolution Of calcium chloride is exothermic, the solubility increases moderately with increase in temperature. Here, the entropy factor also plays a significant role in deciding the position of the equilibrium.

[OR]

(b) (i) (x) 5-oxohexanoic acid (y) 4-chloropent-2-yne (z) 2-ethoxypropane
(ii)

Question 37.
(a) (i) Explain about the inductive effect.
(ii) What do you mean by confirmation? Explain about staggered conformation in ethane.

[OR]

(b) (i) Among the following compounds, o-dichloro benzene and p-dichloro benzene, which has higher melting point? Explain with reason.
(ii) Write notes on the adverse effect caused by ozone depletion.
Answer:
(a) (i) Inductive effect:
1. It is defined as the change in the polarization of a covalent bond due to the presence of adjacent bonded atoms or groups in the molecule. It is denoted as I-effect.
2. Atoms or groups which lose electron towards a carbon atom are said to have a +1 effect.
Example, CH₃—, (CH₃)₂ CH —, (CH₃)₂ C— etc.
3. Atoms or groups which draw electrons away from a carbon atom are said to have a -I effect.
Example, —NO₂. -I, Br, -OH, C₆H₅ etc.
4. For example, consider ethane and ethyl chloride. The C—C bond in ethane is non¬polar while the C-C bond in ethyl chloride is polar. We know that chlorine is more electronegative than carbon and hence it attracts the shared pair of electrons between C—Cl in ethyl chloride towards itself.

This develops a slight negative charge on chlorine and a slight positive charge on carbon to which chlorine is attached. To compensate it, the C₁ draws the shared pair of electron between itself and C₂. This polarization effect is called inductive effect.

(ii) The rotation about C—C single bond axis yielding several arrangements of a hydrocarbon called conformers.

Staggered conformation: In this conformation, the hydrogens of both the carbon atoms are far apart from each other. The repulsion between the atoms is minimum and it is the most stable conformer.

[OR]

(b) (i) The melting point of p-dichloro benzene is higher than the melting point of the corresponding ortho and meta isomers. The higher melting which leads to more close packing of its moleules in the crystal lattice and consequently strong intermolecular attractive forces which requires more energy for melting.
p-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenZene

(ii) 1. The formation and destruction of ozone is a regular natural process, which never disturbs the equilibrium level of ozone in the stratosphere. Any change in the equilibrium level of ozone in the atmosphere will adversely affect the life in biosphere in the following ways.
2. Depletion of ozone layer will allow more UV rays to reach the earth surface and would cause skin cancer and also decreases the immunity level in human beings.
3. UV radiations affects plant proteins which lead to harmful mutation in plant cells.
4. UV radiations affect the growth of phytoplankton and as a result ocean food chain is disturbed and it even damages the fish productivity.

Question 38.
(a) (i) Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron, if the uncertainty in its velocity is 5.7 x 10⁵ ms^-1.
(ii) What is the mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in it one litre solution which is isotonic with 6 gl^-1 of urea (NH₂CONH₂)?

[OR]

(b) (i) An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O, on heating with conc.H₂SO₄ gives compound (B). (B) on treating with cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄ gives compound (C). Identify (A), (B) and (C) and explain the reactions.
(ii) A simple aromatic hydrocarbon (A) reacts with chlorine to give compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with ammonia to give compound (C) which undergoes carbylamine reaction. Identify (A), (B) and (C) arid explain the reactions.

(a) (i) Uncertainty in velocity = Δv = 5.7 x 10⁵ ms^-1.
Mass of an electron = m = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg.
Uncertainty in position = Δx = ?

(ii) Osmotic pressure of urea solution (π₁) = CRT

(b)

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Read More »

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 90 Marks

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Part- I

Answer all the Questions. [Answers are in Bold] [15 x 1 = 15]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternatives and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Many of the organic compounds are inflammable because of its
(a) Vander Waal’s force
(b) Co-ordinate nature
(c) Covalent nature
(d) Ionic nature
Answer:
(c) Covalent nature

Question 2.
When Ang is negative in chemical equilibrium reaction, then ..
(a) K_p< K_c
(b) K_p = 1 /K_c
(c) K_p = K_c (RT)^-vc
(d) K_p > K_c
Answer:
(c) K_p = K_c (RT)^-vc

Question 3.
Find A in the following equation.
$\mathrm{CaO}+3 \mathrm{C} \stackrel{3273 \mathrm{K}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{A}+\mathrm{CO}$
(a) CaC₂
(b) CO₂
(c) Ca
(d) Ca₂O
Answer:
(d) Ca₂O

Question 4.
Splitting of spectral lines in an electric field is called
(a) Compton effect
(b) Stark effect
(c) Zeeman effect
(d) Shielding effect
Answer:
(a) Compton effect

Question 5.
Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?
(a) C₆H₅NH₂
(b) C₆H₅NH₃
(c) C₆H₅OH
(d) C₆H₅CI
Answer:
(b) C₆H₅NH₃

Question 6.
Match the following:
Compound – Uses
1. Chloro picrin (i) Detection of primary amine
2. Methyl Isocyanide (ii) DDT
3. Chloro benzene (iii) Paint remover
4. Methylene chloride (iv) Soil sterilizer
(a) 1- (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(b) 1- (Hi), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(c) 1- (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1- (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)

Question 7.
Use of hot air balloon in the meteorological observatory is an application of
(a) Kelvin’s Law
(b) Brown’s Law
(c) Boyle’s Law
(d) Newton’s Law
Answer:
(b) Brown’s Law

Question 8.
What is the pH of rain water?
(a) 5.6
(b) 4.6
(c) 6.5
(d) 7.5
Answer:
(a) 5.6

Question 9.
Which compound is named as “Blue John” among the following compounds?
(a) Ca₃(PO₄)₂
(b) CaO
(c) CaH₂
(d) CaF₂
Answer:
(d) CaF₂

Question 10.
The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is ………………………… .
(a) Argon
(b) Fluorine
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Sodium
Answer:
(d) Sodium

Question 11.
Which of the following mMecule does not contain n bond?
(a) CO₂
(b) H₂O
(c) SO₂
(d) NO₂
Answer:
(c) SO₂

Question 12.
Which of the following compound has same percentage of Carbon as that of ethylene (C₂H₄)?
(a) benzene
(b) ethane
(c) propene
(d) ethyne
Answer:
(a) benzene

Question 13.
The SI unit of Molar heat capacity is
(a) JK^-1 mol^-1
(b) kJ mol⁺¹
(c) kJ mol^-1
(d) cm
Answer:
(c) kJ mol^-1

Question 14.
What percentage of solution of H202 is called as “100-Volume” H202?
(a) 15%
(b) 50%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer:
(a) 15%

Question 15.
Osmotic pressure (n) of a solution is given by the relation
(a) πRT = n
(b) V = πnRT
(c) π = nRT
(d) πV = nRT
Answer:
(b) V = πnRT

Part-II

Answer any six of the following questions. Question no. 24 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
State and explain Pauli’s Exclusion Principle.
Answer:
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of values of all four quantum numbers”.
Illustration: H(Z = 1) Is¹.

One electron is present in hydrogen atom, the four quantum numbers are n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 and s = + ½. For helium Z = 2. He: Is². In this one electron has the quantum number same as that of hydrogen, n = 1, l = 0 m = 0 and s = + ½. For other electron, fourth quantum number is different, i.e. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 and s = – ½.

Question 17.
Define – Valency.
Answer:
The valency of an element may be defined as the combining capacities of elements. The electrons present in the outermost shell are called valence electrons and these electrons determine the valency of the atom.

Question 18.
What are ideal gases?
Answer:

A gas that follows Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Avogadro law strictly is called an ideal gas. It is assumed that intermolecular forces are not present between the molecules of an ideal gas.
Ideal gases are the gases that obey gas laws or gas equation PV = nRT.
Real gases do not obey gas equation. PV = nRT.
The deviation of real gases from ideal behaviour is measure in terms of a ratio of PV to PV nRT. This is termed as compression factor (Z). Z = $\frac{P V}{n R T}$

Question 19.
State the third law of Thermodynamics.
Answer:
It states that the entropy of pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is zero, (or)

It can be stated as “it is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero in a finite number of steps”. Mathematically $\lim _{T \rightarrow 0} S=0$

Question 20.
What is called Bond Length? Name the techniques through which the length of a bond can be determined.
Answer:
The distance between thS nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms is called bond length. For e.g„ in a covalent molecule A – B, the bond length is equal to the sum of the radii of bonded atoms, i.e., γ_A + γ_B = bond length.

The length of a bond can be determined by spectroscopic, x-ray diffraction and electron- diffraction techniques.

Question 21.
Describe the reaction involved in the detection of Nitrogen in an organic compound by Lassaigne Method.
Answer:
Detection of Nitrogen: The following reactions are involved in the detection of nitrogen with formation of prussian blue precipitate conforming the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound.

Question 22.
How is Alkane prepared from Grignard reagent?
Answer:
CH₃MgX + HOH → CH₄ + Mg(OH)X.
Water would protonate the grignard reagent and destroy the grignard reagent, because the grignard carbon atom is highly nucleophilic. This would form a hydrocarbon. Therefore to make a grignard solution, only ether is the best solvent and water or alcohol are not used for that purpose.

Question 23.
Define – Acid rain.
Answer:
Rain water has a pH of 5.6 due to the dissolution of CO₂ into it. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere may be absorbed by droplets of water that make up the clouds and get chemically converted into sulphuric acid and nitric acid. Due to this the pH of rain water drops below the level of 5.6. Hence it is called acid rain.

Question 24.
Which is the suitable method for detection of Nitrogen present in food and fertilizers?
Answer:
Kjeldahl’s method is the suitable for detection of nitrogen present in food and fertilizers.

Part-III

Answer any six of the following questions. Question No. 33 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Calculate the equivalent mass of H₂SO₄.
Sulphuric acid = H₂SO₄
Molar mass of Sulphuric acid = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98
Basicity of Sulphuric acid = 2
Equivalent mass of acid =
$=\frac{\text { Molar mass of an acid }}{\text { Basicity }}$
$=\frac{98}{2}=49 \mathrm{geq}^{-1}$

Question 26.
Explain diagonal relationship.
Answer:

On moving diagonally across the periodic table, the second and the third period elements show certain similarities.
Even though the similarity is not same as we see in a group, it is quite pronounced in the following pair of elements.
The similarity in properties existing between the diagonally placed elements is called “diagonal relationship”.

Question 27.
How is Tritium prepared?
Answer:
It occurs naturally as a result of nuclear reactions induced by cosmic rays in the upper atmosphere.

Question 28.
Define – Le-Chatelier principle.
Answer:
It states that “If a system at equilibrium is disturbed, then the system shifts itself in a direction that nullifies the effect of that disturbance.

Question 29.
State the term “Isotonic solution”.
Answer:

Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.
When such solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane, solvent flow between one to the other on either direction is same, i.e., the net solvent flow between two isotonic solutions is zero.

Question 30.
Both C₂H₂and CO₂ have the same structure. Explain why.
Answer:
H – C = C – H and O = C = O
Both has,
Linear- Molecular geometry
Zero – Dipole moment
sp – Hybridization of C in C₂H₂ and CO₂. Hence C₂H₂ and CO₂ have the same structure.

Question 31.
Write note on Williamson’s Synthesis.
Answer:
Williamson’s synthesis: Haloalkanes, when boiled with sodium alkoxide, gives the corresponding ether.

Question 32.
Explain why Ca(OH)2 is used in white washing.
Answer:
(i) Ca(OH)₂ used in white washing, this is due to disinfectant nature.
(if) Calcium hydroxide reacts with CO₂ in air to form thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. It gives a shiny finish to the walls.

Question 33.
Give the structural formula for the following compounds.
(a) m – dinitrobenzene
(b) p – dichlorobenzene
(c) 1,3, 5, Tri-methyl Benzene
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions.

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate oxidation number of oxygen in H₂O₂.
(ii) Write the de-Broglie equation.
[OR]
(b) (i) State and explain Dobereiner’s “Triad”.
(ii) Complete the following equation.
(a)

Therefore oxidation number of ‘O’ in H₂O₂ is -1.

(ii) 1. Louis de Broglie extended the concept of dual nature of light to all forms of matter. To quantify this relation, he derived an equation for the wavelength of a matter wave.
2. He combined the following two equations of energy of which one represents wave character (ho) and the other represents the particle nature (mc²).
Planck’s quantum hypothesis:
E = hv …………………………. (1)
Einsteins mass-energy relationship:
E = mc² ………………………….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
hv = mc²
h/λ = mc²
∴ λ = $\frac{h}{m c}$ ……………………………….. (3)

The equation (3) represents the wavelength of photons whose momentum is given by. me. (Photons have zero rest mass).

3. For a particle of matter with mass m and moving with a velocity v, the equation (3) can be written as λ = $\frac{h}{m c}$ ……………………………….. (3)

[OR]

(b) (i) Johann Dobereiner noted that elements with similar properties occur in groups of three which he called triads. It was seen that invariably, the atomic weight of the middle number of the triad was nearly equal to the arithmetic mean of the weights of the other two numbers of the triad. For e.g.,

Question 35.
(a) (i) Among the alkaline earth metals BeO is insoluble in water but other oxides are soluble. Why?
(ii) State Diffusion Law.
[OR]
(b) (i) Calculate the entropy change during the melting of one mole of ice into water at 0°C. Enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6008 J mol^-1.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for Kc = $\frac{\left[\mathbf{C a O}_{(\mathbf{s})}\right]\left[\mathbf{C O}_{2(\mathbf{g})}\right]}{\left[\mathbf{C a C O}_{3(\mathbf{(})}\right]}$
(a) (i) Lattice energy of BeO is comparatively higher than the hydrogen energy. Therefore it is almost insoluble in water. Whereas other alkaline earth metals oxides have high hydration energy. Hence they are soluble in water.

(ii) Diffusion is the spreading of molecules of a substance throughout a space or a second substance. Diffusion refers to the ability of the gases to mix with each other. E.g., Spreading of something such as brown tea liquid spreading through the water in a tea cup.

[OR]

(b)

Question 36.
(a) (i) NH₃ and HC1 do not obey Henry’s law. Why?
(ii) Write the structure of the following compunds. (A) NH₃ (B) BF₃

[OR]

(b) (i) Identify the cis and trans isomers for the following compounds.

(ii) Explain with example the Positive Mesomeric Effect.
Answer:
(a) (i) Only the less soluble gases obeys Henry’s law. NH₃ and HC1 react with (or soluble) water and hence does not obey Henry’s law.

(b)

(ii)

Positive mesomeric effect occurs, when the electrons move away from substituent attached to the conjugated system.
It occurs, if the electron releasing substituents are attached to the conjugated system.
The attached group has a tendency to release electrons through resonance, these electron releasing groups are usually denoted as +R or +M groups
Examples: —OH, —SH, —OR, —SR, —NH₂ etc.

Question 37.
(a) (i) Write the IUPAC name for the following compound.

(ii) What are Nucleophiles and Electrophiles? Give one example each.

[OR]

(b) (i) How will you get the following products with the given reactants?
(A) Acetylene → Benzene
(B) Phenol → Benzene
(C) Benzene → Toluene
(ii) Write any two different components you get during fractional distillation of Coal Tar at any two different temperatures.
Answer:
(a)

(ii) Electrophiles: Electrophiles are reagents that are attracted towards negative charge or electron rich center. They are either positively charged ions or electron deficient neutral molecules.
Example, CO₂, AlCl₃, BF₃, FeCl₃, N0⁺, NO₂⁺, etc.

Nucleophiles: Nucleophiles are reagents that has high affinity for electropositive centers. They possess an atom has a unshared pair of electrons. They are usually negatively charged ions or electron rich neutral molecules.
Example: NH₃, R-NH₂, R-SH, H₂O, R-OH, CN^–, OH^– etc.

[OR]

(b)

(ii) Coal tar is a viscous liquid obtained by the pyrolysis of coal. During fractional distillation, coal tar is heated and distills away its volatile compounds, namely, benzene, toluene, xylene in the temperature range of 350 K to 443 K. These vapours are. collected at the upper part of the fractionating column.

Name of the fraction	Temperature Range	Name of the component
Crude light oil	350- 443 K	Benzene, Toluene, Xylene
Middle oil	443 – 503 K	Phenol, Naphthalene
Heavy oil	503 – 543 K	Naphthalene, Cresol
Green oil	543 – 633 K	Anthracene
Pitch oil	633 K	Residue

Question 38.
(a) (i) A compound having the empirical formula C₆H₆O has the vapour density 47. Find its Molecular formula.
(ii) The Simple Aromatic Hydrocarbon compound (A) reacts with Bromine to give (B). Compound (A) reacts with Raney Ni and gives (C). Identify (A), (B) and (C).

[OR]

(b) (i) C_(s) + O_2(g)→ CO_2(g)
Calculate the standard entropy change for the above reaction. Given the standard entropies of CO_(s) + C_(s), O_2(g) are 213.6, 5.740 and 205 JK^-1 respectively.
(ii) Identify the compound (A) and (B).

(a) (i) Empirical formula = C₆H₆O
Empirical formula mass
= (6 x 12) + (6 x 1) + (16 x 1)
= 72 + 6+16
= 94
Vapour density =47
Molecular mass = 2 x Vapour density
= 2 x 47
= 94
Molecular formula = n x Empirical formula
$$\mathrm{n}=\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}$$
n = 94/94 ⇒ n = 1
Molecular formula = 1 x C₆H₆O
= c₆H₆O

[OR]

Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to C++

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Bhagya

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 9 Introduction to C++ Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to C++

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to C++ Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Who developed C++?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Bjame Stroustrup
(c) Bill Gates
(d) Sundar Pichi
Answer:
(b) Bjame Stroustrup

Question 2.
What was the original name given to C++?
(a) CPP
(b) Advanced C
(c) C with Classes
(d) Class with C
Answer:
(c) C with Classes

Question 3.
Who coined C++?
(a) Rick Mascitti
(b) Rick Bjame
(c) Bill Gates
(d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer:
(a) Rick Mascitti

Question 4.
The smallest individual unit in a program is:
(a) Program
(b) Algorithm
(c) Flowchart
(d) Tokens
Answer:
(d) Tokens

Question 5.
Which of the following operator is extraction operator of C++?
(a) >>
(b) <<
(c) <>
(d) ^^
Answer:
(a) >>

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Keywords are the reserved words convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler.
(b) Reserved words or keywords can be used as an identifier name.
(c) An integer constant must have at least one digit without a decimal point.
(d) Exponent form of real constants consists of two parts
Answer:
(b) Reserved words or keywords can be used as an identifier name.

Question 7.
Which of the following is a valid string literal?
(a) ‘A’
(b) ‘Welcome’
(c) 1232
(d) “1232”
Answer:
(d) “1232”

Question 8.
A program written in high level language is called as ……………….
(a) Object code
(b) Source code
(c) Executable code
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Source code

Question 9.
Assume a = 5, b = 6; what will be result of a & b?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 10.
Which of the following is called as compile time operators?
(a) sizeof
(b) pointer
(c) virtual
(d) this
Answer:
(a) sizeof

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
What is meant by a token? Name the token available in C++.
Answer:
C++ program statements are constructed by many different small elelments such as commands, variables, constants and many more symbols called as operators and punctuators. Individual elements are collectively called as Lexical units or Lexical elements or Tokens. C++ has the following tokens:

Keywords
Identifiers
Literals
Operators
Punctuators

Question 2.
What are keywords? Can keywords be used as identifiers?
Answer:
Keywords are the reserved words which convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler. They are the essential elements to construct C++ programs. Most of the keywords are common to C, C++ and Java. Keywords are reserved and cannot be used as identifiers.

Question 3.
The following constants are of which type?

39
032
OXCAFE
04.14

Answer:

39 – Decimal
032 – Octal
OXCAFE – Hexadecimal
04.14 – Decimal

Question 4.
Write the following real constants into the exponent form:

23.197 00
7.214
0.00005
0.319

Answer:

23.197 = 0.23197 x 10² = 0.23197E2
00 7.214 = 0.7214 x 10¹ = 0.7214E1
0.00005 = 0.5 x 10^-4 = 0.5E – 4
0.319 = 3.19 x 10^-1 = 3.19E – 1

Question 5.
Assume n = 10; what will be result of n>>2;?
Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Describe the differences between keywords and identifiers?
Answer:
Keywords:

Keywords are the reserved words which convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler.
They are essential elements to construct C++ programs.
Most of the keywords are common to C, C++ and Java.

Identifiers:

Identifiers are the user-defined names given to different parts of the C++ program.
They are the fundamental building blocks of a program.
Every language has specific rules for naming the identifiers.

Question 2.
Is C++ case sensitive? What is meant by the term “case sensitive”?
Answer:
C++ is a case sensitive programming language so, all the keywords must be in lowercase. Case sensitive means that the uppercase and lowercase letters are considered differently.

Question 3.
Differentiate “=” and “==”.
Answer:

=	= =
‘=’ is an assignment operator	‘= =’ is an equal to operator and it is a relational operator.
It is used to assign the value of variable or expression	It is used for comparison of both left and right side operands.

Question 4.
Assume a = 10, b = 15; What will be the value of a^b?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the difference between “Run time error” and “Syntax error”?
Answer:
Run – time Error:

A run time error occurs during the execution of a program. It occurs because of some illegal operation that takes place.
For example, if a program tries to open a file which does not exist, it results in a run – time error.

Syntax Error:

Syntax errors occur when grammatical rules of C++ are violated.
Example: if you type as follows, C++ will throw an error.
cout << “Welcome to Programming in C++”

Question 6.
What are the differences between “Logical error” and “Syntax error”?
Answer:
Logical Error : Logical errors occur when there is an incorrect usage of variable / operator / order of execution etc. It is also called as Semantic Error.

Syntax Error : Syntax errors occur when grammatical rules of C++ are violated.

Question 7.
What is the use of a header file?
Answer:
Header files contain definitions of Functions and Variables, which is imported or used into any C++ program by using the pre – processor #include statement. Header files have an extension “.h” which contains C++ function declaration and macro definition.
Example: #include

Question 8.
Why is main function special?
Answer:
C++ program is a collection of functions. Every C++ program must have a main function. The main() function is the starting point where all C++ programs begin their execution. Therefore, the executable statements should be inside the main() function.

Question 9.
Write two advantages of using include compiler directive.
Answer:

The program is broken down into modules, thus making it more simplified.
More library functions can be used, at the same time size of the program is retained.

Question 10.
Write the following in real constants.

15.223
211.05
0.00025

Answer:

15.223 = 0.15223E2
211.05 = 0.21105E3
0.00025 = 0.25E – 3

PART – 4
IV. Answer all the questions

Question 1.
Write about Binary operators used in C++.
Answer:
Binary Operators require two operands:
Arithmetic operators that perform simple arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, division (+, -, *, %, /) etc. are binary operators which requires minimum of two operands.

Relational operators are used to determine the relationship between its operands. The relational operators (<, >, >=, <=, ==, !=) are applied on two operands, hence they are binary operators. AND, OR (logical operator) both are binary operators. Assignment operator is also a binary operator (+=, – =, *=, /=, %=).

Question 2.
What are the types of Errors?
Answer:

Type of Error	Description
Syntax Error	Syntax errors occur when grammatical rules of C++ are violated.
Semantic Error	Semantic Error occur when there is wrong use of variable / operator / order of execution etc. It is also called as Logical Error.
Run – time error	A run time error occurs during the execution of a program. It is occurs because of some illegal operation that takes place.

Question 3.
Assume a = 15, b = 20; What will be the result of the following operations?
(a) a&b
(b) a|b
(c) a^b
(d) a>>3
(e) (~b)
Answer:

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
How many categories of data types available in C++?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following data types is not a fundamental type?
(a) signed
(b) int
(c) float
(d) char
Answer:
(a) signed

Question 3.
What will be the result of following statement?
char ch= ‘B’;
cout<< (int) ch;
(a) B
(b) b
(c) 65
(d) 66
Answer:
(d) 66

Question 4.
Which of the character is used as suffix to indicate a floating point value?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) L
(d) D
Answer:
(a) F

Question 5.
How many bytes of memory allocates for the following variable declaration if you are using
Dev C++? short int x;
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 6.
What is the output of the following snippet?
charch =‘A’;
ch = ch + 1;
(a) B
(b) A1
(c) F
(d) 1A
Answer:
(a) B

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a data type modifier?
(a) signed
(b) int
(c) long
(d) short
Answer:
(b) int

Question 8.
Which of the following operator returns the size of the data type?
(a) sizeof()
(b) int ()
(c) long ()
(d) double ()
Answer:
(a) sizeof()

Question 9.
Which operator is used to access reference of a variable?
(a) $
(b) #
(c) &
(d) !
Answer:
(c) &

Question 10.
This can be used as alternate to endl command:
(a) \t
(b) \b
(a) \0
(d) \n
Answer:
(d) \n

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Write a short note const keyword with an example.
Answer:
const is the keyword used to declare a constant, const keyword modifies / restricts the accessibility of a variable. So, it is known as Access modifier.

Question 2.
What is the use of setw( ) format manipulator?
Answer:
setw manipulator sets the width of the field assigned for the output. The field width determines the minimum number of characters to be written in output.
Syntax:
setw(number of characters)

Question 3.
Why is char often treated as integer data type?
Answer:
Character data type accepts and returns all valid ASCII characters. Character data type is often said to be an integer type, since all the characters are represented in memory by their associated ASCII Codes. If a variable is declared as char, C++ allows storing either a character or an integer value.

Question 4.
What is a reference variable? What is its use?
Answer:
Reference variable in C++ is alias for existing variable. They store nothing but the address of the variable used at the time of its declaration. It is important to assign the reference variable at the time of declaration, else it will show an error.

Question 5.
Consider the following C++ statement. Are they equivalent?
char ch = 67;
charch = ‘C’;
Answer:
Both the statements are equivalent as they declare ‘ch’ to be char and initialize it with the value of 67. Since this is the ASCII code for ‘C’, the character constant also can be used to initialize ‘ch’ to 67.

Question 6.
What is the difference between 56L and 56?
Answer:
56L – The suffix L forces the constant to be represented as long, which occupies 4 bytes.

56 – This will be represented as int type constant which occupies 2 bytes as per Turbo C++.

Question 7.
Determine which of the following are valid constant? And specify their type.

0 0.5
‘Name’
‘\t’
27,822

Answer:

0.5 – is a valid constant. It is a decimal.
‘Name’ – Invalid constant as single quote is not allowed.
‘\t’ – Escape sequence (or) non – graphical character (horizontal tab).
27,822 – Invalid constant. Comma is not allowed.

Question 8.
Suppose x and y are two double type variable that you want add as integer and assign to an integer variable. Construct a C++ statement for the doing so.
Answer:
double x = 10.5, y = 4.5; int a;
a = int (x) + int (y);

Question 9.
What will be the result of following if num=6 initially.
(a) cout << num;
(b) cout << (num==5);
Answer:
(a) 6 (b) False

Question 10.
Which of the following two statements are valid? Why? Also w rite their result, int a; a = 3,014; a=(3,014);
Answer:
It is invalid as comma is not allowed in an integer constant. It is valid. Comma in bracket is allowed.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
What are arithmetic operators in C++? Differentiate unary and binary arithmetic operators. Give example for each of them.
Answer:
Arithmetic operators : perform simple arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, division etc.
Unary Operators : Require only one operand . Example: +, -, *, /, %, >, <, <=, AND, OR

Binary Operators:

Require two operands
Example: ++ (Plus, Plus) Increment operator, – – (Minus, Minus) Decrement operator, NOT, ~,

Question 2.
Evaluate x + = x + + + x; Let x = 5;
Answer:
x + = x + + + x (x = 5) x + = x + + + 5 (x becomes 6)
x + = 6 + 6
x + = 12
x = 6 + 12
x = 18

Question 3.
How relational operators and logical operators are related to one another?
Answer:
Relational operators are used to determine the relationship between its operands. When the relational operators are applied on two operands, the result will be a boolean value 1 or 0 which represents True or False respectively which represents logical operator.

Question 4.
Evaluate the following C++ expressions where x, y, z are integers and m, n are floating point numbers. The value of x = 5, y = 4 and m = 2.5;
Answer:

n = x + y / x;
z = m * x + y;
z = (x++) * m + x;

Answer:
1. n = x + y / x;
= 5 + 4/5
= 5 + 0 (both x and y are int type. Therefore only integer part of quotient is considered)
=5

2. z = m * x + y;
= 2.5 * 5 + 4 (m is float type, so x value is promoted to float [implicit conversion])
= 12.5 + 4 ‘
= 16 (2 is int type. So ‘.2’, the fractional part is discarded)

3. z = (x++) * m + x;
= 5*2.5 + x
= 12.5 + 5
= 18 (z is int type, therefore the fractional part is removed, x is incremented after the addition)

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to C++ Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The latest standard version published in December 2017 as ISO/IEC …………….. which is informally known as C++ 17.
(a) 14882 : 1998
(b) 14883 : 2017
(c) 14882 : 2017
(d) 14882 : 2000
Answer:
(c) 14882 : 2017

Question 2.
The smallest individual unit in a program is known as ……………..
(a) token
(b) lexical unit
(c) lexical element
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Integer constant is also called as ……………..
(a) fixed point constant
(b) floating point constant
(c) real constants
(d) boolean literals
Answer:
(a) fixed point constant

Question 4.
Exponent form of real constants consists of parts.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 5.
…………….. relational operators are binary operators.
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 6.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (iv) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (i) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iv)
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (iv) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (i)

Question 7
…………….. used to label a statement.
(a) colon
(b) comma
(c) semi – colon
(d) parenthesis
Answer:
(a) colon

Question 8.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii) 2 – (iv) 3 – (i) 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (i) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iv)
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)

Question 9.
IDE stands for ……………..
(a) Integrated Development Environment
(b) International Development Environment
(c) Integrated Digital Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Development Environment

Question 10.
In programming language …………….. are referred as variables and the values are referred to as data.
(a) constant
(b) integer
(c) fields
(d) files
Answer:
(c) fields

Question 11.
…………….. data type signed more precision fractional value.
(a) char
(b) short
(c) long double
(d) signed doubles
Answer:
(c) long double

Question 12.
Syntax for reference is ……………..
(a) =
(b) = <& reference>
(c) <&reference_variable>=
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) <&reference_variable>=

Question 13.
…………….. manipulator is the member of iomanip header file.
(a) setw
(b) setfill
(c) setf
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 14.
…………….. is used to set the number of decimal places to be displayed.
(a) Set precision
(b) Garbage
(c) Constant
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Set precision

Question 15.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)
(b) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv) 2 – (i) 3 – (i) 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (i) 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Mention any two benefits of C++.
Answer:

C++ is a highly portable language and is often the language of choice for multi – device, multi – platform app development.
C++ is an object – oriented programming language and includes classes, inheritance, polymorphism, data abstraction and encapsulation.

Question 2.
What is the use of Boolean literals?
Answer:
Boolean literals are used to represent one of the Boolean values (True or false). Internally true has value 1 and false has value 0.

Question 3.
What are the types of C++ operators based on the number of operands?
Answer:
The types of C++ operators based on the number of operands are:

Unary Operators – Require only one operand
Binary Operators – Require two operands
Ternary Operators – Require three operands

Question 4.
What are the types of bitwise operators?
Answer:
In C++, there are three kinds of bitwise operators, which are:

Logical bitwise operators
Bitwise shift operators
One’s compliment operators

Question 5.
What is stream extraction operator?
Answer:
C++ provides the operator >> to get input. It extracts the value through the keyboard and assigns it to the variable on its right; hence, it is called as “Stream extraction” or “get from” operator.

Question 6.
Expand IDE and GNU.
Answer:
IDE stands for Integrated Development Environment and GNU stands for General Public License.

Question 7.
What are the main types of C++ datatypes?
Answer:
In C++, the data types are classified as three main categories

Fundamental data types
User – defined data types and
Derived data types.

Question 8.
Write C++ program to accept any character and display its next character.
Answer:
C++ Program to accept any character and display its next character

The output produced by the program will be
Enter a character: A
The Next character: B

Question 9.
Write C++ program to find the area of circle.
Answer:
C++Program to find the area of circle

Output:
Enter Radius: 6.5
The Area of the circle is 132.665

Question 10.
What is Junk (or) Garbage values?
Answer:
If you declare a variable without any initial value, the memory space allocated to that variable will be occupied with some unknown value. These unknown values are called as “Junk” or “Garbage” values.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the uses of Set precision?
Answer:
setprecision () prints the values from left to right. For the above code, first, it will take 4 digits and then prints one digit from fractional portion. setprecision can also be used to set the number of decimal places to be displayed. In order to do this task, you will have to set an ios flag within setf() manipulator. This may be used in two forms: fixed and (i) fixed (ii) scientific These two forms are used when the keywords fixed or scientific are appropriately used before the setprecision manipulator.

Question 2.
Define – Expression?
Answer:
An expression is a combination of operators, constants and variables arranged as per the rules of C++. It may also include function calls which return values.

Question 3.
What is Automatic conversion and Type promotion?
Answer:
An Implicit type conversion is a conversion performed by the compiler automatically. So, implicit conversion is also called as “Automatic conversion”. This type of conversion is applied usually whenever different data types are intermixed in an expression. If the type of the operands differ, the compiler converts one of them to match with the other, using the rule that the “smaller” type is converted to the “wider” type, which is called as “Type Promotion”.

Question 4.
What is type casting. Write its syntax?
Answer:
C++ allows explicit conversion of variables or expressions from one data type to another specific data type by the programmer. It is called as “type casting”.
Syntax:
(type – name) expression;
Where type – name is a valid C++ data type to which the conversion is to be performed.

Question 5.
What kind of constants are the following?

0X568
– 27
– 27

Answer:

Hexadecimal
Decimal
Octal

Question 6.
What are the types of C++operators?
Answer:
C++ Operators are classified as:

Arithmetic Operators
Relational Operators
Logical Operators
Bitwise Operators
Assignment Operators
Conditional Operator
Other Operators

Question 7.
Convert the following real constants into exponent form:

12.0005
0.00000009
7.9283

Answer:
0 12.0005 = 0.120005 x 10² = 0.120005E2
0.00000009 = 0.9 x 10^-7 = 0.9E-7
7.9283 = 0.79283 x 10¹ = 0.79283E1

Question 8.
If a = 15; what is the result of a<<3 and a >> 2?
If a = 15; equivalent binary value of a is 00001111
Answer:

Question 9.
If b = 15 what is the result of ~b?
If b = 15; equivalent binary value of b is 00001111
Answer:

Question 10.
If a = 65, b = 15, what is the result of a|b?
Equivalent Binary values of 65 = 01000001; 15 = 00001111
Answer:

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain steps involved in creating and execution of C++ program.
Answer:
For creating and executing a C++ program, one must follow four important steps.
1. Creating Source code : Creating includes typing and editing the valid C++ code as per the rules followed by the C++ Compiler.

2. Saving source code with extension .cpp
After typing, the source code should be saved with the extension .cpp

3. Compilation
This is an important step in constructing a program. In compilation, compiler links the library files with the source code and verifies each and every line of code. If any mistake or error is found, it will inform you to make corrections. If there are no errors, it translates the source code into machine readable object file with an extension .obj

4. Execution
Execution is the final step of construction of a C++ Program. In this stage, the object file becomes an executable file with extension .exe. Once the program becomes an executable file, the program has an independent existence. This means, you can run your application without the help of any compiler or IDE.

Question 2.
Explain working with Dev C++.
Answer:
Dev C++ is an open source, cross platform (alpha version available for Linux), full featured Integrated Development Environment (IDE) distributed with the GNU General Public License for programming in C and C++. It is written in Delphi. It can be downloaded from
http://www.bloodshed.net/dev/devcpp.html

After installation Dev C++ icon is available on the desktop. Double click to open IDE. Dev C++ IDE appears.
To create a source file, Select File → New → Source file or Press Ctrl + N.
On the screen that appears, type your C++ program, and save the file by clicking File → Save or Pressing Ctrl + S. It will add .cpp by default at the end of your source code file. No need to type .cpp along with your file name.

After save, Click Execute → Compile and Run or press F11 key.
After successful compilation, output will appear in output console, as follows

Question 3.
Draw memory allocation of a variable and int type variable.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the C++ program to find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
C++ Program to find the Curved Surface Area of a cylinder (CSA) (CSA = 2 nr * h)
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

float pi = 3.14, radius, height, CSA;
cout << “\n Curved Surface Area of a cylinder”;
cout << “\n Enter Radius (in cm):”; cin >> radius;
cout << “\n Enter Height (in cm):”; cin >> height;
CSA = (2*pi*radius)*height; system (“els”);
cout << “\n Radius:” << radius « “cm”;
cout << “\n Height:” << height« “cm”;
cout << “\n Curved Surface Area of a Cylinder is” << CSA «“sq. cm.”;

}

Output:
Curved Surface Area of a cylinder
Enter Radius (in cm) : 7
Enter Height (in cm) : 20
Radius : 7cm
Height : 20cm
Curved Surface Area of a Cylinder is 879.2 sq. cm.

Question 5.
Write the C++ program to calculate Net salary.
Program to Calculate Net Salary
Answer:
#include
#include using namespace std;
int main()
{

float basic, da, hra, gpf, tax, gross, np; char name[30];
cout << “\n Enter Basic Pay:”; cin >> basic;
cout<< “\n Enter D.A cin >> da;
cout << “\n Enter H.R.A:”; cin >> hra;
gross = basic+da+hra; // sum of basic, da nad hra
gpf = (basic+da) * 0.10; //10% of basic and da
tax = gross * 0.10; //10% of gross pay
np = gross – (gpf+tax); //netpay = earnings – deductions
cout << setw(25) << “Basic Pay:” << setw(10) << basic << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Dearness Allowance:”<< setw(10) << da << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “House Rent Allowance:” << setw(10) << hra << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Gross Pay:” << setw(10) << gross << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “G.P.F:” << setw(10) << gpf << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Income Tax:” << setw(10) << tax << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Net Pay:” << setw(10) << np << endl;

}
The output will be,
Enter Basic Pay : 12000
Enter D.A : 1250
Enter H.R.A : 1450
Basic Pay : 12000
Dearness Allowance : 1250
House Rent Allowance : 1450
Gross Pay : 14700
G.P.F : 1325
Income Tax : 1470
Net Pay : 11905

Question 6.
If a = 17, b = 24, what is the result of the following?

a & b
a|b
a^b
a>>3
~ b

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to C++ Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Text Book Evaluation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn / HCl
(b) ZnHg / NaOH
(c) LiAIH₄
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Sn / HCl

Question 2.
The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is ……………
(a) degradation of benzamide with Br₂ / NaOH
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
(c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution
(d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCI
Answer:
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.

Question 3.
Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH₃CONHCH₃
(b) CH₃CH₂CONH₂
(c) CH₃CONH₂
(d) C₆H₅CONH₂
Answer:
(a) CH₃CONHCH₃
Only primary amides undergo hoffmann bromamide reaction

Question 4.
Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid
Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion,
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) both assertion and reason are false

Question 5.

(a) bromomethane
(b) a – bromo sodium acetate
(c) methanamine
(d) acetamide
Answer:
(c) methanamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

Answer:
(c) (CH₃)₃CNO₂ – 3⁰ nitroalkane

Question 7.
this reaction is known as ………………
(a) Friedel – crafts reaction
(b) HVZ reaction
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 8.
The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a primary amine
(a) carboxylic acid
(b) aromatic acid
(c) schiff ‘s base
(d) ketone
Answer:
(c) schiff ‘s base

Question 9.
Which of the following reaction is not correct.

Answer:

P – nitrosation takes places, the product is

Question 10.
When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is …………….
(a) o – aminoacetophenone
(b) m – aminoacetophcnone
(c) p – aminoacetophenone
(d) acetanilide
Answer:
(d) acetanilide

Question 11.
The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amine solution is ………….
(a) N(CH₃)₃ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > NH₃
(b) N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃
(c) NH₃ > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)₃
(d) N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃
Answer:
(d) N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃

Question 12.

(a) H₃PO₂ and H₂O
(b) H⁺ / H₂O
(c) HgSO₄ / H₂SO₄
(d) Cu₂Cl₂
Answer:
(a) H₃PO₂ and H₂O

Question 13.

(a) C₆H₅ – OH
(b) C₆H₅ – CH₂OH
(c) C₆ H₅ – CHO
(d) C₆H₅NH₂
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – OH

Question 14.
Nitrobenzene on reaction with at 80 – 100°C forms which one of the following products?
(a) 1, 4 – dinitrobenzene
(b) 2, 4, 6 – tirnitrobenzene
(c) 1, 2 – dinitrobenzene
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene
Answer:
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene

Question 15.
C₅H₁₃N reacts with HNO₂ to give an optically active compound – The compound is …………..
(a) pentan – 1 – amine
(b) pentan – 2 – amine
(c) N,N – dimethylpropan – 2 – amine
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine
Answer:
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine

Question 16.
Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form …………..
(a) red solution
(b) blue solution
(c) green solution
(d) yellow solution
Answer:
(b) blue solution

Question 17.
Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
(a) t – butylamine
(b) ethylamine
(c) diethylamine
(d) triethylamine
Answer:
(d) triethyl amine (3°amine)

Question 18.
Which one of the following is most basic?
(a) 2, 4 – dichloroaniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) 2, 4 – dinitroaniline
(d) 2, 4 – dibromoaniline
Answer:
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
CH₃ is a +1 group, all other – I group. +1 group increase the electron density on NH₂ and hence increases the basic nature.

Question 19.
When

is reduced with Sn / HCI the pair of compounds formed are ………..
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamme hydrochloride
(b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide
(c) Ethanol, NH₂OH
(d) C₃H₅NH₂, H₂O
Answer:
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride

Question 20.
TUPAC name for the amine
is ………………
(a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
(b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3 – amino pentane
(c) 3 – N, N – trimethyl pentanamine
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane
Answer:
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane

Question 21.

Product ‘P’ in the above reaction is ………………

Answer:

Question 22.
Ammonium salt of bcnzoic acid is heated strongly and the product so formed is reduced and then treated with NaNO₂ / HCl at low temperature. The final compound formed is ……………
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Nitrosobenzene
Answer:
(b) Benzyl alcohol

Question 23.
Identify X in the sequence give below.
+ Methanoic acid

Answer:

Question 24.
Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is ……………..

Answer:

Question 25.
The major product of the following reaction

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write down the possible isomers of lthe C₄H₉NO₂ give their IUPA names.
Answer:

Question 2.
There are two isomers with the formula CH₃NO₂. How will you distinguish between them?
Answer:
CH₃NO₂ has two isomers. They are
1. CH₃ – NO₂ (Nitromethane)
2.

Question 3.
What happens when

2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI
Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium.
Oxidation of tert – butylamine with KMnO₄
Oxidation of acetoneoxime with triuluoroperoxy acetic acid.

Answer:
1. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI:
2 – nitropropane upon hydrolysis with boiling HCl give a ketone (2 – propanone) and nitrous oxide.

2. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium:
Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives aniline but in strongly acidic medium, it gives p – aminophenol obviously through the acid – cataLysed rearrangement of the initially formed phenyihydroxylamine.

3. Oxidation of tert – butylamine with XMnO₄:
In general, primary amines, in which the – NH₂ group is attached to a tertiary carbon can be oxidised with KMnO₄ to the corresponding nitro compound in excellent yield. Therefore 3° – butylamine oxidised to give 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane.

4. Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid:
Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid gives 2 – nitropropane.

Question 4.
How will you convert nitrobenzene into

1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
o and p – nitrophenol
m – nitro aniline
azoxybenzene
hydrozabenzene
N – phenylhydroxylamine
aniline

Answer:
1. Conversion of nitrobenzene into 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene:

2. Conversion of nitrobenzene into o and p – nitrophenol:
(a) Method I:
Nitrobenzene heated with solid KOH at 340 K gives a low yield of a mixture of 0 – and P – nitrophenols.

(b) Method II:

3. Conversion of nitrobenzene into m – nitro aniline:

4. Conversion of nitrobenzene into azoxybenzene:

5. Conversion of nitrobenzene into hydrazobenzene:

6. Conversion of nitrobenzene into N – phenylhydrozylamine:

7. Conversin of nitrobenzene into aniline:

Question 5.
Identify compounds A,B and C in the following sequence of reactions.

Answer:

Question 6.
Write short flotes on the following

Hoffmann’s bromide reaction
Ammonolysis
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Schotten – Baumann reaction
Carbylamine reaction
Mustard oil reaction
Coupling reaction
Diazotisation
Gomberg reaction

Answer:
1. Hoffmann’s bromide reaction:
When Amides are treated with bromine in the presence of aqueous or ethanolic solution of KOH, primary amines with one carbon atom less than the parent amides are obtained.

2. Ammonolysis:
When Alkyl halides (or) benzylhalides are heated with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, mixtures of 1°, 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts are obtained.

3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis:
Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of Aliphatic primary amines. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic KOH forms potassium salt of phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed by alkaline hydrolysis gives primary amine.

4. Schotten – Baumann reaction:
Aniline reacts with benzoylchloride (C₆H₅COCl) in the presence of NaOH to give N – phenyl benzamide. This reaction is known as Schotten Baumann reaction. The acylation and benzoylation are nucleophilic substitutions.

5. Carbylamine reaction:
Aliphatic (or) aromatic primary amines react with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to give isocyanides (carbylamines), which has an unpleasant smell. This reaction is known as carbylamines test. This test used to identify the primary amines.

5. Mustard oil reaction:
When primary amines are treated with carbon disuiphide (CS₂), N – alkyldithio carbonic acid is formed which on subsequent treatment with HgCI₂, give an alkyl isothiocyanate.

6. Coupling reaction:
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with electron-rich aromatic compounds like phenol, aniline to form brightly coloured azo compounds. Coupling generally occurs at the para position. If para position is occupied then coupling occurs at the ortho position. Coupling tendency is enhanced if an electron-donating group is present at the para – position to group. This is an electrophilic substitution.

7. Diazotisation:
Aniline reacts with nitrous acid at low temperature (273 – 278 K) to give benzene diazonium chloride which is stable for a short time and slowly decompose seven at low temperatures. This reaction is known as diazotization.

8. Gomberg reaction
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of sodium hydroxide to give biphenyl. This reaction in known as the Gomberg reaction.

Question 7.
How will you distinguish between primary secondary and tertiary alphatic amines.
Answer:

Question 8.
Account for the following

Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction
Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines
pk_b of aniline is more than that of methy lamine
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.
Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not
Amines are more basic than amides
Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline.

Answer:
1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction:
Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AiCl₃ to form a salt.

Due to the presence of a positive charge on N – atom in the salt the group acts as a strongly deactivating group. As a result, it reduces the electron density in the benzene ring and which inhibits the electrophilic substitution reaction. Therefore aniline does not under go Friedel – Crafts reaction.

2. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines:
The diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines due to dispersal of the positive charge on the benzene ring as shown below.

3. pK_b of aniline is more than that of methylamine:
In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over the benzene ring. As a result electron density on the nitrogen decreases. In contrast in CH₃NH₂, +I effect of CH₃ increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pK value is more than that of methyl amine.

4. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines:
Gabriel phthalimide reaction gives pure 10 amine without any contamination of 2° and 3°-amines. Therefore it is preferred for synthesising primary amines.

5. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not:
Ethylamine when added to water forms intermolecular H – bonds with water. And therefore it is soluble in water. But aniline does not form H – bond with water to a very large extent due to the presence of a large hydrophobic – C₆H₅ group. Hence, aniline is insoluble in water.

6. Amines are more basic than amides:
In simple amines, the lone pair of electrons is on nitrogen and hence available for protonation. In amides on the other hand, the electron pair on nitrogen is delocalised to the carboxyl oxygen through resonance and thus it is not available for protonation. So amines are more basic than amides.

7. Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline:
Nitration is usually carried out with a mixture of conc HNO₃ and conc H₂SO₄. In the presence of these acids, most of aniline gets protonated to form anilinium ion. Therefore, in the presence of acids, the reaction mixture consists of aniline and anilinium ion.

Now – NH₂, group in aniline is O, P – directing and activating while the – NH₃ group is anilinium ion is meta – directing and deactivating. Whereas nitration of aniline (due to steric hindrance at o – position) mainly gives p-nitroaniline, the nitration of anilinium ion gives m – nitro aniline. In actual practice, approximately a 1 : 1 mixture of P and m – nitroaniline is formed.

Question 9.
Arrange the following

In increasing order of solubility in water, C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH , C₂H₅NH₂
In increasing order of basic strength
- aniline, p – toludine and p – nitroaniline
- C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅NH₂, p – Cl – C₆H₄ – NH₂
In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase.
C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₃NH , (C₂H₅)₃N and NH₃
In Increasing order of boiling point
C₂H₅OH , (CH₃)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂
In decreasing order of the pK_b values
C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₂H)₂NH₄ and CH₃NH₂
Increasing order of basic strength C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₆H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂
In decreasing order of basic strength

Answer:
1. Solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of a hydrophobic hydrocarbon part and with decrease in the number of H – atoms on the N – atom which undergo H – bonding.

Now among the given compounds C₆H₅NH₂ has the highest molecular mass of 93 followed by (C₂H₅)₂NH with molecular mass of 73 with C₂H₅NH₂ has the lowest molecular mass of 45. Thus the solubility increases in the order in which molecular mass decreases.

2. (a) The electron – donating groups increases the basic strength of amines while the electron – withdrawing groups decrease the basic strength of amines. Therefore p – nitroaniline is the weakest base followed by aniline while p – toluidine, which has methyl group and therefore it is the strongest base. Basic strength increases in the order. P – nitro aniline < aniline < p – toluidine

(b) Chlorine atom has both – I effect and + R effect since – I effect out weights the + R effect, therefore p – chloro aniline is weak base than aniline. Aikyl groups are electron – donating groups. ”

As a result the electron density on the nitrogen atom increases in the ethylamine and thus they can donate lone pair of electrons niore easily. Therefore Ethylamine is more base than aromatic amines.

Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C₆H₅NH, and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are far less basic than C₂H₅NH₂. Further due to +1 effect of the CH₃ group, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is little more basic than C₆H₅NH₂. Therefore increasing order basic strength is

3. In the gas phase, solvent effects i.e., stabilization of the conjugate acids due to H – bonding, are absent. Therefore, in the gas phase, basic strength mainly depends upon the +1 effect of the alkyl groups. Since the +1 effect increases with the number of ailcyl groups,

therefore the basic strength of the amines decreases as the number of ethyl groups decreases from three in (C₂H₅)₃N to two in (C₂H₅)₂NH to one in C₂H₅NH₂ and zero in NH₃. Basic strength in the gas phase decreases in the order is,
(C₂H₅)₃N > (C₂H₅)₂N > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃

4. Since the electro negativity of O is higher than that of N, therefore, alcohols form stronger H – 0bonds than amines. In other words, the boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of amines of comparable molecular masses. Therefore the boiling point of C₂H₅OH (46) is higher than those of (CH₃)₂NH (45) and C₂H₅NH₂ (45).

Further since the extent of H – bonding depends upon the number of H-atoms on the N-atom. Therefore 1° – amines with two H – atoms on the N – atom have higher boiling points than 2° – amines having only one H – atom. Therefore the boiling point of C₂H₅NH₂ is higher than that of(CH₃)₂NH. Increasing order of boiling point is,
(CH₃)₂NH < C₂H₅NH < CH₅OH

5. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is far less basic than C₂H₅NH₂, (C₆H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂. Among C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H₅), NH, (C₂H₅)₂NH is more basic than C₂H₅NH₂ due to greater +1 effect of the two C₂H5 groups and stabilization of its conjugate acid by H – bonding.

Compare to Ethyl and methyl group, C₂H₅ – group has more +1 effect than CH₃ – group. Therefore methylamine is weak base than ethylamine. Combining all these facts the relative basic strength of these four amines decreases in the order.

(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > CH₃NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃. Since a stronger base has a lower pK_b value therefore, pK_b values decrease in the reverse order. C₆H₅NHCH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH

6. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring, all aromatic amines are less basic than alkylamines i.e., CH₃NH₂. Presence of electron – donating groups ( – CH₃) on the N – atom increases the basicity of substituted aniline with respect to C₆H₅NH₂.

In (C₆H₅)₂NH, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over two benzene rings instead of one in C₆H₅NH₂, therefore (C₆H₅)₂NH is much less basic than C₆H₅NH₂. Combining all the three trends together, the basic strength of the four amines increasing in the order.
(C₆H₅)₂NH < C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅N (CH₃)₂ < CH₃NH,

7. Aliphatic amines are more basic than aromatic amines. Therefore CH₃CH₂NH₂ and CH₃NH₂ are more basic. Among the ethylamine and methylamine. ethylamine was experienced more +1 effect than methylamine and hence ethylamine is more basic than methylamine.

Nitrogroup has a powerful electron withdrawing group and they have both – R effect as well as – I effect. As a result, all the nitro anilines are weaker bases than aniline. In P – nitroaniline

both – R effect and – I effect of the NO₂ group decrease the basicity. Therefore decreasing order of basic strength is,

Ethylamine > Methylamine > Aniline > p – nitro aniline

Question 10.
How will you prepare propan – 1 – amine from

butane nitrile
propanamide
1 – nitropropane

Answer:
1. Preparation of propan -1- amine from butane nitrile.
Butane nitrile treated with acid hydrolysis followed by Hoffmann’s bromamide degradation. gives propan – 1 – amine.

2. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from propanamide.
When propanamide is treated with LiAIH₄ in the presence of water gives propan – 1 – amine.

3. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from 1 – nitropropane.

Reduction of 1 – Nitropropane using H₂ / Ni or Fe / HCl gives propan – 1 – amine.

Question 11.
Identify A,B,C and D

Answer:

Question 12.
How will you convert dlethylamine into

N, N – dlethylacetamide
N – nitrosodiethylamine

Answer:
1. Conversion of diethylamine into N, N – diethylacetamide.

Diethylamine react with acetyichioride in the presence of pyridine to form N, N – diethyl acetamide.

2. Conversion of diethylamine into N – nitrosodiethylamine.

Question 13.
Identify A,B and C

Answer:

Question 14.
Identify A, B, C and D

Answer:

Question 15.
Complete the following reaction

Answer:

Question 16.
Predict A, B, C and D for the follwing reaction.

Answer:

Question 17.
A dibromo derivative (A) on treatment with KCN followed by acid hydrolysis and heating gives a monobasic acid (B) along with liberation of CO₂. (B) on heating with liquid ammonia followed by treating with Br₂ / KOH gives (C) which on treating with NaNO₂ and HCI at low temperature followed by oxidation gives a monobasic acid (D) having molecular mass 74. Identify A to D.
Answer:

Question 18.
Identify A to E in the following frequncy of reactions.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Write all possible isomers for the following compounds.

C₂H₅ – NO₂
C₃H₇ – NO₂

Answer:
1. Possible isomers for C₂H₅NO₂ as following

(a) CH₃ – CH₂ – NO₂ – Nitroethane

(b) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – N = O – Ethyl nitrite

(c)

(d) H₂N – CH₂ – COOH – Glycine (amino acid)

(e)

(f)

(g)

2. Possible isomers for C₃H₇NO₂ as follows.

(a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – NO₂ – 1 – Nitropropane

(b) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – O – N = O – propane – 1 – nitrite

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f) H₂N – CH₂ – CH₂ – COOH – Alanine

Question 2.
Find out the product of the following reactions

Answer:

Question 3.
Predict the major product that would be obtained on nitration of the following compounds.

Answer:

Question 4.
Draw the structure of the following compounds

Neopentylamine
Tert – butylamine
α – amino propionaldehyde
tribenzylamine
N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

Answer:
1. Neopentylamine:

2. Tert – butylamine

3. α – amino propionaldehyde

4. tribenzylamine

5. N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

Question 5.
Give the correct IUPAC names for the following amines.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Additional Question

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Quesiton 1.
Which one of the following play an important role in bioregulation and neurotransmission?
(a) Acid derivatives
(b) Carbonyl compounds
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia
(d) Aromatic hydro carbons
Answer:
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia

Question 2.
Which of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells?
(a) Vitamin B₁₂
(b) Vitamin B₆
(c) Vitamin B₁
(d) Vitamin C
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B₆

Question 3.
Which one of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves and skin?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Cobalamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Histamine
Answer:
(a) Pyridoxine

Question 4.
Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Histamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Cyano cobalamine
Answer:
(c) Dopamine

Question 5.
Which one of the following dilates blood vessels?
(a) Histamine
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Dopamine
Answer:
(a) Histamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?
(a) 2 – nitropropane
(b) Ethyl nitrite
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
Answer:
(c) Nitro ethane

Question 7.
2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane belongs to
(a) 1° nitro alkane
(b) 3° nitro alkane
(c) 2° nitro alkane
(d) nitro arenes
Answer:
(b) 3° nitro alkane

Question 8.
Which of the following is an example for 2° nitro alkane?

Answer:

Question 9.
Which one of the following is an example for nitro arenes?
(a) C₆H₅ – CH₂ NO₆
(b) C₆H₅NH₂
(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – NO
(d) C₆H₅NO₂
Answer:
(d) C₆H₅NO₂

Question 10.
The IUPAC name of
is ………………
(a) 1 – nitro butane
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
(c) Isobutyl nitrate
(d) 1 – Nitro iso butane
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane

Question 11.
Which one of the following is the structure of 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitro propane?

Answer:

Question 12.
1 – nitrobutane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane are belong to ……………..
(a) position isomerism
(b) functional isomerism
(c) Tautomerism
(d) chain isomerism
Answer:
(d) chain isomerism

Question 13.
Which of the following pair shows functional isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
(d) 2 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
Answer:
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite

Question 14.
Which of the following pair shows position isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(b) Nitro methane and methyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(d) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
Answer:
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane

Question 15.
Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………
(a) Position isomerism
(b) chain isomerism
(c) metarnersm
(d) Tautomerism
Answer:
(d) Tautomerism

Question 16.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro form of alkane dissolves in NaOH instantly
(ii) Nitro form of alkane decolourises FeCI₃ solution
(iii) Nitro form of alkane are more acidic
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 17.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Aci form of nitro alkanes dissolves in NaOH slowly.
(ii) Aci form of nitro alkane gives reddish-brown colour with FeCl₃
(iii) Aci form of nitro alkane’s electrical conductivity is low.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (ii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) only

Question 18.
Which one of the following does not exhibit tautomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro ethane
(b) Nitro methane
(c) methyl nitrite
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
Answer:
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

Question 19.
Identify the compound which does not exhibit tautomerism?

Answer:

Question 20.
The correct decreasing order of acidity of nitro alkane is …………….

Answer:

Question 21.
Which one of the following mechanism is followed by the reaction of Ethyl bromide with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite ……………
(a) SN¹
(b) SN²
(c) SNⁱ
(d) E₁
Answer:
(b) SN²

Question 22.
Which one of the following is formed when Ethyl bromide reacts with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) 2 – Nitro propane
(c) 1 – nitro propane
(d) nitro ethane
Answer:
(d) nitro ethane

Question 23.
Which method is used to separate the mixture of nitroalkane?
(a) Crystallization
(b) zone refining
(c) fractional distillation
(d) sublimation
Answer:
(c) fractional distillation

Question 24.
Which of the following is formed when ethane is heated with conc. HNO₃ at 675 K?
(a) Nitro propane
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Nitro methane
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) both (ii) and (iii)

Question 25.
What is the product formed when α – chloro acetic acid is boiled with aqueous solution of sodium nitrite?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Nitromethane
(c) Acetamide
(d) α – chloro acetamide
Answer:
(b) Nitromethane

Question 26.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert teritary butylamine to tertiary nitro alkane?
(a) Aqueous KMnO₄
(b) Cone HNO₃
(c) Sn / HCI
(d) alcoholic KOH
Answer:
(a) Aqueous KMnO₄

Question 27.
The reagent used in the conversion of acetaldoxime to nitroethane (1°) is …………
(a) aqueous KMnO₄
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid
(c) alcoholic KOH
(d) Cone. HNO₃
Answer:
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid

Question 28.
Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) Nitro propane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 29.
On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………
(a) 0 – dinitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) p – dinitro benzene
(d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene
Answer:
(b) m – dinitro benzene

Question 30.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ……………
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) Fuming mixture of conc. HNO₃ + conc. H₂SO₄
(c) NaNO₂ + HCI
(d) Ethanolic KNO₂
Answer:
(a) Caro’s acid

Question 31.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ………….
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) marshall’s acid
(c) Peroxy trifluoro acetic acid
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 32.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro alkanes have high points because of their highly polar nature
(ii) Alkyl nitrites have lower boiling points than nitro alkanes.
(iii) Nitro alkanes are readily soluble in water due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding formation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 33.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to methyl amine is ……..
(a) Zn/NH₄Cl
(b) Sn/HCI
(c) H₂SO₅
(d) H₂S₂O₈
Answer:
(b) Sn/HCI

Question 34.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to N – methyl hydroxylamine is …………
(a) Sn/HCl
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Ni
(d) Pd/BaSO₄
Answer:
(b) Zn/NH₄CI

Question 35.
Which one of the following is formed when ethyl nitrite is treated with Sn/HCl?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethanamide
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 36.
The product formed when nitro ethane is boiled with conc. HCl is ……………
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ethyl chloride
(c) Ethanoyl chloride
(d) Amino ethane
Answer:
(a) Acetic acid

Question 37.
Which one of the following is formed when 2- nitro propane is boiled with conc.HCl?
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Propanoic acid
(c) Propanoyl chloride
(d) Acetone
Answer:
(d) Acetone

Question 38.
Which of the following does not react with conc. HCI?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
(c) 2 – nitro propane
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane

Question 39.
Acid (or) Basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite gives ………….
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Aceto nitrile
Answer:
(c) Ethanol

Question 40.
Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?
(a) CH₃CI
(b) CH₃COCl
(c) CCI₃NO₂
(d) CHCI₂NO₂
Answer:
(c) CCI₃NO₂

Question 41.
Which one of the following reagents is used to convert Nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)
(d) Zn/NaOH
Answer:
(a) Sn/HCI

Question 42.
Which one of the following is the best reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into Nitroso benzene?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)
(d) SnCl₂ + KOH
Answer:
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)

Question 43.
Identify the reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into hydrazo benzene?
(a) Zn/NaOH
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) SnCI₂ + KOH
Answer:
(a) Zn/NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Fe/H₂O_(Steam)?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Nitroso benzene
(d) Azobenzene
Answer:
(c) Nitroso benzene

Question 45.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn/NaOH?
(a) Phenyl amine
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Azo benzene
(d) Hydrazo benzene
Answer:
(d) Hydrazo benzene

Question 46.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with SnCI₂/KOH?
(a) Azo benzene
(b) Azoxy benzene
(c) Hydrazo benzene
(d) Nitroso benzene
Answer:
(a) Azo benzene

Question 47.
Which of the following is formed when nitro benzene undergoes electrolytic reduction?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) p – amino phenol
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which of the following can be used to reduce nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) LiAIH₄
(b) Sn + HCI
(c) Pt/H₂
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 49.
What will be the product formed when nitrobenzene is treated with conc. HNO₃ and conc.H₂SO₄ at 373K?
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene

Question 50.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with cone. HNO₃ and H₂SO₄ 473 K?
(a) 1, 2 – din itro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dintro benzene
(c) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
Answer:
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene

Question 51.
What will be the product formed when 1, 3, 5 – trinitro toluene is treated with acidified Na₂Cr₂O₇ and soda lime?
(a) TNB
(b) TNT
(c) TNG
(d) GTN
Answer:
(a) TNB

Question 52.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Tertiary butyl amine
(b) Trimethyl amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methenamine
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
Answer:
(c) N, N – dimethyl methenamine

Question 53.
Which one of the following is called (N – ethyl – N – methyl) propanamide?

Answer:

Question 54.
The IUPAC name of
is ……………..
(a) Methyl iso propyl amine
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(d) propan – 1 – amine
Answer:
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

Question 55.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Ethyl methyl isopropylamine
(b) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(c) N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine
Answer:
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine

Question 56.
Which one of the following is called Hexane – 1, 6 – diamine?

Answer:

Question 57.
Which one of the following is the TUPAC name of CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – NH₂?
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Allylamine
(c) 1 – amino propane
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
Answer:
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine

Question 58.
Which one of the following is the structure of phenyl methenamine?

Answer:

Question 59.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron.
(ii) Nitrogen atom of amines is Sp2 hybridised.
(iii) Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 60.
What is the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine?
(a) 109°. 5′
(b) 107°
(c) 108°
(d) 108°. 31’
Answer:
(c) 108°

Question 61.
Which one of the following is the geometry of amines?
(a) Tetrahedral
(b) Pyramidal
(c) Planar triangle
(d) square planar
Answer:
(b) Pyramidal

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when cyano methane reacts with LiAlH₄?
(a) Ethanamine
(b) Methane
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(a) Ethanamine

Question 63.
The reducing agent used in mendius reaction is …………
(a) H₂/Ni
(b) LiAIH₄
(c) Na/C₂H₅OH
(d) Sn/HCI
Answer:
(c) Na/C₂H₅OH

Question 64.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is reduced by Na(Hg)/C₂H₅OH is …………
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Ethanamine
(c) N – methyl methenamine
(d) N – ethyl methenamine
Answer:
(c) N – methyl methenamine

Question 65.
Which one of the following is formed when acetamide reacts with LiAlH₄ and H₂O?
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ammonium acetate
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
Answer:
(b) Ethylamine

Question 66.
In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br₂/KOH?
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(b) Hoffmann degradation reaction
(c) Mendius reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(b) Hoffmann degradation reaction

Question 67.
Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
(a) Hoffmann ammonolysis
(b) Rosenmund’s reduction
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Answer:
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

Question 68.
The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina is …………
(a) HVZ reaction
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Mendius reaction
Answer:
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method

Question 69.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Amines have higher boiling point than alcohols.
(ii) Lower aliphatic amines are colourless gases whereas higher amines have fish like small.
(iii) Aniline and arylamines are colourless but when exposed to air they become coloured due to oxidation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 70.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of alkyl substituted amines is …………

Answer:

Question 71.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of substituted ethyl amines is ………….

Answer:

Question 72.
The relative basicity of amine follows the order as ………….
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
(b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine
(c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne
(d) N – aralkylamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine Answer: (a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
Answer:
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine

Question 73.
Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N – Phenyl benzamide?
(a) Hoffmann degradation reaction
(b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 74.
Which one of the product is formed when aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of NaOH?
(a) N – Phenyl benzamide
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide
(c) Benzamide
(d) N – Benzyl aniline
Answer:
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide

Question 75.
Which one of the following is formed as product when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Ethyl nitrite
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethane nitrile
Answer:
(c) Ethanol

Question 76.
Identify X in the following reaction?

Answer:

Question 77.
The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………
(a) Carbylamme reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Sand meyer’s reaction
Answer:
(c) Diazotisation

Question 78.
Which one of the product is formed with N-methyl aniline reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Anilinium chloride
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine
(c) Benzene diazonium chloride
(d) Benzylamine
Answer:
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine

Question 79.
Which one of the réaction is called Libermann’s nitroso set?
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc. N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.
(b) Benzene diazonium chloride.
(c) Aniline + CHCI₃ + 3KOH → Phenyl iso cyanide.
(d) Methyl amine + CHCl₃ + 3KOH → Methyl iso cyanide.
Answer:
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc. N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.

Question 80.
The conversion of N – methyl aniline into N – nitrosomethyl phenyl amine is known as …………
(a) Carbylamine reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test
Answer:
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test

Question 81.
Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?
(a) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gattermann reaction
Answer:
(b) Carbylamine reaction

Question 82.
The reaction between methylamine and CS₂ is known as ……………
(a) mustard oil reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis
Answer:
(a) mustard oil reaction

Question 83.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with CS₂ followed by hydrolysis by cone. HCI?
(a) Phenyl isocyanide
(b) phenyl cyanide
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
Answer:
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate

Question 84.
Consider the following reaction.
(i) Aniline does not undergo friedel – crafts reaction
(ii) Aromatic amine on treatment with NaNO₂ + HCI gives diazonium slats.
(iii) Aniline is more basic than ammonia.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 85.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with cone. H₂SO₄?
(a) Zwitter ion
(b) Acetanilide
(c) Suiphanilic acid
(d) p – sulphonic bcnzoic acid
Answer:
(c) Suiphanilic acid

Question 86.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Benzene diazonium chloride aqueous solution are neutral to litmus.
(ii) The stability of arene diazonium salt is due to the dispersal of the positive charge over the ring.
(iii) Benzenediazonium chloride is reddish brown colour liquid.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (iii) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 87.
Identify the product formed when Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phosphinic acid?
(a) Benzene
(b) Chioro benzene
(c) Phenol
(d) cyano benzene
Answer:
(a) Benzene

Question 88.
The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as …………
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction
(d) Coupling reaction
Answer:
(c) Sand meyer reaction

Question 89.
Identify X and Y in the following reaction

(a) C₆H₅CI + N₂
(b) C₆H₆ + N₂
(c) C₆H₅CI + NH₄CI
(d) C₆H₅CI + H₂
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅CI + N₂

Question 90.
Which one of the following is formed when benzene diazonium chloride is boiled with water?
(a) Benzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Chiorobenzene
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 91.
Complete the following reaction.

Answer:

Question 92.
What is the name of the reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with benzene to give Biphenyl?
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Gomberg reaction
(c) Gattermann reaction
(d) Baltz – schiemann reaction
Answer:
(b) Gomberg reaction

Question 93.
Which one of the following reagent reacts with ben.zene diazonium chloride to give biphenyl?
(a) Chioro benzene
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Benzene
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(c) Benzene

Question 94.
Which one of the following is formed when Benzene dia.zonium chloride reacts with Aniline?
(a) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(b) 2 – phenyl azo – 4 – methyl
(c) Biphenyl
(d) p – amino azo benzene
Answer:
(d) p – amino azo benzene

Question 95.
Which one of the following should react with Benzene diazonium chloride to get orange dye?
(a) Aniline
(b) phenol
(c) 0 – cresol
(d) P – cresol
Answer:
(b) phenol

Question 96.
Aniline + Benzene diazonium chloride → X. Identify X.
(a) orange dye
(b) yellow dye
(c) malachite green dye
(d) madder dye
Answer:
(b) yellow dye

Question 97.
Which one of the following is the IUPAC name of CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂CN?
(a) Propiono nitrite
(b) Butane cyanide
(c) Isobutyro nitnie
(d) Butane nitrile
Answer:
(d) Butane nitrile

Question 98.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with cyanogen chloride?
(a) methane nitrile
(b) ethane nitrite
(c) Acetamide
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(b) ethane nitrite

Question 99.
The reagent used in the conversion of CH₃CONH₂ into CH₃CN is …………
(a) Br₂/KOH
(b) conc. HNO₃
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) P₂O₅
Answer:
(d) P₂O₅

Question 100.
The product of complete hydrolysis of Ethane nitrite is …………
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyl nitrate
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(d) Acetic acid

Question 101.
What is the name of the reaction that take place between Ethane nitrile and Ethyl propionate?
(a) Coupling reaction
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation

Question 102.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl iso cyanide ùndergoes acid hydrolysis?
(a) Dimethyl amine + H₂O
(b) Acetic acid + Formic acid
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid
(d) Methyl cyanide + Ammonia
Answer:
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid

Question 103.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is heated to 250°C is …………
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Methyl cyanide
(c) Ethyl Cyanide
(d) Amino ethane
Answer:
(b) Methyl cyanide

Question 104.
Which one of the following is used a fuel for cars?
(a) CH₃NO₂
(b) CH₃NH₂
(c) CH₃N
(d) CH₃NC
Answer:
(a) CH₃NO₂

Question 105.
Chloropicrin is used as ……….
(a) antiseptic
(b) analgesic
(c) insecticide
(d) fertilizer
Answer:
(c) insecticide

Question 106.
Which one of the following is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Nitro methane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(d) Nitro ethane

Question 107.
Which one of the following is known as sweet spirit of nitre?
(a) 10 % solution of methyl nitrite
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite
(c) 10% solution of ethyl nitrite
(d) 40% solution of methanal
Answer:
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite

Question 108.
Which one of the following is used as diuretic?
(a) Nitromethane
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) ethyl nitrite
(d) Oil of mirbane
Answer:
(c) ethyl nitrite

Question 109.
Which of the following is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery?
(a) Nitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) Nitro glycerine
Answer:
(a) Nitro benzene

Question 110.
Which of the following is used in the manufacture of aniline, synthetic rubber, dyes and explosives like TNT, TNB?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Aminobenzene
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
Answer:
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 111.
Which of the following is used in textile industries and also as a solvent in perfume industries?
(a) Alkyl cyanide
(b) Alkyl iso cyanide
(c) Alkyl iso thio cyanate
(d) Alkyl amine
Answer:
(a) Alkyl cyanide

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an anticancer agent used to stomach and colon cancer?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Cobalamine
(c) mitomycin C
(d) Streptomycin
Answer:
(c) mitomycin C

Question 113.
In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of KOH and Br₂ used per mole of amine produced are …………..
(a) four moles of KOH and two moles of Br₂
(b) two moles of KOH and two moles of Br₂
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂
(d) one moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂
Answer:
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂

Question 114.
What is the product obtained in the following reaction?

Answer:

Question 115.
The reagent with which the following reaction is best accomplished is ………….

(a) H₃PO₃
(b) H₃PO₄
(c) H₃PO₂
(d) NaHSO₃
Answer:
(c) H₃PO₂

Question 116.
The amine “A” when treated with nitrous acid gives yellow oily substance. The amine “A” is …………
(a) Triethylamine
(b) Trimethylamine
(c) aniline
(d) Ethyl methyl amine
Answer:
(d) Ethyl methyl amine

Question 117.
Which one of the following amide will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH₃CONH₂
(b) CH₃CONHCH₃
(c) C₆H₅CONH₂
(d) CH₃CH₂CONH₂
Answer:
(b) CH₃CONHCH₃

Question 118.
Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as …………..
(a) Gattennann reaction
(b) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction
(d) Comberg reaction
Answer:
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction

Question 119.
Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which are has the smallest pK value?
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₃N
(c) C₆H₅NH₂
(d) (CH₃)₃NH
Answer:
(d) (CH₃)₃NH

Question 120.
Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(c) Dimethyl amine
(d) methyl amine
(b) Aniline
Answer:
(c) Dimethyl amine

Question 121.
Diethyl amine when treated with nitrous acid yields
(a) Diethyl ammonium nitrite
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine
(d) Triethyl ammonium nitrate
Answer:
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine

Question 122.
Which one of the following on reduction with Lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
(a) Methyl iso cyanide
(b) Acetamide
(c) Methyl cyanide
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(a) Methyl iso cyanide

Question 123.
The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
(a) Ethane
(b) ammonia
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethyl nitrite
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 124.
Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the following would undergo Hoffmann reaction with Br₂ and strong KOH to furnish primary amine kNH₂.

Answer:

Question 125.
The correct order of basicity of the following compounds is …………..

(a) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)

Question 126.
Which of the following would be most reactive towards nitration?
(a) Benzene
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) Toluene
(d) Chiorobenzene
Answer:
(b) nitrobenzene

Question 127.
Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form.
(a) Schiff’s base
(b) carbylamine
(c) Imine
(d) acetaldoxime
Answer:
(a) Schiff’s base

Question 128.
Which of the following is the strongest base?

Answer:

Question 129.
A primary amine is formed from an amide by the treatment of bromine and alkali. The primary amine has ……………
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide
(b) 1 carbon atom more than amide
(c) 1 hydrogen atom less than amide
(d) 1 Hydrogen atom more than amide
Answer:
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide

Question 130.
Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing ………….
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) 2° amine

Question 131.
A nauseating smell in the carbylamine test for primary amines is due to the formation of …………
(a) iso cyanide
(b) chloroform
(c) cyanide
(d) iso thiocyanate
Answer:
(a) iso cyanide

Question 132.
A positive carbylamine test is given by …………
(a) N, N – dimethyl aniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) N – methyl – 0 – methyl aniline
(d) p – methyl benzylamine
Answer:
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline

Question 133.
When primary amine is heated with CS₂ in the presence of excess of mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate. This reaction is called ……………..
(a) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction

Question 134.
Diazo – coupling reaction is useful to prepare some
(a) Dyes
(b) proteins
(c) pesticides
(d) plastics
Answer:
(a) Dyes

Question 135.
Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………
(a) aliphatic 2° amine
(b) Aromatic 1° amine
(c) Aliphatic l amine
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine
Answer:
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine

Question 136.
Which of the following amine will not react with nitrous acid to give nitrogen?

Answer:

Question 137.
Which of the following compound is expected to be more basic?
(a) Aniline
(b) Methylamine
(c) Ethylamine
(d) Hydroxylamine
Answer:
(c) Ethylamine

Question 138.
Nitro group in Nitro benzene is a ………….
(a) ortho directing group
(b) Meta directing group
(c) Para directing group
(d) ortho and para directing group
Answer:
(b) Meta directing group

Question 139.
Which of the following amines would undergo diazotisation?
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) C₂H₅NH₂
(c) C₆H₅NH₂
(d) (CH₃)₂NH
Answer:
(c) C₆H₅NH₂

Question 140.
Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with.
(a) CHCI₃ and alkali
(b) CH₃I
(c) CHCl₃ alone
(d) Zn dust
Answer:
(a) CHCI₃ and alkali

Question 141.
A solution of methylamine …………..
(a) turns blue litmus red
(b) turns red litmus blue
(c) does not effect red or blue litmus
(d) Bleaches litmus
Answer:
(b) turns red litmus blue

Question 142.
Oil of mirbane is ………..
(a) Aniline
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) p – amino azo benzene
(d) Nitro benzene
Answer:
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 143.
Identify the product Z in the series of the reaction ………….

(a) CH₃CHO
(b) CH₃CONH₂
(c) CH₃COOH
(d) CH₃CH₂NHOH
Answer:
(c) CH₃COOH
Solution:

Question 144.
Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by ……….
(a) Br₂ / KOH
(b) HCIO₄
(c) NH₃
(d) HNO₂
Answer:
(d) HNO₂

Question 145.
Aniline on treatment with excess bromine water gives
(a) Anilinium bromide
(b) O – bromo aniline
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(d) p – bromo aniline
Answer:
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline

Question 146.
Which of the following is not used as an explosive?
(a) Trinitro toluene
(b) Trinitro benzene
(c) Trinitro glycerine
(d) Nitro benzene
Answer:
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 147.
Which of the following has a pyramidal structure?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(b) Water
(c) Acetylene
(d) Methane
Answer:
(a) Trimethyl amine

Question 148.
Which one of the following reacts with benzaldehyde to give schiff’s base.
(a) Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(b) formaldehyde
(c) Aniline
(d) Potassium cyanide
Answer:
(c) Aniline

Question 149.
Ethyl amine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on
(a) Acetamide
(b) propionamide
(c) Formamide
(d) Methyl Eyanide
Answer:
(b) propionamide

Question 150.
Which of the following reaction will not give primary amine?

Answer:

Question 151.
Which of the following compound is the strongest base?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Aniline
(c) Methyl amine
(d) N – methyl aniline
Answer:
(c) Methyl amine

Question 152.
Azo dyes are prepared from ………….
(a) Phenol
(b) Aniline
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii)

II. Fill in the blanks.

………….. is an organic compound needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells.
Plants synthesis and to protect them from being eaten away by insect ………….. and ………….. other animals.
………….. compounds are the important constituents of explosives, drugs, dyes, fuels, polymers, synthetic rubbers.
Dopamine act as …………..
………….. dilates blood vessels.
Tertiary nitro alkanes donot exhibit ………….. due to the absence of a-H atom.
Aci form of nitro alkanes gives ………….. colour with ferric chloride.
Aci form of nitro alkanes are otherwise called ………….. or …………..
Laboratory preparation of Nitro ethane from ethyl bromide follows ………….. mechanism
Except ………….. other alkanes gives a mixture of nitro alkanes due to C – C cleavage by nitration of alkanes.
Oxidation of acetaldoxime with ………….. gives 1 – nitro ethane.
………….. is suspected to cause genetic damage and be harmful to the nervous system.
Nitro benzene on reduction with SnCl₂ + KOH gives …………..
Nitrobenzene on alkaline medium reduction gives …………..
Amines posses ………….. geometry.
The nitrogen atom in amine is ………….. hybridised.
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of …………..
Ammonolysis of hydroxyl compounds is called ………….. reaction.
Aniline when exposed to air becomes coloured due to …………..
Alkyl amines are stronger base than …………..
Acylation and benzoylation of Aniline aer ………….. reactions.
Libermann’s nitroso test is used to detect …………..
………….. test is used to identify primary amine.
Direct nitration of aniline gives O and P – nitro aniline along with ………….. due to oxidation.
The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to benzene by H₃PO₂ proceeds through ………….. mechanism.
Benzene diazonium chloride when boiled with water gives …………..
The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride is Biphenyl is called ………….. reaction.
Coupling reaction generally occurs at ………….. position of Benzene ring.
The condensation reaction of esters with nitrites containing a – hydrogen is known as …………..
Chloropicrin is used as an …………..
4% solution of ethyl nitrite in alcohol is known as …………..
Sweet spirit of nitre is used as …………..
………….. is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
………….. an anti cancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer.
Mitomycin C contains an ………….. ring.
………….. is used as percursor to explosive.
An organic nitrogen compound ………….. is used as an insecticide.
………….. is known as sweet spirit of nitre.
Chloropicnn ………….. is used as an insecticide.

Answer:

Pyridoxine, vitamin B₆
alkaloids, biologically active amines
Nitrogen
Neurotransmitter
Histamine
tautomerism
Reddish brown
Pseudo acids (or) Nitronic acids
SN₂
Methane
trifluoroperoxy acetic acid
Nitro ethane
Azobenzene
Hydrazobenzene
Pyramidal
SP³
Aliphatic primary amines
Sabatier – mailhe
Oxidation
Ammonia
Nucleophilic substitution (or) Schotten Baumann
Secondary amine
Carbylamine reaction (or) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
dark coloured tars
Free radical chain
Phenol
Gomberg
Para
Levine and hauser
insecticide
Sweet spirit of nitre
diuretic
Nitrobenzene
Mitomycin C
Aziridine
Nitro ethane
chloropicrm
4% solution of ethyl nifrite in alcohol
CCI₃NO₂

III. Match the Column I and II using the code given below the columns.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 5.

Answer:
(b) 4 1 2 3

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 7.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 1 4 3

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism.
Reason (R): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not have of α – H atom.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are not correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Primary and secondary nitroalkanes show an equilibrium mixture of two tautomers namely nitro and aci form.
Reason (R): Both primary and secondary nitroalkanes are having a-H atoms.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of ofA
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Nitro alkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.
Reason (R): The α – H atom of 1° and 2° nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO₂ group.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion(A): 2 – nitro propane is more acidic than nitro mehtane.
Reason (R): When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene cannot be prepared from bromo benzene by action of ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite.
Reason (R): The bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene undergoes friedel – craft reaction.
Reason (R): Nitrobenzene have strong deactivating – NO₂ group.
(a) Both A and R arc correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Reason (R): Nitrogen atoms of amines is trivalent and has four sp3 hybridised orbital. Three sp³ orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen and four sp3 orbitais contain a lone pair of electrons.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion(A): The C – N – C bond angle of trimethyl amine is 108°.
Reason (R): The bond angle of C – N – C is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Arylhalides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Amines have lower boiling point than alcohols.
Reason (R): Nitrogen has lower electronegative value than oxygen and hence the N – H bond is less polar than – OH bond.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Tertiary methyl amine is less soluble in water than methyl amine.
Reason (R): Solubility decreases due to the increase in size of the hydrophobic alkyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Aniline reacts with acids to form salts and also reacts with electrophiles.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in amines makes them basic as well as nucleophilic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Alkyl amines are stronger base than Ammonia.
Reason (R): When a +I gorup like alkyl group is attached to nitrogen increases the electron density on the nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 14.
Assertion(A): 2° amines are more basic.
Reason (R): Due to + I effect, steric effect and hydration effect cause 2° amines are more basic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Aromatic amines are less basic than ammonia.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline (aromatic amine) gets delocalised over the benzene ring and less available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
Assertion(A): Electrophilic substituion in aniline take place at ortho and para position.
Reason (R): The – NH₂ group is a strong activating group and lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is in conjugation with benzene ring that increases electron density at ortho and para position.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Acylation of amines gives a mono substituted product whereas alkylation of amines gives polysubstituted product.
Reason (R): Acyl group sterically hindered the approach to further acyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Acetanilide is less basic than anime.
Reason (R): Acetylation of aniline results in the decrease of electron density on nitrogen.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): Aromatic 1° amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Aniline donates its lone pair of electrons to the Lewis acid AiCl₃ to form an adduct which inhibits further electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
Pyridoxine, Dopamine, Histamine, Aspirin.
Answer:
Aspirin:
It is acid derivative and used as medicine whereas other are organic nitrogen compounds used in medicine.

Question 2.
Trinitro glycerine, Glyceryl triacetate, Trinitro benzene, Trinitro toluene
Answer:
Glyceryl triacetate:
It is a an ester of glycerol whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds used in making explosives.

Question 3.
N – methyl methanamine, N – methyl ethanamine, N – phenyl benzamide, N,N – dimethyl methanamine
Answer:
N,N – dimethyl methanamine: It ¡s an example of tertiary amine whereas others are secondary amine.

Question 4.
Propan – 2 – amine, N – ethyl – N – methyl, propan – 2 – amine, N,N – dimethyl methanamine, N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
Answer:
Propan – 2 – amine:
It is a secondary amine whereas others are tertiary amines.

Question 5.
P – hydroxy azo benzene, Hydrazo benzene, P – amino azo benzene, 2 – Phenyl azo – methyl phenol
Answer:
Hydrazo benzene: It is not a dye whereas others are dyes.

Question 6.
Methyl ISo cyanide, Methyl cyanide, Acetic anhydride, Ethyl amine Nitro ethane
Answer:
Acetic anhydride:
It is an acid derivative whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is called nitro compound? Give one example.
Answer:
1. Ntiro compounds are considered as the derivatives of hydrocarbons. 1f one of the hydrogen atom of hydrocarbon is replaced by the – NO₂ group, the resultant organic compound is called a ntiro compound.

2. E.g., CH₃ – CH₂ – NO₂. Nitro ethane

Question 2.
Define Tautomerism. Give example. Why tertiary nitro alkanes do not ethibit tautomerism?
Answer:
1. Tautomerism is an isomerism in which the isomers change into one another with great ease of shifting of proton so that they exist together in equilibrium.

2. Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism due to absence of a-H atom.

Question 3.
Differentiate between nitro form and acid form of tautomerism of nitro methane.
Answer:
Nitro form

Less acidic
Dissolves in NaOH slowly.
Decolourises FeCl₃ solution.
Electrical conductivity is low.

Aci form

More acidic and also called pseudo acids (or) Nitrolic acids.
Dissolves in NaOH instantly.
With FeCI₃ gives reddish brown colour.
Electrical conductivity is high.

Question 4.
Compare the acid strength of the following compounds

Nitro methane
Nitro ethane
2 – nitro propane.

Answer:
1. The α – H atom of 1⁰ and 2⁰ nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO₂ group.

2. Nitroalkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.

3. When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.

Question 5.
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene by direct nitration. Give reason.
Answer:
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene because the bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.

Question 6.
How would you convert Acetaldoxime into Nitroethane?
Answer:
Oxidation of acetaldoxime and with trifluoro peroxy acetic acid gives nitroethane.

Question 7.
How is nitrobenzene from benzene?
Answer:
When benzene is heated with a nitrating mixture (Con.HNO₃ + Con.H₂SO₄), at 330 K, electrophilic substitution takes place to form nitro benzene.

Question 8.
How will you prepare p – dinitrobenzene from p – nitroanlline?
Answer:

Question 9.
How is amino group can be directly converted into nitro group? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group using caro’s acid (H₂SO₅) (or) persuiphuric acid (H₂S₂O₈) (or) peroxytrifluro acetic acid (F₃C.COOOH) as oxidising agent.

Question 10.
Explain the action of tin and hydrochloric acid with ethyl nitrite.
Answer:
Ethyl nitrite on reduction with Sn / HCI gives ethanol.

Question 11.
Explain about the acid (or) basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite.
Answer:

Question 12.
What is Chioropicrin? How is ¡t prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
CCI₃NO₂ is Chioropicrin. It is prepared from nitro methane with Cl₂ in the presence of NaOH. The a – H atom of nitroalkanes are successively replaced by halogen atoms. It is used as an insecticide.

Question 13.
Explain – Nef carbonly synthesis.
Answer:

Question 14.
What happens when nitrobenzene Is treated with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAIH₄?
Answer:
Nitrobenzene undergoes reduction with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAlH₄ to give aniline.

Question 15.
Write a note about structure of Amines.
Answer:
1. Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron and sp³ hybridised, out of the four sp³ hybridised orbitais of nitrogen, three sp³ orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen (or) alkyl groups of carbon, the fourth sp³ orbital contains a lone pair of electron. Hence, amines posses pyramidal geometry.

2. Due to presence of lone pair of electron C – N – H (or) C – N – Cbond angle is less than the normal tetrahedral bond angle 109.5v. For example, the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine is 108°. This is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.

Question 16.
How would you convert Nitroethane to ethanamine?
Answer:

Question 17.
Explain the action of Pt (or) Sn/HCI with nitrobenzene.
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain mendlus reaction.
Answer:
Reduction of alkyl or aryl cyanides with Na / C₂H₅OH is used as a reducing agent is called mendius reaction.

Question 19.
Explain the action of sodium amalgum and ethanol with Methyl isocyanide.
Answer:

Question 20.
What happens when sodium azide is treated with methyl bromide?
Answer:

Quesion 21.
How would you convert chiorobenzene to aniline?
Answer:
When chiorobenzene is heated with alcoholic ammonia, aniline is obtained.

Question 22.
Explain Sabatier – MalIhe method.
Answer:
when vapour of an alcohol and ammonia are passed over alumina, W₂O₅ (or) silica at 400°C, all types of amines are formed. This method is called Sabatier – Mailhe method.

Question 23.
Convert phenol into aniline.
Answer:
Phenol reacts with ammonia at 300°C in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂ to give aniline.

Question 24.
Compare the boiling points of 10, 2° and 3° amInes.
Answer:
1. The boiling point of various amines follows the order,

2. Due to the polar nature of primary and secondary amines, can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds using their lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom. However, tertiary amines do not form intermolecular hydrogen bond and they have lower boiling point than 1° and 2° amines.

Question 25.
Aniline is basic in nature. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline makes it base. Aniline reacts with mineral acids to form salt.

Question 26.
Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia. Justify this statement.
Answer:
When a + I group like and alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen increase the electron density on nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation. Hence alkyl amines are stronger than ammonia.

Question 27.
Explain the action of acretyl chloride with ethyl amine?

Question 28.
What happens when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
Answer:
Ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to give ethyl diazonium chloride, which is unstable and it is converted to ethanol by liberating N₂.

Question 29.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with N – methyl aniline.
Answer:
N – methyl aniline react with nitrous acid to give N – nitroso amine as yellow oily liquid which is insoluble in water.

Question 30.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with trimethyl amine.
Answer:
Aliphatic tertiary amine reacts with nitrous acid to form trialkyl ammonium nitrite salt, which is soluble in water.

Question 31.
What happens when nitrous acid is treated iith N, N – dimethyl aniline?
Answer:

Question 32.
Explain Hoffmann mustard oil reaction. (or) Explain the action of CS₂ with aniline.
Answer:
When aniline is treated with CS₂, or heated together, S – diphenylthio urea is formed, which on boiling with strong HCI , phenyl isothiocyanate (phenyl mustard oil), is formed.

The above reaction is known as Hoffmann mustard oil reaction.

Question 33.
Explain the action of Br₂water with aniline.
Answer:

Question 34.
How would you prepare p – bromo aniline from aniline?
Answer:

Question 35.
How would you prepare p – nitro from aniline?
Answer:

Question 36.
Explain the action of hypophosphrous acid with Benzene diazonium chloride. (or) Explain the action of ethanol with benzene diazonium chloride.

Question 37.
Explain Gattermann reaction.
Answer:
Gattermann reaction.

Question 38.
How would you get iodo benzene form benzene diazonium chloride.
Answer:

Question 39.
Explain Baltz – schiemann reaction.
Answer:
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid, benezene diazonium tetra fluoroborate is precipitated which on heating decomposes to give fluorobenzene.

Question 40.
Convert Benzene diazonium chloride into phenol.
Answer:

Question 41.
StartIng form Benzene diazonium chloride, how will you get Nitrobenzene?
Answer:
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid we get diazonium fluoroborate which on treated with sodium nitrite solution in the presence of copper, nitrobenzene is obtained.

Question 42.
Convert benzene diazonium chloride to benzoic acid
Answer:

Question 43.
Explain the action of SnCl₂ and HCl with benzene diazonium chloride.
Answer:

Question 44.
Starting from benzene diazonium chloride, how would you get bright organge azo dye?
Answer:

Question 45.
Write the structural formula and TUPAC name of the following compounds.

Isobutyl nitrite
Benzo nitrile

Answer:
1. Isobutyl nitrite

2 – methyll propane nitrile

2. Benzo nitrile C₆H₅CN Benzene carbo nitrile

Question 46.
Draw the structural formula of

3 – cyano butanoic acid
2 – bromo – 3 – chloro – 3 – methyl pentane nitrile.

Answer:
1. 3 – cyano butanoic acid

2. 2 – bromo – 3 – chloro

– 3 – methyl pentane nitrile

Question 47.
How will you get propane nitrile from ethyl bromide?
Answer:

Question 48.
Starting from methyl magnesium bromide, how would you obtain ethane nitrile?
Answer:

Question 49.
Explain thrope nitrite condensation.
Answer:
Self condensation of two molecules of alkyl nitrile in the presence of sodium to form iminonitrile is called Thrope nitnie condensation.

Question 50.
Explain Levine and hauser acetylation.
Answer:
The nitrites containing α – hydrogen also undergo condensation with esters in the presence of sodamide in ether to form ketoriitriles. This reaction is known as Levine and hauser acetylation.

Question 51.
How would you prepare the following compounds by carbylamines reaction.

Methyl isocyanide
Phenyl isocyanide

Answer:
1.

Question 52.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 53.
How is methyl isocyanide changed to methyl cyanide?
Answer:

Question 54.
What are the uses of nitrobenzene?
Answer:

Nitro benzene is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, pesticides, synthelic rubber, aniline and explosives like TNT, TNB.

Question 55.
Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines why?
Answer:
Due to the presence of two H – atom on N – atoms of primary amines they undergo extensive intermolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atom on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.

Question 56.
How is m – nitroaniline obtained from nitrobenzene?
Answer:

Question 57.
How is aniline obtained from benzoic acid?
Answer:

Question 58.
How will you convert benzene into aniline?
Answer:

Question 59.
How will you distinguish between.

Answer:
1. By reacting with NaNO₂ and HCl at the temperature of around 0 to 5°C, Aniline will from diazonium salt. CH₃NH₂ will form methanol and bubbles of N₂ gas will come out of the solution.

2. By Hinsberg’s reagent, C₆H₅SO₂CI(CH₃)₃N will not react. (CH₃)₂NH will form a product which is insoluble in alkali.

Question 60.
Account for any two of the following.

Amines are basic substances while amides are neutral.
Aromatic amines are weaker bases than aliphatic amines.

Answer:
1. In amines alkyl group is an electron releasing group which increases the electron density on nitrogen thus making them basic whereas in amides

group is electron withdrawing, therefore they are neutral.

2. It is because aryl group is an electron withdrawing group which decreases electron density on nitrogen atom, making them less basic whereas alkyl group is electron releasing which makes alkylamines more basic.

Question 61.

Assign a reason for the following statements – Alkylamines are stronger bases than arylamines.
How would you convert methylamine into ethylamine?

Answer:
1. It is because in arylamines the – NH₂ group is attached directly to the benzene ring. It results in the unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom to be in conjugation with the benzene ring and thus making it less available for protonation whereas alkyl group are electron releasing group.

Question 62.

How will you convert an alkyl halide to a primary amine whose molecule has one carbon atom more than the used alkyl halide molecule?
Why are amines more basic than the comparable alcohols.

Answer:
1.

2. Due less electronegativity of oxygen atom as compared to nitrogen, amines are more basic than alcohols.

Question 63.
Aniline gets coloured on standing in air for a long time. Why?
Answer:
Due to strong electron – donating effect (+ R effect) of NH₂ group, the electron density on the benzene ring increases. As a result, aniline is easily oxidised on standing in air for a long time to form coloured products.

Question 64.
CH₃CONH₂ is a weaker base than CH₃CH₂NH₂. Why?
Answer:
Due to resonance, the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom in CH₃CONH₂ is delocalised over the keto group. There is no such effect ip CH₃CH₂NH₂. Due to reduction in electron density on N – atom of CH₃CONH₂, it is a weaker base than CH₃CH₂NH₂.

Question 65.
Write chemical equation for the following conversions:

CH₃CH₂ – Cl into CH₃CH₂CH₂ – NH₂
C₆H₅ – CH₂ – Cl into C₆H₅CH₂CH₂NH₂

Answer:
1.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 3 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the classification of organic nitro compounds.
Answer:

2. Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

2 – methyl – 1 – nltropropane
2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitropropane
Nitrobenzene

Answer:
1. 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
2. 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1- nitropropane
3. Nitrobenzene

Question 3.
Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

Answer:
1. 2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
2. 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
3. 2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

Question 4.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₄H₉NO₂.
Answer:

Question 5.
How would you prepare nitro ethane from the following compounds?

CH₃ – CH₂Br
CH₃ – CH₃

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 6.
Mention any two methods of preparation of nitro methane.
Answer:
1.
2.

Question 7.
Explain the

acid medium reduction
neutral medium reduction of Nitromethane.

Answer:

Question 8.
What happens when hydrochloric acid is treated with

Nitro ethane
2 – nitropropane
2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

(or)
How would you distinguish 1°, 2°, 3° nitro compounds?
Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 9.
Explain the following reactions using nitro benzene.

Chlorination
Nitration
Suiphonation

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 10.
Give the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

Isopropvl amine
Allyl amine
Hexamethyl diamine

Answer:
1. Isopropvl amine Propan – 2 – amine
2. Allyl amine Prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
3. Hexamethyl diamine Hexane 1, 6 – diamine

Question 11.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of

Methyl isopropyl amine
Diethyl butyl amine
Ethyl methyl ispropylamine

Answer:
1. Methyl isopropyl amine:

N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

2. Diethyl butyl amine:

N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine

3. Ethyl methyl ispropylamine:

N – ethyl – N – methyl propan – 2 – amine

Question 12.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of …………..

N, N – dimethyl aniline
Benzyl amine
N – methyl benzylamine

Answer:
1. N, N – dimethyl aniline

2. Benzyl amine

3. N – methyl benzylamine

Question 13.
Explain the alkylation reaction of methylamine with equation.
Answer:
Alkylation:
Primary amines reacts with alkyl halides to give successively 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts.

Question 14.
Explain about the suiphonation reaction of aniline.
Answer:
Aniline reacts with Conc. H₂SO₄ to form anilinium hydrogen sulphate which on heating with H₂SO₄ at 453 – 473K gives p – aminobenzene suiphonic acid, commonly known as suiphanilic acid, as the major product.

Question 15.
Explain Sandmeyer reaction with example.
Answer:
On mixing freshly prepared solution of benzene diazonium chloride with cuprous halides, aryl halides are formed. This reaction is called Sandmeyer reaction.

Question 16.
Write the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

Methyl cyanide
Propionitrile
Butyro nitrile

Answer:

CH₃CN – Ethane nitrile
CH₃ – CH₂CN – Propane nitrile
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂CN – Butane nitnie.

Question 17.
How would you produce Ethane nitrite form the following compounds?

Acetamide
Ammonium acetate
Acetaldoxime

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 18.
Explain the action of following reagent with ethane nitrile.

Dilute mineral acid
Ni / H₂

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 19.
What happens when methyl isocyanide reacts with the following reagents?

Mineral acid
Na + C₂H₅OH

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 20.
Explain the addition reactions of alkyl Isocyanide with

halogen
sulphur
ozone

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 21.
What are the uses of aliphatic nitro compounds.
Answer:

Nitromethane is used as a fuel for cars.
Chloropicrrn (CCI₃NO₂) is used as an insecticide
Nitroethane is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive and they are good solvents for polymers, cellulose ester, synthetic rubber and dyes etc,

Question 22.
Explain about the structure and uses of Mitomycin.
Answer:

Mitomycin C, and anticancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer, contains an aziridine ring.
The aziridine functional group participates in the drug’s degradation by DNA, resulting in the death of cancerous cells.

Question 23
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 24.
Convert Methanamine into Ethanamine.
Answer:

Question 25.
Convert Ethanamic into Methanamine.
Answer:

Question 26.
How would you obtain Benzoic acid from aniline?
Answer:

Question 27.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 28.
Write the reactions of

aromatic and
aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.

Answer:
Aromatic primary amines react with HNO₂ at 273 – 278 K to form aromatic diazonium salts.

Aliphatic primary amines also react with HNO₂ at 273 – 278 K to form aliphatic diazonium salts. But these are unstable even at low temperature and thus decomposes readily to form a mixture of compounds consisting of alkyl chlorides, alkenes and alcohols, out of which alcohols generally predominates.

Question 29
Given plausible explanation for each of the following.

Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?

Answer:
1. It is because C₂H₅O° is more stable than C₂H₅NH° because oxygen is more electronegative than nitrogen.

2. Due to the presence of two H – atoms on N – atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intennolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atoms on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines of comparable molecular masses.

3. It is because there is electron withdrawing, C₆H₅ group in aromatic amines which makes them less basic than aliphatic amines in which alkyl group is electron releasing.

Question 30.
Account for the following.

Primary amines (R – NH₂)have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R₃N).
Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
(CH₃)₂NH Is more basic than (CH₃)₃N in an aqueous solution.

Answer:
1. Due to maximum intermolecular hydrogen bonding in primary amines (due to presence of more number of H – atoms), primary amines have higher boiling point in comparison to tertiary amines.

2. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction due to acid-base reaction. Aniline and a Lewis Acid / Protic Acid, which is used in Friedel-crafts reaction.

3. In (CH₃)₃N there is maximum steric hindrance and least solvation but in (CH₃)₂NH the solvation is more group; di-methyl amine is still a stronger base than trimethyl amine.

Question 31.
Write the structures of A,B and C in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 32.
Predict, giving reasons the order of basicity of the following compounds.

gaseous phase
In aqueous solution (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH, CH₃NH₂, NH₃

Answer:
1. In gaseous phase, basic character of amines increases with the increase in the number of electron the releasing alkyl groups due to + I effect so the trend of basic character is 3° > 2° > 1° > NH₃. Therefore, (CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₃NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃.

2. In aqueous phase, solvation of ammonium cation occurs by warer molecules, greater the size of ion, lesser will be the solvation and lesser will be the stability of ion. So on combining + I effect and solvation effect, in aqueous phase trend changes to 2° > 1° > 3°, (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃.

Question 33.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 34.
What happens when. (Write reactions only)

Nitroethane is treated with LiAlH₄.
Diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in basic medium.

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 35.
How would you achieve the following conversions.
Answer:

(i) Nitrobenzene to aniline

(ii) An alkyl halide to a quarternary ammonium salt.

(iii) Aniline to benzonitrile.

Answer:

Question 36.
What happens when (write reactions only).

(i) Nitropropane is treated with LiAlH₄.
(ii) Ethyl lsocyañide undergoes hydrolysis.
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol i basic medium.

Answer:

Question 37.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 38.
Identify A and B in the following reactions

Answer:

Question 39.
A compound ‘x’ having molecular formula C₃H₇NO reacts with Br₂ in the presence of KOH to give another compound ‘y’. The compound ‘y’ reacts with HNO₂ to form ethanol. and N₂ gas. Identify the compounds x andy and write the reactions involved.
Answer:

Question 40.
An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C₃H₅N on hydrolysis gave a nother compound ‘B’ The compound ‘B’ on treatment with HNO₂ gave ethyl alcohol. ‘B’ on warming with CHCI₃ and alcoholic caustic potash gave an offensive smelling substance ‘C’. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various reduction reactions of nitrobenzene.
Answer:

Question 2.
What happens when nitrous acid react with
(i) Ethyl amine
(ii) Aniline
(iii) N – methyl aniline
(iv) Trimethyl amine
(v) N, N – dimethyl aniline
Answer:

Question 3.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Benzene
(ii) Phenol
(iii) Nitro benzene
(iv) Benzolc acid
(v) Fluorobenzene
Answer:

Question 4.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Biphenyl
(ii) Phenyl hydrazine
(iii) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(iv) p – amino azo benzene
(v) Chioro benzene
Answer:

Question 5.
Convert aniline into the following compounds.
(i) N – phenyl benzamide
(ii) Phenyl isothiocyanate
(iii) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(iv) Sulphanilinic acid
(v) Phenyl isocyanide
Answer:

Question 6.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₇N on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C gives (B) of formula C₆H₅N₂Cl. (B) on treatment with cuprous cyanide give (C) of formula C₇H₅N. (C) on reaction with sodium and ethanol gives (D) of formula C₇H₉N. (D) on reaction with nitrous acid gives (E) of molecular formula C₇H₈O. Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified as Aniline from the molecular formula.
2. Aniline on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C, diazotisation take place and the product (B) formed is benzene diazonium chloride.

3. Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with CuCN produces (C) as cyano benzene.

4. Cyano benzene on reaction with Na and C₂H₅OH undergoes reduction reaction to give (D) as benzvlamine.

5. Benzylamine on treatment with nitrous acid gives benzyl alcohol as (E).

Question 7.
Complete the following reactions and identify the A, B and C in these reaction.

Answer:

Question 8.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compound A, B and C.
Answer:
Step – 1: To find out the structure of compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’.
1. Since compound ‘C’ with molecular formula C₆H₇N is formed from compound ‘B’ on treatment with Br₂ + KOH (i.e., Hoffmatm bromamide reaction). Therefore, compound ‘B’ must be an amide and ‘C’ must be an amine. The only amine having the molecular formula C₆H₇N is C₆H₅NH₂ (i.e., aniline or benzenamine).

2. Since ‘C’ is aniline, therefore, the amide from which it is formed must be benzamide (C₆H₅CONH₂). Thus, compound ‘B’ is benzamide. The chemical equation showing the conversion of ‘B’ to ‘C’ is

Step – 2:
To find out the structure of compound ‘A’. Since compound ‘B’ is formed from compound ‘A’ by treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating. Therefore, compound ‘A’ must be benzoic acid or benzenecarboxylic acid.

Question 9.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C₇H₇ON undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write the structures of A,B,C, D and E in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 10.
Write reactions and conditions required for the following conversions.
(i) Aniline to benzene
(ii) Methylamine to methyl cyanide
(iii) Propanenitrile to ethylamine
(iv) m – Bromoaniline to m – bromophenol
(v) Nitrobenzene to 2, 4, 6 – tribromoaniline.
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Question 11.
A compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C₃H₇O₂N on reaction with Fe and cone. HCI gives a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula C₃H₉N. Compound ‘B’ on treatment with NaNO₂ and HCI gives another compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₃H₈O. The compound ‘C’ has a molecular formula, C₃H₈O. The compound ‘C’ gives effervescence with Na. On oxidation with CrO₃, the compound ‘C’ gives a saturated aldehyde containing three carbon atoms. Deduce the structures of A, B, and C and write the equations for the reaction involved.
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Question 12.
Identify compounds A, B and C in the following reactions.

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Question 13.
An aromatic hydrocarbon (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆ reacts with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc. H₂SO₄ gives (B) of formula C₆H₅O₂N. (B) on reaction with Sn/HCI gives (C) of formula C₆H₇N which answers carbylamine reaction. (C) on treatment with chloroform and alkali gives (D) of formula C₇H₅N. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
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