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Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Letters are the most common forms of written communication. Writing letters is an art and it is mastered through practice. We write letters to friends and relatives to maintain contacts with them. However, in the present times with the boom in methods of communication, many of us don’t have the time or the inclination, or the temperament and the art to write letters. So telephone, fax and e-mail have replaced personal (informal) letters. However, formal letters are still in vogue.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Commerce, trade, official correspondence, public representation, complaints and other dealings, transactions and communication with the people are still conducted through letters. Students are therefore advised to cultivate the art and skill of letter writing. It must be remembered that different kinds of letters follow different conventions. So, the format should suit the type.

Informal Letters
These are ordinary personal letters and informal invitations written to relatives, friends and acquaintances. The main characteristics of informal letters are:

  • These letters are first/second person presentations.
  • Personal feelings and emotions find expression.
  • The writer’s address is given in the usual place.
  • The salutation is usually ‘Dear’ plus ‘Name’.
  • The date of writing is given, but the year is generally omitted.
  • The style and tone are relaxed and informal.
  • Different tenses are used as the sense demands.
  • The complimentary close is: ‘Yours lovingly’ or ‘Yours truly’.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Formal Letters
A formal letter is different from a personal letter in tone and content. These letters are written for official purposes or commercial correspondence, so they must be systematic, specific in content and formalin treatment of the subject.

The main features of formal letters are:

  • The matter is brief, clear and to the point.
  • There are separate paragraphs for separate topics.
  • The first paragraph indicates the theme of the letter.
  • The facts are stated in simple and direct language.
  • Long and high sounding words are avoided.
  • Even while lodging a complaint or making criticism, the tone should be polite.
  • Clumsy expressions should not be used.
  • The complimentary close is: ‘Yours sincerely’, or ‘Yours faithfully’.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Format/Layout Of A Formal Letter
08th March, 20XX

From
XXX
Sender’s Address & Phone No.
To
THE DIRECTOR
Addressee’s Address
………………………………
………………………………
Respected Sir/Madam,

SUB: For the post of a Senior Accountant
REF: The Hindu dated 06/03/20XX

With reference to your advertisement dated 6th March, 20XX in The Hindu, I hereby wish to apply for the post of a Senior Accountant in your esteemed organization.

If given an opportunity I assure you of my sincere service to the satisfaction of my superiors. Please find enclosed my Bio-data for your kind perusal and looking forward to a positive reply at the earliest.

Thank you,
Yours sincerely,
XXX

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

To
THE DIRECTOR
………………………….
………………………….

Note: There is no punctuation after From and To Thank you has been used instead of Thanking you

Types Of Formal Letters
A. Business Letters

  • Making enquiries/asking for information
  • Replying to enquiries/giving information
  • Placing orders and sending replies
  • Cancelling orders
  • Letters of complaints

B. Official Letters

  • Registering complaints regarding civic amenities, law & order, etc.
  • Making enquiries pertaining to developmental projects, health facilities, etc.
  • Making requests/appeals

C. Letter To The Editor

  • Giving suggestions on an issue (usually of public interest)
  • Expressing views on an issue already raised in an article/write-up/in a published letter

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

D. Letter Of Application

  • Applications for jobs

What Is A Bio-Data?
The application for a job is sometimes accompanied by a bio-data of the applicant. The bio¬data is also called a resume or curriculum vitae (C.V.). It contains the following information about the candidate:

  • Personal information, e.g., age, health, sex, etc.
  • Educational/professional qualifications
  • Experience/suitability for the job

Bio-Data
Name – XXX
Date Of Birth – 8th May, 1986
Marital Status – Married
Husband’S Name – Mr. Shandy Rajeevan
Address For Communication – YYY
Contact Number – Mobile – 9988776655
Residence – 012 22445566
Mother Tongue – Tamil
Language Known – English and Tamil Hindi and Malayalam (to speak)
Passport Number – A7265511

Educational Background : (In reverse chronological order)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-1
Professional Experience : (In reverse chronological order)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-2
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Hobbies – Photography, Gardening, Reading, Travelling
Expected Salary – Rs 35,000/ per month
Salary Drawn – Rs 32,000/ per month
Reference – 1. Mr. Ravi (XYZ Pvt. Ltd.) 9998887777, 2. Mrs. Rani (Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.

STATION: YYY XXX
DATE : 08.03.20

XX
Signature Of The Applicant

Solved Questions
Informal Letter
(i) Write a letter to your father and mother seeking his permission to join Karate class.

Dear Mom and Dad,

Chennai
01.02.19

I’m fine. I hope all are fine at home. I wish to join the karate class. Mr. Saravanan is the instructor. The charges are only two hundred rupees per month. The classes start next Monday. Please give me permission.

Thank you,

Yours lovingly,
XYZ

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

To
Mr. Mukesh,
12, Railway Station Road,
Nagercoil

(ii) Write a letter to your grandmother enquiring of her health and informing her of your arrival during vacation.
Answer:
Dear Grandma,

Chennai
09.03.19

How are you my dear grandma? I’m fine and am waiting for my vacation. I am coming to visit you and spend the vacation with you, listening to your stories and having your handmade delicacies. I’ll reach Trichy on 25.04.2019. Anxiously waiting to meet you. Love you, grandma.

Thank you,

Yours lovingly,
XYZ

To
Mrs. Seema Mani,
15, MG Road,
Trichy

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Formal Letter
Letter Of Enquiry
(i) As Cultural Secretary of your school, write a letter to the Cultural Program Co-ordinator, Don Bosco School requesting him/her for details regarding the inter-school competitions to be held on 20.1.2019.
Answer:
05 Jan, 2019
B. Amrita
Chettinad School
Ramapuram
Chennai

Cultural Program Co-ordinator
Don Bosco School
Perambur Sir,

Sub: Information regarding inter-school competitions
We have received the notification about the inter-school competitions to be held in your school. Kindly confirm the details that is mentioned in the poster.

  1. Participants from school: 25 No.s
  2. Registration fees : Rs. 250/- (DD attached)
  3. Time of entry: 8.30 am
  4. No. of competitions a participant can take part in: 3
  5. No. of teachers to accompany students: 3
  6. Last date for registration: 10.01.2019

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

The specific conditions and eligibility criteria may please be intimated to us.
I hope you will provide the necessary information at the earliest.

Yours faithfully
B. Amrita
Sports Secretary

To
Cultural Program Co-ordinator
Don Bosco School, Perambur
Chennai

(ii) Roshan M. of 12 Gandhi Nagar, Chennai, a Class XII student of the Science stream sees this advertisement.

Coaching for NEET
Success Institute
10-A, Race course road, Guindy
The best choice to ensure success in NEET exams
Hurry! Join our classes! Limited seats

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

He writes a letter to the institute seeking information about the subjects taught, the timings of the classes, class size and fees. Write his letter.
Answer:
16 March, 2019
Roshan M.
12, Gandhi Nagar
Chennai
The Director
Success Institute
10-A, Race Course Road, Guindy
Chennai

Sir,
Sub: Coaching for NEET
Kindly refer to your advertisement in the Deccan Times dated 14 March. I would like more information and details about NEET coaching the institute offers, facilities available, timings, fee structure and size of classes/groups. I need special coaching in Physics and Chemistry. Please let me know if coaching is available in all these subjects and what is the schedule. Does your institute cater to individual difficulties or do you discuss and resolve general problems?

Kindly enlighten me on all the above points. In case you have a detailed information booklet, do send it to my address given above.

Yours faithfully
Roshan M.

To
The Director
Success Institute
10-A, Race Course Road, Guindy
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

(iii) You are Raghu/Ragini of Tirunelveli. As the teacher in charge of an excursion party that your school is sending on an educational tour to Ajanta and Elora Caves during the Christmas vacation write a letter of inquiry to Happy Tours & Travels, Tirunelveli seeking information regarding transport, accommodation etc.
Answer:
10 March 2019
Ragini R.
5th Main Road, Anbu Nagar
Tirunelveli

M/s Happy Tours & Travels
8, Thendral Nagar
Tirunelveli

Sir,
Sub: Seeking information regarding transport, accommodation etc.

Adithya Vidhya Niketan – Matric Higher Secondry Schoo, Tirunelveli is planning an educational tour of students and teachers to the world famous caves of Ajanta and Elora. The tour party will consist of 20 senior students, two teachers and a peon. We would appreciate if you provide us the specific information regarding the following things at the earliest:

  1. Type of transport to be provided
  2. Rates for AC and Non-AC coaches
  3. Rates for budget-accommodation
  4. Rates for dormitory accommodation, if any.
  5. Separate two rooms for teachers and the peon

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

The itinerary is as follows:
Dec 20: Departure from Tirunelveli
Dec 27: Back to Tirunelveli

We expect complete transparency. No hidden charges, please. Any other details regarding the educational tour will be appreciated.

Yours faithfully,
Ragini R.

To
M/s Happy Tours & Travels
8, Thendral Nagar
Tirunelveli

(iv) You are A.V. Sharmila, in charge of the Physical Education Department of your school. You need various items of sports for the department Write a letter to Mr. Bahadur Singh & Sons, a well known supplier of sports goods, Trichy enquiring him about the rates of each item and the maximum discount that they can offer to you.
Answer:
12 Feb 2019
A.V. Sharmila
10th Main Road, Valadi
Trichy

Mr. Bahadur Singh & Sons
Shop No. 59
Palur
Trichy

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Dear Sir,
Sub: Enquiring about rates & discount
We are old customers of yours and need no introduction. Being a leading supplier of sports goods, we can expect the best quality of goods at competitive rates. As we are placing a bulk order with you, we want to inquire at what rates you can supply each item of different sports. The likely number of items with their details to the purchased are attached with here. Kindly study them thoroughly and give the lowest quotations at which you can supply the desired goods.

Let us remind you that you have been giving us 20% flat discount on various items. As we . are an educational institution, we would expect a special discount that dealers generally give to such institutions. Kindly do the needful and furnish all the details regarding the inquiries at the earliest.

Yours faithfully,
A. V. Sharmila

To
Mr. Bahadur Singh & Sons
Shop No. 59
Palur
Trichy

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Complaint Letter
(i) You are Ramya Mehar of 23-Railway Quarters, Aynavaram, Chennai. Last week you bought a mobile phone from ‘Universal Mobile’, 20L, Luz Corner, Chennai. The mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. Write a complaint letter to the dealer giving details of the nature of the problem and asking him/her to rectify the defect or replace the phone.
Answer:
26th March, 2019
Ramya Mehar
23-Railway Quarters
Aynavaram
Chennai
M/s Universal Mobile
20L, Luz Comer
Chennai

Dear Sirs,
Sub: Defective Mobile Phone

I am a resident of Beedan Pura, Karol Bagh, New Delhi. I purchased a Samsung 2G mobile phone from Universal Mobile on 19th March, 2019.1 am sorry to say that the mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. The sound system is quite irritating and jarring. The camera doesn’t give a clear and deep impression. I feel cheated to have such a defective mobile phone after spending more than twelve thousand mpees. It is quite unfortunate that even after sending two reminders, you have shown no urgency to rectify the defects or replace the defective mobile set at the earliest. I hope you will do the needful within a week. I am sure you will not compel me to knock the doors of the Consumer Court for this unpleasant lapse of time on your part.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Yours sincerely
Ramya Mehar

To
Universal Mobile, Luz Comer
Chennai

(ii) You received a defective computer in response to your order from M/s K.R. Electronic ‘ Gadgets, Triplicane, Chennai. Write a letter to the dealer requesting him to change the defective computer at the earliest. You are Karnan K. of Kamaraj Nagar, Chennai.
Answer:
18th March, 2019
Karnan K.
Kamaraj Nagar
Chennai

K.R. Electronic Gadgets
54-C
Triplicane
Chennai
Sub: Defective Computer
Dear Sir,
I am sorry to express my utter dismay at the poor quality of the computer supplied by you in response to my order, dated 10th March, 2019. On examination, we noticed the following defect and discrepancies in the computer supplied by you:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

  1. The order was for Windows 8, Acer Computers. You have sen’t Windows 7 of the same brand. The price difference of the two brands is quite substantial.
  2. The screen is of quite poor quality and the display is quite hazy.
  3. The sound system lacks depth and clarity.

M/s K.R. Electronic Gadgets is a leading dealer in computers and the company enjoys a good reputation and goodwill in the market. As the purchase is well within the warranty period, I hope you will replace the defective computer at the earliest and oblige. Earliest the letter

Yours sincerely
Karnan K.

To
The Sales Manager
K.R. Electronic Gadgets
Triplicane
Chennai

(iii) Write a letter to the Chairman of the Municipal Board regarding unsanitary conditions of the locality you live in.
Answer:
25 March 2019
Malar
11, Station Road
Ayanavaram
Chennai

The Chairman
Municipal Board
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Sir,
Sub: Insanitary conditions in my locality

I wish to draw your kind attention towards the insanitary conditions that have prevailed in my locality i.e., SVM colony. The light is generally off. Some fruit sellers throw rubbish material on the road. As a result, the road looks dirty. Flies fly over the rubbish all the time. One can find pigs and astray dogs move freely around the rubbish. The entire environment has become suffocative. We students, suffer a lot because mosquitoes trouble us at night when we are studying or doing homework.
I therefore, request you to kindly pay attention to my locality and do the needful.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Malar

To
The Chairman Municipal Board Chennai

Letter Of Placing Order
(i) You are K. Raina, Head of the Chemistry department of Kesari Hr. Secondary School. Chennai. You require various lab apparatuses and chemicals for your laboratory. Write a letter to M/s Om Scientific Works, Chennai placing a bulk order for the purchase of various items. Mention all the necessary details of the items as well as the discounts available on the purchase.
Answer:
20th April, 2019
K. Raina
Kesari Hr. Secondary School
Sharanpur

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

M/s Om Scientific Works
Parrys, Chennai
Sub: Order for apparatus and chemicals
Dear Sirs

I hope we need no introduction. Kesari School has been an old customer of yours. As you are a trusted name in the supply of scientific goods for educational institutions, we are placing a bulk order for the same. We expect competitive rates and discounts on the purchase. The details of the items are as given below.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-3
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

We appreciate the general 20% discount that you provide on the purchase of scientific goods. However, we hope that you will provide an extra 5% discount as most of the dealers are giving to the educational institutions.

All items must reach in proper shape, size and weight.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully
K. Raina

To
M/s Om Scientific Works Parrys,
Chennai

(ii) YOU are L. R. Aggarwal, General Manager, Aggarwal Enterprises, Coimbatore. You ‘ need various items of furniture and stationery for your newly constructed head office. Write a letter to Messers Officials Works, Chennai placing a bulk order for the supply giving all details of the items so ordered.
Answer:
27.05.2019
General Manager
Aggarwal Enterprises
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

M/s Official Works
Central Market
Chennai

Sir,
Sub: Furniture & other items for office

We have to furnish our newly constructed head office and its rooms in Civil Lines, Chennai. We had demanded quotations from various firms that supply furniture and related items for offices.

We are approving the quotations sent by you as they are the lowest. Hence, we have decided to place a bulk order for the supply of furniture, stationery and other related items with you for our office.

The details of the items are furnished below:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-4
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-5
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Kindly send all the items in their proper sizes, specifications and conditions.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully
L. R. Aggarwal

To
M/s Official Works Central Market
Chennai

Letter Of Cancelling Order

(i) You are Raman, Sales Manager of Modern Shoes, Madurai. You placed a bulk order with Messers Shobha Shoes, Madurai for the supply of Shoes for your showroom. The firm has failed to execute the order. In spite of your many reminders. There is no positive response from them. Write a letter to the firm that you are constrained to cancel the order that you had placed to them.
Answer:
25th September, 2018
K. Raman
Modem Shoes
TVS Nagar
Madurai
M/s Shobha Shoes
Pandian Nagar
Madurai
Dear Sirs
Sub: Order for Men s & Women Shoes

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

I can express only my deep dismay and displeasure at the non-execution of the bulk order that we placed with you for the purchase of shoes on 10th August, 2018. The said order was to be executed within 10 days. However, when more than a month expired, you expressed regrets giving the strike of workers in the factory as the main reason of non-execution. We accepted your request for executing the order within a week. We condoned the delay keeping in view of our previous good business terms. As we have not heard from you recently, we have reasons to believe that cancellation of the said order is the only way left out for us. I hope that the cancellation of the said order will not affect our otherwise good business terms in future.

Yours faithfully K. Raman

To
M/s Shobha Shoes
Pandian Nagar
Madurai

Letter Of Request
(i) This summer vacation you are planning to visit Simla. Write a letter to a travel agency in Shimla requesting them to book you a room in a five-star hotel. Give other details of, your journey and facilities you require there. Sign your name as Reena/Mohanan, C/5, Mambalam, Chennai.
Answer:
27.03.2019
C. Mohanan
C/5, Mambalam
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

The Manager
Globe Travel Agency
The Mall, Shimla

Dear Sir,
Sub: Hotel accommodation and other facilities

I am planning to visit Shimla during the summer vacation. I intend to reach there on 16 May ‘ by the IC 308 flight and stay there for a week. You are requested to book a deluxe double bedroom in a five-star hotel, as I will be accompanied by my friend. I shall also need a chauffeur-driven car to take us in and around Shimla.

Please make these facilities available for a week, i.e., from 16 May to 22 May, 2019. A bank draft for ‘ 5000 is enclosed as advance. Please confirm the bookings so that the remaining amount may be sent to you.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully
C. Mohanan

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

To
The Manager
Globe Travel Agency
The Mall, Shimla

Official Letters

(i) You are Shanti/Sravan of New Friends Colony, Chennai. The residents of your area suffer miserably from the frequent power cuts and voltage fluctuations. This results in frequent damage to the electric appliances. Power cuts also cause a great ipconvenience to students at night. Write a letter of complaint to the Chief Engineer, Electricity Board of your area seeking immediate relief and quick action.
Answer:
25 March, 2019
A. Shanti
23-L, New Friends Colony
Pattabiram Chennai
The Chief Engineer
Electricity Board
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Sir,
Sub: Frequent power cuts and low voltage
It is quite surprising that the residents of such a posh colony such as Friends Colony are made to bear a lot of inconvenience and trouble due to frequent break downs of electricity and voltage fluctuations. Delhi doesn’t remain a pleasant place to live in the scorching summer weeks. The temperature shoots even upto 45°C and more. The erratic supply of electric power only compounds the sufferings of the people. The low voltage makes it difficult for the air conditioners and fans to operate at their required capacity. Great voltage fluctuations have resulted in damaging domestic electrical appliances.

Students of the area are the worst sufferers. The examinations are round the comer. They can’t study properly at night even during their examinations. Friends Colony Residents Welfare Association has been taking the issue regularly with the concerned authorities. Nothing fruitful has come out so far. I request on behalf of residents and students in particular to ensure the regular and trouble-free supply of power in the Colony.

Yours truly
A. Shanti

To
The Chief Engineer
Electricity Board
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Letter To The Editor
(i) Given below is an extract from an article in ‘Newsweek’: ‘For years, I ate fast food because it was efficient and cheap. I had no idea 1 could be damaging my health,’ says Caesar Barbar, 56, a maintenance worker with heart disease.

Write a letter to the editor of a daily newspaper on the health hazards caused by junk food using your own ideas
Answer:
29.08.2019
12-L, Saidapet
Chennai

The Editor
The Adayar Times
Chennai

Dear Sir,
Sub: Health hazards caused by junk food
Through the column of your esteemed daily, I want to highlight the health hazards being caused by eating the so called ‘fast or junk food’.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

The globalization is not confined to the economy only. Even our food habits have been globalised. The craze for fast foods like burgers, pizzas and pasta has increased in recent years. The youth have developed special liking for them. McDonalds, KFCs, Pizza Huts are leading multinationals who promote junk foods.

The junk food, no doubt, tingles our tastebuds. But it has little or no nutritional value. The general public, particularly, the youth must know the health hazards caused by the regular . eating of junk food. It causes obesity. Habitual eaters suffer from many other diseases of liver, digestion and kidneys. Let us remember that fresh food cooked in our kitchen with a liberal use of vegetables and fruits is really tasty as well as nutritious. The junk food is good only for ‘junkies’.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully
N. Mani

To
The Editor
The Adayar Times
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Letter Of Application

(i) Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified.
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]

Wanted office assistant for an upcoming CBSE school. An accounts graduate with knowledge in typing and computer operation are welcome. Experience is not a must. Pleasing manners and good communication skills will be a plus.

Apply to the Manager, before 25th March to:
210, Gandhi Road,
Coimbatore
Answer:
From
XXXX
YYYY

To
210, Gandhi Road
Coimbatore – 02.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of office assistant

With reference to your advertisement in The Hindu, dated 8th March, 20XX seeking applications for the post of office assistant, I offer my candidature for the same. Please find enclosed my bio-data / resume to enable you to assess my suitability for the aforesaid post.

Yours sincerely,
XXXX

Resume
Name : XXXX
Date of Birth: 18th May, 1994
Marital Status: Single
Father’s Name: Mr. Rajesh
Address For Communication: YYYY
Contact number – mobile: 9998777688 residence: 22345577
Mother Tongue: Tamil
Language Known: English and Tamil

Educational Background
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-6
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Technical knowledge:
1. English typewriting higher
2. Computer MS office
Hobbies : Dramatics, Reading, Debating.
Expected Salary : 25,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 18,000/per month

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to the best of my knowledge.

Station : YYYY
Date : 10.03.2019

Yours faithfully
XXXX
Signature of the Applicant

To
210, Gandhi Road
Coimbatore – 02.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

(ii) Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified. [Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]

Software Company requires experiences Male/Female Secretary to M.D.
Candidate should be graduate with Software knowledge and good communication skills in English.
Apply to:
Box No: WW 55164
C/o The Hindu
Chennai 02
Answer:
17th Dec, 2019

From
XXXX
YYYY

To
Box No: WW 55164
C/o The Hindu
Chennai 02

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of Secretary to M.D.
With reference to your advertisement in The Hindu, dated 13th March, 20191 would like to apply for the post of secretary in your comapny. Please find enclosed my bio-data / resume to enable you to assess my suitability for the aforesaid post.

Yours sincerely,
XXXX

Resume
Name : XXXX
Date of Birth: 18th July, 1992
Marital Status: Single
Father’s Name: Mr. Ramesh
Address For Communication: YYYY
Contact number – mobile: 9998778588 residence: 22349577
Mother Tongue: Tamil
Language Known: English and Tamil

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Educational Background
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-7
Technical knowledge:
1. English typewriting higher
2. Computer MS office

Experience:
Secretary for 4 years, K.K. Software Company, T.Nagar
Hobbies : Dramatics, Reading, Music.
Expected Salary : 35,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 28,000/ per month
Language Known : English, Hindi and Tamil

I am enclosing photostat copies of my testimonials for your kind perusal.

I request that my application may be favourably considered. I sincerely assure you, sir, of my efficient service to your company, If I am selected. Looking forward to receiving your call letter.

Enel: Copies of testimonials

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to the best of my knowledge.

Station: YYYY
Date : 10.03.2019

Yours faithfully
XXXX
Signature of the Applicant

To
Box No: WW 55164
C/o The Hindu
Chennai 02

(iii) Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified. [Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]

Wanted
A private company requires a salesman to deal with water filters. Experience in a similar position preferable. Apply with bio-data to Box No.3224, C/o. The Hindu, Madurai – 625 002.
Answer:
15th Sept, 2018
From
XXXX
YYYY

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

To
Box No.3224
C/o. The Hindu
Madurai – 625 002

Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of salesman – Regarding

This is in response to your advertisement write to referred above for the post of salesman. I apply for the post of salesman in your esteemed firm. I have the required qualification. My particulars are furnished for your perusal and favourable consideration.

Yours sincerely,
xxxx

Resume
Name: XXXX
Date of Birth: 18th July, 1990
Marital Status: Single
Father’s Name: Karuppiah
Address For Communication: YYYY
Contact number – mobile: 9998778588, residence: 22349577
Mother Tongue: Tamil
Language Known: English and Tamil

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Educational Background
Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing img-8
Technical knowledge:
1. English typewriting higher
2. Computer MS office
Experience: Worked as Sales man in Laxmi Textiles, Kovai for 5 years.

Hobbies : Dramatics, Reading, Music.
Expected Salary : 35,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 28,000/ per month
Joining Time : Can join in a week notice
Language Known : English, Hindi and Tamil

I assure you that if I am selected discharge my duties to the best of my abilities and to the utmost satisfaction of my superiors.

Photo stat copies of my credentials have been enclosed for your kind perusal.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Expected Salary Salary Drawn Joining Time Language Known
Enel: Copies of testimonials

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to the best of my knowledge.

Yours faithfully
XXXX
Signature of the Applicant

Station : YYYY
Date : 15.09.2018

To
The Managing Director, Lakshmi Textiles,
174, Broadway, Chennai – 105

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Letter Writing

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Get a Practical Study with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Grammar to make learning language much easy for you and score good grades in exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

a. Choose the suitable meaning of the idiom found in the following sentences:

Question 1.
It was really difficult for the police to find all the evidence even after applying the whole bag of tricks.
(a) all evidence
(c) all circumstances
(b) Every possible technique
(d) all struggles
Answer:
(b) Every possible technique

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 2.
I have given my bike to a new mechanic for service, hope he delivers the goods.
(a) give the bike
(b) to create a bike
(c) produce bike
(d) do what is expected or promised
Answer:
(d) do what is expected or promised

Question 3.
My class teacher examined my paper with a fine-tooth comb before handing it to the external examiner.
(a) examining in great detail
(b) casually seeing
(c) carelessly reviewing
(d) examining with indifference
Answer:
(a) examining in great detail

Question 4.
I must get all the ducks in a row before my final exams.
(a) getting disoriented
(b) getting freebies
(c) caring for ducks
(d) getting things well organized
Answer:
(d) getting things well organized

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 5.
When the management wanted to cut down on the man power, they offered a golden hand shake to many of their aged employees.
(a) extension of job
(b) renewal of contract
(c) large amount of money given to a person when they leave
(d) give part-time work
Answer:
(c) large amount of money given to a person when they leave

Question 6.
My son has recently learnt painting. He eats, sleeps and breathes it now.
(a) being enthusiastic and passionate about something that you think about it all the time
(b) exploits others without any expertise
(c) does things only for money
(d) does things without conviction
Answer:
(a) being enthusiastic and passionate about something that you think about it all the time

Question 7.
The day of the most awaited trip was nearing. I will be there – with bells on.
(a) being studies
(b) being enthusiastic
(c) being shrewd
(d) being cunning
Answer:
(b) being enthusiastic

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 8.
He has not become a renowned neurologist just by chance. He has his heart set on it after he saw his grandfather suffer from Parkinson’s disease.
(a) to have a weak wish
(b) to be unsure of oneself
(c) to be indifferent
(d) to have a strong desire
Answer:
(d) to have a strong desire

Question 9.
They finally saw eye to eye on buying a Microwave oven.
(a) became angry
(c) wanted revenge
(b) agreeing with someone
(d) felt pity
Answer:
(b) agreeing with someone

Question 10.
When pigs fly she will go for skydiving.
(a) something that will never happen
(b) something that will happen once
(c) something that will happen very soon
(d) something that will happen
Answer:
(a) something that will never happen

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 11.
I don’t like to cut comers with my recipes when I have guests for dinner.
(a) to finish something effectively
(b) to finish something quickly
(c) to do something in the quickest or cheapest way
(d) to do something with a lot of efforts
Answer:
(c) to do something in the quickest or cheapest way

Question 12.
A farmer must keep his fingers on the pulse of the market to be successful.
(a) to be well-informed about current events
(b) to be conscious about one’s health
(c) to be cautious
(d) to take care of the elder’s health
Answer:
(a) to be well-informed about current events

Question 13.
A good candidate will be able to think on his feet to get selected in an interview.
(a) to reach a destination quickly
(b) to walk faster
(c) to know the correct directions
(d) to think and react quickly
Answer:
(d) to think and react quickly

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 14.
Kavya sailed through the IELTS and obtained her visa to go to Canada.
(a) to succeed very easily
(b) to accomplish with lots of efforts
(c) to take the long route
(d) to like sailing
Answer:
(a) to succeed very easily

Question 15.
The new CEO has made a headway in improving the company’s profits.
(a) to have headaches
(b) to be injured in the head
(c) to make progress
(d) to run in a race
Answer:
(c) to make progress

Question 16.
Jagan had worked sincerely for 10 years for his company. He was cut to the quick when his boss held him responsible for the loss in business.
(a) reduce the salary
(b) deeply wound or distress
(c) accidentally injure someone
(d) disregard the efforts taken
Answer:
(b) deeply wound or distress

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 17.
Being absent for a week due to illness, I felt like a fish out of water in the Science class.
(a) to kill a fish
(b) desire to paly in water
(c) desire to go swimming
(d) feeling uncomfortable in unfamiliar surroundings
Answer:
(d) feeling uncomfortable in unfamiliar surroundings

Question 18.
He heard the news about his father’s accident but kept a stiff upper lip.
(a) being angry
(b) to remain resolute and unemotional in adverse situations
(c) to not respond
(d) to bite the lips
Answer:
(b) to remain resolute and unemotional in adverse situations

Question 19.
The wickets of the opponent team fell down very fast, victory seemed to be in the bag at the end of 10 overs.
(a) carry a big bag
(b) hiding something
(c) as good as secured
(d) keep something securely
Answer:
(c) as good as secured

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 20.
The decision of the judges in the final round of selection of participants will make or break him.
(a) to bring success or ruin
(b) will cause injury
(c) will mitigate pain
(d) will help
Answer:
(a) to bring success or ruin

Question 21.
The new movie hit the box office with a flying start and collected the highest revenue on day one.
(a) immediate failure
(b) introduction scene with a flight
(c) more number of flight scenes
(d) immediate success
Answer:
(d) immediate success

Question 22.
We won a wooden spoon at the exhibition.
(a) a spoon made of teak wood
(b) spoon carved on a trunk
(c) imaginary prize for the last person in a competition
(d) a movement made in the shape of a spoon
Answer:
(c) imaginary prize for the last person in a competition

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Question 23.
Being successful in the textile industry, they are now having the world by its tail.
(a) very successful person who can choose from a lot of opportunities
(b) go around the world with minimum cost
(c) having enough money to go around the world
(d) have become world-famous
Answer:
(a) very successful person who can choose from a lot of opportunities

Question 24.
He has to pay back to so many creditors because he lived beyond the means.
(a) very miserly
(b) spend more money than one can afford
(c) lived in relatives house
(d) lived an eccentric life
Answer:
(b) spend more money than one can afford

Question 25.
Her stressful behaviour in tough situations is because she has lived in an ivory tower.
(a) lived a luxurious life
(b) lived in a palace
(c) aloof from the realities and practicalities of life
(d) lived in a joint family
Answer:
(c) aloof from the realities and practicalities of life

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Use Of Soi Me Common Idioms

A hot potato Current issues spoke by many people
A penny for your thoughts Asking what someone is thinking
At the drop of a hat Without any hesitation; instantly
Back to the drawing board Failure leads to a time to start all over
Ball is in your court Up to you to make the decision
Barking up the wrong tree Accusing the wrong person
Beat around the bush Indirectly talking about an issue
Best of both worlds All the advantages
Bite more than you can chew To take on a task that is way too big
Blessing in disguise Some good that isn’t recognized at first
Bum the midnight oil To work late into the night
Wouldn’t be caught dead dislike something very much
Caught between two stools Difficulty in choosing
Costs an arm and a leg Something very expensive
Cry over spilled milk Complaining a loss from the past
Curiosity killed the cat Inquisitiveness leads to unpleasantness
Cut comers Do something to save money
Devil’s Advocate To present a counter-argument
Don’t put all eggs in one basket Do not put all resources in one
Whole nine yards Everything about the case
Elvis has left the building The show has ended. It’s all over
Straight from the horse’s mouth Hear from the authoritative source
Far cry from Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms Very different from
Feel a bit under the weather Feeling slightly ill
Take with a grain of salt Not to be serious about others talk
Hear it on the grapevine To hear rumors about someone
Hit the nail on the head Do or say something exactly right
Hit the sack sheets hay To go to bed Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms
In the heat of the moment Overwhelmed by the happening
Jump on the bandwagon Join a popular trend or activity
Keep something at bay Keep something away
Kill two birds with one stone Accomplish two things at the same time
Last straw The final problem in a series of problems
Steal someone’s thunder Take the credit for something you don’t deserve
Let the cat out of the bag Share information that was hidden
Make a long story short Come to the point – leave out details
Miss the boat To miss an opportunity
Not a spark of decency No manners Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms
Not playing with a full deck Someone who lacks intelligence
On the ball To understand the situation well
Piece of cake An activity that is easy or simple
Put wool over other’s eyes To deceive someone into thinking well of them
Add insult to injury To make a situation worse
Sit on the fence Dislike to choose or make a decision
Speak of the devil The person you are talking about arrives
Back to the wall Hard-pressed situation with no escape
Don’t judge a book by its cover Cannot judge based on appearance
Give the benefit of the doubt Believe someone’s statement, without proof
Below the belt Unfair or unsupporting behavior
Have cold feet Be afraid or frightened

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Idioms

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 2 Number Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU?
(a) Byte
(b) Nibble
(c) Word length
(d) Bit
Answer:
(c) Word length

Question 2.
How many bytes does 1 KiloByte contain?
(a) 1000
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 1024
Answer:
(d) 1024

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII ………………..
(а) American School Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 4.
2^50 is referred as
(a) Kilo
(b) Tera
(c) Peta
(d) Zetta
Answer:
(c) Peta

Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(a) 64

Question 6.
For 11012 what is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
Answer:
(c) D

The Hex Calculator is used to perform addition, subtraction, multiplication and division on two hexadecimal numbers.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 7.
What is the 1’s complement of 00100110?
(a) 00100110
(b) 11011001
(c) 11010001
(d) 00101001
Answer:
(b) 11011001

Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
(a) 645
(b) 234
(c) 876
(d) 123
Answer:
(c) 876

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is data?
Answer:
The term data comes from the word datum which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places or some objects.
Example: Rajesh, 16, XI

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 2.
Write the 1’s complement procedure.
Answer:
Step 1 : convert given decimal number into Binary
Step 2 : if the binary bit contains 8 bits if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
Step 3 : Invert all the bits, (i.e.) change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1.

Question 3.
Convert (46)10 into Binary number
Answer:
(46)10 into binary = 1011102
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 1

Question 4.
We cannot find 1’s complement for (28)10. State reason.
Answer:
Since it is a positive number. 1 ’s complement will come only for negative number.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters in memory.
Answer:

  1. BCD – Binary Coded Decimal
  2. EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
  3. ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  4. Unicode
  5. ISCII – Indian standard code for Information interchange

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example.
Answer:
The radix refers to the base of a number system: the total number of possible digits. The decimal number system that we all use is base ten, as it has ten distinct digits (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9).
Example : Binary system – Radix 2

Question 2.
Write note on binary number system.
Answer:
In Binary Number System, there are only two digits namely 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2. In the Binary Number, the left most bit is the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and the right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB). MSB has largest positional weight and LSB has smallest positional weight.
Example : 1100102

Question 3.
Convert (150)10 into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal.
Step 1:
Change it to Binary.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 2
(150)10 = 10010110

Step – 2:
Change it to Octal.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 3
Answer:
Binary 100101102
Octal 226g

Question 4.
Write short note on ISCII.
Answer:
ISCII – Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII) is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This is a 8 – bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. It is recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). It is integrated with Unicode.

The supported scripts are:
Assamese, Bengali (Bangla), Devanagari, Gujarati, Gurmukhi, Kannada, Malayalam, Oriya, Tamil, and Telugu. ISCII does not encode the writing systems of India based on Arabic, but its writing system switching codes none the less provide for Kashmiri, Sindhi, Urdu, Persian, Pashto and Arabic. The Arabic – based writing systems were subsequently encoded in the PASCII encoding.

ISCII is an 8 – bit encoding. The lower 128 code points are plain ASCII, the upper 128 code points are ISCII – specific. In addition to the code points representing characters, ISCII makes use of a code point with mnemonic ATR that indicates that the following byte contains one of two kinds of information. One set of values changes the writing system until the next writing system indicator or end – of – line.

Question 5.
Add (a) – 2210 + 1510
(b) 2010 + 2510
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 4
Answer:
(a) – 2210 = 101102
Binary Equivalent = 101102
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 5
Answer:
111110012

(b) 2010 + 2510
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 6
Answer:
001011012

IV. Detail Answers

Question 1.
(a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
(b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary
Answer:
(а) Procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
Step 1 : Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either Oor 1.
Step 2 : Discard the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2. Repeat step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3 : The resulting integer part forms a sequence of 0’s and 1 ’s that becomes the binary equivalent of decimal fraction.
Step 4 : The final answer is to be written from first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.

(b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 7
Answer:
1100010.01110 … 2

Question 2.
Find 1’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number (a) – 98 (b) – 135
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 8
9810 = 01100010
8 bit format = 01100010
1’s complement = 10011101
Add 1 bit = + 1
= 10011110
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 41

13510 = 10000111
1’st complement = 01111000
Add 1 bit = + 1
= 01111001

Question 3.
(a) Add 11010102 + 1011012
(b) Subtract 11010112 – 1110102
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 9

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals?
(a) Boolean algebra
(b) Gate
(c) Fundamental gates
(d) Derived gates
Answer:
(b) Gate

Question 2.
Which gate is called as the logical inverter?
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) XNOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 3.
A + A = ?
(a) A
(b) O
(c) 1
(d) A
Answer:
(a) A

Question 4.
NOR is a combination of?
(a) NOT(OR)
(b) NOT(AND)
(c) NOT(NOT)
(d) NOT(NOR)
Answer:
(a) NOT(OR)

Question 5.
NAND is called as ……………… Gate.
(a) Fundamental Gate
(b) Derived Gate
(c) Logical Gate
(d) Electronic gate
Answer:
(b) Derived Gate

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Boolean Algebra?
Answer:
Boolean algebra is a mathematical discipline that is used for designing digital circuits in a digital computer. It describes the relation between inputs and outputs of a digital circuit.

Question 2.
Write a short note on NAND Gate.
Answer:
The NAND gate is the combination of NOT and AND gates. The NAND gate is generated by inverting the output of a AND gate. The algebraic expression of the NAND is Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A} . \mathrm{B}}\)

Question 3.
Draw the truth table for XOR gate.
Answer:
The truth table for XOR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 10

Question 4.
Write the associative laws?
Answer:
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A.(B.C) = (A.B).C

Question 5.
What are derived gates?
Answer:
Derived Gates are the gates which are derived from the fundamental gates.
Example : NAND, NOR, XOR, XNOR

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the truth table of fundamental gates.
Answer:
(a) AND gate – Truth Table
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 11

(b) OR gate – Truth Table
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 12

(c) NOT Gate – Truth Table
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 13

Question 2.
Write a short note on XNOR gate.
The XNOR (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination of XOR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if the inputs are same and false if the inputs are different.
The output of XNOR is C = AB + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
= A \(\odot\) B
Where \(\odot\) indicates included dot.
Truth Table:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 14
Logic symbol:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 15
Logic circuit:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 16

Question 3.
Reason out why the NAND an NOR are called universal gates?
Answer:
NAND and NOR gates are called as Universal gates because the fundamental logic gates can be realized through them.

Question 4.
Give the truth table of XOR gate.
Answer:
XOR – Truth Table
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 17

Question 5.
Write the De Morgan’s law.
Answer:
De Morgan’s \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) . \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(\(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the fundamental gates with expression and truth table.
Answer:
A gate is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an output signal.
The three fundamental gates are AND, OR and NOT gates.

AND Gate:
The AND gate can have two or more input signals and produce an output signal. The output is “true” only when both inputs are “true”, otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words the output will be 1 if and only if both inputs are 1; otherwise the output is 0. The output of the AND gate is represented by a variable say C, where A and B are two and if input boolean variables. In boolean algebra, a variable can take either of the values ‘0’ or ‘1’. The logical symbol of the AND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 18
The truth table for AND gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 19

OR Gate:
The OR gate gets its name from its behaviour like the logical inclusive “OR”. The output is “true” if either or both of the inputs are “true”. If both inputs are “false” then the output is “false”. In other words the output will be 1 if and only if one or both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0. The logical symbol of the OR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 20
The truth table for OR gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 21

NOT Gate:
The NOT gate, called a logical inverter, has only one input. It reverses the logical state. In other words the output C is always the complement of the input. The logical symbol of the NOT gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 22
The truth table for NOT gate is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 23

Question 2.
How AND and OR can be realized using NAND and NOR gate.
Bubbled AND Gate
(i) Realized of and using only AND gate:
The Boolean function for AND is C = AB. The same can be realized using only NAND gates.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 24
(ii) Realization of or using only NAND’s:
The Boolean function of OR is C = A + B. The same can be realized using only NAND gates.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 25
(iii) Realization of AND using NOR:
By using only the NOR gates, we can get the output equivalent to the output of AND gate.
C = A.B
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems
(iv) Realization of OR using NOR’s:
By using only NOR gates we are getting the output equivalent to OR gate.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 27

Question 3.
Explain the Derived gates with expression and truth table.
Answer:
The logic gates like NAND, NOR, XOR and XNOR are derived gates which are derived from the fundamental gates AND, OR NOT.
(i) NAND gate:
The NAND is the combination of NOT and AND. The NAND is generated by inverting the output of an AND operation.
Output: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Logic circuit
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 28
Logic symbol:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 29
Truth table:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 30
Inputs Outputs
(ii) NOR gate:
The NOR is the combination of NOT and OR. The NOR is generated by inverting the output of an OR operation.
Logic function: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Logic circuit:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 31

logic symbol:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 32
Truth table:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 33

(iii) XOR gate:
The XOR (exclusive – OR) gate acts in the same way as the logical either /or.
Logic symbol:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 34
Logic circuit:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 35
Truth table:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 36

(iv) XNOR gate:
XNOR gate (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination of XOR gate followed by an inverter.
Logic function: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 37
logic symbol:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 38
Truth table:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 39
Boolean function:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 40

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The simplest method to represent negative binary number is called ………………..
(a) signed magnitude
(b) sign bit or parity bit
(c) binary
(d) decimal
Answer:
(a) signed magnitude

Question 2.
The term data comes from the word ………………..?
(a) number
(b) datum
(c) nibble
(d) bit
Answer:
(b) datum

Question 3.
Expansion for BCD ………………..
(a) Binary coded decimal
(b) binary complement decimal
(c) binary computer decimal
(d) binary convert decimal
Answer:
(a) Binary coded decimal

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 4.
……………….. scheme is denoted by hexadecimal numbers.
(a) binary
(b) Unicode
(c) word length
(d) data
Answer:
(b) Unicode

Question 5.
The ……………….. operator is defined in boolean algebra by the use of the dot (.) operator.
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) NAND
Answer:
(a) AND

Question 6.
A ……………….. number is represented using base 16.
(a) Hexadecimal
(b) octal
(c) binary
(d) decimal
Answer:
(a) Hexadecimal

Question 7.
The convert (65)10 into its equivalent octal number ………………..
(a) (101)8
(b) (101)10
(c) (101)12
(d) (101)4
Answer:
(a) (101)8

Question 8.
Octal number system uses digits ………………..
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 9.
……………….. is the general idea behind positional numbering system.
(a) Radix
(b) Computer memory
(c) Binary number
(d) Decimal number
Answer:
(a) Radix

Question 10.
The NAND gate operates an AND gate followed by a ……………….. gate.
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) XOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Question 11.
Bit means ………………..
(a) nibble
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) binary digit
Answer:
(d) binary digit

Question 12.
Expand BIT.
(a) Basic Input Term
(b) Binary Input Term
(c) Binary Digit
(d) Binary Inverse Digit
Answer:
(c) Binary Digit

Question 13.
The computer can understand ……………….. languages.
(a) computer
(b) machine
(c) post
(d) pre
Answer:
(b) machine

Question 14.
Identify the wrong pair.
1. 1 YB = 2^80
2. 1 BM = 2^70
3. 1 MB = 2^20
4. 1 TM = 2^40
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 15.
How many bytes does 1 zetta byte contains?
(a) 290
(b) 280
(c) 270
(d) 260
Answer:
(c) 270

Question 16.
The collection of 4 bits is ………………..
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) nibble
(d) KB
Answer:
(c) nibble

Question 17.
Match the following.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 59
(a) 4 12 3
(b) 12 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
Answer:
(a) 4 12 3

Question 18.
1 kilo byte represents ……………….. bytes.
(a) 512
(b) 256
(c) 1024
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 1024

Question 19.
How many mega bytes does 1 GB contains?
(a) 220
(b) 210
(c) 230
(d) 240
Answer:
(b) 210

Question 20.
What is the decimal value of 11112?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(d) 15

Question 21.
What is the 1’ s complement of 11001.
(a) 11100110
(b) 01010101
(c) 11110000
(d) 100100111
Answer:
(a) 11100110

Question 22.
The decimal value of Binary number 10 is ………………..
(a) 101010
(b) 2
(c) 100
(d) A
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 23.
The hexadecimal equivalent of 15 is ………………..
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) F
Answer:
(d) F

Question 24.
Which of the following are data?
(a) Alphabet
(b) Special character
(c) Number
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 25.
The radix of hexadecimal number is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 26.
Pick the odd one.
(a) BCD
(b) ENIAC
(c) ASCII
(d) EBCDIC
Answer:
(b) ENIAC

Question 27.
The most commonly used number system is ………………..
(a) binary
(b) decimal
(c) octal
(d) hexadecimal
Answer:
(b) decimal

Question 28.
Unicode can handles how many characters?
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 256
(d) 65536
Answer:
(d) 65536

Question 29.
What does MSB means?
(a) Major sign bit
(b) Most sign bit
(c) Minor sign bit
(d) Most significant bit
Answer:
(d) Most significant bit

Question 30.
Which one is the right most bit?
(a) MSB
(b) LSB
(c) USB
(d) USRB
Answer:
(b) LSB

Question 31.
The binary equivalent of hexadecimal number B is ………………..
(a) 1011
(b) 1100
(c) 1001
(d) 1010
Answer:
(a) 1011

Question 32.
The left most bit of a positive binary number in signed notation is ………………..
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) A
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 33.
What is the range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets?
(a) 65 to 90
(b) 65 to 122
(c) 97 to 122
(d) 98 to 122
Answer:
(c) 97 to 122

Question 34.
The radix for octal number system is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 16
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 35.
What is the ASCII value for blank space?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 18
(d) 32
Answer:
(d) 32

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 36.
Which one of the following company have formulated EBCDIC?
(a) Microsoft
(b) 1 BM
(c) Sun
(d) Apple
Answer:
(b) 1 BM

Question 37.
Which one of the following bit has smallest positional weight?
(a) MSB
(b) LSB
(c) UPS
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) LSB

Question 38.
The base value of hexadecimal number is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 39.
Name the person who proposed the basic principles of Boolean Algebra?
(a) Wiliam Boole
(b) George Boole
(c) James Boole
(d) Boolean George
Answer:
(b) George Boole

Question 40.
How many truth values are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 41.
What is the other name for logical statement?
(a) Truth values
(b) Truth functions
(c) Truth table
(d) Truth variables
Answer:
(b) Truth functions

Question 42.
The variables which can store the truth values are called as ………………..
(a) logical variable
(b) binary valued variable
(c) boolean variables
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 43.
The NOT operator is represented by the symbol.
(a) over bar
(b) single apostrophe
(c) a and b
(d) plus
Answer:
(c) a and b

Question 44.
Which is not a logical operator?
(a) dot
(b) plus
(c) over bar
(d) command
Answer:
(d) command

Question 45.
The output for the AND operator is ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) –
(c) A.B
(d) AB + C
Answer:
(c) A.B

Question 46.
Which symbol is used to in OR operator?
(a) –
(b) •
(c) *
(d) +
Answer:
(d) +

Question 47.
Which gate takes only one input?
(a) OR
(b) AND
(c) NOT
(d) XOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Question 48.
Which among the following can be replaced by a bubbled AND gate?
(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c) OR
(d) not
Answer:
(b) NAND

Question 49.
Which is not a derived date?
(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c) NOR
(d) XOR
Answer:
(a) AND

Question 50.
Find the universal gates from the following.
(a) XOR
(b) XNOR
(c) a and b
(d) NOR
Answer:
(d) NOR

Question 51.
The statement “C equal the complement of A or B” means
(a) C = A + B
(b) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(c) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(d) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(a) C = A + B

Question 52.
Which symbol is used in XOR gate?
(a) \(\odot\)
(b) \(\otimes\)
(c) \(\oplus\)
(d) –
Answer:
(c) \(\oplus\)

Question 53.
Included dot means ………………..
(a) \(\odot\)
(b) [•]
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 60
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 61
Answer:
(a) \(\odot\)

Question 54.
What is the output of XOR gate?
(a) C = A% B
(b) C = A \(\otimes\) A
(c) C = A \(\odot\) B
(d) C = A \(\oplus\) B
Answer:
(d) C = A \(\oplus\) B

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 55.
Identify the statement which is wrong.
(a) A . 1 = A
(b) A . A = A
(c) A + O = A
(d) A . 1 = 0
Answer:
(b) A . A = A

Question 56.
Find A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) .B = ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) A.B
(c) \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\).B
(d) A.\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(d) A.\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 57.
Identify the statements which are true.
(i) A + 0 = A
(ii) A.A = A
(iii) A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 1
(iv) A. O = O

(a) (iii) (iv) are true
(b) (i) (ii) are true
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are true.
(d) all are true
Answer:
(d) all are true

Question 58.
Find the wrong pair from the following:
(a) Null element : A + 1 = 1
(b) Involution : \(\overset { = }{ A }\) = A
(c) Demorgan’s : \(\overline{\mathrm{A+B}}\) =\(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) . \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\)
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A
Answer:
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A

Question 59.
Match the following
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 44
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 60.
With 2 inputs in the truth table, how many set of values will be obtained.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 4

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is nibble?
Answer:
Nibble is a collection of 4 bits. A nibble is a half a byte.

Question 2.
Expand ASCII.
Answer:
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 3.
What is radix?
Answer:
The base value of a number is also known as the radix.

Question 4.
What is MSB and LSB?
Answer:
MSB means Most Significant Bit; LSB-Least Significant Bit

Question 5.
Expand: BCD, EBCDIC, ASCII
Answer:
BCD – Binary Coded Decimal; EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code; ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange.

Question 6.
Define word length?
Answer:
Word length refers to the number of bits processed by a computers CPU.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 7.
What are the methods of converting a number from decimal to binary.
Answer:

  1. Repeated division by two.
  2. Sum of powers of 2.

Question 8.
How will you convert a number from octal to Binary.
Answer:
For each octal digit in the given number write its 3 digits binary equivalent using positional notation.

Question 9.
What are the various ways for Binary representation of signed numbers?
Answer:

  1. Signed magnitude representation
  2. 1’s complement
  3. 2’s complement

Question 10.
Write a short note on BCD.
Answer:

  1. BCD stands for Binary Coded Decimal system.
  2. BCD is 26 bit encoding system.
  3. IT can handle 64 characters.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is binary number system?
Answer:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 45
Example:
The binary sequence (11101)2 has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)2 = 1 x 23 + 1 x 22 + 0 x 21 + 1 x 20
= 8 + 4 + 0 + 1
= (13)10

Question 2.
What is octal number system?
Answer:
Octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (8 digits): Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.
Example:
The Octal sequence (547)8 has the decimal equivalent:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Question 3.
What is decimal number system?
Answer:
It consists of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9(10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day to day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.
Example:
(123)10 = (1 x 102) + (2 x 101) + (3 x 100)
= 100 + 20 + 3
= (123)10

Question 4.
Write the distributive law.
Answer:
A . (B + C) = A . B + A . C
A + (B . C) = (A + B) . (A + C)

Question 5.
What is truth table?
Answer:
A truth table represents all the possible values of logical variable or statements along with ail the possible results of given combination of truth values.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the different types of number systems?
Answer:
Different Types of Number Systems
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 46
A numbering system is a way of representing numbers. The most commonly used numbering system in real life is Decimal number system. Other number systems are Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal number system. Each number system is uniquely identified by its base value or radix. Radix or base is the count of number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind positional numbering system.

Decimal Number System:
It consists of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9(10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day to day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.
Example:
(123)10 = 1 x 102 + 2 x 101 + 3 x 100
= 100 + 20 + 3
= (123)10

Binary Number System:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 47
Example:
The binary sequence (1101)2 has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)2 = 1 x 23 + 1 x 22 + 0 x 21 + 1 x 20
= 8 + 4 + 0 + 1
= (13)10

Octal Number System:
Octal number system uses digits 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.
Example:
The Octal sequence (547)8 has the decimal equivalent:
(547)8 = 5 x 82 + 4 x 82 + 7 x 80
= 5 x 64 + 4 x 8 + 7 x 1
= 320 + 32 + 7
= (359)10

Hexadecimal Number System:
A hexadecimal number is represented using base 16. Hexadecimal or Hex numbers are used as a shorthand form of binary sequence. This system is used to represent data in a more compact manner. Since 16 symbols are used, 0 to F, the notation is called hexadecimal. The first 10 symbols are the same as in the decimal system, 0 to 9 and the remaining 6 symbols are taken from the first 6 letters of the alphabet sequence, A to F, where A represents 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 13, E is 14 and F is 15.

Question 2.
Explain the octal to decimal conversion and hexadecimal to decimal conversion.
Answer:
Octal to Decimal Conversion:
To convert Octal to Decimal, we can use positional notation method.

  1. Write down the Octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left(Positional Notation).
  2. For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
  3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
  4. Add all the values.

Example:
Convert (1265)8 to equivalent Decimal number
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 48
(1265)8 = 512 x 1 + 64 x 2 + 8 x 6 + 1 x 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)8 = (693)10

Hexadecimal to Decimal Conversion:
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

  1. Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation).
  2. For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
  3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
  4. Add all the values to get one final value.

Example:
Convert (25F)16 into its equivalent Decimal number.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 49

Question 3.
Explain the binary addition and binary subtraction
Answer:
Binary Addition:
The following table is useful when adding two binary numbers.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 50
Example Add: 10112 + 10012
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 51
Example : Perform Binary addition for the
following : 2310 + 1210
Step 1 : Convert 23 and 12 into binary form
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 52
Step 2 : Binary addition of 23 and 12:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 53

Binary Subtraction:
The table for Binary Subtraction is as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 54
When subtracting 1 from 0, borrow 1 from the next Most Significant Bit, when borrowing from the next Most Significant Bit, if it is 1, replace it with 0. If the next Most Significant Bit is 0, you must borrow from a more significant bit that contains 1 and replace it with 0 and Os upto that point become Is.
Example : Subtract 10010102 – 101002
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 55
Example Perform binary addition for the following: (-21)10 + (5)10
Step 1 : Change – 21 and 5 into binary form
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 56

Step 2:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 57

Step 3.
Binary Addition of – 21 and 5:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems 58

Question 4.
Explain the theorems of boolean algebra.
Answer:
Theorems of Boolean Algebra:
Identity:
A + 0 = A
A. 1 = A

Complement:
A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 1
A. \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 0

Commutative:
A + B = B + A
A. B = B .A

Associative:
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A. (B . C) = (A. B). C

Distributive
A. (B + C) = A B + A. C
A + (B . C) = (A + B). (A + C)

Null Element:
A + 1 = 1
A. 0 = 0

Involution
(\(\overset { = }{ A }\)) = A

Indempotence:
A +A = A
A.A = A

Absorption:
A + (A . B) = A
A . (A + B) = A

3rd Distributive:
A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\). B = A + B

De Morgan’s:
\(\overline{\mathrm{A+B}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\).\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(\(\overline{\mathrm{A.B}}\)) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Motion Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

This is free online Displacement calculator. enter Initial and final value then click on calculate and result will be instant displayed

Question 1.
The area under velocity-time graph represents the
(a) velocity of the moving object
(b) displacement covered by the moving object
(c) speed of the moving object
(d) acceleration of the moving object
Answer:
(d) acceleration of the moving object

Question 2.
Which one of the following is most likely not a case of uniform circular motion?
(a) Motion of the Earth around the Sun
(b) Motion of a toy train on a circular track
(c) Motion of a racing car on a circular track
(d) Motion of hour’s hand on the dial of the clock
Answer:
(a) Motion of the Earth around the Sun

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 3.
Which of the following graph represents uniform motion of a moving particle?
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 1
Answer:
(b) Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 2

Question 4.
The centrifugal force is
(a) a real force
(b) the force of reaction of centripetal force
(c) virtual force
(d) directed towards the centre of the circular path
Answer:
(c) virtual force

The Velocity Calculator is a free tool to predict how much work a team will complete during upcoming iterations.

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. Speed is a ____________ quantity whereas velocity is a _____________ quantity.
  2. The slope of the distance-time graph at any point gives ____________
  3. Negative acceleration is called ____________
  4. Area under velocity-time graph shows ___________

Answer:

  1. scalar, vector
  2. speed
  3. retardation (or) deceleration
  4. displacement

III. True or False.

  1. The motion of a city bus in a heavy traffic road is an example of uniform motion.
  2. Acceleration can get a negative value also.
  3. Distance covered by a particle never becomes zero but displacement becomes zero.
  4. The velocity-time graph of a particle falling freely under gravity would be a straight line parallel to the x axis.
  5. If the velocity-time graph of a particle is a straight line inclined to X-axis then its displacement – time graph will be a straight line.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True

IV. Assertion and Reason Type Question.

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 1.
Assertion: The accelerated motion of an object may be due to change in magnitude of velocity or direction or both of them.
Reason: Acceleration can be produced only by change in magnitude of the velocity. It does not depend the direction.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: The Speedometer of a car or a motor-cycle measures its average speed.
Reason: Average velocity is equal to total displacement divided by the total time taken.
Answer:
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 3.
Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason: The displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final position.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

V. Match the following.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 3
Answer:
1. (D)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)

VI. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Define velocity.
Answer:

  • Velocity is the rate of change of displacement. It is the displacement with unit time. It is a vector quantity. The SI unit of velocity is ms-1
  • Thus, Velocity = Displacement/time taken.

Question 2.
Distinguish distance and displacement.
Answer:

S.No.

Distance

Displacement

1. The actual length of the path traveled by a moving body irrespective of the direction The change in position of a moving body in a particular direction
2. Scalar quantity Vector quantity

Question 3.
What do you mean by uniform motion?
Answer:
An object is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time howsoever big or small these time intervals may be.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 4.
Compare Speed and Velocity.
Answer:

S.No. Speed

Velocity

1. The rate of change of distance The rate of change of displacement
2. Scalar quantity Vector quantity
3. Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { time taken }}\) Velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)

Question 5.
What do you understand about negative acceleration?
Answer:
If velocity decreases with time the value of acceleration is negative.
Note: Negative acceleration is called retardation or deceleration.

Question 6.
Is the uniform circular motion accelerated? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
When an object is moving with a constant speed along a circular path, the velocity changes due to the change in direction. Hence it is an accelerated motion.

Question 7.
What is meant by uniform circular motion? Give two examples of uniform circular motion.
Answer:
When an object moves with constant speed along a circular path, the motion is called uniform circular motion.
Ex. (i) Revolution of Earth around the Sun
(ii) Revolution of Moon around the Earth.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive equations of motion by graphical method.
Answer:
An object is in motion with initial velocity u attains a final velocity v in time t due to acceleration a, with displacement S.
Let us try to derive these equations by graphical method. Equations of motion from velocity – time graph:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 4
Graph shows the change in velocity with time for an uniformly accelerated object. The object starts from the point D in the graph with velocity u. Its velocity keeps increasing and after time t it reaches the point B on the graph.
The initial velocity of the object = u = OD = EA
The final velocity of the object = v = OC = EB
Time = t = OE = DA
Also from the graph we know that, AB = DC

For First equation of motion
By definition, acceleration = change in velocity / time
= (final velocity – initial velocity)/time
= (OC – OD) / OE = DC / OE
a = DC/t
DC = AB = at
From the graph EB = EA + AB
v = u + at ….(1)
This is first equation of motion.

For Second equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the rectangle DOEA + area of the triangle DAB
= (AE × OE) + (1/2 × AB × DA)
s = ut + 1/2at2 ….(2)
This is second equation of motion.

For Third equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of the quadrangle DOEB. Here DOEB is a trapezium. Then
s = area of trapezium DOEB
= 1/2 × sum of length of parallel side × distance between parallel sides
= 1/2 × (OD + BE) × OE
s = 1/2 × (u + v) × t
Since a = (v – u) / t or t = (v – u)/a
Therefore = 1/2 × (v + u) × (v – u)/a .
2as = v2 = u2 + 2as
v2 = u2 + 2as ………(3)
This is third equation of motion.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 2.
Explain different types of motion.
Answer:
Different types of motion:

  1. Linear motion: The motion of an object along a straight line is known as linear motion.
    Ex: Car moving on a straight road.
  2. Circular motion: The motion of an object in a circular path is known as circular motion.
    Ex: Earth revolving around the sun.
  3. Oscillatory motion: Repetitive to and fro motion of an object at regular interval of time is called oscillatory motion. Ex: Motion of pendulum of a clock.
  4. Random motion: The disordered or irregular motion of a body is called random motion.
    Ex: Movement of fish underwater.

VIII. Exercise problems.

Question 1.
A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20m. If its velocity increases uniformly at the rate of 10 ms– 2. With what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it strike the ground?
Given: height = 20 m
acceleration = 10 ms– 2
Formula: For free falling body,

  1. v = gt
  2. s = 1/2 gt2
    Solution:
    time taken to strike the ground
    s = 1/2 gt2
    20m = 1/2 × 10 ms – 2 × t2
    t2 = \(\frac{40 m}{10 m s^{-2}}\) = 4s 2
    ∴ t = 2s
  3. Velocity of the ball when it strikes ground v = gt
    v = 10ms– 2 × 2s
    v = 20ms– 1

Question 2.
An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 m and 20 s?
Given: Diameter of circular track = 200m
time to complete = 40s
Formula: Circumference of circular track = d. π m
speed = distance/time
Solution:
Circumference of the track = d.π
= 200 × 3.14 = 628m
speed = \(\frac{628 m}{40 s}\) = 15.7 ms– 1
Distance covered in 2 min 20 s = speed × time
In the given time athlete covers 31/2 rounds = 2198m
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 5
The final position of athlete is as shown in figure (A – initial position, B – final position)
∴ Displacement = Distance × time
= 200 m

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 3.
A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 ms– 2. What distance it covers in 10 s after the start?
Given: acceleration = 4ms– 2.
time = 10s and initial velocity = 0
Formula: s = ut + 1/2 at2
Solution:
distance covered s = 0 × t + 1/2 × 4 ms– 2 × (10 s)2.
s = 1/2 × 4 ms– 2 × 100 s2
= 1/2 × 400m
= 200m

Solved Examples.

Question 1.
An object travels 16 m in 4 s and then another 16 m in 2 s. What is the average speed of the object?
Solution:
Total distance travelled by the object =16m + 16m = 32m
Total time taken = 4s + 2s = 6s
Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total distance travelled }}{\text { total time taken }}\) = \(\frac{32}{6}\) = 5.33 ms– 1
Therefore, the average speed of the object is 5.33 ms– 1.

Question 2.
A sound is heard 5 s later than the lightning is seen in the sky on a rainy day. Find the distance of location of lightning? Given the speed of sound = 346 ms– 1
Solution:
Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { time }}\)
Distance = speed x time = 346 x5 = 1730 m
Thus, the distance of location of lightning = 1730 m

Question 3.
The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 6 ms– 2 in the opposite direction to the motion. If the car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes, calculate the distance traveled during this time.
Solution:
We have been given a = – 6 ms– 2, t = 2s and v = 0
From the equation of motion,
v = u + at
0 = u + (- 6 × 2) .
0 = u – 12 ∴ u = 12 ms– 1
s = ut + 1/2 at2
= (12 × 2) + 1/2 (- 6 × 2 × 2) .
= 24 – 12 = 12m
Thus, the car will move 12 m before it stops after the application of brakes.

Question 4.
A 900 kg car moving at 10 ms– 1 takes a turn around a circle with a radius of 25 m.
Determine the acceleration and the net force acting upon the car.
Solution:
When the car turns around circle, it experiences centripetal acceleration a = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)
a = \(\frac{(10)^{2}}{25}=\frac{100}{25}\) ∴ a = 4ms– 2
Net force acting upon the car,
F = ma = 900 × 4 = 3600N

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Look around you. You can see many things: a row of houses, large trees, small plants, flying birds, running cars and many more. List the objects which remain fixed at their position and the objects which keep on changing their position.
Answer:

  1. The objects which remain fixed at their position, and do not change their position are a row of houses, large trees and small plants.
  2. The objects which keep on changing their position are flying birds, running cars and buses.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 2.
Tabulate the distance covered by a bus in a heavy traffic road in equal intervals of time and do the same for a train which is not in an accelerated motion. From your table what do you understand?
Answer:
The bus covers unequal distance in equal intervals of time but the train covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
(The students can do this activity by themselves)

Question 3.
Observe the motion of a car as shown in the figure and answer the following questions:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 6
Compare the distance covered by the car through the path ABC and AC. What do you observe? Which path gives the shortest distance to reach D from A? Is it the path ABCD or the path ACD or the path AD?
Answer:

  1. AB + BC
    ABC = 4m + 3m=7m
    AC = 5 m
  2. AB + BC + CD
    ABCD = 4m + 3m + 4m = 11m
    ACD = AC + CD = 5m + 4m = 9m
    AD = 3 m
    The shortest distance to reach D from A will be AD, that is 3 m.

Question 4.
Take a large stone and a small eraser. Stand on the top of a table and drop them simultaneously from the same height?
What do you observe? Now, take a small eraser and a sheet of paper. Drop them simultaneously from the same height?
What do you observe? This time, take two sheets of paper having same mass and crumple one of the sheets into a ball. Now, drop the sheet and the ball from the same height. What do you observe?
Answer:
Both the stone and the eraser have reached the surface of the Earth almost at the same time in the absence of air medium (vacuum). But in air medium, due to friction, air offers resistance to the motion of free falling objects. The eraser reaches the first, the sheet of paper reaches later. The air resistance exerted on the sheet of paper is much higher than that of the eraser. The paper crumpled into a ball reaches ground first and plain sheet of paper reaches later, although they have equal mass. The air resistance offer to the plain sheet of paper is much higher than that offered to the paper ball. This is because the magnitude of air resistance depends on the area of objects exposed to air.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 5.
Take a piece of thread and tie a small piece of stone at one of its ends. Rotate the stone to describe a circular path with constant speed by holding the thread at the other end. Now, release the thread and let the stone go. Can you tell the direction in which the stone moves after it is released?
Answer:
The stone moves along the straight line tangential to the circular path. This is because once the stone releases, it continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instant.

Question 6.
Take a piece of rope and tie a small stone at one end. Hold the other end of the rope and rotate it such that the stone follows a circular path.
Do you experience any pull or push in your hand?
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 7
In this activity, a pulling force that acts away from the centre is experienced. This is called as centrifugal force.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Motion Additional Questions:

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The area under velocity time graph represents ………….
(a) Velocity of the moving object
(b) Displacement covered by the moving object
(c) Speed of the moving object
Answer:
(b) Displacement covered by the moving object

Question 2.
Unit of acceleration is ………………
(a) ms– 1
(b) ms– 2
(c) ms
(d) ms2
Answer:
(b) ms– 2

Question 3.
When a body starts from rest, the acceleration of the body after 2 second in ………………. of its displacement.
(a) Half
(b) Twice
(c) Four times
(d) One fourth
Answer:
(a) Half

II. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
A bus travels, a distance of 20 km from Chennai central to airport in 45 minutes. What is the average speed?
Given: Distance = 20 km = 20,000 m
Time = 45 min = 2700 s
Formula: Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total Distance }}{\text { Total Time taken }}\)
Solution:
Average speed = \(\frac{20 \mathrm{km}}{45 \mathrm{min}}=\frac{20,000 \mathrm{m}}{2700 \mathrm{s}}\)
= \(\frac{200 m}{27 s}\) = 7.4 ms – 1

Question 2.
Why did the actual speed differ from average, speed?
Answer:
Actual speed gives instantaneous speed of a body at any instant but average speed is the total distance covered by total time taken.

Question 3.
Mention the uses of velocity-time graph.
Answer:

  1. Area covered under velocity – time graph gives us the displacement
  2. Slope of the velocity – time graph gives us the acceleration.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 4.
The speed of a particle is constant. Will it have acceleration? Justify with an example.
Answer:

  1. When a particle is moving with a constant speed along a straight line, it has no acceleration.
  2. When a particle is moving with a constant speed along a circular path, the velocity changes due to the change in direction. Hence it has a acceleration.
    Ex. Revolution of Earth around the Sun.

Question 5.
Distinguish distance and displacement of a moving object.
Answer:

S.No.

Distance

Displacement

1. The actual length of the path traveled by a moving body irrespective of the direction The change in position of a moving body in a particular direction
2. Scalar quantity Vector quantity

III. Answer the following Question briefly.

Question 1.
Derive the three equations of motion by graphical method.
An object is in motion with initial velocity u attains a final velocity v in time t due to acceleration a, with displacement s.
Let us try to derive these equations by graphical method. Equations of motion from velocity-time graph:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 8
Graph shows the change in velocity with time for an uniformly accelerated object. The object starts from the point D in the graph with velocity u. Its velocity keeps increasing and after time t it reaches the point B on the graph.
The initial velocity of the object = u = OD = EA
The final velocity of the object = v = OC = EB
Time = t = OE = DA
Also from the graph we know that, AB = DC

For First equation of motion
By definition, acceleration = change in velocity / time
= (final velocity – initial velocity)/time
= (OC – OD) / OE = DC / OE
a = DC/t
DC = AB = at
From the graph EB = EA + AB
v = u + at …….(1)
This is first equation of motion.

For Second equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the quad-rectangle DOEB
s = area of the rectangle DOEA + area of the triangle DAB
= (AE × OE) + (1/2 × AB × DA)
s = ut + 1/2at2 ….(2)
This is second equation of motion.

For Third equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of the quadrangle DOEB. Here DOEB is a trapezium. Then
s = area of trapezium DOEB
= 1/2 × sum of length of parallel side × distance between parallel sides
= 1/2 × (OD + BE) × OE
s = 1/2 × (u + v) × t
since a = (v – u) / t or t = (v – u)/a
Therefore s = 1/2 × (v + u) × (v – u)/a
2as = v2 – u2
v2 = u2 + 2 as ………..(3)
This is third equation of motion.

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
In a 100 m race, the winner takes 10s to reach the finishing point. The average speed of the winner is ……….. ms– 1.
Answer:
(b) 10

II. Choose correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) Action and reaction forces act on same object
(b) Action and reaction forces act on different objects
Both (a) and (b) are possible
Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Answer:
(a) is wrong
(b) is correct.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
A motorcycle travelling at 20 ms– 1 has an acceleration of 4 ms– 2. What does it explains about the velocity of the motorcycle?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 9
It explains that the motorcycle travels with uniform velocity.

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences.
(a) The acceleration of the body that moves with a uniform velocity will be …………….. .
Answer:
constant

(b) A train travels from A to station B with a velocity of 100 km/h and returns from station B to station A with a velocity of 80 km/h. Its average velocity during the whole journey in ……………. and its average speed is ……………… .
Answer:
zero, 90 km/h

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Question 3.
Distinguish speed and velocity.
Answer:

S.No. Speed

Velocity

1. The rate of change of distance The rate of change of displacement
2. Scalar quantity Vector quantity
3. Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { time taken }}\) Velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)

Question 4.
What is meant by negative acceleration?
Answer:
If v < u, i.e. if final velocity is less than initial velocity, the velocity decreases with time and the value of acceleration is negative. It is called negative acceleration. It is also called as retardation (or) deceleration.

IV. Answer the following Question.

Question 1.
A boy moves along the path ABCD. What is the total distance covered by the boy? What is his net displacement?
(a) Total distance covered by a boy = 110 m
(b) Net displacement = \(\sqrt{30^{2}+40^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2500}\)
= 50 m
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 10

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Zn + 2HCl ➝ ZnCl2 + ………….. ↑
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) CO2
Answer:
(a) H2

Question 2.
Apple contains malic acid. Orange contains ……………….
(a) citric acid
(b) ascorbic acid
Answer:
(b) ascorbic acid

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.
Acids in plants and animals are organic acids. Whereas Acids in rocks and minerals are ………………..
(a) Inorganic acids
(b) Weak acids
Answer:
(a) Inorganic acids

Question 4.
Acids turn blue litmus paper to …………………
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Orange
Answer:
(b) Red

Question 5.
Since metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate are basic they react with acids to give salt and water with the liberation of ………………
(a) NO2
(b) SO2
(c) CO2
Answer:
(c) CO2

Question 6.
The hydrated salt of copper sulphate has …………….. colour
(a) Red
(b) White
(c) Blue
Answer:
(c) Blue

II. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name any two metals which do not react with sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
Few metals do not react with sodium hydroxide. For example: Cu, Ag, Cr.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.
Write any four uses of acids.

  • Sulphuric acid is called King of Chemicals because it is used in the preparation of many other compounds. It is used in car batteries also.
  • Hydrochloric acid is used as a cleansing agent in toilets.
  • Citric acid is used in the preparation of effervescent salts and as a food preservative.
  • Nitric acid is used in the manufacture of fertilizers, dyes, paints and drugs.

Question 3.
Give the significance of pH of soil in agriculture.
Answer:
In agriculture, the pH of soil is very important. Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.

Question 4.
When does the acid rain occur?
Answer:
The pH of rain water is approximately 7 which means that it is neutral and also represents its high purity. If the atmospheric air is polluted with oxide gases of sulphur and nitrogen, they get dissolved in rainwater and make its pH less than 7. Thus, if the pH of rain water is less than 7, then it is called acid rain.

Question 5.
What are the uses of Plaster of Paris?
Answer:

  1. It is used for plastering bones
  2. It is used for making casts for statues.

Question 6.
Two adds ‘A’ and ‘B’ are given. Acid A gives one hydrogen ion per molecule of the acid in solution. Acid B gives two hydrogen ions per molecule of the acid in solution.

  1. Find out acid A and acid B.
  2. Which acid is called the King of Chemicals?

Answer:

  1. Acid A is HCl and Acid B is H2SO4
  2. Sulphuric acid is called the King of Chemicals.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Define aquaregia.
Answer:
Metals like gold and silver are not reactive with either HCl or HNO3. But the mixture of these two acids can dissolve gold. This mixture is called Aquaregia. It is a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid prepared optimally in a molar ratio of 3:1. It is a yellow- orange fuming liquid. It is a highly corrosive liquid, able to attack gold and other resistant substances.

Question 8.
Correct the mistakes:

  1. Washing soda is used for making cakes and bread soft, spongy.
  2. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is used in textile industry.

Answer:

  1. Baking soda is used for making cakes and bread soft, spongy.
  2. Calcium Oxychloride hemihydrate is used in textile industry.

Question 9.
What is neutralization reaction? Give an example.
Acids and bases neutralize each other to form corresponding salts and water.
Example: Bases react with acids to form salt and water.
KOH + HCl ➝ KCl + H2O
The above reaction between a base and an acid is known as Neutralisation reaction.

III. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Why does distilled water not conduct electricity whereas rainwater does?
Answer:
Distilled water is created through the process of distillation.

In this process, the pure water (H2O) is boiled to remove contaminants. This is done by the capturing of steam that rises after boiling of water followed by cooling. This is distilled water and is free of ions that are required for the conduction of electricity. Whereas, the pollutants present in the atmospheric air get dissolved in rainwater which provides necessary ions for the conduction of electricity.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Why?
Answer:
The Plaster of Paris .should be stored in a moisture-proof container as it turns into a hard substance known as gypsum on the absorption of water from moisture.

Question 3.
Write any four uses of bases.
Answer:

  1. Sodium hydroxide is used in the manufacture of soap.
  2. Calcium hydroxide is used in whitewashing buildings.
  3. Magnesium hydroxide is used as a medicine for stomach disorders.
  4. Ammonium hydroxide is used to remove grease stains from clothes.

Question 4.
Write any five uses of salts.
Answer:
Common Salt (NaCl): It is used in our daily food and used as a preservative.

  1. Washing Soda (Sodium Carbonate):
    • It is used in softening hard water.
    • It is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
  2. Baking Soda (Sodium bicarbonate -NaHC03):
    • It is used in making of baking powder which is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.
    • It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
    • Baking powder is used to make cakes and bread, soft and spongy.
    • It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
  3. Bleaching powder (Calcium Oxychloride – CaOCl2)
    • It is used as disinfectant.
    • It is used in textile industry for bleaching cotton and linen.
  4. Plaster of Paris (Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate – CaS04 . \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H20)
    • It is used for plastering bones
    • It is used for making casts for statues

Question 5.
Sulphuric acid is called King of Chemicals. Why is it called so?
Answer:
Sulphuric acid is called King of Chemicals because it is used in the preparation of many Other compounds. It is used in car batteries also.
Acids react with metallic oxides to give salt and water.
CaO + H2S04 CaS04 + H20

Activity

Question 1.
Take about 10 ml of dilute hydrochloric acid in a test tube and add a few pieces of zinc granules into it. What do you observe? Why are bubbles formed in the solution?
Answer:
Take a burning candle near a bubble containing hydrogen gas, the flame goes off with a ‘Popping’ sound. This confirms that metal displaces hydrogen gas from the dilute acid.
Bubbles are formed as Zinc reacts with HCl to form ZnCl and Hydrogen gas is released.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.

  • Take solutions of hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid.
  • Fix two nails on a cork and place the cork in a 100 ml beaker.
  • Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6V battery through a bulb and a switch as shown in Figure.
  • Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current.
  • Repeat the activity with dilute sulphuric acid, glucose and alcohol solutions. What do you observe now?
  • Does the bulb glow in all cases?

Answer:
The bulb glows when the solution in the beaker is hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid as they ionise into H+ ions thus facilitating the flow of current.
Both hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid readily ionise to H+, Cl and 2H+ and SO4- in solution and thus conduct electricity letting the bulb glow. Whereas glucose and alcohol do not ionise and hence the bulb doesn’t glow.

Question 3.
Collect the following samples from the science laboratory – Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid and Nitric acid, Sodium hydroxide, Potassium hydroxide. Take 2 ml of each solution in a test tube and test with a litmus paper and indicators phenolphthalein and Methyl orange. Tabulate your observations.

Sample Solutions Litmus Paper Indicators
Blue Red Phenolphthalein Methyl Orange
Hydrochloric acid Colourless Pink
Sulphuric acid Colourless Pink
Nitric acid Colourless Pink
Sodium hydroxide Pink Yellow
Potassium hydroxide Pink Yellow

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks in the following table based on the concept of water of crystallisation.

Salt Formula of an hydrous salt Formula of hydrated salt Name of hydrated salt
Zinc sulphate ZnSO4 ZnSO4.7H2O
Magnesium chloride MgCl2 Magnesium chloride hexahydrate
Iron (II) sulphate FeSO4.7H20 Iron (II) sulphate heptahydrate
Calcium chloride CaCl2 CaCl2.2H2O
Sodium thiosulphate Na2S2O3 Sodium thiosulphate pentahydrate

Answer:

Salt Formula of an hydrous salt Formula of hydrated salt Name of hydrated salt
Zinc sulphate ZnSO4 ZnSO4.7H2O Zinc sulphate heptahydrate
Magnesium chloride MgCl2 MgCl2. 6H2O Magnesium chloride hexahydrate
Iron (II) sulphate FeSO4 FeSO4.7H20 Iron (II) sulphate heptahydrate
Calcium chloride CaCl2 CaCl2.2H2O Calcium chloride dihydrate
Sodium thiosulphate Na2S2O3 Na2S2O3.5H2O Sodium thiosulphate pentahydrate

Question 5.
Boil about 100 ml of groundwater in a vessel to dryness. After all the water get evaporated observe the inner wall of the vessel. Can you observe any deposits?
Answer:
Yes, this is the deposit of dissolved salts present in water.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Acids, Bases and Salts Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What are acids?
Answer:
Acids are those with chemical properties that includes; turning litmus red, neutralizing alkalis, and dissolving some metals; typically, a corrosive or sour-tasting liquid present in curd, fruit juices, vinegar, etc. The word ‘acid’ is derived from the Latin name “acidus” which means sour taste.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.
Why is the term basicity is used for acids?
Answer:
The term basicity is used for acids since they have replaceable hydrogen atoms in a molecule.

Question 3.
What are bases?
Answer:
According to Arrhenius theory, bases are substances that ionise in water to form hydroxyl ions (OH). Bases that are soluble in water are called alkalis.

Question 4.
“All alkalis are bases, but not all bases are alkalis”. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Bases react with acids to neutralise them. Some are insoluble. Soluble bases are called Alkalis. For example CuO (copper oxide) does not dissolve in water, therefore it’s a base. Generally hydroxides of alkali metals and alkaline earth metals are called alkalis.

Question 5.
What is the correct procedure of mixing an acid and water? Why?
Answer:
One has to be cautious while mixing’a concentrated inorganic acid with water. Always the acid must be added to water gently. While adding acid to water, one has to keep stirring the mixture simultaneously. Water should never be added to an acid as it generates huge amount of heat and the mixture can splash out of the container and cause harm to the person handling it, causing bums.

Question 6.
“All acids contain one or more hydrogen atoms, but not all substances containing hydrogen are acids.” Support this statement with examples.
Answer:
HCl (hydrochloric acid), H2SO4 (sulphuric acid) and HNO3 (Nitric acid) are all examples of inorganic acids. They all have the hydrogen atom in common. Most acids essentially contain one or more hydrogen atoms. Whereas water (H20) also contains hydrogen, but it is not an acid. Similarly, molecules of methane and ammonia also contain hydrogen, but all these do not produce H+ ions in aqueous solutions. Therefore it can be said that “all acids contain hydrogen, but all substances containing hydrogen are not acids.”

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Explain the role of pH in our digestive system.
Answer:
The pH of saliva is usually between 6.5 – 7.5.
pH of stomach fluid is approximately 2.0. This is because it produces hydrochloric acid which helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach. pH in the small and large intestine ranges from 4.0 to 7.0.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Explain water of crystallisation.
Answer:
Many salts are found as crystals with water molecules they contain. These water molecules are known as water of crystallisation. Salts that contain water of crystallisation are called ‘ hydrated salts. The number of molecules of water hydrated to a salt is indicated after the dot in its chemical formula. For example, copper sulphate crystal have five molecules of water for each molecule of copper sulphate. It is written as CuS04.5H20 and named as copper sulphate pentahydrate. This water of crystallisation makes the copper sulphate blue.

When it is heated, it loses its water molecules and becomes white. Salts that do not contain water of crystallisation is called anhydrous salt.

Question 2.
What are four types of salts?
Answer:
Types of Salts

1. Normal Salts
A normal salt is obtained by complete neutralization of an acid by a base.
NaOH + HCl ➝ NaCl + H2O

2. Acid Salts
It is derived from the partial replacement of hydrogen ions of an acid by a metal. When a calculated amount of a base is added to a polybasic acid, acid salt is obtained.
NaOH + H2S02 ➝ NaHS04 + H20

3. Basic Salts
Basic salts are formed by the partial replacement of hydroxide ions of a diacidic or triacidic base with an acid radical.
Pb(OH)2 + HCl ➝ Pb(OH)Cl + H2O

4. Double Salts
Double salts are formed by the combination of the saturated solution of two simple salts in equimolar ratio followed by crystallization. For example, Potash alum is a mixture of potassium sulphate and aluminium sulphate.
KAI(SO4)2·12H2O

Question 3.
Classify acids based on their sources and basicity.
Answer:
Acids are classified in different ways as follows:
Based on their sources:

  1. Organic acids: Acids present in plants and animals (living things) are organic acids. Example: HCOOH, CH3COOH
  2. Inorganic acids: Acids prepared from rocks and minerals are inorganic acids or mineral acids. Example: HCl, HNO3, H2SO4

Based on their Basicity:

  1. Monobasic Acid: Acid that contain only one replaceable hydrogen atom per molecule is called monobasic acid. It gives one hydrogen ion per molecule of the acid in solution. Example: HCl, HNO3
  2. Dibasic Acid: An acid which gives two hydrogen ions per molecule of the acid in solution. Example: H3SO4, H2CO3
  3. Tribasic Acid: An acid which gives three hydrogen ions per molecule of the acid in solution. Example: H3P04

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.
Name the acid present in the given table.
Answer:
Acid and its source

SOURCE ACID PRESENT
Apple Malic acid
Lemon Citric acid
Grape Tartaric acid
Tomato Oxalic acid
Vinegar Acetic acid
Curd Lactic acid
Orange Ascorbic acid
Tea Tannic acid
Ant, Bee Formic acid
Stomach juice Hydrochloric acid

Question 5.
Describe the tests used to determine acids and bases.
Answer:
Take 10 ml of solution in a test tube and test with a litmus paper or indicators like phenolphthalein and methyl orange.

  1. Test with a litmus paper: An acid turns blue litmus paper into red. A base turns red litmus paper into blue.
  2. Test with an indicator Phenolphthalein: In acid medium, phenolphthalein is colourless.
    In basic medium, phenolphthalein is pink in colour.
  3. Test with an indicator Methyl orange: In acid medium, methyl orange is pink in colour. In basic medium, methyl orange is yellow in colour.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Differentiate between Acids and Bases.
Answer:

Acids Bases
Acids are proton donors or electron acceptors Bases are proton acceptor or electron donors
Acids are able to increase the H+ ion concentration in aqueous solution. Bases are able to increase the OH” ion concentration in an aqueous solution
Acids have a pH value < 7. Bases have a pH value > 7.
Acids turn blue litmus paper red. Bases turn red litmus paper blue.
Acids react with bases to form salts in an aqueous medium. Bases react with acids to form salts.
Acids are sour to taste. Bases are soapy to touch.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Retirement and Death of a Partner Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A partner retires from the partnership firm on 30th June. He is liable for all the acts of the firm up to the …………………..
(a) End of the current accounting period
(b) End of the previous accounting period
(c) Date of his retirement
(d) Date of his final settlement
Answer:
(c) Date of his retirement

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 2.
On the retirement of a partner from a partnership firm, accumulated profits and losses are distributed to the partners on the basis of …………………
(a) New profit sharing ratio
(b) Old profit sharing ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) Sacrificing ratio
Answer:
(b) Old profit sharing ratio

Question 3.
On the retirement of a partner, general reserve will be transferred to the …………………..
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Revaluation account
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) Memorandum revaluation account
Answer:
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 4.
On revaluation, the increase in liabilities leads to
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) Profit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loss

Question 5.
At the time of retirement of a partner, determination of gaining ratio is required …………………..
(a) To transfer revaluation profit or loss
(b) To distribute accumulated profits and losses
(c) To adjust goodwill
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) To adjust goodwill

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 6.
The final amount due to a retiring partner is not paid immediately, it is transferred to …………………..
(a) Bank A/c
(b) Retiring partner’s capital A/c
(c) Retiring partner’s loan A/c
(d) Other partners’ capital A/c
Answer:
(c) Retiring partner’s loan A/c

Question 7.
‘A’ was a partner in a partnership firm. He died on 31st March 2019. The final amount due to him is ₹ 25,000 which is not paid immediately. It will be transferred to …………………..
(a) A’s capital account
(b) A’s loan account
(c) A’s Executor’s account
(d) A’s Executor’s loan account
Answer:
(d) A’s Executor’s loan account

Question 8.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. Find the contribution of A and C to compensate B:
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 9.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:2:3. C retires. The new profit sharing ratio between A and B will be ………………….
(a) 4:3
(b) 3:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(c) 2:1

Question 10.
X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits and losses equally. X died on 1st April 2019. Find out the share of X in the profit of 2019 based on the profit of 2018 which showed ₹ 36,000.
(a) ₹ 1,000
(b) ₹ 3,000
(c) ₹ 12,000
(d) ₹ 36,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,000

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by the retirement of a partner?
Answer:
When a partner leaves a partnership firm, it is known as retirement. The reasons for the retirement of a partner may be illness, old age, better opportunity elsewhere, disagreement with other partners, etc. On the retirement of a partner, the existing agreement comes to an end. The firm is reconstituted.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 2.
What is the gaining ratio?
Answer:
The gaining ratio is the proportion of the profit which is gained by the continuing partner.
Gaining ratio = Ratio of share gained by the continuing partners.
Share gained = New share – Old share

Question 3.
What is the purpose of calculating the gaining ratio?
Answer:
The purpose of finding the gaining ratio is to bear the goodwill to be paid to the retiring partner.

Question 4.
What is the journal entry to be passed to transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor of the deceased partner?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 1

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the adjustments made at the time of retirement.
Answer:

  • Distribution of accumulated profits, reserves, and losses
  • Revaluation of assets and liabilities
  • Determination of new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio
  • Adjustment for goodwill
  • Adjustment for current years profit or loss up to the date of retirement.
  • Settlement of the amount due to the retiring partner

Question 2.
Distinguish between sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 2

Question 3.
What are the ways in which the final amount due to an outgoing partner can be settled?
Answer:
The amount due to the retiring partner may be settled in one of the following ways:

  1. Paying the entire amount due immediately in cash
  2. Transfer the entire amount due to the loan account of the partner
  3. Transfer the entire amount immediately in cash and transferring the balance to the loan account of the partner

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Dheena, Surya and Janaki are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. On 31.3.2018, Dheena retired. On the date of retirement, the books of the firm showed a reserve fund of ₹ 50,000. Pass journal entry to transfer the reserve fund.
Answer:
Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 3

Question 2.
Rosi, Rathi and Rani are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Rathi retired from the partnership on 1.1.2018. On that date, their balance sheet showed accumulated loss of ? 45,000 on the asset side of the balance sheet. Give the journal entry to distribute the accumulated loss.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 4

Question 3.
Akash, Mugesh and Sanjay are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2017 is as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 5Answer:
Pass journal entry to transfer accumulated Profit and prepare the capital account of the partners.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 6
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 7

Question 4.
Roja, Neela and Kanaga are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. On 1st April 2017, Roja retires and on retirement, the following adjustments are agreed upon:
(i) Increase the value of building by ₹ 30,000.
(ii) Depreciate stock by ₹ 5,000 and furniture by ₹ 12,000.
(iii) Provide an outstanding liability of ₹ 1,000 Pass journal entries and prepare revaluation account.
Answer:
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 8Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 9

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 5.
Vinoth, Karthi and Pranav are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. Pranav retires from partnership on 1st April 2018. The following adjustments are to be made:
(i) Increase the value of land and building by ₹ 18,000
(ii) Reduce the value of machinery by ₹ 15,000
(iii) A provision would also be made for outstanding expenses for ₹ 8,000.
Give journal entries and prepare revaluation account.
Answer:
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 10

Question 6.
Chandru, Vishal, and Ramanan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Their balance sheet as of 31st March 2018 is as follows:
Ramanan retired on 31 st March 2019 subject to the following conditions:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 11
(i) Machinery is valued at ₹ 1,50,000
(ii) Value of furniture brought down by ₹ 10,000
(iii) Provision for doubtful debts should be increased to ₹ 5,000
(iv) Investment of ₹ 30,000 not recorded in the books is to be recorded now.
Pass necessary journal entries and prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners
Answer:
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 12
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 13

Question 7.
Kayal, Mala and Neela are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. Kayal retires and the new profit sharing ratio between Nila and Neela is 3:2. Calculate the gaining ratio.
Answer:
K : M : N → 2 : 2 : 1 (Old Ratio )
New Ratio = Mala: Neela = 3:2
GR = NR-OR
Mala = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{2}{5}=\frac{3-2}{5}=\frac{1}{5}\)
Neela = \(\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{5}=\frac{2-1}{5}=\frac{1}{5}\)
GR = 1 : 1
Answer:
Gaining ratio 1 : 1

Question 8.
Sunil, Sumathi and Sundari are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:3:4. Sundari retires and her share is taken up entirely by Sunil. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
New Ratio – Old Ratio
Sunil = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\)
(Sundari share is added with old ratio)
Sumathi = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\)
New Ratio = 7 : 3
Sacrificing Ratio = 1:1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 9.
Ramu, Somu and Gopu are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:5:7. Gopu retires and the share is purchased by Ramu and Somu in the ratio of 3:1. Find the new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 14

Question 10.
Navin, Ravi and Kumar are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1/2,1/4 and 1/4 respectively, Kumar retires and his share is taken up by Navin and Ravi equally. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 15

Question 11.
Mani, Gani and Soni are partners sharing the profits and losses in the ratio of 4:5:6. Mani retires from the firm. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
Since new profit sharing ratio, share gained and the proportion of share gained is not given, the new share is calculated by assuming that the share gained is in the proportion of old ratio.

Question 12.
Rajan, Suman and Jegan were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:2. Suman retired from partnership. The goodwill of the firm on the date of retirement was valued at ₹ 45,000. Pass necessary journal entries for goodwill on the assumption that the fluctuating capital method is followed.
Answer:
Value of Goodwill = 45,000 x \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 }\) = 15,000
Journal Entries
Adjustment for goodwill
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 16

Question 13.
Balu, Chandru, and Nirmal are partners in firms sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. On 31st March 2018, Nirmal retires from the firm. On the date of Nirmal’s retirement, goodwill appeared in the books of the firm at Rs. 60,000. By assuming fluctuating capital account, pass the necessary journal entry if the partners decide to
(a) write off the entire amount of existing goodwill
(b) write off half of the existing goodwill.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 17

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 14.
Rani, Jaya and Rathi are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. On 31.3.2018, Rathi retired from the partnership. Profit of the preceding years is as follows: 2014: 10,000; 2015: ₹ 20,000; 2016: ₹ 18,000 and 2017: ₹ 32,000
Find out the share of profit of Rathi for the year 2018 till the date of retirement if
(a) Profit is to be distributed on the basis of the previous year’s profit
(b) Profit is to be distributed on the basis of the average profit of the past 4 years Also pass necessary journal entries by assuming partners capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
(a) If the profit is to be distributed on the basis of previous year profit (2017) Rathi’s share distributed 3 months = ₹ 32,000 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 12 }\) = ₹ 1600
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 18
(b) Average Profit
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 19

Question 15.
Kavin, Madhan, and Ranjith are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3, respectively. Kavin retires from the firm on 31st December 2018. On the date of retirement, his capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 1,50,000. Pass journal entries if:
(a) The amount due is paid off immediately.
(b) The amount due is not paid immediately.
(c) ₹ 1,00,000 is paid and the balance in the future.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 21

Question 16.
Manju, Charu and Lavanya are partners in firms sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. Their balance sheet as of 31st March 2018 is as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 22
Manju retired from the partnership firm on 31.03.2018 subject to the following adjustments:
(i) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 10,000
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 3,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 28,000
Prepare revaluation account and capital accounts of partners after retirement.
Answer:
Revaluation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 23
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 24

Question 17.
Kannan, Rahim, and John are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. The balance sheet as on 31st December 2017 was as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 25
John retires on 1st January 2018, subject to the following conditions:
(i) To appreciate building by 10%
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide ₹ 1,000 for bad debts
(iv) An unrecorded liability of ₹ 8,000 have been noticed
(v) The retiring partner shall be paid immediately
Prepare revaluation account, partners’ capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after retirement.
Answer:
Revaluation A/c
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 26
Capital
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 27
Balance Sheet
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 28

Question 18.
Saran, Arun and Karan are partners in firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as of 31.12.2016 was as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 29
Karan retires on 1.1.2017 subject to the following conditions:
(i) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 21,000
(ii) Machinery to be appreciated by 10%
(iii) Building to be valued at ₹ 80,000
(iv) Provision for bad debts to be raised to ₹ 2,000
(v) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 2,000
(vi) Final amount due to Karan is not paid immediately
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and show the balance sheet of the firm after retirement.
Answer:
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 30

Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 31
Balance Sheet
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 32

Question 19.
Rajesh, Sathish and Mathan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1 respectively. Their balance sheet as on 31.3.2017 is given below.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 33
Mathan retires on 31st March, 2017 subject to the following conditions:
(i) Rajesh and Sathish will share profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2
(ii) Assets are to be revalued as follows: Machinery ₹ 4,50,000, Stock ₹ 2,90,000, Debtors ₹ 1,52,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 1,20,000
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet immediately after the retirement of Mathan.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 52
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 34

Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 35
Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2017
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 36

Question 20.
Janani, Janaki, and Jamuna are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:3:1 respectively. Janaki died on 31st December 2017. The final amount due to her showed a credit balance of ₹ 1,40,000. Pass journal entries if,
(a) The amount due is paid off immediately.
(b) The amount due is not paid immediately.
(c) ₹ 75,000 is paid and the balance in the future.
Answer:
Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 45

Question 21.
Varsha, Shanthi and Madhuri are partners, sharing profits in the ratio of 5:4:3. Their balance sheet as on 31st December 2017 is as under:
Balance Sheet as on 31st December 2017
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 37
On 1.1.2018, Madhuri died and on her death the following arrangements are made:
(i) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Premises is to be appreciated by 20%
(iii) To provide ₹ 4,000 for bad debts
(iv) The final amount due to Madhuri was not paid
Prepare revaluation account, partners’ capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after death.
Answer:
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 38
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 39
Balance Sheet as on 1.1.2018
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 40

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 22.
Vijayan, Sudhan and Suman are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.2018 is as follows:
Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2018
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 41
Suman died on 31.3.2019. On the death of Suman, the following adjustments are made:
(i) Building is to be valued at ₹ 1,00,000
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 36,000
(iv) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial year to the date of death on the basis of the average of the three completed years’ profit before death.
Profit for 2016, 2017 and 2018 were ₹ 40,000, ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 30,000, respectively.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet immediately after the death of Suman.
Answer:
Profit-Sharing Ratio:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 53
Revaluation Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 42
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 43
Balance Sheet as on 31.3.19
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner 44

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Retirement and Death of a Partner Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
On the retirement of a partner, profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities should be credited to the capital accounts of …………………
(a) Retiring partner in their old ratio
(b) All partners in their old ratio
(c) Remaining partners in new ratio
(d) Remaining partners in the old ratio
Answer:
(b) All partners in their old ratio

Question 2.
On the retirement of a partner, reserves should be transferred to the capital accounts of …………………
(a) Retiring partner
(b) Remaining partner
(c) All partners
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) All partners

Question 3.
Credit balance of Profit and Loss Account – appearing in the Balance sheet on the death of a partner is credited to …………………
(a) Deceased Partner’s Capital Account
(b) All partner’s capital account (including deceased partner’s capital account
(c) Remaining partner’s capital account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) All partner’s capital account (including deceased partner’s capital account)

Question 4.
P, Q and R are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:3:1. P retires and his share is taken by Q and R equally. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of Q and R …………………
(a) 1:1
(b) 4:3
(c) 3:4
(d) 5:3
Answer:
(d) 5:3

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 5.
In case of death of a partner, the whole amount standing to the credit of his capital account is transferred to ………………….
(a) Capital Accounts of all partners
(b) Capital Accounts of remaining partners
(c) His executor’s account
(d) Revenue Account of the Government
Answer:
(c) His executor’s account

Question 6.
A, B and C share profits in the ratio of \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\): \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\): \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) C dies. The gaining ratio of A and B will be …………………..
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:3
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:1
Answer:
(c) 5:3

Question 7.
On retirement of a partner, the continuing partner’s capital accounts are debited with retiring partner’s share of goodwill in
(a) Old profit sharing ratio
(b) Gaining ratio
(c) New profit sharing ratio
(d) Equal ratio
Answer:
(b) Gaining ratio

Question 8.
N, S, and K have been sharing profit in the ratio of 3:5:7. K retires and his share is taken by N and S in the ratio of 3:2, the new ratio will be
(a) 12:13
(b) 3:5
(c) 2:1
(d) 3:2
Answer:
(a) 12:13

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 9.
If at the time of retirement, there is some unrecorded liability, it will be …………………..
(a) Debited to Revaluation A/c
(b) Credited to Revaluation A/c
(c) Transferred to Old partners Capital A/Cs
(d) Transferred to All Partners Capital A/Cs
Answer:
(a) Debited to Revaluation A/c

Question 10.
The gain of remaining partners is equal to ………………….
(a) Their new share
(b) Their old share
(c) New Share – Old share
(d) Old share – New share
Answer:
(c) New Share – Old share

Question 11.
Which of the following is debited to the partner’s capital at the time of retirement of a partner?
(a) General Reserve
(b) Profit on revaluation
(c) Accumulated losses
(d) Accumulated profits
Answer:
(c) Accumulated losses

Question 12.
At the time of retirement, of a partner, workmen compensation reserve after meeting the legal requirement is transferred to
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) All Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Sacrificing Partner’s Capital A/cs
(d) Old Partner’s Capital Account
Answer:
(b) All Partner’s Capital Account

Question 13.
On the retirement of a partner, an increase in the value of assets is recorded in ………………..
(a) Revaluation A/c
(b) Cash a/c
(c) Old Partner’s Capital A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Revaluation A/c

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Retirement and Death of a Partner

Question 14.
Undistributed profit and losses – transferred to all the partners at the time of retirement of a partner ………………….
(a) should be
(A) should not be
(c) maybe
Answer:
(a) should be

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

  1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. questions of Part A, B. C and IV are to be attempted separately
  4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part A are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
  5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part B are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr C are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part D are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – A

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following comes under Non-economic Activities?
(a) Working as a Lawyer
(b) Doctor Charges Consultation Fees
(c) Fruit Seller Selling Fruits
(d) Visit to a Temple
Answer:
(d) Visit to a Temple

Question 2.
Which is the oldest form of business organisation?
(a) Co-operative Society
(b) Company
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Partnership
Answer:
(c) Sole proprietorship

Question 3.
…………. is the partner who neither contribute any capital nor manages the affairs of the business.
(a) Sleeping partner
(b) Nominal partner
(c) Partner by estoppel
(d) Secret partner
Answer:
(b) Nominal partner

Question 4.
The Board of Directors of a company is elected by ……………..
(a) Debenture holders
(b) Shareholders
(c) Creditors
(d) Debtors
Answer:
(b) Shareholders

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 5.
A ………… is run on the principle of ‘one man one vote’.
(a) Partnership
(b) Government Company
(c) Joint Stock Company
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(d) Co-operative Society

Question 6.
The largest commercial Bank of India:
(a) PNB
(b) RBI
(c) ICICI
(d) SBI
Answer:
(d) SBI

Question 7.
Commodities like tobacco and cotton are stored in ………………
(a) Automated warehouse
(b) General warehouse
(c) Cold storages
(d) Special commodity warehouses
Answer:
(d) Special commodity warehouses

Question 8.
Which is the fastest means of transport?
(a) Sea
(b) Air
(c) Rail
(d) Road
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 9
………….. is taken up jointly on the lives of two or more persons.
(a) Joint Life Policy
(b) Endowment Life Assurance Policy
(c) Whole Life Policy
(d) Annuity Policy
Answer:
(a) Joint Life Policy

Question 10.
Buying and selling of goods through electronic network is known as ……………….
(a) Website
(b) Trade
(c) E-commerce
(d) Internet
Answer:
(c) E-commerce

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 11.
Ethics is important for:
(a) Non-managerial employees
(b) Top management
(c) Middle level managers
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 12.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of …………….
(a) Interest
(b) Ratios
(c) Dividend
(d) Profits
Answer:
(a) Interest

Question 13.
MSMEs Act for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises was enacted in the year:
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2004
(d) 2007
Answer:
(a) 2006

Question 14
………….. is a special type of bond issued in the currency other than the home currency.
(a) Corporate Bond
(b) Investment Bond
(c) Government Bond
(d) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
Answer:
(b) Investment Bond

Question 15.
Internal trade can be classified into ? categories.
(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Three
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 16.
Retailers deal in quantity of goods.
(a) Medium
(b) Limited
(c) Small
(d) Large
Answer:
(c) Small

Question 17.
WTO meets almost once in every years.
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) three
Answer:
(d) three

Question 18.
Exception to “stranger to a contract” is ………………
(a) Third party
(b) Promisee
(c) Legal Representative
(d) Agent
Answer:
(a) Third party

Question 19.
Income Tax is ……………..
(a) an indirect tax
(b) service tax
(c) a business tax
(d) a direct tax
Answer:
(d) a direct tax

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 20.
In India Goods and Services Tax (GST) became effective from:
(a) 1st July, 2017
(b) 1st March, 2017
(c) 1st April, 2017
(d) 1st January, 2017
Answer:
(d) 1st January, 2017

Part-B

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Nalangadi?
Answer:
The place where the goods were sold was called ‘Angadi’ in the Pandiya period. Day market was called as Nalangadi.

Question 22.
What are the two schools of Hindu Law? ‘
Answer:

  • Dayabhaga
  • Mitakshara

Question 23.
What are Foreign Banks?
Answer:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 24.
Define contract.
Answer:
Contract [section 2(h)] An agreement enforceable by Law is a Contract.

Question 25.
Who is a Franchisee?
Answer:
The individual who acquires the right to operate the business or use the trademark of the seller is known as the franchisee.

Question 26.
What are Multi-national Companies (MNCs)
Answer:
Multinational company is one which is incorporated in one country, but operates in other countries. It is also called as global enterprise, world enterprise, and international enterprise.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 27.
Give some examples for micro-enterprises.
Answer:
Micro enterprises are engaged in low scale activities such as clay pot making, fruits and vegetable vendors, transport (three wheeler tempos and autos), repair shops, cottage industries, small industries, hand looms, handicraft works etc.

Question 28.
What are specialty stores?
Answer:
Specialty Stores deal in a particular type of product under one product line only. For example, Sweets shop specialised in Tirunelveli Halwa, Bengali Sweets, etc.

Question 29.
What is meant by indent?
Answer:
An indent actually points to an order received from abroad for export of goods, i.e. sale of goods. The indent contains the details in the box.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 30.
Name any two suitable form of transport found in hilly areas, forest areas and in remote places.
Answer:
Pack animals (horse, donkey, camel and elephant) are used to carry small loads in hilly areas and forest areas.
Bullock cart is also used in rural areas and forest areas.

Part-C

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write short notes on:
(a) Extractive Industry
(b) Genetic Industry.
Answer:
(a) Extractive Industry:
The industry which extracts or draws out products from natural resources is known as extractive industry, eg., farming, mining.

(b) Genetic Industry:
The industries which are engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use is called genetic industry, eg.,diary, fishery, poultry.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 32.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of the proprietor for the debts of the business is unlimited. The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

Question 33.
Give the meaning of crop insurance.
Answer:
This policy is to provide financial support to farmers in case of a crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to production of rice, wheat, millets, oil seeds and pulses etc.

Question 34.
What is the impact of E-commerce on buyers?
Answer:

  • Buyers could have a global access to information about variety of products and services available in the market.
  • They could buy the products / services round the clock from anywhere in world.
  • The prices of products bought through e – commerce tend to be relatively lower than those purchased physically in the conventional shops due to offers, discount etc.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 35.
Write the characteristics of wholesalers, (any six)
Answer:

  • Wholesalers buy goods directly from producers.
  • Wholesalers buy goods in large quantities and sell in small quantities.
  • Wholesalers sell different varieties of a particular product.
  • They need large amount of capital.
  • They provide credit facility to retailers.
  • They also provide financial assistance to producers.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristics of super marker
Answer:

  • Super market are gernally situated at the main shopping centres.
  • the goods kept on rocks with clearly labelled price and quality tags in such stones
  • the customers move into the store to pick up goods of their requirement bring them to the cash counter make and take home delavary

Question 37.
distinguish between Bill of Landing and Charter Party
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 1

Question 38.
Who can demand performance?
Answer:

  • Promisee:
    only a promisee can demand performance and not a stranger demand performance of the contract.
  • Legal Representative:
    legal representative can demand Exception performance. Contrary intention appears from the contract. Contract is of a personal nature.
  • Third party:
    Exception to “stranger to a contract”.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 39.
List out the five heads of income.
The five heads of income are:
Answer:

  • Income from ‘Salaries’ [Sections 15-17];
  • Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22-27];
  • Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28-44];
  • Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45-55]; and
  • Income from ‘Other Sources’ [Sections 56-59],

Question 40.
Govind started a business on his own. His father helped him with the accounts and his brother looked after customers in the evening. He pays monthly salary to his father and brother. Identify the form of business and mention any two disadvantages of it.
Answer:
The form of organisation is partnership. His father and brother are working partners. And they are paid salary.
Disadvantages:

  • Limited resources:
    The number of members is 10 or 20. So the resources available is limited.
  • Risk of implied authority:
    Every partner can find the firm and his other partners by his acts. Therefore all other partners become liable for the fraud done by the other partners.

Part – D

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What are the hindrances of business? (Any five)
Answer:

(1) Hindrance of Person:
Manufacturers do not know the place and face of the consumers. It is the retailer who knows the taste, preference and location of the consumers. The chain of middlemen consisting of wholesalers, agents and retailers establish the link between the producers and consumers.

(2) Hindrance of Place:
Production takes place in one center and consumers are spread throughout the country and world. Rail, air, sea and land transports bring the products
to the place of consumer.

(3) Hindrance of Time:
Consumers want products whenever they have money, time and willingness to buy. Goods are produced in anticipation of such demands.

(4) Hindrance of risk of deterioration in quality:
Proper packaging and modem air conditioned storage houses ensure that there is no deterioration in quality of products.

(5) Hindrance of risk of loss:
Fire, theft, floods and accidents may bring huge loss to the business.

[OR]

Question 41.(b)
Write short notes on:

  1. Retained Earnings
  2. Lease Financing

Answer:
1. Retained Earnings:
Retained earnings refer to the process of retaining a part of net profit year after year and reinvesting them in the business. It is also termed as ploughing back of profit. An individual would like to save a portion of his/her income -for meeting the contingencies and growth needs. Similarly profit making company would retain a portion of the net profit in order to finance its growth and expansion in near future. It is described to be the most convenient and economical method of finance.

2. Lease Financing:
Lease financing denotes procurement of assets through lease. For many small and medium enterprises, acquisition of plant and equipment and other permanent assets will be difficult in the initial stages. In such a situation Leasing is helping them to a greater extent.

Leasing here refers to the owning of an asset by any individual or a corporate body which will be given for use to another needy business enterprise on a rental basis. The firm which owns the asset is called ‘Lessor’ and the business enterprise which hires the asset is called ‘Lessee’.

The contract is called ‘Lease’. The lessee pays a fixed rent on agreed basis to the lessor for the use of the asset. The terms and conditions like lease period, rent fixed, mode of payment and allocation of maintenance, are mentioned in the lease contract.

At the end of the lease period, the asset goes back to the lessor. Alternatively lessee can own the asset taken on lease by paying the balance of price of asset concerned to lessor. Hence lease finance is a popular method of medium term business finance.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 42(a).
What are the contents of partnership deed?
Answer:
(1) Name:
Name of the Firm.

(2) Nature of Business:
Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.

(3) Duration of Partnership:
Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.

(4) Capital Contribution:
The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to

(5) Withdrawal from the Firm:
The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.

(6) Profit / Loss Sharing:
The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.

(7) Interest on Capital:
Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so, the rate of interest.

(8) Rate of Interest on Drawing:
Rate of interest on drawings, if any.

(9) Loan from Partners:
Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.

(10) Account Keeping:
Maintenance of accounts and audit.

(11) Salary and Commission to Partners: Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).

(12) Retirement:
Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.

(13) Goodwill Valuation:
Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.

(14) Distribution of Responsibility:
Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.

(15) Dissolution Procedure:
Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.

(16) Arbitration of Dispute:
Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Elucidate the features of Factoring.
Answer:

  • Maintenance of book-debts:
    A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of debtors of a business institution.
  • Credit coverage:
    The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
  • Cash advances:
    Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
  • Collection service:
    Issuing reminders, receiving part payments, collection of cheques from part of the factoring service.
  • Advice to clients:
    From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advises regarding the credit worthiness of customers, perception of customers about the products of the client, etc.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 43(a).
State the features of Departmental stores.
Answer:

  • Large Size:
    Adepartment is a large scale retail showroom requiring a large capital investment by forming a joint stock company managed by a board of directors.
  • Wide Choice:
    It acts as a universal provider of a wide range of products from low priced to very expensive goods (Pin to Car) to satisfy all the expected human needs under one roof.
  • Departmentally organised:
    Goods offered for sale are classified into various departments.
  • Facilities provided:
    It provides a number of facilities and services to the customers such as restaurant, rest rooms, recreation, packing, free home delivery, parking, etc.
  • Centralised purchasing:
    All the purchases are made centrally and directly from the manufacturers and operate separate warehouses whereas sales are decentralised in different departments.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Distinguish between balance of payment and balance of trade.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 2

Question 44(a).
Explain different types of transport. (Any five)
Answer:
Types of transport:
(a) Land Transport
(b) Water transport
(c) Air Transport

(a) Land Transport:
Transport of people and goods by land vehicles is known as Land transport. It is also called as‘Surface Transport’.

1. Pack Animals : Animals like horse, mule, donkey, camel, elephant etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly tracks, forest regions and deserts known as pack animals.

2. Bullock Carts : It constitutes the predominant form of rural road transport in India for goods traffic and to some extent for passengers’ traffic.

3. Road Transport : Road Transport is one of the most promising and potent means suitable for short and medium distances.

4. Motor lorries and Buses : From the dawn of civilization, people have been endeavoring to form roads and use wheeled vehicles to facilitate transport of men and materials.

5. Tramways : It made their appearance in the 19th century as a form of transport suitable for big cities. Tramways were initially horse drawn later steam-power and now electrically operated.

6. Railway Transport : The invention of steam engine by James Watt, revolutionized the mode of transport all over the world.

7. Recent Trends in Transport : Metro Rail, Monorail, Bullet train, Pipeline Transport, Conveyor Transport, Ropeway transport and Hyper loop transport.

(b). Water Transport:
“Water is a free gift of nature’. Human civilization through gradual application of science and technology, have utilized water resources for economic, political and military activities.

  1. Inland Waterways: Inland Waterways comprise of rivers, canals and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport.
  2. Ocean or Sea Transport: Ocean transport has been playing a significant role in development of economic, social and cultural relations among countries of the world.

(a) Coastal shipping
(b) Overseas shipping

  • Liner
  • Tramps

(c) Air Transport:
Air transport is the fastest and the costliest mode of transport. Commercial air transport is now one of the most prominent modes of overseas transport. Domestic and International flights are the air travels.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
Explain the classification of contract on the basis of performance.
Answer:
(1) Executed Contract:
A contract in which both the parties have fulfilled their obligations under the contract. For example X contracts to buy a car from Y by paying cash, Y instantly delivers his car.

(2) Executory Contract:
A contract in which both the parties are yet to fulfil their obligations, it is said to be an executory contract. For example A agrees to buy B’s cycle by promising to pay cash on 15th June. B agrees to deliver the cycle on 20th June.

(3) Unilateral Contract:
A unilateral contract is a one sided contract in which only one party has performed his promise or obligation, the other party has to perform his promise or obligation. For example X promises to pay Y a sum of Rs. 10,000 for the goods to be delivered by Y. X paid the money and Y is yet to deliver the goods.

(4) Bilateral Contract:
A contract in which both the parties commit to perform their respective promises is called a bilateral contract. For example R offers to sell his fiat car to S for Rs. 10,00,000 on acceptance of R’s offer by S, there is a promise by R to Sell the car and there is a promise by S to purchase the car, there are two promises.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 45(a).
Discuss the causes of risk.
Answer:
Business risk arises due to a variety of causes which are classified as follows:
(1) Natural Causes:
Human beings have little control over natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc. These result in heavy loss of life, property, and income in business.

(2) Human Causes:
Human causes include such unexpected events like dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, stoppage of work due to power failure, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

(3) Economic Causes:
These include uncertainties relating to demand for goods, competition, price, collection of dues from customers, change of technology or method of production, etc. Financial problems like rise in interest rate for borrowing, levy of higher taxes, etc., also come under this type of causes as they result in higher unexpected cost of operation of business.

(4) Other Causes:
These are unforeseen events like political disturbances, mechanical failures such as the bursting of boiler, fluctuations in exchange rates, etc. which lead to the possibility of business risks.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

[OR]

Question 45 (b)
How do you classify Social Responsibility?
Answer:
(1) Economic responsibility:
A business enterprise is basically an economic entity and, therefore, its primary social responsibility is economic i.e., produce goods and services that society wants and sell them at a profit.

(2) Legal responsibility:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land. Since these laws are meant for the good of the society, a law abiding enterprise is a socially responsible enterprise as well.

(3) Ethical responsibility:
This includes the behaviour of the firm that is expected by society but not codified in law. For example, respecting the religious sentiments and dignity of people while advertising for a product. There is an element of voluntary action in performing this responsibility.

(4) Discretionary responsibility:
This refers to purely voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes, for instance, providing charitable contributions to educational institutions or helping the affected people during floods or earthquakes. It is the responsibility of the company management to safeguard the capital investment by avoiding speculative activity and undertaking only healthy business ventures which give good returns on investment.

Question 46(a).
Distinguish between Internal and International trade.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 4

Question 46(b).
Explain briefly the different types of Foreign trade.
Answer:
A. Import Trade:
Import trade jneans buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use. Example. India imports petroleum products from Gulf Countries. India imports machinery, equipment, materials etc. It is necessary to speed-up industrialization, to meet consumer demands and to improve standard of living.

B. Export Trade:
Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.
Examples:

  1. Export of Iron ore from India to Japan
  2. Selling of Tea from India to England.
  3. Export of jasmine flowers from Madurai to Singapore

Export trade is necessary to sell domestic surplus goods, to make better utilization of resources, to earn foreign exchange, to increase national income, to generate employment and to increase Government revenue

C. Entrepot Trade:
Entrepot trade means importing of goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries. It is also known as‘Re-export trade’ E.g. Indian diamond merchants in Surat import uncut raw diamonds from South Africa. They cut and polish die diamonds in their units in India and re-export them to the International Diamond Market in Amsterdam.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Question 47(a).
Classify the companies on the basis of incorporation.
Answer:
Companies on the basis of incorporation

(a) Chartered Companies:
Companies which are established by the king or queen of a countries are called as chartered companies. Powers and privileges are given in the charter, e.g., East Indian company, Bank of England. ‘

(b) Statutory Companies:
Companies which are established by a Special Act of Parliament or state Assembly. Constitution of the company is specified in the memorandum of Association. Rules and regulations of the company are given in the Articles of Association.
Examples:
Food Corporation of India, LIC, RBI .

(c) Association Not for profit:
According to Section 25, the Central Government may, by license, grant that an association may be registered, as a company. It should use the words ‘limited’, or ‘private limited’ as part of its name.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

[OR]

Question 47(b).
Write short notes on:

  1. Bank over draft
  2. Housing loan

Answer:

(1) Bank over draft:
It is a credit facility given mostly to current account holders. It is an arrangement between banker and credit worthy customers. Such customers are allowed to overdraw up to a certain amount usually for 3 months period. The withdrawn amount is charged with interest.

(2) Housing loan:
The banks can grant medium and long term loans to the customers, by accepting the title deeds of the house, is called housing loan. The loan is repaid in equated monthly installments. It is a boon to middle class and salaried employees.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

  1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. questions of Part A, B. C and IV are to be attempted separately
  4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part A are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
  5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part B are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr C are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part D are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – A

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Hindrance of place is removed by …………
(a) Transport
(b) Warehouse
(c) Salesman
(d) Insurance
Answer:
(a) Transport

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not the characteristics of sole trading?
(a) Ownership by one man
(b) Limited Liability
(c) Enjoying entire profit
(d) Maintenance of secrecy.
Answer:
(b) Limited Liability

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 3.
Registration of partnership is …………
(a) Compulsory
(b) Optional
(c) Not necessary
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Optional

Question 4.
Rochdale Society of equitable pioneers was started by …………
(a) Robert Owen
(b) H.C. Calvert
(c) Talmaki
(d) Lambert
Answer:
(a) Robert Owen

Question 5.
Indian Railway is an example of …………
(a) Government Company
(b) Public Corporation
(c) Departmental Undertaking
(d) Board Organisation
Answer:
(c) Departmental Undertaking

Question 6.
NEFT was launched by the RBI in the year …………
(a) 2005
(b) 2013
(c) 2010
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 2005

Question 7.
A warehouse holds goods as ………… a center.
(a) Marketing
(b) sorting
(c) distribution
(d) selling
Answer:
(c) distribution

Question 8.
Madras city had tramways till …………
(a) 1932
(b) 1933
(c) 1934
(d) 1935
Answer:
(b) 1933

Question 9.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
(a) Central Bank
(b) Commercial Bank
(c) Co-operative Banks
(d) Foreign Banks
Answer:
(a) Central Bank

Question 10.
The main benefit of logistics is …………
(a) productivity
(b) cost minimisation
(c) profitability
(d) storage
Answer:
(b) cost minimisation

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 11.
Social responsible business provides goods at …………
(a) high price
(b) low price
(c) reasonable price
(d) moderate price
Answer:
(c) reasonable price

Question 12.
American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are issued in:
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) The USA
Answer:
(d) The USA

Question 13.
………… is one of the methods of raising business finance through sale or mortgage of book debts.
(a) Factoring
(b) Mortgage
(c) Clean loan
(d) Hire Purchase Finance
Answer:
(a) Factoring

Question 14.
Investment limit of a micro enterprise under manufacturing sector does not exceed lakhs …………
(a) 10
(6) 20
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 15.
The purchase of goods from a foreign country is called …………
(a) Import
(b) Export
(c) Entrepot
(d) Re-export
Answer:
(a) Import

Question 16.
Wholesalers deal in ………… quantity of goods.
(a) small
(b) large
(c) medium
(d) limited
Answer:
(b) large

Question 17.
Goods are imported for purpose of re-export to another country is termed as ……….. Entrepot trade
(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) International trade
Answer:
(c) Entrepot trade

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 18.
A contract with or by a minor is a …………
(a) valid contract
(b) void contract
(c) voidable contract
(d) voidable at the option of either party
Answer:
(b) void contract

Question 19.
Period of Assessment year is …………
(a) 1st April to 31st March
(b) 1st March to 28th Dec.
(c) 1st July to 30th June
(d) 1st Jan. to 31st Dec.
Answer:
(a) 1st April to 31st March

Question 20.
GST stands for:
(a) Goods and Supply Tax
(b) Government Sales Tax
(c) Goods and Services Tax
(d) General Sales Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Services Tax

Part-B

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Barter?
Answer:
Goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money.

Question 22.
Who is a sleeping partner?
Answer:
Such a partner contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business.

Question 23.
Define transport.
Answer:
According to KK Saxena, “the transport system acts with reference to the area it serves in the same way as a candle does in a dark room”.

Question 24.
What do you mean by e-commerce?
Answer:
E-commerce or Electronic commerce is the buying and selling of goods and services through electronic networks like internet.

Question 25.
What is ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life. It governs the behaviour, derived from the moral standards which help to determine right or wrong, good or evil.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 26.
What is a Depository Receipt?
Answer:
A depository receipt is a negotiable financial instrument issued by a bank to represent a foreign company’s equity shares or securities. They are issued to attract a greater amount of investment from other countries.

Question 27.
Define Retailer.
Answer:
According to S. Evelyn Thomas “the retailer is the last of the many links in the economic chain whereby the consumer’s wants are satisfied smoothly and efficiently by retailers”.

Question 28.
What is meant by Export trade?
Answer:
When the firm of country sells goods and services to a firm of another country it is called export trade. Export trade indicates selling of goods and services from the home country to a foreign country.

Question 29.
Who can enter into a Contract?
Answer:
The Indian contract Act specifies that every person is competent to contract provided he is of the age of majority according to the Law which he is subject to and who is of sound mind.

Question 30.
Deepak insured his factory for ₹ 5 lakh against fire. Due to fire he suffered a loss of ₹ 2 lakh. How much amount he can recover from the Insurance Company? Why?
Answer:
Factory insured for ₹ 5,00,000
Loss on fire ₹ 2,00,000
Deepak can recover ₹ 2,00,000 because actual loss only can be compensated according to the principle of average clause.

Part-C

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write short notes on:
(a) Business
(b) Profession
Answer:
(a) Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

(b) Profession are those occupations which involves rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 32.
Write any three features of Hindu Undivided Family?
Answer:

  • Governed by Hindu Law:
    The business of the Joint Hindu Family is controlled and managed .under the Hindu law.
  • Membership by Birth:
    The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as a male child is bom in the family, that child becomes a member.
  • Liability:
    Except the Karta, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business.

Question 33.
What are the objectives involved in Regional Rural Banks?
Answer:
Their objective is to develop rural economy and play supplementary role to cooperative societies. They mobilise deposits from the mral public and provide finance to rural artisans, small entrepreneurs and farmers and try to avoid their dependency on money lenders. As on 31.3.2016, there were 56 RRBs in India with 14,494 branches. They are regulated and supervised by NABARD.

Question 34.
What are the types of franchising?
Answer:

  • Product / trade name franchising: In this type, the franchisee exclusively deals with a manufacture’s product, e.g., Kidzee, French Loaf outlets.
  • Business format franchising: When a franchisor awards rights covering all business aspects as a complete business package to the franchisee it is called as business format franchising. e.g., McDonald’s, Pizza Hut.

Question 35.
Why you do think Social Responsibility of business is needed? (Any three reason)
Answer:

  • Self-Interest:
    A business unit can sustain in the market for a longer period only by assuming some social obligations. Normally businessmen recognise that they can succeed better by fulfilling the demands and aspirations of society.
  • Creation of Society:
    Business is a creation of society and uses the resources of society. Therefore, it should fulfil its obligations to society.
  • Social Power:
    Businessmen collectively determine for the nation such important matters as level of employment, rate of economic progress and distribution of income among various groups.

Question 36.
Explain any three features of Self Help Group.
Answer:

  • The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit latter”.
  • Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
  • The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 37.
What are the contents of Indents?
Answer:
Contents of an Indent:
(a) Quantity of goods sent
(b) Design of goods
(c) Price
(d) Nature of packing shipment
(e) Mode of shipment
(f) Period of delivery
(g) Mode of payment

Question 38.
What do you mean by Agreement?
Answer:
An “agreement” means ‘a promise or a set of promises’ forming consideration for each other. A promise arises when a proposal is accepted. By implication, an agreement is an accepted proposal. In other words, an agreement consists of an ‘offer’ and its ‘acceptance’.
Agreement = offer / Proposal + Acceptance

Question 39.
Write any three differences between Direct tax and Indirect tax.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium - 1

Question 40.
Name the partner who has not completed 18 years of age. Can he be admitted into partnership? Why?
Answer:
The partner who has not completed the age of 18 is known as minor partner. He can be admitted into the partnership for. the benefit of the firm. But a minor has no contractual capacity. The consent of all partners is a ‘must’ for such admission.

Part – D

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Distinguish between economic and non-economic activity. (Any five)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium - 2

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
Enumerate any five disadvantages of International trade.
Answer:
1. Economic Dependence:
International trade is more likely to make the country too much dependent on imports from foreign countries. The former may not take any efforts to produce goods and services indigenously to substitute.imported goods and thus becoming self sufficient.

2. Inhibition of Growth of Home Industries:
International business may discourage the growth of indigenous industry. Unrestricted imports and severe competition from foreign companies may ruin the home industries altogether.

3. Import of Harmful Goods:
International business may lead to import of luxurious goods, spurious goods, dangerous goods, etc. It may harm the well-being of people.

4. Shortage of Essential Goods in Home Country:
The export of essential commodities out of the greed of earning more foreign exchange may result in absolute shortage of these goods at home country and people may have to buy these commodities at exorbitant price in the local market.

5. Misuse of Natural Resources:
Excessive export of scarce natural resources to variotis countries across the world may lead to faster depletion of the resources in the exporting countries.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 42 (a).
Explain the characteristics of sole trading business.
Answer:

  • Ownership by one man:
    This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
  • Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
    Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
  • Unlimited Liability:
    When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.
  • Enjoying Entire Profit:
    He strives tirelessly for the improvement and expansion of his business and enjoys all the benefits of his hard work.
  • Absence of Government Regulation:
    A sole proprietor concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation, management or in its closure.
  • No Separate Entity:
    The sole trading concern comes to an end with death, disability, insanity and insolvency of the individual.
  • Maintenance of Secrecy:
    Since he / she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Mention any five functions of wholesaler.
Answer:
Following are the functions of wholesalers:

  • Collection of Goods:
    Wholesaler collects the goods from manufacturers or producers in bulk.
  • Storage of Goods:
    Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.
  • Distribution:
    Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of distribution.
  • Financing:
    Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them.
  • Risk Taking:
    Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and keeps them in the warehouses till the time they are sold and assumes.the risk arising from price, spoilage of goods, and changes in demand.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 43(a).
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details regarding insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Difference between Contract and Agreement.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium - 3

Question 44(a).
Explain the different key elements of business ethics.
Answer:
1. Top Management Commitment:
Top management has a very important role to guide the entire organization towards ethical behaviour. The top level personnel in any organisation should work openly and strongly committed towards ethical conducts and guide people working at’ middle and low level to follow ethical behaviour.

2. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
To make sure that actual decisions match with a firm’s ethical standards, suitable mechanism should be established.

3. Publication of a “Code”:
Generally organisations formulate their own ethical codes for the conduct of the enterprise; it should followed by the employees of the organisation. The organisation principles are defined in the written document called code.

4. Involving Employees at All Levels:
It is the employees at different levels who implement ethics policies to make ethical business a reality. Therefore, their involvement in ethics programmes becomes a must.

5. Measuring Results: .
The organisations from time to time keep a check on ethical practise followed. Although it is difficult to accurately measure the end results of ethics programmes, the firms can certainly audit to monitor compliance with ethical standards.

[OR]

Question 44(b).
Write any five advantages of Co-operative Society.
Answer:

1. Voluntary organisation:
The membership of a co-operative society is open to all. Any person with common interest can become a member. The membership fee is kept low so that everyone would be able to join and benefit from co-operative societies.

2. Easy formation:
Co-operatives can be formed much easily when compared to a company. Any 10 members who have attained majority can join together for forming a co-operative society by observing simple legal formalities.

3. Democracy :
A co-operative society is run on the principle of ‘ one man one vote ‘. It implies that all members have equal rights in managing the affairs of the enterprises.

4. Equal distribution of surplus:
The surplus generated by the co-operative societies is distributed in an equitable manner among members. Therefore all the members of the co-operative society are benefited.

5. Limited liability:
The liability of the members in a co-operative society is limited to the extent of their capital contribution. They cannot be personally held liable for the debts of the society.

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 45 (a).
Answer any five salient features of Government Company.
Answer

1. Registration Under the Companies Act:
A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company. However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications.

2. Executive Decision of Government:
A Government company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

3. Separate Legal Entity:
A Government company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

4. Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51 %) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government; but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

5. Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has authority to appoint majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company.

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
Describe the benefits of outsourcing.
Answer:

1. Focusing on Core Activities:
Companies can focus on their core competence, a few areas where the company has distinct capability. The rest of the activities (non-core) can be outsource to outside agencies.

2. To Fill up Economic Development:
Outsourcing stimulates entrepreneurship, encourages employment opportunities, expands exports, enables tremendous growth of the economy.

3. Encourages Employment Opportunities:
Companies that are outsourcing their non core activities provide chances for other small business units to take up the activities. This paves way for more job opportunities and new employment avenues.

4. Reduction in Investment:
Companies through outsourcing avails the services of outsiders which in turn reduces the investment requirements. The amount so available can be utilized productively and this increases the profits.

5. Quest for Excellence:
Outsourcing enables the firms to pursue excellence in two ways namely excelling themselves in the activities they do and excel outsiders by extending their capabilities through contracting out.

Question 46(a).
Explain any five different kinds of warehouses.
Answer:
Different kinds of warehouses on the basis of ownership:

  • Private Warehouses:
    Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.
  • Government Warehouses:
    They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.
  • Public Warehouse:
    It is open for public at large. Most of the business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.
  • Co-operative Warehouses:
    There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co-operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are setup to provide warehousing facilities to their members.
  • Bonded Warehouses:
    Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed by the government to accept storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non-payment of customs duty by the importer.

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
Distinguish between GDR and ADR.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium - 4

Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Question 47 (a).
A number of identical retail shops with similar appearance normally deal in standardised and branded products. Name the shop and explain its features.
Answer:
The name of the shop is Chain Stores or Multiple Shops. A number of same type of retail shops with similar appearance, selling branded products is known as multiple shops.
Features:

  • Location:
    These shops are located in fairly populous localities.
  • Nature of product:
    These shops deal in a particular line of products only. Also they specialise in the same product.
  • Centralised management:
    The goods’ are purchased by the head office and despatched’ to all the shops.
  • Fixed price:
    The price of the goods are fixed and goods are sold on cash basis.
  • Role of Sales personnel:
    The sales persons play an active role in helping the consumers to complete their shopping.

[OR]

Question 47 (b).
Who are the intermediaries involved in Import trade? Explain about them.
Answer:
Intermediaries in Import Trade:
1. Indent Houses / Import Agent:
This intermediary is specialized in a particular trade. He charges fees for his service. Importer has to enter into contract with indent house to avail himself of his service.

Services rendered by Indent Houses/Import Agent:

  • Helping the importer to get orders from foreign countries.
  • Providing information about the availability of goods and arranging the letter of credit facilities to importer.
  • Maintaining regular contact with the exporter to obtain sample.

2. Clearing Agent- Clearing Agent is specialised in clearing the goods from the port of discharge destination and transport it over to the importer. They fulfill the various custom formalities on behalf of the importer and get the goods cleared from the port. They charge commission for their service.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by
(a) Pandyan Neducheliyan
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
Answer:
(b) Cheran Senguttovanj

Question 2.
Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
Answer:
(c) Pallavas

Question 3.
The rule of Pandyas was followed by
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was ……………..
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
Answer:
(c) Ur

Question 5.
What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Hunting and gathering

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R) :Tamil was the language of Sangam literature,
a. Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
(b) The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
(c) The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose,
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 only

Question 3.
The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
a. Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
b. Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
c. Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
d. Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
Answer:
b Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
Chera – 1. Fish
Chola – 2. Tiger
Pandya – 3. Bow and arrow
A. 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3
C. 3 1 2
D. 2 1 3
Answer:
A. 3 2 1

III. Fill in the blanks :

  1. The battle of Venni was won by ___________
  2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ___________
  3. ___________ built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
  4. The chief of the army was known as ___________
  5. Land revenue was called ___________

Answer:

  1. Karikalana
  2. Tholkappriya
  3. Karikalana
  4. Thanithalaivan
  5. Irai

IV. True or False :

  1. The singing bards of the Sangam age were called Irular.
  2. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
  3. Kizhar was the village chief.
  4. Puhar was the general term for city.
  5. Coastal region was called Marudham

Answer:

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False

V. Match :

  1. Thennar – i Cheras
  2. Vanavar – ii Cholas
  3. Senni – iii Velir
  4. Adiyaman – iv Pandyas

Answer:

  1. – iv
  2. – i
  3. – ii
  4. – iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentence

Question 1.
Name any two literacy sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.
Answer:

  1. Tholkappiyam
  2. Ettuthogai
  3. Pathu Pattu

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
What was Natukkal or Virakkal?
Answer:
In anciant Tamizhagam, the stones erected to commemorate the heroes who died in the battle field are called Natukal (Veerakkal)

Question 3.
Name five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature.
The five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature are
Answer:

  1. Kurinji
  2. Mullai
  3. Marutham
  4. Neithal
  5. Palai

Question 4.
Name any two archaeological sites related to the Sangam period.
Answer:

  1. Adichanallur
  2. Arikamedu

Question 5.
Name the seven patrons (KadaiyeluVallalgal).
Answer:

  1. Pari
  2. Kari
  3. Ori
  4. Pegan
  5. Ay
  6. Adiyaman
  7. Nalli

Question 6.
Name any three Tamil poetic works of Kalabhra period.
Answer:

  1. Tamil Navalar Charithai
  2. Yaperunkalam
  3. Periapuranam

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Discuss the status of women in the Sangam Society.
Answer:

  1. There was no restriction for women in social life.
  2. There were learned and wise women.
  3. Forty women poets had lived and left behind their valuable works.
  4. Marriage was a matter of self-choice.
  5. However, Chastity (Karpu) was considered the highest virtue of women.
  6. Sons and daughters had equal shares in their parent’s property.
  7. Women poets of Sangam Age were Arraiyar, Velliveethiyar, Kakkaipadiniyar, AathiManthiyar, Ponmudiyar.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
KarikalValavan Is regarded as the greatest Chela king. Justify.
Answer:

  1. KarikalValavan defeated the combined army of the Cheras, Pandyas and the eleven velir chieftains at Venni.
  2. He converted forests into cultivable lands.
  3. He built Kallanai to develop agriculture.
  4. The trading activity through the port Puhar is known by the poetic work ‘the Pattinapaalai’.
  5. So Karikal Valavan is regarded as the greatest Chola king.

Question 2.
The period of Kalabhra is not a dark age. Give reasons.
Answer:

  1. The literary sources include Tamil Navalar Charithai, Yapernkalam and Periapuranam for the period of Kalabhra.
  2. Seevaka Chinthamani and Kundalakesi were also written during this period. Many works under pathinenkeezh kanakku were composed.
  3. During this period Jainism and Buddhism became prominent.
  4. The – introduction of Sanskrit and Prakrit developed Vattezhuththu script.
  5. Trade and commerce flourished.

So the Kalabhra Period is not a dark age.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

IX. Map Work :
Question 1.
Mark and colour the extent of Chera, Chola and Pandya empires on the river map of South India.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam The Sangam Age image - 1

Question 2.
Mark the following places,
a. Kerkil
b. Kaveripoompattinam
c. Mwsiri
d. Uratyur
e. Madurai

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam The Sangam Age image - 2

XI. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam The Sangam Age image - 3

Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cheran Senguttuvan’s younger brother was .
(a) IlangoAdigal
(b) Udayan Cheralathan
(c) Cheran Irumporai
(d) Imayavaramban
Answer:
(a) Ilango Adigal

Question 2.
The epic character from Silappathikaram
(a) Kannagi
(b) Manimegalai
(c) Sita
(d) Patanjali
Answer:
(a) Kannagi

Question 3.
The Pandyas ruled the present day Tamilnadu.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Northern
Answer:
(c) Southern

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
The first emporium of India is …………….
(a) Muziri
(b) Madurai
(c) Vanchi
(d) Puhar
Answer:
(a) Muziri

Question 5.
One of the Seven patrons were
(a) Nalli
(b) Vendan
(c) Valavan
(d) Vanaran
Answer:
(a) Nalli

Question 6.
The place served as the court of Justice was
(a) Padai
(b) Mandram
(c) Avai
(d) Ariyanai
Answer:
(b) Mandram

Question 7.
Mudur means
(a) big village
(b) small village
(c) old village
(d) developing village
Answer:
(c) old village

Question 8.
Paddy and Sugarcane were produced in .
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Palai
(d) Mullai
Answer:
(a) Marutham

Question 9.
Yapernkalam was one of the liter a sources of the
(a) Pandyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Marutham w as called fertile land.
Reason (R) :Marutham produced Paddy and Sugarcane.
a. A is true but R is false.
b. Both A and R is not true.
c. Both A and R are true ; But R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are true ; R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is / are not true.
a. Tholkappiam is a work on Tamil grammar.
b. Perunarkilli was a prominent Chera ruler.
c. Sembiyan was a title assumed by the Cholas.
d. Madurai was the capital of the Cholas.

  1. a and b only
  2. b and d only
  3. c only iv. c and d only

Answer:

  1. b and d only

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is / are true?.
a. Nanmaran was praised as the lord of Korkai.
b. Paddaikottil was a place where weapons were kept.
c. Women had many restrictions in social life during Sangam age.
d. Koothu means folk drama.

  1. a and b are true
  2. b is true
  3. c and d are true
  4. b and d are true

Answer:

  1. b and d are true

Question 4
Match the following dynasties with the garlands they signified.
a. Chera – i. Margosa.
b. Chola – ii. Fig
c. Pandya – iii. Palmyra

  1. iii, ii, i
  2. ii, iii, i
  3. i, ii, iii

Answer:

  1. iii, ii, ii

III. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Sangam age belonged to ______ age.
  2. Cheran Irumporai issued ______ in his name.
  3. The ______ region remained the central part of the Kingdom.
  4. Kallanai means a dam ______
  5. MudukudimiPeruvazhuthi issued coins to commemorate his performance of many ______
  6. The crown prince was known as ______
  7. Veera kazhal means ______
  8. Pattinam was the name for a ______

Answer:

  1. Iron
  2. Coins
  3. Kaveri delta
  4. Made of stone
  5. vedic rituals
  6. Komahan
  7. coin
  8. Kaveri deltas
  9. made of stone
  10. Vedic rituals
  11. Komahan
  12. Heroic anklet
  13. coastal town

IV. True or False :

  1. The King’s court was called Arasavai.
  2. The King’s army consisted of eight divisions.
  3. The entire kingdom was called Nadu.
  4. The eco-regions were five thinais.
  5. Varuna system existed in the Sangam age.
  6. Sangam age developed the concept of Muthamizh.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. False
  4. True
  5. False
  6. True

V. Match:

  1. Kurinji – i. Herding
  2. Mullai – ii. Fishing
  3. Marutham – iii. Heroic Deeds
  4. Neithal – iv. Agriculture
  5. Palai – v. Hunting

Answer:

  1. v
  2. i
  3. iv
  4. ii
  5. iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the boundary of Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tamizhagam started from Vengadam (Tirupathi hill) in the north to Kanyakumari (Cape comorin) in the south, bounded by sea on the east and the west.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
What were the Festivals and Entertainments in the Sangam period?
Answer:
Festivals:

  1. People celebrated several festivals.
  2. Some of them were the harvest festival (Pontal), the festival of spring and Karthigai.
  3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the capital.

Entertainments:

  1. There were many amusements and games.
  2. Dances, festivals, bull fights, cork fights, dice, hunting, wrestling and playing in swings were some of them.
  3. Children played with toy cart and with the sand houses made by them.

Question 3.
Where did the Cheras rule?
Answer:
The Cheras ruled over the central and north Travancore, Cochin, South Malabar and Kongu region of TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Mention about the Chera king Senguttuvan.
Answer:

  1. Cheran Senguttuvan went on a military expedition to North India.
  2. He brought stones from the Himalayas for making the idol of Kannagi, an epic character from Silappathikaram. He introduced Pattini cult.

Question 5.
Why was Kallanai built?
Answer:

  1. Kallanai was a dyke (thick wall), built with stones.
  2. It was constructed across the Kaveri to divert water throughout the delta region for irrigation.
  3. When it was built, Kallanai irrigated an area of about 69,000 acres.

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Question 6.
Why is Nedunchezhian hailed on the most popular warrior?
Answer:

  1. Nedunchezhiyan is hailed as the most popular warrior.
  2. He defeated the combined army of the Chera, Chola and five Velir Chieftains at Talayalanganam.
  3. He is praised as the lord of Korkai.

Question 7.
What were the Symbols of royal used during the Sangam period?
Answer:
Kol, Murasu and Venkudai were used as the symbols of the royal authority.

Question 8.
What were the prominent weapons used during the Sangam period?
Answer:

  1. The prominent weapons used during this period were sword, kedayam (shield), tomaram (lance) spears, bows and arrows.
  2. Tomaram is mentioned as a missile to be thrown at the enemy from a distance.
  3. The place where the weapons were kept was known as Paddaikottil.

Question 9.
Mention the important towns of the Sangam period.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Korkai, Madurai, Musiri, Vanji or Karur and Kanchi were the important towns of the Sangam period.

Question 10.
What were the festivals celebrated by the people of the Sangam Age?
Answer:

  1. People celebrate several festivals.
  2. The harvest festival, (Pongal) and the festival of spring, Kaarthigai, were some of them.
  3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the Capital.

Question 11.
What were the two kinds of markets or bazaars in Puhar and Madurai ?
Answer:

  1. There were two kinds of markets or bazaars in the leading cities like Puhar and Madurai.
  2. In Madurai, they were Nalangadi (the morning bazaar) and Allanga (the evening bazaar).
  3. In these markets, large varieties as well as large quantities of goods were sold and purchased.

Question 12.
Mention the major exports and imports of Musiri, Tondi, Korkai.
Answer:

  1. Main exports : Salt, pepper, Ivory, Silk, Spices, Diamonds, Saffron, Precious stones, Muslin, Sandal wood.
  2. Main imports : Topaz, tin, wine, glass, horses.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.

Write about the sources of the Sangam Age.
Answer:
(i) Inscriptions – Hathigumpha Inscription of King Karavela ofKalinga, Pugalur (near Karur) Inscription, Ashokan Edicts II and XIII, and
inscriptions found at Mangulam, Alagarmalai and Ki lavalavu (all near Madurai).

(ii) Copper plates – Velvikudi and Chinnamanur copper plates.

(iii) Coins – Issued by the Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas and the chieftains of Sangam Age as well as the Roman coins.

(iv) Megalithic
Monuments – Burials and Hero stones.

(v) Excavated
Materials from – Adichanallur, Arikamedu, Kodumanal, Puhar, Korkai, Alagankulan, Uraiyur.

(vi) Literary Sources – Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai,Pathupattu, Pathinankeezhkanakku, Pattinapalai and Maduraikanji. Epics Silapathikaram and Manimegalai.

(vii) Foreign Notices – The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea, Pliny’s Natural History, Ptolemy’s Geography, Megasthenes’s Indica, Rajavali, Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa.

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Question 2.
Write about the Kingship under the Sangam polity.
Answer:

  1. The kingship was hereditary.
  2. The eldest son of the reigning king generally succeeded to the throne.
  3. The coronation ceremony was known as Arasukattilerudhal or Mudisoottuvila.
  4. The crown prince was known as Komahan.
  5. King held a daily durbar (naalavai) at which he heard and resolved all the disputes.
  6. The income to the state was through taxation.
  7. The kings and soldiers wore the heroic anklet (Veera kazhal).
  8. Spies were used.
  9. A wound in the back was considered a disgrace.

Question 3.
Write a note on a) Arts and b) Occupation during Sangam age.
Answer:
Arts:

  1. There are many references to variety of musical instruments such as drum, flute and yazh.
  2. Karikalan was master of seven notes of music.
  3. Singing bards were called panar and vraliyar.
  4. Dancing was performed by kanigaiyar. Koothu was the most important cultural practice of the people of Sangam Age.
  5. They developed the concept of Muthamizh (Iyal, Isai, Naatakam).

Occupation :

  1. The major occupations of the people were : agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing and hunting.
  2. Other craftsmen like carpenter, blacksmith, goldsmith, and potters were also part of the population.
  3. Weaving was the most common part-time occupation of the farmers and a regular full time job for many others.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
a. Write a note on Ornamental Gateway.
Answer:
Omainental gateway (Pailou) built during Han dynasty (202 BCE – 220 CE) across street lined with small shobs, Hanzhong, Shaanxi Province China in 1875.
b. Write a note on Pyramid Mayan civilisation

  1. Mayan pyramid : The Maya are a people of Southern Mexico and northern central America with some 3000 years of history.
  2. Archaeological evidence shows the Mayan started to build ceremonial architecture approximately 3000 yrs ago.
  3. Mesoamerican pyramids or pyramid shaped structures form a prominent part of ancient Mesoamerican architecture resemblance to Egyptian pyramids.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

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Question 5.
________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Chandragupta 1 crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R): Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of the Lichchavi family.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Chandragupta II did not have a cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II: The divine theory of kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong, but the statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are correct.
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct

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Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
a. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
b. Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
c. Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
d. Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

  1. Lending money at a high rate of interest was practiced.
  2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries.

a. 1. is correct
b. 2. is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
Answer:
Samudragupta
Reason: Samudragupta was a king. Others were not.

2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Answer:
Harshacharita
Reason: Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. The other three were written by Harsha.

III. Fill in the blanks:

  1. ______ the king of Ceylon was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
  2. A Buddhist monk from China ______ visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
  3. ______ invasion led to the downfall of the Gupta Empire.
  4. ______ was the main revenue to the Government.
  5. The official language of the Guptas was______
  6. ______ the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
  7. ______ was the popular king of the Vardhana dynasty.
  8. Harsha shifted his capital from ______ to Kanauj.

Answer:

  1. Sri Meghavarman
  2. Fahine
  3. Hun
  4. Land Tax
  5. Sanskrit
  6. Vishnugopal
  7. Harsha
  8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False:

  1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
  2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
  3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
  4. Harsha belonged to the Hinayana school of thought.
  5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. False
  4. False
  5. False

V. Match the following:
A
a. Mihirakula – 1. Astronomy
b. Aryabhatta – 2. Kumaragupta
c. Painting – 3. Skandagupta
d. Nalanda University – 4. Caravan trader
e. Sartavaga – 5. Bagh
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Answer:
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

B
a. Bana – 1.10,000 students
b. Harsha – 2. Prayag
c. Nalanda University – 3. Harshacharita
d. Hiuen – Tsang – 4. Ratnavali
e. Buddhist Assembly – 5 Si-Yu-Ki
a) 4,3,2,1,5
b) 5,2,1,3,4
c) 3,5,1,2,4
d) 2,1,3,4,5
Answer:
3,4,1,5,2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

  1. Samudragupta was given the title Kaviraja.
  2. Because he was a lover of poetry and music.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

  1. Buddhism
  2. Yoga
  3. Vedic literature
  4. Medicine

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

  1. The Divine Theory of Kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
  2. The king is the representative of God on earth. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

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Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

  1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
  2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

  1. Huns were the nomadic tribes.
  2. They were terrorizing Rome and Constantinople.
  3. The white Huns came to India through Central Asia.
  4. They were giving trouble to all Indian frontier states.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

  1. Bhaga
  2. Hiranya
  3. Bali

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:

  1. Ratnavali
  2. Nagananda
  3. Priyadharshika

VII. Answer the following briefly :

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

  1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’.
  2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
  3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.
  4. The Prayog Prashasti, composed by Samudragupta’s court poet Harisena was engraved on Allahabad Pillar.
  5. This Allahabad Pillar inscription is the main source of information for Samudragupta’s reign.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

  1. Samudragupta was a great general.
  2. He defeated Vishnugop, the Pallava ruler in the South.
  3. He conquered nine Kingdoms in northern India.
  4. He reduced 12 rulers of Southern India to the status of feudatories and forced them to pay tribute.
  5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
(i) Classification of land during the Gupta period.

a. Kshetra Cultivable land
b. Khila Wasteland
c. Aprahata Jungle or forest land
d. Vasti Habitable land
e. Gapata Saraha Pastoral land

(ii) Land Tax was the main revenue to the government.

(iii) The condition of the peasants was pathetic. They were required to pay various taxes. They were reduced to the position of serfs.

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

  1. The contribution of the traders to the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
  2. There were two types of traders, namely Sresti and Sarthavaha.
  3. Sresti traders usually settled at a standard place.
  4. Sarthavaha traders were caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.
  5. Trade items ranged from daily products to valuable and luxury goods.
  6. The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.

Question 5.
Highlights the contribution of guptas to architecture.
Answer:

  1. The Guptas were the first to construct temples, which evolved from the earlier tradition of rock-cut shrines.
  2. Adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, these temples were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
  3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora (Maharashtra), Bagh (Madhya Pradesh) and
  4. Udaygiri (Odisha).
  5. The structural temples built during this period resemble the characteristic features of the Dravidian style.
  6. Two remarkable examples of Gupta metal sculpture are
    • a copper image of Buddha about 18 feet high at Nalanda.
    • Sultanganj Buddha seven-and-a-half feet in height.
  7. Gupta paintings are found on the Fresco of the Ajanta caves and the Bagh cave in Gwalior.

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Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:
Works of Kalidasa:

  1. Dramas: Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra, and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
  2. Other works are Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava, and Ritusamhara.

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

  1. Harsha, himself a poet and dramatist, gathered around him the best of poets and artists.
  2. Harsha’s popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda, and Priyadharshika.
  3. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta, and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate __________
a. the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
b. the ability of the people to work with gold
c. the prosperity of the kingdom
d. the extravagant nature of kings
Answer:
c. the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on ………………
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for __________
a. renaissance in literature and art
b. expeditions to southern India.
c. invasion of Huns
d. religious tolerance
Answer:
a. renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

  1. The invention of Zero and the consequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
  2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses.
  3. He was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.
Mauryan Society:

  1. According to Megasthenes, the Greek historian, the ancient Mauryan society comprised of seven divisions namely philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councillors which were referred to as castes.
  2. In the ancient Mauryan society, the cultivators formed the largest group becoming the central nerve of agriculture in society.
  3. The caste system was a very prevalent one.
  4. Women were also engaged in a variety of activities like archers, royal bodyguards, spies, and performers.
  5. But women were most of the time dominated by their male counterparts.
  6. Wisdom had a very honorable place in society. Offenses against women were severally dealt with.
  7. An urban way of life developed. Education became fairly widespread.
  8. Slavery in India was beginning to make an appearance.

Gupta Society:

  1. Society has adhered to four vama system.
  2. According to the laws of Manu, which was in force, women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
  3. Polygamy was widely prevalent.
  4. The kings and the feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
  5. Inscriptions refer to Kubernaga and Dhruvasvamini as the queens of Chandragupta II.
  6. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

X. Life Skills :

Question 1.
Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta:

  1. Aryabhatta (476-550CE) was the first of the major mathematician-astronomers from the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian astronomy.
  2. His major work, Aryabhatiya is a compendium of mathematics and astronomy.
  3. Aryabhatiya covers several branches of mathematics such as algebra, arithmetic, plane and spherical trigonometry.
  4. Aryabhatta discovered the position of nine planets and expressed that these likewise rotate around the sun.
  5. He also provided the circumference and measurement of the Earth and the radius of the orbits of 9 planets.
  6. Aryabhatta pronounced that the moon has no light of its own.
  7. He concluded that the earth is round. He also stated that it rotates on its own axis, which is why we have days and nights.
  8. He concentrated on a few geometric and trigonometric parts of the celestial sphere that are still used to study stars.
  9. In his old age, Aryabhatta composed another treatise ‘ Aryabahatta – Siddhanta’. It is the booklet for everyday astronomical calculation for performing rituals, To this very day, astronomical data provided in this text is used for preparing panchangs (Hindu Calendars).
  10. India’s first Satellite Aryabhatta was named after him.

Varahamihira:

  1. Varahamihira (505-587CE) was an Indian astronomer, mathematician and astrologer from Ujjain.
  2. Varahamihira is considered to be one of the Nine gems (Navarathnas) of the court of ancient ruler Yashodarman.
  3. His knowledge of westren astrology was thorough but he was also very intrested in astrology and horoscope
  4. His father was a worshipper of the Sun God and it was he who taught astrology.
  5. Varahamihira was a scientist. He declared that the earth was spherical. He was the first to claim that some ‘force’ might be keeping bodies stuck to the round earth. This force is now called gravity.
  6. He proposed that the moon and the planets are lustrous not because of their own light but due to Sunlight.
  7. His book Panchasiddhantika on mathematical astronomy is one of the most important sources for the history of Hindu Astronomy.
  8. His encyclopedia Brihat-Samhita with 106 chapters include subjects planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, growth of crops, various rituals.

Brahmagupta – (598-668 CE):

  1. Brahmagupta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer. He wrote some important works on both mathematics and astronomy.
  2. His most famous work is “Brahmasphutasiddanta”.
  3. Brahmagupta explained how to find the cube and cuberoot.
  4. He was the earliest known mathematician to treat zero as a number in its own right.
  5. He dedicated a substantial portion of his work to geometry and trigonometry
  6. He explains that since the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun, the degree of the illuminated part of the moon depends on the relative position of the sun and the moon. This can be computed from the size of the angle between the bodies.
  7. In his treatise, Khandakhadyaka explored the longitudes of the planets, diurnal rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, rising and settings etc.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.
Answer:
ISRO :

  1. The Indian space Research Organisation is the space agency of the government of India.
  2. Its headquarters is in the city of Bangalore.
  3. it was formed in 1969.
  4. It built India’s first satellite “Aryabhatta” in 1975.

Satellite Launching:

  1. Usually, the word ‘Satellite’ refers to a machine that is launched into space and moves around the Earth or another body in space.
  2. Moon is an example of a natural satellite. Thousands of artificial or Man-made satellites orbit Earth.
  3. India has two operational launchers:
    • Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
    • Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

XI. Answer Grid :

Who was Toromana?
Ans: Chief of the Huns

Name the high-ranking officials of the Gupta Empire.
Ans: Dandanayakas and Mahadanayakas

Name the Gupta kings who performed Asvamedha yagna.
Ans: Samudra Gupta Kumaragupta I

Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses.
Ans: Surya Siddhanta

Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins.
Ans: Sri Guptha

Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign?
Ans: Allahabad Pillar Inscription

Harsha was the worshipper in the beginning.
Ans: Lord Shiva

University reached its fame during the Harsha period.
Ans: Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires: Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Devichandraguptam was written by _______
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Harisena
(c) Bana
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(a) Visakhadatta

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasizes the importance of ……………
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
Vishnugopa was the ruler of _______
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Pallava
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Pallava

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara ……………
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 5.
Srimeghavarman was a contemporary of _______
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Narasimhagupta
Answer:
(c) Samudragupta

Question 6.
Nitisara was authored by _______
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Visakhadatha
(c) Kamandaka
(d) Harisena
Answer:
(c) Kamandaka

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Question 7.
Hinayana and Mahayana were the two sects of
(a) Vaishnavism
(b) Saivism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Contribution of the traders for the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
Reason (R) : The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.
a. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

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Question 2.
Statement I: Kumaragupta built the famous Nalanda University.
Statement II: Fahien spent many years studying Buddhism at Nalanda University.
a. Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are wrong.
d. Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.

  1. Lichchhavi was old gana-sanga.
  2. Srigupta was given the title “Kaviraja’

a. 1 is correct
b. 2 is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
a. 1 is correct

Question 4.
Circle the odd one.

Question 1.
Kshetra, Vasti, Nitisara, Khila.
Answer:
Nitisara
Reason: Nitisara is a book, whereas the other three were the classification of land in Gupta’s period.

Question 2.
Pataliputra, Benaras, Magadha, Mathura
Answer:
Magadha
Reason: Magadha was an ancient kingdom, whereas the other three were the famous trade centers.

III. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Hiuen Tsang authored _______
  2. Fahien visited the court of _______
  3. The last of the great Guptas was _______
  4. The last recognized king of the Gupta empire was _______
  5. The espionage system of the Gupta was known as _______
  6. Pushyabhuti dynasty ruled from _______
  7. Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneswar to _______
  8. Sasanka of Bengal was hostile to _______
  9. Harsha met the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang at _______
  10. Harsha built the charitable institution to care for the _______

Answer:

  1. Si-Yu-Ki
  2. Chandragupta II
  3. Baiaditya /Narasimha Gupta I
  4. Vishnugupta
  5. Dutakas
  6. Thaneswar
  7. Kanau
  8. Harsha
  9. Kajangala
  10. Sick and Poor

IV. True or False :

  1. The surname Devaraja referred to Vikramaditya.
  2. Chandragupta II built the Nalanda University.
  3. Aprahata meant Jungle or forest land.
  4. Sresti traders were caravan traders.
  5. Asvamedha Yagna means horse sacrifice ritual.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True

V. Match:
A
Kalidasa – 1. Architect
Sanku – 2. Physician
Varahamihira – 3. Sanskrit Poet
Dhanvantri – 4. Magician
Vittalbhatta – 5. Astronomer
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 3,1,5,2,4
d)4,2,3,1,5
Answer:
c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
Amarasimha – 1. Grammarian
Kahapanaka – 2. Sanskrit Poet
Varauchi – 3. Lexicographer
Harisena – 4. Buddhism
Hinayana – 5. Astrologer
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 4,5,3,1,2
d)5,3,2,4,1
Answer:
b) 3,5,1,2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was Srigupta?
Answer:

  1. Srigupta is considered to be the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
  2. He is believed to have reigned over parts of present-day Bengal and Bihar.
  3. He was the first Gupta ruler to be featured on coins.
  4. He was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha.

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Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

  1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta, he is portrayed playing the harp (Veena).
  2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title “Kaviraja7.

Question 3.
Mention the surnames of Chandragupta II.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, SimhachandraJ Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.

Question 4.
What do the seals and inscriptions reveal about Gupta’s military administration?
Answer:

  1. Seals and inscriptions mentioned the military designations as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita (Commander of infantry and cavalry respectively).
  2. The system of espionage included spies known as dutakas.

Question 5.
What were the metals used by the Guptas?
Answer:
Guptas used iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica, manganese, and red chalk.

Question 6.
Was there the development of Sanskrit grammar during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta period saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on the grammar of Panini and Patanjali who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Mahabhashya respectively.

Question 7.
Why did Harsha embrace Buddhism?
Harsha embraced Buddhism under the influence of his sister Rajyashri and the Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen Tsang.

Question 8.
As a Buddhist, what are the contributions of Harsha?
Answer:

  1. Harsha belonged to the Mahayana school of thought.
  2. Harsha treated Vedic scholars and Buddhist monks alike and distributed Charities equally to them.
  3. He was the last Buddhist sovereign in India.
  4. As a pious Buddhist, Harsha stopped the killing of animals for food.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Chandragupta II.
Answer:

  1. Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta.
  2. He was also known as Vikramaditya.
  3. He conquered western Malwa and Gujarat by defeating the Saka rulers.
  4. He maintained a friendly relations with the rulers of southern India.
  5. The iron pillar near Qutub Minar is believed to have been built by Vikramaditya.
  6. Fahien, a Buddhist scholar from China, visited India during his region.
  7. Vikramaditya is said to have assembled the greatest writers and artists [Navaratna (Nine Jewels)] in his court.
  8. He was succeeded by Kumaragupta

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Question 2.
What do you know about society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

  1. The society that adhered to the four vama system was patriarchal.
  2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
  3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
  4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
  5. Sati was practiced during the Gupta rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nalanda University.
Answer:

  1. Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj.
  2. At Nalanda, Buddhism was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature, and Medicine were also taught.
  3. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism at the University.
  4. Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus.
  5. Nalanda was ravaged and destroyed by Turkish Muslims.
  6. Today it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 4.
Explain the Gupta Monetary System under Samudra Gupta.
Answer:

  1. Samundragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system.
  2. Kushana coins provided inspiration to Samudragupta.
  3. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara.
  4. Gupta’s issued many gold coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins.
  5. However, the post-Gupta period saw a fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.

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Question 5.
Write about the conquests of Harshavardhana.
Answer:

  1. The most popular king of the Vardhana dynasty was Harshavardhana. He ruled for 41 years.
  2. His feudatories included those of Jalandhar, Kashmir, Nepal, and Valabhi.
  3. Sasanka of Bengal remained hostile to him.
  4. It was Harsha who unified most of northern India.
  5. He maintained a cordial relationship with the rulers of Iran and China.
  6. But the extension of his authority in the south was checked by Chalukya king Pulikesin II.
  7. The kingdom of Harsha disintegrated rapidly into small states after his death in 648 AD

Question 6.
Who was Hiuen Tsang?
Answer:

  1. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveller, known as the “Prince of pilgrims”, visited India during Harsha’s reign.
  2. His book ‘Si-yu-ki’ provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious, and cultural conditions of India during Harsha’s time.
  3. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held at Prayag.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of the assemblies held at
a) Kanauj
b) Prayag.
Answer:
a. Assembly held at Kanauj:

  1. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings.
  2. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and Vedic scholars attended the assembly.
  3. The golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in the monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.

b. Assembly at Prayag:

  1. In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars, and poor people.
  2. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all four days of the assembly
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