Class 12

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Based on the monetary value e payment system can be classified into
(a) Mirco and Macro
(b) Micro and Nano
(c) Maximum and Minimum
(d) Maximum and Macro
Answer:
(a) Mirco and Macro

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a category of micro payment?
(a) Buying a movie ticket
(b) Subscription to e journals
(c) Buying a laptop
(d) Paying for smart phone app
Answer:
(c) Buying a laptop

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Micro electronic payment systems support higher value payments.
Reason (R): Expensive cryptographic operations are included in macro payments
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 4.
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Credit Cards – pay before
(b) Debit Cards – pay now
(c) Stored Value Card – pay later
(d) Smart card – pay anytime
Answer:
(b) Debit Cards – pay now

Question 5.
ECS stands for
(a) Electronic Clearing Services
(b) Electronic Cloning Serivces
(c) Electronic Clearing Station
(d) Electornic Cloning Station
Answer:
(a) Electronic Clearing Services

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a Altcoin
(a) Litecoin
(b) Namecoin
(c) Ethereum
(d) Bitcoin
Answer:
(c) Ethereum

Question 7.
Which of the following is true about Virtual payment address (VPA)
(a) Customers can use their e-mail id as VPA
(b) VPA does not includes numbers
(c) VPA is a unique ID
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA
Answer:
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA

Question 8.
Pick the odd one in the credit card transaction
(a) card holder
(b) merchant
(c) marketing manager
(d) acquirer
Answer:
(c) marketing manager

Question 9.
Which of the following is true about debit card
(i) debit cards cannot be used in ATMs
(ii) debit cards cannot be used in online transactions
(iii) debit cards do not need bank accounts
(iv) debit cards and credit cards are identical in physical properties
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii) alone
(d) (iv) alone
Answer:
(d) (iv) alone

Question 10.
Match the following

Answer:
(b) A1-B2, A2-B1, A3-B3, A4-B4

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define electronic payment system?
Answer:
The term electronic payment refers to a payment made from one bank account to another bank account using electronic methods forgoing the direct intervention of bank employees.

Question 2.
Distinguish micro electronic payment and macro electronic payment?
Answer:
Micro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of small system amount
2. Less Security
3. Eg. Subscriptions of online games

Macro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of higher value
2. Highly Secured
3. Electronic account transfer

Question 3.
List the types of micro electronic payments based on its algorithm?
Answer:

1. Hash chain based micro electronic payment systems.
2. Hash collisions and hash sequences based micro electronic payment systems.
3. Shared secrete keys based micro electronic payment systems.
4. Probability based micro electronic payment systems.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of e-wallet?
Answer:
Electronic wallets (e-wallets) or electronic purses allow users to make electronic transactions quickly and securely over the Internet through smartphones or computers.

Question 5.
What is a fork in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Many cryptocurrencies operate on the basis of the same source code, in which the authors make only a few minor changes in parameters like time, date, distribution of blocks, number of coins, etc. These currencies are called as fork. In fork, both cryptocurrencies can share a common transaction history in block chain until the split.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answers

Question 1.
Define micro electronic payment and its role in E-Commerce?
Answer:

1. It is an on-line payment system designed to allow efficient and frequent payments of small amounts.
2. In order to keep transaction costs very low, the communication and computational costs are minimized here.
3. The security of micro electronic payment systems is comparatively low
4. The majority of micro electronic payment systems were designed to pay for simple goods on the Internet, e.g., subscriptions of online games, read journals, listen to a song or watch a movie online etc.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the credit card and debit card?
Answer:
Credit Card:
A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

Debit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest.

Question 3.
Explain briefly Anatomy of a credit card?
Answer:
Publisher:
Emblem of the issuing bank

Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the stored value card and its types?
Answer:
(i) Closed loop (single purpose):
In closed loop cards, money is metaphorically stored on the card in the form of binary- coded data. e.g. chennai metro rail travel card.

(ii) Open loop (multipurpose):
It is also called as prepaid-debit cards, e.g. Visa gift cards.

Question 5.
Write a note on mining in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Mining:
The cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called mining. The miners not only generate new monetary units, but also initiate new transactions to the blockchain. As a reward, they will receive new Bitcoins.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
What is credit card? Explain the key players of a credit card payment system and bring out the merits of it?
Answer:
Credit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest. Every credit card account has a purchase limit set by the issuing bank or the firm. A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

The term credit card was first mentioned in 1887 in the sci-fi novel “Looking Backward” by Edward Bellamy. The modem credit cards concept was bom in the U.S.A, in the 1920s, when private companies began to issue cards to enable their customers to purchase goods on credit within their own premises.

Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Key players in operations of credit card:
1. Bearer:
The holder of the credit card account who is responsible for payment of invoices in full (transactor) or a portion of the balance (revolver) the rest accrues interest and carried forward.

2. Merchant:
Storekeeper or vendor who sell or providing service, receiving payment made by its customers through the credit card.

3. Acquirer:
Merchant’s bank that is responsible for receiving payment on behalf of merchant send authorization requests to the issuing bank through the appropriate channels.

4. Credit Card Network:
It acts as the intermediate between the banks. The Company responsible for communicating the transaction between the acquirer and the credit card issuer. These entities operate
the networks that process credit card payments worldwide and levy interchange fees. E.g. Visa, MasterCard, Rupay

5. Issuer:
Bearer’s bank, that issue the credit card, set limit of purchases, decides the approval – of transactions, issue invoices for payment, charges the holders in case of default and offer card-linked products such as insurance, additional cards and rewards plan.

Question 2.
Briefly explain Electronic Account transfer and its types?
Answer:
With the advent of computers, network technologies and electronic communications a large number of alternative electronic payment systems have emerged. These include ECS (Electronic Clearing Services), EFT (Electronic funds transfers), Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) etc.

1. Electronic Clearing Services (ECS):
Electronic Clearing Service can be defined as repeated transfer of funds from one bank account to multiple bank accounts or vice versa using computer and Internet technology. Advantages of this system are bulk payments, guaranteed payments and no need to remember payment dates. ECS can be used for both credit and debit purposes i.e. for making bulk payments or bulk collection of amounts.

2. ECS credit:
ECS credit is used for making bulk payment of amounts. In this mode, a single account is debited and multiple accounts are credited. This type of transactions are Push transactions. Example: if a company has to pay salary to its 100 employees it can use ECS credit system than crediting every employees’ account separately.

3. ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers

4. Electronic Funds Transfer:
Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) is the “electronic transfer” of money over an online network. The amount sent from the sender’s bank branch is credited to the receiver’s bank branch on the same day in batches.

5. Real Time Gross Settlement:
Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) is a payment system particularly used for the settlement of transactions between financial institutions, especially banks.

Real-time gross settlement transactions are:

1. Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he 242 fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

2. Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 3.
Write a note on
(a) Internet banking
(b) Mobile banking

(a) Internet banking:
Internet banking is a collective term for E-banking, online banking, virtual banking (operates only on the Internet with no physical branches), direct banks, web banking and remote banking. Internet banking allows customers of a financial institution to conduct various financial transactions on a secure website operated by the banking institutions. This is a very fast and convenient way of performing any banking transactions.

It enables customers of a bank to conduct a wide range of financial transactions through its website. In fact, it is like a branch exclusively operating of an individual customer. The online banking system will typically connect to the core banking system operated by customers themselves (Self-service banking).

Advantages:

1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.
2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need .installing any additional software.

(b) Mobile banking:
Mobile banking is another form of net banking. The term mobile banking (also called m-banking) refers to the services provided by the bank to the customer to conduct banking transactions with the aid of mobile phones. These transactions include balance checking, account transfers, payments, purchases, etc.

Transactions can be done at any time and anywhere. The WAP protocol installed on a mobile phone qualifies the device through an appropriate application for mobile session establishment with the bank’s website. In this way, the user has the option of permanent control over the account and remote management of his own finances. Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

• Contacting the call center.
• Automatic IVR telephone service.
• Using a mobile phone via SMS.
• WAP technology.
• Using smartphone applications.

Question 4.
What is cryptocurrency? Explain the same?
Answer:
Cryptocurrency:

• People have always valued unique and irreplaceable things. A unique thing always has a demand and acclaims a price.
• A cryptocurrency is a unique virtual (digital) asset designed to work as a medium of exchange using cryptographic algorithm.
• This algorithm secures the transactions by recording it in blockchain and controls the creation of additional units of the currency.
• Cryptocurrency is also called as cryptocoins, e-cash, alternative currencies or virtual currencies and are classified as a subset of digital currencies.
• Cryptocurrency can be defined as distributed accounting system based on cryptography, storing information about the state of ownership in conventional units.
• The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called “portfolios”.
• Only the holder of the corresponding private key would have control over a given portfolio and it is impossible to issue the same unit twice.
• The function of cryptocurrency is based on technologies such as Mining, Blockchain, Directed Acyclic Graph, Distributed register (ledger), etc. The information about the . transaction is usually not encrypted and is available in clear text.

Bitcoin:
Bitcoin is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency. Bitcoin is the most popular cryptocurrency, but there are many other cryptocurrencies, which are referred to as “altcoins”.

Altcoins:

1. Altcoins is the collective name for all cryptocurrencies that appeared after Bitcoin. The early Altcoins Litecoin and Namecoin appeared in 2011.
2. From 2014, the 2nd generation of cryptocurrency appeared, such as Monero, Ethereum and Nxt. These crypto-coins have advanced features such as hidden addresses and smart contracts.
3. In terms of trade, the creation of cryptocurrencies may be related to the ICO (Initial Coin Offer) procedure.

Block chain:

• Block chains are an open distributed book that records transactions of cryptocurrencies between any two parties in an efficient and verifiable manner.
• It is a continuously growing list of records, called blocks, which are linked to each other and protected using encryption algorithm.
  Each block typically contains a hash pointer as a link to a previous block. It records data about every transaction with its date and time.
• Once recorded, the data in any given block cannot be altered without the alteration of all subsequent blocks.

Question 5.
Explain in detail: Unified payments interface?
Answer:
(i) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NCPI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions.

(ii) It is simple, secure and instant payment facility. This interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and used for transferring funds instantly between two bank accounts through mobile (platform) devices. http://www. npci.org.in/

(iii) Unlike traditional e-wallets, which take a specified amount of money from user and store it in its own account, UPI withdraws and deposits funds directly from the bank account whenever a transaction is requested.

(iv) It also provides the “peer to peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.

(v) UPI is developed on the basis of Immediate Payment Service (IMPS). To initiate a transaction, UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

• Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
• Local address is a virtual payment address.

(vi) Virtual payment address (VPA) also called as UPI-ID, is a unique ID similar to email id
(e.g. name@bankname) enable us to send and receive money from multiple banks and prepaid payment issuers.

(vii) Bank or the financial institution allows the customer to generate VPA using phone number associated with Aadhaar number and bank account number. VPA replaces bank account details thereby completely hides critical information.

(Viii) The MPIN (Mobile banking Personal Identification number) is required to confirm each payment. UPI allows operating multiple bank accounts in a single mobile application.

(ix) Some UPI application also allows customers to initiate the transaction using only Aadhaar number in absence VPA.

Advantages:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts.
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
An electronic payment system is also called as …………………….
(a) liquidation
(b) clearing system
(c) clearing services
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
The electronic payment systems are classified into …………………….. types
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
I: Micro Electronic payments are expensive public key cryptography.
II: Security of Micro Electronic Payment is low
(a) t-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) Both I, II are true
(d) Both I, II-False
Answer:
(b) I-False, II-True

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out
(a) read journals
(b) listen to a song
(c) watch a movie online
(d) Internet payment systems
Answer:
(d) Internet payment systems

Question 5.
…………………….. are plastic cards that enable cashless payments.
Answer:
Payment Cards

Question 6.
How many card based payment systems are available (based on the transaction settlement method)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
How many micro electronic payments systems are there based on simple cryptographic algorithms?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 8.
……………………… is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 9.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the novel by ……………………..
Answer:
Edward Beltamy

Question 10.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the sci-fi novel ………………………
(a) Looking Backward
(b) Arrival
(c) Interstellar
(d) Altered States
Answer:
(a) Looking Backward

Question 11.
The term credit cad was first mentioned in the sci-fi normal in the year ………………………
(a) 1997
(b) 1887
(c) 1987
(d) 1897
Answer:
(b) 1887

Question 12.
The plastic cards was introduced in the year ……………………..
(a) 1957
(b) 1597
(c) 1955
(d) 1855
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 13.
Who created Diners Club Card?
(i) Frank McNamara
(ii) Ralph Schneider
(iii) Edward Bellamy
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)

Question 14.
The Diners Club Card was created in the year …………………………
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 15.
Initially the Diners Club Card was made of ……………………..
(a) paper-cardboard
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) metal
Answer:
(a) paper-cardboard

Question 16.
(I) The Diners Club Card was accepted only in 25 restaurants (initially).
(II) From 1965, the card was made of plastic.
(a) I-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) I, II-both True
(d) I, II-both are false
Answer:
(d) I, II-both are false

Question 17.
How many key players are there in the operation of credit card?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 18.
The ……………………. is the holder of the credit card account.
Answer:
Bearer

Question 19.
……………………. Network acts as the Intermediate between the banks.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 20.
The credit card limit, approval of transactions, default charges are issued by
(a) issuer
(b) Merchant
(c) Acquirer
(d) Bearer
Answer:
(a) issuer

Question 21.
Match the following (description of payment cards)
(i) width – 1.2.88 mm – 3.48 mm
(ii) height – 2. 53.98 mm
(iii) radius – 3. 85.60 mm
(iv) thickness – 4.0.76 mm
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)- 1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
Answer:
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4

Question 22.
The credit card number has ……………………. digit unique identification number
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 16

Question 27.
EMV means ………………………
Answer:
europay, Mastercard, Visa

Question 28.
EMV is categorized into ………………………
Answer:
chip and signature, chip and PIN

Question 29.
How many curved lines are there in RFID symbol?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 30.
……………………. is Ipdian domestic open loop card.
Answer:
Rupay

Question 31.
Rupay was launched in the year
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2009
(d) 2012
Answer:
(d) 2012

Question 32.
Which is a credit card security feature to prevent duplication?
(a) logo
(b) Hologram
(c) signature
(d) CW
Answer:
(b) Hologram

Question 33.
CVC/CW means ………………….
Answer:
Card Verification Code/ Value

Question 34.
Which is used in contact less transactions.
(a) CVC2
(b) EMV
(c) RFID
(d) PIN
Answer:
(a) CVC2

Question 35.
……………………… is a 3 digit code printed to the left of signature pane to validate the card.
Answer:
CVC/CVV

Question 36.
How many ways of processing debit card transactions are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 37.
Which card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted from the card holders Bank account?
(a) Credit card
(b) Debit card
(c) Smart card
(d) Paytm card
Answer:
(b) Debit card

Question 38.
Which is also known as online debit or PIN debit?
(a) EFTPOS
(b) POSEFT
(c) FETPOS
(d) FETSOP
Answer:
(a) EFTPOS

Question 39.
……………………. is a type of debit card that is preloaded with certain amount.
Answer:
Stored value card

Question 40.
Which is true regarding stored value cards?
(i) It has default monetary value onto it.
(ii) The card may be disposed when the value is used.
(iii) It is used to make offline purchases
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (iii) alone
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)

Question 41.
How many varieties of stored value card are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 42.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) closed loop cards
(b) open loop cards
(c) prepaid-debit cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(a) closed loop cards

Question 43.
In which of the following cards in binary coded metaphorically stored on the card in binary coded data form?
(a) open loop cards
(b) prepaid-debit cards
(c) closed loop cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(c) closed loop cards

Question 44.
Which of the following is not the advantage of smart cards?
(a) Identification
(b) RFID
(c) datastorage
(d) application processing
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 45.
Smart cards are classified into ……………………. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 46.
The two classifications of smart cards are ……………………… and ………………….. smart cards.
Answer:
contact and contactless

Question 47.
POS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Point of Sale

Question 48.
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately ……………………….
(a) 1 cms²
(b) 10 cms²
(c) 1 mm²
(d) 1 hectares
Answer:
(a) 1 cms²

Question 49.
Find the statements which is not true?
(I) contact smart cards uses RF induction Technology
(II) smarts have Internal power Source
(III) Inductor is used to capture radio-frequency signal
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, II
(d) III
Answer:
(c) I, II

Question 50.
Which technology is used in contactless smart cards.
(a) UV Induction
(b) RF Induction
(c) RFID
(d) IRID
Answer:
(b) RF Induction

Question 51.
EFT means ………………………
Answer:
Electronic Funds Transfers

Question 52.
RTGS means …………………….
Answer:
Real Time Gross Settlement System

Question 53.
ECS ………………….. is used for making bulk payment of amounts.
Answer:
credit

Question 54.
ECS ………………….. is used for bulk collection of amounts.
Answer:
debit

Question 55.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit
(b) Offline debit – Signature debit
(c) ECS credit – Push transactions
(d) ECS debit – Pull transactions
Answer:
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit

Question 56.
EFT means
(a) National Electronic Fund Transactions
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) National Electronic Finance Technology
(d) National Electronic Financial Transactions
Answer:
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer

Question 57.
RBI means ……………………..
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 58.
IDRBT stands for ……………………
Answer:
Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology

Question 59.
NEFT initiated in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2005
(d) 2009
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 60.
Which one of the following enables bank customer to transfer funds between any two banks?
(a) EFT
(b) NEFT
(c) EMI
(d) ECS
Answer:
(b) NEFT

Question 61.
…………………… payments are generally large-value payments
Answer:
RTGS

Question 62.
…………………… is the electronic transfer of money over an online network
Answer:
EFT

Question 63.
Which one of the following is the currency that flows in the form of data?
(a) RTGS
(b) EFT
(c) ECS
(d) E-cash
Answer:
(d) E-cash

Question 64.
Cryptocurrency is also called as …………………..
(a) Cryptocoins
(b) e-cahs
(c) virtual currencies
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 65.
The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called ………………………
(a) portfolios
(b) virtual asset
(c) erytography
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) portfolios

Question 66.
What are the technologies used in cryptocurrency?
(a) Mining
(b) block chain
(c) Directed Acyclic Graph
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 67.
The first form of cryptocurrency is ……………………….
(a) Digicash
(b) D-cash
(c) E-cash
(d) Crypto cash
Answer:
(a) Digicash

Question 68.
“Digicash” was invented by …………………….
Answer:
David Chaum

Question 69.
Digicash was invented in the year ………………………
(a) 1978
(b) 1980
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer:
(d) 1989

Question 70.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Digicash- 1989
(b) Bitcoin- 2009
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function
(d) Altcoin – 2011
Answer:
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function

Question 71.
Which is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency?
(a) Digicash
(b) Bitcoin
(c) Altcoins
(d) block chain
Answer:
(b) Bitcoin

Question 72.
Bitcoin payment system was developed under the pseudonym ……………………….
Answer:
Satosi Nakamoto

Question 73.
………………….. was developed to build alternative root DNS servers.
Answer:
Namecoin

Question 74.
Which cryptocurrency has a higher transaction rate?
(a) Altcoin
(b) Litecoin
(c) Bitcoin
(d) Namecoin
Answer:
(b) Litecoin

Question 75.
Making few minor changes in the parameters of cryptocurrency is called ………………………..
(a) altoin
(b) Block
(c) Blockchain
(d) Fork
Answer:
(d) Fork

Question 76.
As the value of altcoins becomes ………………….. it is considered as dead.
(a) Null
(b) 0
(c) infinity
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 77.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Bitshares
(b) Mastercoin
(c) Ripple
(d) Nxt
Answer:
(c) Ripple

Question 78.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Monera
(b) Nxt
(c) Ethereum
(d) Mastercoin
Answer:
(d) Mastercoin

Question 79.
The Cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called ………………………..
(a) mining
(b) Block chain
(c) Hash
(d) Brick and Mortar
Answer:
(a) mining

Question 80.
Find the statements which are not true.
(i) The miners generate new monetary units
(ii) Miners doesh’t initiate new transactions
(iii) Miners receive new Bitcoins
(a) (i)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) All are true
Answer:
(c) (ii)

Question 81.
ICO means ……………………….
Answer:
Intial coin offer

Question 82.
Which one of the following are an open distributed book that records transactions of crypto currencies?
(a) mining
(b) e-wallets
(c) ICO
(d) Block chains
Answer:
(d) Block chains

Question 83.
Each block in the block chain contains ………………….. pointer
(a) dash
(b) hash
(c) memory
(d) link
Answer:
(b) hash

Question 84.
Which one of the following is an electronic wallet services?
(a) paypal
(b) block chain
(c) mining
(d) hash
Answer:
(a) paypal

Question 85.
The term mobile banking is also called ………………………
Answer:
m-banking

Question 86.
……………………. operates only on the Internet with no physical branches.
Answer:
virtual banking

Question 87.
OTP means ……………………….
Answer:
One-Time Password

Question 88.
PJN means ……………………
Answer:
Personal Identification Number

Question 89.
ACHmeans …………………….
Answer:
Automated Clearing Home

Question 90.
IFSC stands for ……………………
Answer:
Indian Financial System Code

Question 91.
……………………… is an 11 digit alpha-numeric code issued Reserve Bank of India
(a) IIT
(b) IIM
(c) IFSC
(d) IFCS
Answer:
(c) IFSC

Question 92.
UPI means ………………………
Answer:
Unified Payments

Question 93.
NCPI means …………………..
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 94.
Unified Payments Interface is a real time payment system developed by NCPI to facilitate inter-bank transactions.
Answer:
Unified Payments Interface

Question 95.
IMPS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Immediate Payment Service

Question 96.
UPI applications …………………………. types of address.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 97.
UPI applications are classified into two types of addresses like …………………….. and ……………………
Answer:
global and local

Question 98.
Which address in UPI is a virtual payment address?
(a) Global
(b) local
(c) private
(d) public
Answer:
(b) local

Question 99.
………………… also called as UPI-ID.
Answer:
Virtual Payment Address(VPA)

Question 100.
MPIN means ……………………..
Answer:
Mobile Banking Personal Identification Number

Question 101.
USSD means …………………..
Answer:
Unstructured Supplementary Service Data

Question 102.
COD means …………………..
Answer:
Cash on Delivery

Question 103.
BHIM stands for …………………….
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money

Question 104.
NPCI means …………………….
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 105.
BHIM is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by ……………………..
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
Answer:
(c) 2016

Question 106.
……………………. is a type of fraud where same cryptocurrency is spent in more than one transactions.
Answer:
Double Spend

Question 107.
RThs are …………………. and ……………………
Answer:
Unconditional, Irrevocable

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on payment cards?
Answer:
Payment cards are plastic cards that enable cashless payments. They are simple embossed plastic card that authenticates the card holder on behalf of card issuing company, which allows the user to make use of various financial services.

Question 2.
Give some examples for macro online payment systems?
Answer:
Some of the popular macro on-line payment systems are mentioned below:

1. Card based payment systems
2. Electronic account transfer
3. Electronic cash payment systems
4. Mobile payment systems and internet payment systems

Question 3.
Write note on E-cash?
Answer:
Electronic cash is (E-Cash) is a currency that flows in the form of data. It converts the cash value into a series of encrypted sequence numbers, and uses these serial numbers to represent the market value of various currencies in reality.

Question 4.
Mention the advantages of UPI?
Answer:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts,
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Question 5.
Define COD?
Answer:
Cash on delivery (COD) also called as collection on delivery, describes a mode of payment in which the payment is made only on receipt of goods rather in advance.

Question 6.
Define BHIM?
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and launched on 30 December 2016. It is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and drive towards cashless transactions.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
How will you do the Micro electronic payment transactions?
Answer:
In general, the parties involved in the micro on-line payments are Customer, Service Provider and Payment processor. The Micro electronic payment transactions can be explained in the following way.

Step 1:
Customer proves his authentication and the payment processor issues micro payments.

Step 2:
Customer pays the micro payments to the online service provider and gets the requested goods or services form them.

Step 3:
Service provider deposits micro payments received from the customer to the payment processor and gets the money.

Question 2.
Mention the three types of card based payment systems?
Answer:
Based on the transaction settlement method there are three widely used card based payment systems. They are:

1. Credit card based payment systems (pay later)
2. Debit card based payment systems (pay now)
3. Stored value card based payment systems (pay before)

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of credit card?
Answer:
Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Question 4.
Write note on ‘The Diner Club Card’?
Answer:
In February 1950, Frank McNamara and Ralph Schneider created The Diners Club card which was made of paper-cardboard. Initially The card was accepted in only 27 restaurants From 1955, the card was made of plastic. The Diners Club still exists today under the name Diners Club International.

Question 5.
Write note on Anatomy of a Credit Card?
Answer:
All Payment cards (including debit card) are usually plastic cards of size 85.60 mm width x 53.98 mm height, rounded comers with a radius of 2.88 mm to 3.48 mm and thickness of 0.76 mm.

Question 6.
Write note on Credit Card number?
Answer:
Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 7.
Mention the three ways of processing debit card transactions?
Answer:
There are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System

Question 8.
Mention the major advantage of stored value card?
Answer:
The major advantage of stored value card is that customers don’t need to have a bank account to get prepaid cards.

Question 9.
Write note on Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip. This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance.

Question 10.
Mention the advantages of Smart Cards?
Answer:
The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing.

Question 11.
Write note on ECS debit?
Answer:
ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers.

Question 12.
Write note on NEFT?
Answer:
(NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system initiated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in – November 2005. NEFT enables a bank customer to transfer funds between any two NEFT- enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis. It is done via electronic messages.

Question 13.
Give the two types of Real-time gross settlement transactions?
Answer:
Real-time gross settlement transactions are:
Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 14.
How are the Mobile Banking operations implemented?
Answer:
Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

1. Contacting the call center.
2. Automatic IVR telephone service.
3. Using a mobile phone via SMS.
4. WAP technology
5. Using smartphone applications.

Question 15.
Mention advantages of Internet Banking?
Answer:
1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.

2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need installing any additional software.

Question 16.
Explain the two types of addresses in UPI applications?
Answer:
UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

1. Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
2. Local address is a virtual payment address.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain Debit Card?
Answer:
Debit Card:
Debit Card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted directly from the card holder’s bank account upon authorization.

Generally, debit cards function as ATM cards and act as a substitute for cash The way of using debit cards and credit cards is generally the same but unlike credit cards, payments using a debit card are immediately transferred from the cardholder’s designated bank account, instead of them paying the money back at a later with added interest. In modem era the use of debit cards has become so widespread’.

The debit card and credit card are identical in their physical properties. It is difficult to differentiate two by their appearance unless they have the term credit or debit imprinted. Currently there are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System 2. Explain Smart

Question 2.
Explain Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart card:
The modem version of card based payment is smart cards. Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip.

This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance but differ in its functionalities. The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing. Smart cards can be classified into Contact smart cards and Contactless smart, Contact Smart card & POS cards.

(i) Contact smart cards:
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately 1 square centimeter, comprising several gold – plated contact pads. These pads provide electrical connectivity only when inserted into a reader, which is also used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. e.g. a point of sale terminal(POS).

(ii) Contactless smart cards:
Contactless smart card is empowered by RF induction technology. Unlike contact smart cards, these cards require only near proximity to an antenna to communicate. Smart cards, whether they are contact or contactless cards do not have an internal power source. Instead, they use an inductor to capture some of the interrupting radio-frequency signal, rectify it and power the card’s processes.

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Text Biodiversity and its Conservation Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following region has maximum biodiversity?
(a) Taiga
(b) Tropical forest
(c) Temperate rain forest
(d) Mangroves
Answer:
(b) Tropical forest

Question 2.
Conservation of biodiversity within their natural habitat is _________
(a) In-situ conservation
(b) Ex-situ conservation
(c) In vivo conservation
(d) In vitro conservation
Answer:
(a) In-situ conservation

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not coming under in-situ conservation?
(a) Sanctuaries
(b) Natural parks
(c) Zoological park
(d) Biosphere reserve
Answer:
(c) Zoological park

Question 4.
Which of the following is considered a hotspot of biodiversity in India?
(a) Western ghats
(b) Indo-gangetic plain
(c) Eastern Himalayas
(d) A and C
Answer:
(d) A and C

Question 5.
The organization which published the red list of species is _________
(a) WWF
(b) IUCN
(c) ZSI
(d) UNEP
Answer:
(b) IUCN

Question 6.
Who introduced the term biodiversity?
(a) Edward Wilson
(b) Walter Rosen
(c) Norman Myers
(d) Alice Norman
Answer:
(b) Walter Rosen

Question 7.
Which of the following forests is known as the lungs of the planet Earth?
(a) Tundra forest
(b) Rain forest of north east India
(c) Taiga forest
(d) Amazon rain forest
Answer:
(d) Amazon rain forest

Question 8.
Which one of the following are at high risk extinction due to habitat destruction?
(a) Mammals
(b) Birds
(c) Amphibians
(d) Echinoderms
Answer:
(c) Amphibians

Question 9.
Assertion: The Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable for speciation and diversity of organisms.
Reason: The climate seasons, temperature, humidity and photoperiod are more or less stable and congenial.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion correctly.

Question 10.
Define endemism.
Answer:
Endemism: A species or a taxon which is confined to a specific area.
E.g: Nilgiri Thar

Question 11.
How many hotspots are there in India? Name them.
Answer:
India encloses 4 biodiversity hotspots. They are

1. Himalayan
2. Indo-Burma
3. Western ghats
4. Sunderland

Question 12.
What are the three levels of biodiversity?
Answer:

1. Genetic Diversity
2. Species Diversity
3. Community / Ecosystem Diversity

Question 13.
Name the active chemical found in the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria. What type of diversity does it belong to?
Answer:
Rauwolfia vomitoria can be cited as an example of genetic diversity. Reserpine is an active chemical extracted from Rauwolfia vomitoria.

Question 14.
“Amazon forest is considered to be the lungs of the planet”-Justify this statement.
Answer:
Amazon rain forest is known as the “lungs of the planet” since a great proportion of CO₂ released due to anthropogenic activities are uptaken by their dense tropical forests, which is homologous to the functioning of human beings except for the difference in gases.

Question 15.
Red data book-What do you know about it?
Answer:
Red Data Book or Red list is a catalogue of taxa facing the risk of extinction. IUCN – International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources, which is renamed as WCU – World Conservation Union (Morges Switzerland) maintains the Red Databook. The concept of Red list was mooted in 1963.
The purpose of preparation of Red List are:

• To create awareness on the degree of threat to biodiversity
• Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction
• Provide global index on declining biodiversity
• Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation of action

Information on international agreements on conservation of biological diversity Red list has eight categories of species.

• Extinct
• Extinct in wild
• Critically Endangered
• Endangered
• Vulnerable
• Lower risk
• Data deficiency
• Not evaluated

Question 16.
Extinction of a keystone species led to the loss of biodiversity – Justify.
Answer:
A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without the keystone species, a particular ecosystem would be dramatically disturbed or even ceased. Keystone species either directly or indirectly affects every species in a particular ecosystem. If a keystone species is lost or removed no other organism would compensate its ecological niche.

Example: Jaguar is a keystone species. As a top predator, it plays a crucial role in the ecosystem. Without jaguar there is an exponential increase in herbivoral population that would decimate the plants of the ecosystem. At one point even the herbivore populations also get declined due to the lack of vegetation. Thus jaguar acts a keystone species.

Question 17.
Compare and Contrast the insitu and ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
In-situ conservation

1. Conservation of plants and animals in their natural habitat.
2. Example: National parks

Ex-situ conservation

1. Conservation of selected or rare plants or animals in place outside their natural habitat.
2. Example: Off-site collections.

Question 18.
What are called endangered species? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. A species which has been categorized as very likely to become extinct.
2. Example: Bengal tiger, Polar bears.

Question 19.
Why do we find a decrease in biodiversity distribution, if we move from the tropics towards the poles?
Answer:
There is a decrease in biodiversity as we move from tropics towards poles due to a drop in temperature which makes the condition unfavourable for the majority of organisms to survive.

Question 20.
What are the factors that drive habitat loss?
Answer:
Natural habitats are destroyed for the purpose of settlement, agriculture, mining, industries and construction of highways. As a result, species are forced to adapt to the changes in the environment or move to other places. If not, they become victim to predation, starvation, disease, and eventually die or result in human-animal conflict.

Question 21.
Where are biodiversity hotspots normally located? Why?
Answer:
Hotspots are areas characterized with high concentration of endemic species experiencing unusual rapid rate of habitat modification loss. Norman Myers defined hot spots as “regions that harbour a great diversity of endemic species and at the same time, have been significantly impacted and altered by human activities.”

Question 22.
Why is biodiversity so important and worthy of protection?
Answer:
Biodiversity reflects the number of different organisms and their relative frequencies in an ecological system and constitutes the most important functional component of a natural ecosystem. It helps to maintain ecological processes, create soil, recycle nutrients, influence climate, degrade waste and control diseases. It provides an index of health of an ecosystem. The survival of human race depends on the existence and wellbeing of all life forms (plants and animals) in the biosphere.

Question 23.
Why do animals have greater diversification than plant diversity?
Answer:
The distribution of plants and animals is not uniform around the world. Organisms require different sets of conditions for their optimum metabolism and growth. Plants in general have the ability to withstand and overcome environmental fluctuations. Moreover, the majority of plants are autotrophs so they can synthesize their own food, hence they show minimal modifications. In the case of animals, they have to tolerate climatic fluctuations, migrate to other areas in search of food, or adapt themselves or their body parts according to food they consume thus varying from ancestors leading to the evolution of new species. Hence it is understood that climatic conditions food source, predation, competition, and other natural forces lead to much diversification among animals than in plants.

Question 24.
Alien species invasion is a threat to endemic species – substantiate this statement.
Answer:
Exotic species are organisms often introduced unintentionally or deliberately for commercial purposes, as biological control agents and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away from the local species and is considered as the second major cause for the extinction of species. Tilapia fish (Jilabi kendai) (Oreochromis Mozambique) introduced from east coast of South Africa in 1952 for its high productivity into Kerala’s inland waters, became invasive, due to which the native species such as Puntius dubius and Labeo kontius face local extinction. Amazon sailfin catfish is responsible for destroying the fish population in the wetlands of Kolkata. The introduction of the Nile Perch, a predatory fish into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 nature species of cichlid fish in the lake.

Question 25.
Mention the major threats to biodiversity caused by human activities. Explain.
Answer:
Human activities, both directly and indirectly are today’s main reason for habitat loss and biodiversity loss. Fragmentation and degradation due to agricultural practices, extraction (mining, fishing, logging and harvesting) and development (settlements, industrial and associated infrastructures) leads to habitat loss and fragmentation leads to formation of isolated, small and scattered populations and as endangered species.

Some of the other threats include specialised diet, specialized habitat requirement, large size, small population size, limited geographic distribution and high economic or commercial value. Large mammals by virtue of their size require larger areas to obtain the necessities of life – food, cover and mates than do smaller mammals. Individual home range of Lion can be about 100 square Km. Mammals have specialized dietary needs such as carnivores, frugivores and the need to forage over much larger areas than general dietary herbivores and omnivores. Mammals also have low reproductive output other than small rodents

Question 26.
What is mass extinction? Will you encounter one such extinction in the near future.
Answer:
Enumerate the steps to be taken to prevent it.
The Earth has experienced quite a few mass extinctions due to environmental catastrophes. A mass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago during the Permian, where 90% of shallow water marine invertebrates disappeared.

Question 27.
In north eastern states, the jhum culture is a major threat to biodiversity – substantiate.
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, plots of natural tree vegetation are burnt away and the cleared patches 1 are farmed for 2-3 seasons, after which their fertility reduces to a point where crop production is no longer profitable. The farmer then abandons this patch and cuts down a new patch of fqrest trees elsewhere for crop production.This system is practiced in north-eastern regions of India. When vast areas are cleared and burnt, it results in loss of forest cover, pollution and discharge of CO₂, which in turn attributes to loss of habitat and climate change which has an 1 impact on the faunal diversity of that regions.

Question 28.
List out the various causes for biodiversity losses.
Answer:
The major causes for biodiversity decline are:

1. Habitat loss, fragmentation and destruction (affects about 73% of all species),
2. Pollution and pollutants (smog, pesticides, herbicides, oil slicks and GHGs).
3. Climate change.
4. Introduction of alien/exotic species.
5. Overexploitation of resources (poaching, indiscriminate cutting of trees, overfishing, hunting and mining).
6. Intensive agriculture and aquacultural practices.
7. Hybridization between native and non-native species and loss of native species
8. Natural disasters (Tsunami, forest fire, earthquakes and volcanoes).
9. Industrialization, Urbanization, infrastructure development, Transport – Road and Shipping activity, communication towers, dam construction, unregulated tourism and monoculture are a common area of specific threats.
10. Co-extinction

Question 29.
How can we contribute to promoting biodiversity conservation?
Answer:

1. identify and protect all threatened species
2. identify and conserve in protected areas the wild relatives of all the economically important organisms
3. identify and protect critical habitats for feeding, breeding, nursing, resting of each species
4. resting, feeding, and breeding places of the organisms should be identified and protected.
5. Air, water, and soil should be conserved on a priority basis
6. Wildlife Protection Act should be implemented

Question 30.
‘Stability of a community depends upon its species diversity’ – Justify the statement.
Answer:
Species diversity leads to a stable community because an area with more species diversity always leads to higher productivity thus maintains a stable community.

Question 31.
Write a note on

1. Protected areas
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. WWF.

Answer:
(i) Protected areas are biogeographical areas, where biological diversity along with natural and cultural resources is protected, maintained, and managed through legal measures. Protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, community reserves, and biosphere reserves.

(ii) Any area other than the area comprised of any reserve forest or the territorial waters can be notified by the State Government to constitute as a sanctuary if such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance. This is for the purpose of protecting, endangered factual species. Some restricted human activities are allowed inside the sanctuary area. Ecotourism is permitted, as long as animal life is undisturbed.

(iii) WWF stands for World Wide Fund for nature is an international NGO working in the field of wildlife conservation.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Biodiversity and its Conservation Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Who coined the term Bio-diversity?
Answer:
Walter Rosen.

Question 2.
Which is not an indices of species diversity?
(a) Alpha diversity
(b) Beta diversity
(c) Delta diversity
(d) Gamma diversity
Answer:
(c) Delta diversity

Question 3.
Total number of mega biodiversity countries in the world is __________
(a) Twelve
(b) Fifteen
(c) Seventeen
(d) Nineteen
Answer:
(c) Seventeen

Question 4.
How many number of biogeographic zones are there in India?
(a) Twelve
(b) Seventeen
(c) Ten
(d) Fifteen
Answer:
(c) Ten

Question 5.
The most important pattern of biodiversity is __________
(a) Longitudinal gradient in diversity
(b) Latitudinal gradient in diversity
(c) Polar gradient diversity
(d) Equatorial gradient in diversity
Answer:
(A) Latitudinal gradient in diversity

Question 6.
Which of the following denotation is correct regarding increasing diversity?
(a) Poles < Equator
(b) Equator < Pole
(c) Pole = Equator
(d) Latitude = Longitude
Answer:
(a) Poles < Equator

Question 7.
Select the proper sequence indicating the increasing order of biodiversity __________
(a) Polar, Temperate and Polar
(b) Tropics, Temperate and Polar
(c) Temperate, Tropic and Polar
(d) Polar, Tropic and Temperate
Answer:
(a) Polar, Temperate and Polar

Question 8.
Select the correct linear equation describing the species-area relationship.
(a) log C = log S + Z log A
(b) Z log A = log S + log C
(c) log S = log C + Z log A
(d) log C = log S ± Z log A
Answer:
(c) log S = log C + Z log A

Question 9.
If meat-eating animals are called carnivores, how do you call the animals that thrive mostly on fruits?
Answer:
Frugivore

Question 10.
Wild ass is endemic to __________
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Deccan Peninsula
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Indian desert
Answer:
(d) Indian desert

Question 11.
Which is considered as the Biogeographical Gateway of India?
(a) the Himalayas
(b) Andaman & Nicobar
(c) North-East India
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) North-East India

Question 12.
Species introduced deliberately in an area are referred as __________
(a) Endemic species
(b) Vulnerable species
(c) Exotic species
(d) Extinct species
Answer:
(c) Exotic species

Question 13.
Tilapia fish (Oreochromis Mozambique) is exotic breed from __________
(a) Mexico
(b) South Africa
(c) Canada
(d) Central America
Answer:
(b) South Africa

Question 14.
Mention the correct number of biodiversity hotspots identified throughout the world __________
(a) 29
(b) 16
(c) 34
(d) 46
Answer:
(c) 34

Question 15.
Which is not an accepted biodiversity hotspot of India?
(a) Indian Himalayas
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Burma
(d) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(d) Deccan Plateau

Question 16.
A species is considered as extinct ________
(a) When its member is confined to a particular area
(b) When its member is maintained in a non-native area
(c) When none of its members is alive in the native area
(d) When none of its members alive anywhere in the world
Answer:
(d) When none of its members are alive anywhere in the world.

Question 18.
The concept of Red list was noted in __________
(a) 1953
(b) 1963
(c) 1973
(d) 2003
Answer:
(b) 1963

Question 19.
Match the following
(a) Tiger reserves in India (i) 4
(b) Hotspots in India (ii) 104
(c) Biosphere reserves in India (iii) 27
(d) National parks in India (iv) 18
Answer:
a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

Question 20.
Statement 1: Biodiversity is the assemblage of different life forms.
Statement 2: The term biodiversity was introduced by Edward Wilson.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect

Question 21.
Statement 1: India is the seventh-largest country in the world in terms of area.
Statement 2: It includes ten biogeographic areas.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 22.
Statement 1: Western Ghats extend from South Gujarat to Karnataka.
Statement 2: Wild ass is an endemic species of Western Ghats
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Question 23.
Statement 1: Exotic species are non-native organisms.
Statement 2: Sailfin catfish is an exotic species in India.
(a) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

2-Mark Questions

Question 1.
Define biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variability among living organisms from all sources, including terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are a part. This includes diversity within species, between species and ecosystems of a region.

Question 2.
Who coined the term biodiversity? Name the levels of biodiversity.
Answer:
The term biodiversity was coined by Walter Rosen (1986). The levels of biodiversity are – Genetic diversity, Species diversity and ecosystem diversity.

Question 3.
What is species richness? Give example.
The number of species per unit area at a specific time is called species richness, which denotes the measure of species diversity.
Example: Western ghats have more amphibian species than Eastern ghats.

Question 4.
Enlist the factors that determine the distribution of biodiversity.
Answer:
Temperature, precipitation, distance from the equator (latitudinal gradient), the altitude from sea level (altitudinal gradient) are some of the factors that determine biodiversity distribution patterns.

Question 5.
What are the most important causes of biodiversity loss?
Answer:
Habitat loss, fragmentation, and destruction.

Question 6.
Name any two alien animal species introduced in India.
Answer:

1. Tilapia fish (Oreochromis mosambicus)
2. African Apple snail (Achatina Fulica)

Question 7.
Name any four biogeographic zones in India.
Answer:

1. Himalayas
2. Indian deserts
3. Trans-Himalayan region
4. Western ghats.

Question 8.
What do you mean by the term co-extinction?
Answer:

1. Coextinction of a species is the loss of a species as a consequence of the extinction of another.
2. Example: orchid bees and forest trees by cross-pollination.

Question 9.
What are the natural causes of biodiversity loss?
Answer:
Natural threats include spontaneous jungle fires, tree falls, landslides, defoliation by insects, or locust attack.

Question 10.
Define hotspots.
Answer:
Hotspots are areas characterized by a high concentration of endemic species experiencing an unusual rapid rate of habitat modification loss.

Question 11.
What will be the consequences of the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Loss of biodiversity has an immense impact on plant and animal life. The loss of diversity leads to,

1. Extinction of species
2. Dramatic influence on the food chain and food web in. It will lead to immediate danger for food necessity

Question 12.
Name the four biodiversity hotspots in India.
Answer:

1. Himalayas
2. Western ghats
3. Indo-Burma region
4. Sundaland

Question 13.
What does IUCN stand for?
Answer:
IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.

Question 14.
Define species extinction. What makes a species to become extinct?
Answer:
A species is considered extinct when none of its members are alive anywhere in the world. Environmental changes and population characteristics are the two major reasons for species extinction.

Question 15.
When a species is considered locally extinct?
Answer:
A species is considered to be locally extinct when it is no longer found in an area it once inhabited but is still found elsewhere in the wild.

Question 16.
State the mission of IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN’s mission is to influence, encourage, and assist societies throughout the world to conserve nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.

Question 17.
What is the Red list? How many categories of species are mentioned in the Red list?
Answer:
Red List or Red databook is a catalogue of taxa facing risk of extinction. It has 8 categories of species.

Question 18.
Mention any four categories of species mentioned in Red data book.
Answer:

1. Extinct
2. Endangered
3. Extinct in wild
4. Vulnerable

Question 19.
How a national park can be defined?
Ans:
The national park is a natural habitat that is notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park due to its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association of importance. No human activity is permitted inside the national park except the activities permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.

Question 20.
Name any two species that are extinct due to human activities.
Answer:

1. Dodo of Mauritius
2. Steller’s cow of Russia

Question 21.
Define in-siu conservation.
Answer:
Conservation of animals in their natural habitat is called in-site conservation.
E.g National parks.

Question 22.
What is the goal of “Project Tiger”?
Answer:
The project ensures a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats, protecting them from extinction and preserving areas of biological importance as a natural heritage.

Question 23.
Give the number of national parks in India. Name any two of them in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
India has 104 National Parks. Guindy National Park (Chennai) and Mudumalai National Park (Nilgiris) are located in Tamil Nadu.

Question 24.
State the role of Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves are designated to deal with the conservation of biodiversity, economic and social development, and maintenance of associated cultural values.

Question 25.
Name few endangered species protected in Arignar Anna Zoological Park.
Answer:
Royal Bengal Tiger, Lion Tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Langur and Gray Wolf.

Question 26.
Give the names of two methods of in-situ conservation.
Answer:

1. Wildlife Sanctuaries
2. Biosphere reserve

3 – Mark Questions

Question 27.
Point out the biosphere reserves in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Nilgiris (Tamil Nadu – Kerala)
2. Agasthya malai (Tamil Nadu – Kerala – Karnataka)
3. Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)

Question 28.
Write a note on Sacred Groves.
Answer:
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any groves of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world.

Question 29.
What is ex-situ conservation?
Answer:
Ex-situ conservation of selected rare plants/ animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes offsite collections and gene banks.

Question 30.
Why Red list is prepared periodically?
Answer:
The purpose of preparation of Red List are:

1. To create awareness on the degree of threat to biodiversity
2. Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction
3. Provide global index on declining biodiversity
4. Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation of action
5. Information on international agreements on the conservation of biological diversity

Question 31.
Name the types of extinctions.
Answer:

1. Natural Extinction
2. Mass Extinction
3. Anthropogenic Extinction

Question 32.
Point out the human activities that threaten biodiversity.
Answer:
Direct and indirect human activities have a detrimental effect on biodiversity. Direct human, activities like change in local land use, species introduction or removal, harvesting, pollution, and climate change contribute a greater pressure on the loss of biodiversity. Indirect human drivers include demographic, economic, technological, cultural, and religious factors.

Question 33.
Extinction of Dodo bird led to the danger of Calvaria tree – Justify,
Answer:
Another example of co-extinction is the connection between the Calvaria tree and the extinct bird of Mauritius Island, the Dodo. The Calvaria tree is dependent on the Dodo bird for completion of its life cycle. The mutualistic association is that the tough home endocarp of the seeds of the Calvaria tree are made permeable by the actions of the large stones in birds’ gizzards and digestive juices thereby facilitating easier germination. The extinction of the Dodo bird led to the imminent danger of the Calvaria tree coextinction.

Question 34.
Give an account on slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, plots of natural tree vegetation are burnt away and the cleared patches are farmed for 2-3 seasons, after which their fertility reduces to a point where crop production is no longer profitable. The farmer then abandons this patch and cuts down a new patch of forest trees elsewhere for crop production. This system is practiced in the north-eastern regions of India. When vast areas are cleared and burnt, it results in loss of forest cover, pollution, and discharge of CO₂ which in turn attributes to a loss of habitat and climate change which has an impact on the faunal diversity of that region. Impact of Industrialization on Biodiversity – Comment. Industrialization is a major contributor to climate change and a major threat to biodiversity.

Energy drives our industries, which is provided by the burning of fossil fuels. This increases the emission of CO₂, a GHG, leading to climate change. Due to large scale deforestation, the emitted CO₂ cannot be absorbed fully, and its concentration in the air increases. Climate change increases land and ocean temperature changes precipitation patterns and raises the sea level. This inturn results in melting of glaciers, water inundation, less predictability of weather patterns, extreme weather conditions, an outbreak of squalor diseases, migration of animals, and loss of trees in the forest. Thus, climate change is an imminent danger to the existing biodiversity.

Question 36.
What are exotic species? Explain with example.
Answer:
Exotic species are organisms often introduced unintentionally or deliberately for commercial purposes, as biological control agents, and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away from the local species and is considered as the second major cause for the extinction of species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. Tilapia fish (Jilabi kendai) (Oreochromis mosambicus) introduced from the east coast of South Africa in 1952 for its high productivity into Kerala’s inland waters, became invasive, due to which the native species such as Puntius dubious and Labeo kontius face local extinction.

Question 37.
Write a brief note on Habitat fragmentation.
Answer:
Habitat fragmentation is the process where a large, continuous area of habitat is both, reduced in area and divided into two or more fragments. Fragmentation of habitats like forest land into croplands, orchard lands, plantations, urban areas, industrial estates, transport, and transit systems has resulted in the destruction of complex interactions amongst species, (food chain and webs) destruction of species in the cleared regions, the annihilation of species restricted to these habitats (endemic) and decreased biodiversity in the habitat fragments. Animals requiring large territories such as mammals and birds are severely affected.

The elephant corridors and migratory routes are highly vulnerable. The dwindling of many well-known birds (sparrows) and animals can be attributed to this.

Question 38.
Write a note on the biogeographic area – the Gangetic plains.
Answer:
Gangetic Plains: These plains are relatively homogeneously defined by the Ganges river system and occupy about 11% of the country’s landmass. This region is very fertile and extends up to the Himalayan foothills. Fauna includes rhinoceros, elephant, buffalo, swamp deer, hog-deer.

Question 39.
Compare Alpha diversity with Beta diversity.
Answer:

1. Alpha diversity: It is measured by counting the number of taxa (usually species) within a particular area, community, or ecosystem.
2. Beta diversity: It is species diversity between two adjacent ecosystems and is obtaining by comparing the number of species unique to each of the ecosystems.

Question 40.
What is species diversity?
Answer:
Species diversity refers to the variety in number and richness of the species in any habitat. The number of species per unit area at a specific time is called species richness, which denotes the measure of species diversity. The Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. The more the number of species in an area the more is the species richness. The three indices of diversity are – Alpha, Beta and Gamma diversity.

Question 41.
State the principle of Stockholm declaration – 1972.
Answer:
The natural resources of the Earth, including air, water, land, flora and fauna of natural ecosystems must be safeguarded for the benefit of the present and future generations through careful planning and management, as appropriate – Principle of the Stockholm Declaration. 1972.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 42.
Give an account on genetic diversity and community diversity.
Answer:
Genetic diversity refers to the differences in genetic make-up (number and types of genes) between distinct species and to the genetic variation within a single species; also covers genetic variation between distinct populations of the same species. Genetic diversity can be measured using a variety of molecular techniques. India has more than 50,000 genetic variants of Paddy and 1000 variants of Mango. Variation of genes of a species increases with diversity in size and habitat.

It results in the formation of different races, varieties and subspecies. Rouwolfia vomitaria, a medicinal plant growing in different ranges of the Himalayas shows differences in the potency and concentration of the active ingredient reserpine due to genetic diversity. Genetic diversity helps in developing adaptations to changing environmental conditions. Community/Ecosystem diversity is the variety of habitats, biotic communities, and ecological processes in the biosphere. It is the diversity at the ecosystem level due to the diversity of niches,

trophic levels, and ecological processes like nutrient cycles, food webs, energy flow, and several biotic interactions. India with its alpine meadows, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, grasslands, and deserts has one of the greatest ecosystem diversity on Earth.

Question 43.
Why Tropical regions are rich in biodiversity?
Answer:
The reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the Tropics are:

1. Warm tropical regions between the tropic of Cancer and Capricorn on either side of the equator possess congenial habitats for living organisms.
2. Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable not only for speciation but also for supporting both variety and number of organisms.
3. The temperatures vary between 25°C to 35°C, a range in which most metabolic activities of living organisms occur with ease and efficiency.
4. The average rainfall is often more than 200 mm per year.
5. Climate, seasons, temperature, humidity, photoperiods are more or less stable and encourage both variety and numbers.
6. Rich resource and nutrient availability.

Question 44.
What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species-area relationship?
Answer:
German Naturalist and Geographer Alexander von Humboldt explored the wilderness of South American jungles and found that within a region the species richness increased with the increasing area but upto a certain limit. The relationship between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats, and freshwater fishes) turned out to be the rectangular hyperbola. On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation.

log S = log C + Z log A where S = Species richness
A = Area
Z = Slope of the line
(regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept
Regression coefficient Z generally has a value of 0.1-0.2 regardless of taxonomic group or region. However, in the case of the species-area relationship in very large areas like entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper (Z-value in the range of 0.6-1.2). For example, in the case of the fruit-eating (frugivorous) birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different continents, the slope is found to be a steeper line.

Question 45.
Point out any 5 functional attributions of biodiversity.
Answer:
The major functional attributes are:

1. continuity of nutrient cycles or biogeochemical cycles (N₂, C, H₂O, P, S cycles)
2. soil formation, conditioning, or maintenance of soil health (fertility) by soil microbial diversity along with the different trophic members
3. increases ecosystem productivity and provide food resources
4. act as water traps, filters, water flow regulators, and water purifiers (forest cover and vegetation)
5. climate stability (forests are essential for rainfall, temperature regulation, CO₂ absorption, which in turn regulate the density and type of vegetation)
6. forest resource management and sustainable development

Question 46.
Explain in detail about various types of extinctions.
There are three types of Extinctions
Answer:

1. Natural extinction: It is a slow process of replacement of existing species with better-adapted species due to changes in environmental conditions, evolutionary changes, predators, and diseases. A small population can get extinct sooner than a large population due to inbreeding depression (less adaptivity and variation)
2. Mass extinction: The Earth has experienced quite a few mass extinctions due to environmental catastrophes. Amass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago during the Permian, where 90% of shallow-water marine invertebrates disappeared.
3. Anthropogenic extinction: These are abetted by human activities like hunting, habitat destruction, overexploitation, urbanization, and industrialization. Some examples of extinctions are Dodo of Mauritius and Steller’s sea cow of Russia. Amphibians seem to be at higher risk of extinction because of habitat destruction. The most serious aspect of the loss of biodiversity is the extinction of species. The unique information contained in its genetic material (DNA) and the niche it possesses are lost forever.

Question 47.
Give a comparative account on ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
Ex-Situ Conservation: It is the conservation of selected rare plants/ animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes offsite collections and gene banks. Offsite Collections: They are live collections of wild and domesticated species in Botanical gardens, Zoological parks, Wildlife safari parks, Arborata (gardens with trees and shrubs). The organisms are well maintained for captive breeding programmes.

As a result, many animals which have become extinct in the world continue to be maintained in Zoological Parks. As the number increases in captive breeding, the individuals are selectively released in the wild. In this way, the Indian crocodile and Gangetic dolphins have been saved from extinction.

Gene Banks: Gene banks are a type of biorepository which preserves genetic materials. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be stored for long periods in seed banks, gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions for long periods using cryopreservation techniques. However, it is not economically feasible to conserve all biological wealth and all the ecosystems. The number of species required to be saved from extinction far exceeds the conservation efforts.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
What will be the result, if the relationship between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa are plotted on a long scale?
Answer:
A rectangular hyperbola.

Question 2.
What may be the reasons for the entry of wild lives into the agricultural lands or towns?
Answer:

1. Habitat lose / Habitat fragmentation
2. Lack of food or water source

Question 3.
When does a species is categorized as endangered?
Answer:
A species that has been categorized as very likely to become extinct is an endangered species.

Question 4.
Give any two examples of anthropogenic extinction.
Answer:
Dodo of Mauritius Steller’s cow of Russia

Question 5.
Mention any two species that had become extinct very recently.
Answer:

1. George, the tree snail (Achatinella apexfulva)
2. Sudan – northern white rhinoceros (Ceratotherium simum)

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
EDI stands for ……………………
(a) Electronic Details Information
(b) Electronic Data Information
(c) Electronic Data Interchange
(d) Electronic Details Interchange
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 2.
Which of the following is an internationally recognized standard format for trade, transportation, insurance, banking and customs?
(a) TSLFACT
(b) SETFACT
(c) FTPFACT
(d) EDIFACT
Answer:
(d) EDIFACT

Question 3.
Which is the first industry-sjpecific EDI standard?
(a) TDCC
(b) VISA
(c) Master
(d) ANSI
Answer:
(a) TDCC

Question 4.
UNSM stands for:
(a) Universal Natural Standard message
(b) Universal Notations for Simple message
(c) United Nations Standard message
(d) United Nations Service message
Answer:
(c) United Nations Standard message

Question 5.
Which of the following is a type of EDI?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Indirect EDI
(c) Collective EDI
(d) Unique EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 6.
Who is called as the father of EDI?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Ed Guilbert
(c) Pascal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Ed Guilbert

Question 7.
EDI interchanges starts with ……………………. and ends with ……………………..
(a) UNA, UNZ
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNA, UNT
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(b) UNB, UNZ

Question 8.
EDIFACT stands for ………………………
(a) EDI for Admissible Commercial Transport
(b) EDI for Advisory Committee and Transport
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport
(d) EDI for Admissible Commerce and Trade
Answer:
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport

Question 9.
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as ……………………….
(a) Message types
(b) Subsets
(c) Directories
(d) Folders
Answer:
(c) Directories

Question 10.
Number of characters in an single EDIFACT messages ……………………..
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 6

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define EDI?
Answer:
The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or – through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.

Question 2.
List few types of business documents that are transmitted through EDI?
Answer:

1. Direct EDI EDIviaVAN
2. EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
3. Web EDI
4. Mobile EDI

Question 3.
What are the 4 major components of EDI?
Answer:
There are four major components of EDI. They are:

1. Standard document format
2. Translator and Mapper
3. Communication software
4. Communication network

Question 4.
What is meant by directories in EDIFACT?
Answer:
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as directories. These EDIFACT directories will be revised twice a year; on 1 st April and 1 st October to include new or update, existing EDIFACT messages. EDIFACT directories have names like D. 18B (D stands for Directory, 18 is the year and A/B indicates the month of release)

Question 5.
Write a note on EDIFACT subsets?
Answer:
Due to the complexity, branch-specific subsets of EDIFACT have developed. These subsets of EDIFACT include only the functions relevant to specific user groups.
Example:

• CEFIC – Chemical industry
• EDIFURN – furniture industry
• EDIGAS – gas business

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a short note on EDI?
Answer:

1. The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
2. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.
3. It is used to transfer documents such as delivery notes, invoices, purchase orders, advance ship notice, functional acknowledgements etc.
4. These documents are transferred directly from the computer of the issuing company to that of the receiving company, with great time saving and avoiding many errors of traditional “on paper” communications.

Question 2.
List the various layers of EDI?
Answer:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely –

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write a note on UN/EDIFACT?
Answer:

• United Nations / Electronic Data Interchange for Administration, Commerce and Transport
• (UN / EDIFACT) is an international EDI – standard developed under the supervision of the United Nations.
• In 1987, the UN / EDIFACT syntax rules were approved as ISO: IS09735 standard by the International Organization for Standardization.
• EDIFACT includes a set of internationally agreed standards, catalogs and guidelines for electronic exchange of structured data between independent computer systems.

Question 4.
Write a note on EDIFACT message?
Answer:
The basic standardization concept of EDIFACT is that there are uniform message types called United Nations Standard Message (UNSM). In so-called subsets, the message types can be specified deeper in their, characteristics depending on the sector. The message types, all of which always have exactly one nickname consisting of six uppercase English alphabets. The message begins with UNH and ends with UNT.
Service messages
To confirm / reject a message, CONTRL and APERAK messages are sent.

1. CONTRL – Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error messages and acknowledgment
3. Data exchange
4. CREMUL – multiple credit advice
5. DELFOR-Delivery forecast
6. IFTMBC – Booking confirmation

Question 5.
Write about EDIFACT separators?
EDI Separators:
Answer:
EDIFACT has the following punctuation marks that are used as standard separators.
Character:

1. Apostrophe
2. Plus sign +
3. Colon:
4. Question mark ?
5. Period

Uses:

1. Segment terminator
2. Segment tag and data element separator
3. Component data element separator
4. Release character
5. Decimal point

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Briefly explain various types of EDI?
Answer:
The types of EDI were constructed based on how EDI communication connections and the conversion were organized. Thus based on the medium used for transmitting EDI documents the following are the major EDI types.

1. Direct EDI
2. EDI via VAN
3. EDI via-FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
4. Web EDI
5. Mobile EDI
6. Direct EDI/Point-to-Point

It is also called as Point-to-Point EDI. It establishes a direct connection between various business stakeholders and partners individually. This type of EDI suits to larger businesses with a lot of day to day business transactions.

EDI via VAN:
EDI via VAN (Value Added Network) is where EDI documents are transferred with the support of third party network service providers. Many businesses prefer this network model to protect them from the updating ongoing complexities of network technologies.

EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS.

Web EDI:
Web based EDI conducts EDI using an web browser via the Internet. Here the businesses are allowed to use any browser to transfer data to their business partners. Web based EDI is easy and convenient for small and medium organizations.

Mobile EDI:
When smartphones or other such handheld devices are used to transfer EDI documents it is called as mobile EDI. Mobile EDI applications considerably increase the speed of EDI transactions.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of EDI?
Answer:
Advantages of EDI:
EDI was developed to solve the problems inherent in paper-based transaction processing and in other forms of electronic communication. Implementing EDI system offers a company greater control over its supply chain and allow it to trade more effectively. It also increases productivity and promotes operational efficiency. The following are the other advantages of EDI.

1. Improving service to end users
2. Increasing productivity
3. Minimizing errors
4. Slashing response times
5. Automation of operations
6. Cutting costs
7. Integrating all business and trading partners
8. Providing information on process Status
9. Optimizing financial ratios

EDI Layers:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely;

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write about structure of EDIFACT?
Answer:
EDIFACT Structure:
EDIFACT is a hierarchical structure where the top level is referred to as an interchange, and lower levels contain multiple messages. The messages consist of segments, which in turn consist of composites. The final iteration is a data element.

Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetition field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear at least once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed. e.g. C10 indicates repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Additional Questions and Answers

1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………. is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
(a) EDI
(b) UDI
(c) FDI
(d) DDI
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 2.
Identify which one of the following is not a EDI standard?
(a) EDIFACT
(b) XML
(c) ANSI ASC X12
(d) HTML
Answer:
(d) HTML

Question 3.
……………………. is a paperless trade.
(a) EDI
(b) XML
(c) EDIF
(d) EFT
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 4.
…………………… is a paperless payment.
(a) EDI
(b) EFT
(c) XML
(d) EDIFAC
Answer:
(b) EFT

Question 5.
TDCC stands for ………………………
Answer:
Transportation Data Coordinating Committee

Question 6.
TDCC was formed in the year …………………….
(a) 1964
(b) 1966
(c) 1968
(d) 1970
Answer:
(c) 1968

Question 7.
The first EDI standard was released by TDCC in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1975

Question 8.
Expand EDIA
(a) Electronic Data Interchange Authorigy
(b) Electronic Data Information Association
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association
(d) Electronic Device Interface Amplifier
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association

Question 9.
The TDCC is renamed as EDIA in the year ……………………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(d) 1978

Question 10.
ANSI stands for …………………….
Answer:
American National Standards Institute

Question 11.
EDIA has become …………………….. committee.
(a) ANSIXI2
(b) ANSIXI3
(c) ANSIXI4
(d) ANSIX15
Answer:
(a) ANSIXI2

Question 12.
EDIFACT is created by …………………..
(a) UN
(b) WHO
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNICEF
Answer:
(a) UN

Question 13.
EDIFACT was created in ……………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1978
(c) 1981
(d) 1985
Answer:
(d) 1985

Question 14.
Identify the statement which is not true?
(a) The first EDI message was sent from the Holland – American Streamship line to Trans-Atlantic Shipping Company
(b) It is send usign telex
(c) It took 2 minutes to send a full page
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer
Answer:
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer.

Question 15.
The first EDI message was sent in ………………………
(a) 1955
(b) 1965
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1965

Question 16.
How many major classifications of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Web EDI
(c) Android EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(c) Android EDI

Question 18.
…………………… is also called as point-to-point EDI.
Answer:
Direct EDI

Question 19.
Which EDI is better for day to day business transactions?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) EDI via VAN
(c) Web EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 20.
Expand VAN?
(a) Value Added Network
(b) Voice Added Network
(c) Vast Area Network
(d) Value Area Network
Answer:
(a) Value Added Network

Question 21.
A …………………….. acts as an intermediary between trading partners.
(a) VAN
(b) Web
(c) Mobile
(d) FTPs
Answer:
(a) VAN

Question 22.
……………………… is convenient for small and medium organizations.
Answer:
web based EDI

Question 23.
Match the following
(i) point to point EDI – 1. easy for small and medium organizations.
(ii) EDI via VAN – 2. Speed Transactions.
(iii) EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS – 3. Large day to day business transactions
(iv) Web EDI – 4. Third party Network service providers.
(v) Mobile EDI – 5. Uses protocols
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2
(b) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4 (v)-5
(c) (i)-5 (ii)-4 (iii)-3 (iv)-2 (v)-1
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-2 (iv)-1 (v)-5
Answer:
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2

Question 24.
How many layers are there in EDI?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 25.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Semantic layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Physical layer
Answer:
(c) Session layer

Question 26.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Semantic layer – application level services
(b) Standard layer – ANSI XI2
(c) Transport layer – FTP, TELNET
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail
Answer:
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail

Question 27.
MIME, HTTP, FTP comes under …………………….. layer.
(a) Semantic
(b) Standard
(c) Transport
(d) Physical
Answer:
(c) Transport

Question 28.
How many major components of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not a major component of EDI?
(a) Standard document
(b) Standard translation
(c) Translator and Mapper
(d) Communication Software
Answer:
(b) Standard translation

Question 30.
………………………. is the EDI standard for warehousing Industry.
Answer:
WINS

Question 31.
GTDI means …………………………
Answer:
Guideline for Trade Data Interchange

Question 32.
ECE stands for
(a) Economic Commission for Europe
(b) Electronic and Communication Engineering
(c) Electrical and Communication Engineering
(d) Easy control Edges
Answer:
(a) Economic Commission for Europe

Question 33.
UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed in the year ………………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1987
(c) 1988
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 34.
The EDIFACT directories will be revised …………………….
(a) twice a year
(b) once in a year
(c) thrice a year
(d) cannot be revised
Answer:
(a) twice a year

Question 35.
In EDIFACT directories A/B indicates the ……………………… of release.
Answer:
month

Question 36.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry
(b) EDIFURN – Furniture Industry
(c) EDIGAS – Gas Business
Answer:
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry

Question 37.
Which one of the following is a hierarchical structure with multiple messages?
(a) CEFIC
(b) EDIFACT
(c) EDIFURN
(d) EDIGAS
Answer:
(b) EDIFACT

Question 38.
The top level in EDIFACT is referred to as ………………………..
(a) Subsets
(b) Segment
(c) interchange
(d) data
Answer:
(c) interchange

Question 39.
In EDIFACT, the messages consist of which in turn consist of …………………….. which in turn consist of ……………………….
Answer:
segments and composites

Question 40.
The final iteration in EDIFACT is
(a) data element
(b) control variable
(c) interchange
(d) subset
Answer:
(a) data element

Question 41.
………………………. indicates the repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.
(a) A10
(b) BIO
(c) C1O
(d) D1O
Answer:
(c) C1O

Question 42.
……………………. lists the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation fields.
Answer:
Segment Table

Question 43.
The interchange is also called as …………………..
Answer:
envelope

Question 44.
The EDIFACT message begins and ends with …………………….
(a) UNH, UNT
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNH, UNZ
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(a) UNH, UNT

Question 45.
………………….. show technical error messages in EDIFACT.
Answer:
APERAK

Question 46.
A segment is a …………………….. character alphanumeric code.
Answer:
3

Question 47.
In EDIFACT message ………………………… is the format for century, year, month, date, hour, minute.
Answer:
CCYYMMDDHHMM

Question 48.
……………………. is date/time information in the segment.
Answer:
DTM

Question 49.
Which is the release character?
(a) :
(b) ?
(c) .
(d) +
Answer:
(b) ?

Question 50.
Which punctuator is segment tag?
(a) ,
(b) +
(c) :
(d) !
Answer:
(b) +

Question 51.
Which is used for component data element separator?
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ?
(d) ?
Answer:
(a) :

Question 52.
…………………… is the segment terminator.
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ‘
(d) ?
Answer:
(c) ‘

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is VAN?
Answer:
A value-added network is a company, that is based on its own network, offering EDI services to other businesses. A value-added network acts as an intermediary between trading partners. The principle operations of value- added networks are the allocation of access rights and providing high data security.

Question 2.
Write note on EDI Via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS?
Answer:
EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS. .

Question 3.
Write a short note on Segment Table?
Answer:
Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear atleast once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed.

Question 4.
Mention Some examples for FDIFACT subset?
Answer:

1. GEFIC – Chemical industry
2. EDIFURN – furniture industry
3. EDIGAS – gas business

Question 5.
Write note on EDIFACT Segment?
Answer:
EDIFACT Segment
It is the subset of message. A segment is a three-character alphanumeric code. These segments are listed in segment tables. Segments may contain one, or several related user data elements.

Question 6.
Mention service messages in EDIFACT?
Answer:

1. CONTRL- Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error

Question 7.
Mention data exchange in EDIFACT message?
Answer:
Data exchange:
CREMUL – multiple credit advice DELFOR-Delivery forecast IFTMBC – Booking confirmation.

Question 8.
Write note on EDI Interchange?
Answer:
EDI Interchange:
Interchange is also called as envelope. The top level of EDIFACT structure is Interchange. An interchange may contain multiple messages. It starts with UNB and ends with UNZ.

III. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain EDI standards?
Answer:
EDI Standards:

• The standard is the most critical part of the entire EDI. Since EDI is the data transmission and information exchange in the form of an agreed message format, it is important to develop a unified EDI standard.
• The EDI standard is mainly divided into the following aspects: basic standards, code-standards, message standards, document standards, management standards, application standards, communication standards and security standards.
• The first industry-specific EDI standard was the TDCC published by the Transportation Data coordinating Committee in 1975.
• Then other industries started developing unique standards based on their individual needs. E.g. WINS in the warehousing industry.
• Since the application of EDI has become more mature, the target of trading operations is often not limited to a single industry.
• In 1979, the American National Standards Institute Accredited Standard Committee (ANSI ASC) developed a wider range of EDI standard called ANSI XI2.
• On the other hand, the European region has also developed an integrated EDI standard. Known as GTDI (Guideline for Trade Data Interchange).
• ANSI X12 and GTDI have become the two regional EDI standards in North America and Europe respectively.
• After the development of the two major regional EDI standards and a few years after trial, the two standards began to integrate and conduct research and development of common EDI standards.
• Subsequently, the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UN/ECE/WP.4) hosted the task of the development of international EDI standards. In 1986, UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed. The most widely used EDI message standards are the United Nations EDIFACT and the ANSI X12.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 15 E-Commerce

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications E-Commerce Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A company can be called E-Business if
(a) it has many branches across the world.
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.
(c) it sells commodities to a foreign country.
(d) it has many employees.
Answer:
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a tangible good?
(a) Mobile
(b) Mobile Apps
(c) Medicine
(d) Flower bouquet
Answer:
(b) Mobile Apps

Question 3.
SME stands for
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises
(b) Simple and medium enterprises .
(c) Sound messaging enterprises
(d) Short messaging enterprises
Answer:
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises

Question 4.
The dotcom phenomenon deals with
(a) Textile industries
(b) Mobile phone companies
(c) Internet based companies
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Internet based companies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not correctly matched.
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990
(b) The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009
(c) The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
(d) Dotcom burst: 2000 – 2002
Answer:
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The websites of first wave dotcom companies were only in English
Reason (R): The dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 7.
Off-shoring means
(a) Work outsourced to a branch of its own company
(b) Work outsourced to new employees
(c) Work outsourced to a third party locally
(d) Work outsourced to a third party outside its own country
Answer:
(b) Work outsourced to new employees

Question 8.
G2G systems are classified into
(a) International facing and external facing
(b) Internet facing and Extranet facing
(c) Internal flag and external flag
(d) Internet flag and Extranet flag
Answer:
(a) International facing and external facing

Question 9.
……………………. host the e-books on their websites.
(a) Bulk-buying sites
(b) Community sites
(c) Digital publishing sites
(d) Licensing sites
Answer:
(c) Digital publishing sites

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a characteristics of E-Commerce?
(a) Products cannot be inspected physically before purchase.
(b) Goods are delivered instantly.
(c) Resource focus supply side
(d) Scope of business is global.
Answer:
(c) Resource focus supply side

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Commerce can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.

Question 2.
Distinguish between E-Business and E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Business:
E-Business is grounded on technologies such as Network Infrastructures (like Internet, Intranet, Extranet), Multimedia content & network publishing infrastructures (like HTML), Messaging & information distribution infrastructures (e-mail), and other Common business service infrastructures (Online Transaction Processing).

E-Commerce:
E-Commerce is commercial transaction through Internet, but E-Business entirely depends on the Internet for its every intra-company and inter-company activities such as marketing, fiance, manufacturing, selling.

Question 3.
Differentiate tangible goods and electronic goods with example of your own?
Answer:
Tangible goods:
Tangible form – e.g. a digital camera purchased by a consumer from an online. shopping website which might be delivered at the requested address.

Electronic goods:
Electronic form – e.g. a music album or a software downloaded from a site which might be delivered in electronic form.

Question 4.
What is dotcom bubble and dotcom burst?
Answer:
Dotcom Bubble:
1. The Dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth (excessive assumption) of economy that occurred roughly between 1995 and 2000.

2. During the dotcom bubble, the value of equity markets grew exponentially with the NASDAQ composite index of US stock market rising from under 1000 points to more than 5000 points.
Dotcom Burst

3. The Nasdaq-Composite stock market index, fell from 5046.86 to 1114.11. This is infamously, known as the Dotcom Crash or Dotcom Burst.

4. This began on March 11,2000 and lasted until October 9,2002. During the crash, thousands of online shopping companies, like as Pets.com failed and shut down.

Question 5.
Write a short note on out-sourcing?
Answer:
Out-sourcing are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.

PART – III
Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Describe how E-Commerce is related to socio-technological changes?
Answer:
Growth of E-Commerce is also related to the socio-technological changes. The more, the medium becomes deep-rooted, the more, are the users drawn towards it. Increase of users, increases the markets. As the markets expand, more business organizations are attracted. The more businesses accumulate it create competition. The competition leads to innovation; innovation in turn drives the development of technology; technology facilitates E-Commerce’s growth.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the third wave of E-Commerce?
Answer:
The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
1. The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

2. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions.

3. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

4. The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web, Generic Database etc.

Question 3.
Explain B2B module in E-Commerce?
Business to Business (B2B)
Answer:
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.
Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

Question 4.
Write a note on name-your-price websites?
Answer:
Name-your-price sites are just like normal retail sites. In contrast, the buyer negotiates with the retailer for a particular product or service, https://in.hotels.com/

Question 5.
Write a note on physical product dispute of E-Commerce?
Answer:
Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Through Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses.

We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality. If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Write about the development and growth of Electronic Commerce?
Answer:
The Development and Growth of Electronic Commerce:
Economists describe four distinct waves (or phases) that occurred in the Industrial Revolution. In each wave, different business strategies were successful. Electronic commerce and the information revolution brought about by the Internet likely go through such series of waves.

The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1995 -2003
(i) The Dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies. Thereby their websites were only in English. The Dotcom bubble had attracted huge investments to first wave companies.

(ii)As the Internet was mere read-only web (web 1.0) and network technology was in its beginning stage, the bandwidth and network security was very low.

(iii) Only EDI and unstructured E-mail remained as a mode of information exchange between businesses.

(iv) But the first wave companies enjoyed the first-move advantage and customers had left with no options.

The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009

(i) The second wave is the rebirth of E-Commerce after the dotcom burst. The second wave is considered as the global wave, with sellers doing business in many countries and in many languages.

(ii) Language translation and currency conversion were focused in the second wave websites.
(iii) The second wave companies used their own internal funds and gradually expanded their E-Commerce opportunities.

(iv) As a result E-Commerce grows more steadily, though more slowly. The rapid development of network technologies and interactive web (web 2.0, a period of social media) offered the consumers more choices of buying. The increased web users nourished E-Commerce companies (mostly B2C companies) during the second wave.

The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present

(i) The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

(ii) It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

(iii) The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web. Generic Database etc.

Question 2.
List all the E-Commerce business models and explain any four briefly?
Answer:
Classification of E-Commerce Business models:
Business organizations, Consumers and Government (also called as Administrations) are the major parties in the E-Commerce. Sometimes Employees (Informal workers) also indulge in this system. Based upon the entities involved in transaction, E-Commerce has been classified into the following typical categories. The model in which the government plays as an entity is termed as e- Governance.

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

1. Business to Business (B2B):
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.

Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

2. Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

3. Business to Government (B2G):
B2G is a business model that refers to business organizations sells products, services or information to Governments or to its administrations. In other words, when a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as B2G model. B2G networks models provide a way for businesses to bid on Government projects or products those Governments might need for their organizations, e.g. A Government or its administration buys laptops for students from a business.

4. Consumer to Business (C2B):
C2B can be described as a form of E-Commerce where, the transaction is originated by the consumers. The consumers will fix a set of requirements or specific price for a service or a commodity. C2B model, is also called as reverse auction model. Here, customer bid his price for a service or a product. Then E-Commerce business entity will match the requirements of the consumers to the best possible extent.

For instance, in a travel website (eg. yatra.com) a consumer may specify his dates of trayel, his source and destination, number of tickets required and range of hotel etc. The website then finds out the various options for him which best meets his requirements. These websites generate revenue through affiliate links, sponsored advertisement or even a small commission in every booking, e.g. Name-your-price websites.

5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C):
C2C in E-Commerce provides opportunity for trading of products or services among consumers who are connected through the Internet. In brief when something is bought and sold between two consumers using Internet it is called C2C E-Commerce. Here the websites act as a platform to facilitate the transaction. The electronic tools and Internet infrastructure are employed to support transactions between individuals. Typically, this type of E-Commerce works as Consumer to Business to Consumer (C2B2C).

It means that a consumer would contact a business in search for a suitable customer. Most of the auction websites and matrimonial websites are working on this methodology. For example, a consumer who wants to sell his property can post an advertisement on the website (eg: timesclassifieds.com). Another person who is interested in buying a property can browse the property, advertisement posted on this site. Thus, the two consumers can get in touch with each other for sale/purchase of property through another business’ website.

6. Consumer to Government (C2G):
Citizens as Consumers and Government engage in C2G E-Commerce. Here an individual consumer interacts with the Government. C2G models usually include income tax or house tax payments, fees for issuance of certificates or other documents. People paying for renewal of license online may also fall under this category.

7. Government to Business (G2B):
G2B is closely related to B2G. G2B in E-Commerce refers to a business model where Government providing services or information to business organization. It may be a formal offer such as a takeover bid for a road project.

G2B is a part of e-govemance. The Government provides information about business rules, requirement and permission needed for starting a new business, and other specifications in its portal. The objective of G2B is to reduce burdens on business, provide one-stop access to information thereby boost the economy.

8. Government to Consumer (G2C):
G2C in E-Commerce is very similar to C2G. Here the Government provides platform for its citizens to avail its services and information through th Internet. The services may be issuance of ceriticates through online. e.g. https://csc.gov.in/governmenttocitizen.

9. Government to Government (G2G):
G2G is the online (usually non-commercial) interaction between Government organizations or departments. G2G’s principle objective is to implement e-govemance rather commerce. G2G model in e-govemance involves distributing data or information between its agencies/ departments. G2G systems can be classified into two types

Internal facing or local level – joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy.

Question 3.
Explain any five E-Commerce revenue models?
Answer:
(i) Auction site is a kind of website, that auctions items on the Internet and levies some commission from the sales, e.g. https://www.ebay.com/

(ii) Banner advertisement site displays advertisements of other companies in its websites and thereby earns revenue.

(iii) Bulk-buying sites collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items; the site negotiates a discount with the supplier and takes a commission, e.g. https://www.alibaba.com/

(iv) Digital publishing sites effectively host the e-books or magazines on the web. They make profits in a number of ways such as advertising, selling etc., https://wordpress.org/

(v) Licensing sites allow other websites to make use of their software. For example, the search engines which allow a visitor of the site to search within the website more easily.

Question 4.
How would you differentiate a traditional commerce and E-Commerce?
Answer:
Traditional vs E-Commerce:
Traditional Commerce:

1. Traditional commerce is buying or selling of products and services physically.
2. Customer can easily identify, authenticate and talk to the merchant.
3. Physical stores are not feasible to be open all the time.
4. Products can be inspected physically before purchase.
5. Scope of business is limited to particular area.
6. Resource focus Supply side.
7. Business Relationship is Linear.
8. Marketing is one way marketing.
9. Payment is made by cash, cheque, cards etc.
10. Most goods are delivered instantly.

E-Commerce:

1. E-Commerce carries out commercial transactions electronically on the Internet.
2. Neither customer nor merchant see the other.
3. It is always available on all time and all days of the year.
4. Products can’t be inspected physically before purchase. .
5. Scope of business is global. Vendors can expand their business Worldwide.
6. Resource focus Demand side.
7. Business Relationship is End-to-end.
8. One-to-one marketing.
9. Payment system is mostly credit card and through fund transfer.
10. It takes time to transport goods.

Question 5.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce to a consumer?
Advantages and Disadvantages of E-Commerce:
Answer:
The pros and cons of E-Commerce affect three major stakeholders: consumers business organisations, and society.
The following are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a consumer.

Advantages:
1. E-Commerce system is operated on all days and all the day. It is able to conduct business 24 × 7. Neither consumer nor suppliers need physical store to be opened to do business electronically. People can interact with businesses at the time of their convenience.

2. Speed is a major advantage in E-Commerce. Advanced Electronic communications systems allow messages to reach across the world instantaneously. There is no need to wait days for a catalogue to arrive by post. Communication delay is not a part of the Internet or E-Commerce world.

3. The Internet is too easy to ‘shop around’ for products and services that may be more cheaper and effective than left o buy only in a Brick and Mortar shop. It provides an opportunity to buy at reduced costs. It is possible to, explore the Internet, identify original manufacturers, thereby bypass wholesalers and achieve a cheaper price.

4. The whole world becomes a shop for today’s customers. They can have wide choice by comparing and evaluating the same product at different websites before making a purchase decision.

5. Customers can shop from home or anywhere at their convenience. They don’t need a long wait to talk to a salesman. They can read the details regarding model numbers, prices, features etc. of the product from the website and buy at their own convenience. Payments can also be made through online.

Disadvantages:
1. E-Commerce is often used to buy goods that are not available locally but from businesses all over the world. Physical goods need to be transported, which takes time and costs money. In traditional commerce, when we walk out of a shop with an item, it’s ours; we have it; we know what it is, where it is and how it looks. But in E-Commerce we should wait between placing the order and having the product in hand. Some E-Commerce companies handle this by engaging their customer updating status of their shipments.

2. Unlike returning goods to a traditional shop returning goods through online is believed to be an area of difficulty. The doubts about the period of returning, will the returned goods reach source in time, refunds, exchange and postage make one tiresome.

3. Privacy issues are serious in E-Commerce. In E-Commerce generating consumer information is inevitable. Not all the companies use the personal information they obtained to improve services to consumers. Many companies misuse the information and make money out of it. It is true that privacy concerns are a critical reason why people get cold feet about online shopping.

4. Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Though Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses. We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality.

If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are Often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

5. We couldn’t think of ordering a single ice cream or a coffee from a shop in Paris. Though specialized and refrigerated transport can be used, goods bought and sold via the Internet need to survive the trip from the supplier to the consumer. This makes the customers turn back towards traditional supply chain arrangements for perishable and non-durable goods.

6. Delivery ambiguity. Since supplying businesses can be conducted across the world, it can be uncertain whether they are indeed genuine businesses or just going to take our money. It is pretty hard to knock on their door to complain or seek legal recourse. Further, even if the item is sent, it is easy to start bothering whether or not it will ever arrive on time.
The following are some of the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a Business organisation.

Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation –
Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
The term E-Business was coined by ……………………….
(a) Apple
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft
(d) Sun Microsystems
Answer:
(b) IBM

Question 2.
The, term E-Business was coined in the year
(a) 1996
(b) 2001
(c) 2003
(d) 2005
Answer:
(a) 1996

Question 3.
Find the wrong statement from the following.
(a) E-commerce is a subset of E-Business
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce
Answer:
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce

Question 4.
SCM means
(a) Supply Chain Management
(b) Small Company Management
(c) Short Chain Management
(d) Surplus Charge Management
Answer:
(a) Supply Chain Management

Question 5.
…………………… can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.
Answer:
E-Commerce

Question 6.
E-Commerce first emerged on private networks in ……………………….
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1970
(d) 1972
Answer:
1970

Question 7.
…………………… paved the way for the E-commerce.
(a) Electronic Data Interchanges
(b) teleshopping
(c) both a & b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both a & b

Question 8.
SME mean ……………………….
Answer:
Small and Medium-Sized Enterprises

Question 9.
Who invented Teleputer?
(a) Michael Aldrich
(b) Sting’s
(c) Bob Frankston
(d) Dan Bricklin
Answer:
(a) Michael Aldrich

Question 10.
Teleputer was invented in the year
(a) 1974
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1980
Answer:
(d) 1980

Question 11.
Online Transaction Processing was developed in the year ………………………
(a) 1976
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Answer:
(c) 1979

Question 12.
Fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom network is called ………………………
Answer:
Teleputer

Question 13.
Joe Mccambley ran the first ever online banner ad in the year
(a) Oct 1994
(b) Nov 1996
(c) Oct 1996
(d) Nov 1994
Answer:
(a) Oct 1994

Question 14.
Match the following.
1. e Bay sold its first item – (i) July 1995
2. Amazon sold its first item – (ii) Aug 1994
3. The first business to business transactions – (iii) Sep 1995
4. First secure retail transaction on web – (iv) 1981
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)
(b) 1-(i) 2-(ii) 3-(iii) 4-(iv)
(c) 1 -(iv) 2-(iii) 3-(i) 4-(ii)
(d) 1-(ii) 2-(i) 3-(iv) 4-(iii)
Answer:
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)

Question 15.
Group on launched in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2008
(d) 2007
Answer:
(c) 2008

Question 16.
The first online-only shop is ……………………….
Answer:
Zappo’s

Question 17.
…………………….. means shopping at a distance.
Answer:
Teleshopping

Question 18.
eBay sold its first item-a broken ………………………
(a) laser printer
(b) laser pointer
(c) science textbook
(d) album
Answer:
(b) laser pointer

Question 19.
Amazon sold its first item ………………………..
(a) science textbook
(b) Maths textbook
(c) Tamil textbook
(d) English textbook
Answer:
(a) science textbook

Question 20.
The dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth of economy that occured roughly between …………………… and …………………….
(a) 1990-95
(b) 1995-2000
(c) 2005-2010
(d) 2015-20
Answer:
(b) 1995-2000

Question 21.
The another name for Dotcom Burst is …………………………
Answer:
Doctom Crash

Question 22.
How many types of E-commerce Business models are there?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 23.
Outsourcing and Off shoring comes under …………………….. Business models?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 24.
The commercial transactions that takes place between business firms and their consumers are ………………………
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 25.
When a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as ………………………. model.
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(c) B2G

Question 26.
Which model is also called as reverse auction model?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(d) C2B

Question 27.
C2C can be termed as ………………………..
(a) C2B2C
(b) CCB22
(c) 22CCB
(d) B2C2B
Answer:
(a) C2B2C

Question 28.
Find the Wrongly matched pair.
(i) yatra.com – C2B
(ii) Income tax – C2G
(iii) Income tax – C2G
(iv) ebiz.gov.in – G2B
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Answer:
(d) (iv)

Question 30.
Matrimonial websites come under ……………………… models.
(a) C2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2B
(d) C2C
Answer:
(d) C2C

Question 31.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) house tax payments
(b) Income tax payments
(c) auction payments
(d) fess for issuance of certificates
Answer:
(c) auction payments

Question 32.
Which model is a part of e-govemance?
(a) G2B
(b) B2C
(c) C2G
(d) G2G
Answer:
(a) G2B

Question 33.
How many types of classifications of G2G systems are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 34.
Affiliate site is also called as …………………….
Answer:
price comparision website

Question 35.
…………………… collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items.
Answer:
Bulk-Buying Sites

Question 36.
Identify the statement which is wrong about E-commerce
(а) Resource focus demand sick
(b) Business Relationship is linear
(c) one to one marketing
(d) products can’t be inspected physically before purchase
Answer:
(b) Business Relationship is linear

Question 37.
Which among the following is not the benefits of E-commerce?
(a) Access to global market
(b) lower Transaction cost
(c) High cost of entry
(d) computer platform-independent
Answer:
(c) High cost of entry

Question 38.
ARmeans ………………………
Answer:
Augument reality

Question 39.
VR means ……………………..
Answer:
Virtual Reality

Question 40.
……………………….. is a 3-dimensional experience of witnessing the virtual items by augmenting the real objects with the virtual ones.
Answer:
Augument Reality

Question 41.
………………….. an online platform for writing articles about a topic.
Answer:
Blog

Question 42.
……………………. is the term that refers to a business that has a physical store; opposite of online store.
Answer:
Brick and Mortar

Question 43.
……………………… a free, open source online blogging platform.
Answer:
Word press

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
When a company is called as E-Business?
Answer:
A company can be called E-Business if and only if –

1. It has the ability to conduct business electronically over Internet.
2. It manages payment transaction through Internet.
3. It has a platform for selling products & services via Internet.

Question 2.
What is a teleputer?
Answer:
Teleputer, which was a fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom networking technologies.

Question 3.
Classify of E-commerce Business Models?
Answer:

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

Question 4.
Write note on Business to Consumer?
Answer:
Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

Question 5.
Classify G2G models?
Answer:
G2G systems can be classified into two types:

1. Internal facing or local level-joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
2. External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the Benefits of E-commerce to a business organisation?
Answer:
Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation.

1. Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

2. Lower Transaction Cost:
E-Commerce reduces the cost of business transactions substantially. For instance, significant number of customer service representatives in a bank can be reduced by using net banking. Since these interactions are initiated by customers, the customers provide a lot of data for the transactions that may otherwise need to be entered by employees. This means that some of the work and costs are effectively shifted to customers; this is referred as‘customer outsourcing’.

3. 24×7 working:
A website is open all 24 hours, 7 days in a week. As E-Commerce firm can provide information about its products and services to customers around the clock, it can thus, take
orders, keep an eye on delivery of goods and receive payments at any time.

4. Low cost of entry:
Though E-Commerce was fist emerged in private networks it did not remain the same. Internet has changed the face of E-Commerce. The Internet is all about democratization. Internet is a place where the small guy can effectively fight against the giants and hope to win. Days when E-Commerce was only for affordable large national chains are gone.
Today, it is common for retailers to move their traditional store to online with very less add-on only for building a good website.

5. Computer platform-independent:
Most computers have the ability to communicate via the Internet, irrespective of operating systems and hardware. Consumers need not have to upgrade their computer or network to participate in E-Commerce. They are not limited by existing hardware or software.

Also the E-Commerce company need not worry about fast changes in computer network technology. E-Commerce applications can be more efficiently developed and distributed because they are platform independent. Internet’s altruism helps E-Commerce.

6. Snapping middleman:
E-Commerce enjoys the benefit of bypassing middlemen and reaching the end customer directly through Internet. In B2C E-Commerce business firms establish a direct contact with their customers by eliminating middlemen. It helps to increase the sales of the organization without any interventions. This results in cheaper price for consumers and higher
profit margins for the companies.

Question 2.
Explain various limitations of Ecommerce for a business organisation?
Answer:
1. People won’t buy all products online:
There are certain products like high price jewels, clothes or furnishings which people might not like to buy online. They might want to, inspect it, feel the texture of the fabric etc. which are not possible in E-Commerce. As the online shopping does not allow physical inspection, customers have to rely on electronic images of the products.

E-Commerce is an effective means for buying known and established services, that is, things that are being used every day. Example booking tickets, buying books, music CDs and software. It is not suitable for dealing with the new or unexpected. Traditional commerce always takes advantage when it is perishables and touch and feel products.

2. Competition and Corporate vulnerability:
Access to Global Market is an beneficial on one hand but it also come with a competition. Open Internet has paved way to all business firms to operate in the global market. Many businesses have been already facing international competition from web-enabled business opponents.

The competitors may access product details, catalogs, and other information about a business through its website and makes it vulnerable. They might then indulge in web harvesting. Web harvesting is the illegal activity of extracting business intelligence from competitor’s web pages.

3. Security:
Security remains to be a problem for E-Commerce. Customers might be reluctant to give their credit card number to the website. As lot of cyber frauds takes place in E-Commerce transactions, people generally afraid to provide their personal information. Legal issues arise when the customer’s data falls in the hands of strangers. Fraudulent activities in traditional commerce is comparatively less as there is personal interaction between the buyer and the seller.

4. Customer loyalty:
Business cannot survive long without loyal customers. The customers would like to buy from a website where they are able to get the best deal. They cannot be loyal to a particular seller. In traditional commerce, shopkeeper would interact with the consumer “face-to-face” and gain their loyalty too.

In E-Commerce, the interaction between the business and the consumer is “screen-to-face”. The customers would feel that they do not have received sufficient personal attention. Since there is no personal touch in E-Business, companies could not win over their loyalty easily.

5. Shortage of skilled employees:
Though most of the process in E-Commerce is automated, some sectors like packaging and delivery, needs manual interventions. There could be problems related to shipping delays which would need technically qualified staff with an aptitude to resolve.

E-Commerce has difficulty in recruiting, training and retaining talented people. There is a great shortage of skilled employees. Traditional organizational structures and poor work cultures in some places inhibit the growth of E-Commerce.

6. Size and value of transactions:
The delivery cost of a pen surpasses the cost of pen itself. E-Commerce is most often conducted using credit card for payments, and as a result very small and very large transactions tend not to be conducted online.

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the possible structure of X?
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
(b) CH₃ – CH(OH) – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – C (OH) (CH₃)₂
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH (OH) – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
Hint:
2R – OH + Na → 2RONa + 2H₂ ↑ 2 moles of alcohol gives 1 mole of H₂ which occupies
22.4L at 273K and 1 atm
number of moles of alcohol = \(\frac{2 \text { moles of } \mathrm{R}-\mathrm{OH}}{22.4 \mathrm{L} \text { of } \mathrm{H}_{2}}\) x 560 mL = 0.05 moles
number of moles = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { molar mass }}\)
= molar mass = \(\frac{3.7}{0.05}\) = 74 g mol^-1
General formula for
R – OH C_n H_2n+1 – OH
n(12) + (2n+1) (1) + 16 +1 = 74
14n = 74 – 18
14n = 56
n = \(\frac { 56 }{ 4 }\) = 4
The 2° alcohol which contains 4 carbon is CH_n CH(OH)CH₂ CH₃

Question 2.
Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give tertiary alcohol.
(a) benzaldehyde
(b) propanoic acid
(c) methyl propanoate
(d) acetaldehyde
Answer:
(c) methyl propanoate
Hint:

Question 3.

This ‘X’ is …………..

Answer:

Hint:
hydro boration – Anti markownikoff product
i.e CH₃ – CH₂ – CH – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH

Question 4.
In the reaction sequence, Ethane

Ethan – 1, 2 – diol. A and X respectively are ………….
(a) Chioroethane and NaOH
(b) ethanol and H₂SO₄
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃
(d) ethanol and H₂O
Answer:
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃
Hint:

Question 5.
Which one of the following is the strongest acid ………..
(a) 2 – nitrophenol
(b) 4 – chlorophenol
(c) 4 – nitrophenol
(d) 3 – nitrophenol
Answer:
(c) 4 – nitrophenol

Question 6.

on treatment with Con. H₂SO₄, predominately gives ……………..

Answer:

Hint:

Question 7.
Carbolic acid is …………..
(a) Phenol
(b) Picric acid
(c) benzoic acid
(d) phenylacetic acid
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 8.
Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis …………..
(a) Dichioro methane
(b) trichioroethane
(c) trichloro methane
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) trichloro methane (Riemer Tiemann reaction)
Hint:

Question 9.

(a) (CH₃)₃ CCH = CH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
(c) CH₂ = C(CH₃)CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(d) CH₂ = C (CH₃) – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
Hint:

Question 10.
The correct IUPAC name of the compound,

(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
(b) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – chloropentan – 1 – ol
(c) 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl – 4 – chiorobutan – 1 – ol
(d) 4 – chioro – 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
Answer:
(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol

Question 11.
Assertion: Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 12.
In the reaction Ethanol
is ………………
(a) ethane
(b) ethoxyethane
(c) ethylbisuiphite
(d) ethanol
Answer:
(d) ethanol
Hint:

Question 13.
The reaction

can be classified as
(a) dehydration
(b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
(d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
Answer:
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
Hint: Cyclic alcohol → sodium cyclic alkoxide → williamson ether synthesis

Question 14.
Isoprophylbcnzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives …………
(a) C₆H₅COOH
(b) C₆H₅COCH₃
(c) C₆H₅COC₆H₅
(d) C₆H₅ – OH
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – OH (phenol)

Question 15.
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason: In the case of phenol. the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by resonance.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false,.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 16.
HO CH₂ CH₂ – OH on heating with periodic acid gives ………..
(a) methanoic acid
(b) Glyoxal
(c) methanol
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) methanol

Question 17.
Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile radiators?
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) Neopentyl alcohol
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol
Answer:
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol

Question 18.

is an example of …………..
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) cyclic reaction
(c) Williamson reaction
(d) Kolbe reactions
Answer:
(c) Kolbe reactions

Question 19.
One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C₃H₈O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound (A) is ……………
(a) propan – 2 – ol
(b) propan- 1- ol
(c) ethoxy ethane
(d) methoxy ehane
Answer:
(d) methoxy ehane
Hint:

Question 20.
Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot HI?

Answer:

Hint:

Question 21.
Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /
(a) SN¹ reactions
(b) SN² reaction
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) electrophilic substitution
Answer:
(b) SN² reaction

Question 22.
On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
(a) red colour
(b) violet colour
(c) dark green colour
(d) no colouration
Answer:
(b) violet colour

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
IdentIfy the product (s) is / are formed when 1 – methoxy propane is heated with excess HI. Name the mechanism involved in the reaction
Answer:
1-methoxy propane is heated with excess HI, yields two products named as Methyl iodide and 1- iodo propane.
Step 1:

Step 2.

Step 3:

Step 4:

Overall reaction:

This reaction ivvolves nucleophilic substitution reaction mechanism. (SN¹)

Question 2.
Draw the major product formed when 1 – ethoxyprop – 1 – ene is heated with one equivalent of HI
Answer:

This reaction follows SN¹ mechanism because in this reaction the more stable carbocation is formed that is double bonded carbocation. Therefore, the given molecule reacts with HI to form ethanol and 1- iodo prop – 1 – ene.

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable reagent to prepare secondary alcohol with identical group using Grignard reagent.
Answer:
Acetaldehyde reacts with Grignard reagent to give addition product, which on further undergoes acid hydrolysis to yield secondary alcohol, that is isopropyl alcohol.

Question 4.
What is the major product obtained when two moles of ethyl magnesium bromide is treated with methyl benzoate followed by acid hydrolysis
Answer:

Question 5.
Predict the major product, when 2-methyl but – 2 – ene is converted into an alcohol in each of the following methods.

1. Acid catalysed hydration
2. Hydroboration
3. Hydroylation using bayers reagent

Answer:
1. Acid catalysed hydration:

2. Hydroboration.

3. Hydroxylation using bayers reagent:

Question 6.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point and give a reason for your ordering

1. Butan – 2 – ol, Butan – 1 – SI, 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol
2. Propan – 1 – ol, propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol, propan – 1, 3 – diol, propan – 2 – ol

Answer:
1. Boiling points increases regularly as the molecular mass increases due to a corresponding increase in their Van der waal’s force of attraction. Among isomeric alcohols 2° – alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decreases in the extent

of H-bonding because of steric hindrance. Thus the boiling point of Butan – 2 – ol is lower than that of Butan – 1 – ol. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol < Butan – 2 – ol < Butan – 1 – ol

2. 2°-alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decrease in the extent of H – bonding because of steric hindrance. Therefore Propan – 1 – ol has higher boiling point than Propan – 2 – ol. Hydrogen group increases, boiling point also increases. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, propan – 2 – ol < Propan – 1 – ol < propan – 1, 3 – diol < propan -1, 2, 3 – triol

Question 7.
Can we use nucelophiles such as NH₃, CH₃O for the Nucleophilic substitution of alcohols
Answer:
1. Increasing order of nucleophilicity,
NH₃ < – OH^⊕ < CH₃O^⊖-

2. Higher electron density will increase the nucleophilicity.

3. Negatively charged species are almost always more nucleophiles than neutral species.

4. RO^⊖ has an alkyl group attached, allowing a greater amount of polarizability. This means oxygen’s lone pairs will be more readily available to reach in RO^⊖ than in OH^⊖. Hence CH₃O – is the better nucleophile for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols. NH₃ cannot act as nucleophiles for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols.

Question 8.
Is it possible to oxidise t – butyl alcohol using acidified dichromate to form a carbonyic compound.
Answer:
3° – alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction under normal conditions, but at elevated temperature, under strong oxidising agent cleavage of C – C bond takes place to give a mixture of carboxylic acid.

Yes, it is possible. t – butyl alcohol is readily oxidsing in acidic solution (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) to a mixture of a ketone and an acid each containing lesser number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol. The oxidation presumably occur via alkenes formed through dehydration of alcohols under acidic conditions.

Question 9.
What happens when 1 – phenyl ethanol is treated with acidified KMnO₄.
Answer:
1 – phenyl ethanol reacts with acidified KMnO₄ to give Acetophenone.

Question 10.
Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.
Mechanism of acid catlaysed dehydration of ethanol:
Step1:
Protonation of ethanol.

Step 2:
Elimination of water molecule.

Question 11.
How is phenol prepared form

1. chlorobenzene
2. isopropyl benzene

Answer:
1. From Chioro benzene:
According to Dow’s process, when Chiorobenzene is hydrolysed with 6 – 8% NaOHat 300 bar and 633K in a closed vessel, sodium phenoxide is formed which on treatment with dilute HCl gives phenol.

2. For isopropyl benzene:
On passing air to a mixture of cumene (isopropyl benzene) and 5% aqueous sodium carbonate solution, cumene hydroperoxide is formed by oxidation. It is treated with dilute acid to get phenol and acetone.

Question 12.
Explain Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
Kolbe’s (or) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction:
In this reaction, phenol is first converted into sodium phenoxide which is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic substitution reaction with CO₂. Treatment of sodium phenoxide with CO₂ at 400K, 4 -7 bar pressure followed by acid hydrolysis gives salicylic acid.
Answer:

Question 13.
Writes the chemical equation for Williamson synthesis of 2 – ethoxy – 2 – methyl pentane starting from ethanol and 2 – methyl pentan – 2 – ol
Answer:
Step 1:

Step 2:

Step 3:

Williamson’s synthesis occurs by SN² – mechanism and primary alkyl halides are more reactive in SN² reactions. Therefore ethanol is converted into ethyl bromide.

Question 14.
Write the structure of the aldehyde, carboxylic acid and ester that yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – ol.
Answer:
1. Aldehyde yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – 3n – ol is

2. Acid yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – ol is

3. Ester yield 4 – methylpent – 2 0 en – 1 – ol is

The above-shown compounds undergo a reduction reaction to yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – l – ol.

Question 15.
What is metamerism? Give the structure and IUPAC name of metamers of 2 – methoxy propane
Answer:
Metamerism:
It is a special type of isomerism in which molecules with the same formula, same functional group, but different only in the nature of the alkyl group attached to oxygen.

Ethoxy ethane and 1-methoxy propane are metamers of 2-methoxy propane.

Question 16.
How are the following conversions effected

1. benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol
2. benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid

Answer:
1. Conversion of benzyl chloride into benzyl alcohol:

2. Conversion of benzyl alcohol into benzoic acid:

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

Question 18.
O.44g of a monohydric alcohol, when added to methyl magnesium iodide in ether, liberates at STP 112 cm³ of methane with PCC the same alcohol form a carbonyl compound that answers silver mirror test. Identify the compound.
Answer:
0.44g of monohydric alcohol liberates 112 cm³ of methane.

Mass of monohydric alcohol which gives 22400 cm3 of methane = \(\frac{22400 \times 0.44}{112}\) = 88
C₅H₁₂O molecular fórmula has mass number 88 and it shows eight possible isomers. But neopentyl alcohol reacts with PCC to form neopentyl aldehyde, which shows positive silver mirror test. Therefore, compound is. neopentyl alcohol (or) 2, 2 – dimethyl propan – l – ol.

Question 19.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

Question 20.
Phenol is distilled with Zn dust gives (A) followed by friedel – crafts alkylation with propyl chloride to give a compound B, B on oxidation gives (C). Identify A,B and C.
Answer:

Question 21.

Identify A, B, C, D and write the complete equation.
Answer:

Question 22.
What will be the product for the following reaction

Answer:

Question 23.
How will you convert acetylene into n – butyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question 24.
Predict the product A, B, X and Y in the following sequence of reaction

Answer:

Question 25.
3,3 – dimethylbutan – 2 – ol on treatment with conc. H₂SO₄ to give tetramethyl ethylene as a major product. Suggest a suitable mechanisms
Answer:

According to Saytzeff’s rule the dehydration of 3,3 – dimethylbutan – 2 – ol gives a mixture of alkenes. But the secondary carbocation formed in this reaction undergoes rearrangement to form a more stable tertiary

carbocation which further, undergoes to 13 – elimination leads more stable product, that is 2,3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene (more yield). According to Saytzeff’s nile, 2, 3 – dimethyl pent- 2 – ene is the major product.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Classify the following alcohols as 1⁰, 2⁰, and 3⁰ and give their IUPAC Names.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write all the possible isomers of alcohol having the molecular formula C₁₅H₁₂O and their IUPAC names.
Answer:
Eight isomers are possible for C₁₅H₁₂O. They are,

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable carbonyl compound for the preparation of pent – 2 – en – 1 ol using LiAlH₄.
Answer:

Question 4.
2 – methylpropan – 2 – ene
Answer:

Question 5.
How will you prepare the following using Grignard reagent.

1. t – butyl alcohol
2. allyl alcohol

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the products in the following reactions. Write their IUPAC names and mention the mechanism involved in the reactions.

Answer:
1.
This reaction involves E₁ – mechanism.

2.
This reaction ivolves SN² – mechanims.

3. Step 1:

Step 2:

This reaction involves SN² Mechanims.

Question 7.
What is the major product obtained when 2,3 – dimethyl pentan – 3 – ol is heated in the presence of H₂SO₄
Answer:

According to Saytzeff’s rule, 2, 3 – dimethyl pent – 2 – ene is the major product.

Question 8.
Which of the following set of reactants will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

Answer:
Step 1:

step 2:

Chemically both sets equally possible. In Set – 1, the Br-atom is activated by the electron-withdrawing effect of the – NO₂ group. Therefore nucleophilic attack by CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.

Step 1:

Step 2:

Inset – 2, nucleophilic attack by 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide ion on methyl bromide gives the desired ether.

Since alkyl halides (CH₃Br) are more reactive than aryl halides in nucleophilic substitution reactions, therefore set – 2 reactants are preferred.

Question 9.
What happens when m – cresol is treated with an acidic solution of sodium dichromate?
Answer:

When m – cresol is treated with acidic solution of sodium dichromate it gives 4 – hydroxy benzoic acid.

Question 10.
When phenol is treated with propan – 2 – ol in the presence of HF, Friedel – Craft reaction takes place. Identify the products.
Answer:

Question 11.
Given the IUPAC name for the following ethers and classify them as simple or mixed.
Answer:

Question 12.
1. Which of the following reaction will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

1. 4 – nitro – 1 – bromobenzene + sodium methoxide.
2. 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide + bromomethane

Answer:
1. Set – 1:

2. set – 2:

Chemically both sets equally possible. In Set – 1, the Br – atom is activated by electron-withdrawing effect of – NO₂ group. Therefore nucleophilic attack by CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.
Step 1:

Step 2:

In set – 2, nucleophilic attack by 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide ion on methyl bromide gives the desired ether.

Since alkyl halides (CH₃Br) are more reactive than aryl halides in nucleophilic substitution reactions, therefore set – 2 reactants are preferred.

Question 13.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acid strength. propan – 1 – ol, 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol, 3 – nitrophenol, 3,5 – dinitrophenol, phenol, 4 – methyiphenol.
Answer:
Phenols are stronger acids than alcohols because the phenoxide ion left after the removal of proton is stabilized by resonance while the alkoxide ion left after the removal of a proton from alcohol is not stabilized. Thus propan – 1 – ol is much weaker acid than any phenol.

Thus propan- 1 – ol is a much weaker acid than any phenol. We know that electron-donating groups decrease the acidic character and stronger is the electron-donating group, weaker is the phenol.

Compare to propan – 1 – ol, 4 – methyl phenol is stronger acidic character. But comparing phenol and 4-methyl phenol, phenol is stronger acidic. Since electron-withdrawing groups increase the acidic character of phenols and the effect is more pronounced at the para position than at the meta position.

Therefore 4 – nitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3 – nitrophenol. Further, as the number of electron-withdrawing groups increases the acidic strength further increases. Therefore 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3, 5 – dintiro phenol. It may be noted here that although the two nitro groups in 3, 5 – dinitrophenol are at m – position with respect to OH group,

their combined effect is however greater than one nitro group at p – position. Therefore 3, 5 – dinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 4-nitro phenol. Thus, the overall increasing order of acid strength is. Propan – 1 – 01 < 4 – methyl phenol < phenol < 3 – nitrophenol < 3, 5 – dinitrophenol < 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol.

Question 14.
1 mole of HI is allowed to react with t – butyl methyl ether. Identify the product and write down the mechanism of the reaction.
Answer:
Step 1:

Step 2

Step 3:

Overall reaction:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is trihydric alcohol?
(a) Glycol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Sorbitol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 2.
Identify the monohydric unsaturated alcohol.

Answer:

Question 3.
Which one of the following is named as sorbital?

Answer:

Question 4.
Which one of the following is primary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 5.
Which of the following is dihydric alcohol?
(a) Ethenol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol
(d) Propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of secondary (2°) alcohol?
(a) Propan – 2 – ol
(b) Phenyl methanol
(c) Ethenol
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(a) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 7.
Which one of the following is tertiary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 8.
Which of the following is a primary alcohol?

Answer:

Question 9.
Which one of the following find application in proper functioning of our eyes?
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Retinol
(c) Phenol
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(b) Retinol

Question 10.
Which is the storage of vitamin – A?
(a) Retinol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(a) Retinol

Question 11.
The important component in our cell membrane is ………….
(a) Retinol
(b) Phenol
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(c) Cholesterol

Question 12.
Which acts as an additive to petrol?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(b) Ethanol

Question 13.
Which one of the following vitamin is stored in Retinol?
(a) Vitamin – B₁₂
(b) Vitamin – A
(c) Vitamin – C
(a) Vitamin – D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin – A

Question 14.
Which alcohol is used as skin cleanser for injection?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) 1 -propanol
(d) 2-propanol
Answer:
(d) 2-propanol

Question 15.
Which one of the following is used as an industrial solvent?
(a) Methanol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(a) Methanol

Question 16.
2 – methyl but – 3 – en – 2 – ol belongs to which type of alcohol?
(a) 3° alcohol
(b) 2° alcohol
(c) 1° alcohol
(d) Aromatic alcohol
Answer:
(a) 3° alcohol

Question 17.
The IUPAC name of

(a) 1 – methyl – 2 – propanol
(b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol
(c) Tertibutyl alcohol
(d) 2 – propanol
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol

Question 18.
The TUPAC name of CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH is …………
(a) Allyl alcohol
(b) Propenc – 2 – ol
(c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI
(d) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer:
(c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI

Question 19.
In methanol, – OH group attached to carbon is ………..
(a) sp hybridised atom
(b) sp³ hybridised atom
(c) sp² hybridised atom
(d) dsp² hybridised atom
Answer:
(c) sp² hybridised atom

Question 20.
Which one of the following is C – O – H bond angle in methanol?
(a) 109.5°
(b) 104°
(c) 90°
(d) 108.9°
Answer:
(d) 108.9°

Question 21.
Primary alkyl halides undergoes substitution by ……….
(a) SN¹ reaction
(b) SN_i reaction
(c) SN² reaction
(d) SN reaction
Answer:
(c) SN² reaction

Question 22.
What is the product formed when propene is hydrolysed in the presence of mineral acid?
(a) Propan – 1 – ol
(b) Propan – 2 – ol
(c) Iso butyl alcohol
(d) 2 – mcthyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(b) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 23.
The product formed when phenyl magnesium bromide treated with methanal and hydrolysed is ………..
(a) Phenyl methanal
(b) Phenol
(c) Phenyl methanol
(d) Benzyl benzoate
Answer:
(c) Phenyl methanol

Question 24.
To get Butan – 2 – ol, Ethyl magnesium bromide is treated with followed by hydrolysis.
(a) HCHO
(b) CH₃COCH₃
(c) CO₂
(d) CH₃CHO
Answer:
(d) CH₃CHO

Question 25.
Which one of the following is formed when Butyl magnesium bromide is treated with propanone followed by hydrolysis?
(a) Tertiary butyl alcohol
(b) Isopropyl alcohol
(c) 2 – methyl hexan – 2 – ol
(d) Propan – 1 -ol
Answer:
(c) 2 – methyl hexan – 2 – ol

Question 26.
Which one of the following is used to get propan – 2 – ol by the reaction with CH₃MgBr?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethyl in ethanoate
(d) Propanone
Answer:
(c) Ethyl in ethanoate

Question 27.
Crotanaldehyde on reaction with LiAlH₄ and water produces
(a) Ethanol
(b) Propan – 2 – ol
(c) Methanol
(d) But – 2 – en – 1 – ol
Answer:
(d) But – 2 – en – 1 – ol

Question 28.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the conversion of Bcnzoic acid to Benzyl alcohol?
(a) Ni
(b) LiAIH₄ / H₂O
(c) Sn / HCI
(d) Zn / NaOH
Answer:
(b) LiAIH₄ / H₂O

Question 29.
What is the product formed when acetone is treated with LiA1H4 and 1120?
(a) Isobutyl alcohol
(b) n – butyl alcohol
(c) Propan – 2 – ol
(d) Propan – 1 – ol
Answer:
(c) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 30.
Which one of the following is formed when ethene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethylene glycol
(c) Propane – 1, 2 – diol
(d) Glycerol
Answer:
(b) Ethylene glycol

Question 31.
Which one of the following is named as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(b) acidified KMnO₄
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
(d) LiAlH₄
Answer:
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄

Question 32.
The alkaline hydrolysis of fats to give glycerol is known as …………
(a) Esterification
(b) Hydroboration
(c) Hydration
(d) Saponification
Answer:
(d) Saponification

Question 33.
Which one of the following alcohol reacts immediately with Lucas reagent?
(a) Primary alcohol
(b) Tertiary alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Secondary alcohol
Answer:
(b) Tertiary alcohol

Question 34.
Which one of the following is called Lucas reagent?
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(b) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous A1CI₃
(c) LiAIH₄ + H₂O
(d) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
Answer:
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 35.
Which alcohol gives red colour in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) 2° alcohol
(b) 3° alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) 1° alcohol
Answer:
(d) 1° alcohol

Question 36.
Which colour is given by secondary alcohol in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
Answer:
(c) Blue

Question 37.
Which mechanism is followed in the reaction of 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol with HBr?
(a) E₁ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) SN² mechanism
(d) SN¹ mechanism
Answer:
(d) SN¹ mechanism

Question 38.
Which mechanism is followed in the conversion of ethanol to bromoethane by HBr?
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) SN² mechanism
(c) E₁ mechanism
(d) E₂ mechanism
Answer:
(c) E₁ mechanism

Question 39.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the reaction of methanol with thionyl chloride?
(a) Pyridine
(b) pyrrole
(c) THF
(d) Nickel
Answer:
(a) Pyridine

Question 40.
The mechanism of the reaction of ethanol with PCl₃ is ……………..
(a) SN¹
(b) SN²
(c) E₂
(d) E₁
Answer:
(b) SN²

Question 41.
Which one of the following reagent is used in the conversion of Ethanol to ethene?
(a) Zn + Hg / H₂O
(b) LiAlH₄
(c) acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄

Question 42.
Primary alcohol undergoes dehydration by ………
(a) E₁ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) SN¹ mechanism
(d) SN² mechanism
Answer:
(b) E₂ mechanism

Question 43.
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration by ……….
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) E₂ mechanism
(c) E₁ mechanism
(d) SN² mechanism
Answer:
(c) E₁ mechanism

Question 44.
Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of alcohols in the dehydration reaction?
(a) 1° < 2° < 3°
(b) 2° < 1° < 3°
(c) 3° < 2° < 1°
(d) 3° < 1° < 2°
Answer:
(a) 1° < 2° < 3°

Question 45.
Which of the following is the product formed when 3,3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol reacts with conc.H₂SO₄?
(a) 2, 3 – dirnethyl but – 1 – ene
(b) 2,3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene
(c) 3, 3 – dimethyl but – 1 – ene
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 46.
The oxidising agent used to prepare aldehyde (or) ketone from alcohol, the reagent used is …………..
(a) acidified Na₂Cr₂O₇
(b) alkaline KMnO₄
(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate
(d) conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate

Question 47.
The product formed when propan – 2 – ol is treated with dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) and oxalyl chloride followed by the addition of Et₃N is ……….
(a) Oxalyl chloride
(b) Propanal
(c) Ethanoic aicd
(d) Propanone
Answer:
(d) Propanone

Question 48.
Which reaction is used to convert alcohol to ketone/aldehyde in the presence of DMSO?
(a) Lucas test
(b) Swern oxidation
(c) Biological oxidation
(d) Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
(b) Swern oxidation

Question 49.
Which product is formed when propan- 1 – ol is oxidised by pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)?
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Propane
(d) Propene
Answer:
(a) Propanal

Question 50.
Which one of the enzyme is produced in liver to detoxify the alcohol?
(a) Diastase
(b) Zymase
(c) Invertase
(d) Dehydrogenase alcohol
Answer:
(d) Dehydrogenase alcohol

Question 51.
What is ADH and NAD?
(a) Alcohol dehydrogenase and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(b) Acid dehydration and Nitrogen addition
(c) Alcohol dehydration and Nicotine addiction
(d) Adeninc hydrogenase and Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Answer:
(a) Alcohol dehydrogenase and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

Question 52.
What is the main reaction takes place when 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol reacts with Cu at 573 K?
(a) Dehydrogenation
(b) Oxidation
(c) Dehydration
(d) Hydrogenation
Answer:
(c) Dehydration

Question 53.
Name the product formed when tertiary butyl alcohol is treated with Cu at 573 K?
(a) 2 – methyl prop – 1 – ene
(b) 2 – methyl prop – 2 – ene
(c) propene
(d) 1 – butene
Answer:
(a) 2 – methyl prop – 1 – ene

Question 54.
Which one of the following product is formed when propan – 2 – ol is treated with Cu at 573 K?
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Propan – 1 – ol
(d) Propane
Answer:
(b) Propanone

Question 55.
What is the name of the reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid?
(a) Esterification
(b) Saponification
(c) Ethenfication
(d) Hydroxylation
Answer:
(a) Esterification

Question 56.
Which one of the following is formed when ethan – 1, 2 – diol is treated with PI₃?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyne
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(c) Ethene

Question 57.
Which reagent is used to convert ethylene glycol to ethylene?
(a) HI
(b) I₂
(c) PI₃
(d) Conc. H₂ SO₄
Answer:
(c) PI₃

Question 58.
What is the product formed when ethylene glycol is heated at 773 K?
(a) Ethanal
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethane
(d) Oxirane
Answer:
(d) Oxirane

Question 59.
Which reagent is used to convert ethan – 1, 2 – diol into Ethanal?
(a) Anhydrous ZnCI₂
(b) Dilute. H₂SO₄
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Conc. H₂SO₄
Answer:
(c) Either (a) or (b)

Question 60.
Name the product formed when ethan- 1, 2-diol is treated with anhydrous ZnCl₂.
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethane
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(d) Ethanal

Question 61.
Which one of the following is formed when ethane – 1, 2 – diol is treated with Conc. H₂ SO₄?
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethanoic acid
(d) Ethene
Answer:
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
(a) Methanal
(b) Methanol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(a) Methanal

Question 63.
Identify the product formed when glycerol is treated with nitric acid and conc. H₂SO₄?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Glyceryl triacetate
(c) Prop – 2 – enal
(d) Glyceric acid
Answer:
(a) Nitroglycerine

Question 64.
What will be the product formed when propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol is treated with KHSO₄?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) TNG
(c) Prop – 2 – enal
(d) Allyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Nitroglycerine

Question 65.
Oxidation of glycerol with dil.HNO₃ gives ………
(a) Meso oxalic acid
(b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid
(c) Glycerose
(d) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone
Answer:
(b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid

Question 66.
Oxidation of glycerol with Fenton reagent gives ………..
(a) Glyceraldehyde + Dihydroxyacetone
(b) Glyceric acid + Tartronic acid
(c) Meso oxalic acid
(d) Oxalic acid
Answer:
(a) Glyceraldehyde + Dihydroxyacetone

Question 67.
Which one of the following products is formed when glycerol is oxidised with acidified KMnO₄?
(a) Meso oxalic acid
(b) Oxalic acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Glyceric acid
Answer:
(b) Oxalic acid

Question 68.
Which one of the following is used as a solvent for paints, varnishes and gum?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanol
(c) Methanal
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(b) Methanol

Question 69.
Which one of the following is used as fuel for aeroplanes?
(a) Methanol + Ethanol
(b) Ethanol + Petrol
(c) Ethanol + Propanol
(d) Butanol + Methanol
Answer:
(b) Ethanol + Petrol

Question 70.
Which one of the following is used as a beverage as well as a preservative for biological specimens?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Ethanol

Question 71.
Which one of the following is used as an anti-freezer in automobile radiators?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Ethylene glycol
Answer:
(d) Ethylene glycol

Question 72.
Which one of the following is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Ethylene glycol
Answer:
(a) Glycerol

Question 73.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of cosmetics and transparent soaps?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 74.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of explosive dynamite and cordite by mixing it with clay?
(a) Glycol
(b) Glycerol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Benzaldehyde
Answer:
(b) Glycerol

Question 75.
Which alcohols is used in making printing inks and stamp pad ink?
(a) Glycol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 76.
Except which alcohol, other alcohols are weaker acid than water?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Phenol
(c) Methanol
(d) Propanol
Answer:
(c) Methanol

Question 77.
Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidity in alcohol?
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol
(b) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol
(c) 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol
(d) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol
Answer:
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol

Question 78.
Which one of the following is more acidic?
(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Phenol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 79.
The JUPAC name of Phioroglucinol is ………….
(a) 4 – methyl phenol
(b) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
(d) 1, 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene
Answer:
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene

Question 80.
The other name of 1 , 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is called ……….
(a) Phloroglucinol
(b) Quinol
(c) Pyrogallol
(d) Hydroxy quinol
Answer:
(c) Pyrogallol

Question 81.
The other name of 3, 5 – dihydroxy toluene is known as …………
(a) Orcinol
(b) Quinol
(c) Pyrogallol
(d) Resorcinol
Answer:
(a) Orcinol

Question 82.
The IUPAC name of Catechol is known as ………..
(a) 1, 3 – dihydroxy benzene
(b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene

Question 83.
The name of

is …………
(a) Phloroglucinol
(b) pyrogallol
(c) Quinol
(d) Resorcinol
Answer:
(a) Phloroglucinol

Question 84.
The name of

(a) Pyrogallol
(b) Hydroxy cresol
(c) Orcinol
(d) Phloroglucinol
Answer:
(c) Orcinol

Question 85.
The reaction of chiorobenzene with NaOH is known as ………..
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Riemcr – Ticmann reaction
(c) Dow’s process
(d) Cumene synthesis
Answer:
(c) Dow’s process

Question 86.
Which one of the product is formed when benzene and propene is heated at 523K?
(a) Cumene
(b) 2 – ethyl benzene
(c) 2 – propyl benzene
(d) Ethyl enthanoate
Answer:
(a) Cumene

Question 87.
What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with zinc dust?
(a) Cumene
(b) Toluene
(c) Ethyl benzene
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(d) Benzene

Question 88.
The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ……….
(a) Dow’s process
(b) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(d) Williamson ether synthesis
Answer:
(b) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 89.
Name the product formed when phenol is heated with ammonia in the presence of anhydrous
ZnCl₂.
(a) Benzene
(b) Aniline
(c) Anisole
(d) Phenylacetate
Answer:
(b) Aniline

Question 90.
What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with benzoyl chloride in the presence of a base?
(a) Phenylacetate
(b) Phenyl ethanoate
(c) Phenyl benzoate
(d) Benzyl acetate
Answer:
(c) Phenyl benzoate

Question 91.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇?
(a) Benzoic acid
(b) Phenyl amine
(c) Phenylacetate
(d) 1, 4 – benzoquinone
Answer:
(d) 1, 4 – benzoquinone

Question 92.
Hydrogenation of phenol in the presence of Nickel gives ………
(a) cyclo hexane
(b) cyclo hexanol
(c) benzene
(d) cumene
Answer:
(b) cyclo hexanol

Question 93.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol reacts with a mixture of Conc. HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄?
(a) Ortho nitrophenol
(b) Para nitrophenol
(c) 1, 2 – dinitrophenol
(d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol
Answer:
(d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol

Question 94.
What will be the product formed when phenol reacts with bromine water?
(a) 0 – bromo phenol
(b) P – bromo phenol
(c) 1, 3, 5 – tri bromo phenol
(d) 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol
Answer:
(d) 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol

Question 95.
The conversion reaction of phenol of salicylic acid is known as
(a) Schottan – Baumann reaction
(b) Riemer – Ticmann reaction
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction
(d) Williamson’s synthesis
Answer:
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction

Question 96.
The reagent used for the conversion of phenol into salicylaldehyde is ………..
(a) CHCI₃ / NaOH
(b) I₂ / KOH
(c) Zn
(d) Br₂ / CCl₄
Answer:
(a) CHCI₃ / NaOH

Question 97.
What is the name of the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali?
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Cumene synthesis
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction
(d) Schottan – Baumann reaction
Answer:
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction

Question 98.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with chloroform and sodium hydroxide.
(a) Chiorobenzene
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Salicylic acid
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) Salicylaldehyde

Question 99.
What are the reagents required to prepare phenolphthalein?
(a) Phenol + Phthalic acid
(b) Phenol + Benzene
(c) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride
(d) Phenol + Aniline
Answer:
(c) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride

Question 100.
Which one of the following is formed when Phenol reacts with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) P – hydroxy diazo phenol
(b) P – hydroxy azobenzene
(c) O – hydroxy benzene
(d) O – hydroxy azobenzene
Answer:
(b) P – hydroxy azobenzene

Question 101.
Which reagent gives purple colouration with phenol?
(a) Anhydrous AlCl₃
(b) Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(c) Neutral FeCI₃
(d) HCI + ZnCI₂
Answer:
(c) Neutral FeCI₃

Question 102.
Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with ………..
(a) Methanol
(b) Methanal
(c) Ethanal
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(b) Methanal

Question 103.
Which one of the following is used as an antiseptic – carbolic lotion and carbolic soaps?
(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Methanol
(c) Glycol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(d) Phenol

Question 104.
The product formed when formaldehyde reacts with phenol is ……..
(a) Bakelite
(b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Azodye
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(a) Bakelite

Question 105.
Which one of the following is a simple ether?

Answer:

Question 106.
Which one of the following is an example for mixed ether?
(a) Methoxy methane
(b) Phenoxy benzene
(c) Methoxy benzene
(d) Ethoxy ethane
Answer:
(c) Methoxy benzene

Question 107.
The IUPAC name of

(a) 1 – methoxyl isopropyl ethane
(b) 2 – methoxy – 2 – methyl propane
(c) 2, 2 – dimethyl 2- methoxy ethane
(d) Methoxy tertiary butane
Answer:
(b) 2 – methoxy – 2 – methyl propane

Question 108.
The IUPAC name of C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅ is ……..
(a) Diphenyl ether
(b) Phenoxy methane
(c) Phenoxy benzene
(d) Ethoxy benzene
Answer:
(c) Phenoxy benzene

Question 109.
Which one of the following is not a simple ether?
(a) C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
(b) CH₃ – O – CH₃
(c) C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅
(d) C₂H₅ – O – C₂H₅
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃

Question 110.
What is the name of the reaction when ethanol is treated with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K?
(a) Intermolecular dehydration
(b) Intramolecular dehydration
(c) Dehydrogenation
(d) Dehydro halogenation
Answer:
(a) Intermolecular dehydration

Question 111.
Identify the product formed when ethanol is treated with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K?
(a) Ethene
(b) Ethane
(c) 2 – butanol
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(d) Diethyl ether

Question 112.
The reaction of sodium methoxide with ethyl bromide follows
(a) SN¹ mechanism
(b) SN² mechanism
(c) E₁ reaction
(d) E₂ reaction
Answer:
(b) SN² mechanism

Question 113.
The product formed when tertiary butyl bromide and sodium methode are reacted together is ……….
(a) 2 – methyl – 2 – methoxy propane
(b) ethoxy ethane
(c) 2 – methyl – prop – 1 – ene
(d) 2 – methyl but – 1 – ene
Answer:
(c) 2 – methyl – prop – 1 – ene

Question 114.
Identify the product formed when diazomethane reacts with Ethanol in the presence of HBF₄?
(a) Methoxy ethane
(b) Ethoxy ethane
(c) Diethyl ether
(d) Ethyl isopropyl ether
Answer:
(a) Methoxy ethane

Question 115.
What arc the products formed when methoxy ethanc is treated with hydroiodic acid?
(a) Phenol + iodomethane
(b) Todomethane + Ethanol
(c) lodoethane + Methanol
(d) lodobenzene + Methane
Answer:
(b) Todomethane + Ethanol

Question 116.
What are the products formed when methoxy benzene is treated with HI?
(a) C₆H₅OH + CH₄
(b) CH₃I + C₆H₆
(c) C₆H₅ OH + CH₃I
(d) C₂H₅I + C₆H₆
Answer:
(c) C₆H₅ OH + CH₃I

Question 117.
The mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis is …………
(a) E₁
(b) E₂
(c) SN²
(d) SN¹
Answer:
(c) SN²

Question 118.
When diethyl ether is exposed to excess oxygen, the reaction taken place is …………
(a) reduction
(b) hydrogenation
(c) dehydrogenation
(d) auto oxidation
Answer:
(d) auto oxidation

Question 119.
Which one of the following is formed when Diethyl ether is treated with dil.H₂SO₄?
(a) CH₃CH₂HSO₄
(b) CH₃ – CH₂OH
(c) CH₂ = CH₂
(d) CH₃ – CH₃
Answer:
(b) CH₃ – CH₂OH

Question 120.
Which one of the following is formed when diethyl ether reacts with Cl2 in the presence of light?

Answer:

Question 121.

In the above reaction A and B are
(a) CH₃ CH₂ OH + CH₃ – CH₂ Cl
(b) CH₃ – CH₂Cl + CH₃ COOH
(c) CH₃ COOH + CH₃ COOCH₃
(d) CH₃ – CH₂CI + CH₃COOCH₂CH₃
Answer:
(d) CH₃ – CH₂CI + CH₃COOCH₂CH₃

Question 122.
Anisole undergoes bromination with Br₂ in acetic acid in the absence of catalyst, the major product formed is ………..
(a) O – bromoan isole
(b) P – bromoan isole
(c) Benzyl bromide
(d) Bromo benzene
Answer:
(b) P – bromoan isole

Question 123.
Anisole reacts with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI₃ and CS₂ to give ……..
(a) 2 – methoxy toluene
(b) 4 – methoxy toluene
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 124.
Which one of the following is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethoxy ethane
(c) Methoxy ethane
(d) Methoxy propane
Answer:
(b) Ethoxy ethane

Question 125.
Which one of the following is a precursor to the synthesis of perfumes and insecticide pheromones?
(a) Phenol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Anisole
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(c) Anisole

Question 126.
Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?
(a) (CH₃)₂C CH₂
(b) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
(d) CH₃ – CH = CH₂
Answer:
(a) (CH₃)₂C CH₂

Question 127.
Ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
(a) the dipolar character of ethers
(b) alcohols having resonance structures
(c) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
Answer:
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

Question 128.
An organic compound A containing C, H and O has a pleasant odour. On boiling A with Conc.H₂SO₄, colourless gas is produced which decolourises bromine water and alkaline KMnO₄. The organic liquid A is ………..
(a) C₂H₅COOCH₃
(b) C₂HOH
(c) C₂H₅CI
(d) C₂H₆
Answer:
(b) C₂HOH

Question 129.
Chloroethane reacts with X to form diethyl ether. What is X?
(a) NaOH
(b) H₂SO₄
(c) C₂H₅ONa
(d) C₂H₅Cl
Answer:
(c) C₂H₅ONa

Question 130.
In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound D is ……….
(a) Butanal
(b) n-butyl alcohol
(c) propan – 1 – ol
(d) Propanal
Answer:
(c) propan – 1 – ol

Question 131.
Propan – 1 – ol and Propan – 2 – ol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(a) PCI₅
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation with K₂ Cr₂0₇
(d) Ozonolysis
Answer:
(c) Oxidation with K₂ Cr₂0₇

Question 132.
Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except
(a) Sodium
(b) NaOH / I₂
(c) Neutral FeCI₃
(d) Br₂ / H₂O
Answer:
(a) Sodium

Question 133.
in cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators to …………
(a) bring down the specific heat of water
(b) lower the viscosity
(c) reduce the viscosity
(d) make water a better lubricant
Answer:
(a) bring down the specific heat of water
(i.e.) lowering down the freezing point of water.

Question 134.
Main constituent of dynamite is ………..
(a) nitro benzene
(b) nitroglycerine
(c) Picric acid
(d) TNT
Answer:
(b) nitroglycerine

Question 135.
Diethyl ether finds use in medicine as …………
(a) a pain killer
(b) a hypnotic
(c) an antiseptic
(d) an anaesthetic
Answer:
(d) an anaesthetic

Question 136.
Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives
(a) Diphenyl ether
(b) P – hydroxy azo benzene
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(b) P – hydroxy azo benzene

Question 137.
The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with ZnCl₂ + Conc.HCl at room temperature is ………..
(a) Rutan – 1- ol
(b) Butan – 2- ol
(c) 2 – methyl – propan – 1 – ol
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
Answer:
(d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol

Question 138.
Propanone is the product obtained by dehydrogenation of …………
(a) Propan – 2 – ol
(b) Propan – 1 – ol
(c) Propanal
(d) n – propyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Propan – 2 – ol

Question 139.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Phenol is less acidic than ethanol
(b) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
(c) Phenol is more acidic than carboxylic acid
(d) Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid
Answer:
(b) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol

Question 140.
The reaction of ethylene glycol with Pl₃ gives ………..
(a) CH₂ = CHI
(b) ICH₂ – CH₂I
(c) CH₂ = CH2₂
(d) CH = CH
Answer:
(a) CH₂ = CHI

Question 141.
During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with Conc. H₂SO₄, the initiation step is ………..
(a) protonatlon of alcohol
(b) formation of carbocation
(c) elimination of water
(d) formation of carbanion
Answer:
(a) protonatlon of alcohol

Question 142.
Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO₂ at 400 K and 4 – 7 bar pressure to give ………
(a) Sodium salicylate
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Catechol
(d) Pyrogallol
Answer:
(a) Sodium salicylate

Question 143.
The reaction of C₂ H₅OH with Cone. H₂ SO₄ does not give ………..
(a) Ethylene
(b) Diethyl ether
(c) Acetylene
(d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
Answer:
(c) Acetylene

Question 144.
Which of the following gives ketone on oxidation?

Answer:

Question 145.
Phenol is treated with Br₂ /H₂O and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is …………
(a) m – bromo phenol
(b) 2,4 – dibromo phenol
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol
(d) 1, 2 – dibromo benzene
Answer:
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol

Question 146.
Which compound has the highest boiling point?
(a) Acetone
(b) Diethyl ether
(c) Methanol
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(d) Ethanol

Question 147.
When phenol reacts with NH₃ in the presence of ZnCl₂ at 300°C, it gives ………..
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) 1° amine

Question 148.
Azo dyes are prepared from …………
(a) Aniline + Phenol
(b) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride
(c) Phenol + Benzene diazonium chloride
(d) Aniline + Phthalic anhydride
Answer:
(c) Phenol + Benzene diazonium chloride

Question 149.
A compound that easily undergoes bromination is ………….
(a) Phenol
(b) Toluene
(c) Benzene
(d) Diethyl ether
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 150.
When glycerol is treated with P₂O₅ (or) KHSO₄ the product formed is ……….
(a) CH₂ = CH – CH₃
(b) CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH
(c) CH₂ = CH – CHO
(d) CH₂ = C = CH₂
Answer:
(c) CH₂ = CH – CHO

Question 151.
The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions is ………….
(a) CH₃ – O – C₂H₅
(b) C₆H₅ – O – CH₃
(c) C₂H₅ – O – C₂H₅
(d) CH₃ – O – CH₃
Answer:
(b) C₆H₅ – O – CH₃

Question 152.
With anhydrous ZnCl₂, ethylene glycol gives …………
(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Acetylene
(c) Acetaldehyde
(d) Dioxan
Answer:
(c) Acetaldehyde

Question 153.
Fats on alkaline hydrolysis give …………
(a) Oil + Soap
(b) Soap + Glycol
(c) Soap + Ester
(d) Soap + Glycerol
Answer:
(d) Soap + Glycerol

Question 154.

B. in this reaction A and B are respectively
(a) Alkene, Alkyne
(b) Alkanal, Alkene
(c) Alkyne, Alkanal
(d) Alkyne, Alkene
Answer:
(b) Alkanal, Alkene

Question 155.
The oxygen atom in ether is …………
(a) very active
(b) replaceable
(c) comparatively inert
(d) less active
Answer:
(c) comparatively inert

Question 156.
Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives ………….
(a) O – cresol
(b) P – cresol
(c) Phioroglucinol
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(c) Phioroglucinol

Question 157.
Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of RMgX with …………
(a) CO₂
(b) HCHO
(c) CH₃CHO
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(b) HCHO

Question 158.
The dehydration of alcohol is an example of ………….
(a) Bimolecular elimination reaction
(b) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(c) Unimolecular elimination reaction
(d) internal substitution reaction
Answer:
(c) Unimolecular elimination reaction

Question 159.
Ethanol is converted into Ethoxy ethane ………….
(a) by heating with cone. H₂SO₄ at 443 K
(b) by heating with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K
(c) by heating with excess oxygen
(d) by heating with hydrogen
Answer:
(b) by heating with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K

Question 160.
Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of


Answer:

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Cholesteryl alcohol commonly known as …………. is an important component in our ………….
2. …………. the storage form of vitamin A, finds application in proper functioning of our eyes.
3. Methanol s used as an …………. solvent.
4. Isopropyl alcohol is used as …………. for injection.
5. CH₂CHOH is called as ………….
6. An example of hexahydric alcohol is ………….
7. The IUPAC name of glycerol is ………….
8. The TUPAC name of Neopentyl alcohol is ………….
9. The TUPAC name of CH₂ CH – CHOH is ………….
10. In methanol, the – OH group attached to …………. hybridised carbon atom.
11. The bond angle C – OH in methanol is ………….
12. alkyl halides undergo substitution by SN² reaction whereas …………. and …………. alkyl halides undergo substitution by SN¹ reaction.
13. Addition of H₂O to an unsymmetric alkene in the process of sulphuric acid follows ………….
14. Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent to aldehydes/ketones take place in the presence …………. followed by acid hydrolysis gives .
15. With RMgx …………., …………. gives l°alcohol.
16. Butyl Magnesium bromide reacts with propanone to give ………….
17. …………. is used to prepare a secondary alcohol with identical group.
18. Hydroboration yields an …………. product.
19. …………. is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol by reduction reaction of carbonyl compound.
20. …………. occurs in natural fats and in long chain fatty acids in form of triglycerides.
21. The alkaline hydrolysis of fats gives glycerol and the reaction is known as ………….
22. In Lucas test …………. alcohol do not react at room temperature.
23. In Victor Meyer’s test no colouration will be observed in case of ………….
24. Alkyl halide formation from primary alcohol follows …………. mechanism.
25. Alkyl halide formation from tertiary alcohol follows …………. mechanism.
26. The reaction between methanol and thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine follows…………. mechanism.
27. …………. alcohols undergo dehydration by E₂ mechanism whereas alcohols undergo dehydration by E₁ mechanism.
28. To stop the oxidation reaction of alcohol at aldehyde / ketone stage …………. is used as an oxidising agent.
29.  In …………. oxidation dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as an oxidising agent.
30. The fermentation of food consumed by an animal produces …………..
31. The detoxify the alcohol, the liver produces an enzyme called ………….
32. …………. present in the animals act as an oxidising agent and …………. catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohol into non-toxic aldehydes.
33. Ethylene glycol, when heated to 773 K, it forms ………….
34. The reagent used to convert ethane 1, 2 -diol to ethanal is ………….
35. When Ethane – 1, 2 -diol is treated with conc.H₂S0₄, it forms ………….
36. The intermediate product formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid is ………….
37. The final product formed when glycol reacts with periodic acid is ………….
38. The IUPAC name of Acrolein (or) CH₂ = CH – CHO is ………….
39. Oxidation of glycerol with dilute nitric acid gives …………. and ………….
40. Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives ………….
41. Oxidation of glycerol with Fenton’s reagent gives ………….
42. LTA is known as ………….
43. Oxidation of glycerol with acidified KMnO₄ gives ………….
44. FeSO₄ + H₂O₂ is called ………….
45. …………. is used as a substitute for petrol under the name and used as fuel for aeroplane.
46. …………. is used as an anti-freezer in automobile radiators.
47. …………. is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages.
48. …………. is used in the manufacture of transparent soap, printing ink and stamp pad ink.
49. Glycerol is used in the manufacture of explosives like and by mixing with ………….
50. Except …………. all other alcohols are weaker acid than water.
51. The electron withdrawing groups such as – NO₂, – Cl enhances the acidic nature of phenol especially when they are present at …………. positions.
52. The LUPAC name of hydroxy quinol is ………….
53. The IUPAC name of orcinol is ………….
54. The other name of 1, 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is ………….
55. The reaction of chioro benzene with aqueous NaOH to give phenol is known as ………….
56. The product formed when benzene diazonium chloride is boiled with hot water is ………….
57. The IUPAC name of curnene is ………….
58. Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with ………….
59. The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ………….
60. The reagent used in the conversion of phenol to 1, 4 – benzo quinone is ………….
61. When phenol is treated with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄, the product formed is ………….
62. Phenol reacts with bromine water to give a precipitate of ………….
63. The conversion reaction of phenol to salicylic acid is known as ………….
64. The conversion reaction of phenol into salicylaldehyde is known as ………….
65. The product formed when phenol is treated with phthalic anhydride in the presence of Conc.H₂SO₄ is ………….
66. …………. dye is Ibmied when phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in an alkalin
    solution.
67. Phenol gives …………. colouration with neutral FeCI₃.
68. Phenol formaldehyde is known as ………….
69. The IUPAC name of tertiary butyl methyL ether is known as ………….
70. C₆H₅O – CH₂ – CH₃ is known as ………….
71. The mechanism take place when alkyl halide is treated with alcohol solution of sodiunalkoxide is ………….
72. The dipole moment of diethyl ether is ………….
73. The reaction take place when ethers are exposed to oxygen is ………….
74. …………. is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery.
75. …………. is used as a refrigerant.

Answer:

1. cholesteroL, cell membrane
2. Retinol
3. industrial
4. skin cleanser
5. vinyl alcohol (or) ethenol
6. Sorbitol
7. propan – 1, 2, 3 – tnol,
8.  2, 2 – ditnethyl propan – 1 – ol
9. prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
10. sp³
11. 108.9°
12. 1°, 2°, 3°
13. Markownikoff’s rule
14. dry ether, alcohol
15. formaldehyde, HCHO
16. 2-methyl hexan – 2 – ol
17. Formate ester
18. Anti-Markownikoft’s
19. LiAlH₄
20. Glycerol
21. Saoinufucatuib
22. Primary
23. Tertiary alcohol
24. SN²
25. SN¹
26. SN²
27. Pnmary, Tertiary
28. pyridinium chlorochromate
29. Swer
30. alcohol
31. alcohol dehydrogenase ALH
32. NAD,ADH
33. epoxide (or) 1,2-epoxy ethane (or) oxirane
34. dil.H₂SO (or) anhydrous ZnCI₂
35. 1,4 – dioxane
36. cyclic periodate ester
37. formaldehyde
38. prop – 2 – enal
39. glycenc acid, Tartronic acid
40. Meso oxalic acid
41. glycerose (or) a mixture of glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone
42. Lead tetraacetate
43. Oxalic acid
44. 44. Fenton’s reagent
45. Ethanol, Power alcohol
46. Ethylene glycol
47. Glycerol
48. Glycerol
49. dynamite, cordite, china clay
50. Methanol
51. ortho and para
52. 1, 2, 4 – trihydroxy benzene
53. 3, 5 – dihydroxy toluene
54. Pyrogallol
55. Dows process
56. Phenol
57. 2 – phenyl propane
58. Zinc dust
59. Schotten-Baumann reaction
60. acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
61. 2,4, 6 – trinitro phenol (or) Picric acid
62. white, 2,4, 6-tribromo phenol
63. Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction
64. Riemer-Tiemann Reaction
65. Phenolphthalein
66. P-hydroxy azobenzene (or) Red-orange dye
67. Purple
68. Bakelite
69. 2-methoxy – 2 – methyl propane
70. Phenatole (or) Ethoxy benzene
71. SN²
72. 1.18 D
73. auto oxidation
74. Diethyl ether
75. Diethyl ether

III. Match the following Colum – I with Column – II ysubg tge cide guveb below.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) 4 3 2 1

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 5.

Answer:
(b) 4 3 1 2

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 7.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 12.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 15.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 16.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 17.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): P – nitro phenol is having lower pK_a value than phenol.
Reason (R): The electron with drawing group – NO₂ at para position enhances the acidic nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)BothAand Rare wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Alcohols cannot be used as solvent for Grignard reagent.
Reason (R): Alcohols are decomposed by Grignard reagents to give alkane.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Phenols are soluble in alcohols.
Reason (R): Phenols are soluble in alcohol due to the formation of inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong .
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Phenol is insoluble in NaHCO₃ solution but acetic acid is soluble.
Reason (R): Phenols are weakly acidic and hence they dissolve only in strong base and insoluble in weak base like NaHCO₃. But acetic acid is a stronger acid than phenol and so it is soluble in weak base NaHCO₃.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Glycol is more viscous than ethanol.
Reason (R): Glycol contains two hydroxyl groups and the inter molecular hydrogen bonding is made much stronger resulting in a polymeric structure. This leads to high viscosity than ethanol.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Ethanol is a weaker acid than Phenol.
Reason (R): Sodium ethoxidc may be prepared by the reaction of ethanol with sodium metal but phenol reacts with NaOH.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Both alcohol and ether have higher boiling point.
Reason (R): Both are having intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetra hedral angle.
Reason (R): There is a repulsion between the two bulkier R groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and arc wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assertion(A): P-nitro phenol is a stronger acid than o – nitro phenol.
Reason (R): Intra molecular hydrogen bonding in o – nitro phenol make it as a weaker acid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Phenol is more reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R): In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbo cations is more resonance stabilized.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 – tribromo phenol on treatment with Br₂ in CS₂ at 273 K.
Reason (R): Bromine polarizes in CS₂.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are incorrect
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and are incorrect

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.
Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide due to resonance.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Boiling point of ethanol is higher in comparison to methoxy methane.
Reason (R): Ethanol is associated with inter molecular hydroxide bonding whereas in methoxy methane, inter molecular hydrogen bonding is not present.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are not correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): (CH₃)₃ C – O – CH₃ on reaction with HI gives CH₃OH and (CH₃)₃C – I as the main products and not (CH₃)₃ C – OH and CH₃I.
Reason (R): (CH₃)₃ C + (Tertiary carbo cation) is more stable and reacts with HI to form (CH₃)₃ C – I as main product.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): The bond angle (C – O – H) in methanol is reduced to 108.9° from the regular tetra hedral bond angle of 109.5°.
Reason (R): In methanol, two lone pairs of electrons are present in oxygen atom and due to lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the bond angle is reduced.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Assertion(A): LiAlH₄ is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohols from carbonyl compounds.
Reason (R): LiAlH₄ does not reduce the carbon – carbon double bond present in the carbonyl carbon compound.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Primary alcohols are more acidic than tertiary alcohol.
Reason (R): Alkyl groups (electron releasing group) increases the electron density on oxygen and decreases the polar nature of – OH bond. Hence it results in the decrease in acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are not correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 18.
Assertion(A): P – cresol is less acidic than phenol.
Reason (R): Alkyl substituted phenols show a decreased acidity due to the electron releasing + I effect of alkyl group.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): O – nitro phenol is slightly soluble in water whereas P – nitro phenol is more soluble in water.
Reason (R): O – nitro phenol has intra molecular hydrogen bonding whereas P – nitro phenol has inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wiong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Inter molecular dehydration of alcohol is not a suitable method of prepare mixed ethers.
Reason (R): When a mixture of two different alcohols are used, mixture of different ethers are formed and they are difficult to separate.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 2 Mark Questions and Answers

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write the molecular formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Vinyl alcohol
2. Sorbitol

Answer:
1. Vinyl alcohol
CH₂ = CHOH
IUPAC name: Ethenol

2. Sorbitol
HO – CH₂ – (CHOH)₄ – CH₂OH
IUPAC name : Hexan – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 – hexol

Question 2.
Write the structural formula of the following compounds.

1. Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
2. Prop – 3 – en – 1 – ol

Answer:
1. Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol : CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH

2. Prop – 3 – en – 1 – oI :

Question 3.
Write the structural formula of the following compound.

1. Phenyl methanol
2. 2 – methyl – but – 3 – en – 2 – ol

Answer:
1. Phenyl methanol : C₆H₅ – CH₂OH

2. 2 – methyl – but – 3 – en – 2 – ol :

Question 4.
Write the possible isomers for the formula

1. C₂H₆O
2. C₃H₈O

Answer:
1. C₂H₆O

2. C₃H₈O
(a) CH₃ CH₂ – CH₂ OH : Propan – 1 – ol

(b)
Propan – 1 – ol

(a) and (b) – Position isomerism
(a) and (c) – Functional isomerism

Question 5.
Explain about the structure of methanol.
Answer:
1. In methanol, one of the sp³ hybridised orbital of oxygen linearly overlap with the sp³ hybridised orbital of carbon to form a C – O, a bond and another sp³ hybridised orbitai linearly overlap with 1s orbital of hydrogen atom to form a O – H a bond.

2.

3. The remaining two sp3 hybridised orbitais of oxygen are occupied by two lone pairs of electrons. Due to the lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the C – O – H bond angle in methanol is reduced to 108.9° from the regular tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5°.

Question 6.
Convert phenyl magnesium bromide to phenyl methanol (or) How would you prepare phenyl methanol from Grignard reagent?
Answer:

Question 7.
How will you prepare Butan-2-ol from ethanal? (or) Convert Ethyl Magnesium bromide into 2 – Butanol (or) Starting from acetaldehyde, how would you obtain butan – 2 – ol?
Answer:

Question 8.
Convert propanone into 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol.
Answer:

Question 9.
Starting from butyl magnesium bromide, how would you obtain 2 – methyl bexan – 2 – ol?
Answer:

Question 10.
What happens when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with ethl methanoate followed by acid hydrolysis?
Answer:

Question 11.
LiAlH₄ is a best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol. Prove it.
Answer:
LiAIH₄(Lithium Aluminium Hydride) does not reduce the carbon – carbon double bond present in the carbonyl compound and hence it is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohol.

Question 12.
Convert acetone into propan – 2 – ol.
Answer:

Question 13.
How would you get Benzyl alcohol from Benzoic acid.
Answer:

Question 14.
Starting from ethyl ethanoate, how would you prepare ethanol?
Answer:

Question 15.
How will you prepare 4 – alkyl – 4 – hydroxy butanoic acid?
Answer:
When two or more functional groups are present in a molecule a less vigorous sodium borohydride is used as a reducing agent to reduce the more reactive group. For example, if a compound contains both carbonyl and carboxyl group, NaBH₄ reduces the carbonyl group.

Question 16.
What is saponification? Explain with equation.
Answer:
The alkaline hydrolysis of fats gives glycerol and soap then the reaction is known as saponification.

Question 17.
What happens when thionyl chloride is treated with methanol?

The above reaction follows SN² mechanism in the presence of pyridine.

Question 18.
Answer:
1. In Swern oxidation method, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as the oxidising agent and it converts alcohols to ketones / aldehydes.

2. When propan – 2 – ol is treated with DMSO and oxalyl chloride followed by the addition of triethylamine, it produces Propanone.

Question 19.
Explain biological oxidation with an example.
Answer:
Biological oxidation is the fermentation of the food consumed by an animal produces alcohol. To detoxify the alcohol, the liver produces an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) present in the animals acts as a oxidising agent and ADH catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohols into non-toxic aldehyde.

Question 20.
What is esterificatloin? Explain with equation.
Answer:
Alcohols react with carboxylic acids in the presence of an acid to give esters. This reaction is known as Esterification.

Question 21.
How would you convert ethylene glycol into ethene?
Answer:

Question 22.
Explain the action of conc.HNO₃ and conc.H₂SO₄ with ethan – 1, 2 – diol.
Answer:

Question 23.
What happens when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
Answer:
Ethylene glycol on treatment with periodic acid gives formaldehyde. This reaction is selective for vicinal 1, 2 – diols and it proceeds through a cyclic periodate ester intermediate.

Question 24.
How is glycerol reacts with fuming nitric acid? (or) How would you convert glycerol into nitroglycerine?
Answer:

Question 25.
What happens when conc.H₂SO₄ or KHSO₄ is heated with glycerol?
Answer:
Dehydration:

Question 26.
Mention the uses of methanol.
Answer:

1. Methanol is used as a solvent for paints, varnishes, shellac, gums, cement, etc.
2. Methanol is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, perfumes and formaldehyde.

Question 27.
What are the uses of ethylene glycol?
Answer:

1. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in automobile radiator
2. Its dinitrate is used as an explosive with DNG.

Question 28.
Write a note about acidity of aliphatic alcohols.
Answer:
1. According to Bronsted theory, an acid is defined as a proton donor and the acid strength is the tendency to give up a proton. Alcohols are similarly acidic when compared with water. Except methanol, all other alcohols are weaker acid than water. The K_a value for water is 1.8 x 10^-16 where as for alcohols the Ka value in the order 10^-18 to 10^-16.

2. 2C₂H₅ – OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ ↑
This reaction explains the acidic nature of alcohol as it liberates H₂ gas with Na metal.

Question 29.
Alcohol can act as Bronsted base. Prove this statement.
Answer:
Alcohols can also act as a Bronsted bases. It is due to the presence of unshared electron pairs on oxygen which make them to accept proton. So proton acceptor are Bronsted bases. i.e., alcohols are Bronsted bases.

Question 30.
What are cresols? Give examples.
Answer:
Methyl Phenols are called cresols.
They are

Question 31.
How is phenol obtained from benzene suiphonic acid?
Answer:

Question 32.
How is Aniline converted into Phenol?
Answer:
Aniline is diazotized with nitrous acid (NaNO₂ + HCI ) at 273 – 278K to give benzene diazonium chloride which on further treatment with hot water in the presence of mineral acid gives phenol.

Question 33.
How will you convert phenol into benzene?
Answer:
Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with Zinc dust.

Question 34.
What happens when phenol is heated with NH₃?
Answer:

Question 35.
What happens when phenol is heated with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇?
Answer:

Question 36.
How is phenol treated with Nickel?
Answer:

Question 37.
O – nitro phenol is slightly soluble ¡n water where as P-nitro phenol is more soluble. Cive reason.
Answer:
O-nitro phenol is slightly soluble in water and more volatile due to intra molecular hydrogen bonding, whereas P-nitro phenol is more soluble in water and less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 38.
Explain Reimer Tiemann reaction.
Answer:
On treating phenol with CHCl₃ / NaOH, a – CHO group is introduced at ortho position. This reaction proceeds through the formation of substituted benzal chloride intermediate.

Question 39.
How is phenolphthalein prepared from phenol?
Answer:
On heating phenol with phthalic anhydride in presence of con.H₂SO₄, phenolphthalein is obtained,

Question 40.
What is Coupling reaction? Give equation.
Answer:
Phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in an alkaline solution to form p-hydroxy azobenzene(a red orange dye).

Question 41.
Write a note about the structure of ethereal oxygen.
Answer:
The structure of ethereal oxygen which is attached to two alkyl groups is similar to the structure of – OH group of alcohol. The oxygen atom is sp³ hybridized. Two sp³ hybridized orbitals of oxygen linearly overlap with two sp³ hybrid orbitais of the carbon which are directly attached to the oxygen forming two
C – O ‘σ’ bonds.

The C – O – C bond angle is slightly greater than the tetrahedral bond angle due to the repulsive interaction between the two bulkier alkyl groups.

Question 42.
Write the structure and common name of

1. Ethoxy benzene
2. Phenoxy benzene

Answer:
1. C₆H₅ – O – CH₂ – CH₃ : Ethoxy benzene (or) Phenetole (or) Ethyl phenyl ether

2. C₆H₅ – O – C₆H₅ : Phenoxy benzene (or) Diphenyl ether (or) Phenyl ether

Question 43.
What happens when ethanol reacts with conc. H₂SO₄ Sulphuric acid at 413 K?
Answer:
When ethanol reacts with con.H₂SO₄ at 413 K, inter molecular dehydration take place and diethyl ether is formed as product.

Question 44.
Explain the action of diazomethane with ethanol.
Answer:
Methyl ethers can be prepared when ethanol is treated with diazomethane in presence of fluoro boric acid.

Question 45.
Ether are miscible with water. Justify this statement.
Answer:
1. Oxygen of ether can also form Hydrogen bond with water and hence they are miscible with water.

2. Ethers dissolve wide range of polar and non-polar substances.

Question 46.
Ether bottle should not be kept open. Why?
Answer:
1. When ether bottle is kept open, they are exposed to atmospheric oxygen and slowly oxidised to form hydroperoxides and dialkyl peroxides. These are explosive in nature. Such a spontaneous oxidation by atmospheric oxygen is called autooxidation.

Question 47.
Explain the action of hydrogen iodide with anisole (or) methoxy benzene. –
Answer:

Question 48.
What are the uses of anisole?
Answer:

1. Anisole is a precursor to the synthesis of perfumes and insecticide pheromones,
2. It is used as a pharmaceutical agent.

Question 49.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Answer:
Alcohols can form H-bond with water molecules and break the H-bond already existing between the water molecules. Therefore, they are soluble in water.

On the other hand hydrocarbons do not have the ability to form H-bond with water molecules. Hence they are insoluble in water.

Question 50.
Explain why is ortho nitrophenol more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol?
Answer:
Ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol because nitro group is an electron withdrawing and it will increase +ve charge on the oxygen atom to make it more acidic whereas – OCH₃ group is an electron releasing group and it will decrease +ve charge on the oxygen atom, thus making it less acidic and hence the O – H bond will not break easily.

Question 51.
Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Answer:
Ethanol undergoes intermolecular H-bonding due to the presence of a hydrogen atom attached to the electronegative oxygen atom. As a result, ethanol exists as associated molecules.

Consequently, a large amount of energy is required to break these hydrogen bonds. Therefore, the boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane which does not form H-bonds.

Question 52.
What happens when phenol is treated with ¡ce cold bromine dissolved in CS₂?
Answer:

Question 53.
What happens when phenol is treated with excess of nitrating mixture? (Give equation only).
Answer:

Question 54.
Describe the mechanism by which the hydroxyl group attached to an aromatic ring is more acidic than the hydroxyl group attached to an alkyl group. How does the presence of nitro group in phenol affects its acidic character?
Answer:
1. The reaction of phenol with aqueous sodium hydroxide solution indicates that phenol is a stronger acid than alcohols in water.

2. Because phenoxide ion formed is stabilised by resonance whereas alkoxide ion formed is destabilised by positive inductive effect of alkyl group.

3. Presence of electron withdrawing group such as nitro group enhances the acidic strength of phenol. lt is due to the effective delocalisation of the negative charge in phenoxide ion.

Question 55.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare the acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 3 Mark Questions and Answers

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Give one example for each of the following with their structure and IUPAC name.

1. 1° alcohol
2. 2° alcohol
3. 3° alcohol

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the structure of the following compounds.

1. Phenyl methanol
2. 1 – Phenyl ethanol
3. 2 – Phenyl propan – 2 – ol

Answer:

Question 3.
Write the structures and IUPAC names of the following compounds.

1. Tertiary butyl alcohol
2. Neopentyl alcohol
3. Isobutyl alcohol

Answer:
1.
2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol (Tertiary butyl alcohol)

2.
2, 2 – dimethyl propan – 1 – ol (Neopentyl alcohol)

3.
2 – methyl propan – 1- ol (Isobutyl alcohol)

Question 4.
Draw the structures and write the IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Benzyl alcohol
2. Allyl alcohol
3. Cyclohexyl alcohol

Answer:
1.
Phenyl methanol (Benzyl alcohol)

2. CH₂ = CH – CH₂OH  Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol (Allyl alcohol)

3.
Cyclo hexanol (Cyclohexyl alcohol)

Question 5.
Describe Lucas test used to distinguish Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols.
Answer:
When alcohols are treated with Lucas agent (conc. HCI + anhydrous ZnCl₂) at room temperature, tertiary alcohols react immediately to form a turbidity due to the formation of alkyl chloride which is insoluble in the medium. Secondary alcohols react within 10 minutes to form a turbidity of alkyl chloride where primary alcohols do not react at room temperature.

Question 6.
Explain the mechanism of the reaction of alkyl halide formation from primary alcohol.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain SN¹ mechanism of Tertiary alcohols reaction with HBr.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain the mechanism involved in the reaction of phosphorous trichloride with Ethanol. SN² reaction of Ethanol with PCl₃
Answer:

Question 9.
Describe Saytzeff’s rule with example.
Answer:
1. During intramolecular dehydration, if there is a possibility to form a carbon – carbon double bond at different locations, the preferred location is the one that gives the more (highly) substituted alkene i.e., the stable alkene.

2. For example, the dehydration of 3, 3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol gives a mixture of alkenes. The secondary carbocation formed in this reaction undergoes rearrangement to form a more stable tertiary carbocation.

Question 10.
Explain the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 11.
Explain about catalytic dehydrogenation of 1⁰, 2⁰ and 3⁰ alcohols
Answer:

Question 12.
Describe about the oxidation reaction of ethylene glycol with dilute nitric acid.
Answer:
When dilute nitric acid (or) alkaline KMnO₄ is used as the oxidizing agent, the following products are formed.

Question 13.
Explain about the oxidation reaction of Glycerol with different oxidising reagents.
Answer:

1. Oxidation of glycerol with dii. FINO₃ gives glyceric acid and tartronic acid.
2. Oxidation of glycerol with Conc. HNO₃ gives mainly glyceric acid.
3. Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives as meso oxalic acid.
4. Oxidation of glycerol with Br₂ /H₂O (or) NaOBr (or) Fenton reagent (FeSO₄ + H₂O₂)
5. gives a mixture of glyceraldehyde and dihydroxy acetone(glycerose).
6. On oxidation with HIO₄ or Lead tetra acetate (LTA) it gives formaldehyde and formic acid.
7. Acidified KMnO₄ oxidises glycerol into oxalicacid.

Question 14.
What are the uses of ethanol.
Answer:

1. Ethanol is used as an important beverage.
2. It is also used in the preparation of
   • Paints and varnishes
   • Organic compounds like ether, chloroform, iodoform, etc.,
   • Dyes, transparent soaps.
3. As a substitute for petrol under the name power alcohol used as fuel for aeroplane.
4. It is used as a preservative for biological specimens.

Question 15.
Mention the uses of Glycerol.
Answer:

1. Glycerol is used as a sweetening agent in confectionery and beverages.
2. It is used in the manufacture of cosmetics and transparent soaps.
3. It is used in making printing inks and stamp pad ink and lubricant for watches and clocks.
4. It is used in the manufacture of explosive like dynamite and cordite by mixing it with china clay.

Question 16.
Compare the acidity of 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
Answer:
1. The acidic nature of the alcohol is due to the polar nature of O – H bond. When an electron withdrawing -I groups such as – Cl, – F etc… is attached to the carbon bearing the OH group, it withdraws the electron density towards itself and thereby facilitating the proton donation.

2. In contrast, the electron releasing group such as alkyl group increases the electron density on oxygen and decreases the polar nature of 0 – H bond, I lence it results in the decrease in acidity.

3. On moving from primary to secondary and tertiary alcohols, the number of alkyl groups which attached to the carbon bearing -OH group increases, which results in the following order of acidity.
1°alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° >alcohol

For example

Question 17.
What are dihydric phenols? Give three examples.
Answer:
When benzene ring has 2 – OH groups, it is called Dihydric phenol.

Question 18.
What are Trihydric phenols. Give example.
Answer:
When 3 – OH groups are present in benzene ring, it is called trihydric phenol.

Question 19.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₇H₈O with their names C₇H₈O
Answer:
1. C₆H₅ – CH₂OH : Benzyl alcohol

2. C₆H₅ – O – CH₃ : Anisole

3.

4.

5.

Question 20.
Explain about the bromination of phenol.
Answer:
1. Phenol reacts with bromine water to give a white precipitate of 2, 4, 6 – tri bromo phenol.

2. When phenol reacts with Br₂ in the presence of CS₂ or CCl₄ at 278K. a mixture of ortho and para bromo phenols are formed.

Question 21.
Differentiate phenols from alcohol.
Answer:
Test to differentiate alcohols and phenols:
1. Phenol react with benzene diazonium chloride to form a red orange dye, but ethanol has no reaction with it.

2. Phenol gives purple colouration with neutral feme chloride solution, alcohols do not give such coloration with FeCI₃.

3. Phenol reacts with NaOH to give sodium phenoxide. Ethyl alcohol does not react with NaOH

Question 22.
What are the uses of phenol?
Answer:

1. About half of world production of phenol is used for making phenol formaldehyde resin. (Bakel ite).
2. Phenol is a starting material for the preparation of
   • drugs such as phenacetin, Salol, aspirin, etc.
   • phenolphthalein indicator.
   • explosive like picric acid.
3. It is used as an antiseptic – carbolic lotion and carbolic soaps.

Question 23.
Write the structure formula and IUPAC name of the following.

1. n – heptyl phenyl ether
2. Isopentyl phenyl ether
3. Dimethyl glycolate

Answer:

Question 24.
ExplaIn about the mechanism of intermolecular dehydration of ethanol with conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K.
Answer:
When ethanol reacts with conc.H₂SO₄ at 413 K, inter molecular dehydration takes place and the product formed is Ethoxy ethane.
Mechanism:

Question 25.
Explain about the mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis.
Answer:
When an alkyl halide is heated with an alcoholic solution of sodium alkoxide, the corresponding ether is formed. This reaction involves SN² mechanism.

Mechanism:

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism involved in the reaction between Tertiary alkyl halide and primary alkoxide with eample.
Answer:
When tertiary alkyl halide reacts with primary alkoxide, elimination dominates and succeeds over substitution to form an alkene.

Question 27.
Explain about the reaction mechanism of methoxy ethane with HI.
Answer:
Ethers can undergo nucleophilic substitútion reactions with HI.

Ethers having primary alkyl group undergo SN² reaction whereas tertiary alkyl ether undergo SN¹ reaction. Protonation of ether is followed by the attack of halide ion. The halide ion preferentially attacks the less sterically hindered of the two alkyl groups which are attached etherial oxygen.

Question 28.
What are the uses of diethyl ether.
Answer:

1. Diethyl ether is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery.
2. It is a good solvent for organic reactions and extraction.
3. It is used as a volatile starting fluid for diesel and gasoline engine.
4. It is used as a refrigerant.

Question 29.
Classify the following as primary secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Answer:
Primary alcohols:

Secondary alcohols:

Tertiary alcohols:

Question 30.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system.

Answer:

Question 31.
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal?

Answer:

Question 32.
You are given benzene, conc H₂SO₄ and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Answer:

Question 33.
How will you convert ethanol to acetone ?
Answer:

Question 34.
How are the following conversions carried out?

1. Phenol to Toluene
2. Ethanol to 1, 1 – dichloroethane.

Answer:

Question 35.
How are the following conversions carried out ? (Write the reactions and conditions in each case):

1. Ethanol to 2 – propanol
2. Phenol to Acetophenone

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 5 Mark Questions and Answers

II. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Victor Meyer’s test used to distinguish 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
Answer:
Victor Meyer’s test :
This test is based on the behaviour of nitro alkanes formed by the three types of alcohols with nitrous acid and it consists of the following steps.

1. Alcohols are converted into alkyl iodide by treating with I₂/P.
2. Alkyl iodides so formed is then treated with AgNO₂ to form nitro alkane.
3. Nitro alkanes are finally treated with HNO₂ (mixture of NaNO₂/HCl) and the resultant solution is made alkaline with KOH.

Result:

1. Primary alcohol gives red colour
2. Secondary alcohol gives blue colour.
3. No colouration will be observed in tertiary alcohol.

1° alcohol:

2°alcohol:

3°alcohol:

Question 2.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₄H₁₀O, write their IUPAC names and structures.
Answer:
C₄H₁₀O – 7 Isomers

Question 3.
Explain about mechanism involved in the dehydration of tertiary alcohols.
Answer:
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration by E₁ mechanism. It involves the formation of a carbocation.
Step 1:

Step 2:
Dissociation of oxonium ion to form a carbocation

Step 3:
Deprotonation of carbocation to form an alkene

Question 4.
Explain about the various dehydration reactions of ethylene glycol.
Answer:
Ethylene glycol undergoes dehydration reaction under different conditions to form different products.
1. When ethylene glycol is heated to 773K, it forms epoxides.

2. When heated with dilute sulphuric acid (or) anhydrous ZnCl₂ under pressure in a sealed tube, it gives acetaldehyde.

3. When distilled with Conc. H₂SO₄, glycol forms 1, 4 – dioxane

Question 5.
Explain the following reactions.

1. Schotten-Baumann reaction
2. Kolbe’s reaction
3. Reimer – Tiemann reaction

Answer:
1. Schotten – Baumann reaction:

2. Kolbe’s reaction:

3. Reimer – Tiemann reaction.

Question 6.
Describe the following electrophilic substitution reaction using phenol.

1. Nitrosation
2. Nitration
3. Sulphonation

Answer:
1. Nitrosation:
Phenol can be readily nitrosoated at low temperature with nitrous acid.

2. Nitration:
Phenol can be nitrated using 20% nitric acid at room temperature, a mixture of ortho and para nitro phenols are formed.

3. Phenol when treated with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc.H₂SO₄, picric acid is formed.

4. Sulphonation:
Phenol when reacts with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 280K, o – phenol suiphonic acid is formed as major product. But when the reaction is carried out at 313K, the major product is p – phenol suiphonic acid.

Question 7.
What happens when diethyl ether reacts with following reagents.

1. excess O₂
2. Cl₂ / light
3. PCI₅
4. dil.H₂SO₄ / H₂O
5. CH₂COCI /Anhydrous ZnCI₂.

Answer:
Auto – oxidation:

Question 8.
Explain the aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions of anisole with equations. Aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions:
Answer:
1. Halogenation:

2. Nitration.

3. Friedel Craft’s alkylation.

4. Friedel Craft’s acylation.

Question 9.
Starting from phenol, how would you prepare the following compounds.

1. Benzene
2. Aniline
3. Anisole
4. 1, 4, benzoqulnone
5. Cyclohexanol

Answer:

Question 10.
A compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C₄H₁₀O is unreactive towards sodium metal. it does not add Bromine water and does not react with NaHSO₃ solution. On refluxing ‘A’ with excess of HI, it gives ‘B’ which reacts with aqueous NaOH to form ‘C’. ‘C’ can be converted into ‘B’ by reacting with red P and I₃. ‘C, on treating with conc. H₂SO₄ forms ‘D’. ‘D’ decolounses bromine water. Identify A to D and write the reactions involved.
Answer:

‘A’ is not an alcohol therefore it does not react with sodium metal. ‘A’ is also not an aldehyde or a ketone as it does not react with NaHSO3. ‘A’ is not an unsaturated hydrocarbon as it does not add Br₂ (aq). So, it is likely to be a ether.

Question 11.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O on reaction with conc.H₂SO₄ at 443 K gives an unsaturated hydrocarbon (B). (B) on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent produces (C) of molecular formula C₂H₆O₂. (C) on reaction with anhydrous ZnCI₂ produces (D) of molecular formula C₂H₄O. (D) reduces Tollen’s reagent. Identify A, B, C and D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Conc.H₂SO₄ at 443 K produces ethene by intermolecular dehydration. So, (A) is ethanol – CH₃CH₂OH.

2. Ethene on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent (cold, dilute alkaline KMnO₄) produces ethylene glycol as product (C).

3. Ethylene glycol on reaction with anhydrous ZnCI₂ dehydration and tautomerisation take place to give actaldehyde as product (D).

Question 12.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium and gives (B). (B) on reaction with methyl bromide produces (C) of molecular formula C₃H₈O. (C) on reaction with excess III produces (D) and (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Na metal and liberates H₂ gas means it must be an alcohol. From the molecular formula it is identified as ethanol – CH₃ – CH₂OH (A).

2. Ethanol on reaction with Na metal to produce sodium ethoxide as (B) with liberation of H₂ gas.

3. Sodium ethoxide on reaction methyl bromide undergo Williamson’s synthesis to produce methoxy ethane as (C).

4. Methoxy ethane on reaction with excess HI will give Ethyl iodide and Methyl iodide as (D) and (E).

Question 13.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula CH₄O on mild oxidation gives (B) of formula CH₂O that reduces tollen’s reagent. (B) on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis will give (C) of molecular formula C₂H₆O which liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium. Identify A, B, C and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified from the molecular formula as methanol (CH₃OH).

2. CH₃OH – methanol on mild oxidation will give formaldehyde as (B). Aldehydes reduce Tollen’s reagent to silver mirror. So, (B) is HCHO (methanal)

3. Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgBr, followed by acid hydrolysis produces primary alcohol and (C) is identified from the formula as CH₃ – CH₂OH – Ethanol. Ethanol liberates H₂ gas with metallic sodium.

Question 14.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts with metallic Na and liberates H₂ gas. (A) on mild oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (B) of molecular formula C₂H₄O. (B) on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis gives (C) of molecular formula C₃H₅O. (C) gives Blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (C) on mild oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (D) of formula C₃H₆O. identify A, B, C, D and
explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reacts with Na metal and liberates H₂ gas means it must be alcohol. From the molecular formula it is identified as Ethanol (CH₃ – CH₂OH).

2. Ethanol on oxidation with Cu at 573 K undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation and produces Acetaldehyde as product (B).

3. Acetaldehyde on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by hydrolysis will give Isopropyl alcohol as (C).

4. Propan – 2 – ol is secondary alcohol and so it gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (C) on reaction with Cu at 573 K will give Propanone as (D).

Question 15.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃H₈O gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test. (A) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (B) which further reacts with Methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis yields (C) of molecular formula C₄H₁₀O. (C) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (D) of formula C4H8. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test means it must be a secondary alcohol. From the formula, it is identified as
Propan – 2- ol (A)

2. Propan – 2 – ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives Propanone as (B).

3. Propanone on treatment with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis will yield Tertiary butyl alcohol (CH₃)₃C – OH as (C).

4. Tertiary butyl alcohol on reaction with copper at 573 K undergoes dehydration reaction to

Question 16.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃H₆ on reaction with Conc. H₂SO₄ and H₂O gives ClH₅O as (B) as a MarkownikoWs product. (B) on oxidation with Cu at 573 K gives (C) of formula C₃H₆O. (C) on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis yields (D) as C₄H₁₀O which will not give any colour in Victor Meyer’s test. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) is identified from the molecular formula as CH₃ – CH = CH₂ propene.

2. Propene on hydrolysis in acid medium, Markownikoff’s rule is followed and the product formed is
Propan – 2- ol as (B)

3. Propan – 2 – ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K undergoes dehydrogenation reaction to produce Propanone as (C).

4. Propanone on reaction with CH₃MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis gives tertiary butyl alcohol (D). It will not give any colouration in Victor Meyer’s test.

Question 17.
An aromatic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅Cl on reaction with aqueous NaOH gives (B) of formula C6H60 that give violet colouration with neutral FeCI₃. (B) on reaction with ammonia in presence of anhydrous ZnCI₂ gives (C) of formula C₆H₇N. Identify A, B, C and explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. An aromatic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅Cl is identified as chioro benzene.

2. Chioro benzene on reaction with aqueous NaOH produces phenol as (B).

3. Phenol gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃. Phenol on treated with NH₃ in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂ gives Aniline as (C).

Question 18.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives white precipitate with bromine water. (A) on reaction with NaOH gives (B). (B) reacts with methyl iodide in presence of dry ether gives (C) of molecular formula C₇H₈O which will not liberate H₂ gas with metallic Na. (C) on reaction with acetvl chloride gives (D) and (E) of formula which are position isomers. Identify A, B, C, D & E and explain the reaction.
Answer:
1. An organic compound gives white precipitate with bromine water means it must be a phenol. From the molecular formula it is identified as C₆H₅OH.

2. Phenol on reaction with NaOH gives (B) as sodium phenoxide C₆H₅ONa.

3. Sodium phenoxide on reaction with methyl iodide in the pressure of dry ether undergo Williamsons synthesis and gives Anisole as (C).

4. Anisole on reaction with acetyl chloride undergoes Fnedel Craft’s acetylation and yield O – methoxy acetophenone and p-methoxy acetophenone as (D) and (E).

Question 19.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₅CI on reaction with aqueous NaOH gives (B) of formula C₆H₆O. (B) on reaction with NaOH gives (C) of formula C₆H₅ONa. (C) on treatment with CO₂, followed by acid hydrolysis yield (D) of formula C₇H₆O₃ an aromatic hydroxy acid. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

1. (A) is identified from the formula as C₆H₅CI – Chloro benzene.
2. Chloro benzene on treatment with aqueous NaOH yeilds C₆H₅OH – phenol as (B).
3. Phenol on reaction with NaOH produces sodium phenoxide C₆H₅ONa as (C).
4. Sodium phenoxide on reaction with CO₂, followed acid hydrolysis, Kolbe’s reaction takes place to give Salicylic acid as (D).

Question 20.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆HN₂Cl on boiling with hot water gives (B) of molecular formula C₆H₆O. (B) on reaction with Zinc dust gives (C) a simplest aromatic hydrocarbon. (C) on reaction with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI₂ gives (D) of molecular formula C₇H₈. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reaction.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified from the formula as Benzene diazonium chloride – C₆H₅N₂Cl.

2. Benzene diazonium chloride when boiled with hot water produces phenol as (B).

3. Phenol on reaction with Zinc dust gives Benzene as (C) which is simplest aromatic hydrocarbon.

4. Benzene on treatment with (C) methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃, Friedel Crafts reaction take place and the product formed is Toluene as (D).

Question 21.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃. (A) reacts benzene diazoniurn chloride in basic medium to give (B) as an azo dye. (A) reacts with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ gives (C) of formula C₆H₄O₂. (A) on reaction with H₂ in the presence of nickel gives (D) of formula C₆H₁₂O. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1. (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆O gives violet colour with neutral FeCI₃ means it must be Phenol – C₆H₅OH.

2. Phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in the presence of basic medium to produce p-hydroxy azo benzene, a red orange dye as (B).

3. Phenol on reaction with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ undergoes oxidation reaction to give 1, 4 – benzo quinone as (C).

4. Phenol on reaction with H₂, in the presence of Nickel gives cyclohexanol as (D).

Question 22.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆ reacts with propylene in the presence of H₃PO₄ at 532 K gives (B) of formula C₉H₁₂ . (B)on air oxidation gives C₉H₁₂O₂ as (C). (C) on acidification with H₂SO₄ gives (D) of formula C₆H₆O and (E) of formula C₃H₆O. Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified as benzene from the molecular formula.

2. Benzene reacts with propylene in the presence of H₃PO₄ gives cumene as (B).

3. Cumene on air oxidation produces cumene hydroperoxide as (C).

4. Cumene hydroperoxide on treatement with H₂SO₄ yield phenol as (D) and acetone as (E).

Question 23.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts P/I₂ gives (B) which on further reaction with silver nitrite gives (C) of formula C₂H₅NO₂. (C) on treatment with nitrous acid yield (D) of formula C₂H₄N₂O₃. (D) on reaction with KOH give red color product (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E. From the final product (E) red colour product, it is identified these reactions are the reactions of primary alcohols in Victor Meyer’s test.
Answer:

Question 24.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₃HO on reaction P/I₂ gives C₃H₇I as (B). (B) on reaction with AgNO₂ produces (C) with formula C₃H₇NO₂. (C) on reaction with nitrous acid gives (D) of molecular formula C₃H₆N₂O₃. (D) on reaction with KOH produces blue colour. Identify A, B. C, D and explain the reaction.
Answer:
From the final colour blue, this reaction are considered as reactions of secondary alcohol in Victory Meyer’s. (A) is identified as  2 – propanol.

Question 25.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₄H₁₀O gives no colouration in Victor Meyer’s test. (A) on reaction with P / I₂ gives (B) of formula C₄H₉I. (B) on treatment with nitrous acid gives (C) of formula C₃H₉NO₂. (C) does not react with KOH. Identify A, B, C and explain.
Answer:
C₄H₁₀O gives no colouration in Victor Meyer’s test means it must be tertiary alcohol. So (A) is tertiary butyl alcohol. The reactions involved are,

Common Errors

1. Writing IUPAC names may be difficult and students may get confused.
2. Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols functional groups may get confused. Phenol, aromatic alcohols are differenet.
3. Benzene ring should be drawn properly.
4. Skeleton carbon chain may be a problem to students.

Rectifications

1. Parent hydrocarbon – longest carbon chain. Lowest number of the carbon having functional group. Arrangement of substitutents in alphabetical order. Alcohol – Name should end in the word ol.

2. Primary alcohol – CHI₂OH, Secondary alcohol > CHOH, Tertiary alcohol > COH – OH gp/ directly attached to benzene ring is
Phenol
It is not aromatic alcohol
– OH gp/ is attached to the side chain of the benzene ring is an aromatic alcohol.

Benzyl alcohol

3. Altemat double bond along with regular hexagon is ben zeane.
Benzene (C₆H₆) If you draw the above structure without double bonds, it is cyclo hexane.
Cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂)

4.
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
n-heptane

CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
Pent – 1 – ene

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 9 Applications of Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 9 Applications of Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Applications of Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of ______
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID
Answer:
(d) SCID

Question 2.
Dolly, the sheep was obtained by a technique known as _______
(a) Cloning by gene transfer
(b) Cloning without the help of gametes
(c) Cloning by tissue culture of somatic cells
(d) Cloning by nuclear transfer
Answer:
(d) Cloning by nuclear transfer

Question 3.
The genetic defect adenosine deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by ______
(a) Enzyme replacement therapy
(b) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having ADA cDNA
(c) administering adenosine deaminase activators
(d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.
Answer:
(d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.

Question 4.
How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin?
(a) Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13
(b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids
(c) Chain A has 20 and chain B has 30 amino acids
(d) Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids
Answer:
(b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

Question 5.
PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of ______
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
(b) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
(c) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(d) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
Answer:
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis

Question 6.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a Virus
(d) It remains active at a high temperature
Answer:
(d) It remains active at a high temperature

Question 7.
ELISA is mainly used for ______
(a) Detection of mutations
(b) Detection of pathogens
(c) Selecting animals having desired traits
(d) Selecting plants having desired traits
Answer:
(b) Detection of pathogens

Question 8.
Transgenic animals are those which have
(a) Foreign DNA in some of their cells
(b) Foreign DNA in all their cells
(c) Foreign RNA in some of their cells
(d) Foreign RNA in all their cells
Answer:
(b) Foreign DNA in all their cells

Question 9.
Recombinant Factor VIII is produced in the ______ cells of the Chinese Hamster
(a) Liver cells
(b) blood cells
(c) ovarian cells
(d) brain cells
Answer:
(c) ovarian cells

Question 10.
Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called ______
(a) Subunit recombinant vaccines
(b) attenuated recombinant vaccines
(c) DNA vaccines
(d) conventional vaccines
Answer:
(a) Subunit recombinant vaccines

Question 11.
Mention the number of primers required in each cycle of PCR. Write the role of primers and DNA polymerase in PCR. Name the source organism of the DNA polymerase used in PCR.
Answer:

• For each cycle of PCR two primers are required.
• Primers are the small fragments of single stranded DNA or RNA which serves as template for initiating DNA polymerization.
• DNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesize DNA molecules by pairing the Deoxyribo Nucleotides leading to formation of new strands.
• DNA polymerase used in PCR is Taq polymerase which is isolated from a thermophilic bacteria called Thermus aquatics.
• Taq polymerase will remain active ever at very high temperature (80°C) and hence used in PCR amplification technique.

Question 12.
How is the amplification of a gene sample of interest carried out using PCR?
Answer:
Denaturation, renaturation or primer annealing, and synthesis or primer extension, are the three steps involved in PCR. The double-stranded DNA of interest is denatured to separate into two individual strands by high temperature. This is called denaturation. Each strand is allowed to hybridize with a primer (renaturation or primer annealing). The primer-template is used to synthesize DNA by using Taq – DNA polymerase. During denaturation, the reaction mixture is heated to 95 °C for a short time to denature the target DNA into single strands that will act as a template for DNA synthesis.

Annealing is done by rapid cooling of the mixture, allowing the primers to bind to the sequences on each of the two strands flanking the target DNA. During primer extension or synthesis the temperature of the mixture is increased to 75°C for a sufficient period of time to allow Taq DNA polymerase to extend each primer by copying the single-stranded template.

At the end of incubation, both single template strands will be made partially double-stranded. The new strand of each double-stranded DNA extends to a variable distance downstream. These steps are repeated again and again to generate multiple forms of the desired DNA. This process is also called DNA amplification.

Question 13.
What is genetically engineered Insulin?
Answer:
The insulin synthesized by recombinant DNA technology is called genetically engineered Insulin. It was the first ever pharmaceutical product of DNA technology. In 1986, human insulin was marked under the trade name Humulin.

Question 14.
Explain how “Rosie” is different from a normal cow.
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein-enriched milk, which contained the human alpha-lactalbumin (2.4 gm/litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 15.
How was Insulin obtained before the advent of rDNA technology? What were the problems encountered?
Answer:
Conventionally, Insulin was isolated and refined from the pancreas of pigs and cows to treat diabetic patients. Though it is effective, due to minor structural changes, the animal insulin caused allergic reaction in few patients.

Question 16.
ELISA is a technique based on the principles of antigen-antibody reactions. Can this technique be used in the molecular diagnosis of a genetic disorder such as Phenylketonuria?
Answer:
Yes, ELISA test can be done to diagnose phenylketonuria. The affected person does not produce the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. If specific antibodies are developed against the enzyme and ELISA is performed, the unaffected person will show positive result due to antigen and antibody reaction, whereas the affected individual produces negative result. [Note: phenylketonuria is an inherited metabolic disorder that causes the accumulation of phenylalanine (an amino acid) in body cells due to defect in the synthesizing of an enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase]

Question 17.
Gene therapy is an attempt to correct a Genetic defect by providing a normal gene into the individual. By this the function can be restored. An alternate method would be to provide gene product known as enzyme replacement therapy, which would also restore the function. Which in your opinion is a better option? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Though both Gene therapy and Enzyme replacement therapy helps to restore the genetic defects, Gene therapy is much better than Enzyme replacement therapy. Because, in Gene therapy once the defective gene is repaired using normal gene, the affected individual gains complete recovery whereas, in Enzyme replacement therapy, the respective enzyme or protein has to be provided periodically and does not offer a permanent cure. Moreover, when compared to Gene therapy, Enzyme replacement therapy is highly expensive.

Question 18.
What are transgenic animals? Give examples.
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of extra (foreign/exogenous) DNA into the genome of the animals to create and maintain stable heritable characters. The foreign DNA that is introduced is called the transgene and the animals that are produced by DNA manipulations are called transgenic animals or genetically engineered or genetically modified organisms.
Example: Mice, Cow

Question 19.
If a person thinks he is infected with HIV, due to unprotected sex, and goes for a blood test. Do you think a test such as ELISA will help? If so why? If not, why?
Answer:
Yes, ELISA is a highly sensitive and precise procedure and can detect antigens even in the range of a nanogram. So, it can be used to detect HIV in the blood.

Question 20.
Explain how ADA deficiency can be corrected?
Answer:
The right approach for SCID treatment would be to give the patient a functioning ADA which breaks down toxic biological products. In some children, ADA deficiency could be cured by bone marrow transplantation, where defective immune cells could be replaced with healthy immune cells from a donor. In some patients, it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is injected into the patient.

During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 21.
What are DNA vaccines?
Answer:
Genetic immunization by using DNA vaccines is a novel approach that came into being in 1990. The immune response of the body is stimulated by a DNA molecule. A DNA vaccine consists of a gene encoding an antigenic protein, inserted onto a plasmid, and then incorporated into the cells in a target animal. DNA instructs the cells to make antigenic molecules which are displayed on its surfaces. This would evoke an antibody response to the free-floating antigen secreted by the cells. The DNA vaccine cannot cause the disease as it contains only copies of a few of its genes. DNA vaccines are relatively easy and inexpensive to design and produce.

Question 22.
Differentiate between Somatic cell gene therapy and Germline gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic Cell Gene Therapy:

1. Therapeutic genes transferred into the somatic cells.
2. Introduction of genes into bone marrow cells, blood cells, skin cells etc.
3. Will not be inherited in later generations.

Germ Line Gene Therapy:

1. Therapeutic genes transferred into the germ cells.
2. Genes introduced into eggs and sperms.
3. Heritable and passed on to later generations.

Question 23.
What are stem cells? Explain its role in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells found in most multicellular animals. These cells maintain their undifferentiated state even after undergoing numerous mitotic divisions. Stem cell research has the potential to revolutionize the future of medicine with the ability to regenerate damaged and diseased organs. Stem cells are capable of self-renewal and exhibit ‘cellular potency’. Stem cells can differentiate into all types of cells that are derived from any of the three germ layers ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.

Question 24.
One of the applications of biotechnology is ‘gene therapy” to treat a person born with a hereditary disease

1. What does “gene therapy” mean?
2. Name the hereditary disease for which the first clinical gene therapy was used.
3. Mention the steps involved in gene therapy to treat this disease.
4. Gene therapy is the process in which the defective genes are replaced with normal genes leading to the expression of proper phenotype.

Answer:

1. SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency) disease was the first disease treated by using gene therapy.
2. There are two strategies involved in gene therapy namely Gene augmentation therapy, which involves the insertion of DNA into the genome to replace the missing gene product and Gene inhibition therapy, which involves the insertion of the anti-sense gene which inhibits the expression of the dominant gene.

Question 25.
PCR is a useful tool for early diagnosis of Infectious disease. Elaborate.
Answer:
The specificity and sensitivity of PCR is useful for the diagnosis of inherited disorders (genetic diseases), viral diseases, bacterial diseases, etc., The diagnosis and treatment of a particular disease often requires identifying a particular pathogen. Traditional methods of identification involve culturing these organisms from clinical specimens and performing metabolic and other tests to identify them. The concept behind PCR based diagnosis of infectious diseases is simple – if the pathogen is present in a clinical specimen its DNA will be present.

Its DNA has unique sequences that can be detected by PCR, often using the clinical specimen (for example, blood, stool, spinal fluid, or sputum) in the PCR mixture.

Question 26.
What are recombinant vaccines? Explain the types.
Answer:
Vaccines developed by using recombinant DNA technology are called recombinant vaccines. Subunit recombinant vaccines, attenuated recombinant vaccines, DNA vaccines are the types of recombinant vaccines.

Question 27.
Explain why cloning of Dolly, the sheep was such a major scientific breakthrough?
Answer:
The development of Dolly was a remarkable achievement in scientific field and it demonstrates thatthe DNA from differentiated adult cells can also be used to develop into an entire organism.

Question 28.
Mention the advantages and disadvantages of cloning.
Answer:

1. Offers benefits for clinical trials and medical research. It can help in the production of proteins and drugs in the field of medicine.
2. Aids stem cell research.
3. Animal cloning could help to save endangered species.
4. Animal and human activists see it as a threat to biodiversity saying that this alters evolution which will have an impact on populations and the ecosystem.
5. The process is tedious and very expensive.
6. It can cause animals to suffer.
7. Reports show that animal surrogates were manifesting adverse outcomes and cloned animals were affected with disease and have high mortality rate.
8. It might compromise human health through consumption of cloned animal meat.
9. Cloned animals age faster than normal animals and are less healthy than the parent organism as discovered in Dolly
10. Cloning can lead to occurrence of genetic disorders in animals.
11. More than 90% of cloning attempts fail to produce a viable offspring.

Question 29.
Explain how recombinant Insulin can be produced.
Answer:
Production of insulin by recombinant DNA technology started in the late 1970s. This technique involved the insertion of human insulin gene on the plasmids of E. coli. The polypeptide chains are synthesized as a precursor called pre-pro insulin, which contains A and B segments linked by a third chain (C) and preceded by a leader sequence. The leader sequence is removed after translation and the C chain is excised, leaving the A and B polypeptide chains Explain the steps involved in the production of recombinant hGH.

Using recombinant DNA technology hGH can be produced. The gene for hGH is isolated from the human pituitary gland cells. The isolated gene is inserted into a plasmid vector and then is transferred into E. coli. The recombinant E. coli then starts producing human growth hormone. The recombinant E. coli are isolated from the culture and mass production of hGH is carried out by fermentation technology.

Question 30.
Explain the steps involved in the production of recombinant hGH.
Answer:
Using recombinant DNA technology hGH can be produced. The gene for hGH is isolated from the human pituitary gland cells. The isolated gene is inserted into a plasmid vector and then is transferred into E. coli. The recombinant E. coli then starts producing human growth hormone. The recombinant E. coli are isolated from the culture and mass production of hGH is carried out by fermentation technology.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Applications of Biotechnology Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Statement 1: Human Insulin is a polypeptide
Statement 2: It is composed of 52 amino acids
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.

Question 2.
Statement 1: Rosie was the first transgenic goat.
Statement 2: Meat is enriched with the human protein.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Question 3.
Statement 1: Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine is a live vaccine.
Statement 2: It is obtained by cloning the HB antigen gene in yeast.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.

Question 4.
Statement 1: ADA deficiency was the first disease treated by gene therapy.
Statement 2: ADA is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder.
(a) Statement 4 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.

Question 5.
Statement 1: Attenuated recombinant vaccines are live vaccines.
Statement 2: Polio is a live vaccine.
(a) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer:
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Interferons are used to treat herpes zoster.
Reason (R): Interferons are antiviral proteins.
(a) R explains A.
(b) Both A and Rare incorrect.
(c) A is correct. R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(a) R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): PCR is an amplification technique used in biotechnology.
Reason (R): Using PCR multiple copies of DNA can be generated.
(a) R explains A.
(b) Both A and Rare incorrect.
(c) A is correct. R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(a) R explains A.

Question 8.
The B-chain of Insulin is composed of aminoacids __________
(a) 70
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
Answer:
(b) 30

Question 9.
The gene for the formation of factor VIII is located in __________
(a) 20th Chromosome
(b) 12th Chromosome
(c) X-chromosome
(d) Y-chromosome
Answer:
(c) X-chromosome

Question 10.
The genetic defect in the synthesis of factor VIII results in __________
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Anaemia
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Haemophilia
Answer:
(c) Haemophilia

Question 11.
Name the scientists who discovered Interferons?
Answer:
Alick Issac and Jean Lindemann

Question 12.
Which is the first synthetic vaccine produced?
(a) Polio Vaccine
(b) Hepatitis B Vaccine
(c) BCG Vaccine
(d) MMR Vaccine
Answer:
(b) Hepatitis B Vaccine

Question 13.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(i) The first clinical gene therapy was given by French Anderson.
(ii) For a four year old boy with ADA deficiency.
(iii) ACD is a autosomal dominant metabolic disorder.
(iv) Where patients have non-functioning B – lymphocytes.
(a) i and iv only
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, ii and iv
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) ii, iii and iv

Question 14.
Identify the correct statement(s).
(i) Totipotency is the ability of single cell to produce a whole organism.
(ii) Pluripotency refers to ability of stem cell with apotential to differentiate into any kind of germ layers.
(iii) Unipotency refers to ability of stem cell to differentiate into one cell type.
(iv) Oligopotency refers to stem cells to differentiate into few cell types.
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 15.
Identify those proper sequence of ELISA testing.
(a) Coating → Blocking → Detection → Read out
(b) Detection → Read out → Coating → Blocking
(c) Read out → Coating → Detection → Blocking
(d) Blocking → Detection → Read out → Coating
Answer:
(a) Coating → Blocking → Detection → Read out

Question 16.
PCR technique was developed by
(a) Eva Engvall
(b) Peter Perlmanin
(c) Kary Mullis
(d) Wilmut
Answer:
(c) Kary Mullis

Question 17.
Arrange the steps of PCR in proper sequence.
(a) Denaturation, Primer extension, Renaturation
(b) Renaturation, Denaturation, Primer extension
(c) Primer extension, Denaturation, Renaturation
(d) Denaturation, Renaturation, Primer extension
Answer:
(d) Denaturation, Renaturation, Primer extension

Question 18.
The first cloned organism was.
(a) Goat
(b) Cow
(c) Sheep
(d) Pig
Answer:
(c) Sheep

Question 19.
The first transgenic clone of sheep was called as
(a) Rosie
(b) Dolly
(c) Sameera
(d) Joel
Answer:
(b) Dolly

Question 20.
In cloning process of Dolly, how many embryos were implemented by Ian Wilmut and Campbell, out of which one successful Dolly was developed?
(a) 267
(b) 211
(c) 287
(d) 307
Answer:
(b) 277

Question 21.
The term Biotechnology was coined by
Answer:
Karl Ereky

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
How insulin controls blood sugar level?
Answer:
Insulin controls the blood sugar level by facilitating the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose for the release of energy.

Question 2.
State the role of Somatostatin and Somatotropin in human beings.
Answer:
Both somatostatin and somatotropin are peptide hormones which helps in growth and development by increasing the uptake of amino acids and promoting protein synthesis.

Question 3.
Mention the manifestation of the disease – Haemophilia-A
Answer:
Haemophilia A is a X-linked disease which is characterised by prolonged clotting time and internal bleeding.

Question 4.
Define Interferons.
Answer:
Interferons are proteinaceous, antiviral, species specific substances produced by mammalian cells when infected with viruses. They stimulate the cellular DNA to produce antiviral enzymes which inhibit viral replication and protect the cells.

Question 5.
Who discovered Interferons? On which basis it was classified?
Answer:
Interferons were discovered by Alick Isaacs and Jean Lindemann in 1957. It is classified as P and y interferons based on the structure.

Question 6.
Name the disease that are treated by using interferons.
Answer:
Interferons are used for the treatment of various diseases like cancer, AIDS, multiple sclerosis, hepatitis C and herpes zoster.

Question 7.
Recombinant vaccines are better than conventional ones – Justify.
Answer:
The recombinant vaccines are generally of uniform quality and produce less side effects as compared to the vaccines produced by conventional methods.

Question 8.
Point out four types of recombinant vaccines.
Answer:

1. Subunit recombinant vaccines
2. Attenuated recombinant vaccines
3. Edible vaccines
4. DNA vaccines

Question 9.
What are subunit recombinant vaccines? Mention its advantages.
Answer:
Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called subunit vaccines. The advantages of these vaccines include their purity in preparation, stability and safe use.

Question 10.
Define Attenuated recombinant vaccines.
Answer:
Attenuated recombinant vaccines includes genetically modified pathogenic organisms (bacteria or viruses) that are made nonpathogenic and are used as vaccines. Such vaccines are referred to as attenuated recombinant vaccines.

Question 11.
List out the benefits of recombinant vaccines.
Answer:
Vaccines produced by recombinant techniques have definite advantages like producing target proteins, long lasting immunity and trigger immune response only against specific pathogens with less toxic effects.

Question 12.
Name the two strategies involved in gene therapy
Answer:

1. Gene augmentation therapy.
2. Gene inhibition therapy.

Question 13.
Comment on SCID.
Answer:
ADA deficiency or SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. It is caused by the deletion or dysfunction of the gene coding for ADA enzyme. In these patients the nonfunctioning T-Lymphocytes cannot elicit immune responses against invading pathogens.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Gene augmentation therapy and gene inhibition therapy.
Answer:
Gene augmentation therapy which involves insertion of DNA into the genome to replace the missing gene product and Gene inhibition therapy which involves insertion of the anti sense gene which inhibits the expression of the dominant gene.

Question 15.
Define the terms

1. Totipotency
2. Unipotency

Answer:

1. Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to divide and produce all of the differentiated cells in an
2. organism.Unipotency refers to the ability of the stem cells to differentiate into only one cell type.

Question 16.
What are the best sources of stem cells in mammals?
Answer:
Placenta, Umbilical cord, amniotic sac, amniotic fluid.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two molecular diagnostic techniques used for early diagnosis of diseases?
Answer:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique.
2. Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA)

Question 18.
What does ELISA stands for? Who invented this technique?
Answer:
Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA). It was invented by Eva Engvall and Peter Perlmanin.

Question 19.
Name the various kinds of ELISA.
Answer:
There are four kinds of ELISA namely, Direct ELISA, Indirect ELISA, sandwich ELISA and competitive ELISA.

Question 20.
Simply define the PCR technique. Also mention its inventor.
Answer:
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an invitro amplification technique used for synthesising multiple identical copies (billions) of DNA of interest. The technique was developed by Kary Mullis in the year 1983.

Question 21.
Expand PCR and name the steps involved in the process.
Answer:

1. PCR – Polymerase Chain Reaction.
2. Denaturation, Renaturation or Primer annealing and Primer extension are the three steps in PCR technique.

Question 22.
For which disease does the first clinical gene therapy was done? Who accomplished it?
Answer:
The first clinical gene therapy was done for SCID. Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency disease is caused by ADA deficiency. It was done by French Anderson in 1990.

Question 23.
Define Transgenesis.
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of foreign DNA (exogenous DNA) into the genome of the other organism to create and maintain stable heritable characters.

Question 24.
What are the Genetically Modified Organisms?
Answer:
Transgenesis is the process of introduction of extra (foreign/ exogenous) DNA into the genome of the animals to create and maintain stable heritable characters. The foreign DNA that is introduced is called the transgene and the animals that are produced by DNA manipulations are called transgenic animals or genetically engineered or genetically modified organisms.

Question 25.
What does Biological Product refer to?
Answer:
A biological product is a substance derived from a living organism and used for the prevention or treatment of disease. These products include antitoxins, bacterial and viral vaccines, blood products, and hormone extracts.

Question 26.
Define cloning. Name the first organism developed by cloning.
Answer:
Cloning is the process of producing genetically identical individuals of an organism either naturally or artificially. The first cloned organism is a sheep named Dolly.

Question 27.
Who developed Dolly? How many embryos were aborted to develop a single Dolly?
Answer:
Dolly- The first cloned organism (sheep) was developed by Lam Wilmut and Campbell. Out of 29 embryos implanted only one Dolly was developed.

Question 28.
Define Biotechnology.
Answer:
Biotechnology is defined as “any technological application that uses biological systems, living organisms or derivatives thereof, to make or modify products or processes for specific use”.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 29.
Briefly explain the structure of insulin.
Answer:
Human insulin is synthesized by the (5 cells of Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It is formed of 51 amino acids which are arranged in two polypeptide chains, A and B. Polypeptide chain A has 21 amino acids while the polypeptide chain B has 30 amino acids. Both A and B chains are attached together by disulfide bonds.

Question 30.
Who was the first to discover the role of insulin against diabetes? From which organism does was insulin isolated?
Answer:
Best and Banting in 1921, isolated insulin from the pancreatic islets of a dog and demonstrated its effectiveness against diabetes.

Question 31.
How “Rosie” differs from a normal cow? Explain.
Answer:
Rosie, the first transgenic cow produced human protein-enriched milk, which contained the human alpha-lactalbumin. The protein-rich milk (2.4 gm/litre) was a nutritionally balanced food for newborn babies than the normal milk produced by the cows.

Question 32.
Point out any two microbes that play crucial role in recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:

1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Escherichia coli

Question 33.
What are Edible vaccines?
Answer:
Edible vaccines are prepared by molecular pharming using the science of genetic engineering. Selected genes are introduced into plants and the transgenic plants are induced to manufacture the encoded protein. Edible vaccines are mucosal targeted vaccines which cause stimulation of both systemic and mucosal immune response. At present edible vaccines are produced for human and animal diseases like measles, cholera, foot and mouth disease and hepatitis.

Question 34.
How the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine is produced in laboratory?
Answer:
Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine as a subunit vaccine is produced by cloning hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) gene in the yeast, Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question 35.
Suggest few methods to treat SCID.
Answer:
SCID caused by ADA deficiency could be cured by bone marrow transplantation where defective immune cells could be replaced with healthy immune cells from donor. It can also be treated by enzyme replacement therapy in which functional ADA is injected into patient’s body where it breaks down toxic biological product.

Question 36.
How gene therapy is done to treat ADA deficiency?
Answer:
During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 37.
How does Somatic cell therapy differ from germline gene therapy?
Answer:
Somatic cell therapy involves the insertion of a fully functional and expressible gene into a target somatic cell to correct a genetic disease permanently whereas Germline gene therapy involves the introduction of DNA into germ cells which is passed on to successive generations. Gene therapy involves the isolation of a specific gene and making its copies and inserting them into target cells ’to make the desired proteins.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Pluripotency and Multipotency.
Answer:

1. Pluripotency refers to a stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into any of the three germ layers-ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.
2. Multipotency refers to the stem cells that can differentiate into various types of cells that are related. For example, blood stem cells can differentiate into lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils etc.

Question 39.
Write a short note on stem cell banks.
Answer:
Stem cell banking is the extraction, processing and storage of stem cells, so that they may be used for treatment in the future, when required. Amniotic cell bank is a facility that stores stem cells derived from amniotic fluid for future use. Stem cells are stored in banks specifically for use by the individual from whom such cells have been collected and the banking costs are paid.

Cord Blood Banking is the extraction of stem cells from the umbilical cord during childbirth. While the umbilical cord and cord blood are the most popular sources of stem cells, the placenta, amniotic sac and amniotic fluid are also rich sources in terms of both quantity and quality.

Question 40.
State any two uniqueness of ELISA test.
Answer:

1. ELISA is highly sensitive and can detect antigen even in nanograms.
2. ELISA test does not require radioisotopes or radiation counting apparatus.

Question 41.
What is ELISA test?
Answer:
ELISA – Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay is a biochemical procedure done to detect the presence of specific antibodies or antigens or hormones in a sample of serum, urine etc.

Question 42.
Elucidate the methodology of ELISA test.
Answer:
During diagnosis the sample suspected to contain the antigen is immobilized on the surface of an ELISA plate. The antibody specific to this antigen is added and allowed to react with the immobilized antigen. The anti-antibody is linked to an appropriate enzyme like peroxidase. The unreacted anti-antibody is washed away and the substrate of the enzyme (hydrogen peroxidase) is added with certain reagents such as 4-chloronaphthol. The activity of the enzyme yields a coloured product indicating the presence of the antigen.

Question 43.
Whether PCR is applicable for RNA molecules? Explain.
Answer:
The PCR technique can also be used for amplifications of RNA in which case it is referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR). In this process the RNA molecules (mRNA) must be converted to complementary DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The cDNA then
serves as the template for PCR.

Question 44.
How PCR helps forensic personnel?
Answer:
PCR technique can also be used in the field of forensic medicine . A single molecule of DNA from blood stains, hair, semen of an individual is adequate for amplification by PCR. The amplified DNA is used to develop DNA fingerprint which is used as an important tool in forensic science.Thus, PCR is very useful for identification of criminals. PCR is also used in amplification of specific DNA segment to be used in gene therapy.

Question 45.
Role of PCR in phylogenetics. Explain.
Answer:
The differences in the genomes of two different organisms can be studied by PCR. PCR is very important in the study of evolutions, more specifically phylogenetics. As a technique which can amplify even minute quantities of DNA from any source, like hair, mummified tissues, bones or any fossilized materials.

Question 46.
Enumerate the use of biological products.
Answer:
Antibodies are substances that react against the disease causing antigens and these can be produced using transgenic animals as bioreactors. Monoclonal antibodies, which are used to treat cancer, heart disease and transplant rejection are produced by this technology. Natural protein adhesives are non toxic, biodegradable and rarely trigger an immune response, hence could be used to reattach tendons and tissues, fill cavities in teeth, and repair broken bones.

Question 47.
Name the principles underlying cloning technique.
Answer:

1. Nuclear transfer
2. Totipotency (ability of a cell to develop into entire organism)

5 – Mark Questions

Question 48.
Explain in detail about stem cell therapy.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells found in most of the multi cellular animals. These cells maintain their undifferentiated state even after undergoing numerous mitotic divisions.

Stem cell research has the potential to revolutionize the future of medicine with the ability to regenerate damaged and diseased organs. Stem cells are capable of self renewal and exhibit ‘cellular potency’ Stem cells can differentiate into all types of cells that are derived from any of the three germ layers ectoderm, endoderm arid mesoderm.

In mammals there are two main types of stem cells – embryonic stem cells (ES cells) and adult stem cells. ES cells are pluripotent and can produce the three primary germ layers ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. Embryonic stem cells are multipotent stem cells that can differentiate into a number of types of cells. ES cells are isolated from the epiblast tissue of the inner cell mass of a blastocyst. When stimulated ES can develop into more than 200 cells types of the adult body. ES cells are immortal they can proliferate in a sterile culture medium and maintain their undifferentiated state.

Adult stem cells are found in various tissues of children as well as adults. An adult stem cell or somatic stem cell can divide and create another cell similar to it. Most of the adult stem cells are multipotent and can act as a repair system of the body, replenishing adult tissues.The red bone marrow is a rich source of adult stem cells.

The most important and potential application of human stem cells is the generation of cells and tissues that could be used for cell based therapies. Human stem cells could be used to test new drugs.

Question 49.
Describe the role of PCR in clinical field.
Answer:
PCR In Clinical Diagnosis: The specificity and sensitivity of PCR is useful for the diagnosis of inherited disorders (genetic diseases), viral diseases, bacterial diseases, etc., The diagnosis and treatment of a particular disease often requires identifying a particular pathogen. Traditional methods of identification involve culturing these organisms from clinical specimens and performing metabolic and other tests to identify them.

The concept behind PCR based diagnosis of infectious diseases is simple – if the pathogen is present in a clinical specimen its DNA will be present. Its DNA has unique sequences that can be detected by PCR, often using the clinical specimen (for example, blood, stool, spinal fluid, or sputum) in the PCR mixture. PCR is also employed in the prenatal diagnosis of inherited diseases by using chorionic villi samples or cells from amniocentesis. Diseases like sickle cell anemia, P-thalassemia and phenylketonuria can be detected by PCR in these samples. cDNA from PCR is a valuable tool for diagnosis and monitoring retroviral infections – eg. Tuberculosis by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Several virally induced cancers, like cervical cancer caused by Papilloma virus can be detected by PCR. Sex of human beings and live stocks, embryos fertilized invitro can be determined by PCR by using primers and DNA probes specific for sex chromosomes. PCR technique is also used to detect sexlinked disorders in fertilized embryos.

Question 50.
Enumerate the steps involved in producing transgenic animals.
Answer:
The various steps involved in the production of transgenic organisms are,

1. Identification and separation of desired gene.
2. Selection of a vector (generally a virus) or direct transmission.
3. Combining the desired gene with the vector.
4. Introduction of transferred vector into cells, tissues, embryo or mature individual.
5. Demonstration of integration and expression of foreign gene in transgenic tissue or animals. Transgenic animals such as mice, rat, rabbit, pig, cow, goat, sheep and fish have been produced.

Question 51.
List out the uses of Transgenesis.
Answer:

1. Transgenesis is a powerful tool to study gene expression and developmental processes in higher organisms.
2. Transgenesis helps in the improvement of genetic characters in animals.Transgenic animals serve as good models for understanding human diseases which help in the investigation of new treatments for diseases.Transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, Alzheimer’s, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and sickle cell anemia.
3. Transgenic animals are used to produce proteins which are important for medical and pharmaceutical applications.
4. Transgenic mice are used for testing the safety of vaccines.
5. Transgenic animals are used for testing toxicity in animals that carry genes which make them sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals exposed to toxic substances and their effects are studied.
6. Transgenesis is important for improving the quality and quantity of milk, meat, eggs and wool production in addition to testing drug resistance.

Question 52.
Describe the procedure by which Dolly was developed.
Answer:
Dolly was the first mammal (Sheep) clone developed by Ian Wilmut and Campbell in 1997. Dolly, the transgenic clone was developed by the nuclear transfer technique and the phenomenon of totipotency. Totipotency refers to the potential of a cell to develop different cells, tissues, organs and finally an organism.

The mammary gland udder cells (somatic cells) from a donor sheep (ewe) were isolated and subjected to starvation for 5 days. The udder cells could not undergo normal growth cycle, entered a dormant stage and became totipotent. An ovum (egg cell) was taken from another sheep (ewe) and its nucleus was removed to form an enucleated ovum. The dormant mammary gland cell/udder cell and the enucleated ovum were fused. The outer membrane of the mammary cell was ruptured allowing the ovum to envelope the nucleus.

The fused cell was implanted into another ewe which served as a surrogate mother. Five months later dolly was bom. Dolly was the first animal to be cloned from a differentiated somatic cell taken from an adult animal without the process of fertilization.

Question 53.
What are the ethical issues about cloning.
Answer:
Biotechnology has given to the soceity cheap drugs, better fruits and vegetables, pest resistant crops, indigenious cure to diseases and lot of controversy. This is mainly because the major part

of the modem biotechnology deals with genetic manipulations. People fear that these genetic manipulations may lead to unknown consequences. The major apprehension of recombinant DNA technology is that unique microorganisms either inadvertently or deliberately for the purpose of war may be developed that could cause epidemics or environmental catastrophies. Although many are concerned about the possible risk of genetic engineering, the risks are in fact slight and the potential benefits are substantial.

Higher Order Thinking (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
The immune system of a person is suppressed,. In ELISA test, the result is positive

1. Name the disease associated with this.
2. Why did he loose his immunity?

Answer:

1. AIDS caused by Human Immuno Vims.
2. In AIDS, the pathogen destroys the T-lymphocytes which forms the major immune resouce of our body.

Question 2.
Why do children cured by enzyme replacement therapy for ADA deficiency need periodic treatment? Suggest a permanent solution for this issue.
Answer:
During gene therapy the lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are removed and grown in a nutrient culture medium. A healthy and functional human gene, ADA cDNA encoding this enzyme is introduced into the lymphocytes using a retrovirus. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are subsequently returned to the patient. Since these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. The disease could be cured permanently if the gene for ADA isolated from bone marrow cells are introduced into the cells of the early embryonic stages.

Question 3.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae, acts as a best host than Encherichia coli for the production of recombinant interferons. Yes or No? Support your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The Saccharomyces cerevisiae, is the best source of recombinant interferon than E-coli. Since E-coli does not possess the machinery for glycolysation of protein.

Question 4.
Isolation of blood to treat Haemophilia A is practically impossible. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Requirement of large quantity of blood.
2. Risk of transmission of blood-related diseases like AIDS.

Question 5.
Functional Insulin differs from its pre-hormonal form. How?
Answer:
Pro-Insulin contains A and B segments linked by a C – chain and preceded by a leader sequence. Whereas the functional Insulin contains only A and B chain formed by the excision of the C-chain and leaders sequence after translation.

Question 6.
Whether PCR can be done for RNA molecules? Explain.
Answer:
The PCR technique can also be used for amplification of RNA in which case it is referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR). In this process, the RNA molecules (mRNA) must be converted to complementary DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The cDNA then serves as the template for PCR.

Question 7.
Suggest any two techniques for early diagnosis of bacterial/viral human diseases.
Answer:
PCR and ELISA