# Class 12

## Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

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## TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The Circular Flow Model that represents an open Economy.
(a) Two Sector Model
(b) Three Sector Model
(c) Four Sector Model
(d) All the above
(c) Four Sector Model

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out……….
(a) Rapid Economic growth
(b) Balanced Economic growth
(c) Economic Equality
(d) Inefficiency
(d) Inefficiency

Question 3.
Write the Four Sector Model of National Income?
(a) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
(b) Y = C + I + G + X
(c) Y = C +1 + G + M
(d) Y = C + I + G(M – X)
(a) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)

Question 4.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) PQLI – Physical Quantity of Life Index
(b) PQLI – Personal Quantity of Life Index
(c) PQLI – Personal Quality of Life Index
(d) PQLI – Physical Quality of Life Index
(d) PQLI – Physical Quality of Life Index

Question 5.
Say’s law stressed the operation of in the economy.
(a) Induced price mechanism
(b) Automatic price mechanism
(c) Induced demand
(d) Induced investment
(b) Automatic price mechanism

Question 6.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Seasonal unemployment – Type of unemployment
(b) Technical unemployment – Some season only
(c) Cyclical unemployment – Public capital
(d) Full employment – Not willing to job
(a) Seasonal unemployment – Type of unemployment

Question 7.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below

Codes:
(a) A (iv) B (i) C (iii) D (ii)
(b) A (i) B (ii) C (iv) D (iii)
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)
(d) A (iii) B (iv) C(ii) D (i)
(a) A (iv) B (i) C (iii) D (ii)

Question 8.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Inflation – Rise in price
(b) Deflation – Fall in price
(c) Hyper Inflation – India
(d) Hyper deflation – Phases of Trade cycle
(d) Hyper deflation – Phases of Trade cycle

Question 9.
2016 Demonetization of currency includes denominations of……….
(a) Rs 500 and Rs 1000
(b) Rs 1000 and Rs 2000
(c) Rs 200 and Rs 500
(d) All the above
(a) Rs 500 and Rs 1000

Question 10.
To promote ………….. stability is one of the aims of IMF.
(a) Exchange
(b) Money
(c) Investment
(d) Finance
(a) Exchange

Question 11.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below.

Codes:
(a) A (1) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

Question 12.
BENELUX is a form of
(b) Economic Union
(c) Common market
(d) Customs union
(d) Customs union

Question 13.
Which is the following is correctly matched:
(a) ITO – 1944
(b) World bank – 1946
(c) WTO – 1947
(d) IMF – 1995
(a) ITO – 1944

Question 14.
Which one of the following deficits does not consider borrowing as a receipt?
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Budgetary deficit
(c) Fiscal deficit
(d) Primary deficit
(c) Fiscal deficit

Question 15.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below.

Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)

Question 16.
Alkali soils are predominantly located in the plains.
(a) Indus-Ganga
(b) North-Indian
(c) Gangetic plains
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 17.
Environmental externalities are called:
(a) Externality
(b) Economic externalities
(c) Negative externalities
(d) Positive externalities
(d) Positive externalities

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Soil pollution is another form of water pollution.
Reason (R): The upper layer of the soil is damaged is caused by the over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Question 19.
Which is the following is correctly matched:
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution
(b) Financial planning – Controlling plans
(c) Short term plans – Technique planning
(d) Indicative planning – Capitalist economy
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution

Question 20.
The term regression was used by
(a) Newton
(b) Pearson
(c) Spearman
(d) Galton
(d) Galton

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
‘Circular Flow of Income’ – Define.

1. The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.
2. It shows flows of income, goods and services and factors of production between economic agents such as firms, households, government and nations.
3. The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics.

Question 22.
Define “Social and Environmental Cost”.
Social and Environmental Cost: while producing economic goods, many environmental and social bads are also generated. Hence, they also must be considered while enumerating National income.

Question 23.
Write the types of unemployment.
Types of unemployment:

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Seasonal Unemployment
3. Frictional Unemployment
4. Educated Unemployment
5. Technical Unemployment
6. Structural Unemployment
7. Disguised Unemployment

Question 24.
Define “Autonomous consumption”.
Autonomous Consumption:
Autonomous consumption is the minimum level of consumption or spending that must take place even if a consumer has no disposable income, such as spending for basic necessities.

Question 25.
Mention the functions of agriculture credit department.
Functions of Agriculture Credit Department :

1. To maintain an expert staff to study all questions on agricultural credit;
2. To provide expert advice to Central and State Government, State Co-operative Banks and other banking activities.
3. To finance the rural sector through eligible institutions engaged in the business of agricultural credit and to co-ordinate their activities.

Question 26.
What are the functions of primary deposits?
Primary Deposits:

1. It is out of these primary deposits that the bank makes loans and advances to its customers.
2. The initiative is taken by the customers themselves. In this case, the role of the bank is passive.
3. So these deposits are also called “Passive deposits”.

Question 27.
A free trade area is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-trade agreement (FTA). Such agreements involve cooperation between at least two countries to reduce trade barriers, e.g. SAFTA, EFTA.

Question 28.
What is “AoA”?
AoA means Agreement on Agriculture. Agriculture was included for the first time under GATT. The important aspects of the agreement are Tariffication, Tariff cuts and Subsidy reduction.

Question 29.
Define “Public debt”.
The debt is the form of promises by the Treasury to pay to the holders of these promises a principal sum and in most instances interest on the principal. Borrowing is resorted to in order to provide funds for financing a current deficit. – J. Philip E. Taylor

Question 30.
State the meaning of Environmental Economics.
Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Macro Economics.
The importance and the need for introducing a macro outlook of an economy are given below:

1. There is a need to understand the functioning of the economy at the aggregate level to evolve suitable strategies and to solve the basic problems prevailing in an economy.
2. Understanding the future problems, needs and challenges of an economy as a whole is important to evolve precautionary measures.
3. Macro economics provides ample opportunities to use scientific investigation to understand the reality.
4. Macro economics helps to make meaningful comparison and analysis of economic indicators.
5. Macro economics helps for better prediction about future and to formulate suitable policies to avoid economic crises, for which Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded.

Question 32.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics.
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 33.
Describe the features of classicism.

1. Long-run equilibrium
2. Saving is a social virtue.
3. The function of money is to act as a medium of exchange
4. Micro foundation to macro problems
5. Champions of Laissez-fair policy
6. Applicable only to the full employment situation.
7. Capitalism is well and good.
8. Balanced budget
9. The equality between saving and investment is achieved through changes of rate of interest.
10. Rate of interest is determined by saving and investment.
11. Rate of interest is a stock.
12. Supply creates its own demand.
13. Rate of interest is a reward for saving.

Question 34.
Explain the Deflation.
Deflation:
The essential feature of deflation is falling prices, reduced money supply and unemployment. Though falling prices are desirable at the time of inflation, such a fall should not lead to the fall in the level of production and employment. But if prices fall from the level of full employment both income and employment will be adversely affected.

Question 35.
Write the mechanism of credit creation by commercial banks.
Mechanism / Technique of Credit Creation by Commercial Banks :

1. Bank credit refers to bank loans and advances.
2. Money is said to be created when the banks, through their lending activities, make a net addition to the total supply of money in the economy.
3. Money is said to be destroyed when the loans are repaid by the borrowers to the banks and consequently the credit already created by the banks is wiped out in the process.
4. Banks have the power to expand or contract demand deposits and they exercise this power through granting more or less loans and advances and acquiring other assets.
5. This power of commercial bank to create deposits through expanding their loans and advances is known as credit creation.

Question 36.
Mention the various forms of economic integration.
An economic union is composed of a common market with a customs union. The participant countries have both common policies on product regulation, freedom of movement of goods, services and the factors of production and a common external trade policy. (e.g. European Economic Union)
EU > CM > CU > FTA
EU – Economic Union >
CM – Common-Market >
CU – Customs Union >
The regional economic integration among the trade blocks such as SAARC (South Asian nations), ASEAN (South East Asia) and BRICS and their achievements.

Question 37.
Mention any three similarities between public finance and private finance.
Similarities:
1. Rationality:

• Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality.
• Maximization of welfare and least cost factor combination underlie both.

2. Limit to borrowing:

• Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing.
• The Government also cannot live beyond its meAnswer:
• There is a limit to deficit financing by the state also.

3. Resource utilisation:

• Both the private and public sectors have limited resources at their disposal.
• So both attempt to make optimum use of resources.

Question 38.
Write the Determinants of Investment Function?
The classical economists believed that investment depended exclusively on rate of interest. In reality investment decisions depends on a number of factors. They are as follows:
However, Keynes contended that business expectations and profits are more important in deciding investment. He also pointed out that investment depends on MEC (Marginal Efficiency of Capital) and rate of interest.
(i) Private investment is an increase in the capital stock such as buying a factory or machine.
(ii) The marginal efficiency of capital (MEC) states the rate of return on an investment project. Specifically, it refers to the annual percentage yield (output) earned by the last additional unit of capital.

Question 39.
The following criticisms are leveled against foreign direct investment.

1. Private foreign capital tends to flow to the high profit areas rather than to the priority sectors.
2. The technologies brought in by the foreign investor may not be appropriate to the consumption needs, size of the domestic market, resource avilabilities, stage of development of the economy, etc.
3. Foreign investment, sometimes, have unfavourable effect on the the Balance of Payments of a country because when the drain of foreign exchange by way of royalty, dividend, etc. is more than the investment made by the foreign concerns.
4. Foreign capital sometimes interferes in the national politics.
5. Foreign investors sometimes engage in unfair and unethical trade practices.
6. Foreign investment in some cases leads to the destruction or weakening of small and medium enterprises.
7. Sometimes foreign investment can result in the dangerous situation of minimizing / eliminating competition and the creation of monopolies or oligopolistic structures.
8. Often, there are several costs associated with encouraging foreign investment.

Question 40.
Mention the sources of revenue municipalities.

1. Taxes on property.
2. Taxes on goods, particularly octroi and terminal tax.
3. Personal taxes, taxes on profession, trades and employment.
4. Taxes on vehicles and animals.
5. Theatre or show tax, and
6. Graints – in – aid from State Government.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Discuss the scope of Macro Economics.
The study of macro economics has wide scope and it covers the major areas as follows:
1. National Income: Measurement of national income and its composition by sectors are the basic aspects of macroeconomic analysis. The trends in National Income and its composition provide a long term understanding of the growth process of an economy.

2. Inflation: It refers to steady increase in general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as Wholesale Price Index, Consumer Price Index, etc, are needed.

3. Business Cycle: Almost all economies face the problem of business fluctuations and business cycle. The cyclical movements (boom, recession, depression and recovery) in the economy need to be carefully studied based on aggregate economic variables.

4. Poverty and Unemployment: The major problems of most resource – rich nations are poverty and unemployment. This is one of the economic paradoxes. A clear understanding about the magnitude of poverty and unemployment facilitates allocation of resources and initiating corrective measures.

5. Economic Growth: The growth and development of an economy and the factors determining them could be understood only through macro analysis.

6. Economic Policies: Macro Economics is significant for evolving suitable economic policies. Economic policies are necessary to solve the basic problems, to overcome the obstacles and to achieve growth.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain circular flow of Income in a Three Sector Economy.
Circular Flow of Income in a Three-Sector Economy:

1. In addition to household and firms, inclusion of the government sector makes this model a three-sector model.
2. The government levies taxes on households and firms, purchases goods and services from firms, and receive factors of production from household sector.
3. On the other hand, the government also makes social transfers such as pension, relief, subsidies to the households.
4. Similarly, Government pays the firms for the purchases of goods and services. The Flow Chart illustrates three-sector economy model:
5. Under three sector model, national income (Y) is obtained by adding Consumption expenditure (C), Investment expenditure (I) and Government expenditure (G).
6. Therefore:
Y = C + I + G.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the importance of national income.
Importance of National Income Analysis:
National income is of great importance for the economy of a country. Nowadays the national income is regarded as accounts of the economy, which are known as social accounts. It enables us-
1. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution towards national income; from the calculation of national income, we could find how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.

2. To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies; the proper measures can be adopted to bring the economy to the right path with the help of collecting national income data.

3. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress; it is essential that the data pertaining to a country’s gross income, output, saving and consumption from different sources should be available for economic planning.

4. To build economic models both in short – run and long – run.

5. To make international comparison, inter – regional comparison and inter – temporal comparison of growth of the economy during different periods.

6. To know a country’s per capita income which reflects the economic welfare of the country (Provided income is equally distributed)

7. To know the distribution of income for various factors of production in the country.

8. To arrive at many macro economic variables namely, Tax – GDP ratio, Current Account Deficit – GDP ratio, Fiscal Deficit – GDP ratio, Debt – GDP ratio etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain about aggregate supply with the help of diagram.

1. Aggregate supply function is an increasing function of the level of employment.
2. Aggregate supply refers to the value of total output of goods and services produced in an economy in a year.
3. In other words, aggregate supply is equal to the value of national product, i.e., national income.
4. Aggregate Supply = C + S + T + Rf = Aggregate income generated in the economy.
5. The following figure shows the shape of the two aggregate supply curves drawn for the assumption of fixed money wages and variable wages.

AGGREGATE SUPPLY CURVE:

1. Z curve is linear where money wages remains fixed; Z1 curve is non – linear since wage rate increases with employment.
2. When full employment level of Nf is reached it is impossible to increase output by employing more men.
3. So aggregate supply curve becomes inelastic (Vertical straight line).
4. The slope of the aggregate supply curve depends on the relation between the employment and productivity.
5. Based upon this relation, the aggregate supply curve can be expected to slope upwards.
6. In reality the aggregate supply curve will be like Z1.
7. Therefore, the aggregate supply depends on the relationship between price and wages.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the Say’s Law of Market.

1. Say’s law of markets is the core of the classical theory of employment.
2. J.B.Say (1776 – 1832) was a French Economist and an industrialist.
3. He was influenced by the writings of Adam Smith and David Ricardo.
4. J.B. Say enunciated the proposition that “Supply creates its own demand”.
5. Hence there cannot be general over production or the problem of unemployment in the economy.
6. According to Say, “When goods are produced by firms in the economy, they pay reward to the factors of production.
7. The households after receiving rewards of the factors of production spend the amount on the purchase of goods and services produced by them.
8. Therefore, each product produced in the economy creates demand equal to its value in the market.
9. In short, this classical theory explains that “A person receives his income from production which is spent on the purchase of goods and services produced by others.
10. For the economy as a whole, therefore, total production equals total income”.

[OR]

(b) Explain Marginal Propensity to Consume [MPC] and Multiplier with diagram and Diagrammatic explanation.
Marginal propensity to consume and multiplier:

The propensity to consume refers to the portion of income spent on consumption.
The MPC refers to the relation between change in consumption (C) and change in income (Y).
Symbolically MPC = AC/AY The value of multiplier depends on MPC
Multiplier (K)= 1/1-MPC The multiplier is the reciprocal of one minus marginal propensity to consume.
Since marginal propensity to save is 1 – MPC. (MPC + MPS = 1). Multiplier is 1/ MPS. The multiplier is therefore defined as reciprocal of MPS.
Multiplier is inversely related to MPS and directly with MPC.
Numerically if MPC is 0.75, MPS is 0.25 and k is 4.
Using formula k = 1/1 – MPC
1/1 – 0.75 = 1/0.25 = 4
Taking the following values, we can explain the functioning of multiplier.

 MPC MPS K 0.00 1.00 1 0.10 0.90 1.11 0.50 0.50 2.00 0.75 0.25 4.00 0.90 0.10 10.00 1.00 0.00 α

C = 100 + 0.8 y;
I = 10
Y = C + I
Y= 100 + 0.8y + 100
0. 2y = 200
Y= 1000
Here, C = 100 + 0.8y = 100 + (1000) = 900;
S= 100 = I
After I is raised by 10, now I = 110,
Y = 100 + 0.8y + 110
0. 2y = 210
y = $$\frac{210}{0.2}$$ = 1050
Here C = 100 = 0.8 (1050) = 940; S = 110 = I
Diagrammatic Explanation.
At 45° line y = C + S
It implies the variables in axis and axis are equal.
The MPC is assumed to be at 0.8 (C = 100 + 0.8y)
The aggregate demand (C +1) curve intersects 45° line at point E.
The original national income is 500.
(C = 100 + 0.8y = 100 + 0.8 (500) = 500) ,
When I is 100, y = 1000, C = 900;
S = 100 = I
The new aggregate demand curve is C + F = 100 + 0.8y + 100 + 10
y = $$\frac{210}{0.2}$$ = 1050
S = 110 = I

Question 44 (a).
Write the types of inflation.
The four types of inflation are
(i) Creeping Inflation: Creeping inflation is slow-moving and very mild. The rise in prices will not be perceptible but spread over a long period. This type of inflation is in no way dangerous to the economy. This is also known as mild inflation or moderate inflation.

(ii) Walking Inflation: When prices rise moderately and the annual inflation rate is a single digit (3% – 9%), it is called walking or trolling inflation.

(iii) Running Inflation: When prices rise rapidly like the running of a horse at a rate of speed of 10% – 20% per annum, it is called running inflation.

(iv) Galloping inflation: Galloping inflation or hyper inflation points out to unmanageably high inflation rates that run into two or three digits. By high inflation the percentage of the same is almost 20% to 100% from an overall perspective.

Other types of inflation (on the basis of inducement):

1. Currency inflation: The excess supply of money in circulation causes rise in price level.
2. Credit inflation: When banks are liberal in lending credit, the money supply increases and thereby rising prices.
3. Deficit induced inflation: The deficit budget is generally financed through printing of currency by the Central Bank. As a result, prices rise.
4. Profit induced inflation: When the firms aim at higher profit, they fix the price with higher margin. So prices go up.
5. Scarcity induced inflation: Scarcity of goods happens either due to fall in production (e.g. farm goods) or due to hoarding and black marketing. This also pushes up the price. (This has happened is Venezula in the year 2018).
6. Tax induced inflation: Increase in indirect taxes like excise duty, custom duty and sales tax may lead to rise in price (e.g. petrol and diesel). This is also called taxflation.

[OR]

(b) What are the functions of NABARD?
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.
(i) NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

(ii) NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of co-operative credit societies.

(iii) NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

(iv) NABARD has the responsibility of co-ordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

(v) It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development

Question 45 (a).
Briefly explain facilities offered by IMF.
Facilities offered by IMF:
The Fund has created several new credit facilities for its members. Chief among them are:
(i) Basic Credit Facility:

• The IMF provides financial assistance to its member nations to overcome their temporary difficulties relating to balance of payments.
• A member nation can purchase from the Fund other currencies or SDRs, in exchange for its own currency, to finance payment deficits.
• The loan is repaid when the member repurchases its own currency with other currencies or SDRs.
• A member can unconditionally borrow from the Fund in a year equal to 25% of its quota.
• This unconditional borrowing right is called the reserve tranche.

(ii) Extended Fund Facility:

• Under this arrangement, the IMF provides additional borrowing facility up to 140% of the member’s quota, over and above the basic credit facility.
• The extended facility is limited for a period up to 3 years and the rate of interest is low.

(iii) Compensatory Financing Facility:

• In 1963, IMF established compensatory financing facility to provide additional financial assistance to the member countries, particularly primary producing countries facing shortfall in export earnings.
• In 1981, the coverage of the compensatory financing facility was extended to payment problem caused by the fluctuations in the cost of cereal inputs.

(iv) Buffer Stock Facility:

• The buffer stock financing facility was started in 1969.
• The purpose of this scheme was to help the primary goods (food grains) producing countries to finance contributions to buffer stock arrangements for the stabilisation of primary product prices.

(v) Supplementary Financing Facility:
Under the supplementary financing facility, the IMF makes temporary arrangements to provide supplementary financial assistance to member countries facing payments problems relating to their present quota sizes.

1. The IMF established Structural Adjustment Facility (SAF) in March 1986 to provide additional balance of payments assistance on concessional terms to the poorer member countries.
2. In December 1987, the Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) was set up to augment the availability of concessional resources to low income countries.
3. The purpose of SAF and ESAF is to force the poor countries to undertake strong macroeconomic and structural programmes to improve their balance of payments positions and promote economic growth.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain effects of Noise pollution.
Effects of Noise Pollution:
(a) Hearing Loss:

1. Chronic exposure to noise may cause noise-induced hearing loss.
2. Older people are exposed to significant occupational noise and thereby reduced hearing sensitivity.

(b) Damage Physiological and Psychological health:

1. Unwanted noise can damage physiological and psychological health.
2. For example, annoyance and aggression, hypertension, and high stress levels.

(c) Cardiovascular effects:
High noise levels can contribute to cardiovascular problems and exposure to blood pressure.

(d) Detrimental effect on animals and aquatic life:
Noise can have a detrimental effect on animals, increasing the risk of death.

(e) Effects on wildlife and aquatic animals:
It creates hormone imbalance, chronic stress, panic and escape behavior and injury.

Question 46 (a).
State the classification of public expenditure.
1. Classification on the Basis of Benefit:

• Public expenditure benefiting the entire society, e.g., the expenditure on general administration, defence, education, public health, transport.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on certain people and at the same time common benefit on the entire community, e.g., administration of justice etc.
• Public expenditure directly benefitting particular group of persons and indirectly the entire society, e.g., social security, public welfare, pension, unemployment relief etc.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on some individuals, e.g., subsidy granted to a particular industry.

2. Classification on the Basis of Function:
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of functions of government in the
following main groups:

• Protection Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the security of the citizens, to protect from external invasion and internal disorder, e.g., defence, police, courts etc.
• Commercial Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the development of trade and commerce, e.g., development of means of transport and communication etc.
• Development Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred for the development infrastructure and industry.

[OR]

(b) Explain the effects of Air pollution.
1. Respiratory and heart problems: It creates several respiratory and heart ailments along with cancer. Children are highly vulnerable and exposed to air pollutants and commonly suffer from pneumonia and asthma.

2. Global warming: Increasing temperature in the atmosphere leads to global warming and thereby to increase sea level rise and melting of polar icebergs, displacement and loss of habitat.

3. Acid rain: Harmful gases like nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides are released into the atmosphere during the burning of fossil fuels. Acid rain causes grate damage to human beings, animals and crops.

4. Eutrophication: Eutrophication is a condition where high amount of nitrogen present in some pollutants which adversely affects fish, plants and animal species.

5. Effect on Wildlife: Toxic chemical present in the air can force wildlife species to move to new place and change their habitat.

6. Depletion of Ozone layer: Ozone exists in earth’s atmosphere and is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays. Earth’s Ozone layer is depleting due to presence of chlorofluorocarbons and hydro chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere.

7. Human Health: Outdoor air pollution is a major cause of death and disease globally. The health effects range from increased hospital admissions and emergency room visits, to increase risk of premature death. An estimated 4.2 billion premature deaths globally are linked to ambient air pollution.

Question 47 (a).
What are the types of Public Debt?
1. Internal Public debt
An internal public debt is a loan taken by Government from the citizens or from different institutions within the country. An internal public debt only involves transfer of wealth. The main sources of internal public debt are as follows:

• Individuals, who purchase government bonds and securities;
• Banks, both private and public, buy bonds from the Government.
• Non-fmancial institutions like UTI, LIC, GIC etc. also buy the Government bonds.
• Central Bank can lend the Government in the form of money supply. The Central Bank can also issue money to meet the expenditure of the Government.

2. External public debt
When a loan is taken from abroad or from an international organization it is called external public debt. The main sources of External public debt are IMF, World Bank, IDA and ADB etc. Loan from other countries and the Governments.

[OR]

(b) Write the State Financial Corporations (SFCs) Act.
State Financial Corporation (SFCs)
The government of India passed in 1951 the State Financial Corporation Act and SFCs were set up in many states. The SFCs are mainly intended for the development of small and medium industrial units within their respective states. However, in some cases they extend to neighboring states as well.
The SFCs provide loans and underwriting assistance to industrial units having paid – up capital and reserves not exceeeding Rs 1 crore. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an industrial concern by SFC is Rs 60 lakhs.

SFCs depend upon the IDBI for refinance in respect of the term loans granted by them. Apart from these, the SFCs can also make temporaiy borrowings from the RBI and borrowings from IDBI and by the sale of bond

## Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is an nalgesic?
(a) Streptornycin
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) Asprin
(d) Penicillin
(c)Asprin

Question 2.
Dettol is the mixture of ……………
(a) Chioroxylenol and bithionol
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol
(c) phenol and iodine
(d) terpineol and bithionol
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol

Question 3.
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics
(b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues
(c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant
(d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

Question 4.
Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from ……………..
(a) cellulose
(b) toluene
(c) cyclohexene
(d) starch
(b) toluene

Question 5.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called …………….
(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets
(a) antagonists

Question 6.
Aspirin is a/an ……………..
(a) acetylsalicylic acid
(b) benzoyl salicylic acid
(c) chlorobenzoic acid
(d) anthranilic acid
(a) acetylsalicylic acid

Question 7.
Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

Question 8.
Natural rubber has ………..
(a) alternate cis – and trans – configuration
(b) random cis – and trans-configuration
(c) all cis – configuration
(d) all trans – configuration
(c) all cis – conflguration

Question 9.
Nylon is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
(a) polyamide

Question 10.
Terylene is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
(c) polyester

Question 11.
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?
(a) HDPE
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 6
(d) PHBV
(d) PHBV

Question 13.
Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is ………….
(a) ethane
(b) prop – 2 – enenitrile
(c) chioroethene
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane

Question 14.
Assertion: 2 – methyl – I ,3 – butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through aniònic addition polymerisation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
(c) assertion is true but reason is false

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is ………….
(a) novesirol
(b) seldane
(c) salvarsan
(d) Chioramphenicol
(a) novestrol

Question 16.
The drug used to induce sleep is …………..
(a) paracetamol
(b) bithional
(c) chioroquine
(d) equanil
(d) equanil

Question 17.
Which of the following is a co – polymer?
(a) Orlon
(b) PVC
(c) Teflon
(d) PHBV
(d) PHBV

Question 18.
The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is ……………
(a) polystyrene
(b) PAN
(c) polyester
(d) polythene
(b) PAN

Question 19.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
(b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
(c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Question 20.
A mixture of chioroxylenol and terpinecol acts as ……………
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesic
(a) antiseptic

Question 1.
Which chemical is responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol?

• Two main constituents of dettol is chloroxylenol and terpineol.
• But among these two chloroxylenol plays an important role as an antiseptic.

Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Antibiotics is a chemical substance produced by one microorganism, that selectively inhibits the growth of another micro organism. Example : penicillins and cephalosporins.

Question 3.
Name one substance which can act as both analgesic and antipyretic.
Aspirin can act as both analgesic and antipyretic,

Question 4.
Write a note on synthetic detergents.
1. Synthetic detergents are formulated products containing either sodium salts of alkyl hydrogen suiphates or sodium salts of long chain alkyL benzene suiphonic acids.

2. Synthetic detergents are three types. They are

• anionic detergents – sodium lauryl sulphate.
• Cationic detergents – n – hexadecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride.
• Non-ionic detergents – Pentaerythrityl stearate.

3. Synthetic detergents can be used even in hard water, while soaps cannot be used in hard water.

4. The cleansing action of detergents are similar to the cleansing action of soaps.

5. When detergents are dissolved in water its hydrocarbon part attaches itself to grease and oil particles. Whereas its ionic part remains attached to water. Therefore when dirty clothes are agitated in solution of detergents then dirty particles sticks to the hydrocarbon part of detergents and at the same time the water loving ionic part pulls away this dirt from clothes.

Question 5.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Antiseptics

1. Antiseptics are chemical substance which prevent the growth of micro organizers and may even kill them but are not harmful to living tissues.
2. They are generally applied to living tissues such as wounds, cuts bulks and diseased surfaces.
3. All the antiseptics are disinfectants.
4. They are not ingested or swallowed.
5. e.g., Povidone – iodine, Benzalkonium – Chloride

Disinfectants

1. Disinfectants are chemical substances which kill microorganism or stop their growth but are harmful to human tissues.
2. Disinfectants are applied to inanimated objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments etc.
3. All the disinfectants are not antiseptics.
4. They can be injected or swallowed.
5. e.g. Alcohol, chlorine compunds.

Question 6.
What are food preservatives?

• Food preservatives are substances capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of microorganisms.
• Ex.: Acetic acid, Sodium metasulphite, Sodium benzoate.

Question 7.
Why do soaps not work ¡n hard water?
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long – chain falty acids. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. When soaps are dissolved in hard water, these ions displace sodium or potassium from insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids. These insoluble salts separate as scum.

This is the reason why soaps do not work in hard water.

Question 8.
What are drugs? How are they classified?

• A drug is a substance that is used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefit of the recipient.
• It is used for the purpose of diagnosis, prevention cure/relief of disease.

Drugs are classified based on their properties such as

• Chemical structure
• Pharmacological effect
• Target system
• Site of action

Question 9.
How do the tranquilizers work in the body?

1. They are neurologically active drugs.
2. Tranquilizer acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
3. This drug is used for treatment of stress anxiety, depression, sleep disorders and severe mental diseases like schizophrenia.

Question 10.
Write the structural formula of aspirin.

Question 11.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
Mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents:
1. The cleansing action of both soaps and detergents from their ability to lower the surface tension of water, to emulsify oil or grease and to hold them in a suspension in water.

2. This ability is due to the structure of soaps and detergents.

3. In water a sodium soap dissolves to form soap anions and sodium cations. For example, the following chemical equation shows the ionisation of sodium palmitate.

4. A soap anion consists of a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxylate group on one end. The hydrocarbon chain, which is hydrophobic, is soluble in oils or grease. The ionic part is the carboxylate group which is hydrophilic, is soluble in water.

5. In water, detergent dissolves to form detergent anions and sodium cations. For example the following chemical equations show the ionisation of sodium alkyl sulphate and sodium alkyl benzene sulphate.

6. The following explains the cleansing action of a soap or detergent on a piece of cloth with a greasy stain.

• A soap or detergent anion consists of a hydrophobic part and a hydrophilic part.
• Soap or detergent reduces the surface tension of water. Therefore the surface of the cloth is wetted thoroughly.
• The hydrophobic parts of the soap or detergents anions are soluble in grease.
• The hydrophilic parts of the anions are soluble in water.
• Scrubbing or mechanical agitation helps to pull the grease away from the cloth and the grease is broken into smaller droplets.
• Repulsion between the droplets causes the droplets to be suspended in water, fonning an emulsion.
• Thus the droplets do not coagulate or,redeposit on the cloth. Rinsing washes away the droplets.

Question 12.
Which sweetening agent are used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient?
Sweetening agent used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient are Saccharin, Aspartame, alitame etc…

Question 13.
What are narcotic and non – narcotic drugs. Give examples.
1. Narcotic drug is an addictive drug that reduces pain, induces sleep and may alter mood or behaviour. Example: Morphine and codeine.

2. Non – narcotic drug are chemical substance (medications) used to control pain and inflammation. They are available at drugstores without a prescription or by prescription when given at higher doses. Example: Acetaminophen and paracetamol.

Question 14.
What are anti-fertility drugs? Give examples.
Anti-fertility drugs are synthetic hormones that suppress ovulation/fertilization.
Ex.: Synthetic oestrogen – i) Ethynylestradiol ii) Menstranol
Synthetic Progesterone – i) Norethindrone ii) Norethynodrel

Question 15.
Write a note on copolymer.

1. A polymer containing two or more different kinds of monomer units is called a co-polymer.
2. Co – polymers have properties quite different from the homopolymers.
3. The structural units of co-polymers are derived from the different monomers may be present in regular, alternation or in random order or strings of several units of one kind may alternate with strings of another.
4. For example, Buna – S, Buna – N, Nylon – 6,6 etc. Buna – S contains styrene and butadiene monomer units.

Question 16.
What are biodegradable polymers? Give examples.

• Natural polymers which degrade on their own or by microorganisms after a certain period of time are called biodegradable polymers.
• Ex.: Poly hydroxybutyrate (PHB), Polyglycolic acid (PGA), Polylactic acid (PLA)

Question 17.
How is terylene prepared?
The monomers are ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid or dimethýlterephthalate. When these monomers are mixed and heated at 500K in the presence of zinc acetate and antimony trioxide catalyst, terylene (or dacron) is formed.

Question 18.
Write a note on the vulcanization of rubber.

1. When natural rubber is heated with sulphur it becomes strong and elastic. This process is known as vulcanization of rubber.
2. Natural rubber is mixed with 3-5% sulphur and heated at 100-150°C.
3. This causes the cross-linking of the cis-1,4- polyisopre’ne chains through disulphide (-S-S-) bonds.
4. The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization.
5. If 1 – 3% sulphur is added the rubber is soft and stretchy.
6. If 3 -10% sulphur is added the rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.

Question 19.
Classify the following as linear, branched or cross-linked polymers …………………..

1. Bakelite
2. Nylon
3. polythene

2. Nylon – Linear polymer
3. Polythene – Linear polymer

Question 20.
Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting.
Difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting:
Thermoplastic

1. They soften on heating and harden on cooling, and they can be remoulded.
2. They consists of linear long çhain polymers and low molecular weights polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are held together by weak Van der Waals forces.
4. They are weak, soft and less brittle.
5. They are formed by adding a polymerisation
6. They are soluble in organic solvents.
7. Example: PVC, polythene, polystrene etc.

Thermosetting

1. They do not soften on heating and they cannot be remoulded.
2. They consist of a three-dimensional network structure and high molecular weight polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are linked by strong covalent.
4. They are strong, hard and more brittle.
5. They are formed by condensation polymerisation.
6. They are insoluble in organic solvents.
7. Example: Bakelite, melamine etc.

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 1 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The substance that is used to modify the physiological system for the benefit of the recipient is called …………….
(a) a drug
(b) a dye
(c) a food preservative
(d) soap
(a) a drug

Question 2.
Which one interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response?
(a) Detergent
(b) cleansing agent
(c) medicine
(d) food preservative
(c) medicine

Question 3.
The ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and a minimum curative dose is called …………..
(a) iso electric point
(b) therapeutic index
(c) critical point
(d) iso thermal point
(b) therapeutic index

Question 4.
Which one of the following does not belong to penicillin group?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) catecholamine
(d) mithicillin
(c) catecholamine

Question 5.
Which of the following does belongs to penicillin group drugs?
(a) Mithicillin
(b) opiates
(c) steroids
(d) catecholamine
(a) Mithicillin

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) atenolol
(c) amlodipine
(d) propranolol
(a) erythromycin

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) amoxicillin
(b) cefixime
(c) amlodipine
(d) ampiciflin
(c) amlodipine

Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amoxicillin
(c) cefixime
(d) tetracycline
(a) atenolol

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belongs to antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amlodipine
(c) propranolol
(d) erythromycin
(d) erythromycin

Question 10.
Which one of the following inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis?
(a) streptomycin
(b) erythromycin
(c) atenolol
(d) amlodipine
(a) streptomycin

Question 11.
Which one of the following prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein?
(a) atenolol
(b) streptomycin
(c) erythromycin
(d) tetracycline
(c) erythromycin

Question 12.
Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) folic cid
(d) sodium benzoate
(b) sulphanilamide

Question 13.
Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA
(b) DHPS
(c) TNB
(d) GTN
(a) PABA

Question 14.
Which of the following is called PABA?
(a) p – nitro benzanilic acid
(b) p – amino butyric acid
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid
(d) p – amido benzene suiphonyl chloride
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids
(b) antioxidant
(c) antibiotics
(d) antagonists
(d) antagonists

Question 16.
Which of the following is used in the reduced sleepiness?
(a) caffeine
(b) morphine
(c) suiphanilide
(d) p – aminobenzene sulphonic acid
(a) caffeine

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform
(b) chloropicrin
(c) morphine
(d) coffeine
(c) morphine

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an example of antacid?
(a) Histamine
(b) cimetidine
(c) ranitidine
(d) erythromycin
(d) erythromycin

Question 19.
Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) ranitidine
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 20.
Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) antibiotic
(c) analgesic
(d) opioids
(a) Tranquilizer

Question 21.
Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine
(b) diazepam
(c) histamine
(d) PABA
(b) diazepam

Question 22.
Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium
(b) cimetidinc
(c) chiorofom
(a) valium

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic
(b) antiseptic
(c) antioxidant
(d) antipyretic
(d) antipyretic

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an anti inflamatory drug?
(a) morphine
(b) coheinc
(c) aspirin
(d) histidine
(c) aspirin

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used to cure headache, muscle strain, arthritis?
(a) acetaminophen
(b) ibuprofen
(c) aspirin
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 26.
Which one of the foLlowing is used in the prevention of heart attacks?
(a) aspirin
(b) ibuprofen
(c) paracetamol
(d) morphine
(a) aspirin

Question 27.
Which one of the following is an example of an àntipyretic?
(a) acetyl salicylic acid
(b) methyl salicylate
(c) paraldehyde
(d) diethyl ether
(a) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 28.
Which one of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory drug?
(a) aspirin
(b) morphine
(c) haloperidol
(d) ibuprofen
(d) ibuprofen

Question 29.
Which of the following is a major tranquilizer?
(a) diazepam
(b) valium
(c) clozapine
(d) alprazolm
(c) clozapine

Question 30.
Which of the following is a minor tranquilizer?
(a) haloperidol
(b) clozapine
(c) morphine
(d) valium
(d) valium

Question 31.
Consider the following statements
(i) Tranquilizers act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
(ii) Histamines stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
(iii) The antibiotic cimetidine inhibits the bacterial growth.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (¡) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only

Question 32.
Consider the following statements
(i) Acetaminophen reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin
(ii) opioids relieve pain and produce sleep and are addictive
(iii) Aspirin finds useful in the pain of terminal cancer.
Which of the above statement is/arc not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) only
(d) (iii) only

Question 33.
Which of the following are addictive and poisonous drug?
(a) ibuprofen
(b) aspirin
(c) morphine
(d) paracetamol
(c) morphine

Question 34.
Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine
(b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid
(d) histidine, ranitidine
(a) morphine, codeine

Question 35.
Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine
(b) Propofol
(c) iso flurane
(d) ibuprofen
(a) lidocaine

Question 36.
Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol
(b) isoflurane
(c) ranitidine
(d) omeprazole
(b) isoflurane

Question 37.
Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia
(b) lidocaine
(c) omeprazole
(d) iso fharane
(d) iso fharane

Question 38.
Which one of the following is an inhalational general anaesthetic?
(a) procain
(b) iso fiurane
(c) lidocaine
(d) rabeprazole
(b) iso fiurane

Question 39.
Which one of the following is an antacid?
(a) omeprazole
(b) rabeprazole
(c) milk of magnesia
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 40.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Propofol cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
(ii) Ibuprofen is used for major surgical procedures.
(iii) Lidocaine is used to relieve burning sensation in the chest / throat area.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 41.
Which one of the following is not an antacid?
(a) propofol
(b) ranitidine
(c) omeprazole
(d) rabeprazole
(a) propofol

Question 42.
Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine
(b) ampicillin
(c) erythromycin
(d) milk of magnesia
(a) cetrizine

Question 43.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis?
(a) eryLhromycin
(b) azithromycin
(c) penicillin
(d) cetrizine
(c) penicillin

Question 44.
Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and skin infections?
(a) ampicillin
(b) penicillin
(d) azithromycin
(d) azithromycin

Question 45.
Which one of the following is used to treat urinary tract infection and respiratory infections?
(a) doxycycline
(b) karamycin
(c) ciprolloxacin
(d) ibuprofen
(c) ciprolloxacin

Question 46.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholera, acne vulgaris?
(a) fluoro quinolone
(b) aminoglycosides
(c) tetracycline
(d) macrolides
(c) tetracycline

Question 47.
Which one of the following is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria?
(a) kanamycin
(b) gentamycin
(c) neomycin
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase?
(a) doxy cycline
(b) kanamycin
(c) ciprofloxacin
(d) aspirin
(c) ciprofloxacin

Question 49.
Which one of the following is an antiseptic?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) alcohol
(c) menstranol
(d) chlorine compounds
(a) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 50.
Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine
(c) norethindrone
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
(a) povidone – iodine

Question 51.
Consider the following statements
(i) Oestrogen, menstranol are synthetic hormones that suppresses ovulation / fertilisation,
(ii) Norethindrone used in birth control pills.
(iii) Chlorine compounds are used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only

Question 52.
Which one of the following is used as a preservative for the preparation of pickles and preservation of vegetables?
(a) sodium acetate
(b) acetic acid
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) salicylic acid
(b) acetic acid

Question 53.
Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Palm oil
(c) sodium meta suiphite
(d) sulphur dioxide
(c) sodium meta suiphite

Question 54.
Which one of the following is used as an emulsifier?
(a) sodium meta suiphite
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) sodium bi carbonate
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid

Question 55.
Which method is used to preserve food?
(a) pasteurisation & irration
(b) chilling and freezing
(c) drying and dehydration
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 56.
Which one of the following act as an antioxidant?
(a) Palmîtic acid
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) Ascorbic acid
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene

Question 57.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
(ii) Flouring agents reduces the aroma of the food.
(iii) Antioxidants produce the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 58.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Sorbitol
(b) mannitol
(c) xylitol
(d) cresol
(d) cresol

Question 59.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Butyl hydroxy toluene
(b) Butylated hydroxy anisole
(c) Aspartame
(d) Ascorbic acid
(c) Aspartame

Question 60.
Identify the artificial sweeteners.
(a) Saccharin, sucralose
(b) culutaric acid, glycollic acid
(c) BHT, BHA
(d) GTN, TNG
(a) Saccharin, sucralose

Question 61.
Glyceryl ester of long chain fatty acids are called …………..
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) antiseptic
(d) antibiotic
(a) soap

Question 62.
Which one of the following describes the quality of soap?
(a) TFT value
(b) TFM value
(c) PPM value
(d) TFP value
(b) TFM value

Question 63.
Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) disinfectant
(d) antiseptic
(b) detergent

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an anionic detergent?
(a) n – hexa decyl tri methyl ammonium chloride
(b) Peifla erythntyl stearate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) 3 – hydroxy – 2, 2 bis (hydroxy methyl) propyl heptonoate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 65.
Which of the following is an example of catìonic detergent?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) sodium pahnitate
(c) sodium dodecyl benzene suiphonate
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride

Question 66.
Which one of the following is an example of non-ionic detergent?
(a) sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) n – hexa decyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate
(d) N, N, N – trimethyl hexa decan – 1 – aminium chloride
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate

Question 67.
Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk
(b) PVC, Polythene
(c) Buna – N, Buna – S
(d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
(a) cellulose, silk

Question 68.
Which one of the following is a synthetic rubber?
(a) Neoprene
(b) cellulose
(c) silk
(d) poly isoprene
(a) Neoprene

Question 69.
Which one of the following is a semisynthetic polymer?
(a) poly isoprene
(b) viscose rayon
(c) nylon
(d) terylene
(b) viscose rayon

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a cross linked polymer?
(a) poly propylene
(b) bakelite
(c) melamine
(d) urea formaldehyde
(a) poly propylene

Question 71.
Identify the thermo setting plastic?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) neoprene
(c) melamine
(d) bakelite
(c) melamine

Question 72.
Which of the following is a thermoplastic?
(a) bakelite
(b) melamine
(c) urea formaldehyde
(d) polystrene
(d) polystrene

Question 73.
Which one of the following is an elastomer?
(a) nylon 6,6
(b) terylene
(c) buna – S
(d) bakelite
(c) buna – S

Question 74.
Which one of the following is an example for addition polymer?
(a) polyethylene
(b) PVC
(c) teflon
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 75.
Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) polyester
(c) PVC
(d) teflon
(b) polyester

Question 76.
Which one of the following is not an additional polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 66
(d) teflon
(c) Nylon 66

Question 77.
Consider the following statements
(i) Nylon-6, 6 are polymerchains form fibres by hydrogen bonding.
(ii) Thermoplastic become hard on heating and soft on cooling and cannot be remoulded.
(iii) Cellulose and silk are synthetic polymers.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct? ,
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Question 78.
Which one of the following is used as an free radical initiator in the preparation of polystrene?
(a) hydrogen peroxide
(b) methyl chloride
(c) Benzoyl peroxide
(d) Benzyl peroxide
(c) Benzoyl peroxide

Question 79.
Which mechanism is followed in the synthesis of polystrene?
(b) cationic polymensation
(c) Anionic polymerisation
(d) SN1 mechanism

Question 80.
Which one of the polymer is used as insulation for cables, making toys?
(a) HDPE
(b) LDPE
(c) teflon
(d) orlon
(b) LDPE

Question 81.
Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide
(b) zeigler natta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate
(d) hydrogen peroxide
(b) zeigler natta catalyst

Question 82.
Identify the zeiglar natta catalyst.
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI
(b) (C2H5)4Pb + TiCl4
(c) AICl3 + HCI
(d) ZnCI2 + Cone. HCI
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI

Question 83.
Which of the following is used to make bottles and pipes?
(a) LDPE
(b) Terylene
(c) PVC
(d) HDPE
(a) LDPE

Question 84.
Which polymer is used in preparing non-sticking utensils?
(a) orlon
(b) PAN
(c) teflon
(d) HDPE
(c) teflon

Question 85.
Which one of the following is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters?
(a) orlon
(b) terylene
(c) polyester
(d) nylon
(a) orlon

Question 86.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of Nylon 6, 6?
(a) caprolactam + hydrazine
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine
(c) methanal + ammonia
(d) phenol + methanal
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine

Question 87.
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) polyethylene
(d) terylene
(c) polyethylene

Question 88.
Which one is used in the manufacture of nylon-6?
(a) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(b) succinic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid
(d) adipic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid

Question 89.
Which one of the following is the other name of nylon 6, 6?
(a) poly urethane
(b) urotropine
(c) poly caprolactum

Question 90.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of tyrecards fabrics?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) orlon
(d) dacron
(b) nylon 6

Question 91.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of terylene?
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
(b) phthalic auhydride + phenol
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) phenol + methanal
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid

Question 92.
Name the catalyst used in the preparation of terylene?
(a) zeiglar natta catalyst
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide
(c) benzoyi peroxide
(d) ammonium persuiphate
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide

Question 93.
Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
(c) terylene

Question 94.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of bakelite?
(a) ethane 1, 2 – diol + benzene 1, 4 – dicarboxylic acid
(b) phenol + methanal
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) isoprene + methanal
(b) phenol + methanal

Question 95.
Linear polymer of phenol formal dehyde is called
(a) novolac
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
(a) novolac

Question 96.
Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac
(b) soft bakelite
(c) hard bakelite
(d) neoprene
(a) navolac

Question 97.
Which one of the following thermo setting plastic is used in paints?
(a) melamine
(b) hard bakelite
(c) navolac
(d) soft bakelite
(c) navolac

Question 98.
Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde
(b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde
(d) navolac
(b) melamine formal dehyde

Question 99.
What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanal
(b) melamine + methanal

Question 100.
Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon
(d) sulphur
(d) sulphur

Question 101.
Which one of the following is a natural rubber?
(a) Buna-S
(b) Buna-N
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene
(d) neoprene
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene

Question 102.
The raw material is used in the manufacture of ieoprene?
(a) isoprene
(b) chloroprene
(c) 1, 3 – buta diene
(d) vinyl chloride
(b) chloroprene

Question 103.
Which one of the following rubber is used in the manufacture of chemical container and conveyer belts?
(a) Buna – N
(b) neo prene
(c) Buna – S
(d) poly isoprene
(b) neo prene

Question 104.
The raw materials required for the manufacture of Buna – N are …………..
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene
(b) chloro prene + buta – 1, 3 – diene
(c) terephthalic acid + ethane 1, 2 – diol
(d) phenol + methanal
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene

Question 105.
Which of the following are required to prepare Buna – S?
(a) vinyl cyanide + 1, 3 – butadiene
(b) chioro prene + buta -1, 3 – diene
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene
(d) isoprene + styrene
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene

Question 106.
Which of the following used in medical field such as surgical sutures, 1asma substitute?
(a) PHBV
(b) PLA
(c) PCE
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 107.
Which one of the following is not an example of biodegradable plastic?
(a) polyhydroxy butyrate
(b) poly glycollic acid
(c) polythene
(d) poly caprolactone
(c) polythene

Question 108.
Which of the following is an example for bio degradable plastic?
(a) polystyrene
(b) poly vinyl chloride
(c) bakelite
(d) polylactic acid
(d) polylactic acid

Question 109.
Which one of the following is used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled release of drugs?
(a) PHB
(b) PHBV
(c) PGA
(d) PLA
(b) PHBV

Question 110.
Glycine and e-amino caproic acid polymenses to give …………..
(a) glycyl amine
(b) nylon 6, 6
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6
(d) orlon
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6

Question 111.
Which one of the following is used in making automobiles and foot wear?
(a) Bun – S
(b) Buna – N
(c) natural rubber
(d) neoprene
(a) Bun – S

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an insulator and making conveyor belts?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) neoprene
(d) Buna – N
(c) neoprene

Question 113.
Which type of nylon is used in making brushes, synthetic fibres, parachute, ropes and carpets?
(a) nylon – 2
(b) nylon – 6
(c) nylon 6,6
(d) nylon – 2, nylon 6
(c) nylon 6,6

Question 114.
Which one is used in making non-breakable cups and laminated sheets?
(a) bakelite
(b) urea formaldehyde
(c) PHBV
(d) teflon
(b) urea formaldehyde

Question 115.
Which of the polymer is used in making fibres, safety belts, lyre cords and ropes?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) Nylon
(d) bakelite
(a) terylene

Question 116.
Identify the monomer of nylon – 2.
(b) caprolactam
(c) vinyl chloride
(d) chioroprene
(b) caprolactam

Question 117.
Which of the following is a fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) neoprene
(c) PVC
(d) bakelite
(a) nylon

Question 118.
Identify the food preservative which is most commonly used by food producers?
(a) sodium cloride
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) baking soda
(d) benzoic acid
(a) sodium cloride

Question 119.
Which of the following act as an antiseptic and disinfectant respectiely?
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol
(b) 1% phenol, 0.2% phenol
(c) 2% phenol, 20% phenol
(d) 20% phenol, 2% phenol
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol

Question 120.
Identify the narcotic which is used as an analgesic.
(a) phenol
(b) equanil
(c) morphine
(d) cetrizine
(c) morphine

Question 121.
What type of drug pencillin is?
(a) anaesthetic
(b) antibiotic
(c) antipyretic
(d) analgesic
(b) antibiotic

Question 122.
Ranitidine is used as an …………
(a) antioxidant
(b) antiseptic
(c) antacid
(d) antibiotic
(c) antacid

Question 123.
Aspirin is chemically named as ………….
(a) methyl salicylate
(b) ethyl salicylate
(c) o – hydroxy benzoic acid
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
(d) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 124.
Which of the following can be used an analgesic without causing addiction and any modification?
(a) morphine
(b) n – acetyl paraminophenol
(c) diazepam
(d) tetra hydro catenol
(c) diazepam

Question 125.
Tranquilisers are substances used for the treatment of ……………..
(a) cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) mental diseases
(d) blood infection

Question 126.
Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent?

Question 127.
Which of the following represents a soap?
(a) C17H35COOk
(b) C17H35COOH
(c) C15H31COOOH
(d) (C17H35COO)2Ca
(a) C17H35COOk

Question 128.
Which of the following drug is an analgesic?
(a) iodex
(b) valium
(c) analgin
(d) quinine
(c) analgin

Question 129.
An antipyretic is …………
(a) chioro quinine
(b) paracetamol
(c) morphine
(d) ranitidine
(b) paracetamol

Question 130.
Streptomycin is effective in the treatment of ……………
(a) tuberculosis
(b) malaria
(c) typhoid
(d) cholera
(a) tuberculosis

Question 131.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc is ………………….
(a) streptomycin
(b) aspirin
(c) penicillin
(d) paracetamol
(c) penicillin

Question 132.
The substances which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called ………………..
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antioxidants
(d) antipyretic
(a) tranquilizers

Question 133.
The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is ……………

Quesiton 134.
Which of the following acts as an antioxidant in edible oils?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin E

Question 135.
Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
(a) insulin
(b) inulin
(c) chioroquine
(d) aspirin
(a) insulin

Question 136.
Which of the following terms means pain killer?
(a) antibiotics
(b) analgesic
(c) antiseptic
(d) antioxidant
(b) analgesic

Question 137.
The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste as the sugar and is stable at cooking temperature is …………….
(a) aspartame
(b) saccharin
(c) sucralose
(d) alitame
(c) sucralose

Question 138.
The role of phosphate in detergent powder is …………..
(a) control pH level of the detergent water mixture
(b) remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from water that causes hardness of water
(c) provide whiteness to the fabric
(d) more soluble in soft water
(b) remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from water that causes hardness of water

Question 139.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) oxytocin
(c) penicillin
(d) tetracycline
(b) oxytocin

Question 140.
Commonly used antiseptic ‘dettoP is a mixture of …………..
(a) O – chloro phenozylenol + terpeneol
(b) O – cresol + terpenol
(c) phenol + terpeneol
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as ……………..
2. The drug which interacts with macro molecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapautic and useful biological response is called ………………
3. ……………..is a substance that is used to modifS’ or explore physiological systems for the benefit of the recepient.
4. Higher the value of …………….. safer is the drug
5. The medicines that have ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as ……………..
6. Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called …………….. and those which are important for communication systems are called ……………..
7. Many bacteria need …………….. in order to produce an important coenzyme, folic acid
9. Morphine that used as a pain killer suppress the …………….. that causes pain.
10. Histames stimulate the secretion of …………….. by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
11. …………….. acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neuro transmitter dopamine in the brain.
12. …………….. reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
13. …………….. are drugs that used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation
14. …………….. relieve pain and produces steeps and they are additive.
15. …………….. neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
16. …………….. cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous SyStem.
17. …………….. anaesthetics are often used for major surgical procedures.
18. …………….. provide relief from allergic effects.
19.  …………….. inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
20. …………….. inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
21. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms applied to living tissues.
22. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms used on inanimate objects.
23. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called ……………..
24. Flavouring agents added to food enhance the …………….. of the food.
25. …………….. are substances which retard the oxidative deteriorations of food.
26. Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called ……………..
27. Chemically soap is a …………….. or …………….. salt of higher fatty acids.
28. …………….. is a sodium salt alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
29. The quality of soap is described interrns of …………….. and the …………….. quantity in the soap better is its quality
30. …………….. become soft on heating and hard on cooling and they can be remoulded.
31. …………….. donot become soft on heating but set to an infusible mass upon heating.
32. In the manufacture of Teflon. the monomer used is ……………..
33. …………….. is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters
34. …………….. is a monomer which polymerises to give nylon – 6.
35. Para hydroxyl methyl phenols poíymerises to give a linear polymer called ……………..
36. The monomer of natural rubber is ……………..
37. For the vulcanization of natural rubber …………….. is used and heated to 100° 150°C.
38. …………….. polymers are used in medical field such as surgical sutures, plasma substitute.
39. A drug that binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function is called ……………..
40. …………….. reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin-induced increase in temperature.

1. chemotheropy
2. medicine
3. Drug
4. therapeutic index
5. antibiotics
6. enzymes, receptors
7. PABA
8. sleepiness
9. neuro transmitters
10. HCI
11. Tranquilizers
12. Analgesics
13. Antipyretic
14. Narcotic Analgegics (or) opioids
15. Antacids
16. General anaesthetics
17. Inhalational general
18. Antihistamines
19. Antimicrobials
20. Fluoroquinolones
21. Antiseptic
22. Disinfectants
24. aroma
25. Antioxidant
26. artificial sweatness
27. sodium, potassium
28. Detergent
29. TFM, TFM
30. Thermoplastic
31. Thermosetting
32. tetra fluoroethylene
33. orIon (or) PAN
34. Caprolactam
35. novolac
36. cis – isoprene (OR) 2 – methyl buta- 1, 3 – diene
37. sulphur
39. antagonists
40. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (or) NSAIDS

III. Match the following

Question 1.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.

(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 4.

(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 5.

(a) 3 2 4 1

Question 6.

(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 7.

(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 9.

(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 11.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.

(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 13.

(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 14.

(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 15.

(b) 2 3 4 1

Question 16.

(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer the drug.
Reason (R): Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and the minimum curative dose.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R dOes not explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is.wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by enzymes. This principle is applied to kill many pathogens.
Reason (R): The enzyme actions are highly essential for normal functioning of the system.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): The drugs acts as an inhibitor to the enzyme catalyst.
Reason (R): A drug molecule that has a similar geometry (shape) as the substrate is administered, it can also bind to the enzyme and inhibit its activity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Aspirin is an antipyretic and useful in the prevention of heart attacks.
Reason (R): Aspirin reduces fever and also prevent platelet coagulation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Opioids produces coma and even death.
Reason (R): Opioids releive pain and produce sleep and drugs are addictive and also poisonous in nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Milk of magnesia and aluminium hydroxide are usually used as antacids.
Reason (R): Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 are weak bases and they neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Procaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics and cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness.
Reason (R): They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Antioxidant such as butyl hydroxy toluene (BHT) and butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) are added as good additives.
Reason (R): Antioxidants retard the oxidative deterioration of food which contain fat and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assrtion(A): Saccharin, sucralose are artificial sweeteners.
Reason (R): Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertlon(A): Sulphur dioxide and suiphites are also used as food additive.
Reason (R): They act as antimicrobial agents, antioxidant and enzyme inhibitors.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Asscrtion(A): During soap preparation, common salt is added to the reaction mixture.
Reason (R): Common salt decreases the solubility of soap and it helps to precipitate out from the aqueous solution.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Higher the TFM quantity in the soap, better is its quality.
Reason (R): The quality of the soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). Grade I soap should have 76% minimum TFM value.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Natural rubber becomes strong and elastic when heated with sulphur.
Reason (R): Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 – polyisoprene chains through disulphide – s – s bonds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Artificial sweeteners are added to the food to control the intake of calories.
Reason (R): Most of the artificial sweeteners are inert and do not metabolise in the body,
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Penicillin (G) is an antihistamine.
Reason (R): Penicillin G is effective against gram positive as well as gram negative bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 16.
Assertlon(A): Enzymes have active sites that hold substrate molecule for a chemical reaction.
Reason (R): Drugs compete with natural substate by attaching covalently to the active site of enzyme.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soaps in ethanol.
Reason (R): Ethanol made things invisible.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Sodium chloride is added to precipitate soap after saponification.
Reason (R): Hydrolysis of esters of long chain fatty acids by alkali produces soap in colloidal form.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertlon(A): Aspirin has antipyretic properties.
Reason (R): Aspirin gives relief from pain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 20.
Assertlon(A): Bithional is added to soap as an antiseptic.
Reason (R): Bithional is a suipha drug and destroy bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

VI. Find out the correct pair.

Question 1.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin, cetrizine, cephalosporin.
Cetrizine. It is an antihistamine whereas others belongs to penicillin group.

Question 2.
Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, erythromycin, cimetidine, ranitidine.
Erythromycin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antacids.

Question 3.
Halo peridol, clozapine, aiprazolam, aspirin, diazepam.
Aspirin. It is an analgesic and antipyretic whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 4.
Acetamino phenol, ibuprofen, aspirin, morphine.
Morphine. It is an opioids (narcotic analgesic) whereas others are non narcotic analgesics.

Question 5.
Morphine, heroin, hydrocodone, codeine, ibuprofen.
Ibuprofen. It is a non narcotic analgesic whereas others are narcotic analgesics.

Question 6.
Procaine, lidocaine, cemitidine, propofol, iso flurane.
Ccmitidine. It is an antacid whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 7.
Omeprazole, rabeprazole, iso flurane, ranitidine, cemitidine.
Isoflurane. It is an anaesthetic whereas others are antacids.

Question 8.
Ampicillin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antihistamines.

Quesiton 9.
Penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosorins, hydrogen peroxide, carbapenems.
Hydrogen peroxide. it is an antiseptic where as other are antimicrobials.

Question 10.
Hydrogen peroxide, povidone – iodine, chlorine compounds, benzalkonium chloride.
Chlorine compounds. It is a disinfectant whereas others arc antiseptic.

Question 11.
Ethynylestradiol, menstranol, hydrogen peroxide, norethindrone, norethynodrel.
Hydrogen peroxide. It is an antiseptic and a disinfectant whereas otheres are antifertility drugs.

Question 12.
Sodium benzoate, salt of sorbic acid, acetic acid, sodium bi carbonate, sodium meta suiphite.
Sodium bi carbonate. It is a baking soda whereas others are food preservatives.

Question 13.
BIIT, BHA, SO2, Vitamin E, sorbitol.
Sorbitol. It is a sugar substituent where as others are antioxidants.

Question 14.
Saccharin, butyl hydroxy toluene, aspartane, sucralose, alitaine.
Butyl hydroxy toluene, It is an antioxidant where as others are artificial sweetening agents.

Question 15.
Cellulose, polyester, silk.
Polyester. It is a synthetic polymer whereas others are natural polymer.

Question 16.
PVC, polythene, LDPE, cellulose, HDPE, bakelite
Cellulose, It is a natural polymer whereas others are synthetic polymers.

Question 17.
Polythcne, PVC, Bakelite, polystrene.
Bakelite. It is thermosetting plastic whereas others are thermoplastic.

Question 18.
Nylon 66, polyethylene, PVC, teflon.
Nylon 66. It is a condensation polymer whereas others are addition polymers.

Question 19.
Neoprene, bakelite, Buna – S, Buna – N.
Bakelite. It is a thermosetting plastic whereas others are synthetic rubber.

Question 20.
Nylon 66, Nylon 6, terylene, teflon, bakelite, melamine.
Teflon. It is an additional polymer whereas others are condensation polymers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 2 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term

1. medicine
2. chemotherapy

1. Medicine:
The drug which interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response is called medicine.

2. Chemotherapy:
The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as chemotherapy.

Question 2.
Define the term therapeutic index.
1. Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug (above which it becomes toxîc) and the minimum curative dose (below which the drug is ineffective).

2. Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer is the drug.

Question 3.
Write about the classification of drugs based on the target system.
1. In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system that they target in the recepient. For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erthyromycin inhibit the protein synthesis in bacteria and are classified in the same group.

2. However their mode of action is different. Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein.

Question 4.
Explain about the classification of drug based on the site of action.
1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors which are referred as drug targets. The drug is classified based on the drug target with which it binds.

2. This classification is highly specilic compared to others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 5.
What are

1. antagonists
2. agonists.

1. The drugs which binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists.
2. There are drugs which mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor. Those type of drugs are called agonists.

Question 6.
What is the difference between an agonist and antagonist?

1. Agonist and antagonist act in opposite directions. Agonist is a substance which combines with cell receptor to produce some reaction that is typical for that substance.
2. On the other hand antagonist is the chemical which opposes or reduces the natural function.

Question 7.
Explain the action of agonist and antagonist with proper example.
When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces sleepiness. So adenosine is an agonist. On the other hand, the antogonist drug coffeine binds to the adenosine receptor and makes it inactive. This results in the reduced sleepiness (wakefulness).

Question 8.
Why ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide?
To treat acidity, weak base such as magnesium hydroxide is used. But this weak base make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of much acid. This treatment only relieves the symptoms and does not control the cause. But ranitine stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall which binds the receptor and inactivate them. So ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide.

Question 9.
What is meant by non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs? Give example.
Non – steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin – induced increase in temperature. eg., ibuprofen.

Question 10.
What are narcotic analgesics? Give examples.

1. Narcotic analgesics are opioids that relieve pain and produce sleep. These drugs are addictive. In poisonous dose, these produces coma and ultimately death. eg, morphine, codeine,
2. These drugs are used for short term or long term relief of severe pain. Mainly used for post operative pain. Pain of terminal cancer.

Question 11.
What are general anaesthetics? Give example.

1. General anaesthetics are drugs cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system. e.g., propofol, iso flurane.
2. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 12.
What are local anaesthetics? Give example. Mention its uses.

1. Local anaesthetics cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibre to the brain. e.g., procaine, lidocaine
2. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

Question 13.
Draw the structure of propofol? Mention its use.
Propofol structure:

Question 14.
What are antihistamines? Give example and mention its use.

1. Antihistamines block histamine release from histamine – 1 receptors.
3. It is used to provide relief from the allergic effects.

Question 15.
What are antimicrobials? Mention its function and its uses.

1. Antimicrobials inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
2. e.g., penicillin, ampicillin.
3. It is used to treat skin infections, dental infections, ear infections, respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, urinary tract infections and gonorrhoea.

Question 16.
Draw the structure of penicillin? Give its use.

Penicillin is used to treat all type of infections pneumonia, urinary tract infections.

Question 17.
Draw the structure of ampicillin

Question 18.

1. Macrolids targets bacterial ribosomes and prevent protein production. e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin
2. It is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastro intestinal tract and skin infections.

Question 19.
What are fluoroquinolones? Give its function and uses.

1. Fluoro quinolones inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
2. e.g., clinafloxacin, ciprofloxacin
3. It is used to treat urinary tract infections, skin infections and respiratory infections, pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis.

Question 20.
What are tetracydines? Mention its function and uses.

1. Tetracyclines inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis via interaction with the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. eg., doxycycline, minocycline.
2. It is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, infections of the respiratory tract, cholera.

Question 21.
What are aminoglycosides? Give its function and uses.

1. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus stopping bacteria from making proteins.
2. It is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria.

Question 22.
What are food additives? Give example.

1. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called food additives.
2. e.g., Aroma compounds, antioxidants, preservatives, stabilizers, food colours, buffering substances are food additives.

Question 23.

1. Antioxidants are substances which retard the oxidative deteriotations of food. Food containing fats and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid, .
2. To prevent the oxidation of fats and oils, chemical BHT (butyl hydroxy toluene), BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole) are added as antioxidants.
3. These materials readily undergo oxidation by reacting with free radicals generated by the oxidation of oils there by stop the chain reaction of oxidation of food.
4. Sulphur dioxide, suiphites are also used as antioxidant and also act as antimicrobial agents and enzyme inhibitors.

Question 24.
What are sugarsubstituents? Give example.
The compounds that are used like sugars for sweetening, but are metabolised without the influence of insulin are called sugar substituents. e.g., sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol.

Question 25.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give example.
Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners. e.g., saccharin, aspartame, sucralose, alitame.

Question 26.
Define TFM value.

1. The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after spliting with mineral acids.
2. Higher the TFM value in the soap, better is its quality.
3. As per BIS standards, Grade I soaps should have 76% minimum TFM value.

Quesiton 27.
Write a note about natural rubber and give Its structure.
1. Rubber is a naturally occuring polymer. It is obtained from the latex that excludes from cuts in the bark of rubber tree.

2. The monomer unit of natural rubber is cis – iso prene (2 – methyl buta – 1,3 – diene). Thousands of isoprene units are linearly linked together in natural rubber. NaturaL rubber is not so strong (or) elastic. The properties of natural rubber can be modified by the process called vulcanization.

Question 28.
How is neoprene prepared? Give its use.
1. The free radical polymerisation of the monomer 2 – chloro buta 1,3 – diene (chioroprene) gives neoprene.

2. It is used in the manufacture of chemical container, conveyer belts.

Question 29.
How Is Buna – N prepared? Give its use.
1. Buna – N is prepared by the polymerisation of acrylonitile and buta – 1, 3 – diene

2. It is used in the manufacture of hoses and tank linings.

Question 30
How would you prepare Buna – S? Give its use.
Buna – S is prepared by the polymerisation of buta – 1, 3 – diene and styrene in the ratio of 3 : 1 in the presence of sodium.

Uses:
It is used in making pneumatic tires in shoe heels and soles, and in gaskets.

Question 31.
How will you prepare PHBV? Give its use?
1. The biodegrable polymer PHBV (Poly hydroxy butyrate-co hydroxyl valerate) is prepared by the polymerisation of monomers 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxy pentanoic acid.

2. It is used in orthopacdic devices añd in controlled release of drugs.

Question 32.
How would you prepare Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6 polymers?
Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6 is a co polymer which contains polyamide linkages. It is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of monomers glycine and E-amino caproic acid.

Question 33.
What are natural and synthetic polimers? Give two examples of each type.
Natural polymers:
Polymers which are found in nature, i.e., in animal and plants are called natural polymers. For example, proteins, starch, cellulose etc.

Synthetic polymers:
Man – made polymers are called synthetic polymers. For example plastics, synthetic fibres.

Question 34.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Homopolyers:
Polymers whose repeating structural units are dervied from only one type of monomer units are called homopolymers. For example, polythene, PVC, PAN etc.

Copolymers:
Polymers whose repeating units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are called co-polymers. For example, l3una – S, Buna – N, Nylon 6, 6 etc.

Question 35.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?
In this type of polymerisation, a large number of molecules of same or different monomers simply add to the other unit, leading to the formation of macromolecule. Addition polymerisation generally occurs among molecules containing double and triple bonds.

Condensation polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of independent condensation reactions usually with the elimination of simple molecules like water, alcohol, ammonia etc.

Question 36.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon – 6 and Nylon 6, 6?
Nylon 6 – Caprolactam. Nylon 6,6 – Adipic acid and Hexamethylenediamine

Question 37.
Write the names and structure of the monomers of the following polymers:

1. Buna – S
2. Buna – N
3. Dacron
4. Neoporene

1. Butadiene, CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 ; Styrene, C6H5 – CH = CH2

2. Butadiene, CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 ; Acrylonitrile,

3. Terephthalic acid, ; Ethylene glycol (Ethane – 1, 2 – diol)

4. Chloroprene, ; 2 – Chloro – 1, 3 – butadine is the monomer of neoprene.

Question 38.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Dacron is obtained by condensation polymerisation of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid with the elimination of water molecules:

Question 39.
What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Polymers which disintegrate by themselves over a period of time due to environmental degradation by bacteria, etc. are called biodegradable polymers. Example: PHBV (poly hydroxy butrate – co – β hydroxyvalcrate)

Question 40.
What is the difference between elastomers and fibres? Give one example of each.
Elastomers

1. These are rubber like solids with elastic properties.
2. These are held by the weak inter – molecular forces.
3. Example: Buna-S and Buna-N.

Fibres

1. These are th thread forming solids which possess high tensile strength and high modulus.
2. These are held together by strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding.
3. Example: Nylon 6, 6 and polyesters (terylene)

Question 41.
What are thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers? Give one example of each.
Thermoplastics:
Thermoplastics are linear polymers which can be repeatedly softened on heating and hardened on cooling and hence can be used again and again without any change in chemical composition and mechanical strength.

Thermosetting polymers:
Thermosetting polymers, are permanently setting polymers. On heating in a mould, they get hardened and set and cannot be softened again. This hardening on heating is due to cross linking between different polymeric chains which give rise to a three dimensional network solid. Example – Bakelite.

Question 42.
Differentiate between addition and condensation polymers based on the mode of polyrnerisation. Give one example of each type. 1

1. They are formed by adding monomers to a growing polymer chaìn without loss of any molecule.
2. They are formed from unsaturated compounds.
3. Example: Polyethene, polypropene.

Condensation polymers

1. They are formed by combining monomers together with the loss of small molecules like H2O, NH3, CO2 etc.
2. Monomers have di or polyfunctional groups.
3. Example: Nylon – 6, 6, Nylon – 6, Terylene.

Question 43.
Distinguish between ‘chain growth potymerisatlon and step growth polymerisation’ and give one example of each.
Chain growth polymerisation

1. Only one repeating unit is added at a time.
2. Reaction is fast and polymer is formed at once. Example – polythene.

Step growth polymerisatlon

1. Any two species present can react.
2. Polymer is formed in gradual steps. Examply – Nylon-6, 6.

Question 44.
How are biopolymers more beneficial than synthetic polymers?
Durability of synthetic polymers is advantageous, however it presents a serious waste disposable problem. In renewal of the disposable problem, biodegradable polymers are useful to us. Biopolymers arc safe in use. They disintegrate by themselves in biological system during a certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation and hence, are biodegradable. As a result, they do not cause any pollution.

Question 45.
Give the method of preparation of polyacrylonitrile?
The addition polymerisation of acrylonitrile in the presence of a peroxide catalyst leads to the formation of polycrylonitrile. It is used as a substitute for wool in making fibres such as orlon or acrilan.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 3 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the structures of

1. Suiphanilamide
2. p – nltro benzoic acid

1. Suiphanilamide

2. p – nitro benzoic acid:

Question 2.
Draw the structure of

2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

Question 3.

1. Analgesics
2. Antlinflammatory drugs
3. Antipyretlcs

1. Analgesics:
They alleviate pain by reducing local inflammatory response. They reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
Example: Paracetamol (Crocin).

2. Anti inflammatory drug:
They are used for short term pain relief and for modest pain like head ache, muscle strain, bruising or arthritis.
Example: Ibuprofen, Aspirin.

3. Antipyretics:
These drugs have many effects such as reducing fever, and preventing platelet coagulation.
Example: Aspirin.

Question 4.
Explain about anaesthetics with their types.
1. Local anaesthetics: It causes loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain. Example: Procaine, Li do Caine. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

2. General anaesthetics:
They cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
Example: Propofol, Isoflurane. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 5.
Draw the structure of

1. procaine
2. Lidocaine

1. Procaine

2. Lidocaine

Question 6.

1. Antacids neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
2. They are used to relieve burning sensation in the chest, throat area caused by acid reflux. Example – Milk of magnesia, alumminium hydroxide, Ranitidine, Cemitidino, Omeprazole, Rabeprazole.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Antiseptic and Disinfectants.
1. Antiseptic:
They are the drugs used to stop (or) slow down the growth of micro organism and they are applied to living tissue (body). Example: H2O2.

2. Disinfectant:
They are the drugs used to stop or slow the growth of micro organism and they are applied on inanimate objects (non living surfaces). Example: Chlorine compounds.

Question 8.

1. Uses of preservatives reduce the product spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
2. Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
3. Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
4. Antioxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Question 9.
Differentiate soap and detergents?
Soap

1. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid.
2. Soaps are made from animal (or) plant fats and oils.
3. Soaps have lesser cleansing action.
5. Soaps are less effective in hard water.
6. They have a tendency to form a scum in hard water.
7. Example: Sodium palmitate.

Detergent

1. Detergent is sodium salt of alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
2. Detergents are made from petrochemicals.
3. Detergents have more cleansing action.
4. Detergents are non – bio degradable.
5. Detergents are more effective even in hard water.
6. They do not form scum with hard water.
7. Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

Question 10.
What is LDPE? Give its preparation and uses.
1. LDPE is low density poiy ethylene. It is formed by heating ethene at 2000 to 300°C under oxygen as a catalyst. This reaction follows free radical mechanism. The peroxide formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.

2. LDPE is used as insulation for cables, making toys.

Question 11.
What is HDPE? Cive its preparation and use.

1. IIDPE is high density polyethylene. it is prepared by the polymerisation of ethylene at. 373k and 6 to 7 atm. using zeiglar Natta Catalyst)
2. It is used to make bottles, pipes.

Question 12.
What is Orlon? Give its preparation and use.
1. Orlon is poiy acrylonitrite (PAN). It is prepared by the addition of polymerisation of vinyl cyanide using a peroxide initiator.

2.

3. It is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters etc.

Question 13.
How will you prepare Nylon 6,6.? Give its use.
1. Nylon 6,6 can be prepared by mixing equimolar adipic acid and hexamethylene diaminc. With the elimination of water to form amide bonds.

2.

3. It is used in textiles, manufacture of cards.

Question 14.
How will you prepare Nylon – 6? Give its use.
1. Capro tactum on heating at 533k in an inert atmosphere with traces of water gives E amino caproic acid which polymerises to give Nylon 6.

2.

3. It is used in the manufacture of tyre cards, fabrics.

Question 15.
What is bakeite? How is it prepared? Give its uses.
1. Bakelite is a thermo setting plastic. It is prepared from the monomers such as phenol and formaldehyde. The condensalion polymerisation take place in the presence of acid or base catalyst.

2. Phenol reacts with methanal to form ortho or para hydroxyl methyl phenols which on further reaction with phenol gives linear polymer called novolac. Novolac on further healing with formaldehyde undergoes cross linkages to form bakelite.

3.

4.

1. Novolac is used in paints.
2. Soft bakelites are used in making glue for binding laminated wooden planks and in varnishes.
3. Hard bakelites are used to prepare combs, pens.

Question 16.
How Is melamlue prepared? Give its use?
Melamine and formaldehyde are the monomers. They undergo condensation polymerisation to form melamine formaldehyde resin.

Uses : It is used in making unbreakable crockery.

Question 17.
How is urea formaldehyde prepared?
It is formed by condensation polymerisation of the monomers urea and formaldehyde. Uses – it is used in decorative laminates, textiles, wrinkle resistant fabrics, paper and glue wood.

Question 18.
Mention one use of each of the following:

1. Ranitidine
2. Paracetamol
3. Tincture of iodine.

1. Rnitidine is used as an antacid.
2. Paracetamol is used to bring down the body temperature during high fever.
3. Tincture of iodine is used as an antiseptic. It is 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water.

Question 19.
Describe the following with suitable examples:

1. Preservatives
2. Artificial sweetening agents.

1. Preservatives:
Preservatives are the substances which are used to prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. Examples – Sodium benzoate, Common salt.

2. Artificial sweetening agents:
These are the chemical substances which are used to create sweet taste in food items in place of sugar.

Question 20.
Give one important use of each of the following:

1. Bithional
2. Chioramphenicol
3. Streptomycin
4. Paracetamol

1. Bithional is added to soap so as to impart antiseptic properties to the soap.
2. Chioramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic used in curing typhoid, meningitis.
3. Streptomycin is used for the treatment of T.B (Tuberculosis).
4. Paracetamol is an antipyretic used in bringing down temperature in high fever.

Question 21.
What are detergents? How are they classified? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
Detergents are suiphonate or hydrogen sulphate salts of long chain hydrocarbons containing 12-18 carbon atoms.
Types of detergents

1. Cationic detergents
2. Anionic detergents
3. Non-ionic detergents

Advantages of detergents over soaps: Unlike soaps they work well even with hard water. They can work well even in acidic water. They are more effective than soaps.

Question 22.

1. What class of drug is Ranitidine?
2. If water contains dissolved Ca2+ ions, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which will you use for cleaning clothes?
3. Which of the following is an antisepctic? 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol.

1. It is an antacid.
2. In this case we use synthetic detergents because it give foam with hard water.
3. 0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic.

Question 23.
Define the following by giving one example of each:

1. Antiseptics
2. Antioxidants
3. Narcotic analgesics

1. Antiseptics are the chemicals applied to the living tissues either to kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Example : dettol.
2. Antioxidants are the compounds which retards the action of oxygen on food and reduces its rate of decomposition by oxidation. Example: BHA.
3. Narcotic analgesics are the chemicals used for the relief of pst operative pain. Example – morphine.

Question 24.
In order to wash clothes which cleaning agent what will you prefer and why: soap or synthetic detergents? Give one advantage of soaps and synthetic detergents each.
Soaps have straight hydrocarbon chains and are easily degraded by bacteria present in the sewage water and hence, do not cause water pollution. Most of the detergents are non – biodegradable and hence cause water pollution of rivers and waterways. So, one will prefer soap.

Question 25.
Name the action of the following on the human body.

1. Aspirin
2. Penicillin
3. Phenacetin
4. Morphine
5. Analgin
6. Luminal
7. Seconal
8. Streptomycin

1. Aspirin is an analgesic which is used for relieving pain. It also prevents heart attack.
2. Penicillin is an antibiotic used against large number of infections caused by various cocci, gram positive bacteria, etc. It is an effective drug for pneumonia, bronchitis, sore throat.
3. Phenacetin is an antipyretic drug used to bring down the temperature of body in high fever.
4. Morphine is an strong analgesic. It is a narcotic drug. It cause addiction. It gives relief from acute pain, induce sleep and unconsciousness in higher doses.
5. Analgin is an antipyretic and analgesic. It brings down the temperature of body in fever and give relief from pain.
6. Luminal produces sleep and it is a habit forming drug. It is also called a sedative tranquilliser.
7. Seconal is an antidepressant (tranquiliser). Sometimes the patients are highly depressed and loses self – confidence. This drug produces feeling of well being and improved efficiency.
8. Streptomycin is used as an antibiotic. It is used to cure tuberculosis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 5 mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain free radical polymerisation with example.
1. When alkenes are heated with free radical initiator such as benzoyl peroxide, they undergo polymerisation reaction. For example, styrene polymerises to polystrene when it is heated with a peroxide initator. The mechanism involves the following steps.

2. Initiation – Formation of free radical.

3. Propagation step.

4. Chain growth will continue with the successive addition of several thousands of monomer units.

5. Termination:
The above chain reaction can be stopped by stopping the supply of monomer or by coupling of two chains or reaction with an impurity such as oxygen.

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of forces operating between their molecules? To which of these classes does nylon-6,6 belong?

1. Elastomers: The polymer chains are held together by weak intermolecular forces. Example – Buna – S, Buna – N, Neoprene.
2. Fibres: They have strong forces of attraction. Example – Polymides, (Nylon 6,6), polyesters.
3. Thermoplastics: They are long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. Example – Polythene, polystyrene.
4. Thermosetting plastics: They do not become soft on heating and cannot be remoulded. Example – Bakelite, Nylon – 6,6, belong to fibres.

Common Errors

1. Medicines – Molecular fonnula are not given only structural fotmula are drawn.

Rectifications

1. It is written by counting the C, H, O, N in the compound. For example. Aspirin on Acetyt salicylic acid.

## Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The file extension to save excel files are _______.
(a) xls or xlsx
(b) XL
(c) exe or XL
(d) XL or XLX
(a) xls or xlsx

Question 2.
Python has a collector to clean up unreferenced object.
(a) CSV
(b) Diet
(c) garbage
(d) close
(c) garbage

Question 3.
How many types of DML are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(b) 2

Question 4.
To open the file updating data, click _______.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) t
(d) +
(d) +

Question 5.
g++ is a program that calls GNU C compiler called _______.
(a) GCC
(b) CCC
(c) GGC
(d) GGG
(a) GCC

Question 6.
________ are used for interfacing with C programs.
(a) C types
(b) cython
(c) M in GW
(d) Boost python
(a) C types

Question 7.
Which function is used to print the data in dictionary format without order?
(a) dic()
(b) dict()
(c) dictionary
(d) print
(b) dict()

Question 8.
________ is a list containing another list as an element.
(a) N list
(b) Nested list
(c) List
(b) Nested list

Question 9.
In python, _______ function is used to accept data as input at run time.
(a) accept
(b) int
(c) input
(d) in
(c) input

Question 10.
Which one of the following is the exponential operator?
(a) *
(b) **
(c) ++
(d) //
(b) **

Question 11.
A ______ is a part of a program.
(a) code
(b) module
(c) flow chart
(d) system software
(b) module

Question 12.
The arrangement of private instance variables and public methods ensures the principle of _______.
(a) security
(b) data encapsulation
(c) class
(d) inheritance
(b) data encapsulation

Question 13.
How many operands are there in ternary operator?
(a)0
(b) 1
(c)2
(d) 3
(d) 3

Question 14.
Pow (2, -3) gives ________.
(a) 8
(b) -8
(c) 0.125
(d) 1
(c) 0.125

Question 15.
______ assign values to the tables specified in the bar chart.
(a) usage
(b) label
(c) values
(d) =
(a) usage

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Differentiate Interface and Implementation.
Interface:
Interface just defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it.

Implementation:
Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface.

Question 17.
Give example for valid Identifiers.
Sum, total marks, regno, num 1.

Question 18.
Define SQL.
The Structured Query Language (SQL) is a standard programming language to access and manipulate databases. SQL allows the user to create, retrieve, alter, and transfer information
among databases.

Question 19.
Give example for open function.
>>> f = open(“sample.txt”) # open file in current directory and f is file object
>>> f = open(‘c:\\pyprg\\ch 13sample5.csv’) # specifying full path

Question 20.
Constructor is the special function that is automatically executed when an object of a class is created. In Python, there is a special function called “init” which act as a Constructor. It must begin and end with double underscore. This function will act as an ordinary function; but only difference is, it is executed automatically when the object is created. This constructor function f can be defined with or without arguments. This method is used to initialize the class variables.

Question 21.
Write a program to print the following output.

Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
plt.plot([l ,2,3,4])
plt.show()
Output
This window is a matplotlib window, which allows you to see your graph. You can hover the graph and see the coordinates in the bottom right.

Question 22.
Which punctuation should be used in the blank?
if <condition>_
statements-block 1
else:
statements-block 2
(a) ;
(b) :
(c) ::
(d) !
(6) :

Question 23.
Define Required Arguments.
“Required Arguments” are the arguments passed to a function in correct positional order. Here, the number of arguments in the function call should match exactly with the function definition. You need atleast one parameter to prevent syntax errors to get the required output.

Question 24.
Write note on Assignment operators.
In Python, = is a simple assignment operator to assign values to variable. Let a = 5 and b = 10 assigns the value 5 to a and 10 to b these two assignment statement can also be given as a,b=5,10 that assigns the value 5 and 10 on the right to the variables a and b respectively. There are various compound operators in Python like +=, -=, *=, /=, %=, **= and //= are also available.

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Write note on Asymptotic Notations. Classify them.
Asymptotic Notations are languages that uses meaningful statements about time and space complexity. The following three asymptotic notations are mostly used to represent time complexity of algorithms:
(i) Big O
Big O is often used to describe the worst-case of an algorithm.

(ii) Rig Ω
Big Omega is the reverse Big O, if Bi O is used to describe the upper bound (worst – case) of a asymptotic function, Big Omega is used to describe the lower bound (best-case).

(iii) Big Θ
When an algorithm has a complexity with lower bound = upper bound, say that an algorithm has a complexity O (n log n) and Ω (n log n), it’s actually has the complexity Θ (n log n), which means the running time of that algorithm always falls in n log n in the best-case and worst-case.

Question 26.
Write note on CSV files.
CSV File cannot store charts or graphs. It stores data but does not contain formatting, formulas, macros, etc.
A CSV file is also known as a Flat File. Files in the CSV format can be imported to and exported from programs that store data in tables, such as Microsoft Excel or Open Office Calc.

Question 27.
Write note on where clause in SQL.
The WHERE clause is used to filter the records. It helps to extract only those records which satisfy a given condition. For example in the student table, to display the list of students of age 18 and above in alphabetical order of their names, the command is given as below: SELECT * FROM Student WHERE Age>=18 ORDER BY Name;

To display the list of students in the descending order of names of those students of age 18 and above the command is given as :
SELECT * FROM Student WHERE Age>= 18 ORDER BY Name DESC;

Question 28.
Give an example and syntax for group by clause.
The syntax for the GROUP BY clause is
SELECT <column-names> FROM <table-name> GROUP BY <column-name>HAVING condition];
To apply the above command on the student table :
SELECT Gender FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;
The following command will give the below given result:
Gender
M
F

The point to be noted is that only two results have been returned. This is because we only have two gender types ‘Male’ and ‘Female’. The GROUP BY clause grouped all the ‘M’ students together and returned only a single row for it. It did the same with the ‘F’ students. For example to count the number of male and female students in the student table, the following command is given :

SELECT Gender, count(*) FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;

 Gender Count* M 5 F 3

Question 29.
Illustrate with an example program to change global variable from inside a function using global keyword.
x = 0 # global variable
global x
x = x + 5 # increment by 2
print (“Inside add() function x value is :”,x)
print (“In main x value is :”,x)
Output:
Inside add() function x value is : 5
In main x value is : 5

Question 30.
Write note on Lambda functions.

• Lambda function is mostly used for creating small and one-time anonymous function.
• Lambda functions are mainly used in combination with the functions like filter(), map() and reduce().

Question 31.
Give any 3 applications of scripting language.

1. To automate certain tasks in a program.
2. Extracting information from a data set.
3. Less code intensive as compared to traditional programming language.

Question 32.
Give program to join two tuples
# Program to join two tuples
Tup 1 =(2,4,6,8,10)
Tup2 = (1,3,5,7,9)
Tup3 = Tup1 + Tup2
print(Tup3)
Output
(2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9)

Question 33.
Find output:
for x in range (2,11,2) :
Print (x)
Output:
2 4 6 8 10

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Compare CSV files with XLS file.
Excel:

• Excel is a binary file that holds information about all the worksheets in a file, including both content and formatting.
• XLS files can only be read by applications that have been especially written to read their format, and can only be written in the same way.
• Excel is a spreadsheet that saves files into its own proprietary format viz. xls or xlsx.
• Excel consumes more memory while importing data.

CSV:

• CSV format is a plain text format with a series of values separated by commas.
• CSV can be opened with any text editor in Windows like notepad, MS Excel, OpenOffice, etc.
• CSV is a format for saving tabular information into a delimited text file with extension .csv
• Importing CSV files can be much faster, and it also consumes less memory.

[OR]

(b) Explain any 5 important features of python over C++.

• Python uses Automatic Garbage Collection whereas C++ does not.
• C++ is a statically typed language, while Python is a dynamically typed language.
• Python runs through an interpreter, while C++ is pre-compiled.
• Python code tends to be 5 to 10 times shorter than that written in C++.
• In Python, there is no need to declare types explicitly where as it should be done in C++
• In Python, a function may accept an argument of any type, and return multiple values without any kind of declaration beforehand. Whereas in C++ return statement can return only one value.

Question 35.
(a) Write a program to update a change range of values.
MyList = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9]
print (“List Odd numbers… “)
for x in MyList:
print (x)
MyList[0:5] = 2,4,6,8,10
print (“List Even numbers… “)
for y in MyList:
print (y)

Output
List Odd numbers…
1
3
5
7
9
List Even numbers…
2
4
6
8
10

[OR]

(b) Explain list and range ( ) functions in python with sample program.
The range( ) is a function used to generate a series of values in Python. Using range( ) function, you can create list with series of values. The range() function has three arguments.
Syntax of range ( ) function:
range (start value, end value, step value)
where,

• start value – beginning value of series. Zero is the default beginning value.
• end value – upper limit of series. Python takes the ending value as upper limit – 1.
• step value – It is an optional argument, which is used to generate different interval of values.

Example : Generating whole numbers up to 10
for x in range (1, 11):
print(x)

Output
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Question 36.
(a) Find output:
T = (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
1. Print (T)
2. Print ( T [2:5] )
3. Print ( T[:5] )
4. Print ( T[4:] )
5. Print ( T [:])
1. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
2. (91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”)
3. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”)
4. (“Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
5. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)

[OR]

(b) Find Output:
T = (2,4,6, 8,10)
Print (T)
del T
Print (T)
(2, 4, 6, 8, 10)
Name Error: name “T” not defined.

Question 37.
(a) Differentiate Algorithm with program.
Algorithm:

• Algorithm helps to solve a given problem logically and it can be contrasted with the program.
• Algorithm can be categorized based on their implementation methods, design techniques etc.
• There is no specific rules for algorithm writing but some guidelines should be followed.
• Algorithm resembles a pseudo code which can be implemented in any language.

Program:

• Program is an expression of algorithm in a programming language.
• Algorithm can be implemented by structured or object oriented programming approach.
• Program should be written for the selected language with specific syntax.
• Program is more specific to a programming language.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various characteristics of an Algorithm.

• Input: Zero or more quantities to be supplied.
• Output: At least one quantity is produced.
• Finiteness: Algorithms must terminate after finite number of steps.
• Definiteness: All operations should be well defined. For example operations involving division by zero or taking square root for negative number are unacceptable.
• Effectiveness: Every instruction must be carried out effectively.
• Correctness: The algorithms should be error free.
• Simplicity: Easy to implement.
• Unambiguous: Algorithm should be clear and unambiguous. Each of its steps and their inputs/outputs should be clear and must lead to only one meaning.
• Feasibility: Should be feasible with the available resources.
• Portable: An algorithm should be generic, independent of any programming language or an operating system able to handle all range of inputs.
• Independent: An algorithm should have step-by-step directions, which should be independent of any programming code.

Question 38.
(a) Explain literals in python.
Literal is a raw data given in a variable or constant. In Python, there are various types of literals.
(i) Numeric (ii) String (iii) Boolean

(i) Numeric Literals: Numeric Literals consists of digits and are immutable (unchangeable).
Numeric literals can belong to 3 different numerical types Integer, Float and Complex.
To demonstrate Numeric literals
# Program to demonstrate Numeric Literals
a = 0b 1010 #Binary Literals
b = 100 #Decimal Literal
c = 0o310 #Octal Literal
print (“Integer Literals :”,a,b,c,d)
#Float Literal
float_1 = 10.5
float_2 = 1.5e2
print (“Float Literals :”,float_l,float_2)
#Complex Literal
x = 1 + 3.14 j
print (“Complex Literals :”, x)
Print (“x = “, x , “Imaginary part of x = “, x.imag, “Real part of x = “, x.real)
#End of the Program

Output:
Integer Literals : 10 100 200 300
Float Literals : 10.5 150.0
Complex Literals :
x = (1.3.14) Imaginary part of x = 3.14 Real part of 9 x = 1.0

(ii) String Literals: In Python a string literal is a sequence of characters surrounded by quotes. Python supports single, double and triple quotes for a string. A character literal is a single character surrounded by single or double quotes. The value with triple-quote is used to give multi line string literal.

(iii) Boolean Literals: A Boolean literal can have any of the two values: True or False.

(iv) Escape Sequences: In Python strings, the backslash “\” is a special character, also called the “escape” character. It is used in representing certain whitespace characters: “\t” is a tab, “\n” is a newline, and “\r” is a carriage return. For example to print the message “It’s raining”, the Python command is
>>> print (“It\’s rainning”)
It’s rainning
Python supports the following escape sequence characters.

[OR]

(b) Explain Recursive functions in python.
When a function calls itself is known as recursion. Recursion works like loop but sometimes it makes more sense to use recursion than loop. You can convert any loop to recursion.

A recursive function calls itself. Imagine a process would iterate indefinitely if not stopped by some condition! Such a process is known as infinite iteration. The condition that is applied in any recursive function is known as base condition. A base condition is must in every recursive function otherwise it will continue to execute like an infinite loop.

Overview of how recursive function works
(i) Recursive function is called by some external code.
(ii) If the base condition is met then the program gives meaningful output and exits.
(iii) Otherwise, function does some required processing and then calls itself to continue recursion. .

Example:
def fact(n):
if n == 0:
return 1
else:
return n * fact (n-1)
print (fact (0))
print (fact (5))
Output:
1
120

## Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A steady increase in general price level is termed as……….
(a) Wholesale price index
(c) Inflation
(d) National income
(c) Inflation

Question 2.
The word ‘Macro’ is derived from the Greek word………….
(a) Makros
(b) Macros
(c) Macrow
(d) mac
(a) Makros

Question 3.
When net factor income from abroad is deducted from NNP, the net value is………..
(a) Gross National Product
(b) Disposable Income
(c) Net Domestic Product
(d) Personal Income
(c) Net Domestic Product

Question 4.
Who first introduced the concept of national Income?
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Marshall
(a) Simon Kuznets

Question 5.
The core of the classical theory of employment is
(a) Law of Diminishing Return
(b) Law of Demand
(c) Law of Markets
(d) Law of Consumption
(c) Law of Markets

Question 6.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
(b) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

Question 7.
An increase in the marginal propensity to consume will:
(a) Lead to consumption function becoming steeper
(b) Shift the consumption function upwards
(c) Shift the consumption function downwards
(d) Shift savings function upwards
(a) Lead to consumption function becoming steeper

Question 8.
State whether the statement is true or false.
(a) Keynes propounded the fundamental psychological law of consumption.
(ii) J.M. Keynes has divided factors influencing the consumption function.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 9.
………… inflation results in a serious depreciation of the value of money.
(a) Creeping
(b) Walking
(c) Running
(d) Hyper
(d) Hyper

Question 10.
Bank rate is lowered during………….
(a) Inflation
(b) Price
(c) Employment
(d) Deflation
(d) Deflation

Question 11.
Bank Rate means………..
(a) Re-discounting the first class securities
(b) Interest rate
(c) Exchange rate
(d) Growth rate
(a) Re-discounting the first class securities

Question 12.
Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) RBI – Reserve Bank of India
(b) SBI – State Bank of India
(c) IMF – International Monetary Fund
(d) ATM – Any Time Money
(d) ATM – Any Time Money

Question 13.
Exchange rates are determined in ……….
(a) money market
(b) foreign exchange market
(c) stock market
(d) capital market
(b) foreign exchange market

Question 14.
Foreign Investment mostly takes the form of………….
(a) Indirect investment
(b) Direct investment
(c) IMF investment
(d) World bank investment
(b) Direct investment

Question 15.
New Development Bank is associated with…………..
(a) BRICS
(b) WTO
(c) SAARC
(d) ASEAN
(a) BRICS

Question 16.
Assertion (A): SAARC is promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and improve their quality of life.
Reason (R): To strengthen co-operation with other under developing countries.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 17.
Methods of repayment of public debt is…………
(a) Conversion
(b) Sinking fund
(c) Funded debt
(d) All of these
(d) All of these

Question 18.
………. means different sources of government income.
(a) Public finance
(b) Public revenue
(c) Public expenditure
(d) Public credit
(b) Public revenue

Question 19.
Which of the following is main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 20.
M.N. Roy was associated with ………….
(a) Congress Plan
(b) People’s Plan
(c) Bombay Plan
(d) None of the above
(b) People’s Plan

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define ‘Economic Model’.

1. A model is a simplified representation of real situation.
2. Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships and their behaviour.
3. A model is an explanation of how the economy, or part of the economy, works.
4. Most economic models are built with mathematics, graphs and equations, and attempt to explain relationships between economic variables.

Question 22.
Define Profit Motive.
Profit Motive: Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy. Each individual and organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit. Advance technology, division of labour, and specialisation are followed. The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is ‘to maximize profit.’

Question 23.
Define National Income.
National Income means the total money value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a particular period of time (one year).

Question 24.
Define “Capital Gains”.
The problem also arises with regard to capital gains. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Question 25.
Define full employment.
Full employment refers to a situation in which every able bodied person who is willing to work at the prevailing wage rate, is employed. In other words full employment means that persons who are willing to work and able to work must have employment or a job.

Question 26.
What do you mean by propensity to save?

1. Thus the consumption function measures not only the amount spent on consumption but also the amount saved.
2. This is because the propensity to save is merely the propensity not to consume.
3. The 45° line may therefore be regarded as a zero-saving line, and the shape and position of the C curve indicate the division of income between consumption and saving.

Question 27.
Define “Ceteris paribus”.
Ceteris paribus (constant extraneous variables): The other variables such as income distribution, tastes, habits, social customs, price movements, population growth, etc. do not change and consumption depends on income alone.

Question 28.
Write IMF Functions group.
The functions of the IMF are grouped under three heads.

1. Financial – Assistance to correct short and medium term deficit in BOP;
2. Regulatory – Code of conduct and ‘
3. Consultative – Counseling and technical consultancy.

Question 29.
Define public finance.
“Public finance is one of those subjects that lie on the border line between Economics and Politics. It is concerned with income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one to the other”. – Huge Dalton
“Public finance is an investigation into the nature and principles of the state revenue and expenditure”. – Adam Smith

Question 30.
State the meaning of environment.
Meaning of Environmental Economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity and makes choices based on those values. The goal is to balance the economic activity and the environmental impacts by taking into account all the costs and benefits.

In short, Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies. Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic ‘ effects of national or local environmental policies around the world.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Indicate the demerits of socialism.
Demerits of Socialism:

1. Red Tapism and Bureaucracy: As decision are taken by government agencies, approval of many officials and movement of files from one table to other takes time and leads to red tapism.
2. Absence of Incentive: The major limitation of socialism is that this system does not provide any incentive for efficiency. Therefore, productivity also suffers.
3. Limited Freedom of Choice: Consumers do not enjoy freedom of choice over the consumption of goods and services.
4. Concentration of Power: The State takes all major decisions. The private takes no initiative in making economic decisions. Hence, the State is more powerful and misuse of power can also take place.

Question 32.
Differentiate between personal and disposable income.

 Personal income Disposable income Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year. Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income. It is the individuals income after the payment of income tax. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Question 33.
What is the main feature of rural unemployment?

1. India’s rural economy has both unemployment and underemployment.
2. The major feature of rural unemployment is the existence of unemployment in the form of disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment.
3. In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.

Question 34.
Compare the Classical Theory of international trade with Modern Theory of International trade.

 S.No. Classical Theory of International TVade Modern Theory of International Trade 1. The classical theory explains the phenomenon of international trade on the basis of labour theory of value. The modem theory explains the phenomenon of international trade on the basis of general theory of value. 2. It presents a one factor (labour) model. It presents a multi – factor (labour and capital) model. 3. It attributes the differences in the comparative costs to differences in the productive efficiency of workers in the two countries. It attributes the differences in comparative costs to the differences in factor endowments in the two countries.

Question 35.
Write the agenda of BRICS Summit, 2018.
South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS summit in July 2018. The agenda for BRICS summit 2018 includes Inclusive growth, Trade issues, Global governance, Shared Prosperity, International peace and security.

Question 36.
Write the preparation of the Budget.
Preparation of the Budget
The Ministry of Finance prepares the Central Budget every year. At the state level the finance department is responsible for the Annual State Budget. While preparing the budget, the following factors are taken into account.

1. The macro economic targets to be achieved within a plan period;
2. The basic strategy of the budget;
3. The financial requirements of different projects;
4. Estimates of the revenue expenditures (includes defence expenditure, subsidy, interest payment on debt etc.)
5. Estimates of the capital expenditures (includes development of railways, roadways, irrigations etc.);
6. Estimates of revenue receipts from tax and non-tax revenues;
7. Estimates of capital receipts from the recovery of loans, disinvestment of public sector units, market borrowings etc.
8. Estimates of the gap between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure; and
9. Estimates of fiscal deficit, primary deficit and revenue deficit.

Question 37.
Explain the principles of organic farming.
The general principles of organic farming are:

1. Protect the environment, minimize soil degradation and erosion, decrease pollution, optimize biological productivity and promote a sound state of health.
2. Maintain long-term soil fertility by optimizing conditions for biological activity within the soil.
3. Maintain biological diversity within the system.
4. Recycle materials and resources to the greatest extent possible within the enterprise.
5. Provide attentive care that promotes the health and meets the behavioural needs of livestock.
6. Prepare organic products, emphasizing careful processing, and handling methods in order to maintain the organic integrity and vital qualities of the products at all stages of production.

Question 38.
What are the functions of statistics?

1. Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
2. It simplifies mass of figures.
3. It facilitates comparison.
4. It helps in formulating and testing.
5. It helps in prediction.
6. It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.

Question 39.
State the concept of super multiplier.
Super Multiplier: (k and β interaction)

1. The super multiplier is greater than simple multiplier which includes only autonomous investment and no induced investment, while super multiplier includes induced investment.
2. In order to measure the total effect of initial investment on income, Hicks has combined the k and β mathematically and given it the name of the Super Multiplier.
3. The super multiplier is worked out by combining both induced consumption and induced investment.

Question 40.
What is the main difference between Adam Smith and Ricardo with regard to the emergence of foreign trade?

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. The functioning of an economy by its activities is explained in flow chart.

1. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
2. These two activities are supported by several other activities.
3. The ultimate aim of these activities is to achieve growth. The ‘exchange activity’ supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non-economic activities.
4. The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy and others.
5. The major non-economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment,
governance, regulations etc.

In addition to these supporting activities, external activities from other economies such as import, export, international relations, emigration, immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings, etc. also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of social accounting in economic analysis.
National Income and Social Accounting:

1. National income is also being measured by the social accounting method.
2. Under this method, the transactions among various sectors such as firms, households, government, etc., are recorded and their interrelationships traced.
3. The social accounting framework is useful for economists as well as policy makers, because it represents the major economic flows and statistical relationships among various sectors of the economic system.
4. It becomes possible to forecast the trends of economy more accurately.

Social Accounting and Sector:
Under this method, the economy is divided into several sectors. A sector is a group of individuals or institutions having common interrelated economic transactions. The economy is divided into the following sectors:

1. Firms,
2. Households,
3. Government,
4. Rest of the world and
5. Capital sector.

1. “Firms” undertake productive activities. Thus, they are all organizations which employ the factors of production to produce goods and services.
2. “Households” are consuming entities and represent the factors of production, who receive payment for services rendered by them to firms. Households consume the goods and services that are produced by the firms.
3. “The Government sector” refers to the economic transactions of public bodies at all levels, centre, state and local. The main function of the government is to provide social goods like defence, public health, education, etc.
4. “Rest of the world sector” relates to international economic transactions of the country. It contains income, export and import transactions, external loan transaction, and allied overseas investment income and payments.
5. “Capital sector” refers to saving and investment activities. It includes the transactions of banks, insurance corporations, financial houses, and other agencies of the money market.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the following in short:
(i) Seasonal unemployment
(ii) Frictional unemployment
(iii) Educated unemployment Seasonal Unemployment:
(i) Seasonal unemployment

1. This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
2. In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
3. These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
4. Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry,
holiday resorts etc.

(ii) Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

1. Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
2. This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery, shortage of raw materials etc.
3. The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

(iii) Educated Unemployment:

1. Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does not match the job.
2. Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

[OR]

(b) Describe the types of unemployment.
The following are the types of unemployment.

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Seasonal Unemployment
3. Frictional Unemployment
4. Educated Unemployment
5. Technical Unemployment
6. Structural Unemployment
7. Disguised Unemployment

1. Cyclical Unemployment:

• This unemployment exists during the downturn phase of trade cycle in the economy.
• In a business cycle during the period of recession and depression, income and output fall leading to widespread unemployment.
• It is caused by deficiency of effective demand.
• Cyclical unemployment can be cured by public investment or expansionary monetary policy.

2. Seasonal Unemployment:

• This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
• In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
• These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
• Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry, holiday resorts etc.

3. Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

• Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
• This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery, shortage of raw materials etc.
• The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

4. Educated Unemployment:

• Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does not match the job.
• Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

5. Technical Unemployment:

• Modem technology being capital intensive requires less labourers and contributes to technological unemployment.
• Now a days, invention and innovations lead to the adoption of new techniques there by the existing workers are retrenched.
• Labour saving devices are responsible for technological unemployment.

6. Structural Unemployment:

• Structural unemployment is due to drastic change in the structure of the society.
• Lack of demand for the product or shift in demand to other products cause this type of unemployment.
• For example rise in demand for mobile phones has adversely affected the demand for cameras, tape recorders etc.
• So this kind of unemployment results from massive and deep rooted changes in economic structure.

7. Disguised Unemployment:

• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are than what is actually required.
• Even if some workers are withdrawn, production does not suffer.
• This type of unemployment is found in agriculture.
• A person is said to be disguisedly by unemployed if his contribution to output is less than what he can produce by working for normal hours per day.
• In this situation, marginal productivity of labour is zero or less or negative.

Question 43 (a).
Mention the differences between accelerator and multiplier effect.

[OR]

(b) What are the causes of inflation on the economy?
Causes of Inflation:
The main causes of inflation in India are as follows:
(i) Increase in Money Supply: Inflation is caused by an increase in the supply of money which leads to increase in aggregate demand. The higher the growth rate of the nominal money supply, the higher is the rate of inflation.

(ii) Increase in Disposable Income: When the disposable income of the people increases, it raises their demand for goods and services. Disposable income may increase with the rise in national income or reduction in taxes or reduction in the saving of the people.

(iii) Increase in Public Expenditure: Government activities have been expanding due to developmental activities and social welfare programmes. This is also a cause for price rise.

(iv) Increase in Consumer Spending: The demand for goods and services increases when they are given credit to buy goods on hire-purchase and installment basis.

(v) Cheap Monetary Policy: Cheap monetary policy or the policy of credit expansion also leads to increase in the money supply which raises the demand for goods and services
in the economy.

(vi) Deficit Financing: In order to meet its mounting expenses, the government resorts to deficit financing by borrowing from the public and even by printing more notes.

(vii) Black Assests, Activities and Money: The existence of black money and black assests due to corruption, tax evasion etc., increase the aggregate demand. People spend such money, lavishly. Black marketing and hoarding reduces the supply of goods.

(viii) Repayment of Public Debt: Whenever the government repays its past internal debt to the public, it leads to increase in the money supply with the public.

(ix) Increase in Exports: When exports are encouraged, domestic supply of goods decline. So prices rise.

Question 44 (a).
Explain the role of Commercial Banks in economic development.
Role of Commercial Banks in Economic Development of a Country
(i) Capital Formation:

1. Banks play an important role in capital formation, which is essential for the economic development of a country.
2. They mobilize the small savings of the people scattered over a wide area through their network of branches all over the country and make it available for productive purposes.

(ii) Creation of Credit:

1. Banks create credit for the purpose of providing more funds for development projects.
2. Credit creation leads to increased production, employment, sales and prices and thereby they bring about faster economic development.

(iii) Channelizing the Funds towards Productive Investment:

1. Banks invest the savings mobilized by them for productive purposes.
2. Capital formation is not the only function of commercial banks.

(iv) Encouraging Right Type of Industries:

1. Many banks help in the development of the right type of industries by extending loan to right type of persons.
2. In this way, they help not only for industrialization of the country but also for the economic development of the country.
3. They grant loans and advances to manufacturers whose products are in great demand.

(v) Banks Monetize Debt:

1. Commercial banks transform the loan to be repaid after a certain period into cash, which can be immediately used for business activities.
2. Manufacturers and wholesale traders cannot increase their sales without selling goods on credit basis.

(vi) Finance to Government:

1. Government is acting as the promoter of industries in underdeveloped countries for which finance is needed for it.
2. Banks provide long-term credit to Government by investing their funds in Government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills.

(vii) Employment Generation:

1. After the nationalization of big banks, banking industry has grown to a great extent.
2. Bank’s branches are opened frequently, which leads to the creation of new employment opportunities.

(viii) Banks Promote Entrepreneurship:
In recent days, banks have assumed the role of developing entrepreneurship particularly in developing countries like India by inducing new entrepreneurs to take up the well- formulated projects and provision of counseling services like technical and managerial guidance.

[OR]

(b) State the objectives of Foreign Direct Investment.
Objectives of FDI:
FDI has the following objectives.

1. Sales Expansion
2. Acquisition of resources
3. Diversification
4. Minimization of competitive risk.

(i) FDI may help to increase the investment level and thereby the income and employment in the host country.
(ii) Direct foreign investment may facilitate transfer of technology to the recipient country.
(iii) FDI may also bring revenue to the government of host country when it taxes profits of foreign firms or gets royalties from concession agreements.
(iv) A part of profit from direct foreign investment may be ploughed back into the expansion, modernization or development of related industries.
(v) It may kindle a managerial revolution in the recipient country through professional management and sophisticated management techniques.
(vi) Foreign capital may enable the country to increase its exports and reduce import requirements. And thereby ease BOP disequilibrium.
(vii) Foreign investment may also help increase competition and break domestic monopolies.
(viii) If FDI adds more value to output in the recipient country than the return on capital from foreign investment, then the social returns are greater than the private returns on foreign investment.
(ix) By bringing capital and foreign exchange FDI may help in filling the savings gap and the foreign exchange gap in order to achieve the goal of national economic development.
(x) Foreign investments may stimulate domestic enterprise to invest in ancillary industries in collaboration with foreign enterprises.

Question 45 (a).
What are the causes for the increase in government expenditure?
The modem state is a welfare state. In a welfare state, the government has to perform several functions viz Social, Economic and political. These activities are the cause for increasing public expenditure.
1. Population Growth
During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore in 1951, to 121 Crore in 2011. The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and order, etc. Young population requires increasing expenditure on education and youth services, whereas the aging population requires transfer payments like old age pension, social security and health facilities.

2. Defence Expenditure
There has been enormous increase in defence expenditure in India during planning period. The defence expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernisation of defence equipment. The defence expenditure of the government was Rs 10,874 crores in 1990-91 which increased significantly to Rs 2,95,511 crores.

3. Government Subsidies .
The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food, fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc. Because of the massive amounts of subsidies, the public expenditure has increased manifold..

The expenditure on subsidies by central government in 1990-91 was Rs 9581 crores which increased significantly to Rs 2,29,715.67 crores in 2018-19. Besides this, the corporate sectors also receive subsidies (incentives) of more than Rs 5 lakh crores.

4. Debt Servicing
The Government has been borrowihg heavily both from the internal and external sources. As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt servicing.
The interest payment of the central government has increased from Rs 21,500 crores in 1990-91 to Rs 5,75,794 crores in 2018-19.

5. Development Projects
The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc. The development projects involve huge investment.

6. Urbanization
There has been an increase in urbanization. In 1950-51 about 17% of the population was urban based. Now the urban population has increased to about 43%. There are more than 54 cities above one million population. The increase in urbanization requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amenities.

7. Industrialization
Setting up of basic and heavy industries involves a huge capital and long gestation period. It is the government which starts such industries in a planned economy. The under developed countries need a strong of infrastructure like transport, communication, power, fuel, etc….

8. Increase in grants in aid to state and union territories
There has been tremendous increase in grant – in – aid to state and union territories to meed natural disasters.

[OR]

(b) Describe the types of exchange rates.
Exchange rates are also in the form of (a) Nominal exchange rate (b) Real exchange rate (c) Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and (d) Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER).
If 1 US Dollar = Rs 75
Nominal exchange rate = 75/1 = 75.
This is the bilateral nominal exchange rate.
Real Exchange Rate = $$\frac{ep_f}{p}$$
P = Price levels in India
P = Price levels in India
e = nominal exchange rate
If a pen costs Rs 50 in India and it costs 5 USD in the US,
Real Exchange Rate = = $$\frac{75×5}{5}$$ = 7.5
If real exchange rate is equal to 1, the currencies are at purchasing power parity.
If the price of the pen in US = 0.66 USD, then,
the real exchange rate = = $$\frac{0.66×75}{50}$$
then it could be said that the USD and Indian Rupee are at purchasing power parity.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the Cambridge approach.
(OR)
Cash Balance approach of Marshall equation.
Marshall’s Equation
The Marshall equation is expressed as:
M = KPY
Where
M is the quantity of money
Y is the aggregate real income of the community
P is Purchasing Power of money
K represents the fraction of the real income which the public desires to hold in the form of money
Thus, the price level P = M/KY or the value of money in terms of this equation can be found out by dividing the total quantity of goods which the public desires to holdout of the total income by the total supply of money.
According to Marshall’s equation the value of money is influenced not only by change in M, but also by changes in K.

[OR]

(b) Write the flow chart of correction of balance of payment disequilibrium?

Question 47 (a).
Explain the methods of debt redemption.
Methods of Redemption of Public Debt:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.
(i) Sinking Fund:

1. “Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
2. The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
3. By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
4. This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(ii) Sinking Fund:
Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.

1. It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
2. Under this system a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
3. Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(iii) Budgetary Surplus:

1. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
2. Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
3. However, this method is rarely possible.

(iv) Terminal Annuity:

1. In this method, Government pays off the public debt on the basis of terminal annuity in equal annual installments.
2. This is the easiest way of paying off the public debt.

(v) Repudiation:

1. It is the easiest way for the Government to get rid of the burden of payment of a loan.
2. In such cases, the Government does not recognise its obligation to repay the loan.
3. It is certainly not paying off a loan but destroying it.
4. However, in normal case the Government does not do so; if done it will lose its credibility,

(vi) Reduction in Rate of Interest:
Another method of debt redemption is the compulsory reduction in the rate of interest, during the time of financial crisis.

(vii) Capital Levy:

1. When the Government imposes levy on the capital assets owned by an individual or any institution, it is called capital levy.
2. This levy is imposed on capital assets above a minimum limit on a progressive scale.
3. The fund so collected can be used by the Government for paying off war time debt obligations.
4. This is the most controversial method of debt repayment

[OR]

(b) Differentiate the economic model with econometric model.

 S.No. Economic Model Econometric Model 1 Economic model is the theoretical construct that represents the complex economic process. Econometric model is the statistical concept that represents the numerical estimate of the variables involved in economic process. 2 Economic model is based on mathematical modeling. Econometric model is based on statistical modeling. 3 Economic model is focused on establishing the logical relationships between the variables in the model. Econometric model is focused on estimating the magnitude and direction of relationship between the variables. 4 Economic model is applied in stating the theoretical relationship into mathematical equations. Econometric model is applied in stating the empirical extent of the economic model. 5 Economic model believes that outcome is certain and exact. So disturbance term is not required. Econometric modeL Hjelieveg that outcome is certain but not exact. So disturbance term plays the vital role. 6 Economic model is deterministic in nature. Econometric model is stochastic in nature. 7 The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by is the economic model The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by + μ is the econometric model

## Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
When capital in the beginning is ₹ 10,000 drawings during the year ₹ 6,000 profit made during the year ₹ 2,000 and the additional capital introduced is ₹ 3,000 find the amount of capital at the end ________.
(a) ₹ 9,000
(b) ₹ 11,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 3,000
(a) ₹ 9,000

Question 2.
Opening balance of debtors ₹ 30,000 Cash received ₹ 1,00,000, credit sales ₹ 90,000; closing balance of debtors is _______.
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 1,30,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

Question 3.
Donations received for a specific purpose is ________.
(a) Revenue receipt
(b) Capital receipt
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital receipt

Question 4.
There are 500 members in a club paying ₹ 100 as annual subscription due but not received for the current year each is ₹ 200. Subscription received in advance ₹ 300. Find out the amount of subscription to be shown in income and expenditure account.
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 50,200
(c) ₹ 49,900
(d) ₹ 49,800
(a) ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Partners share profits and losses equally
(b) Interest on partners capital is allowed at 7% P.a
(c) No salary or remuneration is allowed
(d) Interest an loan from partners is allowed at 6% P.a
(b) Interest on partners capital is allowed at 7% P.a

Question 6.
Profit after interest on drawings interest on capital and remuneration is ₹ 10,500. Geetha a partner is entitled to receive commission @ 5% on profits after changing such commission find out commission ______.
(a) ₹ 50
(b) ₹ 150
(c) ₹ 550
(d) ₹ 500
(d) ₹ 500

Question 7.
Which of these is an asset which is not fictitious but intangible in nature having realisable value.
(a) Furniture
(b) Machinery
(c) Building
(d) Goodwill
(d) Goodwill

Question 8.
Goodwill is an asset that represents _______.
(a) Fictitious asset
(b) The market value of the company’s trade name
(c) The value of reputation of a firm
(d) None of these
(c) The value of reputation of a firm

Question 9.
James and Kamal are sharing profits and losses ratio 5:3. They admit Sunil as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. Find out the sacrificing ratio _________.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
(c) 5:3

Question 10.
Balaji and Kamalesh are partners sharing profits and losses ratio 2:1. They admit Yogesh into partnership. The new profit sharing ratio between Balaji, Kamalesh and Yogesh is agreed to 3:1:1. Find the sacrificing ratio between Balaji and Kamalesh _______.
(a) 1:3
(6) 3:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
(d) 1:2

Question 11.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:2:3 C retires. The new profit sharing ratio between A and B will be ________.
(a) 4:3
(6) 3:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
(c) 2:1

Question 12.
X, Y and Z were partners, sharing profit and losses equally. X died on 1st April 2019. Find out the share of X in the profit of 2019 based on the profit of 2018 which showed ₹ 36000 ________.
(a) ₹ 1,000
(b) ₹ 3,000
(c) ₹ 12,000
(d) ₹ 36,000
(b) ₹ 3,000

Question 13.
If a share of ₹ 10 on which ₹ 8 has been paid up is forfeited. Minimum reissue price is _________.
(a) ₹ 10 per share
(b) ₹ 8 per share
(c) ₹ 5 per share
(d) ₹ 2 per share
(d) ₹ 2 per share

Question 14.
Supreme Ltd forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non – payment of final call of ₹ 2 per share. All these shares were reissued at ₹ 9 per share. What amount will be transferred to capital reserve account?
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1000
(a) ₹ 700

Question 15.
In a common size balance sheet, if the percentage of non-current assets is 75. What would be the percentage of current assets?
(a) 175
(b) 125
(c) 25
(d) 100
(c) 25

Question 16.
Expenses of a business for the first year were ₹ 80,000. In the second year it was increased, to ₹ 88,000. What is the trend % in the second year?
(a) 10%
(b) 110%
(c) 90%
(d) 11%
(b) 110%

Question 17.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Current assets ₹ 1,00,000. Inventory ₹ 20,000. Quick ratio is ________.
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:5:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
(c) 2:1

Question 18.
Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000; Inventory in the beginning of the year ₹ 60,000; Inventory at the close of the year ₹ 40,000. Inventory turnover ratio is ________.
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 8 times
(c) 6 times

Question 19.
₹ 50,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transaction will be recorded ______.
(a) Contra voucher
(b) Receipt voucher
(c) Payment voucher
(d) Sales voucher
(a) Contra voucher

Question 20.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally _________.
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
(b) Journal voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is conversion method?
It is one of the methods to find out profit or loss of a business when accounts are kept under single entry system. If it is desired to calculate the profit or loss by preparing trading and profit and loss account under single entry system. Then it is called conversion method. It is conversion of single entry into double entry.

Question 22.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.

• Life membership fees
• Legacies
• Sale of fixed assets
• Specific donations

Question 23.
Sundar drew regularly ₹ 4,000 at their end of every month. Calculate interest on drawings at 10 % P.a. interest on drawings of Sundar
Interest on drawings of Sundar

Question 24.
From the following information, calculate the value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchase of average profits of last four years 2015 profit – ₹ 5,000; 2016 profit – ₹ 8,000; 2017 loss – ₹ 3,000; 2018 profit – ₹ 6,000.
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Good will = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= ₹ 4,000 × 3
Goodwill = ₹ 12,000

Question 25.
A and B were partners of the firm ratio 7:5 on 1.4.2018 the firm’s book showed a reserve fund ₹ 1,20,000 on the above date they decided to admit C into the firm pass entry.

Question 26.
Mani, Nagappan, Ulaganathan are partner Sharing profit with ratio of 4:3:3. Ulaganathan retires and share is taken by Mani and Nagappan in the ratio of 8:2. Calculate new ratio.
Calculation of new ratio:

Question 27.
Abdul Ltd issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application pass the entry shares are issued at.

Question 28.
What is meant by “Financial Analysis”?
Financial Analysis is a systematic process of classifying the data into simple groups and making a comparison of various groups with one another to pin-point the strong points and weakness of the business.

Question 29.
Give any two differences between current ratio & Quick ratio.
Current Ratio:

• It indicates whether the firm is in a position to pay its current liabilities with in a year.
• Ideal Standard Ratio is 2:1

Quick Ratio:

• It indicates whether the firm is in a position to pay its current liabilities immediately with in a month.
• Quick Ratio Standard is 1:1

Question 30.
What are accounting reports?
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
On 1st April Ganesh started his capital of ₹ 1,50,000. He did not main proper books of accounts. Following particulars are available from his books as on 31.03.2018.

During the year he with drew ₹ 30,000 for his personal use. He introduced further capital of ₹ 40,000 during the year. Calculate his profit or loss.

Question 32.
From the information given below, prepare receipts and payments account of Kurunji sports club for the year ended 31.12.2018.

Question 33.
A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses equally. As per the terms of the partnership deed B is allowed a monthly salary of ₹ 2,000 and ‘C’ is allowed a commission of ₹ 6,000 per annum for their contribution to the business of the firm. You are required to pass the necessary journal entry assume that their capitals are fluctuating.
Salary of ‘B’ = ₹ 2,000 × 12 = ₹ 24,000
Commission of ‘C’ = 6,000

Question 34.
From the following information compute the value of goodwill be capitalising super profit.
(i) Capital employed ₹ 4,00,000
(ii) Normal Rate of return is 10%
(iii) Profit for 2016 – ₹ 62,000; 2017 – ₹ 61,000; 2018 – ₹ 63,000

Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of return
= ₹ 4,00,000 × 10%
= ₹ 40,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 62,000 – ₹ 40,000
= ₹ 22,000

Question 35.
A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2 ‘C’ is admitted as a new partner and the new profit sharing ratio is decided as 5: 3: 2. The following revaluations are made. Pass journal entries.
(i) The value of building increased by ₹ 15,000
(ii) The value of the machinery is decreased by ₹ 4,000
(iii) Provision for doubtful debtors is made for ₹ 1,000

Question 36.
Rathna, Basker and Ibrahim are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2:3:4 respectively. Rathna died on 31st December, 2018. Final amount due to her showed a credit balance of ₹ 1,00,000. Pass journal entries if,
(а) The amount due is paid off immediately by cheque
(b) The amount due is not paid immediately
(c) ₹ 60,000 is paid immediately by cheque.

Question 37.
Maruthi Ltd forfeited 150 equity shares of ₹ 100 each for non payment of final call of ₹ 40 per share of these 100 shares were reissued at ₹ 90 per share pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.

Forfeited shares amount of 150 shares ₹ 9,000
Gain or loss = 100 × (90 – 40)
= 100 × 50
= ₹ 5,000

Question 38.
From the following information calculate (i) Debt equity ratio (ii) Working Capital Turnover Ratio.

 Particulars ₹ Net revenue from operation 60,00,000 Cost of revenue from operation 45,00,000 Other current assets 11,00,000 Current liabilities 4,00,000 Paid up share capital 6,00,000 6% debentures 3,00,000 9% loan 1,00,000 Debenture Redemption Reserve 2,00,000 Closing Inventors 1,00,000

(i) Debt Equity Ratio = $$\frac{\text { Debt }}{\text { Equity }}$$
Debt = 6% debentures + 9% loan
= ₹ 3,00,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 = ₹ 4,00,000
Equity = Paid up share capital + Debenture Redemption Reserve
= 6,00,000 + 2,00,000 = 8,00,000
Debt Equity Ratio = $$\frac{4,00,000}{8,00,000}$$ = 0.5 = 1
(ii)

Working Capital = Other Current Assets + Closing Inventors – Current Liabilities
= ₹ 11,00,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 – ₹ 4,00,000 = 8,00,000.
Working capital turnover ratio = $$\frac{60,00,000}{8,00,000}$$ =7.5 times

Question 39.
Write a short note on (i) Horizontal Analysis (ii) Vertical Analysis
(i) Horizontal Analysis:
Financial statements for a number of years are reviewed and analysed. Figures for two or more years are contained in such type of analysis and these figures are placed side – by – side to facilitate comparison. Such analysis indicates the increase or decrease in these items not only in absolute figures but also in percentage form.

(ii) Vertical Analysis:
Financial statements for a single year or on a particular date are reviewed and analysed with the help of proper devices like ratios. It involves a study of the quantitative relationship among various items of balance sheet or profit and loss account.

Question 40.
Write any three Applications of Computerised Accounting System.
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In computerised accounting system, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It does not require a large amount of physical space. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
Computerised accounting system facilitates efficient management of inventory. Fast moving, slow moving and absolete inventory can be identified. Updated information about availability of inventory, level of inventory etc can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Report generation:
Computerised accounting system helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Ahmed does not keep proper books of accounts. Find the profit or loss made by him for the year ending 31st march 2018.

Ahmed had withdrawn ₹ 40,000 for his personal use. He had introduced ₹ 16,000 as . capital for expansion of his business. A provision of 5% on debtors is to be made. Plant is to be depreciated at 10%.
Calculation of opening capital:

Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) Arulappan and nallasamy are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio 4:1 on 1st January 2018 their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000 respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following.
(i) Interest on capital is to be allowed 5%P.a
(ii) Interest on drawings charged to Arulappan and Nallasamy are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively.
(iii) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments of friends football club for the year ending 31st march 2017.
Prepare income and expenditure for the year ending 31st March 2017 and the balance sheet as on that date.

(i) The club had furniture of ₹ 12,000 on 1st April 2016. Ignore depreciation on furniture.
(ii) Subscription outstanding for 2016-17 – ₹ 600
(iii) Stock of sports materials on 31.3.2017 – ₹ 100
(iv) Capital fund as on 1st April 2016 was ₹ 23,000

[OR]

(b) The following particulars are available in respect of the business carried on by a partnership firm.
(i) Profits earned 2016 – ₹ 25,000; 2017 – ₹ 23,000; 2018 – ₹ 26,000
(ii) Profit of 2016 includes a non – recurring income of ₹ 2,500.
(iii) Profit of 2017 is reduced by ₹ 3,500 due to stock destroyed by fire.
(iv) The stock was not insured. But it is decided to insure the stock in future. The insurance premium is estimated to be ₹ 250 per annum.
You are required to calculate the value of goodwill of the firm on the basis of 2 years purchase of average profits of the last three years.

Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= 24,750 × 2
= ₹ 49,500

Question 43.
(a) The following particular calculate the goodwill on the
(i) Basis of two years purchase of super profits earned on average basis during the above mentioned three years by
(ii) Capitalisation method. The firm earned net profit for 3 years 2013 – ₹ 1,90,000; 2014 – ₹ 2,20,000; 2015 – ₹ 2,50,000. The capital employed in the firm ₹ 4,00,000, risk involved 15% is considered to be a fair return on the capital. The remuneration of the partners during the period ₹ 1,00,000 P.a.
(i)

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 2,20,000 – 1,60,000 = ₹ 60,000
Goodwill = Super profit × No. of. years purchase
= 60,000 × 2
= ₹ 1,20,000

(ii) Capitalisation method:
Goodwill = Capitalised Value of Average Profit – Actual capital employed
Average profit = 2,20,000 – 1,00,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
Capitalised value of average profit = Average profit × $$\frac{100}{\text { Rate of return }}$$
= 1,20,000 × $$\frac{100}{15}$$ = ₹ 8,00,000
Good will = 8,00,000 – 4,00,000
= ₹ 4,00,000

[OR]

(b) Vetri and Ranjit are partners sharing profit in the ratio 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 31st December 2017 is as under.

On 1.1.2018 they admit suriya into their firm as a partner on the following arrangements.
(i) Suriya brings ₹ 10,000 as capital for 1/4% share of profit
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by 10%
(iii) Debtors to be revalued at ₹ 7,500.
(iv) Furniture to be revalued at ₹ 40,000.
(v) There ia an outstanding wages ₹ 4,500 not yet recorded.Prepare revaluation account, partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after admission.

Question 44.
(a)Mani, Rama, Devan are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as on 31st March 2019.

Mani retired from the partnership on 31.03.2019. subject to the following adjustment.
(i) Stock to be depreciated ₹ 5,000.
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 16,000. The final amount due to Mani is not paid immediately prepare revaluation A/c, Capital Account.

[OR]

(b) Ramesh, Ravi, Akash are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.17.

Akash died on 31.03.2018. On the death of Akash the following adjustment are made.
(i) Plant and machinery is to be valued at ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 24,000.
(iv) Share of profit of akash is to be calculated from the closing of the last financial year to the date of death on the basis of the average of the three completed year profit before death Profit for 2015,2016, 2017 were ₹ 66,000; ₹ 60,000; ₹ 66,000 respectively. Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
(i) Profit sharing ratio = capital ratio = 30,000 : 30,000 : 20,000 i.e. 3:3:2
Gaining ratio between Ramesh and Ravi = Old profit sharing Ratio = 3:3 i.e. 1 : 1

(ii) Calculation of Akash’s share of current years profit

Current year’s profit upto the date of death = 64,000 × 3/12 = ₹ 16,000
Akash’s share of current year’s profit = 16,000 × 2/8 = ₹ 4,000

(iii) Akash’s share of goodwill = 24,000 × 2/8 = ₹ 6,000
It is to be borne by Ramesh and Ravi in the gaining ratio = 1:1

Question 45.
(a) Keerthiga company issued share of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium. Payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 3 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 3 on first call and ₹ 3 on second and final call. Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations.
(i) Mohan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited.
(it) Mohan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money first call and second and final call money and his shares were forfeited.
(iii) Mohan who holds 50-shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and his shares were forfeited after the first call.

[OR]

(b) Prepare comparative statement of profit and loss of Ahmed Ltd with the helps of following information.

Employees benefit expenses = Salaries wages, PF, staff welfare

Question 46.
(a) From the following particulars of Neithal Ltd calculate trend percentage.

(b) From the following information calculate the following ratio.
(i) Net Profit Ratio
(ii) Debtors Equity Ratio
(iii) Quick Ratio

Question 47.
(a) What are the Sailent Feature of tally ERP.9?
The first version of Tally was released in 1988 and through continuous development is now recognised as one of the leading accounting packages across the world with over a quarter million of customer Tally’s market share is more than 90%.

(ii) No accounting codes:
Unlike other computerised accounting packages which require numeric codes. Tally ERP 9 pioneered the “no accounting codes” concept.
Tally ERP 9 users have the freedom to allocate meaningful names in plain English to their data items in the system.

Tally ERP 9 provides a comprehensive solution to the accounting and inventory needs of a business. The packages comprises financial accounting book keeping and inventory accounting. It also has various tools to extract interpret and present data.

(iv) Speed:
It allows the user to maintain multiple companies and with unlimited levels of classification and grouping capabilities. It also allows dried down facility from report level to transaction level.

(v) Versatibility:
Tally ERP is suitable for a range of organisations from small grocery stores to large corporations with international locations and operations.

The Tally ERP 9 online help (AH + H) provides instant assistance on basic and advanced feathers or any other relavent topics of Tally ERP. 9.

[OR]

(b) Find out total purchases and total sales from the following details by preparing necessary accounts.

Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 1,00,000 + ₹ 11,42,000
= ₹ 12,42,000
Total purchases = Cash purchases + Credit purchases
= ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 76,000
= ₹ 1,26,000

## Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and period accounts
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations
(d) Tax authorities do not accept
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations

Question 2.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 21,000?
(a) ₹ 85,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 64,000
(d) ₹ 64,000

Question 3.
Subscription due but not received for the current year is ________.
(a) An asset
(b) A liability
(c) An expense
(d) An item to be ignored
(a) An asset

Question 4.
Legacy is a ________.
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Revenue receipt
(d) Capital receipt
(d) Capital receipt

Question 5.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?

 (a) Interest on drawings Debited to capital A/c (b) Interest on capital Credited to capital A/c (c) Interest on loan Debited to capital A/c (d) Share of profit Credited to capital A/c

(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital A/c

Question 6.
In the absence of an agreement, partners are entitled to ________.
(a) Salary
(b) Commission
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on loan

Question 7.
Book profit of 2017 is ₹ 35000; non-recuring income included in the profit is ₹ 1000 and abnormal loss charged in the year was ₹ 2000 then the adjusted profit is ________.
(a) ₹ 36,000
(b) ₹ 35,000
(c) ₹ 38,000
(d) ₹ 34,000
(a) ₹ 36,000

Question 8.
The total capitalised value of business is ₹ 1,00,000 assets are ₹ 1,50,000; and the liabilities are ₹ 80,000; the value of goodwill as per the capitalisation method will be ________.
(a) ₹ 40,000
(b) ₹ 90,000
(c) ₹ 1,00,000
(d) ₹ 30,000
(d) ₹ 30,000

Question 9.
Select the odd one out:
(a) Revaluation profit
(b) Accumulated loss
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner
(d) Investment fluctuation fund
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner

Question 10.
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:

 List I List II (i) Sacrificing ratio 1) Investment fluctuation fund (ii) Old profit sharing ratio 2) Accumulated profit (iii) Revaluation Account 3) Good will (iv) Capital Account 4) Unrecorded liability

(b) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1

Question 11.
‘A’ was a partner in a partnership firm. He died on 31.3.2019. The final amount due to him ₹ 25,000, which is not paid immediately. It will be transferred to ________.
(a) A’s capital A/c
(b) A’s current A/c
(c) A’s executors A/c
(d) A’s executors loan A/c
(d) A’s executors loan A/c

Question 12.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. Find the contribution of A and C to compensate B __________.
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 1,50,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 13.
When shares are issued for purchase of assets, the amount should be credited to _________.
(a) Vendor’s A/c
(b) Sundry assets A/c
(c) Share capital A/c
(d) Bank A/c
(c) Share capital A/c

Question 14.
Match the pair and identify the correct option:

 List I List II 1) Under subscription (i) Amount prepaid for calls 2) Over subscription (ii) Subscription above the offered share 3) Calls-in-arrear (iii) Subscription below the offered shares 4) Calls-in-advance (iv) Amount unpaid on calls

(a) 1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) All the limitations of financial statements are applicable to financial statement analysis also
(b) Financial statement analysis is only the means and not an end
(c) Expert knowledge is not required in analysing the financial statements
(d) Interpretation of the analysed data involves personal judgements
(c) Expert knowledge is not required in analysing the financial statements

Question 16.
A limited company’s sales has increased from ₹ 1,25,000 to ₹ 1,50,000. How does this appear in comparative income statement?
(a) + 20%
(b) + 120%
(c) – 120%
(d) – 20%
(a) + 20%

Question 17.
Proportion of share holders funds to total assets is called __________.
(a) Propbrietary ratio
(b) Capital gearing ratio
(c) Deb equity ratio
(d) Current ratio
(a) Propbrietary ratio

Question 18.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

 (a) Liquid ratio Proportion (b) Gross profit ratio Percentage (c) Fixed assets turnover ratio Percentage (d) Deb equity ratio Proportion

(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage

Question 19.
Salary account comes under which of the following head?
(a) Direct incomes
(b) Direct expenses
(c) Indirect incomes
(d) Indirect expenses
(d) Indirect expenses

Question 20.
₹ 25,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transactions will be recorded ________.
(a) Contra voucher
(b) Receipt voucher
(c) Payment voucher
(d) Sales voucher
(a) Contra voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two features of incomplete records:
(i) Nature:
It is an unscientific and unsystematic way of recording transactions. Accounting principles and accounting standards are not followed properly.

(ii) Lack of uniformity:
There is no uniformity in recording the transactions among different organisations. Different organisations record their transactions according to their needs and conveniences.

Question 22.
Show the calculation of subscription account how to write?

Question 23.
A and B were partners sharing ratio of 3:2. Balance in their capital account on. 1st January 2018 was ‘A’ ₹ 1,20,000 and ‘B’ ₹ 80,000 on 1st April 2018. ‘A’ introduced additional capital of ₹ 20,000. ‘B’ introduced additional capital of ₹ 10,000 during the year. Calculate interest on capital at 6% p.a. year ending 31st Dec 2018.

Question 24.
The Profits and losses of a firm for the last four years:
2015 = ₹ 30,000
2016 = ₹ 34,000
2017 = ₹ 12,000 (Loss)
2018 = ₹ 28,000
you are required to calculate the amount of goodwill on the basis of 5 years purchase of average profits of last 4 year.
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase .
= ₹ 20,000 × 5
= ₹ 1,00,000

Question 25.
Anbu and Raju are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Akshai is admitted as a partner. The new profit sharing ratio among Anbu, Raju and Akshai is 5:3:2. Find out the sacrificing ratio.
Old ratio of Anbu and Raju 3:2 that is $$\frac{3}{5}: \frac{2}{5}$$
New ratio of Anbu, Raju and Akshai 5:3:2

Question 26.
Kiran, Vinoth and Vimal are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Kiran retires and the new profit sharing ratio between Vinoth and Vimal is 2:1. Calculate the gaining ratio.
Share gained = New share – Old Share

∴ The gaining ratio of Vinoth and Vimal is 11 : 4

Question 27.
Sridhar Ltd issued 20,000 shares of? 100 each at discount of 10%. Give journal entry.

Question 28.
List the tools of financial statement analysis.
Following are the commonly used tools of financial statement analysis.

• Comparative statement
• Common size statement
• Trend – analysis
• Funds flow analysis
• Cash flow analysis

Question 29.
Calculate inventory turnover ratio:
Opening stock = ₹ 30,000; Closing stock = ₹ 50,000; Purchases = ₹ 1,20,000

Question 30.
What are the steps involved in designing accounting reports?

• Define the objective of generating report
• Specify the structure of the report
• Creating data base queries to interact with the database to retrieve, modify, add or delete data from the records.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
On 1st April 2018, Subha started her business with a capital ₹ 1,20,000; she did not maintain proper books of accounts.
Following particulars are available from her books as on 31.3.2019.

Question 32.
Compute capital fund of Karu social club on 31.3.2018.

Question 33.
From the following information prepare capital accounts of partners, Shanthi and Sumathi when their capitals are fixed.

Question 34.
For the purpose of admitting a new partner a firm has decided to value goodwill at 3 years purchase of average profits of the last 4 years using weighted average method. Profits of the past 4 years and the respective weight.

Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of years of purchase
= ₹ 24,800 × 3 = ₹ 74,400

Question 35.
Sri Ram and Raj are partners sharing ratio 2:1. Nelson joins as a partner on 1st April 2017. The following adjustments are to made
(i) Increase the value of stock by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Bring into record investment of ₹ 7,000 which had not been recorded in the books of the firm
(iii) Reduce the value of office equipment by ₹ 10,000
(iv) A provision would also be made for outstanding wages for ₹ 9,500. Give journal entries and prepare revaluation A/c.

Question 36.
A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2 on 31st March 2018. ‘C’ retires from the firm. Goodwill appeared in the books of a firm ₹ 1,20,000 by assuming fluctuating capital account. Pass the journal entries.
(a) Write off the entire amount of existing goodwill
(b) Write off half of the existing goodwill

(b) Write off half of the existing goodwill

Question 37.
Maruthi Ltd forfeited 150 shares of ₹ 10/- each for non-payment of final call of ₹ 4/- of these 100 shares were reissued @ 9 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.

Question 38.
From the following particulars of Mani Ltd and Kani Ltd, prepare a common size income statement for the year ended 31st March 2019.

Question 39.
Calculate gross profit ratio, net profit ratio, stock turnover ratio, opening stock ₹ 1,00,000; Purchases ₹ 3,50,000; Gross profit ₹ 1,50,000; Net profit 90,000; Revenue from operations ₹ 4,50,000; closing stock ₹ 1,50,000.

Cost of revenue from operations = Revenue from operations – gross profit
= 45,00,000 – 1,50,000
= ₹ 3,00,000

Question 40.
What is meant by voucher and what are its types?
Voucher is a document which contains details of transactions. Transactions are to be recorded through voucher entries. Tally has a set of predefined vouchers such as purchase, sales, payment, receipts and contra to view the list of voucher type. Gateway of tally → Masters → Accounts info → voucher type → display.
Following are some of major accounting voucher:

• Receipt voucher
• Payment voucher
• Contra voucher
• Purchase voucher
• Sales voucher
• Journal voucher

As per the requirement of users, additional voucher type can be created.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) From the following details, you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.

[OR]

(b) Find out total purchases and total sales from the following details by preparing accounts.

Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 5,71,000
= ₹ 6,21,000
Cash purchases + credit purchases
= ₹ 25,000 + ₹ 38,000
= ₹ 63,000

Question 42.
(a) From the following Receipts and Payments account and from the information given below of Ramanathapuram Sports Club, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the year ended 31st December, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.

(i) Capital fund as on 1st January 2018. ₹ 30,000
Opening stock of sports materials ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000

[OR]

(b) From the following receipt and payment account of Coimbatore cricket club for the year ending 31st March 2016. Prepare income and expenditure account for the year ending 31st March 2016 and a balance sheet as on that date.

On 1st April 2015 the club had stock of balls and bats ₹ 3,000 and an advance subscription of ₹ 500. Surplus an account of tournament should be kept in reserve for permanent pavilian. subscription due on 31st March 2016 was ₹ 2,000. Stock of bats and balls 31.3.2016 ₹ 1,000.

Question 43.
(a) A and B were partners sharing ratio of 7:3. Their capitals ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 60,000 respectively. Their partnership deed.
(i) Interest on capital @ 10% P.a.
(ii) Interest on drawing @ 12% P.a.
(iii) A and B to get a salary of ₹ 10,000 each. Per annum
(iv) A to get a commission of 10% on the net profit before changing such commission.
The profit of the firm for 2018 before making the above adjustments was drawing of the partners during the year were A ₹ 12,000; B ₹ 8,000
Show the profit and loss appropriation account of firm.

[OR]

(b) Nirmala and shanthi were partners in a firm ratio 2:1. Their capital ₹ 1,60,000 and ₹ 80,000 respectively. Their partnership deed provides for the following.
(i) Interest on capital @8%
(ii) Interest on drawings @ 6%
(iii) Shanthi to get a salary of ₹ 1,000 P.m.
(iv) Shanthi to get a commission of 10% an the net profit after changing such commission. The profit of the firm for the year ended 31.03.2005 before making the above adjustments was ₹ 75,000.
Drawings of the partners during the year were Nirmala ₹ 15,000 and shanthi ₹ 10,000.
Show the profit and loss appropriation Account of firm.

Question 44.
(a) From the following information relating to Arul enterprises calculate value of goodwill as the basis of 2 year purchase of the average profit of 3 year.
(0 Profit for the year ending 31st December 2016, 2017, 2018 were ₹ 92,000; ₹ 88,000; and ₹ 1,00,000 respectively.
(ii) A non – recurring income of ₹ 10,000 is included in the profit of 2016.
(iii) The closing stock of the year 2017 was over valued by 20,000.

Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= ₹ 90,000 × 2 = ₹ 1,80,000

[OR]

(b) A and B are partners profit & losses ratio of 3:1. Their balance sheet of 31st March 2017 as under.

On 1.4.2017 they admit ‘C’ as a new partner of the following arrangements.
(i) ‘C’ brings ₹ 20000 as capital for 1/5 share of profit
(ii) Stock and furniture is to be reduced by 10% a reserve of 5% on debtors for doubtful debtor.
(iii) Appreciate building by 20%
Prepare revaluation a/c & partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm admission.

Question 45.
(a) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partners profit and losses are equally. Their balance sheet as on 31.3.2018 is balance sheet.

‘C’ died on 1st April 2018. The following agreement was to be put into effect.
(i) Goodwill was valued at 60000; ‘C’ was to be credited with his share.
(ii) Assets were revalued; Machinery ₹ 1,17,000; computer to ₹ 46,000; Stock to ₹ 15,000.
(iii) ₹ 21,000 was to be paid away to the ‘C’s executor on 1st April.
Prepare the revaluation, capital A/c & Balance sheet of new firm.

[OR]

(b) Anjali Flour Ltd with a registered capital ₹ 4,00,000 in equity share of ₹ 10 each issued 30,000 of such shares payable 2/- per share an application. ₹ 5/- per share an allotment and ₹ 3/- per share on first call. The issue was duly subscribed.
All the money payable was duly received but on allotment share holder paid the entire balance on his holding of 500 shares. Give journal entries to record the transactions.

Question 46.
(a) Simon Ltd issued 50,000 equity shares of ₹ 10/- each at per payable an application ₹ 1 per share on, allotment ₹ 5/- per share on first call ₹ 2/- per share and on second & final calls ₹ 2/- per share. The issue was fully subscribed and all the amount were duty received with the exception of 2,000 shares held by Chezhian. who failed to pay the second & final call. Journalise the above transaction.

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars of vijay Ltd prepare common size income statement for the year ended 31st march 2017 and 31st march 2018.

Question 47.
(a) From the following information calculate trend percentage for Malar Ltd.

[OR]

(b) The following balance sheet has been prepared from the books of bright on 1.4.2018

During the year the following transaction took place,

• Wages paid by cash ₹ 2,000
• Rent paid by cheque ₹ 5,000
• Cash purchases made for ₹ 3,000
• Good purchased on credit from Senthamarai ₹ 15,000
• Good sold in credit to Pushparaj ₹ 25,000
• Payment made to Santhamarai by cheque ₹ 5,000
• Cash received from Shankar ₹ 30,000
• Cash sales made for ₹ 6,000
• Depreciate machinery at 10%
• Closing stock on 31.03.2019 ₹ 15,000

You are required to prepare trading and profit and loss A/c for the year ended 31.03.2019 and balance sheet using Tally.
Following steps are to be followed to outer the transaction in tally ERP.9
1. To create company Company info > Create company
Type the name as briget and keep all other fields as they are and choose “yes” to accept.
2. To maintain accounts only
Gateway of Tally > F11 Accounting features > General > maintain accounts only: yes > accept yes
3. To create ledger accounts with opening balances
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts info > Ledgers > single ledger > create

Note:
Cash account need not be created as it is default ledger only the opening balance has to be recorded by altering the cash account.
To record the opening balance of cash
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts info > Ledger > single Ledger > Alter.

## Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and personal accounts
(c) Tax authorities do not accept
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations

Question 2.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 20,000?
(a) ₹ 65,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 85,000
(a) ₹ 65,000

Question 3.
Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
(a) Sale of old newspapers
(b) Loss on sale of asset
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture

Question 4.
There are 100 members in a club each paying ₹ 500 as annual subscription. Subscription due but not received for the current year is ₹ 200; Subscription received in advance is ₹ 300. The amount of subscription to be shown in the income and expenditure account is __________.
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 50,200
(c) ₹ 49,900
(d) ₹ 49,800
(a) ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
(a) Interest on drawings – Debited to capital account
(b) Interest on capital – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account
(d) Share of profit – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account

Question 6.
In the absence of an agreement among the partners, interest on capital is _________.
(a) Not allowed
(b) Allowed at bank rate
(c) Allowed @ 5% per annum
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset
(b) Good will is a current asset
(c) Goodwill is a fictitious asset
(d) Good will cannot be acquired
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset

Question 8.
When the average profit is ₹ 50,000 and the normal profit is ₹ 30,000, super profit is ________.
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 20,000

Question 9.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1

Question 10.
Bala and Keerthana are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Eshwar as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. The sacrificing ratio is ________.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
(c) 5:3

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Capital account of retiring partners only
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) None of the above
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. The contribution of A and C to compensate B is ______.
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 15,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 13.
A preference share is one _______.
(i) which carries preferential right with respect to payment of dividend at fixed rate
(ii) which carries preferential right with respect to repayment of capital on winding up
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 14.
Super Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non- payment of final call of ₹ 2 per share.
All these shares were re-issued at ₹ 9 per share. The amount will be transferred to capital reserve account is _______.
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1,000
(a) ₹ 700

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analysed?
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
Expenses for a business for the first year were ₹ 70,000. In the second year, it was increased to ₹ 77,000. The trend percentage in the second year is _______.
(a) 10%
(b) 110%
(c) 90%
(d) 11%
(b) 110%

Question 17.
Debt equity ratio is a measure of _________.
(a) Short term solvency
(b) Long term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
(b) Long term solvency

Question 18.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; current assets ₹ 1,00,000; Inventory ₹ 20,000. Quick ratio is _____.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
(d) 2 : 1

Question 19.
Contra voucher used in Tally for ______.
(a) Master entry
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports
(d) Credit purchase of assets
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use

Question 20.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally _______.
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
(b) Journal voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
From the following particulars ascertain profit or loss:

 Particulars ₹ Capital at the beginning of the year 5,00,000 Capital at the end of the year 8,50,000 Additional capital introduced during the year 2,00,000 Drawings during the year 1,50,000

Question 22.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.

• Life membership fees
• Legacies
• Special donations
• Sale of fixed assets

Question 23.
Balamurugan is a partner who withdrew ₹ 20,000 regularly in the middle of every month. Interest is charged on the drawings at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings for the year ended 31st December, 2019?
Balamurugan’s interest on drawing calculation:
Interest on drawings = Amount of drawings × Rate of interest × Period of interest
= 20,000 × 12 × $$\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{6}{12}$$ = ₹ 7,200

Question 24.
State any two circumstances under which goodwill of a partnership firm is valued.

• When there is a change in the profit sharing ratio.
• When a new partner is admitted into a firm.
• When an existing partner retires from the firm or when partner dies
• When a partnership firm is dissolved.

Question 25.
Sanjana and Bhavya are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3. On 31.3.2018, Sanjeev was admitted as a partner. On the date of admission, the book of the firm showed a general reserve of ₹ 42,000; Pass the journal entry to distribute the general reserve. ,

Question 26.
What is gaining ratio?
Gaining ratio is the proportion of the profit which is gained by the continuing partner.
Gaining ratio = Ratio of share gained by the continuing partners
Share gained = New Share – Old Share

Question 27.
Manoharan Ltd. issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application. Pass journal entries if shares are issued at a premium of ₹ 2 per share.

Question 28.
What are financial statements?
Financial statements are the statements prepared by the business concern at the end of the accounting period to ascertain the operating results and the financial position. The basic financial statements prepared by business concern are income statement and balance sheet.

Question 29.
State any two accounting reports used in Tally.

1. Day Book / Journal
2. Ledgers
3. Trial Balance
4. Income statement
5. Balance sheet

Question 30.
Calculate current ratio: Total current liabilities ₹ 2,40,000; Total current assets ₹ 4,80,000.
Current Ratio = $$\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}$$
Current Liabilities
Current assets = ₹ 4,80,000
Current liabilities = ₹ 2,40,000
∴ Current Ratio = $$\frac{4,80,000}{2,40,000}$$ = 2 : 1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State any three differences between double entry system and incomplete records.

Question 32.
How the following items will appear in the final accounts of a club for the year ending 31st March, 2020?

 Particulars 1.4.2019(₹) 31.3.2020 (₹) Outstanding subscription 3,000 5,000 Subscription received in advance 4,000 6,000

Subscription received during the year: ₹ 45,000.
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2019

Question 33.
Ravi, Sibi and Kumar are partners in a firm. There is no partnership deed. How will you deal with the following?
(i) Ravi has contributed maximum capital. He demands interest on capital @ 10% per annum.
(ii) Sibi demands the profit to be shared in the capital ratio. But, others do not agree.
(iii) Loan advanced by kumar to the firm is ₹ 50,000. He demands interest on loan @ 12% per annum.
Since there is no partnership deed provisions of the Indian partnership Act 1932 will apply.
(i) No interest on capital is payable to any partner. Therefore Ravi is entitled to the interest on capital
(ii) Profits should be distributed equally
(iii) Interest on loan is payable @ 6% p.a. of ₹ 50,000

Question 34.
Explain any three factors determining the value of goodwill in a partnership firm.
Factors determining goodwill:

1. Profitability of the firm
2. Favourable location of the business enterprise
3. Good quality of good i and services offered
5. Efficiency of management
6. Degree of competition
7. Other factors

Question 35.
Ajay and Devan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. In the view of Gopal admission, they decided
(i) To increase the value of building by ₹ 40,000
(ii) To decrease the value of machinery by ₹ 14,000 and furniture ₹ 12,000
(iii) An unrecorded liability ₹ 6,000 has to be recorded now.

Question 36.
Nandhini, Sandhiya and Rajesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 3 respectively. Nandhini retires from the firm on 31st December, 2019. On the date of retirement, her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 1,00,000.
Pass journal entries if:
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately.
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately.
(iii) ₹ 50,000 is paid immediately by cheque.

Question 37.
Senthil Ltd. forfeited 20 equity shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 7 called up, on which Sandeep had paid application and allotment money of ₹ 5 per share. Of these 15 shares were reissued to Magesh by receiving ₹ 6 per share paid up as ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.

Note:
No. of share reissued × profit on issue
= 15 (7 – 6)= 15 × 1 = ₹ 15

Question 38.
What is inventory conversion period? How is it calculated?
It is the time taken to sell the inventory. A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of inventory. It is computed as follows.

Question 39.
Explain any three applications of computerized accounting system.
The applications of CAS are as follows:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In CAS, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
CAS facilitates efficient management of inventory. Updated information about availability of inventory level of inventory etc. can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Report generation:
CAS helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

Question 40.
Complete the following comparative statement.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raj an does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.

During the year he introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 and withdrew ₹ 2,500 per month from the business for his personal use. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.

[OR]

(b) From the following details you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account of Tenkasi Thiruvalluvar Manram, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st March, 2019.

[OR]

(b) From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Kurunji Sports Club for the year ended 31st December, 2018.

Question 43.
(a) From the following information, prepare capital accounts of partners Raja and Rani, when their capitals are fixed.

[OR]

(b) Alagappan and Ulagappan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 10:7. On 1st January 2018, their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following:
(a) Interest on capital is to be allowed at 5% per annum.
(b) Interest on drawings charged to Alagappan and Ulagappan are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively.
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill at three years purchase of weighted average profit of last four years.

 Year Profit (₹) Weight 2015 10,000 1 2016 12,000 2 2017 16,000 3 2018 18,000 4

Calculation of weighted average

Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,400 × 3 = ₹ 46,200

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profit from the following information:
(а) Capital employed: ₹ 1,20,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years:
2014: ₹ 30,000; 2015: ₹ 32,000; 2016: ₹ 35,000; 2017: ₹ 37,000 and 2018: ₹ 40,000
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ? 2,800 per annum.

Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of return
= 1,20,000 × (20/100)
= ₹ 24,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 32,000 – 24,000
= ₹ 8,000
Goodwill = Super profit × Number of years of purchase
= 8,000 × 5
= ₹ 40,000

Question 45.
(a) Baskar and Shankar are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. The balance sheet of the partners on 31.03.2018 is as follows:

Sellathurai is admitted for 1/5 share on the following terms:
(i) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 75,000 and Sellathurai brought cash for his share of goodwill.
(ii) Sellathurai is to bring ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital.
(iii) Motor car is valued at ₹ 2,00,000; stock at ₹ 3,80,000 and debtors at ₹ 3,50,000.
(iv) Anticipated claim on workmen compensation fund is ₹ 10,000
(v) Unrecorded investment of ₹ 5,000 has to be brought into account.
(vi) Revaluation account shows the profit of 15,000 on the date of admission.
Prepare capital accounts and balance sheet after Sellathurai’s admission.

[OR]

(b) Mani, Rama and Meena are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2019 is as follows:

Mani retired from the partnership firm on 31.03.2019 subject to the following adjustments:
(i) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 16,000
(iv) The final amount due to Mani is not paid immediately
Prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners after retirement.

Question 46.
(a)Latha Ltd. offered 1,00,000 shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on share allotment and the balance when required. Applications for 1,40,000 shares were received on which the directors allotted as:
Applicants for 60,000 shares – Full
Applicants for 75,000 shares – 40,000 shares (excess money will be utilised for allotment)
Applicants for 5,000 shares – Nil
All the money due was received. Pass journal entries upto the receipt of allotment money.

Working note:

[OR]

(b) Vikam Company issued shares of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium, payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 3 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 3 on first call and ₹ 3 on second and final call.
Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations:
(i) Sasikumar who holds 50 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited.
(ii) Vignesh who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money, first call and second and final call money and his shares were forfeited.
(iii) Madhavan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and his shares were forfeited after the first call.

(ii) When allotment, first call money and second and final call money is not paid

(iii) When allotment and first call money is not paid

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common-size statement of financial position of Yasmin Ltd as on 31st March 2019 and 31st March 2020.

[OR]

(b) From the following trading activities of Praveen Ltd. calculate
(i) Gross profit ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Operating cost ratio
(iv) Operating profit ratio

Calculation of interest on drawings of Praveen (using average period)
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchase of stock-in-trade + Changes in inventory + Direct expenses
= 17,000 – 1,000 + 0 = ₹ 16,000
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 20,000 – 16,000 = ₹ 4,000

Tutorial note:
It is assumed that there is no tax payable.

Operating cost = Cost of revenue from operations + Operating expenses
Operating expenses = Other expenses = ₹ 2,400
Operating cost = 16,000 + 2,400 = ₹ 18,400

Operating profit = Revenue from operations – Operating cost
= 20,000 – 18,400 = ₹ 1,600

## Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Text Book Evaluation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn / HCl
(b) ZnHg / NaOH
(c) LiAIH4
(d) All of these
(a) Sn / HCl

Question 2.
The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is ……………
(a) degradation of benzamide with Br2 / NaOH
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
(c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution
(d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCI
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.

Question 3.
Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH3CONHCH3
(b) CH3CH2CONH2
(c) CH3CONH2
(d) C6H5CONH2
(a) CH3CONHCH3
Only primary amides undergo hoffmann bromamide reaction

Question 4.
Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid
Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion,
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
(d) both assertion and reason are false

Question 5.

(a) bromomethane
(b) a – bromo sodium acetate
(c) methanamine
(d) acetamide
(c) methanamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

(c) (CH3)3CNO2 – 30 nitroalkane

Question 7.
this reaction is known as ………………
(a) Friedel – crafts reaction
(b) HVZ reaction
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) none of these
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 8.
The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a primary amine
(a) carboxylic acid
(b) aromatic acid
(c) schiff ‘s base
(d) ketone
(c) schiff ‘s base

Question 9.
Which of the following reaction is not correct.

P – nitrosation takes places, the product is

Question 10.
When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is …………….
(a) o – aminoacetophenone
(b) m – aminoacetophcnone
(c) p – aminoacetophenone
(d) acetanilide
(d) acetanilide

Question 11.
The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amine solution is ………….
(a) N(CH3)3 > N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)H2 > NH3
(b) N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)3 > NH3
(c) NH3 > N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)3
(d) N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)3 > NH3
(d) N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)3 > NH3

Question 12.

(a) H3PO2 and H2O
(b) H+ / H2O
(c) HgSO4 / H2SO4
(d) Cu2Cl2
(a) H3PO2 and H2O

Question 13.

(a) C6H5 – OH
(b) C6H5 – CH2OH
(c) C6 H5 – CHO
(d) C6H5NH2
(a) C6H5 – OH

Question 14.
Nitrobenzene on reaction with at 80 – 100°C forms which one of the following products?
(a) 1, 4 – dinitrobenzene
(b) 2, 4, 6 – tirnitrobenzene
(c) 1, 2 – dinitrobenzene
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene

Question 15.
C5H13N reacts with HNO2 to give an optically active compound – The compound is …………..
(a) pentan – 1 – amine
(b) pentan – 2 – amine
(c) N,N – dimethylpropan – 2 – amine
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine

Question 16.
Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form …………..
(a) red solution
(b) blue solution
(c) green solution
(d) yellow solution
(b) blue solution

Question 17.
Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
(a) t – butylamine
(b) ethylamine
(c) diethylamine
(d) triethylamine
(d) triethyl amine (3°amine)

Question 18.
Which one of the following is most basic?
(a) 2, 4 – dichloroaniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) 2, 4 – dinitroaniline
(d) 2, 4 – dibromoaniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
CH3 is a +1 group, all other – I group. +1 group increase the electron density on NH2 and hence increases the basic nature.

Question 19.
When

is reduced with Sn / HCI the pair of compounds formed are ………..
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamme hydrochloride
(b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide
(c) Ethanol, NH2OH
(d) C3H5NH2, H2O
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride

Question 20.
TUPAC name for the amine
is ………………
(a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
(b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3 – amino pentane
(c) 3 – N, N – trimethyl pentanamine
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane

Question 21.

Product ‘P’ in the above reaction is ………………

Question 22.
Ammonium salt of bcnzoic acid is heated strongly and the product so formed is reduced and then treated with NaNO2 / HCl at low temperature. The final compound formed is ……………
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Nitrosobenzene
(b) Benzyl alcohol

Question 23.
Identify X in the sequence give below.
+ Methanoic acid

Question 24.
Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is ……………..

Question 25.
The major product of the following reaction

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write down the possible isomers of lthe C4H9NO2 give their IUPA names.

Question 2.
There are two isomers with the formula CH3NO2. How will you distinguish between them?
CH3NO2 has two isomers. They are
1. CH3 – NO2 (Nitromethane)
2.

Question 3.
What happens when

1. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI
2. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium.
3. Oxidation of tert – butylamine with KMnO4
4. Oxidation of acetoneoxime with triuluoroperoxy acetic acid.

1. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI:
2 – nitropropane upon hydrolysis with boiling HCl give a ketone (2 – propanone) and nitrous oxide.

2. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium:
Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives aniline but in strongly acidic medium, it gives p – aminophenol obviously through the acid – cataLysed rearrangement of the initially formed phenyihydroxylamine.

3. Oxidation of tert – butylamine with XMnO4:
In general, primary amines, in which the – NH2 group is attached to a tertiary carbon can be oxidised with KMnO4 to the corresponding nitro compound in excellent yield. Therefore 3° – butylamine oxidised to give 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane.

4. Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid:
Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid gives 2 – nitropropane.

Question 4.
How will you convert nitrobenzene into

1. 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
2. o and p – nitrophenol
3. m – nitro aniline
4. azoxybenzene
5. hydrozabenzene
6. N – phenylhydroxylamine
7. aniline

1. Conversion of nitrobenzene into 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene:

2. Conversion of nitrobenzene into o and p – nitrophenol:
(a) Method I:
Nitrobenzene heated with solid KOH at 340 K gives a low yield of a mixture of 0 – and P – nitrophenols.

(b) Method II:

3. Conversion of nitrobenzene into m – nitro aniline:

4. Conversion of nitrobenzene into azoxybenzene:

5. Conversion of nitrobenzene into hydrazobenzene:

6. Conversion of nitrobenzene into N – phenylhydrozylamine:

7. Conversin of nitrobenzene into aniline:

Question 5.
Identify compounds A,B and C in the following sequence of reactions.

Question 6.
Write short flotes on the following

1. Hoffmann’s bromide reaction
2. Ammonolysis
3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
4. Schotten – Baumann reaction
5. Carbylamine reaction
6. Mustard oil reaction
7. Coupling reaction
8. Diazotisation
9. Gomberg reaction

1. Hoffmann’s bromide reaction:
When Amides are treated with bromine in the presence of aqueous or ethanolic solution of KOH, primary amines with one carbon atom less than the parent amides are obtained.

2. Ammonolysis:
When Alkyl halides (or) benzylhalides are heated with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, mixtures of 1°, 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts are obtained.

3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis:
Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of Aliphatic primary amines. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic KOH forms potassium salt of phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed by alkaline hydrolysis gives primary amine.

4. Schotten – Baumann reaction:
Aniline reacts with benzoylchloride (C6H5COCl) in the presence of NaOH to give N – phenyl benzamide. This reaction is known as Schotten Baumann reaction. The acylation and benzoylation are nucleophilic substitutions.

5. Carbylamine reaction:
Aliphatic (or) aromatic primary amines react with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to give isocyanides (carbylamines), which has an unpleasant smell. This reaction is known as carbylamines test. This test used to identify the primary amines.

5. Mustard oil reaction:
When primary amines are treated with carbon disuiphide (CS2), N – alkyldithio carbonic acid is formed which on subsequent treatment with HgCI2, give an alkyl isothiocyanate.

6. Coupling reaction:
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with electron-rich aromatic compounds like phenol, aniline to form brightly coloured azo compounds. Coupling generally occurs at the para position. If para position is occupied then coupling occurs at the ortho position. Coupling tendency is enhanced if an electron-donating group is present at the para – position to  group. This is an electrophilic substitution.

7. Diazotisation:
Aniline reacts with nitrous acid at low temperature (273 – 278 K) to give benzene diazonium chloride which is stable for a short time and slowly decompose seven at low temperatures. This reaction is known as diazotization.

8. Gomberg reaction
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of sodium hydroxide to give biphenyl. This reaction in known as the Gomberg reaction.

Question 7.
How will you distinguish between primary secondary and tertiary alphatic amines.

Question 8.
Account for the following

1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction
2. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines
3. pkb of aniline is more than that of methy lamine
4. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.
5. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not
6. Amines are more basic than amides
7. Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline.

1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction:
Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AiCl3 to form a salt.

Due to the presence of a positive charge on N – atom in the salt the group  acts as a strongly deactivating group. As a result, it reduces the electron density in the benzene ring and which inhibits the electrophilic substitution reaction. Therefore aniline does not under go Friedel – Crafts reaction.

2. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines:
The diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines due to dispersal of the positive charge on the benzene ring as shown below.

3. pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine:
In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over the benzene ring. As a result electron density on the nitrogen decreases. In contrast in CH3NH2, +I effect of CH3 increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pK value is more than that of methyl amine.

4. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines:
Gabriel phthalimide reaction gives pure 10 amine without any contamination of 2° and 3°-amines. Therefore it is preferred for synthesising primary amines.

5. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not:
Ethylamine when added to water forms intermolecular H – bonds with water. And therefore it is soluble in water. But aniline does not form H – bond with water to a very large extent due to the presence of a large hydrophobic – C6H5 group. Hence, aniline is insoluble in water.

6. Amines are more basic than amides:
In simple amines, the lone pair of electrons is on nitrogen and hence available for protonation. In amides on the other hand, the electron pair on nitrogen is delocalised to the carboxyl oxygen through resonance and thus it is not available for protonation. So amines are more basic than amides.

7. Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline:
Nitration is usually carried out with a mixture of conc HNO3 and conc H2SO4. In the presence of these acids, most of aniline gets protonated to form anilinium ion. Therefore, in the presence of acids, the reaction mixture consists of aniline and anilinium ion.

Now – NH2, group in aniline is O, P – directing and activating while the – NH3 group is anilinium ion is meta – directing and deactivating. Whereas nitration of aniline (due to steric hindrance at o – position) mainly gives p-nitroaniline, the nitration of anilinium ion gives m – nitro aniline. In actual practice, approximately a 1 : 1 mixture of P and m – nitroaniline is formed.

Question 9.
Arrange the following

1. In increasing order of solubility in water, C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH , C2H5NH2
2. In increasing order of basic strength
• aniline, p – toludine and p – nitroaniline
• C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5NH2, p – Cl – C6H4 – NH2
3. In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase.
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3NH , (C2H5)3N and NH3
4. In Increasing order of boiling point
C2H5OH , (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
5. In decreasing order of the pKb values
C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H)2NH4 and CH3NH2
6. Increasing order of basic strength C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C6H5)2NH and CH3NH2
7. In decreasing order of basic strength

1. Solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of a hydrophobic hydrocarbon part and with decrease in the number of H – atoms on the N – atom which undergo H – bonding.

Now among the given compounds C6H5NH2 has the highest molecular mass of 93 followed by (C2H5)2NH with molecular mass of 73 with C2H5NH2 has the lowest molecular mass of 45. Thus the solubility increases in the order in which molecular mass decreases.

2. (a) The electron – donating groups increases the basic strength of amines while the electron – withdrawing groups decrease the basic strength of amines. Therefore p – nitroaniline is the weakest base followed by aniline while p – toluidine, which has methyl group and therefore it is the strongest base. Basic strength increases in the order. P – nitro aniline < aniline < p – toluidine

(b) Chlorine atom has both – I effect and + R effect since – I effect out weights the + R effect, therefore p – chloro aniline is weak base than aniline. Aikyl groups are electron – donating groups. ”

As a result the electron density on the nitrogen atom increases in the ethylamine and thus they can donate lone pair of electrons niore easily. Therefore Ethylamine is more base than aromatic amines.

Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C6H5NH, and C6H5NHCH3 are far less basic than C2H5NH2. Further due to +1 effect of the CH3 group, C6H5NHCH3 is little more basic than C6H5NH2. Therefore increasing order basic strength is

3. In the gas phase, solvent effects i.e., stabilization of the conjugate acids due to H – bonding, are absent. Therefore, in the gas phase, basic strength mainly depends upon the +1 effect of the alkyl groups. Since the +1 effect increases with the number of ailcyl groups,

therefore the basic strength of the amines decreases as the number of ethyl groups decreases from three in (C2H5)3N to two in (C2H5)2NH to one in C2H5NH2 and zero in NH3. Basic strength in the gas phase decreases in the order is,
(C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2N > C2H5NH2 > NH3

4. Since the electro negativity of O is higher than that of N, therefore, alcohols form stronger H – 0bonds than amines. In other words, the boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of amines of comparable molecular masses. Therefore the boiling point of C2H5OH (46) is higher than those of (CH3)2NH (45) and C2H5NH2 (45).

Further since the extent of H – bonding depends upon the number of H-atoms on the N-atom. Therefore 1° – amines with two H – atoms on the N – atom have higher boiling points than 2° – amines having only one H – atom. Therefore the boiling point of C2H5NH2 is higher than that of(CH3)2NH. Increasing order of boiling point is,
(CH3)2NH < C2H5NH < CH5OH

5. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C6H5NHCH3 is far less basic than C2H5NH2, (C6H5)2NH and CH3NH2. Among C2H5NH2 and (C2H5), NH, (C2H5)2NH is more basic than C2H5NH2 due to greater +1 effect of the two C2H5 groups and stabilization of its conjugate acid by H – bonding.

Compare to Ethyl and methyl group, C2H5 – group has more +1 effect than CH3 – group. Therefore methylamine is weak base than ethylamine. Combining all these facts the relative basic strength of these four amines decreases in the order.

(C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > C6H5NHCH3. Since a stronger base has a lower pKb value therefore, pKb values decrease in the reverse order. C6H5NHCH3 > CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH

6. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring, all aromatic amines are less basic than alkylamines i.e., CH3NH2. Presence of electron – donating groups ( – CH3) on the N – atom increases the basicity of substituted aniline with respect to C6H5NH2.

In (C6H5)2NH, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over two benzene rings instead of one in C6H5NH2, therefore (C6H5)2NH is much less basic than C6H5NH2. Combining all the three trends together, the basic strength of the four amines increasing in the order.
(C6H5)2NH < C6H5NH2 < C6H5N (CH3)2 < CH3NH,

7. Aliphatic amines are more basic than aromatic amines. Therefore CH3CH2NH2 and CH3NH2 are more basic. Among the ethylamine and methylamine. ethylamine was experienced more +1 effect than methylamine and hence ethylamine is more basic than methylamine.

Nitrogroup has a powerful electron withdrawing group and they have both – R effect as well as – I effect. As a result, all the nitro anilines are weaker bases than aniline. In P – nitroaniline

both – R effect and – I effect of the NO2 group decrease the basicity. Therefore decreasing order of basic strength is,

Ethylamine > Methylamine > Aniline > p – nitro aniline

Question 10.
How will you prepare propan – 1 – amine from

1. butane nitrile
2. propanamide
3. 1 – nitropropane

1. Preparation of propan -1- amine from butane nitrile.
Butane nitrile treated with acid hydrolysis followed by Hoffmann’s bromamide degradation. gives propan – 1 – amine.

2. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from propanamide.
When propanamide is treated with LiAIH4 in the presence of water gives propan – 1 – amine.

3. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from 1 – nitropropane.

Reduction of 1 – Nitropropane using H2 / Ni or Fe / HCl gives propan – 1 – amine.

Question 11.
Identify A,B,C and D

Question 12.
How will you convert dlethylamine into

1. N, N – dlethylacetamide
2. N – nitrosodiethylamine

1. Conversion of diethylamine into N, N – diethylacetamide.

Diethylamine react with acetyichioride in the presence of pyridine to form N, N – diethyl acetamide.

2. Conversion of diethylamine into N – nitrosodiethylamine.

Question 13.
Identify A,B and C

Question 14.
Identify A, B, C and D

Question 15.
Complete the following reaction

Question 16.
Predict A, B, C and D for the follwing reaction.

Question 17.
A dibromo derivative (A) on treatment with KCN followed by acid hydrolysis and heating gives a monobasic acid (B) along with liberation of CO2. (B) on heating with liquid ammonia followed by treating with Br2 / KOH gives (C) which on treating with NaNO2 and HCI at low temperature followed by oxidation gives a monobasic acid (D) having molecular mass 74. Identify A to D.

Question 18.
Identify A to E in the following frequncy of reactions.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Write all possible isomers for the following compounds.

1. C2H5 – NO2
2. C3H7 – NO2

1. Possible isomers for C2H5NO2 as following

(a) CH3 – CH2 – NO2 – Nitroethane

(b) CH3 – CH2 – O – N = O – Ethyl nitrite

(c)

(d) H2N – CH2 – COOH – Glycine (amino acid)

(e)

(f)

(g)

2. Possible isomers for C3H7NO2 as follows.

(a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NO2 – 1 – Nitropropane

(b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – N = O – propane – 1 – nitrite

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f) H2N – CH2 – CH2 – COOH – Alanine

Question 2.
Find out the product of the following reactions

Question 3.
Predict the major product that would be obtained on nitration of the following compounds.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of the following compounds

1. Neopentylamine
2. Tert – butylamine
3. α – amino propionaldehyde
4. tribenzylamine
5. N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

1. Neopentylamine:

2. Tert – butylamine

3. α – amino propionaldehyde

4. tribenzylamine

5. N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

Question 5.
Give the correct IUPAC names for the following amines.

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Additional Question

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 1 Mark Questions and Answers

Quesiton 1.
Which one of the following play an important role in bioregulation and neurotransmission?
(a) Acid derivatives
(b) Carbonyl compounds
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia
(d) Aromatic hydro carbons
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia

Question 2.
Which of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells?
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B1
(d) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B6

Question 3.
Which one of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves and skin?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Cobalamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Histamine
(a) Pyridoxine

Question 4.
Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Histamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Cyano cobalamine
(c) Dopamine

Question 5.
Which one of the following dilates blood vessels?
(a) Histamine
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Dopamine
(a) Histamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?
(a) 2 – nitropropane
(b) Ethyl nitrite
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
(c) Nitro ethane

Question 7.
2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane belongs to
(a) 1° nitro alkane
(b) 3° nitro alkane
(c) 2° nitro alkane
(d) nitro arenes
(b) 3° nitro alkane

Question 8.
Which of the following is an example for 2° nitro alkane?

Question 9.
Which one of the following is an example for nitro arenes?
(a) C6H5 – CH2 NO6
(b) C6H5NH2
(c) CH3 – CH2 – O – NO
(d) C6H5NO2
(d) C6H5NO2

Question 10.
The IUPAC name of
is ………………
(a) 1 – nitro butane
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
(c) Isobutyl nitrate
(d) 1 – Nitro iso butane
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane

Question 11.
Which one of the following is the structure of 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitro propane?

Question 12.
1 – nitrobutane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane are belong to ……………..
(a) position isomerism
(b) functional isomerism
(c) Tautomerism
(d) chain isomerism
(d) chain isomerism

Question 13.
Which of the following pair shows functional isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
(d) 2 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite

Question 14.
Which of the following pair shows position isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(b) Nitro methane and methyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(d) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane

Question 15.
Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………
(a) Position isomerism
(b) chain isomerism
(c) metarnersm
(d) Tautomerism
(d) Tautomerism

Question 16.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro form of alkane dissolves in NaOH instantly
(ii) Nitro form of alkane decolourises FeCI3 solution
(iii) Nitro form of alkane are more acidic
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 17.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Aci form of nitro alkanes dissolves in NaOH slowly.
(ii) Aci form of nitro alkane gives reddish-brown colour with FeCl3
(iii) Aci form of nitro alkane’s electrical conductivity is low.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (ii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iii)
(a) (ii) only

Question 18.
Which one of the following does not exhibit tautomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro ethane
(b) Nitro methane
(c) methyl nitrite
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

Question 19.
Identify the compound which does not exhibit tautomerism?

Question 20.
The correct decreasing order of acidity of nitro alkane is …………….

Question 21.
Which one of the following mechanism is followed by the reaction of Ethyl bromide with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite ……………
(a) SN1
(b) SN2
(c) SNi
(d) E1
(b) SN2

Question 22.
Which one of the following is formed when Ethyl bromide reacts with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) 2 – Nitro propane
(c) 1 – nitro propane
(d) nitro ethane
(d) nitro ethane

Question 23.
Which method is used to separate the mixture of nitroalkane?
(a) Crystallization
(b) zone refining
(c) fractional distillation
(d) sublimation
(c) fractional distillation

Question 24.
Which of the following is formed when ethane is heated with conc. HNO3 at 675 K?
(a) Nitro propane
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Nitro methane
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
(d) both (ii) and (iii)

Question 25.
What is the product formed when α – chloro acetic acid is boiled with aqueous solution of sodium nitrite?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Nitromethane
(c) Acetamide
(d) α – chloro acetamide
(b) Nitromethane

Question 26.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert teritary butylamine to tertiary nitro alkane?
(a) Aqueous KMnO4
(b) Cone HNO3
(c) Sn / HCI
(d) alcoholic KOH
(a) Aqueous KMnO4

Question 27.
The reagent used in the conversion of acetaldoxime to nitroethane (1°) is …………
(a) aqueous KMnO4
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid
(c) alcoholic KOH
(d) Cone. HNO3
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid

Question 28.
Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) Nitro propane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 29.
On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………
(a) 0 – dinitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) p – dinitro benzene
(d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene

Question 30.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ……………
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) Fuming mixture of conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4
(c) NaNO2 + HCI
(d) Ethanolic KNO2
(a) Caro’s acid

Question 31.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ………….
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) marshall’s acid
(c) Peroxy trifluoro acetic acid
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 32.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro alkanes have high points because of their highly polar nature
(ii) Alkyl nitrites have lower boiling points than nitro alkanes.
(iii) Nitro alkanes are readily soluble in water due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding formation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only

Question 33.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to methyl amine is ……..
(a) Zn/NH4Cl
(b) Sn/HCI
(c) H2SO5
(d) H2S2O8
(b) Sn/HCI

Question 34.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to N – methyl hydroxylamine is …………
(a) Sn/HCl
(b) Zn/NH4CI
(c) Ni
(d) Pd/BaSO4
(b) Zn/NH4CI

Question 35.
Which one of the following is formed when ethyl nitrite is treated with Sn/HCl?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethanamide
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 36.
The product formed when nitro ethane is boiled with conc. HCl is ……………
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ethyl chloride
(c) Ethanoyl chloride
(d) Amino ethane
(a) Acetic acid

Question 37.
Which one of the following is formed when 2- nitro propane is boiled with conc.HCl?
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Propanoic acid
(c) Propanoyl chloride
(d) Acetone
(d) Acetone

Question 38.
Which of the following does not react with conc. HCI?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
(c) 2 – nitro propane
(d) Aniline
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane

Question 39.
Acid (or) Basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite gives ………….
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Aceto nitrile
(c) Ethanol

Question 40.
Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?
(a) CH3CI
(b) CH3COCl
(c) CCI3NO2
(d) CHCI2NO2
(c) CCI3NO2

Question 41.
Which one of the following reagents is used to convert Nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH4CI
(c) Fe/H2O(g)
(d) Zn/NaOH
(a) Sn/HCI

Question 42.
Which one of the following is the best reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into Nitroso benzene?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH4CI
(c) Fe/H2O(g)
(d) SnCl2 + KOH
(c) Fe/H2O(g)

Question 43.
Identify the reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into hydrazo benzene?
(a) Zn/NaOH
(b) Zn/NH4CI
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) SnCI2 + KOH
(a) Zn/NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Fe/H2O(Steam)?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Nitroso benzene
(d) Azobenzene
(c) Nitroso benzene

Question 45.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn/NaOH?
(a) Phenyl amine
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Azo benzene
(d) Hydrazo benzene
(d) Hydrazo benzene

Question 46.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with SnCI2/KOH?
(a) Azo benzene
(b) Azoxy benzene
(c) Hydrazo benzene
(d) Nitroso benzene
(a) Azo benzene

Question 47.
Which of the following is formed when nitro benzene undergoes electrolytic reduction?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) p – amino phenol
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which of the following can be used to reduce nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) LiAIH4
(b) Sn + HCI
(c) Pt/H2
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 49.
What will be the product formed when nitrobenzene is treated with conc. HNO3 and conc.H2SO4 at 373K?
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) all the above
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene

Question 50.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with cone. HNO3 and H2SO4 473 K?
(a) 1, 2 – din itro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dintro benzene
(c) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene

Question 51.
What will be the product formed when 1, 3, 5 – trinitro toluene is treated with acidified Na2Cr2O7 and soda lime?
(a) TNB
(b) TNT
(c) TNG
(d) GTN
(a) TNB

Question 52.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Tertiary butyl amine
(b) Trimethyl amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methenamine
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methenamine

Question 53.
Which one of the following is called (N – ethyl – N – methyl) propanamide?

Question 54.
The IUPAC name of
is ……………..
(a) Methyl iso propyl amine
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(d) propan – 1 – amine
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

Question 55.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Ethyl methyl isopropylamine
(b) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(c) N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine

Question 56.
Which one of the following is called Hexane – 1, 6 – diamine?

Question 57.
Which one of the following is the TUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH2 – NH2?
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Allylamine
(c) 1 – amino propane
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine

Question 58.
Which one of the following is the structure of phenyl methenamine?

Question 59.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron.
(ii) Nitrogen atom of amines is Sp2 hybridised.
(iii) Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 60.
What is the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine?
(a) 109°. 5′
(b) 107°
(c) 108°
(d) 108°. 31’
(c) 108°

Question 61.
Which one of the following is the geometry of amines?
(a) Tetrahedral
(b) Pyramidal
(c) Planar triangle
(d) square planar
(b) Pyramidal

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when cyano methane reacts with LiAlH4?
(a) Ethanamine
(b) Methane
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Acetic acid
(a) Ethanamine

Question 63.
The reducing agent used in mendius reaction is …………
(a) H2/Ni
(b) LiAIH4
(c) Na/C2H5OH
(d) Sn/HCI
(c) Na/C2H5OH

Question 64.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is reduced by Na(Hg)/C2H5OH is …………
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Ethanamine
(c) N – methyl methenamine
(d) N – ethyl methenamine
(c) N – methyl methenamine

Question 65.
Which one of the following is formed when acetamide reacts with LiAlH4 and H2O?
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ammonium acetate
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
(b) Ethylamine

Question 66.
In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br2/KOH?
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Mendius reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction

Question 67.
Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
(a) Hoffmann ammonolysis
(b) Rosenmund’s reduction
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

Question 68.
The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina is …………
(a) HVZ reaction
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Mendius reaction
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method

Question 69.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Amines have higher boiling point than alcohols.
(ii) Lower aliphatic amines are colourless gases whereas higher amines have fish like small.
(iii) Aniline and arylamines are colourless but when exposed to air they become coloured due to oxidation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 70.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of alkyl substituted amines is …………

Question 71.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of substituted ethyl amines is ………….

Question 72.
The relative basicity of amine follows the order as ………….
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
(b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine
(c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne
(d) N – aralkylamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine Answer: (a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine

Question 73.
Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N – Phenyl benzamide?
(b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 74.
Which one of the product is formed when aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of NaOH?
(a) N – Phenyl benzamide
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide
(c) Benzamide
(d) N – Benzyl aniline
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide

Question 75.
Which one of the following is formed as product when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Ethyl nitrite
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethane nitrile
(c) Ethanol

Question 76.
Identify X in the following reaction?

Question 77.
The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………
(a) Carbylamme reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Sand meyer’s reaction
(c) Diazotisation

Question 78.
Which one of the product is formed with N-methyl aniline reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Anilinium chloride
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine
(c) Benzene diazonium chloride
(d) Benzylamine
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine

Question 79.
Which one of the réaction is called Libermann’s nitroso set?
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc.  N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.
(b)  Benzene diazonium chloride.
(c) Aniline + CHCI3 + 3KOH → Phenyl iso cyanide.
(d) Methyl amine + CHCl3 + 3KOH → Methyl iso cyanide.
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc.  N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.

Question 80.
The conversion of N – methyl aniline into N – nitrosomethyl phenyl amine is known as …………
(a) Carbylamine reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test

Question 81.
Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?
(a) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gattermann reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction

Question 82.
The reaction between methylamine and CS2 is known as ……………
(a) mustard oil reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis
(a) mustard oil reaction

Question 83.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with CS2 followed by hydrolysis by cone. HCI?
(a) Phenyl isocyanide
(b) phenyl cyanide
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate

Question 84.
Consider the following reaction.
(i) Aniline does not undergo friedel – crafts reaction
(ii) Aromatic amine on treatment with NaNO2 + HCI gives diazonium slats.
(iii) Aniline is more basic than ammonia.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only

Question 85.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with cone. H2SO4?
(a) Zwitter ion
(b) Acetanilide
(c) Suiphanilic acid
(d) p – sulphonic bcnzoic acid
(c) Suiphanilic acid

Question 86.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Benzene diazonium chloride aqueous solution are neutral to litmus.
(ii) The stability of arene diazonium salt is due to the dispersal of the positive charge over the ring.
(iii) Benzenediazonium chloride is reddish brown colour liquid.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (iii) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 87.
Identify the product formed when Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phosphinic acid?
(a) Benzene
(b) Chioro benzene
(c) Phenol
(d) cyano benzene
(a) Benzene

Question 88.
The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as …………
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction
(d) Coupling reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction

Question 89.
Identify X and Y in the following reaction

(a) C6H5CI + N2
(b) C6H6 + N2
(c) C6H5CI + NH4CI
(d) C6H5CI + H2
(a) C6H5CI + N2

Question 90.
Which one of the following is formed when benzene diazonium chloride is boiled with water?
(a) Benzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Chiorobenzene
(d) Aniline
(b) Phenol

Question 91.
Complete the following reaction.

Question 92.
What is the name of the reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with benzene to give Biphenyl?
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Gomberg reaction
(c) Gattermann reaction
(d) Baltz – schiemann reaction
(b) Gomberg reaction

Question 93.
Which one of the following reagent reacts with ben.zene diazonium chloride to give biphenyl?
(a) Chioro benzene
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Benzene
(d) Acetic acid
(c) Benzene

Question 94.
Which one of the following is formed when Benzene dia.zonium chloride reacts with Aniline?
(a) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(b) 2 – phenyl azo – 4 – methyl
(c) Biphenyl
(d) p – amino azo benzene
(d) p – amino azo benzene

Question 95.
Which one of the following should react with Benzene diazonium chloride to get orange dye?
(a) Aniline
(b) phenol
(c) 0 – cresol
(d) P – cresol
(b) phenol

Question 96.
Aniline + Benzene diazonium chloride → X. Identify X.
(a) orange dye
(b) yellow dye
(c) malachite green dye
(b) yellow dye

Question 97.
Which one of the following is the IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – CH2CN?
(a) Propiono nitrite
(b) Butane cyanide
(c) Isobutyro nitnie
(d) Butane nitrile
(d) Butane nitrile

Question 98.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with cyanogen chloride?
(a) methane nitrile
(b) ethane nitrite
(c) Acetamide
(d) Nitro ethane
(b) ethane nitrite

Question 99.
The reagent used in the conversion of CH3CONH2 into CH3CN is …………
(a) Br2/KOH
(b) conc. HNO3
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) P2O5
(d) P2O5

Question 100.
The product of complete hydrolysis of Ethane nitrite is …………
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyl nitrate
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) Acetic acid
(d) Acetic acid

Question 101.
What is the name of the reaction that take place between Ethane nitrile and Ethyl propionate?
(a) Coupling reaction
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Acetic acid
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation

Question 102.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl iso cyanide ùndergoes acid hydrolysis?
(a) Dimethyl amine + H2O
(b) Acetic acid + Formic acid
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid
(d) Methyl cyanide + Ammonia
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid

Question 103.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is heated to 250°C is …………
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Methyl cyanide
(c) Ethyl Cyanide
(d) Amino ethane
(b) Methyl cyanide

Question 104.
Which one of the following is used a fuel for cars?
(a) CH3NO2
(b) CH3NH2
(c) CH3N
(d) CH3NC
(a) CH3NO2

Question 105.
Chloropicrin is used as ……….
(a) antiseptic
(b) analgesic
(c) insecticide
(d) fertilizer
(c) insecticide

Question 106.
Which one of the following is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Nitro methane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
(d) Nitro ethane

Question 107.
Which one of the following is known as sweet spirit of nitre?
(a) 10 % solution of methyl nitrite
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite
(c) 10% solution of ethyl nitrite
(d) 40% solution of methanal
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite

Question 108.
Which one of the following is used as diuretic?
(a) Nitromethane
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) ethyl nitrite
(d) Oil of mirbane
(c) ethyl nitrite

Question 109.
Which of the following is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery?
(a) Nitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) Nitro glycerine
(a) Nitro benzene

Question 110.
Which of the following is used in the manufacture of aniline, synthetic rubber, dyes and explosives like TNT, TNB?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Aminobenzene
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 111.
Which of the following is used in textile industries and also as a solvent in perfume industries?
(a) Alkyl cyanide
(b) Alkyl iso cyanide
(c) Alkyl iso thio cyanate
(d) Alkyl amine
(a) Alkyl cyanide

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an anticancer agent used to stomach and colon cancer?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Cobalamine
(c) mitomycin C
(d) Streptomycin
(c) mitomycin C

Question 113.
In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of KOH and Br2 used per mole of amine produced are …………..
(a) four moles of KOH and two moles of Br2
(b) two moles of KOH and two moles of Br2
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br2
(d) one moles of KOH and one moles of Br2
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br2

Question 114.
What is the product obtained in the following reaction?

Question 115.
The reagent with which the following reaction is best accomplished is ………….

(a) H3PO3
(b) H3PO4
(c) H3PO2
(d) NaHSO3
(c) H3PO2

Question 116.
The amine “A” when treated with nitrous acid gives yellow oily substance. The amine “A” is …………
(a) Triethylamine
(b) Trimethylamine
(c) aniline
(d) Ethyl methyl amine
(d) Ethyl methyl amine

Question 117.
Which one of the following amide will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH3CONH2
(b) CH3CONHCH3
(c) C6H5CONH2
(d) CH3CH2CONH2
(b) CH3CONHCH3

Question 118.
Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as …………..
(a) Gattennann reaction
(b) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction
(d) Comberg reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction

Question 119.
Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which are has the smallest pK value?
(a) CH3NH2
(b) (CH3)3N
(c) C6H5NH2
(d) (CH3)3NH
(d) (CH3)3NH

Question 120.
Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(c) Dimethyl amine
(d) methyl amine
(b) Aniline
(c) Dimethyl amine

Question 121.
Diethyl amine when treated with nitrous acid yields
(a) Diethyl ammonium nitrite
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine
(d) Triethyl ammonium nitrate
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine

Question 122.
Which one of the following on reduction with Lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
(a) Methyl iso cyanide
(b) Acetamide
(c) Methyl cyanide
(d) Nitro ethane
(a) Methyl iso cyanide

Question 123.
The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
(a) Ethane
(b) ammonia
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethyl nitrite
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 124.
Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the following would undergo Hoffmann reaction with Br2 and strong KOH to furnish primary amine kNH2.

Question 125.
The correct order of basicity of the following compounds is …………..

(a) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)

Question 126.
Which of the following would be most reactive towards nitration?
(a) Benzene
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) Toluene
(d) Chiorobenzene
(b) nitrobenzene

Question 127.
Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form.
(a) Schiff’s base
(b) carbylamine
(c) Imine
(d) acetaldoxime
(a) Schiff’s base

Question 128.
Which of the following is the strongest base?

Question 129.
A primary amine is formed from an amide by the treatment of bromine and alkali. The primary amine has ……………
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide
(b) 1 carbon atom more than amide
(c) 1 hydrogen atom less than amide
(d) 1 Hydrogen atom more than amide
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide

Question 130.
Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing ………….
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) all the above
(b) 2° amine

Question 131.
A nauseating smell in the carbylamine test for primary amines is due to the formation of …………
(a) iso cyanide
(b) chloroform
(c) cyanide
(d) iso thiocyanate
(a) iso cyanide

Question 132.
A positive carbylamine test is given by …………
(a) N, N – dimethyl aniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) N – methyl – 0 – methyl aniline
(d) p – methyl benzylamine
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline

Question 133.
When primary amine is heated with CS2 in the presence of excess of mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate. This reaction is called ……………..
(a) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction

Question 134.
Diazo – coupling reaction is useful to prepare some
(a) Dyes
(b) proteins
(c) pesticides
(d) plastics
(a) Dyes

Question 135.
Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………
(a) aliphatic 2° amine
(b) Aromatic 1° amine
(c) Aliphatic l amine
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine

Question 136.
Which of the following amine will not react with nitrous acid to give nitrogen?

Question 137.
Which of the following compound is expected to be more basic?
(a) Aniline
(b) Methylamine
(c) Ethylamine
(d) Hydroxylamine
(c) Ethylamine

Question 138.
Nitro group in Nitro benzene is a ………….
(a) ortho directing group
(b) Meta directing group
(c) Para directing group
(d) ortho and para directing group
(b) Meta directing group

Question 139.
Which of the following amines would undergo diazotisation?
(a) CH3NH2
(b) C2H5NH2
(c) C6H5NH2
(d) (CH3)2NH
(c) C6H5NH2

Question 140.
Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with.
(a) CHCI3 and alkali
(b) CH3I
(c) CHCl3 alone
(d) Zn dust
(a) CHCI3 and alkali

Question 141.
A solution of methylamine …………..
(a) turns blue litmus red
(b) turns red litmus blue
(c) does not effect red or blue litmus
(d) Bleaches litmus
(b) turns red litmus blue

Question 142.
Oil of mirbane is ………..
(a) Aniline
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) p – amino azo benzene
(d) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 143.
Identify the product Z in the series of the reaction ………….

(a) CH3CHO
(b) CH3CONH2
(c) CH3COOH
(d) CH3CH2NHOH
(c) CH3COOH
Solution:

Question 144.
Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by ……….
(a) Br2 / KOH
(b) HCIO4
(c) NH3
(d) HNO2
(d) HNO2

Question 145.
Aniline on treatment with excess bromine water gives
(a) Anilinium bromide
(b) O – bromo aniline
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(d) p – bromo aniline
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline

Question 146.
Which of the following is not used as an explosive?
(a) Trinitro toluene
(b) Trinitro benzene
(c) Trinitro glycerine
(d) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 147.
Which of the following has a pyramidal structure?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(b) Water
(c) Acetylene
(d) Methane
(a) Trimethyl amine

Question 148.
Which one of the following reacts with benzaldehyde to give schiff’s base.
(a) Acidified K2Cr2O7
(b) formaldehyde
(c) Aniline
(d) Potassium cyanide
(c) Aniline

Question 149.
Ethyl amine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on
(a) Acetamide
(b) propionamide
(c) Formamide
(d) Methyl Eyanide
(b) propionamide

Question 150.
Which of the following reaction will not give primary amine?

Question 151.
Which of the following compound is the strongest base?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Aniline
(c) Methyl amine
(d) N – methyl aniline
(c) Methyl amine

Question 152.
Azo dyes are prepared from ………….
(a) Phenol
(b) Aniline
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (i) and (ii)

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. is an organic compound needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells.
2. Plants synthesis and to protect them from being eaten away by insect ………….. and ………….. other animals.
3. ………….. compounds are the important constituents of explosives, drugs, dyes, fuels, polymers, synthetic rubbers.
4. Dopamine act as …………..
5. ………….. dilates blood vessels.
6. Tertiary nitro alkanes donot exhibit ………….. due to the absence of a-H atom.
7. Aci form of nitro alkanes gives ………….. colour with ferric chloride.
8. Aci form of nitro alkanes are otherwise called ………….. or …………..
9. Laboratory preparation of Nitro ethane from ethyl bromide follows ………….. mechanism
10. Except ………….. other alkanes gives a mixture of nitro alkanes due to C – C cleavage by nitration of alkanes.
11. Oxidation of acetaldoxime with ………….. gives 1 – nitro ethane.
12. ………….. is suspected to cause genetic damage and be harmful to the nervous system.
13. Nitro benzene on reduction with SnCl2 + KOH gives …………..
14. Nitrobenzene on alkaline medium reduction gives …………..
15. Amines posses ………….. geometry.
16. The nitrogen atom in amine is ………….. hybridised.
17. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of …………..
18. Ammonolysis of hydroxyl compounds is called ………….. reaction.
19. Aniline when exposed to air becomes coloured due to …………..
20. Alkyl amines are stronger base than …………..
21. Acylation and benzoylation of Aniline aer ………….. reactions.
22. Libermann’s nitroso test is used to detect …………..
23. ………….. test is used to identify primary amine.
24. Direct nitration of aniline gives O and P – nitro aniline along with ………….. due to oxidation.
25. The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to benzene by H3PO2 proceeds through ………….. mechanism.
26. Benzene diazonium chloride when boiled with water gives …………..
27. The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride is Biphenyl is called ………….. reaction.
28. Coupling reaction generally occurs at ………….. position of Benzene ring.
29. The condensation reaction of esters with nitrites containing a – hydrogen is known as …………..
30. Chloropicrin is used as an …………..
31. 4% solution of ethyl nitrite in alcohol is known as …………..
32. Sweet spirit of nitre is used as …………..
33. ………….. is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
34. ………….. an anti cancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer.
35. Mitomycin C contains an ………….. ring.
36. ………….. is used as percursor to explosive.
37. An organic nitrogen compound ………….. is used as an insecticide.
38.  ………….. is known as sweet spirit of nitre.
39.  Chloropicnn ………….. is used as an insecticide.

1. Pyridoxine, vitamin B6
2. alkaloids, biologically active amines
3. Nitrogen
4. Neurotransmitter
5. Histamine
6. tautomerism
7. Reddish brown
8. Pseudo acids (or) Nitronic acids
9. SN2
10. Methane
11. trifluoroperoxy acetic acid
12. Nitro ethane
13. Azobenzene
14. Hydrazobenzene
15. Pyramidal
16. SP3
17. Aliphatic primary amines
18. Sabatier – mailhe
19. Oxidation
20. Ammonia
21. Nucleophilic substitution (or) Schotten Baumann
22. Secondary amine
23. Carbylamine reaction (or) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
24. dark coloured tars
26. Phenol
27. Gomberg
28. Para
29. Levine and hauser
30. insecticide
31. Sweet spirit of nitre
32. diuretic
33. Nitrobenzene
34. Mitomycin C
35. Aziridine
36. Nitro ethane
37. chloropicrm
38. 4% solution of ethyl nifrite in alcohol
39. CCI3NO2

III. Match the Column I and II using the code given below the columns.

Question 1.

(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 3.

(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 4.

(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 5.

(b) 4 1 2 3

Question 6.

(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 7.

(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 8.

(a) 2 1 4 3

Question 9.

(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

(a) 4 1 2 3

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism.
Reason (R): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not have of α – H atom.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are not correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Primary and secondary nitroalkanes show an equilibrium mixture of two tautomers namely nitro and aci form.
Reason (R): Both primary and secondary nitroalkanes are having a-H atoms.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of ofA
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Nitro alkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.
Reason (R): The α – H atom of 1° and 2° nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO2 group.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion(A): 2 – nitro propane is more acidic than nitro mehtane.
Reason (R): When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene cannot be prepared from bromo benzene by action of ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite.
Reason (R): The bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene undergoes friedel – craft reaction.
Reason (R): Nitrobenzene have strong deactivating – NO2 group.
(a) Both A and R arc correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Reason (R): Nitrogen atoms of amines is trivalent and has four sp3 hybridised orbital. Three sp3 orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen and four sp3 orbitais contain a lone pair of electrons.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion(A): The C – N – C bond angle of trimethyl amine is 108°.
Reason (R): The bond angle of C – N – C is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Arylhalides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Amines have lower boiling point than alcohols.
Reason (R): Nitrogen has lower electronegative value than oxygen and hence the N – H bond is less polar than – OH bond.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Tertiary methyl amine is less soluble in water than methyl amine.
Reason (R): Solubility decreases due to the increase in size of the hydrophobic alkyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Aniline reacts with acids to form salts and also reacts with electrophiles.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in amines makes them basic as well as nucleophilic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Alkyl amines are stronger base than Ammonia.
Reason (R): When a +I gorup like alkyl group is attached to nitrogen increases the electron density on the nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 14.
Assertion(A): 2° amines are more basic.
Reason (R): Due to + I effect, steric effect and hydration effect cause 2° amines are more basic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Aromatic amines are less basic than ammonia.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline (aromatic amine) gets delocalised over the benzene ring and less available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
Assertion(A): Electrophilic substituion in aniline take place at ortho and para position.
Reason (R): The – NH2 group is a strong activating group and lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is in conjugation with benzene ring that increases electron density at ortho and para position.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Acylation of amines gives a mono substituted product whereas alkylation of amines gives polysubstituted product.
Reason (R): Acyl group sterically hindered the approach to further acyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Acetanilide is less basic than anime.
Reason (R): Acetylation of aniline results in the decrease of electron density on nitrogen.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): Aromatic 1° amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Aniline donates its lone pair of electrons to the Lewis acid AiCl3 to form an adduct which inhibits further electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
Pyridoxine, Dopamine, Histamine, Aspirin.
Aspirin:
It is acid derivative and used as medicine whereas other are organic nitrogen compounds used in medicine.

Question 2.
Trinitro glycerine, Glyceryl triacetate, Trinitro benzene, Trinitro toluene
Glyceryl triacetate:
It is a an ester of glycerol whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds used in making explosives.

Question 3.
N – methyl methanamine, N – methyl ethanamine, N – phenyl benzamide, N,N – dimethyl methanamine
N,N – dimethyl methanamine: It ¡s an example of tertiary amine whereas others are secondary amine.

Question 4.
Propan – 2 – amine, N – ethyl – N – methyl, propan – 2 – amine, N,N – dimethyl methanamine, N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
Propan – 2 – amine:
It is a secondary amine whereas others are tertiary amines.

Question 5.
P – hydroxy azo benzene, Hydrazo benzene, P – amino azo benzene, 2 – Phenyl azo – methyl phenol
Hydrazo benzene: It is not a dye whereas others are dyes.

Question 6.
Methyl ISo cyanide, Methyl cyanide, Acetic anhydride, Ethyl amine Nitro ethane
Acetic anhydride:
It is an acid derivative whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is called nitro compound? Give one example.
1. Ntiro compounds are considered as the derivatives of hydrocarbons. 1f one of the hydrogen atom of hydrocarbon is replaced by the – NO2 group, the resultant organic compound is called a ntiro compound.

2. E.g., CH3 – CH2 – NO2. Nitro ethane

Question 2.
Define Tautomerism. Give example. Why tertiary nitro alkanes do not ethibit tautomerism?
1. Tautomerism is an isomerism in which the isomers change into one another with great ease of shifting of proton so that they exist together in equilibrium.

2. Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism due to absence of a-H atom.

Question 3.
Differentiate between nitro form and acid form of tautomerism of nitro methane.
Nitro form

1. Less acidic
2. Dissolves in NaOH slowly.
3. Decolourises FeCl3 solution.
4. Electrical conductivity is low.

Aci form

1. More acidic and also called pseudo acids (or) Nitrolic acids.
2. Dissolves in NaOH instantly.
3. With FeCI3 gives reddish brown colour.
4. Electrical conductivity is high.

Question 4.
Compare the acid strength of the following compounds

1. Nitro methane
2. Nitro ethane
3. 2 – nitro propane.

1. The α – H atom of 10 and 20 nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO2 group.

2. Nitroalkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.

3. When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.

Question 5.
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene by direct nitration. Give reason.
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene because the bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.

Question 6.
How would you convert Acetaldoxime into Nitroethane?
Oxidation of acetaldoxime and with trifluoro peroxy acetic acid gives nitroethane.

Question 7.
How is nitrobenzene from benzene?
When benzene is heated with a nitrating mixture (Con.HNO3 + Con.H2SO4), at 330 K, electrophilic substitution takes place to form nitro benzene.

Question 8.
How will you prepare p – dinitrobenzene from p – nitroanlline?

Question 9.
How is amino group can be directly converted into nitro group? Explain with an example.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group using caro’s acid (H2SO5) (or) persuiphuric acid (H2S2O8) (or) peroxytrifluro acetic acid (F3C.COOOH) as oxidising agent.

Question 10.
Explain the action of tin and hydrochloric acid with ethyl nitrite.
Ethyl nitrite on reduction with Sn / HCI gives ethanol.

Question 11.
Explain about the acid (or) basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite.

Question 12.
What is Chioropicrin? How is ¡t prepared? Give its uses.
CCI3NO2 is Chioropicrin. It is prepared from nitro methane with Cl2 in the presence of NaOH. The a – H atom of nitroalkanes are successively replaced by halogen atoms. It is used as an insecticide.

Question 13.
Explain – Nef carbonly synthesis.

Question 14.
What happens when nitrobenzene Is treated with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAIH4?
Nitrobenzene undergoes reduction with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAlH4 to give aniline.

Question 15.
Write a note about structure of Amines.
1. Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron and sp3 hybridised, out of the four sp3 hybridised orbitais of nitrogen, three sp3 orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen (or) alkyl groups of carbon, the fourth sp3 orbital contains a lone pair of electron. Hence, amines posses pyramidal geometry.

2. Due to presence of lone pair of electron C – N – H (or) C – N – Cbond angle is less than the normal tetrahedral bond angle 109.5v. For example, the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine is 108°. This is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.

Question 16.
How would you convert Nitroethane to ethanamine?

Question 17.
Explain the action of Pt (or) Sn/HCI with nitrobenzene.

Question 18.
Explain mendlus reaction.
Reduction of alkyl or aryl cyanides with Na / C2H5OH is used as a reducing agent is called mendius reaction.

Question 19.
Explain the action of sodium amalgum and ethanol with Methyl isocyanide.

Question 20.
What happens when sodium azide is treated with methyl bromide?

Quesion 21.
How would you convert chiorobenzene to aniline?
When chiorobenzene is heated with alcoholic ammonia, aniline is obtained.

Question 22.
Explain Sabatier – MalIhe method.
when vapour of an alcohol and ammonia are passed over alumina, W2O5 (or) silica at 400°C, all types of amines are formed. This method is called Sabatier – Mailhe method.

Question 23.
Convert phenol into aniline.
Phenol reacts with ammonia at 300°C in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 to give aniline.

Question 24.
Compare the boiling points of 10, 2° and 3° amInes.
1. The boiling point of various amines follows the order,

2. Due to the polar nature of primary and secondary amines, can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds using their lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom. However, tertiary amines do not form intermolecular hydrogen bond and they have lower boiling point than 1° and 2° amines.

Question 25.
Aniline is basic in nature. Justify this statement.
The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline makes it base. Aniline reacts with mineral acids to form salt.

Question 26.
Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia. Justify this statement.
When a + I group like and alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen increase the electron density on nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation. Hence alkyl amines are stronger than ammonia.

Question 27.
Explain the action of acretyl chloride with ethyl amine?

Question 28.
What happens when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
Ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to give ethyl diazonium chloride, which is unstable and it is converted to ethanol by liberating N2.

Question 29.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with N – methyl aniline.
N – methyl aniline react with nitrous acid to give N – nitroso amine as yellow oily liquid which is insoluble in water.

Question 30.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with trimethyl amine.
Aliphatic tertiary amine reacts with nitrous acid to form trialkyl ammonium nitrite salt, which is soluble in water.

Question 31.
What happens when nitrous acid is treated iith N, N – dimethyl aniline?

Question 32.
Explain Hoffmann mustard oil reaction. (or) Explain the action of CS2 with aniline.
When aniline is treated with CS2, or heated together, S – diphenylthio urea is formed, which on boiling with strong HCI , phenyl isothiocyanate (phenyl mustard oil), is formed.

The above reaction is known as Hoffmann mustard oil reaction.

Question 33.
Explain the action of Br2water with aniline.

Question 34.
How would you prepare p – bromo aniline from aniline?

Question 35.
How would you prepare p – nitro from aniline?

Question 36.
Explain the action of hypophosphrous acid with Benzene diazonium chloride. (or) Explain the action of ethanol with benzene diazonium chloride.

Question 37.
Explain Gattermann reaction.
Gattermann reaction.

Question 38.
How would you get iodo benzene form benzene diazonium chloride.

Question 39.
Explain Baltz – schiemann reaction.
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid, benezene diazonium tetra fluoroborate is precipitated which on heating decomposes to give fluorobenzene.

Question 40.
Convert Benzene diazonium chloride into phenol.

Question 41.
StartIng form Benzene diazonium chloride, how will you get Nitrobenzene?
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid we get diazonium fluoroborate which on treated with sodium nitrite solution in the presence of copper, nitrobenzene is obtained.

Question 42.
Convert benzene diazonium chloride to benzoic acid

Question 43.
Explain the action of SnCl2 and HCl with benzene diazonium chloride.

Question 44.
Starting from benzene diazonium chloride, how would you get bright organge azo dye?

Question 45.
Write the structural formula and TUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Isobutyl nitrite
2. Benzo nitrile

1. Isobutyl nitrite

2 – methyll propane nitrile

2. Benzo nitrile C6H5CN Benzene carbo nitrile

Question 46.
Draw the structural formula of

1. 3 – cyano butanoic acid
2. 2 – bromo – 3 – chloro – 3 – methyl pentane nitrile.

1. 3 – cyano butanoic acid

2. 2 – bromo – 3 – chloro

– 3 – methyl pentane nitrile

Question 47.
How will you get propane nitrile from ethyl bromide?

Question 48.
Starting from methyl magnesium bromide, how would you obtain ethane nitrile?

Question 49.
Explain thrope nitrite condensation.
Self condensation of two molecules of alkyl nitrile in the presence of sodium to form iminonitrile is called Thrope nitnie condensation.

Question 50.
Explain Levine and hauser acetylation.
The nitrites containing α – hydrogen also undergo condensation with esters in the presence of sodamide in ether to form ketoriitriles. This reaction is known as Levine and hauser acetylation.

Question 51.
How would you prepare the following compounds by carbylamines reaction.

1. Methyl isocyanide
2. Phenyl isocyanide

1.

2.

Question 52.
Complete the following reactions.

Question 53.
How is methyl isocyanide changed to methyl cyanide?

Question 54.
What are the uses of nitrobenzene?

1. Nitro benzene is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
2. It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, pesticides, synthelic rubber, aniline and explosives like TNT, TNB.

Question 55.
Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines why?
Due to the presence of two H – atom on N – atoms of primary amines they undergo extensive intermolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atom on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.

Question 56.
How is m – nitroaniline obtained from nitrobenzene?

Question 57.
How is aniline obtained from benzoic acid?

Question 58.
How will you convert benzene into aniline?

Question 59.
How will you distinguish between.

1. By reacting with NaNO2 and HCl at the temperature of around 0 to 5°C, Aniline will from diazonium salt. CH3NH2 will form methanol and bubbles of N2 gas will come out of the solution.

2. By Hinsberg’s reagent, C6H5SO2CI(CH3)3N will not react. (CH3)2NH will form a product which is insoluble in alkali.

Question 60.
Account for any two of the following.

1. Amines are basic substances while amides are neutral.
2. Aromatic amines are weaker bases than aliphatic amines.

1. In amines alkyl group is an electron releasing group which increases the electron density on nitrogen thus making them basic whereas in amides

group is electron withdrawing, therefore they are neutral.

2. It is because aryl group is an electron withdrawing group which decreases electron density on nitrogen atom, making them less basic whereas alkyl group is electron releasing which makes alkylamines more basic.

Question 61.

1. Assign a reason for the following statements – Alkylamines are stronger bases than arylamines.
2. How would you convert methylamine into ethylamine?

1. It is because in arylamines the – NH2 group is attached directly to the benzene ring. It results in the unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom to be in conjugation with the benzene ring and thus making it less available for protonation whereas alkyl group are electron releasing group.

2.

Question 62.

1. How will you convert an alkyl halide to a primary amine whose molecule has one carbon atom more than the used alkyl halide molecule?
2. Why are amines more basic than the comparable alcohols.

1.

2. Due less electronegativity of oxygen atom as compared to nitrogen, amines are more basic than alcohols.

Question 63.
Aniline gets coloured on standing in air for a long time. Why?
Due to strong electron – donating effect (+ R effect) of NH2 group, the electron density on the benzene ring increases. As a result, aniline is easily oxidised on standing in air for a long time to form coloured products.

Question 64.
CH3CONH2 is a weaker base than CH3CH2NH2. Why?
Due to resonance, the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom in CH3CONH2 is delocalised over the keto group. There is no such effect ip CH3CH2NH2. Due to reduction in electron density on N – atom of CH3CONH2, it is a weaker base than CH3CH2NH2.

Question 65.
Write chemical equation for the following conversions:

1. CH3CH2 – Cl into CH3CH2CH2 – NH2
2. C6H5 – CH2 – Cl into C6H5CH2CH2NH2

1.

2.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 3 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the classification of organic nitro compounds.

2. Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

1. 2 – methyl – 1 – nltropropane
2. 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitropropane
3. Nitrobenzene

1.  2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
2.  2, 2 – dimethyl – 1- nitropropane
3.  Nitrobenzene

Question 3.
Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

1. 2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
2. 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
3. 2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

1.     2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
2.  1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
3. 2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

Question 4.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C4H9NO2.

Question 5.
How would you prepare nitro ethane from the following compounds?

1. CH3 – CH2Br
2. CH3 – CH3

1.
2.

Question 6.
Mention any two methods of preparation of nitro methane.
1.
2.

Question 7.
Explain the

1. acid medium reduction
2. neutral medium reduction of Nitromethane.

Question 8.
What happens when hydrochloric acid is treated with

1. Nitro ethane
2. 2 – nitropropane
3. 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

(or)
How would you distinguish 1°, 2°, 3° nitro compounds?
1.
2.
3.

Question 9.
Explain the following reactions using nitro benzene.

1. Chlorination
2. Nitration
3. Suiphonation

1.
2.
3.

Question 10.
Give the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Isopropvl amine
2. Allyl amine
3. Hexamethyl diamine

1. Isopropvl amine  Propan – 2 – amine
2. Allyl amine   Prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
3. Hexamethyl diamine  Hexane 1, 6 – diamine

Question 11.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of

1. Methyl isopropyl amine
2. Diethyl butyl amine
3. Ethyl methyl ispropylamine

1. Methyl isopropyl amine:

N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

2. Diethyl butyl amine:

N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine

3. Ethyl methyl ispropylamine:

N – ethyl – N – methyl propan – 2 – amine

Question 12.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of …………..

1. N, N – dimethyl aniline
2. Benzyl amine
3. N – methyl benzylamine

1. N, N – dimethyl aniline

2. Benzyl amine

3. N – methyl benzylamine

Question 13.
Explain the alkylation reaction of methylamine with equation.
Alkylation:
Primary amines reacts with alkyl halides to give successively 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts.

Question 14.
Explain about the suiphonation reaction of aniline.
Aniline reacts with Conc. H2SO4 to form anilinium hydrogen sulphate which on heating with H2SO4 at 453 – 473K gives p – aminobenzene suiphonic acid, commonly known as suiphanilic acid, as the major product.

Question 15.
Explain Sandmeyer reaction with example.
On mixing freshly prepared solution of benzene diazonium chloride with cuprous halides, aryl halides are formed. This reaction is called Sandmeyer reaction.

Question 16.
Write the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Methyl cyanide
2. Propionitrile
3. Butyro nitrile

1. CH3CN – Ethane nitrile
2. CH3 – CH2CN – Propane nitrile
3. CH3 – CH2 – CH2CN – Butane nitnie.

Question 17.
How would you produce Ethane nitrite form the following compounds?

1. Acetamide
2. Ammonium acetate
3. Acetaldoxime

1.
2.
3.

Question 18.
Explain the action of following reagent with ethane nitrile.

1. Dilute mineral acid
2. Ni / H2

1.
2.

Question 19.
What happens when methyl isocyanide reacts with the following reagents?

1. Mineral acid
2. Na + C2H5OH

1.
2.

Question 20.
Explain the addition reactions of alkyl Isocyanide with

1. halogen
2. sulphur
3. ozone

1.
2.
3.

Question 21.
What are the uses of aliphatic nitro compounds.

1. Nitromethane is used as a fuel for cars.
2. Chloropicrrn (CCI3NO2) is used as an insecticide
3. Nitroethane is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive and they are good solvents for polymers, cellulose ester, synthetic rubber and dyes etc,

Question 22.
Explain about the structure and uses of Mitomycin.

1. Mitomycin C, and anticancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer, contains an aziridine ring.
2. The aziridine functional group participates in the drug’s degradation by DNA, resulting in the death of cancerous cells.

Question 23
Complete the following reactions.

Question 24.
Convert Methanamine into Ethanamine.

Question 25.
Convert Ethanamic into Methanamine.

Question 26.
How would you obtain Benzoic acid from aniline?

Question 27.
Complete the following reactions.

Question 28.
Write the reactions of

1. aromatic and
2. aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.

Aromatic primary amines react with HNO2 at 273 – 278 K to form aromatic diazonium salts.

Aliphatic primary amines also react with HNO2 at 273 – 278 K to form aliphatic diazonium salts. But these are unstable even at low temperature and thus decomposes readily to form a mixture of compounds consisting of alkyl chlorides, alkenes and alcohols, out of which alcohols generally predominates.

Question 29
Given plausible explanation for each of the following.

1. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
2. Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
3. Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?

1. It is because C2H5O° is more stable than C2H5NH° because oxygen is more electronegative than nitrogen.

2. Due to the presence of two H – atoms on N – atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intennolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atoms on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines of comparable molecular masses.

3. It is because there is electron withdrawing, C6H5 group in aromatic amines which makes them less basic than aliphatic amines in which alkyl group is electron releasing.

Question 30.
Account for the following.

1. Primary amines (R – NH2)have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R3N).
2. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
3. (CH3)2NH Is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.

1. Due to maximum intermolecular hydrogen bonding in primary amines (due to presence of more number of H – atoms), primary amines have higher boiling point in comparison to tertiary amines.

2. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction due to acid-base reaction. Aniline and a Lewis Acid / Protic Acid, which is used in Friedel-crafts reaction.

3. In (CH3)3N there is maximum steric hindrance and least solvation but in (CH3)2NH the solvation is more group; di-methyl amine is still a stronger base than trimethyl amine.

Question 31.
Write the structures of A,B and C in the following reactions.

Question 32.
Predict, giving reasons the order of basicity of the following compounds.

1. gaseous phase
2. In aqueous solution (CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH, CH3NH2, NH3

1. In gaseous phase, basic character of amines increases with the increase in the number of electron the releasing alkyl groups due to + I effect so the trend of basic character is 3° > 2° > 1° > NH3. Therefore, (CH3)3N > (CH3)3NH > CH3NH2 > NH3.

2. In aqueous phase, solvation of ammonium cation occurs by warer molecules, greater the size of ion, lesser will be the solvation and lesser will be the stability of ion. So on combining + I effect and solvation effect, in aqueous phase trend changes to 2° > 1° > 3°, (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3.

Question 33.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Question 34.
What happens when. (Write reactions only)

1. Nitroethane is treated with LiAlH4.
2. Diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in basic medium.

1.
2.

Question 35.
How would you achieve the following conversions.

(i) Nitrobenzene to aniline

(ii) An alkyl halide to a quarternary ammonium salt.

(iii) Aniline to benzonitrile.

Question 36.
What happens when (write reactions only).

(i) Nitropropane is treated with LiAlH4.
(ii) Ethyl lsocyañide undergoes hydrolysis.
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol i basic medium.

Question 37.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Question 38.
Identify A and B in the following reactions

Question 39.
A compound ‘x’ having molecular formula C3H7NO reacts with Br2 in the presence of KOH to give another compound ‘y’. The compound ‘y’ reacts with HNO2 to form ethanol. and N2 gas. Identify the compounds x andy and write the reactions involved.

Question 40.
An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C3H5N on hydrolysis gave a nother compound ‘B’ The compound ‘B’ on treatment with HNO2 gave ethyl alcohol. ‘B’ on warming with CHCI3 and alcoholic caustic potash gave an offensive smelling substance ‘C’. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various reduction reactions of nitrobenzene.

Question 2.
What happens when nitrous acid react with
(i) Ethyl amine
(ii) Aniline
(iii) N – methyl aniline
(iv) Trimethyl amine
(v) N, N – dimethyl aniline

Question 3.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Benzene
(ii) Phenol
(iii) Nitro benzene
(iv) Benzolc acid
(v) Fluorobenzene

Question 4.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Biphenyl
(ii) Phenyl hydrazine
(iii) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(iv) p – amino azo benzene
(v) Chioro benzene

Question 5.
Convert aniline into the following compounds.
(i) N – phenyl benzamide
(ii) Phenyl isothiocyanate
(iii) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(iv) Sulphanilinic acid
(v) Phenyl isocyanide

Question 6.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C6H7N on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C gives (B) of formula C6H5N2Cl. (B) on treatment with cuprous cyanide give (C) of formula C7H5N. (C) on reaction with sodium and ethanol gives (D) of formula C7H9N. (D) on reaction with nitrous acid gives (E) of molecular formula C7H8O. Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions involved.
1. (A) is identified as Aniline from the molecular formula.
2. Aniline on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C, diazotisation take place and the product (B) formed is benzene diazonium chloride.

3. Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with CuCN produces (C) as cyano benzene.

4. Cyano benzene on reaction with Na and C2H5OH undergoes reduction reaction to give (D) as benzvlamine.

5. Benzylamine on treatment with nitrous acid gives benzyl alcohol as (E).

Question 7.
Complete the following reactions and identify the A, B and C in these reaction.

Question 8.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compound A, B and C.
Step – 1: To find out the structure of compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’.
1. Since compound ‘C’ with molecular formula C6H7N is formed from compound ‘B’ on treatment with Br2 + KOH (i.e., Hoffmatm bromamide reaction). Therefore, compound ‘B’ must be an amide and ‘C’ must be an amine. The only amine having the molecular formula C6H7N is C6H5NH2 (i.e., aniline or benzenamine).

2. Since ‘C’ is aniline, therefore, the amide from which it is formed must be benzamide (C6H5CONH2). Thus, compound ‘B’ is benzamide. The chemical equation showing the conversion of ‘B’ to ‘C’ is

Step – 2:
To find out the structure of compound ‘A’. Since compound ‘B’ is formed from compound ‘A’ by treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating. Therefore, compound ‘A’ must be benzoic acid or benzenecarboxylic acid.

Question 9.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H7ON undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write the structures of A,B,C, D and E in the following reactions.

Question 10.
Write reactions and conditions required for the following conversions.
(i) Aniline to benzene
(ii) Methylamine to methyl cyanide
(iii) Propanenitrile to ethylamine
(iv) m – Bromoaniline to m – bromophenol
(v) Nitrobenzene to 2, 4, 6 – tribromoaniline.

Question 11.
A compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C3H7O2N on reaction with Fe and cone. HCI gives a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula C3H9N. Compound ‘B’ on treatment with NaNO2 and HCI gives another compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C3H8O. The compound ‘C’ has a molecular formula, C3H8O. The compound ‘C’ gives effervescence with Na. On oxidation with CrO3, the compound ‘C’ gives a saturated aldehyde containing three carbon atoms. Deduce the structures of A, B, and C and write the equations for the reaction involved.

Question 12.
Identify compounds A, B and C in the following reactions.

Question 13.
An aromatic hydrocarbon (A) of molecular formula C6H6 reacts with Conc.HNO3 and Conc. H2SO4 gives (B) of formula C6H5O2N. (B) on reaction with Sn/HCI gives (C) of formula C6H7N which answers carbylamine reaction. (C) on treatment with chloroform and alkali gives (D) of formula C7H5N. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.

Question 14.
Convert the following.
(i) Nitro benzene → Benzene
(ii) Benzene → Benzoic acid

Common Errors

1. TUPAC name of nitro compounds.
2. If the formula ends as – NO2, the students always think of nitro only.
3. Reducing agents may be different for a different mediums.
4. The basic character of amines is always difficult to remember.
5. Cyanide and isocyanide formula may get confusing.

Rectifications

1. Both common name and IUPAC names are the same for aliphatic and aromatic nitro compounds.

2. – NO2 maybe

3.

• Acid medium reducing agent: Sn / HCI
• Neutral medium reducing agent: Zn + NH4CI
• Basic medium reducing agent: Zn / NaOH
• Catalytic reducing agent: Ni, Pt, LiAlH4

4. 2° amine > 3° amine > 1° amine > NH3

Alkyl group is connected to C – Cyanide. If alkyl group connected to  Isocyandie.

## Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Opening statement of affairs is usually prepared to find out the _________.
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year
(b) Capital at the end of the year
(c) Profit made during the year
(d) Loss occurred during the year
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year

Question 2.
The excess of assets over liabilities is ________.
(a) Loss
(b) Cash
(c) Capital
(d) Profit
(c) Capital

Question 3.
Balance of Receipts and payments account indicates the ________.
(a) Loss incurred during the period
(b) Excess of income over expenditure of the period
(c) Total cash payments during the period
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date

Question 4.
Income and expenditure account is a ________.
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Representative personal account
(a) Nominal A/c

Question 5.
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rate of interest allowed to an loan advanced by partners is ______.
(a) 8% p.a.
(b) 12%p.a.
(c) 5%p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.

Question 6.
Which of the following is shown in profit and loss appropriation account _______.
(a) Office expenses
(b) Salary of staff
(c) Partners salary
(d) Interest on bank loan
(c) Partners salary

Question 7.
The average rate of return of similar concerns is considered as _______.
(a) Average profit
(b) Normal rate of return
(c) Expected rate of return
(d) None of these
(b) Normal rate of return

Question 8.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Super profit = Total profit/Number of years
(b) Super profit = weighted profit/Number of years
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
(d) Super profit = Average profit x years of purchase
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit.

Question 9.
The profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is transferred to capital account of ________.
(a) The old partners
(b) The new partners
(c) All the partners
(d) The sacrificing partners
(a) The old partners

Question 10.
If the old profit sharing ratio is more than the new profit sharing ratio of a partner, the difference is called ______.
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Sacrificing ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these
(b) Sacrificing ratio

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) Memorandum of revaluation account
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
On revaluation, the increase in liabilities leads to __________.
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) profit
(d) None of these
(b) Loss

Question 13.
At the time of forfeiture, share capital account is debited with ________.
(a) Face Value
(b) Nominal Value
(c) Paid up amount
(d) Called up amount
(d) Called up amount

Question 14.
After the forfeited shares are reissued, the balance in the forfeited shares account should be transferred to ________.
(a) General reserve A/c
(b) Capital reserve A/c
(d) Surplus A/c
(b) Capital reserve A/c

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analyzed _______.
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
The financial statements do not exhibit _______.
(a) Non-monetary data
(b) Past-data
(c) Short term data
(d) Long-term data
(a) Non-monetary data

Question 17.
Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called ________.
(a) Reserves
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Funds
(d) Quick assets
(d) Quick assets

Question 18.
Debt-equity ratio is a measure of ________.
(a) Short-term solvency
(b) Long-term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
(b) Long-term solvency

Question 19.
Which sub-menu displays groups, ledgers and voucher types in tally?
(a) Inventory vouchers
(b) Accounting vouchers
(c) Company info
(d) Account info
(d) Account info

Question 20.
What are the predefined ledgers in tally?
(i) cash (ii) Profit and loss A/c (iii) Capital A/c
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define single entry system.
According to Kolher, “Single entry system is a system of book-keeping in which as a rule, only records of cash and personal accounts are maintained. It is always incomplete double entry system varying with circumstances”.

Question 22.
From the following receipts and payments and the additional information given, Calculate amount of subscription to be shown in income and expenditure a/c for year ended 31.12.18.

Subscription outstanding for 2018 ₹ 8,000.

Question 23.
Define partnership.
According to section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act 1932, partnership is defined as, “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried by all or any of them acting for all”.

Question 24.
The Profits and losses of a firm for the last four years were as follows:
2015 – ₹ 20,000
2016 – ₹ 25,000
2017 – ₹ 3,000 (Loss)
2018 – ₹ 18,000
you are required to calculate goodwill on the basis of 5 years purchase of average profit of last 4 years.
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill= Average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,000 × 5
= ₹ 75,000

Question 25.
A and B are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. They admit C on 1.1.2018. On that date, balance sheet showed accumulated profit of? 80,000 on the liabilities side. Give the journal entry.

Question 26.
What is the journal entry to be passed to transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor of the deceased partner?
To transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor or legal representative of the deceased partner.

Question 27.
What is meant by calls-in-arrear?
When a share holder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or on calls, the amount remaining unpaid is known as calls-in-arrear. In other words, the amount called up but not paid is calls-in-arrears.

Question 28.
Calculate gross profit ratio from the following: revenue from operations ₹ 5,00,000; cost of revenue from operations ₹ 4,20,000; and purchases ₹ 3,60,000.
Gross profit Ratio = $$\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Revenue from operations }} \times 100$$
Gross profit Revenue from operation – cost of revenue from operation
₹ 5,00,000 – ₹ 4,20,000
= ₹ 80,000
Gross profit ratio = $$\frac{80000}{500000} \times 100$$
= 16%

Question 29.
Calculate Quick Ratio from the following information: Current assets – 8,00,000; Current liabilities- ₹ 4,00,000; Inventories ₹ 1,40,000; and prepaid expenses ₹ 60,000.
Quick Ratio = $$\frac{\text { Quick Assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}$$
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= ₹ 8,00,000 – (1,40,000 – 60,000)
= ₹ 6,00,000
∴ Quick ratio = $$\frac{600000}{400000}$$ = 6:4 = 3:2 = 1.5:1

Question 30.
What is computerised accounting system?

• Computerised accounting system refers to the system of accounting maintenance using computer.
• It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of computer in order to maintain and produce accounting records and reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the following particulars, ascertain profit or loss.
Capital at beginning – ₹ 5,00,000
Capital at end – ₹ 8,50,000
Drawing during the year – ₹ 70,000

Question 32.
From the following information of club, show the amount of match expenses in financial statements of the club for the year ended 31.03.2016.
Matches expenses 31.03.16 – ₹ 30,000
Match fund – ₹ 17,000
Donations for match fund (31.03.16) – ₹ 9,000
Proceeds from the sale of match tickets – ₹ 3,000

Note:
Match expenses of ₹ 30,000 out of which ₹ 29,000 are met through match fund as per the availability of fund remaining. ₹ 1,000 is debited to income and expenditure A/c.

Question 33.
Prakash and Supriya were partners who share profit and losses in the ratio 5:3. Capital ₹ 3,00,000 for Prakash ₹ 2,00,000 for Supriya. On 1st April 2018, Prakash introduced additional capital ₹ 60,000 on 1st July 2018. Supriya introduced additional capital ₹ 30,000 during the year. Calculate the interest on capital at 6% p.a.
Calculation of interest on capital

Note:
Date of additional capital introduced by Supriya is not given. Interest on additional capital is calculated for an average period of 6 months.

Question 34.
From the following information relating to a partnership firm, find out the value of its goodwill based on 3 years purchase of average profits of last 4 years.
a) Profits of the year 2015, 2016, 2017 and 2018 are ₹ 10,000, ₹ 12,500; ₹ 12,000 and ₹ 11,500, respectively.
b) The business was looked after by a partner and fair remuneration amount to ₹ 1,500 per year. This amount was not considered in the calculation of the above profit.

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= 10,000 × 3
Goodwill = ₹ 30,000

Question 35.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit and losses with ratio of 5:3:2. As from 1st April 2017, D is admitted into the partnership and new profit sharing ratio of 4:3:2:1.
(i) Increase the value of premises by ₹ 60,000
(ii) Depreciate stock by ₹ 5,000; furniture by ₹ 2,000 and machinery by ₹ 2,500.
(iii) Provide an outstanding liability of ₹ 500. Pass journal entries.

Question 36.
Kavitha, Kumudha and Lalitha are partners with profit shares ratio of 5:3:3. Kumudha retires from the firm on 31.12.18. On the date of retirement her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 2,00,000. Pass journal entries.
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately
(iii) ₹ 70,000 is paid and balance in future

Question 37.
The directors of a company forfeited 200 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully called up on which final call of ₹ 2/- has not been paid. The shares were reissued upon payment of ₹ 1,500. Journalise the above transaction.

Question 38.
From the following particulars, prepare comparative income statement of Arul Ltd.

Question 39.
From the following particulars, calculate current ratio, and liquid ratio.
Cash Rs – 18,000; Bills payable – 27,000; Bank O/D – 5,000; Debtors Rs – 1,42,000; creditors – 1,20,000; Stock Rs – 1,80,000; outstanding expenses – 15,000.
(a) Current Ratio = $$\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}$$
Current Assets = Cash + Debtor + Stock
= 18,000+ 1,42,000+ 1,80,000
= ₹ 3,40,000
Current liabilities = Bills payable + Creditors + Outstanding expenses
= 27,000+ 1,20,000+ 15,000+ 5,000
= ₹ 1,67,000
(b) Liquid ratio = $$\frac{\text { Liquid Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}$$
Liquid Assets = Current Assets – Closing stock
= 3,00,000 – 1,80,000 = ₹ 1,60,000
∴ Liquid ratio = $$\frac{160000}{167000}$$ = 96 : 1

Question 40.
What are the pre-defined ledgers available in Tally ERP.9?
In Tally, to record transactions, the transactions are to be identified with the related ledger accounts.
In tally ERP.9, there are two types of pre-defined ledgers.
(i) Cash:
Under the group cash in hand, this ledger is created. You can enter the opening balance as on the books beginning from.
(ii) Profit and loss account:
This ledger is created under the group primary. In this ledger, previous year’s profit or loss is entered as the opening balance of this ledger.
To create ledger,
Gateway of Tally → Masters → Accounts Info → Ledgers → Single Ledger → Create.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raju does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.

 Particulars 1.1.2018 31.12.2018 Cash at Bank 80,000 90,000 Stock of goods 1,80,000 1,40,000 Debtors 90,000 2,00,000 Creditors 1,30,000 1,95,000 Bank Loan 60,000 60,000 Bills payable 80,000 45,000 Machinery 1,70,000 1,70,000

He introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 withdrew ₹ 2500/- per month. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Calculation of opening capital:

Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars, calculate total sales

Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 3,15,000 + ₹ 9,85,000
= ₹ 13,00,000

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account information given below of Madurai sports club, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31.12.18 and balance sheet.

(i) Capital fund as on 1st January 2018, ₹ 30,000
(ii) Opening stock of sports materials ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000

[OR]

(b) Following is the receipts and payments A/c of Salem recreation club for the year ended 31st March 2019.

(i) There are 450 members each paying annual subscription of ₹ 30
(ii) Stock of stationery on 31st March 2018, ₹ 300 and 31st March 2019, ₹ 500
(iii) Capital fund as on 1st April 2018 was ₹ 9,300
Prepare income and expenditure A/c for the year ended 31st March 2019 and balance sheet as on that date.

Question 43.
(a) Santhosh is a partner in a partnership firm. As per deed, interest on drawing is charged at 6% p.a. During the year ended 31st Dec 2018, he withdrew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawing by using product method.
Calculation of interest on drawings under product method.

Interest on drawings = Sum of product × Rate of interest x $$\frac{1}{12}$$
= ₹ 1,44,000 × $$\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}$$
= ₹ 720

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profits from the following information:
(a) Capital employed: ₹ 60,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years: 2014 – 1,00,000; 2015 – 50,000; 2016 – 70,000; 2017 – 54,000; 2018 – 10,000.
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ₹ 3,600 p. a.

Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of returns
= ₹ 60,000 × $$\frac{20}{100}$$
= ₹ 12,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 53,200 – 12,000
= ₹ 41,200
Goodwill = Super profit × Numbers of years of purchase
= ₹ 41,200 × 5
= ₹ 2,06,000

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill by capitalizing super profit
a) Normal rate of return 10%
b) Profits for the last four years are ₹ 30,000; ₹ 40,000; ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 45,000
c) A non-recurring income of ₹ 3,000 is included in the above mentioned profit of ₹ 30,000
d) Average capital employed is ₹ 3,00,000.

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 40,500 – ₹ 30,000
= ₹ 10,500

[OR]

(b) Sundar and Suresh are partners sharing profit ratio of 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 1st January 2017 was as follows:

They decided to admit Sugumar into partnership for 1/4th share in the profit on the following terms:
(a) Sugumar has to bring in ₹ 30,000 as capital. His share of goodwill is valued at ₹ 5,000. He could not bring cash toward goodwill
(b) That the stock be valued at ₹ 20,000
(c) That the furniture be depreciated by ₹ 2,000.
(d) That the value of building be depreciated by 20%.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.

Question 45.
(a) The balance sheet of Rekha and Mary on 31st March 2018.

Their profit sharing ratio is 3:1. They agreed to admit kavitha into the partnership firm for 1/4th share of profits which she entirely gets from Rekha.
(i) Kavitha has to bring ₹ 20,000 as capital. Her share of goodwill is valued at 4,000. She could not bring cash towards goodwill.
(ii) Depreciate building by 10%
(iii) Stock to be valued at ₹ 6,000
(iv) Create provision for doubtful debts @ 5% on debtors
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and balance sheet after admission.

[OR]

(b) Charles, Muthu and Sekar are partners sharing profits in the ratio 3:4:2. Their balance sheet as on 31st December 2018 is as under.

On 1.1.2019 Charles retired from the partnership firm on the following arrangements.
(i) Stock to be appreciated by 10%
(ii) Furniture to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide ₹ 1,000 for bad debtors.
(iv) There is an outstanding repair of ₹ 11,000 not yet recorded
(v) The final amount due to Charles was paid.
Prepare revaluation account, capital account and the balance sheet of a firm after retirement.

Question 46.
(a) Ramesh, Ravi and Akash are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.2017 is as follows.

Akash died on 31. 03. 2018. On the death of Akash the following adjustments are made.
(i) Plant and machinery is to be valued at ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 24,000.
(iv) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial years to the death of average of the three completed years profit before death. Profit for 2015, 2016 and 2017 were ₹ 66,000; ₹ 60,000 & ₹ 66,000 respectively.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.

[OR]

(b) A company issued 10,000 shares of ₹ 20 each a premium of ₹ 5 per share payable ₹ 10/- on application. ₹ 10 on Allotment (including premium) ₹ 5/- on first and final call. The company received 11,000 shares, excess application money was rejected. All money due were received except the final call money on 500 shares. Pass journal entries.

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common size statement of financial position for the following particulars.

(b) Calculate turnover ratios from the following information from ‘A’ Ltd.

Revenue from operation for the year 35,00,000
Purchases for the year 21,00,000
Cost of revenue from operations 16,00,000
Assume that sales and purchases are for credit.

## Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?
(a) D(+) Glucose
(b) L(+) Glucose
(c) D(-) Fructose
(d) D(+) Galactose
(c) D(-) Fructose

Question 2.
The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below Respectively is ………………..
(a) L – Erythrose, L – Threose, L – Erythrose, D – Threose
(b) D – Threose, D – Erythrose, L – Thrcose, L – Erythrose
(c) L – Etythrose, L – Threose, D – Erythrose, D – Threose
(d) D – Erythrose, D – Threose, L – Erythrose, L – Threose
(d) D – Erythrose, D – Threose, L – Erythrose, L – Threose

Question 3.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) maltose
(d) Lactose
(b) Sucrose

Question 4.
Glucose(HCN) Product (hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) A, the compound A is ………………..
(a) Heptanoic acid
(b) 2 – lodohexane
(c) Heptane
(d) Heptanol
(a) Heptanoic acid

Question 5.
Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the presence of little hydrochloric acid, it becomes levorotatory.
Reason: Sucrose hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this change in sign of rotation is observed.
(a) If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) if both assertion and reason are false
(a) If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

Qustion 6.
The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from ……………..
(a) Amino acids Protein DNA
(b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
(c) DNA RNA Prnteins
(d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
(c) DNA RNA Proteins

Question 7.
In a protein, various amino acids liked together by …………..
(a) Peptide bond
(b) Dative bond
(c) α – Glycosidic bond
(d) β – Glycosidic bond
(a) Peptide bond

Question 8.
Among the following the achiral amino acid is …………..
(a) 2 – ethylalanine
(b) 2 – methyiglycine
(c) 2 – hydroxymethyiscrine
(d) Tryptophan
(c) 2 – hydroxymethylserine

Question 9.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is ………………
(a) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
(b) the sugar component in RNA is 2’ – deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
(c) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’ – deoxyribose
(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’ – deoxyribose

Question 10.
In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in ……………….
(a) NH2 – CH(R) – COOH
(b) NH2 – CH(R) – COO
(c) H3N – CH(R) – COOH
(d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO
(d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO

Question 11.
Which one of the following is not produced by body?
(a) DNA
(b) Enzymes
(c) Hormones
(d) Vitamins
(d) Vitamins

Question 12.
The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively ……………..
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 4 and 2
(c) 5 and 1
(d) 1 and 5
(d) 1 and 5

Question 13.
Vitamin B2 is also known as …………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Thiamine
(c) Nicotinamide
(d) Pyridoxine
(a) Riboflavin

Question 14.
The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are …………..
(b) Cytosine and Guanine
(c) Cytosine and Thiamine
(d) Cytosine and Uracil
(c) Cytosine and Thiamine

Question 15.
Among the following L – serine is …………..

Question 16.
The secondary structure of a protein refers to ………………
(a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone
(b) hydrophobic interaction
(c) sequence of a-amino acids
(d) α – helical backbone
(d) α – helical backbone

Question 17.
Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin K

Question 18.
Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives ……………
(a) L – Glucose
(b) D – Fructose
(c) D – Ribose
(d) D – Glucose
(d) D – Glucose

Question 19.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
(c) Denaturation makes protein more active
(d) Insulin maintains the sugar level of in the human body
(c) Denaturation makes protein more active

Question 20.
Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?
(a) It does not form oxime
(b) It does not react with Grignard reagent
(c) It does not form osazones
(d) It does not reduce tollens reagent
(b) It does not react with Grignard reagent

Question 21.
If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence of complementary strand would be ……………..
(a) TACGAACT
(b) TCCGAACT
(c) TACGTACT
(d) TACGRAGT
(a) TACGAACT

Question 22.
Insulin, a hormone chemically is ………….
(a) Fat
(b) Steroid
(c) Protein
(d) Carbohydrates
(c) Protein

Question 23.
a – D (+) Glucose and ß – D (+) glucose are ………………..
(a) Epimers
(b) Anomers
(c) Enantiomers
(d) Conformational isomers
(b) Anomers

Question 24.
Which of the following are epimers?
(a) D(+) – Glucose and D(+) – Galactose
(b) D(+) – Glucose and D(+) – Mannose
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 25.
Which of the following amino acids are achiral?
(a) Alanine
(b) Leucine
(c) Proline
(d) Glycine
(a) Alanine

Question 1.
What type of linkages hold together monomers of DNA?
Monomers of DMA are held together by a Phosphodiester linkage.

Question 2.
Give the differences between primary and secondary structure of proteins.
Primary structure of proteins

1. Linear sequence of amino acids
2. Composed of peptide bonds formed between amino acids.
3. Formed during translation.
4. Involved in post-translational modifications.

Secondary structure of proteins

1. Folding of the peptide chain into an a-helix and 13-sheet.
2. Encompasses hydrogen bonds
3. Forms collagen, elastin action, myosin, and keratin – like fibres.
4. Involved in forming structures such as cartilages, ligaments, skins etc.

Question 3.
Name the Vitamins whose deficiency cause

1. rickets
2. scurvy

1. Vitamin – D deficiency causes rickets disease.
2. Vitamin – C deficiency causes scurvy disease.

Question 4.
Write the Zwitter ion structure of alanine.
Zwitter ion structure of alanine

Question 5.
Give any three difference between DNA and RNA.
DNA:

1. It is mainly present in nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast .
2. It contains deoxyribose sugar
3. Base pair A = T. G = C
4. Double-stranded molecules
5. Its life time is high
6. it is stable and not hydrolysed easily by alkalis
7. It can replicate itself

RNA:

1. It is mainly present in cytoplasm, nucleolus and ribosomes
2. It contains ribose sugar
3. Base pair A = U. C = G
4. Single-stranded molecules
5. It is Short-lived
6. It is unstable and hydrolyzed easily by alkalis
7. It cannot replicate itself. It is formed from DNA.

Question 6.
Write a short note on peptide bond.
1. The amino acids are linked covalently by peptide bonds.

2. The carbonyl group of the first amino acid react with the amino group of the second amino acid to give an amide linkage (- CONH) between these aminoacids. This amide linkage is called peptide bond.

3. The resulting compound is called a dipeptide. Because, two amino acids are inovived for getting one peptide bond.

4. If large number of amino acids combined through peptide bond, the resulting giant molecule is called a protein.

5. The amino end of the peptide is known as N-terminal, while the carboxy end is called C – terminal.

Question 7.
Give two difference between Hormones and vitamins.
hormones

1. Hormones are produced in the endocrine or ductless glands.
2. Hormones are not stored in the body. These are produced as and when required.
3. They are effective in low concentration. Their excess or deficiency may cause hormonal disorders.
4. Hormones influence the genes to produce specific enzymes required during metabolism.
5. Example: Insulin

Vitamins

1. Vitamins (except Vitarnin – D) are not produced in the body. Vitamin must be supplied in the diet.
2. Vitamins are stored in the body upto certain extent.
3. They are needed in small quantity. Excess vitamins are excreted. Their deficiency causes
4. malfunctioning called deficiency diseases or avitaminosis.
5. They act as co-enzymes and help enzymes to perform their function.
6. Example: Vitamin A, B, C, D, E and K

Question 8.
Write a note on den atu ration of proteins.

• Each protein has a unique three-dimensional structure formed by interactions such as disuiphide bond, hydrogen bond, hydrophobic and electrostatic interactions.
• These interactions can be disturbed when the protein is exposed to a higher temperature, certain chemicals such as urea, alteration of pH, ionic strength, etc.
• This leads to the loss of the three-dimensional structure partially or completely.
• The process of a protein-losing its higher-order structure without losing the primary structure is called denaturation.
• When a protein denatures, its biological function is also lost.
• Since the primary structure is intact, denaturation can be reversed in certain proteins.
• This can happen spontaneously upon restoring the original conditions or with the help of special enzymes called cheperons.
• (ex) Coagulation of egg white by action of heat.

Question 9.
What is reducing and non – reducing sugars?
1. Reducing sugars:
Those carbohydrates which contain free aldehyde or ketonic group and reduces Fehling’s solution and Tollen’s reagent are called reducing sugars. All monosaccharides whether aldose or ketone are reducing sugars.

2. Non – reducing sugars:
Carbohydrates which do not reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution are called non – reducing sugars. Example Sucrose. They do not have free aldehyde group.

Question 10.
Why carbohydrates are generally optically active?
Carbohydrates are generally optically active because they have one or more chiral carbon atoms in their molecules. For example, Glucose has four chiral carbons and therefore it is optically active.

Question 11.
Classify the following into monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.

1. Starch
2. fructose
3. sucrose
4. lactose
5. maltose

1. Starch – Polysaccharides
2. Fructose – Mono saccharides
3. Sucrose – Oligosaccharide
4. Lactose – Oligosaccharide
5. Maltose – Oligosaccharide

Sucrose, Lactose and Maltose are typical disaccharides

Question 12.
How are vitamins classified?
Vitamins are classified into two groups based on their solubility in water and in fat.

i) Fat-soluble vitamins:

• These vitamins are absorbed best when taken with fatty food.
• They are stored in fatty tissues and livers.
• They do not dissolve in water, hence called fat-soluble vitamins.
(ex) Vitamin A, D, E & K

ii) Water Soluble vitamins:

• They cant be stored in our body.
• Excess of these vitamins are excreted through urine
(ex) Vitamin B (B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 & B12) and C.

Question 13.
What are hormones? Give examples.

• Harmones are organic substances (eg. apeptide or a steroid) that are secreted by tissue into the bloodstream.
• Harmones induce a physiological response (eg. growth and metabolism) in other tissues.
• Harmones arc intercellular signaling molecules.
• Endocrine glands make hormones. (ex) Insulin, Epinephrine, Estrogen, Androgen.

Question 14.
Write the structure of all possible dipeptides which can be obtained from glycine and atanine.

Therefore two dipeptides structures are possible from glycine and alanine. They are

1. glycyl alanine and
2. Alanyl glycine

Question 15.
Define enzymes.

• Enzymes are biocatalysts that catalyse a specific biochemical reaction.
• They generally activate the reaction by reducing the activation energy by stabilising the transition state.
• Enzymes are special proteins.
• These bïocatalysts accelarates the reaction rate in the order of 105.
• Enzymes are highly specific.

Question 16.
Write the structure of – D (+) glucopyranose.

Question 17.
What are different types of RNA which are found in cell?
RNA molecules are classified according to their structure and function into three major types.

1. Ribosomal RNA (r – RNA)
2. Messenger RNA (m – RNA)
3. Transfer RNA (t – RNA)

r-RNA:
rRNA is mainly found in cytoplasm and in ribosomes, which contain 60% RNA and 40% protein. Ribosomes are the sites at which protein synthesis takes place.

t – RNA:
tRNA molecules have lowest molecular weight of all nucleic acids. They consist of 73 – 94 nucleotides in a single chain. The function of tRNA is to carry amino acids to the sites of protein synthesis on ribosomes.

m – RNA:
mRNA is present in small quantity and very short lived. They are single stranded, and their synthesis takes place on DNA. The synthesis of mRNA from DNA strand is called transcription. mRNA carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Question 18.
Write a note on formation of – helix.
1. In the α – helix sub – structure, the aminoacids are arranged in a right handed helical (spiral) structure and are stabilised by the hydrogen bond between the carbonyl oxygen one aminoacid (nth residue) with amino hydrogen of the fifth residue (n + 4th residue)

2. The side chains of the residues protrude outside of the helix. Each turn of an α – helix contains about 3.6 residues and is about 5.4 A long.

3. The amino acid proline produces a line in the helical structure and often called as a helical breaker due to its rigid cyclic structure.

4. Many fibrous proteins such as ct-Keratin in hair, nails, wool, skin and myosin in muscles have α – helix structure. Stretching property of human hair is due to the helical structure of α – keratin in hair.

5. Structure of a-helix.

Question 19.
What are the functions of lipids in living organism?

• Lipids are the integral component of cell membrane. They are necessary of structural integrity of the cell.
• The main function of Lipids in animals is as an energy reserve. They yield more energy than carbohydrates and proteins.
• They act as protective coating in aquatic organisms.
• Lipids of connective tissue give protection to internal organs.
• Lipids help in the absorption and transport of fat-soluble vitamins.
• They are essential for activation of enzymes such as lipases.
• Lipids act as emulsifier in fat metabolism.

Question 20.
Is the following sugar, D – sugar or L – sugar?

### Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Biomolecules 1 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is the most abundant organic compounds in every living organism?
(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Hormones
(c) Carbohydrates

Question 2.
What is the general chemical name of carbohydrates?
(a) Poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketones
(b) Polyhydroxy esters
(c) Poly amino acids
(d) Poly carboxylic esters.
(a) Poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketones

Question 3.
Which process is utilized in the synthesis of carbohydrates in green plants?
(a) Oxidation
(b) Redox reaction
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Reduction
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds are optically active?
(a) Glycine
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Ethanol
(d) Meso tartaric acid
(b) Carbohydrates

Question 5.
Which of the following is optically inactive?
(a) 2 – butanol
(b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Glucose
(d) Meso tartaric acid
(d) Meso tartaric acid

Question 6.
How many isomers are possible for glucose that has 4 asymmetric carbon atoms?
(a) 8 isomers
(b) 16 isomers
(c) 2 isomers
(d) 4 isomers
(b) 16 isomers

Question 7.
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are in glucose?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
(a) 4

Question 8.
Which of the following rotates the plane polarised light in a clockwise direction?
(a) L(-) Glucose
(b) D (glucose)
(c) L – fructose
(d) L – Glyceraldehyde
(b) D (glucose)

Question 9.
Which one of the following is levorotatory?

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a monosaccharide?
(a) Fructose
(b) Ribose
(c) Erythrose
(d) Maltose
(d) Maltose

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a monossacharide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Cellulose
(a) Glucose

Question 12.
The number of carbon atoms present in Erythrose is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
(b) 4

Question 13.
What is the amount of glucose present in human blood?
(a) 150 mg/dI
(b) 50 mg/dl
(c) 100 mg/dl
(d) 1000 mg/dl
(c) 100 mg/dl

Question 14.
Which one of the following is called blood sugar?
(a) Erythrose
(b) Ribose
(c) Ribulose
(d) Glucose

Question 15.
Acid hydrolysis of starch at high temperature and pressure produces
(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) both fructose and glucose
(d) maltose
(b) glucose

Question 16.
The other name of glucose is …………
(a) dextrose
(b) blood sugar
(c) aldohexose
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 17.
Which one is formed as a major product when glucose is on reduction with concentrated HI and red P at 373K?
(a) 2 – iodohexane
(b) 3 – iodohexane
(c) n – hexane
(d) 4 – iodohexane
(c) n – hexane

Question 18.
Which one of the products is formed when glucose reacts with bromine water?
(a) n – hexane
(b) Gluconic acid
(c) Saccharic acid
(d) Hexanoic acid
(c) Saccharic acid

Question 19.
Which one of the following is formed when glucose react with Conc. HNO3?
(a) Gluconic acid
(b) Glutaric acid
(c) Saccharic acid
(d) Hexanoic acid
(c) Saccharic acid

Question 20.
Which one of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
(a) Glucose

Question 21.
Which of the following form pentacetate with acetic anhydride?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Lactose
(d) Both a & b
(d) Both a & b

Question 22.
Which one of the reagent does not react with glucose?
(a) Acetic anhydride
(b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Sodium bi suiphite
(d) Bromine water
(c) Sodium bi suiphite

Question 23.
The specific rotation of pure α and β (D) glucose are respectively.
(a) 18.7°, 112°
(b) 112°, 18.7°
(c) 90°, 90°
(d) 120°, 20°
(b) 112°, 18.7°

Question 24.
Sugar differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ……………….
(a) epimers
(b) isomers
(c) anomers
(d) monomers
(a) epimers

Question 25.
Which enzyme is utilised in the conversion of galactose to glucose?
(a) Maltose
(b) Epimerase
(c) Invertase
(d) Zymase
(b) Epimerase

Question 26.
The other name of fructose is ……………
(a) Ketohexose
(b) fruit sugar
(c) levulose
(d) all the above
(d) all the above

Question 27.
Hydrolysis of mutin in acidic medium gives ……………
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) both a & b
(d) maltose
(b) fructose

Question 28.
Invert sugar is a mixture of an equal amount of ……………..
(a) lactose + maltose
(b) diastose + galactose
(c) glucose + fructose
(d) starch + cellulose
(c) glucose + fructose

Question 29.
Which enzyme is used in the conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose?
(a) Zymase
(b) Invertase
(c) Diastase
(d) Maltase
(b) Invertase

Question 30.
Which one of the following is the sweetest of all known sugars?
(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Sucrose
(c) Fructose

Question 31.
Which is the product formed when fructose undergoes partial reduction with sodium amalgam and water?
(a) Sorbital + mannitol
(b) D – mannose + D – galactose
(c) Gluconic acid + saccharic acid
(d) Aldehyde + ketone
(a) Sorbital + mannitol

Question 32.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert fructose into sorbitol and mannitol?
(a) LiAlH4
(b) Hl / Red P
(c) Na / Hg
(d) Conc. HNO3
(c) Na / Hg

Question 33.
Fructose on oxidation with concentrated nitric acid gives
(a) glyceric acid + oxalic acid
(b) glycoffic acid + tartaric acid
(c) tartronic acid + mesoxalic acid
(d) acetic acid + hexanoic acid
(b) glycoffic acid + tartaric acid

Question 34.
How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in fructose?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 6
(b) 3

Question 35.
Two monosaccharides are linked by to form a disaccharide.

Question 36.
Which of the following is not an example of disaccharide?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Lactose
(c) Maltose
(d) Cellulose
(d) Cellulose

Question 37.
The enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is …………….
(a) zymase
(b) invertase
(c) diastase
(d) maltase
(b) invertase

Question 38.
Which one of the following contains a mixture of glucose, fructose and sucrose?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Bectroot
(c) Honey
(d) Mango
(c) Honey

Question 39.
Consider the following statements
(i) in sucrose, C1 of a – D – glucose is joined to C2 of D – fructose.
(iii) In sucrose, C2 of a – D – glucose is joined to C1 of D – fructose.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
(b) (i) & (ii)

Question 40.
Which one of the following is an example of non – reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Dextrose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
(d) Sucrose

Question 41.
Which one of the following on hydrolysis give galactose and glucose?
(a) Maltose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
(c) Lactose

Question 42.
Which one of the following is called milk sugar?
(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Raffinose
(a) Lactose

Question 43.
Which of the following is the major source of maltose?
(a) Honey
(b) Apple
(c) Sprouting barley
(d) Grapes
(c) Sprouting barley

Question 44.
Which one is produced during digestion of starch by the enzyme α – amylase?
(a) Maltose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Lactose
(a) Maltose

Question 45.
Consider the following statements
(I) Maltose consists two molecules of α – D glucose units linked by an α – 1, 4 glycosidic bond.
(ii) Maltose act as non-reducing sugar.
(iii) Maltose is produced during digestion of cellulose by the enzyme a-amylase.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)

Question 46.
Which one of the following is hetero polysaccharide?
(a) Starch
(b) Heparin
(c) Cellulose
(d) Glycogen
(b) Heparin

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a homopolysaccharide?
(a) Hyaluronic acid
(b) Heparin
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Starch
(d) Starch

Question 48.
Consider the following statements
(I) Starch contains 80% of amylase and about 20% amylopectin.
(ii) Polysaccharides are called sugars.
(iii) Lactose act as a reducing agent.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
(a) (i) & (ii)

Question 49.
Which one of the following gives blue colour with amylose and purple colour with amylopectin?
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) Iodine solution
(d) Bromic water
(c) Iodine solution

Question 50.
Which colour is formed when amylose is treated with iodine solution?
(a) Purple
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Violet
(c) Blue

Question 51.
Which colour is formed when amylopectin is treated with iodine solution?
(a) Purple
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Red
(a) Purple

Question 52.
Which one of the following is the major constituent of plant cell walls?
(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glycogen
(d) Amylose
(b) Cellulose

Question 53.
Consider the following statements
(i) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide.
(ii) The glucose molecules in cellulose arc linked by β(1, 4) glycosidic bond.
(iii) Cotton is almost pure starch.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (ii)
(d) (i) & (ii)

Question 54.
Which of the following enzyme can hydrolyse the cellulose?
(a) Invertase
(b) Glycosidase
(c) Zymase
(d) Diastase
(b) Glycosidase

Question 55.
Which one of the following is called gun cotton?
(a) Nitrated ester of cellulose
(b) Cellulose acetate
(c) Glyceryl trinitrate
(d) Trinitrotoluene
(a) Nitrated ester of cellulose

Question 56.
Which one of the following is called animal starch?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Glycogen
(c) Lactose
(d) Fat
(b) Glycogen

Question 57.
Consider the following statements
(i) The excessive glucose in the body is stored in the form of arnylose and amylopectin.
(ii) Glycogeri is present in the liver and muscle of animals.
(iii) Protein is stored in the body as glycogen and in plant as starch.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (¡) & (iii)
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
(d) (iii) only

Question 58.
Which one of the following is stored in the body as glycogen and in plant as starch?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin
(c) Fat
(d) Carbohydrates
(d) Carbohydrates

Question 59.
Which one of the following act as shock absorber and lubricant?
(a) Glycosamino glycans
(b) Glycogen
(c) Cellulose nitrate
(d) Rayon explosive

Question 60.
Which biomolecule is the most abundant in all living organisms?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Vitamins
(c) Hormones
(d) Proteins
(d) Proteins

Question 61.
Which of the following is mainly present in proteins?
(a) 3 – keto acid
(b) 1 – amino acid
(c) α, β – ketol
(d) amide and acids
(b) 1 – amino acid

Question 62.
Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?
(a) Alanine
(b) Valine
(c) Glycine
(d) Proline
(c) Glycine

Question 63.
Proteins are generally …………..
(a) poly amides
(b) polyesters
(c) polymer
(d) poly peptide
(d) poly peptide

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an example for fibrous protein?
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Insulin
(c) Keratin
(d) Enzymes
(c) Keratin

Question 65.
Which one of the following is an example for globular protein?
(a) Kerating
(b) Myoglobin
(c) Collagen
(d) Etastin
(b) Myoglobin

Questin 66.
Consider the following statement
(i) The amino acids arc linked electro valently by peptide bonds in proteins.
(ii) Fibrous proteins are linear molecules similar to fibres.
(iii) Globular proteins have a linear shape.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
(b) (i) & (iii)

Question 67.
Consider the following statement
(I) The relative arrangement of amino acids in the polypeptide chain called the secondary structure of protein.
(ii) α – Helix and β – strands are two most common sub structures formed by proteins.
(iii) α – Helix and β – strands further folds to form the three dimensional arrangement in tertiary structure of proteins.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Question 68.
Which of the following act as structural backbones?
(a) Keratine, collagen
(b) Myoglobin, insulin
(c) Glycine, proline
(d) Alanine, cysteine
(a) Keratine, collagen

Question 69.
Which protein control the glucose level in the blood?
(a) Kerating, collagen
(b) Insulin, glucagon
(c) Glycine, proline
(d) Alanine, myoglobin
(b) Insulin, glucagon

Question 70.
Which one of the following act as catalyst in the interconversion of carbonic acid to water and carbondioxide?
(a) Lactose
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Glycosidase
(d) Invertase
(b) Carbonic anhydrase

Question 71.
Which enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to fructose and glucose?
(a) Lactase
(b) invertase
(c) Sucrase
(d) Zymase
(c) Sucrase

Question 72.
Lactase enzyme hydrolyses the lactose into its constituent as …………..
(a) glucose, fructose
(b) glucose, galactose
(c) fructose only
(d) glucose only
(b) glucose, galactose

Question 73.
Consider the following statement
(i) Lipids are the principal components of cell membranes including cell walls.
(ii) Enzymes are biocatalysts that catalyse a specific biochemical reaction.
(iii) Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to fructose and glucose.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (iii)

Question 74.
Which one help in the absorption and transport of fat soluble vitamins?
(a) Lipids
(b) Protein
(c) Enzyme
(d) Water
(a) Lipids

Question 75.
Which one act as emulsifier in fat metabolism?
(a) Enzymes
(b) Fats
(c) Lipids
(d) Proteins
(c) Lipids

Question 76.
Which one of the following is fat soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin A

Question 77.
Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin C

Question 78.
Which one of the following deficient disease of Vitamin A?
(a) Cheilosis
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Convulsions
(d) Perncious Anaemia
(b) Xerophthalmia

Question 79.
Which Vitamin deficiency leads to cheilosis?
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B2
(d) Vitamin B5
(c) Vitamin B2

Question 80.
Which one of the following vitamin deficiency leads to Rickets?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin D

Question 81.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to Hair loss, muscle pain?
(a) Biotin
(b) Niacin
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Thiamine
(a) Biotin

Question 82.
The deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to the disease ………………..
(a) convulsions
(b) beriberi
(c) Pernicious anaemia
(d) pellagra
(c) Pernicious anaemia

Question 83.
Which of the following is the chemical name of vitamin B12?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Cobalamin
(c) Pyridoxime
(d) Riboflavin
(b) Cobalamin

Question 84.
Night blindness and kertinisation of skin is the chemical name of Vitamin B12?
(a) vitamin B1
(b) vitamin C
(c) vitamin A
(d) vitamin B12
(c) vitamin A

Question 85.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to the disease megaloblastic anaemia?
(a) Vitamin B9
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin B2
(a) Vitamin B9

Question 86.
Which one of the following is rich in liver oil, carrot, mango and papaya?
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin A
(d) vitamin D
(c) Vitamin A

Question 87.
Which of the vitamin deficiency leads to photosensitive dermatitis (or) pellagra?
(a) Vitamin B5
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B3
(d) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B3

Question 88.
Depression, Hair loss, muscle pain are due to the deficiency of vitamin ……………..
(a) A
(b) B12
(c) B2
(d) B7
(d) B7

Question 89.
The chemical name of vitamin B9 is …………….
(a) biotin
(b) folic acid
(c) niacin
(d) thiamin
(b) folic acid

Question 90.
Which of the following is rich in citrus, fruits, tomato, amia and leafy vegetables?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D
(a) Vitamin C

Question 91.
Consider the following statement
(i) Vitamin D functions in the adsorption and maintenance of calcium.
(ii) Vitamin E act as an antioxidant.
(iii) Vitamin C functions in blood clotting.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (i) only
(c) (i) & (ii)

Question 92.
Which vitamin is rich in cotton seed oil, sunflower oil, wheat germ oil and all vegetable oils?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin E

Question 93.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to the disease osteomalacia?
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
(a) Vitamin D

Question 94.
Which one of the following is mainly required for blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin K

Question 95.
Consider the following statement
(i) Nucleic acid are biopolymers of nucleotides.
(ii) Controlled hydrolysis of DNA and RNA yield 3 components namely a nitrogeneous base, a pentose sugar and sulphate group.
(iii) DNA and RNA are the molecular repositories that carry genetic information in every organism.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (iii)

Question 96.
Which one of the following is found in cytoplasm and in nbosomers which contain 60% RNA and 40% protein.
(a) Ribosomal RNA
(b) Messenger RNA
(c) Transfer RNA
(d) DNA
(a) Ribosomal RNA

Question 97.
Consider the following statement .
(i) Ribosomes are the sites at which protein synthesis takes place.
(ii) Messenger RNA carried genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.
(iii) t RNA consist of 20 – 40 nucleotides in a single chain.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only

Question 98.
What is the name of the process of synthesis of mRNA from DNA strand?
(a) Transpiration
(b) Transcription
(c) Transformation
(d) Trans esterification
(b) Transcription

Question 99.
Consider the following statement
(i) DNA mainly present in cytoplasm, nucleolus and ribosomes.
(ii) RNA is stable and not hydrolysed easily by alkalis.
(iii) DNA can replicate itself.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (ii)

Questin 100.
Who invented DNA finger printing?
(a) Sir Alec Jeffrey
(b) Rosalind Franklin
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Maurice Wilkins
(a) Sir Alec Jeffrey

Question 101.
Which one of the following can act as energy carriers?
(a) GTN
(b) ATP
(d) Cyclic AMP
(b) ATP

Questin 102.
Adenosine 3’, 5’- cyclic monophosphate a chemical messenger is otherwise called …………….
(a) ATP
(c) cyclic AMP
(c) cyclic AMP

Question 103.
Consider the following statement
(i) Endocrine glands make hormones.
(ii) Hormones may be classified as either protein (or) steroids
(iii) Hormones are intracellular signalling molecule.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only

Question 104.
Which one of the following is a steroid?
(a) Insulin
(b) Epinephrine
(c) mutin
(d) Estrogen
(d) Estrogen

Question 105.
Which one of the following is a protein hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Androgen
(c) Cortisol
(d) Estrogen
(a) Insulin

Question 106.
The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is …………….
(a) thymine
(b) cytosine
(c) guanine
(c) guanine

Question 107.
DNA multiplication is called ………….
(a) transcription
(b) transformation
(c) transduction
(d) replication
(d) replication

Question 108.
Insulin is a protein which plays the role of ……………
(a) an antibody
(b) a hormone
(c) an enzyme
(d) a transporting agent
(b) a hormone

Question 109.
Which metal is present in Vitamin B12?
(a) Ca (II)
(b) Zn (II)
(c) Fe (II)
(d) Co (III)
(d) Co (III)

Question 110.
The helical structure of protein is stablized by ………………
(a) oxygen bonds
(b) peptide bonds
(c) dipeptide bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds

Question 111.
The cell membranes are mainly composed of ………….
(a) carbohydrates
(b) proteins
(c) phospholipids
(d) fats
(c) phospholipids

Question 112.
Which one of the following is a polysaccharide?
(a) Nylon
(b) Amylose
(c) Ribose
(d) Polyethene
(b) Amylose

Question 113.
Ribose ¡san example of …………….
(a) keto hexose
(b) aldohexose
(c) aldo pentose
(d) disaccharide
(c) aldo pentose

Question 114.
Sucrose molecule is made up of …………..
(a) a gluco pyranose and fructo pyranose
(b) a glyco pyranose and fructo furanose
(c) a gluco furanose and fructo pyranose
(d) a gluco furanose and fructo furanose
(b) a glyco pyranose and fructo furanose

Question 115.
A nucleotide consists of ……………….
(a) base and sugar
(b) base and phosphate
(c) sugar and phosphate
(d) base, sugar and phosphate
(d) base, sugar and phosphate

Question 116.
Which of the following is responsible for heredity character?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Proteins
(d) Hormones
(a) DNA

Question 117.
The base adenine present in …………….
(a) DNA only
(b) RNA only
(c) Both DNA & RNA
(d) Protein
(c) Both DNA & RNA

Question 118.
The protein which maintains the blood sugar level in the human body is …………..
(a) haemoglobin
(b) oxytocin
(c) insulin
(d) ptyalin
(c) insulin

Question 119.
Ascorbic acid is a …………
(a) vitamin
(b) enzyme
(c) protein
(d) hormone
(a) vitamin

Question 120.
Which of the following is not a constitutent of RNA?
(a) Ribose
(b) Phosphate
(d) Pyridine
(d) Pyridine

Question 121.
Which one is fouñd in ATP ribonucleotide?
(a) Guanine
(b) Uracil
(d) Inulin

Question 122.
Which substance is not present in nucleic acid?
(a) Cytosine
(c) Thymine
(d) Guanidine
(d) Guanidine

Question 123.
In nucleic acid, the correct sequence is ……………..
(a) base – phosphate sugar
(b) phosphate – base – sugar
(c) sugar – base – phosphate
(d) base – sugar – phosphate
(d) base – sugar – phosphate

Question 124.
The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by ……………….
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Meicher
(c) Emil Fischer
(d) Khorana
(a) Watson and Crick

Question 125.
Which substance is not present in nucleic acid?
(a) Cytosine
(c) Thymine
(d) Guanidine
(d) Guanidine

Question 126.
In DNA, the complementary bases are ……………….
(a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
(b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
(d) adenine and guanine; thymine and uracil
(b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

Question 127.
The structure of DNA is …………….
(a) linear
(b) single helix
(c) double helix
(d) triple helix
(c) double helix

Question 128.
A gene is a segment of molecule of ……………
(a) DNA
(b) m – RNA
(c) t – RNA
(d) protein
(a) DNA

Question 129.
The deficiency of vitamin C causes …………….
(a) scurvy
(b) rickets
(c) pyrrohea
(d) pellagra
(a) scurvy

Question 130.
Which sugar is present in DNA?
(a) Deoxyribose
(b) Ribose
(c) D – fructose
(d) D – glucose