Prasanna

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Indian Constitution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens …………………
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through:
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into ………………
(а) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in …………….
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1 and 2

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The concept of constitution first originated in ……………..
2. …………….. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
4. ………….. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article …………..
Answer:
1. USA
2. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
3. 26, November, 1949
4. Five
5. 51A

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution is the Fundamental law of a country which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country’ is based.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Originally the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights. At present there are only six fundamental rights.
2. Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right to freedom of Religion, Right against exploitation, cultural and Educational Rights and Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
Classical languages have an independent tradition that arose mostly on its own. Have a large and rich body of ancient literature. Tamil is the oldest of, all the languages in the world. In 2004, the Government of India has created a new category of languages called ‘Classical languages’ Six languages are granted the classical status Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is a national emergency?
Answer:
A national emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
The Centre-State relations can be studied under three heads.

1. Legislative Relations: Union list, State list and Concurrent list.
2. Administrative Relations: Executive power of the States and Union.
3. Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered to levy taxes.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our Constitution to all the citizens.
Right to Equality: (Article 14 to 18)
Art. 14: Everyone is equal before law.
Art .15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art .17: Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.
Right to Freedom: (Art. 19 to Art. 22)
Art. 19 : Freedom of speech and expression. Assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21 A: Right to Elementary education.
Art. 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Right against Exploitation: (Art 23 & 24)
Prohibition of trafficking in human being and forced labour.
Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Right to Religion: (Art. 25 to Art. 28)
Art. 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art.26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27: Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28: Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Cultural and Educational Rights: (Art 29 to Art 30)
Art. 29: Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Right to Constitutional Remedies: (Art.32)
Art. 32: It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Our Constitution guarantees six Fundamental Rights to its citizens. It safeguards all these rights by granting us the Right to Constitutional Remedies. It is possible that the Government or private bodies may violate one of our Fundamental Rights. Right to Constitutional Remedies protects us from such violations. It allows us to file a case against the Government or private bodies in the High Courts of the States and the Supreme Court of the India.

Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition two warrants and certiorari to protect the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitutions”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Here are the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

	Fundamental Rights	Directive Principles of State Policy
1.	It was derived from the Constitution of the USA.	It was drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland
2.	These Rights cannot be taken away even by the Government.	These are mere instructions to the Government.
3.	These Rights are enforceable by a Court of Law	These are not enforceable in any court.
4.	These have legal sanctions.	These have moral and political sanctions.
5.	These rights strengthen political democracy in the country.	The implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6.	These are natural rights.	These lead to protect human rights.

In-text Activity:
List out the recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
As per articles 344(1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution, the Eight Schedule includes the recognition of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Bondo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Meitei, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Indian Constitution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was elected the President of the Constitutional Assembly after the death of Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) H. C. Mukherjee
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
A ………………. tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
(a) Assembly
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(d) Constitution

Question 3.
The framers of Indian Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of ……………
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) France
(d) England
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
Our Constitution is ………………. in nature.
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible
(b) rigid and flexible
(c) purely flexible
(d) very rigid
Answer:
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible

Question 5.
How many languages are recognised in our Constitution?
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 26
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 6.
Preamble clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the ……………….
(a) Parliament
(b) people
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) people

Question 7.
……………. Constitution established the rule of law in India.
(a) Indian
(b) British
(c) USA
Answer:
(a) Indian

Question 8.
Right to property Art 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by ………………. Amendment Act.
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 86th
(d) Act of 1955
Answer:
(b) 44th

Question 9.
………………. committees were formed for framing of the Constitution.
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 13
Answer:
(c) 13

Question 10.
In 1951 for the first time President’s rule was imposed in ………………. state.
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 11.
Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
(a) 26^th January, 1950
(b) 26^th November, 1949
(c) 15^th August, 1947
Answer:
(b) 26^th November, 1949

Question 12.
The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in ………………
(a) 9^th December, 1947
(b) 9^th December, 1946
(c) 10^th December, 1946
Answer:
(b) 9^th December, 1946

Question 13.
Who was elected as interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.N, Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Question 14.
Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) B.N. Rao
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Question 15.
Abolition of untouchability lies in which Article?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 16
Answer:
(a) Article 17

Question 16.
Who was the Viceroy of India when India became free?
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Mount Batten
Answer:
(c) Lord Mount Batten

Question 17.
Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from ……………..
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
Answer:
(c) Ireland

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Citizenship Act of …………. prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.
2. While Fundamental Rights are available to all persons, certain Fundamental Rights are available only to ………….. citizens.
3. Habeas Corpus safeguards people from …………….. arrests.
4. In case of conflict between the law of the State and the Union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of …………… prevails.
5. The Constitution of India can be amended in ………….. ways.
6. …………….. was not the member of Drafting Committee.
7. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are ……………..
8. The Constitution of India recognises …………………
9. The Cabinet Mission of India was headed by ……………
10. Right to Constitutional remedies comes under ………….
11. ………….. of Indian Constitution is called ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’.
12. Right to freedom of religion includes ……………
13. …………….. of Indian Constitution is described as Magna Carte of India.
14. India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic on …………..
15. …………… is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
1. 1955
2. Indian
3. Illegal
4. Parliament
5. Three
6. Jawahar Lai Nehru
7. Article 14 to 18
8. religious and linguistic minorities
9. Lord Pethick Lawrence
10. Fundamental Rights
11. Article 32
12. Article 25 to 28
13. PartIII
14. 26 January, 1950
15. Government of India Act 1935

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (f)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (g)
10. (i)

IV. True or False.

1. A Secular State does not officially promote any one religion as the State religion,
2. Religious freedom is provided to all the citizens of the country.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not a part of the Indian Constitution.
4. The Universal adult franchise was adopted much before the Independence of India.
5. Our Constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why there is a need for Constitution?
Answer:

1. A Constitution lays down certain principles that form the basis to govern.
2. A Constitution tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
3. A Country is usually made of different communities of people having different beliefs.
4. It will be helpful in fulfilling the beliefs of different segment of citizens.
5. So the Constitution is necessary for a democratic country like India for the smooth functioning of the government for the welfare of the people.

Question 2.
Name five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Answer:
Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation and Incorporation of territory.

Question 3.
What did our Constitution contain?
Answer:
Our Constitution contained a Preamble, 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 4.
How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’?
Answer:
He described these Principles as ‘novel features’ of Indian Constitution.

Question 5.
People of India are the source of our Constitution. Justify.
Answer:
The Preamble begins with the phrase “ We the people of India”. This clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 6.
Freedom of Press implicit in which Article of the Constitution?
Answer:
Freedom of Press implicit in Article 19.

Question 7.
What are Directive principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive principles of State Policy are the directives issued by the Central Government to the State Government aiming at promoting the social welfare of the people enumerated in part IV of the Constitution.

Question 8.
How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly took about 3 years to pass the Constitution since 9 December, 1946.

Question 9.
By which amendment fundamental duties are included and by whom it was recommended?
Answer:
In 1976 the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations on fundamental duties. By the 42^nd amendment under part IVA of our Constitution. Article 51A deals with fundamental duties.

Question 10.
What is Right to Equality?
Answer:
Right to Equality means that all persons are equal before the law.

Question 11.
What is Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Under this Right the Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour and children working under 14 years.

Question 12.
Who was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original Constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italics style.

Question 13.
How has the section on Fundamental Rights often been referred to?
Answer:
It has often been referred to as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.

Question 14.
How are the Fundamental Rights important?
Answer:
It protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.

Question 15.
Which Articles deals with citizenship?
Answer:
Articles 5 to 11 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship.

Question 16.
What is known as mini Constitution?
Answer:
42^nd amendment of the Constitution is known as mini Constitution.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the writs issued by the Supreme Court or the High Courts.
Answer:
To safeguard the fundamental rights the Supreme Courts or the High Courts issue order or command which are known as Writs.

1. Habeas Corpus: This writ safeguard people from illegal arrest.
2. Mandamus: It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.
3. Prohibition: It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
4. Certiorari: It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court by overstepping its jurisdiction.
5. Quo Warranto: It prevents unsurpation of public office through illegal manner.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Centre – State relations as described in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is federal in structure. It divides all powers between the Centre and the States. The Centre – State relationship can be studied under three heads.
(i) Legislative Relations: The Union Parliament has the power to legislate for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The -seventh schedule of the Constitution embodies these lists – the union list, state list and concurrent list consisting of 97, 66 and 47 items respectively. The Parliament has the power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the union list. The State Legislature has exclusive right to legislate on the State list. Both Parliament and State Legislature have power to legislate on subjects enlisted in the concurrent list. But in case of conflict between the law of the state and the union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of Parliament prevails.

(ii) Administrative Relations: The administrative power of State extends only to its own territory and with respect to which it has legislative competence, whereas the Union has exclusive executive power over the matters with respect to which Parliament is empowered to make laws and the exercise of its powers conferred by any treaty or agreement.

(iii) Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered by the Constitution to impose various kinds of taxes. Some of these taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre and divided between Centre and States based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Question 3.
How can a person lose his Citizenship?
Answer:
Loss of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing Citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution.
Renunciation: It can be voluntarily renounced by a person.
Termination: It can be terminated if a person acquires the Citizenship of some other country.
Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a naturalized Citizen if it satisfied that the Citizenship was

1. acquired by fraud
2. false representation or concealment of material facts
3. indulges in trade with enemy countries and has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of 2 years.

Question 4.
Write about the types of Amendments.
Answer:
Article 368 provides for three ways of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some of the articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a single majority of Parliament, that is a majority of the members of each House present and voting.
Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures

Question 5.
What do you mean by Amendment? And what are the three ways by which the Constitution can be amended?
Answer:
The term Amendment denotes change, improvement and modification. Usually this term is associated with one or more changes made in the Constitution of the country with one or more charges.

Article 368 of the Constitution in part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

Constitution can be amended in three ways.

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

The World Between Two World Wars Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

Question 3.
Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 4.
Which President of the USA pursued the “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 5.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 6.
Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd
(b) Smut
(c) Herzog
(d) Botha
Answer:
(a) Verwoerd

Question 7.
Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(d) French Revolution

Question 8.
Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ………
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ………
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in ………
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as ……..
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May ………
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ……. years
7. …….. were a military nation.
8. Boers were also known as ………
Answers:
1. Ferdinand Lassalle
2. Josef Goebbeels
3. 1927
4. Gestapo
5. 1910
6. 27
7. Aztecs
8. Afrikaners

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front.
(ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
(iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
(iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

Question 3.
Assertion : The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.
(a) Both A and R are right
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
Answer:
The period of Political repression in Indo-China starting in 1927 by the Republic of China government was called ‘White Terror’.

Question 2.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:
When British trade was badly affected by the Great Depression of 1929, it transferred its effect on its colonies by signing a bilateral trade with them. This was called as Economic summit at Ottawa in 1932. It was agreed by the colonies that they will prefer only British goods and not any other goods.

Question 3.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:
The famous Monroe doctrine was brought by Monroe, the President of the USA. This doctrine declared that if Europeans inteferred anywhere in America, north or south, it would amount to waging a war against the United States. This threat frightened the European powers and kept them away from South America.

Question 4.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:
In 1919, Mussolini joined the Fascist party. He gathered support from all groups of people in the society and in October 1922, he organised a March to Rome. Impressed by the force behind Mussolini, king invited him to form the Government.

Question 5.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884 – 85.
Answer:
The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers. The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.

Question 6.
How did Great Depression impact on Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The impact of Great depression on Indian agriculture was very severe. The value of the agricultural produce reduced by half whereas the rent to be paid to the government remain the same. To compensate the loss, the farmers had to sell their gold and silver reserves.

Question 7.
Explain the reason for the Smuts-Herzog alliance.
Answer:
The world economic depression brought unemployment and bankruptcy to South Africa. In this context labour withdrew its support given to the National Party. Smuts believed that a coalition government was required to solve the country’s economic problems. Therefore, the South Africa party (led by Smuts) and the National Party (led by Herzog) united in 1934 to form the United South Africa National Party or United Party for short. However, the Smuts- Herzog alliance lasted until 1939.

Question 8.
Define “Dollar Imperialism.”
Answer:
It refers to the USA’s policy to maintain the distant lands and dominate them through their economic help and support in terms of their currency dollar.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-china

(a) Define the concept of decolonisation.
Answer:
Decolonization means the process of transferring the legal and – institutional control to the indigenous nationalist governments by the colonial powers.

(b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China?
Answer:
The Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam were the three states that formed inrio- China.

(c) How did Communist ideas heip in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
Answer:
Communist ideas helped to convince people that considerable wealth of Indo-China was beneficial only to the colonial power. This helped to develop anti-colonialism spirit in Indo-China.

(d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
Vietnam Nationalist party was the mainstream political party in Indo-China.

Question 2.
Ho Chi Minh
(a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.

(b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.

(c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
Answer:
In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.

(d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

Question 3.
Political Developments In South America

(a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
Answer:
By the year 1830, the whole of South America became free from European domination.

(b) How many republics came into being from Central America?
Answer:
Central America split into five republics namely Costa Rica, El Salvador, .Guatemala, Honduras and Nicaragua.

(c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
Answer:
In 1898, Cuba was occupied by the USA.

(d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
The situation created by the great depression made Oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Answer:
(i) In 1919, a group of seven men met in Munich and founded the National socialist German worker’s Party which later came to be known as Nazi Party. One of these men was Adolf Hitler.
(ii) In 1923, Hitler abortively attempted to capture power in Bavaria. But this proved a blunder. He was sent to prison. In the Presedential election of 1932, the communist party polled about 6,000,000 votes. This alarmed capitalists and property owners. Hitler exploited this opportunity to usurp powers.
(iii) In 1933, Hitler was made the Chancellor of Germany. Having acquired power, he brought an end to the parliamentary democracy established in Germany after the First World War.
(iv) He converted Germany into a highly centralised state. All political parties except the Nazi Party were declared illegal. The army of brown-shirted and jack-booted storm-troopers was expanded.
(v) Hitler Youth was created, and the Labour Front set up. Trade unions were abolished, their leaders were arrested and all workers were compelled to join the German Labour Front. Strikes were made illegal, wages were fixed by the government, and the Labour Front was used by the Nazis to control industry.
(vi) Total state control was extended over the press, theatre, cinema, radio and over education. The Nazi Party’s propaganda manipulated public opinion through planned propaganda.

Question 2.
Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39).
Answer:

1. It was the launch of the Swadeshi movement in 1905 that mark the beginning of the decolonization process in India.
2. In 1919, the Government of India Act provided dyarchy in the provinces.
3. The elected provincial assemblies and Indian ministers are permitted to hold certain portfolios in the Legislature.
4. But the Indian National congress rejected dyarchy and decided to boycott the Legislature.
5. In 1930, the Indian National Congress emerged as a mass militant movement.
6. The Government of India Act of 1935 , made the British to appease the Indian nationalists and provided great power to the local governments.
7. In 1937, British introduced direct elections and the congress won in most of the provinces.
8. The process of decolonisation is very clear by the Montague declaration stating, Increasing association of Indians in every branch of the administration and gradual self-government in India is an integral part . of the British Empire.

Question 3.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

1. There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
2. The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
3. Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
4. In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
5. The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Each student may be asked to write an assignment on how each sector and each section of population in the USA came to be affected by the Stock Market Crash in 1929.
Answer:
The New York stock Market Crash occurred in 1929. As a result of this the price of shares in the stock market fell steeply. The investors and consumers got discouraged to such an extent that more and more people began to sell their shares and dispose of their stocks. But there were no buyers. This great crash and decline in investments was followed by the failure of American banks. The American financiers were forced to recall their own funds invested abroad.

Question 2.
A group project work on Vietnam War is desirable. An album or pictures, portraying the air attacks of the US on Vietnam and the brave resistance put up by the Vietnamese may be prepared.
Answer:
You can do this activity in the class by taking reference from internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

The World Between Two World Wars Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Great Economic Depression began in ……
(a) England
(b) USA
(c) France
Answer:
(b) USA

Question 2.
The secret police of Hitler were called as:
(a) Duce
(b) Gestapo
(c) Swastika
(d) Third Reich
Answer:
(b) Gestapo

Question 3.
The Great Depression in USA began on
(a) Oct 24, 1929
(b) Oct 24, 1930
(c) Oct 24, 1939
Answer:
(a) Oct 24, 1929

Question 4.
The discovery of ……………. in Transvaal, led to large number of Britishers settle in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Smuts
(b) Coal
(c) Gold
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) Gold

Question 5.
Mussolini provided a
(a) Democratic government
(b) stable government
(c) Republic government
Answer:
(b) stable government

Question 6.
……………. adopted ‘Good Neighbour’ policy in USA.
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Monroe
(c) Theodore
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 7.
A democratic constitution with the federal structure was established by a National Assembly,
(a) Berlin
(b) Weimer
(c) Finland
Answer:
(b) Weimer

Question 8.
recognised the Vatican city as an independent state.
(a) Hitler
(b) FDR
(c) Mussolini
(d) Ho-Chi Minh
Answer:
(c) Mussolini

Question 9.
Hitler’s anti-Semitism grew to the extent of killing the
(a) Aryans
(b) Jews
(c) Mongolians
Answer:
(b) Jews

Question 10.
The Boer wars took place between the Boers and the:
(a) Germans
(b) Africans
(c) British
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) British

Question 11.
In 1941, Hitler invaded
(a) Russia
(b) Prussia
(c) Persia
Answer:
(a) Russia

Question 12.
“Speak softly, but carry a big stick”- The attitude of US President Theodore Roosevelt to countries.
(a) European
(b) Imperialist
(c) Latin America
(d) Republican
Answer:
(c) Latin America

Question 13.
Mussolini left the League of Nations in …….
(a) 1931
(b) 1937
(c) 1932
Answer:
(b) 1937

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The main cause of the depression was the collapse of ………
2. Franklin D.Roosevelt was commonly known as ………
3. The New Deal Policy includes ……… , ……… and ………
4. Mussolini was called by his followers as ………
5. The followers of Mussolini were called ………
6. Mussolini’s secret police was known as ………
7. ……… issued by Mussolini provided great relief to workers.
8. Benito Amilcale Andrea Mussolini was born on ………
9. Mussolini organised a groups of young persons or gangs called ………
10. The founder of the Nazist party was ………
11. Hitler’s secret police was ………
12. Hitler pulled Germany out of the League of Nation in ………
13. The Locarno Treaty was signed in ………
Answers:
1. American share market
2. FDR
3. Relief, Recovery and Reforms
4. Duce
5. Black shirts
6. OVRA
7. The Charter of Labour
8. 1883
9. Fasces
10. Hitler
11. Gastapo
12.1933
13.1925

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1 .(c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (e)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What were the causes for the Great Economic Depression?
Answer:

1. The main cause for the Depression was the collapse of the American share market.
2. It was due to speculation on borrowed money.

Question 2.
What is meant by Fascism?
Answer:
Fascism is a form of government which is characterized by one-party dictatorship, Forcible power, strict control on society and of the economy.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Fascism” mean?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Fascism” is derived from the Latin word ‘Fasces’.
2. “Fasces” means a bundle or group.

Question 4.
What are the factors that led to the triumph of Fascism in Germany?
Answer:
Germany raised to great heights in economic, political and cultural accomplishments. Germany’s universities, its science, philosophy, music were known all over the world. Germany exceeded much more than Britain and the USA in the Industrial production.

Question 5.
Name the reasons for the rise of fascism.
Answer:

1. Italy faced with a great economic crisis.
2. There was social unrest and economic distress.
3. The prices of essential goods shot up.
4. Cost of living was very high.
5. There was great dismay and frustration among the people.
6. On account of the revolutionary ideas of the socialists, unrest and spread in Italy.
7. This situation demanded a bold leadership. These conditions favoured the rise of Fascism.

Question 6.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela was a South African revolutionary who fought against apartheid and joined the African National Congress (ANC). When the ANC was banned he was arrested, and was in prison for 27 years. In 1994, he became the first black president of South Africa.

Question 7.
Write any two achievements of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. Mussolini established peace and order and he provided a stable government.
2. Mussolini brought order and discipline in the industrial field.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘Inflation’?
Answer:
It refers to the general increase in the price level and a fall in the purchasing power of money.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the early life of Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini was born on July 29, 1883 at Romagna in East – Central Italy.
2. His father was a blacksmith and his mother was an elementary school teacher.
3. Mussolini graduated in 1902 and became a school teacher.
4. He learned Lenin’s ideology and became an editor of Italian socialist paper.

Question 10.
Write about the end of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. The Allied forces heavily bombarded Sicily and landed in the island in 1943.
2. Mussolini was shot dead by his own country men.
3. Fascism died out along with the death of its founder Mussolini.

Question 11.
How did Hitler become a Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Under the inspiring leadership of Hitler, the nazi party grew in power and number.

1. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party became the 2nd largest group in the German parliament.
2. In 1933, the Nazists became the largest party in the German parliament and Hitler became the Chancellor and Hindenburg as president.
3. On the death of President Hindenburg, he made himself as President and Chancellor.
4. He abolished the Weimar Republic and himself became a dictator.

Question 12.
Write about the Nazi policy towards Jews?
Answer:

1. The Jews were removed from government position, excluded from the universities and deprived of citizenship.
2. Jewish business were closed down, and their establishments were attacked.
3. Jews were interred and used as forced labour.
4. Later they were turned into extermination camps, where industrial means of murder such as gas chambers were used to kill them.
5. It is estimated that about 6 million Jews in Europe were killed, which the Nazis termed, as ‘The final solution’.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Position of America at the end of I world war

(a) What is the position of America, at the end of the world war I ?
Answer:
America was financially in a sound position.

(b) How did America help the European debtor countries?
Answer:
As the moneylender to the world, America encouraged the flow of capital into Europe, which helped the European debtor countries.

(c) What happened to the U.S economy in the meantime?
Answer:
A sudden fall in the U.S economy forced here to impose restrictions on the export of capital.

(d) What was the impact of it all over the world?
Answer:
This resulted in a steep decline in the volume and value of exports all over the world.

Question 2.
Adolf Hitler

(a) Where was Adolf Hitler born?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler was born in Austria.

(b) What was his father?
Answer:
His father was a customs officer.

(c) What did he organize?
Answer:
He organized group of men called the National socialists in 1919, which became the Nazist Party.

(d) Name the book written by Hitler.
Answer:
He wrote a book called, “Mein Kampf “ (My struggle).

Question 3.
Mayas and Aztecs

(a) What did the three centres of civilization exist even before the discovery of America?
Answer:
The Maya, the Inca and the Aztec were the three centers of civilizations.

(b) Which was the centre of Maya Civilization?
Answer:
The League of Mayapan was the centre of Maya civilization.

(c) Who conquered the Maya country?
Answer:
Aztecs from Mexico conquered the Maya country in the fourteenth century.

(d) What did Aztecs do?
Answer:
For nearly 200 years, Aztecs ruled their empire and founded their capital city of Tenochtitlan.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What were the achievements of Fascism under Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini wanted to make Italy a powerful nation. So he adopted various methods.
2. He established peace and order. He provided a stable government.
3. He brought order and discipline in the industrial field.
4. For the welfare of the workers he issued the “Charter of Labour”
5. By this charter industries were freed from the strike epidemic. He took several measures to increase production.
6. Marshes were drained and canals were dug. Reclamation projects were launched.
7. Hydroelectric schemes were undertaken.
8. Railways and other means of transportation were improved.
9. A fair degree of self-sufficiency was achieved.
10. In 1929, Mussolini signed the Latern Treaty with Pope. The 60 years conflict between the Papacy and the Italian government came to an end by this treaty.

Question 2.
Explain the Anti-colonial movement that emerged in Indo-China and the influence of Ho-Chi-Minh.
Answer:

1. Indo – china consists of today’s Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.
2. From the beginning, French occupation and communist ideas from China were a major influence in Indo-China.
3. Considerable wealth of Indo-china was benefiting only these colonial powers.
4. In 1916, there was a major anti-colonial revolt but was crushed brutally.
5. Vietnam Nationalist Party was the main political party formed in 1927 in Indo-China.
6. In 1925, Ho-Chi-Minh founded the Revolutionary youth movement. He led the peasant revolt in 1930 which was crushed. He left to Moscow thereafter.’
7. When France was defeated by Germany in 1940, Ho-Chi-Minh and his followers used this to the favour of Vietnamese.
8. In 1941, he organized the League for the independence of Vietnam which was called as Viet Minh.
9. Vietnamese nationalism, thus renewed its importance with the help of Ho-Chi-Minh.

Question 3.
State the contribution of Ho Chi Minh in the freedom of Vietnam.
Answer:

1. In February 1930, Ho Chi Minh brought together competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese Communist Party. It was later renamed as the Indo-Chinese Communist Party.
2. Ho chi minh was inspired by the militant demostrations of the European Communist Parties.
3. In 1940, Japan occupied Vietnam, as part of its imperial drive to control Southeast Asia.
   The nationalists now had a fight against the Japanese as well as the French. The League for the Independence of Vietnam (Vietnam Doc Lap Dong Minh), which came to be known as the Vietminh fought the Japanese occupation and recaptured Hanoi in September 1945.
4. The Democratic Republic of Vietnam was formed and Ho Chi Minh was made the chairman.

Question 4.
Write any three features of the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement was started under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, in the year 1930. It was an important milestone in the history of Indian nationalism. The main ideology behind the civil disobedience movement was to defy the laws made by the British. Three features of this movement were:

1. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
2. In many places, forest people violated forest laws – going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
3. Women participated in the movement on a large scale.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Globalization and Trade Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Question 3.
Colonial advent in India.
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 AD
(b) 1602 AD
(c) 1498 AD
(d) 1616 AD
Answer:
(b) 1602 AD

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in:
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunkel proposal in ………………
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c)1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in ………..
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug 1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug 1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced ……………… in 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ……………..
2. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ……………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization invented by ……………
6. French East India company established second factory at …………………..
Answers :
1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Frot St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pulicut

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

1. (i) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, Indigo.
(ii) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut.
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) i is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answers:
(a) i is correct

IV. Match the Following

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is Globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world with the home country without any types of barriers to operating on an International scale.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization.
Answer:
There are three types of globalization – (i) Archaic globalization (ii) Proto globalization and (iii) Modem globalization.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational Corporation.
Answer:
Multi-national Corporation is a corporate organisation which owns (or) control the production of goods (or) services in any other country other than its home country. It is otherwise called as Trans-National Corporation (or) Multi-National Enterprise.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
The Dutch undertook several voyages from 1596 and formed the Dutch East India Company in 1602. In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen established Dutch factory at Masulipatnam and ‘ PAiapoli, Devanampatinam. In 1610, upon negotiating with the king of Chandragiri, found another factor}’ at Pulicut. Pulicut was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt Globalization?
Answer:

1. Abolition of Industrial licensing, Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
2. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
3. Foreign private sector by making rupee convertible on trade.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is Fair trade ?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of fair trade practices?
Answer:

1. Raising and stabilising the incomes of small scale farmers, farm workers and artisans .
2. Equal distribution of economic gains, opportunities and risks associated with the production and sale of these goods.
3. Increasing the organisational and commercial capacities of producer groups.
4. Promoting labour rights and right of the workers to organise trade unions.
5. Promoting safe and sustainable farming methods and working conditions.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO is to set and enforce rules for international trade and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisations.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs means Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. Under TRIPs, patent shall be available for any invention (whether product or process) in all fields of industrial technologies.

TRIMs means Trade Related Investment Measures. It refers to certain , restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:
Positive impacts of globalization:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market.
• Standard of living has increased.
• It has generated employment opportunities.
• It increases GDP of a country.
• It helps to increase in free flow of goods and also to increase Foreign Direct Investment.

VI. Brief Answer.

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of globalization.
Answer:
The historical background of globalization can be discussed in three steps –
(i) Archaic Globalization – It is an early form of globalization. It existed during the Hellenistic Age. It established a trade link between the Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han Dynasty. The commercial links between these powers inspired the development of the Silk Road. The Islamic Golden Age was also an important early stage of globalization.

(ii) Proto Globalization – It was characterised by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th centuries. In the 17^th century, globalization became private business phenomenon like British East India Company founded in 1600, described as the first multinational company.

(iii) Modern Globalization – The 19^th and 20^th centuries witnessed the advent of modern globalization. Global trade and capital investment increased. Several multinational firms came into being.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational Corporation is a corporate organisation which owns (or) controls the production of goods and services in another country other than its home country.

Evolution of MNC:

1. MNCs first started their activities in 1920’s by controlling the raw materials of the host countries in the industrial sector. Later in the manufacturing and the service sector after 1950’s.
2. Of the MNCs at present, four are major one’s USA, UK, France, Germany, of which USA is the largest MNC.
3. With the gain of enormous power in host countries, huge resources with themselves, they are able to invest in research and development at a greater level.
4. This helped them to manufacture new products and discover new’ processes and exploit Technological developments.

Advantages:

1. Production of quality goods at lower cost, without cost of transportation.
2. Reducing prices and increasing the purchasing power of the Consumer’s world wide.
3. Advantages of tax variation.
4. Induce job opportunities in the local economy.

Disadvantages:

1. May develop a monopoly for certain products.
2. May have damage/harm effect on the environment.
3. May also lead to the downfall of smaller/ local business.
4. MNC may neglect ethical standards and laws. Their motive is always improving business with enormous capital.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in south India.
Answer:
(i) Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organise and expand their trading activities. Trade guilds became channels through which Indian culture was exported to other lands.
(ii) South Indian trade was dominated by the Cholas and it replaced the Pallavas.
(iii) In the year 1053 AD (CE) the Kalinga Traders brought red coloured stone for trade and also cotton textile to Southeast Asia.
(iv) Several trade guilds operated in medieval Southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Ayyavole, Gavaras etc. The Nakaras and Gavaras met only in the temple premises.
(v) Several European traders also arrived in South India such as the Portuguese, Dutch, Danes, French and the British. These traders established their companies / factories and strengthened their root in the Indian soil.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:

1. World Trade Organisation was formed in April 1994 based on cbe signing of the final Act of the Uruguay Round by the member nations of GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade).
2. The headquarters of the WTO is in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. The main objectives of WTO is to ensure rules for international trade and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalization.
4. To resolve trade disputes and to ensure that developing countries, secure a better share of growth in World Trade.
5. To ensure full employment and broad increase in effective demand and transperancy of decision making process.
6. World Trade Organisation gives five types of subsides like cash subsidies, tax concessions, loan guarantees, stock purchases, procurement subsidies, thereby reducing the cost of doing business.
7. At present, there are 164 member countries in WTO .
8. The structure of WTO consists of a Director General, four Deputy Director General and other 600 official staff from around 80 member countries.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:
The following are the challenges of globalization.

1. To ensure that the benefits of globalization extent to all countries. That will certainly not happen automatically.
2. To deal with the fear that globalization leads to stability, which is particularly marked in the developing world.
3. To address the very real fear in the industrial world that increased global competition will lead memorably to a race to the bottom in wages, labour rights, employment practices, and the environment.
4. Globalization and all of the complicated problems related to it must not be used as excuses to avoid searching for new ways to cooperate in the over all interest of countries and people.
5. People have started consuming more junk foods. This has badly affected their health.

Globalization and Trade Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who started establishing trading posts from Africa to Asia and Brazil in the 16th century?
(a) The Dutch
(b) The Portuguese
(c) The French
(d) The British
Answer:
(b) The Portuguese

Question 2.
The New Economic policy was introduced in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1947
(c) 1956
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

Question 3.
Which among the following is the largest exporting country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
The term ………………… Globalization signifies a process of internationalisation and …………………
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 5.
How many countries participated in the seventh round of GATT?
(a) 23
(b) 99
(c) 102
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 99

Question 6.
The History of Globalization can be studied under ………………… stages.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 7.
……………. creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(a) Technology
(b) Globalization
(c) Trade barriers
Answer:
(b) Globalization

Question 8.
Modern Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 9.
The most important factor that has stimulated globalization is ……………
(a) population explosion
(b) urbanization
(c) rapid improvement in technology
Answer:
(c) rapid improvement in technology

Question 10.
An early form of Globalization is called ………………… Globalization.
(a) Archaic
(b) Modem
(c) Proto
(d) Millenium
Answer:
(a) Archaic

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The signing of the Final Act of the Uruguay Round by member nations of GATT in April 1994 paved the way for setting up of the ………….
2. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1974 referred directly to the operations of ………….. in India.
3. In 1605, Admiral van der Hagen established ……………..
4. In 1701 …………….. was the headquarters of the French
5. TRIM refers to Trade Related ……………… Measure.
6. In the middle of the 20th century, production was mainly or largely organised ………………..
7. A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is known as ……………
8. Investment made by multinational corporations is called ……………….
9. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as …………….
10. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the Governments of different countries is known as …………..
Answers:
1. WTO
2. MNCs
3. Dutch
4. Pondicherry
5. Investment
6. nationally
7. Multinational Corporation
8. Foreign Investment
9. Globalization
10. Liberalization

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What is the advantage of Fair Trade Mark?
Answer:
The Fair Trade Mark was launched in 2002 and Fair Trade Mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world. Fair Trade companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact.

Question 2.
What caused economic crisis in India in the early 1990s?
Answer:
In India the period after 1980-81 was marked by several balance of payment difficulties mainly due to hike in oil price and Gulf war in 1990-91 and hostilities in West Asia. India lost credit in the international market. This caused economic crisis.

Question 3.
What do you understand by G7 countries? List them.
Answer:
G7 countries refers to the developed countries of the world. G7 countries are Unites States, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Canada, Italy and Japan.

Question 4.
Mention any three negative impact of globalization.
Answer:
(i) Globalization has caused environmental damage. Increased production means increased utilisation of natural resources. Besides, increased trade results to increased transport, which was fossil fuels. As a result, pollution has increased, leading to climate change.

(ii) Globalization has led to increased market competition, hence leading to fluctuation in prices.
(iii) Due to globalization, most global economy jobs are insecure and temporary.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the terms FEMA and FERA.
Answer:
FERA refers to the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. This act was passed in India in 1974 which directly permits. The operations of MNCs in India.

FEMA refers to the Foreign Exchange Management Act of 1999. Under FEMA, the emphasis on management rather than regulation.

Question 6.
What is the term ‘investment’ means?
Answer:
Money spent on buying land, building and machines, etc.

Question 7.
Whom does fair trade support? Why?
Answer:
Fair Trade is for farmers and workers. They support the development of thriving farming and worker communities that have more control over their futures and protecting the environment in which they live and work.

Question 8.
What is the aim of World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
Answer:
Its aim is to liberalize international trade.

Question 9.
How many countries are currently the members of the WTO?
Answer:
164 countries

Question 10.
What was the main channel connecting countries in the past?
Answer:
Foreign trade was the main channel connecting countries in the past.

Question 11.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC (Multi-National Corporation) is a company that owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 12.
Why are MNC’s attracted to India?
Answer:
India has high skilled engineers who can understand the technical aspects of production. It also has educated English speaking youth, who can provide customer care services.

Question 13.
What is the most common route for MNC investments?
Answer:
The most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production.

Question 14.
How does liberalization of trade benefit businesses?
Answer:
With liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.

Question 15.
Why is fair globalization essential?
Answer:
Fair globalization would create opportunities for all and also ensure that the benefits of globalization are shared better.

Question 16.
Differentiate between investment and foreign investment.
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, buildings, machineries and other equipments is called investment, and the investment made by MNC’s is called foreign investment.

Question 17.
Why are MNC’s setting their customer care centres in India?
Answer:
MNC’s are setting up their customer care centres in India due to the availability of cheap and skilled labour and good English speaking people.

Question 18.
Differentiate between foreign trade and foreign investment.
Answer:

S.No.	Foreign Trade	Foreign investment
(i)	It implies the exchange of goods and services across nations.	It means the investment made by the MNC’s.
(ii)	It connects markets in different countries.	It is invested to earn profit.

Question 19.
Describe any three ways in which countries can be linked through globalization.
Answer:

1. By movements of goods.
2. By movement of services.
3. By movement of investments.
4. By movement of technology.
5. By the movement of people between countries.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is Globalization? What are its negative impacts on countries?
Answer:
Globalization is the integration of the domestic economy with the world economy.

Its negative impacts are:

1. When there is too much flow of capital among the countries, it may lead to unfair and immoral distribution of income.
2. There is possibility of losing the independency of the domestic policies, thereby losing national Integrity.
3. Building up infrastructure facilities led to resource extraction. This increase negative ecological and social costs.
4. In order to earn foreign exchange, rapid increase in exploitation of natural resources.
5. Much relaxation of environmental standards and regulation.

Question 2.
What is SEZ? Explain.
Answer:
In recent years, Central and State Governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. So Special Industrial Zones are being set up. They are also called as Special Economic Zones. They have world class facilities like electricity, water, transport, recreational and educational facilities. Companies that set up production units in SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

Recently, the Government of India has set up Special Economic Zones in Southern States especially in Tamil nadu, Karnataka, Andhra and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Nanguneris SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ are some of the SEZ’s in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What were the reforms made in India to adopt Globalization?
Answer:

1. Abolition of Industrial licensing , except for a few industries.
2. Number of Industries reserved for public sector are reduced.
3. The exchange rate of rupee is fixed very much realistically to exchange export of Indian goods.
4. Rupee was made convertible on trade, on current account enabling foreign private sector to invest easily.
5. Reduction of Import duties.
6. Suitable amendment of foreign exchange regulations.
7. The (SLR) Statutory Liquidity Ratio was redi’ced to increase lending by RBI.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

India’s International Relations Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Me Mahon Line is a border between ………………
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and Nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following
(1) G20
(2) ASEAN
(3) SAARC
(4) BRICS
Select the correct option:
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4

Question 3.
OPEC is ………..
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 6.
How many countries share their border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ………….
3. …………… is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land …………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. …………… is known as the Land of a thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by …………
Answers:
1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
Afghanistan, Pakistan, Bhutan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnetship Agreement (SPA).
Answer:
Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA). SPA provides assistance to re-build Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty-free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:
Brazil,. Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi – Model Transit Transport?
Answer:
India is building the Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport, a road-river-port cargo transport project to link Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South Sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently undemay.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

1. A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment to transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
2. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access land locked markets of Afghanistan and central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the Commonwealth.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing Industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “Skill India” initiatives.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:
India is potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world. Being a newly industralised county, India has great history of collaboration with several countries. It has acted as prominent member of several international organizations and has been a founding member of some. India is a member of formal grouping like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the Common Wealth.

India has been extending a helping hand to the UNO, in all its efforts in ending military conflicts, and in promoting peace and progress among the nations.

Name of the Global Grouping	Name of the Member Countries	Objectives
IBSA	India, Brazil, South Africa	To focus on agriculture, education, energy, trade, culture and defence among others
BCIM	Bangladesh, China, India,Myanmar	To respond to threats such as natural disasters and data breaches and protect business interests
BBIN	Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal	For energy development

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives. BRICS:
Answer:

1. Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa are leading emerging economies and political powers at the regional and international level.
2. The BRICS organisations headquarters is in Shangai, China.
3. BRICS opened up a possibility for countries of Global South to challenge the Global North.

Reason for the formation of BRICS:

1. To be an alternative to world bank and IMF to challenge U.S supremacy.
2. To provide self owned and self – managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS

1. To achieve regional development.
2. It act as a bridge between developed and developing countries.
3. To contribute extensively to development of humanity.
4. To establish a more equitable and fair world.
5. Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade co-operation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
6. To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
7. To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’s mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries
2. Help stabilise oil markets
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry

How does OPEC help other countries:
The OPEC Fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that helps finance projects with low interest loans. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects. OPEC has an Information Centre with over 20,000 volumes including books, reports, maps and conference proceedings related to petroleum, energy and the oil market. The Information Centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information form newspapers about India’s relatio with world countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

India’s International Relations Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India was a dependent country till …………
(a) August 13, 1947
(b) August 15, 1947
(c) January 26, 1980
Answer:
(b) August 15, 1947

Question 2.
In which year Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga water signed?
(a) 1970
(b) 1973
(c) 1975
(d) 1977
Answer:
(d) 1977

Question 3.
In spite of past conflicts both ……………. are trying to come closer.
(a) India and Bangladesh
(b) India and Afghanistan
(c) India and Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India and Pakistan

Question 4.
…………….. is a landlocked nation.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
…………. was the first country to recoginse the Republic of china.
(a) England
(b) Russia
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 6.
Bangladesh got freedom from …………….. in …………
(a) India, 1951
(b) Nepal, 1961
(c) Pakistan 1971
Answer:
(c) Pakistan 1971

Question 7.
Which country is an important partner in our energy needs for petroleum and natural gas?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Myanmar

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ……………… relation was strengthened by the strategic-Partnership Agreement.
2. India was the first nation to acknowledge ……………. as an independent country.
3. By the Farakka Barrage issue, the distribution of …………. water was settled amicably.
4. India and Bangladesh share ……………. common rivers.
5. ………….. known as a land of thunder bolt.
6. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as …………. to …………..
7. ………….. being the manufacturing hub of the world.
8. Maldives is located south of Lakshadweep islands in the ……………
9. India’s second largest border is shared with …………….
10. …………… is a small land locked country.
Answers:
1. Indo-Afghan
2. Bangladesh
3. Ganga
4. 54
5. Bhutan
6. Bharat, Bhutan
7. China
8. Indian Ocean
9. Myanmar
10. Nepal

III. Match the following.

a.

1.	Pasupati and Janakpu	(a)	India
2.	Maldives	(b)	The borderline between India and China
3.	Bhutan	(c)	Nepal
4.	Varanasi and four Dhaams	(d)	Himalayan kingdom
5.	Me Mahoon Line	(e)	Indian Ocean

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

IV. Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain about LOC.
Answer:

1. The ceasefire line determined in 1949 was called the LOC after 1972.
2. This is the boundary that came to be agreed between India and Pakistan under the Shimla agreement of 1972.
3. It was called Radcliffe line at the time of partition 1947. (Radcliffe was the chairman of the border commission) This is now called LOC.

Question 2.
Which is the fundamental factor of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
The recognition of sovereign equality of all people living in various parts of the world is the fundamental factor in India’s foreign policy.

Question 3.
Give a short note on BRICS payment system.
Answer:
At the 2015 BRICS summit, ministers from the BRICS nations initiated consultation a payment system that would be an alternative to the society for world wide Inter Bank Financial Telecommunication system (SWIFT).

Question 4.
Explain India’s role towards China.
Answer:
When China became republic in 1949. India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permanent member of united Nation’s Security Council.

Question 5.
List out the important Pilgrimage destination in India.
Answer:
Pashupati and Janakpur are traditional centres in Nepal where as Varanasi and the four Dhaans (Badrinathpuri, Dwareka and Rameshwaram) are important pilgrimage destination in India.

Question 6.
Prove that India is a very good friend of Bangladesh.
Answer:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt.Indira Ghandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship co-operation and peace was sighed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The Farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

V. Detail.

Question 1.
Discuss India and its Neighbours?
Answer:

1. India has always been known as a peace – loving country. India is surrounded by many neighbouring countries with whom she has traditionally tried to maintain friendly and good neighbourly relations.
2. India’sposition is unique in its neighbourhood.
3. India’s neighbours had been a part of a homogeneous culture prevailing in the Indian subcontinent for last five thousand years.
4. India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north – west.
5. China, Nepal, Bhutan to the North.
6. Bangladesh to the east.
7. Myanmar to the Far East.

Sri Lanka (from South – East) and Maldives (from South – West) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian ocean. India has cordial historical, religious, economic, ethnic and linguistic relationship will all of these countries.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 Information Processing Intext Questions

Question 1.
Check whether the Tree diagrams are equal or not.

Solution:
(i) Their algebraic expressions are a × (b – c) and (a × b) – (a × c)
∴ distributive property of multiplication over subtraction
∴ They are equal
(ii) Their algebraic expressions are a × (b – c) and (a × b) – c
Both are not equal [By BODMAS rule]

Question 2.
Check whether the following algebraic expressions are equal or not by using Tree diagrams.
(i) (x + y) + z and x + (y + z)
(ii) (p × q) × r and p × (q × r)
(iii) a – (b – c) and (a – b) – c
Solution:
(i) (x + y) + z and x + (y + z)
The tree diagrams are

Subtraction is not associative and the expressions are not equal.
(ii) (p × q) × r and p × (q × r)
The tree diagram is

Multiplication is associative
∴ Both expressions are equal.

(iii) a – (b – c) and (a – b) – c
Their tree diagrams are

Subtraction is not associative
∴ Both expressions are not equal.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

Question 2.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Question 3.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 4.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 5.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare
(b) trench warfare
(c) submarine warfare
(d) ship warfare
Answer:
(b) trench warfare

Question 6.
Which country after World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 7.
To which country did the first Secretary-General of League of Nations belong?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 8.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Japan forced a war on China in the year …….
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ……. signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ……….
4. In the Balkans ……… had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg …….. suffered heavy losses.
6. ……… as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. ……… became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ……….
Answers:
1. 1894
2. London
3. 1902
4. Macedonia
5. Russia
6. Clemenceau
7. Kerensky
8. 1925

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans
(ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
(iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
(iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Question 3.
Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

Question 4.
Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
How do you assess the importance of the Sino-Japanese War?
Answer:
The Sino-Japanese War proved that Japan was the strongest nation of the East Asia.

Question 2.
Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Answer:
The countries of Triple-Entente were Britain, France and Russia.

Question 3.
What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
Answer:
England’s jingoism, France’s chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur were militant forms of nationalism in Europe.

Question 4.
What do you know of trench warfare?
Answer:
Trenches or ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and protect themselves from enemy fire. During the first world war the battle of Mame (between French and Germans) is a memorable one for trench warfare.

Question 5.
What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Answer:
It was Mustafa Kemal Pasha whose efforts caused Turkey’s rebirth as a nation. Not only did Kemal Pasha win freedom for the country but he modernised it and changed it out of all recognition. He put an end to the Sultanate and the Caliphate.

Question 6.
Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
Answer:
In many countries, communist government were formed. Debates over issues like land reforms, social welfare, workers rights and gender equality started taking place in the global context.

Question 7.
List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Here are the two causes for the failure of the League of Nations:
a. The League appeared to be an organisation of those who were victorious in the First World War. Though it had a world-wide membership. It became very much the centre of European diplomacy.
b. The unanimity of members was required for all its decisions on political issues. Since it lacked the military power of its own, it could not enforce its decisions

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Imperialism

(а) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
Answer:
Monopoly capitalism is a capitalist system typified by tread monopolies in the hands of a few people. After 1870, the capitalism of free competition (based on the principle of free trade without any control or regulation by the state) became the capitalism of monopolies.

(b) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
Answer:
Japan took to Western education and machinery with a modem army and navy had emerged as an advanced industrialised power. It also followed the imperialistic aggression policy of the European powers faithfully. It surprised the world by giving a crashing defeat to China in the Sino-Japanese War during the period of 1894-95. Japan also defeated Russia in Russo-Japanese War in 1904 and got back Port Arthur from it. In this way it emerged as an imperial power.

(c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
An ever-growing demand for markets and raw materials made the industrial countries hungry for colonies in the nineteenth century.

(d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
Capitalism produced huge contrasts. Those contrasts were: extreme poverty and extreme wealth, slum and skyscraper, empire-state and dependent exploited colony.

Question 2.
German Emperor
(a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) He was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
(b) The violent form of Germany is called Kultur.
(c) The British agreement with France to occupy Morocco was not consented by Germany.
(d) The colonies of Germany in Africa were attacked by the allies and therefore had to surrender to them.

Question 3.
Balkan Wars

(а) Why was Balkan League formed?
Answer:
Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.

(b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
Answer:
The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia , between them. Turkey was reduced the area around Constantinople.

(c) Who were defeated in this war?
Answer:
The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.

(d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:

1. European great powers were divided into two armed camps.
2. One camp consisted of central powers namely Germany, Austria-Hungary Bulgaria and Turkey which was called Triple Alliance formed in 1882.
3. Another camp consisted of Ally powers namely Britain, France, and . Russia which was called Entente cordiale formed in 1904.
4. The aggressive nature of German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II who proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
5. The emergence of militant forms of nationalism like England’s Jingoism, France’s Chauvinism and Germany’s Kulthur contributed to the outbreak of the war.
6. Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany wanted declare Morocco an International ‘ colony instead of France occupying it with the support of Britain. Thus France was hostile under German.
7. Balkan countries like Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro was succeeding each other in occupying Balkan regions from Turks. So, to control them Balkan League was formed.
8. The Balkan League defeated the Turks in the first Balkan war in 1912.
9. When dispute arose in sharing the spoils of the war with Bulgaria, the second Balkan war broke out in 1913 against it and Bulgaria was defeated. Turks and Bulgaria approached Germany for help.
10. Austrian crown prince Ferdinand was killed by Princip a Serbian lad of Bosnia.
11. Austria could get support from Germany while Serbia from Russia.
12. Germany therefore declared war on Russia on 1 August 1914.
13. The Franco – Russian Alliance forced Germany to wage war against France when Britain also Supported them.
14. Thus, the first world war broke out between central powers and Allies in 1914.

Question 2.
Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany was found guilty of starting the War and therefore was to pay reparations for the losses suffered. The Reparation Commission set up for deciding the compensation decided on 6,600 million pounds to be paid in installments. All Central Powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
2. The German army was to be limited to 100,000 men. A small navy was allowed, but there were to be no submarines and no air force.
3. The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden and Germany was to acknowledge and respect the Independence of Austria.
4. Germany was forced to give up all the rights and titles over her overseas possessions to the allies. All German colonies became mandated territories under the League of Nations.
5. Germany was forced to revoke the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk (with Russia) and Bucharest (Bulgaria).

Question 3.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

1. Lenin gained the support of a small majority known as Bolsheviks which became the Bolshevik party. His opponents were called as Mensheviks.
2. In October, Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik central committee to decide on immediate revolution.
3. The revolutionary troops and armed factory workers seized the government buildings including the winter palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters on 7th November 1917.
4. The next day, 8th November, the new communist government was formed headed by Lenin.
5. He renamed, the Bolshevik party into Russian communist party.
6. The Russian communist party developed agriculture and Industry, and eliminated Illiteracy and poverty within a record time.
7. Women were given equal rights and right to vote.
8. Land was distributed to poor peasants.
9. Lenin appealed for peace and opted for withdrawing from the war and concentrated on the formation of new government.
10. Therefore, In March 1918, the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed.
11. The communist government encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom.
12. It led to debates over key issues, land reforms, social welfare, worker’s rights and gender equality started taking place in a global context.

Question 4.
Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of the League of Nations:

1. The League had been successful until signing of the Locarno Treaty in 1925. It was the year when European powers were confronted with a problem—how to achieve disarmament. The Council of the League set up a commission to hold a Disarmament Conference to sort out the problem.
2. The proposed conference materialised only in February 1932. In this conference, Germany’s demand of equality of arms with France was rejected. In October Hitler withdrew Germany from the conference and the League.
3. In September 1931, Japan attacked Manchuria and the League condemned its action. So Japan resigned from the League.
4.  Italy also resigned from the League in 1937. Thereafter the League was a passive witness to events, taking no part in the crises over the Rhineland. Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland.
5. The last decisive action it took was in December 1939 when Russia was expelled for her attack on Finland. The Assembly did not meet again and the League of Nations was finally dissolved in 1946.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to mark the places of battles and the capital cities of the countries that were engaged in the War.

Question 2.
An assignment or a project work on the role of Indian soldiers in different battle fields across the globe and the casualties they suffered during the War be attempted by the students.
Answer:
British Indian Army: A Military department was created within the government of the East India company at Kolkata in the year 1776.
The British Indian Army was a critical force for the primacy of the British empire both in India and across the world.

Participation:

1. Maintaining the internal security of the British Raj
2. Anglo-Burmese war
3. First and second Anglo-Sikh war
4. First, Second and Third Anglo Afghan war
5. First and Second Opium wars in China
6. Boxer Rebellion in China

World War I (1914-1918): Indian soldiers 1.3 million Indian soldiers served with Allies in which, 74,187 Indian troops were killed. Indian Army fought against German empire in western front.

World War II (1939-1945): Indian soldiers 1,30,000 men along with 44,000 men in British units in India . Some 87,000 Indian soldiers died in the war.

First Kashmir war (1947): Tensions between Indian and Pakistan largely over Kashmir have never been entirely eliminated.

Indo-Pakistani war (1965): India lost a total of 150-190 tanks during the conflict. Over 3,000 soldiers were killed.

Sino-Indian conflict (1967): Conflict between Indian troops and members of the Chinese People’s Liberation Army on 1st Oct 1967. Indian losses were 88 killed and 163 wounded.

Indo-Pakistani war (1971): The war began with aerial strikes on eleven Indian air stations. Indian forces captured around 5,795 sq.miles land in the west but returned in 1972 Simla agreement.

Kargil war (1999): The war broke out at the Himalayan heights in the Kargil district of India. There was heavy casualties in India.

UN peace keeping mission: In 2014, India is the third largest troop contributor with 7,860 personnel deployed. Nearly 157 Indians have been killed during such operations. The Indian army provided paramedical units to help the sick and the wounded.

IX. Map Work

Mark the following countries on the world map.

1. Great Britain
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
5. Morocco
6. Turkey
7. Serbia
8. Bosnia
9. Greece
10. Austria-Hungary
11. Bulgaria
12. Rumania

Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……. was in competition with Germany and United States.
(a) Japan
(b) England
(c) Africa
Answer:
(b) England

Question 2.
The outcome of the first world war is the:
(a) French
(b) Russian
(c) American
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Russian

Question 3.
China was politically independent under the ……..
(a) Chin rule
(b) Chou rule
(c) Manchu rule
Answer:
(c) Manchu rule

Question 4.
Chauvinism means:
(a) extreme patriotism
(b) thinking high
(c) blind patriotism
(d) quality of the state
Answer:
(a) extreme patriotism

Question 5.
In 1876, barely 10% of Africa was under rule.
(a) Austria
(b) European
(c) China
Answer:
(b) European

Question 6.
The International court of Justice was set up at ……………. with ……………. judges.
(a) Greece, 10
(b) Hague, 15
(c) Austria,20
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Hague, 15

Question 7.
The term ………. denotes control or rule by a country over the Political and Economical life of another country.
(a) Imperialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
Answer:
(a) Imperialism

Question 8.
The event of police and soldiers fired on th peaceful processions against Tsar in Russia was called:
(a) Bloody Sunday
(b) Petrograd problem
(c) Worst incident
(d) Militant action
Answer:
(a) Bloody Sunday

Question 9.
The industrial revolution created a need for …….
(a) Peace
(b) War
(c) Raw materials
Answer:
(c) Raw materials

Question 10.
The years of the first world war is:
(a) 1914-1918
(b) 1914-1916
(c) 1914-1917
(d) 1914-1920
Answer:
(a) 1914-1918

Question 11.
“Germany alone was competent to rule the whole world”, was said by
(a) Bismark
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II
(c) Hitler
Answer:
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II

Question 12.
France wanted to get back
(a) Alsace and Lorraine
(b) Bosnia and Herzegovina
(c) Estonia and Latvia
Answer:
(a) Alsace and Lorraine

Question 13.
Austria declared war on Serbia on
(a) 28^th July 1914
(6) 28^th June 1914
(c) 28^th August 1914
Answer:
(a) 28^th July 1914

Question 14.
Germany invaded France by crossing
(a) Luxemburg
(b) Rhineland
(c) Belgium
Answer:
(c) Belgium

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The First World War started in ……….
2. Turkey extended her support to the ……….
3. ……… expedition was an utter failure for the British.
4. …….. an American ship was torpedoed by a German submarine.
5. In Russia, the Tsarist government was overthrown by ……..
6. Germany was sued for peace on November ………
7. The League of Nations was officially founded in January ……..
8. Japan captured Manchuria in …………
9. The turning point of the First World War was the ……….
10. The Bolshevik Party was renamed as ……….
11. The Treaty of Versailles abolished ……… in Germany, Austria and Russia.
12. The League had its headquarters in ……….
13. In March 1918, the …… was signed.
Answers:
1. 1914
2. Central Powers
3. Dardanelles
4. Lusitania
5. Lenin
6. 11,1918
7. 20,1920
8. 1931
9. entry of America
10. Russian Communist Party
11. Monarchy
12. Geneva
13. Treaty of Brest- Litovsk

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (b)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define Imperialism.
Answer:
The word‘imperialism’is defined in three ways:

1. The term imperialism refers to the policy of extending a country’s rule over the others.
2. It is a policy of aggressive behaviour of one state against another.
3. It also refers to a country’s domination over the political and economic interest of another nation to exploit its natural resources.

Question 2.
Name the countries of Triple Alliance? When was it formed?
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Bulgaria and Turkey were the countries of Triple Alliance. It was formed under the guidance of Bismarck in 1882.

Question 3.
Industrial Revolution is an important cause for the rise of Imperialism – Explain it.
Answer:

1. Industrial Revolution in European countries resulted in a great increase in production. So there was a need for raw materials and new markets.
2. It also instructed a great progress in the means of transport and communication.
3. Due to the “Protective trade policy” of Europe, they could not sell their finished goods in their local markets.
4. These causes forced the Europeans to find new markets in Asian and African continents which led to the rise of Imperialism.

Question 4.
Write a note on Balkan League.
Answer:
Balkan is a region in South-eastern Europe between the Mediterranean sea and the Black sea.

Turkey extended her empire over the Balkans. Taking advantage of the political instability of the Turkish empire, Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and later Montenegro tried control over it and formed the Balkan League in March 1912.

Question 5.
Why did Germany needed colonies?
Answer:

1. Germany needed colonies as a sign of her world importance.
2. She needed colonies for her growing population.
3. To get raw materials and markets for its finished products.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Pravada.
Answer:
Pravada is a Russian word meaning ‘Truth’. It was the official newspaper of the communist party of the soviet union from 1918 to 1991.

Question 7.
Why did America enter into First World War?
Answer:

1. In 1917, Germany drowned four merchant ships of America including Lusitania with her submarines.
2. More than hundred Americans died in this incident.
3. This incident made the American President Woodrow Wilson angry and he declared war on Germany on the 6^th April of 1917.

Question 8.
What is the significance of the Treaty of Portsmouth?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war, of 1904, Japan defeated Russia. By the Treaty of Portsmouth, got back Port Arthur, also entered the circle of great powers.

Question 9.
What are the organs of the League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations consisted of: The General Assembly, The Council, The Secretariat, The International Court of Justice, and The International Labour Organisation.

Question 10.
Write any two incidents of violations by the member countries of the League.
Answer:

1. Japan attacked Manchuria in September 1931 and when the League condemned Japan, it resigned from the League.
2. Russia attacked Finland in 1939.

Question 11.
Name the prominent industrial areas in the Russian Empire?
Answer:
St. Petersburg and Moscow.

Question 12.
Who led the procession of workers to the event “Bloody Sunday” in Russia?
Answer:
Father Gapon

Question 13.
Write a note on Trusts and Cartels.
Answer:

1. A Trust is an Industrial organization in USA engaged in production, distribution of a commodity and control over its supply and price.
2. A Cartel was an association in Germany which was based upon a contractual agreement between people doing same type of business.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Causes for the rise of Imperialism

(a) What became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century?
Answer:
Imperialism became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century.

(b) What was the “White man’s burden”?
Answer:
To civilise the backward and uncivilised native people of Africa and Asia.

(c) Why were the European nations forced to acquire new colonies?
Answer:
The European nations were forced to acquire new colonies to get the Balance of power with their neighbours and competitors.

(d) What promoted the spirit of imperialism?
Answer:
The discovery of new routes to African and Asian continents.

Question 2.
Rise of Japan

(a) Which incident of Japan surprised the whole world?
Answer:
The crushing defeat of China by little Japan in the Sino-Japanese war of (1894-95) surprised the world.

(b) Why did Japan entered an alliance with England?
Answer:
Japan developed hostile towards Russia because Franch was the ally of Russia. Therefore, it entered into an alliance with Britain.

(c) What was the result of the Russo-Japanese war?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war of 1904, Japan defeated Russia and the Treaty of Portsmouth was signed thereby got back Port Arthur.

(d) What was the position of Japan after this war?
Answer:
Japan after this war, entered the charmed circle of the great powers.

Question 3.
Balkan Problem

(a) Name the Balkan countries.
Answer:
Serbia, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece and Montenegro.

(b) How did the First Balkan War come to an end?
Answer:
The First Balkan War came to an end by the “Treaty of London”.

(c) Why did the other Balkan countries declare war on Bulgaria?
Answer:
Dispute arose between Serbia and Bulgaria in sharing the spoils of the war.

(d) What was the result of the Second Balkan war?
Answer:
Bulgaria was defeated and Serbia gained more territories.

Question 4.
Violent Form Of Nationalism

(a) What was the attitude developed with the growth of Nationalism?
Answer:
The attitude of “ My country right or wrong, I support it” developed.

(b) What is meant by Jingoism, Chauvinism, Kulthur.
Answer:
Jingoism – England – Blind patriotism.
Chauvinism – France – Extreme Patriotism.
Kulthur – Germany – Thinking high.

(c) Why did hatred developed towards other countries?
Answer:
The love for one country demanded hatred for another country.

(d) What did the newspapers do?
Answer:
Newspapers whipped up nationalist feelings by twisting the situation obtained in other countries.

Question 5.
War in the Near East front

(a) When did Turkey enter the war?
Answer:
In October 1914.

(b) Why was it considered a terrible blow?
Answer:
Because communications between Russia and the Allies were cut off.

(c) Why did Britain wanted to capture Gallipoli Peninsula?
Answer:
To control the Dardanelles and to capture Constantinople.

(d) What was the result of Dardanelles expedition?
Answer:
It was an utter failure to Britain.

Question 6.
League of nations

(a) When was the covenant of the League of nations formed?
Answer:
The Covenant of the League was formed at the Paris peace conference in 1919.

(b) Who helped in its formation?
Answer:
President ofU.S.A Woodrow Wilson.

(c) What was the structure of the League?
Answer:
The League consisted of Assembly,, the council, the Secretariat, Court of Justice and the International Labour organization.

(d) What were the privileges Enjoyed by the member countries?
Answer:
Each member had one vote and even the small nations possessed the right of Veto (The vote that blocks a decision).

Question 7.
League of Nations:

(a) Name the organisations which were found before the League of Nation.
Answer:

1. The League of Nations society 1915.
2. The World League for Peace 1917
3. The League of Free Nations Association 1918.

(b) Where was the League of Nation’s headquarters situated?
Answer:
The League of Nation’s headquarters was situated at Geneva in Switzerland.

(c) How should the member nations solve the problems?
Answer:
The member nations should solve the problems only through the League of Nations.

(d) When did Japan capture Manchuria?
Answer:
Japan captured Manchuria in 1931.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What were the effects of Imperialism?
Answer:
Positive effects:

1. The powerful nations developed the transport and communication facilities in the weaker nations.
2. The formers gave the latter education, medical care and better methods of sanitation.
3. They introduced new farming methods to get increased food production.
4. These changes meant less death in the colonies and overall improvement in the standard of living.
5. It promoted order, discipline and unity in countries.
6. Clemenceau of trance, Orlando of Italy, Lloyd George of Britain and Woodrow Wilson of America were the main personalities of the conference.

The Treaty of Versailles:

1. The peace treaty with Germany was signed and it was called the Treaty of Versailles.
2. A huge war indemnity was imposed or Germany and German army was reduced.
3. The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.
4. Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to France.
5. The saar coal field was to be occupied by France for 15 years.

Other important treaties:

1. The Treaty of Germaine was concluded in Austria.
2. The Treaty of Trianon was concluded with Hungary.
3. The Treaty of Nevilly was concluded with Bulgaria.
4. The Treaty of Severes was concluded with Turkey.

New Nations created:

1. In many countries, monarchies gave place to Democracies.
2. New Republics of Czechoslovakia and Poland were born.
3. The Republic of Austria and Hungary was recognized.

Negative effects:

1. The colonies had no freedom. They were exploited and treated as slaves.
2. Imperialism led to the exploitation of the natural resources of the colonies.
3. The colonies were used as the suppliers of raw materials and markets for finished products.
4. The colonies plunged into poverty and unemployment due to the disappearance of indigenous industries.
5. The traditional pattern of agriculture was completely changed as the natives were forced to cultivate raw materials rather than food crops.
6. The introduction of western culture and education led to the loss of traditional culture, of the colonies.
7. It also led to the extinction of some native races of Africa due to slave trade.
8. The policy of racial discrimination was practiced in some colonies.

Question 2.
What were the criticisms raised against the peace settlement?
Answer:

1. The defeated powers were absent from the negotiations.
2. Self-determination was the principle for restoring peace among nations, but Germany alone did not follow it.
3. Austria was not allowed to unite with Germany.
4. Germany was thus left with total injustice.
5. Germany had to pay 6,600 million pounds for reparation which was beyond her capacity.
6. Germany was newly bordered by small weak states.
7. In 1920, the United States took a policy of Isolation.
8. Italy was given merely small places like Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
9. The peace settlement created many national minorities and countries gave promises to respect the rights of minorities.
10. Separate treaties were drawn up and signed by the allies with Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria and Turkey.
11. Though, it was largely due to the pressure from President of USA, Woodrow Wilson, League was formed but could not become the member of the League.

Question 3.
What were the achievements of League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations succeeded in solving many problems during its existence for about 20 years.

1. It settled the dispute between Sweden and Finland regarding the ownership of Aaland island.
2. It solved a boundary dispute in Silesia between Poland and Germany.
3. It solved a dispute between Greece and Italy over the Island of Corfu.
4. It avoided a war between Greece and Bulgaria over the border disputes.
5. In 1926, Germany was admitted as a member of the League of Nations. In 1934, Russia was also admitted in the League.
6. It solved a border issue between Peru and Columbia.
7. Through its other organs, the League prevented the spread of many diseases.
8. It extended its helping hand in solving the problems of refugees and lepers.
9. It whole heartedly promoted cultural co-operation among the nations.
10. It attempted to raise the standard of education in various states.
11. The International Court of Justice handled more than thirty cases. It delivered judgement in some cases and in some others gave advisory opinions.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

India’s Foreign Policy Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding the foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchseel treaty has been signed between:
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is:
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to …………..
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one:
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means ………..
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently

Question 10.
Non – military issues are:
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at …………
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ……….. for domestic growth and development.
3. ……….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice …………..
Answers:
1. Pokhran
2. inward investment, business and technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non-Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) i, iii, iv, ii
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv, iii
(d) i, iii, ii, iv
Answer:
(c) i, ii, iv, iii

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason (B): This began with a disastrous Indo-China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason (R): India is the World’s second-most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was a necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following.

1.	Indian Ocean island	(a)	1955
2.	Landbridge to ASEAN	(b)	1954
3.	Panchsheel	(c)	Maldives
4.	Afro Asian Conference	(d)	Foreign Policy
5.	World Peace	(e)	Myanmar

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:
Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are
• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence
It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use against any non-nuclear state.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

1. The most idealistic phase of India’s foreign policy under the guidance of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
3. So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America U.S.A (or) Union Soviet Socialist Republic (U.S.S.R).

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy
Answer:

Domestic Policy	Foreign Policy
Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.	Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.	Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Mutual non – aggression
2. Mutual non – interference
3. Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
4. Peaceful co-existence

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:
The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development. So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA) or United Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR). Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). So he chose the path of Non-Alignment.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and KwameNkumarah of Ghana were the architects of Non Aligned Movement.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid, international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

• The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
• Non-alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
• It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
• The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.

The founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

• • Non-aligned countries have been successful in establishing a foundation of economic co-operation among underdeveloped countries.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources.
4. The compulsion of economic development.
5. Political stability and structure of Government.
6. The necessity of peace, disarmament and non – proliferation of nuclear weapons.
7. Military strength
8. International milieu.

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
(i) Indian foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalties.

(ii) India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.

(iii) India provides neighbours with support as needed in this form of resources equipment and training.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and two that you would like to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

India’s Foreign Policy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India is a country with an unbounded faith in …………
(a) War
(b) Peace
(c) Love
Answer:
(b) Peace

Question 2.
Find out the main tools of the foreign policy of the following.
(a) Treaties
(b) International trade
(c) Foreign Aid
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Apartheid was abolished on …………
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1890
Answer:
(a) 1990

Question 4.
In which place the Foreign Service Training Institute was established?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Calcutta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) New Delhi

Question 5.
Apartheid was abolished by …………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Nelson Mandela

Question 6.
In which year Panchsheel was signed?
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 1954
(d) 1956
Answer:
(c) 1954

Question 7.
SAARC’s first meeting was held at ………….
(a) Colombo
(b) Cairo
(c) Dacca
Answer:
(c) Dacca

Question 8.
Who was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers? (America and Russia)
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Nasser
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
The first SAARC’s meeting was held at Dacca in the year …………..
(a) 1985
(b) 1965
(c) 1995
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 10.
Which year did India conduct its first nuclear test at Pokhran?
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1974
(d) 1976
Answer:
(c) 1974

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. India followed the policy of …………..
2. India has rendered whole-hearted support to the ………….. to bring World Peace.
3. ………….. is an economic and geopolitical organization of eight countries are particularly located in South Asia.
4. SAARC Disaster Management Centre was set up at ………….
5. …………policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
Answers:
1. Non-alignment
2. UNO
3. SAARC
4. New Delhi
5. Domestic

III. Match the following.

1.	Jawaharlal Nehru	(a)	Indonesia
2.	Chou-En-Lai	(b)	Egypt          .
3.	Nelson Mandela	(c)	India
4.	Nasser	(d)	China
5.	Sukarno	(e)	South Africa

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Mention any three objectives of our Foreign Policy.
Answer:

1. National security
2. National prosperity
3. Achieving world peace and enable every nation to peacefully co-exist.

Question 2.
Why is world peace an essential one?
Answer:
The economic development of the nations can be achieved only through world peace. So world peace is very essential not only for the economic development of India but also for all the developing countries of the world.

Question 3.
Explain the foreign policy stance of India?
Answer:
The foreign policy stance of India was:

1. Supporting the cause of decolonisation.
2. Staunch opponent of the apartheid regime in South Africa.
3. Accepted the importance of defence preparedness.

Question 4.
Name the areas identified by the SAARC countries for mutual co-operations.
Answer:
The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas. They are transportation, postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture, rural construction and telecommunications.

Question 5.
What are the two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine?
Answer:
The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are:

1. No first use
2. Credible minimum deterrence.

V. Detail.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about Panchsheel and the policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Panchsheel:
India is called by the name of “A Great Peace Maker”. It followed five principles which are popularly known as ‘Panchsheel’. Jawaharlal Nehru said, stress on these five principles. They are:

1. Each country should respect the territorial integrity and sovereignty of others.
2. No country should attack any other country.
3. No one should try to interference in the internal affairs of others.
4. All countries shall strive for equality and mutual benefit.
5. Every country should try to follow the policy of peaceful co-existence.

These Panchsheel greatly added to the international status of India.
Policy of Non-allignments:

1. After the Second World War the world was divided into two hostile blocs. The
   American Bloc and The Russian Bloc.
2. Both of them are trying to increase their influence at the cost of the other.
3. But India has not joined either of these two blocs.
4. Whenever any difference arises between there blocs, India tries to remove that difference. Thus India has contributed substantially towards world peace.

Question 2.
Write about policy of Disarmament.
Answer:

1. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice disarmament.
2. Since Independence, global non-proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
3. So India supported UN disarmament progrmme.
4. Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Question 3.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy:
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction

Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
GNP equals …………
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad

Question 2.
National Income is a measure of:
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Total value of goods and services

Question 3.
Primary sector consist of ………………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 4
………………….. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value-added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value-added approach

Question 5.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Service sector

Question 6.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at …………………..
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

Question 7.
India is …………… larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 4^th
(d) 2^nd
Answer:
(d) 2^nd

Question 8.
India’s life expectancy at birth is ………………. years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
Answer:
(a) 65

Question 9.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 10.
Indian economy is:
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. …………….. sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of ………………. economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as …………..
4. ……………… sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is …………….. largest economy of the world.
6. India is ………………. fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ………………. policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth of GDP.
Answers:
1. Service
2. a country’s
3. industry sector
4. Service
5. sixth
6. fifth
7. Industrial

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
(i) Low per capita income.
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
(iii) Poor contribution of household sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.

(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) i, ii and iii are correct
(c) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
(a) i, ii and iv are correct

IV. Match the Following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5 .(b)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. Commonly National Income is called a Gross National product (or) National Dividend.

Question 2.
What is meant by Gross domestic product?
Answer:
The GDP is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 3.
Write the importance of Gross Domestic product.
Answer:

1. It helps in the study of economic growth of an economy.
2. To understand to unequal distribution of wealth in an economy.
3. To analyse the problem of inflation and deflation.
4. To compare domestic country with the developed countries of the world.
5. To estimate the purchasing power of the economy.
6. Helps public sector to frame suitable policies for development.
7. It acts as a guide to economic planning.

Question 4.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 5.
Define the value added approach with example.
Answer:
The value of each intermediate good is added together to estimate the value of the final good. It is called as value added approach. Eg: In order to find the value of a cup of tea, we need to add the value of tea powder plus milk plus sugar. Here Tea powder, milk and sugar are intermediate goods, whereas tea is the final good. Eg: Tea powder – ₹ 3 /-, Milk – ₹ 5 /-, Sugar – ₹ 2 /- Market price of one cup of tea is ₹ 10 /- (3 + 5 + 2).

Question 6.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
Answer:
Name of the sectors are: (i) Primary sector, (ii) Secondary sector and (Hi) Tertiary sector.

Question 7.
Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
Answer:
Sector wise contribution in GDP of India for the year 2016 – 2017
Primary Sector – 17.09%
Secondary Sector – 29.03%
Tertiary Sector – 52.08%

Question 8.
What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. A fast growing working age population
2. Strong Legal system
3. Many English language speakers
4. Low wage cost
5. Highly advanced space technology
6. External economics of scale.

Question 9.
Write the name of economic policies in India.
Answer:
Name of economic policies in India are:

• Agriculture Policy
• Industrial Policy
• New Economic Policy
• Trade Policy
• Employment Policy
• Currency and Banking Policy
• Fiscal and Monetary Policy
• Wage Policy
• Population Policy

Question 10.
Write a short note on
(i) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
(ii) Human Development Index (HDI).
Answer:
(i) Gross National Happiness: This term was introduced in 1972, by the King of Bhutan Jigme Wang chuck. It is an index which is used to measure the collective happiness and well-being of a population.
(ii) Human Development Index: This term was introduced in 1990 by a Pakistani Economist at the United Nations. It is a composite index of life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate and standard of living measured in terms of GDP adjusted to purchasing power parity.

VI. Write in detail answer.

Question 1.
Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
Answer:
Various terms associated with measuring of national income.
(i) Gross National Product or GNP is the total value of goods and services produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country. It excludes profits earned from capital invested abroad.

(ii) Gross Domestic Product or GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.

(iii) Net National Product or NNP refers to gross national product, i.e., the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of productions of a country or other polity during a given time period, minus depreciation.

(iv) Net Domestic Product or NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product. It is obtained from the Gross Domestic Productby deducting the Quantum of ten wear and tear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

(vi) Personal Income or PI is the total money income received by individuals and households of a country from all possible services before direct taxes. Personal income can be expressed as follows:
PI = NI Corporate Income Texes – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Social Security Contributions + Transfer payment.

(vii) Disposable Income or DI means actual income which can be spent on consumption by . individuals and families. It can expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

Question 2.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Explain it.
There are three methods to calculate Gross Domestic Product.
(i) Expenditure Approach
(ii) Income Approach
(iii) Value-Added Approach

(i) Expenditure Approach: According to this method, the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specific period are added together, to get the GDP.
Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
Y – National Income
C – Consumption Expenditure,
I – Investment Expenditure
G – Government Expenditure,
X – Exports
M – Imports.

(ii) The Income Approach: In this method, the earnings of all the men and women who are involved in producing goods and services are added together to measure GDP.
Y = W + R + I + π
Y = National Income, W- Wages,
R – rent, I – interest, π – profit

(iii) Value-Added Approach: In this method, the value of each intermediate good is added together to estimate the value of final goods. The sum of the value of all the final goods gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy, which is Measured as GDP.

GDP = Sum of final goods produced in the economy S_f
S_f = Sum of Intermediate goods produced in the economy.

Question 3.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –
(i) Primary Sector – It includes agriculture-based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.

(ii) Secondary Sector – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.

(iii) Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc. ’

Question 4.
Write the differences between the growth and development.
Answer:
Differences between the Economic growth and Economic development

Economic Growth	Economic Development
(i) It is the positive quantitative change in the output of an economy in a particular time period	(i) It consider the rise in the output in an economy along with the advancement of HDI index which considers a rise in living standards, advancement in technology and overall happiness index of a nation.
(ii) Economic growth is the ‘narrower’ concept.	(ii) Economic development is the ‘broader’ concept.
(iii) Quantitative in nature.	(iii) Qualitative in nature.
(iv) Rise in parameters like, GDP, GNP, FDI, FII etc.	(iv) Rise in life expectancy rate, infant, improvement in literacy fate, infant mortality rate and poverty rate etc.
(v) Short term in nature.	(v) Long-term in nature.
(vi) It is applicable in developed nations.	(vi) It is applicable in developing co countries.
(vii) It is measured by increase in national income.                    ,	(vii) It is measured by increase in real national income, i.e., per capita income.
(viii) It occurs in a certain period of time.	(viii) It is a continuous process.

Question 5.
Explain the development path based on GDP and employment.
Answer:

1. In the earlier stages of Indian Independence, India remained as closed economy and the interaction with the outside world remained limited.
2. The reason for closed trade was to give importance to domestic industries and reduce the dependence on foreign products and companies.
3. Later in the year 1991, India adopted free trade policy, and liberalised the economy.
4. It has given permission for the foreign companies to enter into the Indian economy.
5. To give employment to the increasing size of work force, a thrust was given to employment generation under the Five year plans.
6. Rural Development was also given special importance.
7. Eradication of poverty became a very important part in context of Rural Development.
8. The private companies and Industries were subject to strict rules and regulations.
9. It was believed that the social welfare of the people could be possible only by the government, therefore it gained importance.
10. India’s Per Capita Income have doubled in 12 years.
11. India falls under Middle Income country category.
12. There is reduction in poverty percentage and the life expectancy at birth is 65 years.
13. 44% of children under 5 are malnourished.
14. The literacy rate for the population of 15 years of age is only 63% compared to 71% of other middle income countries.
15. India has followed a different path of development by moving from agricultural sector to service sector very quickly. This help India to expect emerging Industrialists in Indian Economy.

Question 6.
Explain the following the economic policies
1. Agricultural Policy
2. Industrial policy
3. New economic policy.
Answer:
Many economic policies have been framed by the Government of India since independence for increasing rate of economic growth and economic development. The important economic policies are :
(i) Agricultural Policy – This policy is the set of Government decisions and actions relating to domestic agriculture and imports of foreign agricultural products. Governments usually implement agricultural policies with the goal of achieving a specific outcome in the domestic agricultural product markets. Some agricultural policies are price policy, land reform policy, irrigation policy, food policy etc.

(ii) Industrial Policy – It is a very important aspect of any economy. It create employment, promotes research and development, leads to modernisation and ultimately make the economy self sufficient. Several industrial policies since 1948 have come into existence – textile industrial policy, sugar industry policy, price policy of industrial growth etc.

(iii) New Economic Policy – The economy of India had undergone a significant policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the LPG or Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation model. The primary objective of this model was to make the economy of India the fastest developing economy in the globe with capabilities that help at match up with the biggest economies of the world. These economic reforms influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.

Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What is ‘H’ in GNH?
(a) Holislic
(b) Happiness
(c) Human
(d) Hazardous
Answer:
(b) Happiness

Question 2.
Goods are …………………
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) services
Answer:
(a) Tangible

Question 3.
What is India’s world rank in industrial sector?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 4.
…………………. is the market value of all goods and services produced in the country.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 5.
India finally decided to liberalise its economy in the year …………..
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2001
Answer:
(a) 1991

Question 6.
The Goods and Services are measured in terms of ………………… of that country.
(a) wealth
(b) currency
(c) type
(d) size
Answer:
(b) currency

Question 7.
Income method sums all forms of …………
(a) Expenditure
(b) Income
(c) Savings
Answer:
(b) Income

Question 8.
Only those goods and services that has a market value are included in the …………………
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 9.
The primary function of the Government is …………….
(a) to maintain law and order
(b) Military defence
(c) Social Security measures
Answer:
(a) to maintain law and order

Question 10.
According to Economists Tyler and Alex, Final goods and services a part of other goods and services ………………… a part of other goods and services
(a) will be
(b) will not be
(c) fully
(d) None
Answer:
(b) will not be

Question 11.
Economic development is the process as well as an increase in real …………. income.
(a) individual
(b) family
(c) national
Answers:
(c) national

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Economic development focuses on balanced and ……….. distribution of wealth among all individuals and tries to uplift the downgrade society.
2. The GDP of the United States of America is 19.3 trillion USD and ranked ………….
3. Human development Index is apt tool to measure the real development in an …………….
4 ………….. has emerged as a hub of global software business.
5. In India the GDP is measured both annually and …………….
6. Economic growth means an increase in ……………. and …………. in an economy.
7. Human Resources are ……………. for economic development.
8. Per capita income is calculated by dividing National Income by ……………
9. Per capita income is an indicator of …………… in a country.
10. Economic development is economic growth and allocation of resources from primary sector ………… to sector.
11. Tertiary sector is known as ……………
Answers:
1. equitable
2. one
3. economy
4. Bangalore
5. quarterly
6. production of good, services
7. instruments
8. population
9. living standard of people
10. tertiary
11. service sector

III. Match the Following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the four pillars of Gross National Happiness Index?
Answer:
The four pillars of GNHI are

1. Sustainable and equitable socio-economic development
2. Environmental conservation
3. Preservation and Promotion of culture
4. Good Governance

Question 2.
“India has followed a different path of development from many other countries”. Explain.
Answer:
India has gone more quickly from agriculture to services that tend to be less tightly regulated than heavy industry. There are some emerging manufacturing giants in the Indian economy.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘double counting’?
Answer:
The value of final goods are included in the calculation of GDP, but not the value of Intermediate goods. This is because the value of the Intermediate goods is already included in the final good. So, if it is added again it will result in double counting.

Question 4.
What are the nine domains of Gross National Happiness or GNH?
Answer:
The nine domains of GNH are – psychological well-being, health, time use, education, cultural diversity and resilience, good governance, community vitality, ecological diversity and resilience, and living standards.

Question 5.
What is meant by Market value?
Answer:
The price at which the goods and services are sold in the market is called as Market value.

Question 6.
Write a note on Income method.
Answer:

• Income method is one of the methods of calculating National Income.
• In this method, the income and payments received by all the people in the country are calculated.

Question 7.
What are the key parameters of Economic Growth?
Answer:
The key parameters of Economic Growth in an economy are its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) which helps in measuring the actual size of an economy.

Question 8.
What is Net Domestic Product?
Answer:
Net Domestic Product is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of tear and wear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP (-) Depreciation.

Question 9.
What are the nine domains of GNHI?
Answer:

1. Psychological well-being
2. health
3. time-use
4. Education
5. Cultural diversity and Resilience
6. Good governance
7. Community vitality
8. Ecological diversity
9. Living standards.

Question 10.
What are the basic concepts of National Income?
Answer:

1. Gross National Product (GNP)
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
3. Net National Product (NNP)
4. Net Domestic Product (NDP)
5. Per Capita Income (PCI)
6. Personal Income (PI)
7. Disposable Income (DI)

Question 11.
What is meant by GNP Deflator?
Answer.
It means the change in the Gross National Product (GNP) with the change in the price levels symbolically.\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{GNP}}{\Delta \mathrm{P}}\)

Question 12.
What are called sectors?
Answer:
Sectors are the groups of various economic activities that produced goods and services.

Question 13.
Why is the primary sector also called agricultural and related sector?
Answer:
Since most of the natural products we get are from Agriculture based allied activities. Production of raw materials such as cattle farm, dairy, fishing, mining, forestry, com and coal. The primary sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Question 14.
Why is the tertiary sector also called the ‘Service Sector’?
Answer:
Since the activities that fall under the tertiary sector generate services rather than goods, this sector is also called the service sector.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air. which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens r because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country’ may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed to unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on the measurement of GDP.
Answer:
(i) The GDP Gross Domestic Product of a country measures the market value of goods and services produced during a particular period of time.

(ii) In the measurement of GDP, the GDP of the previous years are not included. Eg: the GDP of 2018 will include the market value of goods and services produced only during 2018.

(iii) In India, GDP is measured both annually and in quarterly.

(iv) The Annual GDP financial year (2017-18) is from 1st April 17 to 31st March 18.

(v) The quarterly GDP for any financial year is calculated by dividing the year into 4 quarters with 3 months each.

1^st Quarter – April, May, June (Q₁)
2^nd Quarter – July, Aug, Sept (Q₂)
3^rd Quarter – Oct, Nov ,Dec (Q₃)
4^th Quarter – Jan, Feb, March (Q₄)
(vi) The GDP of Q₂ will not include GDP of Q₁ and vice versa. This means, only the goods and services produced in that quarter is included for the measurement of GDP.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions

Question 1.
Draw tree diagrams for the following questions:
(i) The number of books sold in a book fair is as follows. First day 1,82,192, Second day 1,28,194, Third day 80,520 fourth day 92,004 and the fifth day 50,020. Find the total number of the book sold.
(ii) A water purification project cost 1,82,71,000. The machinery was bought for ₹ 69,12,000. What is the amount needed to complete the project?
(iii) The number of flowers needed to arrange in a flower pot is 62. Find the number of flowers needed to arrange in 55 pots?
(iv) If the total scholarship money sanctioned for 50 students are ₹ 62,000. Find the amount that each student can get?
Solution:

Question 2.
Convert into tree diagrams
(i) (10 × 5) + (2 × 16)
(ii) (5 × 3) – (8 × 6) + 9
(iii) [9 + (3 × 2)] – [(6 × 4) + 5]
(iv) [(4 – 1) × 16] + [(16 + 9) × 3]
(v) {[(10 × 6) + 5] × [ 4 + (3 – 2)]} ÷ [4 × (2 + 9)]
(vi) 4 + [8 × 6 + {(4 × 3) – (10 ÷ 4)}]
Solution:

Question 3.
Convert the following tree diagrams into numerical expressions.

Solution:
(a) [4 × (6 + 2)] – [(4 – 2) ÷ 2]
(b) (12 × 6) + (6 ÷ 3)
(c) [4 × (10 – 2)] + [(4 + 9) × 3]

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Optics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Solved Problems

Question 1.
Light rays travel from vacuum into a glass whose refractive index is 1.5. If the angle of incidence is 30°, calculate the angle of refraction inside the glass.
Solution:
According to Snell’s law,

Question 2.
A beam of light passing through a diverging lens of focal length 0.3 m appears to be focused at a distance 0.2 m behind the lens. Find the position of the object.
Solution:
f = -0.3 m, v = -0.2 m

Question 3.
A person with myopia can see objects placed at a distance of 4 m. If he wants to see objects at a distance of 20 m, what should be the focal length and power of the concave lens he must wear?
Solution:
Given that x = 4 m and y = 20 m.
Focal length of the correction lens is, \(f=\frac{x y}{x-y}\)
\(\begin{aligned} f &=\frac{4 \times 20}{4-20} \\ &=\frac{80}{-16}=-5 \mathrm{m} \end{aligned}\)
Power of the correction lens \(=\frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{5}=-0.2 \mathrm{D}\).

Question 4.
For a person with hypermetropia, the near point has moved to 1.5 m. Calculate the focal length of the correction lens in order to make his eyes normal.
Solution:
Given that, d = 1.5 m; D = 25 cm = 0.25 m (For a normal eye).
The focal length of the correction lens is,

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in ____.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D.
Answer:
(a) A

Question 2.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light
Answer:
(a) a convergent beam of light

Question 3.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce ____.
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light.
Answer:
(c) a parallel beam of light

Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is:
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at the focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is _____.
(a) 4m
(b) -40m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m.
Answer:
(c) -0.25m

Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed:
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) bifocal lenses.
Answer:
(d) bifocal lenses.

Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
Answer:
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm

Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The path of the light is called as ______.
Answer:
ray of light.

Question 2.
The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than _____.
Answer:
one.

Question 3.
If the energy of the incident beam and the scattered beam are the same, then the scattering of light is called _____ scattering.
Answer:
elastic.

Question 4.
According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ____.
Answer:
wavelength.

Question 5.
Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ______.
Answer:
Iris.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
The velocity of light is greater in a denser medium than in a rarer medium?
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Velocity of light is lesser in a denser medium than in rarer medium

Question 2.
The power of the lens depends on the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The convex lens always gives a small virtual image.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The convex lens give enlarged. Virtual image when it is placed between pole and principal focus.

IV. Match the Following.

Question 1.

1. Retina	(a) Pathway of light
2. Pupil	(b) Far point comes closer
3. Ciliary muscles	(c) Near point moves away
4. Myopia	(d) Screen of the eye
5. Hypermetropia	(e) Power of accommodation

Answer:
1. (d) Screen of the eye
2. (a) Pathway of light
3. (e) Power of accommodation
4. (b) Far point comes closer
5. (c) Near point moves away

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of the eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of the concave lens.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:
Ray diagram for an object placed between F and 2F

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering \(\mathrm{s} \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Convex Lens	Concave Lens
1. The lens which is thicker at the centre than at the edges.	1. The lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges.
2. Abeam of light passing through it, is converged to a point.	2. A beam of light passing through it is diverged or spread out.
3. It is called a converging lens.	3. It is called a diverging lens.

Question 7.
What is power of accommodation of eye?
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of accommodation of the eye.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:
Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball. With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

1. The wavelength of red colour is more than other colours.
2. Red colour will travel longer distance without scattering.
3. Red colour gets least scattered and reaches people.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light.
Answer:

1. Light is a form of energy.
2. Light always travels along a straight line.
3. Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
4. The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1.
5. Since, light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (k) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = v λ (c – velocity of light).
6. Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.
7. Among the visible light, violet light has the lowest wavelength and red light has the highest wavelength.
8. When light is incident on the interface between two media, it is partly reflected and partly refracted.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed In a convex lens with the help of a ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule 1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule 2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule 3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia?
Answer:

Myopia	Hypermetropia
(i) Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball.	(i) Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, occurs due to the shortening of the eyeball.
(ii) With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.	(ii) With this defect, distant objects can be seen clearly but nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
(iii) The focal length of the eye lens is reduced or the distance between the eye lens and retina increases.	(iv) The focal length of the eye lens is increased or the distance between the eye lens and retina decreases.
(iv) The far point will not be infinity for such eyes and the far point has come closer.	(iv) Hence, the near point will not be at 25 cm for such eyes and the near point has moved farther.
(v) Due to this, the image of distant objects is formed before the retina.	(v) Due to this, the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina.
(vi) This defect can be corrected using a concave lens	(vi) This defect can be corrected using a convex lens.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction:

• A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called an ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’.
• The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the ‘observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eyepiece’.
• Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:

• The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of the objective lens (u > f₀).
• A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
• This image behaves like the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eyepiece.
• This eyepiece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
• A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Solution:


Nature of the image real enlarged and inverted image.

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Solution:
u = -10 cm [left side of lens]
f = -15 cm [left side of lens]
h = 3 cm


Nature of image: When an object is placed at 10 cm from the left side of the lens, a virtual image is formed between the optical centre and focus of a concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

IX. Higher-Order Thinking (HOT) Questions:

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of the focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,

1. Can he get the image?
2. Is there any change in the focal length?

Answer:

1. Yes, he can get the image, because the lens is broken into two halves along the axis.
2. No, focal length remains the same for the lens if it’s broken (or) not broken.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

1. Owl has large pupil so that it provides a larger pathway for light to flow towards the retina.
2. In addition it has large comer so that a bigger image of the insects would be formed on the retina.
3. In this way the eyes of the nocturnal birds help them to identify the elements in the surroundings.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The speed of light in vacuum or air is _____.
(a) 3 × 10^-8 ms^-1
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m^-1s
(d) 3 × 10^-18 ms^-1.
Answer:
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 2.
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is known as:
(a) Inelastic scattering
(b) Elastic scattering
(c) Raman scattering
(d) Mie scattering
Answer:
(b) Elastic scattering

Question 3.
Which is the following is not an example of colloid _____.
(a) milk
(b) ice – cream
(c) pure water
(d) smoke.
Answer:
(c) pure water

Question 4.
The band of colours is termed as _____.
(a) monochromatic source
(b) composite light
(c) spectrum
(d) dispersion of light.
Answer:
(c) spectrum

Question 5.
Water droplets, pollen and dust cause scattering.
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Mie
(d) Rayleigh
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 6.
_____ scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Tyndall
(c) Mie
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 7.
The colour of the sun is red at sunrise and sunset. This occurs due to _____ scattering.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Mie
(c) Tyndall
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(a) Rayleigh

Question 8.
A lens may be considered to be made up of:
(a) lenses
(b) prisms
(c) mirrors
(d) transparent medium
Answer:
(b) prisms

Question 9.
If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) Plano-convex lens
(c) concave lens
(d) Plano concave lens.
Answer:
(b) Plano-convex lens

Question 10.
The spectral lines having a frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ______.
(a) Spectral lines
(b) Raman lines
(c) Colour lines
(d) Rayleigh lines.
Answer:
(d) Rayleigh lines.

Question 11.
The lens that is thinner in the middle than at the edges is called:
(a) concave lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(a) concave lens

Question 12.
Magnification of a concave lens is ______.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 13.
Where should an object be placed so that a real image is formed at infinity is obtained by a convex lens _____.
(a) 2F
(b) 0
(c) F
(d) >2F.
Answer:
(c) F

Question 14.
The focal length of a lens is the distance between:
(a) optic centre and principal focus
(b) optic centre and centre of curvature
(c) principal focus and centre of curvature
(d) none
Answer:
(a) optic centre and principal focus

Question 15.
Lens Maker’s formula is _____.

Answer:

Question 16.
The power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its _____.
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) focal length
(d) refractive index.
Answer:
(c) focal length

Question 17.
When the object is placed at the principal focus of concave lens, the image will be formed at:
(a) 2F
(b) F
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(c) infinity

Question 18.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using _____ lens.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) cylindrical
(d) bifocal.
Answer:
(c) cylindrical

Question 19.
The least distance of distinct vision for the normal human eye is ______.
(a) 30 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) 25 cm

Question 20
To get a real and diminished image using convex lens, the object must be placed:
(a) at F
(b) beyond 2F
(c) at 2F
(d) beyond F
Answer:
(b) beyond 2F

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The interacting particle of the medium is called ______.
Answer:
Scatterer.

Question 2.
When a beam of light is refracted through any transparent media, it split into its component colours. This is called as _____.
Answer:
dispersion of light.

Question 3.
The speed of light in a medium is high if the refractive index of the medium is _____?
Answer:
low.

Question 4.
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called _____?
Answer:
Raman lines.

Question 5.
_____ lenses are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 6.
______ lenses are used as the eye lens of the Galilean Telescope.
Answer:
Concave.

Question 7.
By convention, the power of a convex lens is taken as _____ whereas the power of a concave lens is taken as _____
Answer:
positive, negative.

Question 8.
The diameter of a human eye is _____?
Answer:
2.3 cm.

Question 9.
_____ is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.
Answer:
Power of accommodation.

Question 10.
_____ is the coloured part of an eye.
Answer:
Iris.

Question 11.
______ is used to observe parts of flower, insects and fingerprints in the field of forensic science.
Answer:
Simple microscope.

Question 12.
A _____ works based on the principle of the vernier.
Answer:
travelling microscope.

Question 13.
A _____ telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets galaxies and satellites.
Answer:
astronomical.

Question 14.
_______ is an optical instrument used to see distant objects clearly.
Answer:
Telescope.

Question 15.
_______ is the most sensitive part of the human eye.
Answer:
Retina.

Question 16.
A convex lens is ______ in the middle than at edges.
Answer:
Thicker.

Question 17.
_____ lens produces mostly real images.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 18.
The SI unit of power of a lens is _____.
Answer:
dioptre.

Question 19.
The amount of scattering of light is _____ proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength.
Answer:
inversely.

Question 20.
Refractive index of the medium is dependent on the ______ of the light.
Answer:
wavelength.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
Light always travels along a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the different plane.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Question 3.
The angle of refraction is the same for different colours.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The angle of refraction is different for different colours.

Question 4.
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called the Tyndall effect.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Concave lens is also called the diverging lens.

Question 6.
Convex lenses are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Converging lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Diverging lenses or concave lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.

Question 9.
If the magnification is less than 1, then we get a diminished image.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Snell’s law	(a) 25 cm
2. Rayleigh scattering	(b) Diverging lens
3. Mie scattering	(c) converging lens
4. Bi-Convex lens	(d) Front surface of an eyeball
5. Bi-concave lens	(f) Infinity
6. Cornea	(g) The sky to appear in blue colour
7. Near point of eye	(h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
8. Far point of the eye	(i) White appearance of the clouds
9. Presbyopia	(j) Torrid lenses
10. Astigmatism	(k) Bifocal lenses

Answer:
1. (h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
2. (g) The sky to appear in blue colour
3. (i) White appearance of the clouds
4. (c) converging lens
5. (b) Diverging lens
6. (d) Front surface of an eyeball
7. (a) 25 cm
8. (f) Infinity
9. (k) Bifocal lenses
10. (j) Torrid lenses

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The refractive index of the medium is different for different coloured lights.
Reason: The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the wavelength of the light.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: A parallel beam of light passing through the concave lens, is diverged or spread out.
Reason: A convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion: Magnification power of microscopes can be decreased by increasing the focal length of the lens used.
Reason: Due to constructional limitations, the focal length of the lens cannot be decreased beyond certain unit.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Why does the cloud appear in white colour?
Answer:

• Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
• When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 2.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 3.
Differentiate stokes line and anti-stokes lines.
Answer:

1. Stokes lines: The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines.
2. Antistokes lines: The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 4.
What is meant by colloid?
Answer:
A colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material.
Example: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 5.
What are the applications of the convex lens?
Answer:

1. Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
2. They are used as magnifying lenses.
3. They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
4. They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 6.
Give the lens formula.
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), the distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
It is applicable to both convex and concave lenses.

Question 7.
What are the applications of a concave lens?
Answer:

1. Concave lenses are used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
2. They are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
3. They are being used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’

Question 8.
What are the uses of a simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

1. By watch repairers and jewellers.
2. To read small letters clearly.
3. To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
4. To observe Anger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 9.
Define power of a lens.
Answer:

1. The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) is called its power.
2. The power of a lens can be defined as the deep of convergence or divergence of light rays.
3. Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
   \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{1}{f}\)
   The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 10.
Define magnification of a lens.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’.If the height of the object is ‘h’ and the height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by a lens is,
\(m=\frac{\text { height of the image }}{\text { height of the object }}=\frac{h^{\prime}}{h}\)
Also, it is related to the distance of the object (w) and the distance of the image (v) as follows:
\(m=\frac{\text { distance of the image }}{\text { distance of the object }}=\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 11.
Give the lens maker’s formula.
Answer:
The lens maker’s formula is one such equation. It is given as
\(\frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)
where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 12.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, classify the scattering.
Answer:
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

• Elastic scattering
• Inelastic scattering

Question 13.
Based on the nature and size of the scatter. Classify the scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 14.
Why does the sky appear in red colour at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:

1. At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon.
2. Most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 15.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the telescope.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
• The camera can be attached for taking photographs for the celestial objects.
• The telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Disadvantages:

• Frequent maintenances needed.
• It is not easily portable one.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What is scattering? Explain two types of scattering.
Answer:
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering. Based on initial and final energy of the light beam,scattering can be classified as,
(i) Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
(ii) Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

1. Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
2. Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

The nature and size of the Scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 3.
Explain the Cartesian sign convention.
Answer:
According to Cartesian sign convention,

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.