Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Ex 6.2

Question 1.
Find the equation of the lines passing through the point (1, 1)
(i) With y-intercept (- 4)
(ii) With slope 3
(iii) And (-2, 3)
(iv) And the perpendicular from the origin makes an angle 60° with x-axis.
Solution:
(i) Given y intercept = – 4,
Let x intercept be a

(ii) with slope 3
The equation the line passing through the point (x₁, y₁) and having slope m is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
Given (x₁, y₁) = (1, 1), m = 3
∴ The required equation of the line is
y – 1 = 3(x – 1)
y – 1 = 3x – 3
3x – y – 3 + 1 = 0
3x – y – 2 = 0

(iii) Passing through (1, 1) and (-2, 3)

Question 2.
If P (r, c) is mid point of a line segment between the axes, then show that \(\frac{x}{r}+\frac{y}{c}=\) 2.
Solution:
P (r, c) is the midpoint of AB.
⇒ A = (2r, 0) and B = (0, 2c)
(i.e) x intercept = 2r and
y intercept = 2c .

Question 3.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (1, 5) and also divides the co-ordinate axes in the ratio 3 : 10.
Solution:
Let x-intercept be 3a and y-intercept be 10a

Question 4.
If p is length of perpendicular from origin to the line whose intercepts on the axes are a and b, then show that \(\frac{1}{p^{2}}=\frac{1}{a^{2}}+\frac{1}{b^{2}}\)
Solution:

Question 5.
The normal boiling point of water is 100°C or 212°F and the freezing point of water is 0°C or 32°F.
(i) Find the linear relationship between C and F
(ii) Find the value of C for 98.6° F and
(iii) The value of F for 38°C.
Solution:
Given when C = 100, F = 212 and when C = 0, F = 32

Question 6.
An object was launched from a place P in constant speed to hit a target. At the 15th second, it was 1400m away from the target and at the 18th second 800m away. Find
(i) The distance between the place and the target
(ii) The distance covered by it in 15 seconds,
(iii) Time is taken to hit the target.
Solution:
Taking time = x and distance = y
We are given at x = 15, y = 1400 and at x = 18, y = 800

Question 7.
The population of a city in the years 2005 and 2010 are 1,35,000 and 1,45,000 respectively. Find the approximate population in the year 2015. (assuming that the growth of population is constant).
Solution:
Taking the year as x and population as y
We are given when x = 2005,
y = 1,35,000 and
when x = 2010,
y = 1,45,000

y – 135000 = 2000 (x – 2005)
y = 2000(x – 2005) + 135000
At x = 2015, y = 2000 (2015 – 2005) + 135000
(i.e) y = 2000 (10) + 135000 = 20000 + 135000 = 1,55,000
The approximate population in the year 2015 is 1,55,000

Question 8.
Find the equation of the line, if the perpendicular drawn from the origin makes an angle 30° with x – axis and its length is 12.
Solution:
The equation of the line is x cos α + y sin α = p

Question 9.
Find the equation of the straight lines passing through (8, 3) and having intercepts whose sum is 1.
Solution:
Given sum of the intercepts = 1 ⇒ when x-intercept = a then y-intercept = 1 – a

8 (1 – a) + 3a = a (1 – a)
8 – 8a + 3a = a – a²

Question 10.

Solution:

⇒ The points A, B, C lie on a line
⇒ The points A, B, C are collinear

Question 11.
A straight line is passing through the point A (1, 2) with slope \(\frac{5}{12}\). Find points on the line which are 13 units away from A.
Solution:

Question 12.
A 150m long train is moving with a constant velocity of 12.5 m/s. Find
(i) The equation of the motion of the train,
(ii) Time taken to cross a pole,
(iii) The time taken to cross the bridge of length 850 m is?
Solution:
(i) Now m = \(\frac{y}{x}\) = 12.5m / second,
The equation of the line is y = mx + c ….(1)
Put c = -150, m = 12.5 m,
The equation of motion of the train is y = 12.5x – 150

(ii) To find the time taken to cross a pole we take y = 0 in (1)
⇒ 0 = 12.5x – 150 ⇒ 12.5x = 150

(iii) When y = 850 in (1)
850 = 12.5 x – 150 ⇒ 12.5x = 850 + 150 = 1000

Question 13.
A spring was hung from a hook in the ceiling. A number of different weights were attached to the spring to make it stretch, and the total length of the spring was measured each time shown in the following table.

(i) Draw a graph showing the results.
(ii) Find the equation relating the length of the spring to the weight on it.
(iii) What is the actual length of the spring.
(iv) If the spring has to stretch to 9 cm long, how much weight should be added?
(v) How long will the spring be when 6 kilograms of weight on it?
Solution:
Taking weight (kg) as x values and length (cm) as y values we get (x₁, y₁) = (2, 3), (x₂, y₂) = (4, 4)

The equation of the line passing through the above two points is

(iii) When x = 0, 2y = 4 ⇒ y = 2 cm

(iv) When y = 9 cm, x – 18 = – 4
x = -4 + 18 = 14 kg

(v) When x = 6 (kg), 6 – 2y = – 4, -2y = -4 – 6 = -10
⇒ 2y = 10 ⇒ y = 10/2 = 5 cm.

Question 14.
A family is using Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) of weight 14.2 kg for consumption. (Full weight 29.5 kg includes the empty cylinders tare weight of 15.3 kg.). If it is used at a constant rate then it lasts for 24 days. Then the new cylinder is replaced
(i) Find the equation relating the quantity of gas in the cylinder to the days.
(ii) Draw the graph for the first 96 days.
Solution:

Question 15.
In a shopping mall, there is a hall of cuboid shape with dimension 800 × 800 × 720 units, which needs to be added the facility of an escalator in the path as shown by the dotted line in the figure. Find
(i) The minimum total length of the escalator,
(ii) The heights at which the escalator changes its direction,
(iii) The slopes of the escalator at the turning points.

Solution:
(i) the minimum total length of the escalator.
Shape of the hall in the shopping mall is cuboid. When you open out the cuboid, the not of the cuboid will be as shown in the following diagram.

The path of the escalator is from OA to AB to BC to CD

The minimum length = 3280 units

(ii) The height at which the escalator changes its direction.

(iii) Slope of the escalator at the turning points

Since ∆OAE = ∆ABB’ = ∆BCC’ = ∆CAD
Slope at the points B, C will be \(\frac{9}{40}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Ex 6.2 Additional Questions Solved

Question 1.
Find the equation of a straight line on which length of the perpendicular from the origin is four units and the line makes an angle of 120° with the positive direction of the x-axis.
Solution:

Question 2.
Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (- 4, 3), and the portion of the line intercepted between the axes is divided internally in the ratio 5 : 3 by this point.
Solution:
Let AB be a line passing through a point (-4, 3) and meets the x-axis at A (a, 0) and the y-axis at B (0, b).

Question 3.
If the intercept of a line between the coordinate axes is divided by the point (-5, 4) in the ratio 1 : 2, then find the equation of the line.
Solution:
Let a and b be the intercepts on the given line.


Hence, the required equation is 8x – 5y + 60 = 0

Question 4.
Find the equation of the straight line which passes through the point (1, -2) and cuts off equal intercepts from axes.
Solution:
Intercept form of a straight line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1, where a and b are the intercepts on the axis

If equation (1) passes through the point (1, -2) we get

So, equation of the straight line is x v

Hence, the required equation x + y + 1 = 0

Question 5.
Find the distance of the line 4x – y = 0 from the point P(4, 1) measured along the line making an angle 135° with the positive x-axis
Solution:
The equation in distance form of the line passing through P(4, 1) and making an angle of 135° with the positive x-axis

Question 6.
The line 2x – y = 5 turns about the point on it, whose ordinate and abscissa are equal, through an angle of 45° in the anti-clockwise direction, find the equation of the line in the new position.
Solution:
If the line 2x – y = 5 makes an angle θ with the x-axis.
Then, tan θ = 2. Let P (α, α) be a point on the line 2x – y = 5.
Then, 2 α – α = 5 ⇒ α = 5

So, the coordinates of P are (5, 5). If the line 2x – y – 5 = 0 is rotated about point
P through 45° in an anti-clockwise direction, then the line in its new position makes angle θ + 45° with the x-axis.
Let m’ be the slope of the line in its new position. Then,

Thus, the line in its new pdsition passes through P (5, 5) and has slope m’ = -3
So, its equation y – 5 = m’ (x – 5) or, y – 5 = -3 (x – 5) or, 3x + y – 20 = 0

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Textual Exercise

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) Insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for …….
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see fire break out you will make a call to ……
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:

1. Local communities are expected to provide immediate disaster response.
2. On a daily basis, our police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery.

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network Indonesia has the most earthquakes. Why?
Answer:

1. The whole of Japan is in a very active seismic area, and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
2. Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but by virtue of its larger size than Japan, it has more total earthquakes.
3. It is in extremely active seismic areas along subduction zones.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
Answer:
It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:
You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:

1. A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come in and go out.
2. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or asteroids.
3. Tsunamis can travel 700-800 per hour with waves 10-30 meters high.
4. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
If indoors-

1. DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other pieces of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
2. Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table or even under a bed.
3. Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterward it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should find out if your home, school, workplace, or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
2. Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be where tsunamis pose a risk.
3. Use a Weather Radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
4. Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should know what to do in a tsunami situation.
5. Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency.
6. Review flood safety and preparedness measures with your family.

Question 4.
What should you do if you are trapped in a car during civil unrest?
Answer:
If trapped in a car;

1. Keep abreast of the current news if you are in a volatile area.
2. If you come across a demonstration, don’t become inquisitive, just leave the area and find another route to your intended destination.
3. Avoid any place where police or security forces’ action is in progress.

Question 5.
Write three sentences about what to do during a fire.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.

HOTs

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 meters of height standing near your house?
Answer:

1. Old and overgrown branches might fall and injure people.
2. They may cause damage to electricity and telephone lines, houses, cars, and other belongings.
3. Broken branches and leaves may create gutter.
4. Large root systems can cause damage to the foundation of your house.
5. Constant shade from the Sun will cause dampness on the roof.

To prevent all these problems you should trim and prune all trees and vegetation within 3 meters height standing near your house.

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is measured using a seismograph.
(a) Earthquake
(b) heat
(c) Pressure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 2.
This country is in a very active seismic area.
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 3.
…….. tops in riot in the world.
(a) India
(b) Iraq
(c) Nigeria
(d) Syria
Answer:
(d) Syria

Question 4.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 kms per hour with waves …….. metres high.
(a) 10 – 30
(b) 10 – 40
(c) 10 – 60
(d) 10 – 50
Answer:
(a) 10 – 30

Question 5.
This is not the cause for fire.
(a) Lightning strikes
(b) Sparks during arid conditions
(c) The eruptions of volcanoes
(d) Ocean waves
Answer:
(d) Ocean waves

II. Very short answers:

Question 1.
What does Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 2.
What does Modern Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Earth Quake”.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements. It occurs along the plate boundaries. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is focus. The point on the earth’s surface above the called a focus is called an epicentre. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicentre.

Question 4.
If you are in a vehicle, what will you do during an earthquake? If in a moving vehicle
Answer:

1. Stop as quickly as safety permits. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses and utility wires.
2. Proceed cautiously once the earthquake has stopped. Avoid roads, bridges or ramps that might have been damaged by the earthquake.

Question 5.
Give an account of Tsunami?
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700 – 800 km per hour, with waves 10 – 30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

III. Short Answers:

Question 1.
What is meant by Disaster Response?
Answer:

1. Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected populations, restoration of lost livelihoods, and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged.
2. The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by the disaster (food, water, and shelter), and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
What to do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 3.
What to do if you are caught in a riot?
Answer:

1. If you find yourself caught up in a demonstration, keep to the edge of the crowd where it is safer. At the first opportunity, break away and seek refuge in a nearby building or find a suitable doorway or alley and stay there until the crowd passes.
2. When leaving the fringe of the demonstration, just walk away – don’t run as this will draw attention to you.
3. In the event that you are arrested by the police/military, do not resist. Go along peacefully and contact your law advisor to help you resolve your predicament.
4. If you are caught up in the crowd, stay clear of glass shop fronts, moreover, move with the flow.
5. If shooting breaks out, drop to the ground and cover your head and neck, and lie as flat as you can.

Question 4.
Mention the causes for lire? What are the problems caused by fire?
Answer:

1. Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods.
2. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush, and deserts, and with sufficient wind can rapidly spread.
3. Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges, and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products, and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.
4. The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, the eruption of volcanoes, and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.
5. A side-effect of wildfires that also threatens inhabited areas is smoke.
6. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

IV. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Disaster Management cycle with Diagram.
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery. Disaster management involves all levels of government. Non-governmental and community based organizations play a vital role in the process.

Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields. Crisis management is important, but is only a part of the responsibility of a disaster manager.

The traditional approach to disaster management has a number of phased sequences of action or a continuum. These can be represented as a disaster management cycle. We mainly focus on the way how the community should respond to disasters.

Question 2.
Explain “Fire”.
Answer:
Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with blowing wind, can spread rapidly.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.

The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, eruption of volcanoes and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.

A side-effect of wildfires which also threatens inhabited areas is smoke. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

On average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

Hydrosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Sunda Trench lies in the ……………… ocean.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Pacific
(c) Indian
(d) Antarctic
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 2.
The temperature of the ocean waters generally ……………. at greater depth.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 3.
Ocean currents are produced due to ………………….
(a) due to rotation of earth
(b) due to variation in temperature
(c) due to earth’s movement
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Question 5.
The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to ……………….
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
(b) divergence of tectonic plates
(c) lateral movements of plates
(d) stearing of plates
Answer:
(b) divergence of tectonic plates

Question 6.
Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface of the sea?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
Answer:
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador current—North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea
(d) Mozambique current—Indian Ocehn.
Answer:
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean; (c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea

Question 8.
The amount of planktons to be found in the ocean is determined by
1. Depth of the water
2. Ocean currents
3. Temperature and Salinity
4. Length of day and night
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Questions 9 to 12 are of Assertion (A), Reason (R) type.
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason (R): It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyots.
Reason (R): All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason (R): They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise
Answer:
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Atolls are more common in the Atlantic ocean.
Reason (R): The marine population at the depth is less.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (e)

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term Hydrosphere?
Answer:

1. Hydrosphere consists of water in various forms found on the earth.
2. Over 97% of the water on the Earth’s surface is confined to oceans.
3. Less than 3% of water is held on land as glaciers, ice caps, groundwater, rivers, lakes, and also as the water vapour in the air.

Question 2.
What is the hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The continuous movement of water on, above, and below the earth’s surface is called the Hydrological cycle.

Question 3.
Mention the various relief features of ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean basins are characterised by the following major relief features:

1. Continental shelf
2. Continental slope
3. Continental rise
4. Deep-sea plain or Abyssal plain
5. Oceanic deep
6. Oceanic ridge

Question 4.
What are the factors that generate the ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

• Earth’s rotation
• Prevailing winds and
• Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on sea waves.
Answer:

1. Of all the movements of the oceans, sea waves are considered to be the strongest.
2. Sea waves are ripples on water caused when winds blow over the sea.
3. The height of these waves depends on the speed of the wind, its duration, and the direction from which they blow.
4. Sometimes waves are also caused by tremors felt on the ocean floor.
5. Such waves are quite destructive and called Tsunami.

IV. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Springtide and Neap tide.
Answer:

S.No.	Springtide	Neap tide
(i)	When the Sun, Moon and Earth aligned in the same line, the collective gravitation pull of the Sun and Moon on earth’s water strengthens to form a high tide known as spring tide.	When the Sun and Moon are at right angles their gravitational forces work against each other causing a low tide called Neap tide.
(ii)	These tides always occur on Full moon and New moon days.	A Neap tide occurs between two spring tides, i.e., twice a month when the first and last quarter moon appears.

Question 2.
Abyssal plains and Ocean deeps.
Answer:

S. No.	Abyssal plain	Ocean deeps
(i)	Abyssal plains are underwater plains found on the deep ocean floor.	These are the deepest part of the oceans.
(ii)	These plains extend from continental rise to the mid-oceanic ridges.	Trenches are the deepest part of the oceans. They occupy about 7% of the total relief of the ocean flour.
(iii)	Abyssal plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments composed of clay, silt and sand.	These are sediment free. So most trenches are V-shaped with steep sides.
(iv)	Abyssal hills, sea mounts, guyots, coral atoll, etc., are the characteristic features.	Epicentre of the great earthquakes is all found in the trenches.

Question 3.
Tidal power and Hydel power.
Answer:

S.No.	Tidal power	Hydel power
(i)	Tidal power (or) tidal energy is a form of Hydropower that converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power mainly electricity.	Hydel power (or) water power is derived from the energy of falling water (or) fast running water which may be harnessed for useful purposes.
(ii)	Tidal energy has potential for future electricity generation. Tides are more predictable than the wind and the sun.	This is a renewable energy source because the water cycle is constantly renewed by the sun. Hydropower was used for mechanical milling such as grinding grains.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are called land and water hemispheres respectively.
Answer:
The continents and oceans are, however, not evenly distributed in the northern and the southern hemispheres. The northern hemisphere holds 61% of land whereas the southern hemisphere holds 81% of water. It is because of this pattern of land and water distribution, the northern hemisphere is called as the land hemisphere and the southern hemisphere is called the water . hemisphere.

Question 2.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the origin of oceans.
Answer:

1. The ocean is a continuous body of saltwater that forms the major part of the hydrosphere.
2. Geoscientists believe that the oceans were formed on Earth nearly three billion years ago.
3. It is difficult to believe that in the beginning there was no water on our planet.
4. In due course of time, when the Earth started cooling, steam escaped from the interior and entered the atmosphere to form clouds.
5. At first, the clouds brought incessant rains.
6. The rainwater filled the depressions for tens of thousands of years and eventually a superocean was formed.

Question 2.
Write a note on continental shelf and continental slope.
Answer:
Continental Shelf:

1. A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental landmass into the sea is called Continental Shelf.
2. It is almost a uniform zone of the sea bed with a gentle gradient.
3. They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, seaweeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.
4. The continental shelves have extensive deposits of minerals and mineral fuels. Hence, this zone becomes accessible for oil drilling and mining activities: e.g. Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea.

Continental Slope:

1. A steep slope which descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep ocean- the bed is called a continental slope.
2. It forms a boundary between the Continental Crust and the oceanic crust.
3. This zone is free from deposits as they are steep. The most important characteristic of the continental slope is the presence of deep canyons and trenches.
4. Due to the low penetration of sunlight, the slope has nearly freezing temperatures.
   Hence aquatic life has a very slow rate of metabolism.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ocean currents? Explain its types.
Answer:

1. The movement of oceanic water on the surface and at the depths in a definite direction is called ocean current.
2. Ocean currents are in a clockwise motion in the northern hemisphere and in anti-clockwise motion in the southern hemisphere.
3. The factors that generate ocean currents are:
   Earth’s rotation, Prevailing winds, and Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.
4. On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents.
5. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current. Example Gulf Stream in the Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in the Pacific Ocean.

On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in the Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in the Pacific Ocean.

The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Explain the influences of the marine resources on mankind.
Answer:
The biotic and abiotic resources found in the oceanic water and at the bottoms are called marine resources. The ocean’s resources play a vital role in sustaining the needs of society.
A diverse array of marine organisms is used for food, medicine, cosmetics, and a wealth of • industrial applications. The world’s demand for energy,
minerals and water have become increasingly dependent on non-living marine resources.

Hydrosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. is called the Blue Planet.
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(a) Earth

Question 2.
The …………… is the watery part of the earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(c) Hydrosphere

Question 3.
The land of thousand lakes is ……………
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Britain
(d) Swedwen
Answer:
(b) Finland

Question 4.
The purest form of water is …………….
(a) rainwater
(b) well water
(c) river water
(d) seawater
Answer:
(a) rainwater

Question 5.
Extensive deposits of Minerals and Mineral fuels are found in ……………
(a) Continental slope
(b) Continental shelf
(c) Continental rise
(d) Deep Sea Plains
Answer:
(b) Continental shelf

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Submarine Fans which are similar to the alluvial fans found in water.
(ii) Aquatic life has a very slow rate of metabolism.
(iii) Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world.
(iv) Abyssal plains are usually covered by a thick layer of sediments. ,
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 7.
The humankind depends on the Marine resources for its …………….
(a) Agricultural purposes
(b) Survival
(c) Industrial purposes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Survival

Question 8.
Which of the following correctly matched?
(a) Pacific ocean and Green land
(b) Atlantic ocean and Mariana Trench
(c) Arctic ocean and Trinity Islands
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands
Answer:
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands

Questions 9 to 12 are Assertion (A) Reason (R) type.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Continental slope is free from deposits as they are steep.
Reason (R): Abyssal plains appear as a uniform flat and featureless plain.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Continental shelf is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with gentle gradient.
Reason (R): This enables sunlight to penetrate through the water.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the Northern Hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the Southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes to low latitudes is called warm currents.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): The ocean/seawater does not contains calcium in great quantities.
Reason (R): Many of the aquatic animals with shells use the dissolved calcium in the seawater to build their protective shells.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (f)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (d)

III. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the three major processes involved in the Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three major processes involved in the water cycle are evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 2.
Why do we consider the oceans and seas as resource bowl of the earth?
Answer:
Oceans and seas are considered as resource bowl of the earth because of the immense availability of food, minerals, etc.

Question 3.
What Is Hypsometric curve?
Answer:
A Hypsometric Curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place found on land and the height of ocean features at sea. ‘Hypso’ means height in Greek.

Question 4.
What do you know about Water Table?
Answer:
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface,

Question 5.
What is Dragon Hole?
Answer:
Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world. The local fishermen call it the‘eye’of the South China Sea.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the movement of the ocean water.
Answer:
The ocean water is dynamic. Temperature, salinity, density, external forces of the sun, moon and the winds keep the ocean waters in movement, both horizontally and vertically. . Waves and currents are in horizontal motion while tides have vertical motion.

Question 7.
What is called continental rise?
Answer:
At the base of the continental slope is a gently sloping layer of sediments that merge into the deep-sea floor. This underwater feature found between the continental slope and abyssal plains is called the continental rise.

Question 8.
How is the energy of the falling wave water used?
Answer:
The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power. Wave energy power plants have been installed at Vizhinjam in Kerala coast and Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.

Question 9.
When was the National Institute oceanography established? What do they do?
Answer:
NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) was established in 1st January 1966. The headquarters of NIO is located at Dona Paula, Goa. It Conducts research and observations to understand oceanic features, Ocean engineering, marine Archaeology etc.

Question 10.
What is Sea Mount?
Answer:
Sea mount is an underwater mountain that rise from the sea floor due to undersea volcanic

IV. Distinguish the following.

Question 1.
Warm current and Cold current.
Answer:

Warm current	Cold current
The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.	The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Water table and Aquifers.
Answer:

Water table	Aquifers
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface.	Aquifers are porous rock strata filled with water, found below the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
Isobath and Isohaline.
Answer:

Isobath	Isohaline
An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal depths.	An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal salinity in oceans.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The earth is called the Blue Planet.
Answer:
The Earth is also called the Blue planet, as it holds water in abundance and thus stands unique among all other planets.

Question 2.
Oceans are the lifelines of Earth and Mankind.
Answer:
Oceans are the lifeblood of planet earth and mankind. The humankind depends on the marine resources’ for its survival. They are also essential for the economic prosperity, social wellbeing and quality of life.

Question 3.
Most of the Creek area get submerged.
Answer:
Most of the Creek area gets submerged due to high tide and at times of low tide, the creek emerges out along with poisonous creatures like snakes, scorpions.

Question 4.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, seaweeds, and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
The Great Barrier Reef. Explain.
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef: The Great Barrier reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres. It covers an area of about 3,50,000 km. The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia. The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from the outer space. This sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet. Coral reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as Coral polyps.CNN labelled it as one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
“71% of the earth is covered by water but very little can be used by humans. Why?
Answer:
“A little amount of freshwater which is suitable for human consumption is present on the earth. Rest of the water we find in oceans. Seawater is saline and not suitable for consumption.

Question 2.
The oceans are salty. Why?
Answer:

1. As the rain erodes the rock acids in the rainwater break down the rock.
2. Ions (or) electrically charged atomic particles are created.
3. These ions are carried away in a runoff to streams and rivers and ultimately to the ocean.
4. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean are removed from the water.
5. Others are left for long periods time where their concentrations increased over time.
6. Sodium and chloride are the most prevalent ions in Seawater, (about 90%) making sea water salty as it is salty.

Question 3.
Why is the salinity at the equator less even though it experiences high temperature.
Answer:
The salinity at the equator is less even though it experiences high temperature, because of heavy rainfall and high relative humidity as precipitation adds good amount of freshwater to ocean water.

Question 4.
“Though Caspian Sea is enclosed its salinity is just 14 to 17 parts per thousand. Why is it so?
Answer:

1. The Caspian Sea is a fresh water lake in its northern portions due to the current inflow of freshwater and is most saline on the Iranian shore where the catchment basin centributes little flow.
2. Currently the mean salinity of the Caspian sea is one third that of Earth’s oceans.

Question 5.
What will happen if the seas and oceans contain only freshwater?
Answer:

1. Marine organisms would die as they are capable of surviving only in seawater (saltwater).
2. Coral formation could not take place as they are made up of calcareous minerals.
3. Salt is quite important in daily usage.
4. We would have to rely on artificial production without natural salt, which would incur a lot of monetary and infrastructural expenses.
5. Saltwater can hold heat better.
6. Sealife is adapted to salt water.
7. Ocean currents would be completely disrupted.

VIII. Enrichment Activity.

Question 1.
A) Study the map of ocean currents and then complete the table given below:

Major Ocean currents
Oceans	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Pacific Ocean	Kurashio Current (Warm) Oyashio/Kurile Current (Cold) Alaska Current (Warm) California Current (Cold)	Peruvian/Humboldt Current (Cold)
Atlantic Ocean	Canaries (Cold) Gulf Stream (Warm) North Atlantic Drift (Warm) Labrador (Cold)	Benguela (Cold)
Indian Ocean	North East Monsoon Current (Warm) South West Monsoon Current (Warm)	West Australian Current (Cold)

B) Map Work:
Mark the cold currents in blue and the warm currents in red in a World outline map.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. was brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
Answer:
(c) Penang island

Question 2.
In 1896 ………….. states were formed into the Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 3.
…………… was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French Control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
Answer:
(d) Cochin-China

Question 4.
The Discovery of gold in the ………….. led to a large number of British miners settled in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
Answer:
(a) Transvaal

Question 5.
…………… became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 6.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………………
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey
(c) Tonking
(d) Transvaal
Answer:
(a) Adowa

Question 7.
Indentured labour system was a form of …………….
(a) contract labour system
(b) slavery
(c) debt bondage
(d) serfdom
Answer:
(c) debt bondage

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European Powers.
2. Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………….. in 1896.
3. The settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is ……………
4. ………….. was the author of a book called “Notebook from Prison”.
5. ………… were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.

Answers:

1. Berlin Colonial
2. Adowa
3. The Permanent Settlement
4. Antonio Gramsci
5. Nattukottai Chettiyars

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of the Sahara was unknown to the world.
(ii) The coastal states of the Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
(iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
(iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odhisha.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
(ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
(iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
(iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of influence.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (i) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): (A) In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez-Faire in the trade of food- grains.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading

Question 1.
Colonialism in India
(i) When did the East India Company acquire the Diwani Right?
Answer:
The Company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.

(ii) When were the Gurkhas conquered by the British?
Answer:
The British conquered the Gurkhas in 1816.

(iii) When was slavery abolished in British India?
Answer:
Slavery was abolished in India in 1843.

(iv) When did Burma become a part of the Madras Presidency?
Answer:
There was British rule in Burma from 1824 to 1948.

Question 2.
South Africa
(i) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
Answer:
The British possessed Natal, Cape Colony of South Africa.

(ii) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
Answer:
The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State.

(iii) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape colony?
Answer:
Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony..

(iv) How long did Boer Wars last?
Answer:
Boer War lasted for three years from 1899 to 1902.

VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Distinguish between Colonialism and Imperialism.
Answer:

Colonialism	Imperialism
Colonialism is a process of domination, involving the subjugation of one people by another.	Imperialism, on the other hand, draws attention to the way one country exercises power over another, whether through settlement, sovereignty, or indirect mechanisms of control.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Zulu tribe.
Answer:

1. The Zulu tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, represented by renowned warriors like Shaka Zulu.
2. He played a prominent role in building the largest Zulu nation is south-eastern Africa.
3. British troops invaded Zulu territory and divided it into thirteen chiefdoms.
4. The Zulus never regained their independence and had to fight against deeply entrenched racism in South Africa for about a century.

Question 3.
State the three phases in the colonialisation of the Indian economy.
Answer:
The process of the colonialisation of India can be divided into three phases:

• Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism
• Phase II Industrial Capitalism
• Phase III Financial Capitalism

Question 4.
Colonel Pennycuiek.
Answer:

1. Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council.
2. He wanted to irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.
3. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, he sold his family property and completed the project in 1895.
4. Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

Question 5.
Explain Home Charges.
Answer:
The East India Company remitted to England what was called Home Charges – the dividends on East India’s stock, interest on the debt, savings from salaries and the pensions of officers and establishments and buildings in the India Office, London, transporting cost of British troops to and from India.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the economic impact of British Rule in India.
Answer:
There are three phases under the colonisation of the Indian Economy.
a. Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism

1. Before it gained dominion in India, the East India Company carried on a very profitable business selling Indian – made cotton textiles and silks and printed cloth.
2. It was during this period that the textile lobby in Lancashire and Birmingham succeeded in making the Parliament enact a law prohibiting the import of Indian textiles.
3. Those who were found in possession of or dealing in Indian cotton goods were fined 200 pounds.
4. The company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.
5. East India Company crushed every industry which came in conflict with British industry. The shipbuilding industry collapsed the manufacture of paper and glass dwindled.
6. India which had become the ‘Lancashire of the Eastern World’ began to lose its Position.

b. Phase II Industrial Capitalism

1. By the beginning of the nineteenth century, the Company had emerged as a territorial power.
2. During this period India was converted into a market for British textiles and a great source of raw materials.
3. Home charges were special types of contribution which were used by the British government for meeting various types of expenses for maintenance of the colony.
4. These consist of payments of pensions and salaries of British people staying in India and industries earned on the external debt of India.
5. Surphases from the trade were used for making these payments.

c. Phase III Financial Capitalism

1. The company government decided to make a massive investment in railroads, the postal system, irrigation, modem banking, and education with its surplus capital.
2. All these investments were made for the benefit of the British. The railways helped to move British troops quickly across the country as well as enabled the conquest of the Indian market to the maximum extent.
3. The Company, supported by the English Parliament, encouraged British investment in railways with a guaranteed annual interest of 5 percent.
4. Mining companies were given nominal fees and low royalties.
5. Land for the cultivation of coffee, tea, pepper, and rubber was given at a throwaway price.
6. Removing slavery in 1843, introduced indentured labour.

Question 2.
Explain the process of colonisation in Africa.
Answer:
Until the last quarter of the nineteenth century, Africa south of the Sahara (Sub- Saharan Africa) was almost unknown to the outside world. The interior of Africa was unexplored. After 1875, European penetration and colonisation began on a large scale. The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European powers. European colonisation of Africa was thus accomplished smoothly, without any outbreak of war amongst major European powers. The invasion, occupation, colonisation, and annexation of African territories by European powers between 1881 and 1914, the era of Imperialism, is called the Scramble for Africa or the Partition of Africa.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare an album with pictures and images of famines that affected different parts of India during the British colonial rule.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using the internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Attempt an account of the cultural relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Answer:

1. Southeast Asia was under Indian influence starting around 200 BC.
2. Kingdoms on the southeast coast of the Indian subcontinent had established trade, cultural and political relations with southeast Asian Kingdoms in Burma, Thailand, Indonesia, Malay Peninsula Cambodia, and Vietnam.
3. Southern Indian traders, adventures, teachers, and priests continued to be the dominating influence in Southeast Asia until about 1500 C E.
4. The Government of India’s Act East Policy aims at improving economic and political relations with the Southeast Asian region.
5. India has been able to make inroads in trade and investments with members of the ASEAN by signing a Free Trade Agreement in 2009.
6. In Cambodia, Thailand, and Indonesia or Burma today many symbolic remnants of India’s influence are clearly visible in their art, culture, and civilization.
7. The eleven countries of ASEAN are Myanmar, Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, Indonesia, Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos, Brunei, the Philippines, and recently added Timor hosted.
8. Temples of Angkor wat, Pagn and Prambanan bear evidence of the deep penesation of Indian art and architectural forms in their famous Southeast Asian movements.
9. Folklore singers and aristes played a very important role in popularising and modifying Indian library work in Southeast Asia.
10. Similarly, sculptors and artists copied and combined original Indian profits with local artistic motifs to arrive at something distinctively Southeast Asian.
11. The influence of India can also be felt in the food and flavours of Southeast Asia.

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the merits and demerits of the British rule in India.
Answer:
a. Merits

1. In the cause of humanity – abolition of suti and female infanticide.
2. Removal of things Pindaris and other such pests of the Indian Society.
3. In the cause of civilisation educate to both male and female, leading gradually to the distinction of superstition.
4. Politically peace and order established. Freedom of speech and liberty of the press was enjoyed.
5. Improvement of government in the native states. Security of life and property.
6. Materially Development of a’ few valuable products such as indigo, tea, coffee, silk, etc., Increase of exports, Telegraphs.

b. Demerits

1. Repeated breach of pledges to give the natives a fair and reasonable share in the higher administration of their own country.
2. Natives of India were not treated as British subjects.
3. The British disregarded the feelings and views of the natives.
4. All attention was engrossed in devising new modes of taxation without any adequate effort to increase the means of the people to pay.

c. Sentance

1. To sump up the whole, the British rule has been morally a great blessing, politically peace and order on one hand, blunders on the other, materially impoverishment.
2. Social reforms, Education Reforms, Employment schemes, Irrigation schemes, Infrastructure development, monuments, legal tenders, heritage site all these gifts from the British Raj.
3. Divide and rule policy, loss of lives, exploitation of resources implement of Tax structure all them affected the Indian society.

Question 2.
Explore the impact of colonialism in British Burma.
Answer:
British rule in Burma, also known as British Burma lasted from 1824 to 1948 from the Anglo Burmese wars through the creation of Burma as the province of British India to the establishment of an independently administered colony and finally independence.

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term colony comes from the ………….. word colonus, meaning farmer.
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 2.
Rudyard Kipling was a _________
(a) Ruler
(b) Colonist
(c) Writer
(d) Soldier
Answer:
(c) writer

Question 3.
The Portuguese conquered the great international emporium of …………. for the king of Portugal.
(a) Dutch East Indies
(b) French Indo-China
(c) Malacca
(d) Philippines
Answer:
(c) Malacca

Question 4.
The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in …………….
(a) 1941
(b) 1641
(c) 1741
(d) 1841
Answer:
(b) 1641

Question 5.
Albuquerque belonged to _________
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Italy
(d) England
Answer:
(b) Portugal

Question 6.
The …………… had occupied Java and Sumatra (Indonesia) as early as 1640.
(a) The Dutch
(b) The English
(c) The French
(d) The Spanish
Answer:
(a) The Dutch

Question 7.
During World War II …………….. fell to the Japanese.
(a) Malaya
(b) Thailand
(c) Burma
(d) the Philippines
Answer:
(c) Burma

Question 8.
Burma was well known for its _________
(a) Teak and Rice
(b) Silk and Muslin
(c) Gold and Silver
(d) Chemicals
Answer:
(a) Teak and Rice

Question 9.
This country in Africa managed to evade European Colonialism ……………
(a) Nigeria
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Uganda
(d) Kenya.
Answer:
(b) Ethiopia

Question 10.
The Mullai Periyar Dam Construction was completed in 1895 by an army Engineer and civil servant …………..
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Arthur Cotton
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Governor-General Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The term “South East Asia” has only been used since the …………
2. By 1826 …………… and had been linked with Penang to form the Strait Settlements.
3. ………….. was the capital of Indo-China under the French Government.
4. Spain ruled the Philippines for over ……………. years.
5. Most Indonesians were ………….. and …………… and worked in plantations.
6. In 1890 ………… the Prime Minister of Cape Colony encouraged British expansion to the North of the Transvaal.
7. The ………….. tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, in South-eastern Africa.
8. ……………. was used for slave trading posts on the coast.
9. Ethiopia, with its traditional polity, was ruled by the ……………..
10. The Portuguese Sailor …………… arrived in Calicut in 1498.

Answers:

1. Second World War
2. Singapore, Malacca
3. Hanoi
4. 300
5. Fishermen, Peasants
6. Cecil Rhodes
7. Zulu
8. Nigeria
9. Emperor Menelik
10. Vasco da Gama

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) When European traders crossed the Indian Ocean at the close of the 15th century, they came for the spices of south-east Asia.
(ii) Penang Island had been brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(iii) The Dutch were interested in politics but focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.
(iv) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 200 years.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The interior of Africa was unexplored.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold coast became a British colony in 1854.
(iii) Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world.
(iv) The British encouraged irrigation in the first half of the nineteenth century.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in 1641.
Reason (R): After establishing a base at Batavia in 1619, they interfered in succession disputes among the neighbouring Sultans.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Money lending had been practised since time immemorial. Earlier the lenders lent at their own risk.
Reason (R): But the British enacted a law allowing them to attach land or property in default of repayment.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Colonialism in Indonesia
(a) Who had occupied Java and Sumatra?
Answer:
The Dutch had occupied Java and Sumatra.

(b) Were the Dutch interested in politics?
Answer:
No, they weren’t interested in politics.

(c) What was the focus of the Dutch on Indonesia?
Answer:
They focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.

(d) How did they improve Indonesia from the beginning of the 19th century?
Answer:
They adopted measures for the social and economic advancement of the people.

Question 2.
Indentured Labour
(a) What was the Indentured labour system?
Answer:
It was a form of debt bondage, a penal contract system.

(b) How many Indians were transported under this system?
Answer:
3.5 million Indians were transported to various British colonies to provide labour for the plantations.

(c) In which year was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1843.

(d) What was its result?
Answer:
It resulted in the development of a large Indian diaspora, which spread from the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, as well as contributing to the growth of the Indo-Caribbean and Indo-African population.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did Europe justify their colonisation?
Answer:
In world history, no continent possessed so many colonies and justified their access to the world by means of a civilising mission as did modem Europe. Practically the whole non- Westem world was under one European power or the other for about four centuries until decolonisation happened after World War II.

Question 2.
Comment on Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier.
Answer:
Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier who conquered Goa and Malacca, and his successors’ were interested in the spice trade. Towards this end, they built a chain of fortified trading stations linked by naval power. Initially, they did not interfere with the native rulers.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Malay Settlements”.
Answer:
Between 1874 and 1895 there was a civil war between the remaining five Malay States. The British intervened and signed an agreement with each of the sultans. British Residents were appointed to the courts of sultans, who had to act in accordance with the advice given by the Residents. In 1896 four of the states were formed into the Federated Malay States. In 1900 there were the Straits Settlements, the four Federated Malay States, and Johore. The population was about a million, of whom, half were Malay and the remainder were Chinese. Most of the merchants, planters, and workers in the ports and big plantations were Chinese. Economically Malaya was prosperous.

Question 4.
Give a short account of Burma.
Answer:
The British conquered Burma after fighting three wars. Burma remained part of India from 1886 to 1937. Burma was administered by a Lieutenant Governor with the assistance of a nominated Legislative Council. Burma teak was shipped overseas. In addition, Burma with its rich soil became a big exporter of rice and most of south India was dependent on Burmese rice. During World War II when Burma fell to the Japanese, south India experienced acute scarcity of rice leading to a famine.

Question 5.
Who ruled the Phillippines?
Answer:
Spain ruled the Philippines for over 300 years, imposing its language, culture, and religion. Consequently, the population became predominantly Roman Catholic. Nationalism developed among the Filipinos during the latter part of the nineteenth century. There were two serious revolts in 1872 and 1896, which were crushed by the Spanish colonial government. In 1898, however, Spain was defeated by the United States in a war over Cuba, and as a result the Philippines became an American colony.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Congo River basin?
Answer:
The Berlin Conference of 1884 – 85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa. The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo river basin was rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.

Question 7.
How did the Europeans colonise Rhodesia?
Answer:
The British South African Company founded in 1889 conducted an expedition with 600 men- each of them was promised a 3,000-acre farm. The African king was tricked into believing that all that the Europeans wanted was gold. But they had come with a definite plan of colonising the Bechuanaland. During the next ten years, African opposition was crushed. White immigrants were provided with farmlands and railways, and a telegraph system developed. The colony came to be called Rhodesia, after Cecil Rhodes.

Question 8.
How did the British emerge as a territorial power in India?
Answer:
The British conquered all the regional powers, in particular the most potential challengers, the Mysore Sultans and the Marathas, by defeating, them in three Anglo-Mysore and three Anglo- Maratha Wars. The conquest of the Gurkhas (1816), the Sindhis (1843), and the Sikhs (1849) enabled them to emerge as a territorial power in India.

Question 9.
What does Mercantilism refer to?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a number of prevailing economic theories applied by the state in its effort to attain wealth and power. Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world. Spain’s power and wealth were found in the treasure pouring into Spain from its colonies. The more colonies a country had, the richer it would be. In sum, European countries pursued Mercantilism as a kind of national economic policy designed to maximize their trade, especially to maximize the accumulation of gold and silver.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “The Indenture system”?
Answer:
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard labour.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the British colonise South Africa? Explain the Boer War.
Answer:
In South Africa, the British possessed Natal, Cape Colony, while the Dutch (locally known as the Boers) held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State. In 1886 the discovery of gold in the Transvaal led to a large number of British miners settling in and around Johannesburg. The Boers feared and hated the miners whom they called Uitlanders (foreigners). In 1890, Cecil Rhodes, the Prime Minister of Cape Colony, encouraged British expansion to the north of the Transvaal. This worsened the relations between the Boers and the British. Denied of their political rights the British miners revolted. This led to the Boer War which lasted three years (1899-1902).

In the end, the Boer army was defeated and Pretoria was occupied. The Boers suffered greatly in the war. Their farms and crops were destroyed and Boer women and children were confined to internment camps. The shortage of food, beds, medical and sanitary facilities caused the death of 26,000 people. The British annexed the two Boer states but promised self-government in due course. Boer states were given full responsible government in 1907. After discussions over the years, the four states finally decided to form a union, and South Africa as a state was bom in 1909.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Famine in British India
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild animals, the consumption was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

(b) Famine in British India.
The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million people or nearly one- third of the population in Bengal. This is how British mle commenced in India. Similarly, the British mle ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed the lives of nearly three million. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 8 Periodic Classification of Elements

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Periodic Classification of Elements Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are ____.
(a) 6, 16
(b) 7, 17
(c) 8, 18
(d) 7, 18.
Answer:
(d) 7, 48.

Question 2.
The basis of modern periodic law is:
(a) atomic number
(b) atomic mass
(c) isotopic mass
(d) number of neutrons
Answer:
(a) atomic number

Question 3.
_____ group contains the member of the halogen family.
(a) 17th
(b) 15th
(c) 18th
(d) 16th.
Answer:
(a) 17th

Question 4.
……….is a relative periodic property.
(a) atomic radii
(b) ionic radii
(c) electron affinity
(d) electronegativity
Answer:
(d) electronegativity

Question 5.
Chemical formula of rust is ____.
(a) FeO.xH₂O
(b) FeO₄.xH₂O
(c) Fe₂O₃.xH₂O
(d) FeO.
Answer:
(c) Fe₂O₃.xH₂O

Question 6.
In the aluminothermic process the role of Al is ____.
(a) oxidizing agent
(b) reducing agent
(c) hydrogenating agent
(d) sulphurising agent.
Answer:
(b) reducing agent

Question 7.
The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called:
(a) painting
(b) thinning
(c) galvanization
(d) electroplating
Answer:
(c) galvanization

Question 8.
Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr.
Answer:
(a) He

Question 9.
Neon shows zero electron affinity due to:
(a) stable arrangement of neutrons
(b) stable configuration of electrons
(c) reduced size
(d) increased density
Answer:
(b) stable configuration of electrons

Question 10.
____ is an important metal to form an amalgam.
(a) Ag
(b) Hg
(c) Mg
(d) Al.
Answer:
(b) Hg

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is greater than 1.7, the nature of bonding is ____.
Answer:
Ionic bond.

Question 2.
____ is the longest period in the periodical table.
Answer:
Sixth period.

Question 3.
______ forms the basis of modem periodic table.
Answer:
Atomic number.

Question 4.
If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl₂ molecule is 1.98 Å, then the radius of the Cl atom is ____.
Answer:
0.99 Å.

Question 5.
Among the given species A^–, A⁺, and A, the smallest one in size is ______.
Answer:
A^+.

Question 6.
The scientist who propounded the modem periodic law is ______.
Answer:
Henry Moseley.

Question 7.
Across the period, ionic radii ______ (increases,decreases)
Answer:
Decreases.

Question 8.
_______ and ______ are called inner transition elements.
Answer:
Lanthanides and Actinides.

Question 9.
The chief ore of Aluminium is ______.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃.2H₂O).

Question 10.
The chemical name of rust is ______.
Answer:
Hydrated ferric oxide.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Galvanisation	(a) Noble gas elements
2. Calcination	(b) Coating with Zn
3. Redox reaction	(c) Silver-tin amalgam
4. Dental filling	(d) Alumino thermic process
5. Group 18 elements	(e) Heating in the absence of air

Answer:
1 – (b), 2 – (e), 3 – (d), 4 – (c), 5 – (a).

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

Question 1.
Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic mass.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic number.

Question 2.
Ionic radius increases across the period from left to right.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Ionic radius decreases across the period from left to right.

Question 3.
All ores are minerals, but all minerals cannot be called as ores.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery – white colour.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Al wires are used as electric cables due to their good conductor of electricity.

Question 5.
An alloy is a heterogeneous mixture of metals.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: An alloy is a homogenous mixture of metals.

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below.
(i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
(ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
(iii) A is wrong, R is correct.
(iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explain A.

Question 1.
Assertion: The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic
Reason: The electronegativity difference between H and F is 1.9.
Answer:
(i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.

Question 2.
Assertion: Magnesium is used to protect steel from rusting.
Reason: Magnesium is more reactive than iron.
Answer:
(i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.

Question 3.
Assertion: An uncleaned copper vessel is covered with a greenish layer.
Reason: copper is not attacked by alkali
Answer:
(iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explain A.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
A is a reddish-brown metal, which combines with O₂ at < 1370 K gives B, a black coloured compound. At a temperature > 1370 K, A gives C which is red in colour. Find A, B and C with reaction.
Answer:
(i) Reddish brown metal (A) is copper.

(ii) (A) reacts with O₂ at bleow 1370 K gives Copper (II) oxide (B), which is black in colour.
2Cu + O₂ \(\xrightarrow [ 1370k ]{ below }\) 2CuO (Copper (II) oxide) (B).

(iii) (A) reacts with O₂ at above 1370 K gives Copper (I) oxide (C), which is red in colour.

Question 2.
A is a silvery – white metal. A combines with O₂ to form B at 800°C, the alloy of A is used in making the aircraft. Find A and B.
Answer:
(i) Silver – white metal (A) is Aluminium.

(ii) (A) combines with O₂ to form aluminium oxide at 800°C.

(iii) Duralumin is the alloy of Al, which is used to make aircraft

Question 3.
What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
Answer:
Rust is hydrated ferric oxide, Fe₂O₃.xH₂O. It is formed when iron is exposed to moist air.
4 Fe + 3O₂ + xH₂O > 2Fe₂O₃.xH₂O

Question 4.
State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
Answer:
Conditions for rusting of iron:

• The presence of water and oxygen is essential for the rusting of iron.
• Impurities in the iron, the presence of water vapour, acids, salts and carbon dioxide hasten to rust.
• Pure iron does not rust in dry and CO₂ free air. It also does not rust in pure water, free from dissolved salts.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) State the reason for the addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification of bauxite.
(b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte mixture. Name the substance and give one reason for the addition.
Answer:
(a) Naturally, Bauxite is not soluble in normal solvents. Therefore the addition of caustic alkali to bauxite plays an important role while extraction of aluminium. Caustic alkali dissolves bauxite forming soluble sodium meta aluminate while impurities remain insoluble and precipitate as red mud.

(b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte mixture is Fluorspar. Adding of fluorspar lowers the fusion temperature of the electrolyte.

Question 2.
The electronic configuration of metal A is 2, 8, 18, 1. The metal A when exposed to air and moisture forms B a green layered compound. A with conc. H₂SO₄ forms C and D along with water. D is a gaseous compound. Find A, B, C and D.
Answer:
(i) The electronic configuration of metal (A) is 2, 8, 18, 1. A is copper (Z = 29)

(ii) (A) Copper exposed to air and moisture forms green layered compound (B) that is a copper carbonate.

(iii) Copper (A) reacts with conc.H₂SO₄ to give copper sulphate (C) and Sulphur dioxide (D).

Question 3.
Explain the smelting process.
Answer:
Smelting (in a Blast Furnace): The charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8 : 4 : 1 is smelted in a blast furnace by introducing it through the cup and cone arrangement at the top. There are three important regions in the furnace.

(a) The Lower Region (Combustion Zone): The temperature is at 1500°C. In this region, coke bums with oxygen to form CO₂ when the charge comes in contact with a hot blast of air.

It is an exothermic reaction since heat is liberated.

(b) The Middle Region (Fusion Zone): The temperature prevails at 1000°C. In this region, CO₂ is reduced to CO.

Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide and CO₂

These two reactions are endothermic due to absorption of heat. Calcium oxide combines with silica to form calcium silicate slag.
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

(c) The Upper Region (Reduction Zone): The temperature prevails at 400°C . In this region carbon monoxide reduces ferric oxide to form a fairly pure spongy iron.
\(\mathrm{Fe}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3}+3 \mathrm{CO} \stackrel{400^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Fe}+3 \mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
The molten iron is collected at the bottom of the furnace after removing the slag.
The iron thus formed is called pig iron. It is remelted and cast into different moulds. This iron is called cast iron.

VIII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition reacts with steam to form B. A with strong alkali forms C. Find A, B and C with reactions.
Answer:
(i) Metal (A) belongs to period 3 and group 13, is Aluminium (Al).

(ii) (A) Al in red hot condition reacts with steam to form Aluminium oxide (B).

(iii) Aluminium (A) reacts with strong alkali forms of sodium meta aluminate (C).

Question 2.
Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
Answer:
Dil. or cone. HNO₃ does not attack aluminium, but renders Al passive due to the formation of oxide film on its surface.

Question 3.
(a) Identify the bond between H and F in the HF molecule.
(b) What property forms the basis of identification?
(c) How does the property7 vary in periods and in groups?
Answer:
(a) The nature of the bond in the HF molecule is ionic.
(b) Electronegativity.
(c) Along the period, from left to right in the periodic table the electronegativity increases because of the increase in the nuclear charge which in turn attracts the electrons more strongly. On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases because of the increased number of energy levels.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Periodic Classification of Elements Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which period contains only two elements?
(a) Second
(b) First
(c) Third
(d) Fifth.
Answer:
(b) First

Question 2.
The sixth period contains inner transition elements.
(a) 18
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 3.
Lanthanides and Actinides are called as _____.
(a) Alkali metals
(b) Inner transition elements
(c) Transition elements
(d) Representative elements.
Answer:
(b) Inner transition elements

Question 4.
The number of valence electrons present in Halogens is:
(a) One
(b) Seven
(c) Zero
(d) Two
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 5.
The distance between the two hydrogen nuclei of the molecule is 0.74 Å. So its covalent radius is _____.
(a) 0.74 Å
(b) 0.99 Å
(c) 0.37 Å
(d) 7.4 Å.
Answer:
(c) 0.37 Å

Question 6.
Along the groups, atomic radius _____.
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) decreases then increase
(d) no change.
Answer:
(b) increases.

Question 7.
Which one of the following elements will have the highest electronegativity?
(a) chlorine
(b) nitrogen
(c) caesium
(d) fluorine
Answer:
(d) fluorine

Question 8.
Electron affinity is measured in _____.
(a) kJ^-1
(b) mol^-1
(c) kJ/mol
(d) kJ/mol².
Answer:
(c) kJ/mol

Question 9.
Noble gases have ______ electron affinity.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) high.
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 10.
The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is:
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Sodium
(c) Argon
(d) Fluorine
Answer:
(b) Sodium

Question 11.
The mineral from which a metal can be readily and economically extracted on a large scale is said to be a / an _____.
(a) Ore
(b) Flux
(c) Slag
(d) Gangue.
Answer:
(a) Ore

Question 12.
Flux + Gangue → _____?
(a) Mineral
(b) Matrix
(c) Slag
(d) Smog.
Answer:
(c) Slag

Question 13.
………… is used for anodizing process.
(a) Zinc
(b) iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) Tin
Answer:
(c) Aluminium

Question 14.
The ore which can be purified by gravity separation method is _____.
(a) Haematite
(b) oxide ores
(c) sulphide ores
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 15.
The calcium silicate slag is formed in ………. zone.
(a) combustion zone
(b) fusion zone
(c) reduction
(d) molten
Answer:
(b) fusion zone

Question 16.
Zinc blende is purified by _____.
(a) Hydraulic method
(b) Magnetic separation method
(c) Froth floatation method
(d) Chemical method.
Answer:
(c) Froth floatation method

Question 17.
Bauxite ore is purified by _____.
(a) Leaching process
(b) Hydraulic method
(c) Froth floatation method
(d) Magnetic separation method.
Answer:
(a) Leaching process

Question 18.
When copper reacts with dil.HNO₃ it liberates …………. gas.
(a) SO₂
(b) NO₂
(C) CO₂
(d) NO
Answer:
(d) NO

Question 19.
Which metal process low melting point?
(a) Gallium
(b) Caesium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper.
Answer:
(a) Gallium

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not an ore of aluminium?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Haematite
(c) Cryolite
(d) Corundum.
Answer:
(b) Haematite

Question 21.
……….. is stored in Kerosene.
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Sodium
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Sodium

Question 22.
Electrolytic reduction of alumina into aluminium is ______.
(a) Hall’s process
(b) Alumino thermic process
(c) Baeyer’s process
(d) Bessemerisation process.
Answer:
(a) Hall’s process

Question 23.
In Hall’s process, cathode used is ______.
(a) Iron tank
(b) Graphite
(c) Pure alumina
(d) Iron tank linked with graphite.
Answer:
(d) Iron tank linked with graphite.

Question 24.
The metal oxides are usually……….. in nature.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) amphoteric
(d) neither acidic nor basic
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 25.
A silvery-white metal is ______.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Zinc.
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Question 26.
Aluminium reacts with NaOH to give ______.
(a) Al₂O₃
(b) AlCl₃
(c) NaAlO₂
(d) Al(OH)₃
Answer:
(c) NaAlO₂

Question 27.
Atoms of the elements belonging to the same group of periodic table will have:
(a) same number of protons
(b) same number of electrons in the valence shell
(c) same number of neutrons
(d) same number of electrons
Answer:
(b) same number of electrons in the valence shell

Question 28.
Chief ore of copper is ______.
(a) CuFeS₂
(b) Cu₂O
(c) Cu₂S
(d) CuSO₄
Answer:
(a) CuFeS₂

Question 29.
Molecular formula for copper pyrites ______.
(a) Cu₂O
(b) Cu₂S
(c) CuCO₃
(d) CuFeS₂
Answer:
(d) CuFeS₂

Question 30.
The electronegativity of fluorine is:
(a) 4.0
(b) 3
(c) 2.8
(d) 2.1
Answer:
(a) 4.0

Question 31.
The second most abundant metal available next to aluminium is ______.
(a) Cu
(b) Ag
(c) Au
(d) Fe.
Answer:
(d) Fe.

Question 32.
Most important ore of iron is ______.
(a) Haematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Iron pyrite
(d) Cryolite.
Answer:
(a) Haematite

Question 33.
The volatile impurities present in haematite are:
(a) Carbon and Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(c) Helium and Oxygen
(d) Sulphur and Phosphorus
Answer:
(d) Sulphur and Phosphorus

Question 34.
The solute present in brass is:
(a) copper
(b) zinc
(c) tin
(d) magnesium
Answer:
(b) zinc

Question 35.
Which one of the following is used for making pressure cookers?
(a) Brass
(b) Magnalium
(c) Duralumin
(d) Nickel steel
Answer:
(c) Duralumin

Question 36.
Which is used as propeller?
(a) Stainless steel
(b) Nickel steel
(c) Brass
(d) Magnalium.
Answer:
(b) Nickel steel

Question 37.
Gold does not occur in the combined form. It does not react with air or water. It is in the ______ state.
(a) native
(b) combined
(c) complex
(d) molten.
Answer:
(a) native

Question 38.
Which of the following metal is not found in a free state?
(a) Ag
(b) Au
(c) Pt
(d) Al.
Answer:
(d) Al.

Question 39.
Which one of the following does not react with copper?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Conc.H₂SO₄
(c) NaOH
(d) Conc.HNO₃
Answer:
(c) NaOH

Question 40.
An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belongs to ______ group.
(a) 14th
(b) 15th
(c) 16th
(d) 17th.
Answer:
(a) 14th

Question 41.
The highest ionization energy is exhibited by ______.
(a) Halogens
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Transition metals
(d) Nobel gases.
Answer:
(d) Nobel gases.

Question 42.
Which two elements of the following belongs to the same period? (Al, Si, Ba, O).
(a) Si, Ba
(b) Al, Ba
(c) Al, Si
(d) Al, O.
Answer:
(c) Al, Si

Question 43.
98% pure copper and 2% impurities is called ______.
(a) Matte
(b) Copper pyrites
(c) blister copper
(d) cuprite.
Answer:
(c) blister copper

Question 44.
_____ is used in making anchors and electromagnets.
(a) Steel
(b) Pig iron
(c) Cast iron
(d) Wrought iron.
Answer:
(d) Wrought iron.

Question 45.
Which reagent does not react with iron?
(a) Conc. HNO₃
(b) Conc.H₂SO₄
(c) Steam
(d) Dil. HNO₃
Answer:
(a) Conc. HNO₃

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Matte is a mixture of ______.
Answer:
Cu₂S + FeS.

Question 2.
Second group elements are called ______.
Answer:
Alkaline earth metals.

Question 3.
Ionisation energy is measured in _____ unit.
Answer:
kJ/mol

Question 4.
The ionisation energy ______ along the period.
Answer:
Increases.

Question 5.
______ property, which predicts the nature of bonding between the atoms in a molecule.
Answer:
Electronegativity.

Question 6.
If the difference in electronegativity between two elements is 1.7, the bond has ____ and _____.
Answer:
50% ionic character, 50% covalent character.

Question 7.
If the difference in electronegativity between two elements is less than 1.7, the bond is considered to be ______.
Answer:
Covalent.

Question 8.
If the difference in electronegativity between two elements is greater than 1.7, the bond is considered to be ______.
Answer:
Ionic.

Question 9.
The process of extracting the ores from the earth’s crust is called ______.
Answer:
Mining.

Question 10.
______ is the main principle behind in Hydraulic method.
Answer:
Specific gravity.

Question 11.
Froth floatation process is preferable for ______ ores.
Answer:
Lighter
(or)
Sulphide.

Question 12.
On heating in air, iron forms ______.
Answer:
Fe₃O₄

Question 13.
Iron reacts with Chlorine to form _____ compound.
Answer:
Ferric chloride.

Question 14.
The corrosive action in the absence of moisture is called ______.
Answer:
Dry corrosion.

Question 15.
______ technique used to renovate the Pamban bridge.
Answer:
Protective coating.

Question 16.
The atomic number is the number of ____ in the nucleus or number of ______ revolving around the nucleus in an atom.
Answer:
Protons, electrons.

Question 17.
The long form of periodic table is based upon the _____ of elements.
Answer:
Electronic configuration.

Question 18.
In the periodic table, the horizontal rows are called _____ and vertical columns are called ______.
Answer:
Periods, groups.

Question 19.
The modem periodic table has been divided into ______ blocks known as _______ blocks.
Answer:
Four, s, p, d, f

Question 20.
The ______ of the elements in a period decreases from left to right and the atomic radii of the elements present in a group downwards.
Answer:
Atomic size, increases.

Question 21.
_______ period is the longest period and it contains ______ elements.
Answer:
Seventh, 32.

Question 22.
In the periodic table, there are ______ groups and _____ periods.
Answer:
18, 7.

Question 23.
Metals like Ti, Cr, Mn, Zr find their application in the manufacturing of defence equipment called ______.
Answer:
Strategic metals.

Question 24.
The metal ______ plays a vital role in nuclear reactions releasing nuclear energy and used in nuclear weapons.
Answer:
Uranium.

Question 25.
Copper, silver and gold are called _______ as they are used in making ____ and ______.
Answer:
Coinage metals, coins and jewellery.

Question 26.
Purity of gold is expressed in ______ and ______ is pure gold.
Answer:
Carats, 24 – carat gold.

Question 27.
_______ is an ore of aluminium and _____ is its mineral.
Answer:
Bauxite, clay.

Question 28.
All ______ cannot be called as ores but all ______ are minerals.
Answer:
Minerals, ores.

Question 29.
The process of extracting the ores from the earth’s crust is called ______.
Answer:
Mining.

Question 30.
The rocky impurity associated with the ore is called ____ or ______.
Answer:
Gangue, matrix.

Question 31.
_____ is a substance added to the ore to reduce the fusion temperature and to remove impurities.
Answer:
Flux.

Question 32.
____ is the process of reducing the roasted metallic oxide to metal.
Answer:
Smelting.

Question 33.
Slag is the fusible product formed when ____ reacts with ____ during the extraction of metals.
Answer:
Flux, gangue

Question 34.
The temperature applied in Hall’s process is _____ and the voltage used in ______.
Answer:
900 – 950°C, 5 – 6V

Question 35.
_____ is used in making manhole covers and drain pipes and _______ is used in making transmission cables and T.V. towers.
Answer:
Pig iron, steel.

Question 36.
______ is defined as the slow and steady destruction of a metal by the environment.
Answer:
Corrosion.

Question 37.
_______ is a process of coating zinc on iron sheets by using electric current.
Answer:
Galvanization.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

i. Boron family	(a) Group 17
ii. Carbon family	(b) Group 16
iii. Nitrogen family	(c) Group 13
iv. Chalcogen family	(d) Group 15
v. Halogen family	(e) Group 14

Answer:
i – c, ii – e, iii – d, iv – b , v – a.

Question 2.

i. Alkali metals	(a) Lanthanides & Actinides
ii. Alkaline earth metals	(b) Groups 3 – 12
iii. Transition elements	(c) Group 2
iv. Inner transition elements	(d) Group 1

Answer:
i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 3.

i. Group 18	(a) Main group elements
ii. Group 3 – 12	(b) Noble gases
iii. Group 13 – 18	(c) Halogens
iv. Group 17	(d) Transition elements

Answer:
i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c.

Question 4.

i. Copper	(a) Lustrous greyish white metal
ii. Iron	(b) Cn 112
iii. Aluminium	(c) Reddish-brown metal
iv. Copernicium	(d) Silvery white metal

Answer:
i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b.

Question 5.

Alloys	Composition
i. Brass	(a) Al, Mg, Mn, Cu
ii. Duralumin	(b) Cu, Zn
iii. Bronze	(c) Al, Mg
iv. Magnalium	(d) Cu, Sn

Answer:
i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c.

Question 6.

Elements	Electronegative value
i. F	(a) 2.5
ii. Cl	(b) 2.8
iii. Br	(c) 3.0
iv. I	(d) 4.0

Answer:
i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 7.

Process	Ores
i. Hydraulic process	(a) ZnS
ii. Magnetic separation	(b) Fe2O3
iii. Froth floatation process	(c) SnO2
iv. Leaching process	(d) Al2O3. 2H2O

Answer:
i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d.

Question 8.

i. Cuprite	(a) Halide ore
ii. Marble	(b) Oxide ore
iii. Fluorspar	(c) Sulphide ore
iv. Galena	(d) Carbonate ore

Answer:
i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c.

Question 9.

Alloy	Metals present	Uses
1. Brass	Fe, C, Ni	Statues, Coins
2. Bronze	Al, Mg, Mn, Cu	Aircraft, Pressure cookers
3. Duralumin	Fe, C, Ni, Cr	Cables, Propeller
4. Magnalium	Cu, Sn	Automobile parts, Utensils
5. Stainless steel	Cu, Zn	Scientific instruments, Air craft
6. Nickel steel	Al, Mg	Medals, decorative items

Answer:

Alloy	Metals present	Uses
1. Brass	Cu, Zn	Medals, decorative items
2. Bronze	Cu, Sn	Statues, Coins
3. Duralumin	Al, Mg, Mn, Cu	Aircraft, Pressure cookers
4. Magnalium	Al, Mg	Scientific instruments, Air craft
5. Stainless steel	Fe, C, Ni, Cr	Automobile parts, Utensils
6. Nickel steel	Fe, C, Ni	Cables, Propeller

Question 10.

Metal	Ore	Chemical formula
1. Copper	Bauxite	ZnCO3
2. Aluminium	Haematite	CuFeS2
3. Iron	Copper pyrite	Fe2O3
4. Zinc	Calamine	Al2O3.2H2O

Answer:

Metal	Ore	Chemical formula
1. Copper	Copper pyrite	CuFeS2
2. Aluminium	Bauxite	Al2O3.2H2O
3. Iron	Haematite	Fe2O3
4. Zinc	Calamine	ZnCO3

IV. State whether true or false. If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
First period contains only one element.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: First period contains two elements.(Hydrogen & Ftelium)

Question 2.
The valency of all alkali metals is one.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Noble gases are more reactive.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Noble gases are less reactive.

Question 4.
The atomic radius decreases from Li to B?
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
As the positive charge increases, the size of the cation also increases.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: As the positive charge increases, the size of the cation also decreases.

Question 6.
Copper pyrite ore is concentrated by gravity separation method.
False
Correct Statement: Copper pyrite ore is concentrated by froth floatation process.

Question 7.
Aluminium alloyed with gold and silver for making coins and jewels.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Copper alloyed with gold and silver for making coins and jewels.

Question 8.
The corrosive action in the presence of moisture is called wet corrosion.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers – modern periodic law.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
The long form of periodic table consists of horizontal rows called groups and vertical columns called periods.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The long form of periodic table consists of horizontal rows called periods and vertical columns called groups.

Question 11.
The first period in the periodic table is the shortest period and contains 8 elements from Lithium to Neon.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The first period in the periodic table is the shortest period and contains 2 elements Hydrogen and Helium.
(OR)
The second period in the periodic table is the short period and contains 8 elements from Lithium to Neon.

Question 12.
The sixth period in the periodic table is the longest period and contains 32 elements.
Answer:
True.

Question 13.
Group 1, 2 and 13 – 18 are called normal elements.
(or)
Main group elements.
(or)
Representative elements.
Answer:
True.

Question 14.
The atomic size of the elements in a period increases from left to right.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The atomic size of the elements in a period decreases from left to right.

Question 15.
In a period, the metallic character of the element increases while their non-metallic character decreases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In a period, the metallic character of the element decreases while their non-metallic character increases.

Question 16.
The last element authenticated by IUPAC is Cn 112 [Copemicium].
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
Silver was the first metal to be used in making utensils and weapons.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Copper was the first metal to be used in making utensils and weapons.

Question 18.
The strategic metals such as copper, silver and gold are used in the manufacturing of defence equipment.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The strategic metals such as titanium, chromium manganese, zirconium are used in the manufacturing of defence equipment.

Question 19.
Copper, silver and gold are called coinage metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
For making ornaments, 24 – carat gold is used which is pure gold.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: For making ornaments, 22 – carat gold is used which contains 22 parts of gold by weight and 2 parts of copper by weight.

Question 21.
The mineral from which a metal can be readily and economically extracted on a large scale is said to be ore.
Answer:
True.

Question 22.
The rocky impurity associated with the ore is called flux.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The rocky impurity associated with the ore is called gangue or matrix.

Question 23.
Slag is the fusible product formed when flux reacts with gangue during the extraction of metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 24.
Metals which have high chemical reactivity are found in a free state or in the native state.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Metals which have low chemical reactivity are found in a free state or in the native state.

Question 25.
Aluminium is the metal found most abundantly in the earth’s crust.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Aluminium is a reddish-brown metal and it is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Aluminium is a silvery – white metal and it is a good conductor of heat and electricity.

Question 27.
Aluminium reacts with strong caustic alkalis forming aluminates.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
Conc. Nitric acid renders aluminium active due to the formation of nitride film on its surface.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Cone. Nitric acid renders aluminium passive due to the formation of oxide film on its surface.

Question 29.
Aluminium is a powerful reducing agent.
Answer:
True.

Question 30.
Duralumin alloy is light, having high tensile strength and corrosion-resistant.
Answer:
True.

Question 31.
Fe and Al₂O₃ are used in thermite welding.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Al powder and Fe₂O₃ is used in thermite welding.

Question 32.
The chief ore of copper is Ruby copper.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The chief ore of copper is copper pyrite.

Question 33.
Iron is a lustrous greyish white metal and can be magnetised.
Answer:
True.

Question 34.
The rust has the chemical formula as Fe₃O₄.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The rust has the chemical formula as Fe₂O₃. xH₂O.

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Nobel gas is unreactive.
Reason (R): They have unstable electronic configuration in their valence shells.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The nature of bond in NaI molecule is covalent.
Reason (R): The electronegativity difference between Na and I is 1.5
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Haematite ore was purified by Hydraulic method.
Reason (R): Haematite is oxide ore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Corundum is a chief ore of aluminium.
Reason (R): Molecular formula of Corundum is Al₂O₃
(a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains the (A)
(b) (A) is correct, (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
(d) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) doesn’t explain (A).
Answer:
(c) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The chemical properties of the elements in the same period are not similar.
Reason (R): As the electronic configuration changes across the period, the chemical properties of the elements are not similar.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Copper, Silver and Gold are used in making coins and jewellery. So they are called coinage metals.
Reason (R): These metals release an enormous amount of nuclear energy.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Metals like Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Zirconium are called strategic metals!
Reason (R): They find their applications in the manufacturing of defence equipment.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Gold, Silver and Platinum are the metals that are found in a free state.
Reason (R): Those metals have low chemical reactivity and are found in a free state or in the native state.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Aluminium occurs in the combined state.
Reason (R): It is a reactive metal and so it occurs in combined state.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 10.
Assertion (A): In the aluminothermic process, Iron oxide is reduced to iron by igniting with Aluminium powder.
Reason (R): Aluminium is a powerful reducing agent.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 11.
Assertion (A): When iron is dipped in conc.HNO₃ it becomes chemically inert (or) passive.
Reason (R): Iron becomes passive when treated with nitric acid is due to the formation of a layer of iron oxide Fe₃O₄ on its surface.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Duralumin is used in making aircraft, tools and pressure cookers.
Reason (R): Duralumin is an alloy that is light, strong, resistant to corrosion.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Nickel steel is used in making cables, aircraft parts and propeller.
Reason (R): Nickel steel alloy is hard, brittle and polishable.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Magnesium is used in a sacrificial protection method to prevent corrosion.
Reason (R): Magnesium is more reactive than iron. When it is coated on the articles made of steel, it sacrifices itself to protect steel.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Electroplating method not only protects but also enhances the metallic appearance.
Reason (R): Electroplating is a method of coating one metal with another by passing current.
(a) (A) is right, (R) is wrong
(b) (A) is right, (R) is not relevant
(c) (A) is right, (R) is relevant
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(c) (A) is right, (R) is relevant

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
State modern periodic law.
Answer:
Modem periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Question 2.
Write the flow chart of the long form of the periodic table.
Answer:

Question 3.
The distance between the adjacent copper atoms in solid copper is 2.56 Å. Calculate what is the metallic radius of Cu?
Answer:
Metallic radius of copper = \(\frac{2.56}{2}\) = 1.28 Å

Question 4.
Briefly write any four characteristics of a group in the periodic table.
Answer:

• The elements present in a group have the same valency.
• The elements present in a group have identical chemical properties.
• The physical properties of the elements in the group very gradually.
• The atomic radii of die elements present in a group increase downwards.

Question 5.
What is the principle behind Froth floatation?
Answer:
This process depends on the preferential wettability of the ore with oil (pine oil) and the gangue particles by water. Lighter ores, such as sulphide ores, are concentrated by this method. Eg: Zinc blende (ZnS).

Question 6.
What are minerals?
Answer:
A mineral may be a single compound or a complex mixture of various compounds of metals found in the earth, e.g. Clay Al₂O₃. 2SiO₂. 2H₂O is the mineral of Aluminium.

Question 7.
Write the increasing order of radii of the following species.
(a) Na, Na⁺, Cl, Cl^–
(b) Li, Na, K, Rb
Answer:
(a) Na⁺, Cl, Na, Cl^–
(b) Li, Na, K, Rb

Question 8.
Differentiate ore and mineral.
Answer:

Ore	Mineral
1. Ores contain a large percentage of metal.	1. Minerals contain a low percentage of metal.
2. Ores can be used for die extraction of metals on a large scale readily and economically.	2. Metals cannot be extracted easily from minerals.
3. Bauxite Al2O3. 2H2O is the ore of aluminium.	3. Clay Al2O3.2SiO.2H2O is the mineral of aluminium.

Question 9.
Define metallurgy.
Answer:
The various steps involved in the extraction of metals from their ores as well as refining of crude metals are collectively known as metallurgy.

Question 10.
Elements a, b, c and d have the following electronic configurations
(a) ls² 2s² 2p⁶
(b) Is², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p¹
(c) Is², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶
(d) Is², 2s², Ip¹
Answer:
(a) and (c), (b) and (d). Because the number of valence electrons are the same.

Question 11.
What is slag? Give an example.
Answer:
Slag is a fusible product formed when flux reacts with gangue during the extraction of metals.
Flux + gangue → slag
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

Question 12.
Why the electron affinities of noble gases are zero?
Answer:
Noble gases show no tendency to accept electrons because the outer 5 and p orbitals of noble gases are completely filled. No more electrons can be added to them and hence their electron affinities are zero.

Question 13.
Why does gold, silver and platinum occur in free state?
Answer:
Gold, silver and platinum have low chemical reactivity and so they are found in the free state or in a native state.

Question 14.
How does Aluminium reacts with air?
Answer:
Reaction with air: It is not affected by dry air. On heating at 800°C, aluminium bums very brightly forming it’s oxide and nitride.
4Al + 3O₂ → Al₂O₃(Aluminium oxide)
2Al + N₂ → 2 AlN (Aluminium nitride)

Question 15.
How does Aluminium react with caustic soda? Give an equation.
Answer:
Aluminium reacts with caustic soda to give sodium meta aluminate with the liberation of H₂ gas.

Question 16.
Prove that aluminium is a powerful reducing agent.
Answer:
Aluminium is a powerful reducing agent When a mixture of aluminium powder and iron oxide is ignited, iron oxide is reduced to iron. This process is known as the aluminothermic process.

Question 17.
Write a note on Aluminothermic process.
Answer:
As reducing agent: Aluminium is a powerful reducing agent. When a mixture of aluminium powder and iron oxide is ignited, the latter is reduced to metal. This process is known as aluminothermic process.
Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → 2Fe + Al₂O₃ + heat

Question 18.
What is the action of heat on copper?
Answer:
On heating at different temperatures in the presence of oxygen, copper forms two types of oxides CuO, Cu₂O.

Question 19.
Explain the action of dilute nitric acid with copper.
Answer:
Copper reacts with dil.HNO₃ with the liberation of Nitric oxide gas.

Question 20.
What happens when copper is treated with conc.HNO₃ and with conc.H₂SO₄?
Answer:

Question 21.
What do you mean by Ferrous and Non-Ferrous alloys? Given an example for each.
Answer:
Ferrous alloys : Contain iron as a major component.
Eg: Stainless steel, Nickel steel

Non-Ferrous alloys : These alloys do not contain iron as a major part.
Eg: Aluminium alloy, Copper alloy.

Question 22.
Explain the action of air with iron.
Answer:
3Fe + 2O₂ → Fe₃O₄ [Magnetic oxide (Black)].

Question 23.
What are amalgams? How are they prepared?
Answer:
An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with another metal.
Amalgams are formed by the metallic bonding with the electrostatic force of attraction between the electrons and the positively charged metal ions.

Question 24.
Explain the action of steam with iron.
Answer:

Question 25.
Mention the types of iron on the basis of carbon content.
Answer:

Pig iron	Iron with 2 – 4.5% carbon
Wrought iron	Iron with < 0.25% carbon
Steel	Iron with 0.25 – 2% carbon

Question 26.
What is dry corrosion or chemical corrosion?
Answer:
The corrosive action in the absence of moisture is called dry corrosion. It is the process of a chemical attack on a metal by corrosive liquids or gases such as O₂, N₂, SO₂, H₂S etc… It occurs at high temperature, of all the gases mentioned above O₂ is the most reactive gas to impart the chemical attack.

Question 27.
What is an amalgam? Give one example with its use.
Answer:

• An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with metals such as sodium, gold and silver.
• Dental amalgam is an alloy of mercury with silver and tin and it is used in the dental filling.

Question 28.
Explain sacrificial protection.
Answer:
Magnesium is more reactive than iron. When it is coated on the articles made of steel, it sacrifices itself to protect steel.

Question 29.
Define corrosion.
Answer:
Corrosion is defined as the slow and steady destruction of a metal by the environment. It results in the deterioration of the metal to form metal compounds by means of chemical reactions with the environment.

Question 30.
What is the action of Air and moisture on copper?
Answer:
Copper gets covered with a green layer of basic carbonate in the presence of CO₂ and moisture.
2 Cu + O₂ + CO₂ + H₂O → CUCO₃.CU(OH)₂

Question 31.
Give any two uses of aluminium.
Answer:

• Aluminium metal is a corrosion – resistant and a good conductor of heat. So it is used in making utensils.
• Aluminium is used in welding as thermite and a very good reducing agent.

Question 32.
What is the modern periodic table?
Answer:
The modem periodic table is a tabular arrangement of elements in rows and columns, highlighting the regular repetition of properties of the elements.

Question 33.
Explain the smelting process of iron in the Blast furnace.
Answer:
The charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8 : 4 : 1 is smelted in a blast furnace by introducing it through the cup and cone arrangement at the top.

Question 34.
What are the periodic properties?
Answer:
Properties such as atomic radius, ionic radius, ionisation energy, electronegativity, electron affinity, show a regular periodicity and hence they are called periodic properties.

Question 35.
Define Atomic radius.
Answer:
The atomic radius of an atom is defined as the distance between the centre of its nucleus and the outermost shell containing the valence electron.

Question 36.
Write the action of dil.HCl and dil.H₂SO₄ with iron.
Answer:
(i) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl₂ + H₂↑
(ii) Fe + H₂SO₄ → FeSO₄ + H₂↑

Question 37.
What is a covalent radius?
Answer:
It is defined as half the distance between the nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms of the same element in a molecule.

Question 38.
Define Ionisation energy.
Answer:
Ionisation energy is the minimum energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom in its ground state to form a cation.

Question 39.
What is an alloy?
Answer:
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or of one or more metals with certain non-metallic elements. The properties of alloys are often different from the component metals.

Question 40.
What is Electronegativity?
Answer:
Electronegativity of an element is the measure of the tendency of its atom to attract the shared pair of electrons towards itself in a covalent bond.

Question 41.
Write the steps involved in metallurgical process.
Answer:
A metallurgical process involves three main steps as follows:

• Concentration or Separation of the ore: It is the process of removal of impurities from the ore.
• Production of the metal: It is the conversion of the ore into metal.
• Refining of the metal: It is the process of purification of the metal.

Question 42.
Give a single term for each of the following:
(i) The process of extracting the ores from the Earth’s crust is called:
Answer:
Mining

(ii) The rocky impurities associated with an ore is called:
Answer:
Gangue or matrix

(iii) The substance added to the ore to reduce fusion temperature:
Answer:
Flux

(iv) Noble metals occur in this state:
Answer:
Native

Question 43.
How will you convert copper into copper carbonate?
Answer:
Copper reacts with oxygen in the presence of CO₂ and moisture to give copper carbonate.
2Cu + O₂ + CO₂ + H₂O → CuCO₃. Cu(OH)₂ (Copper Carbonate).

Question 44.
Mention the uses of iron.
Answer:
Uses of iron:

1. Pig iron (Iron with 2 – 4.5 % of carbon): It is used in making pipes, stoves, radiators, railings, manhole covers and drain pipes.
2. Steel (Iron with < 0.25 % of carbon): It is used in the construction of buildings, machinery, transmission cables and T.V towers and in making alloys.
3. Wrought iron (Iron with 0.25 – 2 % of wrought carbon): It is used in making springs, anchors and electromagnets.

Question 45.
What are the chemical properties of metals in terms of

1. valence electrons
2. Atomicity.

Answer:

1. Valence electrons: Metals usually have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their outermost shell.
2. Atomicity: Metals are usually monoatomic in their vapour state.

Question 46.
Why alloys are said to solid solutions?
Answer:
Alloys can be considered solid solutions in which the metal with high concentration is solvent and other metals are solute.
Example: brass is a solid solution of zinc (solute) in copper (solvent).

Question 47.
Write a note on Dry corrosion.
Answer:

• The corrosive action in the absence of moisture is called dry corrosion.
• It is the process of a chemical attack on a metal by corrosive liquids or gases such as O₂, N₂, SO₂, H₂S etc. in which O₂ is more reactive.
• It occurs at high temperature

Question 48.
Explain Wet Corrosion.
Answer:

• The corrosive action in the presence of moisture is called wet corrosion.
• It occurs as a result of the electrochemical reaction of metal with water or an aqueous solution of salt or acids or bases.

Question 49.
What is electroplating?
Answer:
Electroplating is a method of coating one metal over another metal by passing an electric current.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain the variation of ionisation energy along the group and period.
Answer:

• As the atomic size decreases from left to right in a period, more energy is required to remove the electrons. So, the ionisation energy increases throughout the period.
• Down the group, the atomic size increases and hence the valence electrons are loosely bound. They require relatively less energy for the removal. Thus, ionisation energy decreases down the group in the periodic table.

Question 2.
Explain the electrolytic refining of copper.
Answer:
(i) Blister copper contains 98% of pure Cu and 2 % of impurities and is purified by electrolytic refining.
For electrolytic refining of Cu we use:
Cathode: A thin plate of pure Cu.
Anode: A block of impure Cu
Electrolyte: CuSO₄ + dil H₂SO₄

(ii) When electric current is passed through the electrolytic solution, Pure Cu gets deposited at the cathode and the impurities settle at the bottom of the anode in the form of anode mud.

Question 3.
Explain Gravity separation method.
Answer:
Gravity Separation (or) Hydraulic method:
1. Principle: The difference in the densities or specific gravities of the ore and the gangue is the main principle behind this method. Oxide ores are purified by this method,
e.g., Haematite Fe₂O₃ the ore of iron.

2. Method: The ore is poured over a sloping, vibrating corrugated table with grooves and a jet of water is allowed to flow over it. The denser ore particles settle down in the grooves and lighter gangue particles are washed down by the water.

Question 4.
Discuss the magnetic separation methods.
Answer:
Magnetic separation method:
Principle: The magnetic properties of the ores from the basis of separation. When either the ore or the gangue is magnetic, this method is employed, e.g., Tinstone SnO₂, the ore of tin.

Method: The crushed ore is placed over a conveyer belt which rotates around two metal wheels, one of which is magnetic. The magnetic particles are attracted to the magnetic wheel and fall separately apart from the nonmagnetic particles.

Question 5.
Explain the froth floatation process.
Answer:
Froth floatation Process:
Principle: This process depends on the preferential wettability of the ore with oil (pine oil) and the gangue particles by water. Lighter ores, such as sulphide ores, are concentrated by this method, e.g., Zinc blende (ZnS).

Method: The crushed ore is taken in a large tank containing oil and water and agitated with a current of compressed air. The ore is wetted by the oil and gets separated from the gangue in the form of froth. Since the ore is lighter, it comes on the surface with the froth and the impurities are left behind, e.g., Zinc blende (ZnS).

Question 6.
How will you extract aluminium from its ore?
Answer:
The extraction of aluminium from bauxite involves two steps:
(i) Conversion of bauxite into alumina – Baeyer’s Process
The conversion of Bauxite into Alumina involves the following steps:
Bauxite ore is finely ground and heated under pressure with a solution of concentrated caustic soda solution at 150° C to obtain sodium metal aluminate.
On diluting sodium meta aluminate with water, a precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed.
The precipitate is filtered, washed, dried and ignited at 1000°C to get alumina.
\(2 \mathrm{Al}(\mathrm{OH})_{3} \stackrel{1000^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{Al}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3}+3 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\)

(ii) Electrolytic reduction of alumina – Hall’s Process
Aluminium is produced by the electrolytic reduction of fused alumina (Al₂O₃) in the electrolytic cell.

Cathode: Iron tank linked with graphite
Anode: A bunch of graphite rods suspended in a molten electrolyte.
Electrolyte: Pure alumina + molten cryolite + fluorspar (fluorspar lowers the fusion temperature of electrolyte)
Temperature: 900 – 950°C
The voltage used: 5 – 6 V
Aluminium is deposited at the cathode and oxygen gas is liberated at the anode. Oxygen combines with graphite to form CO₂.

Question 7.
Explain the extraction of copper from copper pyrites.
Answer:
Extraction of copper from copper pyrites involves the following steps:
(i) The concentration of ore: The ore is crushed and then concentrated by froth floatation process.

(ii) Roasting: The concentrated ore is roasted in excess of air. During the process of roasting, the moisture and volatile impurities are removed. Sulphur, phosphorus, arsenic and antimony are removed as oxides. Copper pyrite is partly converted into sulphides of copper and iron.
\(2 \mathrm{CuFeS}_{2}+\mathrm{O}_{2} \rightarrow \mathrm{Cu}_{2} \mathrm{S}+2 \mathrm{FeS}+\mathrm{SO}_{2} \uparrow\)

(iii) Smelting: The roasted ore is mixed with powdered coke and sand and is heated in a blast furnace to obtain matte (Cu₂S + FeS) and slag. The slag is removed as waste.

(iv) Bessemerisation: The molten matte is transferred to the Bessemer converter in order to obtain blister copper. Ferrous sulphide from matte is oxidized to ferrous oxide, which is removed as slag using silica.

(v) Refining: Blister copper contains 98% of pure copper and 2% of impurities and is purified A by electrolytic refining. This method is used to get metal of a high degree of purity. For electrolytic refining of copper, we use:
Cathode: A thin plate of pure copper metal.
Anode: A block of impure copper metal.
Electrolyte: Copper sulphate solution acidified with sulphuric acid.
When an electric current is passed through the electrolytic solution, pure copper gets deposited at the cathode and the impurities settle at the bottom of the anode in the form of sludge called anode mud.

Question 8.
Explain the metallurgy of iron.
Answer:
Iron is chiefly extracted from haematite ore (Fe₂O₃):
(i) Concentration by Gravity Separation: The powdered ore is washed with steam of water. As a result, the lighter sand particles and other impurities are washed away and the heavier ore particles settle down.

(ii) Roasting and Calcination: The concentrated ore is strongly heated in a limited supply of air in a reverberatory furnace. As a result, moisture is driven out and sulphur, arsenic and phosphorus impurities are oxidized off.

(iii) Smelting (in a Blast Furnace): The charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8 : 4 : 1 is smelted in a blast furnace by introducing it through the cup and cone arrangement at the top. There are three important regions in the furnace.

a. The Lower Region (Combustion Zone):
The temperature is at 1500°C. In this region, coke bums with oxygen to form CO₂ when the charge comes in contact with a hot blast of air.

It is an exothermic reaction since heat is liberated.

b. The Middle Region (Fusion Zone):
The temperature prevails at 1000°C. In this region, CO₂ is reduced to CO.

Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide and CO₂

These two reactions are endothermic due to absorption of heat. Calcium oxide combines with silica to form calcium silicate slag.
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

c. The Upper Region (Reduction Zone): The temperature prevails at 400°C. In this region carbon monoxide reduces ferric oxide to form a fairly pure spongy iron.
\(\mathrm{Fe}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3}+3 \mathrm{CO} \stackrel{400^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Fe}+3 \mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
The molten iron is collected at the bottom of the furnace after removing the slag.
The iron thus formed is called pig iron. It is remelted and cast into different moulds. This iron is called cast iron.

Question 9.
Explain the types of alloys.
Answer:
Based on the presence or absence of Iron, alloys can be classified into:
1. Ferrous alloys: Contain Iron as a major component.
A few examples of ferrous alloys are Stainless Steel, Nickel Steel etc.

2. Non – ferrous alloys: These alloys do not contain Iron as a major component.
For example, Aluminium alloy, Copper alloy etc.
Copper Alloys (Non – ferrous):

Alloys	Uses
Brass (Cu, Zn)	Electrical fittings, medal, decorative items, hardware
Bronze (Cu, Sn)	Statues, coins, bells, gongs

Aluminium Alloys (Non – ferrous):

Alloys	Uses
Duralumin (Al, Mg, Mn, Cu)	Aircraft tools, pressure cookers
Magnalium (Al, Mg)	Aircraft, scientific instruments

Iron Alloys(Ferrous):

Alloys	Uses
Stainless steel (Fe, C, Ni, Cr)	Utensils, cutlery, automobile parts
Nickel steel (Fe, C, Ni)	Cables, aircraft parts, propeller

VIII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
What would be the atomic number of the next

1. alkali metal
2. alkaline earth metal
3. Halogens
4. inert gas, if discovered in future.

Answer:

1. Alkali metal: 118 + 1 = 119
2. Alkaline earth metal: 120
3. Halogens: 117
4. Inert gas: 118

Question 2.
Explain the mechanism of rusting?
Answer:
Rust is chemically known as hydrated ferric oxide (it is formulated as Fe₂O₃.xH₂O).
Rusting results in the formation of scaling reddish – brown hydrated ferric oxide on the surface of iron and iron-containing materials.

Question 3.
All ores are minerals, but ait minerals are not ores. Why?
Answer:

• The elements or compounds of the metals which occur in nature in the earth’s crust are called minerals whereas ore is a mineral from which the metal is profitably extracted.
• For example, aluminium exists in the two mineral forms, that is clay and bauxite. But aluminium is mainly extracted from bauxite which contains 70 % aluminium oxide. So, bauxite is an ore of aluminium whereas clay is not ore.
• So, all ores are minerals but all minerals need not be ores.

Question 4.
Why the graphite rods acting as anode in the Hall’s process should be replaced periodically?
Answer:
During Hall’s Process, the carbon electrodes get consumed, so they have to be replaced periodically.

Question 5.
Anionic radius Is higher than the corresponding neutral atom. Give reason.
Answer:
When an atom gains one or more electrons it forms an anion. During the formation of anion, the number of orbital electrons becomes greater than the nuclear charge. Hence, the electrons are not strongly attracted by the lesser number of nuclear charges. Hence anionic radius is higher than the corresponding neutral atom.

Question 6.
A reddish – brown metal A, when exposed to moist air, forms a green layer B. When A is heated at different temperatures in the presence of O₂, it forms two types of oxides – C (black) and D (red). Identify A, B, C, D and write the balanced equation.
Answer:
(i) A reddish – brown metal A is a copper (Cu).

(ii) When copper (A) is exposed to moist air it forms a green layer (B) is copper carbonate.

(iii) When copper is heated at different temperature in the presence of oxygen, it forms two types of oxides CuO and Cu₂O. (C and D)

Question 7.
A silvery – white metal on treatment with NaOH and HCl liberates H₂ gas to form B and C respectively. The metal A will not react with acid D due to the formation of a passive film on the surface. Hence it is used for transporting acid D. Identify A, B, C, D and support your answer with balanced equations.
Answer:
(i) A silvery – white metal (A) is Aluminium (Al).
(ii) Aluminium reacts with NaOH to form B which is known as sodium meta aluminate with the liberation of H₂ gas.

(iii) Aluminium reacts with HCl to form Aluminium chloride which is known as C with the liberation of H₂ gas.

(iv) Aluminium does not react with conc. nitric acid (HNO₃) which is known as D, due to the formation of a passive film on the surface.

A	Aluminium	Al
B	Sodium meta aluminate	NaAlO2
C	Aluminium chloride	AlCl3
D	Nitric acid	HNO3

Question 8.
Metal A belongs to period 4 and group 8. A in red hot condition reacts with steam to form B. A reacts with dilute HNO₃ to give C. A again reacts with conc. H₂SO₄ to give D. Find A, B, C and D with suitable reaction.
Answer:
(i) Metal (A) belongs to period 4 and group 8 is iron (Fe).

(ii) Iron (A) reacts with steam to form magnetic oxide (B)

(iii) Iron (A) reacts with dilute HNO₃ in cold condition to give ferrous nitrate (C).

(iv) Iron (A) reacts with conc.H₂SO₄ to form Ferric Sulphate (D).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Road Safety

Road Safety In-Text Exercise

I. Look at the diagram given and answer the following.

Question 1.
Which road use category causes the highest number of deaths? Could you give any three possible reasons? What would you suggest as the related safety rules?
Answer:

1. Two-wheelers, Cars, Taxis, Vans & LMV’s and Trucks.
2. Carelessness, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side.
3. Insufficient headlights.

Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure

Question 2.
How could pedestrians save themselves from road accidents?
Answer:

1. Never use cell phones while crossing the roads.
2. Follow the road rules.
3. See both sides while crossing.
4. Never take short cuts.
5. Avoid distractions.

II. Look at the diagram carefully and answer the following.

Source: WHO Global Burden of Disease Project, Version 1 (2002)

Question 1.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide? Why?
Answer:
Age group 15-29 tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide. This is due to carelessly projecting their body parts outside vehicles, traveling on footboards, and catching a running bus or train.

Question 2.
Give some inference on the striking difference between the number of road accident deaths of males and females.
Answer:

1. The number of road accident deaths of females are less compared to males.
2. The reasons are: they follow road rules, they are cautious and responsible.

Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is the main cause of death inroads.
(a) Drink and drive
(b) Use of helmet
(c) Vehicle design
(d) Road conditions
Answer:
(a) Drink and drive

Question 2.
Every minute a child is killed in an accident worldwide.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 3.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide?
(a) 60+
(b) 15 – 29
(c) 30 – 44
(d) 45 – 59
Answer:
(b) 15 – 29

Question 4.
Road accidents are the leading cause of
(a) sales of the helmet
(b) increased traffic signals
(c) more number of speed breakers
(d) death by injury
Answer:
(d) death by injury

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Each year an estimate of ……. million people are killed in road crashes.
2. ……. in the pedestrians contribute to road accidents.
3. …… and ……. are excluded from road accidents.
4. India has the worst road accident rate worldwide with ……. deaths annually.

Answers:

1. 1.2
2. Carelessness
3. Internationa acts, natural disasters
4. 1,30,000

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write short notes on ‘road accidents’.
Answer:
Road accident refers to any accident involving at least a vehicle, occurring on a road open to public transport, and in which at least one person is injured or killed. Intentional acts (murder, suicide) and natural disasters are excluded from road accidents.

Road accidents are the leading cause of death by injury and the tenth leading cause of all deaths globally. An estimated 1.2 million people are killed in road crashes each year, and as many as 50 million people are injured.

Question 2.
Mention the different factors that contribute to road accidents.
Answer:
Drivers: Over-speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol

Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, travelling on footboards, catching a running bus, etc.

Vehicles: Failure of brakes or steering, tyre burst, insufficient headlights, overloading Road Conditions: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways, and illegal speed breakers.

Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 3.
Which are the top 10 cities of India contributing to maximum road accidents?
Answer:
The top ten cities are Chennai, Delhi, Bangaluru, Indore, Kolkata, Bhopal, Mumbai, Jabalpur, Jaipur, and Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design,
   • Road infrastructure

Question 5.
State the rules to ensure safety for children.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic road safety rules for children:

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run On Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never Cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Question 6.
What are the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
Direct Consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Industrial Revolution

Industrial Revolution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who established the first steamboat service?
(a) Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(c) Robert Fulton

Question 2.
Why was Manchester considered ideal for textile production?
(a) availability of land
(b) rich human resources
(c) better living condition
(d) cool climate
Answer:
(d) cool climate

Question 3.
Who invented the sewing machine?
(a) Elias Howe
(b) Eli-Whitney
(c) Samuel Crompton
(d) Humphrey Davy
Answer:
(a) Elias Howe

Question 4.
Which family introduced steam engine in France?
(a) de Wendel
(b) de Hindal
(c) de Arman
(d) de Renault
Answer:
(a) de Wendel

Question 5.
Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial Revolution? .
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(b) Andrew Jackson

Question 6.
Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day
(c) Labour Day
(d) Martyrs Day
Answer:
(c) Labour Day

Question 7.
Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Germany

Question 8.
Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
(a) Louis Renault
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison
(d) McAdam
Answer:
(b) Armand Peugeot

Question 9.
What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
(a) Rolling Mill
(b) Cotton Gin
(c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
Answer:
(b) Cotton Gin

Question 10.
Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
(a) Coke
(b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
(d) Paper
Answer:
(b) Charcoal

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… called for voting rights to men in England.
2. ………….. changed the way roads were built around the world.
3. …………. discovered a faster and cheaper method of production of steel.
4. ……….. advocated scientific socialism.
5. The first railroad line started in Germany was in the year ………….

Answers:

1. The Chartist
2. John Loudon McAdam
3. Henry Bessemer
4. Karl Marx
5. 1835

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) British mine owners were faced with the problem of water seeping into their minds
(ii) Employing human labour was cheap for this work
(iii) Newton invented a steam engine to pump water out of mines
(iv) Water had to be removed to get coal in mines
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Trade Unions were formed by labourers to get their rights
(ii) Germany’s political setup was the most significant challenge for the industrial revolution
(iii) To protect capitalists Karl Marx advocated socialism
(iv) There were no natural resources in Germany.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Workers had the rights to get holidays.
Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) Both A & R are wrong

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Slater was called the Father of the American Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R): His spinning textile mill was duplicated and his techniques became popular.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both. A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Labour Movement
(a) Which Act prohibited the formation of associations of workers?
Answer:
Combination Laws of 1799 prohibited the formation of associations of workers.

(b) Name the Bill which granted voting rights to the propertied middle class?
Answer:
The Reform Bill of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.

(c) When were the Combination Laws repealed?
Answer:
The Combination Laws were repealed in 1824.

(d) What were the demands of the Chartists?
Answer:
The Chartists called for voting rights to every man over twenty-one years of age, secret ballot (voting), abolition of property qualification for members of the parliament, annual parliamentary elections and equal representation.

Question 2.
Transportation and Communication
(a) Which was the first railway line opened in England?
Answer:
The first railway line in England was opened between Stockton and Darlington in 1825.

(b) How were the produced goods transported to markets?
Answer:
The goods were transported through new networks of canals, roads and railroads.

(c) How was the steamboat invented in the US called?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807.

(d) Who sailed from New York to Albany?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807 that sailed from New York to Albany.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What was the condition of laborers houses during the Industrial Revolution?
Answer:

1. The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class.
2. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to.
3. It led to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

Question 2.
Account for urbanisation in England.
Answer:
With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world. This resulted in the flow of population from villages to industrial towns. Population growth, migration and urbanisation were the major social changes taking place during this period. In pre-industrial society, over 80% of people lived in rural areas. As the migration from the countryside began to intensify, small towns became large cities. The city of London grew from a population of two million in 1840 to five million in forty years. –

Question 3.
Attempt a note on Haymarket Massacre.
Answer:

1. A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago.
2. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police.
3. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair, 1 May 1887 is observed as Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

Question 4.
What do you know of Louis Renault?
Answer:
In 1898, Louis Renault built the quadricycle, from which he began to produce in large quantities under his company, the Societe Renault Freres (Company Renault Brothers).

Question 5.
Highlight any two important results of the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Industrial Revolution increased the applications of science to industry.
2. The use of new technology came into practice.
3. Developed transportation and communication.
4. Introduced the use of new basic materials: Iron and Steel.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the causes for the Second Industrialization in the USA.
Answer:

1. A shift from manual labour-based to more technical and machine-based manufacturing industry marked the Industrial Revolution in the United States.
2. Samuel Slater, a citizen of England, was a well-experienced person to operate a mill.
3. On learning that Americans were interested in the new techniques, Slater departed for New York in 1789 illegally.
4. He offered his services to Moses Brown, a leading Rhode Island industrialist.
5. The mill became operational in 1793, being the first water-powered roller spinning textile mill in America.
6. By 1800, Slater’s mill had been duplicated by many other entrepreneurs.
7. Andrew Jackson, U.S. President hailed Slater as “Father of the American Industrial Revolution.”
8. The United States in the nineteenth century began to show technological innovation.
9. After the Civil War, industrialization went on at a frantic pace.
10. The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of the transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.

Question 2.
What were the effects of the Industrial Revolution of England on India?
Answer:
Until the middle of the eighteenth century, England was an agricultural country, and India was known for its excellence in manufactures as well as in agriculture. In the first quarter of the eighteenth century, in the context of Indian cotton manufactures flooding in England, a law was enacted prohibiting the use of Indian calicoes and silks. The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. When the British established their foothold in Bengal as a territorial power, the look from Bengal and the Carnatic provided the required capital, and helped accomplish Industrial Revolution in England.

The weavers of Bengal suffered at the hands of the Company’s officials and their agents, who first insisted on payment of a transit duty for the commodities they carried from one place to another and later for cultivation of commercial crops required for British industries in England. The English deliberately destroyed Indian industry by dumping the Indian markets with their machine- made cheap cotton piece goods. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material.

By the first quarter of nineteenth century the export of Dacca muslin to England stopped. Even the export of raw cotton from India had steadily dwindled owing to the competition from -USA. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

The Collector of Madurai reported that families of about 5000 weavers did not have the means to take more than one meal of fice a day. The Collector of Tirunelveli observed that the weaving population has ‘outrun its means of. subsistence and trammels of caste prevent them from taking to other work.’ Millions died of starvation in famines. To escape starvation deaths, peasants and artisans had to move out of the country opting to working on plantations in British Empire colonies as indentured (penal contract) labourers under wretched service and living conditions.

VIII. Activity 

Question 1.
Organize a debate on the positive and negative aspects of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Points for debate Positive Aspects:

1. It provides more job opportunities
2. More quicker and efficient production
3. Cheaper prices
4. Spectacular motivation
5. Improved quality of life
6. Urbanization

Negative Aspects:

1. Pollution
2. Unsafe
3. Dirty
4. Long working hours
5. Reduced life expectancy
6. Overpopulated cities.

Question 2.
Prepare a list of fabrics and designs and the places of production in India.
Answer:
Some of the many types of cotton fabrics are:
Broad cloth: A tightly woven lustrous cotton cloth with fine embedded cresswise ribs.
Canvas: Rugged, woven cloth made with coarse yam.
Chenille: A fuzzy cotton yam of fabric that has pile protruding around its weave, named after the French word for caterpillar.
Common types of fabric:
Silk, Cotton, Linen, Wool, Leather, Jute, Georgette, Chiffon, etc.
Top 10 textile companies in India:

1. Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Company Ltd. (Wadala)
2. Bombay Rayon Fashion Ltd.
3. Fab India Overseas Pvt. Ltd.
4. Grasim Industries Ltd.
5. JCT Ltd.
6. Karnataka Silk Industries
7. Raymond Ltd.
8. The Lakshmi Mills Company Ltd.
9. Vardhman Textiles
10. Arvind Mills

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of the inventions made at the time of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Write an assignment on the modern plastic road being made by used plastics.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.
Hint- The common plastics used are:
(i) polyethylene, terephthalate
(ii) polyvinyl chloride
(iii) high and low density polyethylene

Industrial Revolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What were the new basic materials used?
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(a) Iron and Steel

Question 2.
Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) England

Question 3.
Who invented the flying shuttle?
(a) John Kay
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) James Watt
(d) Richard Arkwright
Answer:
(a) John Kay

Question 4.
Who discovered a faster and cheaper method of producing Steel?
(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) John Kay
(c) Eli Whitney
(d) Henry Bessemer
Answer:
(d) Henry Bessemer

Question 5.
Who improved the Railway transport system in the country?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Sir Humphrey Davy
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(b) George Stephenson

Question 6.
Whose road pattern came to be adopted world over?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Henry Bessemer
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(a) John Loudon McAdam

Question 7.
Who became the workshop of the world?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) England

Question 8.
The textile capital of the world is …………….
(a) Liverpool
(b) Lancashire
(c) Manchester
(d) London
Answer:
(c) Manchester

Question 9.
Which town brought British technology of refining cast iron?
(a) Mulhouse
(b) Saint-Chamond
(c) Lorraine
(d) Paris
Answer:
(a) Mulhouse

Question 10.
Who invented the sewing machine? .
(a) Samuel F.B. Morse
(b) Thomas Alva Edison
(c) Elias Howe
(d) Alexander Graham Bell
Answer:
(c) Elias Howe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ………….. manufacture was at the heart of the Industrial Revolution.
2. Iron and steel helped quicken the process of ……………
3. ……………. road came to be adpoted world over.
4. The first railway line in England was opened between ……………. and …………… in 1825,
5. The Industrial Revolution helped create opportunities for ……………. for all members of the family.
6. ……………. was very poor in early industrial factories and mines.
7. The …………. of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.
8. …………. had the natural resources required for an industrial revolution.
9. …………. merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust.
10. To commemorate the Hay Market Massacre …………….. is observed as labour day.
Answers:
1. Textile
2. Industrialization
3. Macadamised
4. Stockton and Darlington
5. employment
6. Safety
7. Reform Bill
8. Germany
9. John D. Rockfeller
10. 1^st May

III. (a) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

(b) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Society transformed from an agrarian economy to machine-production.
(ii) Industrial Revolution started first in England and spread to other parts of the world.
(iii) The term Industrial Revolution was popularized by the French economic historians.
(iv) There is no impact on Society and Politics by Industrial Revolution.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) By the first quarter of 19^th century the export of Dacca muslin to England was encouraged.
(ii) India became an exporter of raw materials.
(iii) British factory-made cheap Cotton fabrics in Indian markets.
(iv) The English deliberately destroyed the Indian Industry.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world.
Reason (R): There was however a general decline in agriculture.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.
Reason (R): Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there as did millions of immigrants from Europe.
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Invention of Steam Power
(а) What problems did the mine owners face?
Answer:
In the 18^th century the British mine owners faced with the problem of water seeping into the mines.

(b) What did they do?
Answer:
They employed labourers to pump the water out.

(c) What did the British Engineer do at this juncture?
Answer:
The British Engineer Thomas Newcomen invented a contrive to pump the water out of mines.

(d) Was it successful?
Answer:
No, it consumed too much fuel.

Question 2.
Impact of Industrial Revolution on Labour Class
(a) What was the result of Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
It resulted in increased air and water pollution.

(b) How did it help the people?
Answer:
It helped the people by creating opportunities of employment for all the members of the family.

(c) Was there safety in the mines?
Answer:
No, safety was very poor.

(d) How was the living condition for the labour class?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
In the latter half of the 18th Century major changes occurred in the method of production that changed the history of humankind. This profound transformation is described as the Industrial Revolution. Goods began to be produced not by hand but by machines. This increased the volume of goods produced exponentially.

Question 2.
Mention any three attributes of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Use of new basic material: iron and steel.
2. Use of new energy sources: coal, electricity, petroleum.
3. Development in transportation and communication.

Question 3.
Why did Industrial Revolution begin in England first? Give three reasons.
Answer:

1. England had abundant resources and possessed colonies, with India being “the brightest jewel in the British Crown”.
2. Access to coal, iron and raw cotton from the colonies.
3. England possessed the required infrastructure for textiles, developed by immigrant artisans from the Netherlands. ‘

Question 4.
How was Iron produced in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days iron ore was smelted in brick furnaces. Charcoal was used as fuel. The iron produced was not sturdy and strong. It had to be smelted again. Finally, coke (produced from coal) was used to produce iron. But this was a costly method.

Question 5.
How was the death of the miners reduced?
Answer:
As miners used oil lamps in the mines the risk of explosion was high leading to the death of miners. This was reduced by the invention of a safety lamp by Sir Humphrey Davy in 1815.

Question 6.
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. Comment.
Answer:
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. As production increased raw materials had to be brought from afar to the factories. After the goods were produced they had to be transported to the markets. As a result new networks of canals, roads and railroads were built. Macadamised roads and George Stephenson’s steam locomotive helped to improve road and railway transport system in the country.

Question 7.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution in England in general?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution led to the expansion of trade, the production of more food, emergence of factory workers as a new class. The rise and growth of cities resulting in rapid urbanisation and organised workingclass movements, seeking voting rights and regulation of their service conditions brought about a new dynamics in politics.

Question 8.
Mention the socio-economic consequences of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
While the peasants were pauperized and the working class suffered, the middle class became wealthy by investing capital in trade and industry. The governments of the day were influenced by them. All legislations safeguarded their interests. Labourers were not permitted to form trade unions. It was under these circumstances that Socialism as a new ideology was bom in Europe Karl Marx advocated scientific socialism for the protection of the working class from the exploitative policies of the capitalist class. By the latter half of the nineteenth century there were strong working class movements all over western. Europe which demanded economic as well as political rights.

Question 9.
Give an account of the entry of Industrial Revolution in France.
Answer:
France did not possess as much natural resources as England. The political instability caused by the French Revolution and the prolonged Napoleonic Wars wrecked the country. Many of those French businessmen who had sought refuge in Britain during the Revolution, on their return to France after Napoleonic Wars, used British technology. This helped to accomplish industrial revolution in their country.

Question 10.
Highlight the Industrial Revolution in Germany.
Answer:
Germany surpassed the home of the industrial revolution, Great Britain, and proved a competitor to the United States. In electrics, Germany offered companies like Siemens. In chemicals, Germany excelled in the production of potassium salt, dyes, pharmaceutical products, and synthetics. Companies like Bayer and Hoechst led the chemical industry of Germany. Germany became a leader in the automobile industry. Daimler and Benz became the most popular brands of automobiles in Germany and the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the working class strikes with special reference to Hay Market Massacre.
Answer:
The difficult working conditions in the factories, long hours of work, low wages, exploitation of women and children contributed to the growth of labour unions. After the Civil War, workers organized strikes. One major strike was the Great Railroad Strike of 1877. Wage cuts in the railroad industry, in the context of a prolonged economic depression, led to the strike, which began in West Virginia and spread to three additional states over a period of 45 days before being crushed by a combination of vigilantes, National Guardsmen, and Federal Army.

Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Local Self Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevalent local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73^rd and 74^th constitutional Amendment Acts, were enacted during the year in ………
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
……. act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councilors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …….. is known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of has ……. become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. …… was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which is functioning in the Villages are called …….
5. ….. will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.

Answers:

1. LordRipon
2. panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayats
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by a grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS).
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are nominated by the people.
Answers:
(iii) is correct.

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
The village panchayats levy the following taxes as Property tax, Professional tax, House tax, Taxes on connecting drinking water, Land tax, and Taxes levied on shops.

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Apt 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the new Act are as follows:

1. A three-tier system
2. Gram Sabha
3. Establishment of Election Commission
4. Constitution of Finance Commission
5. Reservation of seats for SC/ST’s proportionate to their population One-third reservation of seats for women and
6. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Important functions of the Village Panchayat are

1. Supply of drinking water
2. Maintenance of street lights
3. Maintenance of Road
4. Maintenance of village libraries
5. Maintenance of small bridges
6. Maintenance of drainage
7. Maintenance of burial grounds

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
According to the Tamil Nadu, Local Government Act passed in 1994, the following functions to be performed as voluntary functions by the local governments.

• Maintenance of street lights in the villages
• Maintenance of markets and fairs
• Implantation of trees
• Maintenance of playgrounds
• Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughterhouses, and cattle sheds
• Control over places of exhibition.

Question 5.
Who is the head of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 6.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:
Urban Local Government

• Town Panchayat
• Municipality
• Corporation.

VI Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient Features of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts (1992)

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
• The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels. Two-tier for smaller states with population below 2 million.
• Seats at all levels filled by direct elections.
  Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels also shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their population.
• One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third of offices of chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
• Uniform five-year term and elections to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term. In the event of dissolution, elections must be held compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self-governments.
Answer:
Local self-governments are the crucial basis for our democracy. The Constitutional status of local self-governments adds more significance to their functioning. There are, however, a few critical concerns in the working of local self-governments in India. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below:

• Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies
• Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched
• Role of caste, class, and religion in decision making at the local self-governments
• Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroots levels of democracy

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your President, Panchayat, Municipal Chairman, and discuss with him how the local self-government administered.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Local Self Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Lord Rippon
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) E.V.R. Periyar
Answer:
(b) Lord Rippon

Question 2.
Panchayat Raj System was introduced in Rajasthan in
(a) 1952
(b) 1953
(c) 1958
(d) 1959
Answer:
(d) 1959

Question 3.
Kuda Olai Murai was the name of the secret ballot method exercised by ….. to elect the village councils.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
There are …… corporations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 5.
…….. was the chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years since 1917.
(a) C.N. Annadurai
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar
(c) M.G. Ramachandran
(d) Raja Gopalachari
Answer:
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Local governments which are functioning in the villages are called Village Panchayat.
(ii) The President and Ward members are indirectly elected.
(iii) Their term office is six years.
(iv) Collector acts as the Inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The area where less than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
(ii) Members and the President of the town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
(iii) Their term office is 5 years.
(iv) There is one Executive officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Mayor is elected by the people.
Reason (R): He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
(a) A is wrong; R is correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answers:
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. After Independence the Gandhian ideas of ……. greatly influenced the constitution-makers.
2. …….. took some steps towards liberalizing the administration in India.
3. ….. are constituted in each and every village wherever the population is above 500.
4. ….. is formed by a grouping of villages.
5. Chennai Municipality was constituted in …….
6. After which British Lord is Chennai Corporation building named?
7. Corporations, Municipalities’ and Town Panchayats are …… bodies.

Answers:

1. Grama Swaraj
2. Ripon
3. Village Panchayats
4. Panchayat Union
5. 1688
6. Lord Ripon
7. urban

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What do you know about the Local Self Government?
Answer:
Local Self-Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community such as a village, a town, or a city. Local Self-Government operates at the lowest level of society. It works at the grassroots level, close to the people, touching their everyday life. Local Self-Government in the management of local affairs by such local bodies that have been elected by the local people. These local bodies provide services to the local community as well as act as an instrument of democratic self-government.

Question 2.
Mention any two salient features of the 73^rd and 74^th constitution Amendment Act 1992.
Answer:

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:
Functions of the Panchayat Union are:

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of Village Health Centres
• Maintenance of roads
• Establishment of Maternity Homes
• Establishment of Public fairs
• Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
• Maintenance of Social forests
• Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 4.
Comment on District Panchayat.
Answer:
A District Panchayat is constituted in each district. One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 5.
What are the functions of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are:

• Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
• Supervising the functions of the District Planning Commission.

Question 6.
List down the important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:
Important functions of the Mayor

• He acts as a bridge between the members of the corporation and the government.
• He presides over the meetings of the Corporation Council.
• He receives dignitaries from foreign countries.

VI. Answer in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the Historical origin and Development of Local Self Government in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a long history of local self-governance as is evident Tamil Nadu, in those days, was a land of village republics, with community groups undertaking many activities for their area development. This tradition reached its peak during the 10th and 11th centuries under the reign of Cholas when Village Councils used to levy taxes, improve community life, and administer justice in their limited area.

These Village Councils had effective links with the Chola rulers. “Kuda Olai Murai” was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the Village Councils. With the downfall of Cholas, the state experienced a decline of the village autonomy and the rise of the centralized feudal administrative system. This continued till British rules introduced local self-governance colonial British Government.

In the post-independence era, the first enactment in democratic decentralization in the state was the Madras Village Panchayats Act, 1950. Pursuant to the White Paper on the ‘Reform of Local Administration’ in 1957, the Madras Panchayats Act, 1958, and the Madras District Development Council Act were enacted with the following salient features.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Ex 6.3

Question 1.
Show that the lines are 3x + 2y + 9 = 0 and 12x + 8y – 15 = 0 are parallel lines.
Solution:

Here m₁ = m₂ ⇒ the two lines are parallel.

Question 2.
Find the equation of the straight line parallel to 5x – 4y + 3 = 0 and having x – intercept 3.
Solution:
Equation of a line parallel to ax + by + c = 0 will be of the form ax + by + k = 0
So equation of a line parallel to 5x – 4y + 3 = 0 will be of the form 5x – 4y = k

Question 3.
Find the distance between the line 4x + 3y + 4 = 0 and a point
(i) (-2, 4)
(ii) (7, -3)
Solution:
The distance between the line ax + by + c = 0 and the point(x₁, y₁) is given by

(i) Now the distance between the line 4x + 3y + 4 = 0 and (-2, 4) is

(ii) The distance between the line 4x + 3y + 4 = 0 and (7, -3) is

Question 4.
Write the equation of the lines through the point (1, -1)
(i) Parallel to x + 3y – 4 = 0
(ii) Perpendicular to 3x + 4y = 6
Solution:
(i) Parallel to x + 3y – 4 = 0
The equation of any line parallel to the line
x + 3y – 4 = 0 is x + 3y + k = 0 ………… (1)
This line passes through the point (1, – 1)
∴ (1) ⇒ 1 + 3 (-1 ) + k = 0
1 – 3 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 2
∴ The equation of the required line is
x + 3y + 2 = 0

(ii) Perpendicular to 3x + 4y = 6
The equation of any line perpendicular to 3x + 4y = 6 is
4x – 3y + k = 0 …………. (2)
This line passes through the point (1,-1)
(2) ⇒ (4) 1 – 3 (-1) + k = 0
4 + 3 + k = 0 ⇒ k = – 7
∴ The required equation is 4x – 3y – 7 = 0

Question 5.
If (- 4, 7) is one vertex of a rhombus and if the equation of one diagonal is 5x – y + 7 = 0, then find the equation of another diagonal.
Solution:
Let the equation of the diagonal AC be 5x – y + 7 = 0 ……….. (1)
Since (-4, 7) does not satisfy equation (1), (- 4, 7 ) represents neither A nor C.
Let (-4, 7) represent the vertex D.
The diagonal BD is perpendicular to AC
The equation of any line perpendicular to line (1) is – x – 5y + k = 0 ……….. (2)
This line passes through the point D (-4, 7)
∴ (2) ⇒ -(-4) – 5(7) + k = 0
4 – 35 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 31
∴ The equation of the other diagonal is
-x – 5y + 31 = 0
x + 5y – 31 = 0

Question 6.
Find the equation of the lines passing through the point of intersection lines 4x – y + 3 = 0 and 5x + 2y +7 = 0, and
(i) Through the point (-1, 2)
(ii) Parallel to x – y + 5 = 0
(iii) Perpendicular to x – 2y + 1 = 0.
Solution:
To find the point of intersection of the lines we have to solve them

Substituting x = -1 in equation (2) we get
-5 + 2y = -7
⇒ 2y = – 7 + 5 = -2
⇒ y = -1
So the point of intersection is (-1, -1)

(ii) Parallel to x – y + 5 = 0
Given that the line (1) is parallel to the line
x – y + 5 = 0 ………. (2)
∴ Slope of line (1) = Slope of line (2)
(4x – y + 3) + λ (5x + 2y + 7) = 0
4x – y + 3 + 5λx + 2λy + 7λ = 0
(4 + 5λ)x + (2λ – 1)y + 3 + 7λ = 0
Slope of this line = \(-\frac{4+5 \lambda}{2 \lambda-1}\)
Slope of line (2) = –\(\frac{1}{-1}\) = 1
These two slopes are equal
\(-\frac{4+5 \lambda}{2 \lambda-1}\) = 1
– (4 + 5λ) = 2λ – 1
– 4 – 5λ = 2λ – 1
2λ + 5λ – 1 + 4 = 0
7λ + 3 = 0 ⇒ λ = –\(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Substituting the value of λ in equation (1), we have
(4x – y + 3) –\(-\frac{3}{7}\) (5x + 2y + 7) = 0
7 (4x – y + 3) – 3 (5x + 2y + 7) = 0
28x – 7y + 21 – 15x – 6y – 21 =0
13x – 13y = 0
x – y = 0

(iii) Equation of a line perpendicular to x – 2y+ 1 =0 will be of the form 2x + y + k = 0. It passes through (-1, -1) ⇒ -2 – 1 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 3.
So the required line is 2x + y + 3 = 0

Question 7.
Find the equations of two straight lines which are parallel to the line 12x + 5y + 2 = 0 and at a unit distance from the point (1, -1).
Solution:
Equation of a line parallel to 12x + 5y + 2 = 0 will be of the form 12x + 5y + k = 0.
We are given that the perpendicular distance form (1, -1) to the line 12x + 5y + k = 0 is 1 unit.

So the required line will be 12x + 5y + 6 = 0 or 12x + 5y – 20 = 0

Question 8.
Find the equations of straight lines which are perpendicular to the line 3x + 4y – 6 = 0 and are at a distance of 4 units from (2, 1).
Solution:
Given equation of line is 3x + 4y – 6 = 0.
Any line perpendicular to 3x + 4y – 6 = 0 will be of the form 4x – 3y + k = 0
Given perpendicular distance is 4 units from (2, 1) to line (1)

∴ 20 = + (5 + k) or 20 = – (5 + k)
⇒ k = 20 – 5 or k = -(20 + 5)
k = 15 or k : = -25
∴ Required equation of the lines are 4x – 3y + 15 = 0 and 4x – 3y – 25 = 0

Question 9.
Find the equation of a straight line parallel to 2x + 3y = 10 and which is such that the sum of its intercepts on the axes is 15.
Solution:
The equation of the line parallel to 2x + 3y = 10 will be of the form 2x + 3y = k .

Question 10.
Find the length of the perpendicular and the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular from (-10, -2) to the line x + y – 2 = 0.
Solution:
Length of the perpendicular from (-10, -2) to x + y – 2 = 0 is

Question 11.
If p₁ and p₂ are the lengths of the perpendiculars from the origin to the straight lines. sec θ +y cosec θ = 2a and x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ, then prove that _{p_{1}^{2}+p_{2}^{2}=a^{2}}
Solution:
p₁ = length of perpendicular from (0, 0) to x sec θ + y cosec θ = 2a

Question 12.
Find the distance between the parallel lines
(i) 12x + 5y = 7 and 12x + 5y + 7 = 0
(ii) 3x – 4y + 5 = 0 and 6x – 8y – 15 = 0.
Solution:

Question 13.
Find the family of straight lines
(i) Perpendicular
(ii) Parallel to 3x + 4y – 12 = 0.
Solution:
(i) The equation of the family of straight lines perpendicular to 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 is 4x – 3y + k = 0 where k ∈ R
(ii) The equation of the family of straight lines parallel to the straight line 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 is 3x + 4y + λ = 0 , λ ∈ R

Question 14.
If the line joining two points A (2, 0) and B (3, 1) is rotated about A in an anti-clockwise direction through an angle of 15°, then find the equation of the line in the new position.
Solution:

This line is rotated about 15° in an anti-clockwise direction
⇒ New slope = tan (45° + 15°) = tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\) (i.e) m = \(\sqrt{3}\).
Point A = (2, 0)

Question 15.
A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) is reflected at a point A on the x-axis and it passes through the point (5, 3). Find the coordinates of point A.
Solution:
The image of the point P (1, 2) will be P’ (1, -2).
Since ∠OAP = ∠XAQ (angle of inches = angle of reflection) So ∠OAP’ = ∠XAQ = a (Vertically opposite angles)
⇒ P’, A, Q lie on the same line.

Now equation of the line P’, Q is [where P’ = (1, -2), Q = (5, 3)]

Since we find a point of intersection with the x-axis we put y = 0.

Question 16.
A line is drawn perpendicular to 5x = y + 7. Find the equation of the line if the area of the triangle formed by this line with co-ordinate axes is 10 sq. units.
Solution:
Equation of the given lines 5x = y + 7 ⇒ 5x – y = 7.
So its perpendicular will be of the form x + 5y = 7

Question 17.
Find the image of the point (-2, 3) about the line x + 2y – 9 = 0.
Solution:
The coordinates of the image of the point (x₁, y₁) with respect to the line ax + by + c = 0 can be

Question 18.
A photocopy store charges Rs. 1.50 per copy for the first 10 copies and Rs. 1.00 per copy after the 10th copy. Let x be the number of copies, and let y be the total cost of photocopying.
(i) Draw a graph of the cost as x goes from 0 to 50 copies.
(ii) Find the cost of making 40 copies
Solution:

Question 19.
Find atleast two equations of the straight lines in the family of the lines y = 5x + b, for which b and the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of the lines with 3x – 4y = 6 are integers.
Solution:
y = 5x + b …….. (1)
3x-4y = 6 …….. (2)
Solving (1) and (2)
Substituting y value from (1) in (2) we get


Since x coordinate and 6 are integers 6 + 46 must be a multiple of 17

Question 20.
Find all the equations of the straight lines in the family of the lines y = mx – 3, for which m and the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of the lines with x – y = 6 are integers.
Solution:
Equation of the given lines are
y= mx – 3 …….. (1)
and x – y = 6 ……. (2)
Solving (1) and (2)
x – (mx – 3) = 6

Since m and x coordinates are integers
1 – m is the divisor of 3 (i.e) ± 1, ± 3

So equation of lines are (y = mx – 3) ,y = mx – 3
(i) When m = 0, y = -3
(ii) When m = 2, y = 2x – 3
(iii) When m = -2, y = -2x – 3 or 2x + y + 3 = 0
(iv) When m = 4, y = 4x – 3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Ex 6.3 Additional Questions

Question 1.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (5, 2) and perpendicular to the line joining the points (2, 3) and (3, -1).
Solution:
Slope of the line joining the points (2, 3) and (3, -1) is

Slope of the required line which is perpendicular to it

Equation of the line passing through the point (5, 2) is

Hence, the required equation is x – 4y + 3 = 0.

Question 2.
Find the points on the line x + y = 4 which lie at a unit distance from the line 4x + 3y = 10. Solution:

So, the required point is (3, 1)
Now taking(-) sign, we have

So, the required point is (- 7, 11)
Hence, the required points on the given line are (3, 1) and (-7, 11).

Question 3.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point of intersection 2x + y = 5 and x + 3y + 8 = 0 and parallel to the line 3x +4y = 7.
Solution:

On putting the value of λ in equation (iv) we get
(2x + y – 5) + 1 (x + 3y + 8) = 0
⇒ 2x + y – 5 + x + 3y + 8 = 0
⇒ 3x + 4y + 3 = 0
Hence, the required equation is 3x + 4y + 3 = 0

Question 4.
A line passing through the points (a, 2a) and (-2, 3) is perpendicular to the line 4 x + 3y + 5 = 0, find the value of a.
Solution:

Question 5.
Find the equation of the straight line which passes through the intersection of the straight lines 2x + y = 8 and 3x – 2y + 7 = 0 and is parallel to the straight line 4x + y – 11 = 0.
Solution:
Equation of line through the intersection of straight lines 2x + y = 8 and 3x – 2y + 7 = 0 is 2x + y – 8 + k (3x – 2y + 7) = 0
x(2 + 3k) + y (1 – 2k) +(-8 + 7k) = 0

⇒ 28x + 7y – 74 = 0

Question 6.
Find the equation of the straight line passing through intersection of the straight lines 5x – 6y = 1 and 3x + 2y + 5 = 0 and perpendicular to the straight line 3x – 5y + 11 = 0.
Solution:
Equation of line through the intersection of straight lines 5x – 6y = 1 and 3x + 2y + 5 = 0 is
5x – 6y – 1 + k (3x + 2y + 5) = 0
x (5 + 3k) + y (-6 + 2k) + (-1 + 5k) = 0
This is perpendicular to 3x – 5y + 11 = 0
That is, the product of their slopes is -1

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Employment in India and Tamilnadu

Employment in India and Tamilnadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
We take age group …….. years for computation of the workforce.
(a) 12 – 60
(b) 15 – 60
(c) 21 – 65
(d) 5 – 14
Answer:
(b) 15 – 60

Question 2.
Which is the correct sequence of various sectors in GDP of India in the descending order?
(a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector
(d) Secondary sector, Tertiary sector, Primary sector
Answer:
(a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector

Question 3.
Which one of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Public sector
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not in Primary Sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Mining
(d) Fishery
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not in the Secondary Sector?
(a) Construction
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Small Scale Industry
(d) Forestry
Answer:
(d) Forestry

Question 6.
Tertiary Sector include/s …..
(a) Transport
(b) Insurance
(c) Banking
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 7.
Match the List I with List II using the codes given below:

Answer:
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 8.
Which sector is not included in the occupational pattern?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(d) Private sector

Question 9.
Which Delhi Sultan of medieval India formed ‘Employment Bureau’ to solve the un-employment problem?
(a) Muhamad Bin Tugluq
(b) Allauddin Khilji
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq
(d) Balban
Answer:
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq

Question 10.
…….. sector is registered and follows government rules.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Organised
(c) Unorganised
(d) Private
Answer:
(b) Organised

Question 11.
……. sector provides j.ob security and higher wages
(a) Public sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(b) Organised sector

Question 12.
Find the odd one.
(a) Banking
(b) Railways
(c) Insurance
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(b) Railways

Question 13.
The sectors are classified into Public and Private sectors on the basis of ……….
(a) number of workers employed
(b) nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) employment conditions
Answer:
(c) ownership of enterprises

Question 14.
Assertion (A): The unorganised sector of the economy characterised by the household manufacturing activity and small-scale industry.
Reason (R): Jobs here are low paid and often not regular
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 15.
People who employ workers and pay rewards for their work is termed as ……
(a) employee
(b) employer
(c) labour
(d) caretaker
Answer:
(b) employer

Question 16.
……. continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Banking
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. In the ……. sector, the employment terms are not fixed and regular.
2. Economic activities are classified into ……….. and …… sectors.
3. …….. has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
4. Employment pattern changes due to …….
5. The nature of employment in India is ………
6. ……. of the economy is the number of people in the country, who work and also capable of working.
7. Public sector means ……….

Answers:

1. unorganised
2. Public and Private
3. Employment
4. the lifestyle of the people
5. multi-dimensional
6. Labour force
7. Government undertaking

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What is labour force of the economy?
Answer:

1. Labour force of the economy is the number of people in the country who works and also capable of working.
2. We take the age group 15-60 years for the computation of the workforce.
3. Person less than 15 years are considered as children, and persons who have crossed 60 years of age are excluded as they are not physically fit & undertake productive occupations.

Question 2.
Why are children and old age (above 60 years) are not considered for the computation of the workforce?
Answer:
We take the age group of 15-60 years for the computation of the workforce. Persons who are less than 15 years are considered as children and people who have crossed 60 years of age are excluded as they are not physically fit to undertake productive occupations. Hence they are not considered for computation of the workforce.

Question 3.
What are the three sectors of an economy?
Answer:
The three sectors of the Indian economy are

1. Primary Sector – Agriculture, poultry.
2. Secondary Sector – Manufacturing, constructional activities.
3. Tertiary Sector – Transport, Insurance.

Question 4.
Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in Gross Domestic Product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu. Give reason.
Answer:
Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in the gross domestic product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu. This is because the non-agriculture sectors are yet to generate enough employment to affect a shift of labour force.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain:
(a) primary sector;
(b) secondary sector;
(c) tertiary sector.
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector

1. Primary, activities are directly dependent on the environment as these refer to the utilization of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals.
2. It includes hunting and gathering, pastoral activities fishing, foresting, agriculture, mining and quarrying.
3. People engaged in primary activities are called red – collar workers due to the outdoor nature of their work.

(b) Secondary Sector:

1. Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.
2. These activities are concerned with manufacturing, processing and construction industries.
3. People engaged in secondary activities are called blue-collar workers.

(c) Tertiary Sector:

1. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.
2. The production involves the provision of services that are consumed.
3. The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.
4. Tertiary jobs are called white-collar jobs.

Question 2.
Explain the employment structure of India.
Answer:

1. The nature of employment in India is multi-dimensional. Some get employment throughout the year; some others get employed for only a few months in a year.
2. The economy is classified into three sectors: primary or agriculture sector, secondary or industrial sector and tertiary or service sector.
3. The structure of employment denotes the number of workers engaged in different sectors of the economy.
4. Though the occupational pattern varies from one country to another, one can find in developing countries like India that a large workforce will be engaged in primary sector, while a small proportion in secondary and tertiary sectors.
5. Whereas, in well-developed countries, the proportion of workforce engaged in agriculture will be very small and a majority of labour force will be in the industrial and tertiary sectors.
6. Employment has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
7. Employment growth has increased at an average rate of 2% during the past four decades since 1972 – 73.

Question 3.
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised
sectors.
Answer:

Question 4.
Distinguish between the Public sector and the Private sector.
Answer:

VI. Projects and Activities.

Question 1.
Make a long list of all kinds of work that you find for adults around you. In what way can you classify them?
Answer:
(a) Agriculture, Food & Natural resources.
(b) Business, Management & Administration.
(c) Communication & Information Systems.
(d) Engineering, Manufacturing & Technology.
(e) Health Science Technology.
(f) Human Services.

Question 2.
A research scholar looked at the working people in the city of Chennai and found the following:
Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the following list of occupations under primary, secondary and tertiary sectors. Milk vendor, tailor, teacher, doctor, farmer, postman, engineer, potter, fisherman, artisans, policeman, banker, driver, carpenter.
Answer:

VII. HOTS.

The tertiary sector is in the top position in the world now. Justify
Answer:

1. The tertiary sector consists of the ‘soft part’ of the economy, ie, activities where people offer their knowledge and time to improve productivity, performance, potential, and sustainability.
2. The basic characteristic of this sector is the production of services instead of end products.
3. In other words, services, known as intangible goods including many production systems, such as hospitals, beauty saloons consulting companies, banks, financial institutions, schools, restaurants, and others do not produce a tangible product.
4. Instead, the output of such systems is a service.
5. Hence the tertiary sector is also known as the service industry sector.
6. India ranks 9th in the tertiary sector output as per IMF and CTA world fact Book, 2015
7. This sector provides employment to around 23% of the total workforce in the country.
8. The service sector is the support for the social, economic growth of a country.
9. It is today the largest and fastest-growing sector globally contributing more to the output and employing more people than any other sector
10. The real reason for the growth of the service sector is due to the increase in urbanization, privatisation, and increasing demand for intermediate and final consumer services.
11. In advanced economies, the growth in the primary and secondary sectors are directly dependent on the growth of services like banking insurance, trade, commerce, entertainment, social and personal, etc.
12. The U.S. and other developed economics are non dominated by the services sector, accounting for more than two-thirds of their Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

VIII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
Discuss the sectors of your village economy.
Answer:

1. The teacher will make the students gain knowledge of the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors.
2. The students will be asked to collect information regarding the three sectors.
3. The students will be advised to classify the jobs available under the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors in their village.

Employment in India and Tamilnadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The nature of employment in India is
(a) Two-dimensional
(b) Three dimensional
(c) Multi-dimensional
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Multi-dimensional

Question 2.
This is the Primary Sector.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Small scale Industries
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 3.
This sector do not enjoy any special benefit.
(a) Organised Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Private Sector
Answer:
(b) Unorganised Sector

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Unorganised sector jobs are low paid.
Reason (R): These employees have no job security.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A).

Question 5.
Find the odd one.
(a) Transport
(b) Insurance
(c) Banking
(d) Poultry
Answer:
(d) Poultry

Question 6.
This is the Private Sector.
(a) TVS Motors
(b) NLC
(c) SAIL
(d) BSNL
Answer:
(a) TVS Motors

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. To survive in the world we all need …… to earn money.
2. In well-developed countries the proportion of workforce engaged in ……. will be very smart.
3. …….. sector has some formal processes and procedures.
4. ……. are not registered with the government.
5. Most of the …….. in Tamil Nadu has been contributed by the unorganised and informal sectors.

Answers:

1. employment
2. Agriculture
3. Organized
4. Unorganised Sectors
5. employment growth

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Who are called employees?
Answer:
Those who are engaged in economic activities, in whatever capacity – high (or) low are called employees.

Question 2.
What is the nature of employment in India?
Answer:
The nature of employment in India is multi-dimensional. Some get employment throughout the year. Some others get employed for only a few months in a year.

Question 3.
Mention the recent trends in the working pattern of the employees.
Answer:
The trends are

• Increasing self-employment.
• Firms using fewer full-time employees and tending to offer more short-term contracts.
• There has been a growth in part-time employment.

Question 4.
What does the structure of employment denote?
Answer:
Structure of employment denotes the number of workers engaged in different sectors of the economy.