Prasanna

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Bill, Profit and Loss Ex 3.2

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
A shopkeeper buys three articles for ₹ 325, ₹ 450, and ₹ 510. He is able to sell them for ₹ 350, ₹ 425, and ₹ 525 respectively. Find the gain or loss to the shopkeeper on the whole.
Solution:
Total cost price of the three articles = Rs 325 + Rs 450 + Rs 510 = Rs 1285
Total selling price of the three articles = Rs 350 + Rs 425 + Rs 525 = Rs 1,300
CP < SP
Profit = SP – CP
= Rs 1,300 – Rs 1,285
= Rs 15

Question 2.
A stationery shop owner bought a scientific calculator for Rs 750. He had put a battery worth Rs 100 in it. He had spent Rs 50 for its outer pouch. He was able to sell it for Rs 850. Find his profit or loss.
Solution:
CP = Rs 750 + Rs 100 + Rs 50
= Rs 900
SP = Rs 850
SP < CP
Loss = CP – SP
= Rs 900 – Rs 850
= Rs 50

Question 3.
Nathan paid ₹ 800 and bought 10 bottles of honey from a village vendor. He sold them in a city for ₹ 100 per bottle. Find his profit or loss.
Solution:
Cost of 10 bottles of honey = Rs 800
CP = Rs 800
Selling price of 10 bottles = Rs 100 × 10
SP = Rs 1000
SP > CP
Profit = SP – CP
= Rs 1,000 – Rs 800
= Rs 200

Question 4.
A man bought 400 metre of cloth for Rs 60,000 and sold it at the rate of Rs 400 per metre. Find his profit or loss.
Solution:
Cost of 400 m of cloth = Rs 60,000
CP = Rs 60,000
Selling price of 400 m of cloth = 400 × Rs 400
SP = Rs 1,60,000
SP > CP
Profit = SP – CP
= Rs 1,60,000 – Rs 60,000
= Rs. 1,00,000

Challenge Problems

Question 5.
A fruit seller bought 2 dozen bananas at ₹ 20 a dozen and sold them at ₹ 3 per banana. Find his gain or loss.
Solution:
Cost price of 2 dozen bananas = 2 × Rs 20
CP = Rs. 40
2 dozen = 24 bananas
Selling price of 2 dozen bananas = Rs 3 × 24
SP = Rs 72
SP > CP
Profit = SP – CP
= Rs 72 – Rs 40
= Rs 32

Question 6.
A store purchased pens at Rs 216 per dozen. He paid Rs 58 for conveyance and sold the pens at the discount of Rs 2 per pen and made an overall profit of Rs 50. Find the M.P. of each pen.
Solution:
Cost of 1 dozen pens = Rs 216 + Rs 58
CP = Rs 274
Discount for each pen = Rs 2
Overall profit = Rs 50
Total discount for 12 pens = Rs 2 × 12
= Rs 24
Selling price of 12 pens = Mp – Discount
SP = Mp – Rs 24
Profit = SP – CP
Rs 50 = Mp – Rs 24 – Rs 274
MP = Rs 50 + Rs 24 + Rs 274
= Rs 348 (1 dozen)
MP of each pen = Rs 348 / 12
= Rs 174/6
= Rs 29

Question 7.
A vegetable vendor buys 10 kg of tomatoes per day at ₹ 10 per kg, for the first three days of a weak. 1 kg of tomatoes got smashed on every day for those 3 days. For the remaining 4 days of the week, he buys 15 kg of tomatoes daily at ₹ 8 per kg. If for the entire week he sells tomatoes at ₹ 20 per kg, then find his profit or loss for the week.
Solution:
First 3 days
Tomatoes purchased for one day = 10 Kg
Tomatoes purchased for 3 days = 3 × 10 Kg = 30 Kg
The cost price of purchasing 30 Kg of Tomatoes = Rs 10 × 30 = Rs 300
Next four days
Tomatoes purchased for one day = 15 Kg
Tomatoes purchased for four days = 4 × 15 Kg = 60 Kg
Cost price of purchasing 60 Kg of Tomatoes = Rs 8 × 60 = Rs 480
Total cost price = Rs 300 + Rs 480 = Rs 780
Tomatoes smashed on the first 3 days = 3 x 1 Kg = 3 Kg
Remaining Tomatoes on the first 3 days = (30 – 3) Kg = 27 Kg
Weight of the remaining tomatoes in that week = (27 + 60) Kg = 87 Kg
The selling price of 1 Kg of Tomato = Rs 20
The selling price of 87 Kg of Tomatoes = Rs 20 × 87
SP = Rs 1,740
SP > CP
Profit = SP – CP = Rs 1,740 – Rs 780 = Rs 960

Question 8.
An electrician buys a used T.V. for Rs 12,000 and a used Fridge for Rs 11,000. After spending Rs 1,000 on repairing the T.V. and Rs 1500 on painting the Fridge, he fixes up the M.P. of T.V. as Rs 15,000 and that of Fridge as Rs 15,500. If he gives Rs 1000 discount on each find his profit or loss.
Solution:
Total cost price of TV and Fridge = Rs 12,000 + Rs 11,000 + Rs 1,000 + Rs 1,500 = Rs 25,500
Selling price of TV = MP – Discount = Rs 15,000 – Rs 1,000 = Rs 14,000
Selling price of Fridge = MP – Discount = Rs 15,500 – Rs 1,000 = Rs 14,500
Total Selling price of TV and Fridge = Rs 14,000 + Rs 14,500 = Rs 28,500
SP > CP
Profit = SP – CP = Rs 28,500 – Rs 25,500 = Rs 3,000

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART -1

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who is regarded as the “Father of Modem Macro Economics”?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Ranger Frisch
(d) Karl Marks
Answer:
(b) J.M. Keynes

Question 2.
The Financial year in India is………..
(a) April 1st to March 31st
(b) March 1st to April 30th
(c) March 1st to March 16th
(d) Jan 1st to Dec 31st
Answer:
(a) April 1st to March 31st

Question 3.
The concept, National Income was first introduced by ………..
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Richardo
(d) Simon Kuznets
Answer:
(d) Simon Kuznets

Question 4.
In disguised unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour is…………
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) positive
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 5.
The sum of MPC and MPS is………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.1
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 6.
If the MPC is 0.5, the multiplier is………..
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 0.2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
The headquarters of Reserve Bank of India is located at……….
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Banglore
Answer:
(c) Mumbai

Question 8.
The new currency symbol (T) in India was designed by………
(a) L. Sivakumar
(b) T. Udaya Chandran
(c) D. Udayakumar
(d) Amartya Kumar Sen
Answer:
(c) D. Udayakumar

Question 9.
“Repo rate (RR)” meAnswer:………..
(a) Rate at which the commercial banks are willing to lend to RBI
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks
(c) Exchange rate of foreign bank
(d) Growth rate of the economy
Answer:
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks

Question 10.
Export – Import bank was established in………..
(a) June 1982
(b) April 1982
(c) May 1982
(d) March 1982
Answer:
(d) March 1982

Question 11.
Exchange rates are determined in………
(a) Monetary economy
(b) Stock market
(c) Foreign exchange market
(d) Capital market
Answer:
(c) Foreign exchange market

Question 12.
IBRD is otherwise called as………..
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World bank
(c) ASEAN
(d) International finance corporations
Answer:
(b) World bank

Question 13.
International monetary fund has its headquarters at………
(a) Washington DC
(b) New York
(c) Vienna
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(a) Washington DC

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a tax under union list?
(a) Personal Income Tax
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Agricultural Income Tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(d) Excise duty

Question 15.
The true statements of the following………
(i) The 14th Finance commission is headed by C. Rangarajan
(ii) The recommendations of this commission will come into effect from April 1, 2015, is /are
(a) i only is correct
(b) ii only is correct
(c) both are correct
(d) none of the above is correct
Answer:
(d) none of the above is correct

Question 16.
Which of the following is the main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
Answer:
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 17.
Which is responsible for protecting people from harmful ultra violet rays?
(a) UV -A
(b) UV – C
(c) Ozone layer
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ozone layer

Question 18.
Arrange the following in chronological order……….
(i) People’s Plan
(ii) Bombay Plan
(iii) Jawaharlal Nehru Plan
(iv) Vishveshwarya Plan
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Question 19.
Choose the correct answer for the given assertion and reason.
Assertion (A): The deficiency of capital, in turn leads to low levels of productivity and back to low income.
Reason (R): The low level of saving leads to low investment and to deficiency of capital.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will be
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) 0
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) Positive

PART – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define the term inflation.
Inflation refers to steady increase in general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as wholesale Price. Index, Consumer Price Index, efc, are needed.

Question 22.
What is GDP deflator?
Answer:
GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. It is a price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.
GDP deflator = \(\frac{Nominal GDP}{Real GDP}\) x 100

Question 23.
What is investment functions?Answer:
The investment function refers to investment -interest rate relationship. There is a functional and inverse relationship between rate of interest and investment. The investment function slopes downward.
I = f(r)
1= Investment (Dependent variable)
r = Rate of interest (Independent variable)

Question 24.
Write a note on stagflation.
Answer:
Stagflation is a combination of stagnant economic growth, high unemployment and high inflation.

Question 25.
Distinguish between CRR and SLR.
Answer:

S.No.	CRR	SLR
1.	The Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserves Ratio.	Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the amount which a bank has to maintain in the form of cash, gold or approved securities.
2.	Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit, this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.	The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities.
3.	So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.	The liabilities of the bank which are payable on demand anytime, and those liabilities which are accruing in one month’s time due to maturity.

Question 26.
What is meant by Balance of Payment?
Answer:

1. BoP is a systematic record of a country’s economic and financial transactions with the rest of the world over a period of time.
2. When a payment is received from a foreign country, it is a credit transaction while a payment to a foreign country is a debit transaction.
3. The principal items shown on the credit side are exports of goods and services, transfer receipts in the form of gift etc., from foreigners, borrowing from abroad, foreign direct investment and official sale of reserve assets including gold to foreign countries and international agencies.
4. The principal items on the debit side include imports of goods and services, transfer payments to foreigners, lending to foreign countries, investments by residents in foreign countries and official purchase of reserve assets or gold from foreign countries and international agencies.

Question 27.
Write the meaning of special drawing rights.
Answer:
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs):

• The Fund has succeeded in establishing a scheme of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) which is otherwise called ‘Paper Gold’.
• They are a form of international reserves created by the IMF in 1969 to solve the problem of international liquidity.
• They are allocated to the IMF members in proportion to their Fund quotas.
• SDRs are used as a means of payment by Fund members to meet balance of payments deficits and their total reserve position with the Fund.
• Thus SDRs act both as an international unit of account and a means of payment.
• All transactions by the Fund in the form of loans and their repayments, its liquid reserves, . its capital, etc., are expressed in the SDR.

Question 28.
Differentiate between tax and fee.
Answer:

S.No.	Tax	Fee
1	A tax is a compulsory payment made to the government.	Fees are another important source of revenue for the government.
2	People on whom a tax is imposed must pay the tax.	A fee is charged by public authorities for rendering a service to the citizens.
3	There is no quid pro quo between a taxpayer and public authorities. This means that the tax payer cannot claim any specific benefit against the payment of a tax.	The government provides certain services and charges certain fees for them. For example, fees are charged for issuing of passports, driving licenses, etc.

Question 29.
Define regression.
Answer:

1. The term ‘Regression’ was first coined and used in 1877 by Francis Galton while studying the relationship between the height of fathers and sons.
2. The average height of children born of parents of a given height tended to move or “regress” toward the average height in the population as a whole.
3. Gabon’s law of universal regression was confirmed by his friend Karl Pearson, who collected more than a thousand records of heights of members of family groups.
4. The literal meaning of the word “regression” is “Stepping back towards the average”.

Question 30.
What is pollution and write the types of pollution?
Answer:
Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the natural environment that causes adverse change, in the form of killing of life, toxicity of environment, damage to ecosystem and aesthetics of our surrounding.
Types of Pollution

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Noise pollution
4. Land pollution

PART – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
List out the uses of National Income.
The following are some of the concepts used in measuring national income.
GDP:
GDP is the total market value of final goods and services produced within the country during a year. This is calculated at market prices and is known as GDP at market prices. Thus GDP by expenditure method at market prices = C + I + G + (X – M)
Where C – Consumption goods;
I – Investment goods;
G – Government purchases;
(X – M) is net export which can be positive or negative.

Net National Product (NNP) (at Market price):
Net National Product refers to the value of the net output of the economy during the year. NNP is obtained by deducting the value of depreciation, or replacement allowance of the capital assets from the GNP. It is expressed as,
NNP = GNP – depreciation allowance.

NNP at Factor cost:
NNP refers to the market value of output. NNP at factor cost is the total of income payment made to factors of production.

Personal Income:
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.

Per Capita Income:
The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called Per Capita Income. Per capita income is obtained by dividing national income by population.
Per Capita income = \(\frac{National income}{population}\)

Disposable Income:

1. Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income.
2. It is the individuals income after the payment of income tax.
3. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Real Income:
Nominal income is national income expressed in terms of a general price level of a particular year in other words, real income is the buying power of nominal income.

GDP deflator:
GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. It is a price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.

Question 32.
Explain Keynes theory in the form of flow chart.
Answer:

Question 33.
Complete the table.

Income	Consumption	Savings
0	20
60		-10
	120	0
		10
.240	220

Answer:

Income	Consumption	Savings
0	20	-20
60	70	-10
120	120	0
180	170	10
.240	220	20

Question 34.
What are the functions of NABARD?
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.
(i) NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

(ii) NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of co-operative credit societies.

(iii) NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

(iv) NABARD has the responsibility of co-ordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

(v) It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development.

Question 35.
What are the import quotas?
Answer:
Import Control: Imports may be controlled by

1. imposing or enhancing import duties
2. restricting imports through import quotas
3. licensing and even prohibiting altogether the import of certain non-essential items. But this would encourage smuggling.

Question 36.
Multilateral Agreement – Comment.
Answer:
Multilateral trade agreement: It is a multi national legal or trade agreements between countries. It is an agreement between more than two countries but not many. The various agreements implemented by the WTO such as TRIPS, TRIMS, GATS, AoA, MFA have been discussed.

Question 37.
Point out any three differences between direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:

S.No.	Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
1	Progressive	Regressive
2	Falls on the same person.	Falls on different persons.
3	Cannot be shifted.	Can be shifted

Question 38.
List out the functions of NITIAAYOG.
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:

1. Cooperative and Competitive Federalism: To enable the States to have active participation in the formulation of national policy.
2. Shared National Agenda: To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of States.
3. Decentralized Planning: To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model.
4. Vision and Scenario Planning: To design medium and long-term strategic frameworks towards India’s future.
5. Network of Expertise: To mainstream external ideas and expertise into government policies and programmes through a collective participation.
6. Harmonization: To facilitate harmonization of actions across different layers of government, especially when involving cross-cutting and overlapping issues across multiple sectors; through communication, coordination, collaboration and convergence amongst all the stakeholders.
7. Conflict Resolution: To provide platform for mutual consensus to inter-sectoral, inter¬departmental, inter-state as well as centre-state issues for all speedy execution of the government programmes.
8. Coordinating Interface with the World: It will act nodal point to harness global expertise and resources coming from International organizations for India’s developmental process.
9. Internal Consultancy: It provides internal consultancy to Central and State governments on policy and programmes.
10. Capacity Building: It enables to provide capacity building and technology up-gradation across government, benchmarking with latest global trends and providing managerial and technical know-how.
11. Monitoring and Evaluation: It will monitor the implementation of policies and progammes and evaluate the impacts.

Question 39.
What are the determinants of money supply?
Answer:
Determinants of Money Supply:

1. Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR): It is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. .
2. Reserve deposit Ratio (RDR): Reserve Money consists of two things (a) vault cash in banks and (b) deposits of commercial banks with RBI.
3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the fraction of the deposits the banks must keep with RBI.
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): It is the fraction of the total demand and time deposits of the commercial banks is the form of specified liquid assets.

Question 40.
Mention the limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. The functioning of an economy by its activities is explained in flow chart.

1. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
2. These two activities are supported by several other activities.
3. The ultimate aim of these activities is to achieve growth. The ‘exchange activity’ supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non-economic activities.
4. The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy and others.
5. The major non-economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment, governance, regulations etc.
6. In addition to these supporting activities, external activities from other economies such as import, export, international relations, emigration, immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings, etc. also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Calculate the Karl Person Correlation co-efficient for the following data.

Answer:

Take the assumed values A = 31 & B = 26
Therefore dx = X – A ⇒ X – 31 and
dy = Y – A ⇒ Y – 26

r = 0.9956 (or) 0.9955
= (0.9955)

Question 42 (a).
Discuss the economic determinants of economic development.
Answer:
Determinants of Economic Development:
Economic development is not determined by any single factor. Economic development depends on Economic, Social, Political and Religious factors.
Economic and Non-Economic Factors:

Economic Factors:
1. Natural Resource: The principal factor affecting the development of an economy is the availability of natural resources. The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.

2. Capital Formation: Capital formation is the main key to economic growth. Capital formation refers to the net addition to the existing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.

3. Size of the Market: Large size of the market would stimulate production, increase employment and raise the National per capita income. That is why developed countries expand their market to other countries through WTO.

4. Structural Change: Structural change refers to change in the occupational structure of the economy. Any economy of the country is generally divided into three basic sectors: Primary sector such as agricultural, animal husbandry, forestry, etc; Secondary sector such as industrial production, constructions and Tertiary sector such as trade, banking and commerce.

5. Financial System: Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.

6. Marketable Surplus: Marketable surplus refers to the total amount of farm output cultivated by farmers over and above their family consumption needs. This is a surplus that can be sold in the market for earning income.

7. Foreign Trade: The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always developed. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

8. Economic System: The countries which adopt free market mechanism (laissez faire) enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economies.

Non-Economic Factors:
‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.’
1. Human Resources: Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

2. Technical Know-how: As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

3. Political Freedom: The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

4. Social Organization: People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

5. Corruption free administration: Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process. Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

6. Desire for development: The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

7. Moral, ethical and social values: These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North. If people are not honest, market cannot function.

8. Casino Capitalism: If People spend larger proportion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

9. Patrimonial Capitalism: If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

[OR]

(b) Critically explain say’s law of market.
Answer:
Criticisms of Say’s Law:
The following are the criticisms against Say’s law:

1. According to Keynes, supply does not create its demand. It is not applicable where demand does not increase as much as production increases.
2. Automatic adjustment process will not remove unemployment. Unemployment can be removed by increase in the rate of investment.
3. Money is not neutral. Individuals hold money for unforeseen contingencies while businessmen keep cash reserve for future activities.
4. Say’s law is based on the proposition that supply creates its own demand and there is no over production. Keynes said that over production is possible.
5. Keynes regards full employment as a special case because there is under – employment in capitalist economies.
6. The need for state intervention arises in the case of general over production and mass unemployment.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the importance of National Income analysis.
Answer:
Importance of National Income Analysis:
National income is of great importance for the economy of a country. Nowadays the national income is regarded as accounts of the economy, which are known as social accounts. It enables us

1. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution towards national income; from the calculation of national income, we could find how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.
2. To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies; the proper measures can be adopted to bring the economy to the right path with the help of collecting national income data.
3. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress; it is essential that the data pertaining to a country’s gross income, output, saving and consumption from different sources should be available for economic planning.
4. To build economic models both in short – run and long – run.
5. To make international comparison, inter – regional comparison and inter – temporal comparison of growth of the economy during different periods.
6. To know a country’s per capita income which reflects the economic welfare of the country (Provided income is equally distributed)
7. To know the distribution of income for various factors of production in the country.
8. To arrive at many macro economic variables namely, Tax – GDP ratio, Current Account Deficit – GDP ratio, Fiscal Deficit – GDP ratio, Debt – GDP ratio etc.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain the relationship between GDP growth and the quality of environment.
Answer:

Question 44 (a).
Illustrate the working of multiplier.
Answer:
Working of Multiplier:

1. Suppose the Government undertakes investment expenditure equal to Rs 100 crore on some public works, by way of wages, price of materials etc.
2. Thus income of labourers and suppliers of materials increases by Rs 100 crore. Suppose the MPC is 0.8 that is 80 %.
3. A sum of Rs 80 crores is spent on consumption (A sum of Rs 20 Crores is saved).
4. As a result, suppliers of goods get an income of Rs 80 crores.
5. They intum spend Rs 64 crores (80% of Rs 80 cr).
6. In this manner consumption expenditure and increase in income act in a chain like maimer.

The final result is ΔY = 100 + 100 × 4/5 + 100 × [4/5]² + 100 × [4/5]³ or,
ΔY = 100 + 100 × 0.8 + 100 × (0.8)² + 100 × (0.8)³
= 100+ 80 + 64+ 51.2… = 500
that is 100 × 1/1 = 4/5
100 × 1/1/5
100 × 5 = Rs 500 crores
For instance if C = 100 + 0.8Y, I = 100,
Then Y = 100 + 0.8Y + 100
0. 2Y = 200
Y = 200/0.2 = 1000 → Point B
If I is increased to 110, then
0. 2Y = 210
Y = 210/0.2 = 1050 → Point D
For Rs 10 increase in I, Y has increased by Rs 50. This is due to multiplier effect.
At point A, Y = C = 500
C = 100 + 0.8 (500) = 500; S = 0
At point B, Y = 1000
C = 100 + 0.8 (1000) = 900; S = 100 = I
At point D, Y = 1050
C = 100 + 0.8 (1050) = 940; S = 110 = I
When I is increased by 10, Y increases by 50.
This is multiplier effect (K = 5)
K = \(\frac{1}{0.2}\)

[OR]

(b) Bring out the components of balance of payments accounts.
Answer:
Components of BOPs:
The credit and debit items are shown vertically in the BOP account of a country. Horizontally, they are divided into three categories, i.e.,

1. The current account,
2. The capital account and
3. The official settlements account or official reserve assets account.

1. The Current Account: It includes all international trade transactions of goods and services, international service transactions (i.e. tourism, transportation and royalty fees) and international unilateral transfers (i.e. gifts and foreign aid).

2. The Capital Account: Financial transactions consisting of direct investment and purchases of interest-bearing financial instruments, non-interest bearing demand deposits and gold fall under the capital account.

3. The Official Reserve Assets Account: Official reserve transactions consist of movements of international reserves by governments and official agencies to accommodate imbalances arising from the current and capital accounts.

The official reserve assets of a country include its gold stock, holdings of its convertible foreign currencies and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and its net position in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 45 (a).
Explain in detail the measures to control inflation.
Answer:
Measures to Control Inflation
Keynes and Milton Friedman together suggested three measures to prevent and control of inflation.

1. Monetary measures,
2. Fiscal measures (J.M. Keynes) and
3. Other measures.

1. Monetary Measures: These measures are adopted by the Central Bank of the country. They are (i) Increase in Bankrate (ii) Sale of Government Securities in the Open Market (iii) Higher Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (iv) Consumer Credit Control and (v) Higher margin requirements (vi) Higher Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate.

2. Fiscal Measures: Fiscal policy is now recognized as an important instrument to tackle an inflationary situation. The major anti-inflationary fiscal measures are the following: Reduction of Government Expenditure, Public Borrowing and Enhancing taxation.

3. Other Measures: These measures can be divided broadly into short-term and long-term measures.
i) Short-term measures can be in regard to public distribution of scarce essential commodities through fair price shops (Rationing). In India whenever shortage of basic goods has been felt, the government has resorted to import so that inflation may not get triggered.
ii) Long-term measures will require accelerating economic growth especially of the wage goods which have a direct bearing on the general price and the cost of living. Some restrictions on present consumption may help in improving saving and investment which may be necessary for accelerating the rate of economic growth in the long run.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between Public Finance and Private Finance.
Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Describe the functions of RBI.
Answer:
Functions of Central Bank (Reserve Bank of India):
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.

1. Monetary Authority: It controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rate, maintain healthy balance of payment, attain financial stability, control inflation, strengthen banking system.

2. The issuer of currency: The objective is to maintain the currency and credit system of the country. It is the sole authority to issue currency. It also takes action to control the circulation of fake currency.

3. The issuer of Banking License: As per Sec 22 of Banking Regulation Act, every bank has to obtain a banking license from RBI to conduct banking business in India.

4. Banker to the Government: It acts as banker both to the central and the state governments. It provides short-term credit. It manages all new issues of government loans, servicing the government debt outstanding and nurturing the market for government securities. It advises the government on banking and financial subjects.

5. Banker’s Bank: RBI is the bank of all banks in India as it provides loan to banks, accept the deposit of banks, and re-discount the bills of banks.

6. Lender of last resort: The banks can borrow from the RBI by keeping eligible securities as collateral at the time of need or crisis, when there is no other source.

7. Act as clearing house: For settlement of banking transactions, RBI manages 14 clearing houses. It facilitates the exchange of instruments and processing of payment instructions.

8. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves: It acts as a custodian of FOREX. It administers and enforces the provision of Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. RBI buys and sells foreign currency to maintain the exchange rate of Indian rupee v/s foreign currencies.

9. Regulator of Economy: It controls the money supply in the system, monitors different key indicators like GDP, Inflation, etc.

10. Managing Government securities: RBI administers investments in institutions when they invest specified minimum proportions of their total assets/liabilities in government securities.

11. Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: The Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 (PSS Act) gives RBI oversight authority for the payment and settlement systems in the country. RBI focuses on the development and functioning of safe, secure and efficient payment and settlement mechanisms.

12. Developmental Role: This role includes the development of the quality banking system in India and ensuring that credit is available to the productive sectors of the economy. It provides a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives. It also includes establishing institutions designed to build the country’s financial infrastructure. It also helps in expanding access to affordable financial services and promoting financial education and literacy.

13. Publisher of monetary data and other data: RBI maintains and provides all essential banking and other economic data, formulating and critically evaluating the economic policies in India. RBI collects, collates and publishes data regularly.

14. Exchange manager and controller: RBI represents India as a member of the International Monetary Fund [IMF], Most of the commercial banks are authorized dealers of RBI.

15. Banking Ombudsman Scheme: RBI introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in 1995. Under this scheme, the complainants can file their complaints in any form, including online and can also appeal to the Ombudsman against the awards and the other decisions of the Banks.

16. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India: To measure the performance of banks against Codes and standards based on established global practices, the RBI has set up the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI).

[OR]

(b) Write a note on
(i) SAARC
(ii) BRICS
Answer:
(i) South Asian Association For Regional Co-Operation (SAARC):

1. The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is an organisation of South Asian nations, which was established on 8 December 1985 for the promotion of economic and social progress, cultural development within the South Asia region and also for friendship and co-operation with other developing countries.
2. The SAARC Group (SAARC) comprises of Bangaladesh, Bhutan, India, The Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
3. In April 2007, Afghanistan became its eighth member.
4. The basic aim of the organisation is to accelerate the process of economic and social development of member states through joint action in the agreed areas of cooperation.
5. The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
6. The first SAARC summit was held at Dhaka in the year 1985.
7. SAARC meets once in two years. Recently, the 20th SAARC summit was hosted by Srilanka in 2018.

(ii) BRICS:

1. BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
2. Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met annually at formal summits.
3. South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS summit in July 2018.
4. The agenda for BRICS summit 2018 includes Inclusive growth, Trade issues, Global governance, Shared Prosperity, International peace and security.
5. It’s headquarters is at Shanghai, China.
6. The New Development Bank (NDB) formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank was established by BRICS States.
7. The first BRICS summit was held at Moscow and South Africa hosted the Tenth Conference at Johanesberg in July 2018.
8. India had an opportunity of hosting fourth and Eighth summits in 2009 and 2016 respectively.
9. The BRICS countries make up 21 percent of global GDP. They have increased their share of global GDP threefold in the past 15 years.
10. The BRICS are home to 43 percent of the world’s population.
11. The BRICS countries have combined foreign reserves of an estimated $4.4 trillion.

Question 47 (a).
Describe the phases of trade cycle.
Answer:
Phases of Trade Cycle

The four different phases of trade cycle is referred to as

1. Boom
2. Recession
3. Depression and
4. Recovery. These are illustrated in the figure.

Phases of Trade Cycle
1. Boom or Prosperity Phase:

• The full employment and the movement of the economy beyond full employment is characterized as boom period.
• During this period, there is hectic activity in economy.
• Money wages rise, profits increase and interest rates go up.
• The demand for bank credit increases and there is all-round optimism.

2. Recession:

• the turning point from boom condition is called recession.
• This happens at higher rate, than what was earlier.
• Generally, the failure of a company or bank bursts the boom and brings a phase of recession.
• Investments are drastically reduced, production comes down and income and profits decline.
• There is panic in the stock market and business activities show signs of dullness.
• Liquidity preference of the people rises and money market becomes tight.

3. Depression:

• During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely low.
• Firms incur losses and closure of business becomes a common feature and the ultimate result is unemployment.
• Interest prices, profits and wages are low. The agricultural class and wage earners would be worst hit.
• Banking institutions will be reluctant to advance loans to businessmen.
• Depression is the worst phase of the business cycle.
• Extreme point of depression is called as “trough”, because it is a deep point in business cycle.

4. Recovery:

• After a period of depression, recovery sets in.
• This is the turning point from depression to revival towards upswing.
• It begins with the revival of demand for capital goods.
• Autonomous investments boost the activity.
• The demand slowly picks up and in due course the activity is directed towards the upswing with more production, profit, income, wages and employment.
• Recovery may be initiated by innovation or investment or by government expenditure
  (autonomous investment).

[OR]

(b) What are the reasons for the recent growth in public expenditure?
Answer:
Causes for the Increase in Government Expenditure:
The modem state is a welfare state. In a welfare state, the government has to perform several functions viz Social, economic and political. These activities are the cause for increasing public expenditure.
(i) Population Growth:

1. During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore in 1951, to 121 crore in 2011.
2. The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and order, etc.
3. Young population requires increasing expenditure on education &. youth services, whereas the aging population requires transfer payments like old age pension, social security & health facilities.

(ii) Defence Expenditure:

1. There has been enormous increase in defence expenditure in India during planning period.
2. The defence expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernisation of defence equipment.
3. The defence expenditure of the government was Rs 10,874 crores in 1990-91 which increased significantly to Rs 2,95,511 crores in 2018-19.

(iii) Government Subsidies:

1. The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food, fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc.
2. Because of the massive amounts of subsidies, the public expenditure has increased manifold.

(iv) Debt Servicing:
The government has been borrowing heavily both from the internal and external sources, As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt servicing.

(v) Development Projects:

1. The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc.
2. The development projects involve huge investment.

(vi) Urbanisation:

1. There has been an increase in urbanization.
2. In 1950-51 about 17% of the population was urban based.
3. Now the urban population has increased to about 43%.
4. There are more than 54 cities above one million population.
5. The increase in urbanization requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amenities.

(vii) Industrialisation:

1. Setting up of basic and heavy industries involves a huge capital and long gestation period.
2. It is the government which starts such industries in a planned economy.
3. The under developed countries need a strong of infrastructure like transport, communication, power, fuel, etc.

(viii) Increase in grants in aid to state and union territories:
There has been tremendous increase in grant-in-aid to state and union territories to meet natural disasters.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If the function is not a recursive one, then is used.
(a) abc
(b) gcd
(c) let
(d) let rec
Answer:
(c) let

Question 2.
The process of providing only the essentials and hiding the details is called
(a) modularity
(b) structure
(c) tuple
(d) abstraction
Answer:
(d) abstraction

Question 3.
All members in a python class are by default.
(a) private
(b) public
(c) protected
(d) local
Answer:
(b) public

Question 4.
………… is a simple sorting algorithm.
(a) binary
(b) bubble
(c) selection
(d) insertion
Answer:
(b) bubble

Question 5.
………… is an example for octal integers.
(a) 102
(b) 08
(c) 0432
(d) 0 × 43
Answer:
(c) 0432

Question 6.
Which of the following operator is used for concatenation?
(a) +
(b) &
(c) *
(d) =
Answer:
(c) *

Question 7.
…………… function returns the sum of values in a list.
(a) sum
(b) total
(c) tot
(d) ε
Answer:
(a) sum

Question 8.
GIS stands for…………
(a) Geographic Information System
(b) Grap Individual System
(c) Graph Information System
(d) Global Information System
Answer:
(a) Geographic Information System

Question 9.
The default sorting order is…………..
(a) top
(b) bottom
(c) ascending
(d) descending
Answer:
(c) ascending

Question 10.
getopt mode is given by………..
(a) ;
(b) =
(c) #
(d) :
Answer:
(d) :

Question 11.
Which operators are used to fitter records based on more than one condition?
(a) AND
(b) NOT
(c) OR
(d) a & c
Answer:
(d) a & c

Question 12.
Which key is used to run the module?
(a) F6
(b) F4
(c) F3
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 13.
……… is used to add the elements in the list.
(a) add
(b) insert
(c) append
(d) update
Answer:
(c) append

Question 14.
The clause used to sort data in a database ..
(a) sort by
(b) order by
(c) group by
(d) select
Answer:
(b) order by

Question 15.
Which of the following method is used as destructor?
(a) _init_( )
(b) _dest-( )
(c) _rem_( )
(d) _del_( )
Answer:
(d) _del_( )

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What are the two types of parameter passing?
Answer:

1. Parameter without type
2. Parameter with type

Question 17.
What is mapping?
Answer:
The process of binding a variable name with an object is called mapping. = (equal to sign) is used in programming languages to map the variable and object.

Question 18.
Write note on delimiters.
Answer:
Python uses the symbols and symbol combinations as delimiters in expressions, lists, dictionaries and strings. Following are the delimiters.

Question 19.
Write note on range () in loop.
Answer:
Usually in Python, for loop uses the range() function in the sequence to specify the initial, final and increment values. range() generates a list of values starting from start till stop-1.

Question 20.
What are the two methods of passing arguments in variable length arguments?
Answer:
In Variable Length arguments we can pass the arguments using two methods.

1. Non keyword variable arguments
2. Keyword variable arguments

Question 21.
Write program to remove duplicates from a list.
Answer:
Method 1:
mylist = [2, 4, 6, 8, 8, 4, 10]
myset = set(mylist)
print(myset)
Output:
{2, 4, 6, 8, 10}

Method II:
def remove(duplicate):
final_list=[]
for num in duplicate:
if num not in final list:
finallist.append(num)
return final_list
duplicate = [2, 4, 10, 20, 5, 2, 20, 4]
print(remove(duplicate))
Output:
[2, 4, 10, 20, 5]

Question 22.
List some examples of RDBMS.
Answer:
SQL server, Oracle, mysql, MariaDB, SQLite.

Question 23.
Write note on drop table command.
Answer:
Drop table command is used to remove a table from the database.
DROP TABLE Student;

Question 24.
Write note on scripting language.
Answer:
A scripting language is a programming language designed for integrating and communicating with other programming languages. Some of the most widely used scripting languages are JavaScript, VBScript, PHP, Perl, Python, Ruby, ASP and Tel.

PART – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Give the syntax for getopt module.
Answer:
The syntax for this method
<opts>, <args>= getopt.getopt( argv, options, [long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –

Question 26.
Differentiate Concrete data type and abstract data type.

Concrete data type	Abstract data type
A concrete data type is a data type whose representation is known	Abstract data type the representation of a data type is unknown
Concrete data types or structures (CDT’s) are direct implementations of a relatively simple concept.	Abstract Data Types (ADT’s) offer a high level view (and use) of a concept independent of its implementation.

Question 27.
Write note on Asymptotic notation.
Answer:
Asymptotic Notations:
Asymptotic Notations are languages that uses meaningful statements about time and space complexity.
1. Big O: Big O is often used to describe the worst-case of an algorithm.

2. Big Ω: Big Omega is the reverse Big O, if Big O is used to describe the upper bound (worst – case) of a asymptotic function, Big Omega is used to describe the lower bound (best-case).

3. Big Θ: When an algorithm has a complexity with lower bound = upper bound, say that an algorithm has a complexity O (n log n) and Ω (n log n), it’s actually has the complexity Θ (n log n), which means the running time of that algorithm always falls in n log n in the best-case and worst-case.

Question 28.
What are string literals? Explain.
Answer:
String Literals
In Python a string literal is a sequence of characters surrounded by quotes. Python supports single, double and triple quotes for a string. A character literal is a single character surrounded by single or double quotes. The value with triple-quote ”’ ”’ is used to give multi-line string literal.
strings = “This is Python”
char = “C”
multiline_str = ‘”This is a multiline string with more than one line code.”‘

Question 29.
Write a program to display Fibonacci Series 0 1 1 2 3 5………….. (upto n terms)
Answer:
nterms = int(input(“How many terms?”))
n1 = 0
n2 = 1
count = 2
# check if the number of terms is valid
if nterms <= 0:
print(“please enter a positive integer”)
elif nterms ==1:
print(“Fibonacci sequence :”)
print (n1)
else:
print(“Fibonacci sequence : “)
print (n1, “, “, n2, end = “,”)
while count < nterms:
nth = n1 + n2
print(nth, end = ‘,’)
n1 = n2
n2 = nth
count + = 1
Output:
How many terms? 10
Fibonacci sequence:
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34

Question 30.
Write the different types of function?
Answer:

1. User-defined Functions
2. Built-in Functions
3. Lambda Functions
4. Recursion Functions

Question 31.
Write a note on pow( ) function.
Answer:
pow ()
Description: Returns the computation of ab i.e. (a**b ) a raised to the power of b.
Syntax : pow (a, b)
Example:
a = 5
b = 2
c = 3.0
print (pow (a,b))
print (pow (a,c))
print (pow (a+b, 3))
Output:
25
125.0
343

Question 32.
Write a note on Return Statement.
Answer:

1. The return statement causes your function to exit and returns a value to its caller. The point of functions in general is to take inputs and return something.
2. The return statement is used when a function is ready to return a value to its caller. So, only . one return statement is executed at run time even though the function contains multiple return statements.
3. Any number of ‘return’ statements are allowed in a function definition but only one of them is executed at run time.

Question 33.
Explain Intersection with example.
Answer:
Intersection (symbol: ∩) A ∩ B
Defines a relation consisting of a set of all tuple that are in both in A and B. However, A and B must be union-compatible.
Example:

Table A ∩ B
Studno	Name
csl	Kannan
cs3	Lenin

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
Explain various types of variable scope.
Answer:
There are 4 types of Variable Scope, let’s discuss them one by one:
Local Scope:
Local scope refers to variables defined in current function. Always, a function will first look up for a variable name in its local scope. Only if it does not find it there, the outer scopes are checked.
Look at this example

On execution of the above code the variable a displays the value 7, because it is defined and available in the local scope.

Global Scope:
A variable which is declared outside of all the functions in a program is known as global variable. This means, global variable can be accessed inside or outside of all the functions in a program.
Consider the following example

On execution of the above code the variable a which is defined inside the function displays the value 7 for the function call Disp() and then it displays 10, because a is defined in global scope.

Enclosed Scope:
All programming languages permit functions to be nested. A function (method) with in another function is called nested function. A variable which is declared inside a function which contains another function definition with in it, the inner function can also access the variable of the outer function. This scope is called enclosed scope.

When a compiler or interpreter search for a variable in a program, it first search Local, and then search Enclosing scopes.
Consider the following example.

In the above example Disp 1 () is defined with in Disp (). The variable ‘a’ defined in Disp () can be even used by Disp 1 () because it is also a member of Disp ().

Built-in Scope:
Finally, we discuss about the widest scope. The built-in scope has all the names that are pre-loaded into the program scope when we start the compiler or interpreter. Any variable or module which is defined in the library functions of a programming language has Built-in or module scope. They are loaded as soon as the library files are imported to the program.

Normally only Functions or modules come along with the software, as packages. Therefore they will come under Built in scope.

[OR]

(b) Explain pure functions with example.
Answer:
Pure functions are functions which will give exact result when the same arguments are passed. For example the mathematical function sin (0) always results 0. This means that every time you call the function with the same arguments, you will always get the same result. A function can be a pure function provided it should not have any external variable which will alter the behaviour of that variable. Let us see an example:

The above function square is a pure function because it will not give different results for same input.
There are various theoretical advantages of having pure functions. One advantage is that if a function is pure, then if it is called several times with the same arguments, the compiler only needs to actually call the function once. Lt’s see an example:

If it is compiled, strlen (s) is called each time and strlen needs to iterate over the whole of ‘s’. If the compiler is smart enough to work out that strlen is a pure function and that ‘s’ is not updated in the loop, then it can remove the redundant extra calls to strlen and make the loop to execute only one time. From these what we can understand, strlen is a pure function because the function takes one variable as a parameter, and accesses it to find its length. This function reads external memory but does not change it, and the value returned derives from the external memory accessed.

Question 35 (a).
Explain selection sort.
Answer:
The selection sort is a simple sorting algorithm that improves on the performance of bubble sort by making only one exchange for every pass through the list. This algorithm will first find the smallest elements in array and swap it with the element in the first position of an array, then it will find the second smallest element and swap that element with the element in the second position, and it will continue until the entire array is sorted in respective order. This algorithm repeatedly selects the next-smallest element and swaps in into the right place for every pass. Hence it is called selection sort.

Pseudo code:

1. Start from the first element i.e., index-0, we search the smallest element in the array, and replace it with the element in the first position.
2. Now we move on to the second element position, and look for smallest element present in the sub-array, from starting index to till the last index of sub – array.
3. Now replace the second smallest identified in step-2 at the second position in the or original array, or also called first position in the sub array.
4. This is repeated, until the array is completely sorted.

Let’s consider an array with values {13, 16, 11, 18, 14, 15}
Below, we have a pictorial representation of how selection sort will sort the given array.

In the first pass, the smallest element will be 11, so it will be placed at the first position. After that, next smallest element will be searched from an array. Now we will get 13 as the smallest, so it will be then placed at the second position.

Then leaving the first element, next smallest element will be searched, from the remaining elements. We will get 13 as the smallest, so it will be then placed at the second position.

Then leaving 11 and 13 because they are at the correct position, we will search for the next smallest element from the rest of the elements and put it at third position and keep doing this until array is sorted. Finally we will get the sorted array end of the pass as shown above diagram.

[OR]

(b) Explain operators in python.
Answer:
Operators:
In computer programming languages operators are special symbols which represent computations, conditional matching etc. The value of an operator used is called operands. Operators are categorized as Arithmetic, Relational, Logical, Assignment etc. Value and variables when used with operator are known as operands.
(i) Arithmetic operators:
An arithmetic operator is a mathematical operator that takes two operands and performs a calculation on them. They are used for simple arithmetic. Most computer languages contain a set of such operators that can be used within equations to perform different types of sequential calculations.
Python supports the following Arithmetic operators.

Program To test Arithmetic Operators:
#Demo Program to test Arithmetic Operators
a = 100
b = 10
print (“The Sum = “, a + b)
print (“The Difference = “, a – b)
print (“The Product. = “, a * b)
print (“The Quotient = “, a / b)
print (“The Remainder = “, a % 30)
print (“The Exponent = “, a ** 2)
print (“The Floor Division =”, a // 30)
#ProgramEnd
Output:
The Sum = 110
The Difference = 90
The Product = 1000
The Quotient = 10.0
The Remainder = 10
The Exponent = 10000
The Floor Division = 3

(ii) Relational or Comparative operators
A Relational operator is also called as Comparative operator which checks the relationship between two operands. If the relation is true, it returns True; otherwise it returns False.
Python supports following relational operators

Program To test Relational Operators:
#Demo Program to test Relational Operators
a = int (input(“Enter a Value for A:”))
b = int (input(“Enter a Value for B:”))
print (“A = “, a ,” and B = “, b)
print (“The a==b = “, a == b)
print (“The a > b = “, a > b)
print (“The a < b = “, a < b)
print (“The a >= b = “, a >= b)
print (“The a <= b = “, a <= 0)
print (“The a != b = “, a!=b)
#Program End
Output:
Enter a Value for A: 35
Enter a Value for B:56
A = 35 and B = 56
The a==b = False
The a > b = False
The a < b = True
The a >= b = False
The a <= b = False
The a != b = True

(iii) Logical operators
In python, Logical operators are used to perform logical operations on the given relational expressions. There are three logical operators they are and, or and not.

(iv) Assignment operators:
In Python, = is a simple assignment operator to assign values to variable. Let a = 5 and b = 10 assigns the value 5 to a and 10 to b these two assignment statement can also be given as a, b = 5, 10 that assigns the value 5 and 10 on the right to the variables a and b respectively. There are various compound operators in Python like +=, -=, *=, /=, %=, **= and //= are also available.

(v) Conditional operator:
Ternary operator is also known as conditional operator that evaluate something based on a condition being true or false. It simply allows testing a condition in a single line replacing the multiline if-else making the code compact.
The Syntax conditional operator is,
Variable Name = [on_true] if [Test expression] else [on_false]
Example:
min = 50 if 49 < 50 else 70 # min = 50 min = 50 if 49 > 50 else 70 # min = 70

Program to test Conditional (Ternary) Operator:
# Program to demonstrate conditional operator.
a, b = 30, 20
# Copy value of a in min if a < b else copy b
min = a if a < b else b print (“The Minimum of A and B is “,min) # End of the Program Output: The Minimum of A and B is 20

Question 36 (a).
Write a python script with SQL to display the name and grade of students who have born in the year 2001. Answer:
Querying a Date Column In this example we are going to display the name and grade of students who have born in the -year 2001
Example: import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect (“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor ( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student
WHERE(Birth_date >= 2001-01-01′ AND Birth_date <= ‘2001-12-01’)”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
Output:
(5, ‘VARUN’)

[OR]

(b) Write a python program to display-
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5
Answer:
Program to illustrate the use nested loop -for within while loop
i = 1
while (i <= 6): for j in range (1, i): print (j,end=’\t’) print (end-\n’) i + = 1
Output
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5

Question 37 (a).
Explain the following built in functions.
(a) id ()
(b) Chr ()
(c) round ()
(d) type ()
(e) pow ()
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain how to delete elements from a list.
Answer:
Deleting elements from a list There are two ways to delete an element from a list viz. del statement and remove() function, del statement is used to delete known elements whereas remove() function is used to delete elements of a list if its index is unknown. The del statement can also be used to delete entire list.
Syntax:
del List [index of an element]
# to delete a particular element
del List [index from : index to]
# to delete multiple elements
del List
# to delete entire list
Example:
>>> MySubjects = [‘Tamil’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Telugu’, ‘Maths’]
>>> print (MySubjects)
[‘Tamil’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Telugu’, ’Maths’]
>>> del MySubjects[1]
>>> print (MySubjects)
[‘Tamil’, ‘Telugu’, ‘Maths’]

In the above example, the list MySubjects has been created with four elements, print statement shows all the elements of the list. In >>> del MySubjects[1] statement, deletes an element whose index value is 1 and the following print shows the remaining elements of the list.
Example:
>>> del MySubjects [1 :3]
>>> print(My Subjects)
[‘Tamil’]

In the above codes, >>> del MySubjects [1 : 3] deletes the second and third elements from the list. The upper limit of index is specified within square brackets, will be taken as -1 by the python.

Question 38 (a).
Explain various data model.
Answer:

1. A data model describes how the data can be represented and accessed from a software after complete implementation
2. It is a simple abstraction of complex real world data gathering environment.
3. The main purpose of data model is to give an idea as how the final system or software will look like after development is completed.

Types of Data Model
Following are the different types of a Data Model

1. Hierarchical Model
2. Relational Model
3. Network Database Model
4. Entity Relationship Model
5. Object Model

1. Hierarchical Model:
Hierarchical model was developed by IBM as Information Management System.

In Hierarchical model, data is represented as a simple tree like structure form. This model represents a one-to-many relationship i.e. parent – child relationship.

One child can have only one parent but one parent can have many children. This model is mainly used in IBM Main Frame computers.

2. Relational Model:
The Relational Database model was first proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970 . Now a days, it is the most widespread data model used for database applications around the world.

The basic structure of data in relational model is tables (relations). All the information’s related to a particular type is stored in rows of that table. Hence tables are also known as relations in a relational model. A relation key is an attribute which uniquely identifies a particular tuple (row in a relation (table)).

3. Network Model:
Network database model is an extended form of hierarchical data model. The difference between hierarchical and Network data model is:

• In hierarchical model, a child record has only one parent node,
• In a Network model, a child may have many parent nodes. It represents the data in many to – many relationships.

This model is easier and faster to access the data

School represents the parent node
Library, Office and Staff room is a child to school (parent node)
Student is a child to library, office and staff room (one to many relationship)

4. Entity Relationship Model.
In this database model, relationship are created by dividing the object into entity and its characteristics into attributes.

It was developed by Chen in 1976. This model is useful in developing a conceptual design for the database. It is very simple and easy to design logical view of data. The developer can easily understand the system by looking at ER model constructed.

Rectangle represents the entities. E.g. Doctor and Patient
Ellipse represents the attributes E.g. D-id, D-name, P-id, P-name. Attributes describes the characteristics and each entity becomes a major part of the data stored in the database. Diamond represents the relationship in ER diagrams
E.g. Doctor diagnosis the Patient.

5. Object Model
Object model stores the data in the form of objects, attributes and methods, classes and Inheritance. This model handles more complex applications, such as Geographic information System (GIS), scientific experiments, engineering design and manufacturing. It is ‘ used in file Management System. It represents real world objects, attributes and behaviors. It provides a clear modular structure. It is easy to maintain and modify the existing code.

An example of the Object model is Shape,
Circle, Rectangle and Triangle are all objects in this model.

• Circle has the attribute radius.
• Rectangle has the attributes length and breadth.
• Triangle has the attributes base and height.
• The objects Circle, Rectangle and Triangle inherit from the object Shape.

[OR]

(b) Explain creating a New Normal CSV file with syntex and program.
Answer:
Creating A New Normal CSV File
When you have a set of data that you would like to store inside a CSV file, it’s time to do the opposite and use the write function.
The csv.writer() method returns a writer object which converts the user’s data into delimited strings on the given file-like object. The writerow() method writes a row of data into the specified file.

You can create a normal CSV file using writer() method of csv module having default delimiter comma (,)
Here’s an example.
The following Python program converts a List of data to a CSV file called “Pupil.csv” that uses, (comma) as a value separator.

When you open the “Pupil.csv” file with a text editor, it will show the content as follows.

In this program, csv.writer() method converts all the data in the list “csvData” to strings and create the content as file like object. The writerows () method writes all the data in to the new CSV file “Pupil.csv”.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.5

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The difference between the smallest natural number and the smallest whole number is _____
(ii) 17 × ___ = 34 × 17
(iii) When _____ is added to a number, it remains the same.
(iv) Division by ____ is not defined.
(v) Multiplication by ____ leaves a number unchanged.
Solution:
(i) 1
Hint: 1 – 0 = 1
(ii) 34
(iii) 0
(iv) 0
(v) 1

Question 2.
Say True or False

1. 0 is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers.
2. The Sum of two whole numbers is always less than their product.
3. Both addition and multiplication are associative for whole numbers.
4. Both addition and multiplication are commutative for whole numbers.
5. Multiplication is distributive over addition for whole numbers.

Solution:

1. False
   Hint: 1 is the identity for multiplication
2. False
   Hint: 1 + 1 = 2 > 1 × 1 = 1
3. True
4. True
5. True

Question 3.
Name the property being illustrated in each of the cases given below:

1. 75 + 34 = 34 + 75
2. (12 × 4) × 8 = 12 × (4 × 8)
3. 50 + 0 = 50
4. 50 × 1 = 50
5. 50 × 42 = 50 × 40 + 50 × 2

Solution:

1. Addition is commutative
2. Multiplication is associative
3. 0 is the additive identity
4. 1 is the multiplicative identity.
5. Distributivity of multiplication over addition

Question 4.
Use the properties of whole numbers and simplify.
(i) 50 × 102
(ii) 500 × 689 – 500 × 89
(iii) 4 × 132 × 25
(iv) 196 + 34 + 104
Solution:
(i) Using the distributive property of multiplication over addition.
50 × 102
= 50 × 10 + 50 × 2
= 5000 + 100
= 5100
∴ 50 × 102 = 5100

(ii) Using distributivity of multiplication over subtraction
500 × 689 – 500 × 89
= 500 × (689 – 89)
= 500 × 600
= 300000
∴ 500 × 689 – 500 × 89 = 3,00,000

(iii) We know that multiplication is associative
4 × 132 × 25
= 4 × 25 × 132
= 100 × 132
= 13200
∴ 4 × 132 × 25 = 13200

(iv) 196 + 34 + 104
= 196 + 104 + 34 [∴ Addition is associative]
= 300 + 34
= 334
∴ 196 + 34 + 104 = 334

Objective Type Questions

Question 5.
(53 + 49) × 0 is
(a) 102
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 53 + 49 + 0
Solution:
(b) 0
53 × 0 + 49 × 0 = 0 + 0 = 0

Question 6.
\(\frac{59}{1}\) is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) \(\frac{1}{59}\)
(d) 59
Solution:
(d) 59

Question 7.
The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor is always
(a) an even number
(b) an odd number
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Solution:
(a) an even number

Question 8.
The whole number that does not have a predecessor is
(a) 10
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) none of these
Solution:
(b) 0
0 is the smallest whole number

Question 9.
Which of the following expressions is not zero?
(a) 0 × 0
(b) 0 + 0
(c) 2/0
(d) 0/2
Solution:
(c) 2/0

Question 10.
Which of the following is not true?
(a) (4237 + 5498) + 3439 – 4237 + (5498 + 3439)
(b) (4237 × 5498) × 3439 = 4237 × (5498 × 3439)
(c) 4237 + 5498 × 3439 – (4237 + 5498) × 3439
(d) 4237 × (5498 + 3439) = (4237 × 5498) + (4237 × 3439)
Solution:
(c) 4237 + 5498 × 3439 = (4237 + 5498) × 3439

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.2

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The algebraic statement of ‘f’ decreased by 5 is ……..
(ii) The algebraic statement of ‘s’ divided by 5 is ……..
(iii) The verbal statement of ‘2m – 10’ is ………
(iv) If A’s age is ‘n’ years now, 7 years ago A’s age was ………
(v) If ‘p – 5’ gives 12 then ‘p’ is ……….
Solution:
(i) f – 5
(ii) \(\frac{s}{5}\)
(iii) 2 times of m minus 10
(iv) n – 7
(v) 17

Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) 10 more to three times ‘c’ is ‘3c + 13’.
(ii) If the cost of 10 rice bags is Rs ‘t’, then the cost of 1 rice bag is Rs \(\frac{t}{10}\)
(iii) The statements ‘x’ divided by 3 and 3 divided by ‘x’ are the same.
(iv) The product of ‘q’ and 20 is ‘20q’.
(v) 7 less to 7 times ‘y’ is ‘7 – 7y’.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) False
(iv) True
(v) False

Question 3.
Express the following verbal statement to an algebraic statement.
(i) ‘t’ is added to 100.
(ii) 4 times ‘q’.
(iii) 8 reduced by ‘y’
(iv) 56 added to 2 times ‘x’
(v) 4 less to 9 times of ‘y’.
Solution:
(i) t + 100
(ii) 4q
(iii) 8 – y
(iv) 2x + 56
(v) 9y – 4

Question 4.
Express the following algebraic statement to a verbal statement.
(i) x ÷ 3
(ii) 5n – 12
(iii) 11 + 10x
(iv) 70s
Solution:
(i) x divided by 3
(ii) 12 less to 5 times n
(iii) 11 added to 10 times x
(iv) 70 times s

Question 5.
The teacher asked two students to write the algebraic statement for the verbal statement “8 more than a number” on the board. Vetri wrote ‘8 + x’ but Maran wrote ‘8x’. Who gave the correct answer?
Solution:
Let the number be x; 8 more than the number = 8 + x.
Vetri gave the correct answer as 8 + x.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions:
(i) If ‘n’ takes the value 3 then find the value of ‘n + 10’
(ii) If ‘g’ is equal to 300. What is the value of ‘g – 1’ and ‘g + 1’?
(iii) What is the value of s; if ‘2s – 6’ gives 30?
Solution:
(i) Given n = 3
then n + 10 = 3 + 10 = 13
n + 10 = 13

(ii) Given g = 300
g – 1 = 300 – 1 = 299
g + 1 = 300 + 1 = 301
g – 1 = 299; g + 1 = 301

(iii) Given 2s – 6 = 30
From the table:
2 × 18 – 6 = 30
s = 18

Question 7.
Complete the table and find the value of ‘k’ for which \(\frac { k }{ 3 }\) gives 5.
Solution:
Given: k ÷ 3 = 5 From the above table we find that
15 ÷ 3 = 5
k = 5

Objective Type Questions

Question 8.
The value of ‘y’ in y + 7 = 13 is
(a) y = 5
(b) y = 6
(c) y = 7
(d) y = 8
Solution:
(b) y = 6

Question 9.
6 less to ‘n’ gives 8 is represented as
(a) n – 6 = 8
(b) 6 – n = 8
(c) 8 – n = 6
(d) n – 8 = 6
Solution:
(a) n – 6 = 8

Question 10.
The value of ‘c’ for which \(\frac{3 c}{4}\) gives 18 is
(a) c = 15
(b) c = 21
(c) c = 24
(d) c = 27
Solution:
(c) c = 24
Hint:
\(\frac{3 c}{4}\) = 18
⇒ 3c = 18 × 4 = 72
⇒ c = 24

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.4

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The nearest 100 of 843 is ……
(ii) The nearest 1000 of 756 is ……..
(iii) The nearest 10000 of 85654 is …….
Solution:
(i) 800
(ii) 1000
(iii) 90000

Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) 8567 is rounded off as 8600 to the nearest 10.
(ii) 139 is rounded off as 100 to the nearest 100.
(iii) 1,70,51,972 is rounded off as 1,70,00,000 to the nearest lakh.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) False

Question 3.
Round off the following to the given nearest place.
(i) 4065; hundred
(ii) 44,555; thousand
(iii) 86943; ten thousand
(iv) 50,81,739; lakh
(v) 33,75,98,482; Ten crore
Solution:
(i) We have to round off 4065 to hundreds
The place value is a hundred
The digit in hundreds place is 0
The digit to the right is 6 > 5
Adding 1 to 0 ⇒ 0 + 1 = 1
Changing the digits to the right of 41 to zeros
4065 \(\simeq\) 4100 ⇒ 4100

(ii) To round off 44555 to thousands
The digit in the thousands place is 4
digit to the right is 5 = 5.
Adding 1 to the thousand place value digit 4 ⇒ 4 + 1 = 5
Changing the digits to the right of 45 to zeros we get 45000
44555 \(\simeq\) 45000

(iii) To round off 86,943 to ten thousand
The digit in ten thousand places is 8
The digit to the right is 6 > 5
Adding 1 to 8 ⇒ 8 + 1 = 9.
Changing the digits to the right of 9 to zeroes we get 90,000
86943 \(\simeq\) 90,000

(iv) To round off 5081739 to lakhs
The digit in the lakhs place is 0
The digit to the right is 8 > 5
Adding 1 to 0 ⇒ 1 + 0 = 1
Changing the digits right off 51 to zeros
We get 51,00,000
5081739 \(\simeq\) 51,00,000

(v) To round off 337598482 to ten crore
The digit in the ten crores place is 3
The digit to the right is 3 < 0
The digit in ten crore place remains the same 3.
Changing the digit to the right of 3 zeros we get 30,00,00,000
33,75,98,482 \(\simeq\) 30,00,00,000

Question 4.
Estimate the sum of 157826 and 32469 rounded off to the nearest ten thousand.
Solution:

Question 5.
Estimate by rounding off each number to the nearest hundred.
(i) 8074 + 4178
(ii) 1768977 + 130589
Solution:

Question 6.
The population of a city was 43,43,645 in the year 2001 and 46,81,087 in the year 2011. Estimate the increase in population by rounding off to the nearest thousand.
Solution:
Population in the year 2011 is 46,81,087 ⇒ 46,81,000
Population in the year 2011 is 43,43,645 ⇒ 43,44,000
Increase in Population = 3,37,000

Objective Type Questions

Question 7.
The number which on rounding off to nearest thousands given 11000 is
(a) 10345
(b) 10855
(c) 11799
(d) 10056
Solution:
(b) 10855
In 10855, the digit in a hundred places is 8 ≥ 5. So 11000

Question 8.
The estimation to the nearest hundredth of 76812 is
(a) 77000
(b) 76000
(c) 76800
(d) 76900
Solution:
(c) 76800

Question 9.
The number 9785764 is rounded off to the nearest lakh as
(a) 9800000
(b) 9786000
(c) 9795600
(d) 9795000
Solution:
(a) 9800000
In ten thousand places, the digit is 8 5. So 9800000

Question 10.
The estimated difference of 167826 and 2765 rounded off to the nearest thousand is
(a) 180000
(b) 165000
(c) 140000
(d) 155000
Solution:
(b) 165000
167826 = 168000, 2765 = 3000

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.2

Miscellaneous Practice problems

Question 1.
Draw and answer the following.
i) A triangle which has no line of symmetry
ii) A triangle which has only one line of symmetry
iii) A triangle which has three lines of symmetry
Solution:
(i) A Scalene triangle has no line of symmetry

(ii) An isosceles triangle has only one

(iii) An equilateral triangle has three lines of symmetry.

Question 2.
Find the alphabets in the box which have
i) No Line of symmetry
ii) Rotational symmetry
iii) Reflection symmetry
iv) Reflection and rotational symmetry

Solution:
i) The alphabets which have no line of symmetry are P, N, S, Z
ii) The alphabets which have Rotational symmetry are I, O, N, X, S, H, Z
iii) The alphabets which have reflection symmetry are A, M, E, D, I, K, O, X, H, U, V, W.
iv) The alphabets which has reflection and rotational symmetry are I, O, X, H.

Question 3.
For the following pictures, find the number of lines of symmetry and also find the order of rotation.

Solution:
The number of lines of symmetry is 0; the order of rotation is 2

ii)
The number of lines of symmetry is 1.
The order of rotation is 0 because it is an isosceles triangle

iii) Number of lines of symmetry are 2
The order of rotation is 2

iv) Number of lines of symmetry 8 and order of rotation 8

v)

The number of the line of symmetry is 1 and the order of rotation 0

Question 4.
The three-digit number 101 has rotational and reflection symmetry. Give five more examples of three-digit number which have both rotational and reflection symmetry.
Solution:
The digits 0, 1, 8 have rotational and reflection symmetry.
∴ The three digits numbers 181, 111, 808, 818, 888 have both rotational and reflection symmetry.

Question 5.
Translate the given pattern and com ilete the design in rectangular strip?

Solution:

Challenge Problems

Question 6.
Shade one square so that it possesses
i) One line of symmetry
ii) Rotational symmetry of order 2

Solution:

Question 7.
Join six identical squares so that atleast one side of a square fits exactly with any other side of the square and have reflection symmetry (any three ways).
Solution:
The required combination of squares are given below.

Question 8.
Draw the following:
Solution:
i) A figure which has reflection symmetry but no rotational symmetry.

ii) A figure which has rotational symmetry but no reflection symmetry.

iii) A figure which has both reflection and rotational symmetry.

Question 9.
Find the line of symmetry and the order of rotational symmetry of the given regular polygons and complete the following table and answer the questions given below.

i) A regular polygon of 10 sides will have ____ lines of symmetry.
ii) If a regular polygon has 10 lines of symmetry, then its order of rotational symmetry is _____
iii) A regular polygon of ‘n’ sides ______ has lines of symmetry and the order of rational symmetry is _____.

Question 10.
Color the boxes in such a way that they possess translation symmetry.

Solution:
The following figures coloured to possess translation symmetry.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Measurements Ex 2.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Two pipes whose lengths are 7 m 25 cm and 8 m 13 cm joined by welding and then a small piece 60 cm is cut from the whole. What is the remaining length of the pipe?
Solution:

Question 2.
The saplings are planted at a distance of 2 m 50 cm in the road of length 5 km by Saravanan. If he has 2560 saplings, how many saplings will be planted by him? how many saplings are left?
Solution:
5 km = 5000 m = 500,000 cm
2 m 50 cm = 250 cm
Number of samplings = \(\frac{500,000}{250}\) = 2000
Remaining sampling = 560

Question 3.
Put ✓ a mark in the circles which adds up to the given measure.

Solution:

Question 4.
Make a calendar for the month of February 2020 (Hint: January 1st, 2020 is Wednesday)
Solution:
Given Jan 1st, 2020 is Wednesday.
1st + 7 = 8th Wednesday
8th + 7 = 15th Wednesday
15th + 7 = 22nd Wednesday
22nd + 7 = 29th Wednesday
Jan = 30th Thursday
Jan 31st Friday
Feb 1st Saturday
February has 29 days as 2020 is a leap year.

Question 5.
Observe and Collect the data for a minute:

Solution:

Challenge Problems

Question 6.
A squirrel wants to eat the grains quickly. Help the squirrel to find the shortest way to reach the grains. (Use your scale to measure the length of the line segments)

Solution:
The squirrel is in A and the grains are at E
The ways are (i) A → B → C → D → E
(ii) A → G → F → K → E
(iii) A → H → I → J → E
Distance
(i) AB + BC + CD + DE = 2 cm + 2.5 cm + 2.5 cm + 2 cm = 9 cm
(ii) AG + GF + FK + KE = (2.6 + 1.7 + 1.8 + 3) cm = 9.1 cm
(iii) AH + HI + IJ + JE = 3 cm + 2.3 cm + 1 cm + 3.2 cm = 9.5 cm.
1st-way ABCDE is the shortest one.

Question 7.
A room has a door whose measures are 1 m wide and 2 m 50 cm high.
Can we make a bed of 2 m and 20 cm in length and 90 cm wide into the room?
Solution:
Door:
Width (breadth) = 1 m = 100 cm
height (length) = 2 m 50 cm = 250 cm
Area of the door = l × b sq. units
= 250 × 100 cm²
= 25000 cm²

Bed:
length = 2 m 20 cm = 220 cm
width (breadth) = 90 cm
Area of the bed = l × b sq.units
= 220 × 90 cm²
= 19800 cm²
We can take the bed into the room.

Question 8.
A post office functions from 10 a.m to 5.45 pm with a lunch break of 1 hour. If the post office works for 6 days a week. Find the total duration of working hours in a week.
Solution:
Closing time of the post office 5.45 p.m. = (5 + 12) : 45 hour = 17 : 45 hours.
Starting time of the post office = 10 a.m. = 10 : 00 hours.
For a day total working hour without break = 17 : 45 hour – 10 : 00 hours = 07 : 45 hour
Lunch break = 01 : 00 hour
Duration of Working hours = 6:45 hours
For 6 days working hours = 6:45 hour × 6
= (6 hours 45 minutes) × 6
= 36 hours 270 minutes
= 36 hours + (4 × 60 + 30) minutes
= 36 hours + (4 hours + 30 minutes)
= 40 hours + 30 minutes.
The total duration of working hours in 6 days = 40 hours 30 minutes.

Question 9.
Seetha wakes up at 5.20 a.m. She spends 35 minutes to get ready and travels 15 minutes to reach the railway station. If the train departs exactly at 6 : 00 a.m, will Seetha catch the train?
Solution:
Time of wake up = 5.20 a.m = 5 hour 20 minutes
Time spends = 35 minutes
Then the time = 5 hour 55 minutes
Travelling time to reach railway station = 15 minutes
Now the time will be = 5 hours 70 minutes
= 5 hours (60 + 10) minutes
= 5 hours + (1 hour 10 minutes)
= 6 hours 10 minutes
= 6.10 a.m.
The departure time of the train to get ready = 6.0 a.m.
∴ She will not be able to catch the train.

Question 10.
A doctor advised Vairavan to take one tablet every 6 hours once in the 1st day and once every 8 hours on the 2nd and 3rd day. If he starts to take 9.30 a.m first dose. Prepare a time chart to take the tablet in railway time.
Solution:
The first dose is taken at 9.30 a.m. = 09:30 hours
Duration of every dose in 1st day = 6 hours
Duration of every dose in 2nd and 3rd day = 8 hours
Time Chart.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Find the type of lines marked in thick lines (Parallel, intersecting or perpendicular)

Solution:
(i) Parallel lines
(ii) Parallel lines
(iii) Parallel lines and Perpendicular lines
(iv) Intersecting lines

Question 2.
Find the parallel and intersecting line segments in the picture given below.

Solution:
Parallel lines:
\(\overline { YX }\) and \(\overline { DC }\)
\(\overline { YD }\) and \(\overline { ZE }\)
\(\overline { XC }\) and \(\overline { YD }\)
\(\overline { YZ }\) and \(\overline { DE }\)
\(\overline { XW }\) and \(\overline { BC }\)
\(\overline { XC }\) and \(\overline { WB }\)
\(\overline { WV }\) and \(\overline { BA }\)
\(\overline { ZV }\) and \(\overline { EA }\)
\(\overline { VA }\) and \(\overline { WB }\)
\(\overline { ZE }\) and \(\overline { VA }\)

Concurrent Lines:
\(\overline { AB }\), \(\overline { AE }\), \(\overline { AV }\)
\(\overline { BA }\), \(\overline { BC }\), \(\overline { BW }\)
\(\overline { CB }\), \(\overline { CX }\), \(\overline { CD }\)
\(\overline { DC }\), \(\overline { DE }\), \(\overline { DY }\)
\(\overline { EA }\), \(\overline { EZ }\), \(\overline { ED }\)
\(\overline { XC }\), \(\overline { XY }\), \(\overline { XW }\)
\(\overline { YX }\), \(\overline { YZ }\), \(\overline { YD }\)
\(\overline { ZY }\), \(\overline { ZE }\), \(\overline { ZV }\)
\(\overline { VA }\), \(\overline { VW }\), \(\overline { VZ }\)
\(\overline { WB }\), \(\overline { WV }\), \(\overline { WX }\)

Question 3.
Name the following angles as shown in the figure.

Solution:
(i) ∠1 = ∠CBD or ∠DBC
(ii) ∠2 = ∠DBE or ∠EBD
(iii) ∠3 = ∠ABE or ∠EBA
(iv) ∠1 + ∠2 = ∠CBE or ∠EBC
(v) ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠ABD or ∠DBA
(vi) ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠ABC or ∠CBA

Question 4.
Measure the angles of the given figures using a protractor and identify the type of angle as acute, obtuse, right or straight.

Solution:
(i) 90° – Right Angle
(ii) 45° – Acute Angle
(iii) 180° – Straight Angle
(iv) 105° – Obtuse Angle

Question 5.
Draw the following angles using the protractor.
(i) 45°
(ii) 120°
(iii) 65°
(iv) 135°
(v) 0°
(vi) 180°
(vii) 38°
(viii) 90°
Solution:
(i) 45°

Construction:
1. Drawn the base ray PQ.
2. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex P. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PQ}}\) with the 0° line. Then drawn and labelled a pointed (R) at the 45° mark on the inner scale (a) anticlockwise and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
3. Removed the protractor and drawn at \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PR}}\) to complete the angle
Now ∠P = ∠QPR – ∠RPQ = 45°.

(ii) 120°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex X. Lined up the ray \(\overline{\mathrm{XY}}\) with the 0° Line. Then draw and label a point Z at 120° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overline{\mathrm{XZ}}\) to complete the angle.
Now, ∠X = ∠ZXY = ∠YXZ = 120°.

(iii) 65°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex A. Line up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point C at the 65° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) (b) outer scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠A = ∠BAC = ∠CAB = 65°.

(iv) 135°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the Vertex A. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{EG}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point F at the 135° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{EF}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠E = ∠FEG = ∠GEF = 135°.

(v) 0°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex G. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GH}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point I at the 0° mark on the
(a) inner scale (anti-clockwise)
(b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and seen \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GI}}\) lies exactly on \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GH}}\)
Now ∠G = ∠HGI = ∠IGH = 0°, which is a zero angle.

(vi) 180°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex I. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{IJ}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and labelled a point K at the 180° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{IK}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠I = ∠JHK = ∠KIJ = 180°, which is a straight Angle.

(vii) 38°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex L. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{LM}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point N at 38° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) and (b) huter scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{LN}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠L = ∠MLN = ∠NLM = 38°.

(viii) 90°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex ‘O’. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point Q at 90° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠O = ∠POQ = ∠QOP = 90°.

Question 6.
From the figures given below, classify the following pairs of angles into complementary and non-complementary.

Solution:
(i) and (v) are complementary angles.
(ii), (iii) and (iv) non-complementary angles.

Question 7.
From the figures given below, classify the following pairs of angles into supplementary and non-supplementary.

Solution:
If two angles add up to 180°, then they are supplementary angles.
(a) In (ii) ∠AOB and ∠BOD are supplementary. In (iv) the pair is supplementary
(b) (i) and (iii) are not supplementary.

Question 8.
From the figure.
(i) name a pair of complementary angles
(ii) name a pair of supplementary angles

Solution:
(i) ∠FAE and ∠DAE are complementary
(ii) ∠FAD and ∠DAC are supplementary

Question 9.
Find the complementary angle of
(i) 30°
(ii) 26°
(iii) 85°
(iv) 0°
Solution:
When we have an angle, how far we need to go to reach the right angle is called the complementary angle.
(i) Complementary angle of 30° is 90° – 30° = 60°
(ii) Complementary angle of 26° is 90° – 26° = 64°
(iii) Complementary angle of 85° is 90° – 85° = 5°
(iv) Complementary angle of 0° is 90° – 0° = 90°
(v) Complementary angle of 90° is 90° – 90° = 0°

Question 10.
Find the supplementary angle of

1. 70°
2. 35°
3. 165°
4. 90°
5. 0°
6. 180°
7. 95°

Solution:
How far we should go in the same direction to reach the straight angle (180°) is called the supplementary angle.

1. Supplementary angle of 70° = 180° – 70° = 110°
2. Supplementary angle of 35° is 180° – 35° = 145°
3. Supplementary angle of 165° is 180° – 165° = 15°
4. Supplementary angle of 90° is 180° – 90° = 90°
5. Supplementary angle of 0° is 180° – 0° = 180°
6. Supplementary angle of 180° is 180° – 180° = 0°
7. Supplementary angle of 95° is 180° – 95° = 85°

Challenging Problems

Question 11.
Think and write and object having.
(i) Parallel Lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
(ii) Perpendicular lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
(iii) Intersecting lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
Solution:
(i) 1. Opposite edges of a Table.
2. Path traced by the wheels of a car on a straight road
3. Opposite edges of a black board
(ii) 1. Adjacent edges of a Table.
2. Hands of the block when it shows 3.30
3. Strokes of the letter ‘L’
(iii) 1. Sides of a triangle
2. Strokes of letter ‘V’
3. Hands of a scissors

Question 12.
Which angle is equal to twice its complement?
Solution:
We know that the sum of complementary angles 90°
Given Angle = 2 × Complementary angle

By trial and error, we find that Angle = 2 × Complement for 60°
The required angle = 60°
Another method:
Let the angle be x given
x = 2 (90 – x)
⇒ x = 180 – 2x
⇒ x + 2x = 180
⇒ 3x = 180
⇒ x = 60°

Question 13.
Which angle is equal to two-thirds of its supplement.
Solution:
Supplementary angles sum upto 180°
Given Angle = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × Supplement.
Forming the Table.

By trial and error, we find that angle = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × supplement for 72°.
The required angle 72°.

Question 14.
Given two angles are supplementary and one angle is 20° more than other. Find the two angles.
Solution:
Given two angles are supplementary i.e. their sum = 180°.
Let the angle be x
Then another angle = x + 20 (given)

The two angles are 80° and 100°.

Question 15.
Two complementary angles are in the ratio 7 : 2. Find the angles.
Solution:
Total of complementary angles = 90°.
The angles are in the ratio 7 : 2
Dividing total angles to 7 + 2 = 9 equal parts
One angle \(=\frac{7}{9} \times 90=70^{\circ}\)
Another angle \(=\frac{2}{9} \times 90=20^{\circ}\)
Two angles are 70° and 20°.

Question 16.
Two supplementary angles are in ratio 5 : 4. Find the angles.
Solution:
Let the angles be 5x and 4x
According to the problem
5x + 4x = 180°
9x = 180°
x = \(\frac{180°}{9}\)
x = 20°
∴ Two angles are
(i) 5x = 5 × 20° = 100°
(ii) 4x = 4 × 20° = 80°

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Fill in the Blanks.
(i) If Arulmozhi saves Rs 12 per day, then she saves Rs ………. in 30 days.
(ii) If a person ‘A’ earns Rs 1800 in 12 days, then he earns Rs ……… in a day.
(iii) 45 + (7 + 8) – 2 = ………
Solution:
(i) Rs 150
(ii) Rs. 360
(iii) 1

Question 2.
Say True or False.

1. 3 + 9 × 8 = 96
2. 7 × 20 – 4 = 136
3. 40 + (56 – 6) ÷ 2 = 45

Solution:

1. False
2. True
3. False

Question 3.
The number of people who visited the Public Library for the past 5 months was 1200, 2000, 2450, 3060 and 3200 respectively. How many people visited the library in the last 5 months.
Solution:
Total number of people who visited the public library for the past 5 months
= 1200 + 2000 + 2450 + 3060 + 3200
= 11910

Question 4.
Cheran had a bank savings of Rs 7,50,250. He withdrew Rs 5,34,500 for educational purpose. Find the balance amount in his account.
Solution:
Savings = Rs 7,50,250 Cash withdrawn = Rs 5,34,500
Balance amount = Rs 7,50,250 – Rs 5,34,500 = Rs 2,15,750

Question 5.
In a cycle factory, 1560 bicycles were manufactured every day. Find the number of bicycles manufactured in 25 days.
Solution:
Number of bicycles manufactured in one day = 1560
Number of bicycles manufactured in 25 days = 1560 × 25 = 39000

Question 6.
Rs 62500 was equally distributed as a New Year bonus for 25 employees of a company. How much did each receive?
Answer:
Total amount distributed = ₹ 62500
Number of employees received bonus = 25
Amount received by one employee = 62500 ÷ 25 = 2,500.
Each employee received = ₹ 2,500

Question 7.
Simplify the following numerical expression:
(i) (10 + 17) ÷ 3
(ii) 12 – [3 – {6 – (5 – 1)}]
(iii) 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + {(3 × 2) – 6 ÷ 2}
Solution:
(i) (10 + 17) ÷ 3 (Given)
= 27 ÷ 3 (Bracket completed first)
= 9 (÷ completed)
∴ (10 + 17) ÷ 3 = 9

(ii) 12 – [3 – {6 – (5 – 1)}] (Given)
= 12 – [3 – {6 – 4}] (Innermost bracket completed first)
= 12 – [3 – 2] (Again Inner bracket completed second)
= 12 – 1 (Bracket completed third)
= 11 (- completed)
∴ 12 – [3 – {6 – (5 – 1)}] = 11

(iii) 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + {(3 × 2) – 6 ÷ 2} (Given)
= 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + {6 – 6 ÷ 2} (Innermost bracket completed first)
= 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + {6 – 3} (To remove the next bracket ÷ within the bar completed second)
= 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + 3 (bar completed third)
= 100 + 4 + 3 (÷ completed fourth)
= 107 (+ completed)
∴ 100 + 8 ÷ 2 + {(3 × 2) – 6 ÷ 2} = 107

Objective Type Questions

Question 8.
The value of 3 + 5 – 7 × 1 is …….
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 1
Solution:
(d) 1

Question 9.
The value of 24 ÷ {8 – (3 × 2)} is ……..
(a) 0
(b) 12
(c) 3
(d) 4
Solution:
(b) 12

Question 10.
Use BODMAS and put the correct operator in the box.
2¤6 – 12 ÷ (4 + 2) = 10
(a) +
(b) –
(c) ×
(d) ÷
Solution:
(c) ×