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Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

9th Maths Coordinate Geometry Exercise 5.2 Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points.
(i) (1, 2) and (4, 3) Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 1
(ii) (3, 4) and (- 7, 2)
(ii) (a, b) and (c, b)
(iv) (3, -9) and (-2, 3)
Solution:
We know that distance,
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 50
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 2

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

9th Samacheer Maths Solution Ex 5.2 Question 2.
Determine whether the given set of points in each case are collinear or not.
(i) (7, -2), (5, 1), (3, 4)
(ii) (a, -2), (a, 3), (a, 0)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (7, -2), B (5, 1) and C (3, 4). By the distance formula.
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 3
∴ Hence the points are collinear.

(ii) Let the points be A (a, -2), B (a, 3) and C (a, 0).
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 4
∴ Hence the points are collinear.

Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Answers Question 3.
Show that the following points taken in order form an isosceles triangle.
(i) A (5, 4), B(2, 0), C (-2, 3)
(ii) A (6, -4),B (-2, -4), C (2, 10)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (5, 4), B (2, 0) and C (-2, 3)
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 5
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 6
Here AB + BC > CA and AB = BC. ∴ ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (6, -4), B (-2, -4) and C (2, 10).
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 7
Here BC + BA > CA and BC = CA. Two sides are equal, so ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle

Coordinate Geometry Solutions Ex 5.2 Question 4.
Show that the following points taken in order form an equilateral triangle in each case.
(i) A(2, 2), B(-2, -2), C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))
(ii) A(\(\sqrt{3}\) ,2), B (0, 1), C(0, 3)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (2, 2) B (-2, -2) and C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 8
All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal, Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (\(\sqrt{3}\), 2), B (0, 1) and C (0, 3).
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 9All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal. Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

Question 5.
Show that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a parallelogram.
(i) A(-3, 1), B(-6, -7), C (3, -9) and D(6, -1)
(ii) A (-7, -3), B(5, 10), C(15, 8) and D(3, -5)
Solution:
(i) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-3, 1), (-6, -7) (3, -9) and (6, -1) respectively.
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 10
The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

(ii) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-7, -3), (5, 10) (15, 8) and (3, -5)
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 11
The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

Form 3 Maths Exercise Question 6.
Verify that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a rhombus.
(i) A(3, -2), B (7, 6),C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)
(ii) A (1, 1), B(2, 1),C (2, 2) and D(1, 2)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A(3, -2), B (7, 6), C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 12
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 13∴ All the four sides of quadrilateral ABCD are equal. Hence ABCD is a rhombus.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

Question 7.
If A(-1, 1), B(1, 3) and C(3, a) are points and if AB = BC, then find ‘a’
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 14

Maths Solutions For Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Ex 5.2 Question 8.
The abscissa of a point A is equal to its ordinate, and its distance from the point B(1, 3) is 10 units, what are the coordinates of A?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 15
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 16
Co-ordinates of A are (-5, -5) or (9, 9)

9th Maths Book Ex 5.2 Question 9.
The point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (3, 4) and (-5, 6). Find a relation between x and y.
Solution:
P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(3, 4) and B(-5, 6)
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 17

Geometry 5.2  9th Maths Ex 5.2 Question 10.
Let A(2, 3) and B(2, -4) be two points. If P lies on the x-axis, such that AP = \(\frac{3}{7}\)AB, find the coordinates of P.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 18

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

9th Maths Guide Ex 5.2 Question 11.
Show that the point (11, 2) is the centre of the circle passing through the points (1, 2), (3, -4) and (5, -6)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 19
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 20
Therefore S is the centre of the circle, passing through A, B and C.

5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 Question 12.
The radius of a circle with centre at origin is 30 units. Write the coordinates of the points where the circle intersects the axes. Find the distance between any two such points.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 30

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 1.
An experiment has the four possible mutually exclusive and exhaustive outcomes A, B, C and D. Check whether the following assignments of probability are permissible.
(i) P(A) = 0.15, P(B) = 0.30, P(C) = 0.43, P(D) = 0.12
(ii) P(A) = 0.22, P(B) = 0.38, P(C) = 0.16, P(D) = 0.34
(iii) P(A) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(B) = \(\frac{3}{5}\), P(C) = \(-\frac{1}{5}\), P(D) = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Solution:
When A, B, C, D are the possible exclusive and exhaustive events the P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(D) = 1.
(i) The experiment has exactly four possible mutually exclusive and exhaustive out comes A, B, C, and D.
S = A ∪ B ∪ C ∪ D
Therefore by axioms of probability
P (A) ≥ 0 , P ( B ) ≥ 0 , P ( C ) ≥ 0 , P ( D ) ≥ 0 and
P (A ∪ B ∪ C ∪ D) = P (A) + P (B) + P(C) + P(D) = P(S) =: 1
Given P(A) = 0.15,
P(B) = 0.30,
P(C) = 0.43,
P(D) = 0.12
P(S) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(D)
= 0.15 + 0.30 + 0.43 + 0.12
= 1.00 = 1
Therefore the assignment of probability is permissible.

(ii) P(A) = 0.22, P(B) = 0.38, P(C) = 0.16, P(D) = 0.34
Now P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(D) = 1
0.22 + 0.38 + 0.16 + 0.34 = 1.10 = ≠1
∴ The assignment of probability is not permissible.

(iii) P (C) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) is negative.
The assignment of probability is not permissible.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 2.
If two coins are tossed simultaneously, then find the probability of getting
(i) one head and one tail
(ii) at most two tails
Solution:
When two coins are tossed the sample space will be
S = {(H, H), (H, T), (T, H), (T, T)}
n(S) = 4
(i) probability of getting 1 head and one tail = \(\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)
(ii) Probability of getting atmost two tails = \(\frac{4}{4}\) = 1

Question 3.
Five mangoes and 4 apples are in a box. If two fruits are chosen at random, find the probability that (i) one is a mango and the other is an apple (ii) both are of the same variety.
Solution:
(i) Mangoes (M) = 5
Apples (A) = 4 Total = 5 + 4=9
P(mango) = P(M) = 5/9
P(A) = 4/9.
When two Suits are chosen at random
P(one mango and one Apple) = P(MA or AM)
= P(M)P (A) × 2!
= \(\frac{5}{9} \times \frac{4}{8} \times 2 !=\frac{5}{9}\)
(PCM) = \(\frac{5}{9}\) (Sell from 5 mangoes and set 1 from a fruit)
P(A) = \(\frac{4}{8}\) (Sel 1 from 4 apples and set 1 from the remaining 8 fruits)

(ii) P(MMorAA)
= P(M) P(M) + P(A) P(A)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 1

Question 4.
What is the chance that (i) non-leap year (ii) leap year should have fifty-three Sundays?
Solution:
(i) A leap year has 366 days.
366 days = 52 weeks + 1 day.
52 weeks contain 52 Sundays.
The remaining one day maybe Sunday or Monday or Tuesday or Wednesday or Thursday or Friday or Saturday
Sample space S is
S = { Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday }
n(S) = 7
Let A be the event of getting a Sunday. Then
n(A) = 1
∴ Probability of getting 53 Sundays = \(\frac{1}{7}\)

(ii) Leap Year:
A leap year has 366 days.
366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days.
52 weeks contain 52 Sundays.
The remain 2 odd day maybe
S = {(Sunday, Monday), (Monday, Tuesday), ( Tuesday, Wednesday), (Wednesday, Thursday), (Thursday, Friday), (Friday, Saturday), (Saturday, Sunday ) }
n (S) = 7
Let A be the event of getting a Sunday. Then
A = {(Sunday, Monday) , (Saturday, Sunday)}
n(A) = 2
∴ Probability of getting 53 Sundays in a leap year = \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 5.
Eight coins are tossed once, find the probability of getting
(i) exactly two tails
(ii)at least two tails
(iii) at most two tails
Solution:
When a coin is tossed 8 times or 8 coins are tossed one time n(s) = 28 = 256
(i) Let A be the event of getting exactly 2 tails.
Here n(A) = 8C2 = \(\frac{8 \times 7}{2 \times 1}\) = 28
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{28}{256}=\frac{7}{64}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting at least two facts.
n(B) = 8C2 + 8C3 + ……….. + 8C8
= n( S) – (8C0 + 8C1) = 256 – (1 + 8) = 247
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{247}{256}\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting atmost two facts.
n(C) = 8C0 + 8C1 + 8C0
= 1 + 8 + \(\frac{8 \times 7}{2 \times 1}\) = 1 + 8 + 28 = 37
P(C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{37}{256}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 6.
An integer is chosen at random from the first 100 positive integers. What is the probability that the integer chosen is a prime or multiple of 8?
Solution:
S= {1, 2, 3, …………. 100}
n(S) = 100
Let A be the event of choosing a prime number
∴ A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89}
n(A) = 25 So P(A) = \(\frac{25}{100}\)
Let B be the event of getting a number multiple of 8
B = {8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 72, 80, 88, 96}
n(B)= 12 So P(B) = \(\frac{12}{100}\)
also A ∩ B = ϕ
⇒ A and B are mutually exclusive
∴ P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) = \(\frac{25}{100}+\frac{12}{100}=\frac{37}{100}\)

Question 7.
A bag contains 7 red and 4 black balls, 3 balls are drawn at random.
Find the probability that (i) all are red (ii) one red and 2 black.
Solution:
No. of Red balls = n(R) = 7
No. of Black balls = n(B) = 4
Total = 7 + 4 = 11 ⇒ n(S) = 11
Three balls are drawn at random
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 2

Question 8.
A single card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that
(i) the card is an ace or a king
(ii) the card will be 6 or smaller
(iii) the card is either a queen or 9?
Solution:
Total No. of cards = 52 = n(S)
No. of ace cards = n(A) = 4
No. of king card = n(k) = 4
(i) P(A or K) = P(A) + P(K)
(∵ A and K are mutually exclusive).
= \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}+\frac{n(\mathrm{K})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{4}{52}+\frac{4}{52}\)
= \(\frac{8}{52}=\frac{2}{13}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting a number be 6 or smaller
So the numbers can be 6, 5, 4, 3, 2
There are 4 types of cards
So n(B) = 4 × 5 = 20
and So, p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{20}{52}=\frac{5}{13}\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting a queen ⇒ so n(c) = 4
and Let D be the event of getting a number 9 ⇒ n(D) = 4
Now C ∩ D = ϕ
(i.e.,) C and D are mutually exclusive.
∴ P(C ∪ D) = P(C) + P(D) = \(\frac{4}{52}+\frac{4}{52}=\frac{8}{52}\)
= \(\frac{2}{13}\)

Question 9.
A cricket club has 16 members, of whom only 5 can bowl. What is the probability that in a team of 11 members at least 3 bowlers are selected?
Solution:
No. of players = 16
We need to select 11 players which can be done in 16 C11 ways
(i. e) n(S) = 16C11 ways
= 4368
Out of the selection of 11 members, there should be a least 3 bowlers So we can have 3 or 4 or 5 bowlers and S the remaining will be 8 or 7 or 6 players. So the selection can be done as follows.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 3
Let A be the event of selecting atleast 3 bowlers out of a selection of 11 players.
So n(A) = (5C3 × 11C8) + (5C4 × 11C7) + (5C5) (11C6)
∴ 5C3 = 10, 5C4 = 5, 5C5 = 1
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 10.
(i) The odds that the event A occurs is 5 to 7, find P(A)
(ii) Suppose P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\). Express the odds that the event B occurs.
Solution:
If the probability of an event is P then the odds in favour of its occurrence are P to (1 – P) and the odds against its occurrence are (1 – P) to P.
Here we are given the odds that event A occurs = 5 to 7
So, the odds that the event B occurs is 2 to 3.
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{5}{5+7}=\frac{5}{12}\)
(ii) We are given P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(i.e.,) P(B) = \(\frac{2}{2+3}\)
So, the odds that the event B occurs is 2 to 3.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 Additional Problems

Question 1.
An experiment has the four possible mutually exclusive outcomes A, B, C and D. Check whether the following assignments of probability are permissible.
P(A) = 0.32, P(B) = 0.28, P(C) = -0.06, P(D) = 0.46
Solution:
The probability of an event cannot be negative. Here P(C) = – 0.06.
∴ the above set of events are not possible.
P(A) = \(\frac{1}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), P(C) = \(\frac{2}{9}\), P(D) = \(\frac{5}{18}\)

Question 2.
In a single throw of two dice, find the probability of obtaining
(i) the sum of less than 5
(ii) a sum of greater than 10
(iii) a sum of 9 or 11.
Solution:
The sample space when throwing two dice once =
{(1, 1), (1, 2), …………. (1, 6)
(2, 1), ………… (2, 6)
:
:
(6, 1), ……….. (6, 6)}
n(S) = 62 = 36
(i) Let A be the event of getting a sum less than 5.
Then A = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3) (2, 1),(2, 2) (3, 1)}
n(A) = 6
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting a sum greater than 10.
∴ The sum will be 11 or 12.
Now the numbers whose sum is 11 = {(5, 6), (6, 5)}
The number whose sum is 12 = {(6, 6)}
n(B) = 2 + 1 = 3
∴ P(B) = \(\frac{3}{36}=\frac{1}{12}\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting a sum 9 or 11.
Now C = {(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3), (5, 6), (6, 5)}
n(C) = 6
∴ P(C) = \(\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 3.
Three coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting
(i) exactly two heads
(ii) at least two heads
(iii) atmost two heads.
Solution:
The sample space when three-coin are tossed once is as follows:
S = {(H, H, H), (H, T, H), (T, H, H), (H, H, T), (T, T, H), (H, T, T) (T, H, T), (T, T, T)}
n(S) = 23 = 8
(i) Let A be the event of getting exactly two heads.
∴ A = {(H, T, H) (T, H, H) (H, H, T)}
n(A) = 3
∴ n( A) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting at least two heads.
B = {(H, T, H), (T, H, H), (H, H, T), (H, H, H)}
n(B) = 4
∴ P(B) = \(\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting atmost two heads.
C = {(T, T, T), (H, T, T), (T, H, T), (T, T, H) (H, H, T), (T, H, H), (H, T, H)}
n( C) = 7 ∴ P(C) = \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1

Question 4.
A bag contains 5 white and 7 black balls. 3 balls are drawn at random. Find the probability that
(i) all are white
(ii) one white and 2 black.
Solution:
Number of white balls = 5
Number of black balls = 7
Total number of balls = 12
Selecting 3 from 12 balls can be done in
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 5

(ii) Let B be the event of selecting one white and 2 black balls.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 6

Question 5.
In a box containing 10 bulbs, 2 are defective. What is the probability that among the 5 bulbs chosen at random, none is defective?
Solution:
Total number of bulbs = 10
Number of defective bulbs = 2
∴ Number of good bulbs = 10 – 2 = 8
Now select 5 from the 10 bulbs can be done in 10C5 ways.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 7

Question 6.
Out of 10 outstanding students in a school, there are 6 girls and 4 boys. A team of 4 students is selected at random for a quiz programme. Find the probability that there are atleast two girls.
Solution:
Let A, B, and C be the three possible events of selections. The number of combinations is shown below:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 8
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Probability Theory Ex 12.1 9

Question 7.
An integer is chosen at random from the first fifty positive integers. What is the probability that the integer chosen is a prime or multiple of 4?
Solution:
S = {1, 2, 3, ……….. ,50}
∴ n(S) = 50
Let A be the event of getting a prime number.
∴ A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47}
n(A) = 15, so P(A) = 15/50
Let B be the event of getting number multiple of 4
∴ B = {4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48}
n(B) = 12, so P(B) = 12/50
Here A and B are mutually exclusive. (i.e.,) A ∩ B = ϕ
∴ P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) = 15/50 + 12/50 = 27/50.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Students can Download Physics Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by …….. .
(a) λp ∝ λe
(b) λp ∝ \(\sqrt { { \lambda }_{ e } } \)
(c) λp ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { { \lambda }_{ e } } } \)
(d) λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(d) λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)
Hint:
de broglie wavelength of electron, λe = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mE } } \)
∴ ie λe ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { E } } \) ⇒ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\) ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ E } \) …… (1)
de-Broglie wavelength of proton
λp = \(\frac { hc }{ E } \)
λp ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ E } \) …… (2)
From (1) and (2)
\({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\) ∝ λp i.e., λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)

Question 2.
In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would …….. .
(a) increase by 2 times
(b) decrease by 2 times
(c) decrease by 4 times
(d) increase by 4 times
Answer:
(c) decrease by 4 times
Hint:
At Voltage, V = 14 kV
de-Broglie wavelength of electron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-1
de-Broglie wavelength of electron is decreased by 4 times

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 3.
A particle of mass 3 x 10-6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity
6 x 106 ms-1 The velocity of the particle is …….. .
(a) 1.82 x 10-18 ms-1
(b) 9 x 10-2 ms-1
(c) 3 x 10-31 ms-1
(d)1.82 x 10-15 ms-1
Answer:
(d)1.82 x 10-15 ms-1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-2
Velocity of the particle
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-3

Question 4.
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is \(\frac { V }{ 4 }\). The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is ………. .
(a) 4λ
(b) 5λ
(c) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) λ
(d) 3λ
Answer:
(d) 3λ
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-4
On solving we get, λ0 = 3λ

Question 5.
If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a metal with work function 3.55 eV, the electrons are emitted. Then the wavelength of the emitted electron is (Take h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js) ……… .
(a) < 2.75 x 10-9 m
(b) ≥ 2.75 x 10-9 m
(c) < 2.75 x 10-12um
(d) ≤ 2.75 x 10-10um
Answer:
(a) < 2.75 x 10-9 m
Hint:
Maximum KE of emitted electron is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-5
de-Broglie wavelength of emitted electron
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-6
The Two wavelength of the emitted electron is < 2.75 x 10-9 m

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Question 6.
A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ and \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) . If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function at the surface of material is …….. .
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
(b) \(\frac { 2hc }{ λ }\)
(c) \(\frac { hc }{ 3λ }\)
(d) \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)
Hint:
KE1 = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Φ ……. (2)
3KE1 = \(\frac { 2hc }{ λ }\) – Φ
KE1 = \(\frac { 2hc }{ 3λ }\) – \(\frac { Φ }{ 3λ}\) ….. (2)
Equating (1) and (2)
\(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Φ = \(\frac { 2hc }{ 3λ }\) – \(\frac { Φ }{ 3λ}\)
\(\frac { hc }{ 3λ }\) = \(\frac { 2Φ }{ 3λ}\) ⇒ Φ = \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)

Question 7.
In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4 times threshold frequency of a certain metal is incident on the metal. Th en the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be ……….. .
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-7
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-8
Hint:
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-9

Question 8.
Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a metallic surface successively. If the work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be ………..
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 9
Answer:
(b) 1 : 3
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-10
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-11

Question 9.
A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 x 1015 photons per second while the second source of 460 nm produces 1.38 x 1015 photons per second. Then the ratio of power of second source to that of first source is ……… .
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.02
(c) 1.5
(d) 0.98
Answer:
(c) 1.5
Hint:
Power:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-12

Question 10.
The mean wavelength of light from sun is taken to be 550 nm and its mean power is 3.8 x 1026 W. The number of photons received by the human eye per second on the average from sunlight is of the order of ………. .
(a) 1045
(b) 1042
(c) 1054
(d) 1051
Answer:
(a) 1045
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-13

Question 11.
The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 3.313 eV is
(a) 4125 Å
(b) 3750 Å
(c) 6000 Å
(d) 2062.5 Å
Answer:
(b) 3750 Å
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-14

Question 12.
A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive plate of photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the photo electrons emitted is be (Take h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js)
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.16 eV
Answer:
(c) 1.24 eV
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-15

Question 13.
Photons of wavelength λ are incident on a metal. The most energetic electrons ejected from the metal are bent into a circular arc of radius R by a perpendicular magnetic field having magnitude B. The work function of the metal is ……… .
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-16
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-17
Hint:
Magnetic lorentz force = Centripetal force
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-18
From Einstein’s photo electric equation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-19

Question 14.
The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are ………. .
(a) A only
(b) both A and B
(c) all these metals
(d) none
Answer:
(b) both A and B
Hint:
Energy of radiation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-20
E = 3.04 eV
Since energy of incident radiation is greater than the work function of metals A and B. So metal A and B will emit photoelectrons.

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Question 15.
Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called ……… emission.
(a) photoelectric
(b) field
(c) thermionic
(d) secondary
Answer:
(c) thermionic

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why do metals have a large number of free electrons?
Answer:
In metals, the electrons in the outer most shells are loosely bound to the nucleus. Even at room temperature, there are a large number of free electrons which are moving inside the metal in a random manner.

Question 2.
Define work function of a metal. Give its unit.
Answer:
The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal surface is called work function of that metal. It’s unit is electron volt (eV).

Question 3.
What is photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The ejection of electrons from a metal plate when illuminated by light or any other electromagnetic radiation of suitable wavelength (or frequency) is called photoelectric effect.

Question 4.
How does photocurrent vary with the intensity of the incident light?
Answer:
Photocurrent – the number of electrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light.

Question 5.
Give the definition of intensity of light and its unit.
Answer:
Intensity of light refer to the strength or brightness or amount of light produced by a specific source. It’s unit is candela (cd)

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Question 6.
How will you define threshold frequency?
Answer:
For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.

Question 7.
What is a photo cell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
photocells: Photo electric cell or photo cell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of photo electric effect.
Types:

  • Photo emissive cell
  • Photo voltaic cell
  • Photo conductive cell

Question 8.
Write the expression for the de Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle of charge q and mass m, when it is accelerated through a potential V.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = eV
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2ev }{ m } } \)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2emV } } \)

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Question 9.
State de Broglie hypothesis.
Answer:
De Broglie hypothesis, all matter particles like electrons, protons, neutrons in motion are associated with waves.

Question 10.
Why we do not see the wave properties of a baseball?
Answer:
Due to the large mass of a baseball, the de Broglie wavelength
[λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\)] associated with a moving baseball is very small. Hence its wave nature is not visible.

Question 11.
A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de Broglie wavelength. Justify.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
i.e. λ ∝ \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { m } } \)
As me << mp, so λe >> λp
Hence protons have greater de-Broglie wavelength.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 12.
Write the relationship of de Broglie wavelength λ associated with a particle of mass m in terms of its kinetic energy K.
Answer:
Kinetic energy of the particle, K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = \(\frac { { P }^{ 2 } }{ 2m } \)
p = \(\sqrt { 2mK } \)
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)

Question 13.
Name an experiment which shows wave nature of the electron. Which phenomenon was observed in this experiment using an electron beam?
Answer:

  • Davisson – Germer experiment confirmed the wave nature of electrons.
  • They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.

Question 14.
An electron and an alpha particle have same kinetic energy. How are the de Broglie wavelengths associated with them related?
Answer:
[λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\)]
Kinetic energy of the particle K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = \(\frac { { P }^{ 2 } }{ 2m } \) = \(\frac { { h }^{ 2 } }{ 2m{ \lambda }^{ 2 } } \)
i.e. λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) ; λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { m} } \)
\(\frac { { \lambda }_{ e } }{ { \lambda }_{ \alpha } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { m }_{ \alpha } }{ { m }_{ e } } } \)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by electron emission? Explain briefly various methods of electron emission.
Answer:
Electron emission:
1. Free electrons possess some kinetic energy and this energy is different for different electrons. The kinetic energy of the free electrons is not sufficient to overcome the surface barrier.

2. Whenever an additional energy is given to the free electrons, they will have sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier. And they escape from the metallic surface.

3. The liberation of electrons from any surface of a substance is called electron emission.

There are mainly four types of electron emission which are given below.
(i) Thermionic emission:
When a metal is heated to a high temperature, the free electrons on the surface of the metal get sufficient energy in the form of thermal energy so that they are emitted from the metallic surface. This type of emission is known as thermionic emission.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-21
The intensity of the thermionic emission (the number of electrons emitted) depends on the metal used and its temperature.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-22
Examples: cathode ray tubes, electron microscopes, X-ray tubes etc.

(ii) Field emission:
Electric field emission occurs when a very strong electric field is applied across the metal. This strong field pulls the free electrons and helps them to overcome the surface barrier of the metal.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-23
Examples: Field emission scanning electron microscopes, Field-emission display etc.

(iii) Photo electric emission:
When an electromagnetic radiation of suitable frequency is incident on the surface of the metal, the energy is transferred from the radiation to the free electrons. Hence, the free electrons get sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier and the photo electric emission takes place. The number of electrons emitted depends on the intensity of the incident radiation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-24
Examples: Photo diodes, photo electric cells etc.

(iv) Secondary emission:
When a beam of fast moving electrons strikes the surface of the metal, the kinetic energy of the striking electrons is transferred to the free electrons on the metal surface. Thus the free electrons get sufficient kinetic energy so that the secondary emission of , electron occurs.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-25
Examples: Image intensifies, photo multiplier tubes etc.

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Question 2.
Briefly discuss the observations of Hertz, Hallwachs and Lenard.
Answer:
Hertz observation:
1. In 1887, Heinrich Hertz first became successful in generating and detecting electromagnetic wave with his high voltage induction coil to cause a spark discharge between two metallic spheres.

2. When a spark is formed, the charges will oscillate back and forth rapidly and the electromagnetic waves are produced.

3. The electromagnetic waves thus produced were detected by a detector that has a copper wire bent in the shape of a circle. Although the detection of waves is successful, there is a problem in observing the tiny spark produced in the detector.

4. In order to improve the visibility of the spark, Hertz made many attempts and finally noticed an important thing that small detector spark became more vigorous when it was exposed to ultraviolet light.

5. The reason for this behaviour of the spark was not known at that time. Later it was found that it is due to the photoelectric emission.

6. Whenever ultraviolet light is incident on the metallic sphere, the electrons on the outer surface are emitted which caused the spark to be more vigorous.

Hallwachs’ observation:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-26

8. In 1888, Wilhelm Hallwachs, a German physicist, confirmed that the strange behaviour of the spark is due to the action of ultraviolet light with his simple experiment.

9. A clean circular plate of zinc is mounted on an insulating stand and is attached to a gold leaf electroscope by a wire. When the uncharged zinc plate is irradiated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp, it becomes positively charged and the leaves will open.

10. Further, if the negatively charged zinc plate is exposed to ultraviolet light, the leaves will close as the charges leaked away quickly. If the plate is positively charged, it becomes more positive upon UV rays irradiation and the leaves will open further.

11. From these observations, it was concluded that negatively charged electrons were emitted from the zinc plate under the action of ultraviolet light.

Lenard’s observation:
1. In 1902, Lenard studied this electron emission phenomenon in detail. The apparatus consists of two metallic plates A and C placed in an evacuated quartz bulb. The galvanometer G and battery B are connected in the circuit.

2. When ultraviolet light is incident on the negative plate C, an electric current flows in the circuit that is indicated by the deflection in the galvanometer. On other hand, if the positive plate is irradiated by the ultraviolet light, no current is observed in the circuit.

3. From these observations, it is concluded that when ultraviolet light falls on the negative plate, electrons are ejected from it which are attracted by the positive plate A. On reaching the positive plate through the evacuated bulb, the circuit is completed and the current flows in it.

4. Thus, the ultraviolet light falling on the negative plate causes the electron emission from the surface of the plate.

Question 3.
Explain the effect of potential difference on photoelectric current.
Answer:
Effect of potential difference on photoelectric current:
1.  To study the effect of potential difference V between the electrodes on photoelectric current, the frequency and intensity of the incident light are kept constant. Initially the potential of A is kept positive with respect to C and the cathode is irradiated with the given light.

2. Now, the potential of A is increased and the corresponding photocurrent is noted. As the potential of A is increased, photocurrent is also increased. However a stage is reached where photocurrent reaches a saturation value (saturation current) at which all the photoelectrons from C are collected by A. This is represented by the flat portion of the graph between potential of A and photocurrent.

3. When a negative (retarding) potential is applied to A with respect to C, the current does not immediately drop to zero because the photoelectrons are emitted with some definite and different kinetic energies.

4. The kinetic energy of some of the photoelectrons is such that they could overcome the retarding electric field and reach the electrode A.

5. When the negative (retarding) potential of A is gradually increased, the photocurrent starts to decrease because more and more photoelectrons are being repelled away from reaching the electrode A. The photocurrent becomes zero at a particular negative potential V0, called stopping or cut-off potential.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-27

6. Stopping potential is that the value of the negative (retarding) potential given to the collecting electrode A which is just sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons emitted and make the photocurrent zero.

7. At the stopping potential, even the most energetic electron is brought to rest. Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the fastest electron (Kmax ) is equal to the work done by the stopping potential to stop it (eV0 ).
Kmax = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\) = eV0 …. (1)
Where vmax is the maximun speed of the emitted photoelectron.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-28
= 5.93 x 105 \(\sqrt { { V }_{ 0 } } \) …. (2)
From equation (1),
Kmax = eVo (in joule) (or) Kmax = (V0 ) (in eV)

8. From the graph, when the intensity of the incident light alone is increased, the saturation current also increases but the value of V0 remains constant.

9. Thus, for a given frequency of the incident light, the stopping potential is independent of intensity of the incident light. This also implies that the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is independent of intensity of the incident light.

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Question 4.
Explain how frequency of incident light varies with stopping potential.
Answer:
Effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential:
1. To study the effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential, the intensity of the incident light is kept constant. The variation of photocurrent with the collector electrode potential is studied for radiations of different frequencies and a graph drawn between them. From the graph, it is clear that stopping potential vary over different frequencies of incident light.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-29

2. Greater the frequency of the incident radiation, larger is the corresponding stopping potential. This implies that as the frequency is increased, the photoelectrons are emitted with greater kinetic energies so that the retarding potential needed to stop the photoelectrons is also greater.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-30

3. Now a graph is drawn between frequency and the stopping potential for different metals. From this graph, it is found that stopping potential varies linearly with frequency. Below a certain frequency called threshold frequency, no electrons are emitted; hence stopping potential is zero for that reason. But as the frequency is increased above threshold value, the stopping potential varies linearly with the frequency of incident light.

Question 5.
List out the laws of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Laws of photoelectric effect:
1. For a given frequency of incident light, the number of photoelectrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light. The saturation current is also directly proportional to the intensity of incident light.

2. Maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons is independent of intensity of the incident light.

3. Maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons from a given metal is directly proportional to the frequency of incident light.

4. For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.

5. There is no time lag between incidence of light and ejection of photoelectrons.

Question 6.
Explain why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.
Answer:
Failures of classical wave theory:
From Maxwell’s theory, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of coupled electric and magnetic oscillations that move with the speed of light and exhibit typical wave behaviour. Let us try to explain the experimental observations of photoelectric effect using wave picture of light.

1. When light is incident on the target, there is a continuous supply of energy to the electrons. According to wave theory, light of greater intensity should impart greater kinetic energy to the liberated electrons (Here, Intensity of light is the energy delivered per unit area per unit time). But this does not happen. The experiments show that maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons does not depend on the intensity of the incident light.

2. According to wave theory, if a sufficiently intense beam of light is incident on the surface, electrons will be liberated from the surface of the target, however low the frequency of the radiation is. From the experiments, we know that photoelectric emission is not possible below a certain minimum frequency. Therefore, the wave theory fails to explain the existence of threshold frequency.

3. Since the energy of light is spread across the wavefront, the electrons which receive energy from it are large in number. Each electron needs considerable amount of time (a few hours) to get energy sufficient to overcome the work function and to get liberated from the surface. But experiments show that photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous process (the time lag is less than 10“9 s after the surface is illuminated) which could not be explained by wave theory.

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Question 7.
Explain the quantum concept of light.
Answer:
Concept of quantization of energy:
Max Planck proposed quantum concept in 1900 in order to explain the thermal radiations emitted by a black body and the shape of its radiation curves. According to Planck, matter is composed of a large number of oscillating particles (atoms) which vibrate with different frequencies. Each atomic oscillator – which vibrates with its characteristic frequency – emits or absorbs electromagnetic radiation of the same frequency. It also says that

1. If an oscillator vibrates with frequency v, its energy can have only certain discrete values, given by the equation.
En = nhυ n = 1, 2, 3 ………..
where A is a constant, called Planck’s constant.

2. The oscillators emit or absorb energy in small packets or quanta and the energy of each quantum is E = hυ.
This implies that the energy of the oscillator is quantized – that is, energy is not continuous as believed in the wave picture. This is called quantization of energy.

Question 8.
Obtain Einstein’s photoelectric equation with necessary explanation. Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric equation:
Answer:
1.  When a photon of energy hv is incident on a metal surface, it is completely absorbed by a single electron and the electron is ejected.

2.  In this process, a part of the photon energy is used for the ejection of the electrons from the metal surface (photoelectric work function Φ0) and the remaining energy as the kinetic energy of the ejected electron. From the law of conservation of energy,
hυ = Φ0 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 …… (1)
where m is the mass of the electron and u its velocity
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-31

3. If we reduce the frequency of the incident light, the speed or kinetic energy of photo electrons is also reduced. At some frequency V0 of incident radiation, the photo electrons are ejected with almost zero kinetic energy. Then the equation (1) becomes
0 = Φ0
where vQ is the threshold frequency. By rewriting the equation (1), we get
hυ = hυ0 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 …… (2)
The equation (2) is known as Einstein’s Photoelectric equation.
If the electron does not lose energy by internal collisions, then it is emitted with maximum kinetic energy Kmax. Then
Kmax = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\)
where nmax is the maximum velocity of the electron ejected. The equation (1) is rearranged as follows:
Kmax = hυ – Φ0

Question 9.
Explain experimentally observed facts of photoelectric effect with the help of Einstein’s explanation.
Answer:
Explanation for the photoelectric effect:
The experimentally observed facts of photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of . Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

1. As each incident photon liberates one electron, then the increase of intensity of the light (the number of photons per unit area per unit time) increases the number of electrons emitted thereby increasing the photocurrent. The same has been experimentally observed.

2. From Kmax = hυ – Φ0, it is evident that Kmax is proportional to the frequency of the light and is independent of intensity of the light.

3.  As given in Einstein’s photoelectric equation, there must be minimum energy (equal to the work function of the metal) for incident photons to liberate electrons from the metal surface. Below which, emission of electrons is not possible. Correspondingly, there exists minimum frequency called threshold frequency below which there is no photoelectric emission.

4. According to quantum concept, the transfer of photon energy to the electrons is instantaneous so that there is no time lag between incidence of photons and ejection of electrons.

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Question 10.
Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:
Photo emissive cell:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.
Construction:
1. It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode are fixed.

2. The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.

3. A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-32

Working:
4.  When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer.

5. For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current depends on
(i) the intensity to incident radiation and (ii) the potential difference between anode and cathode.

Question 11.
Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength of electrons.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic
energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = evacuated
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2emV } } \)
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-33
For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 A. Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written as
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 12.
Briefly explain the principle and working of electron microscope.
Answer:
Electron Microscope:
Principle:
1. This is the direct application of wave nature of particles. The wave nature of the electron is used in the construction of microscope called electron microscope.

2. The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the radiation used for illuminating the object under study. Higher magnification as well as higher resolving power can be obtained by employing the waves of shorter wavelengths.

3. De Broglie wavelength of electron is very much less than (a few thousands less) that of the visible light being used in optical microscopes.

4. As a result, the microscopes employing de Broglie waves of electrons have very much higher resolving power than optical microscope.

5. Electron microscopes giving magnification more than 2,00.000 times are common in research laboratories.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-34
Working:
1. The electron beam passing across a suitably arranged either electric or magnetic fields undergoes divergence or convergence thereby focussing of the beam is done.

2. The electrons emitted from the source are accelerated by high potentials. The beam is made parallel by magnetic condenser lens. When the beam passes through the sample whose magnified image is needed, the beam carries the image of the sample.

3. With the help of magnetic objective lens and magnetic projector lens system, the magnified image is obtained on the screen. These electron microscopes are being used in almost all branches of science.

Question 13.
Describe briefly Davisson – Germer experiment which demonstrated the wave nature of electrons.
Answer:
Davisson – Germer experiment:
1. De Broglie hypothesis of matter waves was experimentally confirmed by Clinton Davisson and Lester Germer in 1927. They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.

2. Since ciystal can act as a three-dimensional diffraction grating for matter waves, the electron waves incident on crystals are diffracted off in certain specific directions.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-35

3. The filament F is heated by a low tension (L.T.) battery. Electrons are emitted from the hot filament by thermionic emission. They are then accelerated due to the potential difference between the filament and the anode aluminium cylinder by a high tension (H.T.) battery.

4. Electron beam is collimated by using two thin aluminium diaphragms and is allowed to strike a single crystal of Nickel.

5. The electrons scattered by Ni atoms in different directions are received by the electron detector which measures the intensity of scattered electron beam.

6. The detector is rotatable in the plane of the paper so that the angle Φ between the incident
beam and the scattered beam can be changed at our will.

7. The intensity of the scattered electron beam is measured as a function of the angle θ.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-36

8. From the graph shows the variation of intensity of the scattered electrons with the angle 0 for the accelerating voltage of 54V. For a given accelerating voltage V, the scattered wave shows a peak or maximum at an angle of 50° to the incident electron beam.

This peak in intensity is attributed to the constructive interference of electrons diffracted from various atomic layers of the target material.

9. From the known value of interplanar spacing of Nickel, the wavelength of the electron wave has been experimentally calculated as 1.65 Å.

10. The wavelength can also be calculated from de Broglie relation for V = 54 V from equation.
λ = \(\frac { 12.27 }{ \sqrt { V } } \) Å = \(\frac { 12.27 }{ \sqrt { 54 } } \)
λ = 1.67 Å

11. This value agrees well with the experimentally observed wavelength of 1.65 Å. Thus this experiment directly verifies de Broglie’s hypothesis of the wave nature of moving particles.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Numerical problems

Question 1.
How many photons per second emanate from a 50 mW laser of 640 nm?
Answer:
P = 50 mW
λ = 640 nm
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Number of photons emanate per second np = \(\frac { P }{ E }\) =\(\frac { Pλ }{ hc }\)
= \(\frac { 50\times { 10 }^{ 3 }\times 640\times { 10 }^{ -9 } }{ 6.6\times { 10 }^{ -34 }3\times { 10 }^{ 8 } } \) = \(\frac { 32000\times { 10 }^{ -6 } }{ 19.8\times { 10 }^{ -26 } } \) = 1616.16 x 10-6
np = 1.61 x 101017 s-1

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Question 2.
Calculate the maximum kinetic energy and maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted when the stopping potential is 81 V for the photoelectric emission experiment.
Answer:
V0 = 81 V
e= 1.6 x 10-19 C
m = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Maximum kinetic energy of electron,
Kmax = eVo
= 1.6 x 10-19 x 81
= 129.6 x 10-19
= 1.29 x 10-17
Kmax = 1.3 x 10-17 J
aximum velocity of photoelectron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-37

Question 3.
Calculate the energies of the photons associated with the following radiation:
(i) violet light of 413 nm
(ii) X-rays of 0.1 nm
(iii) radio waves of 10 m.
Answer:
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Energy of photon, E = hυ
E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-38
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-39

Question 4.
A 150 W lamp emits light of mean wavelength of 5500 Å . If the efficiency is 12%, find out the number of photons emitted by the lamp in one second.
Answer:
P= 150W
λ = 5500 Å
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Number of photons emitted per second n = \(\frac { pλ }{ hc }\)
If the efficiency is 12%, η = \(\frac { 12 }{ 100 }\) = 0.12
n = \(\frac { pηλ }{ hc }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-40
n = 5 x 1019

Question 5.
How many photons of frequency 1014 Hz will make up 19.86 J of energy?
Answer:
Total energy emitted per second = Power x time
19.86 J = Power x is
∴ Power = 19.86 W
Number of photons, n = \(\frac { p }{ E }\) = \(\frac { p }{ hυ }\)
= \(\frac { 19.86 }{ 6.6\times { 10 }^{ -34 }\times { 10 }^{ 14 } } \) = 3.009 x 1020
n = 3 x 1020
np = 3 x 1020

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Question 6.
What should be the velocity of the electron so that its momentum equals that of 4000 Å wavelength photon.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of electron
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\)
v = \(\frac { h }{ mλ }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-41
v = 1811 ms-1

Question 7.
When a light of frequency 9 x 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface, photoelectrons are emitted with a maximum speed of 8 x 105ms-1. Determine the threshold frequency of the surface.
Answer:
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\) = h (υ-υ0)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-42
= 9 x 014-4.4 x 1014
υ0 = 4.6 x 1014 Hz

Question 8.
When a 6000 Å light falls on the cathode of a photo cell and produced photoemission. If a stopping potential of 0.8 V is required to stop emission of electron, then determine the:

  1. frequency of the light
  2. energy of the incident photon
  3. work function of the cathode material
  4. threshold frequency
  5. net energy of the electron after it leaves the surface.

Answer:
Wavelength, λ = 6000 Å= 6000 x 10-10 m
stopping potential, V0 = 0.8 V
1. Frequency of the light, υ = \(\frac { c }{ λ }\)
= \(\frac { 3\times { 10 }^{ 8 } }{ 600\times { 10 }^{ -10 } } \) = 5 x 104 x 10-18
υ = 5 x 1014 Hz

2. Energy of the incident photon,
E = hυ = 6.6 x 10-34 x 5 x 1014
= 33 x 10-20 J
= \(\frac { 33\times { 10 }^{ -20 } }{ 1.6\times { 10 }^{ -19 } } \) = 20.625 x 10-1
E = 2.06 eV

3. Work function of the cathode material.
W0 = hυ – eV0
= \(\left(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 5 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\right)\) – \(\left(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.8}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\right)\) = 2.06-0.8
W0 = 1.26 eV

4. Threshold frequency, W0 = hυ0
υ0 = \(\frac{W_{0}}{h}\) = \(\frac{1.26 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 0.3055 x 1015
υ0 = 3.05 x 1014 Hz

5. Net energy of the electron after it leaves the surface
E = (υ – υ0)
= 6.6 x 10-34 (5 x1014 – 3.06 x 1014
= 6.6 x 10-34 x 1.94 x 1014
E = 12.804 x 10-20 J
= \(\frac{1.2804 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
E = 0.8 e V

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Question 9.
A 3310 Å photon liberates an electron from a material with energy 3 x 10-19 J while another 5000 Å photon ejects an electron with energy 0.972×10-19 J from the same material. Determine the value of Planck’s constant and the threshold wavelength of the material.
Answer:
They energy of ejected electron is given by E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – \(\frac { hc }{ { \lambda }_{ 0 } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-43
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-43.1
Threshold Wavelength,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-44

Question 10.
At the given point of time, the earth receives energy from Sun at 4 cal cm-2 min-1. Determine the number of photons received on the surface of the Earth per cm2 per minute. (Given : Mean wavelength of Sun light = 5500 Å)
Answer:
E= 4 calorie
= 4 x 4.184 J
λ = 5500 Å
Number of photons received on the surface of the earth, from E = nhυ
n = \(\frac { E λ}{ hc }\)
= \(\frac{4 \times 4.184 \times 5500 \times 10^{-10}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\) = \(\frac{9.2048 \times 10^{-10}}{19.8 \times 10^{-26}}\) = 4648 x 1016
= 4.648 x 1019
n = 4.65 x 1019

Question 11.
UV light of wavelength 1800 Å is incident on a lithium surface whose threshold wavelength 4965 Å. Determine the maximum energy of the electron emitted.
Answer:
λ = 1800 x 10-10 m
λ0 = 4965 x 10-10m
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Maximum kinetic energy of electron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-45

Question 12.
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a proton whose kinetic energy is equal to 81.9 x 10-15 J. (Given: mass of proton is 1836 times that of electron).
Answer:
mp = 1.67 x 10-27 kg
K.E = 81.9 x 10-15 J
de-Broglie wavelength of proton, λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-46
λ = 4 x 10-14 m

Question 13.
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated with the same potential. Which one of the two has (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less kinetic energy? Explain.
Answer:
(i) Using de-Broglie wavelength formula, the dueteron and alpha particle are accelerated with same potential. So, both their velocities are same.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-47
(ii) For same potential of acceleration, KE is directly proportional to the ‘q’
Charge of duetron is +e
Charge of alpha is +2e
So, Kd = \(\frac {{ K }_{α}}{ 2 }\)
Charge of alpha particle is more than the duetron.

Question 14.
An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 81V. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength correspond?
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2meV } } \) = \(\frac { 1.23 }{ \sqrt { V } } \) nm
V = 81 V, so λ = \(\frac { 1.23 }{ \sqrt { 81 } } \) x 10-9 m
λ = 1.36 Å
X-ray is the part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength corresponds. X-ray has the wavelengths ranging from about 108 to 10-12 m.

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Question 15.
The ratio between the de Broglie wavelengths associated with protons, accelerated through a potential of 512 V and that of alpha particles accelerated through a potential of X volts is found to be one. Find the value of X.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of accelerated charge particle
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mqV } } \)
λ ∝ \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { mqV } } \)
Ratio of wavelength of proton and a-particle.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-48

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of
energy 3 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential, in volt, is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 4
Hint:
Stopping potential, V0 = \(\frac { { K }_{ max } }{ e } \) = \(\frac { 4eV }{ e }\) = 4v

Question 2.
If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ, it implies that they have the same-
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) velocity
(d) angular momentum
Answer:
(b) momentum
Hint: Momentum, p = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\)
As both electron and proton have same λ, so they have the same momentum

Question 3.
An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V in vacuum. Its final velocity will be-
(a) \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
(b) \(\sqrt { \frac { eV }{ m } } \)
(c) \(\frac { ev }{ 2m }\)
(d) \(\frac { ev }{ m }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
Hint:
K.E. gained by an electron when accelerated through a potential difference V,
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = eV or v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)

Question 4.
The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
(a) 540 nm
(b) 400 nm
(c) 310 nm
(d) 220 nm
Answer:
(c) 310 nm
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{ W }\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.0 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = m = 310 x 10-9 m = 310 nm

Question 5.
Sodium and copper have work function 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then, the ratio of their threshold wavelength is nearest to-
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
(c) 2 : 1
Hint:
\(\frac{\lambda_{0}(\mathrm{Na})}{\lambda_{0}(\mathrm{Cu})}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{0}(\mathrm{Cu})}{\mathrm{W}_{0}(\mathrm{Na})}\)

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Question 6.
The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV nm)
(a) 3.09 eV
(b) 1.41 eV
(c) 1.51 eV
(d) 1.68 eV
Anwer:
(b) 1.41 eV
Hint:
Kmax = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) W0 or W0 = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Kmax
= \(\frac { 1240 }{ 400 }\)-1.68 = 3.10-1.68 = 1.42ev

Question 7.
4 eV is the energy of the incident photon and the work function is 2 eV. The stopping potential will be
(a) 2V
(b) 4V
(c) 6V
(d) 2√2V
Answer:
(d) 2√2V
Hint:
eV0= hv- W0 = 4eV – 2eV = 2eV
∴ V0= \(\frac { 2ev }{ e }\) = 2v

Question 8.
A light having wavelength 300 nm falls on a metal surface work function of metal is 2.54 eV. What is stopping potential?
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 2.59 V
(c) 1.60 V
(d) 1.29 V
Answer:
(a) 1.4 V
Hint:
eV0 = hu – W0 = 2eV – 0.6 eV = 1.4 eV
∴ V0= \(\frac { 1.4eV }{ e }\) = 1.4eV

Question 9.
If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(b) 2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)
(d) √2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\)
When kinetic energy is doubled, λ’ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \times 2 K}}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)λ

Question 10.
If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 60%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 75%
Hint:
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\) ; \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \times 16 K}}\) = \(\frac { λ }{ 4 }\)
% change in de-Broglie wavelength, \(\frac { λ-λ’ }{ λ }\) = [1-\(\frac { λ }{ λ’ }\)] x 100 [1-\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)] x 100 = 75%

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Question 11.
When a proton is accelerated through IV, then its kinetic energy will be
(a) 1 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 1840 eV
(d) 0.54 eV
Answer:
(a) 1 eV
Hint:
K = qV = e x 1V= 1 eV

Question 12.
The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts, is
(a) 416.6 cal
(b) 6.636 cal
(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J
(d) 1.6 x 104 J
Answer:
(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J
Hint:
K = eV = 1.602 x 10(c) 1.602 x 10-19 x 100 J
= 1.602 x 10(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J

Question 13.
Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends upon
(a) frequency
(b) intensity
(c) nature of atmosphere surrounding the electron
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) frequency
Hint:
Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends on the frequency of incident radiation.

Question 14.
The work function of photometal is 6.626 eV. What is the threshold wavelength?
(a) 3921 Å
(b) 1875 Å
(c) 1867 Å
(d) 4433 Å
Answer:
(b) 1875 Å
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ W }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8} \times 10^{10}}{6.626 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) Å = 1875 Å

Question 15.
The number of photo-electrons emitted for light of a frequency υ (higher than the threshold frequency υ0) is proportional to
(a) Threshold frequency (υ0)
(b) Intensity of light
(c) Frequency of light (υ)
(d) υ – υ0
Answer:
(b) Intensity of light
Hint:
Photoelectric current oc Intensity of incident light

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Question 16.
The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-10 m is
(a) 7.25 x 106 ms-1
(b) 6.26 x 106 ms-1
(c) 5.25 x 106 ms-1
(d) 4.24 x 106 ms-1
Answer:
(a) 7.25 x 106 ms-1
Hint:
As λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\)
∴ v = \(\frac { h }{ mλ }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 10^{-10}}\) = 7.25 x 106 ms-1

Question 17.
If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same wavelength, it implies that they have the same
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) angular momentum
(d) velocity
Answer:
(b) momentum
Hint:
As both electron and photon have same de-Broglie wavelength (λ = h /p), so they have the same momentum P.

Question 18.
Electron volt is a unit of
(a) Energy
(b) potential
(c) current
(d) charge
Answer:
(a) Energy
Hint:
Electron volt is a unit of energy

Question 19.
Photon of frequency u has a momentum associated with it. If c is the velocity of radiation, then the momentum is
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
(b) \(\frac { υ }{ c }\)
(c) hυc
(d) \(\frac { h }{ { c }^{ 2 } } \)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
Hint:
P = \(\frac { E }{ { c }^{ 2 } } \) = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)

Question 20.
The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after photon strikes is approximately
(a) 10-14 s
(b) 10-10 s
(c) 10-16 s
(d) 10-1 s
Answer:
(b) 10-10 s
Hint:
The time lag between the incident of photon and the emission of photoelectrons is 10-10 s approximately.

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Question 21.
Cathode rays consist of
(a) photons
(b) electrons
(c) protons
(d) α-particles
Answer:
(b) electrons

Question 22.
The momentum of photon whose frequency is f is
(a) \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)
(b) \(\frac { hc }{ f }\)
(c) \(\frac { h }{ f }\)
(d) \(\frac { c }{ hf }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)
Hint:
p = mc = \(\frac { { mc }^{ 2 } }{ { c } } \) = \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)

Question 23.
The energy of photon of wavelength λ is
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
(b) hλc
(c) \(\frac { λ }{ hc }\)
(d) \(\frac { hλ }{ c }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
Hint:
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)

Question 24.
The ratio of the energy of a photon with λ = 150 nm to that with λ = 300 nm is
(a) 2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(a) 2
Hint:
\(\frac {{ E }_{ 1 }}{ { E }_{ 2 } }\) = \(\frac {{ λ }_{ 2 }}{ { λ }_{ 1 } }\) = \(\frac { 300 }{ 150 }\) = 2

Question 25.
Photons of 5.5 eV energy fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 4.0 eV. The stopping voltage required for these electrons is
(a) 5.5 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 9.5 V
(d) 4.0 V
Answer:
(d) 4.0 V
Hint:
Stopping potential = \(\frac { { K }_{ max } }{ e } \) = \(\frac { 4.0ev }{ e }\) = 4.0V

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Question 26.
The wavelength of photon is proportional to (where υ = frequency)
(a) υ
(b) √υ
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √υ }\)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { c }{ υ }\) i.e., λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)

Question 27.
What is the energy of a photon whose wavelength is 6840 Å?
(a) 1.81 eV
(b) 3.6 eV
(c) – 13.6 eV
(d) 12.1 eV
Answer:
(a) 1.81 eV
Hint:
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) = \(\frac { 12400ev Å }{ 8840 Å }\) = 1.81 eV

Question 28.
Momentum of photon of wavelength λ is
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
(b) zero
(c) \(\frac { hλ }{{ c }^{ 2 }}\)
(d) \(\frac { hλ }{c}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
Hint:
p = mc = \(\frac {{ mc }^{ 2 }}{c}\) = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)

Question 29.
The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be
(a) 5 x 10-22
(b) 0.33 x 106
(c) 7 x 10-24
(d) 10-22
Answer:
(a) 5 x 10-22
Hint:
P = \(\frac { E }{ c }\) = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{MeV}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-13} \mathrm{J}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}\) = 5.33 x 10-22 Kg ms-1

Question 30.
If we consider electrons and photons of same wavelength then will have same
(a) momentum
(b) angular momentum
(c) energy
(d) velocity
Answer:
(a) momentum
Hint:
As p = h/λ, so electrons and photons having the same wavelength λ will have the same momentum p.

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Question 31.
Photoelectric effect can be explained by
(a) corpusular theory of light
(b) wave nature of light
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) quantum theory of light
Answer:
(d) quantum theory of light

Question 32.
Which of the following waves can produce photoelectric effect?
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrared
(c) radiowaves
(d) X-rays
Answer:
(d) X-rays
Hint:
Electromagnetic radiation, being of high frequency such as X-rays can produce photoelectric effect.

Question 33.
Which light when falls on a metal will emit photoelectrons?
(a) uv radiation
(b) infrared radiation
(c) radio waves
(d) microwaves
Answer:
(a) uv radiation
Hint:
Ultraviolet radiation, being of high frequency, can emit photoelectrons from metals.

Question 34.
In photoelectric effect, the KE of electrons emitted from the metal surface depends upon
(a) intensity of light
(b) frequency of incident light
(c) velocity of incident light
(d) both intensity and velocity of light
Answer:
(b) frequency of incident light
Hint:
The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends upon the frequency of incident light.

Question 35.
In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain minimum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence
Answer:
(b) frequency
Hint:
For photoelectric emission, the incident light must have a certain minimum frequency, called threshold frequency.

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Question 36.
Number of ejected photoelectrons increases with increases
(a) in intensity of light
(b) in wavelength of light
(c) in frequency of light
(d) never
Answer:
(a) in intensity of light
Hint:
Number of ejected photoelectrons increases with the increase in intensity of light.

Question 37.
By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved
(a) E = hυ
(b) K.E. = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mv2
(c) E = mc2
(d) E = \(\frac {{ -Rhc }^{ 2 }}{{ n }^{ 2 }}\)
Answer:
(a) E = hυ
Hint:
Einstein explained photoelectric effect on the basis of planck’s quantum theory of radiation and hence supported the relation : E = hυ

Question 38.
A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert
(a) change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current
(b) Change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage
(c) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current
(d) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photo cathode
Answer:
(c) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current
Hint:
It indicates that threshold frequency is greater than that of ultraviolet light. As X-rays have greater frequency than uv rays, so they can cause photoelectric effect.

Question 39.
When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate there photoelectric effect does not occur, it occurs by incident of
(a) infrared rays
(b) X-rays
(c) radio waves
(d) microwave
Answer:
(b) X-rays
Hint:
It indicates that threshold frequency is greater than that of ultraviolet light. As X-rays have greater frequency than UV rays, so they can cause photoelectric effect.

Question 40.
The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodiune corresponds to a wavelength of 5000 Å. Its function is
(a) 4 x 10-19 J
(b) 1J
(c) 2 x 10-19 J
(d) 3 x 10-19 J
Answer:
(a) 4 x 10-19 J
Hint:
W0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ λ }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5000 \times 10^{-10}}\) J = 4 x 10-19 J

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Question 41.
The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut off wavelength for this surface is
(a) 3000 Å
(b) 2062.5 Å
(c) 4125 Å
(d) 6000 Å
Answer:
(a) 3000 Å
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ W }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.125 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) m = 3 x 10-7 m = 3000 Å

Question 42.
Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface. Kinetic energy of fastest electrons emitted is (work function = 4.2 eV)
(a) 3.2 x 10-21 J
(b) 3.2 x 10-19 J
(c) 7 x 10-25 J
(d) 9 x 10-32 J
Answer:
(b) 3.2 x 10-19 J
Hint:
Kmax = hυ- W0 = 6.2 eV – 4.2 eV
= 2.0 eV = 2.0 x 1.6 x 10-19 J =3.2 x 10-19 J

Question 43.
The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 ms-1 is approximately (planck’s constant, h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js)
(a) 10-33 m
(b) 10-31 m
(c) 10-16 m
(d) 10-25 m
Answer:
(a) 10-33 m
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{60 \times 10^{-3} \times 10}\) ≈ 10-33 m

Question 44.
The wavelength of de-Broglie wave is 2 μm, then its momentum (h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js) is
(a) 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(b) 1.66 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(c) 4.97 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(d) 9.9 x 10-28 kg ms-1
Answer:
(a) 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1
Hint:
p = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) = \(\frac{6.03 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{2 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{m}}\) = 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1

Question 45.
What is de-Broglie wavelength of electron having energy 10 KeV?
(a) 0.12 Å
(b) 1.2 Å
(c) 12.2 Å
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 0.12 Å
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { 12.3 }{ √v }\) Å = \(\frac { 12.3 }{ \sqrt { 10\times { 10 }^{ 3 } } } \) = 0.12Å

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Question 46.
Which one of the following property does not support wave theory of light?
(a) Light obeys laws of reflection and refraction
(b) Light waves get polarised
(c) Light shows photoelectric effect
(d) Light shows interference
Answer:
(c) Light shows photoelectric effect
Hint:
Photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave theory of light.

Question 47.
de-Broglie wavelength λ associated with neutrons is related with absolute temperature T as
(a) λ ∝ T
(b) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\)
(c) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)
(d) λ ∝ T2
Answer:
(c) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 3mKT } } \) ⇒ λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)

Question 48.
As the intensity of incident light increases
(a) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases
(b) photoelectric current decreases
(c) photoelectric current increases
(d) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases
Answer:
(c) photoelectric current increases
Hint:
As the intensity of incident light increases, photoelectric current increases.

Question 49.
The de Broglie wave corresponding to a particle of mass m and velocity u has a wavelength associated with it
(a) \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)
(b) hmυ
(c) \(\frac { mh }{ υ }\)
(d) \(\frac { m }{ hυ }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)
Hint:
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)

Question 50.
If particles are moving with same velocity, then which has maximum de-broglie wavelength?
(a) Proton
(b) α-particle
(c) Nevtron
(d) β-particle
Answer:
(d) β-particle
Hint:
As λ = h/mv, of the given particles β – particle is the lightest, so it will have maximum de-Broglie wavelength.

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Question 51.
The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) diffraction and photoelectric effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) refraction and interference
(d) diffraction and reflection
Answer:
(a) diffraction and photoelectric effect
Hint:
Diffraction exhibits wave nature while photoelectric effect exhibits particle nature. Hence these two phenomena exhibit dual nature of light.

Question 52.
If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will-
(a) remain unchanged
(b) become four time
(c) become two times
(d) become half
Answer:
(d) become half
Hint:
As λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) when momentum p is doubled, wavelength will become half the initial value.

Question 53.
Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de-Broglie wavelength?
(a) β – particle
(b) α – particle
(c) proton
(d) neutron
Answer:
(a) β – particle
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ m}\)
As β – particle (an electron) has the smallest mass, so it has the longest de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 54.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the a-particle accelerated through a potential difference of V volt? (mass of a-particle = 6.6455 x 10-27 kg)
(a) \(\frac { 0.287 }{ √V }\) Å
(b) \(\frac { 12.27 }{ √V }\) Å
(c) \(\frac { 0.101 }{ √V }\) Å
(d) \(\frac { 0.202 }{ √V }\) Å
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 0.101 }{ √V }\) Å
Hint:
K = qV = 2eV
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2m\times 2eV\quad } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 4meV } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-49

Question 55.
A proton and an a – particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of proton to the de-Broglie wavelength of alpha particle will be
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2√2 :1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1:1
Answer:
(b) 2√2 :1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-50

Question 56.
Proton and α – particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. What is same for both of them?
(a) Time period
(b) Energy
(c) Frequency
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(d) Momentum
Hint:
λ = h/p, when wavelength λ is same, momentump is also same.

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Question 57.
The shortest wavelength of X-ray emitted from an X-ray tube depends upon.
(a) the current in the tube
(b) the voltage applied to the tube
(c) the nature of the gas in the tube
(d) the atomic number of the target material
Answer:
(b) the voltage applied to the tube
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { hc }{ eV }\) i.e.,λmin ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ V }\)

Question 58.
An X-ray tube operates on 30 kV. The minimum wavelength emitted is h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, c = 3 x 108 m/s, e = 1.6 x 10-19C.
(a) 6.6 Å
(b) 0.133 Å
(c) 1.2 Å
(d) 0.4 Å
Answer:
(d) 0.4 Å
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { hc }{ eV }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 30 \times 10^{3}}\) m = 0.4 Å

Question 59.
The potential difference between the cathode and the target in a coolidge tube is 120 kV. What can be the minimum wavelength (in Å) of the X-rays emitted by this tube?
(a) 0.4 Å
(b) 0.3 Å
(c) 0.2 Å
(d) 0.1 Å
Answer:
(d) 0.1 Å
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { 12375 }{ V }\) = Å = \(\frac { 12375 }{{ 120×10 }^{3}}\) Å = 0.1Å

Question 60.
The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be
(a) pt > AL > K
(b) Al > pt > K
(c) K > AL > pt
(d) Al > K > pt
Answer:
(a) pt > AL > K
Hint:
As W0 = hv0 i.e., W0 ∝ V0
V0 (pt) >0 (AL) >V0 (K)

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Question 61.
Among the following four spectral regions, the photons has the highest energy in
(a) Infrared
(b) Violet
(c) Red
(d) Blue
Answer:
(b) Violet
Hint:
E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) Photon in violet region has least λ and hence highest energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define electron volt. Express it value in joule.
Answer:
It is the kinetic energy gained by an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 volt.
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
1 MeV = 1.6 x 10-13J

Question 2.
What are photoelectrons?
Answer:
These are the electrons emitted from a metal surface when it is exposed to electro magnetic radiations of a suitable frequency.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘stopping potential’ in relation to photoelectric effect.
Answer:
The minimum negative potential given to the anode of a photo-cell for which the photoelectric current becomes zero is called stopping potential.

Question 4.
Give some important uses of photo-cells.
Answer:
Applications of photo cells:

  1. Photo cells have many applications, especially as switches and sensors.
  2. Automatic lights that turn on when it gets dark use photocells, as well as street lights that switch on and off according to whether it is night or day.
  3. Photo cells are used for reproduction of sound in motion pictures and are used as timers to measure the speeds of athletes during a race.

Question 5.
Why is a photo-cell also called an electric eye?
Answer:
Like an eye, a photo-cell can distinguish between a weak and an intense light. But a photocell gives a measure of light intensity in terms of photoelectric current. So it is also called an electric eye.

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Question 6.
On what principle is an electron microscope based?
Answer:
As electron microscope exploits the wave nature of an accelerated beam of electrons (having a very small wavelength) to provide high magnifying and resolving powers.

Question 7.
What are X-ray spectra?
Answer:
X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons strike the metal target. The intensity of the X-rays when plotted against its wavelength gives a curve called X-ray spectrum.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe an experimental arrangement to study photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Experimental setup:
1.  The apparatus is employed to study the phenomenon of photoelectric effect in detail .

2.  S is a source of electromagnetic waves of known and variable frequency v and intensity I. C is the cathode (negative electrode) made up of photosensitive material and is used to emit electrons.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-51

3. The anode (positive electrode) A collects the electrons emitted from C. These electrodes are taken in an evacuated glass envelope with a quartz window that permits the passage of ultraviolet and visible light.

4. The necessary potential difference between C and A is provided by high tension battery B which is connected across a potential divider arrangement PQ through a key K. C is connected to the centre terminal while A to the sliding contact J of the potential divider.

5. The plate A can be maintained at a desired positive or negative potential with respect to C. To measure both positive and negative potential of A with respect to C, the voltmeter is designed to have its zero marking at the centre and is connected between A and C. The current is measured by a micro ammeter μA in series.

6. If there is no light falling on the cathode C, no photoelectrons are emitted and the microammeter reads zero. When ultraviolet or visible light is allowed to fall on C, the photoelectrons are liberated and are attracted towards anode.

7. As a result, the photoelectric current is setup in the circuit which is measured using micro ammeter.

8.  The variation of photocurrent with respect to-

  1.  intensity of incident light
  2. the potential difference between the electrodes
  3. the nature of the material and
  4. frequency of incident light can be studied with the help of this apparatus.

Question 2.
Write down the characteristics of photons.
Answer:
Characteristics of photons:
According to particle nature of light, photons are the basic constituents of any radiation and possess the following characteristic properties:
(i) The photons of light of frequency v and wavelength λ will have energy, given by
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\).

(ii) The energy of a photon is determined by the frequency of the radiation and not by its intensity and the intensity has no relation with the energy of the individual photons in the beam.

(iii) The photons travel with the velocity of light and its momentum is given by p

(iv) Since photons are electrically neutral, they are unaffected by electric and magnetic fields.

(v) When a photon interacts with matter (photon-electron collision), the total energy, total linear momentum and angular momentum are conserved. Since photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be produced in such interactions, the number of photons may not be conserved

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Question 3.
Briefly explain the nature of light, (wave-particle duality)
Answer:
The nature of light: wave – particle duality
We have learnt that wave nature of light explains phenomena such as interference, diffraction and polarization. Certain phenomena like black body radiation, photoelectric effect can be explained by assigning particle nature to light. Therefore, both theories have enough experimental evidences.

In the past, many scientific theories have been either revised or discarded when they contradicted with new experimental results. Here, two different theories are needed to answer the question: what is nature of light?
It is therefore concluded that light possesses dual nature, that of both particle and wave. It behaves like a wave at some circumstances and it behaves like a particle at some other circumstances.

In other words, light behaves as a wave during its propagation and behaves as a particle during its interaction with matter. Both theories are necessary for complete description of physical phenomena. Hence, the wave nature and quantum nature complement each other.

Question 4.
Derive de-Broglie wave equation (wavelength) for a material particle.
Answer:
De Broglie wave length:
The momentum of photon of frequency v is given by
p = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\) = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) since c = υλ
The wavelength of a photon in terms of its momentum is
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) …(1)
According to de Broglie, the above equation is completely a general one and this is applicable to material particles as well. Therefore, for a particle of mass m travelling with speed v , the wavelength is given by
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) ….. (2)
This wavelength of the matter waves is known as de Broglie wavelength. This equation relates the wave character (the wave length λ) and the particle character (the momentum p) through Planck’s constant.

Question 5.
Explain the production of X-rays.
Answer:
Production of x-rays:
X-rays are produced in x-ray tube which is essentially a discharge tube. A tungsten filament F is heated to incandescence by a battery. As a result, electrons are emitted from it by thermionic emission.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-52
The electrons are accelerated to high speeds by the voltage applied between the filament F and the anode. The target materials like tungsten, molybdenum are embedded in the face of the solid copper anode. The face of the target is inclined at an angle with respect to the electron beam so that x-rays can leave the tube through its side.

When high-speed electrons strike the target, they are decelerated suddenly and lose their kinetic energy. As a result, x-ray photons are produced. Since most of the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons gets converted into heat, targets made of high-meltmg-point metals and a cooling system are usually employed.

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Question 6.
Briefly explain the concept of continuous X-ray spectra.
Answer:
Continuous x-ray spectra:
When a fast moving electron penetrates and approaches a target nucleus, the interaction between the electron and the nucleus either accelerates or decelerates it which results in a change of path of the electron. The radiation produced from such decelerating electron is called Bremsstrahlung or braking radiation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-53

The energy of the photon emitted is equal to the loss of kinetic energy of the electron. Since an electron may lose part or all of its energy to the photon, the photons are emitted with all possible energies (or frequencies). The continuous x-ray spectrum is due to such radiations.

When an electron gives up all its energy, then the photon is emitted with highest frequency υ0 (or lowest wavelength λ0 ). The initial kinetic energy of an electron is given by eV where V is the accelerating voltage. Therefore, we have
0 = eV (or) \(\frac { hc }{{ λ }_{0}}\) = ev
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{eV}\)
where λ0 is the cut-off wavelength. Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get
λ0 = \(\frac { 122400 }{V}\) Å
The relation given by equation is known as the Duane – Hunt formula.
The value of λ0 depends only on the accelerating potential and is same for all targets. This is in good agreement with the experimental results. Thus, the production of continuous x-ray spectrum and the origin of cut – off wavelength can be explained on the basis of photon theory of radiation.

Question 7.
Write down the applications of X-rays.
Answer:
Applications of x-rays:
X-rays are being used in many fields. Let us list a few of them.
1. Medical diagnosis:
X-rays can pass through flesh more easily than through bones. Thus an x-ray radiograph containing a deep shadow of the bones and a light shadow of the flesh may be obtained. X-ray radiographs are used to detect fractures, foreign bodies, diseased organs etc.

2. Medical therapy:
Since x-rays can kill diseased tissues, they are employed to cure skin diseases, malignant tumours etc.

3. Industry:
X-rays are used to check for flaws in welded joints, motor tyres, tennis balls and wood. At the custom post, they are used for detection of contraband goods.

4. Scientific research:
X-ray diffraction is important tool to study the structure of the crystalline materials – that is, the arrangement of atoms and molecules in crystals.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Numerical Problems

Question 1.
If a light of wavelength 4950 Å is viewed as a continuous flow of photons, what is the energy of each photon in eV? (Given h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, c = 3 x 108 ms-1)
Solution:
Here λ = 4950 Å = 4950 x 10-10 m
Energy of each photon,
E = \(\frac { hc }{λ}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4950 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 4 x 10-19 J
= \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)eV
E = 2.5 eV

Question 2.
Monochromatic light of frequency 6 x 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 x 10-3w.
(i) What is the energy of each photon in the light?
(ii) How many photons per second, on the average, are emitted by the source?
Solution:
(i) Energy of each photon,
E = hυ = 6.6 x 10-34 x 6 x 1014
E = 3.98 x 10-19J
(ii) If N is the number of photons emitted per second by the source, then
Power transmitted in the beam = N x energy of each photon
P = N
N = \(\frac { P }{ E }\) = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-3}}{3.98 \times 10^{-19}}\)
N = 5 x 1015 Photons per second.

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Question 3.
Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a metal surface of work function 1.9 eV. Find:
(i) the energy of photons in eV
(ii) the K.E of photoelectrons and
(iii) the stopping potential.
Solution:
Here λ = 5000 Å = 5 x 10-7 m
W0 = 1.9 ev
(i) Energy of a photon,
E = \(\frac { hc }{λ}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{-7}}\) J = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{-7} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}} e V\) eV
E = 2.475 eV
(ii) K.E of a photoelectron,
K.E = hυ – W0 = 2.475 – 1.9 = 0.575 eV
(iii) Let V0 be the stopping potential. Then
eV0 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = K.E of a photoelectron
V0 = \(\frac { 0.575 }{ e }\) eV
V0 = 0.575 V

Question 4.
If photoelectrons are to be emitted from a potassium surface with a speed 6 x 106 ms-1, what frequency of radiation must be used? (Threshold frequency for potassium is 4.22 x 1014 Hz, h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, me = 9.1 x 10-31 kg)
Solution:
Here, v = 6 x 106 ms-1
V0 = 4.22 x 1014 Hz
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
k.E = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = h (υ – υ0)
υ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac {{ mv }^{2}}{ h }\) + υ0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x \(\frac{9.1 \times 10^{-31}+\left(6 \times 10^{6}\right)^{2}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) + 4. 22 x 10-14
= (2.48 x 1014) + (4. 22 x 1014)
υ = 6.7 x1014 Hz

Question 5.
The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
Solution:
Here V0 = 1.5 V
Kmax = eV0 = 1.5 eV
= 1.5 x 1.6 x 10-19 J
Kmax = 24 x 10-19 J

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Question 6.
What is the (a) momentum, (b) speed, and (c) de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Solution:
Kinetic energy, K.E = 120 eV = 120 x 1.6 x 10-19
K = K.E = 1.92 x 10-17 J
(a) Momentum of an electron, P = \(\sqrt { 2mK } \)
P = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.92 \times 10^{-17}}\)
P = 5.91 x 10-24 kg ms-1
(b) Speed of an electron,
v = \(\frac { p }{ m }\) = \(\frac{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 6.5 x 106 kg ms-1
(c) de-Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}\) = 1.117 x 10-10 = 0.112 x 10-9 m
λ = 0.112 nm

Question 7.
An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1 nm. Find, (a) their momenta (b) the energy of the photon, and (c) kinetic energy of electron.
Solution:
(a) Both electron and photon have same wavelength. so, they have same momentum also,
P = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{1 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 6.6 x 10-25 kg ms-1
(b) Energy of a photon,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-54
(c) Kinetic energy of electron,
K = \(\frac {{ p }^{2}}{ 2m }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-55
K = 1.49 eV

Question 8.
Find the ratio of de-broglie wavelengths associated with two electron beams accelerated through 25 V and 36 V respectively.
Solution:
de-Broglie wavelength associate with potential difference λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √V }\)
\(\frac {{ λ }_{1}}{ { λ }_{2} }\) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { V }_{ 2 } }{ { V }_{ 1 } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { 36 }{ 25 } } \) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 }\) ⇒ λ1 : λ2 = 6 : 5

Question 9.
A proton and an alpha particle, both initially at rest, are accelerated so as to have the same kinetic energy. What is the ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength?
Solution:
de-Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
i.e.
λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √m}\) [mα = 4mp]
\(\frac {{ λ }_{p}}{ { λ }_{α} }\) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { m }_{ α } }{ { m }_{ p } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { 4m }_{ p } }{ { m }_{ p } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { 4 }{ 1 } } \) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\)
λp : λα = 2: 1

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Question 10.
Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Find the ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-56

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah Naidu
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah Naidu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti
(b) Kasturirangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurti

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by …………….., through his writings.
3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society name …………….
4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ……………..
5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by ………………
6. ……………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
7. …………….. was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
8. ……………. hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.
Answers:
1. T. Muthuswami
2. G. Subramaniam
3. Bharata Matha Society
4. B.P. Wadia
5. C. Natesanar
6. Rajaji
7. Yakub Hasan
8. Bhashyam

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India.
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non – Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong

IV. Match the following.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu 1
Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

V. Answer the questions briefly.

Question 1.
List out the contribution of the moderates.
Answer:
Contributions of the Moderates:

  1. They exposed the liberal claims of the British and how the British exploited India.
  2. They exposed British’s hypocrisy in following democratic principles in England and imposing an unrepresentative Government in the colonies.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
Answer:
The Tirunelveli uprising took place after the arrests of V.O. Chidambaram Pillai and Subramania Siva in 1908. They were charged with sedition. During the protests, a police station, a court building and municipal office were burnt down and four people died in police firing.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?
Answer:

  1. Annie Besant, an Irish lady and the leader of the Theosophical society started the Home Rule League on the modelof Irish Home Rule League in 1916.
  2. She carried forward the demand for Home Rule all over India: She started the newspapers “New India, Commonweal” to carry forward her agenda.
  3. Large number of students who joined the movement were trained in Home Rule classes.
  4. They were formed into boy scouts and volunteer troops.
  5. By forming trade unions with her member B.P Wadia improved the working conditions of’the workers and they made them part of the struggle for freedom.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Answer:
Measures introduced by Justice Ministry:

  • reservation for non-Brahmins in local bodies and education
  • establishment of Staff Selection Board
  • enactment of Hindu Religious, Endowment Act,
  • abolition of devadasi system
  • allotment of waste government land to the poor, and extension of primary education to depressed classes.

Question 5.
Write briefly on EVR’s contribution to the constructive programme.
Answer:

  1. E.V.R played an important role in Tamil Nadu during the period of Non – Cooperation movement.
  2. He campaigned vigorously for the promotion and sale of Khadi.
  3. In his opposition to consumption of liquor he cut down on entire coconut grove owned by him.
  4. He played a key role in Satyagraha for temple entry in vaikom, then under Travancore.
  5. E.V.R went to Vaikom and galvanised the movement.
  6. He was imprisoned and released after one-month.
  7. He refused to leave vaikom and sentenced to six month rigorous imprisonment for making inspiring speeches.
  8. Due to his undeterred effort, in 1925, the ban on the roads around the temple where the permission was not given to the depressed classes to enter was lifted.
  9. He was hailed as “Vaikom Hero” for his contribution against caste discrimination and temple entry agitation.

Question 6.
What is Cheranmadevei Gurukuiam controversy?
Answer:
V.V.S. Iyer established a Gurukuiam in Cheranmadevi. It got funds from Congress, but students were discriminated on the basis of caste. E.V. Ramaswamy got to know about the practices in 1925 and he severely criticised it.

Question 7.
Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Answer:

  1. Congress Ministry under Rajaji introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.
  2. This was considered as a form of Aryan and North. Indian imposition detrimental to Tamil language and culture, and therefore caused much public resentment.
  3. E.V.R led a massive campaign against it.
  4. He organised an anti-Hindi conference at Salem and formulated a definite programme of action.
  5. A rally was organised from Trichirapalli to Madras.
  6. More than 1200 protesters including E.V.R were arrested.
  7. As a result after the resignation of Congress Ministry the then Governor of Madras removed Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. Thus the anti-Hindi agitation became popular as it succeeds in its objective.

Question 8.
Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
All sections of the society in Tamil Nadu participated in the Quit India Movement. There were workers’ strikes and students also protested. There were many incidents of violence and disruption of rail traffic. Congress volunteers clashed with the military in Madurai. There were police firings at some places.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Early Nationalist Movement In Tamil Nadu

(a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
Answer:

  1. To promote the interests of its members.
  2. Focused on reduction of taxation.

(b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The entire press was owned by the Europeans. When the appointment of Indian T. Muthuswami as Judge was criticised they felt the need of nationalist press to express the Indian perspective.

(c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
Answer:

  1. Conduct of simultaneous civil services examinations in England and India.
  2. Reduction of taxes and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The early nationalists leaders in Tamil Nadu were V.S. Srinivasa Sastri. RS.Sivasamy and G.A.Natesan, T.R.Venkatramanar, S.Subramaniar, V.krishnasamy.

Question 2.
Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu
(a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu. ‘
Answer:
Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.

(b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
Answer:
Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.

(c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
Answer:
Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.

(d) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
Non-Brahmin Movement

(a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
Answer:
South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of the Non – Brahmins.

(b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
Answer:
Reservation of jobs for Non – Brahmins in Government service and seats in representative bodies.

(c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
Answer:
When EVR raised the issue of representation for Non – Brahmins in the legislature his efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with.

(d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
It Caused much resentment as it was considered to be a form of Aryan and North India imposition detrimental to Tamil language and culture.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
During the Swadeshi movement, public meetings were organized in various parts of Tamil Nadu, and they were attended by thousands of people. Tamil was used for the first time to mobilize people. Many journals came into existence to spread Swadeshi ideals. Students and youth participated widely in the movement. Some lectures were delivered by Bipin Chandra Pal, while Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs stirred patriotic emotions in people.

Question 2.
Examine the origin and growth of Non- Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Origin of Non – Brahmin Movemet.

Cause: In the Madras presidency due to the rapid growth of education, there was an increase in the number of educated Non – Brahmins.

Reason: Intense political and social activities politicised the educated Non-Brahmins to raise the issue of caste discrimination and unequal opportunities in Government employment and representation in the elected bodies which were dominated by Brahmins.

Formation: The Non – Brahmins organised themselves into political organisations to protect their interests.

  1. In 1912 the Madras Dravidian Association was founded with C.Natesanar as its secretary. Active role if C.Natesanar. for the.growth of Non – Brahmin movement.
  2. In June 1916 he established the Dravidian Association Hostel for Non¬Brahmin students.
  3. He bridged the gap between the two leading Non-Brahmin leaders of the time Dr. T.M.Nair and P.Thiyagarayar.
  4. On 20th November 1916 a meeting was held for about thirty Non-Brahmins under the leadership of P.Thiyagarayar Dr. T.M.Nair and C.Natesanar at Victoria public hall (Chennai).

South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF):

South Indian Liberal Federation was founded to promote the interests of the Non-Brahmins.

News papers launching: They launched three newspapers Justice – in English, Dravidian – in Tamil and Andhra prakasika in Telugu.

  1. SILF popularly known as ‘Justice party’ after its English Newspaper.
  2. They held several meetings throughout the presidency to set up branches.

Objectives of Non- Brahmin Manifesto:

  1. Reservation of jobs in Government services.
  2. Seats in local bodies

Achievement: The act of 1919 provided reservation of seats to Non-Brahmins.

In the elections held in 1920 the Justice Party won the majority seats in the Legislative Council. A. Subburayalu of the Justice Party became the first Chief Minister.

Question 3.
Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was at the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Shops were picketed and foreign goods were boycotted in Madurai. C. Rajagopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha march to Vedaranyam and was arrested. The march took place in April 1930. Twelve volunteers broke the salt law by picking up the salt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to write a sentence or two about the important places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Panchalankuruchi is a place 17 km from Tuticorin. This small village holds a lot of historic value in terms of India’s freedom struggle against English dominance. It is home to an 18th century chieftain Veerapandya Kattabomman who fought valiantly against the English, but was defeated and hanged.

Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored their ammunition. With military assistance from Gopala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai. She was the first female ruler or queen to resist the British colonial power in India.

A procession carrying national flags and singing patriotic songs was brutally beaten by the police in Tirupur. O.K.S.R. Kumaraswamy, popularly Tirupur Kumaran, fell dead holding the national flag aloft.

The Salt satyagraha under the leadership of T. Prakasam and K. Nageswara Rao set up a camp at Udayavanam near Madras. However, the police arrested them. In Madras, the Simon Boycott Propaganda Committee was set up with S. Satyamurti as the president. There was widespread campaign among the students, shopkeepers, lawyers and commuters in train to boycott.

Rowlatt Satyagraha: On 6 April 1919 hartal was organised to protest against the “Black Act”. Protest demonstrations were held at several parts of Tamil Nadu. Processions from many areas of the city converged in the Marina beach where there was a large gathering.

Annie Besant started the Home Rule League in 1916 and carried forward the demand for home rule all over India. G.S. Arundale, B.P. Wadia and C.P. Ramaswamy assisted her in this campaign.

Radical papers such as India, Vijaya and Suryodayam came out of Pondicherry. Such revolutionary papers and Bharati’s poems were banned as seditious literature. These activities in Pondicherry intensified with the arrival of Aurobindo Ghosh and V.V. Subramanianar in 1910.

Question 2.
Role Play: Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of the Moderates, Extremists, Revolutionaries, Annie Besant’s supporters, Justice Party, and British Government.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first organization in the Madras presidency to agitate for the rights of people was the …………..
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Madras Native Association
(c) Muslim league
Answer:
(b) Madras Native Association

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
…………………. played an active role as the secretary of Madras Mahajana Sabha.
(a) P.Anandacharlu
(b) Gazalu
(c) T.Muthuswami
(d) G.Subramaniam
Answer:
(a) P.Anandacharlu

Question 3.
The Headquarters of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee is named as ……………
(a) Raj Bhavan
(b) Sathyamurthi Bhavan
(c) Rajaji Bhavan
Answer:
(b) Sathyamurthi Bhavan

Question 4.
…………………. purchased two ships for Swadeshi Indian Trade.
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) V.O.Chidambaranar
(c) T.S.S.Rajan
(d) V.V.Subramaninar
Answer:
(b) V.O.Chidambaranar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
Who made Hindi a compulsory subject …………..
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nehru
Answer:
(a) Rajaji

Question 6.
Annie Besant was the leader of …………………. society who propagated Home Rule Movement in Madras.
(a) Theosophical
(b) Madras Dravidian Association
(c) Madras Mahajana Sabha
(d) Madurai Labour Union
Answer:
(a) Theosophical

Question 7.
Who started the Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitram?
(a) T. Muthuswami
(b) G. Subramaniam
(c) M. Veeraraghavachari
(d) P. Anandacharlu
Answer:
(b) G. Subramaniam

Question 8.
In Tamil Nadu Khilafat day was observed on:
(a) 19th April 1920
(b) 15 th April 1920
(c) 21st April 1920
(d) 17th April 1920
Answer:
(d) 17th April 1920

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 9.
What was Bharata Matha Society?
(a) A newspaper
(b) A periodical
(c) A secret society
(d) A political party
Answer:
(c) A secret society

Question 10.
…………………. was hailed as Vaikom Hero.
(a) Periyar
(b) P.Subbarayan
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.A.Ansari
Answer:
(a) Periyar

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The third session of the Indian National Congress was held at …………., now known as the thousand lights.
2. ………….. provided a safe haven for the revolutionaries.
3. On 18th march 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on …………..
4. …………….. was the epicenter of Khilafat Agitaion.
5. A no-tax campaign took place in ……………
6. ………….. and ……………. was the first woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
7. E.V.R organized an Anti-Hindi conference at …………..
8. In Madras, the Simon Boycott Propaganda Committee was set up with ……………… as the President.
9. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced ……………….
10. ……………One of the controversial measures of Rajaji was the introduction of ………………. as a compulsory subject in school.
11. The Swarajists did not contest the 1930 elections leading to an easy victory for the ……………. party.
12. The Madras Native Association or MNA was the earliest organization to be founded in ……………. to articulate larger public rather than sectarian interests.
Answers:
1. Makkis Garden
2. Pondicherry
3. Marina beach
4. Vaniyambadi
5. Thanjavur
6. Rukmani Lakshmipathi
7. Salem
8. S. Satyamurthi
9. Provincial Autonomy
10. Hindi
11. Justice
12. South India

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Non-Brahmin Manifesto opposed the Home Rule Movement as a movement of Brahmins and feared that Home Rule might give them more power.
(ii) However, it never criticized the Congress as the party of the Brahmins.
(iii) The Justice Party demanded communal representation in society.
(iv) The Madras government was supportive of the Justice Party. .
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Assertion: E. V. R. was becoming increasingly dissatisfied with the Congress.
Reason: He felt it was promoting the interests of the Brahmins alone.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation
(b) A is right but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation

IV. Match the following.

1. The Madras Native Association (a) 1878
2. The Hindu newspaper (b) 1884
3. The Madras Dravidian Association (c) 1852
4. The Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity Act (d) 1912
5. The Madras Mahajana Sabha (e) 1939

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Who was appointed as High court Judge of Madras in 1877? How it was criticized?
Answer:
The appointment of T. Muthuswami as the First Indian Judge of Madras High court in 1877. The press entirely owned by Europeans criticized the appointment of an Indian as Judge.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Write a note on Subramaniya Siva.
Answer:

  • Subramaniya Siva was bom in Vathalagundu in Dindigal district.
  • He was a freedom fighter and a creative writer.
  • He was arrested many times for his anti-imperialist activities.
  • While in jail he was affected by leprosy and he was ordered to be shifted to Salem jail.
  • But the British Government enacted a law for Siva stating that leprosy patient should not travel by rail. So he had to walk a long distance with sores on his body.
  • He died of the disease on 23rd July 1925.

Question 3.
Name the states that was then a part of the Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was then a part of Madras Presidency which included larger parts of the present day states of Andhra Pradesh (Coastal districts and Royalaseema) Karnataka (Bengaluru, Bellary, South Canara) Kerala (Malabar) and even Odhisha (Ganjam).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
Name the paper edited by Subramania Bharathiyar in 1907.
Answer:
Tamil weekly India and the English Newspaper ‘Bala Bharatham’ were edited by Subramania Bharathiyar in 1907.

Question 5.
Name the persons who assisted Annie Besant to carry the Home Rule Movement campaign.
Answer:
G.S.Arundale, B.P. Wadia and C.P.Ramaswamy were some of the personalities who assisted Annie Besant to carry the Home Rule movement campaign.

Question 6.
Who established the Madras Native Association? Why?
Answer:
It was established by Harley Lakshmi Narasu Chetty and Srinivasa Pillai in 1852.

Question 7.
Name the Newspapers launched by SILF.
Answer:
The Newspapers launched by SILF (South Indian Liberal Federation) were
Justice – in English
Dravidian – In Tamil – and
Andhra prakasika – in Telugu

Question 8.
When was the need for a newspaper keenly felt?
Answer:
The appointment of T. Muthuswami Iyer as the first South Indian Judge of the Madras High Court in 1878 created resentment in Madras Presidency. The entire press in Madras criticised the appointment of an Indian as a judge. This left a deep impact on the educated youth of India. For the first time they realized that the entire press was owned by Europeans. At this very moment the need for a newspaper to express the Indian perspective was keenly felt,

Question 9.
Name the persons who organised the “Black Act” protest, How?
Answer:
On 6th April 1919 hartal was organised to protest against the ‘Black Act’ (Rowlatt Act).

  1. Processions from many areas of the city converged at Marina Beach.
  2. Rajaji, Kasturirangari S.Sathyamurthy, and George Joseph addressed the meeting.
  3. Workers meeting was addressed by Thiru.V. Kalyanasundaranar, B.P. Wadia and V.O.C.. They devoted the whole day to fasting and prayers along with large number of people in the Marina Beach.

Question 10.
Why were the moderates disappointed with the Minto-Morley reforms?
Answer:
They were disappointed with the Minto-Morley reforms as it did not provide for responsible government. Despite this the Congress extended support to the British war effort in the hope of getting more reforms.

Question 11.
What resulted in India’s Independence?
Answer:
The Royal Navy Mutiny, the negotiations initiated by the newly formed • labour party Government in England resulting in India’s independence.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Vanchinathan
(a) Whom did Vanchinathan kill?
Answer:
Collector Ashe.

(b) Where did he kill him?
Answer:
At Maniyachi Railway Station.

(c) Why did he kill him?
Answer:
To take revenge against the death of four extremists.

(d) What was the end of Vanchinathan?
Answer:
He committed suicide.

Question 2.
Salt March to Vedaranyam (second part)

(a) Who composed the marching song?
Answer:
A special song was composed for the salt march by Nammakkal Ramalinganar.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

(b) How was the response from the people along their route?
Answer:
The marching Satyagraha’s were provided warm reception along the route.

(c) How many volunteers along with Rajaji picked up the salt ?
Answer:
Twelve volunteers under the leadership of Rajaji picked up the salt.

(d) Who were the other prominent leaders from Tamil Nadu participated?
Answer:
T.S.S.Rajan, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam, C.Swaminathar and K.Santhanam were the prominent leaders who participated in Vedaranyam Salt march.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
No Tax Campaign and Movement against Liquor
(a) Name the city where no-tax campaign took place. How did people respond to this campaign?
Answer:
Thanjavur. People boycotted councils, schools and courts. They also boycotted foreign goods.

(b) What was temperance movement? How was this movement made successful?
Answer:
Temperance Movement was a movement against liquor. This movement was made successful by picketing toddy shops.

(c) Why were Rajaji, Subramania Sastri and E. V. R. arrested?
Answer:
They were arrested because they were going to organise civil disobedience movement in Tamil Nadu.

(d) Why was the Non Co-operation Movement withdrawn?
Answer:
It was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident in which 22 policemen were killed.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What were the reforms brought forth by the first Congress Ministry led by C. Rajaji?
Answer:

  1. C. Rajaji formed the first Congress Ministry in 1937.
  2. He introduced prohibition on an experimental basis in salem.
  3. To compensate the loss of revenue he introduced a sales tax.
  4. He opened temples to the ‘untouchables’ (Harijans).
  5. He appointed a committee to enquire into the condition of the tenants in the zamindari areas.
  6. One of the controversial measures of Rajaji was the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools [and Kula Kalvi Thittam in 1953].
  7. After the resignation of Congress Ministry in 1939 the then, Governor of Madras Lord Erskine in Feb 1940 who took over the reigns of administration removed Hindi as compulsory subject.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Madras Native Association or MNA. When did it cease to exist?
Answer:
(i) The Madras Native Association was the earliest organization to be founded in South India.
It was started by Gazulu Lakshminarasu, Srinivasanar and their associates in 1852. It con¬sisted primarily of merchants.

(ii) The objective of MNA was to promote the interests of its members and their focus was on reduction in taxation. It also protested against the support of the government to Christian missionary activities.

(iii) It drew attention of the government to the condition and needs of the people. Its main contribution was its agitation against torture of the peasants by revenue officials.

(iv) The efforts of MNA led to the establishment of the Torture Commission and the eventual abolition of the Torture Act, which justified the forcible collection of land revenue through tortuous methods.

(v) The Madras Native Association ceased to exist by 1862.

Question 3.
Reason out why James Neill statue was moved to Madras Museum.
Answer:

  1. James Neill of the Madras Fusilers (Infantry men with fire arms) was brutal in wrecking vengence at Kanpur. Women and children were massacred in 1857 Revolt.
  2. A statue was erected for him at mount road, Madras.
  3. Nationalist felt this as an insult to Indian sentiments.
  4. They organised a series of demonstrations in Madras.
  5. Protesters came from all over the Madras Presidency and were led by S.N.Somayajulu of Tirunelveli.
  6. Many were arrested and sentenced to prison.
  7. Gandhi who visited Madras during the same time gave his support to the agitation.
  8. The statue was finally moved to Madras Museum when Congress Ministry, led by C.Rajaji formed the Government in 1917.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEAR

Years Events
1806 Vellore Mutiny
1852 Madras Native Association
1884 Madras Mahajana Sabha
1905 Partition of Bengal
1907 The congress session held at Surat
1908 Swaraj Day
1910 Abhinava Bharats Sangham
1911 Vanchinathan shot Ashe
1916 Home Rule League
1912 Madras Dravidian Association
1919 Gandhi addressed on Marina beach
1930 Vedaranyam march

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 1.
The length of the tangent to a circle from a point P, which is 25 cm away from the centre is 24 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
Solution:
242 + r2 = 252
576 + r2 = 625
r2 = 625 – 576
= 49
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 1

Question 2.
∆LMN is a right angled triangle with ∠L = 90°. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of the sides containing the right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Solution:
∆LMN,
By Pythagoras theorem,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 3

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 3.
A circle is inscribed in ∆ABC having sides 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm as shown in figure, Find AD, BE and CF.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 4
Solution:
We know that the tangents drawn from are external point to a circle are equal.
Therefore AD = AF = x say.
BD = BE = y say and
CE = CF = z say
Now, AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm, and CA= 10 cm.
x + y = 12, y + z = 8 and z + x = 10
(x + y) + (y + z) + (z + x) = 12 + 8 + 10
2(x + y + z) = 30
x + y + z = 15
Now, x + y = 12 and x + y + z = 15
12 + z = 15 ⇒ z = 3
y + z = 8 and x + y + z = 15
x + 8 = 15 ⇒ x = 7
and z + x = 10 and x + y + z = 15
10 + y = 15 ⇒ y = 5
Hence, AD = x = 7 cm, BE = y = 5 cm
and CF = z = 3 cm.

Question 4.
PQ is a tangent drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O and QOR is a diameter of the circle such that ∠POR = 120° . Find ∠OPQ.
Solution:
∠POR + ∠POQ = 180° (straight angle = 180°)
∴ 120 +∠POQ = 180°
∠POQ = 60°
∠OQP = 90° (∵ radius is ⊥r to the tangent at the point of contact)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 5
∴ ∠POQ + ∠PQO + ∠OPQ = 180° (∵ sum of the 3 angles of a triangle is 180°)
∴ 60 + 90 + ∠OPQ = 80°
∠OPQ = 180° – 150° = 30°

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 5.
A tangent ST to a circle touches it at B. AB is a chord such that ∠ABT = 65°. Find ∠AOB , where “O” is the centre of the circle.
Solution:
In the figure,
∠OBT = 90° (∵OB-radius, BT – Tangent)
= 115°
∴ ∠OBA = 90° – 65°
∠OAB = 25° (OA = OB)
∴ ∠AOB = 180° – 50°
= 130°
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 6

Question 6.
In figure, O is the centre of the circle with radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects the circle E, if AB is the tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 7
Solution:
In ∆OPT, OP = r = 5 cm
OT = 13 cm
PT = 12 cm
In ∆OPA, OA2 = OP2 + AP2 ………….. (1)
In ∆OAE, OA2 = OE2 + AE2 …………. (2)
Equating (1) and (2),
OP2 + AP2 = OE2 + AE2 (∵ OP = OE = r)
∴ AP = AE
Parallel BQ = EB
In ∆AET, AT2 = AE2 + ET2
∴ ET2 = AT2 – AE2 = (AT + AE) (AT – AE)
∴ ET2 = (AT + AP) (AT – AE) (∵ AE = AP)
∴ 8 × 8 = 12 × (AT – AE)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 8

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 7.
In two concentric circles, a chord of length 16 cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the smaller circle whose radius is 6 cm. Find the radius of the larger circle.
Solution:
AB = 16 cm given
CA = CB(∵ OC ⊥r AB)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 9
OB2 = OC2 + BC2
= 62 + 82
= 36 + 64 = 100
OB = Radius of the larger circle = \(\sqrt{100}\) = 10 cm.

Question 8.
Two circles with centres O and O’ of radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively intersect at two points P and Q, such that OP and O’P are tangents to the two circles. Find the length of the common chord PQ.
Solution:
Given: OP = OQ = 4
O’P = O’Q = 3
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 10
OO’ is the perpendicular bisector of chord PQ.
Let R be the point of intersection of PQ and OO’.
Assume PR = QR = x and OR = y
In OPO’, OP2 + O’P2 = (OO’)2 ⇒ OO’
= \(\sqrt{4^{2}+3^{2}}\) = 5
OR = y ⇒ OR = 5 – y
In ∆OPR, PR2 + OR2 = OP2 ⇒ x2 + y = 42 ……….. (1)
In ∆O’PR, PR2 + O’R2 = O’P2 ⇒ x2 + (5 – y)2 = 9 ………….(2)
(1) – (2)=> y2 – (25 + y2 – 10y) = 16 – 9
⇒ y2 – 25 – y2 + 10y = 7 .
⇒ 10y = 25 + 7 ⇒ 10y =32
⇒ y =3.2
Substituting y = 3.2 in (1), we get x = \(\sqrt{4^{2}-3.2^{2}}\)
x = 2.4
PQ = 2x ⇒ PQ = 4.8 cm

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 9.
Show that the angle bisectors of a triangle are concurrent.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 11
In ∆ABC, let AD, BE are two angle bisectors.
They meet at the point ‘O’
We have to prove that = \(\frac{A C}{C D}=\frac{A O}{O D}\)
Construct CO to meet the interesecting point O from C.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 12
Hence proved.

Question 10.
In ∆ABC , with ∠B = 90° , BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm, D is a point on AC such that AD = 2 cm and E is the midpoint of AB. Join D to E and extend it to meet at F. Find BF.
In the figure ∆ABC, ∆EBF are similar triangles.
Solution:
Consider DABC, Then D, E, F are respective points on the sides CA, AB and BC. By constrution D, E, F are collinear.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 13

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 11.
An artist has created a triangular stained glass window and has one strip of small length left before completing the window. She needs to figure out the length of left out portion based on the lengths of the other sides as shown in the figure.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 14
Solution:
In the figure, let O be the concurrent point of the angle bisectors of the three angles.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 15

Question 12.
Draw a tangent at any point R on the circle of radius 3.4 cm and centre at P ?
Solution:
Radius = 3.4 cm
Centre = P
Tangent at any point R.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 16
Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle with centre P of radius 3.4 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Join PR.
(3) Draw ⊥r line TT1 to PR. Which passes through R.
(4) TT1 is the required tangent.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 13.
Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem.
Solution:
Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as the centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Through R draw any chord PR.
(3) Take a point Q distinct from P and R on the circle, so that P, Q, R are in anti-clockwise direction. Join PQ and QR.
(4) Through R drawn a tangent TT1 such that ∠TRP = ∠PQR.
(5) TT1 is the required tangent.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 17

Question 14.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Radius = 5 cm
The distance between the point from the centre is 10 cm.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 18
Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 5 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP =10 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA and PB = 8.7 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle ∠POA;
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 19

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 15.
Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Solution:
Radius = 4 cm
The distance of a point from the center =11 cm.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 20

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
(3) Draw a ⊥r bisector of OP, which cuts atM.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 10.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 21

Question 16.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 5 cm away from the centre of a circle of diameter 6 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Diameter = 6 cm
Radius = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm.
The distance between the centre and the point is 5 cm.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 22
Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius , 3cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 5 cm.
(3) Draw a bisector of OP, which cuts OP and M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 4 cm
Verification:
In the right triangle ∆OPA,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 23

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 17.
Draw a tangent to the circle from the point P having radius 3.6 cm, and centre at O. Point P is at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.
Radius 3.6 cm.
Solution:
Distance from the centre to the point is 7.2 cm.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 24
Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle of radius 3.6 cm with centre O.
(2) Draw a line OP = 7.2 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 6.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4 25

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

9th Maths Mensuration Exercise 7.1 Question 1.
Using Heron’s formula, find the area of a triangle whose sides are
(i) 10 cm, 24 cm, 26 cm
(ii) 1.8 m, 8 m, 8.2 m
Solution:
(i) sides : 10 cm, 24 cm, 26 cm
Using Heron’s formula
Area of the triangle = \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\) sq. units
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 1

9th Maths Mensuration Question 2.
The sides of the triangular ground are 22 m, 120 m and 122 m. Find the area and cost of leveling the ground at the rate of ₹ 20 per m2.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 2

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

9th Maths Book Mensuration ex 7.1 Question 3.
The perimeter of a triangular plot is 600 m. If the sides are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13, then find the area of the plot.
Solution:
s = 600 m
Side s are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13
5x + 12x + 13x = 30x
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 3
∴ sides are 200 m, 480 m, 520 m.
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 4

9th Maths 7.1 Mensuration Question 4.
Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 180 cm.
Solution:
Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = 180 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 5

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

Question 5.
An advertisement board is in the form of an isosceles triangle with perimeter 36m and each of the equal sides are 13 m. Find the cost painting it at ₹ 17.50 per square metre.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 6
Cost of painting 1 m2 = ₹ 17.50
Cost of painting 60m2 = 60 × 17.50 = ₹ 1050

Question 6.
Find the area of the unshaded region.
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 7
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 9

Question 7.
Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD whose sides are AB = 13 cm, BC = 12 cm, CD = 9 cm, AD = 14 cm and diagonal BD = 15 cm
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 10
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 11

Question 8.
A park is in the shape of a quadrilateral. The sides of the park are 15 m, 20m, 26 m and 17 m and the angle between the first two sides is a right angle. Find the area of the park.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 11

Question 9.
A land is in the shape of rhombus. The perimeter of the land is 160 m and one of the diagonal is 48 m. Find the area of the land.
Solution:
Perimeter of the rhombus land = 160 m
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 14

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

Question 10.
The adjacent sides of a parallelogram measures 34 m, 20 m and the measure of the diagonal is 42 m. Find the area of Parallelogram.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 15

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Statistics Intext Questions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 4 Statistics Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Statistics Intext Questions

Exercise 4.1
Try These (Text book Page no. 77)

Question 1.
Arrange the given data in ascending and descending order:
9, 34, 4, 13, 42, 10, 25, 7, 31, 4, 40
Solution:
Ascending order: 4, 4, 7, 9, 10, 13, 25, 31, 34, 40, 42.
Descending order : 42, 40, 34, 31, 25, 13, 10, 9, 7, 4, 4

Question 2.
Find the range of the given data : 53, 42, 61, 9, 39, 63, 14, 20, 06, 26, 31, 4, 57
Solution:
Ascending order of the given data:
4, 6, 9, 14, 20, 26, 31, 39, 42, 53, 57, 61, 63
Here largest value = 63
Smallest value = 4
∴ Range = Largest value – smallest value = 63 – 4 = 59

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Statistics Intext Questions

Think (Text book Page no. 79)

How will you change the given series as continuous series
15 – 25
28 – 38
41 – 51
54 – 64
Solution:
Given series
15 – 25
28 – 38
41 – 51
54 – 64
Difference in the gap = 28 – 25 = 3
Here half of the gap = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(3) = 1.5
∴ 1.5 is the adjustment factor. So we subtract 1.5 from the lower limit and add 1.5 to the upper limit to make it as a continuous series.

Discontinuous series

Continuous series
15-25

13.5-26.5

28-38

26.5-39.5
41-51

39.5-52.5

54 – 64

52.5-65.5

Think (Text book Page no. 80)

If we want to represent the given data by 5 classes, then how shall we find the interval?
Solution:
We can find the class size by the formula
Number of class intervals = \(\frac{Range}{Class size}\)

Try These (Text book Page no. 82)

Question 1.
Prepare a frequency table for the data : 3, 4, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2, 1, 3, 2, 4
Solution:
Ascending order of the given data.
1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6
The distribution table:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 text 1
∴ Frequency Table:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 text 2

Question 2.
Prepare a grouped frequency table for the data :
10, 9, 3, 29, 17, 34, 23, 20, 39, 42, 5, 12, 19, 47, 18, 19, 27, 7, 13, 40, 38, 24, 34, 15, 40
Largest value = 47
Smallest value = 3
Range = Largest value – Smallest value = 47 – 3 = 44
Suppose we take class size as 10, then Number of class intervals possible
= \(\frac{Range}{Class size}\) = \(\frac{44}{10}\) = 4.4
\(\tilde { – } \) 5
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 text 3

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Statistics Intext Questions

Exercise 4.2
Think (Text book Page no. 94)

When joining two adjacent midpoints w ithout using a ruler, can you get a polygon?
Solution:
No, because it may be curved lines and they are not considered as polygons.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Additional Questions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Additional Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Additional Questions

Question 1.
120 men had food for 200 days. After 5 days 30 men left the camp. How long will the remaining food last.
Solution:
Since 30 men left after 5 days, the remaining food is sufficient for 120 men for 195 days. Suppose the remaining food lasts for x days for the remaining 90 men.
We have
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.3 3
More men means less days the food lasts
∴ It is inverse proportion
120 : 90 = x : 195
Product of extremes = Product of means
120 × 195 = 90 × x
x = \(\frac{120×195}{90}\)
x = 90
x = 260.
∴ Remaining food last for 260 days.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.3

Question 2.
15 men earn Rs 900 in 5 days, how much will 20 men earn in 7 days?
Solution:
In one day 15 men earn Rs 900
In one day 15 men earn \(\frac{900}{5}\) = Rs 180
In one day 1 men earn \(\frac{180}{5}\) = Rs 12
∴ 1 men earn in 7 days = 12 × 7 = Rs 84
∴ 20 men earn in 7 days = 84 × 20 = 1680

Question 3.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 10 days, B and C can do the same work together in 12 days, A and C can do together in 15 days. How long will it take to complete the work working three of them altogether?
Solution:
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{10}\)……….(1)
(B + C)’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{12}\)……….(2)
(A + C)’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{15}\)……….(3)
(l) + (2) + (3) ⇒
[A + B + B + C + A + C]’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{10}\) + \(\frac{1}{12}\) + \(\frac{1}{15}\)
(2A + 2B + 2C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{6 + 5 + 4}{60}\)
2(A + B + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{15}{60}\)
(A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{4 × 2}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
∴ A + B + C work together to finish the work in 8 days.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.3

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Construct the following rhombuses with the given measurements and also find their area.
(i) FACE, FA = 6 cm and FC = 8 cm
Solution:
Given FA = 6 cm and FC = 8cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 1
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment FA = 6 cm.
(ii) With F and A as centres, drawn arcs of radii 8 cm and 6 cm respectively and let them cut at C.
(iii) Joined FC and AC.
(iv) With F and C as centres, drawn arcs of radius 6 cm each and let them cut at E. Joined FE and EC.
(v) FACE is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8 × 9 sq.units = 36 cm²

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

(ii) RACE, RA = 5.5 cm and AE = 7 cm
Solution:
Given RA = 5.5 cm and AE = 7 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 2
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment RA = 5.5 cm.
(ii) With R and A as centres, drawn arcs of radii 5.5 cm and 7 cm respectively and let them cut at E.
(iii) Joined RE and AE.
(iv) With E and A as centres, drawn arcs of radius 5.5 cm each and let them cut at C.
(v) Joined AC and EC.
(vi) RACE is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 7 × 8.5 cm² = 29.75 cm²

(iii) CAKE, CA = 5 cm and ∠A = 65°
Solution:
Given CA = 5 cm and ∠A = 65°
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 3
(i) Drawn a line segment CA = 5 cm.
(ii) At A on AC, made ∠CAX = 65°
(iii) With A as centre, drawn arc of radius 5 cm. Let it cut AX at K.
(iv) With K and C as centres, drawn arcs of radius 5 cm each and let them cut at E. Joined KE and CE.
(v) CAKE is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 5.4 × 8.5 cm² = 22.95 cm²

(iv) MAKE, MA= 6.4 cm and ∠M = 80°
Solution:
Given MA = 6.4 cm and ∠M = 80°
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 4
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment MA = 6.4 cm.
(ii) At M on MA, made ∠AMX = 80°
(iii) With M as centres, drawn arc of radius 6.4 cm. Let it cut MX at E.
(iv) With E and A as centres, drawn arcs of radius 6.4 cm each and let them cut at K.
(v) Joined EK and AK.
(vi) MAKE is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8.2 × 9.8 cm² = 40.18 cm²

(v) LUCK, LC = 7.8 cm and UK = 6 cm
Solution:
Given LC = 7.8 cm and UK = 6 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 5
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment LC = 7.8 cm.
(ii) Drawn the perpendicular bisector XY to LC. Let it cut LC at ‘O’
(iii) With O as centres, drawn arc of radius 3 cm on either side of O which cut OX at K and OY at U.
(iv) Joined LU, UC, CK and LK.
(v) LUCK is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 7.8 × 6 cm² = 23.4 cm²

(vi) DUCK, DC = 8 cm and UK = 6 cm
Solution:
Given DC = 8 cm and UK = 6 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 6
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment DC = 8 cm.
(ii) Drawn the perpendicular bisector XY to DC. Let it cut DC at ‘O’
(iii) With O as centres, drawn arc of radius 3 cm on either side of O which cut OX at U and OYat K.
(iv) Joined DK, KC, CU and DU.
(v) DUCK is the required rhombus.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8 × 6 cm² = 24 cm²

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

(vii) PARK, PR = 9 cm and ∠P = 70°
Solution:
Given PR = 9 cm and ∠P = 70°
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 7
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment PR = 9 cm.
(ii) At P, made ∠RPX = ∠RPY = 35° on either side of PR.
(iii) At R, made ∠PRQ = ∠PRS = 35° on either side of PR
(iv) Let PX and RQ cut at A and PY and RS at K.
(v) PARK is the required rhombus

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9 × 6.2 cm² = 27.9 cm²

(viii) MARK, AK =7.5 cm and ∠A = 80°
Solution:
Given AK = 7.5 cm and ∠A = 80°
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 8
(i) Drawn a line segment AK = 7.5 cm.
(ii) At A, made ∠KAX = ∠KAY = 40° on either side of AK.
(iii) At K, made ∠AKP = ∠AKQ = 40° on either side of AK
(iv) Let AX and KP cut at M and AY and KQ at R.
(v) MARK is the required rhombus

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d1 × d2 sq.units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 7.5 × 6.4 cm² = 24 cm²

Question 2.
(i) Construct the following rectangles with the given measurements and also find their area.
(i) HAND, HA = 7 cm and AN = 4 cm
Solution:
Given HA = 7 cm and AN = 4 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 9
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment HA = 7 cm.
(ii) At H, constructed HX ⊥ HA.
(iii) With H as centre, drawn an arc of radius 4 cm and let it cut at HX at D.
(iv) With A and D as centres, drawn arcs of radii 4 cm and 7 cm respectively and let them cut at N.
(v) Joined AN and DN.
(vi) HAND is the required rectangle.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rectangle HAND = l × b sq.units = 7 × 4 cm² = 28 cm²

(ii) SAND, SA = 5.6 cm and SN = 4.4 cm
Solution:
Given SA = 5.6 cm and SN = 4.4 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 10
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment SA = 5.6 cm.
(ii) At S, constructed SX ⊥ SA.
(iii) With S as centre, drawn an arc of radius 4.4 cm and let it cut at SX at D.
(iv) With A and D as centres, drawn arcs of radii 4.4 cm and 5.6 cm respectively and let them cut at N.
(v) Joined DN and AN.
(vi) SAND is the required rectangle.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rectangle SAND = l × b sq.units = 5.6 × 4.4 cm² = 26.64 cm²

(iii) LAND, LA = 8 cm and AD = 10 cm
Solution:
Given LA = 8 cm and AD = 10 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 11
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment LA = 8 cm.
(ii) At L, constructed LX ⊥ LA.
(iii) With A as centre, drawn an arc of radius 10 cm and let it cut at LX at D.
(iv) With A as centre and LD as radius drawn an arc. Also with D as centre and LA as radius drawn another arc. Let then cut at N.
(v) Joined DN and AN.
(vi) LAND is the required rectangle.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rectangle LAND = l × b sq.units = 8 × 5.8 cm² = 46.4 cm²

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

(iv) BAND, BA = 7.2 cm and BN = 9.7 cm
Solution:
Given = 7.2 cm and BN = 9.7 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 12
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment BA = 7.2 cm.
(ii) At A, constructed NA ⊥ AB.
(iii) With B as centre, drawn an arc of radius 9.7 cm and let it cut at AX at N.
(iv) With B as centre and AN as radius drawn an arc. Also with N as centre and BA as radius drawn another arc. Let then cut at D.
(v) Joined ND and BD.
(vi) BAND is the required rectangle.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the rectangle BAND = l × b sq.units = 7.2 × 6.7 cm² = 48.24 cm²

Question 3.
Construct the following squares with the given measurements and also find their area.
(i) EAST, EA = 6.5 cm
Solution:
Given side = 6.5 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 13
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment EA = 6.5 cm.
(ii) At E, constructed EX ⊥ EA.
(iii) With E as centre, drawn an arc of radius 6.5 cm and let it cut EX at T.
(iv) With A and T as centre drawn an arc of radius 6.5 cm each and let them cut at S.
(v) Joined TS and AS.
(vi) EAST is the required square.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the square EAST = a² sq.units = 6.5 × 6.5 cm² = 42.25 cm²

(ii) WEST, ST = 6 cm
Solution:
Given side of the square = 6 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 114
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment ST = 6 cm.
(ii) At S, constructed SX ⊥ ST.
(iii) With S as centre, drawn an arc of radius 6 cm and let it cut SX at E.
(iv) With E and T as centre drawn an arc of radius 6 cm each and let them cut at W.
(v) Joined TW and EW.
(vi) WEST is the required square.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the square WEST = a² sq.units = 6 × 6 cm² = 36 cm²

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

(iii) BEST, BS = 7.5 cm
Solution:
Given diagonal = 7.5 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 16
Steps :
(i) Drawn a line segment BS = 7.5 cm.
(ii) Drawn the perpendicular bisector XY to BS. Let it bisect BS at O.
(iii) With O as centre, drawn an arc of radius 3.7 cm on either side of O which cut OX at T and OY at E
(iv) Joined BE, ES, ST and BT.
(v) BEST is the required square.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the square BEST = a² sq.units = 5.3 × 5.3 cm² = 28.09 cm²

(iv) REST, ET = 8 cm
Solution:
Given diagonal = 8 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3.3 17
Steps:
(i) Drawn a line segment ET = 8 cm.
(ii) Drawn the perpendicular bisector XY to ET. Let it bisect ET at O.
(iii) With O as centre, drawn an arc of radius 4 cm on either side of O which cut OX at R and OY at S
(iv) Joined ES, ST, TR and ER.
(v) REST is the required square.

Calculation of Area :
Area of the square REST = a² sq.units = 5.7 × 5.7 cm² = 32.49 cm²

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) A can finish a job in 3 days whereas B finishes it in 6 days. The time taken to complete the job together is………..days.
(ii) If 5 persons can do 5 jobs in 5 days, then 50 persons can do 50 jobs in………..days.
(iii) A can do a work in 24 days. A and B together can finish the work in 6 days. Then B alone can finish the work in…………days.
(iv) A alone can do a piece of work in 35 days. If B is 40% more efficient than A, then B will finish the work in………..days.
(v) A alone can do a work in 10 days and B alone in 15 days. They undertook the work for Rs 200000. The amount that A will get is………
Solution:
(i) 2 days
(ii) 5
(iii) 8
(iv) 25
(v) Rs 1,20,000

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Question 2.
210 men working 12 hours a day can finish a job in 18 days. How many men are required to finish the job in 20 days working 14 hours a day?
Solution:
Let the required number of men be x.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 1
More working hours ⇒ less men required.
∴ It is inverse proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor is \(\frac{12}{14}\)
Also more number of days ⇒ less men
∴ It is an inverse proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor is \(\frac{18}{20}\)
∴ x = 210 × \(\frac{12}{14}\) × \(\frac{18}{20}\)= 162 men
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 2
162 men are required.

Question 3.
A cement factory makes 7000 cement bags in 12 days with the help of 36 machines. How many bags can be made in 18 days using 24 machines?
Solution:
Let the required number of cement bags be x.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 3
Number of days more ⇒ More cement bags.
∴ It is direct variation.
∴ The multiplying factor = \(\frac{18}{12}\)
Number of machines more ⇒ More cement bags.
∴ It is direct variation.
∴ The multiplying factor = \(\frac{24}{36}\)
∴ x = 7000 × \(\frac{18}{12}\) × \(\frac{24}{36}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 4
x = 7000 cement bags
7000 cement bags can be made.

Question 4.
A soap factory produces 9600 soaps in 6 days working 15 hours a day. In how many days will it produce 14400 soaps working 3 hours more a day?
Solution:
Let the required number of days be x.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 5
To produce more soaps more days required.
∴ It is direct proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor = \(\frac{14400}{9600}\)
If more hours spend, less days required.
∴ It is indirect proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor = \(\frac{15}{18}\)
∴ x = 6 × \(\frac{14400}{9600}\) × \(\frac{15}{18}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 6
x = \(\frac{15}{2}\)
\(\frac{15}{2}\) days will be needed.

Question 5.
If 6 container lorries transport 135 tonnes of goods in 5 days, how many more lorries are required to transport 180 tonnes of goods in 4 days?
Solution:
Let the number of lorries required more = x.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 7
As the goods are more ⇒ More lorries are needed to transport.
∴ It is direct proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor = \(\frac{180}{135}\)
Again if more days ⇒ less number of lorries enough.
∴ It is direct proportion.
∴ Multiplying factor = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
∴ 6 + x = 6 × \(\frac{180}{135}\) × \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 8
6 + x = 10
x = 10 – 6
x = 4
∴ 4 more lorries are required.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Question 6.
A can do a piece of work in 12 hours, B and C can do it 3 hours whereas A and C can do it in 6 hours. How long will B alone take to do the same work?
Solution:
Time taken by A to complete the work =12 hrs.
∴ A’s 1 hr work = \(\frac{1}{12}\)…………(1)
(B + C) complete the work in 3 hrs.
∴ (B + C)’s 1 hour work = \(\frac{1}{3}\)…………(2)
(1) + (2) ⇒
∴ (A + B + C)’s 1 hour work = \(\frac{1}{12}\) + \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{1+4}{12}\) = \(\frac{5}{12}\)
Now (A + C) complete the work in 6 hrs.
∴(A + C)’s 1 hour work = \(\frac{1}{6}\)
∴ B’s 1 hour work = (A + B + C)’s 1 hour work – (A + C)’s 1 hour work
= \(\frac{5}{12}\) – \(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{5-2}{12}\) = \(\frac{3}{12}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
∴ B alone take 4 days to complete the work.

Question 7.
A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B and C can do it in 15 days whereas A and C can do it in 20 days. How long would each take to do the same work?
Solution:
(A + B) complete the work in 12 days.
∴ (A + B)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{12}\)……….(1)
(B + C) complete the work in 15 days
∴ (B + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{15}\)……….(2)
(A + C) complete the work in 20 days
∴ (A + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{20}\)……….(3)
Now (1) + (2) + (3) ⇒
[(A + B) + (B + C) + (A + C)]’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{12}\) + \(\frac{1}{15}\) + \(\frac{1}{20}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 9
(2A + 2B + 2C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{5}{60}\) + \(\frac{4}{60}\) + \(\frac{3}{60}\)
2(A + B + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{5+4+3}{60}\)
(A + B + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{12}{60×2}\)
(A + B + C)’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
Now A’s 1 day’s work = (A + B + C)’s 1 day work – (B + C)’s 1 day work
\(\frac{1}{10}\) – \(\frac{1}{15}\) = \(\frac{3}{30}\) – \(\frac{2}{30}\) = \(\frac{1}{30}\)
∴ A takes 30 days to complete the work.
B’s 1 day work = (A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work – (A + C)’s 1 day’s work
= \(\frac{1}{10}\) – \(\frac{1}{20}\) = \(\frac{6}{60}\) – \(\frac{3}{60}\)
\(\frac{6-3}{60}\) = \(\frac{3}{60}\) = \(\frac{1}{20}\)
B takes 20 days to complete the work.
C’s 1 day work = (A + B + C)’s 1 day work – (A + B)’s 1 day work
\(\frac{1}{10}\) – \(\frac{1}{12}\) = \(\frac{6}{60}\) – \(\frac{5}{60}\) = \(\frac{6-5}{60}\) = \(\frac{1}{60}\)
∴ C takes 60 days to complete the work.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Question 8.
Carpenter A takes 15 minutes to fit the parts of a chair while Carpenter B takes 3 more minutes than A to do the same work. Working together, how long will it take for them to fit the parts for 22 chairs?
Solution:
Time taken by A to fit a chair = 15 minutes
Time taken by B = 3 minutes more than A
= 15 + 3 = 18 minutes
∴ A’s 1 minute work = \(\frac{1}{15}\)
B’s 1 minute work = \(\frac{1}{18}\)
(A + B)’s 1 minutes work = \(\frac{1}{15}\) + \(\frac{1}{18}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 10
\(\frac{12}{180}\) + \(\frac{22}{180}\) = \(\frac{22}{180}\) = \(\frac{11}{90}\)
∴ Time taken by (A + B) to fit a chair
= \(\frac{1}{\frac{11}{90}}\) = \(\frac{90}{11}\) minutes
∴ Time taken by (A + B) to fit 22 chairs
= \(\frac{90}{11}\) × 22 = 180 minutes
= \(\frac{180}{60}\) = 3 hours

Question 9.
A man takes 10 days to finish a job where as a woman takes 6 days to finish the same job. Together they worked for 3 days and then the woman left. In how many days will the man complete the remaining job?
Solution:
Man can finish the work in 10 days and women can finish the same work in 6 days.
∴ Man’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
Woman’s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(Man + Woman)s 1 day work = \(\frac{1}{10}\) + \(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{6}{60}\) + \(\frac{10}{60}\) = \(\frac{16}{60}\)
(Man + Woman)s 3 days work
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 11
In 3 days \(\frac{4}{5}\) th of the whole work is completed.
Remaining work = 1 – \(\frac{4}{5}\) = \(\frac{5}{5}\) – \(\frac{4}{5}\) = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Complete work is done by the man by 10 days
∴ \(\frac{1}{5}\) of the work is done by man in \(\frac{1}{5}\) × 10 = 2 days.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1

Question 10.
A is thrice as fast as B. If B can do a piece of work in 24 days then, find the number of days they will take to complete the work together.
Solution:
If B does the work in 3 days, A will do it in 1 day.
B complete the work in 24 days.
∴ A complete the same work in \(\frac{24}{3}\) = 8 days.
∴ (A + B) complete the work in \(\frac{ab}{a+b}\) days = \(\frac{24×8}{24+8}\) days = \(\frac{24×8}{32}\)days = 6 days
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Life Mathematics Ex 2.1 12
They together complete the work in 6 days.