Class 9 – Samacheer Kalvi

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Mapping Skills

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Mapping Skills

Mapping Skills Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The new phase in topographical surveying in the 20^th century is ……
(a) toposheets
(b) aerial photography
(c) maps
(d) satellite imagery
Answer:
(d) satellite imagery

Question 2.
…… indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
(a) Title
(b) Scale
(c) Direction
(d) Legend
Answer:
(a) Title

Question 3.
Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey a definite meaning are called ………
(a) conventional signs and symbols
(b) coordinates
(c) grid references
(d) directions
Answer:
(a) conventional signs and symbols

Question 4.
Which one of the following maps show us a very large area with less details?
(a) Large scale
(b) Thematic
(c) Physical
(d) Small scale
Answer:
(d) Small scale

Question 5.
GPS consists of a constellation of ……… satellites.
(a) 7
(b) 24
(c) 3.2
(d) 64
Answer:
(b) 24

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
Reason(R): The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and Eastings respectively.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) (A) is false ; (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The legend of a map does not help us to understand the information in a map. Reason(R): It is usually placed at the left or right comer at the bottom of the map.
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the different methods to represent the Earth.
Answer:

A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols.
A map projection is a way of showing the spherical-shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
A map projection is a systematic transformation of the latitudes and longitudes of location from the surface of a sphere or an ellipsoid into locations on a plane.
A Globe is a spherical model of earth. Globe Serve similar purposes to maps but unlike maps do not disturb the surface that they portray except to scale it down. A globe of the earth is called a terrestrial globe.

Question 2.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface Clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
What are the components of a map?
Answer:
A map should include the following components namely, the title, scale, direction, grid reference, projection, legend, conventional signs, and symbols.

Question 4.
The distance between the two cities A and B is 5 km. It is represented by a line of 5 cm on the map. Calculate the distance and give the answer in RF.
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F.) = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground Given, Distance on the map = 5 cm
The distance on the ground = 5 km
∴ R.F. = 5 cm / 5 km
Converting km to cm; 5 km = 500000 cm
So R.F. is 5 : 500000
i.e. R.F. is 1 : 100000

Question 5.
Mention a few surveying instruments.
Answer:
Geographers mainly use Chain, Prismatic compass, Plane table, Dumpy level, Abney level, Clinometer, Theodolite, Total Station, and GNSS to measure the distance, angle, altitude, and position of the area of survey.

Question 6.
Define remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote Sensing refers to the observation and measurement of earthly objects without touching them. ‘Remote’ means far away and ‘Sensing’ means observing or collecting information. Remote sensing means acquiring information of things/places from a distance, using a variety of tools and methods.

Question 7.
What are the components of remote sensing?
Answer:
Components of remote sensing are

Energy source
Transmission path
Target
Sensor

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Satellite imageries stimulate map making.
Answer:

Satellite imagery refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites. Therefore it can be easily integrated with software for the improvement of images.
Satellites circle the Earth or remain geostationary and therefore, changes in weather or any other natural or man-made modifications do not affect the functioning of Satellites.

Question 2.
A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
Answer:
With maps on hand, one can see the world in one sweep. A map is worth a thousand words. Maps are introduced with its components such as scale, signs and symbols. A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
Grid references are essential to finding the exact location of places on a map.
Answer:

The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude.
The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
Therefore grid references are essential to finding the exact location of a place.

Question 4.
Web cartography is one of the modern mapping techniques.
Answer:
The introduction of web mapping is a major new trend in cartography. The term Web cartography is connected with the design, production, display, and use of maps over the Web. Various types of maps are present on the Web. Until recently cartography was restricted as it required relatively expensive and complex hardware and software as well as skilled cartographers and geomatics engineers.

Web-based GIS has brought many geographical datasets, including free ones generated by OpenStreetMap and proprietary datasets owned by Navteq, Google, Waze, and others. A range of free software to generate maps has also been conceived and implemented alongside proprietary tools like ArcGIS. As a result, the barrier to entry for serving maps on the web has been lowered.

VI. Distinguish Between The Following:

Question 1.
Globe and Map
Answer:

Globe	Map
It is a representation of the whole earth with the clear marking of longitude and latitude of all the places on earth.	A map illustrates the earth’s surface more clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols.

Question 2.
Large scale map and small scale map
Answer:

Large scale map	Small scale map
Large amount of detail is shown of a small area can be seen in a large-scale map.	Small amount of detail of a larger area can be seen in a small scale map.

Question 3.
Aerial photographs and satellite imageries
Answer:

Aerial photographs	Satellite imageries
It covers a small area and needs permission from the authorities.	It allows global coverage and does not require permission.
Revisits or repeatability involves extra cost.	Satellites circle the Earth; they can repeat and revisit easily.

Question 4.
GIS and GPS
Answer:

GIS	GPS
Geographic Information System is a computer-based tool for managing a large amount of data collected for a given geographic region through remote sensing, GPS and other sources.	GPS is the U.S. implementation of the world’s first and currently the most used Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) created by the U. S. Department Of Defense.
GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications and urban and regional planning.	Weather forecasting, earthquake monitoring and environmental protection can be done effectively by using GPS.

VII Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘scale of the map’? Explain its classification.
Answer:

Scale is one of the components of a map.
Scale makes it possible to reduce the size of the whole earth to show it on a piece of paper.
A scale is a ratio between the actual distance on the map to the actual distance on the ground.
Scales can be represented in three methods. They are
- Statement
- Representative Fraction (R.F)
- Linear or Graphical scale methods.

(a) Statement Scale:
The statement scale describes the relationship of map distance to the ground distance in words, such as one centimetre to ten kilometres. It is expressed as 1cm = 10 km.

(b) The Representative Fraction (R.F):

It describes the proportion or ratio of the map distance to ground distance. It is usually abbreviated as R.F. It is stated as 1/100000 or 1:100000
This means that one unit on the map represents 100,000 of the same unit on the ground.
This unit may be an inch or a centimetre or any other linear measurement unit.
Representative Fraction (R.F.) = \(\frac { Distance on the map }{ Distance on the Ground }\)

(c) Linear (or) Graphical scale: In geography, a linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts (Primary and secondary) to show what these markings represent on the actual ground. This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.

Question 2.
Write a note on directions with a relevant diagram.
Answer:
Direction
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrow head.

Question 3.
What are the three major functional segments of GPS? Explain about anyone.
Answer:
GPS has made a considerable impact on almost all positioning, navigation, timing and monitoring applications. It provides particularly coded satellite signals that can be processed in a GPS receiver, allowing the receiver to estimate position, velocity and time.

The (GPS) Global Positioning System is a U.S. owned utility that provides users with positioning, control segment and the user segment.
The GPS ground segment (also referred to as control segment or operational control system) is responsible for the proper operation of the GPS system.
The GPS control segment is composed of network of monitor stations (MS), a Master Control Systems (MCS) a backup of the MCS and Ground Antenna (GA).
The GPS space segment consists of a constellation of transmitting radio signal to users. The linked states is committed to maintaining the availability of atleast 24 operational GPS satellites, 95% of the times.
The user segment is the practice of dividing all customers into segments based on characteristics they share. For example sorting users by region, language, or behaviour.

Question 4.
Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, policymakers, or the general public. Justify.
Answer:
Bhuvan (Sanskrit for Earth) is a free internet-based computer application launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) on August 12th, 2009. It enables visualization of Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) images taken over a year ago, by ISRO’s seven satellites, including CartoSat-1 and CartoSat-2. Using Bhuvan connected to the Internet, one can explore places of interest, scenes of events in the news or parts around the world they may never visit in person, by either entering the names of places or coordinates (latitudes and longitudes). Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, academicians, policymakers, and the general public.

Advantages

Bhuvan, due to 3D rendering, gives the impression of moving through real space through the entire globe
Students can use Bhuvan to understand subjects ranging from Sciences to History of places.
It provides information on natural resources and timely information on disasters.
Administrators use it for monitoring various developmental schemes.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without satellites?
Answer:

Today a growing number of satellites orbit around the Earth, making various earth observation, communication, navigation, and science application possible.
While we may not always realize or acknowledge their existence, the important role these systems play in our daily lives cannot be underestimated.
As technology advances, the potential of satellites will undoubtedly continue to grow. New markets will merge along with new opportunities to push the boundaries of what space technology currently offers.
Likely satellites reach just about everywhere today. In certain isolated parts of our planet. Satellites provide inhabitants with access to telephone service, 4G / 5G, broadband, and work.
GPS helps us to travel from A to B without getting lost along the way.

Question 2.
Imagine you are a cartographer. Plan and bring out a few ideas to improve your area.
Answer:
Cartographers are trained in aerial photography and in collecting survey data for preparing maps, charts and sketches.

They work to create detailed information maps based on survey data.
Ideas to improve Chennai

Maintaining the ecological process in Chennai.
Balancing the essential infrastructures of the urban areas.
Improving the connectivity in and around South Chennai from the main city.
Improving Civic Services

Chennai Corporation is set to upgrade its Geographical Information System (GIS) services. This was used for the creation of a digital base and Utility mapping using GIS technology in 44,000 streets in Chennai.
(Students can add their own creative ideas)

IX Map skill:

A. With the help of an atlas, mark the following on the outline map of Tamil Nadu.
a. The latitude and longitude of Chennai. .
b. Mark the city located at 10° N, 78° E.
c. Locate the city approximately on 11°N and 76°E.
d. Find the latitude and longitude of Kanyakumari and mark it.

Mapping Skills Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first ancient Greek to draw a map of the Known World is ………
(a) Anaximander
(b) Gerardus Mercator
(c) Felix Nadar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Anaximander

Question 2.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the …… period.
(a) Pre-historic
(b) Medieval
(c) Vedic
(d) Modern
Answer:
(c) Vedic

Question 3.
……. is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
(a) Direction
(b) Grid Reference
(c) Projection
(d) Legend
Answer:
(c) Projection

Question 4.
……… symbols are used to indicate railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines in
mapping.
(a) Line
(b) Point
(c) Area
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Line

Question 5.
Maps produced by analysis can be used to pinpoint problem areas.
(a) GPS
(b) GIS
(c) GNSS
(d) DoD
Answer:
(b) GIS

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): A linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts to show what these markings represent on the actual ground.
Reason (R): This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Satellites do not collect large amounts of data of the entire area in a short span. Reason (R): Sensors in the satellites record the reflected and emitted radiation.
(a) A is wrong and R is correct
(b) Both A and R are hue; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are true; R explains A
Answer:
(a) A is wrong and R is correct

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the first mapmaker.
Answer:
Anaximander was the first ancient Greek to draw a map of the known world. It is for this reason that he is considered by many to be the first mapmaker (the first cartographer).

Question 2.
Who is a Cartographer? What is Cartography?
Answer:
A cartographer is one who measures, analyzes, and interprets geographical information to create maps and charts for political, cultural, and educational purposes. The art and science of map-making are called Cartography.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘Direction’?
Answer:
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards ‘ the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrowhead.

Question 4.
What is Projection? Mention the three methods in widest use.
Answer:
A map projection is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
The three methods in widest use are as follows:

Projection on the surface of a cylinder
Projection on to the surface of a cone
Projection directly onto a flat plane called planar or zenithal or azimuthal projection

Question 5.
Remote sensing can be either passive or active – Explain.
Answer:

Remote sensing can be either passive or active.
Active systems emit their own source of light energy such as RADAR.
Passive systems depend on sunlight as an energy source.

Question 6.
What are the types of Maps?
Answer:
(a) On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into:

Large scale maps: A large amount of detail; can only show a small area.
Small scale map: Small amount of detail; can show a large area.

(b) On the basis of utility and purpose, they are classified as:

General maps / Topographic Maps (physical and political maps)
Thematic map (spatial variations of single phenomena)
Special purpose maps (Braille maps for blind people, maps for neo literates, military maps, navigational charts, etc).

Question 7.
What are the geo objects?
Answer:

Geographical objects in the real world are matched to program objects known as geo objects.
Geo objects include placemarks, circles, polylines, rectangles, polygons, and their collections.
Place markers indicate a place on a map.

V. Give reasons

Question 1.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period.
Answer:
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period. Mahabharata conceived a round world surrounded by water. Surveying and map-making were an integral part of the revenue collection procedure in the medieval period. E.g.: Sher Shah Suri’s revenue maps and Rajendra Chola’s land survey techniques.

Question 2.
Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map.
Answer:

A map is a global language and it needs to be drawn according to the international standards
Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map and explained in the legend to convey a definite meaning.

Question 3.
“GPS helps in providing accurate transport data”.
Answer:

GPS technology has tremendous applications in everything.
It helps in military searches and rescue in wars.
It can work as a reliable tourist guide (distance, route and direction)

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Maps and Cartography
Answer:

Maps	Cartography
Maps are drawings of an area as seen from above. Maps can show a whole or part of the world.	The art and science of map-making are called cartography.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is Satellite Remote Sensing? Explain the
(a) components of Remote Sensing
(b) process of Remote Sensing.
Answer:
Satellite remote sensing is the science of collecting data about an object or area from artificial satellites orbiting the Earth. The term ‘satellite imagery’ refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites.
Components of remote sensing

Energy source
Transmission path
Target
Sensor

Process of remote sensing

The EMR (Electro-Magnetic Radiation) or solar radiation is the primary source of energy for remote sensing.
Sunlight travels from the sun through the atmosphere, before it reaches the earth’s surface. In the atmosphere, the sun’s rays are not obstructed by any object.
When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, some of its energy is absorbed. While some are transmitted through the surface, the rest is reflected. Surfaces naturally emit radiation in the form of heat. The reflected energy travels from the earth’s surface back to space.
Sensors in the satellite record the reflected and emitted radiation. Each surface/object possesses a characteristic spectral signature, a unique pattern of reflecting sunlight.
The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted to a ground station where the data are processed into an image.
The processed image is interpreted either visually by human interpreters or by computer-aided techniques called digital image processing to identify and distinguish between the different spectral signatures to get information about objects/places.
Finally, we understand and apply the extracted information in mapping the area or assist in solving a particular problem.

Question 2.
Describe the
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing
(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing
(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Answer:
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing

It is the only practical way to obtain data from inaccessible regions, e.g. Antarctica, Amazon forest.
It helps in constructing cheap base maps in the absence of detailed land surveys.
It detects the spread of natural calamities such as flood, forest fire and volcanic eruption, so that immediate rescue operations and planning can be carried out.

(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing

It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one-time analysis.

(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Remote sensing technology is highly used in disaster management to study the effects of earthquakes, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption, floods and wildfires. The preliminary data is retrieved from satellites like LANDSAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT, etc. Fire and flood details can be extracted and delivered to relevant authorities within two hours of satellite image capture. E.g. major earthquakes in China and New Zealand, bushfire in Victoria and floods in Kerala. Dynamic phenomena such as floods, movement of wild animals, shoreline changes, finding lost ships and planes. Researchers use satellite imageries for these.

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Water – The Elixir of Life Book Back Answers 9th Standard English Chapter 5 Samacheer Kalvi

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9th Standard English Unit 5 Prose Water – The Elixir of Life Book Back Answers

You can Download Water – The Elixir of Life Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

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Water – The Elixir of Life 9th Standard English 5th Lesson Question and Answer

Water – The Elixir of Life Warm Up:

Question 1.
Do you think the living organisms in this planet can survive without water? Why?
Answer:
No, because water is required by all living organisms in various processes for their survival.

Question 2.
Where do you get your drinking water from?
Answer:
I get drinking water from borewell and corporation pumps.

Question 3.
Is the drinking water you use in your home treated?
Answer:
No, the drinking water we use is not treated.

Question 4.
If not, how do you purify it?
Answer:
Water is purified by filtration.

Water – The Elixir of Life Intext Questions

Question 1.
What is the imaginary elixir of life?
Answer:
Divine Amritha is the imaginary elixir of life.

Question 2.
What according to the writer is the real elixir of life?
Answer:
According to the writer, water is the real elixir of life.

Question 3.
What is the ‘wonderful difference’ the writer talks about in the passage?
Answer:
The sea of billowing sand without a speck of green or a single living thing on it was on one side. On the other side lay the most fertile and densely populated area teeming with life and vegetation. The writer (author) talks about this wonderful difference.

Question 4.
What is the ‘cheering sight’ mentioned in the paragraph?
Answer:
The rain-fed tanks that are so common in South India are a cheering sight when they are full.

Question 5.
What does the writer compare water in a landscape to?
Answer:
The writer(author) compares water in a landscape to the eyes iii a human face.

Question 6.
How does the water in rainfed tanks get its colour?
Answer:
The water in the rain fed tank carry slit or finely divided soil in suspension. This is the origin of the characteristic colour of the water in the rain fed tanks.

Question 7.
What is the main cause of soil erosion?
Answer:
Sudden burst of excessively heavy rain in large run of surplus water is the principal cause of soil erosion.

Question 8.
What other factors add to the erosion of precious soil?
Answer:
The slope of land, removal of natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence of ruts along which the water can flow with rapidly gathering momentum and the absence of any checks of such flow are the other factors that add to the erosion of precious soil.

Question 9.
How can soil erosion be prevented?
Answer:
Soil erosion can be prevented by:

Terracing of land
Construction of bunds to check the flow of water
The practice of contour cultivation
The planting of appropriate types of vegetation.

Question 10.
How does the prevention of soil erosion serve a double purpose?
Answer:
The prevention of soil erosion would help to conserve and keep the water where it is wanted, in other words, on and in the soil. Thus it serves a double purpose.

Question 11.
What are the two sources of water?
Answer:
The artesian water and rain or snow fall are the two sources of water.

Question 12.
What happens to the rainwater?
Answer:
The rainwater flows down into the streams and rivers and ultimately finds its way to the sea.

Question 13.
What is the idea of the civilized forest?
Answer:
The systematic planting of suitable trees in every possible or impossible areas and their development is called civilized forests. It is the most urgent need of India. Such plantation will prove a source of untold wealth to the country.

Question 14.
How can you check soil erosion?
Answer:
The terracing of the land, the construction of bunds, the practice of contour cultivation and the planting of some types of vegetation are the measures that can be used to check soil erosion.

Question 15.
What are the cheapest means of transport?
Answer:
The cheapest means of transport in a country is by boats and barges through canals and rivers.

Question 16.
How can you make a difference in the countryside?
Answer:
The availability of electric power would make a tremendous difference to the life of the countryside and enable rural economy to be improved in various directions.

Water – The Elixir of Life Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions briefly in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What makes water one of the most powerful and wonderful things on earth?
Answer:
Water has played a role of vast significance in shaping the course of the earth’s history. It continues to play a key role in life on the surface of our planet. Thus it makes the most powerful and wonderful things on earth.

Question 2.
How does water help in the formation of fertile lands?
Answer:
The water has its power to carry slit or finely divided soil in suspension. The great tracts of land formed by slit thus deposited is evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas. Thus, water helps in the formation of fertile lands.

Question 3.
How does soil erosion happen and what are its main causes?
Answer:
Sudden bursts of excessive heavy rain, slope of the land, removal of the natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence if ruts along which the water flows rapidly and the absence of checks to such flow are the causes of soil erosion.

Question 4.
What are some measures that are used to prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The terracing of land and construction of bunds to check the flow of water, the practice of contour cultivation, and the planting of appropriate types of vegetation are few measures to check erosion.

Question 5.
How, according to Sir C. V. Raman, can rainwater as well as the water of rivers be, prevented from going to waste?
Answer:
The harnessing of our rivers must be considered and dealt with on the national line. The systematic planting of trees would check soil erosion and conserve the rainfall from flowing away to waste, according to Sir C.V. Raman.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
How will development of hydro-electric power be a resource?
Answer:
Development of hydro-electric power will enable tapping of underground water which requires electricity and thus overcome the inadequacies of other sources of water.

Question 2.
What is far from an exhausted field of research?
Answer:
The investigation of nature and properties of water is considered the highest scientific interest and is far from an exhausted field of research.

Question 3.
When and where did the author notice not a single living being?
Answer:
The author noticed not a single living being while standing on the line which separated the Libyan Desert from the Valley of the Nile in Egypt. The desert was without a speck of green.

Question 4.
How is the Nile valley soil created?
Answer:
Nile valley soil is created by the river itself. It is brought down as the finest silt in its flood waters, from the highlands of Abyssinia and from remote Central Africa. It is laid down through the ages in the trough through which the Nile flows into the sea.

Question 5.
How is the great tracts of land formed by deposition of silt evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas?
Answer:
Great tracts of land formed by silt deposition is evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas. When silt-laden water mixes with the salt water of the sea, there is rapid precipitation of the suspended matter. The colour of the water changes successively from red or brown shades of silt through varying shades of yellow and green before it becomes blue of the deep sea.

Question 6.
Why is physiological activity impossible where fluid does not play an important role?
Answer:
Water is the elixir of all life. Even fauna and flora contains a considerable proportion of free or combined water in its body. Hence, physiological activity is impossible where the fluid does not play an important role.

Question 7.
State the national problem which must be considered and dealt with on national lines.
Answer:
Water conservation is a national problem which must be considered and dealt with on national lines. Unbelievably, large quantities of the precious fluid are not conserved. Our rivers, mostly run to waste and harnessing it is vital.

B. Answer the following in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
How does C.V. Raman show that water Is the real elixir of life?
Answer:
Title: Water – The Elixir of Life
Author: Sir C.V.Raman
Character: The author
Theme: “Waste not, Want not”

According to Sir C.V. Raman, water is the elixir of life. Water is the most wonderful and powerful thing on earth. In ancient times civilization developed near the rivers. It has shaped the course of the earth’s history. It continues to play the key role in life on the surface of our planet. Water adds to the beauty of the country side.

Water is the basis of all life. Water is necessary for animal life. The moisture in the soil is imperative for the life and growth of plants and trees. The vast areas of land could be turned into fertile and prosperous land by well planned action.

Water is the commonest of liquids. But it is uncommon of liquids with amazing properties. They are responsible for maintaining human, animal and plant life. The study of the nature and properties of water is of the highest interest. It is far from an exhausted field of research.

“Make hay while the sun shines”

Question 2.
Water exists in all plant and animal forms – Explain.
Answer:
If there is plenty of water and abundant rainfall, there will be good growth of plants. The population of animals depending on these plants will increase. On the other hand, if there is a drought, there will be a smaller supply of plants. The animals depending on these plants will decrease in population as a result of the decrease in the plant population. Water is the fundamental necessity for both animal and plant forms.

Question 3.
Life cannot exist on earth without water – Explain.
Answer:
Title: “Water – The Elixir of Life”
Author: Sir C.V. Raman
Theme: No life is possible without water.
“Water is the basis of all life”

Life cannot exit on earth without water. This common substance, in our everyday life, is the most potent and most powerful thing on the earth. It has played a significant role in shaping the earth’s history and continues the leading role in the drama of life. Water is the basis of all life. Every animal or plant contains a large proportion of water in its body.

No physiological activities is possible in which the fluid does not play an essential part. Water is necessary for animal life. Moisture in the soil is a must for the life and growth of plants and trees, But the quantity varies greatly with the species. Water is essential in human life too. It is, thus, fundamental for human welfare.
“Only water that matters in all life”

Additional:

Question 1.
How is Artesian Water Created?
Answer:
Springs become artesian when the water flows to the surface under natural pressure without pumping. Water flows down a decline into a porous substance such as rock, sand or gravel. The hard rock surrounding the porous substance prevents water to escape through it. In some places the overlying impermeable rocks are broken by joints or faults. A pressure starts building up between two impermeable surfaces. The water underneath is forced out by this pressure and it may escape through the faults to rise to the surface. Most of the times the escape is a well, which becomes the source of the artesian water.

C. Given below are some idioms related to water. Match the idioms with its meaning.

Answers:
1. (d), 2. (i), 3. (f), 4. (b), 5. (j), 6. (h), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (g), 10. (e).

D. Water is a scarce resource. Discuss the causes, problems and solutions to water scarcity and write them below.

Causes :
Conflict: A conflict over an area of land may make it difficult to access the water located there.
Distance: Many areas face water scarcity because they aren’t close to any source of water.
Drought: Some areas do not get enough rainfall to be able to sustain life.
Overuse of Water: The overuse of water on people, animals, land, or recreational activities can cause water scarcity.
Pollution: Water might get polluted by anything from oil, to carcasses, to chemicals, and to fecal matter.

Problems:
Diseases: If we don’t have clean water access, we will be more likely to get diseases.
Hunger: Due to a shortage of water, agricultural lands will not be watered properly. This may cause crop deficiency and people and animals will have to go hungry.
Lack of Drinking Water: The worst outcome of water scarcity is the non-availability of clean drinking water.
Lack of Education: Children might be too sick to even go to school.
Sanitation Issues: The absence of clean water makes it difficult to clean food, dishes, or even to take a bath.

Solutions:
Technology: New and modem methods of water conservation can be applied.
Education: By educating people about water scarcity, we can prevent the problem from becoming worse in the future.
Improved Farming: We must think of farming and irrigation techniques that don’t use much water.
Recycle Water: We can recycle rainwater and use it in factories and homes.
Support Clean Water Initiatives: We can fund such organizations that bring clean water to areas that don’t have it.

Listening:

E. On the basis of the listening passage, choose the correct answer from the given options.

Question 1.
Severn Suzuki represents an organization called ECO which stands for _________.
(a) Ecological Cooperation.
(b) Environmental Coordinating Organization.
(c) Environmental Children’s Organization.
(d) Ecological Children’s Organization.
Answer:
(c) Environmental Children’s Organization

Question 2.
“I am fighting for my future.” The ‘fight’ refers to her ________.
(a) fight to win an election.
(b) fight to gain a few points in share market.
(c) fight against corruption.
(d) fight against environmental pollution.
Answer:
(d) fight against environmental pollution

Question 3.
Animals and fish are becoming extinct because ___________.
(a) they have no place to go.
(b) they die of diseases.
(c) their food and habitat are polluted.
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 4.
It is evident that Severn Suzuki is concerned about all other species too as,____________.
(a) she considers them all belonging to one world.
(b) they have nobody except her to speak for.
(c) they belong to her.
(d) they are all children.
Answer:
(a) she considers them all belonging to one world

Question 5.
Severn Suzuki condemns the people of her country for ____________.
(a) contributing large amounts of waste and not sharing the excess with the needy.
(b) being afraid of the poor.
(c) being angry with the poor belonging to other countries.
(d) being wealthy.
Answer:
(a) contributing large amounts of waste and not sharing the excess with the needy

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true? __________________.
(a) Canada is a rich country and people have in plenty.
(b) Canadian children are privileged.
(c) A Brazilian child was willing to share because she was rich.
(d) Northern countries will not share with the needy
Answer:
(c) Canada is a rich country and people have in plenty

F. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is the humb

le request of the twelve- year -old to the elders?
Answer:
She requests adults to change their ways and save nature for the future.

Question 2.
The dream of Severn Suzuki is
Answer:
She has dreamt of seeing the great herds of wild animals, jungles and rain forests, full of birds and butterflies.

Question 3.
The fear and agony of Severn Suzuki is
Answer:
We make so much waste.

Question 4.
How does she proclaim that she represents the future generation?
Answer:
She calls herself as one of the children starving in Somalia or a victim of war in the Middle East or a beggar in India.

Question 5.
The duties and responsibilities of the parents are
(a) to comfort their children saying that everything will be all right.
(b) _____________.
(c) _____________.
Answer:
(b) To teach children to respect others.
(c) To clean up their mess and not to hurt other creatures.

Speaking:

G. You are the President of CO GREEN, the Environment Club of your school. On the occasion of World Environment Day, you have been asked to address the school on the topic, ‘The Nature of Our Future Depends on the Future of Our Nature’
Answer:

Good morning, esteemed Chief Guest, the Head Master, teachers, dear friends and invitees. I am Shobha, Secretary of GO GREEN, the Environment Club of our school. Today, I stand before you to share my views on the topic “Stopping pollution is the best solution”. We humans have always deceived ourselves by thinking that someone else will save our planet.

Can you imagine… for the past 200 years we have been conquering nature, and now we are beating it to death by constantly polluting it. The Earth is not dying, it is being killed and the people who are killing it have names and addresses. All the human actions in this modem world directly impact the whole ecosystem. Industrial emissions, poor disposal of wastes, mining, deforestation, use of fossil fuels and agricultural activities, ultimately harm the nature which is the sole provider of pure oxygen, food and other requirements of man and animal.

Animals are becoming extinct. There are newer diseases evolving for which diagnosis has become impossible and so takes longer time to find a cure. Due to pollution, the number of various chemical elements is increasing in the atmosphere which ultimately causes irregular rainfall and global warming. Who is responsible? It is time we start thinking and doing our bit to be conservative and eco-friendly.

Let us walk or cycle to our work places/school. Let us not use plastic bags. Let us all keep our surroundings clean and plant at least one tree. As quoted by Lady Bird Johnson, “The Environment is Where we all meet; Where we all have a Mutual Interest; It is the one thing we all Share”. So, let’s be eco-friendly and go green. Thank you. Have a good day.

H. A class of super heroes:

‘CHANGE IS NEEDED, AND IT IS NEEDED NOW’. Let’s meet a class of superheroes who have taken simple sustainability projects upon themselves to tackles the environmental problems in their campus.

Grammar:
Simple present tense

A. Choose the correct form of the present tense verb from the options given.

All children something new every day. (learn / learns / learned)
A good student always hard, (work/works / worked)
Engineers bridges, (build / builds / built)
My sister is an architect. She skyscrapers. (design / designs / designed)
The Himalayas India from the cold winds. (protect / protects / protected)
It always here in the afternoon, (drizzle/drizzles / drizzled)
My mother in a factory, (work/works / worked)
Chella English very well, but she doesn’t understand Hindi. (speak / speaks / spoke)
Cows us milk, (give / gives/ gave)
The trains to Chennai always on time, (run / runs / ran)

Answer:

learn
works
build
designs
protect
drizzles
works
speaks
give
run

Present Continuous Tense:

B. Make sentences in the present continuous tense using the verb given in brackets.

Who is that boy _________ on the table? (stand)
What are you _______? (do) I ________ (listen) to music.
My brother _________ (work) in London now.
I ________ (wait) for my mother.
It is better not to disturb her, she ___________ (work).

Answer:

standing
doing, am listening
is working
am waiting
is working

C. What are they doing? Use the verbs below and write sentences.
eat, cry, play, read, sing, watch.
Answer:

Anu is singing.
Peter is watching.
Sudhan is playing.
Velu is reading.
Kalai is crying.

D. Look at the picture again and answer the questions.

Is Tom reading? __________.
Is Velu eating? _____________.
Is Kalai dancing? _____________.
Is Peter watching TV? _____________.
Is Anu crying? _____________.

Answer:

No, Tom is eating
No, Velu is reading
No, Kalai is crying
No, Peter is watching through a telescope
No, Anu is singing

E. Write the -ing form of the verbs.

Come _____________.
Take _____________.
Fly _____________.
Swim _____________.
Study _____________.
Read _____________.

Answer:

Coming
Taking
Flying
Swimming
Studying
Reading

F. Write negative sentences.

He is learning to read.
I am having a bath.
I’m reading a fantastic book.
Raja is driving a new car.
I’m looking for my bag.

Answer:

No, he isn’t learning to read.
No, I am not having a bath.
No, I am not reading a fantastic book.
No, Raju isn’t driving a new car.
No, I am not looking for my bag.

G. Write questions for the answers.

1. _________________?
No, they aren’t singing.
Answer:
Are they singing?

2. _________________?
Yes, She is writing a new book.
Answer:
Is she writing a new book?

3. _________________?
Yes, It is working.
Answer:
Is it working?

4. _________________?
No, he isn’t doing the project.
Answer:
Is he doing the project?

5. _________________?
Yes, We are planning to go.
Answer:
Are we planning to go?

H. Fill in the blanks with verbs in the present continuous.

You (listen) to the music.
He (cry).
I (swim) in the pool.
Latha (wait) for her daughter.
she (watch) TV?
Who he (help)?
Her father (not / cook) dinner.
Akila Y, (not /sing) a song.
My brother (not / do) his homework.
your mother (work) today?
Amutha and Praba (play) tennis.
Amith and Ravi (not / swim) in the lake.

Answer:

are listening
is crying
am swimming
is waiting
is, watching
is, helping
is not cooking the
is not singing
is not doing
is, working
are playing
are not swimming

Present Perfect Tense:

I. Make sentences in the present perfect tense using the verbs in brackets.

1. She to _______________ anybody, (never apologized, has never apologized, have never apologized)
Answer:
has never apologized

2. My mother to _______________ London, (has been, being in, have been)
Answer:
has been

3. I _______________ all the plays of Shakespeare, (read, had read, have read)
Answer:
have read

4. Have you _______________ your lunch? (finish, finished, had finished)
Answer:
finished

5. _______________ he brought his bike? (Had, Has, Have)
Answer:
has

Present perfect with “ever and never”

J. Have you ever…?
Question:
Have you ever eaten a kiwi fruit?
Answer:
Yes, I have eaten a kiwi fruit.
Or No, I have never eaten a kiwi fruit.

Answer:

Present perfect continuous tense:

K. Make sentences in the present perfect continuous tense using the verbs in brackets.

1. How long _______________ ? (are you waiting, have you been waiting, have you waited)
Answer:
have you been waiting

2. She _______________ in the garden since morning, (is working, has been working, work)
Answer:
has been working

3. I _______________ this mobile for three years, (am using, has used, have been using)
Answer:
have been using

4. The children _______________ in the park, (has been playing, have been playing, had been playing)
Answer:
have been playing

5. The workers _______________ higher wages for a long time, (has been demanding, have been demanding, demand)
Answer:
have been demanding

Simple Past Tense:

L. Complete the story using the past tense of the verbs.

Answer:

Knew
could
was
said
had
found
told
hid
began
ran
was
thought
decided
fell
woke up
saw
was
was
ran
couldn’t
sat
got up
turned
won

M. Finish each clue by changing the verb within brackets to an irregular past-tense verb.Then complete the crossword puzzle.
Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 Water – The Elixir of Life 7

Across:

The lake (freeze) ………. overnight.
Hema (buy) ………. a new bicycle.
Aravind (give) ………. me a slice of pizza.
We (drink) ……….. milk.
The dog (sleep) ………… on the sofa.
He (write) …………… a letter to his cousin in America.

Down:

I (find) ………… a coin on the ground.
Tony (teach) …………. his cat to use the litter box.
Selvi (blow) ……….. out the candle.

Answers:

Past Continuous Tense:

N. Make sentences in the past continuous tense using the verb in brackets.

1. The children _________ (wait) for the bus.
Answer:
were waiting

2. The girls __________ (leam) their lessons.
Answer:
were learning

3. I ____________ (play) in the rain all evening.
Answer:
was playing

4. Vijay ____________. (repair) his car.
Answer:
was repairing

5. Hari ____________ (work) hard to pass the entrance
Answer:
was working

Past Perfect Tense:

O. Complete the sentences using the past perfect tense.

Kalai didn’t complete his homework because ……………… .
By the time Sundar got up ………….. .
When we reached the park,…………. .
Saralah didn’t want to see her …………. .
Manohar was laughing because ………….. .

Answers:

he had slept
his brother had gone for work
our friend had already reached
brother, though her brother had hoped the same
he had smelt the laughing gas

Past Perfect Continuous Tense:

P. Circle the correct verb form in each of the following sentences.

Ezhil baked / had been baking a cake when they came.
Veeran cleaned/ had been cleaning the room since morning.
We worked / had been working in the city for ten years before we moved to the village.
The cat had been waiting/was waiting for the mice to come out of its hole.
Kannan had been looking/ have been looking for a job for a long time.

Answers:

had been baking
had been cleaning
had been working
had been waiting
had been looking

Simple Future Tense:

Q. Complete the sentences using the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

We hope you …………. (have) a great time in Ooty.
I think Manju ……………. (visit) her grandparents during the vacation.
Be careful, that mirror ……………. (fall) on the floor.
As soon as my father arrives, we …………….(go) to watch the film.
When your train arrives, I …………….. (wait) for you at the station.

Answers:

will have
will visit
will fall
will go
will wait

Future Continuous Tense:

R. Make sentences in the future continuous tense using the verb in brackets.

Ashwin …………. (complete) M.B.A.in another two years.
I …………….. (go) to Thanjavur by this time tomorrow.
Prabha ……………(receive) the best student award in six months’ time.
The plane ……………… (leave) at 3 o’clock.
He …………… (attend) the conference.

Answers:

will be completing
will be going
will be receiving
will be leaving
will be attending

S. What is Amala going to do? Given below is Amala’s schedule for next week. Read it and answer the questions using the future continuous tense.

Amala’s Schedule

Question 1.
What will Amala do on Sunday morning?
Answer:
She will be visiting her grand mother.

Question 2.
What is Amala planning to do on Saturday afternoon?
Answer:
She will be preparing sweets.

Question 3.
Where is Amala going on Wednesday morning?
Answer:
Amala will be going to the library to return the books.

Question 4.
Who is Amala meeting on Tuesday morning?
Answer:
Amala will be meeting her friends.

Question 5.
What will she buy on Monday afternoon?
Answer:
Amala will be buying groceries for the week.

Future Perfect Tense:

T. Match words from the different columns to make reasonable predictions. Then write them down in the space below. One has been done as an example.

Write the sentences:

In 50 years the ice cap will have melted.
…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………

Answers:

In 50 years the ice cap will have melted.
In 10 years, the world’s population will have reached 10 billion
In 50 years, India will have become the world’s richest country.
In 10 years, women will have obtained equal rights with men.
In 10 years, Scientists will have discovered a complete cure for cancer.
In 50 years, India will have launched a space centre in moon.
In 50 years, U.K. will have become one country.

Water – The Elixir of Life About The Author:

Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman (1888-1970) was an Indian physicist bom in Tiruchirappalli. In 1904, he stood first and won the gold medal in physics in the Bachelor of Arts examination of University of Madras. He carried out ground-breaking work in the field of light scattering, which earned him the 1930 Nobel Prize for Physics. He discovered changes in wavelength of some of the deflected light when light traverses a transparent material. This phenomenon, subsequently known as Raman Scattering, results from the Raman effect. To commemorate it, February 28th is celebrated as the National Science Day. In 1954, India honoured him with its highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna.

Water – The Elixir of Life Summary:

Since ages man has sought in vain for an imaginery elixir of life – the divine Amrita which confers immortality. But in reality the true elixir is the water that is freely available. The author remembers once standing on the line that separates Libyan Desert from the valley of the Nile. He could observe a wonderful difference between the desert where there was no life to be seen. On the other side, due to the presence of river Nile the valley has become the most fertile and densely populated land on earth. Geologists explain that this fertility is totally attributed to the river Nile, which flows from the highlands and from remote Central Africa. The Egyptian civilization is sustained by the waters that flow from Nile river.

Water, which we take for granted in our everyday lives, has played a vital role in shaping the course of Earth’s history and continues to do so. Moreover, it adds so much to the beauty of the countryside, such as the streams or ponds and so on. The rainfed tanks are so common in South India and its sad to see its neglected maintenance, though it is a cheering site when they are full. South Indian agriculture is completely dependent on these tanks. Some of these tanks are large enough so that the sun rise or set can be seen over one of them. Water in a landscape may be compared to the eyes in a human face, which reflects the mood of the hour, being bright and gay during the day and turns dark and gloomy when the sky is overcast.

Water has the remarkable feature of carrying silt or finely divided soil in suspension which contributes to the characteristic colour of the water in rainfed tanks. Swiftly flowing water can carry fairly large and heavy particles. These particles are deposited on the areas they flow and settle. The variation in the different layers of soil can be seen in alluvial areas. Such lands are usually very fertile. The flow of water thus has played an important role in shaping the earth. On the contrary it has led to soil erosion which led to heavy loss in agriculture especially in many parts of India.

Soil erosion occurs in successive steps being unnoticed in,the early stages and later forming deep gullies and ravines which make all agriculture impossible. Heavy rains are the prime reason for soil erosion, others include; slope of the land, removal of the natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence of ruts. It calls for urgent prevention measures which includes; terracing of land, construction of bunds, practice of contour cultivation and the planting of appropriate types of vegetation.

In a country like India, such measures has to be taken as they completely depend on seasonal rainfall. Water forms the basis of all life. Every animal or plant requires water for all kinds of physiological activities. In India, afforestation has to be checked and planting of suitable trees in every possible area, and the development of what one can call civilized forests, as distinguished from wild and untamed jungle should be carried out. Such plantation would directly and indirectly prove a source of untold wealth to the country.

Water – The Elixir of Life Glossary:

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Old Man River Book Back Answers 9th Standard English Chapter 3 Samacheer Kalvi

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9th Standard English Unit 3 Prose Old Man River Book Back Answers

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Old Man River 9th Standard English 3rd Lesson Question and Answer

Old Man River Warm Up:

Look at these pictures of cyclone, floods, earthquake and tsunami.

A. Discuss in pairs for two minutes on any one of these natural disasters. You may use the following points.

Causes
Damages
Precautions

Floods:
Floods are an overabundance of water in an otherwise dry area. A flood can be caused by large quantities of water gushing from a water body, such as ocean, rivers, lakes or ponds, which can swell due to heavy rainfall or mountain snowmelt. If the rivers and lakes receive too much rain then the water will not be confined within their banks. It will flow into the drylands, causing huge destruction.

Flash floods are short-term, intense and quickly-developing floods. Sudden thunderstorms create temporary puddles of water everywhere and cause small rivers and lakes to swell. In coastal areas, cyclones often cause upheavals in the water level. This creates a giant wall of water heading toward land. Depending on the size of the tide and how hard it hits land, it can often be a dangerous phenomenon, literally washing away buildings and structures along the coast.
In the flood-prone areas, the following actions need to be taken:

Protect your home – elevate the electric appliances, install check valves in sewer traps, seal
walls in basements to avoid seepage, store adequate food, candles, and drinking water.
Listen to radio/TV emergency alerts and instructions.
Seek higher grounds and be ready to evacuate if instructed.
Do not try to drive through a flooded road. If your vehicle stalls, abandon it and seek an alternate route.
After a flood, stay away from floodwater.
Be aware of areas where water has receded. Roads may have weakened or power lines may have fallen.
Do not drink tap water until hygiene standards are guaranteed by the health department.
Clean the home, especially the kitchen with safe chemical cleaners.

B. Fill the word web with words related to natural disasters. One example is done for you.

Answer:

C. Imagine a situation where your house is surrounded by water and answer the following.

Question (i).
What health hazards caused when water stagnates around your place?
Answer:
Dangerous diseases, stench smell, mosquitoes breeding, etc.

Question (ii).
When there is a power shutdown for long hours during floods, what will you do?
Answer:
I will collect rainwater for drinking and other purposes and will try to finish the daily chores before dusk.

Question (iii).
What precautions would you take if there is an announcement about flooding in your area?
Answer:
I will move to a safer place, at a higher altitude.

D. List out the Human activities which have an impact on nature. Complete the tabular column. One is done for you.

Answer:

Old Man River Intext Questions

E. Discuss with your partner and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What were the girls doing in the living room?
Answer:
Amy and Rose were knitting. Betty was looking at a magazine.

Question 2.
Why was Mother not able to come home?
Answer:
Mother couldn’t get home from Mrs. Brant’s as the bridges between Mrs. Brant’s house and town are underwater.

Question 3.
How did Jim want the girls to ‘get organised’?
Answer:
Jim asked the girls to be organized. He asked Betty to search and bring flashlights, candles, lamps, and lanterns; Rose to fill the tubs and pails; Amy to check on food, blankets, and coats. Jim also asked them to be ready with a first-aid kit.

Question 4.
Which two important things did Jim want the girls to do to avoid getting scared?
Answer:
Jim instructed the girls not to show off to others how much each one was afraid of the situation and cause fear in others. Next to get all the things together like water, food, blankets, coats, lights and to climb into the attic and on to the roof.

Question 5.
Where did Jim want the girls to climb up? How’ was it going to help them?
Answer:
Jim wanted the girls to climb up to the roof. It would help them as they could wave the flashlight and someone would see it and come for their rescue.

Question 6.
Who went to get Sara? Where was she?
Answer:
Jim went to get Sara. Sara was on the playhouse porch.

F. Discuss with your partner and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What were the important objects that the girls and Jim try to move to the attic? Why?
Answer:
Flashlight, candles, lamps, lanterns, food, blankets, coats, books and jewels were some of the articles that the girls and Jim tried to move to the attic. By night, they were expecting the water to enter into the house. To be safe until the rescue arrived, they planned to stay in the attic.

Question 2.
Who came to rescue the children?
Answer:
Mr. Peters and Miss Marsh came to rescue the children.

Question 3.
What happened to Sara?
Answer:
Sara’s right leg just below the knee was hurt as she climbed down the ladder from the playhouse.

Question 4.
Who is Miss Marsh? How does she help Sara?
Answer:
Miss Marsh is the Red Cross Nurse. She understands that Sara has broken her right leg just below the knee. She splints it up with pillows and an umbrella and lifts her safely into the boat. She also decides to take her to the emergency Red Cross hospital in Armoury.

Question 5.
Who was taken in the boat? Who was left behind?
Answer:
Left behind in the house are Amy and Jim. Others were in the boat – Betty, Sara, Rose, along with Mr. Peter and Miss Marsh.

Question 6.
How does Red Cross help the children?
Answer:
Red Cross helps the children by rescuing them from the flooded area and by saving their lives. ‘

Old Man River Textual Questions

A. Based on your understanding of the play, choose the correct answer and fill in the blanks.

1. The radio announced that ………………
(i) the river was above the flood stage.
(ii) the Bumet Dam had given way.
(iii) there will be a cloud burst.
(iv) they will be a cyclone.
Answer:
(i) the river was above the flood stage.

2. Mother couldn’t get home from Mrs. Brant’s because ……………….
(i) it was raining heavily.
(ii) the bridges between home and the town were underwater.
(iii) there was an emergency at Mrs. Brant’s house.
(iv) she had broken her leg.
Answer:
(ii) the bridges between home and the town were underwater.

3. The Burnett Dam gave away as …………………
(i) it rained for days.
(ii) the dam was weak.
(iii) it rained heavily and the snow was melting.
(iv) the maintenance was poor.
Answer:
(iii) it rained heavily and the snow was melting.

4. There was no power because ………………..
(i) the powerhouse was out of commission.
(ii) the powerhouse was flooded.
(iii) the dam gave away.
(iv) there was the fire.
Answer:
(ii) the powerhouse was flooded.

5. Why did they splint up Sara’s leg with pillows?
(i) She was unconscious out of fear.
(ii) She had broken her leg below the knee.
(iii) She was too lazy to walk.
(iv) She was making a fuss.
Answer:
(ii) She had broken her leg below the knee.

B. Based on your reading, answer the following in two or three sentences each.

Question 1.
Why did Jim run from school?
Answer:
As the river was rising fast, Jim had to run every step of the way from school. The Burnett Dam gave way an hour ago and its condition was very bad.

Question 2.
Where was Amy’s mother?
Answer:
Amy’s mother took Dick to the dentist and was going to stop at Mrs. Brant’s for a recipe before reaching home.

Question 3.
Why did Amy ask Betty to fill in the water tubs?
Answer:
Amy asked Betty to fill the bowls, tubs, pails, and pitchers with fresh water because the town supply might be cut off or could become unsafe to drink.

Question 4.
According to Jim what are the two things that a person should remember in times of emergency?
Answer:
First thing, we must not let others see how scared we are. Next to get all the things together in one place like water, food, blankets, coats, light, etc.

Question 5.
Why is Jim climbing on the roof?
Answer:
Jim wanted to be on top of the roof thinking that he would signal for help from the roof. Coast Guard would send a boat to rescue them.

Question 6.
Who was there in the living room? What were they doing?
Answer:
Amy, Betty, and Rose were sitting in the living room. Amy and Rose were knitting while Betty was looking at pictures in a magazine.

Question 7.
Why were they going to sleep in the attic?
Answer:
To save themselves from getting floated along with the rising water, they decided to climb into the attic and onto the roof because they were living in a bungalow instead of a two-story house.

Question 8.
Who came in the boat?
Answer:
Tom Peter and Miss Marsh came in the rescue boat. (Tom Peter is a member of the Red Cross Disaster Committee and Penny Marsh is the Red Cross nurse.)

Question 9.
Who is the founder of the Junior Red Cross?
Answer:
Jean Henry Dunant

C. Match the following by ‘drawing a line across columns A and B.

Answers:
1. (e), 2. (c), 3. (h), 4. (g), 5. (i), 6. (d), 7. (j), 8. (f), 9. (b), 10. (a).

D. Based on your understanding of the text, answer the following in about three to four sentences each:

1. Describe the ‘home alone’ experience of the children.
Answer:
Amy Marshall and Betty Marshall were left alone in the home and due to cyclones, the water level was rising around their house. They were lucky enough to have their friends cum neighbour Rose field. Sara Field and Jim Hall in their house to fight against the disastrous moment. Amy’s mother had taken Dick to the dentist and on her way back she was supposed to meet Mrs. Brant for a recipe. Amy’s father was in Chicago on some business matters.

2. Elaborate on the rescue operation undertaken by Mr. Peter.
Answer:
Tom Peters and Miss. Marsh, a member of the Red Cross Disaster Committee and Red Cross nurse respectively, were on a boat calling out for Mr. Marshall’s family to know whether they were safe. Jim responded and guided the rescue team to know where they were. Mr. Peter was shocked to know’ that there were children and no adults inside the house. When they were climbing down the ladder Sara fell and got hurt. She was wrapped in a blanket. Mr. Peter suggested that more than the pain it is the fear that is not making them function well and asked them to be composed. Sara has broken her right leg just below the knee. They splint it up with pillows and an umbrella to lift her safely into the boat. They took her to the emergency Red Cross hospital in the Armoury.

3. How did Jim prove himself as a good rescuer in the flood situation?
Answer:
Jim Hall a neighbour, came to the rescue of all three girls luckily during the crisis time. Mr. Marshall and Mrs. Marshall were away due to valid reasons – one on business at Chicago and the other on a visit to the dentist along with Dick. Jim Hall acted very wisely by giving all the three girls directions to collect flashlights, fill water, candles and first-aid kit. Jim advised them to climb into the attic and onto the roof because the house they were staying in was a bungalow and not a two-story house. It was dangerous as water might have entered the house anytime.

4. Briefly narrate the happenings of the play in Scene II.

(a) How did Amy manage the situation at home?
Answer:
Amy, Rose and Betty had three candles on the table. Sara was asleep covered with the blanket in a big chair. Betty was trying to read with the help of candle-light. Amy would suggest them to sleep.

(b) How did Marshall save the children?
Answer:
Mr. Peters was carrying Sara and gave her confidence by stating that she was more frightened than hurt. Miss Marsh splint right leg of Sara up with pillows and umbrella just below the knee to lift her safely into the boat. Then they took her to the emergency Red Cross hospital in the Armoury.

Think and answer:
You are one of the survivors of an earthquake that has affected your city a lot. Share the trauma you underwent and what helped you to sail through it. Give a talk for two minutes.

E. Using a dictionary, find out the synonyms and the antonyms of the words given below. One has been done for you.

Answer:

Listening:

F. Listen to the paragraph and fill in the blanks.

The 2015 South Indian floods resulted from heavy rainfall generated by the annual northeast monsoon in November- December 2015. They affected the Coromandel Coast region of the South Indian states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, and the union territory of Puducherry, with Tamil Nadu and the city of Chennai particularly hard- hit. More than 500 people were killed and over 18 lakh people were displaced. With estimates of damages and losses ranging from nearly 200 billion rupees to over 1 trillion rupees, the floods were the costliest to have occurred in 2015 and were among the costliest natural, disasters of the year. The flooding has been attributed to the2014-16 El-Nino event.
(For listening to the script refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation. in)

The (1) ……………… South Indian floods resulted from heavy rainfall generated by the
annual northeast monsoon in (2) ……………… 2015. They affected the (3) …………….. region of the South Indian states of (4) …………….., and the Union Territory of (5) ……………….., with Tamil Nadu and the city of (6) ………………. particularly hard-hit. More than (7) ………………. people were killed and over 18 lakh people were (8) …………………. With estimates of damages and losses ranging from nearly 200 billion rupees to over 1 trillion rupees, the (9) ………………… were the costliest to have occurred in 2015, and were among the costliest natural disasters of the year. The flooding has been attributed to 2014-16 (10) ………………..
Answers

2015
November
Coromandel Coast
Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Puducherry
Chennai
500
displaced
floods
El-Nino event

Writing:

G. As a local government official working in the flood-affected area you are talking to an old lady who has lost her belongings. Write a dialogue between you and the old woman. Complete the conversation.

You: Good morning Madam.
Old lady: Good morning.
You: I am from the Fire and Rescue department. How can I help you?
Old lady : (i) ……………………………………………..
You : (ii) ………………………………………………
Old lady : (iii) ………………………………………….
You : (iv) …………………………………………………
Old lady : (v) ……………………………………………
You : (vi) ………………………………………………..
Old lady : (vii) ……………………………………..
You : (viii) …………………………………………..
Old lady : (ix) …………………………………………
Answers:
(i) I have left a very important casket in my closet, can you please bring if for me?
(ii) The water level is rising. It would be really life-threatening to go to that place.
(iii) Yeah, I do understand that. To me, yes it is impossible, can you try for my sake, please.
(iv) One person cannot do that, we may have to work as a team.
(v) Then do so, please. I can’t live without that casket.
(vi) Madam please understand the human power/resource must/can be used to rescue mankind. Amma, life is more important than a casket.
(vii) Yes, I don’t deny that. Can you please take that after you finish this work or when you go to my house or nearby places?
(viii) OK amma, I shall surely try. Take a rest. Health is more important for us.
(ix) Thank you child; May God bless you!! Please try for my sake.

Creative Writing:

H. Write a letter to your friend about your experiences during the recent ‘Gaja’ cyclone.

29 May 2018
XXXX

Dear Malathi,
Hope this letter finds you in the best of health and spirits. Here, I am fine. But recently I have had the worst experience of my wife which I want to share with you. You must have heard about the cyclone ‘Gaja’ that devastated parts of Sri Lanka and India. It was the most intense tropical cyclone in the Arabian Sea since Cyclone Megh in 2015. It started as an area of low pressure in the eastern Andaman Sea on November 21 and within a few days grew into a deep depression. Ockhi intensified into a Cyclonic Storm on November 30 and caused huge damage to property and life in my city. Hundreds of people died and so many were injured. Thousands of trees were uprooted. We had no power supply for a couple of days. Food, drinking water and medicines were out of reach. Even after the cyclone subsided our area was cut off from

Writing:

You : Good morning Madam.
Old lady : Good morning.
You : I am from the Fire and Rescue department. How can I help you?
Old lady : (i) …………………………………………….
You : (ii) ……………………………………………………
Old lady : (iii) ……………………………………………
You : (iv) …………………………………………………..
Old lady : (v) …………………………………………….
You : (vi) …………………………………………………..
Old lady : (vii) …………………………………………..
You : (viii) ………………………………………………..
Old lady : (ix) …………………………………………..
Answers:
(i) I have left a very important casket in my closet, can you please bring if for me?
(ii) The water level is rising. It would be really life threating to go to that place.
(iii) Yeah, I do understand that. To me, yes it is impossible, can you try for my sake please.
(iv) One person cannot do that, we may have to work as a team.
(v) Then do so please. I can’t live without that casket.
(vi) Madam please understand the human power/resource must/can be used to rescue mankind. Amma, life is more important than casket.
(vii) Yes, I don’t deny that. Can you please take that after you finish this work or when you go to my house or nearby places.
(viii) OK amma, I shall surely try. Take rest. Health is more important for us.
(ix) Thank you child; May God bless you!! Please try for my sake.

Creative Writing

H. Write a letter to your friend about your experiences during the recent ‘Gaja’ cyclone.

29 May 2018
XXXX

Dear Malathi,
Hope this letter finds you in the best of health and spirits. Here, 1 am fine. But recently I have had the worst experience of my wife which I want to share with you. You must have heard about the cyclone ‘Gaja’ that devastated parts of Sri Lanka and India. It was the most intense tropical cyclone in the Arabian Sea since Cyclone Megh in 2015. It started as an area of low pressure in the eastern Andaman Sea on November 21 and within a few days grew into a deep depression. Ockhi intensified into a Cyclonic Storm on November 30 and caused huge damage to property and life in my city.

Hundreds of people died and so many were injured. Thousands of trees were uprooted. We had no power supply for a couple of days. Food, drinking water, and medicines were out of reach. Even after the cyclone subsided our area was cut off from the main market due to blocked roads. It was a terrible experience for me. I wish not to have any such experience again. Life has started to get normal now. I feel better after writing to you regarding this. Awaiting eagerly to listen from you.

Yours friendly,
Shivani

Address on the envelope:

I. Make a poster of any natural disaster, giving details about the devastations caused.

The recent dust storm that swept through India was one of its deadliest. The scale and intensity of this storm stretched from the western state of Rajasthan to the eastern state of Uttar Pradesh and hit Delhi, which lies between them. The dust storm caused more than 100 reported fatalities. Most of the fatalities occurred when intense wind knocked over large structures, killing or injuring those in its way.
J. You are a volunteer in your locality to serve people who are affected by floods. How will you caution them to move to a safer place taking only their bare necessities? Describe.
If I am a volunteer serving people affected by floods, I will first ask them to remain calm and have patience. Then, in a gentle voice I will give them the following instructions:

Be prepared! We may need to move to a safer place as the floods are getting worse.
Pack a bag with only your important items.
Take a few clothes, a pair of bedsheets and a blanket.
Keep your official documents, like degrees, license, PAN card, etc.
Pack some eatables that can last long.
Take some medicines.
Turn off utilities at the main switches or valves.
Disconnect all electrical appliances.
If you have to walk in water, wherever possible, walk where the water is not moving.
Take a stick to check the firmness of the ground in front of you.
While moving out, please be together with your family and take care of each other.
Do not panic. It is going to be alright soon. We will return home when authorities indicate it is safe.

Think and Do

K. Given below are some qualities that the characters in the play displayed during the floods for survival. Identify and write the character with the qualities.

Answers:

Read the following passage about mountaineering.

Scaling Heights

1. Mountains have a great fascination for men and people. Mountain climbing, however, is not without risks. Is a challenge to the unconquerable spirit of man and his love of adventure. That is is a dangerous sport that cannot be denied. As one climbs higher and higher, breathing becomes more and more difficult. Some climbers, therefore, carry a heavy apparatus from which they inhale oxygen.

2. Mountain climbing is dangerous in the extreme. There are snowstorms and bizzards. It is difficult to walk through the snow. It is still more difficult to climb on ice because it is difficult to keep foothold and cut steps with axes in order to make progress. The cold is so severe that the climber’s skin, feet, toes, fingers and tissues freeze, become numb and they may suffer frostbite. The most serious difficulty is the climber at a high altitude gets exhausted with a little effort.

3. Mountain climbing requires proper training, skill and knowledge. The climbers must be well- equipped. They must be in good physical condition and should possess courage, perseverance and power of endurance. They should carry with them maps, compasses and other equipment so that they are able to find out where they are in the absence of any tracks. They must travel through dense woods as they approach a mountain and then climb steep rocks. Near the summit of a peak, the climbers have to move over snowfields and glaciers. In dangerous areas they use ropes to tie themselves in groups.

4. The climbers carry with them packs loaded with first-aid supplies, food and extra clothing for sudden changes of weather. They display spirit of sportsmanship and fellow-feeling and face the severe risks of life undaunted. Mountain climbing is a common sport in Europe. There are mountaineering clubs where training in mountaineering is imparted.

5. There are high peaks in India and there have been successful expeditions to scale these highest peaks. After the conquest of Everest by Tensing and Hillary in 1953, the Mountaineering Institute ar Darjeeling was established to develop an interest in mountain-climbing among the Indians. Expeditions have been sent to climb the highest peaks in the country.

6. Mountain climbing is a thrilling adventure. It brings into play the heroic qualities of humankind. Mountaineers deserve all praise for their courage and heroism. In recent years. Mt. Everest has been scaled several times by foreign climbers. India too has organized several expeditions to Everest. Lately, an Indian Sherpa scaled Everest without the use of oxygen. Mrs. Bachchendri pal also succeeded in scaling Everest. She is the first Indian woman to do it.

L. Based on your reading answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

Is mountaineering a dangerous sport? Why? (para 1)
What is frostbite? (para 2)
What are the qualities of a good climber? (para 3)
What do climbers carry with them? (para 4)
Where is the Mountaineering Institute situated in India? (para 5)
What qualities of humankind are brought out by this adventurous sport? (para 6)
Why do mountaineers deserve praise? (para 6)
What kind of visitors does Mt. Everest get (para 6)

Grammar:

A. Identify the dependent clauses or phrases in the following sentences and underline them.

Texting on his phone, the man swerved into a ditch.
It isn’t necessary to cram all night if you have studied a little each day.
We climbed up the hill to enjoy the view.
I enjoy painting during my holidays.
Whether he attends the party or not, I have decided to go.
I will stop playing the drums when you go to sleep.

Answers:

Texting on his phone
if you have studied a little each day
to enjoy the view
during my holidays
when you go to sleep

B. Complete the following sentences using appropriate prepositional phrases.

1. I would like to order coffee …………….. tea.
(a) instead of
(b) instead from
(c) instead to
Answer:
(a) instead of

2. …………….. the rains, we went out.
(a) In spite of
(b) In spite
(c) In spite on
Answer:
(a) In spite of

3 fire, break the glass to escape.
(a) In case of
(b) In case
(c) In case with
Answer:
(a) In case of

4. I am standing here my friends.
(a) In behalf of
(b) on behalf of
(c) on behalf
Answer:
(b) on behalf of

5. We solved the problem a new device developed by our engineers.
(a) by means of
(b) by means
(c) by means to
Answer:
(a) by means of

6 we are impressed with their performance.
(a) In general
(b) On general
(c) In generally
Answer:
(a) In general

C. Look at the action words in bold. Identify whether they are either finite or non-finite verb.

Answers:

non-finite
finite
finite
finite
finite
finite

D. Read the following pairs of sentences:

1. Travelling might satisfy your desire for new experiences.
The study abroad program might satisfy your desire for new experiences.
Identify the subject in the first sentence …………………..
Answer:
Travelling

2. They do not appreciate my singing.
They do not appreciate my assistance.
Identify the direct object in the first sentence ………………..
Answer:
my singing

3. My cat’s favourite activity is sleeping.
My cat’s favourite food is salmon.
Identify the subject complement in the first sentence …………………
Answer:
sleeping

4. The police arrested him for speeding.
The police arrested him for criminal activity.
Identify the object of the preposition in the first sentence ……………..
Answer:
speeding

E. You may role-play the conversation.

Teacher:This is Mr. Gerund, you may have seen him after these verbs ‘enjoy’, ‘finish’, ‘keep’, ‘mind’, ‘suggest’, forgive, ‘excuse’, ‘postpone’, ‘go’
Gerund: I come after a preposition too.
Teacher: Mr. Gerund comes in handy to describe a real action.
Infinittive: Hello friends, I am Infinitive. Words such as ‘like’, ‘refuse’ are followed by me.
Dinesh: I know you. I take your help to describe a general or future action.
(I think I need to get up early tomorrow to complete my grammar exercise.)
Divya: you have helped me to express ‘reason’, ‘intention’, ‘purpose’.
(I wish to finish my assigment by tonight.)
Gerund: Do you know, after verbs like ‘begin’, ‘love’, ‘continue’, ‘try’, Team’, ‘start’, ‘neglect’ you can use either of us?
Infinitive: But remember we mean different things when used after ‘stop’.
Dinesh: Divya, when we saw Rajesh at the mall, I stopped to talk to him. why didn’t you wait?
Divya: Don’t you know I stopped talking to him?
Gemnd: I am also used after these phrases- ‘It’s no use’, ‘It’s no good’
Dinesh and divya: Thank you, mam. bye Mr. Gemnd and Ms. Infinitive.

F. Now, work in pairs and help Dinesh and Divya complete the exercise given below.

Write the gerund/infinitive form of the verbs in the blanks.

The astronauts managed ……………… (complete) their training in record time.
They learned how ……………….. (survive) in space without gravity.
The best astronaut almost quit …………….. (try) to leam the complex information.
Their mission appeared ……………….. (be) in jeopardy.
Then Marina encouraged him by saying, “It’s no good ………………….(quit) the project right at the end.”
Being an astronaut will enable you …………….. (achieve) great success in life.
If you give up ………………….. (study) now, our mission will be scrubbed.
Think of your fellow astronauts who wouldn’t hesitate …………….. (help) you in time of treble.
We astronauts must keep on ………………. (prepare) for our space launch.
some say it’s no use …………………… (travel) to distant planets because it takes too long.
But we really want ………………….. (visit) other planets and find out if life exists on them.
Can you imagine ………………. (walk) up to a Martian and shaking hands and ………………… (say), “Hello, how are you?”
We really look forward ………………….. (meet) alien creatures and ………………… (find) out what they are really like.
Many scientists have warned us not ……………… (take) this dangerous journey, but we are not discouraged.
Travelling to far away planets involves …………………… (risk) our lives for the thrill of discovery.
However we won’t delay blast off into space.
Would you like ………………… (accompany) us on our journey if you could?
During our training we have got used to ……………….. (be) weightless and ……………………. (live) under difficult conditions.
Scientists admit to ……………………… (be) intensely curious about life on other planets.
I’m sure they would also enjoy ……………….. (travel) with our crew.
We told them …………………… (come) with us on our trip, but some of them think it is a waste of time ……………… (search) for life that doesn’t exist.
We have been taught how ……………… (endure) hardships during our training and now we can’t afford ………………….(waste) money. We’re on our way!

Answers:

to complete
to survive
trying
to be
quitting
to achieve
studying
to help
preparing
travelling
to visit
walking, saying
to meet, finding
to take
risking
blasting
to accompany
being, living
being
travelling
to come, searching
to endure, to waste

Old Man River Summary:

In this drama, the author pictures life in times of crisis. Its purpose is to highlight the central idea of security. Though in fear and confusion, the characters deal bravely with flood. The scene opens on a late afternoon in March. A group of children find themselves alone at home during heavy rains. The bridges seem to be under water. Amy gets a call from her mother that she wouldn’t be able to return home since the routes are flooded. Amy’s father is in Chicago. Amy’s friend Rose is asked to stay back for the night. The children soon realise that the river is swelling.

They advise each other to be calm and brave. They arrange food, water, flashlights and other necessary things. Each one of them takes responsibility for cooking, safety, etc. Amy tries to save her parents’ valuable articles. In the night, a rescue boat arrives. Rose’s sister Sara gets hurt by chance. The rescue team takes Sara to the emergency Red Cross Hospital. The play focuses on the importance of acting during a crisis and first-aid awareness. We can take a lesson from the children how they help one another and stay calm till help arrives.

Old Man River Glossary:

cloudburst – a sudden violent rainstorm.
gasp – catch one’s breath with an open mouth, owing to pain or astonishment.
hark – listen, pay attention.
lantern – a lamp with a transparent case protecting the flame or electric bulb, and typically having a handle by which it may be carried or hung.
pickaback – a piggyback ride, on the back and shoulders of another person.
pitcher – a large jug.
shudder – shiver typically as a result of fear or revulsion.
splint – a long flat object used as a support for a broken bone so that the bone stays in a particular position while it heals.
stamping – bring down (one’s foot) heavily on the ground.
thumping – hitting or striking heavily, especially with fist or a blunt instrument.
wink – close and open one eye quickly, shine or flash intermittently.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Prose

Old Man River Book Back Answers 9th Standard English Chapter 3 Samacheer Kalvi Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

Leave a Comment / Class 9 / By Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

The Age of Revolutions Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first British colony in America was ……………….
(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
Answer:
(c) Jamestown

Question 2.
The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British was ……………..
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
Answer:
(b) Lafayette

Question 3.
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the ………………
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

Question 4.
The defeat of British at …………….. paved the way for the friendship between France and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer:
(b) Saratoga

Question 5.
…………… was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
Answer:
(a) Versailles Palace

Question 6.
The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at ……………..
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
Answer:
(d) Valmy

Question 7.
Candide was written by …………….
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

Question 8.
The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called …………….
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres
(d) Royalists
Answer:
(d) Royalists

Question 9.
American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ………………
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
Answer:
(d) 1783

Question 10.
Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was …………..
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of Rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Answer:
(a) Common Sense

II. Fill in the blanks.

The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress was ……………….
The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on …………….
The …………… Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
The leader of the National Assembly of France was …………….
…………. was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty.
Louis XVI was arrested at ……………. with his family when he tried to escape from France.

Answers:

Benjamin Franklin
Massachusetts
Currency
Mirabeau
Herbert
Varennes

III Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Perm.
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars. .
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except for the tax on paper.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American . colonies
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions;
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (b)

V Answer the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Townshend Act
(a) Who introduced this Act?
Answer:
The British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced this Act.

(b) In which year was this Act passed?
Answer:
It was passed in 1767.

(c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
Answer:
The colonists opposed this Act as they introduced duties on imports to colonies such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

(d) Why did the merchants of Boston oppose British goods?
Answer:
In March 1770, resentment rose in Boston, when troops fired on a crowd. This incident led to intense anti-British propaganda.

Question 2.
Social life in France
(a) What was the tax collected by the Church in France?
Answer:
The church collected one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings from the common people.

(b) Who was Danton?
Answer:
Danton was a great leader of the Revolution.

(c) Who were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France?
Answer:
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France.

(d) Who provided free labour for the construction of public roads?
Answer:
The peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Who were Puritans? Why did they leave England?
Answer:

Puritans had a religious movement to reform the church of England.
They dispensed with the teachings and practices of the Roman Catholic Church.
Since the Stuart kings ordered the persecution of Puritans, they left England and settled in the colonies they founded to lead a Puritan way of life.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Quakers?
Answer:
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for peace and opposing war.

Question 3.
Point out the significance of “the Boston Tea Party”.
Answer:

In many places, the colonists obstructed the import of tea.
In Charlestown, they unloaded the tea and let it rot the dock.
In New York and Philadelphia ships carrying tea were blocked.
In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
This incident, done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd, was signified as Boston Tea Party.

Question 4.
Attempt an account of “September Massacres”.
Answer:
The people of Paris angered by the action of the Swiss guards in shooting and killing many of them hunted down the supporters of monarchy under their leader Marat. In three days, from September 2, about 1500 suspected dissidents were put in prison. After a trial, they were killed and this incident is called “September Massacres”. .

Question 5.
Explain the composition of “Three Estates of France”.
Answer:
The Estates-General consisted of the representatives of three classes or estates as they were called. They were

clergy (men and women ordained for religious duties)
the nobles
the commoners (comprising lawyers, rich merchants, bankers and businessmen, and wealthy land-owners).

Question 6.
Sketch the role of Lafayette in the French Revolution.
Answer:
Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at Yorktown in 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard as its Commander. He penned the Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen, with the help . of Jefferson, which the National Assembly adopted on August 27, 1789.

Question 7.
What was the background for the storming of Bastille Prison?
Answer:
The king shut out the commoners and the latter assembled in the Tennis-Court and took an oath that they would not disperse until they found a way out to their problems. The King tried to use force but his own soldiers refused to obey his orders. Louis then intrigued to get foreign regiments to shoot down his own people. This provoked the people to rise in revolt in Paris on 14 July 1789. They stormed the Bastille prison and set free all the prisoners.

Question 8.
What were the taxes the peasants had to pay in France on the eve of the Revolution?
Answer:

The common people paid one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings.
The peasants paid taxes to the state such as Taille (land tax), Gabelle (salt tax), etc., and provided free labour (corvee) for the construction of public roads.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
“Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence – Explain.
Answer:

A Series of taxes were imposed on the colonists when the Americans did not have representation in the British Parliament.
The Sugar Act of 1764, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act of 1765, and the Stamp Act of 1765 – all their Act were protested by the American Colonists.
They called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn.
The Townshend Acts of 1767 added fuel to the fire. Merchants of Boston organised a boycott of British Goods.
When Townshend Acts were repealed retaining tax, on tea, it led to the incident of the Boston tea party.
In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
This incident, known as the Boston Tea Party, was done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.
George Washington became the colonist’s Commander-in-chief and the colonists challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will.
“No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Answer:
There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in the eighteenth century. The most famous writer of the time on rationalistic and scientific subjects was Voltaire (1694 – 1778). When imprisoned and banished, he had to live at Femey near Geneva. Voltaire, Montesquieu (1689 – 1755), and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France. Voltaire, was a prolific writer and activist, and was vehement in his criticism of the Church. His most famous work was Candide. His famous quote was: “those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities.” He is said to have once exclaimed, “I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it.”

Another great writer, a contemporary of Voltaire, but younger than him, was Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712 – 1778). His political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves. His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution. He famously said in his book Social Contract, “Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.” He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by – the general will of the people.

Montesquieu (1689 — 1755), who wrote The Persian Letters and The Spirit of the Laws, also defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers: The liberty of the individual would be best protected only in a government where the powers of its three organs, viz., legislature, executive and judiciary were separate. It would put in place the necessary checks and balances to prevent any one organ from assuming more power to itself.

An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by Diderot and Jean d’Alembert. These philosophers and thinkers, as opposed to religious intolerance and political and social privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures do you think are required to overcome the crisis?
Answer:
To avoid Bankruptcy the following steps can be followed:
(i) Maximize the Revenue
(ii) Attend mandatory credit counseling
(iii) Make ongoing payments to creditors
(iv) Attend mandatory financial-management education
(v) Make a Debt Management Plan
(vi) Settle some (or all) of the Debts
(vii) Stay out of Debts

Question 2.
Attempt a comparative study of American W ar of Independence and Indian Independence
Movement.
Answer:
Comparison between the American War of Independence and Indian Independence Movement:
A. Similarities

Both the Americans and the Indians gained their freedom by challenging the British Empire with the use of alternating tactics and policies.
Both wanted to be free because they were being coerced and restricted.
The British Empire had a major influence on the development of Indian and American human societies.
Indians boycotted British products in hopes of helping the Indian economy. Similarly, the Americans boycotted British tea and other products to get the attention of the British rule.

B. Differences

Indians chose a peaceful way of gaining independence while Americans chose a violent way. The respective paths they chose were greatly influenced by their culture and the time periods they were in.
Their leaders and strategies were extremely different.
The American colony was actually a colony where the descendants of British people rebelled against Britain, whereas in India the rebellion was by the natives.
The United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no external ally.
The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory, while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation.
The American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms).
The Indian Independence Movement took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
Answer:
You can do this assignment under the guidance of your teacher.

The Age of Revolutions Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pioneers in geographical explorations and the founding of colonies were ……………
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish
(b) The English and the Americans
(c) The Greeks and the Romans
(d) The Chinese and the Japanese
Answer:
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish

Question 2.
The …………….. founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
(a) English
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 3.
The seven years of war between Britain and France took place between ……………..
(a) 1753-1760
(b) 1756-1763
(c) 1755-1762
(d) 1757-1764
Answer:
(b) 1756-1763

Question 4.
The …………… prohibited the import of foreign rum.
(a) Quartering Act of 1765
(b) Sugar Act of 1764
(c) Declaratory Act of 1766
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sugar Act of 1764

Question 5.
Merchants of …………… organized boycott of British goods.
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Philadelphia
(d) Boston
Answer:
(d) Boston

Question 6.
The Spirit of Laws and the Persian letters were written by …………..
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Thomas Jefferson
Answer:
(b) Montesquieu

Question 7.
The French revolution exploded in …………….
(a) 1789
(b) 1788
(c) 1786
(d) 1790
Answer:
(a) 1789

Question 8.
The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for ……………. days in France.
(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 46
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 46

Question 9.
The execution of Louis XVI was on …………….
(a) 21^st Jan 1793
(b) 2^nd Sept 1792
(c) 3^rd Sept 1792
(d) 27^th July 1794
Answer:
(a) 21^st Jan 1793

Question 10.
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of …………..
(a) Danton
(b) Robespierre
(c) Napolean
(d) Herbert
Answer:
(b) Robespierre

II. Fill in the blanks.

The ……………. ship had taken a batch of Puritans from Plymouth England to America.
Declaration of Independence was drafted by …………
…………. was the founder of the Society of Friends.
The native Americans were ……………
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at ……………
The …………….. Revolution affected the life and society in the whole of Continental Europe.
On the eve of the French Revolution, France was going through a period of …………….
The middle class and the peasants together formed the …………..
The great leader of the French Revolution was …………….
The Consulate was abolished by …………….. in France.

Answers:

May Flower
Thomas Jefferson
George Fox
Red Indians
Philadelphia
French
Economic crisis
Third Estate
Danton
Napolean Bonaparte

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The American Revolution was the first political Revolution.
(ii) The French Revolution provided inspiration.
(iii) The Portuguese and the Spanish were the pioneers in Geographical explorations.
(iv) Jamestown was the first American colony in America.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American Revolution affected the life and Society in the whole of Continental Europe.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution laid the foundation for Capitalism.
(iii) The French Revolution helped to end the pre-capital feudal past.
(iv) The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Cornwallis was bom into an aristocratic family.
(ii) Cornwallis joined the army in 1757. ‘
(iii) Cornwallis did not have an active career.
(iv) Cornwallis’s military action in the American war of Independence was not worthy.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Dutch founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
Reason (R): The English later changed the name to New York.
(a) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
American War of Independence
(a) Who stated that no thinking man in North America desired Independence?
Answer:
George Washington

(b) Who was the first President of America?
Answer:
George Washington

(c) What were the grievances of the Americans?
Answer:
Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the 88 British Parliament to tax them against their will.

(d) What was their famous battle cry?
Answer:
“No.taxation without representation”.

Question 2.
Second Continental Congress
(a) When did the Second Continental Congress meet?
Answer:
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at Philadelphia.

(b) Who were the prominent members of the Congress?
Answer:
John Adams, Sam Adams, Richard Henry Lee and Thomas Jefferson were the prominent members of the Congress.

(d) Under whose command it was placed?
Answer:
They placed it under the command of George Washington.

Question 3.
Voltaire the French Philosopher
(a) Who was Voltaire?
Answer:
Voltaire was a prolific writer and activist.

(b) What did he criticize?
Answer:
He criticized the Church.

(d) What was his famous quote?
Answer:
His famous quote was ‘those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities’. .

Question 4.
The Reign of Terror
(a) Who were the main leaders of the National Convention?
Answer:
Danton, Herbert, and Robespierre were the main leaders of the National Convention.

(b) What was the law of suspects?
Answer:
The Law of Suspects made spreading of false news to divide or instigate the people a punishable crime. ‘

(d) How did Robespierre earn notoriety?
Answer:
Though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, he earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on “Plantations and the Slave Labour”.
Answer:
As the Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, the European planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states -Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia- in their search for labour resorted to acquiring slaves from Africa.

The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel and inhuman manner. In the northern States, conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms. Thus two economic systems developed in these colonies. Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back to the west. This was made easier by the disunity and divisions among the Native American tribes.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Native Americans?
Answer:
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called Native Americans (they used to be referred to as ‘Red Indians’; it is now considered demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more), spread over the vast American continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other. Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in numbers today they live in various reserves. :

Question 3.
What was the reaction of the American colonies for the taxes?
Answer:
The American-colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn. This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.

Question 4.
Why was the Townshend Act introduced?
Answer:
The British Parliament however wanted to assert its control over the colonies. In 1766 it passed the Declaratory Act. It affirmed Parliament’s right to legislate for the colonies. There was not much opposition to it as it did not introduce any new taxes. Despite the withdrawal of the Stamp Act, the British still needed money to pay its troops and other expenses in the colonies. Hence, the British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced new duties on imports in 1767. Known as the Townshend Acts, they introduced duties on imports to colonies ‘ such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

Question 5.
Why did the local tea traders boycott the foreign tea?
Answer:
The protests and boycotts made the British Parliament repealed the Townshend Acts. However, it retained the tax on tea, with the intention of encouraging the business of the East India Company by making it easy for it to take its tea to America and sell it there. This harmed the local tea trade and so it was decided to boycott this foreign tea.

Question 6.
Why didn’t the colonies begin fighting for the sake of independence?
Answer:
In 1774, a little before war began between the colonies and England, George Washington stated that no thinking man in North America desired independence. And yet he became the colonists’ commander-in-chief and later the first president of the American Republic. So the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 7.
What were the political reasons for the French Revolution? ‘
Answer:
Louis XV succeeded his great-grandfather Louis XlV and reigned for fifty nine years. He learned no lesson that the king is not above law but bound by law from the English Revolution and the beheading of King Charles I. In 1774 he was succeeded by his grandson Louis XVI.

He was entirely under the influence of his wife Marie Antoinette, who believed, more than the King, in the Divine Right Theory of Kingship – the theory that the king was representative of God on earth and therefore for all his actions he was accountable only to God and not to anybody else. Both the King and the Queen were hated by the people.

Question 8.
How did the Reign of Terror end?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre. Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine. In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the results of American war of Independence.
Answer:
The immediate result of the war was America’s independence. For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonised, leading to the establishment of a republican government in the United States. The colonists wanted to get rid of the feudal inequalities of Europe and they succeeded. For many followers of the Enlightenment in Europe, the language of the Declaration of Independence seemed a living fulfillment of their ideals. The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that “all men are bom equal.” But in reality the poor Black slaves did not fit in this. America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century, to’ abolish slavery.

By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution. These constitutions protected individual rights, freedom of the press, and freedom of religion. The Continental Congress had drafted the Articles of Confederation. The Church and the State were separated. Thomas Jefferson in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom introduced freedom of religion. It was later incorporated into the American Constitution.

The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America. Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French Revolution and the revolutionaries inspired by it were determined to fight against royal absolutism. The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom, including property and political rights.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution had many lasting results. It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France. All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of the clergy was curbed. The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced power of the state. It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle class.

Revolution upheld the theory of people’ sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth of liberal constitutional governments in Europe. Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom-loving people all over the world and inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy in Europe and elsewhere.

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Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 State and Society in Medieval India

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 State and Society in Medieval India

State and Society in Medieval India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
(a) Dauladabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Bidar
Answer:
(a) Dauladabad

Question 2.
The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by ………………
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Malik Kaffir
Answer:
(c) Aurangzeb

Question 3.
The establishment of ……………… empire changed the administrative and institutional structures of South India.
(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Mughal
(d) Nayak
Answer:
(b) Vijayanagar

Question 4.
Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of …………………
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Aihole
Answer:
(d) Aihole

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous . development in the history of South India.
(ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
(iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
(iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia.
Answer:
(i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
(ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu-speaking people from Madurai.
(iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
(iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves.
Answer:
(i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Mythical geneologies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
(ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
(iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
(iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa.
Answer:
(i) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the east to Africa in the west.
Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A
(b) (ii) A is wrong; R is correct
(c) (iii) A and R are wrong
(d) (iv) A is correct; R does not explains about A.
Answer:
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A

Question 5.
(i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
(ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva asNataraja performing the cosmic dance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

………………. were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India.
The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated the Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the battle of ……………
Vijayanagara evolved as a ………………
The tempo of urbanization increased during ……………… period.
……………… was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.

Answers:

Portuguese
Talikota
Militaristic State
Vijayanagar
The Chola period

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The arrival of the Europeans
(a) Who controlled the spice trade from India?
Answer:
Muslims controlled the Spice trade from India.

(b) What enabled the Portuguese to have control over maritime trade over the entire region?
Answer:
The Naval superiority enabled the Portuguese to have control over the Maritime trade over the entire region.

(c) How were the trading activities of the Europeans carried on in India?
Answer:
The trading activities of the Europeans carried on through the respective East India Companies in India. ‘

(d) Mention the enclaves of the Dutch, the English, the French, and the Danes in India.
Answer:

The Dutch were in Pulicat (and later Nagapatnam)
The English in Madras
The French in Pondicherry and
The Danes in Tarangampadi (Tranquebar).

Question 2.
Society, Religion and Culture.
(а) Which is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society?
Answer:
Caste is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society.

(b) What is a guild?
Answer:
The occupational caste groups are referred to as guilds.

(c) Mention some Saivite movements.
Answer:
Saiva Siddhanta in TamilNadu
Virasaivas in Karnataka
Varkarisampradaya in Maharashtra.

(d) Name the court musician of Akbar.
Answer:
Tansen was the court musician of Akbar.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write about the military expeditions of Malik Kafur.
Answer:

Malik Kafur was the commander of Alauddin’s forces.
He defeated the Mongols in 1306.
He led a series of expeditions in the southern part of India against the Yadavas (1308), Kakatiyas (1310), the Hoysalas (1311), and the Pandyas (1311).
During these campaigns, he obtained a large number of treasures elephants and horses for the Delhi sultanate.

Question 2.
Who founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom? Mention the dynasties that ruled over the kingdom.
Answer:
Harihara and Bukka, two brothers founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom.
Sangama Dynasty, Saluva Dynasty and Tuluva Dynasties ruled over the Kingdom.

Question 3.
Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
Answer:

India had two natural advantages in cotton weaving.
The first was that cotton grew in almost all parts of India so that the basic raw material was easily available.
Second, the technology of producing a permanent colour on cotton using vegetable dyes was known from very early times in India.

Question 4.
What were the factors which facilitated urbanization?
Answer:

It has been observed that cities and towns fulfilled diverse and overlapping roles in the economy.
The large cities were centres of manufacturing and marketing, banking and financial services.
They were usually located at the intersection of an extensive network of roads which connected them to other parts of the country.
Smaller towns were marketing centres in local trade connecting the immediate rural hinterland.
Cities also served as political and administrative centres, both in the capital region (for instance, Agra and Delhi) and in the provinces.

Question 5.
What is sericulture?
Answer:

Sericulture means silk production by breeding the mulberry silkworm.
It was introduced in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries.
By the seventeenth century, Bengal had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the political changes during 1526-1707 A.D. (C.E.).
Answer:
(i) The Mughal empire was founded by Babur in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) after he defeated Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat.

(ii) The first six Mughal emperors are referred to as the ‘Great Mughals’. Aurangzeb was the last of the great Mughals.

(iii) Akbar consolidated the Mughal empire through conquests and through a policy of conciliation with the Religious based kingdoms of Rajasthan.

(iv) The Mughal empire began to disintegrate after Aurangzeb, continued to exist nominally till 1857 A.D. (C.E.) when the British finally ended the virtually non-existent empire.

(v) A new power centre rose in Maharashtra in the seventeenth century, and the Marathas
under the leadership of Shivaji seriously undermined the authority of the Mughals in western India.

(vi) At its height, the empire stretched over most of the Indian sub-continent.

(vii) Only the south-western region of Kerala and southern Tamilnadu were not directly under the Mughal rule.

Question 2.
Explain the commercial developments in Medieval India.
Answer:

India had an extensive network of trade for marketing the goods.
All these kinds of markets co-existed in India on an “ascending scale in the overlapping circuits of exchange”.
Big cities were usually major commercial centres, with bazaars and shops.
Small ships and boats were used in coastal trade along the western and eastern coasts of the country.
Maritime trade across the Indian Ocean, extending from China in the east, to Africa in the west, had flourished for many centuries.
Ports like Malacca, Calicut, etc. were ‘entrepots’.
In the seventeenth century, Surat in Gujarat, Masulipatnam in the Golkonda kingdom, Chittagong in Bengal, Pulicat, and Nagapatnam on the Coromandel Coast, and Calicut in Kerala were all major ports in Asiatic trade.
India exported textiles, pepper, precious and semi-precious stones. its iron and steel were in great demand in the entires Asian regional.
It imported from China silk, ceramics, gold, spices, aromatic woods and camphor, silk, Drugs, dye, woods and sugar were imported from Persia.
Bankers and money changers operated in all the big cities, and bills of exchange or hundis were used to transfer money from one city to another
The European trading companies entered into contracts with the local merchants to carry on their trading activities.
But this scenario changed in the eighteenth century. The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.

Question 3.
“Chola Period was an enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu” – Elucidate.
Answer:
(i) The CHOLA PERIOD was an enterprising period when trade and the economy expanded, accompanied by urbanization.

(ii) The administrative machinery was re-organized during the Chola rule.

(iii) The basic unit of local administration was the village (ur), followed by the sub-region (Nadu) and district (kottam). Tax-free villages granted to Brahmins were known as brahmadeya. Marketing centres and towns were known as nagara.

(iv) The ur, nadu, brahmadeya and nagaram each had its own assembly.

(v) They were responsible for the maintenance and management of the water resources and land; the local temples; resolving local issues and disputes; and collecting the taxes due to the government.

(vi) While the Chola state did not intervene in this fundamental system of local administration, they introduced innovations in revenue administration by creating new revenue divisions (mandalam and valanadu). Several new taxes on agriculture and commerce were also introduced.

(vii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples. This had two dimensions: new temples were constructed, and existing temples became multi-functional social and economic institutions.

(viii) The construction of great temples also was a reflection of the growing prosperity in the kingdom, since the activity involved great expenditure.

Student Activities

Question 1.
On the outline map of India mark the important places of medieval India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas.
Answer:
You can collect the pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas and paste them into the Album.

IX Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia.
Answer:
You can collect pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia. You can do this as Home Assignment.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the class on the advantages and disadvantages of urbanization.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a debate on the advantages and disadvantages of Urbanization.

State and Society in Medieval India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by …………..
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(a) Muhammad Ghori

Question 2.
……………… was sent on military expeditions further south in the first decade of the 1300 AD.
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(c) Malik Kafur
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Malik Kafur

Question 3.
Maritime trade with South East Asia and China expanded greatly during the ………….. period.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
The last of the great Mughal was …………….
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(d) Aurangazeb

Question 5.
…………… period was an enterprising period.
(a) The Chola
(b) The Chera
(c) The Pandya
(d) The Pallava
Answer:
(a) The Chola

Question 6.
The most distinctive aspect of Indian society is ……………….
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Culture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Caste

Question 7.
…………….. is a pilgrimage centre.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Varanasi
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Varanasi

Question 8.
………….. was introduced in the 14th century.
(a) Sericulture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sericulture

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Mughal era from the 15th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.
(ii) Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century.
(iii) Arab Muslims had been trading in the ports of the west coast.
(iv) The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Malik Kafur.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Europeans were pre-occupied with trying a find a direct sea route to India.
(ii) The spice trade from India was controlled by Muslims.
(iii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples.
(iv) The Chola period was an enterprising period.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Textiles accounted for nearly 90% of the total exports from India.
(ii) Ainnurruvar had its headquarters in Aihole.
(iii) Coromandel merchants operated from the Persian Gulf and Red sea.
(iv) The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans.
Answer:
(ii) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Sikhism was founded by Guru Nanak.
Reason (R): He lived during 15th and 16th centuries.
(a) A is correct R explains about A
(b) A is the wrong R is correct
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A

Question 5.
(i) India was predominantly an agricultural country.
(ii) A very large population lived in Rural areas and depends on agriculture.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (c)
7. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

The Mughal era from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the …………….
The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of ……………
Maritime trade with South-east Asia and China expanded greatly during the …………….
The last known Chola emperor was ………………
The Mughal empire was founded by ……………. in 1526 A.D.
In 1498 A.D Vasco da Gama landed on the …………… coast.
The …………….. empire transformed the economy and society of North India.
……………. took roots when the Portuguese arrived in Kerala and set themselves up in Goa.
In ……………. India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.
…………… had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

Answers:

early modem period
Alauddin Khalji
Chola period
Rajendra
Babur
Kerala
Mughal
Christianity
South
Bengal

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The Advent of Islam.
(a) When was Muslim rule established in Delhi? By whom?
Answer:
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by Muhammad Ghori.

(b) Who was trading in the ports of the west coast?
Answer:
Arab Muslim merchants had been trading in the ports of the west coast especially Kerala.

(c) When was the impact of Muslim rule felt?
Answer:
The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Alauddin Khalji.

(d) What was his primary objective?
Answer:
His primary objective was to plunder the wealth, rather than to expand his territory.

Question 2.
The Chola empire in the south.
(a) Who began the territorial expansion?
Answer:
The territorial expansion of the Chola empire began under Rajaraj a I.

(b) What do you know about Rajendra I?
Answer:
The Chola empire expanded further under Rajendra I.
He had successfully taken his armies as far to the northeast up to the river Ganges.

(c) In whose period Maritime trade expanded?
Answer:
Maritime trade expanded with South-east Asia and China greatly during the Chola period.

(d) Against whom did the Naval expeditions sent?
Answer:
The Naval expeditions had been sent against the Sailendra Kingdom of Sri Vijaya, Kadarand, and Ceylon.

(e) What did he earn from this war?
Answer:
This war earned him the title of “the Chola who had conquered the Ganga and Kadaram”.

Question 3.
Urbanization in South India.
(a) Comment on South Indian temples.
Answer:
In South India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.

(b) How were the temples?
Answer:
Temples were large economic enterprises requiring a variety of goods and services to function.

(c) In whose period did the pace of urbanization increase?
Answer:
The pace of urbanization increased during the Vijayanagar period.

(d) How were the Urban centres?
Answer:
Most Urban centres displayed rural characteristics.
For instance, it was not uncommon to find fields with crops within the city.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did the historian ‘Burton Stein describe the different periods of Indian History?
Answer:
The historian Burton Stein, uses the term ‘classical’ to describe the period up to the Gupta empire and dates the ‘medieval’ period from the 7th century A.D.(CE) till the beginning of Mughal rule in the 16th century. The Mughal era, from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.

Question 2.
Who brought out the isolated southern parts into the orbit of the rulers of the North?
Answer:
The Tughlaq kings who came after Alauddin also sent their armies to the south. As a result, the generally more isolated southern part of the country came into the orbit of the rulers of the north. Governors were appointed in various provinces in the Deccan region, and a Sultanate was even established in Madurai.

Question 3.
Mention the five Sultanates who came up in Deccan in the 15th century.
Answer:
By the end of the fifteenth century, five sultanates came up in the Deccan: Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahftiednagar, Berar and Bidar. Bijapur and Golkonda were the largest of these sultanates and the region entered a phase of considerable economic growth and expansion of trade.

Question 4.
How did the Vijayanagar empire wither away?
Answer:

The rulers of Vijayanagar were almost continuously at war with the Bahmani sultanate as well as with the religion-based kingdoms of Kondavidu and Orissa.
Finally, the combined forces of the five Deccani Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the Battle of Talikota.
The Vijayanagar emperors then shifted their capital further south to Penugonda, and eventually to Chandragiri near Tirupati.
The empire (or what remained of it) finally withered away in the middle of the seventeenth century.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Islamic rule on Indian society?
Answer:
The establishment of Islamic Rule in Delhi made a big impact on Indian society. Initially, Islam did not cause any social tension. Arab merchants, for instance, when they came and settled on the Kerala coast, married local women and led a peaceful life. The situation changed when Islam became a state power. For a medieval ruler one way of asserting imperial authority was to demolish the place of worship of the enemies. Otherwise, Islam as a monotheistic religion had a positive impact on Indian society. It played a decisive role in the evolution of a composite culture.

Question 6.
Why did the Europeans come to India?
Answer:
The Europeans came to India primarily in search of spices. But soon there was an explosion in the demand for Indian textiles in the European markets, often referred to as the ‘Indian craze’. This led to a significant expansion of textile production in India, which was accompanied by an expansion of the production of commercial crops like cotton and indigo, and other dyes.

Question 7.
Give an account of genealogies collected by Colin Mackenzie.
Answer:
(i) Caste groups often petitioned the local ruler for permission to use various symbols of higher status, like the right to wear footwear, the right to carry umbrellas, the right to use certain decorations at funerals, and so on.

(ii) Each caste also created a mythical genealogy to establish its origins; this was used to justify the claim for the right to a higher status in the hierarchy.

(iii) These genealogies are found in many of the manuscripts collected by Colin Mackenzie.

Question 8.
Write a short note on the literary works of the Chola period.
Answer:

The Chola period was an era of remarkable cultural activity. These were the centuries when major literary works were written.
The best known classical poet, Kamban, wrote Ramayana in Tamil which was formally
presented (Arangetram) in the temple at Srirangam. Sekkilar’s Periyapuranam similarly was presented at the temple in Chidambaram.
Among the other great works of the period are Kalingattup-parani and Muvarula.
It was also a period when great religio-philosophical treatises like the Sankara-bhashyam and Sri-bhashyam were produced.

Question 9.
Explain the Art and Architecture of the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were well-known for their aesthetic values and were great patrons of the arts. They left behind numerous monuments, in addition to constructing entire cities like Shahjahanabad (Delhi) and Fatehpur Sikri, gardens, mosques and forts. Decorative arts – especially jewellery set with precious and semi-precious gems for items of personal use – flourished under the patronage of the royal household and urban elites. The art of painting also flourished in the Mughal period. Primarily known as Mughal miniatures, they were generally intended as book illustrations or were single works to be kept in albums.

Question 10.
What happened in the business scenario in the beginning of the 18th century in India?
Answer:

The Indian merchants benefitted from the business opportunities offered by the European companies. .
But this scenario began to change from the beginning of the eighteenth century.
The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.
But by then the local resources were not enough to produce the quantities required and political disturbances also disrupted all economic activity.
This resulted in most merchants being bankrupted diminishing the economic vitality of the merchant community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the major political changes.
Answer:
(i) The expansion of the Chola empire from the time of Rajaraja which eclipsed the Pandyan and Pallava kingdoms, extending north till Orissa.

(ii) From the twelfth century, the beginning of several centuries of Muslim rule in Delhi, extending throughout North India and the spread of Islam to different parts of the country.

(iii) By the end of the 13th century the eclipse of the great empire of the Cholas and the consequent rise of many religious kingdoms in South India. This ultimately culminated in the rise of the Vijayanagar empire which exercised authority over all of South India and came to be considered the bastion of religious rule in the south.

(iv) The consolidation of Muslim rule under the Mughals in the north, beginning in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) with the defeat of the Ibrahim Lodi by Babur. At its height, the Mughal empire stretched from Kabul to Gujarat to Bengal, from Kashmir to South India.

(v) The coming of the Europeans, beginning with the Portuguese who arrived on the west coast of India in 1498.

Question 2.
Explain the important feature of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
An important feature of Indian agriculture was the large number of crops that were cultivated. The peasant in India was more knowledgeable about many crops as compared to peasants in most of the world at the time. A variety of food grains like wheat, rice, and millets were grown apart from lentils and oilseeds. Many other commercial crops were also grown such as sugarcane, cotton, and indigo. Other than the general food crops, south India had a regional specialization in pepper, cinnamon, spices, and coconut.

In general, two different crops were grown in different seasons, which protected the productivity of the soil. Maize and tobacco were two new crops which were introduced after the arrival of the Europeans. Many new varieties of fruit or horticultural crops like papaya, pineapple, guava, and cashew nut were also introduced which came from the west, especially America. Potatoes, chilies, and tomatoes also became an integral part of Indian food.

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Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In current electricity, a positive charge refers to,………………
(a) presence of electron
(b) presence of proton
(c) absence of electron
(d) absence of proton
Answer:
(c) absence of electron

Question 2.
Rubbing of comb with hair ……………………
(a) creates electric charge
(b) transfers electric charge
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) either (a) or (b)

Question 3.
Electric field lines ………….. from positive charge and ………. in negative charge.
(a) start; start
(b) start; end
(c) start: end
(d) end; end
Answer:
(b) start; end

Question 4.
Potential near a charge is the measure of its ………… to bring a positive charge at that point.
(a) force
(b) ability
(c) tendency
(d) work
Answer:
(d) work

Question 5.
In an electrolyte the current is due to the flow of …………. .
(a) electrons
(b) positive ions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) electrons

Question 6.
Heating effect of current is called
(a) Joule heating
(b) Coulomb heating
(c) Voltage heating
(d) Ampere heating
Answer:
(a) Joule heating

Question 7.
Electroplating is an example for
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) flowing effect
(d) magnetic effect
Answer:
(b) chemical effect

Question 8.
Resistance of a wire depends on
(a) temperature
(b) geometry
(c) nature of material
(d) all the above
Answer:
all the above

II. Match the following.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Electric Charge	(a) ohm
2. Potential difference	(b) ampere
3. Electric field	(c) coulomb
4. Resistance	(d) newton per coulomb
5. Electric current	(e) volt

Answer:

III. True or False.

Question 1.
Electrically neutral means it is either zero or equal positive and negative charges
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Ammeter is connected in parallel in any electric circuit
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: An ammeter is connected in series with a device to measure its current.

Question 3.
The anode in electrolyte is negative
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The anode in electrolyte is positive.

Question 4.
Current can produce magnetic field
Answer:
True

IV. Fill in the blanks.

Electrons move from ………….. potential to …………….. potential.
The direction opposite to the movement of electron is called ……………….. current.
The e.m.f of a cell is analogous to ……………. of a pipe line.
The domestic electricity in India is an ac with a frequency of ………… Hz.
Trip switch is an …………. safety device.

Answer:

higher, lower
Conventional
a pump
50
electromechanical

V. Conceptual questions.

Question 1.
A bird sitting on a high power electric line is still safe. How?
Answer:
Birds can sit on power lines and not get electric shocks because the electricity is always looking for a way to get to the ground (i.e.) the current is not flowing out of its body to any other material.

Current flows in a loop (which means the circuit is closed). A bird sitting on a transmission line does not complete the circuit. If the same bird keeps one leg on one line and another leg or any part of its body on another line or the neutral points, then it will get burnt.

Question 2.
Does a solar cell always maintain the potential across its terminals constant? Discuss.
Answer:
The electro-chemical process inside a battery provides electrons at the negative terminal and draws electrons from the positive terminal to maintain the current being drawn. By providing energy to the electrons, the cell is capable of maintaining an electric potential difference across the two ends of the external circuit.

Question 3.
Can electroplating be possible with the alternating current?
Answer:
The heating effect and the chemical effect experiments have to be performed only with a dc cell of around 9V. The 9V dc cell will not give any electrical shock.

At any cost, we should not use the main domestic electric supply which is 220V ac voltage. If it is used it will give a heavy electric shock leading to severe damage to our body.

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
On what factors does the electrostatic force between two charges depend?
Answer:
The numerical value (magnitude) of electric force between two charges depend on the,

value of charges on them,
distance between them and
nature of medium between them.

Question 2.
What are the electric lines of force?
Answer:
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force that would act on a small positive charge. Therefore the lines representing the electric field are called ‘electric lines of force’.

Question 3.
Define electric field.
Answer:
The electric field is the region around a charged body within which its influence can be experienced (i.e) within which it can attract or repel another charged body.

Question 4.
Define electric current and give its unit.
Answer:
Current is the rate at which charges flow past a point on a circuit. Current (I) is represented as, I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\)
The standard SI unit for current is ampere with symbol A.

Question 5.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Ohm’s law states that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its ends, provided the physical conditions like temperature, density, etc. remain unchanged. V α I or V = IR.

Question 6.
Name any two appliances which work under the principle of heating effect of current.
Answer:
The principle of all-electric heating appliances like an iron box, water heater, toaster, etc. works under the principle of heating effect of current.

Question 7.
How are the home appliances connected in general, in series or parallel? Give reasons.
Answer:
In a household electric circuit, different home appliances are connected in parallel to one another due to the following reasons:

The appliances can be operated independently. If one appliance is switched off, others remain unaffected.
Each appliance gets the same constant voltage.
In parallel connection of electrical appliances, the overall resistance of the circuit is reduced due to which the current from the power supply is high.

Question 8.
List the safety features while handling electricity.
Safety features to be followed are:

Ground connection
Trip switch
Fuse.

VII. Exercises.

Question 1.
Rubbing a comb on hair makes the comb get -0.4C.
(a) Find which material has lost an electron and which one gained it.
Answer:
The material is a comb that gained electrons and the hair gained it.

(b) Find how many electrons are transferred in this process.
Answer:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
n = \(\frac { 0.4 }{ 1.6 }\) × 10^{– 19} = 0.25 × 10¹⁹ = 2.5 × 10¹⁸

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in 2 hours through an element of an electric bulb drawing a current of 2.5A.
Answer:
Given: Time ‘t’ = 2 hours = 2 × 60 × 60s
t = 7200s
I = 2.5A
Amount of charge, Q = I × t
= 2.5 × 7200
Q = 18000C

Question 3.
The values of current I flowing through a resistor for various potential differences V across the resistor are given below. What is the value of resistor?
Answer:

I (ampere)	0.5	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0
V (volt)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

[Hint: plot V-I a graph and take slope].

Resistance(R) = \(\frac { ∆V }{ ∆I }\)
= 10.2 – \(\frac { 6.7 }{ 3 }\) – 2 = 3.5/1
R = 3.5Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current In Text Problems

Question 1.
How many electrons will be there in one coulomb of charge?
Solution:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
number of electrons in 1 coulomb = \(\frac{1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 2.
If, 25 C of charge is determined to pass through a wire of any cross-section in 50 s, what is the measure of current?

Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\) = \(\frac { (20C) }{50s}\) = 0.5 \(\frac { C }{ s }\) = 0.5 A

Question 3.
The current flowing through a lamp is 0.2A. If the lamp is switched on for one hour, what is the total electric charge that passes through the lamp?
Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\);q = I × t
1hr = 1 × 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
q = I × t = 0.2A × 3600s = 720C

Question 4.
The e.m.f of a cell is 1.5 V. What is the energy provided by the cell to drive 0.5 C of charge around the circuit?
Solution:
ℰ = 1.5V and q = 0.5C
ℰ = \(\frac { W }{ q }\); W= ℰ × q ; Therefore W = 1.5 × 0.5 = 0.75J

Question 5.
A charge of 2 × 10⁴ C flows through an electric heater. The amount of electrical energy converted into thermal energy is 5 MJ. Compute the potential difference across the ends of the heater.
Solution:
V = \(\frac { W }{ q }\) that is 5 × 10⁶ \(\frac { J }{ 2 }\) × 10⁴ C = 250 V

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is a positive and a negative ion?
Answer:
If an electron is removed from the atom, it becomes positively charged. Hence it is called a positive ion. When an electron is added to an atom, it becomes negatively charged. Hence it is called a negative ion.

Question 2.
Define Electric potential.
Answer:
Electric potential is a measure of work done on the unit positive charge to bring it to that point against all electrical forces. It is represented as ‘V’.

Question 3.
What are the effects of electric current?
Answer:
When current flows in a circuit, it exhibits various effects. The main effects are; heating, chemical, and magnetic effects.

Question 4.
What is resistance?
Answer:
The resistance (R) is the measure of opposition offered by the component to the flow of electric current through it.

Question 5.
What is common to both direct and alternating current?
Answer:
Joule’s heating effect of current is common to both direct and alternating current.

Question 6.
What is a trip switch?
Answer:
It is an electromechanical device which does not allow a current beyond a particular value by automatically switching off the connection.

Question 7.
What are the advantages of AC over DC?
Answer:
Advantages of AC over DC are;

The voltage of an AC can be varied easily using a transformer.
The AC can be carried over long distances using step-up transformers.
The loss of energy while distributing current in the form of AC is negligible.
DC cannot be transmitted as such, but AC can be easily converted to DC.
Generating AC is easier than DC, AC can produce electromagnetic induction which is useful in several ways.

Question 8.
What is the ground connection?
Answer:
A ground connection is a safety feature. The metal bodies of all electrical appliances are connected to the ground by a third wire, apart from the two wires used for electrical connection. The ground connection wire is green in colour, All the ground wires from various electrical sockets are connected together finally to a thick copper wire, hurried deep in the ground, so that excess current flows down instead of entering our body.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the different electrical circuits.
Answer:
There are two types of electrical circuits – Series circuit and Parallel circuit.

Series circuit – A series circuit has only one path for electricity to flow from one point to another. The amount of electricity in the circuit is constant throughout the circuit. When electricity flows through the circuit, there will be no fluctuation in its speed.
Parallel circuit – A parallel circuit has multiple paths for electricity to flow, horizontally and vertically. The components of the parallel circuit will have the same voltage across their ends.

Question 10.
What is the difference between electromagnetic force and potential difference?
Answer:
The e.m.f. refers to the voltage developed across the terminals of an electrical source when it does not produce current in the circuit.

Potential difference refers to the voltage developed between any two points in an electric circuit when there is current in the circuit.

II. Long Answers Questions.

Question 1.
Draw and explain the electric circuit diagram.
Answer:

To represent an electrical wiring or solve problem involving electric circuits, the circuit diagrams are made. The four main components of any circuits namely the,

cell,
connecting wire,
switch and
resistor or load are given above. In addition to the above many other electrical components are also used in an actual circuit. A uniform system of symbols has been evolved to describe them. It is like learning a sign language, but useful in understanding circuit diagrams.

Question 2.
What is the magnetic effect of electricity?
Answer:
A wire or a conductor carrying current develops a magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the flow of current. This is called magnetic effect of current. The discovery of the scientist Oersted and the ‘right hand thumb rule’ are detailed in the chapter on Magnetism and Electromagnetism in this book. Direction of current is shown by the right hand thumb and the direction of magnetic field is shown by other fingers of the same right hand.

Question 3.
Explain fuse.
Answer:

A fuse is another safety mechanism which works on the joule heating principle. Fuse is a wire made up of a Nickel and Chromium alloy which has a definite melting point. If current passes through the fuse beyond a particular desired value, the excess heat produced melts the fuse wire, thus the electrical connection is cut-off. Fuse has to be kept in tight a ceramic enclosure to avoid the melting heat from producing fire accidents.

Question 4.
Name any ten symbols with a diagram.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Measurement

Leave a Comment / Class 9 / By Bhagya

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Measurement

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Measurement Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Choose the correct one
(a) mm < cm < m < km
(b) mm > cm > m > km
(c) km < m < cm < mm
(d) mm > m > cm > km
Answer:
(a) mm < cm < m < km

Question 2.
Rulers, measuring tapes and metre scales are used to measure
(a) Mass
(b) Weight
(c) Time
(d) Length
Answer:
(d) Length

Question 3.
1 metric ton is equal to
(a) 100 quintals
(b) 10 quintals
(c) 1/10 quintals
(d) 1/100 quintals
Answer:
(b) 10 quintals

Question 4.
Which among the following is not a device to measure mass?
(a) Spring balance
(b) Beam balance
(c) Physical balance
(d) Digital balance
Answer:
(a) Spring balance

II. Fill in the blanks.

Metre is the unit of …………..
1 kg of rice is weighed by …………
The thickness of a cricket ball is measured by ………….
The radius of a thin wire is measured by ………….
A physical balance measures small differences in mass up to …………….

Answer:

Length
Beam balance
Vernier Caliper
Screw Gauge
1 mg

III. True or False.

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric current is the kilogram.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The SI unit of electric current is ampere. The kilogram is the unit of mass.

Question 2.
Kilometre is one of the SI units of measurement.
Answer:
False
Correct.Statement: Metre only SI unit. Kilometre is multiple of metre.

Question 3.
In everyday life, we use the term weight instead of mass.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A physical balance is more sensitive than a beam balance.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
One Celsius degree is an interval of IK and zero degree Celsius is 273.15 K.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: One Celsius degree is an interval 1K is true, but zero degree Celsius is equal to -273.15K.

Question 6.
With the help of vernier caliper, we can have an accuracy of 0.1 mm and with a screw gauge, we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: With the help of vernier caliper we can have an accuracy of 0.01 cm and with a screw gauge, we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm.

IV. Match the following.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Length	(i) Kelvin
(b) Mass	(ii) meter
(c) Time	(iii) Kilogram
(d) Tempature	(iv) second

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Screw gauge	(i) Vegetables
(b) Vernier Caliper	(ii) Coins
(c) Beam balance	(iii) Gold ornaments
(d) Digital balance	(iv) Cricket ball

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)

V. Assertion and Reason Type.

In the following questions, the statement is given, followed by a reason. Answer the questions below.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): The scientifically correct expression is “ The mass of the bag is 10 kg”
Reason (R): In everyday life, we use the term weight instead of mass.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): 0°C = 273.16 K. For our convenience, we take it as 273 K after rounding off the decimal.
Reason (R): To convert a temperature on the Celsius scale we have to add 273 to the given temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The distance between two celestial bodies is measured in terms of a light-year.
Reason (R): The distance traveled by the light in one year is one light year.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.

VI. Very Short Answer Type.

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
Measurement is the process of comparison of the given physical quantity with the known standard quantity of the same nature.

Question 2.
Define standard unit.
Answer:
Unit is the quantity of a constant magnitude which is used to measure the magnitudes of other quantities of the same nature.

Question 3.
What is the full form of SI system?
Answer:
International System of Units.

Question 4.
Define the least count of any device.
Answer:
The least count is the least distance measured in a given device by it.

Question 5.
What do you know about pitch of screw gauge?
Answer:
Pitch of the screw gauge is the distance between two successive screw threads. It is measured by the ratio of distance travelled on the pitch scale to the number of rotations of the head scale.
Pitch = [Distance travelled on the pitch scale / Number of rotations of the head scale]

Question 6.
Can you find the diameter of a thin wire of length 2 m using the ruler from your instrument box?
Answer:
Yes, first you have to wound the wire around the scale for 10 cm and count the number of turns in it. Then if you divide 10 cm by number of turns which gives the thickness of the wire.

VII. Short Answer Type.

Question 1.
Write the rules that are followed in writing the symbols of units in the SI system.
Answer:

Units named after scientists are written in lower case, eg. joule, kelvin and newton.
Symbols for the units are always written in lower case, eg. m, kg and s.
However, the symbols for the units derived from the names of scientists are written in capital letters.
eg. C (Celsius), N (newton) and J (joule).
Symbols are not followed by a full stop, eg. 75 cm and not 75 cm.
Symbols are never written in the plural, eg. 100 kg, not as 100 kgs

Question 2.
Write the need for a standard unit.
Answer:
Many of the ancient systems of measurement were based on the dimensions of the human body. As a result, unit of measurement varied from person to person and also from location to location. In an earlier time, different unit systems were used by people from different countries.
But, at the end of the Second World War there was a necessity to use a worldwide system of measurement. Hence, SI (International System of Units) system of units was developed and recommended by General Conference on Weights and Measures in 1960 for international usage.

Question 3.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

S.No.	Mass	Weight
1.	Fundamental quantity	Derived quantity
2.	Has magnitude alone – scalar quantity	Has magnitude and direction – vector quantity
3.	It is the amount of matter contained in a body	It is the normal force exerted by the surface on the object against gravitational pull
4.	Remains the same	Varies from place to place
5.	It is measured using physical balance	It is measured using spring balance
6.	Its unit is kilogram	Its unit is newton

Question 4.
How will you measure the least count of Vernier Caliper?
Answer:
Least Count or L.C. is the minimum reading or value that can be measured with a measuring tool or device.

VIII. Long Answer Type.

Question 1.
Explain a method to find the thickness of a hollow teacup.
Answer:
To find the thickness of a hollow teacup,

(i) Determine the pitch, of the least count and zero error of the screw gauge.

Pitch of the screw = \(\frac{\text { Distance moved by the pitch }}{\text { No. of rotations by Head scale }}\)
Least count (LC) = 0.01 mm
Zero error:
Positive zero error (ZE) = + (n × LC)mm = + (n × 0.01) mm
∴ Zero correction (ZC) = – (n × 0.01) mm
Negative zero error (ZE) = – (100 – n) × LC mm
∴ Zero correction (ZC) = (100 – n) × LC mm

(ii) Place the teacup between the two studs.

(iii) Rotate the head until the teacup is held firmly but not tightly, with the help of ratchet.

(iv) Note the reading of the pitch scale crossed by the head scale (PSR) and the head scale
the division that coincides with the pitch scale axis (HSC).

(v) The thickness of the teacup is given by PSR + CHSR (Corrected HSR). Repeat the experiment for different positions of the teacup.

(vi) Tabulate the readings.

(vii) The average of the last column reading gives the thickness of the tea cup.

S.No.

P.S.R

(mm)

H.S.C

(division)

CHSC = HSC ± ZC (Division)

CHSR = CHSC x LC (mm)

Total reading = PSR + CHSR (mm)

mean = mm

The thickness of the teacup = ……….. mm

Question 2.
How will you find the thickness of a one rupee coin?

Determine the pitch, the least count and the zero error of the screw gauge
Place the coin between the two studs
Rotate the head until the coin is held firmly but not tightly, with the help of the ratchat
Note the reading of the pitch scale crossed by the head scale (PSR) and the head scale division that coincides with the pitch scale axis (HSC)
The width of the coin is given by PSR + CHSR (Corrected HSR). Repeat the experiment for different positions of the coin
Tabulate the readings
The average of the last column readings gives the width of the coin

S.No.

P.S.R

(mm)

H.S.C

(division)

CHSC = HSC ± ZC (Division)

CHSR = CHSC x LC (mm)

Total reading = PSR + CHSR (mm)

mean = mm

Thickness of the coin = …….. mm

IX. Numerical problem.

Question 1.
Inian and Ezhilan argue about the light year. Inian tells that it is 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m and Ezhilan argues that it is 9.46 × 10¹² km. Who is right? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The magnitude of light year = 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m. So Inian gave a correct answer.

Question 2.
The main scale reading while measuring the thickness of a rubber ball using Vernier Caliper is 7 cm and the Vernier scale coincidence is 6. Find the radius of the ball.
Answer:
Given: The main scale reading = 7 cm
Vernier scale coincidence = 6
we know that least count of vernier = 0.01 cm
The radius of the ball = MSR + VC × LC
= 7 cm + 6 × 0.01 cm
= 7 cm + 0.06 cm
= 7.06 cm

Question 3.
Find the thickness of a five rupee coin with the screw gauge, if the pitch scale reading is 1 mm and it’s head scale coincidence is 68.
Answer:
Given Pitch scale reading = 1 mm
Head scale coincidence = 68
The thickness of a fire rupee coin = PSR + HSC × L.C ± ZE
= 1 mm + 68 × 0.01 mm
= 1 mm + 0.68 mm
= 1.68 mm

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Using Vernier caliper find the outer diameter of your pen cap.

Answer:

S.No.	P.S.R.	H.S.C.	C.H.S.C × L.C	Total reading
1.	1mm	68	68 × 0.01 mm	P.S.R. + (H.S.C. × L.C) ± ZE = 1 mm + (68 × 0.01 mm) = 1 mm + 0.68 mm = 1.68 mm

Question 2.
Determine the thickness of a single sheet of your science textbook with the help of a Screw gauge.
Answer:
Pitch scale reading = 0.05 mm L.C. = 0.1 mm
Head scale coincidence = 02
The thickness of a single sheet of science text book = PSR + HSC × L.C. + ZE
= 0.05 mm+ (02 × 0.1)
= 0.05 mm + 0.2 mm
= 0.07 mm

Question 3.
The resources such as paper plates, teacups, thread, and sticks available at home make a model of an ordinary balance. Using standard masses find the mass of some objects.
Answer:

Resource avail	Device	mass of objects
Paper Plates	Common balance	10g
Tea Cups	Common balance	5g
Thread	Physical balance	10 ms
sticks	two par balance	15g

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Measurement Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Leave a Comment / Class 9 / By Prasanna

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Textual Exercise

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) Insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for …….
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see fire break out you will make a call to ……
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:

Local communities are expected to provide immediate disaster response.
On a daily basis, our police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery.

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network Indonesia has the most earthquakes. Why?
Answer:

The whole of Japan is in a very active seismic area, and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but by virtue of its larger size than Japan, it has more total earthquakes.
It is in extremely active seismic areas along subduction zones.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
Answer:
It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:
You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:

A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come in and go out.
A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or asteroids.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 per hour with waves 10-30 meters high.
It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
If indoors-

DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other pieces of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table or even under a bed.
Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterward it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

You should find out if your home, school, workplace, or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be where tsunamis pose a risk.
Use a Weather Radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should know what to do in a tsunami situation.
Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency.
Review flood safety and preparedness measures with your family.

Question 4.
What should you do if you are trapped in a car during civil unrest?
Answer:
If trapped in a car;

Keep abreast of the current news if you are in a volatile area.
If you come across a demonstration, don’t become inquisitive, just leave the area and find another route to your intended destination.
Avoid any place where police or security forces’ action is in progress.

Question 5.
Write three sentences about what to do during a fire.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

Know your building’s evacuation plan.
Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.

HOTs

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 meters of height standing near your house?
Answer:

Old and overgrown branches might fall and injure people.
They may cause damage to electricity and telephone lines, houses, cars, and other belongings.
Broken branches and leaves may create gutter.
Large root systems can cause damage to the foundation of your house.
Constant shade from the Sun will cause dampness on the roof.

To prevent all these problems you should trim and prune all trees and vegetation within 3 meters height standing near your house.

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is measured using a seismograph.
(a) Earthquake
(b) heat
(c) Pressure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 2.
This country is in a very active seismic area.
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 3.
…….. tops in riot in the world.
(a) India
(b) Iraq
(c) Nigeria
(d) Syria
Answer:
(d) Syria

Question 4.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 kms per hour with waves …….. metres high.
(a) 10 – 30
(b) 10 – 40
(c) 10 – 60
(d) 10 – 50
Answer:
(a) 10 – 30

Question 5.
This is not the cause for fire.
(a) Lightning strikes
(b) Sparks during arid conditions
(c) The eruptions of volcanoes
(d) Ocean waves
Answer:
(d) Ocean waves

II. Very short answers:

Question 1.
What does Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 2.
What does Modern Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Earth Quake”.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements. It occurs along the plate boundaries. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is focus. The point on the earth’s surface above the called a focus is called an epicentre. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicentre.

Question 4.
If you are in a vehicle, what will you do during an earthquake? If in a moving vehicle
Answer:

Stop as quickly as safety permits. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses and utility wires.
Proceed cautiously once the earthquake has stopped. Avoid roads, bridges or ramps that might have been damaged by the earthquake.

Question 5.
Give an account of Tsunami?
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700 – 800 km per hour, with waves 10 – 30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

III. Short Answers:

Question 1.
What is meant by Disaster Response?
Answer:

Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected populations, restoration of lost livelihoods, and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged.
The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by the disaster (food, water, and shelter), and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
What to do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 3.
What to do if you are caught in a riot?
Answer:

If you find yourself caught up in a demonstration, keep to the edge of the crowd where it is safer. At the first opportunity, break away and seek refuge in a nearby building or find a suitable doorway or alley and stay there until the crowd passes.
When leaving the fringe of the demonstration, just walk away – don’t run as this will draw attention to you.
In the event that you are arrested by the police/military, do not resist. Go along peacefully and contact your law advisor to help you resolve your predicament.
If you are caught up in the crowd, stay clear of glass shop fronts, moreover, move with the flow.
If shooting breaks out, drop to the ground and cover your head and neck, and lie as flat as you can.

Question 4.
Mention the causes for lire? What are the problems caused by fire?
Answer:

Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods.
They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush, and deserts, and with sufficient wind can rapidly spread.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges, and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products, and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.
The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, the eruption of volcanoes, and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.
A side-effect of wildfires that also threatens inhabited areas is smoke.
Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

IV. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Disaster Management cycle with Diagram.
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery. Disaster management involves all levels of government. Non-governmental and community based organizations play a vital role in the process.

Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields. Crisis management is important, but is only a part of the responsibility of a disaster manager.

The traditional approach to disaster management has a number of phased sequences of action or a continuum. These can be represented as a disaster management cycle. We mainly focus on the way how the community should respond to disasters.

Question 2.
Explain “Fire”.
Answer:
Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with blowing wind, can spread rapidly.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.

The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, eruption of volcanoes and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.

A side-effect of wildfires which also threatens inhabited areas is smoke. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

On average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

Hydrosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Sunda Trench lies in the ……………… ocean.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Pacific
(c) Indian
(d) Antarctic
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 2.
The temperature of the ocean waters generally ……………. at greater depth.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 3.
Ocean currents are produced due to ………………….
(a) due to rotation of earth
(b) due to variation in temperature
(c) due to earth’s movement
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Question 5.
The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to ……………….
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
(b) divergence of tectonic plates
(c) lateral movements of plates
(d) stearing of plates
Answer:
(b) divergence of tectonic plates

Question 6.
Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface of the sea?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
Answer:
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador current—North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea
(d) Mozambique current—Indian Ocehn.
Answer:
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean; (c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea

Question 8.
The amount of planktons to be found in the ocean is determined by
1. Depth of the water
2. Ocean currents
3. Temperature and Salinity
4. Length of day and night
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Questions 9 to 12 are of Assertion (A), Reason (R) type.
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason (R): It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyots.
Reason (R): All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason (R): They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise
Answer:
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Atolls are more common in the Atlantic ocean.
Reason (R): The marine population at the depth is less.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (e)

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term Hydrosphere?
Answer:

Hydrosphere consists of water in various forms found on the earth.
Over 97% of the water on the Earth’s surface is confined to oceans.
Less than 3% of water is held on land as glaciers, ice caps, groundwater, rivers, lakes, and also as the water vapour in the air.

Question 2.
What is the hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The continuous movement of water on, above, and below the earth’s surface is called the Hydrological cycle.

Question 3.
Mention the various relief features of ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean basins are characterised by the following major relief features:

Continental shelf
Continental slope
Continental rise
Deep-sea plain or Abyssal plain
Oceanic deep
Oceanic ridge

Question 4.
What are the factors that generate the ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

Earth’s rotation
Prevailing winds and
Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on sea waves.
Answer:

Of all the movements of the oceans, sea waves are considered to be the strongest.
Sea waves are ripples on water caused when winds blow over the sea.
The height of these waves depends on the speed of the wind, its duration, and the direction from which they blow.
Sometimes waves are also caused by tremors felt on the ocean floor.
Such waves are quite destructive and called Tsunami.

IV. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Springtide and Neap tide.
Answer:

S.No.	Springtide	Neap tide
(i)	When the Sun, Moon and Earth aligned in the same line, the collective gravitation pull of the Sun and Moon on earth’s water strengthens to form a high tide known as spring tide.	When the Sun and Moon are at right angles their gravitational forces work against each other causing a low tide called Neap tide.
(ii)	These tides always occur on Full moon and New moon days.	A Neap tide occurs between two spring tides, i.e., twice a month when the first and last quarter moon appears.

Question 2.
Abyssal plains and Ocean deeps.
Answer:

S. No.	Abyssal plain	Ocean deeps
(i)	Abyssal plains are underwater plains found on the deep ocean floor.	These are the deepest part of the oceans.
(ii)	These plains extend from continental rise to the mid-oceanic ridges.	Trenches are the deepest part of the oceans. They occupy about 7% of the total relief of the ocean flour.
(iii)	Abyssal plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments composed of clay, silt and sand.	These are sediment free. So most trenches are V-shaped with steep sides.
(iv)	Abyssal hills, sea mounts, guyots, coral atoll, etc., are the characteristic features.	Epicentre of the great earthquakes is all found in the trenches.

Question 3.
Tidal power and Hydel power.
Answer:

S.No.	Tidal power	Hydel power
(i)	Tidal power (or) tidal energy is a form of Hydropower that converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power mainly electricity.	Hydel power (or) water power is derived from the energy of falling water (or) fast running water which may be harnessed for useful purposes.
(ii)	Tidal energy has potential for future electricity generation. Tides are more predictable than the wind and the sun.	This is a renewable energy source because the water cycle is constantly renewed by the sun. Hydropower was used for mechanical milling such as grinding grains.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are called land and water hemispheres respectively.
Answer:
The continents and oceans are, however, not evenly distributed in the northern and the southern hemispheres. The northern hemisphere holds 61% of land whereas the southern hemisphere holds 81% of water. It is because of this pattern of land and water distribution, the northern hemisphere is called as the land hemisphere and the southern hemisphere is called the water . hemisphere.

Question 2.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the origin of oceans.
Answer:

The ocean is a continuous body of saltwater that forms the major part of the hydrosphere.
Geoscientists believe that the oceans were formed on Earth nearly three billion years ago.
It is difficult to believe that in the beginning there was no water on our planet.
In due course of time, when the Earth started cooling, steam escaped from the interior and entered the atmosphere to form clouds.
At first, the clouds brought incessant rains.
The rainwater filled the depressions for tens of thousands of years and eventually a superocean was formed.

Question 2.
Write a note on continental shelf and continental slope.
Answer:
Continental Shelf:

A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental landmass into the sea is called Continental Shelf.
It is almost a uniform zone of the sea bed with a gentle gradient.
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, seaweeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.
The continental shelves have extensive deposits of minerals and mineral fuels. Hence, this zone becomes accessible for oil drilling and mining activities: e.g. Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea.

Continental Slope:

A steep slope which descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep ocean- the bed is called a continental slope.
It forms a boundary between the Continental Crust and the oceanic crust.
This zone is free from deposits as they are steep. The most important characteristic of the continental slope is the presence of deep canyons and trenches.
Due to the low penetration of sunlight, the slope has nearly freezing temperatures.
Hence aquatic life has a very slow rate of metabolism.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ocean currents? Explain its types.
Answer:

The movement of oceanic water on the surface and at the depths in a definite direction is called ocean current.
Ocean currents are in a clockwise motion in the northern hemisphere and in anti-clockwise motion in the southern hemisphere.
The factors that generate ocean currents are:
Earth’s rotation, Prevailing winds, and Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.
On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents.
The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current. Example Gulf Stream in the Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in the Pacific Ocean.

On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in the Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in the Pacific Ocean.

The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Explain the influences of the marine resources on mankind.
Answer:
The biotic and abiotic resources found in the oceanic water and at the bottoms are called marine resources. The ocean’s resources play a vital role in sustaining the needs of society.
A diverse array of marine organisms is used for food, medicine, cosmetics, and a wealth of • industrial applications. The world’s demand for energy,
minerals and water have become increasingly dependent on non-living marine resources.

Hydrosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. is called the Blue Planet.
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(a) Earth

Question 2.
The …………… is the watery part of the earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(c) Hydrosphere

Question 3.
The land of thousand lakes is ……………
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Britain
(d) Swedwen
Answer:
(b) Finland

Question 4.
The purest form of water is …………….
(a) rainwater
(b) well water
(c) river water
(d) seawater
Answer:
(a) rainwater

Question 5.
Extensive deposits of Minerals and Mineral fuels are found in ……………
(a) Continental slope
(b) Continental shelf
(c) Continental rise
(d) Deep Sea Plains
Answer:
(b) Continental shelf

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Submarine Fans which are similar to the alluvial fans found in water.
(ii) Aquatic life has a very slow rate of metabolism.
(iii) Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world.
(iv) Abyssal plains are usually covered by a thick layer of sediments. ,
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 7.
The humankind depends on the Marine resources for its …………….
(a) Agricultural purposes
(b) Survival
(c) Industrial purposes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Survival

Question 8.
Which of the following correctly matched?
(a) Pacific ocean and Green land
(b) Atlantic ocean and Mariana Trench
(c) Arctic ocean and Trinity Islands
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands
Answer:
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands

Questions 9 to 12 are Assertion (A) Reason (R) type.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Continental slope is free from deposits as they are steep.
Reason (R): Abyssal plains appear as a uniform flat and featureless plain.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Continental shelf is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with gentle gradient.
Reason (R): This enables sunlight to penetrate through the water.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the Northern Hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the Southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes to low latitudes is called warm currents.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): The ocean/seawater does not contains calcium in great quantities.
Reason (R): Many of the aquatic animals with shells use the dissolved calcium in the seawater to build their protective shells.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (f)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (d)

III. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the three major processes involved in the Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three major processes involved in the water cycle are evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 2.
Why do we consider the oceans and seas as resource bowl of the earth?
Answer:
Oceans and seas are considered as resource bowl of the earth because of the immense availability of food, minerals, etc.

Question 3.
What Is Hypsometric curve?
Answer:
A Hypsometric Curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place found on land and the height of ocean features at sea. ‘Hypso’ means height in Greek.

Question 4.
What do you know about Water Table?
Answer:
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface,

Question 5.
What is Dragon Hole?
Answer:
Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world. The local fishermen call it the‘eye’of the South China Sea.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the movement of the ocean water.
Answer:
The ocean water is dynamic. Temperature, salinity, density, external forces of the sun, moon and the winds keep the ocean waters in movement, both horizontally and vertically. . Waves and currents are in horizontal motion while tides have vertical motion.

Question 7.
What is called continental rise?
Answer:
At the base of the continental slope is a gently sloping layer of sediments that merge into the deep-sea floor. This underwater feature found between the continental slope and abyssal plains is called the continental rise.

Question 8.
How is the energy of the falling wave water used?
Answer:
The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power. Wave energy power plants have been installed at Vizhinjam in Kerala coast and Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.

Question 9.
When was the National Institute oceanography established? What do they do?
Answer:
NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) was established in 1st January 1966. The headquarters of NIO is located at Dona Paula, Goa. It Conducts research and observations to understand oceanic features, Ocean engineering, marine Archaeology etc.

Question 10.
What is Sea Mount?
Answer:
Sea mount is an underwater mountain that rise from the sea floor due to undersea volcanic

IV. Distinguish the following.

Question 1.
Warm current and Cold current.
Answer:

Warm current	Cold current
The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.	The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Water table and Aquifers.
Answer:

Water table	Aquifers
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface.	Aquifers are porous rock strata filled with water, found below the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
Isobath and Isohaline.
Answer:

Isobath	Isohaline
An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal depths.	An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal salinity in oceans.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The earth is called the Blue Planet.
Answer:
The Earth is also called the Blue planet, as it holds water in abundance and thus stands unique among all other planets.

Question 2.
Oceans are the lifelines of Earth and Mankind.
Answer:
Oceans are the lifeblood of planet earth and mankind. The humankind depends on the marine resources’ for its survival. They are also essential for the economic prosperity, social wellbeing and quality of life.

Question 3.
Most of the Creek area get submerged.
Answer:
Most of the Creek area gets submerged due to high tide and at times of low tide, the creek emerges out along with poisonous creatures like snakes, scorpions.

Question 4.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, seaweeds, and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
The Great Barrier Reef. Explain.
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef: The Great Barrier reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres. It covers an area of about 3,50,000 km. The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia. The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from the outer space. This sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet. Coral reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as Coral polyps.CNN labelled it as one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
“71% of the earth is covered by water but very little can be used by humans. Why?
Answer:
“A little amount of freshwater which is suitable for human consumption is present on the earth. Rest of the water we find in oceans. Seawater is saline and not suitable for consumption.

Question 2.
The oceans are salty. Why?
Answer:

As the rain erodes the rock acids in the rainwater break down the rock.
Ions (or) electrically charged atomic particles are created.
These ions are carried away in a runoff to streams and rivers and ultimately to the ocean.
Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean are removed from the water.
Others are left for long periods time where their concentrations increased over time.
Sodium and chloride are the most prevalent ions in Seawater, (about 90%) making sea water salty as it is salty.

Question 3.
Why is the salinity at the equator less even though it experiences high temperature.
Answer:
The salinity at the equator is less even though it experiences high temperature, because of heavy rainfall and high relative humidity as precipitation adds good amount of freshwater to ocean water.

Question 4.
“Though Caspian Sea is enclosed its salinity is just 14 to 17 parts per thousand. Why is it so?
Answer:

The Caspian Sea is a fresh water lake in its northern portions due to the current inflow of freshwater and is most saline on the Iranian shore where the catchment basin centributes little flow.
Currently the mean salinity of the Caspian sea is one third that of Earth’s oceans.

Question 5.
What will happen if the seas and oceans contain only freshwater?
Answer:

Marine organisms would die as they are capable of surviving only in seawater (saltwater).
Coral formation could not take place as they are made up of calcareous minerals.
Salt is quite important in daily usage.
We would have to rely on artificial production without natural salt, which would incur a lot of monetary and infrastructural expenses.
Saltwater can hold heat better.
Sealife is adapted to salt water.
Ocean currents would be completely disrupted.

VIII. Enrichment Activity.

Question 1.
A) Study the map of ocean currents and then complete the table given below:

Major Ocean currents
Oceans	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Pacific Ocean	Kurashio Current (Warm) Oyashio/Kurile Current (Cold) Alaska Current (Warm) California Current (Cold)	Peruvian/Humboldt Current (Cold)
Atlantic Ocean	Canaries (Cold) Gulf Stream (Warm) North Atlantic Drift (Warm) Labrador (Cold)	Benguela (Cold)
Indian Ocean	North East Monsoon Current (Warm) South West Monsoon Current (Warm)	West Australian Current (Cold)

B) Map Work:
Mark the cold currents in blue and the warm currents in red in a World outline map.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. was brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
Answer:
(c) Penang island

Question 2.
In 1896 ………….. states were formed into the Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 3.
…………… was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French Control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
Answer:
(d) Cochin-China

Question 4.
The Discovery of gold in the ………….. led to a large number of British miners settled in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
Answer:
(a) Transvaal

Question 5.
…………… became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 6.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………………
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey
(c) Tonking
(d) Transvaal
Answer:
(a) Adowa

Question 7.
Indentured labour system was a form of …………….
(a) contract labour system
(b) slavery
(c) debt bondage
(d) serfdom
Answer:
(c) debt bondage

II. Fill in the blanks.

…………… Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European Powers.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………….. in 1896.
The settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is ……………
………….. was the author of a book called “Notebook from Prison”.
………… were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.

Answers:

Berlin Colonial
Adowa
The Permanent Settlement
Antonio Gramsci
Nattukottai Chettiyars

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of the Sahara was unknown to the world.
(ii) The coastal states of the Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
(iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
(iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odhisha.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
(ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
(iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
(iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of influence.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (i) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): (A) In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez-Faire in the trade of food- grains.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading

Question 1.
Colonialism in India
(i) When did the East India Company acquire the Diwani Right?
Answer:
The Company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.

(ii) When were the Gurkhas conquered by the British?
Answer:
The British conquered the Gurkhas in 1816.

(iii) When was slavery abolished in British India?
Answer:
Slavery was abolished in India in 1843.

(iv) When did Burma become a part of the Madras Presidency?
Answer:
There was British rule in Burma from 1824 to 1948.

Question 2.
South Africa
(i) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
Answer:
The British possessed Natal, Cape Colony of South Africa.

(ii) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
Answer:
The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State.

(iii) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape colony?
Answer:
Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony..

(iv) How long did Boer Wars last?
Answer:
Boer War lasted for three years from 1899 to 1902.

VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Distinguish between Colonialism and Imperialism.
Answer:

Colonialism	Imperialism
Colonialism is a process of domination, involving the subjugation of one people by another.	Imperialism, on the other hand, draws attention to the way one country exercises power over another, whether through settlement, sovereignty, or indirect mechanisms of control.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Zulu tribe.
Answer:

The Zulu tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, represented by renowned warriors like Shaka Zulu.
He played a prominent role in building the largest Zulu nation is south-eastern Africa.
British troops invaded Zulu territory and divided it into thirteen chiefdoms.
The Zulus never regained their independence and had to fight against deeply entrenched racism in South Africa for about a century.

Question 3.
State the three phases in the colonialisation of the Indian economy.
Answer:
The process of the colonialisation of India can be divided into three phases:

Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism
Phase II Industrial Capitalism
Phase III Financial Capitalism

Question 4.
Colonel Pennycuiek.
Answer:

Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council.
He wanted to irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.
Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, he sold his family property and completed the project in 1895.
Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

Question 5.
Explain Home Charges.
Answer:
The East India Company remitted to England what was called Home Charges – the dividends on East India’s stock, interest on the debt, savings from salaries and the pensions of officers and establishments and buildings in the India Office, London, transporting cost of British troops to and from India.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the economic impact of British Rule in India.
Answer:
There are three phases under the colonisation of the Indian Economy.
a. Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism

Before it gained dominion in India, the East India Company carried on a very profitable business selling Indian – made cotton textiles and silks and printed cloth.
It was during this period that the textile lobby in Lancashire and Birmingham succeeded in making the Parliament enact a law prohibiting the import of Indian textiles.
Those who were found in possession of or dealing in Indian cotton goods were fined 200 pounds.
The company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.
East India Company crushed every industry which came in conflict with British industry. The shipbuilding industry collapsed the manufacture of paper and glass dwindled.
India which had become the ‘Lancashire of the Eastern World’ began to lose its Position.

b. Phase II Industrial Capitalism

By the beginning of the nineteenth century, the Company had emerged as a territorial power.
During this period India was converted into a market for British textiles and a great source of raw materials.
Home charges were special types of contribution which were used by the British government for meeting various types of expenses for maintenance of the colony.
These consist of payments of pensions and salaries of British people staying in India and industries earned on the external debt of India.
Surphases from the trade were used for making these payments.

c. Phase III Financial Capitalism

The company government decided to make a massive investment in railroads, the postal system, irrigation, modem banking, and education with its surplus capital.
All these investments were made for the benefit of the British. The railways helped to move British troops quickly across the country as well as enabled the conquest of the Indian market to the maximum extent.
The Company, supported by the English Parliament, encouraged British investment in railways with a guaranteed annual interest of 5 percent.
Mining companies were given nominal fees and low royalties.
Land for the cultivation of coffee, tea, pepper, and rubber was given at a throwaway price.
Removing slavery in 1843, introduced indentured labour.

Question 2.
Explain the process of colonisation in Africa.
Answer:
Until the last quarter of the nineteenth century, Africa south of the Sahara (Sub- Saharan Africa) was almost unknown to the outside world. The interior of Africa was unexplored. After 1875, European penetration and colonisation began on a large scale. The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European powers. European colonisation of Africa was thus accomplished smoothly, without any outbreak of war amongst major European powers. The invasion, occupation, colonisation, and annexation of African territories by European powers between 1881 and 1914, the era of Imperialism, is called the Scramble for Africa or the Partition of Africa.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare an album with pictures and images of famines that affected different parts of India during the British colonial rule.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using the internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Attempt an account of the cultural relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Answer:

Southeast Asia was under Indian influence starting around 200 BC.
Kingdoms on the southeast coast of the Indian subcontinent had established trade, cultural and political relations with southeast Asian Kingdoms in Burma, Thailand, Indonesia, Malay Peninsula Cambodia, and Vietnam.
Southern Indian traders, adventures, teachers, and priests continued to be the dominating influence in Southeast Asia until about 1500 C E.
The Government of India’s Act East Policy aims at improving economic and political relations with the Southeast Asian region.
India has been able to make inroads in trade and investments with members of the ASEAN by signing a Free Trade Agreement in 2009.
In Cambodia, Thailand, and Indonesia or Burma today many symbolic remnants of India’s influence are clearly visible in their art, culture, and civilization.
The eleven countries of ASEAN are Myanmar, Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, Indonesia, Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos, Brunei, the Philippines, and recently added Timor hosted.
Temples of Angkor wat, Pagn and Prambanan bear evidence of the deep penesation of Indian art and architectural forms in their famous Southeast Asian movements.
Folklore singers and aristes played a very important role in popularising and modifying Indian library work in Southeast Asia.
Similarly, sculptors and artists copied and combined original Indian profits with local artistic motifs to arrive at something distinctively Southeast Asian.
The influence of India can also be felt in the food and flavours of Southeast Asia.

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the merits and demerits of the British rule in India.
Answer:
a. Merits

In the cause of humanity – abolition of suti and female infanticide.
Removal of things Pindaris and other such pests of the Indian Society.
In the cause of civilisation educate to both male and female, leading gradually to the distinction of superstition.
Politically peace and order established. Freedom of speech and liberty of the press was enjoyed.
Improvement of government in the native states. Security of life and property.
Materially Development of a’ few valuable products such as indigo, tea, coffee, silk, etc., Increase of exports, Telegraphs.

b. Demerits

Repeated breach of pledges to give the natives a fair and reasonable share in the higher administration of their own country.
Natives of India were not treated as British subjects.
The British disregarded the feelings and views of the natives.
All attention was engrossed in devising new modes of taxation without any adequate effort to increase the means of the people to pay.

c. Sentance

To sump up the whole, the British rule has been morally a great blessing, politically peace and order on one hand, blunders on the other, materially impoverishment.
Social reforms, Education Reforms, Employment schemes, Irrigation schemes, Infrastructure development, monuments, legal tenders, heritage site all these gifts from the British Raj.
Divide and rule policy, loss of lives, exploitation of resources implement of Tax structure all them affected the Indian society.

Question 2.
Explore the impact of colonialism in British Burma.
Answer:
British rule in Burma, also known as British Burma lasted from 1824 to 1948 from the Anglo Burmese wars through the creation of Burma as the province of British India to the establishment of an independently administered colony and finally independence.

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term colony comes from the ………….. word colonus, meaning farmer.
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 2.
Rudyard Kipling was a _________
(a) Ruler
(b) Colonist
(c) Writer
(d) Soldier
Answer:
(c) writer

Question 3.
The Portuguese conquered the great international emporium of …………. for the king of Portugal.
(a) Dutch East Indies
(b) French Indo-China
(c) Malacca
(d) Philippines
Answer:
(c) Malacca

Question 4.
The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in …………….
(a) 1941
(b) 1641
(c) 1741
(d) 1841
Answer:
(b) 1641

Question 5.
Albuquerque belonged to _________
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Italy
(d) England
Answer:
(b) Portugal

Question 6.
The …………… had occupied Java and Sumatra (Indonesia) as early as 1640.
(a) The Dutch
(b) The English
(c) The French
(d) The Spanish
Answer:
(a) The Dutch

Question 7.
During World War II …………….. fell to the Japanese.
(a) Malaya
(b) Thailand
(c) Burma
(d) the Philippines
Answer:
(c) Burma

Question 8.
Burma was well known for its _________
(a) Teak and Rice
(b) Silk and Muslin
(c) Gold and Silver
(d) Chemicals
Answer:
(a) Teak and Rice

Question 9.
This country in Africa managed to evade European Colonialism ……………
(a) Nigeria
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Uganda
(d) Kenya.
Answer:
(b) Ethiopia

Question 10.
The Mullai Periyar Dam Construction was completed in 1895 by an army Engineer and civil servant …………..
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Arthur Cotton
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Governor-General Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick

II. Fill in the blanks.

The term “South East Asia” has only been used since the …………
By 1826 …………… and had been linked with Penang to form the Strait Settlements.
………….. was the capital of Indo-China under the French Government.
Spain ruled the Philippines for over ……………. years.
Most Indonesians were ………….. and …………… and worked in plantations.
In 1890 ………… the Prime Minister of Cape Colony encouraged British expansion to the North of the Transvaal.
The ………….. tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, in South-eastern Africa.
……………. was used for slave trading posts on the coast.
Ethiopia, with its traditional polity, was ruled by the ……………..
The Portuguese Sailor …………… arrived in Calicut in 1498.

Answers:

Second World War
Singapore, Malacca
Hanoi
300
Fishermen, Peasants
Cecil Rhodes
Zulu
Nigeria
Emperor Menelik
Vasco da Gama

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) When European traders crossed the Indian Ocean at the close of the 15th century, they came for the spices of south-east Asia.
(ii) Penang Island had been brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(iii) The Dutch were interested in politics but focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.
(iv) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 200 years.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The interior of Africa was unexplored.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold coast became a British colony in 1854.
(iii) Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world.
(iv) The British encouraged irrigation in the first half of the nineteenth century.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in 1641.
Reason (R): After establishing a base at Batavia in 1619, they interfered in succession disputes among the neighbouring Sultans.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Money lending had been practised since time immemorial. Earlier the lenders lent at their own risk.
Reason (R): But the British enacted a law allowing them to attach land or property in default of repayment.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Colonialism in Indonesia
(a) Who had occupied Java and Sumatra?
Answer:
The Dutch had occupied Java and Sumatra.

(b) Were the Dutch interested in politics?
Answer:
No, they weren’t interested in politics.

(d) How did they improve Indonesia from the beginning of the 19th century?
Answer:
They adopted measures for the social and economic advancement of the people.

Question 2.
Indentured Labour
(a) What was the Indentured labour system?
Answer:
It was a form of debt bondage, a penal contract system.

(b) How many Indians were transported under this system?
Answer:
3.5 million Indians were transported to various British colonies to provide labour for the plantations.

(d) What was its result?
Answer:
It resulted in the development of a large Indian diaspora, which spread from the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, as well as contributing to the growth of the Indo-Caribbean and Indo-African population.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did Europe justify their colonisation?
Answer:
In world history, no continent possessed so many colonies and justified their access to the world by means of a civilising mission as did modem Europe. Practically the whole non- Westem world was under one European power or the other for about four centuries until decolonisation happened after World War II.

Question 2.
Comment on Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier.
Answer:
Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier who conquered Goa and Malacca, and his successors’ were interested in the spice trade. Towards this end, they built a chain of fortified trading stations linked by naval power. Initially, they did not interfere with the native rulers.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Malay Settlements”.
Answer:
Between 1874 and 1895 there was a civil war between the remaining five Malay States. The British intervened and signed an agreement with each of the sultans. British Residents were appointed to the courts of sultans, who had to act in accordance with the advice given by the Residents. In 1896 four of the states were formed into the Federated Malay States. In 1900 there were the Straits Settlements, the four Federated Malay States, and Johore. The population was about a million, of whom, half were Malay and the remainder were Chinese. Most of the merchants, planters, and workers in the ports and big plantations were Chinese. Economically Malaya was prosperous.

Question 4.
Give a short account of Burma.
Answer:
The British conquered Burma after fighting three wars. Burma remained part of India from 1886 to 1937. Burma was administered by a Lieutenant Governor with the assistance of a nominated Legislative Council. Burma teak was shipped overseas. In addition, Burma with its rich soil became a big exporter of rice and most of south India was dependent on Burmese rice. During World War II when Burma fell to the Japanese, south India experienced acute scarcity of rice leading to a famine.

Question 5.
Who ruled the Phillippines?
Answer:
Spain ruled the Philippines for over 300 years, imposing its language, culture, and religion. Consequently, the population became predominantly Roman Catholic. Nationalism developed among the Filipinos during the latter part of the nineteenth century. There were two serious revolts in 1872 and 1896, which were crushed by the Spanish colonial government. In 1898, however, Spain was defeated by the United States in a war over Cuba, and as a result the Philippines became an American colony.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Congo River basin?
Answer:
The Berlin Conference of 1884 – 85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa. The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo river basin was rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.

Question 7.
How did the Europeans colonise Rhodesia?
Answer:
The British South African Company founded in 1889 conducted an expedition with 600 men- each of them was promised a 3,000-acre farm. The African king was tricked into believing that all that the Europeans wanted was gold. But they had come with a definite plan of colonising the Bechuanaland. During the next ten years, African opposition was crushed. White immigrants were provided with farmlands and railways, and a telegraph system developed. The colony came to be called Rhodesia, after Cecil Rhodes.

Question 8.
How did the British emerge as a territorial power in India?
Answer:
The British conquered all the regional powers, in particular the most potential challengers, the Mysore Sultans and the Marathas, by defeating, them in three Anglo-Mysore and three Anglo- Maratha Wars. The conquest of the Gurkhas (1816), the Sindhis (1843), and the Sikhs (1849) enabled them to emerge as a territorial power in India.

Question 9.
What does Mercantilism refer to?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a number of prevailing economic theories applied by the state in its effort to attain wealth and power. Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world. Spain’s power and wealth were found in the treasure pouring into Spain from its colonies. The more colonies a country had, the richer it would be. In sum, European countries pursued Mercantilism as a kind of national economic policy designed to maximize their trade, especially to maximize the accumulation of gold and silver.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “The Indenture system”?
Answer:
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard labour.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the British colonise South Africa? Explain the Boer War.
Answer:
In South Africa, the British possessed Natal, Cape Colony, while the Dutch (locally known as the Boers) held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State. In 1886 the discovery of gold in the Transvaal led to a large number of British miners settling in and around Johannesburg. The Boers feared and hated the miners whom they called Uitlanders (foreigners). In 1890, Cecil Rhodes, the Prime Minister of Cape Colony, encouraged British expansion to the north of the Transvaal. This worsened the relations between the Boers and the British. Denied of their political rights the British miners revolted. This led to the Boer War which lasted three years (1899-1902).

In the end, the Boer army was defeated and Pretoria was occupied. The Boers suffered greatly in the war. Their farms and crops were destroyed and Boer women and children were confined to internment camps. The shortage of food, beds, medical and sanitary facilities caused the death of 26,000 people. The British annexed the two Boer states but promised self-government in due course. Boer states were given full responsible government in 1907. After discussions over the years, the four states finally decided to form a union, and South Africa as a state was bom in 1909.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Famine in British India
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild animals, the consumption was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

(b) Famine in British India.
The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million people or nearly one- third of the population in Bengal. This is how British mle commenced in India. Similarly, the British mle ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed the lives of nearly three million. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.

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