Class 9

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fluids

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The size of an air bubble rising up in water ……………. .
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) may increase or decrease
Answer:
(a) decreases

Question 2.
Clouds float in atmosphere because of their low ……………. .
(a) density
(b) pressure
(c) velocity
(d) mass
Answer:
(a) density

Question 3.
In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked faster because ……………. .
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point
(b) increased pressure raises the boiling point
(c) decreased pressure raises the boiling point
(d) increased pressure lowers the melting point
Answer:
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point

Question 4.
An empty plastic bottle closed with an airtight stopper is pushed down into a bucket filled
with water. As the bottle is pushed down, there is an increasing force on the bottom as shown in graph. This is because

(a) more volume of liquid is displaced
(b) more weight of liquid is displaced
(c) pressure increases with depth
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

II. Fill in the blanks.

1.  The weight of the body immersed in a liquid appears to be ………….. than its actual weight
2.  The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is ………………
3.  The magnitude of buoyant force acting on an object immersed in a liquid depends on the ………….. of the liquid.
4.  A drinking straw works on the existence of ………………

Answer:

1.  less
2.  barometer
3.  density
4. Pressure

III. True or False.

Question 1.
The weight of fluid displaced determines the buoyant force on an object.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The shape of an object helps to determine whether the object will float.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The foundations of high-rise buildings are kept wide so that they may exert more pressure on the ground.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Archimedes’ principle can also be applied to gases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Archimedes’ principle is about fluid displacement which does not involve gases.

Question 5.
The hydraulic press is used in the extraction of oil from oil seeds.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Density	(i) hpg
(b) 1 gwt	(ii) Milk
(c) Pascal’s law	(iii) \(\frac { Mass }{ Volume }\)
(d) Pressure exerted by a fluid	(iv) Pressure
(e) Lactometer	(v) 980 dyne

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (v)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
On what factors the pressure exerted by the liquid depends?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a liquid at a point is determined by,

•  depth (h)
•  the density of the liquid (p)
•  acceleration due to gravity (g).

Question 2.
Why does a helium balloon float in the air?
Answer:
Helium balloon floats in the air because helium gas is less dense than air.

Question 3.
Why it is easy to swim in river water than in seawater?
Answer:
Due to the presence of dissolved salts in seawater is denser than river water which makes floating easier and hence swimming is easier.

Question 4.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the weight of the atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 5.
State Pascal’s law.
Answer:
Pascal’s law states that an increase in pressure at any point inside a liquid at rest is transmitted equally and without any change, in all directions to every other point in the liquid.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
An appropriate illustration proves that the force acting on a smaller area exerts a greater pressure.
Answer:

1. Take a nail. It has two ends. One end is sharp and another end is a bulged head.
2. We usually keep the pointed end on the wall or wood and hammer on the bulged head.
3. So very small area creates a large pressure.
4. Thus the nail penetrates into the wall or wood.

Question 2.
Describe the construction and working of the mercury barometer.
Answer:

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer. A mercury barometer, first designed by an Italian Physicist Torricelli, consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury. This is done by closing the open end of the mercury-filled tube with the thumb and then opening it after immersing it in to a trough of mercury. The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside air pressure.

If the air pressure increases, it pushes more of the mercury up into the tub and if the air pressure decreases, more of the mercury drain from the tube. As there is no air trapped in the space between mercury and the closed end, there is a vacuum in that space. The vacuum cannot exert any pressure. So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure which is called atmospheric pressure. This type of instrument can be used in a lab or weather station.

Question 3.
How does an object’s density determine whether the object will sink or float in water?
Answer:

1. Whether an object sinks or floats is determined by density of the object compared with density of liquid.
2. If density of object is less than the density of the liquid, the object will float.
   (e.g) less density object, wood will float on water.
3. If density of object is more than the density of liquid, the object will sink.
   (e.g) more dense object, stoiie_sinks into water.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a hydrometer with a diagram.
Answer:

A direct-reading instrument used for measuring the density or relative density of the liquid is called hydrometer. Hydrometer is based on the principle of flotation, i.e., the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the hydrometer is equal to the weight of the hydrometer.

Hydrometer consists of a cylindrical stem having a spherical bulb at its lower end and a narrow tube at its upper end. The lower spherical bulb is partially filled with lead shots or mercury. This helps hydrometer to float or stand vertically in liquids. The narrow tube has markings so that relative density of a liquid can be read directly.

The liquid to be tested is poured into the glass jar. The hydrometer is gently lowered into the liquid until it floats freely. The reading against the level of liquid touching the tube gives the relative density of the liquid.

Question 5.
State the laws of flotation.
Answer:
Laws of flotation

• The weight of a floating body in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
• The centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy is in the same vertical line.

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c ) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): To float, body must displace liquid whose weight is equal to the actual weight.
Reason (R): The body will experience no net downward force in that case.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pascal’s law is the working principle of a hydraulic lift.
Reason (R): Pressure is thrust per unit area.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VIII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A block of wood of weight 200 g floats on the surface of water. If the volume of block is 300 cm³ calculate the upthrust due to water.
Answer:
Upthrust of floating object = weight of the water displaced
Weight = mg
= 0.200Kg × \(\frac { 10m }{ s² }\)
= 2N

Question 2.
Density of mercury is 13600 kg m^{– 3}. Calculate the relative density.
Answer:
Relative Density = \(\frac { Density of Mercury }{ Density of water }\) at 4°C
R.D. = 13.6

Question 3.
The density of water is 1 g cm^{– 3}. What is its density in S.I. units?
Answer:
S.I. unit of density of water = \(\frac { 1000kg }{ m³ }\)

Question 4.
Calculate the apparent weight of wood floating on water if it weighs 100g in air.
Answer:
Apparent weight = Weight of the body – Weight of liquid
Since the body is floating the two are equal. So, apparent weight is zero.
100 – 100 = 0

IX. HOTS

Question 1.
How high does the mercury barometer stand on a day when atmospheric pressure is 98.6 kPa?
Answer:
H= \(\frac{P_{\max }}{P_{H_{g}}}\) = 98.6 × 10 × 10 × 10
= \(\frac{(\mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m})^{2}}{13.6 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10 \mathrm{Kg} / \mathrm{m}^{3}}\)
= \(\frac { 9.8m }{ s² }\) = 740mm

Question 2.
How does a fish manage to rise up and move down in water?
Answer:
Fish has an internal swim bladder which is filled with gas. When it needs to rise or descend, it changes the volume and its density by filling this bladder with oxygen collected from the surrounding water through gills. When the bladder is filled with oxygen gas, the fish has a greater volume, with minimal increase in weight. When the bladder is expanded, it displaces more water and so experiences a greater force of buoyancy.

When the bladder is completely inflated, the fish has maximum volume and is pushed to the surface. When the bladder is completely deflated, the fish has minimum volume and sinks to the ocean floor.

Question 3.
If you put one ice cube in a glass of water and another in a glass of alcohol, what would you observe? Explain your observations.
Answer:
Ice floats in water and not in alcohol. This is because the density of ice is \(\frac { 0.917g}{ cc }\) which is lower than that of water which is 1. Whereas the density of ethanol (alcohol) is only \(\frac { 0.789g}{ cc }\) which is lesser than ice, hence it floats in alcohol.

Question 4.
Why does a boat with a hole in the bottom would eventually sink?
Answer:
A boat with a hole at the bottom allows water to enter it, thus increasing its weight and hence it sinks. As the water starts entering the boat through the hole, the boat starts to get heavier, so it starts to sink, trying to displace more water. But the water keeps coming as the hydrostatic pressure at the hole is always higher than the atmospheric pressure pushing down on the surface of the water in the boat.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Take two identical flasks and fill one flask with water to 250 cm³ mark and the other with kerosene to the same 250 cm³ mark. Measure them in a balance. The flask filled with water will be heavier than the one filled with kerosene. Why? The answer is in finding the mass per unit volume of kerosene and water in respective flasks.
Answer:

To understand density better, let us assume that the mass of the flask be 80 g. So, the mass of the flask filled with water is 330 g and the mass of the flask filled with kerosene is 280 g. Mass of water only is 250 g and kerosene only is 200 g.
Mass per unit volume of water = \(\frac { 250 }{ 250 }\) cm³
= \(\frac { 1 g }{ cm3 }\)
Mass per unit volume of kerosene = 200 g/250cm³
= \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\)
The result \(\frac { 1g }{ cm3 }\) and \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\) are the densities of water and kerosene respectively.
Therefore the density of a substance is the mass per unit volume of a given substance.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids In-Text Problems

Question 1.
A man whose mass is 90 kg stands on his feet on a floor. The total area of contact of his two feet with the floor is 0.036 m² (Take, g = 10 ms^{– 2}). How much is the pressure exerted by him on the floor?
Solution:
The weight of the man (thrust),
F = mg = 90 kg × 10 ms^{– 2} = 900 N
Pressure, P = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{900 N}{0.036 m^{2}}\) = 25000 Pa

Question 2.
Calculate the pressure exerted by a column of water of height 0.85 m (density of water, p_w = 1000 kg m^{– 3}) and kerosene of same height (density of kerosene, p_k = 800 kg m^{– 3})
Solution:
Pressure due to water = hp_wg = 0.85 m × 1000 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 8500 Pa.
Pressure due to kerosene = hp_kg = 0.85 m × 800 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 6800 Pa.

Question 3.
A mercury barometer in a physics laboratory shows a 732 mm vertical column of mercury. Calculate the atmospheric pressure in pascal.
[Given density of mercury, p = 1.36 × 10⁴kg m^{– 3}, g = 9.8 ms^{– 2}]
Solution:
Atmospheric pressure in the laboratory,
P = hpg = 732 × 10^{– 3} × 1.36 × 1o⁴ × 9.8
= 9.76 × 10⁴ Pa (or) 0.976 × 10⁵ Pa

Question 4.
A hydraulic system is used to lift a 2000 kg vehicle in an auto garage. If the vehicle sits on a piston of area 0.5 m², and a force is applied to a piston of area 0.03 m², what is the minimum force that must be applied to lift the vehicle?
Given: Area covered by the vehicle on the piston A₁ = 0.5 m²
Weight of the vehicle, F₁ = 2000 kg × 9.8 m s^{– 2}
Area on which force F₂ is applied, A₂ = 0.03 m²
Solution:
P₁ = P₂ ;\(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}=\frac{F_{2}}{A_{2}}\)and F₂ = \(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}\)A₂ ;
F₂ = (2000 × 9.8)\(\frac{0.03}{0.5}\) = 1176 N

Question 5.
You have a block of a mystery material, 12 cm long, 11 cm wide and 3.5 cm thick. Its mass is 1155 grams.
(a) What is its density?
(b) Will it float in a tank of water, or sink?
Solution:
(a) Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{12 \mathrm{cm} \times 11 \mathrm{cm} \times 3.5 \mathrm{cm}}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{462 \mathrm{cm}^{3}}\) = 2.5g cm^{– 3}
(b) The mystery material is denser than the water, so it sinks

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Additional Questions

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Give reasons why:
a. a single nail pricking the body is painful when compared to lying on a bed of nails.
b. cutting edges of knife and axes are sharpened.
c. heavy trucks are fitted with 6 to 8 wheels
Answer:
a. In a nail bed, the weight is evenly distributed among numerous nails, so that the pressure exerted by each nail is not enough to puncture a person’s skin. If its only a single nail, the entire force created by the weight of the body would be distributed over a very small area presented by the tip of one nail. In this case the force per unit area will be great and can puncture the skin.
b. Knives and axes are sharpened because when the area decreases the pressure increases. Hence a small force is enough to cut an object.
c. As area increases pressure decreases. So weight of the truck exerts less pressure on the road.

Question 2.
Define:

1. Thrust,
2. Pressure

Answer:

1. Force acting on a body perpendicular to the surface is called thrust.
2. The force per unit area acting on an object concerned is called pressure.

Question 3.
In petrol bunks, in what unit is tyre pressure measured?
Answer:
The tyre pressure is measured in units of psi. it stands for pascal per inch.

Question 4.
Stating Pascal’s law, explain its application in a hydraulic press.
Answer:

Pascal’s law states that-the external pressure applied on an incompressible liquid is transmitted uniformly throughout the liquid. Pascal’s law became the basis for one of the important machines ever developed, the hydraulic press. It consists of two cylinders of different cross-sectional areas. They are fitted with pistons of cross-sectional areas “a” and “A”. The object to be compressed is placed over the piston of large cross-sectional area A. The force Fj is applied on the piston of small cross-sectional area a.

The pressure P produced by small piston is transmitted equally to large piston and a force F₂ acts on A which is much larger than F₁ area ‘a’ is given by,
P = \(\frac { F₁}{ A₁}\) …………………….(1)
Applying Pascal’s law, the pressure on large piston of area A will be the same as that on small piston. Therefore, P = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) …………… (2)
Comparing equations (1) and (2),we get
\(\frac { F₁ }{ A₁ }\) = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) or F₂ = F₁ × \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\)
Since, the ratio \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\) is greater than 1, the force F₂ that acts on the larger piston is greater than the force F₁ acting on the smaller piston. Hydraulic systems working in this way are known as force multipliers.

Question 5.
What is Artisan aquifer?
Answer:
An artesian aquifer is a confined aquifer (underground water-bearing permeable rocks) containing groundwater that will flow upwards out of a well without the need for pumping. In recharging aquifers, this happens because the water table at its recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the head of the well.

Question 6.
What is relative density? Explain it mathematically.
Answer:
Density of any other substance with respect to the density of water at 4°C is called relative density. Mathematically,

Thus, the ratio of mass of a given volume of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water at 4°C also denotes relative density.

Question 7.
What is a lactometer? Explain its principle and working.
Answer:
One form of the hydrometer is a lactometer, an instrument used to check the purity of milk. The lactometer works on the principle of gravity of milk. The lactometer consists of a long graduated test tube with a cylindrical bulb with the graduation ranging from 15 at the top to 45 at the bottom. The test tube is filled with air. This air chamber causes the instrument to float. The spherical bulb is filled with mercury to cause the lactometer to sink up to the proper level and to float in an upright position in the milk.

Inside the lactometer, there may be a thermometer extending from the bulb up into the upper part of the test tube where the scale is located. The correct lactometer reading is obtained only at a temperature of 60°C. A lactometer measures the cream content of milk.

More the cream, the lower the lactometer floats in the milk. The average reading of normal milk is 32. The lactometers are used highly at milk processing units and at dairies.

Question 8.
Why do petroleum-based products float on the surface of the water?
Answer:
Petroleum-based products float on water because their specific gravity is low.

Question 9.
State and explain the Archimedes principle. Name the devices based on this principle.
Answer:

Archimedes’ principle is the consequence of Pascal’s law. It states that a body immersed in fluid experiences a vertical upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the liquid it displaces.

When a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid at rest, it experiences an upthrust which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it. Due to the upthrust acting on the body, it apparently loses a part of its weight and the apparent loss of weight is equal to upthrust.

Thus for a body either partially or completely immersed in a fluid,
upthrust = weight of the fluid displaced = apparent loss of body weight
The apparent weight of an object = True weight of an object in the air – upthrust (weight of water displaced)
Devices based on the Archimedes principle are – hydrometers, lactometers, balloons, boats and ships, submarines, etc.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Mapping Skills

Mapping Skills Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The new phase in topographical surveying in the 20^th century is ……
(a) toposheets
(b) aerial photography
(c) maps
(d) satellite imagery
Answer:
(d) satellite imagery

Question 2.
…… indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
(a) Title
(b) Scale
(c) Direction
(d) Legend
Answer:
(a) Title

Question 3.
Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey a definite meaning are called ………
(a) conventional signs and symbols
(b) coordinates
(c) grid references
(d) directions
Answer:
(a) conventional signs and symbols

Question 4.
Which one of the following maps show us a very large area with less details?
(a) Large scale
(b) Thematic
(c) Physical
(d) Small scale
Answer:
(d) Small scale

Question 5.
GPS consists of a constellation of ……… satellites.
(a) 7
(b) 24
(c) 3.2
(d) 64
Answer:
(b) 24

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
Reason(R): The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and Eastings respectively.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) (A) is false ; (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The legend of a map does not help us to understand the information in a map. Reason(R): It is usually placed at the left or right comer at the bottom of the map.
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the different methods to represent the Earth.
Answer:

1. A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols.
2. A map projection is a way of showing the spherical-shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
3. A map projection is a systematic transformation of the latitudes and longitudes of location from the surface of a sphere or an ellipsoid into locations on a plane.
4. A Globe is a spherical model of earth. Globe Serve similar purposes to maps but unlike maps do not disturb the surface that they portray except to scale it down. A globe of the earth is called a terrestrial globe.

Question 2.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface Clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
What are the components of a map?
Answer:
A map should include the following components namely, the title, scale, direction, grid reference, projection, legend, conventional signs, and symbols.

Question 4.
The distance between the two cities A and B is 5 km. It is represented by a line of 5 cm on the map. Calculate the distance and give the answer in RF.
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F.) = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground Given, Distance on the map = 5 cm
The distance on the ground = 5 km
∴ R.F. = 5 cm / 5 km
Converting km to cm; 5 km = 500000 cm
So R.F. is 5 : 500000
i.e. R.F. is 1 : 100000

Question 5.
Mention a few surveying instruments.
Answer:
Geographers mainly use Chain, Prismatic compass, Plane table, Dumpy level, Abney level, Clinometer, Theodolite, Total Station, and GNSS to measure the distance, angle, altitude, and position of the area of survey.

Question 6.
Define remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote Sensing refers to the observation and measurement of earthly objects without touching them. ‘Remote’ means far away and ‘Sensing’ means observing or collecting information. Remote sensing means acquiring information of things/places from a distance, using a variety of tools and methods.

Question 7.
What are the components of remote sensing?
Answer:
Components of remote sensing are

1. Energy source
2. Transmission path
3. Target
4. Sensor

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Satellite imageries stimulate map making.
Answer:

1. Satellite imagery refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites. Therefore it can be easily integrated with software for the improvement of images.
2. Satellites circle the Earth or remain geostationary and therefore, changes in weather or any other natural or man-made modifications do not affect the functioning of Satellites.

Question 2.
A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
Answer:
With maps on hand, one can see the world in one sweep. A map is worth a thousand words. Maps are introduced with its components such as scale, signs and symbols. A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
Grid references are essential to finding the exact location of places on a map.
Answer:

1. The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude.
2. The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
3. Therefore grid references are essential to finding the exact location of a place.

Question 4.
Web cartography is one of the modern mapping techniques.
Answer:
The introduction of web mapping is a major new trend in cartography. The term Web cartography is connected with the design, production, display, and use of maps over the Web. Various types of maps are present on the Web. Until recently cartography was restricted as it required relatively expensive and complex hardware and software as well as skilled cartographers and geomatics engineers.

Web-based GIS has brought many geographical datasets, including free ones generated by OpenStreetMap and proprietary datasets owned by Navteq, Google, Waze, and others. A range of free software to generate maps has also been conceived and implemented alongside proprietary tools like ArcGIS. As a result, the barrier to entry for serving maps on the web has been lowered.

VI. Distinguish Between The Following:

Question 1.
Globe and Map
Answer:

Globe	Map
It is a representation of the whole earth with the clear marking of longitude and latitude of all the places on earth.	A map illustrates the earth’s surface more clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols.

Question 2.
Large scale map and small scale map
Answer:

Large scale map	Small scale map
Large amount of detail is shown of a small area can be seen in a large-scale map.	Small amount of detail of a larger area can be seen in a small scale map.

Question 3.
Aerial photographs and satellite imageries
Answer:

Aerial photographs	Satellite imageries
It covers a small area and needs permission from the authorities.	It allows global coverage and does not require permission.
Revisits or repeatability involves extra cost.	Satellites circle the Earth; they can repeat and revisit easily.

Question 4.
GIS and GPS
Answer:

GIS	GPS
Geographic Information System is a computer-based tool for managing a large amount of data collected for a given geographic region through remote sensing, GPS and other sources.	GPS is the U.S. implementation of the world’s first and currently the most used Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) created by the U. S. Department Of Defense.
GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications and urban and regional planning.	Weather forecasting, earthquake monitoring and environmental protection can be done effectively by using GPS.

VII Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘scale of the map’? Explain its classification.
Answer:

1. Scale is one of the components of a map.
2. Scale makes it possible to reduce the size of the whole earth to show it on a piece of paper.
3. A scale is a ratio between the actual distance on the map to the actual distance on the ground.
4. Scales can be represented in three methods. They are
   • Statement
   • Representative Fraction (R.F)
   • Linear or Graphical scale methods.

(a) Statement Scale:
The statement scale describes the relationship of map distance to the ground distance in words, such as one centimetre to ten kilometres. It is expressed as 1cm = 10 km.

(b) The Representative Fraction (R.F):

1. It describes the proportion or ratio of the map distance to ground distance. It is usually abbreviated as R.F. It is stated as 1/100000 or 1:100000
2. This means that one unit on the map represents 100,000 of the same unit on the ground.
3. This unit may be an inch or a centimetre or any other linear measurement unit.
   Representative Fraction (R.F.) = \(\frac { Distance on the map }{ Distance on the Ground }\)

(c) Linear (or) Graphical scale: In geography, a linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts (Primary and secondary) to show what these markings represent on the actual ground. This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.

Question 2.
Write a note on directions with a relevant diagram.
Answer:
Direction
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrow head.

Question 3.
What are the three major functional segments of GPS? Explain about anyone.
Answer:
GPS has made a considerable impact on almost all positioning, navigation, timing and monitoring applications. It provides particularly coded satellite signals that can be processed in a GPS receiver, allowing the receiver to estimate position, velocity and time.

1. The (GPS) Global Positioning System is a U.S. owned utility that provides users with positioning, control segment and the user segment.
2. The GPS ground segment (also referred to as control segment or operational control system) is responsible for the proper operation of the GPS system.
3. The GPS control segment is composed of network of monitor stations (MS), a Master Control Systems (MCS) a backup of the MCS and Ground Antenna (GA).
4. The GPS space segment consists of a constellation of transmitting radio signal to users. The linked states is committed to maintaining the availability of atleast 24 operational GPS satellites, 95% of the times.
5. The user segment is the practice of dividing all customers into segments based on characteristics they share. For example sorting users by region, language, or behaviour.

Question 4.
Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, policymakers, or the general public. Justify.
Answer:
Bhuvan (Sanskrit for Earth) is a free internet-based computer application launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) on August 12th, 2009. It enables visualization of Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) images taken over a year ago, by ISRO’s seven satellites, including CartoSat-1 and CartoSat-2. Using Bhuvan connected to the Internet, one can explore places of interest, scenes of events in the news or parts around the world they may never visit in person, by either entering the names of places or coordinates (latitudes and longitudes). Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, academicians, policymakers, and the general public.

Advantages

• Bhuvan, due to 3D rendering, gives the impression of moving through real space through the entire globe
• Students can use Bhuvan to understand subjects ranging from Sciences to History of places.
• It provides information on natural resources and timely information on disasters.
• Administrators use it for monitoring various developmental schemes.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without satellites?
Answer:

1. Today a growing number of satellites orbit around the Earth, making various earth observation, communication, navigation, and science application possible.
2. While we may not always realize or acknowledge their existence, the important role these systems play in our daily lives cannot be underestimated.
3. As technology advances, the potential of satellites will undoubtedly continue to grow. New markets will merge along with new opportunities to push the boundaries of what space technology currently offers.
4. Likely satellites reach just about everywhere today. In certain isolated parts of our planet. Satellites provide inhabitants with access to telephone service, 4G / 5G, broadband, and work.
5. GPS helps us to travel from A to B without getting lost along the way.

Question 2.
Imagine you are a cartographer. Plan and bring out a few ideas to improve your area.
Answer:
Cartographers are trained in aerial photography and in collecting survey data for preparing maps, charts and sketches.

They work to create detailed information maps based on survey data.
Ideas to improve Chennai

1. Maintaining the ecological process in Chennai.
2. Balancing the essential infrastructures of the urban areas.
3. Improving the connectivity in and around South Chennai from the main city.
4. Improving Civic Services

Chennai Corporation is set to upgrade its Geographical Information System (GIS) services. This was used for the creation of a digital base and Utility mapping using GIS technology in 44,000 streets in Chennai.
(Students can add their own creative ideas)

IX Map skill:

A. With the help of an atlas, mark the following on the outline map of Tamil Nadu.
a. The latitude and longitude of Chennai. .
b. Mark the city located at 10° N, 78° E.
c. Locate the city approximately on 11°N and 76°E.
d. Find the latitude and longitude of Kanyakumari and mark it.

Mapping Skills Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first ancient Greek to draw a map of the Known World is ………
(a) Anaximander
(b) Gerardus Mercator
(c) Felix Nadar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Anaximander

Question 2.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the …… period.
(a) Pre-historic
(b) Medieval
(c) Vedic
(d) Modern
Answer:
(c) Vedic

Question 3.
……. is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
(a) Direction
(b) Grid Reference
(c) Projection
(d) Legend
Answer:
(c) Projection

Question 4.
……… symbols are used to indicate railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines in
mapping.
(a) Line
(b) Point
(c) Area
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Line

Question 5.
Maps produced by analysis can be used to pinpoint problem areas.
(a) GPS
(b) GIS
(c) GNSS
(d) DoD
Answer:
(b) GIS

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): A linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts to show what these markings represent on the actual ground.
Reason (R): This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Satellites do not collect large amounts of data of the entire area in a short span. Reason (R): Sensors in the satellites record the reflected and emitted radiation.
(a) A is wrong and R is correct
(b) Both A and R are hue; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are true; R explains A
Answer:
(a) A is wrong and R is correct

III. Match the following: 

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the first mapmaker.
Answer:
Anaximander was the first ancient Greek to draw a map of the known world. It is for this reason that he is considered by many to be the first mapmaker (the first cartographer).

Question 2.
Who is a Cartographer? What is Cartography?
Answer:
A cartographer is one who measures, analyzes, and interprets geographical information to create maps and charts for political, cultural, and educational purposes. The art and science of map-making are called Cartography.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘Direction’?
Answer:
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards ‘ the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrowhead.

Question 4.
What is Projection? Mention the three methods in widest use.
Answer:
A map projection is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
The three methods in widest use are as follows:

• Projection on the surface of a cylinder
• Projection on to the surface of a cone
• Projection directly onto a flat plane called planar or zenithal or azimuthal projection

Question 5.
Remote sensing can be either passive or active – Explain.
Answer:

1. Remote sensing can be either passive or active.
2. Active systems emit their own source of light energy such as RADAR.
3. Passive systems depend on sunlight as an energy source.

Question 6.
What are the types of Maps?
Answer:
(a) On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into:

• Large scale maps: A large amount of detail; can only show a small area.
• Small scale map: Small amount of detail; can show a large area.

(b) On the basis of utility and purpose, they are classified as:

• General maps / Topographic Maps (physical and political maps)
• Thematic map (spatial variations of single phenomena)
• Special purpose maps (Braille maps for blind people, maps for neo literates, military maps, navigational charts, etc).

Question 7.
What are the geo objects?
Answer:

1. Geographical objects in the real world are matched to program objects known as geo objects.
2. Geo objects include placemarks, circles, polylines, rectangles, polygons, and their collections.
3. Place markers indicate a place on a map.

V. Give reasons

Question 1.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period.
Answer:
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period. Mahabharata conceived a round world surrounded by water. Surveying and map-making were an integral part of the revenue collection procedure in the medieval period. E.g.: Sher Shah Suri’s revenue maps and Rajendra Chola’s land survey techniques.

Question 2.
Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map.
Answer:

1. A map is a global language and it needs to be drawn according to the international standards
2. Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map and explained in the legend to convey a definite meaning.

Question 3.
“GPS helps in providing accurate transport data”.
Answer:

1. GPS technology has tremendous applications in everything.
2. It helps in military searches and rescue in wars.
3. It can work as a reliable tourist guide (distance, route and direction)

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Maps and Cartography
Answer:

Maps	Cartography
Maps are drawings of an area as seen from above. Maps can show a whole or part of the world.	The art and science of map-making are called cartography.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is Satellite Remote Sensing? Explain the
(a) components of Remote Sensing
(b) process of Remote Sensing.
Answer:
Satellite remote sensing is the science of collecting data about an object or area from artificial satellites orbiting the Earth. The term ‘satellite imagery’ refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites.
Components of remote sensing

• Energy source
• Transmission path
• Target
• Sensor

Process of remote sensing

1. The EMR (Electro-Magnetic Radiation) or solar radiation is the primary source of energy for remote sensing.
2. Sunlight travels from the sun through the atmosphere, before it reaches the earth’s surface. In the atmosphere, the sun’s rays are not obstructed by any object.
3. When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, some of its energy is absorbed. While some are transmitted through the surface, the rest is reflected. Surfaces naturally emit radiation in the form of heat. The reflected energy travels from the earth’s surface back to space.
4. Sensors in the satellite record the reflected and emitted radiation. Each surface/object possesses a characteristic spectral signature, a unique pattern of reflecting sunlight.
5. The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted to a ground station where the data are processed into an image.
6. The processed image is interpreted either visually by human interpreters or by computer-aided techniques called digital image processing to identify and distinguish between the different spectral signatures to get information about objects/places.
7. Finally, we understand and apply the extracted information in mapping the area or assist in solving a particular problem.

Question 2.
Describe the
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing
(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing
(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Answer:
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing

• It is the only practical way to obtain data from inaccessible regions, e.g. Antarctica, Amazon forest.
• It helps in constructing cheap base maps in the absence of detailed land surveys.
• It detects the spread of natural calamities such as flood, forest fire and volcanic eruption, so that immediate rescue operations and planning can be carried out.

(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing

• It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
• The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one-time analysis.

(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Remote sensing technology is highly used in disaster management to study the effects of earthquakes, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption, floods and wildfires. The preliminary data is retrieved from satellites like LANDSAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT, etc. Fire and flood details can be extracted and delivered to relevant authorities within two hours of satellite image capture. E.g. major earthquakes in China and New Zealand, bushfire in Victoria and floods in Kerala. Dynamic phenomena such as floods, movement of wild animals, shoreline changes, finding lost ships and planes. Researchers use satellite imageries for these.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Textual Exercise

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) Insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for …….
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see fire break out you will make a call to ……
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:

1. Local communities are expected to provide immediate disaster response.
2. On a daily basis, our police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery.

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network Indonesia has the most earthquakes. Why?
Answer:

1. The whole of Japan is in a very active seismic area, and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
2. Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but by virtue of its larger size than Japan, it has more total earthquakes.
3. It is in extremely active seismic areas along subduction zones.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
Answer:
It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:
You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:

1. A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come in and go out.
2. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or asteroids.
3. Tsunamis can travel 700-800 per hour with waves 10-30 meters high.
4. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
If indoors-

1. DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other pieces of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
2. Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table or even under a bed.
3. Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterward it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should find out if your home, school, workplace, or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
2. Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be where tsunamis pose a risk.
3. Use a Weather Radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
4. Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should know what to do in a tsunami situation.
5. Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency.
6. Review flood safety and preparedness measures with your family.

Question 4.
What should you do if you are trapped in a car during civil unrest?
Answer:
If trapped in a car;

1. Keep abreast of the current news if you are in a volatile area.
2. If you come across a demonstration, don’t become inquisitive, just leave the area and find another route to your intended destination.
3. Avoid any place where police or security forces’ action is in progress.

Question 5.
Write three sentences about what to do during a fire.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.

HOTs

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 meters of height standing near your house?
Answer:

1. Old and overgrown branches might fall and injure people.
2. They may cause damage to electricity and telephone lines, houses, cars, and other belongings.
3. Broken branches and leaves may create gutter.
4. Large root systems can cause damage to the foundation of your house.
5. Constant shade from the Sun will cause dampness on the roof.

To prevent all these problems you should trim and prune all trees and vegetation within 3 meters height standing near your house.

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is measured using a seismograph.
(a) Earthquake
(b) heat
(c) Pressure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 2.
This country is in a very active seismic area.
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 3.
…….. tops in riot in the world.
(a) India
(b) Iraq
(c) Nigeria
(d) Syria
Answer:
(d) Syria

Question 4.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 kms per hour with waves …….. metres high.
(a) 10 – 30
(b) 10 – 40
(c) 10 – 60
(d) 10 – 50
Answer:
(a) 10 – 30

Question 5.
This is not the cause for fire.
(a) Lightning strikes
(b) Sparks during arid conditions
(c) The eruptions of volcanoes
(d) Ocean waves
Answer:
(d) Ocean waves

II. Very short answers:

Question 1.
What does Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 2.
What does Modern Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Earth Quake”.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements. It occurs along the plate boundaries. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is focus. The point on the earth’s surface above the called a focus is called an epicentre. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicentre.

Question 4.
If you are in a vehicle, what will you do during an earthquake? If in a moving vehicle
Answer:

1. Stop as quickly as safety permits. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses and utility wires.
2. Proceed cautiously once the earthquake has stopped. Avoid roads, bridges or ramps that might have been damaged by the earthquake.

Question 5.
Give an account of Tsunami?
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700 – 800 km per hour, with waves 10 – 30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

III. Short Answers:

Question 1.
What is meant by Disaster Response?
Answer:

1. Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected populations, restoration of lost livelihoods, and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged.
2. The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by the disaster (food, water, and shelter), and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
What to do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 3.
What to do if you are caught in a riot?
Answer:

1. If you find yourself caught up in a demonstration, keep to the edge of the crowd where it is safer. At the first opportunity, break away and seek refuge in a nearby building or find a suitable doorway or alley and stay there until the crowd passes.
2. When leaving the fringe of the demonstration, just walk away – don’t run as this will draw attention to you.
3. In the event that you are arrested by the police/military, do not resist. Go along peacefully and contact your law advisor to help you resolve your predicament.
4. If you are caught up in the crowd, stay clear of glass shop fronts, moreover, move with the flow.
5. If shooting breaks out, drop to the ground and cover your head and neck, and lie as flat as you can.

Question 4.
Mention the causes for lire? What are the problems caused by fire?
Answer:

1. Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods.
2. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush, and deserts, and with sufficient wind can rapidly spread.
3. Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges, and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products, and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.
4. The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, the eruption of volcanoes, and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.
5. A side-effect of wildfires that also threatens inhabited areas is smoke.
6. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

IV. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Disaster Management cycle with Diagram.
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery. Disaster management involves all levels of government. Non-governmental and community based organizations play a vital role in the process.

Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields. Crisis management is important, but is only a part of the responsibility of a disaster manager.

The traditional approach to disaster management has a number of phased sequences of action or a continuum. These can be represented as a disaster management cycle. We mainly focus on the way how the community should respond to disasters.

Question 2.
Explain “Fire”.
Answer:
Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with blowing wind, can spread rapidly.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.

The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, eruption of volcanoes and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.

A side-effect of wildfires which also threatens inhabited areas is smoke. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

On average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. was brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
Answer:
(c) Penang island

Question 2.
In 1896 ………….. states were formed into the Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 3.
…………… was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French Control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
Answer:
(d) Cochin-China

Question 4.
The Discovery of gold in the ………….. led to a large number of British miners settled in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
Answer:
(a) Transvaal

Question 5.
…………… became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 6.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………………
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey
(c) Tonking
(d) Transvaal
Answer:
(a) Adowa

Question 7.
Indentured labour system was a form of …………….
(a) contract labour system
(b) slavery
(c) debt bondage
(d) serfdom
Answer:
(c) debt bondage

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European Powers.
2. Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………….. in 1896.
3. The settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is ……………
4. ………….. was the author of a book called “Notebook from Prison”.
5. ………… were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.

Answers:

1. Berlin Colonial
2. Adowa
3. The Permanent Settlement
4. Antonio Gramsci
5. Nattukottai Chettiyars

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of the Sahara was unknown to the world.
(ii) The coastal states of the Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
(iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
(iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odhisha.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
(ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
(iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
(iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of influence.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (i) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): (A) In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez-Faire in the trade of food- grains.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading

Question 1.
Colonialism in India
(i) When did the East India Company acquire the Diwani Right?
Answer:
The Company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.

(ii) When were the Gurkhas conquered by the British?
Answer:
The British conquered the Gurkhas in 1816.

(iii) When was slavery abolished in British India?
Answer:
Slavery was abolished in India in 1843.

(iv) When did Burma become a part of the Madras Presidency?
Answer:
There was British rule in Burma from 1824 to 1948.

Question 2.
South Africa
(i) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
Answer:
The British possessed Natal, Cape Colony of South Africa.

(ii) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
Answer:
The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State.

(iii) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape colony?
Answer:
Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony..

(iv) How long did Boer Wars last?
Answer:
Boer War lasted for three years from 1899 to 1902.

VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Distinguish between Colonialism and Imperialism.
Answer:

Colonialism	Imperialism
Colonialism is a process of domination, involving the subjugation of one people by another.	Imperialism, on the other hand, draws attention to the way one country exercises power over another, whether through settlement, sovereignty, or indirect mechanisms of control.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Zulu tribe.
Answer:

1. The Zulu tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, represented by renowned warriors like Shaka Zulu.
2. He played a prominent role in building the largest Zulu nation is south-eastern Africa.
3. British troops invaded Zulu territory and divided it into thirteen chiefdoms.
4. The Zulus never regained their independence and had to fight against deeply entrenched racism in South Africa for about a century.

Question 3.
State the three phases in the colonialisation of the Indian economy.
Answer:
The process of the colonialisation of India can be divided into three phases:

• Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism
• Phase II Industrial Capitalism
• Phase III Financial Capitalism

Question 4.
Colonel Pennycuiek.
Answer:

1. Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council.
2. He wanted to irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.
3. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, he sold his family property and completed the project in 1895.
4. Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

Question 5.
Explain Home Charges.
Answer:
The East India Company remitted to England what was called Home Charges – the dividends on East India’s stock, interest on the debt, savings from salaries and the pensions of officers and establishments and buildings in the India Office, London, transporting cost of British troops to and from India.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the economic impact of British Rule in India.
Answer:
There are three phases under the colonisation of the Indian Economy.
a. Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism

1. Before it gained dominion in India, the East India Company carried on a very profitable business selling Indian – made cotton textiles and silks and printed cloth.
2. It was during this period that the textile lobby in Lancashire and Birmingham succeeded in making the Parliament enact a law prohibiting the import of Indian textiles.
3. Those who were found in possession of or dealing in Indian cotton goods were fined 200 pounds.
4. The company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.
5. East India Company crushed every industry which came in conflict with British industry. The shipbuilding industry collapsed the manufacture of paper and glass dwindled.
6. India which had become the ‘Lancashire of the Eastern World’ began to lose its Position.

b. Phase II Industrial Capitalism

1. By the beginning of the nineteenth century, the Company had emerged as a territorial power.
2. During this period India was converted into a market for British textiles and a great source of raw materials.
3. Home charges were special types of contribution which were used by the British government for meeting various types of expenses for maintenance of the colony.
4. These consist of payments of pensions and salaries of British people staying in India and industries earned on the external debt of India.
5. Surphases from the trade were used for making these payments.

c. Phase III Financial Capitalism

1. The company government decided to make a massive investment in railroads, the postal system, irrigation, modem banking, and education with its surplus capital.
2. All these investments were made for the benefit of the British. The railways helped to move British troops quickly across the country as well as enabled the conquest of the Indian market to the maximum extent.
3. The Company, supported by the English Parliament, encouraged British investment in railways with a guaranteed annual interest of 5 percent.
4. Mining companies were given nominal fees and low royalties.
5. Land for the cultivation of coffee, tea, pepper, and rubber was given at a throwaway price.
6. Removing slavery in 1843, introduced indentured labour.

Question 2.
Explain the process of colonisation in Africa.
Answer:
Until the last quarter of the nineteenth century, Africa south of the Sahara (Sub- Saharan Africa) was almost unknown to the outside world. The interior of Africa was unexplored. After 1875, European penetration and colonisation began on a large scale. The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European powers. European colonisation of Africa was thus accomplished smoothly, without any outbreak of war amongst major European powers. The invasion, occupation, colonisation, and annexation of African territories by European powers between 1881 and 1914, the era of Imperialism, is called the Scramble for Africa or the Partition of Africa.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare an album with pictures and images of famines that affected different parts of India during the British colonial rule.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using the internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Attempt an account of the cultural relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Answer:

1. Southeast Asia was under Indian influence starting around 200 BC.
2. Kingdoms on the southeast coast of the Indian subcontinent had established trade, cultural and political relations with southeast Asian Kingdoms in Burma, Thailand, Indonesia, Malay Peninsula Cambodia, and Vietnam.
3. Southern Indian traders, adventures, teachers, and priests continued to be the dominating influence in Southeast Asia until about 1500 C E.
4. The Government of India’s Act East Policy aims at improving economic and political relations with the Southeast Asian region.
5. India has been able to make inroads in trade and investments with members of the ASEAN by signing a Free Trade Agreement in 2009.
6. In Cambodia, Thailand, and Indonesia or Burma today many symbolic remnants of India’s influence are clearly visible in their art, culture, and civilization.
7. The eleven countries of ASEAN are Myanmar, Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, Indonesia, Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos, Brunei, the Philippines, and recently added Timor hosted.
8. Temples of Angkor wat, Pagn and Prambanan bear evidence of the deep penesation of Indian art and architectural forms in their famous Southeast Asian movements.
9. Folklore singers and aristes played a very important role in popularising and modifying Indian library work in Southeast Asia.
10. Similarly, sculptors and artists copied and combined original Indian profits with local artistic motifs to arrive at something distinctively Southeast Asian.
11. The influence of India can also be felt in the food and flavours of Southeast Asia.

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the merits and demerits of the British rule in India.
Answer:
a. Merits

1. In the cause of humanity – abolition of suti and female infanticide.
2. Removal of things Pindaris and other such pests of the Indian Society.
3. In the cause of civilisation educate to both male and female, leading gradually to the distinction of superstition.
4. Politically peace and order established. Freedom of speech and liberty of the press was enjoyed.
5. Improvement of government in the native states. Security of life and property.
6. Materially Development of a’ few valuable products such as indigo, tea, coffee, silk, etc., Increase of exports, Telegraphs.

b. Demerits

1. Repeated breach of pledges to give the natives a fair and reasonable share in the higher administration of their own country.
2. Natives of India were not treated as British subjects.
3. The British disregarded the feelings and views of the natives.
4. All attention was engrossed in devising new modes of taxation without any adequate effort to increase the means of the people to pay.

c. Sentance

1. To sump up the whole, the British rule has been morally a great blessing, politically peace and order on one hand, blunders on the other, materially impoverishment.
2. Social reforms, Education Reforms, Employment schemes, Irrigation schemes, Infrastructure development, monuments, legal tenders, heritage site all these gifts from the British Raj.
3. Divide and rule policy, loss of lives, exploitation of resources implement of Tax structure all them affected the Indian society.

Question 2.
Explore the impact of colonialism in British Burma.
Answer:
British rule in Burma, also known as British Burma lasted from 1824 to 1948 from the Anglo Burmese wars through the creation of Burma as the province of British India to the establishment of an independently administered colony and finally independence.

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term colony comes from the ………….. word colonus, meaning farmer.
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 2.
Rudyard Kipling was a _________
(a) Ruler
(b) Colonist
(c) Writer
(d) Soldier
Answer:
(c) writer

Question 3.
The Portuguese conquered the great international emporium of …………. for the king of Portugal.
(a) Dutch East Indies
(b) French Indo-China
(c) Malacca
(d) Philippines
Answer:
(c) Malacca

Question 4.
The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in …………….
(a) 1941
(b) 1641
(c) 1741
(d) 1841
Answer:
(b) 1641

Question 5.
Albuquerque belonged to _________
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Italy
(d) England
Answer:
(b) Portugal

Question 6.
The …………… had occupied Java and Sumatra (Indonesia) as early as 1640.
(a) The Dutch
(b) The English
(c) The French
(d) The Spanish
Answer:
(a) The Dutch

Question 7.
During World War II …………….. fell to the Japanese.
(a) Malaya
(b) Thailand
(c) Burma
(d) the Philippines
Answer:
(c) Burma

Question 8.
Burma was well known for its _________
(a) Teak and Rice
(b) Silk and Muslin
(c) Gold and Silver
(d) Chemicals
Answer:
(a) Teak and Rice

Question 9.
This country in Africa managed to evade European Colonialism ……………
(a) Nigeria
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Uganda
(d) Kenya.
Answer:
(b) Ethiopia

Question 10.
The Mullai Periyar Dam Construction was completed in 1895 by an army Engineer and civil servant …………..
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Arthur Cotton
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Governor-General Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The term “South East Asia” has only been used since the …………
2. By 1826 …………… and had been linked with Penang to form the Strait Settlements.
3. ………….. was the capital of Indo-China under the French Government.
4. Spain ruled the Philippines for over ……………. years.
5. Most Indonesians were ………….. and …………… and worked in plantations.
6. In 1890 ………… the Prime Minister of Cape Colony encouraged British expansion to the North of the Transvaal.
7. The ………….. tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, in South-eastern Africa.
8. ……………. was used for slave trading posts on the coast.
9. Ethiopia, with its traditional polity, was ruled by the ……………..
10. The Portuguese Sailor …………… arrived in Calicut in 1498.

Answers:

1. Second World War
2. Singapore, Malacca
3. Hanoi
4. 300
5. Fishermen, Peasants
6. Cecil Rhodes
7. Zulu
8. Nigeria
9. Emperor Menelik
10. Vasco da Gama

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) When European traders crossed the Indian Ocean at the close of the 15th century, they came for the spices of south-east Asia.
(ii) Penang Island had been brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(iii) The Dutch were interested in politics but focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.
(iv) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 200 years.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The interior of Africa was unexplored.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold coast became a British colony in 1854.
(iii) Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world.
(iv) The British encouraged irrigation in the first half of the nineteenth century.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in 1641.
Reason (R): After establishing a base at Batavia in 1619, they interfered in succession disputes among the neighbouring Sultans.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Money lending had been practised since time immemorial. Earlier the lenders lent at their own risk.
Reason (R): But the British enacted a law allowing them to attach land or property in default of repayment.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Colonialism in Indonesia
(a) Who had occupied Java and Sumatra?
Answer:
The Dutch had occupied Java and Sumatra.

(b) Were the Dutch interested in politics?
Answer:
No, they weren’t interested in politics.

(c) What was the focus of the Dutch on Indonesia?
Answer:
They focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.

(d) How did they improve Indonesia from the beginning of the 19th century?
Answer:
They adopted measures for the social and economic advancement of the people.

Question 2.
Indentured Labour
(a) What was the Indentured labour system?
Answer:
It was a form of debt bondage, a penal contract system.

(b) How many Indians were transported under this system?
Answer:
3.5 million Indians were transported to various British colonies to provide labour for the plantations.

(c) In which year was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1843.

(d) What was its result?
Answer:
It resulted in the development of a large Indian diaspora, which spread from the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, as well as contributing to the growth of the Indo-Caribbean and Indo-African population.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did Europe justify their colonisation?
Answer:
In world history, no continent possessed so many colonies and justified their access to the world by means of a civilising mission as did modem Europe. Practically the whole non- Westem world was under one European power or the other for about four centuries until decolonisation happened after World War II.

Question 2.
Comment on Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier.
Answer:
Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier who conquered Goa and Malacca, and his successors’ were interested in the spice trade. Towards this end, they built a chain of fortified trading stations linked by naval power. Initially, they did not interfere with the native rulers.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Malay Settlements”.
Answer:
Between 1874 and 1895 there was a civil war between the remaining five Malay States. The British intervened and signed an agreement with each of the sultans. British Residents were appointed to the courts of sultans, who had to act in accordance with the advice given by the Residents. In 1896 four of the states were formed into the Federated Malay States. In 1900 there were the Straits Settlements, the four Federated Malay States, and Johore. The population was about a million, of whom, half were Malay and the remainder were Chinese. Most of the merchants, planters, and workers in the ports and big plantations were Chinese. Economically Malaya was prosperous.

Question 4.
Give a short account of Burma.
Answer:
The British conquered Burma after fighting three wars. Burma remained part of India from 1886 to 1937. Burma was administered by a Lieutenant Governor with the assistance of a nominated Legislative Council. Burma teak was shipped overseas. In addition, Burma with its rich soil became a big exporter of rice and most of south India was dependent on Burmese rice. During World War II when Burma fell to the Japanese, south India experienced acute scarcity of rice leading to a famine.

Question 5.
Who ruled the Phillippines?
Answer:
Spain ruled the Philippines for over 300 years, imposing its language, culture, and religion. Consequently, the population became predominantly Roman Catholic. Nationalism developed among the Filipinos during the latter part of the nineteenth century. There were two serious revolts in 1872 and 1896, which were crushed by the Spanish colonial government. In 1898, however, Spain was defeated by the United States in a war over Cuba, and as a result the Philippines became an American colony.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Congo River basin?
Answer:
The Berlin Conference of 1884 – 85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa. The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo river basin was rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.

Question 7.
How did the Europeans colonise Rhodesia?
Answer:
The British South African Company founded in 1889 conducted an expedition with 600 men- each of them was promised a 3,000-acre farm. The African king was tricked into believing that all that the Europeans wanted was gold. But they had come with a definite plan of colonising the Bechuanaland. During the next ten years, African opposition was crushed. White immigrants were provided with farmlands and railways, and a telegraph system developed. The colony came to be called Rhodesia, after Cecil Rhodes.

Question 8.
How did the British emerge as a territorial power in India?
Answer:
The British conquered all the regional powers, in particular the most potential challengers, the Mysore Sultans and the Marathas, by defeating, them in three Anglo-Mysore and three Anglo- Maratha Wars. The conquest of the Gurkhas (1816), the Sindhis (1843), and the Sikhs (1849) enabled them to emerge as a territorial power in India.

Question 9.
What does Mercantilism refer to?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a number of prevailing economic theories applied by the state in its effort to attain wealth and power. Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world. Spain’s power and wealth were found in the treasure pouring into Spain from its colonies. The more colonies a country had, the richer it would be. In sum, European countries pursued Mercantilism as a kind of national economic policy designed to maximize their trade, especially to maximize the accumulation of gold and silver.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “The Indenture system”?
Answer:
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard labour.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the British colonise South Africa? Explain the Boer War.
Answer:
In South Africa, the British possessed Natal, Cape Colony, while the Dutch (locally known as the Boers) held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State. In 1886 the discovery of gold in the Transvaal led to a large number of British miners settling in and around Johannesburg. The Boers feared and hated the miners whom they called Uitlanders (foreigners). In 1890, Cecil Rhodes, the Prime Minister of Cape Colony, encouraged British expansion to the north of the Transvaal. This worsened the relations between the Boers and the British. Denied of their political rights the British miners revolted. This led to the Boer War which lasted three years (1899-1902).

In the end, the Boer army was defeated and Pretoria was occupied. The Boers suffered greatly in the war. Their farms and crops were destroyed and Boer women and children were confined to internment camps. The shortage of food, beds, medical and sanitary facilities caused the death of 26,000 people. The British annexed the two Boer states but promised self-government in due course. Boer states were given full responsible government in 1907. After discussions over the years, the four states finally decided to form a union, and South Africa as a state was bom in 1909.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Famine in British India
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
Colonel Pennycuick was an Army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild animals, the consumption was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga, and Ramanathapuram districts.

(b) Famine in British India.
The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million people or nearly one- third of the population in Bengal. This is how British mle commenced in India. Similarly, the British mle ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed the lives of nearly three million. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Road Safety

Road Safety In-Text Exercise

I. Look at the diagram given and answer the following.

Question 1.
Which road use category causes the highest number of deaths? Could you give any three possible reasons? What would you suggest as the related safety rules?
Answer:

1. Two-wheelers, Cars, Taxis, Vans & LMV’s and Trucks.
2. Carelessness, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side.
3. Insufficient headlights.

Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure

Question 2.
How could pedestrians save themselves from road accidents?
Answer:

1. Never use cell phones while crossing the roads.
2. Follow the road rules.
3. See both sides while crossing.
4. Never take short cuts.
5. Avoid distractions.

II. Look at the diagram carefully and answer the following.

Source: WHO Global Burden of Disease Project, Version 1 (2002)

Question 1.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide? Why?
Answer:
Age group 15-29 tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide. This is due to carelessly projecting their body parts outside vehicles, traveling on footboards, and catching a running bus or train.

Question 2.
Give some inference on the striking difference between the number of road accident deaths of males and females.
Answer:

1. The number of road accident deaths of females are less compared to males.
2. The reasons are: they follow road rules, they are cautious and responsible.

Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is the main cause of death inroads.
(a) Drink and drive
(b) Use of helmet
(c) Vehicle design
(d) Road conditions
Answer:
(a) Drink and drive

Question 2.
Every minute a child is killed in an accident worldwide.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 3.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide?
(a) 60+
(b) 15 – 29
(c) 30 – 44
(d) 45 – 59
Answer:
(b) 15 – 29

Question 4.
Road accidents are the leading cause of
(a) sales of the helmet
(b) increased traffic signals
(c) more number of speed breakers
(d) death by injury
Answer:
(d) death by injury

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Each year an estimate of ……. million people are killed in road crashes.
2. ……. in the pedestrians contribute to road accidents.
3. …… and ……. are excluded from road accidents.
4. India has the worst road accident rate worldwide with ……. deaths annually.

Answers:

1. 1.2
2. Carelessness
3. Internationa acts, natural disasters
4. 1,30,000

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write short notes on ‘road accidents’.
Answer:
Road accident refers to any accident involving at least a vehicle, occurring on a road open to public transport, and in which at least one person is injured or killed. Intentional acts (murder, suicide) and natural disasters are excluded from road accidents.

Road accidents are the leading cause of death by injury and the tenth leading cause of all deaths globally. An estimated 1.2 million people are killed in road crashes each year, and as many as 50 million people are injured.

Question 2.
Mention the different factors that contribute to road accidents.
Answer:
Drivers: Over-speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol

Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, travelling on footboards, catching a running bus, etc.

Vehicles: Failure of brakes or steering, tyre burst, insufficient headlights, overloading Road Conditions: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways, and illegal speed breakers.

Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 3.
Which are the top 10 cities of India contributing to maximum road accidents?
Answer:
The top ten cities are Chennai, Delhi, Bangaluru, Indore, Kolkata, Bhopal, Mumbai, Jabalpur, Jaipur, and Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design,
   • Road infrastructure

Question 5.
State the rules to ensure safety for children.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic road safety rules for children:

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run On Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never Cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Question 6.
What are the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
Direct Consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Industrial Revolution

Industrial Revolution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who established the first steamboat service?
(a) Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(c) Robert Fulton

Question 2.
Why was Manchester considered ideal for textile production?
(a) availability of land
(b) rich human resources
(c) better living condition
(d) cool climate
Answer:
(d) cool climate

Question 3.
Who invented the sewing machine?
(a) Elias Howe
(b) Eli-Whitney
(c) Samuel Crompton
(d) Humphrey Davy
Answer:
(a) Elias Howe

Question 4.
Which family introduced steam engine in France?
(a) de Wendel
(b) de Hindal
(c) de Arman
(d) de Renault
Answer:
(a) de Wendel

Question 5.
Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial Revolution? .
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(b) Andrew Jackson

Question 6.
Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day
(c) Labour Day
(d) Martyrs Day
Answer:
(c) Labour Day

Question 7.
Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Germany

Question 8.
Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
(a) Louis Renault
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison
(d) McAdam
Answer:
(b) Armand Peugeot

Question 9.
What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
(a) Rolling Mill
(b) Cotton Gin
(c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
Answer:
(b) Cotton Gin

Question 10.
Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
(a) Coke
(b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
(d) Paper
Answer:
(b) Charcoal

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… called for voting rights to men in England.
2. ………….. changed the way roads were built around the world.
3. …………. discovered a faster and cheaper method of production of steel.
4. ……….. advocated scientific socialism.
5. The first railroad line started in Germany was in the year ………….

Answers:

1. The Chartist
2. John Loudon McAdam
3. Henry Bessemer
4. Karl Marx
5. 1835

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) British mine owners were faced with the problem of water seeping into their minds
(ii) Employing human labour was cheap for this work
(iii) Newton invented a steam engine to pump water out of mines
(iv) Water had to be removed to get coal in mines
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Trade Unions were formed by labourers to get their rights
(ii) Germany’s political setup was the most significant challenge for the industrial revolution
(iii) To protect capitalists Karl Marx advocated socialism
(iv) There were no natural resources in Germany.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Workers had the rights to get holidays.
Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) Both A & R are wrong

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Slater was called the Father of the American Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R): His spinning textile mill was duplicated and his techniques became popular.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both. A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Labour Movement
(a) Which Act prohibited the formation of associations of workers?
Answer:
Combination Laws of 1799 prohibited the formation of associations of workers.

(b) Name the Bill which granted voting rights to the propertied middle class?
Answer:
The Reform Bill of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.

(c) When were the Combination Laws repealed?
Answer:
The Combination Laws were repealed in 1824.

(d) What were the demands of the Chartists?
Answer:
The Chartists called for voting rights to every man over twenty-one years of age, secret ballot (voting), abolition of property qualification for members of the parliament, annual parliamentary elections and equal representation.

Question 2.
Transportation and Communication
(a) Which was the first railway line opened in England?
Answer:
The first railway line in England was opened between Stockton and Darlington in 1825.

(b) How were the produced goods transported to markets?
Answer:
The goods were transported through new networks of canals, roads and railroads.

(c) How was the steamboat invented in the US called?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807.

(d) Who sailed from New York to Albany?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807 that sailed from New York to Albany.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What was the condition of laborers houses during the Industrial Revolution?
Answer:

1. The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class.
2. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to.
3. It led to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

Question 2.
Account for urbanisation in England.
Answer:
With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world. This resulted in the flow of population from villages to industrial towns. Population growth, migration and urbanisation were the major social changes taking place during this period. In pre-industrial society, over 80% of people lived in rural areas. As the migration from the countryside began to intensify, small towns became large cities. The city of London grew from a population of two million in 1840 to five million in forty years. –

Question 3.
Attempt a note on Haymarket Massacre.
Answer:

1. A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago.
2. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police.
3. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair, 1 May 1887 is observed as Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

Question 4.
What do you know of Louis Renault?
Answer:
In 1898, Louis Renault built the quadricycle, from which he began to produce in large quantities under his company, the Societe Renault Freres (Company Renault Brothers).

Question 5.
Highlight any two important results of the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Industrial Revolution increased the applications of science to industry.
2. The use of new technology came into practice.
3. Developed transportation and communication.
4. Introduced the use of new basic materials: Iron and Steel.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the causes for the Second Industrialization in the USA.
Answer:

1. A shift from manual labour-based to more technical and machine-based manufacturing industry marked the Industrial Revolution in the United States.
2. Samuel Slater, a citizen of England, was a well-experienced person to operate a mill.
3. On learning that Americans were interested in the new techniques, Slater departed for New York in 1789 illegally.
4. He offered his services to Moses Brown, a leading Rhode Island industrialist.
5. The mill became operational in 1793, being the first water-powered roller spinning textile mill in America.
6. By 1800, Slater’s mill had been duplicated by many other entrepreneurs.
7. Andrew Jackson, U.S. President hailed Slater as “Father of the American Industrial Revolution.”
8. The United States in the nineteenth century began to show technological innovation.
9. After the Civil War, industrialization went on at a frantic pace.
10. The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of the transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.

Question 2.
What were the effects of the Industrial Revolution of England on India?
Answer:
Until the middle of the eighteenth century, England was an agricultural country, and India was known for its excellence in manufactures as well as in agriculture. In the first quarter of the eighteenth century, in the context of Indian cotton manufactures flooding in England, a law was enacted prohibiting the use of Indian calicoes and silks. The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. When the British established their foothold in Bengal as a territorial power, the look from Bengal and the Carnatic provided the required capital, and helped accomplish Industrial Revolution in England.

The weavers of Bengal suffered at the hands of the Company’s officials and their agents, who first insisted on payment of a transit duty for the commodities they carried from one place to another and later for cultivation of commercial crops required for British industries in England. The English deliberately destroyed Indian industry by dumping the Indian markets with their machine- made cheap cotton piece goods. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material.

By the first quarter of nineteenth century the export of Dacca muslin to England stopped. Even the export of raw cotton from India had steadily dwindled owing to the competition from -USA. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

The Collector of Madurai reported that families of about 5000 weavers did not have the means to take more than one meal of fice a day. The Collector of Tirunelveli observed that the weaving population has ‘outrun its means of. subsistence and trammels of caste prevent them from taking to other work.’ Millions died of starvation in famines. To escape starvation deaths, peasants and artisans had to move out of the country opting to working on plantations in British Empire colonies as indentured (penal contract) labourers under wretched service and living conditions.

VIII. Activity 

Question 1.
Organize a debate on the positive and negative aspects of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Points for debate Positive Aspects:

1. It provides more job opportunities
2. More quicker and efficient production
3. Cheaper prices
4. Spectacular motivation
5. Improved quality of life
6. Urbanization

Negative Aspects:

1. Pollution
2. Unsafe
3. Dirty
4. Long working hours
5. Reduced life expectancy
6. Overpopulated cities.

Question 2.
Prepare a list of fabrics and designs and the places of production in India.
Answer:
Some of the many types of cotton fabrics are:
Broad cloth: A tightly woven lustrous cotton cloth with fine embedded cresswise ribs.
Canvas: Rugged, woven cloth made with coarse yam.
Chenille: A fuzzy cotton yam of fabric that has pile protruding around its weave, named after the French word for caterpillar.
Common types of fabric:
Silk, Cotton, Linen, Wool, Leather, Jute, Georgette, Chiffon, etc.
Top 10 textile companies in India:

1. Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Company Ltd. (Wadala)
2. Bombay Rayon Fashion Ltd.
3. Fab India Overseas Pvt. Ltd.
4. Grasim Industries Ltd.
5. JCT Ltd.
6. Karnataka Silk Industries
7. Raymond Ltd.
8. The Lakshmi Mills Company Ltd.
9. Vardhman Textiles
10. Arvind Mills

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of the inventions made at the time of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Write an assignment on the modern plastic road being made by used plastics.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.
Hint- The common plastics used are:
(i) polyethylene, terephthalate
(ii) polyvinyl chloride
(iii) high and low density polyethylene

Industrial Revolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What were the new basic materials used?
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(a) Iron and Steel

Question 2.
Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) England

Question 3.
Who invented the flying shuttle?
(a) John Kay
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) James Watt
(d) Richard Arkwright
Answer:
(a) John Kay

Question 4.
Who discovered a faster and cheaper method of producing Steel?
(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) John Kay
(c) Eli Whitney
(d) Henry Bessemer
Answer:
(d) Henry Bessemer

Question 5.
Who improved the Railway transport system in the country?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Sir Humphrey Davy
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(b) George Stephenson

Question 6.
Whose road pattern came to be adopted world over?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Henry Bessemer
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(a) John Loudon McAdam

Question 7.
Who became the workshop of the world?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) England

Question 8.
The textile capital of the world is …………….
(a) Liverpool
(b) Lancashire
(c) Manchester
(d) London
Answer:
(c) Manchester

Question 9.
Which town brought British technology of refining cast iron?
(a) Mulhouse
(b) Saint-Chamond
(c) Lorraine
(d) Paris
Answer:
(a) Mulhouse

Question 10.
Who invented the sewing machine? .
(a) Samuel F.B. Morse
(b) Thomas Alva Edison
(c) Elias Howe
(d) Alexander Graham Bell
Answer:
(c) Elias Howe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ………….. manufacture was at the heart of the Industrial Revolution.
2. Iron and steel helped quicken the process of ……………
3. ……………. road came to be adpoted world over.
4. The first railway line in England was opened between ……………. and …………… in 1825,
5. The Industrial Revolution helped create opportunities for ……………. for all members of the family.
6. ……………. was very poor in early industrial factories and mines.
7. The …………. of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.
8. …………. had the natural resources required for an industrial revolution.
9. …………. merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust.
10. To commemorate the Hay Market Massacre …………….. is observed as labour day.
Answers:
1. Textile
2. Industrialization
3. Macadamised
4. Stockton and Darlington
5. employment
6. Safety
7. Reform Bill
8. Germany
9. John D. Rockfeller
10. 1^st May

III. (a) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

(b) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Society transformed from an agrarian economy to machine-production.
(ii) Industrial Revolution started first in England and spread to other parts of the world.
(iii) The term Industrial Revolution was popularized by the French economic historians.
(iv) There is no impact on Society and Politics by Industrial Revolution.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) By the first quarter of 19^th century the export of Dacca muslin to England was encouraged.
(ii) India became an exporter of raw materials.
(iii) British factory-made cheap Cotton fabrics in Indian markets.
(iv) The English deliberately destroyed the Indian Industry.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world.
Reason (R): There was however a general decline in agriculture.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.
Reason (R): Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there as did millions of immigrants from Europe.
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Invention of Steam Power
(а) What problems did the mine owners face?
Answer:
In the 18^th century the British mine owners faced with the problem of water seeping into the mines.

(b) What did they do?
Answer:
They employed labourers to pump the water out.

(c) What did the British Engineer do at this juncture?
Answer:
The British Engineer Thomas Newcomen invented a contrive to pump the water out of mines.

(d) Was it successful?
Answer:
No, it consumed too much fuel.

Question 2.
Impact of Industrial Revolution on Labour Class
(a) What was the result of Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
It resulted in increased air and water pollution.

(b) How did it help the people?
Answer:
It helped the people by creating opportunities of employment for all the members of the family.

(c) Was there safety in the mines?
Answer:
No, safety was very poor.

(d) How was the living condition for the labour class?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
In the latter half of the 18th Century major changes occurred in the method of production that changed the history of humankind. This profound transformation is described as the Industrial Revolution. Goods began to be produced not by hand but by machines. This increased the volume of goods produced exponentially.

Question 2.
Mention any three attributes of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Use of new basic material: iron and steel.
2. Use of new energy sources: coal, electricity, petroleum.
3. Development in transportation and communication.

Question 3.
Why did Industrial Revolution begin in England first? Give three reasons.
Answer:

1. England had abundant resources and possessed colonies, with India being “the brightest jewel in the British Crown”.
2. Access to coal, iron and raw cotton from the colonies.
3. England possessed the required infrastructure for textiles, developed by immigrant artisans from the Netherlands. ‘

Question 4.
How was Iron produced in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days iron ore was smelted in brick furnaces. Charcoal was used as fuel. The iron produced was not sturdy and strong. It had to be smelted again. Finally, coke (produced from coal) was used to produce iron. But this was a costly method.

Question 5.
How was the death of the miners reduced?
Answer:
As miners used oil lamps in the mines the risk of explosion was high leading to the death of miners. This was reduced by the invention of a safety lamp by Sir Humphrey Davy in 1815.

Question 6.
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. Comment.
Answer:
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. As production increased raw materials had to be brought from afar to the factories. After the goods were produced they had to be transported to the markets. As a result new networks of canals, roads and railroads were built. Macadamised roads and George Stephenson’s steam locomotive helped to improve road and railway transport system in the country.

Question 7.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution in England in general?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution led to the expansion of trade, the production of more food, emergence of factory workers as a new class. The rise and growth of cities resulting in rapid urbanisation and organised workingclass movements, seeking voting rights and regulation of their service conditions brought about a new dynamics in politics.

Question 8.
Mention the socio-economic consequences of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
While the peasants were pauperized and the working class suffered, the middle class became wealthy by investing capital in trade and industry. The governments of the day were influenced by them. All legislations safeguarded their interests. Labourers were not permitted to form trade unions. It was under these circumstances that Socialism as a new ideology was bom in Europe Karl Marx advocated scientific socialism for the protection of the working class from the exploitative policies of the capitalist class. By the latter half of the nineteenth century there were strong working class movements all over western. Europe which demanded economic as well as political rights.

Question 9.
Give an account of the entry of Industrial Revolution in France.
Answer:
France did not possess as much natural resources as England. The political instability caused by the French Revolution and the prolonged Napoleonic Wars wrecked the country. Many of those French businessmen who had sought refuge in Britain during the Revolution, on their return to France after Napoleonic Wars, used British technology. This helped to accomplish industrial revolution in their country.

Question 10.
Highlight the Industrial Revolution in Germany.
Answer:
Germany surpassed the home of the industrial revolution, Great Britain, and proved a competitor to the United States. In electrics, Germany offered companies like Siemens. In chemicals, Germany excelled in the production of potassium salt, dyes, pharmaceutical products, and synthetics. Companies like Bayer and Hoechst led the chemical industry of Germany. Germany became a leader in the automobile industry. Daimler and Benz became the most popular brands of automobiles in Germany and the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the working class strikes with special reference to Hay Market Massacre.
Answer:
The difficult working conditions in the factories, long hours of work, low wages, exploitation of women and children contributed to the growth of labour unions. After the Civil War, workers organized strikes. One major strike was the Great Railroad Strike of 1877. Wage cuts in the railroad industry, in the context of a prolonged economic depression, led to the strike, which began in West Virginia and spread to three additional states over a period of 45 days before being crushed by a combination of vigilantes, National Guardsmen, and Federal Army.

Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Local Self Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevalent local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73^rd and 74^th constitutional Amendment Acts, were enacted during the year in ………
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
……. act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councilors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …….. is known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of has ……. become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. …… was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which is functioning in the Villages are called …….
5. ….. will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.

Answers:

1. LordRipon
2. panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayats
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by a grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS).
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are nominated by the people.
Answers:
(iii) is correct.

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
The village panchayats levy the following taxes as Property tax, Professional tax, House tax, Taxes on connecting drinking water, Land tax, and Taxes levied on shops.

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Apt 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the new Act are as follows:

1. A three-tier system
2. Gram Sabha
3. Establishment of Election Commission
4. Constitution of Finance Commission
5. Reservation of seats for SC/ST’s proportionate to their population One-third reservation of seats for women and
6. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Important functions of the Village Panchayat are

1. Supply of drinking water
2. Maintenance of street lights
3. Maintenance of Road
4. Maintenance of village libraries
5. Maintenance of small bridges
6. Maintenance of drainage
7. Maintenance of burial grounds

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
According to the Tamil Nadu, Local Government Act passed in 1994, the following functions to be performed as voluntary functions by the local governments.

• Maintenance of street lights in the villages
• Maintenance of markets and fairs
• Implantation of trees
• Maintenance of playgrounds
• Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughterhouses, and cattle sheds
• Control over places of exhibition.

Question 5.
Who is the head of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 6.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:
Urban Local Government

• Town Panchayat
• Municipality
• Corporation.

VI Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient Features of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts (1992)

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
• The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels. Two-tier for smaller states with population below 2 million.
• Seats at all levels filled by direct elections.
  Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels also shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their population.
• One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third of offices of chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
• Uniform five-year term and elections to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term. In the event of dissolution, elections must be held compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self-governments.
Answer:
Local self-governments are the crucial basis for our democracy. The Constitutional status of local self-governments adds more significance to their functioning. There are, however, a few critical concerns in the working of local self-governments in India. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below:

• Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies
• Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched
• Role of caste, class, and religion in decision making at the local self-governments
• Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroots levels of democracy

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your President, Panchayat, Municipal Chairman, and discuss with him how the local self-government administered.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Local Self Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Lord Rippon
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) E.V.R. Periyar
Answer:
(b) Lord Rippon

Question 2.
Panchayat Raj System was introduced in Rajasthan in
(a) 1952
(b) 1953
(c) 1958
(d) 1959
Answer:
(d) 1959

Question 3.
Kuda Olai Murai was the name of the secret ballot method exercised by ….. to elect the village councils.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
There are …… corporations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 5.
…….. was the chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years since 1917.
(a) C.N. Annadurai
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar
(c) M.G. Ramachandran
(d) Raja Gopalachari
Answer:
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Local governments which are functioning in the villages are called Village Panchayat.
(ii) The President and Ward members are indirectly elected.
(iii) Their term office is six years.
(iv) Collector acts as the Inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The area where less than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
(ii) Members and the President of the town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
(iii) Their term office is 5 years.
(iv) There is one Executive officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Mayor is elected by the people.
Reason (R): He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
(a) A is wrong; R is correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answers:
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. After Independence the Gandhian ideas of ……. greatly influenced the constitution-makers.
2. …….. took some steps towards liberalizing the administration in India.
3. ….. are constituted in each and every village wherever the population is above 500.
4. ….. is formed by a grouping of villages.
5. Chennai Municipality was constituted in …….
6. After which British Lord is Chennai Corporation building named?
7. Corporations, Municipalities’ and Town Panchayats are …… bodies.

Answers:

1. Grama Swaraj
2. Ripon
3. Village Panchayats
4. Panchayat Union
5. 1688
6. Lord Ripon
7. urban

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What do you know about the Local Self Government?
Answer:
Local Self-Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community such as a village, a town, or a city. Local Self-Government operates at the lowest level of society. It works at the grassroots level, close to the people, touching their everyday life. Local Self-Government in the management of local affairs by such local bodies that have been elected by the local people. These local bodies provide services to the local community as well as act as an instrument of democratic self-government.

Question 2.
Mention any two salient features of the 73^rd and 74^th constitution Amendment Act 1992.
Answer:

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:
Functions of the Panchayat Union are:

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of Village Health Centres
• Maintenance of roads
• Establishment of Maternity Homes
• Establishment of Public fairs
• Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
• Maintenance of Social forests
• Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 4.
Comment on District Panchayat.
Answer:
A District Panchayat is constituted in each district. One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 5.
What are the functions of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are:

• Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
• Supervising the functions of the District Planning Commission.

Question 6.
List down the important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:
Important functions of the Mayor

• He acts as a bridge between the members of the corporation and the government.
• He presides over the meetings of the Corporation Council.
• He receives dignitaries from foreign countries.

VI. Answer in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the Historical origin and Development of Local Self Government in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a long history of local self-governance as is evident Tamil Nadu, in those days, was a land of village republics, with community groups undertaking many activities for their area development. This tradition reached its peak during the 10th and 11th centuries under the reign of Cholas when Village Councils used to levy taxes, improve community life, and administer justice in their limited area.

These Village Councils had effective links with the Chola rulers. “Kuda Olai Murai” was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the Village Councils. With the downfall of Cholas, the state experienced a decline of the village autonomy and the rise of the centralized feudal administrative system. This continued till British rules introduced local self-governance colonial British Government.

In the post-independence era, the first enactment in democratic decentralization in the state was the Madras Village Panchayats Act, 1950. Pursuant to the White Paper on the ‘Reform of Local Administration’ in 1957, the Madras Panchayats Act, 1958, and the Madras District Development Council Act were enacted with the following salient features.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Forms of Government

Forms of Government Textual Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… are the few examples of the unitary form of government.
2. The Parliamentary government is also known as ……..
3. In the parliamentary form of government ….. is the leader of the majority party.

Answers:

1. England, France
2. cabinet government
3. Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.

Country	Name of the Parliament
USA	…………..
Norway	…………..
…………	Folketing

Answer:

Country	Name of the Parliament
USA	Congress
Norway	Storting
Denmark	Folketing

III. Distinguish Between.

Question 1.
Unitary and federal forms of government.
Answer:

Unitary form of government	The federal form of government
Only one Level of Government or Subunits	Two Levels of Government
Mostly Single Citizenship	Dual Citizenship
Sub Units cannot operate independently	Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
No Division of Power	Division of Power
Centralization of Power	Decentralization of Power

Question 2.
Parliamentary and presidential form of government.
Answer:

Parliamentary form of government	Presidential form of government
Majority Party Rules	The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years.
Collective Responsibility	The President governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’.
The leadership of the Prime Minister	The President is both the head of the State and the head of government.

IV. Give a short note on:

Question 1.
Unitary form of government
Answer:

1. A unitary system of government or unitary state is a sovereign state governed as a single entity.
2. The Central government is supreme.
3. The administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated to them.
4. England, France, Japan, Sri Lanka are examples of a unitary form of governments.

V. Answer the following.

Question 1.
List out the types of constitution.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the merits of a federal government?
Answer:
Merits of federal form of government

• Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity.
• Division of power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency.
• It gives rise to big states
• Distribution of powers check the despotism of central government.
• More suitable for bigger countries.
• It is good for economic and cultural progress.

Question 3.
Write down the differences between the unitary form of government and the federal form of
government.
Answer:

Unitary form of government	The federal form of government
Only one Level of Government or Subunits	Two Levels of Government
Mostly Single Citizenship	Dual Citizenship
Sub Units cannot operate independently	Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
No Division of Power	Division of Power
Centralisation of Power	Decentralisation of Power

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write about the merits of a unitary form of government.
Answer:
Merits of a unitary form of government

1. Suitable for small countries.
2. There is no conflict of authority and responsibility.
3. A unitary government will make prompt decisions and take speedy action.
4. A unitary government is less expensive.
5. Amendments to the constitution are easy.
6. There is unity, uniformity of law, policy, and administration.

Question 2.
Write about the presidential form of government and what is the difference between presidential and parliamentary forms of government.
Answer:
The Presidential Form Of Government is also known as a non-responsible or non-parliamentary or fixed executive system of government, basically built on the principle of separation of power and is prevalent in the USA, Brazil, Russia, and Sri Lanka among others.

The American President is both the head of the State and the head of government. As the head of State, he occupies a ceremonial position. As the head of government, he leads the executive organ of the government.

The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress, except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.

The President governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’. It is only an advisory body and consists of non-elected departmental secretaries. They are selected and appointed by him, are responsible only to him, and can be removed by him at any time.

The President and his secretaries are not responsible to Congress for their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its sessions.

Differences between presidential and parliamentary forms of government are:

Parliamentary form of government	Presidential form of government
Prime Minister is from the majority party	President is directly elected by the People
Central Legislature is supreme	President is Supreme
Absence of Separation Powers Centralisation	Separation of Powers
Independent branches with Overlapping functions	Independent branches
President – Head of the State	President – Head of the State
Prime Minister – Head of the Government	President – Head of the Government
Collective leadership	Individual Leadership
Collective and Individual Responsibility	President is not accountable to Congress

Forms of Government Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……. is the main agency of the state.
2. The three organs in government are …….., ………, and ……….
3. ……… is the oldest form of government in the United Kingdom.
4. An example of Federal form of Government ……..
5. The …… system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
6. The …… form of government is prevalent in the U.S.A.
7. The President governs with the help of a cabinet (or) a small body called …… in the Presidential form of government.
8. An unprecedented development forced the ……… to step down and paved the way for Democracy.
9. Gross National Happiness was first mentioned in the constitution of Bhutan, which was enacted on ……
10. …… and …….. are synonyms, both denoting the exercise of authority in an organization, institution (or) state.
Answers:
1. Government
2. legislature, executive, judiciary
3. Monarchy
4. Argentina
5. Parliamentary
6. Presidential
7. Kitchen Cabinet
8. King Gyanendra.
9. 18^th July 2008
10. Government, Governance

II. Fill up.

Country	Name of the Parliament
Israel	……………………..
	Bundestag

Answer:

Country	Name of the Parliament
Israel	Knesset
Germany	Bundestag

III. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Monarchy and Democracy
Answer:

Monarchy	Democracy
A form of movement with a Monarch as the head.	The government is headed by elected representatives.
Power is passed through heritage and bloodline.	This principally supports the election.

IV. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Government?
Answer:
‘Government’ refers to the executive functions of the state. It denotes a body having authority to make and enforce laws applicable to the civil, corporate, religious, academic of other groups.

Question 2.
From where did the term Government was derived?
Answer:
The term Government is derived from Old French ‘governer’, derived from Latin ‘gubernare’ to direct, rule, guide, govern”.

Question 3.
Mention the demerits of Unitary form of Government.
Answer:

• It is not suitable for big countries.
• The central government will have to tackle so many complex problems that lead to administrative delay
• The central government will not concentrate on local problems, local interest and initiative.
• The concentration of powers may pave way for the despotism of the central government.

Question 4.
State the feature of the Parliamentary form of governance.
Answer:
Features of parliamentary form of government

• Nominal and Real Executives
• Majority Party Rule
• Collective Responsibility
• Dual Membership
• The leadership of the Prime Minister

Question 5.
State the merits of the Presidential system of government.
Answer:
Merits of the presidential system of government

• Democratic
• Effective Control by the President
• Facilitate decision-making
• State government

Question 6.
Write down the characteristics of good governance.
Answer:
Characteristics of good governance:

• Participation
• Rule Of Law
• Transparency
• Responsiveness
• Consensus Orientation
• Equity
• Effectiveness And Efficiency
• Accountability

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Federal form of Government.
Answer:
The classification of governments into unitary and federal is based on the nature of relations between the national and the regional governments.

A federal government is one in which powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently. U.S.A, Switzerland, Australia, Canada, Russia, Brazil, Argentina have federal form of governments. In a federal model, the national government is known as the Federal government or the Central Government or the Union government and the regional government is known as the state government or the provincial government.

Merits of federal form of government

• Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity
• Division of power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency
• It gives rise to big states
• Distribution of powers check the despotism of central government
• More suitable for bigger countries
• It is good for economic and cultural progress

De-merits of federal form of government

• Federal government is weaker when compared to the unitary government.
• Federal government is more expensive
• Provincial tendencies are very common
• Lack of uniformity in Administration
• Threat to national unity
• Distribution of powers between centre and states lead to conflicts
• Double Citizenship
• Rigid constitution cannot be mended easily for changing needs
• The state governments sometimes place hindrances in foreign policy.

Federal features of the Indian constitution

• Dual Government
• Written Constitution
• Division of Powers
• Supremacy of the Constitution. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.
• The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions.
• Rigid Constitution
• Independent Judiciary
• Bicameralism

Question 2.
Explain Gross National Happiness.
Answer:
Gross National Happiness is a developing philosophy as well as an ‘index’ which is used to measure the collective happiness in any specific nation. The concept was first mentioned in the constitution of Bhutan, which was enacted on 18 July 2008.

The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ was coined by the fourth king of Bhutan, Jigme Singye Wangchuck, in the 1970s. The GNH’s central tenets are “Sustainable and equitable socio-economic development; environmental conservation; preservation and promotion of culture; and good governance”. GNH is distinguishable by valuing collective happiness as the goal of governance and by emphasising harmony with nature and traditional values.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

The Age of Revolutions Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first British colony in America was ……………….
(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
Answer:
(c) Jamestown

Question 2.
The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British was ……………..
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
Answer:
(b) Lafayette

Question 3.
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the ………………
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

Question 4.
The defeat of British at …………….. paved the way for the friendship between France and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer:
(b) Saratoga

Question 5.
…………… was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
Answer:
(a) Versailles Palace

Question 6.
The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at ……………..
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
Answer:
(d) Valmy

Question 7.
Candide was written by …………….
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

Question 8.
The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called …………….
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres
(d) Royalists
Answer:
(d) Royalists

Question 9.
American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ………………
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
Answer:
(d) 1783

Question 10.
Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was …………..
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of Rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Answer:
(a) Common Sense

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress was ……………….
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on …………….
3. The …………… Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
4. The leader of the National Assembly of France was …………….
5. …………. was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty.
6. Louis XVI was arrested at ……………. with his family when he tried to escape from France.

Answers:

1. Benjamin Franklin
2. Massachusetts
3. Currency
4. Mirabeau
5. Herbert
6. Varennes

III Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Perm.
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars. .
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except for the tax on paper.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American . colonies
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions;
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (b)

V Answer the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Townshend Act
(a) Who introduced this Act?
Answer:
The British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced this Act.

(b) In which year was this Act passed?
Answer:
It was passed in 1767.

(c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
Answer:
The colonists opposed this Act as they introduced duties on imports to colonies such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

(d) Why did the merchants of Boston oppose British goods?
Answer:
In March 1770, resentment rose in Boston, when troops fired on a crowd. This incident led to intense anti-British propaganda.

Question 2.
Social life in France
(a) What was the tax collected by the Church in France?
Answer:
The church collected one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings from the common people.

(b) Who was Danton?
Answer:
Danton was a great leader of the Revolution.

(c) Who were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France?
Answer:
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France.

(d) Who provided free labour for the construction of public roads?
Answer:
The peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Who were Puritans? Why did they leave England?
Answer:

1. Puritans had a religious movement to reform the church of England.
2. They dispensed with the teachings and practices of the Roman Catholic Church.
3. Since the Stuart kings ordered the persecution of Puritans, they left England and settled in the colonies they founded to lead a Puritan way of life.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Quakers?
Answer:
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for peace and opposing war.

Question 3.
Point out the significance of “the Boston Tea Party”.
Answer:

1. In many places, the colonists obstructed the import of tea.
2. In Charlestown, they unloaded the tea and let it rot the dock.
3. In New York and Philadelphia ships carrying tea were blocked.
4. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
5. This incident, done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd, was signified as Boston Tea Party.

Question 4.
Attempt an account of “September Massacres”.
Answer:
The people of Paris angered by the action of the Swiss guards in shooting and killing many of them hunted down the supporters of monarchy under their leader Marat. In three days, from September 2, about 1500 suspected dissidents were put in prison. After a trial, they were killed and this incident is called “September Massacres”. .

Question 5.
Explain the composition of “Three Estates of France”.
Answer:
The Estates-General consisted of the representatives of three classes or estates as they were called. They were

• clergy (men and women ordained for religious duties)
• the nobles
• the commoners (comprising lawyers, rich merchants, bankers and businessmen, and wealthy land-owners).

Question 6.
Sketch the role of Lafayette in the French Revolution.
Answer:
Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at Yorktown in 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard as its Commander. He penned the Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen, with the help . of Jefferson, which the National Assembly adopted on August 27, 1789.

Question 7.
What was the background for the storming of Bastille Prison?
Answer:
The king shut out the commoners and the latter assembled in the Tennis-Court and took an oath that they would not disperse until they found a way out to their problems. The King tried to use force but his own soldiers refused to obey his orders. Louis then intrigued to get foreign regiments to shoot down his own people. This provoked the people to rise in revolt in Paris on 14 July 1789. They stormed the Bastille prison and set free all the prisoners.

Question 8.
What were the taxes the peasants had to pay in France on the eve of the Revolution?
Answer:

1. The common people paid one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings.
2. The peasants paid taxes to the state such as Taille (land tax), Gabelle (salt tax), etc., and provided free labour (corvee) for the construction of public roads.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
“Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence – Explain.
Answer:

1. A Series of taxes were imposed on the colonists when the Americans did not have representation in the British Parliament.
2. The Sugar Act of 1764, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act of 1765, and the Stamp Act of 1765 – all their Act were protested by the American Colonists.
3. They called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn.
4. The Townshend Acts of 1767 added fuel to the fire. Merchants of Boston organised a boycott of British Goods.
5. When Townshend Acts were repealed retaining tax, on tea, it led to the incident of the Boston tea party.
6. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
7. This incident, known as the Boston Tea Party, was done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.
8. George Washington became the colonist’s Commander-in-chief and the colonists challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will.
9. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Answer:
There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in the eighteenth century. The most famous writer of the time on rationalistic and scientific subjects was Voltaire (1694 – 1778). When imprisoned and banished, he had to live at Femey near Geneva. Voltaire, Montesquieu (1689 – 1755), and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France. Voltaire, was a prolific writer and activist, and was vehement in his criticism of the Church. His most famous work was Candide. His famous quote was: “those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities.” He is said to have once exclaimed, “I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it.”

Another great writer, a contemporary of Voltaire, but younger than him, was Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712 – 1778). His political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves. His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution. He famously said in his book Social Contract, “Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.” He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by – the general will of the people.

Montesquieu (1689 — 1755), who wrote The Persian Letters and The Spirit of the Laws, also defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers: The liberty of the individual would be best protected only in a government where the powers of its three organs, viz., legislature, executive and judiciary were separate. It would put in place the necessary checks and balances to prevent any one organ from assuming more power to itself.

An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by Diderot and Jean d’Alembert. These philosophers and thinkers, as opposed to religious intolerance and political and social privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures do you think are required to overcome the crisis?
Answer:
To avoid Bankruptcy the following steps can be followed:
(i) Maximize the Revenue
(ii) Attend mandatory credit counseling
(iii) Make ongoing payments to creditors
(iv) Attend mandatory financial-management education
(v) Make a Debt Management Plan
(vi) Settle some (or all) of the Debts
(vii) Stay out of Debts

Question 2.
Attempt a comparative study of American W ar of Independence and Indian Independence
Movement.
Answer:
Comparison between the American War of Independence and Indian Independence Movement:
A. Similarities

1. Both the Americans and the Indians gained their freedom by challenging the British Empire with the use of alternating tactics and policies.
2. Both wanted to be free because they were being coerced and restricted.
3. The British Empire had a major influence on the development of Indian and American human societies.
4. Indians boycotted British products in hopes of helping the Indian economy. Similarly, the Americans boycotted British tea and other products to get the attention of the British rule.

B. Differences

1. Indians chose a peaceful way of gaining independence while Americans chose a violent way. The respective paths they chose were greatly influenced by their culture and the time periods they were in.
2. Their leaders and strategies were extremely different.
3. The American colony was actually a colony where the descendants of British people rebelled against Britain, whereas in India the rebellion was by the natives.
4. The United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no external ally.
5. The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory, while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation.
6. The American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms).
7. The Indian Independence Movement took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
Answer:
You can do this assignment under the guidance of your teacher.

The Age of Revolutions Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pioneers in geographical explorations and the founding of colonies were ……………
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish
(b) The English and the Americans
(c) The Greeks and the Romans
(d) The Chinese and the Japanese
Answer:
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish

Question 2.
The …………….. founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
(a) English
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 3.
The seven years of war between Britain and France took place between ……………..
(a) 1753-1760
(b) 1756-1763
(c) 1755-1762
(d) 1757-1764
Answer:
(b) 1756-1763

Question 4.
The …………… prohibited the import of foreign rum.
(a) Quartering Act of 1765
(b) Sugar Act of 1764
(c) Declaratory Act of 1766
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sugar Act of 1764

Question 5.
Merchants of …………… organized boycott of British goods.
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Philadelphia
(d) Boston
Answer:
(d) Boston

Question 6.
The Spirit of Laws and the Persian letters were written by …………..
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Thomas Jefferson
Answer:
(b) Montesquieu

Question 7.
The French revolution exploded in …………….
(a) 1789
(b) 1788
(c) 1786
(d) 1790
Answer:
(a) 1789

Question 8.
The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for ……………. days in France.
(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 46
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 46

Question 9.
The execution of Louis XVI was on …………….
(a) 21^st Jan 1793
(b) 2^nd Sept 1792
(c) 3^rd Sept 1792
(d) 27^th July 1794
Answer:
(a) 21^st Jan 1793

Question 10.
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of …………..
(a) Danton
(b) Robespierre
(c) Napolean
(d) Herbert
Answer:
(b) Robespierre

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ……………. ship had taken a batch of Puritans from Plymouth England to America.
2. Declaration of Independence was drafted by …………
3. …………. was the founder of the Society of Friends.
4. The native Americans were ……………
5. The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at ……………
6. The …………….. Revolution affected the life and society in the whole of Continental Europe.
7. On the eve of the French Revolution, France was going through a period of …………….
8. The middle class and the peasants together formed the …………..
9. The great leader of the French Revolution was …………….
10. The Consulate was abolished by …………….. in France.

Answers:

1. May Flower
2. Thomas Jefferson
3. George Fox
4. Red Indians
5. Philadelphia
6. French
7. Economic crisis
8. Third Estate
9. Danton
10. Napolean Bonaparte

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The American Revolution was the first political Revolution.
(ii) The French Revolution provided inspiration.
(iii) The Portuguese and the Spanish were the pioneers in Geographical explorations.
(iv) Jamestown was the first American colony in America.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American Revolution affected the life and Society in the whole of Continental Europe.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution laid the foundation for Capitalism.
(iii) The French Revolution helped to end the pre-capital feudal past.
(iv) The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Cornwallis was bom into an aristocratic family.
(ii) Cornwallis joined the army in 1757. ‘
(iii) Cornwallis did not have an active career.
(iv) Cornwallis’s military action in the American war of Independence was not worthy.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Dutch founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
Reason (R): The English later changed the name to New York.
(a) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
American War of Independence
(a) Who stated that no thinking man in North America desired Independence?
Answer:
George Washington

(b) Who was the first President of America?
Answer:
George Washington

(c) What were the grievances of the Americans?
Answer:
Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the 88 British Parliament to tax them against their will.

(d) What was their famous battle cry?
Answer:
“No.taxation without representation”.

Question 2.
Second Continental Congress
(a) When did the Second Continental Congress meet?
Answer:
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at Philadelphia.

(b) Who were the prominent members of the Congress?
Answer:
John Adams, Sam Adams, Richard Henry Lee and Thomas Jefferson were the prominent members of the Congress.

(c) What did they do?
Answer:
They organized the army gathered around Boston as the Continental Army.

(d) Under whose command it was placed?
Answer:
They placed it under the command of George Washington.

Question 3.
Voltaire the French Philosopher
(a) Who was Voltaire?
Answer:
Voltaire was a prolific writer and activist.

(b) What did he criticize?
Answer:
He criticized the Church.

(c) What was his most famous work?
Answer:
His most famous work is ‘Candide’.

(d) What was his famous quote?
Answer:
His famous quote was ‘those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities’. .

Question 4.
The Reign of Terror
(a) Who were the main leaders of the National Convention?
Answer:
Danton, Herbert, and Robespierre were the main leaders of the National Convention.

(b) What was the law of suspects?
Answer:
The Law of Suspects made spreading of false news to divide or instigate the people a punishable crime. ‘

(c) How was the Reign of Terror ended?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre.

(d) How did Robespierre earn notoriety?
Answer:
Though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, he earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on “Plantations and the Slave Labour”.
Answer:
As the Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, the European planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states -Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia- in their search for labour resorted to acquiring slaves from Africa.

The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel and inhuman manner. In the northern States, conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms. Thus two economic systems developed in these colonies. Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back to the west. This was made easier by the disunity and divisions among the Native American tribes.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Native Americans?
Answer:
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called Native Americans (they used to be referred to as ‘Red Indians’; it is now considered demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more), spread over the vast American continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other. Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in numbers today they live in various reserves. :

Question 3.
What was the reaction of the American colonies for the taxes?
Answer:
The American-colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn. This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.

Question 4.
Why was the Townshend Act introduced?
Answer:
The British Parliament however wanted to assert its control over the colonies. In 1766 it passed the Declaratory Act. It affirmed Parliament’s right to legislate for the colonies. There was not much opposition to it as it did not introduce any new taxes. Despite the withdrawal of the Stamp Act, the British still needed money to pay its troops and other expenses in the colonies. Hence, the British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced new duties on imports in 1767. Known as the Townshend Acts, they introduced duties on imports to colonies ‘ such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

Question 5.
Why did the local tea traders boycott the foreign tea?
Answer:
The protests and boycotts made the British Parliament repealed the Townshend Acts. However, it retained the tax on tea, with the intention of encouraging the business of the East India Company by making it easy for it to take its tea to America and sell it there. This harmed the local tea trade and so it was decided to boycott this foreign tea.

Question 6.
Why didn’t the colonies begin fighting for the sake of independence?
Answer:
In 1774, a little before war began between the colonies and England, George Washington stated that no thinking man in North America desired independence. And yet he became the colonists’ commander-in-chief and later the first president of the American Republic. So the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 7.
What were the political reasons for the French Revolution? ‘
Answer:
Louis XV succeeded his great-grandfather Louis XlV and reigned for fifty nine years. He learned no lesson that the king is not above law but bound by law from the English Revolution and the beheading of King Charles I. In 1774 he was succeeded by his grandson Louis XVI.

He was entirely under the influence of his wife Marie Antoinette, who believed, more than the King, in the Divine Right Theory of Kingship – the theory that the king was representative of God on earth and therefore for all his actions he was accountable only to God and not to anybody else. Both the King and the Queen were hated by the people.

Question 8.
How did the Reign of Terror end?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre. Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine. In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the results of American war of Independence.
Answer:
The immediate result of the war was America’s independence. For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonised, leading to the establishment of a republican government in the United States. The colonists wanted to get rid of the feudal inequalities of Europe and they succeeded. For many followers of the Enlightenment in Europe, the language of the Declaration of Independence seemed a living fulfillment of their ideals. The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that “all men are bom equal.” But in reality the poor Black slaves did not fit in this. America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century, to’ abolish slavery.

By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution. These constitutions protected individual rights, freedom of the press, and freedom of religion. The Continental Congress had drafted the Articles of Confederation. The Church and the State were separated. Thomas Jefferson in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom introduced freedom of religion. It was later incorporated into the American Constitution.

The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America. Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French Revolution and the revolutionaries inspired by it were determined to fight against royal absolutism. The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom, including property and political rights.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution had many lasting results. It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France. All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of the clergy was curbed. The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced power of the state. It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle class.

Revolution upheld the theory of people’ sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth of liberal constitutional governments in Europe. Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom-loving people all over the world and inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy in Europe and elsewhere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Measurement

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Measurement Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Choose the correct one
(a) mm < cm < m < km
(b) mm > cm > m > km
(c) km < m < cm < mm
(d) mm > m > cm > km
Answer:
(a) mm < cm < m < km

Question 2.
Rulers, measuring tapes and metre scales are used to measure
(a) Mass
(b) Weight
(c) Time
(d) Length
Answer:
(d) Length

Question 3.
1 metric ton is equal to
(a) 100 quintals
(b) 10 quintals
(c) 1/10 quintals
(d) 1/100 quintals
Answer:
(b) 10 quintals

Question 4.
Which among the following is not a device to measure mass?
(a) Spring balance
(b) Beam balance
(c) Physical balance
(d) Digital balance
Answer:
(a) Spring balance

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Metre is the unit of …………..
2. 1 kg of rice is weighed by …………
3. The thickness of a cricket ball is measured by ………….
4. The radius of a thin wire is measured by ………….
5. A physical balance measures small differences in mass up to …………….

Answer:

1. Length
2. Beam balance
3. Vernier Caliper
4. Screw Gauge
5. 1 mg

III. True or False.

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric current is the kilogram.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The SI unit of electric current is ampere. The kilogram is the unit of mass.

Question 2.
Kilometre is one of the SI units of measurement.
Answer:
False
Correct.Statement: Metre only SI unit. Kilometre is multiple of metre.

Question 3.
In everyday life, we use the term weight instead of mass.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A physical balance is more sensitive than a beam balance.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
One Celsius degree is an interval of IK and zero degree Celsius is 273.15 K.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: One Celsius degree is an interval 1K is true, but zero degree Celsius is equal to -273.15K.

Question 6.
With the help of vernier caliper, we can have an accuracy of 0.1 mm and with a screw gauge, we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: With the help of vernier caliper we can have an accuracy of 0.01 cm and with a screw gauge, we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm.

IV. Match the following.

1. 

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Length	(i) Kelvin
(b) Mass	(ii) meter
(c) Time	(iii) Kilogram
(d) Tempature	(iv) second

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)

2.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Screw gauge	(i) Vegetables
(b) Vernier Caliper	(ii) Coins
(c) Beam balance	(iii) Gold ornaments
(d) Digital balance	(iv) Cricket ball

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)

V. Assertion and Reason Type.

In the following questions, the statement is given, followed by a reason. Answer the questions below.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): The scientifically correct expression is “ The mass of the bag is 10 kg”
Reason (R): In everyday life, we use the term weight instead of mass.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): 0°C = 273.16 K. For our convenience, we take it as 273 K after rounding off the decimal.
Reason (R): To convert a temperature on the Celsius scale we have to add 273 to the given temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The distance between two celestial bodies is measured in terms of a light-year.
Reason (R): The distance traveled by the light in one year is one light year.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.

VI. Very Short Answer Type.

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
Measurement is the process of comparison of the given physical quantity with the known standard quantity of the same nature.

Question 2.
Define standard unit.
Answer:
Unit is the quantity of a constant magnitude which is used to measure the magnitudes of other quantities of the same nature.

Question 3.
What is the full form of SI system?
Answer:
International System of Units.

Question 4.
Define the least count of any device.
Answer:
The least count is the least distance measured in a given device by it.

Question 5.
What do you know about pitch of screw gauge?
Answer:
Pitch of the screw gauge is the distance between two successive screw threads. It is measured by the ratio of distance travelled on the pitch scale to the number of rotations of the head scale.
Pitch = [Distance travelled on the pitch scale / Number of rotations of the head scale]

Question 6.
Can you find the diameter of a thin wire of length 2 m using the ruler from your instrument box?
Answer:
Yes, first you have to wound the wire around the scale for 10 cm and count the number of turns in it. Then if you divide 10 cm by number of turns which gives the thickness of the wire.

VII. Short Answer Type.

Question 1.
Write the rules that are followed in writing the symbols of units in the SI system.
Answer:

• Units named after scientists are written in lower case, eg. joule, kelvin and newton.
• Symbols for the units are always written in lower case, eg. m, kg and s.
•  However, the symbols for the units derived from the names of scientists are written in capital letters.
  eg. C (Celsius), N (newton) and J (joule).
• Symbols are not followed by a full stop, eg. 75 cm and not 75 cm.
• Symbols are never written in the plural, eg. 100 kg, not as 100 kgs

Question 2.
Write the need for a standard unit.
Answer:
Many of the ancient systems of measurement were based on the dimensions of the human body. As a result, unit of measurement varied from person to person and also from location to location. In an earlier time, different unit systems were used by people from different countries.
But, at the end of the Second World War there was a necessity to use a worldwide system of measurement. Hence, SI (International System of Units) system of units was developed and recommended by General Conference on Weights and Measures in 1960 for international usage.

Question 3.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

S.No.	Mass	Weight
1.	Fundamental quantity	Derived quantity
2.	Has magnitude alone – scalar quantity	Has magnitude and direction – vector quantity
3.	It is the amount of matter contained in a body	It is the normal force exerted by the surface on the object against gravitational pull
4.	Remains the same	Varies from place to place
5.	It is measured using physical balance	It is measured using spring balance
6.	Its unit is kilogram	Its unit is newton

Question 4.
How will you measure the least count of Vernier Caliper?
Answer:
Least Count or L.C. is the minimum reading or value that can be measured with a measuring tool or device.

VIII. Long Answer Type.

Question 1.
Explain a method to find the thickness of a hollow teacup.
Answer:
To find the thickness of a hollow teacup,

(i) Determine the pitch, of the least count and zero error of the screw gauge.

• Pitch of the screw = \(\frac{\text { Distance moved by the pitch }}{\text { No. of rotations by Head scale }}\)
• Least count (LC) = 0.01 mm
• Zero error:
  Positive zero error (ZE) = + (n × LC)mm = + (n × 0.01) mm
  ∴ Zero correction (ZC) = – (n × 0.01) mm
  Negative zero error (ZE) = – (100 – n) × LC mm
  ∴ Zero correction (ZC) = (100 – n) × LC mm

(ii) Place the teacup between the two studs.

(iii) Rotate the head until the teacup is held firmly but not tightly, with the help of ratchet.

(iv) Note the reading of the pitch scale crossed by the head scale (PSR) and the head scale
the division that coincides with the pitch scale axis (HSC).

(v) The thickness of the teacup is given by PSR + CHSR (Corrected HSR). Repeat the experiment for different positions of the teacup.

(vi) Tabulate the readings.

(vii) The average of the last column reading gives the thickness of the tea cup.

S.No.	P.S.R (mm)	H.S.C (division)	CHSC = HSC ± ZC (Division)	CHSR = CHSC x LC (mm)	Total reading = PSR + CHSR (mm)
1. 2.					mean = mm

The thickness of the teacup = ……….. mm

Question 2.
How will you find the thickness of a one rupee coin?

1. Determine the pitch, the least count and the zero error of the screw gauge
2.  Place the coin between the two studs
3.  Rotate the head until the coin is held firmly but not tightly, with the help of the ratchat
4.  Note the reading of the pitch scale crossed by the head scale (PSR) and the head scale division that coincides with the pitch scale axis (HSC)
5.  The width of the coin is given by PSR + CHSR (Corrected HSR). Repeat the experiment for different positions of the coin
6.  Tabulate the readings
7.  The average of the last column readings gives the width of the coin

S.No.	P.S.R (mm)	H.S.C (division)	CHSC = HSC ± ZC (Division)	CHSR = CHSC x LC (mm)	Total reading = PSR + CHSR (mm)
1. 2.					mean = mm

Thickness of the coin = …….. mm

IX. Numerical problem.

Question 1.
Inian and Ezhilan argue about the light year. Inian tells that it is 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m and Ezhilan argues that it is 9.46 × 10¹² km. Who is right? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The magnitude of light year = 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m. So Inian gave a correct answer.

Question 2.
The main scale reading while measuring the thickness of a rubber ball using Vernier Caliper is 7 cm and the Vernier scale coincidence is 6. Find the radius of the ball.
Answer:
Given: The main scale reading = 7 cm
Vernier scale coincidence = 6
we know that least count of vernier = 0.01 cm
The radius of the ball = MSR + VC × LC
= 7 cm + 6 × 0.01 cm
= 7 cm + 0.06 cm
= 7.06 cm

Question 3.
Find the thickness of a five rupee coin with the screw gauge, if the pitch scale reading is 1 mm and it’s head scale coincidence is 68.
Answer:
Given Pitch scale reading = 1 mm
Head scale coincidence = 68
The thickness of a fire rupee coin = PSR + HSC × L.C ± ZE
= 1 mm + 68 × 0.01 mm
= 1 mm + 0.68 mm
= 1.68 mm

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Using Vernier caliper find the outer diameter of your pen cap.

Answer:

S.No.	P.S.R.	H.S.C.	C.H.S.C × L.C	Total reading
1.	1mm	68	68 × 0.01 mm	P.S.R. + (H.S.C. × L.C) ± ZE = 1 mm + (68 × 0.01 mm) = 1 mm + 0.68 mm = 1.68 mm

Question 2.
Determine the thickness of a single sheet of your science textbook with the help of a Screw gauge.
Answer:
Pitch scale reading = 0.05 mm L.C. = 0.1 mm
Head scale coincidence = 02
The thickness of a single sheet of science text book = PSR + HSC × L.C. + ZE
= 0.05 mm+ (02 × 0.1)
= 0.05 mm + 0.2 mm
= 0.07 mm

Question 3.
The resources such as paper plates, teacups, thread, and sticks available at home make a model of an ordinary balance. Using standard masses find the mass of some objects.
Answer:

Resource avail	Device	mass of objects
Paper Plates	Common balance	10g
Tea Cups	Common balance	5g
Thread	Physical balance	10 ms
sticks	two par balance	15g