Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Mapping Skills

Mapping Skills Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The new phase in topographical surveying in the 20^th century is ……
(a) toposheets
(b) aerial photography
(c) maps
(d) satellite imagery
Answer:
(d) satellite imagery

Question 2.
…… indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
(a) Title
(b) Scale
(c) Direction
(d) Legend
Answer:
(a) Title

Question 3.
Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey a definite meaning are called ………
(a) conventional signs and symbols
(b) coordinates
(c) grid references
(d) directions
Answer:
(a) conventional signs and symbols

Question 4.
Which one of the following maps show us a very large area with less details?
(a) Large scale
(b) Thematic
(c) Physical
(d) Small scale
Answer:
(d) Small scale

Question 5.
GPS consists of a constellation of ……… satellites.
(a) 7
(b) 24
(c) 3.2
(d) 64
Answer:
(b) 24

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
Reason(R): The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and Eastings respectively.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) (A) is false ; (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The legend of a map does not help us to understand the information in a map. Reason(R): It is usually placed at the left or right comer at the bottom of the map.
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the different methods to represent the Earth.
Answer:

1. A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols.
2. A map projection is a way of showing the spherical-shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
3. A map projection is a systematic transformation of the latitudes and longitudes of location from the surface of a sphere or an ellipsoid into locations on a plane.
4. A Globe is a spherical model of earth. Globe Serve similar purposes to maps but unlike maps do not disturb the surface that they portray except to scale it down. A globe of the earth is called a terrestrial globe.

Question 2.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface Clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words, and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
What are the components of a map?
Answer:
A map should include the following components namely, the title, scale, direction, grid reference, projection, legend, conventional signs, and symbols.

Question 4.
The distance between the two cities A and B is 5 km. It is represented by a line of 5 cm on the map. Calculate the distance and give the answer in RF.
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F.) = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground Given, Distance on the map = 5 cm
The distance on the ground = 5 km
∴ R.F. = 5 cm / 5 km
Converting km to cm; 5 km = 500000 cm
So R.F. is 5 : 500000
i.e. R.F. is 1 : 100000

Question 5.
Mention a few surveying instruments.
Answer:
Geographers mainly use Chain, Prismatic compass, Plane table, Dumpy level, Abney level, Clinometer, Theodolite, Total Station, and GNSS to measure the distance, angle, altitude, and position of the area of survey.

Question 6.
Define remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote Sensing refers to the observation and measurement of earthly objects without touching them. ‘Remote’ means far away and ‘Sensing’ means observing or collecting information. Remote sensing means acquiring information of things/places from a distance, using a variety of tools and methods.

Question 7.
What are the components of remote sensing?
Answer:
Components of remote sensing are

1. Energy source
2. Transmission path
3. Target
4. Sensor

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Satellite imageries stimulate map making.
Answer:

1. Satellite imagery refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites. Therefore it can be easily integrated with software for the improvement of images.
2. Satellites circle the Earth or remain geostationary and therefore, changes in weather or any other natural or man-made modifications do not affect the functioning of Satellites.

Question 2.
A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
Answer:
With maps on hand, one can see the world in one sweep. A map is worth a thousand words. Maps are introduced with its components such as scale, signs and symbols. A map is the basic tool of a geographer. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
Grid references are essential to finding the exact location of places on a map.
Answer:

1. The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude.
2. The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
3. Therefore grid references are essential to finding the exact location of a place.

Question 4.
Web cartography is one of the modern mapping techniques.
Answer:
The introduction of web mapping is a major new trend in cartography. The term Web cartography is connected with the design, production, display, and use of maps over the Web. Various types of maps are present on the Web. Until recently cartography was restricted as it required relatively expensive and complex hardware and software as well as skilled cartographers and geomatics engineers.

Web-based GIS has brought many geographical datasets, including free ones generated by OpenStreetMap and proprietary datasets owned by Navteq, Google, Waze, and others. A range of free software to generate maps has also been conceived and implemented alongside proprietary tools like ArcGIS. As a result, the barrier to entry for serving maps on the web has been lowered.

VI. Distinguish Between The Following:

Question 1.
Globe and Map
Answer:

Globe	Map
It is a representation of the whole earth with the clear marking of longitude and latitude of all the places on earth.	A map illustrates the earth’s surface more clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols.

Question 2.
Large scale map and small scale map
Answer:

Large scale map	Small scale map
Large amount of detail is shown of a small area can be seen in a large-scale map.	Small amount of detail of a larger area can be seen in a small scale map.

Question 3.
Aerial photographs and satellite imageries
Answer:

Aerial photographs	Satellite imageries
It covers a small area and needs permission from the authorities.	It allows global coverage and does not require permission.
Revisits or repeatability involves extra cost.	Satellites circle the Earth; they can repeat and revisit easily.

Question 4.
GIS and GPS
Answer:

GIS	GPS
Geographic Information System is a computer-based tool for managing a large amount of data collected for a given geographic region through remote sensing, GPS and other sources.	GPS is the U.S. implementation of the world’s first and currently the most used Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) created by the U. S. Department Of Defense.
GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications and urban and regional planning.	Weather forecasting, earthquake monitoring and environmental protection can be done effectively by using GPS.

VII Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘scale of the map’? Explain its classification.
Answer:

1. Scale is one of the components of a map.
2. Scale makes it possible to reduce the size of the whole earth to show it on a piece of paper.
3. A scale is a ratio between the actual distance on the map to the actual distance on the ground.
4. Scales can be represented in three methods. They are
   • Statement
   • Representative Fraction (R.F)
   • Linear or Graphical scale methods.

(a) Statement Scale:
The statement scale describes the relationship of map distance to the ground distance in words, such as one centimetre to ten kilometres. It is expressed as 1cm = 10 km.

(b) The Representative Fraction (R.F):

1. It describes the proportion or ratio of the map distance to ground distance. It is usually abbreviated as R.F. It is stated as 1/100000 or 1:100000
2. This means that one unit on the map represents 100,000 of the same unit on the ground.
3. This unit may be an inch or a centimetre or any other linear measurement unit.
   Representative Fraction (R.F.) = \(\frac { Distance on the map }{ Distance on the Ground }\)

(c) Linear (or) Graphical scale: In geography, a linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts (Primary and secondary) to show what these markings represent on the actual ground. This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.

Question 2.
Write a note on directions with a relevant diagram.
Answer:
Direction
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrow head.

Question 3.
What are the three major functional segments of GPS? Explain about anyone.
Answer:
GPS has made a considerable impact on almost all positioning, navigation, timing and monitoring applications. It provides particularly coded satellite signals that can be processed in a GPS receiver, allowing the receiver to estimate position, velocity and time.

1. The (GPS) Global Positioning System is a U.S. owned utility that provides users with positioning, control segment and the user segment.
2. The GPS ground segment (also referred to as control segment or operational control system) is responsible for the proper operation of the GPS system.
3. The GPS control segment is composed of network of monitor stations (MS), a Master Control Systems (MCS) a backup of the MCS and Ground Antenna (GA).
4. The GPS space segment consists of a constellation of transmitting radio signal to users. The linked states is committed to maintaining the availability of atleast 24 operational GPS satellites, 95% of the times.
5. The user segment is the practice of dividing all customers into segments based on characteristics they share. For example sorting users by region, language, or behaviour.

Question 4.
Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, policymakers, or the general public. Justify.
Answer:
Bhuvan (Sanskrit for Earth) is a free internet-based computer application launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) on August 12th, 2009. It enables visualization of Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) images taken over a year ago, by ISRO’s seven satellites, including CartoSat-1 and CartoSat-2. Using Bhuvan connected to the Internet, one can explore places of interest, scenes of events in the news or parts around the world they may never visit in person, by either entering the names of places or coordinates (latitudes and longitudes). Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, academicians, policymakers, and the general public.

Advantages

• Bhuvan, due to 3D rendering, gives the impression of moving through real space through the entire globe
• Students can use Bhuvan to understand subjects ranging from Sciences to History of places.
• It provides information on natural resources and timely information on disasters.
• Administrators use it for monitoring various developmental schemes.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without satellites?
Answer:

1. Today a growing number of satellites orbit around the Earth, making various earth observation, communication, navigation, and science application possible.
2. While we may not always realize or acknowledge their existence, the important role these systems play in our daily lives cannot be underestimated.
3. As technology advances, the potential of satellites will undoubtedly continue to grow. New markets will merge along with new opportunities to push the boundaries of what space technology currently offers.
4. Likely satellites reach just about everywhere today. In certain isolated parts of our planet. Satellites provide inhabitants with access to telephone service, 4G / 5G, broadband, and work.
5. GPS helps us to travel from A to B without getting lost along the way.

Question 2.
Imagine you are a cartographer. Plan and bring out a few ideas to improve your area.
Answer:
Cartographers are trained in aerial photography and in collecting survey data for preparing maps, charts and sketches.

They work to create detailed information maps based on survey data.
Ideas to improve Chennai

1. Maintaining the ecological process in Chennai.
2. Balancing the essential infrastructures of the urban areas.
3. Improving the connectivity in and around South Chennai from the main city.
4. Improving Civic Services

Chennai Corporation is set to upgrade its Geographical Information System (GIS) services. This was used for the creation of a digital base and Utility mapping using GIS technology in 44,000 streets in Chennai.
(Students can add their own creative ideas)

IX Map skill:

A. With the help of an atlas, mark the following on the outline map of Tamil Nadu.
a. The latitude and longitude of Chennai. .
b. Mark the city located at 10° N, 78° E.
c. Locate the city approximately on 11°N and 76°E.
d. Find the latitude and longitude of Kanyakumari and mark it.

Mapping Skills Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first ancient Greek to draw a map of the Known World is ………
(a) Anaximander
(b) Gerardus Mercator
(c) Felix Nadar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Anaximander

Question 2.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the …… period.
(a) Pre-historic
(b) Medieval
(c) Vedic
(d) Modern
Answer:
(c) Vedic

Question 3.
……. is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
(a) Direction
(b) Grid Reference
(c) Projection
(d) Legend
Answer:
(c) Projection

Question 4.
……… symbols are used to indicate railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines in
mapping.
(a) Line
(b) Point
(c) Area
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Line

Question 5.
Maps produced by analysis can be used to pinpoint problem areas.
(a) GPS
(b) GIS
(c) GNSS
(d) DoD
Answer:
(b) GIS

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): A linear scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts to show what these markings represent on the actual ground.
Reason (R): This scale helps in the direct measurement of distance on the map.
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Satellites do not collect large amounts of data of the entire area in a short span. Reason (R): Sensors in the satellites record the reflected and emitted radiation.
(a) A is wrong and R is correct
(b) Both A and R are hue; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are true; R explains A
Answer:
(a) A is wrong and R is correct

III. Match the following: 

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the first mapmaker.
Answer:
Anaximander was the first ancient Greek to draw a map of the known world. It is for this reason that he is considered by many to be the first mapmaker (the first cartographer).

Question 2.
Who is a Cartographer? What is Cartography?
Answer:
A cartographer is one who measures, analyzes, and interprets geographical information to create maps and charts for political, cultural, and educational purposes. The art and science of map-making are called Cartography.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘Direction’?
Answer:
Maps are drawn normally with north orientation. The North direction in a map is always towards ‘ the North Pole of the earth. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions. The direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrowhead.

Question 4.
What is Projection? Mention the three methods in widest use.
Answer:
A map projection is a way of showing the spherical shaped earth on a flat piece of paper.
The three methods in widest use are as follows:

• Projection on the surface of a cylinder
• Projection on to the surface of a cone
• Projection directly onto a flat plane called planar or zenithal or azimuthal projection

Question 5.
Remote sensing can be either passive or active – Explain.
Answer:

1. Remote sensing can be either passive or active.
2. Active systems emit their own source of light energy such as RADAR.
3. Passive systems depend on sunlight as an energy source.

Question 6.
What are the types of Maps?
Answer:
(a) On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into:

• Large scale maps: A large amount of detail; can only show a small area.
• Small scale map: Small amount of detail; can show a large area.

(b) On the basis of utility and purpose, they are classified as:

• General maps / Topographic Maps (physical and political maps)
• Thematic map (spatial variations of single phenomena)
• Special purpose maps (Braille maps for blind people, maps for neo literates, military maps, navigational charts, etc).

Question 7.
What are the geo objects?
Answer:

1. Geographical objects in the real world are matched to program objects known as geo objects.
2. Geo objects include placemarks, circles, polylines, rectangles, polygons, and their collections.
3. Place markers indicate a place on a map.

V. Give reasons

Question 1.
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period.
Answer:
The foundation for map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period. Mahabharata conceived a round world surrounded by water. Surveying and map-making were an integral part of the revenue collection procedure in the medieval period. E.g.: Sher Shah Suri’s revenue maps and Rajendra Chola’s land survey techniques.

Question 2.
Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map.
Answer:

1. A map is a global language and it needs to be drawn according to the international standards
2. Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map and explained in the legend to convey a definite meaning.

Question 3.
“GPS helps in providing accurate transport data”.
Answer:

1. GPS technology has tremendous applications in everything.
2. It helps in military searches and rescue in wars.
3. It can work as a reliable tourist guide (distance, route and direction)

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Maps and Cartography
Answer:

Maps	Cartography
Maps are drawings of an area as seen from above. Maps can show a whole or part of the world.	The art and science of map-making are called cartography.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is Satellite Remote Sensing? Explain the
(a) components of Remote Sensing
(b) process of Remote Sensing.
Answer:
Satellite remote sensing is the science of collecting data about an object or area from artificial satellites orbiting the Earth. The term ‘satellite imagery’ refers to digitally transmitted images of the satellites.
Components of remote sensing

• Energy source
• Transmission path
• Target
• Sensor

Process of remote sensing

1. The EMR (Electro-Magnetic Radiation) or solar radiation is the primary source of energy for remote sensing.
2. Sunlight travels from the sun through the atmosphere, before it reaches the earth’s surface. In the atmosphere, the sun’s rays are not obstructed by any object.
3. When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, some of its energy is absorbed. While some are transmitted through the surface, the rest is reflected. Surfaces naturally emit radiation in the form of heat. The reflected energy travels from the earth’s surface back to space.
4. Sensors in the satellite record the reflected and emitted radiation. Each surface/object possesses a characteristic spectral signature, a unique pattern of reflecting sunlight.
5. The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted to a ground station where the data are processed into an image.
6. The processed image is interpreted either visually by human interpreters or by computer-aided techniques called digital image processing to identify and distinguish between the different spectral signatures to get information about objects/places.
7. Finally, we understand and apply the extracted information in mapping the area or assist in solving a particular problem.

Question 2.
Describe the
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing
(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing
(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Answer:
(a) Advantages of Remote Sensing

• It is the only practical way to obtain data from inaccessible regions, e.g. Antarctica, Amazon forest.
• It helps in constructing cheap base maps in the absence of detailed land surveys.
• It detects the spread of natural calamities such as flood, forest fire and volcanic eruption, so that immediate rescue operations and planning can be carried out.

(b) Disadvantages of Remote Sensing

• It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
• The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one-time analysis.

(c) Remote Sensing and Disaster Management
Remote sensing technology is highly used in disaster management to study the effects of earthquakes, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption, floods and wildfires. The preliminary data is retrieved from satellites like LANDSAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT, etc. Fire and flood details can be extracted and delivered to relevant authorities within two hours of satellite image capture. E.g. major earthquakes in China and New Zealand, bushfire in Victoria and floods in Kerala. Dynamic phenomena such as floods, movement of wild animals, shoreline changes, finding lost ships and planes. Researchers use satellite imageries for these.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

The Age of Revolutions Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first British colony in America was ……………….
(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
Answer:
(c) Jamestown

Question 2.
The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British was ……………..
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
Answer:
(b) Lafayette

Question 3.
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the ………………
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

Question 4.
The defeat of British at …………….. paved the way for the friendship between France and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer:
(b) Saratoga

Question 5.
…………… was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
Answer:
(a) Versailles Palace

Question 6.
The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at ……………..
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
Answer:
(d) Valmy

Question 7.
Candide was written by …………….
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

Question 8.
The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called …………….
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres
(d) Royalists
Answer:
(d) Royalists

Question 9.
American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ………………
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
Answer:
(d) 1783

Question 10.
Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was …………..
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of Rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Answer:
(a) Common Sense

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress was ……………….
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on …………….
3. The …………… Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
4. The leader of the National Assembly of France was …………….
5. …………. was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty.
6. Louis XVI was arrested at ……………. with his family when he tried to escape from France.

Answers:

1. Benjamin Franklin
2. Massachusetts
3. Currency
4. Mirabeau
5. Herbert
6. Varennes

III Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Perm.
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars. .
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except for the tax on paper.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American . colonies
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions;
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (b)

V Answer the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Townshend Act
(a) Who introduced this Act?
Answer:
The British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced this Act.

(b) In which year was this Act passed?
Answer:
It was passed in 1767.

(c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
Answer:
The colonists opposed this Act as they introduced duties on imports to colonies such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

(d) Why did the merchants of Boston oppose British goods?
Answer:
In March 1770, resentment rose in Boston, when troops fired on a crowd. This incident led to intense anti-British propaganda.

Question 2.
Social life in France
(a) What was the tax collected by the Church in France?
Answer:
The church collected one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings from the common people.

(b) Who was Danton?
Answer:
Danton was a great leader of the Revolution.

(c) Who were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France?
Answer:
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France.

(d) Who provided free labour for the construction of public roads?
Answer:
The peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Who were Puritans? Why did they leave England?
Answer:

1. Puritans had a religious movement to reform the church of England.
2. They dispensed with the teachings and practices of the Roman Catholic Church.
3. Since the Stuart kings ordered the persecution of Puritans, they left England and settled in the colonies they founded to lead a Puritan way of life.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Quakers?
Answer:
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for peace and opposing war.

Question 3.
Point out the significance of “the Boston Tea Party”.
Answer:

1. In many places, the colonists obstructed the import of tea.
2. In Charlestown, they unloaded the tea and let it rot the dock.
3. In New York and Philadelphia ships carrying tea were blocked.
4. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
5. This incident, done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd, was signified as Boston Tea Party.

Question 4.
Attempt an account of “September Massacres”.
Answer:
The people of Paris angered by the action of the Swiss guards in shooting and killing many of them hunted down the supporters of monarchy under their leader Marat. In three days, from September 2, about 1500 suspected dissidents were put in prison. After a trial, they were killed and this incident is called “September Massacres”. .

Question 5.
Explain the composition of “Three Estates of France”.
Answer:
The Estates-General consisted of the representatives of three classes or estates as they were called. They were

• clergy (men and women ordained for religious duties)
• the nobles
• the commoners (comprising lawyers, rich merchants, bankers and businessmen, and wealthy land-owners).

Question 6.
Sketch the role of Lafayette in the French Revolution.
Answer:
Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at Yorktown in 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard as its Commander. He penned the Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen, with the help . of Jefferson, which the National Assembly adopted on August 27, 1789.

Question 7.
What was the background for the storming of Bastille Prison?
Answer:
The king shut out the commoners and the latter assembled in the Tennis-Court and took an oath that they would not disperse until they found a way out to their problems. The King tried to use force but his own soldiers refused to obey his orders. Louis then intrigued to get foreign regiments to shoot down his own people. This provoked the people to rise in revolt in Paris on 14 July 1789. They stormed the Bastille prison and set free all the prisoners.

Question 8.
What were the taxes the peasants had to pay in France on the eve of the Revolution?
Answer:

1. The common people paid one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings.
2. The peasants paid taxes to the state such as Taille (land tax), Gabelle (salt tax), etc., and provided free labour (corvee) for the construction of public roads.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
“Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence – Explain.
Answer:

1. A Series of taxes were imposed on the colonists when the Americans did not have representation in the British Parliament.
2. The Sugar Act of 1764, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act of 1765, and the Stamp Act of 1765 – all their Act were protested by the American Colonists.
3. They called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn.
4. The Townshend Acts of 1767 added fuel to the fire. Merchants of Boston organised a boycott of British Goods.
5. When Townshend Acts were repealed retaining tax, on tea, it led to the incident of the Boston tea party.
6. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
7. This incident, known as the Boston Tea Party, was done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.
8. George Washington became the colonist’s Commander-in-chief and the colonists challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will.
9. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Answer:
There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in the eighteenth century. The most famous writer of the time on rationalistic and scientific subjects was Voltaire (1694 – 1778). When imprisoned and banished, he had to live at Femey near Geneva. Voltaire, Montesquieu (1689 – 1755), and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France. Voltaire, was a prolific writer and activist, and was vehement in his criticism of the Church. His most famous work was Candide. His famous quote was: “those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities.” He is said to have once exclaimed, “I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it.”

Another great writer, a contemporary of Voltaire, but younger than him, was Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712 – 1778). His political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves. His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution. He famously said in his book Social Contract, “Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.” He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by – the general will of the people.

Montesquieu (1689 — 1755), who wrote The Persian Letters and The Spirit of the Laws, also defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers: The liberty of the individual would be best protected only in a government where the powers of its three organs, viz., legislature, executive and judiciary were separate. It would put in place the necessary checks and balances to prevent any one organ from assuming more power to itself.

An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by Diderot and Jean d’Alembert. These philosophers and thinkers, as opposed to religious intolerance and political and social privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures do you think are required to overcome the crisis?
Answer:
To avoid Bankruptcy the following steps can be followed:
(i) Maximize the Revenue
(ii) Attend mandatory credit counseling
(iii) Make ongoing payments to creditors
(iv) Attend mandatory financial-management education
(v) Make a Debt Management Plan
(vi) Settle some (or all) of the Debts
(vii) Stay out of Debts

Question 2.
Attempt a comparative study of American W ar of Independence and Indian Independence
Movement.
Answer:
Comparison between the American War of Independence and Indian Independence Movement:
A. Similarities

1. Both the Americans and the Indians gained their freedom by challenging the British Empire with the use of alternating tactics and policies.
2. Both wanted to be free because they were being coerced and restricted.
3. The British Empire had a major influence on the development of Indian and American human societies.
4. Indians boycotted British products in hopes of helping the Indian economy. Similarly, the Americans boycotted British tea and other products to get the attention of the British rule.

B. Differences

1. Indians chose a peaceful way of gaining independence while Americans chose a violent way. The respective paths they chose were greatly influenced by their culture and the time periods they were in.
2. Their leaders and strategies were extremely different.
3. The American colony was actually a colony where the descendants of British people rebelled against Britain, whereas in India the rebellion was by the natives.
4. The United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no external ally.
5. The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory, while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation.
6. The American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms).
7. The Indian Independence Movement took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
Answer:
You can do this assignment under the guidance of your teacher.

The Age of Revolutions Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pioneers in geographical explorations and the founding of colonies were ……………
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish
(b) The English and the Americans
(c) The Greeks and the Romans
(d) The Chinese and the Japanese
Answer:
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish

Question 2.
The …………….. founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
(a) English
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 3.
The seven years of war between Britain and France took place between ……………..
(a) 1753-1760
(b) 1756-1763
(c) 1755-1762
(d) 1757-1764
Answer:
(b) 1756-1763

Question 4.
The …………… prohibited the import of foreign rum.
(a) Quartering Act of 1765
(b) Sugar Act of 1764
(c) Declaratory Act of 1766
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sugar Act of 1764

Question 5.
Merchants of …………… organized boycott of British goods.
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Philadelphia
(d) Boston
Answer:
(d) Boston

Question 6.
The Spirit of Laws and the Persian letters were written by …………..
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Thomas Jefferson
Answer:
(b) Montesquieu

Question 7.
The French revolution exploded in …………….
(a) 1789
(b) 1788
(c) 1786
(d) 1790
Answer:
(a) 1789

Question 8.
The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for ……………. days in France.
(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 46
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 46

Question 9.
The execution of Louis XVI was on …………….
(a) 21^st Jan 1793
(b) 2^nd Sept 1792
(c) 3^rd Sept 1792
(d) 27^th July 1794
Answer:
(a) 21^st Jan 1793

Question 10.
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of …………..
(a) Danton
(b) Robespierre
(c) Napolean
(d) Herbert
Answer:
(b) Robespierre

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ……………. ship had taken a batch of Puritans from Plymouth England to America.
2. Declaration of Independence was drafted by …………
3. …………. was the founder of the Society of Friends.
4. The native Americans were ……………
5. The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at ……………
6. The …………….. Revolution affected the life and society in the whole of Continental Europe.
7. On the eve of the French Revolution, France was going through a period of …………….
8. The middle class and the peasants together formed the …………..
9. The great leader of the French Revolution was …………….
10. The Consulate was abolished by …………….. in France.

Answers:

1. May Flower
2. Thomas Jefferson
3. George Fox
4. Red Indians
5. Philadelphia
6. French
7. Economic crisis
8. Third Estate
9. Danton
10. Napolean Bonaparte

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The American Revolution was the first political Revolution.
(ii) The French Revolution provided inspiration.
(iii) The Portuguese and the Spanish were the pioneers in Geographical explorations.
(iv) Jamestown was the first American colony in America.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American Revolution affected the life and Society in the whole of Continental Europe.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution laid the foundation for Capitalism.
(iii) The French Revolution helped to end the pre-capital feudal past.
(iv) The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Cornwallis was bom into an aristocratic family.
(ii) Cornwallis joined the army in 1757. ‘
(iii) Cornwallis did not have an active career.
(iv) Cornwallis’s military action in the American war of Independence was not worthy.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Dutch founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
Reason (R): The English later changed the name to New York.
(a) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
American War of Independence
(a) Who stated that no thinking man in North America desired Independence?
Answer:
George Washington

(b) Who was the first President of America?
Answer:
George Washington

(c) What were the grievances of the Americans?
Answer:
Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the 88 British Parliament to tax them against their will.

(d) What was their famous battle cry?
Answer:
“No.taxation without representation”.

Question 2.
Second Continental Congress
(a) When did the Second Continental Congress meet?
Answer:
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at Philadelphia.

(b) Who were the prominent members of the Congress?
Answer:
John Adams, Sam Adams, Richard Henry Lee and Thomas Jefferson were the prominent members of the Congress.

(c) What did they do?
Answer:
They organized the army gathered around Boston as the Continental Army.

(d) Under whose command it was placed?
Answer:
They placed it under the command of George Washington.

Question 3.
Voltaire the French Philosopher
(a) Who was Voltaire?
Answer:
Voltaire was a prolific writer and activist.

(b) What did he criticize?
Answer:
He criticized the Church.

(c) What was his most famous work?
Answer:
His most famous work is ‘Candide’.

(d) What was his famous quote?
Answer:
His famous quote was ‘those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities’. .

Question 4.
The Reign of Terror
(a) Who were the main leaders of the National Convention?
Answer:
Danton, Herbert, and Robespierre were the main leaders of the National Convention.

(b) What was the law of suspects?
Answer:
The Law of Suspects made spreading of false news to divide or instigate the people a punishable crime. ‘

(c) How was the Reign of Terror ended?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre.

(d) How did Robespierre earn notoriety?
Answer:
Though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, he earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on “Plantations and the Slave Labour”.
Answer:
As the Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, the European planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states -Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia- in their search for labour resorted to acquiring slaves from Africa.

The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel and inhuman manner. In the northern States, conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms. Thus two economic systems developed in these colonies. Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back to the west. This was made easier by the disunity and divisions among the Native American tribes.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Native Americans?
Answer:
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called Native Americans (they used to be referred to as ‘Red Indians’; it is now considered demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more), spread over the vast American continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other. Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in numbers today they live in various reserves. :

Question 3.
What was the reaction of the American colonies for the taxes?
Answer:
The American-colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn. This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.

Question 4.
Why was the Townshend Act introduced?
Answer:
The British Parliament however wanted to assert its control over the colonies. In 1766 it passed the Declaratory Act. It affirmed Parliament’s right to legislate for the colonies. There was not much opposition to it as it did not introduce any new taxes. Despite the withdrawal of the Stamp Act, the British still needed money to pay its troops and other expenses in the colonies. Hence, the British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced new duties on imports in 1767. Known as the Townshend Acts, they introduced duties on imports to colonies ‘ such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

Question 5.
Why did the local tea traders boycott the foreign tea?
Answer:
The protests and boycotts made the British Parliament repealed the Townshend Acts. However, it retained the tax on tea, with the intention of encouraging the business of the East India Company by making it easy for it to take its tea to America and sell it there. This harmed the local tea trade and so it was decided to boycott this foreign tea.

Question 6.
Why didn’t the colonies begin fighting for the sake of independence?
Answer:
In 1774, a little before war began between the colonies and England, George Washington stated that no thinking man in North America desired independence. And yet he became the colonists’ commander-in-chief and later the first president of the American Republic. So the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 7.
What were the political reasons for the French Revolution? ‘
Answer:
Louis XV succeeded his great-grandfather Louis XlV and reigned for fifty nine years. He learned no lesson that the king is not above law but bound by law from the English Revolution and the beheading of King Charles I. In 1774 he was succeeded by his grandson Louis XVI.

He was entirely under the influence of his wife Marie Antoinette, who believed, more than the King, in the Divine Right Theory of Kingship – the theory that the king was representative of God on earth and therefore for all his actions he was accountable only to God and not to anybody else. Both the King and the Queen were hated by the people.

Question 8.
How did the Reign of Terror end?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre. Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine. In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the results of American war of Independence.
Answer:
The immediate result of the war was America’s independence. For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonised, leading to the establishment of a republican government in the United States. The colonists wanted to get rid of the feudal inequalities of Europe and they succeeded. For many followers of the Enlightenment in Europe, the language of the Declaration of Independence seemed a living fulfillment of their ideals. The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that “all men are bom equal.” But in reality the poor Black slaves did not fit in this. America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century, to’ abolish slavery.

By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution. These constitutions protected individual rights, freedom of the press, and freedom of religion. The Continental Congress had drafted the Articles of Confederation. The Church and the State were separated. Thomas Jefferson in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom introduced freedom of religion. It was later incorporated into the American Constitution.

The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America. Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French Revolution and the revolutionaries inspired by it were determined to fight against royal absolutism. The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom, including property and political rights.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution had many lasting results. It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France. All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of the clergy was curbed. The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced power of the state. It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle class.

Revolution upheld the theory of people’ sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth of liberal constitutional governments in Europe. Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom-loving people all over the world and inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy in Europe and elsewhere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In current electricity, a positive charge refers to,………………
(a) presence of electron
(b) presence of proton
(c) absence of electron
(d) absence of proton
Answer:
(c) absence of electron

Question 2.
Rubbing of comb with hair ……………………
(a) creates electric charge
(b) transfers electric charge
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) either (a) or (b)

Question 3.
Electric field lines ………….. from positive charge and ………. in negative charge.
(a) start; start
(b) start; end
(c) start: end
(d) end; end
Answer:
(b) start; end

Question 4.
Potential near a charge is the measure of its ………… to bring a positive charge at that point.
(a) force
(b) ability
(c) tendency
(d) work
Answer:
(d) work

Question 5.
In an electrolyte the current is due to the flow of …………. .
(a) electrons
(b) positive ions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) electrons

Question 6.
Heating effect of current is called
(a) Joule heating
(b) Coulomb heating
(c) Voltage heating
(d) Ampere heating
Answer:
(a) Joule heating

Question 7.
Electroplating is an example for
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) flowing effect
(d) magnetic effect
Answer:
(b) chemical effect

Question 8.
Resistance of a wire depends on
(a) temperature
(b) geometry
(c) nature of material
(d) all the above
Answer:
all the above

II. Match the following.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Electric Charge	(a) ohm
2. Potential difference	(b) ampere
3. Electric field	(c) coulomb
4. Resistance	(d) newton per coulomb
5. Electric current	(e) volt

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. True or False.

Question 1.
Electrically neutral means it is either zero or equal positive and negative charges
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Ammeter is connected in parallel in any electric circuit
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: An ammeter is connected in series with a device to measure its current.

Question 3.
The anode in electrolyte is negative
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The anode in electrolyte is positive.

Question 4.
Current can produce magnetic field
Answer:
True

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. Electrons move from ………….. potential to …………….. potential.
2. The direction opposite to the movement of electron is called ……………….. current.
3. The e.m.f of a cell is analogous to ……………. of a pipe line.
4. The domestic electricity in India is an ac with a frequency of ………… Hz.
5. Trip switch is an …………. safety device.

Answer:

1. higher, lower
2. Conventional
3. a pump
4. 50
5. electromechanical

V. Conceptual questions.

Question 1.
A bird sitting on a high power electric line is still safe. How?
Answer:
Birds can sit on power lines and not get electric shocks because the electricity is always looking for a way to get to the ground (i.e.) the current is not flowing out of its body to any other material.

Current flows in a loop (which means the circuit is closed). A bird sitting on a transmission line does not complete the circuit. If the same bird keeps one leg on one line and another leg or any part of its body on another line or the neutral points, then it will get burnt.

Question 2.
Does a solar cell always maintain the potential across its terminals constant? Discuss.
Answer:
The electro-chemical process inside a battery provides electrons at the negative terminal and draws electrons from the positive terminal to maintain the current being drawn. By providing energy to the electrons, the cell is capable of maintaining an electric potential difference across the two ends of the external circuit.

Question 3.
Can electroplating be possible with the alternating current?
Answer:
The heating effect and the chemical effect experiments have to be performed only with a dc cell of around 9V. The 9V dc cell will not give any electrical shock.

At any cost, we should not use the main domestic electric supply which is 220V ac voltage. If it is used it will give a heavy electric shock leading to severe damage to our body.

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
On what factors does the electrostatic force between two charges depend?
Answer:
The numerical value (magnitude) of electric force between two charges depend on the,

• value of charges on them,
• distance between them and
• nature of medium between them.

Question 2.
What are the electric lines of force?
Answer:
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force that would act on a small positive charge. Therefore the lines representing the electric field are called ‘electric lines of force’.

Question 3.
Define electric field.
Answer:
The electric field is the region around a charged body within which its influence can be experienced (i.e) within which it can attract or repel another charged body.

Question 4.
Define electric current and give its unit.
Answer:
Current is the rate at which charges flow past a point on a circuit. Current (I) is represented as, I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\)
The standard SI unit for current is ampere with symbol A.

Question 5.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Ohm’s law states that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its ends, provided the physical conditions like temperature, density, etc. remain unchanged. V α I or V = IR.

Question 6.
Name any two appliances which work under the principle of heating effect of current.
Answer:
The principle of all-electric heating appliances like an iron box, water heater, toaster, etc. works under the principle of heating effect of current.

Question 7.
How are the home appliances connected in general, in series or parallel? Give reasons.
Answer:
In a household electric circuit, different home appliances are connected in parallel to one another due to the following reasons:

• The appliances can be operated independently. If one appliance is switched off, others remain unaffected.
• Each appliance gets the same constant voltage.
• In parallel connection of electrical appliances, the overall resistance of the circuit is reduced due to which the current from the power supply is high.

Question 8.
List the safety features while handling electricity.
Safety features to be followed are:

• Ground connection
• Trip switch
• Fuse.

VII. Exercises.

Question 1.
Rubbing a comb on hair makes the comb get -0.4C.
(a) Find which material has lost an electron and which one gained it.
Answer:
The material is a comb that gained electrons and the hair gained it.

(b) Find how many electrons are transferred in this process.
Answer:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
n = \(\frac { 0.4 }{ 1.6 }\) × 10^{– 19} = 0.25 × 10¹⁹ = 2.5 × 10¹⁸

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in 2 hours through an element of an electric bulb drawing a current of 2.5A.
Answer:
Given: Time ‘t’ = 2 hours = 2 × 60 × 60s
t = 7200s
I = 2.5A
Amount of charge, Q = I × t
= 2.5 × 7200
Q = 18000C

Question 3.
The values of current I flowing through a resistor for various potential differences V across the resistor are given below. What is the value of resistor?
Answer:

I (ampere)	0.5	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0
V (volt)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

[Hint: plot V-I a graph and take slope].

Resistance(R) = \(\frac { ∆V }{ ∆I }\)
= 10.2 – \(\frac { 6.7 }{ 3 }\) – 2 = 3.5/1
R = 3.5Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current In Text Problems

Question 1.
How many electrons will be there in one coulomb of charge?
Solution:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
number of electrons in 1 coulomb = \(\frac{1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 2.
If, 25 C of charge is determined to pass through a wire of any cross-section in 50 s, what is the measure of current?

Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\) = \(\frac { (20C) }{50s}\) = 0.5 \(\frac { C }{ s }\) = 0.5 A

Question 3.
The current flowing through a lamp is 0.2A. If the lamp is switched on for one hour, what is the total electric charge that passes through the lamp?
Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\);q = I × t
1hr = 1 × 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
q = I × t = 0.2A × 3600s = 720C

Question 4.
The e.m.f of a cell is 1.5 V. What is the energy provided by the cell to drive 0.5 C of charge around the circuit?
Solution:
ℰ = 1.5V and q = 0.5C
ℰ = \(\frac { W }{ q }\); W= ℰ × q ; Therefore W = 1.5 × 0.5 = 0.75J

Question 5.
A charge of 2 × 10⁴ C flows through an electric heater. The amount of electrical energy converted into thermal energy is 5 MJ. Compute the potential difference across the ends of the heater.
Solution:
V = \(\frac { W }{ q }\) that is 5 × 10⁶ \(\frac { J }{ 2 }\) × 10⁴ C = 250 V

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is a positive and a negative ion?
Answer:
If an electron is removed from the atom, it becomes positively charged. Hence it is called a positive ion. When an electron is added to an atom, it becomes negatively charged. Hence it is called a negative ion.

Question 2.
Define Electric potential.
Answer:
Electric potential is a measure of work done on the unit positive charge to bring it to that point against all electrical forces. It is represented as ‘V’.

Question 3.
What are the effects of electric current?
Answer:
When current flows in a circuit, it exhibits various effects. The main effects are; heating, chemical, and magnetic effects.

Question 4.
What is resistance?
Answer:
The resistance (R) is the measure of opposition offered by the component to the flow of electric current through it.

Question 5.
What is common to both direct and alternating current?
Answer:
Joule’s heating effect of current is common to both direct and alternating current.

Question 6.
What is a trip switch?
Answer:
It is an electromechanical device which does not allow a current beyond a particular value by automatically switching off the connection.

Question 7.
What are the advantages of AC over DC?
Answer:
Advantages of AC over DC are;

1.  The voltage of an AC can be varied easily using a transformer.
2.  The AC can be carried over long distances using step-up transformers.
3.  The loss of energy while distributing current in the form of AC is negligible.
4.  DC cannot be transmitted as such, but AC can be easily converted to DC.
5.  Generating AC is easier than DC, AC can produce electromagnetic induction which is useful in several ways.

Question 8.
What is the ground connection?
Answer:
A ground connection is a safety feature. The metal bodies of all electrical appliances are connected to the ground by a third wire, apart from the two wires used for electrical connection. The ground connection wire is green in colour, All the ground wires from various electrical sockets are connected together finally to a thick copper wire, hurried deep in the ground, so that excess current flows down instead of entering our body.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the different electrical circuits.
Answer:
There are two types of electrical circuits – Series circuit and Parallel circuit.

• Series circuit – A series circuit has only one path for electricity to flow from one point to another. The amount of electricity in the circuit is constant throughout the circuit. When electricity flows through the circuit, there will be no fluctuation in its speed.
•  Parallel circuit – A parallel circuit has multiple paths for electricity to flow, horizontally and vertically. The components of the parallel circuit will have the same voltage across their ends.

Question 10.
What is the difference between electromagnetic force and potential difference?
Answer:
The e.m.f. refers to the voltage developed across the terminals of an electrical source when it does not produce current in the circuit.

Potential difference refers to the voltage developed between any two points in an electric circuit when there is current in the circuit.

II. Long Answers Questions.

Question 1.
Draw and explain the electric circuit diagram.
Answer:

To represent an electrical wiring or solve problem involving electric circuits, the circuit diagrams are made. The four main components of any circuits namely the,

1.  cell,
2.  connecting wire,
3.  switch and
4.  resistor or load are given above. In addition to the above many other electrical components are also used in an actual circuit. A uniform system of symbols has been evolved to describe them. It is like learning a sign language, but useful in understanding circuit diagrams.

Question 2.
What is the magnetic effect of electricity?
Answer:
A wire or a conductor carrying current develops a magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the flow of current. This is called magnetic effect of current. The discovery of the scientist Oersted and the ‘right hand thumb rule’ are detailed in the chapter on Magnetism and Electromagnetism in this book. Direction of current is shown by the right hand thumb and the direction of magnetic field is shown by other fingers of the same right hand.

Question 3.
Explain fuse.
Answer:

A fuse is another safety mechanism which works on the joule heating principle. Fuse is a wire made up of a Nickel and Chromium alloy which has a definite melting point. If current passes through the fuse beyond a particular desired value, the excess heat produced melts the fuse wire, thus the electrical connection is cut-off. Fuse has to be kept in tight a ceramic enclosure to avoid the melting heat from producing fire accidents.

Question 4.
Name any ten symbols with a diagram.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 State and Society in Medieval India

State and Society in Medieval India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
(a) Dauladabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Bidar
Answer:
(a) Dauladabad

Question 2.
The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by ………………
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Malik Kaffir
Answer:
(c) Aurangzeb

Question 3.
The establishment of ……………… empire changed the administrative and institutional structures of South India.
(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Mughal
(d) Nayak
Answer:
(b) Vijayanagar

Question 4.
Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of …………………
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Aihole
Answer:
(d) Aihole

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous . development in the history of South India.
(ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
(iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
(iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia.
Answer:
(i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
(ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu-speaking people from Madurai.
(iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
(iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves.
Answer:
(i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Mythical geneologies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
(ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
(iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
(iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa.
Answer:
(i) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the east to Africa in the west.
Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A
(b) (ii) A is wrong; R is correct
(c) (iii) A and R are wrong
(d) (iv) A is correct; R does not explains about A.
Answer:
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A

Question 5.
(i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
(ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva asNataraja performing the cosmic dance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India.
2. The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated the Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the battle of ……………
3. Vijayanagara evolved as a ………………
4. The tempo of urbanization increased during ……………… period.
5. ……………… was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.

Answers:

1. Portuguese
2. Talikota
3. Militaristic State
4. Vijayanagar
5. The Chola period

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The arrival of the Europeans
(a) Who controlled the spice trade from India?
Answer:
Muslims controlled the Spice trade from India.

(b) What enabled the Portuguese to have control over maritime trade over the entire region?
Answer:
The Naval superiority enabled the Portuguese to have control over the Maritime trade over the entire region.

(c) How were the trading activities of the Europeans carried on in India?
Answer:
The trading activities of the Europeans carried on through the respective East India Companies in India. ‘

(d) Mention the enclaves of the Dutch, the English, the French, and the Danes in India.
Answer:

• The Dutch were in Pulicat (and later Nagapatnam)
• The English in Madras
• The French in Pondicherry and
• The Danes in Tarangampadi (Tranquebar).

Question 2.
Society, Religion and Culture.
(а) Which is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society?
Answer:
Caste is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society.

(b) What is a guild?
Answer:
The occupational caste groups are referred to as guilds.

(c) Mention some Saivite movements.
Answer:
Saiva Siddhanta in TamilNadu
Virasaivas in Karnataka
Varkarisampradaya in Maharashtra.

(d) Name the court musician of Akbar.
Answer:
Tansen was the court musician of Akbar.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write about the military expeditions of Malik Kafur.
Answer:

1. Malik Kafur was the commander of Alauddin’s forces.
2. He defeated the Mongols in 1306.
3. He led a series of expeditions in the southern part of India against the Yadavas (1308), Kakatiyas (1310), the Hoysalas (1311), and the Pandyas (1311).
4. During these campaigns, he obtained a large number of treasures elephants and horses for the Delhi sultanate.

Question 2.
Who founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom? Mention the dynasties that ruled over the kingdom.
Answer:
Harihara and Bukka, two brothers founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom.
Sangama Dynasty, Saluva Dynasty and Tuluva Dynasties ruled over the Kingdom.

Question 3.
Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
Answer:

1. India had two natural advantages in cotton weaving.
2. The first was that cotton grew in almost all parts of India so that the basic raw material was easily available.
3. Second, the technology of producing a permanent colour on cotton using vegetable dyes was known from very early times in India.

Question 4.
What were the factors which facilitated urbanization?
Answer:

1. It has been observed that cities and towns fulfilled diverse and overlapping roles in the economy.
2. The large cities were centres of manufacturing and marketing, banking and financial services.
3. They were usually located at the intersection of an extensive network of roads which connected them to other parts of the country.
4. Smaller towns were marketing centres in local trade connecting the immediate rural hinterland.
5. Cities also served as political and administrative centres, both in the capital region (for instance, Agra and Delhi) and in the provinces.

Question 5.
What is sericulture?
Answer:

1. Sericulture means silk production by breeding the mulberry silkworm.
2. It was introduced in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries.
3. By the seventeenth century, Bengal had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the political changes during 1526-1707 A.D. (C.E.).
Answer:
(i) The Mughal empire was founded by Babur in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) after he defeated Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat.

(ii) The first six Mughal emperors are referred to as the ‘Great Mughals’. Aurangzeb was the last of the great Mughals.

(iii) Akbar consolidated the Mughal empire through conquests and through a policy of conciliation with the Religious based kingdoms of Rajasthan.

(iv) The Mughal empire began to disintegrate after Aurangzeb, continued to exist nominally till 1857 A.D. (C.E.) when the British finally ended the virtually non-existent empire.

(v) A new power centre rose in Maharashtra in the seventeenth century, and the Marathas
under the leadership of Shivaji seriously undermined the authority of the Mughals in western India.

(vi) At its height, the empire stretched over most of the Indian sub-continent.

(vii) Only the south-western region of Kerala and southern Tamilnadu were not directly under the Mughal rule.

Question 2.
Explain the commercial developments in Medieval India.
Answer:

1. India had an extensive network of trade for marketing the goods.
2. All these kinds of markets co-existed in India on an “ascending scale in the overlapping circuits of exchange”.
3. Big cities were usually major commercial centres, with bazaars and shops.
4. Small ships and boats were used in coastal trade along the western and eastern coasts of the country.
5. Maritime trade across the Indian Ocean, extending from China in the east, to Africa in the west, had flourished for many centuries.
6. Ports like Malacca, Calicut, etc. were ‘entrepots’.
7. In the seventeenth century, Surat in Gujarat, Masulipatnam in the Golkonda kingdom, Chittagong in Bengal, Pulicat, and Nagapatnam on the Coromandel Coast, and Calicut in Kerala were all major ports in Asiatic trade.
8. India exported textiles, pepper, precious and semi-precious stones. its iron and steel were in great demand in the entires Asian regional.
9. It imported from China silk, ceramics, gold, spices, aromatic woods and camphor, silk, Drugs, dye, woods and sugar were imported from Persia.
10. Bankers and money changers operated in all the big cities, and bills of exchange or hundis were used to transfer money from one city to another
11. The European trading companies entered into contracts with the local merchants to carry on their trading activities.
12. But this scenario changed in the eighteenth century. The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.

Question 3.
“Chola Period was an enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu” – Elucidate.
Answer:
(i) The CHOLA PERIOD was an enterprising period when trade and the economy expanded, accompanied by urbanization.

(ii) The administrative machinery was re-organized during the Chola rule.

(iii) The basic unit of local administration was the village (ur), followed by the sub-region (Nadu) and district (kottam). Tax-free villages granted to Brahmins were known as brahmadeya. Marketing centres and towns were known as nagara.

(iv) The ur, nadu, brahmadeya and nagaram each had its own assembly.

(v) They were responsible for the maintenance and management of the water resources and land; the local temples; resolving local issues and disputes; and collecting the taxes due to the government.

(vi) While the Chola state did not intervene in this fundamental system of local administration, they introduced innovations in revenue administration by creating new revenue divisions (mandalam and valanadu). Several new taxes on agriculture and commerce were also introduced.

(vii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples. This had two dimensions: new temples were constructed, and existing temples became multi-functional social and economic institutions.

(viii) The construction of great temples also was a reflection of the growing prosperity in the kingdom, since the activity involved great expenditure.

Student Activities

Question 1.
On the outline map of India mark the important places of medieval India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas.
Answer:
You can collect the pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas and paste them into the Album.

IX Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia.
Answer:
You can collect pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia. You can do this as Home Assignment.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the class on the advantages and disadvantages of urbanization.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a debate on the advantages and disadvantages of Urbanization.

State and Society in Medieval India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by …………..
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(a) Muhammad Ghori

Question 2.
……………… was sent on military expeditions further south in the first decade of the 1300 AD.
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(c) Malik Kafur
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Malik Kafur

Question 3.
Maritime trade with South East Asia and China expanded greatly during the ………….. period.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
The last of the great Mughal was …………….
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(d) Aurangazeb

Question 5.
…………… period was an enterprising period.
(a) The Chola
(b) The Chera
(c) The Pandya
(d) The Pallava
Answer:
(a) The Chola

Question 6.
The most distinctive aspect of Indian society is ……………….
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Culture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Caste

Question 7.
…………….. is a pilgrimage centre.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Varanasi
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Varanasi

Question 8.
………….. was introduced in the 14th century.
(a) Sericulture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sericulture

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Mughal era from the 15th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.
(ii) Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century.
(iii) Arab Muslims had been trading in the ports of the west coast.
(iv) The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Malik Kafur.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Europeans were pre-occupied with trying a find a direct sea route to India.
(ii) The spice trade from India was controlled by Muslims.
(iii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples.
(iv) The Chola period was an enterprising period.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Textiles accounted for nearly 90% of the total exports from India.
(ii) Ainnurruvar had its headquarters in Aihole.
(iii) Coromandel merchants operated from the Persian Gulf and Red sea.
(iv) The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans.
Answer:
(ii) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Sikhism was founded by Guru Nanak.
Reason (R): He lived during 15th and 16th centuries.
(a) A is correct R explains about A
(b) A is the wrong R is correct
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A

Question 5.
(i) India was predominantly an agricultural country.
(ii) A very large population lived in Rural areas and depends on agriculture.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (c)
7. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Mughal era from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the …………….
2. The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of ……………
3. Maritime trade with South-east Asia and China expanded greatly during the …………….
4. The last known Chola emperor was ………………
5. The Mughal empire was founded by ……………. in 1526 A.D.
6. In 1498 A.D Vasco da Gama landed on the …………… coast.
7. The …………….. empire transformed the economy and society of North India.
8. ……………. took roots when the Portuguese arrived in Kerala and set themselves up in Goa.
9. In ……………. India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.
10. …………… had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

Answers:

1. early modem period
2. Alauddin Khalji
3. Chola period
4. Rajendra
5. Babur
6. Kerala
7. Mughal
8. Christianity
9. South
10. Bengal

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The Advent of Islam.
(a) When was Muslim rule established in Delhi? By whom?
Answer:
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by Muhammad Ghori.

(b) Who was trading in the ports of the west coast?
Answer:
Arab Muslim merchants had been trading in the ports of the west coast especially Kerala.

(c) When was the impact of Muslim rule felt?
Answer:
The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Alauddin Khalji.

(d) What was his primary objective?
Answer:
His primary objective was to plunder the wealth, rather than to expand his territory.

Question 2.
The Chola empire in the south.
(a) Who began the territorial expansion?
Answer:
The territorial expansion of the Chola empire began under Rajaraj a I.

(b) What do you know about Rajendra I?
Answer:
The Chola empire expanded further under Rajendra I.
He had successfully taken his armies as far to the northeast up to the river Ganges.

(c) In whose period Maritime trade expanded?
Answer:
Maritime trade expanded with South-east Asia and China greatly during the Chola period.

(d) Against whom did the Naval expeditions sent?
Answer:
The Naval expeditions had been sent against the Sailendra Kingdom of Sri Vijaya, Kadarand, and Ceylon.

(e) What did he earn from this war?
Answer:
This war earned him the title of “the Chola who had conquered the Ganga and Kadaram”.

Question 3.
Urbanization in South India.
(a) Comment on South Indian temples.
Answer:
In South India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.

(b) How were the temples?
Answer:
Temples were large economic enterprises requiring a variety of goods and services to function.

(c) In whose period did the pace of urbanization increase?
Answer:
The pace of urbanization increased during the Vijayanagar period.

(d) How were the Urban centres?
Answer:
Most Urban centres displayed rural characteristics.
For instance, it was not uncommon to find fields with crops within the city.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did the historian ‘Burton Stein describe the different periods of Indian History?
Answer:
The historian Burton Stein, uses the term ‘classical’ to describe the period up to the Gupta empire and dates the ‘medieval’ period from the 7th century A.D.(CE) till the beginning of Mughal rule in the 16th century. The Mughal era, from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.

Question 2.
Who brought out the isolated southern parts into the orbit of the rulers of the North?
Answer:
The Tughlaq kings who came after Alauddin also sent their armies to the south. As a result, the generally more isolated southern part of the country came into the orbit of the rulers of the north. Governors were appointed in various provinces in the Deccan region, and a Sultanate was even established in Madurai.

Question 3.
Mention the five Sultanates who came up in Deccan in the 15th century.
Answer:
By the end of the fifteenth century, five sultanates came up in the Deccan: Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahftiednagar, Berar and Bidar. Bijapur and Golkonda were the largest of these sultanates and the region entered a phase of considerable economic growth and expansion of trade.

Question 4.
How did the Vijayanagar empire wither away?
Answer:

• The rulers of Vijayanagar were almost continuously at war with the Bahmani sultanate as well as with the religion-based kingdoms of Kondavidu and Orissa.
• Finally, the combined forces of the five Deccani Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the Battle of Talikota.
• The Vijayanagar emperors then shifted their capital further south to Penugonda, and eventually to Chandragiri near Tirupati.
• The empire (or what remained of it) finally withered away in the middle of the seventeenth century.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Islamic rule on Indian society?
Answer:
The establishment of Islamic Rule in Delhi made a big impact on Indian society. Initially, Islam did not cause any social tension. Arab merchants, for instance, when they came and settled on the Kerala coast, married local women and led a peaceful life. The situation changed when Islam became a state power. For a medieval ruler one way of asserting imperial authority was to demolish the place of worship of the enemies. Otherwise, Islam as a monotheistic religion had a positive impact on Indian society. It played a decisive role in the evolution of a composite culture.

Question 6.
Why did the Europeans come to India?
Answer:
The Europeans came to India primarily in search of spices. But soon there was an explosion in the demand for Indian textiles in the European markets, often referred to as the ‘Indian craze’. This led to a significant expansion of textile production in India, which was accompanied by an expansion of the production of commercial crops like cotton and indigo, and other dyes.

Question 7.
Give an account of genealogies collected by Colin Mackenzie.
Answer:
(i) Caste groups often petitioned the local ruler for permission to use various symbols of higher status, like the right to wear footwear, the right to carry umbrellas, the right to use certain decorations at funerals, and so on.

(ii) Each caste also created a mythical genealogy to establish its origins; this was used to justify the claim for the right to a higher status in the hierarchy.

(iii) These genealogies are found in many of the manuscripts collected by Colin Mackenzie.

Question 8.
Write a short note on the literary works of the Chola period.
Answer:

• The Chola period was an era of remarkable cultural activity. These were the centuries when major literary works were written.
• The best known classical poet, Kamban, wrote Ramayana in Tamil which was formally
  presented (Arangetram) in the temple at Srirangam. Sekkilar’s Periyapuranam similarly was presented at the temple in Chidambaram.
• Among the other great works of the period are Kalingattup-parani and Muvarula.
• It was also a period when great religio-philosophical treatises like the Sankara-bhashyam and Sri-bhashyam were produced.

Question 9.
Explain the Art and Architecture of the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were well-known for their aesthetic values and were great patrons of the arts. They left behind numerous monuments, in addition to constructing entire cities like Shahjahanabad (Delhi) and Fatehpur Sikri, gardens, mosques and forts. Decorative arts – especially jewellery set with precious and semi-precious gems for items of personal use – flourished under the patronage of the royal household and urban elites. The art of painting also flourished in the Mughal period. Primarily known as Mughal miniatures, they were generally intended as book illustrations or were single works to be kept in albums.

Question 10.
What happened in the business scenario in the beginning of the 18th century in India?
Answer:

• The Indian merchants benefitted from the business opportunities offered by the European companies. .
• But this scenario began to change from the beginning of the eighteenth century.
• The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.
• But by then the local resources were not enough to produce the quantities required and political disturbances also disrupted all economic activity.
• This resulted in most merchants being bankrupted diminishing the economic vitality of the merchant community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the major political changes.
Answer:
(i) The expansion of the Chola empire from the time of Rajaraja which eclipsed the Pandyan and Pallava kingdoms, extending north till Orissa.

(ii) From the twelfth century, the beginning of several centuries of Muslim rule in Delhi, extending throughout North India and the spread of Islam to different parts of the country.

(iii) By the end of the 13th century the eclipse of the great empire of the Cholas and the consequent rise of many religious kingdoms in South India. This ultimately culminated in the rise of the Vijayanagar empire which exercised authority over all of South India and came to be considered the bastion of religious rule in the south.

(iv) The consolidation of Muslim rule under the Mughals in the north, beginning in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) with the defeat of the Ibrahim Lodi by Babur. At its height, the Mughal empire stretched from Kabul to Gujarat to Bengal, from Kashmir to South India.

(v) The coming of the Europeans, beginning with the Portuguese who arrived on the west coast of India in 1498.

Question 2.
Explain the important feature of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
An important feature of Indian agriculture was the large number of crops that were cultivated. The peasant in India was more knowledgeable about many crops as compared to peasants in most of the world at the time. A variety of food grains like wheat, rice, and millets were grown apart from lentils and oilseeds. Many other commercial crops were also grown such as sugarcane, cotton, and indigo. Other than the general food crops, south India had a regional specialization in pepper, cinnamon, spices, and coconut.

In general, two different crops were grown in different seasons, which protected the productivity of the soil. Maize and tobacco were two new crops which were introduced after the arrival of the Europeans. Many new varieties of fruit or horticultural crops like papaya, pineapple, guava, and cashew nut were also introduced which came from the west, especially America. Potatoes, chilies, and tomatoes also became an integral part of Indian food.