Class 6

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Chandragupta 1 crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R): Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of the Lichchavi family.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Chandragupta II did not have a cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II: The divine theory of kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong, but the statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are correct.
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
a. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
b. Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
c. Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
d. Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

1. Lending money at a high rate of interest was practiced.
2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries.

a. 1. is correct
b. 2. is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
Answer:
Samudragupta
Reason: Samudragupta was a king. Others were not.

2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Answer:
Harshacharita
Reason: Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. The other three were written by Harsha.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ the king of Ceylon was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. A Buddhist monk from China ______ visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. ______ invasion led to the downfall of the Gupta Empire.
4. ______ was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was______
6. ______ the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ______ was the popular king of the Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from ______ to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. Sri Meghavarman
2. Fahine
3. Hun
4. Land Tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopal
7. Harsha
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False:

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to the Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following:
A
a. Mihirakula – 1. Astronomy
b. Aryabhatta – 2. Kumaragupta
c. Painting – 3. Skandagupta
d. Nalanda University – 4. Caravan trader
e. Sartavaga – 5. Bagh
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Answer:
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

B
a. Bana – 1.10,000 students
b. Harsha – 2. Prayag
c. Nalanda University – 3. Harshacharita
d. Hiuen – Tsang – 4. Ratnavali
e. Buddhist Assembly – 5 Si-Yu-Ki
a) 4,3,2,1,5
b) 5,2,1,3,4
c) 3,5,1,2,4
d) 2,1,3,4,5
Answer:
3,4,1,5,2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was given the title Kaviraja.
2. Because he was a lover of poetry and music.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The Divine Theory of Kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
2. The king is the representative of God on earth. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribes.
2. They were terrorizing Rome and Constantinople.
3. The white Huns came to India through Central Asia.
4. They were giving trouble to all Indian frontier states.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:

1. Ratnavali
2. Nagananda
3. Priyadharshika

VII. Answer the following briefly :

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.
4. The Prayog Prashasti, composed by Samudragupta’s court poet Harisena was engraved on Allahabad Pillar.
5. This Allahabad Pillar inscription is the main source of information for Samudragupta’s reign.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general.
2. He defeated Vishnugop, the Pallava ruler in the South.
3. He conquered nine Kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of Southern India to the status of feudatories and forced them to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
(i) Classification of land during the Gupta period.

a. Kshetra	–	Cultivable land
b. Khila	–	Wasteland
c. Aprahata	–	Jungle or forest land
d. Vasti	–	Habitable land
e. Gapata Saraha	–	Pastoral land

(ii) Land Tax was the main revenue to the government.

(iii) The condition of the peasants was pathetic. They were required to pay various taxes. They were reduced to the position of serfs.

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

1. The contribution of the traders to the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
2. There were two types of traders, namely Sresti and Sarthavaha.
3. Sresti traders usually settled at a standard place.
4. Sarthavaha traders were caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.
5. Trade items ranged from daily products to valuable and luxury goods.
6. The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.

Question 5.
Highlights the contribution of guptas to architecture.
Answer:

1. The Guptas were the first to construct temples, which evolved from the earlier tradition of rock-cut shrines.
2. Adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, these temples were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora (Maharashtra), Bagh (Madhya Pradesh) and
4. Udaygiri (Odisha).
5. The structural temples built during this period resemble the characteristic features of the Dravidian style.
6. Two remarkable examples of Gupta metal sculpture are
   • a copper image of Buddha about 18 feet high at Nalanda.
   • Sultanganj Buddha seven-and-a-half feet in height.
7. Gupta paintings are found on the Fresco of the Ajanta caves and the Bagh cave in Gwalior.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:
Works of Kalidasa:

1. Dramas: Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra, and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other works are Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava, and Ritusamhara.

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha, himself a poet and dramatist, gathered around him the best of poets and artists.
2. Harsha’s popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda, and Priyadharshika.
3. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta, and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate __________
a. the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
b. the ability of the people to work with gold
c. the prosperity of the kingdom
d. the extravagant nature of kings
Answer:
c. the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on ………………
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for __________
a. renaissance in literature and art
b. expeditions to southern India.
c. invasion of Huns
d. religious tolerance
Answer:
a. renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. The invention of Zero and the consequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses.
3. He was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.
Mauryan Society:

1. According to Megasthenes, the Greek historian, the ancient Mauryan society comprised of seven divisions namely philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councillors which were referred to as castes.
2. In the ancient Mauryan society, the cultivators formed the largest group becoming the central nerve of agriculture in society.
3. The caste system was a very prevalent one.
4. Women were also engaged in a variety of activities like archers, royal bodyguards, spies, and performers.
5. But women were most of the time dominated by their male counterparts.
6. Wisdom had a very honorable place in society. Offenses against women were severally dealt with.
7. An urban way of life developed. Education became fairly widespread.
8. Slavery in India was beginning to make an appearance.

Gupta Society:

1. Society has adhered to four vama system.
2. According to the laws of Manu, which was in force, women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
3. Polygamy was widely prevalent.
4. The kings and the feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Inscriptions refer to Kubernaga and Dhruvasvamini as the queens of Chandragupta II.
6. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

X. Life Skills :

Question 1.
Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta:

1. Aryabhatta (476-550CE) was the first of the major mathematician-astronomers from the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian astronomy.
2. His major work, Aryabhatiya is a compendium of mathematics and astronomy.
3. Aryabhatiya covers several branches of mathematics such as algebra, arithmetic, plane and spherical trigonometry.
4. Aryabhatta discovered the position of nine planets and expressed that these likewise rotate around the sun.
5. He also provided the circumference and measurement of the Earth and the radius of the orbits of 9 planets.
6. Aryabhatta pronounced that the moon has no light of its own.
7. He concluded that the earth is round. He also stated that it rotates on its own axis, which is why we have days and nights.
8. He concentrated on a few geometric and trigonometric parts of the celestial sphere that are still used to study stars.
9. In his old age, Aryabhatta composed another treatise ‘ Aryabahatta – Siddhanta’. It is the booklet for everyday astronomical calculation for performing rituals, To this very day, astronomical data provided in this text is used for preparing panchangs (Hindu Calendars).
10. India’s first Satellite Aryabhatta was named after him.

Varahamihira:

1. Varahamihira (505-587CE) was an Indian astronomer, mathematician and astrologer from Ujjain.
2. Varahamihira is considered to be one of the Nine gems (Navarathnas) of the court of ancient ruler Yashodarman.
3. His knowledge of westren astrology was thorough but he was also very intrested in astrology and horoscope
4. His father was a worshipper of the Sun God and it was he who taught astrology.
5. Varahamihira was a scientist. He declared that the earth was spherical. He was the first to claim that some ‘force’ might be keeping bodies stuck to the round earth. This force is now called gravity.
6. He proposed that the moon and the planets are lustrous not because of their own light but due to Sunlight.
7. His book Panchasiddhantika on mathematical astronomy is one of the most important sources for the history of Hindu Astronomy.
8. His encyclopedia Brihat-Samhita with 106 chapters include subjects planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, growth of crops, various rituals.

Brahmagupta – (598-668 CE):

1. Brahmagupta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer. He wrote some important works on both mathematics and astronomy.
2. His most famous work is “Brahmasphutasiddanta”.
3. Brahmagupta explained how to find the cube and cuberoot.
4. He was the earliest known mathematician to treat zero as a number in its own right.
5. He dedicated a substantial portion of his work to geometry and trigonometry
6. He explains that since the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun, the degree of the illuminated part of the moon depends on the relative position of the sun and the moon. This can be computed from the size of the angle between the bodies.
7. In his treatise, Khandakhadyaka explored the longitudes of the planets, diurnal rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, rising and settings etc.

Question 2.
Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.
Answer:
ISRO :

1. The Indian space Research Organisation is the space agency of the government of India.
2. Its headquarters is in the city of Bangalore.
3. it was formed in 1969.
4. It built India’s first satellite “Aryabhatta” in 1975.

Satellite Launching:

1. Usually, the word ‘Satellite’ refers to a machine that is launched into space and moves around the Earth or another body in space.
2. Moon is an example of a natural satellite. Thousands of artificial or Man-made satellites orbit Earth.
3. India has two operational launchers:
   • Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
   • Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

XI. Answer Grid :

Who was Toromana? Ans: Chief of the Huns	Name the high-ranking officials of the Gupta Empire. Ans: Dandanayakas and Mahadanayakas
Name the Gupta kings who performed Asvamedha yagna. Ans: Samudra Gupta Kumaragupta I	Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses. Ans: Surya Siddhanta
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins. Ans: Sri Guptha	Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign? Ans: Allahabad Pillar Inscription
Harsha was the worshipper in the beginning. Ans: Lord Shiva	University reached its fame during the Harsha period. Ans: Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires: Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Devichandraguptam was written by _______
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Harisena
(c) Bana
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(a) Visakhadatta

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasizes the importance of ……………
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
Vishnugopa was the ruler of _______
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Pallava
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Pallava

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara ……………
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

Question 5.
Srimeghavarman was a contemporary of _______
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Narasimhagupta
Answer:
(c) Samudragupta

Question 6.
Nitisara was authored by _______
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Visakhadatha
(c) Kamandaka
(d) Harisena
Answer:
(c) Kamandaka

Question 7.
Hinayana and Mahayana were the two sects of
(a) Vaishnavism
(b) Saivism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Contribution of the traders for the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
Reason (R) : The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.
a. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Kumaragupta built the famous Nalanda University.
Statement II: Fahien spent many years studying Buddhism at Nalanda University.
a. Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are wrong.
d. Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.

1. Lichchhavi was old gana-sanga.
2. Srigupta was given the title “Kaviraja’

a. 1 is correct
b. 2 is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
a. 1 is correct

Question 4.
Circle the odd one.

Question 1.
Kshetra, Vasti, Nitisara, Khila.
Answer:
Nitisara
Reason: Nitisara is a book, whereas the other three were the classification of land in Gupta’s period.

Question 2.
Pataliputra, Benaras, Magadha, Mathura
Answer:
Magadha
Reason: Magadha was an ancient kingdom, whereas the other three were the famous trade centers.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hiuen Tsang authored _______
2. Fahien visited the court of _______
3. The last of the great Guptas was _______
4. The last recognized king of the Gupta empire was _______
5. The espionage system of the Gupta was known as _______
6. Pushyabhuti dynasty ruled from _______
7. Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneswar to _______
8. Sasanka of Bengal was hostile to _______
9. Harsha met the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang at _______
10. Harsha built the charitable institution to care for the _______

Answer:

1. Si-Yu-Ki
2. Chandragupta II
3. Baiaditya /Narasimha Gupta I
4. Vishnugupta
5. Dutakas
6. Thaneswar
7. Kanau
8. Harsha
9. Kajangala
10. Sick and Poor

IV. True or False :

1. The surname Devaraja referred to Vikramaditya.
2. Chandragupta II built the Nalanda University.
3. Aprahata meant Jungle or forest land.
4. Sresti traders were caravan traders.
5. Asvamedha Yagna means horse sacrifice ritual.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match:
A
Kalidasa – 1. Architect
Sanku – 2. Physician
Varahamihira – 3. Sanskrit Poet
Dhanvantri – 4. Magician
Vittalbhatta – 5. Astronomer
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 3,1,5,2,4
d)4,2,3,1,5
Answer:
c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
Amarasimha – 1. Grammarian
Kahapanaka – 2. Sanskrit Poet
Varauchi – 3. Lexicographer
Harisena – 4. Buddhism
Hinayana – 5. Astrologer
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 4,5,3,1,2
d)5,3,2,4,1
Answer:
b) 3,5,1,2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was Srigupta?
Answer:

1. Srigupta is considered to be the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
2. He is believed to have reigned over parts of present-day Bengal and Bihar.
3. He was the first Gupta ruler to be featured on coins.
4. He was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta, he is portrayed playing the harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title “Kaviraja7.

Question 3.
Mention the surnames of Chandragupta II.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, SimhachandraJ Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.

Question 4.
What do the seals and inscriptions reveal about Gupta’s military administration?
Answer:

1. Seals and inscriptions mentioned the military designations as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita (Commander of infantry and cavalry respectively).
2. The system of espionage included spies known as dutakas.

Question 5.
What were the metals used by the Guptas?
Answer:
Guptas used iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica, manganese, and red chalk.

Question 6.
Was there the development of Sanskrit grammar during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta period saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on the grammar of Panini and Patanjali who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Mahabhashya respectively.

Question 7.
Why did Harsha embrace Buddhism?
Harsha embraced Buddhism under the influence of his sister Rajyashri and the Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen Tsang.

Question 8.
As a Buddhist, what are the contributions of Harsha?
Answer:

1. Harsha belonged to the Mahayana school of thought.
2. Harsha treated Vedic scholars and Buddhist monks alike and distributed Charities equally to them.
3. He was the last Buddhist sovereign in India.
4. As a pious Buddhist, Harsha stopped the killing of animals for food.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Chandragupta II.
Answer:

1. Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta.
2. He was also known as Vikramaditya.
3. He conquered western Malwa and Gujarat by defeating the Saka rulers.
4. He maintained a friendly relations with the rulers of southern India.
5. The iron pillar near Qutub Minar is believed to have been built by Vikramaditya.
6. Fahien, a Buddhist scholar from China, visited India during his region.
7. Vikramaditya is said to have assembled the greatest writers and artists [Navaratna (Nine Jewels)] in his court.
8. He was succeeded by Kumaragupta

Question 2.
What do you know about society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to the four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practiced during the Gupta rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nalanda University.
Answer:

1. Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj.
2. At Nalanda, Buddhism was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature, and Medicine were also taught.
3. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism at the University.
4. Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus.
5. Nalanda was ravaged and destroyed by Turkish Muslims.
6. Today it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 4.
Explain the Gupta Monetary System under Samudra Gupta.
Answer:

1. Samundragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system.
2. Kushana coins provided inspiration to Samudragupta.
3. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara.
4. Gupta’s issued many gold coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins.
5. However, the post-Gupta period saw a fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.

Question 5.
Write about the conquests of Harshavardhana.
Answer:

1. The most popular king of the Vardhana dynasty was Harshavardhana. He ruled for 41 years.
2. His feudatories included those of Jalandhar, Kashmir, Nepal, and Valabhi.
3. Sasanka of Bengal remained hostile to him.
4. It was Harsha who unified most of northern India.
5. He maintained a cordial relationship with the rulers of Iran and China.
6. But the extension of his authority in the south was checked by Chalukya king Pulikesin II.
7. The kingdom of Harsha disintegrated rapidly into small states after his death in 648 AD

Question 6.
Who was Hiuen Tsang?
Answer:

1. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveller, known as the “Prince of pilgrims”, visited India during Harsha’s reign.
2. His book ‘Si-yu-ki’ provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious, and cultural conditions of India during Harsha’s time.
3. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held at Prayag.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of the assemblies held at
a) Kanauj
b) Prayag.
Answer:
a. Assembly held at Kanauj:

1. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings.
2. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and Vedic scholars attended the assembly.
3. The golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in the monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.

b. Assembly at Prayag:

1. In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars, and poor people.
2. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all four days of the assembly

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by _______
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(d) Neerarum Kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Mana

Question 3.
Who wrote the most ramous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 4.
________ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non-violence?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is _______
(a) sky blue
(c) blue
(b) navy blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy bluel

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in ……………..
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by _______
(a) Devandranath Tagpre
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(d) Balagangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is ……………..
(a) 50 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(c) 52 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by _______ at the 1896 session of the National Congress
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10
________ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi.
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Vice President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The National emblem was adapted from the Ashoka pillar of ______
2. The National fruit of India is______
3. The National Bird of India is______
4. Our National tree is the______
5. The Flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in______
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ______
7. ______ started the Saka Era
8. The longest river in India is______
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ______
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has______ spokes

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pingali Venkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya
10. 24

III. Choose the correct answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the ______ museum (Kolkata/Samath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in ______
3. ______ is declared as our National Microorganism (Lactobacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lactobacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks:

1. Saffron — Courage ; White – _______
2. Horse — Energy; Bull – _______
3. 1947 — Independence day; 1950 – _______

Answer:

1. Honesty, peace, purity
2. Hard work and dedication
3. Republic day

V. Choose the Correct Option:

1) Rabindranath Tagore – a.National Song
2) Bankim Chandra Chatteijee – b. National Flag
3) Pingali Venkayyac. – c. Astro Physicist
4) Meghnad Saha – d. National Anthem
a) a d b c
b) d a c b
c) d a b c
Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and choose the wrong answer:

1. National Reptile – Tiger
2. National Aquatic Animal – Lactobacillus
3. National Heritage Animal – King Cobra
4. National Micro organism – Dolphin

Answer:

1. National Reptile – King Cobra
2. National Aquatic Animal – Dolphin
3. National Heritage Animal – Tiger
4. National Micro organism – Lactobacillus

VII. Choose the Wrong sentence:

Question 1.
a) The ratio of our National Flag’s length and breadth is 3:2
b) The Chakra has 24 spokes
c) The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
c) The Chakra is Blue in colour [Clue: Navy Blue is correct]

Question 2.
a) The National Flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya
b) The First-ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum
c) The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam
Answer:
b) The First-ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum,

VIII. Choose the correct sentence:

a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day
b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti
Answer:
a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The Green represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white represents honesty, peace, and purity.
4. The wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. Our National emblem consists of two parts the upper and the lower parts.
2. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East, and West on a circular Pedestal.
3. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion. The wheel of the right sourness is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National anthem?
Answer:

1. Our National Anthem symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our nation.
2. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore.
3. It has to be sung at a duration of 52 seconds.
4. While singing the National Anthem everyone should stand erect.
5. While singing it one should understand the meaning of it.
6. Jana Gana Mana was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali
7. This was accepted by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January 1950.
8. It symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our nation.

The rules to be observed while singing the Anthem

1. This anthem has to be sung at a duration of 52 seconds.
2. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem,
3. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee Symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian Rupee sign is the official currency of India. (Designed by D. Udhaya Kumar)
2. It was presented to the public by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.
3. Shershah Sur’s currency was Rupiya.
4. This Rupiya has been transformed into Rupees the Indian Currency.
5. The symbol of Rupees in.
6. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in 2010.

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The national emblem is found at the top of Government Communication, Indian Currency, and Passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National Pledge?
Answer:
Pydimarri Venkata Subha Rao wrote the National Pledge.

Question 7.
What are the animals found in the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
An elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion are found at the bottom of the emblem.

Question 8.
What are the natural national Symbols?
Answer:

1. Banyan tree
2. Peacock
3. River Ganges
4. Dolphin
5. King Cobra
6. Lotus
7. Tiger
8. Elephant
9. Lactobacillus
10. Mango

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, the peacock sanctuary is located at Viralimalai.

X. Activities:

Question 1.
What should we do to protect the endangered plants and animals – Discuss.
Answer:

1. Grow native plants.
2. Reduce your water consumption.
3. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
4. Do not buy plastic products.
5. Volunteer your time to protect the wildlife in your area.
6. Do not purchase products from companies
7. Avoid supporting the market in illegal wildlife including tortoise-shell, ivory, and coral.
8. Herbicides and pesticides are hazardous pollutants that affect wildlife at many levels.
9. Educate friends and relatives about endangered species in your area.

Question 2.
Celebrate the national eyents in your school and prepare a news item for a local
newspaper.
Answer:
Republic Day Celebrations in our XYZ Hr. Sec. School
A Report
On the morning of 26th Jan, our school, XYZ Hr. Sec. School, celebrated Republic Day in the school premises. It was a matter of great pride for all of us. Our Headmaster, teachers and the students didn’t want to leave any stone unturned in making this monumental day a memorable one.

The DIG of the City Police was the Chief Guest. He came on time. He was warmly welcomed by the whole staff led by our Headmaster. Then our Headmaster took him to the Function venue. There our hon’ble guest unfurled the national flag. With that everybody stood erected for National Anthem sung by the students. Then there were parades by NCC cadets of the school. After this, students presented cultural items.

These cultural items included patriotic songs, folk dances and speeches. Some students also presented skit based on fight against terrorist. Then there were speakers who through their speeches invoked the precious contribution of great freedom fighters.

With a couple more cultural items, the function ended with the national anthem. Towards the end, all the people there flew colored balloons symbolizing prosperity and peace. Despite the weather being inclement, we enjoyed Republic Day with great enthusiasm. Along with other students, I will never forget this wonderful day.

XI. Life skill activity:

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:
Along with various animals and birds, which form part of the national symbols of India, the Indian government adopted a microorganism called lactobacillus delbrueckii in the year 2012 as our national microorganism.

The reason for doing so is primarily educational and to create awareness among people about the importance of microorganisms. Lactobacillus is an important bacteria used in food production.

Lactobacillus species are used for the production of yogurt, cheese, sauerkraut, pickles, beer, wine, cider, kimchi, cocoa, and other fermented foods, as well as animal feeds, such as silage.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols InText Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:

1. By law, the flag is to be made of Khadi.
2. The right to manufacture the flag is held by the Khadi Development and Village Industries Commission who allocates it to regional groups.
3. As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
Wildlife Protection Act was passed in the year.
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1973
Answer:
(c) 1972

Question 2.
The National flower of India is
(a)’ Lotus
(b) Jasmine
(c) Rose
(d) Lily
Answer:
(a) Lotus

Question 3.
The Government of India adopted the Elephant as a natural National symbol in the year.
(a) 1950
(b) 1963
(c) 1973
(d) 2010
Answer:
(d) 2010

Question 4.
Congress committee in 1911 Was held at
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(c) Kolkata

Question 5.
The symbol Indian National Currency was designed by
(a) Ravikumar
(b) Udhyakumar
(c) Krishnakumar
(d) Manojkumar
Answer:
(b) Udhyakumar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in _______
2. Tirupur Kumaran honoured with the title _______
3. Satyameva Jayate means _______
4. Lactobacillus was accepted as our National Microorganism in the year _______
5. SherShah sur introduced rupee currency Rupiya in the _______
6. During a leap year, the spring equinox begins on _______
7. World’s biggest democracy is _______
8. Aaduvome Pallu Paduvome” was sung by _______ Over the AIR
9. The first citizen of India is the _______
10. On Republic Day, the _______ of India the National Flag at the red fort, New Delhi
11. The International Day of Non-violence is observed on _______

Answer:

1. Chennimalai
2. Kodi Katha Kumaran
3. Truth alone Triumphs
4. 2012
5. Sixteenth Century
6. March 21th
7. India
8. T.K. pattammal
9. President
10. President
11. 2nd October

III. Match the following:

1.	The First Indian Flag	a.	Chennai
2.	Pingali Venkayya	b.	Passport
3.	St. George’s Fort	c.	National Calendar
4.	National Emblem	d.	Gudiyatham
5.	Meghnad Saha	e.	Andhra Pradesh

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the ‘Beating Retreat’ Ceremony.
Answer:
On January 29, the third day of Republic Day, the celebrations are brought to an end with the “ Beating Retreat” ceremony. This is performed by the bands of the Indian Army, Navy, and Airforce. The President of India is the chief guest of this day. Rashtrapati Bhavan will be illuminated at 6 pm as a part of the celebration.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kodi Katha Kumaran.
Answer:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai of Erode district.
2. As a youth, he actively participated in the freedom struggle of India,
3. in 1932, when Gandhiji was arrested, there were protests all over India.
4. Tirupur Kumaran took an active part in these protests.
5. He lost his life when the police attacked him violently.
6. He held on to the tricolor flag even when he died.
7. He was honoured with the title, ‘Kodi Katha Kumaran’.

Question 3.
Write about Tamil Nadu’s National Symbols.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the natural national symbols.
Answer:

1. Banyan tree (1950). It is a symbol of pride and has many medicinal values.
2. Peacock (1963). It is native to Asia and the only bird which has a tail.
3. River Ganges (2008) is a perennial river and many royal capitals flourished on its banks.
4. River Dolphin (2010). It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river eco-system. It is on the endangered list.
5. King Cobra – It is the World’s longest venomous snake and lives in the rain forests and plains of India.
6. Lotus (1950) Though it grows in muddy water, it blooms with beauty.
7. Tiger (1973) It is the largest cat species. India has 70% of the tiger population in the world.
8. Elephant (2010) It is native to mainland Asia and plays a critical role in maintaining the region’s forests.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Identify the fresh water ecosystem.
(a) Pond
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 2.
Producers are
a. Animals
b. Birds
c. Plants
d. Snakes
Answer:
c. Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
(a) Plastic
(b) Coconut Shell
(c) Glass
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(b) Coconut shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
a. Recycling
b. Reuse
c. Pollution
d. Reduce
Answer:
c. Pollution

Question 5.
Usages of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes pollution.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Water pollution

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called _______
2. Temperature, light and wind are _______ factors.
3. _______ is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread _______ and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, _______ and Recycle.

Answers:

1. Herbivores
2. Physical
3. Recycling
4. Diseases
5. Reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
The Pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
Answer:
False. Human and animal wastes are examples of biodegradable waste.

Question 4.
Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
Answer:
False. Excessive use of pestides leads to water pollution.

Question 5.
In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Biotic factor – Terrestrial Ecosystem
2. Sewage – Land pollution
3. Fertilizers – Air pollution
4. Desert – Water Pollution
5. Smoke – Animals

Answer:

1. Biotic factor – Animals
2. Sewage – Water pollution
3. Fertilizers – Land pollution
4. Desert – Terrestrial ecosystem
5. Smoke – Air pollution

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

Question 1.
Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake
Answer:
Carrot → Rabbit → Snake → Eagle

Question 2.
Human → Insect → Algae → Fish
Answer:
Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living and non-living things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems:

1. Natural ecosystem
2. Artificial ecosystem

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Recycling things:

1. Using old clothes to make paper.
2. Melting some plastics to make floor mats, plastic boards, and hose pipes.

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution :

1. Air Pollution.
2. Water Pollution.
3. Land (Soil) Pollution.
4. Noise Pollution.

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → fish

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:

1. Toxic gases and fine particles from burning fossil fuels, chemicals released from factories.
2. Sewage, industrial effluents, pesticides and fertilizers
3. Plastics and electronics are land pollutants.

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?
a. Loud Speaker
b. Plastic
Answer:
a. Loud Speaker – Causes noise pollution.
b. Plastic – Causes land (soil) pollution.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘‘Biodegradable” is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun and microorganisms, etc.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour left-over oil, old medicines or waste, down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Use wastewater for the garden at home.
4. Do not litter or dump waste – always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:
Importance of food chain

1. Learning the food chain helps us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. Understanding the food chain also helps us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem.
3. This is important because pollution impacts the ecosystem. The food chain can be used to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
1. Avoid:

• Avoid buying packaged foods.
• Refuse to buy use and throw plastic products.
• The usage of such unwanted materials may create more debris.

2. Reduce:

• Use durable goods that last longer instead of things that are used once and thrown away.
• (Eg.) Write on both sides of paper.
• Instead of unnecessary printing use electronic facilities.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is caused by loud sounds.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution which affects the environment.
3. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
4. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
5. It leads to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
6. Loud noise or music can damage our ears.
7. It also disturbs animals. For example in noisy areas birds have to communicate louder so they can hear each other.
8. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:

1. The food chain in a grassland ecosystem is given below.
2. Plants 2 Deer 2 Tiger
3. Here if any one component of the food chain is harmed, the other living things are affected.
4. For example, if the deer populations in a forest is reduced through natural or human activities, the tigers living in the forest will not have enough food to eat and so the number of tigers may get reduced.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. Dengue and malaria fever are caused by the bite of mosquitoes.
2. Accumulation of waste and stagnant water or uncovered containers of stored drinking water are the habitat for breeding mosquitoes.
3. In order to control these infectious diseases, people should maintain a clean environment, free from mosquitoes.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?
Answer:

1. The atmosphere is polluted in this picture. It is due to the smoke rising from burning garbage.
2. Land and water have been polluted because of leaching the toxins into the soil and water.

Questions 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
Types of pollution caused:

1. Air pollution.
2. Land pollution.
3. Water pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Think of the objects in your home. Just keep in mind, the books, toys, furniture, food materials and even pets of your home. These living and non-living things together make your home. Look at the following picture and list out the living and non-living things.

Answer:
Living things: Plants, Beetle, Mosquito, Larva, Water snake, Water scorpion, Snail, Fish, Duck, and Frog, etc.
Non- living things: Sun, Air, Water, Chemicals, Soil, Rocks and Temperature, etc.

Activity 2

Take a square paper. Fold its diagonals. Draw three lines in three triangles as shown in the picture.
Cut from the edge of the diagonal to the centre as shown in the picture.

If you fold this triangle and paste behind the third triangle you get a pyramidal shape.

In one of the triangles, draw images of each of the organisms in the different levels.

In another triangle write the names of the organisms. In the last triangle, write the energy level of the organism. Have a look at the following example. You must come up with different organisms!

Answer:

Activity 3

Take two mud pots or glass jars and fill them up with garden soil. In the first pot, mix wastes such as banana peel, some vegetable peels and a few tree leaves into the soil. In the second pot, mix a piece of the plastic carry bag, sweet wrapper, and metal foil into the soil.

What happen to the waste materials placed in both pots? Do you notice a difference between the first and second pot? Observe the changes over two weeks and discuss with your classmates.
Answer:
After two weeks, the wastes in the first pot, such as banana peel, some vegetable peel and tree leaves are degraded.

The wastes in the second pot such as carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil are not degraded.

Because the first pot has biodegradable wastes. So they are degraded. But the second pot has non-biodegradable wastes. So they are not degraded.

Activity Pg.No : 53

Question 1.
Give some examples for Biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Preparation of Vermi Compost

1. Dig a pit for about one feet depth in the backyard or garden of your home or school.
2. Fill the pit with bio-wastes, paper, and food wastes, place few earthworms in it, sprinkle water, and close the place with jute or cardboard and ensure moisture all the time.
3. After 45 days the vermi casting layer formed just above the pit.
4. These castings will be applied to the plant.
5. This contains water-soluble nutrients.
6. This type of compost helps in plant growth as well as sustain the land is fertility.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Classroom Exercise:
Identify who am I?

Question 1.
I am the type of pollution caused by the burning of fossil fuels like petrol (or) coal and the smoke of burning garbage. I float around and cause breathing problems. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Air.

Question 2.
I am the type of pollution caused by loud sounds and I can cause serious damage to your ears and also affect sleep. In India, I am mainly caused by loudspeakers and the honking of air horns of cars. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Noise.

Question 3.
I flow from homes and farms into rivers and lakes. I kill fish and make water unfit for drinking. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Water.

Question 4.
I am the type of pollution caused by using too much chemical fertilizers and pesticides by farmers. I lower the quality of soil and even move chemicals into plant parts which are eaten by people. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Land.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
These are abiotic factors.
i. Sunlight
ii. Bacteria
iii. Air
iv. Plants
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Answer:
(b) i and iii

Question 2.
Pick out the terrestrial ecosystem
(a) lake
(b) mountain regions
(c) deserts
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c – mountain regions deserts

Question 3.
_______ are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposer
(d) Omnivores
Answer:
(a) Producers

Question 4.
The primary energy production in the world of living things is made by?
(a) aquatic insect
(b) rabbit
(c) plants
(d) deer
Answer:
(c) plants

Question 5.
Natural agents like _______ are the decomposition factors breaking complex forms into the simpler units.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) microorganisms
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The average person in India produces _______ kg of waste everyday
(a) 0.45
(d) 055
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.55
Answer:
(a) 0.45

Question 7.
Most _______ pollution is caused by the burning of these fossil fuels.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Air
(d) Noise
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 8.
Among the following which one is not polluted by noise pollution?
(a) Sounds of motor vehicles
(b) Music from the radio
(c) Firing crackers
(d) Loud music
Answer:
(b) Music from the radio

Question 9.
_______ Pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
(a) Noise
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(a) Noise

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ are called as biotic factors.
2. _______ is the best example of a natural terrestrial ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem originated without human intervention is called _______
4. The ecosystem in water is called the _______ ecosystem.
5. _______ obtained energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms.
6. The sequence of who eats whom in an ecosystem is called _______
7. The food chain begins with the energy given by the _______
8. Each level in the food chain is called a _______ level.
9. The burning of solid waste in _______ is called incineration.
10. Garbage buried inside landfills remain here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become _______
11. Polluted _______ affects the skin, eyes, and respiratory system.
12. Land (Soil) pollution happens when toxic change the natural balance in the soil.

Answers:

1. Plants
2. Forest
3. Natural ecosystem
4. Aquatic
5. Bacterium
6. Food chain
7. Sun
8. Trophic
9. Incinerator
10. Manure
11. Air
12. Chemicals

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the artificial terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
False. Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the natural terrestrial ecosystem.

Question 2.
Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the terrarium.
Answer:
False. Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the aquarium.

Question 3.
Animals that eat both plants and animals are called Carnivores.
Answer:
False. Animals that eat both plants and animals are called Omnivores.

Question 4.
In a food, chain grasshopper gets energy by eating frogs.
Answer:
False. In a food, chain frog gets energy by eating a grasshopper.

Question 5.
If we protect the ecosystem, we can reduce waste by using durable goods.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that can be easily decomposed.
Answer:
False. The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that cannot be easily decomposed.

Question 7.
The process by which waste materials are used to make new products is called recycling.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Expired medicines, used batteries are domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Lcrud noise or even loud music can damage our eyes.
Answer:
False. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears.

IV. Match the following :

A.

i.	Abiotic factor	(a)	Deer
ii.	Decomposers	(b)	Owl
iii.	Herbivores	(c)	Heat
iv.	Carnivores	(d)	Human
v.	Omnivores	(e)	Fungi

Answers:
i – c
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – d.

B.

i.	Avoid the usage	(a)	Recycle
ii.	Sharing newspapers	(b)	Incinerate
iii.	Using of fountain pens	(c)	Buying packaged food
iv.	Using old clothes to make paper	(d)	Reducing
v.	Human anatomical waste	(e)	Reusing

Answers:
i – c
ii – d
iii – e
iv – a
v – b.

C.

i.	Burning coal	(a)	Land pollution
ii.	Throwing plastic	(b)	Noise pollution
iii.	Wastewater from factories is mixed with river	(c)	Air pollution
iv.	Louder horn of vehicle	(d)	Water pollution

Answers:
i – c
ii – a
iii – d
iv – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Biotic factor : Animals :: Abiotic factor : _______
Answer:
Air or Water.

Question 2.
Natural terrestrial ecosystem : Forest:: Artificial terrestrial ecosystem : _______
Answer:
Garden.

Question 3.
Primary Consumer : Goat, Cow :: Secondary Consumer : _______
Answer:
Frog, Owl.

Question 4.
Biodegradable waste: Leaves, Garden wastes:: Non-biodegradable waste: _______
Answer:
Plastic cover, glass bottle.

Question 5.
Edaphic factor : Water in soil:: Physical factor : _______
Answer:
Light.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
List out the following by biotic and abiotic factors. (Sun, plants, animals, air, soil, bacteria, heat, minerals.
Answer:
Abiotic Factors:
Sun, Air
Water, Soil
Heat, Minerals

Biotic Factors:
Plants
Animals
Bacteria

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the landfill.
Answer:

1. Land filling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring or man-made pits and covered with soil.
2. Garbage buried inside landfills remains here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become man use.
3. These places can be converted into parks, gardens, etc.
4. The first step should always be to reduce waste.
5. The second step is to keep waste separate. So that the waste can be easily reused or recycled.

Question 3.
Define – Aquarium.
Answer:
An aquarium is a place in which fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained.
Example: Fish growing in homes with a small tanks.

Question 4.
What are Autotrophs?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food. They do not need to eat other organisms, to do this. Producers are also called Autotrophs.

Question 5.
Define – Heterotrophs.
Answer:
Organisms which cannot produce their own food, need to eat other organisms as food. These Organisms are also called consumers. All animals are consumers as they cannot produce their own food. Consumers are also called Heterotrophs.

Question 6.
Differentiate between herbivores and carnivores.
Answer:
Herbivores:

1. Animals which eat plants or plant products.
2. Ex: Deer, Goat, Cattle, and Rat.

Carnivores:

1. Animals that eat other animals..
2. Ex: Lion, Tiger, Frog, and Owl.

Question 7.
What are decomposers?
Answer:
Micro-organisms (both plants and animals) that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms. They break complex organic substances into simple organic substances that go into the soil and are used by plants.

Example: Bacterium, Fungi.

Question 8.
Define Food web.
Answer:

1. If we put all the food chains within an ecosystem together, then we end up with many interconnected food chains. This is called a food web.
2. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.

Question 9.
What is reuse? Give examples.
Answer:
Reusing means using a thing again and again, rather than using and throwing after a single-use.

Example:

1. Instead of using plastic bags, use cloth bags.
2. Rechargeable batteries and fountain pens.

Question 10.
What is a Landfill?
Answer:
Landfilling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring (or) man-made pits and covered with soil.

Question 11.
Give the Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules.
Answer:
The Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules, 2016, say that,

i. Every household should segregate and store the waste generated by them in three separate streams namely bio-degradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous waste in suitable bins and handover the segregated wastes to authorized waste pickers, (or) waste collector as per direction or notification by the local authorities from time to time.

ii. Nobody shall throw, bum, or bury the solid waste on streets, open public spaces outside his premises, or in the drain or water bodies.

Question 12.
List any four domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:

1. Discarded paint drums
2. Pesticide cans,
3. CFL bulbs, tube lights
4. Used batteries, used needles, and syringes.

Question 13.
How can we reduce land pollution?
Answer:

1. First try to reduce waste, then recycle the rest.
2. Always use a waste bin and never litter.
3. Do not bum waste, the ash mixes easily with soil.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give the types of the ecosystem by a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 2.
How can we reduce air pollution?
Answer:

1. Cycle or walk short distances instead of using a motor vehicle.
2. Travel by public transport (bus or train)
3. Do not burn solid waste.
4. Avoid fireworks.

Question 3.
Classify the most significant sources of water pollutants.
Answer:
The most significant sources of water pollutants are:

1. Sewage (water we use at home for bathing, cleaning, cooking).
2. Industrial effluents (liquid wastes from factories).
3. Agricultural pollutants (chemical pesticides and fertilisers that get washed from farms).
4. Solid waste (when waste gets dumped into water bodies).

Question 4.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when you watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak, do not shout (try to set an example).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India consists of _____ States and’_____Union territories.
(a) 27,9
(b) 29,7
(c) 28,7
(d) 28,9
Answer:
(b) 29, 7

Question 2.
India is known as a …………….
(a) Continent
(b) Sub continent
(c) Island
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sub continent

Question 3.
Mawsynram, the land of highest rainfall is located in
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:
(d) Meghalaya

Question 4.
Which one of the following religion is not practised in India?
(a) Sikhism
(b) Islam
(c) Zoroastrianism
(d) Confucianism
Answer:
(d) Confucianism

Question 5.
Recognised official languages of India, as per VIIIth Schedule of Indian Constitution
(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 26
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 6.
Onam festival is celebrated in …………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 7.
Mohiniyattara is a classical dance of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Manipur
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 8.
‘Discovery of India’ – a book was written by …………….
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 8.
‘Discovery of India’
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O,C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehrul

Question 9.
The phrase ‘ Unity in Diversity’ was coined by
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Ambedkar
(c) Mahathma Gandhi
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
V.A. Smith called India as …………….
(a) Great Democracy
(b) Unique land of diversities
(c) Ethnological museum
(d) Secular nation
Answer:
(c) Ethnological museum

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Geographical features and climatic conditions determine the _________ activities of region
2. Jaisalmer, the land of lowest rainfall is located in _________
3. Tamil was declared as classical language in the year _________
4. Bihu festival is celebrated in _________

Answer:

1. economic
2. Rajasthan
3. 2004
4. Assam

III. Match the following

1. Negroids – a. Religion
2. Coastal areas – b. India
3. Zoroastrianism- c. Fishery
4. Unity in diversity- d. Indian race

Answer:

1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – h

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define diversity.
Answer:
In India, people speak different languages, eat different kinds of food, celebrate their own festivals. Diversity means a range of different people or things.

Question 2.
What are the types of diversity?
Answer:
The types of diversity are

1. Landforms and Lifestyle diversity
2. Social diversity
3. Religious diversity
4. Linguistic diversity
5. Cultural diversity

Question 3.
Why is India called a subcontinent?
Answer:

1. A continent is a very large area of land with various physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers and seas, and various types of weather patterns,
2. India has all of them. So, India is known as a sub-continent.

Question 4.
Write the names of three major festivals celebrated in India.
Answer:

1. Pongal, Deepavali – Hindus
2. Miladi Nabi, Ramjan – Muslims
3. Christmas, Easter – Christians

Question 5.
List out some of the classical dances of India.
Answer:

1. Bharatanatyam (it) Kathak
2. Kathakali
3. Yakshagana
4. Kuchipudi
5. Odissi
6. Manipuri
7. Sattriya

Question 6.
Why is India called the land of unity in diversity?
Answer:

1. In India, people who live in different parts of the country differ in their ways of life.
2. These differences make us unique as Indians.
3. We come from different backgrounds, belong to different cultures, worship different Gods in different ways, yet we live together.
4. This is known as unity in diversity.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain Linguistic diversity’ and cultural diversity.
Answer:
Linguistic diversity:

1. India has 122 major languages and 1599 other languages.
2. Tamil is the oldest Dravidian language.
3. Because the British ruled India for over three hundred years, the English language gained prominence in India.
4. So English has emerged as an important language.
5. Now it is widely used in official communication and daily life.

Cultural diversity:

1. The term ‘culture’ refers to the customs and practices of people, their language, their dress code, cuisine, religion, social habits, music, art, and architecture.
2. The culture of a group of people is reflected in their social behavior and interactions.
3. Art and architecture are an integral part of every community. It develops as a part of the culture and tradition of a community.
4. Every state in India has rich traditions and unique ways of artistic expression.

Question 2.
“India is a land of diversity, yet we are all united”. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Though diversity is visible in every aspect of life in India, we are united by the spirit of patriotism.
2. Symbols like the National flag and National Anthem remind us of our great nation and the need to stay united.
3. Celebration of events like Independence Day, Republic Day, and Gandhi Jayanthi brings us together and keeps the spirit of one nation alive with us.
4. India has a multicultural society.
5. India evolved as a single nation through common beliefs, customs, and cultural practices.
6. The freedom struggle and the drafting of our constitution stand as ample evidence to the spirit of unity of India.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
“The occupation of people depends on the landform of a place”. Give some
examples.
Answer:

1. The Earth has many landforms such as plains, valleys, and mountains.
2. Landforms affect where people build houses and communities.
3. Many people live on plains because it is easy to travel and to farm on flat land.
4. (The low lying regions are suitable for growing crops near clean and fresh water with access to the sea in naturally protected harbours.
5. People living in the coastal region might prefer finishing. Mountains and hilly regions are cool but transport, farming, etc will be difficult here. So the landforms play a major role in the section of occupation.

Question 2.
Read about a state of your choice and make an album to show the culture and tradition of people who live in that state.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu :

1. Tamil Nadu is a southern state of India.
2. It is supremely rich in culture and heritage.
3. Tamil is the official language of the State. Hindus, Jains, Christians, and Muslims live here Men wear dhoti and shirt and women wear a sari. Rice, lentils, grains, and vegetables form the main cuisine.
4. Some Tamilians follow the tradition of eating on a banana leaf.
5. The most important form of music is Carnatic music. Bharathanatyam is the
   official dance form of Tamil Nadu.
6. Kolam is drawn at the doors of every house in Tamil Nadu Meenakshi Temple of Madurai and Brihadeeswar
7. The Temple of Thanjavur displays a grand vista of ancient Hindu mythological diversity and Tamil Heritage.

VII. HOTS:

Question 1.
List out the various festivals celebrated in different states.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh – Brahmotsavam
2. Arunachal Pradesh – Losar festival
3. Assam – Bohag Bihu
4. Bihar – Chhath Puja
5. Chhattisgarh – Bastar Dussehra
6. Goa – Carnival
7. Gujarat – Janmashtami, Diwali
8. Haryana – Baisakhi
9. Himachal Pradesh – Maha Sivarathiri
10.  Jammu and Kashmir – Eid-Ul-Fitr and Eid-ul-Azha
11. Jharkhand – Holi
12. Karnataka – Ugadi
13. Kerala – Onam
14. Madhya Pradesh – Diwali
15. Maharastra – Ganesh Chaturthi

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Intext Questions

Question 1.
You have read about the diversity that exists in our country. Compare and contrast. Two states in this table.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Karagattam is a popular folk dance in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
The number of recognized official languages …………….
(a) 13
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 3.
India was called an “ethnological museum” by
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) V.A. Smith
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(c) V.A. Smith

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The migration of people is the reason for India’s rich ___________
2. Jaisalmer, located in Rajasthan, is the land of ___________ rainfall.
3. The land of the highest rainfall is ___________ in megalaya.
4. A ___________ is a place where people live together with a common interest or heritage.
5. The fundamental unit of a society are ___________
6. In a ___________ nation all religions are treated equally
7.  ___________ language is widely used in official communication and daily life
8. India is known for ___________
9. The first Prime Minister of independent India was ___________

Answer:

1. diversity
2. lowest
3. Mawsynram
4. community
5. families
6. secular
7. English
8. unity in diversity
9. Jawarharlal Nehru

III. Match the following

Question 1.
(a) Gujarat -(i) Mohiniattam
(b) Kerala -(ii) Kummi
(c) Rajasthan -(iii) Garba
(d) Tamil Nadu -(iv) Ghoomer
Answer:
(a – iii)
(b – i)
(c – iv)
(d – ii)

Question 2.
(a) Dussehra – (i) Architecture
(b) Zoroastrianism – (ii) Language
(c) Dilwara Temple – (iii) Festival
(d) Malayalam – (iv) Religion
Answer:
(a – iii)
(b – iv)
(e – i)
(d – ii)

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Who became part of the modern Indian race?
Answer:
The Dravidians, Negroids, Aryans, Alpines, and Mongoloids became part of the modem Indian race.

Question 2.
What is meant by community?
Answer:

1. A community is a place where people live together with a common interest or heritage.
2. Our community is made up of peasants, labourers, artisans, parents, teachers, students, and many others.

Question 3.
How is a city formed?
Answer:

1. Families live in a harmonious neighbourhood.
2. Hundreds of neighbourhoods collectively form a village.
3. Thousands of them group together to form a city.

Question 4.
Mention the folk dances of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Karagattam
2. Oyillattam
3. Kummi
4. Therukoothu
5. Bommalattam
6. Puliattam
7. Kolattam and Thappattam.

Question 5.
Mention some of the festivals celebrated in India.
Answer:
Festivals like Pongal, Deepavali, Holi, Vijayadhasami, Ayudha Puja, Navratri Durga Puja, Ganesh Chaturthi, Onam, Miladi Nabi, Ramzan, Christmas are celebrated in India.

Question 6.
What are the various styles of music practiced in India?
Answer:
Hindustani music, Karnatic music, Classical music, Folk music, Lavani, Ghazl are some of the music practiced in India.

Question 7.
What does the term culture refer to?
Answer:
The term culture refers to the customs and practices of people, their language, their dress code, cuisine, religion, social habits music, art, and architecture.

Question 8.
Mention the importance of dances in India.
Answer:
In ancient times, dance was considered as a way to celebrate worship and also as a gesture of thanksgiving and joy. Dances of India reflect its cultural richness.

V. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
How do landforms affect lifestyle?
Answer:

1. India is a sub-continent.
2. It has mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, and seas.
3. These features influence the people who live in different landforms of the country.
4. People who live in plains do agriculture.
5. Coastal areas take to fishing for their livelihood.
6. Diversity in landforms also impacts the flora and fauna of that region.
7. As a result food, clothing, occupation and livelihood of the people are closely connected with the region’s natural surroundings and climate.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The process of evolution is ________.
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
Answer:
(c) gradual

Question 2.
Tanzania is situated in the continent of ……………..
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: Migration of man of different part of the world resulted in changes of physic and colour.
Reason: Climatic changes.
(a) Statement is correct.
(b) Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.
(d) Statement and Reason is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.

III. Find out the Right pair:

(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs
(b) Homo habilis – Upright man
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man
(d) Homo sapiens – Less protruding face
Answer:
(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. _______ unearthed the footprints of humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions of years ago, our ancestors led a _______
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were _______
4. The invention _______ of made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at _______ in Nilgiris.

Answer:

1. Anthropologists
2. Nomadic
3. hunting and gathering
4. Plouglil
5. Karikaiyur

V. State True or False.

1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

VI. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
What method is used to find out the age of the excavated materials?
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Question 2.
What did early humans wear?
Answer:
They wore dresses made out of leaves, the skin of animals, and barks of trees.

Question 3.
Where did early humans live?
Answer:
They lived on the branches of trees, in caves and mountain ranges.

Question 4.
Which animal was used for ploughing?
Answer:
Oxen were used for ploughing.

Question 5.
When did humans settle in one place?
Answer:
Riverside Farming stage.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Evolution means the process in which humankind changes and develops into an advanced stage.

Question 2.
Write any two characteristics of Homosapiens.
Answer:

1. Homosapiens had the appearance of a man.
2. They used crude stone implements.
3. They engaged in hunting and gathering.

Question 3.
Why did humans move from place to place?
Answer:

1. They moved from place to place in search of food.
2. They cultivated the land. When the fertility of the soil decreased they moved to another place.

Question 4.
Describe the ancient methods of hunting.
Answer:

1. Hunting was the main occupation of humans in the past.
2. They used tools made of stones and bones for hunting
3. They used sharpened weapons.
4. They hunted pig, deer, bison, rhino, elephant and bear.

Question 5.
Why were axes made?
Answer:
Axes were made to cut trees, remove barks, dig pits, hunt animals, and remove the skin of animals.

Question 6.
How would you define archaeology?
Answer:
Archaeology is the study of prehistoric humans and materials used by prehistoric humans.

Question 7.
What do you know about anthropology?
Answer:

1. The word anthropology is derived from two Greek words ‘Anthropos’ meaning ‘man’ or ‘human’ and ’logos’ meaning ‘thought’ or ‘reason’.
2. Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history ‘thought’.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Importance of invention of the wheel from the ancient period to the modern period.
Answer:

1. The wheel is the foremost invention of humans.
2. When humans saw the stones rolling down from the mountains, they would have got the idea of making the wheel.
3. Asa result of this he was able to transport things from one place to another easily.
4. With the help of a wheel, she made pots.
5. Also in the modern period wheels play an important role.
6. No modern machine is run without wheels. Thus wheels play an important role both in the field of transport and industry.

IX. Student Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare album collecting the pictures of ancient humans of different ages
Answer:

X. Answer Grid:

XII. Map work

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, mark the following places:

1.  Adichanallur
2. Attirampakkam
3. Bhimbetka
4.  Hunasagi Valley
5. Lothal

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
These people had a big toe to hold tightly and less protruding face
(a) Homo erectus
(c) Neanderthal
(b) Homo habilis
(d) Homo sapiens
Answer:
(b) Homo habilisl

Question 2.
The main occupation of humans in the past was ……………..
(a) fishing
(b) hunting
(c) pot making
(d) trade
Answer:
(b) Hunting

Question 3.
Evidence of this man In seen in Germany
(a) Neanderthal
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Cromagnons
Answer:
(a) Neanderthal

Question 4.
Humans with the help of flint made _______
(a) sharp weapons
(b) vessels
(c) carts
(d) boats
Answer:
(a) sharp weapons

II. Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology,
Reason: Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.
(a) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: Early Man’s main occupation was hunting.
Reason: Hue to large scale hunting, many animals became extinct.
(a) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is true, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason both are wrong.
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.
Answer:
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.

Question 3.
Statement: Man denuded to stay close to the riverside.
Reason: The land dose to the riverside was suitable for farming.
(a) Statement is wrong, Reason is true.
(b) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.

Question 1.
(a) Nomadic – no fixed home
(b) Bartor – exchange of goods
(c) Hides – barks of a tree
(d) Million – 10 lakhs
Answer:
(c) Hides – barks of a tree

Question 2.
(a) Homo erectus – China
(b) Cromagnons – France
(c) Homo sapiens – Africa
(d) Heidelbergs – London
Answer:
(a) Homo erectus – China

Question 3.
(a) Ancestors – Nomadic life
(b) Beehives – Honey
(c) Axes – Big stones
(d) Wheel – No use
Answer:
(d) Wheel – No use

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________is a machine capable of taking a person backward or forward in time.
2. The animal that hunts and kills other living things for food is called________
3. When early people found ways to increase production they started________
4. In________ system, the surplus grains were exchanged with other groups for other things.
5. The practice of agriculture was made easier by________
6. There were many dangers involved in________
7. Plants grow faster in ________ areas.
8. The pots were ________ to make it stronger.
9. Chikki – mukki kal is known for its ________
10. Human procreation resulted in an increase in the________

Answer:

1. Time Machine
2. Predator
3. storing the produce
4. Barter
5. oxen
6. hunting
7. water fed
8. burnt
9. strength – duality
10. population

IV. State True or False:

1. The fire was used by early man to destroy forests.
2. Rock paintings are not informative.
3. Humans domesticated hen, goat, and cow after domesticating dogs.
4. Initially, agriculture was done for immediate food requirements.
5. Initially, humans expressed their feeling through actions.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

V. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
These people have unearthed the footprints of humans in a country called Tanzania.
Answer:
Anthropologists.

Question 2.
He is a Java man who lived approximately 1.8 million years ago.
Answer:
Homo erectus.

Question 3.
He had a mix of human and ape traits with a bipedal walk.
Answer:
Australopithecus.

Question 4.
Keeping a stone with the bottom and sharpening it with another stone.
Answer:
Art of Flaking.

Question 5.
This helped humans to protect themselves from predators.
Answer:
Fire.

VI. Answer the following :

Question 1.
How can we study human evolution scientifically?
Answer:
The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology.

Question 2.
What Is attempted by Anthropologists?
Answer:
Anthropologists attempt by investigating the whole range of human development and behaviour to achieve a total description of cultural and social phenomena.

Question 3.
Explain the hunting and food gathering stage of our ancestors.
Answer:

1.Our ancestors lived in groups, leading a nomadic life. They kept on moving in search of food.

2.They hunted pigs, dear, bison, rhino, elephant, and bear for food. They also scavenged the animals killed by other wild animals like tigers.

3.They learned the art of fishing. They collected honey and grains. Once the food resource got exhausted in one area, they moved to another place in search of food.

Question 4.
How did man make me of file?
Answer:
Humans used flintstone to make fire and used it to protect them from predators, for cooking food, and for creating light during the night. Thus fire became important for a man in olden times.

Question 5.
What was the role played by humans in pot making?
Answer:

1. Humans learned to make pots with clay. The invention of the wheel made pot making easier, and the pots made were burnt to make them stronger.
2. They decorated pots with a lot of colors.
3. These natural dyes were used in rock paintings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution In – Text Questions

HOTS:

Question 1.
Why did humans become hunter-gatherers? Hid the landscape play any role?
Answer:

1. Prehistoric hunter-gathers often lived in groups of a few dozens of people, consisting of several family units.
2. They developed tools to help them survive. They were dependent on the abundance of food in the area which if an area was not plentiful enough required them to move to greener forests (pastures were not around yet).
3. Naturally, the landscape played a major role at this stage.

Question 2.
in hunting banned in India?
Answer:

1. India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 bans the killing of all wild animals.
2. However, the chief wildlife warden may, if satisfied that any wild animal from a specified list has become dangerous to human life, or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, permit any person to hunt such an animal

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
What metals were know to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold; but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilization belonged to ………………..
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age
(c) New Stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because.
(a) Soil is very fertile
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation
(d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement whit the reason. tick the appropriate answers:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappait civilization is said to be ait urban civilizations,
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage systems.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilisation belongs to Bronze age.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 3.
Statement : The engineerring skill of Harpones was remarkable
Reason : Building docks after u careful study Of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements about Mohenjo – Daro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers of natural bitumen
Answer:
(b) and (d)

Question 5.
Cosidering the following statement:
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick siz
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan Cities
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
The odd one
Answer:
Oxen, sheep, buffaloes, pigs, horses

Find out the wrong pair
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(a) ASI John – Marshall
(c) Lothal – dockyard
(d) Harappan civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan civilisation – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________ is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of india was founded by ________
3. ________ were used to store grains.
4. Group of people ________ form

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilization
2. Alexander cunningham
3. Granaries
4. Community

IV. State True or False:

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological Survey of India is responsible for the preservation of cultural monuments
3. in the country.
4. Granaries were used to store grains
5. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following :

1. Mohenjo Daro – (i) raised platform
2. Bronze – (ii) red quartz stone
3. Citade – (iii) alloy
4. Carnelian – (iv) mound of dead

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. i
4. ii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Iron or steel is used for the construction of buildings, houses, automobile parts, etc.
2. Copper is used for electrical purposes and also for making ornaments.

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw food that we.
Answer:
Raw food: Fruits and vegetables like apples, carrots, cucumber, etc.
Baked food: Bread, Bun, Cake, Cookie, Pudding, etc.

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animals and trees?
Answer:

1. Yes, people worship the Peepal tree also known as Bodhi tree, Banyan tree, Bel tree! Ashoka tree, Mango tree etc.
2. Cow, Monkey, Snake, Elephant are also considered very sacred.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. why?
Answer:

1. River valley had fertile soil. Agriculture grew well in these regions.
2. Freshwater was available for drinking, Watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods as possible.

Question 5.
Just because a toy moves it doesn’t mean it’s modern. What did they use instead of batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels to move the toys instead of batteries.

Question 6.
The dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:
Humans started breeding dogs to help with hunting, herding, standing guard and carrying stuff.

Question 7.
If you were an archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
if I were an Archaeologist, I will study the artifacts found in the ground to learn about people where lived in the past.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located in the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Ralibangan (Rajasthan)
2. Dholavira (Gujarat).

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. Town planning is a unique feature of the Indus civilization.
2. Straight and wide road with the good drainage system of the Indus Valley is a significant feature.

Question 10.
What instrument Is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
A weighing scale or spring balance is used nowadays to weigh things.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. Archaeologists study the physical objects such as bricks, stones, or bits of broken pottery to ascertain the location of the city and the time that it belonged to.
2. They search the ancient literary sources for references about the place.
3. They look at aerial photographs of the excavation sites or cities to understand the topography.
4. They use a magnetic scanner to see under the ground.
5. The presence and absence of archeological remains can be detected by RADAR and remote sensing methods.

Question 2.
Why did the Indus civilization call Bronze age civilization?
Answer:
Indus civilization is called the Bronze age civilization because it is a historical period characterized by the use of articles made of bronze.

Question 3.
Indus Civilisation is called urban civilization. Give reason
Answer:
Indus Civilisation is called urban civilization because

1. There was well-conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture were found.
3. Priority was given to hygiene and public health.
4. They used Standardised weights and measures
5. They had solid agricultural and

Question 4.
Can you point out the special features of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. The cities had covered drains.
2. They were covered with slabs or bricks.
3. There were manholes at regular intervals to clean the drains.
4. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you about great the great bath?
Answer:

1. The great bath was a large, rectangular tank in a courtyard. It may be the earliest example of a waterproof structure.
2. The bath was lined with bricks, coated with plaster, and made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
3. There were steps on the north and south leading into the tank.
4. There were rooms on three sides.
5. Water was drawn from the well, located in the courtyard, and drained out after use.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people traded with other countries?
Answer:

1. There is evidence for extensive maritime trade with Mesopotamia, Indus Seals have been found as far as Mesopotamia.
2. King Naram- Sin of Akkadian Empire (Sumerian) has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha (a region in the Indus Valley).
3. Cylindrical seals Similar to those found in Persian Gulf and Mesopotamia have also been found in the Indus area.
4. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.

VIII. HOTS:
Observe the following features of Indus Civilisation and compare that with the present day.
a. Lamppost
b. Burnt bricks
c. Underground drainage system
d. Weights and measurement
e. Dockyard
Answer:
(a) Lamppost

1. In Indus Valley archaeologists have discovered lamp posts at intervals. This suggests the existence of street lights.
2. Today street lighting commonly uses high-intensity discharge lamps often HPS—high-pressure sodium lamps.

(b) Burnt bricks

(i) In Harappan Civilization, the houses were built using baked bricks and ’mortar. Sun-dried bricks were also used, Most of the bricks were of uniform size. They used the burnt bricks which were strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and would not dissolve in water.

(ii) Even at present, brick is the most basic and favoured material for common construction throughout the world. Nowadays bricks are available in different sizes and shapes. Kiln burnt bricks are used.

(c) Underground drainage system

(i) In Indus Civilization, they had covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Each drain had a gentle slope. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drain.

(ii) At present our cities and town are so populated and congested that conducting any infrastructural improvement over ground or underground is becoming difficult.

(d) Weights and measurement,

(i) Indus people used standardized weights and measures. They used sticks with marks to measure length.

(ii) In the modem world, we use electronic weighing machines to have accuracy in weighing. Floor scales and Platform scales are used in industries and small-scale industries respectively.

(e) Dockyard

(i) A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarath. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.

(ii) In modem days, there are many well-developed ports in India. To quote a few, Chennai port, Kandla port, Tuticorin port, Cochin port, Paradip port, etc.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations. How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture was one of their main occupations. They cultivated wheat, barley, millets, sesame, and pulses.
2. There were granaries to store food grains. A granary has been discovered in a village in the state of Haryana.
3. Ploughs have been unearthed. All these things show that agriculture was one of their occupations.

Question 3.
Many potteries and Their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. Pottery was practised using the potter’s wheel. It was well fired.
2. Potteries were red colour with beautiful designs in black.
3. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures and geometric designs on it.
4. All these reveal the fact that the Indus people had the very good artistic skill, colour concept and rich imagination.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal. What does it convey?
Answer:
A naval dockyard shows the maritime activities of the Indus people. It stands as proof of their maritime trade.

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?

1. By 1800 BCE, the Harappan culture had started declining.
2. It is assumed that the civilization met with

(a) repeated floods
(b) ecological changes
(c) invasions
(d) natural calamity
(e) climatic changes
(f) deforestation
(g) an epidemic might have disturbed the civilization.

IX. Student Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare a scrapbook,
(Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa.)
Hints :

(i) Mohenjo-Daro Findings – Notable Artefacts- seated and standing figures, copper and stone tools, balance scale and weighs, gold and Jasper jewellery, children Toys. The Dancing girl statue at National Museum, Delhi.

(ii) Harappan findings – seal with a yogic picture representing Pashupathi toys, household implements, pottery displayed in Harappan gallery, National Museum, Delhi.

Question 2.
You arc a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?
Hints:

1. As a young archaeologist with Indus site will examine the artifacts found, followed by documenting and preserving them,
2. Compile the information collected with photos. Then analyses the findings from different angles with the help of

Question 3.
Crossword puzzle.

Top to Bottom

1. Director General of ASI
2.  _______ is older than Mohenjo-Daro
3. This is _______ age civilisation
4. Each house had a _______

Left to Right

1. Place used to store grains
2. A dockyard has been found
3. _______ is unknown to Indus people
4. It is used to make watertight.

Right to left

1. From this, we can get a lot of information
2. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was Indus Civilisation?
Answer:
Banks of River Indus.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
OX, Buffalo.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Potter’s wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the
world?
Answer:
Indus Valley Civilization.

XI. Map work

1. Mark any four Indus sites located within the Indian border.
2. On the river map of India, colour the places where Indus civilization spread.
3. Mark the following places in the given India map:

(a) Mohenjo-Daro
(b) Chanhudaro
(c) Harappa
(d) Mehergarh
(e) Lothal

XII. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation In-Text Question

Observe the picture and fill the tabular column.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Indus valley civilization is great, because
(a) It had an advanced sanitation and drainage system.
(b) Repeated floods affected this area.
(c) Indus people maintained a big army.
(d) They did not use iron
Answer:
(a) It had an advanced sanitation and drainage system.

Question 2.
The assembly hall was located at ……………
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjo – Daro
(c) Lothal
(d) Kalibangan
Answer:
(b) Mohenjo – Daro

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: Harappans knew the art of writing.
Reason: Harappans wrote on seals and pottery.
(a) Statement and Reason are correct
(b) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and Resonance wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The Harappan city had two planned areas.
Reason: Each house was one or two stories.
(a) Statement and Reason are correct
(b) Statement and Reason are wrong.
(c) Statement correct Reason wrong.
(d) Statement wrong Reason correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correct?

1. Indus valley civilization is an urban civilization.
2. In urban civilisation people shift from rural areas to urban areas.
3. They live a settled life.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
The following statements about Mohenjodaro are correct.
(a) People led a nomadic life.
(b) Hunting was the main occupation
(c) Well planned streets were there
(d) They did not have a script
Answer:
(c) Well planned streets were there

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.

1. Harappans used carts with spokeless solid wheels.
2. In Harappan society, there were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. Cotton fabrics were in common use.

Which of the above statements are correct.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one:
(a) Bangles
(b) Armlets
(c) Necklaces
(d) Seals
Answer:
(d) Seals

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Lothal – Dockyard
(b) Janpath – New Delhi
(c) Mohenjodaro – Mound of dead
(d) Camelian – Pottery
Answer:
(d) Carnelian – Pottery

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The archaeologists began to excavate the cities of Harappa and Mohenjodaro in the ________
2. The word civilization comes from the ancient Latin word ________
3. A huge public building found at Mohenjodaro was the ________
4. Lothal is situated on the banks of a tributary of ________
5. In Indus civilisation settlements were built on ________
6. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ________

Answer:

1. 1920s
2. Civis
3. assembly hall
4. Sabarmati
5. elevated
6. Sumerians

IV. State True or False:

1. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was started in 1924.
2. Indus Civilisation had covered 6 big cities.
3. Mesopotamia was modem day Iraq, Kuwait, and parts of Syria.
4. Bitumen is nothing but water-proof Tar

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

V. Match the following:

1. Charles Masson – (i) Neolithic
2. Mehergarh – (ii) First metal
3. Radar – (iii) Explorer
4. Copper – (iv) Remote sensing

Answer:

1. Charles Masson – (iii) Explorer
2. Mehergarh – (i) Neolithic
3. Radar – (iv) Remote sensing
4. Copper – (ii) First metal

VI. Answer in or two sentences :

Question 1.
Mention the importance of Rakhigarh village.
Answer:

1. Rakhigarh is a village in Haryana.
2. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in a good condition, has been discovered here.

Question 2.
Why did they use burnt bricks for construction?
Answer:
Burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water or rain.

Question 3.
Who governed the Indus valley people?
Answer:
Historians believe that there existed a central authority that controlled the planning of towns and overseas trade, maintenance of drainage, and peace in the city.

Question 4.
Write a few sentences about pot making.
Answer:

1. The wheel was used in pot making.
2. Pots were burnt.
3. They were painted.
4. They drew figures of animals on the pots.

Question 5.
What is meant by Ziggurat?
Answer:

1. Ziggurat means temple.
2. In Mesopotamia, King Ur Nammu built Ziggurat in honour of the Moon God Sin.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
How do archaeologists explore a lost city?
Answer:

1. Archaeologists study the physical objects such as bricks, stones or bits of broken pottery to ascertain the time that they belong to.
2. They search the ancient literary sources for references about the place.
3. They look at the aerial photographs to understand the topography.
4. To see under the ground, they may use a magnetic scanner.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the excavation of granary in the Indus Civilization?
Answer:

1. The granary was a massive building with a solid brick foundation.
2. They were used to store food grains.
3. The remains of wheat, barley, millets, sesame, and pulses have been found here.
4. It shows that they had surplus grains.
5. To safeguard the grains stored with the granary, the granary was built on a raised platform.
6. They should have had a good standard of agriculture.

Question 3.
Was there any leader in Mohenjodaro? Explain.
Answer:

1. A sculpture of a seated male has been un earthed in a building, with a headband on the forehead and a smaller ornament on the right upper arm.
2. His hair is carefully combed, and his beard finely trimmed.
3. Two holes beneath the ears suggest that the head ornament might have been attached to the ear.
4. The left shoulder is covered with a shawl-like garment decorated with designs of flowers and rings.
5. This shawl pattern is used by people even today in those areas.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why should we learn about the Indus Valley Civilization?
Answer:

1. The Indus Valley civilization was a Bronze Age civilization in the world.
2. It was the largest among the four ancient civilizations of the world.
3. At its peak, it might have had a population of over 5 million.
4. To date over 1056 cities have been discovered.
5. Archaeologists first thought they had discovered cities of children since during excavation they found more and more toys.
6. Britishers laid down 93 miles of railway track with 4,000-year-old Indus Valley bricks.
7. They had the world’s first planned cities
8. Their sanitation systems and drainage systems were much advanced than any other ancient civilizations.
9. By learning about this civilization, we realize the richness of our ancient past

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Aryans first settled in __________ region
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 2.
Aryans came from ……………
(a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Central Asia

Question 3.
Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jay ate” is taken from
(a) Brahmana
(c) Aranyaka
(b) Veda
(d) Upanishad
Answer:
(d) Upanishad

Question 4.
What was the ratio of land revenue collected during Vedic Age ……………
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/9
Answer:
(b) 1/6

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion : The vedic age is evidenced by good number of texts and adequate amount of material evidences.
Reason : Shrutis comprise the Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true.

Question 2.
Statement I : Periplus mentions the steel imported into Rome from peninsular India was subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.
Statement II : Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalli.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic society
(a) A widow could re-marry.
(b) Child marriage was in practice.
(c) Father’s property was inherited by his son.
(d) Sati was unknown.
Answer:
(b) Child marriage was in practice.

Question 4.
Which is the correct ascending order of the Rig Vedic society?
(a) Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra < Jana
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
(c) Rashtra < Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis
(d) Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra
Answer:
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. Vedic culture was in nature.
2. was a tax collected from the people in Vedic period.
3. system is an ancient learning method.
4. Adhichanallur is in district.

Answer:

1. kinship
2. Bali
3. Gurukula
4. Thoothukudi

IV. True or False:

1. The Roman artefacts found at various sites provide evidence of Indo – Roman trade relations.
2. A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable death of a hero.
3. The army chief was called Gramani.
4. The Black and Red were pottery became the characteristic of the Megalithic period.
5. Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalii.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

V. Match the following

Answers:

1. 1
   
2. 2
   
3. 3
   
4. 4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Name the four Vedas.
Answer:

1. Rig
2. Yajur
3. Sama
4. Atharva

Question 2.
What were the animals domesticated by Vedic people?
Answer:

1. Elephants
2. Cow
3. Goat
4. Sheep
5. Horse

Question 3.
What do you know about Megalith?
Answer:
Using big stone slabs built upon the places of burial is known as Megalith.

Question 4.
What are Dolmens?
Answer:

1. Dolmens are Megalithic tombs.
2. They are made of two or more upright stones with a single stone lying across the burial site.

Question 5.
What are Urns?
Answer:

1. The artifacts unearthed were urus.
2. They are pottery of various kinds (Redware, Black Ware) used for burying the dead.

Question 6.
Name the coins used for business transactions in the Vedic period.
Answer:

1. Nishka
2. Satmana (gold)
3. Krishnala (silver)

Question 7.
Name some Megalithic monuments found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Urns
2. Dolmens
3. Menhirs
4. Hero stones

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write briefly about the archaeological site at Kodumanal.
Answer:

1. Kodumanal is in the Erode district.
2. Kodumanal is identified with the Kodumanam of Pathitrupathu.
3. More than 300 pottery inscriptions in Tamil Brahmi have been discovered.
4. Spindles, whorls, pieces of cloth, tools, weapons, ornaments, and beads have been discovered.
5. A Menhir was found at the burial site.

Question 2.
Write about the Vedic women in a paragraph.
Answer:

1. In Rig Vedic society the wife was respected as the mistress.
2. She could perform rituals along with her husband.
3. Child marriage and sati were not known.
4. No bar on the remarriage of widows.
5. Denied right to inherit property and to participate in public affairs.
6. In the later Vedic period performing rituals, remarriage of widows, Education was denied. Polygamy became common.

VIII. HOTS:
Question 1.
Difference between the Gurukula system of education and the Modern system of education.
Answer:

S.No	Gurukula system of education	The modern system of education
1.	Gurukula system is an ancient learning method.	The modern education system has evolved with time and has been influenced by the western system.
2.	The shishyas resided with their guru and served them and simultaneously learned and gained knowledge.	An educational center like schools, colleges are there to give education.
3.	No women could have a formal education.	Men and women both have formal education.
4.	The students received education through oral tradition meaning rote learning.	The education system has incorporated technologies like ebooks, video lectures, distance learning through video chat, demonstrations through 3-D imagery, etc.
5.	The subjects of the study included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths, and military science.	Modern education includes subjects of varied interests. Teaching methods are continuously upgraded as per advanced research and developments.
6.	The students were also trained to lead a disciplined life.	The emphasis under modern education is on the theoretical part rather than the practical part.

IX. Pride and Joy – Let us find out die fact

X. students Activity

Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.
(Shruti, Gramani, Rashtras, Iron Age, Semi-nomadic, Barter)
a. Shruti – Shruti works are considered to have been heard and transmitted by earthly sages.
b. Gramani – Gramani was the head of a village called Grama.
c. Rashtras – Rashtras were tribal kingdoms like Bharatas and Matsyas.
d. Iron Age – In India the Vedic period covers both the end of the Bronze Age and the start of the Iron Age.
e. Semi-nomadic – Semi-nomadic people lived usually in portable or temporary dwellings practicing seasonal migration.
f. Barter – Under the barter system people exchanged services and goods for other services and goods in turn.

Question 2.
Word Search

1. A pass – KHYBER
2. Text containing teachings on religion – SMRITI
3. A group of villages – VIS
4. A tribal assembly – GANA
5.  Assembly of people – SAMITI
6. Fire – AGNI
7. Gold coin – SATMANA
8. Period of Vedic Age – IRON AGE
9. Megalithic tomb – DOLMENS

XI. Life Skill

Question 1.
Collect information from Newspapers about archaeological finds with the help of your teacher.
Answer:
(i) An archaeological site is a place where evidence of past activity is preserved.

(ii) Archaeological theory is used to interpret the archaeological record for a better understanding of human culture.

(iii) The archaeological record can consist of the earliest ancient findings as well as contemporary artifacts. For example ‘The Hindu’ dated August 10, 2017, published information about the Azhagankulam site. New finds link Azhagankulam site to Sangam Era. 12,000 artifacts unearthed so far; Archaeologists believe excavation could throw up more surprises. The excavation at Azhagankulam in the Vaigai River Valley shows that the site could date back to the Sangam Age, quite like the archaeological site at Keezhadi in the Sivaganga district.

(iv) Another example: Hindustan Times dated June 28, 2016. Archaeologists and researchers have unearthed the crumbling remains of an ancient urban centre, equal in size and importance to that of Mohenjodaro. Keezhadi is a small village that lies past an unmanned railway crossing, several stretches of paddy fields, and swaying palms in the Sivaganga district of Tamil Nadu, 12 kms from the city of Madurai.

XII. Answer Grid:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
State the differences between Indus and Vedic civilization.
Answer:

S.No	Indus Civilization	Vedic Civilization
1.	The sources of information are mainly archaeological.	Vedic Culture is mostly known from literary sources.
2.	Harappans are said to have been the original inhabitants of India.	The Aryans are believed to have come from Central Asia.
3.	The Harappan civilization was urban in nature. They had very good Town planning, drainage system.	Vedic culture was rural and pastoral. At best the Rig Vedic Aryans lived in fortified places protected by mud walls; they cannot be regarded as towns in the Harappan sense.
4.	Trade (both internal and external) crafts, as well as industries, were the main sources of economy.	The Vedic economy was initially pastoral and later became based upon agriculture and cattle rearing.
5.	Indus people did not know the use of iron. It was purely a copper, bronze culture.	In Vedic culture, in its later phase is replete with references of iron.
6.	The Indus valley people did not know about the animal horse.	The horse played a decisive role in the Aryan system of warfare.
7.	Indus people were basically peace-loving.	Aryans were warlike people and were conversant with all kinds of traditional arms and armour.

Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The first phase of urbanisation in India came to an end with the decline of ______
(a) Indus civilization
(b) Vedic civilization
(c) Bronze civilization
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Indus civilization

Question 2.
Sapta Sindhu was the land of ……………
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 3.
Sapta Sindhu means the land of ______
(a) Seven rivers
(b) Seven villages
(c) Seven Tribes
(d) Seven hills
Answer:
(a) Seven rivers

Question 4.
Paiyampalli is in …………… District.
(a) Erode
(b) Vellore
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(b) Vellore

Question 5.
In economic, political, and military matters, the king was assisted by the ______
(a) Gramani
(b) Senani
(c) Purohit
(d) Vidhata
Answer:
(b) Senani

Question 6.
Non-Aryans were called ______
(a) Janas
(b) Dasyus
(c) Sabha
(d) Samitha
Answer:
(b) Dasyus

Question 7.
In the Later Vedic Period the role of women in society ______
(a) increased
(b) declined
(c) remained the same as before
(d) became equal with the role of man
Answer:
(b) declined

Question 8.
The staple crop of the Aryans was ______
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Millets
(d) Barley
Answer:
(d) Barley

Question 9.
Paiympalli is located in ______ district.
(a) Vellore
(b) Madurai
(c) Sivaganga
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(a) Vellore

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Megalithic monuments bear witness to a highly advanced state of civilization with the knowledge of iron and community living.
Reason (R): Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraragavapuram village,
Kanchipuram District.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is False.
(d) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Statement I: The Aryans were semi-nomadic pastoralists.
Statement II: The Aryans practiced slash and burn agriculture.
(a) Statement I is wrong.
(b) Statement II is wrong.
(c) Both the statements are wrong,
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both statements are correct.

Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic economy?
(a) Carpenters and Potters were there
(b) Two crops a year was raised
(c) The staple crop was wheat
(d) Barter system was prevalent
Answer:
(c) The staple crop was wheat

Question 4.
Which of the statement is correct in the Vedic culture?
(a) Bali was tax consisting of % of the agricultural produce or cattle for a person.
(b) Dasyus were Aryans Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class Polygamy was unknown
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class
(d) Polygamy was unknown
Answer:
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class

III. Fill lit the blanks:

1. Vedic Age gets its name from ______
2. The Aryans moved eastward and settled in ______
3. Smritis are not ______
4. The basic unit of the Vedic Polity was ______
5. Sabha means ______
6. Samiti means ______
7. The Vedic family was ______
8. In the later Vedic period the rules of marriage became ______
9. Pottery of the Vedic period was ______
10. In the Vedic period, the mode of prayer was the recitation of ______
11. The ancient method of learning was ______
12. The megalithic period in ancient Tamilakam synchronised with ______

Answer:

1. Four Vedas
2. Indo Gangetic Plain
3. eternal
4. Kula
5. A Council of Elders
6. Assembly of People
7. patriarchal
8. more rigid
9. Painted Grey Ware Culture
10. Vedic Hymns
11. Gurukula System
12. Pre Sangam period

IV. State True or False

1. Vedic Age is a period in the History of India between 1500 BC (BCE) and – 600 BC (BCE).
2. Ithihasas come under Shrutis.
3. Smritis are constantly revised.
4. Rajan was the head of a Village.
5. The king performed various rituals to make his position strong.
6. A rigid four-fold vama system emerged under the Rig Vedic society.
7. Women of Vedic society played a major role in Public Affairs.
8. Idol worship was practiced in the Vedic period.
9. Under the Gurukula system, the Shishyas resided with their Guru.
10. The later Vedic culture in North India and the Iron Age in South India belong to the same period.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True

V. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is slash and burn agriculture?
Answer:
Slash and bum agriculture is a farming method that involves clearing the land by cutting and burning all the trees and plants on it. Cultivation is done there for a short time.

Question 2.
What were the crops cultivated?
Answer:

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Barley

Question 3.
Mention the archaeological sources of the Aryans.
Answer:
Material remains such as iron implements and pottery from the archaeological sites in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan along the Indus and the Ganges form the archaeologic sources of the Aryans.

Question 4.
Classify the Vedic Age.
Answer:

Question 5.
By whom were the powers of the Raj limited?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti, and Gana.

Question 6.
When did hereditary kingship begin to emerge?
Answer:

1. When the Aryans moved eastward- into the Ganges-Yamuna-Doab regions, the early settlements were replaced by territorial kingdoms.
2. Thus the hereditary kingship began to emerge.

Question 7.
How were Janapadas formed?
Answer:
In the later Vedic period, many Janas or Tribes were amalgamated to form Janapadas or Rashtra.

Question 8.
Who formed Trevji in the early Vedic society?

1. Within the early Vedic Society there were three divisions (Trevji) as given below:
2. The general public was called Vis, the warrior class was called Kshatriyas and the Priestly class was named Brahmanas.

Question 9.
Mention the subject of the study under the Gurukula system.
Answer:
The subjects of the study under the Gurukula system included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths, and military science.

Question 10.
Mention the four ashramas which emerged during the later Vedic period.
Answer:
Towards the end of the later Vedic period, the concept of four stages in life (the four
ashramas) developed.

1. Brahmacharya (Student Life)
2. Grihastha (Married Life)
3. Vanaprastha (Going to the forest to meditate)
4. Sanyasa (Leading a life of an ascetic)

Question 11.
Define the term Menhir.
Answer:
In Breton Language ‘Men’ means “stone” and ‘hir’ means “long.” They are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.

Question 12.
Where are hero stones found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu hero stones are found at Maanur village near Palani, Dindigul district, Vellalankottai, Tuticorin district, and Pulimankombai, Dindigul district.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What about the Aryans and their home in India?
Answer:

• Aryans of the Rig Vedic Period were semi-nomadic. They were basically pastoral people with cattle as their main source of wealth.
• In the Rig Vedic times, the Aryan homeland was Punjab, which was at that time called Sapta Sindhu, the land of seven rivers.
• Around 1000 BC (BCE), Aryans in India moved eastward and settled in Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• The use of iron axes and ploughs became widespread.

Question 2.
By whom was Rajan helped to protect his tribe?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti, and Gana.
3. Of these Vidhata, (the tribal assembly) was the oldest.
4. The king appointed a purohit (chief priest) to assist him.
5. In economic, political, and military matters, the king was assisted by the Senani (army chief).
6. Gramani was the leader of the village.

Question 3.
How did trade become extensive under the Vedic age?
Answer:

1. Under the Vedic age, use of iron plough and axe helped to put more areas of land under cultivation.
2. Crops of wheat, rice and barley were cultivated.
3. With the growth of agriculture, the idea of private possession of land came into existence.
4. New crafts and arts developed leading to the production of commodities for sale.
5. Thus, trade became extensive.
6. The barter system was prevalent.
7. They used Nishka, Satmana (gold coins), and Krishna (silver coins) for business transactions.

Question 4.
State the salient features of the Gurukula system of education.
Answer:

1. The gurukul system is an ancient learning method.
2. The word Gurukula is a combination of the Sanskrit Word Guru (teacher or master) and Kula (family or home).
3. The shishyas resided with their guru and served them and simultaneously learned L and gained knowledge.
4. Only Dvijas could be Shishyas. No women could have a formal education.
5. The students received education through oral tradition meaning rote learning and were required to memorize everything.
6. The subjects of the study included four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths, and military science.
7. The students were also trained to lead a disciplined life.

Question 5.
Write a note on Keezhadi in the Sivaganga district.
Answer:

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) excavated an ancient town dating to Sangam Age in Keezhadi village at Tirupathur taluk.
• Excavations have produced evidence for brick buildings, and well laid – out drainage system.
• Tamil – Brahmi inscription on pottery, beads of glass, camelian and quartz, pearl, gold ornaments, and iron objects, shell bangles, ivory dice have been unearthed.
• The Roman artifacts found at the site add to the evidence of ancient Indo -Roman trade relations.
• Periplus mentions the steel imported to Rome from Peninsular India was subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.

Question 6.
What are Menhirs? Where are they find in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Menhirs are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.
• Menhir at Singaripalayam in Tirupur District and at Vembur in Theni District points to the existence of an ancient settlement along the banks of River Upper.
• Menhirs are found at Narasingampatti, Madurai district, Kumarikalpalayam, and Kodumanal in the Erode district.

VIII. Word search
Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.

1. Shruti Literature – UPANISHADS
2. An Archaeological site – RAJASTHAN
3. A tribal kingdom – PURAS
4. Three divisions of Early Vedic Society – TREYI
5. Unknown to Rig vedic women – SATI
6. Shyama – IRON
7. Leading of life of an ascetic – SANYASA
8. The Roman artifacts found here – KEEZHADI
9. Used for making thread from cotton – WHORLS
10. The Monolithic pillars planted vertically – MENHIR

IX. Answer Grid.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
An object that is attracted by magnet.
(a) wooden piece
(b) plain pins
(c) eraser
(d) a piece of paper
Answer:
(b) plain pins

Question 2.
People who made mariner’s compass for the first time.
a. Indians
b. Europeans
c. Chinese
d. Egyptians
Answer:
c. Chinese

Question 3.
A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the
(a) North – East
(b) South – West
(c) East – West
(d) North – South
Answer:
(d) North-South

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties when they are
a. used
b. stored
c. hit with a hammer
d. cleaned
Answer:
c. hit with a hammer

Question 5.
Mariner’s compass is used to find the
(a) speed
(b) displacement
(c) direction
(d) motion
Answer:
(c) direction

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as _______, _______ and _______
2. The materials which are attracted towards the magnet are called _______
3. Paper is not a _______ material.
4. In olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of _______
5. A magnet always has _______ poles.

Answers:

1. Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet
2. magnetic substances
3. magnetic
4. lodestones
5. two

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
Answer:
False. A cylindrical magnet has two poles.

Question 2.
Similar poles of a magnet repel each other.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
Answer:
False. Maximum iron filings stick in the poles of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.

Question 4.
A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
Answer:
True. A magnetic compass always points towards the North-South direction. If the North-South direction is known, then the East-West direction can also be determined. This direction is perpendicular to the North-South direction, ie., perpendicular to the compass needle in the same plane.

Question 5.
Rubber is a magnetic material.
Answer:
False. Rubber is anon-magnetic material.

IV. Match the following:

1. Compass – Maximum magnetic strength
2. Attraction – Like poles
3. Repulsion – Opposite poles
4. Magnetic poles – Magnetic needle

Answer:

1. Compass – Magnetic needle
2. Attraction – Opposite poles
3. Repulsion – Like poles
4. Magnetic poles – Maximum magnetic strength

V. Circle the odd ones and give reasons:

Question 1.
Iron nail, pins, rubber tube, needle.
Answer:
Rubber tube.
Rubber tube is a non-magnetic substance, others are magnetic substances.

Question 2.
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train, electric bulb.
Answer:
Electric bulb.
The electric bulb does not have magnets others have electromagnets.

Question 3.
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction, illumination.
Answer:
Illumination
Illumination is not a property of a magnet, others are magnetic properties.

VI. The following diagrams show two magnets near one another. Use the words, ‘Attract, Repel, Turn around’ to describe what happens in each case.

Answer:
a. Unlike poles attract one another.
b. Like poles repel each other.
c. Unlike poles attract one another.
d. Perpendicular poles turn around and attract one another.
e. Like poles repel each other.
f. Perpendicular poles turn around and attract one another.

VII. Write down the names of substances :

Answer:

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Explain the attraction and repulsion between magnetic poles.
Answer:
Take two similar magnets, place them in four different ways like (N-N), (N S), (S S), (S-N).
Like poles (N-N), (S-S) repel each other.
Unlike poles (N-S), (S-N) attract each other.

Question 2.
A student who checked some magnets in the school laboratory found out that their magnetic force is worn out. Give three reasons for that?
Answer:
Magnets lose their properties if they are:

1. heated
2. dropped from a height
3. hit with a hammer

These are the reasons that their magnetic force is worn out.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
You are provided with an iron needle. How will you magnetize it?
Answer:

1. Take the given iron needle.
2. Place it on a table.
3. Take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the needle.
4. Rub from one end to another end without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet.
5. Repeat the process 30 to 40 times.
6. Bring a pin near the needle.
7. Now the needle attracts the pin. So the needle is magnetized.

Question 2.
How does electromagnetic train work?
Answer:

1. Electromagnets are used in Electromagnetic train.
2. Electromagnets are magnetised only when current flows through them.
3. When the direction of the current is changed, the poles of the electromagnets are also changed.
4. Like poles of the magnets which are attached at the bottom of the train and rai l track repel each other.
5. So, the train is lifted from the track up to a height of 10 cm.
6. We know that we can move any magnetic object with the force of attraction or repulsion properties of magnets.
7. This train also moves with the help of the magnets attached on the sides of track and the magnets fitted at the bottom sideway of the train.
8. By controlling the current, we can control the magnets and movement of the train.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
You are provided with iron filings and a bar magnet without labelling the poles of the magnet. Using this.

1. How will you identify the poles of the magnet?
2. Which part of the bar magnet attracts more iron filings? Why?

Answer:
Tie a piece of thread to the centre of a bar magnet and suspend it. After some rotation, the magnet stops at a position. The end of the magnet that points to the north is called a north pole. The end of the magnet that points to the south is called the South pole.

Question 2.
Two bar magnets are given in figure A and B. By the property of attraction, identify the North pole and the South pole in the bar magnet (B)

Answer:
The Fig -A has S and N poles.
In the Fig -B magnet, nearer to the North pole of Fig-A is South pole and the next pole is North pole.

Question 3.
Take a glass of water with a few pins inside. How will you take out the pins without dipping your hands into the water?
Answer:

1. Take a bar magnet.
2. Tie it in a thread.
3. Dip the tied magnet into the glass of water.
4. The pins are attracted by the magnet.
5. Now take out the magnet from the glass of water.
6. Collect the pins from the magnet.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Take a magnet. Take the magnet Closer to the objects surrounding you.
What happens? Observe and note.
i. The objects attracted by the magnet: ______________
ii. The objects, not attracted by the magnet: ______________
iii. Which substance is used to make the objects attracted by the magnet? ______________
Answer:
i. The objects attracted by the magnet: irons nail, iron rod, pins, needle, key, iron filings.
ii. The objects, not attracted by the magnets: rubber, paper, plastic pen, scale, pencil, water bottle.
iii. Iron is used to make the objects attracted by the magnet.

Activity 2

LET US MAKE MAGNETS

Take a nail / a piece of Iron and place it on a table. Now take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the nail/piece of Iron and rub from one end to another end without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet. Repeat the process 30 to 40 times.

Bring a pin or some iron filings near the nail/piece of Iron to check whether it has become a magnet. Does the nail/piece of iron attract the pin/iron filings? If not, continue the same process for some more time.
Answer:
Yes, The nail / a piece of Iron acquires the same ability to attract other pieces of pin/ iron filings.

Activity 3

Make your own magnetic compass

Insert the magnetized needle, that you made in activity 2, into two styrofoam balls and place the needle in a bowl of water. Test whether the floating needle is always turned in rest in the north-south direction.

Note: If you don’t have styrofoam balls you can use a dry leaf or a cork piece.

Inference: The floating needle is always turned in nest on the North-South direction.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ made objects are attracted by magnets.
(a) Plastic
(b) Iron
(c) Glass
(d) Wax
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 2.
Magnets lose their property if they
(a) heated
(b) dropped from a height
(c) hit with hammer
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
_______ poles repel to each other.
i. N – N
ii. N – S
iii. S – N
iv. S – S
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv
Answer:
(d) i and iv

Question 4.
When the N pole of a bar magnet is moved closer to the north pole of a magnet it will
(a) attract
(b) repel
(c) rotate
(d) none
Answer:
(b) repel

Question 5.
Electromagnetic trains can easily attain a speed of _______ km per hour.
(a) 1200
(b) 600
(c) 100
(d) 800
Answer:
(b) 600

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. The magnetic Ore is called as _______
2. _______ magnets do not have a definite shape.
3. Man-made magnets are called _______ magnets.
4. A _______ is an instrument which is used to find directions.
5. _______ will also get affected by magnetic field.
6. For a _______ magnet a single piece of soft iron can be used as a magnetic keeper across the pole.

Answer:

1. magnetite
2. Natural
3. Artificial
4. compass
5. Cell phone
6. horse-shoe

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Magnetites are artificial magnets.
Answer:
False. Magnetites are natural magnets.

Question 2.
Cube shaped magnets are also available.
Answer:
False. Oval shaped, Disc shaped, Cylindrical shaped magnets are also available.

Question 3.
Substancess which are attracted by magnet are called non-magnetic substance.
Answer:
False. Substances which are attracted by magnets are called magnetic substance.

Question 4.
The end of the magnet that points to the north is called south pole.
Answer:
False. The end point of the magnet that points to the south is called south pole.

Question 5.
The compass has a magnetic needle that can rotate easily.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Magnets lose their properties if they are dropped from a height.
Ans:
True.

Question 7.
Proper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.
Answer:
False. Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.

Question 8.
Electromagnetic train is also called a flying train.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

I.	Natural magnets	(a)	Levitating propeller
II	Artificial magnets	b)	Wooden spoon
III.	Magnetic substance	(c)	Heating
IV.	Nonmagnetic substance	(d)	Bar magnet
V.	Demagnetization	(e)	Pin holders
VI.	Electromagnetic train	(f)	Magnetite

Answer:
I – f
II – d
III – e
IV – b
V – c
VI – a.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Natural magnet: Magnetic stones.
Artificial magnet: _________
Answer:
Bar magnet.

Question 2.
Magnetic substance : Attracted by magnets
Non magnetic substance : _________
Answer:
Not attracted by magnets.

Question 3.
Repel to each other: Like poles.
Attract to each other : _________
Answer:
Unlike poles.

Question 4.
Demagnetisation : _________
Making magnets: Rubbing with one end to another end without changing direction.
Answer:
Hit with hammer

Question 5.
Electromagnet: Magnetic crane.
Ordinary magnet: _________
Answer:
Mobile phone covers.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the different shapes of Artificial magnets.
Answer:

1. Bar magnet
2. Horseshoe magnet
3. Ring magnet
4. Needle magnet
5. Oval shape magnet
6. Disc shape magnet
7. Cylindrical shape magnet.

Question 2.
Differentiate magnetic and non-magnetic substance.
Answer:
Magnetic substance:

1. It is attracted by magnets
2. Ex: Iron, Cobalt, Nickel

Non-magnetic substance:

1. It is not attracted by magnets
2. Ex: Paper, Plastic, Glass

Question 3.
Define – Poles of a magnet.
Answer:
The attractive force of the magnet is very large near the two ends. These two ends are called poles of a magnet.

Question 4.
Give the properties of magnets.
Answer:

1. Like poles repel each other.
2. Unlike poles attract each other.

Question 5.
What are the objects affected by magnetic field?
Answer:
Cellphone, Computer and DVD are objects affected by magnetic field.

Question 6.
Give any two tips to store bar magnets.
Answer:

1. Bar magnet should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side.
2. They must be seperated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Give the uses of magnets.
Answer:

1. Magnets are used in speakers to power up.
2. Magnets are used in Lady’s handbags, Pencil boxes, etc., to make a tight seal.
3. Magnets are also used in some door locks.
4. In-home, magnets are used as magnetic toys, magnetic smiley stickers, magnetic Alphabet stickers to stick on the refrigerators.
5. Magnets are used to store data in computers.

Question 2.
How will you make levitating propeller?
Answer:
1. Make a propeller from a 500-ml plastic bottle. Make a hole in the bottle lid.

2. Screw the lid with the hole on a bottle half-filled with sand. Press-fit a stiff straw in the lid. Embed the straw in the sand to make it stand erect. Place a few ring magnets in the straw. Similar poles will repel each other.

3. Place two magnets each inside and outside the propellor lid. These magnets will automatically stick to each other.

4. Like poles repel and this levitates the bottle fan. The ceiling fan makes it spin.

5. Place the propeller on the stiff straw. The magnets in the straw and the propeller should repel each other. This will make the propeller levitate. On placing it under a ceiling fan the propeller will spin very fast.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by
(a) Pandyan Neducheliyan
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
Answer:
(b) Cheran Senguttovanj

Question 2.
Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
Answer:
(c) Pallavas

Question 3.
The rule of Pandyas was followed by
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

Question 4.
The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was ……………..
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
Answer:
(c) Ur

Question 5.
What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Hunting and gathering

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R) :Tamil was the language of Sangam literature,
a. Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
(b) The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
(c) The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose,
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 only

Question 3.
The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
a. Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
b. Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
c. Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
d. Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
Answer:
b Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam

Question 4.
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
Chera – 1. Fish
Chola – 2. Tiger
Pandya – 3. Bow and arrow
A. 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3
C. 3 1 2
D. 2 1 3
Answer:
A. 3 2 1

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. The battle of Venni was won by ___________
2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ___________
3. ___________ built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
4. The chief of the army was known as ___________
5. Land revenue was called ___________

Answer:

1. Karikalana
2. Tholkappriya
3. Karikalana
4. Thanithalaivan
5. Irai

IV. True or False :

1. The singing bards of the Sangam age were called Irular.
2. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
3. Kizhar was the village chief.
4. Puhar was the general term for city.
5. Coastal region was called Marudham

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

V. Match :

1. Thennar – i Cheras
2. Vanavar – ii Cholas
3. Senni – iii Velir
4. Adiyaman – iv Pandyas

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentence

Question 1.
Name any two literacy sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.
Answer:

1. Tholkappiyam
2. Ettuthogai
3. Pathu Pattu

Question 2.
What was Natukkal or Virakkal?
Answer:
In anciant Tamizhagam, the stones erected to commemorate the heroes who died in the battle field are called Natukal (Veerakkal)

Question 3.
Name five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature.
The five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature are
Answer:

1. Kurinji
2. Mullai
3. Marutham
4. Neithal
5. Palai

Question 4.
Name any two archaeological sites related to the Sangam period.
Answer:

1. Adichanallur
2. Arikamedu

Question 5.
Name the seven patrons (KadaiyeluVallalgal).
Answer:

1. Pari
2. Kari
3. Ori
4. Pegan
5. Ay
6. Adiyaman
7. Nalli

Question 6.
Name any three Tamil poetic works of Kalabhra period.
Answer:

1. Tamil Navalar Charithai
2. Yaperunkalam
3. Periapuranam

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Discuss the status of women in the Sangam Society.
Answer:

1. There was no restriction for women in social life.
2. There were learned and wise women.
3. Forty women poets had lived and left behind their valuable works.
4. Marriage was a matter of self-choice.
5. However, Chastity (Karpu) was considered the highest virtue of women.
6. Sons and daughters had equal shares in their parent’s property.
7. Women poets of Sangam Age were Arraiyar, Velliveethiyar, Kakkaipadiniyar, AathiManthiyar, Ponmudiyar.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
KarikalValavan Is regarded as the greatest Chela king. Justify.
Answer:

1. KarikalValavan defeated the combined army of the Cheras, Pandyas and the eleven velir chieftains at Venni.
2. He converted forests into cultivable lands.
3. He built Kallanai to develop agriculture.
4. The trading activity through the port Puhar is known by the poetic work ‘the Pattinapaalai’.
5. So Karikal Valavan is regarded as the greatest Chola king.

Question 2.
The period of Kalabhra is not a dark age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. The literary sources include Tamil Navalar Charithai, Yapernkalam and Periapuranam for the period of Kalabhra.
2. Seevaka Chinthamani and Kundalakesi were also written during this period. Many works under pathinenkeezh kanakku were composed.
3. During this period Jainism and Buddhism became prominent.
4. The – introduction of Sanskrit and Prakrit developed Vattezhuththu script.
5. Trade and commerce flourished.

So the Kalabhra Period is not a dark age.

IX. Map Work :
Question 1.
Mark and colour the extent of Chera, Chola and Pandya empires on the river map of South India.

Question 2.
Mark the following places,
a. Kerkil
b. Kaveripoompattinam
c. Mwsiri
d. Uratyur
e. Madurai

XI. Answer Grid

Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cheran Senguttuvan’s younger brother was .
(a) IlangoAdigal
(b) Udayan Cheralathan
(c) Cheran Irumporai
(d) Imayavaramban
Answer:
(a) Ilango Adigal

Question 2.
The epic character from Silappathikaram
(a) Kannagi
(b) Manimegalai
(c) Sita
(d) Patanjali
Answer:
(a) Kannagi

Question 3.
The Pandyas ruled the present day Tamilnadu.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Northern
Answer:
(c) Southern

Question 4.
The first emporium of India is …………….
(a) Muziri
(b) Madurai
(c) Vanchi
(d) Puhar
Answer:
(a) Muziri

Question 5.
One of the Seven patrons were
(a) Nalli
(b) Vendan
(c) Valavan
(d) Vanaran
Answer:
(a) Nalli

Question 6.
The place served as the court of Justice was
(a) Padai
(b) Mandram
(c) Avai
(d) Ariyanai
Answer:
(b) Mandram

Question 7.
Mudur means
(a) big village
(b) small village
(c) old village
(d) developing village
Answer:
(c) old village

Question 8.
Paddy and Sugarcane were produced in .
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Palai
(d) Mullai
Answer:
(a) Marutham

Question 9.
Yapernkalam was one of the liter a sources of the
(a) Pandyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Marutham w as called fertile land.
Reason (R) :Marutham produced Paddy and Sugarcane.
a. A is true but R is false.
b. Both A and R is not true.
c. Both A and R are true ; But R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are true ; R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is / are not true.
a. Tholkappiam is a work on Tamil grammar.
b. Perunarkilli was a prominent Chera ruler.
c. Sembiyan was a title assumed by the Cholas.
d. Madurai was the capital of the Cholas.

1. a and b only
2. b and d only
3. c only iv. c and d only

Answer:

1. b and d only

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is / are true?.
a. Nanmaran was praised as the lord of Korkai.
b. Paddaikottil was a place where weapons were kept.
c. Women had many restrictions in social life during Sangam age.
d. Koothu means folk drama.

1. a and b are true
2. b is true
3. c and d are true
4. b and d are true

Answer:

1. b and d are true

Question 4
Match the following dynasties with the garlands they signified.
a. Chera – i. Margosa.
b. Chola – ii. Fig
c. Pandya – iii. Palmyra

1. iii, ii, i
2. ii, iii, i
3. i, ii, iii

Answer:

1. iii, ii, ii

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Sangam age belonged to ______ age.
2. Cheran Irumporai issued ______ in his name.
3. The ______ region remained the central part of the Kingdom.
4. Kallanai means a dam ______
5. MudukudimiPeruvazhuthi issued coins to commemorate his performance of many ______
6. The crown prince was known as ______
7. Veera kazhal means ______
8. Pattinam was the name for a ______

Answer:

1. Iron
2. Coins
3. Kaveri delta
4. Made of stone
5. vedic rituals
6. Komahan
7. coin
8. Kaveri deltas
9. made of stone
10. Vedic rituals
11. Komahan
12. Heroic anklet
13. coastal town

IV. True or False :

1. The King’s court was called Arasavai.
2. The King’s army consisted of eight divisions.
3. The entire kingdom was called Nadu.
4. The eco-regions were five thinais.
5. Varuna system existed in the Sangam age.
6. Sangam age developed the concept of Muthamizh.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True

V. Match:

1. Kurinji – i. Herding
2. Mullai – ii. Fishing
3. Marutham – iii. Heroic Deeds
4. Neithal – iv. Agriculture
5. Palai – v. Hunting

Answer:

1. v
2. i
3. iv
4. ii
5. iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the boundary of Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tamizhagam started from Vengadam (Tirupathi hill) in the north to Kanyakumari (Cape comorin) in the south, bounded by sea on the east and the west.

Question 2.
What were the Festivals and Entertainments in the Sangam period?
Answer:
Festivals:

1. People celebrated several festivals.
2. Some of them were the harvest festival (Pontal), the festival of spring and Karthigai.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the capital.

Entertainments:

1. There were many amusements and games.
2. Dances, festivals, bull fights, cork fights, dice, hunting, wrestling and playing in swings were some of them.
3. Children played with toy cart and with the sand houses made by them.

Question 3.
Where did the Cheras rule?
Answer:
The Cheras ruled over the central and north Travancore, Cochin, South Malabar and Kongu region of TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Mention about the Chera king Senguttuvan.
Answer:

1. Cheran Senguttuvan went on a military expedition to North India.
2. He brought stones from the Himalayas for making the idol of Kannagi, an epic character from Silappathikaram. He introduced Pattini cult.

Question 5.
Why was Kallanai built?
Answer:

1. Kallanai was a dyke (thick wall), built with stones.
2. It was constructed across the Kaveri to divert water throughout the delta region for irrigation.
3. When it was built, Kallanai irrigated an area of about 69,000 acres.

Question 6.
Why is Nedunchezhian hailed on the most popular warrior?
Answer:

1. Nedunchezhiyan is hailed as the most popular warrior.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Chera, Chola and five Velir Chieftains at Talayalanganam.
3. He is praised as the lord of Korkai.

Question 7.
What were the Symbols of royal used during the Sangam period?
Answer:
Kol, Murasu and Venkudai were used as the symbols of the royal authority.

Question 8.
What were the prominent weapons used during the Sangam period?
Answer:

1. The prominent weapons used during this period were sword, kedayam (shield), tomaram (lance) spears, bows and arrows.
2. Tomaram is mentioned as a missile to be thrown at the enemy from a distance.
3. The place where the weapons were kept was known as Paddaikottil.

Question 9.
Mention the important towns of the Sangam period.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Korkai, Madurai, Musiri, Vanji or Karur and Kanchi were the important towns of the Sangam period.

Question 10.
What were the festivals celebrated by the people of the Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. People celebrate several festivals.
2. The harvest festival, (Pongal) and the festival of spring, Kaarthigai, were some of them.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the Capital.

Question 11.
What were the two kinds of markets or bazaars in Puhar and Madurai ?
Answer:

1. There were two kinds of markets or bazaars in the leading cities like Puhar and Madurai.
2. In Madurai, they were Nalangadi (the morning bazaar) and Allanga (the evening bazaar).
3. In these markets, large varieties as well as large quantities of goods were sold and purchased.

Question 12.
Mention the major exports and imports of Musiri, Tondi, Korkai.
Answer:

1. Main exports : Salt, pepper, Ivory, Silk, Spices, Diamonds, Saffron, Precious stones, Muslin, Sandal wood.
2. Main imports : Topaz, tin, wine, glass, horses.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.

Write about the sources of the Sangam Age.
Answer:
(i) Inscriptions – Hathigumpha Inscription of King Karavela ofKalinga, Pugalur (near Karur) Inscription, Ashokan Edicts II and XIII, and
inscriptions found at Mangulam, Alagarmalai and Ki lavalavu (all near Madurai).

(ii) Copper plates – Velvikudi and Chinnamanur copper plates.

(iii) Coins – Issued by the Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas and the chieftains of Sangam Age as well as the Roman coins.

(iv) Megalithic
Monuments – Burials and Hero stones.

(v) Excavated
Materials from – Adichanallur, Arikamedu, Kodumanal, Puhar, Korkai, Alagankulan, Uraiyur.

(vi) Literary Sources – Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai,Pathupattu, Pathinankeezhkanakku, Pattinapalai and Maduraikanji. Epics Silapathikaram and Manimegalai.

(vii) Foreign Notices – The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea, Pliny’s Natural History, Ptolemy’s Geography, Megasthenes’s Indica, Rajavali, Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa.

Question 2.
Write about the Kingship under the Sangam polity.
Answer:

1. The kingship was hereditary.
2. The eldest son of the reigning king generally succeeded to the throne.
3. The coronation ceremony was known as Arasukattilerudhal or Mudisoottuvila.
4. The crown prince was known as Komahan.
5. King held a daily durbar (naalavai) at which he heard and resolved all the disputes.
6. The income to the state was through taxation.
7. The kings and soldiers wore the heroic anklet (Veera kazhal).
8. Spies were used.
9. A wound in the back was considered a disgrace.

Question 3.
Write a note on a) Arts and b) Occupation during Sangam age.
Answer:
Arts:

1. There are many references to variety of musical instruments such as drum, flute and yazh.
2. Karikalan was master of seven notes of music.
3. Singing bards were called panar and vraliyar.
4. Dancing was performed by kanigaiyar. Koothu was the most important cultural practice of the people of Sangam Age.
5. They developed the concept of Muthamizh (Iyal, Isai, Naatakam).

Occupation :

1. The major occupations of the people were : agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing and hunting.
2. Other craftsmen like carpenter, blacksmith, goldsmith, and potters were also part of the population.
3. Weaving was the most common part-time occupation of the farmers and a regular full time job for many others.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
a. Write a note on Ornamental Gateway.
Answer:
Omainental gateway (Pailou) built during Han dynasty (202 BCE – 220 CE) across street lined with small shobs, Hanzhong, Shaanxi Province China in 1875.
b. Write a note on Pyramid Mayan civilisation

1. Mayan pyramid : The Maya are a people of Southern Mexico and northern central America with some 3000 years of history.
2. Archaeological evidence shows the Mayan started to build ceremonial architecture approximately 3000 yrs ago.
3. Mesoamerican pyramids or pyramid shaped structures form a prominent part of ancient Mesoamerican architecture resemblance to Egyptian pyramids.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.1

Question 1.
Study and complete the following pattern.

Solution:

Question 2.
Find next three numbers in the following number patterns,
i) 50, 51, 53, 56, 60,…
ii) 77, 69, 61, 53,…
iii) 10, 20, 40, 80, …..
iv) \(\frac{21}{33}, \frac{321}{444}, \frac{4321}{5555}\)
Solution:
i) The pattern generating these numbers is
50, 50 + 1, 51 + 2, 53 + 3, 56 + 4, 60 + 5, 65 + 6, 71 + 7,
∴ 50, 51, 53, 56, 60, 65, 71, 78, ……
∴ The next three numbers will be 65, 71, 78

ii) The pattern generating these numbers is
77, 77 – 8, 69 – 8, 61 – 8, 53 – 8, 45 – 8, 37 – 8, 29
77, 69, 61, 53, 45, 37, 29, 21,
∴ The next three numbers will be 45, 37, 29.

iii) The pattern generating these numbers is
10, 10 + 10, 20 + 20, 40 + 40, 80 + 80, 160 + 160, 320 + 320,….
10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320, 640,….
∴ The next three numbers will be 160, 320, 640.

iv) The pattern generating these numbers is

Question 3.
Consider the Fibonacci sequence 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55,… Observe and complete the following table by understanding the number pattern followed. After filling the table discuss the pattern followed in addition and subtraction of the numbers of the sequence.

Solution:

Question 4.
Complete the following patterns.

Solution:

Rotate the figure 90°C clockwise to get the next figure.

Solution:

* Move the circled arrow to each comer clockwise and place the square to the opposite comer of the arrow, in first row.
* Copy the first row in the second row.

Solution:

Rotate the arrow inside the square 90° anticlockwise direction so that the arrow pointing each comer anticlockwise.

Question 5.
Find HCF of the following pair of numbers by Euclid’s game.
(i) 25 and 35
(ii) 36 and 12
(iii) 15 and 29
Solution:
(i) 25 and 35
By Euclid’s game, HCF(a, b) = HCF (a, a – b), if a > b.
Here 35 > 25
∴ HCF (25, 35) = HCF (35, 25)
= HCF (15, 10) = HCF (10, 5)
= HCF (5, 5) = 5
∴ HCF (25, 35) = 5

(ii) 36and 12
By Euclid’s game
HCF (36, 12) = HCF (36 – 12, 12) = HCF (24, 12)
= HCF(12, 12) = 12
∴ HCF(36, 12) = 12

(iii) 15 and 29
Here 29 > 15
HCF (29, 15) = HCF (15, 29 – 15)
= HCF(15, 14) = HCF(14, 1) = 1
∴ HCF(29, 15) = 1

Question 6.
Find HCF of 48 and 28. Also, find the HCF of 48 and the number Obtained by finding their difference.
Solution:

Question 7.
Give instructions to fill in a bank withdrawal form issued in a bank.
Solution:
Instructions:

• Fill in the date of withdrawal.
• Fill in the account number in the proper place.
• Fill the branch of a bank.
• Fill in the Name of the account holder.
• Fill the amount to be withdrawn in words.
• Fill in the amount to be withdrawn in numbers.
• Put the signature of the account holder.

Question 8.
Arrange the name of your classmates alphabetically.
Solution:
Name of my classmates is given below.

1. Akila
2. Akshaya
3. Bharathi
4. Divya
5. Ezhil
6. Fathima
7. Gayathri
8. Helen
9. Irusammal
10. Joy
11. Kaviya
12. Lakshmi
13. Monika
14. Nisha
15. Olin
16. Patsy
17. Queenlin
18. Ratha
19. Sindhu
20. Vidhya

Question 9.
Follow and execute the instructions given below?
i) Write the number 10 in the place common to the three figures
ii) Write the number 5 in the place common for square and circle only.
iii) Write the number 7 in the place common for triangle and circle only.
iv) Write the number 2 in the place common for triangle and square only.
v) Write the numbers 12,14 and 8 only in the square, circle and triangle respectively.

Solution:

Question 10.
Fill in the following information.

Solution:

Objective Type Questions

Question 11.
The next term in the sequence 15, 17, 20, 22, 25, is
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 27
(d) 26
Solution:
(c) 27

Question 12.
What will be the 25th letter in the pattern? ABCAABBCCAAABBBCCC
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
Hint:
Write A, B, C with increasing number of A, B, and C
Solution:
(a) B

Question 13.
The difference between the 6th term and the 5th term in the Fibonacci sequence is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 3
Solution:
(d) 3

Question 14.
The 11^th term in the Lucas sequence 1, 3, 4, 7,… is
(a) 199
(b) 76
(c) 123
(d) 47
Solution:
(a) 199

Question 15.
If the Highest Common Factor of 26 and 54 is 2, then the HCF of 54 and 28 is
(a) 26
(b) 2
(c) 54
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 2