Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Statistics Intext Questions

Recap (Textbook Page No. 108)

Question 1.
Count the objects in the following figure and complete the table that follows :

From Fig 5.1 and the table, answer the following question.
(i) The total number of objects in the above picture is ______
(ii) The difference between the number of squares and the number of bats is ______
(iii) The ratio of the number of balls to the number of bats is _______
(iv) What are the objects equal in number?
(v) How many more balls are there than the number of bats?
Solution:
(i) 24
(ii) 0
(iii) \(\frac{8}{6}=\frac{4}{3}\)
(iv) Bat and Square
(v) 2 balls more

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.1

The factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24. Therefore, 24 has 8 factors.

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The number of prime numbers between 11 and 60 is ……..
(ii) The numbers 29 and ……….. are twin primes.
(iii) 3753 is divisible by 9 and hence divisible by ……….
(iv) The number of distinct prime factors of the smallest 4 digit number is ………
(v) The sum of distinct prime factors of 30 is ………
Solution:
(i) 12
(ii) 31
(iii) 3
(iv) 2
(v) 10

Question 2.
Say True or False
(i) The sum of any number of odd numbers is always even.
(ii) Every natural number is either prime or composite.
(iii) If a number is divisible by 6, then it must be divisible by 3.
(iv) 16254 is divisible by each of 2, 3, 6, and 9.
(v) The number of distinct prime factors of 105 is 3.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) False
(iii) True
(iv) True
(v) True

The factors of 144 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 16, 18, 24, 36, 48, 72, and 144.

Question 3.
Write the smallest and the biggest two-digit prime number.
Solution:
Smallest is 11
Biggest is 97

Question 4.
Write the smallest and the biggest three-digit composite number.
Solution:
Smallest three-digit number = 100, divisible by 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50 and so it is the composite biggest three-digit number is 999, composite.
Smallest is 100
Biggest is 999

Question 5.
The sum of any three odd natural numbers is odd. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
True, as we know, that,“the sum of any three odd numbers is always an odd number”.
Example: 3 + 7 + 9 = 19 is odd.

Question 6.
The digits of the prime number 13 can be reversed to get another prime number 31. Find if any such pairs exist up to 100.
Solution:
The required pairs are
(i) 17 and 71
(ii) 37 and 73
(iii) 79 and 97

Question 7.
Your friend says that every odd number is prime. Give an example to prove him/her wrong.
Solution:
15 is an odd number not prime.

Question 8.
Each of the composite numbers has at least three factors. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
True. The composite number 4 has 3 factors namely 1, 2, and 4.

Question 9.
Find the dates of any month of a calendar which are divisible by both 2 and 3.
Solution:
6, 12, 18, 24, 30

Find the factors of 18. 18. 1 x 18. 2 x 9. 3 x 6. 4 x. 5 x. 6 repeats.

Question 10.
I am a two-digit prime number and the sum of my digits is 10.1 am also one of the factors of 57. Who am I?
Solution:
19

Question 11.
Find the prime factorisation of each number by factor tree method and division method.
(a) 60
(b) 128
(c) 144
(d) 198
(e) 420
(f) 999
Solution:
(a) 60

∴ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Also

∴ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
(b) 128

∴ 128 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
Also

∴ 128 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
(c) 144

∴ 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
Also

∴ 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
(d) 198

∴ 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
Also

∴ 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
(e) 420

∴ 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
Also

∴ 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
(f) 999

∴ 999 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 37
Also

∴ 999 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 37

Question 12.
If there are 143 math books to be arranged in equal numbers in all the stacks, then find the number of books in each stack and also the number of stacks.
Solution:
Total number of books = 143
Factorizing 143 = 11 × 13

The number of stacks and the number of books in each stack may be (11, 13) or (13, 11).

Objective Type Questions

Question 13.
The difference between two successive odd number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
Solution:
(b) 2

Question 14.
The only even prime number is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d)
Solution:
(c) 2

Question 15.
Which of the following numbers is not prime?
(a) 53
(b) 92
(c) 97
(d) 71
Solution:
(b) 92

Question 16.
The sum of the factors of 27 is
(a) 28
(b) 37
(c) 40
(d) 31
Solution:
(c) 40

Question 17.
The factors of a number are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 16, 20, 40, and 80. What is the number?
(a) 80
(b) 100
(c) 128
(d) 160
Solution:
(a) 80

Question 18.
The prime factorisation of 60 is 2 × 2 × 3 × 5. Any other number which has the same prime factorisation as 60 is
(a) 30
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) impossible
Solution:
(d) impossible

Question 19.
If the number 6354*97 is divisible by 9, then the value * is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Solution:
(a) 2

Question 20.
The number 87846 is divisible by
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 11 only
(d) all of these
Solution:
(d) all of these

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Statistics Additional Questions

Question 1.
A _____ is a collection of numbers gathered to give some meaningful information.
Solution:
Data

Question 2.
The data can be arranged in a tabular form using ____ marks
Solution:
Tally

Question 3.
A observation occurring 8 times in a data is represented as _____ using tally marks.
Solution:

Question 4.
Tally marks  represents _____
Solution:
6

Question 5.
Following are the choice of sports for 20 students of class VI.

Arrange the names of sports in a table using tally marks.
Solution:

Question 6.
Mariana threw a die 40 times and noted the number appearing each time as shown below.

Make a table and enter the data using tally marks.
Find the number that appeared
(a) the minimum number of times
(b) the maximum number of times
(c) Find those numbers that appear an equal number of times.
Solution:
Table using Tally Marks

(a) The number ‘4’ appeared the minimum number of times
(b) The number ‘5’ appeared the maximum number of times
(c) Numbers ‘1’ and ‘6’ appeared the equal number of times.

Question 7.
What is the advantage of using pictograph?
Solution:
The data can be analyzed and interpreted. The pictures and symbols help us to understand better.

Question 8.
Total number of students of a school in different years is shown in the following table

(A) Prepare a pictograph of students using one symbol to represent 100 students and answer the following questions
(a) How many symbols represent the total number of students in the year 2000?
(b) How many symbols represent the total number of students in the year 1997?
Solution:
(A) The pictograph is given by

(a) 9 Full pictures and a half picture represent the number of students in the year 2000
(b) 5 symbols.

Question 9.
The number of bottles of honey sold by three different shops are given below.

(A) Draw a pictograph and answer the following questions (use the scale – 20 bottles)
(a) What is the total profit of shop A, if the profit gained on each bottle is ‘E’150?
(b) If the total number of bottles sold is 400 how many figures must be drawn to shops?
(c) Find the difference between the number of bottles sold by shop B and the number of bottles sold by shop ‘C’.
Solution:
(A) Pictograph of number of bottles sold

(a) Profit per bottle = ₹ 150
Shop A’s total profit = 80 × 150 = ₹ 12,000
(b) For 400 bottles, the figures to be drawn is \(\frac{400}{20}\) = 20 bottles for shop ‘C ’
(c) Difference = No. of bottles sold by shop ‘C’ – No. of bottles sold by shop ‘B’ = 180 – 140 = 40 bottles

Question 10.
The following data is the total savings of a group of 5 friends in a year.

Draw a pictograph to represent the data.
Solution:

Question 11.
The number of mathematics books sold by a shopkeeper on six consecutive days is shown below.

Draw a bar graph to represent the above information choosing the scale of your choice.
Solution:

Question 12.
The following bar graph shows the number of people visited Mahabalipuram over a period of 5 months.

Use the graph to answer the following questions
(a) How many people visited Mahabalipuram in April?
(b) How many more people visited Mahabalipuram in May than in January?
(c) In which month, were there as many visitors as in March?
(d) In which month was there 1500 more visitors than in January?
(e) How many visitors were there in 5 months?
Solution:
(a) 3500 people visited Mahabalipuram in April
(b) 500 more people
(c) January
(d) April
(e) 11,500 people

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Textual Evaluation

Students can practice CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The girth of a tree can be measured by
(a) metre scale
(b) metre rod
(e) plastic ruler
(d) measuring tape
Answer:
(d) measuring tape

Question 2.
The conversion of 7 m into cm gives
(a) 70 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 700 cm
(d) 7000 cm
Answer:
(c) 700 cm

Question 3.
Quantity that can be measured Is called
(a) Physical quantity
(b) Measurement
(c) unit
(d) motion
Answer:
(a) Physical quantity

Question 4.
Choose the correct one
(a) km > mm > cm > m
(b) km > mm > m > cm
c) km > m > cm > mm
(d) km > cm > m > mm
Answer:
(c) km > m > cm > mm

Question 5.
While measuring length of an object using a ruler, the position of your eye should be
(a) Left side of the point.
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.
(c) Right side of the point
(d) Any where according to one’s convenience.
Answer:
(b) Vertically above the

II. True or False.

1. We can say that mass of an object is 126 kg.
2. Length of one’s chest can be measured by using metre scale.
3. Ten millimetres makes one centimetre.
4. A hand span is a reliable measure of length.
5. The SI system of units is accepted everywhere in the world.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. SI Unit of length is symbolically represented as _____
2. 500 gm = _____ kilogram
3. Distance between Delhi and Chennai can be measured in _____
4. 1 m = _____ cm.
5. 5 km = _____ m.

Answers:

1. m
2. 0.5
3. Kilometer
4. 100
5. 5000

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Sugar: Beam balance; Lime juice?
Answer:
Measuring Jar.

Question 2.
Height of a person: cm; length of your sharpened pencil lead?
Answer:
mm (millimeter)

Question 3.
Milk: volume; vegetables?
Answer:
mass

V. Match the following :

Answer:

VI. Complete the given table

Answer:

VII. Arrange in increasing order of unit.

Question 1.
1 Metre, 1 centimetre, 1 kilometre, and 1 millimetre.
Answer:
1 millimetre < 1 centimetre < 1 Metre < 1 kilometre.

VIII. Find the answer for the following questions within the grid.

1. 10^-3 is one _____
2. SI Unit of time _____
3. Cross view of reading for measurement leads to _____
4. _____ is the one what a clock reads.
5. _____ is the amount of substance present in an object
6. _____ can be taken to get the final reading of the recordings of different of students for a single measurement.
7. _____ is a fundamental quantity.
8. _____ shows the distance covered by an automobile.
9. A tailor use _____ to take measurements to stitch a cloth.
10. Liquids are measured with this physical quantity.

Answers:

1. Millimetre
2. second
3. error
4. Time
5. Mass
6. Average
7. Length
8. Odometer
9. Tape
10. Litre

IX. Answer in a word or two.

Question 1.
What is the full form of the SI system?
Answer:
International System of Units.

Question 2.
Name any one instrument used for measuring mass.
Answer:
Beam balance.

Question 3.
Find the odd one out: Kilogram, millimetre, centimetre, nanometre.
Answer:
Kilogram

Question 4.
What is the SI Unit of mass?
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 5.
What are the two parts present in a measurement?
Answer:
A number and the units.

X. Answer in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
The comparison of unknown quantities with some known quantities is known as measurement.

Question 2,
Define mass?
Answer:
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

Question 3.
The distance between the two places is 43.65 km. Convert it into metre and cm.
Answer:
43.65 km is 43650 m [1 km = 1000 m]
43.65 km is 4365000 cm [1 m = 100 cm]

Question 4.
What are the rules to be followed to make an accurate measurement with scale?
Answer:

1. To avoid the parallax error.
2. Your eye must be exactly in front of vertically above the point where the measurement has to be taken.

XI. Solve the following.

Question 1.
The distance between your school and your house is 2250 m. Express this distance in kilometre.
Answer:
1 km = 1000 m
Distance between school and house is 2250 m = 2.250 km.

Question 2.
While measuring the length of a sharpened pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 2.0 cm and at the other end is 12.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?
Answer:
The difference between the two readings is the length of the pencil.
= 12.1 cm – 2.0 cm
= 10.1 cm or 10 cm and 1 mm.

XII. Write in detail.

Question 1.
Explain two methods that you can use to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Method 1:

1. Take a string and place it along the curved line.
2. Mark the points where the curved line begins and ends on the string.
3. Stretch the string along the length of a meter scale and measure the distance between the two markings of the string.
4. This will give you the length of a curved line.

Method 2:

1. Take a divider separating the legs of the divider by 0.5 cm (or) 1 cm using a ruler.
2. Place it on the curved line starting from one end.
3. Mark the position of the other end.
4. Move it along the line again and again cutting the line into numbers and segments of equal lengths.
5. The remaining parts of the line can be measured using a scale.
6. The Length of the line = (number of segments × length of each segment) + Length of the leftover part.

Question 2.
Fill in the following chart.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which SI unit, you can measure your height?
(a) Kilogram
(b) Litre
(c) Metre
(d) Second
Answer:
(c) Metre

Question 2.
What is the unit of electric current in the SI system?
(a) Kelvin
(b) Ampere
(c) seconds
(d) Volt.
Answer:
(b) Ampere

Question 3.
_____ is used to measure the accurate time of the activity.
(a) Clock
(b) Watch
(c) Stop clock
(d) Sundial
Answer:
(c) Stop dock

Question 4.
These are the measurements used in measuring the volume of liquid.
(a) cylinder
(b) pipettes
(c) burettes
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All

Question 5.
S.I unit for Volume is _____
(a) m²
(b) m
(c) m³
(d) none
Answer:
(c) m³

Question 6.
Twenty decimetre is equal to _____
(a) 2 km
(b) 20 cm
(c) 2 metre
(d) 200 mm
Answer:
(c) 2 metre

Question 7.
_____ is used to measure mass.
(a) Stop clock
(b) Beam balance
(c) Sundial
(d) Graduated cylinder
Answer:
(b) Beam balance

Question 8.
The metric system of units was created by the _____ in 1790.
(a) Greek
(b) Australians
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(d) French

Question 9.
The moon’s gravitational pull is one _____ of the earth’s pull.
(a) seventh
(b) sixth
(c) fifth
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) Sixth

II. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
Kerosene is measured with the help of the graduated cylinder.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Length is a fundamental quantity.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
On the moon, the gravitational force is greater than on earth.
Answer:
False. On the moon, the gravitational force is lesser than on earth.

Question 4.
An electronic balance is a device used to find accurate mass.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
A speedometer is a device used for indicating distance travelled by an automobile.
Answer:
False. Odometer js a device used for indicating distance travelled by automobile.

Question 6.
A ruler or scale used nowadays to measure length was invented by William Bedwell.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Length, mass, and time are some of the derived quantities.
Answer:
False. Length, mass, and time are some of the fundamental quantities.

Question 8.
Leaves and pieces of paper are heavier things.
Answer:
False. Leaves and pieces of paper are lighter things.

Question 9.
The national physical laboratory is located in Delhi.
Answer:
True.

III. Analogy.

Question 1.
Potatoes : Kilogram; Water?
Answer:
Litre.

Question 2.
Stop clock : accurate time; _______ : accurate weight
Answer:
Electronic balance.

Question 3.
Mass : Balance; Length?
Answer:
measuring tape.

Question 4
Amount of matter: mass; Gravitational Pull?
Answer:
Weight.

IV. Answer the following questions in one or two words.

Question 1
What are the materials needed to find the length of a banana?
Answer:
A meter scale, a string or thread, sketch pen.

Question 2.
What formula is used to measure the area of your classroom?
Answer:
My classroom area = Length × Breadth

Question 3.
Give an example of a device used to find the accurate measurement of weight.
Answer:
Electronic balance.

Question 4.
In earlier days, which instruments are used to measure time?
Answer:
Sand clock and Sundial.

Question 5.
What are the clocks used to measure a smaller duration of time?
Answer:
Electronic clock, Stopwatch.

Question 6.
Who invented a ruler or scale?
Answer:
William Bedwell.

Question 7.
Which alloy is used to make the standard metre rod?
Answer:
An alloy of platinum and iridium.

V. Match the following

Answers:
a. ii
b. iii
c. iv
d. i

VI. Answer the following In one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is the international system of units or SI units?
Answer:
For the sake of uniformity all over the world, we have adopted a common set of units to express measurements that are called an international system of units or SI units.

Question 2.
Give some examples of larger length measures.

1. Height of the building,
2. Length of a banner,
3. Height of lamp post.

Question 3.
What is the unit of measurements of very small lengths?
Answer:

1. Millimetre
2. centimetre.

Question 4.
What is meant by parallax?
Answer:
Parallax is a displacement or difference in the apparent position of an object viewed along two different lines of sight.

Question 5.
What is the clock used by ancient people to measure daytime?
Answer:

1. sand clock
2. sun clock.

Question 6.
Where are the electronic balances used?
Answer:
Electronic balances are used in grocery shops and jewellery.

Question 7.
What is an odometer?
Answer:
It is a device used for indicating distance travelled by automobile.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Chandragupta 1 crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R): Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of the Lichchavi family.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Chandragupta II did not have a cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II: The divine theory of kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong, but the statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are correct.
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
a. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
b. Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
c. Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
d. Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

1. Lending money at a high rate of interest was practiced.
2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries.

a. 1. is correct
b. 2. is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
Answer:
Samudragupta
Reason: Samudragupta was a king. Others were not.

2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Answer:
Harshacharita
Reason: Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. The other three were written by Harsha.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ the king of Ceylon was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. A Buddhist monk from China ______ visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. ______ invasion led to the downfall of the Gupta Empire.
4. ______ was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was______
6. ______ the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ______ was the popular king of the Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from ______ to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. Sri Meghavarman
2. Fahine
3. Hun
4. Land Tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopal
7. Harsha
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False:

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to the Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following:
A
a. Mihirakula – 1. Astronomy
b. Aryabhatta – 2. Kumaragupta
c. Painting – 3. Skandagupta
d. Nalanda University – 4. Caravan trader
e. Sartavaga – 5. Bagh
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Answer:
(c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

B
a. Bana – 1.10,000 students
b. Harsha – 2. Prayag
c. Nalanda University – 3. Harshacharita
d. Hiuen – Tsang – 4. Ratnavali
e. Buddhist Assembly – 5 Si-Yu-Ki
a) 4,3,2,1,5
b) 5,2,1,3,4
c) 3,5,1,2,4
d) 2,1,3,4,5
Answer:
3,4,1,5,2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was given the title Kaviraja.
2. Because he was a lover of poetry and music.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The Divine Theory of Kingship was practiced by the Gupta rulers.
2. The king is the representative of God on earth. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribes.
2. They were terrorizing Rome and Constantinople.
3. The white Huns came to India through Central Asia.
4. They were giving trouble to all Indian frontier states.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:

1. Ratnavali
2. Nagananda
3. Priyadharshika

VII. Answer the following briefly :

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.
4. The Prayog Prashasti, composed by Samudragupta’s court poet Harisena was engraved on Allahabad Pillar.
5. This Allahabad Pillar inscription is the main source of information for Samudragupta’s reign.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general.
2. He defeated Vishnugop, the Pallava ruler in the South.
3. He conquered nine Kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of Southern India to the status of feudatories and forced them to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
(i) Classification of land during the Gupta period.

a. Kshetra	–	Cultivable land
b. Khila	–	Wasteland
c. Aprahata	–	Jungle or forest land
d. Vasti	–	Habitable land
e. Gapata Saraha	–	Pastoral land

(ii) Land Tax was the main revenue to the government.

(iii) The condition of the peasants was pathetic. They were required to pay various taxes. They were reduced to the position of serfs.

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

1. The contribution of the traders to the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
2. There were two types of traders, namely Sresti and Sarthavaha.
3. Sresti traders usually settled at a standard place.
4. Sarthavaha traders were caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.
5. Trade items ranged from daily products to valuable and luxury goods.
6. The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.

Question 5.
Highlights the contribution of guptas to architecture.
Answer:

1. The Guptas were the first to construct temples, which evolved from the earlier tradition of rock-cut shrines.
2. Adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, these temples were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora (Maharashtra), Bagh (Madhya Pradesh) and
4. Udaygiri (Odisha).
5. The structural temples built during this period resemble the characteristic features of the Dravidian style.
6. Two remarkable examples of Gupta metal sculpture are
   • a copper image of Buddha about 18 feet high at Nalanda.
   • Sultanganj Buddha seven-and-a-half feet in height.
7. Gupta paintings are found on the Fresco of the Ajanta caves and the Bagh cave in Gwalior.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:
Works of Kalidasa:

1. Dramas: Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra, and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other works are Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava, and Ritusamhara.

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha, himself a poet and dramatist, gathered around him the best of poets and artists.
2. Harsha’s popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda, and Priyadharshika.
3. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta, and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate __________
a. the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
b. the ability of the people to work with gold
c. the prosperity of the kingdom
d. the extravagant nature of kings
Answer:
c. the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on ………………
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for __________
a. renaissance in literature and art
b. expeditions to southern India.
c. invasion of Huns
d. religious tolerance
Answer:
a. renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. The invention of Zero and the consequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses.
3. He was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.
Mauryan Society:

1. According to Megasthenes, the Greek historian, the ancient Mauryan society comprised of seven divisions namely philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councillors which were referred to as castes.
2. In the ancient Mauryan society, the cultivators formed the largest group becoming the central nerve of agriculture in society.
3. The caste system was a very prevalent one.
4. Women were also engaged in a variety of activities like archers, royal bodyguards, spies, and performers.
5. But women were most of the time dominated by their male counterparts.
6. Wisdom had a very honorable place in society. Offenses against women were severally dealt with.
7. An urban way of life developed. Education became fairly widespread.
8. Slavery in India was beginning to make an appearance.

Gupta Society:

1. Society has adhered to four vama system.
2. According to the laws of Manu, which was in force, women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
3. Polygamy was widely prevalent.
4. The kings and the feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Inscriptions refer to Kubernaga and Dhruvasvamini as the queens of Chandragupta II.
6. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

X. Life Skills :

Question 1.
Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta:

1. Aryabhatta (476-550CE) was the first of the major mathematician-astronomers from the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian astronomy.
2. His major work, Aryabhatiya is a compendium of mathematics and astronomy.
3. Aryabhatiya covers several branches of mathematics such as algebra, arithmetic, plane and spherical trigonometry.
4. Aryabhatta discovered the position of nine planets and expressed that these likewise rotate around the sun.
5. He also provided the circumference and measurement of the Earth and the radius of the orbits of 9 planets.
6. Aryabhatta pronounced that the moon has no light of its own.
7. He concluded that the earth is round. He also stated that it rotates on its own axis, which is why we have days and nights.
8. He concentrated on a few geometric and trigonometric parts of the celestial sphere that are still used to study stars.
9. In his old age, Aryabhatta composed another treatise ‘ Aryabahatta – Siddhanta’. It is the booklet for everyday astronomical calculation for performing rituals, To this very day, astronomical data provided in this text is used for preparing panchangs (Hindu Calendars).
10. India’s first Satellite Aryabhatta was named after him.

Varahamihira:

1. Varahamihira (505-587CE) was an Indian astronomer, mathematician and astrologer from Ujjain.
2. Varahamihira is considered to be one of the Nine gems (Navarathnas) of the court of ancient ruler Yashodarman.
3. His knowledge of westren astrology was thorough but he was also very intrested in astrology and horoscope
4. His father was a worshipper of the Sun God and it was he who taught astrology.
5. Varahamihira was a scientist. He declared that the earth was spherical. He was the first to claim that some ‘force’ might be keeping bodies stuck to the round earth. This force is now called gravity.
6. He proposed that the moon and the planets are lustrous not because of their own light but due to Sunlight.
7. His book Panchasiddhantika on mathematical astronomy is one of the most important sources for the history of Hindu Astronomy.
8. His encyclopedia Brihat-Samhita with 106 chapters include subjects planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, growth of crops, various rituals.

Brahmagupta – (598-668 CE):

1. Brahmagupta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer. He wrote some important works on both mathematics and astronomy.
2. His most famous work is “Brahmasphutasiddanta”.
3. Brahmagupta explained how to find the cube and cuberoot.
4. He was the earliest known mathematician to treat zero as a number in its own right.
5. He dedicated a substantial portion of his work to geometry and trigonometry
6. He explains that since the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun, the degree of the illuminated part of the moon depends on the relative position of the sun and the moon. This can be computed from the size of the angle between the bodies.
7. In his treatise, Khandakhadyaka explored the longitudes of the planets, diurnal rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, rising and settings etc.

Question 2.
Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.
Answer:
ISRO :

1. The Indian space Research Organisation is the space agency of the government of India.
2. Its headquarters is in the city of Bangalore.
3. it was formed in 1969.
4. It built India’s first satellite “Aryabhatta” in 1975.

Satellite Launching:

1. Usually, the word ‘Satellite’ refers to a machine that is launched into space and moves around the Earth or another body in space.
2. Moon is an example of a natural satellite. Thousands of artificial or Man-made satellites orbit Earth.
3. India has two operational launchers:
   • Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
   • Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

XI. Answer Grid :

Who was Toromana? Ans: Chief of the Huns	Name the high-ranking officials of the Gupta Empire. Ans: Dandanayakas and Mahadanayakas
Name the Gupta kings who performed Asvamedha yagna. Ans: Samudra Gupta Kumaragupta I	Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses. Ans: Surya Siddhanta
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins. Ans: Sri Guptha	Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign? Ans: Allahabad Pillar Inscription
Harsha was the worshipper in the beginning. Ans: Lord Shiva	University reached its fame during the Harsha period. Ans: Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires: Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Devichandraguptam was written by _______
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Harisena
(c) Bana
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(a) Visakhadatta

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasizes the importance of ……………
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
Vishnugopa was the ruler of _______
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Pallava
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Pallava

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara ……………
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

Question 5.
Srimeghavarman was a contemporary of _______
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Narasimhagupta
Answer:
(c) Samudragupta

Question 6.
Nitisara was authored by _______
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Visakhadatha
(c) Kamandaka
(d) Harisena
Answer:
(c) Kamandaka

Question 7.
Hinayana and Mahayana were the two sects of
(a) Vaishnavism
(b) Saivism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Contribution of the traders for the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
Reason (R) : The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.
a. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: Kumaragupta built the famous Nalanda University.
Statement II: Fahien spent many years studying Buddhism at Nalanda University.
a. Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are wrong.
d. Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.

1. Lichchhavi was old gana-sanga.
2. Srigupta was given the title “Kaviraja’

a. 1 is correct
b. 2 is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
a. 1 is correct

Question 4.
Circle the odd one.

Question 1.
Kshetra, Vasti, Nitisara, Khila.
Answer:
Nitisara
Reason: Nitisara is a book, whereas the other three were the classification of land in Gupta’s period.

Question 2.
Pataliputra, Benaras, Magadha, Mathura
Answer:
Magadha
Reason: Magadha was an ancient kingdom, whereas the other three were the famous trade centers.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hiuen Tsang authored _______
2. Fahien visited the court of _______
3. The last of the great Guptas was _______
4. The last recognized king of the Gupta empire was _______
5. The espionage system of the Gupta was known as _______
6. Pushyabhuti dynasty ruled from _______
7. Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneswar to _______
8. Sasanka of Bengal was hostile to _______
9. Harsha met the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang at _______
10. Harsha built the charitable institution to care for the _______

Answer:

1. Si-Yu-Ki
2. Chandragupta II
3. Baiaditya /Narasimha Gupta I
4. Vishnugupta
5. Dutakas
6. Thaneswar
7. Kanau
8. Harsha
9. Kajangala
10. Sick and Poor

IV. True or False :

1. The surname Devaraja referred to Vikramaditya.
2. Chandragupta II built the Nalanda University.
3. Aprahata meant Jungle or forest land.
4. Sresti traders were caravan traders.
5. Asvamedha Yagna means horse sacrifice ritual.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match:
A
Kalidasa – 1. Architect
Sanku – 2. Physician
Varahamihira – 3. Sanskrit Poet
Dhanvantri – 4. Magician
Vittalbhatta – 5. Astronomer
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 3,1,5,2,4
d)4,2,3,1,5
Answer:
c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
Amarasimha – 1. Grammarian
Kahapanaka – 2. Sanskrit Poet
Varauchi – 3. Lexicographer
Harisena – 4. Buddhism
Hinayana – 5. Astrologer
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 4,5,3,1,2
d)5,3,2,4,1
Answer:
b) 3,5,1,2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was Srigupta?
Answer:

1. Srigupta is considered to be the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
2. He is believed to have reigned over parts of present-day Bengal and Bihar.
3. He was the first Gupta ruler to be featured on coins.
4. He was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta, he is portrayed playing the harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title “Kaviraja7.

Question 3.
Mention the surnames of Chandragupta II.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, SimhachandraJ Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.

Question 4.
What do the seals and inscriptions reveal about Gupta’s military administration?
Answer:

1. Seals and inscriptions mentioned the military designations as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita (Commander of infantry and cavalry respectively).
2. The system of espionage included spies known as dutakas.

Question 5.
What were the metals used by the Guptas?
Answer:
Guptas used iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica, manganese, and red chalk.

Question 6.
Was there the development of Sanskrit grammar during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta period saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on the grammar of Panini and Patanjali who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Mahabhashya respectively.

Question 7.
Why did Harsha embrace Buddhism?
Harsha embraced Buddhism under the influence of his sister Rajyashri and the Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen Tsang.

Question 8.
As a Buddhist, what are the contributions of Harsha?
Answer:

1. Harsha belonged to the Mahayana school of thought.
2. Harsha treated Vedic scholars and Buddhist monks alike and distributed Charities equally to them.
3. He was the last Buddhist sovereign in India.
4. As a pious Buddhist, Harsha stopped the killing of animals for food.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Chandragupta II.
Answer:

1. Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta.
2. He was also known as Vikramaditya.
3. He conquered western Malwa and Gujarat by defeating the Saka rulers.
4. He maintained a friendly relations with the rulers of southern India.
5. The iron pillar near Qutub Minar is believed to have been built by Vikramaditya.
6. Fahien, a Buddhist scholar from China, visited India during his region.
7. Vikramaditya is said to have assembled the greatest writers and artists [Navaratna (Nine Jewels)] in his court.
8. He was succeeded by Kumaragupta

Question 2.
What do you know about society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to the four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practiced during the Gupta rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nalanda University.
Answer:

1. Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj.
2. At Nalanda, Buddhism was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature, and Medicine were also taught.
3. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism at the University.
4. Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus.
5. Nalanda was ravaged and destroyed by Turkish Muslims.
6. Today it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 4.
Explain the Gupta Monetary System under Samudra Gupta.
Answer:

1. Samundragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system.
2. Kushana coins provided inspiration to Samudragupta.
3. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara.
4. Gupta’s issued many gold coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins.
5. However, the post-Gupta period saw a fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.

Question 5.
Write about the conquests of Harshavardhana.
Answer:

1. The most popular king of the Vardhana dynasty was Harshavardhana. He ruled for 41 years.
2. His feudatories included those of Jalandhar, Kashmir, Nepal, and Valabhi.
3. Sasanka of Bengal remained hostile to him.
4. It was Harsha who unified most of northern India.
5. He maintained a cordial relationship with the rulers of Iran and China.
6. But the extension of his authority in the south was checked by Chalukya king Pulikesin II.
7. The kingdom of Harsha disintegrated rapidly into small states after his death in 648 AD

Question 6.
Who was Hiuen Tsang?
Answer:

1. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveller, known as the “Prince of pilgrims”, visited India during Harsha’s reign.
2. His book ‘Si-yu-ki’ provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious, and cultural conditions of India during Harsha’s time.
3. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held at Prayag.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of the assemblies held at
a) Kanauj
b) Prayag.
Answer:
a. Assembly held at Kanauj:

1. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings.
2. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and Vedic scholars attended the assembly.
3. The golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in the monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.

b. Assembly at Prayag:

1. In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars, and poor people.
2. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all four days of the assembly

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by _______
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(d) Neerarum Kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Mana

Question 3.
Who wrote the most ramous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 4.
________ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non-violence?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is _______
(a) sky blue
(c) blue
(b) navy blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy bluel

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in ……………..
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by _______
(a) Devandranath Tagpre
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(d) Balagangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is ……………..
(a) 50 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(c) 52 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by _______ at the 1896 session of the National Congress
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10
________ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi.
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Vice President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The National emblem was adapted from the Ashoka pillar of ______
2. The National fruit of India is______
3. The National Bird of India is______
4. Our National tree is the______
5. The Flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in______
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ______
7. ______ started the Saka Era
8. The longest river in India is______
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ______
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has______ spokes

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pingali Venkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya
10. 24

III. Choose the correct answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the ______ museum (Kolkata/Samath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in ______
3. ______ is declared as our National Microorganism (Lactobacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lactobacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks:

1. Saffron — Courage ; White – _______
2. Horse — Energy; Bull – _______
3. 1947 — Independence day; 1950 – _______

Answer:

1. Honesty, peace, purity
2. Hard work and dedication
3. Republic day

V. Choose the Correct Option:

1) Rabindranath Tagore – a.National Song
2) Bankim Chandra Chatteijee – b. National Flag
3) Pingali Venkayyac. – c. Astro Physicist
4) Meghnad Saha – d. National Anthem
a) a d b c
b) d a c b
c) d a b c
Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and choose the wrong answer:

1. National Reptile – Tiger
2. National Aquatic Animal – Lactobacillus
3. National Heritage Animal – King Cobra
4. National Micro organism – Dolphin

Answer:

1. National Reptile – King Cobra
2. National Aquatic Animal – Dolphin
3. National Heritage Animal – Tiger
4. National Micro organism – Lactobacillus

VII. Choose the Wrong sentence:

Question 1.
a) The ratio of our National Flag’s length and breadth is 3:2
b) The Chakra has 24 spokes
c) The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
c) The Chakra is Blue in colour [Clue: Navy Blue is correct]

Question 2.
a) The National Flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya
b) The First-ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum
c) The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam
Answer:
b) The First-ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum,

VIII. Choose the correct sentence:

a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day
b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti
Answer:
a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The Green represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white represents honesty, peace, and purity.
4. The wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. Our National emblem consists of two parts the upper and the lower parts.
2. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East, and West on a circular Pedestal.
3. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion. The wheel of the right sourness is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National anthem?
Answer:

1. Our National Anthem symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our nation.
2. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore.
3. It has to be sung at a duration of 52 seconds.
4. While singing the National Anthem everyone should stand erect.
5. While singing it one should understand the meaning of it.
6. Jana Gana Mana was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali
7. This was accepted by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January 1950.
8. It symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our nation.

The rules to be observed while singing the Anthem

1. This anthem has to be sung at a duration of 52 seconds.
2. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem,
3. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee Symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian Rupee sign is the official currency of India. (Designed by D. Udhaya Kumar)
2. It was presented to the public by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.
3. Shershah Sur’s currency was Rupiya.
4. This Rupiya has been transformed into Rupees the Indian Currency.
5. The symbol of Rupees in.
6. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in 2010.

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The national emblem is found at the top of Government Communication, Indian Currency, and Passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National Pledge?
Answer:
Pydimarri Venkata Subha Rao wrote the National Pledge.

Question 7.
What are the animals found in the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
An elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion are found at the bottom of the emblem.

Question 8.
What are the natural national Symbols?
Answer:

1. Banyan tree
2. Peacock
3. River Ganges
4. Dolphin
5. King Cobra
6. Lotus
7. Tiger
8. Elephant
9. Lactobacillus
10. Mango

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, the peacock sanctuary is located at Viralimalai.

X. Activities:

Question 1.
What should we do to protect the endangered plants and animals – Discuss.
Answer:

1. Grow native plants.
2. Reduce your water consumption.
3. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
4. Do not buy plastic products.
5. Volunteer your time to protect the wildlife in your area.
6. Do not purchase products from companies
7. Avoid supporting the market in illegal wildlife including tortoise-shell, ivory, and coral.
8. Herbicides and pesticides are hazardous pollutants that affect wildlife at many levels.
9. Educate friends and relatives about endangered species in your area.

Question 2.
Celebrate the national eyents in your school and prepare a news item for a local
newspaper.
Answer:
Republic Day Celebrations in our XYZ Hr. Sec. School
A Report
On the morning of 26th Jan, our school, XYZ Hr. Sec. School, celebrated Republic Day in the school premises. It was a matter of great pride for all of us. Our Headmaster, teachers and the students didn’t want to leave any stone unturned in making this monumental day a memorable one.

The DIG of the City Police was the Chief Guest. He came on time. He was warmly welcomed by the whole staff led by our Headmaster. Then our Headmaster took him to the Function venue. There our hon’ble guest unfurled the national flag. With that everybody stood erected for National Anthem sung by the students. Then there were parades by NCC cadets of the school. After this, students presented cultural items.

These cultural items included patriotic songs, folk dances and speeches. Some students also presented skit based on fight against terrorist. Then there were speakers who through their speeches invoked the precious contribution of great freedom fighters.

With a couple more cultural items, the function ended with the national anthem. Towards the end, all the people there flew colored balloons symbolizing prosperity and peace. Despite the weather being inclement, we enjoyed Republic Day with great enthusiasm. Along with other students, I will never forget this wonderful day.

XI. Life skill activity:

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:
Along with various animals and birds, which form part of the national symbols of India, the Indian government adopted a microorganism called lactobacillus delbrueckii in the year 2012 as our national microorganism.

The reason for doing so is primarily educational and to create awareness among people about the importance of microorganisms. Lactobacillus is an important bacteria used in food production.

Lactobacillus species are used for the production of yogurt, cheese, sauerkraut, pickles, beer, wine, cider, kimchi, cocoa, and other fermented foods, as well as animal feeds, such as silage.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols InText Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:

1. By law, the flag is to be made of Khadi.
2. The right to manufacture the flag is held by the Khadi Development and Village Industries Commission who allocates it to regional groups.
3. As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
Wildlife Protection Act was passed in the year.
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1973
Answer:
(c) 1972

Question 2.
The National flower of India is
(a)’ Lotus
(b) Jasmine
(c) Rose
(d) Lily
Answer:
(a) Lotus

Question 3.
The Government of India adopted the Elephant as a natural National symbol in the year.
(a) 1950
(b) 1963
(c) 1973
(d) 2010
Answer:
(d) 2010

Question 4.
Congress committee in 1911 Was held at
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(c) Kolkata

Question 5.
The symbol Indian National Currency was designed by
(a) Ravikumar
(b) Udhyakumar
(c) Krishnakumar
(d) Manojkumar
Answer:
(b) Udhyakumar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in _______
2. Tirupur Kumaran honoured with the title _______
3. Satyameva Jayate means _______
4. Lactobacillus was accepted as our National Microorganism in the year _______
5. SherShah sur introduced rupee currency Rupiya in the _______
6. During a leap year, the spring equinox begins on _______
7. World’s biggest democracy is _______
8. Aaduvome Pallu Paduvome” was sung by _______ Over the AIR
9. The first citizen of India is the _______
10. On Republic Day, the _______ of India the National Flag at the red fort, New Delhi
11. The International Day of Non-violence is observed on _______

Answer:

1. Chennimalai
2. Kodi Katha Kumaran
3. Truth alone Triumphs
4. 2012
5. Sixteenth Century
6. March 21th
7. India
8. T.K. pattammal
9. President
10. President
11. 2nd October

III. Match the following:

1.	The First Indian Flag	a.	Chennai
2.	Pingali Venkayya	b.	Passport
3.	St. George’s Fort	c.	National Calendar
4.	National Emblem	d.	Gudiyatham
5.	Meghnad Saha	e.	Andhra Pradesh

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the ‘Beating Retreat’ Ceremony.
Answer:
On January 29, the third day of Republic Day, the celebrations are brought to an end with the “ Beating Retreat” ceremony. This is performed by the bands of the Indian Army, Navy, and Airforce. The President of India is the chief guest of this day. Rashtrapati Bhavan will be illuminated at 6 pm as a part of the celebration.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kodi Katha Kumaran.
Answer:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai of Erode district.
2. As a youth, he actively participated in the freedom struggle of India,
3. in 1932, when Gandhiji was arrested, there were protests all over India.
4. Tirupur Kumaran took an active part in these protests.
5. He lost his life when the police attacked him violently.
6. He held on to the tricolor flag even when he died.
7. He was honoured with the title, ‘Kodi Katha Kumaran’.

Question 3.
Write about Tamil Nadu’s National Symbols.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the natural national symbols.
Answer:

1. Banyan tree (1950). It is a symbol of pride and has many medicinal values.
2. Peacock (1963). It is native to Asia and the only bird which has a tail.
3. River Ganges (2008) is a perennial river and many royal capitals flourished on its banks.
4. River Dolphin (2010). It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river eco-system. It is on the endangered list.
5. King Cobra – It is the World’s longest venomous snake and lives in the rain forests and plains of India.
6. Lotus (1950) Though it grows in muddy water, it blooms with beauty.
7. Tiger (1973) It is the largest cat species. India has 70% of the tiger population in the world.
8. Elephant (2010) It is native to mainland Asia and plays a critical role in maintaining the region’s forests.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Identify the fresh water ecosystem.
(a) Pond
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 2.
Producers are
a. Animals
b. Birds
c. Plants
d. Snakes
Answer:
c. Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
(a) Plastic
(b) Coconut Shell
(c) Glass
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(b) Coconut shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
a. Recycling
b. Reuse
c. Pollution
d. Reduce
Answer:
c. Pollution

Question 5.
Usages of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes pollution.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Water pollution

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called _______
2. Temperature, light and wind are _______ factors.
3. _______ is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread _______ and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, _______ and Recycle.

Answers:

1. Herbivores
2. Physical
3. Recycling
4. Diseases
5. Reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
The Pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
Answer:
False. Human and animal wastes are examples of biodegradable waste.

Question 4.
Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
Answer:
False. Excessive use of pestides leads to water pollution.

Question 5.
In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Biotic factor – Terrestrial Ecosystem
2. Sewage – Land pollution
3. Fertilizers – Air pollution
4. Desert – Water Pollution
5. Smoke – Animals

Answer:

1. Biotic factor – Animals
2. Sewage – Water pollution
3. Fertilizers – Land pollution
4. Desert – Terrestrial ecosystem
5. Smoke – Air pollution

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

Question 1.
Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake
Answer:
Carrot → Rabbit → Snake → Eagle

Question 2.
Human → Insect → Algae → Fish
Answer:
Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living and non-living things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems:

1. Natural ecosystem
2. Artificial ecosystem

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Recycling things:

1. Using old clothes to make paper.
2. Melting some plastics to make floor mats, plastic boards, and hose pipes.

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution :

1. Air Pollution.
2. Water Pollution.
3. Land (Soil) Pollution.
4. Noise Pollution.

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → fish

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:

1. Toxic gases and fine particles from burning fossil fuels, chemicals released from factories.
2. Sewage, industrial effluents, pesticides and fertilizers
3. Plastics and electronics are land pollutants.

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?
a. Loud Speaker
b. Plastic
Answer:
a. Loud Speaker – Causes noise pollution.
b. Plastic – Causes land (soil) pollution.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘‘Biodegradable” is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun and microorganisms, etc.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour left-over oil, old medicines or waste, down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Use wastewater for the garden at home.
4. Do not litter or dump waste – always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:
Importance of food chain

1. Learning the food chain helps us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. Understanding the food chain also helps us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem.
3. This is important because pollution impacts the ecosystem. The food chain can be used to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
1. Avoid:

• Avoid buying packaged foods.
• Refuse to buy use and throw plastic products.
• The usage of such unwanted materials may create more debris.

2. Reduce:

• Use durable goods that last longer instead of things that are used once and thrown away.
• (Eg.) Write on both sides of paper.
• Instead of unnecessary printing use electronic facilities.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is caused by loud sounds.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution which affects the environment.
3. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
4. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
5. It leads to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
6. Loud noise or music can damage our ears.
7. It also disturbs animals. For example in noisy areas birds have to communicate louder so they can hear each other.
8. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:

1. The food chain in a grassland ecosystem is given below.
2. Plants 2 Deer 2 Tiger
3. Here if any one component of the food chain is harmed, the other living things are affected.
4. For example, if the deer populations in a forest is reduced through natural or human activities, the tigers living in the forest will not have enough food to eat and so the number of tigers may get reduced.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. Dengue and malaria fever are caused by the bite of mosquitoes.
2. Accumulation of waste and stagnant water or uncovered containers of stored drinking water are the habitat for breeding mosquitoes.
3. In order to control these infectious diseases, people should maintain a clean environment, free from mosquitoes.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?
Answer:

1. The atmosphere is polluted in this picture. It is due to the smoke rising from burning garbage.
2. Land and water have been polluted because of leaching the toxins into the soil and water.

Questions 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
Types of pollution caused:

1. Air pollution.
2. Land pollution.
3. Water pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Think of the objects in your home. Just keep in mind, the books, toys, furniture, food materials and even pets of your home. These living and non-living things together make your home. Look at the following picture and list out the living and non-living things.

Answer:
Living things: Plants, Beetle, Mosquito, Larva, Water snake, Water scorpion, Snail, Fish, Duck, and Frog, etc.
Non- living things: Sun, Air, Water, Chemicals, Soil, Rocks and Temperature, etc.

Activity 2

Take a square paper. Fold its diagonals. Draw three lines in three triangles as shown in the picture.
Cut from the edge of the diagonal to the centre as shown in the picture.

If you fold this triangle and paste behind the third triangle you get a pyramidal shape.

In one of the triangles, draw images of each of the organisms in the different levels.

In another triangle write the names of the organisms. In the last triangle, write the energy level of the organism. Have a look at the following example. You must come up with different organisms!

Answer:

Activity 3

Take two mud pots or glass jars and fill them up with garden soil. In the first pot, mix wastes such as banana peel, some vegetable peels and a few tree leaves into the soil. In the second pot, mix a piece of the plastic carry bag, sweet wrapper, and metal foil into the soil.

What happen to the waste materials placed in both pots? Do you notice a difference between the first and second pot? Observe the changes over two weeks and discuss with your classmates.
Answer:
After two weeks, the wastes in the first pot, such as banana peel, some vegetable peel and tree leaves are degraded.

The wastes in the second pot such as carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil are not degraded.

Because the first pot has biodegradable wastes. So they are degraded. But the second pot has non-biodegradable wastes. So they are not degraded.

Activity Pg.No : 53

Question 1.
Give some examples for Biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Preparation of Vermi Compost

1. Dig a pit for about one feet depth in the backyard or garden of your home or school.
2. Fill the pit with bio-wastes, paper, and food wastes, place few earthworms in it, sprinkle water, and close the place with jute or cardboard and ensure moisture all the time.
3. After 45 days the vermi casting layer formed just above the pit.
4. These castings will be applied to the plant.
5. This contains water-soluble nutrients.
6. This type of compost helps in plant growth as well as sustain the land is fertility.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Classroom Exercise:
Identify who am I?

Question 1.
I am the type of pollution caused by the burning of fossil fuels like petrol (or) coal and the smoke of burning garbage. I float around and cause breathing problems. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Air.

Question 2.
I am the type of pollution caused by loud sounds and I can cause serious damage to your ears and also affect sleep. In India, I am mainly caused by loudspeakers and the honking of air horns of cars. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Noise.

Question 3.
I flow from homes and farms into rivers and lakes. I kill fish and make water unfit for drinking. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Water.

Question 4.
I am the type of pollution caused by using too much chemical fertilizers and pesticides by farmers. I lower the quality of soil and even move chemicals into plant parts which are eaten by people. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Land.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
These are abiotic factors.
i. Sunlight
ii. Bacteria
iii. Air
iv. Plants
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Answer:
(b) i and iii

Question 2.
Pick out the terrestrial ecosystem
(a) lake
(b) mountain regions
(c) deserts
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c – mountain regions deserts

Question 3.
_______ are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposer
(d) Omnivores
Answer:
(a) Producers

Question 4.
The primary energy production in the world of living things is made by?
(a) aquatic insect
(b) rabbit
(c) plants
(d) deer
Answer:
(c) plants

Question 5.
Natural agents like _______ are the decomposition factors breaking complex forms into the simpler units.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) microorganisms
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The average person in India produces _______ kg of waste everyday
(a) 0.45
(d) 055
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.55
Answer:
(a) 0.45

Question 7.
Most _______ pollution is caused by the burning of these fossil fuels.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Air
(d) Noise
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 8.
Among the following which one is not polluted by noise pollution?
(a) Sounds of motor vehicles
(b) Music from the radio
(c) Firing crackers
(d) Loud music
Answer:
(b) Music from the radio

Question 9.
_______ Pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
(a) Noise
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(a) Noise

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ are called as biotic factors.
2. _______ is the best example of a natural terrestrial ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem originated without human intervention is called _______
4. The ecosystem in water is called the _______ ecosystem.
5. _______ obtained energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms.
6. The sequence of who eats whom in an ecosystem is called _______
7. The food chain begins with the energy given by the _______
8. Each level in the food chain is called a _______ level.
9. The burning of solid waste in _______ is called incineration.
10. Garbage buried inside landfills remain here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become _______
11. Polluted _______ affects the skin, eyes, and respiratory system.
12. Land (Soil) pollution happens when toxic change the natural balance in the soil.

Answers:

1. Plants
2. Forest
3. Natural ecosystem
4. Aquatic
5. Bacterium
6. Food chain
7. Sun
8. Trophic
9. Incinerator
10. Manure
11. Air
12. Chemicals

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the artificial terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
False. Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the natural terrestrial ecosystem.

Question 2.
Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the terrarium.
Answer:
False. Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the aquarium.

Question 3.
Animals that eat both plants and animals are called Carnivores.
Answer:
False. Animals that eat both plants and animals are called Omnivores.

Question 4.
In a food, chain grasshopper gets energy by eating frogs.
Answer:
False. In a food, chain frog gets energy by eating a grasshopper.

Question 5.
If we protect the ecosystem, we can reduce waste by using durable goods.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that can be easily decomposed.
Answer:
False. The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that cannot be easily decomposed.

Question 7.
The process by which waste materials are used to make new products is called recycling.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Expired medicines, used batteries are domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Lcrud noise or even loud music can damage our eyes.
Answer:
False. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears.

IV. Match the following :

A.

i.	Abiotic factor	(a)	Deer
ii.	Decomposers	(b)	Owl
iii.	Herbivores	(c)	Heat
iv.	Carnivores	(d)	Human
v.	Omnivores	(e)	Fungi

Answers:
i – c
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – d.

B.

i.	Avoid the usage	(a)	Recycle
ii.	Sharing newspapers	(b)	Incinerate
iii.	Using of fountain pens	(c)	Buying packaged food
iv.	Using old clothes to make paper	(d)	Reducing
v.	Human anatomical waste	(e)	Reusing

Answers:
i – c
ii – d
iii – e
iv – a
v – b.

C.

i.	Burning coal	(a)	Land pollution
ii.	Throwing plastic	(b)	Noise pollution
iii.	Wastewater from factories is mixed with river	(c)	Air pollution
iv.	Louder horn of vehicle	(d)	Water pollution

Answers:
i – c
ii – a
iii – d
iv – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Biotic factor : Animals :: Abiotic factor : _______
Answer:
Air or Water.

Question 2.
Natural terrestrial ecosystem : Forest:: Artificial terrestrial ecosystem : _______
Answer:
Garden.

Question 3.
Primary Consumer : Goat, Cow :: Secondary Consumer : _______
Answer:
Frog, Owl.

Question 4.
Biodegradable waste: Leaves, Garden wastes:: Non-biodegradable waste: _______
Answer:
Plastic cover, glass bottle.

Question 5.
Edaphic factor : Water in soil:: Physical factor : _______
Answer:
Light.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
List out the following by biotic and abiotic factors. (Sun, plants, animals, air, soil, bacteria, heat, minerals.
Answer:
Abiotic Factors:
Sun, Air
Water, Soil
Heat, Minerals

Biotic Factors:
Plants
Animals
Bacteria

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the landfill.
Answer:

1. Land filling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring or man-made pits and covered with soil.
2. Garbage buried inside landfills remains here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become man use.
3. These places can be converted into parks, gardens, etc.
4. The first step should always be to reduce waste.
5. The second step is to keep waste separate. So that the waste can be easily reused or recycled.

Question 3.
Define – Aquarium.
Answer:
An aquarium is a place in which fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained.
Example: Fish growing in homes with a small tanks.

Question 4.
What are Autotrophs?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food. They do not need to eat other organisms, to do this. Producers are also called Autotrophs.

Question 5.
Define – Heterotrophs.
Answer:
Organisms which cannot produce their own food, need to eat other organisms as food. These Organisms are also called consumers. All animals are consumers as they cannot produce their own food. Consumers are also called Heterotrophs.

Question 6.
Differentiate between herbivores and carnivores.
Answer:
Herbivores:

1. Animals which eat plants or plant products.
2. Ex: Deer, Goat, Cattle, and Rat.

Carnivores:

1. Animals that eat other animals..
2. Ex: Lion, Tiger, Frog, and Owl.

Question 7.
What are decomposers?
Answer:
Micro-organisms (both plants and animals) that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms. They break complex organic substances into simple organic substances that go into the soil and are used by plants.

Example: Bacterium, Fungi.

Question 8.
Define Food web.
Answer:

1. If we put all the food chains within an ecosystem together, then we end up with many interconnected food chains. This is called a food web.
2. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.

Question 9.
What is reuse? Give examples.
Answer:
Reusing means using a thing again and again, rather than using and throwing after a single-use.

Example:

1. Instead of using plastic bags, use cloth bags.
2. Rechargeable batteries and fountain pens.

Question 10.
What is a Landfill?
Answer:
Landfilling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring (or) man-made pits and covered with soil.

Question 11.
Give the Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules.
Answer:
The Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules, 2016, say that,

i. Every household should segregate and store the waste generated by them in three separate streams namely bio-degradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous waste in suitable bins and handover the segregated wastes to authorized waste pickers, (or) waste collector as per direction or notification by the local authorities from time to time.

ii. Nobody shall throw, bum, or bury the solid waste on streets, open public spaces outside his premises, or in the drain or water bodies.

Question 12.
List any four domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:

1. Discarded paint drums
2. Pesticide cans,
3. CFL bulbs, tube lights
4. Used batteries, used needles, and syringes.

Question 13.
How can we reduce land pollution?
Answer:

1. First try to reduce waste, then recycle the rest.
2. Always use a waste bin and never litter.
3. Do not bum waste, the ash mixes easily with soil.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give the types of the ecosystem by a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 2.
How can we reduce air pollution?
Answer:

1. Cycle or walk short distances instead of using a motor vehicle.
2. Travel by public transport (bus or train)
3. Do not burn solid waste.
4. Avoid fireworks.

Question 3.
Classify the most significant sources of water pollutants.
Answer:
The most significant sources of water pollutants are:

1. Sewage (water we use at home for bathing, cleaning, cooking).
2. Industrial effluents (liquid wastes from factories).
3. Agricultural pollutants (chemical pesticides and fertilisers that get washed from farms).
4. Solid waste (when waste gets dumped into water bodies).

Question 4.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when you watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak, do not shout (try to set an example).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India consists of _____ States and’_____Union territories.
(a) 27,9
(b) 29,7
(c) 28,7
(d) 28,9
Answer:
(b) 29, 7

Question 2.
India is known as a …………….
(a) Continent
(b) Sub continent
(c) Island
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sub continent

Question 3.
Mawsynram, the land of highest rainfall is located in
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:
(d) Meghalaya

Question 4.
Which one of the following religion is not practised in India?
(a) Sikhism
(b) Islam
(c) Zoroastrianism
(d) Confucianism
Answer:
(d) Confucianism

Question 5.
Recognised official languages of India, as per VIIIth Schedule of Indian Constitution
(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 26
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 6.
Onam festival is celebrated in …………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 7.
Mohiniyattara is a classical dance of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Manipur
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 8.
‘Discovery of India’ – a book was written by …………….
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 8.
‘Discovery of India’
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O,C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehrul

Question 9.
The phrase ‘ Unity in Diversity’ was coined by
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Ambedkar
(c) Mahathma Gandhi
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
V.A. Smith called India as …………….
(a) Great Democracy
(b) Unique land of diversities
(c) Ethnological museum
(d) Secular nation
Answer:
(c) Ethnological museum

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Geographical features and climatic conditions determine the _________ activities of region
2. Jaisalmer, the land of lowest rainfall is located in _________
3. Tamil was declared as classical language in the year _________
4. Bihu festival is celebrated in _________

Answer:

1. economic
2. Rajasthan
3. 2004
4. Assam

III. Match the following

1. Negroids – a. Religion
2. Coastal areas – b. India
3. Zoroastrianism- c. Fishery
4. Unity in diversity- d. Indian race

Answer:

1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – h

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define diversity.
Answer:
In India, people speak different languages, eat different kinds of food, celebrate their own festivals. Diversity means a range of different people or things.

Question 2.
What are the types of diversity?
Answer:
The types of diversity are

1. Landforms and Lifestyle diversity
2. Social diversity
3. Religious diversity
4. Linguistic diversity
5. Cultural diversity

Question 3.
Why is India called a subcontinent?
Answer:

1. A continent is a very large area of land with various physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers and seas, and various types of weather patterns,
2. India has all of them. So, India is known as a sub-continent.

Question 4.
Write the names of three major festivals celebrated in India.
Answer:

1. Pongal, Deepavali – Hindus
2. Miladi Nabi, Ramjan – Muslims
3. Christmas, Easter – Christians

Question 5.
List out some of the classical dances of India.
Answer:

1. Bharatanatyam (it) Kathak
2. Kathakali
3. Yakshagana
4. Kuchipudi
5. Odissi
6. Manipuri
7. Sattriya

Question 6.
Why is India called the land of unity in diversity?
Answer:

1. In India, people who live in different parts of the country differ in their ways of life.
2. These differences make us unique as Indians.
3. We come from different backgrounds, belong to different cultures, worship different Gods in different ways, yet we live together.
4. This is known as unity in diversity.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain Linguistic diversity’ and cultural diversity.
Answer:
Linguistic diversity:

1. India has 122 major languages and 1599 other languages.
2. Tamil is the oldest Dravidian language.
3. Because the British ruled India for over three hundred years, the English language gained prominence in India.
4. So English has emerged as an important language.
5. Now it is widely used in official communication and daily life.

Cultural diversity:

1. The term ‘culture’ refers to the customs and practices of people, their language, their dress code, cuisine, religion, social habits, music, art, and architecture.
2. The culture of a group of people is reflected in their social behavior and interactions.
3. Art and architecture are an integral part of every community. It develops as a part of the culture and tradition of a community.
4. Every state in India has rich traditions and unique ways of artistic expression.

Question 2.
“India is a land of diversity, yet we are all united”. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Though diversity is visible in every aspect of life in India, we are united by the spirit of patriotism.
2. Symbols like the National flag and National Anthem remind us of our great nation and the need to stay united.
3. Celebration of events like Independence Day, Republic Day, and Gandhi Jayanthi brings us together and keeps the spirit of one nation alive with us.
4. India has a multicultural society.
5. India evolved as a single nation through common beliefs, customs, and cultural practices.
6. The freedom struggle and the drafting of our constitution stand as ample evidence to the spirit of unity of India.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
“The occupation of people depends on the landform of a place”. Give some
examples.
Answer:

1. The Earth has many landforms such as plains, valleys, and mountains.
2. Landforms affect where people build houses and communities.
3. Many people live on plains because it is easy to travel and to farm on flat land.
4. (The low lying regions are suitable for growing crops near clean and fresh water with access to the sea in naturally protected harbours.
5. People living in the coastal region might prefer finishing. Mountains and hilly regions are cool but transport, farming, etc will be difficult here. So the landforms play a major role in the section of occupation.

Question 2.
Read about a state of your choice and make an album to show the culture and tradition of people who live in that state.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu :

1. Tamil Nadu is a southern state of India.
2. It is supremely rich in culture and heritage.
3. Tamil is the official language of the State. Hindus, Jains, Christians, and Muslims live here Men wear dhoti and shirt and women wear a sari. Rice, lentils, grains, and vegetables form the main cuisine.
4. Some Tamilians follow the tradition of eating on a banana leaf.
5. The most important form of music is Carnatic music. Bharathanatyam is the
   official dance form of Tamil Nadu.
6. Kolam is drawn at the doors of every house in Tamil Nadu Meenakshi Temple of Madurai and Brihadeeswar
7. The Temple of Thanjavur displays a grand vista of ancient Hindu mythological diversity and Tamil Heritage.

VII. HOTS:

Question 1.
List out the various festivals celebrated in different states.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh – Brahmotsavam
2. Arunachal Pradesh – Losar festival
3. Assam – Bohag Bihu
4. Bihar – Chhath Puja
5. Chhattisgarh – Bastar Dussehra
6. Goa – Carnival
7. Gujarat – Janmashtami, Diwali
8. Haryana – Baisakhi
9. Himachal Pradesh – Maha Sivarathiri
10.  Jammu and Kashmir – Eid-Ul-Fitr and Eid-ul-Azha
11. Jharkhand – Holi
12. Karnataka – Ugadi
13. Kerala – Onam
14. Madhya Pradesh – Diwali
15. Maharastra – Ganesh Chaturthi

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Intext Questions

Question 1.
You have read about the diversity that exists in our country. Compare and contrast. Two states in this table.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Karagattam is a popular folk dance in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
The number of recognized official languages …………….
(a) 13
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 3.
India was called an “ethnological museum” by
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) V.A. Smith
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(c) V.A. Smith

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The migration of people is the reason for India’s rich ___________
2. Jaisalmer, located in Rajasthan, is the land of ___________ rainfall.
3. The land of the highest rainfall is ___________ in megalaya.
4. A ___________ is a place where people live together with a common interest or heritage.
5. The fundamental unit of a society are ___________
6. In a ___________ nation all religions are treated equally
7.  ___________ language is widely used in official communication and daily life
8. India is known for ___________
9. The first Prime Minister of independent India was ___________

Answer:

1. diversity
2. lowest
3. Mawsynram
4. community
5. families
6. secular
7. English
8. unity in diversity
9. Jawarharlal Nehru

III. Match the following

Question 1.
(a) Gujarat -(i) Mohiniattam
(b) Kerala -(ii) Kummi
(c) Rajasthan -(iii) Garba
(d) Tamil Nadu -(iv) Ghoomer
Answer:
(a – iii)
(b – i)
(c – iv)
(d – ii)

Question 2.
(a) Dussehra – (i) Architecture
(b) Zoroastrianism – (ii) Language
(c) Dilwara Temple – (iii) Festival
(d) Malayalam – (iv) Religion
Answer:
(a – iii)
(b – iv)
(e – i)
(d – ii)

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Who became part of the modern Indian race?
Answer:
The Dravidians, Negroids, Aryans, Alpines, and Mongoloids became part of the modem Indian race.

Question 2.
What is meant by community?
Answer:

1. A community is a place where people live together with a common interest or heritage.
2. Our community is made up of peasants, labourers, artisans, parents, teachers, students, and many others.

Question 3.
How is a city formed?
Answer:

1. Families live in a harmonious neighbourhood.
2. Hundreds of neighbourhoods collectively form a village.
3. Thousands of them group together to form a city.

Question 4.
Mention the folk dances of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Karagattam
2. Oyillattam
3. Kummi
4. Therukoothu
5. Bommalattam
6. Puliattam
7. Kolattam and Thappattam.

Question 5.
Mention some of the festivals celebrated in India.
Answer:
Festivals like Pongal, Deepavali, Holi, Vijayadhasami, Ayudha Puja, Navratri Durga Puja, Ganesh Chaturthi, Onam, Miladi Nabi, Ramzan, Christmas are celebrated in India.

Question 6.
What are the various styles of music practiced in India?
Answer:
Hindustani music, Karnatic music, Classical music, Folk music, Lavani, Ghazl are some of the music practiced in India.

Question 7.
What does the term culture refer to?
Answer:
The term culture refers to the customs and practices of people, their language, their dress code, cuisine, religion, social habits music, art, and architecture.

Question 8.
Mention the importance of dances in India.
Answer:
In ancient times, dance was considered as a way to celebrate worship and also as a gesture of thanksgiving and joy. Dances of India reflect its cultural richness.

V. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
How do landforms affect lifestyle?
Answer:

1. India is a sub-continent.
2. It has mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, and seas.
3. These features influence the people who live in different landforms of the country.
4. People who live in plains do agriculture.
5. Coastal areas take to fishing for their livelihood.
6. Diversity in landforms also impacts the flora and fauna of that region.
7. As a result food, clothing, occupation and livelihood of the people are closely connected with the region’s natural surroundings and climate.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The process of evolution is ________.
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
Answer:
(c) gradual

Question 2.
Tanzania is situated in the continent of ……………..
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: Migration of man of different part of the world resulted in changes of physic and colour.
Reason: Climatic changes.
(a) Statement is correct.
(b) Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.
(d) Statement and Reason is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.

III. Find out the Right pair:

(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs
(b) Homo habilis – Upright man
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man
(d) Homo sapiens – Less protruding face
Answer:
(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. _______ unearthed the footprints of humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions of years ago, our ancestors led a _______
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were _______
4. The invention _______ of made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at _______ in Nilgiris.

Answer:

1. Anthropologists
2. Nomadic
3. hunting and gathering
4. Plouglil
5. Karikaiyur

V. State True or False.

1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

VI. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
What method is used to find out the age of the excavated materials?
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Question 2.
What did early humans wear?
Answer:
They wore dresses made out of leaves, the skin of animals, and barks of trees.

Question 3.
Where did early humans live?
Answer:
They lived on the branches of trees, in caves and mountain ranges.

Question 4.
Which animal was used for ploughing?
Answer:
Oxen were used for ploughing.

Question 5.
When did humans settle in one place?
Answer:
Riverside Farming stage.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Evolution means the process in which humankind changes and develops into an advanced stage.

Question 2.
Write any two characteristics of Homosapiens.
Answer:

1. Homosapiens had the appearance of a man.
2. They used crude stone implements.
3. They engaged in hunting and gathering.

Question 3.
Why did humans move from place to place?
Answer:

1. They moved from place to place in search of food.
2. They cultivated the land. When the fertility of the soil decreased they moved to another place.

Question 4.
Describe the ancient methods of hunting.
Answer:

1. Hunting was the main occupation of humans in the past.
2. They used tools made of stones and bones for hunting
3. They used sharpened weapons.
4. They hunted pig, deer, bison, rhino, elephant and bear.

Question 5.
Why were axes made?
Answer:
Axes were made to cut trees, remove barks, dig pits, hunt animals, and remove the skin of animals.

Question 6.
How would you define archaeology?
Answer:
Archaeology is the study of prehistoric humans and materials used by prehistoric humans.

Question 7.
What do you know about anthropology?
Answer:

1. The word anthropology is derived from two Greek words ‘Anthropos’ meaning ‘man’ or ‘human’ and ’logos’ meaning ‘thought’ or ‘reason’.
2. Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history ‘thought’.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Importance of invention of the wheel from the ancient period to the modern period.
Answer:

1. The wheel is the foremost invention of humans.
2. When humans saw the stones rolling down from the mountains, they would have got the idea of making the wheel.
3. Asa result of this he was able to transport things from one place to another easily.
4. With the help of a wheel, she made pots.
5. Also in the modern period wheels play an important role.
6. No modern machine is run without wheels. Thus wheels play an important role both in the field of transport and industry.

IX. Student Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare album collecting the pictures of ancient humans of different ages
Answer:

X. Answer Grid:

XII. Map work

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, mark the following places:

1.  Adichanallur
2. Attirampakkam
3. Bhimbetka
4.  Hunasagi Valley
5. Lothal

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
These people had a big toe to hold tightly and less protruding face
(a) Homo erectus
(c) Neanderthal
(b) Homo habilis
(d) Homo sapiens
Answer:
(b) Homo habilisl

Question 2.
The main occupation of humans in the past was ……………..
(a) fishing
(b) hunting
(c) pot making
(d) trade
Answer:
(b) Hunting

Question 3.
Evidence of this man In seen in Germany
(a) Neanderthal
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Cromagnons
Answer:
(a) Neanderthal

Question 4.
Humans with the help of flint made _______
(a) sharp weapons
(b) vessels
(c) carts
(d) boats
Answer:
(a) sharp weapons

II. Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology,
Reason: Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.
(a) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: Early Man’s main occupation was hunting.
Reason: Hue to large scale hunting, many animals became extinct.
(a) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is true, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason both are wrong.
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.
Answer:
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.

Question 3.
Statement: Man denuded to stay close to the riverside.
Reason: The land dose to the riverside was suitable for farming.
(a) Statement is wrong, Reason is true.
(b) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.

Question 1.
(a) Nomadic – no fixed home
(b) Bartor – exchange of goods
(c) Hides – barks of a tree
(d) Million – 10 lakhs
Answer:
(c) Hides – barks of a tree

Question 2.
(a) Homo erectus – China
(b) Cromagnons – France
(c) Homo sapiens – Africa
(d) Heidelbergs – London
Answer:
(a) Homo erectus – China

Question 3.
(a) Ancestors – Nomadic life
(b) Beehives – Honey
(c) Axes – Big stones
(d) Wheel – No use
Answer:
(d) Wheel – No use

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________is a machine capable of taking a person backward or forward in time.
2. The animal that hunts and kills other living things for food is called________
3. When early people found ways to increase production they started________
4. In________ system, the surplus grains were exchanged with other groups for other things.
5. The practice of agriculture was made easier by________
6. There were many dangers involved in________
7. Plants grow faster in ________ areas.
8. The pots were ________ to make it stronger.
9. Chikki – mukki kal is known for its ________
10. Human procreation resulted in an increase in the________

Answer:

1. Time Machine
2. Predator
3. storing the produce
4. Barter
5. oxen
6. hunting
7. water fed
8. burnt
9. strength – duality
10. population

IV. State True or False:

1. The fire was used by early man to destroy forests.
2. Rock paintings are not informative.
3. Humans domesticated hen, goat, and cow after domesticating dogs.
4. Initially, agriculture was done for immediate food requirements.
5. Initially, humans expressed their feeling through actions.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

V. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
These people have unearthed the footprints of humans in a country called Tanzania.
Answer:
Anthropologists.

Question 2.
He is a Java man who lived approximately 1.8 million years ago.
Answer:
Homo erectus.

Question 3.
He had a mix of human and ape traits with a bipedal walk.
Answer:
Australopithecus.

Question 4.
Keeping a stone with the bottom and sharpening it with another stone.
Answer:
Art of Flaking.

Question 5.
This helped humans to protect themselves from predators.
Answer:
Fire.

VI. Answer the following :

Question 1.
How can we study human evolution scientifically?
Answer:
The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology.

Question 2.
What Is attempted by Anthropologists?
Answer:
Anthropologists attempt by investigating the whole range of human development and behaviour to achieve a total description of cultural and social phenomena.

Question 3.
Explain the hunting and food gathering stage of our ancestors.
Answer:

1.Our ancestors lived in groups, leading a nomadic life. They kept on moving in search of food.

2.They hunted pigs, dear, bison, rhino, elephant, and bear for food. They also scavenged the animals killed by other wild animals like tigers.

3.They learned the art of fishing. They collected honey and grains. Once the food resource got exhausted in one area, they moved to another place in search of food.

Question 4.
How did man make me of file?
Answer:
Humans used flintstone to make fire and used it to protect them from predators, for cooking food, and for creating light during the night. Thus fire became important for a man in olden times.

Question 5.
What was the role played by humans in pot making?
Answer:

1. Humans learned to make pots with clay. The invention of the wheel made pot making easier, and the pots made were burnt to make them stronger.
2. They decorated pots with a lot of colors.
3. These natural dyes were used in rock paintings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution In – Text Questions

HOTS:

Question 1.
Why did humans become hunter-gatherers? Hid the landscape play any role?
Answer:

1. Prehistoric hunter-gathers often lived in groups of a few dozens of people, consisting of several family units.
2. They developed tools to help them survive. They were dependent on the abundance of food in the area which if an area was not plentiful enough required them to move to greener forests (pastures were not around yet).
3. Naturally, the landscape played a major role at this stage.

Question 2.
in hunting banned in India?
Answer:

1. India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 bans the killing of all wild animals.
2. However, the chief wildlife warden may, if satisfied that any wild animal from a specified list has become dangerous to human life, or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, permit any person to hunt such an animal

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
What metals were know to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold; but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilization belonged to ………………..
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age
(c) New Stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because.
(a) Soil is very fertile
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation
(d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement whit the reason. tick the appropriate answers:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappait civilization is said to be ait urban civilizations,
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage systems.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilisation belongs to Bronze age.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 3.
Statement : The engineerring skill of Harpones was remarkable
Reason : Building docks after u careful study Of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements about Mohenjo – Daro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers of natural bitumen
Answer:
(b) and (d)

Question 5.
Cosidering the following statement:
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick siz
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan Cities
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
The odd one
Answer:
Oxen, sheep, buffaloes, pigs, horses

Find out the wrong pair
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(a) ASI John – Marshall
(c) Lothal – dockyard
(d) Harappan civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan civilisation – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________ is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of india was founded by ________
3. ________ were used to store grains.
4. Group of people ________ form

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilization
2. Alexander cunningham
3. Granaries
4. Community

IV. State True or False:

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological Survey of India is responsible for the preservation of cultural monuments
3. in the country.
4. Granaries were used to store grains
5. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following :

1. Mohenjo Daro – (i) raised platform
2. Bronze – (ii) red quartz stone
3. Citade – (iii) alloy
4. Carnelian – (iv) mound of dead

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. i
4. ii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Iron or steel is used for the construction of buildings, houses, automobile parts, etc.
2. Copper is used for electrical purposes and also for making ornaments.

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw food that we.
Answer:
Raw food: Fruits and vegetables like apples, carrots, cucumber, etc.
Baked food: Bread, Bun, Cake, Cookie, Pudding, etc.

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animals and trees?
Answer:

1. Yes, people worship the Peepal tree also known as Bodhi tree, Banyan tree, Bel tree! Ashoka tree, Mango tree etc.
2. Cow, Monkey, Snake, Elephant are also considered very sacred.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. why?
Answer:

1. River valley had fertile soil. Agriculture grew well in these regions.
2. Freshwater was available for drinking, Watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods as possible.

Question 5.
Just because a toy moves it doesn’t mean it’s modern. What did they use instead of batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels to move the toys instead of batteries.

Question 6.
The dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:
Humans started breeding dogs to help with hunting, herding, standing guard and carrying stuff.

Question 7.
If you were an archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
if I were an Archaeologist, I will study the artifacts found in the ground to learn about people where lived in the past.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located in the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Ralibangan (Rajasthan)
2. Dholavira (Gujarat).

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. Town planning is a unique feature of the Indus civilization.
2. Straight and wide road with the good drainage system of the Indus Valley is a significant feature.

Question 10.
What instrument Is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
A weighing scale or spring balance is used nowadays to weigh things.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. Archaeologists study the physical objects such as bricks, stones, or bits of broken pottery to ascertain the location of the city and the time that it belonged to.
2. They search the ancient literary sources for references about the place.
3. They look at aerial photographs of the excavation sites or cities to understand the topography.
4. They use a magnetic scanner to see under the ground.
5. The presence and absence of archeological remains can be detected by RADAR and remote sensing methods.

Question 2.
Why did the Indus civilization call Bronze age civilization?
Answer:
Indus civilization is called the Bronze age civilization because it is a historical period characterized by the use of articles made of bronze.

Question 3.
Indus Civilisation is called urban civilization. Give reason
Answer:
Indus Civilisation is called urban civilization because

1. There was well-conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture were found.
3. Priority was given to hygiene and public health.
4. They used Standardised weights and measures
5. They had solid agricultural and

Question 4.
Can you point out the special features of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. The cities had covered drains.
2. They were covered with slabs or bricks.
3. There were manholes at regular intervals to clean the drains.
4. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you about great the great bath?
Answer:

1. The great bath was a large, rectangular tank in a courtyard. It may be the earliest example of a waterproof structure.
2. The bath was lined with bricks, coated with plaster, and made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
3. There were steps on the north and south leading into the tank.
4. There were rooms on three sides.
5. Water was drawn from the well, located in the courtyard, and drained out after use.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people traded with other countries?
Answer:

1. There is evidence for extensive maritime trade with Mesopotamia, Indus Seals have been found as far as Mesopotamia.
2. King Naram- Sin of Akkadian Empire (Sumerian) has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha (a region in the Indus Valley).
3. Cylindrical seals Similar to those found in Persian Gulf and Mesopotamia have also been found in the Indus area.
4. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.

VIII. HOTS:
Observe the following features of Indus Civilisation and compare that with the present day.
a. Lamppost
b. Burnt bricks
c. Underground drainage system
d. Weights and measurement
e. Dockyard
Answer:
(a) Lamppost

1. In Indus Valley archaeologists have discovered lamp posts at intervals. This suggests the existence of street lights.
2. Today street lighting commonly uses high-intensity discharge lamps often HPS—high-pressure sodium lamps.

(b) Burnt bricks

(i) In Harappan Civilization, the houses were built using baked bricks and ’mortar. Sun-dried bricks were also used, Most of the bricks were of uniform size. They used the burnt bricks which were strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and would not dissolve in water.

(ii) Even at present, brick is the most basic and favoured material for common construction throughout the world. Nowadays bricks are available in different sizes and shapes. Kiln burnt bricks are used.

(c) Underground drainage system

(i) In Indus Civilization, they had covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Each drain had a gentle slope. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drain.

(ii) At present our cities and town are so populated and congested that conducting any infrastructural improvement over ground or underground is becoming difficult.

(d) Weights and measurement,

(i) Indus people used standardized weights and measures. They used sticks with marks to measure length.

(ii) In the modem world, we use electronic weighing machines to have accuracy in weighing. Floor scales and Platform scales are used in industries and small-scale industries respectively.

(e) Dockyard

(i) A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarath. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.

(ii) In modem days, there are many well-developed ports in India. To quote a few, Chennai port, Kandla port, Tuticorin port, Cochin port, Paradip port, etc.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations. How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture was one of their main occupations. They cultivated wheat, barley, millets, sesame, and pulses.
2. There were granaries to store food grains. A granary has been discovered in a village in the state of Haryana.
3. Ploughs have been unearthed. All these things show that agriculture was one of their occupations.

Question 3.
Many potteries and Their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. Pottery was practised using the potter’s wheel. It was well fired.
2. Potteries were red colour with beautiful designs in black.
3. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures and geometric designs on it.
4. All these reveal the fact that the Indus people had the very good artistic skill, colour concept and rich imagination.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal. What does it convey?
Answer:
A naval dockyard shows the maritime activities of the Indus people. It stands as proof of their maritime trade.

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?

1. By 1800 BCE, the Harappan culture had started declining.
2. It is assumed that the civilization met with

(a) repeated floods
(b) ecological changes
(c) invasions
(d) natural calamity
(e) climatic changes
(f) deforestation
(g) an epidemic might have disturbed the civilization.

IX. Student Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare a scrapbook,
(Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa.)
Hints :

(i) Mohenjo-Daro Findings – Notable Artefacts- seated and standing figures, copper and stone tools, balance scale and weighs, gold and Jasper jewellery, children Toys. The Dancing girl statue at National Museum, Delhi.

(ii) Harappan findings – seal with a yogic picture representing Pashupathi toys, household implements, pottery displayed in Harappan gallery, National Museum, Delhi.

Question 2.
You arc a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?
Hints:

1. As a young archaeologist with Indus site will examine the artifacts found, followed by documenting and preserving them,
2. Compile the information collected with photos. Then analyses the findings from different angles with the help of

Question 3.
Crossword puzzle.

Top to Bottom

1. Director General of ASI
2.  _______ is older than Mohenjo-Daro
3. This is _______ age civilisation
4. Each house had a _______

Left to Right

1. Place used to store grains
2. A dockyard has been found
3. _______ is unknown to Indus people
4. It is used to make watertight.

Right to left

1. From this, we can get a lot of information
2. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was Indus Civilisation?
Answer:
Banks of River Indus.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
OX, Buffalo.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Potter’s wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the
world?
Answer:
Indus Valley Civilization.

XI. Map work

1. Mark any four Indus sites located within the Indian border.
2. On the river map of India, colour the places where Indus civilization spread.
3. Mark the following places in the given India map:

(a) Mohenjo-Daro
(b) Chanhudaro
(c) Harappa
(d) Mehergarh
(e) Lothal

XII. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation In-Text Question

Observe the picture and fill the tabular column.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Indus valley civilization is great, because
(a) It had an advanced sanitation and drainage system.
(b) Repeated floods affected this area.
(c) Indus people maintained a big army.
(d) They did not use iron
Answer:
(a) It had an advanced sanitation and drainage system.

Question 2.
The assembly hall was located at ……………
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjo – Daro
(c) Lothal
(d) Kalibangan
Answer:
(b) Mohenjo – Daro

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: Harappans knew the art of writing.
Reason: Harappans wrote on seals and pottery.
(a) Statement and Reason are correct
(b) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and Resonance wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The Harappan city had two planned areas.
Reason: Each house was one or two stories.
(a) Statement and Reason are correct
(b) Statement and Reason are wrong.
(c) Statement correct Reason wrong.
(d) Statement wrong Reason correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correct?

1. Indus valley civilization is an urban civilization.
2. In urban civilisation people shift from rural areas to urban areas.
3. They live a settled life.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
The following statements about Mohenjodaro are correct.
(a) People led a nomadic life.
(b) Hunting was the main occupation
(c) Well planned streets were there
(d) They did not have a script
Answer:
(c) Well planned streets were there

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.

1. Harappans used carts with spokeless solid wheels.
2. In Harappan society, there were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. Cotton fabrics were in common use.

Which of the above statements are correct.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one:
(a) Bangles
(b) Armlets
(c) Necklaces
(d) Seals
Answer:
(d) Seals

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Lothal – Dockyard
(b) Janpath – New Delhi
(c) Mohenjodaro – Mound of dead
(d) Camelian – Pottery
Answer:
(d) Carnelian – Pottery

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The archaeologists began to excavate the cities of Harappa and Mohenjodaro in the ________
2. The word civilization comes from the ancient Latin word ________
3. A huge public building found at Mohenjodaro was the ________
4. Lothal is situated on the banks of a tributary of ________
5. In Indus civilisation settlements were built on ________
6. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ________

Answer:

1. 1920s
2. Civis
3. assembly hall
4. Sabarmati
5. elevated
6. Sumerians

IV. State True or False:

1. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was started in 1924.
2. Indus Civilisation had covered 6 big cities.
3. Mesopotamia was modem day Iraq, Kuwait, and parts of Syria.
4. Bitumen is nothing but water-proof Tar

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

V. Match the following:

1. Charles Masson – (i) Neolithic
2. Mehergarh – (ii) First metal
3. Radar – (iii) Explorer
4. Copper – (iv) Remote sensing

Answer:

1. Charles Masson – (iii) Explorer
2. Mehergarh – (i) Neolithic
3. Radar – (iv) Remote sensing
4. Copper – (ii) First metal

VI. Answer in or two sentences :

Question 1.
Mention the importance of Rakhigarh village.
Answer:

1. Rakhigarh is a village in Haryana.
2. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in a good condition, has been discovered here.

Question 2.
Why did they use burnt bricks for construction?
Answer:
Burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water or rain.

Question 3.
Who governed the Indus valley people?
Answer:
Historians believe that there existed a central authority that controlled the planning of towns and overseas trade, maintenance of drainage, and peace in the city.

Question 4.
Write a few sentences about pot making.
Answer:

1. The wheel was used in pot making.
2. Pots were burnt.
3. They were painted.
4. They drew figures of animals on the pots.

Question 5.
What is meant by Ziggurat?
Answer:

1. Ziggurat means temple.
2. In Mesopotamia, King Ur Nammu built Ziggurat in honour of the Moon God Sin.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
How do archaeologists explore a lost city?
Answer:

1. Archaeologists study the physical objects such as bricks, stones or bits of broken pottery to ascertain the time that they belong to.
2. They search the ancient literary sources for references about the place.
3. They look at the aerial photographs to understand the topography.
4. To see under the ground, they may use a magnetic scanner.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the excavation of granary in the Indus Civilization?
Answer:

1. The granary was a massive building with a solid brick foundation.
2. They were used to store food grains.
3. The remains of wheat, barley, millets, sesame, and pulses have been found here.
4. It shows that they had surplus grains.
5. To safeguard the grains stored with the granary, the granary was built on a raised platform.
6. They should have had a good standard of agriculture.

Question 3.
Was there any leader in Mohenjodaro? Explain.
Answer:

1. A sculpture of a seated male has been un earthed in a building, with a headband on the forehead and a smaller ornament on the right upper arm.
2. His hair is carefully combed, and his beard finely trimmed.
3. Two holes beneath the ears suggest that the head ornament might have been attached to the ear.
4. The left shoulder is covered with a shawl-like garment decorated with designs of flowers and rings.
5. This shawl pattern is used by people even today in those areas.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why should we learn about the Indus Valley Civilization?
Answer:

1. The Indus Valley civilization was a Bronze Age civilization in the world.
2. It was the largest among the four ancient civilizations of the world.
3. At its peak, it might have had a population of over 5 million.
4. To date over 1056 cities have been discovered.
5. Archaeologists first thought they had discovered cities of children since during excavation they found more and more toys.
6. Britishers laid down 93 miles of railway track with 4,000-year-old Indus Valley bricks.
7. They had the world’s first planned cities
8. Their sanitation systems and drainage systems were much advanced than any other ancient civilizations.
9. By learning about this civilization, we realize the richness of our ancient past