Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Question 2.
Under the microscope Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(a) a plant cell

Question 3.
A control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is _______
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? _______
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I _______ ?
4. The Term “ cell” was coined by _______
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the _______ single cell.

Answers:

1. microscope
2. chloroplast
3. cell wall
4. Robert hooke
5. largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer:

Question 1.
A cell is the smallest unit of life.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Nerve cell is the longest cell.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
Ans:
True

Question 4.
The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
New cells are produced from existing cells.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

1. Control center	Cell membrane
2. Food producer (Plant cell)	Mitochondria
3. Gate of the nucleus	Nucleus
4. Gate of the cell	Chloroplasts
5. Energy producer	Nuclear membrane

Answer:

1. Control center	Nucleus
2. Food producer (Plant cell)	Chloroplasts
3. Gate of the nucleus	Nuclear membrane
4. Gate of the cell	Cell membrane
5. Energy producer	Mitochondria

V. Arrange in a correct sequence:

Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Rose plant, Mango, Cow, Elephant.

Question 2.
Hen egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : _______
Answer:
Plant or animal cell.

Question 2.
Spirogyra : Plant cell:: Amoeba :
Answer:
animal cell.

Question 3.
Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house _______
Answer:
mitochondria.

VII. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have Eukaryotic cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, mitochondria, Chloroplasts, Vacuoles, Nucleus, Nucleus membrane are essential components of a cell

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cell?
Answer:
Chloroplasts and cell walls are the organelles found only in plant cell.

Question 5.
Give any three examples of the eukaryotic cell?
Answer:
Plant cell, animal cell, fungi, and algae cell.

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
The cytoplasm is called as “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said, “ Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of the smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain Why?
Answer:
No, I don’t agree with the statement. Cell size has no relation to the size of an organism.

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A cell is the smallest unit of a living thing. All the living things are made up of billions – of cells. They are the basic units of life and come from other cells. They can reproduce, build, and change. That is why they are called ‘building blocks of life’.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the Plant cell.

Answer:

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell:

1. It’s diameter ranges from 1 to 2 micron
2. Absence of membrane-bound organelles
3. Nucleus consisting of no nuclear membrane
4. Absence of nucleoli

Eukaryotic cell:

1. It’s diameter ranges from 10 to 100 micron
2. Presence of membrane-bound organelles
3. True nucleus consisting of the nuclear membrane
4. Presence of nucleoli

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells that you observe under the microscope.
Answer:
Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. Plant cell have a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane.
3. Plant cell have chloroplast which contain chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cell.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. The chloroplast is usually absent.
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.
5. Centrioles are found in animal cells.

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology.
Answer:

1. Robert Hooke was an English Scientist.
2. He improved the microscope and built – a compound microscope.
3. He used a water lens to illuminate the specimen.
4. He observed a thin section of cork surprised to see hexagonal cells.
5. He published a book name Micrographia in 1665. he also first used the term cell.
6. The study of cells is called cell Biology.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project:

1. Use your imagination and create a 3-D model of a plant cell?
2. You can use numerous food materials such as jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your classroom and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answers.
Answer:
Activities to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Intext Activities

Activity 1

Aim:
To observe the structure of a single cell (Hen’s egg).

Materials Needed: A hen’s egg and a plate.

Method: Crack the shell and break open the egg in a plate.

Observation: The egg has a yellow part and a transparent part surrounding it. The white transparent part (albumin) is jelly-like and represents the cell’s cytoplasm, while the yellow part (yolk) is thicker and represents the cell’s nucleus. On the internal side of the shell can be seen as a thin membrane-like structure, which represents the cell membrane.

Activity 2

Aim: To observe onion peel cells under a microscope

Materials Required: Glass slide, coverslip, onion, iodine solution, knife, and microscope.

Procedure: Take an onion and cut it into two halves along its length. Take out one of its fleshy leaves. With the help of a pair of forceps, remove a transparent, thin peel from the inner surface of the leaf. Take a glass slide and put a drop of water at the centre. Place the peel on the drop of water. Pour a drop of iodine solution on the peel. Now place a coverslip over the material. Observe under the microscope.

Observation: You will be able to see rectangular cells of the onion peel, with a nucleus in each of them.

Activity 3

Aim: To rectify the variation between 2-D shape and 3-D shape.

Material required: Polythene bag, water, marble ball (golli gundu)

Procedure: Take a polythene bag with water. Put a marble ball into the polythene bag. Then draw a picture in your notebook about this task. If you draw a picture in a round shape. It will be called a 2-Dimenstional picture. If you draw a picture in spherical shape it is called 3-dimensional.

Result: Now you understand your misconceptions. So the animal cells are spherical in shape and structure, not in a round shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one is the prokaryotic cell among the following?
(a) Plant cell
(b) Animal cell
(c) Nerve cell
(d) Cyanobacteria cell
Answer:
(d) Cyanobacteria cell

Question 2.
The habitat of Escherichia coli bacteria is
(a) It is a soil-inhabiting bacteria
(b)It lives in the human intestine
(c) It is an aquatic bacteria
(d) It lives in the air
Answer:
(b) It lives in the human intestine

Question 3.
A typical cell consists of ______ major parts
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 4.
The central yellow coloured yolk of the egg is
(a) cytoplasm
(b) cell membrane
(c) Reserve material
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(d) Nucleus

Question 5.
Approximate number of cells in the human body is ______
(a) 3.7 × 10¹³
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁴
(b) 3.7 × 10¹²
(d) 3.7 × 10¹⁵
Answer:
(a) 3.7 × 10¹³

Question 6.
Prokaryotic cell type of nucleus is called as _______
(a) nucleolus
(b) nuclear membrane
(c) organelles
(d) nucleoid
Answer:
(d) nucleoid

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ is the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism.
2. Nowadays an _______ microscope is used to magnify the cells
3. In Latin, the word ‘cellula’ means a _______
4. The branch of science that deals with the study of cells are called __________
5. The outer covering part of the cell is called _______
6. _______ cells were the first form of life on earth.
7. _______ is present in plant cell only.
8. Plants prepared food with the help of _______

Answers:

1. Cell
2. electron
3. small chamber
4. cell biology
5. cell membrane
6. Prokaryotic
7. Chloro plant
8. chlorophyll

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement:

Question 1.
The cell is self-sufficient and carries out all the fundamental and essential functions of an organism.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Robert Hooke saw many objects like Butterfly’s compound eyes, Bee’s wings, etc.
Answer:
False. Robert Hooke saw many objects like Butterfly’s wings, Bees company eyes, etc.

Question 3.
All the cells can be seen with our naked eye.
Answer:
False. All the cells cannot be seen with our naked eye.

Question 4.
The size of the bacterial cell ranges from 0.01 micrometer to 0.5 micrometers.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Spirogyra and Human beings are unicellular.
Answer:
False. Spirogyra and Human beings are multicellular.

IV. Matching:

1. Discovery of cell	(a)	Nerve cell
2. Unicellular organism	(b)	spirogyra
3. Multicellular organism	(c)	Robert Hooke
4. Longest cell	(d)	Cyanobacteria
5. Prokaryotic cell	(e)	Amoeba

Answer:

1. – c
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – d

V. Analogy

Question 1.
Smallest cell: virus.
Biggest cell: _______
Answer:
Ostrich egg

Question 2.
Unicellular organism: Chlamydomonas.
Multicellular organism : _______
Answer:
Human beings

Question 3.
No true nucleus : Prokaryotic cell.
True nucleus : _______
Answer:
Eukaryotic cell

Question 4.
Plant cell: Chloroplast.
Animal cell: _______
Answer:
Centrioles

VI. Give a short answer

Question 1.
Give two examples of prokaryotic cells?
Answer:
Cyanobacteria and Escherichia coli bacteria are examples of prokaryotic cells.

Question 2.
What are the two types of cells?
Answer:
Cells are classified into two types. The first one is the Prokaryotic cell. It has no true nucleus. Another one is the Eukaryotic cell. It has a true nucleus.

Question 3.
Define Prokaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. It has no true nucleus.
2. This type of nucleus is called a nucleoid.
3. No nuclear membrane is around the nucleoid.
4. It is ranging from 0.003 to 2.0 micrometer in diameter.

Question 4.
Write about chloroplasts.
Answer:

1. It is found in plant cells only.
2. It contains green pigment chlorophyll.
3. It captures the energy of sunlight and uses it to produce food for photosynthesis.
4. it is called as producers for the cell.

Question 5.
What are the functions of the nucleus?
Answer:

1. It acts as the brain of the cell.
2. It regulates and controls all cell activities.

Question 6.
The cell wall is called a supporter or protector. Why?
Answer:

1. It surrounds and protects the cell.
2. It makes the cell stiff and strong.
3. It is called a supporter or protector.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the characteristics of plant cells with a diagram.
Answer:
Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. the plane cell has a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane.
   
3. Plant cell have chloroplast which contains chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of animal cells with a diagram.
Answer:
Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cells.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. The chloroplast is usually absent.
   
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.
5. Centrioles are found in animal cells.

Question 3.
Draw the 3-dimensional cell structure and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 4.
Give the difference between an animal cell and plant cell.
Answer:
Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cells.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. The chloroplast is usually absent.
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.

Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. A plant cell has a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane.
3. Plant cell haves chloroplast which contains chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Bill, Profit and Loss Ex 3.1

Question 1.
A School purchases some furniture and gets the following bill.

(i) What is the name of the store?
(ii) What is the serial number of the bill?
(iii) What is the cost of a blackboard?
(iv) How many sets of benches and desks does the school buy?
(v) Verify whether the total bill amount is correct.
Solution:
(i) Mullai Furniture Mart, Thanjavur
(ii) Serial No. 728
(iii) Cost of a blackboard is ₹ 3000
(iv) 50 sets
(v) Yes, the total bill amount is correct.

Question 2.
Prepare a bill for the following books of biographies purchased from Maruthu Book Store, Chidambaram on 12.04.2018 bearing the bill number 507.
10 copies of Subramanya Bharathiar @ ₹ 55 each, 15 copies of Thiruvalluvar @ ₹ 75 every 12 copies of Veeramamunivar @ ₹ 60 each and 12 copies of Thiru. Vi.Ka @ ₹ 70 each.
Solution:

Question 3.
Fillup the appropriate boxes in the following table.

Solution:
(i) Here Cost price < Selling price
Profit = S.P – C.P = 120 – 100 = ₹ 20
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = 120 – 110 = ₹ 10
(iii) Profit = ₹ 20
Profit = S.P. – C.P
⇒ 20 = S.P. – 120
⇒ 20 + 120 = S.P
⇒ S.P = ₹ 140
(iv) C.P = ₹ 100
S.P = ₹ 90
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = 100 – 90 = ₹ 10
(v) Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 25 = S.P – 120
⇒ 25 + 120 = S.P
⇒ S.P = ₹ 145

Question 4.
Fill up the appropriate boxes in the following table.

Solution:
(i) S.P. = M.P – Discount
S.P = ₹ 130
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = 130 – 110 = ₹ 20
(ii) S.P = M.P – Discount = 130 – 10 = ₹ 120
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = ₹ 120 – ₹ 110 = ₹ 10
(iii) S.P = M.P – Discount = 130 – 30 = ₹ 100
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = 110 – 100 = ₹ 10
(iv) C.P = ₹ 110
M.P = ₹ 120
Loss = ₹ 10
Loss = C.P – S.P
⇒ 10 = 110 – SP
⇒ SP = 110 – 10 = ₹ 100
Discount = M.P – S.P = 120 – 100 = ₹ 20
(v) M.P = ₹ 120
Discount = ₹ 10
Discount = M.P – S.P
⇒ 10 = 120 – S.P
⇒ S.P = 120 – 10 = ₹ 110
Profit = ₹ 20
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 20 = 110 – C.P
⇒ C.P = 110 – 20 = 90

Question 5.
Rani bought a set of bangles for Rs 310. Her neighbour liked it the most. So, Rani sold it to her for Rs 325. Find the profit or loss to Rani.
Solution:
The cost price of the bangles = ₹ 310
The selling price of the bangles = ₹ 325
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = 325 – 310 = ₹ 15
Profit = ₹ 15

Question 6.
Sugan bought a pair of Jeans pant for ₹ 750. It did not fit him. He sold it to his friend for ₹ 710. Find the profit or loss to sugan.
Solution:
C.P of the Jeans pant = ₹ 750
S.P of the Jeans pant = ₹ 710
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = C.P – S.P = 750 – 710 = ₹ 40
Loss = ₹ 40

Question 7.
Somu bought a second-hand bike for Rs 28,000 and spent Rs 2,000 on its repair. He sold it for Rs 30,000. Find his profit or loss.
Solution:
Cost of bike = ₹ 28,000
Spent on Repairs = ₹ 2,000
Cost Price of bike = ₹ 30,000
Selling Price = ₹ 30,000
Selling Price = Cost Price
∴ There is neither profit nor loss.

Question 8.
Muthu has a car worth ₹ 8,50,000 and he wants to sell it at a profit of ₹ 25,000. What should be the selling price of the car? Solution:
Cost price of the car = ₹ 8,50,000
Expected profit = ₹ 25,000
We know that profit = S.P – C.P
25000 = S.P – 8,50,000
⇒ 25,000 + 8,50,000 = S.P
⇒ S.P = 8,75,000
Selling Price of the car should be ₹ 8,75,000

Question 9.
Valarmathi sold her pearl set for Rs 30,000 at a profit of Rs 5,000. Find the cost price of the pearl set.
Solution:
Selling price of the pearl set = ₹ 30,000
Profit = ₹ 5000
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 5000 = 30,000 – C.P
⇒ C.P = 30,000 – 5,000 = ₹ 25,000
Cost price of the Pearl set = ₹ 25,000

Question 10.
If Guna marks his product to be sold for ₹ 325 and gives a discount of ₹ 30, then find the S.P.
Solution:
Marked Price of the Product = ₹ 325
Discount = ₹ 30
Selling Price = M.P – Discount = 325 – 30 = ₹ 295
S.P. = ₹ 295

Question 11.
A man buys a chair for 1,500. He wants to sell it at a profit of Rs 250 after making a discount of Rs 100. What is the M.P. of the chair?
Solution:
Cost of the chair = ₹ 1500
Profit needed = ₹ 250
Discount = ₹ 100
Profit = Selling price – Cost price
⇒ 250 = S.P – 1500
⇒ S.P = 250 + 1500
⇒ S.P = ₹ 1750
Also, S.P = M.P – Discount
⇒ 1750 = M.P – 100
⇒ 1750 + 100 = M.P
⇒ M.P. = ₹ 1850
Marked Price = ₹ 1850

Question 12.
Amutha marked her home product of pickle as ₹ 300 per pack. But she sold it for only ₹ 275 per pack. What was the discount offered by her per pack?
Solution:
M.P of the pickle = ₹ 300
S.P = ₹ 275
S.P = M.P – Discount
⇒ 275 = 300 – Discount
⇒ Discount = 300 – 275 = ₹ 25
Discount per pack = ₹ 25

Question 13.
Valavan bought 24 eggs for Rs 96. Four of them were broken and also he had a loss of Rs 36 on selling them. What is the selling price of one egg?
Solution:
Number of eggs bought = 24
Number of eggs broken = 4
Number of good eggs = 24 – 4 = 20
Cost price of 20 eggs = 96
Loss = ₹ 36
Loss = C.P – S.P
⇒ 36 = 96 – S.P
⇒ S.P = 96 – 36 = ₹ 60
S.P of 20 eggs = ₹ 60
S.P of 1 egg = \(\frac{60}{20}\) = ₹ 3
Selling price of 1 egg = ₹ 3

Question 14.
Mangai bought a cell phone for ₹ 12,585. It fell down. She spent ₹ 500 on it repair. She sold it for ₹ 7,500. Find her profit or loss.
Solution:
Cost of the cell phone = ₹ 12,585
Spent on repairs = ₹ 500
Cost price = Cost of cell phone + repair charge = 12,585 + 500 = ₹ 13,085
S.P. = 7,500
Here C.P > S.P
∴ It is a loss
Loss = C.P – S.P = 13,085 – 7500 = ₹ 5,585
Loss = ₹ 5,585

Objective Type Questions

Question 15.
Discount is subtracted from ……… to get S.P.
(a) M.P
(b) C.P
(c) Loss
(d) Profit
Solution:
(a) M.P

Question 16.
‘Overhead expenses’ is always included in _____.
(a) S.P
(b) C.P.
(c) Profit
(d) Loss
Solution:
(b) C.P.

Question 17.
There is no profit or loss when
(a) C.P = S.P
(b) C.P > S.P
(c) C.P < S.P
(d) M.P = Discount
Solution:
(a) C.P = S.P

Question 18.
Discount = M.P _____
(a) Profit
(b) S.P
(c) Loss
(d) C.P
Solution:
(b) S.P

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Statistics Ex 5.2

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

(iii) Representation of data by using pictures is known as _______
Solution:
(i) 150 balls
(ii)
(iii) Pictograph

Question 2.
Draw a pictograph for the give data.

(Choose your own suitable scales)
Solution:
Pictograph of Number of computers sold.

Question 3.
The following table shows the number of tourists who visited the places in the month of May. Draw a pictograph.

(Choose your own suitable scale)
Solution:
The pictograph for the number of tourists who visited various places:

Question 4.
The following pictograph shows the number of students playing different games in a school

Answer the following questions.
(i) Which is the most popular game among the students?
(ii) Find the number of students playing kabaddi?
(iii) Which two games are played by an equal number of students?
(iv) What is the difference between the number of students playing Kho-Kho and Hockey?
(v) Which is the least popular game among the students?
Solution:
(i) Kabaddi
(ii) 110
(iii) Kho-Kho and Hockey
(iv) 0
(v) Basket Ball

Objective Type Questions

Question 5.
The representation of one picture too many objects’ in a pictograph is called
(a) Tally mark
(b) Pictoword
(c) Scaling
(d) Frequency
Solution:
(c) Scaling

Question 6.
The representation of ‘one picture too many objects’ in a Pictograph is called _____
(a) Tally mark
(b) Pictoword
(c) Scaling
(d) Frequency
Solution:
(c) Scaling

Question 7.
A Pictograph is also known as ______
(a) Pictoword
(b) Pictogram
(c) Pictophrase
(d) Pictograph
Solution:
(b) Pictogram

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Our body needs _______ for muscle-building.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of ………..
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a _______
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(d) Minerals

Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because ……….
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates.
(b) They are the best source of Proteins.
(c) They are rich in minerals and vitamins.
(d) They have high water content.
Answer:
(c) They are rich in minerals and vitamins.

Question 5.
Bacteria are very small _______ microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) Prokaryotic

II. True or false

Question 1.
There are three main nutrients present in food.
Answer:
False. There are six main nutrients present in food.

Question 2.
Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
All bacteria have flagella.
Answer:
False. Not all bacteria have flagella only, some bacteria have flagella.

Question 4.
Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Virus can grow and multiply outside host.
Answer:
False. Virus can grow and multiply inside host.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Malnutrition leads to _______
2. Iodine deficiency leads to _______ in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes _______.
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of _______ and water.
5. Influenza is a _______ disease.

Answers:

1. deficiency disease
2. goitre
3. Rickets
4. food
5. viral (virus)

IV. Complete the Analogy.

Question 1.
Rice: Carbohydrate :: Pulses: _______
Answer:
Protein.

Question 2.
Vitamin D : Rickets :: Vitamin C: _______
Answer:
Scurvy.

Question 3.
Iodine: Goitre :: Iron: _______
Answer:
Anaemia.

Question 4.
Cholera: Bacteria :: Smallpox: _______
Answer:
Virus.

V. Match the following

1. Vitamin A – Rickets
2. Vitamin B – Night blindness
3. Vitamin C – Sterility
4. Vitamin D – Beriberi
5. Vitamin E – Scurvy

Answer:

1. Vitamin A – Night blindness
2. Vitamin B – Beri beri
3. Vitamin C – Scurvy
4. Vitamin D – Rickets
5. Vitamin E – Sterility

VI. Complete the diagram

Question:

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
Answer:
(a) Food items were rich in fat – Egg yolk, meat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency – diseases.
(c) Vitamin C – Scurvy
(d) Vitamin D – Rickets.

Question 2.
Differentiate between carbohydrates and protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrates:
Carbohydrates are energy giving component of the body They are not involved in repairing and regulating body functions.
Eg: sugar, starch.

Proteins:
Proteins are bodybuilding components. They are necessary for growth, repair, and useful in regulating body functions.
Eg: Soya beans, grams.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘balanced diet’?
Answer:
A balanced diet is a diet which contains an adequate amount of all the necessary nutrients like carbohydrate fat protein minerals and vitamins required for healthy growth and activity.

Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting?
Answer:

1. Fat-soluble vitamins – A D E K.
2. Water-soluble vitamins – B, C.

The water-soluble vitamins B and C will be washed away while washing after cutting the vegetables.

Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:

1. AIDS
2. Hepatitis.

Question 6.
What is the main feature of a microorganism?
Answer:

1. The microbes can be seen only through a microscope.
2. Bacterias are prokaryotic microbes.
3. Bacterias can live independently or as a parasite.
4. Viruses are a cellular organism.
5. Viruses can live only in a living organism.

VIII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Intext Activities

Activity 1

Identify the following food items and complete the table given below.

Answer:

Question 1.
Do your favorite foods make you healthy?
Answer:
Some of my favorite foods make me healthy.

Question 2.
Do you choose your food by taste or by its nutritive value?
Answer:
I choose my food by taste and also by its nutritive value.

Activity 2
Collect as many food items as you can and classify them according to the major nutrient content in it.
Answer:

Activity 3
Aim: To test the presence of carbohydrates as Starch in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Boiled potato, dropper and dilute Iodine solution.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Smash the boiled potato. Add two or three drops of dilute Iodine solution on the Sample.

Question 3.
What do you observe?
Answer:
The potato turns blue-black in colour.

Question 4.
What do you infer?
Answer:
Iodine reacts with Starch to form Starch-Iodine complex which is blueblack in colour. Thus, the appearance of blue-black colour confirms the presence of Starch in the food item.

Activity 4
Aim: To test the presence of Fat in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Coconut Oil, groundnut oil, and any Paper.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Pour few drops of oil onto the paper and rub it gently with your finger. In case of ground nut, crush the groundnut and place it on a paper. Now rub the groundnut on the paper.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
The paper turns translucent and becomes greasy.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
The given food sample contains fat.

Activity 5
Aim: To test the presence of Protein in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Egg white, Copper sulphate solution, Sodium hydroxide, Test tube and Bunsen burner.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Take a small amount of the food sample (egg white) and put in the test tube. Add some water to the test tube and shake it. Next, heat the test tube for about one minute. After the test tube has cooled down, add two drops each of Copper sulphate solution and Sodium hydroxide to it.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
The food sample turns purple or violet.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
Change in colour of the given food sample turns purple or violet confirms the presence of Protein.

Just Think

A medical camp was conducted in School. Most of the children were healthy. Some of the students had some health issues
Priya had bleeding gums.
Raja could not see clearly in dim light.
Arun had bent legs
Can you guess what could be the reasons?

• Priya was affected by Vitamin ‘C’ deficiency. So she had bleeding gums.
• Raja was affected by vitamin ‘A’ deficiency. So he could not see clearly in dim light.
• Arun was affected by vitamin ‘D’ deficiency. So he had bent legs.

Activity 6

Question 1.
Make your food little healthier. What do you need?
Answer:
A small cup of green gram seeds, Water and thin cloth.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Soak the green gram seeds in water overnight. Take out the seeds and strain the water. Wrap the seeds in a wet thin cloth. Keep it for a day or two. Sprinkle some water whenever it is dry.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
You can see white sprouts coming out of the seeds.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
Green gram sprouts are low in calories, have fibre and Vitamin B. It has a comparatively high amount of vitamin C and vitamin K.

Complete the following Table – 4

Answer:

Activity 7

Question:
Why do we need a balanced diet?
Prepare a diet chart to provide a balanced diet to a 12-year-old child. The diet chart should include food item which are not expensive and are commonly available in your area.
Answer:
We need a balanced diet because,
a balanced diet contains a sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health.
Balance diet for 12-year-old boy/girl.

Activity 8

Question:
Visit a nearby Anganwadi centre and find the steps taken by the government to overcome malnutrition and ensure health in the age group 0-5 years.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 9

One day Rahim, a class six boy vomited three times. He was looking tired and dehydrated. His mother who was a nurse prepared a solution and gave it to his drink. He felt better after some time and asked his mother what the solution was. His mother said it was Oral Rehydration Solution – ORS. Shall we see what an ORS is? Vomiting or lose motions result in loss of water and cause a salt imbalance in the body. Loss of water (dehydration) can lead to serious problems. This can be prevented by consuming ORS at short intervals.

Follow the steps to make ORS at home:

• Take a litre of boiled water. Cool it.
• Add half a teaspoon of salt and six teaspoons of sugar to it.
• You can also add a few drops of lemon juice to it. Stir it and give it to the person suffering from vomiting, loose motions or dehydration.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Discuss in your classroom
“Is the virus a living thing or nonliving thing?”
Answer:
The virus is a non-living thing.

Reasons:

1. The virus is acellular, meaning it lacks a cell membrane.
2. It is an obligate parasite. It requires a host cell to reproduce.
3. It lacks an energy-generating system. It cannot produce its own energy.
4. It cannot perform metabolic activities.
5. Viruses are not composed of cells and do not reproduce themselves from other pre-existing viruses.
6. The genetic material (DNA or RNA) inside the virus invades the living host cell, and causes the cell to replicate virus parts and assemble them to make new viruses, which are released to infect more cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
_______ provides more energy than Carbohydrates.
(a) Fat
(b) Vitamin
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Fat

Question 2.
Name the vitamin which is rich in Gooseberry.
(a) C
(b) E
(c) B
(d) D
Answer:
(c) B

Question 3.
Among the Vitamins, which one is the water soluble Vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(e) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B

Question 4.
Name the vitamin present in Muringa leaves
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) K and A
(d) A and C
Answer:
(d) A and C

Question 5.
_______ is made in our skin using sunlight.
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B
Answer:
(a) Vitamin D

Question 6.
_______ are required for growth as well as for the regulation of normal body function.
(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(d) Minerals

Question 7.
80% of the world production of Moringa leaves is in _______
(a) China
(b) Germany
(c) India
(d) Canada
Answer:
(c) India

Question 8.
Any human being should take a minimum of _______ of water every day.
(a) 2 litres
(b) 3 litres
(c) 8 litres
(d) 6 litres
Answer:
(a) 2 litres

Question 9.
_______ is a bacterial disease and it transmits through contamination of wounds, with the bacteria.
(a) Cholera
(b) Tetanus
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(b) Tetanus

Question 10.
_______ is a cellular agent that replicates only inside the cells of the other living organism.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Protozoa
(c) Fungi
(d) Virus
Answer:
(d) Virus

Il. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
We can obtain Carbohydrates in the form of _______
Answer:
Sugar, Starch, Dietary Fibers

Question 2.
Vitamins are called as _______ food.
Answer:
Protective

Question 3.
The vitamins A, D, E, K are _______ soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Fat

Question 4.
_______ is a disease, due to the deficiency of Vitamin E.
Answer:
Nervous Weakness

Question 5.
Moringa leaves contains powerful anti _______
Answer:
Oxidants

Question 6.
Skinny appearance and slow body growth are the symptoms of _______ disease.
Answer:
Marasmus

Question 7.
_______ is strengthening muscles and the cardiovascular system.
Answer:
Physical exercise

Question 8.
_______ can kill damage or change the cells and make you sick.
Answer:
Virus

Question 9.
Sunscreen lotion reduces your skin’s ability to produce _______ by up to 95%.
Answer:
Vitamin D

Question 10.
Goose Bernes contain nearly _______ vitamin C than an orange.
Answer:
20 times

Question 11.
India has the _______ highest number of obese children ¡n the world.
Answer:
Second

III. True or false. If false give the correct answer.

Question 1.
Minerals are required for carrying out various biochemical reactions in our body.
Answer:
False. Vitamins are required for carrying out various biochemical reactions in our body.

Question 2.
Night blindness is a disease due to a deficiency of Vitamin A.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Vitamin D abundantly found in orange and gooseberry.
Answer:
False. Vitamin C abundantly found in orange and gooseberry.

Question 4.
Sunscreen lotion reduces the ability to produce Vitamin D. It leads to Vitamin D deficiency diseases.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Iodine maintains strong bones, teeth and helps in clotting of blood.
Answer:
False. Calcium maintains strong bones, teeth and helps in clotting of blood.

Question 6.
Moringa leaves are rich in the minerals potassium, calcium and iron.
Answer:
True.

IV. Complete the Analogy

Question 1.
Polio : Virus :: Tetanus : _______
Answer:
Bacteria

Question 2.
_______ : Diarrhoea:: Marasmus: Slow body growth.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor

Question 3.
Synthesis of thyroid harmone: Iodine:: Formation of haeniogiobin: _______
Answer:
Iron

Question 4.
Fish oil : Vitamin D :: Vegetable oil : _______
Answer:
Vitamin II

Question 5.
Vitamin K : Clotting of blood :: Vitamin E : _______
Answer:
Fertility

Question 6.
Protein: Soya bean:: Fat: _______
Answer:
Meat

V. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Carbohydrate – (a) Carrying out various biochemical reactions
2. Proteins – (b) Regulation of normal body function
3. Vitamins – (c) energy-giving component
4. Minerals – (d) Bodybuilding food

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

Question 2.

Answer:

1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the diagram

Answer:
A – Exercise
B – Yoga.

VII. Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define homeostasis.
Answer:
It is to maintain a stable equilibrium of the body in accordance with the pressures and changes of the body environment.

Question 2.
What are the nutrients obtained from food?
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Vitamins
5. Minerals
6. Water.

Question 3.
What is meant by deficiency diseases?
Answer:
The diseases that are caused due to a lack of nutrients in the diet are called deficiency diseases.

Question 4.
Sun Screen lotion is not good for our health. Justify.
Answer:
Sun Screen lotion reduces our skin’s ability to produce vitamin D upto 95%. It may lead to Vitamin D deficiency. So it not for good our health.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks.
A – Calcium – Rickets
Phosphorus – …………
Answer:
Osteomalacia

B – Iodine – cretinism
Iron – ………….
Answer:
anemia

Question 6.
What are the nutrients present in Moringa leaves?
Answer:
Moringa leaves are rich in Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Potassium, Calcium, Iron, and Protein. It also contains powerful anti-oxidants.

Question 7.
How does a Balanced diet help our body?
Answer:
A balanced diet helps our body, in the following ways :

1. An increased capacity to work
2. Good physical and mental health
3. Increased capacity to resist diseases.
4. Help in the proper growth of the body.

Question 8.
Give some mineral deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Rickets, Osteomalacia, Cretinism in Child, Goitre in adult, Anaemia are the mineral deficiency diseases.

Question 9.
How does Physical exercise help us?
Answer:
Physical exercise helps us in the following ways:

1. increase in growth and development
2. strengthening muscles and the cardiovascular system
3. developing athletic skills
4. weight loss or maintenance, and enjoyment.

Question 10.
How are the following bacterial diseases transmitted?
(i) Cholera
(ii) Tetanus
(iii) Typhoid
(iv) Tuberculosis
Answer:

Question 11.
Name the countries which import Moringa leaves.
Answer:
China, United States, German, Canada, South Korea and European Countries import Moringa leaves.

Question 12.
Define health.
Answer:
Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of diseases. Eating a healthy diet keeps us physically and mentally fit.

Question 13.
Name the four major groups of Microbes.
Answer:
Microbes divided into four major groups. They are

• Bacteria
• Virus
• Protozoa
• Fungi

Question 14.
Define Disease.
Answer:
The disease is a definite pathological process having a characteristic set of signs and symptoms.

Question 15.
What is a Retrovirus?
Answer:
A Virus that contains R.N.A. instead of D.N.A. is called a Retrovirus.

VIII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Fill in the Table :

Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Local Bodies – Rural And Urban

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies – Rural And Urban Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_________ is set up w ith several village panchayats.
(a) Panchayat Union
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Taluk
(d) Revenue village
Answer:
(a) Panchayat Union

Question 2.
……………… is National Panchayat Raj Day.
(a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
(d) April 24
Answer:
(d) April 24

Question 3.
The oldest urban local body in India is _________
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 4.
The district has the highest number of Panchayat Unions.
(a) Vellore
(b) Thiruvallore
(c) Villupuram
(d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

Question 5.
The head of a corporation is called a_________
(a) Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Chair Person
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Mayor

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ is the fist state in India to introduce town Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year______
3. The tenure of the local body representative is______ years.
4. ______ is the first municipality in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Tamilnadu
2. April 24, 1992
3. five
4. Walajahpet in Vellore Dt.

III. Match the following

1.	Grama Sabha	Executive Officer
2.	Panchayat Union	State Election Commission
3.	Town Panchayat	Block Development Officer
4.	Local body election	Permanent Unit

Answer:

1.	Grama Sabha	Permanent Unit
2.	Panchayat Union	Block Development Officer
3.	Town Panchayat	Executive Officer
4.	Local body election	State Election Commission

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Is there any corporation in your district? Name it.
Answer:
Chennai Corporation.

Question 2.
What is the need for local bodies?
Answer:

1. Local government serves a two-fold purpose.
2. The first purpose is the administrative one of supplying goods and services.
3. The other purpose is to represent and involve citizens in determining specific local public needs and how these local needs can be met with.

Question 3.
What are the divisions of a rural local body?
Answer:
The rural local bodies are Categorized into Village Panchayats, Panchayat Unions, and District Panchayats.

Question 4.
What are the divisions of an Urban local body?
Answer:
The Urban local bodies are categorized into City Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, and Town Panchayats.

Question 5.
Who are the representatives elected in a Village Panchayat?
Answer:
The elected representatives of the Village Panchayat are

1. Panchayat President
2. Ward members
3. Councillor
4. District Panchayat Ward Councillor.

Question 6.
List out a few functions of corporations.
Answer:
Functions of the City Municipal Corporation are

1. Drinking water supply
2. Street lighting
3. Maintenance of a clean environment
4. Primary Health facilities
5. Laying of roads
6. Building flyovers
7. Drainage system
8. Corporation schools
9. Playgrounds
10. Birth and Death registration, etc.

Question 7.
List out a few means of revenue of village Panchayats.
Answer:
Revenue of Village Panchayats are

1. House Tax
2. Professional Tax
3. Tax on shops
4. Water charges
5. Specific fees for property tax
6. Specific fees for the transfer of immovable property
7. Funds from Central and State Governments, etc.

Question 8.
When are Grama Sabha meetings convened? What are the special on those days?
Answer:

1. Grama Sabha meetings are convened on January 26, May 1, August 15, and October 2.
2. Apart from these, meetings can be convened as per need or during emergencies. These are called Special Grama Sabha meetings.
3. Those who have obtained the age of 18 years and whose names are found in the electoral roll of the same Panchayat, can take part in a Grama Sabha meeting.
4. The Grama Sabha meetings are conducted four times a year.
5. Officers like the District Collector, the Block Development Officer, Teachers, etc., also participate in the meeting.
6. People can freely express their needs and grievances.

Question 9.
What are the special features of the Panchayat Raj system?
Answer:
Special features of Panchayat Raj.

1. Grama Sabha
2. Three-tier local body governance.
3. Reservations
4. Panchayat elections
5. Tenure
6. Finance Commission
7. Account and Audit, etc.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Grama Sabha?
Answer:

1. A Grama Sabha is formed in every Village Panchayat.
2. It is the only permanent unit in the Panchayat Raj system.
3. Grama Sabha meetings are held even in smaller villages.
4. The Grama Sabha is the grass root level democratic institution in a Village Panchayat.

HOTS:

Question 1.
Local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities. How?
Answer:

1. Local self-government has been playing a vital role.
2. The local bodies provide services to the local community.
3. They act as an instrument of democratic self-government.
4. This level of government is recoginsed by the people as they are close to the citizens and involve them in the decision making process.
5. These institutions perform the functions related to education, sanitation, public health, industry, etc, and try to tackle the day-to-day problems of the local people.
6. In a big country like India, the Union government and State government are unable to know the local problems of the citizens. Only the local people can suggest the right solution to local problems.
7. These bodies lessen the workload of the Central and State governments. They are the best schools of democracy.
8. Therefore the local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Find out the number of local bodies in your district and list them
Answer:

Name of the District	Village Panchayat	Panchayat Union (Blocks)	Town Panchayat	Municipality	Corporation
Ariyalur	201	6	2	2	–
Chennai	–	–	–	–	1
Coimbatore	389	13	52	6	1
Cuddalore	682	13	16	5	–
Dharmapuri	251	8	10	1	–
Dindigul	306	14	24	2	1
Erode	343	14	53	4	1
Kancheepuram	648	13	24	10	–
Kanyakumari	99	9	56	4	–
Karur	157	8	11	4	–
Krishnagiri	337	10	7	2	–
Madurai	431	12	24	6	1
Nagapattinam	434	11	8	4	–
Namakkal	331	15	19	5	–
Perambalur	121	4	4	1	–
Pudukottai	498	13	8	2	–
Ramanathapuram	443	11	7	4	–
Salem	385	20	33	4	1
Sivagangai	445	12	12	3	–
Thanjavur	589	14	22	2	1
Nilgiris	35	4	11	4	_
Theni	130	8	22	6	–
Thiruvalluvar	539	14	13	5	–
Thiruvannamalai	860	18	10	4	–
Thiruvarur	430	10	7	4	–
Thoothukudi	408	12	19	2	1
Tiruchirappalli	408	14	17	3	1
Tirunelveli	425	19	36	8	1
Tiruppur	273	13	17	6	1
Vellore	753	20	22	8	1
Villlupurarn	1104	22	15	3	–
Virudhunagar	450	11	9	7	–
32	12.524	385	529	123	12

HOTS

Question 1.
Why are there only 31 district panchayats, but 32 districts?
Answer:

1. There are 32 districts but there are only 31 districts panchayats because there is no such body for Chennai.
2. It is because the district of Chennai falls in an urban district. District rural development agency’s ex-officio chairman is the district collector.
3. In the state of Tamil Nadu, there are total 32 districts including Chennai but there is no district panchayat.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies-Rural And Urban Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu there is corporation in __________
(a) Namakkal
(b) Perambalur
(c) Thiruvarur
(d) Erode
Answer:
(d) Erode

Question 2.
All local bodies have a reservation of percent for women ……………….
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 33
Answer:
(c) 33

Question 3.
The administrative oi Beer of a Municipality is __________
(a) Engineer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Ward Member
(d) Deputy Commissioner
Answer:
(b) Executive Officer

Question 4.
The Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act,2016 has fixed percent reservation for women in panchayat Raj institutions.
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
Answer:
(b) 50

Question 5.
The grass root level, democratic institution is __________
(a) Town Panchayat
(b) Village Panchayat
(c) Grama Sabha
(d) Panchayat Union
Answer:
(c) Grama Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The __________district has the most number of municipalities.
2. A __________ is between a village and a city.
3. A city Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner who is an __________ officer.
4. The Nilgris and Perambalur district have the lowest number of __________
5. Vehicle charges are one of the revenue sources to __________
6. Mahatma Gandhi advocated __________ as the foundation of India’s political system.
7. The Tamil Nadu State Election Commission is situated in __________ Chennai.

Answer:

1. Kanchipuram
2. Town Panchayat
3. IAS
4. Panchayat Unions
5. City Municipal Corporation
6. Panchayat Raj
7. Koyambedu

III. Match the Following

1.	Chennai	a. Obligatory Function
2.	Panchayat President	b. Village Panchayat
3.	Laying Roads	c. Corporation
4.	Grama Sabha	d. Wards
5.	Constituencies	e. Elected representative

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. d

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Mention the list of corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The list of corporations in Tamil Nadu :

1. Chennai
2. Madurai
3. Coimbatore
4. Tiruchirapalli
5. Salem
6. Tirunelveli
7. Erode
8. Thoothukudi
9. Tiruppur
10. Vellore
11. Dindigul
12. Thanjavur.

Question 2.
What is a Municipality?
Answer:

1. A Municipality is found in the level below the City Municipal Corporation.
2. These areas have a population of more than one lakh and a high amount of revenue.

Question 3.
What is a Town Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A Town Panchayat has about 10,000 population.
2.  A Town Panchayat is between a village and a city.
3. Tamil Nadu was the first state to introduce a town panchayat in the whole of India.

Question 4.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation?
Answer:

1. A City Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner. He is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer.
2. Government officials are deputed as Commissioners for the Municipalities.
3. The Administrative officer of a Municipality is an Executive Officer (EO).

Question 5.
What is a Village Panchayat?
Answer:

1. Village Panchayats are the local bodies of villages.
2. They act as a link between the people and the government.
3. Villages are divided into wards based on their population.
4. The representatives are elected by the people.

Question 6.
What is the Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. Many Village Panchayats join to form a Panchayat Union.
2. A Councillor is elected from each Panchayat.
3. These councillors will elect a Panchayat Union Chairperson among themselves.
4. A Vice-Chairperson is also elected.
5. A Block Development Officer (BDO) is the administrative head of a Panchayat Union.

Question 7.
What is a District Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A District Panchayat is formed in every district.
2. A district is divided into wards on the basis of a 50,000 population.
3. The ward members are elected by the Village Panchayats.
4. The members of the District Panchayat elect the District Panchayat Committee Chairperson.
5. They provide essential services and facilities to the rural population.

Question 8.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:

1. The Mayor of the City Municipal Corporation and the Municipal Chairperson are the elected representatives of the people.
2. The people elect them.
3. The Corporation Deputy Mayor and the Municipal Vice-Chairperson are elected by the ward councillors.

Question 9.
Mention the obligating functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
The obligating functions of the Village Panchayat:

1. Water supply
2. Street lighting
3. Cleaning roads
4. Drainage and sewage pipes system
5. Laying down roads
6. Activation of Central and State Government Schemes.

Question 10.
Mention the revenue of the City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
The revenue of the City Municipal Corporation :

1. House Tax
2. Water Tax
3. Tax on shopping Complexes
4. Professional Tax
5. Entertainment Tax
6. Vehicle charges
7. Funds by Central and State governments, etc.

Question 11.
Mention the role of women in the Local Self government.
Answer:

1. All local bodies have a reservation of 33% for women.
2. In 2011, Local Bodies election, 38% of seats were won by women.
3. As per the Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act 2016, a 50% reservation for women is being fixed in Panchayat Raj institutions.

V. HOTS:

Question 1.
What do you know about Panch at Awards?
Answer:

1. Panchayat Awards are distributed by the Ministry of Panchayat Raj, Government of India every year in the month of April.
2. Best performing panchayats are selected from all over India.
3. Panchayat that performs well in all aspects is chosen as Winners.
4. In 2018, Digambarpur in West Bengal became the best Grama Panchayat of India.
5. A survey was conducted to find out the best Grama Panchayat in India among 2.5 lakh Grama Panchayats.
6. Out of these, the Ministry of Panchayat Raj finalized three top states.
7. The ranking was prepared based on different seven factors that include a system of planning, quality of planning, different activities and level of coordination, etc.
8. Finally, it was Digambarpur chosen as the best one in the country.
9. Karnataka and Sikkim were the other two states that were finalized in the top three.
10. In India, April 24th is celebrated as National Panchayat Raj Diwas every year. This day marks the passing of the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act; 1992 that came into force with effect from 24 April 1993.

Question 2.
Write down the Key difference between Urban and Rural Basis for Comparison.
Answer:

S.No	Basis for Comparison	Urban	Rural
1.	Meaning	A settlement where the population is very high and has the features of a built environment is known as an Urban	An area located in, the outskirts, is known as Rural
2.	Includes	Cities and Towns	Villages and Hamlet
3.	Life	Fast and Complicated	Simple and relaxed
4.	Environment	Greats isolation from Nature	Direct contact with Nature
5.	Associated with	Non-agricultural work, ie trade, commerce, or provision of services	Agriculture and livestock
6.	Population size	Densely populated	Sparsely population
7.	Development	Planned settlement exists in Urban areas, that are developed according to the process of urbanisation and industrialization	Developed randomly based on the availability of natural vegetation and fauna in that area.
8.	Social mobility	Highly intensive	Less intensive
9.	Division of Labour	Always present at the time of job allotment	No such division

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Textual Evaluation

I Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in CPU?
(a) Mother Board
(b) SMPS
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Free and Open source
b. Free and Traditional software
c. Passive and Open source
d. Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
a. Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
(a) Paid Software
(b) Licensed Software
(c) Free and Proprietary software
(d) Free and Open-source software
Answer:
(d) Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
a.- Windows
b. MAC OS
c. Adobe Photoshop
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 5.
_______ is a Operating System
(a) Android
(b) Chrome
(c) Internet
(d) Pendrive

IV. Match the following :

1. MAC OS	Free and Open source Software
2. Software	Paid and Proprietary Software
3. Hardware	Input Device
4. Keyboard	RAM
5. LINUX	Geogebra

Answer:

1. MAC OS	Paid and Proprietary Software
2. Software	Geogebra
3. Hardware	RAM
4. Keyboard	Input device
5. LINUX	Free and open source software

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware: Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel. Hardware includes Input and Output devices, Cabinet, Hard Disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive, and Graphics Card.
Software: Software is programmed and coded applications to process the input information.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System Software (Operating System) is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like Monitor.
2. Without the operating system, the computer cannot function on its own.
3. Some of the popular operating systems are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:
Free and open software is available free of cost and can be shared with many end-users. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to the development (or) updation of new software. Examples of Free and Open Source Software: LINUX, Open Office, Operating System, Geogebra, etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_____ is a device comprising both hardware and software.
(a) Microwave Oven
(b) Car
(c) Bike
(d) Computer
Answer:
(d) Computer

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct
(a) Free and Open source software
(b) Free and Licensed software
(c) Free and Traditional software
(d) Passive and Traditional source software
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source software

Question 3.
_____ existed before the World Wide Web.
(a) Whatsapp
(b) Email
(c) Facebook
(d) Google
Answer:
(b) Email

Question 4.
Windows is a
(a) Paid software
(b) Licensed software
(c) Free and Open-source software
(d) Free and Proprietary software
Answer:
(a) Paid software

Question 5.
_____ is one of the examples of the application program.
(a) Drawing tools
(b) Language
(c) Linker
(d) Device driver
Answer:
(a) Drawing tools

Question 6.
The license of the software would not be provided unless it is _____
(a) Collected
(b) Purchased
(c) dismantled
(d) sold
Answer:
(b) Purchased

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ is lifeless without software on a computer.
2. _______ are programmed and coded applications to process the input information.
3. Software is divided into _______ types based on the process.
4. _______ is developing software to control the internal computer operation.
5. _______ software is available at free of cost and can be shared with many end-users.
6. _______ is the Paid and Proprietary Software.

Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. two
4. Linker
5. Free and Open
6. Adobe Photoshop

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
How can we classify the software?
Answer:
The software is divided into two types based on the process. They are

1. System software
2. Application software

Question 2.
Give some examples of System Softwares.
Answer:
Some of the Popular Operating systems are LINUX, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is an open-source initiative?
Answer:
The open-source initiative is an organization dedicated to promoting open-source software.

Question 4.
Define Application Software.
Answer:

1. Application software is a program (or) a group of programs designed for the benefit of end-user to work on computers.
2. The application programs can be installed on the hard disk for usage on a particular computer.

Question 5.
What is the classification of System Software?
Answer:
The system software is divided into two types:

1. System Management Program.
2. Developing Software.

Question 6.
Give the classification of Application Software?
Answer:

1. General Purpose Software.
2. Specific Purpose Software.

Question 7.
Give some examples of Specific Purpose Software?
Answer:

1. Reservation System.
2. Attendance System.
3. Billing System.
4. Report card Generator.

Question 8.
What are the two forms of System and Application Software?
Answer:
The Operating System and application software are available in two forms. They are:

1. Free and Open Source.
2. Paid and Proprietary Software.

IV. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Draw the flow chart of software classification.
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Economics An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Textual Evaluation

 

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The producers of food grains are ______
2. Collection of honey is a ______ occupation.
3. The conversion of raw materials into finished goods is called ______
4. According to Gandhiji the villages are ______ of the nation.
5. The percentage of population in the cities of Tamil Nadu is ______

Answer:

1. farmers
2. Primary
3. manufacturing
4. backbone
5. 47 Percent

II. Match the following:

1. Cattle rearing – Secondary occupation
2. Food processing – Services
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Primary occupation
4. Telephone – Agro based industry
5. Cotton Industry – Tertiary occupation

Answer:

1. Cattle rearing – Primary occupation
2. Food processing – Agro based industry
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Secondary occupation
4. Telephone – Services (or) Tertiary occupation
5. Cotton Industry – Agro based industry (or) Secondary occupation

III. Match and find the odd pair:

1. Small scale Industry – Transaction of Money
2. Forest based Industries – Information Technology
3. Services – Paper Industries
4. Banking – Cattle rearing

Answer:

1. Small scale Industry – Cattle rearing
2. Forest based Industries – Paper Industries
3. Services – Information Technology
4. Banking – Transaction of Money

IV. Choose the correct answer:

1. Agriculture is a (Primary / Secondary) occupation
2. Economic activities are divided on the basis of (ownership / use)
3. Sugar Industries are (Primary / Secondary) activity
4. Agro based industry (Cotton / Furniture)
5. Dairy farming is a (Public sector / Co-operative sector)

Answer:

1. Primary
2. use
3. Secondary
4. Cotton
5. Co-operative sector

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Sandhai – Define
Answer:
In villages, once in a week or month, things are sold in a particular place at a specific time to meet the needs of the people. That is called Sandhai.

What is called the barter system?

1. The system of exchanging goods for other goods is called the barter system.
2. This was followed in the olden days.
3. For example, exchange a bag of rice for enough clothes.

Question 2.
What is trade?
Answer:
The action of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 3.
What is Savings?
Answer:
The amount from the income which is left for future needs after consumption is called savings.

Question 4.
What was the necessity for the invention of money?
Answer:

1. When people exchanged commodities, they might have faced, certain problems when comparing the differences in the value of the commodity.
2. To solve this problem, people invented a tool called money.

Question 5.
What was the reason for the development of settlements near water bodies?
Answer:

1. The early man hunted and gathered food.
2. Later he learned to cultivate crops.
3. When they found rivers, which provided the water they settled down permanently near the rivers.

Question 7.
What are called secondary occupation?
Answer:

1. The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products through machinery on a large scale.
2. These activities involve a secondary occupation.

Question 8.
Name the city centered industries.
Answer:
Electronics, Shipbuilding, Aluminium, Chemical, Autoparts, Railways, Leathers, Fertilizers, etc.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the important primary occupations of your district.
Answer:
Some of the primary occupations are agriculture, crop production, animal husbandry, fisheries, foresting, and mining. It also includes gazing, hunting, gathering.

Question 2.
Mention the manufacturing industries found in your district.
Answer:
Some of the manufacturing industries are Food manufacturing, Textile manufacturing, Leather and allied product manufacturing, Wood product manufacturing, Paper manufacturing, Metal manufacturing, Machinery manufacturing, etc.

Question 3.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:
On the basis of raw materials industries are classified as

1. Agro-based industries – Cotton textiles, Sugarmills, and food processing
2. Forest-based industries – Paper mills, Furniture making, Building materials
3. Mineral-based industries – Cement, iron, Aluminium industries
4. Marine based industries – Seafood processing

Question 4.
Write down the occupations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Transport – Roadways, railways waterways, airways
2. Communication – Post, Telephone, Information Technology, etc.
3. Trade – Procurement of goods, selling
4. Banking – Money transactions, banking services

Question 5.
What do you know about the features of cities?
Answer:

1. Employment opportunities are more in cities than villages.
2. In cities, the number of small scales workers are more
3. Well, paved roads, ports, airports, and railway stations support trade.
4. Many branches of banks help in the circulation of money and boost the country’s economy.
5. Advanced medical services are easily available.

VII. Fill in the tabular column given below:

S.No.	Occupations in Villages	Occupations in cities	Occupations in Villages and cities
1.	Farming	Engineer	Carpenter
2.	Grazing of Herding	Scientists	Teacher
3.	Blacksmith	Musicians	Weaver
4.	Pottery	Journalists	Self-employed
5.	Water Bearers	Doctors	Marketing

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine if money disappears one day?
Answer:

1. In our daily life, we utilize many things. These things are sold in shops. To buy and sell commodities we use money. If we save money it is good for us and the country.
2. Money is the lubrication for the movement of goods. If these contracts symbolized by money disappeared, there would be instant chaos. All activity would grind to a halt.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Activities

Activity – 3

Fill up the given table.
Answer:

S.No.	Countries	Currency	Symbol
1.	Germany	Eurb	€
2.	Brazil	Brazilian real	R$
3.	India	Rupee	₹
4.	Argentina	Peso	$
5.	China	Renminbi	¥

Activity – 4
Put ✓ a mark in the appropriate box
Answer:

S.No.	Occupation	Primary activity	Secondary activity	Tertiary activity
1.	Farmer	✓
2.	Teacher			✓
3.	Tailor		✓
4.	Engineer		✓
5.	Bank Manager			✓

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Additional Questions

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. Things which are produced in villages are brought to
2. The permanent settlements of early man were called
3. The root of our economy is
4. The raw material for sugar is
5. Banks help in of money.

Answer:

1. Sandhai
2. Villages
3. Agriculture
4. Sugare cane
5. Circulation

II. Match the following:

1.	Exchange of goods	a.	Primary Activity
2.	Lumbering	b.	Trade
3.	Cement	c.	Post
4.	Buying and selling	d.	Barter
5.	Communication	e.	Mineral-based

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

III. Find the odd pair:

1.	Harvesting products             ‘	a.	Primary
2.	Goods and services	b.	Tertiary
3.	Manufacturing	c.	Primary
4.	Teaching	d.	Tertiary

IV. Choose the correct answer and fill in the appropriate column:

1. Coal miner
2. Automobile assembling plant
3. Grocery store
4. Helicopter pilot
5. Fisherman
6. Firefighters
7. Cashier
8. Delivery man
9. Oil well
10. Furniture maker
11. Timber cutters
12. Cotton farmer
13. Oil refinery.

Answer:

S.No.	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
1.	Coal miner	Automobile assembling plant	Grocery store
2.	Fisherman	Furniture maker	Helicopter pilot
3.	Oil well	Oil refinery	Firefighters
4.	Timber cutters		Cashier
5.	Cotton farmer		Delivery man

V. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What art consumer goods?

1. The finished goods which are bought from the market to fulfill the daily needs of the consumers are called consumer goods.
2. Example: Rice, Cloth, Bicycle, etc.

Question 2.
Mention a few primary activities.
Answer:
Agriculture, Cattle rearing, fishing, mining, collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin and medicinal herbs, lumbering, etc are primary activities.

VI. Give a detailed answer :
Question 1.
What is economics? Why is it so important?
Answer:

1. Economics is the study of how societies, governments, business establishments, households, and individuals allocate their scarce resources.
2. The study of economics can also provide valuable knowledge for making decisions in everyday life.
3. Economics is about the study of scarcity and choice.
4. By studying how markets work, our young people also learn how to make efficient choices in managing their own scarce resources, such as time and money.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Land And Oceans

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Textual Evaluation

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(d) The Arctic Oceans

Question 2.
The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
Answer:
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Question 3.
A Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) The Atlantic Ocean

Question 4.
The frozen continent is ……………
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c)Antarctica
(d) Asia
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Question 5.
A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Answer:
(a) A Strait

B. Fill in the blanks :

1. The world’s largest continent is ___________.
2.  ___________ is the mineral rich plateau in India
3. The largest ocean is ___________.
4. Deltas are ___________ order landforms.
5. The Island continent is ___________.

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Chotanagpur Pkateau
3. The Pacific Ocean
4. third
5. Australia

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Africa, Europe, Australia, Sri Lanka.
2. The Arctic Ocean, the Mediterranean Sea, the Indian Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
3. Plateau, Valley, Plain, Mountain
4. The Bay of Bengal, the Bering Sea, the China Sea, the Tasman Sea.
5. The Andes, the Rockies, the Everest, the Himalayas

Answer:

1. Sri Lanka
2. the Mediterranean Sea
3. Valley
4. The Bay of Bengal
5. the Everest

D. Match the following

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – e
5. – c

E.

I. Consider the following statements.

Question 1.
1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is found in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

II. Consider the following statements.

Question 1.
Statement I : Mountains are second order land forms.
Statement II : The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong (b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true (d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
Which is the highest plateau in the world?
Answer:
Tibetan Plateau

Question 2.
Name a second-order landform.
Answer:
Mountains, plateaus and plains

Question 3.
Which ocean is named after a country?
Answer:
Indian Ocean

Question 4.
Name the islands located in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands and Minicoy islands

Question 5.
What is the deepest part of the ocean called as?
Answer:
Trench

G. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What is a continent?
Answer:
The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents.

Question 2.
Name the continents which surround the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:

1. North America and South America in the west.
2. Europe and Africa in the east.

Question 3.
What are the oceans?
Answer:

1. An ocean is a vast expanse of water.
2. Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean are major oceans of the world.

Question 4.
List out the names of continents according to their size
Answer:

1. Asia
2. Africa
3. North America
4. South America
5. Antarctica
6. Europe and Australia.

Question 5.
Name the oceans which surround North America and South America.
Answer:
North America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean and on the north by Arctic ocean
South America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean.

H. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
A Mountain and a Plateau
Answer:
Mountain:

• A landform that rises 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain.
• Mountains are found in isolation or in groups.
• The highest point of a mountain is known as a peak.
• The Andes mountain in South America is the longest mountain range in the world.

Plateau:

• Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes.
• The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred meters or several thousand metre.
• The flat-topped part of the plateau is called Tableland.
• Tibetan Plateau is the highest plateau in the world.

Question 2.
An ocean and a sea?
Answer:

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes.
2. The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred meters or several thousand metre,
3. Tibetan plateau is the highest plateau in the world. So it is called the “Roof of the world”
4. The Chotanagpur plateau is one of the mineral-rich plateaus in India.
5. The Deccan plateau in peninsular India is of volcanic origin.

I. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Mention the classification of landforms.
Answer:
First-order Landforms:

(i) Continents and oceans are grouped as first order and forms. the vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents and huge water bodies are called Oceans.

(ii) Asia is the largest continent, whereas Australia is the smallest one.

Second-order and forms:
The second-order and forms are categorised as mountains, plateaus, and plains.

Third-order and forms:
Third-order and forms are formed on mountains, plateaus and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds and waves. Valleys, beaches, and sand dunes are some examples of third-order and forms.

Question 2.
Write a note on plateaus
Answer:

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes.
2. The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred metres or several thousand metre.
3. Tibetan Plateau is the highest plateau in the world.
4. Generally, plateaus are rich in minerals.
5. Chotanagpur Plateau is one of the mineral-rich plateaus in India.
6. Deccan Plateau in peninsular India is of volcanic origin.

Question 3.
Plains are highly populated. Give reasons
Answer:

1. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands. Plains are usually less than 200 meters above sea level.
2. Most plains are formed by rivers, their tributaries, and distributaries.
3. These plains are used extensively for agriculture due to the availability of water and fertile soil
4. They are most suitable for human habitation.
5. Hence, they are the highly populated regions of the world.

Question 4.
Give the important features of the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth.
2. It is bounded by Asia and Australia in its west and North America and South America in its east.
3. It stretches from the Arctic Ocean in the North to the Southern Ocean around in the south.
4. The deepest point Mariana Trench is 10,994 m and is located in the Pacific Ocean.
5. A chain of volcanoes is also present around the Pacific Ocean. They are called the Pacific Ring of Fire.

Question 5.
Write down the importance of oceans.
Answer:

1. Oceans are the lifeblood of planet Earth and humankind.
2. They flow over nearly three-quarters of our planet.
3. They hold 97% of the planet’s water.
4. They produce more than half of the oxygen in the atmosphere.
5. Absorb the most carbon from it.
   1. The oceans along with the atmosphere, keep temperatures fairly constant worldwide.

J. Picture Study.

Question 1.

1. Name the landform.
2. What order of a landform is this?
3. By which activity of river is this landform formed?

Answer:

1. Valley
2. Third Order
3. Erosion

K. (ii) ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Give examples for the following using an Atlas.

a. Bay:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Tokyo Bay, Korea Bay

b. Gulf:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Aden

c. Island:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Sri Lanka, Maldives, Japan

d. Strait:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Magellan, Palk strait

Question 2.
Map reading (with the help of atlas)

a. A sea in the east of India
b. Continents in the west of Atlantic Ocean
c. Continents in the south of Arctic Ocean
d. A strait between India and Sri Lanka
e. Oceans which surround Australia if.
f. Find out the Isthumusses
(Create more questions)
Answer:
a. Bay of Bengal
b. North America and South America
c. Almost completely surrounded by Eurasia and North America.
d. Palk Strait.
e. Indian Ocean to the west, the South Pacific Ocean to the East, and the Southern Ocean to the South.
f. Isthumusses – A Narrow piece of land connecting two larger areas across an expanse of water. Isthmus of Panama – Central America.

Question 3.
On the given outline map of the world, label the continents and mountain ranges.
Answer:

Question 4.
On the given outline map of the world, label oceans, seas, isthmus and straits.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Intext Question

HOTS

Question 1.
December 11 International Mountain Day.
Prepare slogans, posters, and placards to celebrate International Mountain Day.
Answer:

1. “Mountains are among the most beautiful landmasses in the world.”
2. “Mountains are beautiful as they rise up above the clouds and show just how grand the world can be.”
3. “Great things are done when men and mountains meet. ”
4. “How glorious a greeting the sun gives the mountains.”
5. “Mountains are earth’s undecaying monuments.”
6. ‘The mountains, forests, and seas render men savage, they develop fiercely, but yet do not destroy the human.”
7. “Men stumble over pebbles, never over mountains.”
8. “Each fresh peak ascended teaches something.”
9. “Mountains are the beginning and end of the all-natural scenery.”
10. “He who climbs upon the highest mountains laughs at all tragedies, real or imaginary.”

Question 2.
You know the importance of the conservation of forests. Do you think the conservation of mountains is also equally important?
Answer:

1. Mountains make up more than a quarter of the planet’s landmass. These surfaces provide resources for nearly 700 million people throughout the world.
2. Mountains provide energy resources, food, and water to people all around the world.
3. But climate change could cause mountains to shrink.
4. Deforestation has also been a threat while natural disasters often damage many mountains.
5. Mountains are among the most beautiful landmasses in the world. So like conservation of forests, conservation of mountains also equally important

Question 3.
When you are walking on the Marina beach in Chennai, which order of landform are you on?
Answer:
Third-order of landform.

Question 4.
Why are the Red Sea, Dead Sea, and the Black Sea named so?
Answer:
(i) Red Sea – It is named Red sea because it contains Cyanobacteria which turns the normally blue-green water into a reddish one. It gets connected to the ocean without even one river meeting the sea.

(ii) Black Sea – The Black Sea was first named by the ancient Greeks as an inhospitable sea. The sea got this reputation because it was different to navigate and hostile tribes inhabited its shores. After the successful development of the coast by the Greek colonists, the sea was named a hospitable sea.

(iii) Dead Sea – The Dead Sea is roughly 8.6 times saltier than the ocean. This salinity makes for a harsh environment in which animals cannot flourish.

Question 5.
When you travel from Japan to California, which ocean would you travel across?
Answer:
The Pacific Ocean.

Question 6.
When you arrange the continents in ascending order according to their size, which ranks third?
Answer:
Antarctica.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Intext Activities

Question 1.
Complete the given table with the help of an atlas. Follow the example

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Additional Questions

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The largest continent is
(a) Europe
(b) Australia
(c) North America
(d) Asia
Answer:
(d) Asia

Question 2.
Mount Everest is located in …………….
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Nepal

Question 3.
The longest mountain range in the world is
(a) the Himalayas
(b) Rocky
(c) the Andes
(d) Alps
Answer:
(c) the Andes

Question 4.
Which of the following is not grouped under second-order landform?
(a) Plains
(b) Plateaus
(c) Valleys
(d) Mountains
Answer:
(c) Valleys

Question 5.
‘Roof of the world’ denotes to
(a) Tibetan Plateau
(b) Chotanagpur Plateau
(c) Deccan Plateau
(d) Malwa Plateau
Answer:
(a) Tibetan Plaleauj

Question 6.
The Bering Sea is the marginal sea of the Ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Indian
(c) Atlantic
(d) the Arctic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

Question 7.
The Reunion islands are present in Ocean.
(a) the Arctic
(b) Antarctic
(c) Indian
(d) Pacific
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 8.
The land surrounded by water on three sides is called
(a) Bay
(b) Strait
(c) Peninsula
(d) Trench
Answer:
(c) Peninsula

B. Fill in the blanks:

1. The highest peak in the world is ___________.
2. In Sangam period, Mountain and its environs are classified as ___________ land.
3. The flat topped part of the plateau is called ___________.
4. The plains have been the ___________ from the earliest times.
5. Plain in North India is one of the ___________largest plains in the world.
6.  Sand dunes form the ___________ order landforms.
7. The process of removal of surface material from the Earth’s crust is called ___________.
8. The chain of volcanoes present around the Pacific Ocean is called the Pacific ___________.
9. The shape of the atlantic ocean resembles the letter ___________.
10. Bay of Bengal and Palk Bay are connected by ___________.

Answer:

1. Mt.Aeresti
2. Kurinji
3. Tableland
4. cradle of civilisations
5. Indo-Gangetic
6. Third
7. Erosion
8. Ring of fire
9. S
10. Palk Strait

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Rivers, Glaciers, Winds, Plains
2. Mariana Trench, Tasman Sea, Philippine Sea, Strait of Gibraltar
3. The Ross Sea, The Weddell Sea, The Davis Sea, The Red Sea
4. Palk Strait, The Arctic Ocean, Greenland, Eurasian Basin
5. Dharmapuri Plateau, Coimbatore Plateau, Madurai Plateau, Malwa Plateau

Answer:

1. Plains
2. Strait of Gibraltar
3. The Red Sea
4. Palk strait
5. Malwa plateau

D. Match the following

1. Kurinji – (a) Forest
2. Mullai – (b) Coastal Region
3. Marutham – (c) Deserts
4. Neithal – (d) Agricultural land
5. Palai – (e) Mountains

Answer:

1. – e
2. – a
3. – d
4. – b
5. – c

E. Consider the following statements.

Question 1.
1.Andes mountains are the longest mountain range in the world.
2.Mountains come under the second-order landforms.
3.The highest point of the mountain is known as the peak.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) land 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
Statement I: Ferdinand Magellan named the ocean Pacific, meaning calm.
Statement II: Ferdinand Magellan was a Spanish navigator.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
A broad inlet of the sea where the land curves inwards.
Answer:
Bay

Question 2.
A relatively levelled area of the earth’s surface with a gentle slope.
Answer:
plain

Question 3.
The Plains of river Cauvery and Vaigai are found in the State of
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
The eroded materials getting deposited on the low-lying areas.
Answer:
Deposition

Question 5.
The Strait which connects the Atlantic ocean to the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
Strait of Gibraltar

G. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Why do we see the most part of the globe in blue colour?
Answer:
We see the most part of the globe in blue colour is because of a large part of the Earth is covered by water which occupies 71 percent and land which occupies only 29 percent of the Earth’s surface.

Question 2.
Mention some of the hill stations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Udhagamandalam
2. Kodaikanal
3. Kolli hills
4. Yercaud and Yelagiri

Question 3.
Mention some of the hill stations found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Udaga mangalam, Kodaikanal, Kolli hills, Yercard and Yelagiri are some of the hill stations found in Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Third-order landforms.
Answer:

1. Third-order landforms are formed on mountains, plateaus, and plains by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds, and waves.
2. Valleys, beaches, and sand dunes are examples of third-order landforms.

Question 5.
What is Oceanography?
Answer:
The study of oceans is called Oceanography.

Question 6.
Mention the islands located in the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Indonesia, the Philippines, Japan, Hawaii, New Zealand, are some of the islands located in the Pacific Ocean.

H. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
A continent and ocean
Answer:
Continent

1. The vast land masses are called continents.
2. Example: Asia, Africa, Europe.

Ocean

1. Oceans are a vast expanse of water.
2. Example: Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean.

Question 2.
The Pacific Ocean and an Atlantic Ocean Ans
Answer:

Pacific

1. The largest and deepest ocean.
2. It spreads out 168.72 million sq. km
3. The Bering Sea, The China sea, the Sea of Japan, the Tasman Sea, Philippines Sea are some of the marginal seas.

Atlantic

1. Second largest ocean
2. It spreads about 85.13 million sq. km
3. Mediterranean Sea, The Caribbean Sea, the Gulf of Mexico, the North Sea, the Gulf of Guinea are important marginal seas.

I. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on the Third order of landforms.
Answer:

1. The Third order landforms are formed on the mountains, plateaus and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds and waves.
2. Valleys, beaches, and sand dimes are some examples of Third-order landforms.
3. Erosion is the process of removal of surface material from the Earth’s crust.
4. The eroded materials are transported and deposited in the low lying areas.
5. This process is called a deposition.

Question 2.
Bring out the features of the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean on the Earth’s surface.
2. It covers an area of 70.56 million sq. km.
3. It is triangular in shape.
4. It is bounded by Africa in the west, Asia in the North and Australia in the East.
5. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Reunion Islands are some of the islands present in the Indian Ocean.
6. The Java trench is the deepest point in the Indian Ocean

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Complete the following pattern.
9 – 1 =
98 – 21 =
987 – 321 =
9876 – 4321 =
98765 – 54321 =
What comes next?
Solution:
9 – 1 = 8
98 – 21 = 77
987 – 321 = 666
9876 – 4321 = 5555
98765 – 54321 = 44444
987654 – 654321 = 333333

Question 2.
A piece of wire is ’12s’ cm long. What will be the length of the side, if it is formed as
(i) an equilateral triangle
(ii) a square?
Solution:
(i) 4s
(ii) 3s

Question 3.
Identify the value of the shapes and figures in the table given below the verify their addition horizontally and vertically.

Solution:

Question 4.
The table given below shows the results of the matches played by 8 teams in a Kabaddi championship tournament.

Find the value of all the variables in the table given above.
Solution:
We know that
Total matches played = Matches wont + Matches lost.
5 + k = 8
⇒ k = 3
7 + 2 = a
a = 9
7 = 6 + m
⇒ m = 1
b + 3 = 9
⇒ b = 6
4 + 6 = n
⇒ n = 10
6 + c = 10
⇒ c = 4
x + 4 = 8
⇒ x = 4
3 + 6 = y
⇒ y = 10

Challenging Problem (Text book Page No. 53)

Question 5.
Gopal is 8 years younger than Karnan. If the sum of their ages is 30, how old is Karnan?
Solution:
Let Kaman’s age be x years
Gopal age is x – 8 years
Given the sum of their ages is 30. i.e, x + (x – 8) = 30
Now we will form the table to find their sums = 30.

For x = 19 (Karnan’s age)
the sum = 30
Kaman’s age = 19 years.

Question 6.
The rectangles made of identical square blocks with varying lengths but having only two square blocks as width are given below.

(i) How many smallest squares are there in each of the rectangles P, Q, R and S?
(ii) Fill in the boxes.

Solution:
(i) No. of smallest squares in P, Q, R and S are 2, 8, 6 and 10 respectively.
(ii)

Question 7.
Find the variables from the clues given below and solve the crossword puzzle.


Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Statistics Ex 5.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

1. The collected information is called _____
2. An example of Primary data is ______
3. An example of Secondary data is ______
4. The tally marks for number 8 in standard form is _____

Solution:

1. Data
2. List of Absentees in a class
3. Cricket scores gathered from a website
4. 

Question 2.
Viji threw a die 30 times and noted down the result each time as follows. Prepare a table on the numbers shown using Tally Marks.

Solution:
We prepare a table using tally marks from the given information

Question 3.
The following list tells colours liked by 25 students. Prepare a table using Tally Marks.

Solution:
We prepare the table using Tally marks as

Question 4.
The following are the marks obtained by 30 students in a class test out of 20 in Mathematics subject.

Prepare a table using Tally Marks.
Solution:
We prepare a table using Tally Marks as

Question 5.
The table shows the number of calls recorded by a Fire Service Station in one year.

Complete the table and answer the following questions.
(i) Which type of call was recorded the most?
(ii) Which type of call was recorded the least?
(iii) How many calls were recorded in all?
(iv) How many calls were recorded as False Alarm?
Solution:
The completed table is given below.

(i) The call for “Other Fires” was recorded the most
(ii) The call for “Rescues” was recorded the least
(iii) The total of 35 calls was recorded
(iv) There are 7 calls were recorded as False alarm.

Objective Type Questions

Question 6.
The tally marks for the number 7 in standard form is ________
(a) 7
(b)
(c) ✓✓✓✓✓✓✓
(d)
Solution:
(b)

Question 7.
The tally marks represent the number count
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Solution:
(c) 9

Question 8.
The plural form of ‘datum’ is
(a) datum
(b) datums
(c) data
(d) datas
Solution:
(c) data