Class 9

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 24 Environmental Science

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Environmental Science Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All the factors of biosphere which affect the ability of organisms to survive and reproduce are called as ………………
(a) biological factors
(b) abiotic factors
(c) biotic factors
(d) physical factors
Answer:
(b) abiotic factors

Question 2.
The ice sheets from the north and south poles and the icecaps on the mountains, get converted into water vapour through the process of …………….
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) infiltration
Answer:
(a) evaporation

Question 3.
The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of …………………….
(a) photosynthesis
(b) assimilation
(c) respiration
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(a) photosynthesis

Question 4.
Increased amount of …………….. in the atmosphere, results in greenhouse effect and global warming.
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) nitrogen dioxide
(d) carbon dioxide
Answers
(d) carbon dioxide

II. Match the Following:

S.No.	Microorganism	S.No.	Role Played
1.	Nitrosomonas	a	Nitrogen fixation
2.	Azotobacter	b	Ammonification
3.	Pseudomonas species	c	Nitrification
4.	Putrefying bacteria	d	Denitrification

Answer:

1. (b) Ammonification
2. (d) Denitrification
3. (a) Nitrogen fixation
4. (c) Nitrification

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Nitrogen is a greenhouse gas – False
   Correct statement: Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about 78% nitrogen.
2. Poorly developed root is an adaptation of mesophytes – False
   Correct statement: The roots of mesophytes are well developed and are provided with root caps.
3. Bats are the only mammals that can fly – True
4. Earthworms use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes – False
   Correct statement: Bats use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes.
5. Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome cold condition – False
   Correct statement: Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome hot and dry condition.

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the two factors of the biosphere?
Answer:

1. Biotic (or) living factors, which include plants, animals and all other living organisms.
2. Abiotic (or) non-living factors, which include temperature, pressure, air, water, sunlight etc.

Question 2.
How do human activities affect the nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels, application of nitrogen-based fertilizers and other activities can increase the amount of biologically available nitrogen in an ecosystem.

Question 3.
What is adaptation?
Answer:
Any feature of an organism or its part that enables it to exist under conditions of its habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What are the challenges faced by hydrophytes in their habitat?
Answer:
Hydrophytes face certain challenges in their habitat. They are:

1. Availability of more water than needed.
2. Water current may damage the plant body.
3. Water levels may change regularly.
4. Maintain buoyancy in water.

Question 5.
Why is it important to conserve water?
Answer:

• Water is one of the precious natural resources.
• Clean and fresh water is essential for almost every human activity.

Question 6.
List some of the ways in which you could save water in your home and school?
Answer:

• When washing dishes, don’t let the tap be open. Fill one sink with wash water and another with rinse water.
• Adjust sprinklers so that only the plants are watered.
• Install rainwater tanks.
• Use hose water once a week to clean the driveway and sidewalk.
• Be sure to turn off the tap while not in use.

Question 7.
What are the uses of recycled water?
Answer:
Recycled water can be used for

• Agriculture
• Landscape
• Public parks.
• Cooling water for power plants and oil refineries
• Toilet flushing
• Dust control
• Construction activities.

Question 8.
What is IUCN? What is the vision of IUCN?
Answer:
IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
The vision of IUCN is ‘A just world that values and conserves nature’.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the processes involved in the water cycle?
Answer:
Process of the water cycle
1. Evaporation:

• Conversion of liquid into gas (vapour) before reaching its boiling point.
• Water evaporates from the surface of the earth and water bodies such as the oceans, seas, lakes, ponds and rivers turn into water vapour.

2. Sublimation:
Direct conversion from solid to gas.

• Ice sheets and Ice caps from north and south pole,
• Ice caps on mountains converted into water vapour.

3. Transpiration :
The process in which plants release water vapour to atmosphere through small pores ‘ in leaves and stems.

4. Condensation :
Change from gas phase into liquid phase.
(e.g) Formation of clouds and fog.

5. Precipitation:

• Clouds combine to make bigger droplets and pour down as precipitation (rain) due to change in wind or temperature.
• Precipitation includes drizzle, rain, snow and hail.

6. Run off : Rain water runs over the earth to form rivers, lakes and ends up into seas and Oceans.
7. Infiltration: Water moves down the soil to increase ground water level.
8. Percolation : Water moves through porous or fractured rock.

Question 2.
Explain carbon cycle with the help of a flow chart?
Answer:
Carbon occurs in various forms on earth. Charcoal, diamond and graphite are elemental forms of carbon. Combined forms of carbon include carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and carbonate salts. All living organisms are made up of carbon-containing molecules like proteins and nucleic acids. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of photosynthesis to form carbohydrates.

From plants, it is passed on to herbivores and carnivores. During respiration, plants and animals release carbon into atmosphere in the form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is also returned to the atmosphere through decomposition of dead organic matter, burning fossil fuels and volcanic activities. Contribution of carbon to the atmosphere could be reduced by aforestation and lesser use of fossil fuels.

Question 3.
List out the adaptations of xerophytes?
Answer:
Adaptations of xerophytes:

• Well developed roots, (e.g) Calotropis.
• Water storing parenchymatous tissues, (e.g) Aloe vera, Opuntia.
• Small-sized leaves with waxy coating, (e.g) Acacia. In some plants, leaves are modified into spines, (e.g) Opuntia.
• Complete life span in a very short period on availing the moisture.

Question 4.
How does a bat adapt itself to its habitat?
Answer:
Mostly, bats live in caves. Caves provide them protection during the day from most predators and the temperature here is very stable. Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock crevices. They are extremely important to humans as they reduce the insect population and help to pollinate plants.

Bats are active at night. This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day. This may lead to dehydration.

Question 5.
What is water recycling? Explain the conventional wastewater recycling treatment?
Answer:
Water recycling is reusing treated wastewater for beneficial purposes such as agricultural and landscape irrigation, industrial processes, flushing in toilets and groundwater recharge. Conventional wastewater treatment consists of a combination of physical, chemical and biological processes which remove solids, organic matter, and nutrients from wastewater.

Wastewater treatment involves the following stages:

Primary treatment:
Primary treatment involves the temporary holding of the wastewater in a tank. The heavy solids get settled at the bottom while oil, grease and lighter solids float over the surface. The settled and floating materials are removed. The remaining liquid may be sent for secondary treatment.

Secondary treatment:
Secondary treatment is used to remove the biodegradable dissolved organic matter. This is performed in the presence of oxygen by aerobic microorganisms (Biological oxidation). The microorganisms must be separated from treated wastewater by sedimentation. After separating the sediments of biological solids, the remaining liquid is discharged for tertiary treatment.

Tertiary treatment:
Tertiary or advanced treatment is the final step of sewage treatment. It involves removal of inorganic constituents such as nitrogen, phosphorus and microorganisms. The fine colloidal particles in the sewage water are precipitated by adding chemical coagulants like alum or ferric sulphate.

VI. Give reason.

Question 1.
Roots grow very deep and reach the layers where water is available. Which type of plants develops the above adaptation? Why?
Answer:
Xerophytes are the type of plants that grow deep roots so as to reach the water source as they exist in a dry habitat.

Question 2.
Why streamlined bodies and the presence of setae is considered adaptations of earthworms?
Answer:
Stream-lined bodies help them to live in narrow burrows underground and for easy penetration into the soil.
Setae help the earthworm to move through the soil and provide an anchor in the burrows. Therefore these are considered to be adaptations of earthworm.

Question 3.
Why is it impossible for all farmers to construct it in their fields?
Answer:
All farmers may not be able to contact a pond in their fields as they occupy a large portion of farmer’s lands.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Environmental Science Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… includes plants, animals and all other living organisms.
(a) Physical factors
(b) biotic factors
(c) abiotic factors
(d) biological factors
Answer:
(b) biotic factors

Question 2.
……………… is a type of vapourization, where liquid is converted to gas before reaching its boiling point.
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Condensation
(d) Transpiration
Answer:
(a) Evaporation

Question 3.
When there is a change in wind or temperature, clouds combine to make bigger droplets and pour down as ……………….
(a) percolation
(b) infiltration
(c) precipitation
(d) runoff
Answer:
(c) precipitation

Question 4.
……………… is the changing of the gas phase into the liquid phase.
(a) Transpiration
(b) Percolation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Condensation
Answer:
(d) Condensation

Question 5.
During …………….. microorganisms must be separated from treated wastewater by sedimentation.
(a) water recycling
(b) primary treatment
(c) secondary treatment
(d) tertiary treatment
Answer:
(c) secondary treatment

Question 6.
Which of the following is not an adaptation of xerophytes?
(a) the well developed root system
(b) store water
(c) small sized leaves with a waxy coating
(d) straight and branched stems
Answer:
(d) straight and branched stems

Question 7.
…………….. helps earthworm to live in narrow burrows underground and easy penetration into the soil.
(a) Aestivation
(b) Setae
(c) Stream-lined body
(d) Skin
Answer:
(c) Stream-lined body

Question 8.
……………. is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter.
(a) Hibernation
(b) Noctumality
(c) Echolocation
(d) Aestivation
Answer:
(a) Hibernation

Question 9.
…………… provides the primary nutrient important for the survival of all living organisms.
(a) Water cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Carbon cycle
(d) Oxygen cycle
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen cycle

Question 10.
……………….. is the process by which plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter.
(a) Ammonification
(b) Nitrification
(c) Nitrogen assimilation
(d) Denitrification
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen assimilation

II. Match the Following:

S.No.	Column A		Column B
1.	Water recycling	a	Living factors
2.	Abiotic	b	Management of water resources
3.	Water conservation	c	Non-living factors
4.	Biotic	d	Landscape irrigation

Answer:

1. d. Landscape irrigation
2. c. Non-living factors
3. b. Management of water resources
4. a. Living factors

III. State whether True or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Water cycle is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll – False
   Correct statement: Nitrogen cycle is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll.
2. Well developed root is an adaptation of hydrophytes – False
   Correct statement: Well developed root is an adaptation of xerophytes.
3. Noctumality is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day – True
4. Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter – True
5. The ability to tolerate temperature depends on the surrounding moisture in the environment – True

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the types of biogeochemical cycles?
Answer:
Some of the important biogeochemical cycles are:

1. Water cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Carbon cycle

Question 2.
Write the human impacts on carbon cycle.
Answer:
More carbon moves into the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels and deforestation. By increasing the amount of carbon dioxide, earth becomes warmer. This leads to the greenhouse effect and global warming.

Question 3.
Define ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’.
Answer:
Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is a very charming plant. It is called as ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’. It covers entire surface of the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the strategies to support water conservation?
Answer:
Some of the strategies to support water conservation are:

• Rainwater harvesting.
• Improved irrigation techniques.
• Active use of traditional water harvesting structures.
• Minimising domestic water consumption.
• Awareness on water conservation.
• Construction of farm ponds.
• Recycling of water.

Question 5.
Write a short note on water conservation.
Answer:
Water conservation is the preservation, control and management of water resources.

1. Industrial conservation
   Water conservation measures that can be taken by industries are:
   • using dry cooling systems.
   • if water is used as cooling agent, reusing the water for irrigation or other purposes.
2. Agricultural conservation
   Agricultural water is often lost due to leaks in canals, run off and evaporation. Some of the water conserving methods are:
   • using lined or covered canals that reduce loss of water and evaporation.
   • using improved techniques such as sprinklers and drip irrigation.
   • encouraging the development of crops that require less water and are drought resistant.
   • mulching of soil in vegetable cultivation and in horticulture.

Question 6.
What are the limitations of farm ponds?
Answer:
Limitations of farm ponds

• Farm ponds reduce water flow to other tanks and ponds situated in lower-lying areas.
• They occupy a large portion of farmer’s lands.

Question 7.
Why are earthworms called as “farmers friend”?
Answer:
Earthworms are referred to as farmers friends as after digesting organic matter, they excrete nutrient rich Waste product called castings. These are useful to the plant and also as the earthworms burrow the soil, there is sufficient aeration which is useful for the roots.

Question 8.
Explain nocturnality in Bat and Earthworm.
Answer:

• Nocturnality in Bat
  Bats are active at night which is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. The thin, black wing membrane called patagium may cause excessive heat absorption during the day leading to dehydration.
• Nocturnality in Earthworm
  Earthworms have no eyes, instead, they can sense light through the light-sensitive cells called photoreceptors present in their skin. They are very sensitive to bright light and therefore stays in burrows during the day and comes out only at night.

Question 9.
Why is Water Hyacinth responsible for the death of aquatic plants arid animals?
Answer:
Water Hyacinth is called as ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’. It covers entire surface of the water resources like ponds and lakes. It will not allow the light to penetrate into the water and increases the Biological Oxygen Demand leading to the death of aquatic plants and animals.3

Question 10.
What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the manure prepared by using earthworms to speed up the process of decomposition of plant and animal wastes. Vermicomposting is the fundamental practise of organic gardening. Vermicompost helps better plant growth and crop yield, improves physical structure of soil, increases the water-holding capacity of soil and is useful in elimination of biowaste.

Question 11.
Describe methods of water conservation in agriculture.
Answer:
Ways of water conservation in agriculture:
Agricultural water is often lost due to leaks in Canals, run off and evaporation. Some Of the water-conserving methods are:

• using lined or covered canals that reduce loss of water and evaporation.
• using improved techniques such as sprinklers and drip irrigation.
• encouraging the development of crops that require less water and are drought resistant.
• mulching of soil in vegetable cultivation and in horticulture.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain Nitrogen cycle with a diagram.
Answer:
Nitrogen is primary nutrient important for survival of all living organisms. It is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll. Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about 78% nitrogen. Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen. They can use it only if it is in the form of ammonia, amino acids or nitrates. Processes involved in nitrogen cycle are:

• Nitrogen fixation: Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen, which is inert, into reactive compounds available to living organisms. This conversion is done by a number of bacteria and blue green algae (Cyanobacteria).
• Nitrogen assimilation: Plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter like proteins and nucleic acids.
• Ammonification: The process of decomposition of nitrogenous waste by putrefying bacteria and fungi into ammonium compounds is called ammonification.
• Nitrification: The ammonium compounds formed by ammonification process are oxidised to soluble nitrates. This process of nitrate formation is known as nitrification. The bacteria responsible for nitrification are called as nitrifying bacteria.
• Denitrification: Free-living soil bacteria such as Pseudomonas sp. reduce nitrate ions of soil into gaseous nitrogen which enters the atmosphere.
  

Question 2.
Write in detail the adaptations of bat.
Answer:
Mostly, bats live in caves. Caves provide them protection during the day from most predators and the temperature here is very stable. Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock crevices. They are extremely important to humans as they reduce insect population and help to pollinate plants.
The adaptations of a bat in relation to their habitat are;

• Nocturnality
  Bats are active at night. This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day. This may lead to dehydration.
• Flight adaptation
  Bat wings are entirely different from those of birds or insects. Modified forelimbs serve as wings. The bones in the wings of bats are elongated fingers and are connected by the flaps of skin on either side of the body known as Patagia. Tail supports and controls movements during flight. Muscles are well developed and highly powerful and achieve in beating of wings. Tendons of hind limbs provide a tight grasp when the animals are suspended upside down at rest.
• Hibernation
  Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered
  metabolic rate during winter. Bats are warm-blooded animals but unlike other mammals, they let their internal temperature reduce when they are resting. They go to a state of decreased activity to conserve energy.
• Echolocation
  Bats are not blind. But to fly around and hunt for insects in the dark, they use a remarkable high-frequency system called echolocation. Bats give out high-freqUeney sounds (ultrasonic sounds). These sounds are reflected back from its prey and perceived by the ear. Bats use these echoes to locate and identify the prey.

Question 3.
Write the advantages of farm ponds.
Answer:
The advantages of farm ponds are:

• They provide water to growing crops, without waiting for rainfall.
• They provide water for irrigation, even when there is no rain.
• They reduce soil erosion.
• They recharge groundwater.
• They improve drainage.
• The excavated soil can be used to enrich the soil in fields and levelling lands.
• They promote fish rearing.
• They provide water for domestic purposes and livestock.

Question 4.
Write in detail about IUCN.
Answer:
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It provides public, private and non-governmental organizations with the knowledge to enable human progress, economic development, and nature conservation to take place together.

1. Vision of IUCN: The vision of IUCN is ‘A just world that values and conserves nature’.

2. Mission of IUCN: The mission of IUCN is to influence, encourage and assist societies throughout the world to conserve the integrity and diversity of nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable. It tries to influence the actions of governments, businesses and other stakeholders by providing information and advice. The organization is best known to the wider public for compiling and publishing the IUCN red list of threatened species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.

India became a state member of IUCN in 1969, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change (MOEFCC). Four of 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots are found in India. They are:

• The Himalayas
• The Western Ghats
• The North-East
• The Nicobar islands

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Economic Biology

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Economic Biology Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The production and management of fish is called ……………..
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Sericulture
(c) Aquaculture
(d) Monoculture
Answer:
(a) Pisciculture

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an exotic breed of cow?
(a) Jersey
(b) Holstein-Friesan
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Brown Swiss
Answer:
(c) Sahiwal

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an Italian species of honey bee?
(a) Apis mellifera
(b) Apis dorsata
(c) Apis florae
(d) Apis Cerana
Answer:
(a) Apis mellifera

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an Indian major carp?
(a) Rohu
(b) Catla
(c) Mrigal
(d) Singhara
Answer:
(d) Singhara

Question 5.
Drones in the honey bee colony are formed from
(a) unfertilized egg
(b) fertilized egg
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(b) fertilized egg

Question 6.
Which of the following is an high milk yielding variety of cow?
(a) Holstein- Friesan
(b) Dorset
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Red Sindhi
Answer:
(a) Holstein- Friesan

Question 7.
Which Indian variety of honey bee is commonly used for apiculture?
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florea
(c) Apis mellifera
(d) Apis indica
Answer:
(d) Apis indica

Question 8.
………………. is the method of growing plants without soil.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Hydroponics
(c) Pomology
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hydroponics

Question 9.
The symbiotic association of fungi and vascular plants is …………………….
(a) Lichen
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Mycorhizae
(d) Azotobacter
Answer:
(c) Mycorhizae

Question 10.
The plant body of mushroom is …………………….
(a) Spawn
(b) Mycelium
(c) Leaf
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Leaf

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 11.
Quinine drug is obtained from ……………….
Answer:
Cinchona officinalis

Question 12.
Carica papaya leaf can cure …………….. disease.
Answer:
Apiculture

Question 13.
Vermicompost is a type of soil made by ………………. and microorganisms.
Answer:
earthworms

Question 14
……………….. refers to the culture of prawns, pearl and edible oysters.
Answer:
Aquaculture

Question 15.
The largest member in a honey bee haive is the …………………..
Answer:
F

Question 16
……………… is a preservative in honey.
Answer:
Formic acid

Question 17
…………………. is the method of culturing different variety of fish in a water body.
Answer:
Polyculture

III. State whether true or false, If false, correct the given statement.

1. Mycorrhiza is an algae – False.
   Correct Statement: Mycorrhiza is a fungi
2. Milch animals are used in agriculture and transport – False.
   Correct Statement: Milch animals are domesticated for obtaining only milk.
3. Apisflorea is a rock bee – False.
   Correct Statement: Apis Florea is a little bee
4. Ongole is an exotic breed of cattle – False.
   Correct Statement: Ongole is a dual-purpose breed of cattle
5. Sheep manure contains high nutrients than farmyard manure – True.

IV. Differentiate the following

Question 1.
Exotic breed and Indigenous breed.
Answer:

Exotic breed	Indigenous breed
Exotic breeds are imported from foreign countries	Indigenous breed are native to India
These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods.	These local breed show excellent resistance to diseases.
Example: Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein-Friesian	Example: Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir.

Question 2.
Pollen and Nectar
Answer:

Pollen	Nectar
Pollen is a fine to a coarse powdery substance comprising pollen grains which are male microgametophytes of seed plants, which produce male gametes	It is a sweet viscous secretion secreted by the flower of plants.

Question 3.
Shrimp and Prawn
Answer:

Shrimp	Prawn
Shrimp has lamellar gills.	Prawns have branching gills.
Shrimp have claws on two of their five pairs of legs.	Prawns have claws on three of their five pairs of legs.

Question 4.
Farmyard manure and Sheep manure
Answer:

Farmyard manure	Sheep manure
Well decomposed farmyard manure contains 0.5% Nitrogen, 0.2% available phosphate and 0.5% available potash.	It contains 3% Nitrogen, 1% phosphorus pentoxide and 2% potassium oxide.

V. Match the following.

	Column A	.           Column B
1.	Lobsters	(a) Marine fish
2.	Catla	(.b) Pearl
3.	Sea bass	(c) Shellfish
4.	Oysters	(d) Paddy
5	Pokkali	(.e) Finfish
6	Pleurotus sps	(J) Psoriasis
7	Sarpagandha	(g) Oyster mushroom
8	Olericulture	(h) Reserpine
9	Wrightatinctoria	(0 Vegetable farming

Answer:

1. (c) Shellfish
2. (e) Finfish
3. (a) Marine fish
4. (b) Pearl
5. (d) Paddy
6. (g) Oyster mushroom
7. (h) Reserpine
8. (i) Vegetable farming
9. (f) Psoriasis

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the secondary metabolites?
Answer:
Secondary metabolites are organic compounds produced by bacteria, fungi, (or) plants which are not directly involved in the normal growth, development or reproduction of the organism.

Question 2.
What are the types of the vegetable gardens?
Answer:
Vegetable farming can be classified into:

1. Kitchen or Nutrition gardening,
2. Commercial gardening,
3. Vegetable forcing.

Question 3.
Mention any two mushroom preservation methods.
Answer:
We can preserve mushrooms in any of the following methods:

1. Freezing
2. Drying
3. Canning
4. Vacuum Cooling
5. Gamma radiation and storing at 15°C.

Question 4.
Enumerate the advantages of vermicompost over chemical fertiliser.
Answer:

• It is a rich source of nutrients essential for plant growth. It makes the soil fertile.
• It improves soil structure, texture, aeration and water holding capacity and helps to prevent soil erosion.
• It contains valuable vitamins, enzymes and growth regulator substances for increasing the growth, vigour and yield of plants.
• It enhances the decomposition of organic matter in soil.
• Vermicompost is free from pathogens and toxic elements.
• Vermicompost is rich in beneficial microflora.

Question 5.
What are the species of earthworm used for vermiculture?
Answer:
Earthworms for vermicompost:

• Indian blue worm (Perionyx excavatus)
• Redworms (Eisenia fetida)
• African nightcrawler (Eudfilus eugeniae)

Question 6.
List the medicinal importance of honey.
Answer:
Uses of Honey

• Honey has an antiseptic and antibacterial property. It is a blood purifier.
• It helps in building up of haemoglobin content in the blood.
• It is used in Ayurvedic and Unani system of medicines.
• It prevents cough, cold, fever and relieves sore throat.
• It is a remedy for ulcers of tongue, stomach and intestine.
• It enhances digestion and appetite.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the advantage of hydroponics.
Answer:
Hydroponics is the method of growing plants without soil, using mineral nutrient solutions in water.
The Advantages of Hydroponics:

• Conservation of water and nutrients.
• Controlled plant growth.
• In deserts and Arctic regions, hydroponics can be an effective alternative method.

Question 2.
Define Mushroom culture. Explain the mushroom cultivation methods.
Answer:
Mushroom cultivation: It is a technology of growing mushrooms using plant, animal, and industrial waste.
Major stages of Mushroom cultivation :

(1) Composting:
Preparation:

• Mix paddy straw with cow dung and inorganic fertilizers.
• Keep at 50°C for one week.

(2) Spawning: Spawn is the mushroom seed
Preparation: Growing fungal mycelium in grains under sterile conditions. Spawn is sown on the compost.

(3) Casing:
Compost is covered with a thin layer of soil to support the growth of mushrooms through humidity and helps with temperature regulation.

(4) Pinning:

• Mycelium starts to form little buds (pins)
• These little white buds develop into mushrooms.

(5) Harvesting:

• Temperature: 15°C – 23°C.
• The mushroom grows 3cm in a week.
• After 3 weeks, they can “be harvested.

Question 3.
What are the sources of organic resources for vermicomposting?
Answer:
Materials required for vermicomposting
Biologically degradable organic wastes are used as potential organic resources for vermicomposting. They are:

• Agricultural wastes (crop residue, vegetable waste, sugarcane trash)
• Crop residues (rice straw, tea wastes, cereal and pulse residues, rice husk, tobacco wastes, coir wastes)
• Leaf litter
• Fruit and vegetable wastes
• Animal wastes (cattle dung, poultry droppings, pig slurry, goat and sheep droppings)
• Biogas slurry

Question 4.
Give an account of different types of fish ponds used for rearing fishes.
Answer:
Different types of Ponds
1. Breeding ponds: Healthy and sexually mature male and female fishes are collected and introduced in the pond for breeding.

2. Hatchling ponds: The fertilized eggs are transferred from breeding ponds to hatchling pits for hatching.
Two types of pits:

• Hatcheries
• Hatching hapas.

3. Nursery ponds: Hatchings are transferred from hatching pits after 2 to 7days. The hatchlings grow into fry and are cultured for about 60 days with proper feeding till they reach 2 – 2.5cm in length.

4. Rearing ponds: The fish fry is transferred from nursery pond to rearing ponds and are maintained for about three months till they reach 10 to 15 cm in length.

5. Stocking pond (or Culture pond or Production pond): These ponds are used to rear fingerlings upto marketable size. A pond is manured with organic manure and inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Classify the different breeds of cattle with suitable examples.
Answer:
Cattle breeds
The Indian cattle include cows and buffaloes. They are domesticated for milk, meat, leather and transportation. They belong to two different species, Bos indicus (Indian cows and bulls) and Bos bubalis (buffaloes). These cattle animals are reared for milk and farm labour. They are classified into three types:

1. Dairy breeds,
2. Draught (or) Draft breeds,
3. Dual-purpose breeds

Dairy breeds:
Dairy animals are domesticated for obtaining milk. The cows (milk producing females) are high milk yielders (milch animals). The dairy breeds may be indigenous breeds (or) exotic breeds.

• Indigenous breeds are native of India. They include Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir. These cattle are well built with strong limbs, prominent hump and loose skin. These local breed animals show excellent resistant to diseases.
• The exotic breeds (Bos taurus) are imported from foreign countries. They include Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein-Friesian etc. These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods. The Indian (local) breeds and foreign breeds can be cross bred to produce animals with both desired qualities.

Draught (or) Draft breeds:
They are used for agricultural work, such as tilling, irrigation and carting. These include Amritmahal, Kangayam, Umblachery, Malvi, Siri and Hallikar breeds. Bullocks are good draft animals while the cows are poor milk yielders.

Dual-purpose breeds:
These breeds provide milk and they are useful for farm work. In India these breeds are favoured by farmers as the cows are fairly good milk yielders and bullocks are good for draught work. They includes Haryana, Ongole, Kankrej and Tharparkar.

Buffalo breeds:
In India, buffaloes are domesticated in great number. They are the main milk producers. The milk production of buffaloes is more than that of cows. Murrah, Mehsana and Surti are indigenous buffalo breeds which are good milk yielders.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Biomanuring plays an important role in agriculture. Justify
Answer:
Biomanure also known as organic manures, are predominantly derived from plant debris, animal faeces and microbes. They make the soil fertile by adding nutrients like nitrogen. They are eco-friendly. Biomanure is easy to generate and very economical. Some examples of bio manure are Animal manure, Vermicompost, and Green Manure.

Question 2.
Each beehive consists of hexagonal cells. Name the material in which the cell is formed and mention the significance of the hexagonal cells.
Answer:
The cell is formed in a sheet of wax. The hexagonal shape allows to hold the queen bee’s eggs and store the pollen and honey the worker bees bring to the hive.

Activity

Question 1.
Discuss in your classroom the importance of crop insurance to farmers.
Answer:
In agriculture, there are risks beyond one’s control. Hence precautionary measures are to be considered to control the damage faced by farmers. Farmers who take crop insurance protect their crops and families from unforeseen setbacks.
The advantages of crop insurance are

1. Stability in Income
2. Minimal Debts
3. Farmers can safely invest in new technological advancements to improve their crop production.
4. Protection against loss of crops
5. Provides Awareness on natural calamities and the preventive measures to be taken

Question 2.
Collect at least five medicinal plants from your locality. Identify the plant and try to find out its medicinal value.
Answer:
Students can perform this activity under the guidance of the class teacher.

Question 3.
Visit a fish farm during the breeding season near your locality and collect information.
Answer:
Students can perform this activity under the guidance of the class teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Economic Biology Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………………. is a branch of agriculture that deals with the cultivation of fruits, vegetables and
ornamental plants.
(a) Floriculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Olericulture
(d) Mariculture
Answer:
(b) Horticulture

Question 2.
……………….. is growing of vegetables in small scale in households.
(a) Vegetable farming
(b) Flower farming
(c) Kitchen gardening
(d) Vegetable forcing
Answer:
(c) Kitchen gardening

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an African species of a Honey bee?
(a) Apis florae
(b) Apis indica
(c) Apis mellifera
(d) Apis adamsoni
Answer:
(d) Apis adamsoni

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an indigenous a cow?
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Jersey
(c) Red Sindhi
(d) Deoni
Answer:
(b) Jersey

Question 5.
……………… involves raising of cattle for milk production.
(a) Dairy farming
(b) Drying
(c) Freezing
(d) Canning
Answer:
(a) Dairy farming

Question 6.
………………. are low in fibre and contain high level of carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients.
(a) Cattle feed
(b) Roughage
(c) Concentrates
(d) Feed management
Answer:
(c) Concentrates

Question 7.
The ………………. contain the young stages of the honey bees and they are built in the center
and lower part of the comb.
(a) brood cells
(b) storage cells
(c) drone chamber
(d) queen chamber
Answer:
(a) brood cells

Question 8.
………………….. feeds on organic wastes.
(a) Bees
(b) Earthworms
(c) Prawns
(d) Cattle
Answer:
(b) Earthworms

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. is the science of growing vegetables.
2. Compost is a ……………….. as well as a fertilizer which is rich in nutrients.
3. …………….. is a small bacterium that colonize the roots of leguminous plants to form root nodules.
4. Application of ……………… has been found to increase the yield of wheat, rice, maize, and sorghum.
5. Mycelium starts to form little bud which develops into a ……………..
6. Compost for mushroom cultivation is prepared by mixing ………………… with a number of organic materials like cow dung and inorganic fertilizers.

Answer:

1. Olericulture
2. soil conditioner
3. Rhizobium
4. Azotobacter
5. mushroom
6. paddy straw

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Vermicomposting is the rearing of earthworms for the production of vermicompost – True
2. Pasturage is the production of fruits – False.
   Correct Statement: Pasturage is the availability of flowers to bees for nectar and pollen collection.
3. Binomial name of Nilavembu is Leucas aspera – False.
   Correct Statement: Binomial name of Nilavembu is Andrographis paniculata.
4. Mariculture is the culture of fishes and another aquatic organism in marine water near the sea coast – True
5. Operation flood programme is based on dairy commodity to increase milk supply in urban areas – True.

IV. Match column A with column B.

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Tulsi	a.	Wrightia tinctoria
2.	Nannari	b	Cathyranthus roseus
3.	Vepalai	c	Eucalyptus globulus
4	Cinjona maram	d	Hemidesmus indicus
5	Nithya kalyani	e	Cinchona officinalis
6	Thaila maram	f	Ocimum sanctum

Answer:

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Tulsi	a.	Ocimum sanctum
2.	Nannari	b	Hemidesmus indicus
3.	Vepalai	c	Wrightia tinctoria
4	Cinjona maram	d	Cinchona officinalis
5	Nithya kalyani	e	Cathyranthus roseus
6	Thaila maram	f	Eucalyptus globulus

V. Differentiate the following.

Question 1.
Marine water prawn culture and Freshwater prawn culture
Answer:

Marine water prawn culture	Freshwater prawn culture
The rearing of marine penaeid prawn is called marine prawn culture or shrimp culture.	The rearing of freshwater prawn is called freshwater prawn culture.

Question 2.
Extensive fish culture and Intensive fish culture
Answer:

Extensive fish culture	Intensive fish culture
Culture of fishes in large areas with low stocking density and natural feeding.	Culture of fishes in small areas with high stocking density and providing artificial feed to increase production.

Question 3.
Storage cells and Brood cells
Answer:

Storage cells	Brood cells
The storage cells contain honey and pollen.	The brood cells contain the young stages of the honey bees.
They are built in the margin and at the top of the comb.	They are built in the centre and the lower part of the comb.

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Who is the Father of Indian medicines?
Answer:

Ayurveda	Charaka Samhita
Yoga	Patanjali
Unani	Hippocrates
Siddha	Agasthya
Homeopathy	Samuel Hahnemann

Question 2.
What is Landscape gardening?
Answer:
Landscape horticulture is the study of designing and constructing landscapes in homes, v business firms, and public areas.

Question 3.
What are the types of aquaculture?
Answer:
Aquaculture is classified into

1. Freshwater aquaculture
2. Brackish water aquaculture
3. Marine water aquaculture (Mariculture)

Question 4.
What is aquaponics?
Answer:
Aquaponics is a system of a combination of conventional aquaculture with hydroponics in a symbiotic environment in which plants are fed with the aquatic animal’s excreta or wastes.

Question 5.
List the important points about prawns.
Answer:

1. Prawn is an important shellfish, a resource of India.
2. Prawns are crustaceans inhibiting fresh marine and shallow waters.
3. They are a cherished delicacy due to their great taste.

Question 6.
Write a note on the nutritional value of fishes.
Answer:
Cultivable freshwater and marine food fishes are highly nutritious, rich sources of animal proteins and are easily digestible. They are rich in essential amino acids such as lysine and methionine, minerals like calcium, phosphorus, iron, sodium, potassium and magnesium. Fat-soluble vitamins A, D and water-soluble B-complex vitamins like pyridoxine, cyanocobalamine and niacin ate found in fishes. Polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) which are helpful in the regulation of cholesterol are present in plenty in fishes and thus promote cardiac health.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain hydroponics and give its importance.
Answer:
Hydroponics is the method of growing plants without soil, using mineral nutrient solutions in water. The containers are made of glass, metal or plastic. They range in size from small pots for individual plants to huge tank for large scale growing. It was demonstrated by a German Botanist Julius Von Sachs in 1980. Hydroponics is successfully employed for the commercial production of seedless cucumber and tomato.

Plants are suspended with their roots submerged in water that contain plant nutrients. The roots absorb water and nutrients but do not perform the anchoring function. Therefore, the plants must be mechanically supported from above.
Importance of hydroponics

• Conservation of water and nutrients.
• Controlled plant growth.
• In deserts and Arctic regions hydroponics can be an effective alternative method.

Question 2.
What is aquaculture? Mention the types of aquaculture with its prospects.
Answer:
Aquaculture:
Aquaculture is the rearing .of economically important aquatic organisms like fishes, prawns, shrimps, crabs, lobsters, edible oysters, pearl oysters and seaweeds under con¬trolled and confined environmental conditions using advanced technology.

Type of Aquaculture:
Aquaculture is classified into

1. Freshwater aquaculture
2. Marine water aquaculture.

Prospects of Aquaculture:

• Aquaculture has become the fastest-growing food-producing sector.
• It is a major source of export after foreign exchange earnings.
• It generates employment through fish farming in rural and underdeveloped areas.
• It increases the food supply and enhances the nutritional status of people.

Question 3.
Explain the methods used for vermicomposting.
Answer:
Vermicomposting methods can range from a wormbin in the kitchen for household scraps to large mechanized systems, which can be able to accommodate tons of organic material. In general, these methods are of the following types:

• Bin (or) Container method
• Vermicomposting of organic wastes in field pits
• Vermicomposting of organic wastes on ground heaps

Bin method:
Vermicomposting by bin method is the rearing of earthworms in a container or bin. The container is half filled with bedding materials such as shredded cardboard, leaves, paddy husk, chopped straw, saw dust and manure. Small quantity of soil and sand is added to provide necessary grit for the worms. The bedding material should be moistened by adding water that enables free movements of the worms. The worms are gently placed and spread evenly on the bedding.

Organic wastes (kitchen wastes, vegetable and fruit wastes) are added which are fed by the earthworms. The bin is covered with coconut leaves or gunny bags to conserve moisture, provide darkness and keep out of pests. After a period of 60 days the wastes are completely transformed into nutrient-rich materials that are excreted by earthworms known as worm castings. These castings are harvested and used as organic manure.

Question 4.
What are concentrates? Why should they be given to cattle?
Answer:
Concentrates are low in fibre and contain high level of carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients. A variety of raw materials such as cholam (jowar), kambu (pearl millet), ragi (finger millet), rice bran, wheat bran, cotton seed cake, mustard cake, linseed cake, groundnut cake, mango seed, neem cake and yellu (sesame) cake can be used to make concentrate feed. The concentrates are fed at the time of milking. This helps in ‘let down’ of milk.
The daily average feed ratio of a milking cow is:

1. 15-25 kg of roughage (dry grass and green fodder)
2. 4-5 kg of grain mixture
3. 100-150 litres of water

For a cow that gives above 2.5 kg milk yield per day, 1 kg of concentrate feed should be given for every additional milk yield.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 22 World of Microbes

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science World of Microbes Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is transmitted through air?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Meningitis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Cholera
Answer:
(a) Tuberculosis

Question 2.
One of the means of indirect transmission of disease is ………………….
(a) sneezing
(b) coughing
(c) vectors
(d) droplet infection
Answer:
(c) vectors

Question 3.
Diptheria affects the ………………………
(a) Lungs
(b) Throat
(c) Blood
(d) Liver
Answer:
(b) Throat

Question 4.
The primary organ infected during tuberculosis is …………………..
(a) bone marrow
(b) intestine
(c) spleen
(d) lungs
Answer:
(d) lungs

Question 5.
Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect …………………….
(a) gut
(b) lungs
(c) liver
(d) lymph nodes
Answer:
(b) lungs

Question 6.
The organ affected by jaundice is …………………
(a) liver
(b) lungs
(c) kidney
(d) brain
Answer:
(a) liver

Question 7.
Poliomyelitis virus enters the body through ……………………..
(a) skin
(b) mouth and nose
(c) ears
(d) eye
Answer:
(b) mouth and nose

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. break down organic matter and animal waste into ammonia.
2. Typhoid fever is caused by ………………
3. H1N1 virus causes ……………..
4. ……………… is a vector of viral disease dengue.
5. ……………. vaccine gives considerable protection against tuberculosis.
6. Cholera is caused by …………… and malaria is caused by ……………..

Answer:

1. Nitrification
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Swine Flu
4. Aedes aegypti mosquito
5. BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin)
6. Vibrio cholerae, Plasmodium

III. Expand the following

1. ORS – Oral Rehydration Solution.
2. HIV – Human Immunodeficiency Virus
3. DPT – Dipetheria, Pertussis (whooping cough) and Tetanus.
4. WHO – World Health Organization.
5. BCG – Bacillus Calmette Guerin

IV. Pick out the odd one.

1. AIDS, Retrovirus, Lymphocytes, BCG,
2. Bacterial disease, Rabies, Cholera, Common cold and Influenza

Answer:

1. BCG
2. Rabies

V. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement.

1. Rhizobium, associated with root nodules of leguminous plants fixes atmospheric nitrogen – True.
2. Non- infectious diseases remain confined to the person who develops the disease and do not spread to others – True.
3. The process of vaccination was developed by Jenner – True.
4. Hepatitis B is more dangerous than Hepatitis A – True.

VI. Match column A with column B.

	Column A	Column B
1.	Swine flu	(a) Human Papilloma virus
2.	Genital warts	(b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
3.	AIDS	(c) Mycobacterium
4.	Tuberculosis	(d) Influeuza virus HIN 1

Answer:

1. (d) Influenza virus H1N1
2. (a) Human Papillomavirus
3. (b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
4. (c) Mycobacterium

VII. Define the following.

Question 1.
Pathogen
Answer:
A pathogen is a biological agent that causes disease to its host. e.g. bacteria, virus, etc.

Question 2.
Bacteriophages
Answer:
Bacteriophages are virus that infect bacterial cells, e.g. T4 bacteriophage.

Question 3.
Vaccines
Answer:
Preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogens (weakened or killed) which on inoculation into a healthy person provides temporary/permanent immunity against a particular disease.

Question 4.
Prions
Answer:
Viral particles which contain only protein. They do not contain nucleic acid.

VIII. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Distinguish between Virion and Viroid.
Answer:

Virion	Viroid
Virion is a simple virus particle and can grow and multiply in living cells only	Viroid is a free pathogenic RNA of virus.
They are the smallest infecting agents and can live on plants, animals, human beings and bacteria	They are found in plant cells and causes diseases only in plants.

Question 2.
Name the vector of the malarial parasite. Mention the species of the malarial parasite which cause malignant and fatal malaria.
Answer:

Vector: Female Anopheles mosquito.
Fatal parasite: Plasmodium falciparum.

Question 3.
What is the triple antigen? Mention the disease which can be prevented by using the antigen.
Answer:
DPT is called triple antigen vaccine as it is a combined vaccine for protection against Diptheria, Pertusis and Tetanus.

Question 4.
Name the chronic diseases associated with the respiratory system.
Answer:
Tuberculosis, Influenza, Asthma and Swine Flu.

Question 5.
Name the organism causing diarrhoeal disease and give one precaution against it.
Answer:
Cholera (Acute diarrhoeal disease) is caused by Vibrio cholerae through contaminated food, water, oral route and houseflies. It can be prevented by hygienic-sanitary conditions, intake of Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS).

Question 6.
Name two common mosquitoes and the diseases they transmit.
Answer:
Anopheles mosquito – Malaria.
Aedes aegypti – Chikungunya, Dengue.

IX. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account of the classification of bacteria based on the shape.
Answer:
Based on the shapes, bacteria are grouped into 3 types:

• Spherical shaped bacteria as cocci (or coccus for a single cell).
• Rod-shaped bacteria called bacilli (or bacillus for a single cell).
• Spiral shaped bacteria called spirilla (or spirillum for single cell).

Question 2.
Describe the role of microbes in agriculture and industries.
Answer:
Microbes play an important role in agriculture as biocontrol agents and biofertilizers. Microbes play a vital role in the cycling of elements like carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulphur and phosphorus.

1. Microbes as biocontrol agents
   Microorganisms used for controlling harmful or pathogenic organisms and pests of plants are called biocontrol agents (Biopesticides). Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a species of bacteria that produces a protein called a ‘cry’ protein. This protein is toxic to the insect larva and kills them.
2. Microbes as biofertilizers
   Microorganisms which enrich the soil with nutrients are called biofertilizers. Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi are the main sources of biofertilizers. This is done by microbes either in free-living conditions or by having a symbiotic relationship with the plants, e.g. Nitrosomonas, Nostoc (free-living), symbiotic microbes like Rhizobium, Frankia, mycorrhizae.

Microbes in Industries
Microorganisms play an important role in the production of wide variety of valuable products for the welfare of human beings.

1. Production of fermented beverages:
   Beverages like wine are produced by fermentation of malted cereals and fruits by Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
2. Curing of coffee beans, tea leaves and tobacco leaves: Beans of coffee and cocoa, leaves of tea and tobacco are fermented by the bacteria Bacillus megaterium. This gives the special aroma.
3. Production of curd: Lactobacillus sp. converts milk to curd. .
4. Production of organic acids, enzymes and vitamins: Oxalic acid, acetic acid and citric acid are produced by fungus Aspergillus niger. Enzymes like lipases, invertase, proteases, and glucose oxidase are derived from microbes. Yeasts are rich source of the vitamin-B complex.

Question 3.
Explain the various types of viruses with examples.
Answer:
Viruses are categorized as:
i. Plant virus: Virus that infect plants, e.g. Tobacco mosaic virus, Cauliflower mosaic virus, Potato virus.

ii. Animal virus: Virus that infect animals, e.g. Adenovirus, Retrovirus(HIV), Influenza virus, Poliovirus.

iii. Bacteriophages: Virus that infect bacterial cells, e.g. T4 bacteriophage.

Question 4.
Suggest the immunization schedule for a newborn baby till 12 months of age. Why it is necessary to follow the schedule?
Answer:
Immunization is a process of developing resistance to infections by administration of antigens or antibodies. Inoculation of vaccines into the body to prevent diseases is called as vaccination.

Age	Vaccine	Dosage
New bom	BCG	1st dose
15 days	Oral Polio	1st dose
6th week	DPT and Polio	1st dose
10th week	DPT and Polio	1st dose
14th week	DPT and Polio	1st dose
9-12 months	Measles	1st dose

X. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct statement as.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and R are false.
Question 1.
Assertion: Chickenpox is a disease indicated by scars and marks in the body.
Reason: Chickenpox causes rashes on the face and further spreads throughout the body.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion: Dengue can be treated by the intake of antibiotics.
Reason: Antibiotics blocks the multiplication of viruses.
Answer:
(d) If both A and R are false.

XI. Questions based on thinking skills.

Question 1.
Suggest precautionary measures you can take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious disease.
Answer:
Precautionary measures that can be taken are;

1. The sick student or staff can be asked to stay at home.
2. Clean and disinfect classroom materials and surfaces.
3. Adopt healthy practices such as safe handling of food and usage of toilets.
4. Provide awareness in daily announcements about preventing spread of germs and illnesses.

Question 2.
Tejas suffered from typhoid while, Sachin suffered from tuberculosis. Which disease could have caused more damage and why?
Answer:
Typhoid is a food and water-borne disease which affects the intestines. There are good drugs available for its treatment. If the patient reports to the doctor on time, it can be treated safely. Typhoid vaccine is also available that can protect against further attacks.

Whereas, Tuberculosis is a very tricky disease. Though it basically infects the lungs, it can spread to other parts of the body such as bones, intestines, etc. Another complication of TB is that, once infected, the Mycobacterium remains dormant in the body even after adequate treatment. Whenever the immunity of the patient goes down, TB can resurface again. Therefore, Tuberculosis causes more damage when compared to Typhoid.

Activity

Question 1.
Observe the mosquitoes that are active during the day time. Catch them using an insect net and observe their bodies and legs. What do you observe? Why are cases of Dengue reported in large numbers during the post-monsoon season?
Answer:
Mosquitoes of Aedes sp. are active during day time. The special features that can be observed in this mosquito is white bands on its legs and a silver-white pattern of scales on its body.

The female mosquitoes lay their eggs above the water line inside containers that hold water. These containers include tires, buckets, birdbaths, water storage jars, and flower pots which are filled with water due to rains. After the mosquitoes lay their eggs, the mosquito larvae hatch which are aquatic and feed on the microorganisms that is found in water necessary for its growth. Hence, Dengue is reported largely during the post-monsoon season.

Question 2.
Recently in 2018, the Nipah virus was in the headlines of the daily newspaper. Collect the following information.

1. What is the Nipah virus?
2. How it gets transmitted?
3. Mention the preventive measures taken by the government to check the disease.

Answer:

1. Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus.
2. It is transmitted from animals to humans when humans are exposed to secretions from the pigs, or unprotected contact with the tissue of a sick animal.
3. Nipah virus infection can be prevented by avoiding exposure to sick pigs and bats in endemic areas and not drinking raw date palm sap.
   Routine and thorough cleaning and disinfection of pig farms with appropriate detergents. The infected animals should be slaughtered – with close supervision of burial or incineration of carcasses – may be necessary to reduce the risk of transmission to people.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science World of Microbes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…………… can multiply only inside the living cells.
(a) Bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) worm
(d) Virus
Answer:
(d) Virus

Question 2.
Bacterial cell membranes covered by strong rigid cell wall are made up of ……………….
(a) peptidoglycan
(b) glycogen
(c) polysaccharides
(d) lipopolysaccharides
Answer:
(a) peptidoglycan

Question 3.
…………….. depend on other organisms or dead organic matter for food.
(a) Parasites
(b) Saprophytes
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria
(d) Symbionts
Answer:
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria

Question 4.
……………. are the site of protein synthesis
(a) Plasmid
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Cell
(d) Ribosome
Answer:
(d) Ribosome

Question 5.
Bacteria are ………………… single-celled prokaryotic organisms without a nucleus and other cell organelles.
(a) motile
(b) non-motile
(c) microscopic
(d) anaerobic
Answer:
(c) microscopic

Question 6.
……………… are either a single or cluster of flagella at both the cell poles.
(a) Lophotrichous
(b) Amphitrichous
(c) Monotrichous
(d) Peritrichous
Answer:
(b) Amphitrichous

Question 7.
The body of the fungus is called ………………………
(a) thallus
(b) hyphae
(c) mycelium
(d) filament
Answer:
(a) thallus

Question 8.
…………….. is a complex of several thin filaments called hyphae.
(a) Thallus
(b) Mycelium
(c) Cellulose
(d) Hemicellulose
Answer:
(b) Mycelium

Question 9.
Typhoid disease is common in children of age group ……………….. years
(a) 2-16
(b) 3-17
(c) 1-15
(d) 4-18
Answer:
(c) 1-15

Question 10.
Measles is caused by …………………..
(a) Varicella virus
(b) Rhinovirus
(c) Myxovirus parotitis
(d) Rubeola virus
Answer:
(d) Rubeola virus

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. rely on chemical compounds for their energy.
2. ……………… means proteinaceous infective particle.
3. ………………. are metabolic products of microorganisms, which in very low concentration are inhibitory or detrimental to other microbes.
4. Tuberculosis is caused by …………………
5. ……………….. affects the respiratory tract and causes mild fever, severe cough ending in whoop.
6. Cholera and typhoid are examples of …………….. disease.

Answer:

1. Chemotrophs
2. Prion
3. Antibiotics
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
5. Bordetella pertussis
6. waterborne

III. Expand the following

1. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
2. TT – Tetanus Toxoid.
3. DT – Diphtheria and Tetanus

IV. State whether true or false

1. Microorganisms that are killed by heat or chemicals are live vaccines – False
   Correct Statement: Microorganisms that are killed by heat or chemicals are killed vaccines.
2. DT is a dual or combined antigen – True
3. Poliovirus is also called enterovirus – True
4. Malaria is caused by bacteria – False
   Correct Statement: Malaria is vector-borne disease caused by Plasmodium sp. a protozoan.
5. Dengue is also known as break-bone fever – True

V. Match column A with column B.

Question 1.

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Genital Herpes	a.	Neisseria gonorrhoea
2.	Gonorrhea	b	Treponema pallidum
3.	Syphilis	c	Plasmodium sp.
4	Malaria	d	Herpes Simplex Virus

Answer:

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Genital Herpes	a.	Herpes Simplex Virus
2.	Gonorrhea	b	Neisseria gonorrhea
3.	Syphilis	c	Treponema pallidum
4	Malaria	d	Plasmodium sp.

VI. Analyze the table and select the option given below that correctly fills the blank

Disease	Causative organism	Symptoms
Swine flu		Fever, cough, headache
Filaria	Nematode
Chikungunya	RNA virus
Cholera		vomiting, nausea, and dehydration

(Joint pain, body rashes, headache, Vibrio cholera, Fever, Inilueuza virus H1N1)

Disease	Causative organism	Symptoms
Swine flu	Influenza virus H1N1	Fever, cough, headache
Filaria	Nematode	Fever
Chikungunya	RNA virus	Joint pain, body rashes, headache
Cholera	Vibrio cholerae	vomiting, nausea and dehydration

VII. Define the following.

Question 1.
Vector
Answer:
Pathogens of certain diseases reach the human body through intermediate agents which act as carrier or vector, (eg) Housefly, Mosquito.

Question 2.
Sporozoites
Answer:
Infective stage of Plasmodium (Malarial parasite) which infect man and transmitted from salivary gland of mosquito.

Question 3.
Peptidoglycan
Answer:
Peptidoglycan is a combination of sugars and amino acids that forms the cell wall of most bacteria.

VIII. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Write a short note on Fungi.
Answer:
Fungi are larger than bacteria. They lack chlorophyll, hence depend on living or dead host for their nutritional needs. They are spherical in shape.

Question 2.
What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Answer:
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a neurodegenerative disease. As a result of this disease cerebral cortex is affected and it is characterised by progressive dementia, memory loss, behavioral changes, poor coordination and visual disturbances.

Question 3.
What are the disease categories based on microbes?
Answer:
Microbial Disease can be categorized based on:

1. The extent of occurrence (endemic, epidemic, pandemic or sporadic).
2. Whether infectious or non-infectious.
3. Types of pathogen – whether caused by bacterial, viral, fungal or protozoan infections.
4. Transmitting agent – whether airborne, waterborne or vector-borne.

Question 4.
Define the incubation period.
Answer:
The interval between infection and the first appearance of a disease is called the incubation period. It may vary from a few hours to several days.

Question 5.
What is Diptheria?
Answer:
Diptheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. It generally affects the upper respiratory tract (nose and throat) and causes fever, sore throat and choking of air passage.

Question 6.
Write about Dengue.
Answer:
Dengue is known as break-bone fever. The name break bone fever was given because of the contortions caused due to the intense joint and muscle pain. Dengue haemorrhagic fever is a more severe form and can be life-threatening or fatal.

Question 7.
What is immunization?
Answer:
Immunization is a process of developing resistance to infections by the administration of antigens or antibodies. It is an effective way of controlling the spread of infection by strengthening the host defenses.

IX. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain vector-borne diseases.
Answer:
Vector is an agent that acts as an intermediate carrier of the pathogen. Many insects and animals acts as vectors. Diseases transmitted by vectors are called vector-borne diseases. These vectors can transfer infecting agents from an infected person to another healthy person. Some of the insect vector-borne diseases are Malaria, Filaria, Chikungunya, Dengue, and the diseases which are transmitted through animals are Bird flu and Swine flu.

• Malaria continues to be one of the major health problems of developing countries. Malaria is caused by protozoan parasite Plasmodium. Four different species of Plasmodium namely, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. falciparum and P. ovale cause malaria. Malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is malignant and fatal.
• Chikungunya, which is caused by single-stranded RNA vims, is transmitted in humans by the bite of infected Aedes aegypti mosquito during the day time. It causes severe and persistent joint pain, body rashes, headache and fever. Joint pains can last for a very long time.
• Dengue is known as break-bone fever. The name break bone fever was given because of the contortions caused due to the intense joint and muscle pain. It is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito that has previously bitten an infected person.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the diseases transmitted by animals.
Answer:
Diseases Transmitted by Animals:
Swine Flu is so termed because the virus that first caused the disease had originated from pigs. People with weak immune system are at high risk of contracting swine flu. It is an acute respiratory virus which is contagious and spreads through air. Swine flu is caused by virus that affects pigs and has started infecting humans as well. Influeuza virus FI1N1 has been identified as the cause of this disease.

Avian influenza is a contagious bird disease caused by a number of viruses. Birds that can carry and spread an avian influenza virus include poultry (like chickens, turkeys or ducks), wild birds and even pet birds.

Question 3.
Explain about the waterborne diseases.
Answer:
Microbes present in the contaminated water cause various infectious diseases. Some of the water borne diseases are cholera, typhoid, infectious hepatitis, poliomyelitis, diarrhoea, etc.

• Cholera is an epidemic disease and in the earlier days many people died due to this. It is caused by Vibrio cholerae mostly due to contaminated food and water. Acute diarrhoea with watery stool, vomiting, nausea and dehydration are the symptoms of this disease.
• Typhoid is common in children of age group 1-15 years. Nearly 2.5 million people suffer from typhoid disease every year. This is caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi. Food and water contaminated by the faeces of infected person causes this disease. Infected persons show symptoms of fever, weakness and vomiting.
• Poliomyelitis is caused by polio virus and spreads from person to person. This virus gets into the blood and enters into the brain or spinal cord and affects the central nervous system. Muscles get paralysed and result in difficulty in walking.
• Hepatitis A or Infectious Hepatitis is caused by Hepatitis A virus (HAV). It is transmitted through contaminated water and food and through oral route. It causes inflammation of liver resulting in jaundice (Yellow fever).
• Acute diarrhea is commonly caused by infection of intestine. It is caused by Rotavirus and results in sudden onset of frequent stools, three or more in a day. It is transmitted through contaminated water and food. Increased fluidity and the volume of bowel movements result in excessive loss of fluid and electrolytes from the intestine.

Question 4.
Write short notes on antibiotics and vaccines.
Answer:
Antibiotics are metabolic products of microorganisms, which in very low concentration are inhibitory or detrimental to other microbes. In 1929, Alexander Fleming produced the first antibiotic pencillin. In human beings antibiotics are used to control infectious diseases like cholera, diptheria, pneumonia, typhoid, etc.

Class of Microorganisms	Type of Microorganism	Antibiotic produced
	Streptomyces griseus	Streptomycin
Bacteria	Streptomyces erythreus	Erythromycin
	Bacillus subtilis	Bacitracin
Fungi	Penicillium notatum	Penicillin
	Cephalosporium acremonium	Cephalosporin

Vaccines are prepared by killing or making the microbes inactive (attenuated). These inactive microbes are unable to cause the disease, but stimulate the body to produce antibodies against the antigen in the microbes.

Type of Vaccine	Name of the vaccine	Disease
Live attenuated	MMR	Measles, Mumps and Rubella
	BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin)	Tuberculosis
Inactivated (Killed antigen)	Inactivated polio virus (IPV)	Polio
Subunit vaccines (Purified antigens)	Hepatitis B vaccine	Hepatitis B
Toxoid (Inactivated antigen)	Tetanus toxoid (TT)	Tetanus
	Ditpheria toxoid	Diptheria

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Nutrition and Health

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Nutrition and Health Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The nutrient required in trace amounts to accomplish various body functions is ………………
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Vitamin
(d) Fat
Answer:
(c) Vitamin

Question 2.
The physician who discovered that Scurvy can be cured by ingestion of citrus fruit is …………….
(a) James Lind
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Isaac Newton
Answer:
(a) James Lind

Question 3.
The sprouting of onion and potatoes can be delayed by the process of ………………
(a) Freezing
(b) Irradiation
(c) Salting
(d) Canning
Answer:
(b) Irradiation

Question 4.
Food and Adulteration Act was enacted by the Government of India in the year ………………..
(a) 1964
(b) 1954
(c) 1950
(d) 1963
Answer:
(b) 1954

Question 5.
An internal factor responsible for spoilage of food is ………………..
(a) Wax coating
(b) Contaminated utensils
(c) Moisture content in food
(d) Synthetic preservatives
Answer:
(c) Moisture content in food

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Deficiency diseases can be prevented by taking ………………. diet.
2. The process of affecting the natural composition and the quality of food substance is known as …………………
3. Vitamin D is called as …………….. vitamin as it can be synthesised by the body from the rays
   of the sunlight.
4. Dehydration is based on the principle of removal of ………………..
5. Food should not be purchased beyond the date of ………………..
6. AGMARK is used to certify ……………. and ……………. products on India.

Answer:

1. balanced
2. Food spoilage
3. Calciferol
4. water
5. expiry
6. Livestock, Agricultural products

III. Mention whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Iron is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland – False.
   Correct Statement: Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland.
2. Vitamins are required in large quantities for normal functioning of the body – False.
   Correct Statement: Vitamins are required in small quantities for normal functioning of the body.
3. Vitamin C is a water-soluble Vitamin – True
4. Lack of adequate fats in the diet may result in low body weight – True
5. ISI mark is mandatory to certify agricultural products – False.
   Correct Statement: AGMARK is mandatory to certify Agricultural products.

IV. Match column A with column B.

Calcium – (a) Muscular fatigue
Sodium – (b) Anaemia
Potassium – (c) Osteoporosis
Iron – (d) Goitre
Iodine – (e) Muscular cramps
Answer:

1. (c) Osteoporosis
2. (e) Muscular cramps
3. (a) Muscular fatigue
4. (b) Anaemia
5. (d) Goitre

V. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.

Question 1.

Vitamin	Rich Source	Deficiency Disease
Calciferol	–	Rickets
–	papaya	Night blindness
Ascorbic acid	–	–
–	whole grains	Beriberi

Answer:

Vitamin	Rich Source	Deficiency Disease
Calciferol	liver	Rickets
Retinol	papaya	Night blindness
Ascorbic acid	Citrus fruits	Scurvy
Thiamine	whole grains	Beriberi

VI. Give abbreviations for the following food standards.

1. ISI – Indian Standards Institution.
2. FPO – Fruit Process Order.
3. AGMARK – Agricultural Marking.
4. FCI – Food Corporation of India.
5. FSSAI – Food Safety and Standard Authority of India.

VII. Assertion and reason.

Direction: In the following question, a statement of a Assertion is given and a corresponding Reason is given just below it. Of the statements given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.
Question 1.
Assertion: Haemoglobin contains iron.
Reason: Iron deficiency leads to anaemia.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: AGMARK is a quality control agency.
Reason: ISI is a symbol of quality.
Answer:
(d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.

VIII. Very short answers questions.

Question 1.
Differentiate
Answer:
(a) Kwashiorkor from Marasmus

Kwashiorkor		Marasmus
1.	It affects children between 1 to 5 years.	It affects infants, below the age of one year.
2.	Occurs due to the diet mainly consists of carbohydrates, but poor in proteins.	Occurs, when the diet is poor in carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

(b) Macronutrients from micronutrients

Macronutrients		Micronutrients
1.	Nutrients required in large amount for the proper functions of the cells.	Nutrients required in very amount for the proper functions of the cells.
2.	Calcium, potassium, sodium etc, are  some macronutrients.	Iron, iodine etc are some micro-nutrients.

Question 2.
Why salt is used as a preservative in food.
Answer:

• The addition of salt removes the moisture content in the food by the process of osmosis. This prevents the growth of bacteria and reduces the activity of microbial enzymes.
• Meat, fish, gooseberry, lemon, and raw mangoes are preserved by salting.
• Salt is also used as a preservative in pickles, canned foods, etc.

Question 3.
What is an adulterant?
Answer:
An adulterant is an undesirable substance added to the food against the food safety standards.

Question 4.
A doctor advises an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?
Answer:
The disease Anaemia occurs due to the deficiency of the mineral iron. Iron is an important component of haemoglobin. Hemoglobin in the blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the body, so the doctor advises the girl to take leafy vegetables as they are the sources of itpn.

Question 5.
Name any two naturally occurring toxic substances in food.
Answer:

1. Prussic acid in the seeds of the apple.
2. Marine toxins in fishes.

Question 6.
What factors are required for the absorption of Vitamin D from the food by the body?
Answer:
The factor that regulates the absorption of Vitamin D is the presence of dietary fat (Egg, Liver, Dairy products, Fish, etc). When our body absorbs this fat, it also absorbs the dissolved Vitamin D. When the sun rays fall on the skin, the fat is converted into Vitamin D.

IX. Short answers.

Question 1.
Write any one function of of the following minerals.

1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Iron
4. Iodine

Answer:

1. Calcium: Enamel of teeth.
2. Sodium: Maintains fluid balance.
3. Iron: Important component of Haemoglobin, which carries Oxygen from Lungs to body.
4. Iodine: Formation of Thyroid hormone.

Question 2.
Explain the two methods of food preservation.
Answer:
Drying:

• Drying is the process of removal of water/moisture content in the food.
• It can be done either by sun-drying, (Eg: cereals, fish) or vacuum drying (Eg: milk powder, cheese powder) or hot air drying (Eg: grapes, dry fruits, potato flakes).
• Drying inhibits the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria, yeasts and moulds.

Smoking:

• In this process, food products like meat and fish are exposed to smoke.
• The drying action of the smoke tends to preserve the food.

Question 3.
What are the effects of consuming adulterated food?
Answer:

• Increases the impurity in the food items
• Lack of Nutritional value
• Leads to various diseases

X. Give one reason for the following statements.

(a) Salt is added as a preservative in Pickles.
Answer:
Addition of salt removes the moisture content in the food by the process of Osmosis.

(b) We should not eat food items beyond the expiry date.
Answer:
Toxins are produced by the Bacteria (or) by the enzymes.

(c) Deficiency of Calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth
Answer:
Deficiency of Calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth because of bone deformities and Osteoporosis in adults.

XI. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
How are Vitamins useful to us? Tabulate the source, deficiency diseases, and symptoms of fat-soluble Vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins boost the immune system, support normal growth, and development.

 

Vitamins	Sources	Deficiency disorders	Symptoms
Fat-Soluble Vitamins
Vitamin A (Retinol)	Carrot, papaya, leafy vegetables, fish liver oil, egg yolk, liver, dairy products	Xerophthalmia Nyctalopia (Night blindness)	Dryness of Cornea Unable to see in the night (dim light) Scaly Skin
Vitamin D (Calciferol)	Egg, liver, dairy products, fish synthesized by the skin in sunlight	Rickets (in children)	Bowlegs, defective ribs, development of pigeon chest
Vitamin E (Tocopherol)	Whole wheat, meat, vegetable oil, milk	Sterility in rats, reproductive abnormalities	Sterility
Vitamin K (Derivative of Quinone)	Leafy vegetables, soya beans, milk	Blood clotting is prevented	Excessive bleeding due to delayed blood clotting

Question 2.
Explain the role of food control agencies in India.
Answer:

1. ISI (Indian Standards Institution) known as Bureau of Indian Standard. It Certifies Industrial products like Electrical appliances like switches, wiring cables, water heater, electric motor, kitchen appliances etc.
2. AGMARK (Agricultural Marking) certifies Agricultural and Livestock products like cereals/essential oils, pulses, honey, butter etc.
3. FPO (Fruit Process Order) certifies the Fruit products like Juice, jams, sauce, canned fruits and vegetables, pickles etc.
4. FSSAI ( Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) responsible for protecting and promoting public health through regulation and supervision of food safety.

XII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
The doctor advises an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?
Answer:
Anaemia is a condition resulting from a deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood. Iron is necessary for the formation of haemoglobin. Therefore the doctor advices the girl to include leafy vegetables and dates in her diet since they are rich in iron content.

Question 2.
Sanjana wants to buy a jam bottle in a grocery shop. What are the things she should observe on the label before purchasing it?
Answer:

1. Name of the product
2. Manufacturer’s details, Contents/Ingredients
3. Net Weight
4. Maximum Retail Price (MRP)
5. Date of Manufacture
6. Date of Expiry
7. Date of best before use

Activity

Question 1.
Let each of the students bring any food packet (jam, juice, pickle, bread, biscuit, etc). Note down the details like name of the product, manufacturer’s details, contents/ ingredients, net weight, Maximum Retail Price (MRP), date of manufacture, date of expiry/best before twelve months from the date of manufacture, and standardized marks like ISI, AGMARK or FPO printed on the label for each of the items to create awareness.
Answer:

• Name of the product – Thenkuzhal.
• Manufacturer’s details – Sri Krishna Sweets. Handmade to provide an authentic taste.
• Ingredients – Rice flour, Refined vegetable oil, Urud dhal, Butter, Iodized salt, Cumin, Asafoetida.
• Net weight – 500 gms.
• Maximum Retail Prize – (MRP) ? 100.
• Date of Manufacture – 09.04.2018.
• Date of Expiry – Best before 30 days from the date of manufacture.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Nutrition and Health Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. Carbohydrates are the chief source of …………………
2. …………… also known as Triglycerides are the Esters of free fatty acid chains and Glycerol.
3. ………………. are the constituents of teeth, bones, tissues, blood, muscle, and nerve cells.
4. Vitamin Bl, B2, B3, B6, B12, and Vitamin C are ……………… soluble vitamins.
5. In ………………, the food materials are kept inside a cold room in a temperature range of 23°C to 30°C.
6. …………….. is declared as Global Iodine Deficiency Day.
7. ………………… regulates nerve and muscle activity.
8. ……………. are the enzymes involved in the breakdown of fats in the small intestine during the process of digestion.
9. ……………….. is found in Honey, Sugarcane, and fruits.
10. ……………… is stored in our liver and muscles.

Answer:

1. energy
2. Fats
3. Calcium
4. Water
5. Deep freezing
6. October 21st
7. Potassium
8. Lipase
9. Sucrose
10. Glycogen

II. Mention whether the following statements are True or False. If False gives the correct statements.

1. Carbohydrates are inorganic compounds composed of Nitrogen, Sulphur, and Potassium – False.
   Correct Statement: Carbohydrates are Organic compounds, composed of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen.
2. Proteins are polymer chains made of Amino acids linked together by Peptide bonds. – True
3. Goiter is the swelling of the region below the neck, due to the enlargement of the Thyroid gland, due to Calcium deficiency – False.
   Correct Statement: Goitre is the swelling of the region below the neck, due to the enlargement of the Thyroid gland, due to Iodine deficiency.
4. The addition of oil in pickles prevents the contact of air with the pickle – True
5. The synthetic preservatives do not delay the microbial growth and do not keep the food safe for long-duration – False.
   Correct Statement: The synthetic preservatives delay microbial growth and keep the food safe for a long duration.
6. Dried Neem leaves and turmeric are used to store food grains in our home to protect the grain from insects and Beetles – True
7. Food should be pure, nutritious, and free from any adulteration for proper maintenance of human health – True

III. Answer shortly.

Question 1.
What is Malnutrition?
Answer:
Absence of certain nutrients in our daily diet over a long period of time leads to deficiency diseases. This condition is called Malnutrition.

Question 2.
Name any two Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) diseases.
Answer:

1. Kwashiorkor.
2. Marasmus.

Question 3.
Define Vitaminosis. Give an example.
Answer:
Any disease caused by the presence of an excess of Vitamin is called Vitaminosis.
Example. An excess of Vitamin A is called Hyper Vitaminosis A.

Question 4.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet containing essential nutrients in right proportion for normal growth and development and to prevent Malnutrition is called Balanced diet.

Question 5.
What are the signs of food spoilage?
Answer:
Change in the appearance of food, its colour, texture, odour and taste are some of the signs of food spoilage.

Question 6.
Why is food preserved?
Answer:

1. To increase the shelf life of food.
2. To retain the colour, texture, flavour and nutritive value.
3. To increase the food supply.
4. Decrease the wastage of food.

Question 7.
How does microbial contamination occur?
Answer:
Microbial contamination occurs due to the presence of pathogens like Escherichia coli, Salmonella in fruits, vegetables, and ready-to-eat meat and poultry products.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Potassium	Dermatitis
Vitamin B6	Pellagra
Omega – 3	A vital solvent
Vitamin B3	Muscular fatigue
Water	Essential fatty acid

Answer:

1. (d) Muscular fatigue
2. (a) Dermatitis
3. (e) Essential fatty acid
4. (b) Pellagra
5. (c) a Vital solvent

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What is food spoilage? What are the factors responsible for food spoilage?
Answer:
Food spoilage is an undesirable change in the food’s normal state and is not suitable for eating is called food spoilage. There are two factors responsible for food spoilage.

1. Internal Factors: Internal factors include enzymatic activities and moisture content of the food.
2. External Factors: External factors like adulterants in food, lack of storage facilities, Unhygienic cooking area, microorganisms etc are responsible for food spoilage.

Question 2.
Explain the types of adulterants.
Answer:

There are three types of Adulterants. They are as follows.

1. Natural Adulterants:
   Natural toxic substances occur in poisonous Mushrooms, Prussic acid in seeds of apples, cherry etc, marine toxins, fish oil poisoning etc, Pollutants in air, water and land are also Natural pollutants.
2. Unintentional Adulterants:
   Some adulterants are added unknowingly by Pesticide residues, Droppings of Rodents, Insects, rodent bites and larva in food during its storage.
3. Intentional Adulterants:
   • Addition of preservatives like Vinegar, Citric acid, Sodium bicarbonate, Hydrogen peroxide in milk, food flavors, Artificial sweeteners etc,
   • Addition of chemicals like Calcium Carbide to ripen the bananas and Mangoes.
   • Food colour like Metallic Lead is used to give colours for vegetables like Bitter Gourd, Peas etc.
   • Edible synthetic wax-like Shellac or Camauba wax is coated on fruits like Apple and pear.

Question 3.
Explain some simple techniques used to detect adulterants at home.
Answer:

1. Milk: Place a drop of milk on a polished surface. Pure milk flows slowly, leaving a trail behind. Milk with water will flow fast, without leaving a trail.

2. Honey: Dip a cotton wick in Honey and light it with a match stick. Pure Honey bums, but adulterated honey gives a cracking sound.

3. Sugar: Dissolve sugar. If chalk powder is added as an adulterant, it will settle down.

4. Coffee Powder: Sprinkle a few pinches of Coffee powder in a glass of water. Coffee powder floats. If it is adulterated with Tamarind powder, it settles down.

5. Food Grains: Foodgrains are mixed with stones, sand grit, marble, etc. They are removed by Sorting, handpicking, and washing.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Organ Systems in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
(a) Sublingual
(b) Lachrymal
(c) Submaxillary
(d) Parotid
Answer:
(b) Lachrymal

Question 2.
Stomach of human beings mainly digests
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fat
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Proteins

Question 3.
To prevent the entry of food into the trachea, the opening is guarded by
(a) Epiglottis
(b) Glottis
(c) Hard palate
(d) Soft palate
Answer:
(a) Epiglottis

Question 4.
Bile helps in the digestion of
(a) Proteins
(b) Sugar
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) Fats

Question 5.
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is
(a) Villi
(b) Liver
(c) Nephron
(d) Ureter

Question 6.
Which one of the following substances is not a constituent of sweat?
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Salt
Answer:
(b) Protein

Question 7.
The common passage meant for transporting urine and sperms in male is
(a) Ureter
(b) Urethra
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Scrotum
Answer:
(b) Urethra

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Testes
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) testes

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The opening of the stomach into the intestine is called …………………
2. The muscular and sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with saliva is ………………….
3. Bile, secreted by the liver is stored temporarily in ……………………
4. The longest part of alimentary canal is ………………
5. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about …………………..
6. The largest cell in the human body of a female is ……………………

Answer:

1. duodenum
2. tongue
3. the gall bladder
4. small intestine
5. 37°C
6. an ovum

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the wrong statements:

1. Nitric acid in the stomach kills microorganisms in the food – False
   Correct Statement: Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food.
2. During digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids – True
3. Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances like amino acids, vitamins, hormones, salts, glucose, and other essential substances – True

IV. Match the following:

Organ		Elimination
Skin	a.	Urine
Lungs	b.	Sweat
Intestine	c.	Carbon dioxide
Kidneys	d.	Undigested food

Answer:

1. b. Sweat
2. c. Carbon dioxide
3. d. Undigested food
4. a. Urine

V. Differentiate the following terms:

a. Excretion and Secretion
b. Absorption and Assimilation
c. Ingestion and Egestion
d. Diphyodont and Heterodont
e. Incisors and Canines
Answer:

a.

Excretion	Secretion
The process of eliminating or expelling waste matter.	a process by which substances are produced and discharged from a cell, gland, or organ for a particular function in the organism or for excretion.

b.

Absorption	Assimilation
Absorption is the process by which nutrients obtained after digestion are absorbed by villi and circulated throughout the body by blood and lymph and supplied to all body cells according to their requirements.	Assimilation means the incorporation of the absorbed food materials into the tissue cells as their internal and homogenous components.

c.

Ingestion	Egestion
The process of nutrition begins with the intake of food, called ingestion.	The undigested or unassimilated portion of the ingested food material is thrown out from the body through the anal aperture as fecal matter. This is known as egestion.

d.

Diphyodont	Heterodont
In human beings, two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their lifetime.	Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont).

e.

Incisors	Canines
Type of teeth used for cutting and biting foods.	Type of teeth used for tearing and piercing of food.

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Answer:
Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi (one millimeter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes. The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption.

Question 2.
Why do we sweat?
Answer:
Sweat palys an important role in maintaining body temperature. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about 37°C. When it gets hot sweat glands start secreting sweat, which contains water with small amounts of other chemicals like ammonia, urea, lactic acid and salts. This helps in cooling the body.

Question 3.
Mention any two vital functions of the human kidney.
Answer:

1. Maintains the fluid and electrolytes balance in our body.
2. Regulates acid-base balance of the blood.
3. Maintains the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.
4. Helps to retain the important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

Question 4.
What is micturition?
Answer:
When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition.

Question 5.
Name the types of teeth present in an adult human being. Mention the functions of each.
Answer:
Types of teeth and their functions

Types of teeth	Functions
Incisors	Cutting and biting
Canines	Tearing and piercing
Premolars	Crushing and grinding
Molars	Crushing, grinding, and mastication

Question 6.
Explain the structure of nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys. Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus.

Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles. The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hairpin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Alimentary canal (digestive tract/gastro-intestinal tract):
The glands associated with the digestive system are the salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, liver and intestinal glands.

Structure of the Alimentary Canal:
Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure. It consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and ileum), large intestine (consisting of caecum, colon and rectum) and anus.

Mouth: The mouth leads into the buccal cavity. It is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips. The buccal cavity is a large space-bound above by the palate (which separates the windpipe and food tube), below by the throat and on the sides by the jaws. The jaws bear teeth.

Teeth: Teeth are hard structures meant for holding, cutting, grinding and crushing the food. In human beings, two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their lifetime. The first appearing set of 20 teeth called temporary or milk teeth are replaced by the second set of thirty-two permanent teeth, sixteen in each jaw. Each tooth has a root fitted in the gum (Theocodont). Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont), according to their structure and function namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

Salivary glands: Three pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity. They are: parotid glands, sublingual glands and submaxillary or submandibular glands

• Parotid glands are the largest salivary glands, which lie in the cheeks in front of the ears (in Greek Par – near; otid – ear).
• Sublingual glands are the smallest glands and lie beneath the tongue.
• Submaxillary or Submandibular glands lie at the angles of the lower jaw.
  The salivary glands secrete a viscous fluid called saliva, approximately 1.5 liters per day. It digests starch by the action of the enzyme ptyalin (amylase) in the saliva which converts starch (polysaccharide) into maltose (disaccharide). Saliva also contain an antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.

Tongue: The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food.

The masticated food in the buccal cavity becomes a bolus which is rolled by the tongue and passed through pharynx into the oesophagus by swallowing. During swallowing, the epiglottis (a muscular flap-like structure at the tip of the glottis, beginning of trachea) closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea (wind pipe).

Pharynx is a membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the oesophagus. It serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.

Oesophagus or the food pipe is a muscular-membranous canal about 22 cm in length. It conducts food from pharynx to the stomach by peristalsis (wave-like movement) produced by the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscular walls of alimentary canal.

Stomach is a wide J-shaped muscular organ located between oesophagus and the small intestine. The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice. The gastric juice is colourless, highly acidic, containing mucus, hydrochloric acid and enzymes rennin (in infants) and pepsin.

Small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, which is a long coiled tube measuring about 5 – 7 m. It comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

1. Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from the pancreas).
2. Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region of the small intestine. The secretion of the small intestine is intestinal juice which contains enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
3. Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi (one millimeter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption. It receives

• the bile from liver and
• the pancreatic juice from pancreas in the duodenum. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. The right lobe is larger than the left lobe. On the under surface of the liver, gall bladder is present. The liver cells secrete bile which is temporarily stored in the gall bladder.

Pancreas is a lobed, leaf shaped gland situated between the stomach and duodenum. Pancreas acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland. The gland’s upper surface bears the islets of Langerhans which have endocrine cells and secrete hormones in which α (alpha) cells secrete glucagon and β (beta) cells secrete insulin.

The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called succusentericus which contains enzymes like maltase, lactase, sucrase and lipase which act in an alkaline medium. From the duodenum the food is slowly moved down to ileum, where the digested food gets absorbed

Large intestine
The unabsorbed and undigested food is passed into the large intestine. It extends from the ileum to the anus. It is about 1.5 meters in length. It has three parts- caecum, colon and rectum.

The caecum is a small blind pouch-like structure situated at the junction of the small and large intestine. From its blind end a finger-like structure called vermiform appendix arises. It is a vestigeal (functionless) organ in human beings.

The colon is much broader than ileum. It passes up the abdomen on the right (ascending colon), crosses to the left just below the stomach (transverse colon) and down on the left side (descending colon).

The rectumis the last part which opens into the anus. It is kept closed by a ring of muscles called anal sphincter which opens when passing stools.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of the kidney and the steps involved in the formation of urine.
Answer:

Kidneys are bean-shaped organs reddish-brown in colour. The kidneys lie on either side of the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity attached to the dorsal body wall. The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney as the liver takes up much space on the right side. Each kidney is about 11 cm long, 5 cm wide and 3 cm thick. The kidney is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, the renal capsules, adipose capsule and a fibrous membrane.

Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or nephrons. The medulla consists of multitubular conical masses called the medullary pyramids or renal pyramids whose bases are adjacent to cortex. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves out.

Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis and is conducted along the ureter by peristaltic movements of its walls. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

Urinary bladder is a sac-like structure, which lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. It stores urine temporarily.

Urethra is a membranous tube, which conducts urine to the exterior. The urethral sphincters keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition (urination).

Functions of the kidney:

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Regulate the acid-base balance of the blood.
3. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.
4. Help to retain important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

Structure of Nephron
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys.
Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles.

The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, the U-shaped hairpin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The nitrogenous wastes are drained into renal pelvis which leads to ureters and stored in the urinary bladder. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.

Mechanism of Urine Formation
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

• Glomerular filtration
• Tubular reabsorption and
• Tubular secretion

Glomerular filtration: Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule, The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate. Both essential and non-essential substances present in the blood are filtered.

Tubular reabsorption: The filtrate in the proximal tubule consists of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, vitamins, sodium, potassium, bicarbonates, and water that are reabsorbed into the blood by a process of selective reabsorption.

Tubular secretion: Substances such as H+ or K+ ions are secreted into the tubule. Certain substances like potassium and a large number of drugs like penicillin and aspirin are passed into the filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule. This tubular filtrate is finally known as urine, which is hypertonic in man. Finally, the urine passes into collecting ducts to the pelvis and through the ureter into the urinary bladder by urethral peristalsis (waves of constriction in the ureters.

The relaxation of sphincter muscles located at the opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra. When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition. A healthy person excretes one to two litres of urine per day.

VIII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer.
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false
d. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 1.
Assertion: Urea is excreted out through the kidneys
Reason: Urea is a toxic substance.
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In both, the sexes gonads perform the dual function
Reason: Gonads are also called primary sex organs
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

XI. Match the parts of the given figure with the correct option.

Question 1.

1	2	3	4	5
a. Fallopian tube	Oviduct	Uterus	Cervix	Vagina
b. Oviduct	Cervix	Vagina	Ovary	Vas deferens
c. Ovary	Oviduct	Uterus	Vagina	Cervix
d. Fallopian tube	Ovary	Cervix	Uterus	Vagina

Answer:

1. a. Fallopian tube,
2. d. Ovary,
3. d. Cervix,
4. d. Uterus,
5. a. Vagina

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then which event in the stomach will be affected?
a. digestion of starch into sugars.
b. breaking of proteins into peptides.
c. digestion of nucleic acids.
d. breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids.
Answer:
b. breaking of proteins into peptides.

Question 2.
Name the blood vessel that
a. enter Malpighian capsule and
b. leaves the Malpighian capsule.
Answer:
a. Afferent arteriole.
b. Efferent arteriole.

Question 3.
Why do you think that urine analysis is an important part of medical diagnosis?
Answer:
Analysis of urine helps to detect

• diabetes
• kidney malfunctions
• liver diseases and
• Urinary tract functions.

Similarly, in the case of back pain, blood in the urine or painful urination also required urine analysis. Thus urine analysis is an important part of medical diagnosis.

Question 4.
Why does your doctor advise you to drink plenty of water?
Answer:
The doctor advises to drink more water as;

• Water helps to maximize physical performance.
• Hydration has a major effect on energy levels and brain function.
• Drinking water may help to prevent and treat headaches.
• Drinking more water may help relieve constipation.

Question 5.
Can you guess why there are sweat glands on the palm of our hands and the soles of our feet?
Answer:
Sweating on the palm of our hands and soles of our feet is more related to the mental and emotional status of an individual and not by heat. This also acts to prevent slippage while performing delicate tasks using fingers.

Activity

Question 1.
Look at the pictures given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are the teeth of animals similar to ours?
2. How is the shape of their teeth related to their food habit?

Answer:

1. Not all teeth are similar to ours.
2. The lion is a carnivore and hence canine teeth are predominant.
   The buffalo is a herbivorous animal and incisors are predominant in them.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
Write the function of the following organ systems: Muscular system, Endocrine system, Sensory system, Excretory system.
Answer:

• Muscular system: Involved in the contraction and relaxation resulting movement.
• Endocrine system: Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems.
• Sensory system: This helps in sight, smell, hearing, taste, and touch.
• Excretory system: Elimination of nitrogenous waste products.

Question 2.
What are the three stages of urine formation?
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption and
3. Tubular secretion

Question 3.
What are the functions of the liver?
Answer:
Functions of Liver

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
• Destroys red blood cells
• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A, and D.
• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)
• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 4.
Draw the excretory system and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a flow chart showing the route of urine flow.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is dialysis or artificial kidney?
Answer:
When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, excessive amounts of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure. For this, an artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of the patient. The patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is called hemodialysis. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation.

Question 7.
What is spermatogenesis?
Answer:
The process of formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.

Question 8.
Describe the three parts of small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal. It comprises of 3 parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

• Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from pancreas).
• Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region. It contains enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
• Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine. It is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi. Absorption of food takes place here.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate the enzymes secreted by the digestive glands secrete in a human body.
Answer:

Digestive glands	Enzymes
Salivary glands	Ptyalin (Salivary amylase)
Gastric glands	Pepsin
	Rennin (in infants)
Pancreas	Pancreatic amylase
	Trypsin
	Chymotrypsin
	Pancreatic lipase
Intestinal glands	Maltase
	Lactase
	Sucrase
	Lipase

Question 2.
Describe the liver and list out its functions.
Answer:
Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish-brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. On the undeside of the liver, the gall bladder is present. It stores the bile which is secreted by the liver. The bile is secreted into the smll intestine when food enters it. Bile helps in the digestion of fats.

Functions of Liver:

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
• Destroys red blood cells
• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A and D.
• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)
• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 3.
Draw a flowchart describing the process of digestion.
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 1 The Envious Neighbour

The Envious Neighbour Warm Up:

Discuss the following:

Question 1.
Ratna Tata, Azim Premji is a few rich people of India who spend a part of their wealth on charity. What influences them to share and care for others?
Answer:
A philanthropic attitude leads to service and caring for others, sharing one’s joys with others, makes one’s life really worth living.

Question 2.
Think of any undesirable quality that you would like to get rid of and discuss it with your friends.
Answer:
My anger is my greatest enemy. All my friends praise me that I have a helping tendency and a sharing heart. But they don’t like me getting angry at times. When I get angry, I lose my self-control and create an unpleasant situation. I would like to get rid of this undesirable quality by keeping myself calm. When I get frustrated, I can count numbers from 1 to 20 slowly, so that my anger can subside during that time.

Question 3.
‘Do you like pets? Why?
Answer:
Yes, I like pets, especially dogs. I have a pet dog at home. I have named it as ‘Caesar’. It is a German Shepherd dog. Pet dogs are man’s best friends. They are loyal, intelligent, devoted and affectionate towards us. They are known to improve our own physical and mental health.

A. Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

Question 1.
They gathered the treasure.
Answer:
The honest old couple

Question 2.
The pine tree under which, I am hurried, to be cut down and made into a mortar.
Answer:
The dog to the good old man

Question 3.
They dug, and found nothing but a quantity of dirt and nasty offal.
Answer:
The envious neighbours

Question 4.
He had not to wait long before he was called into the prince’s palace, and ordered to exhibit his power.
Answer:
The envious old man

Question 5.
BOW, WOW, WOW!
Answer:
The dog

Identify The Character / Speaker – Additional

Question 1.
They seized the dog and killed him.
Answer:
The Wicked old couple

B. Based on your understanding of the story choose the right answers from the given options.

Question 1.
The old farmer and his wife loved the dog
(a) because it helped them in their day-to-day work.
(b) as if it was their own baby.
(c) as they were kind to all living beings.
Answer:
(b) as if it was their own baby

Question 2.
When the old couple became rich, they
(a) gave the dog better food.
(b) invited their greedy neighbours to a feast.
(c) lived a comfortable life and were generous towards their poor neighbours.
Answer:
(c) lived a comfortable life and were generous towards their poor neighbours

Question 3.
The greedy couple borrowed the mortar to make
(a) rich pastry and bean sauce.
(b) magic ash to win rewards.
(c) a pile of gold.
Answer:
(c) a pile of gold

C. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
The old farmer was a kind person. Justify the statement with suitable examples from the story.
Answer:
Once there lived an old farmer in a village. He was an honest man, The farmer and his wife used to work in their fields. He used to help the poor and needy, Their neighbours were an old couple. They were not good people. They were jealous of this old farmer and his wife. They borrowed whatever they wanted from the farmer.

The farmer was never getting cross with the neighbour. The neighbours suffered a lot for their daily food, The farmer gave them a share of his wealth to meet their needs. He tried to change their attitude by helping them in kind. They understood the kindness of the old farmer. The neighbours became very happy and thanked the old farmer. They all lived in harmony and peace.

Question 2.
How did the dog help the farmer even after its death?
Answer:
The dog appeared in his dream and told him to cut the pine tree, make it into a mortar and use it, thinking of it, as if it were the dog itself. The old man did as was told. When he ground his rice in it, each grain turned into some rich treasure.

Question 3.
Why did the Prince reward the farmer but punish the neighbour for the same act?
Answer:
A certain prince hearing of the power of the ashes sent for the good old man. He sprinkled the ashes on the withered plum and cherry trees. The trees began to shoot out and blossom. So, the Prince gave him a rich reward of pieces of silk and cloth and other presents. The wicked old man also entered the Princes place to show his power of reviving dead trees.

The Prince ordered him to. exhibit his power. When he climbed up into a withered tree and scattered the ashes, not a but or flower appeared. All the ashes flew into the Prince’s eyes and mouth, blinding and chocking him. When the retainers saw this they seized the old man and beat him almost to death. He and his wife found out that they had fallen into a trap. They scolded themselves for their act of greed.

Question 4.
Bring out the difference between two neighbours with suitable examples to support your view.
Answer:
The old farmer was an honest and kind person. He showed kindness to everyone and helped the needy at all times. But his neighbour was an envious person. He was covetous and a stingy old man. These qualities of the two neighbours were clearly shown in the story when they nursed the dog. The good old man fed it with fish and tit-bit from his own kitchen. But when the dog was borrowed for a few days by his neighbour, he prepared a great feast for it not out of concern but to flatter it to show them the place of wealth.

Earlier, the dog had received nothing but cuffs and kicks from this wicked man. When the dog did not help the wicked man, he killed it. The wicked did a lot of misdeeds to the good old farmer. Yet they forgave him and his wife and gave them a share of their own riches.

D. Refer to what happens in the folktale and complete the story with the help of the hints given in the mind map.

Answers:

1. dog, which
2. who came and borrowed the dog
3. killed it
4. and burnt it
5. and put them in a basket

The Envious Neighbour Summary:

An honest man lived with his wife. They had a pet dog, which they used to feed with fish and tit-bit from their own kitchen. One day, when the couple went to work in their garden, their dog stopped at a place and started to bark. When the couple dug that place, they found gold and silver pieces being buried there. They gathered the treasure and after giving alms to the poor, bought themselves rice-fields and com fields and became wealthy people.

Their neighbours, who were stingy old couple, envied them and borrowed their dog to see if they could find any treasure with the help of the dog. They led the dog out into the garden. It walked along the garden without any barking for a long time. At last, the dog stopped at a certain spot and began to sniff. They hastily dug the spot, but found only dirt and nasty things. Furious at being disappointed, the old couple killed the dog.

When the good old man came to know that his dog was buried at the root of a pine tree, with a heavy heart, he burnt incense and adorned the grave with flowers. That night, the dog appeared to him in his sleep and instructed him to cut down the pine tree where it was buried, make it into a mortar and to use it, thinking of it, as if it were the dog itself. The old man did, as he was told to do, but when he ground his rice in it, each grain of rice turned into some rich treasure.

Seeing this, the wicked couple borrowed the mortar. But as soon as they used it, all their rice turned into filth. So, in anger, they broke it and burnt it. One night, the dog appeared again to the old man in his dream. It told him to sprinkle the ashes of the burnt mortar on withered trees. The trees would revive and bloom with flowers.

He obeyed the dog, as instructed, bringing the dead trees to life. A certain prince utilised his power and gave him a rich reward. But the envious neighbours got thrashing from the guards of the prince when they tried to do the same act. Finally, when the good old couple heard of this, they sent for the neighbours and gave them a share of their own riches. After this, the wicked people mended their ways and led a good and virtuous life ever after.

The Envious Neighbour Glossary:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Prose Chapter 7 A Birthday Letter

A Birthday Letter Warm Up:

Question 1.
Have you ever received a personal letter from your friends or relatives?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 2.
If yes, from whom and about what?
Answer:
I have received letters from my brother who stays in Coimbatore, enquiring about my health and well-being and also about how I spent my summer vacation.

Question 3.
Have you ever written a personal letter to anyone?
Answer:
Yes, I have.

Question 4.
If yes, to whom and about what?
Answer:
I have written letters to my cousin who stays in Kerala, enquiring about how she did in her annual examinations.

A Birthday Letter Intext Questions

Question 1.
From which prison did Nehru write this letter?
Answer:
Nehru wrote this letter from Naini prison.

Question 2.
Did Nehru send any presents to Indira?
Answer:
No, he did not send any solid material presents.

Question 3.
Which historical character inspired young Indira?
Answer:
The historical character Joan of Arc inspired young Indira.

Question 4.
What helps ordinary men and women to become heroes?
Answer:
History helps ordinary men and women to become heroes.

Question 5.
Who is addressed as ‘Bapuji’?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi is addressed as Babuji.

Question 6.
What should the soldiers of India respect?
Answer:
The soldiers of India should respect India’s honour.

A Birthday Letter Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Why could not Nehru send any presents to Indira?
Answer:
As Nehru was in the prison, he could not send any presents to Indira.

Question 2.
What cannot be stopped even by the high walls of prisons?
Answer:
Mind and spirit cannot be stopped even by the high walls of prisons.

Question 3.
Why did Nehru dislike sermonizing?
Answer:
Nehru disliked sermonizing because he thought that only talking and discussing is the best way to find what is right or wrong.

Question 4.
What does history tell us?
Answer:
History tells us the life of nations, of great men and women.

Question 5.
What do ordinary men and women usually think of?
Answer:
Ordinary men and women usually think of their bread and butter, of their children, of their household worries, and the like.

Question 6.
When do ordinary men and women become heroes?
Answer:
A time comes when a whole people become interested in a great cause. Then history helps even simple, ordinary men and women to become heroes.

Question 7.
What does the phrase ‘great drama’ refer to?
Answer:
The phrase ‘great drama’ refers to the activities of the people of India in the great freedom movement under Babuji’s leadership.

Question 8.
Why are the freedom fighters under Gandhi not afraid of anything?
Answer:
The freedom fighters under Gandhi are not afraid of anything as there is no room for secrecy or hiding.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Mention the topics that Nehru wrote about in his letters to Indira?
Answer:
In his letters to Indira, Nehru wrote about languages, trade, history, geography, science, epics and evolution.

Question 2.
What impact did the letters have on Indira?
Answer:
The letters written to the teenager contained Nehru’s understanding of the world which he wanted to impart to his daughter Indira. It is no wonder that such letters made her the strong personality our previous generation saw in her.

Question 3.
What did the great leaders in India do to the deprived?
Answer:
The great leaders helped to free those who were starving, those in poverty and the oppressed and make them happy.

Question 4.
What do you know of the great Freedom movement?
Answer:
The great Freedom Movement was under Bapuji’s leadership. There was no room for secrecy or hiding under his rule. They did not do anything in secret and hence they were undaunted in their spirit. They worked in the light and under the sun.

B. Answer the following in about 80-100 words each.

Question 1.
Explain the important elements of Nehru’s letter.
Answer:
Title: A Birthday letter
Author: Jawaharlal Nehru
Characters: Jawaharlal Nehru and his daughter Indira.
Theme: “As we sow, so we reap”.

Topper’s Paragraph:
Jawaharlal Nehru is in Naini prison. He is unable to send a birthday present to his young daughter Indira who is just 13 years old. Instead of sending a gift, he sends a birthday letter to her. Though he wishes to talk to her, he writes a letter to his daughter. He reminds her of her fascination towards the historical character in the story of Joan of Arc which she has read earlier.

Nehru emphasises the significance of history that can make men and women heroic in their lives. He is of the view that history helps even simple, ordinary people to become heroes. He tells her about the great leaders who can inspire the whole people and make them do great deeds. He also tells the magic of Babuji’s message that has stolen the hearts of millions of Indians. They have made history in the present.

Nehru and Indira are even fortunate to see it and take some part in the great drama. Nehru insists on being courageous. He induces the spirit to respect India’s honour which is a secret trust. He cites Babuji’s leadership that has no secrecy or hiding.

Nehru wants his daughter to the group in the light unafraid, serene, and unruffled. Finally, he tells her o make friends in the light and do nothing secretly. Nehru is quite confident that Indira will grow up into a brave soldier in India’s service.

“Be brave and all the rest follows”.

Question 2.
Imagine yourself as Indira and write a reply letter to your father, Nehru for the letter your received on your birthday.
Answer:

Mussoorie,
October 31, 1930.

My dear Papa,

Thank you so much for your wonderful birthday gift – a letter – a true gift though not solid or material. Your heartfelt wishes and your words mean a lot to me. Your mind and spirit guide me from wherever you are. Your letter isn’t advice or a sermon, the words are powerful enough to trigger the potential within me to fight for our nation. I understand that Bapuji focuses on truth, courage, fearlessness, openness, hard work, peace, straight-forwardness and non-violence. I shall follow your words and grow up into a brave soldier in India’s service.

With all my love and good wishes,

Your loving daughter,
Indira.

Vocabulary:

C. Match the words with the correct Synonym and Antonym from the table.

Answer:

D. Identify, whether the following statements are of OPINION or FACT.

Question 1.
On your birthday, you have been in the habit of receiving presents and good wishes. (Opinion / Fact)
Answer:
Fact

Question 2.
I have liked my talks with you. (Opinion / Fact)
Answer:
Opinion

Question 3.
The best way to find what is wrong and right is by discussing. (Opinion / Fact)
Answer:
Fact

Question 4.
A letter can hardly take the place of a talk. (Opinion / Fact)
Answer:
Opinion

Question 5.
For the desire to hide anything means that you are afraid. (Opinion / Fact)
Answer:
Fact

Listening:

E. “listen to the dialogue and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Aadhav and Raghav are ________.
(a) brothers
(b) friends
(c) colleagues
(d) classmates
Answer:
(a) brothers

Question 2.
The brothers are planning to celebrate their ________wedding anniversary.
(a) uncle’s
(b) parents’
(c) grandparents’
(d) sister’s
Answer:
(b) parents

Question 3.
The wedding anniversary is on ________.
(a) March 2nd
(b) April 2nd
(c) May 2nd
(d) June 2nd
Answer:
(b) April 2nd

Question 4.
As part of the celebration, the brothers have planned to make their parents to ________.
(a) visit an orphanage
(b) donate some money
(c) plant a mango sapling
(d) conduct a game
Answer:
(c) plant a mango sapling

Question 5.
State whether the statement is true or false.
The brothers have decided to borrow money for the wedding anniversary celebration.
Answer:
False

Reading:

F. Answer the following questions based on the given reading passage.

Question 1.
What is the name of her diary?
Answer:
Kitty is the name of her diary.

Question 2.
Why did Anne want to exchange the book ‘Camera Obscura’?
Answer:
Anne’s sister Margot already has it. So, Anne wanted to exchange it.

Question 3.
Who baked the homemade cookies?
Answer:
Anne baked the homemade cookies.

Question 4.
What game did Anne choose to play?
Answer:
Anne chose to play volleyball.

Question 5.
Which gift did Anne value the most?
Answer:
Anne valued the diary the most.

Speaking:

G. Imagine you are going to celebrate your forthcoming birthday at an orphanage/ bid-age home.
Deliver a short speech about your birthday celebration by using the following hints.

• The reasons for choosing an orphanage/old-age home.
• The people who accompany you.
• The food which you are going to offer them.
• The useful gifts/articles which you are going to give them.
• Other events like cake cutting, conducting games, etc.

Answer:
Good morning everybody. I am going to speak about my birthday celebration this year. On my birthday, we decided to celebrate it in a different way, a day to remember. So we went to Mother Teresa Ashram in T.Nagar, Chennai.

First, my younger sister and I played with the children there. We distributed them ” games materials like a bat, ball, chocolates, etc. My parents decorated the hall with balloons and flowers. Then we celebrated the birthday by cutting a cake. The mother and other sisters of the orphanage gave me blessings. The children presented me with flowers to show their love.

Then, we had lunch with them. We enjoyed it there the whole day. It is our duty to help them. After coming back home, I felt a little sad about the plight of the people there. But I decided to go there and celebrate every year.

Thank you.

Writing:

H. Write a meaningful paragraph using the hints given below.

Mahesh – celebrates – 14th birthday – an old-age home – family, friends – informs home in advance – delegates tasks – friends buy things necessary – arrives home early – decorates place – balloons, colour papers – inmates gathered – cuts cake – sing-song, claps – distributes cakes – expresses his feelings – gets blessings – offers things – bedsheets, footwear, etc. needed – fun, entertainment – happy and content.
Answer:
Mahesh celebrated his 14th birthday at an old age home with his family and friends. His parents had informed the home in advance to delegate tasks. His friends bought all the necessary things for the inmates of the old age home. His friends arrived home early, decorated the place with balloons and colour papers. The inmates gathered at the hall and Mahesh cut a cake. Everybody sang the birthday song and clapped happily. Mahesh distributed cakes to all. He expressed his feelings and got their blessings. He offered them things like bedsheets, footwear, etc. There was a lot of fun and entertainment programmes. He was very happy and contented.

Grammar:

A. Choose the Correct Determiner

Question 1.
Could you bring me_______tools I left in the garden? (this, those, these)
Answer:
Those

Question 2.
________Earth revolves around the sun. (the, a, an)
Answer:
The

Question 3.
I found ________one rupee coin in the playground while playing, (a, an, the)
Answer:
a

Question 4.
There aren’t ________students in the library, (much, many, a lot)
Answer:
many

Question 5.
It was ________unforgettable experience, (a, an, the)
Answer:
an

Question 6.
I haven’t got ________pictures in my bedroom, (some, any, many)
Answer:
any

Question 7.
He said that he wanted to become ________engineer, (a, an, the)
Answer:
an

Question 8.
Kokila gave a pen to ________ child in the classroom on her birthday, (any, all, each)
Answer:
each

Question 9.
I’ve got to solve math problems before I go to sleep, (all, some, any)
Answer:
some

Question 10.
India is the largest democracy in the world, (a, an, the)
Answer:
the

Question 11.
My father doesn’t drink coffee, (much, many, a lot)
Answer:
much

Question 12.
I always keep ________ money in my wallet for emergencies, (any, every, some)
Answer:
some

Question 13.
This year we are celebrating my sister’s ________birthday, (a, two, second)
Answer:
second

Question 14.
I have ________ pencils with me. (a, three, third)
Answer:
three

Question 15.
‘What is that noise?’ I think it is ________ airplane, (a, an, the)
Answer:
an

B. Observe the following call-outs. Reporter (C) has reported the sentences of Speaker (A). Now, help Reporter (C) report the rest of the sentences of Speaker (A).

Answers:

1. He said that he won’t go to the party.
2. She asked when did you come?
3. She warned you not to touch the wire.
4. I’ll bring some coffee.
5. He said that he would bring some coffee for you.
6. Please sit down.
7. He requested you to sit down

C. Report the following sentences.

Question 1.
Banu said, “Do not spoil the eco-system.”
Answer:
Banu advised not to spoil the ecosystem.

Question 2.
Pranav said, “Have you booked the tickets to Delhi?”
Answer:
Pranav asked whether I had booked the tickets to Delhi.

Question 3.
Rekha said to Tilak, “When are we leaving to our native?”
Answer:
Rekha asked Tilak when they were leaving to their native.

Question 4.
Sujith said, “Ryan, you should get up early in the morning.”
Answer:
Sujith advised Ryan that he should get up early in the morning.

Question 5.
Vivaan said to his mother, “Can you, please, buy me a hot chocolate?”
Answer:
Vivaan requested his mother to buy him a hot chocolate.

Question 6.
“Tomorrow I have to take a test in English”, said Sudan
Answer:
Sudar said that he had to take a test in English the next day.

Question 7.
Pragathi said to her sister, “I need your help to arrange the books in the shelf.”
Answer:
Pragathi asked her sister’s help to arrange the books in the shelf.

Question 8.
“Why don’t you use crayons for colouring?” said Dhilip to his son.
Answer:
Dhilip suggested his son use crayons for colouring.

D. Write a Diary entry each day for a month and compile them into a book. You may also name your diary as Anne Frank did.

1st February 2018

Dear Kibu,
Being the first day of the month, I went to the temple before going to school. I asked God to be with me, guide, and lead me this month.
I cannot forget the morning assembly. It was about Mother Theresa. The theme was to Help the Needy. Time is fleeting. I must focus in my studies and get good marks. I must aim to be a doctor and help the needy.

2nd February 2018

Dear Kibu,
Today I had the opportunity to go by metro with my mom. The station was spic and span. There weren’t many commuters. Most of them were decent and disciplined. I could not find anyone littering the area. There was orderliness while buying the tickets. The announcements were meticulous. The doors opened and shut automatically. We realized that mobile phones weren’t working inside the station. What amazed me was the time taken to travel even long distances! I doubt anyone would commute to far-off places by buses when metros take us a short time.

3rd February 2018

Dear Kibu,
My exam starts tomorrow and I’m slightly scared. Tomorrow is my first exam. French isn’t tough for me. However, I’m so anxious these days cause I want to get the first mark. Until my Math exam is over, I won’t be able to breathe properly. I have always had a very sound sleep and now I’m sleepless! I am sure I can overcome the stress and do pretty well with systematic studies, meticulous revision, and God’s help.

A Birthday Letter by Jawaharlal Nehru About the Author:

Jawaharlal Nehru (14 November 1889 – 27 May 1964) was the first Prime Minister. He emerged as an eminent leader of the Indian independence movement under the tutelage of Mahatma Gandhi. He served India as Prime Minister from 1947 until his death in 1964. He is considered to be the architect of the modern Indian nation-state: a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. His birthday is celebrated as Children’s Day.

He was a prolific writer in English and wrote a number of books, such as The Discovery of India, Glimpses of World History, and his autobiography, Toward Freedom. In 1955, Nehru was awarded Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour by then President Rajendra Prasad.

A Birthday Letter Summary:

The letters written by Nehru from the various prisons in British India to his daughter Indira were published in 1942 as a book called “Glimpses of World History”. It is a collection of 196 letters on World History. This extract is about a letter written by Jawaharlal Nehru to his daughter Indira when he was in the Central Prison at Naini. As he was not able to send a gift to Indira on her birthday, he writes to her. Though presents are appreciated, letters can equally be cherished as gifts. Nehru disliked giving sermons or advice because he believed that only by talking and discussing, sometimes a little bit of truth comes out.

The two factors that make ordinary men heroes are full faith in a great cause and love and respect for the nation. Mahatma Gandhi inspired millions of people to fight for freedom. He has helped to make the starving, the poor, and the oppressed free and happy. If we are to be India’s soldiers, we have to respect India’s honour which is a sacred trust. He advises Indira not to do anything in secret or wish to hide anything. She should always stand bold and be brave always. Only then, she will grow up to be a child of the light, unafraid, calm, and peaceful. He concludes finally by wishing her to grow up into a brave soldier in India’s service.

A Birthday Letter Glossary:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 7 The Christmas Truce

The Christmas Truce Warm Up: 

Question.
Name one festival which you like the most.
Answer:
The festival which I like the most is Navarathri.

Question.
How do you celebrate that festival?
Answer:
We celebrate the festival by arranging beautiful dolls as Kolu at home.

Question.
A Narrate a memorable incident which happened during that celebration?
Answer:
During a Navarathri Kolu, a press reporter took snaps of our doll arrangement. That week, we received a special prize for best Kolu. Our Kolu picture appeared in the newspaper.

The Christmas Truce Textual Questions

A. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The story is set during the _________.
(a) World War I
(b) World War II
(c) Kargil War
(d) Indo-China War
Answer:
(a) World War I

Question 2.
The story is about the celebration of _________festival.
(a) Deepavali
(b) Pongal
(c) Ramzan
(d) Christmas
Answer:
(d) Christmas

Question 3.
Tom called the incidents happened there as a _________.
(a) fairy tale
(b) poetry
(c) tragedy
(d) comedy
Answer:
(a) fairy tale

Question 4.
The Germans had placed Christmas trees in front of their _________.
(a) houses
(b) trenches
(c) tanks
(d) cars
Answer:
(b) trenches

Question 5.
One of the German soldiers worked as a _________ at Victoria Station.
(a) tea-seller
(b) ticket-checker
(c) porter
(d) shop keeper
Answer:
(c) porter

Additional Questions

Question 1.
It is a ……………….. soldier’s letter to his sister on how all enmity was forgotten.
(a) British
(b) German
(c) Indian
(d) Chinese
Answer:
(a) British

Question 2.
The British soldier was on the battlefields of …………………. .
(a) London
(b) India
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(c) France

Question 3.
Sniper means ……………. .
(a) Dog
(b) Gunman
(c) Bird
(d) Rifle
Answer:
(d) Rifle

Question 4.
The German’s first trench was only ………………… yards from ours.
(a) hundred
(b) five hundred
(c) fifty
(d) ten
Answer:
(c) fifty

B. Identify the Character, Speaker or both of the following lines.

1. Our first complete silence in months!
2. Come and see! See what the Germans are doing!
3. Hold your fire.
4. You no shoot, we no shoot.
5. My God, why cannot we have peace and all go home? Ans: Older German soldier

Answers:

1. Tom.
2. John.
3. The British Captain.
4. One of the German soldiers.
5. Older German soldier.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
It is a letter to his sister.
Answer:
British soldier’s sister Janet

Question 2.
It splatters and cakes everything, and constantly sucks at our boots.
Answer:
British Soldier Tom

Question 3.
I grabbed my rifle, stumbled out into the trench, and stuck my head cautiously above the sandbags.
Answer:
Tom

Question 4.
“Christmas trees!”
Answer:
John

Question 5.
Stillenacht, heiligenacht.
Answer:
Carol sung by German soldiers

C. Answer the following question in about 100 -120 words.

Question 1.
Narrate the Christmas celebration as happened in the war field.
Answer:
Title: The Christmas Truce
Author: Aaron Shepard
Character: British and German Soldiers
Period: During world war I (1914)
Theme: War and peace.

The German and British troops celebrated Christmas together during a temporary cessation of world war I. It is called Christmas Truce. On a clear morning 100 years, thousands of British soldiers laid down their rifles, stepped out their trenches, and spent Christmas mingling with their German enemies along the western front.

The next morning in some places, German soldiers emerged from their trenches calling out “Merry Christmas” in English. Allied soldiers came out wearily to greet them. In others, Germans held up signs reading “You no shoot, we no shoot”. Over the course of the day, troops exchanged gifts of food, buttons, and hats.

The Christmas truce also allowed both sides to finally bury their dead comrades whose bodies had lain for weeks on “no man’s land,” the ground between opposing trenches. The British and German army soccer teams played a friendly match.

The incident speaks to the fact that at its heart it symbolizes a very human desire for peace, no matter how fleeting. Still the truce has been remembered as a testament to the power of hope and humanity in a truly dark hour of history.

“Never wage a war but peace”.

D. Think and answer.

Question 1.
Do you envision a similar truce taking place in any wars or fighting today? Explain.
Answer:
It is interesting to envision a truce taking place in any war as it happened in World War I in 1914. Often I used to think about the war between India and Pakistan. It is a never-ending war between the two countries. These no nations declare ceasefire or cessation of war temporarily. The common festivals like Diwali or Ramzan are celebrated by the soldiers in No man’s land between the borders of two countries.

They exchange their gifts and their love for one another. Though they enjoy the fervour of peace and harmony, war is inevitable as they have to obey the orders and go ahead in the war. They could not help it and go with it. But it is exciting to envision the enemies in the battlefield befriending and celebrating Diwali or Ramzan or any other festival for that matter.

“Peace can end the war but war can’t bring peace”.

Question 2.
Today, much of what we know about the truce comes from soldiers’ postcards home. In the postcard given below, write a short message home, imagine that you took part in the 1914 Christmas Truce.

Answer:
My dear Mom,

It was a wonderful Christmas this year. We had the opportunity of celebrating ‘ with our foes. Sorry, they are our friends now. We crossed boundaries, exchanged gifts, and sang Christmas songs.

It’s all like a dream. I couldn’t believe that the Germans would be too kind, lovable. Hope all this truce ends soon. We long for peace.

Yours,
John.

The Christmas Truce by Aaron Shepard About The Author:

Aaron Shepard was bom on October 7th, 1950. He is the award-winning author of Savitri. He is well known for many children’s books. Aaron’s specialty is retelling folktales and ‘. other traditional literature from around the world.

The Christmas Truce Summary:

This story unfolds a Truce of how the foes on a warrior front become friends on a Christmas eve. It is a British soldier’s letter to his sister. A surprised brother writes to his sister something almost like a fairy tale that blended the enemy soldiers to sing carols before the fire on the battlefields of France. After the first battle was over with many dead soldiers on both sides they were waiting for replacements to come from home. It was a terrible wait expecting an artilleiy shell that would explode and kill or maim several men.

The rain played the worst havoc that made the boots stuck to the ground. This was the case for the German soldier separated by fifty yards bordered by no man’s land-yet close enough as their voices could be heard. We hated them as they had killed many of our soldiers. But we almost felt that we had something in common. As we were experiencing a good freeze with little shelling or rifle fire from either sides, the shooting stopped as darkness fell. But, we were informed that there might be a sudden attack by the Germans.

Waking up, I saw an unbelievable sight as the Germans had placed Christmas trees in front of their trenches lit by candles or lanterns. They started singing carols and we too joined them. Though we couldn’t understand their language, the tune of the song made it clear that they were singing carols. Finally we agreed to cross over and join them to celebrate Christmas forgetting that we were in the war zone.

British Khaki and German’s grey mingled over the bonfire. Many knew English as they had worked in England before. Just when we finished and started to go to our spots, an old German soldier clutched my arm and asked why can’t we just have peace and go home. We are just soldiers following orders and protecting our nation. But I hope, a day will come when there will be no wars when such spirit will be felt by world leaders to offer good wishes instead of warnings, gifts in place of retaliation. All nations want peace, though the author wonders if the wanting is quite enough.

The Christmas Truce Glossary:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 Water – The Elixir of Life

Water – The Elixir of Life Warm Up:

Question 1.
Do you think the living organisms in this planet can survive without water? Why?
Answer:
No, because water is required by all living organisms in various processes for their survival.

Question 2.
Where do you get your drinking water from?
Answer:
I get drinking water from borewell and corporation pumps.

Question 3.
Is the drinking water you use in your home treated?
Answer:
No, the drinking water we use is not treated.

Question 4.
If not, how do you purify it?
Answer:
Water is purified by filtration.

Water – The Elixir of Life Intext Questions

Question 1.
What is the imaginary elixir of life?
Answer:
Divine Amritha is the imaginary elixir of life.

Question 2.
What according to the writer is the real elixir of life?
Answer:
According to the writer, water is the real elixir of life.

Question 3.
What is the ‘wonderful difference’ the writer talks about in the passage?
Answer:
The sea of billowing sand without a speck of green or a single living thing on it was on one side. On the other side lay the most fertile and densely populated area teeming with life and vegetation. The writer (author) talks about this wonderful difference.

Question 4.
What is the ‘cheering sight’ mentioned in the paragraph?
Answer:
The rain-fed tanks that are so common in South India are a cheering sight when they are full.

Question 5.
What does the writer compare water in a landscape to?
Answer:
The writer(author) compares water in a landscape to the eyes iii a human face.

Question 6.
How does the water in rainfed tanks get its colour?
Answer:
The water in the rain fed tank carry slit or finely divided soil in suspension. This is the origin of the characteristic colour of the water in the rain fed tanks.

Question 7.
What is the main cause of soil erosion?
Answer:
Sudden burst of excessively heavy rain in large run of surplus water is the principal cause of soil erosion.

Question 8.
What other factors add to the erosion of precious soil?
Answer:
The slope of land, removal of natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence of ruts along which the water can flow with rapidly gathering momentum and the absence of any checks of such flow are the other factors that add to the erosion of precious soil.

Question 9.
How can soil erosion be prevented?
Answer:
Soil erosion can be prevented by:

1. Terracing of land
2. Construction of bunds to check the flow of water
3. The practice of contour cultivation
4. The planting of appropriate types of vegetation.

Question 10.
How does the prevention of soil erosion serve a double purpose?
Answer:
The prevention of soil erosion would help to conserve and keep the water where it is wanted, in other words, on and in the soil. Thus it serves a double purpose.

Question 11.
What are the two sources of water?
Answer:
The artesian water and rain or snow fall are the two sources of water.

Question 12.
What happens to the rainwater?
Answer:
The rainwater flows down into the streams and rivers and ultimately finds its way to the sea.

Question 13.
What is the idea of the civilized forest?
Answer:
The systematic planting of suitable trees in every possible or impossible areas and their development is called civilized forests. It is the most urgent need of India. Such plantation will prove a source of untold wealth to the country.

Question 14.
How can you check soil erosion?
Answer:
The terracing of the land, the construction of bunds, the practice of contour cultivation and the planting of some types of vegetation are the measures that can be used to check soil erosion.

Question 15.
What are the cheapest means of transport?
Answer:
The cheapest means of transport in a country is by boats and barges through canals and rivers.

Question 16.
How can you make a difference in the countryside?
Answer:
The availability of electric power would make a tremendous difference to the life of the countryside and enable rural economy to be improved in various directions.

Water – The Elixir of Life Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions briefly in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What makes water one of the most powerful and wonderful things on earth?
Answer:
Water has played a role of vast significance in shaping the course of the earth’s history. It continues to play a key role in life on the surface of our planet. Thus it makes the most powerful and wonderful things on earth.

Question 2.
How does water help in the formation of fertile lands?
Answer:
The water has its power to carry slit or finely divided soil in suspension. The great tracts of land formed by slit thus deposited is evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas. Thus, water helps in the formation of fertile lands.

Question 3.
How does soil erosion happen and what are its main causes?
Answer:
Sudden bursts of excessive heavy rain, slope of the land, removal of the natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence if ruts along which the water flows rapidly and the absence of checks to such flow are the causes of soil erosion.

Question 4.
What are some measures that are used to prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The terracing of land and construction of bunds to check the flow of water, the practice of contour cultivation, and the planting of appropriate types of vegetation are few measures to check erosion.

Question 5.
How, according to Sir C. V. Raman, can rainwater as well as the water of rivers be, prevented from going to waste?
Answer:
The harnessing of our rivers must be considered and dealt with on the national line. The systematic planting of trees would check soil erosion and conserve the rainfall from flowing away to waste, according to Sir C.V. Raman.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
How will development of hydro-electric power be a resource?
Answer:
Development of hydro-electric power will enable tapping of underground water which requires electricity and thus overcome the inadequacies of other sources of water.

Question 2.
What is far from an exhausted field of research?
Answer:
The investigation of nature and properties of water is considered the highest scientific interest and is far from an exhausted field of research.

Question 3.
When and where did the author notice not a single living being?
Answer:
The author noticed not a single living being while standing on the line which separated the Libyan Desert from the Valley of the Nile in Egypt. The desert was without a speck of green.

Question 4.
How is the Nile valley soil created?
Answer:
Nile valley soil is created by the river itself. It is brought down as the finest silt in its flood waters, from the highlands of Abyssinia and from remote Central Africa. It is laid down through the ages in the trough through which the Nile flows into the sea.

Question 5.
How is the great tracts of land formed by deposition of silt evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas?
Answer:
Great tracts of land formed by silt deposition is evident on an examination of the soil in alluvial areas. When silt-laden water mixes with the salt water of the sea, there is rapid precipitation of the suspended matter. The colour of the water changes successively from red or brown shades of silt through varying shades of yellow and green before it becomes blue of the deep sea.

Question 6.
Why is physiological activity impossible where fluid does not play an important role?
Answer:
Water is the elixir of all life. Even fauna and flora contains a considerable proportion of free or combined water in its body. Hence, physiological activity is impossible where the fluid does not play an important role.

Question 7.
State the national problem which must be considered and dealt with on national lines.
Answer:
Water conservation is a national problem which must be considered and dealt with on national lines. Unbelievably, large quantities of the precious fluid are not conserved. Our rivers, mostly run to waste and harnessing it is vital.

B. Answer the following in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
How does C.V. Raman show that water Is the real elixir of life?
Answer:
Title: Water – The Elixir of Life
Author: Sir C.V.Raman
Character: The author
Theme: “Waste not, Want not”

According to Sir C.V. Raman, water is the elixir of life. Water is the most wonderful and powerful thing on earth. In ancient times civilization developed near the rivers. It has shaped the course of the earth’s history. It continues to play the key role in life on the surface of our planet. Water adds to the beauty of the country side.

Water is the basis of all life. Water is necessary for animal life. The moisture in the soil is imperative for the life and growth of plants and trees. The vast areas of land could be turned into fertile and prosperous land by well planned action.

Water is the commonest of liquids. But it is uncommon of liquids with amazing properties. They are responsible for maintaining human, animal and plant life. The study of the nature and properties of water is of the highest interest. It is far from an exhausted field of research.

“Make hay while the sun shines”

Question 2.
Water exists in all plant and animal forms – Explain.
Answer:
If there is plenty of water and abundant rainfall, there will be good growth of plants. The population of animals depending on these plants will increase. On the other hand, if there is a drought, there will be a smaller supply of plants. The animals depending on these plants will decrease in population as a result of the decrease in the plant population. Water is the fundamental necessity for both animal and plant forms.

Question 3.
Life cannot exist on earth without water – Explain.
Answer:
Title: “Water – The Elixir of Life”
Author: Sir C.V. Raman
Theme: No life is possible without water.
“Water is the basis of all life”

Life cannot exit on earth without water. This common substance, in our everyday life, is the most potent and most powerful thing on the earth. It has played a significant role in shaping the earth’s history and continues the leading role in the drama of life. Water is the basis of all life. Every animal or plant contains a large proportion of water in its body.

No physiological activities is possible in which the fluid does not play an essential part. Water is necessary for animal life. Moisture in the soil is a must for the life and growth of plants and trees, But the quantity varies greatly with the species. Water is essential in human life too. It is, thus, fundamental for human welfare.
“Only water that matters in all life”

Additional:

Question 1.
How is Artesian Water Created?
Answer:
Springs become artesian when the water flows to the surface under natural pressure without pumping. Water flows down a decline into a porous substance such as rock, sand or gravel. The hard rock surrounding the porous substance prevents water to escape through it. In some places the overlying impermeable rocks are broken by joints or faults. A pressure starts building up between two impermeable surfaces. The water underneath is forced out by this pressure and it may escape through the faults to rise to the surface. Most of the times the escape is a well, which becomes the source of the artesian water.

C. Given below are some idioms related to water. Match the idioms with its meaning.

Answers:
1. (d), 2. (i), 3. (f), 4. (b), 5. (j), 6. (h), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (g), 10. (e).

D. Water is a scarce resource. Discuss the causes, problems and solutions to water scarcity and write them below.

Causes :
Conflict: A conflict over an area of land may make it difficult to access the water located there.
Distance: Many areas face water scarcity because they aren’t close to any source of water.
Drought: Some areas do not get enough rainfall to be able to sustain life.
Overuse of Water: The overuse of water on people, animals, land, or recreational activities can cause water scarcity.
Pollution: Water might get polluted by anything from oil, to carcasses, to chemicals, and to fecal matter.

Problems:
Diseases: If we don’t have clean water access, we will be more likely to get diseases.
Hunger: Due to a shortage of water, agricultural lands will not be watered properly. This may cause crop deficiency and people and animals will have to go hungry.
Lack of Drinking Water: The worst outcome of water scarcity is the non-availability of clean drinking water.
Lack of Education: Children might be too sick to even go to school.
Sanitation Issues: The absence of clean water makes it difficult to clean food, dishes, or even to take a bath.

Solutions:
Technology: New and modem methods of water conservation can be applied.
Education: By educating people about water scarcity, we can prevent the problem from becoming worse in the future.
Improved Farming: We must think of farming and irrigation techniques that don’t use much water.
Recycle Water: We can recycle rainwater and use it in factories and homes.
Support Clean Water Initiatives: We can fund such organizations that bring clean water to areas that don’t have it.

Listening:

E. On the basis of the listening passage, choose the correct answer from the given options.

Question 1.
Severn Suzuki represents an organization called ECO which stands for _________.
(a) Ecological Cooperation.
(b) Environmental Coordinating Organization.
(c) Environmental Children’s Organization.
(d) Ecological Children’s Organization.
Answer:
(c) Environmental Children’s Organization

Question 2.
“I am fighting for my future.” The ‘fight’ refers to her ________.
(a) fight to win an election.
(b) fight to gain a few points in share market.
(c) fight against corruption.
(d) fight against environmental pollution.
Answer:
(d) fight against environmental pollution

Question 3.
Animals and fish are becoming extinct because ___________.
(a) they have no place to go.
(b) they die of diseases.
(c) their food and habitat are polluted.
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 4.
It is evident that Severn Suzuki is concerned about all other species too as,____________.
(a) she considers them all belonging to one world.
(b) they have nobody except her to speak for.
(c) they belong to her.
(d) they are all children.
Answer:
(a) she considers them all belonging to one world

Question 5.
Severn Suzuki condemns the people of her country for ____________.
(a) contributing large amounts of waste and not sharing the excess with the needy.
(b) being afraid of the poor.
(c) being angry with the poor belonging to other countries.
(d) being wealthy.
Answer:
(a) contributing large amounts of waste and not sharing the excess with the needy

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true? __________________.
(a) Canada is a rich country and people have in plenty.
(b) Canadian children are privileged.
(c) A Brazilian child was willing to share because she was rich.
(d) Northern countries will not share with the needy
Answer:
(c) Canada is a rich country and people have in plenty

F. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is the humb

le request of the twelve- year -old to the elders?
Answer:
She requests adults to change their ways and save nature for the future.

Question 2.
The dream of Severn Suzuki is
Answer:
She has dreamt of seeing the great herds of wild animals, jungles and rain forests, full of birds and butterflies.

Question 3.
The fear and agony of Severn Suzuki is
Answer:
We make so much waste.

Question 4.
How does she proclaim that she represents the future generation?
Answer:
She calls herself as one of the children starving in Somalia or a victim of war in the Middle East or a beggar in India.

Question 5.
The duties and responsibilities of the parents are
(a) to comfort their children saying that everything will be all right.
(b) _____________.
(c) _____________.
Answer:
(b) To teach children to respect others.
(c) To clean up their mess and not to hurt other creatures.

Speaking:

G. You are the President of CO GREEN, the Environment Club of your school. On the occasion of World Environment Day, you have been asked to address the school on the topic, ‘The Nature of Our Future Depends on the Future of Our Nature’
Answer:

Good morning, esteemed Chief Guest, the Head Master, teachers, dear friends and invitees. I am Shobha, Secretary of GO GREEN, the Environment Club of our school. Today, I stand before you to share my views on the topic “Stopping pollution is the best solution”. We humans have always deceived ourselves by thinking that someone else will save our planet.

Can you imagine… for the past 200 years we have been conquering nature, and now we are beating it to death by constantly polluting it. The Earth is not dying, it is being killed and the people who are killing it have names and addresses. All the human actions in this modem world directly impact the whole ecosystem. Industrial emissions, poor disposal of wastes, mining, deforestation, use of fossil fuels and agricultural activities, ultimately harm the nature which is the sole provider of pure oxygen, food and other requirements of man and animal.

Animals are becoming extinct. There are newer diseases evolving for which diagnosis has become impossible and so takes longer time to find a cure. Due to pollution, the number of various chemical elements is increasing in the atmosphere which ultimately causes irregular rainfall and global warming. Who is responsible? It is time we start thinking and doing our bit to be conservative and eco-friendly.

Let us walk or cycle to our work places/school. Let us not use plastic bags. Let us all keep our surroundings clean and plant at least one tree. As quoted by Lady Bird Johnson, “The Environment is Where we all meet; Where we all have a Mutual Interest; It is the one thing we all Share”. So, let’s be eco-friendly and go green. Thank you. Have a good day.

H. A class of super heroes:

‘CHANGE IS NEEDED, AND IT IS NEEDED NOW’. Let’s meet a class of superheroes who have taken simple sustainability projects upon themselves to tackles the environmental problems in their campus.

Grammar:
Simple present tense

A. Choose the correct form of the present tense verb from the options given.

1. All children something new every day. (learn / learns / learned)
2. A good student always hard, (work/works / worked)
3. Engineers bridges, (build / builds / built)
4. My sister is an architect. She skyscrapers. (design / designs / designed)
5. The Himalayas India from the cold winds. (protect / protects / protected)
6. It always here in the afternoon, (drizzle/drizzles / drizzled)
7. My mother in a factory, (work/works / worked)
8. Chella English very well, but she doesn’t understand Hindi. (speak / speaks / spoke)
9. Cows us milk, (give / gives/ gave)
10. The trains to Chennai always on time, (run / runs / ran)

Answer:

1. learn
2. works
3. build
4. designs
5. protect
6. drizzles
7. works
8. speaks
9. give
10. run

Present Continuous Tense:

B. Make sentences in the present continuous tense using the verb given in brackets.

1. Who is that boy _________ on the table? (stand)
2. What are you _______? (do) I ________ (listen) to music.
3. My brother _________ (work) in London now.
4. I ________ (wait) for my mother.
5. It is better not to disturb her, she ___________ (work).

Answer:

1. standing
2. doing, am listening
3. is working
4. am waiting
5. is working

C. What are they doing? Use the verbs below and write sentences.
eat, cry, play, read, sing, watch.
Answer:

1. Anu is singing.
2. Peter is watching.
3. Sudhan is playing.
4. Velu is reading.
5. Kalai is crying.

D. Look at the picture again and answer the questions.

1. Is Tom reading? __________.
2. Is Velu eating? _____________.
3. Is Kalai dancing? _____________.
4. Is Peter watching TV? _____________.
5. Is Anu crying? _____________.

Answer:

1. No, Tom is eating
2. No, Velu is reading
3. No, Kalai is crying
4. No, Peter is watching through a telescope
5. No, Anu is singing

E. Write the -ing form of the verbs.

1. Come _____________.
2. Take _____________.
3. Fly _____________.
4. Swim _____________.
5. Study _____________.
6. Read _____________.

Answer:

1. Coming
2. Taking
3. Flying
4. Swimming
5. Studying
6. Reading

F. Write negative sentences.

1. He is learning to read.
2. I am having a bath.
3. I’m reading a fantastic book.
4. Raja is driving a new car.
5. I’m looking for my bag.

Answer:

1. No, he isn’t learning to read.
2. No, I am not having a bath.
3. No, I am not reading a fantastic book.
4. No, Raju isn’t driving a new car.
5. No, I am not looking for my bag.

G. Write questions for the answers.

1. _________________?
No, they aren’t singing.
Answer:
Are they singing?

2. _________________?
Yes, She is writing a new book.
Answer:
Is she writing a new book?

3. _________________?
Yes, It is working.
Answer:
Is it working?

4. _________________?
No, he isn’t doing the project.
Answer:
Is he doing the project?

5. _________________?
Yes, We are planning to go.
Answer:
Are we planning to go?

H. Fill in the blanks with verbs in the present continuous.

1. You (listen) to the music.
2. He (cry).
3. I (swim) in the pool.
4. Latha (wait) for her daughter.
5. she (watch) TV?
6. Who he (help)?
7. Her father (not / cook) dinner.
8. Akila Y, (not /sing) a song.
9. My brother (not / do) his homework.
10. your mother (work) today?
11. Amutha and Praba (play) tennis.
12. Amith and Ravi (not / swim) in the lake.

Answer:

1. are listening
2. is crying
3. am swimming
4. is waiting
5. is, watching
6. is, helping
7. is not cooking the
8. is not singing
9. is not doing
10. is, working
11. are playing
12. are not swimming

Present Perfect Tense:

I. Make sentences in the present perfect tense using the verbs in brackets.

1. She to _______________ anybody, (never apologized, has never apologized, have never apologized)
Answer:
has never apologized

2. My mother to _______________ London, (has been, being in, have been)
Answer:
has been

3. I _______________ all the plays of Shakespeare, (read, had read, have read)
Answer:
have read

4. Have you _______________ your lunch? (finish, finished, had finished)
Answer:
finished

5. _______________ he brought his bike? (Had, Has, Have)
Answer:
has

 Present perfect with “ever and never”

J. Have you ever…?
Question:
Have you ever eaten a kiwi fruit?
Answer:
Yes, I have eaten a kiwi fruit.
Or No, I have never eaten a kiwi fruit.

Answer:

Present perfect continuous tense:

K. Make sentences in the present perfect continuous tense using the verbs in brackets.

1. How long _______________ ? (are you waiting, have you been waiting, have you waited)
Answer:
have you been waiting

2. She _______________ in the garden since morning, (is working, has been working, work)
Answer:
has been working

3. I _______________ this mobile for three years, (am using, has used, have been using)
Answer:
have been using

4. The children _______________ in the park, (has been playing, have been playing, had been playing)
Answer:
have been playing

5. The workers _______________ higher wages for a long time, (has been demanding, have been demanding, demand)
Answer:
have been demanding

Simple Past Tense:

L. Complete the story using the past tense of the verbs.

Answer:

1. Knew
2. could
3. was
4. said
5. had
6. found
7. told
8. hid
9. began
10. ran
11. was
12. thought
13. decided
14. fell
15. woke up
16. saw
17. was
18. was
19. ran
20. couldn’t
21. sat
22. got up
23. turned
24. won

M. Finish each clue by changing the verb within brackets to an irregular past-tense verb.Then complete the crossword puzzle.

Across:

1. The lake (freeze) ………. overnight.
2. Hema (buy) ………. a new bicycle.
3. Aravind (give) ………. me a slice of pizza.
4. We (drink) ……….. milk.
5. The dog (sleep) ………… on the sofa.
6. He (write) …………… a letter to his cousin in America.

Down:

1. I (find) ………… a coin on the ground.
2. Tony (teach) …………. his cat to use the litter box.
3. Selvi (blow) ……….. out the candle.

Answers:

Past Continuous Tense:

N. Make sentences in the past continuous tense using the verb in brackets.

1. The children _________ (wait) for the bus.
Answer:
were waiting

2. The girls __________ (leam) their lessons.
Answer:
were learning

3. I ____________ (play) in the rain all evening.
Answer:
was playing

4. Vijay ____________. (repair) his car.
Answer:
was repairing

5. Hari ____________ (work) hard to pass the entrance
Answer:
was working

Past Perfect Tense:

O. Complete the sentences using the past perfect tense.

1. Kalai didn’t complete his homework because ……………… .
2. By the time Sundar got up ………….. .
3. When we reached the park,…………. .
4. Saralah didn’t want to see her …………. .
5. Manohar was laughing because ………….. .

Answers:

1. he had slept
2. his brother had gone for work
3. our friend had already reached
4. brother, though her brother had hoped the same
5. he had smelt the laughing gas

Past Perfect Continuous Tense:

P. Circle the correct verb form in each of the following sentences.

1. Ezhil baked / had been baking a cake when they came.
2. Veeran cleaned/ had been cleaning the room since morning.
3. We worked / had been working in the city for ten years before we moved to the village.
4. The cat had been waiting/was waiting for the mice to come out of its hole.
5. Kannan had been looking/ have been looking for a job for a long time.

Answers:

1. had been baking
2. had been cleaning
3. had been working
4. had been waiting
5. had been looking

Simple Future Tense:

Q. Complete the sentences using the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

1. We hope you …………. (have) a great time in Ooty.
2. I think Manju ……………. (visit) her grandparents during the vacation.
3. Be careful, that mirror ……………. (fall) on the floor.
4. As soon as my father arrives, we …………….(go) to watch the film.
5. When your train arrives, I …………….. (wait) for you at the station.

Answers:

1. will have
2. will visit
3. will fall
4. will go
5. will wait

Future Continuous Tense:

R. Make sentences in the future continuous tense using the verb in brackets.

1. Ashwin …………. (complete) M.B.A.in another two years.
2. I …………….. (go) to Thanjavur by this time tomorrow.
3. Prabha ……………(receive) the best student award in six months’ time.
4. The plane ……………… (leave) at 3 o’clock.
5. He …………… (attend) the conference.

Answers:

1. will be completing
2. will be going
3. will be receiving
4. will be leaving
5. will be attending

S. What is Amala going to do? Given below is Amala’s schedule for next week. Read it and answer the questions using the future continuous tense.

Amala’s Schedule

Question 1.
What will Amala do on Sunday morning?
Answer:
She will be visiting her grand mother.

Question 2.
What is Amala planning to do on Saturday afternoon?
Answer:
She will be preparing sweets.

Question 3.
Where is Amala going on Wednesday morning?
Answer:
Amala will be going to the library to return the books.

Question 4.
Who is Amala meeting on Tuesday morning?
Answer:
Amala will be meeting her friends.

Question 5.
What will she buy on Monday afternoon?
Answer:
Amala will be buying groceries for the week.

Future Perfect Tense:

T. Match words from the different columns to make reasonable predictions. Then write them down in the space below. One has been done as an example.

Write the sentences:

1. In 50 years the ice cap will have melted.
2. …………………………………………………………
3. …………………………………………………………
4. …………………………………………………………
5. …………………………………………………………
6. …………………………………………………………
7. …………………………………………………………

Answers:

1.  In 50 years the ice cap will have melted.
2. In 10 years, the world’s population will have reached 10 billion
3. In 50 years, India will have become the world’s richest country.
4. In 10 years, women will have obtained equal rights with men.
5. In 10 years, Scientists will have discovered a complete cure for cancer.
6. In 50 years, India will have launched a space centre in moon.
7. In 50 years, U.K. will have become one country.

Water – The Elixir of Life About The Author:

Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman (1888-1970) was an Indian physicist bom in Tiruchirappalli. In 1904, he stood first and won the gold medal in physics in the Bachelor of Arts examination of University of Madras. He carried out ground-breaking work in the field of light scattering, which earned him the 1930 Nobel Prize for Physics. He discovered changes in wavelength of some of the deflected light when light traverses a transparent material. This phenomenon, subsequently known as Raman Scattering, results from the Raman effect. To commemorate it, February 28th is celebrated as the National Science Day. In 1954, India honoured him with its highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna.

Water – The Elixir of Life Summary:

Since ages man has sought in vain for an imaginery elixir of life – the divine Amrita which confers immortality. But in reality the true elixir is the water that is freely available. The author remembers once standing on the line that separates Libyan Desert from the valley of the Nile. He could observe a wonderful difference between the desert where there was no life to be seen. On the other side, due to the presence of river Nile the valley has become the most fertile and densely populated land on earth. Geologists explain that this fertility is totally attributed to the river Nile, which flows from the highlands and from remote Central Africa. The Egyptian civilization is sustained by the waters that flow from Nile river.

Water, which we take for granted in our everyday lives, has played a vital role in shaping the course of Earth’s history and continues to do so. Moreover, it adds so much to the beauty of the countryside, such as the streams or ponds and so on. The rainfed tanks are so common in South India and its sad to see its neglected maintenance, though it is a cheering site when they are full. South Indian agriculture is completely dependent on these tanks. Some of these tanks are large enough so that the sun rise or set can be seen over one of them. Water in a landscape may be compared to the eyes in a human face, which reflects the mood of the hour, being bright and gay during the day and turns dark and gloomy when the sky is overcast.

Water has the remarkable feature of carrying silt or finely divided soil in suspension which contributes to the characteristic colour of the water in rainfed tanks. Swiftly flowing water can carry fairly large and heavy particles. These particles are deposited on the areas they flow and settle. The variation in the different layers of soil can be seen in alluvial areas. Such lands are usually very fertile. The flow of water thus has played an important role in shaping the earth. On the contrary it has led to soil erosion which led to heavy loss in agriculture especially in many parts of India.

Soil erosion occurs in successive steps being unnoticed in,the early stages and later forming deep gullies and ravines which make all agriculture impossible. Heavy rains are the prime reason for soil erosion, others include; slope of the land, removal of the natural protective coat of vegetation, the existence of ruts. It calls for urgent prevention measures which includes; terracing of land, construction of bunds, practice of contour cultivation and the planting of appropriate types of vegetation.

In a country like India, such measures has to be taken as they completely depend on seasonal rainfall. Water forms the basis of all life. Every animal or plant requires water for all kinds of physiological activities. In India, afforestation has to be checked and planting of suitable trees in every possible area, and the development of what one can call civilized forests, as distinguished from wild and untamed jungle should be carried out. Such plantation would directly and indirectly prove a source of untold wealth to the country.

Water – The Elixir of Life Glossary:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 5 Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub

Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub Warm Up: 

Question 1.
Why are some animals endangered?
Answer:
An animal is called endangered when only a few of its kind are alive in the world. There are many reasons for a species to become endangered. The environmental conditions on Earth are continually changing. Some animals become endangered because they can no longer survive in the new conditions of their changing habitat. Some other prominent reasons are overhunting by humans and pollution.

Question 2.
Why do wild animals from the forest often enter the human living spaces?
Answer:
Due to urbanisation, people are felling trees and destroying forests to expand their habitable area. This reduces animal habitat due to which they are forced to enter into human living space, in search of food, water and shelter.

Question 3.
Are animals happy in wild life rehabilitation centres?
Answer:
Animals are brought to the wild life rehabilitation centres to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. But the animals might not be happy in captivity. Although they are provided with good sanitary conditions, sufficient enclosures, proper vet care and appropriate feed, they may definitely miss their natural habitat.

Question 4.
Can a rehab animal survive in the wild?
Answer:
Most animals are brought into wildlife rehabilitation centres for help. They are so sick or emaciated that their chances for survival are often slim. They are taken care of and treated under captivity only until able to live independently in the wild. Every effort is made to minimize human contact and prevent the taming of rehabilitation patients. So, when they are released back in their wild habitat, they often survive well.

Question 5.
How many types of bear do you think are there living in the world today?
Answer:
Today, there are only eight species of bears surviving in the world. Except for Antarctica and Australia, all other continents of the world provide habitats for bears.

Vocabulary:

A. use the following phrases in sentences of your own.

1. earn one’s name – make a name for oneself.
She earned her name in politics, as a powerful leader.

2. in the rear of – at the back of.
Harry was sitting in the rear of seat of his car.

3. to see one fight – to struggle to get through something.
I can see him fighting for his right to vote.

4. devoid of – lacking in.
This apartment is devoid of all comforts.

5. air and manner – to behave in a way that does not show how you really feel.
Audy assumed an air and manner of indifference, whenever her name was mentioned.

6. quick as a flash – very quickly.
He was at her side as quick as a flash.

7. in wild haste – rapidly.
It is very important that decisions are not taken in wild haste.

8. make a pass – make advances to someone.
Men seldom make passes at girls who wear glasses.

B. Now refer a dictionary and find idioms on the following animals, birds and insects. Learn their meanings and share what you have learnt with your class. Try to frame illustrative sentences with those idioms. Find opportunities to use them in your everyday conversations.

1. lion – get the lion’s share – get the greatest percentage.
My aunt got the lion’s share of the inheritance.

2. mouse – as poor as a church mouse – very poor.
My cousin is as poor as a church mouse and never has any money to spend.

3. parrot – as sick as a parrot – To be thoroughly displeased.
Tim was as sick as a parrot to be separated from my family.

4. fox – as sly as a fox – smart and clever.
The manager of our apartment is as sly as a fox.

5. hawk – watching like a hawk – watching something very, very closely.
I’m watching you like a hawk.

6. Snake – nurse a snake in one’s bosom – look after.
I have nursed a snake in my bosom all these years.

7. monkey – I’ll be a monkey’s uncle – I’m very surprised.
Well, I’ll be a monkey’s uncle. I never thought I’d pass that test.

8. dog – dog days – very hot days.
I slept in the basement during the dog days of August.

9. snail – At a snail’s pace – Moving very slowly.
Traffic is moving at a snail’s pace.

10. bee – make a beeline for – go quickly and directly to somebody or something.
My grandmother made a beeline for the food as soon as she arrived

C. Based on your reading, answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100-150 words each.

Question 1.
Describe the appearance of Little Cyclone.
Answer:
Lesson: Little Cyclone: The story of a grizzly cub
Author: William Temple Hornaday
Characters: Little cyclone, Little Czar, Black bear cub, captor, zoological society field agent
Theme: Avoid torture to any creature

The appearance of Little Cyclone was a cub from Alaska in America. He earned his name by the vigour of his rggjgtance to ill treatment. When his mother was fired he and his brother became orphans. When the captor tried to capture them they fought against the man fiercely. • He let one to go and seized the other cub.

Little Cyclone was rescued by the zoological society and shipped to New York. He was at that time as doll and roguish looking grizzly cub as ever stepped. He was in a grizzly gray full moon of fluffy hair. His two big black eyes sparkled like jet beads behind his nose. He had a pudgy little nose absurdly short for a bear. Exceptionally he had high shoulders. He was little more than a big bale of gray set up on four posts. But his claws were formidable. He had the true grizzly spirit.

When he was taken to the Bear’s Nursery at the New York Zoological parker, he was a new comer. When the box was opened he found himself free. He stalked deliberately to the centre of the stage. He halted there and looked calmly about him.

His air and manners revealed his majestic and challenging appearance. Grizzlies are different. They are born full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear. The other bears in the Nursery understood that Little Cyclone’s position was assured. He was treated with respect.

Question 2.
What does the fight Little Cyclone and his brother put up, tell you about the nature of grizzly bears?
Answer:
Grizzly bears are bom full of courage and devoid of all sense of fear. Little cyclone is a grizzly cub from Alaska. He earned his name by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. When his mother was fired at, on a timbered hillside, he and his brother ran away as fast as their short and thick legs could carry them. When they came back, they thought their mother was sleeping. They cuddled up close against her warm body and slept peacefully until morning.

They were awakened by the rough grasp of human hands. Bravely, they bit scratched and cried aloud with anger. His brother made a fight so fierce and terrible that his nervous captor let him go. Although Little Cyclone fought just as desperately, his captor seized him by his hind legs, dragged him backwards and bound him. This fight of the grizzly bears proves their strength and grit. They do not wish to be cowed down or dominated by their opponents.

Question 3.
“If any of you fellows think there is anything coming to you from me, come and take (t”. How did Little Cyclone prove this?
Answer:
Title: Little Cyclone: The story of a gizzle cub.
Author: William Temple Homaday
Characters: Little Cyclone, his brother, Little Czar, and other bear cubs
Theme: A brave fears no evil

Little cyclone was a grizzly cub from Alaska who earned his name by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment. When his mother was fired at he and his brother ran away. Later they returned and slept with their mother who was not alive. They became orphans. They fought terribly against the captor. He let one cub go and seized the other.

Luckily cyclone was rescued by the zoological society. The society shipped him to New York and then to the Bear’s Nursery there. When the box was opened, he found himself free in the Nursery. He stalked majestically to the centre of the stage. He halted and calmly looked about him. The other cubs wanted to test the courage and strength of the little cyclone.

Little czar, a European brown bear cub walked up and aimed a sample blow at cyclone’s left ear. Quick as a flash, little cyclone’s right leg outshot czar on his head. He was amazed and confused. So he fled in wild haste. Another fat black bear cub came and got a fierce attack and ignominiously quitted the field scrambling to the top of the cliff.

Little cyclone conscientiously met every real or feigned attack. In less than an hour, every bear in the Nursery understood that queer-looking gray fellow with board head and short nose could fight any other bear on three second’s notice.

Thus grizzly proved his air and manners by his actions. He showed them that grizzlies are different, unlike the other cubs, grizzly was daring and challenging. He kept his position by giving everyone who came to him to get one from him. Grizzly gray cub was born full of courage and had no sense of any fear.

“To grizzly, any other hear is silly”

Question 4.
Describe the confrontation between Little Czar and Little Cyclone.
Answer:
Little Czar was a very cheeky and impertinent bear. But it was a good-natured European brown bear. He walked to Little Cyclone and aimed a sample blow at Cyclone’s left ear. Quick as a flash, outshot Cyclone’s right paw, as only a grizzly can strike and caught the would-be hazer on the side of the head. Amazed and confused, Czar fled in wild haste. Next Cyclone also attacked a black bear cub, who made a pass at the newcomer and made him to quit the field.

Little Cyclone carefully and meticulously met every attack, real or faked, that was made upon him. All the bears in the Nursery understood that Little Cyclone can fight any other bear on three seconds’ notice. He could also strike anyone hard and quickly.

D. Telling the Story Again.

Little Cyclone was a grizzly cub from __________ (1) ___________. earned his name __________ (2) _________. When his mother was fired at, they ____________ .(3) ___________. The next day at sunrise the two orphans found themselves at _____________ (4) _____________ .One of them escaped ____________ (5) _____________. So the captor let him go. But the other cub was ____________ (6) ___________ and taken to the ___________ (7) ___________ at New York. The Zoological Park had _____________ (8) _____________ . Usually a newcomer is badly scared on his first day but ______________ (9) ______________. When the box was opened he stood up with courage __________(10) ____________.  Cyclone courageously met every __________________ (11) ___________ In less than an hour, all the other bears understood _________ (12) ____________. From then on Little Cyclone’s position was _____________ (13) _____________.
Answer:

1. Alaska, who
2. by the vigour of his resistance to ill-treatment.
3. ran away as fast as their stumpy legs could carry them.
4. the rough grasp of human hands.
5. after a fierce and terrible fight,
6. seized
7. Zoological Park
8. Bears’ Nursery.
9. grizzly bears are different
10. and walked stiffly with pride to the center of the stage, halted, and calmly looked about him.
11. attack real or faked.
12. that Cyclone could strike quick and hard and fight any other bear on three seconds notice.
13. assured with respect and dignity.

E. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Little Cyclone is a grizzly cub who earned his name by his ____________.
(a) appearance and behaviour.
(b) viguor of resistance to ill-treatment.
(c) speed and courage.
(d) escape from a cyclone.
Answer:
(b) vigour of resistance to ill-treatment

Question 2.
The nervous captor let one bear go because ____________.
(a) he was afraid of bears.
(b) he did not have proper equipment to seize him.
(c) he bear fought so fiercely.
(d) the bear escaped and ran away.
Answer:
(c) the bear fought so fiercely

Question 3.
Little Cyclone was rescued by the ____________.
(a) members of the Blue Cross.
(b) friendly hands of the Zoological Society.
(c) members of the National Zoo.
(d) volunteers from New York.
Answer:
(b) friendly hands of the Zoological Society

Question 4.
Little Czar was a ____________.
(a) good-natured European brown bear.
(b) grizzly cub from Alaska.
(c) furry little Polar bear.
(d) North American black bear.
Answer:
(a) good-natured European brown bear

Question 5.
Little Cyclone will fight any other bear in ____________.
(a) 10 minutes’ notice.
(b) 15 minutes’ notice.
(c) 03 seconds’ notice.
(d) 10 seconds’ notice.
Answer:
(c) 03 seconds’ notice

F. Learn the following idioms on bears.

Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub About The Author:

William Temple Homaday was an American Zoologist, conservationist, taxidermist and author. The first director of the New York Zoological Park, William Temple Homaday was a pioneer in the early wildlife conservation movement in the United States.

He is known for his dramatic ‘life groups” of animals in natural setting for museum displays. Homaday’s goal was to educate the American people about these magnificent animals and generate interest in environmental conservation. He also produced a very popular exhibit of a bison group for the National Museum.

In 1889, Homaday published ‘The Extermination of the American Bison’ a popular work that did create public support to save this species. He emphasized the importance of saving American native wildife.

Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub Summary:

A young grizzly bear by name Little Cyclone had proved its strength and grit. Little Cyclone did not cow down nor let the bigger bears to dominate it. Little Cyclone is from Alaska. It earned this name after it showed its vigour of resistance to ill-treatment.

One day when Little Cyclone’s mother was fired at a timbered hillside facing Chilkat River, he and his brother ran to the spot and cuddled her thinking that she was asleep the whole night. The next day, before dawn the two brothers were seized by humans.

One of them escaped from the human hand by making a terrible and forceful fight and stayed in Chilkoot. The other failed in its endeavour and was captured and seized. Then it was collared, chained in the rear of the saloon in Porcupine city. To tame the grizzly cub they used a long pole and violently prodded to see if it defended. Very soon Little Cyclone was rescued by die zoological society’s field agent who took him to New York.

In New York at the Bears’ Nursery, which is a big yard, it had a shade tree, a tree to climb, a swimming pool, three sleeping dens and a rock cliff where usually six to eight cubs were accommodated. Naturally it is a good test of courage and temper to turn a new bear into that roystering crowd.

A newcomer generally in a nursery takes time to adapt but grizzlies are different. Especially Little Cyclone’s behaviour was very different. When he was let out from the travelling box, he stalked and occupied the centre stage with an air and manner which pronounced thus: “I’m a grizzly from Alaska, and I’ve come to stay.” His mannerism also stated that if you dare to protest come for a fight.

Little Czar, a very saucy but good. natured European brown bear cub gave a blow at Little Cyclone’s left ear. Quick as a flash, Cyclone’s right paw struck Czar and caught the side of the head. Amazed and confounded Czar fled. Next came a black bear cub twice the size of Cyclone but he received a fierce blow that he immediately left the field and ran to the top of the cliff.

There were lots of attack at Cyclone one after the other but in less than an hour every bear in the Nursery understood that Little Cyclone, the queer looking gray fellow with broad head and short nose could strike quick and hard and finish them off in less than three seconds. From that time, Cyclone’s position was assured.

Little Cyclone: The Story of a Grizzly Cub Glossary: