Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 2 Ancient Civilisations

Ancient Civilisations Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earliest signs to denote words through pictures ……………
(a) Logographic
(b) Pictographic
(c) Ideographic
(d) Stratigraphic
Answer:
(b) Pictographic

Question 2.
The preservation process of dead body in ancient Egypt ……………
(a) Sarcophagus
(b) Hyksos
(c) Mummification
(d) Polytheism
Answer:
(c) Mummification

Question 3.
The Sumerian system of writing : ……………
(a) Pictographic
(b) Hieroglyphic
(c) Sonogram
(d) Cuneiform
Answer:
(b) Hieroglyphic

Question 4.
The Harappans did not have the knowledge of ……………
(a) Gold and Elephant
(b) Horse and Iron
(c) Sheep and Silver
(d) Ox and Platinum
Answer:
(d) Ox and Platinum

Question 5.
The Bronze image suggestive of the use of lost-wax process known to the Indus people.
(a) Jar
(b) Priest king
(c) Dancing girl
(d) Bird
Answer:
(c) Dancing girl

Question 6.
(i) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Akkadians.
(ii) The Chinese developed the Hieroglyphic system.
(iii) The Euphrates and Tigris drain into the Mannar Gulf.
(iv) Hammurabi, the king of Babylon was a great law maker. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(d) (iv) is correct

Question 7.
(i) Yangtze River is known as Sorrow of China.
(ii) Wu-Ti constructed the Great Wall of China.
(iii) Chinese invented gun powder.
(iv) According to traditions Mfencius was the founder of Taoism.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 8.
What is the correct chronological order of four civilisations of Mesopotamia?
(a) Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Babylonians
(b) Babylonians – Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians
(d) Babylonians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Sumerians
Answer:
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Assyrians of Mesopotamian civilisation were contemporaries of Indus civilisation.
Reason (R): The Documents of an Assyrian ruler refer to the ships from Meluha.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A doesn’t explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. is a massive lime stone image of a lion with a human head.
2. The early form of writing of the Egyptians is known as ……………
3. ……………. specifies the Laws related to various crimes in ancient Babylonia.
4. …………… was the master archive keeper of Chou state, according to traditions.
5. The …………… figurines and paintings on the pottery from the sites suggest the artistic skills of the Harappans.
Answers:
1. The Great Sphinx of Ghiza
2. Hieroglyphic
3. Hammurabi code
4. Lao Tze
5. terracotta

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) The Great Bath at Harappa is well-built with several adjacent rooms.
(b) The cuneiform inscriptions relate to the epic of Gilgamesh.
(c) The terracotta figurines and dancing girl made of copper suggest the artistic skills of Egyptians.
(d) The Mesopotamians devised a solar calendar system.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) Amon was considered the king of god in ancient Egypt.
(b) The fortified Harappan city had the temples.
(c) The great sphinx is a pyramid-shaped monument found in ancient Mesopotamia.
(d) The invention of the potter’s wheel is Credited to the Egyptians.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Illustrate.
Answer:

1. Numerous sculptures, paintings, and carvings attest to the artistic skills of Egyptians.
2. The pyramids are massive monuments built as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs.
3. The great pyramids near Cairo are known as the Giza Pyramids.
4. Pyramids are considered to be one of the wonders of the world.
5. These monuments display the-engineering, architectural, and human resource management skills of the Egyptians.
6. The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.
7. It is one of the largest sculptures in the world.

Question 2.
State the salient features of the Ziggurats.
Answer:

1. Ziggurats were pyramid-shaped monuments found in the ancient Mesopotamia (Modem Iraq).
2. One of the most famous Ziggurats of the time is the one in the city of Ur.
3. The Ziggurats were at the city centre on a platform and appeared like steep pyramids with staircases leading to the top.

Question 3.
Hammurabi Code is an important legal document. Explain.
Answer:

1. Hammurabi code is an important legal document that specifies the laws related to various crimes.
2. It has 282 provisions specifying cases related to family rights, trade, slavery, taxes, and wages.
3. It is carved on a stone, which portrays Hammurabi as receiving the code from the Sun God Shamash.
4. The ‘eye for an eye’ and ‘tooth for tooth’ form of justice is used in the Hammurabi Code.

Question 4.
Write a note on the Great Wall of China.
Answer:

• The Great Wall of China, one of the wonders of the world, was a massive effort undertaken for the protection of China from the Mongols.
• In 220 BCE, under Qin Shi Huang, earlier fortifications were connected by walls as a form of defence against invasions.
• It was built from third century BCE until 17th century CE.
• It ran for over 20,000 kilometres covering the hills and plains, from the border of Korea in the east to the Ordos Desert in the west.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

1. Early Civilizations:
Question 1.
What is meant by civilization?
Answer:
(a) Civilisation is seen as an advanced, organised way of life.
(b) It instilled a way of life that could be considered as an adaptation to particular environmental and cultural contents.

Question 2.
Name the important early Civilizations.
Answer:
The Egyptian, Mesopotamian, the Chinese and the Indus were the important Civilisations.

Question 3.
What supported the livelihood of a large number of people?
Answer:
The surplus food production by the farmers in the fertile regions supported the livelihood of. a large number of people.

Question 4.
What happened when civilization began to take shape?
Answer:
As civilizations began to take shape, huge buildings were built, the art of writing developed and science and technology contributed to the betterment of society.

2. Features of Egyptian Civilization:
Question 1.
Who built the pyramids and why?
Answer:
The pyramids are massive monuments built by Egyptians as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs. The Great Pyramids near Cairo are known as the Gizza Pyramids.

Question 2.
What is the process of mummification?
Answer:

• The Egyptians had the tradition of preserving the dead bodies using Natron salt;, a combination of sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate.
• The preservation process is called mummification.
• After 40 days when the salt absorbed all the moisture, the body was filled with sawdust and wrapped in strips of linen clothes and covered with fabric. The body was stored in a stone coffin called a sarcophagus.

Question 3.
What is the belief system of ancient Egyptians?
Answer:
(a) The Egyptians believed in life after death.
(b) Egyptian practiced polytheism. They worshipped many gods.

Question 4.
What is the importance of great sphinx?
Answer:
The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.
It is dated to the time of Pharaoh Kaffe. It is one of the largest sculptures of the world and measures seventy three metres in length and twenty metres in height.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Define the terms Hieroglyphics and Cuneiform with their main features.
Answer:
Hieroglyphics: Egyptians are well known for their writing system. Their form of writing is known as hieroglyphics. Hieroglyphic was used in the inscriptions on seals and other objects. The heretic, an another form of writing, was used for common purposes. This form of writing used a pictogram-based system. It was developed around 3000 BCE and many texts and books were written using this script.

The Egyptian writing system was deciphered by the French scholar, Francois Champollion (1822 CE). He used the Rosetta stone, a trilingual inscription, for deciphering the script. This inscription, which was written in Hieroglyphic, Demotic and Greek,- was taken to France by Napoleon and from there it was taken to England. Now, this inscription is on display in the British Museum London.

Cuneiform: Cuneiform is the Sumerian writing system. The shape of the letter is in the form of wedge and hence it is called cuneiform. Evolving around 3000 BCE, it is one of the earliest scripts of the world. The epic of Gilgamesh was written in this script. They used this script for commercial transactions and writing letters and stories. The clay tablets contain loads of information on the Sumerian civilization.

Question 2.
To what extent is the Chinese influence reflected in the fields of philosophy and literature.
Answer:
(i) Chinese poets and philosophers such as Lao Tze, Confucius, Mencius, Mo Ti (Mot Zu) and Tao Chien (365-427 CE) contributed to the development of Chinese civilization. Sun-Tzu, a military strategist, wrote the work called Art of War.

(ii) The Spring and Autumn Annals is the official chronicle of the state at the time. The Yellow Emperor’s Canon of Medicine is considered China’s earliest written book on medicine. It was codified during the time of Han Dynasty.

(iii) Lao Tze (c. 604-521 BCE) was the master archive keeper of Chou state. He was the founder of Taoism. He argued that desire is the root cause of all evils.

(iv) Confucius (551-497 BCE) was famous among the Chinese philosophers. He was a political reformer. His name means Kung the master.

(v) He insisted on cultivation of one’s own personal life. He said, “If personal life is cultivated, family life is regulated; and once family life is regulated, national life is regulated.

(vi) Mencius (372-289 BCE) was another well-known Chinese philosopher. He traveled throughout China and offered his counsel to the rulers.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the areas of Bronze Age civilization on the world map.
Answer:
The Bronze Age period: 3300 – 1200 B.C.
The location: China
(i) The Congshan people of China lived from around 300 B.C. to 2400 B.C. in China
(ii) Around 2300 B.C. in Europe.
The teacher can help the students to locate the place on the world map.

Question 2.
Prepare a chart on the pyramids and the mummies.
Answer:
Prepare a chart on the Pyramids and the Mummies with guidelines from the Textbook and the Internet. Students can be divided into groups & prepare the charts on the Pyramids and Mummies.

Question 3.
Collect the pictures of the seals and the pottery of the Indus people.
Answer:
Download the pictures & collect them.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance
(i) Prepare a hand out comparing the ancient world civilizations.
Reference: Textbook & Internet
(ii) Prepare a scrapbook collecting pictures on Indus civilization from website.
Students can collect pictures on Indus Civilization and paste them into their scrapbook.

Ancient Civilisations Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… times were mostly egalitarian in nature.
(a) Mesolithic
(b) Neolithic
(c) Palaeolithic
(d) Iron Age
Answer:
(a) Mesolithic

Question 2.
……………… became intimately connected with the Sangam Age Tamitagam by the Sea route.
(a) Romans
(b) Persians
(c) Egyptians
(d) Greeks
Answer:
(c) Egyptians

Question 3.
…………… were the contemporaries of the people of Indus and Egyptian civilisation.
(a) The Egyptians
(b) The Sumerians
(c) The Romans
(d) The Indus people
Answer:
(b) The Sumerians

Question 4.
……………. did not give much attention to life after death.
(a) The Sumerians
(b) The Babylonians
(c) The Egyptians
(d) The Chinese
Answer:
(a) The Sumerians

Question 5.
The yellow river is known as the sorrow of …………
(a) Egypt
(b) Rome
(c) China
(d) Iraq
Answer:
(c) China

Question 6.
(i) The Egyptian king was known as the Pharaoh.
(ii) The preserved dead body is called the mummy.
(iii) The Egyptians have no belief in life after death.
(iv) Papyrus was used for making paper.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (ii) is incorrect
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 7.
(i) Egypt was called as the Gift of Nile
(ii) Egyptians practiced polytheism
(iii) Thoth is the God of death
(iv) Cuneiform is Egyptian way of writing
(a) (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(b) (iii) & (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (i) & (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 8.
Confucius was famous among the Chinese Philosophers.
(a) Lao Tze
(b) Confucius
(c) Mencius
(d) Sun Tzu
Answer:
(b) Confucius

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The River Nile originates in ……………
2. The preserved dead body is called …………….
3. …………. was the God of writing and learning.
4. The city of Akkad later became the city of ……………. a commercial and cultural centre of largest Asia.
5. …………. is perhaps the oldest written epic on earth.
6. ………….. was the popular ruler often late (or) neo Assyrian Empire.
7. ………….. was the first military power in History.
8. Agriculture was the main occupation of the …………..
9. The ……………. refers to the large collection of terracotta warrior images found in China.
10. The Indus Valley civilization is also known as ………….. civilization.
11. The Indus people worshipped …………… trees.
12. The Harappans had a close trade link with the ………………
Answers:
1. Lake Victoria
2. the mummy
3. Thoth
4. Babylon
5. The Epic of Gilgamesh
6. Ashurbanipal
7. Assyrian Empire
8. Mesopotamians
9. The Terracotta Army
10. Harappan
11. Pipal
12. Mesopotamians

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Sumerians.
(b) The Sumerians believed to have originated from Central Asia.
(c) Sargon and his descendants ruled Mesopotamia for more than 200 years.
(d) The Akkadians dominated Sumeria briefly from 2500 BCE to 2450 BCE.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) The Harappans used painted Pottery.
(b) The Harappans have no knowledge about weights and measures.
(c) The Indus people buried the dead.
(d) The Indus civilization completely disappeared.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
The term civilization is used to distinguish the Urban society from early forms of societies. Why?
Answer:

• The Urban society practised crafts, engaged in trade and exchange, adopted science and technology and formed political organisation.
• Hence the term civilisation is used to distinguish them from the early forms of societies.

Question 2.
What is Egyptian civilization known for?
As one of the oldest civilizations, the Egyptian civilisation is known for its monumental architecture, art, sciences and crafts at a very early age.

Question 3.
Mention the contributions of the Mesopotamian civilization.
Answer:

1. The invention of the potter’s the wheel is credited to the Sumerians.
2. They developed the calendar system of 360 days and divided a circle into 360 units.
3. The Cuneiform system of writing was their contribution.
4. Hammurabi’s law code was another legacy of the Mesopotamians.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Silk Road” in China.
Answer:

1. The greatest of the Han emperors Wu Ti (Han Wu the Great, 141 to 87 BCE) sent Zhang Qian as emissary to the West in 138 BCE.
2. It paved the way for the opening of the Silk Road in 130 BCE to encourage trade activities.
3. Because of the Silk Road and the resultant trade connections, China benefitted immensely during the rule of Emperor Zhang.

Question 5.
The Indus civilisation is known as Harappan civilisation rather than Indus. Why?
Answer:

• The Indus valley civiliSation is also known as the Harappan civilisation since Harappa was the first site to be discovered.
• This civilisation is known as Harappan civilisation rather than Indus valley civilisation, since it extended beyond the Indus river valley.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
The Babylonians.
(i) Who were the Babylonians?
Answer:
The Semitic people called Amorites who moved from the Arabian desert into Mesopotamia were known as Babylonians

(ii) Name the oldest written epic on earth. .
Answer:
The Epic of Gilgamesh is the oldest written epic on earth.

(iii) Who was a great law-maker?
Answer:
Hammurabi the sixth king of Babylon was a great law-maker.

(iv) What was the previous name of Babylon?
Answer:
The previous name of Babylon was the city of Akkad.

Question 2.
Indus civilisation.
(i) What is the other name of Indus civilisation?
Answer:
The Harappan civilisation.

(ii) What did the Harappans use for construction?
Answer:
The Harappans used baked and unbaked bricks and stones for construction.

(iii) What kind of pottery was used by the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans used painted potteries. Their potteries have a deep red slip and black paintings.

(iv) What was their belief for the dead?
Answer:
The Indus people buried the dead. Burials were done elaborately.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the Egyptians excel in art and architecture? Explain.
Answer:

1. The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Their writing is also, a form of art.
2. Numerous sculptures, paintings, and carvings attest to the artistic skills of Egyptians.
3. The pyramids are massive monuments built as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs.
4. The great pyramids near Cairo are known as the Giza Pyramids.
5. Pyramids are considered to be one of the wonders of the world, and they were built between 2575 and 2465 BCE.
6. These monuments display the engineering, architectural and human resource management skills of the Egyptians.
7. The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.
8. It is dated to the time of Pharaoh Khaffe. It is one of the largest sculptures of the world and measures seventy-three metres in length and twenty metres in height.

Question 2.
Compare the Indus Civilization with Tamil Civilization.
Answer:
(i) The similarity of the graffiti found on the megalithic burial pots of South India with the Indus script and the identical place names of Tamil Nadu and the Indus region of Pakistan are presented as arguments to establish the relationship between the Indus civilisation and Tamil culture.

(ii) Researchers like Father Henry Heras, Asko Parpola and Iravatham Mahadevan find similarity between the Indus script and the Dravidian/Tamil language.

(iii) Archaeological evidence points out that several groups of people have been living in Tamil Nadu and South India continuously from the Mesolithic period.

(iv) A few groups from the Indus region might have migrated into southern India.

(v) Some of the ideas and technologies of the Indus civilisations had reached South India in the Iron Age.

(vi) The carnelian beads, shell bangles, and bronze mirrors found in the Megalithic/Early Historic sites of Tami Nadu were first introduced by the people of the Indus civilisation. More research is needed to arrive at any definite conclusion in this matter.

(vii) The towns of ancient Tamilagam such as Arikkamedu, Uraiyur and Keezhadi that flourished are part of the second urbanisation of India and these towns are much different from the Indus cities. These towns emerged approximately 1,200 years after the decline of the Indus civilisation.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty. .
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
The term‘Human resources’ refers to ……
(a) investment on poor people
(b) expenditure on agriculture
(c) investment on assests
(d) collective abilities of people
Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people

Question 3.
For comparing development between countries, their …… is considered to be one of the
most important attributes.
(a) growth
(b) income
(c) expenditure
(d) savings
Answer:
(b) income

Question 4.
……. is considered a true measure of national income.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) NNP

Question 5.
The …… income is also called per capita income.
(a) average
(b) total
(c) people
(d) monthly
Answer:
(a) average

Question 6.
Which one of the following country is not a G-8 country?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 7.
Which one of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) China

Question 8.
Assertion (A) : The Net Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output.
Reason (R): It is also known as national income.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 10.
The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimension in its calculation.
(a) Gender
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Income
Answer:
(a) Gender

Question 11.
Among the following states which state have the literacy rate (2011) higher than national average?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
Sex-ratio means …..
(a) the ratio between adult-male and adult female in a population
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population
(c) the relationship between a male of female
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Answer:
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population

Question 13.
Inter-generational equality is ensured under the process of
(a) Industrial progress
(b) Economic development
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Economic growth
Answer:
(b) Economic development

Question 14.
Find the odd one.
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Paper
(d) Natural gas
Answer:
(c) Paper

Question 15.
……….. is the state with the highest installed solar capacity in India.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 16.
……. resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable
(d) New
Answer:
(c) Non-Renewable

Question 17.
The thermal plant emits a large quantity of ……, which pollutes the environment.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The economic progress of any country is known as ………
2. The head quarters of the HRD Ministry is in ……..
3. The state has the highest literacy rate in India is ……….
4. Human Development Report of the world prepared and released by …….
5. Groundwater is an example of ……. resource.
6. The book An Uncertain Glory was written by ……..

Answers:

1. economic development
2. New Delhi
3. Kerala
4. UNDP
5. renewable
6. Prof. Amartya Sen

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

IV. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by development?
Answer:

1. Development refers to the progress in a particular field or particular person.
2. Similarly, by the economic progress of a country, it is known as economic development.
3. However, the interpretation of the concept development keeps on changing from time to time, from person to person.
4. Its meaning gets extended further.

Question 2.
What are the indicators of development?
Answer:
The major indicators to measure the level of economic development are Net National Product (NNP), Per Capita Income (PCI), Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), and Human Development
Index (HDI).

Question 3.
Why NNP is not considered as a useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries?
Answer:

1. For comparison between countries’ development, total income or the national income is not a useful measure.
2. Since countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.
3. Hence we compare average income which is also called per capita income.
4. Now the economy has realised that investment in human capital

Question 4.
Why human resources is considered the foremost resource of any country?
Answer:

1. Human Resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
2. ‘Human Resources’ refers to the collective abilities of people, which can be utilised in the production sector.

So human resource is considered as the foremost resource of any country.

Question 5.
Expand the following:
1. PPP
2. HDI
Answer:
1. PPI – Purchasing Power Parity
2. HD – Human Development Index.

Question 6.
Expand the following:
1. NNP
2. PCI.
Answer:
1. NNP – Net National Product
2. PCI – Per Capita Income

Question 7.
What is‘Solar Power’?
Answer:
Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly using photovoltaic cells or indirectly using concentrated solar power. Solar panels absorb sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the policies for sustainable development.
Answer:

1. Sustainable economic development means development should take place without damaging the environment. Sustainability
2. The development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generation.
3. Sustainability of development is comparatively a new era of knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers, and other social scientists are working together.
4. If the environment is not protected, we fall prey to national disaster.
5. To achieve time sustainability we need to balance economic social and environmental sustainability in equal harmony.
6. In general, the question of development or process is perennial.

Question 2.
Describe in detail environmental policies in India.
Answer:
Environmental policies in India:

1. Environmental policies in India have been evolved considerably over the past 3 decades.
2. These policies have covered a wide range of issues such as air, water pollution, waste management, and biodiversity conservation.
3. India faces challenges in economic development, which is to be met from limited resources and uncertain climate.
4. One of the approaches to overcome this challenge is through the path of sustainable development.
5. The Supreme Court of India has been engaged in interpreting and introducing new changes in Environmental protection.
6. Article 51 A(g) of the Constitution states that “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”
7. The Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 protected biodiversity.
8. The 1988 National Forest Policy had conservations as its fundamental principle.
9. The Government passed the Environment Protection Act in 1986.
10. Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act of 1992 for control of bio-diversity.
11. Development increases with the quality of life.
12. People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty, and more equality of opportunity.

Question 3.
Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mention any five environmental acts and their action.
Answer:

VI. Projects and Activities.

List the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Answer:

1. The threat of waste to the environment’s health and safety is huge.
2. Pollution runs into rivers and seeps into groundwater.
3. Flooding is caused by garbage clogging drains and the atmosphere can be poisoned by the toxic discharge from the trash.
4. Bacteria, insects, and vermin thrive from garbage, causing pollution leading to respiratory diseases, contamination of surface-water affecting all eco-system.
5. We can reduce waste at home by knowing the rules of recycling, ditching plastic bags, learning to repair rather than discarding, not using disposable plates, etc.
6. Use environmentally safe products, use water-based paints, dispose of trash properly.

VII. HOTS

Write in detail what kind of environmental problems you face in your locality.
Location: Velachery – Chennai.
Problem: “Despite being one of the fastest-growing localities with several upmarket malls and hotels living in Velachery still face basic problems such as

1. Overflowing sewage
2. Poor drainage
3. The underground water-breeding grounds for mosquitoes.
4. There is always the fear of contamination of drinking water.
5. every time it pours in the city, most of Velachery drowns.

The above-mentioned problems are the dominant ones in Velachery.

VIII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
How is the Per Capita income calculated?
Answer:

1. Per capita income is the average income of an individual of a country
2. It is calculated by dividing the area’s total income by its total population.

PCI – Per = \(\frac { NNP }{ Total Population of country }\)
PCI – Per Capita Income; NNP – Net National Product.

Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement, and Sustainability Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term ‘economic development’ refers to the overall growth of all sectors of
the economy.
Reason (R): By adoption of new technologies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
This is also known as National Income.
(a) NNP
(b) GDP
(c) PCI
(d) PPP
Answer:
(a) NNP

Question 3.
This is not a G8 country.
(a) Russia
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(d) Nepal

Question 4.
This is one of the ‘BRICS’ countries.
(a) China
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) China

Question 5.
The enrolment for higher education in the highest in ……… in India.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(e) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Question 6.
This is a renewable resource.
(a) Metals
(b) Glass
(c) Wind energy
(d) Diesel
Answer:
(c) Wind energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Every human being has an ……… of his (or) her own to achieve progress in life.
2. Countries with higher income are considered to be ………
3. ……… became the third-largest economy in terms of PPP.
4. …….. can be divided into renewable resources and non-renewable resources.
5. ……. absorb the sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity.

Answers:

1. Ambition
2. More developed
3. India
4. Natural resources
5. Solar panels

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What leads to development?
Answer:
If our thinking turns towards progress and about the ways to achieve the many goals for progress, it leads to development.

Question 2.
For comparing the development of various countries, total income is not a useful measure. How?
Answer:
Since the countries have different populations comparing total income will not be suggestive of what an average person is likely to earn. So, for comparing the development of various countries total income is not a useful measure.

Question 3.
Define Purchasing Power Parity.
Answer:
Purchasing Power Parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one dollar would buy in the U.S.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Human Resource Development?
Answer:
Human Resource Development means the development of a person’s physical and mental abilities through education, health care, and training.

Question 5.
Why do we say that investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate
of returns?
Answer:
If a child is invested with good education and health, he or she may turn to be very productive in the future in the form of higher earnings and greater contribution to society. Therefore, investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns

Question 6.
What is the end result of Development?
Answer:

1. Development increases the quality of life.
2. People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty and more equality of opportunity.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the sustainability of Development.
Answer:
Sustainable economic development is taken to mean development without damaging the environment and not compromising with the needs of the future generation.

The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers, and other social scientists are working together.

Natural resources can be divided into renewable resources and non-renewable resources.
Groundwater is an example of a renewable resource. The question arises as to how sustainable development is possible if the resources are over-used rather than getting replenished. Non-renewable resources get exhausted after a certain number of years of extracting and using them and they cannot be replenished.

To achieve real sustainability, we need to balance economic, social, and environmental sustainability in equal harmony.

In general, the question of development or progress is continuous. At all times, as a member of society and as individuals, we need to ask where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals are.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. is genetically closest to humans.
(a) Gorilla
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orang-utan
(d) Great Apes
Answer:
(b) Chimpanzee

Question 2.
The period called ……………. marks the beginning of agriculture and animal domestication.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Megalithic
Answer:
(c) Neolithic

Question 3.
Direct ancestor of modem man was ……………..
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(c) Homo sapiens

Question 4.
………….. refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
(d) Neander Valley
Answer:
(b) Fertile Crescent

Question 5.
Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the …………. tools at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Stone Age
(b) Palaeolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Neolithic
Answer:
(b) Palaeolithic

Question 6.
(i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 7.
(i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts.
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Chennai district.
(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age.
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication .of animals and cultivation of crops is called Mesolithic.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are found nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R): Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Answer:
(d) A and R both are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The primitive multi-cellular life first appeared in the age of ……………..
2. Hand axes and cleavers are important tool types of …………. culture.
3. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called ………………… technology.
4. ………………. is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic.

Answers:

1. Proterozoic
2. Low Palaeolithic
3. Lithic
4. Mesolithic period

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) The concept ‘survival of the fittest’ contributed to the scientific understanding of human origins.
(b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
(c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
(d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) Among the great Apes Orangutan is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) The ancestors of humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(c) Flake is a small chip that has flaking on both sides.
(d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small1 chips are flaked by using a hammerstone.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss how the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.
Answer:

1. Humans are the only species on earth concerned with understanding as well as explaining the world and the universe.
2. In the course of evolution, humans became conscious and knowledgeable.
3. They turned curious and began to think and ask questions about nature, organisms and the world around them.
4. They worshipped Sun, Moon and various natural forces about which they developed their own understanding, some of which is not scientific.

Question 2.
Write a note on the impact of pastoralism on the prehistoric people in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The people in the Age practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle and sheep.
2. Some of the groups were still hunting and gathering.
3. Millets & rice were cultivated.
4. Irrigation management developed in this period. In the deltaic regions irrigation as a technology had developed.
5. Evidences of rice is seen in Megalithic sites like Adidchanallur in Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

Question 3.
List out the features of Megalithic Burial types.
Answer:

1. The Iron age is also known as megalithic since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
2. Within these burials, the skeletons or few bones of the dead persons were placed along with grave goods including iron objects, Camelian beads, and bronze objects.
3. Some of the burials do not have human bones and they have only the grave goods.
4. They may be called memorial burials.

Question 4.
Examine the tool making technical skills of lower Palaeolithic people.
Answer:

1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the Lower palaeolithic period.
2. These tools were fitted with a wooden and bone handle. They were used for cutting, piercing and digging.
3. The people also used hammer stones and spheroids.
4. The quartzite pebbles and cobbles were chosen as raw materials.
   The tools are found in the soil deposits and also in the exposed river side.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Hominid and Hominins.
(a) Who are Hominids?
Answer:
Hominids refer to all the species of the modem and extinct great apes, which also includes humans.

(b) Who was the earliest human ancestor to make tools in Africa?
Answer:
Homo habilis (handy human) was the earliest known human ancestors to make tools in Africa about 2.6 million years ago.

(c) How are modern humans known?
Answer:
Modem-humans are known as Homo sapiens.

(d) Name any one species of this tribe.
Answer:
Homo erectus – extinct Humans are the only living species.

Question 2.
Earliest Lithic Assemblages of Human ancestors.
(a) Where are Acheulian tools reported to have been found in Karnataka and in Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Acheulian tools are reported to have been found in Isampur in Karnataka and Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.

(b) What is meant by Lithic Technology?
Answer:
‘Lith’ means stone. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called lithic technology.

(c) What are Biface tools?
Answer:
Bifaces are tools that have to flake on both sides (bi = two, face = side).

(d) Name a few stone tools used by human ancestors.
Answer:
Core is the main block of stone. Flake is a small chip removed from a large stone block. Levalloisian tools include long blades and burins. Burin is a stone-made chisel with a sharp cutting edge.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
The developments in the fields of agriculture, pottery, and metal tools are considered a landmark in the life of the Megalithic period- Substantiate.
Answer:
(a) Agriculture:

1. People practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle, and sheep.
2. Millets and rice were cultivated.
3. Irrigation management developed since many of the megalithic sites are found nearby rivers and tanks.
4. In the deltaic region, irrigation as technology had developed.
5. Evidence of rice is seen in the megalithic sites like Adichanallur in Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

(b) Pottery:

1. Pottery is important evidence found in archaeological sites.
2. In the iron age and Sangam age people used black and red colours to make blackware and redware pottery.
3. Potteries were used for cooking, storage, and dining purposes.
4. The black and redware pottery has a black inside and a red outside, with lustrous surfaces.

(c) Metal tools:

1. Weapons such as swords and daggers, axes, chisels, lamps and tripod stands are also found.
2. The iron tools were used for agriculture, hunting and gathering and in battles.

Question 2.
The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth. Elucidate.
Answer:

• The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.
• The earth contains geological, archaeological, and biological records of historical times in its upper layers.
• They are important for reconstructing the history of the earth and various living organisms.
• The fossil bones of the human ancestors are embedded in the earth’s layers.
• Palaeoanthropologists and archaeologists excavate the soil and rock layers on the earth and extract evidence about human ancestors.
• These layers and the fossils are scientifically dated to study the various stages in human evolution and prehistory.
• Through the gathered evidence they attempt to understand the evolution of human history and developments in chronological order.
• The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
• Gradually conditions emerged for the growth of organisms. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras, periods, and epochs by the Geologists. Thus the history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the prehistoric sites on the world map.
Answer:
(i) The ancestors of humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(ii) You can draw the Prehistoric sites of human ancestors in Africa with the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance.
Answer:
A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
A power-point presentation on the pre-historic tools.
A power-point presentation on the scripts of the ancient.

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. …………….. is the study of the human past through the analysis and interpretation of material remains.
(a) Geology
(b) Archaeology
(c) History
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Archaeology

Question 2.
The beginning of history writing can be traced to the ancient ……………..
(a) Greeks
(b) Egyptians
(c) Romans
(d) Africans
Answer:
(a) Greeks

Question 3.
The DNA of a Chimpanzee is ……………. identical to that of a human being.
(a) 95%
(b) 96%
(c) 97%
(d) 98%
Answer:
(d) 98%

Question 4.
………….. are stone artifacts of small size.
(a) Microliths
(b) Bifaces
(c) Acheulian
(d) core
Answer:
(a) Microliths

Question 5.
Evidence of Neolithic village is found at …………… in Vellore district.
(a) Gudiam
(b) Athirampakkam
(c) Payyampalli
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Payyampalli

Question 6.
The ……………. was a formative period and the foundation for the Sangam Age.
(a) Iron Age
(b) Bronze Age
(c) Stone Age
(d) Age of Information Technology
Answer:
(a) Iron Age

Question 7.
(i) We live in the age of Information Technology.
(ii) The internet has literally put the world at our fingertips.
(iii) The Prehistoric people were the pioneers of literacy.
(iv) Powerful Technology developed all of a sudden.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) & (iv) are correct
(d) (i) & (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 8.
(i) The chimpanzee is genetically the closest to humans.
(ii) Hominins & their origin have been traced to Asia.
(iii) The Hominins emerged around 6 to 5 million years ago.
(iv) The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites for the Prehistoric period.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct and (c) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
……………… are tools used for scraping the surfaces.
(a) Lunates
(b) Triangles
(c) Scrapers
(d) Cists
Answer:
(c) Scrapers

Question 10.
…………… are pottery jars and were used for burying the dead.
(a) Urns
(b) Cists
(c) Dolmens
(d) Menheirs
Answer:
(a) Urns

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Prehistoric people were the pioneers of ……………..
2. ………….. were the apes from which modem humans evolved.
3. A prehistoric animal (or) plant that turns to stone over a period of time …………….
4. The earliest tools made by human ancestors are found in ……………. in Kenya.
5. …………….. people buried the dead people systematically.
6. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around …………… (or) even earlier.
7. Oxen were used in ………….. civilisation for tilling the land.
8. ……………. discovered the first Palaeolithic tools in India at Pallavaram.
9. …………. people perhaps devised the first pottery.
10. The black and Red colour pottery were used by ……………. and people.

Answers:

1. Creative Knowledge
2. Australopithecines
3. Fossil
4. Lomekwi
5. Neanderthals
6. 7000 BCE
7. Sumerian
8. Sir Robert Bruce Foote
9. Neolithic
10. Iron Age & Sangam Age

III. Match the following

a.

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss when the earth was formed.
Answer:

1. The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
2. Gradually, conditions emerged for the growth of organisms.
3. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans.
4. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras periods and epochs by the geologists.

Question 2.
Who proposed the idea of the Three Age system?
Answer:

1. The idea of the Three Age system proposed by CJ. Thomsen became the basis for understanding early human history.
2. He classified the artifacts in the Danish National Museum, Copenhagen, into Stone Age, Bronze Age, and Iron Age.

Question 3.
The Great Rift valley in Africa has evidence for the Prehistoric period. Discuss.
Answer:

• The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites that have evidence for the prehistoric period.
• The Great Rift valley is a valley-like formation that runs for about 6,400 km from the Northern part of Syria to Central Mozambique in East Africa.
• This geographical feature is visible even from space, and many prehistoric sites are found in Africa.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Prehistoric cultures”.
Answer:
While the fossil bones are classified as various species such as Homo habilis, Homo erectus, and Neanderthalensis, based on the lithic tools, cultures are assigned names such as Earliest Lithic, Assemblages, Oldowan Technology, Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic, and Mesolithic cultures.

Question 5.
Why were the Levalloisian tools called so?
Answer:

1. The lithic tool-making tradition of the Levalloisian belonged to this period.
2. Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core.
3. These tools are found in Europe and Central and Western Asia.
4. The Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core. It was named after the town of Levallois in France.

Question 6.
What was the main factor for the development of early civilisations?
Answer:

1. As a result of domestication and cultivating plants, there was excess food production.
2. The surplus food production was the main factor for the development of early civilizations.

Question 7.
Describe the burials in the Sangam Age.
Answer:

1. The Sangam literature mentions the various burial practices of the people.
2. The Megalithic burials are classified as dolmens, cists, menheirs, rock-cut caves, um burials, and sarcophagus.
3. The burial types of Kodakkal (umbrella stone), Toppikkal (hot stone), and Paththikal (hood stone) are found in Kerala.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

(A) Oldest Museum.
Question 1.
Name the oldest museum, in the world.
Answer:
The museum of Ennigaldi Nanna in Mesopotamia.

Question 2.
When was it established?
Answer:
It was established in 530 BCE.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest surviving museum at present?
Answer:
The Capitoline museum in Italy is perhaps the oldest surviving museum at present (1471 CE).

Question 4.
Name the oldest university museum in the world.
Answer:
Ashmolean Museum at Oxford University is the oldest University Museum in the world.

(B) Mesolithic culture.
Question 1.
Mention the evidence for the existence of Mesolithic hunt-gatherers.
Answers:
They are found at Chennai, North Arcot, Dharmapuri, Salem, Coimbatore, Ariyalur, Trichi, Pudukottai, Madurai, Sivagangai, Tirunelveli, and Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
What type of artifacts were used by the people of this period?
Answer:
The people of this period used small artifacts made of Chert and Quartz. .

Question 3.
What are the tool types used by them?
Answer:
The tool types are scrapers, lunates, and triangles.

Question 4.
What did they do for their subsistence?
Answer:
These people hunted wild animals and gathered fruits, nuts, and roots for their subsistence.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the Neolithic culture in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

• The culture that domesticated animals and cultivated crops is called Neolithic.
• It is known as the New Stone Age. The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called celts.
• Cattle rearing was their main occupation. They lived in small villages with houses made of thatched roof and walls plastered with clay.
• Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Vellore district and a few sites in the Dharmapuri region.
• Payyampalli is a village in the Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. The earliest evidence for the domestication of animals and the cultivation of plants is found at this site, which was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Evidence for pottery making and cultivation of horse gram and green gram has been found in this village.
• These Neolithic sites were part of the Southern Neolithic Culture of India. They are mainly concentrated in the Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka regions.
• The Neolithic people used stone axes fitted on a wooden handle.
• These polished stone axes are worshipped in many village temples of Tamil Nadu even today.

Question 2.
Domestication of Animals and plants. A milestone in Human History. Explain.
Answer:

1. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around 7000 BCE or even earlier.
2. Wheat and barley were cultivated at Mehrgarh in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent (Pakistan) before 6000 BCE.
3. Animal domestication developed as part of symbiotic life.
4. Dogs may have been domesticated first. Friendly animals were gradually domesticated. Sheep and goat were domesticated around 10,000 BCE in Southwest Asia.
5. Oxen were used in Sumerian civilization for tilling the land. Mehrgarh in Pakistan has evidence of sheep, goat, and cattle domestication in the Neolithic period.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Forms of Government

Forms of Government Textual Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… are the few examples of the unitary form of government.
2. The Parliamentary government is also known as ……..
3. In the parliamentary form of government ….. is the leader of the majority party.

Answers:

1. England, France
2. cabinet government
3. Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.

Country	Name of the Parliament
USA	…………..
Norway	…………..
…………	Folketing

Answer:

Country	Name of the Parliament
USA	Congress
Norway	Storting
Denmark	Folketing

III. Distinguish Between.

Question 1.
Unitary and federal forms of government.
Answer:

Unitary form of government	The federal form of government
Only one Level of Government or Subunits	Two Levels of Government
Mostly Single Citizenship	Dual Citizenship
Sub Units cannot operate independently	Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
No Division of Power	Division of Power
Centralization of Power	Decentralization of Power

Question 2.
Parliamentary and presidential form of government.
Answer:

Parliamentary form of government	Presidential form of government
Majority Party Rules	The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years.
Collective Responsibility	The President governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’.
The leadership of the Prime Minister	The President is both the head of the State and the head of government.

IV. Give a short note on:

Question 1.
Unitary form of government
Answer:

1. A unitary system of government or unitary state is a sovereign state governed as a single entity.
2. The Central government is supreme.
3. The administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated to them.
4. England, France, Japan, Sri Lanka are examples of a unitary form of governments.

V. Answer the following.

Question 1.
List out the types of constitution.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the merits of a federal government?
Answer:
Merits of federal form of government

• Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity.
• Division of power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency.
• It gives rise to big states
• Distribution of powers check the despotism of central government.
• More suitable for bigger countries.
• It is good for economic and cultural progress.

Question 3.
Write down the differences between the unitary form of government and the federal form of
government.
Answer:

Unitary form of government	The federal form of government
Only one Level of Government or Subunits	Two Levels of Government
Mostly Single Citizenship	Dual Citizenship
Sub Units cannot operate independently	Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
No Division of Power	Division of Power
Centralisation of Power	Decentralisation of Power

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write about the merits of a unitary form of government.
Answer:
Merits of a unitary form of government

1. Suitable for small countries.
2. There is no conflict of authority and responsibility.
3. A unitary government will make prompt decisions and take speedy action.
4. A unitary government is less expensive.
5. Amendments to the constitution are easy.
6. There is unity, uniformity of law, policy, and administration.

Question 2.
Write about the presidential form of government and what is the difference between presidential and parliamentary forms of government.
Answer:
The Presidential Form Of Government is also known as a non-responsible or non-parliamentary or fixed executive system of government, basically built on the principle of separation of power and is prevalent in the USA, Brazil, Russia, and Sri Lanka among others.

The American President is both the head of the State and the head of government. As the head of State, he occupies a ceremonial position. As the head of government, he leads the executive organ of the government.

The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress, except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.

The President governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’. It is only an advisory body and consists of non-elected departmental secretaries. They are selected and appointed by him, are responsible only to him, and can be removed by him at any time.

The President and his secretaries are not responsible to Congress for their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its sessions.

Differences between presidential and parliamentary forms of government are:

Parliamentary form of government	Presidential form of government
Prime Minister is from the majority party	President is directly elected by the People
Central Legislature is supreme	President is Supreme
Absence of Separation Powers Centralisation	Separation of Powers
Independent branches with Overlapping functions	Independent branches
President – Head of the State	President – Head of the State
Prime Minister – Head of the Government	President – Head of the Government
Collective leadership	Individual Leadership
Collective and Individual Responsibility	President is not accountable to Congress

Forms of Government Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……. is the main agency of the state.
2. The three organs in government are …….., ………, and ……….
3. ……… is the oldest form of government in the United Kingdom.
4. An example of Federal form of Government ……..
5. The …… system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
6. The …… form of government is prevalent in the U.S.A.
7. The President governs with the help of a cabinet (or) a small body called …… in the Presidential form of government.
8. An unprecedented development forced the ……… to step down and paved the way for Democracy.
9. Gross National Happiness was first mentioned in the constitution of Bhutan, which was enacted on ……
10. …… and …….. are synonyms, both denoting the exercise of authority in an organization, institution (or) state.
Answers:
1. Government
2. legislature, executive, judiciary
3. Monarchy
4. Argentina
5. Parliamentary
6. Presidential
7. Kitchen Cabinet
8. King Gyanendra.
9. 18^th July 2008
10. Government, Governance

II. Fill up.

Country	Name of the Parliament
Israel	……………………..
	Bundestag

Answer:

Country	Name of the Parliament
Israel	Knesset
Germany	Bundestag

III. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Monarchy and Democracy
Answer:

Monarchy	Democracy
A form of movement with a Monarch as the head.	The government is headed by elected representatives.
Power is passed through heritage and bloodline.	This principally supports the election.

IV. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Government?
Answer:
‘Government’ refers to the executive functions of the state. It denotes a body having authority to make and enforce laws applicable to the civil, corporate, religious, academic of other groups.

Question 2.
From where did the term Government was derived?
Answer:
The term Government is derived from Old French ‘governer’, derived from Latin ‘gubernare’ to direct, rule, guide, govern”.

Question 3.
Mention the demerits of Unitary form of Government.
Answer:

• It is not suitable for big countries.
• The central government will have to tackle so many complex problems that lead to administrative delay
• The central government will not concentrate on local problems, local interest and initiative.
• The concentration of powers may pave way for the despotism of the central government.

Question 4.
State the feature of the Parliamentary form of governance.
Answer:
Features of parliamentary form of government

• Nominal and Real Executives
• Majority Party Rule
• Collective Responsibility
• Dual Membership
• The leadership of the Prime Minister

Question 5.
State the merits of the Presidential system of government.
Answer:
Merits of the presidential system of government

• Democratic
• Effective Control by the President
• Facilitate decision-making
• State government

Question 6.
Write down the characteristics of good governance.
Answer:
Characteristics of good governance:

• Participation
• Rule Of Law
• Transparency
• Responsiveness
• Consensus Orientation
• Equity
• Effectiveness And Efficiency
• Accountability

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Federal form of Government.
Answer:
The classification of governments into unitary and federal is based on the nature of relations between the national and the regional governments.

A federal government is one in which powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently. U.S.A, Switzerland, Australia, Canada, Russia, Brazil, Argentina have federal form of governments. In a federal model, the national government is known as the Federal government or the Central Government or the Union government and the regional government is known as the state government or the provincial government.

Merits of federal form of government

• Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity
• Division of power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency
• It gives rise to big states
• Distribution of powers check the despotism of central government
• More suitable for bigger countries
• It is good for economic and cultural progress

De-merits of federal form of government

• Federal government is weaker when compared to the unitary government.
• Federal government is more expensive
• Provincial tendencies are very common
• Lack of uniformity in Administration
• Threat to national unity
• Distribution of powers between centre and states lead to conflicts
• Double Citizenship
• Rigid constitution cannot be mended easily for changing needs
• The state governments sometimes place hindrances in foreign policy.

Federal features of the Indian constitution

• Dual Government
• Written Constitution
• Division of Powers
• Supremacy of the Constitution. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.
• The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions.
• Rigid Constitution
• Independent Judiciary
• Bicameralism

Question 2.
Explain Gross National Happiness.
Answer:
Gross National Happiness is a developing philosophy as well as an ‘index’ which is used to measure the collective happiness in any specific nation. The concept was first mentioned in the constitution of Bhutan, which was enacted on 18 July 2008.

The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ was coined by the fourth king of Bhutan, Jigme Singye Wangchuck, in the 1970s. The GNH’s central tenets are “Sustainable and equitable socio-economic development; environmental conservation; preservation and promotion of culture; and good governance”. GNH is distinguishable by valuing collective happiness as the goal of governance and by emphasising harmony with nature and traditional values.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Tamilnadu Agriculture

Tamilnadu Agriculture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is
(a) 27%
(b) 57%
(c) 28%
(d) 49%
Answer:
(b) 57%

Question 2.
Out of the following which is not a food crop?
(a) Bajra
(b) Ragi
(c) Maize
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(d) Coconut

Question 3.
The productivity of paddy during the year 2014-2015
(a) 3,039 kg
(b) 4,429 kg
(c) 2,775 kg
(d) 3,519 kg
Answer:
(b) 4429 kilogram

Question 4.
Both agricultural productivity and food productivity has ……..
(a) decreased
(b) not stable
(c) remained stable
(d) increased
Answer:
(d) Increased

Question 5.
The North-East monsoon period in Tamilnadu ………
(a) August – October
(b) September – November
(c) October – December
(d) November – January
Answer:
(c) October – December

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The major occupation of people in Tamilnadu is ……..
2. Tamilnadu receives rainfall from the ……. monsoon.
3. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is …….. hectares.

Answers:

1. Agriculture
2. Northeast
3. 30 lakh and 33 thousand

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Give two examples for each food crop and non-food crops.
Answer:

1. Food crops: Paddy, Wheat.
2. Non-food crops: Coconut, Cotton.

Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for the changes in the cropping area?
Answer:
The size of the total cropping land in Tamil Nadu is 4,544 thousand hectares and this keeps on changing every year. Sufficient rains at the proper period will increase this extent of land. Failure or shortage in rainfall leads to the reduction of land usage for cultivation. .

Question 3.
Who monitors the quantity and quality of groundwater?
Answer:
The Union Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of groundwater.

Question 4.
Tabulate the productivity of paddy from 1965 to 2015.
Answer:

Question 5.
On what factors does crop cultivation depend? List out the factors on which crop cultivation depends.
Answer:
Crop cultivation depends on – rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

Question 6.
Differentiate small and marginal farmers.
Answer:

Small Farmers	Marginal Farmers
Small farmers cultivate in lands ranging from 1 -2 hectares.	Marginal farmers cultivate in lands within 1 hectare.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Give a note on water resources in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu.
2. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the northeast and southwest monsoons.
3. When the southwest monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of Kavery River in Karnataka, Dams there get filled and in turn, Kavery River in Tamil Nadu gets water.
4. The area under irrigation is about 57% of the total area under cultivation.
5. Canals, lakes, open wells and bore wells also provide water for irrigation.
6. But agriculture in Tamil Nadu is dependent on groundwater.

Question 2.
What are the problems faced by using groundwater for agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture in Tamil Nadu is dependent mostly on groundwater. Use of groundwater for agriculture creates many hardships too. There would be no suffering if the amount of water taken from the underground and the amount of water that goes into the underground during the rainy season are equal. On the contrary, as the amount of water taken increases, the ground water goes down resulting in complete dryness or change into unusable water.

Question 3.
Discuss the source of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:

1. The northeast monsoon (oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu.
2. The Northeast monsoon rains are stored in reservoirs, lakes, and tarns for cultivation.
3. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds, and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu.
4. 2239 canals mn through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9750 km.
5. There are 7985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells.
6. There are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.
7. The area of land that is irrigated from the lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes.
8. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares.
9. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 11.91 lakh hectares of land.
10. Still in Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on groundwater.

Question 4.
Tabulate the crops grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Crops grown in Tamil Nadu are:

1. Paddy
2. Black gram
3. Maize
4. Coconut
5. Corn
6. Sugarcane
7. Millets

VI Activity

Question 1.
Analyse the cultivation of food crops and non-food crops of your village/area.
Answer:

Question 2.
Thanjavur is famous for which crop? Why is it so? Research.
Answer:
(a) The Principal crops in Thanjavur District are paddy, green gram, black gram, sugarcane,
cotton, groundnut, gingelly, coconut, fruits and vegetables in the areas where irrigation facility is available.
In the rainfed area cholam, kumbu, ragi, maize, some edible oil seeds, non-edible oilseeds, fodder crops etc.
(b) The land is ideal for growing crops like Rice. The major portion of Thanjavur land consists of alluvial deposits. Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(c) Soil and Water Management Research Institute Kalluthottam was established in 1972. They conduct research on the improved methods of water conveyance, application, and utilization on rice and other crops grown in the Cauvery Delta zone.

Question 3.
Collect statistical data, where paddy is being cultivated at Thanjavur District, which is called the Nerkalanjium of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Samba cultivation has picked up in Thanjavur District.
(c) In Tiruvarur district direct sowing has been done on 70,000 hectares of land, while transplantation has been completed on 11,500 hectares.
(d) High concentrations of rice production is found in the taluks of Orathanadu, Thiruvaiyaru, Kumbakonam, Pabanasam, Thiruvidaimarudur, etc.

Tamilnadu Agriculture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the total employee population engaged in agriculture according to the 2001 census.
(a) 48.3%
(b) 49.3%
(c) 47.3%
(d) 46.3%
Answer:
(b) 49.3%

Question 2.
The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty-three thousand hectares
(b) one crore twenty lakh and thirty-two thousand hectares
(c) one crore forty lakh and thirty-three thousand hectares
(d) one crore twenty-five lakh and thirty thousand hectares
Answer:
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty-three thousand hectares

Question 3.
The number of blocks identified as excessive users of groundwater are
(a) 140
(b) 141
(c) 139
(d) 138
Answer:
(c) 139

Question 4.
……… cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area.
(a) Paddy
(b) Varagu
(c) Cholam
(d) Kambu
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 5.
Production capacity of rice in Tamil Nadu was …….. Kg per hectare in 2014 – 2015.
(a) 4420
(b) 4422
(c) 4425
(d) 4427
Answer:
(d) 4427

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The agricultural workers in Tamil Nadu in 2011 were ……..
2. A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are ……… labourers.
3. Most of the cultivators in Tamil Nadu are …….. farmers.
4. There are no …….. rivers in Tamil Nadu.
5. The ……… Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of groundwater.
6. Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on ……….
7. Crops are divided into ……. and ……….

Answers:

1. 96 lakhs
2. landless
3. marginal
4. Perennial
5. Union Ground Water
6. groundwater
7. food, non-food

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What happened to the number of workers engaged in Agriculture in the past ten years?
Answer:
It has been noticed that the number of farmers in Tamilnadu has got reduced during the last 10 years according to the 2011 census data. Similarly, the number of agricultural workers also reduced during the same period.

Question 2.
What type of employees are involved in agricultural activities?
Answer:
A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are landless labourers. All the landholders do not have the same amount of land. Many have very little land and very few people hold large areas of land.

Question 3.
“The total area of land under agriculture is shrinking fast.” What does it show?
Answer:
The total land area under agriculture is shrinking fast not only in Tamilnadu but also throughout India. The number of marginal farmers has increased in India. In contrast, the number of marginal farmers is decreasing in Tamil Nadu. This shows that the farmers are doing other occupations.

Question 4.
Comment on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the southwest monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn, the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Question 5.
How is the productivity of crops?
Answer:
The productivity of crops continues to increase. For example, the productivity of paddy in 1965 – 66 was 1,409 kg. It increased to 2,029 kg in 1975-76 and 2,372 kg in 1985-86. It . increased to 2,712 kg after a decade. The production was 4,429 kg in the year 2014-15. In the past fifty years, the productivity of paddy has increased more than three times.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain irrigation and crop types.
Answer:
All cultivated crops can be classified as food crops and non-food crops. 57 percentage of the total land under food grain cultivation is irrigated. In 2014-15, 59 percentage of food crops and 50 percentage of nonfood crops were irrigated in Tamilnadu.

The total area of land cultivated in Tamil Nadu was 59 lakh and 94 thousand hectares in 2014—2015. Out of this non-food crops were 76%.

Paddy cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area and other food crops in 12 percent area. Millets are cultivated in a very low percentage of area. Sorghum(Cholam) cultivation in 7 percent land area, cumbu in one percent and ragi in 1.7 percent. Other millets occupy 6 percent in the year 2014-2015.

The area cultivatable land changes every year as a result of many factors such as rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Man and Environment

Man and Environment Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All external influences and factors that affect the growth and development of living organisms is ………
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
(d) Abiotic factors.
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 2.
The ‘World Population Day’ is observed on every year.
(a) August 11^th
(b) September 11^th
(c) July 11^th
(d) January 11^th
Answer:
(c) July 11^th

Question 3.
The statistical study of human population is
(a) Demography
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography
Answer:
(a) Demography

Question 4.
The extraction of valuable minerals and other geological minerals from the mines, is …..
(a) Fishing
(b) Lumbering
(c) Mining
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 5.
The Secondary sector of the economy produces …… from raw materials.
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Finished goods
(c) Economic goods
(d) raw materials
Answer:
(b) Finished goods

Question 6.
Gradual increase of the earth’s temperature by the Green house gases in the atmosphere is called …….
(a) Acid rain
(b) thermal pollution
(c) Global warming
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(c) Global warming

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered as a protective shield.
Reason (R): It prevents the UV radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 8.
Assertion (A): In tertiary activities, instead of producing goods by themselves, they are in the process of production.
Reason (R): People in Tertiary activities are purely eco friendly.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect.

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

IV. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘density of population’?
Answer:

1. Density of population refers to the number of people living per sq.km.
2. Population density = \(\frac { Total population }{ Total land area }\)

Question 2.
What is ‘black death’?
Answer:
The black death is estimated to have killed 30 – 60 percent of Europe’s total population during the 14th century. The dominant explanation for black death is attributed to the outbreak of plague.

Question 3.
Where do we have high and low densities of population?
Answer:

1. Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, northwest Europe and Eastern North America.
2. Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc.

Question 4.
What is Green House effect?
Answer:
Global warming is caused by the increase of green house gases such as carbondioxide, methane, water vapour and Chloro Fluoro Carbons(CFC), carbon monoxide, photo chemical oxidants and hydrocarbons, which are responsible for the heat retention ability of the atmosphere. Global warming causes climatic change, ozone layer depletion, rise in sea level and drowning of coastal inhabited land, melting of ice, etc., They are posing an even greater threat to human existence and so, man must start thinking of protecting the environment from pollution.

Question 5.
Write any two ways of how the locals and the government restored Palk Bay. Restoration of Palk Bay
Answer:
Local communities, government and civic organisations all came together not just to conserve the remaining mangroves, but also to restore it.

• Saplings of native species of plants and trees are being grown, planted and cared for.
• Live colonies of coral from the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve are being transplanted to Palk Bay. The existing mangroves and the region are being mapped and the way land is used around the mangrove is being studied.
• The local communities are actively involved in the conservation and restoration of the mangroves. Education and awareness programmes about mangrove ecosystem are being undertaken.

Question 6.
Define

1. Population growth
2. Census
3. Sustainable Development.

Answer:

1. Population growth: Population growth refers to an increase in the number of people who reside in a particular area during a particular period.
2. Census: It is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically, It records information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
3. Sustainable Development : Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs.

V. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Birth rate and Death Rate
Answer:

Birth Rate	Death Rate
Number of live births per 1000 people in a year	Number of deaths under one year of age for every 1000 live births in a year

Question 2.
Emigration and Immigration
Answer:

Emigration Immigration	Emigration Immigration
Emigration means moving out or to leave a place.	Immigration means to enter or come into a new country for the purpose of settling there.

Question 3.
Rural settlement and urban settlement
Answer:

Rural Settlement	Urban Settlement
Any settlement where most of the people are engaged in primary activities like agriculture, forestry, mining and fishery is known as a rural settlement.	Urban is the term related to cities and towns where people are primarily engaged in non-agricultural activities, such as secondary, tertiary and quartemary activities.
The most important and unique feature of rural settlements is the vast, open spaces with green, pollution-free environment.	The common characteristic feature of an urban unit is that they are compact, congested and liable to a large number of population.

Question 4.
Metropolitan and Mega cities
Answer:

Metropolitan	Mega cities
Cities accommodating population between 10 lakhs and 50 lakhs are metropolitan cities. E.g.: Madurai	Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called Megacities. E.g.: Greater Chennai

Question 5.
Primary Activities Secondary Activities
Answer:

Primary Activities	Secondary Activities
Primary Activities pertaining to the extraction of raw materials from the earth’s surface. For example food gathering, hunting, lumbering, fishing, cattle rearing, mining and agriculture.	Secondary Activities transform raw materials into finished goods. For example Iron and Steel industries, automobile manufacturing, etc.

VI. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Reforestation is encouraged throughout the world.
Answer:

1. Planting new trees can help to reduce the amount of CO₂ in the air.
2. Gases like Carbon dioxide and methane are major contributors to the changing climate.
3. Reforestation is an effective mitigation strategy to fight global warming.
4. Reforestation can help to restore what the erosion has damaged.

Question 2.
Acid rain destroys the ecosystem.
Answer:
When pollutants combine with water vapour in the presence of sunlight and oxygen, they form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids in the atmosphere. When this mixture precipitates from the atmosphere, it is called acid rain. This would cause lot of damages to life and property. It would affect the health of humans and animals, alter the constituents of water bodies, plants and trees may die as it deteriorates the soil quality and many more damages to nature.

Question 3.
The economy of the quaternary sector is called the knowledge economy.
Answer:

1. The quaternary sector of the economy is a way to describe a knowledge-based part of the economy.
2. It typically includes knowledge-oriented economic sectors such as information technology, media, research, and development.
3. It is based on knowledge and skill.
4. It consists of intellectual industries providing information services such as computing and ICT.

Question 4.
Population growth has to be brought under control.
Answer:
Population growth leads to high competition for all available resources. It leads to poor quality of life, education, food supply, low income and so on. The resources of Earth may exhaust one day and would lead to the end of mankind.

Question 5.
Sustainable development growth has been set to protect the planet.
Answer:

1. Sustainable development is the organising principle for meeting human development goals.
2. At the same time sustaining the ability of natural systems to provide the natural resources and ecosystem services upon which the economy and society depend.
3. In September 2015, the limited Nations General Assembly firmly adopted the “Universal, integrated and transformative” 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, a set of 17 sustainable Development goals (SDGs)
4. The goals are to be implemented and achieved in every country from the year 2016 to 2030.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting the distribution of the population.
Answer:
Population distribution refers to the way in which people are spread out across the earth surface. The world population is not uniformly distributed, owing to the following factors.
(a) Physical factors:
It includes temperature, rainfall, Soil, relief, water, natural vegetation, distribution of minerals and availability of energy resources.

(b) Historical factors:
Regions with historical importance (river valley civilizations, war and constant invasions fall under historical factors responsible for population distribution.

(c) Economic factors:
Educational Institutions, employment opportunities, manufacturing industries, luxurious amenities, trade and commerce and other facilities encourage dense population in an area.

Question 2.
Describe the patterns of rural settlement with neat diagrams.
Answer:
Rectangular pattern:
Rectangular pattern of settlements are found in plain areas or valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.

Linear pattern:
In a linear pattern, the houses are located along a road, railway line and along the edge of the river valley or along a levee.

Circular or semicircular pattern:
The pattern of settlement that is found around the lakes, ponds and sea coasts are called circular or semi circular pattern.

Star-like pattern:
Where several metalled or unmetalled roads converge, star-shaped settlements develop. In the star-shaped settlements, houses are spread out along the sides of roads in all directions.

Triangular pattern:
Triangular patterns of rural settlement generally develop at the confluence of rivers.

T-Shaped, Y-Shaped, Cross-Shaped or
Cruciform settlements:
T-shaped settlements develop at trijunctions of the roads (T), while Y-shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads converge with the third one. Cruciform settlements develop on the cross-roads which extend in all four directions.

Nebular pattern:
The arrangement of roads is almost circular which ends at the central location or nucleus of the settlement around the house of the main landlord of the village or around a mosque, temple or church.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Study your area and write down its settlement pattern.
Answer:

1. My area is Velachery, Chennai – 42.
2. It was developed after late 1990, in the Southern axis radiating out of the city.
3. It was built over a complex of low-lying wetlands.
4. In an already sunken Velachery, repeated road repairs had led to the roads increasing in height.
5. Lifting houses to escape floods.
6. Though Velachery is still a low lying area and the rainy season will be bad, it wouldn’t be as bad as before.
7. It is a place where we can get all facilities like transport, shopping, restaurants, hair parlours etc., within 1 km

IX. Map skill:

A. On the outline map of the world mark the following.
1. An area of the high density of population in Europe
2. An area of the low density of population in Australia
3. PalkBay
4. A fracking banned country
5. England – A country affected by ‘black death’
6. Denmark – First country where the modem census was conducted «
7. River Hwang Ho

B. On the outline map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.

1. A metropolitan city
2. A district with 7857 people per sq. km.
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Palk Strait

Man and Environment ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The interaction between man as an individual with his family, occupation and society is ……..
(a) Natural Environment
(b) Human Environment
(c) Man-made Environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Human Environment

Question 2.
The physical factor is ………..
(a) temperature
(b) war
(c) trade
(d) commerce
Answer:
(a) temperature

Question 3.
The economical factor is ……..
(a) rainfall
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) luxurious amenities
Answer:
(d) luxurious amenities

Question 4.
To enter (or) come into a new country for the purpose of settling there is known as ………..
(a) internal migration
(b) emigration
(c) immigration
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) immigration

Question 5.
The rural settlement that is found at the confluence of rivers is ……….
(a) linear pattern
(b) circular pattern
(c) starlike pattern
(d) triangular pattern
Answer:
(d) triangular pattern

Question 6.
Transforming raw materials into finished goods is an activity.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quinary
Answer:
(b) secondary

Question 7.
…….. is man-made pollution.
(a) Vehicular emission
(b) Wind erosion
(c) Pollen disposal
(d) Evaporation of organic compounds
Answer:
(a) Vehicular emission

Question 8.
Dry recyclable wastes are ……..
(a) food products
(b) packing plastics
(c) diapers
(d) mobiles
Answer:
(b) packing plastics

Question 9.
Van Mahotsav is a weeklong festival celebrated between ………
(a) 1^st and 7^th July
(b) 1^st and 7^th June
(c) 1^st and 7^th August
(d) 1^st and 7^th September
Answer:
(a) 1^st and 7^th July

Question 10.
…… disease is caused by water pollution.
(a) Hypertension
(b) Mental illness
(c) Stress
(d) Diarrhoea
Answer:
(d) Diarrhoea

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Noise pollution is basically a problem in urban areas, industrial areas, transport areas due to bombardment, traffic, etc.
Reason (R): It has an impact on the habitat of animals migration and health of inhabitants.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct and A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect and R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Things used for domestic purposes can be reused and recycled.
Reason (R): Organic waste matter should be disposed of far away from settlements.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.
1. …….. is the statistical study of the human population.
2. ……. is an official enumeration of the population carried out periodically.
3. …… is a condition when a country has more people than its resources to sustain.
4. Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called ……..
5. ……… Activities pertaining to the extraction of raw materials from the earth’s surface.
6. …….. is a poisonous gas made up of molecules consisting three oxygen atoms.
7. ……. refers to the process of increase in urban population and urban areas in a country.
8. Economic sustainability is successfully implemented through strong ………
Answers:
1. Demography
2. Census
3. Overpopulation
4. megacities
5. Primary
6. Ozone
7. Urbanisation
8. Public Distribution System

V. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Define Environment.
Answer:
The environment is a set of relationships between man and nature. Man has survived through the ages, dwelling within his surrounding called the environment.

Question 2.
Write a short note on “Human Environment”.
Answer:
Human environment is defined as the interaction between man as an individual, with his family, occupation, and society. It is also related to various cultural aspects such as education, religion, economics and politics.

Question 3.
What is Demography?
Answer:
In ancient Greek, ‘demos’ means people and ‘graphis’ means study Of measurement: So, ‘Demography’is the statistical study of human population.

Question 4.
What does population distribution refer to?
Answer:
Population distribution refers to the way in which people are spread out across the earth’s surface.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Nebular pattern of road arrangement?
Answer:
The arrangement of roads is almost circular which ends at the central location or nucleus of the settlement around the house of the main landlord of the village or around a mosque, temple or church.

Question 6.
Mention the patterns of Rural Settlement.
Answer:

1. Rectangular pattern
2. Linear pattern
3. Circular or semicircular pattern
4. Star-like pattern
5. Triangular pattern
6. T-Shaped, Y-Shaped, Cross-Shaped or Cruciform settlements
7. Nebular pattern

Question 7.
What are the control measures for Noise pollution?
Answer:
The control measures of noise pollution are:

1. Development of green belt vegetation.
2. Installation of decibel meters along highways and in places of public gatherings.
3. Planting trees along the compound wall to protect houses.

Question 8.
State the problems of urbanisation.
Answer:
As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on the transport system, water supplies, sewage, and profuse disposal. The overall development creates problems like air pollution, water pollution, traffic congestion and noise pollution, etc., This disturbed environment affects human beings as mental illness, heart troubles, breathing problems, etc.

Question 9.
Classify wastes.
Answer:
Wastes can be classified into five types, which are commonly found around the house. These include liquid waste, solid rubbish, organic waste, recyclable rubbish and hazardous waste like e-waste.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Environmental Sustainability?
Answer:
Environmental sustainability is the ability of the environment to support a defined level of environmental quality and natural resource extraction rates forever to mankind. Unnecessary disturbances to the environment should be avoided whenever possible.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Natural Environment and Human Environment.
Answer:

Natural Environment	Human Environment
The components of natural components of the environment are lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.	The human environment is defined as the interaction between man as an individual, with his family, occupation, and society.
This includes the biotic and abiotic components like ponds, lakes, grasslands, forests, mountains, etc.	It is related to various cultural aspects such as education, religion, economics and politics.

Question 2.
Rectangular Pattern and Linear Pattern.
Answer:

Rectangular Pattern	Linear Pattern
Rectangular patterns of settlements is found in plain areas or valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.	In a linear pattern, the houses are located along a road, railway line, and along the edge of the river valley or along a levee.

Question 3.
Tertiary Activities and Quarternary Activities.
Answer:

Tertiary Activities	Quarternary Activities
Activities which by themselves do not produce goods, but support the process of production are called tertiary activities.	The activities related to Research and Development, as well as knowledge are called Quaternary activities.
For example Transport, communication, banking, storage, and trade.	For e.g. Services like a consultation, education, and banking.

Question 4.
Town and City
Answer:

Town	City
A town is generally larger than a village but smaller than a city. It has a population of less than 1 lakh.	Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions. The population in cities is estimated to be more than 1 lakh.
E.g.: Arakkonam near Chennai	E.g.: Coimbatore

VII. Give Reasons

Question 1.
“It is easy to add but difficult to maintain.”
Answer:

1. The population is a dynamic phenomenon where distribution and composition are constantly changing.
2. Human population increases as babies are born and decreases as people die. So it is easy to increase the number but difficult to maintain.

Question 2.
“Human settlement can be described as any temporary (or) permanent unit area”.
Answer:

1. During the early days man preferred tree branches, caves, pits (or) even rock cuts as his shelter.
2. Slowly settlements came into existence.
3. Later small settlements developed into villages, towns, cities. So he started living in settled areas.

Question 3.
“We must use forest products properly”.
Answer:
Besides providing habitats for animals and livelihoods for humans, forest products are one of the most essential things in our day to day life. Therefore we must use forest products properly.

Question 4.
“Pollution is an unfavourable modification of the natural world”.
Answer:
Pollute means to degrade or to make dirty. It is caused entirely (or) partly due to direct (or) indirect actions of human beings. So pollution is an unfavourable modification of the natural world.

Question 5.
Why do we get impervious diseases like skin cancer, blindness, loss of plankton?
Answer:
Due to the depletion of the ozone layer, UV rays fall on the earth’s surface and leads to impervious diseases like skin cancer, blindness, loss of plankton etc.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Define Sustainable Development. Explain Social Sustainability and Economic Sustainability.
Answer:
“Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”. For sustainable development to be achieved, it is crucial to harmonize three core elements: economic growth, social aspects and environmental protection. These elements are interconnected and are crucial for the wellbeing of individuals and societies. To achieve true sustainability, we need to balance the economic, social, and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony.

Social Sustainability
The ability of a social system such as a country, family, or organization to function at a defined level of social well-being and harmony is called social sustainability. Problems like war, endemic poverty, widespread injustice, and low education rates are symptoms of a system in socially unsustainable. The balancing capacity of a government in maintaining peaceful existence towards other countries and at the same time providing the requirements of its citizens without affecting the environment creates social sustainability.

Economic Sustainability
The people on earth consume far more than what is their fair share.

• Economic sustainability is successfully implemented through a strong Public Distribution System.
• Economic sustainability ensures that our economic growth maintains a healthy balance with our ecosystem.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Atmosphere

Atmosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the Best Answer.

Question 1.
…………… is the most important gas for the survival of living
(a) Helium
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) oxygen
(d) methane
Answer:
(c) oxygen

Question 2.
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is ……………
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Question 3.
…………. reflects radio waves.
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(c) Mesosphere

Question 4.
The average global surface temperature is …………….
(a) 12°c
(b) 13°c
(c) 14°c
(d) 15°c
Answer:
(b) 13°c

Question 5.
The process of change of state of water from gaseous to liquid state is called ……………..
(a) Precipitation
(b) evaporation
(c) transpiration
(d) condensation
Answer:
(d) condensation

Question 6.
The …………… is the chief energy source of the Earth.
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) clouds
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 7.
All types of clouds are found in the ……………….
(a) Troposphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere.
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Question 8.
…………….. clouds are called ‘Sheep clouds’.
(a) Alto-cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus
(c) Nimbo-stratus
(d) Cirro-cumulus
Answer:
(a) Alto-cumulus

Question 9.
The Monsoons are ……………
(a) Prevailing winds
(b) Periodic winds
(c) local winds
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Periodic winds

Question 10.
Dew in the form of ice crystals is called ………….
(a) frost
(b) fog
(c) mist
(d) sleet
Answer:
(d) sleet

Question 11.
………………. is called the eye of the storm.
(a) Pressure
(b) wind
(c) cyclones
(d) snow
Answer:
(c) cyclones

Question 12.
The vertical movement of air is called ……………
(a) Wind
(b) storm
(c) Air current
(d) drift
Answer:
(c) Air current

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (g)
7. (f)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Define the atmosphere.
Answer:

1. The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere.
2. It is held close to the earth by gravitational attraction.
3. The atmosphere is a mixture of gases, water vapour, and dust particles in different proportions

Question 2.
Name the different atmospheric layers.
Answer:
The different atmospheric layers are Troposphere* Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, and Exosphere.

Question 3.
Mention the factors that affect the climate.
Answer:
The factors that affect weather and climate are

1. Latitude or distance from the equator
2. Altitude height above the sea level
3. Nearness to the sea
4. Nature of the prevailing winds
5. Mountain barrier
6. Cloud cover
7. Ocean currents
8. Natural vegetation

Question 4.
What is insulation?
Answer:
The amount of heat received from the sun in the form of short waves is called insulation (or) incoming Solar Radiation.

Question 5.
What are isotherms?
Answer:
Some of the processes that are responsible for atmospheric heat are Radiation, Conduction, Convection, and Advection.

Question 6.
Write a short note on ‘Lapse rate’.
Answer:

• Altitude refers to the height above sea level.
• The temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C far every 165 mts of height. This is called “Normal Lapse rate”.

Question 7.
What are the processes responsible for heating the atmosphere?
Answer:
The processes responsible for heating the atmosphere are Radiation, Conduction, Convection and Advection.

Question 8.
Mention the planetary wind system of the earth.
Answer:
The winds which constantly blow in the same direction throughout the year are called the planetary winds. They are also called permanent winds (or) the prevailing winds.

Question 9.
Write a short note on:
(a) Trade winds (b) Roaring Forties
Answer:
(a) Trade winds:

1. Trade winds blow from the subtropical high-pressure belt to the Equatorial low-pressure belt in both the hemispheres.
2. They blow with great regularity, force and in a constant direction throughout the year.
3. These winds were helpful to traders, hence called trade winds.
4. As they move westwards, they become dry and do not give rainfall.

(b) Roaring Forties:

1. Westerlies are the permanent winds that blow from the tropical high-pressure belt to the subpolar low-pressure belt in both the hemispheres.
2. The velocity of westerlies become so vigorous and fast to be called Roaring Forties at 40°, Furious Fifties at 50°, and screaming Sixties at 60° latitudes.

Question 10.
How are clouds formed?
Answer:

1. A large amount of water evaporates each day from the surface of the Sea.
2. This is the principal source of atmospheric moisture.
3. Cool moisture-laden air gets collected around particles like dust, salt content from the sea, smoke, etc, and forms clouds.
4. Sometimes mixing warmer and cooler air also produces clouds.

Question 11.
What are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:

1. Rainfall is the most predominant type of precipitation.
2. Moisture laden air masses raise upwards, forms clouds, and bring rainfall.
3. Based on the mechanisms of raising the air, there are three types of rainfall.
4. They are
   • Convectional rainfall
   • Frontal or Cyclonic rainfall
   • Orographic rainfall.

Question 12.
What is Precipitation? What are the different forms of precipitation?
Answer:

1. Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation.
2. When the dew point is reached in the cloud water droplets become saturated and start to fall as Precipitation.
3. The different types of precipitation are
   • drizzle
   • rain
   • sleet
   • snow
   • hail etc.

Question 13.
Write short notes on:

1. Drizzle
2. rain
3. sleet
4. snow
5. heat

Answer:

1. Drizzle: The falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with a diameter of less than 0. 5 is called a driggle.
2. Rain: Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperatures above the freezing point.
3. Sleet: Sleet refers to precipitation in form of pallets made up of transparent and translucent ice. This is a mixture of snow and rain.
4. Snow: Snow is formed when condensation occurs below the freezing point. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi-opaque ice crystals.
5. Heat: Heat is the energy which makes an object hot, while temperature measures the intensity of heat.

Question 14.
How are Cyclones classified?
Answer:
Cyclones Can be classified into

1. Tropical cyclones
2. Temperate cyclones
3. Extra-Tropical cyclones.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:

S.No.	Weather	Climate
(i)	Weather is the study of atmospheric conditions for a short duration over small areas.	It is the study of the average weather condition observed over a long period of time for a larger area.
(ii)	The weather changes very often; hour to hour and day today.	Climate is more (or) less permanent and remains the same always.
(iii)	The study of weather is called meteorology.	The study of climate is called climatology.

Question 2.
Land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:

S.No.	Land Breeze	Sea Breeze
(i)	During the night the land cools more rapidly than the ocean. Cool air sinks and forms high pressure.	During the day the landmasses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
(ii)	The wind that blows from land to sea during the night is called a land breeze.	Heated air ascends and this causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean, therefore the wind blows from the ocean to land in the afternoon. This is called a sea breeze.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:

S.No.	Windward side	Leeward side
(i)	The windward side of a mountain which faces the prevailing wind.	The Leeward side of the mountain is the side sheltered from the wind.
(ii)	It receives heavy rainfall.	It receives very less rainfall.

Question 4.
Tropical cyclone and Temperate cyclones
Answer:

S.No.	Tropical cyclones	Temperate cyclones
(i)	Tropical cyclone develops in the Intertropical convergent zone. They are formed due to the differential heating of land & Sea.	Temperate cyclones are formed along a front, where hot and cold air masses meet.
(ii)	They often cause heavy loss of life and properly on the coasts and become weak after reaching the landmasses.	Temperate cyclones do not become weak like Tropical cyclones on reaching the land.
(iii)	Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in the Indian ocean.	Temperate cyclones are called western disturbances in India.

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Cyclones cause huge loss of life and property.
Answer:

1. A Tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating storm system.
2. It is characterised by a low pressure center, a closed low level atmospheric circulation, strong winds and a spiral arrangement of thunderstorms, that produce heavy rain.
3. Very strong winds many damage installations, dwellings, communication systems, trees etc.
4. Therefore, it results in loss of life and property.
5. Heavy prolonged rains due to cyclones may cause river floods and submergence of low-lying areas of rain, causing loss of life and property.

Question 2.
Cloudy days are warmer than cloudless days.
Answer:
On a cloudy day some energy from the sun gets into the atmosphere through the clouds but can’t get out again, when this happens the heat builds up during the day, so it gets warmer outside.

Question 3.
Fog is dangerous for traffic.
Answer:

1. Fog is a thick cloud of tiny water droplets suspended in the atmosphere at or near the earth’s surface.
2. It obscures or restricts visibility to a greater extent than mist.
3. It strictly reduces visibility to below 1 km.
4. Many lives are lost each year worldwide from accidents involving fog conditions on the highways, including multiple – vehicle collisions.
5. The aviation travel industry is affected by the severity of fog conditions.

Question 4.
Convectional rainfall is also called 4 O’clock rain.
Answer:

1. The convectional rainfall occurs regularly in the equatorial region in the evenings.
2. The ascending moist air cools, condenses, and results in convectional rainfall. So it is called 4 O’clock rainfall.

Question 5.
Polar Easterlies are cold and dry. Why it is so?
Answer:

1. The polar easterlies are the dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the high-pressure areas of the polar highs at the North and South poles towards low-pressure areas within the westerlies at high latitudes when air moves near the poles, cold temperatures shrink the air.
2. These are weak winds flowing from the Northeast direction in the Northern Hemisphere and South east direction in the Southern Hemisphere.

VI. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about the structure of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere. The five atmospheric layers are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the troposphere. The Greek word ‘tropos’ means ‘turn’ or change. The layer extends up to 8 kms at the poles and up to 18 kms at the Equator. The temperature decreases with increasing height. Almost all weather phenomenon take place in this layer. Hence it is called weather making layer. The upper limit of the troposphere is called as tropopause.

Stratosphere: Stratosphere lies above the troposphere. It extends to a height of about 50 km above earth surface. Since this layer is a concentration of ozone molecules, it is also referred as ozonosphere. The temperature increases with increase in height in this layer. Large jet planes normally fly here. The upper limit of the stratosphere is called as stratopause. Mesosphere: Mesosphere extends between 50km and 80km. The temperature increases with increasing height. Radio waves transmitted from earth are reflected back to earth from this layer. Most of the meteors nearing the earth, get burned here. The uppermost limit of the mesosphere is the mesopause.

Thermosphere: Thermosphere exists above the mesosphere. It extends to about 600 km. The composition of gases in the lower thermosphere is more or less uniform, hence it is called ‘‘Homosphere”. The upper portion of the thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”. Here the temperature increases with increasing height. Ionosphere is a layer of the thermosphere that contains Ions and free electrons.

Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is called exosphere. This layer is extremely rarefied with gases and gradually merges with the outer space. This zone is characterized by aurora Australis and aurora borealis.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of permanent winds.
Answer:
Westerlies are the permanent Winds that blow from the tropical high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres. They blow from South West to North East . in the northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the southern hemisphere. The velocity of westerlies become so vigorous and fast to be called Roaring Forties at 40°, Furious Fifties at 50° and Screaming Sixties at 60° latitudes.

Question 3.
How are clouds classified? Explain them.
Answer:
According to their height, clouds are classified into the following types

• High clouds (6 – 20 km Height)
• Middle clouds (2.5 km – 6 km Height)
• Low clouds (ground surface to 25 km height)

These major types of clouds are further divided into different types on the basis of shape and structure.

1. High clouds
   • Cirrus: Detached clouds in the form of white delicate fibrous silky filaments formed at the high sky (8000 meters to 12000 meters) are called Cirrus clouds. These clouds are dry and do not give rainfall.
   • Cirrocumulus: White patched, sheet or layer like clouds composed of ice crystals. Cirrostratus: Smooth milky transparent whitish clouds composed of tiny ice crystals.
2. Middle clouds
   • Alto-stratus: Thin sheets of grey or blue coloured clouds in uniform appearance, consisting of frozen water droplets.
   • Alto-cumulus: clouds fitted closely together in parallel bands, called ‘Sheep clouds’ or woolpack clouds.
   • Nimbo stratus: These are clouds of dark colour very close to the ground surface associated with rain, snow or sleet.
3. Low clouds
   • Strato-cumulus: Grey or whitish layer of non-fibrous low clouds found in rounded patches at a height of 2500 to 3000 meters, associated with fair or clear weather.
   • Stratus: Dense, low lying fog-like clouds associated with rain or snow.
   • Cumulus: Dome-shaped with a flat base often resembling a cauliflower, associated with fair weather.
   • Cumulo-nimbus: Fluffy thick towering thunderstorm cloud capable of producing heavy rain, snow, hailstorm or tornadoes.

Question 4.
How are cyclones formed? How are they classified?
Answer:
The term cyclone is a Greek word meaning “coil of a snake”. Cyclones are centres of low pressure where winds from the surrounding high-pressure area converge towards the centre in a spiral form. Due to the rotation of the earth, the cyclonic winds in the northern hemisphere move in anti-clockwise direction, whereas they move in a clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
Cyclones can be classified into

Tropical cyclones, Temperate cyclones and Extratropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones: Tropical cyclones develop in the Intertropical convergence zone [ITCZ], They are formed due to the differential heating of land and sea.
Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean, ‘typhoons’ in the western pacific ocean, ‘hurricanes’ in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific ocean, ‘baguios’ in Phillipines and ‘willy willy’ in Australia. Tropical cyclones often cause heavy .loss of life and property on the coasts and become weak after reaching the landmasses.

Temperate cyclones: Temperate cyclones are formed along a front where hot and cold air masses meet in mid-latitudes between 35° and 65°N and S. Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the tropical cyclones on reaching the land. Temperate cyclone commonly occurs over the North Atlantic Ocean, northwest Europe, Mediterranean basin. Mediterranean basin’s temperate cyclones extend up to Russia and India in winter. In India, it is called the western disturbances.

Extratropical cyclones: Extratropical cyclones occur in the latitudes between 30° and 60° in both hemispheres. They are also called mid-latitude cyclones. They collect energy from temperature differences which are found in higher latitudes. Extratropical cyclones produce mild showers to heavy gales, thunderstorms, blizzards, and tornadoes.

Question 5.
Explain the different forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation
Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation. When the dew point is reached in the cloud water droplets become saturated and start to fall. Hence, they fall on the earth as precipitation.
The climatic conditions/ factors influencing the forms of precipitation mainly are:

• Temperature.
• Altitude
• Cloud type
• Atmospheric conditions.
• Precipitation process.

The main forms of precipitation include drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.
Drizzle: The falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with a diameter of less than 0. 5 is called a drizzle from low clouds. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

Rain: Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperatures above the freezing point. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a raindrop is more than 5 mm.

Sleet: Sleet refers to precipitation, in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

Snow: Snow is formed when condensation occurs below the freezing point. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi-opaque ice crystals. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes.

Hails: Hails are chunks of ice (greater than 2 cm in diameter) falling from the sky, during a rainstorm or thunderstorm.
Hailstones are a form of solid precipitation where small pieces of ice fall downwards. These are destructive and dreaded forms of solid precipitation because they destroy agricultural crops and human lives.

VII. Activity:

1. Preparing chart of clouds at various atmospheric levels. – Individual Activity.
2. Collecting proverbs clouds and rain-related proverbs. – Individual Activity.
3. Poem on ‘clouds’ and ‘rain’. – Individual Activity.
4. Report writing observes the clouds for a week. Write your report about the shape and colours of the clouds. – Group Activity.
5. Working models (a) Rain Gauge (b) Wind vane – Group Activity.
   • The teacher takes initiative to complete the following activities.
   • The students get the assistance of the teacher to complete the given task.
6. Preparing a bar diagram:
   (a) Collect the data of the temperature of Kanyakumari, Delhi, Allahabad, and Itanagar for a day.
   (b) Also collect the data of rainfall received by Jaisalmer (Rajasthan), Mawsynram (Meghalaya), Nagapattinam, Coimbatore for a day. – Group Activity.
7. Become a budding Meteorologist:
   Record the local weather condition of your place for a week. – Group Activity.
   

Answer:
You can do this activity in groups under the guidance of your teacher.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called weather making layer?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere. It is also known as the weather-making zone because all physical processes of weather, like wind, clouds, storms, rainfall, mist, fog, and hail, occur here.

Atmosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is a permanent gas in the atmosphere.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Methane
(d) Helium
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 2.
This gas helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) Ozone

Question 3.
The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is …………….
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer:
(c) Exosphere

Question 4.
This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.
(a) Sleet
(b) Snow
(c) Hail
(d) Hailstones
Answer:
(a) Sleet

Question 5.
The humidity of the atmosphere is measured by the wet and dry bulb thermometer called ………….
(a) Anemometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Answer:
(c) Hygrometer

Question 6.
This is one of the most feared weather phenomena.
(a) Snow
(b) Hailstones
(c) Sleet
(d) Hails
Answer:
(b) Hailstones

Question 7.
Tropical cyclones in India is known as ……………
(a) Baguio’s
(b) willy willy
(c) hurricanes
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(d) Cyclones

Question 8.
The wind blowing from the east is ……………
(a) Planetary winds
(b) Easterly winds
(c) Variable winds
(d) Local winds
Answer:
(b) Easterly winds

Question 9.
This is the wettest place in India.
(a) Mawsynram
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) Shillong
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Mawsynram

Question 10.
This is the earth’s magnetic belt ………………
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Magnetosphere
Answer:
(d) Magnetosphere

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
(a)
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (c)

(b)

Answer:
(b)
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who discovered Nitrogen in the Atmosphere? When?
Answer:
In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in the atmosphere.

Question 2.
What are Auroras?
Answer:
Auroras are cosmic glowing lights produced by a stream of electrons discharged from the Sun’s surface due to magnetic storms that are seen as unique multicolored fireworks hanging in the polar sky during midnight.

Question 3.
What are mountain barriers?
Answer:

• The location of the mountains influences the climate of a place.
• The mountain chains act as a natural barrier for the wind.
• Sometimes they prevent the entry of cold winds into the country (or) the escape of monsoon winds, thus having a great influence over the climate.

Question 4.
What happens to atmospheric pressure with altitude?
Answer:

• Air pressure decreases with altitude.
• The air molecules became scattered and more widely spaced at higher altitudes.
• The air pressure develops by 34 millibars per 300 meters increase in height.

Question 5.
What do you call the winds of a particular area?
Answer:

• The winds that are blown in a particular locality for a short period of time are called the local winds.
• The effects of these local winds are experienced only in that particular area.

Question 6.
Define the terms (a) Absolute humidity (b) Relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity: The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is called Absolute Humidity.
Relative Humidity: The ratio between the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere and the amount of water vapour it can hold is Relative humidity.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Conduction and Convection.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection
Conduction is the transfer of heat from a hot body to a cold body through contact.	Convection is the transfer of heat by movement or circulation of air in a mass.

Question 2.
Isobar and Isotherm.
Answer:

Isobar	Isotherm
An Isobar is an imaginary line drawn through places having equal atmospheric pressure reduced to sea level.	An imaginary line on a map connecting points having the same temperature

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Thermosphere is also referred to as “Heterosphere”.
Answer:
The upper portion of the Thermosphere has an uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”.

Question 2.
The wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. Why?
Answer:

1. During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
2. Heated air ascends and causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean.
3. Therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon.

Question 3.
The subtropical high pressure are called “horse latitudes”. Why?
Answer:

1. With little water and food left for humans, sailors used to throw the horses into the sea in order to make the vessels lighter.
2. Henceforth these belts (or) latitudes are called “horse latitudes”.

Question 4.
“Water droplets fall on the earth as precipitation”. Why?
Answer:

1. When the dew point is reached in the cloud, water droplets become saturated and start to fall.
2. Hence they fall on the earth as precipitation.

VI. Paragraph questions.

Question 1.
Describe the “composition of the atmosphere”.
Answer:
(i) Atmosphere is a mixture of gases, water vapour and dust particles in different proportions.

(ii) Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%) are permanent gases of the atmosphere. They constitute 99% of the total composition and their percentages always remain the same without any change.

(iii) The remaining one percentage is occupied by Argon (0.93%), Carbon-di-oxide, (0.03%), Neon (0.0018%), Helium (0.0005%), Ozone (0.00006%) and Hydrogen (0.00005%). Krypton, Xenon and Methane are also present in trace. Water vapour (0 – 0.4%) is also found in the atmosphere, which plays an important role in predicting weather phenomenon.

(iv) The other solid particles present in the atmosphere includes dust particles, salt particles, pollen grains, smoke, soot, volcanic ashes etc.,
(v) Oxygen is most important for living organisms.
(vi) CO₂ absorbs heat and keeps the atmosphere warm by insulation and radiation.
(vii) Nitrogen acts as a diluent and is chemically inactive.
(viii) Ozone helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(ix) The solid particles in the atmosphere acts as nuclei on which water vapour condense to form precipitation.

Question 2.
How is the Orographic rainfall caused?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall, also called relief rainfall, is caused when air is forced to rise against a high mountain. The mountain barriers lying across the direction of air flow, force the moisture laden air rise along the mountain slope. This results in the cooling of the air, which leads to the formation of clouds and rain. This rainfall is called Orographic rainfall. The side of the ‘ mountain facing the wind is called the windward side and receives heavy rainfall. It is called the rainfed region. The other side of the mountain that does not face the wind is called the leeward side and receives less rainfall becomes rain shadow region.

VII. HOTs (Higher Order Thinking skills) Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ (or) change. Almost all weather phenomenon takes place in this layer. Hence Troposphere is called as weather making layer.

Question 2.
Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are always affected by cyclones. Why?
Answer:

1. Coastal zone is exposed to natural forces including cyclones and Tsunamis.
2. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are situated on the Sea-Shore.
3. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are vulnerable to storms.
4. During Summer Bay of Bengal subject to intense heat cause to raise the humid and unstable air masses that produce cyclone.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere

Biosphere Textual Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. An area where animals, plants, and microorganisms live and interact with one another is known as ………
2. …….. are also called Heterotrophs.
3. ……. is a system of interlocking and independent food chains.
4. ………. is an extensive large ecosystem.
5. The vegetative type commonly found in desert biomes is called …..
6. ……. is an aquatic biome that is found where fresh water and saltwater mix.

Answers:

1. Habitat
2. Consumers
3. Food web
4. A biome
5. Xerophytes
6. Estuary

II. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The coldest biome on Earth is ……….
(a) Tundra
(b) Taiga
(c) Desert
(d) Oceans
Answer:
(a) Tundra

Question 2.
This is the smallest unit of the biosphere.
(a) Ecosystems
(b) Biome
(c) Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Ecosystems

Question 3.
Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms, referred to as
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Decomposers

Question 4.
To which climatic conditions are Xerophytic plants specifically adapted to?
(a) Saline and sandy
(b) Limited moisture availability
(c) Cold temperature
(d) Humid
Answer:
(a) Saline and sandy

Question 5.
Why is the usage of rainforest biomes for large scale agriculture unsustainable?
(a) because it is too wet
(b) because the temperature is too warm
(c) because the soil is too thin
(d) because the soil is poor
Answer:
(b) because the temperature is too warm

Questions 6-8 are assertion type questions.
Directions:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R does not explain A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(C) A is true; R is false

Question 6.
(A): Heterotrophs do not produce their own food.
(R): They depend on autotrophs for their nourishment.
Answer:
(C) A is true; R is false

Question 7.
(A): Hotspots are the regions characterised by numerous endemic plants and animal species
living in a vulnerable environment.
(R): To manage and focus on conservation work more effectively, researchers identified hotspots.
Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A

Question 8.
(A): The number of gorillas in Africa has plummeted by 60% in the past twenty years.
(R): Non-intervention of human beings in the forest areas.
Answer:
(D) Both A and R are false

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What is Biosphere?
Answer:

1. Biosphere, the fourth sphere of the Earth, is a life supporting layer that exists on the earth’s surface.
2. This layer on earth encompasses the Lithosphere, Hydrosphere and Atmosphere.
3. It includes flora and fauna that thrive on or near the earth’s surface.
4. Biosphere harbours all ecosystems on the earth and sustains life forms including mankind.

Question 2.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
The place on earth where living organisms live and interact with one another and with their physical environment is called an ecosystem.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘biodiversity’ mean?
Answer:

1. Biosphere is made up of different ecosystems and biomes.
2. All living things, large or small, are grouped into species.
3. The area in which an animal, plant or micro organism lives is called its habitat.
4. A wide variety of plants and animals live in a particular habitat known as biodiversity.

Question 4.
What is meant by loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
The extinction of species (flora and fauna) due to human and natural influences is called loss of biodiversity. The biodiversity loss has a great impact on mankind and also affects land, water, air etc. Habitat destruction due to deforestation, population explosion, pollution and global warming are the major cause for loss of biodiversity.

Question 5.
Mention the various terrestrial biomes.
Answer:

1. Terrestrial biomes are a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another on land.
2. They are mainly determined by temperature and rainfall.
3. Some of the major terrestrial biomes of the world are
   • Tropical Forest Biomes
   • Tropical Savanna Biomes
   • Desert Biomes
   • Temperate Grassland Biomes and
   • Tundra Biomes

IV. Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Producers and Decomposers.
Answer:

S.No.	Producers	Decomposers
(i)	They are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem.	They are organisms that are incapable of preparing its own food.
(ii)	Producers are called Autotrophs. e.g. Plants, Algae, Bacteria, etc.	Decomposers are organisms that are incapable of preparing its own food. They are called Saprotrophs. e.g. Fungus, Mushrooms.

Question 2.
Terrestrial biomes and Aquatic biomes
Answer:

S.No.	Terrestrial biomes	Aquatic biomes
(i)	It is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another on land.	It is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another for nutrients and shelter.
(ii)	They are determined by temperature and rainfall.	These are influenced by a series of abiotic factors.
(iii)	Terrestrial biomes are Tropical forest biomes, Tropical Savanna biomes, Desert biomes, Temperate Grassland biomes and Tundra biomes.	Aquatic biomes are Fresh water biomes and Marine biomes.

Question 3.
Tropical vegetation and Desert vegetation
Answer:

S.No.	Tropical vegetation	Desert vegetation
(i)	Half of the World’s Tropical forests are found in Central and South America.	Deserts are found in the Western Margin of the continents.
(ii)	This biome extends between 10°N and 10°S of the equator.	This extends between 20°N and 30°S latitudes.
(iii)	This weather condition favours thick vegetative cover.	They possess special type of vegetation called xerophytes.
(iv)	People in this region sustain their livelihood through food gathering.	People in this region sustain their life through food gathering and hunting.
(v)	High annual rainfall and relatively constant temperature is likely	Annual rainfall is less than 25 c.m in these regions.

Question 4.
Savannas and Tundra
Answer:

S.No.	Savannas	Tundras
(i)	Tropical grasslands are generally found between tropical forests.	These vast lowlands are found where the ground remains frozen.
(ii)	Generally hot climate and dry. They also experience moderate to low rainfall.	Generally long severe winter and short cool summer.
(iii)	Found in the Sahel, South of Sahara in East Africa and in Australia.	Found in Greenland Arctic and Antarctic regions and Northern parts of Asia, Canada and Europe.
(iv)	Chief occupation is herding.	Hunting and fishing are their main occupations.

V. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Producers are also called autotrophs.
Answer:

1. Producers are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem.
2. Flence they are called autotrophs.

Question 2.
Biosphere provides a stable ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Biosphere extends from the deep ocean trenches to lush rain forests.
2. People play an important role in maintaining the flow of energy in the biosphere.
3. There are places on earth that are both biologically rich and deeply threatened.
4. Hence Biosphere provides a stable ecosystem.

VI. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the various components of the ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem consists of three basic components, namely
(a) Abiotic components
(b) Biotic components and
(c) Energy components

(a) Abiotic Components:

1. Abiotic components include the non-living, inorganic, physical and chemical factors in the environment. Eg. Land, Air, Water, Calcium, Iron etc.

(b) Biotic Components:

1. Biotic components include plants, animals and microorganisms.
2. Biotic components can be classified into three categories:
   • Producers
   • Consumers
   • Decomposers.
3. Producers are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem. Elence they are called Autotrophs.
4. They are found both on land and water. Eg. Plants, Algae, Bacteria etc.
5. Consumers are those that depend on producers, directly or indirectly. Hence they are called Heterotrophs.
6. Decomposers are some organisms that are incapable of preparing its own food. They live on dead and decaying plants and animals. Hence they are called Saprotrophs.

(c) Energy Components

1. All organisms in the biosphere use energy to work and convert one form of energy into another.
2. The Sun is the ultimate source of energy for the biosphere as a whole.
3. The producers, consumers and decomposers contribute a lot to the energy flow in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph on the functions of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Functions of an ecosystem: The living organisms form an interacting set of flora and fauna which are organized into trophic levels, food chains and food webs. The functioning of an ecosystem depends on the pattern of the energy flow, as it helps in the distribution and circulation of the organic and inorganic matter within an ecosystem. Energy flow generally takes place in a hierarchical order in an ecosystem through various levels. These levels are called trophic levels. The chain of transformation of energy from one group of organisms to another, through various trophic levels is called a food chain. A system of interlocking and interdependent food chains is called a food web.

Question 3.
Explain about the aquatic biomes on Earth.
Answer:
Aquatic biome is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another and its aquatic environment for nutrients-and shelter. It is broadly classified as fresh water biomes and marine biomes.

A. Fresh water Biomes:

1. Fresh water biomes comprises lakes, ponds, rivers, streams,.wetlands etc.
2. It is influenced by various abiotic components such as the volume of water, water flow, composition of oxygen, temperature, etc.
3. Humans, rely on freshwater biomes for drinking water, crop irrigation, sanitation and industry.
4. Water lily, lotus, duck weeds etc. are the common plants found here.
5. Trout, salmon, turtles, crocodiles etc. are the animals found here.

B. Marine Biomes:

1. They are the largest aquatic biomes on earth.
2. They are continuous bodies of salt water and provide a wide range of habitats for marine plants and animals.
3. Coral reefs are a second kind of marine biomes within the ocean.
4. Estuaries, coastal areas where salt water and fresh water mix, form a third unique marine biome.
5. As water provides maximum mobility to marine organisms, nutrients are circulated more quickly and efficiently here than the terrestrial biomes.
6. Apart from animals, plants such as kelp, algae, phytoplankton etc. also grow in water.
7. Some of the threats and issues to aquatic biomes are overfishing, pollution and rise in sea level.

VII. Find out the dates for the following:

1. World Wild Life Day – …………
2. International Day of Forest – ………..
3. World Water Day – ………..
4. Earth Day – ………….
5. World Environment Day –  ………………
6. World Oceans Day – …………

Answers:

1. March 3rd
2. March 21st
3. March 22nd
4. April 22nd
5. June 5th
6. June 8th

VIII. Map Study

Locate the following on the world outline map.

1. Prairies
2. Downs
3. Tundra Biomes
4. Equatorial Biomes

You can identify and locate the above-mentioned grasslands with the help of an atlas.
Hint: Temperate grasslands are called differently in different parts of the world.
Prairies – North America
Downs – Australia and New Zealand
Tundra – Greenland, Arctic and Antarctic regions and Northern parts of Asia, Canada and Europe
Equatorial Biomes – Near the equator in Central and South America, parts of Africa and Asia

IX. Picture Study

Narrate the given food web of Arctic Tundra in your own words.

1. The flow of energy from the sun through an ecosystem can be illustrated in a food chain.
2. Within a food Chain there are produces. e.g., grasses, lichens, Arctic wildflower, etc.
3. Life in any biome includes producers (plants) and consumers (energy obtained from producers)
4. These consumers may be further classified as herbivores (plant-eater) carnivores(meat-eaters) (or) anniores (feed on a combination of both animals and plants).

Biosphere Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem.
2. All living things, large or small are grouped into ………
3. The ……. is the ultimate source of energy for the biosphere as a whole.
4. Decomposers live on dead and decaying plants and animals and are called ………
5. The extinction of species (flora and fauna) due to human and natural influences is called ………
6. The branch of science that deals with ecosystem is called ………
7. The temperate grasslands are called …… in North America.
8. ……….. is a fertile fresh water source found in deserts and semi-arid regions.
Answers:
1. Producers
2. species
3. sun
4. Saprotrophs
5. Lass of biodiversity
6. Ecology
7. Prairies
8. An Oasis

II. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……….. the fourth sphere of the Earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Biosphere
(d) Atmosphere
Answer:
(c) Biosphere

Question 2.
………. are found both on land and water.
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Saprotrophs
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Autotrophs

Question 3.
Consumers are those that depend on directly (or) indirectly are called ………..
(a) Saprotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Autotrophs
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Heterotrophs

Question 4.
A group of living organisms that live and interact with One another on land is ………
(a) Tropical Savanna Biomes
(b) Tropical Forest Biomes
(c) Desert Biomes
(d) Terrestrial Biomes
Answer:
(d) Terrestrial Biomes

Question 5.
The chain of transformation of energy from one group of organisms to another through various trophic levels is called as ……….
(a) Food chain
(b) Food web
(c) Trophic level
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Food chain

Questions 6-8 are Assertion (A) Reason (R) type.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (R) explains (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is true; (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): In Biodiversity each species, no matter how big of small has an important role to play in the ecosystem.
Reason (R): It maintains the ecological balance.
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (R) explains (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A): As the soil is sandy and saline deserts remain agriculturally unproductive. Reason (R): Tribal people who live in deserts practice food gathering and hunting.
Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (R) does not explain (A).

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Aquatic animals use 10% energy to obtain oxygen.
Reason (R): Terrestrial animals use only 2-4% of energy to obtain oxygen.
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

III. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
What does an ecosystem consists of?
Answer:
An ecosystem consists of three basic components, namely
(A) Abiotic components
(B) Biotic components and
(C) Energy component.

Question 2.
Define Abiotic Components.
Answer:
Abiotic components include the non-living, in-organic, physical and chemical factors in the environment, e.g., Land, Air, Water, Calcium, Iron, etc.

Question 3.
What are energy components?
Answer:
All organisms in the biosphere use energy to work and convert one form of energy into another. The Sun is the ultimate source of energy for the biosphere as a whole. The solar energy gets transformed into other forms of energy through the various components in the ecosystem. The producers, consumers and the decomposers contribute a lot to the energy flow in an ecosystem.

Question 4.
State the unique weather condition that favours thick vegetative cover in the Tropical Forest Biomes.
Answer:
The climate in these biomes shows little seasonal variation with high annual rainfall and relatively constant, high temperature. This unique weather condition favours thick vegetative cover.

Question 5.
How do the people live Desert Biomes?
Answer:
People who live here practice food gathering and hunting. They move their temporary settlements frequently in search of pastures. Transportation becomes very difficult here and is carried on by camels. Reptiles like snakes, lizards, scorpions etc., are most commonly found here.

Question 6.
Mention the Temperate Grasslands in different parts of the world.
Answer:
Temperate grasslands are called differently in different parts of the world.
Prairies – North America
Steppes – Eurasia
Pampas – Argentina and Uruguay
Veld – South Africa
Downs – Australia and Newzealand.

Question 7.
What is an oasis?
Answer:
An oasis is a fertile fresh water source found in deserts and semi-arid regions. Oases are fed by springs. Crops like date palms, figs, citrus fruits, maize etc. are cultivated near these oases.

Question 8.
What is a Biosphere Reserve?
Answer:
A Biosphere Reserve is a special ecosystem or specialized environment with flora and fauna that require protection and nurturing. There are 18 Bioshpere Reserves in India.

IV. Distinguish the following. 

Question 1.
Producers Consumers
Answer:

Producers	Consumers
Producers are self nourishing components of the ecosystem. Hence they are called Autotrophs. They are found both on land and water, e.g. Plants, Algae, Bacteria etc.	Consumers are those that depend on producers, directly or indirectly. Hence they are called Heterotrophs.

Question 2.
Abiotic components Biotic components
Answer:

Abiotic components	Biotic Components
Abiotic components include the non-living, inorganic, physical and chemical factors in the environment, e g. Land, Air, Water, Calcium, Iron etc.	Biotic components include plants, animals and micro organisms. Biotic components can be classified into three categories.

Question 3.
Mention any 3 points between Aquatic ecosystem and Terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:

S.No.	Aquatic Ecosystem	Terrestrial Ecosystem
(i)	Aquatic ecosystem exists on water covering 71% of the earth surface.	Terrestrial ecosystem exists on land covering 29% of the earth surface.
(ii)	Aquatic animals use 20% of energy to obtain oxygen.	Terrestrial animals use only 1-2% of energy to obtain oxygen.
(iii)	In this ecosystem there is abundant of water with limited oxygen supply.	In this ecosystem there is less availability of water, greater availability of gases and temperature fluctuation.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Stable biosphere has to be conserved.
Answer:
A healthy ecosystem provides clean water, pure water, enriched soil, food, raw materials, medicines etc. Hence stable biosphere has to be conserved.

Question 2.
The Primary cause of today’s loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
The primary cause of today’s loss of biodiversity is habitat alteration caused by human activities. The ever increasing population results in overexploitation of biological resources. This has an adverse impact, on flora and fauna on earth. There are places on earth that are both biologically rich and deeply threatened.

Question 3.
The Net Primary productivity is low in Tundra.
Answer:
This biome experiences long severe winter and short cool summer. Due to the prevailing of low temperature and short growing seasons, the net primary productivity is very low in tundra.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write down the differences between the Aquatic Ecosystem and Terrestrial Ecosystem.
Answer:

S.No.	Aquatic Ecosystem	Terrestrial Ecosystem
(i)	Aquatic ecosystem exists on water covering 71 % of the earth surface.	Terrestrial ecosystem exists on land covering 29% of the earth surface.
(ii)	Aquatic animals use 20% of energy to obtain oxygen.	Terrestrial animals use only 1-2% of energy to obtain oxygen.
(iii)	In this ecosystem there is abundant of Water with limited oxygen supply.	In this ecosystem there is less availability of water, greater availability of gases and temperature fluctuation.
(iv)	The small drifting photosynthetic organisms of the ocean called photo phytoplankton are regarded as the major primary producer.	The primary producer is the plant that produces food through the photosynthetic process.
(v)	Aquatic environment is more stable with smaller fluctuation in temperature and another variable.	The terrestrial environment is quite unstable as the land surface is affected by great risks from external impacts.

Question 2.
Desert Biomes.
Answer:
Deserts are usually found on the western margins of the continents between 20° and 30° N and S latitudes. The annual rainfall is less than 25 cm in these regions. Due to the lack of rainfall and arid conditions, these regions do not possess any vegetation but have special vegetation type called Xerophytes. As the soil is sandy and saline, deserts remain agriculturally unproductive. Drought resistant thorny scrubs and bushes, palms are found here.

Tribal people who live here practice food gathering and hunting. They move their temporary settlements frequently in search of pastures. Transportation becomes very difficult here and is carried on by camels. Reptiles like snakes, lizards, scorpions etc., are most commonly found here.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ………….. is the rigid outer layer of the Earth.
(a) core
(b) mantle
(c) Crust
(d) inner core
Answer:
(c) Crust

Question 2.
…………… layer is made up of liquid iron.
(a) Inner core
(b) Outer core
(c) Mantle
(d) Crust
Answer:
(b) Outer core

Question 3.
Magma is found in the ……………
(a) crust
(b) mantle
(c) core
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) mantle

Question 4.
Diastrophism is connected to ……………
(a) volcanism
(b) earthquakes
(c) tectonics
(d) fold/fault
Answer:
(c) tectonics

Question 5.
The movement of tectonic plates is induced by ………….. energy.
(a) hydel
(b) thermal
(c) wave
(d) tidal
Answer:
(b) thermal

Question 6.
In the ancient period, Gondwana land moved towards ………….. direction.
(a) north
(b) south
(c) east
(d) west
Answer:
(a) north

Question 7.
Many million years ago, India was a part of the super continent ………….
(a) Gondwana
(b) Laurasia
(c) Panthalasa
(d) Pangea
Answer:
(a) Gondwana

Question 8.
The movement of plates that creates stress and tension in the rocks causing them to stretch and cracks result in ………….
(a) fold
(b) fault
(c) mountain
(d) earthquake
Answer:
(b) fault

Question 9.
……………… refers to a bowl-shaped depression found at the top of the volcano.
(a) crater
(b) vent
(c) chamber
(d) volcanic cone
Answer:
(a) crater

Question 10.
The point of origin of an Earthquake is called the …………..
(a) epicentre
(b) focus
(c) seismic wave
(d) magnitude
Answer:
(a) epicentre

II. Match the following.

Answer:

III. Consider the given statements.

Question 1.
(i) Mt. Fuji is a dormant Volcano.
(ii) Mt. Kilimanjaro is a dormant Volcano.
(iii) Mt. Tanzania is a dormant Volcano.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) (i) is true
(b) (ii) is true .
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are true
Answer:
(a) (i) is true

Question 2.
Statement: Magma gushes out when it finds vents.
Reason: Interior of the Earth contains compressed hot magma.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) Statement & reason are true
(b) Statement is true, reason is false
(c) Statement is false reason is true
(d) Statement & reason are false
Answer:
(a) is true

Question 3.
Statement I: Mountain ranges are formed by the collision of tectonic plates.
Statement II: The movement of tectonic plates is due to the thermal energy from the mantle.
(a) Statement I is false II is true
(b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true II is false
(d) Statement I and II are true
Answer:
(d) is true

IV. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
(i) The Earth is divided into Biotic and ABiotic Spheres.

(ii) Biotic sphere is the Biosphere
A Biotic sphere is further divided into Lithosphere, Atmosphere and Hydrosphere.

Question 2.
Mention the layers of the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
The structure of the earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle, the core.

1. The crust is the outer layer of the earth, where we live. The major elements of crust are silica (Si) and aluminium (Al). Hence it is named SIAL.
2. The mantle is the interior part beneath the crust. The major elements of the mantle are silica (Si) and magnesium (Mg). Hence it is called SIMA.
3. The core is the innermost and hottest layer of the earth. It is composed mainly of nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe). Hence it is called NIFE.

Question 3.
What is pedosphere?
Answer:
The ‘Pedosphere’ is part of the lithosphere made up of soil and dirt. It exists at the interface of the lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere.

Question 4.
Define Plate tectonics.
Answer:

1. The word Tsunami is a Japanese term, means harbour waves.
2. It refers to large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes, submarine explosions, and landslides.
3. These waves travel at a great speed (more than 500 km per hour) and the length of the waves exceeds 600 km.
4. These waves reach a height of more than 15m near the seashore and are capable of causing destruction along the coastal area.

Question 5.
Write a note on Fold and fault?
Answer:
Folding: Due to lateral compressional forces, the plates are forced to move upwards and downwards. This is called folding.
Faulting: The movement of plates also creates stress and tension in the rocks, causing them to stretch and crack. This called ‘faulting’.

Question 6.
What is a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. Earthquakes generate seismic waves.
2. The nature, force, and speed of these seismic waves depend on the nature of the medium through which it
3. The point of origin of an earthquake is called focus
4. The epicenter is a point on the Earth surface that lies directly above the focus
5. The impact of the earthquake is felt most at the epicenter

Question 7.
What is a Volcano? Mention its major components.
Answer:
A volcano is a vent or an opening on the surface of the Earth’s crust through which hot solid, liquid, and gaseous materials (Magma) erupt out to the surface from the Earth’s interior.

Question 8.
What is an Earthquake and how it occurs?
Answer:

1. Most Earthquakes and Volcanic eruptions do not strike randomly but occur along the plate boundaries.
2. One such area is the circum – Pacific Ring of Fire.
3. Here the Pacific Plate meets many surrounding plates. The Ring of Fire is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

Question 9.
What are seismic waves and mention their types?
Answer:
Earthquakes generate seismic waves. The nature force and speed of these seismic waves depend on the nature of the medium through which it passes.
The major types are

• Primary (or) P waves
• Secondary (or) S waves
• Surface waves (or) L waves.

Question 10.
Write about the Pacific Ring of fire.
Answer:

• The Pacific Ring of Fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean where many volcanoes are found.
• The Pacific Ring of Fire is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

V. Give Reasons for the following.

Question 1.
SIAL floats over SIMA.
Answer:

1. SIAL floats over SIMA because SIAL is less dense and lighter.
2. SIAL consists of Silica and Aluminium which is lighter than SIMA which contains silica and Magnesium. Therefore SIAL floats or SIMA.

Question 2.
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks or Mother rocks.
Answer:
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks (or) Mother rocks because all other rocks are directly or indirectly formed from them.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Core and crust.
Answer:

S.No.	Core	Crust
(i)	The core is the innermost hottest layer of the earth and the true centre.	The crust is the outer layer of the earth.
(ii)	It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). So it is termed as NIFE.	It is composed of Silica and Aluminium. So it is termed as SIAL.
(iii)	Denser materials exist within Earth’s core.	Lighter materials exist on the surface.

Question 2.
Epicentre and Hypocentre.
Answer:

S.No.	Epicentre	Hypocentre
(i)	Epicentre is a point on the Earth’s surface that lies directly above the focus.	It is a point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
(ii)	The impact of the Earthquake is felt, the most at the centre.	It generates series of elastic waves.

Question 3.
Divergent and convergent boundaries.
Answer:

Divergent Boundary	Convergent Boundary
The plates pull away from each other as magma pushes up from the mantle.	The plate moves towards each other and sometimes a plate sinks under another.

Question 4.
Primary waves and Secondary waves.
Answer:

S.No.	Primary waves	Secondary waves
(i)	These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves and the first to reach the epicentre.	Secondary waves travel less faster than the primary waves.
(ii)	These waves pass through solids, liquids and gases.	These waves travel only through solids.
(iii)	The average velocity of these waves is -5.3 k.m/sec to 10.6 k.m/second.	The average velocity of these waves is 1 k.m/sec to 8 k.m/second.

Question 5.
Shield Volcano and Volcanic Dome.
Answer:

S.No.	Shield Volcano	Volcanic Dome
(i)	Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous lava.	A lava dome (or) Volcanic dome is roughly circular mound formed due to the slow ejection of viscous lava from a volcano.
(ii)	As the lava is rich in silica with intense viscosity, it is prevented from flowing far from its vent, e.g., Paricutin, Mexico.	These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides. Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield, e.g., Mauna Loa, Hawai.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the Earth.
Answer:
(a) The structure of the Earth:

1. The outer surface and inner core of the earth are totally different in their nature and structure.
2. The structure of the earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle and the core.

(b) Crust:

1. Crust is the outer layer of the earth, where we live
2. It is the solid and rigid layer of the earth.
3. The thickness of the crust is greater below the continents than the ocean floor.
4. The crust is classified as the continental crust and oceanic crust.
5. The major elements of crust are silica and aluminium, hence it is called SIAL.

(c) Mantle:

1. The interior part beneath the crust is called the mantle, which is about 2,900 km thick.
2. The major elements of the mantle are silica and magnesium hence it is known as SIMA.
3. In the upper part of the mantle, the rock remains solid, whereas, in the lower part of the mantle, rocks arc in molten form.
4. This molten rock inside the Earth is called ‘magma’

(d) Core:

1. The core is the innermost and hottest layer of the earth which lies below the mantle.
2. It is composed mainly of nickel and iron, hence it is called NIFE.
3. The core is divided into solid inner core and liquid outer core.
4. The presence of large quantities of iron in the core is responsible for the earth’s gravitational force.
5. As the earth rotates on its axis, the liquid outer core spins over the solid inner core and generates the earth’s magnetic field.

Question 2.
Write a note on the internal and external processes of Earth.
Answer:
The formation and deformation of landforms on the surface of the Earth is a continuous activity of two broad processes i.e. internal and external. These processes cause stress and deformation on Earth materials and finally bring changes on the surface of the Earth. These are referred as Geomorphic Processes.

The forces that act from the Earth’s interior towards the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes or Endogenetic processes. These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.

The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves etc. are called External processes or Exogenetic processes. These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 3.
How are volcanoes classified based on the periodicity of their eruptions?
Answer:
Based on the periodicity of eruptions, volcanoes are classified into
(a) Active volcano
(b) Dormant volcano
(c) Extinct volcano.

(a) Active Volcano:
Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases, and fragmented materials.
Eg: Mount St. Helens in the United States.

(b) Dormant Volcano:
Volcanoes that do not show any sign of volcanic activity for a long period of time are known as dormant volcanoes.
Sometimes there may be a sudden explosion which may cause unimaginable loss to life and property.
Eg: Mt. Fuji, Japan

(c) Extinct or Dead Volcano
When a volcano permanently stops its volcanic activity, then it is called an extinct or dead volcano.
Eg: Mt. Kilimanjaro, Tanzania.

Question 4.
Explain the effects of Volcanoes.
Answer:
Effects of volcanoes can be given under two groups as constructive effects and destructive effects.
(a) Constructive Effects:

1. Volcanic materials enrich the soil fertility that promotes agricultural activities.
2. The hot volcanic regions help in generating geothermal energy.
3. Many dormant and active volcanoes are the most attractive tourist spots in the world.
4. Most of the volcanic materials are used as building materials.

(b) Destructive Effects:

1. Volcanic eruption causes earthquakes to fast floods and mudslides and rockfall.
2. Lava can travel very far and bum, bury or damage anything in its path.
3. A large amount of dust and ash makes breathing hard and irritable.
4. Volcanic emotions can alter the weather conditions and disrupt transport (Iceland volcanic emotion) in and around the volcanic region.

VIII. Map Skill.

On the given outline map of the world, mark the following:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire
(b) Earthquake-prone zones (any two)
(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world
(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges
(e) Rift valley of East Africa
Answer:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire: It is a major area and an arc in the basin of the Pacific ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic emptions occur.

(b) Earthquake prone zones (any two): Turkey, Indonesia

(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world: Hawaii, Mount Fujji

(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges

(e) Rift valley of East Africa

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions.

Question 1.
Consider the various sources of information related to the Earth’s Interior. Classify the above as DIRECT & INDIRECT sources of information. Give reasons.
Answer:
• Seismic activity
• Earth’s magnetism
• Volcanoes
• Mined rocks
• Gravitational force
• Meteors

• Seismic Activity: Frequency and size of an earthquake.
• Earth’s magnetism: Due to the movement of molten material under the earth’s crust.
• Volcanoes: A rupture in the crust of a planetary-mass object such as Earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash & gases to escape.
• Mined Rocks: Excavating hard minerals:
• Gravitational force: A natural phenomenon.
• Meteors: A bright streak of light.

Question 2.
Scientists use GPS to measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements. Discuss.
Answer:
GPS works by sending radio signals from satellites to ground stations. The distance between the satellites and the station is recorded. Over time, these distances change slightly. Scientists can measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements by recording the time it takes for ground stations to move a given distance.

In-text HOTs Question

Question 1.
Pacific Ring of Fire — Most seismically and volcanically active. Why?
Answer:
The Pacific Ring of fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean. It is associated with a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts and plate movements. It has 452 volcanoes (more than 75% of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes). The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates. That is why it is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

X. Life Skills

Imagine that you feel tremors or shocks in your locality. What will be your role in saving • lives from destruction? List out the Do’s and Don’ts.
Answer:

(a) Do’s

1. Dropdown onto your hands and knees. This can protect you from falling but allows you to still move if necessary.
2. Cover your hand and neck and your entire body if possible under a study-table or desk. If there is no shelter nearby, only then should you get down near an interior wall or next to low-lying furniture that won’t fall on you and cover your head and neck with your arms and hands.
3. Hold on to your shelter or to your head and neck until the shaking stops. Be prepared to move with your shelter if the shaking shifts it around.

(b) Dont’s

1. Do not run outside or to other rooms during shaking. The area near the exterior walls of a building is the most dangerous place to be. Windows, facades, and architectural details are often the first parts of the building to collapse.
2. Do not stand in a doorway. In modem houses, doorways are no stronger than any other part of the house and the doorway does not protect you from the most likely source of injury.
3. If you are outside, do not go near power lines or electric units. Move away from buildings, trees, street lights, and utility wires. If you are in an open space, stay there till the shaking stops.

More Instructions:

1. Stay calm and do not panic.
2. Avoid going near the beach after the earthquake is over as a strong earthquake can set off a tsunami.
3. If possible have supplies set aside in an emergency kit.
4. You may include first aid, bottled water, canned or dried food to carry during an emergency.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Collect a few rock samples from your area and classify them on the basis of what you have learned.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Narrate the processes involved in the given rock cycle diagram in your own words.
Answer:

Rocks are continually changing from one type to another and back again. Rock Cycle is the geologic process that describes the transition of rocks between the three rock types: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. The forces inside the earth bring the rocks closer to the surface. Here the rocks are weathered, eroded, and compacted. Then the forces on the earth sink the rocks. Back down, the rocks are heated, pressed, and melted. So the elements that create rocks are constantly being recycled.

Question 3.
Here is a list of a few mountains.

• Ural Mountains, Andes Mountains, Vindhya Range, Alps mountains
• Satpura range, Rocky Mountains, Sierra Nevada.
• Identify and Locate with help of an atlas

Answer:
You can identify and locate the above-mentioned mountains with the help of an atlas or the Internet.

Question 4.
(a) Arrange a few books one above the other on a table. Just shake the table and observe what happens.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

(b) Ask two students to hold two ends of a rope. Instruct one of them to shake the rope, while the other holds it lightly and then firmly. What do you observe?
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 5.
Take a bottle filled with soda. Give it a few shakes. Now twist the cap open. What do you observe?
Answer:
A capped bottle is under uniform pressure. The molecules of carbon dioxide gas and liquid are at equilibrium (due to a uniform pressure). When we shake the bottle, the contents are pressurized. So when the cap is opened, the liquid comes out with a force and fizzes.

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the solid outer part of the Earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Lithosphere

Question 2.
Earths’ surface is a vast area of _______ million.
(a) 490
(b) 510
(c) 500
(d) 520
Answer:
(b) 510

Question 3.
This is the storehouse of rocks.
(a) crust
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) crust

Question 4.
The word ‘Igneous’ is derived from the …………… word.
(a) Arabic
(b) Roman
(c) Latin
(d) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 5.
An aggregate of minerals on the Earth’s Crust is called _______
(a) Magma
(b) Waves
(c) Rock
(d) Core

Question 6.
These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves.
(a) P – waves
(b) S – waves
(c) L- waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) P – waves

Question 7.
The sixth deadliest natural disaster due to the Tsunami caused in the year …………..
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

Question 8.
…………… is a vent (or) and opening on the surface of the Earth crust.
(a) Volcano
(b) Tsunami
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Volcano

Question 9.
Seismology deals with __________
(a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Volcano
(d) Crust
Answer:
(b) Earthquakes

Question 10.
Composite volcanoes are commonly found in the ………….. ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Southern
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (d)

b.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

III. Consider the given statements

Question 1.
(i) When magnia reaches this Earth’s surface, it is referred to as ‘Lava’. (True)
(ii) The interior of the earth contains very hot molten material called ‘Magma’. (True)
(iii) Sedimentary are also called Primary (or) Mother rocks. (False)
(a) (i) is true
(b) (i) & (ii) are true (iii) false
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are true
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are true (iii) false

Question 2.
(i) The plates move vertically in convergent Boundary. (False)
(ii) The plates pull away from each other in the Transform boundary. (False)
(iii) The plates slide horizontally past each other in Transform Boundary. (True)
(a) (i) is false
(b) (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (ii) false (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) (ii) are false (iii) true
Answer:
(i) (ii) are false (iii) true

IV. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The Hydrosphere is the watery part of the Earth’s surface including oceans, rivers, lakes, and water vapour.

Question 2.
What are fossils?
Answer:
The bodies of plants and animals that fall on the sedimentary rock deposits get embedded in the layers and form fossils.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Active Volcano?
Answer:
Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases, and fragmented materials, e g., Mount St. Helens in the United States.

Question 4.
What is Geology?
Answer:
Science deals with the physical structure and substances of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 5.
What do the internal processes generate?
Answer:

• The internal processes generate heat and eject materials from deep below the Earth’s crust.
• Internal radioactivity is the principal source of power for this process.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Why did Tsunami occur on 26th December 2004?
Answer:

• It was the result of the Indo-Australian plate subducting below the Eurasian plate.
• It was caused by an earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter scale.
  Hence the seafloor was uplifted, displacing the sea water above.

Question 2.
Why does the lava flow out in all directions in the shield volcano?
Answer:

• Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous, lava.
• These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides.
• Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield.

VI. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Internal Processes and External processes.
Answer:

S.No.	Internal Processes	External processes
(i)	The forces that act from the Earth’s interior toward the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes.	The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves, etc., are called External processes.
(ii)	These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.	These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 2.
Seismology and Geology.
Answer:

Seismology	Geology
The science that deals with Earthquakes are called seismology’	Science that deals with the physical structure and substance of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 3.
Atmosphere and Biosphere.
Answer:

Atmosphere	Biosphere
The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases that surround the Earth.	The Biosphere is the layer of Earth where life exists.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Give an account tsunami.
Answer:

1. The word Tsunami is a Japanese term meaning harbour waves.
2. It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes, submarine explosions, and landslides.
3. These waves travel at a great speed (more than 500 km/hr) and the length of the waves exceeds 600 kms.
4. These waves reach a height of more than 15 m near the seashore and are capable of causing destruction along the coastal area.
5. On 26th December 2004, a tsunami occurred in the Indian ocean.
6. It was the result of the Indio-Australian Plate subducting below the Eurasian plate.
7. lt was caused by an earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter Scale.
8. The Earthquake caused the seafloor to uplift, displacing the seawater above.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 4 Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes

Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Identify the founder of a new sect who exemplified simplicity and self-denial.
(a) Buddha
(b) Lao-tze
(c) Confucius
(d) Zoroaster
Answer:
(a) Buddha

Question 2.
The Magadha king influenced by the teachings of Mahavira.
(a) Dhananandha
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Bimbisara
(d) Shishunaga
Answer:
(b) Chandragupta

Question 3.
The northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in the north to the Godavari in the south witnessed the rise of Sixteen States.
(a) Mahajanapadas
(b) Gana-sanghas
(c) Dravida
(d) Dakshinapatha
Answer:
(a) Mahajanapadas

Question 4.
Tri-ratnas are the three priniciples taught by ……………..
(a) Buddha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Lao-tze
(d) Confucius
Answer:
(b) Mahavira

Question 5.
The account which throws light on Mauryan polity and society …………..
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Fahien
(c) Megasthanes
(d) Seleucus
Answer:
(c) Megasthanes

Question 6.
(i) Under the Magadha king the mahamatriyas functioned as secretaries to the ministers.
(ii) Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful record about Mauryan polity and society.
(iii) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka who founded the Mauryan kingdom.
(iv) According to tradition, towards the end of his life Chandragupta became an ardent follower of Buddhism.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. is a collection of sacred literature of different epochs, containing prayers, confessions and myths.
2. In the Gangetic plain …………… agriculture required the use of bullocks.
3. Jains believe that …………….. came in a long line of Tirthankaras and he was the twenty – fourth and the last.
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment has been built into the Mahabodhi temple that still exists in ……………..
5. The rock edicts form the reliable source to know about the Mauryan empire in particular the Dharmic rule of ……………….
Answer:
1. ZendAvesta
2. Iron plough
3. Mahavira
4. Bodh Gaya
5. Ashoka

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) The introduction of Bronze tools made easy the removal of dense forest cover from the banks of the Ganges.
(b) Ajivikas had a small presence in western India.
(c) The clusters where particular clansmen were dominant came to be known were Pre-Maury an states.
(d) Of the kingdoms mentioned in the literature .of the period Kashi, Kosala and Magadha are considered to be powerful.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) incorrect
(c) incorrect
(d) correct

Question 2.
(a) Ajatashatru was the first important king of Magadha.
(b) Bimbisara succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
(c) The Mauryas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in northern India.
(d) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
The invention of the smelting of Iron transformed both production and warfare. Justify.
Answer:

1. The invention of the smelting of iron transformed both production and warfare.
2. Before iron, copper, and its alloy, bronze which was expensive was employed in production.
3. The weapons (or) ploughs made of copper (of) bronze edges became blunt quickly.
4. Iron ore in contrast was available in abundance.
5. The “weapons made of iron was in usage.
6. The iron axe enabled cultivators to clear the jungles and the iron plough was used to break the hardest soil.

Question 2.
Elaborate on the term “Tri-Ratna”.
Answer:
The three principles of Jainism, also known as Tri-Ratnas are the following:

1. Right faith: Belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge: Acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world existed without a creator.
3. Right action: It refers to Mahavira’s observance of the fire great views
   • Ahimsa
   • Honesty
   • Kindness
   • Truthfulness
   • not coveting or desiring things belonging to others.

Question 3.
What do you know of Ajatasatru?
Answer:

• Ajatashatru, the son of Bimbisara is said to have murdered his father and ascended the throne in 493 BCE.
• He continued his father’s policy of expansion through military conquests.
• He strengthened the Rajagriha fort and also built another fort at Pataligrama on the Ganges. It served as the exchange centre for the local produce and late became the Mauryan capital of Pataliputra.
• Ajatasatru died in 461 BCE.

Question 4.
What does the Edict of Kalinga convey?
Answer:

• In one of his Kalinga edicts, he tells his horror and sorrow over the deaths which the war and conquest caused.
• In yet another edict, he makes it known that Ashoka would not tolerate any longer the death (or) captivity or even the hundredth (or) thousandth part of the number killed and captive in Kalinga.

Question 5.
Highlight the steps taken by Ashoka to spread Buddhism.
Answer:
Steps were taken by Ashoka to spread Buddhism:

1. Ashoka became an ardent Buddhist after meeting the Buddhist monk Upagupta and propounded his Dharma.
2. He issued edicts, which were carved out in the rock.
3. He protected the animals.
4. Hospitals were constructed for them and animal sacrifice was forbidden.
5. Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and his daughter Sanghamitra to Ceylon to spread his message of Dharma there. Ashoka died after ruling for 38 years.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Zoroastrianism
(a) Who was the founder?
Answer:
Zoroaster of Persia is the founder of Zoroastrianism.

(b) Name the God he proclaimed.
Answer:
Ahura Mazda (the Lord of lights)

(c) What did Zoroaster teach?
Answer:
Zoroaster taught that the great object of a religious state or society is the cultivation of morality.

(d) What was the highest form of worship?
Answer:
Fire was worshipped as a symbol of the deity and considered the highest form of worship.

Question 2.
Gautama Buddha
(a) What was the original name of Buddha?
Answer:
The original name of Buddha was Siddhartha.

(b) Name the birthplace of Buddha.
Answer:
The birthplace of Buddha in Lumbini Garden near Kapilavasthu in 567 BCE.

(c) Where did he get enlightenment?
Answer:
He got enlightenment in the Mahabodhi temple, which still exists in Bodh Gaya (Bihar).

(d) Mention the place of his first sermon.
Answer:
The place of his first sermon was Samath.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the five cardinal principles of Confucius.
Answer:
Five Cardinal Principles of Confucius Ethics

1. Humaneness
2. Righteousness
3. Propriety
4. Wisdom
5. Trustworthiness

(i) Confucius said that wisdom grows from the family and that the foundation of society is the disciplined individual in an orderly family.

(ii) The superior man, according to him, is not merely intelligent or scholarly, but his character should be exemplary.

(iii) The superior man of Confucius possesses three virtues: intelligence, courage, and goodwill

(iv) Though Confucius insisted on children obeying parents and wife her husband, he also clearly proposed that “when the command is wrong a son should resist his father and a minister should resist the prince.’’

(v) When asked about government, he said that there are three requisites for it: “That there should be sufficiency of food, the sufficiency of military equipment and confidence of the people in their ruler.”

(vi) The philosophy of Confucius gave the Chinese people awareness about their political rights.

(vii) It also clearly listed the government’s duty towards the people. Confucius felt that the government should work with an ideal.

(viii) In matters of national life, Confucius felt that the people in the nation are the actual and proper source of political sovereignty. He advised that the ruler must appoint persons of character in the government to govern the people impartially.

(ix) Confucianism is often characterized as a system of social and ethical philosophy rather than as a religion.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the principles of Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:

1. The founders of Jainism and Buddhism did not prescribe killing as a religious rite.
2. They secured their livelihood mostly by alms. Celibacy and abstinence from holding property made the new teachers much more acceptable than the Brahman priests.
3. The people’s resentment about the expensive and elaborate Vedic rituals, animal sacrifice, and the desire for wealth eventually took them towards Jainism and Buddhism.
4. Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified simplicity and self-denial. They lived in the times of Bimbisara and Ajatashatru, the famous kings of Magadha.
5. The commercial development of the northern cities like Kaushambi, Kushinagar, Benaras, Vaishali, and Rajgir added importance to the Vaishyas who turned to Buddhism and Jainism in their eagerness to improve their social status.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a case study of Asoka’s Edicts.
Answer:
“There are 33 edicts, including 14 Major Rock edicts, 7 Pillar edicts and 2 Kalinga edicts apart from Minor Rock edicts and Minor Pillar inscriptions”.
(i) The students can be divided into three groups in the class. Each group will be assigned a particular work, such as Major Rock Edicts, Pillar Edicts, and Kalinga Edicts.
(ii) They can refer to History Books, from the library (or) download from the Internet.
(iii) The teacher will be there to motivate the students.

Question 2.
Enact a drama about the life and teachings of Buddha.
Answer:
(i) You can prepare the script with the assistance of your teacher.
(ii) The drama can be enacted as a recreational activity in the class.

Assignment with teacher’s guidance

(i) List out the countries where Buddhism exists in the world and mark it on the world map. Some of the Buddhist countries are Cambodia, Thailand, Myanmar, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Laos, Mongolia, Japan, Taiwan, Singapore, South Korea, Malaysia, China, and Vietnam. The students can mark these places on the world map.
(ii) Prepare a clay model of Sanchi Stupa, Darmachakra.
You can do this activity in groups with the help of your teacher.

Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The discovery of ………….. marked the beginning of the second phase in the history of civilisations.
(a) Iron
(b) Gold
(c) Copper
(d) Bronze
Answer:
(a) Iron

Question 2.
…………… said that wisdom grows from the family.
(a) Lao-Tse
(b) Zoroaster
(c) Confucius
(d) Buddha
Answer:
(c) Confucius

Question 3.
The doctrines and rituals of the Zoroastrians have many similarities to those of the ……………
(a) Buddhism
(b) Vedas
(c) Jainism
(d) Taoism
Answer:
(b) Vedas

Question 4.
Buddhism was preached in people’s language ……………….
(a) Pali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Hindi
(d) Chinese
Answer:
(a) Pali

Question 5.
Chandragupta’s son was ……………
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ajatasatru
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bindusara

Question 6.
(i) Monastries and temples served the purpose of imparting education.
(ii) Nalanda was a great monastery built by the Magadha empire.
(iii) Nalanda became the most renowned seat of learning.
(iv) Fees were charged to the students.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) is incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The philosophy of Confucius gave the Chinese people awareness about them……………..
2. ………….. was pained to find his people worshipping primitive deities.
3. Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified …………… and …………….
4. The statue of Bahubali at …………… in Karnataka is the tallest Jain statue ever carved out in India.
5. Buddha belonged to the Sakya class he was also known as ……………….
6. Buddhism was split into two as ………….. and ……………
7. ………….. succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
8. Alexander’s death, however, cleared the way for the founding of a great empire …………….. empire in India.
9. The envoy of Seleucus’s was …………….
10. Chandragupta’s minister Chanakya is credited with a book titled …………..

Answer:

1. Political rights
2. Zoroaster
3. Simplicity, Self-denial
4. Shravanabelgola
5. Sakya Muni
6. Hinayana & Mahayana
7. Bimbisara
8. Mauryan
9. Megasthenes
10. Arthasastra

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who were the two great thinkers in the sixth century BCE?
Answer:
Confucius and Lao-Tse were the two great thinkers in the sixth century BCE.

Question 2.
Mention the five important works of Confucius.
Answer:

1. The Book of Records
2. The Book of odes
3. The Book of changes
4. The spring and Autumn Annals
5. The Book of History.

Question 3.
Name the seven qualities of Ahura Mazda.
Answer:

1. light
2. good mind
3. right
4. dominion
5. piety
6. well-being
7. immortality.

Question 4.
What kind of life Mahavira and Buddha live?
Answer:
Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified simplicity and self-denial.

Question 5.
Write a short note on “split in Jainism”.
Answer:

• In course of time, Jainism split into two branches namely the Digambaras (Sky-clad) and the Svetambaras (White-clad)
• The Digambaras were the Orthodox followers of Mahavira. They rejected clothes altogether. The Svetambaras wore a white dress from head to toe.

Question 6.
What did Buddha do to establish Buddhism?
Answer:

• Buddha in order to carry his message to different parts of India established the Buddhist Sangha (or) the Holy order of Monks.
• The bhikshus (monks) and the bhikshunis (nuns) were enlisted for spreading the faith and they were required to lead a life of purity and poverty.

Question 7.
What do you know about the Nanda dynasty?
Answer:

1. Mahapadma Nanda founded the Nanda dynasty.
2. The Nandas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in North India.
3. Nandas gave importance to irrigation with the canals, they built touching even the Kalinga kingdom.

Question 8.
Mention the Educational centres of Mauryan Administration.
Answer:

1. Monastries and temples served the purpose of imparting education.
2. Nalanda was a great monastery built by the Magadha Empire.
3. Educational centres offered Buddhist and Vedic literature, logic, grammar, medicine, philosophy, and astronomy.
4. Even the science of war was taught.
5. Nalanda became the most renowned seat of learning in course of time.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Confucius.
(a) When was Confucius born?
Answer:
Confucius was bom in the Shantung province of China in 551 BCE.

(b) Mention the five important works of Confucius.
Answer:

1. The Book of Records
2. The Book of odes
3. The Book of changes
4. The spring and Autumn Annals
5. The Book of History.

(c) What are the five cardinal principles of “Confucius” Ethics?
Answer:

1. Humaneness
2. Righteousness
3. Propriety
4. Wisdom
5. Trustworthiness.

(d) Mention the three virtues to be possessed by a superior man.
Answer:
Intelligence, courage, and goodwill.

Question 2.
Jainism.
(a) When was Mahavira born?
Answer:
Vardhamana Mahavira was bom in 599 BCE at Kundagrama near Vaishali.

(b) Mention the three principles of Jainism.
Answer:

1. Right faith
2. Right knowledge
3. Right Action.

(c) Name the rulers who patronised Jainism.
Answer:
Dhana Nanda, Chandra Gupta Maurya, and Kharavela.

(d) What are the two branches of Jainism?
Answer:
The two branches are Digambaras and Svetambaras.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the teachings of Lao-Tse (Taoism).
Answer:

1. The cause of human unhappiness in the world is human selfishness. Selfishness creates unlimited human desires, which can never be satisfied.
2. In nature, all things act in a natural way. The law of human conduct must correspond with nature.
3. Humans live a life under the regulation of someone. This is because they have acquired knowledge and have not remained innocent. On the basis of their acquired knowledge, they have built up an urban civilisation and have made themselves unhappy.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the decline of Buddhism.
Answer:
Buddhism declined in India due to the following reasons:

1. Buddhism was popular in the beginning because it was preached in people’s language (Pali). The later texts were written in Sanskrit, which was difficult for the common people to understand.
2. The split in Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana was another vital reason. Image worship in Mahayana made no difference between Hinduism and Buddhism.
3. Buddhism lost its royal patronage during the reign of Guptas.
4. Further, the invasions of Huns and Turks almost wiped out Buddhism.