Prasanna

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks
(i) The variable in the expression 16x – 7 is _____
(ii) The constant term of the expression 2y – 6 is _____
(iii) In the expression 25m + 14M, the type of the terms are ______ terms
(iv) The number of terms in the expression 3ab + 4c – 9 is _____
Hint: Terms are 3ab, 4c – 9.
(v) The numerical co-efficient of the term -xy is ______
Hint: -x,y = (- 1 )xy.
Solution:
(i) x
(ii) -6
(iii) unlike
(iv) three
(v) -1

Question 2.
Say true or False
(i) x + (-x) = 0.
(ii) The co-efficient of ab in the term 15 abc is 15.
Hint: Coefficient of ab is 15c
(iii) 2pq and – 7qp are like terms.
(iv) When y = -1, the value of the expression 2y – 1 is 3.
Hint: 2(-1) – 1 = -2 – 1 = – 3
Solution:
(i) True
(ii) False
(iii) True
(iv) False

Question 3.
Fing the numerical co-efficient of each of the following terms: -3yx, 12k, y, 121bc, -x, 9pq, 2ab.
Solution:
(i) Numerical co-efficient of-3yx is – 3
(ii) Numerical co-efficient of 12k is 12
(iii) Numerical coefficient of y is 1
(iv) Numerical co-efficient of 1216c is 121
(v) Numerical co-efficient of – x is – 1
(vi) Numerical co-efficient of 9pq is 9
(vii) Numerical co-efficient of 2ab is 2

Question 4.
Write the variables, constants and terms of the following expressions,
(i) 18 + x – y
(ii) 7p – 4q + 5
(iii) 29x + 13y
(iv) b + 2
Solution:

Question 5.
Identify the like terms among the following 7x, 5y, -8x, 12y, 6z, z, -12x, -9y, 11 z
Solution:

Question 6.
If x = 2 andy = 3, then find the value of the following expressions,
(i) 2x – 3y
(ii) x + y
(iii) 4y – x
(iv) x + 1 – y
Solution:
Given x = 2; y = 3.
(i) 2x – 3y = 2 (2) – 3 (3) = 4 – 9
= 4 + (Additive inverse of 9)
= 4 +(-9) = -5
(ii) x + y = 2 + 3 = 5
(iii) 4y – x = 4 (3) – 2 = 12 – 2 = 10
(iv) x + 1 – y = 2 + 1 – 3 = 3 – 3 = 0

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
An algebraic statement which is equivalent to the verbal statement “Three times the sum of ‘x’ and ‘y’ is
(i) 3 (x + y)
(ii) 3 + x + y
(iii) 3x + y
(iv) 3 + xy
Solution:
(i) 3 [(x + y)]

Question 2.
The numerical co-efficient of -7mn is
(i) 7
(ii) -7
(iii) p
(iv) -p
Solution:
(ii) -7

Question 3.
Choose the pair of like terms
(i) 7p, 7x
(ii) 7r, 7x
(iii) – 4x, 4
(iv) – 4x, 7x
Solution:
(iv) -4x, 7x

Question 4.
The value of 7a – 4b when a = 3, b = 2 is
(i) 21
(ii) 13
(iii) 8
(iv) 32
Solution:
(ii) 13
Hint: 7(3) – 4(2) = 21 – 8 = 13

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Bill, Profit and Loss Intext Questions

Try These (Textbook Page No.49)

Question 1.
Arrange in ascending order
(i) C.P, M.P, Discount
(ii) M.P., S.P., Discount
Solution:
(i) Discount < C.P < M.P.
(ii) Discount < S.P < M.P

Question 2.
Which is greater S.P or M.P?
Solution:
M.P is greater than S.P

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Bill, Profit and Loss Additional Questions

Question 1.
______ is the difference between S.P and C.P., when S.P > C.P.
Solution:
Profit

Question 2.

(a) What is the total bill amount?
(b) Which item is the costliest one?
(c) Write the name of the shop?
Solution:
(a) ₹ 4,050
(b) Tables
(c) ABC Furnitures, Madurai

Question 3.
A vegetable vendor bought a dozen drum sticks for ₹ 42. Two of them become dry. If he has to get a profit of ₹ 8. Find the S.P of each drumstick.
Solution:
12 drumsticks cost price = ₹ 42
Profit = ₹ 8
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 8 = S.P – 42
⇒ S.P = 8 + 42 = ₹ 50
S.P of 10 drumsticks = ₹ 50
S.P of each drumstick = \(\frac { 50 }{ 10 }\) = ₹ 5

Question 4.
Rice is being sold at ₹ 1800 per bag of 25kg at profit of ₹ 250. Find the Cost price of the rice bag.
Solution:
S.P = ₹ 1800
Profit = ₹ 250
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 250 = 1800 – C.P
⇒ C.P = 1800 – 250 = ₹ 1550

Question 5.
Mangai buys a book for ₹ 300. She wants to sell it at a profit of ₹ 50 after making a discount of ₹ 30. What is the M.P of a book?
Solution:
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 50 = S.P – 300
⇒ S.P = 50 + 300 = 350
S.P = M.P – Discount
⇒ 350 = M.P – 30
⇒ M.P = 350 + 30 = ₹ 380

Question 6.
Manila buys a dress for ₹ 750. She wants to sell it at a profit of ₹ 75 on sales and she marks ₹ 900. What is the discount that she will give to her customers?
Solution:
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 75 = S.P – 750
⇒ S.P = 75 + 750 = ₹ 825
S.P = M.P – Discount
⇒ 825 = 900 – Discount
⇒ Discount = 900 – 825 = ₹ 75

Question 7.
Complete the following table:

Solution:
(i) Profit = S.P – C.P = 60 – 50 where CP < SP = ₹ 10
(ii) S.P = C.P – loss = 80 – 15 = ₹ 65

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Indian Constitution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens …………………
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through:
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into ………………
(а) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in …………….
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1 and 2

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The concept of constitution first originated in ……………..
2. …………….. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
4. ………….. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article …………..
Answer:
1. USA
2. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
3. 26, November, 1949
4. Five
5. 51A

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution is the Fundamental law of a country which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country’ is based.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Originally the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights. At present there are only six fundamental rights.
2. Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right to freedom of Religion, Right against exploitation, cultural and Educational Rights and Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
Classical languages have an independent tradition that arose mostly on its own. Have a large and rich body of ancient literature. Tamil is the oldest of, all the languages in the world. In 2004, the Government of India has created a new category of languages called ‘Classical languages’ Six languages are granted the classical status Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is a national emergency?
Answer:
A national emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
The Centre-State relations can be studied under three heads.

1. Legislative Relations: Union list, State list and Concurrent list.
2. Administrative Relations: Executive power of the States and Union.
3. Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered to levy taxes.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our Constitution to all the citizens.
Right to Equality: (Article 14 to 18)
Art. 14: Everyone is equal before law.
Art .15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art .17: Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.
Right to Freedom: (Art. 19 to Art. 22)
Art. 19 : Freedom of speech and expression. Assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21 A: Right to Elementary education.
Art. 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Right against Exploitation: (Art 23 & 24)
Prohibition of trafficking in human being and forced labour.
Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Right to Religion: (Art. 25 to Art. 28)
Art. 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art.26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27: Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28: Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Cultural and Educational Rights: (Art 29 to Art 30)
Art. 29: Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Right to Constitutional Remedies: (Art.32)
Art. 32: It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Our Constitution guarantees six Fundamental Rights to its citizens. It safeguards all these rights by granting us the Right to Constitutional Remedies. It is possible that the Government or private bodies may violate one of our Fundamental Rights. Right to Constitutional Remedies protects us from such violations. It allows us to file a case against the Government or private bodies in the High Courts of the States and the Supreme Court of the India.

Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition two warrants and certiorari to protect the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitutions”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Here are the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

	Fundamental Rights	Directive Principles of State Policy
1.	It was derived from the Constitution of the USA.	It was drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland
2.	These Rights cannot be taken away even by the Government.	These are mere instructions to the Government.
3.	These Rights are enforceable by a Court of Law	These are not enforceable in any court.
4.	These have legal sanctions.	These have moral and political sanctions.
5.	These rights strengthen political democracy in the country.	The implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6.	These are natural rights.	These lead to protect human rights.

In-text Activity:
List out the recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
As per articles 344(1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution, the Eight Schedule includes the recognition of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Bondo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Meitei, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Indian Constitution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was elected the President of the Constitutional Assembly after the death of Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) H. C. Mukherjee
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
A ………………. tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
(a) Assembly
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(d) Constitution

Question 3.
The framers of Indian Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of ……………
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) France
(d) England
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
Our Constitution is ………………. in nature.
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible
(b) rigid and flexible
(c) purely flexible
(d) very rigid
Answer:
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible

Question 5.
How many languages are recognised in our Constitution?
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 26
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 6.
Preamble clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the ……………….
(a) Parliament
(b) people
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) people

Question 7.
……………. Constitution established the rule of law in India.
(a) Indian
(b) British
(c) USA
Answer:
(a) Indian

Question 8.
Right to property Art 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by ………………. Amendment Act.
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 86th
(d) Act of 1955
Answer:
(b) 44th

Question 9.
………………. committees were formed for framing of the Constitution.
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 13
Answer:
(c) 13

Question 10.
In 1951 for the first time President’s rule was imposed in ………………. state.
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 11.
Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
(a) 26^th January, 1950
(b) 26^th November, 1949
(c) 15^th August, 1947
Answer:
(b) 26^th November, 1949

Question 12.
The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in ………………
(a) 9^th December, 1947
(b) 9^th December, 1946
(c) 10^th December, 1946
Answer:
(b) 9^th December, 1946

Question 13.
Who was elected as interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.N, Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Question 14.
Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) B.N. Rao
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Question 15.
Abolition of untouchability lies in which Article?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 16
Answer:
(a) Article 17

Question 16.
Who was the Viceroy of India when India became free?
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Mount Batten
Answer:
(c) Lord Mount Batten

Question 17.
Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from ……………..
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
Answer:
(c) Ireland

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Citizenship Act of …………. prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.
2. While Fundamental Rights are available to all persons, certain Fundamental Rights are available only to ………….. citizens.
3. Habeas Corpus safeguards people from …………….. arrests.
4. In case of conflict between the law of the State and the Union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of …………… prevails.
5. The Constitution of India can be amended in ………….. ways.
6. …………….. was not the member of Drafting Committee.
7. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are ……………..
8. The Constitution of India recognises …………………
9. The Cabinet Mission of India was headed by ……………
10. Right to Constitutional remedies comes under ………….
11. ………….. of Indian Constitution is called ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’.
12. Right to freedom of religion includes ……………
13. …………….. of Indian Constitution is described as Magna Carte of India.
14. India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic on …………..
15. …………… is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
1. 1955
2. Indian
3. Illegal
4. Parliament
5. Three
6. Jawahar Lai Nehru
7. Article 14 to 18
8. religious and linguistic minorities
9. Lord Pethick Lawrence
10. Fundamental Rights
11. Article 32
12. Article 25 to 28
13. PartIII
14. 26 January, 1950
15. Government of India Act 1935

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (f)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (g)
10. (i)

IV. True or False.

1. A Secular State does not officially promote any one religion as the State religion,
2. Religious freedom is provided to all the citizens of the country.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not a part of the Indian Constitution.
4. The Universal adult franchise was adopted much before the Independence of India.
5. Our Constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why there is a need for Constitution?
Answer:

1. A Constitution lays down certain principles that form the basis to govern.
2. A Constitution tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
3. A Country is usually made of different communities of people having different beliefs.
4. It will be helpful in fulfilling the beliefs of different segment of citizens.
5. So the Constitution is necessary for a democratic country like India for the smooth functioning of the government for the welfare of the people.

Question 2.
Name five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Answer:
Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation and Incorporation of territory.

Question 3.
What did our Constitution contain?
Answer:
Our Constitution contained a Preamble, 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 4.
How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’?
Answer:
He described these Principles as ‘novel features’ of Indian Constitution.

Question 5.
People of India are the source of our Constitution. Justify.
Answer:
The Preamble begins with the phrase “ We the people of India”. This clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 6.
Freedom of Press implicit in which Article of the Constitution?
Answer:
Freedom of Press implicit in Article 19.

Question 7.
What are Directive principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive principles of State Policy are the directives issued by the Central Government to the State Government aiming at promoting the social welfare of the people enumerated in part IV of the Constitution.

Question 8.
How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly took about 3 years to pass the Constitution since 9 December, 1946.

Question 9.
By which amendment fundamental duties are included and by whom it was recommended?
Answer:
In 1976 the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations on fundamental duties. By the 42^nd amendment under part IVA of our Constitution. Article 51A deals with fundamental duties.

Question 10.
What is Right to Equality?
Answer:
Right to Equality means that all persons are equal before the law.

Question 11.
What is Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Under this Right the Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour and children working under 14 years.

Question 12.
Who was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original Constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italics style.

Question 13.
How has the section on Fundamental Rights often been referred to?
Answer:
It has often been referred to as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.

Question 14.
How are the Fundamental Rights important?
Answer:
It protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.

Question 15.
Which Articles deals with citizenship?
Answer:
Articles 5 to 11 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship.

Question 16.
What is known as mini Constitution?
Answer:
42^nd amendment of the Constitution is known as mini Constitution.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the writs issued by the Supreme Court or the High Courts.
Answer:
To safeguard the fundamental rights the Supreme Courts or the High Courts issue order or command which are known as Writs.

1. Habeas Corpus: This writ safeguard people from illegal arrest.
2. Mandamus: It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.
3. Prohibition: It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
4. Certiorari: It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court by overstepping its jurisdiction.
5. Quo Warranto: It prevents unsurpation of public office through illegal manner.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Centre – State relations as described in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is federal in structure. It divides all powers between the Centre and the States. The Centre – State relationship can be studied under three heads.
(i) Legislative Relations: The Union Parliament has the power to legislate for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The -seventh schedule of the Constitution embodies these lists – the union list, state list and concurrent list consisting of 97, 66 and 47 items respectively. The Parliament has the power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the union list. The State Legislature has exclusive right to legislate on the State list. Both Parliament and State Legislature have power to legislate on subjects enlisted in the concurrent list. But in case of conflict between the law of the state and the union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of Parliament prevails.

(ii) Administrative Relations: The administrative power of State extends only to its own territory and with respect to which it has legislative competence, whereas the Union has exclusive executive power over the matters with respect to which Parliament is empowered to make laws and the exercise of its powers conferred by any treaty or agreement.

(iii) Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered by the Constitution to impose various kinds of taxes. Some of these taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre and divided between Centre and States based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Question 3.
How can a person lose his Citizenship?
Answer:
Loss of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing Citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution.
Renunciation: It can be voluntarily renounced by a person.
Termination: It can be terminated if a person acquires the Citizenship of some other country.
Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a naturalized Citizen if it satisfied that the Citizenship was

1. acquired by fraud
2. false representation or concealment of material facts
3. indulges in trade with enemy countries and has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of 2 years.

Question 4.
Write about the types of Amendments.
Answer:
Article 368 provides for three ways of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some of the articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a single majority of Parliament, that is a majority of the members of each House present and voting.
Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures

Question 5.
What do you mean by Amendment? And what are the three ways by which the Constitution can be amended?
Answer:
The term Amendment denotes change, improvement and modification. Usually this term is associated with one or more changes made in the Constitution of the country with one or more charges.

Article 368 of the Constitution in part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

Constitution can be amended in three ways.

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Geometry Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Geometry Intext Questions

Exercise 5.1

Recap
Try These (Text book Page No. 83)

Question 1.
Complete the following statements.
(i) A Line is a straight path that goes on endlessly in two directions.
(ii) A Line segment is a line with two end points.
(iii) A Ray is a straight path that begins at a point and goes on and extends endlessly the other direction.
(iv) The lines which intersect at right angles are Perpendicular lines.
(v) The lines which intersect each other at a point are called Intersecting lines.
(vi) The lines that never intersect are called Parallel lines.

Question 2.
Use a ruler or straightedge to draw each figure.

Question 3.
Look at the figure and answer the following questions.
(i) Which line is parallel to AB.
(ii) Name a line which intersect CD.
(iii) Name the lines which are perpendicular to GH
(iv) How many lines are parallel to IJ
(v) Will EF intersect AB? Explain.

Solution:
\(\overleftrightarrow { GH } \) is parallel to \(\overleftrightarrow { AB } \)
(ii) \(\overleftrightarrow { IJ } \) and \(\overleftrightarrow { KL } \) intersect \(\overleftrightarrow { CD } \)
(iii) \(\overleftrightarrow { IJ } \) and \(\overleftrightarrow { KL } \) are perpendicular to \(\overleftrightarrow { GH } \)
(iv) Only one line \(\overleftrightarrow { KL } \) is parallel to \(\overleftrightarrow { IJ } \)
(v) Yes, \(\overleftrightarrow { EF } \) will intersect \(\overleftrightarrow { AB } \) at some point.

Try These (Text Book Page No. 85)

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A straight angle measures
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 100°
Solution:
(c) 180°
Solution:
No, they are not adjacent pairs.

Question 2.
An angle with measure 128° is called ___ angle.
(a) a straight
(b) an obtuse
(c) an acute
(d) Right
Solution:
(b) an obtuse

Question 3.
The corner of the A4 paper has
(a) An acute angle
(b) A right angle
(c) Straight
(d) An obtuse angle
Solution:
(b) a right angle

Question 4.
If a perpendicular line is bisecting the given line, you would have two
(a) right angles
(b) obtuse angles
(c) acute angles
(d) reflex angles
Solution:
(a) right angle

Question 5.
An angle that measure 0° is called
(a) right angle
(b) obtuse angle
(c) acute angle
(d) Zero angle.
Solution:
(d) Zero angle

Try this (Text Book Page No. 86)

Question 1.
In each of the following figures, observe the pair of angles that are marked as ∠1 and ∠2. Do you think that they are adjacent pairs? Justify your answer.

Solution:
No, they are not adjacent pairs.
In (i) and (ii) angles ∠1 and ∠2 have no common vertex.
In (iii) the interiors of ∠1 and ∠2 overlaps.
∴ they are not adjacent angles.

Try these (Text book Page No. 87)

Question 1.
Few real life examples depicting adjacent angles are shown below.

Can you give three more examples of adjacent angles seen in real life?
Solution:

(i) Angles between leaf veins. [ ∠1 and ∠2],
(ii) Angles between adjacent pages of a book, when it is open [ ∠1 and ∠2 ].
(iii) Adjacent angles of scissors [ ∠1 and ∠2 ]

Question 2.
Observe the six angles marked in the picture shown. Write any four pairs of adjacent angles and that are not.
Solution:
Four pairs of adjacent angles are
1. ∠A and ∠B
2. ∠B and ∠C
3. ∠C and ∠D
4. ∠D and ∠E

Four pairs of non adjacent angles are.
1. ∠A and ∠C
2. ∠C and ∠F
3. ∠E and ∠D
4. ∠A and ∠F

Question 3.
Identify the common arm, common vertex of the adjacent angles and shade the interior with two colours in each of the following figures.

Solution:

(ii)

Solution:

Question 4.
Name the adjacent angles in each of the following figure.

Solution:
(i) ∠BAC and ∠CAD are adjacent angles.
(ii) ∠XWY and ∠YWZ are adjacent angles.

Try These (Text Book Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Observe the following pictures and find the other angles of the linear pair.

Solution:
(i) Given one angle 84°
∴ Other angle of the linear pair is 180° – 84° = 96°

(ii) One angle is given as 86°
Other angle of linear pair is 180° – 86° = 94°

(iii) Given one angle = 159°
Other angle of the linear pair = 180° – 159° = 21°

Try this (Text book Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Observe the figure. There are two angles namely ∠PQR = 150° and ∠QPS = 30° Is all this pair of supplementary angles a linear pair? Discuss

Solution:
Given ∠PQR =150°
∠QPS = 30°
They are supplementary angles,
But they are not adjacent angles as they don’t have common vertex or common arm.
∴ They are not a linear pair.

Try this (Text book Page No. 90)

Question 1.
What would happen to the angles if we add 3 or 4 or 5 rays on a line as given below?

Solution:
New adjacent angles are formed.
The new angles become smaller in measure. But their sum is 180° as it is a linear angle.

Try this (Text book Page No. 90)

Question 1.
Can you justify the statement
∠AOB + ∠BOC + ∠COD + ∠DOE + ∠EOF + ∠FOA = 360°?

Solution:
We know that the sum of angles at a point is 360°
∠AOB + ∠BOC + ∠COD + ∠DOE + ∠EOF + ∠FOA = 360° as they are the sum of angles at the point ‘O’

Try These (Text book Page No. 91)

Question 1.
Four real life examples of vertically opposite angles are given below.

Solution:
(i) The four angles made in the scissors where the opposite angles are always equal.
(ii) The point where two roads intersect each other.
(iii) Rail road crossing signs.
(iv) An hourglass.

Question 2.
In the given figure two lines \(\overleftrightarrow { AB } \) and \(\overleftrightarrow { CD } \) intersect at ‘O’. Observe the pair of angles and complete the following table. One is done for you.

Solution:

Question 3.
Name the two pairs of vertically opposite angles

Solution:
∠PTS and ∠QTR are vertically opposite angles.
∠PTR and ∠QTS are vertically opposite angles.

Question 4.
Find the value of x° in the figure given below.

Solution:
Lines l and m intersect at a point and making a pair of vertically opposite angles x° and 150°.
We know that vertically opposite angles are equal.
x = 150°

Exercise 5.2

Try this (Text book Page No. 93)

Question 1.
For a given set of lines, it is possible to draw more than one transversal.

Solution:
Yes, it is possible to draw more than one transversal for a given set of lines. l and m are given set of lines. n and p are transversal

Try these (Text Book Page No 94)

Question 1.
Draw as many possible transversals in the given figures.

Solution:

(i) a, b, c are transversal to l, m and n.
(ii) a, b, c are transversal to l, m, n and p. More transversals can be drawn.

Question 2.
Draw a line which is not the transversal to the above figures.
Solution:

Question 3.
How many transversals can you draw for the following two lines

Solution:
Infinite number of transversals can be drawn.

a, b, c, d, e, f, g are transversal to m and n.

Try these (Text book Page No. 96)

Question 1.
Four real life examples for transversal of parallel lines are given below.

Give four more examples for transversal of parallel lines seen in your surroundings.
Solution:
Some examples of parallel lines in our surroundings
(i) Zebra crossing on the road.
(ii) Railway tracks with sleepers.
(iii) Steps
(iv) Parallel bars in men’s gymnastics

Question 2.
Find the value of x.

Solution:
(i) We know that if two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, each pair of corresponding angles are equal.
∴ x = 125°

(ii) m and n are parallel lines and l is a transversal x° and 48° are corresponding angles.
∴ x = 48°

(iii) m and n are parallel lines and 7’ is the transversal.
∴ Corresponding angles are equal.
∴ x° = 138°

Try these (Text book Page No. 98)

Question 1.
Find the value of x°.

(i) m and n are parallel lines. ‘l’ is a transversal.
When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal each pair of alternate interior angles are equal.
∴ x° = 127°

(ii) m and n are parallel lines and l is the transversal.
When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal each pair of alternate exterior angles are equal.
∴ x° = 46°

Try These (Text Book Page No. 99)

Question 1.
Find the values of x.

Solution:
(i) m and n are parallel lines and l is the transversal.
When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, each pair of interior angles that lie on the same side of the transversal are supplementary

(ii) m and n are parallel line and l is the transversal.
When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, each pair of exterior angles that lie on the same side of the transversal are supplementary.
the same side of the transversal are supplementary.
∴ x° + 132° = 180°
x° = 180° – 132°
= 48°
∴ x = 48°

Exercise 5.3

Question 1.
What will happen If the radius of the arc is less than half of AB?
Solution:

If the radius of the arc is less than half of AB, then both the arcs will not cut at a point
and we can’t draw perpendicular bisector.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

The World Between Two World Wars Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

Question 3.
Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 4.
Which President of the USA pursued the “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 5.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 6.
Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd
(b) Smut
(c) Herzog
(d) Botha
Answer:
(a) Verwoerd

Question 7.
Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(d) French Revolution

Question 8.
Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ………
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ………
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in ………
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as ……..
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May ………
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ……. years
7. …….. were a military nation.
8. Boers were also known as ………
Answers:
1. Ferdinand Lassalle
2. Josef Goebbeels
3. 1927
4. Gestapo
5. 1910
6. 27
7. Aztecs
8. Afrikaners

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front.
(ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
(iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
(iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

Question 3.
Assertion : The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.
(a) Both A and R are right
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
Answer:
The period of Political repression in Indo-China starting in 1927 by the Republic of China government was called ‘White Terror’.

Question 2.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:
When British trade was badly affected by the Great Depression of 1929, it transferred its effect on its colonies by signing a bilateral trade with them. This was called as Economic summit at Ottawa in 1932. It was agreed by the colonies that they will prefer only British goods and not any other goods.

Question 3.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:
The famous Monroe doctrine was brought by Monroe, the President of the USA. This doctrine declared that if Europeans inteferred anywhere in America, north or south, it would amount to waging a war against the United States. This threat frightened the European powers and kept them away from South America.

Question 4.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:
In 1919, Mussolini joined the Fascist party. He gathered support from all groups of people in the society and in October 1922, he organised a March to Rome. Impressed by the force behind Mussolini, king invited him to form the Government.

Question 5.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884 – 85.
Answer:
The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers. The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.

Question 6.
How did Great Depression impact on Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The impact of Great depression on Indian agriculture was very severe. The value of the agricultural produce reduced by half whereas the rent to be paid to the government remain the same. To compensate the loss, the farmers had to sell their gold and silver reserves.

Question 7.
Explain the reason for the Smuts-Herzog alliance.
Answer:
The world economic depression brought unemployment and bankruptcy to South Africa. In this context labour withdrew its support given to the National Party. Smuts believed that a coalition government was required to solve the country’s economic problems. Therefore, the South Africa party (led by Smuts) and the National Party (led by Herzog) united in 1934 to form the United South Africa National Party or United Party for short. However, the Smuts- Herzog alliance lasted until 1939.

Question 8.
Define “Dollar Imperialism.”
Answer:
It refers to the USA’s policy to maintain the distant lands and dominate them through their economic help and support in terms of their currency dollar.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-china

(a) Define the concept of decolonisation.
Answer:
Decolonization means the process of transferring the legal and – institutional control to the indigenous nationalist governments by the colonial powers.

(b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China?
Answer:
The Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam were the three states that formed inrio- China.

(c) How did Communist ideas heip in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
Answer:
Communist ideas helped to convince people that considerable wealth of Indo-China was beneficial only to the colonial power. This helped to develop anti-colonialism spirit in Indo-China.

(d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
Vietnam Nationalist party was the mainstream political party in Indo-China.

Question 2.
Ho Chi Minh
(a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.

(b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.

(c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
Answer:
In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.

(d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

Question 3.
Political Developments In South America

(a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
Answer:
By the year 1830, the whole of South America became free from European domination.

(b) How many republics came into being from Central America?
Answer:
Central America split into five republics namely Costa Rica, El Salvador, .Guatemala, Honduras and Nicaragua.

(c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
Answer:
In 1898, Cuba was occupied by the USA.

(d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
The situation created by the great depression made Oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Answer:
(i) In 1919, a group of seven men met in Munich and founded the National socialist German worker’s Party which later came to be known as Nazi Party. One of these men was Adolf Hitler.
(ii) In 1923, Hitler abortively attempted to capture power in Bavaria. But this proved a blunder. He was sent to prison. In the Presedential election of 1932, the communist party polled about 6,000,000 votes. This alarmed capitalists and property owners. Hitler exploited this opportunity to usurp powers.
(iii) In 1933, Hitler was made the Chancellor of Germany. Having acquired power, he brought an end to the parliamentary democracy established in Germany after the First World War.
(iv) He converted Germany into a highly centralised state. All political parties except the Nazi Party were declared illegal. The army of brown-shirted and jack-booted storm-troopers was expanded.
(v) Hitler Youth was created, and the Labour Front set up. Trade unions were abolished, their leaders were arrested and all workers were compelled to join the German Labour Front. Strikes were made illegal, wages were fixed by the government, and the Labour Front was used by the Nazis to control industry.
(vi) Total state control was extended over the press, theatre, cinema, radio and over education. The Nazi Party’s propaganda manipulated public opinion through planned propaganda.

Question 2.
Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39).
Answer:

1. It was the launch of the Swadeshi movement in 1905 that mark the beginning of the decolonization process in India.
2. In 1919, the Government of India Act provided dyarchy in the provinces.
3. The elected provincial assemblies and Indian ministers are permitted to hold certain portfolios in the Legislature.
4. But the Indian National congress rejected dyarchy and decided to boycott the Legislature.
5. In 1930, the Indian National Congress emerged as a mass militant movement.
6. The Government of India Act of 1935 , made the British to appease the Indian nationalists and provided great power to the local governments.
7. In 1937, British introduced direct elections and the congress won in most of the provinces.
8. The process of decolonisation is very clear by the Montague declaration stating, Increasing association of Indians in every branch of the administration and gradual self-government in India is an integral part . of the British Empire.

Question 3.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

1. There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
2. The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
3. Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
4. In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
5. The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Each student may be asked to write an assignment on how each sector and each section of population in the USA came to be affected by the Stock Market Crash in 1929.
Answer:
The New York stock Market Crash occurred in 1929. As a result of this the price of shares in the stock market fell steeply. The investors and consumers got discouraged to such an extent that more and more people began to sell their shares and dispose of their stocks. But there were no buyers. This great crash and decline in investments was followed by the failure of American banks. The American financiers were forced to recall their own funds invested abroad.

Question 2.
A group project work on Vietnam War is desirable. An album or pictures, portraying the air attacks of the US on Vietnam and the brave resistance put up by the Vietnamese may be prepared.
Answer:
You can do this activity in the class by taking reference from internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

The World Between Two World Wars Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Great Economic Depression began in ……
(a) England
(b) USA
(c) France
Answer:
(b) USA

Question 2.
The secret police of Hitler were called as:
(a) Duce
(b) Gestapo
(c) Swastika
(d) Third Reich
Answer:
(b) Gestapo

Question 3.
The Great Depression in USA began on
(a) Oct 24, 1929
(b) Oct 24, 1930
(c) Oct 24, 1939
Answer:
(a) Oct 24, 1929

Question 4.
The discovery of ……………. in Transvaal, led to large number of Britishers settle in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Smuts
(b) Coal
(c) Gold
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) Gold

Question 5.
Mussolini provided a
(a) Democratic government
(b) stable government
(c) Republic government
Answer:
(b) stable government

Question 6.
……………. adopted ‘Good Neighbour’ policy in USA.
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Monroe
(c) Theodore
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 7.
A democratic constitution with the federal structure was established by a National Assembly,
(a) Berlin
(b) Weimer
(c) Finland
Answer:
(b) Weimer

Question 8.
recognised the Vatican city as an independent state.
(a) Hitler
(b) FDR
(c) Mussolini
(d) Ho-Chi Minh
Answer:
(c) Mussolini

Question 9.
Hitler’s anti-Semitism grew to the extent of killing the
(a) Aryans
(b) Jews
(c) Mongolians
Answer:
(b) Jews

Question 10.
The Boer wars took place between the Boers and the:
(a) Germans
(b) Africans
(c) British
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) British

Question 11.
In 1941, Hitler invaded
(a) Russia
(b) Prussia
(c) Persia
Answer:
(a) Russia

Question 12.
“Speak softly, but carry a big stick”- The attitude of US President Theodore Roosevelt to countries.
(a) European
(b) Imperialist
(c) Latin America
(d) Republican
Answer:
(c) Latin America

Question 13.
Mussolini left the League of Nations in …….
(a) 1931
(b) 1937
(c) 1932
Answer:
(b) 1937

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The main cause of the depression was the collapse of ………
2. Franklin D.Roosevelt was commonly known as ………
3. The New Deal Policy includes ……… , ……… and ………
4. Mussolini was called by his followers as ………
5. The followers of Mussolini were called ………
6. Mussolini’s secret police was known as ………
7. ……… issued by Mussolini provided great relief to workers.
8. Benito Amilcale Andrea Mussolini was born on ………
9. Mussolini organised a groups of young persons or gangs called ………
10. The founder of the Nazist party was ………
11. Hitler’s secret police was ………
12. Hitler pulled Germany out of the League of Nation in ………
13. The Locarno Treaty was signed in ………
Answers:
1. American share market
2. FDR
3. Relief, Recovery and Reforms
4. Duce
5. Black shirts
6. OVRA
7. The Charter of Labour
8. 1883
9. Fasces
10. Hitler
11. Gastapo
12.1933
13.1925

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1 .(c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (e)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What were the causes for the Great Economic Depression?
Answer:

1. The main cause for the Depression was the collapse of the American share market.
2. It was due to speculation on borrowed money.

Question 2.
What is meant by Fascism?
Answer:
Fascism is a form of government which is characterized by one-party dictatorship, Forcible power, strict control on society and of the economy.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Fascism” mean?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Fascism” is derived from the Latin word ‘Fasces’.
2. “Fasces” means a bundle or group.

Question 4.
What are the factors that led to the triumph of Fascism in Germany?
Answer:
Germany raised to great heights in economic, political and cultural accomplishments. Germany’s universities, its science, philosophy, music were known all over the world. Germany exceeded much more than Britain and the USA in the Industrial production.

Question 5.
Name the reasons for the rise of fascism.
Answer:

1. Italy faced with a great economic crisis.
2. There was social unrest and economic distress.
3. The prices of essential goods shot up.
4. Cost of living was very high.
5. There was great dismay and frustration among the people.
6. On account of the revolutionary ideas of the socialists, unrest and spread in Italy.
7. This situation demanded a bold leadership. These conditions favoured the rise of Fascism.

Question 6.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela was a South African revolutionary who fought against apartheid and joined the African National Congress (ANC). When the ANC was banned he was arrested, and was in prison for 27 years. In 1994, he became the first black president of South Africa.

Question 7.
Write any two achievements of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. Mussolini established peace and order and he provided a stable government.
2. Mussolini brought order and discipline in the industrial field.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘Inflation’?
Answer:
It refers to the general increase in the price level and a fall in the purchasing power of money.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the early life of Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini was born on July 29, 1883 at Romagna in East – Central Italy.
2. His father was a blacksmith and his mother was an elementary school teacher.
3. Mussolini graduated in 1902 and became a school teacher.
4. He learned Lenin’s ideology and became an editor of Italian socialist paper.

Question 10.
Write about the end of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. The Allied forces heavily bombarded Sicily and landed in the island in 1943.
2. Mussolini was shot dead by his own country men.
3. Fascism died out along with the death of its founder Mussolini.

Question 11.
How did Hitler become a Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Under the inspiring leadership of Hitler, the nazi party grew in power and number.

1. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party became the 2nd largest group in the German parliament.
2. In 1933, the Nazists became the largest party in the German parliament and Hitler became the Chancellor and Hindenburg as president.
3. On the death of President Hindenburg, he made himself as President and Chancellor.
4. He abolished the Weimar Republic and himself became a dictator.

Question 12.
Write about the Nazi policy towards Jews?
Answer:

1. The Jews were removed from government position, excluded from the universities and deprived of citizenship.
2. Jewish business were closed down, and their establishments were attacked.
3. Jews were interred and used as forced labour.
4. Later they were turned into extermination camps, where industrial means of murder such as gas chambers were used to kill them.
5. It is estimated that about 6 million Jews in Europe were killed, which the Nazis termed, as ‘The final solution’.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Position of America at the end of I world war

(a) What is the position of America, at the end of the world war I ?
Answer:
America was financially in a sound position.

(b) How did America help the European debtor countries?
Answer:
As the moneylender to the world, America encouraged the flow of capital into Europe, which helped the European debtor countries.

(c) What happened to the U.S economy in the meantime?
Answer:
A sudden fall in the U.S economy forced here to impose restrictions on the export of capital.

(d) What was the impact of it all over the world?
Answer:
This resulted in a steep decline in the volume and value of exports all over the world.

Question 2.
Adolf Hitler

(a) Where was Adolf Hitler born?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler was born in Austria.

(b) What was his father?
Answer:
His father was a customs officer.

(c) What did he organize?
Answer:
He organized group of men called the National socialists in 1919, which became the Nazist Party.

(d) Name the book written by Hitler.
Answer:
He wrote a book called, “Mein Kampf “ (My struggle).

Question 3.
Mayas and Aztecs

(a) What did the three centres of civilization exist even before the discovery of America?
Answer:
The Maya, the Inca and the Aztec were the three centers of civilizations.

(b) Which was the centre of Maya Civilization?
Answer:
The League of Mayapan was the centre of Maya civilization.

(c) Who conquered the Maya country?
Answer:
Aztecs from Mexico conquered the Maya country in the fourteenth century.

(d) What did Aztecs do?
Answer:
For nearly 200 years, Aztecs ruled their empire and founded their capital city of Tenochtitlan.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What were the achievements of Fascism under Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini wanted to make Italy a powerful nation. So he adopted various methods.
2. He established peace and order. He provided a stable government.
3. He brought order and discipline in the industrial field.
4. For the welfare of the workers he issued the “Charter of Labour”
5. By this charter industries were freed from the strike epidemic. He took several measures to increase production.
6. Marshes were drained and canals were dug. Reclamation projects were launched.
7. Hydroelectric schemes were undertaken.
8. Railways and other means of transportation were improved.
9. A fair degree of self-sufficiency was achieved.
10. In 1929, Mussolini signed the Latern Treaty with Pope. The 60 years conflict between the Papacy and the Italian government came to an end by this treaty.

Question 2.
Explain the Anti-colonial movement that emerged in Indo-China and the influence of Ho-Chi-Minh.
Answer:

1. Indo – china consists of today’s Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.
2. From the beginning, French occupation and communist ideas from China were a major influence in Indo-China.
3. Considerable wealth of Indo-china was benefiting only these colonial powers.
4. In 1916, there was a major anti-colonial revolt but was crushed brutally.
5. Vietnam Nationalist Party was the main political party formed in 1927 in Indo-China.
6. In 1925, Ho-Chi-Minh founded the Revolutionary youth movement. He led the peasant revolt in 1930 which was crushed. He left to Moscow thereafter.’
7. When France was defeated by Germany in 1940, Ho-Chi-Minh and his followers used this to the favour of Vietnamese.
8. In 1941, he organized the League for the independence of Vietnam which was called as Viet Minh.
9. Vietnamese nationalism, thus renewed its importance with the help of Ho-Chi-Minh.

Question 3.
State the contribution of Ho Chi Minh in the freedom of Vietnam.
Answer:

1. In February 1930, Ho Chi Minh brought together competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese Communist Party. It was later renamed as the Indo-Chinese Communist Party.
2. Ho chi minh was inspired by the militant demostrations of the European Communist Parties.
3. In 1940, Japan occupied Vietnam, as part of its imperial drive to control Southeast Asia.
   The nationalists now had a fight against the Japanese as well as the French. The League for the Independence of Vietnam (Vietnam Doc Lap Dong Minh), which came to be known as the Vietminh fought the Japanese occupation and recaptured Hanoi in September 1945.
4. The Democratic Republic of Vietnam was formed and Ho Chi Minh was made the chairman.

Question 4.
Write any three features of the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement was started under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, in the year 1930. It was an important milestone in the history of Indian nationalism. The main ideology behind the civil disobedience movement was to defy the laws made by the British. Three features of this movement were:

1. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
2. In many places, forest people violated forest laws – going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
3. Women participated in the movement on a large scale.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.7

Question 1.
Find the square root of the following rational expressions.

Solution:

Question 2.
Find the square root of the following
(i) 4x² + 20x + 25
(ii) 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
(iii) 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^{6}}+\frac{2}{x^{3}}\)
(iv) (4x² – 9x + 2) (7x² – 13x – 2) (28x² – 3x – 1)
(v) ( 2x² + \(\frac{17}{6} x\) + 1) (\(\frac{3}{2} x^{2}\) + 4x + 2)(\(\frac{4}{3} x^{2}+\frac{11}{3} x\) + 2)
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.5

Question 1.
Simplify

Solution:

Question 2.
Simplify

Solution:

Question 3.
Simplify

Solution:

Question 4.
If x = \(\frac{a^{2}+3 a-4}{3 a^{2}-3}\) and y = \(\frac{a^{2}+2 a-8}{2 a^{2}-2 a-4}\) find the value of x²y².
Solution:

Question 5.
If a polynomial p(x) = x² – 5x – 14 is divided by another polynomial q(x) we get \(\frac{x-7}{x+2}\) find q(x).
Solution:
p(x) = x² – 5x – 14