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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Sets Ex 1.4

Question 1.
For the curve y = x³ given in Figure, draw
(i) r = -x³
(ii) y = x³ + 1
(iii) y = x³ – 1
(iv) y = (x + 1)³ with the same scale.





Solution:
(i) It is the reflection on y axis
(ii) The graph of y = x³ + 1 is shifted upward to 1 unit.
(iii) The graph of y = x³ – 1 is shifted downward to 1 unit.
(iv) The graph of y = (x + 1)³ is shifted to the left for 1 unit.

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.
Graph the functions f(x) = x³ and g(x) = \(\sqrt[3]{x}\) on the same coordinate plane. Find fog and graph it on the plane as well. Explain your results.
Solution:

Question 4.
Write the steps to obtain the graph of the function y = 3(x – 1)² + 5 from the graph y = x².
Solution:
Draw the graph of y = x²
To get y = (x – 1)² we have to shift the curve 1 unit to the right.
Then we have to draw the curve y = 3(x – 1)² and finally, we have to draw y = 3(x – 1)² + 5

Question 5.
From the curve y = sin x, graph the functions
(i) y = sin(-x)
(ii) y = -sin(-x)
(iii) y = sin (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + x) which is cos x
(iv) y = sin (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – x) which is also cos x (refer trigonometry)
Solution:
First we have to draw the curve y = sin x

(i) y = sin (-x) = – sin x = f(x)

(ii) y = -sin(-x) = -[-sin x] = sin x

Question 6.
From the curve y = x, draw
(i) y = -x
(ii) y = 2x
(iii) y = x + 1
(iv) y = \(\frac{1}{2}\)x + 1
(v) 2x + y + 3 = 0. 2
Solution:
y = x

(i) y = -x

(ii) y = 2x


y = 2x the graph moves away from the x-axis, as multiplying factor is 2 which is greater than one.

(iii) y = 2x + 1

(iv) y = 1/2x + 1


y = \(\frac{1}{2}\)x moves towards x – axis by a side factor \(\frac{1}{2}\) which is less than y = \(\frac{1}{2}\)x + 1 upwards by 1 unit.

(v) y = -2x – 3

Question 7.
From the curve y = |x|, draw
(i) y= |x – 1| + 1
(ii) y = |x + 1| – 1
(iii) y = |x + 2| – 3.
Solution:
Given, y = |x|
If y = x

If y = -x

(i) y = |x – 1| + 1
y = x – 1 + 1
y = -x + 1 + 1 = x

(ii) y = |x + 1| – 1
y = x + 1 – 1 = x
y = -x -1 – 1
y = -x – 2
y = – (x + 2)

(iii) y = |x + 2| – 3
y = x + 2 – 3 ⇒ x – 1
y = -x – 2 + 3 = 1 – x
y = -(x – 1)

Question 8.
From the curves = sin x, draw y = sin |x| (Hint: sin(-x) = -sin x.)
Solution:
y = sin |x|
∴ y = sin x
∴ y = sin (-x) = – sin x
y = – sin x

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.3

Question 1.
Find the sum of the first 20-terms of the arithmetic progression having the sum of first 10 terms as 52 and the sum of the first 15 terms as 77.
Solution:
Let ‘a’ be the first term and d be the common difference of A.P.

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.
Compute the sum of first n terms of the following series:
(i) 8 + 88 + 888 + 8888 + ……
(i) 6 + 66 + 666 + 6666 + …..
Solution:

Question 4.
Compute the sum of first n terms of 1 + (1 + 4) + (1 + 4 + 4²) + (1 + 4 + 4² + 4³) + ……..
Solution:

Question 5.
Find the general term and sum to n terms of the sequence \(1, \frac{4}{3}, \frac{7}{9}, \frac{10}{27}, \ldots \ldots \ldots\)
Solution:

Denominator 1, 3, 9, 27, which is a G.P. a = 1, r = 3

It is an arithmetico Geometric series. Here the n^th term is t_n = [a + (n – 1)d]r^{n – 1} where a = 1, d = 3 and r = 1/3
Now the sum to n terms is

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.
Show that the sum of (m + n)^th and (m – n)^th term of an A.P. is equal to twice the m^th term.
Solution:
The n^th term of an A.P is T_n = a + (n – 1) d
T_m+n = a + (m + n – 1) d
T_m-n = a + (m – n – 1) d
T_m+n + T_m-n = a + (m + n – 1) d + a + (m – n – 1)d
= 2a + [m + n – 1 + m – n – 1) d
= 2a + [2m – 2] d
= 2a + 2 (m – 1) d
= 2 [a + (m – 1] d
T_m+n + T_m-n = 2T_m
Hence the sum of the ( m + n)^th term and ( m – n)^th term of A.P is equal to twice the m^th term.

Question 8.
A man repays an amount of ₹ 3250 by paying ₹ 20 in the first month and then increases the payment by ₹ 15 per month. How long will it take him to clear the amount?
Solution:
a = 20, d = 15, S_n = 3250 to find n.

3n² + 5n – 1300 = 0
3n² – 60n + 65n – 1300 = 0
3n (n – 20) + 65 (n – 20) = 0
(3n + 65) (n – 20) = 0
n = – 65/3 or 20
n = – 65/3 is not possible
∴ n = 20
So he will take 20 months to clear the amount.

Question 9.
In a race, 20 balls are placed in a line at intervals of 4 meters with the first ball 24 meters away from the starting point. A contestant is required to bring the balls back to the starting place one at a time. How far would the contestant run to bring back all balls?
Solution:
t₁ = 24 × 2 = 48, t₂ =48 + 8 = 56 or (24 + 4)2, t₃ =(28 + 4)2 = 64 which is an A.P.
Here a = 48,
d = 56 – 48 = 8

The contestant has to run 2480 m to bring all the balls.

Question 10.
The number of bacteria in a certain culture doubles every hour. If there were 30 bacteria present in the culture originally, how many bacteria will be present at the end of the 2^nd hour, 4^th hour, and n^th hour?
Solution:
Number of bacteria present initially = 30
Number of bacteria at the end of 1 hour = 2 × 30 = 60
Number of bacteria at the end of two hours = 2 × 60 = 120
Number of bacteria at the end of three hours = 2 × 120 = 240
Number of bacteria at the end of four hours = 2 × 240 = 480

∴ The sequence of a number of bacterias at the end of every hour is
30, 60, 120, 240, 480, …………………………..
30, 30 × 2, 30 × 4, 30 × 8, 30 × 16, …………………
30, 30 × 2, 30 × 2², 30 × 2³, 30 × 2⁴, …………………
This sequence is a Geometric sequence with first term a = 30, common ratio r = 2
Number of bacteria at the end of n^th hour t_n+1 = a. rⁿ
t_n+1 = 30(2ⁿ)
Number of bacteria at the end of 2^nd hour = 120
Number of bacteria at the end of 4^th hours = 480
Number of bacteria at the end of n^th hour = 30(2ⁿ)

Question 11.
What will ₹ 500 amount to in 10 years after its deposit in a bank which pays an annual interest rate of 10% compounded annually?
Solution:

Question 12.
In a certain town, a viral disease caused severe health hazards upon its people disturbing their normal life. It was found that on each day, the virus which caused the disease spread in Geometric Progression. The amount of infectious virus particle gets doubled each day, being 5 particles on the first day. Find the day when the infectious virus particles just grow over 1,50,000 units?
Solution:
a = 5, r = 2, t_n >150000, To find ‘n’

On the 15^th day it will grow over 150000 units.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.3 Additional Questions

Question 1.
If the ratio of the sums of m terms and n terms of an A.P. be m² : n², prove that the ratio of its m^th and n^th terms is (2m – 1) : (2n – 1).
Solution:
Let ‘a’ be the first term and d be the common difference of A.P.

⇒ 2an + (mn – n)d = 2am + (mn – m)d
⇒ 2an – 2am = (mn – m – mn + n)d
⇒ 2a(n – m) = (n – m)d ⇒ d = 2a, [n – m ≠ 0, as n ≠ m]

Hence, the required ratio is (2m – 1) : (2n – 1)

Question 2.
Determine the number of terms of geometric progression {a_n} if a₁ = 3, a_n = 96, S_n = 189.
Solution:

Question 3.
The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is to the sum of the first six terms as 125 : 152. Find the common ratio of the G.P.
Solution:

Hence, the common ratio of the G.P. is \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 4.
Find the sum to n terms the series: (x + y) + (x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + …
Solution:
(x + y) + (x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + … to n terms

Question 5.
Sum the series: (1 + x) + (1 + x + x²) + (1 + x + x² + x³) + … up to n terms
Solution:

Question 6.
Sum up to n terms the series: 7 + 77 + 777 + 7777 + …
Solution:
S = 1 + 77 + 777 + 7777 + … to n terms

Question 7.
If S₁, S₂, S₃ be respectively the sums of n, 2n, 3n, terms of a G.P. , then prove that S₁(S₃ – S₂) = (S₂ – S₁)₂.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and r be the common ratio of G.P.

Question 8.
If the sum of the n terms of a G.P be S, their product P and the sum of their reciprocals R, the prove that \(P^{2}=\left(\frac{S}{R}\right)^{n}\)
Solution:
Let a be the first term and r be the common ratio of the G.P.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Combinatorics and Mathematical Induction Ex 4.5

Question 1.
The sum of the digits at the 10th place of all numbers formed with the help of 2, 4, 5, 7 taken all at a time is ……..
(a) 432
(b) 108
(c) 36
(d) 18
Solution:
(b) 108
Hint.
The given digits are 2, 4, 5 ,7
The unit place can be filled with the digit 2. Then the remaining Ten’s , hundred’s, Thousand’s place can be filled with the remaining three digits 4, 5, 7 in 3P₃ ways.
∴ There will be 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 four digit numbers whose unit place is 2.
Similarly, there are 6 four digit numbers whose unit place is 4 , 6 four digit numbers whose unit place is 5 and 6 four digit numbers whose unit place is 7.
∴ Total in the unit place
= 6 × 2 + 6 × 4 + 6 × 5 + 6 × 7
= 6 × (2 + 4 + 5 + 7)
= 6 × 18 = 108
Sum of the digit at the unit place = 108
∴ Sum of the digit at the tens place = 108

Question 2.
In an examination, there are three multiple-choice questions and each question has 5 choices. A number of ways in which a student can fail to get all answer correct is ……..
(a) 125
(b) 124
(c) 64
(d) 63
Solution:
(b) 124
Hint.
Each question has 5 options in which 1 is correct.
So the number of ways of getting the correct answer for all three questions is 5³ = 125
So the number of ways in which a student can fail to get all answer correct is < 125 (i.e.) 125 – 1 = 124

Question 3.
The number of ways in which the following prize be given to a class of 30 boys first and second in mathematics, first and second in physics, first in chemistry and first in English is ……….
(a) 30⁴ × 29²
(b) 30³ × 29³
(c) 30² × 29⁴
(d) 30 × 29⁵
Solution:
(a) 30⁴ × 29²
Hint.
Number of students = 30
First prize can be given to any one of 30 students
= 30 × 30 × 30 × 30 = 30⁴ ways
Second prize can be given to anyone of the remaining 29 students = 29 × 29 = 29² ways
∴ Total number of ways prizes can be given = 30⁴ × 29² ways

Question 4.
The number of 5 digit numbers all digits of which are odd is ………
(a) 25
(b) 5⁵
(c) 5⁶
(d) 625
Solution:
(b) 5⁵
Hint. The odd number are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9
Number of odd numbers = 5
We need a five-digit number So the number of five-digit number = 5⁵

Question 5.
In 3 fingers, the number of ways four rings can be worn is …… ways.
(a) 4³ – 1
(b) 3⁴
(c) 68
(d) 64
Solution:
(b) 3⁴
Hint.
Number of rings = 4
Each finger can be worn rings in 4 ways.
∴ Number of ways of wearing four rings in three fingers
= 4 × 4 × 4
= 64

Question 6.

(a) 7 and 11
(b) 6 and 7
(c) 2 and 11
(d) 2 and 6
Solution:
(b) 6 and 7

Question 7.
The product of r consecutive positive integers is divisible by ………
(a) r!
(b) (r – 1)!
(c) (r + 1)!
(d) r!
Solution:
(a) r!
Hint.
The product of r consecutive positive integers is
1 × 2 × 3 × …………… × r = r!
which is divisible by r!
Also, 1 × 2 × 3 × …………… × r = r!
= ( r – 1) ! × r
which is divisible by (r – 1) !

Question 8.
The number of 5 digit telephone numbers which have none of their digits repeated is
(a) 90000
(b) 10000
(c) 30240
(d) 69760
Solution:
(d) 69760
Hint.
The number of 5 digit telephone numbers which have none of their digits repeated is ¹⁰P₅ = 30240
Thus the required telephone number is 10⁵ – 30240 = 69760

Question 9.
If a² – ^aC₂ = a² – ^aC₄ then the value of ‘a’ is ….
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Solution:
(b) 3
Hint.
a₂ – a = 2 + 4 = 6
a₂ – a – 6 = 0
(a – 3) (a + 2) = 0 ⇒ a = 3

Question 10.
There are 10 points in a plane and 4 of them are collinear. The number of straight lines joining any two points is ……..
(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 39
(d) 38
Solution:
(b) 40
Hint.

Question 11.
The number of ways in which a host lady invite 8 people for a party of 8 out of 12 people of whom two do not want to attend the party together is
(a) 2 × ¹¹C₇ + ¹⁰C₈
(b) ¹¹C₇ + ¹⁰C₈
(c) ¹²C₈ – ¹⁰C₆
(d) ¹⁰C₆ + 2!
Solution:
(c) ¹²C₈ – ¹⁰C₆
Hint.
Number of the way of selecting 8 people from 12 in ¹²C₈
∴ out of the remaining people, 8 can attend in ¹⁰C₈
The number of ways in which two of them do not attend together = ¹²C₈ – ¹⁰C₆

Question 12.
The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of three parallel lines …….
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 18
Solution:
(d) 18
Hint.
Number of parallelograms = ⁴C₂ × ³C₂ = 6 × 3 = 18

Question 13.
Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody else. The total number of shake hands is 66. The number of persons in the room is …….
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 6
Solution:
(b) 12
Hint.

Question 14.
The number of sides of a polygon having 44 diagonals is ……….
(a) 4
(b) 4!
(c) 11
(d) 22
Solution:
(c) 11
Hint:

Question 15.
If 10 lines are drawn in a plane such that no two of them are parallel and no three are concurrent, then the total number of points of intersection are ………
(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 10!
(d) 2¹⁰
Solution:
(a) 45
Hint:

Question 16.
In a plane there are 10 points are there out of which 4 points are collinear, then the number of triangles formed is …….
(a) 110
(b) ¹⁰C₃
(c) 120
(d) 116
Solution:
(d) 116
Hint:

Question 17.
In ²ⁿC₃ : ⁿC₃ = 11 : 1 then n is ………
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 6
Hint.

Question 18.
^{(n – 1)}C_r + ^{(n – 1)}C_{(r – 1)} is ………
(a) ^{(n + 1)}C_r
(b) ^{(n – 1)}C_r
(c) ⁿC_r
(d) ⁿC_{r – 1}
Solution:
(c) ⁿC_r

Question 19.
The number of ways of choosing 5 cards out of a deck of 52 cards which include at least one king is …….
(a) ⁵²C₅
(b) ⁴⁸C₅
(c) ⁵²C₅ + ⁴⁸C₅
(d) ⁵²C₅ – ⁴⁸C₅
Solution:
(d) ⁵²C₅ – ⁴⁸C₅
Hint.
Selecting 5 from 52 cards = ⁵²C₅
selecting 5 from the (non-king cards 48) = ⁴⁸C₅
∴ Number of ways is ⁵²C₅ – ⁴⁸C₅

Question 20.
The number of rectangles that a chessboard has ……
(a) 81
(b) 99
(c) 1296
(d) 6561
Solution:
(c) 1296
Hint. Number of horizontal times = 9
Number of vertical times = 9
Selecting 2 from 9 horizontal lines = ⁹C₂
Selecting 2 from 9 vertical lines = ⁹C₂

Question 21.
The number of 10 digit number that can be written by using the digits 2 and 3 is ……..
(a) ¹⁰C₂ + ⁹C₂
(b) 2¹⁰
(c) 2¹⁰ – 2
(d) 10!
Solution:
(b) 2¹⁰
Hint.
Selecting the number from (2 and 3)
For till the first digit can be done in 2 ways
For till the second digit can be done in 2 ways ….
For till the tenth digit can be done in 2 ways
So, total number of ways in 10 digit number = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2¹⁰

Question 22.
If P_r stands for ^rP_r then the sum of the series 1 + P₁ + 2P₂ + 3P₃ + … + nP_n is ……..
(a) P_{n + 1}
(b) P_{n + 1} – 1
(c) P_{n – 1} + 1
(d) ^{(n + 1)}P_{(n – 1)}
Solution:
(b) P_{n + 1} – 1
Hint:
1 + 1! + 2! + 3! + … + n!
Now 1 + 1 (1!) = 2 = (1 + 1)!
1 + 1 (1!) + 2(2!) = 1 + 1 + 4 = 6 = 3!
1 + 1(1!) + 2(2!)+ 3(3!) = 1 + 1 + 4 + 18 = 24 = 4!
1 + 1(1!) + 2(2!) + 3(3!) ….+ n(n!) = (n + 1) ! – 1
= ^{n + 1}P_{n + 1} – 1 = P_{n + 1} – 1

Question 23.
The product of first n odd natural numbers equals …….

Solution:

Hint:

Question 24.
If ⁿC₄, ⁿC₅, ⁿC₆ are in AP the value of n can be ………..
(a) 14
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 5
Solution:
(a) 14
Hint:

30 + n² – 9n + 20 – 12n + 48 = 0
n² – 21 n + 98 = 0
(n – 7) (n – 14) = 0
n = 7 (or) 14

Question 25.
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + + 17 is equal to ………
(a) 101
(b) 81
(c) 71
(d) 61
Solution:
(b) 81
Hint:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Combinatorics and Mathematical Induction Ex 4.2

Question 1.
If ^{(n – 1)} P₃ : ⁿP₄, find n:
Solution:

Question 2.
If ¹⁰P_{r – 1} = 2 × ⁶P_r, find r.
Solution:

Question 3.
(i) Suppose 8 people enter an event in a swimming meet. In how many ways could the gold, silver, and bronze prizes be awarded?
Solution:
Number people enter in a swimming meet = 8 Prizes awarded = Gold, silver, bronze.
The gold medal can be awarded to any one of the 8 people in 8 ways. The silver medal can be awarded to any one of the remaining 7 people in 7 ways. The bronze medal can be awarded to any one of the remaining 6 people in 6 ways,
∴ Total number of ways of awarding the prizes = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336

(ii) Three men have 4 coats, 5 waistcoats, and 6 caps. In how many ways can they wear them?
Solution:
Selecting and arranging 3 coats from 4 can be done in ⁴P₃ ways
Selecting and arranging 3 waistcoats from 5 can be done in ⁵P₃ ways Selecting and arranging 3 caps from 6 can be done in ⁶P₃ ways
∴ Total number of ways = ⁴P₃ × ⁵P₃ × ⁶P₃ = 172800 ways

Question 4.
Determine the number of permutations of the letters of the word SIMPLE if all are taken at a time?
Solution:
Number of letters in the word SIMPLE = 6
The total number of the word is equal to the number of arrangements of these letters, taken all at a time
∴ Total number of words = 6P₆ = 6!
= 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
= 720

Question 5.
A test consists of 10 multiple-choice questions. In how many ways can the test be answered if

(i) Each question has four choices?
Solution:
Total number of questions = 10
Each question has four choices.
Each question can be answered in 4 ways.
∴ The total number of ways of answering 10 questions
= 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4
= 4¹⁰

(ii) The first four questions have three choices and the remaining have five choices?
Solution:
The first four questions have three choices and the remaining have five choices
First, four questions have three choices.
∴ The number of ways of answering the first four questions is = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 3⁴
The remaining six questions have 5 choices
∴ The number of ways of answering the remaining 6 questions is = 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 5⁶
∴ The total number of ways of answering the questions = 3⁴ × 5⁶

(iii) Question number n has n + 1 choices?
Solution:
Question number n has n + 1 choices.
The first question has a 1 + 1 choice.
∴ Number of ways of answering the first question = 2
The second question has 2 + 1 choices
∴ Number ways of answering second question = 3

Tenth question has (10 + 1) choices
∴ Number of ways of answering tenth question = 11
∴ A total number of ways of answering the given 10 questions = 2 × 3 × 4 × ……. × 11 = 11!

Question 6.
A student appears in an objective test which contain 5 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four choices out of which one correct answer.

(i) What is the maximum number of different answers can the students give?
Solution:
Number multiple-choice questions = 5
Number of ways of answering each question = 4
∴ The total number of ways of answering the five questions = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 45
Hence, the maximum number of different answers = 4⁵

(ii) How will the answer change if each question may have more than one correct answers?
Solution:
When each question has more than 1 correct answer.
Selecting the correct choice from the 4 choice can be done is ⁴C₁ or ⁴C₂ or ⁴C₃ or ⁴C₄ ways.

Each question can be answered in 15 ways.
Number of questions = 5
∴ Total number of ways = 15⁵

Question 7.
How many strings can be formed from the letters of the word ARTICLE, so that vowels occupy the even places?
Solution:
The given word is ARTICLE
Number of letters in the word = 7
Vowels in the given word = A, I, E
Number of vowels in the given word = 3

∴ Number of even places = 3
3 Vowels can occupy the 3 even places in 3P3 = 3! ways
The remaining 4 letters can occupy the remaining places in
4P₄ = 4! ways
Hence a total number of ways of arrangement = 4! × 3! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 144

Question 8.
8 women and 6 men are standing in a line.
(i) How many arrangements are possible if any individual can stand in any position?
Solution:
Total number of persons in a line = 8 + 6 = 14
The number of ways of standing 14 persons in a line in any position = 14P₁₄ = 14!

(ii) In how many arrangements will all 6 men be standing next to one another?
Solution:
Consider 6 men as one unit.
8 women + 6 men as one unit = 9 can be arranged in 9! ways.
6 men can among themselves be arranged in 6! ways.
∴ A total number of ways of arrangement = 9! × 6!

(iii) In how many arrangements will no two men be standing next to one another?
Solution:
Since no two men be together they have to be placed between 8 women and before and after the women.
w | w | w | w | w | w | w | w
There are 9 places so the 6 men can be arranged in the 9 places in ⁹P₆ ways.
After this arrangement, the 8 women can be arranged in 8! ways.
∴ Total number of arrangements = (⁹P₆) × 8!

Question 9.
Find the distinct permutations of the letters of the word MISSISSIPPI?
Solution:
MISSISSIPPI
Number of letters = 11
Here M – 1 time
I – 4 times
S – 4 times
P – 2 times

Question 10.
How many ways can the product a2b3c4 be expressed without exponents?
Solution:
a²b³c⁴ = aabbbcccc
Number of letters = 9
a = 2 times,
b = 3 times,
c = 4 times,

Question 11.
In how many ways 4 mathematics books, 3 physics books, 2 chemistry books and 1 biology book can be arranged on a shelf so that all books of the same subjects are together.
Solution:
Number of subjects = 4
4 subjects can be arranged in the shelf in 4! ways Number of mathematics books = 4
4 Mathematics books keeping together can be arranged in 4! ways
Number of physics books = 3
3 Physics books keeping together can be arranged in 3! ways.
Number of chemistry books =2
2 Chemistry books keeping together can be arranged in 2! ways.
Number of biology books = 1
1 biology book can be arranged in 1! way
Hence, the total numbers of ways of arranging the books
= 4! × 4! × 3! × 2! × 1!
= (4 × 3 × 2 × 1) (4 × 3 × 2 × 1) × (3 × 2) (2 × 1)
= 24 × 24 × 6 × 2
= 6912

Question 12.
In how many ways can the letters of the word SUCCESS be arranged so that all Ss are together?
Solution:
The given word is SUCCESS
Number of letters other than S = 4
Treating all S’s together as one letter
Total number of letters in the word = 5
Number of U’s = 1
Number of C’s = 2
Number of E’s = 1
Number of S’s (treated as one letter ) = 1
Number of ways of arranging = \(\frac{5 !}{2 ! \times 1 ! \times 1 ! \times 1 !}\)
= \(\frac{5 \times 4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1}{2 \times 1}\)
= 5 × 4 × 3
= 60 ways

Question 13.
A coin is tossed 8 times,

(i) How many different sequences of heads and tails are possible?
Solution:
Number of coins tossed = 8
Number of outcome for each toss = 2
Total number of outcomes = 28

(ii) How many different sequences containing six heads and two tails are possible?
Solution:
Getting 6 heads and 2 tails can be done in ⁸P₆ or ⁸P₂ ways

Question 14.
How many strings are there using the letters of the word INTERMEDIATE, if

(i) The vowels and consonants are alternative
Solution:
INTERMEDIATE

The number of ways in which vowels and consonants are alternative = \(\frac{6 ! 6 !}{3 ! 2 !}=\) 43200

(ii) All the vowels are together
Solution:
The number of arrangements:
Keeping all the vowels as a single unit. Now we have 6 + 1 = 7 units which can be arranged in 7! ways.
Now the 6 consonants can be arranged in \(\frac{6 !}{2 !}\) (T occurs twice) ways in vowels, I – repeats thrice
and E – repeats twice

(iii) Vowels are never together (and) (iv) No two vowels are together.
Solution:
Vowels should not be together = No. of all arrangements – No. of all vowels together

So number of ways in which No two vowels are together = 19958400 – Number of ways in which vowels are together = 19958400 – 151200 = 19807200

Question 15.
Each of the digits 1,1, 2, 3, 3 and 4 is written on a separate card. The seven cards are then laid out in a row to form a 6-digit number.

(i) How many distinct 6-digit numbers are there?
Solution:
The given digits are 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4
The 6 digits can be arranged in 6! ways
In which 1 and 3 are repeated twice.

(ii) How many of these 6-digit numbers are even?
Solution:
To find the number even numbers
The digit in unit place is 2 or 4 which can be filled in 2 ways

(iii) How many of these 6-digit numbers are divisible by 4?
Solution:
To get a number -f- by 4 the last 2 digits should be -r- by 4 So the last two digits will be 12 or 24 or 32.
When the last 2 digits are 1 and 2.

When the last 2 digits are 3 and the number of 6 digit numbers (remaining number 1, 1, 3, 4)
So there of 6 digit numbers ÷ by 4 = 12 + 6 + 12 = 30

Question 16.
If the letters of the word GARDEN are permuted in all possible ways and the strings thus formed are arranged in the dictionary order, then find the ranks of the words
(i) GARDEN
(ii) DANGER.
Solution:
The given letters are GARDEN.
To find the rank of GARDEN:
The given letters in alphabetical order are A D E G N R

The rank of GARDEN is 379
To find the rank of DANGER

(ii) The No. of words starting with A = 5! =120

Question 17.
Find the number of strings that can be made using all letters of the word THING. If these words are written as in a dictionary, what will be the 85^th string?
Solution:
(i) Number of words formed = 5! = 120
(ii) The given word is THING
Taking the letters in alphabetical order G H I N T
To find the 85^th word

Question 18.
If the letters of the word FUNNY are permuted in all possible ways and the strings thus formed are arranged in the dictionary order, find the rank of the word FUNNY.
Solution:
The given word is FUNNY

Question 19.
Find the sum of all 4-digit numbers that can be formed using digits 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 repetitions not allowed?
Solution:
The given digits are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
The no. of 4 digit numbers

Sum of the digits = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15
Sum of number’s in each place = 24 × 15 = 360

Question 20.
Find the sum of all 4-digit numbers that can be formed using digits 0, 2, 5, 7, 8 without repetition?
Solution:
The given digits are 0, 2, 5, 7, 8
To get the number of 4 digit numbers
1000’s place can be filled in 4 ways (excluding 0)
100’s place can be filled in 4 ways (excluding one number and including 0)
10’s place can be filled in (4 – 1) = 3 ways
and unit place can be filled in (3 – 1) = 2 ways
So the number of 4 digit numbers = 4 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 96

To find the sum of 96 numbers:

In 1000’s place we have the digits 2, 5, 7, 8. So each number occurs \(\frac{96}{4}\) = 24 times.
Now in 100’s place 0 come 24 times. So the remaining digits 2, 5, 7, 8 occurs 96 – 24 = \(\frac{72}{4}\) = 18 times
Similarly in 10’s place and in-unit place 0 occurs 24 times and the remaining digits 2, 5, 7, 8 occurs 18 times.
Now sum of the digits = 2 + 5 + 7 + 8 = 22
Sum in 1000’s place = 22 × 24 = 528
Sum in 100’s, 10’s and in unit place = 22 × 18 = 396
∴ Sum of the 4 digit numbers is

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Combinatorics and Mathematical Induction Ex 4.2 Additional Questions

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.
How many 3-digit even numbers can be made using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 if no digit is repeated?
Solution:
Here total number of digits = 6
The unit place can be filled with any one of the digits 2, 4, 6.

Question 3.
Find n if ^{n – 1}P₃ : ⁿP₄ = 1 : 9
Solution:

Question 4.
How many words can be formed by using the letters of the word ORIENTAL so that A and E always occupy the odd places?
Solution:
[Hint: There are 4 odd places in the word]

Now the remaining 6 places filled with remaining 6 letters

Hence the total number of permutations = 12 × 720 = 8640

Question 5.
Out of 18 points in a plane, no three are in the same line except five points which are collinear. Find the number of lines that can be formed joining the points.
Solution:
Total number of points = 18
Out of 18 numbers, 5 are collinear and we get a straight line by joining any two points.
∴ Total number of straight-line formed by joining 2 points out of 18 points = ¹⁸C₂
Number of straight lines formed by joining 2 points out of 5 points = ⁵C₂
But 5 points are collinear and we get only one line when they are joined pairwise.
So, the required number of straight lines are

Hence, the total number of straight lines = 144

Question 6.
We wish to select 6 person from 8 but, if the person A is chosen, then B must be chosen. In how many ways can selections be made?
Solution:
Total number of persons = 8
Number of persons to be selected = 6
Condition is that if A is chosen, B must be chosen

Case I: When A is chosen, B must be chosen
Number of ways = ⁶C₄
[∴ A and B are set to be choosen]

Case II: When A is not chosen, then B may be chosen
∴ Number of ways = ⁷C₆

Hence, the required number of ways = 22

Question 7.
How many 3-digit even numbers can be made using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, if no digit is repeated?
Solution:
For 3-digit even numbers, the unit’s place can be occupied by one of the 3 digits 2, 4 or 6. The remaining 5 digits can be arranged in the remaining 2 places in ⁵P₂ ways.

∴ By the multiplication rule, the required number of 3-digit even numbers is 3 × ⁵P₂ = 3 × 5 × 4 = 60.

Question 8.
Find the number of 4-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if no digit is repeated. How many of these will be even?
Solution:
For 4 digit numbers, we have to arrange the given 5 digits in 4 vacant places. This can be done in ⁵P₄ = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 120 ways.

For 4-digit even numbers, the unit’s place can be occupied by one of the 2 digits 2 or 4. The remaining 4 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3 places in ⁴P₃ ways.
∴ By the multiplication rule, the required number of 4-digit even numbers is 2 × ⁴P₃ = 2 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 48.

Question 9.
Find r if

(i) ⁵P_r = 2 ⁶P_{r – 1} 4
Solution:

(ii) ⁵P_r = ⁶P_{r – 1}

⇒ 42 – 13r + r² = 6 ⇒ r² – 13r + 36 = 0
⇒ (r – 4)(r – 9) = 0 ⇒ r = 4, 9
Now, we know that ⁿP_r is meaningful only when r ≤ n.
∴ ⁵P_r and ⁶P_{r – 1} are meaningless when r ≤ 9.
∴ Rejecting r = 9, we have r = 4

Question 10.
How many words, with or without meaning, can be made from the letters of the word MONDAY, assuming that no letter is repeated, if

(i) 4 letters are used at a time
(ii) all letters are used at a time
(iii) all letters are used but first letter is a vowel?
Solution:
The word MONDAY has 6 distinct letters.

(i) 4 letters out of 6 can be arranged in ⁶P₄ ways.
∴ The required number of words = ⁶P₄ = 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 360

(ii) 6 letters can be arranged among themselves in 6P6 ways.
∴ The required number of words = ⁶P₆ = 6! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720.

(iii) The first place can be filled by anyone Of the two vowels O or A in 2 ways. The remaining 5 letters can be arranged in the remaining 5 places II to VI in ⁵P₅ = 5! ways.
∴ By the multiplication rule, the required number of words = 2 × 5! = 2 × 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 = 240

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

The Age of Revolutions Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first British colony in America was ……………….
(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
Answer:
(c) Jamestown

Question 2.
The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British was ……………..
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
Answer:
(b) Lafayette

Question 3.
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the ………………
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

Question 4.
The defeat of British at …………….. paved the way for the friendship between France and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer:
(b) Saratoga

Question 5.
…………… was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
Answer:
(a) Versailles Palace

Question 6.
The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at ……………..
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
Answer:
(d) Valmy

Question 7.
Candide was written by …………….
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

Question 8.
The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called …………….
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres
(d) Royalists
Answer:
(d) Royalists

Question 9.
American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ………………
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
Answer:
(d) 1783

Question 10.
Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was …………..
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of Rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Answer:
(a) Common Sense

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress was ……………….
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on …………….
3. The …………… Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
4. The leader of the National Assembly of France was …………….
5. …………. was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty.
6. Louis XVI was arrested at ……………. with his family when he tried to escape from France.

Answers:

1. Benjamin Franklin
2. Massachusetts
3. Currency
4. Mirabeau
5. Herbert
6. Varennes

III Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Perm.
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars. .
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except for the tax on paper.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American . colonies
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions;
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (b)

V Answer the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Townshend Act
(a) Who introduced this Act?
Answer:
The British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced this Act.

(b) In which year was this Act passed?
Answer:
It was passed in 1767.

(c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
Answer:
The colonists opposed this Act as they introduced duties on imports to colonies such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

(d) Why did the merchants of Boston oppose British goods?
Answer:
In March 1770, resentment rose in Boston, when troops fired on a crowd. This incident led to intense anti-British propaganda.

Question 2.
Social life in France
(a) What was the tax collected by the Church in France?
Answer:
The church collected one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings from the common people.

(b) Who was Danton?
Answer:
Danton was a great leader of the Revolution.

(c) Who were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France?
Answer:
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France.

(d) Who provided free labour for the construction of public roads?
Answer:
The peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Who were Puritans? Why did they leave England?
Answer:

1. Puritans had a religious movement to reform the church of England.
2. They dispensed with the teachings and practices of the Roman Catholic Church.
3. Since the Stuart kings ordered the persecution of Puritans, they left England and settled in the colonies they founded to lead a Puritan way of life.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Quakers?
Answer:
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for peace and opposing war.

Question 3.
Point out the significance of “the Boston Tea Party”.
Answer:

1. In many places, the colonists obstructed the import of tea.
2. In Charlestown, they unloaded the tea and let it rot the dock.
3. In New York and Philadelphia ships carrying tea were blocked.
4. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
5. This incident, done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd, was signified as Boston Tea Party.

Question 4.
Attempt an account of “September Massacres”.
Answer:
The people of Paris angered by the action of the Swiss guards in shooting and killing many of them hunted down the supporters of monarchy under their leader Marat. In three days, from September 2, about 1500 suspected dissidents were put in prison. After a trial, they were killed and this incident is called “September Massacres”. .

Question 5.
Explain the composition of “Three Estates of France”.
Answer:
The Estates-General consisted of the representatives of three classes or estates as they were called. They were

• clergy (men and women ordained for religious duties)
• the nobles
• the commoners (comprising lawyers, rich merchants, bankers and businessmen, and wealthy land-owners).

Question 6.
Sketch the role of Lafayette in the French Revolution.
Answer:
Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at Yorktown in 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard as its Commander. He penned the Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen, with the help . of Jefferson, which the National Assembly adopted on August 27, 1789.

Question 7.
What was the background for the storming of Bastille Prison?
Answer:
The king shut out the commoners and the latter assembled in the Tennis-Court and took an oath that they would not disperse until they found a way out to their problems. The King tried to use force but his own soldiers refused to obey his orders. Louis then intrigued to get foreign regiments to shoot down his own people. This provoked the people to rise in revolt in Paris on 14 July 1789. They stormed the Bastille prison and set free all the prisoners.

Question 8.
What were the taxes the peasants had to pay in France on the eve of the Revolution?
Answer:

1. The common people paid one-tenth of the annual produce or earnings.
2. The peasants paid taxes to the state such as Taille (land tax), Gabelle (salt tax), etc., and provided free labour (corvee) for the construction of public roads.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
“Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence – Explain.
Answer:

1. A Series of taxes were imposed on the colonists when the Americans did not have representation in the British Parliament.
2. The Sugar Act of 1764, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act of 1765, and the Stamp Act of 1765 – all their Act were protested by the American Colonists.
3. They called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn.
4. The Townshend Acts of 1767 added fuel to the fire. Merchants of Boston organised a boycott of British Goods.
5. When Townshend Acts were repealed retaining tax, on tea, it led to the incident of the Boston tea party.
6. In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
7. This incident, known as the Boston Tea Party, was done publicly before a largely sympathetic crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.
8. George Washington became the colonist’s Commander-in-chief and the colonists challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will.
9. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Answer:
There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in the eighteenth century. The most famous writer of the time on rationalistic and scientific subjects was Voltaire (1694 – 1778). When imprisoned and banished, he had to live at Femey near Geneva. Voltaire, Montesquieu (1689 – 1755), and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France. Voltaire, was a prolific writer and activist, and was vehement in his criticism of the Church. His most famous work was Candide. His famous quote was: “those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities.” He is said to have once exclaimed, “I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it.”

Another great writer, a contemporary of Voltaire, but younger than him, was Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712 – 1778). His political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves. His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution. He famously said in his book Social Contract, “Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.” He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by – the general will of the people.

Montesquieu (1689 — 1755), who wrote The Persian Letters and The Spirit of the Laws, also defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers: The liberty of the individual would be best protected only in a government where the powers of its three organs, viz., legislature, executive and judiciary were separate. It would put in place the necessary checks and balances to prevent any one organ from assuming more power to itself.

An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by Diderot and Jean d’Alembert. These philosophers and thinkers, as opposed to religious intolerance and political and social privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures do you think are required to overcome the crisis?
Answer:
To avoid Bankruptcy the following steps can be followed:
(i) Maximize the Revenue
(ii) Attend mandatory credit counseling
(iii) Make ongoing payments to creditors
(iv) Attend mandatory financial-management education
(v) Make a Debt Management Plan
(vi) Settle some (or all) of the Debts
(vii) Stay out of Debts

Question 2.
Attempt a comparative study of American W ar of Independence and Indian Independence
Movement.
Answer:
Comparison between the American War of Independence and Indian Independence Movement:
A. Similarities

1. Both the Americans and the Indians gained their freedom by challenging the British Empire with the use of alternating tactics and policies.
2. Both wanted to be free because they were being coerced and restricted.
3. The British Empire had a major influence on the development of Indian and American human societies.
4. Indians boycotted British products in hopes of helping the Indian economy. Similarly, the Americans boycotted British tea and other products to get the attention of the British rule.

B. Differences

1. Indians chose a peaceful way of gaining independence while Americans chose a violent way. The respective paths they chose were greatly influenced by their culture and the time periods they were in.
2. Their leaders and strategies were extremely different.
3. The American colony was actually a colony where the descendants of British people rebelled against Britain, whereas in India the rebellion was by the natives.
4. The United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no external ally.
5. The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory, while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation.
6. The American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms).
7. The Indian Independence Movement took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
Answer:
You can do this assignment under the guidance of your teacher.

The Age of Revolutions Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pioneers in geographical explorations and the founding of colonies were ……………
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish
(b) The English and the Americans
(c) The Greeks and the Romans
(d) The Chinese and the Japanese
Answer:
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish

Question 2.
The …………….. founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
(a) English
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 3.
The seven years of war between Britain and France took place between ……………..
(a) 1753-1760
(b) 1756-1763
(c) 1755-1762
(d) 1757-1764
Answer:
(b) 1756-1763

Question 4.
The …………… prohibited the import of foreign rum.
(a) Quartering Act of 1765
(b) Sugar Act of 1764
(c) Declaratory Act of 1766
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sugar Act of 1764

Question 5.
Merchants of …………… organized boycott of British goods.
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Philadelphia
(d) Boston
Answer:
(d) Boston

Question 6.
The Spirit of Laws and the Persian letters were written by …………..
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Thomas Jefferson
Answer:
(b) Montesquieu

Question 7.
The French revolution exploded in …………….
(a) 1789
(b) 1788
(c) 1786
(d) 1790
Answer:
(a) 1789

Question 8.
The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for ……………. days in France.
(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 46
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 46

Question 9.
The execution of Louis XVI was on …………….
(a) 21^st Jan 1793
(b) 2^nd Sept 1792
(c) 3^rd Sept 1792
(d) 27^th July 1794
Answer:
(a) 21^st Jan 1793

Question 10.
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of …………..
(a) Danton
(b) Robespierre
(c) Napolean
(d) Herbert
Answer:
(b) Robespierre

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ……………. ship had taken a batch of Puritans from Plymouth England to America.
2. Declaration of Independence was drafted by …………
3. …………. was the founder of the Society of Friends.
4. The native Americans were ……………
5. The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at ……………
6. The …………….. Revolution affected the life and society in the whole of Continental Europe.
7. On the eve of the French Revolution, France was going through a period of …………….
8. The middle class and the peasants together formed the …………..
9. The great leader of the French Revolution was …………….
10. The Consulate was abolished by …………….. in France.

Answers:

1. May Flower
2. Thomas Jefferson
3. George Fox
4. Red Indians
5. Philadelphia
6. French
7. Economic crisis
8. Third Estate
9. Danton
10. Napolean Bonaparte

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The American Revolution was the first political Revolution.
(ii) The French Revolution provided inspiration.
(iii) The Portuguese and the Spanish were the pioneers in Geographical explorations.
(iv) Jamestown was the first American colony in America.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American Revolution affected the life and Society in the whole of Continental Europe.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution laid the foundation for Capitalism.
(iii) The French Revolution helped to end the pre-capital feudal past.
(iv) The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Cornwallis was bom into an aristocratic family.
(ii) Cornwallis joined the army in 1757. ‘
(iii) Cornwallis did not have an active career.
(iv) Cornwallis’s military action in the American war of Independence was not worthy.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Dutch founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
Reason (R): The English later changed the name to New York.
(a) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
American War of Independence
(a) Who stated that no thinking man in North America desired Independence?
Answer:
George Washington

(b) Who was the first President of America?
Answer:
George Washington

(c) What were the grievances of the Americans?
Answer:
Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the 88 British Parliament to tax them against their will.

(d) What was their famous battle cry?
Answer:
“No.taxation without representation”.

Question 2.
Second Continental Congress
(a) When did the Second Continental Congress meet?
Answer:
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at Philadelphia.

(b) Who were the prominent members of the Congress?
Answer:
John Adams, Sam Adams, Richard Henry Lee and Thomas Jefferson were the prominent members of the Congress.

(c) What did they do?
Answer:
They organized the army gathered around Boston as the Continental Army.

(d) Under whose command it was placed?
Answer:
They placed it under the command of George Washington.

Question 3.
Voltaire the French Philosopher
(a) Who was Voltaire?
Answer:
Voltaire was a prolific writer and activist.

(b) What did he criticize?
Answer:
He criticized the Church.

(c) What was his most famous work?
Answer:
His most famous work is ‘Candide’.

(d) What was his famous quote?
Answer:
His famous quote was ‘those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities’. .

Question 4.
The Reign of Terror
(a) Who were the main leaders of the National Convention?
Answer:
Danton, Herbert, and Robespierre were the main leaders of the National Convention.

(b) What was the law of suspects?
Answer:
The Law of Suspects made spreading of false news to divide or instigate the people a punishable crime. ‘

(c) How was the Reign of Terror ended?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre.

(d) How did Robespierre earn notoriety?
Answer:
Though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, he earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on “Plantations and the Slave Labour”.
Answer:
As the Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, the European planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states -Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia- in their search for labour resorted to acquiring slaves from Africa.

The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel and inhuman manner. In the northern States, conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms. Thus two economic systems developed in these colonies. Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back to the west. This was made easier by the disunity and divisions among the Native American tribes.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Native Americans?
Answer:
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called Native Americans (they used to be referred to as ‘Red Indians’; it is now considered demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more), spread over the vast American continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other. Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in numbers today they live in various reserves. :

Question 3.
What was the reaction of the American colonies for the taxes?
Answer:
The American-colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn. This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.

Question 4.
Why was the Townshend Act introduced?
Answer:
The British Parliament however wanted to assert its control over the colonies. In 1766 it passed the Declaratory Act. It affirmed Parliament’s right to legislate for the colonies. There was not much opposition to it as it did not introduce any new taxes. Despite the withdrawal of the Stamp Act, the British still needed money to pay its troops and other expenses in the colonies. Hence, the British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced new duties on imports in 1767. Known as the Townshend Acts, they introduced duties on imports to colonies ‘ such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

Question 5.
Why did the local tea traders boycott the foreign tea?
Answer:
The protests and boycotts made the British Parliament repealed the Townshend Acts. However, it retained the tax on tea, with the intention of encouraging the business of the East India Company by making it easy for it to take its tea to America and sell it there. This harmed the local tea trade and so it was decided to boycott this foreign tea.

Question 6.
Why didn’t the colonies begin fighting for the sake of independence?
Answer:
In 1774, a little before war began between the colonies and England, George Washington stated that no thinking man in North America desired independence. And yet he became the colonists’ commander-in-chief and later the first president of the American Republic. So the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 7.
What were the political reasons for the French Revolution? ‘
Answer:
Louis XV succeeded his great-grandfather Louis XlV and reigned for fifty nine years. He learned no lesson that the king is not above law but bound by law from the English Revolution and the beheading of King Charles I. In 1774 he was succeeded by his grandson Louis XVI.

He was entirely under the influence of his wife Marie Antoinette, who believed, more than the King, in the Divine Right Theory of Kingship – the theory that the king was representative of God on earth and therefore for all his actions he was accountable only to God and not to anybody else. Both the King and the Queen were hated by the people.

Question 8.
How did the Reign of Terror end?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre. Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine. In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the results of American war of Independence.
Answer:
The immediate result of the war was America’s independence. For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonised, leading to the establishment of a republican government in the United States. The colonists wanted to get rid of the feudal inequalities of Europe and they succeeded. For many followers of the Enlightenment in Europe, the language of the Declaration of Independence seemed a living fulfillment of their ideals. The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that “all men are bom equal.” But in reality the poor Black slaves did not fit in this. America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century, to’ abolish slavery.

By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution. These constitutions protected individual rights, freedom of the press, and freedom of religion. The Continental Congress had drafted the Articles of Confederation. The Church and the State were separated. Thomas Jefferson in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom introduced freedom of religion. It was later incorporated into the American Constitution.

The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America. Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French Revolution and the revolutionaries inspired by it were determined to fight against royal absolutism. The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom, including property and political rights.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution had many lasting results. It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France. All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of the clergy was curbed. The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced power of the state. It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle class.

Revolution upheld the theory of people’ sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth of liberal constitutional governments in Europe. Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom-loving people all over the world and inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy in Europe and elsewhere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.2

Question 1.
Without expanding the determinant, prove that
Solution:

Question 2.
Show that
Solution:

Question 3.
Prove that
Solution:
LHS
Taking a from C₁, b from C₂ and c from C₃ we get

Expanding along R₁ we get
(2c) (abc) (1) [ab + ab] = abc (2c) (2ab)
1 = (abc) (4abc) = 4a²b²c²
= RHS

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.
Prove that
Solution:

Question 6.
Show that
Solution:

Question 7.
Write the general form of a 3 × 3 skew-symmetric matrix and prove that its determinant is 0.
Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

we get – (aα² + 2bα + c) [ac – b²]
So Δ = 0 ⇒ (aα² + 2bα + c) (ac -b²) = – 0 = 0
⇒ aα² + 2bα + c = 0 or ac – b² = 0
(i.e.) a is a root of ax² + 2bx + c = 0
or ac = b²
⇒ a, b, c are in G.P.

Question 9.
Prove that
Solution:

Question 10.
If a, b, c are p^th, q^th and r^th terms of an A.P., find the value of
Solution:
We are given a = t_p,b = t_q and c = t_r
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference

Question 11.
Show that is divisible by x⁴
Solution:

Multiplying R₁ by a, R₂ by b and R₃ by c and
taking out a from C₁ b from C₂ and c from C₃ we get
==

Question 12.
If a, b, c are all positive, and are p^th, q^th and r^th terms of a G.P., show that

Solution:

Question 13.
Find the value of if x, y, z ≠ 1.
Solution:
Expanding the determinant along R₁

Question 14.

Solution:

Question 15.
Without expanding, evaluate the following determinants:

Solution:

Question 16.
If A is a square matrix and |A| = 2, find the value of |AA^T|.
Solution:
Given |A| = 2
[Property 1: The determinant of a matrix remains unaltered if its rows are changed into columns and columns. That is, |A| = |A^T|]

|A^T| = |A| = 2
∴ |A A^T| = |A| |A^T|
= 2 × 2 = 4

Question 17.
If A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = -1 and |B| = 3, find the value of |3AB|.
Solution:
Given A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = -1 and |B| = 3
[It A is a square matrix of order n then det ( kA) = |kA| = kⁿ |A|.]
A and B are square matrices of order 3. Therefore,
AB is also a square matrix of order 3.
|3 AB| = 3³ |AB|
= 27 |A| |B|
= 27 × – 1 × 3
|3 AB| = – 81

Question 18.
If λ = -2, determine the value of
Solution:
Given λ = -2
∴ 2λ = -4; λ² = (-2)²; 3λ² + 1 = 3 (4) + 1 = 13
6λ – 1 = 6(-2) – 1 = -13

expanding along R₁
0(0) + 4 (0 + 13) + 1 (-52 + 0) = 52 – 52 = 0
Aliter: The determinant value of a skew-symmetric matrix is zero

Question 19.
Determine the roots of the equation
Solution:

Given the determinant value is 0
⇒ 30(1 + x) (2 – x) = 0
⇒ 1 + x = 0 or 2 – x = 0
⇒ x = -1 or x = 2
So, x = -1 or 2.

Question 20.
Verify that det (AB) = (det A) (det B) for
Solution:


{(-20)(52) (-19) + (10)(38)(—49) + (2)(64)(-17)} – {(-49)(52) (2) + (-17)(38)(-20) + (-19)(64)(10)}
= (19760 – 18620 – 2176) – (-5096 + 12920 – 12160)
= (19760 + 5096 + 12160) – (18620 + 2176 + 12920)
= 37016 – 33716 = 3300 ….(3)
Now (1) × (2) = (3)
(i.e.,) (-33) (-100) = 3300
⇒ det (AB) = (det A), (det B)

Question 21.
Using cofactors of elements of the second row, evaluate |A|, where
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.2 Additional Problems

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Central Government

Central Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is …………..
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a Parliamentary type of-government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Lok Sabha

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Answer:
(c) 25 years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by …………….
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. ………….. Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………….. is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………….. is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the …………. community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ……………. has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………….. years.
7. ………….. is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………….. judges including the Chief Justice.
Answers:
1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General of India
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iv are correct
(d) i, and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) ii and iv are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for( A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer the brief questions.

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President is elected by an electoral college with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The different categories of Ministers at the Union level are –

1. Cabinet Ministers
2. Ministers of States and
3. Deputy Ministers

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a judge of a High court for atleast 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of High Court for atleast 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The office of the Speaker occupies an important position in our Parliamentary democracy. He presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or an ordinary one. The Speaker continues to be in the office even if the Houses dissolved, till a new speaker is elected by the new’ Lok Sabha.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:

1. Money Bill in general covers issue of . receipt and spending of money, borrowing by the Government, tax laws and expenditure of the Government and prevention of Black money etc.
2. Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament (the Lok Sabha) Lower House only.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
(i) The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named as a member, but without a right to vote.

(ii) In the performance of his official duties, Attorney General of India has the right of audience ‘ in all Courts in the territory of India.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
According to Article 53 of the Constitution the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President which shall be exercised by him directly or through subordinates to him in accordance with Constitution.

Powers of the President: Executive power.

1. Article 77 specifies that every executive action of the union shall be taken in the name of the President.
2. He appoints Prime Minister and the other council of minister on the advice of the Prime Minister, distributing Port folios to them .Wide variety of appointments made by him include appointment of Governors of States, the Chief Justice and the other Judges of the Supreme Court and High courts, the Attorney General, the comptroller and Auditor General, the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission, Ambassadors and High commissioners to other countries.
3. He appoints a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes.
4. The President appoints the chiefs of defence forces – Army, Navy and Air Force.

Legislative power:

1. After the General election (Election to the Lok Sabha) and also at the beginning of the first session each year the President inaugurates the session by addressing.
2. The President has to summon the Parliament.
3. All bills passed in the Parliament become “Laws of Acts” only after getting the assent of the President.
4. Money bills cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha without his approval.
5. He has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry term of the House.
6. He nominates 12 persons who are eminent in various fields to Rajya Sabha.
7. He also nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.

Financial Power:

1. Money bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with his approval.
2. Annual Budget is presented in the Parliament in the name of the President.
3. Contingency Fund is at his disposal.
4. He can make advances out of it to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
5. He constitutes a finance commission after every five years for the distribution of revenue between Centre and the State.

Judicial Power:

1. President has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remmission of punishment.
2. He is not answerable to any court of law.
3. But subjected to Impeachment.
4. Military power: President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces.
5. He can declare war against a country or make peace.

Diplomatic powers:

1. The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats.
2. All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into, in the name of the President.
3. Emergency powers: President has empowered by the Parliament to proclaim emergency arose out of war or armed rebellion, Constitution failure in the state and a threat to financial stability.
4. Being the First Citizen of India, he is the Constitutional Head and Nominal head of the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.
(i) Original Jurisdiction: The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

(iii) Advisory Jurisdiction The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance

(iv) The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(v) The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 3.
What are the duties and functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.
The duties and functions of Prime Minister:

1. The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments.
2. He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the cabinet he presides.
3. The Prime Minister is the Head of the Cabinet and the other ministers are his colleagues.
4. The Prime Minister supervises the work of various ministers.
5. He consults informally two or three of his senior colleagues when he does not convene a Cabinet meeting.
6. Prime Minister should inform the affairs of the Union and proposals of legislation, all decisions of the council of ministers connecting to the government.
7. He act as the link between die President and the Council of ministers.
8. He is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
9. As the leader of the nation the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International conferences such as SAARC, Common Wealth and Summit of Non-aligned nations.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. The Parliament is the highest law making body in our country. It makes laws for the entire country.
2. It provides a platform where public grievances are discussed and their solutions are made
3. The Parliament is vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.
4. The Parliament exercises control over the executive by asking questions and supplementary questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing censure motion or vote of no-confidence.
5. It has the power to change the boundaries of the States.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of the Lok Sabha:

1. Any bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha (including Money bill)
2. It has the power in passing any bill for Constitutional Amendment.
3. Lok Sabha member have the power to elect the President and the Vice President.
4. It can participate in case of impeachment of the President and the judges of the Supreme Court.
5. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and the other council of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of Rajya Sabha:

1. Any bill (except the money bill) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha to get passed.
2. If the bill is not approved for more than six months then President calls for a joint session of both the houses to resolve the dead lock.
3. It has the same power like Lok Sabha for passing any bills for Constitutional Amendment.
4. Together with the members of Lok Sabha and all the State Legislative Assemblies they elect the President and Vice President.
5. It has the power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.
6. Rajya Sabha can also create or abolish an All India service, and has the power to make a state list subject into National importance with two third majority to support it.

Central Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Council of Ministers is headed by the ……………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister

Question 2.
Our country has …………….. system of government.
(a) Aristocratic
(b) Monarchial
(c) Parliamentary
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(c) Parliamentary

Question 3.
Which are the two states of India where the President’s rule was imposed for maximum number of times?
(a) Kerala and Maharashtra
(b) Kerala and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Goa and Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Kerala and Punjab

Question 4.
The President of India resides at …………….. in New Delhi.
(a) Raj Bhavan
(b) Sastri Bhavan
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
(d) Vignyan Bhavan
Answer:
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan

Question 5.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of ……………
(a) Six years
(b) Five Years
(c) Four Years
(d) Seven years
Answer:
(a) Six years

Question 6.
The …………….. occupies the second highest office in the country.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Cabinet Minister
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Question 7.
Oath of the President is administered by ……………
(a) Vice President
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
(c) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(c) Chief Justice of India

Question 8.
The leader of the majority party in the …………….. is appointed by the President as the Prime Minister.
(a) Committee
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Cabinet
Answer:
(c) Lok Sabha

Question 9.
Judges of Supreme Court is appointed by ……………
(a) Lok Sabha Speaker
(b) Vice President
(c) President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 10.
The first Prime Minister of India was ……………..
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Thiru. Lai Bahadur Sastri
(c) Mrs Indira Gandhi
(d) Thiru Narendra Modi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the ………….. before the expiry of its term on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. The Rajya Sabha does not have any power to amend or reject the …………… Bill.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Prime Minister and the Ministers are determined by the ………………
4. The Supreme Court is the final ……………. court in the country.
5. The ………….. of India is the highest law officer in the country.
6. A joint meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is presided by ……………
7. The annual financial statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by ……………
8. The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is called ……………….
9. The …………. is a permanent House and it can not be dissolved.
10. Presently the Lok Sabha consists of ………… members.
11. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the …………..
12. …………. is the third organ of the Government.
13. The ………….. is the final appellate court in the country.
14. There are ………….. different levels of court in our country.
15. President of India is elected by elected members of …………., ………….. and ………….
Answer:
1. President
2. Money
3. Parliament
4. Appellate
5. Attorney General
6. Speaker of Lok Sabha
7. President
8. The Lok Sabha
9. Rajya Sabha
10. 545 Members
11. Speaker
12. Judiciary
13. Supreme Court
14. Three
15. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The power of the judiciary to declare a law as unconstitutional is known as judicial review.
(ii) Our Constitution provides for a democratic form of Government.
(iii) All Bills passed by the Parliament become “Law of Acts” only after getting the assent of the President.
(iv) The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court as the Prime Minister
(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) i, ii and iii are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Lok Sabha is the popular House of the Indian Parliament and contains elected representatives of the people.
(ii) At present, the Lok Sabha consists of 547 Members.
(iii) The Lok sabha is a permanent House and it cannot be dissolved.
(iv) The Lok Sabha can only introduce Money Bill
(a) i and ii are correct
(b) i, ii and iv are correct
(c) ii, iii and iv are correct
(d) i, and iv are correct
Answer:
(d) i, and iv are correct

IV. Match the following.

A.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

B.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (c)

C.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

V. True or False.

1. The Constitution of Independent India adopted the principle of Universal Adult Franchise.
2. The opposition parties play no role in the functioning of a Government.
3. Not a single seat is reserved in the Parliament for SCs and STs.
4. The total membership of the Lok Sabha is 500.
5. When the Parliament is in session, it begins with a question hour.
6. The Supreme Court is presided over by the Chief Justice of India.
7. Poor people can approach only the lower courts.
8. The judiciary acts as per the wishes of the Government.
9. The public interest litigation plays an important role in facilitating justice to all.
10. The civil cases usually begin with the lodging of a First Information Report (FIR) with
police who investigate the crime after which a case is filed in the court.
Answers:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What does the Electoral College consist of?
Answer:
The Electoral College consists of the elected members of both the houses of the Parliament, the elected members of the states and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. It means that it cannot be dissolved. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. One third of its members retire every two years and new members are elecied to till the seats. The Vice – President of India is the Ex- officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Our Parliament is a “Bicameral Legislature”. How?
Answer:
If any legislature has two Houses the Upper House and the Lower House it is said to be Bicameral Legislature. Since our Parliament has two Houses namely Lok Sabha (House of the elected people) and the Rajya Sabha (House of the States) it is termed as “Bicameral Legislature”

Question 4.
What is the qualification of Attorney General of India?
(OR)
Who can be appointed as the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
One who wants to become the Attorney General of India must

1. be a citizen of India
2. have been a judge of some High Court for five years or an advocate of some High Court for 10 years or eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.

Question 5.
How the members of Lok Sabha are elected?
Answer:

1. The members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people of the Constituencies on the basis of population.
2. Universal Adult Franchise is followed while electing the members of the Lok Sabha.
3. All Indian citizens above 18 years of age who are registered as voters will vote for their representatives.

Question 6.
What is Parliament?
Answer:
The Legislature is known as the Parliament. It consists of two houses, namely Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Question 7.
What does the Collegium consist of?
Answer:

1. Collegium consists of four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court and 3 members of concerned High court with Chief Justice as Head.
2. The appointment and transfer of the judges in Supreme Court and high courts is taken by Collegium.

Question 8.
How is the Vice-President of India elected?
Answer:
The Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country. He is not elected directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the member of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 9.
What are the three sessions of the Parliament?
Answer:
Parliament sessions should be held at least twice in a year.
The three sessions of the Parliament

1. Budget session – From February to May
2. Monsoon Session – From July to September
3. Winter session – From November to December.

Question 10.
Name the different Parliament Sessions.
Answer:

1. Budget Session from February to May
2. Monsoon Session from July to September
3. Winter Session from November to December

Question 11.
What do you mean by integrated Judiciary?
Answer:
An integrated Judiciary means a single judicial hierarchy for the whole country.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the executive?
Answer:
An executive is a group of people who work together to implement the laws made by Parliament.

Question 13.
Who is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 14.
Name the ministries which are housed in the North Block.
Answer:
The ministries in the housed in the North Block are The Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Question 15.
Who nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President of India nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe briefly the different categories of the ministers at the Union level.
Answer:
The ministers at the Union level are classified under three ranks:
(i) Cabinet Ministers:- The Cabinet is an informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration. All the important decisions of the Government are taken by the Cabinet, such as defence, finance, external affairs and home. The Cabinet recommends to the President to promulgate an ordinance. It is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution. These Finance Bills have their origin in the Cabinet and they are introduced in Lok Sabha with the President’s recommendations.

(ii) Ministers of State:- These ministers belong to the second category of ministers in the council. They are also in charge of ministries or departments but they do not participate in the meetings of the Cabinet unless invited to do so.

(iii) Deputy Ministers:- They are the lowest-ranked ministers in the Cabinet. They assist either the ministers of Cabinet or State in the performance of the duties entrusted to them.

Question 2.
How the Vice President elected? What are the qualification needed to elect as Vice President?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed the age of thirty five years.
3. He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or Local government.
4. He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha. Election and term of-the Vice-President is five years. His office may terminate earlier than the fixed term either by resignation, death or by removal.
5. He is eligible for re-election.
6. The Constitution does not provide a mechanism of succession to the office of the Vice President.
7. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can perform the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the vice president).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 State and Society in Medieval India

State and Society in Medieval India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
(a) Dauladabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Bidar
Answer:
(a) Dauladabad

Question 2.
The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by ………………
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Malik Kaffir
Answer:
(c) Aurangzeb

Question 3.
The establishment of ……………… empire changed the administrative and institutional structures of South India.
(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Mughal
(d) Nayak
Answer:
(b) Vijayanagar

Question 4.
Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of …………………
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Aihole
Answer:
(d) Aihole

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous . development in the history of South India.
(ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
(iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
(iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia.
Answer:
(i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
(ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu-speaking people from Madurai.
(iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
(iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves.
Answer:
(i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Mythical geneologies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
(ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
(iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
(iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa.
Answer:
(i) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the east to Africa in the west.
Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A
(b) (ii) A is wrong; R is correct
(c) (iii) A and R are wrong
(d) (iv) A is correct; R does not explains about A.
Answer:
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A

Question 5.
(i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
(ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva asNataraja performing the cosmic dance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India.
2. The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated the Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the battle of ……………
3. Vijayanagara evolved as a ………………
4. The tempo of urbanization increased during ……………… period.
5. ……………… was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.

Answers:

1. Portuguese
2. Talikota
3. Militaristic State
4. Vijayanagar
5. The Chola period

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The arrival of the Europeans
(a) Who controlled the spice trade from India?
Answer:
Muslims controlled the Spice trade from India.

(b) What enabled the Portuguese to have control over maritime trade over the entire region?
Answer:
The Naval superiority enabled the Portuguese to have control over the Maritime trade over the entire region.

(c) How were the trading activities of the Europeans carried on in India?
Answer:
The trading activities of the Europeans carried on through the respective East India Companies in India. ‘

(d) Mention the enclaves of the Dutch, the English, the French, and the Danes in India.
Answer:

• The Dutch were in Pulicat (and later Nagapatnam)
• The English in Madras
• The French in Pondicherry and
• The Danes in Tarangampadi (Tranquebar).

Question 2.
Society, Religion and Culture.
(а) Which is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society?
Answer:
Caste is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society.

(b) What is a guild?
Answer:
The occupational caste groups are referred to as guilds.

(c) Mention some Saivite movements.
Answer:
Saiva Siddhanta in TamilNadu
Virasaivas in Karnataka
Varkarisampradaya in Maharashtra.

(d) Name the court musician of Akbar.
Answer:
Tansen was the court musician of Akbar.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write about the military expeditions of Malik Kafur.
Answer:

1. Malik Kafur was the commander of Alauddin’s forces.
2. He defeated the Mongols in 1306.
3. He led a series of expeditions in the southern part of India against the Yadavas (1308), Kakatiyas (1310), the Hoysalas (1311), and the Pandyas (1311).
4. During these campaigns, he obtained a large number of treasures elephants and horses for the Delhi sultanate.

Question 2.
Who founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom? Mention the dynasties that ruled over the kingdom.
Answer:
Harihara and Bukka, two brothers founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom.
Sangama Dynasty, Saluva Dynasty and Tuluva Dynasties ruled over the Kingdom.

Question 3.
Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
Answer:

1. India had two natural advantages in cotton weaving.
2. The first was that cotton grew in almost all parts of India so that the basic raw material was easily available.
3. Second, the technology of producing a permanent colour on cotton using vegetable dyes was known from very early times in India.

Question 4.
What were the factors which facilitated urbanization?
Answer:

1. It has been observed that cities and towns fulfilled diverse and overlapping roles in the economy.
2. The large cities were centres of manufacturing and marketing, banking and financial services.
3. They were usually located at the intersection of an extensive network of roads which connected them to other parts of the country.
4. Smaller towns were marketing centres in local trade connecting the immediate rural hinterland.
5. Cities also served as political and administrative centres, both in the capital region (for instance, Agra and Delhi) and in the provinces.

Question 5.
What is sericulture?
Answer:

1. Sericulture means silk production by breeding the mulberry silkworm.
2. It was introduced in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries.
3. By the seventeenth century, Bengal had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the political changes during 1526-1707 A.D. (C.E.).
Answer:
(i) The Mughal empire was founded by Babur in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) after he defeated Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat.

(ii) The first six Mughal emperors are referred to as the ‘Great Mughals’. Aurangzeb was the last of the great Mughals.

(iii) Akbar consolidated the Mughal empire through conquests and through a policy of conciliation with the Religious based kingdoms of Rajasthan.

(iv) The Mughal empire began to disintegrate after Aurangzeb, continued to exist nominally till 1857 A.D. (C.E.) when the British finally ended the virtually non-existent empire.

(v) A new power centre rose in Maharashtra in the seventeenth century, and the Marathas
under the leadership of Shivaji seriously undermined the authority of the Mughals in western India.

(vi) At its height, the empire stretched over most of the Indian sub-continent.

(vii) Only the south-western region of Kerala and southern Tamilnadu were not directly under the Mughal rule.

Question 2.
Explain the commercial developments in Medieval India.
Answer:

1. India had an extensive network of trade for marketing the goods.
2. All these kinds of markets co-existed in India on an “ascending scale in the overlapping circuits of exchange”.
3. Big cities were usually major commercial centres, with bazaars and shops.
4. Small ships and boats were used in coastal trade along the western and eastern coasts of the country.
5. Maritime trade across the Indian Ocean, extending from China in the east, to Africa in the west, had flourished for many centuries.
6. Ports like Malacca, Calicut, etc. were ‘entrepots’.
7. In the seventeenth century, Surat in Gujarat, Masulipatnam in the Golkonda kingdom, Chittagong in Bengal, Pulicat, and Nagapatnam on the Coromandel Coast, and Calicut in Kerala were all major ports in Asiatic trade.
8. India exported textiles, pepper, precious and semi-precious stones. its iron and steel were in great demand in the entires Asian regional.
9. It imported from China silk, ceramics, gold, spices, aromatic woods and camphor, silk, Drugs, dye, woods and sugar were imported from Persia.
10. Bankers and money changers operated in all the big cities, and bills of exchange or hundis were used to transfer money from one city to another
11. The European trading companies entered into contracts with the local merchants to carry on their trading activities.
12. But this scenario changed in the eighteenth century. The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.

Question 3.
“Chola Period was an enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu” – Elucidate.
Answer:
(i) The CHOLA PERIOD was an enterprising period when trade and the economy expanded, accompanied by urbanization.

(ii) The administrative machinery was re-organized during the Chola rule.

(iii) The basic unit of local administration was the village (ur), followed by the sub-region (Nadu) and district (kottam). Tax-free villages granted to Brahmins were known as brahmadeya. Marketing centres and towns were known as nagara.

(iv) The ur, nadu, brahmadeya and nagaram each had its own assembly.

(v) They were responsible for the maintenance and management of the water resources and land; the local temples; resolving local issues and disputes; and collecting the taxes due to the government.

(vi) While the Chola state did not intervene in this fundamental system of local administration, they introduced innovations in revenue administration by creating new revenue divisions (mandalam and valanadu). Several new taxes on agriculture and commerce were also introduced.

(vii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples. This had two dimensions: new temples were constructed, and existing temples became multi-functional social and economic institutions.

(viii) The construction of great temples also was a reflection of the growing prosperity in the kingdom, since the activity involved great expenditure.

Student Activities

Question 1.
On the outline map of India mark the important places of medieval India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas.
Answer:
You can collect the pictures of the architectural importance of the Cholas and paste them into the Album.

IX Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia.
Answer:
You can collect pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia. You can do this as Home Assignment.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the class on the advantages and disadvantages of urbanization.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a debate on the advantages and disadvantages of Urbanization.

State and Society in Medieval India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by …………..
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(a) Muhammad Ghori

Question 2.
……………… was sent on military expeditions further south in the first decade of the 1300 AD.
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(c) Malik Kafur
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Malik Kafur

Question 3.
Maritime trade with South East Asia and China expanded greatly during the ………….. period.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
The last of the great Mughal was …………….
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(d) Aurangazeb

Question 5.
…………… period was an enterprising period.
(a) The Chola
(b) The Chera
(c) The Pandya
(d) The Pallava
Answer:
(a) The Chola

Question 6.
The most distinctive aspect of Indian society is ……………….
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Culture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Caste

Question 7.
…………….. is a pilgrimage centre.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Varanasi
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Varanasi

Question 8.
………….. was introduced in the 14th century.
(a) Sericulture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sericulture

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Mughal era from the 15th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.
(ii) Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century.
(iii) Arab Muslims had been trading in the ports of the west coast.
(iv) The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Malik Kafur.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Europeans were pre-occupied with trying a find a direct sea route to India.
(ii) The spice trade from India was controlled by Muslims.
(iii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples.
(iv) The Chola period was an enterprising period.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Textiles accounted for nearly 90% of the total exports from India.
(ii) Ainnurruvar had its headquarters in Aihole.
(iii) Coromandel merchants operated from the Persian Gulf and Red sea.
(iv) The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans.
Answer:
(ii) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Sikhism was founded by Guru Nanak.
Reason (R): He lived during 15th and 16th centuries.
(a) A is correct R explains about A
(b) A is the wrong R is correct
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R does not explain about A

Question 5.
(i) India was predominantly an agricultural country.
(ii) A very large population lived in Rural areas and depends on agriculture.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (c)
7. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Mughal era from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the …………….
2. The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of ……………
3. Maritime trade with South-east Asia and China expanded greatly during the …………….
4. The last known Chola emperor was ………………
5. The Mughal empire was founded by ……………. in 1526 A.D.
6. In 1498 A.D Vasco da Gama landed on the …………… coast.
7. The …………….. empire transformed the economy and society of North India.
8. ……………. took roots when the Portuguese arrived in Kerala and set themselves up in Goa.
9. In ……………. India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.
10. …………… had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

Answers:

1. early modem period
2. Alauddin Khalji
3. Chola period
4. Rajendra
5. Babur
6. Kerala
7. Mughal
8. Christianity
9. South
10. Bengal

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The Advent of Islam.
(a) When was Muslim rule established in Delhi? By whom?
Answer:
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by Muhammad Ghori.

(b) Who was trading in the ports of the west coast?
Answer:
Arab Muslim merchants had been trading in the ports of the west coast especially Kerala.

(c) When was the impact of Muslim rule felt?
Answer:
The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Alauddin Khalji.

(d) What was his primary objective?
Answer:
His primary objective was to plunder the wealth, rather than to expand his territory.

Question 2.
The Chola empire in the south.
(a) Who began the territorial expansion?
Answer:
The territorial expansion of the Chola empire began under Rajaraj a I.

(b) What do you know about Rajendra I?
Answer:
The Chola empire expanded further under Rajendra I.
He had successfully taken his armies as far to the northeast up to the river Ganges.

(c) In whose period Maritime trade expanded?
Answer:
Maritime trade expanded with South-east Asia and China greatly during the Chola period.

(d) Against whom did the Naval expeditions sent?
Answer:
The Naval expeditions had been sent against the Sailendra Kingdom of Sri Vijaya, Kadarand, and Ceylon.

(e) What did he earn from this war?
Answer:
This war earned him the title of “the Chola who had conquered the Ganga and Kadaram”.

Question 3.
Urbanization in South India.
(a) Comment on South Indian temples.
Answer:
In South India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.

(b) How were the temples?
Answer:
Temples were large economic enterprises requiring a variety of goods and services to function.

(c) In whose period did the pace of urbanization increase?
Answer:
The pace of urbanization increased during the Vijayanagar period.

(d) How were the Urban centres?
Answer:
Most Urban centres displayed rural characteristics.
For instance, it was not uncommon to find fields with crops within the city.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did the historian ‘Burton Stein describe the different periods of Indian History?
Answer:
The historian Burton Stein, uses the term ‘classical’ to describe the period up to the Gupta empire and dates the ‘medieval’ period from the 7th century A.D.(CE) till the beginning of Mughal rule in the 16th century. The Mughal era, from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.

Question 2.
Who brought out the isolated southern parts into the orbit of the rulers of the North?
Answer:
The Tughlaq kings who came after Alauddin also sent their armies to the south. As a result, the generally more isolated southern part of the country came into the orbit of the rulers of the north. Governors were appointed in various provinces in the Deccan region, and a Sultanate was even established in Madurai.

Question 3.
Mention the five Sultanates who came up in Deccan in the 15th century.
Answer:
By the end of the fifteenth century, five sultanates came up in the Deccan: Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahftiednagar, Berar and Bidar. Bijapur and Golkonda were the largest of these sultanates and the region entered a phase of considerable economic growth and expansion of trade.

Question 4.
How did the Vijayanagar empire wither away?
Answer:

• The rulers of Vijayanagar were almost continuously at war with the Bahmani sultanate as well as with the religion-based kingdoms of Kondavidu and Orissa.
• Finally, the combined forces of the five Deccani Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the Battle of Talikota.
• The Vijayanagar emperors then shifted their capital further south to Penugonda, and eventually to Chandragiri near Tirupati.
• The empire (or what remained of it) finally withered away in the middle of the seventeenth century.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Islamic rule on Indian society?
Answer:
The establishment of Islamic Rule in Delhi made a big impact on Indian society. Initially, Islam did not cause any social tension. Arab merchants, for instance, when they came and settled on the Kerala coast, married local women and led a peaceful life. The situation changed when Islam became a state power. For a medieval ruler one way of asserting imperial authority was to demolish the place of worship of the enemies. Otherwise, Islam as a monotheistic religion had a positive impact on Indian society. It played a decisive role in the evolution of a composite culture.

Question 6.
Why did the Europeans come to India?
Answer:
The Europeans came to India primarily in search of spices. But soon there was an explosion in the demand for Indian textiles in the European markets, often referred to as the ‘Indian craze’. This led to a significant expansion of textile production in India, which was accompanied by an expansion of the production of commercial crops like cotton and indigo, and other dyes.

Question 7.
Give an account of genealogies collected by Colin Mackenzie.
Answer:
(i) Caste groups often petitioned the local ruler for permission to use various symbols of higher status, like the right to wear footwear, the right to carry umbrellas, the right to use certain decorations at funerals, and so on.

(ii) Each caste also created a mythical genealogy to establish its origins; this was used to justify the claim for the right to a higher status in the hierarchy.

(iii) These genealogies are found in many of the manuscripts collected by Colin Mackenzie.

Question 8.
Write a short note on the literary works of the Chola period.
Answer:

• The Chola period was an era of remarkable cultural activity. These were the centuries when major literary works were written.
• The best known classical poet, Kamban, wrote Ramayana in Tamil which was formally
  presented (Arangetram) in the temple at Srirangam. Sekkilar’s Periyapuranam similarly was presented at the temple in Chidambaram.
• Among the other great works of the period are Kalingattup-parani and Muvarula.
• It was also a period when great religio-philosophical treatises like the Sankara-bhashyam and Sri-bhashyam were produced.

Question 9.
Explain the Art and Architecture of the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were well-known for their aesthetic values and were great patrons of the arts. They left behind numerous monuments, in addition to constructing entire cities like Shahjahanabad (Delhi) and Fatehpur Sikri, gardens, mosques and forts. Decorative arts – especially jewellery set with precious and semi-precious gems for items of personal use – flourished under the patronage of the royal household and urban elites. The art of painting also flourished in the Mughal period. Primarily known as Mughal miniatures, they were generally intended as book illustrations or were single works to be kept in albums.

Question 10.
What happened in the business scenario in the beginning of the 18th century in India?
Answer:

• The Indian merchants benefitted from the business opportunities offered by the European companies. .
• But this scenario began to change from the beginning of the eighteenth century.
• The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.
• But by then the local resources were not enough to produce the quantities required and political disturbances also disrupted all economic activity.
• This resulted in most merchants being bankrupted diminishing the economic vitality of the merchant community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the major political changes.
Answer:
(i) The expansion of the Chola empire from the time of Rajaraja which eclipsed the Pandyan and Pallava kingdoms, extending north till Orissa.

(ii) From the twelfth century, the beginning of several centuries of Muslim rule in Delhi, extending throughout North India and the spread of Islam to different parts of the country.

(iii) By the end of the 13th century the eclipse of the great empire of the Cholas and the consequent rise of many religious kingdoms in South India. This ultimately culminated in the rise of the Vijayanagar empire which exercised authority over all of South India and came to be considered the bastion of religious rule in the south.

(iv) The consolidation of Muslim rule under the Mughals in the north, beginning in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) with the defeat of the Ibrahim Lodi by Babur. At its height, the Mughal empire stretched from Kabul to Gujarat to Bengal, from Kashmir to South India.

(v) The coming of the Europeans, beginning with the Portuguese who arrived on the west coast of India in 1498.

Question 2.
Explain the important feature of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
An important feature of Indian agriculture was the large number of crops that were cultivated. The peasant in India was more knowledgeable about many crops as compared to peasants in most of the world at the time. A variety of food grains like wheat, rice, and millets were grown apart from lentils and oilseeds. Many other commercial crops were also grown such as sugarcane, cotton, and indigo. Other than the general food crops, south India had a regional specialization in pepper, cinnamon, spices, and coconut.

In general, two different crops were grown in different seasons, which protected the productivity of the soil. Maize and tobacco were two new crops which were introduced after the arrival of the Europeans. Many new varieties of fruit or horticultural crops like papaya, pineapple, guava, and cashew nut were also introduced which came from the west, especially America. Potatoes, chilies, and tomatoes also became an integral part of Indian food.