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Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 2 Number Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU?
(a) Byte
(b) Nibble
(c) Word length
(d) Bit
Answer:
(c) Word length

Question 2.
How many bytes does 1 KiloByte contain?
(a) 1000
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 1024
Answer:
(d) 1024

Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII:
(a) American School Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 4.
2^50 is referred as:
(a) kilo
(b) tera
(c) peta
(d) zetta
Answer:
(c) peta

Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(a) 64

Question 6.
For 11012 what is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
Answer:
(c) D

Question 7.
What is the 1 ’s complement of 00100110?
(a) 00100110
(b) 11011001
(c) 11010001
(d) 00101001
Answer:
(b) 11011001

Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
(a) 645
(b) 234
(c) 876
(d) 123
Answer:
(c) 876

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is data?
Answer:
The term data comes from the word datum, which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places or some objects.
Eg: Let ‘Name’, ‘Age’, ‘Class’, ‘Marks’ and ‘Subject’ be some defined variables. Now, let us assign a value to each of these variables.
Name = Rajesh
Age = 16
Class = XI
Mark – 65
Subject = Computer Science
In the above example, the values assigned to the five different variables are called data.

Question 2.
Write the l’s complement procedure?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Convert given Decimal number into Binary
2. Step 2: Check if the binary number contains 8 bits, if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
3. Step 3: Invert all bits (i.e. Change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)

Question 3.
Convert (46)₁₀ into Binary number?

Question 4.
We cannot find 1’s complement for (28)10. State reason?
Answer:
1’s complement representation is an easier approach to represent signed numbers. This is for negative numbers only. This (28)10 this whole numbers cannot be determined by negative number because the number whose MSB is 1.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters immemory?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are

1. BCD: Binary Coded Decimal.
2. EBCDIC: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code.
3. ASCII: American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
4. Unicode
5. ISCII: Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example?
Answer:
A numbering system is a way of representing numbers. The most commonly used numbering system in real life is Decimal number system. Other number systems are Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal number system. Each number system is uniquely identified by its base value or radix. Radix or base is the count of number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind positional numbering system.
Eg: (123)₁₀, (547)_g, (1001)₂, (25)₁₆.

Question 2.
Write note on binary number system?
Answer:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Eg: The binary sequence (1101)₂ has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)₂ = 1 × 2³+ 1 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 8 + 4 + 0+ 1 = (13)₁₀

Question 3.
Convert (150)₁₀ into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal?
Binary number:

Binary number to octal:

Question 4.
Write short note on ISCII?
Answer:
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (2s) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

Question 5.
Add:
(i)-22₁₀+15₁₀
(ii) 20₁₀+ 25₁₀
Answer:
(i) -22 +15
The binary equivalent of 22 is 00010110

The binary equivalent of 15 is 1111.
Binary addition of -22 and +15

(ii) 20 + 25
Binary number for 20 = 00010100
Binary number or 25 = 00011001

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
(a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
(b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary.
Answer:
(a) The method of repeated multiplication by 2 has to be used to convert such kind of decimal fractions.
The steps involved in the method of repeated multiplication by 2:

Step 1: Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either 0 or 1.
Step 2: Discard, the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2 Repeat Step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3: The resulting integer part forms a sequence of Os and Is that become the binary equivalent of decimal fraction.
Step 4: The final answer is to be written from first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.


(98.46)₁₀ = (1100010.011101011…..)₂

Question 2.
Find 1’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number:
(a) – 98
(b) -135
(a) – 98
First convert given decimal number into binary:

Binary number = 1100010
Binary number = 1100010
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 as the left most bit, 01100010
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1’s complement for 10011101.

2’s complement:

(b) – 135
First convert gives decimal number into Binary.

Binary number = 10000111
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 at the left most bit. It has 8 bits, 10000111.
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1 ’s complement for 01111000.
2’s complement:

2’s complement of – 135 – 01111001

Question 3.
(a) Add 1101010₂+ 101101₂
(b) Subtract 1101011₂ – 1110102₂
Answer:
(a) 1101010₂ + 101101₂

1101010₂ + 101101₂ = 10010111₂

(b) 1101011₂ – 111010₂

1101011₂ – 111010₂ = 110001₂

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A bit is the short form of:
(a) binary data
(b) binary digit
(c) binary decimal
(d) big digit
Answer:
(b) binary digit

Question 2.
A ……………………… is a collection of 4 bits.
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) nibble
(d) word length
Answer:
(c) nibble

Question 3.
A collection of 8 bits is called:
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) nibble
Answer:
(b) byte

Question 4.
2^40 is referred as:
(a) mega
(b) giga
(c) peta
(d) tera
Answer:
(d) tera

Question 5.
2^70 is referred as:
(a) peta
(b) exa
(c) zetta
(d) yotta
Answer:
(c) zetta

Question 6.
1024 GB is referred as:
(a) kilo byte
(b) mega byte
(c) giga byte
(d) tera byte
Answer:
(d) tera byte

Question 7.
……………………. are used to represent characters in a text.
(a) Bits
(b) Bytes
(c) Nibble
(d) Wordlength
Answer:
(b) Bytes

Question 8.
The ASCII value for blank space is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(a) 32

Question 9.
The ASCII value for numeric 0 is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 48

Question 10.
Each number system is uniquely identified by its:
(a) decimal value
(b) binary value
(c) base value or radix
(d) octal value
Answer:
(c) base value or radix

Question 11.
The range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 98 to 122
(d) 97 to 123
Answer:
(a) 97 to 122

Question 12.
The range of ASCII values for upper case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 66 to 90
(d) 65 to 97
Answer:
(b) 65 to 90

Question 13.
The expansion of MSB is:
(a) most significant bit
(b) most signed bit
(c) must significant bit
(d) must signed bit
Answer:
(a) most significant bit

Question 14.
The expansion of LSB is:
(a) lower significant bit
(b) least significant bit
(c) lower signed bit
(d) least signed bit
Answer:
(b) least significant bit

Question 15.
Radix of octal number is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 16.
The binary sequence (1101 )2 has the decimal equivalent:
(a) (25)₁₀
(b) ( 15)₁₀
(c) (17)₁₀
(d) (13)₁₀
Answer:
(d) (13)₁₀

Question 17.
In hexadecimal C represents:
(a) 11
(b) 0
(c) 12
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 18.
The simplest method to represent negative binary numbers is called:
(a) signed magnitude
(b) unsigned magnitude
(c) magnitude bit
(d) unmagnitude bit
Answer:
(a) signed magnitude

Question 19.
EBDIC coding system can handle …………………….. characters.
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(c) 256

Question 20.
The most commonly used coding scheme is the:
(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(c) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define word length?
Answer:
Word length refers to the number of bits processed by a Computer’s CPU. For example, a word length can have 8 bits, 16 bits, 32 bits and 64 bits (Present day Computers use 32 bits or 64 bits).

Question 2.
Define byte?
Answer:
A collection of 8 bits is called Byte. A byte is considered as the basic unit of measuring the memory size in the computer.

Question 3.
What is a bit?
Answer:
A bit is the short form of Binary digit which can be ‘0’ or ‘1’. It is the basic unit of data in computers.

Question 4.
What is Decimal Number System?
Answer:
It consists of 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 (10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day-to-day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.

Question 5.
What is meant by Octal Number System?
Answer:
Octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.

Question 6.
Convert (547)₈ to its decimal equivalent?
Answer:
The Octal sequence (547)g has the decimal equivalent:
(547)₈ = 5 × 8² + 4 × 8¹ + 7 × 8⁰
= 5 × 64 + 4 × 8 + 7 × 1
= 320 + 32 + 7 – (359)₁₀

Question 7.
Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent binary number?
Answer:

Question 8.
How will you convert decimal to octal? Give example?
Answer:
To convert Decimal to Octal, “Repeated Division by 8” method can be used. In this method, we have to divide the given number by 8.
Eg: Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent Octal Number.

Question 9.
Write octal numbers and their binary equivalent?
Answer:

Question 10.
Convert (11010110)₂ into octal equivalent?
Answer:

Question 11.
Convert the following binary numbers to decimal
(i) 11101
(ii) 1011010
Answer:

(11101)₂ = (29)₁₀

(ii) 1011010

(1011010)₂ = (90)₁₀

Question 12.
Convert (3EF)₁₆ to decimal?
Answer:

(3EF)₁₆ = (1007)₁₀

Question 13.
Convert (111011)₂ into its equivalent decimal number?
Answer:

(111011)₂ = (59)₁₀

Question 14.
In what ways the numbers are represented in computers?
Answer:
The numbers are represented in computers in different ways:

1. Signed Magnitude representation.
2. 1 ’s Complement.
3. 2’s Complement

Question 15.
What is a character set?
Answer:
In general, 26 uppercase letters, 26 lowercase letters, 0 to 9 digits and special characters are used in a computer is called character set. All these character set are denoted through numbers only.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the hierarchy of data representation?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write short note on hexadecimal number system?
Answer:
A hexadecimal number is represented using base 16. Hexadecimal or Hex numbers are used as a shorthand form of binary sequence. This system is used to represent data in a more compact manner. Since 16 symbols are used, 0 to F, the notation is called hexadecimal. The first 10 symbols are the same as in the decimal system, 0 to 9 and the remaining 6 symbols are taken from the first 6 letters of the alphabet sequence, A to F, where A represents 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 13, E is 14 and F is 15.
Eg: The hexadecimal sequence (25)₁₆ has the decimal equivalent:
(25)₁₆ = 2 × 16¹ + 5 × 16⁰
= 32 + 5 = (37)₁₀

Question 3.
Write the steps for binary to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert Binary to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Step 1: Write down the Binary digits and list the powers of 2 from right to left (Positional Notation)
2. Step 2: For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Step 3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Step 4: Add all the values.

Question 4.
How will you convert binary to octal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given binary number into 3 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0 to make a group of 3 bits if the left most group has less than 3 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent octal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (11010110)₂ to its Octal equivalent.

(11010110)₂ = (326)₈

Question 5.
Write the steps for converting binary to hexadecimal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given number into 4 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0’s to make a group of 4 bits if the left most group has less than 4 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent Hexadecimal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (1111010110)₂ to Hexadecimal.

[Note: 0’s are added to the left most group to make it a group of 4 bits]
(1111010110)₂ = (3D6)₁₆

Question 6.
Write the steps for octal to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert octal to decimal, we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left(Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight
4. Add all the values

Eg: Convert (1265)₈ to equivalent Decimal number.

(1265)₈ = 512 × 1 + 64 × 2 + 8 × 6 + 1 × 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)₈ = (693)₁₀

Question 7.
Write the steps for converting hexadecimal to decimal?
Answer:
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Add all the values to get one final value.

Eg: Convert (25F)₁₆ into its equivalent Decimal number.

(25F)₁₆ = 2 × 256 + 5 × 16 + 15 × 1
= 512 + 80 + 15
(25F)₁₆ = (607)₁₀

Question 8.
Write short note on signed magnitude representation?
Answer:
The value of the whole numbers can be determined by the sign used before it. If the number has ‘+’ sign or no sign it will be considered as positive. If the number has ‘-‘ sign it will be considered as negative.
Eg: + 43 or 43 is a positive number,
– 43 is a negative number.
In signed binary representation, the left most bit is considered as sign bit. If this bit is 0, it is a positive number and if it 1, it is a negative number. Therefore a signed binary number has 8 bits, only 7 bits used for storing values (magnitude) and the 1 bit is used for sign.
+ 43 is represented in memory as follows:

– 43 can be represented in memory as follows:

Question 9.
Write 2’s complement procedure with example?
Answer:
The 2’s-complement method for negative number is as follows:

1. Invert all the bits in the binary sequence (i.e., change every 0 tol and every 1 to 0 i.e., 1’s complement)
2. Add 1 to the result to the Least Significant Bit (LSB).

Eg: 2’s Complement represent of (-24)₁₀

Question 10.
Write short note Unicode?
Answer:
This coding system is, used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Give the steps to convert fractional binary to decimal equivalent with example?
Answer:
Step 1: Convert integral part of Binary to Decimal equivalent using positional notation method.
Step 2: To convert the fractional part of binary to its decimal equivalent.
Step 2.1: Write down the Binary digits in the fractional part.
Step 2.2: For all the digits write powers of 2 from left to right starting from 2^-1,2^-22, 2^-3………………… 2^-n, now write the equivalent weight.
Step 2.3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
Step 2.4: Add all the values which you obtained in Step 2.3.

Step 3: To get final answer write the integral part (after conversion), followed by a decimal point(.) and the answer arrived at Step 2.4.
Eg: Convert the given Binary number (11.011)₂ into its decimal equivalent Integer part (11)₂ = 3.

3 + (0 × 0.5 + 1 × 0.25 + 1 × 0.125) = 3. 375
(11.011)₂ = (3.375)₁₀

Question 2.
Explain in detail the different encoding systems used for computer?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are –
(i) Binary Coded Decimal (BCD):
This encoding system is not in the practice right now. This is 26 bit encoding system. This can handle 26 = 64 characters only.

(ii) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII):
This is the most popular encoding system recognized by United States. Most of the computers use this system. Remember this encoding system can handle English characters only. This can handle 27 bit which means 128 characters.

In this system, each character has individual number. The new edition (version) ASCII – 8, has 2⁸ bits and can handle 256 characters are represented from 0 to 255 unique numbers.

The ASCII code equivalent to the uppercase letter ‘ A’ is 65. The binary representation of ASCII (7 bit) value is 1000001. Also 01000001 in ASCII-8 bit.

(iii) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC):
This is similar to ASCII Code with 8 bit representation. This coding system is formulated by International Business Machine(IBM). The coding system can handle 256 characters. The input code in ASCII can be converted to EBCDIC system and vice – versa.

(iv) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII):
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

(v) Unicode:
This coding system is used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Based on the monetary value e payment system can be classified into
(a) Mirco and Macro
(b) Micro and Nano
(c) Maximum and Minimum
(d) Maximum and Macro
Answer:
(a) Mirco and Macro

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a category of micro payment?
(a) Buying a movie ticket
(b) Subscription to e journals
(c) Buying a laptop
(d) Paying for smart phone app
Answer:
(c) Buying a laptop

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Micro electronic payment systems support higher value payments.
Reason (R): Expensive cryptographic operations are included in macro payments
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 4.
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Credit Cards – pay before
(b) Debit Cards – pay now
(c) Stored Value Card – pay later
(d) Smart card – pay anytime
Answer:
(b) Debit Cards – pay now

Question 5.
ECS stands for
(a) Electronic Clearing Services
(b) Electronic Cloning Serivces
(c) Electronic Clearing Station
(d) Electornic Cloning Station
Answer:
(a) Electronic Clearing Services

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a Altcoin
(a) Litecoin
(b) Namecoin
(c) Ethereum
(d) Bitcoin
Answer:
(c) Ethereum

Question 7.
Which of the following is true about Virtual payment address (VPA)
(a) Customers can use their e-mail id as VPA
(b) VPA does not includes numbers
(c) VPA is a unique ID
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA
Answer:
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA

Question 8.
Pick the odd one in the credit card transaction
(a) card holder
(b) merchant
(c) marketing manager
(d) acquirer
Answer:
(c) marketing manager

Question 9.
Which of the following is true about debit card
(i) debit cards cannot be used in ATMs
(ii) debit cards cannot be used in online transactions
(iii) debit cards do not need bank accounts
(iv) debit cards and credit cards are identical in physical properties
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii) alone
(d) (iv) alone
Answer:
(d) (iv) alone

Question 10.
Match the following

Answer:
(b) A1-B2, A2-B1, A3-B3, A4-B4

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define electronic payment system?
Answer:
The term electronic payment refers to a payment made from one bank account to another bank account using electronic methods forgoing the direct intervention of bank employees.

Question 2.
Distinguish micro electronic payment and macro electronic payment?
Answer:
Micro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of small system amount
2. Less Security
3. Eg. Subscriptions of online games

Macro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of higher value
2. Highly Secured
3. Electronic account transfer

Question 3.
List the types of micro electronic payments based on its algorithm?
Answer:

1. Hash chain based micro electronic payment systems.
2. Hash collisions and hash sequences based micro electronic payment systems.
3. Shared secrete keys based micro electronic payment systems.
4. Probability based micro electronic payment systems.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of e-wallet?
Answer:
Electronic wallets (e-wallets) or electronic purses allow users to make electronic transactions quickly and securely over the Internet through smartphones or computers.

Question 5.
What is a fork in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Many cryptocurrencies operate on the basis of the same source code, in which the authors make only a few minor changes in parameters like time, date, distribution of blocks, number of coins, etc. These currencies are called as fork. In fork, both cryptocurrencies can share a common transaction history in block chain until the split.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answers

Question 1.
Define micro electronic payment and its role in E-Commerce?
Answer:

1. It is an on-line payment system designed to allow efficient and frequent payments of small amounts.
2. In order to keep transaction costs very low, the communication and computational costs are minimized here.
3. The security of micro electronic payment systems is comparatively low
4. The majority of micro electronic payment systems were designed to pay for simple goods on the Internet, e.g., subscriptions of online games, read journals, listen to a song or watch a movie online etc.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the credit card and debit card?
Answer:
Credit Card:
A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

Debit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest.

Question 3.
Explain briefly Anatomy of a credit card?
Answer:
Publisher:
Emblem of the issuing bank

Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the stored value card and its types?
Answer:
(i) Closed loop (single purpose):
In closed loop cards, money is metaphorically stored on the card in the form of binary- coded data. e.g. chennai metro rail travel card.

(ii) Open loop (multipurpose):
It is also called as prepaid-debit cards, e.g. Visa gift cards.

Question 5.
Write a note on mining in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Mining:
The cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called mining. The miners not only generate new monetary units, but also initiate new transactions to the blockchain. As a reward, they will receive new Bitcoins.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
What is credit card? Explain the key players of a credit card payment system and bring out the merits of it?
Answer:
Credit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest. Every credit card account has a purchase limit set by the issuing bank or the firm. A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

The term credit card was first mentioned in 1887 in the sci-fi novel “Looking Backward” by Edward Bellamy. The modem credit cards concept was bom in the U.S.A, in the 1920s, when private companies began to issue cards to enable their customers to purchase goods on credit within their own premises.

Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Key players in operations of credit card:
1. Bearer:
The holder of the credit card account who is responsible for payment of invoices in full (transactor) or a portion of the balance (revolver) the rest accrues interest and carried forward.

2. Merchant:
Storekeeper or vendor who sell or providing service, receiving payment made by its customers through the credit card.

3. Acquirer:
Merchant’s bank that is responsible for receiving payment on behalf of merchant send authorization requests to the issuing bank through the appropriate channels.

4. Credit Card Network:
It acts as the intermediate between the banks. The Company responsible for communicating the transaction between the acquirer and the credit card issuer. These entities operate
the networks that process credit card payments worldwide and levy interchange fees. E.g. Visa, MasterCard, Rupay

5. Issuer:
Bearer’s bank, that issue the credit card, set limit of purchases, decides the approval – of transactions, issue invoices for payment, charges the holders in case of default and offer card-linked products such as insurance, additional cards and rewards plan.

Question 2.
Briefly explain Electronic Account transfer and its types?
Answer:
With the advent of computers, network technologies and electronic communications a large number of alternative electronic payment systems have emerged. These include ECS (Electronic Clearing Services), EFT (Electronic funds transfers), Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) etc.

1. Electronic Clearing Services (ECS):
Electronic Clearing Service can be defined as repeated transfer of funds from one bank account to multiple bank accounts or vice versa using computer and Internet technology. Advantages of this system are bulk payments, guaranteed payments and no need to remember payment dates. ECS can be used for both credit and debit purposes i.e. for making bulk payments or bulk collection of amounts.

2. ECS credit:
ECS credit is used for making bulk payment of amounts. In this mode, a single account is debited and multiple accounts are credited. This type of transactions are Push transactions. Example: if a company has to pay salary to its 100 employees it can use ECS credit system than crediting every employees’ account separately.

3. ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers

4. Electronic Funds Transfer:
Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) is the “electronic transfer” of money over an online network. The amount sent from the sender’s bank branch is credited to the receiver’s bank branch on the same day in batches.

5. Real Time Gross Settlement:
Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) is a payment system particularly used for the settlement of transactions between financial institutions, especially banks.

Real-time gross settlement transactions are:

1. Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he 242 fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

2. Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 3.
Write a note on
(a) Internet banking
(b) Mobile banking

(a) Internet banking:
Internet banking is a collective term for E-banking, online banking, virtual banking (operates only on the Internet with no physical branches), direct banks, web banking and remote banking. Internet banking allows customers of a financial institution to conduct various financial transactions on a secure website operated by the banking institutions. This is a very fast and convenient way of performing any banking transactions.

It enables customers of a bank to conduct a wide range of financial transactions through its website. In fact, it is like a branch exclusively operating of an individual customer. The online banking system will typically connect to the core banking system operated by customers themselves (Self-service banking).

Advantages:

1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.
2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need .installing any additional software.

(b) Mobile banking:
Mobile banking is another form of net banking. The term mobile banking (also called m-banking) refers to the services provided by the bank to the customer to conduct banking transactions with the aid of mobile phones. These transactions include balance checking, account transfers, payments, purchases, etc.

Transactions can be done at any time and anywhere. The WAP protocol installed on a mobile phone qualifies the device through an appropriate application for mobile session establishment with the bank’s website. In this way, the user has the option of permanent control over the account and remote management of his own finances. Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

• Contacting the call center.
• Automatic IVR telephone service.
• Using a mobile phone via SMS.
• WAP technology.
• Using smartphone applications.

Question 4.
What is cryptocurrency? Explain the same?
Answer:
Cryptocurrency:

• People have always valued unique and irreplaceable things. A unique thing always has a demand and acclaims a price.
• A cryptocurrency is a unique virtual (digital) asset designed to work as a medium of exchange using cryptographic algorithm.
• This algorithm secures the transactions by recording it in blockchain and controls the creation of additional units of the currency.
• Cryptocurrency is also called as cryptocoins, e-cash, alternative currencies or virtual currencies and are classified as a subset of digital currencies.
• Cryptocurrency can be defined as distributed accounting system based on cryptography, storing information about the state of ownership in conventional units.
• The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called “portfolios”.
• Only the holder of the corresponding private key would have control over a given portfolio and it is impossible to issue the same unit twice.
• The function of cryptocurrency is based on technologies such as Mining, Blockchain, Directed Acyclic Graph, Distributed register (ledger), etc. The information about the . transaction is usually not encrypted and is available in clear text.

Bitcoin:
Bitcoin is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency. Bitcoin is the most popular cryptocurrency, but there are many other cryptocurrencies, which are referred to as “altcoins”.

Altcoins:

1. Altcoins is the collective name for all cryptocurrencies that appeared after Bitcoin. The early Altcoins Litecoin and Namecoin appeared in 2011.
2. From 2014, the 2nd generation of cryptocurrency appeared, such as Monero, Ethereum and Nxt. These crypto-coins have advanced features such as hidden addresses and smart contracts.
3. In terms of trade, the creation of cryptocurrencies may be related to the ICO (Initial Coin Offer) procedure.

Block chain:

• Block chains are an open distributed book that records transactions of cryptocurrencies between any two parties in an efficient and verifiable manner.
• It is a continuously growing list of records, called blocks, which are linked to each other and protected using encryption algorithm.
  Each block typically contains a hash pointer as a link to a previous block. It records data about every transaction with its date and time.
• Once recorded, the data in any given block cannot be altered without the alteration of all subsequent blocks.

Question 5.
Explain in detail: Unified payments interface?
Answer:
(i) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NCPI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions.

(ii) It is simple, secure and instant payment facility. This interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and used for transferring funds instantly between two bank accounts through mobile (platform) devices. http://www. npci.org.in/

(iii) Unlike traditional e-wallets, which take a specified amount of money from user and store it in its own account, UPI withdraws and deposits funds directly from the bank account whenever a transaction is requested.

(iv) It also provides the “peer to peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.

(v) UPI is developed on the basis of Immediate Payment Service (IMPS). To initiate a transaction, UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

• Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
• Local address is a virtual payment address.

(vi) Virtual payment address (VPA) also called as UPI-ID, is a unique ID similar to email id
(e.g. name@bankname) enable us to send and receive money from multiple banks and prepaid payment issuers.

(vii) Bank or the financial institution allows the customer to generate VPA using phone number associated with Aadhaar number and bank account number. VPA replaces bank account details thereby completely hides critical information.

(Viii) The MPIN (Mobile banking Personal Identification number) is required to confirm each payment. UPI allows operating multiple bank accounts in a single mobile application.

(ix) Some UPI application also allows customers to initiate the transaction using only Aadhaar number in absence VPA.

Advantages:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts.
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
An electronic payment system is also called as …………………….
(a) liquidation
(b) clearing system
(c) clearing services
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
The electronic payment systems are classified into …………………….. types
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
I: Micro Electronic payments are expensive public key cryptography.
II: Security of Micro Electronic Payment is low
(a) t-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) Both I, II are true
(d) Both I, II-False
Answer:
(b) I-False, II-True

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out
(a) read journals
(b) listen to a song
(c) watch a movie online
(d) Internet payment systems
Answer:
(d) Internet payment systems

Question 5.
…………………….. are plastic cards that enable cashless payments.
Answer:
Payment Cards

Question 6.
How many card based payment systems are available (based on the transaction settlement method)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
How many micro electronic payments systems are there based on simple cryptographic algorithms?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 8.
……………………… is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 9.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the novel by ……………………..
Answer:
Edward Beltamy

Question 10.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the sci-fi novel ………………………
(a) Looking Backward
(b) Arrival
(c) Interstellar
(d) Altered States
Answer:
(a) Looking Backward

Question 11.
The term credit cad was first mentioned in the sci-fi normal in the year ………………………
(a) 1997
(b) 1887
(c) 1987
(d) 1897
Answer:
(b) 1887

Question 12.
The plastic cards was introduced in the year ……………………..
(a) 1957
(b) 1597
(c) 1955
(d) 1855
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 13.
Who created Diners Club Card?
(i) Frank McNamara
(ii) Ralph Schneider
(iii) Edward Bellamy
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)

Question 14.
The Diners Club Card was created in the year …………………………
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 15.
Initially the Diners Club Card was made of ……………………..
(a) paper-cardboard
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) metal
Answer:
(a) paper-cardboard

Question 16.
(I) The Diners Club Card was accepted only in 25 restaurants (initially).
(II) From 1965, the card was made of plastic.
(a) I-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) I, II-both True
(d) I, II-both are false
Answer:
(d) I, II-both are false

Question 17.
How many key players are there in the operation of credit card?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 18.
The ……………………. is the holder of the credit card account.
Answer:
Bearer

Question 19.
……………………. Network acts as the Intermediate between the banks.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 20.
The credit card limit, approval of transactions, default charges are issued by
(a) issuer
(b) Merchant
(c) Acquirer
(d) Bearer
Answer:
(a) issuer

Question 21.
Match the following (description of payment cards)
(i) width – 1.2.88 mm – 3.48 mm
(ii) height – 2. 53.98 mm
(iii) radius – 3. 85.60 mm
(iv) thickness – 4.0.76 mm
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)- 1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
Answer:
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4

Question 22.
The credit card number has ……………………. digit unique identification number
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 16

Question 27.
EMV means ………………………
Answer:
europay, Mastercard, Visa

Question 28.
EMV is categorized into ………………………
Answer:
chip and signature, chip and PIN

Question 29.
How many curved lines are there in RFID symbol?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 30.
……………………. is Ipdian domestic open loop card.
Answer:
Rupay

Question 31.
Rupay was launched in the year
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2009
(d) 2012
Answer:
(d) 2012

Question 32.
Which is a credit card security feature to prevent duplication?
(a) logo
(b) Hologram
(c) signature
(d) CW
Answer:
(b) Hologram

Question 33.
CVC/CW means ………………….
Answer:
Card Verification Code/ Value

Question 34.
Which is used in contact less transactions.
(a) CVC2
(b) EMV
(c) RFID
(d) PIN
Answer:
(a) CVC2

Question 35.
……………………… is a 3 digit code printed to the left of signature pane to validate the card.
Answer:
CVC/CVV

Question 36.
How many ways of processing debit card transactions are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 37.
Which card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted from the card holders Bank account?
(a) Credit card
(b) Debit card
(c) Smart card
(d) Paytm card
Answer:
(b) Debit card

Question 38.
Which is also known as online debit or PIN debit?
(a) EFTPOS
(b) POSEFT
(c) FETPOS
(d) FETSOP
Answer:
(a) EFTPOS

Question 39.
……………………. is a type of debit card that is preloaded with certain amount.
Answer:
Stored value card

Question 40.
Which is true regarding stored value cards?
(i) It has default monetary value onto it.
(ii) The card may be disposed when the value is used.
(iii) It is used to make offline purchases
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (iii) alone
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)

Question 41.
How many varieties of stored value card are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 42.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) closed loop cards
(b) open loop cards
(c) prepaid-debit cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(a) closed loop cards

Question 43.
In which of the following cards in binary coded metaphorically stored on the card in binary coded data form?
(a) open loop cards
(b) prepaid-debit cards
(c) closed loop cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(c) closed loop cards

Question 44.
Which of the following is not the advantage of smart cards?
(a) Identification
(b) RFID
(c) datastorage
(d) application processing
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 45.
Smart cards are classified into ……………………. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 46.
The two classifications of smart cards are ……………………… and ………………….. smart cards.
Answer:
contact and contactless

Question 47.
POS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Point of Sale

Question 48.
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately ……………………….
(a) 1 cms²
(b) 10 cms²
(c) 1 mm²
(d) 1 hectares
Answer:
(a) 1 cms²

Question 49.
Find the statements which is not true?
(I) contact smart cards uses RF induction Technology
(II) smarts have Internal power Source
(III) Inductor is used to capture radio-frequency signal
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, II
(d) III
Answer:
(c) I, II

Question 50.
Which technology is used in contactless smart cards.
(a) UV Induction
(b) RF Induction
(c) RFID
(d) IRID
Answer:
(b) RF Induction

Question 51.
EFT means ………………………
Answer:
Electronic Funds Transfers

Question 52.
RTGS means …………………….
Answer:
Real Time Gross Settlement System

Question 53.
ECS ………………….. is used for making bulk payment of amounts.
Answer:
credit

Question 54.
ECS ………………….. is used for bulk collection of amounts.
Answer:
debit

Question 55.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit
(b) Offline debit – Signature debit
(c) ECS credit – Push transactions
(d) ECS debit – Pull transactions
Answer:
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit

Question 56.
EFT means
(a) National Electronic Fund Transactions
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) National Electronic Finance Technology
(d) National Electronic Financial Transactions
Answer:
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer

Question 57.
RBI means ……………………..
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 58.
IDRBT stands for ……………………
Answer:
Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology

Question 59.
NEFT initiated in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2005
(d) 2009
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 60.
Which one of the following enables bank customer to transfer funds between any two banks?
(a) EFT
(b) NEFT
(c) EMI
(d) ECS
Answer:
(b) NEFT

Question 61.
…………………… payments are generally large-value payments
Answer:
RTGS

Question 62.
…………………… is the electronic transfer of money over an online network
Answer:
EFT

Question 63.
Which one of the following is the currency that flows in the form of data?
(a) RTGS
(b) EFT
(c) ECS
(d) E-cash
Answer:
(d) E-cash

Question 64.
Cryptocurrency is also called as …………………..
(a) Cryptocoins
(b) e-cahs
(c) virtual currencies
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 65.
The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called ………………………
(a) portfolios
(b) virtual asset
(c) erytography
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) portfolios

Question 66.
What are the technologies used in cryptocurrency?
(a) Mining
(b) block chain
(c) Directed Acyclic Graph
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 67.
The first form of cryptocurrency is ……………………….
(a) Digicash
(b) D-cash
(c) E-cash
(d) Crypto cash
Answer:
(a) Digicash

Question 68.
“Digicash” was invented by …………………….
Answer:
David Chaum

Question 69.
Digicash was invented in the year ………………………
(a) 1978
(b) 1980
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer:
(d) 1989

Question 70.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Digicash- 1989
(b) Bitcoin- 2009
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function
(d) Altcoin – 2011
Answer:
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function

Question 71.
Which is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency?
(a) Digicash
(b) Bitcoin
(c) Altcoins
(d) block chain
Answer:
(b) Bitcoin

Question 72.
Bitcoin payment system was developed under the pseudonym ……………………….
Answer:
Satosi Nakamoto

Question 73.
………………….. was developed to build alternative root DNS servers.
Answer:
Namecoin

Question 74.
Which cryptocurrency has a higher transaction rate?
(a) Altcoin
(b) Litecoin
(c) Bitcoin
(d) Namecoin
Answer:
(b) Litecoin

Question 75.
Making few minor changes in the parameters of cryptocurrency is called ………………………..
(a) altoin
(b) Block
(c) Blockchain
(d) Fork
Answer:
(d) Fork

Question 76.
As the value of altcoins becomes ………………….. it is considered as dead.
(a) Null
(b) 0
(c) infinity
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 77.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Bitshares
(b) Mastercoin
(c) Ripple
(d) Nxt
Answer:
(c) Ripple

Question 78.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Monera
(b) Nxt
(c) Ethereum
(d) Mastercoin
Answer:
(d) Mastercoin

Question 79.
The Cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called ………………………..
(a) mining
(b) Block chain
(c) Hash
(d) Brick and Mortar
Answer:
(a) mining

Question 80.
Find the statements which are not true.
(i) The miners generate new monetary units
(ii) Miners doesh’t initiate new transactions
(iii) Miners receive new Bitcoins
(a) (i)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) All are true
Answer:
(c) (ii)

Question 81.
ICO means ……………………….
Answer:
Intial coin offer

Question 82.
Which one of the following are an open distributed book that records transactions of crypto currencies?
(a) mining
(b) e-wallets
(c) ICO
(d) Block chains
Answer:
(d) Block chains

Question 83.
Each block in the block chain contains ………………….. pointer
(a) dash
(b) hash
(c) memory
(d) link
Answer:
(b) hash

Question 84.
Which one of the following is an electronic wallet services?
(a) paypal
(b) block chain
(c) mining
(d) hash
Answer:
(a) paypal

Question 85.
The term mobile banking is also called ………………………
Answer:
m-banking

Question 86.
……………………. operates only on the Internet with no physical branches.
Answer:
virtual banking

Question 87.
OTP means ……………………….
Answer:
One-Time Password

Question 88.
PJN means ……………………
Answer:
Personal Identification Number

Question 89.
ACHmeans …………………….
Answer:
Automated Clearing Home

Question 90.
IFSC stands for ……………………
Answer:
Indian Financial System Code

Question 91.
……………………… is an 11 digit alpha-numeric code issued Reserve Bank of India
(a) IIT
(b) IIM
(c) IFSC
(d) IFCS
Answer:
(c) IFSC

Question 92.
UPI means ………………………
Answer:
Unified Payments

Question 93.
NCPI means …………………..
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 94.
Unified Payments Interface is a real time payment system developed by NCPI to facilitate inter-bank transactions.
Answer:
Unified Payments Interface

Question 95.
IMPS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Immediate Payment Service

Question 96.
UPI applications …………………………. types of address.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 97.
UPI applications are classified into two types of addresses like …………………….. and ……………………
Answer:
global and local

Question 98.
Which address in UPI is a virtual payment address?
(a) Global
(b) local
(c) private
(d) public
Answer:
(b) local

Question 99.
………………… also called as UPI-ID.
Answer:
Virtual Payment Address(VPA)

Question 100.
MPIN means ……………………..
Answer:
Mobile Banking Personal Identification Number

Question 101.
USSD means …………………..
Answer:
Unstructured Supplementary Service Data

Question 102.
COD means …………………..
Answer:
Cash on Delivery

Question 103.
BHIM stands for …………………….
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money

Question 104.
NPCI means …………………….
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 105.
BHIM is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by ……………………..
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
Answer:
(c) 2016

Question 106.
……………………. is a type of fraud where same cryptocurrency is spent in more than one transactions.
Answer:
Double Spend

Question 107.
RThs are …………………. and ……………………
Answer:
Unconditional, Irrevocable

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on payment cards?
Answer:
Payment cards are plastic cards that enable cashless payments. They are simple embossed plastic card that authenticates the card holder on behalf of card issuing company, which allows the user to make use of various financial services.

Question 2.
Give some examples for macro online payment systems?
Answer:
Some of the popular macro on-line payment systems are mentioned below:

1. Card based payment systems
2. Electronic account transfer
3. Electronic cash payment systems
4. Mobile payment systems and internet payment systems

Question 3.
Write note on E-cash?
Answer:
Electronic cash is (E-Cash) is a currency that flows in the form of data. It converts the cash value into a series of encrypted sequence numbers, and uses these serial numbers to represent the market value of various currencies in reality.

Question 4.
Mention the advantages of UPI?
Answer:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts,
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Question 5.
Define COD?
Answer:
Cash on delivery (COD) also called as collection on delivery, describes a mode of payment in which the payment is made only on receipt of goods rather in advance.

Question 6.
Define BHIM?
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and launched on 30 December 2016. It is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and drive towards cashless transactions.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
How will you do the Micro electronic payment transactions?
Answer:
In general, the parties involved in the micro on-line payments are Customer, Service Provider and Payment processor. The Micro electronic payment transactions can be explained in the following way.

Step 1:
Customer proves his authentication and the payment processor issues micro payments.

Step 2:
Customer pays the micro payments to the online service provider and gets the requested goods or services form them.

Step 3:
Service provider deposits micro payments received from the customer to the payment processor and gets the money.

Question 2.
Mention the three types of card based payment systems?
Answer:
Based on the transaction settlement method there are three widely used card based payment systems. They are:

1. Credit card based payment systems (pay later)
2. Debit card based payment systems (pay now)
3. Stored value card based payment systems (pay before)

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of credit card?
Answer:
Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Question 4.
Write note on ‘The Diner Club Card’?
Answer:
In February 1950, Frank McNamara and Ralph Schneider created The Diners Club card which was made of paper-cardboard. Initially The card was accepted in only 27 restaurants From 1955, the card was made of plastic. The Diners Club still exists today under the name Diners Club International.

Question 5.
Write note on Anatomy of a Credit Card?
Answer:
All Payment cards (including debit card) are usually plastic cards of size 85.60 mm width x 53.98 mm height, rounded comers with a radius of 2.88 mm to 3.48 mm and thickness of 0.76 mm.

Question 6.
Write note on Credit Card number?
Answer:
Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 7.
Mention the three ways of processing debit card transactions?
Answer:
There are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System

Question 8.
Mention the major advantage of stored value card?
Answer:
The major advantage of stored value card is that customers don’t need to have a bank account to get prepaid cards.

Question 9.
Write note on Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip. This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance.

Question 10.
Mention the advantages of Smart Cards?
Answer:
The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing.

Question 11.
Write note on ECS debit?
Answer:
ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers.

Question 12.
Write note on NEFT?
Answer:
(NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system initiated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in – November 2005. NEFT enables a bank customer to transfer funds between any two NEFT- enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis. It is done via electronic messages.

Question 13.
Give the two types of Real-time gross settlement transactions?
Answer:
Real-time gross settlement transactions are:
Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 14.
How are the Mobile Banking operations implemented?
Answer:
Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

1. Contacting the call center.
2. Automatic IVR telephone service.
3. Using a mobile phone via SMS.
4. WAP technology
5. Using smartphone applications.

Question 15.
Mention advantages of Internet Banking?
Answer:
1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.

2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need installing any additional software.

Question 16.
Explain the two types of addresses in UPI applications?
Answer:
UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

1. Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
2. Local address is a virtual payment address.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain Debit Card?
Answer:
Debit Card:
Debit Card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted directly from the card holder’s bank account upon authorization.

Generally, debit cards function as ATM cards and act as a substitute for cash The way of using debit cards and credit cards is generally the same but unlike credit cards, payments using a debit card are immediately transferred from the cardholder’s designated bank account, instead of them paying the money back at a later with added interest. In modem era the use of debit cards has become so widespread’.

The debit card and credit card are identical in their physical properties. It is difficult to differentiate two by their appearance unless they have the term credit or debit imprinted. Currently there are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System 2. Explain Smart

Question 2.
Explain Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart card:
The modem version of card based payment is smart cards. Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip.

This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance but differ in its functionalities. The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing. Smart cards can be classified into Contact smart cards and Contactless smart, Contact Smart card & POS cards.

(i) Contact smart cards:
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately 1 square centimeter, comprising several gold – plated contact pads. These pads provide electrical connectivity only when inserted into a reader, which is also used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. e.g. a point of sale terminal(POS).

(ii) Contactless smart cards:
Contactless smart card is empowered by RF induction technology. Unlike contact smart cards, these cards require only near proximity to an antenna to communicate. Smart cards, whether they are contact or contactless cards do not have an internal power source. Instead, they use an inductor to capture some of the interrupting radio-frequency signal, rectify it and power the card’s processes.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
EDI stands for ……………………
(a) Electronic Details Information
(b) Electronic Data Information
(c) Electronic Data Interchange
(d) Electronic Details Interchange
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 2.
Which of the following is an internationally recognized standard format for trade, transportation, insurance, banking and customs?
(a) TSLFACT
(b) SETFACT
(c) FTPFACT
(d) EDIFACT
Answer:
(d) EDIFACT

Question 3.
Which is the first industry-sjpecific EDI standard?
(a) TDCC
(b) VISA
(c) Master
(d) ANSI
Answer:
(a) TDCC

Question 4.
UNSM stands for:
(a) Universal Natural Standard message
(b) Universal Notations for Simple message
(c) United Nations Standard message
(d) United Nations Service message
Answer:
(c) United Nations Standard message

Question 5.
Which of the following is a type of EDI?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Indirect EDI
(c) Collective EDI
(d) Unique EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 6.
Who is called as the father of EDI?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Ed Guilbert
(c) Pascal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Ed Guilbert

Question 7.
EDI interchanges starts with ……………………. and ends with ……………………..
(a) UNA, UNZ
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNA, UNT
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(b) UNB, UNZ

Question 8.
EDIFACT stands for ………………………
(a) EDI for Admissible Commercial Transport
(b) EDI for Advisory Committee and Transport
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport
(d) EDI for Admissible Commerce and Trade
Answer:
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport

Question 9.
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as ……………………….
(a) Message types
(b) Subsets
(c) Directories
(d) Folders
Answer:
(c) Directories

Question 10.
Number of characters in an single EDIFACT messages ……………………..
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 6

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define EDI?
Answer:
The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or – through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.

Question 2.
List few types of business documents that are transmitted through EDI?
Answer:

1. Direct EDI EDIviaVAN
2. EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
3. Web EDI
4. Mobile EDI

Question 3.
What are the 4 major components of EDI?
Answer:
There are four major components of EDI. They are:

1. Standard document format
2. Translator and Mapper
3. Communication software
4. Communication network

Question 4.
What is meant by directories in EDIFACT?
Answer:
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as directories. These EDIFACT directories will be revised twice a year; on 1 st April and 1 st October to include new or update, existing EDIFACT messages. EDIFACT directories have names like D. 18B (D stands for Directory, 18 is the year and A/B indicates the month of release)

Question 5.
Write a note on EDIFACT subsets?
Answer:
Due to the complexity, branch-specific subsets of EDIFACT have developed. These subsets of EDIFACT include only the functions relevant to specific user groups.
Example:

• CEFIC – Chemical industry
• EDIFURN – furniture industry
• EDIGAS – gas business

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a short note on EDI?
Answer:

1. The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
2. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.
3. It is used to transfer documents such as delivery notes, invoices, purchase orders, advance ship notice, functional acknowledgements etc.
4. These documents are transferred directly from the computer of the issuing company to that of the receiving company, with great time saving and avoiding many errors of traditional “on paper” communications.

Question 2.
List the various layers of EDI?
Answer:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely –

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write a note on UN/EDIFACT?
Answer:

• United Nations / Electronic Data Interchange for Administration, Commerce and Transport
• (UN / EDIFACT) is an international EDI – standard developed under the supervision of the United Nations.
• In 1987, the UN / EDIFACT syntax rules were approved as ISO: IS09735 standard by the International Organization for Standardization.
• EDIFACT includes a set of internationally agreed standards, catalogs and guidelines for electronic exchange of structured data between independent computer systems.

Question 4.
Write a note on EDIFACT message?
Answer:
The basic standardization concept of EDIFACT is that there are uniform message types called United Nations Standard Message (UNSM). In so-called subsets, the message types can be specified deeper in their, characteristics depending on the sector. The message types, all of which always have exactly one nickname consisting of six uppercase English alphabets. The message begins with UNH and ends with UNT.
Service messages
To confirm / reject a message, CONTRL and APERAK messages are sent.

1. CONTRL – Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error messages and acknowledgment
3. Data exchange
4. CREMUL – multiple credit advice
5. DELFOR-Delivery forecast
6. IFTMBC – Booking confirmation

Question 5.
Write about EDIFACT separators?
EDI Separators:
Answer:
EDIFACT has the following punctuation marks that are used as standard separators.
Character:

1. Apostrophe
2. Plus sign +
3. Colon:
4. Question mark ?
5. Period

Uses:

1. Segment terminator
2. Segment tag and data element separator
3. Component data element separator
4. Release character
5. Decimal point

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Briefly explain various types of EDI?
Answer:
The types of EDI were constructed based on how EDI communication connections and the conversion were organized. Thus based on the medium used for transmitting EDI documents the following are the major EDI types.

1. Direct EDI
2. EDI via VAN
3. EDI via-FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
4. Web EDI
5. Mobile EDI
6. Direct EDI/Point-to-Point

It is also called as Point-to-Point EDI. It establishes a direct connection between various business stakeholders and partners individually. This type of EDI suits to larger businesses with a lot of day to day business transactions.

EDI via VAN:
EDI via VAN (Value Added Network) is where EDI documents are transferred with the support of third party network service providers. Many businesses prefer this network model to protect them from the updating ongoing complexities of network technologies.

EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS.

Web EDI:
Web based EDI conducts EDI using an web browser via the Internet. Here the businesses are allowed to use any browser to transfer data to their business partners. Web based EDI is easy and convenient for small and medium organizations.

Mobile EDI:
When smartphones or other such handheld devices are used to transfer EDI documents it is called as mobile EDI. Mobile EDI applications considerably increase the speed of EDI transactions.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of EDI?
Answer:
Advantages of EDI:
EDI was developed to solve the problems inherent in paper-based transaction processing and in other forms of electronic communication. Implementing EDI system offers a company greater control over its supply chain and allow it to trade more effectively. It also increases productivity and promotes operational efficiency. The following are the other advantages of EDI.

1. Improving service to end users
2. Increasing productivity
3. Minimizing errors
4. Slashing response times
5. Automation of operations
6. Cutting costs
7. Integrating all business and trading partners
8. Providing information on process Status
9. Optimizing financial ratios

EDI Layers:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely;

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write about structure of EDIFACT?
Answer:
EDIFACT Structure:
EDIFACT is a hierarchical structure where the top level is referred to as an interchange, and lower levels contain multiple messages. The messages consist of segments, which in turn consist of composites. The final iteration is a data element.

Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetition field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear at least once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed. e.g. C10 indicates repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Additional Questions and Answers

1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………. is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
(a) EDI
(b) UDI
(c) FDI
(d) DDI
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 2.
Identify which one of the following is not a EDI standard?
(a) EDIFACT
(b) XML
(c) ANSI ASC X12
(d) HTML
Answer:
(d) HTML

Question 3.
……………………. is a paperless trade.
(a) EDI
(b) XML
(c) EDIF
(d) EFT
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 4.
…………………… is a paperless payment.
(a) EDI
(b) EFT
(c) XML
(d) EDIFAC
Answer:
(b) EFT

Question 5.
TDCC stands for ………………………
Answer:
Transportation Data Coordinating Committee

Question 6.
TDCC was formed in the year …………………….
(a) 1964
(b) 1966
(c) 1968
(d) 1970
Answer:
(c) 1968

Question 7.
The first EDI standard was released by TDCC in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1975

Question 8.
Expand EDIA
(a) Electronic Data Interchange Authorigy
(b) Electronic Data Information Association
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association
(d) Electronic Device Interface Amplifier
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association

Question 9.
The TDCC is renamed as EDIA in the year ……………………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(d) 1978

Question 10.
ANSI stands for …………………….
Answer:
American National Standards Institute

Question 11.
EDIA has become …………………….. committee.
(a) ANSIXI2
(b) ANSIXI3
(c) ANSIXI4
(d) ANSIX15
Answer:
(a) ANSIXI2

Question 12.
EDIFACT is created by …………………..
(a) UN
(b) WHO
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNICEF
Answer:
(a) UN

Question 13.
EDIFACT was created in ……………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1978
(c) 1981
(d) 1985
Answer:
(d) 1985

Question 14.
Identify the statement which is not true?
(a) The first EDI message was sent from the Holland – American Streamship line to Trans-Atlantic Shipping Company
(b) It is send usign telex
(c) It took 2 minutes to send a full page
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer
Answer:
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer.

Question 15.
The first EDI message was sent in ………………………
(a) 1955
(b) 1965
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1965

Question 16.
How many major classifications of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Web EDI
(c) Android EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(c) Android EDI

Question 18.
…………………… is also called as point-to-point EDI.
Answer:
Direct EDI

Question 19.
Which EDI is better for day to day business transactions?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) EDI via VAN
(c) Web EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 20.
Expand VAN?
(a) Value Added Network
(b) Voice Added Network
(c) Vast Area Network
(d) Value Area Network
Answer:
(a) Value Added Network

Question 21.
A …………………….. acts as an intermediary between trading partners.
(a) VAN
(b) Web
(c) Mobile
(d) FTPs
Answer:
(a) VAN

Question 22.
……………………… is convenient for small and medium organizations.
Answer:
web based EDI

Question 23.
Match the following
(i) point to point EDI – 1. easy for small and medium organizations.
(ii) EDI via VAN – 2. Speed Transactions.
(iii) EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS – 3. Large day to day business transactions
(iv) Web EDI – 4. Third party Network service providers.
(v) Mobile EDI – 5. Uses protocols
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2
(b) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4 (v)-5
(c) (i)-5 (ii)-4 (iii)-3 (iv)-2 (v)-1
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-2 (iv)-1 (v)-5
Answer:
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2

Question 24.
How many layers are there in EDI?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 25.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Semantic layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Physical layer
Answer:
(c) Session layer

Question 26.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Semantic layer – application level services
(b) Standard layer – ANSI XI2
(c) Transport layer – FTP, TELNET
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail
Answer:
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail

Question 27.
MIME, HTTP, FTP comes under …………………….. layer.
(a) Semantic
(b) Standard
(c) Transport
(d) Physical
Answer:
(c) Transport

Question 28.
How many major components of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not a major component of EDI?
(a) Standard document
(b) Standard translation
(c) Translator and Mapper
(d) Communication Software
Answer:
(b) Standard translation

Question 30.
………………………. is the EDI standard for warehousing Industry.
Answer:
WINS

Question 31.
GTDI means …………………………
Answer:
Guideline for Trade Data Interchange

Question 32.
ECE stands for
(a) Economic Commission for Europe
(b) Electronic and Communication Engineering
(c) Electrical and Communication Engineering
(d) Easy control Edges
Answer:
(a) Economic Commission for Europe

Question 33.
UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed in the year ………………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1987
(c) 1988
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 34.
The EDIFACT directories will be revised …………………….
(a) twice a year
(b) once in a year
(c) thrice a year
(d) cannot be revised
Answer:
(a) twice a year

Question 35.
In EDIFACT directories A/B indicates the ……………………… of release.
Answer:
month

Question 36.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry
(b) EDIFURN – Furniture Industry
(c) EDIGAS – Gas Business
Answer:
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry

Question 37.
Which one of the following is a hierarchical structure with multiple messages?
(a) CEFIC
(b) EDIFACT
(c) EDIFURN
(d) EDIGAS
Answer:
(b) EDIFACT

Question 38.
The top level in EDIFACT is referred to as ………………………..
(a) Subsets
(b) Segment
(c) interchange
(d) data
Answer:
(c) interchange

Question 39.
In EDIFACT, the messages consist of which in turn consist of …………………….. which in turn consist of ……………………….
Answer:
segments and composites

Question 40.
The final iteration in EDIFACT is
(a) data element
(b) control variable
(c) interchange
(d) subset
Answer:
(a) data element

Question 41.
………………………. indicates the repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.
(a) A10
(b) BIO
(c) C1O
(d) D1O
Answer:
(c) C1O

Question 42.
……………………. lists the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation fields.
Answer:
Segment Table

Question 43.
The interchange is also called as …………………..
Answer:
envelope

Question 44.
The EDIFACT message begins and ends with …………………….
(a) UNH, UNT
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNH, UNZ
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(a) UNH, UNT

Question 45.
………………….. show technical error messages in EDIFACT.
Answer:
APERAK

Question 46.
A segment is a …………………….. character alphanumeric code.
Answer:
3

Question 47.
In EDIFACT message ………………………… is the format for century, year, month, date, hour, minute.
Answer:
CCYYMMDDHHMM

Question 48.
……………………. is date/time information in the segment.
Answer:
DTM

Question 49.
Which is the release character?
(a) :
(b) ?
(c) .
(d) +
Answer:
(b) ?

Question 50.
Which punctuator is segment tag?
(a) ,
(b) +
(c) :
(d) !
Answer:
(b) +

Question 51.
Which is used for component data element separator?
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ?
(d) ?
Answer:
(a) :

Question 52.
…………………… is the segment terminator.
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ‘
(d) ?
Answer:
(c) ‘

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is VAN?
Answer:
A value-added network is a company, that is based on its own network, offering EDI services to other businesses. A value-added network acts as an intermediary between trading partners. The principle operations of value- added networks are the allocation of access rights and providing high data security.

Question 2.
Write note on EDI Via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS?
Answer:
EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS. .

Question 3.
Write a short note on Segment Table?
Answer:
Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear atleast once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed.

Question 4.
Mention Some examples for FDIFACT subset?
Answer:

1. GEFIC – Chemical industry
2. EDIFURN – furniture industry
3. EDIGAS – gas business

Question 5.
Write note on EDIFACT Segment?
Answer:
EDIFACT Segment
It is the subset of message. A segment is a three-character alphanumeric code. These segments are listed in segment tables. Segments may contain one, or several related user data elements.

Question 6.
Mention service messages in EDIFACT?
Answer:

1. CONTRL- Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error

Question 7.
Mention data exchange in EDIFACT message?
Answer:
Data exchange:
CREMUL – multiple credit advice DELFOR-Delivery forecast IFTMBC – Booking confirmation.

Question 8.
Write note on EDI Interchange?
Answer:
EDI Interchange:
Interchange is also called as envelope. The top level of EDIFACT structure is Interchange. An interchange may contain multiple messages. It starts with UNB and ends with UNZ.

III. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain EDI standards?
Answer:
EDI Standards:

• The standard is the most critical part of the entire EDI. Since EDI is the data transmission and information exchange in the form of an agreed message format, it is important to develop a unified EDI standard.
• The EDI standard is mainly divided into the following aspects: basic standards, code-standards, message standards, document standards, management standards, application standards, communication standards and security standards.
• The first industry-specific EDI standard was the TDCC published by the Transportation Data coordinating Committee in 1975.
• Then other industries started developing unique standards based on their individual needs. E.g. WINS in the warehousing industry.
• Since the application of EDI has become more mature, the target of trading operations is often not limited to a single industry.
• In 1979, the American National Standards Institute Accredited Standard Committee (ANSI ASC) developed a wider range of EDI standard called ANSI XI2.
• On the other hand, the European region has also developed an integrated EDI standard. Known as GTDI (Guideline for Trade Data Interchange).
• ANSI X12 and GTDI have become the two regional EDI standards in North America and Europe respectively.
• After the development of the two major regional EDI standards and a few years after trial, the two standards began to integrate and conduct research and development of common EDI standards.
• Subsequently, the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UN/ECE/WP.4) hosted the task of the development of international EDI standards. In 1986, UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed. The most widely used EDI message standards are the United Nations EDIFACT and the ANSI X12.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 15 E-Commerce

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications E-Commerce Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A company can be called E-Business if
(a) it has many branches across the world.
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.
(c) it sells commodities to a foreign country.
(d) it has many employees.
Answer:
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a tangible good?
(a) Mobile
(b) Mobile Apps
(c) Medicine
(d) Flower bouquet
Answer:
(b) Mobile Apps

Question 3.
SME stands for
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises
(b) Simple and medium enterprises .
(c) Sound messaging enterprises
(d) Short messaging enterprises
Answer:
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises

Question 4.
The dotcom phenomenon deals with
(a) Textile industries
(b) Mobile phone companies
(c) Internet based companies
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Internet based companies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not correctly matched.
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990
(b) The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009
(c) The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
(d) Dotcom burst: 2000 – 2002
Answer:
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The websites of first wave dotcom companies were only in English
Reason (R): The dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 7.
Off-shoring means
(a) Work outsourced to a branch of its own company
(b) Work outsourced to new employees
(c) Work outsourced to a third party locally
(d) Work outsourced to a third party outside its own country
Answer:
(b) Work outsourced to new employees

Question 8.
G2G systems are classified into
(a) International facing and external facing
(b) Internet facing and Extranet facing
(c) Internal flag and external flag
(d) Internet flag and Extranet flag
Answer:
(a) International facing and external facing

Question 9.
……………………. host the e-books on their websites.
(a) Bulk-buying sites
(b) Community sites
(c) Digital publishing sites
(d) Licensing sites
Answer:
(c) Digital publishing sites

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a characteristics of E-Commerce?
(a) Products cannot be inspected physically before purchase.
(b) Goods are delivered instantly.
(c) Resource focus supply side
(d) Scope of business is global.
Answer:
(c) Resource focus supply side

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Commerce can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.

Question 2.
Distinguish between E-Business and E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Business:
E-Business is grounded on technologies such as Network Infrastructures (like Internet, Intranet, Extranet), Multimedia content & network publishing infrastructures (like HTML), Messaging & information distribution infrastructures (e-mail), and other Common business service infrastructures (Online Transaction Processing).

E-Commerce:
E-Commerce is commercial transaction through Internet, but E-Business entirely depends on the Internet for its every intra-company and inter-company activities such as marketing, fiance, manufacturing, selling.

Question 3.
Differentiate tangible goods and electronic goods with example of your own?
Answer:
Tangible goods:
Tangible form – e.g. a digital camera purchased by a consumer from an online. shopping website which might be delivered at the requested address.

Electronic goods:
Electronic form – e.g. a music album or a software downloaded from a site which might be delivered in electronic form.

Question 4.
What is dotcom bubble and dotcom burst?
Answer:
Dotcom Bubble:
1. The Dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth (excessive assumption) of economy that occurred roughly between 1995 and 2000.

2. During the dotcom bubble, the value of equity markets grew exponentially with the NASDAQ composite index of US stock market rising from under 1000 points to more than 5000 points.
Dotcom Burst

3. The Nasdaq-Composite stock market index, fell from 5046.86 to 1114.11. This is infamously, known as the Dotcom Crash or Dotcom Burst.

4. This began on March 11,2000 and lasted until October 9,2002. During the crash, thousands of online shopping companies, like as Pets.com failed and shut down.

Question 5.
Write a short note on out-sourcing?
Answer:
Out-sourcing are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.

PART – III
Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Describe how E-Commerce is related to socio-technological changes?
Answer:
Growth of E-Commerce is also related to the socio-technological changes. The more, the medium becomes deep-rooted, the more, are the users drawn towards it. Increase of users, increases the markets. As the markets expand, more business organizations are attracted. The more businesses accumulate it create competition. The competition leads to innovation; innovation in turn drives the development of technology; technology facilitates E-Commerce’s growth.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the third wave of E-Commerce?
Answer:
The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
1. The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

2. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions.

3. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

4. The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web, Generic Database etc.

Question 3.
Explain B2B module in E-Commerce?
Business to Business (B2B)
Answer:
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.
Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

Question 4.
Write a note on name-your-price websites?
Answer:
Name-your-price sites are just like normal retail sites. In contrast, the buyer negotiates with the retailer for a particular product or service, https://in.hotels.com/

Question 5.
Write a note on physical product dispute of E-Commerce?
Answer:
Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Through Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses.

We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality. If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Write about the development and growth of Electronic Commerce?
Answer:
The Development and Growth of Electronic Commerce:
Economists describe four distinct waves (or phases) that occurred in the Industrial Revolution. In each wave, different business strategies were successful. Electronic commerce and the information revolution brought about by the Internet likely go through such series of waves.

The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1995 -2003
(i) The Dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies. Thereby their websites were only in English. The Dotcom bubble had attracted huge investments to first wave companies.

(ii)As the Internet was mere read-only web (web 1.0) and network technology was in its beginning stage, the bandwidth and network security was very low.

(iii) Only EDI and unstructured E-mail remained as a mode of information exchange between businesses.

(iv) But the first wave companies enjoyed the first-move advantage and customers had left with no options.

The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009

(i) The second wave is the rebirth of E-Commerce after the dotcom burst. The second wave is considered as the global wave, with sellers doing business in many countries and in many languages.

(ii) Language translation and currency conversion were focused in the second wave websites.
(iii) The second wave companies used their own internal funds and gradually expanded their E-Commerce opportunities.

(iv) As a result E-Commerce grows more steadily, though more slowly. The rapid development of network technologies and interactive web (web 2.0, a period of social media) offered the consumers more choices of buying. The increased web users nourished E-Commerce companies (mostly B2C companies) during the second wave.

The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present

(i) The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

(ii) It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

(iii) The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web. Generic Database etc.

Question 2.
List all the E-Commerce business models and explain any four briefly?
Answer:
Classification of E-Commerce Business models:
Business organizations, Consumers and Government (also called as Administrations) are the major parties in the E-Commerce. Sometimes Employees (Informal workers) also indulge in this system. Based upon the entities involved in transaction, E-Commerce has been classified into the following typical categories. The model in which the government plays as an entity is termed as e- Governance.

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

1. Business to Business (B2B):
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.

Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

2. Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

3. Business to Government (B2G):
B2G is a business model that refers to business organizations sells products, services or information to Governments or to its administrations. In other words, when a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as B2G model. B2G networks models provide a way for businesses to bid on Government projects or products those Governments might need for their organizations, e.g. A Government or its administration buys laptops for students from a business.

4. Consumer to Business (C2B):
C2B can be described as a form of E-Commerce where, the transaction is originated by the consumers. The consumers will fix a set of requirements or specific price for a service or a commodity. C2B model, is also called as reverse auction model. Here, customer bid his price for a service or a product. Then E-Commerce business entity will match the requirements of the consumers to the best possible extent.

For instance, in a travel website (eg. yatra.com) a consumer may specify his dates of trayel, his source and destination, number of tickets required and range of hotel etc. The website then finds out the various options for him which best meets his requirements. These websites generate revenue through affiliate links, sponsored advertisement or even a small commission in every booking, e.g. Name-your-price websites.

5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C):
C2C in E-Commerce provides opportunity for trading of products or services among consumers who are connected through the Internet. In brief when something is bought and sold between two consumers using Internet it is called C2C E-Commerce. Here the websites act as a platform to facilitate the transaction. The electronic tools and Internet infrastructure are employed to support transactions between individuals. Typically, this type of E-Commerce works as Consumer to Business to Consumer (C2B2C).

It means that a consumer would contact a business in search for a suitable customer. Most of the auction websites and matrimonial websites are working on this methodology. For example, a consumer who wants to sell his property can post an advertisement on the website (eg: timesclassifieds.com). Another person who is interested in buying a property can browse the property, advertisement posted on this site. Thus, the two consumers can get in touch with each other for sale/purchase of property through another business’ website.

6. Consumer to Government (C2G):
Citizens as Consumers and Government engage in C2G E-Commerce. Here an individual consumer interacts with the Government. C2G models usually include income tax or house tax payments, fees for issuance of certificates or other documents. People paying for renewal of license online may also fall under this category.

7. Government to Business (G2B):
G2B is closely related to B2G. G2B in E-Commerce refers to a business model where Government providing services or information to business organization. It may be a formal offer such as a takeover bid for a road project.

G2B is a part of e-govemance. The Government provides information about business rules, requirement and permission needed for starting a new business, and other specifications in its portal. The objective of G2B is to reduce burdens on business, provide one-stop access to information thereby boost the economy.

8. Government to Consumer (G2C):
G2C in E-Commerce is very similar to C2G. Here the Government provides platform for its citizens to avail its services and information through th Internet. The services may be issuance of ceriticates through online. e.g. https://csc.gov.in/governmenttocitizen.

9. Government to Government (G2G):
G2G is the online (usually non-commercial) interaction between Government organizations or departments. G2G’s principle objective is to implement e-govemance rather commerce. G2G model in e-govemance involves distributing data or information between its agencies/ departments. G2G systems can be classified into two types

Internal facing or local level – joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy.

Question 3.
Explain any five E-Commerce revenue models?
Answer:
(i) Auction site is a kind of website, that auctions items on the Internet and levies some commission from the sales, e.g. https://www.ebay.com/

(ii) Banner advertisement site displays advertisements of other companies in its websites and thereby earns revenue.

(iii) Bulk-buying sites collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items; the site negotiates a discount with the supplier and takes a commission, e.g. https://www.alibaba.com/

(iv) Digital publishing sites effectively host the e-books or magazines on the web. They make profits in a number of ways such as advertising, selling etc., https://wordpress.org/

(v) Licensing sites allow other websites to make use of their software. For example, the search engines which allow a visitor of the site to search within the website more easily.

Question 4.
How would you differentiate a traditional commerce and E-Commerce?
Answer:
Traditional vs E-Commerce:
Traditional Commerce:

1. Traditional commerce is buying or selling of products and services physically.
2. Customer can easily identify, authenticate and talk to the merchant.
3. Physical stores are not feasible to be open all the time.
4. Products can be inspected physically before purchase.
5. Scope of business is limited to particular area.
6. Resource focus Supply side.
7. Business Relationship is Linear.
8. Marketing is one way marketing.
9. Payment is made by cash, cheque, cards etc.
10. Most goods are delivered instantly.

E-Commerce:

1. E-Commerce carries out commercial transactions electronically on the Internet.
2. Neither customer nor merchant see the other.
3. It is always available on all time and all days of the year.
4. Products can’t be inspected physically before purchase. .
5. Scope of business is global. Vendors can expand their business Worldwide.
6. Resource focus Demand side.
7. Business Relationship is End-to-end.
8. One-to-one marketing.
9. Payment system is mostly credit card and through fund transfer.
10. It takes time to transport goods.

Question 5.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce to a consumer?
Advantages and Disadvantages of E-Commerce:
Answer:
The pros and cons of E-Commerce affect three major stakeholders: consumers business organisations, and society.
The following are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a consumer.

Advantages:
1. E-Commerce system is operated on all days and all the day. It is able to conduct business 24 × 7. Neither consumer nor suppliers need physical store to be opened to do business electronically. People can interact with businesses at the time of their convenience.

2. Speed is a major advantage in E-Commerce. Advanced Electronic communications systems allow messages to reach across the world instantaneously. There is no need to wait days for a catalogue to arrive by post. Communication delay is not a part of the Internet or E-Commerce world.

3. The Internet is too easy to ‘shop around’ for products and services that may be more cheaper and effective than left o buy only in a Brick and Mortar shop. It provides an opportunity to buy at reduced costs. It is possible to, explore the Internet, identify original manufacturers, thereby bypass wholesalers and achieve a cheaper price.

4. The whole world becomes a shop for today’s customers. They can have wide choice by comparing and evaluating the same product at different websites before making a purchase decision.

5. Customers can shop from home or anywhere at their convenience. They don’t need a long wait to talk to a salesman. They can read the details regarding model numbers, prices, features etc. of the product from the website and buy at their own convenience. Payments can also be made through online.

Disadvantages:
1. E-Commerce is often used to buy goods that are not available locally but from businesses all over the world. Physical goods need to be transported, which takes time and costs money. In traditional commerce, when we walk out of a shop with an item, it’s ours; we have it; we know what it is, where it is and how it looks. But in E-Commerce we should wait between placing the order and having the product in hand. Some E-Commerce companies handle this by engaging their customer updating status of their shipments.

2. Unlike returning goods to a traditional shop returning goods through online is believed to be an area of difficulty. The doubts about the period of returning, will the returned goods reach source in time, refunds, exchange and postage make one tiresome.

3. Privacy issues are serious in E-Commerce. In E-Commerce generating consumer information is inevitable. Not all the companies use the personal information they obtained to improve services to consumers. Many companies misuse the information and make money out of it. It is true that privacy concerns are a critical reason why people get cold feet about online shopping.

4. Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Though Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses. We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality.

If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are Often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

5. We couldn’t think of ordering a single ice cream or a coffee from a shop in Paris. Though specialized and refrigerated transport can be used, goods bought and sold via the Internet need to survive the trip from the supplier to the consumer. This makes the customers turn back towards traditional supply chain arrangements for perishable and non-durable goods.

6. Delivery ambiguity. Since supplying businesses can be conducted across the world, it can be uncertain whether they are indeed genuine businesses or just going to take our money. It is pretty hard to knock on their door to complain or seek legal recourse. Further, even if the item is sent, it is easy to start bothering whether or not it will ever arrive on time.
The following are some of the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a Business organisation.

Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation –
Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
The term E-Business was coined by ……………………….
(a) Apple
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft
(d) Sun Microsystems
Answer:
(b) IBM

Question 2.
The, term E-Business was coined in the year
(a) 1996
(b) 2001
(c) 2003
(d) 2005
Answer:
(a) 1996

Question 3.
Find the wrong statement from the following.
(a) E-commerce is a subset of E-Business
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce
Answer:
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce

Question 4.
SCM means
(a) Supply Chain Management
(b) Small Company Management
(c) Short Chain Management
(d) Surplus Charge Management
Answer:
(a) Supply Chain Management

Question 5.
…………………… can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.
Answer:
E-Commerce

Question 6.
E-Commerce first emerged on private networks in ……………………….
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1970
(d) 1972
Answer:
1970

Question 7.
…………………… paved the way for the E-commerce.
(a) Electronic Data Interchanges
(b) teleshopping
(c) both a & b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both a & b

Question 8.
SME mean ……………………….
Answer:
Small and Medium-Sized Enterprises

Question 9.
Who invented Teleputer?
(a) Michael Aldrich
(b) Sting’s
(c) Bob Frankston
(d) Dan Bricklin
Answer:
(a) Michael Aldrich

Question 10.
Teleputer was invented in the year
(a) 1974
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1980
Answer:
(d) 1980

Question 11.
Online Transaction Processing was developed in the year ………………………
(a) 1976
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Answer:
(c) 1979

Question 12.
Fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom network is called ………………………
Answer:
Teleputer

Question 13.
Joe Mccambley ran the first ever online banner ad in the year
(a) Oct 1994
(b) Nov 1996
(c) Oct 1996
(d) Nov 1994
Answer:
(a) Oct 1994

Question 14.
Match the following.
1. e Bay sold its first item – (i) July 1995
2. Amazon sold its first item – (ii) Aug 1994
3. The first business to business transactions – (iii) Sep 1995
4. First secure retail transaction on web – (iv) 1981
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)
(b) 1-(i) 2-(ii) 3-(iii) 4-(iv)
(c) 1 -(iv) 2-(iii) 3-(i) 4-(ii)
(d) 1-(ii) 2-(i) 3-(iv) 4-(iii)
Answer:
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)

Question 15.
Group on launched in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2008
(d) 2007
Answer:
(c) 2008

Question 16.
The first online-only shop is ……………………….
Answer:
Zappo’s

Question 17.
…………………….. means shopping at a distance.
Answer:
Teleshopping

Question 18.
eBay sold its first item-a broken ………………………
(a) laser printer
(b) laser pointer
(c) science textbook
(d) album
Answer:
(b) laser pointer

Question 19.
Amazon sold its first item ………………………..
(a) science textbook
(b) Maths textbook
(c) Tamil textbook
(d) English textbook
Answer:
(a) science textbook

Question 20.
The dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth of economy that occured roughly between …………………… and …………………….
(a) 1990-95
(b) 1995-2000
(c) 2005-2010
(d) 2015-20
Answer:
(b) 1995-2000

Question 21.
The another name for Dotcom Burst is …………………………
Answer:
Doctom Crash

Question 22.
How many types of E-commerce Business models are there?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 23.
Outsourcing and Off shoring comes under …………………….. Business models?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 24.
The commercial transactions that takes place between business firms and their consumers are ………………………
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 25.
When a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as ………………………. model.
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(c) B2G

Question 26.
Which model is also called as reverse auction model?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(d) C2B

Question 27.
C2C can be termed as ………………………..
(a) C2B2C
(b) CCB22
(c) 22CCB
(d) B2C2B
Answer:
(a) C2B2C

Question 28.
Find the Wrongly matched pair.
(i) yatra.com – C2B
(ii) Income tax – C2G
(iii) Income tax – C2G
(iv) ebiz.gov.in – G2B
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Answer:
(d) (iv)

Question 30.
Matrimonial websites come under ……………………… models.
(a) C2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2B
(d) C2C
Answer:
(d) C2C

Question 31.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) house tax payments
(b) Income tax payments
(c) auction payments
(d) fess for issuance of certificates
Answer:
(c) auction payments

Question 32.
Which model is a part of e-govemance?
(a) G2B
(b) B2C
(c) C2G
(d) G2G
Answer:
(a) G2B

Question 33.
How many types of classifications of G2G systems are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 34.
Affiliate site is also called as …………………….
Answer:
price comparision website

Question 35.
…………………… collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items.
Answer:
Bulk-Buying Sites

Question 36.
Identify the statement which is wrong about E-commerce
(а) Resource focus demand sick
(b) Business Relationship is linear
(c) one to one marketing
(d) products can’t be inspected physically before purchase
Answer:
(b) Business Relationship is linear

Question 37.
Which among the following is not the benefits of E-commerce?
(a) Access to global market
(b) lower Transaction cost
(c) High cost of entry
(d) computer platform-independent
Answer:
(c) High cost of entry

Question 38.
ARmeans ………………………
Answer:
Augument reality

Question 39.
VR means ……………………..
Answer:
Virtual Reality

Question 40.
……………………….. is a 3-dimensional experience of witnessing the virtual items by augmenting the real objects with the virtual ones.
Answer:
Augument Reality

Question 41.
………………….. an online platform for writing articles about a topic.
Answer:
Blog

Question 42.
……………………. is the term that refers to a business that has a physical store; opposite of online store.
Answer:
Brick and Mortar

Question 43.
……………………… a free, open source online blogging platform.
Answer:
Word press

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
When a company is called as E-Business?
Answer:
A company can be called E-Business if and only if –

1. It has the ability to conduct business electronically over Internet.
2. It manages payment transaction through Internet.
3. It has a platform for selling products & services via Internet.

Question 2.
What is a teleputer?
Answer:
Teleputer, which was a fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom networking technologies.

Question 3.
Classify of E-commerce Business Models?
Answer:

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

Question 4.
Write note on Business to Consumer?
Answer:
Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

Question 5.
Classify G2G models?
Answer:
G2G systems can be classified into two types:

1. Internal facing or local level-joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
2. External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the Benefits of E-commerce to a business organisation?
Answer:
Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation.

1. Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

2. Lower Transaction Cost:
E-Commerce reduces the cost of business transactions substantially. For instance, significant number of customer service representatives in a bank can be reduced by using net banking. Since these interactions are initiated by customers, the customers provide a lot of data for the transactions that may otherwise need to be entered by employees. This means that some of the work and costs are effectively shifted to customers; this is referred as‘customer outsourcing’.

3. 24×7 working:
A website is open all 24 hours, 7 days in a week. As E-Commerce firm can provide information about its products and services to customers around the clock, it can thus, take
orders, keep an eye on delivery of goods and receive payments at any time.

4. Low cost of entry:
Though E-Commerce was fist emerged in private networks it did not remain the same. Internet has changed the face of E-Commerce. The Internet is all about democratization. Internet is a place where the small guy can effectively fight against the giants and hope to win. Days when E-Commerce was only for affordable large national chains are gone.
Today, it is common for retailers to move their traditional store to online with very less add-on only for building a good website.

5. Computer platform-independent:
Most computers have the ability to communicate via the Internet, irrespective of operating systems and hardware. Consumers need not have to upgrade their computer or network to participate in E-Commerce. They are not limited by existing hardware or software.

Also the E-Commerce company need not worry about fast changes in computer network technology. E-Commerce applications can be more efficiently developed and distributed because they are platform independent. Internet’s altruism helps E-Commerce.

6. Snapping middleman:
E-Commerce enjoys the benefit of bypassing middlemen and reaching the end customer directly through Internet. In B2C E-Commerce business firms establish a direct contact with their customers by eliminating middlemen. It helps to increase the sales of the organization without any interventions. This results in cheaper price for consumers and higher
profit margins for the companies.

Question 2.
Explain various limitations of Ecommerce for a business organisation?
Answer:
1. People won’t buy all products online:
There are certain products like high price jewels, clothes or furnishings which people might not like to buy online. They might want to, inspect it, feel the texture of the fabric etc. which are not possible in E-Commerce. As the online shopping does not allow physical inspection, customers have to rely on electronic images of the products.

E-Commerce is an effective means for buying known and established services, that is, things that are being used every day. Example booking tickets, buying books, music CDs and software. It is not suitable for dealing with the new or unexpected. Traditional commerce always takes advantage when it is perishables and touch and feel products.

2. Competition and Corporate vulnerability:
Access to Global Market is an beneficial on one hand but it also come with a competition. Open Internet has paved way to all business firms to operate in the global market. Many businesses have been already facing international competition from web-enabled business opponents.

The competitors may access product details, catalogs, and other information about a business through its website and makes it vulnerable. They might then indulge in web harvesting. Web harvesting is the illegal activity of extracting business intelligence from competitor’s web pages.

3. Security:
Security remains to be a problem for E-Commerce. Customers might be reluctant to give their credit card number to the website. As lot of cyber frauds takes place in E-Commerce transactions, people generally afraid to provide their personal information. Legal issues arise when the customer’s data falls in the hands of strangers. Fraudulent activities in traditional commerce is comparatively less as there is personal interaction between the buyer and the seller.

4. Customer loyalty:
Business cannot survive long without loyal customers. The customers would like to buy from a website where they are able to get the best deal. They cannot be loyal to a particular seller. In traditional commerce, shopkeeper would interact with the consumer “face-to-face” and gain their loyalty too.

In E-Commerce, the interaction between the business and the consumer is “screen-to-face”. The customers would feel that they do not have received sufficient personal attention. Since there is no personal touch in E-Business, companies could not win over their loyalty easily.

5. Shortage of skilled employees:
Though most of the process in E-Commerce is automated, some sectors like packaging and delivery, needs manual interventions. There could be problems related to shipping delays which would need technically qualified staff with an aptitude to resolve.

E-Commerce has difficulty in recruiting, training and retaining talented people. There is a great shortage of skilled employees. Traditional organizational structures and poor work cultures in some places inhibit the growth of E-Commerce.

6. Size and value of transactions:
The delivery cost of a pen surpasses the cost of pen itself. E-Commerce is most often conducted using credit card for payments, and as a result very small and very large transactions tend not to be conducted online.

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Taxonomy and Systematic Botany Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Specimen derived from non – original collection serves as the nomenclatural type, when original specimen is missing. It is known as …………… .
(a) Holotype
(b) Neotype
(c) Isotype
(d) Paratype
Answer:
(b) Neotype

Question 2.
Phylogenetic classification is the most favoured classification because it reflects …………… .
(a) Comparative Anatomy
(b) Number of flowers produced
(c) Comparative cytology
(d) Evolutionary relationships
Answer:
(d) Evolutionary relationships

Question 3.
The taxonomy which involves the similarities and dissimilarities among the immune system of different taxa is termed as …………… .
(a) Chemotaxonomy
(b) Molecular systematics
(c) Serotaxonomy
(d) Numerical taxonomy
Answer:
(c) Serotaxonomy

Question 4.
Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen – fixing micro – organisms?
(a) Crotalaria juncea
(b) Cycas revoluta
(c) Cicer arietinum
(d) Casuarina equisetifolia
Answer:
(a) Crotalaria juncea

Question 5.
Flowers are zygomorphic in …………… .
(a) Ceropegia
(b) Thevetia
(c) Datura
(d) Solarium
Answer:
(a) Ceropegia

Question 6.
What is the role of national gardens in conserving biodiversity – discuss.
Answer:
Botanical Gardens plays the following important roles.

1. Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata
2. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.
3. Garden is used for self-instruction or demonstration purposes.

Question 7.
Where will you place the plants which contain two cotyledons with cup shaped thalamus?
Answer:
The plants which contain two cotyledons with cup shaped thalamus:

• Class: Dicotyledonae
• Subclass: Polypetalae
• Series: Calyciflorae

Question 8.
How does molecular markers work to unlock the evolutionary history of organisms?
Answer:
Molecular taxonomy using molecular markers like RAPD’s etc, helps in establishing the relationship between the members of different taxonomic groups at DNA level. Thus it helps to unlock the evolutionary history of  organisms.

Question 9.
Give the floral characters of Clitoria ternatea.
Answer:
Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.

Question 10.
How will you distinguish Solanaceae members from Liliaceae members?
Answer:

Characters	Solanaceae members	Liliaceae members
Root	Branched taproot	Adventitious fibrous root
Stem	Herbaceous	bulbous / rhizomatous
Leaf	Reticulate venation	Parallel venation
Inflorescence	Solitary and axillary cyme	Simple or branched raceme
Flowers	pentamerous	Trimerous
Androecium	Stamens 5, epipetalous	Stamens 6, epiphyllous
Gynoecium	Bicarpellary	Tricarpellary

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Write common name and scientific name of 10 different plants around your home.
Answer:

Common name of plants	Scientific name of plants
1. Mango	1. Mangifera indica
2. Banana	2. Musa paradisiaca
3. Shoe flower	3. Hibiscus rosa – sinensis
4. Neem	4. Azadirachta indica
5. Coconut	5. Cocus nucifera
6. Rice	6. Oryza sativa
7. Onion	7. Allium cepa
8. Tomato	8. Solanum lycopersicum
9. Carrot	9. Dacus carota
10. Brinjal	10. Solanum melongena

Question 2.
Can you identify this?

(a) Name the family
(b) Write the binomial
(c) List the economic uses
Answer:
(a) Liliaceae family
(b) Aloe vera
(c) List the economic uses:

• The gel – like part of Aloe vera contain proteole enzymes which repairs and rejunuveates the skin.
• It acts as a great conditioner for hair.
• Aloe juice acts as coolant and soothes gastric problems like ulcer.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved

Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
Leaves become modified into spines in …………… . [AIPMT – 2015]
(a) Silk Cotton
(b) Opuntia
(c) Pea
(d) Onion
Answer:
(b) Opuntia

Question 2.
Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of …………… . [AIPMT – 2015]
(a) Tomato
(b) Tulip
(c) Indigofera
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Indigofera

Question 3.
Perigynous flowers are found in …………… .[AIPMT – 2015]
(a) Rose
(b) Guava
(c) Cucumber
(d) China rose
Answer:
(a) Rose

Question 4.
Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT – 2014]
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode
Answer:
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

Question 5.
An example of edible underground stem is …………… . [AIPMT – 2014]
(a) Carrot
(b) Groundnut
(c) Sweet potato
(d) Potato
Answer:
(d) Potato

Question 6.
Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in …………… . [AIPMT – 2014]
(a) Apple
(b) Banana
(c) Tomato
(d) Potato
Answer:
(c) Tomato

Question 7.
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as …………… . [AIPMT – 2014]
(a) Vexillary
(b) Imbricate
(c) Twisted
(d) Valvate
Answer:
(b) Imbricate

Question 8.
An aggregate fruit is one which develops from …………… . [AIPMT – 2014]
(a) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(c) Complete inflorescence
(d) Multicarpellary superior ovary
Answer:
(b) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

Question 9.
Non – albuminous seed is produced in …………… .
(a) Maize
(b) Castor
(c) Wheat
(d) Pea
Answer:
(d) Pea

Question 10.
Seed coat is not thin, membranous in …………… .
(a) Coconut
(b) Groundnut
(c) Gram
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Coconut

Question 11.
In china rose the flower are …………… .
(a) Actinomorphic,. Epigynous with valvate aestivation
(b) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
(c) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
Answer:
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

Question 12.
Placentation in tomato and lemon is …………… .
(a) Marginal
(b) Axile
(c) Parietal
(d) Free central
Answer:
(b) Axile

Question 13.
Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family …………… .
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Asteraceae
Answer:
(c) Fabaceae

Question 14.
Phyllode is present in …………… . [AIPMT Prelims – 2012]
(a) Australian Acacia
(b) Opuntia
(c) Asparagus
(d) Euphorbia
Answer:
(c) Asparagus

Question 15.
How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence? Walnut, poppy, radish,pineapple, apple, tomato …………… . [AIPMT Prelims – 2012]
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 16.
Cymose inflorescence is present in …………… . [AIPMT Prelims – 2012]
(a) Trifolium
(b) Brassica
(c) Solanum
(d) Sesbania
Answer:
(b) Brassica

Question 17.
Which one of the following organism is correctly matched with its three characteristics? [AIPMT Mains – 2012]
(a) Pea : C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed,Vexillary aestivation
(b) Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(c) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(d) Maize : C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, scutellum
Answer:
(c) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Question 18.
How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar,sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion,Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin …………… . [AIPMT Mains – 2012]
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
Answer:
(c) Six

Question 19.
The Eyes of the potato tuber are …………… . [AIPMT Prelims – 2011]
(a) Axillary buds
(b) Root buds
(c) Flower buds
(d) Shoot buds
Answer:
(a) Axillary buds

Question 20.
Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT Prelims – 2011]
(a) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
(b) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(c) Seeds of orchids have oil – rich endosperm
(d) Placentation in primrose is basal
Answer:
(d) Placentation in primrose is basal

Question 21.
A drup develops in …………… . [AIPMT Prelims-2011]
(a) Tomato
(b) Mango
(c) Wheat
(d) Pea
Answer:
(b) Mango

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Taxonomy and Systematic Botany Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer:
Question 1.
Who is called as the father of Botany?
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Darwin
(d) Thales
Answer:
(b) Theophrastus

Question 2.
…………… is the lowest level of classification.
(a) Kingdom
(b) Class
(c) Order
(d) Species
Answer:
(d) Species

Question 3.
Who proposed the concept of “idos” or species?
(a) Theophrastus
(b) Stebbians
(c) Darwin
(d) Plato
Answer:
(d) Plato

Question 4.
Which type of species develop by the process of evolution?
(a) Taxonomic species
(b) Morphological species
(c) Biological species
(d) Phylogenetic species
Answer:
(c) Biological species

Question 5.
Who first proposed the early elementary rule of naming plants?
(a) A.P.de Candolle
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Alphonse de Candolle
(d) Simpson
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 6.
Isolation species can also be called as …………… Species.
(a) Biological
(b) Taxonomical
(c) Phylogenetic
(d) Morphological
Answer:
(a) Biological

Question 7.
18^th International Botanical congress was held at …………… .
(a) Sydney
(b) Leningard
(c) Melbourne
(d) London
Answer:
(c) Melbourne

Question 8.
In 2017, …………… International Botanical congress was held at Shenzhen.
(a) 17^th
(b) 18^th
(c) 19^th
(d) 20^th
Answer:
(c) 19^th

Question 9.
The vernacular name of Albizia amara in South Tamilnadu is …………… .
(a) Thurinji
(b) Kurinji
(c) Nithyakalyani
(d) Usilai
Answer:
(d) Usilai

Question 10.
…………… is a descriptive phrase of a plant.
(a) Vernacular name
(b) Binomial
(c) Polynomial
(d) Botanical name
Answer:
(c) Polynomial

Question 11.
…………… introduced the concept of Binomial nomenclature.
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Gaspard Bauhin
(c) Darwin
(d) Wallace
Answer:
(b) Gaspard Bauhin

Question 12.
Duplicate specimen of holotype is …………… .
(a) Lectotype
(b) Isotype
(c) Neotype
(d) Syntype
Answer:
(b) Isotype

Question 13.
…………… are the tools for identifying unfamiliar plants.
(a) Flora
(b) Keys
(c) Monograph
(d) Catalogues
Answer:
(b) Keys

Question 14.
…………… is a complete global account of a taxon of any rank.
(a) Flora
(b) Keys
(c) Monograph
(d) Catalogues
Answer:
(c) Monograph

Question 15.
The first botanical garden was established and maintained by …………… .
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Babylonians
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Stebbins
Answer:
(c) Theophrastus

Question 16.
First modern botanical garden was established by …………… .
(a) Theophrastus
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Luca Ghini
(d) Stebbins
Answer:
(c) Luca Ghini

Question 17.
…………… is the largest botanical garden in world.
(a) Royal Botanical garden
(b) Madras Presidency College
(c) Indian Botanical Garden
(d) New York Botanical garden
Answer:
(a) Royal Botanical garden

Question 18.
Who is called as father of taxonomy?
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 19.
Number of stamen(s) in monandria is …………… .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 20.
Sexual system of classification is also called as …………… .
(a) Natural system
(b) Artificial system
(c) Phylogenetic
(d) APG system
Answer:
(b) Artificial system

Question 21.
Number of series under Polypetalae.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 22.
Which series includes epigynous flowers with inferior ovary?
(a) Heteromerae
(b) Disaflorea
(c) Inferae
(d) Thalanifloreae
Answer:
(c) Inferae

Question 23.
Undistinguished sepal and petal is called as …………… .
(a) Petaloid
(b) Staminode
(c) Perianth
(d) Sepaloid
Answer:
(c) Perianth

Question 24.
Which is not a family of gymnospermae?
(a) Gnetaceae
(b) Equistae
(c) Coniferae
(d) Cycadaceae
Answer:
(b) Equistae

Question 25.
Which is not a monocotyledon character?
(a) One cotyledon
(b) Parallel venation
(c) Pentamerous
d) Fibrous root
Answer:
(c) Pentamerous

Question 26.
Number of divisions in Engler and Prantl classification?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(d) 13

Question 27.
“The evolution and classification of flowering plants” – book was written by …………… .
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Cronquist
(d) Theophrasthus
Answer:
(c) Cronquist

Question 28.
Which of the following is not a clade of APG – classification?
(a) Early angiosperm
(b) Early gymnosperm
(c) Monocots
(d) Eudicots
Answer:
(b) Early gymnosperm

Question 29.
The term biosystematics was introduced by …………… .
(a) Bauhin
(b) Camp & Gilly
(c) Cronquist
(d) Smith
Answer:
(b) Camp & Gilly

Question 30.
Taxonomy based on chromosomal number & characteristics is called …………… .
(a) Serotaxonomy
(b) Cytotaxonomy
(c) Chemotaxonomy
(d) Molecular taxonomy
Answer:
(b) Cytotaxonomy

Question 31.
Classification based on protein content is called …………… .
(a) Serotaxonomy
(b) Cytotaxonomy
(c) Chemotaxonomy
(d) Molecular taxonomy
Answer:
(a) Serotaxonomy

Question 32.
DNA bar coding was introduced by …………… .
(a) Stebbins
(b) Hebert
(c) Camp & Gilly
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(b) Hebert

Question 33.
Biosystematics is also called as …………… .
(a) α – taxonomy
(b) S – taxonomy
(c) Ω – taxonomy
(d) β – taxonomy
Answer:
(c) Ω – taxonomy

Question 34.
Outcome of cladistics analysis is …………… .
(a) Monogram
(b) Monograph
(c) Cladogram
(d) Cladograph
Answer:
(c) Cladogram

Question 35.
Taxa comprising all the descendents of a common ancestor.
(a) Monophyletic group
(b) Diphyletic group
(c) Paraphyletic group
(d) Polyphyletic group
Answer:
(a) Monophyletic group

Question 36.
Papilionaceous corolla is seen in …………… family.
(a) Apocyanaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer:
(b) Fabaceae

Question 37.
Stipitate ovary is seen in …………… .
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Apocyanaceae
Answer:
(a) Solanaceae

Question 38.
Number of genus in fabaceae is …………… .
(a) about 131
(b) about 741
(c) about 751
(d) about 761
Answer:
(b) About 741

Question 39.
The characteristic fruit of fabaceae is …………… .
(a) Regima
(b) Legume
(c) Hespiridium
(d) Berry
Answer:
(b) Legume

Question 40.
In Arachis hypogea, the fruit development is …………… .
(a) Syncarpic
(b) Apocarpic
(c) Geocarpic
(d) Photocarpic
Answer:
(c) Geocarpic

Question 41.
Which of the following plants root is a Immunomodulator?
(a) Glycirrhiza glabra
(b) Dalbergia latifolia
(c) Mucum pruriens
(d) Crotolaria jurcea
Answer:
(a) Glycirrhiza glabra

Question 42.
Indigo dye is obtained from plant.
(a) Lupin
(b) Avuri
(c) Sesban
(d) Agathi
Answer:
(b) Avuri

Question 43.
Which plant is commonly called as the “Flame of the forest”?
(a) Clitoritematea
(b) Butea frondosa
(c) Lupinus hirsutus
(d) Butea monosperma
Answer:
(b) Butea frondosa

Question 44.
Which year is declared as the “International year of the pulses”.
(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2015
(d) 2016
Answer:
(d) 2016

Question 45.
Which is called as “Night Shade family”?
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Apocyanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer:
(a) Solanaceae

Question 46.
Rhiphidium inflorescence is seen in …………… .
(a) Solanum nigrum
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Datura
(d) Withania somnifera
Answer:
(a) Solatium nigrum

Question 47.
The fruit of Datura metal is …………… .
(a) Spinescent Capsule
(b) Regma
(c) Legume
(d) Capsule
Answer:
(a) Spinescent capsule

Question 48.
Plicate inflorescence is seen in …………… .
(a) Solanum nigrum
(b) Datura metal
(c) Petunia hybrida
(d) Solanum tuberosum
Answer:
(b) Datura metal

Question 49.
…………… drug is used to treat asthma & whooping cough.
(a) Atropine
(b) Stramonium
(c) Anabasine
(d) Normicotine
Answer:
(b) Stramonium

Question 50.
Inflorescence in Aloe is …………… .
(a) Compound Spadix
(b) Spike
(c) Paricle
(d) Solitary
Answer:
(b) Spike

Question 51.
Carpels are obliquely placed in …………… .
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Liliaceae
(d) Apocyanaeae
Answer:
(b) Solanaceae

Question 52.
Septal glands are present in the gynoeciums of …………… .
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Apocyanaeae
Answer:
(b) Liliaceae

Question 53.
…………… is an alkaloid that induces polyploidy.
(a) Nictonine
(b) Stramonium
(c) Atropine
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 54.
The leaves of …………… is used in hemorrhoidal salves & shampoos.
(a) Aloe barbadense
(b) Aloevera
(c) Allium sativum
(d) Allium cepa
Answer:
(b) Aloevera

Question 55.
Botanical survey of India has …………… regional centres in India.
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(b) 11

Question 56.
Synstamenous condition is seen in …………… .
(a) Haemodorum
(b) Ruscus
(c) Paris quadrfolia
(d) Maianthenum
Answer:
(b) Ruscus

Question 57.
Scapigerous inflorescence is seen in …………… .
(a) Allium sativum
(b) Allium cepa
(c) Aloevera
(d) Maenodorum
Answer:
(b) Allium cepa

Question 58.
Number of stamens in Schizanthus is …………… .
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 59.
Extra axillary scorpiod cyme is called …………… .
(a) Spike
(b) Monochasical cyme
(c) Helicoid cyme
(d) Rhiphidium
Answer:
(d) Rhiphidium

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define Taxonomy.
Answer:
Taxonomy is “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules and procedures”.

Question 2.
List out the various rank or taxa of taxonomic hierarchy.
Answer:
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Question 3.
Which is the lowest taxon in classification? Define.
Answer:
Species is the lowest taxon in classification. It is defined as the group of individuals which are closely resembling each other and interbreed among themselves producing fertile offspring.

Question 4.
Define Nomenclature.
Answer:
Assigning name for a plant is known as Nomenclature.

Question 5.
What are vernacular names? Give an example.
Answer:
Vernacular names are known as common names. Example: Albizia amara L. is called as Usilai in South Tamil Nadu and Thurinji in North Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
What is Author citation?
Answer:
Author citation refers to valid name of the taxa accompanied by the author’s name who published the name validly. Example: Solanum nigrum L.

Question 7.
Define e – Flora.
Answer:
Electronic Floras (e – floras) is the digitized form of a flora published online.
Example: e – Flora China. This provides the information and also functions as an identification tool.

Question 8.
When a neotype specimen is selected?
Answer:
Neotype Specimen is derived from non – original collection selected as the type, when original specimen is missing or destroyed.

Question 9.
What do you mean by taxonomical aids?
Answer:
Tools, techniques, procedures and stored information that are useful in identification and classification of organisms are called taxonomical aids.

Question 10.
Differentiate Regional Flora from continental flora.
Answer:
Regional Flora from continental flora.

1. Regional Flora: Flora covering a large geographical area or a botanical region Ex: flora of Madras Presidency.
2. Continental Flora: Flora covering the entire continent. Ex: flora of Europaea.

Question 11.
What is Herbarium specimen?
Answer:
Herbarium Specimen is defined as a pressed and dried plant sample that is permanently glued or strapped to a sheet of paper along with a documentation label.

Question 12.
Name the major classes of Bentham & Hooker Classification.
Answer:
The major classes of Bentham & Hooker Classification:

• Class 1 – Dicotyledonae
• Class 2 – Gymnospermae
• Class 3 – Monocotyledonae

Question 13.
How Cronquist classified the angiosperms?
Answer:
Cronquist classified the angiosperms into two main classes Magnoliopsida and Liliopsida.

Question 14.
Cronquist classification is a failure. Justify.
Answer:
Cronquist classification system is not very useful for identification and cannot be adopted in herbaria due to its high phylogenetic nature.

Question 15.
Which is the most recent classification of flowering plants? How many versions it had been published so far?
Answer:
Angiosperm phylogeny group classification (APG) is the recent classification of flowering plants. APG I, APG II, APG III, APG IV are the four versions.

Question 16.
Name any 4 sub classes of Liliopsida.
Answer:
4 sub classes of Liliopsid:

1. Alismatidae
2. Arecidae
3. Commelinidae
4. Zingiberidae

Question 17.
Why the classification undergoes changes very often?
Answer:
Classification reflects the state of our knowledge at a given point of time. It will continue to change as we acquire new information.

Question 18.
Point out the aims of chemotaxonomy.
Answer:
The aims of chemotaxonomy:

1. To develop taxonomic characters which may improve existing system of plant classification.
2. To improve present day knowledge of phylogeny of plants.

Question 19.
Define Biosystematics.
Answer:
Biosystematics is an “Experimental, ecological and cytotaxonomy” through which life forms are studied and their relationships are defined.

Question 20.
Name few molecular markers used in molecular taxonomy.
Answer:
Allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, micro satellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), Single nucleotide Polymorphism – SNP, microchips or arrays.

Question 21.
List out the significance of DNA bar coding?
Answer:
The significance of DNA bar coding:

1. DNA bar coding greatly helps in identification and classification of organism.
2. It aids in mapping the extent of biodiversity.

Question 22.
State the demerits of RAPD analysis.
Answer:
RAPD analysis has the major disadvantage that results are difficult to replicate and in the homology of similar bands in different taxa may be nuclear.

Question 23.
Define Cladistics.
Answer:
The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called Cladistics.

Question 24.
Define Cladogram.
Answer:
The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram, a tree – shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships.

Question 25.
The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as “DNA tags” or “DNA barcodes”.
Answer:
The system of naming the organism with two names, generic name and specific (species)
name is known as binomial system of nomenclature, e.g. Pavo cistatus – Indian pea fowl.

Question 26.
Compare the Gynoecium of Pisum sativum and Datura metal.
Answer:
Gynoecium of Pisum sativum:

1. Mono Carpellary
2. Unilocular
3. Ovules on marginal placentation
4. Feathery stigma

Gynoecium of Datura metal:

1. Bicarpellary
2. Tetralocular
3. Ovules on axile placentation
4. Bilobed stigma

Question 27.
Write the floral formula of Pisum sativum.
Answer:

Question 28.
Name binomial name of any two oil plants of Fabaceae.
Answer:
Two oil plants of Fabaceae:

1. Arachis hypogea (Ground nut) and
2. Pongamia pinnata (Pungam).

Question 29.
Explain the classical taxonomical tools.
Answer:
Extra axillary scorpiod cyme is called rhiphidium.

Question 30.
Name the type of fruit seen in Capsicum and Datura.
Answer:
The type of fruit seen in Capsicum and Datura:

1. Capsicum – Berry
2. Datura – Capsule

Question 31.
What is atropine?
Answer:
Atropine is a powerful alkaloid obtained from Atropa belladonna root is used in belladonna plasters, tinctures etc, for relieving pain and also for dilating pupils of eyes for eye – testing.

Question 32.
What is Stramonium?
Answer:
Stramonium is a drug obtained from the leaves and roots of Datura stramonium and used to treat asthma and whooping cough.

Question 33.
Which stimulated Engler and Prantl to prepare phylogenic classification?
Answer:
The publication of the Origin of Species (1859) by Charles Darwin has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification.

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
How dichotomous key helps in identification of plants?
Answer:
Dichotomous key consists of a sequence of two contrasting statements. A pair of contrasting statements is known as couplet. Each statement is known as lead. The plant is correctly identified with keys by narrowing down the characters found in plant.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Taxonomy & Systematics.
Answer:
Taxonomy:

1. Discipline of classifying organisms into taxa
2. Governs the practices of naming, describing, identifying and specimen preservation.
3. Classification + Nomenclature = Taxonomy

Systematics:

1. Broad field of biology that studies the diversification of species
2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy
3. Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics

Question 3.
Write a note on Binomial nomenclature.
Answer:
binomial nomenclature, the first one is called genus name and second one is specific epithet. Example: Mangifera indica, Mangifera is a genus name and indica is specific epithet.

Question 4.
Enumerate the steps involved in herbarium preparation.
Answer:
Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps.

1. Plant Collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Mounting herbarium specimen
5. Herbarium labels
6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects

Question 5.
Why do we need the classification of organisms?
Answer:
The classification of organisms:

1. Understanding the classification of organisms can gives an insight into other fields and has significant practical value.
2. Classification helps us to know about different taxa, their phylogenetic relationship and exact position.
3. It helps to train the students of plant sciences with regard to the diversity of organisms and their relationship with other biological branches.

Question 6.
Classification is a essential part of biology – Justify.
Answer:
Classification is essential to biology because there is a vast diversity of organisms to sort out and compare. Unless they are organized into manageable categories it will be difficult for identification.

Question 7.
Linnaeus classification is also called sexual system of classification. Why?
Answer:
Linnaeus classification is mostly based on sexual characters like number, union, length and distribution of stamens and also on carpel characters. Hence it is called sexual system of classification.

Question 8.
Write a note on Monochlamydeae.
Answer:
Plants with incomplete flowers either apetalous or with undifferentiated calyx and corolla are placed under Monochlamydeae. The sepals and petals are not distinguished and they are called perianth. Sometimes both the whorls are absent. Monochlamydeae includes 8 series and 36 families.

Question 9.
In chemotaxonomy, how the chemicals are categorised?
Answer:
The chemical characters can be divided into three main categories:

1. Easily visible characters like starch grains, silica etc.
2. Characters detected by chemical tests like phenolics, oil, fats, waxes etc.
3. Proteins

Question 10.
Define Serotaxonomy.
Answer:
The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called serotaxonomy.

Question 11.
What is Molecular taxonomy?
Answer:
Molecular Taxonomy is the branch of phylogeny that analyses hereditary molecular differences, mainly in DNA sequences, to gain information and to establish genetic relationship between the members of different taxonomic categories.

Question 12.
Point out the uses of molecular taxonomy.
Answer:
The uses of molecular taxonomy:

1. Molecular taxonomy helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at DNA level.
2. It unlocks the treasure chest of information on evolutionary history of organisms.

Question 13.
How RFLP helps in taxonomical studies?
Answer:
RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism): RFLP’s is a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA. It refers to differences between taxa in restriction sites and therefore the lengths of fragments of DNA following cleavage with restriction enzymes.

Question 14.
Define DNA barcoding.
Answer:
DNA barcoding is a taxonomic method that uses a very short genetic sequence from a standard part of a genome. The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as “DNA tags” or “DNA barcodes”. Paul Hebert in 2003 proposed “DNA barcoding” and he is considered as ‘Father of barcoding’.

Question 15.
In which organelle of plant cell does the barcode genes are located? Name the genes.
Answer:
Chloroplast, the genes are matK and rbcL.

Question 16.
Differentiate between Monophyletic group and paraphyletic group.
Answer:
1. Monophyletic Group: Taxa comprising all the descendants of a common ancestor

2. Paraphyletic Group: Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor.

Question 17.
Why do we need Cladistics?
Answer:
Cladistics:

1. Cladistics is now the most commonly used and accepted method for creating phylogenetic system of classifications.
2. Cladistics produces a hypothesis about the relationship of organism to predict the morphological characteristics of organism.
3. Cladistics helps to elucidate mechanism of evolution.

Question 18.
Write a note on the petals of papilionaceous Corolla.
Answer:
The outer most petal is large called standard petal or vexillum. Lateral 2 petals are lanceolate and curved. They are called wing petals or alae. Anterior two petals are partly fused and are called keel petals or carina which encloses the stamens and pistil.

Question 19.
Draw the floral diagram of Pisum sativum.
Answer:

Question 20.
Write systematic position of Solanaceae based on APG classification.
Answer:

Kingdom	Plantae
1. Clade	1. Angiosperms
2. Clade	2. Eudicot
3. Clade	3. Asterids
4. Clade	4. Solanales
5. Family	5. Solanaceae

Question 21.
Mention the diagnostic features of Liliaceae member.
Answer:
The diagnostic features of Liliaceae member:

1. Perennial herbs often with bulbous stem / rhizomes
2. Radical leaves
3. Perianth showy
4. Stamens six
5. Ovary superior

Question 22.
Write systematic position of liliaceae based of Bentham and Hooker Classification?
Answer:
Systematic Position:

Kingdom	Plantae
1. Class	1. Monocotyledons
2. Series	2. Coronarieae
3. Order	3. Liliales
4. Family	4. Liliaceae

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
List out the principles of ICN.
Answer:
International Code of Nomenclature is based on the following six principles.

1. Botanical nomenclature is independent of zoological and bacteriological nomenclature.
2. Application of names of taxonomic group is determined by means of nomenclatural types.
3. Nomenclature of a taxonomic group is based on priority of publication.
4. Each taxonomic group with a particular circumscription, position and rank can bear only one correct name, the earliest that is in accordance with the rules except in specified cases.
5. Scientific names of taxonomic groups are treated as Latin regardless of their derivation.
6. The rules of nomenclature are retroactive unless expressly limited.

Question 2.
Explain the role of Botanical garden in taxonomy.
Answer:
Botanical gardens play the following important roles.

1. Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata.
2. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.
3. Garden is used for self-instruction or demonstration purposes.
4. It can integrate information of diverse fields like Anatomy, Embryology, Phytochemistry, Cytology, Physiology and Ecology.
5. Act as a conservation centre for diversity, rare and endangered species.
6. It offers annual list of available species and a free exchange of seeds.
7. Botanical garden gives information about method of propagation, sale of plant material to the general public.

Question 3.
Enumerate the uses of Herbarium.
Answer:
The uses of Herbarium:

1. Herbarium provides resource material for systematic research and studies.
2. It is a place for orderly arrangement of voucher specimens.
3. Voucher specimen serves as a reference for comparing doubtful newly collected fresh specimens.
4. Voucher specimens play a role in studies like floristic diversity, environmental assessment, ecological mechanisms and survey of unexplored areas.
5. Herbarium provides opportunity for documenting biodiversity and studies related to the field of ecology and conservation biology.

Question 4.
Point out the characters of Early angiosperm according to APG Classification.
Answer:
The characters of Early angiosperm according to APG Classification:

1. Seeds always with two cotyledons.
2. Presence of ethereal oils.
3. Leaves are always simple net – veined
4. Each floral whorls with many parts
5. Perianth usually spirally arranged or parts in threes
6. Stamens with broad filaments
7. Anthers tetrasporangiate
8. Pollen monosulcate
9. Nectaries are rare
10. Carpels usually free and
11. Embryo very small

Question 5.
Draw a flow chart depicting the Bentham and Hooker Classification.
Answer:
Bentham and Hooker system of classification

Question 6.
Draw an outline of Engler & Prantl Classification.
Answer:

Question 7.
Define biosystematics & list out the aim of biosystematics.
Answer:
1. Biosystematics: Biosystematics is an “Experimental, ecological and cytotaxonomy” through which life forms are studied and their relationships are defined.
2. Aims of Biosystematics: The aims of biosystematics are as follows:

• To delimit the naturally occurring biotic community of plant species.
• To establish the evolution of a group of taxa by understanding the evolutionary and phylogenetic trends.
• To involve any type of data gathering based on modem concepts and not only on morphology and anatomy.
• To recognize the various groups as separate biosystematics categories such as ecotypes, ecospecies, cenospecies and comparium.

Question 8.
Distinguish between classical taxonomy & modern taxonomy.
Answer:
Classical Taxonomy:

1. It is called old systematics or Alpha (α) – taxonomy or Taxonomy
2. It is pre – Darwinean
3. Species is considered as basic unit and is static
4. Classification is mainly based on morphological characters
5. This system is based on the observation of a few samples / individuals

Modern Taxonomy:

1. It is called Neosystematics or Biosystematics or Omega (Ω) taxonomy
2. It is post – Darwinean
3. Species is considered as dynamic entity and ever changing
4. Classification is based on morphological, reproductive characters and phylogenetic (evolutionary) relationship of the organism
5. This system is based on the observation of large number of samples / individuals

Question 9.
List out the significance of Molecular Taxonomy.
Answer:
The significance of Molecular Taxonomy:

1. It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.
2. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated.
3. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.
4. DNA – based molecular markers used for designing DNA based molecular probes, have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

Question 10.
Explain Clitoria ternatea in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:

1. Habit: Twining climber
2. Root: Branched tap root system having nodules.
3. Stem: Aerial, weak stem and a twiner.
4. Leaf: Imparipinnately compound, alternate, stipulate showing reticulate venation. Leaflets are stipellate.
   Petiolate and stipels are pulvinated.
5. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary
6. Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.
7. Calyx: Sepals 5, synsepalous, green showing valvate aestivation. Odd repel is anterior in position.
8. Corolla: Petals 5, white or blue apopetalous, irregular papilionaceous corolla showing, descendingly imbricate aestivation.
9. Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous (9) + 1 nine stamens fused to form a bundle and the tenth stamen is free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introse and dechising by longitudinal slits.
10. Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, uni – locular, with many ovules on marginal placentation, ovary superior, style simple and incurved with feathery stigma.
11. Fruit: Legume
12. Seed: Non – endospermous, reniform.
13. Floral Formula:
    

Question 11.
Explain Datura metal in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:

1. Habit: Large, erect and stout herb.
2. Root: Branched tap root system.
3. Stem: Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.
4. Leaf: Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation.
5. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary cyme.
6. Flower: Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular, actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogynous.
7. Calyx: Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistant, odd sepal is posterior in position.
8. Corolla: Petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.
9. Androecium: Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, altemipetalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.
10. Gynoecium: Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically bilocular but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.
11. Fruit: Spinescent capsule opening by four special valves with persistent calyx.
12. Seed: Endospermous
13. Floral Formula:
    

Question 12.
Explain Allium cepa in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:
Botanical description of Allium cepa:

1. Habit: Perennial herb with bulb.
2. Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
3. Stem: Underground bulb
4. Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation.
5. Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e. the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
6. Flower: Small, white, bracteate, bracteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous. Flowers are protandrous.
7. Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
8. Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous / free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous. basifixed, introse and dehiscing longitudinally.
9. Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
10. Fruit: A loculicidal capsule.
11. Seed: Endospermous
12. Floral Formula:
    
    

Question 13.
List out the economic importance of plants & their uses of Fabaceae.
Answer:

Question 14.
List out the economic importance of plants & their uses of Solanaceae.
Answer:

Question 15.
List out the economic importance of plants & their uses of Liliaceae.
Answer:
Economic Importance of the Family Liliaceae:

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Neem is highly valued tree in Indian medicine. It is called by the name veppu in Malayalam, Arishta in Sanskrit, Vembu in Tamil, Nimbo in Portuguese. Suggest a solution for this varied naming problem considering as a taxonomist.
Answer:
As a taxonomist, this can be solved by using Binomial nomenclature. According to ICBN, every plant is given a scientific name which can be used in common all throughout the world. Thus neem is named as Azadirachta indica.

Question 2.
According to Binomial nomenclature, Human beings are named as Homosapiens. Following this, write the binomials for Brinjal and Rosewood.
Answer:
The binomials for Brinjal and Rosewood:

1. Brinjal – Solatium melongena
2. Rosewood – Dalbergia latifolia

Question 3.
Officially, every state in the Republic of India has its own flower, fruit etc. If Andhra Pradesh has Lotus as its state flower, what is the state flower of Tamil Nadu? Mention its family.
Answer:
State flower of Tamilnadu is Gloriosa superba belonging to Liliaceae family.

Question 4.
Peanut is a geocarpic fruit – Comment on the statement.
Answer:
In peanut (Arachis hypogea), after fertilisation, the stipe of ovary grows down into the soil, later develops & matures into fruit. Such a underground developed fruit is called geocarpic fruit.

Question 5.
You are given an entire plantlet of Clitoria ternatea. Give possible reasons to say that it is a dicot plantlet.
Answer:
Clitoria ternatea belongs to Dicots because:

1. The root is a tap root
2. Leaves show reticulate venation

Question 6.
Give possible terms explaining the gynoecium of a flower whose C.S. of ovary is given below.
Answer:

Tricarpellary, Trilocular, Syncarpous, 2 ovules in 1. Each ovule has axile placentation.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [Answers are in bold] [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If n(A × B) = 6 and A = {1, 3} then n (B) is ………….. .
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6
Answer:
(3) 3

Question 2.
Given F₁ = 1, F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1+ F_n-2 then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 3.
In an A.P., the first term is 1 and the common difference is 4. How many terms of the A.P must be taken for their sum to be equal to 120?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer:
(3) 8

Question 4.
f = {(2, a), (3, b), (4, b), (5, c)} is a ………….. .
(1) identity function
(2) one-one function
(3) many-one function
(4) constant function
Answer:
(3) many-one function

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the x axis is ………….. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 (or) 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
The non-diagonal elements in any unit matrix are ………….. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) m
(4) n
Answer:
(1) 0

Question 7.
If A is a 2′ 3 matrix and B is a 3′ 4 matrix, how many columns does AB have?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 4

Question 8.
In figure CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre at O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 7 cm then the length of BR is ………….. .

(1) 6 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 4 cm
Answer:
(4) 4 cm

Question 9
The slope of the line joining (12, 3), (4, a) is \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\). The value of ‘a’ is ………….. .
(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) -5
(4) 2
Answer:
(4) 2

Question 10.
If x = a tan θ and y = b sec θ then ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(2) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(4) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)

Question 11.
A letter is chosen at random from the letter of the word “PROBABILITY”. Find the probability that it is not a vowel.
(1) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 12.
The height of a right circular cone whose radius is 5 cm and slant height is 13 cm will be ………….. .
(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 5 cm
Answer:
(1) 12 cm

Question 13.
If the mean and co-efficient of variation of a data are 4 and 87.5% then the standard deviation is ………….. .
(1) 3.5
(2) 3
(3) 4.5
(4) 2.5
Answer:
(1) 3.5

Question 14.
Variance of first 20 natural numbers is ………….. .
(1) 32.25
(2) 44.25
(3) 33.25
(4) 30
Answer:
(3) 33.25

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Define a function.
Answer:
A relation “f” between two non-empty sets X and Y is called a function from X to Y if for each x ∈ X there exists only one y ∈ Y such that (x, y) ∈ f

Question 16.
Compute x such that 10⁴ ≡ x (mod 19)
Answer:
10² = 100 ≡ 5 (mod 19)
10⁴ = (10²)² ≡ 5² (mod 19)
10⁴ = 25 (mod 19)
10⁴ = 6 (mod 19)
(since 25 ≡ 6 (mod 19))
Therefore, x = 6

Question 7.
Simlify \(\frac{4 x^{2} y}{2 z^{2}} \times \frac{6 x z^{3}}{20 y^{4}}\)
Answer:

Question 18.
Pari needs 4 hours to complete the work. His friend Yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the work. How long will it take to complete if they work together?
Answer:
Let the work done by Pari and Yuvan together be x
Work done by Pari = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
Work done by Yuvan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
By the given condition
\(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{x} \Rightarrow \frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{1}{x}\)
\(\frac{5}{12}=\frac{1}{x}\)
5x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac{12}{5}\)
x = \(2 \frac{2}{5}\) hours (or) 2 hours 24 minutes

Question 19.
Find the values of x, y and z from the following equation \(\left( \begin{matrix} 12 & 3 \\ x & \frac { 3 }{ 2 } \end{matrix} \right) =\left( \begin{matrix} y & z \\ 3 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \)
Answer:
Since the given matrices are equal then all the corresponding elements are equal. y = 12, z = 3, x = 3
The value of x = 3, y = 12 and z = 3

Question 20.
What length of ladder is needed to reach a height of 7 ft along the wall when the base of the ladder is 4 ft from the wall? A
Answer:

Let x be the length of the ladder. BC = 4 ft, AC = 7 ft.
By Pythagoras theorem we have, AB² = AC² + BC²
x² = 7² + 4² gives x² = 49 + 16
x² = 65. Hence, x = √65
The number √65 is between 8 and 8.1.
8² = 64 < 65 < 65.61 = 8.1²
Therefore, the length of the ladder is approximately 8.1 ft.

Question 21.
Prove that \(\sqrt{\frac{1+\cos \theta}{1-\cos \theta}}\) = cosec θ + cot θ
Answer:

Question 22.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Answer:
Let the radius of the be “r”
Surface area of the sphere = 4πr²sq.units …… (1)
If the radius is increased by 25%
New radius = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 }\) × r + r
= \(\frac { r }{ 4 }\) + 4
= \(\frac{r+4 r}{4}=\frac{5 r}{4}\)
Surface area of the sphere
= 4π\(\left(\frac{5 r}{4}\right)^{2}\) sq.units
= 4 × π × \(\frac{25 r^{2}}{16}\)
= \(\frac{25 \pi r^{2}}{4}\) sq.units
Difference in surface area
= \(\frac{25 \pi r^{2}}{4}-4 \pi r^{2}\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{25}{4}-4\right)\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{25-16}{4}\right)\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{9}{4}\right)=\frac{9 \pi r^{2}}{4}\)
Percentage of increase in surface area

Percentage of increase in surface area = 56.25%

Question 23.
The standard deviation and mean of a data are 6.5 and 12.5 respectively. Find the coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation of a data (σ) = 6.5
Mean of the data (x̄) = 12.5
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100 \%\) ⇒ \(\frac{6.5}{12.5} \times 100 \%\) = 52%
Coefficient of variation = 52%

Question 24.
If f{x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4, then check whether fog = gof
Answer:
f(x) = 3 + x ; g(x) = x – 4
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(x – 4)
= 3 + x – 4
= x – 1
gof = g [f(x)}
= g(3 + x)
= 3 + x – 4
= x – 1
∴ fog = gof

Question 25.
An organization plans to plant saplings in 25 streets in a town in such a way that one sapling for the first street, three for the second, nine for the third and so on. How many saplings are needed to complete the work?
Answer:
Here n = 25, a = 1, r = 3
S_n = \(a \frac{\left(r^{n}-1\right)}{r-1}\)
S₂₅ = \(\frac{1\left(3^{25}-1\right)}{3-1}\)
= \(\frac{3^{25}-1}{2}\)

Question 26.
Find the 19th term of an A.P. – 11, -15, -19,……..
Answer:
First term (a) = -11
Common difference (d) = -15 – (-11)
= -15 + 11 = -4
n = 19 .
t_n = a + (n – 1) d
t_n = -11 + 18(-4)
= -11 – 72
t₁₉ = -83
∴ 19th term of an A.P. is – 83

Question 27.
Find the value of ZB AC in the given triangle.
Answer:

In right triangle ABC

θ = tan^-1 \(\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)\) = tan^-1 (0.8)
θ = 38.7° (since tan 38.7° = 0.8011)
∠BAC = 38.7°

Question 28.
The vertices of a triangle are A(-1,3), B(-1, 1) and C(5, 1). Find the length of the median through the vertex C.
Answer:

Mid point of AB = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
= \(\left(\frac{-1+1}{2}, \frac{3-1}{2}\right)\)
= (0,1)
Length of the median CD = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(5-0)^{2}+(1-1)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f be a function f : N → N be defined by f(x) = 3x + 2, x ∈ N
(i) Find the images of 1, 2,3
(ii) Find the pre – images of 29, 53
(iii) Identify the type of function.
Answer:
The function f: N → N is defined by f(x) = 3x + 2
(i) If x = 1, f(1) = 3(1) + 2 = 5
If x = 2, f(2) = 3(2) + 2 = 8
If x = 3, f(3) = 3(3) + 2=11
The images of 1, 2, 3 are 5, 8, 11 respectively.

(ii) If x is the pre-image of 29, then f(x) = 29 . Hence 3x + 2 = 29
3x = 21 ⇒ x = 9.
Similarly, if x is the pre-image of 53, then f(x) = 53.
Hence 3x + 2 = 53 3x = 51 ⇒ x = 17.
Thus the pre-images of 29 and 53 are 9 and 17 respectively.

(iii) Since different elements of N have different images in the co-domain, the function f is one – one function.
The co-domain of f is N.
But the range of f = {5, 8, 11, 14, 17,…} is a proper subset of N.
Therefore f is not an onto function. That is, f is an into function.
Thus f is one – one and into function.

Question 30.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12} and B = {0,1,2, 4,5,9}. Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs (ii) a table (iii) an arrow diagram (iv) a graph
Answer:
A= {2, 4, 6, 10, 12} and B = {0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 9}
f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1
f(2) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0
f(4) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 2 – 1 = 1
f(6) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2
f(10) = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 5 – 1 = 4
f(12) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 6 – 1 = 5

(i) Set of ordered pairs
f = {(2, 0) (4, 1) (6, 2) (10, 4) (12, 5}

(ii) Table

(iii) Arrow diagram

(iv) Graph

Question 31.
The ratio of 6^th and 8^th term of an A.P is 7:9. Find the ratio of 9^th term to 13^th terms.
Answer:
Given t₆ : t₈ = 7 : 9 (using t_n = a + (n – 1)d
a + 5d : a + 7d =7 : 9
9(a + 5d) = 7(a + 7d)
9a + 45d = 7a + 49d
9a – 7a = 49d – 45d
2a = 4d
a = 2d
To find t₉ : t₁₃
t₉ : t₁₃ = a + 8d : a + 12d
= 2d + 8d : 2d + 12d
= 10d : 14d
= 5 : 7
∴ t₉ : t₁₃ = 5 : 7

Question 32.
The sum of first n, In and 3n terms of an A.P. are S₁ S₂ and S₃ respectively. Prove that S₃ = 3 (S₂ – S₁).
Answer:
If S₁ S₇ and S₃ are sum of first n, 2n and 3n terms of an A.P. respectively then

Question 33.
Find the values of m and n if the exprtession \(\frac{1}{x^{4}}-\frac{6}{x^{3}}+\frac{13}{x^{2}}+\frac{m}{x}+n\) is a perfect a square.
Answer:

Since it is a perfect square
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(m + 12) = 0
m + 12 = 0
m = -12
n – 4 = 0
n = 4
∴ The value of m = -12 and n = 4

Question 34.
If α, β are the roots of the equation 2x² – x – 1 = 0 then form the equation whose roots are α²β, β²α.
Answer:
2x² – x – 1 = 0 ⇒ Here a = 2, b = -1,c = -1
α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}=\frac{-(-1)}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
α + β = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{-1}{2}\)
Given roots are α²β, β²α
Summ of the roots α²β + β²α = αβ (α + β) = \(-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=-\frac{1}{4}\)
Product of the roots (α²β) × (β²α) = α³β³ = (αβ)³ =
\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}=-\frac{1}{8}\)
The required equation is x² – (Sum of the roots) x + (Product of the roots) = 0
\(x^{2}-\left(-\frac{1}{4}\right) x-\frac{1}{8}=0\) gives 8x² + 2x – 1 = 0

Question 35.
P and Q are the mid-points of the sides CA and CB respectively of a ∆ABC, right angled at C. Prove that 4(AQ² + BP²) = 5AB².
Answer:

Since, ∆AQC is a right triangle at C, AQ² = AC² + QC² ……. (1)
Also, ∆BPC is a right triangle at C, BP² = BC² + CP² ……… (2)
From (1) and (2), AQ² + BP² = AC² + QC² + BC² + CP²
4(AQ² + BP²) = 4AC² + 4QC² + 4BC² + 4CP²
= 4AC² + (2QC)² + 4BC² + (2CP)²
= 4AC² + BC² + 4BC² + AC² (Since P and Q are mid points)
= 5(AC² + BC²)
4(AQ² + BP²) = 5AB² (By Pythagoras Theorem)

Question 36.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through (1, -4) and has intercepts which are in the ratio 2:5.
Answer:
Let the x-intercept be 2a and the y intercept 5a
The equation of a line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{x}{2 a}+\frac{y}{5 a}=1\)
The line passes through the point (1, -4)
\(\frac{1}{2 a}+\frac{(-4)}{5 a}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{2 a}-\frac{4}{5 a}=1\)
Multiply by 10a
(L.C.M of 2a and 5a is 10a)
5 – 8 = 10a ⇒ -3 = 10a ⇒ a = \(\frac{-3}{10}\)
The equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{2(-3 / 10)}+\frac{y}{5(-3 / 10)}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{-3 / 5}+\frac{y}{-3 / 2}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{5 x}{-3}+\frac{2 y}{-3}=1\)
\(\frac{-5 x}{3}-\frac{2 y}{3}=1\)
Multipy by 3
– 5x – 2y = 3 ⇒ – 5x – 2y – 3 = 0
5x + 2y + 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 2y + 3 = 0

Question 37.
From the top of the tower 60m high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a vertical lamp post are observed to be 38° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the lamp post (tan 38° = 0.7813, √3 = 1.732)
Answer:

Let the height of the lamp post be “h”
The height of the tower (BC) = 60 m
∴ EC = 60 – h
Let AB be x
In the right ∆ ABC
tan 60° = \(\frac{B C}{A B}\)
√3 = \(\frac{60}{x}\)
x = \(\frac{60}{\sqrt{3}}\) …… (1)
In the right ∆ DEC, tan 38° = \(\frac{E C}{D E}\)
0.7813 = \(\frac{60-h}{x}\)
x = \(\frac{60-h}{0.7813}\) ….. (2)
Froom (1) and (2) we get
\(\frac{60}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{60-h}{0.7813}\)
60 × 0.7813 = 60√3 – √3h
46.88 = 60√3 – √3h
√3h = 60√3 – 46.88
= 60 × 1.732 – 46.88
= 103.92 – 46.88
1.732 h = 57.04 ⇒ h = \(\frac{57.04}{1.732}\)
h = \(\frac{5704}{1732}\) = 32.93m
∴ Height of the lamp post = 32.93 m

Question 38.
Calculate the weight of a hollow brass sphere if the diameter is 14 cm and thickness is 1 mm, and whose density is 17.3 g/cm³.
Answer:
Let r and R be the inner and outer radii of the hollow sphere.
Given that, inner diameter d = 14 cm; inner radius r = 7 cm; thickness = 1 mm = \(\frac{1}{10}\) cm
Outer radius R = 7 + \(\frac{1}{10}=\frac{71}{10}\) = 7.1 cm
Volume of hollow sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π (R³ – r³) cu. cm
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\)(357.91 -343) = 62.48 cm³
But, weight of brass in 1 cm³ = 17.3 gm
Total weight = 17.3 × 62.48 = 1080.90 gm
Therefore, total weight is 1080.90 grams.

Question 39.
Find the Co-efficient of variation of 24, 26,33,37,29,31
Answer:
Arrange in ascending order we get 24, 26,29, 31,33,37
Assumed mean = 29


\(\frac{4.32}{30} \times 100\) = \(\frac{432}{30}=14.4\)
Coefficient of variation = 14.4%

Question 40.
Two dice, one blue and one grey, are thrown at the same time. Write down all the possible outcomes. W hat is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is ………………. .
Answer:
When we roll two dice
Sample space = {(1. 1) (1,2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5) (1, 6)
(2, 1) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 4) (2, 5) (2, 6)
(3, 1) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 5) (3, 6)
(4, 1) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 4) (4, 5) (4, 6)
(5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5, 6)
(6, 1) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6. 4) (6, 5) (6, 6)}
n(S) = 36
(i) Let A be the event of getting the sum of two number is 8
A = {(2, 6) (3, 5) (4, 4) (5, 3) (6, 2)} 5
n(A) = 5
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{5}{36}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting the sum of the two numbers is 13.
B = { }
n(B) = 0
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{0}{36}=0\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting the sum of the two numbers is less than 12 or equal to 12.
n(C) = 36
P(C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{36}{36}=1\)

Question 41.
Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 365.
Answer:
Let the two consecutive positive integers be “x” and x + 1
Sum of squares = 365
x² + (x+1)² = 365
2x² + 2x – 364 = 0
x² + x – 182 = 0

(x + 14) (x – 13) = 0
x + 14 = 0 or x – 13 = 0
x = -14 or x = 13 (rejecting -14. Given positive integer)
The consecutive terms are 13 and 14.

Question 42.
A cylindrical bucket of 32 cm high and with radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand completely. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, find the radius and slant height of the heap.
Answer:
Cylindrical bucket
Height of the bucket (h) = 32 cm
Radius of the bucket (r) = 18 cm

Conical heap
Height of the cone (H) = 24 cm
Let the radius of the conical heap be “P ”
By the given condition
Volume of the conical heap = Volume of the cylindrical bucket
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πR²H = πr²
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × R² × 24 = r²H
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × R² × 24 = 18 × 18 × 32
R² = \(\frac{18 \times 18 \times 32 \times 3}{24}\)
= \(\frac{18 \times 18 \times 4 \times 3}{3}\)
= 18 × 18 × 4
= 36 cm
Slant height of the cone (l) = \(\sqrt{H^{2}+R^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{24^{2}+36^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(12 \times 2)^{2}+(12 \times 3)^{2}}\)
= 12\(\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}}\)
= 12√13
Slant height of the cone = 12√13 cm
Radius of the cone = 36 cm

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) PQ is a chord of length 8 cm to a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T. Find the length of the tangent TP.
Answer:

Let TR = y. Since, OT is perpendicular bisector of PQ
PR = QR = 4 cm
In ∆ORP, OP² = OR² + PR²
QR² = OP² – PR²
OR² = 5² – 4² = 25 – 16 = 9
OR = 3 cm
OT = OR + RT = 3 + y …. (1)
In ∆PRT , TP² = TR² + PR² …. (2)
and ∆OPT we have, OT² = TP² + OP²
OT² = (TR² + PR²) + OP² (substitute for TP² from (2)
(3 + y)² = y² + 4² + 5²(substitute for OT from (1))
9 + 6y + y² = y² + 16 + 5 There fore y = TR = \(\frac{16}{3}\)
6y = 41 – 9 we get y = \(\frac{16}{3}\)
From (2) TP² = TR² + PR²
TP² = \(\left(\frac{16}{3}\right)^{2}+4^{2}=\frac{256}{9}+16=\frac{400}{9} \mathrm{so}, \mathrm{TP}=\frac{20}{3} \mathrm{cm}\)

[OR]

(b) Draw a triangle ABC of base BC = 8 cm, ∠A = 60° and the bisector of ∠A meets BC at D such that BD = 6 cm.
Answer:


Step 1 : Draw a line segment BC = 8 cm.
Step 2 : At B, draw’ BE such that ∠CBE = 60° .
Step 3 : At B, draw BF such that ∠EBF = 90° .
Step 4 : Draw the perpendicular bisector to BC, w’hich intersects BF at O and BC at G.
Step 5 : With O as centre and OB as radius draw a circle.
Step 6 : From B, mark an arc of 6 cm on BC at D.
Step 7 : The perpendicular bisector intersects the circle at I. Joint ID.
Step 8 : ID produced meets the circle at A. Now join AB and AC.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4 and hence use it to solve x² + 3x – 4 = 0.
Answer:
Let y = x² + 3x – 4
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4

(ii) Plot the points (-5, 6), (-4, 0), (-3, -4), (-2, -6), (-1, -6), (0, -4), (1, 0), (2, 6), (3, 14) on the graph using suitable scale.
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The smooth curve is the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4
(iv) To solve x² + 3x – 4 = 0, subtract x² + 3x – 4 = 0 from y = x² + 3x – 4.
y = o
∴ The point of intersection with the X – axis is the solution set.
The solution set is -4 and 1.

[OR]

(b) A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hour more to go to 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Answer:
Let the speed of the stream be “x” km/hr
Speed of the motor boat to go for upstream = (18 – x) km/hr
Speed of the motor boat to go for down stream = (18 + x) km/hr
Time taken to go for upstream = \(\frac{24}{18-x}\) hour
Time taken to go for down stream = \(\frac{24}{18-x}\)
By the given condition
\(\frac{24}{18-x}-\frac{24}{18+x}=1\)
\(\frac{24(18+x)-24(18-x)}{(18-x)(18+x)}=1\)
432 + 24x + 432 + 24x = (18 – x)(18 – x)
48x = 324 – x²
x² + 48x – 324 = 0
x² + 54x – 6x – 324 = 0
x(x + 54) – 6 (x + 54) = 0
(x + 54) (x – 6) = 0
x + 54 = 0 or x – 6 = 0
x = -54 or x = 6 (speed cannot be negative)
∴ Speed of the boat = 6 km/hr

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PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x;
if ($x) print “hi”;
else
print “how are u”;?>
(a) how are u
(b) hi
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(c) error

Question 2.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x = 0;
if ($x++)
print “hi”;
else
print “how are u”;
?>
(a) hi
(b) no output
(c) error
(d) how are u
Answer:
(d) how are u

Question 3.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x;
if ($x = 0)
print “hi”;
else
print “how are u”;
print “hello”
?>
(a) how are uhello
(b) hihello
(c) hi
(d) no output
Answer:
(d) no output

Question 4.
Statement which is used to make choice between two options and only option is to be performed is written as
(a) if statement
(b) if else statement
(c) then else statement
(d) else one statement
Answer:
(b) if else statement

Question 5.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$a =“”;
if ($a)
print “all”;
if
else
print “some”;
?>
(a) all
(b) some
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(c) error

Question 6.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$a = “”;
if ($a)
print “all”;
if
else
print “some”;
?>
(a) all
(b) some
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(c) error

Question 7.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x = 10;
$y = 20;
if ($x > $y + $y != 3)
print “hi”;
else
print “how are u”;
?>
(a) how are u
(b) hi
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(b) hi

Question 8.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x = 10;
$y = 20;
if ($x > $y && 1||1)
print “hi” ;
else
print “how are u”;
?>
(a) how are u
(b) hi
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(b) hi

Question 9.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
if (-100)
print “hi”;
else
print “how are u”;
?>
(a) how are u
(b) hi
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(b) hi

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define Conditional Statements in PHP?
Answer:
Conditional statements are useful for writing decision making logics. It is most important feature of many programming languages, including PHP. They are implemented by the following types:

1. if Statement
2. if…else Statement
3. if…elseif….else Statement
4. switch Statement

Question 2.
Define if statement in PHP?
Answer:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied as per the user expectation.
Syntax: if (condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
}

Question 3.
What is if else statement in PHP?
Answer:
If else statement in PHP:

1. If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied by the user expectation.
2. When the condition gets false (fail) the else block is executed.

Syntax:
if (condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
}
else
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is false;
}

Question 4.
List out Conditional Statements in PHP?
Answer:
if Statement

1. if…else Statement
2. if…elseif….else Statement
3. switch Statement

Question 5.
Write Syntax of the If else statement in PHP?
Answer:
if (condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
}
else
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is false;
}

Question 6.
Define if…elseif….else Statement in PHP?
Answer:

1. If-elseif-else statement is a combination of if-else statement.
2. More than one statement can execute the condition based on user needs.

Question 7.
Usage of Switch Statement in PHP?
Answer:

1. The switch statement is used to perform different actions based on different conditions.
2. Switch statements work the same as if statementsbut they can check for multiple values at a time.

Question 8.
Write Syntax of Switch statement?
Answer:
switch (n) {
case label 1:
code to be executed if n=label 1; break; case label2:
code to be executed if n=label2; break; case label3:
code to be executed if n=label3; break;
default:
code to be executed if n is different from all labels;

Question 9.
Compare if and if else statement?
Answer:
If:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied as per the user expectation. When the condition fails, nothing happens.

If else:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied by the user expectation. When the condition gets false (fail) the else block is executed.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write the features Conditional Statements in PHP?
Answer:
PHP Conditional statements:

1. Conditional statements are useful for writing decision making logics.
2. It is most important feature of many programming languages, including PHP.
3. They are implemented by the following types:
4. if Statement
5. if…else Statement
6. if…elseif….else Statement
7. switch Statement

Question 2.
Write the purpose of if elseif else statement?
Answer:

1. If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied by the user expectation. When the condition gets false (fail) the else block is executed.
2. If-elseif-else is a combination of if-else statement.
3. More than one statement can execute the condition based on user needs.
4. User can select from many choices.

Question 3.
Differentiate Switch and if else statement?
Answer:
Switch:

1. Switch statement uses single expression for multiple choices.
2. If all the cases are not matched default will be executed.
3. It test only for equality.
4. It evaluates only for character or integer

If-else:

1. If else statement uses multiple statement for multiple choices.
2. Nothing happens.
3. It tests for equality as well as for logical ‘ expressions.
4. any data type is allowed.

Question 4.
Write Short notes on Switch statement?
Answer:

1. The switch statement is used to perform different actions based on different conditions.
2. It tests for equality only. –
3. It uses default value, when all the case values are not matched.
4. It can have multiple ease values.

Question 5.
Differentiate if statement and if elseif else statement?
Answer:
if elseif else statement:

1. If-elseif-else statement is a combination of if-else statement. .
2. More than one statement can execute the condition based on user needs.
3. If the condition is false more alternatives are there.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain Function Conditional Statements in PHP?
Answer:
Function Conditional Statements:

1. Function conditional statement is the function specified inside the conditional statements.
2. We can’t call conditional function before its definition.

Syntax:
if(expression)
{
function function_name( )
{
block of statements;
}
}
function_name( ); // calling function.
Eg:
<? php
display( );
if(TRUE)
{
function display( )
{
echo “condition and function”;
}
}
Output: condition and function

Question 2.
Discuss in detail about Switch statement with an example?
Answer:
Switch Case:

1. The switch statement is used to perform different actions based on different conditions.
2. Switch statement tests only for equality.
3. More case values can be given.
4. When all the case values are not matched, then default will be executed.

Syntax:
switch (n) {
case label 1:
code to be executed if n=labe11;
break;
case labe12:
code to be executed if n=labe12;
break;
case labe13:
code to be executed if n=labe13; ,
break;
…….
default:
code to be executed if n is different from all labels;
}

Question 3.
Explain the process Conditional Statements in PHP?
PHP Conditional statements:
Answer:
Conditional statements are useful for writing decision making logics. It is most important feature of many programming languages, including PHP. They are implemented by the following types:

(i) if Statement:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied as per the user expectation.

(ii) if…else Statement:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied by the user expectation. When the condition gets false (fail) the else block is executed.

(iii) if…elseif….else Statement:
If-elseif-else statement is a combination of if-else statement. More than one statement can execute the condition based on user needs.

(iv) Switch Case:
The switch statement is used to perform different actions based on different conditions based on different conditions.

Question 4.
Explain concepts of if elseif else statement?
Answer:
If elseif else statement in PHP:
If-elseif-else statement is a combination of if-else statement. More than one statement can execute the condition based on user needs.
Syntax:
if (1st condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
}
elseif(2nd condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if 2nd condition is true;
}
else
{
Execute statement(s) if both conditions are false;
}
Example:
<?php
$Pass_Mark=35;
$first_class=60;
$Student_Mark=70;
if ($Student_Mark>= $first_class)
{
esho “The Student is eligible for the promotion with First Class”;
elseif ($Student_Mark>= $Pass_Mark)
{
echo “The Student is eligible for the promotion”;
}
else
{
echo “The Student is not eligible for the promotion”;
}?>

Question 5.
Explain if else statement in PHP?
Answer:
If else statement in PHP:
If statement executes a statement or a group of statements if a specific condition is satisfied by the user expectation. When the condition gets false (fail) the else block is executed.
Syntax:
if (condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
} else
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is false;
}
Example:
<?php
$Pass_Mark=35;
$Student_Mark=70;
if ($Student_Mark>= $Pass_Mark)
{
echo “The Student is eligible for the promotion”;
}
else
{
echo “The Student is not eligible for the promotion”; }
?>

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions PHP Conditional Statements Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
How many types of php conditional statements are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 2.
When the condition in If-else block fails then …………………………. block will be executed?
(a) if
(b) else
(c) Nested if
(d) while
Answer:
(b) else

Question 3.
The ……………………….. statement is used to perform different actions based on different conditions.
Answer:
switch

Question 4.
The …………………………… block will be executed if it is not matched with any of the case values in switch.
Answer:
default

Question 5.
The if statement contains ………………………….. expressions.
(a) arithmetic
(b) logical
(c) boolean
(d) Terriary
Answer:
(c) boolean

Question 6.
If statements have to be given in …………………………
(a) ( )
(b) <>
(c) [ ]
(d) { }
Answer:
(a) ( )

Question 7.
The block of statements have to be enclosed with
(a) ( )
(b) <>
(c) [ ]
(d) { }
Answer:
(d) { }

Question 8.
Which of the following can check for multiple values at a time?
(a) If
(b) If else
(c) Nested else
(d) Switch
Answer:
(d) Switch

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Give the Syntax for If else if else statements in php?
Answer:
if (1st condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if condition is true;
}
elseif(2nd condition)
{
Execute statement(s) if 2nd condition is true;
}
else
{
Execute statement(s) if both conditions are false;
}

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 9 Connecting PHP and MYSQL Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 9 Connecting PHP and MYSQL

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Connecting PHP and MYSQL Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements instantiates the mysqli class?
(a) mysqli = new mysqli( )
(b) $mysqli = new mysqli( )
(c) $mysqli->new.mysqli( )
(d) mysqli->new.mysqli( )
Answer:
(b) $mysqli = new mysqli( )

Question 2.
which one is correct way, we can retrieve the data in the result set of MySQL using PHP?
(a) mysql_fetch_row
(b) mysql_fetch_array
(c) mysql_fetch_object
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
How Can we Create a Database Using PHP and MySQL?
(a) mysqli_create_db(“Database Name”)
(b) mysqli_create_db(“Data”)
(c) create_db(“Database Name”)
(d) create_db(“Data”)
Answer:
(a) mysqli_create_db(“Database Name”)

Question 4.
Which is the correct function to execute the SQL queries in PHP?
(a) mysqli_query(“Connection Object”,“SQL Query”)
(b) query(“Connection Object”, “SQL Query”)
(c) mysql_query(“Connection Object”,“SQL Query”)
(d) mysql_query(“SQL Query”)
Answer:
(a) mysqli_query(“Connection Object”,“SQL Query”)

Question 5.
Which is the correct function Closing Connection in PHP?
(a) mysqli_close(“Connection Object”)
(b) close(“Connection Object”);
(c) mysql_close(“Connection Object”)
(d) mysqli_close(“Database Object”);
Answer:
(a) mysqli_close(“Connection Object”)

Question 6.
Which is the correct function-to establish Connection in PHP?
(a) mysqli_connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
(b) connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
(c) mysql_connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
(d) mysqli connect (“Database Object”);
Answer:
(a) mysqli_connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);

Question 7.
Which is the not a correct MySQL Function in PHP?
(a) Mysqli_connect( ) Function
(b) Mysqli_close( ) Function
(c) mysqli_Select_data( ) Function
(d) mysqli_affected_rows( ) Function
Answer:
(c) mysqli_Select_data( ) Function

Question 8.
How many parameter are required for MYSQLi connect function in PHP?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 9.
How many parameter are required for MYSQLi query function in PHP?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 10.
How many parameter are required for MYSQLi Close function in PHP?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 11.
Which version of PHP supports MySQLi functions?
(a) Version 2.0
(b) Version 3.0
(c) Version 4.0
(d) Version 5.0
Answer:
(d) Version 5.0

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the MySQLi function available PHP?
Answer:

1. Mysqli_connect( ) Function
2. Mysqli_close( ) Function
3. mysqli_select_db( ) Function
4. mysqli_affected_rows( ) Function
5. mysqli_connect_error( ) Function
6. mysqlifetchassoc( ) Function

Question 2.
What is MySQLi function?
Answer:
MySQLi functions:

1. The Mysqli functions allows you to access MySQL database servers.
2. For the MySQL functions to be available, you must compile PHP with support for the MySQLi extension.

Question 3.
What are the types MySQLi function available PHP?
Answer:
Types of MySQL Functions in PHP:

1. Database connections
2. Managing Database connections
3. Performing Queries
4. Closing connection

Question 4.
Difference between Connection and Close function?
Answer:
Connection:

1. Before accessing MySQL Database, connect to Database Server machine via PHP scripting language using Mysqli_ connect( ) Function.
2. This function requires 4 parameters.

Close function:

1. mysqli close( ) Function is used to close an existing opened database connection between PHP scripting and MySQL Database Server.
2. This function requires only one parameter.

Question 5.
Give few examples of MySQLi Queries?
Answer:
$sql=“SELECT student_name,student_age FROM student”;mysqli_query($con,$sql); sql stmt = “SELECT * FROM my contacts”;
$result = mysqli_query($connection,$sql_stmt).

Question 6.
What is Connection string?
Answer:
The variables are used to connect to the Database server. They are

1. $servername → Database Server IP address
2. $usemame → Database Server User Name
3. $password → Database Server Password
4. $DB_Name → Database Name

The mysqli connect function uses these variables and connect Database server from PHP scripting. If connection gets fail, output will be printed with MySQL error code. Otherwise connection is success.

Question 7.
What is web Database?
Answer:
Web Database:
A web database is a wide term for managing data online. A web database gives you the ability to build your own databases.
Ex. Bank, airline and rental car reservation.

Question 8.
What is mysqli_fetch_assoc( ) Function?
Answer:
mysqli_fetch_assoc( );
Fetches a result row as an associative array.
Syntax:
mysqli_fetch_assoc(result);

Question 9.
Define mysqli_connect_error( ) Function?
Answer:
mysqli connect_error( ):
It returns the error description from the last connection error.
Syntax:
mysqli_connect_ertror( ):

Question 10.
Define mysqii_affected_rows( ) Function?
Answer:
my sql i_affected_rows( ):
mysqli_affected_rows( ) returns the number of affected rows in the previous MYSQL operation.

Syntax:
mysqli_affected_rows(connection)

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write the Syntax for MySQLi Queries?
Answer:
Syntax:
mysqli_query(“Connection Object’’,“SQL Query”)

Question 2.
Write is the purpose of MySQLi function available?
Answer:
MySQL Function in PHP
In PHP Scripting language many functions are available for MySQL Database connectivity and executing SQL queries.MySQLi is extension in PHP scripting language which gives access to the MYSQL database. MySQLi extension was introduced version 5.0.0.

The MySQLi extension contains the following important functions which are related to MySQL database connectivity and management.

1. Mysqli_connect( ) Function
2. Mysqli_close( ) Function
3. mysqli_select_db( ) Function
4. mysqli_affected_rows( ) Function
5. mysqli_connect_error( ) Function
6. mysqli_fetch_assoc( ) Function

Question 3.
Differentiate mysqli_affected_rows( ) Function and mysqli_fetch_assoc( ) Function?
Answer:
Fetch assoc( )
mysqli_fetch_assoc( ):
Fetches a result row as an associative array.

Syntax:
mysqli fetch_assoc(result)

Affected rows( )
my sqli_affected_ro ws( ):
mysqli affected_rows( ) returns the number of affected rows in the previous MYSQL operation.

Syntax:
mysqli_affected_rows(connection)

Question 4.
Write MySQL Connection Syntax with example?
Answer:
Syntax:
mysqli_eonnect(“Server Name”, “User Name”, “password”, “DB Name”);
Example:
<?php
Sservername = “localhost”;
Susername = “username”;
Spassword = “password”;
$DB_name = “SchooLDB”;
// Create connection
$conn = mysqli_connect($servemame, Susername, Spassword,$DB_name);

Question 5.
Write a note PHP MySQL database connection?
Answer:
Database Connections:
Before accessing MySQL Database, connect to Database Server machine via PHP scripting language using Mysqli_connect() Function.

Syntax:
mysqli_connect(“Server Name”, “User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
This function requires four parameters to connect to database server. Database Server name, Database username, password and Database Name.

Managing Database Connections:
The below code snippet describes managing database connection methods and features. c?php
$servername = “localhost”;
$username = “username”;
$password = “password”;
$DBname = “SchoolDB”;
// Create connection
$conn = mysqli_connect($servemame, Susername, Spassword,$DB_name).

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Discuss in detail about MySQL functions with example?
Answer:
MySQL Function in PHP:
In PHP Scripting language many functions are available for MySQL Database connectivity and executing SQL queries. MySQLi is extension in PHP scripting language which gives access to the MYSQL database. MySQLi extension was introduced version 5.0.0.

The MySQLi extension contains the following important functions which are related to MySQL database connectivity and management.

1. Mysqli_connect( ) Function
2. Mysqli_close( ) Function
3. mysqli_select_db( ) Function
4. mysqli_affected_rows( ) Function
5. mysqli_connect_error( ) Function
6. mysqli_fetch_assoc( ) Function

1. Database Connections:
Before accessing MySQL Database, connect to Database Server machine via PHP scripting language using Mysqli_connect() Function.
Syntax:
mysqli_connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
This function requires four parameters to connect to database server. Database Server name, Database username, password and Database Name.

2. Managing Database Connections:
The below code snippet describes managing database connection methods and features.
<?php
$servemame = “localhost”;
$usemame = “username”;
$password = “password”;
$DB_name = “School_DB”;
// Create connection
$conn = mysqli_connect($servemame, Susemame, $password,$DB_name);
The mysqli connect function uses these variables and connect Database server from PHP scripting. If connection gets fail, output will be printed with MySQL error code. Otherwise connection is success.

3. Performing Queries:
The main goal of MySQL and PHP connectivity is to retrieve and manipulate the data from MySQL database server. The SQL query statements are helping with PHP MySQL extension to achieve the objective of MySQL and PHP connection, “mysqliquery” is a function, helps to execute the SQL query statements in PHP scripting language.
Syntax:
mysqli_query(“Connection Object”,’’SQL Query”)

Example:
$con=mysqli_connect(“localhost”,“my_user”,“my_password”,“Student_DB “); $sql=”SELECT student_name,student_age FROM student”;mysqli_query($con,$sql);

4. Closing Connection:
mysqli_close( ) Function is used to close an existing opened database connection between PHP scripting and MySQL Database Server.

Question 2.
Explain the Database error handling and management process in PHP?
Answer:
Managing Database Connections:
The below code snippet describes managing database connection methods and features.
<?php
$servemame = “localhost”;
$username = “username”;
$password = “password”;
$DBname = “SchoolDB”;
// Create connection
Sconn = mysqli_connect($servemame, Susername, Spassword,SDBname);
// Check connection
if (! Sconn) {
die(“Ccnnection failed: “ . mysqli_connect_error( ));
}.
echo “Connected successfully”;
?>,
In the above code snippet, three variables are used to connect to the Database server. They are

1. $servemame → Database Server IP address
2. $usemame → Database Server User Name
3. $password → Database Server Password
4. $DB_Name → Database Name

The mysqli_connect function uses these variables and connect Database server from PHP scripting. If connection gets fail, output will be printed with MySQL error code. Otherwise connection is success.

Question 3.
Explain in details types of MySQL connection method in PHP?
Answer:
Database Connections:
Before accessing MySQL Database, connect to Database Server machine via PHP scripting language using Mysqli_connect( ) Function.

Syntax:
mysqli_connect(“Server Name”,“User Name”,“Password”,“DB Name”);
This function requires four parameters to connect to database server. Database Server name, Database username, password and Database Name.

Managing Database Connections:
The below code snippet describes managing database connection methods and features.
<?php
$servemame = “localhost”;
$usemame = “username”;
$password = “password”;
SDB_name = “SchoolDB”;
// Create connection
$conn = mysqli_connect($servemame, Susemame, Spassword,$DB_name);
// Check connection
if(!$conn){
die(“Connection failed: “ . mysqli_connect_error( ));
}
echo “Connected successfully”;
?>
In the above code snippet, three variables are used to connect to the Database server. They are

1. $servemame → Database Server Server IP address
2. $username → Database Server User Name
3. $password → Database Server Password
4. $DBName → Database Name

The mysqli_connect function uses these variables and connect Database server from PHP scripting. If connection gets fail, output will be printed with MySQL error code. Otherwise connection is success.

Question 4.
Explain MySQLi Queries with examples?
Answer:
Performing Queries:
The main goal of MySQL and PHP connectivity is to retrieve and manipulate the data from MySQL database server. The SQL query statements are helping with PHP MySQL extension ^to achieve the objective of MySQL and PHP connection. “mysqli_query” is a function, helps to execute the SQL query statements in PHP scripting language.

Syntax:
mysqli_query(“Connection Object” “SQL Query”)
Example:
$con=mysqli_connect(“localhost”,“my_user”,“my_password”,“Student_DB”); $sql=“SELECT student_name,student_age FROM student”;mysqli_query($con,$sql);

Closing Connection:
mysqli_close( ) Function is used to close an existing opened database connection between. PHP scripting and MySQL Database Server.

Syntax:
mysqli_close(“Connection Object”);
<?php
$con=mysqli_connect(“localhost”,“$user”,“$password”,“SCHOOLDB”);
// ….some PHP code… mysqli_close($con);
?>

Example of PHP and MySQL Program:
<?php .
$servemame = “localhost”;
$usemame = “username”;
$password = “password”;
$dbname = “schoolDB”;
$connection = mysqli_connect(“$servemame”, “$usemame”, “$password” “$dbname”);
if (mysqli_connect_error ( ))
{
echo “Failed to connect to MySQL:”
mysqli_connect_error( );
}
sql stmt = “SELECT * FROM mycontacts”; //SQL select query
$result = mysqli_query($connection,$sql_stmt);//execute SQL statement$rows =
mysqli__num_r°ws($result);// get number of rows returned
if($rows) {
while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($result)) {
echo ‘ID:’. $row[‘id’]. ‘<br>’;

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Connecting PHP and MYSQL Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
The combination of PHP and MYSQL has become very popular …………………………. web scripting language in internet.
Answer:
Server side

Question 2.
According to recent Survey, approximately ………………………….. websites are running using PHP.
Answer:
544 million

Question 3.
Which is used to convert PHP code into C++?
(a) LPLP
(b) HPHP
(c) BPBP
(d) APAP
Answer:
(b) HPHP

Question 4.
Expand HPHP:
(a) W\gh Power High Power
(b) Heavy Processor Heavy Processor
(c) Hip Hop
(d) High Hop
Answer:
(c) Hip Hop

Question 5.
Which of the following has written alternative version of PHP?
(a) Facebook
(b) Twitter
(c) Instagram
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(a) Facebook

Question 6.
RAD meAnswer: ………………………..
(a) Rigid Application Design
(b) Rapid Application Development
(c) Rare App Design
(d) Raster Audio Development
Answer:
(b) Rapid Application Development

Question 7.
………………………….. is a server side scripting language designed for web development.
Answer:
php

Question 8.
Which is a request for data or ‘information’ from a database table?
(a) row
(b) record
(c) query
(d) report
Answer:
(c) query

Question 9.
Which is an open-source relational database management system?
(a) MySQL
(b) Foxpro
(c) MS-Access
(d) Excel
Answer:
(a) MySQL

Question 10.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) PRADO
(b) Cake
(c) cake PHP
(d) Symphony
Answer:
(b) Cake

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Mention Some RDBMS Softwares?
Answer:
Relational Database Management System (RDMS) softwares are MySQL, Oracle, IBM DB2, and Microsoft SQLSERVER etc.

Question 2.
What is the main goal of providing connectivity between MySql and php?
Answer:
The main goal of MySQL and PHP connectivity is to retrieve and manipulate the data from MySQL database server.

1. The SQL query statements are helping with PHP MySQL extension to achieve the objective of MySQL and PHP connection.
2. “mysqli_query” is a function, helps to execute the SQL query statements in PHP scripting – language.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a Snippet code to check database connection?
Answer:
// Check connection
if(!$conn){
die(“Connection failed: “ . mysqli_connect_error( ));
}
echo “Connected successfully”;
?>

Question 2.
Name the parameters of connect functions?
Answer:

1. $servemame → Database Server Server IP address
2. $username → Database Server User Name
3. $password → Database Server Password
4. $DBName → Database Name

Question 3.
Write any 3 special features of PHP?
Answer:

1. PHP can embed easily with HTML and client side scripting language
2. PHP has built-in function which is easily connect to MySQL database
3. PHP scripting language has been supported by many Software frameworks

Question 4.
Mention some web frameworks design structures to promote rapid application development (RAD)?
Answer:
Some of these include PRADO, CakePHP, Symfony, Codeigniter, Laravel, Yii Framework, Phalcon and Zend Framework, offering features similar to other web frameworks.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 11 Network Examples and Protocols Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 11 Network Examples and Protocols

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Network Examples and Protocols Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The ……………………… “the Net,” is a worldwide system of computer networks
(a) Internet
(b) mobile
(c) communication
(d) protocol
Answer:
(a) Internet

Question 2.
Which one of the following will be easy the way to uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners and customers.
(a) Extranet
(b) Intranet
(c) arpanet
(d) arcnet
Answer:
(a) Extranet

Question 3.
Match the following and choose the correct Answer:wer
(i) HTTP -The core protocol of the World Wide Web.
(ii) FTP- enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.
(iii) SMTP – Provide e-mail services.
(iv) DNS- Refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Question 4.
Communication over …………………………… is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.
(a) Social media
(b) mobile network
(c) whatsapp
(d) software
Answer:
(b) mobile network

Question 5.
Wi-Fi stands for ……………………………
(a) Wireless Fidelity
(b) wired fidelity
(c) wired optic fibre
(d) wireless optic fibre
Answer:
(a) Wireless Fidelity

Question 6.
A TCP/IP network with access restricted to members of an organization
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) Intranet
Answer:
(d) Intranet

Question 7.
RFID stands for …………………………
(a) Radio Free identification
(b) real Frequency identity
(c) Radio Frequency indicators
(d) Radio Frequency Identification.
Answer:
(d) Radio Frequency Identification.

Question 8.
It guarantees the sending of data is successful and which checks error on operation at OSI layer is ………………………………
(a) Application layer
(b) Network layer
(c) Transport Layer
(d) Physical layer
Answer:
(c) Transport Layer

Question 9.
Which one of the following will secure data on trAnswer:missions?
(a) HTTPS
(b) HTTP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) HTTPS

Question 10.
………………………… provides e-mail service.
(a) DNS
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(d) SMTP

Question 11.
………………………… refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers.
(a) DNS
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) DNS

Question 12.
TCP/IP is a combination of two protocols:
(i) TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol (TCP)
(ii) Internet Protocol (IP)
(iii) Selection Protocol (SP)
(iv) Captial Protocol (CP)
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii)

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define Intranet?
Answer:
INTRANET:

1. It is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
2. It may consist of many interlinked local area networks.

Question 2.
What is the uses of mobile networks?
Answer:
The common application of mobile networks is mobile phones, tablets, etc.. In past, wireless communications largely used circuit switching to carry only voice over a network, but now currently both data and voice are being trAnswer:mitted over both circuit via switched networks and packet-switched networks.

Question 3.
List out the benefits of WiFi/
Answer:

1. It provides mobility.
2. It provides connection to Internet.
3. Flexibility of LAN.
4. Ensures connectivity.
5. It allows places that are remote to benefit from connectivity.
6. Low cost, high benefit.

Question 4.
How many types of RFID System available and what are they?
Answer:
Two types of RFID Systems:
1. Active RFID system:
the tag has its own power source. These systems used for larger distances and to track high value goods like vehicles.

2. Passive RFID system:
the tag gets power through power from a reader antenna to the tag „ antenna. They are used for shorter range trAnswer:mission.

Question 5.
Expand HTTP, HTTPS, FTP?
Answer:

1. HTTP – Hypertext Transfer Protocol
2. HTTPS – Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
3. FTP – File Transfer Protocol

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Compare Internet, Intranet and Extranet?
Answer:

Question 2.
List out the components of a RFID enabled system?
Answer:
Main Components of a RFID System

1. A RFID tag: It has silicon microchip attached to a small antenna and mounted on a substrate.
2. A reader: It has a scanner with antennas to trAnswer:mit and receive signals, used for communication.
3. A Controller: It is the host computer with a Microprocessor which receives the reader input and process the data.

Question 3.
Write short notes on HTTP, HTTPS, FTP?
Answer:

1. HTTP – A protocol used between a web client and a web server protects non-secure data trAnswer:missions. The core protocol of the World Wide Web.
2. HTTPS – A protocol used between a web client and a web server permits secure data trAnswer:missions.
3. FTP – Used between computers for sending and receiving data. Enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.

Question 4.
What are the layers available in TCP/IP Reference Model?
Answer:
There are four total layers of TCP/IP protocol, each of which is listed below with a brief description.

1. Network Access Layer – concerned with building packets.
2. Internet Layer – describes how packets are to be delivered.
3. Transport Layer – ensure the proper transfer mission of data.
4. Application Layer – application network processes. These processes include File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Question 5.
Expand ARP, ICMP, SMTP and DNS?
Answer:

1. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
2. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
3. Transfer mission Control Protocol (TCP)
4. Simple Mail TrAnswer:fer Protocol (SMTP)
5. Domain Name System (DNS).

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain about Internet, Intranet and Extranet?
Internet/Intranet/Extranet
INTERNET:
Answer:

1. The Internet, “the Net,” is a worldwide system of computer networks.
2. A network of networks where the users at any one computer can, if they have permission, get information from any other computer.
3. The Internet is a network of global connections – comprising private, public, business, academic and government networks – linked by guided, wireless and fiber-optic technologies.
4. It was perceived by the Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA) of the U.S. government in 1969 and was first recognized as the ARPANet.
5. The unique aim was to generate a network that would permit users of a research computer from one university to “talk to” research computers on other universities.
6. The Internet denotes to the global communication system, including infrastructure and hardware, whereas the web is one of the services interconnected over the Internet.

INTRANET:

1. It is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
2. It may consist of many interlinked local area networks.
3. It includes connections through one or more gateway (connects two networks using different protocols together known as protocol convertor) computers to outside Internet.

EXTRANET:
It is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public – telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Question 2.
Discuss about OSI model with its layers?
Answer:
OSI Model:
Open System Interconnection (OSI) model was found in the year 1934, general framework that enables network protocols along with software and systems to be developed based on general set of guidelines. It describes the standards for the inter-computer communication.

OSI Layers:
(i) Physical Layer:
This is the 1st layer, it defines the electrical and physical specifications for devices.

(ii) Data Link Layer:
It is the 2nd layer and it guarantees that the data trAnswer:mitted are free of errors. This layer has simple protocols like “802.3 for Ethernet” and “802.11 for Wi-Fi”.

(iii) Network Layer:
It is the 3rd layer determining the path of the data packets. At this layer, routing of data packets is found using IP Addressing.

(iv) Transport Layer:
It is the 4th layer that guarantees the trAnswer:portation/sending of data is successful. It includes the error checking operation.

(v) Session Layer:
It is the 5th layer, identifies the established system session between different network entities. It controls dialogues between computers. For instance, while accessing a system remotely, session is created between your computer and the remote system.

(vi) Presentation Layer:
It is the 6th layer that does the trAnswer:lation of data to the next layer (Prepare the data to the Application Layer). Encryption and decryption protocols occur in this layer such as, Secure Socket Layer (SSL).

(vii) Application Layer:
It is the 7th layer, which acts as the user interface platform comprising of software within the system.

Question 3.
Difference between TCP/IP and OSI Reference Model?
Answer:

TCP/Ip:

1. TCP/IP stands for Transmission control protocol/Intemet protocol
2. TCP/IP has 4 layers
3. TCP/IP are set of rulers/protocols defined for communication over the network
4. TCP/IP is a client-server model
5. It follows top to bottom approach

OSI:

1. OSI means open system interconnect
2. OSI has 7 layers
3. OSI is a model based on the concept of layering
4. OSI is a conceptual model
5. It follows bottom-up approach

Question 4.
Explain about the development, merits and demerits in Mobile networks?
Merits of Mobile Networks:

1. Higher efficiency.
2. Increased ability to communicate in and out of the workspace.
3. Greater access to modem apps and services.
4. Improved networking capabilities.
5. Quality and flexibility of services.
6. Rapid developments in cloud technologies.

Demerits of Mobile Networks:

1. Cost
2. Vulnerable to security risks.
3. Additional training is needed to use new technology.
4. Cyber crime

Development:
The generations of mobile networks are as follows.

1. First Generation(lG) 1981- NMT launch
2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch
3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch
4. Third Generation! 3G) 2003- first UK 3G launch
5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007
6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+

1. First Generation (1G) 1981 – NMT launch:

1. During the initial periods the mobile systems were based on analog trAnswer:mission.
2. NMT stands for Nordic Mobile Telephone communication.
3. And a very poor voice quality.

2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch:

1. Later the second generation of mobile systems were placed on digital trAnswer:mission with GSM.
2. GSM stands for (Global System for Mobile communication) was most popular standard which is used in second generation, using 900MHz and 1800MHz for the frequency bands.
3. The transfer mission used as TMDA stands for (Time Division Multiple Access) and CDMA One stands for (Code Division Multiple’Access) method to increase the amount of information trAnswer:ported on the network

3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch:

1. GPRS was introduced here GPRS stands for (General Packet Radio Service). GPRS is a data service which enables mobile devices to send and receive messages, picture messages and e-mails.
2. GSM data transfer mission rates typically reached 9.6kbit/s.

4. Third Generation( 3G) 2003- first UK 3G launch:
1. This generation of mobile systems merges different mobile technology standards, and uses higher frequency bands for transfer mission and Code Division Multiple Access to delivery data rates of up to 2Mbit/s supports multimedia services (MMS: voice, video and data).

2. Data transfer mission used a WCDMA. WCDMA stands for (Wideband Code Division Multiple Access).

3. Few 3G suppliers use ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) for their ‘over the air’ network with in MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) or IP for theirs backbone network.

5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007:

1. 4G is at the research stage. 4G was based on an adhoc networking model where there was no need for a fixed infrastructure operation.

2. Adhoc networking requires global mobility features (e.g. Mobile IP) and connectivity to a global IPv6 network to support an IP address for each mobile device.

3. Logically roaming in assorted IP networks (for example: 802.11 WLAN, GPRS and UMTS) were be possible with higher data rates, from 2Mbit/s to 10-100Mbit/s, offering reduced delays and newly services.

6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+:

1. 5G is the stage succeeds the 4G (LTE/ WiMAx), 3G(umts) and 2G(GSM) syetems.

2. 5G targets to performance the high data rate, reduced latency, energy saving, cost reduction, higher system, capacity, and massive device connectivity.

3. The ITU IMT – 2020 provides speeds up to 20 gigabits per second it has been demonstrated with millimeter waves of 15 gigahertz and higher frequency.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Network Examples and Protocols Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
Internet Protocol delivers packets from source to destination through
(a) TCP
(b) datagram
(c) packets header
(d) http
Answer:
(c) packets header

Question 2.
IP connectionless datagram service was developed in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1974

Question 3.
IP connectionless datagram service was developed by
(i) Vint cerf
(ii) Bob FrAnswer:ton
(iii) Bob Kahnin
(iv) Dan Bricklin
(a) i, ii
(b) ii, iii
(c) ii, iv
(d) i, iii
Answer:
(d) i, iii

Question 4.
TCP/IP stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

Question 5.
Which protocols have to do end-to-end process of secure on time and manage data or communication.
(a) Physical
(b) TCP
(c) Network
(d) ARPC
Answer:
(c) Network

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) HTTP
(b) SFTL
(c) SSL
(d) SNMP
Answer:
(d) SNMP

Question 7.
Find the Network management protocol from the following
(a) ICMP
(b) HTTP
(c) TCP/IP
(d) SFTP
Answer:
(a) ICMP

Question 8.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Network Communication Protocol – HTTP, TCP/IP
(b) Network Security Protocol – ICMP
(c) Network Management Protocol – SNMP
Answer:
(b) Network Security Protocol – ICMP

Question 9.
ARPANET was first recognized in the year
(a) 1964
(b) 1956
(c) 1972
(d) 1969
Answer:
(d) 1969

Question 10.
The ……………………….. is one of the services interconnected over the Internet.
Answer:
web

Question 11.
Gateway connects two networks using different protocols together known as …………………………..
Answer:
Protocol Converter

Question 12.
Find the correct statement from the following.
I. Internet or things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects with the Internet
II. Extranet is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
(a) I-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) I, II-True
(d) I, II-False
Answer:
(a) I-True, II-False

Question 13.
Sending e-mail to a friend is an example for ………………………..
(a) Internet
(b) Intranet
(c) Extranet
(d) IP address
Answer:
(a) Internet

Question 14.
A …………………………. as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells.
(a) Mobile Network
(b) Cellular Network
(c) Both a & b
(d) Chatting
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 15.
The NMT launch comes ………………………….. generation of mobile networks
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(a) 1G

Question 16.
Expand NMT.
(a) North Mobile Telephone
(b) Nordic Mobile Telephone
(c) Nordic Movement Telephone
(d) Nurture Mobile Telephone
Answer:
(b) Nordic Mobile Telephone

Question 17.
Match the following:
(i) 1G – (I) GSM
(ii) 2G – (II) UMTS
(iii) 3G – (III) GPRS
(iv) 2-3G Bridge – (IV) NMT
(a) IV I II III
(b) I II III IV
(c) IV III II I
(d) II I IV III
Answer:
(a) IV I II III

Question 18.
GSM means ……………………………… communication.
Answer:
Global System for Mobile

Question 19.
SIM means …………………………. technology.
Answer:
Subscriber Identity Module

Question 20.
TMDA means …………………………
Answer:
Time Division Multiple Access

Question 21.
CMDA stands for
(a) Code Divide Multiple Access
(b) Code Divide Mobile Access
(c) Code Division Multiple Access
(d) Code Division Mobile Access
Answer:
(c) Code Division Multiple Access

Question 22.
GPRS stands for ………………………
Answer:
General Packet Radio Service

Question 23.
Expand EDGE
(a) Extra Data rates for Global Evolution
(b) Enhanced Data rates for Global Evolution
(c) Entry Data rates for Global Evolution
(d) Extra Dual rate for Global Evolution
Answer:
(b) Enhanced Data rates for Global Evolution

Question 24.
UMTS stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Universal Mobile Telecommunication Systems

Question 25.
WCDMA stands for …………………………
Answer:
Wideband Code Division Multiple Access

Question 26.
ATM stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Asynchronous Transfer Mode

Question 27.
First Generation (1G) was developed in the year …………………………
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1982
(d) 1981
Answer:
(d) 1981

Question 28.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) First Generation – 1981
(b) Second Generation – 1991
(c) Third Generation – 2004
(d) Fourth Generation – 2007
Answer:
(c) Third Generation – 2004

Question 29.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 2.5G
(d) 3.5G
Answer:
(d) 3.5G

Question 30.
Analog trAnswer:mission have taken place in …………………………
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(a) 1G

Question 31.
Which technology is used to authenticate a user for identification and billing purposes and to encrypt the data to prevent listen without permission.
(a) GSM
(b) NMT
(c) CDMA
(d) SIM
Answer:
(d) SIM

Question 32.
Which method increased the amount of information trAnswer:ported on the network?
(I) SIM
(II) NMT
(III) TDMA
(IV) CDMA
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) III, IV
(d) IV, I
Answer:
(c) III, IV

Question 33.
General Packet Radio Service was introduced in
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 2.5G
(d) 3G
Answer:
(c) 2.5G

Question 34.
……………………………… is a data service which enables mobile devices to send and receive messages, picture messages and e-mails.
(a) GPS
(b) GPRS
(c) CDMA
(d) SIM
Answer:
(b) GPRS

Question 35.
What is the data trAnswer:mission rate of GSM?
(a) 9.6 kb/s
(b) 11.2 kb/s
(c) 12.3 kb/s
(d) 8.5 kb/s
Answer:
(a) 9.6 kb/s

Question 36.
MMS is the combination of …………………………
(I) Image, Voice, Video
(II) Voice, Video, Speed
(III) Voice, Video, Data
(IV) Speed, Data, Image
(a) III
(b) II
(c) I
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) III

Question 37.
The data trAnswer:mission used by 3G is ……………………………
(a) TDMA
(b) CDMA
(c) EDGE
(d) WCDMA
Answer:
(d) WCDMA

Question 38.
MPLS means ……………………….
Answer:
Multiprotocol Label Switching

Question 39.
Few 3G suppliers use ATM for their ……………………………. network with in MPLS or IP for their network.
Answer:
Over the Air

Question 40.
Which generation of mobile network is considered as a research stage?
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(d) 4G

Question 41.
Li-Fi is the short form of …………………………..
(a) Light Fidelity
(b) LAN Fidelity
(c) Light Fix
(d) Low Frequency
Answer:
(a) Light Fidelity

Question 42.
The term Li-Fi was first used by …………………………..
Answer:
Harald Haas

Question 43.
How many phases of 5G are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 44.
The two phases of 5G are ………………………….
(I) Release-14
(II) Release-15
(III) Release-16
(IV) Release-17
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) III, IV
Answer:
(b) II, III

Question 45.
ITU stands for ……………………………..
Answer:
International Telecommunication Union

Question 46.
Which is used for radio wares to read and capture information stored on a tag attached to an object?
(a) RF
(b) RFID
(c) Li-Fi
(d) Wi-Fi
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 47.
How many parts are there in RFID tags are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 48.
RFID has a ……………………… and a ……………………….. or a ……………………………..
Answer:
reader, tag and label

Question 49.
Ffow many types of RFID tags are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 50.
How many components of a RFID system are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 51.
………………………… is a scanner with antennas to trAnswer:mit and receive signals used for communication
(a) RFID tag
(b) Reader
(c) Controller
(d) Em-ware
Answer:
(b) Reader

Question 52.
Find the statement which is true.
(а) Active RFID System – larger distances
(b) Active RFID System – shorter range transfer mission
Answer:
(а) Active RFID System – larger distances

Question 53.
Which method is used in passive RFID system?
(a) TCP
(b) UDP
(c) Induction coupling
(d) Direct coupling
Answer:
(c) Induction coupling

Question 54.
OSI model means ……………………………..
Answer:
Open System Interconnection

Question 55.
OSI model was found in the year
(a) 1927
(b) 1932
(c) 1935
(d) 1934
Answer:
(d) 1934

Question 56.
Which one describes the standards for the inter-computer communication?
(a) OSI
(b) BSI
(c) DSI
(d) LSI
Answer:
(a) OSI

Question 57.
How many OSI layers are there?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 58.
The protocols for Ethernet in datalink layer is ………………………….
(a) 8.023
(b) 80.23
(c) 802.3
(d) 8023
Answer:
(c) 802.3

Question 59.
Which is the third layer in the OSI model?
(a) Datalink
(b) Physical
(c) port
(d) Network
Answer:
(d) Network

Question 60.
In which layer, routing of data packets is found using IP addressing?
(a) Data link
(b) Network
(c) port
(d) Physical
Answer:
(b) Network

Question 61.
SSL stands for ………………………
Answer:
Secure Socket Layer

Question 62.
Match the following
(i) Physical Layer – (I) controls dialogues between computer
(ii) Network Layer – (II) Specifications for devices
(iii) TrAnswer:port Layer – (III) data packets
(iv) Session Layer – (IV) error checking
(v) Application Layer – (V) Encryption, Decryption
(a) II, III, IV, I, V, VI
(b) I, II, III, IV, VI, VI
(c) VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(d) III, IV, V, VI, II, I
Answer:
(a) II, III, IV, I, V, VI

Question 63.
Which protocol is accountable for guaranteeing the trustworthy trAnswer:mission of data?
(a) TCP
(b) IP
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) TCP

Question 64.
google.com is the ………………………. for Google.
Answer:
domian name

Question 65.
How many different layers of TCP/IP are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 66.
FTP stands for …………………………
(a) File Transfer Protocol
(b) File Transmission Protocol
(c) File Transport Protocol
(d) File Type Protocol
Answer:
(a) File Transfer Protocol

Question 67.
HTTP stands for …………………………..
(a) High Text Transmission Protocol
(b) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(c) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(d) Height Typed Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(c) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 68.
SMTP stands for …………………………………
(a) Single Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Single Message Transfer Protocol
(c) Simple Mail Text Protocol
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Question 69.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) FTP
(b) RFID
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a network protocol.
(a) SSL
(b) ARP
(c) TCPI
(d) FTP
Answer:
(c) TCPI

Question 71.
HTTPs stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

Question 72.
ARP stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Address Resoloution Protocol

Question 73.
Expand MAC
(a) Mega Access Code
(b) Multiple Access Code
(c) Medium Access Code
(d) Medium Access Control
Answer:
MEdium Access Control

Question 74.
Which one of the following is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network?
(a) MIC
(b) MAC
(c) MOC
(d) MUC
Answer:
(b) MAC

Question 75.
ICMP stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Internet Control Message Protocol

Question 76.
IGMP stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Internet Group Management Protocol

Question 77.
Which is used to send group communication messages to multiple IP addresses?
(a) ICMP
(b) IGMP
(c) IDMP
(d) IKMP
Answer:
(b) IGMP

Question 78.
The two main protocols mainly used in the trAnswer:port layers are
(I) TCP
(II) UDP
(III) UTP
(IV) ATP
(V) STP
(a) I, II
(b) III, IV
(c) II, V
(d) IV, V
Answer:
(a) I, II

Question 79.
UDP stands for …………………………….
Answer:
User Daragram Protocol

Question 80.
DNS meAnswer: ………………………..
Answer:
Domian Name System.

I. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on Extranet?
Answer:
EXTRANET:
It is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Question 2.
Mention the various generations of Mobile networks?
Answer:
The generations of mobile networks are as follows.

1. First Generation(lG) 1981- NMT launch
2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch
3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch ,
4. Third Generation( 3G) 2003- UK 3G launch
5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007
6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+

Question 3.
What is meant by Li-Fi?
Answer:
Li-Fi is a wireless technology which uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) for data transmission Li-Fi is the short form of Light Fidelity.

Question 4.
Define Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless network technology that permits computers and alternative devices to be connected to every alternative into a local area network and to the net without wires and cables.

Question 5.
Write note on Network protocols?
Answer:
Network protocols is that the usual procedures, rules, formal standards and policies comprised of formats which allocates communication between more than one device Which connected to the network.

II. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the types of Networking protocols?
Answer:
The broad types of networking protocols, including:

1. Network communication protocols is that the Basic data communication protocols which specific as HTTP and TCP/IP.
2. Network security protocols is that which implement security over network communications and include HTTP, SFTP and SSL.
3. Network management protocols will Provide network governance and maintenance and include ICMP and SNMP.

Question 2.
Define Internet of things?
Answer:
Internet of Things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects (home applicances, wearable devices or automobiles) with the Internet. The ‘thing’ in refers to an objects that have been assigned an IP address and have the ability to collect and transfer data over a network without manual assistance or intervention.

Question 3.
Write about Mobile Networks?
Answer:
Mobile Networks:
A mobile network or cellular network as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells. These cells join to form a large coverage area. Communication over mobile network is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.

Question 4.
Differentiate Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless network technology that permits computers and alternative devices to be connected to every alternative into a local area network and to the net without wires and cables.

Question 5.
Write note on Network protocols?
Answer:
Network protocols is that the usual procedures, rules, formal standards and policies comprised of formats which allocates communication between more than one device Which connected to the network.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the types of Networking protocols?
Answer:
The broad types of networking protocols, including:

1. Network communication protocols is that the Basic data communication protocols which specific as HTTP and TCP/IP.
2. Network security protocols is that which implement security over network communications and include HTTP, SFTP and SSL.
3. Network management protocols will Provide network governance and maintenance and include ICMP and SNMP.

Question 2.
Define Internet of things?
Answer:
Internet of Things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects (home applicances, wearable devices or automobiles) with the Internet. The ‘thing’ in IoT refers to an objects that have been assigned an IP address and have the ability to collect and trAnswer:fer data over a network without manual assistance or intervention.

Question 3.
Write about Mobile Networks?
Answer:
Mobile Networks:
A mobile network or cellular network as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells. These cells join to form a large coverage area. Communication over mobile network is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.

Question 4.
Differentiate Wi-Fi and Li-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi:

1. Wireless Fidelity
2. Wi-Fi uses radio frequencies for data transmission.

Li-Fi:

1. Li-Fi is a wireless technology which uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) for data transmission.
2. Li-Fi is the short form of Light Fidelity.

Question 5.
What is RFID?
Answer:

1. RFID stands for Radio -Frequency Identification (RFID).
2. RFID used for radio waves to read and capture information stored on a tag attached to an object. Tag can be read from several feet away and does not need to be in direct-line-of-sight of the reader to be tracked.
3. RFID has been made up of two parts a reader and a tag or a label.
4. RFID tags are installed with a transmitter and receiver.

Question 6.
List out the two types of RFID tags?
Answer:
Two types of RFID tags were Active RFID and Passive RFID systems.

1. Passive RFID tag will be used the reader radio wave energy to really its stored information back to the reader.
2. Battery powered RFID tag is installed with small battery that powers the broadcast of information

Question 7.
Write note on Network Interface Layer?
Answer:
Network Interface Layer:

1. It is the bottom most level layer.
2. It is comparable to that of the Open System Interconnection Physical and Data Link layers.
3. Different TCP/IP protocols are being used at this layer, Ethernet and Token Ring for local area networks and protocols such as X.25, Frame Relay, and ATM for wide area networks.
4. It is assumed to be an unreliable layer.

Question 8.
Write note on Application Layer?
Answer:
The Application layer of the TCP/IP model is similar to the Session, Presentation, and Application layers of the OSI Reference Model. The most popular Application layer protocols are:
(i) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP):
The core protocol of the World Wide Web.

(ii) File Transfer Protocol (FTP):
enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.

(iii) Telnet:
connect to another computer on the Internet.

(iv) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP):
Provide e-mail services.

(v) Domain Name System (DNS):
Refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain any 5 applications of Internet Intranet and Extranet?
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the working of Passive and Active RFID systems with diagram?
Working of Passive RFID System
A Passive RFID system using Induction coupling method:
Answer:
The RFID tag gets power from the reader through the inductive coupling method.

A Passive RFID system using EM wave propagation method:
The reader antenna trAnswer:mits the electromagnetic waves that are received by the antenna.

Working Of Active RFID System
The reader sends signal to the tag using an antenna.

Question 3.
Discuss in detail about TCP/IP protocols?
Answer:
TCP/IP:
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, TCP/IP is a set of protocols which governs communications among all computers on the Internet. TCP/IP protocol tells how information should be packaged, sent, and received, as well as how to get to its destination.

TCP WORKING: TCP/IP is a combination of two protocols: TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol (TCP) and Internet Protocol (IP). The Internet Protocol typically specifies he logistics of the packets that are sent out over networks; it specifies the packets which have to go, where to go and how to get there. The TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol is accountable for guaranteeing the trustworthy trAnswer:mission of data. It sees that the packets for errors and submits the requests for re-trAnswer:missions incase any of them are missing’.

Frequent TCP/IP Protocols

• HTTP – It is used between a web client and a web server and it guarantees non-secure data trAnswer:missions.
• HTTPS – It is used between a web client and a web server ensures secure data trAnswer:missions.
• FTP – It is used between computers for sending and receiving file.

Domain Names and TCP/IP Addresses
The address for any website is not as easy as to remember, domain name are used instead. For example, 216.58.216.164 is one of the IP address for Google and google.com is the domain name.

The Different Layers of TCP/IP
There are four total layers of TCP/IP protocol, each of which is listed below with a brief description.

1. Network Access Layer – concerned with building packets.
2. Internet Layer – describes how packets are to be delivered.
3. Transport Layer – ensure the proper transmission of data.
4. Application Layer – application network processes. These processes include File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Hypertext TrAnswer:fer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Question 4.
Explain the important protocols present in

1. Network layer
2. Transport Layer

Answer:
1. Network Layer:
It is the layer where data is addressed, packaged, and routed among networks. The important Internet protocols that operate at the Network layer are:

2. Internet Protocol (IP):
Routable protocol which uses IP addresses to deliver packets. It is an unreliable protocol, does not guarantee delivery of information.

3. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP):
Resolves IP addresses to MAC (Medium Access Control) addresses. (A MAC address is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network.)i.e., to map IP network addresses to the hardware addresses.

4. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP):
Used by network devices to send error messages and operational information. Example: A host or router might not be reached or a requested service is not presented.

5. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP):
It is a communication protocol used by hosts and routers to send Multicast (group Communication) messages to multiple IP addresses at once.

6. port Layer:
The sessions are recognized and data packets are swapped between hosts in this layer. Two main protocols established at this layer are:

7. Mission Control Protocol (TCP):
Provides reliable connection oriented trAnswer:mission between two hosts. It ensures delivery of packets between the hosts.

8. User Datagram Protocol (UDP):
Provides connectionless, unreliable, one-to-one or one- to-many delivery.