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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Opening statement of affairs is usually prepared to find out the _________.
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year
(b) Capital at the end of the year
(c) Profit made during the year
(d) Loss occurred during the year
Answer:
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year

Question 2.
The excess of assets over liabilities is ________.
(a) Loss
(b) Cash
(c) Capital
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 3.
Balance of Receipts and payments account indicates the ________.
(a) Loss incurred during the period
(b) Excess of income over expenditure of the period
(c) Total cash payments during the period
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date
Answer:
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date

Question 4.
Income and expenditure account is a ________.
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(a) Nominal A/c

Question 5.
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rate of interest allowed to an loan advanced by partners is ______.
(a) 8% p.a.
(b) 12%p.a.
(c) 5%p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.
Answer:
(d) 6% p.a.

Question 6.
Which of the following is shown in profit and loss appropriation account _______.
(a) Office expenses
(b) Salary of staff
(c) Partners salary
(d) Interest on bank loan
Answer:
(c) Partners salary

Question 7.
The average rate of return of similar concerns is considered as _______.
(a) Average profit
(b) Normal rate of return
(c) Expected rate of return
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Normal rate of return

Question 8.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Super profit = Total profit/Number of years
(b) Super profit = weighted profit/Number of years
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
(d) Super profit = Average profit x years of purchase
Answer:
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit.

Question 9.
The profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is transferred to capital account of ________.
(a) The old partners
(b) The new partners
(c) All the partners
(d) The sacrificing partners
Answer:
(a) The old partners

Question 10.
If the old profit sharing ratio is more than the new profit sharing ratio of a partner, the difference is called ______.
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Sacrificing ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sacrificing ratio

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) Memorandum of revaluation account
Answer:
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
On revaluation, the increase in liabilities leads to __________.
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) profit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loss

Question 13.
At the time of forfeiture, share capital account is debited with ________.
(a) Face Value
(b) Nominal Value
(c) Paid up amount
(d) Called up amount
Answer:
(d) Called up amount

Question 14.
After the forfeited shares are reissued, the balance in the forfeited shares account should be transferred to ________.
(a) General reserve A/c
(b) Capital reserve A/c
(c) Securities premium A/c
(d) Surplus A/c
Answer:
(b) Capital reserve A/c

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analyzed _______.
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
Answer:
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
The financial statements do not exhibit _______.
(a) Non-monetary data
(b) Past-data
(c) Short term data
(d) Long-term data
Answer:
(a) Non-monetary data

Question 17.
Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called ________.
(a) Reserves
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Funds
(d) Quick assets
Answer:
(d) Quick assets

Question 18.
Debt-equity ratio is a measure of ________.
(a) Short-term solvency
(b) Long-term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long-term solvency

Question 19.
Which sub-menu displays groups, ledgers and voucher types in tally?
(a) Inventory vouchers
(b) Accounting vouchers
(c) Company info
(d) Account info
Answer:
(d) Account info

Question 20.
What are the predefined ledgers in tally?
(i) cash (ii) Profit and loss A/c (iii) Capital A/c
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define single entry system.
Answer:
According to Kolher, “Single entry system is a system of book-keeping in which as a rule, only records of cash and personal accounts are maintained. It is always incomplete double entry system varying with circumstances”.

Question 22.
From the following receipts and payments and the additional information given, Calculate amount of subscription to be shown in income and expenditure a/c for year ended 31.12.18.

Additional information :
Subscription outstanding for 2018 ₹ 8,000.
Answer:

Question 23.
Define partnership.
Answer:
According to section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act 1932, partnership is defined as, “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried by all or any of them acting for all”.

Question 24.
The Profits and losses of a firm for the last four years were as follows:
2015 – ₹ 20,000
2016 – ₹ 25,000
2017 – ₹ 3,000 (Loss)
2018 – ₹ 18,000
you are required to calculate goodwill on the basis of 5 years purchase of average profit of last 4 years.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill= Average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,000 × 5
= ₹ 75,000

Question 25.
A and B are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. They admit C on 1.1.2018. On that date, balance sheet showed accumulated profit of? 80,000 on the liabilities side. Give the journal entry.
Answer:

Question 26.
What is the journal entry to be passed to transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor of the deceased partner?
Answer:
To transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor or legal representative of the deceased partner.

Question 27.
What is meant by calls-in-arrear?
Answer:
When a share holder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or on calls, the amount remaining unpaid is known as calls-in-arrear. In other words, the amount called up but not paid is calls-in-arrears.

Question 28.
Calculate gross profit ratio from the following: revenue from operations ₹ 5,00,000; cost of revenue from operations ₹ 4,20,000; and purchases ₹ 3,60,000.
Answer:
Gross profit Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Revenue from operations }} \times 100\)
Gross profit Revenue from operation – cost of revenue from operation
₹ 5,00,000 – ₹ 4,20,000
= ₹ 80,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{80000}{500000} \times 100\)
= 16%

Question 29.
Calculate Quick Ratio from the following information: Current assets – 8,00,000; Current liabilities- ₹ 4,00,000; Inventories ₹ 1,40,000; and prepaid expenses ₹ 60,000.
Answer:
Quick Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick Assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= ₹ 8,00,000 – (1,40,000 – 60,000)
= ₹ 6,00,000
∴ Quick ratio = \(\frac{600000}{400000}\) = 6:4 = 3:2 = 1.5:1

Question 30.
What is computerised accounting system?
Answer:

• Computerised accounting system refers to the system of accounting maintenance using computer.
• It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of computer in order to maintain and produce accounting records and reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the following particulars, ascertain profit or loss.
Capital at beginning – ₹ 5,00,000
Capital at end – ₹ 8,50,000
Additional capital – ₹ 1,20,000
Drawing during the year – ₹ 70,000
Answer:

Question 32.
From the following information of club, show the amount of match expenses in financial statements of the club for the year ended 31.03.2016.
Matches expenses 31.03.16 – ₹ 30,000
Match fund – ₹ 17,000
Donations for match fund (31.03.16) – ₹ 9,000
Proceeds from the sale of match tickets – ₹ 3,000
Answer:

Note:
Match expenses of ₹ 30,000 out of which ₹ 29,000 are met through match fund as per the availability of fund remaining. ₹ 1,000 is debited to income and expenditure A/c.

Question 33.
Prakash and Supriya were partners who share profit and losses in the ratio 5:3. Capital ₹ 3,00,000 for Prakash ₹ 2,00,000 for Supriya. On 1^st April 2018, Prakash introduced additional capital ₹ 60,000 on 1^st July 2018. Supriya introduced additional capital ₹ 30,000 during the year. Calculate the interest on capital at 6% p.a.
Answer:
Calculation of interest on capital

Note:
Date of additional capital introduced by Supriya is not given. Interest on additional capital is calculated for an average period of 6 months.

Question 34.
From the following information relating to a partnership firm, find out the value of its goodwill based on 3 years purchase of average profits of last 4 years.
a) Profits of the year 2015, 2016, 2017 and 2018 are ₹ 10,000, ₹ 12,500; ₹ 12,000 and ₹ 11,500, respectively.
b) The business was looked after by a partner and fair remuneration amount to ₹ 1,500 per year. This amount was not considered in the calculation of the above profit.
Answer:

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= 10,000 × 3
Goodwill = ₹ 30,000

Question 35.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit and losses with ratio of 5:3:2. As from 1^st April 2017, D is admitted into the partnership and new profit sharing ratio of 4:3:2:1.
(i) Increase the value of premises by ₹ 60,000
(ii) Depreciate stock by ₹ 5,000; furniture by ₹ 2,000 and machinery by ₹ 2,500.
(iii) Provide an outstanding liability of ₹ 500. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

Question 36.
Kavitha, Kumudha and Lalitha are partners with profit shares ratio of 5:3:3. Kumudha retires from the firm on 31.12.18. On the date of retirement her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 2,00,000. Pass journal entries.
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately
(iii) ₹ 70,000 is paid and balance in future
Answer:

Question 37.
The directors of a company forfeited 200 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully called up on which final call of ₹ 2/- has not been paid. The shares were reissued upon payment of ₹ 1,500. Journalise the above transaction.
Answer:

Question 38.
From the following particulars, prepare comparative income statement of Arul Ltd.

Answer:

Question 39.
From the following particulars, calculate current ratio, and liquid ratio.
Cash Rs – 18,000; Bills payable – 27,000; Bank O/D – 5,000; Debtors Rs – 1,42,000; creditors – 1,20,000; Stock Rs – 1,80,000; outstanding expenses – 15,000.
Answer:
(a) Current Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Current Assets = Cash + Debtor + Stock
= 18,000+ 1,42,000+ 1,80,000
= ₹ 3,40,000
Current liabilities = Bills payable + Creditors + Outstanding expenses
= 27,000+ 1,20,000+ 15,000+ 5,000
= ₹ 1,67,000
(b) Liquid ratio = \(\frac{\text { Liquid Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Liquid Assets = Current Assets – Closing stock
= 3,00,000 – 1,80,000 = ₹ 1,60,000
∴ Liquid ratio = \(\frac{160000}{167000}\) = 96 : 1

Question 40.
What are the pre-defined ledgers available in Tally ERP.9?
Answer:
In Tally, to record transactions, the transactions are to be identified with the related ledger accounts.
In tally ERP.9, there are two types of pre-defined ledgers.
(i) Cash:
Under the group cash in hand, this ledger is created. You can enter the opening balance as on the books beginning from.
(ii) Profit and loss account:
This ledger is created under the group primary. In this ledger, previous year’s profit or loss is entered as the opening balance of this ledger.
To create ledger,
Gateway of Tally → Masters → Accounts Info → Ledgers → Single Ledger → Create.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raju does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.

Particulars	1.1.2018	31.12.2018
Cash at Bank	80,000	90,000
Stock of goods	1,80,000	1,40,000
Debtors	90,000	2,00,000
Creditors	1,30,000	1,95,000
Bank Loan	60,000	60,000
Bills payable	80,000	45,000
Machinery	1,70,000	1,70,000

He introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 withdrew ₹ 2500/- per month. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Answer:
Calculation of opening capital:

Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars, calculate total sales

Answer:


Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 3,15,000 + ₹ 9,85,000
= ₹ 13,00,000

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account information given below of Madurai sports club, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31.12.18 and balance sheet.
Answer:

Additional informations:
(i) Capital fund as on 1st January 2018, ₹ 30,000
(ii) Opening stock of sports materials ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Following is the receipts and payments A/c of Salem recreation club for the year ended 31^st March 2019.


Additional Information:
(i) There are 450 members each paying annual subscription of ₹ 30
(ii) Stock of stationery on 31^st March 2018, ₹ 300 and 31^st March 2019, ₹ 500
(iii) Capital fund as on 1^st April 2018 was ₹ 9,300
Prepare income and expenditure A/c for the year ended 31^st March 2019 and balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Santhosh is a partner in a partnership firm. As per deed, interest on drawing is charged at 6% p.a. During the year ended 31st Dec 2018, he withdrew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawing by using product method.
Answer:
Calculation of interest on drawings under product method.

Interest on drawings = Sum of product × Rate of interest x \(\frac{1}{12}\)
= ₹ 1,44,000 × \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
= ₹ 720

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profits from the following information:
(a) Capital employed: ₹ 60,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years: 2014 – 1,00,000; 2015 – 50,000; 2016 – 70,000; 2017 – 54,000; 2018 – 10,000.
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ₹ 3,600 p. a.
Answer:


Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of returns
= ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{20}{100}\)
= ₹ 12,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 53,200 – 12,000
= ₹ 41,200
Goodwill = Super profit × Numbers of years of purchase
= ₹ 41,200 × 5
= ₹ 2,06,000

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill by capitalizing super profit
a) Normal rate of return 10%
b) Profits for the last four years are ₹ 30,000; ₹ 40,000; ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 45,000
c) A non-recurring income of ₹ 3,000 is included in the above mentioned profit of ₹ 30,000
d) Average capital employed is ₹ 3,00,000.
Answer:

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 40,500 – ₹ 30,000
= ₹ 10,500

[OR]

(b) Sundar and Suresh are partners sharing profit ratio of 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 1^st January 2017 was as follows:

They decided to admit Sugumar into partnership for 1/4th share in the profit on the following terms:
(a) Sugumar has to bring in ₹ 30,000 as capital. His share of goodwill is valued at ₹ 5,000. He could not bring cash toward goodwill
(b) That the stock be valued at ₹ 20,000
(c) That the furniture be depreciated by ₹ 2,000.
(d) That the value of building be depreciated by 20%.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) The balance sheet of Rekha and Mary on 31^st March 2018.

Their profit sharing ratio is 3:1. They agreed to admit kavitha into the partnership firm for 1/4th share of profits which she entirely gets from Rekha.
(i) Kavitha has to bring ₹ 20,000 as capital. Her share of goodwill is valued at 4,000. She could not bring cash towards goodwill.
(ii) Depreciate building by 10%
(iii) Stock to be valued at ₹ 6,000
(iv) Create provision for doubtful debts @ 5% on debtors
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and balance sheet after admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Charles, Muthu and Sekar are partners sharing profits in the ratio 3:4:2. Their balance sheet as on 31^st December 2018 is as under.

On 1.1.2019 Charles retired from the partnership firm on the following arrangements.
(i) Stock to be appreciated by 10%
(ii) Furniture to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide ₹ 1,000 for bad debtors.
(iv) There is an outstanding repair of ₹ 11,000 not yet recorded
(v) The final amount due to Charles was paid.
Prepare revaluation account, capital account and the balance sheet of a firm after retirement.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Ramesh, Ravi and Akash are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.2017 is as follows.

Akash died on 31. 03. 2018. On the death of Akash the following adjustments are made.
(i) Plant and machinery is to be valued at ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 24,000.
(iv) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial years to the death of average of the three completed years profit before death. Profit for 2015, 2016 and 2017 were ₹ 66,000; ₹ 60,000 & ₹ 66,000 respectively.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) A company issued 10,000 shares of ₹ 20 each a premium of ₹ 5 per share payable ₹ 10/- on application. ₹ 10 on Allotment (including premium) ₹ 5/- on first and final call. The company received 11,000 shares, excess application money was rejected. All money due were received except the final call money on 500 shares. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common size statement of financial position for the following particulars.


Answer:

(b) Calculate turnover ratios from the following information from ‘A’ Ltd.

Additional information:
Revenue from operation for the year 35,00,000
Purchases for the year 21,00,000
Cost of revenue from operations 16,00,000
Assume that sales and purchases are for credit.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which of the following pteridophyte is used as a biofertiliser?
(a) Marsilea
(b) Pteridium
(c) Pteris
(d) Azolla
Answer:
(d) Azolla

Question 2.
Which is not a character of root stock?
(a) Nodes
(b) Intemodes
(c) Terminal bud
(d) Root cap
Answer:
(d) Root cap

Question 3.
Who first proposed the early elementary rule of naming plants?
(a) A.P.de Candolle
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Alphonse de Candolle
(d) Simpson
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 4.
Which of the following alone is formed in the division of plant cells?
(a) Aster
(b) Centrioles
(c) Spindle
(d) Microtubules
Answer:
(c) Spindle

Question 5.
A complete turn of the helix comprises
(a) 34 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 2 nm
Answer:
(b) 3.4 nm

Question 6.
Sun hemp is obtained from
(a) Crotolaria juncea
(b) Corchorus capsularis
(c) Linum ustitaissimum
(d) Cannabis sativa
Answer:
(a) Crotolaria juncea

Question 7.
The color of the light is determined by its
(a) Intensity
(b) Refractive power
(c) Wave length
(d) Reflection
Answer:
(c) Wave length

Question 8.
Which among the following step is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
(a) Pyruvate oxidation
(b) Glycolysis
(c) ETC
(d) TCA cycle
Answer:
(b) Glycolysis

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write the chemical composition of bacterial cell wall.
Answer:
The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids).

Question 10.
Differentiate between vegetative morphology & reproductive morphology.
Answer:
Vegetative morphology :
Vegetative morphology deals with the shoot system and root system.

Reproductive morphology :
Reporductive morphology deals with flowers, inflorescence, fruits and seeds.

Question 11.
What are vernacular names? Give an example.
Answer:
Vernacular names are kjiown as common names, Example: Albizia amara L. is called as Usilai in South Tamil Nadu and Thurinji in North Tamil Nadu.

Question 12.
What is the role of plasmodesmata in a plant cell?
Answer:
Plasmodesmata act as a channel between the protoplasm of adjacent cells through which I many substances pass through.

Question 13.
Define transport in plants. Mention the tissues involved in transportation.
Answer:
Transport is the process of moving water, minerals and food to all parts of the plant body.
Conducting tissues such as xylem and phloem play an important role in transport.

Question 14.
What is a Lichen?
Answer:
Lichens is a mutual association of Algae and Fungi. Algae prepares food and fungi absorbs water and provides thallus structure.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
List out the importance of Mycorrhiza.
Answer:

• Flelps to derive nutrition in Monotropa, a saprophytic angiosperm.
• Improves the availability of minerals and water to the plants.
• Provides drought resistance to the plants.
• Protects roots of higher plants from the attack of plant pathogens.

Question 16.
Classify buds based on their origin & function.
Answer:
Based on origin, buds are classified into (a) Terminal or Apical bud and (b) Lateral or Axillary or Axil bud. Based on function, buds are classified into (a) Vegetative bud and (b) Floral or Reproductive bud.

Question 17.
Distinguish between Karyokinesis & Cytokinesis.
Answer:
Karyokinesis

1. Involves division of nucleus.
2. Nucleus develops a constriction at the center and becomes dumbcllshaped.
3. Constriction deepens and divides the nucleus into two.

Cytokinesis :

1. Involves division of cytoplasm.
2. Plasma membrane develops a constriction along nuclear constriction.
3. It deepens centripetally and finally divides the cell into two cells.

Question 18.
Draw & label bicollateral vascular bundle.
Answer:

Question 19.
Point out the significances of photorespiration.
Answer:
Significance of photorespiration

• Glycine and Serine synthesised during this process are precursors of many biomolecules like chlorophyll, proteins, nucleotides.
• It consumes excess NADH + H+ generated.
• Glycolate protects cells from Photo oxidation.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define ptyxis & explain its types.
Answer:
Rolling or folding of individual leaves is called ptyxis. There are seven types of ptyxis as follows:

1. Reclinate – When the upper half of the leaf blade is bent upon the lower half as in loquat (Eriobotiya japonica).
2. Conduplicate – When the leaf is folded lengthwise along the mid-rib, as in guava, sweet
   potato and camel’s foot tree (Bauhinia).
3. Plicate or Plaited – When the leaf is repeatedly folded longitudinally along ribs in a zig¬zag manner, as in Borassus flabellifer.
4. Circinate – When the leaf is rolled from the apex towards the base like the tail of a dog, as in ferns.
5. Convolute – When the leaf is rolled from one margin to the other, as in banana, aroids and Indian pennywort. Musa and members of Araceae.
6. Involute – When the two margins are rolled on the upper surface of the leaf towards the mid-rib or the centre of the leaf, as in water lily, lotus, Sandwich Island Climber (.Antigonon) and Plumbago.
7. Crumpled – When the leaf is irregularly folded as in cabbage.

[OR]

Explain Clitoria ternatea in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:

1. Habit: Twining climber
2. Root: Branched tap root system having nodules.
3. Stem: Aerial, weak stem and a twiner.
4. Leaf: Imparipinnately compound, alternate, stipulate showing reticulate venation. Leaflets are stipellate.
   Petiolate and stipels are pulvinated.
5. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary
6. Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.
7. Calyx: Sepals 5, synsepalous, green showing valvate aestivation. Odd repel is anterior in position.
8. Corolla: Petals 5, white or blue apopetalous, irregular papilionaceous corolla showing, descendingly imbricate aestivation.
9. Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous (9) + 1 nine stamens fused to form a bundle and the tenth stamen is free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introse and dechising by longitudinal slits.
10. Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, uni-locular, with many ovules on marginal placentation, ovary superior, style simple and incurved with feathery stigma.
11. Fruit: Legume
12. Seed: Non-endospermous, reniform.
13. Floral Formula:
    

Question 21.
Explain about Cohesion – Tension Theory.
Answer:
Cohesion-tension theory was originally proposed by Dixon and Jolly (1894) and again put forward by Dixon (1914, 1924). This theory is based on the following features:

i. Strong cohesive force or tensile strength of water: Water molecules have the strong mutual force of attraction called cohesive force due to which they cannot be easily separated from one another. Further, the attraction between a water molecule and the wall of the xylem element is called adhesion. These cohesive and adhesive force works together to form an unbroken continuous water column in the xylem. The magnitude of the cohesive force is much high (350 atm) and is more than enough to ascent sap in the tallest trees.

ii. Continuity of the water column in the plant: An important factor which can break the water column is the introduction of air bubbles in the xylem. Gas bubbles expanding and displacing water within the xylem element is called cavitation or embolism. However, the overall continuity of the water column remains undisturbed since water diffuses into the adjacent xylem elements for continuing ascent of sap.

iii. Transpiration pull or Tension in the unbroken water column: The unbroken water column from leaf to root is just like a rope. If the rope is pulled from the top, the entire rope will move upward. In plants, such a pull is generated by the process of transpiration which is known as transpiration pull. Water vapour evaporates from mesophyll cells to the intercellular spaces near stomata as a result of active transpiration.

The water vapours are then transpired through the stomatal pores. Loss of water from mesophyll cells causes a decrease in water potential. So, water moves as a pull from cell to cell along the water potential gradient. This tension, generated at the top (leaf) of the unbroken water column, is transmitted downwards from petiole, stem and finally reaches the roots. The cohesion theory is the most accepted among the plant physiologists today.

[OR]

Demonstrate alcoholic fermentation using Kuhne’s apparatus.
Answer:
Demonstration of alcoholic fermentation:
Take a Kuhne’s fermentation tube which consists of an upright glass tube with side bulb. Pour 10% sugar solution mixed with baker’s yeast into the fermentation tube the side tube is filled plug the mouth with lid. After some time, the glucose solution will be fermented. The solution will give out an alcoholic smell and level of solution in glass column will fall due to the accumulation of CO₂ gas.

It is due to the presence of zymase enzyme in yeast which converts the glucose solution into alcohol and CO₂. Now introduce a pellet of KOH into the tube, the KOH will absorb CO₂ and the level of solution will rise in upnght tube.

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [Answers are in bold] [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Two words comprising the binomial nomenclature are
(a) Family & genus
(b) Order & Family
(c) Genus & species
(d) Species & Variety
Answer:
(c) Genus & species

Question 2.
Which of the following animals has a true coelom?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(c) Sycon
(d) Taenia Solium
Answer:
(b) Pheretima

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i),  3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
ERV stands for ………..
(a) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Exchange Reserve Volume
(c) Exchange Residual Volume
(d) Expiratory Residual Volume
Answer:
(a) Expiratory Reserve Volume

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) There are about 5 to 6-5 millions of RBC mnr3 of blood in a healthy man.
(b) Approximately 7000 to 8000 per cubic mm of WBC’s are seen in the blood of an average healthy individuals. ‘
(c) Lymphocytes constitute 38% of WBC’s
(d) Blood normally contains 1,50,000-3,50,000 platelets mm-3 of blood.
Answer:
(d) Blood normally contains 1,50,000-3,50,000 platelets mm-3 of blood.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Sarcomere is the functional unit of cardiac muscles.
(b) Myoglobin is a red-coloured respiratory pigment of the muscle fibre.
(c) The study of muscle is called myology.
(d) Skeletal muscle is attacked to the bone by a bundle of collagen fibres known as tendon.
Answer:
(a) Sarcomere is the functional unit of cardiac muscles.

Question 7.
Which is right combination of names of ear ossicles?
(a) Malleus, incus and cochlus
(b) Malleus, incus and stapes
(c) Magnus, incus and stapes
(d) Malleus, incus and cochlea
Answer:
(b) Malleus, incus and stapes

Question 8.
This breed is chiefly found in West Bengal.
(a) Brahma
(b) Aseet
(c) Leghorn
(d) Chittagorg
Answer:
(d) Chittagorg

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name the sensory organs of arthopods?
Answer:
Antennae, Simple and Compound eyes, statocysts.

Question 10.
Distinguish between living and non living things
Answer:
Living things :

1. Living things exhibit life processes such as nutrition, respiration, excretion, metabolism. growth, movement.
2. These are b lotie component of ecosystem.

Non-living things

1. Non living things do not exhibit life processes.
2. These are abiotic component of ecosystem.

Question 11.
Define tissues.
Answer:
Group of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related functions are called tissues.

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of Rana hexadactlya – Brain dorsal view.
Answer:

Question 13.
Name the proteins which regulates the contraction of muscles.
Answer:
Actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin.

Question 14.
List any three common uses of shellac.
Answer:

1. Shellac with denatural alcohol is used to remove dust on the walls.
2. Coating of metals with shellac prevents rusting.
3. Shellac coating on citrus fruits increases their shelf life.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are flame cells and their functions?
Answer:
Flame cells are the specialized excretory cells in flatworms. They help in excretion and osmoregulation. Flame cells or solanocytes are the excretory cells.

Question 16.
How does cockroach survive without a head?
Answer:
A cockroach can live for a week without its head. Due to their open circulatory system, and the fact that they breathe through little holes on each of their body segments, since they are not dependent on the mouth or head to breathe. The cockroach dies later due to starvation.

Question 17.
Distinguish between Oviparous and Viviparous animals.
Answer:
Oviparous animals  :

1. The egg laying animals are known as Oviparous animals.
2. They make contain yolk for embryonic development, eg. Birds

Viviparous animals :

1. The animals which give birth to young ones are called Viviparous animals.
2. The developing embryo derives nutrients from the parent, eg. Man

Question 18.
Explain limbic systems.
Answer:
Limbic system: The inner part of the cerebral hemisphere constitutes the limbic system. The main components of limbic system are olfactory bulbs, cingulate gyrus, mammillary body, . amygdala, hippocampus and hypothalamus. The limbic system is called ‘emotional brain’ because it plays a primary role in the regulation of pleasure, pain, anger, fear, sexual feeling and affection. The hippocampus and amygdala also play a role in memory. Brain stem is the part of the brain between the spinal cord and the diencephalon. It consists of mid brain, pons varolii and medulla oblongata.

Question 19.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of lobes of cerebral hemisphere.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write the general characteristics of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
All Echinoderms are marine animals. The adults are radially symmetrical but the larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. These animals have a mesodermal endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles and hence the name Echinodermata (spiny skin). They are exclusively marine with organ system level of organisation. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of the water vascular system or ambulacral system with tube feet or podia, which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration.

The digestive system is complete with mouth on ventral side and anus on the dorsal side. Excretory organs are absent. The nervous system and sensory organs are poorly developed. The circulatory system is open type without heart and blood vessels. Sexes are separate. Reproduction is sexual and fertilization is external, pevelopment is indirect with free swimming bilaterally symmetrical larval forms. Some echinoderms exhibit autotomy with remarkable powers of regeneration.

Examples: Asterias (Starfish or sea star), Echinus (Sea-urchin), Antedon (Sea-lily), Cucumaria (Sea-cucumber), Ophiura (Brittle star)

[OR]

Explain the respiratory system of Rana hexadactyla.
Answer:
Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods. In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water gets, exchanged through the skin by diffusion. On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs. In buccal respiration on land, the mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open. The floor of the buccal cavity is alternately raised and lowered, so air is drawn into and expelled out of the buccal cavity repeatedly through the open nostrils. Respiration • by lungs is called pulmonary respiration. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink coloured saclike structures present in the upper part of the trunk region (thorax). Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to the lungs. During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin.

Question 21.
What are the steps of insertion of nucleus into Oyster?
Answer:
In this method, a piece of mantle of living oyster is cut off and inserted together with a suitable nucleus inside the living tissue of another oyster. Following steps are taken for the insertion of nucleus.

a. Fitness of oyster for operation
The selected oysters for the insertion of nucleus should be healthy and strong enough to overcome the stress during operation

b. Preparation of graft tissues
The piece of tissue which is inserted inside the mantle is called as ‘GRAFT’ tissue. The outer edges of these graft squares must be known because nacre secreting cells are found only on the outer surface of the mantle so it is essential to keep the outer surface in contact with the inserted nucleus.

c. Preparation of nucleus
Any small particle may function as nucleus to initiate the pearl formation but it is reported that calcareous nucleus is the best because the deposition of nacre was found to be more on calcarious nucleus.

d. Insertion of nucleus
For the insertion of nucleus, oysters are fixed in a desk clamp in the position of right valve facing upward. Mantle folds are smoothly touched to expose the foot and the main body mass, followed by an incision into the epithelium of the foot and a slender channel into the main mass one graft tissue which functions as a bed for the nucleus.

e. Post operation care :
Nucleated oysters are placed into cages and suspended into sea water and attached with floating rafts to a depth of 2 to 3 metres for about 6 to 7 days to recover from the shocks due to operation. This period of 6 to 7 days is known as ‘Recovery period’. About 3000 to 3600 nucleated oysters are kept in different cages suspended in sea water at 2 to 3 meters depth for 3 to 6 years and undisturbed except at the time of clearing and inspection.

[OR]

Write a note on Pectoral girdle.
Answer:
The upper limbs are attached to the pectoral girdles. These are very light and allow the upper limbs a degree of mobility not seen anywhere else in the body. The girdle is formed of two halves. Each half of the pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle or collar bone and a scapula. The scapula is a large, thin, triangular bone situated in the dorsal surface of the ribcage between the second and seventh ribs. It has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine which projects as a flat, expanded process called the acromion.

The clavicle articulates with this process. Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint. Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures which lies horizontally and connects axial skeleton with appendicular skeleton.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 Pdf in English Medium, Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 in English Medium

Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If π = 3.14, then the value of π² is _________
(a) 9.8596
(b) 9.860
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.9
Answer:
(c) 9.86
π = 3.14
π² = (3.14)² = 9.8596
Rounding off, we get π² = 9.86

Question 2.
If an object is thrown vertically upward with initial speed ‘u ’ from the ground, then the time
taken by the object to return to the ground is ________
(a) \(\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}\)
(b) \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
(c) \(\frac{u}{2 g}\)
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
When body moves upward, v = 0; s = h
v = u + at

Question 3.
If the position vector of a particle is given by \(\vec{r}=5 t^{2} \hat{i}+7 t \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\), then its velocity lies in:
(a) X-Z plane
(b) X-Y plane
(c) along Y-direction
(d) along X- direction
Answer:
(b) X-Y plane

Question 4.
Force acting on a particle moving at constant speed:
(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non-zero
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(a) always zero

Question 5.
What of the following force is pseudo force?
(a) viscous force
(b) surface tension
(c) centrifugal force
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(c) centrifugal force

Question 6.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass ‘m’ must enter a vertical loop of radius R, so that it can complete the loop?
(a) \(\sqrt{2 g R}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{3 g R}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{g R}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)

Question 7.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum ‘L’. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum will be:
(a) L
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\)
(c) 2L
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 8.
A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force:
(a) decreases the rotational and translational motion
(b) dissipates kinetic energy as heat
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
(d) decreases the rotational motion
Answer:
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

Question 9.
If the radius of Earth is ‘R’, at what height acceleration due to gravity becomes zero?
(a) R
(b) \(\frac{R}{4}\)
(c) 2R
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)

Question 10.
If two wires have the same dimension but of different materials, the graph between load and extension is as follow, then which of the following is true:

(a) Y_B = Y_A
(b) Y_A < Y_B (c) Y_A > Y_B
(d) Y_A = Y_B = 0
Answer:
(c) Y_A > Y_B

Question 11.
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on __________
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
Answer:
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Question 12.
The efficiency of a heat engine working between 27°C and 127°C is:
(a) 50 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 12.5 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %
T₁ = 127°C = 400 K
T₂ = 27°C = 300 K

Question 13.
The ratio \(\gamma=\frac{C_{P}}{C_{V}}\) for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen is :
(a) \(\frac{23}{15}\)
(b) \(\frac{15}{23}\)
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
(d) \(\frac{17}{27}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
Helium is a mono atomic gas and oxygen is diatomic gas.

Question 14.
In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against displacement for one complete oscillation will be __________
(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a parabola
(d) a straight line
Answer:
(d) a straight line

Question 15.
A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears the first echo after ‘t₁’ sec, and the second echo after ‘t₂’ sec. The distance between the hills is _______
(a) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}-t_{2}\right)}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1} t_{2}\right)}{2\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}\)
(c) \(v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Distance b/w man and hill 1, d₁ = \(\frac{v t_{1}}{2}\)
Distance b/w man and hill 2, d₂ = \(\frac{v t_{2}}{2}\)
Distance b/w the two hills, d = d₁ + d₂
\(\mathrm{d}=\frac{\mathrm{v}\left(\mathrm{t}_{1}+\mathrm{t}_{2}\right)}{2}\)

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Check the following equation by dimensional method: E = mc²
Answer:
Let us assume that the Energy E depends on mass m and velocity of light c.
E ∝ m^a c^b
E = km^ac^b where K a constant
Dimensions of E = [ML²T^-2]
Dimensions of m = [M]
Dimensions of c = [LT^-1]
Substituting the values in the above equation [ML²T^-2] = K [M]^a[LT^-1]^b
By equating the dimensions,
a = 1; b = 2; -b = -2
E = k.mc²
The value of constant k = 1
E = mc²
This is Einstein’s mass energy relation.

Question 17.
What is the difference between scalar and vector? Give examples.
Answer:

Scalar	Vector
Which has only magnitude and no direction	Which has both magnitude and direction?
It is a one-dimensional quantity.	It is a multi-dimensional quantity.
It follows ordinary algebra rules. Ex. Length, mass	It follows vector algebra rules. Ex. force, velocity

Question 18.
State Lami’s theorem.
Answer:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lami’s theorem states that the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between the other two forces.
\(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\right| \propto \sin \alpha,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\right| \propto \sin \beta,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{3}\right| \alpha \sin \gamma\)

Question 19.
Define the centre of gravity.
Answer:
The centre of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 20.
An electron moving with velocity 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s, revolving in a circular orbit of radius 0.53 Å. Calculate its angular velocity.
Answer:
v = 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s
r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10^-10 m
Angular velocity, \(\omega=\frac{v}{r}=\frac{2.2 \times 10^{6}}{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}\)
ω = 4.15 × 10¹⁶ rads^-1

Question 21.
What is Reynold’s number? Give its significance.
Answer:
It is a dimensionless number which determines the nature of the flow of fluid through a pipe. Reynold’s number is given by,
\(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{c}}=\frac{\rho v \mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{n}}\)
If, R_c < 1000 – streamline
R_c > 2000 – turbulent
1000 < R_c < 2000 – unsteady

Question 22.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 Kelvin or 1°C
∆Q = ms∆T
Therefore, \(s=\frac{1}{m}\left(\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right)\)
The SI unit for specific heat capacity is J kg^-1 K^-1

Question 23.
Define the root mean square speed.
Answer:
Root mean square speed is defined as the square root of the mean of the square of speeds of all molecules.

Question 24.
A particle executing SHM covers a displacement of half of the amplitude in one second. Calculate its time period.
Answer:
Displacement, X = A sin(ωt)

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What are the limitations of dimensional analysis?
Answer:
Limitations of Dimensional analysis

1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, ……… π, e, etc.
2. This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
3. It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, \(s=u t+\frac{1}{3} a t^{2}\) is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is \(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)

Question 26.
Find the maximum speed at which a car turn round a curve of 36 m radius on a level road. Given the co-eff. of friction between the tyre and road is 0.53.
Answer:
Radius of the curve r = 36 m
Coefficient of friction µ = 0.53
Acceleration due to. gravity g = 10 ms^-2
\(v_{\max }=\sqrt{\mu r g}=\sqrt{0.53 \times 36 \times 10}=13.81 \mathrm{ms}^{-1}\)

Question 27.
Give the difference between elastic and inelastic collision.
Answer:

Elastic collision	Inelastic collision
1. Total kinetic energy is conserved.	1. Total kinetic energy is not conserved.
2. Forces involved are conservative forces.	2. Forces involved are non-conservative forces.
3. Mechanical energy is not dissipated.	3. Mechanical energy is dissipated into heat, light and sound etc.

Question 28.
The position vector of the particle has a length of 1 m makes an angle of 30° with X-axis. What are the lengths of x and y components of the position vector?
Answer:
Given:
Length of position vector = 1 m
Angle made with x-axis = 30

Length of X component (OB) = OA cos θ = 1 × cos 30°
\(l_{x}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \mathrm{m}\) (or) 0.87 m
Length of Y component (AB) = OA sin θ = 1 × sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m.
ly = 0.5 m

Question 29.
State Kepler’s laws.
Answer:

1. Law of Orbits: Each planet revolves moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.
2. Law of the area: The radial vector line joining the Sun to a planet sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
3. Law of the period: The square of the time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun in its elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse.
   T² ∝ a³
   \(\frac{T^{2}}{a^{3}}\) = constant

Question 30.
Explain any three factors affecting the surface tension of a liquid.
Answer:

1. The presence of any contamination or impurities considerably affects the force of surface tension depending upon the degree of contamination.
2. The presence of dissolved substances can also affect the value of surface tension. For example, a highly soluble substance like sodium chloride (NaCl) when dissolved in water (H₂O) increases the surface tension of water. But the sparingly soluble substance like phenol or soap solution when mixed in water decreases the surface tension of water.
3. Electrification effects surface tension. When a liquid is electrified, surface tension decreases. Since external force acts on the liquid surface due to electrification, the area of the liquid surface increases which acts against the contraction phenomenon of the system.

Question 31.
Define degrees of freedom. Give an example.
Answer:
The minimum number of independent coordinates needed to specify the position and configuration of a thermo-dynamical system in space is called the degree of freedom of the So its degree of freedom is one.
Example:

1. A free particle moving along x-axis needs only one coordinate to specify it completely. So its degree of freedom is one.
2. Similarly, a particle moving over a plane has two degrees of freedom.
3. A particle moving in space has three degrees of freedom.

Question 32.
Explain any three applications of reflection of a sound wave.
Answer:
(a) Stethoscope: It works on the principle of multiple reflections. It consists of three main parts:

• Chest piece
• Earpiece
• Rubber tube

(b) Echo: An echo is a repetition of sound produced by the reflection of sound waves from a wall, mountain or other obstructing surfaces. The speed of sound in air at 20°C is 344 ms^-1. If we shout at a wall which is at 344 m away, then the sound will take 1 second to reach the wall. After reflection, the sound will take one more second to reach us. Therefore, we hear the echo after two seconds.

(c) SONAR: Sound Navigation and Ranging. Sonar systems make use of reflections of sound waves in the water to locate the position or motion of an object. Similarly, dolphins and bats use the sonar principle to find their way in the darkness.

Question 33.
A child is playing on a sliding board. If he is sliding down:
(a) Mention the forces acting on the child.
(b) Draw FBD (Free Body Diagram).
(c) Write the force equation.
Answer:
(a) ma = mg sin θ – f_k

(c) F = mg sin θ

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Explain in detail the triangle law of addition.
Answer:
Let us consider two vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) as shown in figure. To find the resultant of the two vectors we apply the triangular law of addition as follows:

Represent the vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) by the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Then the resultant is given by the third side of the triangle as shown in figure. To explain further, the head of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) is connected to the tail of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Let θ be the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). Then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) is the resultant vector connecting the tail of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) to the head of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\)(resultant) is given geometrically by the length of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) (OQ) and the direction of the resultant vector is the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Thus we write \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PQ}}\)

1. Magnitude of resultant vector: The magnitude and angle of the resultant vector are determined by using triangle law of vectors as follows.
From the figure, consider the triangle ABN, which is obtained by extending the side OA to ON. ABN is a right-angled triangle.



[OR]
Question 34(b).
Discuss the four types of oscillation.
Answer:
(i) Free oscillations: When the oscillator is allowed to oscillate by displacing its position from the equilibrium position, it oscillates with a frequency which is equal to the natural frequency of the oscillator. Such an oscillation or vibration is known as free oscillation or free vibration. In this case, the amplitude, frequency and the energy of the vibrating object remain constant.
Examples:

• The vibration of a tuning fork.
• Vibration in a stretched string.
• Oscillation of a simple pendulum.
• Oscillations of a spring-mass system.

(ii) Damped oscillations: During the oscillation of a simple pendulum (in the previous case), we have assumed that the amplitude of the oscillation is constant and also the total energy of the oscillator is constant. But in reality, in a medium, due to the presence of friction and air drag, the amplitude of oscillation decreases as time progresses. It implies that the oscillation is not sustained and the energy of the SHM decreases gradually indicating the loss of energy. The energy lost is absorbed by the surrounding medium. This type of oscillatory motion is known as damped oscillation. In other words, if an oscillator moves in a resistive medium, its amplitude goes on decreasing and the energy of the oscillator is used to do work against the resistive medium. The motion of the oscillator is said to be damped and in this case, the resistive force (or damping force) is proportional to the velocity of the oscillator.
Examples:

• The oscillations of a pendulum (including air friction) or pendulum oscillating inside an oil-filled container.
• Electromagnetic oscillations in a tank circuit.
• Oscillations in a dead beat and ballistic galvanometers.

(iii) Maintained oscillations: While playing in swing, the oscillations will stop after a few cycles, this is due to damping. To avoid damping we have to supply a push to sustain oscillations. By supplying energy from an external source, the amplitude of the oscillation can be made constant. Such vibrations are known as maintained vibrations.
Example:
The vibration of a tuning fork getting energy from a battery or from the external power supply.

(iv) Forced oscillations: Any oscillator driven by an external periodic agency to overcome the damping is known as a forced oscillator or driven oscillator. In this type of vibration, the body executing vibration initially vibrates with its natural frequency and due to the presence of external periodic force, the body later vibrates with the frequency of the applied periodic force. Such vibrations are known as forced vibrations.
Example: Soundboards of stringed instruments.

Question 35.
(a) Explain the vertical motion of blocks connected by a string.
Answer:
Vertical motion: Consider two blocks of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) connected by light and inextensible string that passes over a pulley as shown in Figure.

Let the tension in the string be T and acceleration a.
When the system is released, both the blocks start moving, m₂ vertically upward and m₁ downward with same acceleration a. The gravitational force m₁g on mass m₁ is used in lifting the mass m₂.
The upward direction is chosen as y-direction. The free-body diagrams of both masses are shown in Figure.

Applying Newton’s second law for mass m₂
\(\mathrm{T} \hat{j}-m_{2} g \hat{j}=m_{2} a \hat{j}\)
The left-hand side of the above equation is the total force that acts on m₂ and the right-hand side is the product of mass and acceleration of m₂ in the y-direction.
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₂g = m₂a …… (1)
Similarly, applying Newton’s second law for mass m₁
\(\mathbf{T} \hat{j}-m_{1} g \hat{j}=-m_{1} a \hat{j}\)
As mass mx moves downward (\(-\hat{j}\)), its acceleration is along (\(-\hat{j}\)) By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₁g = -m₁a
m₁g – T = m₁a ……. (2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
m₁g – m₂g = m₁a + m₂a
(m₁ – m₂)g = (m₁ + m₂)a …….. (3)
From equation (3), the acceleration of both the masses is
\(a=\left(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right) g\) …… (4)
If both the masses are equal (m₁ = m₂), from equation (4)
a = 0
This shows that if the masses are equal, there is no acceleration and the system as a whole will be at rest.
To find the tension acting on the string, substitute the acceleration from the equation (4) into the equation (1).

[OR]
Question 35(b).
What are stationary waves? Write the characteristics of stationary waves.
Answer:
Explanation of stationary waves: When the wave hits the rigid boundary it bounces back to the original medium and can interfere with the original waves. A pattern is formed, which are known as standing waves or stationary waves.
Characteristics of stationary waves:

1. Stationary waves are characterised by the confinement of a wave disturbance between two rigid boundaries. This means, the wave does not move forward or backwards in a medium (does not advance), it remains steady at its place. Therefore, they are called “stationary waves or standing waves”.
2. Certain points in the region in which the wave exists have maximum amplitude, called as anti-nodes and at certain points, the amplitude is minimum or zero, called as nodes.
3. The distance between two consecutive nodes (or) anti-nodes is \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
4. The distance between a node and its neighbouring anti-node is \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
5. The transfer of energy along the standing wave is zero.

Question 36(a).
Derive the expression of a moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform rod of mass (M) and length (l) as shown in the figure. Let us find an expression for moment of inertia of this rod about an axis that passes through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the rod. First, an origin is to be fixed for the coordinate system so that it coincides with the centre of mass, which is also the geometric centre of the rod. The rod is now along the x-axis. We take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance (x) from the origin. The moment of inertia (dl) of this mass (dm) about the axis is, dl = (dm)x²
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) of the rod is, \(\lambda=\frac{\mathbf{M}}{l}\)
The (dm) mass of the infinitesimally small length as, dm = λdx = \(\frac{M}{l}\) dx
The moment of inertia (i) of the entire rod can be found by integrating dI,
\(\begin{aligned}
&\mathrm{I}=\int d \mathrm{I}=\int(d m) x^{2}=\int\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} d x\right) x^{2}\\
&\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} \int x^{2} d x
\end{aligned}\)
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin, the limits for integration are taken from to -l/2 to l/2


[OR]
Question 36(b).
State ideal gas laws. Derive the equation of state for an ideal gas.
Answer:
Boyle’s law: For a given gas at low pressure (density) kept in a container of volume V, experiments revealed the following information.
When the gas is kept at a constant temperature, the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)
Charles’ law: When the gas is kept at constant pressure, the volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature V ∝ T.
By combining these two equations we have
PV = CT. Here C is a positive constant.
We can infer that C is proportional to the number of particles in the gas container by considering the following argument. If we take two containers of the same type of gas with the same volume V, same pressure P and same temperature T, then the gas in each container obeys the above equation. PV = CT. If the two containers of gas are considered as a single system, then the pressure and temperature of this combined system will be same but volume will be twice and a number of particles will also be double.

For this combined system, V becomes 2V, so C should also double to match with the ideal gas equation \(\frac{P(2 V)}{T}=2 C\). It implies that C must depend on the number of particles in the gas and also should have the dimension of \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\right]=\mathrm{JK}^{-1}\). So we can write the constant C as k times the number of particles N.
Here k is the Boltzmann constant (1.381 × 10^-23 JK^-1) and it is found to be a universal constant. So the ideal gas law can be stated as follows
PV = NkT ……..(1)
The equation (1) can also be expressed in terms of mole.
Suppose if the gas contains µ mole of particles then the total number of particles can be written as N = µN_A …(2)
where NA is Avogadro number (6.023 × 10²³ mol^-1)
Substituting for N from equation (2), the equation (1) becomes PV = µN_AkT. Here N_Ak = R called universal gas constant and its value is 8.314 J /mol. K
So the ideal gas law can be written for µ mole of gas as
PV = µRT ……..(3)
This is called the equation of state for an ideal gas. It relates the pressure, volume and temperature of the thermodynamic system at equilibrium.

Question 37(a).
Derive the expression of escape speed.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass M on the surface of the Earth. When it is thrown up with an initial speed v_i, the initial total energy of the object is
\(\mathrm{E}_{i}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) ……. (1)
where M_E is the mass of the Earth and R_E the radius of the Earth. The term \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) is the potential energy of the mass M.
When the object reaches a height far away from Earth and hence treated as approaching infinity, the gravitational potential energy becomes zero [U(∞) = 0] and the kinetic energy becomes zero as well. Therefore the final total energy of the object becomes zero. This is for minimum energy and for minimum speed to escape. Otherwise, kinetic energy can be nonzero.
E_f = 0
According to the law of energy conservation,
E_i = E_f ……. (2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get,
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}=0\)
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}=\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) …….(3)
Consider the escape speed, the minimum speed required by an object to escape Earth’s gravitational field, hence replace v_i with v_e i.e.,
\(\frac{1}{2} M v_{e}^{2}=\frac{G M M_{E}}{R_{E}}\)

From equation (4) the escape speed depends on two factors acceleration due to gravity and radius of the Earth. It is completely independent of the mass of the object. By substituting the values of g (9.8 ms^-2) and R, = 6400 km, the escape speed of the Earth is v_g = 11.2 kms^-1. The escape speed is independent of the direction in which the object is thrown. Irrespective of whether the object is thrown vertically up, radially outwards or tangentially it requires the same initial speed to escape Earth’s gravity.
[OR]
Question 37(b).
Explain the different types of moduli of elasticity.
Answer:
From Hooke’s law, the stress in a body is proportional to the corresponding strain, provided the deformation is very small. Here we shall define the elastic modulus of a given material. There are three types of elastic modulus.
(a) Young’s modulus (b) Rigidity modulus (or Shear modulus) (c) Bulk modulus
Young’s Modulus: When a wire is stretched or compressed, then the ratio between tensile stress (or compressive stress) and tensile strain (or compressive strain) is defined as Young’s modules.

The negative sign indicates when pressure is applied on the body, its volume decreases. Further, the equation implies that a material can be easily compressed if it has a small value of bulk modulus. In other words, bulk modulus measures the resistance of solids to change in their volume. For example, we know that gases can be easily compressed than solids, which means, gas has a small value of bulk modulus compared to solids. The S.I. unit of K is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or Pa (pascal).
The rigidity modulus or shear modulus: The rigidity modulus is defined as the ratio of the shearing stress to shearing strain,

Further, the above implies, that a material can be easily twisted if it has a small value of rigidity modulus. For example, consider a wire, when it is twisted through an angle 0, a restoring torque is developed, that is
τ ∝ θ
This means that for a larger torque, the wire will twist by a larger amount (angle of shear θ is large). Since rigidity modulus is inversely proportional to the angle of shear, the modulus of rigidity is small. The S.I. unit of ηR is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or pascal.

Question 38.
(a) Two objects of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with the same momentum of 30 kgms^-1.
(i) Will they have the same kinetic energy?
(ii) Will they have the same speed? Prove it.
Answer:
m₁ = 3 kg and m₂ = 6 kg
P = 30 kg ms^-1

[OR]
Question 38(b).
In a series of successive measurements in an experiment, the readings of a period of rotation of a wheel were found out to be 2.15s, 2.25s, 2.28s and 2.32s. Calculate:
(i) mean value of the period of rotation
(ii) absolute error in each measurement
(iii) mean absolute error
(iv) relative error and
(v) percentage error. Express the result in proper form.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the Questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Which graph represents uniform acceleration?


Answer:

Question 2.
A body of mass 5 kg is thrown up vertically with a kinetic energy of 1000 J. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms^-2, find the height at which the kinetic energy becomes half of the original value.
(a) 10 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 100 m
Answer:
(a) 10 m
Half KE is converted into potential energy.
Then PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) KE
mgh = \(\frac{1000}{2}\) = 500
\(\mathrm{h}=\frac{500}{\mathrm{mg}}=\frac{500}{5 \times 10}=10 \mathrm{m}\)

Question 3.
The process in which heat transfer is by actual movement of molecules in fluids such as liquids and gases is called ________
(a) Thermal conductivity
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
(d) Radiation
Answer:
(b) Convection

Question 4.
If the temperature of the wire is increased, then Young’s Modules will
(a) increase rapidly
(b) increase by a very small amount
(c) remain the same
(d) decrease
Answer:
(d) decrease

Question 5.
The amplitude and time period of a simple pendulum bob are 0.05 m and 2s respectively. Then the maximum velocity of the bob is :
(a) 0.157 ms^-1
(b) 0.257 ms^-1
(c) 0.10 ms^-1
(d) 0.025 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 0.157 ms^-1

Question 6.
There is a small bubble at one end and a bigger bubble at another end of a pipe. Which among the following will happen?

(a) remains in equilibrium
(b) smaller will grow until they collapse
(c) bigger will grow until they collapse
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) smaller will grow until they collapse
Excess pressure is \(\Delta P=P_{2}-P_{1}=\frac{4 T}{R}\)

Question 7.
A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the container rotates in a horizontal plane above a perpendicular bisector, its moment of inertia :
(a) remains constant
(b) depends on the direction of rotation
(c) increases
(d) decreases
Answer:
(c) increases

Question 8.
Which of the following represents a wave?
(a) \(\frac{1}{(x+v t)}\)
(b) sin (x + vt)
(c) (x – vt)³
(d) x(x + vt)
Answer:
(b) sin (x + vt)

Question 9.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same dimension?
(a) Torque and Power
(b) Force and Torque
(c) Force and Power
(d) Torque and Energy
Answer:
(d) Torque and Energy

Question 10.
If the internal energy of an ideal gas U and volume V are doubled then the pressure of the gas _______
(a) halves
(b) quadruples
(c) doubles
(d) remains the same
Answer:
(d) remains the same

Question 11.
For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is:
(a) 2
(b) √2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Question 12.
A refrigerator has a COP of 3. How much work must be supplied to a refrigerator in order to remove 200 J of heat from its interior?
(a) 33.33 J
(b) 44.44 J
(c) 66.67 J
(d) 50 J
Answer:
(c) 66.67 J

Question 13.
If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1 % then the kinetic energy is increased by:
(a) 0.4 %
(b) 0.01 %
(c) 0.1 %
(d) 0.2 %
Answer:
(d) 0.2 %

Question 14.
What is the angular displacement made by a particle after 5s, when it starts from rest with an angular acceleration of 0.2 rads^-2?
(a) 4 rad
(b) 1 rad
(c) 2.5 rad
(d) 5 rad
Answer:
(c) 2.5 rad
From the equation of circular motion, ω = 0

Question 15.
In an isochoric process, find which is relevant among the following :
(a) ΔU = 0
(b) ΔT = 0
(c) W = 0
(d) Q = 0
Answer:
(c) W = 0

PART – II

Answer any six of the following questions. Q. No. 24 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write any two errors of systematic errors. Explain them.
Answer:
Systematic errors: Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction. These occur often due to a problem that persists throughout the experiment. Systematic errors can be classified as follows.

1. Instrumental errors: When an instrument is not calibrated properly at the time of manufacture, instrumental errors may arise. If a measurement is made with a meter scale whose end is worn out, the result obtained will have errors. These errors can be corrected by choosing the instrument carefully.
2. Personal errors: These errors are due to individuals performing the experiment, maybe due to incorrect initial setting up of the experiment or carelessness of the individual making the observation due to improper precautions.

Question 17.
What is a projectile? Give two examples.
Answer:
Projectile: When an object is thrown in the air with some initial velocity and then allowed to move under the action of gravity alone, the object is known as a projectile.
Example:

• A bullet fired from a rifle.
• A ball is thrown in any direction

Question 18.
State Newton’s Second Law of Motion.
Answer:
The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}\)

Question 19.
A car takes a turn with the velocity 50 ms^-1 on a circular road of the radius of curvature
10 m. Calculate the centrifugal force experienced by a person of mass 60 kg inside the car.
Answer:
Given: Mass of a person = 60 kg
Velocity of the car = 50 ms^-1
Radius of curvature = 10 m
Centrifugal force
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{m \mathrm{V}^{2}}{r}=\frac{60 \times(50)^{2}}{10}=15,000 \mathrm{N}\)

Question 20.
Why is it more difficult to revolve a stone tied it to a longer string than a stone tied to a shorter string?
Answer:
MI of stone I = ml² (l = length of string) l is large, α is very small
\(\begin{array}{l}
\tau=I \alpha \\
\alpha=\frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{\tau}{m l^{2}}
\end{array}\)
if l is large α is very small.
∴ more difficult to revolve.

Question 21.
State Stefan-Boltzmann law and write its expression.
Answer:
Stefan Boltzmann law states that the total amount of heat radiated per second per unit area of a black body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.
E ∝ T⁴ (or) E = σT⁴

Question 22.
List the factors affecting Brownian motion.
Answer:

1. Brownian motion increases with increasing temperature.
2. Brownian motion decreases with bigger particle size, high viscosity and density of the liquid (or) gas.

Question 23.
“Soldiers are not allowed to march on a bridge.” Give reason.
Answer:
While crossing a bridge, if the period of stepping on the ground by marching soldiers be equal to the natural frequency of the bridge, it may be thrown into resonance vibration and the vibrations may be so large that the bridge may collapse. Thus to avoid resonant vibration of the bridge. Soldiers are ordered to break steps.

Question 24.
The surface tension of a soap solution is 0.03 Nm^-1. How much work is done in producing soap bubble of radius 0.05 m?
Answer:
Surface area (∆s) = 4πr² = 4 × 3.14 × (0.05)²
∆s = 0.0314 m
No. of surface area of a soap bubble = 2 (outer and inner area)
Total surface energy (E) = 2T∆S = 2 × 0.03 × 0.0314
E = 0.0018 J

PART – III

Answer any six of the following questions. Q. No. 33 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What is the torque of the force \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}=3 \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\) acting at a point \(\vec{r}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+5 \hat{k}\) about the origin?
Answer:

Question 26.
What are the various types of friction? Suggest a few methods to reduce friction.
Answer:
There are two types of Friction:
(i) Static Friction: Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force fs lies between \(0 \leq f_{s} \leq \mu_{s} N\)
where, µ_s — coefficient of static friction
N — Normal force
(ii) Kinetic friction: The frictional force exerted by the surface when an object slides is called kinetic friction. Also called as sliding friction or dynamic friction,
f_k = µ_kN
where µ_k — the coefficient of kinetic friction
N — Normal force exerted by the surface on the object
Methods to reduce friction: Friction can be reduced

1. By using lubricants
2. By using Ball bearings
3. By polishing
4. By streamlining

Question 27.
A heavy body and a light body have the same momentum. Which one of them has more kinetic energy and why?
Answer:
Lighter body has more K.E. as K.E. = \(\frac{p^{2}}{2 m}\) and for constant p, K.E. ∝ \(\frac{1}{m}\).
The lighter body has more kinetic energy.

Question 28.
Find the rotational kinetic energy of a ring of mass 9 kg and radius 3 m rotating with 240 rpm about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
Answer:
The rotational kinetic energy is, KE = \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{I} \omega^{2}
The moment of inertia of the ring is, I = MR²
I = 9 × 3² = 9 × 9 = 81 kg m²
The angular speed of the ring is,

Question 29.
What do you mean by the term weightlessness? Explain the state of weightlessness of a freely falling body.
Answer:
When a man is standing in the elevator, there are two forces acting on him.
1. The gravitational force acts downward. If we take the vertical direction as positive y-direction, the gravitational force acting on the man is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{G}}=-m g \hat{j}\)
2. The normal force exerted by the floor on the man which acts vertically upward, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{N}}=\mathrm{N} \hat{j}\)
The weightlessness of freely falling bodies: Freely falling objects experience only gravitational force. As they fall freely, they are not in contact with any surface (by neglecting air friction). The normal force acting on the object is zero. The downward acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to the gravity of the Earth, i.e., (a = g)
Newton’s 2nd law acting on the man N = m(g – a)
a = g
∴ N = w(g – g) = 0

Question 30.
Derive the expression for the terminal velocity of a sphere falling through a viscous liquid.
Answer:
The expression for terminal velocity: Consider a sphere of radius r which falls freely through a highly viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity η. Let the density of the material of the sphere be ρ and the density of the fluid be σ.
The gravitational force acting on the sphere,



Here, it should be noted that the terminal speed of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of its radius. If σ is greater than ρ, then the term (ρ – σ) becomes negative leading to a negative terminal velocity.

Question 31.
Explain the linear expansion of solid.
Answer:
Linear Expansion: In solids, for a small change in temperature
ΔT, the fractional change in length to \(\left(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\right)\) is directly proportional to ΔT.

\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0}}=\alpha_{\mathrm{L}} \Delta \mathrm{T}\)
Therefore, \(\alpha_{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
Where, αL = coefficient of linear expansion, ΔL = Change in length, L = Original length, ΔT = Change in temperature.

Question 32.
Write down any six postulates of the kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. All the molecules of a gas are identical, elastic spheres.
2. The molecules of different gases are different.
3. The number of molecules in a gas is very large and the average separation between them is larger than size of the gas molecules.
4. The molecules of a gas are in a state of continuous random motion.
5. The molecules collide with one another and also with the walls of the container.
6. These collisions are perfectly elastic so. that there is no loss of kinetic energy during .collisions.
7. Between two successive collisions, a molecule moves with uniform velocity.
8. The molecules do not exert any force of attraction or repulsion on each other except during collision. The molecules do not possess any potential energy and the energy is wholly kinetic.
9. The collisions are instantaneous. The time spent by a molecule in each collision is very small compared to the time elapsed between two consecutive collisions.
10. These molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion even though they move randomly.

Question 33.
Two waves of wavelength 99 cm and 100 cm both travelling with the velocity of 396 ms^-1 are made to interfere. Calculate the number of beats produced by them per sec.
Answer:
λ₁ = 99 cm = 0.99 m
λ₂ = 100 cm = 1 m
Velocity of sound waves in a gas is v = 396 ms^-1
Relation between wavelength and velocity, v = λ_f

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34(a).
Explain the principle of homogeneity of dimensions and derive an expression for the force F acting on a body moving in a circular path depending on the mass of the body (m), velocity (v) and radius (r) of the circular path. Obtain the expression for the force by the dimensional analysis method (take the value k = 1)
Answer:
The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that the dimensions of all the terms in a physical expression should be the same. For example, in the physical expression v² = u² + 2as, the dimensions of v², u² and 2as are the same and equal to [L²T^-2].
F ∝ m^a v^b r^c
F = K m^a v^b r^c
Here K = 1
∴ F = m^a v^b r^c
Dimensionally, [MLT^-2] = [M]^a [LT^-1]^b [L]^c
Compare the power of M, L and T
a = 1 ….. (1)
b + c = 1 ….. (2)
-b = -2
b = 2 …… (3)
Sub (3) in (2) we get
b + c = 1
2 + c = 1
c = -1 …… (4)
Substitute a, b and c value in force equation
F = m^a v^b r^c = m v² r^-1
\(F=\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
This equation is known as centripetal force.
[OR]
Question 34(b).
State and prove Bernoulli’s theorem for a flow of incompressible, non-viscous, and streamlined flow of liquid.
Answer:
Bernoulli’s theorem: According to Bernoulli’s theorem, the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit mass of an incompressible, non-viscous fluid in a streamlined flow remains a constant.
Mathematically, \(\frac{P}{\rho}+\frac{1}{2} v^{2}+g h=\text { constant }\)
This is known as Bernoulli’s equation.

Proof: Let us consider a flow of liquid through a pipe AB. Let V be the volume of the liquid when it enters A in a time t which is equal to the volume of the liquid leaving B at the same time. Let aA, v_A and PA be the area of cross-section of the tube, the velocity of the liquid and pressure exerted by the liquid at A respectively.
Let the force exerted by the liquid at A is F_A = P_Aa_A
Distance travelled by the liquid in time t is d = v_At
Therefore, the work done is W = F_Ad = P_Aa_Av_At
But a_Av_At = a_Ad = V, the volume of the liquid entering at A.
Thus, the work done is the pressure energy (at A), W = F_Ad = P_AV
Pressure energy per unit volume at A = \(\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho_{\mathrm{B}}}=\frac{4}{3}\)
Pressure energy per unit mass at A = \(\frac{\text { Pressure energy }}{\text { Mass }}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V}}{m}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\frac{m}{\mathrm{V}}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho}\)
Since m is the mass of the liquid entering at A in a given time, therefore, pressure energy of the liquid at A is \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{PA}}=\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V}=\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V} \times\left(\frac{m}{m}\right)=m \frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho}\)
Potential energy of the liquid at A,
PE_A = mgh_A
Due to the flow of liquid, the kinetic energy of the liquid at A,
\(\mathrm{KE}_{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{A}}^{2}\)
Therefore, the total energy due to the flow of liquid at A,
E_A = EP_A + KE_A + PE_A
\(E_{A}=m \frac{P_{A}}{\rho}+\frac{1}{2} m v_{A}^{2}+m g h_{A}\)
Similarly, let a_B, v_B and P_B be the area of cross section of the tube, velocity of the liquid and pressure exerted by the liquid at B. Calculating the total energy at E_B, we get

The above equation is the consequence of the conservation of energy which is true until there is no loss of energy due to friction. But in practice, some energy is lost due to friction. This arises due to the fact that in a fluid flow, the layers flowing with different velocities exert frictional forces on each other. This loss of energy is generally converted into heat energy. Therefore, Bernoulli’s relation is strictly valid for fluids with zero viscosity or non-viscous liquids. Notice that when the liquid flows through a horizontal ‘ pipe, then
\(h=0 \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{P}}{\rho g}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{v^{2}}{g}=\text { constant }\)

Question 35.
(a) Prove the law of conservation of momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
In nature, conservation laws play a very important role. The dynamics of motion of bodies can be analysed very effectively using conservation laws. There are three conservation laws in mechanics. Conservation of total energy, conservation of total linear momentum, and conservation of angular momentum. By combining Newton’s second and third laws, we can derive the law of conservation of total linear momentum.
When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other. The particle 1 exerts force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) on particle 2 and particle 2 exerts an exactly equal and opposite force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) on particle 1 according to Newton’s third law.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}=-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}\) ….. (1)
In terms of momentum of particles, the force on each particle (Newton’s second law) can be written as
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{p_{1}}}{d t} \text { and } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{p_{2}}}{d t}\)
Here \(\vec{p}_{1}\) is the momentum of particle 1 which changes due to the force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}\) exerted by particle 2. Further \(\vec{p}_{2}\) is the momentum of particle 2. This changes due to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}\) exerted by particle 1.
Substitute equation (2) in equation (1)

It implies that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) = constant vector (always).
\(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) is the total linear momentum of the two particles (\(\overrightarrow{p_{\text {tot}}}=\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\)). It is also called as total linear momentum of the system. Here, the two particles constitute the system. From this result, the law of conservation of linear momentum can be stated as follows.
If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system (\(\vec{P}_{t o t}\)) is always a constant vector. In otherwords, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time. Here the word ‘conserve’ means that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) can vary, in such a way that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) is a constant vector.
The forces \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) are called the internal forces of the system, because they act only between the two particles. There is no external force acting on the two particles from outside. In such a case the total linear momentum of the system is a constant vector or is conserved.
Meaning of law of conservation of momentum:
1. The Law of conservation of linear momentum is a vector; law. It implies that both the magnitude and direction of total linear momentum are constant. In some cases, this total momentum can also be zero.
2. To analyse the motion of a particle, we can either use Newton’s second law or the law of conservation of linear momentum. Newton’s second law requires us to specify the forces involved in the process. This is difficult to specify in real situations. But conservation of linear momentum does not require any force involved in the process. It is convenient and hence important.
For example, when two particles collide, the forces exerted by these two particles on each other is difficult to specify. But it is easier to apply conservation of linear momentum during the collision process.
Examples:
Consider the firing of a gun. Here the system is Gun+bullet. Initially, the gun and bullet are at rest, hence the total linear momentum of the system is zero. Let \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}_{1}\) be the momentum of the bullet and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}_{2}\) be the momentum of the gun before firing. Since initially both are at rest,

Total momentum before firing the gun is zero, \(\vec{p}_{1}+\vec{p}_{2}=0\)
According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, total linear momentum has to be zero after the firing also.
When the gun is fired, a force is exerted by the gun on the bulletin forward direction. Now the momentum of the bullet changes from \(\vec{p}_{1}+\vec{p}_{1}^{\prime}\). To conserve the total linear momentum of the system, the momentum of the gun must also change from \(\vec{p}_{2}\) to \(\vec{p}_{2}\)‘ Due to the conservation of linear momentum, \(\vec{p}_{1}^{\prime}+\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}=0\). It implies that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}^{\prime}}=-\vec{p}_{2}\) the momentum of the gun is exactly equal, but in the opposite direction to the momentum of the bullet. This is the reason after firing, the gun suddenly moves backwards with the momentum (-\vec{p}_{2}). It is called ‘recoil momentum’. This is an example of conservation of total linear momentum.
[OR]
Question 35(b).
State and prove parallel axis theorem.
Answer:
Parallel axis theorem: Parallel axis theorem states that the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of its. moment of inertia about a parallel axis through its centre of mass and the product of the mass of the body and the square of the perpendicular distance between the two axes.
If I_C is the moment of inertia of the body of mass M about an axis passing through the centre of mass, then the moment of inertia I about a parallel axis at a distance d from it is given by the relation,
I = I_C + Md²
Let us consider a rigid body as shown in the figure. Its moment of inertia about an axis AB passing through the center of mass is IC. DE is another axis parallel to AB at a perpendicular distance d from AB. The moment of inertia of the body about DE is I. We attempt to get an expression for I in terms of I_C. For this, let us consider a point mass m on the body at position x from its centre of mass.
The moment of inertia of the point mass about the axis DE is, m (x + d)². The moment of inertia I of the whole body about DE is the summation of the above expression.

Question 36(a).
What is an elastic collision? Derive an expression for final velocities of two bodies which undergo elastic collision in one dimension.
Answer:
Elastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before the collision) is not equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as inelastic collision, i.e.,
Consider two elastic bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in a straight line (along positive x-direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in the figure.

In order to have a collision, we assume that the mass m1 moves faster than mass m2 i.e., u1 > u2. For elastic collision, the total linear momentum and kinetic energies of the two bodies before and after a collision must remain the same.
From the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Total momentum before collision (p_i) = Total momentum after collision (p_f)

This means that for any elastic head-on collision, the relative speed of the two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction. Further note that this result is independent of mass.
Rewriting the above equation for v1 and v2,
v₁ = v₁₂ + u₂ – u₁ ……… (6)
(or) v₂ = u₁ + v₁ – u₂ ……. (7)
To find the final velocities v₁ and v₂:
Substituting equation (7) in equation (2) gives the velocity of m₁ as

The equations (10) and (11) show that in a one-dimensional elastic collision when two bodies of equal mass collide after the collision their velocities are exchanged.
Case 2: When bodies have the same mass i.e., m₁ = m₂ and second body (usually called target) is at rest (u₂ = 0),
By substituting m₁m₂ = 0 and u₂ = 0 in equations (8) and equations (9) we get,
from equation (8) ⇒ v₁ = 0 ………(12)
from equation (9) ⇒ v₂ = u₁ ………(13)
Equations (12) and (13) show that when the first body comes to rest the second body moves with the initial velocity of the first body.
Case 3: The first body is very much lighter than the second body \(\left(m_{1}<<m_{2}, \frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}<<1\right)\) then the ratio \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}} \approx 0\) and also if the target is at rest (u₂ = 0)
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (8) by m₂, we get

[OR]
Question 36(b).
How will you determine the velocity of sound using resonance air column apparatus?
Answer:
Resonance air column apparatus: The resonance air column apparatus and first, second and third resonance The resonance air column apparatus is one of the simplest techniques to measure the speed of sound in air at room temperature. It consists of a cylindrical glass tube of one-meter length whose one end A is open and another end B is connected to the water reservoir R through a rubber tube as shown in the figure. This cylindrical glass tube is mounted on a vertical stand with a scale attached to it. The tube is partially filled with water and the water level can be adjusted by raising or lowering the water in the reservoir R. The surface of the water will act as a closed-end and other as the open end. Therefore, it behaves like a closed organ pipe, forming nodes at the surface of water and antinodes at the closed end. When a vibrating tuning fork is brought near the open end of the tube, longitudinal waves are formed inside the air column. These waves move downward as shown in Figure, and reach the surfaces of water and get reflected and produce standing waves.

The length of the air column is varied by changing the water level until a loud sound is produced in the air column. At this particular length, the frequency of waves in the air column resonates with the frequency of the tuning fork (natural frequency of the tuning fork). At resonance, the frequency of sound waves produced is equal to the frequency of the tuning fork. This will occur only when the length of the air column is \(\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) of the wavelength of the sound waves produced. Let the first resonance occur at length L1, then \(\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{1}\) ……… (1)
But since the antinodes are not exactly formed at the open end, we have to include a correction, called end correction e, by assuming that the antinode is formed at some small distance above the open end. Including this end correction, the first resonance is
\(\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{1}+e\) …….. (2)

Now the length of the air column is increased to get the second resonance. Let L₂ be the length at which the second resonance occurs. Again taking end correction into account, we have
\(\frac{3}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{2}+e\) ……(3)
In order to avoid end correction, let us take the difference of equation (3) and equation (2)
\(\frac{3}{4} \lambda-\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\left(\mathrm{L}_{2}+e\right)-\left(\mathrm{L}_{1}+e\right) \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{2}-\mathrm{L}_{1}=\Delta \mathrm{L} \Rightarrow \lambda=2 \Delta \mathrm{L}\)
The speed of the sound in air at room temperature can be computed by using the formula
v = fλ = 2f∆L
Further, to compute the end correction, we use equation (2) and equation (3), we get
\(e=\frac{L_{2}-3 L_{1}}{2}\)

Question 37(a).
Derive Mayer’s relation for an ideal gas.
Answer:
Mayer’s relation: Consider µ mole of an ideal gas in a container with volume V, pressure P and temperature T.
When the gas is heated at the constant volume the temperature increases by dT. As no work is done by the gas, the heat that flows into the system will increase only the internal energy. Let the change in internal energy be dU.
If Cv is the molar specific heat capacity at constant volume, from the equation.
\(C_{V}=\frac{1}{\mu} \frac{d U}{d T}\) ………. (1)
dU = µC_VdT ……. (2)
Suppose the gas is heated at constant pressure so that the temperature increases by dT. If ‘Q’ is the heat supplied in this process and ‘dV’ the change in volume of the gas.
Q = µC_PdT …….(3)
If W is the workdone by the gas in this process, then
W = PdV …….. (4)
But from the first law of thermodynamics,
Q = dU + W ……….(5)
Substituting equations (2), (3) and (4) in (5), we get,
µC_PdT = µC_VdT + PdV
For mole of ideal gas, the equation of state is given by .
PV = µRT ⇒ PdV + VdP = µR_dT
Since the pressure is constant, dP = 0
C_PdT = C_VdT +R_dT
C_P = C_V + R (or) CP – CV = R ……(6)
This relation is called Mayer’s relation It implies that the molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is greater than molar specific heat capacity at constant volume. The relation shows that specific heat at constant pressure (s_P) is always greater than specific heat at constant volume (s_V).
[OR]
Question 37(b).
Explain the horizontal oscillations of a spring.
Answer:
Horizontal oscillations of a spring-mass system: Consider a system containing a block of mass m attached to a massless spring with stiffness constant or force constant or spring constant it placed on a smooth horizontal surface (frictionless surface) as shown in the figure. Let x0 be the equilibrium position or mean position of mass m when it is left undisturbed. Suppose the mass is displaced through a small displacement x towards right from its equilibrium position and then released, it will oscillate back and forth about its mean position x⁰. Let F be the restoring force (due to stretching of the spring) which is proportional to the amount of displacement of the block. For one dimensional motion, mathematically, we have
F ∝ x
F = -kx ….. (1)
where negative sign implies that the restoring force will always act opposite to the direction of the displacement. This equation is called Hooke’s law. Notice that, the restoring force is linear with the displacement (i.e., the exponent of force and displacement are unity). This is not always true; in case if we apply a very large stretching force, then the amplitude of oscillations becomes very large (which means, force is proportional to displacement containing higher powers of x) and therefore, the oscillation of the system is not linear and hence, it is called non-linear oscillation. We restrict ourselves only to linear oscillations throughout our discussions, which means Hooke’s law is valid (force and displacement have a linear relationship).
From Newton’s second law, we can write the equation for the particle executing simple harmonic motion
\(m \frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-k x\) …….. (1)
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-\frac{k}{m} x\) ……. (2)
Comparing the equation with simple harmonic motion equation, we get
\(\omega^{2}=\frac{k}{m}\) ……. (3)
which means the angular frequency or natural frequency of the oscillator is
\(\omega=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \mathrm{rad} \mathrm{s}^{-1}\) ……. (4)
The frequency of the oscillation is
\(f=\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \text { Hertz }\) …… (5)
and the time period of the oscillation is
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{1}{f}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}} \text { seconds }\) ……. (6)

Question 38.
(a) (i) Write down the equation of a freely falling body under gravity.
(ii) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with the speed of 19.6 ms-1 from the top of a building and reaches the earth in 6s. Find the height of the building.
Answer:
(i) Distance d traveled by an object falling for time ‘t’, u = 0; s = d; a = g
\(\begin{array}{l}
s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2} \\
d=\frac{1}{2} g t^{2}
\end{array}\)
Time ‘t’ taken for an object to fall distance ‘d’
\(t=\sqrt{\frac{2 d}{g}}\)
Instantaneous velocity v_i of a falling object after elapsed time ‘t’
v_i = gt
Instantaneous velocity v_i of a falling object that has traveled distance ‘d’
\(v_{i}=\sqrt{2 g d}\)
(ii) u = -19.6 ms^-1
a = 9.8 ms^-2
t = 6 sec
height of the building,
\(\begin{aligned}
s &=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2} \\
&=(-19.6 \times 6)+\frac{1}{2}(9.8)(6)^{2}=-117.6+176.4 \\
s &=58.8 \mathrm{m}
\end{aligned}\)
[OR]
Question 38(b).
(i) Define orbital velocity and establish an expression for it.
(ii) Calculate the value of orbital velocity for an artificial satellite of earth orbiting at a height of 1000 km (Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius of the earth = 64000 km).
Answer:
(i) Orbital velocity:
Orbital velocity is the velocity given to artificial satellite so that it may start revolving around the earth.
Expression for orbital velocity:
Consider a satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius ‘r’, at a height ‘h’ from the surface of the earth.
Let ‘M’ be the mass of the earth and ‘R’ be the radius of the earth.
Therefore, r = R + h
The centripetal force that is required to revolve the satellite = \(\frac{m v_{0}^{2}}{r}\)
where, V0 is orbital velocity
Orbital velocity is produced by the gravitational force b/w the earth and the satellite = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)


This is the expression for the orbital velocity.
(ii) Mass of the earth M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg
The radius of the earth R = 64000 km
The height of the artificial satellite from the earth (h) = 1000 km
Gravitational constant, (G) = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm^-2 kg^-2

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The process of reasoning from particular to general is ………………….
(a) Deductive method
(b) Inductive method
(c) Positive Economics
(d) Normative Economics
Answer:
(b) Inductive method

Question 2.
The relationship between the price of a commodity and the supply of commodity is ………………….
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) zero
(d) increase
Answer:
(b) positive

Question 3.
Growth definition takes into account:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic frame work of Economics
(b) The problem of unlimited means in relation to wants
(c) The production and distribution of wealth
(d) The material welfare of human beings.
Answer:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic frame work of Economics

Question 4.
Primary Institution is ………………….
(a) village
(b) cities
(c) both a & b
(d) urban
Answer:
(a) village

Question 5.
Density of population = ………………….
(a) Land area / Total Population
(b) Land area / Employment
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region
(d) Total Population / Employment
Answer:
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region

Question 6.
The Planning Commission was setup in the year ………………….
(a)1950
(b)1955
(c)1960
(d) 1952
Answer:
(a)1950

Question 7.
The arrival of Vasco-da Gama in Calicut, India ………………….
(a) 1498
(b) 1948
(c) 1689
(d) 1849
Answer:
(a) 1498

Question 8.
If x + y = 5, x – y = 3 then value of x = ………………….
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 9.
The first known writer to apply mathematical method to economic problems was ………………….
(a) Cramer
(b) William Petty
(c) Giovanni Ceva
(d) Italian
Answer:
(c) Giovanni Ceva

Question 10.
Another name of price is ………………….
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Marginal Revenue
(c) Total Revenue
(d) Average cost
Answer:
(a) Average Revenue

Question 11.
Micro Economics is concerned with ………………….
(a) the economy as a whole
(b) different sectors of an economy
(c) the study of individual economic units behaviour
(d) the interactions with in the entire economy
Answer:
(c) the study of individual economic units behaviour

Question 12.
“ An Indian farmer is bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said this?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

Question 13.
Formula for calculating AP is ………………….
(a) ∆TP/N
(b) ∆TP/AN
(c) TP/MP
(d) TP/N
Answer:
(d) TP/N

Question 14.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c)2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
The indifference are ………………….
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) positive sloped
(d) negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) negatively sloped

Question 17.
The functional relationship between “inputs” and “outputs” is called as ………………….
(a) Consumption Function
(b) Production Function
(c) Savings Function
(d) Investment Function
Answer:
(b) Production Function

Question 18.
Identify the agriculture related problem of rural economy.
(a) Poor communication
(b) Small size of landholding
(c) Rural poverty
(d) Poor banking network
Answer:
(b) Small size of landholding

Question 19.
The primary factors of production are ………………….
(a) labour and organisation
(b) labour and capital
(c) Land and capital
(d) land and labour
Answer:
(d) land and labour

Question 20.
Profit is the reward for ………………….
(a) land
(b) organization
(c) capital
(d) labour
Answer:
(b) organization

Part – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Name any two types of utility.
Answer:

1. Time Utility: A sick man derives time utility from blood not at the time of its donation, but only at the operation-time, i.e., when it is used.
2. Place Utility: A student derives place utility from a book not at the place of its publication (production centre) but only at the place of his education (consumption centre).

Question 22.
State the meaning of Special Economic Zones.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] policy was announced in April 2000.
• As per the Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.
• The SEZ deprives the farmers of their land and livelihood, it is harmful to agriculture.
• To promote export and Industrial growth in line with globalization the SEZ was introduced in many countries.

Question 23.
Distinguish between real and money wages.
Answer:

Money Wages :

1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.

Real Wages :

1. Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 24.
Define GSDP.
Answer:

• The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
• Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016-2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is the heritage tourism?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism.
• In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
• Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
• The State currently ranks the highest among Indian States with about 25 crore arrivals (in 2013). Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 26.
Classify the factors of production.
(a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital and (d) Organisation
Answer:
(a) Land: In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.
(b) Labour: Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.
(c) Capital: “Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm-Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.
(d) Organisation: The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Micro Finance?
Answer:

• Micro Finance also known as Micro credit is a financial service that offers loans, savings and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners who do not have access to traditional sources of capital like banks or investors.
• The goal of micro financing is to provide individuals with money to invest in themselves or their business.
• Micro finance is available through micro finance institutions, which range from small non-profit organisations to larger banks.

Question 28.
Define Cost.
Answer:
Cost refers to the total expenses incurred in the production of a commodity. Cost analysis refers to the study of beheriour of cost in relation to one or more production criteria namely size of output, scale of production prices of factors and other economic variables.

Question 29.
What are the major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothkudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 30.
Define Micro Industry.
Answer:

• Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What is GST advantages?
Answer:

• GST – Goods and Services Tax. GST is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
• Removing cascading tax effect
• Single point tax
• Higher threshold for registration
• Composition scheme for small business
• Online simpler procedure under GST
• Defined treatment for e-commerce .
• Increased efficiency in logistics .
• Regulating the unorganized sector

Question 32.
Mention the Functions of APMC.
Answer:
The Agriculture Produce Market Committee [APMC] Act 2003, the Agricultural Produce Market Committee [AMPC] is a statutory body constituted by State Government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock products.

Functions of APMC:

• To promote public private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
• To provide market led extension services to farmer.
• To bring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market in a transparent manner.
• To ensure payments to the farmers for the sale of agricultural produce on the same day.
• To promote agricultural activities. ‘
• To display data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce from time to time into the market.

Question 33.
Define Economic Development.
Answer:

• The economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizen’s quality of life or well being.
• The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Developments Index [HDI]
• On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.
• Developed economies are those countries which are industrialized.
• Developments economics are also termed as advanced countries.
• On the other hand, countries which have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc. and have low per capita income are termed as under developed economics.

Question 34.
Explain the prospect for development of tourism.
Answer:

• Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
• Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism. In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
• The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals in 2013.
• Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the State.

Tourist arrival in India 2016

Question 35.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility.
Answer:
Marginal utility :

1. Marginal utility goes-on diminishing.
2. Marginal utility becomes zero.
3. Marginal utility becomes negative.

Total utility:

1. Total utility goes on Increasing.
2. Total utility maximum.
3. Total utility diminishes.

Question 36.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics.
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

• Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
• Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
• Mathematical Methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
• Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact dr effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 37.
State the features of Duopoly.
Answer:

• Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
• Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
• They may enter into cut-throat competition.
• There is no perfect differentiation.
• They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 38.
State Ambedkar’s Economic ideas on agricultural economics.
Answer:
In the 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and Enlargement of Holdings”.

Question 39.
Write the VKRV Rao’s contribution on multiplier concept.
Answer:

• VKRV Rao’s examination of the “Interrelation between investment, income and multiplier is an under developed economy” [1952] was his major contribution to macroeconofnic theory.
• Asa thinker, teacher, economic adviser and direct policy maker, VKRV Rao followed the footstep of his great teacher, John Maynard Keynes.

Question 40.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = 72/9
.’. x = 8

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business) ‘
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar – Argue.
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

• Village is an Institution: The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.
• Dependence on Agriculture: The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural
  activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.
• Life of Rural people: Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.
•  Population Density: Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.
• Employment: There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.
• Poverty: Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.
• Indebtedness: People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.
• Rural Income: The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.
• Dependency: Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.
• Dualism: Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.
• Inequality: The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.
• Migration: Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 42.
(a) What are the characteristics of labour?
Answer:

• Labour is the animate factor of production.
• Labour is an active factor of production.
• Labour implies several types. It may be manual [farmer] or intellectual [teacher, lawyer etc]
• Labour is perishable.
• Labour is inseparable from the labourer.
• Labour is less mobile between places and occupations.
• Labour is a means as well as an end. It is both the cause of production and consumer of the product.
• Labour units are heterogeneous.
• Labour differs in ability.
• Labour – supply determines its reward [wage]
• Labour has weak bargaining power.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Keynesian theory of Interest.
Answer:

• Keynes’ Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest
• Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
  “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money “in 1936.
• According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
• “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

• Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
• “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others”. – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive: –

The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [or-day-to-day expenses] M( = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive :

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income M_p = f(y).

3. The Speculative Motive:

• The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M = f(i)
• There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 43.
(a) Write a short note on Total Revenue.
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

TR = P x Q
where, TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price and Q denotes Quantity sold.

For example, a cell-phone company sold 100 cell-phones at the price of ₹ 500 each.
TR is ₹ 50,000.
(TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).

When price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5.
When P = 5; TR = PQ
When price is declining with increase in quantity sold. (e.g. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the following table and diagram. TR can be
obtained from Demand function : If Q = 11 – p, when P = 1 Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 x 10= 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24
When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

[OR]

(b) Explain price and output determined under monopolistic competition with help of diagram.
Answer:
Price and output Determination under Monopolistic competition:
The firm under monopolistic competition achieves its equilibrium when it’s MC = MR, and when its MC curve cuts its MR curve from below. If MC is less than MR, the sellers will find it profitable to expand their output.

Under Monopolistic Competition:

1. The demand curve is downwards sloping.
2. There are close substitutes.
3. The demand curve is fairly elastic.

Under monopolistic competition, different firms produce different varieties of the product and sell them at different prices.
Each firm under monopolistic competition seeks to achieve equilibrium as regards.

1. Price and output
2. Product adjustment
3. Selling cost adjustment.

Short-run equilibrium:
The profit maximisation is achieved when MC = MR.
‘OM’ is the equilibrium output. ‘OP’ is the equilibrium price. The total revenue is ‘OMQP’. And the total cost is ‘OMRS’.
Therefore, total profit is ‘PQRS’. This is super normal profit under short-run. But under differing revenue and cost conditions, the monopolistically competitive firms many incur loss.

As shown in the diagram, the AR and MR curves are fairly elastic. The equilibrium situation occurs at point ‘E’,
where MC = MR
and MC cuts MR from below.

The equilibrium output is OM and the equilibrium price is OR The total revenue of the firm is ‘OMQP’ and the total cost of the firm is ‘OMLK’ and thus the total loss is ‘PQLK’. This firm incurs loss in the short run.

Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium.
In the short run a firm under monopolistic competition may earn super normal profit or incur loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the super normal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and exit of loss making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry.

In the long run AR curve is more elastic or flatter, because plenty’ of substitutes are available.
Hence, the firms will earn only normal profit.

Question 44.
(a) State the Cobb – Douglas production function.
Answer:
The Cobb-Douglas Production Function was developed by Charles W. Cobb and Paul H. Douglas, based on their empirical study of American manufacturing industry’. It is a linear homogeneous production function which implies that the factors of production can be substituted for one another up to a certain extent only.
The Cobb-Douglas production function can be expressed as follows.
Q = AL^αK^β

Where, Q = output; A = positive constant; K = capital; L = Labor a and (3 are positive fractions showing, the elasticity coefficients of outputs for the inputs labor and capital, respectively.
β = (1 – α) since α + β = 1. denoting constant returns to scale.

Factor intensity can be measured by the ratio β / α.
The sum of α + β shows the returns to scale.
(i) (α + β) = 1, constant returns to scale. ‘
(ii) (α + β) < 1, diminishing returns to scale. (iii) (α + β) > 1, increasing returns to scale.

• The production function explains that with the proportionate increase in the factors, the output also increases in the same proportion.
• Cobb-Douglas production function implies constant returns to scale.
• Cobb-Douglas Production Function is a specific standard equation applied to describe how much output can be made with capital and labour inputs.

[OR]

(b) Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development.
Answer:
Assumptions of Simple Income Determination:

• Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
• He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(i) Democracy and Secularism:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
• He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
• Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(ii) Planning:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
• He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on an self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
• Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
• It was during is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
• Nehru always in insited on “ scientific temper”.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss about the Indian economy during British Period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vascoda Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule ofthe East India Company finally did come to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.
• On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

1. The period of merchant Capital
2. The period of Industrial Capital
3. The period of Finance Capital

[OR]

(b) Describe the Achievement of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
Achievement of the Green Revolution:

• The major achievement of the new strategy was to boost the production of major cereals viz., wheat and rice.
• The Green Revolution was confined only to High Yielding Varieties [HYV] cereals, mainly rice, wheat, maize and jowar.
• This strategy was mainly directed to increase the production of commercial crops or cash crops such as sugarcane, cotton, jute oilseeds and potatoes.
• Per hectare productivity of all crops had increased due to better seeds.
• Green Revolution had positive effect on development of Industries, which manufactured agricultural tools like tractors, engines, threshers and pumping sets.
• Green Revolution had bought prosperity to rural people.
• Increased production had generated employment opportunities for rural masses.
• Due to multiple cropping and more use of chemical fertilizers, the demand for labour increased.
• Financial resources were provided by banks and co-operative societies.
• These banks provided loans to farmer on easy terms.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the “Abolition of MRTP Act”.
Answer:

• The New Industrial policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
• In 2010, the competition commission has emerged as the watchdog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.
• The policy caused big changes including emergence of a strong and competitive private sector and a sizable number of foreign companies in India.

[OR]

(b) What are the limitations of “LPG”.
Answer:

Liberalization measures, when effectively enforced, favour an unrestricted entry offoreign companies in the domestic economy. Such an entry prevents the growth of the local manufacturers.

Privatization measures favour the continuance of the monopoly power. Only the powerful people can sustain in business markets. Social justice cannot be easily established and maintained. As a result, the disparities tend to widen among people and among regions.

As globalization measures tend to integrate all economies of the world and bringing them all under one umbrella; they pave the way for redistribution of economic power at the world level. Only the already well developed countries are favoured in this process and the welfare of the less developed countries will be neglected. The economic crisis of the developed countries are easily spread to the developing economies through trade.

Question 47.
(a) Compare and contrast various definitions of economics.
Answer:
1. Adam Smith’s wealth definition:

• Adam Smith [1723-1790] in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of ‘ Nations” [ 1776] \ defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
• He-explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
• He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
• Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
• Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
• Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the •lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall welfare definition:

• Alfred Marshall [1842-1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
• It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
• Thus , it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

• Economics does not treat wealth as the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
• Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth.
• The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
• Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants, human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are
  limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

4. Samuelson’s -growth definition:

Paul Samuelson defines economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.

The major implications of this definition are as follows:

• Samuelson’s makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of Equi-marginal utility.
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

• The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
• The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
• Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
• This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
• Law of Equi – Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
• “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
• “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as ,“ If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

• The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
• The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
• The marginal utility of money remains constant. . .
• The income of the consumer is given.
• There is perfect competition in the market.
• The prices of the commodities are given.
• The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹ 11. He wants to spend this entire income i.e. ₹ 11] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹ 1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities.

Diagrammatic Illustration:

• In the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.
• If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

• In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
• This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who defined “Economics as the Science of Wealth”?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Paul A. Samuelson
(c) Max Muller
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 2.
Utility means ________.
(a) Total value of commodity
(b) Desire for goods and services
(c) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(d) Want satisfying capacity of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Want satisfying capacity of goods and services

Question 3.
Given the consumer’s surplus is ₹ 75 and the actual price is ₹ 372, find the potential price.
(a) 447
(b) 50
(c) 375
(d) 474
Answer:
(a) 447

Question 4.
Which factor is called the changing agent of the society?
(a) Organizer
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Land
Answer:
(a) Organizer

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Gift of Nature
(c) Its limited supply
(d) It is mobile
Answer:
(d) It is mobile

Question 6.
α + β = 1 refers _______.
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Constant returns to scale
(c) Diminishing returns to scale
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Constant returns to scale

Question 7.
Formula for estimating average variable cost.
(a) TFC/Q
(b) TAC/Q
(c) TC/Q
(d) TVC/Q
Answer:
(d) TVC/Q

Question 8.
Match the following:

Answer:
(b) (1) – (iv), (2) – (1), (3) – (ii), (4) – (iii)

Question 9.
The concept of imperfect competition was propounded by _________.
(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) Irving Fisher
(c) Marshall
(d) Joan Robinson
Answer:
(d) Joan Robinson

Question 10.
Identify the wrong statement about the features of Duopoly.
(a) There is product differentiation.
(b) They fix the price for their product to maximise their profit.
(c) Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
(d) Both sellers may collude regarding the sale of commodity.
Answer:
(a) There is product differentiation.

Question 11.
“Wages is a sum of money paid under contract by an employer to a worker for the services rendered.” – Who said this statement?
(a) Walker
(b) Marshall
(c) Ricardo
(d) Benham
Answer:
(d) Benham

Question 12.
The first Wi-Fi facility was provided by Indian Railways in
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 13.
Density of population =
(a) Total population / land area of the region
(b) Total population / Employment
(c) Land area / Total population
(d) Land area / Employment
Answer:
(a) Total population / land area of the region

Question 14.
The oldest large scale industry in India is _______.
(a) Steel
(b) Cement
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) Cotton

Question 15.
Twelfth Five Year Plan period ________.
(a) 2007-2012
(b) 1997-2002
(c) 2012-2017
(d) 2002-2007
Answer:
(c) 2012-2017

Question 16.
India is the largest producer of ______ in the world
(a) petrol
(b) diesel
(c) fruits
(d) gold
Answer:
(c) fruits

Question 17.
‘India lives in villages’, said by ________.
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) J.C. Kumarappa
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 18.
______ are set up with a view to develop rural economy by providing credit and other facilities to small and marginal farmers.
(a) MUDRA Bank
(b) RRB
(c) SHG
(d) NABARD
Answer:
(b) RRB

Question 19.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) SAIL – Salem
(b) The Pump City – Coimbatore tax
(c) BHEL – Trichy
(d) Knitting City – Karur
Answer:
(d) Knitting City – Karur

Question 20.
The first person to apply mathematical method to economic problem was ________.
(a) G. Crammer
(b) Paul Samuelson
(c) Sir William Petty
(d) Giovanni Ceva
Answer:
(d) Giovanni Ceva

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Consumer’s Surplus according to Alfred Marshall.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines Consumer’s Surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumers surplus”.

Question 22.
What is meant by Sunk Cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future is called as Sunk Cost. This is historical but irrelevant for future business decisions. It is called as sunk because, they are unalterable, unrecoverable and if once invested it should be treated as drowned or disappeared.

Question 23.
What are the kinds of profit? Explain them.
Answer:
There are three kinds of profit:

• Monopoly Profit: Profit earned by the firm because of its monopoly control.
  
• Windfall Profit: Sometimes, profit arises due to changes in price level. Profit is due to unforeseen factors.
  
• Profit as functional reward: Just like rent, wage and interest, profit is earned by the entrepreneur for his entrepreneurial function.

Question 24.
What is NITI Aayog? What are its functions?
Answer:

• The Planning Commission has been replaced by the NITI Aayog on 1 st January, 2015.
  
• NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog will monitor, coordinate and ensure implementation of the accepted sustainable development goals.
  
• NITI Aayog serves as a knowledge hub and monitors progress in the implementation of policies and programmes of the Government of India.
  
• It includes the matters of national and international importance on the economic front, dissemination of best practices from within the .country and from other nations, the infusion of new policy ideas and specific issue-based support.
  

Question 25.
State any four features of developed economy.
Answer:
Features of a Developed Economy:

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income
3. High Standard of Living
4. Full Employment of Resources

Question 26.
Define disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 27.
Define Cottage Industry. State any two characteristics of cottage industries.
Answer:
Cottage industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs in rural areas. Some important characteristics of cottage industries are:

1. These industries are carried out by artisans in their own homes at their own risk and for their own benefit.
2. No or little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.

Question 28.
What is crop insurance?
Answer:}
Agriculture in India is highly prone to risks like droughts and floods. It is necessary to protect the farmers from natural calamities and ensure their credit eligibility for the next season.

For this purpose, the Government of India introduced many agricultural schemes throughout the country. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (Prime Minister’s Crop Insurance Scheme) was launched on 18 February 2016.

Question 29.
Find the value of the determinant for the matrix A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
Given matrix A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right)\) then, the department
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = 3(-2) – 10(4)
= – 6 – 40 = -46 is the value of the determinant.

Question 30.
Write short notes on mineral resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
• The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with thermal power plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
• Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the differences between micro-economics and macro-economics.
Answer:
Micro Economics:

1.  It is that branch of economics which deals with the economic decision making of individual economic agents such as the producer, the consumer etc.
2. It takes into account small components of the whole economy
3. It deals with the process of price determination in case of individual products and factors of production.
4. It is known as price theory.
5. It is concerned with the optimization goals of individual consumers and producers.

Macro Economics:

1. It is that branch of economics which deals with aggregates and averages of the entire economy. E.g., aggregate output, national income, aggregate savings and investment, etc.
2. It takes into consideration that economy of the country as a whole.
3. It deals with general price-level in any economy.
4. It is also known as the income theory.
5. It is concerned with the optimization of the growth process of the entire economy.

Question 32.
Describe the features of human wants.
Answer:
(a) Wants are unlimited:
Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one want is satisfied another want crops up. Human wants multiply with the growth of civilization and development.

(b) Wants become habits:
Wants become habits; for example, when a man starts reading news paper in the morning, it becomes a habit. Same is the case with drinking tea or chewing pans.

(c) Wants are Satiable:
Though we cannot satisfy all our wants, at the same time we can satisfy particular wants at a given time. When one feels hungry, he takes food and that want is satisfied.

(d) Wants are Alternative:
There are alternative ways to satisfy a particular want. E.g., Idly, dosa or chappathi.

(e) Wants are Competitive:
All our wants are not equally important. So, there is competition among wants. Hence, we have to choose more urgent wants than less urgent wants.

(f) Wants are Complementary:
Sometimes, satisfaction of a particular want requires the use of more than one commodity. Example: Car and Petrol, Ink and Pen.

(g) Wants are Recurring:
Some wants occur again and again. For example, if we feel hungry, we take food and satisfy out want. But after sometime, we again feel hungry and want food.

Question 33.
Find out the missing Marginal Product and Average Product for the given table.

Answer:

Question 34.
Define opportunity cost with an example.
Answer:

• Opportunity refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
• For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up. Opportunity Cost is also called as ‘Alternative Cost’ or ‘Transfer Cost’.

Question 35.
What is Monopsony?
Answer:
Monopsony is a market structure in which there is only one buyer of a good or service. If there is only one customer for a certain good, that customer has monopsony power in the market for that good. Monopsony is analogous to monopoly, but monopsony has market power on the demand side rather than on the supply side.

Question 36.
What are the types of Natural resources?
Answer:
Water resources:
Tamil Nadu is not endowed with rich natural resources compared to other States. It accounts for three per cent of water sources, four per cent of land area against six per cent of population.

North East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by South West monsoon. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai, etc. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).

Mineral resources:
Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with thermal power plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.

Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Question 37.
List out the objectives of MUDRA BANK.
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of micro-finance and bring stability to the
   micro-finance system. .
2. Extend finance and credit support to Micro-finance Institutions (MFI) and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 38.
Describe the development of Textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
• Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
• The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people, and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
• The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
• From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
• About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
• The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
• Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
• Tirupur known as “knifting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
• Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
• Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 39.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = \(\frac{72}{9}\)
x = 8

Question 40.
Differentiate between Rent and Quasi-Rent.
Answer:
Rent:

1. Rent accrues to land
2. The supply of land is fixed forever.
3. It enters into price

Quasi – Rent:

1. Quasi-Rent accrues to manmade appliances.
2. The supply of manmade appliances is fixed for a short period only.
3. It does not enter into price.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of Production Possibility Curve.
Answer:
Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another assuming a given state of technology and given total resources.

Assumptions:

• The time period does not change
• Techniques of production are fixed.
• There is full employment in the economy.
• Only two goods can be produced from the given resources
• Resources of production are fully mobile.

Explanation:

1. The quantity of food is shown on x-axis and the number of cars is shown on y-axis.
2. The different six production possibilities are being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆.
3. A maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology.
4. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced.
5. In between these two extremes, possibilities exist.
6. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State. Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

(a) Road Transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

(b) Rail Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Headquartered at Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
• Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established, suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

(c) Air Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
• Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
• Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

(d) Ports:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
• It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 42.
(a) Explain the law of demand with a diagram.
Answer:
Definition:
According to Alfred Marshall, the Law of Demand said as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”.

Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remain constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.

Price	Quantity Demanded
5	1
4	2
3	3
2	4
1	5

Explanation:

1. Quantity demanded and Y axis represents the price of the commodity.
2. DD is the demand curve, which has a negative slope.
3. Slope downward from left to right which indicates that when price falls, the demand expands and when price rises, the demand contracts.

Conclusion:
Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the Ricardian theory of Rent.
Answer:
Definition:
According to Ricardo, “Rent is the that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil”.

Assumptions:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of land.
4. Theory assumes perfect competition.

Schedule of Ricardian Theory of Rent:

Grades of Lands	Production (in bags)	Surplus (i.e., Rent in bags)
A	40	40 – 20 = 20
B	30	30 – 20 = 10
C	20	20 – 20 = 0

Explanation:

1. In diagram, X axis represents various grades of land and Y axis represents yield per acre (in bags).
2. 0A, AB and BC are the ‘A’ Grade, ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
3. The application of equal amount of labour and capital on each of them gives a yield represented by the rectangles standing just about the respective bases.
4. The ‘C’ grade land is the ‘no-rent land’ “A” and “B” grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.

Question 43.
(a) Describe the properties of Iso – quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Properties of Iso-quant Curve:

1. The iso-quant curve has negative slope.
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K₅ and less of labour L₂. As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS_LK). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of iso-quant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the iso-quant is convex to the origin.

Marginal Rate of technical substitution

3. Non inter-section of Iso-quant curves.
For instance, point A lie on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂. But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁.
If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output.
Higher IQ_s show higher outputs and lower IQ_s show lower outputs, for upper iso-quant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve.

The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X axis or Y axis.
No iso-quant curve touches the X axis or Y axis because in IQ₁ only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

[OR]

(b) Explain about the Industry clusters in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

• Chennai is sometimes referred to as the Health Capital of India or the Banking Capital of India, having attracted investments from International Finance Corporations and the World Bank. It is also called as Detroit of Asia.
• Tamil Nadu has a network of about 110 industrial parks / estates that offer developed plots with supporting infrastructure.
• Also, the Government is promoting other industrial parks like Rubber Park, Apparel Park, Floriculture Park, TICEL Park for Biotechnology, Siruseri IT Park and Agro Export Zones.
• The heavy engineering manufacturing companies are Centred around the subrubs of Chennai. Chennai boasts of global car manufacturing giants as well as home grown companies.
  
• Karur is known for its bus body building which contributes 80% of South Indian bus body building.
• TNPL is the Asia’s largest ecofriendly paper mill. Salem is called as steel city and has many sago producing units and mineral wealth.
• Sivakasi is the leader in printing, fireworks, safety matches production in India. It contributes to 80% of India’s total safety matches production and 90% of India’s total fireworks production.
• Thoothukudi is the gateway of Tamil Nadu. It is a major chemical producer next only to Chennai.

Question 44.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price):
When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price):
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) If the demand function is P = 35 – 2x – x² and the demand x₀ is 3, what will be the consumer’s surplus?
Answer:
Given demand function,
P = 35 – 2x – x² For x = 3
P = 35 – 2(3) – 3²
= 35 – 6 – 9.
P = 20 Therefore,
CS = (Area of the curve below the demand curve from 0 to 3) – Area of the rectangle (20 x – = 60)

= 105 – 9 – 9 – 60 = 27 Units

Question 45.
(a) Explain the features of Oligopoly.
Answer:

• Few large firms: Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly relalise the importance of mutual cooperation.
• Advertisment cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: The oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with- heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not-change their prices due to the fear of rivals’ reaction.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas.
Answer:
1. Village Republics:
To Gandhi, India lives in villages. He was interestred in developing the villages j as self sufficient units. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

2. On Machinery:
Gandhi described machinery as “Great Sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate the evils it is necessary to realize that machinery is bad. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil. It would ultimately crease.

3. Industrialism:
Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

4. Decentralization:
He advocated a decentralized economy, i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

5. Villge Sarvodaya:
According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities. So he suggested the development of self sufficient, self-dependent villages.

6. Bread Labour:
Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by sweat of his brow. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

7. The Dcotrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one. It gives no quarter to capitalism. However, now India experiences * S both casino capitalism and crony capitalsm.

8. On the Food Problem:
Gandhi was against any sort of food controls. He thought Such controls only created artificial scarcity. Once India was begging for food grain, but India tops the world with very large production of foodgrains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

9. On population:
Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives. He was, however, in favour of birth control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population.

10. On Prohibition:
Gandhi advocated cent per cent prohibition. He regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards. But, now many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial banks.
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

• The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
• Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
• In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
• Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
• Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
• Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.

After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) How are the information and communication technologies (ICT) used in economics?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate. The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT.

Information	Technologies
Creation	Personal Computer, Digital Camera, Scanner, Smart Phone.
Processing	Calculation, PC, Smart Phone
Storage	CD, DVD, Pen Drive, Microchip, Cloud
Display	PC, TV, Projector, Smart Phone
Transmission	Internet, Teleconference, Video Conferencing, Mobile Technology, Radio
Exchange	E-mail, Cell phone

THE EVALUATION OF ICT HAS FIVE PHASES.
They are evolution in

1. Computer
2. PC
3. Microprocessor
4. Internet and
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for data compiling, editing, manipulating and presenting the results. In general, SPSS and Excel packages are often used by researchers in economics. Such Software is designed to do certain user tasks. Word process, spread sheet and web browser are some of the examples which are frequently used while undertaking analysis in the study of economics.

Question 47.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of Special Economic Zones (SEZ).
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs. .

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness.
Answer:
The causes for rural indebtedness may be summarized as below:

• Poverty of Farmers: The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption, cultiviation and celebrations., Thus, poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.
• Failure of Monsoon: Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature. Therefore, farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.
• Litigation: Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.
• Money Lenders and High Rates of Interest: The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The book of “The structure and reproduction of the Algae” was published by …………………….
(a) F.E. Fritch
(b) F.E. Round
(c) R.E. Lee
(d) M.S. Randhawa
Answer:
(a) F.E. Fritch

Question 2.
More than one locule ovaries are called ………………………..
(a) Plurilocular
(b) Unilocular
(c) Bilocular
(d) Trilocular
Answer:
(a) Plurilocular

Question 3.
The two subunits of ribosomes remain united at critical ion level of ………………….
(a) Magnesium
(b) Calcium
(c) Sodium
(d) Ferrous
Answer:
(a) Magnesium

Question 4.
The structure of Glycine ammo acid is …………………………

Answer:

Question 5.
Polyderm is found in the roots and underground stems of family is ………………………
(a) Magnesium
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Lilliaceae
Answer:
(a) Magnesium

Question 6.
In a fully turgid cell: …………………
(a) DPD = 10 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(b) DPD = 0 atm; OP = 10 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(c) DPD = 0 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(d) DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm.
Answer:
(d) DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm.

Question 7.
Who proposed the “Theory of photosynthesis in guard cells” ?
(a) Von Mohl
(b) Sayre
(c) Levit
(d) Steward
Answer:
(a) Von Mohl

Question 8.
Which prevents flow of electrons from NADH + H+ /FADH2 to CoQ?
(a) Cyanide
(b) Oligomycin
(a) Von Mohl
(d) 2,4 DNP
Answer:
(a) Von Mohl

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
We are using perfume to our body. Write the name of the plant and their product.
Answer:
Name of the perfume yielding plant – Santalum album. Product – Sandal oil.

Question 10.
Write the floral formulafof Phyllanthus amarus.
Answer:
Floral formula:

Question 11.
Draw the diagram of conjoint, bicollateral and open of vascular system.
Answer:

Question 12.
How does the trees increase their girth ?
Answer:
In plants, the increase in the thickness (girth) of stem and root is by means of secondary growth or longitudinal growth.

Question 13.
Define the Theory of Electro Osmosis.
Answer:
Electro-Osmotic theory: The theory of electro osmosis was proposed by Fenson (1957) and Spanner (1958). According to this, an electricpotential across the sieve plate causes the movement of water along with solutes. This theory fails to explain several problems concerning translocation.

Question 14.
Respiratory Quotient is zero in succulent plants. Why?
Answer:
In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO2 but O2 is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

Part – III

Answer any 3 questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Do you agree that virus is living organism? If you say yes, justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Viruses have the characters of living organisms because

• They possess nucleic acid and protein
• Ability to multiply inside a. living cell
• Ability to inject and cause disease
• Capable of mutation
• Show irritability
• Hosts specific.

Question 16.
You are looking like your father or mother in externally. Why? Explain the reason.
Answer:
Externally, we resemble our father or mother upto a certain degree, because the characters of our parents are inherited to us through their genes present in the chromosome of egg (mother) and sperm (father).

Question 17.
Write any three significance of mitosis.
Answer:

1. Genetic stability – daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.
2. Growth – as multicellular organisms grow, the number of cells making up their tissue increases. The new cells must be identical to the existing ones.
3. Repair of tissues – damaged cells must be replaced by identical new cells by mitosis.

Question 18.
Which is determined you parental character? Describe about the structure.
Answer:
The parental characters are determined by the chromosome.
The four important features of the chromosome are:

• The shape of the chromosome is specific: The long, thin, lengthy structured chromosome contains a short, constricted region called centromere.
• The number of chromosomes per species is fixed: Example: Mouse has 40 chromosomes, Onion has 16 and Human have 46.
• Chromosomes occur in pairs: Chromosomes of a cell occur in pairs, called homologous pairs. Each of a pair come originally from each parent. Example, human has 46 chromosomes, 23 coming originally from each parent in the process of sexual reproduction.

Question 19.
Write the role of nitrogenase enzyme in nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen: Nitrogen fixation process requires Nitrogenase enzyme . complex, Minerals (Mo, Fe and S), anaerobic condition, ATP, electron and glucose 6 phosphate as H+ donor. Nitrogenase enzyme is active only in anaerobic condition. To create this anaerobic condition a pigment known as leghaemoglobin is synthesized in the nodules which acts as oxygen scavenger and removes the oxygen. Nitrogen fixing bacteria in root nodules appears pinkish due to the presence of this leghaemoglobin pigment.
Overall equation: N₂ + 8e^– + 8H⁺ + 16 ATP → 2NH₃⁺ + H₂ + 16 ADP + 16 Pi

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the Aerial modification of stern with an example.
Answer:
Aerial modification of stem:
1. Creepers: These are plants growing closer (horizontally) to the ground and produces roots at each node. e.g., Cynodon dactylon, Oxalis, Centella

2. Trailers (Stragglers): It is a weak stem that spreads over the surface of the ground without rooting at nodes. They are divided into 3 types,

• Prostrate (Procumbent): A stem that grows flat on the ground, e.g., Evolvulus alsinoides, Indigofera prostrata.
• Decumbent: A stem that grows flat but becomes erect during reproductive stage. e.g., Portulaca, Tridax, Lindenbergia
• Diffuse: A trailing stem with spreading branches, e.g., Boerhaavia diffusa, Merremia
  tridentata

3. Climbers: These plants have long weak stem and produce special organs for attachment , for climbing over a support. Climbing helps to display the leaves towards sunlight and to
position the flower for effective pollination.

i. Root climbers: Plants climbing with the help of adventitious roots (arise from nodes) as in species of Piper betel, Piper nigrum, Hedera helix, Pothos, Hoy a.

ii. Stem climbers (twiners): These climbers lack specialised structure for climbing and the stem itself coils around the support, e.g., Ipomoea, Convolvulus, Dolichos, Clitoria, Quisqualis.
Stem climbers may coil around the support clockwise or anti-clockwise. Clockwise coiling climbers are called dextrose. Example: Dioscorea alata. Anti-clockwise coiling climbers are called sinistrose. e.g., Dioscorea bulbifera.

iii. Hook climbers: These plants produce specialized hook like structures which are the modification of various organs of the plant. In Artabotrys inflorescence axis is modified into hook. In calamus (curved hook) leaf tip is modified into hook. In Bignonia unguis- cati the leaflets are modified into curved hook. In Hugonia the axillary buds modified into hook.

iv. Thorn climbers: Climbing or reclining on the support with the help of thorns as in Bougainvillea and Carissa.

v. Lianas (woody stem climber): Woody perennial climbers found in tropical forests are lianas. They twine themselves around tall trees to get light, e.g., Hiptage benghalensis, Bauhinia vahlii, Entada pursaetha.

vi. Tendril climbers: Tendrils are thread-like coiling structures which help the plants in climbing. Tendrils may be modifications of Stem – as in Passiflora, Vitis and Cissus quadrangularis; Inflorescence axis – Antigonon; Leaf – Lathyrus, Leaflets – Pisum sativum; Petiole – Clematis; Leaftip – Gloriosa; Stipules – Smilax. In pitcher plant (Nepenthes) the midrib of the leaf often coils around a support like a tendril and holds the pitcher in a vertical position.

[OR]

The plants also having the hormones like human being. What are they? Explain the physiological effect of any one.
Answer:
The plants also having the hormones like human being. They are called Phylohormones.
Example: Giberillin, Auxin, Cytokinin, ethylene, Abscissic acid.
Physiological effect of of Cytokinins:

• Cytokinin promotes cell division in the presence of auxin (IAA).
• Induces cell enlargement associated with IAA and gibberellins.
• Cytokinin can break the dormancy of certain light-sensitive seeds like tobacco and induces seed germination.
• Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral bud in the presence of apical bud.
• Application of cytokinin delays the process of aging by nutrient mobilization. It is known as Richmond Lang effect.
• Cytokinin (i) increases rate protein synthesis (ii) induces the formation of inter-fascicular cambium, (iii) Overcomes apical dominance  (iv) induces formation of new leaves, chloroplast and lateral shoots.
• Plants accumulate solutes very actively with the help of cytokinins.

Question 21.
Explain the Calvin Cycle (Flow chart only).
Answer:

[OR]

Draw the outline of Bentham & Hooker classification.
Answer:

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 x 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Every unit of classification regardless of its rank is ………………
(a) Taxon
(b) Variety
(c) Species
(d) Strain
Answer:
(a) Taxon

Question 2.
The zoological name of National Bird is ……………..
(a) Pavo Cristatus
(b) Zoothera Salimalii
(c) Columba livia
(d) Chalcophaps indiva
Answer:
(a) Pavo Cristatus

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not true to simple epithelial tissue?
(a) It is composed of a single layer of cells.
(b) Squamous epithelium is a type of simple epithelium which has flattened cells.
(c) Simple epithelium covers dry surface of the skin.
(d) Pseudo-stratified is a type of simple epithelium which lines the epididymis.
Answer:
(d) Pseudo-stratified is a type of simple epithelium which lines the epididymis.

Question 4.
Which plasma protein is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(a) Globulin
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Albumin
(d) Serum amylase
Answer:
(b) Fibrinogen

Question 5.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.


Answer:
(c) p – (iv), Q – (iii), R – (ii),  S – (i)

Question 6.
Which one of the following diseases is caused due to our own body antibodies act against our own body substance?
(a) Tetany
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Gout
Answer:
(c) Myasthenia gravis

Question 7.
Silk is obtained from ………………
(a) Laccifer lacca
(b) Nosema bombycis
(c) Attacus ricini
(d) Attacus mvlitta
Answer:
(d) Attacus mvlitta

Question 8.
The good egg layers and delicious breed is ………………..
(a) Chittagong
(b) Leghorn
(c) Plymouth
(d) Aseel
Answer:
(a) Chittagong

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Differentiate between closed type and open type of circulatory system.
Answer:
Closed circulatory system :

1. The circulation in which lood is present inside the blood vessels is called closed circulatory system
2. It is found in higher organisms. e.g. annelids. cephalochordates and vertebrates.

Open circulatory system

1. The circulation in which blood remains filled in tissue spaces due to the absence of blood vessels is called open circulatory system
2. It is found in lower organisms. e.g. arthropods, molluscsand echinoderms

Question 10.
How does gall stones are formed?
Answer:
Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder. The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile. The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct and also hepato-pancreatic duct causing pain, jaundice and pancreatitis.

Question 11.
At Tuticorin region, the pearl oyster diving people have some changes in their blood. State the reasons for it.
Answer:
When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume. This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while stilUin the blood forming bubbles. Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings.

Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

Question 12.
Depolarization means reversal of polarity. Mention the iconic charge of both sides of axolemma.
Answer:
Depolarization – Reversal of polarity
When a nerve fibre is stimulated, sodium voltage-gate opens and makes the axolemma permeable to Na+ ions; meanwhile the potassium voltage gate closes. As a result, the rate of flow of Na+ ions into the axoplasm exceeds the rate of flow of K+ ions to the outside fluid [ECF], Therefore, the axolemma becomes positively charged inside and negatively charged outside. This reversal of electrical charge is called Depolarization.

Question 13.
Expand the word SMGA and write its uses.
Answer:
Skeletal Muscle Glycogen Analysis (SMGA) – Used to measure an Athlete’s sporting performance by taking muscle biopsies. It is a standard method to measure muscle glycogen. Muscle glycogen provides the main source of energy during anaerobic exercise. Furthermore, total glycogen stores within the body also contribute significantly to energy metabolism in endurance-type events lasting longer in duration. A single glycogen molecule may contain 5000 glucose units compared to that of 5000 individual glucose molecules.

Question 14.
In your class various height of students over there. Why so? Write the reason.
Answer:
Students in the class are of different heights because of the secretion of growth hormone. Those students who are of maximum height secrete more growth hormone and those students , with low secretion of growth hormone are dwarf or reduced in growth, because growth hormone promotes the growth of all tissue and metabolic processes of body.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Hemichordates posses the characters of echinoderms and chordates. Write any 3 characters of echinoderms as well as chordates seen in hemichordates.
Answer:
Three character of echinoderms seen in hemichordates.

1. Hemichordates are marine habitats.
2. Circulatory system is open type.
3. External fertilization.

Three character of chordates seen in hemichordates.

1. Sexes are separate.
2. Triploblastic animals.
3. Coelomate animals.

Question 16.
Name the visual units of compound eyes of cockroach.
Answer:
Ommatidium (simple eye) is the visual unit of compound eye of cockroach. Each eye of cockroach has 2000 simple eys or ommatidia.

Question 17.
Give an examples for stenohaline and euryhaline.
Answer:
Example of stenohaline animal is Gold fish.
Example for euryhaline animals is Salmon.

Question 18.
Brain is the chief organ of our body. It controls endocrine function by a special structure. What is the name of it ? How does it control ?
Answer:
Brain controls the endocrine system of our body by a special structure called hypothalamus. Hypothalamus is a small cone shaped structure that projects downward from the brain ending into the pituitary stalk. It interlinks both the nervous system and endocrine system.

Though pituitary gland is known as master endocrine glands that controls the other endocrine glands, but it is, in turn controlled by the hypothalamus. Hypothalamus contains groups of neurosecretary cells. It produces neurotransmitters which regulate the secretions of the pituitary. The hormones produced by the hypothalamus acts either as a releasing hormone or as a inhibitory hormone.

Question 19.
Write the different types of silkworm in our country.
Answer:
Different types of silkworm in our country are,

1. Bombyx mori
2. Antheraea assamensis
3. Antheraea mylitta
4. Attacus ricini

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write a short note on buccal cavity of Frog.
Answer:
The alimentary canal consists of the buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, duodenum, ileum and the rectum which leads to the cloaca and opens outside by the cloacal aperture. The wide mouth opens into the buccal cavity. On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large muscular sticky tongue. The tongue is attached in front and free behind. The free edge is forked. When the frog sights an insect it flicks out its tongue and the insect gets glued to the sticky tongue. The tongue is immediately withdrawn and the mouth closes.

A row of small and pointed maxillary teeth is found on the inner region of the upper jaw. In addition vomerine teeth are also present as two groups, one on each side of the internal nostrils. The lower jaw is devoid of teeth. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity that leads to the oesophagus through the pharynx.

[OR]

Explain the refractive errors of eye.
Answer:
Refractive errors of eye:
Myopia (near sightedness): The affected person can see the nearby objects but not the distant objects. This condition may result due to an elongated eyeball or thickened lens; so that the image of distant object is formed in front of the yellow spot. This error can be corrected using concave lens that diverge the entering light rays and focuses it on the retina.

Hypermetropia (long sightedness): the affected person can see only the distant objects clearly but not the objects nearby. This condition results due to a shortened eyeball and thin lens; so the image of closest object is converged behind the retina. This defect can be overcome by using convex lens that converge the entering light rays on the retina.

Presbyopia: Due to aging, the lens loses elasticity and the power of accommodation. Convex lenses are used to correct this defect.
Astigmatism is due to the rough (irregular) curvature of cornea or lens. Cylindrical glasses are used to correct this error.
Cataract: Due to the changes in nature of protein, the lens becomes opaque. It can be corrected by surgical procedures.

Question 21.
Kidney functioning is regulated by hormonal feedback control mechanism. Explain this mechanism.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin, juxtaglomerular apparatus and atrial natriuretic factor regulate the kidney function.

Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin: When there is excessive loss of fluid from the body or when there is an increase in the blood pressure, the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus stimulates the neurohypophysis to secrete the antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin. It facilitates reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the cell surface membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

When the water loss from the body is less or when you drink excess amount of juice, osmoreceptors stop secreting ADH and the aquaporins of the collecting ducts move into the cytoplasm. Hence dilute urine is produced to maintain the blood volume.

Renin angiotensin: Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron. It consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula dcnsa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter. The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate, can activate JG cells to release renin. This converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I. Angiotensin converting enzyme converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II.

Angiotensin-II stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule by vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and increases the glomerular blood pressure. Angiotensin-II stimulate adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na+, K+ excretion and absorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate. This complex mechanism is generally known as Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).

Atrial natriuretic factor: Excessive stretch of cardiac atrial cells cause an increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart and release Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or Factor (ANF). It travels to the kidney where it increases Na+ excretion and increases the blood flow to the glomerulus, acting as vasodilator on the afferent glomerular arterioles and as a vasoconstrictor on efferent arterioles.

It decreases aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex and decreases release of renin, thereby decreasing angiotensin-II. ANF acts antagonistically to the renin-angiotensin system, aldosterone and vasopressin.

[OR]

Explain, how the combination of aquaculture and hydroponics techniques can be successfully executed in our homes.
Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture (growing fish) and hydroponics (growing plants in non-soil media and nutrient-laden water). Aquaponics may also prevent toxic water runoff. It also maintains ecosystem balance by recycling the waste and excretory products produced by the fish. In India, aquaponics was started in 2013. Some primary methods of aquaponic gardening that are in use nowadays are as follows:

1. Deep water culture is otherwise known as raft based method. In this method a raft floats in water. Plants are kept in the holes of raft and the roots float in water. This method is applicable for larger commercial scale system. By this method fast growing plants are cultivated.

2. Media based method involves growing plants in inert planting media like clay pellets or shales. This method is applicable for home and hobby scale system. Larger number of fruiting plants, leafy green plants, herbs and other varieties of plants can be cultivated.

3. Nutrient Film technique involves the passage of nutrient rich water through a narrow trough or PVC pipe. Plants are kept in the holes of the pipe to allow the roots to be in free contact with in the water stream.

4. Aqua vertica is otherwise known as vertical aquaponics. Plants are stacked on the top of each other in tower systems. Water flows in through the top of the tower. This method is suitable for growing leafy greens, strawberries and other crops that do not need supporting solid substratum to grow.

Advantages of Aquaponic gardening Water conservation: No need of water discharge and recharge as the water is maintained by recycling process.

Soil: Bottom soil may be loaded with freshwater. Microbes in water can convert the waste materials into usable forms like ammonia into nitrates which are used by the plants. Thus the soil fertility is maintained.

Pesticides: In this system use of pesticides is avoided and hence it is ecofriendly.
Weeds: Since the plants are cultured in confined conditions, growth of weeds is completely absent. The utilization of nutrient by plants is high in this method.

Artificial food for fishes: In this system plant waste and decays are utilized by fishes as food. So, the need for the use of supplementary feed can be minimized.

Fertilizer usage: Artificial or chemical fertilizers is not required for this system since the plants in the aquaponics utilize the nutrients from the fish wastes dissolved in water. Cultivable fishes like tilapia, trout, koi, gold fish, bass etc., are cultured in aquaponics. Common cultivable plants like tomato, pepper, lettuce, cucumber, and rose are co-cultivated in this method.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The shape of the indifference curve is …………..
(a) Price line
(b) Budget line
(c) ISO – cost line
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
The basic problem studied in Economics is ……………
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Unlimited means
(c) Scarcity
(d) Strategy to meet all our wants
Answer:
(c) Scarcity

Question 3.
The man – made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as …………….
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 4.
Identify the advantages of rural roads
(a) rural marketing
(b) rural employment
(c) rural development
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 5.
In monopoly, MR curve lies below ……………
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
Answer:
(c) AR

Question 6.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by……………..
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 7.
The Secondary factors are……………..
(a) Capital
(b) Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Labour
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 8.
When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility will be ………….
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) maximum

Question 9.
Author of “An inquiry into the Nature and causes of wealth of Nations”.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 10.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 11.
Identify the formula of estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax came into effect on
(a) 1st July 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st January 2017
(d) 1st January 2016
Answer:
(a) 1st July 2017

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) Agriculture goods
Answer:
(d) Agriculture goods

Question 14.
The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with ………..
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Robertson
Answer:
(c) Robbins

Question 16.
Saved amount is called …………..
(a) Capital
(b) Income
(c) Production
(d) Output
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 17.
Which theory is generally included under micro economics?
(a) Price theory
(b) Income theory
(c) Employment theory
(d) Trade theory
Answer:
(a) Price theory

Question 18.
Expansion of FDI
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Port folio Investment
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 19.
Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1
(b) TU_n – TU_n+1
(c) TU_n + TU_n+1
(d) TU_n – TU_n+1
Answer:
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1

Question 20.
The indifference curve are
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) positive sloped
(d) Negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) Negatively sloped

Part-II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two types of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at lower price.

Question 22.
Distinguish between real and money wages.
Answer:
Money Wages :

1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.

Real Wages :

1. Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 23.
Mention the classification of wants.
Answer:
Wants are broadly classified into three categories.

• Necessaries: Goods which are indispensable for the human beings to exist in the world are called “Necessaries”. For example, food, clothing and shelter.
• Comforts: Goods which are not indispensable for life but to make our life easy, convenient and comfortable are called “Comforts”. Ex: TV, Fan, Refrigerator and Air conditioner.
• Luxuries: Goods which are not very essential but are very costly are known as “Luxuries”. ( Ex: Jewellery, Diamonds and Cars. However, for people with higher income they may look necessaries or comforts.

Question 24.
What are the degrees of price elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The price elasticity of demand, commonly known as the elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness and sensitiveness of demand for a product to the changes in its price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is equal to

Question 25.
State any two features of developed economy.
Answer:

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income

Question 26.
Define Utility.
Answer:

• Utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.
• Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number such as I, II, III and so on.

Question 27.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour.
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:
1. Utility approach

• The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
• Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or Marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach

The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 28.
What are the conditions for produces’s equilibrium?
Answer:

• Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
• It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
• In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘ least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 29.
State the meaning of liquidity preference.
Answer:

• Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
• “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 30.
Explicit Cost- Define.
Answer:
Payment made to other for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium with a diagram.
Answer:
Consumer Equilibrium: The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.

‘T’ is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper most IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_xy and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of x to price of y.

i.e., \(\frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}\) Therefore \(\mathrm{MRS}_{\mathrm{xy}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{y}}} \)

Question 32.
Explain social infrastructure.
Answer:

• Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy.
• These structures are outside the system of production and distribution.
• The development of these social structures help in increasing the efficiency and productivity of manpower.
• For example, schools, colleges, hospitals and other civic amenities.
• It is a fact that one of the reasons for the low productivity of Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure.

The status and developments in the social infrastructure in India are discussed below:

Education in India:
The India education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy.

Health in India:

• Health in India is a state government responsibility.
• The Central Council of Health and Welfare formulates the various health care projects and health department reform policies.

Question 33.
Write a short note on welfare economics given by Amartya Sen.
Answer:

• Amartya Kumar Sen has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
• He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

Question 34.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

• Land is a primary factor of production
• Land is a passive factor of production
• Land is the free gift of nature
• Land has no cost of production
• Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
• Land is permanent
• Land is immovable
• Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
• Land has alternative uses
• Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium.
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.
T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction’.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y z.e. P _x/ P_y . Therefore MRS_xy = P_x / P_y

Question 36.
The Handicrafts were declined in India in British period. Why?
Answer:

• The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market.
• Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic
  wares, wood carving etc. ,
• Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the
  handicrafts.
• With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings. There was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
•  Indian handicraft products could not complete with machine – made products.
• The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for the British goods.

Question 37.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure system in colonial India.
Answer:
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land.
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Landlord – Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Land lord Tenant System:

• Under this system the land lord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th the balance going to the
  Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra,
• Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.\

Question 38.
State and explain the elasticity of supply.
Answer:

• • Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
  • It is Mathematically expressed as,
    Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
    

Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price , A denotes a change.

Question 39.
Write the strategy of Jawaharlal Nehru in India’s planning.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• To Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Initiating the debate on the Second Plan in the Lok Sabha in May 1956, Nehru spoke on the theme of planning.
• Nehru Said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basic strategy of planned development.

Question 40.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:
A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.

The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the short run cost curves with suitable diagram.
Short run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
Answer:
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in below table and diagram .

For instance if TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12, the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the Total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹ 1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production is called as Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

In the diagram the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.
For instance in TC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production.
Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as
TC = TFC + TVC. For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹ 1000 and the total variable cost is ₹ 200 then the Total cost is = ₹ 1200 (₹1000 + ₹ 200).
If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q³– 18 Q² + 91 Q
TC = 12 + Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where, AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹ 100, obtained by dividing ₹ 1000 by 10. TVC is shown in below table and diagram.

It is to be noted that

• AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
• AFC cuiwe is a downward sloping throughout its length, never touching X and Y axis. It is asymptotic to both the axes.
• The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹ 300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹ 150,
(AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.

It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC).by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹ 1600 and quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹ 400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q³ – 18 Q³ + 91 Q + 12, then AC = Q² – 18 Q +91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC:
For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC =150; ATC=650. ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output. Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ATC / AQ where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ATC denotes change in total cost and AQ denotes change in total quantity. For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹ 1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4+1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹ 1900, the marginal cost is ₹ 300.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
(i) Large Number of Buyers and sellers

• “A large number of buyers” implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market.
• This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product.
• He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker
• Large number of sellers” implies that share of each individual seller is a very very small quantum of a product.
• No power to fix the price of the product.

(ii) Homogeneous Product and Uniform Price

• The product sold and bought is homogeneous in nature, in the sense that the units of the product are perfectly substitutable.
• All the units of the product are identical i.e., of the same size, shape, colour, quality etc.
• Therefore, a uniform price prevails in the market.

(iii) Free Entry and Exit

• In the short run, it is possible for the very efficient producer, producing the product at a very low cost, to earn super normal profits.
• An inefficient producer, who is unable to bring down the cost incurs loss.

(iv) Absence of Transport Cost :
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost.

(v) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production

• The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the perfect mobility of the factors of production.
• As they enjoy perfect freedom to move from one place to another and from one occupation to another, the price gets adjusted.

(vi) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(vii) No Government Intervention
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials, and in the determination of price etc.

Question 42.
(a) Describe the features of oligopoly.
Answer:
Features of oligopoly:

• Few large firms: Veiy few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual . co-operation.
• Advertisement cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

[OR]

(b) Discuss about the Indian Economy during British period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule of the East India Company finally did come
  to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.

On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

1. The period of merchant Capital
2. The period of Industrial Capital
3. The period of Finance Capital

Question 43.
(a) What is GST? Write its advantages.
Answer:

• GST – Goods and Services Tax. GST is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
• Removing cascading tax effect
• Single point tax
• Higher threshold for registration
• Composition scheme for small business
• Online simpler procedure under GST
• Defined treatment for e-commerce
• Increased efficiency in logistics
• Regulating the unorganized sector

[OR]

(b) What are the remedial measures for Rural unemployment?
Answer:
Remedial measures for Rural unemployment:
In order to reduce rural unemployment in the country there is a need to take integrated and coordinated efforts from various levels. A few remedial measures are listed below:

Subsidiary Occupation: To reduce the seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations. Loans should be granted and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their products.

Rural Works Programme: Rural Works Programme such as construction and maintenance of roads, digging of drains, canals etc., should be planned during off season to provide gainful employment to the unemployed.

Irrigation Facilities: Since rainfall is uncertain irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.

Rural Industrialization: To provide employment new industries should be set up in rural areas. Technical Education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced in schools and colleges to enable the literate youth to start their own units.

Question 44.
(a) The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the price and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = 72/9
∴ x = 8

Question 45.
(a) Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
• He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(i) Democracy and Secularism:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
• He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
• Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(ii) Planning:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
• He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
• Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
• It was during is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
• Nehru always in insisted on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) – Describe the performance of 12 five year plans in India.
Answer:
Performance of Five Year Plans:
First Five Year Plan – [1951 -1956]

• It was based on the Harrod – Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country. ,
• This plan was successful and achieved the GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 – 1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan- [1961-1966].

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self propelled position or take off.
• Due to Indo – China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%.

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 -1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved the growth of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan-[1980-1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self reliance.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992-1997]

• In this plan the top priority was given to development of the human resources (i.e) employment, education and public health.
• This plan was successful and got annual growth rate of 6.8%.

Ninth Five Year Plan-[1997-2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio of 15%
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence the five year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

Question 46.
(a) If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computiftg faster and accurate.
The following table given an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

S.No	Information	Technologies
1.	Creation	Personal computers, Digital Camera, Scanner, Smart Phone
2.	Processing	Calculator, PC – Personal Computer, Smart Phone
3.	Storage	CD, DVD, Pen Drive, Microchip, Cloud
4.	Display	PC – Personal computer, TV – Television, Projector, Smart Phone
5.	Transmission	Internet, Teleconference, Video, Conferencing, Mobile, Technology, Radio
6.	Exchange	E – mail, Cell Phone

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:

They are evaluation in: (a) Computer (b) PC – Personal Computer (c) Micro Processor ‘ (d) Internet (e) Wireless links
In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for: (a) Data Compiling (b) Editing (c) Manipulating (d) Presenting the results

Question 47.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
Relationship between AR and MR Curves: If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.
Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price): When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price)
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR
will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) Define Market.
Answer:

• Market refers to a physical place, where commodities and services are bought and sold. In Economics, The term “market” refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity.
• Besides direct exchanges, there are exchanges that are carried out through correspondence, telephones, online, e-mail etc.

A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service
2. A commodity to be bought and sold
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
For every CO₂ molecule entering the C₃ cycle, the number of ATP and NADPH required is ………………….
(a) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH
(b) 3 ATP + 3 NADPH
(c) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH
(d) 2 ATP + 3 NADPH
Answer:
(a) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH

Question 2.
If the haploid number of chromosomes for an angiosperm is 14, then the number of chromosome in its endosperm would be………………….
(a) 42
(b) 28
(c) 7
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 42

Question 3.
Vexillary aestivation is characteristic feature of ……………….family.
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Asteraceae
Answer:
(c) Fabaceae

Question 4.
Which of the following represents symport?

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:
The above structure represents a …………………..
(a) Polynucleotide
(b) Amino acid
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Nucleotide
Answer:
(d) Nucleotide

Question 6.
The pairing of Homologous chromosomes on Meiosis is known as …………………..
(a) Disjunction
(b) Synergids
(c) Bivalent
(d) Synapsis
Answer:
(d) Synapsis

Question 7.
Photosynthetic roots are seen in …………………..
(a) Vanda
(b) Tinospora
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Viscum
Answer:
(b) Tinospora

Question 8.
Match:

(a) (1 )-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(iii), (2)-(ii), (3)-(i), (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(i), (2)-(iv), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii)
Answer:
(a) (1 )-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
(a) What is Plectostele? Give an example.
(b) Mention any one character shared by gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Answer:
(a) Plectostele: Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates, e.g., Lycopodium clavatum.

(b) Gymnosperms :

1. Vessels are absent (except Gnetales)
2. Phloem lacks companion cells

Angiosperms :

1. Vessels are present
2. Companion cells are present

Question 10.
List the primary ftmctions of Leaf.
Answer:
Primary functions of the leaf:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Gaseous exchange
4. Protection of buds
5. Conduction of water and dissolved solutes

Question 11.
A series of events leading to the formation of new cell is known as Cell Cycle. Give the diagrammatic view of Cell Cycle.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name the following diagrams.
Answer:

Question 13.
Mention the different types of plasmolysis seen in plant cells.
Answer:

1. Incipient plasmolysis
2. Evident plasmolysis and
3. Final plasmolysis.

Question 14.
Tabulate any two differences between Cyclic and Non-Cyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Differences between Cyclic Photophosphorylation and Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation:

Cyclic Photophosphorylation :

1. PS I only involved.
2. Photolysis of water does not take place.

Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation :

1. PS I and PS II involved.
2. Photolysis of water takes place.

Part – III

Answer any 3 questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Explain the different types of placentation with example.
Answer:

• Marginal placentation: It is with the placentae along the margin of a unicarpellate ovary. e.g., Fabaceae.
• Axile placentation: The placentae arises from the column in a compound ovary with septa. e.g., Hibiscus, tomato and lemon.
• Superficial placentation: Ovules arise from the surface of the septa, e.g., Nyrhphaeceae.
• Parietal: It is the placentae on the ovary walls or upon intruding partitions of a unilocular, compound ovary, e.g., Mustard, argemone and cucumber.
• Free-central placentation: It is with the placentae along the column in a compound ovary without septa, e.g., Caryophyllaceae, Dianthus and primrose.
• Basal: It is the placenta at the base of the ovary, e.g, Sunflower (Asteraceae) Marigold.

Question 16.
(a) Draw and label the structure of Mitochondria.
(b) Why Mitochondria is called as ‘the power house of a cell’?
Answer:
(a) Structure of Mitochondrion:

(b) Since huge amount of energy is generated in mitochondria in the form of ATP molecules they are called ‘power house of the cell’.

Question 17.
A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as growth rings. What are the significances of studying about these rings ?
Answer:

• Age of wood can be calculated
• The quality of timber can be ascertained
• Radio-Carbon dating can be verified
• Past climate and archaeological dating can be made.
• Provides evidence in forensic investigation

Question 18.
(a) What is the formula for Respiratory Quotient?
(b) Write any two significances of Pentose Phosphate Pathway.
Answer:
(a) Formula for Respiratory Quotient:

(b) Significances of Pentose Phosphate Pathway:

• HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products, NADPH and pentose sugars, which play a vital role in anabolic reactions.
• Coenzyme NADPH generated is used for reductive biosynthesis and counter damaging the effects of oxygen free radicals

Question 19.
(a) The equations given below represent the different stages of Nitrogen Cycle in plants.

In the above equations [A], [B], [C] indicate the bacteria which is responsible for the reaction. Name them.
(b) Define Denitrification.
(c) Which enzyme is required for Nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
(a) (i) A – Nitrosomonas
(ii) B – Nitrobacter
(iii) C – Pseudomonas
(b) Denitrification: Nitrates in the soil are converted back into atmospheric nitrogen by a process called denitrification. Bacteria involved in this process are Pseudomonas, Thiobacillus and Bacillus subtilis.

(c) Enzyme required for Nitrogen fixation: Nitrate Reductase, Nitrite Reductase

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) (i) A Danish Physician, Christian Gram developed a staining procedure to differentiate bacteria. List the various steps involved in that procedure.
(ii) Distinguish between Deoxy viruses and Ribo viruses with example.
[OR]
(b) Describe the Floral characters of Allium Cepa with a neat floral diagram.
Answer:
(a) (i) Gram staining Techniques :

1. Prepare a smear of bacterial culture.
2. Stain with crystal violet for 30 seconds
3. Rinse in distilled water for 2 seconds
4. Grams Iodine for 1 minute
5. Rinse in distilled water
6. Wash in 95% ethanol or acetone for 10 to 30 seconds
7. Rinse in distilled water
8. Safranin for 30-60seconds
9. Rinse in distilled water and blot
10. Observe under microscope

(ii) Deoxy viruses
Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV

Ribo viruses :
Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g. Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic vims (CMV)

[OR]

(b) Floral Characters of Allium cepa:
Answer:

• Habit: Perennial herb with bulb.
• Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
• Stem: Underground bulb
• Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation.
• Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e. the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
• Flower: Small, white, bracteate, bracteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous. Flowers are protandrous.
• Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
• Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous / free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse and dehiscing longitudinally.
• Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
• Fruit: A loculicidal capsule.
• Seed: Endospermous .
• Floral Formula:
  
  

Question 21.
(a) (i) Draw and label the internal structure of Nerium leaf
(ii) Name the following Vascular Bundle.
Answer:

(b) (i) Write any four points regarding Physiological effects of cytokinins.
(ii) Define Vernalisation.

In the above representation, what does P_r and P_fr stand for?
Answer:
(a) (i) Internal structure of Nerium leaf:

(ii) Vascular Bundle :
(A) Concentric Amphivasal vascular bundle
(B) Radial arrangement

[OR]

(b) (i) Physiological effects of cytokinins:

• Cytokinin promotes cell division in the presence of auxin (IAA)
• Cytokinin can break the dormancy of certain light-sensitive seeds like tobacco and induces seed germination
• Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral bud in the presence of apical bud
• Cytokinin (i) increases rate of protein synthesis (ii) induces the formation of inter-fascicular cambium (iii) overcomes apical dominance (iv) induces formation of new leaves, chloroplast and lateral shoots.

(ii) Vernalisation: Many species of biennials and perennials are induced to flower by low temperature exposure (0°C to 5°C). This process is called vernalization. The term vernalization was first used by T.D. Lysenko (1938).

(iii) P_r – Phytochrome red (660 nm)
P_fr– Phytochrome far red(730 nm)

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Vital Capacity is ………………………………
(a) RV + ERV
(b) TV + IRV + ERV
(c) TV + IRV
(d) TV + ERV
Answer:
(b) TV + IRV + ERV

Question 2.
When a cockroach tries to enter into the ear of a sleeping person, which one of the following process will start ?
(a) Stimulation of negative feedback mechanism
(b) Neuromuscular fatigue
(c) Unconditioned reflex
(d) Conditioned reflex
Answer:
(c) Unconditioned reflex

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correct pair ?
(a) Exotic breed – Cyprinus Carpio
(b) Apiculture – Reeling
(c) Sericulture – Propolis
(d) Milch breed – Malvi
Answer:
(a) Exotic breed – Cyprinus Carpio

Question 4.
If Henle ’s Loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected ?
(a) The urine will be more concentrated
(b) The urine will be more diluted
(c) There will be no urine formation
(d) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
Answer:
(b) The urine will be more diluted

Question 5.
The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called …………………….
(a) Myofibril
(b) Sarcoplasm
(c) Sarcomere
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Sarcoplasm

Question 6.
Three domain classification was proposed by
(a) Cavalier Smith
(b) R.H. Whittaker
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Carl Woese
Answer:
(d) Carl Woese

Question 7.
Which of the statements regarding lac insect is True ?
(i) Microscopic resinous crawling scale insect.
(ii) Inserts its proboscis into plant tissue, suck juices and grows.
(iii) Secretes lac from the hind end of the body.
(iv) The male lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac.
(a) (ii), (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 8.
Which of the following is not present in the same rank ?
(a) Diptera
(b) Insecta
(c) Primata
(d) Orthoptera
Answer:
(c) Primata

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Classify the animals based on the body cavity.
Answer:
The cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is called coelom. In some animals, the body cavity is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium. The mesoderm is formed as scattered pouches between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called a pseudocoel. The animals which have pseudocoel e.g. round worms.

If the coelom develops within the mesoderm and is lined by mesodermal epithelium it is called eucoelom. The animals which have true coelom are called eucoelomates. If the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm, the animals are called schizocoelomates. e.g., Annelids, arthropods and molluscs. If the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron, the animals are called enterocoelomate animals, e.g., echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 10.
Name the layers found in Human Blood Vessels.
Answer:

• The blood vessels in humans are composed of three layers, tunica intima, tunica media and tunica externa.
• The inner layer, tunica intima or tunica interna supports the vascular endothelium, the middle layer.
• Tunica media is composed of smooth muscles and an extra cellular matrix which contains a protein, elastin.
• The outer layer, tunica externa or tunica adventitia is composed of collagen fibres.

Question 11.
We are not consuming urea. But in our body urea is produced. Why?
Answer:
If too much of protein is consumed, the body cannot store the excess amino acids formed from the digestion of proteins. The liver breaks down the excess amino acids and produces urea.

Question 12.
List the disorders of muscular system.
Answer:
Myasthenia gravis, tetany, muscle fatigue, atrophy, muscle pull and muscular dystrophy are the disorders of muscular system.

Question 13.
Do you know your lower limb segments ? Write the 3 segments of lower limb.
Answer:

• Hinge joint which is the knee joint
• Gliding joint is between the tarsals
• Ball and socket joint which is between femur and hip bone
• Saddle joint is between the tarsal and metatarsal

Question 14.
Name the three zones which are present in Adrenal gland.
Answer:

• Zona glomerulosa : The outer thin layer constitutes about 15% of adrenal cortex, and secretes mineralocorticoids.
• Zona fasciculata: The middle widest layer constitutes about 75% of adrenal cortex and secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen.
• Zona reticularis: The inner zone of adrenal cortex constitute about 10% of adrenal cortex and secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Compare the anatomical features between Phylum Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:

Question 16.
Why do we call cockroach a vector ?
Answer:
Cockroaches carry with them harmful germs of various bacterial diseases like cholera, diarrhoea, tuberculosis, and typhoid and hence are known as “Vectors”.

Question 17.
Why, villi present in the intestine, are not present in the stomach?
Answer:
In small intestine digestion gets completed and the absorption of digested food materials like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol takes place. The food materials are to be retained in the intestine by increasing the surface area. Hence villi are present in the intestine. Stomach is the temporary storing organ of food. In the stomach, HCl pepsin, renin and lipase are secreted. These are concerned with digestion. Hence villi are not present in the stomach.

Question 18.
Enumerate the benefits of Poultry Farming.
Answer:
Benefits of Poultry farming are:

• It does not require high capital for construction and maintenance of the poultry farming.
• It does not require a big space.
• It ensures high return of investment within a very short period of time.
• It provides fresh and nutritious food and has a huge global demand.
• It provides employment opportunities for the people.

Question 19.
Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body. Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland is commonly called the master gland” of the body because it regulates the activity of other endocrine glands such as adrenal gland, thyroid gland, testis and ovary.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write the kingdom, phylum and class for Pigeon. Write the characteristics of birds that are suitable for flying.
Answer:

• Kigdom : Animalia
• Phylum: chordata
• Class : Aves
• The forelimbs are modified into wings,
• The hind limbs are adapted for walking, running, and swimming and perching.
• The endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities.
• The pectoral muscles of flight (pectoralis major and pectoralis minor) are well developed.
• The skin is dry and devoid of glands except the oil gland or preen gland at the base of the tail.
• The exoskeleton consists of epidermal feathers, scales, claws on legs and the homy covering on the beak.
• Respiration is by compact, elastic, spongy lungs that are continuous with air sacs to supplement respiration.
• The heart is four chambered. Aves are homeothermic.
• Urinary bladder is absent.

[OR]

In our heart, all the four chambers are completely partitioned. It results in non-mixing of oxygenated blood with deoxygenated blood. Explain the double circulation related to it.
Answer:

• Circulation of the blood was first described by William Harvey in 1628. There are two types of blood circulation in vertebrates, single circulation and double circulation.
• The blood circulates twice through the heart first on the right side then on the left side to complete one cardiac cycle.
• The complete double blood circulation is more prominent in mammals because of the complete partition of all the chambers (Auricles and ventricles) in the heart.
• In systemic circulation, the oxygenated blood entering the aorta from the left ventricle is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles and capillaries to the tissues. The deoxygenated blood from the tissue.
• This increases the diffusion distance and reduces the efficiency of the gas exchange.
• In contrast high pressure is required to force blood through the long systemic circuits.
• Hence the arteries close to the heart have increased pressure than the arteries away from the heart.
• Completely separated circuits (pulmonary and systemic) allow these two different demands
  to be met with. ‘

Question 21.
Differentiate between sympathetic and parasympathetic Neural system.
Answer:
Sympathetic Neural system (SNS)

1. SNS originates in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord.
2. Sympathetic ganglia are linked up to form a chain.
3. Preganglionic fibres are short and the postganglionic fibres are long.
4. Noradrenaline is produced at the terminal ends of the postganglionic fibres at the effector organs. Hence the system is adrenergic.
5. Active during stressful conditions preparing the body to face them.
6. The overall effect is excitatory and stimulating.
7. It is considered as the flight or fight system.

Parasympathetic Neural system (PNS) :

1. PNS originates in the cranial region of the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord.
2. Its ganglia remain isolated.
3. Preganglionic fibres are long and the postganglionic fibres are short.
4. Acetylcholine is produced at the terminal ends of the postganglionic fibres at the effector organs. Hence the system is cholinergic.
5. Active during relaxing times restoring normal activity after a stress.
6. The overall effect is inhibitory.
7. It is considered as ‘The Rest and Digest System’ or ‘The Feed and Breed System’.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding.
Answer:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding: Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”. This c^n be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the
breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding: The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations. Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

Out crossing: It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals below average in productivity.

Cross breeding: Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traitsfhybrid vigour or heterosis.)

Interspecific hybridization: In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Have you heard about Mule? It was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

3. Artificial insemination: Artificial insemination is a technique in which the semen collected from the male is injected to the reproductive tract of the selected female. Artificial insemination is economical measure where fewer bulls are required and maximum use can be made of the best sire.

4. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology (MOET) : It is another method of propagation of animals with desirable traits. This method is applied when the success rate of crossing is low even after artificial insemination. In this method Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is administered to cows for inducing follicular maturation and super ovulation. Instead of one egg per cycle, 6-8 eggs can be produced by this technology.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 5 Working with Typical Operating System (Windows & Linux) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 5 Working with Typical Operating System (Windows & Linux)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Working with Typical Operating System (Windows & Linux) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
From the options given below, choose the operations managed by the operating system.
(a) memory
(b) processes
(c) disks and I/O devices
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
Which is the default folder for many Windows Applications to save your file?
(a) My Document
(b) My Pictures
(c) Documents and Settings
(d) My Computer
Answer:
(a) My Document

Question 3.
Under which of the following OS, the option Shift + Delete – permanently deletes a file or folder?
(a) Windows 7
(b) Windows 8
(c) Windows 10
(d) None of the OS
Answer:
(a) Windows 7

Question 4.
What is the meaning of “Hibernate” in Windows XP/Windows 7?
(a) Restart the Computer in safe mode
(b) Restart the Computer in hibernate mode
(c) Shutdown the Computer terminating all the running applications
(d) Shutdown the Computer without closing the running applications
Answer:
(d) Shutdown the Computer without closing the running applications

Question 5.
Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?
(a) Ubuntu
(b) Redhat
(c) CentOs
(d) BSD
Answer:
(d) BSD

Question 6.
Which of the following in Ubuntu OS is used to view the options for the devices installed?
(a) Settings
(b) Files
(c) Dash
(d) VBox_GAs_5.2.2
Answer:
(d) VBox_GAs_5.2.2

Question 7.
Identify the default email client in Ubuntu:
(a) Thunderbird
(b) Firefox
(c) Internet Explorer
(d) Chrome
Answer:
(a) Thunderbird

Question 8.
Which is the default application for spreadsheets in Ubuntu?
(a) LibreOffice Writer
(b) LibreOffice Calc
(c) LibreOffice Impress
(d) LibreOffice Spreadsheet
Answer:
(b) LibreOffice Calc

Question 9.
Which is the default browser for Ubuntu?
(a) Firefox
(b) Internet Explorer
(c) Chrome
(d) Thunderbird
Answer:
(a) Firefox

Question 10.
Where will you select the option to log out, suspend, restart, or shut down from the desktop of Ubuntu OS?
(a) Session Indicator
(b) Launcher
(c) Files
(d) Search
Answer:
(a) Session Indicator

II. Short Answers.

Question 1.
Differentiate cut and copy options?
Answer:
Cut:

1. When an object is cut from a document, it is completely removed and placed into a clipboard.
2. Ctrl X and Ctrl V is the shortcut command for cut and paste.

Copy:

1. When an object is copied a duplicate of it is placed into a clipboard while the original remains in place. .
2. Ctrl + C and Ctrl + V is the shortcut command for copy and paste.

Question 2.
What is the use of a file extension?
Answer:
The extension of the file name simply says the format in which the data in the file is stored.
Eg: If a file is named letter.doc, the .doc is the file extension, and it tells windows that the file was created with microsoft word.

Question 3.
Differentiate Files and Folders?
Answer:
Files:

1. A file is a collection of data on a single unit. It can be anything from a word file to a music, video or photo file.
2. Files have a size ranging from a few bytes to several giga bytes.

Folders:

1. Folders are places where files are stored. Folders can contain folders inside them.
2. Folders take up no space on hard drive.

Question 4.
Differentiate save and save as option?
Answer:
Save:
The ‘save’ simply saves our work by updating the last saved version of the file to match the current version we see on our screen.

Save as:
The ‘save as’ brings upto save our work as a file with a different name.

Question 5.
What is Open Source?
Answer:

1. Open Source refers to a program or software in which the source code is available in the web to the general public free of cost.
2. Open Source code is typically created as a collaborative effort in which programmers continuously improve*upon the source code in the web and share the changes within the community.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of open source?
Answer:
The advantages of open sources are better security, better quality, more control, no vendor dependence, easier licence management.

Question 7.
Mention the different server distributions in Linux OS?
Answer:

1. UbuntuLinux – LinuxMint
2. Arch Linux – Deepin
3. Fedora – Debian
4. CentOS

Question 8.
How will you log off from Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
When you have finished working on your computer, you can choose to Log Out, Suspend or Shut down through the Session Indicator on the far right side of the top panel.

III. Answer in Brief.

Question 1.
Analyse: Why the drives are segregated?
Answer:
A driver is a program that lets the operating system communicate with specific computer hardware. Computer parts need a driver because they do not use standard commands, a driver written for Linux cannot be used by Microsoft windows.
Eg:

1. Sound Card Drivers allow multi-media to deliver sound to the computer speakers.
2. The Audio Driver controls instruction sets to the audio card.
3. The Graphics Card Driver is responsible for managing the content of the images displayed on a computer monitor.
4. Modems Driver are responsible for connecting a computer to a telephone-based network.

Question 2.
If you are working on multiple files at a time, sometimes the system may hang. What is the reason behind it. How can you reduce it?
Answer:
Each program or files we open our computer takes some of the computer resources to keep it running. If we have too many programs open at one time, our computer may be low on resources and as a result it slows down or it may hang. Try only one program running at a time to make sure our hang-ups is not being caused by multiple programs running at the same time.

An easy way to determine our computer in this situation is by pressing the Num Lock button on the keyboard and watching the Num Lock to see if it turns off and on. If we can get the light to turn off and on, press Ctrl + Alt + Del and End Task for the hang-up files.

Question 3.
Are drives such as hard drive and floppy drives represented with drive letters? If so why, if not why?
Answer:
The drive letters plays an important role in telling windows where to look. All the computers with a hard drive will always have that default hard drive assigned to a C: and for floppy drivers has a drive letter of A.

Question 4.
Write the specific use of Cortana?
Answer:
Cortana – the personal assistant feature from windows phone. This has become a major part of windows 10 doing double duty as a web search and a start menu / windows search. Plus the ability to search by voice.

Question 5.
List out the major differences between Windows and Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
Windows OS:

1. Windows is a GUI based operating system.
2. Windows is a closed source.
3. Windows is strictly microsoft company based.

Ubuntu OS:

1. Ubuntu is a Linux based operating system.
2. Ubuntu is an open-source operating system.
3. It is based around the company canonical and is also community based.

Question 6.
Ark there any difficulties you face while using Ubuntu? If so, mention it with reasons?
Answer:
Yes, Many difficulties are these while using Ubuntu operating system.

1. A lack of familiarity and shared experiences fragments users they do not have a shared any points.
2. Many Linux newbies start with Ubuntu. This should not take away from Ubuntu, it is a testament to its smart design and ease of use.
3. Ubuntu has come a long way regarding hardware compatibility and some accessory hardware will not have the needed software to interface.

Question 7.
Differentiate Thunderbird and Firefox in Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
Thunderbird:

1. Ubuntu has in-built email software called Thunderbird.
2. It gives the user Access to email such as Gmail, Hotmail etc.,
3. There are free applications for users to view and edit photos, to manage and share videos.

Firefox:

1. Firefox is a internet browser, you can directly browse the internet.
2. It is the fastest browser and numerous features that protect you, from viruses and other common exploits.
3. Firefox has some advanced security measures that guard against the spyware and viruses.

Question 8.
Differentiate Save, Save As and Save a Copy in Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
Save:
This will save the document without asking for a new name or location. It will over-write the original.

SaveAs:
This will prompt you to save the document using a dialog box. You will have the ability to change the file name of location.

Save a Copy:
This will prompt you to save a copy using the same dialog box as save as. You will have the ability to change the file name or location. If you changed the name or location of the document you will be working on the original document not the copy. That meAnswer:if you make additional changes and then hit save the original will be overwritten with new changes, but the copy you saved earlier will be left at the state of the ‘save a copy’.

IV. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the versions of Windows Operating System?
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and compare the icon equivalence in Windows and Ubuntu?
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following matrix:
Answer:

Question 4.
Observe the figure and mark all the window elements. Identify the version of the Windows OS?
Answer:

All the Window elements are same. The version of OS is Windows 10.

Question 5.
Write the procedure to create, rename, delete and save a file in Ubuntu OS. Compare it with Windows OS?
Answer:
The procedure to create, rename, delete and save a file in Ubuntu OS is similar to windows OS. You can create, rename, delete and save the files and folders with the same procedure by clicking files icon. The some related figure on the desktop represents creating a file or folder by right clicking in the Desktop.

A New Folder can also be created by using menus in the files icon. A document created by you can be moved to ‘trash’ by using right click or by using menus as in windows.
All the other options like rename, cut, copy can be performed by using right click or by using menus as windows.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Working with Typical Operating System (Windows & Linux) Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Microsoft windows is a …………………… based operating system.
(a) GUI
(b) command driven
(c) window
(d) menu driven
Answer:
(a) GUI

Question 2.
Multiple applications which can execute simultaneously in windows is known as:
(a) multi programming
(b) multi tasking
(c) time sharing
(d) based on priority
Answer:
(b) multi tasking

Question 3.
…………………….. is used to interact windows by clicking its elements.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Light pen
(c) Mouse
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 4.
…………………… is used to enter alphabets and characters.
(a) Light pen
(b) Mouse
(c) Notes taker
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(d) Keyboard

Question 5.
Multiple desktop is available in:
(a) windows XP
(b) windows vista
(c) windows 8
(d) windows 10
Answer:
(d) windows 10

Question 6.
The opening screen of windows is called:
(a) desktop
(b) icons
(c) windows
(d) documentation
Answer:
(a) desktop

Question 7.
The ……………………. is an area on the screen that displays information for a specific program.
(a) desktop
(b) icons
(c) window
(d) document
Answer:
(c) window

Question 8.
The larger window is called the:
(a) document window
(b) application window
(c) workspace
(d) scroll bar
Answer:
(b) application window

Question 9.
The first level in a multilevel or hierarchial directory system is:
(a) root directory
(b) additional directory
(c) sub directories
(d) directories
Answer:
(a) root directory

Question 10.
The first level in a multilevel or hierarchical directory system is:
(a) Ctrl + X
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + V
(d) Ctrl + S
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + X

Question 11.
The shortcut keyboard command to cut is:
(a) Ctrl + X
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + V
(d) Ctrl + A
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + C

Question 12.
The shortcut keyboard command to paste is:
(a) Crtl + X
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + V
(d) Ctrl + A
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + V

Question 13.
The paste option is on …………………… menu.
(a) edit
(b) file
(c) view
(d) tools
Answer:
(a) edit

Question 14.
……………………. switches to another user account on the computer without closing the open programs and windows processes.
(a) Log off
(b) Restarting the computer
(c) Shut down
(d) Switch user
Answer:
(d) Switch user

Question 15.
……………………….. shows the name of the currently selected directory.
(a) Tool bar
(b) ftlenu bar
(c) Task bar
(d) Title bar
Answer:
(d) Title bar

Question 16.
……………………… displays your directory browsing history, location in the file system, a search button and options for the current directory view.
(a) Toolbar
(b) Menu bar
(c) Task bar
(d) Title bar
Answer:
(a) Toolbar

Question 17.
Windows 7 was released in:
(a) October 2012
(b) September 2014
(c) October 2009
(d) October 2015
Answer:
(c) October 2009

Question 18.
At the very bottom of the screen is a horizontal bar called the:
(a) tool bar
(b) menu bar
(c) task bar
(d) title bar
Answer:
(c) task bar

Question 19.
We can select multiple files by holding down the key.
(a) Alt
(b) Shift
(c) Ctrl
(d) Home
Answer:
(c) Ctrl

Question 20.
……………………. is located at the top of the screen.
(a) Tool bar
(b) Menu bar
(c) Task bar
(d) Title bar
Answer:
(b) Menu bar

I. Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is a system software that enables the hardware to communicate and operate with other software. It also acts as an interface between the user and the hardware and controls the overall execution of the computer.

Question 2.
What is Desktop?
Answer:
The opening screen of Windows is called ‘Desktop’. The desktop shows the Start button, Taskbar, Notification Area and date and time.

Question 3.
What is an Icon?
Answer:
Icon is a graphic symbol representing the window elements like files, folders, shortcuts etc., Icons play a vital role in GUI based applications.

Question 4.
What is window?
Answer:
Window is a typical rectangular area in an application or a document. It is an area on the screen that displays information for a specific program.

Question 5.
What is Application Window?
Answer:
It is an area on a computer screen with defined boundaries, and within which information is displayed. Such windows can be resized, maximized, minimized, placed side by side, overlap, and so on.

Question 6.
What is document window?
Answer:
The smaller window, which is inside the Application Window, is called the Document window. This Window is used for typing, editing, drawing, and formatting the text and graphics.

Question 7.
Where the task bar is located? What it contains?
Answer:
At the bottom of the screen is a horizontal bar called the taskbar. This bar contains (from left to right) the Start button, shortcuts to various programs, minimized programs and in the extreme right comer you can see the system tray which consist of volume control, network, date and time etc. Next to the Start button is the quick Launch Toolbar which contains task for frequently used applications.

Question 8.
What is meant by multitasking?
Answer:
Multiple applications can execute simultaneously in Windows, and this is known as “multitasking”.

Question 9.
What is launcher?
Answer:
The vertical bar of icons on the left side of the desktop is called the Launcher. The Launcher provides easy access to applications, mounted devices, and the Trash. All current applications on your system will place an icon in the Launcher.

Question 10.
How will you delete a file in Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
A file / folder created by you can be moved to trash by using right click or by using menu.

Question 11.
Define Ubuntu?
Answer:
Ubuntu is a Linux-based operating system. It is designed for computers, smartphones, and network servers. The system is developed by a UK based company called Canonical Ltd.
Ubuntu was conceived in 2004 by Mark Shuttleworth, a successful South African entrepreneur, and his company Canonical Ltd.

Question 12.
Define Trash?
Answer:
Trash is the equivalent of Recycle bin of windows OS. All the deletted files and folders are moved here.

II. Answer in Brief.

Question 1.
List the functions of an operating system?
Answer:

1. Memory Management
2. Process Management
3. Device Management
4. File Management
5. Security Management
6. Control overall system performance
7. Error detecting aids
8. Coordination between other software and users.

Question 2.
Write some of the most popular operating systems?
Answer:

1. Windows Series – for desktop and laptop computers.
2. Android – for smart phones.
3. iOS – for Apple phones, i-Pad and i-Pod.
4. Linux – Open source Operating System for desktop and server.

Question 3.
Write down the various mouse actions?
Answer:
Action:

1. Point to an item
2. Click
3. Right click
4. Double-click
5. Drag and drop

Reaction:

1. Move the mouse pointer over the item.
2. Point to the item on the screen, press and release the left mouse button.
3. Point to the item on the screen, press and release the right mouse button. Clicking the right mouse button displays a pop up menu with various options.
4. Point to the item on the screen, quickly press twice the left mouse button:
5. Point to an item then hold the left mouse button as you move the pointer and when you have reached the desired position, release the mouse button.

Question 4.
Explain the icons in windows operating system?
Answer:
Icon:
It is a graphic symbol representing the window elements like files, folders, shortcuts etc., Icons play a vital role in GUI based applications.

Standard Icons:
The icons which are available on desktop by default while installing Windows OS are called standard icons. The standard icons available in all Windows OS are My Computer, Documents and Recycle Bin.

Shortcut Icons:
It can be created for any application or file or folder. By double clicking the icon, the related application or file or folder will open. This represents the shortcut to open a particular application.

Disk drive icons:
The disk drive icons graphically represent five disk drive options

1. Hard disk
2. CD-ROM/DVD Drive
3. Pen drive
4. Other removable storage such as mobile, smart phone, tablet etc.,
5. Network drives if your system is connected with other system.

Question 5.
Write the difference between the application window and the document window?
Answer:
Application Window:

1. The larger window is called the Application Window.
2. This window helps the user to communicate with the Application Program.

Document Window:

1. The smaller window, which is inside the Application Window is called the Document Window.
2. This window is used for typing, editing, drawing and formatting the text and graphics.

Question 6.
Write the ways of creating folders in windows?
Answer:
Method I:
Step 1: Open Computer Icon.
Step 2: Open any drive where you want to create a new folder. (For example select D:)
Step 3: Click on File → New → Folder.
Step 4: A new folder is created with the default name “New folder”.
Step 5: Type in the folder name and press Enter key.

Method II:
In order to create a folder in the desktop:
Step 1: In the Desktop, right click → New → Folder.
Step 2: A Folder appears with the default name “New folder” and it will be highlighted.
Step 3: Type the name you want and press Enter Key.
Step 4: The name of the folder will change.

Question 7.
Write the steps to delete a file or folders in windows?
Answer:
Select the file or folder you wish to delete.

1. Right- click the file or folder, select Delete option from the po-pup menu or Click File → Delete or press Delete key from the keyboard.
2. The file will be deleted and moved to the Recycle bin.

Question 8.
Write short note on Recycle Bin?
Answer:
Recycle bin is a special folder to keep the files or folders deleted by the user, which meAnswer:you still have an opportunity to recover them. The user cannot access the files or folders available in the Recycle bin without restoring it. To restore file or folder from the Recycle Bin.

1. Open Recycle bin.
2. Right click on a file or folder to be restored and select Restore option from the pop-up menu.
3. To restore multiple files or folders, select Restore all items.
4. To delete all files in the Recycle bin, select Empty the Recycle Bin.

Question 9.
Write the steps to create shortcuts on the Desktop?
Answer:
Shortcuts to your most often used folders and files may be created and placed on the Desktop to help automate your work.

1. Select the file or folder that you wish to have as a shortcut on the Desktop.
2. Right click on the file or folder.
3. Select Send to from the shortcut menu, then select Desktop (create shortcut) from the sub-menu.
4. A shortcut for the file or folder will now appear on your desktop and you can open it from the desktop in the same way as any other icon.

Question 10.
Write the significant features of Ubuntu?
Answer:

1. The desktop version of Ubuntu supports all normal software like Windows such as Firefox, Chrome, VLC, etc.
2. It supports the office suite called LibreOffice.
3. Ubuntu has in-built email software called Thunderbird, which gives the user access to email such as Exchange, Gmail, Hotmail, etc.
4. There are free applications for users to view and edit photos, to manage and share videos.
5. It is easy to find content on Ubuntu with the smart searching facility.
6. The best feature is, it is a free operating system and is backed by a huge open source community.

Question 11.
What is Ambiance?
Answer:
The default desktop background, or wallpaper, belonging to the default Ubuntu 16.04 theme known as Ambiance.

Question 12.
Write the .steps to create files in the windows?
Answer:
Wordpad is an in-built word processor application in Windows OS to qreate and manipulate text documents.
In order to create files in wordpad you need to follow the steps given below.

1. Click Start → All Programs → Accessories → Wordpad or Run → type Wordpad, click OK. Wordpad window will be opened.
2. Type the contents in the workspace and save the file using File → Save or Ctrl + S.
3. Save As dialog box will be opened.
4. In the dialog box, select the location where you want to save the file by using look in drop down list box.
5. Type the name of the file in the file name text box.
6. Click save button.

III. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Draw and explain the elements of windows?
Answer:
Title Bar:
The title bar will display the name of the application and the name of the document opened. It will also contain minimize, maximize and close button.

Menu Bar:
The menu bar is seen under the title bar. Menus in the menu bar can be accessed by pressing Alt key and the letter that appears underlined in the menu title. Additionally, pressing Alt or F10 brings the focus on the first menu of the menu bar.

In Windows 7, in the absence of the menu bar, click Organize and from the drop down menu, click the Layout option and select the desired item from that list.

The Workspace:
The workspace is the area in the document window to enter or type the text of your document.

Scroll bars:
The scroll bars are used to scroll the workspace horizontally or vertically.

Comers and borders:
The comers and borders of the window helps to drag and resize the windows. The mouse pointer changes to a double headed arrow when positioned over a border or a comer. Drag the border or comer in the direction indicated by the double headed arrow to the desired. The window can be resized by dragging the comers diagonally across the screen.

Question 2.
Write the steps to log off / shut down the computer?
Answer:

• Click start → log off (click the arrow next to Shut down) or Start → Shutdown.
• If you have any open programs, then you will be asked to close them or windows will Force shut down, you will lose any un-saved information if you do this.
• Switch User: Switch to another user account on the computer without closing your open programs and Windows processes.
• Log Off: Switch to another user account on the computer after closing all your open programs and Windows processes.
• Lock: Lock the computer while you’re away from it.
• Restart: Reboot the computer. (This option is often required as part of installing new software or Windows update.)
• Sleep: Puts the computer into a low-power mode that retains all mnning programs and open Windows in computer memory for a super-quick restart.
• Hibernate (found only on laptop computers): Puts the computer into a low-power mode after saving all mnning programs and open windows on the machine’s hard drive for a quick restart.

Question 3.
Explain the different method of renaming files and folders?
Answer:
There are number of ways to rename files or folders. You can rename using the File menu, left mouse button or right mouse button.
Method I:
Using the FILE Menu

1. Select the File or Folder you wish to Rename.
2. Click File → Rename.
3. Type in the new name.
4. To finalise the renaming operation, press Enter.

Method II:
Using the Right Mouse Button

1. Select the file or folder you wish to rename.
2. Click the right mouse button over the file or folder.
3. Select Rename from the popmp menu.
4. Type in the new name.
5. To finalise the renaming Operation, press Enter.
6. The folder “New Folder” is renamed as C++.

Method III:
Using the Left Mouse Button

1. Select the file or folded you wish to rename.
2. Press F2 or click over the file or folder. A surrounding rectangle will appear around the name.
3. Type in the new name.
4. To finalise the renaming operation, press Enter.

Question 4.
What are the different method of copying files and folders to removable disk?
Ans
There are several methods of transferring files to or from a removable disk.

1. Copy and Paste
2. Send To

Method I:
Copy and Paste:

1. Plug the USB flash drive directly into an available USB port.
2. If the USB flash drive or external drive folder does NOT open automatically, follow these steps:
3. Click Start → Computer.
4. Double-click on the Removable Disk associated with the USB flash drive.
5. Navigate to the folders in your computer containing files you want to transfer.
6. Right-click on the file you want to copy, then select Copy.
7. Return to the Removable Disk window, right-click within the window, then select Paste.

Method II:
Send To:

1. Plug the USB flash drive directly into an available USB port.
2. Navigate to the folders in your computer containing files you want to transfer.
3. Right-click on the file you want to transfer to your removable disk.
4. Click Send To and select the Removable Disk associated with the USB flash drive.

Question 5.
Explain the indicators in the menubar of Ubuntu OS?
Answer:
(i) Network indicator:
This manages network connections, allowing you to connect to a wired or wireless network.

(ii)Text entry settings:
This shows the current keyboard layout (such as En, Fr,Ku, and so on). If more than one keyboard layout is shown, it allows you to select a keyboard layout out of those choices. The keyboard indicator menu contains the following menu items: Character Map, Keyboard Layout Chart, and Text Entry Settings.

(iii) Messaging indicator:
This incorporates your social applications. From here, you can access instant messenger and email clients.

(iv) Sound indicator:
This provides an easy way to adjust the volume as well as access your music player.

(v) Clock:
This displays the current time and provides a link to your calendar and time and date settings.

(vi) Session indicator:
This is a link to the system settings, Ubuntu Help, and session options (like locking your computer, user/guest session, logging out of a session, restarting the computer, or shutting down completely).

(vii) Title bar:
The title bar shows the name of the currently selected directory. It also contains the Close, Minimize, and Maximize buttons.

(viii) Toolbar:
The toolbar displays your directory browsing history (using two arrow buttons), your location in the file system, a search button, and options for your current directory view.

Question 6.
How will you move files and folders?
Answer:
Method I:
CUT and PASTE:
To move a file or folder, first select the file or folder and then choose one of the following:

1. Click on the Edit → Cut or Ctrl + X Or right click → cut from the pop-up menu.
2. To move the file(s) or folder(s) in the new location, navigate to the new location and paste it using Click.Edit → Paste from edit menu or Ctrl + V using keyboard.
3. Or Right click → Paste from the pop-up menu. The file will be pasted in the new location.

Method II:
Drag and Drop:
In the disk drive window, we have two panes called left and right panes. In the left pane, the files or folders are displayed like a tree structure. In the right pane, the files inside the specific folders in the left pane are displayed with various options.

1. In the right pane of the Disk drive window, select the file or folder you want to move.
2. Click and drag the selected file or folder from the right pane, to the folder list on the left pane.
3. Release the mouse button when the target folder is highlighted (active).
4. Your file or folder will now appear in the new area.

Question 7.
How will you copy files and folders in windows?
Answer:
There are variety of ways to copy files and folders:
Method I:
COPY and PASTE:
To copy a file or folder, first select the file or folder and then choose one of the following:

1. Click Edit → Copy or Ctrl + C or right click → Copy from the pop-up menu.
2. To paste the file(s) or folder(s) in the new location, navigate to the target location then do one of the following:
3. Click Edit → Paste or Ctrl + V.
4. Or Right click → Paste from the pop-up menu.

Method II:
Drag and Drop:

1. In the RIGHT pane, select the file or folder you want to copy.
2. Click and drag the selected file and/cr folder to the folder list on the left, and drop it where you want to copy the file and/or folder.
3. Your file(s) and folder(s) will now appear in the new area.