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TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART -1

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who is regarded as the “Father of Modem Macro Economics”?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Ranger Frisch
(d) Karl Marks
Answer:
(b) J.M. Keynes

Question 2.
The Financial year in India is………..
(a) April 1st to March 31st
(b) March 1st to April 30th
(c) March 1st to March 16th
(d) Jan 1st to Dec 31st
Answer:
(a) April 1st to March 31st

Question 3.
The concept, National Income was first introduced by ………..
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Richardo
(d) Simon Kuznets
Answer:
(d) Simon Kuznets

Question 4.
In disguised unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour is…………
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) positive
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 5.
The sum of MPC and MPS is………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.1
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 6.
If the MPC is 0.5, the multiplier is………..
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 0.2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
The headquarters of Reserve Bank of India is located at……….
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Banglore
Answer:
(c) Mumbai

Question 8.
The new currency symbol (T) in India was designed by………
(a) L. Sivakumar
(b) T. Udaya Chandran
(c) D. Udayakumar
(d) Amartya Kumar Sen
Answer:
(c) D. Udayakumar

Question 9.
“Repo rate (RR)” meAnswer:………..
(a) Rate at which the commercial banks are willing to lend to RBI
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks
(c) Exchange rate of foreign bank
(d) Growth rate of the economy
Answer:
(b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks

Question 10.
Export – Import bank was established in………..
(a) June 1982
(b) April 1982
(c) May 1982
(d) March 1982
Answer:
(d) March 1982

Question 11.
Exchange rates are determined in………
(a) Monetary economy
(b) Stock market
(c) Foreign exchange market
(d) Capital market
Answer:
(c) Foreign exchange market

Question 12.
IBRD is otherwise called as………..
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World bank
(c) ASEAN
(d) International finance corporations
Answer:
(b) World bank

Question 13.
International monetary fund has its headquarters at………
(a) Washington DC
(b) New York
(c) Vienna
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(a) Washington DC

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a tax under union list?
(a) Personal Income Tax
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Agricultural Income Tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(d) Excise duty

Question 15.
The true statements of the following………
(i) The 14th Finance commission is headed by C. Rangarajan
(ii) The recommendations of this commission will come into effect from April 1, 2015, is /are
(a) i only is correct
(b) ii only is correct
(c) both are correct
(d) none of the above is correct
Answer:
(d) none of the above is correct

Question 16.
Which of the following is the main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
Answer:
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 17.
Which is responsible for protecting people from harmful ultra violet rays?
(a) UV -A
(b) UV – C
(c) Ozone layer
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ozone layer

Question 18.
Arrange the following in chronological order……….
(i) People’s Plan
(ii) Bombay Plan
(iii) Jawaharlal Nehru Plan
(iv) Vishveshwarya Plan
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Question 19.
Choose the correct answer for the given assertion and reason.
Assertion (A): The deficiency of capital, in turn leads to low levels of productivity and back to low income.
Reason (R): The low level of saving leads to low investment and to deficiency of capital.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will be
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) 0
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) Positive

PART – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define the term inflation.
Inflation refers to steady increase in general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as wholesale Price. Index, Consumer Price Index, efc, are needed.

Question 22.
What is GDP deflator?
Answer:
GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. It is a price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.
GDP deflator = \(\frac{Nominal GDP}{Real GDP}\) x 100

Question 23.
What is investment functions?Answer:
The investment function refers to investment -interest rate relationship. There is a functional and inverse relationship between rate of interest and investment. The investment function slopes downward.
I = f(r)
1= Investment (Dependent variable)
r = Rate of interest (Independent variable)

Question 24.
Write a note on stagflation.
Answer:
Stagflation is a combination of stagnant economic growth, high unemployment and high inflation.

Question 25.
Distinguish between CRR and SLR.
Answer:

S.No.	CRR	SLR
1.	The Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserves Ratio.	Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the amount which a bank has to maintain in the form of cash, gold or approved securities.
2.	Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit, this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.	The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities.
3.	So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.	The liabilities of the bank which are payable on demand anytime, and those liabilities which are accruing in one month’s time due to maturity.

Question 26.
What is meant by Balance of Payment?
Answer:

1. BoP is a systematic record of a country’s economic and financial transactions with the rest of the world over a period of time.
2. When a payment is received from a foreign country, it is a credit transaction while a payment to a foreign country is a debit transaction.
3. The principal items shown on the credit side are exports of goods and services, transfer receipts in the form of gift etc., from foreigners, borrowing from abroad, foreign direct investment and official sale of reserve assets including gold to foreign countries and international agencies.
4. The principal items on the debit side include imports of goods and services, transfer payments to foreigners, lending to foreign countries, investments by residents in foreign countries and official purchase of reserve assets or gold from foreign countries and international agencies.

Question 27.
Write the meaning of special drawing rights.
Answer:
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs):

• The Fund has succeeded in establishing a scheme of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) which is otherwise called ‘Paper Gold’.
• They are a form of international reserves created by the IMF in 1969 to solve the problem of international liquidity.
• They are allocated to the IMF members in proportion to their Fund quotas.
• SDRs are used as a means of payment by Fund members to meet balance of payments deficits and their total reserve position with the Fund.
• Thus SDRs act both as an international unit of account and a means of payment.
• All transactions by the Fund in the form of loans and their repayments, its liquid reserves, . its capital, etc., are expressed in the SDR.

Question 28.
Differentiate between tax and fee.
Answer:

S.No.	Tax	Fee
1	A tax is a compulsory payment made to the government.	Fees are another important source of revenue for the government.
2	People on whom a tax is imposed must pay the tax.	A fee is charged by public authorities for rendering a service to the citizens.
3	There is no quid pro quo between a taxpayer and public authorities. This means that the tax payer cannot claim any specific benefit against the payment of a tax.	The government provides certain services and charges certain fees for them. For example, fees are charged for issuing of passports, driving licenses, etc.

Question 29.
Define regression.
Answer:

1. The term ‘Regression’ was first coined and used in 1877 by Francis Galton while studying the relationship between the height of fathers and sons.
2. The average height of children born of parents of a given height tended to move or “regress” toward the average height in the population as a whole.
3. Gabon’s law of universal regression was confirmed by his friend Karl Pearson, who collected more than a thousand records of heights of members of family groups.
4. The literal meaning of the word “regression” is “Stepping back towards the average”.

Question 30.
What is pollution and write the types of pollution?
Answer:
Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the natural environment that causes adverse change, in the form of killing of life, toxicity of environment, damage to ecosystem and aesthetics of our surrounding.
Types of Pollution

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Noise pollution
4. Land pollution

PART – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
List out the uses of National Income.
The following are some of the concepts used in measuring national income.
GDP:
GDP is the total market value of final goods and services produced within the country during a year. This is calculated at market prices and is known as GDP at market prices. Thus GDP by expenditure method at market prices = C + I + G + (X – M)
Where C – Consumption goods;
I – Investment goods;
G – Government purchases;
(X – M) is net export which can be positive or negative.

Net National Product (NNP) (at Market price):
Net National Product refers to the value of the net output of the economy during the year. NNP is obtained by deducting the value of depreciation, or replacement allowance of the capital assets from the GNP. It is expressed as,
NNP = GNP – depreciation allowance.

NNP at Factor cost:
NNP refers to the market value of output. NNP at factor cost is the total of income payment made to factors of production.

Personal Income:
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.

Per Capita Income:
The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called Per Capita Income. Per capita income is obtained by dividing national income by population.
Per Capita income = \(\frac{National income}{population}\)

Disposable Income:

1. Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income.
2. It is the individuals income after the payment of income tax.
3. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Real Income:
Nominal income is national income expressed in terms of a general price level of a particular year in other words, real income is the buying power of nominal income.

GDP deflator:
GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. It is a price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.

Question 32.
Explain Keynes theory in the form of flow chart.
Answer:

Question 33.
Complete the table.

Income	Consumption	Savings
0	20
60		-10
	120	0
		10
.240	220

Answer:

Income	Consumption	Savings
0	20	-20
60	70	-10
120	120	0
180	170	10
.240	220	20

Question 34.
What are the functions of NABARD?
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.
(i) NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

(ii) NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of co-operative credit societies.

(iii) NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

(iv) NABARD has the responsibility of co-ordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

(v) It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development.

Question 35.
What are the import quotas?
Answer:
Import Control: Imports may be controlled by

1. imposing or enhancing import duties
2. restricting imports through import quotas
3. licensing and even prohibiting altogether the import of certain non-essential items. But this would encourage smuggling.

Question 36.
Multilateral Agreement – Comment.
Answer:
Multilateral trade agreement: It is a multi national legal or trade agreements between countries. It is an agreement between more than two countries but not many. The various agreements implemented by the WTO such as TRIPS, TRIMS, GATS, AoA, MFA have been discussed.

Question 37.
Point out any three differences between direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:

S.No.	Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
1	Progressive	Regressive
2	Falls on the same person.	Falls on different persons.
3	Cannot be shifted.	Can be shifted

Question 38.
List out the functions of NITIAAYOG.
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:

1. Cooperative and Competitive Federalism: To enable the States to have active participation in the formulation of national policy.
2. Shared National Agenda: To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of States.
3. Decentralized Planning: To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model.
4. Vision and Scenario Planning: To design medium and long-term strategic frameworks towards India’s future.
5. Network of Expertise: To mainstream external ideas and expertise into government policies and programmes through a collective participation.
6. Harmonization: To facilitate harmonization of actions across different layers of government, especially when involving cross-cutting and overlapping issues across multiple sectors; through communication, coordination, collaboration and convergence amongst all the stakeholders.
7. Conflict Resolution: To provide platform for mutual consensus to inter-sectoral, inter¬departmental, inter-state as well as centre-state issues for all speedy execution of the government programmes.
8. Coordinating Interface with the World: It will act nodal point to harness global expertise and resources coming from International organizations for India’s developmental process.
9. Internal Consultancy: It provides internal consultancy to Central and State governments on policy and programmes.
10. Capacity Building: It enables to provide capacity building and technology up-gradation across government, benchmarking with latest global trends and providing managerial and technical know-how.
11. Monitoring and Evaluation: It will monitor the implementation of policies and progammes and evaluate the impacts.

Question 39.
What are the determinants of money supply?
Answer:
Determinants of Money Supply:

1. Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR): It is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. .
2. Reserve deposit Ratio (RDR): Reserve Money consists of two things (a) vault cash in banks and (b) deposits of commercial banks with RBI.
3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the fraction of the deposits the banks must keep with RBI.
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): It is the fraction of the total demand and time deposits of the commercial banks is the form of specified liquid assets.

Question 40.
Mention the limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. The functioning of an economy by its activities is explained in flow chart.

1. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
2. These two activities are supported by several other activities.
3. The ultimate aim of these activities is to achieve growth. The ‘exchange activity’ supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non-economic activities.
4. The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy and others.
5. The major non-economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment, governance, regulations etc.
6. In addition to these supporting activities, external activities from other economies such as import, export, international relations, emigration, immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings, etc. also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Calculate the Karl Person Correlation co-efficient for the following data.

Answer:

Take the assumed values A = 31 & B = 26
Therefore dx = X – A ⇒ X – 31 and
dy = Y – A ⇒ Y – 26

r = 0.9956 (or) 0.9955
= (0.9955)

Question 42 (a).
Discuss the economic determinants of economic development.
Answer:
Determinants of Economic Development:
Economic development is not determined by any single factor. Economic development depends on Economic, Social, Political and Religious factors.
Economic and Non-Economic Factors:

Economic Factors:
1. Natural Resource: The principal factor affecting the development of an economy is the availability of natural resources. The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.

2. Capital Formation: Capital formation is the main key to economic growth. Capital formation refers to the net addition to the existing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.

3. Size of the Market: Large size of the market would stimulate production, increase employment and raise the National per capita income. That is why developed countries expand their market to other countries through WTO.

4. Structural Change: Structural change refers to change in the occupational structure of the economy. Any economy of the country is generally divided into three basic sectors: Primary sector such as agricultural, animal husbandry, forestry, etc; Secondary sector such as industrial production, constructions and Tertiary sector such as trade, banking and commerce.

5. Financial System: Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.

6. Marketable Surplus: Marketable surplus refers to the total amount of farm output cultivated by farmers over and above their family consumption needs. This is a surplus that can be sold in the market for earning income.

7. Foreign Trade: The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always developed. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

8. Economic System: The countries which adopt free market mechanism (laissez faire) enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economies.

Non-Economic Factors:
‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.’
1. Human Resources: Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

2. Technical Know-how: As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

3. Political Freedom: The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

4. Social Organization: People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

5. Corruption free administration: Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process. Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

6. Desire for development: The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

7. Moral, ethical and social values: These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North. If people are not honest, market cannot function.

8. Casino Capitalism: If People spend larger proportion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

9. Patrimonial Capitalism: If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

[OR]

(b) Critically explain say’s law of market.
Answer:
Criticisms of Say’s Law:
The following are the criticisms against Say’s law:

1. According to Keynes, supply does not create its demand. It is not applicable where demand does not increase as much as production increases.
2. Automatic adjustment process will not remove unemployment. Unemployment can be removed by increase in the rate of investment.
3. Money is not neutral. Individuals hold money for unforeseen contingencies while businessmen keep cash reserve for future activities.
4. Say’s law is based on the proposition that supply creates its own demand and there is no over production. Keynes said that over production is possible.
5. Keynes regards full employment as a special case because there is under – employment in capitalist economies.
6. The need for state intervention arises in the case of general over production and mass unemployment.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the importance of National Income analysis.
Answer:
Importance of National Income Analysis:
National income is of great importance for the economy of a country. Nowadays the national income is regarded as accounts of the economy, which are known as social accounts. It enables us

1. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution towards national income; from the calculation of national income, we could find how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.
2. To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies; the proper measures can be adopted to bring the economy to the right path with the help of collecting national income data.
3. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress; it is essential that the data pertaining to a country’s gross income, output, saving and consumption from different sources should be available for economic planning.
4. To build economic models both in short – run and long – run.
5. To make international comparison, inter – regional comparison and inter – temporal comparison of growth of the economy during different periods.
6. To know a country’s per capita income which reflects the economic welfare of the country (Provided income is equally distributed)
7. To know the distribution of income for various factors of production in the country.
8. To arrive at many macro economic variables namely, Tax – GDP ratio, Current Account Deficit – GDP ratio, Fiscal Deficit – GDP ratio, Debt – GDP ratio etc.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain the relationship between GDP growth and the quality of environment.
Answer:

Question 44 (a).
Illustrate the working of multiplier.
Answer:
Working of Multiplier:

1. Suppose the Government undertakes investment expenditure equal to Rs 100 crore on some public works, by way of wages, price of materials etc.
2. Thus income of labourers and suppliers of materials increases by Rs 100 crore. Suppose the MPC is 0.8 that is 80 %.
3. A sum of Rs 80 crores is spent on consumption (A sum of Rs 20 Crores is saved).
4. As a result, suppliers of goods get an income of Rs 80 crores.
5. They intum spend Rs 64 crores (80% of Rs 80 cr).
6. In this manner consumption expenditure and increase in income act in a chain like maimer.

The final result is ΔY = 100 + 100 × 4/5 + 100 × [4/5]² + 100 × [4/5]³ or,
ΔY = 100 + 100 × 0.8 + 100 × (0.8)² + 100 × (0.8)³
= 100+ 80 + 64+ 51.2… = 500
that is 100 × 1/1 = 4/5
100 × 1/1/5
100 × 5 = Rs 500 crores
For instance if C = 100 + 0.8Y, I = 100,
Then Y = 100 + 0.8Y + 100
0. 2Y = 200
Y = 200/0.2 = 1000 → Point B
If I is increased to 110, then
0. 2Y = 210
Y = 210/0.2 = 1050 → Point D
For Rs 10 increase in I, Y has increased by Rs 50. This is due to multiplier effect.
At point A, Y = C = 500
C = 100 + 0.8 (500) = 500; S = 0
At point B, Y = 1000
C = 100 + 0.8 (1000) = 900; S = 100 = I
At point D, Y = 1050
C = 100 + 0.8 (1050) = 940; S = 110 = I
When I is increased by 10, Y increases by 50.
This is multiplier effect (K = 5)
K = \(\frac{1}{0.2}\)

[OR]

(b) Bring out the components of balance of payments accounts.
Answer:
Components of BOPs:
The credit and debit items are shown vertically in the BOP account of a country. Horizontally, they are divided into three categories, i.e.,

1. The current account,
2. The capital account and
3. The official settlements account or official reserve assets account.

1. The Current Account: It includes all international trade transactions of goods and services, international service transactions (i.e. tourism, transportation and royalty fees) and international unilateral transfers (i.e. gifts and foreign aid).

2. The Capital Account: Financial transactions consisting of direct investment and purchases of interest-bearing financial instruments, non-interest bearing demand deposits and gold fall under the capital account.

3. The Official Reserve Assets Account: Official reserve transactions consist of movements of international reserves by governments and official agencies to accommodate imbalances arising from the current and capital accounts.

The official reserve assets of a country include its gold stock, holdings of its convertible foreign currencies and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and its net position in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 45 (a).
Explain in detail the measures to control inflation.
Answer:
Measures to Control Inflation
Keynes and Milton Friedman together suggested three measures to prevent and control of inflation.

1. Monetary measures,
2. Fiscal measures (J.M. Keynes) and
3. Other measures.

1. Monetary Measures: These measures are adopted by the Central Bank of the country. They are (i) Increase in Bankrate (ii) Sale of Government Securities in the Open Market (iii) Higher Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (iv) Consumer Credit Control and (v) Higher margin requirements (vi) Higher Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate.

2. Fiscal Measures: Fiscal policy is now recognized as an important instrument to tackle an inflationary situation. The major anti-inflationary fiscal measures are the following: Reduction of Government Expenditure, Public Borrowing and Enhancing taxation.

3. Other Measures: These measures can be divided broadly into short-term and long-term measures.
i) Short-term measures can be in regard to public distribution of scarce essential commodities through fair price shops (Rationing). In India whenever shortage of basic goods has been felt, the government has resorted to import so that inflation may not get triggered.
ii) Long-term measures will require accelerating economic growth especially of the wage goods which have a direct bearing on the general price and the cost of living. Some restrictions on present consumption may help in improving saving and investment which may be necessary for accelerating the rate of economic growth in the long run.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between Public Finance and Private Finance.
Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Describe the functions of RBI.
Answer:
Functions of Central Bank (Reserve Bank of India):
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.

1. Monetary Authority: It controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rate, maintain healthy balance of payment, attain financial stability, control inflation, strengthen banking system.

2. The issuer of currency: The objective is to maintain the currency and credit system of the country. It is the sole authority to issue currency. It also takes action to control the circulation of fake currency.

3. The issuer of Banking License: As per Sec 22 of Banking Regulation Act, every bank has to obtain a banking license from RBI to conduct banking business in India.

4. Banker to the Government: It acts as banker both to the central and the state governments. It provides short-term credit. It manages all new issues of government loans, servicing the government debt outstanding and nurturing the market for government securities. It advises the government on banking and financial subjects.

5. Banker’s Bank: RBI is the bank of all banks in India as it provides loan to banks, accept the deposit of banks, and re-discount the bills of banks.

6. Lender of last resort: The banks can borrow from the RBI by keeping eligible securities as collateral at the time of need or crisis, when there is no other source.

7. Act as clearing house: For settlement of banking transactions, RBI manages 14 clearing houses. It facilitates the exchange of instruments and processing of payment instructions.

8. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves: It acts as a custodian of FOREX. It administers and enforces the provision of Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. RBI buys and sells foreign currency to maintain the exchange rate of Indian rupee v/s foreign currencies.

9. Regulator of Economy: It controls the money supply in the system, monitors different key indicators like GDP, Inflation, etc.

10. Managing Government securities: RBI administers investments in institutions when they invest specified minimum proportions of their total assets/liabilities in government securities.

11. Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: The Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 (PSS Act) gives RBI oversight authority for the payment and settlement systems in the country. RBI focuses on the development and functioning of safe, secure and efficient payment and settlement mechanisms.

12. Developmental Role: This role includes the development of the quality banking system in India and ensuring that credit is available to the productive sectors of the economy. It provides a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives. It also includes establishing institutions designed to build the country’s financial infrastructure. It also helps in expanding access to affordable financial services and promoting financial education and literacy.

13. Publisher of monetary data and other data: RBI maintains and provides all essential banking and other economic data, formulating and critically evaluating the economic policies in India. RBI collects, collates and publishes data regularly.

14. Exchange manager and controller: RBI represents India as a member of the International Monetary Fund [IMF], Most of the commercial banks are authorized dealers of RBI.

15. Banking Ombudsman Scheme: RBI introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in 1995. Under this scheme, the complainants can file their complaints in any form, including online and can also appeal to the Ombudsman against the awards and the other decisions of the Banks.

16. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India: To measure the performance of banks against Codes and standards based on established global practices, the RBI has set up the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI).

[OR]

(b) Write a note on
(i) SAARC
(ii) BRICS
Answer:
(i) South Asian Association For Regional Co-Operation (SAARC):

1. The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is an organisation of South Asian nations, which was established on 8 December 1985 for the promotion of economic and social progress, cultural development within the South Asia region and also for friendship and co-operation with other developing countries.
2. The SAARC Group (SAARC) comprises of Bangaladesh, Bhutan, India, The Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
3. In April 2007, Afghanistan became its eighth member.
4. The basic aim of the organisation is to accelerate the process of economic and social development of member states through joint action in the agreed areas of cooperation.
5. The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
6. The first SAARC summit was held at Dhaka in the year 1985.
7. SAARC meets once in two years. Recently, the 20th SAARC summit was hosted by Srilanka in 2018.

(ii) BRICS:

1. BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
2. Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met annually at formal summits.
3. South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS summit in July 2018.
4. The agenda for BRICS summit 2018 includes Inclusive growth, Trade issues, Global governance, Shared Prosperity, International peace and security.
5. It’s headquarters is at Shanghai, China.
6. The New Development Bank (NDB) formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank was established by BRICS States.
7. The first BRICS summit was held at Moscow and South Africa hosted the Tenth Conference at Johanesberg in July 2018.
8. India had an opportunity of hosting fourth and Eighth summits in 2009 and 2016 respectively.
9. The BRICS countries make up 21 percent of global GDP. They have increased their share of global GDP threefold in the past 15 years.
10. The BRICS are home to 43 percent of the world’s population.
11. The BRICS countries have combined foreign reserves of an estimated $4.4 trillion.

Question 47 (a).
Describe the phases of trade cycle.
Answer:
Phases of Trade Cycle

The four different phases of trade cycle is referred to as

1. Boom
2. Recession
3. Depression and
4. Recovery. These are illustrated in the figure.

Phases of Trade Cycle
1. Boom or Prosperity Phase:

• The full employment and the movement of the economy beyond full employment is characterized as boom period.
• During this period, there is hectic activity in economy.
• Money wages rise, profits increase and interest rates go up.
• The demand for bank credit increases and there is all-round optimism.

2. Recession:

• the turning point from boom condition is called recession.
• This happens at higher rate, than what was earlier.
• Generally, the failure of a company or bank bursts the boom and brings a phase of recession.
• Investments are drastically reduced, production comes down and income and profits decline.
• There is panic in the stock market and business activities show signs of dullness.
• Liquidity preference of the people rises and money market becomes tight.

3. Depression:

• During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely low.
• Firms incur losses and closure of business becomes a common feature and the ultimate result is unemployment.
• Interest prices, profits and wages are low. The agricultural class and wage earners would be worst hit.
• Banking institutions will be reluctant to advance loans to businessmen.
• Depression is the worst phase of the business cycle.
• Extreme point of depression is called as “trough”, because it is a deep point in business cycle.

4. Recovery:

• After a period of depression, recovery sets in.
• This is the turning point from depression to revival towards upswing.
• It begins with the revival of demand for capital goods.
• Autonomous investments boost the activity.
• The demand slowly picks up and in due course the activity is directed towards the upswing with more production, profit, income, wages and employment.
• Recovery may be initiated by innovation or investment or by government expenditure
  (autonomous investment).

[OR]

(b) What are the reasons for the recent growth in public expenditure?
Answer:
Causes for the Increase in Government Expenditure:
The modem state is a welfare state. In a welfare state, the government has to perform several functions viz Social, economic and political. These activities are the cause for increasing public expenditure.
(i) Population Growth:

1. During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore in 1951, to 121 crore in 2011.
2. The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and order, etc.
3. Young population requires increasing expenditure on education &. youth services, whereas the aging population requires transfer payments like old age pension, social security & health facilities.

(ii) Defence Expenditure:

1. There has been enormous increase in defence expenditure in India during planning period.
2. The defence expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernisation of defence equipment.
3. The defence expenditure of the government was Rs 10,874 crores in 1990-91 which increased significantly to Rs 2,95,511 crores in 2018-19.

(iii) Government Subsidies:

1. The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food, fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc.
2. Because of the massive amounts of subsidies, the public expenditure has increased manifold.

(iv) Debt Servicing:
The government has been borrowing heavily both from the internal and external sources, As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt servicing.

(v) Development Projects:

1. The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc.
2. The development projects involve huge investment.

(vi) Urbanisation:

1. There has been an increase in urbanization.
2. In 1950-51 about 17% of the population was urban based.
3. Now the urban population has increased to about 43%.
4. There are more than 54 cities above one million population.
5. The increase in urbanization requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amenities.

(vii) Industrialisation:

1. Setting up of basic and heavy industries involves a huge capital and long gestation period.
2. It is the government which starts such industries in a planned economy.
3. The under developed countries need a strong of infrastructure like transport, communication, power, fuel, etc.

(viii) Increase in grants in aid to state and union territories:
There has been tremendous increase in grant-in-aid to state and union territories to meet natural disasters.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 14 Introduction to Java Script Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Introduction to Java Script

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Java Script Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which provided a common scripting language for web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Application
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Java
(d) Java Script
Answer:
(d) Java Script

Question 2.
Expand CGI
(a) Common Gateway Interface
(b) Complex Gateway Information
(c) Common Gateway Information
(d) Complex Gateway Interface
Answer:
(a) Common Gateway Interface

Question 3.
JavaScript programming language is used to develop the
(a) Dynamic Web Page
(b) Window
(c) Web Page
(d) Home Page
Answer:
(a) Dynamic Web Page

Question 4.
The Dynamic Web Page help to save server’s
(a) Work
(b) Route
(c) Traffic
(d) Pvath
Answer:
(c) Traffic

Question 5.
User entered data, is validated before sending it to server is called ………………………
(a) Server traffic
(b) Dynamic Web Page
(c) Server Route
(d) Web server
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Web Page

Question 6.
Java Scripts can be implemented using which statements?
(a) <head>
(b) <Java>
(c) <script>
(d) <text>
Answer:
(c) <script>

Question 7.
Expand DHTML
(a) Distance Hyper Text Markup language
(b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language
(c) Distance High Text Markup language
(d) Dynamic High Text Markup language
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup language

Question 8.
How many attributes are used in <script> tag in the scripting
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 9.
Which attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be sent to “Text/JavaScript”
(a) Language
(b) Text 1
(c) Type
(d) Body
Answer:
(c) Type

Question 10.
The shortcut key to reload file in the browser is
(a) F2
(b) F3
(c) F4
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 11.
JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between
(a) Command
(b) Scripts
(c) Tokens
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Tokens

Question 12.
A Data value for variable that appears directly in a program by using a
(a) Loop
(b) Literal
(c) Statement
(d) Text
Answer:
(b) Literal

Question 13.
Which is mostly used to give a warning message to users?
(a) Alert Dialog Box
(b) Confirm box
(c) Prompt box
(d) Display box
Answer:
(a) Alert Dialog Box

Question 14.
In the below snippet, value of x is var x = 250 + 2 – 200;
(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 48
(d) 42
Answer:
(b) 52

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a syntax of <script> tag?
Answer:
<script language = “javascript”
type = “text/javascript”>
JavaScript code
</script>

Question 2.
What is scope of variables and types of scope variable?
Answer:
The spope of a variable is the life time of a variable of source code in which it is defined.

1. A global variable has global scope; it can be defined everywhere in the JavaScript code.
2. Variables declared within a function are defined only within the body of the function. They are local variables and have local scope.

Question 3.
Write a notes on type casting in JavaScript?
Answer:
Type conversion is the act of converting one data type into a different data type which is also called as casting. In JavaScript there are two type of casting:

1. Implicit casting and
2. Explicit casting

Question 4.
How many Literals are there in JavaScript and mention its types?
Answer:
There are five Literals in JavaScript. They are Integer, Floating point, Character, String and Boolean.

Question 5.
What is conditional operator give suitable example?
Answer:
The ?: is the conditional operator in JavaScript, which requires three operands, hence it is called the ternary operator. The syntax is:
var variablename = (condition) ?
value 1 : value2;
In the syntax, condition may be relational expression or logical expression. First condition will be evaluated, if the condition returns true then the value of the left side of the color is assigned to the variable otherwise the value of the right side of the colon will be assigned the variable.
Eg: var result = (10 > 15) ? 100 : 150;

Question 6.
What are the comments in Java Script?
Answer:
A very important aspect of good programming style is to insert remarks and comments directly in source code, making.it more readable to yourself as well as to others. Any comments you include will be ignored by the JavaScript interpreter. There are two types of comments, Single line and Multiple line comments. Single-line comments begin with a double slash (//), causing the interpreter to ignore everything from that point to the end of the line. Multiple line comments begins with /* and ends with */.
Eg:
//JavaScript single line comment//
Multiple line comments begins with /* and ends with */.

Question 7.
Write note on types of Operator?
Answer:
The type of operator is used to get the data type (returns a string) of its operand. The operand can be either a literal or a data structure such as a variable, a function, or an object. The – operator returns the data type.
Syntax
typeof operand
or
typeof (operand)

typeof returns:
boolean, function, number, string, and undefined. The following table summarizes possible values returned by the typeof operator.

Question 8.
Write the role of variable in Java Script?
Answer:
JavaScript Variables : Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Question 9.
What is the uses of prompt dialog box?
Answer:
The prompt dialog box is very useful when the user want to pop-up a text box to get user input. Thus, it enables you to interact with the user. The user needs to fill in the text box field and then click OK.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of programming language?
Answer:

1. In HTML we have learnt how to develop static web pages. But in real life web pages must be interactive. So to develop such interactive pages (Dynamic Web page ) JavaScript programming language is used.
2. User entered data in the Dynamic Web page can be validated before sending it to the server. This saves server traffic, which means less load on your server.
3. JavaScript includes such items as Textboxes, Buttons, drag-and-drop components and sliders to give a Rich Interface to site visitors. For example Creating a New email account in any service provider.

Question 2.
Brief the basic data types in Java Scripts?
Answer:
The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

1. A string is a list of characters, and a string literal is indicated by enclosing the characters in single or double quotes. Strings may contain a single character or multiple characters, including whitespace and special characters such as \n (the newline).
2. Numbers can be integer or floating-point numerical value and numeric literals are specified in the natural way.
3. Boolean can be any one of two values: true or false. Boolean literals are indicated by using true or false directly in the source code.

Question 3.
Write note on string Operator?
Answer:
The + operator performs addition on numbers but also serves as the concatenation operator for strings. Because string concatenation has precedence over “numeric addition, + will, be interpreted as string concatenation if any of the operands are strings. + operator which is also called as the string concatenation operator.

Question 4.
Write about <script> tag?
Answer:
<script language= “javascript”
type= “text / javascript”>
JavaScript code
</script>
The <SCRIPT> tag takes two important attributes

Language:
This attribute specifies that the scripting language. Typically, its value will be javascript. Although recent versions of HTML (Extensible HyperText Markup Language – XHTML, its successor) have phased out the use of this attribute is optional.

Type:
This attribute is used to indicate the scripting language and its value should be set to “text/javascript”.

Question 5.
What are the uses of Logical Operators?
Answer:
Logical operators perform logical (boolean) operations. Logical operators combine or invert boolean values. Once comparisions are made , the logical operations && (AND),|| (OR) and !(NOT) can be used to create more complex conditions.

Question 6.
Difference between the Increment and Decrement operator?
Answer:
Increment Operator (++):

1. The ++ operator increments its single operand.
2. The operator converts its operand to a number, adds 1 to that number and assigns the incremented value back into the variable.
3.  When ++ is used before the operand, where it is known as the pre-increment operator. When used after the operand, where it is known as the post-increment operator.
   1. Eg: var m = 1, n= ++m;
   2. var m = 1, n = m++;

Decrement Operator (–):

1. The – – operator decrement its single operand.
2. It converts the value of the operand to a number subtracts 1 and assigns the decremented value back to the operand.
3. When ++ is used before the operand, it decrements the value. When used after the operand, it decrements the operand but returns the undecremented value.
   1. Eg: var m = 2, n = -m;
   2. var m = 2, n= m –;

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain about the popup dialog boxes in Java Script?
Answer:
Java Script supports three important types of dialog boxes. Dialog boxes are also called as Popup Boxes. These dialog boxes can be used to raise an alert, or to get confirmation on any input or to have a kind of input from the users. JavaScript supports three kind of popup boxes: Alert box, Confirm box, and Prompt box.

Alert Dialog Box:
An alert dialog box is mostly used to give a warning message to the users. For example, if one input field requires to enter some text but the user does not provide any input, then as a part of ‘validation, you can use an alert box to give a warning message.

Alert box gives only one button “OK” to select and proceed. The syntax of alert box is Alert (“Message”); (or) Window.alert(“Message”);

Example:
alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);
(or) window.alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);
(or) Window. alert (“Name is compulsory entry”);

Confirm Dialog Box:
A confirmation dialog box is mostly used to take user’s consent on any option. It displays a dialog box with two buttons: OK and Cancel. If the user clicks on the OK button, the confirm( ) will return true. If the user clicks on the Cancel button, then confirm( ) returns false.

The syntax of confirm dialog box is
confirm (“message”);
(or)
window confirm(“message”);
Eg:
confirm (“Hai Do you want to continue:”);

Prompt Dialog Box:
The prompt dialog box is displayed using a method called prompt( ) which takes two parameters:

(i) a label which you want to display in the text box

(ii) a default string to display in the text box. This dialog box has two buttons: OK and the prompt() will return the entered value form the text box. If the user clicks the Cancel button, the prompt() returns null, The Syntax of prompt dialog box is,
Prompt (“Message”, “defaultValue”);
(or)
window.prompt(“sometext”, “defaultText”);

Eg:
prompt (“Enter your Name:”, “Name”);
(or)
window.prompt (“Enter your Name:”, “Name”);

Question 2.
Explain about the Arithmetic operator with suitable example?
Answer:
JavaScript supports all the basic arithmetic operators like addition (+), subtraction (-), multiplication (*), division (/), and modulus (%, also known as the remainder operator).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Java Script Additional Questions and Answers

I.Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
JavaScript 1.0 was introduced by:
(a) Java corporation
(b) Netscape and Sun Inc
(c) Oracle corporation
(d) Microsoft corporation
Answer:
(b) Netscape and Sun Inc

Question 2.
Which client-side technology provides many advantages over traditional CGI server-side scripts?
Answer:
(a) C
(b) C + +
(c) JavaScript
(d) Java
Answer:
(c) JavaScript

Question 3.
Which tag is normally recommended that JavaScript should be kept it within the tag?
(a) <head>
(b) <title>
(c) <body>
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) <head>

Question 4.
Which <script> tag attribute specifies that the scripting language?
(a) Type
(b) Language
(c) Name
(d) Value
Answer:
(b) Language

Question 5.
Which button can be used to reload the file into the browser?
(a) OK
(b) Refresh
(c) Submit
(d) Ignore
Answer:
(b) Refresh

Question 6.
JavaScript is a:
(a) Case-sensitive language
(b) Low level language
(c) Machine language
(d) Assembly language
Answer:
(a) Case-sensitive language

Question 7.
What is the JavaScript single line comment?
(a) “/”
(b) “//”
(c) */*
(d) *//*
Answer:
(b) “//”

Question 8.
What is the JavaScript multiline comment?
(a) “/**/”
(b) “*/ /*”
(c) “//”
(d) /* /*
Answer:
(a) “/**/”

Question 9.
Which is used to separate the statements in JavaScript?
(a) (:) colon
(b) (;) semicolon
(c) (,) comma
(d) (.) full stop
Answer:
(b) (;) semicolon

Question 10.
Which is a data value for variable that appears directly in a program?
(a) Variable
(b) Constant
(c) Literal
(d) Boolean
Answer:
(c) Literal

Question 11.
An identifier is simply a:
(a) Variable
(b) Name
(c) Value
(d) Boolean
Answer:
(b) Name

Question 12.
In JavaScript certain are used as reserved words?
(a) Keywords
(b) Identifiers
(c) Variable
(d) String
Answer:
(a) Keywords

Question 13.
Which is the keyword for declared variable?
(a) Float
(b) Var
(c) Int
(d) Str
Answer:
(b) Var

Question 14.
Variable name is also known as:
(a) Identifier
(b) Constant
(c) String
(d) Float
Answer:
(a) Identifier

Question 15.
…………………. is a list of characters, and a string literal by enclosing single or double quotes?
(a) Numbers
(b) Boolean
(c) String
(d) Constant
Answer:
(c) String

Question 16.
Which literals are indicated by any one of two values true or false?
(a) String
(b) Numbers
(c) Boolean
(d) Constants
Answer:
(c) Boolean

Question 17.
Which is the first character for naming a variable?
(a) Letter
(b) An underscore (_)
(c) ($) doller sign
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
Which type of variable can be defined everywhere in the JavaScript?
(a) Global
(b) Local
(c) String
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(a) Global

Question 19.
Which type of variable can be defined only within the body of the function?
(a) Global
(b) Local
(c) String
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(b) Local

Question 20.
Which is a fixed value given to a variable in source code?
(a) String
(b) Global
(c) Literal
(d) Numeric
Answer:
(c) Literal

Question 21.
The act of converting one data type into a different data types:
(a) Type conversion
(b) Arithmetic expression
(c) Relational expression
(d) Logical expression
Answer:
(a) Type conversion

Question 22.
Which casting occurs automatically in JavaScript when you change the data stored in a variable?
(a) Implicit
(b) Explicit
(c) Internal
(d) External
Answer:
(a) Implicit

Question 23.
Which is the formation of one or more variables and / or constants joined by operators?
(a) Constant
(b) An expression
(c) Variable
(d) String
Answer:
(b) An expression

Question 24.
Which is known as the remainder / modulus operator?
(a) I
(b) *
(c) –
(d) %
Answer:
(d) %

Question 25.
Which is an assignment operator?
(a) /
(b) *
(c) =
(d) –
Answer:
(c) =

Question 26.
Relational operators are also called as:
(a) Assignment operators
(b) Arithmetic operators
(c) Comparison operators
(d) Relational operators
Answer:
(a) Assignment operators

Question 27.
Which symbol is used as ‘not equal to’ in relational operator?
(a) = =
(b) \ =
(c) !
< (d)\>
Answer:
(b) \ =

Question 28.
Which operator is used as the string concatenation of JavaScript?
(a) &
(b) +
(c) ++
(d) I
Answer:
(b) +

Question 29.
Which operator is used to increment value?
(a) +
(b) + +
(c) ~~
(d) ~
Answer:
(b) + +

Question 30.
Which operator is used to decrement value?
(a) +
(b) + +
(c) – –
(d) –
Answer:
(c) – –

Question 31.
Which operator is used to get the data type of its operand?
(a) Numeric
(b) Typeof
(c) String
(d) Float
Answer:
(b) Typeof

Question 32.
Which is the conditional operator?
(a) d
(b) :
(c) ?:
(d) ! :
Answer:
(c) ?:

Question 33.
How many dialog boxes are supported by JavaScripts?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 34.
Dialog boxes are also called as:
(a) Text boxes
(b) Combo boxes
(c) List boxes
(d) Popup boxes
Answer:
(d) Popup boxes

Question 35.
Which is mostly used to give a warning message to the users?
(a) Alert dialog box
(b) Confirm box
(c) Prompt box
(d) Textbox
Answer:
(a) Alert dialog box

Question 36.
What is the puipose of prompt dialog box?
(a) User input
(b) User output
(c) Read data
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) User input

Question 37.
…………………. you include will be ignored by the Java script interpreter.
(a) Constant
(b) Comment
(c) Logical operator
(d) Relational Operator
Answer:
(b) Comment

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define CGI?
Answer:
JavaScript had truly bridged the gap between the simple world of HTML and the more complex Common Gateway Interface (CGI) programs on the Server. It provides a common scripting language for Web developers to design, test and deploy Internet Applications.

Question 2.
How can you use <script> tag in JavaScript?
Answer:
JavaScript can be implemented using <script>… </script> tags. The <script> tag containing JavaScript can be placed anywhere within in the web page, but it is normally recommended that should be kept it within the <head> tags. The <script> tag alerts the browser program to start interpreting all the text between these tags as a script commands.

Question 3.
What is meant by lexical structure of a programming language?
Answer:
The lexical structure of a programming language is the set of elementary rules that specifies how to write programs in that language. It is the lowest-level syntax of a language. The Lexical structure specifies variable names, the delimiter characters for comments, and how one program statement is separated from the next.

Question 4.
What are the names used as tokens in JavaScript?
Answer:
Identifiers, operators, punctuator, constants and keywords.

Question 5.
What are the style of comments supported by JavaScript?
Answer:
JavaScript supports two styles of comments. Any text follow a “//” and the end of a line is treated as a single line comment and is ignored by JavaScript. Any text between the characters “ /* */” is also treated as a multiline comment.

Question 6.
What is the role of identifier?
Answer:
An identifier is simply a name. In JavaScript, identifiers are used to name variables, functions and to provide labels for certain loops in JavaScript code.

Question 7.
What is a variable?
Answer:
Variable is a memory location where value can be stored. Variable is a symbolic name for a value. Variables are declared with the var keyword in JavaScript. Every variable has a name, called identifier.

Question 8.
What are the basic types of data types?
Answer:
Every variable has a data type that indicates what kind of data the variable holds. The basic data types in JavaScript are Strings, Numbers, and Booleans.

Question 9.
What is the purpose of operator?
Answer:
An operator combines the values of its operands in some way and evaluates to a new value. Operators are used for JavaScript’s arithmetic expressions, comparison expressions, logical expressions, assignment expressions.

Question 10.
What is an expression?
Answer:
An expression is simply one or more variables and/or constants joined by operators. An expression is evaluated and produces a result. The result of all expressions may be either an integer or floating-point value or Boolean value.

Question 11.
What are the types of expression?
Answer:
There are three types of expressions as follows,

1. Arithmetic expressions
2. Relational expressions
3. Logical expressions.

Question 12.
What is the Use of unary + and – operator?
Answer:
+ has no effect on numbers but causes non¬numbers to be converted into numbers.
– Negation (changes the sign of the number or converts the expression to a number and then changes its sign).

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the steps to be followed to code JavaScript language?
Answer:

1. Enter HTML and JavaScript code using any text editor.
2. Save the latest version of this code.
3. Use any browser to see the result. Eg: Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, etc…
4. If this is a new document, open the file via browser’s Open Menu. If the document is already loaded in the Memory, to reload the file into the browser use “Refresh” or press F5 button.

Question 2.
How to assign values to variables in JavaScript?
Answer:
Variables can be assigned initial values when they are declared as follows:
var numericData1 = 522;
var stringData = “JavaScript
has strings\nIt sure does:;
var numericData = 3.14;
var booleanData = true;

Question 3.
Explain JavaScript literals with suitable examples?
Answer:
A literal is a fixed value given to a variable in source code. Literals are often used to initialize variables. Values may be Integer, Floating point, Character, String and Boolean.
Eg:
var int_const=250; //Integer constant//
var float_const=250.85; //
Floating point constant//
var char_const=’A’; //
Character constant//
var string_const- “Raman”; //
String constant//
var boolean_const=true; //
Boolean constant//
write statement:
General Syntax:
document write (“string” + var);

Question 4.
What is an assignment operator? Give example?
Answer:
An assignment operator is the operator used to assign a new value to a variable, Assignment operator can also be used for logical operations such as bitwise logical operations or operations on integral operands and Boolean operands.

In JavaScript = is an assignment operator, which is used to assign a value to a variable. Often this operator is used to set a variable to a literal value, for example, ..
var number1=10;
var number2=number1;
var name=”Computer Science”;
var booleanvar=true;

Question 5.
What are the rules that should be followed to use logical operators?
Answer:
Best practice is to use logical operators on boolean operands. However, operands of any type can be combined. The strict rules are as follows:

1. For && (AND) the result is false if the first operand is false; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
2. For || (OR) the result is true if the first operand is true; otherwise, the result is the Boolean value of the second operand.
3. For ! (NOT) the result is true if the operand is false; otherwise, the result is true.

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the lexical structure of a JavaScript program?
Answer:

1. Though JavaScript is a case-sensitive language. It is good programming practice to type the command in lowercase.
2. JavaScript ignores spaces that appear between tokens (identifiers, operators, punctuator, constants and keywords) in programs.
3. JavaScript supports two styles of comments. Any text follow a “//” and the end of a line is treated as a single line comment and is ignored by JavaScript. Any text between the characters “ /* */” is also treated as a multiline comment.
4. JavaScript uses the semicolon (;) to separate statements. Many JavaScript programmers use semicolons to explicitly mark the ends of statements.
5. A literal is a data value for variable that appears directly in a program.

Question 2.
What are the rules that should be followed for naming variable in JavaScript?
Answer:

1. The first character must be a letter or an underscore (_). Number cannot be as the first character.
2. The rest of the variable name can include any letter, any number, or the underscore. You can’t use any other characters, including spaces, symbols, and punctuation marks.
3. JavaScript variable names are case sensitive. That is, a variable named Register Number is treated as an entirely different variable than one named register number.
4. There is no limit to the length of the variable name.
5. JavaScript’s reserved words cannot be used as a variable name. All programming languages have a supply of words that are used internally by the language and that cannot be used for variable names.

Question 3.
Write the JavaScript program using various variables?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>Declaring Variables in JavaScript </Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” var numericData1 = 522;
var stringData = ” JavaScript has strings\n It sure does”;
var numericdata = 3.14;
var booleanData = true;
document.write (“Numeric Data:” +numericData 1);
document.write(“<br> String Data:” +stringData);
document.write(“<br> Floating Data:” +numericData);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 4.
Write a JavaScript program using all arithmetic operators?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To test Arithmetic Operators in JavaScript
</Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type=” “text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522/ value2 = 10;
document.write(“<br>Data1 :” +value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 :” +value2);
var sum = value1+value2;
var diff = value1-value2;
var prod = value1*value2;
var res = value1/value2;
var rem = value1%value2;
document.write(“<br><br>The Sum of’ Datal and Data! :” +sum);
document.write (“<br>The Difference of Data1 and Data2 :” +diff) ;
document.write(“<br>The Product of Data1 and Data2 :” +prod);
document.write(“<br>The Result after Division of Datal and Data2:” +res);
document.write(“<br>The Remainder after Division of Datal and Data2 :” +rem);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 5.
Write the relational / comparison operators using JavaScript?
Answer:
Relational operators are also called as Comparison operators, they compares two values and the result is true or false. JavaScript provides a rich set of relational operators including == (equal to), != (not equal to), < (less than), > (greater than), <= (less than or equal to), and >= (greater than or equal to). Using a relational operator in an expression causes the expression to evaluate as true if the condition holds or false if otherwise.

Question 6.
Write a JavaScript program using logical operator?
Answer:
<Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript’ type=”text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522, value2=10;
document.write(“<br>Data1 + value1);
document.write(“<br>Data2 +value2);
var res1= ( (value1>100) && (value1>601));
var res2= ( (value1>100) || (value1>601) );
var res3=(!(value!!=value2));
document.write(“<br><br>Whether Data!>100.AND Data1>601:”+res1);
document .write (“<brxbr>Whether Data1>600 OR Data1>601:”+ res2) ;
document.write(“<br>Whether!Data!!= Data2 +res3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 7.
Write a JavaScript program using + operator for concatenating string?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To Concatenating (+) Operators in JavaScript </Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<script language= “javascript” type=”text/javascript”>
var String1 = “Java”;

var String2 = “Script”;
var String3=String1+String2;
document.write(“<br>String1 :” +String1);
document.write(“<br>String2 :” +String2);
document.write(“<br><br>Concatenated String of String1 and String2:” +String3);
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

Question 8.
Write a JavaScript program using “typeof operator”?
Answer:
<Html>
<Head>
<Title>- To test typeof Operator in JavaScript </Title> </Head>
<Body>
<script language=”javascript” type= “text/javascript”>
var value1 = 522, value2= “JavaSript”; value3=true;
document.write(“<br>Value1=”+value1+ “and its data Type is ttypeof(value1));
document.write (“<br>Value2=” +value2+”and its data Type is : +typeof(value2));
document.write (“<br>Value3=”+value3+”and its data Type is +typeof(value3));
</script>
</Body>
</Html>

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Tamil Computing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
List of the search engines supporting Tamil?
Answer:
Google, Bing and Yahoo are takes first three places respectively. Google and Bing provide searching facilities in Tamil, which me you can search everything through Tamil. A Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 2.
What are the keyboard layouts used in Android?
Answer:
Sellinam and Ponmadal are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that works on android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 3.
Write a short note about Tamil Programming Language?
Answer:
Programming languages to develop software to computers and smart phones are available only in English. Now, efforts are taken to develop programming languages in Tamil.

Based on Python programming language, the first Tamil programming language “Ezhil” (எழில்) is designed. With the help of this programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil:

Question 4.
What is TSCII?
Answer:
TSCII (Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange) is the first coding system to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non- English computers. This encoding scheme was registered in IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) unit of ICANN.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Tamil Virtual Academy?
Answer:
With the objectives of spreading Tamil to the entire world through Internet, Tamil Virtual University was established on 17th February 2001 by the Government of Tamilnadu.

Now, this organisation functioning with the name “Tamil Virtual Academy”. This organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage etc… from kindergarten to under graduation level.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Tamil Computing Additional Important Questions and Answer

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Human civilization developed with the innovation of computer in the …………………….
(a) 11th century
(b) 13th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 20th century
Answer:
(d) 20th century

Question 2.
…………………… is not just a language, it is our identity, our life and our source.
(a) English
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Tamil
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) Tamil

Question 3.
Getting government services through internet is known as
(a) e-library
(b) e-govemance
(c) Tamil programming language
(d) Tamil translation applications
Answer:
(b) e-govemance

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is e-governance?
Answer:
Getting Government services through internet is known as e-Govemance. Govt, of Tamil Nadu has been giving its services through Internet.

One can communicate with Govt, of Tamil Nadu from any comer of the state. One can get important’announcements, government orders, and government welfare schemes from the web portal of Govt. of. Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Write short notes on e-library?
Answer:
E-Libraries are portal or website of collection of e-books. Tamil e-Library services provide thousands of Tamil Books as ebooks mostly at free of cost. It is the most useful service to Tamil people who live far away from their home land.

Question 3.
Explain Tamil translation applications?
Answer:
Thamizpori (தமிழ்பொறி) is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equalent to English words. Using this application, we can translate small English sentences into Tamil. Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language and vice versa.

Question 4.
Define Tamil office automation application?
Answer:
Famous Office automation software like Microsoft Office, Open Office etc., provides complete Tamil interface facility. These softwares are downloadable and installed in your computer.

After installation, your office automation software environment will be completely changed to Tamil. Menu bars, names of icons, dialog boxes will be shown in Tamil. Moreover, you can save files with Tamil names and create folders with Tamil names.

Question 5.
Explain ISCII?
Answer:
Indian Script Code for Information Interchange (ISCII ), is one of the encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil. It was unified with Unicode.

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Unicode?
Answer:
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced on October 1991.

While introduction of this scheme, can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, – Unicode is the suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 2.
Define tamil typing and interface software?
Answer:
Tamil is mostly used to type documents in word processors and search information from internet. Typing Tamil using Tamil interface software is the familiar one among the different methods of typing. This is the simplest method of typing Tamil in both Computer and Smart phones.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Tamil in internet?
Answer:
Internet is the best information technological device, through which we get know everything from Internet. In 2017 a study conducted by KPMG a Singapore based organization along with google, reported that, Tamil topped the list, among the most widely used languages in India where 42% are using the Internet in Tamil. Moreover in 2021 onwards, 74% of people in India will access internet using Tamil and it will be in the top usage of Internet in India.

Question 4.
Explain Tamil operating system?
Answer:
An operating system is needed to access electronic systems such as computer and smart phone. Microsoft Windows is very popular operating system for personal computers.

Linux is another popular open source operating system. Operating systems are used to access a computer easily. An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in understandable form. Thus, all operating systems used in computers and smart phones offered environment in Tamil.

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TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The Circular Flow Model that represents an open Economy.
(a) Two Sector Model
(b) Three Sector Model
(c) Four Sector Model
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Four Sector Model

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out……….
(a) Rapid Economic growth
(b) Balanced Economic growth
(c) Economic Equality
(d) Inefficiency
Answer:
(d) Inefficiency

Question 3.
Write the Four Sector Model of National Income?
(a) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
(b) Y = C + I + G + X
(c) Y = C +1 + G + M
(d) Y = C + I + G(M – X)
Answer:
(a) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)

Question 4.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) PQLI – Physical Quantity of Life Index
(b) PQLI – Personal Quantity of Life Index
(c) PQLI – Personal Quality of Life Index
(d) PQLI – Physical Quality of Life Index
Answer:
(d) PQLI – Physical Quality of Life Index

Question 5.
Say’s law stressed the operation of in the economy.
(a) Induced price mechanism
(b) Automatic price mechanism
(c) Induced demand
(d) Induced investment
Answer:
(b) Automatic price mechanism

Question 6.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Seasonal unemployment – Type of unemployment
(b) Technical unemployment – Some season only
(c) Cyclical unemployment – Public capital
(d) Full employment – Not willing to job
Answer:
(a) Seasonal unemployment – Type of unemployment

Question 7.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below

Codes:
(a) A (iv) B (i) C (iii) D (ii)
(b) A (i) B (ii) C (iv) D (iii)
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)
(d) A (iii) B (iv) C(ii) D (i)
Answer:
(a) A (iv) B (i) C (iii) D (ii)

Question 8.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Inflation – Rise in price
(b) Deflation – Fall in price
(c) Hyper Inflation – India
(d) Hyper deflation – Phases of Trade cycle
Answer:
(d) Hyper deflation – Phases of Trade cycle

Question 9.
2016 Demonetization of currency includes denominations of……….
(a) Rs 500 and Rs 1000
(b) Rs 1000 and Rs 2000
(c) Rs 200 and Rs 500
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Rs 500 and Rs 1000

Question 10.
To promote ………….. stability is one of the aims of IMF.
(a) Exchange
(b) Money
(c) Investment
(d) Finance
Answer:
(a) Exchange

Question 11.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below.

Codes:
(a) A (1) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

Question 12.
BENELUX is a form of
(a) Free trade area
(b) Economic Union
(c) Common market
(d) Customs union
Answer:
(d) Customs union

Question 13.
Which is the following is correctly matched:
(a) ITO – 1944
(b) World bank – 1946
(c) WTO – 1947
(d) IMF – 1995
Answer:
(a) ITO – 1944

Question 14.
Which one of the following deficits does not consider borrowing as a receipt?
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Budgetary deficit
(c) Fiscal deficit
(d) Primary deficit
Answer:
(c) Fiscal deficit

Question 15.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below.

Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
Answer:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)

Question 16.
Alkali soils are predominantly located in the plains.
(a) Indus-Ganga
(b) North-Indian
(c) Gangetic plains
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
Environmental externalities are called:
(a) Externality
(b) Economic externalities
(c) Negative externalities
(d) Positive externalities
Answer:
(d) Positive externalities

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Soil pollution is another form of water pollution.
Reason (R): The upper layer of the soil is damaged is caused by the over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Question 19.
Which is the following is correctly matched:
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution
(b) Financial planning – Controlling plans
(c) Short term plans – Technique planning
(d) Indicative planning – Capitalist economy
Answer:
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution

Question 20.
The term regression was used by
(a) Newton
(b) Pearson
(c) Spearman
(d) Galton
Answer:
(d) Galton

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
‘Circular Flow of Income’ – Define.
Answer:

1. The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.
2. It shows flows of income, goods and services and factors of production between economic agents such as firms, households, government and nations.
3. The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics.

Question 22.
Define “Social and Environmental Cost”.
Answer:
Social and Environmental Cost: while producing economic goods, many environmental and social bads are also generated. Hence, they also must be considered while enumerating National income.

Question 23.
Write the types of unemployment.
Types of unemployment:

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Seasonal Unemployment
3. Frictional Unemployment
4. Educated Unemployment
5. Technical Unemployment
6. Structural Unemployment
7. Disguised Unemployment

Question 24.
Define “Autonomous consumption”.
Answer:
Autonomous Consumption:
Autonomous consumption is the minimum level of consumption or spending that must take place even if a consumer has no disposable income, such as spending for basic necessities.

Question 25.
Mention the functions of agriculture credit department.
Answer:
Functions of Agriculture Credit Department :

1. To maintain an expert staff to study all questions on agricultural credit;
2. To provide expert advice to Central and State Government, State Co-operative Banks and other banking activities.
3. To finance the rural sector through eligible institutions engaged in the business of agricultural credit and to co-ordinate their activities.

Question 26.
What are the functions of primary deposits?
Answer:
Primary Deposits:

1. It is out of these primary deposits that the bank makes loans and advances to its customers.
2. The initiative is taken by the customers themselves. In this case, the role of the bank is passive.
3. So these deposits are also called “Passive deposits”.

Question 27.
What is Free trade area?
Answer:
A free trade area is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-trade agreement (FTA). Such agreements involve cooperation between at least two countries to reduce trade barriers, e.g. SAFTA, EFTA.

Question 28.
What is “AoA”?
Answer:
AoA means Agreement on Agriculture. Agriculture was included for the first time under GATT. The important aspects of the agreement are Tariffication, Tariff cuts and Subsidy reduction.

Question 29.
Define “Public debt”.
Answer:
The debt is the form of promises by the Treasury to pay to the holders of these promises a principal sum and in most instances interest on the principal. Borrowing is resorted to in order to provide funds for financing a current deficit. – J. Philip E. Taylor

Question 30.
State the meaning of Environmental Economics.
Answer:
Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Macro Economics.
Answer:
The importance and the need for introducing a macro outlook of an economy are given below:

1. There is a need to understand the functioning of the economy at the aggregate level to evolve suitable strategies and to solve the basic problems prevailing in an economy.
2. Understanding the future problems, needs and challenges of an economy as a whole is important to evolve precautionary measures.
3. Macro economics provides ample opportunities to use scientific investigation to understand the reality.
4. Macro economics helps to make meaningful comparison and analysis of economic indicators.
5. Macro economics helps for better prediction about future and to formulate suitable policies to avoid economic crises, for which Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded.

Question 32.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 33.
Describe the features of classicism.
Answer:

1. Long-run equilibrium
2. Saving is a social virtue.
3. The function of money is to act as a medium of exchange
4. Micro foundation to macro problems
5. Champions of Laissez-fair policy
6. Applicable only to the full employment situation.
7. Capitalism is well and good.
8. Balanced budget
9. The equality between saving and investment is achieved through changes of rate of interest.
10. Rate of interest is determined by saving and investment.
11. Rate of interest is a stock.
12. Supply creates its own demand.
13. Rate of interest is a reward for saving.

Question 34.
Explain the Deflation.
Answer:
Deflation:
The essential feature of deflation is falling prices, reduced money supply and unemployment. Though falling prices are desirable at the time of inflation, such a fall should not lead to the fall in the level of production and employment. But if prices fall from the level of full employment both income and employment will be adversely affected.

Question 35.
Write the mechanism of credit creation by commercial banks.
Answer:
Mechanism / Technique of Credit Creation by Commercial Banks :

1. Bank credit refers to bank loans and advances.
2. Money is said to be created when the banks, through their lending activities, make a net addition to the total supply of money in the economy.
3. Money is said to be destroyed when the loans are repaid by the borrowers to the banks and consequently the credit already created by the banks is wiped out in the process.
4. Banks have the power to expand or contract demand deposits and they exercise this power through granting more or less loans and advances and acquiring other assets.
5. This power of commercial bank to create deposits through expanding their loans and advances is known as credit creation.

Question 36.
Mention the various forms of economic integration.
Answer:
An economic union is composed of a common market with a customs union. The participant countries have both common policies on product regulation, freedom of movement of goods, services and the factors of production and a common external trade policy. (e.g. European Economic Union)
EU > CM > CU > FTA
EU – Economic Union >
CM – Common-Market >
CU – Customs Union >
FTA – Free Trade Area
The regional economic integration among the trade blocks such as SAARC (South Asian nations), ASEAN (South East Asia) and BRICS and their achievements.

Question 37.
Mention any three similarities between public finance and private finance.
Answer:
Similarities:
1. Rationality:

• Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality.
• Maximization of welfare and least cost factor combination underlie both.

2. Limit to borrowing:

• Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing.
• The Government also cannot live beyond its meAnswer:
• There is a limit to deficit financing by the state also.

3. Resource utilisation:

• Both the private and public sectors have limited resources at their disposal.
• So both attempt to make optimum use of resources.

Question 38.
Write the Determinants of Investment Function?
Answer:
The classical economists believed that investment depended exclusively on rate of interest. In reality investment decisions depends on a number of factors. They are as follows:
However, Keynes contended that business expectations and profits are more important in deciding investment. He also pointed out that investment depends on MEC (Marginal Efficiency of Capital) and rate of interest.
(i) Private investment is an increase in the capital stock such as buying a factory or machine.
(ii) The marginal efficiency of capital (MEC) states the rate of return on an investment project. Specifically, it refers to the annual percentage yield (output) earned by the last additional unit of capital.

Question 39.
Explain the disadvantages of FDI.
Answer:
The following criticisms are leveled against foreign direct investment.

1. Private foreign capital tends to flow to the high profit areas rather than to the priority sectors.
2. The technologies brought in by the foreign investor may not be appropriate to the consumption needs, size of the domestic market, resource avilabilities, stage of development of the economy, etc.
3. Foreign investment, sometimes, have unfavourable effect on the the Balance of Payments of a country because when the drain of foreign exchange by way of royalty, dividend, etc. is more than the investment made by the foreign concerns.
4. Foreign capital sometimes interferes in the national politics.
5. Foreign investors sometimes engage in unfair and unethical trade practices.
6. Foreign investment in some cases leads to the destruction or weakening of small and medium enterprises.
7. Sometimes foreign investment can result in the dangerous situation of minimizing / eliminating competition and the creation of monopolies or oligopolistic structures.
8. Often, there are several costs associated with encouraging foreign investment.

Question 40.
Mention the sources of revenue municipalities.
Answer:

1. Taxes on property.
2. Taxes on goods, particularly octroi and terminal tax.
3. Personal taxes, taxes on profession, trades and employment.
4. Taxes on vehicles and animals.
5. Theatre or show tax, and
6. Graints – in – aid from State Government.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Discuss the scope of Macro Economics.
Answer:
The study of macro economics has wide scope and it covers the major areas as follows:
1. National Income: Measurement of national income and its composition by sectors are the basic aspects of macroeconomic analysis. The trends in National Income and its composition provide a long term understanding of the growth process of an economy.

2. Inflation: It refers to steady increase in general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as Wholesale Price Index, Consumer Price Index, etc, are needed.

3. Business Cycle: Almost all economies face the problem of business fluctuations and business cycle. The cyclical movements (boom, recession, depression and recovery) in the economy need to be carefully studied based on aggregate economic variables.

4. Poverty and Unemployment: The major problems of most resource – rich nations are poverty and unemployment. This is one of the economic paradoxes. A clear understanding about the magnitude of poverty and unemployment facilitates allocation of resources and initiating corrective measures.

5. Economic Growth: The growth and development of an economy and the factors determining them could be understood only through macro analysis.

6. Economic Policies: Macro Economics is significant for evolving suitable economic policies. Economic policies are necessary to solve the basic problems, to overcome the obstacles and to achieve growth.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain circular flow of Income in a Three Sector Economy.
Answer:
Circular Flow of Income in a Three-Sector Economy:

1. In addition to household and firms, inclusion of the government sector makes this model a three-sector model.
2. The government levies taxes on households and firms, purchases goods and services from firms, and receive factors of production from household sector.
3. On the other hand, the government also makes social transfers such as pension, relief, subsidies to the households.
4. Similarly, Government pays the firms for the purchases of goods and services. The Flow Chart illustrates three-sector economy model:
5. Under three sector model, national income (Y) is obtained by adding Consumption expenditure (C), Investment expenditure (I) and Government expenditure (G).
6. Therefore:
   Y = C + I + G.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the importance of national income.
Answer:
Importance of National Income Analysis:
National income is of great importance for the economy of a country. Nowadays the national income is regarded as accounts of the economy, which are known as social accounts. It enables us-
1. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution towards national income; from the calculation of national income, we could find how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.

2. To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies; the proper measures can be adopted to bring the economy to the right path with the help of collecting national income data.

3. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress; it is essential that the data pertaining to a country’s gross income, output, saving and consumption from different sources should be available for economic planning.

4. To build economic models both in short – run and long – run.

5. To make international comparison, inter – regional comparison and inter – temporal comparison of growth of the economy during different periods.

6. To know a country’s per capita income which reflects the economic welfare of the country (Provided income is equally distributed)

7. To know the distribution of income for various factors of production in the country.

8. To arrive at many macro economic variables namely, Tax – GDP ratio, Current Account Deficit – GDP ratio, Fiscal Deficit – GDP ratio, Debt – GDP ratio etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain about aggregate supply with the help of diagram.
Answer:

1. Aggregate supply function is an increasing function of the level of employment.
2. Aggregate supply refers to the value of total output of goods and services produced in an economy in a year.
3. In other words, aggregate supply is equal to the value of national product, i.e., national income.
4. Aggregate Supply = C + S + T + Rf = Aggregate income generated in the economy.
5. The following figure shows the shape of the two aggregate supply curves drawn for the assumption of fixed money wages and variable wages.

AGGREGATE SUPPLY CURVE:

1. Z curve is linear where money wages remains fixed; Z₁ curve is non – linear since wage rate increases with employment.
2. When full employment level of Nf is reached it is impossible to increase output by employing more men.
3. So aggregate supply curve becomes inelastic (Vertical straight line).
4. The slope of the aggregate supply curve depends on the relation between the employment and productivity.
5. Based upon this relation, the aggregate supply curve can be expected to slope upwards.
6. In reality the aggregate supply curve will be like Z₁.
7. Therefore, the aggregate supply depends on the relationship between price and wages.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the Say’s Law of Market.
Answer:

1. Say’s law of markets is the core of the classical theory of employment.
2. J.B.Say (1776 – 1832) was a French Economist and an industrialist.
3. He was influenced by the writings of Adam Smith and David Ricardo.
4. J.B. Say enunciated the proposition that “Supply creates its own demand”.
5. Hence there cannot be general over production or the problem of unemployment in the economy.
6. According to Say, “When goods are produced by firms in the economy, they pay reward to the factors of production.
7. The households after receiving rewards of the factors of production spend the amount on the purchase of goods and services produced by them.
8. Therefore, each product produced in the economy creates demand equal to its value in the market.
9. In short, this classical theory explains that “A person receives his income from production which is spent on the purchase of goods and services produced by others.
10. For the economy as a whole, therefore, total production equals total income”.

[OR]

(b) Explain Marginal Propensity to Consume [MPC] and Multiplier with diagram and Diagrammatic explanation.
Answer:
Marginal propensity to consume and multiplier:

The propensity to consume refers to the portion of income spent on consumption.
The MPC refers to the relation between change in consumption (C) and change in income (Y).
Symbolically MPC = AC/AY The value of multiplier depends on MPC
Multiplier (K)= 1/1-MPC The multiplier is the reciprocal of one minus marginal propensity to consume.
Since marginal propensity to save is 1 – MPC. (MPC + MPS = 1). Multiplier is 1/ MPS. The multiplier is therefore defined as reciprocal of MPS.
Multiplier is inversely related to MPS and directly with MPC.
Numerically if MPC is 0.75, MPS is 0.25 and k is 4.
Using formula k = 1/1 – MPC
1/1 – 0.75 = 1/0.25 = 4
Taking the following values, we can explain the functioning of multiplier.

MPC	MPS	K
0.00	1.00	1
0.10	0.90	1.11
0.50	0.50	2.00
0.75	0.25	4.00
0.90	0.10	10.00
1.00	0.00	α

C = 100 + 0.8 y;
I = 10
Y = C + I
Y= 100 + 0.8y + 100
0. 2y = 200
Y= 1000
Here, C = 100 + 0.8y = 100 + (1000) = 900;
S= 100 = I
After I is raised by 10, now I = 110,
Y = 100 + 0.8y + 110
0. 2y = 210
y = \(\frac{210}{0.2}\) = 1050
Here C = 100 = 0.8 (1050) = 940; S = 110 = I
Diagrammatic Explanation.
At 45° line y = C + S
It implies the variables in axis and axis are equal.
The MPC is assumed to be at 0.8 (C = 100 + 0.8y)
The aggregate demand (C +1) curve intersects 45° line at point E.
The original national income is 500.
(C = 100 + 0.8y = 100 + 0.8 (500) = 500) ,
When I is 100, y = 1000, C = 900;
S = 100 = I
The new aggregate demand curve is C + F = 100 + 0.8y + 100 + 10
y = \(\frac{210}{0.2}\) = 1050
S = 110 = I

Question 44 (a).
Write the types of inflation.
Answer:
The four types of inflation are
(i) Creeping Inflation: Creeping inflation is slow-moving and very mild. The rise in prices will not be perceptible but spread over a long period. This type of inflation is in no way dangerous to the economy. This is also known as mild inflation or moderate inflation.

(ii) Walking Inflation: When prices rise moderately and the annual inflation rate is a single digit (3% – 9%), it is called walking or trolling inflation.

(iii) Running Inflation: When prices rise rapidly like the running of a horse at a rate of speed of 10% – 20% per annum, it is called running inflation.

(iv) Galloping inflation: Galloping inflation or hyper inflation points out to unmanageably high inflation rates that run into two or three digits. By high inflation the percentage of the same is almost 20% to 100% from an overall perspective.

Other types of inflation (on the basis of inducement):

1. Currency inflation: The excess supply of money in circulation causes rise in price level.
2. Credit inflation: When banks are liberal in lending credit, the money supply increases and thereby rising prices.
3. Deficit induced inflation: The deficit budget is generally financed through printing of currency by the Central Bank. As a result, prices rise.
4. Profit induced inflation: When the firms aim at higher profit, they fix the price with higher margin. So prices go up.
5. Scarcity induced inflation: Scarcity of goods happens either due to fall in production (e.g. farm goods) or due to hoarding and black marketing. This also pushes up the price. (This has happened is Venezula in the year 2018).
6. Tax induced inflation: Increase in indirect taxes like excise duty, custom duty and sales tax may lead to rise in price (e.g. petrol and diesel). This is also called taxflation.

[OR]

(b) What are the functions of NABARD?
Answer:
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.
(i) NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

(ii) NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of co-operative credit societies.

(iii) NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

(iv) NABARD has the responsibility of co-ordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

(v) It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development

Question 45 (a).
Briefly explain facilities offered by IMF.
Answer:
Facilities offered by IMF:
The Fund has created several new credit facilities for its members. Chief among them are:
(i) Basic Credit Facility:

• The IMF provides financial assistance to its member nations to overcome their temporary difficulties relating to balance of payments.
• A member nation can purchase from the Fund other currencies or SDRs, in exchange for its own currency, to finance payment deficits.
• The loan is repaid when the member repurchases its own currency with other currencies or SDRs.
• A member can unconditionally borrow from the Fund in a year equal to 25% of its quota.
• This unconditional borrowing right is called the reserve tranche.

(ii) Extended Fund Facility:

• Under this arrangement, the IMF provides additional borrowing facility up to 140% of the member’s quota, over and above the basic credit facility.
• The extended facility is limited for a period up to 3 years and the rate of interest is low.

(iii) Compensatory Financing Facility:

• In 1963, IMF established compensatory financing facility to provide additional financial assistance to the member countries, particularly primary producing countries facing shortfall in export earnings.
• In 1981, the coverage of the compensatory financing facility was extended to payment problem caused by the fluctuations in the cost of cereal inputs.

(iv) Buffer Stock Facility:

• The buffer stock financing facility was started in 1969.
• The purpose of this scheme was to help the primary goods (food grains) producing countries to finance contributions to buffer stock arrangements for the stabilisation of primary product prices.

(v) Supplementary Financing Facility:
Under the supplementary financing facility, the IMF makes temporary arrangements to provide supplementary financial assistance to member countries facing payments problems relating to their present quota sizes.

(vi) Structural Adjustment Facility:

1. The IMF established Structural Adjustment Facility (SAF) in March 1986 to provide additional balance of payments assistance on concessional terms to the poorer member countries.
2. In December 1987, the Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) was set up to augment the availability of concessional resources to low income countries.
3. The purpose of SAF and ESAF is to force the poor countries to undertake strong macroeconomic and structural programmes to improve their balance of payments positions and promote economic growth.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain effects of Noise pollution.
Answer:
Effects of Noise Pollution:
(a) Hearing Loss:

1. Chronic exposure to noise may cause noise-induced hearing loss.
2. Older people are exposed to significant occupational noise and thereby reduced hearing sensitivity.

(b) Damage Physiological and Psychological health:

1. Unwanted noise can damage physiological and psychological health.
2. For example, annoyance and aggression, hypertension, and high stress levels.

(c) Cardiovascular effects:
High noise levels can contribute to cardiovascular problems and exposure to blood pressure.

(d) Detrimental effect on animals and aquatic life:
Noise can have a detrimental effect on animals, increasing the risk of death.

(e) Effects on wildlife and aquatic animals:
It creates hormone imbalance, chronic stress, panic and escape behavior and injury.

Question 46 (a).
State the classification of public expenditure.
Answer:
1. Classification on the Basis of Benefit:

• Public expenditure benefiting the entire society, e.g., the expenditure on general administration, defence, education, public health, transport.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on certain people and at the same time common benefit on the entire community, e.g., administration of justice etc.
• Public expenditure directly benefitting particular group of persons and indirectly the entire society, e.g., social security, public welfare, pension, unemployment relief etc.
• Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on some individuals, e.g., subsidy granted to a particular industry.

2. Classification on the Basis of Function:
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of functions of government in the
following main groups:

• Protection Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the security of the citizens, to protect from external invasion and internal disorder, e.g., defence, police, courts etc.
• Commercial Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred on the development of trade and commerce, e.g., development of means of transport and communication etc.
• Development Functions: This group includes public expenditure incurred for the development infrastructure and industry.

[OR]

(b) Explain the effects of Air pollution.
Answer:
1. Respiratory and heart problems: It creates several respiratory and heart ailments along with cancer. Children are highly vulnerable and exposed to air pollutants and commonly suffer from pneumonia and asthma.

2. Global warming: Increasing temperature in the atmosphere leads to global warming and thereby to increase sea level rise and melting of polar icebergs, displacement and loss of habitat.

3. Acid rain: Harmful gases like nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides are released into the atmosphere during the burning of fossil fuels. Acid rain causes grate damage to human beings, animals and crops.

4. Eutrophication: Eutrophication is a condition where high amount of nitrogen present in some pollutants which adversely affects fish, plants and animal species.

5. Effect on Wildlife: Toxic chemical present in the air can force wildlife species to move to new place and change their habitat.

6. Depletion of Ozone layer: Ozone exists in earth’s atmosphere and is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays. Earth’s Ozone layer is depleting due to presence of chlorofluorocarbons and hydro chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere.

7. Human Health: Outdoor air pollution is a major cause of death and disease globally. The health effects range from increased hospital admissions and emergency room visits, to increase risk of premature death. An estimated 4.2 billion premature deaths globally are linked to ambient air pollution.

Question 47 (a).
What are the types of Public Debt?
Answer:
1. Internal Public debt
An internal public debt is a loan taken by Government from the citizens or from different institutions within the country. An internal public debt only involves transfer of wealth. The main sources of internal public debt are as follows:

• Individuals, who purchase government bonds and securities;
• Banks, both private and public, buy bonds from the Government.
• Non-fmancial institutions like UTI, LIC, GIC etc. also buy the Government bonds.
• Central Bank can lend the Government in the form of money supply. The Central Bank can also issue money to meet the expenditure of the Government.

2. External public debt
When a loan is taken from abroad or from an international organization it is called external public debt. The main sources of External public debt are IMF, World Bank, IDA and ADB etc. Loan from other countries and the Governments.

[OR]

(b) Write the State Financial Corporations (SFCs) Act.
Answer:
State Financial Corporation (SFCs)
The government of India passed in 1951 the State Financial Corporation Act and SFCs were set up in many states. The SFCs are mainly intended for the development of small and medium industrial units within their respective states. However, in some cases they extend to neighboring states as well.
The SFCs provide loans and underwriting assistance to industrial units having paid – up capital and reserves not exceeeding Rs 1 crore. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an industrial concern by SFC is Rs 60 lakhs.

SFCs depend upon the IDBI for refinance in respect of the term loans granted by them. Apart from these, the SFCs can also make temporaiy borrowings from the RBI and borrowings from IDBI and by the sale of bond

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the incorrect sentence from the following:
(a) Bile juice emulsifies the fat.
(b) Chyme is a digestive acidic food in the stomach.
(c) Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol.
(d) Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.
Answer:
(d) Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.

Question 2.
What is chyme?
(a) The process of conversion of fat into small droplets.
(b) The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet.
(c) The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.
(d) The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.
Answer:
(c) The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.

Question 3.
Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(b) Gastrin and insulin
(c) Cholecysokinin and secretin
(d) Insulin and glucagon
Answer:
(c) Cholecysokinin and secretin.

Question 4.
The sphincter of Oddi guards ……………
(a) Hepatopancreatic duct
(b) Common bile duct
(c) Pancreatic duct
(d) Cystic duct
Answer:
(a) Hepatopancreatic duct

Question 5.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of ……………
(a) Glucose
(b) Amino acids
(c) Na
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Which one is incorrectly matched?
(a) Pepsin – stomach
(b) Renin – liver
(c) Trypsin – intestine
(d) Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
(b) Renin – liver

Question 7.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by …………….
(a) Lymph vessels within villi
(b) Walls of stomach
(c) Colon
(d) Capillaries within villi
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels within villi

Question 8.
First step in digestion of fat is ……………..
(a) Emulsification
(b) Enzyme action
(c) Absorption by lacteals
(d) Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
(a) Emulsification

Question 9.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of ……………..
(a) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) Protein into polypetide
(d) Caseinogen into casein
Answer:
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin

Question 10.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?

Column I	Column II
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin	(i) intestinal juice
(b) Hydrolysis of starch	(ii) Amylases
(c) Digestion of fat	(iii) Lipases
(d) Salivary gland	(iv) Parotid

Answer:
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin – (i) intestinal juice

Question 11.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I	Column – II
(P) Small intestine	(i) Largest factory
(Q) Pancreas	(ii) Absorption of Water
(R) Liver	(iii) Carrying electrolytic solution
(S) Colon	(iv) Digestion and absorption

(a) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)
(b) (P – iii) (Q – ii) (R – i) (S – iv)
(c)(P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)
(d) (P – ii) (Q – iv) (R – iii) (S – i)
Answer:
(a) (P-iv ) ( Q – iii ) ( R- i ) ( S – ii)

Question 12.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column I	Column II
(p) Small intestine	(i) 23 cm
(q) Large intestine	(ii) 4 meter
(r) Oesophagus	(iii) 12.5 cm
(s) Pharynx	(iv) 1.5 meter

(a) (P – iv) (Q – ii) (R – i) (S – iii)
(b) (P – ii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – iii)
(c) (P – i) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – iv)
(d) (P – iii) (Q – i) (R – ii)(S – iv)
Answer:
(b) (P – ii ) ( Q – iv ) ( R – i ) (S – iii)

Question 13.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I	Column II
(p) Lipase	(i) Starch
(q) Pepsin	(ii) Cassein
(r) Renin	(iii) Protein
(s) Ptyalin	(iv) Lipid

(a) (P – iv) (Q – ii)(R – i)(S – iii)
(b) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)
(c) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)
(d) (P – iii) (Q – ii) (R – iv) (S – i)
Answer:
(c) (P – iv ) ( Q – iii ) ( R – ii) ( S – i)

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of liver?
(a) Production of insulin
(b) Detoxification
(c) Storage of glycogen
(d) Production of bile
Answer:
(a) Production of insulin

Question 15.
Assertion : (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine.
Reason : (B) Absorption of water takes place in large intestine.
(a) Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but B is false
(d) A is false but B is true
Answer:
(d) A is false but B is true

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi?
(a) They possess microvilli.
(b) They increase the surface area.
(c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels.
(d) They only participate in digestion of fats.
Answer:
(d) They only participate ¡n digestion of fats.

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 17.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:

• The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi.
• It is involved in the process of absorption and the cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli.
• A brush border appearance increases the surface area enormously.
• Villi are not present in the stomach, because absorption does not occur and digestion happens with the help of gastric juices.

Question 18.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet It is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Liver does not secrete digestive enzymes. It contains bile pigments hilirubin and hiliverdin which are the break down products of haemoglobin of dead RBCs. bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipase to digest lipids.

Question 19.
List the chemical changes that starch molecule undergoes from the time it reaches the small intestine.
Answer:
In the small intestine, starch digestion gets completed. The pancreatic juice contains pancreatic amylases which acts on polysaccharide and convert into disaccharides (maltose). These cretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. It contains maltose, lactose and sucrose. These convert maltose, lactose and sucrose into monosaccharides, glucose and fructose.

In the small intestine, complex carbohydrates are converted into simple ghicose. fructose and galactose. These are absorbed by active transport.

Question 20.
How do proteins differ from fats in their energy value and their role in the body?
Answer:
The calorific value and physiological fiel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal respectively. Fat has a calorific value of 9.45 Kcal and the physiological fuel value of 9 Kcal per gram. Proteins are the source of amino acids required for growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent. They replace the worn out protoplasm. They are important for the production of many enzymes. hormones and plasma. The catabolism of amino acids releases toxic nitrogenous wastes which are removed by the kidneys.

Question 21.
Digestive secretions are secreted only when needed. Discuss.
Answer:
Digestive glands are exocrine glands which secrete biological catalysts called enzymes. These enzyme convert the complex. insoluble foodmaterials like carbohydrates, proteins and lipids into simplex, soluble food materials like glucose and fructose, amino acids and fatty acids and glycerol. These digestive ccretions act only when food materials are available in the alimental)’ canal.

Question 22.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:
A – Right and left hepatic duct of liver.
B – Common bile duct.
C – Pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung)
D – Sphincter of oddi
E – Gall bladder.

In-Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
Though the bile juice of liver has no digestive enzyme but is very essential for proper digestion of food, especially of the fats. Discuss the following?
(a) What is composition of bile?
(b) How it helps in digestion of fats and other nutrients of food?
(c) How it helps in absorption of fats?
Answer:
The bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Question 2.
What would happen if HCl is not secreted in the stomach?
Answer:
The gastric juice contains HCl and proenzymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH – 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction. So, if HCl is not secreted in stomatch, digestion of protein and destruction of harmful micro organisms will be affected.

Question 3.
What features of the small intestine enables it to absorb digested food efficiently?
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa into the blood and lymph. The villi in the lumen of ileum are the absorbing units, consisting of a lacteal duct in the middle surrounded by fine network of blood capillaries. The process of absorption involves active, passive and facilitated transport.

Question 4.
What happens to the protein molecules in food, from the time it is swallowed, to the time its products are built up in the cytoplasm of a muscle cell?
Answer:
Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids. Proteins are source of amino acids required for growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent; large quantities are excreted as nitrogenous waste.

Textbook Activities Solved

Test for Starch :
Add a few drops of iodine to the given warm food sample. If any starch is present in the given food sample it will change the colour of the iodine from brown to blue black.

2. Test for protein :
Mix the given food sample with 3 mL of water in a test tube. Shake the mixture, and then add a few drops of Biuret solution. If protein is present, the colour of the solution will change to purple.

3. Test for glucose :
Mix the given food sample with 3 mL of water in a test tubes. Shake the mixture, and then add a few drops of Benedict’s solution. Keep the test tube in a water bath and heat carefully. If glucose is present, the colour of the solution will change from blue to green to brick red depending upon the amount of glucose.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved
Choose the correct Answer
Question 1.
How pepsin is differing from trypsin? [DPMT 1993]
(a) It digests protein in acidic medium
(b) It digests protein in alkaline medium
(c) It digests carbohydrate in acidic medium
(d) It digests carbohydrate in alkaline medium
Answer:
(a) It digests protein in acidic medium

Question 2.
Human intestine is large because ………… [DPMT1996]
(a) Bacteria in the food moves slowly
(b) Substances of food digest slowly
(c) It provide more space for the absorption of digested food
(d) It provide more space for the storage of food
Answer:
(c) It provide more space for the absorption of digested food

Question 3.
How the epidermal cells in the stomach of vertebrate animal is protected against HCl? [NCERT1981]
(a) HCl is dilute
(b) Epidermal cells defense the function of HCl
(c) HCl is neutralized in stomach
(d) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucus
Answer:
(d) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucus

Question 4.
By what the major part of mammalian teeth is made up ?
(a) Root
(b) Pulp
(c) Dentin
(d) Enamel
Answer:
(c) Dentin

Question 5.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of what? [BHU 2000]
(a) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) Protein into polypetide
(d) Casernogen into casein
Answer:
(b) Trypsinogen into trypsin .

Question 6.
Secretin stimulates production of ………… [MPPMT 2002]
(a) Saliva
(b) Gastric juice
(c) Bile
(d) Pancreatic juice
Answer:
(d) Pancreatic juice

Question 7.
Pepsin acts in ………… [HPPMT 2001]
(a) Basic medium
(b) Acidic medium
(c) Neutral medium
(d) All type of medium
Answer:
(b) Acidic medium

Question 8.
Enzyme trypsin is secreted by ………… [AFMC 20031
(a) Duodenum
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Stomach
Answer:
(c) Pancreas

Question 9.
The number of teeth that grow twice in the human life is ………… [AFMC 2002, 2004]
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 10.
The number of teeth that grow once in the human life is ………… [DPMT BHU 1986]
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 28
Answer:
(d) 28

Question 11.
Cholesterol is synthesised in ………… [M.RPMT 2000]
(a) Bninner’s glands
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(b) Liver

Question 12.
Largest gland in human body is ………… [JK, CMEE 2003]
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(a) Liver

Question 13.
Muscular contraction of alimentary canal are ………… [CMC 2003]
(a) Circulation
(b) Deglutition
(c) Churning
(d) Peristalsis
Answer:
(d) Peristalsis

Question 14.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first absorbed by ………… [BV2000J]
(a) Lymph vessels
(b) Villi
(c) Blood capillaries
(d) Hepatic portal vein
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels

Question 15.
Trypsin changes ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Proteins into peptones
(b) Fats into fatty acids
(c) Starch and glycogen into maltose
(d) Maltose into its components
Answer:
(a) Proteins into peptones

Question 16.
Secretin hormone is produced by ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Stomach
(b) Liver
(c) Intestine
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(c) Intestine

Question 17.
Narrow distal part of stomach is ………… [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Cardiac
(b) Pharynx
(c) Duodenum
(d) Pylorus
Answer:
(d) Pylorus

Question 18.
pH suitable for ptyalin actions is ………… [AFMC 1996]
(a) 6 – 8
(b) 7 – 8
(c) 3 – 2
(d) 9 – 3
Answer:
(c) 3 – 2

Question 19.
What will happen if bile duct gets choked? [DPMT 1991]
(a) Feces become dry
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralised
(c) There will be little digestion in intestine
(d) Little absorption of fat will occur
Answer:
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralised

Question 20.
Digestion of both starch and protein is carried out by ………… [AFMC 19961
(a) Gastric juice
(b) Gastric lipase
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Ptyalin
Answer:
(c) Pancreatic juice

Question 21.
What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin? [CPMT 2000]
(a) All proteins
(b) Proteolytic enzymes
(c) Produced in stomach
(d) Act at pH lower than 7
Answer:
(a) All proteins

Question 22.
Enterokinase is ………… [BHU l997]
(a) Pancreatic hormone
(b) Intestine hormone
(c) Pancreatic enzyme
(d) Component of Intestinal juice
Answer:
(d) Component of Intestinal juice

Question 23.
Which enzyme initiates protein digestion? [MPPMT l997
(a) Pepsin
(b) Trypsin
(c) Aminopeptidase
(d) Carboxypeptidase
Answer:
(a) Pepsin

Question 24.
The enzyme which does not directly act upon food substrate is …………
(a) Trypsin
(b) Lipase
(c) Enterokinase
(d) Arnylopsin
Answer:
(c) Enterokinase

Question 25.
Pepsin is secreted by …………… [CPMT 1997]
(a) Peptic cells
(b) Zymogen cells of stomach
(c) Zymogcn cells of duodenum
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(a) Peptic cells

Question 26.
Pepsinogen is activated by …………..
(a) Chymotrypsin
(b) Trypsin
(c) HCl
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(c) HCl

Question 27.
Contraction of gall bladder is induced by …………
(a) Gastrin
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Secretin
(d) Enterogastrone
Answer:
(b) Cholecystokinin

Question 28.
Hormone that stimulates stomach to secrete gastric juice is …………
(a) Run
(b) Enterokinase
(c) Enterogastron
(d) Gastrin
Answer:
(d) Gastrin

Question 29.
Water is largely absorbed in ………… [CPMT 1999]
(a) Stomach
(b) Oesophagus
(c) Small intestine
(d) Colon
Answer:
(d) Colon

Question 30.
HCl is secreted by ………… [DPMT 2002]
(a) Zymogen cells
(b) Kupifer’s cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Mucous cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 31.
Jaundice is a disease of ………… [APMEE 1999]
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Duodenum
Answer:
(b) Liver

Question 32.
Which is different? [BHU 1999]
(a) Gastrin
(b) Secretin
(c) Ptyalin
(d) Glucagon
Answer:
(C) Ptyalin

Question 33.
Gastrin is ………… [BHU 1999]
(a) Hormone
(b) Enzyme
(c) Nutrient
(d) Digestive secretion
Answer:
(a) Hormone

Question 34.
Saliva contains enzyme ………… [CPAÍT 2003]
(a) Enterokinase
(b) Ptyalin/ Amylase
(c) Chymotrypsin
(d) Lipase
Answer:
(b) Ptyalin) Amylase

Question 35.
In human being cellulose is digested by …………
(a) Enzyme
(b) Symbiotic bacteria
(c) Symbiotic protozoAnswer:
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Symbiotic bacteria

Question 36.
Enzyme lactase occurs in ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Saliva
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Intestinal juice
(d) Stomach
Answer:
(c) Intestinal juice

Question 37.
Protein I enzyme is absent in ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Saliva
(b) bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Intestinal juice
Answer:were:
(b) Bile

Question 38.
Dental formula shows ………… [MPPMT 2000]
(a) Structure of teeth
(b) Monophyodont or diphyodont condition
(c) Number and type of teeth in both jaws
(d) Number and type of teeth in one half of both jaws
Answer:
(c) Number and type of teeth ¡n both jaws

Question 39.
pH of gastric juice / stomach is …………
(a) 1.5-3.0
(b) 5.0-6.8
(c) 7.0 -9.0
(d) 6.0 -8.0
Answer:
(a) 1.5 -3.0

Question 40.
In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of ptyalin on starch is ………… [AuMS 2000]
(a) Enhanced
(b) Reduced
(c) Unaffected
(d) Stopped
Answer:
(b) Reduced

Question 41.
Bile salts take part in ………… [AMU 2000]
(a) Digestion of carbohydrates
(b) Brokedowri of proteins
(c) Emulsification of fat
(d) Absorption of glycerol
Answer:
(c) Emulsification of fat

Question 42.
Digestive juice contains catalytic agents called ………… [PMT 000]
(a) Vitamins
(b) Hormones
(c) Enzymes
(d) Nitrates
Answer:
(c) Enzymes

Question 43.
Which is not the function of liver? [DPMT 2001]
(a) Production of insulin
(b) Detoxification
(c) Storage of glycogen
(d) Production of bile
Answer:
(a) Production of insulin

Question 44.
Fat absorbed from gut is trAnswer:ported in blood …………
(a) Micelles
(b) Liposomes
(c) Chemomicrons
(d) Chlymicrons
Answer:
(a) Micelles

Question 45.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of ………… [AMU 2001]
(a) Glucose
(b) Amino acids
(c) Na+
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 46.
Which one is not matched? [Har. PMT 2002]
(a) Pepsin – stomach
(b) Renin – liver
(e) Trypsin – intestine
(d) Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
(b) Renin – liver

Question 47.
What is cholecystokinin?
(a) Bile pigment
(b) Gastro-intestinal hormone
(c) Enzyme
(d) Lipid
Answer:
(b) Gastro-intestinal hormone

Question 48.
Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ………… [CPMT2002J
(a) Enterogesterone
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(c) Gastrin

Question 49.
Which one is wisdom teeth? [CPMT 2002]
(a) Third molar, four in number
(b) Third molar, two in number
(c) Second molar, four in number
(d) Second molar, two in number
Answer:
(a) Third molar, four in number

Question 50.
in humans, digestion is ………… [BHU 2002]
(a) Intercellular
(b) Intracellular
(c) Extracellular
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(b) intracellular

Question 51.
Gall bladder takes part in ………… [RPMT 2002]
(a) Secretion of bile
(b) Storage of bile
(c) Formation of bile salts
(d) Formation of enzymes
Answer:
(b) Intracellular .

Question 51.
Gall bladder takes part in ………… [RPMT 2002]
(a) Secretion of bile
(b) Storage of bile
(c) Formation of bile salts
(d) Formation of enzymes
Answer:
(b) Storage of bile

Question 52.
Renin acts on milk protein and changes ………… [JIPMER 2002]
(a) Caesinogen into caesin
(b) Caesin into paracaesin
(c) Caesinogen into paracaesin
(d) Paracaesin into Caesinogen
Answer:
(a) Caesinogen into caesin

Question 53.
Glucose is stored in liver as ………… [AFMC 2003]
(a) Starch
(b) Glycogen
(c) Cellulose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Glycogen

Question 54.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids, and monoglycerides takes place by …………
(a) Lymph vessels within villi
(b) Walls of stomach
(c) Colon
(d) Capillaries within villi
Answer:
(a) Lymph vessels within villi

Question 55.
Which ones are bile salts?
(a) Haemoglobin and biliverdin
(b) Bilirubin and biliverdin
(c) Bilirubin and Haemoglobin
(d) Sodium glycolate and taurocholate
Answer:
(d) Sodium glycolate and taurocholate

Question 56.
Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice called ……………. [Har PMT 2003]
(a) Pepsin
(b) HCl
(c) Renin
(d) Mucus
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 57.
Epithelial cells involved in the absorption of digested food have on their free surface ……………. [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Zymogen granules
(b) Pinocytic vesicles
(c) Phagocytic vesicles
(d) Microvilli
Answer:
(d) Microvilhi

Question 58.
The first step in the digestion of fat is …………… [BIIU 2003]
(a) Emulsification
(b) Enzyme action
(c) Absorption by lacteals
(d) Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
(a) Emulsification

Question 59.
DNA-ase and RNA-ase are enzymes produced by …………… [BHU 2003]
(a) Salivary glands
(b) Pancreas
(c) Stomach
(d) Intestine
Answer:
(b) Pancreas

Question 60.
Carboxypeptidase is secreted by …………….
(a) Pancreas
(b) Stomach
(c) Salivary glands
(d) Intestine
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 61.
Secretin and Cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in …………
(a) Pyloric stomach
(b) Duodenum
(c) Ileum
(d) Oesophagus
Answer:
(b) Duodenum

Question 62.
Crown of teeth is covered by ………… [AFMC 2005]
(a) Dentin
(b) Enamel
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:

Question 63.
Both the crown and root of teeth are covered by a layer of a bony hard substance called ………… [J&K CET 2005]
(a) Enamel
(b) Dentin
(c) Bony socket
(d) Cementum
Answer:
(d) Cementum

Question 64.
Lysozymes are found in ………… [MPPMT 2004]
(a) Saliva
(b) Tears
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) Mitochondria
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b) both

Question 65.
Which of the following is not present in pancreatic juice? [HPPMT 2005]
(a) Trypsinogen
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Parasitic
(d) lipase
Answer:
(c) Parasitic

Question 66.
Which of the following statement is not correct? [NEET 2015]
(a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of the intestine and secrete mucus.
(c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of the stomach and secrete HCI.
(d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase.
Answer:
(a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen

Question 67.
Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonates? [NEET20I6]
(a) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(b) Insulin and glucagon
(c) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(d) Gaston and Insulin
Answer:
(a) Cholecystokinin and secretin

Question 68.
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the ………… [AIPMT / NEET 2016]
(a) gastrin secreting cells
(b) parietal cells
(c) peptic cells
(d) acidic cells
Answer:
(b) parietal cells

Question 69.
The enzymes that are not present is succus entericus is ……………… [RE-A IPMTNEE T 2015]
(a) lipase
(b) maltase
(c) nucleases
(d) nucleosîdase
Answer:
(c) nucleases

Question 70.
Which of the following are not polymerase? [NEET 2017]
(a) Proteins
(b) Polysaccharides
(c) Lipids
(d) Nucleic acids
Answer:
(c) Lipids3

Question 71.
A baby aged two years is admitted to playschool and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? [NEET 2017]
(a) Canines
(b) Pre-Molars
(c) Molars
(d) Incisors
Answer:
(b) Pre-Molars

Question 72.
Which cells of crypts of Leiberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme? [NEET 2017]
(a) Paneth cells
(b) Zymase cells
(c) Kupfer cells
(d) Argentaffin cells
Answer:
(a) Paneth cells

Question 73.
The hepatic portal veins drain blood to the liver from ………… [NEET 2017]
(a) Stomach
(b) Kidneys
(c) Intestine
(d) Heart
Answer:
(c) Intestine

Question 74.
Which of the following options best represent the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? [NEET2O17]
(a) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(b) Peptidase, Amylase, pepsin, renin
(c) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(d) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, renin.
Answer:
(c) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase

Question 75.
Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. [NEET 2017]
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segments.
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light-absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.
OPTION
(a) a, c and d
(b) a and e.
(c) b, e, and d
(d) a and b
Answer:
(a) a, c and d

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Digestion and Absorption Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct Answer
Question 1.
Which of the following is the last phase of the process of digestion?
(a) ingestion
(b) assimilation
(c) eqestion
(d) digestion
Answer:
(c) eqestion

Question 2.
Which of the following teeth are the cutting teeth?
(a) incisors
(b) canines
(c) premolars
(d) molars
Answer:
(a) incisors

Question 3.
Plague formed on the teeth is mineral salts of ……………..
(a) sodium
(b) magnesium and manganese
(c) potassium
(d) calcium and magnesium
Answer:
(d) calcium and magnesium

Question 4.
Which muscle regulates the opening of oesophagus into the stomach?
(a) pyloric sphincter
(b) cardiac sphincter
(c) anal sphincter
(d) epiglottis
Answer:
(a) pyloric sphincter

Question 5.
The ‘V’ shaped part of the small intestine is …………
(a) ileum
(b) jejunum
(c) duodenum
(d) colon
Answer:
(c) duodenum

Question 6.
…………….. is the longest part of the small intestine
(a) Ileum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Duodenum
(d) Rectum
Answer:
(a) Ileum

Question 7.
Villi are concerned with
(a) secretion of enzymes
(b) secretion of mucus
(c) digestion of food
(d) absorption of digested food
Answer:
(d) absorption of digested food.

Question 8.
Peyer’s patches produce
(a) monocytes
(b) lymphocytes
(c) basophils
(d) neutrophils
Answer:
(b) lymphocytes

Question 9.
Which of the following are non-functional in human beings?
(a) Small intestine
(b) Duodenum
(c) lleum
(d) Vermiform appendix
Answer:
(d) Vermiform Appendix

Question 10.
…………… is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph vessels and sympathetic nerve fibres that control the secretions of intestinal juice.
(a) Serosa
(b) Sub-mucosa
(c) Mucosa
(d) Muscularis
(b) Sub-mucosa

Question 11.
………… secrete HCl in the stomach.
(a) Peptic cells
(b) Goblet cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Zymogen cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 12.
…………. stores bile secreted by the liver.
(a) Pancreatic duct
(b) Duodenum
(c) Hepatic duct
(d) Gall bladder
Answer:
(d) Gall bladder

Question 13.
Detoxification is one of the functions of –
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) pancreas
(d) stomach
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 14.
Which is the antibacterial agent present in the saliva?
(a) Ptyalin
(b) Mucus
(c) Lysozyme
(d) Bicarbonates
Answer:
(c) Lysozyme

Question 15.
Salivary amylase hydrolyses …………
(a) proteins
(b) carbohydrate
(c) fats
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(b) carbohydrate

Question 16.
Pepsin is an enzyme ………….
(a) amylolytic
(b) lipolytic
(c) proteolytic
(d) proenzyme
Answer:
(c) proteolytic

Question 17.
Which enzyme acts on milk protein in infants in the presence of calcium ions?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Lipase
(d) Renin
Answer:
(d) Renin

Question 18.
Which is the active enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsin
(c) Trypsinogen
(d) Chymotrypsinogen
Answer:
(b) Trypsin

Question 19.
What are the breakdown products of haemoglobin?
(a) Bile salts
(b) Bilirubin and biliverdin
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(d) Cholesterol

Question 20.
Which of the following does not contain any enzyme?
(a) Gastric juice
(b) Bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Succus entericus
Answer:
(b) Bile

Question 21.
Identify the odd one ……….
(a) maltose
(b) lactose
(c) sucrose
(d) sucrase
Answer:
(d) sucrase

Question 22.
At the end of digestion, fats are converted into ………..
(a) amino acids
(b) glycerol and fatty acids
(c) glucose
(d) galactose
Answer:
(b) glycerol and fatty acids

Question 23.
Protein coated fat globules are called …………
(a) micelles
(b) villi
(c) microvilli
(d) chylomicrons
Answer:
(d) chylomicrons

Question 24.
The calorific value of carbohydrates is ………….
(a) 9.45
(b) 4.1
(c) 3.5
(d) 6.5
Answer:
(b) 4.1

Question 25.
Retaining feces in the rectum due to poor intake of fibre in the diet is called ………..
(a) vomiting
(b) indigestion
(c) constipation
(d) diarrhea
Answer:
(c) constipation

Question 26.
Which one of the following occurs due to reverse peristalsis?
(a) Vomiting
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Constipation
(d) Indigestion
Answer:
(a) Vomiting

Question 27.
The failure of the liver to break down haemoglobin is called……………….
(a) gall stone
(b) jaundice
(c) appendicitis
(d) hernia
Answer:
(c) appendicitis

Question 28.
Degeneration and destruction of liver cells resulting in an abnormal blood vessel and bile duct leading to the formation of fibrosis are known as ………………
(a) gall stones
(b) jaundice
(c) hernia
(d) liver cirrhosis
Answer:
(d) liver cirrhosis

Question 29.
What causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct, and hepato-pancreatic duct?
(a) Gall stones
(b) Jaundice
(c) Hernia
(d) Liver cirrhosis
Answer:
(a) Gall stones

Question 30.
Appendicitis is the inflammation of the ……………..
(a) caecum
(b) liver
(c) appendix
(d) rectum
Answer:
(c) appendix

Question 31.
Diarrhea happens due to ……………….
(a) taking in of more volume of water
(b) defective liver
(c) inflammation of the appendix
(d) the inability of the colon to absorb fluid from the feces
Answer:
(d) the inability of the colon to absorb fluid from the feces

Question 32.
The erosion of the mucosa in the stomach or duodenum is referred to as ……………….
(a) stomach ache
(b) peptic ulcer
(c) duodenal cancer
(d) diarrhea
Answer:
(b) peptic ulcer

Question 33.
The storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue is ……………
(a) peptic ulcer
(b) kwashiorkor
(c) jaundice
(d) obesity
Answer:
(d) obesity

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
Breakdown of macromolecules of food into micromolecules is ………….
Answer:
Digestion.

Question 2.
The tearing teeth are called as ……………….
Answer:
Canines

Question 3.
The deposition of calcium and magnesium salts on the teeth forms a hard layer called ……………..
Answer:
Tartar/calculus/plaque.

Question 4.
The oral cavity leads into a short common passage for food and air called ____________
Answer:
Pharynx.

Question 5.
Two masses of lymphoid tissues called are located at the sides of the pharynx.
Answer:
Tonsils.

Question 6.
The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the ……………
Answer:
Pyloric sphincter.

Question 7.
The inner wall of the stomach has many folds called which unfold to accommodate a large meal.
Answer:
Gastric rugae.

Question 8.
The wall of the duodenum has glands which secrete mucus and enzymes.
Answer:
Brunner’s.

Question 9.
The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called …………..
Answer:
Villi.

Question 10
are the mucus-secreting goblet cells and lymphoid tissue which produce lymphocytes.
Answer:
Peyer‘s patches.

Question 11.
The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of the villi called …………….
Answer:
Crypts of Leiberkuhn.

Question 12.
Caecum and vermiform appendix are an important sites for digestion in herbivores.
Answer:
Cellulose.

Question 13.
The dilations of the colon are called ……………..
Answer:
Haustra

Question 14.
The enlargement of the anal column causes …………..
Answer:
Piles/hemorrhoids

Question 15
………. is the outermost layer of the wall of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
Serosa.

Question 16.
The enzyme secreting cells of gastric glands are called cells.
Answer:
Peptic or zymogen.

Question 17.
The cells secrete HCl in the stomach.
Answer:
Parietal or oxyntic.

Question 18.
The is the largest gland in our body.
Answer:
Liver.

Question 19.
Each lobe of the liver is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the ……………
Answer:
Glisson’s capsule.

Question 20.
The detoxifies toxic substances.
Answer:
Liver.

Question 21.
The opening of the hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of
Answer:
Oddi.

Question 22
____ gland is both exocrine and endocrine.
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 23.
The successive waves of muscular contraction by which bolus passes down through the oesophagus are called __________
Answer:
Peristalsis.

Question 24
activates pepsinogen.
Answer:
HCl.

Question 25.
Renin converts caseinogen into casein in the presence of ions.
Answer:
Calcium.

Question 26
activates trypsinogen.
Answer:
Enterokinase.

Question 27.
Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and
Answer:
Peptones.

Question 28.
mucosa into the blood and lymph.
Answer:
Absorption.

Question 30.
The chylomicrons are transported within the intestinal villi.
Answer:
Lacteals.

Question 31.
The large intestine absorbs more amount of vitamins, some minerals, and certain drugs.
Answer:
Water.

Question 32.
The eqestion of feces through the anal opening is called ……………..
Answer:
Defecation

Question 33
_____________ are the major source of cellular fuel which provides energy.
Answer:
Carbohydrates.

Question 34
_________ are the best-reserved food stored in our body?
Answer:
Lipids.

Question 35.
Marasmus is a deficiency disease.
Answer:
Protein.

Question 36
is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of the stomach.
Answer:
Indigestion.

Question 37
is caused due to hepatitis viral infection.
Answer:
Jaundice.

Question 38.
The crystallized cholesterol in the bile forms …………….
Answer:
Gall stones.

Question 39
…………. is a structural abnormality in which the superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly
Answer:
Hiatus hernia.

Question 40.
Treatment for diarrhoea is known as therapy.
Answer:
Oral hydration.

Question 41
refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining in the stomach or duodenum.
Answer:
Peptic ulcer.

Question 42.
The ulcer is mostly due to infection caused by the bacterium
Answer
Helicobacter pylori.

Question 43
…………… is caused due to the storage of excess body fat in adipose tissue.
Answer:
Obesity.

III. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of bicarbonate in saliva?
Answer:

• The bicarbonate of saliva keeps the pH at 5.8 – 7.4 level.
• If the pH level decreases the acidity of saliva increases the enamel of teeth is affected.

Question 2.
What are the components of food?
Answer:
The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, fibre, and water.

Question 3.
What is the composition of bile?
Answer:
Bilirubin, Biliverdin, bile salts cholesterol phospholipid.

Question 4.
Why do plants not require a digestive system?
Answer:
Plants are autotrophs. They prepare their own food using CO₂, H₂O in the presence of sunlight trapped by the chlorophyll pigment present in the leaves. There is no need for the digestive system for plants as they use starch as such.

Question 5.
How is bile helped in the absorption of fat?
Answer:

• The villiin the lumen of illem are the absorbing units consisting of a lacteal duct.
• The fatty acids are absorbed by the capillaries of villi.

Question 6.
Define:
(a) Ingestion: The taking in of food is called ingestion.
(b) Digestion: The breakdown of the macromolecules into micromolecules by the action of digestive enzymes is called digestion.
(c) Absorption: The taking in of digested food materials into the bloodstream is called absorption.
(d) Assimilation: The conversion of absorbed food materials into components of cells is called assimilation.
(e) Egestion: The elimination of the undigested substances from the body is called egestion.

Question 7.
What is the thecodont dentition?
Answer:
Every tooth in human beings is embedded in a socket in the jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the thecodont dentition.

Question 8.
Why do we feel uneasy when we eat milk and milk product?
Answer:

• To digest the lactose of milk the enzyme lactase is needed.
• If this enzyme is absent or deficient in the intestine the lactose may be decomposed by bacteria and releases gas.
• Hence there may be bloating stomach cramps and diarrhea.

Question 9.
What is heterodont dentition?
Answer:
Human beings have four different types of teeth namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars. This is known as heterodont dentition.

Question 10.
For what findings of Robin Warren and Barry marshall got nob el prize for the year 2005?
Answer:
Robin Warren and Barry Marshall have discovered that Helicobacter pylon is the causative agent of peptic ulcers. For the findings, they were awarded a noble prize in the year 2005.

Question 11.
What is gingivitis?
Answer:
Mineral salts like calcium and magnesium are deposited on the teeth and form a hard layer of ‘tartar’ or calculus called plaque. If the plaque formed on teeth is not removed regularly, it would spread down the tooth into the narrow gap between the gums and enamel and causes inflammation, called gingivitis, which leads to redness and bleeding of the gums and to bad smell.

Question 12.
What is enamel?
Answer:
The hard chewing surface of the teeth is made of enamel and helps in the mastication of food.

Question 13.
What is succus entericus? Write about its role in digestion.
Answer:

• The Brunner’s glands and the intestinal glands all together secrete a juice known as succus entricus.
• The intestinal and pancreatic enzymes are involved in digestion. Eg. Lipase amylase

Question 14.
What is the function of the cardiac sphincter?
Answer:
A cardiac sphincter or gastroesophageal sphincter regulates the opening of oesophagus into the stomach.

Question 15.
Give short notes on bacterias present in the body of man?
Answer:

• There are 100 million bacteria present in the body of a man.
• In our digestive system, there are beneficial bacteria, harmful bacteria, and neutral bacteria are seen.
• Most of the bacteria are present in our large intestine. Here only the digestion ends.

Question 16.
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
Answer:
The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the pyloric sphincter. It periodically allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and also prevents regurgitation of food.

Question 17.
What is meant by assimilation?
answer:
All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substances for their activities and incorporate in into their protoplasm this process is called assimilation.

Question 18.
Write a short note on the small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine assists in the final digestion and absorption of food. It is the longest part of the alimentary canal and has three regions, a ‘U’ shaped duodenum (25 cm long), a long coiled middle portion jejunum (2.4m long), and highly coiled ileum (3.5 m long).

The wall of the duodenum has Brunner’s glands which secrete mucus and enzymes. The ileum is the longest part of the small intestine and opens into the caecum of the large intestine.

The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi which are involved in the process of absorption and the cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance that increases the surface area enormously.

Along with Villi, the ileal mucosa also contain mucus-secreting goblet cells and lymphoid tissue known as Peyer’s patches which produce lymphocytes. The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of villi called the crypts of Leiberkuhn.

Question 19.
Explain the structure of the large intestine.
Answer:
The large intestine consists of the caecum, colon, and rectum. The caecum is a small blind pouch-like structure that opens into the colon and it possesses a narrow finger-like tubular projection called the vermiform appendix.

Both caecum and vermiform appendix are large in herbivorous animals and act as an important site for cellulose digestion with the help of symbiotic bacteria. The colon is divided into four regions – an ascending, a transverse, a descending part, and a sigmoid colon.

The colon is lined by dilations called haustra (singular – haustrum) (Figure). The “S” shaped sigmoid colon (pelvic colon) opens into the rectum. Rectum is concerned with temporary storage of feces. The rectum open out through the anus. The anus is guarded by two anal sphincter muscles. The anal mucosa is folded into several vertical folds and contains arteries and veins called anal columns. Anal column may get enlarged and causes piles or haemorrhoids.

Question 20.
Explain the internal structure of the gut.
Answer:
The wall of the alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum consists of four layers (Figure) namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa. The serosa (visceral peritoneum) is the outermost layer and is made up of thin squamous epithelium with some connective tissues. Muscularis is made of smooth circular and longitudinal muscle fibres with a network of nerve cells and parasympathetic nerve fibres which controls peristalsis.

The submucosal layer is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph vessels and the sympathetic nerve fibres that control the secretions of intestinal juice. The innermost layer lining the lumen of the alimentary canal is the mucosa which secretes mucous.

Question 21.
Explain the salivary glands.
Answer:
There are three pairs of salivary glands in the mouth. They are the largest parotids gland in the cheeks, the sub-maxillary sub-mandibular in the lower jaw, and the sublingual beneath the tongue. These glands have ducts such as Stenson’s duct, Wharton’s duct, and Bartholin’s duct or duct of Rivinis respectively (Figure). The salivary juice secreted by the salivary glands reaches the mouth through these ducts. The daily secretion of saliva from salivary glands ranges from 1000 to 1500 mL.

Question 22.
Write a short note on gastric glands.
Answer:
The wall of the stomach is lined by gastric glands. Chief cells or peptic cells or zymogen cells in the gastric glands secrete gastric enzymes and Goblet cells secrete mucus. The Parietal or oxyntic cells secrete HCl and an intrinsic factor responsible for the absorption of Vitamin B₁₂ called Castle’s intrinsic factor.

Question 23.
Explain the structure of the liver.
Answer:
The liver, the largest gland in our body, is situated in the upper right side of the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm. The liver consists of two major left and right lobes; and two minor lobes. These lobes are connected with diaphragm. Each lobe has many hepatic lobules (functional unit of liver) and is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the Glisson’s capsule.

Liver cells (hepatic cells) secrete bile which is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder. The duct of gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the common bile duct.

The bile duct passes downwards and joins with the main pancreatic duct to form a common duct called the hepato-pancreatic duct. The opening of the hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi (Figure). Liver has high power of regeneration and liver cells are replaced by new ones every 3-4 weeks.

Question 24.
Write the functions of the liver.
Answer:
Apart from bile secretion, the liver also performs several functions.

• Destroys aging and defective blood cells.
• Stores glucose in the form of glycogen or disperses glucose into the bloodstream with the help of
• pancreatic hormones.
• Stores fat-soluble vitamins and iron.
• Detoxifies toxic substances.
• Involves in the synthesis of non-essential amino acids and urea.

Question 25.
Write on the secretions of the pancreas.
Answer:
The second-largest gland in the digestive system is the Pancreas, which is a yellow coloured, compound elongated organ consisting of exocrine and endocrine cells. It is situated between the limbs of the ‘U’ shaped duodenum.

The exocrine portion secretes pancreatic juice containing enzymes such as pancreatic amylase, trypsin and pancreatic lipase and the endocrine part called Islets of Langerhans secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon. The pancreatic duct directly opens into the duodenum.

Question 26.
Explain the digestion in the buccal cavity.
Answer:
The smell, sight, and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. Mechanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing food. It is called mastication.

The saliva contains water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– and HCO₃), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme, and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein). The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating, and adhering the masticated food into a bolus.

About 30 percent of polysaccharides, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose). The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Question 27.
Explain the digestion in the stomach.
Answer:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement chums and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes.

The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth. The gastric juice contains HCl and proenzymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction. The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl (Figure). Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is renin which helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions. This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging.

Question 28.
Explain the digestion in the small intestine.
Answer:
The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscular layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic analyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the breakdown products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in the emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids. The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose.

Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

Question 29.
Explain the process of absorption of the digested food.
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa into the blood and lymph. The villi in the lumen of the ileum are the absorbing units, consisting of a lacteal duct in the middle surrounded by fine network of blood capillaries. The process of absorption involves active, passive, and facilitated transport.

Small amounts of glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends upon concentration gradients. However, some of the substances like fructose are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na⁺.

This mechanism is called facilitated transport. Nutrients like amino acids, glucose, and electrolytes like Na⁺ are absorbed into the blood against the concentration gradient by active transport. The insoluble substances like fatty acids, glycerol, and fat-soluble vitamins are first incorporated into small, spherical water-soluble droplets called micelles and are absorbed into the intestinal mucosa where they are re-synthesized into protein-coated fat globules called chylomicrons which are then transported into the lacteals within the intestinal villi and eventually empty into the lymphatic duct.

The lymphatic ducts ultimately release the absorbed substances into the bloodstream. While the fatty acids are absorbed by the lymph duct, other materials are absorbed either actively or passively by the capillaries of the villi (Figure). Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed by simple diffusion or active transport. Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. The absorption of substances in the alimentary canal takes place in the mouth, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

However maximum absorption takes place in the small intestine. Absorption of simple sugars, alcohol, and medicines takes place in the stomach. Certain drugs are absorbed by blood capillaries in the lower side of the tongue and mucosa of the mouth. Large intestine is also involved in the absorption of more amounts of water, vitamins, some minerals, and certain drugs.

Question 30.
Write a note on assimilation.
Answer:
Absorbed substances are transported through blood and lymph to the liver through the hepatic portal system. From the liver, nutrients are transported to all other regions of the body for utilization. All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substance for their activities and incorporate into their protoplasm, this process is called assimilation.

Question 31.
Write a paragraph on egestion.
Answer:
The digestive waste and unabsorbed substances in the ileum enter into the large intestine and it mostly contains fibre called roughage. The roughage is utilized by symbiotic bacteria in the large intestine for the production of substances like vitamin K and other metabolites. All these substances are absorbed in the colon along with water.

The waste is then solidified into the fecal matter in the rectum. The fecal matter initiates a neural reflex causing an urge or desire for its removal. The egestion of feces through the anal opening is called defecation. It is a voluntary process and is carried out by a peristaltic movement.

Question 32.
Write on carbohydrates and lipids.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are sugar and starch. These are the major source of cellular fuel which provides energy. The caloric value of carbohydrate is 4.1 calories per gram and its physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal per gram. Lipids are fats and derivatives of fats, are also the best-reserved food stored in our body which is used for production of energy. Fat has a caloric value of 9.45 Kcal and a physiological fuel value of 9 Kcal per gram.

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on proteins.
Answer:
Proteins are a source of amino acids required for the growth and repair of body cells. They are stored in the body only to a certain extent; large quantities are excreted as nitrogenous waste. The caloric value and physiological fuel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal respectively. According to ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research) and WHO (World Health Organization), the daily requirement of protein for an average Indian is 1 gm per 1 kg body weight.

Question 34.
What is Sphincter of Oddi?
Answer:

• Liver cells secrete bile which is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder.
• The duct of the gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the common bile duct.
• The bile duct passes downwards and joins with the main pancreatic duct to form a common duct called the hepatopancreatic duct.
• The opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by a Sphincter called the Sphincter of Oddi.

Question 35.
What is peritonitis?
Answer:

• It is the inflammation of the vermiform appendix. Leading to serve abdominal pain.
• The treatment involves the removal of appendix by surgery.
• If the treatment is delayed the appendix may rupture and results in an infection of the abdomen called peritonitis.

Question 36.
What is constipation?
Answer:
In this condition, the feces are retained within the rectum because of irregular bowel movement due to poor intake of fibre in the diet and lack of physical activities.

Question 37.
What is vomiting?
Answer:
It is reverse peristalsis. Harmful substances and contaminated food from the stomach are ejected through the mouth. This action is controlled by the vomit center located in the medulla oblongata. A feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.

Question 38.
Write a short note on jaundice.
Answer:
It is the condition in which liver is affected and the defective liver fails to break down haemoglobin and to remove bile pigments from the blood. The deposition of these pigments changes the colour of the eye and skin yellow. Sometimes, jaundice is caused due to hepatitis viral infections.

Question 39.
Write a short note on liver cirrhosis.
Answer:
Chronic disease of the liver results in degeneration and destruction of liver cells resulting in an abnormal blood vessel and bile duct leading to the formation of fibrosis. It is also called deserted liver or scarred liver. It is caused due to infection, consumption of poison, malnutrition, and alcoholism.

Question 40.
Write a short note on gall stones.
Answer:
Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder. The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile. The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct, and also hepato-pancreatic duct causing pain, jaundice, and pancreatitis.

Question 41.
What is appendicitis?
Answer:
It is the inflammation of the vermiform appendix, leading to severe abdominal pain. The treatment involves the removal of the appendix by surgery. If treatment is delayed the appendix may rupture and results in infection of the abdomen, called peritonitis.

Question 42.
Give short notes on the pharynx.
Answer:

• The oral cavity leads into a common passage for food and air is called the pharynx.
• The oesophagus and the trachea open to the pharynx.
• Food passes into the oesophagus through a wide opening called a gullet at the back of the pharynx.
• A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis during swallowing.
• Two masses of lymphoid tissue called tonsils are also located at the sides of the pharynx.

Heart bum is also common in those with a hiatus hernia. In this condition, stomach contents travel back into the oesophagus or even into the oral cavity and cause pain in the center of the chest due to the eroding nature of acidity.

Question 43.
Write a short note on diarrhea.
Answer:
It is the most common gastrointestinal disorder worldwide. It is sometimes caused by bacteria or viral infections through food or water. When the colon is infected, the lining of the intestine is damaged by the pathogens, thereby the colon is unable to absorb fluid.

The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the fecal discharge is known as diarrhoea. Unless the condition is treated, dehydration can occur. Treatment is known as oral hydration therapy. This involves drinking plenty of fluids – sipping small amounts of water at a time to rehydrate the body.

Question 44.
Give an account of the histology of the gut.
Answer:
The wall of the alimentary canal from oesophagus to the rectum consists of four layers.
1. Serosa Layer:
It is the outermost layer and is made up of thin squamous epithelium.

2. Muscular Layer:
It is made of smooth circular and longitudinal muscle fibres with a network of nerve cells of parasympathetic nerve fibers.

3. Submucosal Layer:
It is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph, and sympathetic nerve fibers that control the secretions of intestinal juice.

4. Mucosa Layer:
It is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal which secretes mucous.

Question 45.
What is obesity?
Answer:
It is caused due to the storage of excess of body fat in adipose tissue. It may induce hypertension, atherosclerotic heart disease, and diabetes. Obesity may be genetic or due to excess intake of food, endocrine, and metabolic disorders.

Question 46.
Write a note on BMI.
Answer:
Degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI). A normal BMI range for adults is 19 – 25; above 25 is considered as obese. BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of body height in meters. For example, a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 cm would have a BMI of 19.5.
That is BMI = 50 / 1.62= 19.5

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The file extension to save excel files are _______.
(a) xls or xlsx
(b) XL
(c) exe or XL
(d) XL or XLX
Answer:
(a) xls or xlsx

Question 2.
Python has a collector to clean up unreferenced object.
(a) CSV
(b) Diet
(c) garbage
(d) close
Answer:
(c) garbage

Question 3.
How many types of DML are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 4.
To open the file updating data, click _______.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) t
(d) +
Answer:
(d) +

Question 5.
g++ is a program that calls GNU C compiler called _______.
(a) GCC
(b) CCC
(c) GGC
(d) GGG
Answer:
(a) GCC

Question 6.
________ are used for interfacing with C programs.
(a) C types
(b) cython
(c) M in GW
(d) Boost python
Answer:
(a) C types

Question 7.
Which function is used to print the data in dictionary format without order?
(a) dic()
(b) dict()
(c) dictionary
(d) print
Answer:
(b) dict()

Question 8.
________ is a list containing another list as an element.
(a) N list
(b) Nested list
(c) List
(d) Add list
Answer:
(b) Nested list

Question 9.
In python, _______ function is used to accept data as input at run time.
(a) accept
(b) int
(c) input
(d) in
Answer:
(c) input

Question 10.
Which one of the following is the exponential operator?
(a) *
(b) **
(c) ++
(d) //
Answer:
(b) **

Question 11.
A ______ is a part of a program.
(a) code
(b) module
(c) flow chart
(d) system software
Answer:
(b) module

Question 12.
The arrangement of private instance variables and public methods ensures the principle of _______.
(a) security
(b) data encapsulation
(c) class
(d) inheritance
Answer:
(b) data encapsulation

Question 13.
How many operands are there in ternary operator?
(a)0
(b) 1
(c)2
(d) 3
Answer:
(d) 3

Question 14.
Pow (2, -3) gives ________.
(a) 8
(b) -8
(c) 0.125
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 0.125

Question 15.
______ assign values to the tables specified in the bar chart.
(a) usage
(b) label
(c) values
(d) =
Answer:
(a) usage

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Differentiate Interface and Implementation.
Answer:
Interface:
Interface just defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it.

Implementation:
Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface.

Question 17.
Give example for valid Identifiers.
Answer:
Sum, total marks, regno, num 1.

Question 18.
Define SQL.
Answer:
The Structured Query Language (SQL) is a standard programming language to access and manipulate databases. SQL allows the user to create, retrieve, alter, and transfer information
among databases.

Question 19.
Give example for open function.
Answer:
>>> f = open(“sample.txt”) # open file in current directory and f is file object
>>> f = open(‘c:\\pyprg\\ch 13sample5.csv’) # specifying full path

Question 20.
Write about ‘init’ functions.
Answer:
Constructor is the special function that is automatically executed when an object of a class is created. In Python, there is a special function called “init” which act as a Constructor. It must begin and end with double underscore. This function will act as an ordinary function; but only difference is, it is executed automatically when the object is created. This constructor function f can be defined with or without arguments. This method is used to initialize the class variables.

Question 21.
Write a program to print the following output.
Answer:

Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
plt.plot([l ,2,3,4])
plt.show()
Output
This window is a matplotlib window, which allows you to see your graph. You can hover the graph and see the coordinates in the bottom right.

Question 22.
Which punctuation should be used in the blank?
if <condition>_
statements-block 1
else:
statements-block 2
(a) ;
(b) :
(c) ::
(d) !
Answer:
(6) :

Question 23.
Define Required Arguments.
Answer:
“Required Arguments” are the arguments passed to a function in correct positional order. Here, the number of arguments in the function call should match exactly with the function definition. You need atleast one parameter to prevent syntax errors to get the required output.

Question 24.
Write note on Assignment operators.
Answer:
In Python, = is a simple assignment operator to assign values to variable. Let a = 5 and b = 10 assigns the value 5 to a and 10 to b these two assignment statement can also be given as a,b=5,10 that assigns the value 5 and 10 on the right to the variables a and b respectively. There are various compound operators in Python like +=, -=, *=, /=, %=, **= and //= are also available.

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Write note on Asymptotic Notations. Classify them.
Asymptotic Notations are languages that uses meaningful statements about time and space complexity. The following three asymptotic notations are mostly used to represent time complexity of algorithms:
(i) Big O
Big O is often used to describe the worst-case of an algorithm.

(ii) Rig Ω
Big Omega is the reverse Big O, if Bi O is used to describe the upper bound (worst – case) of a asymptotic function, Big Omega is used to describe the lower bound (best-case).

(iii) Big Θ
When an algorithm has a complexity with lower bound = upper bound, say that an algorithm has a complexity O (n log n) and Ω (n log n), it’s actually has the complexity Θ (n log n), which means the running time of that algorithm always falls in n log n in the best-case and worst-case.

Question 26.
Write note on CSV files.
Answer:
CSV File cannot store charts or graphs. It stores data but does not contain formatting, formulas, macros, etc.
A CSV file is also known as a Flat File. Files in the CSV format can be imported to and exported from programs that store data in tables, such as Microsoft Excel or Open Office Calc.

Question 27.
Write note on where clause in SQL.
Answer:
The WHERE clause is used to filter the records. It helps to extract only those records which satisfy a given condition. For example in the student table, to display the list of students of age 18 and above in alphabetical order of their names, the command is given as below: SELECT * FROM Student WHERE Age>=18 ORDER BY Name;

To display the list of students in the descending order of names of those students of age 18 and above the command is given as :
SELECT * FROM Student WHERE Age>= 18 ORDER BY Name DESC;

Question 28.
Give an example and syntax for group by clause.
Answer:
The syntax for the GROUP BY clause is
SELECT <column-names> FROM <table-name> GROUP BY <column-name>HAVING condition];
To apply the above command on the student table :
SELECT Gender FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;
The following command will give the below given result:
Gender
M
F

The point to be noted is that only two results have been returned. This is because we only have two gender types ‘Male’ and ‘Female’. The GROUP BY clause grouped all the ‘M’ students together and returned only a single row for it. It did the same with the ‘F’ students. For example to count the number of male and female students in the student table, the following command is given :

SELECT Gender, count(*) FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;

Gender	Count*
M	5
F	3

Question 29.
Illustrate with an example program to change global variable from inside a function using global keyword.
Answer:
x = 0 # global variable
def add():
global x
x = x + 5 # increment by 2
print (“Inside add() function x value is :”,x)
add()
print (“In main x value is :”,x)
Output:
Inside add() function x value is : 5
In main x value is : 5

Question 30.
Write note on Lambda functions.
Answer:

• Lambda function is mostly used for creating small and one-time anonymous function.
• Lambda functions are mainly used in combination with the functions like filter(), map() and reduce().

Question 31.
Give any 3 applications of scripting language.
Answer:

1. To automate certain tasks in a program.
2. Extracting information from a data set.
3. Less code intensive as compared to traditional programming language.

Question 32.
Give program to join two tuples
Answer:
# Program to join two tuples
Tup 1 =(2,4,6,8,10)
Tup2 = (1,3,5,7,9)
Tup3 = Tup1 + Tup2
print(Tup3)
Output
(2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9)

Question 33.
Find output:
for x in range (2,11,2) :
Print (x)
Output:
2 4 6 8 10

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Compare CSV files with XLS file.
Answer:
Excel:

• Excel is a binary file that holds information about all the worksheets in a file, including both content and formatting.
• XLS files can only be read by applications that have been especially written to read their format, and can only be written in the same way.
• Excel is a spreadsheet that saves files into its own proprietary format viz. xls or xlsx.
• Excel consumes more memory while importing data.

CSV:

• CSV format is a plain text format with a series of values separated by commas.
• CSV can be opened with any text editor in Windows like notepad, MS Excel, OpenOffice, etc.
• CSV is a format for saving tabular information into a delimited text file with extension .csv
• Importing CSV files can be much faster, and it also consumes less memory.

[OR]

(b) Explain any 5 important features of python over C++.
Answer:

• Python uses Automatic Garbage Collection whereas C++ does not.
• C++ is a statically typed language, while Python is a dynamically typed language.
• Python runs through an interpreter, while C++ is pre-compiled.
• Python code tends to be 5 to 10 times shorter than that written in C++.
• In Python, there is no need to declare types explicitly where as it should be done in C++
• In Python, a function may accept an argument of any type, and return multiple values without any kind of declaration beforehand. Whereas in C++ return statement can return only one value.

Question 35.
(a) Write a program to update a change range of values.
Answer:
MyList = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9]
print (“List Odd numbers… “)
for x in MyList:
print (x)
MyList[0:5] = 2,4,6,8,10
print (“List Even numbers… “)
for y in MyList:
print (y)

Output
List Odd numbers…
1
3
5
7
9
List Even numbers…
2
4
6
8
10

[OR]

(b) Explain list and range ( ) functions in python with sample program.
Answer:
The range( ) is a function used to generate a series of values in Python. Using range( ) function, you can create list with series of values. The range() function has three arguments.
Syntax of range ( ) function:
range (start value, end value, step value)
where,

• start value – beginning value of series. Zero is the default beginning value.
• end value – upper limit of series. Python takes the ending value as upper limit – 1.
• step value – It is an optional argument, which is used to generate different interval of values.

Example : Generating whole numbers up to 10
for x in range (1, 11):
print(x)

Output
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Question 36.
(a) Find output:
T = (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
1. Print (T)
2. Print ( T [2:5] )
3. Print ( T[:5] )
4. Print ( T[4:] )
5. Print ( T [:])
Answer:
1. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
2. (91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”)
3. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”)
4. (“Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)
5. (12, 78, 91, “Tamil”, “Telugu”, 3.14, 69.48)

[OR]

(b) Find Output:
T = (2,4,6, 8,10)
Print (T)
del T
Print (T)
Answer:
(2, 4, 6, 8, 10)
Name Error: name “T” not defined.

Question 37.
(a) Differentiate Algorithm with program.
Algorithm:

• Algorithm helps to solve a given problem logically and it can be contrasted with the program.
• Algorithm can be categorized based on their implementation methods, design techniques etc.
• There is no specific rules for algorithm writing but some guidelines should be followed.
• Algorithm resembles a pseudo code which can be implemented in any language.

Program:

• Program is an expression of algorithm in a programming language.
• Algorithm can be implemented by structured or object oriented programming approach.
• Program should be written for the selected language with specific syntax.
• Program is more specific to a programming language.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various characteristics of an Algorithm.
Answer:

• Input: Zero or more quantities to be supplied.
• Output: At least one quantity is produced.
• Finiteness: Algorithms must terminate after finite number of steps.
• Definiteness: All operations should be well defined. For example operations involving division by zero or taking square root for negative number are unacceptable.
• Effectiveness: Every instruction must be carried out effectively.
• Correctness: The algorithms should be error free.
• Simplicity: Easy to implement.
• Unambiguous: Algorithm should be clear and unambiguous. Each of its steps and their inputs/outputs should be clear and must lead to only one meaning.
• Feasibility: Should be feasible with the available resources.
• Portable: An algorithm should be generic, independent of any programming language or an operating system able to handle all range of inputs.
• Independent: An algorithm should have step-by-step directions, which should be independent of any programming code.

Question 38.
(a) Explain literals in python.
Answer:
Literal is a raw data given in a variable or constant. In Python, there are various types of literals.
(i) Numeric (ii) String (iii) Boolean

(i) Numeric Literals: Numeric Literals consists of digits and are immutable (unchangeable).
Numeric literals can belong to 3 different numerical types Integer, Float and Complex.
To demonstrate Numeric literals
# Program to demonstrate Numeric Literals
a = 0b 1010 #Binary Literals
b = 100 #Decimal Literal
c = 0o310 #Octal Literal
d = Ox12c #Hexadecimal Literal
print (“Integer Literals :”,a,b,c,d)
#Float Literal
float_1 = 10.5
float_2 = 1.5e2
print (“Float Literals :”,float_l,float_2)
#Complex Literal
x = 1 + 3.14 j
print (“Complex Literals :”, x)
Print (“x = “, x , “Imaginary part of x = “, x.imag, “Real part of x = “, x.real)
#End of the Program

Output:
Integer Literals : 10 100 200 300
Float Literals : 10.5 150.0
Complex Literals :
x = (1.3.14) Imaginary part of x = 3.14 Real part of 9 x = 1.0

(ii) String Literals: In Python a string literal is a sequence of characters surrounded by quotes. Python supports single, double and triple quotes for a string. A character literal is a single character surrounded by single or double quotes. The value with triple-quote is used to give multi line string literal.

(iii) Boolean Literals: A Boolean literal can have any of the two values: True or False.

(iv) Escape Sequences: In Python strings, the backslash “\” is a special character, also called the “escape” character. It is used in representing certain whitespace characters: “\t” is a tab, “\n” is a newline, and “\r” is a carriage return. For example to print the message “It’s raining”, the Python command is
>>> print (“It\’s rainning”)
It’s rainning
Python supports the following escape sequence characters.

[OR]

(b) Explain Recursive functions in python.
Answer:
When a function calls itself is known as recursion. Recursion works like loop but sometimes it makes more sense to use recursion than loop. You can convert any loop to recursion.

A recursive function calls itself. Imagine a process would iterate indefinitely if not stopped by some condition! Such a process is known as infinite iteration. The condition that is applied in any recursive function is known as base condition. A base condition is must in every recursive function otherwise it will continue to execute like an infinite loop.

Overview of how recursive function works
(i) Recursive function is called by some external code.
(ii) If the base condition is met then the program gives meaningful output and exits.
(iii) Otherwise, function does some required processing and then calls itself to continue recursion. .

Example:
def fact(n):
if n == 0:
return 1
else:
return n * fact (n-1)
print (fact (0))
print (fact (5))
Output:
1
120

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 6 Respiration Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 6 Respiration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Breathing is controlled by ………..
(a) cerebrum
(b) medulla oblongata
(c) cerebellum
(d) pons
Answer:
(b) medulla oblongata

Question 2.
Intercostal muscles are found between the ………..
(a) vertebral column
(b) sternum
(c) ribs
(d) glottis
Answer:
(c) ribs

Question 3.
The respiratory structures of insects are ………..
(a) tracheal tubes
(b) gills
(c) green glands
(d) lungs
Answer:
(a) tracheal tubes

Question 4.
Asthma is caused due to ………..
(a) inflammation of bronchus and bronchioles
(b) inflammation of branchiole
(c) damage of diaphragm
(d) infection of lungs
Answer:
(d) infection of lungs

Question 5.
The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is ………..
(a) sigmoid
(b) straight line
(c) curved
(d) rectangular hyperbola
Answer:
(a) sigmoid

Question 6.
The Tidal Volume of a normal person is ………..
(a) 800 mL
(b) 1200 mL
(c) 500 mL
(d) 1100- 1200 mL
Answer:
(c) 500 mL

Question 7.
During inspiration, the diaphragm ………..
(a) expands
(b) unchanged
(c) relaxes to become dome-shaped
(d) contracts and flattens
Answer:
(d) contracts and flattens

Question 8.
CO₂ is transported through blood to lungs as ………..
(a) carbonic acid
(b) oxyhaemoglobin
(c) carbamino haemoglobin
(d) carboxy haemoglobin
Answer:
(c) carbamino haemoglobin

Question 9.
When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called ………..
(a) vital capacity
(b) tidal volume
(c) residual volume
(d) inspiratory reserve volume
Answer:
(b) tidal volume

Question 10.
Vital capacity is ………..
(a) TV + IRV
(b) TV + ERV
(c) RV + ERV
(d) TV + TRV + ERV
Answer:
(d) TV + TRV + ERV

Question 11.
After a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to ………..
(a) more CO₂ in the blood
(b) more O₂ in the blood
(c) less CO₂ in the blood
(d) less CL in the blood
Answer:
(b) more O₂ in the blood

Question 12.
Which of the following substances in tobacco smoke damage the gas exchange system?
(a) carbon monoxide and carcinogens
(b) carbon monoxide and nicotine
(c) carcinogens and tar
(d) nicotine and tar
Answer:
(d) nicotine and tar

Question 13.
Column I represents diseases and column II represents their symptoms. Choose the correctly paired option

Column I	Column II
(P) Asthma	(i) Recurring  of bronchitis
(Q) Emphysema	(ii) Accumulation of WBCs in alveolus
(R) Pneumonia	(iii) Allergy

(a) P = iii, Q = ii, R = i
(b) P = iii, Q = i, R = ii
(c) P = ii, Q = iii, R = i
(d) P = ii, Q = i, R = iii
Answer:
(a) P = iii, Q = ii, R = i

Question 14.
Which of the following best describes the process of gas exchange in the lungs?
(a) Air moves in and out of the alveoli during breathing.
(b) Carbon dioxide diffuses from deoxygenated blood in capillaries into the alveolar air.
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air.
(d) Oxygen diffuses from alveolar air into deoxygenated blood.
Answer:
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air.

Question 15.
Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
(P) IC	i. maximum volume of air breathe in after forced.
(Q) EC	ii. Volume of air present after expiration in lungs.
(R) VC	iii. Volume of air inhaled after expiration.
(S) FRC	iv. Volume of air present after expiration in lungs.

(a) P – i, Q – ii, R – iii, S – iv
(b) P – ii, Q – iii, R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii, Q – iii , R – i, S – iv
(d) P – iii, Q – iv , R – i, S – ii
Answer:
(d) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii

Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
(P) Tidal volume	i. 1000 to 1100 ml
(Q) Residual volume	ii. 500 ml
(R) Expiratory reserve volume	iii. 2500 to 3000 ml
(S) Inspiratory reserve volume	iv. 1100 to 1200 ml

(a) P – ii, Q – iv , R – i, S – iii
(b) P – iii. Q – ii , R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii, Q – iv , R – iii, S – i
(d) P – iii , Q – iv , R – i, S – ii
Answer:
(a) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 17.
Name the respiratory organs of flatworm, earthworm, fish, prawn, cockroach, and cat.
Answer:
Flatworm – Body surface
Earthworm – Body wall
Fish -Gills
Prawn -Gills
Cockroach -Trachea
Cat -Lungs

Question 18.
Name the enzyme that catalyses the bicarbonate formation in RBCs.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 19.
Air moving from the nose to the trachea passes through a number of structures. List in order of the structures.
Answer:

Question 20.
Which structure seals the larynx when we swallow?
Answer:
Epiglottis.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 21.
Resistance in the airways is typically low. Why? Give two reasons.
Answer:

1. As the cartilaginous rings present in the trachea provide an easy way for air. The bronchi have ‘C’ shaped curved cartilage plates to ensure that the air passage does not collapse.
2. The rigidity of bronchioles prevents them from collapsing. Thus the air reaches the lungs without any disturbances.

Question 22.
How the body makes long-term adjustments when living in high altitude?
Answer:
When a person lives at a higher altitude, the body makes respiratory and hematopoietic adjustments. Kidneys accelerate the production of the hormone erythropoietin which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. This improves the binding of 02 with hemoglobin.

Question 23.
Why is pneumonia considered a dangerous disease?
Answer:
In pneumonia there is inflammation of the lungs leads to the damage of alveoli. As there are sputum production Nasal congestion, sore throat and shortness of breath it is considered as a dangerous disease.

Question 24.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in any other part of the respiratory system. Discuss.
Answer:
The alveolar region is highly vascular. Each alveolus is made up of highly permeable and thin layers of squamous epithelial cells. The barrier between the alveoli and the capillaries is thin and diffusion of gases takes place from higher partial pressure to low er partial pressure. Hence, gaseous exchange takes place in the aboral region only but not in any other part of the respiratory system.

Question 25.
Sketch a flow chart to show the pathway of airflow during respiration.
Answer:

Question 26.
Explain the conditions which create problems in oxygen transport.
Answer:
When a person travels from sea level to elevations above 8000 feet where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of O₂ are lowered, he will have symptoms of acute mountain sickness, headache, shortness of breath nausea, and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

• When a person descends deep into the sea the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.
• It leads to keep more oxygen in the circulation.
• But that leads to an increase in blood nitrogen leads to nitrogen narcosis.
• When he ascends to the surface he will suffer from a condition called bends.
• Large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings.
• Symptom: Pain in joints and muscles, Stroke.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
The length of human trachea is about ……….. [Gujarat CETQB]
(a) 6 inches
(b) 12 cm
(c) 12 inches
(d) 18 cm
Answer:
(b) 12 cm

Question 2.
Hamburger’s phenomenon is also known as ……….. [CPMT1988,1991, AMU2001, JLPMER 2002]
(a) HCO₃ shift
(b) Na+ shift
(c) H+ shift
(d) Chloride shift
Answer:
(d) Chloride shift

Question 3.
Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is ……….. [CPMT1990]
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(a) 20%

Question 4.
Respiratory movements are controlled by ……….. [APMEE 1978, CPMT 1998]
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Crura cerebri
Answer:
(c) Medulla oblongata

Question 5.
At higher CO₂ concentration, oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will ……….. [CPMTX 990]
(a) Move to left
(b) Move to right
(c) Become irregular
(d) Move upwardly
Answer:
(b) Move to right

Question 6.
Chloride shift is required for transport of ……….. [CPMT 1990]
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide

Question 7.
Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known ……….. [CMPTl 992, AMU 2000]
(a) Inspiratory capacity
(b) Total Lung capacity
(c) Tidal volume
(d) Residual volume
Answer:
(c) Tidal volume

Question 8.
Oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to the right on the decrease of ……….. [AMU 1992]
(a) Acidity
(b) Carbon dioxide concentration
(c) Temperature
(d) pH
Answer:
(d) pH

Question 9.
Double membrane pleural sac ……….. [JKCMEE 1992]
(a) Envelops the kidneys
(b) Envelops the brain
(c) Envelops the lungs
(d) Lines the nasal passage
Answer:
(c) Envelops the lungs

Question 10.
The volume of air remaining in lungs after maximum respiratory’ effort is ……….. [JKCMEE 1992, Har. PMT 2003]
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Residual volume
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Tidal volume
Answer:
(b) Residual volume

Question 11.
In expiration, the diaphragm becomes ………..
(a) Flattened
(b) Relaxed
(c) Straightened
(d) Arched
Answer:
(b) Relaxed

Question 12.
Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to the respiratory surface by only ………..
(a) Plasma and erythrocytes
(b) Plasma
(c) Erythrocytes
(d) Erythrocytes and leucocytes
Answer:
(a) Plasma and erythrocytes

Question 13.
Respiratory centre is situated in ……….. [CPMT1980,2002, BHU1995, MPPMT1998, RPAPT2006]
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(b) Medulla oblongata

Question 14.
Air is breathed through ……….. [APMEE 1999]
(a) Trachea → lung → laiynx → phaiynx → alveoli
(b) Nose → larynx → pharynx → alveoli → bronchioles
(c) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(d) Nose → mouth → lungs.
Answer:
(c) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

Question 15.
Which is false?
(a) Blood from the right side of the heart is carried to the lungs by the pulmonary artery
(b) Pleura is the double covering of the kidney
(c) Pancreas is both exocrine & endocrine gland
(d) Scurvy is due to a vitamin C deficiency
Answer:
(b) Pleura is the double covering of the kidney

Question 16.
The volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is ………..
(a) residual volume
(b) vital volume
(c) tidal volume
(d) normal volume
Answer:
(c) Tidal volume

Question 17.
Body tissue obtain oxygen from hemoglobin due to its dissociation in tissues is caused by ……….. [MPPMT 1995]
(a) Low oxygen concentration and high carbon dioxide concentration
(b) Low oxygen concentration
(c) Low carbon dioxide concentration
(d) High carbon dioxide concentration
Answer:
(b) Low oxygen concentration

Question 18.
Lungs have a number of alveoli for ………..[MPPMT 1995]
(a) Having spongy texture and proper shape
(b) More surface area for diffusion of gases
(c) More space for the increasing volume of inspired air
(d) More nerve supply
Answer:
(b) More surface area for diffusion of gases

Question 19.
Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is ………..
(a) Inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air
(b) Inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage of residual air
(c) An efficient system of ventilation with no residual air
(d) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air
Answer:
(d) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air

Question 20.
During the transport of CO₂ blood does not become acidic due to ………..
(a) Neutralisation of H₂CO₂ by Na₂CO₃
(b) Absorption by leucocytes
(c) Blood buffers
(d) Non-accumulation
Answer:
(c) Blood buffers

Question 21.
At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will ………..
(a) Increase in number
(b) Decrease in number
(c) Decrease in size
(d) increase in size
Answer:
(a) Increase in number

Question 22.
CO₂ is transported ………..
(a) as dissolved in blood plasma
(c) as carbamino haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) as carbamino haemoglobin and carbonic acid

Question 23.
Maximum amount 70-75% of carbon dioxide transport occurs. [RPMT1996, 1998, MPPMT1998, CPMT 1998, BV 2002]
(a) Dissolved in plasma
(b) Carbaminohaemoglobin complex
(c) Bicarbonate
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Bicarbonate

Question 24.
Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of ………..
(a) Fibrous cartilage
(b) Calcified cartilage
(c) Elastic cartilage
(d) Hyaline cartilage
Answer:
(d) Hyaline cartilage

Question 25.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in blood through ………..
(a) Platelets and corpuscles
(b) RBCs and WBCs
(c) WBCs and serum
(d) RBCs and plasma
Answer:
(d) RBCs and plasma

Question 26.
About 1500 ml of air left in lungs is called ………..
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Residual volume
(d) Vital capacity
Answer:
(c) Residual volume

Question 27.
Which one protects the lungs? [BHU1990]
(a) Ribs
(b) Vertebral column
(c) Sternum
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 28.
Which one has the lowest value?
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume
(d) Expiratory reserve volume
Answer:
(b) Vital capacity

Question 29.
A child was killed through asphyxiation. Postmortem confirmed it because a piece of lung put in water ………..[MPPMT 1996]
(a) Settled down
(b) Kept floating
(c) Had blood spots
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Kept floating

Question 30.
The amount of oxygen present in one gram of haemoglobin is ……….. [AII MS 1997, Har. PMT, 2000]
(a) 20 ml
(b) 1-34 ml
(c) 13-4 ml
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 1-34 ml

Question 31.
A molecule of haemoglobin carries how many oxygen molecules ……….. [MPPMT 1997, CFMT 2002, JCMEE 2004]
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 32.
In carbon monoxide poisoning there is ……….. [AFMC 1997]
(a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration
(b) Decrease in oxygen availability
(c) Decrease in free haemoglobin
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Decrease in free haemoglobin

Question 33.
Exchange of gases in lung alveoli occurs through ……….. [AFMC 2002]
(a) Active transport
(b) Osmosis
(c) Simple diffusion
(d) Passive transport
Answer:
(c) Simple diffusion

Question 34.
Haemoglobin is …………
(a) Vitamin
(b) Skin pigment
(c) Blood carrier
(d) Respiratory pigments
Answer:
(d) Respiratory pigments

Question 35.
Vocal cords occur in ………..
(a) Pharynx
(b) Larynx
(c) Glottis
(d) Bronchial tube
Answer:
(b) larynx

Question 36.
The cells which do not respire ……….. [4FMC 2001]
(a) Epidermal cells
(b) Sieve cells
(c) Cortical cells
(d) Erythrocytes
Answer:
(d) Erythrocytes

Question 37.
Hiccough (hiccup) is due to the activity of ………..
(a) Intercostal muscles
(b) Food in the air tract
(e) Diaphragm
(d) Inadequate oxygen in the environment
Answer:
(c) Diaphragm

Question 38.
Bicarbonate formed inside erythrocytes moves out to plasma while chloride of plasma passes into erythrocytes. The phenomenon is called ………..
(a) Bicarbonate shift
(b) Carbonation
(c) Hamburger phenomenon
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Hamburger phenomenon

Question 39.
The respiratory centre of the brain is stimulated by ……….. [AllMS 2000]
(a) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood
(b) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood
(c) Oxygen content in venous blood
(d) Oxygen content in arterial blood
Answer:
(d) Oxygen content in arterial blood

Question 40.
A higher CO₂ concentration of blood causes ……….. [AMU 2001]
(a) Slow diffusion of CO₂ from the blood
(b) Slow transport of CO₂ from the blood
(c) Slow diffusion of O, from blood
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(c) Slow diffusion of O₂ from blood

Question 41.
Gases diffuse over the respiratory surface because of ………..
(a) O, is more in alveoli than in blood
(b) 02 is more in blood than in tissues
(c) CO₂ is more in alveoli than in blood
(d) PCO₂ is more in blood than in tissues
Answer:
(a) 02 is more in alveoli than in blood

Question 42.
Dissociation curve of 02 (which is dissociation from Hb) shifts to the rights ………..
(a) 02 concentration decrease
(b) CO₂ concentration decreases
(c) CO₂ concentration increase
(d) Chloride concentration increases
Answer:
(c) CO₂ concentration increase

Question 43.
Thoracic cage of man is formed of ……….. [MPPMT 2002]
(a) Ribs and sternum
(b) Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae
(c) Ribs, sternum, and lumbar vertebrae
(d) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
Answer:
(b) Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae

Question 44.
Vital capacity of lung is equal to ……….
(a) IRV + ERV + TV
(b) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
(c) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(d) IRV + ERV
Answer:
(a) IRV + ERV + TV

Question 45.
Dead space is ………….
(a) Upper respiratory tract
(b) Nasal chambers
(c) Alveolar space
(d) Lower respiratory tract
Answer:
(a) Upper respiratory tract

Question 46.
Carbon monoxide contained in Tobacco smoke ……….. [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Is carcinogenic
(b) Causes gastric ulcers
(c) Reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
(d) Raises blood pressure
Answer:
(c) Reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Question 47
What is correct?
(a) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation
(b) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation
(c) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary ventilation
(d) Both are variable
Answer:
(b) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation

Question 48.
An increase in CO₂ concentration shall cause ………..
(a) Slower and shallower breathing
(b) Slower and deeper breathing
(e) Faster and deeper breathing
(d) No effect on breathing
Answer:
(c) Faster and deeper breathing

Question 49.
Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with reduced surface area in heavy smokers. the condition is called ………..
(a) Silicosis
(b) Emphysema
(c) Asthma
(d) Bronchitis
Answer:
(b) Emphysema

Question 50.
SARS is caused by a variant of ……….. [AIIMS 2004]
(a) Pneumococcus pneumonia
(b) Common cold by Corona virus
(c) Asthma
(d) Bronchitis
Answer:
(b) Common cold by Corona virus

Question 51.
During inspiration ……….. [JJPMER 2004, RPMT 20051
(a) Diaphragm and external muscles relax
(b) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles relax
(c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
(d) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles contract
Answer:
(c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract

Question 52.
Mountain sickness at high altitude is due to ……….. [CPMT 2005]
(a) Excess CO₂ in blood
(b) Decreased CO₂ in air
(c) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen
(d) Decreased efficiency of haemoglobin
Answer:
(c) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen

Question 53.
Capacity of human lungs for air in a healthy person is ………..
(a) 3000 ml
(b) 1500 ml
(c) 1000 ml
(d) 500 ml
Answer:
(a) 3000 ml

Question 54.
Rate of breathing is controlled by ………….
(a) Amount of freely available oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide in the blood
(c) Muscular functions of the body
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Carbon dioxide in the blood

Question 55.
During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted into ………..
(a) Glycogen
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Starch
(d) Lactic acid
Answer:
(d) Lactic acid

Question 56.
How much pulmonary air is expired normally? [ PMT 2005]
(a) 70°io
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(d) 32%

Question 57.
Which is incorrect?
(a) Presence of non-respiratory air sacs increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(b) In insects, circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(c) Principle of counter-current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
(d) Residual air in the lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
Answer:
(b) In insects, circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

Question 58.
The percentage of oxygen being carried by blood plasma is ………..
(a) 6-9%
(b) 3-6%
(c) 2-3%
(d) 1-2%
Answer:
(c) 2-3%

Question 59.
Name of the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls: [RE-NEET 2015]
(a) Asthma
(b) Pleurisy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(c) Emphysema

Question 60.
Asthma may be attributed to ……….. [AIPMT/NEET 2016]
(a) bacterial infection of the lungs
(b) an allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(c) inflammation of the trachea
(d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
Answer:
(b) an allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

Question 61.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking: [RE-NEET 2016]
(a) Emphysema
(b) Asthma
(c) Respiratory acidosis
(d) Respiratory alkalosis
Answer:
(a) Emphysema

Question 62.
Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration. [NEET 20171]
(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume
Answer:
(d) Residual Volume

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Respiration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Insects respire through ………..
(a) body surface
(b) trachea
(c) gills
(d) book lungs
Answer:
(b) trachea

Question 2.
Which of the following does not belong to the conducting zone of the respiratory system?
(a) trachea
(b) bronchioles
(c) larynx
(d) alveoli
Answer:
(d) alveoli

Question 3.
The trachea is supported by the ………..
(a) long structure
(b) cartilage
(c) multiple cartilaginous rings
(d) ligaments
Answer:
(c) multiple cartilaginous rings

Question 4.
Which of the following is right regarding the bronchioles?
(a) the trachea divides into bronchioles
(b) bronchioles have cartilaginous rings
(c) bronchioles collapse when the air pressure is more
(d) bronchioles are without cartilaginous rings
Answer:
(d) bronchioles are without cartilaginous rings

Question 5.
The lungs are protected ventrally by ………..
(a) vertebral column
(b) sternum
(c) ribs
(d) diaphragm
Answer:
(b) sternum

Question 6.
The function of pleural fluid is to ………..
(a) keep the lungs intact
(b) protect the lungs from getting firm
(c) maintain the texture of the lungs
(d) reduces friction when lungs expand and contract
Answer:
(d) reduce friction when lungs expand and contract

Question 7.
Which of the following happens during inspiration?
(a) Diaphragm becomes dome-shaped
(b) internal intercostal muscles contract
(c) volume of the thoracic chamber increases
(d) ribs are pulled downward
Answer:
(c) volume of the thoracic chamber increases

Question 8.
The amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is called the ………..
(a) residual volume
(b) inspiratory reserve volume
(c) dead space
(d) tidal volume
Answer:
(d) tidal volume

Question 9.
The normal value of IRV is ………..
(a) 500 mL
(b) 2500-3000 mL
(c) 1100-1200 mL
(d) 150 mL
Answer:
(b) 2500-3000 mL

Question 10.
UV + RV =
(a) EC
(b) TLC
(c) IC
(d) VC
Answer:
(b) TLC

Question 11.
Which of the following is not involved in gaseous exchange?
(a) expiratory reserve volume
(b) inspiratory reserve volume
(c) residual volume
(d) dead space
Answer:
(d) dead space

Question 12.
Each haemoglobin can combine with molecules of oxygen.
(a) one
(b) four
(c) three
(d) two
Answer:
(b) four

Question 13.
The ferric state of haemoglobin ………..
(a) binds with oxygen
(b) binds with carbon dioxide
(c) does not bind with oxygen
(d) does not bind with carbon dioxide
Answer:
(c) does not bind with oxygen

Question 14.
Which of the following is incorrect with regard to the formation of oxyhemoglobin in the alveoli?
(a) high pCO₂
(b) less H+ concentration
(c) low pCO₂
(d) low temperature
Answer:
(a) high pCO₂

Question 15.
Carbon dioxide is carried in the RBCs as ………..
(a) bicarbonate ions
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbonic acid
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin
Answer:
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin

Question 16.
The formation of is catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in RBCs ………..
(a) carbonates
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin
(c) carbonic acid
(d) bicarbonates
Answer:
(c) carbonic acid

Question 17.
The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm center is highly sensitive to ………..
(a) CO₂ alone
(b) H⁺ alone
(c) O₂
(d) CO₂ and H⁺
Answer:
(d) CO₂ and H⁺

Question 18.
Which is known as the respiratory rhythm centre?
(a) cerebellum
(b) pons varoli
(c) medulla oblongata
(d) infundibulium
Answer:
(c) medulla oblongata

Question 19.
When a person travels to higher elevations, he may develop the symptoms of acute mountain sickness. This is because of ………..
(a) nitrogen narcosis
(b) high level of carbon dioxide in the blood
(c) low immunity
(d) poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin

Question 20.
Erythropoietin hormone stimulates the bone marrow to produce more ………..
(a) WBCs
(b) RBCs
(c) Platelets
(d) Electrolytes
Answer:
(b) RBCs

Question 21.
When a person goes deep into the sea, he/she develops complications due to ………..
(a) the increased partial pressure of O₂
(b) increase in blood nitrogen content
(c) the increased partial pressure of CO₂
(d) the decrease in the pressure in the surrounding water
Answer:
(b) increase in blood nitrogen content

Question 22.
Scuba divers need to face the problem of ………..
(a) nitrogen narcosis
(b) low oxygen content
(c) high carbon dioxide content
(d) lower pressure
Answer:
(a) nitrogen narcosis

Question 23.
Narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is called as ………..
(a) emphysema
(b) bronchitis
(c) asthma
(d) pneumonia
Answer:
(c) asthma

Question 24.
Gradual break down of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of the gaseous exchange is ………..
(a) bronchitis
(b) emphysema
(c) asthma
(d) tuberculosis
Answer:
(b) emphysema

Question 25.
What causes bronchitis?
(a) Decrease in the surface area of alveoli
(b) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(c) inflammation of bronchi
(d) collection of fluid in the bronchi
Answer:
(c) inflammation of bronchi

Question 26.
Which of the following is caused by bacteria?
(a) pneumonia
(b) emphysema
(c) silicosis
(d) tuberculosis
Answer:
(d) tuberculosis

Question 27.
Which of the following is occupational respiratory disease?
(a) tuberculosis
(b) emphysema
(c) silicosis
(d) pneumonia
Answer:
(c) silicosis

Question 28.
Why does smoking affect the oxygen supply to the body?
(a) haemoglobin fails to bind with O₂
(b) haemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide
(c) Nicotine makes the heart heat faster
(d) Blood vessels are narrowed
Answer:
(b) haemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide

Question 29.
COPD is the ………..
(a) emphysema and chronic bronchitis
(b) asthma and emphysema
(c) emphysema
(d) asthma, chronic bronchitis and emphysema
Answer:
(d) asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Oxygen is necessary for the breakdown to release energy.
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 2
……………. produce sound in human beings.
Answer:
Larynx/vocal cords.

Question 3.
……………… are the respiratory organs in most of the aquatic arthropods and molasses.
Answer:
Gills.

Question 4.
The ciliated epithelial cells lining the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles secrete …………….
Answer:
Mucus.

Question 5
divides thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity.
Answer:
Diaphragm.

Question 6.
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as …………
Answer:
Ventilation/breathing.

Question 7
……………. is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs.
Answer:
Inspiration.

Question 8.
……………… In a relaxed stage, the diaphragm is shaped.
Answer:
Dome.

Question 9.
The expulsion of air from the lungs to the atmosphere is known as ……………..
Answer:
Expiration.

Question 10
………….. in an instrument used to measure the volume of air involved in breathing movements.
Answer:
Spirometer.

Question 11.
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration is ……………
Answer:
Residual volume.

Question 12.
The maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration is …………..
Answer:
Vital capacity.

Question 13.
The total volume of air a person can inhale after normal inspiration is …………….
Answer:
Inspiratory capacity.

Question 14.
The total volume of air a person can exhale after normal inspiration is ……………..
Answer:
Expiratory capacity.

Question 15.
…………….. is the total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration.
Answer:
Total lung capacity.

Question 16.
The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute is called ……………
Answer:
Minute respiratory volume.

Question 17
……………… is the air that is not involved in gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Dead space.

Question 18
………………. is the pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.
Answer:
Partial pressure.

Question 19.
Haemoglobin belongs to the class of …………..
Answer:
Conjugated protein.

Question 20.
Haemoglobin is made up of iron and the rest colourless protein
Answer:
Haem, globin.

Question 21.
The ferric state of haemoglobin is called …………….
Answer:
Methemoglobin.

Question 22
……………. is the respiratory pigment present in the blood.
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 23.
The blood of human being is red due to the presence of …………….
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 24.
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver about mL of O, to the tissues.
Answer:
5.

Question 25.
About 70% of CO₂ transport occurs as ions.
Answer:
Bicarbonate.

Question 26.
The reversible reaction of formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water is catalyzed by the enzyme called …………………
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 27
center present in pons Varoli region of the brain moderates the function of the respiratory rhythm center.
Answer:
Pneumotaxic.

Question 28
……………… is the hormone secreted by kidneys to stimulate the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.
Answer:
Erythropoietin.

Question 29.
The increase in the nitrogen content in blood heads to a condition called ………………..
Answer:
Nitrogen narcosis.

Question 30.
The skin turns bluish-black during poisoning.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 31.
Dust, drugs, pollen grains, fish, prawns are common for asthma.
Answer:
Allergens.

Question 32.
Cigarette smoking reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls and it is known as ……………….
Answer:
Emphysema.

Question 33.
Cough, shortness of breath, and sputum in the lungs are the symptoms of ………………
Answer:
Bronchitis.

Question 34.
Tuberculosis is caused by ……………….
Answer:
Mycobacterium tubercular

Question 35.
Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the complication of the disease …………..
Answer:
Tuberculosis.

Question 36.
Long exposure to dust gives rise to inflammation leading to ………………
Answer:
Fibrosis.

Question 37
……………… and asbestosis are occupational respiratory diseases resulting from inhalation of particles of silica from sand grinding and asbestos into the respiratory tract.
Answer:
Silicosis.

Question 38
……………… causes narrowing of blood vessels resulting in an increase in blood pressure and coronary heart disease.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 39.
……………….. Smoking lowers the count in men.
Answer:
Sperm.

Question 40
…………….. is the chemical present in the cigarette smoke that causes addiction.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 41.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is due to
Answer:
Smoking.

Question 42.
A non-smoker who inhales cigarette smoke involves in smoking.
Answer:
Passive.

Question 43.
Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma, COPD, cancer may be caused due to
Answer:
Smoking.

Question 44.
Cigarette smoke contains thousands of chemicals and even small quantities of
Answer:
Arsenic.

Question 45.
The presence in the cigarette smoke damages the gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Tar.

III. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
What is Tidal volume?
Answer:
Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath
Ex. 500 ml

Question 2.
What are the functions of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The five primary functions of the respiratory system are –

• To exchange O₂ and CO₂ between the atmosphere and the blood.
• To maintain homeostatic regulation of body pH.
• To protect us from inhaled pathogens and pollutants.
• To maintain the vocal cords for normal communication (vocalization).
• To remove the heat produced during cellular respiration through breathing.

Question 3.
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
Answer:

• The additional volume of air a person can inspire by forceful inspiration is called inspiratory reserve volume.
• The normal value is 2500 – 3000 ml.

Question 4.
What is the function of hairs and mucus in the nasal cavity?
Answer:
The hairs and mucus filter the dust particles present in the air passing through the nostrils.

Question 5.
What is meant by vital capacity?
Answer:

• The maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration.
• VC = ERV + TV + IRV

Question 6.
What are the layers of the diffusion membrane of the alveolus?
Answer:
The diffusion membrane of the alveolus is made up of three layers. They are:

• The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli.
• The endothelium of the alveolar capillaries and
• The basement substance found in between them.

Question 7.
What are the cells of the squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli?
Answer:
The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli are composed of Type I and Type II cells. Type I cells are very thin so that gases can diffuse rigidly through them. Type II cells are thicker. They synthesize and secrete a substance called surfactant. It lowers the surface tension in the alveoli and prevents pulmonary edema.

Question 8.
What is meant by total lung capacity?
Answer:

• The total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration is called total lung capacity.
• Total lung capacity = Vital capacity + Residual volume.
• TLC = VC + RV

Question 9.
What is pleura? What is its function?
Answer:
The lungs are covered by a double-layered pleural membrane containing several layers of elastic connective tissues and capillaries. It encloses the pleural fluid which reduces friction when the lungs expand and contract.

Question 10.
What is the function of Goblet cells?
Answer:

• The mucous membrane lining the airway contains goblet cells which secrete mucus rich in glycoprotein.
• Microorganisms and dust particles attach to the mucus films and are carried upwards to pass down the gullet during normal swallowing.

Question 11.
Explain the human respiratory system.
Answer:
The human respiratory system constitutes the conducting zone and the respiratory zone. The conducting zone includes the external nostril, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and the lungs which contain alveoli.

The parts from the external nostrils up to the bronchioles conduct the air and hence they are called the conducting zone. This zone humidifies and warms the incoming air. The nasal cavity has fine hairs and mucus which filter dust particles in the incoming air.

At the junction of the pharynx and larynx, there is a flap called epiglottis. This closes the respiratory tract while swallowing thus preventing the entry of food particles into the trachea and choking. The ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles secrete mucus rich in glycoprotein.

Microorganisms and dust particles attach to the mucus films and are carried upwards to pass down the gullet during normal swallowing. The trachea is a semi-flexible tube supported by multiple cartilaginous rings that expands upto the mid-thoracic cavity.

And the level of the 5th theoretic vertebra, it divides into right and left bronchi which divide into secondary and tertiary bronchi and further divide into terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles. Bronchi have ‘c’ shaped curved Cartilage plates to ensure that the air passage does not collapse as air pressure changes during breathing. The bronchioles do not have cartilaginous rings but they have the rigidity to prevent them from collapsing but are surrounded by smooth muscle which contracts or relaxes to adjust the diameter of these airways.

The fine respiratory bronchioles terminate into highly vascularised thin-walled-pouch-like air sacs called alveoli. It is made up of thin squamous epithelial cells, the endothelium of the alveolar capillaries, and the basement substance are found in between them.

The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli, the endothelium of the alveolar capillaries, and the basement substance found in between them. The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli are composed of Type I and Type II cells.

Type I cells are very thin so that gases can diffuse rapidly through them. Type II cells are thicker, synthesize, and secrete a substance called Surfactant. The lungs are light spongy tissues endorsed in the thoracic cavity bound dorsally by the vertebral column and ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs, and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. The lungs are covered by a double-walled pleural membrane containing several layers of elastic connective tissues and capillaries. It encloses the pleural fluid. It reduces friction when the lungs expand and contract.

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of breathing.
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as ventilation or breathing. Inspiration and expiration are the two phases of breathing. Inspiration is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs and expiration is the movement of alveolar air that diffuses out of the lungs.

Lungs do not contain muscle fibres but expands and contracts by the movement of the ribs and diaphragm. The diaphragm is a sheet of tissue which separates the thorax from the abdomen. In a relaxed state, the diaphragm is dome-shaped.

Ribs are moved by the intercostal muscles. External and internal intercostal muscles found between the ribs and the diaphragm helps in creating pressure gradients. Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs (intrapulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric pressure; likewise, expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and outwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis, forcing the lungs to expand the pulmonary volume. The increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in the intrapulmonary’ pressure forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure.

This process is called inspiration. Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the diaphragm and sternum to return to its dome shape and the internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume. This results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs. This process is called expiration.

Question 13.
Write a short note on respiratory volumes.
Answer:
Tidal Volume (TV) Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath. It is approximately 500 mL., i.e. a normal human adult can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute. During vigorous exercise, the tidal volume is about 4-10 times higher.

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by forceful inspiration is called Inspiratory Reserve Volume. The normal value is 2500-3000 mL.

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) Additional volume of air a person can forcefully exhale by forceful expiration is called Expiratory Reserve Volume. The normal value is 1000-1100 mL. Residual Volume (RV) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It is approximately 1100 – 1200 mL.

Question 14.
Write a short note on respiratory capacities.
Answer:
Vital capacity (VC) the maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inspiration. A person first inspires maximally then expires maximally. VC = ERV + TV + IRV

1. Inspiratory capacity (IC) The total volume of air a person can inhale after a normal expiration. includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume. IC = TV + IRV

2. Expiratory capacity (EC) The total volume of air a person can exhale after a normal inspiration. It includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume. EC = TV + ERV

3. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) The total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration is called Total Lung Capacity. This includes the vital capacity and the residual volume. It is approximately 6000 mL. TLC = VC+ RV

4. Minute Respiratory Volume The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute is called minute respiratory volume.

Question 15.
What is the reason for the lungs to lose elasticity?
Answer:

• The elastin present in the Songs gives its elastic nature.
• People with emphysema and bronchitis have difficulty in exhaling because the enzyme elastase destroys the elastin around the alveoli and reduces the elasticity of the lungs.

Question 16.
How does a gaseous exchange take place in the alveoli?
Answer:
The primary site for the exchange of gases in the alveoli. The uptake of 02 and the release of CO₂ occur between the blood and tissues by simple diffusion driven by partial pressure gradient of O₂ and CO₂. Partial pressure is the pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.

It is represented as pO₂ for oxygen and pCO₂ for carbon- dioxide. Due to pressure gradients, O₂ from the alveoli enters the blood and reaches the tissues. CO₂ enters into the blood from the tissues and reaches alveoli for elimination. As the solubility of CO₂ is 20-25 times higher than that of O₂, the partial pressure of CO₂ is much higher than that of O₂.

Question 17.
Write the note on respiratory pigments.
Answer:
Haemoglobin belongs to the class of conjugated protein. The iron-containing pigment portion haem constitutes only 4% and the rest colourless protein of the histone class globin. Hemoglobin has a molecular weight of 68,000 and contains four atoms of iron, each of which can combine with a molecule of oxygen.

Methaemoglobin If the iron component of the haem moieties is in the ferric state, then the normal ferrous state, is called methemoglobin. Methaemoglobin does not bind O₂. Normally RBC contains less than 1% methemoglobin.

Question 18.
Explain the transport of oxygen In blood.
Answer:
Molecular oxygen is carried in blood in two ways: bound to hemoglobin within the red blood cells and dissolved in plasma. Oxygen is poorly soluble in water, so only 3% of the oxygen is transported in the dissolved form. 97% of oxygen binds with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin (HbO₂). The rate at which haemoglobin binds with O₂ is regulated by the partial pressure of O₂.

Each haemoglobin carries maximum of four molecules of oxygen. In the alveoli high pO₂, low pCO₂, low temperature and less H+ concentration, favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues low p02, high pCO₂, high H+ and high temperature favours the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin.

A sigmoid curve (S-shaped) is obtained when the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen is plotted against pO₂. This curve is called the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. This S-shaped curve has a steep slope for pO₂ values between 10 and 50 mm Hg and then flattens between 70 and 100 mm Hg. Under normal physiological conditions, every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver about 5 mL of O₂ to the tissues.

Question 19.
Explain the transport of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Blood transports CO₂ from the tissue cells to the lungs in three ways:
1. Dissolved in plasma:
About 7 – 10% of CO₂ is transported in a dissolved form in the plasma.

2. Bound to haemoglobin:
About 20 – 25% of dissolved CO₂ is bound and carried in the RBCs as carbaminohaemoglobin (Hb CO₂)
CO₂ + Hb → Hb CO₂

3. As bicarbonate ions in plasma about 70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions. This is influenced by pC0₂ and the degree of haemoglobin oxygenation. RBCs contain a high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase, whereas small amounts of carbonic anhydrase is present in the plasma.

At the tissues, the pCO₂ is high due to catabolism and diffuses into the blood to form HCO₂ and H⁺ ions. When CO₂ diffuses into the RBCs, it combines with water forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₂) catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase. Carbonic acid is unstable and dissociates into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions.

Carbonic anhydrase facilitates the reaction in both directions.

The HCO₃^– moves quickly from the RBCs into the plasma, where it is carried to the lungs. At the alveolar site where pCO₂ is low, the reaction is reversed leading to the formation of CO₂ and water. Thus CO₂ trapped as HCO₃^– at the tissue level is transported to the alveoli and released out as CO₂. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers 4 mL of CO₂ to the alveoli for elimination.

Question 20.
How is respiration regulated?
Answer:
A specialized respiratory center present in the medulla oblongata of the hindbrain called the respiratory rhythm center is responsible for this regulation. Pneumotaxic centre present in ponsvaroli region of the brain moderates the function of the respiratory rhythm centre to ensure normal breathing.

The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm center is highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺. And H⁺ are eliminated out by the respiratory process. Receptors associated with the aortic arch and carotid artery send necessary signals to the rhythm center for remedial action. The role of O₂ is insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm.

Question 21.
Write the flow chart of the events during inspiration and expiration.
Answer:
Events in inspiration and expiration

Question 22.
What is nitrogen narcosis? What is its effect?
Answer:
When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume. This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation. This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis.

When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood-forming bubbles. Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including a stroke.

The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers. During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish-black.

Question 23.
Explain the disorders of the respiratory system.
Answer:
Asthma – It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing. Common allergens for asthma are dust, drugs, pollen grains, certain food items like fish, prawns and certain fruits etc. Emphysema – Emphysema is chronic breathlessness caused by the gradual breakdown of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of gaseous exchange, i.e., widening of the alveoli is called emphysema. The major cause for this disease is cigarette smoking, which reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis- The bronchi when it gets inflated due to pollution smoke and cigarette smoking, causes bronchitis. The symptoms are cough, shortness of breath, and sputum in the lungs. Pneumonia- Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or viruses is called pneumonia. The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.

Tuberculosis- Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculate. This infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones. The collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this disease. Occupational respiratory disorders- The disorders due to one’s occupation of working in industries like grinding or stone breaking, construction sites, cotton industries, etc.

Dust produced affects the respiratory tracts. Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. Silicosis and asbestosis are occupational respiratory diseases resulting from the inhalation of particles of silica from sand grinding and asbestos into the respiratory tract. Workers, working in such industries must wear protective masks.

Question 24.
What are the effects of smoking?
Answer:
Smoking is inhaling the smoke from burning tobacco. There are thousands of known chemicals which include nicotine, tar, carbon monoxide, ammonia, sulfur dioxide, and even small quantities of arsenic. Carbon monoxide and nicotine damage the cardiovascular system and tar damages the gaseous exchange system.

Nicotine is the chemical that causes addiction and is a stimulant which makes the heart beat faster and the narrowing of blood vessels results in raised blood pressure and coronary heart diseases. The presence of carbon monoxide reduces oxygen supply. Lung cancer, cancer of the mouth, and larynx are more common in smokers than non-smokers.

Smoking also causes cancer of the stomach, pancreas, and bladder and lowers sperm count in men. Smoking can cause lung diseases by damaging the airways and alveoli and results in emphysema and chronic bronchitis. These two diseases along with asthma are often referred to as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

When a person smokes, nearly 85% of the smoke released is inhaled by the smoker himself and others in the vicinity, called passive smokers, are also affected. Guidance or counseling should be done in such users to withdraw from this habit.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter Chapter 16 Javascript Functions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Javascript Functions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Javascript Functions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The parameters work as:
(a) local variable
(b) global Variable
(c) file variable
(d) block variable
Answer:
(a) local variable

Question 2.
Predefined functions are also called as:
(a) library functions
(b) storage functions
(c) instructions
(d) commands
Answer:
(a) library functions

Question 3.
Larger programs are divided into smaller are called:
(a) modules
(b) block
(c) sets
(d) group
Answer:
(a) modules

Question 4.
Which of the following is used to enhance re-usability and program clarity?
(a) Functions
(b) Modules
(c) Sets
(d) Instructions
Answer:
(a) Functions

Question 5.
Which of the following allow the programmer to modularize a program?
(a) Library functions
(b) User defined functions
(c) Normal functions
(d) Ordinary functions
Answer:
(b) User defined functions

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a function in JavaScript?
Answer:
A function is a block of JavaScript code that is defined once but may be executed or invoked any number of times. Functions are used to encapsulate code that performs a specific task.

Question 2.
What is the use of function?
Answer:
Sometimes functions are defined for commonly required tasks to avoid the repetition entailed in typing the same statements over and over. More generally, they are used to keep code that performs a particular job in one place in order to enhance re-usability and program clarity.

Question 3.
Write a note on Library functions?
Answer:
Pre-defined functions are already defined in the JavaScript library which are also called Library functions. For example isNaN( ), toUpperCase( ), toLowerCase( ), length( ), alert( ), prompt( ),write( ) etc… are pre-defined functions.

Question 4.
Write a note on user defined functions?
Answer:
User-defined functions allow the programmer to modularize a program. Most computer programs that solve real-world problems are much large, occupy more space in the computer memory and takes more time to execute. Hence such large programs are divided into small programs are called modules.

Question 5.
Write the syntax of functions?
Answer:
The format of a function definition is –
Function function-name(parameters list)
{
Declaration of variable Executable statements;
}

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the cube of a number using function?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> print the cube number
</title>
</head>
<Title>
Function cube</Title>
<Script type = “text/Javascript”>
<!—
var input = window.prompt (“Enter value : ”, “0”);
var v = parselnt (input); var c = cube (v);
document, write In (“<br><h4><u> cube function </u> </h4>”);
document, write In (“Number *V* “<br> The cube =” *C);
function cube (x)
{
var cube = x* x * x; return c;
}
//–>
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>
OUTPUT
Enter value : 5
Cube Function Number : 5
The cube : 125

Question 2.
Write a program in JavaScript to find the sum of 10 numbers using function?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<Title> Function sum of 10 Numbers </Title>
<Script type = “text/Javascript”>
<!—
var input 1 = window.prompt (“Enter initial value : ”, “0”);
var input 2 = window.prompt (“Enter final value : ”, “0”);
var v1 = parse Int (input 1);
var v2 = parse Int (input 2);
var r = res (v1 , v2);
document, write In (“<br><h4><u> Function for sum of 10 Numbers </u> </h4>”);
document, write In (“Initial Number : “ +v1+” <br> Final Number : “+v2+”<br>
The result =”+r);
function result (n)
{
var r = n* (n+1)/2
return r;
//–>
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>
OUTPUT
Enter initial value : 1
Enterfinal value : 10
Function for sum of 10 numbers
Initial No : 1
FinalNo : 10
The result : 55

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Javascript Functions Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
…………………… often use their argument values to compute a return value that becomes the value of the function invocation expression.
(a) function
(b) parameter
(c) non-parameter
(d) expression
Answer:
(a) function

Question 2.
…………………… method returns the element that has the ID attribute with the specified value.
(a) elements [o]
(b) getElementByid( )
(c) Nan ( )
(d) NaN (“A”)
Answer:
(b) getElementByid( )

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the types of function?
Answer:
JavaScript supports two types functions. They are:

1. Pre-defined or Library Functions
2. User-defined Functions

Question 2.
Define NaN( )?
Answer:
The is NaN( ) function is used to check whether the given value or variable is valid number. This function returns true if the given value is not a number. For example is NaN(“12”), is NaN(“A”).

Question 3.
What are the different types of predefined functions?
Answer:

III. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write a program to find the sum of 2 numbers?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>Function Example</title>
<script type=“text/JavaScript”>
var input1=window.prompt(“Enter Value 1 “0”);
var input2=window.prompt(“Enter Value2 “0”);
var v1=parselnt(input1);
var v2=parselnt(input2);
var s=sum(v1,v2);
document.writeln(“<br><h4><u>Example for Function</u></h4>”);
document.writeln(“First No + v1 + “ <br>Second No + v2 + “<br> The Sum =” + s);
function sum(x, y)
{
var s=x+y;
return s;
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write a program to validate whether the entered value is a number or not?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>Example Program to test isNan( ) Function</title>
</head>
<body>
<h4><u>Example Program to test isNan() Function</u></h4>
<script language=“JavaScript”>
function checknum( )
{
var n=document.form1.text1 .value;
if(isNaN (n)==true)
{
document.form1.text2.value=“Not a Number +n;
}
else
{
document, form 1 ,text2.value=“It is Number : ”+n;
}
}
</script>
<form name=“form1’’>
Enter a Number 1:
<input type=“text” name=“textl” size=3>
<br><br>
<input type= “button” value=“Click to Check” onClick=“checknum( )”>
<input type=“text” name=“text2” size=30>
<br>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write a program using functions to have an online quiz?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>On-line Quiz</title>
<script type= “text/JavaScript”>
function checkAnswer( )
{
//var myQuiz=document.getElementById(“myQuiz”);
if (document.getElementById(“myQuiz”).elements[0],checked)
alert(“Congratulations, Your Answer is correct”);
else
alert(“Your Answer is incorrect, Please try Again”);
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
<form id=“myQuiz” aotion=“JavaScript:checkAnswer( )”>
<p> Which is not a Programming Language: <br>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“Word” />
<label> MS-Word</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“Cobol” />
<label> COBOL</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“CPP” />
<label> C++</label>
<input type=“radio” name=“radiobutton” value=“VB” />
<label>Visual BASIC</label><br><br>
<input type=“submit” name-“submit” value=“Submit” />
<input type=“reset” name=“reset” value=“Reset” />
</p>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following deals with procedures, practices and values?
(a) Piracy
(b) Programs
(c) Virus
(d) Computer ethics
Answer:
(d) Computer ethics

Question 2.
Commercial programs made available to the public illegally are known as:
(a) freeware
(b) warez
(c) free software
(d) software
Answer:
(b) warez

Question 3.
Which one of the following are self-repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves?
(a) Cirases
(b) Worms
(c) Spyware
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) Worms

Question 4.
Which one of the following tracks a user visits a website?
(a) Spyware
(b) Cookies
(c) Worms
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) Cookies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a malicious program on computer systems?
(a) Worms
(b) Trojans
(c) Spyware
(d) Cookies
Answer:
(d) Cookies

Question 6.
A computer network security that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic is:
(a) Cookies
(b) Virus
(c) firewall
(d) Worms
Answer:
(c) firewall

Question 7.
The process of converting cipher text to plain text is called:
(a) encryption
(b) decryption
(c) key
(d) proxy server
Answer:
(b) decryption

Question 8.
e-commerce means:
(a) electronic commerce
(b) electronic data exchange
(c) electric data exchange
(d) electronic commercialization
Answer:
(a) electronic commerce

Question 9.
Distributing unwanted e-mail to others is called:
(a) scam
(b) spam
(c) fraud
(d) spoofing
Answer:
(b) spam

Question 10.
Legal recognition for transactions are carried out by:
(a) Electronic Data Interchange
(b) Electronic Data Exchange
(c) Electronic Data Transfer
(d) Electrical Data Interchange
Answer:
(a) Electronic Data Interchange

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is harvesting?
Answer:
A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to other’s account(s).

Question 2.
What are Warez?
Answer:
Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called Warez.

Question 3.
Write a short note on cracking?
Answer:
Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified. A cracker (also called a black hat or dark side hacker) is a malicious or criminal hacker. “Cracking” meAnswer:trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data.

Question 4.
Write two types of cyber attacks?
Answer:

Cyber Attack	Function
Virus	A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
Worms	Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
Spyware	Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software. ‘
Ransomware	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Question 5.
What is a Cookie?
Answer:
A cookie is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of firewalls?
Answer:
A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside, the network.

They are generally categorized as network- based or host-based. Network based firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LAN [Local area Network], WAN [Wide Area Network] and intranets.

Question 2.
Write about encryption and decryption?
Answer:
Encryption and decryption are processes that ensure confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information. Encryption is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data (called cipher-text).

Decryption is the reverse process of converting the cipher-text back to plaintext. Encryption and decryption are done by cryptography. In cryptography a key is a piece of information (parameter) that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.

Question 3.
Explain symmetric key encryption?
Answer:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption. The main disadvantage of the symmetric key encryption is that all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to Encrypt the data before they can decrypt it. If anybody intercepts the key information, they may read all message.

Question 4.
What are the guidelines to be followed by any computer user?
Answer:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

1. Honesty: Users should be truthful while using the internet.
2. Confidentiality: Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
3. Respect: Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
4. Professionalism: Each user should maintain professional conduct.
5. Obey The Law: Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
6. Responsibility: Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions.

Question 5.
What are ethical issues? Name some?
Answer:
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must, be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.
Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

1. Cyber crime
2. Software Piracy
3. Unauthorized Access
4. Hacking
5. Use of computers to commit fraud
6. Sabotage in the form of viruses

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the various crimes happening using computer?
Answer:

Crime	Function
Crime Function	Hacking, threats, and blackmailing towards a business or a person.
Cyber stalking	Harassing through online
Malware	Malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions including stealing, encrypting or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions and monitoring user’s computer activity without their permission.
Harvesting	A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s).
Identity theft	It is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
Intellectual property theft	Stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.                                   _
Salami slicing	Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction.

Question 2.
What is piracy? Mention the types of piracy. How can it be prevented?
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes:

(i) Stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized meAnswer:and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

(ii) Downloading software from illegal network sources.

• An entirely different approach to software piracy is called shareware, acknowledges the futility of trying to stop people from copying software and instead relies on people’s honesty. Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly.
• To prevent unauthorized access, Firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), Virus and Cpntent Scanners, Patches and Hot fixes are used.

Question 3.
Write the different types of cyber attacks?
Answer:

Cyber Attack	Function
Virus	A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
Worms	Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
Spyware	Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.
Ransomware	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A moral code that is evaluated as right is …………………..
(b) viruses
(c) cracking
(d) ethics
Answer:
(d) ethics

Question 2.
………………… is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals for financial gain.
(a) intellectual property theft
(b) Identity theft
(c) Salami slicing
(d) Spoofing
Answer:
(b) Identity theft

Question 3.
Stealing data from a computer system without the knowledge or permission is called
(a) warez
(b) hacking
(c) cracking
(d) phishing
Answer:
(b) hacking

Question 4.
One of the most common virus is ……………………..
(a) Ransomware
(b) Spyware
(c) worms
(d) Trojan
Answer:
(d) Trojan

Question 5.
…………………….. is the intermediary between the end users and a web browser.
(a) Firewall
(b) Proxy server
(c) Cookies
(d) Warez
Answer:
(b) Proxy serve

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is hacking?
Answer:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents.

Question 2.
What is proxy server? Explain its working?
Answer:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the end users and a web server. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resources available from a different server. The proxy server examines the request, checks authenticity and grants the request based on that. Proxy servers typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time.

Question 3.
Mention any 2 reasons as to why the websites use cookies?
Answer:

1. To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
2. It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Website.

Question 4.
What is meant by MITM?
Answer:
Man-in-the-middle attack (MITM; also Janus attack) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Question 5.
Define software piracy?
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is cyber crime?
Answer:
A cyber-crime is a crime which involves computer and network. This is becoming a growing threat to society and is caused by criminals or irresponsible action of individuals who are exploiting the widespread use of Internet. It presents a major challenge to the ethical use of information technologies. Cyber-crime also poses threats to the integrity, safety and survival of most business systems.

Question 2.
Write a short note on ethics?
Answer:
Ethics means “What is wrong and What is Right”. It is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers. An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ethics. Morals refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society. Similarly, in cyber-world, there are certain standards such as

1. Do not use pirated software
2. Do not use unauthorized user accounts
3. Do not steal others’ passwords
4. Do not hack

Question 3.
Differentiate Spyware and Ransomware?
Answer:

Spyware	Ransomware
Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.	Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the ‘ organizations millions each year.

Question 4.
What are the types of encryption?
Answer:
There are two types of encryption schemes as listed below:

(i) Symmetric Key encryption:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.

(ii) Public key encryption:
Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric function. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process.

Question 5.
Write down the points to be noted to be safe from cyber crime?
Answer:
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

1. Complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
2. When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
3. Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
4. When using anti-virus software, keep it up-to-date.

IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain public key encryption and asymetric encryption in digital certificate?
Answer:
1. Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process. One of the keys is typically known as the private key and the other is known as the public key.

2. The private key is kept secret by the owner and the public key is either shared amongst authorized recipients or made available to the public at large. The data encrypted with the recipient’s public key can only be decrypted with the corresponding private key.

3. A digital certificate in a client-server model of communication is one of the example of Asymmetric Encryption. A certificate is a package of information that identifies a user and a server. It contains information such as an organization’s name, the organization that issued the certificate, the users’ email address and country, and user’s public key.

4. When, a server and a client require a secure encrypted communication, they send a query over the network to the other party, which sends back a copy of the certificate. The other party’s public key can be extracted from the certificate. A certificate can also be used to uniquely identify the holder.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:

1. Spam
2. Fraud
3. Cyber stalking
4. Spoofing
5. Virus
6. Worms

Answer:

1. Spam: Distribute unwanted e-mail to a large number of internet users.
2. Fraud: Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
3. Cyber stalking: Harassing through online.
4. Spoofing: It is a malicious practice in which communication is send from unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
5. Virus: A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
6. Worms: Worms are self- repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

Question 3.
Explain digital signature with a functional diagram?
Answer:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message, as well as acknowledging information given by the signer. To create a digital signature, signing software (email) creates a one-way hash of the electronic data to be signed. The user’s private key to encrypt the hash, returning a value that is unique to the hashed data.

The encrypted hash, along with other information such as the hashing algorithm, forms the digital signature. Any change in the data, even to a single bit, results in a different hash value. This attribute enables others to validate the integrity of the data by using the signer’s public key to decrypt the hash. If the decrypted hash matches a second computed hash of the same data, it proves that the data hasn’t changed since it was signed.

If the two hashes don’t match, the data has either been tampered with in some way (indicating a failure of integrity) or the signature was ,created with a private key that doesn’t correspond to the public key presented by the signer (indicating a failure of authentication).

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A steady increase in general price level is termed as……….
(a) Wholesale price index
(b) Business Cycle
(c) Inflation
(d) National income
Answer:
(c) Inflation

Question 2.
The word ‘Macro’ is derived from the Greek word………….
(a) Makros
(b) Macros
(c) Macrow
(d) mac
Answer:
(a) Makros

Question 3.
When net factor income from abroad is deducted from NNP, the net value is………..
(a) Gross National Product
(b) Disposable Income
(c) Net Domestic Product
(d) Personal Income
Answer:
(c) Net Domestic Product

Question 4.
Who first introduced the concept of national Income?
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Marshall
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(a) Simon Kuznets

Question 5.
The core of the classical theory of employment is
(a) Law of Diminishing Return
(b) Law of Demand
(c) Law of Markets
(d) Law of Consumption
Answer:
(c) Law of Markets

Question 6.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

Question 7.
An increase in the marginal propensity to consume will:
(a) Lead to consumption function becoming steeper
(b) Shift the consumption function upwards
(c) Shift the consumption function downwards
(d) Shift savings function upwards
Answer:
(a) Lead to consumption function becoming steeper

Question 8.
State whether the statement is true or false.
(a) Keynes propounded the fundamental psychological law of consumption.
(ii) J.M. Keynes has divided factors influencing the consumption function.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 9.
………… inflation results in a serious depreciation of the value of money.
(a) Creeping
(b) Walking
(c) Running
(d) Hyper
Answer:
(d) Hyper

Question 10.
Bank rate is lowered during………….
(a) Inflation
(b) Price
(c) Employment
(d) Deflation
Answer:
(d) Deflation

Question 11.
Bank Rate means………..
(a) Re-discounting the first class securities
(b) Interest rate
(c) Exchange rate
(d) Growth rate
Answer:
(a) Re-discounting the first class securities

Question 12.
Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) RBI – Reserve Bank of India
(b) SBI – State Bank of India
(c) IMF – International Monetary Fund
(d) ATM – Any Time Money
Answer:
(d) ATM – Any Time Money

Question 13.
Exchange rates are determined in ……….
(a) money market
(b) foreign exchange market
(c) stock market
(d) capital market
Answer:
(b) foreign exchange market

Question 14.
Foreign Investment mostly takes the form of………….
(a) Indirect investment
(b) Direct investment
(c) IMF investment
(d) World bank investment
Answer:
(b) Direct investment

Question 15.
New Development Bank is associated with…………..
(a) BRICS
(b) WTO
(c) SAARC
(d) ASEAN
Answer:
(a) BRICS

Question 16.
Assertion (A): SAARC is promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and improve their quality of life.
Reason (R): To strengthen co-operation with other under developing countries.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 17.
Methods of repayment of public debt is…………
(a) Conversion
(b) Sinking fund
(c) Funded debt
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 18.
………. means different sources of government income.
(a) Public finance
(b) Public revenue
(c) Public expenditure
(d) Public credit
Answer:
(b) Public revenue

Question 19.
Which of the following is main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
Answer:
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 20.
M.N. Roy was associated with ………….
(a) Congress Plan
(b) People’s Plan
(c) Bombay Plan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) People’s Plan

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define ‘Economic Model’.
Answer:

1. A model is a simplified representation of real situation.
2. Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships and their behaviour.
3. A model is an explanation of how the economy, or part of the economy, works.
4. Most economic models are built with mathematics, graphs and equations, and attempt to explain relationships between economic variables.

Question 22.
Define Profit Motive.
Answer:
Profit Motive: Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy. Each individual and organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit. Advance technology, division of labour, and specialisation are followed. The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is ‘to maximize profit.’

Question 23.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income means the total money value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a particular period of time (one year).

Question 24.
Define “Capital Gains”.
Answer:
The problem also arises with regard to capital gains. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Question 25.
Define full employment.
Answer:
Full employment refers to a situation in which every able bodied person who is willing to work at the prevailing wage rate, is employed. In other words full employment means that persons who are willing to work and able to work must have employment or a job.

Question 26.
What do you mean by propensity to save?
Answer:

1. Thus the consumption function measures not only the amount spent on consumption but also the amount saved.
2. This is because the propensity to save is merely the propensity not to consume.
3. The 45° line may therefore be regarded as a zero-saving line, and the shape and position of the C curve indicate the division of income between consumption and saving.

Question 27.
Define “Ceteris paribus”.
Answer:
Ceteris paribus (constant extraneous variables): The other variables such as income distribution, tastes, habits, social customs, price movements, population growth, etc. do not change and consumption depends on income alone.

Question 28.
Write IMF Functions group.
Answer:
The functions of the IMF are grouped under three heads.

1. Financial – Assistance to correct short and medium term deficit in BOP;
2. Regulatory – Code of conduct and ‘
3. Consultative – Counseling and technical consultancy.

Question 29.
Define public finance.
Answer:
“Public finance is one of those subjects that lie on the border line between Economics and Politics. It is concerned with income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one to the other”. – Huge Dalton
“Public finance is an investigation into the nature and principles of the state revenue and expenditure”. – Adam Smith

Question 30.
State the meaning of environment.
Answer:
Meaning of Environmental Economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity and makes choices based on those values. The goal is to balance the economic activity and the environmental impacts by taking into account all the costs and benefits.

In short, Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies. Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic ‘ effects of national or local environmental policies around the world.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Indicate the demerits of socialism.
Answer:
Demerits of Socialism:

1. Red Tapism and Bureaucracy: As decision are taken by government agencies, approval of many officials and movement of files from one table to other takes time and leads to red tapism.
2. Absence of Incentive: The major limitation of socialism is that this system does not provide any incentive for efficiency. Therefore, productivity also suffers.
3. Limited Freedom of Choice: Consumers do not enjoy freedom of choice over the consumption of goods and services.
4. Concentration of Power: The State takes all major decisions. The private takes no initiative in making economic decisions. Hence, the State is more powerful and misuse of power can also take place.

Question 32.
Differentiate between personal and disposable income.
Answer:

Personal income	Disposable income
Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before payment of direct taxes in a year.	Disposable Income is also known as Disposable personal income. It is the individuals income after the payment of income tax. This is the amount available for households for consumption.

Question 33.
What is the main feature of rural unemployment?
Answer:

1. India’s rural economy has both unemployment and underemployment.
2. The major feature of rural unemployment is the existence of unemployment in the form of disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment.
3. In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.

Question 34.
Compare the Classical Theory of international trade with Modern Theory of International trade.
Answer:

S.No.	Classical Theory of International TVade	Modern Theory of International Trade
1.	The classical theory explains the phenomenon of international trade on the basis of labour theory of value.	The modem theory explains the phenomenon of international trade on the basis of general theory of value.
2.	It presents a one factor (labour) model.	It presents a multi – factor (labour and capital) model.
3.	It attributes the differences in the comparative costs to differences in the productive efficiency of workers in the two countries.	It attributes the differences in comparative costs to the differences in factor endowments in the two countries.

Question 35.
Write the agenda of BRICS Summit, 2018.
Answer:
South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS summit in July 2018. The agenda for BRICS summit 2018 includes Inclusive growth, Trade issues, Global governance, Shared Prosperity, International peace and security.

Question 36.
Write the preparation of the Budget.
Answer:
Preparation of the Budget
The Ministry of Finance prepares the Central Budget every year. At the state level the finance department is responsible for the Annual State Budget. While preparing the budget, the following factors are taken into account.

1. The macro economic targets to be achieved within a plan period;
2. The basic strategy of the budget;
3. The financial requirements of different projects;
4. Estimates of the revenue expenditures (includes defence expenditure, subsidy, interest payment on debt etc.)
5. Estimates of the capital expenditures (includes development of railways, roadways, irrigations etc.);
6. Estimates of revenue receipts from tax and non-tax revenues;
7. Estimates of capital receipts from the recovery of loans, disinvestment of public sector units, market borrowings etc.
8. Estimates of the gap between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure; and
9. Estimates of fiscal deficit, primary deficit and revenue deficit.

Question 37.
Explain the principles of organic farming.
Answer:
The general principles of organic farming are:

1. Protect the environment, minimize soil degradation and erosion, decrease pollution, optimize biological productivity and promote a sound state of health.
2. Maintain long-term soil fertility by optimizing conditions for biological activity within the soil.
3. Maintain biological diversity within the system.
4. Recycle materials and resources to the greatest extent possible within the enterprise.
5. Provide attentive care that promotes the health and meets the behavioural needs of livestock.
6. Prepare organic products, emphasizing careful processing, and handling methods in order to maintain the organic integrity and vital qualities of the products at all stages of production.

Question 38.
What are the functions of statistics?
Answer:

1. Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
2. It simplifies mass of figures.
3. It facilitates comparison.
4. It helps in formulating and testing.
5. It helps in prediction.
6. It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.

Question 39.
State the concept of super multiplier.
Super Multiplier: (k and β interaction)
Answer:

1. The super multiplier is greater than simple multiplier which includes only autonomous investment and no induced investment, while super multiplier includes induced investment.
2. In order to measure the total effect of initial investment on income, Hicks has combined the k and β mathematically and given it the name of the Super Multiplier.
3. The super multiplier is worked out by combining both induced consumption and induced investment.

Question 40.
What is the main difference between Adam Smith and Ricardo with regard to the emergence of foreign trade?
Answer:

S.No.	Adam Smith Foreign Trade	Ricardo Foreign Trade
1.	According to Adam Smith the basis of International trade was absolute cost advantage.	Ricardo demonstrates that the basis of trade is the comparative cost difference.
2.	Trade between two countries would be mutually beneficial when one country produces a commodity at an absolute cost advantage.	Trade can take place even if the absolute cost difference is absent but there is comparative cost difference.
3.	Adam Smith argued that all nations can be benefitted when there is free trade and specialisation in terms of their absolute cost advantage.	According to Ricardo a country can gain from trade when it produces at relatively lower costs.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. The functioning of an economy by its activities is explained in flow chart.

1. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
2. These two activities are supported by several other activities.
3. The ultimate aim of these activities is to achieve growth. The ‘exchange activity’ supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non-economic activities.
4. The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy and others.
5. The major non-economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment,
   governance, regulations etc.

In addition to these supporting activities, external activities from other economies such as import, export, international relations, emigration, immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings, etc. also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of social accounting in economic analysis.
Answer:
National Income and Social Accounting:

1. National income is also being measured by the social accounting method.
2. Under this method, the transactions among various sectors such as firms, households, government, etc., are recorded and their interrelationships traced.
3. The social accounting framework is useful for economists as well as policy makers, because it represents the major economic flows and statistical relationships among various sectors of the economic system.
4. It becomes possible to forecast the trends of economy more accurately.

Social Accounting and Sector:
Under this method, the economy is divided into several sectors. A sector is a group of individuals or institutions having common interrelated economic transactions. The economy is divided into the following sectors:

1. Firms,
2. Households,
3. Government,
4. Rest of the world and
5. Capital sector.

1. “Firms” undertake productive activities. Thus, they are all organizations which employ the factors of production to produce goods and services.
2. “Households” are consuming entities and represent the factors of production, who receive payment for services rendered by them to firms. Households consume the goods and services that are produced by the firms.
3. “The Government sector” refers to the economic transactions of public bodies at all levels, centre, state and local. The main function of the government is to provide social goods like defence, public health, education, etc.
4. “Rest of the world sector” relates to international economic transactions of the country. It contains income, export and import transactions, external loan transaction, and allied overseas investment income and payments.
5. “Capital sector” refers to saving and investment activities. It includes the transactions of banks, insurance corporations, financial houses, and other agencies of the money market.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the following in short:
(i) Seasonal unemployment
(ii) Frictional unemployment
(iii) Educated unemployment Seasonal Unemployment:
Answer:
(i) Seasonal unemployment

1. This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
2. In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
3. These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
4. Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry,
   holiday resorts etc.

(ii) Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

1. Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
2. This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery, shortage of raw materials etc.
3. The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

(iii) Educated Unemployment:

1. Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does not match the job.
2. Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

[OR]

(b) Describe the types of unemployment.
Answer:
The following are the types of unemployment.

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Seasonal Unemployment
3. Frictional Unemployment
4. Educated Unemployment
5. Technical Unemployment
6. Structural Unemployment
7. Disguised Unemployment

1. Cyclical Unemployment:

• This unemployment exists during the downturn phase of trade cycle in the economy.
• In a business cycle during the period of recession and depression, income and output fall leading to widespread unemployment.
• It is caused by deficiency of effective demand.
• Cyclical unemployment can be cured by public investment or expansionary monetary policy.

2. Seasonal Unemployment:

• This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
• In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
• These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
• Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry, holiday resorts etc.

3. Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

• Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
• This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery, shortage of raw materials etc.
• The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

4. Educated Unemployment:

• Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does not match the job.
• Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

5. Technical Unemployment:

• Modem technology being capital intensive requires less labourers and contributes to technological unemployment.
• Now a days, invention and innovations lead to the adoption of new techniques there by the existing workers are retrenched.
• Labour saving devices are responsible for technological unemployment.

6. Structural Unemployment:

• Structural unemployment is due to drastic change in the structure of the society.
• Lack of demand for the product or shift in demand to other products cause this type of unemployment.
• For example rise in demand for mobile phones has adversely affected the demand for cameras, tape recorders etc.
• So this kind of unemployment results from massive and deep rooted changes in economic structure.

7. Disguised Unemployment:

• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are than what is actually required.
• Even if some workers are withdrawn, production does not suffer.
• This type of unemployment is found in agriculture.
• A person is said to be disguisedly by unemployed if his contribution to output is less than what he can produce by working for normal hours per day.
• In this situation, marginal productivity of labour is zero or less or negative.

Question 43 (a).
Mention the differences between accelerator and multiplier effect.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the causes of inflation on the economy?
Answer:
Causes of Inflation:
The main causes of inflation in India are as follows:
(i) Increase in Money Supply: Inflation is caused by an increase in the supply of money which leads to increase in aggregate demand. The higher the growth rate of the nominal money supply, the higher is the rate of inflation.

(ii) Increase in Disposable Income: When the disposable income of the people increases, it raises their demand for goods and services. Disposable income may increase with the rise in national income or reduction in taxes or reduction in the saving of the people.

(iii) Increase in Public Expenditure: Government activities have been expanding due to developmental activities and social welfare programmes. This is also a cause for price rise.

(iv) Increase in Consumer Spending: The demand for goods and services increases when they are given credit to buy goods on hire-purchase and installment basis.

(v) Cheap Monetary Policy: Cheap monetary policy or the policy of credit expansion also leads to increase in the money supply which raises the demand for goods and services
in the economy.

(vi) Deficit Financing: In order to meet its mounting expenses, the government resorts to deficit financing by borrowing from the public and even by printing more notes.

(vii) Black Assests, Activities and Money: The existence of black money and black assests due to corruption, tax evasion etc., increase the aggregate demand. People spend such money, lavishly. Black marketing and hoarding reduces the supply of goods.

(viii) Repayment of Public Debt: Whenever the government repays its past internal debt to the public, it leads to increase in the money supply with the public.

(ix) Increase in Exports: When exports are encouraged, domestic supply of goods decline. So prices rise.

Question 44 (a).
Explain the role of Commercial Banks in economic development.
Answer:
Role of Commercial Banks in Economic Development of a Country
(i) Capital Formation:

1. Banks play an important role in capital formation, which is essential for the economic development of a country.
2. They mobilize the small savings of the people scattered over a wide area through their network of branches all over the country and make it available for productive purposes.

(ii) Creation of Credit:

1. Banks create credit for the purpose of providing more funds for development projects.
2. Credit creation leads to increased production, employment, sales and prices and thereby they bring about faster economic development.

(iii) Channelizing the Funds towards Productive Investment:

1. Banks invest the savings mobilized by them for productive purposes.
2. Capital formation is not the only function of commercial banks.

(iv) Encouraging Right Type of Industries:

1. Many banks help in the development of the right type of industries by extending loan to right type of persons.
2. In this way, they help not only for industrialization of the country but also for the economic development of the country.
3. They grant loans and advances to manufacturers whose products are in great demand.

(v) Banks Monetize Debt:

1. Commercial banks transform the loan to be repaid after a certain period into cash, which can be immediately used for business activities.
2. Manufacturers and wholesale traders cannot increase their sales without selling goods on credit basis.

(vi) Finance to Government:

1. Government is acting as the promoter of industries in underdeveloped countries for which finance is needed for it.
2. Banks provide long-term credit to Government by investing their funds in Government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills.

(vii) Employment Generation:

1. After the nationalization of big banks, banking industry has grown to a great extent.
2. Bank’s branches are opened frequently, which leads to the creation of new employment opportunities.

(viii) Banks Promote Entrepreneurship:
In recent days, banks have assumed the role of developing entrepreneurship particularly in developing countries like India by inducing new entrepreneurs to take up the well- formulated projects and provision of counseling services like technical and managerial guidance.

[OR]

(b) State the objectives of Foreign Direct Investment.
Answer:
Objectives of FDI:
FDI has the following objectives.

1. Sales Expansion
2. Acquisition of resources
3. Diversification
4. Minimization of competitive risk.

(i) FDI may help to increase the investment level and thereby the income and employment in the host country.
(ii) Direct foreign investment may facilitate transfer of technology to the recipient country.
(iii) FDI may also bring revenue to the government of host country when it taxes profits of foreign firms or gets royalties from concession agreements.
(iv) A part of profit from direct foreign investment may be ploughed back into the expansion, modernization or development of related industries.
(v) It may kindle a managerial revolution in the recipient country through professional management and sophisticated management techniques.
(vi) Foreign capital may enable the country to increase its exports and reduce import requirements. And thereby ease BOP disequilibrium.
(vii) Foreign investment may also help increase competition and break domestic monopolies.
(viii) If FDI adds more value to output in the recipient country than the return on capital from foreign investment, then the social returns are greater than the private returns on foreign investment.
(ix) By bringing capital and foreign exchange FDI may help in filling the savings gap and the foreign exchange gap in order to achieve the goal of national economic development.
(x) Foreign investments may stimulate domestic enterprise to invest in ancillary industries in collaboration with foreign enterprises.

Question 45 (a).
What are the causes for the increase in government expenditure?
Answer:
The modem state is a welfare state. In a welfare state, the government has to perform several functions viz Social, Economic and political. These activities are the cause for increasing public expenditure.
1. Population Growth
During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore in 1951, to 121 Crore in 2011. The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and order, etc. Young population requires increasing expenditure on education and youth services, whereas the aging population requires transfer payments like old age pension, social security and health facilities.

2. Defence Expenditure
There has been enormous increase in defence expenditure in India during planning period. The defence expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernisation of defence equipment. The defence expenditure of the government was Rs 10,874 crores in 1990-91 which increased significantly to Rs 2,95,511 crores.

3. Government Subsidies .
The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food, fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc. Because of the massive amounts of subsidies, the public expenditure has increased manifold..

The expenditure on subsidies by central government in 1990-91 was Rs 9581 crores which increased significantly to Rs 2,29,715.67 crores in 2018-19. Besides this, the corporate sectors also receive subsidies (incentives) of more than Rs 5 lakh crores.

4. Debt Servicing
The Government has been borrowihg heavily both from the internal and external sources. As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt servicing.
The interest payment of the central government has increased from Rs 21,500 crores in 1990-91 to Rs 5,75,794 crores in 2018-19.

5. Development Projects
The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc. The development projects involve huge investment.

6. Urbanization
There has been an increase in urbanization. In 1950-51 about 17% of the population was urban based. Now the urban population has increased to about 43%. There are more than 54 cities above one million population. The increase in urbanization requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amenities.

7. Industrialization
Setting up of basic and heavy industries involves a huge capital and long gestation period. It is the government which starts such industries in a planned economy. The under developed countries need a strong of infrastructure like transport, communication, power, fuel, etc….

8. Increase in grants in aid to state and union territories
There has been tremendous increase in grant – in – aid to state and union territories to meed natural disasters.

[OR]

(b) Describe the types of exchange rates.
Answer:
Exchange rates are also in the form of (a) Nominal exchange rate (b) Real exchange rate (c) Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and (d) Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER).
If 1 US Dollar = Rs 75
Nominal exchange rate = 75/1 = 75.
This is the bilateral nominal exchange rate.
Real Exchange Rate = \(\frac{ep_f}{p}\)
P = Price levels in India
P = Price levels in India
e = nominal exchange rate
If a pen costs Rs 50 in India and it costs 5 USD in the US,
Real Exchange Rate = = \(\frac{75×5}{5}\) = 7.5
If real exchange rate is equal to 1, the currencies are at purchasing power parity.
If the price of the pen in US = 0.66 USD, then,
the real exchange rate = = \(\frac{0.66×75}{50}\)
then it could be said that the USD and Indian Rupee are at purchasing power parity.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the Cambridge approach.
(OR)
Cash Balance approach of Marshall equation.
Answer:
Marshall’s Equation
The Marshall equation is expressed as:
M = KPY
Where
M is the quantity of money
Y is the aggregate real income of the community
P is Purchasing Power of money
K represents the fraction of the real income which the public desires to hold in the form of money
Thus, the price level P = M/KY or the value of money in terms of this equation can be found out by dividing the total quantity of goods which the public desires to holdout of the total income by the total supply of money.
According to Marshall’s equation the value of money is influenced not only by change in M, but also by changes in K.

[OR]

(b) Write the flow chart of correction of balance of payment disequilibrium?
Answer:

Question 47 (a).
Explain the methods of debt redemption.
Answer:
Methods of Redemption of Public Debt:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.
(i) Sinking Fund:

1. “Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
2. The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
3. By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
4. This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(ii) Sinking Fund:
Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.

1. It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
2. Under this system a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
3. Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(iii) Budgetary Surplus:

1. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
2. Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
3. However, this method is rarely possible.

(iv) Terminal Annuity:

1. In this method, Government pays off the public debt on the basis of terminal annuity in equal annual installments.
2. This is the easiest way of paying off the public debt.

(v) Repudiation:

1. It is the easiest way for the Government to get rid of the burden of payment of a loan.
2. In such cases, the Government does not recognise its obligation to repay the loan.
3. It is certainly not paying off a loan but destroying it.
4. However, in normal case the Government does not do so; if done it will lose its credibility,

(vi) Reduction in Rate of Interest:
Another method of debt redemption is the compulsory reduction in the rate of interest, during the time of financial crisis.

(vii) Capital Levy:

1. When the Government imposes levy on the capital assets owned by an individual or any institution, it is called capital levy.
2. This levy is imposed on capital assets above a minimum limit on a progressive scale.
3. The fund so collected can be used by the Government for paying off war time debt obligations.
4. This is the most controversial method of debt repayment

[OR]

(b) Differentiate the economic model with econometric model.
Answer:

S.No.	Economic Model	Econometric Model
1	Economic model is the theoretical construct that represents the complex economic process.	Econometric model is the statistical concept that represents the numerical estimate of the variables involved in economic process.
2	Economic model is based on mathematical modeling.	Econometric model is based on statistical modeling.
3	Economic model is focused on establishing the logical relationships between the variables in the model.	Econometric model is focused on estimating the magnitude and direction of relationship between the variables.
4	Economic model is applied in stating the theoretical relationship into mathematical equations.	Econometric model is applied in stating the empirical extent of the economic model.
5	Economic model believes that outcome is certain and exact. So disturbance term is not required.	Econometric modeL Hjelieveg that outcome is certain but not exact. So disturbance term plays the vital role.
6	Economic model is deterministic in nature.	Econometric model is stochastic in nature.
7	The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by is the economic model	The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by + μ is the econometric model