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Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 7 Thermodynamics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Thermodynamics Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer from the following:

Question 1.
The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called ………
(a) ΔE
(b) ΔH
(c) ΔS
(d) ΔG
Answer:
(b) ΔH

Question 2.
All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to
(a) decrease in entropy
(b) increase in enthalpy
(c) increase in free energy
(d) decrease in free energy
Answer:
(d) decrease in free energy

Question 3.
In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?
(a) q = w
(b) q = 0
(c) ΔE = q
(d) PΔV = 0
Answer:
(a) q = 0

Question 4.
In a reversible process, the change in entropy of the universe is ‘
(a) >0
(b) > 0
(c) < 0
(d) = 0
Answer:
(d) = 0

Question 5.
In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas
(a) w = -∆u
(b) w = ∆u + ∆H
(c) ∆u = 0
(d) w = 0
Answer:
(a) w = -∆u

Question 6.
The intensive property among the quantities below is
(a) mass
(b) volume
(c) enthalpy
(d) mass/volume
Answer:
(d) mass/volume

Question 7.
An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 x 10^-3 m³ to 1 x 10^-2 m³ at 300K against a constant pressure at 1 x 10⁵ Nm^-2. The work done is ………..
(a) – 900 J
(b) 900 kJ
(c) 270 kJ
(d) – 900 kJ
Answer:
(a) – 900 J
Hint:
w = – P∆V
w = – (1 x 105 Nm^-2) (1 x 10^-2 m³ – 1 x 10^-3 m³)
w = – 10⁵ (10^-2– 10^-3)Nm
w = – 10⁵ (10 – 1) 10^3-) J
w = – 10⁵(9x 10^-3) J
w = – 9 x 10² J
w = – 900 J

Question 8.
Heat of combustion is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) either positive or negative
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 9.
The heat of formation of CO and CO₂ are -26.4 kcal and -94 kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be
(a) +26.4 kcal
(b) -67.6 kcal
(c) -120.6 kcal
(d) +52.8 kcal
Answer:
(b) -67.6 kcal
Hint:
CO_(g) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)
∆H_C⁰ (CO) = [∆H_f(CO₂) – ∆H_f(CO) + ∆H_f(O₂)]
∆H_C⁰ (CO) = -94 KCal – [- 26.4 KCal + 0]
∆H_C⁰ (CO) = -94 KCal + 26.4 KCal
∆H_C⁰ (CO) = -67.4 KCal

Question 10.
C(diamond) → C(graphite), ∆H = -ve, this indicates that ………..
(a) graphite is more stable than diamond
(b) graphite has more energy than diamond
(c) both are equally stable
(d) stability cannot be predicted
Answer:
(a) graphite is more stable than diamond

Question 11.
The enthalpies of formation of Al₂O₃ and Cr₂O₃ are -1596 kJ and -1134 kJ, respectively. ∆H for reaction 2Al + Cr₂O₃ → 2Cr + Al₂O₃ is ……….
(a) -1365 kJ
(b) 2730 kJ
(c) -2730 kJ
(d) -462 kJ
Answer:
(d) -462 kJ
Answer:
2A1 + Cr₂O₃ → 2Cr + Al₂O₃
∆H_r⁰ = [2 ∆H_f (Cr) + ∆H_f (Al₂O₃)] – [2 ∆H_f (Al) + ∆H_f (Cr₂O₂)]
∆H_r⁰ = [0 + (- 1596 kJ)] – [0 + (- 1134)]
∆H_r⁰ = – 1596 kJ + 1134 kJ
∆H_r⁰ = – 462 kJ

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function?
(a) internal energy
(b) enthalpy
(c) entropy
(d) frictional energy
Answer:
(d) frictional energy

Question 13.
If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then …………
(a) ∆H > ∆U
(b) ∆H – ∆U = 0
(c) ∆H + ∆U = 0
(d) ∆H < ∆U
Answer:
(d) ∆H < ∆U

Question 14.
Change in internal energy, when 4 kJ of work is done on the system and 1 kJ of heat is given out by the system is ………….
(a) +1 kJ
(b) -5 kJ
(c) +3 kJ
(d) -3 kJ
Answer:
(c) +3 kJ
Hint:
∆U = q + w
∆U = – 1 kJ + 4 kJ
∆U = + 3 kJ

c

Question 15.
The work done by the liberated gas when 55.85 g of iron (molar mass 55.85 g mol^-1) reacts with hydrochloric acid in an open beaker at 25°C …………
(a) -2.48 kJ
(b) -2.22 kJ
(c) +2.22 kJ
(d) + 2.48 kJ
Answer:
(a)-2.48 kJ
Hint:
Fe + 2HCl → FeCl₂ + H₂
1 mole of Iron liberates 1 mole of hydrogen gas
55.85 g Iron = 1 mole Iron
∴ n = 1
T = 25°C = 298 K
w = -P\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\right)\)
w = -nRT
w = -1 x 8314 x 298 J
w = 2477.57 J
w = -2.48 k J

Question 16.
The value of AH for cooling 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas from 125°C to 25°C at constant pressure will be [given C_P = \(\frac {5}{2}\) R] …………..
(a) -250 R
(b) -500 R
(c) 500 R
(d) +250 R
Answer:
(b) -500 R
Hint:
T_i = 125°C = 398K
T_f = 25°C = 298 K
∆H = nC_p (T_f – T_i)
∆H = 2 x \(\frac {5}{2}\)R (298 – 398)
∆H = -500 R

Question 17.
Given that C_(g) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) ∆H°= a kJ; 2 CO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g) ∆H° = -b kJ; Calculate the ∆H° for the reaction C_(g) + H₂O_2(g) → CO_(g)
(a) \(\frac {b + 2a}{2}\)
(b) 2a – b
(c) \(\frac {2a – b}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac {b – 2a}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac {b – 2a}{2}\)
Hint:
C + O₂ → CO₂  ∆H° = -a kJ ……..(1)
2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ ∆H° = -b kJ …….(2)
C + ½O₂ → CO ∆H° = ?
(1) x (2)
2C + 2O₂ → 2CO₂ ∆H° = -2a KJ …….(3)
Reverse of equestion (2) will be
2CO₂ → 2CO + O₂ ∆H° = +b KJ …….(4)
(3) + (4)
2C + O₂ → 2CO ∆H° = b – 2a KJ …….(5)
(5) ÷ 2
C + O₂ → CO ∆H° = \(\frac {b – 2a}{2}\) KJ

Question 18.
When 15.68 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane are fully combusted at 0°C and 1 atmosphere, 32 litres of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure are consumed. The amount of heat released from this combustion in kJ is (∆H_C (CH₄) = – 890 kJ mol^-1 and ∆H_C (C₃H₈) = -2220 kJ mol^-1)
(a) -889 kJ
(b) -1390 kJ
(c) -3180 kJ
(d) -653.66 kJ
Answer:
(d) -653.66 kJ
Hint:
Given,
∆H_C (CH₄) = -890 kJ mol^-1
∆H_C (C₃H₈) = -2220 kJ mol^-1
Let the mixture contain x lit of and lit of propane.

Volume of oxygen consumed = 2 x + 5 (15.68 – x) = 32 lit
2x + 78.4 – 5 x = 321
78.4 – 3x = 32
3x = 46.41
x = 15.471
Given mixture contains 15.47 liters of methane and 0.2 13 liters of propane. Hence,

∆H_C = [- 614.66 kJ mol^-1] + [- 20.81 kJ mol^-1]
∆H_C = 635.47 kJ mol^-1.

Question 19.
The bond dissociation energy of methane and ethane are 360 kJ mol^-1 and 620 Id mol^-1 respectively. Then, the bond dissociation energy of C-C bond is …………
(a) 170 kJ mol^-1
(b) 50 kJ mol^-1
(c) 80 kJ mol^-1
(d) 220 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(c) 80 kJ mol^-1
Hint:
4E_C-H = 360 kJ mol^-1
E_C-H = 90 kJ mol^-1
E_C-C + 6E_C-H = 620 KJ mol^-1
E_C-C + 6 x 9O = 62O kJ mol^-1
E_C-C + 540 = 620 kJ mol^-1
E_C-C = 80 kJ mol^-1

Question 20.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is (NEET phase – I)
(a) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0
(b) ∆H<0 and ∆S<0
(c) ∆S>0 and ∆S = 0
(d) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0
Answer:
(a) ∆H<0 and ∆S>0

Question 21.
The temperature of the system decreases in an …………
(a) isothermal expansion
(b) isothermal compression
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) adiabatic compression
Answer:
(c) adiabatic expansion

Question 22.
In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign of q, AS and w are respectively
(a) +, -, –
(b) -, +, –
(c) +, -, +
(d) -, -, +
Answer:
(d) -, -, +
Hint:
During compression, the energy of the system increases, in isothermal condition, to maintain the temperature constant, heat is liberated from the system. Hence q is negative. During compression, entropy decreases. During compression work is done on the system, hence w is positive.

Question 23.
The molar heat of vaporization of a liquid is 4.8 kJ mol^-1. If the entropy change is 16 J mol^-1 K^-1. the boiling point of the liquid is ………..
(a) 323 K
(b) 27°C
(c) 164 K
(d) 0.3 K
Answer:
(b) 27°C
Hint:

Question 24.
∆S is expected to be maximum for the reaction
(a) Ca_(S) + O_2(g) → CaO(S)
(b) C_(S) + O_2(g) → CO2(g)
(c) N_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO(g)
(d) CaCO_3(S) → CaO_(S) + CO_2(g)
Answer:
(d) CaCO_3(S) → CaO_(S) + CO_2(g)
Hint:
In CaCO_3(S) → CaO_(S) + CO_2(g) entropy change is positive in (a) and (b) entropy change is negative; in (c) entropy change is zero.

Question 25.
The values of H and S for a reaction are respectively 30 kJ mol^-1 and loo kJ mol^-1. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is ………….
(a) 300 K
(b) 30 K
(c) 100 K
(d) 20°C
Answer:
(a) 300 K
Hint:
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
At 300 K.
∆G = 30000 J mol^-1 – 300 K x 100 JK mol^-1
∆G = 0
above 300 K;
∆G will be negative and reaction becomes spontaneous.

II . Answer these questions briefly.

Question 26.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The first law of thermodynamics, known as the law of conservation of energy, states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant though it may change from one form to another.
The mathematical statement of the First Law as:
∆U = q + w
where q – the amount of heat supplied to the system; w – work done on the system.

Question 27.
Define Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Answer:
Hess’s law:
The enthalpy change of a reaction either at constant volume or constant pressure is the same whether it takes place in a single or multiple steps.

Question 28.
Explain intensive properties with two examples.
Answer:
The property that is independent of the mass or the size of the system is called an intensive property. Refractive index, Surface tension, density, temperature, Boiling point, Freezing point, molar volume.

Question 29.
Define the following terms:
(a) isothermal process
(b) adiabatic process
(c) isobaric process
(d) isochoric process
Answer:
a. An isothermal process is defined as one in which the temperature of the system remains constant, during the change from its initial to final state. The system exchanges heat with its surroundings and the temperature of the system remains constant. For an isothermal process dT = 0.

b. An adiabatic process is defined as one in which there is no exchange of heat (q) between the system and surrounding during the process. Those processes in which no heat can flow into or out of the system are called adiabatic processes.

c. An isobaric process is defined as one in which the pressure of the system remains constant
during its change from the initial to final state.
For an isobaric process dP = 0.

d. An isochoric process is defined as the one in which the volume of system remains constant during its change from initial to final state. Combustion of fuel in a bomb calorimeter is an example of an isochoric process.
For an isochoric process, dV= 0.

Question 30.
What is the usual definition of entropy? What ¡s the unit of entropy?
Answer:

1. Entropy is a thermodynamic state function that is a measure of the randomness or disorderliness of the system.
2. For a reversible change taking place at a constant temperature (T). the change in entropy
3. of the system is equal to heat energy absorbed or evolved (q) by the system divided by the constant temperature (T).
   
4. SI unit of entropy is J K^-1

Question 31.
Predict the feasibility of a reaction when

1. both ∆H and ∆S positive
2. both ∆H and ∆S negative
3. AH decreases but ∆S increases

Answer:

1. ∆H_r = + ve, ∆S = + ve; non-spontaneous at low temperature spontaneous at high temperature
2. ∆H_r = – ve, ∆S = – ve; spontaneous at low temperature non-spontaneous at high temperature
3. ∆H decreases but ∆S increases = Spontaneous at all temperatures.

Question 32.
Define Gibb’s free energy.
Answer:
G is expressed as G = H – TS, free energy change of a process is given by the relation ∆G = ∆H – T∆S.

Question 33.
Define enthalpy of combustion.
Answer:
Enthalpy of combustion of a substance is defined as “the change in enthalpy of a system when one mole of the substance is completely burnt in excess of air or oxygen”. it is denoted as AH.

Question 34.
Define molar heat capacity. Give its unit.
Answer:
Molar heat capacity is defined as “the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance in raising the temperature by I Kelvin”. It is denoted as C_m
Unit of Molar heat capacity: SI unit of C_m is JK^-1 mol^-1.

Question 35.
Define the calorific value of food. What is the unit of calorific value?
Answer:

• The calorific value of food is defined as the amount of heat produced in calories (or Joules) when one gram of food is completely burnt.
• Unit of calorific value (a) Cal g^-1 (b) J Kg^-1

Question 36.
Define enthalpy of neutralization.
Answer:
The heat of neutralization is defined as “The change in enthalpy when one gram equivalent of an acid is completely neutralized by one gram equivalent of a base or vice versa in dilute solution”.
HCl_(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O
∆H = – 57.32 kJ

Question 37.
What is lattice energy?
Answer:
Lattice energy is defined as the amount of energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into a gaseous constituent.

Question 38.
What are state and path functions? Give two examples.
Answer:
State function:
A state function is a thermodynamic property of a system, which has a specific value for a given state and does not depend on the path (or manner) by which the particular state is reached.
Example:
Pressure (P), Volume (V), Temperature(T), Internal energy (U), Enthalpy (H), free energy (G) etc.
Path functions:
A path function is a thermodynamic property of the system whose value depends on the path by which the system changes from its initial to final states.
Examples: Work (w), Heat (q).

Question 39.
Give Kelvin a statement of the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
It is impossible to construct a machine that absorbs heat from a hot source and converts it completely into work by a cyclic process without transferring a part of heat to a cold sink.

Question 40.
The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 10, what will be the sign of ∆G? Will this reaction be spontaneous?
Answer:
∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_eq
K_eq = 10
∴ ∆G° = -ve value.
So the reaction will be spontaneous.

Question 41.
Enthalpy of neutralization is always a constant when a strong acid is neutralized by a strong base: account for the statement.
Answer:
It is because in dilution solution all strong acids and strong bases are completely ionized. The neutralization of strong acid and strong bases are completely ionized. The neutralization of a strong acid and strong base simply involves the combination of H⁺ ions (from acid) and OH^– ions (from base) to form unionized water molecules with the evolution of 57.1 kJ heat.
H⁺_(aq) + OH^–_(aq) → H₂O(l),
∆₂H° = -57.1 kJ
Since the same reaction takes place during neutralization of all strong acids and strong bases, the value of enthalpy of neutralization is constant.

Question 42.
State the third law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
It states that the entropy of pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is zero.
(or)
It can be stated as “it is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero in a
finite number of steps”. Mathematically

Question 43.
Write down the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl₂
Answer:
Born – Haber cycle for the formation of CaCl₂
Ca_(S) + Cl_2(l) → CaC_2(S)  ∆H_f°
Sublimation : Ca_(S) → Ca_(S)  ∆H₁°
Ionization : Ca_(g) → Ca²⁺_(g) + 2e^– = ∆H₂°
Vapourisation : Cl_2(l) → Cl_2(g) = ∆H₃°
Dissociation : Cl_2(g) → 2Cl_(g) = ∆H₄°
Electron affinity : 2Cl_2(g) + 2e^– → 2Cl^–2(g)_(g) = ∆H₅°
Lattice enthalpy : Ca²⁺_(g) + 2Cl^–_(g) → CaCl_2(S) = ∆H₆°
∆H_f° = ∆H₁° + ∆H₂° + ∆H₃° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₅° + ∆H₆°

Question 44.
Identify the state and path functions out of the following
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Entropy
(c) Heat
(d) Temperature
(e) Work
(f) Free energy.
Answer:
State function: Enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and free energy.
Path function: Heat and work.

Question 45.
State the various statements of the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Entropy statement:
The second law of thermodynamics can be expressed in terms of entropy, i.e “the entropy of an isolated system increases during a spontaneous process”.

Kelvin-Planck statement:
It is impossible to construct a machine that absorbs heat from a hot source and converts it completely into work by a cyclic process without transferring a part of heat to a cold sink.

Clausius statement:
It is impossible to transfer heat from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir without doing some work.

Question 46.
What are spontaneous reactions? What are the conditions for the spontaneity of a process?
Answer:

1. A reaction that does occur under the given set of conditions is called a spontaneous reaction.
2. The expansion of a gas into an evacuated bulb is a spontaneous process, the reverse process that is gathering of all molecules into one bulb is not spontaneous. This example shows that processes that occur spontaneously in one direction cannot take place in opposite
   direction spontaneously.
3. Increase in randomness favours a spontaneous change.
4. If enthalpy change of a process is negative, then the process is exothermic and occurs spontaneously. Therefore ∆H should be negative.
5. if entropy change of a process is positive, then the process occurs spontaneously, therefore ∆S should be positive.
6. If free energy of a process is negative, then the process occurs spontaneously, therefore ∆G should be negative.
7. For a spontaneous. irreversible process. ∆H <0, ∆S > 0, ∆G < 0. i.e., ∆H = -ve, ∆S = +ve and ∆G = -ve.

Question 47.
List the characteristics of internal energy.
Answer:
The internal energy of a system is an extensive property. It depends on the amount of the substances present in the system. If the amount is doubled, the internal energy is also doubled.

The internal energy of a system is a state function. It depends only upon the state variables (T, P, V, n) of the system. The change in internal energy does not depend on the path by which the final state is reached.

The change in internal energy of a system is expressed as ∆U = U_f – U_i.
In a cyclic process, there is no internal energy change. ∆U_(cyclic) = 0

If the internal energy of the system in the final state (U_f) is less than the internal energy of the system in its initial state (U_i), then ∆U would be negative.
∆U = U_f – U_i = -ve(U_f < U_i)

If the internal energy of the system in the final state (U_f) is greater than the internal energy of the system in its initial state (U_i), then ∆U would be positive.
∆U = U_f – U_i = + ve(U_f > U_i).

Question 48.
Explain how heat absorbed at constant volume is measured using a bomb calorimeter with a neat diagram.
Answer:
1. For chemical reactions, heal absorbed at constant volume, is measured in a bomb calorimeter.

2. Description of the apparatus and procedure:
The inner vessel and its cover are made of strong steel. The cover is fitted tightly to the vessel by means of metal lid and screws. A weighed amount of the substance is taken in a platinum cup connected with electrical wires for striking an arc instantly to kindle combustion. The bomb is then tightly closed and pressurizcd with excess

oxygen. The bomb is lowered in water, which is placed inside the calorimeter. A stirreris placed in the bomb to stir the water uniformly. The reaction is started by striking the substance through electrical heating.

3. During burning, the exothermic heat generated inside the bomb raises the temperature of the surrounding water bath. Temperature change can be measured accurately using Beckmann thermometer. Since the bomb calorimeter is sealed, its volume does not change, so the heat measurements, in this case, corresponds to the heat of reaction at constant volume.

4. In a bomb calorimeter experiment, a weighed sample of benzoic acid (w) is placed in the bomb which is then filled with excess oxygen and sealed. Ignition is brought about electrically. The rise in temperature (AT) is noted. Water equivalent or calorimetry equivalent of the calorimeter is known from the standard value of enthalpy of combustion of benzoic acid.

5. ∆H_C(C₆H₅COOH) = -3227 kJ mol^-1

6. By knowing o value, the enthalpy of combustion of any other substance is determined adopting the similar procedure and using the substance in place of’ benzoic acid. By this experiment, the enthalpy of combustion at constant volume (AU_C°) is known,
∆U_C° = ω_e. ∆T

7. Enthalpy of combustion at constant pressure of the substance is calculated from the equation
∆U°_C(pressure) = ∆U°_C(volume) + ∆n_g RT

Question 49.
Calculate the work involved in the expansion and compression process.
Answer:
1. The essential condition of expansion or compression of a system is, there should be a difference between external pressure P_ext and internal pressure (P_int).

2. If the volume of the system is increased against the external pressure. the work is done by the system. By convention work done by the system is given a negative sign (-w).

3. If the volume of the system decreased, the work is done on the system. By convention work done on the system is given a positive sign (+w).

4. For understanding pressure-volume work, let us consider a cylinder which contains one mole of an ideal gas fitted with a frictionless piston. Total volume of the gas is V_i and pressure of the gas inside is P_int.

5. If external pressure is P_ext which is greater than P_int piston is moved inward till the pressure inside becomes equal to P_int It is achieved in a single step and the final volume be V_f.

6. During this compression, piston moves a distance x) and is the cross-sectional area of the piston is A, then, Change in volume = x A = ∆V = V_f – V_i ………..(1)
P_ext = \(\frac {Force (F)}{Area(A)}\) ………(2)
F = P_ext.A

7. if work is done by the system by pushing out the piston against external pressure (P_ext) then according to the equation,
-w = F.x ………(3)
-w = P_ext . A . x …….(4)
-w = P_ext.∆V ……….(5)
-w = P_ext . (V_f– V_i.) …..(6)
Simply w = – P∆V ………..(7)

8. From the above equation, we can predict the sign of work (w).

9. During expansion, work is done by the system, since V_f>V_i the sign obtained for work will be negative.

10. During compression, work is done on the system, since V_f<V_i the sign obtained for work will be positive.

Question 50.
Derive the relation between ∆H and ∆U for an ideal gas. Explain each term involved in the equation.
Answer:
When the system at constant pressure undergoes changes from an initial state with H₁, U₁ and V₁ to a final state with H₂, U₂ and V₂ the change in enthalpy
∆H can be calculated as follows:
H =U + PV
In the initial state
H₁ = U₁ + PV₁ ………………(1)
In the final state
H₂ = U₂ + PV₂ ……………..(2)
change in enthalpy is (2) – (1)
(H₂ – H₁) = (U₂ – U₁) + P(V₂ – V₁)
∆H = ∆U + P∆V ………………..(3)
As per first law of thermodynamics,
∆U = q + w
Equation (3) becomes
∆H = q + w+P∆V
w = -P∆V
∆H = qp – P∆V + P∆V
∆H = qp ………….(4)
qp – is the heat absorbed at constant pressure and is considered as heat content.
Consider a closed system of gases which are chemically reacting to form gaseous products at constant temperature and pressure with V_i and V_f, as the total volumes of the reactant and product gases respectively, and niand nfas the number of moles of gaseous reactants and products, then,
For reactants (initial state):
PV_i = n_iRT ………..(5)
For products (final state):
PV_f = n_fRT ……………..(6)
(6) – (5)
P{V_f – V_i) = (n_f – n_i)RT
P∆V = ∆n_(g) RT ………..(7)
Substituting in (7) in (3)
∆H = ∆U+ ∆n_(g)RT …………….(8)

Question 51.
Suggest and explain an indirect method to calculate lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride crystal.
Answer:
The Born – Haber cycle is used to determine the lattice enthalpy of NaCl as follows:

Formation of NaCl can be considered in 5 steps. The sum of the enthalpy changes of these steps is equal to the enthalpy change for the overall reaction from which the lattice enthalpy of NaCl is calculated.
Na_(s) + Vi Cl_2(g) → NaCl_(s) ∆H_f = -411.3 kJ mol^-1
Sublimation : Na_(s) → Na_(g) ∆H₁°
Dissociation : ½ Cl_2(g) → Cl_(g) ∆H₂°
Ionisation : Na_(s) → Na⁺_(g) + e^– ∆H₃°
E1etron affinity : Cl_(g) + e^– → Cl^–_(g) ∆H₄°
Lattice enthalpy : Na⁺_(g) + Cl^–_(g) → NaCl_(s) ∆H₅° =?
∆H = ∆H₁° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₄°
∆H = ∆H_f° – (∆H₁° + ∆H₂°+ ∆H₃°+∆H₄°)
∆H₅°= Lattice enthalpy of NaCl.
By the above method, indirectly lattice enthalpy of NaCl is calculated if the values of ∆H_f°, ∆H₁°, ∆H₂°- ∆H₃° and ∆H₄° are given.

Question 52.
List the characteristics of Gibbs free energy.
Answer:
(i) G is defined as (H-TS) where H and S are the enthalpy and entropy of the system respectively. T = temperature. Since H and S are state functions, G is a state function.
(ii) G is an extensive property while ∆G = (G₂ – G₁) which is the free energy change between the initial (1) and final (2) states of the system becomes the intensive property when mass remains constant between initial and final states (or) when the system is a closed system.
(iii) G has a single value for the thermodynamic state of the system.
(iv) G and ∆G values correspond to the system only. There are three cases of ∆G in predicting the nature of the process. When, ∆G < 0 (negative), the process is spontaneous and feasible; ∆G = 0. The process is in equilibrium and ∆G > 0 (positive), the process is nonspontaneous and not feasible.
(v) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S. But according to I law of thermodynamics,
∆H = ∆G + P∆V and ∆U = q + w
∴ ∆G = q + w + P∆V – T∆S
But ∆S = \(\frac{T}{q}\) and T∆S = q = heat involved in the process.
∴ ∆G = q + w + P∆V – q = w + P∆V
(or) – ∆G = – w – P∆V = network.
The decrease in free energy – ∆G, accompanying a process taking place at constant temperature and pressure is equal to the maximum obtainable work from the system other than work of expansion.
This quantity is called the “network” of the system and it is equal to (- w – P∆V).
∴ Network = – w – P∆V
-∆G represents all others forms of work obtainable from the system such as electrical, chemical or surface work etc other than P-V work.

Question 53.
Calculate the work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 500 ml to a volume of 2 L at 25°C and normal pressure.
Answer:
Given
n = 2 moles
V_i = 500 ml = 0.5 lit
V_f = 2 lit
T = 25°C = 298 K
w = -2.303 nRT log \(\left(\frac{V}{V_{i}}\right)\)
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x log \(\frac {2}{0.5}\)
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x log(4)
w = -2.303 x 2 x 8.314 x 298 x 0.6021
w = -6871 J
w =-6.871 kJ.

Question 54.
In a constant-volume calorimeter, 3.5 g of gas with molecular weight 28 was burnt ¡n excess oxygen at 298 K. The temperature of the calorimeter was found to increase from 298 K to 298.45 K due to the combustion process. Given that the calorimeter constant is 2.5 kJ K^-1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of the gas in kJ mol^-1.
Answer:
Given
T_i = 298 K
T_f = 298.45 K
k = 2.5 kJ K^-1
m = 3.5g
Mm = 28
heat evolved = k∆T
= k(T_f – T_i)
= 2.5KJ K^-1 (298.45 – 298)K = 1.125 kJ
∆H_c = \(\frac{1.125}{3.5}\) × 28 kJ mol^-1
∆H_c = 9 kJmol^-1

Question 55.
Calculate the entropy change in the system and surroundings and the total entropy change in the universe during a process in which 245 J of heat flow out of the system at 77°C to the surrounding at 33°C.
Answer:
Given:
T_sys = 77°C = (77 + 273) = 350K
T_sys = 33°C = (33 + 273) = 306K
q = 245 J

∆S_univ = ∆S_sys + ∆S_surr-245 = —07 3K’
∆S_univ = -0.7 JK^-1 + 0.8 JK^-1
∆S_univ = 0.1 JK^-1

Question 56.
1 mole of an ideal gas, maintained at 4.1 atm and at a certain temperature, absorbs heat 3710 J and expands to 2 litres. Calculate the entropy change in expansion process.
Answer:
Given,
n = 1 mole
P = 4.1 atm
V = 2Lit
T = ?
q = 3710 J
∆S = \(\frac {q}{T}\)

∆S = 37.10 JK^-1

Question 57.
30.4 kJ is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride. The entropy change during melting is 28.4 JK^-1 mol^-1. Calculate the melting point of sodium chloride.
Answer:
Given,
∆H_f(NaCl) = 30.4 kJ = 30400 J mol^-1
∆S_f (NaCl) = 28.4 JK^-1 mol^-1
T_f = ?

T_f = 1070.4 K.

Question 58.
Calculate the standard heat of formation of propane, if its heat of combustion is -2220.2 KJ mol^-1, the heats of formation of CO_2(g) and H₂O_(l) are – 393.5 and -285.8 kJ mol^-1 respectively.
Answer:
Given,

The standard heat of formation of propane is ∆H_f⁰(C₃H₈) = -103.5 kJ mol^-1.

Question 59.
You are given normal boiling points and standard enthalpies of vaporization. Calculate the entropy of vaporization of liquids listed below.

Answer:
For ethanol:
Given:
T_b = 78.4°C = (78.4 + 273) = 351.4 K
∆H_v(ethanol) = + 42.4 kJ mol^-1

∆H_v = + 91.76 J K^-1 mol^-1
For Toluene:
Given:
T_b = 110.6°C = (110.6 + 273) = 383.6 K
∆S_V (toluene) = + 35.2 KJ mol^-1

∆S_V = + 91.76 J KJ mol^-1

Question 60.
For the reaction Ag₂O_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + ½ O_2(g): ∆H = 30.56 kJ mol^-1 and ∆S = 6.66 JK^-1 mol^-1 (at 1 atm). Calculate the temperature at which AG is equal to zero. Also predict the direction of the reaction (i) at this temperature and (ii) below this temperature.
Answer:
Given,
∆H = 30.56 kJ mol^-1
∆H = 30560 J mol^-1
∆S = 6.66 x 10^-3 kJ K^-1 mol^-1
T = ? at which ∆G = 0
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
0 = ∆H – T∆S
T = \(\frac {∆H}{∆S}\)

T = 4589K

(i) At 4589K ; ∆G = 0, the reaction is in equilibrium.
(ii) At temperature below 4598 K, ∆H > T ∆ S
∆G = ∆H – T∆S > 0, the reaction in the forward direction, is non-spontaneous. In other words the reaction occurs in the backward direction.

Question 61.
What is the equilibrium constant K_eq for the following reaction at 400K.
2NOCl_(g) ⇌ 2NO_(g) + Cl_2(g) given that AH° = 77.2 kJ mol^-1 and ∆S° = 122 JK^-1 mol^-1
Answer:
Given,
T = 400 K ; ∆H° = 77.2 kJ mol^-1 = 77200 J mol^-1;
∆S° = 122 JK^-1 mol^-1
∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_eq

log K_eq = -3.7080
K_eq = anti log(-3.7080)
K_eq = 1.95 x 10^-4

Question 62.
Cyan-amide (NH₂CN) ¡s completely burnt in excess oxygen in a bomb calorimeter, ∆U was found to be -742.4 kJ mol^-1 calculate the enthalpy change of the reaction at 298K.
NH₂CN_(s) + 3/2 O_2(g) → N_2(g) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l) ∆H = ?
Answer:
Given
T = 298 K;
∆U = -742.4 kJ mol^-1
∆H =?
∆H = ∆U + ∆n_(g)RT
∆H = ∆U + (n_p – n_r)RT
∆H = 742.4 + 2 – \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 8.314 × 10^-3 × 298
= -742.4 + (0.5 × 8.314 ×10^-3 × 298)
= -742.4 + 1.24
= -741.16 kJ mol^-1

Question 63.
Calculate the enthalpy of hydrogenation of ethylene from the following data. Bond energies of C H, C – C, C = C and H – H are 414, 347, 618 and 435 kJ mol^-1.
Answer:
Given,
E_C-H = 414 kJ mol^-1
E_C-H = 347 kJ mol^-1
E_C-H = 618 kJ mol^-1
E_H-H = 435 kJ mol^-1

∆H_r = ∑(Bond energy)_r – ∑(Bond energy)_P
∆H_r = (E_C=C + 4E_C-H + E_H-H) – (E_C-C + 6E_C-H)
∆H_r = (618 + (4 x 414) + 435) – (347 + (6 x 414))
∆H_r = 2709 – 2831
∆H_r = -122 KJ mol^-1

Question 64.
Calculate the lattice enegry of CaCl₂ from the given data
Ca_(s) + Cl_2(g) → CaCl_2(s)  ∆H_f⁰ = -795 KJ mol^-1
Atomisation : Ca_(s) → Ca_(g)  ∆H₁° = + 121 KJ mol^-1
Ionization : Ca_(g) → Ca²⁺_(g) + 2e^–  ∆H₂° = + 242.8 KJ mol^-1
Dissociation : Cl_2(g) → 2 Cl_(g)  ∆H₃° = +242.8 KJ mol^-1
Electron affinity : Cl_(g) + e^– → Cl^–_(g) ∆H₃° = -355 KJ mol^-1
Answer:

∆H_f = ∆H₁ + ∆H₂ + ∆H₃ + 2∆H₄ + u
-795 = 121 + 2422 + 242.8 + (2 x—355) + u
-795 = 2785.8 – 710 + u
-795 = 2075.8 + u
u = -795 – 2075.8
u = -2870.8 KJ mol^-1

Question 65.
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂ from the following data.
2Fe + \(\frac{3}{2}\) O₂ → Fe₂O₃; ∆H = -741 kJ
C + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂ → CO; ∆H = -137 KJ
C + O₂ → CO₂ ∆H = -394.5 KJ
Answer:
Given,
∆H_f (Fe₂O₃) = -741 kJ mol^-1
∆H_f(CO) = -137 kJ mol^-1
∆H_f(CO₂) = -394.5 kJ mol^-1
Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂ ∆Hr = ?
∆Hr = ∑(∆H_f)_products – ∑(∆H_f)_reactants
∆Hr = [2 ∆H_f(Fe) + 3 ∆H_f(CO₂)] – [∆H_f(Fe₂O₃) + 3∆H_f(CO)]
∆Hr = [- 1183.5 ] – [-1152]
∆Hr = – 1183.5 + 1152
∆Hr = -31.5 KJ mol^-1

Question 66.
When 1-pentyne (A) is treated with 4N alcoholic KOH at 175°C, it is converted slowly into an equilibrium mixture of 13% 1-pentyne(A), 95.2% 2-pentyne(B) and 3.5% of 1,2 pentadiene (C) the equilibrium was maintained at 175°C, calculate AG° for the following equilibria.
B ⇌ A ∆G₁° = ?
B ⇌ C ∆G₂° = ?
Answer:
Given
T = 175°
C = 175 + 273 = 448 K
Concentration of 1-pentyne [A] = 1.3%
Concentration of 2-pentyne [B] = 95.2%
Concentration of 1, 2-pentadiene [C] = 3.5%
At equilibrium
B ⇌ A
95.2% 1.3% ⇒
B ⇌ C
95.2% 3.5% ⇒
K₂ = \(\frac{3.5}{95.2}\) = 0.0367
⇒ ∆G°₁ = -2.303 RTlogK
∆G°₁ = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 448 × log 0.0136
∆G°₁ = +16010 J
∆G°₁ = +16 kJ

⇒ ∆G°₂ = – 2.303 RT log K₂
∆ G°₂ = -2.303 × 8.314 × 448 × log 0.0367
∆ G°₂ = +12312J
∆G°₂ = +12.312 kJ

Question 67.
At 33K. N₂H₄ is fifty percent dissociated. Calculate the standard free energy change at this temperature and at one atmosphere.
Answer:
T = 33K
N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO₂
Initial concentration 100%
Concentration dissociated 50%
Concentration remaining at equilibrium 50% – 100%
K_eq = \(\frac{100}{50}\) = 2
∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_eq
∆G° = -2.303 x 8.31 x 33 x 1og 2
∆G° = -190.18 J mol^-1

Question 68.
The standard enthaipies of formation, of SO₂ and SO₃ are -297, kJ. rnol^-1 and -396 kJ mol^-1 respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the reaction:
SO₂ + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂ → SO₃
Answer:
Given
∆H°_f(SO₂) = – 297 kJ mol^-1
∆H°_f(SO₃) = – 396 kJ mol^-1
SO₂ + 12O₂ → SO₃;
∆H°_r =?
∆H°_r = (∆H°_f)_compound – Σ( ∆H_f)_elements
∆H°_r =∆H°_r(SO₃) – ∆H°_f
∆H°_r = 396 kJ mol^-1– (- 297 kJ mol^-1 + 0)
∆H°_r = – 396 kJ mol^-1 + 297
∆H°_r = -99 kJ mol^-1

Question 69.
For the reaction at 298 K : 2A + B → C
∆H = 400 J mol^-1 ∆S = 0.2 JK^-1 mol^-1
Determine the temperature at which the reaction would be spontaneous.
Answer:
Given,
T = 298K
∆H = 400 J mol^-1
∆S = 0.2 J K^-1 mol^-1
∆G = ∆H – ThS
if T = 2000K
∆G = 400 – (0.2 x 2000) = 0
if T > 2000 K
∆G will be negative.
The reaction would be spontaneous only beyond 2000 K.

Question 70.
Find out the Value ofequilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298K,
2 NH_3(g) + CO_2(g) ⇌ NH₂CONH_2(aq) + H₂O_(l)
Standard Gibbs energy change, AGr° at the given temperature is – 13.6 kJ mol^-1.
Answer:
Given,
T = 298 K
∆G_r° = – 13.6 kJ mol^-1
= – 13600 J mol^-1
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log K_eq
log K_eq = \(\frac{-∆G°}{2.303 RT}\)
log K_eq
log K_eq = 2.38
K_eq = anti log(2.38)
K_eq = 239.88.

Question 71.
A gas mixture of 3.67 lit of ethylene and methane on complete combustion at 25°C and at I atm pressure produces 6.11 lit of carbon dioxide. Find out the amount of heat evolved in kJ, during this combustion. (∆H_C(CH₄) = – 890 kJ mol^-1 and (∆H_C(C2H₄)= -1423 kJ mol^-1.
Answer:
Given,
∆H_C (CH₄) = – 890 kJ mol^-1
∆H_C (C₂H₄) = -1423 kJ mol^-1
Let the mixture contain x lit of CH₄ and (3.67 – x) lit of ethylene.

Volume of carbon dioxide formed x + 2 (3.67 – x) 6.11 lit
x + 7.34 – 2x = 6.11
x = 1.23 lit
Given mixture contains 1.23 lit of methane and 2.44 lit of ethylene, hence

∆H_C = [-48.87 kJ mol^-1] + [-155 kJ mol^-1]
∆H_C = -203.87 kJ mol^-1

In-Text Questions – Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Calculate AH for the reaction CO₂(g) + H₂(g) → CO(g) + H₂O(g) given that ∆H_r° for CO₂(g), CO(g) and H₂O(g) are – 393.5, – 111.31 and – 242 kJ mol^-1 respectively.
Given,
∆H_f° CO₂ = -393.5 kJ mol^-1
∆H_f° CO = -111.31 kJ mol^-1
∆H_f° (H₂O) = – 242 kJ mol^-1
CO₂(g) + H₂(g) → CO(g) + H₂O(g)
∆H_r° = ?
∆H_r° = ∑(∆H_f°)_products – ∑(∆H_f°)_products
∆H_r° = [∆H_f° (CO) + ∆H_f° (H₂O)] – [∆H_f° (CO₂) + ∆H_r° (H₂)]
∆H_r° = [- 111.31 + (-242)] – [- 393.5 +(0)]
∆H_r° = [- 353.31] + 3935
∆H_r° = 40. 19
∆H_r° = 40.19 KJ mol^-1

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of heat necessary to raise 180 g of water from 25°C to 100°C. Molar heat capacity of water is 75.3 J mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
Given:
Number of moles of water n = \(\frac{180 \mathrm{g}}{18 \mathrm{g} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}}\) = 10 mol molar heat capacity of water
C_p = 75.3 J K^-1 mol^-1
T₂ = 100°C = 373K
T₁ = 25°C = 298K
∆H = ?
∆H = nC_p(T₂ – T₁)
∆H = 10 mol x 75.3 J mol^-1 K^-1 x (373 – 298) K
∆H = 56475 J
∆H = 56.475 kJ

Question 3.
From the following data at constant volume for combustion of benzene, calculate the heat of this reaction at constant pressure conditions.
C₆H_6(l) + \(\frac {7}{2}\) O_2(g) → 6 CO_6(g)+ 3 H₂O_(l)
∆U at 25°C = -3268.12 kJ
Answer:
Given,
T = 25°C = 298 K;
∆U = -3268.12 KJ mol^-1
∆H = ?
∆H = ∆U + ∆n_g RT
∆H = ∆U + (n_p – n_r)RT
∆H = 3268.12 + [6 – \(\frac{7}{2}\) x 8.314 x 10^-3 x 298
∆U = -3268.12 + (2.5 x 8.314 x 10^-3 x 298)
∆U = – 3268.12+6.L9
∆U = -3261.93 kJ mol^-1

Question 4.
When a mole of magnesium bromide is prepared from 1 mole of magnesium and 1 mole of liquid bromine, 524 kJ of energy is released. The heat of sublimation of Mg metal is 148 kJ mol^-1. The heat of dissociation of bromine gas into atoms is 193 kJ mol^-1. The heat of vapourisation of liquid bromine is 31 kJ mol^-1. The ionisation energy of magnesium is 2187 kJ mol^-1 and the electron affinity of bromine is – 662 kJ mol^-1. Calculate the lattice energy of magnesium bromide.
Answer:
Given,
Mg(s) + Br₂(l) MgBr₂(s) – ∆H_f° = – 524 KJ mol^-1

Sublimation:
Mg(s) → Mg(g) – ∆H_f° = +148 KJ mol^-1

Ionisation:
Mg(g) → Mg²⁺(g) + 2e^– 2187 – ∆H_f° = 2187 KJ mol^-1

Vapourisation:
Br₂(l) → Br₂(g) – ∆H_f° = + 31 KJ mol^-1

Dissociation:
Br₂(g) → 2Br(g) – ∆H_f = + 193 KJ mol^-1

Electron affinity:
Br(g) + e ^– → Br^– (g) – ∆H_f = -331 KJ mol^-1

∆H_f = ∆H₁ + ∆H₂ + ∆H₃ + ∆H₄ + 2AH₅ + u
-524 = 148 + 2187 + 31 + 193 + (2 x – 331) + u
-524 = 1897 + u
u = -524 -1897
u = – 2421 kJ mol^-1

Question 5.
An engine operating between 127°C and 47°C takes some specified amount of heat from a high-temperature reservoir. Assuming that there are no frictional losses, calculate the percentage efficiency of an engine.
Answer:
Given,
T₁ = 127°C = 127 + 273 = 400 K
T₂ = 47°C = 47 + 273 = 320 K
% efficiency η = ?

η = 20%

Question 6.
Urea on hydrolysis produces ammonia and carbon dioxide. The standard entropies of urea, H₂O. CO₂, NH₃ are 173.8, 70, 213.5 and 192.5 J mole^-1K^-1 respectively. Calculate the entropy change for this reaction.
Answer:
Given,
S°(urea) = 173.8 J mol^-1K^-1
S° (H₂O) = 70 J mol^-1 K^-1
S° (CO₂) = 213.5 J mol^-1 K^-1
S° (NH₃) = 192.5 J mol^-1 K^-1
NH₂ – CO – NH₂ + H₂O → 2NH₃ + CO₂
∆S_r° = ∑(S°)_product – ∑(S°)_reactants
∆S_r° = [2 S°(NH₃) + S°(CO₂)] — [S°(urea) + S°(H₂O)]
∆S_r° = [2 x 192.5 + 213.5] – [173.8 + 70]
∆S_r° = [598.5] – [243.8]
∆S_r° = 354.7 J mol^-1 K^-1

Question 7.
Calculate the entropy change when I mole of ethanol is evaporated at 351 K. The molar heat of vapourisation of ethanol is 39.84 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
Given,
T_b = 351 K
∆H_vap = 39840 J mol^-1
∆H_V = ?
∆H_V = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{vap}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{b}}}\)
∆H_V = 113.5 JK^-1mol^-1

Question 8.
For a chemical reaction, the values of ∆H and ∆S at 300 K are – 10 kJ mol^-1 and -20 J mol^-1 respectively. What is the value of AG of the reaction? Calculate the ∆G of a reaction at,600K assuming ∆H and AS values are constant. Predict the nature of the reaction.
Answer:
Given,
∆H =- 10 kJ mol = -10000 J mol^-1
∆S = -20 JK^-1 mol^-1
T = 300 K
∆G = ?
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆G = – lo kJ mol^-1 -300 K x (-20 x 10^-3)kJ K^-1 mol^-1
∆G = (-10 + 6) kJ mol^-1
∆G =-4 kJ mol^-1
At 600 K,
∆G = – 10 kJ mol^-1 -600 K x (-20 x 10^-3)kJ K^-1 mol^-1
∆G =(-10+12) kJ mol^-1
∆G = +2 kJ mol^-1
The value of ∆G is negative at 300K and the reaction is spontaneous, but at 600K the value ∆G becomes positive and the reaction is non-spontaneous.

In-Text Example Problems

Question 1.
A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 5 litres to a volume of 10 litres. In doing solt absorbs 400 J of thermal energy from its surroundings. Determine the change in internal energy of system.
Answer:
Given data q = 400 J; V₁ = 5L; V₂ = 10L
Au = q – w (heat is given to the system (±q); work is done by the system(-w)
Au = q – PdV
= 400 J – 1 atm (10 – 5)L
= 400 J – 5 atm L [∴ 1L atm = 101.33 J]
= 400 J – 5 x 101.33 J
= 4003 – 506.65 J
= – 106,65 J

Question 2.
The standard enthalpies of formation of C₂H₅OH_(l), CO_2(g) and H₂O_(l) are – 277, -393.5 and -285.5 kJ mol^-1 respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy change for the reaction. C₂H₅OH_(l) + 3O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g) + 3H₂O_(l). The enthalpy of formation of O_2(g) in the standard state is zero by definition.
Answer:
The standard enthalpy change for the combustion of ethanol can be calculated from the strndard enthalpies of formation of C₂H₅OH_(l), CO_2(g) and H₂O_(l). The enthalpies of formation are – 277, – 393.5 and – 285.5 kJ mol^-1 respectively.
C₂H₅OH_(l) + 3O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g) + 3H₂O_(l).

= [-787 – 856.5] – [-277]
= -1643.5 + 277
∆H_r° = -1366.5 KJ.

Question 3.
Calculate the value of AU and AH on heating 128 g of oxygen from 0°C to 100°C. C. and C, on an average are 21 and 29 J mol^-1 K^-1. (The difference is 8 J mol^-1 K^-1 which is approximately equal to R)
Answer:
We know
∆U = n C_V (T₂ – T₁)
∆H = n C_P (T₂ – T₁)
Here n = \(\frac {128}{32}\)4 moles;
T₂ = 100°C = 373 K
T₁ = O°C = 273 K
∆U = n C_V(T₂ – T₁)
∆U = 4 x 21 x (373 – 273)
∆U = 8400 J
∆U = 8.4 kJ
∆H = nC_P (T₂ – T₁ )
∆H = 4 x 29 x (373 – 273)
∆H = 11600 J
∆H = 11.6 KJ.

Question 4.
Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of ethylene at 300 K at constant pressure, If Its heat of combustion at constant volume (∆U) is – 1406 KJ.
Answer:
The complete ethylene combustion reaction can be written as,
C₂H_4(g) + 3O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
∆U = -1406 kJ
∆n = n_p(g) – n_r(g)
∆n = 2 – 4 = -2
∆H = U + RT ∆n_(g)
∆H = -1406 + (8.314 x 10^-3 x 300 x (-2))
∆H = – 1410.9 kJ

Question 5.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation ∆H°_f of CH₄ from the values of enthalpy of combustion for H₂, C (graphite) and CH₄ which are -285.8, -393.5, and -890.4 KJ mol^-1 respectively.
Answer:
Let us interpret the information about enthalpy of formation by writing out the equations. It is important to note that the standard enthalpy of formation of pure elemental gases and elements is assumed to be zero under standard conditions. The thermochemical equation for the formation of methane from its constituent elements is,
C(graphite) + 2H_2(g) → CH_4(g)
∆H_f⁰ = X kJ mol^-1 …………(i)
Thermo  chemical equations for the combustion of given substances are,
2H_2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O₂ → H₂O_(l)
∆H⁰ = – 285.8 KJ mol^-1 …………..(ii)
C(graphite) + O₂ → CO₂
∆H⁰ = -393.5 KJ mol^-1 …………….(iii)
CH_4(g) + 2O₂ → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
∆H⁰ = -890.4 KJ mol^-1 ……………(iv)
Since methane is in the product side of the required equation (i), we have to reverse the equation (iv)
CO_4(g) + 2H₂O_(l) → CH_4(g) + 2O₂
∆H° = + 890.4 kJ mol^-1 …………….(v)
In order to get equation (i) from the remaining, (i) = [(ii) x 2] + (iii) + (v)
X = [(-285.8) x 2] + [-393.5] + [+ 890.4] = -74.7kJ
Hence, the amount of energy required for the formation of I mole of methane is -74.7 kJ The heat of formation methane -74.7 kJ mol^-1

Question 6.
Enthalpy for the oxidation of graphite to CO₂ and CO to CO₂ can easily be measured. For these conversions, the heat of combustion values are -393.5 kJ and -283.5 kJ respectively.
Answer:
From these data the enthalpy of combustion of graphite to CO can be calculated by applying Hess’s law. The reactions involved in this process can be expressed as follows:

According to Hess law,
∆H₁ = ∆H₂ + ∆H₃
-393.5 kJ = X – 283.5 kJ
X = – 110.5 kJ

Question 7.
Calcu late the lattice energy of sodium chloride using Born-Haber cycle.
Answer:

∆H_f = heat of formation of sodium chloride = 411.3 kJ mol^-1
∆H₁ = heat of sublimation of Na(s) = 108.7 kJ mol^-1
∆H₂ = ionisation energy of Na(s) = 495 kJ mol^-1
∆H₃ = dissociation energy of Cl₂(s) = 244 kJ mol^-1
∆H₄ = Electron affinity of Cl(s) = – 349 kJ mol^-1
U = lattice energy of NaCl
∆H_f = ∆H₁ + ∆H₂ + ½ ∆H₃ + ∆H₄ + U

∴U = (∆H_f) – (∆H₁ +∆H₂ + ½ ∆H₃ + ∆H₄)
=>U = (-411.3) – (108.7 + 495 + 122 – 349)
U = (-41 1.3) – (376.7)
∴U = -788 kJ mol^-1
This negative sign in lattice energy indicates that the energy is released when sodium is the time from its constituent gaseous ions Na⁺ and Cl^–

Question 8.
If an automobile engine burns petrol at a temperature of 8 16°C and if the surrounding temperature is 21°C, calculate its maximum possible efficiency.
Answer:

Here
T_h = 816 + 273 = 1098 K
T_c = 21 + 273 = 294 K
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics
% Efficiency = 73%.

Question 9.
Calculate the standard entropy change for the following reaction (∆H_f°), given the standard entropies of CO_f (g), C(s), O₂(g) as 213.6, 5.740 and 205 JK^-1 respectively.
C(g) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)
∆S_r° = ∑ S_products° – S_reactants°‘
∆S_r° = {S_CO2°°} – {S_c° + S_O2°°}
∆S_r° = 213.6 – [5.74 + 205]
∆S_r° = 213.6 – [210.74]
∆S_r° = 2.86 JK^-1.

Question 10.
Calculate the entropy change during the melting of one mole of ice into water at 0°C and I atm pressure. Enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6008 J mol^-1.
Answer:
Given,
∆S_fusion = 6008 J mol^-1
T_f = 0°C = 273 K

∆S_fusion = 22.007 JK^-1 mol^-1

Question 11.
Show that the reaction CO +½ O₂ → CO₂ at 300 K is spontaneous. The standard Gibbs free energies of formation of CO₂ and CO are -394.4 and -137.2 kJ mole respectively.
Answer:
CO + ½ O₂ → CO₂
∆G_(reaction)° = ∑G_f(products)° – ∑G_f(reactants)°

∆G_(reaction)° = -394.4 + [137.2 + 0]
∆G_(reaction)° = -257.2 KJ mol^-1
∆G_(reaction)° of a reaction at a given temperature is negative hence the reaction is spontaneous.

Question 12.
Calculate G° for conversion of oxygen to ozone 3/2 O₂ ⇌ O_3(g) at 298 K, if K_p for this conversion is 2.47 x 10^-29 in standard pressure units.
Answer:
∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_p
Where
R = 8.314 JK^-1mol^-1
K = 2.47 x 10^-29
T = 298 K
∆G° = – 2.303(8.314)(298) log (2.47 x 10^-29)
∆G°= 16300 J mol^-1
∆G° = 16.3 KJ mol^-1

Additional:

Question 1.
Calculate the maximum % efficiency of thermal engine operating between 110°C and 25°C.
Answer:
% Efficiency = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100
T₁ = 110°C + 273 = 383 K.
T₂ = 25°C – 273 = 298 K.
% Efficiency = \(\left[\frac{383 – 298}{383}\right]\) x 100
% Efficiency = \(\left[\frac{85 × 100}{383}\right]\) = \(\left[\frac{8500}{383}\right]\) % Efficiency = 22.2%

Question 2.
Calculate the entropy change in the system. and in the surroundings and the total entropy change in the universe when during a process 75 J of heat flow out of the system at 55°C to the surrounding at 20°C.
Answer:
Heat flow (q) = 75 J
Entropy change = ∆S = ?
Temperature of the system = 55°C + 273 = 328 K
Temperature of the surroundings = 20°C + 273 = 293 K

= 0.2286 + 0.2559 = ∆S_universe = 0.4845 JK^-1

Question 3.
1 mole of an ideal gas is maintained at 4.1 atm and at a certain temperature absorbs 3710 J heat and expands to 2 litres. Calculate the entropy change in expansion process.
Answer:
Pressure of an ideal gas P_i = 4.1 atm.
Expansion in volume = ∆V = 2 litres
Heat absorbed = q = 3710 J
Entropy change = ∆S = ?
For an ideal gas PV = RT for one mole.
T = \(\frac {PV}{R}\) = \(\frac {4.1 x 2}{0.0830}\) = 100°C
T = 100 + 273 = 373 K.
∆S = \(\frac{q}{\mathrm{T}_{(\mathrm{K})}}\) = \(\frac{3710}{373}\)
Entropy change = 9.946 JK^-1.

Question 4.
Calculate the entropy change of a process H₂O_(l) → H₂O_(g) at 373K. Enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40850 J Mole^-1.
Answer:
H₂O_(l) → H₂O_(g)
Temperature T = 373 K
Enthalpy of vapourisation of water = ∆V_vap = 40580 J mol^-1
∆S = entropy change
∆S(entropy change) = 109.51 J mol^-1 K^-1

Question 5.
30.4 KJ is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride. The entropy change during melting is 28.4 JK^-1 mol^-1 Calculate the melting point of sodium chloride.
Answer:
Heat required for I mole of NaCl for melting (q) = 30.4 K J
= 30.4 x 1000 J
∆S – entropy change = 28.4 J K^-1 mol^-1
Melting point = T_m = ?
∆S = \(\frac{q}{\Gamma_{m}}\)
∴ T_m = \(\frac{q}{∆S}\)
T_m = \(\frac{30.4 x 1000}{28.4}\) = 10704 K
Melting point of NaCl = 1070.4 K.

Question 6.
Calculate the standard heat of formation of propane, if its heat of combustion is 0-2220.2 KJ mol^-1 [he heats of formation of CO_2(g) and H_2(g)O_(l) are -393.5 and -285.8 kJ mol^-1 respectively.
Solution:
Standard heat of formation of propane,
3C_(g) + 4H_2(g) → C₃H_8(g) ∆H_f° = ?
Data given:
C₃H_8(g) + 5O_2(g) → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O_(l)  ∆H = -2220.2 KJ mol^-1
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)  ∆H = -393.5 KJ mol^-1
H_2(g)(g) + ½ O_2(g) → H₂ O_(l)   ∆H = -285.8 KJ mol^-1
According to Hes&s law, equation
Equation (1) is reversed.
Equation (2) is x 3
Equation (3) is x 4
Then add all the equations.
3CO_2(g) + 4H₂O_(l) → C₃H_8(g) + 5O_2(g)  ∆H₁ = + 2220.2 KJ mol^-1
3C_(s) + 3O_2(g) → 3CO2_2(g)  ∆H₂ = -1180.5 KJ mol^-1
4H_2(g) + 2O_2(g) → 4H₂O_(l)  ∆H₃ = -1143.2 KJ mol^-1
3C_(S) + 4H_2(g) → C₃H_8(g)   ∆H_f° = -103.5 KJ mol^-1
Standard enthalpy of formation of propane  ∆H_f° = -103.5 K.J mol^-1

Question 7.
The boiling point of water at a pressure of 50 atm is 265°C. Compare the theoretical efficiencies of a steam engine operating between the boiling point of water at
1. 1 atm pressure
2. 50 atm pressure, assuming the temperature of the sink to be 35°C in each case.

Answer:
Boiling point of water at 50 atm pressure (T_b) = 265°C = 265 + 273 = 538K
1. Boiling point of water at 1 atm pressure (T_b) = 100°C = 100 + 273 = 373K
% Efficiency of steam engine = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100 = \(\left[\frac{538-373}{538}\right]\) x 100 = 0.3066 x 100 = 30.66%

2. BoiLing point of water at 50 atm pressure (T_b) = 35°C = 35 + 273 = 328 K
% Efficiency of steam engine = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100 \(\left[\frac{538-328}{538}\right]\) x 100 = \(\left[\frac{210 x 100}{538}\right]\) = 39.03 %

Question 8.
The standard enthalpies of formation of SO₂ and SO₃ are -297 kJ mol^-1 and -396 kJ mol^-1 respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the reaction: SO₂ + ½ O₂ → 4 SO₃
Solution:
Data are given,
(1) ⇒ S + O₂ → SO₂ ∆H_f° = -297 KJ mol^-1
(2) ⇒ S + 1½O₂ → SO₃ ∆H_f° = -396 KJ mol^-1
SO₂ + ½ O₂ →SO₃ ∆H_r = ?
Equation (1) is reversed and added with equestion (2)

Question 9.
For the reaction at 298 K : 2A + B → C
∆H = 400 KJ mol^-1: ∆S = 0.2 JK^-1 mol^-1
Determine the temperature at which the reaction would be spontaneous.
Solution:
Data given,
2A + B → C at 298 K
∆H = 400 KJ mol^-1
∆S = 0.2 JK^-1 mol^-1
T = 298 K
[∆G = ∆H – T∆S]
if ∆G = 0
∆H – T∆S = 0
∆S = \(\frac {∆H}{T}\)
For ∆G = 0, ∆S = \(\frac {∆H}{T}\) = \(\frac {400}{0.2}\) = \(\frac {4000}{2}\) = 2000K
∴ T = 2000K
At 2000 K. the reaction is in equilibrium. So. above 2000 K, the reaction will be spontaneous.

Question 10.
Calculate the heat of glucose and its calorific value
1. C_(graphite) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) ∆H = -395 KJ
2. H_2(g) + hO₂ → H₂O_(l) ; ∆H = -269.4 KJ
3. C + 6H_2(g) + 3O_2(g) → C₆H₁₂O_6(S) ∆H = -1169.8 KJ

Solution:
The calorific value of glucose ∆H_C =?

Data given are.
1. C_(graphite) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) ∆H = -395 KJ ………….(1)
2. H_2(g) + 1/2 O₂ → H₂O_(l) ∆H_C ∆H = -269. 4 KJ ………….(2)
3. C + 6H_2(g) + 3O_2(g) → C₆H₁₂O_6(S) ∆H = – 1169.8 KJ …………(3)
Equation (1) x 6 6C + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ ∆H = – 2370 KJ
Equation (2) x 6 6H₂ + 3O₂ → 6H₂O ∆H = – 1616.4 KJ
Equation (3) is reversed,
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 6C + 6H₂ +3O₂ ∆H = + 1169.8 KJ
Add all equations,
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O
∆H = – 2370 – 1616.4 + 1169.8
∆H = – 3986.4 + 1169.8
∆H = – 2816.6 KJ
Calorific value of C₆H₁₂O₆ = -2816.6 KJ mol^-1

Question 11.
Calculate the entropy change when 1 mole of ethanol is evaporated at 351 K. The molar heat of vapourisation of ethanol is 39.84 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
Given,
∆H_vap = 39840 J mol^-1
∆H_v = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{vap}}}{\mathrm{T}_{b}}\)
T_b = 351 K
∆H_v = \(\frac{39840}{351}\)
∆H_v = 113.5 J k^-1 mol^-1

Question 12.
Calculate the entropy change of a process possessing ∆H_t = 2090 J mole^-1
Answer:
Given,
S_{n(α 13°C)} – S_{n(β 13°C)}
∆H_t = 2090 J mol^-1
∆S_t = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{t}}{\mathrm{T}_{t}}\)
∆S_t = \(\frac{2090}{286}\)
∆S_t = 7.307 J K^-1 mol^-1

Question 13.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH_(l) from the following data:
(i) CH₃OH_(l) + 3/2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₃O_(l) ∆_r\({ H }^{ \ominus }\) = -726 kJ mol^-1
(ii) C_(S) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g); ∆_C \({ H }^{ \ominus }\) = – 393 kJ mol^-1
(iii) H_2(g) + ½ O_2(g) → H₂O_(l) ∆_f \({ H }^{ \ominus }\) = – 286 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
The equation we aim at;
C_(S) + 2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → CH₃OH_(l) ∆_f \({ H }^{ \ominus }\) = ± ? ………..(iv)
Multiply equation (iii) by 2 and add to equation (ii)
C_(S) + 2H_2(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)  ∆H = – (393 + 522) = – 965 kJ mol^-1
Subtract equation (iv) from equation (i)
CH₃OH_(l) + 3/2 O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)  ∆H = -726 kJ mol^-1

Subtract:
C_(S) + 2H_2(g) + ½ O_2(g) → CH₃OH_(l)  ∆_f\({ H }^{ \ominus }\)= -239 kJ mol^-1

Question 14.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 10. Calculate the value of ∆G-;
Given R = 8.3 14 JK^-1 mol^-1; T = 300 K.
Answer:
∆Ge = -RT in K = -2.303 RT log K
R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1; T = 300 K; K = 10
∆Ge = – 2.303 x 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1 x (300 K) x log 10
= -5527 J mol^-1 = -5.527 kJ mol^-1

Question 15.
Calculate the entropy change in surroundings when 1 mol^-1 of H₂O_(l) is formed under standard conditions. Given ∆H = – 286 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
q_rev = (-Δ_f\({ H }^{ \ominus }\)) = -286 KJ mol = 286000  J mol

Question 16.
The enthalpy of formation of methane at constant pressure and 300 K is – 78.84 kJ.What will be the enthalpy of formation at constant volume?
Answer:
The equation representing the enthalpy of formation of methane is:
C_(S) + 2H_2(g) – CH_2(g);
∆H = – 78.84 kJ
∆U = 78.84 kJ;
∆^ng = 1 – 2 = -1 mol
R = 8.314 x 10^-13 KJ K^-1 mol^-1; T = 300 K.

According to the relation,
∆H = ∆U + ∆^ng RT – 78.84 kJ
∆U = ∆H – ∆^ng RT
∆U = (- 78.84 kJ) – (1 mol) x (8.314 x 10^-3 KJ K^-1 mol^-1 ) x 300K.
= – 78.84 – 2.49 = -8.314 KJ.

Question 17.
Calculate ∆_rGe for conversion of oxygen to ozone 3/2 O_2(g) → O_3(g) at 298 K_p If for this conversion is 2.47 x 10^-29.
Solution:
We know
∆_r\({ G }^{ \ominus }\) = -2.303 RT log K_p
R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1
∆_r\({ G }^{ \ominus }\)= -2.303 (8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1) x (298 K) (log 2.47 x 10^-29)
= 163000 J mol^-1 = 163 mol^-1

Question 18.
(a) Under what condition, the heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction ¡s equal to its free energy change?
(b) Calculate the entropy change for the following reversible process.
H₂O_(s) ⇌ H₂O_(l)  ∆_fusH is 6 kJ mol^-1
(a) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
When the reaction is carried out at 0°K
or ∆S = 0
∆G = ∆H
H₂O_(s) ⇌ H₂O_(l)
∆_fusH = 6 kJ mol^-1 = 6000Jmol^-1
∆_fusH = 6 kJ mol^-1
6000 J mol^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Thermodynamics Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer from the following:

Question 1.
_______is a part of the universe which is separated from the rest of the universe by real or imaginary boundaries.
(a) Surroundings
(b) boundary
(c) system
(d) matter
Answer:
(c) system

Question 2.
if ∆G for a reaction is negative, the change is ……….
(a) spontaneous
(b) non-spontaneous
(c) reversible
(d) equilibrium
Answer:
(a) spontaneous

Question 3.
Which of the following is/are extensive properties?
1. volume
2. Surface tension
3. mass
4. internal energy
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Change in Gibbs free energy is given by
(a) ∆G = ∆H +T∆S
(b) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(c) ∆G = H x T∆S
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 5.
For an isothermal process _______.
(a) dT = 0
(b) dV = 0
(c) dq = 0
(d) dP = 0
Answer:
(a) dT = 0

Question 6.
Calculate the entropy change during the melting of one mole of ice into water at 0°C and 1 atm pressure. Enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6008 J Mole^-1.
(a) 22.007 J K^-1Mole^-1
(b) 22.007 J K^-1 Mole^-1
(c) 220.07 J K^-1 Mole^-1
(d) 2.2007 J K^-1 Mole^-1
Answer:
(a) 22.007 J K^-1 Mole^-1
Hint:
Enthalpy of fusion of ice 6008 J mol^-1 = ∆H
∆S = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{m}}}\) T_m = 0°C = 273 K

∆S = \(\frac{6008}{273}\) = 22.007 J K^-1 mol^-1

Question 7.
Which of the following is/are path functions?
1. pressure
2. work
3. internal energy
4. Free energy
5. heat
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(c) 2 and 5

Question 8.
The final temperature of an engine whose initial temperature is 400K and having an efficiency of 25%.
(a) 200K
(b) 400K
(c) 300K
(d) 450K
Answer:
(c) 300K
Solution:
Initial temperature = T₁ = 400 K
Final temperature = T₂ = ?
Efficiency = 25%
η = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100
25 = \(\left[\frac{400-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{400}\right]\) x 100
\(\frac{400-T_{2}}{4}\) = 25
400 – T₂ = 100
– T₂ = 100 – 400
∴ -T₂ = -300
T₂ = 300 K

Question 9.
When solid melts there is ………
(a) an increase of entropy
(b) a decrease in entropy
(c) an increase in free energy
(d) an increase of heat of fusion
Answer:
(a) an increase of entropy

Question 10.
The unit of entropy is ………
(a) J K^-1 mol^-1
(b) J mol^-1
(c) J K mol^-1
(d) J^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(a) J K^-1 mol^-1

Question 11.
If G = 0. then the process is …………
(a) equilibrium
(b) spontaneous
(c) non-spontaneous
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) equilibrium

Question 12.
The standard conditions for G° are ………..
(a) 1 mm Hg / 25°C
(b) 1 atm /25 K
(c) 1 attn / 298 K
(d) 1 atm / 0K
Answer:
(c) 1 atm / 298 K

Question 13.
The efficiency of engine working between 100 to 400 K
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 75%
Solution:
η = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100
T₁ = 400K
T₂ = 100 K
∴ η = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\right]\) x 100

= 75%

Question 14.
Entropy is a ………. function.
(a) state
(b) path
(c) defined
(d) undefined
Answer:
(a) state

Question 15.
An efficiency of an engine is always ………..
(a) = 0%
(b) > 100%
(c) < 100%
(d) = 100%
Answer:
(c) < 100%

Question 16.
if the system moves from ordered state to disordered state, its entropy ………..
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) become zero
(d) increases then decrease
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 17.
In a reversible process, the entropy of Universe is ………..
(a) greater than zero
(b) less than zero
(c) equal to zero
(d) remains constant
Answer:
(c) equal to zero

Question 18.
In which of the following entropy increases?
(a) Condensation of water vapour
(b) Liquid freezes to solid
(c) Sublimation
(d) Gas freezes to a solid
Answer:
(c) Sublimation

Question 19.
Which of the following is a state function?
(a) q
(b) ∆q
(c) w
(d) ∆S
Answer:
(d) ∆S

Question 20.
Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?
(a) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
(b) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
(c) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
(d) q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
Answer:
(b) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0

Question 21.
Which of the following is not a state function?
(a) S
(b) H
(c) G
(d) q
Answer:
(d) q

Question 22.
The net work done by the system ………..
(a) w – P∆V
(b) w +P∆V
(c) -w + P∆V
(d) -w – P∆V
Answer:
(d) – w – P∆V

Question 23.
– ∆G is the net work done by the system except ………..
(a) electrical work
(b) expansion work
(c) chemical work
(d) photochemical work
Answer:
(b) expansion work

Question 24.
The subject matter of thermodynamics comprises
(a) energy transformations in a system
(b) mass changes in molecular reactions
(c) total energy of system
(d) rates of chemical reactions
Answer:
(a) energy transformations in a system

Question 25.
In a reversible process ∆S_sys + ∆S_surr is ………..
(a) >0
(b)<0
(c) ≥0
(d) = 0
Answer:
(d) = 0

Question 26.
Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy?
(a) Crystallization of sucrose from solution
(b) Rusting of Iron
(c) Conversion of ice to water
(d) Vaporization of camphor
Answer:
Crystallization of sucrose from solution

Question 27.
The standard free energy change (∆G°) is related to equilibrium constant (K) as …………
(a) ∆G° = – 1303 RT in K
(b) ∆G° = 2.303 RT log K
(c) ∆G° = RT in K
(d) ∆G° = -2.303 RT log K
Answer:
(d) ∆G° = -2.303 RT log K

Question 28.
enropy change involved in the conversion of I mole of liquid water at 373K to vapour at the same temperature will be (∆H_vap = 2.257 kJ g^-1)
(a) 0.119 kJ
(b) 0.109 kJ
(c) 0.129 k
(d) 0. 120 kJ
Answer:
(b) 0.109 kJ
Solution:
∆H_vap = 2.257 kJ g^-1
1 mole of H₂O = 18 g
∴∆H_vap for 1 mole = 2.257 x 18 = 40.626 k J g^-1
T_b = 373K
∆H_vap = \(\frac{40.626}{373}\) = 0.1089 KJ g^-1
= 0.109 kJ mol^-1

Question 29.
Which of the following units represent largest amount of energy?
(a) calories
(b) Joule
(c) erg
(d) eV
Answer:
(a) calories

Question 30.
The intensive property among these quantities is
(a) mass
(b) volume
(c) enthalpy
(d) mass / volume
Answer:
(d) mass /volume

Question 31.
System in which there is no exchange of matter, work or energy from surrounding is
(a) closed
(b) isolated
(c) adiabatic
(d) isothermal
Answer:
(b) isolated

Question 32.
Which of the following is not an intensive property?
(a) Pressure
(b) Density
(c) Volume
(d) Surface tension
Answer:
(c) Volume

Question 33.
A gas can expand from loo ml to 250 ml under constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by the gas is ………..
(a) -30.39 J
(b) 25 J
(c) 5 kJ
(d) 16 J
Answer:
(a) -30.39 J
Solution:
∆V = expansion in volume = 100 to 250
∆V = V₂ – V₂ = 250 – 100
∆V = 150 ml = 0.15 litre
Work done = ?
Pressure = 2 atm
w = -P∆V
= -2 x 0.15 litre x 101.3 JL^-1 atm^-1
= -30.39 J.

Question 34.
An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 x 10^-3 m³ to 1 x 10^-2 m³ at 300K against a constant pressure at 1 x 10⁵ Nm⁵. The work done is ………..
(a) -900 J
(b) 900 kJ
(c) 270 kJ
(d) -900 kJ
Answer:
(a) -900 J

Question 35.
Identify the state quantity among the following
(a) q
(b) q – w
(c) q + w
(d) q/w
Answer:
(b) q – w

Question 36.
In general, for an exothermic reaction to be spontaneous
(a) temperature should be high
(b) temperature should be zero
(c) temperature should be low
(d) temperature has no effect
Answer:
(c) temperature should be low

Question 37.
Heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is a constant value because
(a) only OH⁺ and OH^– ions react in every case
(b) the strong base and strong acid react completely
(c) the strong base and strong acid react in aqueous solution
(d) salt formed does not hydrolyse
Answer:
(a) only OH⁺ and OH^– ions react in every case

Question 38.
The heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to the system’s change in
(a) enthalpy
(b) entropy
(c) internal energy
(d) free energy
Answer:
Answer:
(c) internal energy

Question 39.
Heat of neutralization is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) positive or negative
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 40.
The heat of formation CO and CO₂ are -26.4 Kcal and -94 Kcal respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be …………
(a) + 26.4 KCal
(b) – 67.6 KCal
(c) – 120.6 K Cal
(d) + 52.8 K Cal
Answer:
(b) -67.6 KCal
Solution:
C + ½ O₂ → CO ∆H = -26.4 K.cal ……….(1)
C + O₂ → CO₂ ∆H = -94 K.cal ……..(2)
Heat of combustion of CO is
C + ½O₂ → CO₂ ∆H = ?
Equation (1) is reversed.

ΔH= -67.6 K. cal

Question 41.
For the reaction H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI, ∆H = 12.40 Kcal the heat of formation of HI is ……….
(a) 12.4 Kcal mol^-1
(b) -12.4 Kcal mol^-1
(c) -6.20 Kcal mol^-1
(d) 6.20 Kcal mol^-1
Answer:
(d) 6.20 Kcal mol^-1
Solution:
H₂ + I₂ → 2HI ∆H = 12.40K.cal
½ H₂ + ½ I₂ → HI = ∆H/2
∴ \(\frac {12.40}{2}\) = 6.20 K.cal mol^-1.

Question 42.
Heat capacity is ……….
(a) \(\frac {dq}{dT}\)
(b) dq.dT
(c) ∑q. \(\frac {1}{dT}\)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) \(\frac {dq}{dT}\)

Question 43.
The relation between C_p and C_v is…………
(a) C_p – C_v = R
(b) C_p + C_v = R
(c) – 285 KJ
(d) R – C_v = C_p
Answer:
(a) C_p – C_v = R

Question 44.
The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by I K is called ……….
(a) specific heat
(b) thermal capacity
(c) water equivalent
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) thermal capacity

Question 45.
Heat liberated when 100 ml of IN NaOH is neutralized by 300 ml of in HCl ………..
(a) 22.92 Ici
(b) 17.19 kJ
(c) 11.46 kJ
(d) 5.73 Id
Answer:
Base = V₁ = 100ml
N₁ = 1N
Acid = V₂ = 300ml
N₂ = 1N
Enthalpy of neutralization of 1000 ml = 57.3 kJ.
∴ Enthalpy of neutralization of 100 ml x 100 = \(\frac {5.73 kJ}{1000}\) x 100 = 5.73 kJ.

Question 46.
In order to decompose 9g of water, 142.5 kJ of heat is required. Hence enthalpy of formation of water is ………..
(a) -142.5 kJ
(b) 142.5 kJ
(c) -285 kJ
(d) 285 kJ
Answer:
(c) -285 kJ
Solution:
H₂O → H₂ + ½ O₂
18(g)
9g H₂O is decomposed by – 142.5 kJ amount of heat.
:. 18g H₂O will be decomposed by = +285 kJ.
:. 18g of H₂O is formed by – 285 kJ amount of heat. (Evolution of heat = – ve sign)

Question 47.
Assertion (A) : Combustion of all organic compounds is an exotherinic reaction ………….
Reason (R) : The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are zero.
Which of the above statement isare not correct?
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) both A and R are false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A

Question 48.
Assertion (A) : Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be reversed by same external agency.
Reason (R) : Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) both A and R are false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A

Question 49.
Assertion (A) : A liquid crystallizes into a solid and accompanied by decrease in entropy.
Reason (R) : In crystals molecules are organised in an ordered manner.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) both A and R are false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 50.
Thermodynamics is applicable to ………….
(a) macroscopic system only
(b) microscopic system only Thermodynamics
(c) homogeneous system only
(d) heterogeneous system only
Answer:
(a) macroscopic system only

Question 51
An isochoric process takes place at constant …………
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) volume
(d) concentration
Answer:
(c) volume

Question 52.
For a cyclic process, the change in internal energy of the system is …………
(a) always + ve
(b) equal to zero
(c) always – ve
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) equal to zero

Question 53.
Which of the following properties is not a fùnction of state?
(a) Concentration
(b) Internal energy
(c) Enthalpy
(d) Entropy
Answer:
(u) Concentration

Question 54.
Which of the following relation is true?
(a) C_p >C_v
(b)C_v > C_p
(c) C_p = C_v
(d) C_p = C_v = 0
Answer:
(a) C_p >C_v

Question 55.
Which of the following always has a negative value?
(a) heat of reaction
(b) heat of solution
(c) heat of combustion
(d) heat of formation
Answer:
(c) beat of combustion

Question 56.
The bond energy depends upon ………..
(a) size of the atom
(b) electronegativity
(c) bond length
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 57.
For an endothermic reaction ………..
(a) ∆H is -ve
(b) ∆H is +ve
(e) ∆H is zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) AH is +ve

Question 58.
The process depicted by the equation.
H₂O_(s) → H₂O_(l)
∆H = + 1.43 kcal represents
(a) fusion
(b) melting
(c) evaporation
(d) boiling
Answer:
(a) fusion

Question 59
Which one is the correct unit for entropy?
(a) KJ mol
(b) JK^-1 mol
(c) JK^-1 mol^-1
(d) KJ mol^-1
Answer:
(c) JK^-1 mol^-1

Question 60.
A thermodynamic state function is a quantity ………….
(a) used to determine heat changes
(b) whose value is independent of path
(c) used to determine pressure volume work
(d) whose value depends on temperature only
Answer:
(b) whose value is independent of path

Question 61.
For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is ………..
(a) ∆T = 0
(b) ∆_p = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) w = 0
Answer:
(c) q = 0

Question 62.
The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are …………
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) <0
(d) different for each element
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 63.
∆\({ U }^{ \ominus }\) of combustion of methane is -X kJ mol^-1. The value of ∆He is ………..
(a) = ∆\({ U }^{ \ominus }\)
(b) > ∆\({ U }^{ \ominus }\)
(c) < ∆\({ U }^{ \ominus }\)
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) < ∆U\({ U }^{ \ominus }\)

Question 64.
The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298K are -890.3 kJ mol^-1 -393.5 kJ mol^-1 and 285.8 kJ mol^-1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH₄ will be ………..
(a) – 74.8 kJ mol^-1
(b) – 52.27 k mol^-1
(c) 74.8 kJ mol^-1
(d) + 52.26 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(a) – 74.8 kJ mol^-1
Solution:
CH₄ + 3O₄ → CO + 2H₂O ∆H₁ = – 89O.3 kJ mol^-1 ……….(1)
C + O₂ → CO₂ = -393.5 kJ mol^-1 ……….(2)
H₅ + 1/2 O₂ → H₂O = – 285.8 kJ mol^-1 ……….(3)
Equation (1) is reversed.
Equation (3) x 2

∆H_f = +890.3 – 965.1 = -74.8 KJ mol^-1

Question 65.
A reaction, A + B → C + D + q is found to have a positive entropy change. The reaction will be ………..
(a) possible at high temperature
(b) possible only at low temperature
(c) not possible at any temperature
(d) possible at any temperature
Answer:
(d) possible at any temperature

Question 66.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Thermodynamics is independent of atomic and molecular structure.
(ii) It includes whether a particular reaction is feasible or not under a given set of temperature and concentration of reactants and products.
(iii) It can determine the rate at which the reaction take place.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct’?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 67.
A fundamental goal of thermodynamics is the …………
(a) prediction of spontaneity of the reaction.
(b) determination of rate of the chemical reaction.
(c) evaluation of the microscopic properties.
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) prediction of spontaneity of the reaction.

Question 68.
The first law of thermodynamics states that …………
(a) ∆U = q – w
(b) ∆U = q + w
(c) ∆U + q = w
(d) ∆U = w – q
Answer:
(b) ∆U = q + w

Question 69.
Anything which separates the system from its surroundings is called …………..
(a) Boundary
(b) Partition
(c) Universe
(d) Outer layer
Answer:
(a) Boundary

Question 70.
Hot water in a thermos flask is an example of ………….
(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) isochoric system
Answer:
(c) isolated system

Question 71.
Which one of the following is an example for closed system?
(a) Hot water contained in a thermos flask
(b) A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston
(c) All living things
(d) Hot water contained in a open beaker
Answer:
(b) A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston

Question 72.
Statement-I: All living things are open systems.
Statement-II: Because they continuously exchange matter and energy with the surroundings
(a) Statement-I and II arc correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Statement-I and II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is wrong.
(d) Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

Question 73.
Which one of the following is an extensive property?
(a) Molar volume
(b) Density
(c) Molaritv
(d) Entropy
Answer:
(d) Entropy

Question 74.
Which one of the following is ail intensive property?
(a) Specific heat capacity
(b) Mass
(c) Enthalpy
(d) Heat capacity
Answer:
(a) Specific heat capacity

Question 75.
Which one of the following is not an extensive property?
(a) Mole
(b) Energy
(c) Molar mass
(d) Free energy
Answer:
(c) Molar mass

Question 76.
Which one of the following is not an intensive property?
(a) Density
(b) Molaritv
(c) Molality
(d) Mole
Answer:
(d) Mole

Question 77.
Which one of the following depend on the mass of the system?
(a) Density
(b) Mole fraction
(c) Mass
(d) Molar mass
Answer:
(c) Mass

Question 78.
Which one of the following is independent to the mass of the system?
(a) Volume
(b) Enthalpy
(c) Entropy
(d) Density
Answer:
(d) Densily

Question 79.
The process in which there is no exchange of heat between thc system and surrounding is called ……….
(a) Adiabatic process
(b) Isothermal process
(c) Isobaric process
(d) Isochoric process
Answer:
(a) Adiabatic process.

Question 80.
For an adiabatic process …………..
(a) dU = 0
(b) dT = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) q = w
Answer:
(c) q = 0

Question 81.
For an isothermal process …………..
(a) dH = 0
(b) dP = 0
(c) dT = 0
(d) dV = 0
Answer:
(c) dT = 0

Question 82.
The process in which the volume of the system remains constant is called ……….
(a) Adiabatic process
(b) Isothermal process
(c) Isobaric process
(d) Isochoric process
Answer:
(d) Isochoric process

Question 83.
For an isochoric process ……………
(a) q = 0
(b) dp = O
(c) dv = O
(d) ∆U = 0
Answer:
(c) dv = O

Question 84.
Combustion of fuel in a bomb calorimeter is an example of …………
(a) adiabatic process
(b) isochoric process
(c) isobaric process
(d) isothemal process
Answer:
(b) isochoric process

Question 85.
Which one of the following is not a path function?
(a) Work
(b) Heat
(c) Pressure
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(c) Pressure

Question 86.
Which one of the following is a path function?
(a) Pressure
(b) Volume
(c) Temperature
(d) Heat
Answer:
(d) Heat

Question 87.
Which one of the following is a state function?
(a) Internal energy
(b) Enthalpy
(c) Free energy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 88.
Statement-I: Internal energy of a system is an extensive property.
Statement-II: Internal energy depends on the amount of the substances present in the system.
(a) Statement-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(b) Statement-I and II arc correct hut Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is wrong.
(d) Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

Question 89.
The SI unit of heat is ………..
(a) Joule
(b) Kelvin
(c) Kg
(d) Kg mol^-1
Answer:
(a) Joule

Question 90.
Which one of the following is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of I gm of water by 1 °C?
(a) 1 Joule
(b) 1 Calorie
(c) 1 Kelvin
(d) 1 Kilo joule
Answer:
(b) 1 Calorie

Question 91.
Which one of the following is equal to 1 Joule?
(a) Nm^-1
(b) Nm²
(c) Nm
(d) Kg ms^-2
Answer:
(c) Nm

Question 92.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Work is a state function.
(ii) Work brings a temporary effect in the surroundings.
(iii) Work appears only at the boundary of the system.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 93.
Which of the following represents the gravitational work ?
(a) Q_V
(b) F. x
(c) mgh
(d) -P∆V
Answer:
(c) mgh

Question 94.
Match the List-I and List-II using the correct code given below the list.

Answer:

Question 95.
Match the List-I and List-II using the correct code given below the list.

Answer:

Question 96.
Enthalpy is defined as ………..
(a) q + w
(b) q – P∆V
(c) U + PV
(d) w
Answer:
(c) U + PV

Question 97.
Which one of the following always he negative?
(a) Enthalpy of combustion
(b) Enthalpy of fusion
(c) Enthalpy of vapourisation
(d) Enthalpy of sublimation
Answer:
(a) Enthalpy of combustion

Question 98.
For an ideal gas …………
(a) C_p – C_V = O
(b) C_p – C_V = R
(c) C_V – C_p = R
(d) C_V – C_p > R
Answer:
(b) C_p – C_V = R

Question 99.
The standard substance used in the enthalpy of combustion of a substance in bomb calorimeter is …………
(a) methane
(b) acetic acid
(c) propane
(d) benzoic acid
Answer:
(d) benzoic acid

Question 100.
The standard value of enthalpy of combustion of benzoic acid is …………
(a) – 3227 kJ mol^-1
(b) + 3227 kJ mol^-1
(c) – 32.27 Ici mol^-1
(d) + 32.27 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(a) -3227 kJ mol^-1

Question 101.
The heat of neutralization of a strong acid and strong base is around …………
(a) + 57.32 kJ
(b) – 57.32 kJ
(c) – 3227 kJ mol^-1
(d) + 3227 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(b) – 57.32 kJ

Question 102.
Which of the following is not a spontaneous process?
(a) All water fall runs down hill.
(b) A lump of sugar dissolves in cup of coffee.
(c) Heat flow from hotter object to colder one.
(d) A water flow from a well to upper reservoir.
Answer:
(d) A water flow from a well to upper reservoir.

Question 103.
Which one of the following is an endothermic process?
(a) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
(b) H⁺ + OH^– → H₂O

(d) C + O₂ → CO₂
Answer:

Question 104.
The SI unit of entropy is …………
(a) Nm
(b) Cal mol^-1
(c) KJ mol^-1
(d) JK^-1
Answer:
(d) JK^-1

Question 105.
In which of the following entropy decreases?
(a) melting of ice
(b) evaporation of water
(c) crystallization of sugar
(d) dissolution of salt
Answer:
(c) crystallization of sugar

Question 106.
Gibbs’s free energy is defined as ………….
(a) G = H+ TS
(b) G = H x TS
(c) G = H – TS
(d) G = H/TS
Answer:
(c) G = H – TS

Question 107.
Match the List-I and List-II using the correct code given below the list.

Answer:

Question 108.
Van’t Hoff equation is ………….
(u) ∆G° = AH° – T∆S°
(b) G = H – TS
(c) ∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_eq
(d) ∆S = ∆H / T
Answer:
(c) ∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_eq

Question 109.
Mathematically, the third law of thermodynamics is expressed as ………..
(a)
(b)
(c) AU = q + w
(d) G = H – TS
Answer:
(a)

II. Answer briefly (2 or 3 marks)

Question 1.
Define isolated system.
Answer:
A system which can exchange neither matter nor energy with its surroundings is called an isolated system. Here boundary is sealed and insulated.

Question 2.
What is the scope of thermodynamics?
Answer:
The scope of thermodynamics:

• To derive feasibility of a given process.
• It also helps in predicting how far a physical (or) chemical change can proceed. until the equilibrium conditions are established.

Question 3.
Illustrate the Closed system with an example.
Answer:
Hot water contained in a closed beaker is an example for a closed system. In this system energy (heat) is transferred to the surroundings but no matter (water vapour) can escape from this system. A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston constitutes a closed system.

Question 4.
Define
1. System
2. Surroundings.
Answer:
1. System:
A system is defined as any portion of matter under thermodynamic consideration. which is separated from the rest of the universe by real or imaginary boundaries. e.g.. Water taken in a beaker, balloon filled with air, seed, plant, flower and bird.
2. Surroundings:
Everything in the universe that is not the part of system and can interact with system is called as surroundings.

Question 5.
What is meant by isolated system? Give example.
Answer:

• A system which can exchange neither matter nor energy with its surroundings is called an isolated system.
• Here boundary is scaled and insulated.
• Hot water contained in a thermos flask, is an example for an isolated system.

Question 6.
Explain a closed system with an example.
Answer:

• A system which can exchange only energy but not matter with its surroundings is called a closed system.
• Here the boundary is sealed but not insulated.
• Hot water contained in a closed beaker is an example for a closed system.
• In this system heat is transferred to the surroundings but no water vapour can escape from this system.
• A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston constitutes a closed system.

Question 7.
Define enthalpy.
Answer:
The enthalpy (H), which is a thermodynamic property of a system, is defined as the sum of the internal energy (U) of a system and the product of pressure and volume of the system.
H = U + PV

Question 8.
What are extensive properties?
Answer:

• The property that is depend on the mass or size of the system is called an extensive property.
• e.g., Volume, number of moles, mass and internal energy.

Question 9.
What is reversible process? Give an example.
Answer:
The process in which the system and surroundings can be restored to the initial state from the final state without producing any changes in the thermodynamics properties of the Universe is called a reversible process. e.g.,
H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI

Question 10.
What is an irreversible process? Give an example.
Answer:

• The process in which the system and surroundings cannot be restored to the initial state from the final state is called a reversible process.
• e.g.. All the processes occurring in nature are irreversible processes.

Question 11.
Define cyclic process. Give example.
Answer:
When a system returns to its original state after completing a series of changes, then it is said that a cycle is completed. This process is known as a cyclic process. For a cyclic process dU = 0, dH= 0, dP = 0, dV= 0 and dT= 0.

Question 12.
What is meant by internal energy?
Answer:

• Internal energy (U) of a system is equal to the energy possessed by all its constituents namely atoms, ions and molecules.
• The energy of a molecule is equal to the sum of its translational energy (U_v), vibrational energy (U_b), rotational energy (U_e), bond energy (jh’ electronic energy and energy due to molecular interactions (U_i).
• U = U_t + U_v + U_r + U_b + U_e + U_i
• The total energy of all the molecules of the system is called internal energy.

Question 13.
Define Heat. Give its unit.
Answer:

• Heat (q) is regarded as energy in transit across the boundary separating a system from its
  surroundings.
• Heat changes result in temperature differences between system and surroundings.
• Heat is a path function.
• Units of heat: SI unit of heat is the joule (J).

Question 14.
Write a note about the sign convention of heat.
Answer:

• The symbol of heat is q.
• if the heat flows into the system from the surroundings, the energy of a system increases. Hence it is taken to be positive (+ q).
• if heat flows out of the system into the surroundings. energy of the system decreases. Hence it is taken to be negative (- q).

Question 15.
What is meant by work? Give its unit.
Answer:

• Work is defined as the force (F) multiplied by the displacement (x).
• – w = F. x
• Minus (-) sign indicates the work done by the system
• Unit of work: The SI unit of work is Joule (J).

Question 16.
Explain about gravitational work. Give its unit.
Answer:
1. When an object is raised to a certain height against the gravitational field, gravitational work is done on the object.
2. For example, if an object of mass ‘m’ is raised through a height ‘h’ against acceleration due to gravity ‘g’, then the gravitational work carried out is ‘mgh’.
w = m.g.h
w = Kg .ms^-2.m
w = Kg m² s^-2
w = Joule

Question 17.
Define electrical work. Give its unit.
Answer:

• When a charged body moves from one potential region to another electrical work is done.
• If the electrical work done is QV. Where V is the potential difference and Q is the quantity of electricity.
  w = QV
  w = Coulomb . Volts
  w = Joule

Question 18.
Write a note about mechanical work. Give its unit.
Answer:

1. Mechanical work is defined as force multiplied by the displacement through which the force acts.
2. Whenever a force (F) acts on an object and the object undergoes a displacement (x) in the direction of the force, then the mechanical work is said to be done.
3. Mathematically w = F . x
   w = F. x = N.m
   w = Joule

Question 19.
Define Zeroth law of thermodynamics (or) Law of thermal equilibrium.
Answer:
Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that ‘If two systems at different temperatures are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they tend to be in thermal equilibrium with themselves’.

Question 20.
Define enthalpy of a system. Give its unit.
Answer:
Enthalpy is a thermodynamic property of a system. Enthalpy (H) is defined as sum of the internal energy (U) of a system and the product of pressure and volume of the system.
H = U + PV
Unit of enthalpy: KJ mol^-1.

Question 21.
Define standard heat of formation.
Answer:
The standard heat of formation of a compound is defined as “The change in enthalpy that takes place when one mole of a compound is formed from its elements, all substances being in their standard states (298 K and 1 atm pressure).

Question 22.
Define specific heat capacity of a system.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a system is defined as the heat absorbed by one gram of a substance in raising its temperature by one Kelvin at a specified temperature.
Cm = \(\frac{q}{\left(\mathrm{T}_{2}-\mathrm{T}_{1}\right)}\)
Where C specific heat capacity, q = amount otheat absorbed. m = mass and T₁,T₂ temperatures.

Question 23.
Derive the value of molar heat capacity as constant volume.
Answer:
According to the first law of themrndynamics,
dq = dU + PdV
Dividing both sides by dT, we have
\(\frac {dq}{dT}\) = \(\frac {(dU + PdV)}{dT}\)
At constant volume dV = 0,then
\(\frac {dq}{dT}\) = (\(\frac {dU}{dT}\))_V
C_V = (\(\frac {dU}{dT}\))_V
Thus the heat capacity ai constant volume (C_V ) is defined as the rate of change of internal energy with respect to temperature at constant volume.

Question 24.
Derive the value of molar heat capacity at constant pressure.
Answer:
We know.
H = U + PV
Differentiating the above equation with respect to temperature at constant pressure we get,
(\(\frac {dH}{dT}\))_P = ?(\(\frac {dU}{dT}\))_P + P(\(\frac {dV}{dT}\))_P
We know,
C = \(\frac {dq}{dT}\)
But at constant pressure dq = dH
Hence we get,
C_P = (\(\frac {dH}{dT}\))_P
Thus heat capacity at constant pressure (C_P) is defined as the rate of change of enthalpy with respect to temperature at constant pressure.

Question 25.
Prove that for an ideal gas, C_P is greater than C_V.
Answer:
1. It is clear that two heat capacities are not equal and C_P is greater than C_V by a factor which is related to the work done.

2. At a constant pressure, a part of heat absorbed by the system is used up in increasing the internal energy of the system and the other for doing work by the system.

3.  At constant volume, the whole of heat absorbed is utilized in increasing the temperature of the system as there is no work done by the system. Thus C_P is greater than C_V.
C_P = \(\frac {dH}{dT}\) ; C_V = \(\frac {dU}{dT}\)

4. By definition, H = U + PV for 1 mole of an ideal gas.
H = U + RT
By differentiating this equation with respect to temperature T. we get,
\(\frac {dH}{dT}\) = \(\frac {dU}{dT}\) + R
C_P = C_V + R
C_P – C_V = R
Thus for an ideal gas, C_P is greater than C_V by the gas constant R.

Question 26.
What are the applications of Bomb Calorimeter?
Answer:

• Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the amount of heat released in combustion reaction.
• It is used to determine the calorific value of food.
• Bomb calorimeter is used in many industries such as metabolic study. food processing and
  explosive testing.

Question 27.
Define heat of solution.
Answer:
The heat of solution is defined as “the change in enthalpy of the system when one mole of a substance is dissolved in a specified quantity of solvent at a given temperature”.

Question 28.
Define molar heat of fusion.
Answer:
The molar heat of fusion is defined as “the change in enthalpy when one mole of a solid substance is converted into the liquid state at its melting points’.

Question 29.
What is meant by molar heat of vapourisation?
Answer:
The molar heat of vapourisation is defined as the change in enthalpy when one mole of liquid is converted into vapour or gaseous state at its boiling point.

Question 30.

1. What is sublimation?
2. Define molar heat of sublimation.

Answer:

1. Sublimation is a process when a solid changes directly into gaseous state without changing into liquid state.
2. Molar heat of sublimation is defined as the change in enthalpy when one mole of a solid is directly converted into the gaseous state at its sublimation temperature.

Question 31.
Define heat of transition?
Answer:
The heat of transition is defined as the change in enthalpy when one mole of an element changes from one allotropic form to another.

Question 32.
How do you measure the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide?
Answer:
1. Hess’s law can be applied to calculate the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide. It is very difficult to control the oxidation of graphite to give pure CO. However, enthalpy for the oxidation of graphite to CO₂ can be easily measured and enthalpy of oxidation of CO to CO₂ is also measurable.

2. The application of Hess’s law enables us to estimate the enthalpy of formation of CO.
C + O₂ → CO₂ ∆H° = 393.5 kJ ……….. (1)
CO + 1/2 O₂ → CO₂ ∆H° = -283 kJ ……….. (2)
on inverting equation (2), we get
CO₂ → CO + 1/2 O₂ ∆H° = + 283 kJ ………… (3)
on adding equations (2) and (3), we get
C + 1/2 O₂ → CO ∆H°= 393 5 + 283 = 110.5kJ

Question 33.
What are the important features of lattice enthalpy?
Answer:
1. Higher lattice energy shows greater electrostatic attraction and therefore a stronger bond in the solid.
2. The lattice enthalpy is greater for ions of higher charge and smaller radii.

Question 34.
Why there is a need for second law of thermodynamics? Give its importance.
Answer:

• Thermodynamics first law tells that there is an exact equivalence between various forms of energy and that heat gained is equal to heat loss.
• Practically it is not possible to convert the heat energy into an equivalent amount of work.
• To explain this, another law is needed which is known as second law of thermodynamics.
• The second law of thermodynamics helps us to predict whether the reaction is feasible or not and also tell the direction of the flow of heat.
• It also tells that energy cannot be completely converted into equivalent work.

Question 35.
Write the entropy statement of second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Whenever a spontaneous process takes place, it is accompanied by an increase in the total entropy of the Universe.
∆S_universe > ∆S_system + ∆S_surroundings

Question 36.
Write the Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Clausius statement: Heat flows spontaneously from hot objects to cold objects and to get it flow in the opposite direction, we have to spend some work.

Question 37.
What are spontaneous reaction? Give three examples for spontaneous reaction.
Answer:
reaction that does occur under the given set of conditions is called a spontaneous reaction.
Example:

• A waterfall runs downhill, but never up, spontaneously.
• Heat flows from hotter object to a colder one.
• Ageing process.

Question 38.
Define standard entropy of formation.
Answer:
Standard entropy of formation is defined as “the entropy of formation of 1 mole of a compound from the elements under standard conditions”. It is denoted as ∆S_f°. We can calculate the value of entropy of a given compound from the values of S° of elements.
∆S_f° = ∑∆S_products° – ∑∆S_reactants°

Question 39.
What is entropy of fusion?
Answer:
When one mole of the solid melts at its melting point reversibly the heat absorbed is called molar heat of fusion. The entropy change is given by
∆S_f = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{f}}{\mathrm{T}_{f}}\)
Where ∆H_f = molar heat of fusion, T_f is melting point.

Question 40.
What is entropy of Vapourisation?
Answer:
When one mole of liquid is boiled at its boiling point reversibly, the heat absorbed is called as molar heat of vaporization. The entropy change is given by
∆S_v = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{v}}{\mathrm{T}_{b}}\)
where ∆H_v is molar heat of vapourisation. T_b is boiling point.

Question 41.
Define entropy of transition.
Answer:
When one mole of a solid changes reversibly from one allotropic form to another at its transition temperature. The entropy change is given
∆S_t = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{t}}{\mathrm{T}_{t}}\)
Where ∆H_t = molar heat of transition and T_t = transition temperature.

Question 42.
Explain the following:

1. Out of diamond and graphite, which has greater entropy? Why?
2. From thermodynamic point of view, in which system the animals and plants belong?

Answer:

1. Graphite has greater entropy, because it is loosely packed.
2. Animals and plants belong to open system.

Question 43.
What is the condition spontaneity in terms of free energy change?
Answer:

1. If ∆G is negative, process is spontaneous.
2. if ∆G is positive, process is non-spontaneous.
3. if ∆G = 0, the process is in equilibrium.

Question 44.
Why standard entropy of an elementary substance is not zero whereas standard enthalpy of formation is taken as zero?
Answer:
A substance has a perfectly ordered arrangement only at absolute zero. Hence, entropy is zero only at absolute zero. Enthalpy of formation is the heat change involved in the formation of one mole of the substance from its elements. An element formed from its constituents means no heat change.

Question 45.
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is one or more if ∆G ° for it is less than zero. Explain.
Answer:
\({ G }^{ \ominus }\) = – RT in K, thus if \({ G }^{ \ominus }\) is less than zero Le., it is negative, then In K will be positive and hence K will be greater than one.

Question 46.
Many thermo dynamically feasible reactions do not occur under ordinary conditions. Why?
Answer:
Under ordinary conditions, the average energy of the reactants may be less than threshold energy. They require some activation energy to initiate the reaction.

Question 47.
Predict in which of the following, entropy increases or decreases.
Answer:

1.  A liquid crystallizes into a solid
2. Temperature of a crystallized solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K
3. 2NaHCO_3(s) → NaCO₂CO_3(s) + CO_2(s) + H₂O_(s)
4. H_2(s) → 2H_(g)

Answer:

1. After freezing, the molecules attain an ordered state and therefore, entropy decreases.
2. At O K the constituent particles are in static form therefore, entropy is minimum. If the temperature is raised to 115 K particles begin to move and entropy increases.
3. Reactant, NaHCO₃ is solid. Thus, its entropy is less in comparison to product which has high entropy.
4. Here, one molecule gives two atoms. Thus, number of particles increases and this leads to more disordered form.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Thermodynamics 5 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain how heat absorbed at constant pressure is measured using coffee cup calorimeter with neat diagrani.
Answer:

1. Measurement of heat change at constant pressure can be done in a coffee cup calorimeter.
2. We know that ∆H = q_p (at constant P) and therefore, heat absorbed or evolved, q_p at constant pressure is also called the heat of reaction or enthalpy of reaction, ∆H_r
3. in an exoihermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system loses heat to the surroundings. Therefore, q_p will be negative and ∆H_r will also be negative.
4. Similarly in an endothermic reaction, heat is absorbed, q_p is positive and ∆H_r will also be positive.

Question 2.
List the characteristics of entropy.
Characteristics of entropy:
Answer:

1. Entropy is a thermodynamic state function that is a measure of the randomness or disorderliness of the system.
2. In general, the entropy of gaseous system is greater than liquids and greater than solids. The symbol of entropy is S.
3. Entropy is defined as for a reversible change taking place at a constant temperature (T), the change in entropy (∆S) of the system is equal to heat energy absorbed or evolved (q) by the system divided by the constant temperature (T).
   \(\Delta S_{\text {sys }}=\frac{q_{\text {rev }}}{T}\)
4. If heat is absorbed, then AS is positive and there will be increase in entropy. If heat is evolved, ∆S is negative and there is a decrease in entropy.
5. The change in entropy of a process represented by AS and is given by the equation,
   ∆H_sys = S_f – S_i
6. If S_f> S_i, ∆S is positive, the reaction is spontaneous and reversible. If S_f < S_i, ∆S is negative, the reaction is non-spontaneous and irreversible.
7. Unit of entropy: SI unit of entropy is J K ‘.

Question 3.
Explain about the characteristics of work.
Characteristics of work:
Answer:

1. Work is defined as the force (F) multiplied by the displacemcnt (x).
   – w = F.x ……… (1)
   The – ve sign is introduced to indicate that the work has been done by the system by spending a part of its internal energy.
2. Work is a path function.
3. Work appears only at the boundary of the system.
4. Work appears during the change ¡n the state of the system.
5. Work brings a permanent effect in the surroundings.
6. Units of work: The SI unit of work is the joule (J) or Kilojoule (KJ).
7. If work done by the system, the energy of the system decreases, hence by convention work is taken to be negative (- w).
8. If work done by the system, the energy of the system increases, hence by convention work is taken to be positive (+ w).

Question 4.
Derive the relationship between work for a reversible reaction and the charge in volume during comoression and expansion.
Answer:
1. During expansion, work is done by the system; since V1 > V1, the sign obtained for work will be negative.
2. During compression, work is done on the system; since V< V., the sign obtained for work will be positive.
3. If the pressure is not constant, but changes during the process such that it is always infinitesimally greater than the pressure of the gas, then, at each stage of compression, the volume decreases by an infinitesimal amount, dV.
4. We can calculate the work done on the gas by the relation,
w = –\(\int_{V_{i}}^{V_{f}} P d V\) …………(1)
5. In a compression process, P_ext the external pressure is always greater than the pressure of the system. i.e., P_ext = (P_int + dp). In an expansion process, the external pressure is always less than the pressure of the system i.e., P_ext = (P_int – dp).
6. In general case, we can write, P_ext = (P_int ± dp). Such processes are called reversible processes. For a compression process, work can be related to internal pressure of the system under reversible conditions by writing equation.

Since dp . dv is very small, we can write,

For a given system,
P_int V = nRT
P_int V = \(\frac {nRT}{V}\)

7. If V_f > V_i (expansion), the sign to work done by the process is negative.
If V_f < V_i (compression), the sign to work done by the process is positive.

Question 5.
Write the various definition of first law of thermodynamics.
First law of thermodynamics:
Answer:

• The total energy of an isolated system remains constant though it may change from one form to another.
• Whenever energy of a particular type disappears equivalent amount of another type must be produced.
• Total energy of a system and surroundings remains constant.
• Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but may be converted from one form to another.
• The change in the internal energy of a closed system is equal to the energy that passes through its boundary as heat or work.
• Heat and work are equivalent ways of changing a systems internal energy.

Question 6.
Derive the various mathematical statements of the first law.
Answer:
Mathematical statement of the First law of Thermodynamics is
∆U = q + w
Case 1:
For a cyclic process involving isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
∆U = 0
∴ q = -w
In other words, during a cyclic process, the amount of heat absorbed by the system is equal to work done by the system.

Case 2:
For an isochoric process (no change in volume) there is no work of expansion.
∆V = 0
w = 0
∆U = 0
In other words, during isochoric process, the amount of heat supplied to the system is converted to its internal energy.

Case 3:
For an adiabatic process there is no change in heat .i.e., q O. Hence
q = 0
∆U = w
In other words, in an adiabatic process, the decrease in internal energy is exactly equal to the work done by the system on its surroundings.

Case 4:
For an isobaric process. There is no change in the pressure. P remains constant. Hence
∆U = q + w
∆U = q – P∆V
In other words, in an isobaric process a part of heat absorbed by the system is used for PV expansion work and the remaining is added to the internal energy of the system.

Question 7.
What are the characteristics of enthalpy?
Characteristics of enthalpy:
Answer:
1. Enthalpy is a thermodynamic property of a system. Enthalpy H is defined as sum of the internal energy (U) of a system and the product of pressure and volume of the system. That is,
H = U + PV
2. Enthalpy is a state function which depends entirely on the state functions T, P and U.
3. Enthalpy is usually expressed as the change in enthalpy (∆H) for a process between initial and final states.
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
4. At constant pressure, the heat flow (q) for the process is equal to the change in enthalpy which is defined by the equation.
∆H = q_p
5. In an endothermic reaction heat is absorbed by the system from the surroundings that is q >0 (positive). Therefore, at constant Tand P, by the equation above, if q is positive then ∆H is also positive.
6. In an exothermic reaction heat is evolved by the system to the surroundings that is, q<0 (negative). If q is negative, then ∆H will also be negative.
7. Unit of enthalpy is KJ mol^-1.

Question 8.
What are thermochemical equation? What are the conventions adopted In writing thermochemical equation?
Answer:
A thermochemical equation is a balanced stoichiometric chemical equation that includes the enthalpy change (∆H). Conventions adopted ¡n thermochemical equations:

1. The coefficients in a balanced thermochemical equation refer to number of moles of reactants and products involved in the reaction.
2. The enthalpy change of the reaction ∆H has unit kJ.
3. When the chemical reaction is reversed, the value of AR is reversed in sign with the same magnitude.
4. Physical states (gas, liquid, aqueous and solid) of all species is important and must be specified in a thermochemical reaction since AH depends on the phases of reactants and products.
5. if the thermochemical equation is multiplied throughout by a number, the enthalpy change is also be multiplied by the same number value.
6. The negative sign of ∆H indicates the reaction to be an exothermic and the positive sign of ∆H indicates an endothermic type of reaction.

Question 9.
Calculate the values of ∆U and ∆H for an ideal gas in terms of C_P and C_V
Calculation of ∆U and ∆H:
Answer:
For one mole of an ideal gas, we have
C_V = \(\frac {dU}{dT}\)
dU = C_V .dT
For a finite change, we have,
∆U = (U₂ – U₁) = C_V (T₂ – T₁)
and for n moles of an ideal gas we get
∆U = nC_V (T₂ – T₁) ………….(1)
We know,
∆H = ∆(U + PV)
∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV)
∆H = ∆U + ∆RT [: PV= RT]
∆H = ∆U + R∆T
∆H = C_V (T₂ – T₁) + R (T₂ – T₁)
∆H = (C_V + R) (T₂ – T₁)
∆H = C_P (T₂ – T₁) [∴C_P – C_V = R]
For n moles of an ideal gas we get
∆H = n C_P (T₂ – T₁) …………..(2)

Question 10.
Suggest and explain indirect method to calculate lattice enthalpy of magnesium bromide.
Answer:
Born Haber’s cycle method:
Mg(s) + Br₂ (l) → MgBr₂ ∆H_f°
Sublimation: Mg_(s) → Mg_(g) ∆H₁°
Ionisation: Mg_(g) → Mg²⁺_(g) + 2e ∆H₂°
Vapourisation: Br₂(l) → Br_2(g) ∆H₃°

Dissociation: Br_2(g) → 2Br_(g)∆H₄°∆H₄°
Electron affinity: 2Br_(g) + 2e^– → 2Br^–_(g)∆H₅°
Lattice enthalpy: Mg²⁺_(g) + 2Br^–_(g) → MgBr_2(s) ∆H₆° = ?
∆H_f° = ∆H₁° + ∆H₁° + ∆H₂° + ∆H₃° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₅° + ∆H₆°
∆H₆° = ∆H_f° – (∆H₁° + ∆H₁° + ∆H₂° + ∆H₃° + ∆H₄° + ∆H₅°)
If we know the values of ∆H_f° , ∆H₁°, ∆H₂° , ∆H₃° , ∆H₄° and ∆H₅°, we can calculate the value of ∆H₆° by indirect method.

Question 11.
Derive the relationship between standard free energy (∆G°) and equilibrium constant (K_eq).
Answer:
1. In a reversible process, system is at all times in perfect equilibrium with its surroundings.
2. A reversible chemical reaction can proceed in either direction simultaneously, so that a dynamic equilibrium is set up.
3. This means that the reactions in both the directions should proceed with decrease in free energy, which is impossible.
4. It is possible only ¡fat equilibrium, the free energy of a system is minimum.
5. Lets consider a general equilibrium reaction,
A + B ⇌ C + D
The free energy change of the above reaction in any state (∆G) is related to the standard free energy change of the reaction (∆G°) according to the following equation.
∆G = ∆G° + RT in Q …………(1)
where Q is reaction quotient and is defined as the ratio of concentration of the products to the concentration of the reactants under non-equilibrium condition.
6. When equilibrium is attained, there is no further free energy change i.e. ∆G = 0 and Q becomes equal to equilibrium constant. Hence the above equation becomes,
∆G° = RT in K_eq …………(2)
This equation is known as Van’t Hoff equation.
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log K_eq ……….(3)
We also know that,
∆G° = ∆H°- T∆S° = – RT in K_eq ……….(4)

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Rural Economy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 2.
Which feature is identified with rural areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 3.
Identify the feature of rural economy.
(a) Dependence on agriculture
(b) High population density
(c) Low level of population
(d) Low level of inequality
Answer:
(a) Dependence on agriculture

Question 4.
What percentage of the total population live in rural area, as per 2011 censes?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 68.84
(d) 70
Answer:
(c) 68.84

Question 5.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self-employment
Answer:
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment

Question 6.
What is the term used to denote the coexistence of two different features in an economy?
(a) Technology
(b) Dependency
(c) Dualism
(d) Inequality
Answer:
(c) Dualism

Question 7.
The process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living is defined as
(a) Rural economy
(b) Rural economics
(c) Rural employment
(d) Rural development
Answer:
(d) Rural development

Question 8.
Identify the agriculture related problem of rural economy.
(a) Poor communication
(b) Small size of landholding
(c) Rural poverty
(d) Poor banking network
Answer:
(b) Small size of landholding

Question 9.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2100 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 10.
Indicate the cause for rural poverty.
(a) Lack of non-farm employment
(b) High employment
(c) Low inflation rate
(d) High investment.
Answer:
(a) Lack of non-farm employment

Question 11.
What is the other name for concealed unemployment?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
Answer:
(b) Disguised

Question 12.
How do you term the employment occurring only on a particular season?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
Answer:
(c) Seasonal

Question 13.
Identify an example for rural industries?
(a) Sugar factory
(b) Mat making industry
(c) Cement industry
(d) Paper industry
Answer:
(b) Mat making industry

Question 14.
How much share of rural families in India is in debt?
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two third
(d) Three fourth
Answer:
(d) Three fourth

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
In which year, Regional Rural Banks came into existence?
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 17.
Identify the year of the launch of MUDRA Bank?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 18.
Identify the year in which National Rural Health Mission was launched.
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 2005

Question 19.
Identify the advantages of rural roads.
(a) Rural marketing
(b) Rural employment
(c) Rural development
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
“An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt, and bequeaths debt”- who said this?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Define Rural Economy.
Answer:

1. Rural Economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.
2. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
3. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Rural Development?
Answer:
According to the world bank, “Rural development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people rural poor”

Question 23.
Rural Poverty – Define.
Answer:

1. Rural poverty refers to the existence of poverty in rural areas.
2. Poverty in India has been defined as the situation in which an individual fails to earn sufficient income to buy the basic minimum of subsistence.
3. On the basis of recommended nutritional intake, persons consuming less than 2400 calories per day in rural areas are treated as they are under rural poverty.

Question 24.
Define Open Unemployment.
Answer:
In open unemployment, unemployed persons are identified as they remain without work. This type of unemployment is found among agricultural labourers, rural artisans, and literate persons.

Question 25.
What is meant by Disguised Unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is a situation where many are employed below their productive capacity and even if they are withdrawn from work the output will not diminish.

Question 26.
Define Cottage Industry.
Answer:
Cottage industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs in rural areas.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Micro Finance?
Answer:

1. Micro Finance is also known as microcredit is a financial service that offers loans, savings, and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners who do not have access to traditional sources of capital like banks or investors.
2. The goal of micro-financing is to provide individuals with money to invest in themselves or their business.
3. Microfinance is available through microfinance institutions, which range from small non-profit organizations to larger banks.

Question 28.
State any two causes of the housing problem in rural areas.
Answer:

1. Rapid adaptation of nuclear families.
2. Problems in the provision of proper water supply, good sanitation, proper disposal of sewage.

Question 29.
Define Rural Electrification.
Answer:

1. Rural Electrification refers to providing electrical power to rural areas.
2. The main aims of rural electrification are to provide electricity to agricultural operations and to enhance agricultural productivity.
3. To increase cropped area, to promote rural industries, and to lighting the villages.
4. In order to improve this facility, the supply of electricity is almost free for agricultural purposes in many states, and the electricity tariff is charged in rural areas is kept very low.

Question 30.
State any two factors hindering Rural Electrification in India.
Answer:

1. Lack of funds
2. Interstate disputes
3. Uneven terrain

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 31.
State the importance of Rural Development.
Answer:
Importance of Rural Development:

1. A major share of the population lives in rural areas, and their development and contributions are very much supportive for nation-building activities. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward.
2. The rural economy supports the urban sectors by way of supplying drinking water, milk, food, and raw materials. Hence, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.
3. Improvements in education, health, and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems namely, begging, rag-picking and roadside slumming.
4. The development of agriculture and allied activities are necessary for providing gainful employment in rural areas and improving overall food production.

Question 32.
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness.
Answer:

1. The skewed distribution of land.
2. Lack of non-farm employment.
3. Lack of public sector investment.
4. Inflation.
5. Low productivity.
6. The unequal benefit of growth.
7. Low rate of economic growth.
8. More emphasis on large industries.
9. Social evils.

Question 33.
Enumerate the remedial measures to Rural Poverty.
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, the creation of employment opportunities would support the elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded, and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking, and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

Question 34.
What are the remedial measures for Rural Unemployment?
Answer:

1. Subsidiary occupation: To reduce seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupation.
2. Rural works programme: Rural works programme should be planned during the offseason to provide gainful employment.
3. Irrigation facilities: Irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.
4. Rural industrialization: New industries should be set up in rural areas.
5. Technical education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced to literate the youth to start their own units.

Question 35.
Write a note on Regional Rural Banks.
Answer:

1. Regional Rural Banks came into existence based on the recommendation made by a working group on rural banks appointed by the Government of India in 1975.
2. RRBs are recommended with a view to developing the rural economy by providing credit and other facilities particularly to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs.
3. RRBs are set up by the joint efforts of the Centre and State Governments and commercial banks.
4. At present, there are 64 Regional Rural Banks in India.
5. The RRBs confine their lendings only to the weaker sections and their lending rates are at par with the prevailing rate of co-operative societies.

Question 36.
Mention the features of SHGs.
Answer:

1. SHG is an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self-selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well-defined rules and by-laws, hold regular, meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self-managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

Question 37.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank.
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to Microfinance Institutions [MFI] and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups, and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro-businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing, and monitoring of distributed capital.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 38.
‘The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’- Argue.
Answer:
The Rural economy has very peculiar features which are :

1. The village is an institution: The village is a primary institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community.
2. Dependence on agriculture : Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupations in rural areas.
3. Life of rural people: Life styles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable.
4. Population density : Density of population is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.
5. Employment: There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and underemployment in rural areas.
6. Poverty: According to the 2011 – 12 estimates about 22 crores of people in rural areas live below the poverty line.
7. Indebtedness: Sir Malcolm Darling stated that an Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt.
8. Rural income: As the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them with jobs or self-employment opportunities the income of the rural people is constrained.
9. Dependency: Rural households are dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.
10. Dualism: Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features which is the common characteristics in a rural area.
11. Inequality: The distribution of income, wealth, and assets are highly skewed among rural people.
12. Migration: Rural people are forced to migrate to urban areas to seek employment which gives rise to the formation of cities. Enmity and lack of basic amenities in rural areas also push the people to migrate. This is called double poisoning by Schumacher.

Question 39.
Discuss the problems of the Rural Economy.
Answer:
Rural areas are facing a number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

The problems of the rural economy are discussed below.

1. People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know-how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs, etc.

2. Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

• Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill, and attitude.
• Unavailability of inputs.
• Poor marketing facility.

3. Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking, and insurance are found in rural areas.

4. Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

• Inability to adopt high-cost technology.
• The high cost of inputs.
• Underprivileged rural industries.
• Low income
• Indebtedness
• Existence of inequality in landholdings and assets.

5. Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership-related problems found in rural areas are,

• Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
• Self-interest of leaders
• Biased political will
• Less bargaining power
• Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

6. Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems consist of

• Political interference
• Lack of motivation and interest
• Low wages in villages
• Improper utilization of budget
• Absence of monitoring
• Implementation of the rural development programme.

Question 40.
Analyze the causes for Rural Indebtedness.
Answer:
1. Poverty of farmers: The vicious circle of poverty fore es the farmers to borrow for consumption, cultivation, and celebrations. Thus, poverty’s debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

2. Failure of monsoon: Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature. Therefore, farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

3. Litigation: Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

4. Moneylenders and high rate of interest: The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuating indebtedness of the farmer.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy Additional Questions and Answers

Part-A
Choose the best options

Question 1.
According to the 2011 population census, there are ___________ villages in India.
(a) 6,40,867
(b) 3,40,867
(c) 4,40,867
(d) 5,40,867
Answer:
(a) 6,40,867

Question 2.
Of 121 crore total population ___________ percent lives in rural areas.
(a) 64.88
(b) 68.84
(c) 68.48
(d) 88.64
Answer:
(b) 68.84

Question 3.
___________ are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
(a) Townships
(b) Corporations
(c) Rural areas
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Rural areas

Question 4.
Total percentage of poverty in 2009-2010
(a) 33.80
(b) 38.30
(c) 33.08
(d) 80.33
Answer:
(a) 33.80

Question 5.
In 2009, the total number of micro finance institutions in India was around ___________
(a) 140
(b) 150
(c) 160
(d) 170
Answer:
(b) 150

Question 6.
SHG Bank Linked Programme (SBLP) was started in ___________
(a) 1991
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Answer:
(c) 1992

Question 7.
Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency is ___________
(a) IRDB
(b) MUDRA
(c) BUNDAN
(d) ICICI
Answer:
(b) MUDRA

Question 8.
MUDRA Bank was started in the year ___________
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2015
(d) 2013
Answer:
(c) 2015

Question 9.
___________ was the first professor of economics at Madras University
(a) Gilbert Slater
(b) Samuelson
(c) Marshall
(d) Manmohan Singh
Answer:
(a) Gilbert Slater

Question 10.
National Rural Health Mission was launched on ___________
(a) 2001
(b) 1991
(c) 2005
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 11.
___________ are set up with a view to developing the rural economy by providing credit and other facilities to small and marginal farmers.
(a) MUDRA Bank
(b) RRB
(c) SHG
(d) NABARD
Answer:
(b) RRB

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer:
(b) 2 1 3 4

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Choose the correct option

Question 3.
The national rural health mission was established in
(a) March 12, 2005
(b) June 12, 2005
(c) April 12, 2005
(d) June 13, 2005
Answer:
(c) April 12, 2005

Question 4.
The gross national happiness index is
(a) GDP
(b) HDF
(c) WEI
(d) GNHI
Answer:
(d) GNHI

Question 5.
The poverty line is calculated on the basis of
(a) Based on inflation
(b) Based on poverty
(c) Based on income or consumption
(d) Based on unemployment
Answer:
(c) Based on income or consumption

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 6.
Microcredit is also known as
(a) Microfinance
(b) Small finance
(c) Large finance
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Microfinance

Question 7.
The co-existence of two extremely different features is called as
(a) Unity
(b) Dualism
(c) Trism
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Dualism

Question 8.
The first economics professor of madras university was
(a) A.K. Sen
(b) Charan Singh
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Gilbert Slater
Answer:
(d) Gilbert Slater

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 9.
(a) Physical quality of life index is PQLI
(b) The existence of poverty in rural areas is called rural poverty
(c) SSI s are also known as micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
(d) Petter diamond was the first economics professor of madras university
Answer:
(d) Petter diamond was the first economics professor of madras university

Question 10.
(a) MUDRA is micro units development and Refinance Agency Bank
(b) NRHM is National Rural Health Mission.
(c) The length of roads in India as of 2018 is 24 lakh kms.
(d) PURA is the provision of urban facilities for rural areas.
Answer:
(c) The length of roads in India as of 2018 is 24 lakh kms.

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 11.

Answer:
(c) NHRM (iii) Rural health

Question 12.

Answer:
(d) All Indian Debt and Investment Survey (iv) AIDS

Question 13.

Answer:
(d) National Food Security (iv) 2013

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) Adarsh Gram Sadak Yojana (i) 2010

Choose the correct statement

Question 15.
(a) Unemployment is a situation in which a person who is unwilling to work employed,
(b) According to 2011 12 estimates 42 crore village population list below the poverty line.
(c) In 2015, 60 crore people lived in villages.
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling stated that ‘An Indian farmer is a bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt’
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling stated that ‘An Indian farmer is a bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt’

Question 16.
(a) Number of people living per sq. km is called population scarcity.
(b) There are 5,40,867 villages in India.
(c) The concept of ‘Double poisoning’ was coined by Schumacher.
(d) In 2009-10, the total percentage of poverty in India is 54.10
Answer:
(c) The concept of ‘Double poisoning’ was coined by Schumacher.

Pick the odd one out

Question 17.
(a) Petter Diamond
(b) A.K.Sen
(c) Dale Mortensen
(d) Christopher Pissarides
Answer:
(b) A.K.Sen

Question 18.
(a) NCC
(b) IRDP
(c) TRYSEM
(d) MGNREGS
Answer:
(a) NCC

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 19.
Assertion (A) : Creation of employment opportunities eliminate poverty in rural areas.
Reason (R) : Rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated.
(a) (A) is true; but (R) is false
(b) Both (A) and (R) are false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 20.
Assertion (A) : Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature.
Reason (R) : To reduce seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name some of the economic indicators?
Answer:
Human Development Index (HDI), Women Empowerment Index (WEI), Gender Disparity Index (GDI), Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI), and Gross National Happiness Index (GNHI).

Question 2.
How can you measure poverty by nutritional index?
Answer:
On the basis of recommended nutritional intake, persons consuming less than 2400 calories per day is rural areas are considered as rural poor.

Question 3.
What is unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which a person actively searching for employment but unable to find work at the prevailing wage rate.

Question 4.
Write a note on seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
In seasonal unemployment, employment occurs only in a particular season and workers remain unemployed in the remaining period of a year.

Question 5.
Write a note on NRHM.
Answer:
The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on 12th April 2005, to provide accessible, affordable and quality health care to the vulnerable groups in rural areas.

Question 6.
What is population density?
Answer:
Population density is the number of persons living per square kilometer.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
What are the types of rural unemployment?
Answer:

1. Open unemployment: Unemployed persons are identified as they remain without work.
2. Concealed unemployment: Many are employed below their productive capacity and even if they are withdrawn from work the output will not diminish. It is also called disguised unemployment or underemployment.
3. Seasonal unemployment: Employment occurs only during a particular season and the remaining period of a year the rural people are unemployed or partially employed.

Question 2.
Explain about village industries.
Answer:
Village industries are traditional in nature and depend on the local raw material. They cater to the needs of the local population.
(Eg.) Gur and Khandsari, Cane and Bamboo basket, Shoemaking, Pottery, and Leather tanning.

Question 3.
Write a note on rural indebtedness.
Answer:
Rural indebtedness refers to the situation of the rural people who are unable to repay the loan accumulated over a period. Existence of the rural indebtedness indicates the weak financial infrastructure of our country in reaching the needy farmer’s landless people and agricultural labourers.

Question 4.
Write a note on rural roads.
Answer:
Rural roads constitute the very lifeline of the rural economy. A well-constructed road network in rural areas would bring several benefits including the linking of remote villages with urban centres, reduction in the cost of transportation of agricultural inputs, and promotion of marketing for rural produces.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Explain the causes for rural unemployment.
Answer:
1. Absence of skill development and employment generation: Lack of Government initiatives to give required training and then to generate employment opportunities.

2. Seasonal nature of agriculture: Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature, so non-farm employment opportunities must be created to reduce seasonal unemployment.

3. Lack of subsidiary occupation: Rural people are not able to start subsidiary occupations due to shortages of funds for investment and lack of proper marketing arrangements.

4. Mechanization of agriculture: Mechanization of agricultural operations reduces employment opportunities for farm labour.

5. Capital – Intensive technology: The expanding private industrial sector in urban areas do not create additional employment opportunities due to the application of capital intensive technologies.

6. Defective system of education: The present system of education has also aggravated the rural unemployment problem. Students want to get degrees only, not any skill. Degrees should be awarded only on the basis of skills acquired.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Fiscal Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Fiscal Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The modem state is ……………………..
(a) Laissez – faire state
(b) Aristocratic state
(c) Welfare state
(d) Police state
Answer:
(c) Welfare state

Question 2.
One of the following is NOT a feature of private finance.
(a) Balancing of income and expenditure
(b) Secrecy
(c) Saving some part of income
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(d) Publicity

Question 3.
The tax possesses the following characteristics.
(a) Compulsory
(b) No quid pro quo
(c) Failure to pay is offence
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
Which of the following canons of taxation was not listed by Adam smith?
(a) Canon of equality
(b) Canon of certainty
(c) Canon of convenience
(d) Canon of simplicity
Answer:
(d) Canon of simplicity

Question 5.
Consider the following statements and identify the correct ones.
i. Central government does not have exclusive power to impose tax which is not mentioned in state or concurrent list.
ii. The Constitution also provides for transferring certain tax revenues from union list to states.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) both
(d) none
Answer:
(b) ii only

Question 6.
GST is equivalence of ……………………..
(a) Sales tax
(b) Corporation tax
(c) Income tax
(d) Local tax
Answer:
(a) Sales tax

Question 7.
The direct tax has the following merits except
(a) equity
(b) convenient
(c) certainty
(d) civic consciousness
Answer:
(b) convenient

Question 8.
Which of the following is a direct tax?
(a) Excise duty
(b) Income tax
(c) Customs duty
(d) Service tax
Answer:
(b) Income tax

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a tax under Union list?
(a) Personal Income Tax
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Agricultural Income Tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(c) Agricultural Income Tax

Question 10.
“Revenue Receipts” of the Government do not include
(a) Interest
(b) Profits and dividents
(c) Recoveries and loans
(d) Rent from property
Answer:
(d) Rent from property

Question 11.
The difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts is
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Budget deficit
(d) Primary deficit
Answer:
(a) Revenue deficit

Question 12.
The difference between total expenditure and total receipts including loans and other liabilities is called …………………………….
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Primary deficit
(d) Revenue deficit
Answer:
(a) Fiscal deficit

Question 13.
The primary purpose of deficit financing is
(a) Economic development
(b) Economic stability
(c) Economic equality
(d) Employment generation
Answer:
(a) Economic development

Question 14.
Deficit budget means
(a) An excess of government’s revenue over expenditure
(b) An excess of government’s current expenditure over its current revenue
(c) An excess of government’s total expenditure over its total revenue
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) An excess of government’s total expenditure over its total revenue

Question 15.
Methods of repayment of public debt is
(a) Conversion
(b) Sinking fund
(c) Funded debt
(d) All these
Answer:
(d) All these

Question 16.
Conversion of public debt means exchange of ……………………………
(a) New bonds for the old ones
(b) Low interest bonds for higher interest bonds
(c) Long term bonds for short term bonds
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Low interest bonds for higher interest bonds

Question 17.
The word budget has been derived from the French word “bougette” which means
(a) A small bag
(b) An empty box
(c) A box with papers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) A small bag

Question 18.
Which one of the following deficits does not consider borrowing as a receipt?
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Budgetary deficit
(c) Fiscal deficit
(d) Primary deficit
Answer:
(c) Fiscal deficit

Question 19.
Finance Commission determines
(a) The finances of Government of India
(b) The resources transfer to the states
(c) The resources transfer to the various departments
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The resources transfer to the states

Question 20.
Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.
i. The finance commission is appointed by the President
ii. The tenure of Finance commission is five years

(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both

Part – B
Two Mark Questions.

Question 21.
Define public finance?
Answer:
“Public finance is one of those subjects that lie on the border line between Economics and Politics. It is concerned with income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one to the other”. – Huge Dalton “Public finance is an investigation into the nature and principles of the state revenue and expenditure”. – Adam Smith

Question 22.
What is public revenue?
Answer:
Public Revenue:
Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation, rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.

Question 23.
Differentiate tax and fee?
Answer:
Tax:

• A tax is a compulsory payment made to the government.
• People on whom a tax is imposed must pay the tax.
• There is no quid pro quo between a taxpayer and public authorities. This means that the tax payer cannot claim any specific benefit against the payment of a tax.

Fee:

• Fees are another important source of revenue for the government.
• A fee is charged by public authorities for rendering a service to the citizens.
• The government provides certain services and charges certain fees for them. For example, fees are charged for issuing of passports, driving licenses, etc.

Question 24.
Write a short note on zero based budget/
Answer:
Zero Base Budget:
1. The Government of India presented Zero-Base-Budgeting (ZBB first) in 1987-88.

2. It involves fresh evaluation of expenditure in the Government budget, assuming it as a new item.

3. The review has been made to provide justification or otherwise for the project as a whole in the light of the socio economic objectives which have been already set up for this project and as well as in view of the priorities of the society.

Question 25.
Give two examples for direct tax?
Answer:
Equity:
Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.

Certainity:
Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

Question 26.
What are the components of GST?
Answer:
Components of GST:
The component of GST are of 3 types. They are: CGST, SGST & IGST.

1. CGST: Collected by the Central Government on an intra – state sale (e.g. Within state/ union territory)
2. SGST: Collected by the State Government on an intra – state sale {e.g. Within state/ union territory)
3. IGST: Collected by the Central Government for inter – state sale {e.g. Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu)

Question 27.
What do you mean by public debt?
Answer:

1. The state has to supplement the traditional revenue sources with borrowing from individuals, and institutions within and outside the country.
2. The amount of borrowing is huge in the under developed countries to finance development activities.
3. The debt burden is a big problem and most of the countries are in debt trap.

Part – C
Three Mark Questions.

Question 28.
Describe canons of Taxation?
Answer:
According to Adam Smith, there are four canons or maxims of taxation. They are as follows:
Canons of Taxation:

1. Economical
2. Equitable
3. Convenient
4. Certain
5. (Efficient and Flexible)

1. Canon of Ability:

1. The Government should impose tax in such a way that the people have to pay taxes according to their ability.
2. In such case a rich person should pay more tax compared to a middle class person or a poor person.

2. Canon of Certainty:

1. The Government must ensure that there is no uncertainty regarding the rate of tax or the time of payment.
2. If the Government collects taxes arbitrarily, then these will adversely affect the efficiency of the people and their working ability too.

3. Canon of Convenience:

1. The method of tax collection and the timing of the tax payment should suit the convenience of the people.
2. The Government should make convenient arrangement for all the tax payers to pay the taxes without difficulty.

4. Canon of Economy:

1. The Government has to spend money for collecting taxes, for example, salaries are given to the persons who are responsible for collecting taxes.
2. The taxes, where collection costs are more are considered as bad taxes.
3. Hence, according to Smith, the Government should impose only those taxes whose collection costs are very less and cheap.

Question 29.
Mention any three similarities between public finance and private finance?
Answer:
Similarities:
1. Rationality:

1. Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality.
2. Maximization of welfare and least cost factor combination underlie both.

2. Limit to borrowing:

1. Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing.
2. The Government also cannot live beyond its means.
3. There is a limit to deficit financing by the state also.

3. Resource utilisation:

1. Both the private and public sectors have limited resources at their disposal.
2. So both attempt to make optimum use of resources.

Question 30.
What are the functions of a modern state?
Answer:
Functions of Modern State:

1. The modem state is a welfare state and not just police state.

2. The state assumes greater roles by creating economic and social overheads, ensuring stability both internally and externally, conserving resources for sustainable development and so on.

(I) Defence:
The primary function of the Government is to protect the people from external aggression and internal disorder.
The government has to maintain adequate police and military forces and render protective services.

(II) Judiciary:
Rendering justice and settlement of disputes are the concern of the government.
It should provide adequate judicial structure to render justice to all classes of citizens.

(III) Enterprises:
The regulation and control of private enterprise fall under the purview of the modem State. Ownership of certain enterprises and operating them successfully are the responsibilities of the government.

(IV) Social Welfare:
It is the duty of the state to make provisions for education, social security, social insurance, health and sanitation for the betterment of the people in the country.

(V) Infrastructure:
Modem States have to build the base for the economic development of the country by creating social and economic infrastructure.

(VI) Macro – economic policy:
The Government has to administer fiscal policy and monetary policy to achieve macro¬economic goals.

(VII) Social Justice:
During the process of growth of an economy, certain sections of the society gain at the cost of others.
The Government needs to intervene with fiscal measures to redistribute income.

(VIII) Control of Monopoly:

1. Concentration of economic power is another evil to be corrected by the Government.
2. So, the state intervenes through control of monopolies and restrictive trade practices to curb concentration of economic power.

Question 31.
State any three characteristics of taxation?
Answer:
Characteristics of Tax:
1. A tax is a compulsory payment made to the government. People on whom a tax is imposed must pay the tax. Refusal to pay the tax is a punishable offence.

2. There is no quid pro quo between a taxpayer and public authorities. This means that the tax payer cannot claim any specific benefit against the payment of a tax.

3. Every tax involves some sacrifice on part of the tax payer.

4. A tax is not levied as a fine or penalty for breaking law.

Question 32.
Point out any three differences between direct tax and indirect tax?
Answer:
Direct Tax:

1. Progressive
2. Falls on the same person.
3. Cannot be shifted.

Indirect Tax:

1. Regressive
2. Falls on different persons.
3. Can be shifted

Question 33.
What is primary deficit?
Answer:
Primary Deficit:

1. Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments.
2. It shows the real burden of the government and it does not include the interest burden on loans taken in the past.
3. Thus, primary deficit reflects borrowing requirement of the government exclusive of interest payments.
   Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal deficit (PD) – Interest Payment (IP)

Question 34.
Mention any three methods of redemption of public debt?
Answer:
Methods of Redemption of Public Debt:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.

(I) Sinking Fund:

1. Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
2. The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
3. By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
4. This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(II) Conversion:

1. Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.
2. It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
3. Under this system’a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
4. Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(III) Budgetary Surplus:

1. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
2. Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
3. However, this method is rarely possible.

Part – D
Five Mark Questions.

Question 35.
Explain the scope of public finance?
Answer:
Scope of Public Finance:
The subject ‘Public Finance’ includes five major sub-divisions, viz., Public Revenue, Public Expenditure, Public Debt, Financial Administration and Fiscal Policy.

(I) Public Revenue:
Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation, rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.

(II) Public Expenditure:
This part studies the fundamental principles that govern the Government expenditure, effects of public expenditure and control of public expenditure.

(III) Public Debt:

1. Public debt deals with the methods of raising loans from internal and external sources.
2. The burden, effects and redemption of public debt fall under this head.

(IV) Financial Administration:

1. This part deals with the study of the different aspects of public budget.
2. The budget is the Annual master financial plan of the Government.
3. The various objectives and steps in preparing a public budget, passing or sanctioning, allocation evaluation and auditing fall within financial administration.

(V) Fiscal Policy:
Taxes, subsidies, public debt and public expenditure are the instruments of fiscal policy.

Question 36.
Bring out the merits of indirect taxes over direct taxes?
Answer:
Merits of Direct Taxes:
(I) Equity:

1. Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base.
2. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.

(II) Certainity:

1. Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes.
2. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

(III) Elasticity:

1. Direct taxes also satisfy the canon of elasticity.
2. Income tax is income elastic in nature. As income level increases, the tax revenue to the Government also increases automatically.

(IV) Economy:

1. The cost of collection of direct taxes is relatively low.
2. The tax payers pay the tax directly to the state.

Merits of Indirect Taxes:

(I) Wider Coverage:

1. All the consumers, whether they are rich or poor, have to pay indirect taxes.
2. For this reason, it is said that indirect taxes can cover more people than direct taxes.
3. For example, in India everybody pays indirect tax as against just 2 percent paying income tax.

(I) Equitable:
The indirect tax satisfies the canon of equity when higher tax is imposed on luxuries used by rich people.

(II) Economical:

1. Cost of collection is less as producers and retailers collect tax and pay to the Government.
2. The traders act as honorary tax collectors.

(IV) Checks harmful consumption:

1. The Government imposes indirect taxes on those commodities which are harmful to health
2. e.g. tobacco, liquor etc.
3. They are known as sin taxes.

(V) Convenient:

1. Indirect taxes are levied on commodities and services.
2. Whenever consumers make purchase, they pay tax along with the price.
3. They do not feel the pinch of paying tax.

Question 37.
Explain the methods of debt redemption?
Answer:
Methods of Redemption of Public Debt:
The process of repaying a public debt is called redemption. The Government sells securities to the public and at the time of maturity, the person who holds the security surrenders it to the Government. The following methods are adopted for debt redemption.

(I) Sinking Fund:

1. Under this method, the Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
2. The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
3. By the time the debt matures, the fund accumulates enough amount to pay off the principal along with interest.
4. This method was first introduced in England by Walpol.

(II) Conversion:

1. Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.
2. It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
3. Under this system a high interest public debt is converted into a low interest public debt.
4. Dalton felt that debt conversion actually relaxes the debt burden.

(III) Budgetary Surplus:

1. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilised for repaying the debt.
2. Surplus occurs when public revenue exceeds the public expenditure.
3. However, this method is rarely possible.

(IV) Terminal Annuity:

1. In this method, Government pays off the public debt on the basis of terminal annuity in equal annual instalments.
2. This is the easiest way of paying off the public debt.

(V) Repudiation:

1. It is the easiest way for the Government to get rid of the burden of payment of a loan.
2. In such cases, the Government does not recognise its obligation to repay the loan.
3. It is certainly not paying off a loan but destroying it.
4. However, in normal case the Government does not do so; if done it will lose its credibility, (vz) Reduction in Rate of Interest:
5. Another method of debt redemption is the compulsory reduction in the rate of interest, during the time of financial crisis.

(VII) Capital Levy:

1. When the Government imposes levy on the capital assets owned by an individual or any . institution, it is called capital levy.
2. This levy is imposed on capital assets above a minimum limit on a progressive scale.
3. The fund so collected can be used by the Government for paying off war time debt obligations.
4. This is the most controversial method of debt repayment.

Question 38.
State and explain instruments of fiscal policy?
Answer:
Fiscal Instruments:
Fiscal Policy is implemented through fiscal instruments also called ‘fiscal tools’ or fiscal levers: Government expenditure, taxation and borrowing are the fiscal tools.
(I) Taxation:

1. Taxes transfer income from the people to the Government.
2. Taxes are either direct or indirect.
3. An increase in tax reduces disposable income.
4. So taxation should be raised to control inflation.
5. During depression, taxes are to be reduced.

(II) Public Expenditure:

1. Public expenditure raises wages and salaries of the employees and thereby the aggregate demand for goods and services.
2. Hence public expenditure is raised to fight recession and reduced to control inflation.

(III) Public debt:

1. When Government borrows by floating a loan, there is transfer of funds from the public to the Government.
2. At the time of interest payment and repayment of public debt, funds are transferred from Government to public.

Question 39.
Explain the principles of federal finance?
Answer:
Principles of Federal Finance:
In the case of federal system of finance, the following main principles must be applied:

1. Principle of Independence.
2. Principle of Equity.
3. Principle of Uniformity.
4. Principle of Adequacy.
5. Principle of Fiscal Access.
6. Principle of Integration and coordination.
7. Principle of Efficiency.
8. Principle of Administrative Economy.
9. Principle of Accountability.

1. Principle of Independence:
(i) Under the system of federal finance, a Government should be autonomous and free about the internal financial matters concerned.

(ii) It means each Government should have separate sources of revenue, authority to levy taxes, to borrow money and to meet the expenditure.

3. The Government should normally enjoy autonomy in fiscal matters.

2. Principle of Equity:
From the point of view of equity, the resources should be distributed among the different states so that each state receives a fair share of revenue.

3. Principle of Uniformity:
In a federal system, each state should contribute equal tax payments for federal finance.

4. Principle of Adequacy of Resources:

1. The principle of adequacy means that the resources of each Government i.e. Central and State should be adequate to carry out its functions effectively.
2. Here adequacy must be decided with reference to both current as well as future needs.
3. Besides, the resources should be elastic in order to meet the growing needs and unforeseen expenditure like war, floods etc.

5. Principle of Fiscal Access:
(i) In a federal system, there should be possibility for the Central and State Governments to develop new source of revenue within their prescribed fields to meet the growing financial needs.

(ii) In nutshell, the resources should grow with the increase in the responsibilities of the . Government.

6. Principle of Integration and coordination:

1. The financial system as a whole should be well integrated.
2. There should be perfect coordination among different layers of the financial system of the country.
3. Then only the federal system will survive.
4. This should be done in such a way to promote the overall economic development of the country.

7. Principle of Efficiency:

1. The financial system should be well organized and efficiently administered.
2. Double taxation should be avoided.

8. Principle of Administrative Economy:

1. Economy is the important criterion of any federal financial system.
2. That is, the cost of collection should be at the minimum level and the major portion of revenue should be made available for the other expenditure outlays of the Governments.

9. Principle of Accountability:
Each Government should be accountable to its own legislature for its financial decisions i.e. the Central to the Parliament and the State to the Assembly.

Question 40.
Describe the various types of deficit in budget?
Answer:
The Indian Government budget, budget deficit is of four major types.

1. Revenue Deficit
2. Budget Deficit
3. Fiscal Deficit, and
4. Primary Deficit

(I) Revenue Deficit:
It refers to the excess of the government revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. It does not consider capital receipts and capital expenditure. Revenue deficit implies that the government is living beyond its means to conduct day-to-day operations.
Revenue Deficit (RD) = Total Revenue Expenditure (RE) – Total Revenue Receipts (RR) When RE – RR > 0

(II) Budget Deficit:
Budget deficit is the difference between total receipts and total expenditure (both revenue and capital)
Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Revenue

(III) Fiscal Deficit:
Fiscal deficit (FD) = Budget deficit + Government’s market borrowings and liabilities

(IV) Primary Deficit:
Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It shows the real burden of the government and it does not include the interest burden on loans taken in the past. Thus, primary deficit reflects borrowing requirement of the government exclusive of interest payments.
Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal deficit (PD) – Interest Payment (IP)

Question 41.
What are the reasons for the recent growth in public expenditure?
Answer:
Causes for the Increase in Government Expenditure:
The modem state is a welfare state. In a welfare state, the government has to perform several functions viz Social, economic and political. These activities are the cause for increasing public expenditure.

(I) Population Growth:
1. During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore in 1951, to 121 crore in 2011.

2. The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and order, etc.

3. Young population requires increasing expenditure on education & youth services, whereas the aging population requires transfer payments like old age pension, social security & health facilities.

(II) Defence Expenditure:

1. There has been enormous increase in defence expenditure in India during planning period.
2. The defence expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernisation of defence equipment.
3. The defence expenditure of the government was ? 10,874 crores in 1990-91 which increased significantly to ? 2,95,511 crores in 2018-19.

(III) Government Subsidies:
1. The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food, fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc.

2. Because of the massive amounts of subsidies, the public expenditure has increased manifold.

(IV) Debt Servicing:
The government has been borrowing heavily both from the internal and external sources, As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt servicing.

(V) Development Projects:
1. The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc.

2. The development projects involve huge investment.

(VI) Urbanisation:

1. There has been an increase in urbanization.
2. In 1950 – 51 about 17% of the population was urban based.
3. Now the urban population has increased to about 43%.
4. There are more than 54 cities above one million population.
5. The increase in urbanization requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amenities.

(VII) Industrialisation:

1. Setting up of basic and heavy industries involves a huge capital and long gestation period.
2. It is the government which starts such industries in a planned economy.
3. The under developed countries need a strong of infrastructure like transport, communication, power, fuel, etc.

(VIII) Increase in grants in aid to state and union territories:
There has been tremendous increase in grant-in-aid to state and union territories to meet natural disasters.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Fiscal Economics Addtional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
“Public finance is one of those subjects that lie on the border line between Economics and ……………………….
(a) Finance
(b) Investment
(c) Politics
(d) Money
Answer:
(c) Politics

Question 2.
Tax revenue deals with the ……………………….
(a) Fees
(b) Revenue
(c) Kinds of taxes
(d) Non – tax revenue
Answer:
(c) Kinds of taxes

Question 3.
The compulsory charge levied by the government is ……………………….
(a) Tax
(b) Loan
(c) Licence
(d) Gifts and grants
Answer:
(a) Tax

Question 4.
In ZBB every year is considered as a ……………………….
(a) Academic year
(b) New year
(c) Financial year
(d) Base year
Answer:
(b) New year

Question 5.
………………………. means different sources of government income.
(a) Public finance
(b) Public revenue
(c) Public expenditure
(d) Public credit
Answer:
(b) Public revenue

Question 6.
Public debt deals with the methods of raising loans from Internal and ………………………. sources.
(a) International
(b) National
(c) External
(d) State level
Answer:
(c) External

Question 7.
Taxes, subsidies, public debt and public expenditure are the instruments of ……………………….
(a) Public Revenue
(b) Public Expenditure
(c) Public debt
(d) Fiscal policy
Answer:
(d) Fiscal policy

Question 8.
………………………. deals with study of income, expenditure, borrowing and financial administration of the government.
(a) Public Finance
(b) Public Revenue
(c) Public Expenditure
(d) Public Debt
Answer:
(a) Public Finance

Question 9.
Both Public Finance and Finance are based on rationality.
(a) Private
(b) Resource
(c) Maximization
(d) Private
Answer:
(d) Private

Question 10.
The modem state is a state.
(a) Revenue
(b) Defence
(c) Government
(d) Welfare
Answer:
(d) Welfare

Question 11.
………………………. is the duty of the state to make provisions for education, social security, social insurance, health and sanitation.
(a) Social Welfare
(b) Infrastructure
(c) Social Justice
(d) Macro Economic Policy
Answer:
(a) Social Welfare

Question 12.
…………………………… refers to Government spending incurred by central, state, local government of a country.
(a) Public Finance
(b) Public Expenditure
(c) Public Revenue
(d) Social Welfare
Answer:
(b) Public Expenditure

Question 13.
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of Production Functions, Commercial Functions and ………………………………. Functions.
(a) Defence
(b) Growth
(c) Development
(d) Government
Answer:
(c) Development

Question 14.
…………………….. such as irrigation, iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, tele communications, etc.
(a) Development projects
(b) Investment projects
(c) Finance project
(d) Monetary projects
Answer:
(a) Development projects

Question 15.
The increase in ………………………… requires heavy expenditure on law and order, education and civic amentities.
(a) Development project
(b) Industrialization
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Public revenue
Answer:
(c) Urbanisation

Question 16.
Heavy Industries involves a huge …………………………. and long gestation period.
(a) Capital
(b) Investment
(c) Revenue
(d) Finance
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 17.
Welfare activities are undertaken by …………………………..
(a) Modem governments
(b) Capitalist governments
(c) Mixed governments
(d) Socialist governments
Answer:
(a) Modem governments

Question 18.
Borrowing by the government from the public is called ……………………..
(a) Public Revenue
(b) Public expenditure
(c) Public debt
(d) Public finance
Answer:
(c) Public debt

Question 19.
Budget is prepared and submitted …………………………
(a) Every year
(b) Twice in a year
(c) Thrice in a year
(d) Five in a year
Answer:
(a) Every year

Question 20.
Sources of Public Revenue is Tax Revenue and …………………….
(a) Taxes
(b) Non – Tax Revenue
(c) Direct Tax
(d) Indirect Tax
Answer:
(b) Non – Tax Revenue

Question 21.
Income Tax is an example of ………………………….
(a) Proportional Tax
(b) Direct Tax
(c) Indirect Tax
(d) Regressive Tax
Answer:
(b) Direct Tax

Question 22.
………………………… is referred to as a tax charged on a person who purchases the goods and services and it is paid indirectly to the government.
(a) Direct Tax
(b) Indirect Tax
(c) Progressive Tax
(d) Regressive Tax
Answer:
(b) Indirect Tax

Question 23.
……………………….. is an Indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services.
(a) Direct Tax
(b) Regressive Tax
(c) GST
(d) Progressive Tax
Answer:
(c) GST

Question 24.
………………………… institutions like UTI, LIC, GIC, etc. also buy the Government bonds.
(a) Financial
(b) Non – Financial
(c) Government
(d) Private
Answer:
(a) Financial

Question 25.
The main sources of …………………………… are IMF, World Bank, IDA and ADB, etc.
(a) Internal public debt
(b) External public debt
(c) International debt
(d) World public debt
Answer:
(b) External public debt

II. Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Question 1.
A. Modern state – (i) Indirect tax
B. Gift tax – (ii) Welfare state
C. Corporate tax – (iii) Direct tax
D. Sales tax – (iv) Tax of the central government
Codes:
(a) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
(b) A (iii) B (ii) C (i) D (iv)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (i) B (iv) C (iii) D (ii)
Answer:
(a) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)

Question 2.
A. Gifts and grants – (i) Canon of equity
B. Ability to pay – (ii) State government tax
C. Income tax – (iii) Non tax revenue
D. Stamp duties Codes – (iv) Progressive tax
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (ii) C (i) D (iv)
(d) A (i) B (iv) C (iii) D (ii)
Answer:
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

Question 3.
A. Components of budget – (i) Macro Economic Policy
B. Causes for public debt – (ii) Revenue Receipts
C. Fiscal policy – (iii) Tax on animals
D. Municipality revenue – (iv) War and preparation of war
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)
(c) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)

Question 4.
A. Adam Smith – (i) Progressive tax
B. Best tax system – (ii) Fiscal policy
C. Rebate and subsidies – (iii) Regressive tax
D. Tax rate decreases – (iv) Canons of taxation
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
Answer:
(d) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)

Question 5.
A. Government Accounts Maintained – (i) Committees of Parliament
B. The estimates committee – (ii) Consolidated Fund
C. Budgetary deficit – (iii) Source of Revenue
D. Federal finance – (iv) Government Deficit
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

III. State whether the statements are true or false.

Question 1.
(i) The difference between Revenue expenditure and Revenue Receipt is Revenue deficit.
(ii) The primary purpose of deficit financing is Economic Development.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) GST is equivalence of sales tax.
(ii) The modem state is police state.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 3.
(i) The word budget has been derived from the French word “bougette” means a small bag.
(ii) Finance commission determines the resources transfer to the various departments.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are frue
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 4.
(i) Bougett refers to a small purse.
(ii) Budget estimates are prepared by public finance.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are tme
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false

Question 5.
(i) Public revenue occupies an important place in the study of public finance.
(ii) Public finance is concerned with the Income and expenditure of public authorities.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are tme
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is tme but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is tme
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are tme

IV. Which of the following is correctly matched.

Question 1.
(a) Ministry of finance – Central budget every year
(b) Types of budget – Credit budget
(c) Public debt – Agriculture
(d) Federal finance – Employment
Answer:
(a) Ministry of finance – Central budget every year

Question 2.
(a) Canons of taxation – Adam Smith
(b) Indirect tax – Modem state
(c) Compulsory payment – Indirect tax
(d) Proportional tax – Direct tax
Answer:
(a) Canons of taxation – Adam Smith

Question 3.
(a) Wealth tax – Indirect tax
(b) Sales tax – Direct tax
(c) Progressive tax – Health tax
(d) Corporate tax – Tax of the Central Government
Answer:
(d) Corporate tax – Tax of the Central Government

Question 4.
(a) Gifts and grants – Non tax Revenue
(b) Gift tax – Indirect tax
(c) Tax evasion – Capital receipts
(d) Loans from RBI – Deficit budget
Answer:
(a) Gifts and grants – Non tax Revenue

Question 5.
(a) Stamp duties – Tax of the Central Government
(b) Interest on debts – Revenue expenditure
(c) Land tax collected – Direct tax
(d) Income tax – Expenditure
Answer:
(b) Interest on debts – Revenue expenditure

V. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

Question 1.
(a) Canons of Taxation – Adam Smith
(b) SGST – State and Union Territory
(c) Compulsory payment – Tax
(d) Modem state – Technology
Answer:
(d) Modem state – Technology

Question 2.
(a) Income tax – Direct tax
(b) Sales tax – Indirect tax
(c) Proportional tax – Village tax
(d) GST – Goods and Services tax
Answer:
(c) Proportional tax – Village tax

Question 3.
(a) Components of budget – Capital Receipts
(b) State sources – Land and building tax
(c) Redemption of public debt – Sinking fund
(d) Fiscal policy – Micro economic policy
Answer:
(d) Fiscal policy – Micro economic policy

Question 4.
(a) Fiscal Deficit – Budget deficit
(b) Primary Deficit – Fiscal deficit
(c) Revenue Deficit – Total revenue receipt
(d) Deficit budget – Private Revenue
Answer:
(d) Deficit budget – Private Revenue

Question 5.
(a) Public debt – Fiscal instmment
(b) Economic growth – Fiscal policy
(c) Transfer wealth – Internal public debt
(d) Loans from other countries – External revenue
Answer:
(d) Loans from other countries – External revenue

VI. Pick the odd one out.

Question 1.
Causes for increase in public debt
(a) War and preparation of war
(b) Social obligations
(c) Economic development and deficit
(d) Unemployment problem
Answer:
(d) Unemployment problem

Question 2.
Methods of Redemption of public debt
(a) Sinking Fund
(b) Budgetary Surplus
(c) Depression
(d) Terminal Annuity
Answer:
(d) Terminal Annuity

Question 3.
Types of Budget
(a) Revenue budget
(b) Capital budget
(c) Union budget
(d) Supplementary budget
Answer:
(c) Union budget

Question 4.
Central financial relationship union sources are
(a) Corporation tax
(b) Foreign loans
(c) Transport
(d) Railways
Answer:
(c) Transport

Question 5.
Principles of Federal finance
(a) Principles of Integration
(b) Principle of Equity
(c) Principle of Efficiency
(d) Principle of Accountability
Answer:
(a) Principles of Integration

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Public finance is a study of the financial aspects of government.
Reason (R): Public finance is concerned with the revenue and expenditure of public authorities and with adjustment of the one to the other.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Fiscal Economics is a new one. The old and popular term of the subject is ‘Public Finance’.
Reason (R): Public Finance is related financing the central activities only.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The modem state is a police state.
Reason (R): Functions of a government is called Defence, judiciary, enterprises and so on.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Sources of Public Revenue is called Tax Revenue and Non tax Revenue.
Reason (R): Some of the tax revenue sources are Income tax, Corporate tax, Sales tax, Surcharge andCess.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Canons of Taxation are Economical, Equitable, Convenient, Certain Efficient and Flexible.
Reason (R): Adam Smiths four canons of taxation are Canon of Ability, Canon of Certainty, Canon of Convenience, Canon of Economy.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
What do you mean by Public Finance?
Answer:

1. Public finance is a study of the financial aspects of Government.
2. It is concerned with the revenue and expenditure of the public authorities and with adjustment of the one to the other.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Public Expenditure?
Answer:
Public expenditure refers to Government spending incurred by Central, State and Local governments of a country.

Question 3.
Define “Public Expenditure”?
Answer:
Public expenditure can be defined as, “The expenditure incurred by public authorities like central, state and local governments to satisfy the collective social wants of the people is known as public expenditure”.

Question 4.
Define “Public Revenue”?
Answer:

1. Public revenue occupies an important place in the study of public finance.
2. The Government has to perform several functions for the welfare of the people.
3. They involve substantial amount of public expenditure which can be financed only through public revenue.
4. The amount of public revenue to be raised depends on the necessity of public expenditure and the people’s ability to pay.

Question 5.
What are the classification of Public Revenue?
Answer:
Public revenue can be classified into two types.

1. Tax Revenue
2. Non – Tax Revenue

Question 6.
What do you mean by Tax Revenue?
Answer:

1. Tax is a compulsory payment by the citizens to the government to meet the public expenditure.
2. It is legally imposed by the government on the tax payer and in no case tax payer can refuse to pay taxes to the government.

Question 7.
Define “Tax Revenue”?
Answer:
1. “A Tax is a compulsory payment made by a person or a firm to a government without reference to any benefit the payer may derive from the government.” – Anatol Murad

2. “A Tax is a compulsory contribution imposed by public authority, irrespective of the exact amount of service rendered to the tax payer in return and not imposed as a penalty for any legal offence.” – Dalton

Question 8.
Write some of the tax revenue sources?
Answer:
Some of the tax revenue sources are

1. Income tax
2. Corporate tax
3. Sales tax
4. Surcharge and
5. Cess

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
What are the similarities of Public and Private Finance?
Answer:
(I) Rationality:

1. Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality.
2. Maximization of welfare and least cost factor combination underlie both.

(II) Limit to borrowing:

1. Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing.
2. The Government also cannot live beyond its means.
3. There is a limit to deficit financing by the state also.

(III) Resource utilisation:

1. Both the private and public sectors have limited resources at their disposal.
2. So both attempt to make optimum use of resources.

(IV) Administration:

1. The effectiveness of measures of the Government as well as private depends on the administrative machinery.
2. If the administrative machinery is inefficient and corrupt it will result in wastages and losses.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Public Revenue?
Answer:

1. The income of the government through all sources is called public income or public revenue.
2. According to Dalton, the term “Public Income” has two senses — wide and narrow.
3. In its wider sense it includes all the incomes or receipts which a public authority may secure during any period of time.
4. In its narrow sense, it includes only those sources of income of the public authority which are ordinarily known as “revenue resources.”
5. To avoid ambiguity, the former is termed “public receipts” and the latter “public revenue.”
6. In a narrow sense, it includes only those sources of income of the Government which are described as “revenue resources”.
7. In broad sense, it includes loans raised by the Government also.

Question 3.
Bringout the merits and demerits of Direct taxes?
Answer:
Merits of Direct Taxes:
(I) Equity:

1. Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base.
2. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.

(II) Certainity:

1. Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes.
2. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

(III) Elasticity:

1. Direct taxes also satisfy the canon of elasticity.
2. Income tax is income elastic in nature.
3. As income level increases, the tax revenue to the Government also increases automatically.

(IV) Economy:

1. The cost of collection of direct taxes is relatively low.
2. The tax payers pay the tax directly to the state.

Demerits of Direct Taxes:

(I) Unpopular:

1. Direct taxes are generally unpopular.
2. It is inconvenient and less flexible.

(II) Productivity affected:

1. According to many economists direct tax may adversely affect productivity.
2. Citizens are not willing to earn more income because in that case they have to pay more taxes.

(III) Inconvenient:
The tax payers find it inconvenient to maintain accounts, submit returns and pay tax in lump sum.

(IV) Tax Evasion:

1. The burden of direct tax is so heavy that tax-payers always try to evade taxes.
2. This ultimately leads to the generation of black money, which is harmful to the economy.

Question 4.
What are the several types of Indirect taxes?
Answer:
There are several types of Indirect Taxes, such as:
1. Excise Duty:
Payable by the manufacturer who shifts the tax burden to retailers and wholesalers.

2. Sales Tax:
Paid by a shopkeeper or retailer, who then shifts the tax burden to customers by charging sales tax on goods and services.

3. Custom Duty:
Import duties levied on goods from outside the country, ultimately paid for by consumers and retailers.

4. Entertainment Tax:
Liability is on the cinema theatre owners, who transfer the burden to cinema goers.

5. Service Tax:
Charged on services like telephone bill, insurance premium such as food bill in a restaurant etc.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
What are the Dissimilarities of Public and Private finance?
Answer:
Dissimilarities:
(I) Income and Expenditure adjustment:

1. The government adjusts the income to the expenditure while individuals adjust their expenditure to the income.
2. Private finance involves stitching coat according to cloth available whereas public finance decides the cloth according to the need for the coat.

(II) Borrowing:

1. The government can borrow from internal and external sources; it can borrow from the people by issuing bonds.
2. However, an individual cannot borrow from himself.

(III) Right to print currency:

1. The government can print currency.
2. This involves the creation, distribution and monitoring of currency.
3. The private sector cannot create currency.

(IV) Present vs. future decisions:

1. The public finance is more involved with future planning and making long-term decisions.
2. These investments could include building of schools, hospitals and infrastructure.
3. The private finance makes financial decisions on projects with a short term vision.

(V) Objective:

1. The public sector’s main objective is to provide social benefit in the economy.
2. The private sector aims to maximize personal benefit i.e. Profit.

(VI) Coercion to get revenue:

1. The sources of income of a private individual is relatively limited while those of the Government is wide.
2. The Government can use its power and authority.

(VII) Ability to make huge and deliberate changes:

1. The public finance has the ability to make big decisions on income.
2. For example, it can effectively and deliberately adjust the revenue.
3. But individuals cannot make such massive decisions.

Question 2.
Briefly explain classification of Public expenditure?
Answer:
Classification of public expenditure are as follows:
(I) Classification on the Basis of Benefit:
Cohn and Plehn have classified the public expenditure on the basis of benefit into four classes:

(a) Public expenditure benefiting the entire society, e.g., the expenditure on general administration, defence, education, public health, transport.

(b) Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on certain people and at the same time common benefit on the entire community, e.g., administration of justice etc.

(c) Public expenditure directly benefiting particular group of persons and indirectly the entire society, e.g., social security, public welfare, pension, unemployment relief etc.

(d) Public expenditure conferring a special benefit on some individuals, e.g., subsidy granted to a particular industry.

(II) Classification on the Basis of Function:
Adam Smith classified public expenditure on the basis of functions of government in the following main groups:

(a) Protection Functions:
This group includes public expenditure incurred on the security of the citizens, to protect from external invasion and internal disorder, e.g., defence, police, courts etc.

(b) Commercial Functions:
This group includes public expenditure incurred on the development of trade and commerce, e.g., development of means of transport and communication etc.

(c) Development Functions:
This group includes public expenditure incurred for the development infrastructure and industry.

Question 3.
Explain the sources of Non-Tax Revenue?
Answer:
The sources of non-tax revenue are:
(I) Fees:

1. Fees are another important source of revenue for the government.
2. A fee is charged by public authorities for rendering a service to the citizens.
3. Unlike tax, there is no compulsion involved in case of fees.
4. The government provides certain services and charges certain fees for them.
5. For example, fees are charged for issuing of passports, driving licenses, etc.

(II) Fine:

1. A fine is a penalty imposed on an individual for violation of law.
2. For example, violation of traffic rules, payment of income tax after the stipulated time etc.

(III) Earnings from Public Enterprises:

1. The Government also gets revenue by way of surplus from public enterprises.
2. Some of the public sector enterprises do make a good amount of profits.
3. The profits or dividends which the government gets can be utilized for public expenditure.

(IV) Special assessment of betterment levy:
1. It is a kind of special charge levied on certain members of the community who are beneficiaries of certain government activities or public projects.

2. For example, due to a public park or due to the construction of a road, people in that locality may experience an appreciation in the value of their property or land.

(V) Gifts, Grants and Aids:

1. A grant from one government to another is an important source of revenue in the modem days.
2. The government at the Centre provides grants to State governments and the State governments provide grants to the local government to carry out their functions.
3. Grants from foreign countries are known as Foreign Aid.
4. Developing countries receive military aid, food aid, technological aid, etc. from other countries.

(VI) Escheats:
It refers to the claim of the state to the property of persons who die without legal heirs or documented will.

Question 4.
Bringout the Demerits of Indirect taxes?
Answer:
Demerits of Indirect Taxes:
(I) Higher Cost of Collection:

1. The cost of collection of indirect taxes is higher than the direct taxes.
2. The Government has to spend huge money to collect indirect taxes.

(II) Inelastic:

1. Indirect taxes are less elastic compared to direct taxes.
2. As indirect taxes are generally proportional.

(III) Regressive:
Indirect taxes are sometimes unjust and regressive in nature since both rich and poor persons have to pay same amount as taxes irrespective of their income level.

(IV) Uncertainly:

1. The rise in indirect taxes increase the price and reduces the demand for goods.
2. Therefore, the Government is uncertain about the expected revenue collection.
3. So Dalton says under indirect taxes 2 + 2 is not 4 but 3 or even less than 3.

(V) No civic Consciousness:
As the tax is hidden in price, the consumers are not aware of paying tax.

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Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India
(a) 1498
(b) 1948
(c) 1689
(d) 1849
Answer:
(a) 1498

Question 2.
In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from
(a) Akbar
(b) Shajakan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Noorjakhan
Answer:
(c) Jahangir

Question 3.
The power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company (EIC) to the British crown in
(a) 1758
(b) 1858
(c) 1958
(d) 1658
Answer:
(b) 1858

Question 4.
Ryotwari system was initially introduced in _______
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharastra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
First World War started in the year _______
(a) 1914
(b) 1814
(c) 1941
(d) 1841
Answer:
(a) 1914

Question 6.
When did the Government of India declared its first Industrial Policy ?
(a) 1956
(b) 1991
(c) 1948
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 1948

Question 7.
The objective of the Industrial Policy 1956 was
(a) Develop heavy industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage industries only
Answer:
(a) Develop heavy industries

Question 8.
The industry which was de-reserved in 1993 ?
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
Answer:
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 9.
The father of Green Revolution in India was _______
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
Answer:
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 10.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969 ?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 11.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was _______
(a) Private social welfare
(b) Social welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
Answer:
(b) Social welfare

Question 12.
The Planning Commission was setup in the year _______
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1952
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 13.
In the first five year plan, the top priority was given to _______ Sector.
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(c) Agriculture

Question 14.
Tenth Five year plan period was _______
(a) 1992-1997
(b) 2002-2007
(c) 2007-2012
(d) 1997-2002
Answer:
(b) 2002-2007

Question 15.
According to HDR (2016), India ranked _______ out of 188 countries.
(a) 130
(b) 131
(c) 135
(d) 145
Answer:
(b) 131

Question 16.
Annual Plans formed in the year _______
(a) 1989-1991
(b) 1990-1992
(c) 2000-2001
(d) 1981-1983
Answer:
(b) 1990-1992

Question 17.
The Oldest large scale industry in India ________
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) steel
(d) cement
Answer:
(a) cotton

Question 18.
Human development index (HDI) was developed _________
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) M.K.Gandhi
(c) Amartiya Sen
(d) Tagore
Answer:
(c) Amartiya Sen

Question 19.
The main theme of the Twelth Five Year Plan __________
(a) faster and more inclusive growth
(b) growth with social Justice
(c) socialistic pattern of society
(d) faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 20.
The PQLI was developed by _______
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morris
Answer:
(c) Morris

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
What are the Phases of colonial exploitation of India?
Answer:

1. India was a colony for a long time. Colonialism refers to a system of political and social relations between two countries, of which one is the ruler and the other is its colony.
2. The ruling country not only has political control over the colony, but it also determines the economic policies of the subjugated country.
3. The people living in a colony cannot take independent decisions in respect of the utilization of the country’s resources and important economic activities.
4. India had the bitter experience of colonialism.

Question 22.
Name out the different types of land tenure that existed in India before Independence.
Answer:

1. Zamindari system
2. Mahalwari system
3. Ryotwari system

Question 23.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from other systems.
Answer:

1. Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.
2. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:
   • Who owns the land;
   • Who cultivate the land;
   • Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.
3. Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were Zamindari System, Mahalwari System, and Ryotwari System.

Question 24.
List out the weaknesses of the Green Revolution.
Answer:

1. Indian agriculture was still a gamble of the monsoons.
2. This strategy needed heavy investment.
3. The income gap has increased
4. Increased unemployment among agricultural labourers.
5. Reduced the soil fertility and spoiled human wealth.

Question 25.
What are the objectives of the Tenth five-year plan?
Answer:
Tenth Five Year Plan [2002 – 2007]

1. This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
2. It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.
3. Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Question 26.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

1. Human Development Index: It is constructed based on life expectancy index, Education index, and GDP per capita.
2. Physical quality of life index: The PQLI is a measure to calculate the quality of life.

Question 27.
Mention the indicators which are used to calculate HDI.
Answer:
HDI is based on the following three indicators:

1. Longevity is measured by life expectancy at birth.
2. Educational attainments.
3. Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita [PPP $].

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 28.
Explain the Period of Merchant Capital.
Answer:

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital
4. The objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled by achieving political control.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England.

Question 29.
The Handicrafts declined in India in British Period. Why?
Answer:

1. The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market.
2. Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic wares, wood carving, etc.
3. Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the handicrafts.
4. With the disappearance of nawabs and kings, there was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
5. Indian handicraft products could not compete with machine-made products.
6. The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for British goods.

Question 30.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure systems in colonial India.
Answer:
The three types of land tenure systems are Zamindari, Mahalwari, and Ryotwari systems.

1. Zamindari system or the landlords: This system was created in 1793, after the introduction of the permanent settlement act. Under this system, the landlords were declared as the owners of the land. They were responsible to pay the land revenue. The share of the rent to the government is fixed at 10/11th and the balance is zamindar’s remuneration.

2. Mahalwari system or communal farming: The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body of villagers which served as a unit of management. They distribute the land and collect revenue and pay it to the state.

3. Ryotwari or the owner – cultivator system: The ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.

Question 31.
State the reasons for the nationalization of commercial banks.
Answer:

1. After Independence, the Government of India adopted planned economic development.
2. Five-year plans came into existence in 1951.
3. The main objective of economic planning aimed at social welfare.
4. Before Independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
5. These commercial banks failed in helping the Government to achieve social objectives of planning.
6. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969.
7. In 1980, again the government took over another 6 commercial banks.

Question 32.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991.
Answer:

1. Ensuring rapid industrial development in a competitive environment.
2. Enhancing support to the small scale sector.
3. Providing more incentives for industrialization of the backward areas.

Question 33.
Give a note on Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Answer:

1. Its main theme is “Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth”.
2. Its growth rate target is 8%.
3. The Indian Independence the Five Year Plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.
4. These plans had guided the Government as to how it should utilize scarce resources so that maximum benefits can be gained.
5. It is worthy to mention here that the Indian Government adopted the concept of five-year plans from Russia.

Question 34.
What is PQLI?
Answer:
Morris D Morris developed the physical quality of life index (PQLI). The PQLI is a measure to calculate the quality of life.
PQLI includes three indicators life expectancy, infant mortality rate, and literacy rate. A scale of each indicator ranges from the number 1 to 100. Represents the worst performance and 100 is the best performance.
HDI includes income while PQLI does not. PQLI has only the physical aspects of like.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Discuss the Indian economy during the British Period.
Answer:

1. India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
2. The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
3. In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
4. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
5. Hundred years after the Battle of Plassey, the rule of the East India Company finally did come to an end.
6. In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for the governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
7. Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
8. Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.
9. On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:
10. The period of merchant Capital
11. The period of Industrial Capital
12. The period of Finance Capital

Question 36.
Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
Answer:

1. SSIs provide employment:

• SSIs use labor-intensive techniques thus reduce the problem of unemployment to a great extent.
• They provide employment to people in villages and unorganized sectors.
• The employment – capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. SSIs bring balanced regional development: SSIs remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.

3. Help in the mobilization of local resources: SSIs help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc.,

4. Pave for optimization of capital: SSIs require less capital per unit of output. They function as a stabilizing force by providing output-capital ratio as well as high employment capital ratio.

5. Promote exports: SSIs earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement large scale industries: SSIs serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet consumer demands: SSIs serves as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop entrepreneurship: They promote self-employment and a spirit of self-reliance in society. They help to increase the per capita income. They help in distributing national income in a more efficient and equitable manner.

Question 37.
Explain the objectives of the nationalization of commercial banks.
Answer:

The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain social welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. The nationalization of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalization of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking industry has been facing new horizons of competition, efficiency, and productivity.

Question 38.
Describe the performance of the 12th five-year plan in India.
Answer:
Economic planning is the process in which the limited natural resources are used skillfully so as to achieve the desired goals.

1. First five-year plan (1951 – 56): Main focus was on agricultural development it achieved a growth rate of 3.6%.

2. Second five-year plan (1956 – 61): Focus was on the industrial development of the country and achieved a growth rate of 4.1%.

3. Third five-year plan (1961 – 66): To make the economy independent and to reach take off.

4. Plan holiday (1966 – 69): Equal priority was given to agriculture, its allied sectors, and the industrial sectors during annual plans.

5. Fourth five-year plan (1969 – 74): Growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance was the goal but the plan failed.

6. Fifth five-year plan (1975 – 79): A successful plan prioritized agriculture and then industry and mines.

7. Rolling plan: This plan was started with an annual plan for 1978-79.

8. Sixth five-year plan (1980 – 85): Based on investment yojana, its objective was poverty eradication and technological self-reliance.

9. Seventh five-year plan (1985 – 90): Establishment of the self-sufficient economy and opportunities for productive employment. Private sector got the priority over the public sector.

10. Annual plans: Two annual plans were formed in 1990 – 91 & 1991 -92.

11. Eighth five-year plan (1992 – 97): Priority was given to the development of human resources. A new economic policy was introduced.

12. Ninth five-year plan (1997 – 02):

• Aimed to double the per capita income in the next 10 years.
• Aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.

13. Tenth five-year plan (2002 – 07): Growth with justice and equity was the focus but the plan failed with a growth rate of 5.6%. Aimed to double the per capita income in the next 10 years. Aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.

14. Eleventh five-year plan (2007 – 12): The main theme was faster and more inclusive growth.

15. Twelfth five-year plan (2012 – 17): The main theme was faster more inclusive and sustainable growth. The five-year plans played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country. These plans had guided the government as to how it should utilize scarce resources so that maximum benefits can be gained.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Before and After Independence Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
Choose the best options

Question 1.
Lord Cornwallis introduced “Permanent Settlement Act in” _______
(a) 1793
(b) 1794
(c) 1795
(d) 1796
Answer:
(a) 1793

Question 2.
In the year _______ green revolution started in India.
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1948
(d) 1960
Answer:
(d) 1960

Question 3.
KGN. Daber established Mumbai’s spinning and weaving co. in _______
(a) 1810
(b) 1854
(c) 1845
(d) 1948
Answer:
(b) 1854

Question 4.
The oil well of Digboi, Assam was dug in.
(a) 1889
(b) 1898
(c) 1988
(d) 1810
Answer:
(a) 1889

Question 5.
The period of twelfth five year plan _______
(a) 2010 – 15
(b) 2011 – 16
(c) 2012 – 17
(d) 2013 – 18
Answer:
(c) 2012 – 17

Question 6.
NITI Aayog replaced the planning commission in _______
(a) 2013
(b) 2015
(c) 2014
(d) 2016
Answer:
(b) 2015

Question 7.
Human development index is _______
(a) HDI
(b) UNDP
(c) PQLI
(d) HID
Answer:
(a) HDI

Question 8.
Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was developed by _______
(a) HDI
(b) PQLI
(c) UNDP
(d) HID
Answer:
(c) UNDP

Question 9.
In the _______ system, the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.
(a) Zamindari
(b) Mahalwari
(c) Ryotwari
(d) Green revolution
Answer:
(c) Ryotwari

Question 10.
The period of industrial capital is _______
(a) 1757 – 1813
(b) 1813 – 1858
(c) 1757 – 1858
(d) 19th century
Answer:
(b) 1813 – 1858

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 12 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(c) 2 3 1 4

Question 2.

(a) 12 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Choose the correct option

Question 3.
The period of merchant capital is _______
(a) 1842 – 1857
(b) 1918 – 1920
(c) 1757 – 181
(d) 1721 – 1838
Answer:
(c) 1757 – 181

Question 4.
How many types of land tenure systems were there before independence?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 5.
The first Indian modernized cotton cloth mill was established _______
(a) Chennai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Mumbai
(d) Bengaluru
Answer:
(b) Calcutta

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 6.
The plan holiday was _______
(a) 1951-53
(b) 1966-69
(c) 2001 -02
(d) 1976-79
Answer:
(b) 1966-69

Question 7.
The planning commission was replaced by _______
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Planning group
(c) Finance commission
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) NITI Aayog

Question 8.
NITI Aayog was formed in _______
(a) 2001
(b) 2014
(c) 2015
(d) 2016
Answer:
(c) 2015

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 9.
(a) Ryotwari system was first established in Tamilnadu.
(b) Zamindari system was established by the British East India Company
(c) Mahalwari system was also called the owner – cultivator system
(d) Zamindari system was created in 1793
Answer:
(c) Mahalwari system was also called as the owner – cultivator system

Question 10.
(a) The investment of small service enterprises should be more than ₹ 10 lakhs.
(b) The investment of microservice enterprises should not exceed ₹ 10 lakhs.
(c) The investment of medium service enterprises should be more than ₹ 2 crores,
(d) The investment of medium service enterprises should not exceed ₹ 10 crores.
Answer:
(d) The investment of medium service enterprises should not exceed ₹ 10 crores.

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 11.

Answer:
(c) Vijaya Nagar (iii) England

Question 12.

Answer:
(c) Serampur (iii) Iron and steel

Chooose the correct pair

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) Industrial policy (i) 1948

Question 14.

Answer:
(d) White revolution (iv) Milk

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Before the advent of the British, the Indian economy was self-sufficient.
Reason (R): Before the advent of the British, India lived in the village.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 16.
(a) The industrial policy resolutions in India ushered in a socialistic economy
(b) The high yielding varieties programme was called a pilot project of the green revolution
(c) The aim of the seventh five-year plan is ‘Garibi Hatao’
(d) Finance commission replaced the planning commission.
Answer:
(b) The high yielding varieties programme was called a pilot project of the green revolution

Question 17.
(a) Switzerland ranks first in HDI.
(b) PQLI includes income whereas HDI excludes income
(c) The process of transforming private assets to government ownership is called privatization
(d) The third plan was called as ‘Gadgil plan’.
Answer:
(d) The third plan was called as ‘Gadgil plan’.

Pick the odd one out

Question 18.
(a) The period of revenue capital
(b) The period of industrial capital
(c) The period of merchant capital
(d) The period of financial capital
Answer:
(c) The period of merchant capital

Question 19.
(a) Investment system
(b) Zamindari system
(c) Mahalwari system
(d) Ryotwari system
Answer:
(a) Investment system

Question 20.
(a) Black revolution
(b) Red revolution
(c) White revolution
(d) Violet revolution
Answer:
(d) Violet revolution

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the classification of industries in India?
Answer:

1. Public sector
2. Public-cum-private sector
3. Controlled private sector
4. Private and co-operative sectors.

Question 2.
What is the resolution of industrial policy 1948?
Answer:
The first industrial policy was declared on 6th April 1948. Its main importance was introducing the system of mixed economy in India.

Question 3.
What is the resolution of industrial policy 1956?
Answer:
The policy was shaped by the Mahalanobis model of growth with an emphasis on heavy industries which would lead to a higher growth path.

Question 4.
Write a note on micro-manufacturing enterprises.
Answer:
In micro-enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs. 25 lakhs.

Question 5.
Write a note on small manufacturing enterprises
Answer:
The investment in plant and machinery is more than twenty-five lakh rupees but does not exceed Rs. 5 crores.

Question 6.
Write a note on medium manufacturing enterprises.
Answer:
The investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs. 5 crores but not exceeding Rs. 10 crores.

Question 7.
Name the classification of public sector banks.
Answer:

1. Nationalized Banks.
2. State Bank and its associates

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
Describe the problems of British rule in the Indian economy?
Answer:

1. The British rule stunted the growth of Indian enterprise. It retarded the capital formation in India.
2. The drain of wealth financed capital development in Britain.
3. Indian agricultural sector became stagnant and deteriorated.
4. Indian handicraft industries were collapsed.
5. The system of capitalist firms with profit motives led to the drain of resources from India.

Question 2.
Mention the achievements of the green revolution.
Answer:

1. The production of major cereals wheat and rice were boosted. India became a food surplus exporting food grains to European countries.
2. It was confined to high yielding variety cereals.
3. Production of commercial crops was increased.
4. Per hectare productivity of all crops had increased due to better seeds.
5. The revolution had a positive effect on the development of industries manufacturing agricultural tools.
6. It brought prosperity to rural people.
7. Demand for labor increased.
8. Financial resources were provided by banks and co-operative societies.

Question 3.
Examine the requirements of the second green revolution.
Answer:

1. Introduction of genetically modified (GM) seeds which double the per average production.
2. Contribution of the private sector to market the usage of GM foods.
3. The government can play a key role in expediting irrigation schemes and managing water resources.
4. Linking of rivers to transfer surplus water to deficient areas.

Question 4.
Write a note on the iron and steel industry.
Answer:

1. First steel industry at Kulti, near Jharia, West Bengal – Bengal ironworks company in 1870.
2. First large-scale steel plant TISCO at Jamshedpur in 1907.
3. Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL) was established in 1974 and was made responsible for the development of the steel industry.
4. India is the eighth-largest steel producing country in the world.

Question 5.
Write a note on petrol and natural gas.
Answer:

1. The first successful oil well was dug in India in 1889 at Digboi, Assam.
2. At present, a number of regions with oil reserves have been identified and oil is being extracted in these regions.
3. For exploration purposes, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) was established in 1956 at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 13 CSS – Cascading Style Sheets

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications CSS – Cascading Style Sheets Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Expansion of CSS:
(a) Cascading Style Schools
(b) Cascading Style Scheme
(c) Cascading Style Sheets
(d) Cascading Style Shares
Answer:
(c) Cascading Style Sheets

Question 2.
Which of the following is the page level style?
(a) <Page>
(b) <Style>
(c) <Link>
(d) <H>
Answer:
(b) <Style>

Question 3.
CSS is also called as:
(a) Sitewide Style Sheets
(b) Internal Style Sheets
(c) Inline Style Sheets
(d) Internal Inline Sheets
Answer:
(a) Sitewide Style Sheets

Question 4.
The extension of CSS file is:
(a) .ssc
(b) .css
(c) .CSC
(d) .htm
Answer:
(b) .css

Question 5.
What is selector?
(a) Property
(b) Value
(c) HTML tag
(d) Name
Answer:
(c) HTML tag

Question 6.
The Declaration block of CSS is surrounded by:
(a) ( )
(b) [ ]
(c) { }
(d) <>
Answer:
(c) { }

Question 7.
The declaration should be terminated by:
(a) :
(b) ;
(c) .
(d) ,
Answer:
(b) ;

Question 8.
What is the property to set text as bold?
(a) Font-Style
(b) Font-Weight
(c) Font-Property
(d) Font-Bold
Answer:
(b) Font-Weight

Question 9.
Which of the following indicates that the text included is a comment?
(a) /**/
(b) !* *!
(c) <* *>
(d) \* *\
Answer:
(a) /**/

Question 10.
Which of the following ways below is correct, to write a CSS?
(a) p{coloured; text-align:center};
(b) p {colonred; text-align:center}
(c) p {color:red; text-align:center;}
(d) p (color:red;text-align:center;)
Answer:
(c) p {color:red; text-align:center;}

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of <style> tag?
Answer:
We are already know about the formatting tags and its attributes, in some situations, you may need to use a tag uniformly in the entire document. To do so, we can use <style> tag. A style tag is used to change the default characteristics of a particular tag in the entire web document wherever that tag is used.

Question 2.
What is CSS?
Answer:
Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) are also called as Sitewide Style sheets or external style. CSS is a style sheet language used for describing the formatting of a document written in HTML. Using CSS, you can control the font colour, font style, spacing between pages, columns size, border colour, background image or colour and various other effects in a web page.

Question 3.
Write the general format of linking CSS with HTML?
Answer:
The <link> tag is used to add CSS file with HTML in head section. While using <link> tag, the following attributes are also included along with standard values.
rel = “stylesheet”
type = “text/css”
The href attribute is used to link the .css file. General format of <Link> tag:
<Link rel = “stylesheet” type = “text/css” href = CSS_ File_Name_with_Extension>

Question 4.
What is Inline Style?
Answer:
“Inline style”, which is used to define style for a particular tag anywhere in an HTML document. You can define styles for any tag within an HTML document. But it is applicable only on that line where it is defined. If you use the same tag, again in the same documnet, it does not reflect the new style.

Question 5.
Write down general format of CSS declaration?
Answer:
The body of the style sheet consists of a series of rules.

Selector:
HTML Tag

Declaration:
{Properties: Values}

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of using CSS?
Answer:
Maintainability:
CSS are also defined and stored as separate files. So, the style and appearance of a web page can be dynamically changed and maintain with less effort.

Reusability:
The styles defined in CSS can be reused in multiple HTML pages.

Easy to understand:
The tags in web pages are well organized with style specifications and therefore it is easy to understand.

Question 2.
Write a short note on rule of CSS?
Answer:
CSS style declaration consists of two major parts; Selector and Declaration. The Selector refers an HTML tag in which you want to apply styles.

The Declaration is a block of code contains style definition. It should be surrounded by curly braces. You can include any number of properties for each selector, and they must be separated by semicolons, The property name and its value should be separated by a colon. Each declaration should be terminated by a semicolon (;).
Eg:

Question 3.
Wrie a CSS file to define text color and alignment to <p> tag?
Answer:
The style properties are defined to <p> tag. Hereafter, whenever you use the <p>, the contents will be displayed with modified properties.

If you want to use the above style definition as an internal style then it should be specified within <style>,</style> block in head section. If you want store the above definition for using all your web pages, you should save the above code as a separate file with extension.css

Question 4.
Write a CSS file to define font type, style and size to <h1> tag?
Answer:
<h1> tag in a particular font style and size with blue colour in the entire page,You can use <style> tag to define its properties in head section. The style of <h1> header tag is clearly defined. So, hereafter, the content between <h1> and </h1> will be displayed as per its definition.

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write an HTML document to display the following oaragraph as per the given description Using CSS:
Font Name:
Cooper Black

Style:
Bold Italics

Color:
Blue “The State Institute of Education (SIE) was established in 1965 to provide for systematic study of problems relating to School Education under the administration of Directorate of School Education.”

Question 2.
List and explain the Font and text element properties and values used CSS?
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Adding Multimedia Elements and Forms Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which tag is used to change the default characteristics of web document?
(a) Style
(b) Font
(c) Text
(d) Colour
Answer:
(a) Style

Question 2.
Which is used to define style for a particular tag anywhere in a HTML document?
(a) Internal style
(b) Inline style
(c) External style
(d) Page style
Answer:
(b) Inline style

Question 3.
CSS was invented by:
(a) Hakon Wium Lie
(b) Hakon Willium Lee
(c) Hakon Street Man
(d) Hakon Lee
Answer:
(a) Hakon Wium Lie

Question 4.
The <style> tag are also called as:
(a) page-level styles
(b) inline styles
(c) external styles
(d) both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(a) page-level styles

Question 5.
Which section is used by the <link> tag to add CSS file?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Style
(d) Title
Answer:
(b) Head

Question 6.
Expand XHTML:
(a) Extensible Hypertext Markup Language
(b) Extended Hypertext Markup Language
(c) Executed Hypertext Markup Language
(d) Except Hypertext Markup Language
Answer:
(a) Extensible Hypertext Markup Language

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is called page-level sheets or internal sheets?
Answer:
The <style> tag controls the presentation styles of a particular HTML document. If you want to use a particular tag with the same style applied in one HTML document to another is not possible. Thus, the <style> tags are called as “Page-Level Styles” or “Internal Style sheets”.

Question 2.
What is known as sitewide style sheets or external style sheets?
Answer:
The “Internal Style Sheet” is defined and implemented only within an HTML document. If you want use the same style to multiple pages, you should define styles as a separate style file. These separate style files are known as “Sitewide Style Sheets” or ‘”External Style Sheets”.

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the suitable example for creating CSS style?
Answer:
P {
font-style : Italic;
color :MediumSeaGreen;
}
H1
{
border: 2px solid red;
}
The above code should be saved with extension. css

Question 2.
Write the properties and values of paragraph margin in CSS?
Answer:

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the html code to change the background colour of browser using CSS?
Answer:
– Back_Color.css —
body
{
background-color : pink;
}
Background_CSS.htm
<html>
<head>
<title> Changing Background using CSS </title>
<link rel = “stylesheet” type=”text/css” href=”Body_Color.css”> </head>
<body>
<H1> Welcome to CSS
</H1>
</body>
</html>

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Economics of Development and Planning

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Economics of Development and Planning Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
“Redistribution with Growth” became popular slogan under which approach?
(a) Traditional approach
(b) New welfare oriented approach
(c) Industrial approach
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) New welfare oriented approach

Question 2.
Which is not the feature of economic growth?
(a) Concerned with developed nations
(b) Gradual change
(c) Concerned with quantitative aspect
(d) Wider concept
Answer:
(d) Wider concept

Question 3.
Which among the following is a characteristic of underdevelopment?
(a) Vicious circle of poverty
(b) Rising mass consumption
(c) Growth of Industries
(d) High rate of urbanization
Answer:
(a) Vicious circle of poverty

Question 4.
The non – economic determinant of economic development ………………………..
(a) Natural resources
(b) Human resource
(c) Capital formation
(d) Foreign trade
Answer:
(b) Human resource

Question 5.
Economic growth measures the ………………………..
(a) Growth of productivity
(b) Increase in nominal income
(c) Increase in output
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Increase in output

Question 6.
The supply side vicious circle of poverty suggests that poor nations remain poor because
(a) Saving remains low
(b) Investment remains low
(c) There is a lack of effective government
(d) a and b above
Answer:
(d) a and b above

Question 7.
Which of the following plan has focused on the agriculture and rural economy?
(a) People’s Plan
(b) Bombay Plan
(c) Gandhian Plan
(d) Vishveshwarya Plan
Answer:
(c) Gandhian Plan

Question 8.
Arrange following plans in correct chronological order ………………………..
(a) People’s Plan
(b) Bombay Plan
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru Plan
(d) Vishveshwarya Plan
Answer choices
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Question 9.
M.N. Roy was associated with ………………………..
(a) Congress Plan
(b) People’s Plan
(c) Bombay Plan
(d) None of the above
(b) People’s Plan

Question 10.
Which of the following country adopts indicative planning?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Italy
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) Germany

Question 11.
Short – term plan is also known as ………………………..
(a) Controlling Plans
(b) De – controlling Plans
(c) Rolling Plans
(d) De – rolling Plans
Answer:
(a) Controlling Plans

Question 12.
Long – term plan is also known as ………………………..
(a) Progressive Plans
(b) Non – progressive Plans
(c) Perspective Plans
(d) Non – perspective Plans
Answer:
(c) Perspective Plans

Question 13.
The basic philosophy behind long – term planning is to bring ……………………….. changes in the economy?
(a) Financial
(b) Agricultural
(c) Industrial
(d) Structural
Answer:
(c) Industrial

Question 14.
Sarvodaya Plan was advocated by ………………………..
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J.P. Narayan
(c) S. N Agarwal
(d) Structural
Answer:
(b) J.P. Narayan

Question 15.
Planning Commission was set up in the year ………………………..
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 16.
Who wrote the book ‘The Road to Serfdom’?
(a) Friedrich Hayek
(b) H.R. Hicks
(c) David Ricardo
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Answer:
(a) Friedrich Hayek

Question 17.
Perspective plan is also known as ………………………..
(a) Short – term plan
(b) Medium – term plan
(c) Long – term plan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Long – term plan

Question 18.
NITI Aayog is formed through ………………………..
(a) Presidential Ordinance
(b) Allocation of business rules by President of India
(c) Cabinet resolution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cabinet resolution

Question 19.
Expansion of NITI Aayog?
(a) National Institute to Transform India
(b) National Institute for Transforming India
(c) National Institution to Transform India
(d) National Institution for Transforming India
Answer:
(d) National Institution for Transforming India

Question 20.
The Chair Person of NITI Aayog is ………………………..
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice – President
(d) Finance Minister
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 21.
Define economic development?
Answer:

1. Economic development refers to the problems of underdeveloped countries and economic growth to those of developed countries.
2. Economic development deals with the problems of UDCs. Change is discontinuous and spontaneous.
3. Economic development is not determined by any single factor. Economic development depends on Economic, Social, Political and Religious factors.

Question 22.
Mention the indicators of development?
Answer:

1. Economic development is regarded as a process whereby there is an increase in the consumption of goods and services by individuals.
2. From the welfare perspective, economic development is defined as a sustained improvement in health, literacy and standard of living.

Question 23.
Distinguish between economic growth and development?
Answer:
Economic Growth:

1. Deals with the problems of Developed countries
2. Change is gradual and steady
3. Means more output
4. Concerns Quantitative aspects i.e. increase in per capita income
5. Narrow

Economic Development:

1. Deals with the problems of UDCs
2. Change is discontinuous and spontaneous
3. Means not only more output but also its composition
4. Quantitative as well as Qualitative
5. Wider concept Development = Growth + Change

Question 24.
What is GNP?
Answer:
Gross National Product (GNP):

1. GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a particular year, plus income earned by its citizens (including income of those located abroad), minus income of non – residents located in that country.
2. GNP is one measure of the economic condition of a country, under the assumption that a higher GNP leads to a higher quality of living, all other things being equal.

Question 25.
Define economic planning?
Answer:

1. Economic Planning is “collective control or suppression of private activities of production and exchange”. – Robbins
2. “Economic Planning in the widest sense is the deliberate direction by persons in – charge of large resources of economic activity towards chosen ends”. – Dalton

Question 26.
What are the social indicators of economic development?
Answer:
Social Indicators:

1. Social indicators are normally referred to as basic and collective needs of the people.
2. The direct provision of basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation and housing facilities check social backwardness.

Question 27.
Write a short note on NITI Aayog?
Answer:

1. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was formed on January 1, 2015 through a Union Cabinet resolution.
2. NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank of the Government of India. It replaced the Planning Commission from 13th August, 2014.
3. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog and Union Ministers will be Ex – officio members.
4. The Vice – Chairman of the NITI Aayog is the functional head and the first Vice – Chairman was Arvind Panangariya.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 28.
Elucidate major causes of vicious circle of poverty with diagram?
Answer:

• There are circular relationships known as the ‘vicious circles of poverty’ that tend to perpetuate the low level of development in Less Developed Countries (LDCs).
• Nurkse explains the idea in these words: “It implies a circular constellation of forces tending to act and react upon one another in such a way as to keep a poor country in a state of poverty.
• For example, a poor man may not have enough to eat; being underfed, his health may be weak; being physically weak, his working capacity is low, which means that he is poor, which in turn means that he will not have enough to eat and so on.
• A situation of this sort relating to a country as a whole can be summed up in the proposition: “A county is poor because the country is poor”.
• The vicious circle of poverty operates both on the demand side and the supply side.
• On the supply side, the low level of real income means low savings.
• The low level of saving leads to low investment and to deficiency of capital.
• The deficiency of capital, in turn, leads to low levels of productivity and back to low income. Thus the vicious circle is complete from the supply side.
• The demand-side of the vicious circle is that the low level of real income leads to a low level of demand which, in turn, leads to a low rate of investment and hence back to deficiency of capital, low productivity and low income.

Question 29.
What are the non – economic factors determining development?
Answer:

1. Human Resource
2. Technical Know – how
3. Political Freedom
4. Social Organization
5. Corruption free administration
6. Desire for Development
7. Moral, ethical and social values (viii) Casino Capitalism
8. Patrimonial Capitalism

Non – Economic Factors:
‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.’

(I) Human Resources:

1. Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income.
2. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth.
3. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset.
4. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

(II) Technical Know – how:
As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

(III) Political Freedom:
The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

(IV) Social Organization:
People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

(V) Corruption free administration:

1. Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process.
2. Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

(VI) Desire for development:
The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

(VII) Moral, ethical and social values:

1. These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North.
2. If people are not honest, market cannot function.

(VIII) Casino Capitalism:
If People spend larger propotion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

(IX) Patrimonial Capitalism:
If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

Question 30.
How would you break the vicious circle of poverty?
Answer:
Breaking the Vicious Circle of Poverty:

• The vicious circle of poverty is associated with low rate of saving and investment on the supply side.
• In UDCs the rate of investment and capital formation can be stepped up without reduction in consumption. For this, the marginal rate of savings is to be greater than average rate of savings.
• To break the vicious circle on the demand side, Nurkse suggested the strategy of balanced growth.
• If investment is made in several industries simultaneously the workers employed in various industries will become consumers of each other’s products and will create demand for one another.
• The balanced growth i.e. simultaneous investment in large number of industries creates mutual demand. Thus, through the strategy of balanced growth, vicious circle of poverty operating on the demand side of capital formation can be broken.

Question 31.
Trace the evolution of economic planning in India?
Answer:
The evolution of planning in India is stated below:

(I) Sir M. Vishveshwarya (1934):
A prominent engineer and politician made his first attempt in laying foundation for economic planning in India in 1934 through his book, “Planned Economy of India”. It was a 10 year plan.

(II) Jawaharlal Nehru (1938):
Set – up “National Planning Commission” by a committee but due to the changes in the political era and second World War, it did not materialize.

(III) Bombay Plan (1940):
The 8 leading industrialists of Bombay presented “Bombay Plan”. It was a 15 Year Investment Plan.

(IV) S.N Agarwal (1944):
Gave the “Gandhian Plan” focusing on the agricultural and rural economy.

(V) M.N. Roy (1945):
Drafted ‘People’s Plan”. It was aiming at mechanization of agricultural production and distribution by the state only.

(VI) J.P. Narayan (1950):
Advocated, “Sarvodaya Plan” which was inspired by Gandhian Plan and with the idea of Vinoba Bhave. It gave importance not only for agriculture, but encouraged small and cottage industries in the plan.

Question 32.
Describe the case for planning?
Answer:
The economic planning is justified on the following grounds.
(I) To accelerate and strengthen market mechanism:
The market mechanism works imperfectly in underdeveloped countries because of the ignorance and unfamiliarity with it. A large part of the economy comprises the non-monetized sector.

(II) To remove unemployment:
Capital being scarce and labour being abundant, the problem of providing gainful employment opportunities to an ever-increasing labour force is a difficult task.

(III) To achieve balanced development:
In the absence of sufficient enterprise and initiative, the planning authority is the only institution for planning the balanced development of the economy.

(a) Development of Agriculture and Industrial Sectors:
The need for developing the agriculture sector along with the industrial sector arises from the fact that agriculture and industry are interdependent.

(b) Development of Infrastructure:
The agriculture and industrial sectors cannot develop in the absence of economic and social overheads. The building of canals, roads, railways, power stations, etc., is indispensable for agricultural and industrial development.

(c) Development of Money and Capital Markets:
The expansion of the domestic and foreign trade requires not only the development of agricultural and industrial sectors along with social and economic overheads but also the existence of financial institutions.

(IV) To remove poverty and inequalities:
Planning is the only path open to underdeveloped countries, for raising national and per capita income, reducing inequalities and poverty and increasing employment opportunities.

Question 33.
Distinguish between functional and structural planning?
Answer:
Functional planning:
Functional planning refers to that planning which seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.

Structural planning:
The structural planning refers to a good deal of changes in the socio-economic framework of the country. This type of planning is adopted mostly in under developed countries.

Question 34.
What are the functions of NITI Aayog?
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:
(I) Cooperative and Competitive Federalism:
To enable the States to have active participation in the formulation of national policy.

(II) Shared National Agenda:
To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of States.

(III) Decentralized Planning:
To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model.

(IV) Vision and Scenario Planning:
To design medium and long – term strategic frameworks towards India’s future.

(V) Network of Expertise:
To mainstream external ideas and expertise into government policies and programmes through a collective participation.

(VI) Harmonization:
To facilitate harmonization of actions across different layers of government, especially when involving cross-cutting and overlapping issues across multiple sectors; through communication, coordination,
collaboration and convergence amongst all the stakeholders.

(VII) Conflict Resolution:
To provide platform for mutual consensus to inter – sectoral, interdepartmental, inter – state as well as centre-state issues for all speedy execution of the government programmes.

(VIII) Coordinating Interface with the World:
It will act nodal point to harness global expertise and resources coming from International organizations for India’s developmental process.

(IX) Internal Consultancy:
It provides internal consultancy to Central and State governments on policy and programmes.

(X) Capacity Building:
It enables to provide capacity building and technology up – gradation across government, benchmarking with latest global trends and providing managerial and technical know-how.

(XI) Monitoring and Evaluation:
It will monitor the implementation of policies and progammes and evaluate the impacts.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 35.
Discuss the economic determinants of economic development?
Answer:
Determinants of Economic Development:
Economic development is not determined by any,single factor. Economic development depends on Economic, Social, Political and Religious factors.
Economic and Non – Economic Factors:

Economic Factors:

1. Natural Resource:
The principal factor affecting the development of an economy is the availability of natural resources. The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.

2. Capital Formation:
Capital formation is the main key to economic growth. Capital formation refers to the net addition to the existing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.

3. Size of the Market:
Large size of the market would stimulate production, increase employment and raise the National per capita income. That is why developed countries expand their market to other countries through WTO.

4. Structural Change:
Structural change refers to change in the occupational structure of the economy. Any economy of the country is generally divided into three basic sectors: Primary sector such as agricultural, animal husbandry, forestry, etc; Secondary sector such as industrial production, constructions and Tertiary sector such as trade, banking and commerce.

5. Financial System:
Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.

6. Marketable Surplus:
Marketable surplus refers to the total amount of farm output cultivated by farmers over and above their family consumption needs. This is a surplus that can be sold in the market for earning income.

7. Foreign Trade:
The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always developed. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

8. Economic System:
The countries which adopt free market mechanism (laissez faire) enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economies.

Non – Economic Factors:
‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.’

1. Human Resources:
Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

2. Technical Know-how:
As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

3. Political Freedom:
The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

4. Social Organization:
People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

5. Corruption free administration:
Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process. Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

6. Desire for development:
The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

7. Moral, ethical and social values:
These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North. If people are not honest, market cannot function.

8. Casino Capitalism:
If People spend larger propotion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

9. Patrimonial Capitalism:
If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

Question 36.
Describe different types of Planning?
Answer:

(I) Democratic Vs Totalitarian:
A form of rule in which the government attempts to maintain ‘total’ control over society, including all aspects of the public and private lives of its citizens.

(II) Centralized Vs Decentralized:

1. Under centralized planning, the entire planning process in a country is under a central planning authority.
2. This authority formulates a central plan, fixes objectives, targets and priorities for every sector of the economy.
3. In other words, it is called ‘planning from above’.

(III) Planning by Direction Vs Inducement:
Under planning by direction, there is a central authority which plans, directs and orders the execution of the plan in accordance with pre-determined targets and priorities.

(IV) Indicative Vs Imperative Planning:

1. Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed economies. It has been in practice in France since the Monnet Plan of 1947-50.
2. In a mixed economy, the private sector and the public sector work together.
3. Under this plan, the outline of plan is prepared by the Government.
4. Then it is discussed with the representatives of private management, trade unions, consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts.

(V) Short, Medium and Long term Planning:

1. Short-term plans are also known as ‘controlling plans’.
2. They encompass the period of one year, therefore, they are also known as ‘annual plans’

(VI) Financial Vs Physical Planning:
Financial planning refers to the technique of planning in which resources are allocated in terms of money while physical planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.

(VII) Functional Vs Structural Planning:
Functional planning refers to that planning which seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.

(VIII) Comprehensive Vs Partial Planning:
General planning which concerns itself with the major issues for the whole economy is known as comprehensive planning whereas partial planning is to consider only the few important sectors of the economy.

Question 37.
Bring out the arguments against planning?
Answer:
The arguments against planning are discussed below.
(I) Loss of freedom:

1. The absence of freedom in decision making may act as an obstacle for economic growth.
2. Regulations and restrictions are the backbone of a planned economy.
3. The economic freedom comprises freedom of consumption, freedom of choice of occupation, freedom to produce and the freedom to fix prices for the products.
4. Under planning, the crucial decisions are made by the Central Planning Authority.

(II) Elimination of Initiative:
Under centralized planning, there will be no incentive for initiatives and innovations.

(a) The absence of private ownership and profit motive discourages entrepreneurs from taking bold decisions and risk taking. Attractive profit is the incentive for searching new ideas, new lines and new, methods.

(b) As all enjoy equal reward under planned economy irrespective of their effort, efficiency and productivity.

(c) The bureaucracy and red tapism which are the features of planned economy, cripple the initiative as they cause procedural delay and time loss.

(III) High cost of Management:

1. No doubt the fruits of planning such as industrialization, social justice and regional balance are good.
2. But the cost of management of the economic affairs outweighs the benefits of planning.
3. Plan formulation and implementation involve engagement of an army of staff for data collection and administration.

(IV) Difficulty in advance calculations:

1. Price mechanism provides for the automatic adjustment among price, demand and supply in a Laissez Faire economy.
2. The producers and consumers adjust their supply and demand based on price changes.
3. The arguments against planning are mostly concerned with centralized and totalitarian planning.
4. The democratic planning, planning by inducement and decentralized planning especially under mixed economies give equal role for private sector and public sector.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Economics of Development and Planning Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
………………………. defines development strictly in Economic terms.
(a) Traditional approach
(b) New welfare oriented approach
(c) Development approach
(d) Under development approach
Answer:
(a) Traditional approach

Question 2.
New welfare oriented approach is called ……………………….
(a) Economic growth
(b) Economic Development
(c) Redistribution with growth
(d) New Welfare Development
Answer:
(c) Redistribution with growth

Question 3.
Under development refers to that state of an economy is very low levels of Per Capita Income and ……………………….
(a) Low level of productivity
(b) Low level of people
(c) Low level of distribution
(d) Low level of unemployment
Answer:
(a) Low level of productivity

Question 4.
………………………. leads to a higher quality of living all other thing being equal.
(a) GNP
(b) NNP
(c) GDP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 5.
GNP relates to increase in the ………………………. of the Economy.
(a) Per Capita Real Income
(b) Per Capita Finance
(c) Per Capita Economy
(d) Per Capita Natural Resource
Answer:
(a) Per Capita Real Income

Question 6.
………………………. is defined as a sustained improvement in health, literacy and standard of living.
(a) Economic level
(b) Economic welfare
(c) Economic development
(d) Economic goods
Answer:
(c) Economic development

Question 7.
………………………. is called basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation and housing facilities and social backwardness.
(a) Economic Indicators
(b) Social Indicators
(c) Welfare Indicators
(d) State Indicators
Answer:
(b) Social Indicators

Question 8.
Economic development depends on Economic, Soical, Political and ………………………. factors.
(a) Real
(b) Religion
(c) Religious
(d) Welfare
Answer:
(c) Religious

Question 9.
Low level of Development is called ……………………….
(a) Developed countries
(b) Less developed countries
(c) Developed nation
(d) Under developed nation
Answer:
(b) Less developed countries

Question 10.
Price mechanism provides for the automatic adjustment among price, demand and supply in a ………………………. Economy.
(a) Laissez Faire
(b) Developed
(c) Under developed
(d) Planned
Answer:
(a) Laissez Faire

Question 11.
Centralised planning the entire planning process in a country is under a ………………………. authority.
(a) Imperative planning
(b) Planning by direction
(c) Central planning
(d) Long term planning
Answer:
(c) Central planning

Question 12.
………………………. planning by Inducement the people are induced to act in a certain way through various monetary and fiscal measures.
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Planning by direction
(c) Imperative planning
(d) Short term planning
Answer:
(b) Planning by direction

Question 13.
Short term plans are also known as ……………………….
(a) Long term plans
(b) Planning by direction
(c) Centralised planning
(d) Controlling plans
Answer:
(d) Controlling plans

Question 14.
………………………. planning is peculiar to the mixed economies.
(a) Centralised planning
(b) Indicative planning
(c) Planing by direction
(d) Imperative short term planning
Answer:
(b) Indicative planning

Question 15.
………………………. the state is all powerful in preparation and implementation of the plan.
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Planning by direction
(c) Indicative planning
(d) Imperative planning
Answer:
(d) Imperative planning

Question 16.
………………………. planning refers to the technique of planning in which resources are allocated in terms of money.
(a) Financial
(b) Physical
(c) Structural
(d) Functional
Answer:
(a) Financial

Question 17.
………………………. planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.
(a) Financial
(b) Physical
(c) Functional
(d) Structural
Answer:
(b) Physical

Question 18.
………………………. planning refers to a good deal of changes in the socio economic framework of the country.
(a) Financial
(b) Physical
(c) Functional
(d) Structural
Answer:
(d) Structural

Question 19.
General planning concerns itself with the major issues for the whole economy is known as ………………………. planning.
(a) comprehensive
(b) Partial
(c) Functional
(d) Structural
Answer:
(a) comprehensive

Question 20.
NITI Aayog was formed on through a ……………………….
(a) Financial resolution
(b) Functional resolution
(c) Comprehensive resolution
(d) Union cabinet
Answer:
(d) Union cabinet

Question 21.
……………………… is a policy think tank of the Government of India.
(a) Comprehensive planning
(b) Partial planning
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Functional planning
Answer:
(c) NITI Aayog

Question 22.
……………………… to central and state governments on policy and programmes.
(a) Internal consultancy
(b) Interface consultancy
(c) Conflict consultancy
(d) Monitoring consultancy
Answer:
(a) Internal consultancy

Question 23.
A shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of states is called ………………………
(a) Competitive federalism
(b) Shared national agenda
(c) Scenario planning
(d) Network of expertise
Answer:
(b) Shared national agenda

Question 24.
To restructure the planning process into a bottom – up model is called ………………………
(a) Decentralized planning
(b) Scenario planning
(c) Partial planning
(d) Comprehensive planning
Answer:
(a) Decentralized planning

Question 25.
To enable the states to have active participation in the formulation of national policy is called co – operative and ………………………
(a) Competitive federalism
(b) Comprehensive federalism
(c) Partial federalism
(d) Comprehensive federalism
Answer:
(a) Competitive federalism

II. Match The Following And Choose The Correct Answer By Using Codes Given Below.

Question 1.
A. UDC – (i) Economic terms
B. Traditional approach – (ii) Low Per Capita Income
C. Economic Development – (iii) Higher level of living
D. GNP – (iv) Economic growth
Codes:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(b) A (i) B (ii) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
Answer:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

Question 2.
A. Capital formation – (i) Organised banking system
B. Size of the market – (ii) Economic growth
C. Occupational structure – (iii) Increase employment
D. Financial system – (iv) Structural change
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
Codes:
Answer:
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)

Question 3.
A. Human resource – (i) Technical knowledge
B. Technical know-how – (ii) Crony capitalism
C. Political freedom – (iii) Increase productivity
D. Social organization – (iv) Development linked
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
Answer:
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

Question 4.
A. Casino capitalism – (i) 1948
B. First five year plan – (ii) 1950
C. Industrial policy – (iii) 1951 – 1956
D. Plan era – (iv) Illegal activities
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C (iii) D (i)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
Answer:
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)

Question 5.
A. Patrimonial capitalism – (i) Collective control
B. Vicious circle of poverty – (ii) LDC
C. Economic planning – (iii) Solved union econokic planning
D. Industrial super power – (iv) Children would not work hard
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C (iii) D (i)
(c) A (iv) B (ii) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
Answer:
(d) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

III. State Whether The Statements Are True or False.

Question 1.
(i) There are two main approaches to the concept of development viz
(1) The traditional approach
(2) The new welfare oriented approach.
(ii) The traditional approach defines development strictly in economic terms.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) Economic development was redefined in terms of reduction of poverty, inequality and unemployment with in the context of a growing economy.
(ii) New welfare oriented approach is “Redistribution with growth”.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 3.
(i) GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services.
(ii) GNP leads low level of living.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 4.
(i) Social Indicators are basic and collective needs of the people.
(ii) The basic needs are agriculture and Industry.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) Capital formation is the main key to economic growth.
(ii) Capital formation helps to increase the population.

(a) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) (i) is true but (ii) is false

IV. Which of The Following Is Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Sir M. Vishveshwarya – 1940
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru – 1934
(c) Bombay plan – 1938
(d) S.N. Agarwal – 1944
Answer:
(d) S.N. Agarwal – 1944

Question 2.
(a) Planned Economy of India – S.N. Agarwal
(b) National planning commission – Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Bombay plan – Sir M. Vishveshwarya
(d) Gandhianplan – Investment plan
Answer:
(c) Bombay plan – Sir M. Vishveshwarya

Question 3.
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution
(b) Financial planning – Controlling plans
(c) Short term plans – Technique planning
(d) Indicative planning – Capitalist economy
Answer:
(a) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution

Question 4.
(a) UDC – Vicious circle of poverty
(b) Rural economy – Peoples plan
(c) Redistribution with growth – Industrial approach
(d) Controlling plans – Polling plans
Answer:
(a) UDC – Vicious circle of poverty

Question 5.
(a) H.R. Hicks – The road to serfdom
(b) Sarvodaya plan – M.N. Roy
(c) Perspective plan – Long term plan
(d) Modernisation – Industrialization
Answer:
(c) Perspective plan – Long term plan

V. Which of The Following Is Not Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Structural changes – Modernization
(b) Functional planning – Remove Economic difficulties
(c) Capitalist economy – Partial planning
(d) People’s plan – N.S.C. Bose
Answer:
(d) People’s plan – N.S.C. Bose

Question 2.
(a) Market economy – Capitalist economy
(b) Industry – Socialist economy
(c) J.P. Narayan – Bombay plan
(d) S.N. Agarwal – Gandhian plan
Answer:
(c) J.P. Narayan – Bombay plan

Question 3.
(a) 1934 – Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) 1950 – J.P. Narayan
(c) 1945 – M.N. Roy
(d) 1944 – S.N. Agarwal
Answer:
(a) 1934 – Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 4.
(a) Centralized planning – Planning from above
(b) Indicative planning – Mixed economies
(c) Imperative planning – China and Russia
(d) Totalitarian planning – Inducement planning
Answer:
(d) Totalitarian planning – Inducement planning

Question 5.
(a) Financial planning – Technique of planning
(b) NITI Aayog – Union cabinet resolution
(c) Seven pillars of effective governance – NITT
(d) Physical planning – Techniques of planning
Answer:
(c) Seven pillars of effective governance – NITT

VI. Pick The Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Economic development
(a) State of development
(b) Nature and level of change
(c) Scope of change
(d) Growth change
Answer:
(d) Growth change

Question 2.
Economic factors
(a) Natural resource
(b) Capital formation
(c) Size of the market
(d) Social change
Answer:
(d) Social change

Question 3.
Non – Economic factors
(a) Human resource
(b) Technical know-how
(c) Foreign trade
(d) Political freedom
Answer:
(c) Foreign trade

Question 4.
UDC characteristics are
(a) Low Per Capita Income
(b) Widespread poverty
(c) Low population
(d) Low rate of capital formation
Answer:
(c) Low population

Question 5.
The economic planning is justified on the following grounds.
(a) To accelerate and strengthen market mechanism
(b) To remove unemployment
(c) To remove agriculture
(d) To achieve balanced development
Answer:
(c) To remove agriculture

VII. Assertion And Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The traditional approach defines development strictly in economic terms.
Reason (R): The increase in GNP is accompanied by decline in share of agriculture in output and employment.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Economic development depends on economic, social, political and religious factors.
Reason (R): Economic development is determined by single factor.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Social Indicators are normally referred to as basic and collective needs of the people.
Reason (R): The basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation and housing facilities check social backwardness.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Capital is a neccessary but a sufficient condition of progress.
Reason (R): Economic development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The countries which adopt free market mechanism [Laissez faire] enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economies.
Reason (R): It may be true for some countries but not every country.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Traditional Approach”?
Answer:
Traditional Approach:

1. The traditional approach defines development strictly in economic terms.
2. The increase in GNP is accompanied by decline in share of agriculture in output and employment while those of manufacturing and service sectors increase.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of New Welfare oriented Approach?
Answer:
New Welfare oriented Approach:

1. During 1970s, economic development was redefined in terms of reduction of poverty, ‘inequality’ and unemployment within the context of a growing economy.
2. In this phase, ‘Redistribution with Growth’ became the popular slogan.

Question 3.
Write “UDC” characteristics?
Answer:
The UDCs are characterized by predominance of primary sector i.e. agriculture, low per capita income, widespread poverty, wide inequality in distribution of income and wealth, over population, low rate of capital formation, high rate of unemployment, technological backwardness, dualism etc.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of underdevelopment?
Answer:
Meaning of Underdevelopment:
The term underdevelopment refers to that state of an economy where levels of living of masses are extremely low due to very low levels of Percapita income, resulting from low levels of productivity and high growth rate of population.

Question 5.
Define “Financial system.”?
Answer:
Financial System:

1. Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.
2. There should be an organized money market to facilitate easy availability of capital.

Question 6.
Define “FOREX”?
Answer:
Foreign Trade:

1. The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always developed.
2. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

Question 7.
Write casino capitalism?
Answer:
Casino Capitalism:
If People spend larger propotion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

Question 8.
Define “Planning”?
Answer:

1. Planning is a technique, a means to an end being the realization of certain pre-determined and well-defined aims and objectives laid down by a central planning authority.
2. The end may be to achieve economic, social, political or military objectives.

Question 9.
Define “Sarvodaya plan”?
Answer:
“Sarvodaya Plan” which was inspired by Gandhian Plan and with the idea of Vinoba Bhave.
It gave importance not only for agriculture, but encouraged small and cottage industries in the plan.

Question 10.
Write Gandhian plan and Bombay plan?
Answer:

1. S.N Agarwal (1944) gave the “Gandhian Plan” focusing on the agricultural and rural economy.
2. Bombay Plan (1940): The 8 leading industrialists of Bombay presented “Bombay Plan”. It was a 15 Year Investment Plan.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Briefly explain Measurement of Economic Development?
Answer:
Measurement of Economic Development:
Economic development is measured on the basis of four criteria

(I) Gross National Product (GNP):
1. GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a particular year, plus income earned by its citizens (including income of those located abroad), minus income of non-residents located in that country.

2. GNP is one measure of the economic condition of a country, under the assumption that a higher GNP leads to a higher quality of living, all other things being equal.

(II) GNP per capita:

1. This relates to increase in the per capita real income of the economy over the long period.
2. This indicator of economic growth emphasizes that for economic development the rate of increase in real per capita income should be higher than the growth rate of population.

(III) Welfare:

1. Economic development is regarded as a process whereby there is an increase in the consumption of goods and services by individuals.
2. From the welfare perspective, economic development is defined as a sustained improvement in health, literacy and standard of living.

(IV) Social Indicators:

1. Social indicators are normally referred to as basic and collective needs of the people.
2. The direct provision of basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation and housing facilities check social backwardness.

Question 2.
Explain Economic growth changes?
Answer:
(I) State of Development:
Generally speaking, economic development refers to the problems of underdeveloped countries and economic growth to those of developed countries.

(II) Nature and Level of Change:
Development is a discontinuous and spontaneous change while growth is a gradual and steady change in the long run.

(III) Scope of Change:

1. Growth simply means more output.
2. But development refers to efficiency in production i.e. output per unit of input.
3. It also implies changes in composition of output and in allocation of resources, reduction of poverty, inequality and unemployment.

(IV) Extent of change:
Economic development (wider concept than economic growth) is taken to mean growth plus structural change.

Question 3.
Explain economic factors capital formation?
Answer:
Capital Formation:

1. Capital formation is the main key to economic growth.
2. Capital formation refers to the net addition to the existing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.
3. Capital formation helps to increase productivity of labour and thereby production and income.
4. It facilitates adoption of advanced techniques of production.
5. It leads to better utilization of natural resources, industrialization and expansion of markets which are essential for economic progress.

Question 4.
What is Crony capitalism?
Answer:
Social Organization:

1. People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.
2. Mass participation in development programs is a pre-condition for accelerating the development process.
3. Whenever the defective social organization allows some groups to appropriate the benefits of growth.
4. Majority of the poor people do not participate in the process of development.
5. This is called crony capitalism.

Question 5.
Write Development of Infrastructure?
Answer:
Development of Infrastructure:

1. The agriculture and industrial sectors cannot develop in the absence of economic and social overheads.
2. The building of canals, roads, railways, power stations, etc., is indispensable for agricultural and industrial development.
3. Infrastructure involves huge capital investment long gestation period and low rate of return.
4. The state alone can provide strong infrastructural bases through planning.

Question 6.
Explain Price mechanism?
Answer:

1. Price mechanism provides for the automatic adjustment among price, demand and supply in a Laissez Faire economy.
2. The producers and consumers adjust their supply and demand based on price changes.
3. There is no such mechanism in a planned economy.
4. Advance calculations in a precise manner are impossible to make decisions regarding the consumption and production.
5. It is also very difficult to put the calculations into practice under planning.
6. Excess supply and excess demand can also happen in the market oriented economy.
7. Infact it has happened in many expitalistic economies, including the US.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
Explain the Economic planning in India?
Answer:
Economic Planning in India:

• Consists of economic decisions, schemes formed to meet certain pre-determined economic objectives and a road map of directions to achieve specific goals within specific period of time.
• The idea of economic planning was strengthened during the Great Depression in 1930s.
• The outbreak of the World War II also required adequate and suitable planning of economic resources for the effective management after the effects of post war economy.
• After Independence, in 1948, a declaration of industrial policy was announced.
• The policy suggested the creation of a National Planning Commission and the elaboration of the policy of a mixed economic system.
• On January 26, 1950, the Constitution came into force.
• In logical order, the Planning Commission was created on March 15, 1950 and the plan era began on April 1, 1951 with the launch of the first five year plan (1951-56). The evolution of planning in India.

Question 2.
Explain the Human Resource of Economic Development?
Answer:
Human Resources:

1. Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income.
2. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth.
3. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset.
4. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.
5. It includes expenditure on health, education and social services.
6. If labour is efficient and skilled, its capacity to contribute to growth will be high. For example Japan and China.

Question 3.
Discuss the Economic planning of Democratic planning and Totalitarian planning?
Answer:
Democratic Vs Totalitarian:

1. Democratic planning implies planning within democracy.
2. People are associated at every step in the formulation and implementation of the plan.
3. A democratic plan is characterized by the widest possible consultations with the various state governments and private enterprises at the stage of preparation.
4. The plan prepared by the Planning Commission is not accepted as such.
5. It can be accepted, rejected or modified by the Parliament of the country.
6. Under totalitarian planning, there is central control and direction of all economic activities in accordance with a single plan.
7. Consumption, production, exchange, and distribution are all controlled by the state. In authoritarian planning, the planning authority is the supreme body.
8. It decides about the targets, schemes, allocations, methods and procedures of implementation of the plan.

Question 4.
Briefly explain Indicative and Imperative planning?
Answer:
Indicative Vs Imperative Planning:

1. Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed economies.
2. It has been in practice in France since the Monnet Plan of 1947-50.
3. In a mixed economy, the private sector and the public sector work together.
4. Under this plan, the outline of plan is prepared by the Government.
5. Then it is discussed with the representatives of private management, trade unions, consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts.
6. The essential function of planning is coordination of different economic units.
7. The state provides all types of facilities to the private sector.
8. The private sector is expected to fulfill the targets and priorities.
9. The state does not force the private sector but just indicate the areas of operation and targets to be fulfilled.
10. In short, the planning procedure is soft and flexible.
11. Under imperative planning, the state is all powerful in preparation and implementation of the plan.
12. Once a plan is drawn up, its implementation is a matter of enforcement.
13. The USSR President Stalin used to say, ‘Our plans are our instructions’.
14. There is complete control over the entire resources by the state.
15. There is no consumer sovereignty.
16. The Government policies and procedures are rigid.
17. China and Russia follow imperative planning.