Bhagya

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant pollinator
(a) Duck
(b) Parrot
(c) Humming bird
(d) Dove
Answer:
(c) Humming bird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
a. Nutmag
b. Bamboo
c. Ginger
d. Neem
Answer:
d. Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
(a) Potato
(b) Carrot
(c) Radish
(d) Turnip
Answer:
(a) Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anticancer properties?
a. Amla
b. Tulasi
c. Turmeric
d. Aloe
Answer:
a. Amla

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
(a) Neem tree
(b) Jack tree
(c) Banyan tree
(d) Mango tree
Answer:
(c) Banyan tree

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Every year October _______ is celebrated as a world food day.
2. _______ is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I _______ ?
4. The juice of the leaves of _______ plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called _______

Answers:

1. Sixteenth
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulasi
5. Pulses

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Plants grown for decorative purposes are called softwood.
Answer:
False. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called Ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Cauliflower is used for ornamental purposes.
Answer:
False. Jasmine is used for ornamental purposes.

Question 4.
Cotton cloth is not suitable for the summer season.
Answer:
False. Cotton cloth is suitable for the summer season.

Question 5.
Sugarcane is used as biofuel.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Fibre yielding plant – Chloramine
2. Hardwood – Spice
3. Neem – Hemp
4. Clove – Cereals
5. Millet – Teakwood

Answer:

1. Fibre yielding plant – Hemp
2. Hardwood – Teakwood
3. Neem – Chloramine
4. Clove – Spice
5. Millet – Cereals

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
mango : fruit:: maize : _______
Answer:
cereals.

Question 2.
coconut: fibre :: rose : _______
Answer:
ornamental.

Question 3.
Bees: Pollinate insect:: earthworms : _______
Answer:
Natural manure

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:

1. Food gives us energy.
2. Plants are the main source of food for humans.
3. These plants which are the main source of food are known as food plants.
4. (Eg.) Vegetables – Beetroot, Carrot
   Cereals – Rice, Wheat, Bhajra
   Pulses – Bengal gram, Green mung bean

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Plants that have ingredients which can be used in drug preparation are known as medicinal plants.
Eg: Tulsi, Neem, etc.

Question 3.
How hardwoods differ from softwoods?
Answer:
Hardwoods:

1. Present in angiosperms (flowering plants)
2. It is used to prepare furniture, decks, flooring, and wooden construction.
3. Example: Teak, Jackfruit.

Softwoods:

1. Present in gymnosperm (non-flowering plants)
2. It is used to produce plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density fibreboard (MDF), and paper-making.
3. Example: Katampu, Pine

Question 4.
What is spice?
Answer:
Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food.

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:
The neem tree, Tulsi tree, Amla tree are the medicinal plants.

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. Timber has features like durability, stylish finishing and resistance to temperature changes.
2. Hardwood is used for making high-quality furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction.
3. Softwood is used for making plywood, wooden boxes medium – density fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:
A close relationship between two different species that benefits at least one of the species or both. This relationship is known as a “Symbiotic relationship”.

Question 2.
Write the uses of neem?
Answer:

1. Neem leaf is used for leprosy, eye disorders, intestinal worms, stomach upset, skin ulcers, diseases of heart and blood vessels, fever, diabetes, and liver problem.
2. Neem flowers can be used to treat intestinal worms.
3. Neem oil is rich in vitamin E and fatty acid. It helps to improve skin elasticity.

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:
Plant:

1. Sweet potato
2. Onion, ginger
3. Spinach, Coriander
4. Flower of banana
5. Wheat, beans
6. Coconut, mango

Plant part we eat:

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Leaves
4. Flower
5. Seed
6. Fruit

VIII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Write short notes on – Timber yielding plants.
Answer:

1. The wood needed for the construction of buildings and making of furniture is obtained from certain plants.
2. We use wood for these purposes due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
3. All commercial timbers are classified into two classes as Hardwoods and softwoods based essentially on their structure.

i. Hardwoods:
Hardwoods are angiosperms (flowering plants), the largest group of land plants. High-quality furniture, decks, flooring, and wooden construction are being made only using hardwood. Example: Teak, Jackfruit.

ii. Softwoods:
Softwoods come from gymnosperm (non-flowering plants) trees. Certain angiosperms also yield softwood.
Softwoods have a wide range of applications such as making plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density Fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
Example: Katampu, Pine.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
Animal – Plant interactions :

1. Animals and birds play an important role in spreading seeds of various plants.
2. The digestive enzymes in the digestive system of the birds soften the protective layer of the seeds and make it easier to germinate.
3. If this natural relationship between animals and plants are affected, it shows its impact on the economy too.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason?
Answer:
A desert is a region of land that is very dry because it receives low amounts of precipitation (usually in the form of rain but it maybe snow, mist, or fog), often has little coverage by plants, and in which streams dry up unless they are supplied by water from outside the area.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement (or) not? Explain Why?
Answer:
No. I don’t agree with her statement.

1. A palm tree is technically neither hardwood nor softwood.
2. It comes from a separate family known as Arecaceae.
3. It has a significantly different cellular structure from either soft or hardwoods

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions,
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria. How?

Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil for agriculture. So they increase the soil fertility.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants. Why?

Answer:

1. Bees are the best pollinators. Bright colour of flower, smell and honey attract honey bees.
2. The bees go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their legs.
3. It results in cross-pollination takes place and the formation of vegetable and fruit. So honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Tabulate the names of vegetables, Cereals, and pulses you know.

S.No.	Vegetables	Cereals	Pulses
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2

Question 1.
How do Rava, Maida, Sago, and Vermicelli are made? Discuss it with your friends.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Question 1.
Ask your parents about the medicinal uses of plants such as Phyllanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vetiver, Thuthuvalai and make a write-up. What are the other plants used for medicinal purposes in your area?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 4

Question 1.
Take a small quantity of cotton swap. Hold in between your thumb and forefinger. Now, gently Start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the Fibres.
Are you able to make a yam?

The process of making yam from fibre is called Spinning.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
From the earliest time ______ have been the staple food of India.
i. Rice
ii. Millet
iii. Oats
iv. Pulses.
(a) i and ii
(c) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Answer:
(a) i and ii

Question 2.
Rava uppuma is made of
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Millet
(d) Sorghum
Answer:
(b) Wheat

Question 3.
For making rope, fibres are obtained from _______ free.
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Coconut
(d) Jack fruit
Answer:
(c) Coconut

Question 4.
The wealth of any country largely depends upon its
(a) Educational development
(b) Agricultural development
(c) Industrial development
(d) Political development
Answer:
(b) Agricultural development

Question 5.
________ are the best for pollinations.
(a) Housefly
(b) Mosquito
(c) Birds
(d) Honeybees
Answer:
(d) Honeybees

Question 6.
Carpentry works depend on
(a) Medicinal plants
(b) Fibre plants
c) Ornamental plants
(d) Timber plants
Answer:
(d) Timber plants

Question 7.
We obtain _______ from plants for making tyre, seats etc.
(a) Plastic
(b) Rubber
(c) Pencil
(d) Wood
Answer:
(b) Rubber

Question 8.
Neem coated urea releases _______ gradually and helps the plants.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Plants, based on their economic values and uses, may be broadly classified into _______ categories.
2. The heartbeat of an Indian kitchen is _______
3. We get food from roots is _______
4. _______ are secured in Pods.
5. India is the _______ largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
6. Some medicinal plants like _______ are used to produce medicines.
7. For making mattresses _______ is used.
8. _______ alone accounts for over 50% of raw jute production.
9. Hardwoods are _______ the largest group of land plants.
10. To decorate houses we are planting climber plant-like _______
11. _______ are economically useful for us in silk production.
12. _______ are used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
13. Indian scientists have made a _______ formulation from the Palak to cure Osteoarthritis.

Answers:

1. six
2. Spices
3. Carrot
4. Pulses
5. Second
6. Fungi
7. Silk cotton
8. West Bengal
9. Angiosperms
10. Mullai
11. Silkworms
12. Blue green algae
13. Nano

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The useful Hardwoods and Softwoods are given by fiber plants.
Answer:
False. The useful hardwoods and softwoods are given by timber plants.

Question 2.
In the cabbage the edible part is leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Cardamom and black pepper are pulses.
Answer:
False. Cardamom and black pepper are spices.

Question 5.
In turmeric, the Rhizome part is used to help the body to fight foreign invaders.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The process of making yam from fibres is called yam production.
Answer:
False. The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 7.
Hibiscus trees are used to decorate houses.
Answer:
False. Hibiscus shrubs are used to decorate houses.

Question 8.
Plants and algae living in coral reefs are the food for a variety of fishes.
Answer:
True.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Tomato : Vegetable :: Wheat: _______
Answer:
Pulses

Question 2.
Roots as food : Beetroot:: Stem as food : _______
Answer:
Potato

Question 3.
Spices : Cardamom :: Medicinal plant: _______
Answer:
Amla

Question 4.
Protect from scurvy : Amla :: Bronchitis, expectorant: _______
Answer:
Tulsi

Question 5.
Leaf fibres : Agave :: Husk fibres : _______
Answer:
Coconut.

Question 6.
Hardwoods: angiosperm
Soft woods : _______
Answer:
Gymnosperm.

Question 7.
Shrubs : Crape Jasmine :: Climbers : _______
Answer:
Allamanda.

Question 8.
Fix nitrogen in the soil: Pseudomonas :: Produce bio-fuel: _______
Answer:
Jatropha.

V. Match the following:

A.

i.	Plants as food	(a)	Curry leaves
ii.	Spice yielding plant	(b)	Phylanthus
iii.	Medicinal plant	(c)	Paddy
iv.	Fibre yielding plant	(d)	Carnation
v.	Ornamental plant	(e)	Coconut

Answer:
i – c
ii – a
iii – b
iv – e
v – d.

B.

i.	Root as food	(a)	Yam
ii.	Leaves as food	(b)	Banana flower
iii.	Stems as food	(c)	Apple
iv.	Flowers as food	(d)	Beetroot
v.	Fruits as food	(e)	Cabbage

Answer:
i – d
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – c.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Economic botany.
Answer:
Economic botany is the study of the relationship between people and plants and the uses of plants in the economy.

Question 2.
Name the plant from which we get cordage or rope?
Answer:
Fibres got from coconut stem, a stalk of the compound leaf, and husk fibres of the coconut are the sources from which cordage or rope is processed.

Question 3.
Define – Cereals.
Answer:
Cereals are edible components of a grain of cultivated grass.
Example: Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

Question 4.
Why do we consider cotton as a cash crop?
Answer:

1. Cotton gives textile fibers used for making garments or dress materials or fabric.
2. 80% of cotton is used in making fabrics or cotton mixed fabrics.
3. Because of its large-scale cultivation, manufacture, and industry, it is a commercially very important plant. So known as a cash crop.

Question 5.
Name some medicinal plants.
Answer:
The medicinal plants are Phyllanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vetiver, Thuthuvalai, Neem, and Tulsi.

Question 6.
What are the specialties of Teak Wood?
Answer:

1. Teak is a hardwood, durable, and strong.
2. Teak central wood is deposited with gum, resin oil, etc and so strong that it can’t be destroyed by termites and other insects.
3. Doors, windows, roof, and railway sleeper wood and cots are made out of it.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding parts based on the plant parts.
Answer:

1. Plant Fibres include seed hairs – Cotton.
2. Stem Fibres – Flax, jute.
3. Leaf Fibres – Agave.
4. Husk Fibres – Coconut.

Question 8.
Name some states in which jute crop is grown.
Answer:
Jute crop is grown in seven states – West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya.

Question 9.
Classify the Ornamental plants.
Answer:

1. Shrubs – Hibiscus, Crape Jasmine, and Crotons
2. Climbers – Mullai, Allamanda and Bougainvilleam
3. Trees – Golden shower tree, Mandarai, Delonix tree

Question 10.
How pollination takes place by insects?
Answer:
Bright colured flowers, smell and honey attract insects. As the insects go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their body. This results in cross-pollination.

Question 11.
Define – Osteoarthritis.
Answer:
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease affecting joints and knees in old age and any age people. Pala spinach is used to cure the disease.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Classify the plants as food for example.
1. Vegetables
2. Cereals
3. Pulses
Plants also give us coffee, tea, sugar, and raw materials for oil.

1. Vegetables: We get vegetables from different parts of the plants.
Roots : eg : Beetroot, Carrot.
Leaves : eg : Curry Leaves, Cabbage.
Stems : eg : Potato, Yam.
Flowers : eg : Banana flower, Cauliflower.
Fruits : eg : Amla, Guava.

2. Cereals : Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

3. Pulses : (i) Pulses are edible seeds of plants legume family. Pulses are secured in pods.
(ii) Example : Bengal gram, Green mung bean.

4. Spices : Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food. Spices come from the bark1 or roots of certain plants, leaves, flowers, or stems of plants primarily used for flavoring, coloring or preserving food.

Spices used in India : Following spices are included in a variety of Indian dishes Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 2.
Give any five medicinal plants and their medicinal use.
Answer:
Here is a list of plants that have the highest medicinal value.

Plant Name	Parts used	Medicinal use
Amla	Fruit	Cure Vitamin “C” deficiency diseases like Scurvy. Improve immunity.
Tulsi	Leaves, Seed	Cough, cold, bronchitis, expectorant.
Aloe	Leaves	Laxative wound healing, skin bums and ulcer.
Neem	Bark, leaf and seed	Skin diseases
Turmeric	Rhizome	Helps body to fight foreign invaders

Question 3.
Give other uses of plants.
Answer:

1. Maintain soil fertility – Plants maintain soil fertility. Plants like blue-green algae and bacteria like Pseudomonas are also extensively used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
2. Prevent soil erosion – Plants when grown in dense will prevent soil erosion. This is prevented by plants if grown around.
3. Bio-fuels – Some plants are also grown for the sake of bio-fuels. Plant fuel is less toxic as it does not emit harmful gases and also less expensive. Ex: Jatropha. Even the plant waste is used to generate electricity. Ex: Sugar mills.
4. Rubber and Natural Plastic – Natural plastics and rubber are also produced from plants.
5. Neem oil-coated Urea – Neem coated urea releases nitrogen gradually and helps the plants to absorb maximum nitrogen. It reduces the impact of urea on the environment.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is _______ water.
(a) fresh
(b) pure
(c) Salty
(d) polluted
Answer:
(c) Salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of water cycle?
a. evaporation
b. condensation
c. rain
d. distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
(a) ii and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii
Answer:
(c) i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
a. glaciers
b. groundwater
c. other sources of water
d. 0.3%
Answer:
b. groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates a lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is _______
(a) make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
(b) use it for watering plants
(c) to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
(d) to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
(b) use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Only _______ percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called _______
3. _______ is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during _______
5. Water cycle is also called as _______

Answer:

1. 0.3
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Raining
5. Hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
Answer:
False. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.

Question 2.
Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
Answer:
False. Ponds are formed when the water table meets the land surface.

Question 3.
The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Condensation results in the formation of dew on the grass.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.
Answer:
False. Seawater cannot be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following :

1. Flood	Lake
2. Surface water	Evaporation
3. Sunlight	Water vapour
4. Cloud.	Pole
5. Frozen water	Increased rainfall

Answer:

1. Flood	Increased rainfall
2. Surface water	Lake
3, Sunlight	Evaporation
4. Cloud	Water vapour
5. Frozen water	Pole

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence :

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers, and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rain.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers, and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
4. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
5. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rain.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity :: Recycle : __________
Answer:
Water Management.

Question 2.
Groundwater : __________ :: Surface water : lakes
Answer:
Tube wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Different sources of water are wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
In the city, people get water from water tanks, hand pipes, and bore wells.
In rural areas, people get water from wells, canals, ponds, and rivers.

Question 3.
Take out a cooled bottle of water from the refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:

1. The cooled water bottle has a very cold exposed surface.
2. Due to the cool surface, there is a condensation of water-vapor from the air on the surface of a water bottle. It is because of the fact that water vapour is present in the atmosphere.
3. The condensed water molecules spread around the bottle.
4. So a puddle of water is noticed after some time.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:

1. The millions of tiny droplets do not collide with one another to form larger droplets.
2. The air around the clouds is not cool.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Ice is present in the top of tall mountains, glaciers, and polar regions.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in the Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
In Arctic and Antarctic circle, water in lakes and ponds will be frozen and a solid layer of ice is formed on the surface of water. Still aquatic animals living under the ice do not die. This is because the floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So as the surface water alone turns to ice, the aquatic animals manage it.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
Two types of rainwater harvesting are
(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface water:

1. Water present on the surface of the earth.
2. Ex: River, lake, ponds, streams, or freshwater.

Groundwater:

1. Water present beneath the earth’s surface in soil.
2. Ex: open wells, tube wells (or) hand pumps, Spings, etc.

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”?
Answer:
Save water slogans:

1. Conserve water, conserve life.
2. Save water, and it will save you.
3. It takes a lot of blues to stay green.
4. Don’t let life slip down the drain.
5. Don’t flush our planet’s most valuable source.

Question 3.
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water and even then we face scarcity of water. Reasons:

1. 97% of total water is found in seas and oceans, which is salty and not fit for human consumption.
2. Only 3% found in the freshwater and that too available in polar ice caps and glaciers.
3. Out of 3% freshwater, only 0.3% is available to us as surface water, in lakes, rivers, and swamps.

Question 4.
Give a reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:

1. Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
2. If we dispose of sewage before treatment the rivers and oceans will be polluted.
3. Aquatic animals and species will die due to pollution.
4. We can not use the river water for our day to day life.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness to the people.
2. Recycling of water.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
6. Rainwater harvesting.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics?
Answer:

1. Potable water is water which is safe to drink.
2. On average the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.

Characteristics of potable water :

1. Cleaned of harmful contaminants.
2. It is transparent.
3. It is odourless and colourless.
4. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as Waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the Waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:

1. Dr. Rajendra Singh is known as the “Waterman of India”.
2. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist.
3. His team built rainwater storage tanks, check dams, and other time-tested as well as path-breaking techniques.
4. His team build over 8600 johads to collect rainwater for all seasons, has brought water back to over 1000 villages and revived five rivers in Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He won the Stockholm Water prize in 2005, an award known as “The Noble Prize for Water”.
2. Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2001.
3. Jamnlal Bajaj Award in 2005.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:

1. Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.
2. The system is easy to install, operate, and maintain for all types of houses.
3. An excellent and valuable source of water in emergencies.
4. Reduces rainwater runoff and solve drainage problems in houses.
5. Ideal solution for the inadequacy of water.
6. Increase groundwater level.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
Yes, the formation of clouds is possible in that area because plants also release water vapour by transpiration process. This water vapour will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When a person breathes out on glasses, some amount of water vapour also comes out in exhaled air. This water vapour condenses on the glasses and thus the glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword :

DOWN:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for generation of _____
ACROSS
3. _______ is a large body of non-potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as _______
5. Plants undergo _______ and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:
Down:
1. Recycling
2. Evaporation
6. Electricity

Across:
3. Ocean
4. Sweat
5. Transpiration

XI.

Question 1.
Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

a. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
b. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
d. Human body consists of about _________ percentage of water.
e. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.
Answer:
a. 70% of water is seen in fish.
b. Watermelon has the maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Fish has a minimum amount of water in its content.
d. 60%.
e. Watermelon is a food item that can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
a. Dharmapuri, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Perambalur, Tanjore, Pudukottai, Dindugul, Madurai, Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
b. Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kanchipuram, Vellore, Krishnagiri, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Namakkal, Vizhupuram, Ariyalur, Thiruvarur, Thiruppur, Virudunagar, Tuticorin.
c. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Nilgiri, Coimbatore, Theni, Thirunelveli, Kanyakumari.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Intext Activities

Activity 1

The relative amount of water at various sources

Take a 20 litre bucket, a 500 ml mug, a 150 ml tumbler, and a 1 ml spoon. If the capacity of the bucket is 20 litre, then it represents the total amount of water present on the Earth.

Now, transfer a mug of water from the bucket and it is 500 ml and then it represents the total amount of freshwater present in the Earth. The water left in the bucket represents seas and oceans. This water is not fit for human use.

The water present in the mug represents the freshwater which is present in frozen form on snow-covered mountains, glaciers, and polar ice caps. This water is also not readily available for human use. Next, transfer 150 ml of water to the tumbler, then it represents the total amount of groundwater. Finally, take one-fourth spoonful of water while the capacity of the spoon is 1 ml, then it represents the total amount of surface water (i.e) water seen in all the rivers, lakes, and ponds of the world. It can be taken as potable water.

When such a small amount of potable water is available, then we should be more cautious in handling water. Is it not?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2
Conduct the activity with common salt, sand, chalk powder, charcoal powder, and copper sulphate.

Fill up the following table.

Substance	Dissolves in water	Does not dissolve in water
common salt
sand
chalk powder
charcoal powder
copper sulphate

From the above activity, we could observe that common salt and copper sulphate dissolve in water and contribute their properties like colour and other properties to water but sand, chalk powder, and charcoal powder do not dissolve in water.
Answer:

Substance	Dissolves in water	Does not dissolve in water
common salt	✓
sand		✓
chalk powder		✓
charcoal powder		✓
copper sulphate	✓

Activity 3

Water contains dissolved salts

Take some tap water in a china dish and heat it. Continue heating till all the water gets dried up. Stop the heating and look at the china dish. What do you observe inside the china dish?

Deposits of some solid particles on the surface of the china dish can be observed. The deposit is of salts that are dissolved in water. This shows that water has dissolved salts in it.

Note: Do not use distilled water or water from purifier or RO unit and the like for this activity.

Activity 4
Spread a piece of wet cloth in the sunlight. Observe after some time. Where has the water in the wet cloth gone?

The water evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun.

Activity 5

Condensation of water vapour

Take a glass half-filled with water. Wipe the outer surface of the glass with a clean piece of cloth. Add some ice into the water. Wait for one or two minutes. Observe the changes that take place on the outer surface of the glass.

From where do water drops appear on the outer side of the glass?

The cold surface of the glass containing icy water cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses on the surface of the glass. This process is also the result of the condensation of water vapour.

Activity 6

Estimation of water consumed by a family on a day

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ form of water is present in the mountain and the polar regions.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gaseous
(d) All these
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 2.
The melting point of Ice is ……….
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 0.100°C
(d) 10°C
Answer:
(b) 0°C

Question 3.
_______ water contains 0.05% to 1% of salts.
(a) Brackish
(b) Fresh
(c) Sea
(d) Sewage
Answer:
(b) Fresh

Question 4.
The human body requires ………. litres of water per day for proper functioning.
(a) 2 – 3 litres
(b) 3 – 4 litres
(c) 4 – 5 litres
(d) 1 – 2 litres
Answer:
(b) 3 – 4 litres

Question 5.
In plants, the loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts through _______
(a) Root
(b) Shoot
(c) Stomatal Pores
(d) Fruit
Ans:
(c) Stomatal Pores

Question 6.
_______ water is obtained through open wells, tube wells or hand pumps, springs.
(a) Surface
(b) Frozen
(c) Saline
(d) Ground
Ans:
(d) Ground

Question 7.
_______ of Asia’s largest rivers flow from the Himalayas.
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 8.
Volume of liquid is measured by _______
(a) Gallon
(b) Litre
(c) Cusec
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 9.
_______ forests are found in pichavaram near Chidambaram
(a) Green
(b) Grasslands
(c) Mangrove
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ plays a vital role in the evolution and survival of life.
2. _______ is present in the air around us.
3. In the distribution of a total of 0.3% of surface water, _______ has 87% surface water.
4. The molecular formula of water is _______
5. The oceanic volcanoes which are present inside also add _______ to the sea.
6. Every year _______ is observed as the world water day.
7. The water vapour gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form _______ in the sky.
8. A larger portion of water is _______ % of the total available fresh water in a frozen state.
9. The water level in the reservoirs is measured in _______
10. Adoption of _______ and irrigation in agriculture.

Answers:

1. Water
2. Vapour
3. Lakes
4. H₂O
5. Salt
6. March 22nd
7. Clouds
8. 68.7
9. Cubic feet per second (cusecs)
10. Drip, Sprinkler

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Mountains help to regulate the temperature of our earth.
Answer:
False. Water helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.

Question 2.
Solid form of water is present in underground.
Answer:
False. Liquid form of water is present in underground.

Question 3.
Water while passing through layers of soil dissolves salt and minerals to a maximum extent.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water freeze at 100° Celsius at normal pressure.
Answer:
False. Water freeze at 0° celsius at normal pressure.

Question 5.
When the air around the clouds is cool, these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Estuaries are harmful to unique plants and animal species.
Answer:
False. Estuaries are home to unique plants and animal species.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Ice berg : Solid form :: Water vapour : _______
Answer:
Gaseous Form.

Question 2.
Contain more than 3% of salt: _______ :: upto 3% of salt dissolved : Brackish water.
Answer:
Seawater.

Question 3.
Water bodies meet the sea : Estuaries :: Wet lands : _______
Answer:
Swamps.

Question 4.
Napier Bridge area : _______ :: Pallikkaranai: Wet land.
Answer:
Estuaries.

V. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the uses of water.
Answer:
Cooking food, washing clothes, cleaning utensils, bathing, agricultural, etc.

Question 2.
What are the three forms of water?
Answer:
Water is available in solid, liquid, and vapour forms.

Question 3.
Which places have fresh water?
Answer:
Ponds, pools, rivers, tube wells have fresh water.

Question 4.
How is 3% of freshwater distributed?
Answer:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Groundwater – 30.1%
Another source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%

Question 5.
Define – Saline water.
Answer:
Water with a large amount of dissolved solids is not potable or suitable for drinking. Such water is called saline water.

Question 6.
How water is classified based on its salinity?
Answer:
Based on salinity, water is classified into three main categories. Such as Freshwater, Brackish water, and Seawater.

Question 7.
What are the salts dissolved in seawater?
Answer:
The salts are dissolved in seawater are sodium chloride, magnesium chloride, and calcium chloride.

Question 8.
Define Water cycle.
Answer:
The water on the earth evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun. The water vapour in the atmosphere forms clouds. From the clouds, waterfalls on the earth in the form of rain or snow. By this natural process, water gets renewed. This is called the water cycle.

Question 9.
What is Condensation?
Answer:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled, and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky. This process is known as condensation.

Question 10.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form. This is called transpiration.

Question 11.
What is frozen water?
Answer:
Water that is present in the frozen form as polar ice caps and glaciers are called frozen water. A large portion of water is 68.7% of the total available freshwater is in a frozen state.

Question 12.
Define – Scarcity of water.
Answer:
There is no change in the total quantity of water available on earth. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and man is decreasing day by day. It is called Scarcity of water.

Question 13.
List the wetlands in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram Mangroves near Chidambaram.
2. Muthupet Mangrove wet-land.
3. Pallikkaranai wet-land in Chennai.
4. Chembarambakkam in Kancheepuram is a few examples of swamps in Tamilnadu.

Question 14.
What is meant by the conservation of water?
Answer:
Saving water for future generations by using water carefully and in a limited way is the conservation of water.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw and describe the total water on earth by a pie chart.
Answer:
If the total water on earth be 100%, let’s see what percent would be the availability of freshwater. Look at the pie chart given below
From the pie chart, it can also be noted that 97% of water is saline water. Only 3% found in the freshwater and that too in polar ice caps and glaciers. So this portion of water is not readily available for drinking.

The distribution of the total available (3%) freshwater is as follows:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Groundwater – 30.1 %
Another source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%
The distribution of total 0.3% of surface water is as follows:
Lakes – 87%
Rivers – 2%
Swamps – 11%
Thus the above pie chart explains that we have a very small amount of freshwater available for human usage and so maintaining the water table and the conservation of water is very essential.

Question 2.
What are the methods of water conservation? Explain?
Answer:
1. Water management:

• Bringing awareness to the people.
• Recycling water by separating pollutants.
• Minimize the use of fertilizers.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Adopt drip and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.

2. Rainwater harvesting:

• Collecting water from where it falls:
• Collecting water from the rooftops.
• Collecting flowing rainwater
• Collecting rainwater by constructing dams.

Question 3.
Give the importance of water.
Answer:
The importance of water:

1. Our body uses water in all its cells, organs, and tissues to help regulate its temperature and maintain other bodily functions.
2. On average, the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.
3. Water helps in the digestion of food and the removal of toxins from the body.
4. Water is used in domestic activities like cooking, bathing, washing clothes, washing utensils, keeping houses and common places clean, watering plants, etc.
5. It is also essential for the healthy growth of farm crops and farm stock and is used in the manufacture of many products.
6. Industry depends on the water at all levels of production.

Question 4.
Describe water distribution and treatment system through the flow chart.
Answer:

Question 5.
What are the reasons for the scarcity of water?
Answer:
The main reasons for the scarcity of water are:

1. Population explosion.
2. Uneven distribution of rainfall.
3. The decline of the ground water table.
4. Pollution of water.
5. Careless use of water.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Achieving Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
Answer:
(d) Geography

Question 2.
Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as …………….
(a) gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) religious discrimination
(d) inequality
Answer:
(a) gender discrimination

Question 3.
Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in
(a) films
(b) advertisements
(c) TV serials
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) AH of these

Question 4.
Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam …………….
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 5.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997

Question 6.
Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Question 7.
In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer:
(c) Carrom

Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not …………….
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
Answer:
(b) 15(1)

Question 9.
B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
Answer :
(a) 1990

Question 10.
As per the 2011 census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu …………….
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Answer:
(c) Kanyakumari

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.

1. People have false belief and ideas on others is called _______.
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was born in _______.
3.  _______was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest Sport honour
4. _______was independent India’s first Law Minister
5. As per the 2011 Census, the lowest Sex ratio was in _______.

Answers:

1. Prejudices
2. Rameswaram
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri Dist

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Prejudice – (i) abolition of untouchability
2. Stereotype – (ii) treating someone less fairly than others
3. Discrimination – (iii) equality before law
4. Article 14 – (iv) false view or idea about something
5. Article 17 – (v) judge other people negatively

Answer:

1. – v
2. – iv
3. – ii
4. – iii
5. – ii

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is Prejudice?
Answer:
Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them. It happens when people have false beliefs and ideas.

Question 2.
What is a stereotype?
Answer:
When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a stereotype. A stereotype is a false view or idea about something. For example, girls are not good at sports.

Question 3.
What is discrimination?
Answer:
Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion, gender, etc.

Question 4.
What are the articles that are discussing equality in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides equality before the law or equal protection within the territory of India.
2. Article 15 (1) of the Constitution states that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.
3. Article 17 of the Indian constitution, untouchability is totally abolished.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What are the causes of Prejudice?
Answer:
Some common social factors that contribute to the rise of prejudice are-

1. Socialisation
2. Conforming behaviours
3. Economic benefits
4. Authoritarian personality
5. Ethno – centrism
6. Group closure
7. Conflicts

Question 2.
Write any two types of discrimination?
Answer:
Caste discrimination:

1. Caste system is the most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination in India.
2. In the beginning the society was divided into different groups on the basis of occupation, known as varnas.
3. Leaders like Ambedkar was against caste discrimination.
4. He fought actively for equality among the citizens of India

Gender discrimination:

1. Gender discrimination refers to the health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
2. For example, A girl is not allowed to go to college after finishing her schooling.
3. Most of the girls are not allowed to select a career of their choice.
4. In some families, girls are not allowed to wear modern dresses while boys in such families wear modern dresses.

Question 3.
Explain the solution to the removal of inequality and discrimination in Indian society?
Answer:

1. The remedial measures for abolishing inequality and discrimination in Indian society are as follows.
2. Wider access to quality basic services like healthcare and education for all.
3. Be aware of current gender bias.
4. Make women more visible in public life and institution to eradicate gender disparity.
5. Be open to learning about other religions.
6. Promoting community dining in the classroom may help the students to sit together without any bias of caste, religion, or gender.
7. Socialise with people of all types outside the home.
8. Effective implementation of laws.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 2.
Collect information about any two famous personalities who faced prejudice and discrimination.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
(i) Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in the town and military cantonment of Mhow in the Central Provinces (now in Madhya Pradesh).

(ii) He was the 14th and last child of Ramji Maloji Sakpal, an army officer who held the rank of Subedar, and Bhimabai Sakpal, daughter of Laxman Murbadkar.

(iii) His family was of Marathi background from the town of Ambadawe (Mandangad taluka) in Ratnagiri district of modem-day Maharashtra.

(iv) Ambedkar was bom into a poor low Mahar (Dalit) caste, who were treated as untouchables and subjected to socio-economic discrimination.

(v) Ambedkar’s ancestors had long worked for the army of the British East India Company, and his father served in the British Indian Army at the Mhow cantonment.

(vi) Although they attended school, Ambedkar and other untouchable children were segregated and given little attention or help by teachers. They were not allowed to sit inside the class. When they needed to drink water, someone from a higher caste had to pour that water from a height as they were not allowed to touch either the water or the vessel that contained it.

(vii) This task was usually performed for the young Ambedkar by the school peon, and if the peon was not available then he had to go without water; he described the situation later in his writings as “No peon, No Water”. He was required to sit on a gunny sack which he had to take home with him.

Dr. Nelson Mandela:
(i) Mandela was bom on 18 July 1918 in the village of Mvezo in Umtata, then part of South Africa’s Cape Province.

(ii) He spent the first 18 of his 27 years in jail at the brutal Robben Island Prison, a former leper colony off the coast of Cape Town.

(iii) He was confined to a small cell without a bed or plumbing and compelled to do hard labor in a lime quarry. ,

(iv) As a black political prisoner, he received scantier rations and fewer privileges than other inmates. He was only allowed to see his wife, Winnie Madikizela-Mandela once every six months.

(v) Mandela and his fellow prisoners were routinely subjected to inhumane punishments for the slightest of offenses; among other atrocities, there were reports of guards burying inmates in the ground up to their necks and urinating on them.

(vi) Despite his forced retreat from the spotlight, Mandela remained the symbolic leader of the antiapartheid movement.

(vii) In 1980 Oliver Tambo introduced a “Free Nelson Mandela” campaign that made the jailed leader a household name and fueled the growing international outcry against South Africa’s racist regime.

(viii) As pressure mounted, the government offered Mandela his freedom in exchange for various political compromises, including the renouncement of violence and recognition of the “independent” Transkei Bantustan, but he categorically rejected these deals.

(ix) In 1982 Mandela was moved to Pollsmoor Prison on the mainland, and in 1988 he was placed under house arrest on the grounds of a minimum-security correctional facility.

(x) The following year, newly elected president F. W. de Klerk lifted the ban and called for a nonracist South Africa, breaking with the conservatives in his party. On February 11, 1990, he ordered Mandela’s release.

(xi) Mandela helped bring an end to apartheid and has been a global advocate for human rights.

(xii) He was a leader of both peaceful protests and armed resistance against the white minority’s oppressive regime in a racially divided South Africa.

(xiii) His actions landed him in prison for nearly three decades and made him the face of the antiapartheid movement both within his country and internationally.

(xiv) Released in 1990, he participated in the eradication of apartheid and in 1994 became the first black president of South Africa, forming a multiethnic government to oversee the country’s transition.

VII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Various discrimination in India. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion, gender, etc.

The three types of discrimination in India:

1. Caste discrimination
2. Gender discrimination
3. Religious discrimination

Caste Discrimination:

• Caste discrimination is the most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination in India.
• Many people fought against caste discrimination.
• The most prominent among them was Dr. Ambedkar.

Gender Discrimination:

• Gender discrimination refers to the health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
• For example, in some families, girls are not allowed to go to college after schooling. They are not allowed to choose their career. Girls are not allowed to wear modern dresses while boys are allowed to do so.

Religious Discrimination:

• Religious discrimination is unequal treatment of an individual or group based on their beliefs.
• Some people are not allowed to enter public places like temples because they belong to another religion.
• People come to conflict with others because of their rituals and way of life.

VIII Life Skill:

Question 1.
How can you fight against prejudice and discrimination in your village?
Answer:
Fighting against prejudice and discrimination:

1. First, we should assess our own biases. We should understand what they are.
2. Keep ourselves accountable. Prejudice is a kind of handicap to our perspective.
3. We are forbidden to think beyond our assumptions. A virtual wall gets built around our objective thinking.
4. Acknowledge our own biases and prejudices and actively replace them with more! reasonable alternative.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The eleventh president of India was _______
(a) Narasimha Rao
(b) Man Mohan Singh
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(d) Lal Bahadur Sastri
Answer:
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

Question 2.
Apartheid was abolished in ……………
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 3.
Baba Saheb refers to ______
(a) Patel
(b) Tilak
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Ambedkar

Question 4.
As per the 2011 census the lowest literate district in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Thoothukudi
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Urban people are more civilised than rural people in _______ and _______.
2. When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a _______.
3. In 1988, India’s first grandmaster was _______.
4. The Indian National carrom championship in 2008 was won by _______.
5. At the Rio Paralympics (2016) _______ won the gold medal in the men’s high jump T-42 event.
6. The Father of the Indian Constitution is _______.
7. The most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination is _______.

Answer:

1. Attitudes, behaviour
2. stereotype
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Ilavazhagi
5. Mariyappan
6. Dr. Ambedkar
7. caste system

II. Match the following
(a) Abdul Kaiam – (i) Padma Vibushan
(b) Viswanathan Anand – (ii) India’s first law minister
(c) Ambedkar – (iii) Closed
(d) Varrias – (iv) Missile Man of India
Answer:
a – iv
b – i
c – ii
d – iii

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by Stereotype?
Answer:

1. When prejudice gets stronger it develops into a stereotype.
2. A stereotype is a false view or idea about something.
3. The stereotype is learned at a very early age, and children grow to have very strong ideas or opinions about things, groups, or ideologies.
4. As children grow up, the lines of like and hate for other things, people, cultures, beliefs, languages become sharper.

Question 2.
Mention the different forms of inequalities
Answer:

1. Caste inequality
2. Religious inequality
3. Race inequality
4. Gender inequality

Question 3.
How many times did Viswanathan Anand win World Chess Championship?
Answer:
Viswanathan Anand won the World Chess Championships five times in 2000, 2007,2008, 2010, and 2012.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a short note op Dr. APJ Abdul Kaiam.
Answer:
Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kaiam was bom in a Muslim family in Rameswaram. He was the 11th President of India and is fondly remembered as the People’s President. He completed his schooling at Ramnad, graduated from St. Joseph’s College, Trichy, and went on to study aerospace engineering at the Madras Institute of Technology (MIT) after he joined the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).

Kalam’s family had become poor at an early age; he sold newspapers to supplement )his family income. Kaiam has written many books. Among them, very famous books are India 2020, Wings of Fire, Ignited Minds, The Luminous Sparks, and Mission India. He was a recipient of several prestigious awards, including the Bharat Ratna. India’s v highest civilian honour in 1997. His outstanding work earned him the title of the ‘Missile Man of India’.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who among the following built the VaikundaPerumai temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II ?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock-cut monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong,
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider Hie following statement! about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendi avarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
b. II only

Question 3.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. It was founded by Dantidurga.
2. Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga.
3. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Ellore caves – Rashtrakutas
b. Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
c. Elephanta caves – Ashoka
d. Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
c. Bharavi – Kirataijuneeyam
d. Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. _______ defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. _______ destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title Vatapikondan
3. _______ was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. _______ was the army general of Narasimhavarma I.
5. The music inscriptions in _______ and _______ show Pallavas’ interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thirumayam temples

IV. Match the following:

1. Pallavas – a. Kalyani
2. Eastern Chalukyas – b. Manyakheta
3. Western Chalukyas – c. Kanchi
4. Rashtrakutas – d. Vengi

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. State True or False :

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:

1. AdikaviPampa
2. Sri Ponna
3. Ranna

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:

1. Rock – cut temples
2. Mahendravarman style
3. Monolithic Rathas and sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan Style
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika at Kanchi was popular during the Pallava times.
2. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
3. Vatsyaya the author of Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher here.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. The five rathas (chorits), Popularly called panchapandavar rathes, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each rather has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam and captured Thanjavur (Takkolam is now in Vellore district)

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:

1. 1. Pallava period is known for architectural splendour.
   2. Pallava’s architecture can be classified as
2. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
3. Monlithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan style.
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

1. Mahendravarman Style:

The best example of MahendraVarma style monuments are cave temples at Mandagapattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

2. Mamalla Style:

1. The five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams they built are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.
5. The most important among the Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.

3. Rajasimha Style and Nandivarma Style :

1. Narasimhavarma II, also known as Rajasimha, constructed structural temples using stone blocks.
2. The best example of the structural temple is Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram.
3. This temple was built by using sand stones.
4. Kailasanatha temple is called Rajasimheswaram.
5. The last stage of the Pallava architecture is also represented by structural temples built by the later Pallavas.
6. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta Island:

1. Elepahanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally called as Sripuri but local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta, after seeing the huge image of an elephant.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon is illustrative of the sculptural beauty portrayed in the Cave temple of Elephanta.
4. There are impressive images of dwarapalakas (entrance guards) at the entrance of the temple.

Kailasanatha Temple – Ellora (near Aurangabad, Maharashtra)

1. Kailasanatha Temple was one of the 30 temples carved out of the hill at Ellora.
2. It was built during the reign of Krishna I.
3. The temple is known for its architectural grandeur and sculptural splendour.
4. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq ft and vimanam (temple tower) rises to a height of 90 feet.
5. This temple has resemblance to the shore temple at Mamallapuram.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Give an account on Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:

1. Western Chalukyas of Kalyani was the descendants of Badami Chalukyas who ruled from Kalyani.
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta ruling from the Bijapur region defeated Paramara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani
5. The Western Chalukyas and the Chola dynasty fought for over a century to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. The vast areas between the Narmada River and Kaveri River came under Chalukya control during the rule of Vikramaditya VI.

X. Activity:

Question 1.
a. Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma I and Pulakesin II.
Answer:
Mahendravarma I:

1. Mahendravarma I (600-630 CE) was a Pallava king.
2. He was the son of Simhavishnu.
3. During his reign the Chalukya king Pulakesin II attacked the Pallava kingdom. He was succeeded by his son Narasimavarma I.
4. He was a great patron of art and literature amongst the Pallavas.
5. In the inscription at the Mandagapattu rock-cut temple hails him as Vichitrachitta.
6. It is claimed that the temple was built without wood, brick, mortar or metal
7. He authorsed the play Mattavilasa Prahasana
8. He was initially a patron of Jain faith but converted to Saiva faith under the influence of Saiva Saint Appar.

Pulakesin – II:

1. Pulakesin II (610-642 CE) was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (present-day Badami in Karnataka).
2. During his reign, the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in Peninsular India.
3. He was the son of the Chalukya king Kirttivarman-I.
4. The most notable military achievement of Pulakesin was his victory over Harshavardhana.
5. He got defeated by Narasimha Varma I, who attained the title “Vatapikondan’.
6. Pulakesin was a Vaishnavite, but was tolerant to other faiths including Shaivism, Buddhism and Jainism.
7. He patronized several scholars including Ravikirtti, who composed his Aihole inscription.

b. See the picture and write a few sentences on it.

Arjunas’ Penance :

1. This magnificent relief, carved in the mid-seventh century, measures approximately 30m long and 15m high.
2. Its huge size and scale is difficult to imagine from photographs.
3. A person, standing on the ground in front of it, could barely touch the elephants’ feet.
4. The subject is either Arjuna’s penance or the Descent of the Ganges.
5. The composition of the relief includes the main elements of the story and the scenes of the natural and celestial worlds.
6. Arjuna stands on one leg, his arms upraised in a Yoga posture.

XI. Answer Grid :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Kalabhras were defeated by ________
(a) Simhavarman-II
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimha I
(d) Mahendravarman
Answer:
(b) Simhavishnu

Question 2.
The central part of the Pallava kingdom.
(a) Thondaimandalam
(b) Kongumandalam
(c) Pandya mandalam
(d) Kumarimandalam
Answer:
(a) Thondaimandalam

Question 3.
The Konkan coast was brought under the Chalukyas by
(a) Kirtivarman I
(b) Kirtivarman II
(c) Vikramaditya I
(d) Vikramaditya III
Answer:
(a) Kirtivarman I

Question 4.
The new capital of Rashtrakutas
(a) Manyakheta
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Broach
(d) Pattadakl
Answer:
(a) Manyakheta

Question 5.
Vakataka style was used in ______.
(a) painting
(b) Dance
(c) Music
(d) Cave Temple
Answer:
(a) painting

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I: The cave temples at Badami contain fine sculptures of Vishnu.
Statement II: The Mallikarjuna temple at Kuruvatti was built by the Rashtrakutas.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong.
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong!

Question 2.
Consider the following statements about Pattadakal and find out the – correct statements.
Statement I: Pattadakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
Statement II: It has ten temples.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
c. Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statement about the Mamalla style and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. The five rathas are called monolithic.
2. The most important Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.
3. Several miniature sculptures are found on the wall,

a. I only b.
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
d. all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Thondai mandalam – Pallavas
b. Mahendra style – Dravidian
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan
d. Paranjothi – Siruthondar
Answer:
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Parantaka – Cholas
b. Amoga varsha – Manyakheta
c. Rashtrakutas – Ellora
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas
Answer:
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Jain Narayana temple was built by the _______
2. There are impressive images of at the entrance of _______ the cave temple of Elephanta.
3. Kailasanatha temple portrays typical _______ features
4. Adipurana depicts the life of _______
5. Vikramaijuna Vijaya was written by _______
6. Krishna III built the Krishneswara temple at _______
7. Dahtidurga was an official of high rank under the _______
8. The Vishnu temple at Badami was built by _______
9. The Persian _______ King sent an embassy to the court of Pulakesin II
10. Nalayira divyaprabandam was composed by _______

Answer:

1. Rastrakutas
2. Dwarapalakas
3. Dravidian
4. Rishabadeva
5. Adikavi Pampa
6. Rameshwaram
7. Chalukya
8. Mangalesa
9. Khusru II
10. Azhwars

IV. Match :

1. Vatapi – i. Kirtivarman II
2. Shore Temple – ii. Kalyani
3. Dakshin Chitram – iii. Chalukyas
4. Dantidurga – iv. Mahendravarman I
5. omeswara I – v. Mamallapuram

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – v
3. – iv
4. – i
5. – ii

V. True or False

1. Narasimhavarman I was also known as Rajasimha.
2. Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is known as Rajasimheswaram.
3. Bharathavenba was written in Tamil.
4. The first Eastern Chalukya ruler was Vishnuvaradhana.
5. Rashtrakutas adopted the Vakataka style in paintings.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What formed Thondaimandalam?
Answer:

1. The central part of the Pallava kingdom was Thonadimandalam.
2. It covered a large political region comprising the northern parts of Tamil Nadu and the adjoining Andhra district.

Question 2.
What do you know about the literary work of Mahendravarma?
Answer:

1. Mahendravarman wrote plays including Mattavilasa Prahasana.
2. The play wrote in Sanskrit denigrates Buddhism.

Question 3.
Write about Siruthondar.
Answer:

1. Narsimhavarman-I’s army general was Paranjothi.
2. He was popularly known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars).
3. Paranjothi led the Pallava army during the invasion of Vatapi.
4. After the victory, he had a change of heart and devoted himself to Lord Siva.

Question 4.
‘Vesara style’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. During the Chalukya period a new style of architecture known as ‘Vesera’ was developed.
2. Versa is a combination of south Indian (Dravida) and north Indian (Nagara) building styles.

Question 5.
What is the significance of the Aihole inscription?
Answer:

1. Aihole inscription is found at Meguti temple in Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka).
2. It is written in Sanskrit by Ravikirti, a court poet of Chalukya king Pulakesin II.
3. It makes a mention of the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin II.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Pattadakal.
Answer:

1. Pattdakal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2. It is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
3. It has ten temples.
4. Out of them, four were built in northern style (Nagara), while the rest six are in the southern (Dravida) style.
5. Virupaksha Temple and Sangameshwara Temple are in Dravida style and Papanatha temple is in Nagara style.
6. The Virupaksha temple is built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
7. Sculptors brought from Kanchi were employed in its construction

Question 4.
Mention the contribution of Rashtrakutas to literature.
Answer:

1. Kannada language became more prominent.
2. Kavirajamarga composed by Amogavarsha was the first poetic work in Kannada language.
3. Court poets produced eminent works in Kannada.
4. The three gems of Kannada literature during the period were Pampa, Sri Ponna and Raima.
5. Adikavi Pampa was famous for his creative works Adipuranaand Vikramaijunavijaya.
6. The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana.
7. In Vikramarjunavijaya Pampa’s patron, Chalukya Arikesari, is identified with Arjuna, epic hero of Mahabharatha.

Question 3.
Write about education and literature under the Pallavas.
Answer:

1. Gatika (monastery or centre of learning) at Kanchi was popular during the Pallava times and it attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
2. Vatsyayana who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi.
3. The treatise on Dakshin Chitram has compiled during the reign of Mahendravarma I.
4. The greatest Sanskrit Scholar, Dandin, lived in the court of Narasimhavarma I. Dandin composed Dashakumara Charita.
5. Bharavi, the author of the epic Kiratarjuniya, lived in the time of Simhavishnu.
6. Tamil literature has also flourished during the Pallava rule. Thevaram was composed by Nayanmars and Nalayiradivyaprabantham by Azhwars.
7. Perundevanar, patronized by Narasimhavarman II, translated the Mahabharata into Tamil as Bharathavenba.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science What is History Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What was the step taken by the early man to collect his food?
(a) Trade
(b) Hunting
(c) Painting
(d) Rearing of animals
Answer:
(b) Hunting

II. Match the statement with the Reason, tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement: Pre historic men went along with the dog for hunting.
Reason: Dogs with its sniffing power would find out other animals.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong and reason is correct.
(d) Both statements and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : The objects used by the early man are excavated. They are
preserved to know the lifestyle of the people.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement:
(a) Museum
(b) Burial materials
(c) Stone tools
(d) Bones
Answer:
(a) Museum

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Old stone age – (i) Stone tools
(b) Rock paintings – (ii) Walls of the caves
(c) Copper plates – (iii) A source of history
(d) Cats – (iv) First domesticated
Answer:
(d) Cats – (iv) First domesticated

Question 4.
Find the odd one:
(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.
(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.
Answer:
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours

III. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.

1. The Old Stone Age man lived mostly in _______ .
2. _______ is the father of history.
3. _______ was the first animal tamed by Old Stone Age man.
4. Inscriptions are _______ sources.
5. Dharma Chakra has _______ spokes.

Answer:

1. caves
2. Herodotus
3. Dog
4. archaeological
5. 24

IV. State True or False:

Question 1.

1. 1.Stone tools belonging to Old Stone Age have been excavated at Athtirampakkam near Chennai.
2. 2.The materials used by the ancient people are preserved in the museums by the Archaeological Department.
3. 3.During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True

V. Match the following :

(a) Rock paintings – (i) copper plates
(b) Written records – (ii) the most famous king
(c) Ashoka – (iii) Devaram
(d) Religious Literature – (iv) to understand the lifestyle
Answer:
(a) – iv
(b) – i
(c) – ii
(d) – iii

VI. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
Can you say any two advantages of writing a diary?
Answer:

1. Source of information.
2. Record of past events.

Question 2.
How do we know the people’s lifestyle of the Old Stone age?
Answer:
From used stone tools, rock paintings, fossils, and other excavated materials.

Question 3.
Is inscription a written record?
Answer:
Yes. The inscription is a written record.

Question 4.
What is proto history?
Answer:
Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history.

Question 5.
Name an epic.
Answer:
Ramayana/ Mahabharatha/ Manimegalai

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:
History is the study of past events in chronological order.

Question 2.
What do you know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:

1. The period between the use of the first stone tools and the invention of writing systems is called the prehistoric period.
2. Stone tools, excavated materials, fossils, and rock paintings are the major sources of the pre-historic period.

Question 3.
What are the sources available to know about the pre-historic period?
Answer:

1. Stone tools excavated materials, and rock paintings are the sources to know about the prehistoric period.
2. It includes potteries, toys, coins, and ornaments.

Question 4.
Mention the places from where we got prehistoric tools?
Answer:

1. Adichanallur
2. Athirampakkam
3. Brahmagiri
4. Hallur
5. Lothal
6. Bimbetka

Question 5.
What are the benefits of a museum?
Answer:
The objects used by the early men are kept and preserved in the museum. These objects help us to know the lifestyle of the people.

Question 6.
Name some tools used by early man to hunt animals.
Answer:

1. Weapons made of stones.
2. Bones.
3. Homs of animals.
4. Weapons made of branches of trees.

Question 7.
Why were paintings drawn on rocks?
Answer:
They wished to record their activities through the paintings on rocks. Painting is a part of their pastime.

Question 8.
Name any two artifacts.
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Ornaments

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
How dogs were useful to pre-historic men?
Answer:

1. There might have been chances of wild animals entering their caves.
2. But, they realised that dogs could help them prevent the entry of such dangerous animals.
3. They thought that dogs by their sniffing skill would help them in such situations.

Question 2.
Compare the lifestyle of Old Stone age man with present-day lifestyle.
Answer:
(i) Old Stone Age people did not live in a safe environment, whereas the people in the modem period live in a safe environment.

(ii) People in the modem period enjoy all the modem equipment making the lifestyle very high, advanced, and enjoyable whereas the Old Stone Age people struggled for everything including food and shelter.

IX. Student Activity :
Question 1.
Identify the category of the following sources of history.

1. Ums excavated from Adhichanallur
2. Copper plates of Yelvikudi.
3. Mahabharatha.
4. Sanchi Stupa.
5. Pattinappaalai.
6. The earthemwares from Keezhadi.
7. Toys of Indus Civilisation.
8. Big Temple of Thanjavur.

Answer:

1. Artefact (Archaeological)
2. Inscriptions (Archaeological)
3. Religions Literature – Literary sources
4. Monuments (Archaeological)
5. Literary sources Artefact (Archaeological)
6. Artefact (Archaeological)
7. Monuments (Archaeological sources)

X. Life Skill
Question 1.
Make some weapon models used by the Old Stone Age man using clay. Hints:
Answer:

Question 2.
Discuss with your grandpa, grandma, neighbours, and teachers and collect information about your street, village, town, or school. With that collected data, try to write its history titling your Writing as “I am a Historian”.
Answer:
Am I am living in Mylapore. I have collected information about it from my grandparents, neighbours and teacher and the internet. It is given below:
I am a Historian

(i) Mylapore is located a few kilometres to the south of the British-built Chennai city.

(ii) It lies between Tiruvallikkeni and Teynampet in the west then across to the coast in the east.

(iii) The word Mylapore is derived from Mayil Arparikum Oor, which means “Land

(iv) Historically, peacocks have been known to thrive in the area, which is evident from the several statues in the Kapaleeshwarar Temple towers and in the emblem of the San Thome Basilica.

(v) Thirugnanasambandar has also mentioned about mayil (peacock) in his songs in Tevaram.

(vi) Mylapore was historically known as Vedapuri.

(vii) As the available historical and archaeological evidence show, it could well be the oldest part of Chennai, with written records of early settlements going back to the first century BC.

(viii) It was known for its ancient port with a flourishing trade with the Roman Empire, receiving gold in exchange for its products like pepper and fine cloth.

(ix) St. Thomas the Apostle allegedly died at Mylapore in 72 AD.

(x) Ptolemy had recorded in the 2nd century AD that the port of Mylapore was known to the Greeks and the Romans. The Saivite Saints of the 7th Century, Saint Sambandar and Saint Appar, have sung about the Shrine in their hymns.

(xi) Mention has been made of the early settlement of Santhome (currently known),by Arab travelers and merchants of the 9th and 10th centuries AD.

(xii) Marco Polo visited the place in the late 13th century and left a detailed description of the land, the people along with their customs and religion.

(xiii) It was considerable maritime time and the ancient German and Greek maps refer to the town as ‘Maliarpha’.

(xiv) Mylapore was occupied by the Portuguese in 1523. Their rule lasted until 1749, except for a brief interregnum between 1662 and 1687 when the town was occupied by the Dutch.

(xv) After 1749, the British East India Company took possession of the settlement in . the name of Muhammad Ali Khan Wallaj ah, the Nawab of Arcot. In that same year, Mylapore was incorporated into the administration of the Presidency of Madras.

(xvi) In the late 19th and early 20th centuries the town became the commercial and intellectual hub of Madras city and home to British-educated lawyers and statesmen.

XI. Answer Grid

XII. Map work

Question 1.
Mark the following places in the political map of India.
a. Delhi
b. Chennai
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh
e. Kerala
f. Karnataka
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science What is History Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Where did early man live?
(a) mud house
(b) under tree
(c) caves
(d) river banks
Answer:
(c) caves

Question 2.
Who was the first ruler to give up war after victory?
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Raja Raja Chola
(c) Akbar
(d) Ashoka
Answer:
(d) Ashoka

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
(a) Statement: Charles Allen wrote a book titled. The search for the India’s Lost Emperor.
Reason: It provided a comprehensive account of Ashoka.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct.

(b) Statement: Early man used stone tools.
Reason: He knew only stones as tools.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: ‘Dhamma’ is the Prakrit word for the Sanskrit term ‘Dharma’
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Helping the poor
(b) Obedience to God
(c) Religious duty
(d) Tolerance
Answer:
(c) Religious duty

(b) Statement: Raja Raja Chola built the Big Temple. Find out which of the following is related of the statement
(a) Kumbakonam
(b) Tiruchi
(c) Madurai
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(d) Thanjavur

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a)
(a) Stone tools – Prehistory
(b) Writing system – History
(c) Epigraphy – Study of inscription
(d) Numismatics – Study of tools

(b)
(a) Dharma – Righteousness
(b) Chakra – 24 spokes
(c) Lion pillar – Sanchi
(d) Ashoka – Buddhism
Answer:
(d) Numismatics – Study of tools

Question 4.
(a) Find the odd one:
(a) History is a record of past events.
(b) In History the past events are given in chronological order.
(c) History is derived from Istoria meaning learning by enquiry.
(d) History is a mere collection of stories.
Answer:
(d) History is a mere collection of stories.

4 (b) Find the odd one:
(a) We have lion pillar in Saranath.
(b) This pillar was built by Ashoka.
(c) There is a Dharmachakra in this pillar.
(d) This Chakra has uncountable spokes.
Answer:
(d) This Chakra has uncountable spokes.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. In history, BCE stands for _______
2. The first historian of India was _______
3. Fossil remains belongs to _______ sources.
4. The most famous ruler of ancient India was
5. Sanchi is situated in the Raisen district of _______

Answer:

1. Before Common Era
2. Kalhana
3. Archaeological
4. Ashoka
5. Madhya Pradesh

IV. Sate True or False:

1. Pre-historic period people led an advanced style of life.
2. The greatness of Ashoka had been unknown till 20th century.
3. Artifacts form one of the important archaeological sources.
4. Bimbetka is in Andhra Pradesh.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the followings:

Question 1.

1. History – (i) Learning by enquiry
2. Istoria – (ii) Father of History
3. Edicts – (iii) Record of the past
4. Herodotus – (iv) Archaeological source

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

Question 2.

1. BCE – (i) Hunting activities
2. Dogs – (ii) Search for India’s Lost Emperor
3. Allen – (iii) Study of inscription
4. Epigraphy – (iv) Before common Era.

Answer:

1. iv
2. i
3. ii
4. iii

VI. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
What is meant by Numismatics?
Answer:
The study of Coins.

Question 2.
Mention the names of Archaeological sources.
Answer:

1. Inscription
2. Monuments
3. Artefacts
4. Coins.

Question 3.
What do literary sources include?
Answer:

1. Religious literature and
2. Secular literature.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is the importance of the Sarnath pillar?
Answer:

1. Lion capital of Sarnath has been adopted as the Natural Emblem of the Republic of India.
2. The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction of the Buddhist Darmachakra represented with 24 spokes.

Question 2.
By whom was the material evidence provided revealing the greatness of Emperor Ashoka?
Answer:
The material evidence provided by William Jones, James Princep and Alexander Cunningham revealed the greatness of Emperor Ashoka.

Question 3.
What is meant by artifact?
Answer:
Art fact means an object that is made by a person, such as tool or a decoration, especially one that is of historical interest, on The museum’s collections include artifacts dating back to historic times.

Question 4.
Name any three devotional literature.
Answer:

1. Devaram,
2. Thiuvasagam,
3. Nalayira Divya prabhandam

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why should we study History?
Answer :

1. History helps us understand changes, and how the society, we live in came to be. j tin The study of history helps us to understand our present.
2. Historical research involves studying, understanding and interpreting past events.
3. Historical data are categorised into primary and secondary sources.
4. The study of history will increase the cultural awareness and moral understanding of the world we live in.

IX. Who am I?

Question 1.
I reveal the lifestyle of the stone age people.
Answer:
Paintings

Question 2.
lam in between the use of forest stone tools and the invention of the writing system.
Answer:
Prehistoric period

Question 3.
lam titled as numismatics and serve as one of the archaeological sources.
Answer:
coins

Question 4.
gave protection and helped in hunting activities.
Answer:
dog

Question 5.
People say my service for the cause of public good was exemplary.
Answer:
Ashoka

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution Of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose The correct answer:

Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
November 26

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year ……………..
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1949

Question 3.
There are _________ amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016.
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a)101

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
18 years

II. Fill In the blanks :

1. ______ was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly
2. The father of the Constitution of India is ______
3. ______ protects our fundamental rights
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ______

Answer:

1. Dr. Rajendra prasad
2. Dr. B.R Ambedkar
3. Constitution
4. 26th January

III. Match the following:

1. Independence day – (a) November 26
2. Republic Day – (b) April 1
3. Constitutional Day of India – (c) August 15
4. Right to Education – (d) January 26

a) c a d b
b) c d a b
c) d b a c
Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the questions given tinder the caption Constituent Assembly

Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946.

Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Drafting Committee was formed with eight members with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its chairman.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Fifteen women members were there in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as Republic Day?
Answer:

1. The members of the congress unofficially declared in 1929 the day as the Day of Poomaswaraj.
2. The next year 26th January 1930 was celebrated as Independence day.
3. That day has been observed as our Republic day.

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The Constitution is an authentic document containing the basic ideas, principles, and laws of a country.
2. It also defines the rights and duties of citizens.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India is the ultimate law.
2. It explains the fundamental concepts of structure, methods, powers, and the duties of government bodies.
3. It also lists the fundamental rights and duties of the citizens.
4. Directive principles are also mentioned in the Constitution.
5. It is holistic in nature.

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
“Fundamental Rights are the basic human rights of all citizens”. They are

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right of Freedom of religion
5. Cultural and Educational rights
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Readiness to serve our country if necessary
3. Respect and protect our Constitution
4. To avoid non – violence and protect government property
5. Providing educational opportunities to children between 6 – 14 years.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:
The preface of the Constitution is the Preamble.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. Liberty represents freedom. It is an opportunity to able to express one’s own beliefs without fear.
2. Equality can stand for being equal in law, status, rights, respect, opportunities, and privileges.
3. Fraternity means the quality of being brothers or brotherly.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:
An Independent country not subject to any external power or influence.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
List your duties at

1. school
2. home and
3. society

Answer:
(a) Students’ duties at school

1. participate in learning activities.
2. Complete Homework.
3. Attend school regularly on time.
4. Be a part of the safe and positive learning environment.
5. Manage time wisely.
6. Study for tests and exams well ahead of time.

(b) Students’duties at home

1. Put books and magazines in a rack.
2. Be tidy and keep the surroundings clean.
3. Help parents wherever and whenever possible.
4. Fold blankets saw buttons.
5. Pouring and making tea and coffee.

(c) Students’duties at society

1. Community Responsibility.
2. It includes co-operation, respect, and participation.
3. Take an active role in literacy campaigns.
4. The student’s role is very crucial in social development such as increasing human resources, educate others, protect
5. the environment, save mother nature, bring required changes in the society, respect elders, help the needy, and reform the society.

Question 2.
Discuss these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education

Answer:
Equality:

1. It is a state of affairs in which all people within a specific society have the same status in certain respects.
2. It includes Civil rights, Freedom of speech, property rights etc.

Gender equality:

1. means equality between men and women.
2.  Both are free to develop their personal abilities.
3. It means fairness of treatment for men and women according to their respective needs.

Child labour:

1. Child Labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood.
2. Child Labour interferes with their ability to attend regular school.
3. This interference is mentally, physically,, socially or morally dangerous and harmful.
4. Indian Government has passed the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act. of 1986. ,
5. It was amended in 2016 as CLPR Act.
6. Accordingly a child is defined as any person below the age of 14 and CLPR Act prohibit employment of a child in any employment including domestic help.

(c) Right to Education:

1. The Right of children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4th August 2009.
2. It describes free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the constitution.
3. India becomes one of the 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1st April 2010.

Question 3.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014). Find out the reason why:
Answer:
a) Kailash Satyarti (India):

1. Kailash Satyarti is an Indian Children’s’ right activist.
2. He is a Noble Peace Prize recipient.
3. Founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan (save childhood movement.
4. Kailash Satyarti and his team at Bachpan Bachao Andolan have liberated more than 86,000 children in India from Child Labour, Slavery and Trafficking.
5. In 1998, Satyarti led a global march against child labour across 103 countries.
6. His work has been recognized through various national and international honours and awards.
7. He shared the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 with Malala Yusufsai of Pakistan.

b) Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan)

1. Malala Yusufsai is a Pakistan Activist for female education.
2. She is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate.
3. She is known for human rights advocacy, especially the education of women and children in her native Swat valley.
4. She became a prominent activist for the right to education.
5. In 2012 she was the recipient of Pakistan’s first National Youth Peace Prize.
6. In 2014 she was the co-recipient of the 2014 Noble Peace Prize along with Kailash Satyarti at the young age of 17 years.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Intext Questions

Question 1.
Prepare a fist of your immediate duties.
Answer:

1. To abide by the constitution and its ideals, to respect the National flag, the National Anthem, etc.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
4. To promote harmony and the spirit of a common brotherhood.
5. To protect and improve the natural resources such as forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife, etc.
6. To safeguard the public property and to avoid violence.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Additional Questions

I. Choose The correct answer:

Question 1.
The Chairman of the constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Vallabai Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
The advisor of the Drafting Committee was
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) B.N. Rao
(e) Moulana Azad
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) B.N. Rao

Question 3.
The preface of the constitution is called
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental right
(c) Directive Principles of state policy
(d) legal document
Answer:
(a) Preamble

Question 4.
In a Parliamentary system, the Executive is-collectivity responsible to the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Legislature

Question 5.
The Chief Architect of the Indian constitution is
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1929, the Congress met at ______
2. Poorna Swaraj means ______
3. It took a period of ______ to complete the Indian Constitution.
4. The basic human rights are known as ______
5. The original copies of the Constitution are preserved in special ______ filled cases.

Answer:

1. Lahore Complete-self-Government
2. 2 years, 11 months, and 17 days
3. Fundamental rights
4. Helium

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1.	Secular	a.	Equal distribution
2.	Socialist	b.	Freedom of Religion
3.	Sovereign	c.	Brotherhood
4.	Fraternity	d.	Independent

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
Write about the constitution Assembly. ‘
Answer:

1. “In 1946, nearly 389 members of the constituent Assembly who belonged to different parties from different places came together to frame the Constitution of India.
2. The Chairman of the committee was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Mention the names of some of the members of the Constitution Assembly.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabai Patel, MoulanaAzad, S. Radhakrishnan, Vijayalakshmi Pandit, and Sarojini Naidu were the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 3.
Write about the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. The Drafting Committee was formed with eight members.
2. Its Chairman was B.R. Ambedkar.
3. B.N.Rao was appointed as an advisor.
4. The committee met for the first time on 9th December 1946.
5. On the same day, the drafting of the Constitution of India started.

Question 4.
Mention a few countries whose constitutions were thoroughly examined to collect a few best features.
Answer:

1. The constitutions of nearly 60 countries including the UK, USA, former USSR, France, Switzerland, etc., were thoroughly examined.
2. Their best features have been adopted by our constitution.

Question 5.
Mention the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, N. Gopalasamy, K.M.Munshi, Syed Ahmed Sadullah, P.L. Mitter, N.Madhava Rao, T.T.K, T.P. Khaitan were the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.

Question 6.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every Indian citizen has the right to vote when they attain 18 years of age, irrespective of any caste, religion, gender, or economic status.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Textual Evaluation

I. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Define Disaster.
Answer:

1. A disaster is a serious disruption of the functioning of a society involving human and material loss.
2. Disaster is broadly classified into natural and man-made disasters.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Write a short note on ‘Thunder and lightning’.
Answer:

1. Thunder is a series of sudden electrical discharge resulting from atmospheric conditions.
2. This discharge results in sudden flashes of light and trembling sound waves which are commonly known as thunder and lightning.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during the Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

II. Answer in a paragraph:
Question 1.
What is flood? Explains the do’s and don’ts during floods.
Answer:
(i) An overflow of a large amount of water, beyond its normal limits, especially on the rainfed areas is called a flood.
(ii) During floods – Do’s.

(a) To find out the settlement area whether it is to be affected by flood or not.
(b) Keeping radio, torch and additional batteries, storing drinking water, dry foods items, salt and sugar. Safeguarding materials like kerosene, candle, match box, clothes and valuable things.
(c) Keeping umbrella and bamboo poles.
(d) Keeping first aid box and strong ropes to bind things.
(e) To dig canals from the farm land, to drain the excessive water, keeping sand bags etc.

(iii) During floods – Don’ts.
(a) Try to connect electricity once it is cut.
(b) Operate vehicles.
(c) Swim against floods.
(d) Avoid going on excursions.
(e) Neglect flood warning messages.

III. Activity

Make a flood plan:
On a piece of paper, draw your village/town map roughly. Locate your home, school and playground on the map. Then draw the rivers/stream/lake and road, located nearest to your village/town. Answer the questions listed below.

Question 1.
Which areas and roads would be mostly affected by flood?
Answer:

1. Floods can happen on flat or low-lying areas when water is supplied by rainfall or snowmelt more rapidly than it can either infiltrate or run off.
2. The excess accumulates in place, sometimes to hazardous depths.
3. Surface soil can become saturated, which effectively stops infiltration, where the water table is shallow, such as a floodplain, or from intense rain from one or a series of storms.
4. Infiltration also is slow to negligible through frozen ground, rock, concrete.
5. Areas near water bodies such as lake, river, etc. are also affected by flood.

Question 2.
Can you find out evacuation route?
Answer:

1. In order to avoid great losses and fatality affected by flooding, an evacuation route is to be found out.
2. A study of non physical mitigation, i.e. to establish some alternatives of evacuation routes to some temporary shelters is to be conducted well in advance.
3. A research on the selected several evacuation routes, with the help of Geographic Information System (GIS) can be done.
4. The research can be conducted by analyzing the flood magnitude, inundation area, population density, settlement concentration, temporary shelter locations, topographic condition and existing road system.

Question 3.
If you live in a flood-prone area, what are the precautionary measures you hav e to take during heavy rains?
Answer:
Precaution measures:

1. Listen to the weather reports from Radio, TV, etc.
2. Do not wait until you see rising water.
3. Get out of low areas subject to flooding.
4. If driving, do not drive through flooded roadways!

Be prepared to evacuate:

1. Identify places to go. .
2. Identify alternative travel routes that are not prone to flooding.

Protect your property:

1. Move valuables and furniture to higher levels.
2. Disconnect electrical appliances. Do not touch them if you are wet or standing in water.
3. Bring outside possessions indoors or tie them down securely.
4. Seal vents to basements to prevent flooding.

Question 4.
What are things that you should have in your ‘Go- Kit’ / ‘Drive -away kit’?
‘Go-Kit’ – emergency kit should include some of the following items:
Answer:

1. Drinking water containers.
2. Food that does not require cooking.
3. Cash.
4. Medications and first aid supplies.
5. Clothing, Blanket, toiletries.
6. Battery-powered radio.
7. Flashlights.
8. Extra batteries.
9. Important documents: insurance papers, medical records, bank account numbers.

Question 5.
Make a Hst of emergency numbers. (‘Go-kit’-A kit prepared by and for an Individual
or group who expects to develop It in alternative locations during emergency)
Answer:
The following are the list of Emergency help line telephone numbers:

1. Police – 100
2. Police SMS – 9500099100
3. Fire Service / Rescue Service – 101
4. Traffic Police – 103
5. Accidents – 100,103
6. Traffic Police SMS – 9840000103
7. Ambulance Service – 102, 108
8. Women Help line – 1091
9. Child Help line – 1098
10. Emergency & Accidents – 1099
11. Senior Citizen Help line – 1253
12. Emergency Help line in National Highways – 1033
13. Coastal Emergency Help line – 1093
14. Blood Bank Emergency Help line – 1910
15. Eye Bank Emergency Help line – 1919.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Stampede is a _________ disaster
2. Avalanches are_________ disaster.
3. The point where an earthquake originate is called its_________
4. Volcanoes are_________where lava erupts.
5. The waves generated by earthquake and volcanic eruptions are called _________
6. A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called _________
7. Tsunami Early Warning System was established at Hyderabad in _________
8. Floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall are known as _________
9. The lessening of the adverse impacts of hazards and related disasters is _________
10. Rain fed area is primarily supported with _________

Answer:

1. Manmade
2. Natural
3. focus
4. openings/vents
5. Tsunami
6. Cyclones
7. 2007
8. flash floods
9. Mitigation
10. rain water

II. Match the following.

a)	Social media	(i)	Reducing disaster
b)	DRR	(ii)	Massive waves
c)	Floods	(iii)	Disaster prone
d)	Tsunami	(iv)	Updated information
e)	India	(v)	Sandbags

Answer:

1. – iv
2.  – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

III. Choose the correct pair:

a. Floods – (i) Massive waves up to 30 m.
b. Cyclone – (ii) Lava
c. Avalanches – (iii) ice, snow and rock fall
d. Landslide – (iv) Low pressure
Answer:
(c) Avalanches – iii) ice, snow and rock fall.

Question 2.
Statement I : Do not go to the Coast to watch Tsunami.
Statement II : During floods drink cold water.
Find out the correct option.
a) I & II are correct
b) I & II are wrong
c) I is correct
d) II is correct
Answer:
(c) I is correct.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Man made disasters involve human and material loss.
Reason (R) : The stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, causing
suffocation and trampling.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not giving the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation

IV. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What does the World Disaster Report say?
Answer:

1. The latest development which has been discovered in the World Disaster Reports recently is that the disasters have increased in frequency and intensity.
2. India is one of the most disaster-prone countries of the world.

Question 2.
Explain the terms focus and epicentre.
Answer:

1. The point where an earthquake originate is called its focus.
2. The vertical point at the surface from the focus is called epicentre.

Question 3.
What are Volcanoes?
Answer:
Volcanoes are openings or vents where lava, small rocks and steam erupt on to the Earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Define Tsunami.
Answer:
Tsunami are waves generated by earthquake, volcanic eruptions and underwater landslides.

Question 5.
Explain the term cyclones.
Answer:
A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called a cyclone.

Question 6.
Mention the types of floods.
Answer:
a) Flash floods : Such floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall.
b) River floods : Such floods are caused by Precipitation over large catchment areas or by melting of snow.
c) Coastal floods : Sometimes floods are associated with cyclone high tides and tsunami.

Question 7.
What are the causes of floods?
Answer:
Causes of floods are :

1. Torrential Rainfall
2. Encroachment of the rivers bank
3. Excessive rainfalls in rivers catchment.
4. Inefficient engineering design in the construction of embankments, dams, and canals.

Question 8.
Mention the effects of floods.
Answer:
The effects of the floods are :

1. Destruction of drainage system
2. Water pollution
3. Soil erosion
4. Stagnation of water
5. Loss of agricultural land and cattle
6. Loss of life and spread of contagious diseases.

Question 9.
What is Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR)
Answer:
Disaster Risk Reduction :

1. The practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters.
2. There are four key approaches to public awareness for disaster risk reduction.
3. Campaigns, participatory learning, informal education, and formal school based interventions.

V. Give brief answers for the following:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on man made disaster.
Answer:

1. Fire : Massive forest fires may start in hot and dry weather as a result of lightning and human carelessness or from other causal factors.
2. Destruction of buildings : Demolition of buildings by human activities.
3. Accidents in industries : Chemical, biological accidents that occur due to human error, (e.g.) Bhopal gas tragedy.
4. Accidents in Transport : Violation of road rules, carelessness cause accidents
5. Terrorism : The social unrest or differences in principles leads to terrorism
6. Stampede : The term stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, usually resulting in injuries and death from suffocation and trampling.

Question 2.
What do you know about the society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia And Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer:

Which is not the western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate :

1. Uniform throughout the year.
2. The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
3. The average temperature is 10°C. Of the statements given above,

(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Answer:
(a) 2, 3 ,4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ……………
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is _________
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north – western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate. Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature
Answer:
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennines – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the knot.
2. The wettest place in the world is
3. Iran is the largest producer of in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and southeast Asia by
5. The national dance of Philippines is.
6. The second highest peak in Europe is.
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is.
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is.
9. The density of population in Europe is.
10. The river passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. Dates
4. Suez
5. Tiniklingi
6. The Mont Blanc (4,807m)
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons / km2
10. Danube

III. Match the following :

1. Mesopotamian Plain – (a) Highest Rainfall
2. Mawsynram – (b) Norway
3. Rice Bowl of southeast asia – (c) Spain
4. Fjord Coast – (d) Euphrates & Tigris
5. Bull Fighting – (e) Thailand

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Let us Learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R): It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.

A. Indo – Gangetic plain
B. Manchurian plain
C. Mesopotamian
D. Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
(b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:

1. The plateau of Anatolia
2. The plateau of Iran
3. The plateau of Tibet

Question 2.
Write a short note on the monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, southeast, and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by monsoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid. Winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer monsoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangaladesh, Indo – China, the Philippines, and southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. Six – tenth of the world’s population lives in Asia. The population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. River plains and industrial regions have a high density of population. Low density is found in the interior parts of Asia. (Density 143 persons/km²)

Question 4.
Name the ports found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Tokyo
2. Shanghai
3. Singapore
4. Hongkong
5. Chennai
6. Mumbai
7. Karachi
8. Dubai

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts’- Justify.
Answer:

1. Asia has different types of land features (mountain, Plateau, Plain, valley, bay, island)
2. It has different climatic conditions (equator to polar)
3. Many races, Languages, religions and cultures are followed by Asian people.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:

1. The Sierra Nevada
2. The Pyrenees
3. The Alps
4. The Apennines
5. The Dinaric Alps
6. The Caucasus
7. The Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:

1. Volga
2. Danube
3. Dnieper
4. Rhine
5. Rhone
6. Po
7. Thames

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:

1. France
2. Spain
3. Italy
4. Sicily

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third moss populous continent, after Asia and Africa.
2. The population of Europe was 742 million in 2018. (9.73% of world’s Population) Density in Europe 34 persons/Km².

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. Christmas
2. Easter
3. Good Friday
4. The saint
5. Day
6. Redentone
7. Tomatina
8. Cornival

VI. Distinguish.

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and Southern plateaus
Answer:

1. The plateau of Anatolia – From pontine ranges to Taurus ranges.
2. The plateau of Iran – From Elburz to Zagros mt.
3. The plateau of Tibet – From Kunlun to the Himalayas

Southern Plateaus:

1. The Arabian Plateau (Saudi Arabia)
2. Deccan Plateau (India)
3. Shan Plateau (Myanmar)
4. Yunnan Plateau (China)

These are lower than the Northern plateaus.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. Gobi
2. Taklamakan

Hot desert:

1. The Arabian (Saudi Arabia)
2. The Thar (India and Pakistan)

The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.

Question 3.
Thunder and Taiga
Answer:
Tundra:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of Vegetation.
2. It is made up of lichens and mosses.

Taiga:

1. Taiga (coniferous) Vegetations are found to the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweeden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. Taiga has the important tree varities pine, fir, spruce and large.

Question 4.
The Northwestern highlands and the Alpine mountain range.
Answer:
Northwestern highlands

1. This region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has the most beautiful fjord coast. It was created by glaciations in the past.
3. This region has a lot of lakes, which serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.

Alpine mountain range

1. The alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Pyrenees mountains form a natural boundary between Spain and France.
3. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:

1. Rice is one of the staple food crops in Asia. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.
2. Myanmar, Japan, Bangladesh and Thailand are other rice-producing countries.
3. Because of the abundant rainfall, fertile plains and availability of labour, Mansoon Asia is suitable for rice cultivation.
4. Thailand is The Rice bowl of south East Asia.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world,
Answer:

1. Asia is the most populated continent in the world.
2. Approximately six tenth of the world population lives in Asia.
3. The population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
4. China and India alone covers three fifth of Asia’s population.
5. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population.

Question 3.
Europe is called ‘a giant peninsula’.
Answer:

1. Europe is found in the northern hemisphere.
2. It covers an area of 10.5 million sq.km.
3. It is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean in the North, the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea in the south, the Atlantic Ocean in the west and the Ural mountains in the east.
4. So it loots like a giant peninsula.

Question 4.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it Isas a moderate climate.
Answer:

1. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to the western Europe.
2. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia,
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers that flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean.
3. These rivers remain frozen during winter.
4. On the other hand, South Asia has many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy.
5. These rivers originate from the snow covered high mountains that do not freeze during winter.
6. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in West Asia.
7. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong rivers flow in the south and south eastern parts of Asia.
8. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Iron ore : Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China, India, Turkey, Philippines, Malaysia, Thailand, Myanmar have iron ore deposit.
2. Coal : Coal is a fossil fuel. Asia has the largest deposits of coal in the world. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
3. Petroleum : Petroleum is a mineral oil. South west Asia has the largest petroleum reserves. Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE are important Petroleum producing countries. Other countries are South China, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, India and Russia.
4. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
5. Mica is found in India
6. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. In Europe, the North Western Highlands region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has the most beautiful fjord coast.
3. It was created by glaciations in the past.
4. This region has a lot of lakes, which serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.
5. A fjord is a narrow and deep sea inlet between steep cliffs. It helps in the following ways.
   • It reduces the speed of wind, irrespective of its direction.
   • The force of sea waves are also controlled.
6. Hence, areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and north western parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid Continental type.
5. In the northeast subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.

IX. Map Skill:

Mark the following in the outline map of Asia and Europe.

Asia : Ural mountain, Himalayas, Pamir knot, Gobi Desert, Arabian Peninsula, Deccan plateau, River Yangtze River Ob, Aral Sea and Lake Baykal.

Europe : The Pyrenees, Black forest, Apennines, Hungarian Plain, Caucasus Mountain, River Volga, River Danube, Strait of Gibraltar, Lake Ladoga, North Sea
Answer:

HOTS:

Question 1.
The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range, the Bolan Pass is located in Toba Kakar range. What is the importance of these two passes?
Answer:

(i) Khyber Pass : A mountain pass in the northwest of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan. It connects the town of Landi Kotal to the valley of Peshawar. An integral part of the Silk Road, it has long substantial cultural, economic, and geopolitical significance for Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia and a vital strategic military choke point.

(ii) Bolan Pass : A mountain pass through the Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in western Pakistan. Strategically located, traders, invaders, and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. The Bolan Pass is an important pass on the Baluch frontier, connecting Jacobabad and Sibi with Quetta.

Question 2.
There is no winter in the equatorial region. Why?
Answer:

1. At the equator there are no seasons because each day the Sun strikes at about the same angle.
2. Every day of the year the equator receives about 12 hours of sunlight. The poles remain cool because they are never tilted in a direct path of sunlight.

Question 3.
Few countries in Asia have high population. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. China and India have historically been very large sized nations as opposed to European and other countries. So large nations obviously means large population,
2. People used to have large number of children, because few would survive beyond age 5 due to disease and malnutrition. The average longevity in India in 1947 was just 38 years, but now it is over 60.
3. Post-independence, health services were expanded and child mortality came down. This also caused an increase in life span. But the rate of child bearing came down much more slowly, which led to a population explosion.
4. With improving health care and education, and less fear of a child dying, the rate of growth has been coming down. In the southern states, where education and health services are better, it has actually now reached a stable level.
5. The rise of industry and large-scale agriculture meant that families could be much bigger than they had been in the past.
6. The social effects of the rural-urban divide led to more complex societies, more cities, and many more people.

Question 4.
Europe is called as the ‘Peninsula of Peninsulas Justify.
Answer:

(i) A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded on three sides by bodies of water. Europe is an extension of the super continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the Mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.

(ii) On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and Portugal), the italic (Italy), The Peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 5.
Why are European rivers suitable for inland navigation?
Answer:

1. The western Europe has a navigable waterways network of about 19,000 kms. Inland waterway transport plays an important role for the transport.
2. Europe has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways which is more than what even USA has (40,000 kms). A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ship to pass through.
3. Europe has two main flat regions, the North European plain and the East European plain. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cities.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answers:
Question 1.
The highest peak in Asia ______
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Mt. Lhoste
(c) Kangchenjunga
(d) Mt. K2
Answer:
(a) Mt. Everest

Question 2.
The lowest point in the world …………….
(a) Black sea
(b) Red sea
(c) Dead sea
(d) Yellow sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 3.
Kuril is ______
(a) a mountain
(b) an island
(c) a plateau
(d) a river

Question 4.
Only about …………… of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(a) 18% of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(b) 28%
(c) 40%
(d) 48%
Answer:
(a) 18%

Question 5.
The longest rail route in the world _____
(a) Trans – Siberian Railways
(b) Trans continental rail way
(c) Trans Asian Railway
(d) Bullet train

Question 6.
The island located in the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Maldives
(b) Bahrain
(c) Srilanka
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Srilanka

Question 7.
in Europe we find _____.
(a) Andalusian Plain
(b) The Hungarian Plain
(c) The Wallachian Plain
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Eastern Europe is covered by ______
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Tundra vegetation
(c) Grassland
(d) Cactus
Answer:
(c) Grassland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The most extensive lowland in Asia is the ______
2. The convergence of mountain is denoted by the term ______
3. The highest mountain range in the world is the ______
4. The lowest point in the world is located in ______ in Asia
5. The largest Plateau is ______
6. Sri Lanka an island, is located in the ______
7. Coal is a fossil ______
8. The largest producer of Mica in the world is ______
9. Rice bowl of South East Asia” is ______
10. Malaysia and Thailand are the leading producers of ______
11. One of the world’s richest sources of fresh water fishing in Cambodia is ______
12. Pearl fishing is popular in the eastern coast of ______
13. The most common mode of transport in Asia is ______
14. Europe to South Asia get connected by the ______ route
15. Ankorwat means the ______
16. Europe is the ______ largest continent in the world.
17. The most developed continent in the world is ______
18. The areas with fjords are best suited for ______
19. The backbone of England is ______
20. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn is located in the ______
21. The longest river in Europe is ______
22. The dominant crop throughout Europe is ______
23. Big Ben in located in ______
24. A majority of people in Asia are evolved in ______ Activities
25. Asia is located in the ______ hemisphere.

Answer:

1. Siberian Plains
2. Knot
3. Himalayan mountain range
4. Dead Sea
5. Arabian Plateau
6. Bay of Bengal
7. fuel
8. India
9. Thailand
10. Natural rubber
11. Tonle Sap lake
12. Arabia
13. Roadway
14. Cape of Good Hope
15. City of temples
16. sixth
17. Europe
18. natural harbours
19. Permutes
20. Swiss Alps
21. Volga
22. Wheat
23. London
24. primary
25. Eastern

III. Match the following :

1. Yangee – (i) Arabian sea
2. Orangutan – (ii) Active Volcano
3. Lakshadweep – (iii) North sea
4. Stromboli – (iv) Dance
5. Thames – (v) Rare species

Answer:

1. (iv)
2. (v)
3. (i)
4. (ii)
5. (iii)

IV. Let us learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.
Reason (R): Deserts are found along the western part of Asia.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Suez Canal separates Asia from Europe.
Reason (R): Asia is the largest continent in the world.
(a) I is true
(b) II is true
(c) Both are I and II true
(d) Both I and II are false.
Answer:
(b) II is true

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Siberia – Coniferous trees
(b) East China – Cherry
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus
(d) Malaysia – Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus

Question 4.
Find out the correct pair.
(a) Coffee – Food crop
(b) Jute – Thailand
(c) Japan – Fishing
(d) Wheat – Tropical region
Answer:
(c) Japan – Fishing

Question 5.
Circle the odd one.
(a) Yangee, Mandarin,, Kabaki, Tinikling
Answer:
Mandarin
Reason : Mandarin is a language. Other three are famous dances.
(b) Saint day, Redentore, Tomatina, Songkran
Answer:
Songkran
Reason : Songkran is a festival in Asia. Other three are some famous festivals in Europe.

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Write about the political divisions of Asia.
Answer:

1. There are forty eight countries in Asia.
2. The countries are grouped into several realms based on landscape and political status such as

(a) East Asia
(b) Southeast Asia
(c) South Asia
(d) Southwest and
(e) Central Asia

Question 2.
What do you know about archipelago?
Answer:

1. A group of islands is called an archipelago.
2. The largest archipelago is Indonesia.

Question 3.
State the importance of Khyber and Bolan Pass.
Answer:
(a) Khyber

1. The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range.
2. It is in the north west of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan.
3. It connects the town of Landi Kotal in the Valley of Peshwar. An integral part of the Silk Road as well as Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia.

(b) Bolan Pass:

1. Located in Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in Western Pakistan.
2. Strategically located, traders, invaders and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. It is an important pass on the Baluch frontier.

Question 4.
What are the Mediterranean trees?
Answer:

1. Cypress
2. Cork
3. Oak
4. Olive
5. Cedar

Question 5.
Write about the flora and fauna of the region with summer rainfall with dry winter in Asia.
Answer:

1. India, Vietnam, Cambodia, Thailand, Southern China – these regions experience Summer rainfall with dry winter.
2. Flora of this region – Deciduous trees – Teak, Sandal wood, Bamboo
3. Fauna of this region – Tiger, Elephant, Indian Cobra, Viper.

Question 6.
Write about the two most important natural fibers cultivated in Asia.
Answer:

1. Jute and cotton are the important natural fibres cultivated in Asia.
2. One third of the world’s cotton is produced by Asia.
3. The major cotton producing countries are India, China, Russia and Kazakhstan.
4. India, Pakistan, China and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Question 7.
Write a note on Ankorwat.
Answer:

1. Ankorwat is a world heritage site.
2. It was built by king Suriya Varma II in 1100 AD (CE) at Cambodia.
3. Ankorwat means ‘the city of temples’ in Khmer language. It is the largest Hindu Temple in the world.’

Question 8.
What are polders?
Answer:

1. In Netherlands about 25 percent of the Netherlands lies below sea level.
2. So they have built dikes.
3. They have reclaimed new land from the sea with the help of dikes.
4. These reclaimed lands are called polders.

Question 9.
Mention the Physical Divisions of Europe.
Answer:
The Physical Divisions of Europe are

1. The North Western Highlands
2. The Central Plateaus/Highland
3. The Alpine Mountain system
4. The North European plains

Question 10.
Classify the Natural Vegetation of Europe.
Answer:
The Natural Vegetation of Europe can be classified as

1. Tundra
2. Taiga or Coniferous
3. Mixed Forest
4. Mediterranean Forest
5. Grassland

Question 11.
Mention some of the master pieces of Art and Architecture in Europe.
Answer:
Some of the master pieces of art and architecture in Europe are Acropolis, the Colosseum, the statue of David, The thinker, Eiffel tower, Big Ben, Pisa Tower and Mona Lisa.

Question 12.
Name some of the seven wonders of the world located in Asia.
Answer:
Among the seven wonders of the world, two are located in Asia. They are

1. The Tajmahal in India,
2. The Great wall of China.

VI. Distinguish:

Question 1.
Arabian Plateau and Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

Arabian Plateau:

1. The Arabian Plateau (Saudi Arabia),in Asia is steeper in the west but gently slopes eastwards towards the Persian Gulf.
2. It is a dry plateau with low rainfall and no rivers.
3. Grew to importance after petroleum reserves were discovered here.

Deccan Plateau:

1. The Deccan Plateau (India) in Asia lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats
2. It is steeper and higher along the Arabian sea in the West but slopes gently towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.
3. A number of rivers flow across their plateau like Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri.

Question 2.
Mixed forest and Mediterranean forest
Answer:

Mixed forest

1. They are found in Western France,Belgium, Denmark, Britain etc.
2. Birch, beech, poplar, oak and maple trees are found here.

Mediterranean forest

1. They are found along the borders of the Mediterranean sea
2. Cypress, cork, oak, olive and cedar are found here.

Question 3.
Hardwood and Softwood.

Hardwood:

1. Hardwood comes from a deciduous tree.
2. The deciduous trees lose their leaves annually.
3. They tend to be slower growing and therefore they are more dense.
4. Eg. Eucalyptus, beech, teak.

Softwood:

1. Softwood comes from a conifer.
2. This conifer remains evergreen.
3. They are less dense.
4. Eg. Pine, Red wood, cedar

Question 4.
Climate in Asia and Europe.
Answer:

Climate in Asia:

1. All kinds of climatic conditions are found here.
2. It also enjoys the distinctive monsoon type of climate.
3. Southern Asia receives summer rainfall.

Climate in Europe:

1. It lies largely in the temperate zone.
2. It enjoys the distinctive Mediterranean type of climate.
3. Southern Europe receives winter rainfall.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
People of Asia get involved in diverse economic activity.
Answer:

1. Asia is the land of long mountain ranges, snow capped high mountains, vast plateaus, extensive plains, river valleys and sea coasts.
2. These diverse physical features encourage the people of this continent to involve in diverse economic activities

Question 2.
Tibet is known as the third pole.
Answer:
Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the world’ and it is also known as the third pole because of its cold weather, largest reserve of freshwater and inhospitable environment.

Question 3.
Why is sugarcane cultivation important in India, Indonesia and Philippines.
Answer:

1. The tropical wet and dry climate is suitable for sugarcane cultivaiton.
2. India, Indonesia and Philippines are the major producers of sugarcane.

Question 4.
Asia is the Land of contrasts.
Answer:

1. Asia, the biggest continent, is featured with different types of land and climatic conditions.
2. Many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people. So, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 5.
Europe is called peninsula of peninsulas.
Answer:

1. A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded by waterbodies on three sides.
2. Europe is an extension of the continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.
3. On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and , Portugal), the Italic (Italy), The peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway ’ and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 6.
The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.
Answer:

1. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system. Mt. Etna,Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes.
2. Earthquakes are common in this region. The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.

Question 7.
The North European plain is densely populated.
Answer:

1. Major European rivers criss – cross this region and deposit their alluvium.
2. It has rich deposits of coal and iron ore.
3. Cities like Paris, Moscow and Berlin are located here.
4. Hence this region is densely populated.

Question 8.
European rivers suitable for inland navigation.
Answer:

1. Inland waterway transport plays an important role in Europe.
2. It has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways.
3. A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ships pass through.
4. The North European plain and the East European plain are the main flat regions. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cites.

Question 9.
Europe, a modern economically developed continent in the world.
Answer:
Availability of resources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations have transformed Europe into a modem and economically developed continent in the world.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Write a note on the Central Highlands of Asia.
Answer:

1. The central highlands stretches from Turkey to the Bering Strait.
2. There are two knots found in Asia. They are
   • The Pamir Knot and
   • The Armenian Knot.
3. Knot’ refers to the convergence of mountain ranges.
4. The Hindukush range, the Sulaiman range, the Himalayan range and the Tian Shan range radiate from the Pamir knot.
5. The Hindukush range continues westward as the Elburz, whereas the Sulaiman range continues south west as the Zagros range.
6. The Elburz and the Zagros converge at the Armenian knot.
7. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the Armenian knot.
8. The Himalayan mountain range is the highest mountain range in the world Mt. Everest (S848 m) is the highest peak in Asia, as well as the world.
9. The lowest point in the world is located in Dead Sea in Asia. Intermontane plateaus are found in these mountain ranges.

Question 2.
Mention the Island group of Asia.
Answer:

1. Numerous islands are found in the Pacific coast of Southeast Asia.
2. Kuril, Taiwan, Singapore and Borneo are the important island groups.
3. The Philippines, Japan islands and Indonesia are the major archipelagos in Asia.
4. Smaller archipelagos are also located in the Indian Ocean such as the islands of Maldives and Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea.
5. Bahrain is in the Persian Gulf.
6. Sri Lanka is an island, which is located in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Write about the waterways in Asia.
Answer:

1. The Cape of Good Hope route connects Europe to South Asia.
2. The Trans Pacific route connects the ports of eastern Asia to the ports of western American countries.
3. The Suez Canal route passes through the heart of the world trade route and connects Europe with South and Southeast Asia.
4. Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 4.
Explain the Alpine mountains system.
Answer:

1. The alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The important mountain ranges are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.
3. The Pyrenees forms a natural boundary between Spain and France.
4. The highest peak in Europe is Mt. Elburz (5645 m) in the Caucasus range.
5. The Mont Blanc (4,807 m) found in the Alps is the second highest peak in the Alpine System.
6. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system.
7. Mt. Etna, Mt. Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes found in Europe.
8. Earthquakes are common in this region.
9. The Stromboli is called the Tight house of the Mediterranean’.
10. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn mountain is located in the Swiss Alps a height of 4478 m. It is popular for its shape.

Question 5.
Mention the importance of rivers in Europe.
Answer:

1. The rivers play an important role in the development of Europe.
2. These rivers are used to irrigate farmland and also help to produce electricity.
3. Most of the rivers originate in the Alps and the central plateau of Europe.
4. These rivers are useful for inland navigation in central and Eastern Europe.
5. The Volga is the longest river in Europe.
6. The river Danube passes through nine countries in Europe.

Question 6.
Compare the contrast the continents of Asia and Europe by giving six point
Answer:

	Asia	Europe
i.	It is the largest continent, both by area and population.	It is the smallest continent by area and the most developed.
ii.	It is located on the eastern hemisphere	It is located at the centre of the earth.
iii.	Both hot and cold deserts are located here.	There are no deserts here.
iv.	It has a variety of mineral deposits.	Mineral resources are limited, except for coal & iron.
V.	The Bering Strait separates Asia and North America.	The Strait of Gibraltar separates Europe from Africa.
vi.	The important parallels such as the Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle pass through it.	Only the Arctic Circle passes through it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universal And Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System Textual Evaluation

A. Fill in the blank

1. The Universe was formed after _______ explosion.
2. _______ is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. _______ is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means _______
5. _______ planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is _______
7. Earth is inclined by _______ degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly _______ on and _______
9. the time of Perihelion, the Earth is _______ to the sun
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is _______

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. Sun
4. Wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan – I
7. 231/2
8. 21st March and 23rd September
9. Closest
10. Terminator Line

B. Choose the bent answer

Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(d) December 22

Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky Way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky Way

Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed _______
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float on water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Venus, Jupiter, Neptune,
2. Saturn Sirius, Andromeda, Milky way, Magellanic clouds
3. Pluto, Eris, Ceres, Io
4. Comet, Asteroids, Meteorites, Dwarf planets
5. Rover, Orbiter, Aeroplane, Space shuttle

Answer:

1. Venus
2. Sirius
3. Io
4. Dwarf planets
5. Aeroptane

D. Match the following

1. Hottest Planet – a. Mars
2. Ringed Planet – b. Neptune
3. Red Planet – c. Venus
4. Somersaulting Planet – d. Saturn
5. Coldest Planet – e. Uranus

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

(I) Consider the following statement

Question 1.

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(II) Consider the following statements.

Question 1.
Statement Is Earth is called a watery planet,
Statement II: The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

1. The cluster of stars. – Galaxy
2. The nearest galaxy to the solar system. – Magellanic clouds/Andromeda
3. The brightest planet. – Venus
4. The living sphere – Earth
5. The year has 366 days. – Leap year

G. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars

Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet. Reason out.
Answer:
Unlike planets, Pluto shares its orbit with other planets.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20°N Latitude?
Answer:
2 times.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example,
Answer:
Dwarf planets share their orbits with others. Example: Pluto. Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea.

H. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
The axis of Uranus is tilted so much that, it appears to orbit the sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So Uranus called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:

1. Moon has no atmosphere.
2. The surface of the moon is characterized by craters created by the impact of meteors.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles,
Answer:

1. The Earth is a sphere.
2. It is widest at the equator, becoming increasingly narrow further toward to top and bottom.
3. The velocity of the earth’s rotation varies from 1670 km/hr at the equator and to 845 km/ hr at 60°N and S and zero at the poles.

I. Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets,
Answer:
Inner planets:

• The four planets nearer to the sun are called inner planets.
• They are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.
• They are also called Terrestrial planets.
• They are comparatively smaller in size.
• The surface of the planets has mountains, volcanoes, and craters.

Inner planets:

• The four planets nearer to the sun are called inner planets.
• They are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.
• They are also called Terrestrial planets
• They are comparatively smaller in size
• The surface of the planets has mountains, volcanoes, and craters.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Rotation:

• The rotation of the earth causes day and night.
• As the earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the sun at a time. The other half remains dark.
• The illuminated portion of the earth experiences day and the other part of the earth experiences night.

Revolution:

• The movement of the earth around the sun is called revolution.
• The revolution of the earth causes seasons.
• The revolution of the earth gives the impression that the sun is moving north and south of the equator.
• The equator faces the Sun directly on March 21 and September 23.
• During these two days, the day and night are equal throughout the earth. These two days are called Equinoxes.
• On June 21, the Tropic of Cancer faces the sun. This is known as the summer solstice. It is the longest day in the
• Northern Hemisphere and longest night in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic! of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:

The earth has three major components. They are lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere. All living things exist in a narrow zone called Biosphere.

Lithosphere:

1. The Greek word Lithos means rock.
2. The lithosphere is the land on which we live.
3. It is the solid outer layer of the earth consisting of rocks and soils.

Hydrosphere:

1. The word Hydro means water.
2. Hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains and water vapour in the atmosphere.

Atmosphere:

1. The word Atmo means air.
2. Atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the earth.
3. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere.
4. The major gases are Nitrogen and oxygen. The other gases are Carbon – dioxide, Hydrogen, Helium, Argon, and Ozone.

Biosphere:

1. Bio means life. The biosphere is a narrow belt.
2. Life exists in the biosphere.
3. It consists of distinct zones.
4. Each zone has its own climate, plant, and animal life. These zones are known as an ecosystem.

J. Picture Study,

Question 1.

Study the picture and answer the given questions,
a. Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
b. Which is the largest planet?
c. Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
d. Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
a. Mercury
b, Jupiter
c, Neptune
d. Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below,

(a) Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

(b) What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

(c) Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
It appears green due to the presence of methane

Student Activity

K. Solve the Puzzle Across

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
3. I have two natural satellites.
4. I am the farthest planet.
5. An imaginary line passing through
6. the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System In-Text Question

HOTS:
Question 1.
Even though Mercury Is the nearest planet to the Sun, Venus Is the hottest one, Guess why?
Answer:

1. Venus is the hottest planet even though Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun.
2. The reason that Venus is hotter than Mercury is that it has an atmosphere made of Carbon dioxide.
3. It also has clouds of acid inside its atmosphere.
4. This is called Green House effect.

Question 2.
If you could put Saturn In a large enough ocean It would float. Guess why?
Answer:

1. Being less dense than water means that it would float on an ocean big enough to contain it.
2. Saturn is the only planet in the Solar System that is less dense than water.
3. Since Saturn is lighter than water, it can float on water.

Question 3.
Imagine you were on a spacecraft travelling at the speed of light from Earth, how long would It take to reach the Sun?
Answer:

1. Sunlight travels at the speed of light.
2. Photons emitted from the surface of the Sun need to travel across the vacuum of space to reach our eyes.
3. It takes sunlight an average time of 8 minutes and 20 seconds to travel from the Sun to Earth.

Question 4.
We see only one side of the Moon always. Why?
Answer:

1. We can see only one side of the moon.
2. It is because the moon revolves around the Earth at the exact same speed as it rotates around its own axis.
3. So that the same side of the moon is constantly facing the surface of the Earth.
4. It takes 27 days and 8 hours for its one rotation.
5. If the moon did not rotate at all, we would see all of its sides.

Question 5.
Priya Is 12 years old. How many limes she would have revolved around the Sun?
Answer:

1. It takes the earth 365 1/4 days to complete one orbit around the sun.
2. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
3. Priya is 12 years old. She would have revolved around the Sun 12 times.

Question 6.
If the Earth is not Inclined at 231/2° angle, what would happen to the Earth?
Answer:

1. If the Earth weren’t tilted on its axis, there would be no seasons and humanity would suffer.
2. An Earth without a tilt would get colder as you move away from the equator.
3. Humans would never survive the continuous winter of the high latitudes.
4. Fortunately, as things are, Earth’s tropical zones tend to have a minimal temperature, day-length variability over the course of the year.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System In-Text Question

Question 1.
Watch a show In the nearest planetarium,
(a) Share your experience In the classroom.
(b) Make an album of Interesting facts about the Solar System.
(c) In the Solar System
Answer:

1. The hottest planet is not the closest to the Sun.
2. The dwarf planet Pluto is smaller in diameter than the United States of America.
3. The edge of the Solar System is 1000 times farther away than Pluto.
4. Jupiter has the biggest Ocean of any planet.

Solar system profile:

	Age	4.6 Billion Years
1.	Number of Planets	8
2.	Number of dwarf Planets	5
3.	Number of Moons	181
4.	Number of Asteroids	5,52,894
5.	Number of Comets	3,084
6.	Diameter	18.75 Trillion years

Question 2.
Circle the leap years? 2000,2005, 2012,2014,2017, and 2020
Answer:
2000,2012,2020

A. Fill In the blanks:

1. The universe is also referred to as the _______
2. The study of the Universe is called _______
3. The sound travels at a speed of _______
4. In a galaxy, a huge cluster of stars are held by _______
5. The nearest galaxy to the Earth is _______
6. The Roman word ‘sol’ means _______
7. The Sun is made up of extremely hot gases like _______and _______
8. There are _______ planets in the solar system.
9. The curved path in which the planets move around the Sun is known as _______
10. The four planets nearer to the Sun are called _______ Planets
11. Outer Planets are also called _______
12. The smallest planet is _______
13. The planet _______ is called Earth’s twin.
14. The living planet is _______
15. The distance between the Sun and the Earth is about _______
16. The _______ is named after the Roman God of war.
17. ISRO has now become the _______ space agency to reach
18. The fastest spinning planet in the solar system is _______
19. Saturn has _______ natural satellites around it.
20. The specific gravity of Saturn is _______
21. The astronomer William Herschel discovered _______ in 1781
22. The Planet _______ has striking blue and white features
23. The _______ planets are extremely cold and dark.
24. The Earth’s satellite is _______
25. Asteroids are _______ the Planets.
26. The celestial object made up of a head and a tail is called a _______
27. Shooting stars are nothing but _______
28. The earth is _______ in shape
29. The earth is _______ on its axis.
30. The rotation of the Earth _______ causes _______
31. In a leap year, there are _______ days in the month of February.
32. When day and night are equal throughout the Earth, it is known as _______
33. the farthest position of the Earth from the Sun is known as ________
34. Summer Solstice is the longest day in _______ Hemisphere
35. The longest day in _______Hemisphere is called as Winter Solstice
36. The Greek word ‘Lithos’ means _______
37. The Greek word ‘hydro’ means _______
38. The _______ is made up of different types of gases.
39. In Biosphere, there are zones called _______
40. Our solar system is a part of the _______ Galaxy.

Answer:

1. Cosmos
2. Cosmology
3. 330 m/sl
4. gravitational forces
5. Andromeda
6. Sun God
7. hydrogen and helium
8. eight
9. Orbit
10. Inner or Terrestrial
11. Jovian Planets or Gaseous Giants
12. Mercury
13. Venus
14. Earth
15. 150 million kilometer
16. Mars
17. Fourth
18. Jupiter
19. 62
20. less than
21. Uranus
22. Neptune
23. Dwarf
24. Moon
25. Minor
26. Comet
27. Meteors
28. Spherical
29. rotates
30. Day, night
31. 29
32. Equinox
33. Aphelion
34. Northern
35. Southern
36. Rocky
37. Water
38. atmosphere
39. Ecosystem
40. Milky Way

B. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Galaxy means having a huge cluster of _______
(a) Planets
(b) Asteroids
(c) Stars
(d) Meteors
Answer:
(e) Stars

Question 2.
The somersaulting planet is _______
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(d) Uranus

Question 3.
_______Is self-luminous and gives light on its own
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Star
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 4.
Halley comet will next appear in _______
(a) 2051
(b) 2041
(c) 2061
(d) 2031
Answer:
(c) 2061

Question 5.
The nearest planet is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 6.
The fifth-largest planet in the Solar system is _______
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth
Answer:
(d) Earth

Question 7.
lo, Europa, Ganymede, Callisto are a few large satellites of _______
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(a) Jupiter

Question 8.
The second-largest planet in the solar system is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Star
(c) Earth
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(d) Saturn

Question 9.
Saturn’s largest moon is _______
(a) Europa
(b) Callisto
(c) Titan
(d) Titania
Answer:
(c) Titan

Question 10.
Triton is the satellite of _______
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Neptune
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(c) Neptune

Question 11.
Halley’s comet is expected to appear in _______
(a) 2020
(b) 2014
(c) 2035
(d) 2020

Question 12.
Pick out the leap year from the following:
(a) 2001
(b) 2014
(c) 2018
(d) 2020

Question 13.
A solid layer of rocks and soil is found in:
(a) Biosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Atmosphere

C. Find the odd one out

Question 1.
Mercury, Earth, Mars, Uranus
Answer:
Uranus, the other three rotate anti-clockwise.

Question 2.
Pluto, Ceres, Makemake, Titan.
Answer:
Titan, Titan is a moon. The other three are Dwarf planets.

Question 3.
Sol, Bio, Atmo, Hydro
Answer:
Sol, it a Roman word. The other three are Greek words.

Question 4.
Mars, Saturn, Mercury, Jupiter.
Answer:
Mercury, R doesn’t have any moon. The other three have moons.

Question 5.
Europa, Ganymede, Pluto, Callisto.
Answer:
Pluto, R is a dwarf planet. The other three are satellites of Jupiter.

D. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Planets – (a) Jovian planet
2. Mercury – (b) Earth’s Twin
3. Neptune – (c) Living planet
4. Venus – (d) Wanderer
5. Earth – (e) Innner planet

Answer:

1. (1 – d)
2. (2 – e)
3. (3 – a)
4. (4 – b)
5. (5 – c)

Question 2.

1. Cosmos – (a) Self-luminous
2. Sun – (b) Axis tilted
3. Orbit – (c) Universe
4. Mercury – (d) Curved path
5. Uranus – (e) No natural satellite

Answer:

1. (1- c)
2. (2 – a)
3. (3 – d)
4. (4 – e)
5. (5 – b)

Question 3.

1. Summer Solstice – (a) 22nd December
2. Equinox – (b) Rocky
3. Winter Solstice – (c) 21st June
4. Lithos – (d) Water
5. Hydro – (e) 21st March

Answer:

1. (1 – c)
2. (2 – e)
3. (3 – a)
4. (4 – b)
5. (5 – d)

E. Consider the following statement:

Question 1.

1. The universe is referred to as Cosmos.
2. The Sun is at the centre of the solar system.
3. Pluto is a dwarf planet.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 only.
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 3

Question 2.

1. The biosphere consists of Ecosystems.
2. The atmosphere consists of water bodies.
3. The lithosphere is the solid outer layer of the! Earth.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only.
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3

Question 3.
Statement I: Jupiter is the eighth planet from the Sun.
Statement II: Jupiter is the Gaseous Giant planet.
Which of the following statements is/are time?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(b) 1 is wrong, II is true

Question 4.
Statement I: Summer Solstice is the longest day in Southern Hemisphere.
Statement II: Winter Solstice is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are wrong!

F. Name the following

Question 1.

1. A massive explosion to bring the celestial bodies into existence.
2. The somersaulting plant.
3. The study of the Universe.
4. Outer Planets or Jovian Planets
5. Morning Star.
6. Red Planet.
7. Fastest spinning Planet.
8. Its specific gravity in less than water.
9. This planet appears green.
10. It comes done to the Earth every 76 years.
11. Shooting Star.
12. It is in a spherical shape.
13. The spinning movement of the Earth.
14. 21st March and 23rd September.
15. This layer is made up of different types of gases.

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Uranus
3. Cosmology
4. Gaseous giants
5. Verms
6. Viars
7. Jupiter
8. Saturn
9. Uranus
10. Halley’s Comet
11. Meteors
12. Earth
13. Rotation
14. Equinoxes
15. Atmosphere

G. Answer in a sentence or two

Question 1.
What does the universe consist of?
Answer:
The universe consists of billions of galaxies, stars, planets, comets, asteroids, meteors

Question 2.
Did the ancient Tamils know that the planets went around the Sun? It yes, then give example.
Answer:
Yes. In Tamil literature, Sirupanatruppadai, it is mentioned that the Sun is surrounded by planets.

Question 3.
What is a solar system?
Answer:

1. The solar system is a gravitationally bound system.
2. It comprises of the Sun, the eight planets, dwarf planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and meteors.

Question 4.
Name the eight planets.
Answer:

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune are the planets.

Question 5.
Write a note on the venus.
Answer:

1. Venus rotates in the opposite direction to all other planets except Uranus.
2. It has no natural satellites.
3. It is often visible in the mornings and the evenings. So it is also known as Morning Star and the Evening Star.

Question 6.
Name the tw o natural satellites of Mars.
Answer:
Phobos and Deimos are the two natural satellites of Mars.

Question 7.
Name the four largest satellites of Jupiter.
Answer:
Io, Europa, Ganymede and Callisto are the four largest satellites of Jupiter.

Question 8.
Define satellites
Answer:
Satellites are celestial objects, which revolve around the planets.

Question 9.
Where do we find the Asteroids?
Answer:

1. Asteroids are small solid objects that move around the Sun.
2. They are found as a belt between Mars and Jupiter.
3. They are too small to be called planets

Question 10.
What is the Rotation?
Answer:
Rotation is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis.

Question 11.
What is Revolution?
Answer:
Revolution is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.

H. Give reasons.

Question 1.
The eight planets revolve in their respective orbits.
Answer:
The eight planets revolve in their respective orbits because of the gravitational pull of the Sun.

Question 2.
Planet Mercury experiences extremes of temperature.
Answer:
Mercury does not have an atmosphere and so experiences extremes of temperature. Life is possible on the Earth.

Question 3.
Life is possible on Earth because of the presence of land, air and water.
Answer:
Mars appears red in colour.

Question 4.
Mars appears red in colour
Answer:
Mars appears red in colour due to presence of iron oxide on its surface.

Question 5.
Seasons are caused.
Answer:
The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 6.
We think the sun is continuously moving north and south of the equator.
Answer:
The changing position of the Earth in its orbit during revolution gives this impression.

I. Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between Mercury and Venus.

Mercury

1. Smallest and closest planet to the Sun.
2. Experiences extremes of temperature.
3. Airless and waterless planet.

Venus

1. Second planet from the Sun.
2. Rotates in opposite direction. Hottest planet.
3. Brightest planet.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Asteroids and Comets.
Answer:
Asteroids

1. Small solid objects moving around the Sun.
2. Found as a belt between Mars and Jupiter.
3. They are too small to be called planets.
4. They are also known as Minor Planets or Planetoids

Comets

1. A celestial object made up of a head and tail.
2. The head of a comet consists of solid particles held together by ice and the tail is made of gases.
3. Halley’s comet comes Close to earth every 76 years.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Textual Evaluation

I. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Prepare the slogans for road safety.
Answer:

1. Alert today – Alive tomorrow
2. Normal speed meets every need.
3. You Can’t get home unless you are safe.
4. Be alert to be safe and secure.
5. Be alert while driving on the road
6. Be a driver not clever while driving.

Question 2.
Identify the following signs.

Answer:
a. No U-Turn
b. No Entry
c. Cross Road
d. Hospital

Question 3.
Discuss the statistics of 2017 accidents data.
Answer:

1. 2017 saw a 3% decline in road accident deaths.
2. Punjab, West Bengal, and Gujarat have shown a decline.
3. Bihar, Uttarpradesh, Odhisha, and Madhya Pradesh have reported more deaths.
4. The data also shows that a maximum decline was reported from Tamil Nadu in Comparison to 2016.
5. Percentage-wise the Steepest decline was in Punjab at 15.7%

Question 4.
Debate: Is Wearing a helmet necessary?
Answer:

1. It is important for motorcyclists to understand the risks of riding without a helmet.
2. Riders who do not wear helmets are at risk of suffering traumatic brain injury if they are in an accident.
3. Without protection, the head is vulnerable to a traumatic impact in an accident even when travelling at low speeds.
4. Wearing a helmet is absolutely necessary for riders and pillion riders.

Question 5.
Draw posters related to road safety.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Mandatory road signs are_________generally in shape.
(a) Circular
(b) Oval
(c) Square
(d) Hexagonal
Answer:
(a) Circular

Question 2.
The pedestrian crossing was instituted in Britain in_________
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(e) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 3.
Children above_________ years of age should occupy the back seat.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 4.
The Zebra crossing with black and white stripes was developed after
(a) Cold war
(b) Civil war
(c) First World war
(d) Second World war
Answer:
(d) Second World war

Question 5.
Red rings or circles give_________ instructions
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Caution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Negative

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cautionary road signs are generally in_________ shape.
2. Informatory road signs are generally in_________ shape.
3. We should wait until_________ a signal appears before proceeding.
4. Amber means_________
5. Traffic signs are there to_________traffic.
6. Answer:
7. Triangular
8. Rectangular
9. Caution
10. green
11. Regulate

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the three types of traffic signs.
Answer:

1. Mandatory road signs are the ones that give orders regarding do’s and don’ts and are to be followed strictly. They are generally circular in shape.
2. Cautionary road signs are the ones that were in the road rules regarding the road situation ahead. These signs are generally in a triangular shape.
3. Informatory road signs are the ones that give information regarding directions, destinations etc. Informatory signs are generally rectangular in shape.

Question 2.
What do the three colours Red, Amber, and Green signify?
Answer:

1. Red means stop – wait behind the stop line.
2. Amber means CAUTION.
3. Green means Go-Proceed ahead ensuring that the way is clear.

Question 3.
Mention the languages of the road.
Answer:

1. Road signs, markings, traffic signals and other traffic devices are there to guide the road users and hence the languages of the road.
2. Traffic signals are there to regulate traffic, warn about hazards and to guide the road user.

Question 4.
How should children use pavements?
Answer:
Children should be taught to use the pavements. When walking on the road,

1. Walk on any side of the road if there are food paths.
2. On roads without food, path walks on your extreme right side facing the oncoming traffic.
3. Use Zebra crossing, foot over bridge, and subways to cross the roads.
4. Children below 8 years of age should cross the road with the help of elders.

Question 5.
What should not be done by children while crossing the road?
Answer:

1. Do not cross the road hastily by running.
2. Do not cross the road in front of or in between parked vehicles.
3. Do not try to cross the road from blind comers, turnings where you are not visible to the vehicle drivers.
4. Do not jump over the railings to cross the road.