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Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Journey by Train Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Read And Understand

A. Fill in the table
Answer:

Problems Faced By Mr. Fogg  And His Team Solution
The train stopped in the middle of the forest. The passengers must provide themselves a means of transport from Kholby to Allahabad.
They couldn’t hire the elephant. Mr. Fogg purchased it for 2000 pounds.
They were in need Of an elephant driver. A young man offered his service as a guide.

B. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Who inhabited the jungles that the train passed through?
Answer:
The elephants inhabited the jungles that the train passed through.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 2.
What was the reaction of the inhabitants?
Answer:
Snakes and tigers fled at the noise Of the train. The elephants stood gazing with sad eyes at the train, as it passed.

Question 3.
What did Mr. Fogg mean by, ‘it was foreseen’?
Answer:
Mr. Fogg knew that some obstacle would arise on his route. So he said that the difficulty was foreseen.

Question 4.
Describe the elephant driver in your own words.
Answer:
The elephant driver was intelligent and a skilled young man. He covered the elephant’s back with saddle-cloth. He attached seats on each of its sides. He sat on the neck of the elephant and set out from the village with the three passengers.

C. Think and Answer.

Question 1.
What qualities of Mr. Phileas Fogg are highlighted in this extract? Support your answer with suitable examples.
Answer:
Mr. Phileas Fogg was a man of adventure. He was ready to take a risk. Otherwise, he would not have accepted a wager. 20,000 dollars set by his friends at the Reform Club. Mr. Phileas Fogg always maintained his calm and cool temperament. He did not get angry even when the train stopped suddenly.

Mr. Fogg was a man of farsightedness. He had foreseen some obstacles on his route sooner or later to arise. Mr. Fogg was a man of good planning. He had planned to catch the steamer that would leave Calcutta for Hongkong on 25th. Mr. Fogg was a man of generosity. He promised a generous reward for the guide.

When the elephant owner refused to hire, at the excessive sum of two thousand pounds, for the role of the animal, Mr. Fogg was not in the least flurried. These incidents show the determination of Mr. Fogg in executing his decisions.

Vocabulary

D. Fill in the blanks with correct travel words.

(schedule,reach,book,railway,pack,board)
Answer:
To make travel convenient, we must book tickets well in advance. Then we have to Pack our things and schedule our trip. We have to reach the railway station in time and board the train in order to reach our destination.

E. Match the phrasal verbs with their meanings

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Answer:

  1. b
  2. f
  3. a
  4. e
  5. c
  6. d

F. Dictionary Task

Refer to a dictionary. Find the meaning of the following words and write them down.
Answer:

  1. journey – The act of travelling from one place to another.
  2. picnic – a trip or excursion to the country, seaside, etc, on which people bring food to be eaten in the open air
  3. pilgrimage – a religious journey.
  4. tour – a journey for pleasure in which several places are visited
  5. vacation – holiday.
  6. excursion – a short journey or trip.

Listening

G. Listen to the teacher reading the Weather forecast and complete the report.
Answer:
The name of the Cyclone is Gaja it may affect the places North Tamil Nadu and Puducherry Heavy rains are expected on November 14th and 15th It is 880 km away from Nagapattinam.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Speaking

H. Your family has decided to go on a tour during the vacation. You are calling a travel agency and seeking information regarding package, places of visit, cost, etc. Work in pairs and role play as a receptionist and a customer.
Answer:
Receptionist: Good morning. This is Sai Dwaraka Mai Travel Agency. How can I help you?
Customer: We would like to go on a tour of the Shirdi temple. Can you give us the information regarding the package, places of visit, and the cost for it?
Receptionist: Yes, Madam. We offer flight packages from Chennai to Shirdi at affordable prices.
Customer: Okay Sir, what are the places of visit over there?
Receptionist: We take you to places like Dwarkamai, Chavadi, Gurusthan, Sai Museum, Maruthi temple, and Nandadeep.
Customer: Okay fine. We would like to book tickets for the tour, as we would like to go any day between 23rd November and 27th November. What is the cost for four people?
Receptionist: It costs Rs. 9,9991- per person. So the total amount for four people would be Rs. 39,996/-
Customer: Thank you, Sir, I will get back to you immediately, after discussing with my family members.
Receptionist: Thank you for calling, Madam. Have a nice day.

Grammar

I. Rewrite the story in the past tense.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

The boy chased a cat. The cat climbed up the tree and purred from the branch of the tree. The cat jumped to another tree. The boy who was chasing the cat noticed a snake under the tree. He left his attempt to catch the cat and he ran home screaming for help

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

J. Look at the picture and complete the following

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train
Answer:
Nila told Miruthula that that hotel was famous for masala idli Miruthula said that the idly was soft and spongy Nila said that it was delicious too. She also said that they had added Kashmiri chili. Miruthula said very much.

Writing

K. Your friend is coming to your city/town to spend a week with you. He /she wants to visit some tourist places and enjoy the special food items in the place. Prepare a two-day itinerary for the visit.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Creative Writing

L. You are waiting to board a train at a railway station. The train is delayed by an hour. Write a paragraph about the crowded scene in the railway station based on your observation.
Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Answer:
I was waiting to board a train at a railway station. The train was delayed by an hour. A lot of families were waiting eagerly for the announcement of the arrival of the train. Some of the porters were carrying the luggage of the passengers. Piles of luggage were seen all over. There were fruit vendors, tea vendors, and other shops selling water, milk, and snacks. By the ticket counter, there was a queue, waiting to buy tickets. The scroll board was displaying the necessary information for the passengers. The porters were also using trolleys to carry the luggage.

Journey by Train Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Synonyms from the options below.

Question 1.
proceeded
(a) stopped
(b) halted
(c) moved
(d) passed
Answer:
(c) moved

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 2.
fertile
(a) vast
(b) productive
(c) barren
(d) incapable
Answer:
(b) productive

Question 3.
territory
(a) barrier
(b) border
(c) Limit
(d) region
Answer:
(d) region

Question 4.
gazing
(a) look steadily
(b) looking away
(c) scanning
(d) blinking
Answer:
(a) look steadily

Question 5.
hasty
(a) slow
(b) wise
(c) quickly
(d) lazy
Answer:
(c) quick

Question 6.
curled
(a) straightened
(b) erected
(c) evened
(d) twined
Answer:
(d) twined

Question 7.
obstacle
(a) assist
(b) aid
(c) support
(d) difficulty
Answer:
(d) difficulty

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 8.
halt
(a) start
(b) stop
(c) go
(d) continue
Answer:
(b) stop

Question 9.
foreseen
(a) predicted
(b) neglected
(c) disregarded
(d) failed
Answer:
(a) predicted

Question 10.
rapidly
(a) slowly
(b) suddenly
(c) quickly
(d) easily
Answer:
(c) quickly

II. Choose the correct Antonyms from the options below.

Question 1.
different
(a) same
(b) unlike
(c) dissimilar
(d) contrast
Answer:
(a) same

Question 2.
punctually
(a) promptly
(b) timely
(c) regularly
(d) early
Answer:
(d) early

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 3.
straggling
(a) few
(b) rare
(c) abundant
(d) irregular
Answer:
(c) abundant

Question 4.
waking
(a) sleeping
(b) arousing
(c) raising
(d) getting up
Answer:
(a) sleeping

Question 5.
abandoned
(a) deserted
(b) forsakened
(c) casted
(d) inhabited
Answer:
(d) inhabited

Question 6.
skilled
(a) trained
(b) qualified
(c) inexperienced
(d) practised
Answer:
(c) inexperienced

Question 7.
announced
(a) reported
(b) declared
(c) notified
(d) suppressed
Answer:
(d) suppressed

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 8.
snapped
(a) became happy
(b) broke
(c) crackled
(d) fractured
Answer:
(a) became happy

Question 9.
disadvantage
(a) effectiveness
(b) unfavourable
(c) drawback
(d) advantage
Answer:
(d) advantage

Question 10.
hesitation
(a) fluctuation
(b) unwillingness
(c) willingness
(d) stutter
Answer:
(c) willingness

III. Choose the Correct Answer (MCQ).

Question 1.
The train had started _________
(a) delayed
(b) punctually
(c) late
(d) after an hour
Answer:
(b) punctually

Question 2.
An hour after leaving _________ the train had passed the bridges and the island of salcette.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(d) Bombay

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 3.
At half-past _________ the train stopped at Burhampoor.
(a) ten
(b) twelve
(c) six (d) eight
Answer:
(b) twelve

Question 4.
The _________ at once stepped out.
(a) General
(b) attendant
(c) club member
(d) driver
Answer:
(a) General

Question 5.
Sir Francis was _________
(a) happy
(b) furious
(c) cool
(d) cheerful
Answer:
(b) furious

Question 6.
A steamer leaves Calcutta for _________ at noon on the 25th.
(a) Hongkong
(b) Persia
(c) Norway
(d) Burhampoor
Answer:
(a) Hongkong

Question 7.
‘Good Heavens’, what a price for an _________
(a) eagle
(b) ox
(c) elephant
(d) ostrich
Answer:
(c) elephant

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 8.
The driver _________ himself on the elephant’s neck.
(a) lost
(b) perched
(c) unsettled
(d) lowered
Answer:
(b) perched

Question 9.
A young man, with an _________ face, offered his services as a guide.
(a) averse
(b) ugly
(c) intelligent
(d) inapt
Answer:
(c) intelligent

Question 10.
The travellers made a hasty _________
(a) lunch
(b) dinner
(c) moment
(d) breakfast
Answer:
(d) breakfast

7th Standard Journey By Train  Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Who is the author of this novel ‘Around the world in Eighty Days’?
Answer:
The author of this novel is Jules Verna.

Question 2.
Who was there among the passengers?
Answer:
There were a number of officers, Government officials, and merchants.

Question 3.
Who occupied a seat opposite Mr. Fogg?
Answer:
Sir Francis Cromarty occupied a seat opposite to him.

Question 4.
Who was Sir Francis?
Answer:
Sir Francis was one of the friends of Mr. Fogg.

Question 5.
Where did he meet him?
Answer:
He met him on the ship Mongolia that brought him to Bombay.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 6.
When will the steamer leave Calcutta for Hong Kong?
Answer:
The steamer would leave Calcutta for Hong Kong at noon on the 25th.

Question 7.
What was Mr. Fogg resolved to hire?
Answer:
He was resolved to hire an Indian elephant for his journey to Allahabad.

Question 8.
How much did Mr. Fogg offer to hire the Elephant at first?
Answer:
He offered ten pounds per hour to hire the elephant.

Question 9.
Where did the train stop at half-past twelve?
Answer:
It stopped at Burhampoor at half-past twelve.

Question 10.
Which mountains separated the Khandesh from Bundelcund?
Answer:
The Sutpour mountains separated the Khandesh from Bundelcund.

V. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did Passepartout see, when he was crossing India in a railway train?
Answer:
Passepartout on waking looked out. He could not believe that he was actually crossing India. The locomotive, guided by an English engineer and fed with coal, threw out its smoke upon cotton, coffee, nutmeg, clove, and pepper plantations. The steam curled in spirals around groups of palm-trees. In the midst of these trees were attractive bungalows, viharas, and marvellous temples, decorated by the rich work of Indian architecture. There were vast areas extending to the horizon with jungles and forests. There he saw snakes, tigers, and elephants.

Question 2.
Who served as a guide to Mr. Fogg and others? How did he manage to take all three to Allahabad?
Answer:
A young intelligent man offered his services as a guide. The elephant was led out and equipped. The skilled driver covered the elephant’s back with a sort of saddle-cloth and attached to each of its side some uncomfortable howdahs. While Sir Francis and Mr. Fogg took the howdahs on either side, Passepartout got on to the saddle-cloth between them. The driver positioned himself on the elephant’s neck and they set out from the village at nine o’clock by short cuts through the dense forests of palms.

Journey by Train Grammar Additional

Reported Speech

The actual words spoken by a person are Direct speech. They are enclosed within quotation marks.
When we later report this, making changes to the words the speaker originally said, it is Reported Speech. (Indirect Speech)

Sentence Direct Speech Indirect Speech
I want an ice cream Ram said to Rakesh, “I want an ice cream” Ram told Rakesh that he wanted ice cream.
I am coming to

Chennai tomorrow.

My uncle said to me, “I am coming to Chennai tomorrow.” My uncle told me that he was coming to Chennai the next day
I want to become a doctor. Monica said, “I want to become a doctor.” Monica said that she wanted to become a doctor.
The comic books are kept on the second shelf. The librarian said, “The comic books are kept on the second shelf” The librarian said that the comic books were kept on the second shelf.
The monument is beautiful. Sidharthan said, “The monument is beautiful.” Sidharthan said that the monument was beautiful.

I. Change into Indirect Speech.

Question 1.
He said, “I live in the city centre”.
Answer:
He said that he lived in the city centre.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 2.
Radha said, “I am going out”.
Answer:
Radha said that she was going out.

Question 3.
Ravi said, “I can swim”
Answer:
Ravi said that he could swim.

Question 4.
He said, “I arrived before you”.
Answer:
He said that he had arrived before him.

Question 5.
My father said, “I will be in Pairs on Monday”.
Answer:
My father said that he would be in Paris on Monday.

Warm-Up

Work in pairs. Choose six items which are essential for a camp. Rank their priority and justify your answer.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train
Answer:

  1. Torch Light
  2. Tent
  3. Cell Phone
  4. Rope
  5. Hammer
  6. Stove

These things are essential for a camp because, without these things, we cannot enjoy our camp. Camping is an amazing experience. So we should prepare ourselves properly with the essential items taken along with us. This will avoid frustration and stress.

Journey by Train Summary

Section – I

This story tells us of an amazing journey by an Englishman Mr. Phileas Fogg. He is a ruthless perfectionist who cares more about the bet than the native places, he sees on his travels. He will do anything, even lie and cheat, to get what he wants.
Mr. Phileas Fogg along with his French attendant, Passepartout, attempts to go round the world in eighty days by taking a bet for $ 20,000. They travel through some parts of India. That was the time when the railways were being built in the country. The train started at the scheduled time from Bombay. There were a number of passengers like officers, government officials, and merchants on the train. Sir Francis Cromarty, one of Mr. Fogg’s friends, occupied a seat opposite to them.

The train passed the bridges, the Island of Salcette, mountains, jungles, forests, and the fertile territory of Khandesh.
Passepartout couldn’t believe that he was actually crossing India on a railway train. Tigers and snakes fled at the noise of the train. Elephants stood gazing at the train with sad eyes. At half-past twelve, the train stopped at Burhampoor. The travellers had a hasty breakfast. The train entered the valleys of Sutpour Mountains at three in the morning.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 1.
Give a picturesque view through which the train travels.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Section – II

The train stopped at 8 o’clock some fifteen miles beyond Rothal. Phileas Fogg and others were annoyed. They were wondering why there was a halt of the train in the midst of the forest. When they enquired, the conductor informed them that the railroad lines ends at Kholby, 50 miles short of Allahabad. The line begins again from there in Allahabad. Sir Francis got angry because they sold the tickets from Bombay to Calcutta, without confirming about the railroad lines.

The passengers had to provide means of transportation for themselves from Kholby to Allahabad. So, Mr. Fogg, his attendant, and Sir. Francis planned to reach Allahabad in time by some means of transport, as a steamer was ready to leave Calcutta for Hongkong on the 25th. They had two days left to reach Calcutta.

Discuss and answer – Intext Questions.

Question 1.
Why did the train stop in the middle of the forest?
Answer:
The train stopped in the middle of the forest as there were no railroad lines beyond that place.

Question 2.
Why was Sir Francis angry?
Answer:
There were no railroad lines from Kholby to Allahabad. But the tickets were sold from Bombay to Calcutta. So Sir Francis was angry.

Section – III

After searching the village from end to end, Mr. Fogg and Sir. Francis came back without finding any means of transport. But Passepartout suggested that they can travel on an Indian elephant. As it could travel rapidly for a long time, Mr. Fogg determined to hire it. Even though Mr. Fogg offered an excessive amount to hire the elephant, the elephant’s owner refused to hire it. So Mr. Fogg finally purchased the elephant for two thousand pounds. A young man offered his services as a guide to them.

While Mr. Fogg and Sir Francis took the howdahs on either side, Passepartout got on to the saddle-cloth between them. The driver sat on the elephant’s neck and at 9 o’clock set out from the village to Allahabad.

Discuss and answer.

Question 1.
Which mode of transport did Fogg choose?
Answer:
At first, Fogg chose to go on foot to Allahabad. Then he purchased an elephant to take them to Allahabad.

Question 2.
Did he hire Kiouni? Why?
Answer:
No, he did not hire Kiouni, but purchased it for 2000 pounds, because the owner of the elephant intended to make a big bargain and so refused to hire him.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 1 Journey by Train

Question 3.
Why was the elephant owner happy with the deal?
Answer:
The elephant owner was happy with the deal because Mr. Fogg offered him 2000 pounds to purchase the elephant.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 1.
Find the simple interest on ₹ 35,000 at 9% per annum for 2 years?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 1
Principal P = ₹ 35,000
Rate of interest r = 9 % Per annum
Time (n) = 2 years
Simple Interest I = \(\frac { Pnr }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac{35000 \times 2 \times 9}{100}\) = ₹ 6300
Simple intrest I = ₹ 6300

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 2.
Aravind borrowed a sum of ₹ 8,000 from Akash at 7% per annum. Find the interest and amount to be paid at the end of two years.
Solution:
Here Principal P = ₹ 8,000
Rate of interest r = 7% Per annum
Time (n) = 2 Years
Simple Interest (I) = \(\frac { Pnr }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac{8000 \times 2 \times 7}{100}\)
I = ₹ 1120
Amount = P + I
I = ₹ 8000 + 1120 = 9120
Interest to be paid = ₹ 1,120
Amount to be paid = ₹ 9,120

Question 3.
Sheela has paid simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 9.5% per annum is ₹ 21,280. Find the sum.
Solution:
Let the Principal be ₹ P
Rate of interest r = 9.5% per annum
Time (n) = 4 years
Simple Interest I = \(\frac { Pnr }{ 100 } \)
Given I = ₹ 21,280
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 2
∴ Sum of money Sheela bought = ₹ 56,000

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 4.
Basha borrowed ₹ 8,500 from a bank at a particular rate of simple interest. After 3 years, he paid ₹ 11,050 to settle his debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the money?
Solution:
Let the rate of interest be r% per annum
Here Principal P = ₹ 8,500
Time n = 3 years
Total amount paid = ₹ 11,050
A = P + 1 = ₹ 11,050
i.e. 8,500 + 1 = ₹ 11,050
I = ₹ 11,050 – ₹ 8,500 = ₹ 2,550
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 3

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 5.
In What time will ₹ 16,500 amount to ₹ 22,935 at 13% per annum?
Solution:
Rate of interest r = 13% per annum
Here Amount A = ₹ 22,935
Principal P = ₹ 16,500
A = P + I
22935 = 16,500 + I
∴ Interest I = 22935 – 16,500 = ₹ 6,435
Simple Interest I = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 4
6435 = \(\frac{16500 \times n \times 13}{100}\)
n =\(\frac{6435 \times 100}{16500 \times 13}\)
n = 3 years
Required time n = 3 years

Question 6.
In what time will ₹ 17800 amount to ₹ 19936 at 6% per annum?
Solution:
Let the require time be n years
Here Principal P = ₹ 17,800
Rate of interest r = 6% per annum
Amount A = ₹ 19,936
A = P + I
19936 = 17800 + 1
19936 – 17800 = I
2136 = I
Simple Interest (I) = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
2136 = \(\frac{17800 \times n \times 6}{100}\)
n = \(\frac{2136 \times 100}{17800 \times 6}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4 5
n = 2 Years
Required time = 2 years

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 7.
A sum of ₹ 48,000 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 2 years and 3 months the total amount was ₹ 55,560. Find the rate of interest per year.
Solution:
Given Principal P = ₹ 48,000
Time n = 2 years 3 months
= 2 + \(\frac { 3 }{ 12 } \) years = 2 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) years
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 4 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) years = \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) years
Amount A = ₹ 55,660
A = p + 1
55660 = 48000 + I
I = 55660 – 48000 = ₹ 7660
∴ Interest for \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) years = ₹ 7660
Simple intrest = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
7660 = 48000 × \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) × \(\frac { r }{ 100 } \)
r = \(\frac{7660 \times 4 \times 100}{9 \times 48000}\) = 7.09 % = 7 %
Rate of interest = 7 % Per annum

Question 8.
A principal becomes ₹ 17,000 at the rate of 12% in 3 years. Find the principal.
Solution:
Given the Principal becomes ₹ 17,000
Let the principle initially be P
Rate of Interest r Time = 12 % Per annum
Time n = 3 years
According to the problem given I = 17000 – P = \(\frac{P \times 3 \times 12}{100}\)
17000 = \(\frac { 36 }{ 100 } \) p + p
17000 = p(\(\frac { 36 }{ 100 } \) + 1)
17000 = p(\(\frac { 136 }{ 100 } \))
p = \(\frac{17000 \times 100}{136}\) = 12,500
∴ Principal P = ₹ 12,500

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Objective Type Questions

Question 9.
The interest for a principle of? 4,500 which gives an amount of? 5,000 at end of certain period is
(i) ₹ 500
(ii) ₹ 200
(iii) 20%
(iv) 15%
Hint: Interest = Amount – Principle = ₹ 5000 – ₹ 4500 = ₹ 500
Answer:
(i) ₹ 500

Question 10.
Which among the following is the simple interest for the principle of ₹ 1,000 for one year at the rate of 10% interest per annum?
(i) ₹ 200
(ii) ₹ 10
(iii) ₹ 100
(iv) ₹ 1,000
Hint: Intrest = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac{1000 \times 1 \times 10}{100}\) = ₹ 100
Answer:
(iii) ₹ 100

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.4

Question 11.
Which among the following rate of interest yields an interest of ₹ 200 for the principle of ₹ 2,000 for one year.
(i) 10%
(ii) 20%
(iii) 5%
(iv) 15%
Hint: r = \(\frac{I \times 100}{P \times n}\) = \(\frac{200 \times 100}{2000 \times 1}\) = 10 %
Answer:
(i) 10%

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Additional Questions and Answers

Exercise 2.1

Question 1.
72% of 25 students are good at science. How many are not good at science?
Solution:
Number of students who are good at science
= 72% of 25 = \(\frac { 72 }{ 100 } \) × 25 = 18 students
∴ Number of students who are not good at science
= 25 – 18 = 7 students

Question 2.
A flower garden has 1000 plants. 5% of the plants are roses and 1% are daisy plants. What is the total number of other plants.
Solution:
Total plants = 1000
Number of rose plants = 5 % of 1000 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \) × 1000 = 50
Number of Daisy plants = 1 % of 1000 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) × 1000 = 10
Total of rose and daisy = 50 + 10 = 60
Number of other plants = 1000 – 60 = 940

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Question 3.
Find 135 % of 80 ₹.
Solution:
135 % of 80 = \(\frac { 135 }{ 100 } \) × 80 = ₹ 108

Exercise 2.2

Question 1.
Neka bought 72.3m of cloth from a role of 100m. Express the cloth bought in terms of percentage.
Solution:
Total length of the cloth = 100 m
Length of cloth bought = 72.3 m
Percentage of cloth bought = \(\frac { 72.3 }{ 100 } \) = 72.3 %

Question 2.
Convert (i) 88 % (ii) 1.86 % into decimals.
Solution:
(i) 88 % = \(\frac { 88 }{ 100 } \) = 0.88
(ii) 1.86 % = \(\frac { 1.86 }{ 100 } \) = 0.0186

Question 3.
Convert (i) 3.35 (ii) 0.5 into percentage.
Solution:
(i) 3.35 = \(\frac { 335 }{ 100 } \) × 100 % = 335 %
(ii) 0.5 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 } \) × 100 % = 50 %

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Exercise 2.3

Question 1.
If Gayathri had ₹ 600 left after spending 75% of her money, how much did she have in the beginning?
Solution:
Suppose Gayathri had ₹ X in the beginning.
Then money Spend = 75 % of X = \(\frac { 75 }{ 100 } \) X = \(\frac { 3X }{ 4 } \)
Money left with her = X – \(\frac { 3X }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { 4X-3X }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { X }{ 4 } \)
But it is given that money left = ₹ 600
i.e. \(\frac { X }{ 4 } \) = 600
X = 600 × 4 = 2400
∴ Gayathri had ₹ 2,400

Question 2.
Mohan gets 98 marks in her exams. This amounts to 56% of the total marks, What are the maximum marks?
Solution:
Let the maximum marks be X. 56 % of X = 98
\(\frac { 56 }{ 100 } \) × (X) = 98
⇒ X = 98 × \(\frac { 100 }{ 56 } \)
X = 175
∴ Maximum marks = 175

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Exercise 2.4

Question 1.
On what sum of money lent out at 9% per annum for 6 years does the simple interest amount to ₹ 810?
Solution:
Given Simple Interest I = ₹ 810
Let the sum of money (Principal) be P
Rate of interest r = 9 % Per annum.
Time n = 6 years
I = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
810 = \(\frac{P \times 6 \times 9}{100}\)
P = \(\frac{810 \times 100}{6 \times 9}\)
P = ₹ 1500
Sum of money required = ₹ 1500

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Additional Questions

Question 2.
Find the simple interest on ₹ 1120 for 2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \) years at the rate of 5% per annum.
Solution:
Simple Interest I = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
Principal P = ₹ 1120
Time n = 2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \) years
= \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 } \) years
Rate of Interest r = 5 %
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest add 1
∴ I = 1120 × \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 } \) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 672 }{ 5 } \)
= ₹ 134.4
Simple interest = = ₹ 134.4

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Textual Evaluation

Make an Album Making of Chennai From Early Period Till Now

I. Choose the correct answer:

Urban Changes During The British Period  Question 1.
Ancient towns are –
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro
(b) Delhi and Hyderabad
(c) Bombay and Culcutta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro

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Question 2.
Coastal towns developed by the British were –
(a) Surat
(b) Goa
(c) Bombay
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 3.
A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half of 19th century as a result of –
(a) Opening of Suez Canal
(b) Introduction of steam navigation
(c) Construction of railways
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
The British arrived India for.
(a) for trading
(b) for preaching their religion
(c) for working
(d) for ruling
Answer:
(a) for trading

Question 5.
Fort St. George was constructed by the British in –
(a) Bombay
(b) Cuddalore
(c) Madras
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(c) Madras

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Question 6.
Which of the following port was the East India Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
(a) Fort St. William
(b) Fort St David
(c) Fort St. George
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Fort St. George

II. Fill in the Blanks:

  1. The network of railroads in India was introduced in …………………………
  2.  ……………………….. rightly regarded as the Father of Local Self – Government in India.
  3. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced ……………………….. in the provinces.
  4. ……………………….. was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
  5. Francis Day and Andrew Cogan got permission to establish a factory-cum trading post at madrasapatnam in ………………………..

Answer:

  1. 1853
  2. Ripon
  3. Dyarchy
  4. Sir Josiah Child
  5. 1639

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

  1. Bombay – Religious centres
  2. Cantonment towns – Hill stations
  3. Kedamath – Ancient town
  4. Darjeeling – Seven island
  5. Madurai – Kanpur

Answer:

  1. Bombay – Seven island
  2. Cantonment towns – Kanpur
  3. Kedamath – Religious centres
  4. Darjeeling – Hill stations
  5. Madurai – Ancient town

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IV. State true or false:

  1. Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India.
  2. British acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey.
  3. Fort St. Williams is in Madras.
  4. Army people began to live in cantonments.
  5. Madras was officially renamed Chennai in 1998.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
  5. False

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): India became the agricultural colony of Britain.
Reason (R): The one-way free trade policy followed by the British and the Industrial revolution destroyed Indian indigenous industries.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
i) Srirangarayalu gave the English the grant of Madrasapatnam.
ii) Day and Cogan were jointly responsible for the construction of Fort St. George.
iii) In 1969 the state of Madras was rechristened as Tamil Nadu.
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) iii only
Answer:
(a) i only

Question 3.
Assertion (A): British built up their alternative capitals in hilly areas.
Reason (R): They found the Indian summer inhospitable.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is an urban area?
Answer:
A place which has a high density of population engaged in different occupations.

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Question 2.
Hilly areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Why?
Answer:

  • The British coming from a cool temperate climate, found the hill stations protective from hot weather and epidemics.
  • So they built up the alternative capitals in cool areas.
  • So highly hills areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development.

Question 3.
Name the three Presidency cities?
Answer:

  • Madras
  • Bombay
  • Calcutta

Question 4.
State any four reasons for the new trend of urbanization in the 19th century.
Answer:

  • The causes of the new trend of urbanization in the 19th century were
  • Opening of Suez Canal, the introduction of steam navigation, construction of Railways, Canals, and harbours.
  • Growth of factory industries etc.

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Question 5.
Write a short note on Cantonment towns.
Answer:
The British occupied Indian territory by military force and established camps called cantonments in which army people lived and later grown to cities.

Question 6.
What were the regions covered in the Madras presidency during the British regime?
Answer:
The region covered in the Madras Presidency during the British regime covered were

  • Modem day Tamil Nadu
  • The Lakshadweep Island
  • Northern Kerala
  • Rayalaseema
  • Coastal Andhra
  • Districts of Karnataka and various districts of southern Odisha.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe colonial urban development.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period img-1
Answer:

  • British developed new centres of trade like Calcutta, Madras and Bombay on the Eastern and Western coast.
  • Madras, Bombay and Calcutta were fortified by British.
  • Britishers built homes, shops and Churches, commercial and administrative headquarters.
  • Britishers acquired political control of India after the Battle of Plassey in 1757 and the trade expanded for the East India Company.
  • Calcutta, Bombay and Madras became Presidency cities in the late 18th Century.

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Question 2.
Trace the origin and growth of Madras.
Answer:
Origin and Growth of Madras:
(a) The beginning of the city of Madras goes back to the earliest stages of British commercial enterprise in India. The English East India Company was started in 1600 A.D(C.E).

(b) The English, after some efforts secured the privilege of building a factory at Masulipatnam. It was well protected from the monsoon winds.

(c) The official grant for the land was given by Damarla Venkatapathy Nayak, the deputy of the Raja of Chandragiri (12km west of Tirupathi). Damarla gave the British a piece of land between Cooum river and the Egmore.

(d) India Company’s Francis Day accompanied by his interpreter Beri Thimmappa and superior Andrew Cogan. By this Francis Day and Andrew Cogan (the chief of the Masulipatnam Factory), was granted permission to establish a factory – cum – trading post and a fort at Madrasapatnam in 1639.

(e) This fortified settlement came to be known as Fort St. George settlement. It is otherwise referred to as the White Town. While the nearby villages inhabited by the local population was called Black Town. Collectively the White Town and the Black Town were called Madras.

Question 3.
India became an agricultural colony of Britain. How?
Answer:

  • The traditional industrial base of Indian cities, made by the indigenous handcraft production was destroyed by the Industrial Revolution.
  • Heavy taxes were imposed for the Indian goods imported into Britain.
  • This led to the decline of Indian industries.
  • Thus, India became the agricultural colony of Britain.

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VIII. Project and Activity:

Question 1.
Make an album – ‘Making of Chennai’ (from early period till now)
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Mark port cities, cantonment towns, hill stations on the outline map of India, (any four places from each)
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period img-2

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The evolution of towns has occurred in.
(a) ancient towns
(b) medieval towns
(c) modern towns
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 2.
Most of the ancient towns in India developed as.
(a) administrative centres
(b) religious centres
(c) cultural centres
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

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Question 3.
Some of the important medieval towns of India are.
(a) Delhi, Hyderabad, and Harappa
(b) Jaipur, Lucknow, and Agra
(c) Nagpur, Madurai, and Mohenjadaro
(d) Madurai, Varanasi, and Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Jaipur, Lucknow, and Agra

Question 4.
The British developed new towns depending on it.
(a) location
(b) purpose
(c) resources
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 5.
Deindustrialization under the British took place due to their.
(a) economic policy
(b) industrial policy
(c) political policy
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) economic policy

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Question 6.
One of the old populous manufacturing towns was.
(a) Delhi
(b) Harappa
(c) Dacca
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Dacca

Question 7.
The introduction of railways in British India resulted in.
(a) the diversion of trade routes
(b) export of raw materials
(c) uprooting the traditional industries
(d) ail the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 8.
British developed new centers of trade at.
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
The trade of English East India Company expanded in.
(a) 1639
(b) 1661
(c) 1690
(d) 1757
Answer:
(d) 1757

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Question 10.
The British established the cantonments since they needed them.
(a) raw materials
(b) commercial centers
(c) strong military camps
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) strong military camps

Question 11.
Some of the hill stations developed by the British were.
(a) Kedamath and Badrinath
(b) Simla and Nainital
(c) Kanpur and Lahore
(d) Srinagar and Delhi
Answer:
(b) Simla and Nainital

Question 12.
The charter _______established Municipal administration in the three presidency Towns
(a) 1812
(b) 1793
(c) 1850
(d) 1909
Answer:
(b) 1793

Question 13.
English trade did not thrive at Masulipatnam due to.
(a) Lack of resources
(b) Leak of Transport
(c) Famine
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Famine

Question 1 4.
Francis Day was.
(a) The Director of East India Company
(b) Member of the Masulipatnam Council
(c) Mayor of Madras Municipal Corporation
(d) The Chief of the Masulipatnam Factory
Answer:
(b) Member of the Masulipatnam Council

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Question 15.
Beri Thimmappa was.
(a) The Deputy of the Raja of Chandragiri
(b) An Interpreter
(c) Superior of Francis Day
(d) Councillor
Answer:
(b) An Interpreter

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The medieval towns of India functioned either as______city or______city.
  2. At the beginning of the eighteenth century, the policies of the British proved harmful to the process of______.
  3. The native rulers lost their kingdom to the British by means of various______ of the colonial power.
  4. Srinagar was a______recreational centre.
  5. Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of______.
  6. The introduction of______made hill station more accessible.
  7. Damarla gave the British a piece of land between Cooum river and______.
  8. Collectively the White Town and the Black Town were called______.
  9. Srirangarayapatnam and Chennapatnam were together known______
  10. Madras was officially renamed Chennai in______.
  11. In western India______was the main port of the East India Company.

Answer:

  1. Fort, port
  2. urbanisation
  3. policies
  4. Mughal
  5. Sikkim
  6. railways
  7. Egmore
  8. Madras
  9. Madrasapatnam
  10. 1996
      1. Bombay

III. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period img-3

Answer:

  1. d
  2. a
  3. e
  4. b
  5. c

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IV. State True or False:

  1. During ancient times most of the towns developed as headquarters of Kingdoms.
  2. The policies of the British proved useful in the process of urbanisation.
  3. The stiff competition of imported goods crashed down the industrial structure in India.
  4. Madras, Calcutta and Bombay became the prominent commercial centres under the British.
  5. The British developed the hill stations as Sanatoriums also.
  6. By the nature of railway transport, all the towns were located on the hills.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. True
  5. True
  6. False

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The trade of English East India company expanded after 1757.
Reason (R): The British gradually acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true
(i) Ripon’s Resolution is known as MagnaCarta of Local Self-Government.
(ii) Lord Mayo’s famous Resolution of 1870 supported the development of local self-government.
(iii) After Independence India got the unique opportunity of moulding local government.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The British established cantonments.
Reason (R): The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Mention the names of the few ancient towns in India.
Answer:
Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Varanasi, Allahabad and Madurai are well – known ancient towns in India.

Question 2.
Write a note on Medieval towns in India.
Answer:

  • During medieval times, most of the towns developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms.
  • They functioned as either fort city or port city.
  • Important among them is Delhi. Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, and Nagpur.

Question 3.
Mention a few Coastal towns.
Answer:

  1. The Europeans first developed some coastal towns.
  2. They were Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry.

Question 4.
Mention the three main cities developed by the British.
Answer:

  1. The British after consolidated their power in India developed three main cities – Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkatta.
  2. They served as administrative headquarters and trading centres.

Question 5.
How were the newly developed towns known?
Answer:
The newly developed towns are known differently as hill towns, industrial towns, court towns, railway station towns, cantonments and administrative towns.

Question 6.
Mention the factors which led to the decline of Indian Industries.
Answer:

  1. The traditional industrial base of Indian cities, was destroyed by Industrial revolution.
  2. The high import duties and other restrictions imposed on the import of Indian goods into Britain and Europe led to the decline of Indian industries.

Question 7.
Why was there a new trend of urbanisation in the latter half of the nineteenth century?
Answer:

  1. The opening of Suez Canal
  2. Introduction of Steam Navigation
  3. Construction of railways
  4. Canals, harbours, growth of factory industries, coal mining, tea plantation, banking, shipping and insurance, all these created a new trend urbanisation in the latter half of the nineteenth century.

Question 8.
Write a note on the administration of the Presidency towns.
Answer:

  1. The Governor-General to appoint justices of the peace in the Presidency towns.
  2. After various trials, a system of government was evolved with essential features like a large corporation with elected members, a strong independent executive authority to check accounts and perform essential duties such as sanitation water supply and collection of revenue etc.

Question 9.
How did Calcutta become a Presidency?
Answer:

  1. In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at Sutanati.
  2.  In 1698, they secured Zamindari rights over Sutanati, Calcutta and Gobindpur.
  3. The company established Fort William at Calcutta.
  4. Calcutta became Presidency with a Governor and Council to manage its affairs.

Question 10.
How did the administrative headquarters emerge as the most important towns and cities of the country?
Answer:

  1. By the beginning of 20th century, Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had become the leading administration, commercial and industrial cities of India.
  2. These cities became the central commercial area with buildings of European style.
  3. Sub urban railways, tram car and city buses gave the colonial cities a new look and status.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the evolution of towns in India.
Answer:

  1. The evolution of towns has occurred in different ways and in different stages in India.
  2. They can be classified into ancient towns, medieval towns and modem towns.
  3.  Most of the ancient towns like Harlappa. Mohenjodaro, Varanasi, Allahabad and Madurai developed as administrative, religious and cultural centres.
  4. The medieval towns like Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdom.
  5. The Europeans first developed some coastal towns such as Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry in modem India.
  6. Then the British developed Madras, Bombay and Calcutta as the administrative headquarters and trading centres.
  7. The newly developed towns are known differently as hill towns, industrial towns, court towns, railway station towns, cantonments and administrative towns.

Question 2.
Write about the development of Local Government in British India.
Answer:
The development of local government in British India may be traced in three distinct phases.
(a) First phase (1688-1882):

  1. Municipal government in India has been in existence since 1688 with the formation of Madras Municipal Corporation with a Mayor.
  2. Sir Josiah Child, one of the Directors of the East India Company was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
  3. The Charter Act of 1793, established Municipal administration in the three
    Presidency Towns.
  4. The Act of 1850 provided the formation of municipalities in North Western Frontier provinces, Oudh and Bombay.

(b) Second phase (1882-1920):

  1. Ripon’s Resolution on local Self – Government was a landmark in the history of local self-government.
  2. So Ripon is rightly called the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India.

(c) Third phase (1920-1950):

  1. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces.
  2. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced Provincial Autonomy.
  3. With the attainment of Independence in 1947 India had the unique opportunity of making and moulding local government to meet the needs of the free nation.

Question 3.
How did Bombay become the main part of Western India?
Answer:

  1. Bombay was initially seven Islands.
  2. It was under, the Portuguese from 1534 onwards.
  3. Portuguese king gave it as a dowry to Charles II of England when he married the former’s sister in 1661.
  4. King leased it to the East India Company.
  5. The city of Bombay began to grow when the East India Company started using Bombay as its main port in Western India.
  6.  In 1687, the English East India Company transferred its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language

Students can Download English Lesson 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Get a Practical Study with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Grammar to make learning language much easy for you and score good grades in exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language

Warm up

Question (a)
Name a few languages spoken in India:
Answer:
Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada, Marathi

Question (b)
Mention a few international languages:
Answer:
Spanish, French, Latin, Hebrew, Greek, English

Question (c)
The box below gives details of a few languages and their origin. Arrange them chronologically.

Chinese – 1250 BC (BCE) Hebrew – 1000 BC (BCE) Latin – 75 BC (BCE) Arabic – 512 AD (CE)
Tamil – 300 BC (BCE) Greek – 1500 BC (BCE) Sanskrit – 2000 BC (BCE)

Answer:

Sanskrit – 2000 BC (BCE) Greek – 1500 BC (BCE) Chinese – 1250 BC (BCE) Arabic – 512 AD (CE)
Hebrew-1000 BC (BCE) Tamil – 300 BC (BCE) Latin – 75 BC (BCE)

Question (d)
Following are some of the great works in Tamil. Find out their names by filling in the missing letters.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-1

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Textual Questions

1. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences based on your understanding of the letter.

Question (а)
Which is considered the oldest work in Tamil? When was it written?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam is the oldest work in Tamil. It dates back to 200 BCE.

Question (b)
What is the evidence that supports the finding of the oldest Tamil work?
Answer:
Earliest Tamil inscriptions are the evidences which support the finding of the oldest Tamil work.

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Question (c)
Mention the Tamil works that date to the first two centuries of the current era.
Answer:
Sangam anthologies and Pattuppattu date to the first two centuries of the current era.

Question (d)
Name the great Tamil work that speaks volumes on ethics.
Answer:
“Tirukkural” is the great Tamil work which speaks volumes on ethics.

Question (e)
What are the other classical languages mentioned by the author?
Answer:
The other classical languages mentioned by the author are viz. Sanskrit, Greek, Latin, Chinese, Persian and Arabic.

Question (f)
Can you define and list the themes explored in Tamil Literature? Why?
Answer:
No, one can’t define the themes explored in Tamil literature. There is not a facet of human experience that is not explored and illuminated by Tamil literature.

Question (g)
What is unique about Tamil and its sources?
Answer:
Tamil is one of the primary independent sources of modem Indian culture and tradition.

Question (h)
Modern Indian languages are productive on earth. Why does the author say so?
Answer:
Modem Indian languages are the most fecund and productive languages on the earth. Each has begotten a modem (often medieval) literature that can stand with any of the modem literatures of the world.

Question (i)
Which language is as old as Latin?
Answer:
Tamil is as old as Latin and older than Arabic.

Question (j)
Why is it said that Tamil has the most independent tradition?
Answer:
Tamil arose as an entirely independent tradition with almost no influence from Sanskrit and other languages. Its ancient literature is indescribably vast and rich.

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Question (k)
What is the role of Classical Tamil in Modern Tamil and Malayalam?
Answer:
Just as Sanskrit is the source of the modem Indo-Aryan languages, classical Tamil is the source language of modem Tamil and Malayalam.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
Who is considered “Tamil Thatha” and why?
Answer:
Dr. U. Ve. Swaminatha Aiyar is considered Tamil Thatha because he had collected old palm leaf manuscripts of ancient Tamil books and catalogued them with the support of Damotharapillai.

Question (b)
What has Mr. George L Hart try to make?
Answer:
Mr. George L Hart has tried to make a comparative analysis of classical languages of the world.

Question (c)
What was the specific task assigned to George Hart by Prof. Maraimalai?
Answer:
Professor Maraimalai has asked George Hart to write regarding the position of Tamil as a classical language.

Question (d)
What does George L Hart state unequivocally?
Answer:
He unequivocally states that, by any criteria one may choose, Tamil is one of the greatest classical literatures and traditions of the world.

Question (e)
How antique is Tamil?
Answer:
Tamil is of considerable antiquity. It predates the literatures of modem Indian languages by more than thousand years.

2. Answer the following questions in three or four sentences each.

Question (а)
Supreme works in Tamil elevate it to be treated as sacred as the Vedas. How?
Answer:
Tamil has its own works that are considered to be as sacred as the vedas that are recited alongside vedic mantras in the great Vaisnava temples of South India.

Question (b)
Tamil is a touchstone to understand the Dravidian’s nature and development. Elucidate.
Answer:
As Sanskrit is the most conservative and least changed of Indo-Aryan languages, Tamil is the most conservative of the Dravidian languages, the touchstone that linguists must consult to understand the nature and development of Dravidian culture.

Question (c)
How do you correlate the richness of Tamil language With Indian culture?
Answer:
Unlike other modem languages of India, Tamil meets the criteria laid down for a classical tradition. It meets each of the requirements. It is extremely old. It is as old as Latin and older than Arabic. It arose as an entirely independent tradition, with almost no influence from Sanskrit or other languages. And its ancient literature is indescribably vast and rich.

Additional Questions

Question (а)
How are Sangam anthologies and pattupattu important?
Answer:
The great work of ancient Tamil, the Sangam anthologies and the pattupattu, date to first two centuries of the era. They are the first great secular body of poetry written in India, predating Kalidasa’s works.

Question (b)
How does the author compliment the indigenous nature of Tamil?
Answer:
Tamil Constitutes only literary tradition indigenous to India that is not derived from Sanskrit. Indeed, its literature arose before the influence of Sanskrit become strong in the south. So it is qualitatively different from anything we have in Sanskrit or other Indian languages.

Question (c)
How does the author prove that Tamil has an extremely rich and vast intellectual tradition?
Answer:
Tamil has its own poetic theory, its own grammatical tradition and its own esthetics. A large body of its literature that is quite unique. It shows Indian sensibility that is entirely different from Sanskrit or other Indian languages. Then it contains rich and vast intellectual tradition.

3. Answer the following in a paragraph of 100-150 words each.

Question (a)
How does the author justify the statement that Tamil is a classical language?
Answer:
To qualify as a classical tradition, a language must fit several criteria. It should be ancient. It should be an independent tradition that arose mostly on its own, not an off-shoot of another tradition. It must have a large and extensively rich body of ancient literature. Unlike the other modem languages of India, Tamil meets each of these requirements. It is extremely old as Latin and older than Arabic. It arose as an entirely independent tradition with almost no influence from Sanskrit or other languages. Its ancient literature is indescribably vast and rich.

Tamil is of considerable antiquity. It predates the literatures of other modem Indian languages by more than a thousand years. Its oldest work Tholkappiyam, contains parts that, judging from the earliest Tamil inscriptions, dates back to about 200 BCE. The greatest works of ancient Tamil, the Sangam anthologies and Pattuppattu, date to the first two centuries of the current era. They are the first great secular body of poetry written in India, predating Kalidasa’s works by two hundred years.

Question (b)
Tirukkural is a fine example of an outstanding quality of classical Tamil Literature. Substantiate.
Answer:
Tirukkural is one of the greatest works on ethics. But this is merely one of a myriad of major and extremely varied works that comprise Tamil classical tradition. There is not a facet of human existence that is not explored and illuminated by this great literature. Tirukkural the sacred verses, is a classical text considered one of the greatest works ever written on ethics and morality, chiefly secular ethics. It is known for its universality and non-denominational nature. Traditionally it has been appreciated as “the universal veda” and “universal code of conduct”. The ‘Kural’ is often called the masterpiece of Tamil literature both in philosophical and literary calibre. Next to Bible, Tirukkural is translated into a large number of languages across the world. Its universality appeals to readers in Japan and Singapore as well.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
The credentials of Mr. George L Hart make him absolutely eligible to write regarding the position of Tamil among the classical languages of the world – Explain.
Answer:
George L Hart has been a professor of Tamil at the university of California, Berkeley since ’ 1975. He is currently the holder of Tamil chair at the institution. He received his degree in Sanskrit in 1970 from Harvard University. He was appointed at first as Sanskrit professor at the University of Wisconsin Madison, in 1969. Besides Tamil and Sanskrit, he knows languages of Greek and Latin. He has read extensively in Greek and Latin literatures in their original. He is also well acquainted with comparative linguistics and literatures of modem Europe. Thus, he is the most eligible person to write regarding the position of Tamil among classical languages of the world.

Question (b)
How does George L Hart prove beyond doubt that Tamil is one of the primary independent sources of modern Indian culture and tradition?
Answer:
Prof. George L Hart has extensively written on the influence of Tamil tradition on Sanskrit’s poetic tradition. But equally important, the great sacred Hindu devotional literature in Tamil beginning with Sangam anthologies have undergirded the development of modem Hinduism. Bhagavatpurana has widely borrowed from it. There are other texts in Telugu, Kannada and Sanskrit which have drawn heavily from Tamil literature. Tamil has its work which are considered as sacred as the Vedas that are recited alongside Vedamantras in the great Vaisnava temples of South India. Then, George L Hart proves Tamil is one of the primary independent sources of modem Indian culture and tradition.

Question (c)
How does the author endorse the greatness of modern Indian languages?
Answer:
The author is aware of the richness of modem Indian languages. They are among the most fecund and productive languages on the earth. Each has begotten a modem (and often medieval) literature that can stand with any of the major literatures of the world. Yet none of them is a classical language. Like English and the other modem languages of Europe with possible exception of Greek, they rose on preexisting traditions rather late and developed in the second millennium.

Vocabulary

(a) Analogy

Now complete each analogy with appropriate words from the list given below:

changeable indifference
nuance insignificant
refusal long-established
drastic hide

CLASSICAL : TRADITIONAL
ancient : ______

UNIQUE : COMMON
sensibility : ______

INDIGENOUS : NATIVE
extreme : ______

FACET : ASPECT
subtlety : ______

SACRED : IRREVERENT
conservative : ______

OBVIOUS : DOUBTFUL
vital : ______

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

INFLUENCE : IMPACT
denial : ______

ILLUMINATE : DARKEN
explore : ______

Answer:

  1. long-established
  2. indifference
  3. drastic
  4. nuance
  5. changeable
  6. insignificant
  7. refusal
  8. hide

(b) Suffixes
Match the -ics words with their appropriate meanings. You can make use of a dictionary.

S. No. Words Meanings
1. Linguistics the scientific study of a language
2. Numismatics the study of principles of beauty
3. Electro Dynamics the study of speech sounds
4. Phonetics the study of genes
5. Aesthetics the study of analysing information shown in numbers
6. Genetics the study of government and using power in public life
7. Statistics the study of building and flying air-craft
8. Politics the study of money and coins
9. Aeronautics the study of processing data for storage and retrieval
10. Informatics the study of the way that electric currents and magnetic fields affect each other

Answer:

  1. the scientific study of a language
  2. the study of money and coins
  3. the study of the way that electric currents and magnetic fields affect each other
  4. the study of speech sounds
  5. the study of principles of beauty
  6. the study of genes
  7. the study of analysing information shown in numbers
  8. the study of government and using power in public life
  9. the study of building and flying air-craft
  10. the study of processing data for storage and retrieval

(c) Homonyms, Homophones and Homograph Complete the following with appropriate words from the box given.

night/knight scent/sent/ cent stationary/ stationery lead/lead reign/rain/rein
band/banned bows/boughs sell/cell pass/pause/paws present/present
  1. My mother brought an expensive watch as a birthday _______
  2. Everybody accepted the fact that overeating could easily _______ to obesity.
  3. In the middle ages, people were trained to become a _______ at a young age.
  4. Akshitha’s brother plays the bugle in his school _______
  5. The weather is fine and the air is filled with the _______ of lemons.
  6. What a splendid _______ the emperor Alexander’s might have been!
  7. Humans have foot, animals have _______
  8. They know how to _______ their mobile phones online.
  9. The teacher is so happy that all the students are
  10. The cars were in the traffic jam.
  11. It is not easy for him to tie in his shoe laces

Answer:

  1. present
  2. lead
  3. knight
  4. band
  5. scent
  6. reign
  7. paws
  8. sell
  9. present
  10. stationary
  11. bows

(d) Collocation
Collocation: It is a pair or group of words that always appears in the same order. Here are some collocations picked from the lesson:

subtlety and profundity greatness and richness
culture and tradition vast and rich

Some of the commonly used collocations are:

read and write pros and cons sooner or later
dead or alive null and void black and white

(e) Descriptive Words
Go through the letter of Prof. George L Hart once again and enlist the words describing Tamil.

e.g. oldest indegenous unique classical secular
universal independent vast rich vital

Identify the words that mean the following.

Indigenous myriad
conservative indescribable
antiquity aesthetics
universality secular
  1. This is something that is related to ancient time ______
  2. The word that describes pleasing in appearance ______
  3. Things that are not specifically religious ______
  4. The word to mention a large number ______
  5. This describes something which is produced or belongs to a particular region ______
  6. The thing that cannot be described ______
  7. This one is something which cannot come out of tradition
  8. The quality of existing or involving everywhere

Answer:

  1. antiquity
  2. aesthetics
  3. secular
  4. myriad
  5. indigenous
  6. indescribable
  7. conservative
  8. universality

Listening Activity

The oath taken by Graduates of Medicine is given as Listening passage.

Hippocratic Oath:
I solemnly pledge myself to consecrate my life to the service of humanity;
I will give to my teachers the respect and gratitude which is their due;
I will practice my profession with conscience and dignity;
The health of my patient will be my first consideration;
I will respect the secrets which are confided in me;
I will maintain by all the means in my power, the honour and the noble tradition of the medical profession;

My colleagues will be my brothers; I will not permit considerations of religion, nationality, race, party politics or social standing to intervene between my duty and my patient;
I will maintain the utmost respect for human life, from the time of conception, even under threat. 1 will not use my medical knowledge contrary to the laws of humanity;
I make these promises solemnly, freely and upon my honour.

After listening to the pledge played on the tape recorder carefully, fill in the following . statements with the right options given:

Question (a)
The medical graduates take oath to dedicate their ______ to the service of humanity.
(a) money
(ii) talent
(iii) life
(iv) nation
Answer:
(iii) life

Question (b)
The ______ of the patient should be the doctor’s greatest concern.
(i) dignity
(ii) gratitude
(iii) health
(iv) honour
Answer:
(iii) health

Question (c)
The would-be graduates promise to practise their profession with ______
and dignity.
(i) conscience
(ii) knowledge
(iii) understanding
(iv) respect
Answer:
(ii) knowledge

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question (d)
They should respect the ______ of the patients.
(i) age
(ii) wealth
(iii) background
(iv) secrets
Answer:
(iv) secrets

Question (e)
The pledge is also to treat the patients without any ______
(i) fee
(ii) discrimination
(iii) interest
(iv) hatred
Answer:
(ii) discrimination

Speaking Activity

Debate
Important Rules

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-3

  • The speakers must greet the chairperson, judges and the audience.
  • The team supporting or opposing the motion must not change their point of view.
  • If a speaker makes a statement, he or she must be able to provide evidence or reasons to support.
  • The facts presented in a debate must be accurate.
  • Speakers may not bring up new points in a rebuttal speech. Reinforce your points and conclude confidently.
  • Points must be conveyed clearly and effectively without getting diverted from the main stream.

Task

(a) Now it’s your turn to speak against the motion “Wars create more problem than they solve.” Express your views with valid points.

Student A
Respected judge, dignitaries on the dias and off the dias. I have come before you to speak against the topic” wars create more problems than they solve.

Abraham Lincoln waged the civil war in America to put an end to slavery. Of course many people died on both sides and Lincoln himself was assassinated soon after the abolition of slavery in America. But today America is a dream destination for any one who wants to make a fortune trading his individual expertise in Science, technology and ICT because the democratic foundation in America is solid and pluralistic culture encourages people from multi-ethnic backgrounds to emigrate and settle there as Americans. Trump administration is now taking a tough stand against emigrants and immigrants.

Student B
Next point we would like to put forward is that when we say “war” do not always think about conventional war. We wage war against poverty, illiteracy, drug addiction, alcoholism, bribery and terrorism. Such wars may not be won over quickly but they are necessary. We can’t allow the government alone to fight such social evils, we need NGOs, students and civil societies and even-principled political parties to fight against them to build a healthy society.

Student C
I would like to add that Swachata Abhiyan itself is a war against ignorance of people about the consequences of keeping their surroundings unclean and polluted. The campaign against Malaria, Dengue fever is a war against ill-health which necessarily generates awareness among people to prevent mosquito-caused illness among the masses.

We can also wage a war against the most dangerous social evil (i.e.) educated unemployment. Instead of just using war of words trying to prove our oratorical skills, we had better focus on skilling of youth in our country so that they can become self-reliant entrepreneurs giving employment to others by utilising ‘Mudra loan’. In fact launching of Atal tinkering labs all over the country at the higher secondary level is the first step in the direction of skilling school students. It is time we realized that paper degrees will not guarantee jobs, we should arm ourselves with the skills demanded in the job market or for opening our own small-scale industries. On behalf of my team, I conclude wars against social evils can solve problems not create new ones.

(b) Conduct a debate for and against the motion.“Mobile phone – a big boon”

Debate – Mobile phone boon or bane
Student A:
Shakespeare has very wisely said: “There is nothing either good or bad, but thinking makes it so.” Similarly, mobile phones in themselves are neither good nor bad; however, the way they are used makes them good or bad. Mobile phones have made our life so easy and full of comforts! Everything is available online now. Our mobile phones have become our e-wallets, e-books, e-payments, e-files, e-folders, etc. Our mobile phones are connected with our Adhar Card, Bank Account, Loans, etc. We do our buying and other transactions using our mobile phones. Life without mobile phones is almost impossible in the modem times. It is neither addiction nor creates distraction. Rather it is a basic necessity in the contemporary times.

I conclude that it is irrational and illogical to say anything negative about mobile phones. As said earlier, they should be used with discretion and precautions.

Mobile Phones – A bane
Student B:
My friend used a beautiful quote in my team’s favour, “There is nothing either good or bad, but thinking makes it so.” Unfortunately , Mobiles have become a source of major distraction for the students. Young boys and girls seem to have become inordinately addicted to these sites. They are thoughtlessly and uselessly wasting their precious time on useless sites.

The overuse of mobile poses serious health issues. Radiation affects eyesight due to over exposure to mobile screen for hours. Besides, mobile phones are also responsible for difficulty in concentration, fatigue, headaches and sleep disorders that can further trigger health complications. Text-neck is a serious health issue faced by mobile phone users. Owing to late night use of mobile phones, the youngsters skip on sleep which further causes health complications. This makes them aggressive and irritated. If you withhold an android phone from a child addicted to games in the mobile phone, he/she starts throwing tantrum. It is a curse that majority of the parents give the android phones to pacify the young children who refuse food and refuse to do homework if phone is withheld for even five minutes. Many young children who gaze at the mobile phone for hours tend to develop eye problems too. Addiction to mobile technology is a dangerous problem facing young children and adults of this country. Child psychologists and social activists are really worried how on earth we are going to wean young children away from the obsessive compulsive disorder of using android mobile phones and how we are going to redeem the youth from the sure disillusionment in continuing virtual friends to the point of ignoring family ties.

The other major disadvantage of the increasing use of such networking sites is the spread of obscenity or addiction to viewing explicit content. It is worrying because even adolescents have easy access to such sites because of the cheap data provided by greedy telecom business men. This is having a very negative impact on the impressionable minds of our young children and leading them astray.

The parents, teachers and the government must look into the problems being caused by mobiles and these networking sites and must formulate a strategy either to curb or completely stop its fast growing negative influence on the minds of our youth. Our youth is the future of our nation. We cannot allow this youth to waste their precious time on mobiles, chatting on the facebook and whatsapp. The same time must be spent on studying, researching and developing leadership or other life-skills. I conclude that it is our moral duty as well as responsibility to lead children and youth on the right path and teach them to make best use of these wonderful gadgets to improve themselves only.

(c) Organize a class debate on the motion ‘The advantages of social websites’. (Use the expressions for arguments like – First, firstly, I mean, My point is, In my opinion, Let me consider, etc.)

The advantages of Social websites
At the outset, let us consider some irrefutable facts .We live in a time and age where information is just a button press away. We are swayed by information all around us. We millennials want to know, read, understand and then speak our minds about it. That is where social media comes into play. Social media is one of the biggest elements that we live with and cannot ignore it. Social media plays a big role in our lives today. We have the access to any kind of information at just a button push away. Anything that is so vastly expanded has both positives and negatives related to it. The power of social media is very high and has its effects on each individual. It is difficult to imagine our lives with social media today and we do pay a price for excessive use. There is a lot of debate about the effects of social media on the society as a whole. Some feel that it’s a boon whereas other feels that it is a curse.

Social media is a collection of websites, applications and other platforms that enable us to share or create content and also helps us to participate in social networking. Social media is not limited to blogging and sharing pictures, there are a lot of strong tools also that social media provides. That is because that the impact of social media is very high and far reaching, it can make or break images.

Of course, I agree that social media is a topic of controversy today, many feel it’s a boon but there is a majority who feels that it is a curse. It has become an inevitable evil. Mostly people feel that social media has destroyed human interaction with a rapid rate and has modified modem human relationships. But there are others who feel that it is a blessing that has connected us to every part of the world, we can meet our loved ones that are far, we can spread awareness through it, we can send security warnings etc. There is a lot that social media can do. But it is an unarguable fact the presence of social media has made our lives convenient, easier and much faster.

In my opinion, mobile phones have not lowered active social life. On the contrary, they have made our social life more active! You must be wondering I am kidding! No I am not. Let, me prove it. The IT revolution has made the internet network so fast and easily accessible. As a result we are using Whatsapp, Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, etc. more often sharing our latest whereabouts regularly, daily, or hourly! We wish our friends, relatives good morning, good afternoon, good, evening, or good night almost daily using picture messages or videos. Was social life ever so active in the past? We send receive invitations, news, and one another’s views through these socializing applications! What will you call this exchange of information? Has it lowered active social life or heightened active social life?

Role of media in Jasmine revolution:
I would like to give some examples as to how social websites can overhaul even governments. In an article “The Emerging Role of Social Media in Political and Regime Change” by Rita Safranek, published in ProQuest, talks about social media as a major catalyst in bringing about the change in many countries that were going through a major period of political unrest. The author talks about the triggering point of the Jasmine Revolution, the self-immolation of Mohamed Bouazizi was captured by passers-by and posted and re-posted on YouTube for everyone to see. Furthermore, the mass protests at his funeral also spread quickly all over. The author goes on to say that despite very strict censorship of the internet by Tunisia’s government, Tunisians were able to emerge as highly connected – 33% of the Tunisian population uses the internet, 16% uses Facebook and 18% uses Twitter.

Although the government did block YouTube during the crucial period of protests, it was unable to stop experienced bloggers and activists from finding alternate methods like by using private and proxy networks to post and re-post various contents and videos all over the cyber world. In fact, there was an eight percent increase in the number of Facebook users in Tunisia in the beginning of January 2011. The nature of the content being shared also changed with time – more content related to the current political situation and unrest was being shared. Although the author credits social media with helping organize the protest and connect activists, she also goes on to say that the social media will not be helpful with running the country which is the current concern in the country at present.

Social media and Jallikkattu Protests:
In my opinion, the success of Jallikkattu is a recent example. The youth of the entire state of Tamil Nadu clamoured for the right to conduct a traditional sport that half of them had only seen on television. How did the Jallikattu case that has been in court for years, suddenly capture the imagination of the masses, enough to make them skip school, college and work . and take to the streets? How they gathered in millions in the Marina beach and camped there for weeks to press their demands in the most incredible manner. The answer to this is buried ‘ beneath superior internet connectivity, hash tags, viral videos, disenchantment and the post-truth phenomenon. Tamil Nadu boasts of spectacular rural teledensity, well ahead of most other parts of the country.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Student B:
In my strong opinion, social media is the single most factor causing depression and anxiety in people. It is also a cause of poor mental growth in children. Increased use of social media ‘ can lead to poor sleeping patterns. There are many other negative effects like cyber bullying, hacking, etc. as well. There is an increased ‘Fear of Missing out’ (FOMO) at an all-time high i in youth because of social media. Such ill inclinations need to be prevented by educating boys, girls and vulnerable women against unguarded use of social websites.

Conclusion: One must carefully weigh the positives and the negatives before engaging excessively in social media. If used in the most judicious way, social media can be a boon for mankind.

Reading

(a) Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the environment that causes harm to the ecosystem. The different kinds of pollution are air pollution, water pollution and land pollution. The release of various gases, finely divided solid particles, or liquid droplets that escape into the atmosphere to disperse and dilute in the environment is called air pollution. Modem society is also concerned about specific types of pollutants, such as noise pollution, light pollution, and plastic pollution.

Particulate matter (PM), also known as particle pollution, is a complex mixture of extremely small particles and liquid droplets that get into the air. These particles if inhaled can affect health. The impact of PM 2.5 is particularly high in South Asia. Outdoor pollution is caused by a variety of pollutants like public and private vehicles, waste burning in the open, power

production industries and construction and even cigarette smoking in public places. Presently, air pollution is a major and growing risk factor for ill health in India. Delhi is one of the most air polluted cities in India. The air in the city as well as areas surrounding it has worsened to extremely hazardous levels in the recent years. This year’s pollution level is the worst in foi r years. Several studies have shown that poor air quality is a cause for many health issues among people with lower respiratory disorders with symptoms like dry cough, breathlessness, wheezing, chest discomfort, serious lung infections and cardio vascular diseases. Some studies throw light on the fact that about 16 per cent of the deaths worldwide in 2015 were due to pollution.

Air Masks are an option to protect oneself outdoor. Air masks can be used while commuting or while one is exposed to a polluted area. Some of these masks also include a layer of Activated carbon to filter the air. They protect us from suspended air particles and particulate matter up to the size of 2.5 microns and above. Their usage is limited to some days and should be disposed off after their prescribed duration of usage. The price for air masks starts from Rs 100 and can go up to Rs 500 and more. We have to take active measures to control pollution and protect ourselves to lead a healthy and pollution free life.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by pollution? Mention the different kinds of pollution.
Answer:
Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the environment that can cause harm to the ecosystem. The different kinds of pollution are air pollution, water pollution and land pollution.

Question 2.
How does Particulate matter cause air pollution?
Answer:
Particulate matter (PM) also known as Particle pollution. It is a complex mixture of extremely small particles and liquid droplets that get into the air. These particles, if inhaled can affect health.

Question 3.
Identify three major causes of pollution in air.
Answer:
The release of various gases, finely divided solid particles, or liquid droplets that escape into the atmosphere to disperse and dilute in the environment are the major causes of air pollution.

Question 4.
Name the types of pollution we encounter now.
Answer:
We encounter air pollution, noise pollution, light pollution and plastic pollution.

Question 5.
What sort of health issues do people face due to air pollution?
Answer:
The quality of air in cities has reduced to hazardous levels. This causes lower respiratory disorders with symptoms like dry cough, breathlessness, wheezing, chest discomfort, serious lung infections and cardio-vascular diseases.

Question 6.
How can we protect ourselves outdoor from air pollution?
Answer:
Air masks can be used while commuting or while one is exposed to a polluted area. Some of these masks also include a layer of Activated Carbon to filter the air. They protect us from suspended air particles and particulate up to the size of 2.5 microns and above.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 7.
Suggest a suitable title to the passage.
Answer:
Rising levels of Pollution and ways to avoid health issues.

Question 8.
Identify the meaning of the word similar to the one used in the fourth para:
Answer:
(a) emerging
(b) filtering
(c) floating
(d) falling

(b) Read the following information given in the table below and answer the questions.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-4

Question (a)
The number of stations between Chennai Central and Hazrat Nizamudin is ______
(i) five
(ii) ten
(iii) eight
(iv) eleven
Answer:
(iii) eight

Question (b)
The train is expected to reach around 8.45 PM
(i) Warangal
(ii) Vijayawada
(iii) Bhopal
(iv) Nagpur
Answer:
(iv) Nagpur

Question (c)
Between the train runs at it’s maximum speed.
(i) Bhopal and Gwalior
(ii) Bhopal and Jhansi
(iii) Bhopal and Hazarat Nizamudin
(iv) Bhopal and Agra
Answer:
(ii) Bhopal and Jhansi

Question (d)
Almost the train reaches Vijayawada.
(i) the day after
(ii) around early morning
(iii) late night
(iv) around noon
Answer:
(iv) around noon

Question (e)
People prefer the Rajadhani express to travel from Chennai to reach the capital because
(i) it reaches the destination on the same day
(ii) The charge is reasonable
(iii) the train halts at eight stations
(iv) it is the shortest route from Chennai to New Delhi
Answer:
(iii) the train halts at eight stations

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question (f)
The destination of Rajadhani express is
(i) Hazarat Nizamudin
(ii) New Delhi junction
(iii) Old Delhi
(iv) Rajkot
Answer:
(i) Hazarat Nizamudin

Grammar

Non-Finite Verbs
Task 1
Underline the gerunds in the following sentences.

1. Boys love playing cricket.
2. I love eating ice creams.
3. Jessie enjoys bothering others.
4. Painting is an interesting hobby.
5. Dancing gives me joy.

Task 2
Use the gerundial form of the verb in the brackets and fill in the blanks.

  1. _________ (exercise) is good for health.
  2. _________ (fly) a kite is fun.
  3. _________ (shop) is my favourite hobby.
  4. My friend waited for the _________ (meet).
  5. Huckleberry Finn was responsible for _________ (signal).

Answers

  1. Exercising
  2. Flying
  3. Shopping
  4. meeting
  5. signalling

Task 3
Fill in the blanks with the correct infinitives.

  1. Deva forgot ______ the letter.
  2. The doctor advised the patient ______ his medicines without fail.
  3. Rajesh went to the airport ______ his friend.
  4. The bear climbed up the tree ______ the honey.
  5. The boys went to the forest ______ birds.
  6. tried hard ______ both ends meet.
  7. The archaeologists are trying ______ the ruins of Keelady.
  8. Solar energy is used ______ electricity.
  9. ______ concession, you have to apply well in advance.
  10. We have plans ______ to London during summer vacation.

Answer:

  1. to post
  2. to take
  3. to receive
  4. to eat
  5. to trap
  6. to make
  7. to rebuild
  8. to produce
  9. To get
  10. to go

Task 4
Combine each of the following pairs of sentences using participles. The first one is done for you.
Example: 1 didn’t know what to do. I phoned the police.

Not knowing what to do, I phoned the police.

Question 1.
The baby cried. She was feeling sleepy.
Answer:
Feeling sleepy, the baby cried.

Question 2.
He lived alone. He had forgotten everybody.
Answer:
Living alone, he had forgotten everybody

Question 3.
She walked out. She was smiling.
Answer:
Smiling, she walked out.

Question 4.
The child says he needs attention. He shouts loudly.
Answer:
Shouting loudly, the child says that he needs attention.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 5.
threw the pen. It was broken.
Answer:
The pen being broken, I threw it away.

Question 6.
His coat is tattered. It needs mending.
Answer:
Being tattered, the coat needs mending.

Question 7.
heard the noise. I turned around.
Answer:
Hearing the noise, I turned around

Question 8.
He was dissatisfied. He quit his job.
Answer:
Being dissatisfied, he quit his job.

Question 9.
The politician entered the campus. He was accompanied by many comrades.
Answer:
Being accompanied by many comrades, the politician entered the campus.

Question 10.
The girl entered the room. She was singing a song.
Answer:
Singing a song, the girl entered the room.

Articles And Determiners

Articles
Task 1
Complete the following exercise using a/ an/ the/ ‘o’ (no article) in the underlined space where appropriate. Change capital letters to lower case letters at the beginning of a sentence if necessary.

According to (1) ______ National Weather Report, cyclones are winds circulating (2) ______ counter clockwise in (3) ______ Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in (4) ______ southern Hemisphere. Cyclones are usually accompanied by(5) ______ stormy weather. Tornadoes and hurricanes are types of cyclones.(6) ______ hurricane is (7) ______ cyclone that forms over (8) ______ tropical oceans and seas. (9) ______ hurricane rotates in (10) ______ shape of (11) ______ oval or a circle. (12) ______ Hurricane Andrew, which hit (13) ______ coasts of Louisiana and Southern Florida in August 1992, caused (14) ______ extreme devastation. It was one of (15) ______ most devastating hurricanes ever to hit (16) ______ U.S.. Fourteen people died of (17) ______ Andrew’s effect.
Answer:

  1. the
  2. ‘o’
  3. the
  4. the
  5. a
  6. the
  7. The
  8. a
  9. the
  10. The
  11. the
  12. an
  13. The
  14. the
  15. ‘o’
  16. the
  17. the
  18. the

Task 2
Complete the following sentences using appropriate determiners.

  1. Only _____ people can afford to buy a flat in Chennai.
  2. She earns so _____ that she could not make a decent living.
  3. _____ information that she gave proved false.
  4. How _____ sugar do you want?
  5. I am very tired today, as I had _____ guests today.
  6. _____ of my students have become doctors.
  7. _____ do I know about his personal life.
  8. How _____ pages did you read?
  9. _____ fertilizer used these days spoils the soil.
  10. During my student life I used to give _____ trouble to my teachers.

Answer:

  1. a few
  2. little
  3. The
  4. much
  5. some
  6. Some
  7. Little
  8. many
  9. The
  10. much

Degrees Of Comparison- Transformation
Task 1
Transform each of the following sentences using the comparative degree without changing the meaning.

Question 1.
Very few Indian languages are as ancient as Tamil.
Answer:
No other Indian language is more ancient than Tamil.

Question 2.
Hurricanes are as dangerous as tornadoes.
Answer:
Hurricanes are not more dangerous than tornadoes.

Question 3.
This is the most challenging task I have ever undertaken.
Answer:
This task is more challenging than any other task I have undertaken.

Question 4.
E-mail is the fastest means of communication.
Answer:
E-mail is faster than all other means of communication.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 5.
Compulsive gambling is the worst habit a man can develop.
Answer:
No other habit is more compulsive than gambling that a man can develop.

Task 2
Rewrite each of the following sentences using the superlative degree retaining the meaning.

Question 1.
Shakespeare is greater than many other dramatists of the world.
Answer:
Shakespeare is the greatest dramatist in the world.

Question 2.
Some people think that nothing is as important as money in life.
Answer:
Some people think that money is the most important thing in life.

Question 3.
The peacock is more colourfull than any other bird found in India.
Answer:
The peacock is the most colourfull bird in India.

Question 4.
Very few people in this town are as generous as Mr. Mohan.
Answer:
Mr. Mohan is the most generous person in this town.

Question 5.
No other planet in our solar system is as cold as Neptune.
Answer:
Neptune is the coldest planet in our solar system.

Question 6.
cannot do anything better for you than this.
Answer:
This is the best thing I can do for you.

Task 3
Replace the comparative adjectives in the following sentences with their positive forms.

Question 1.
Rural life is certainly more peaceful than urban life.
Answer:
Urban life is not so peaceful as rural life.

Question 2.
The pen is mightier than the sword.
Answer:
Sword is not so mighty as the pen.

Question 3.
Train journey is more comfortable than bus journey.
Answer:
Bus journey is not so comfortable as train journey.

Question 4.
My mother can speak more sweetly than anyone else.
Answer:
No one can speak so sweetly as my mom.

Question 5.
Gold is not more useful than iron.
Answer:
Gold is not so useful as iron.

Writing

Slogan Writing
Tips for writing an effective slogan

Highlight a key benefit. The point of a slogan is to differentiate a product or brand from that of its competitors, while also underscoring the company’s general mission.

  1. Explain the company’s commitment.
  2. Be consistent.
  3. Keep it short and simple.
  4. Give them a rhythm, rhyme and ring.
  5. Stay honest.
  6. Make it timeless.
  7. Be unique and different.

While writing slogans to create awareness among the public

  • Explain the need for the change.
  • Make it sensible and easy to understand.
  • Keep in mind the target audience and use catchy phrases to suit the audience.

Look at the pictures given below, and write slogans to advertise the products. Suggest your own

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Sparkle Toothpaste – Removes bacteria and strengthens the gums.
Zoom Cam – Captures beautiful moments
Revos Water Purifier – Pure, natural, refreshing and healthful.
Mughal Gulab Jamun – Roly-poly syrupy sweet, melts in your mouth as soon as you eat.

Write slogans to create awareness of the following topics using the tips given above.

  • Junk food – Fast food and fast death
  • Labour Day – Labours are your many hands, keep them relaxed and happy.
  • Save Water – Don’t let life slip down the drain.
  • Yoga – Takes nothing but gives you health, fitness and peace.
  • Blood Donation – Your blood can give life to someone.

Paragraph Writing

Write a paragraph of about 150 words, on the following topics.

Question (a)
The teacher I like the most
Answer:
I like my science miss Sangeetha very much. She always uses very lively demonstration to help us understand not only principles or formulaes in Science, but also human values. One day she taught us how plants also have the capacity to feel happiness and respond to the language of love. We thought it was a joke. The next day she brought two plants of the same size in two pots. She asked us to keep one in the next room window and one in our classroom near the window. Both plants were watered regularly. The plant in the classroom window was showered with love and we sang songs and spoke to her in an endearing language. The other plant was ignored. In three months time, the plant we doted on grew tall and started blooming. But the other plant was drooping and about to die. One girl in my class begged the teacher to give the same treatment to the other plant. Both the plants were kept together and the treatment continued. In the next few7 months both grew tall. It became difficult to tell them apart when we asked science miss how7 this happened she said, “With love everything grows.” So, I like Sangeetha teacher very much.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question (b)
The value of discipline
Answer:
Discipline is of much value in every walk of our lives. We need to be disciplined in the school,home, office, institutions, factory, playground, battlefield or other places. It is necessaiy for leading a happy and peaceful life. It gives us lots of great opportunities, the right way to go ahead, to learn new things in life, to experiences more within less time, etc. and grow. Whereas, indiscipline gives no peace and progress in life, instead it creates lots of problems. Discipline is the act of keeping one’s body, mind and soul under control and doing all the works in the right manner in the right time. It is also following the orders of our parents, elders, superiors, teachers and officers who lead us towards success. We need to behave well in an orderly manner. We should value the importance of discipline in our daily lives. People, who are not disciplined in their lives; face lots of problems and ultimately feel disappointed with themselves.

Question (c)
Need for Moral Education in schools
Answer:
Education is said to be complete only when it leads to the all round development of an individual, which encompasses not only intellectual but also moral development. The social thinking of an individual is influenced by moral education which makes him/ her a person who can distinguish between what is right and what is wrong. In modem times, imparting moral education has become a basic need, where one is fast witnessing a degeneration of moral values. Students are the future of our country. The future of our country depends on the moral values imparted to them. Moral lessons should be properly taught among students in homes, schools and colleges. Moral education is concerned with moral virtues, such as respect for others, honesty and responsibility. It is important as it gives an understanding of diversity, tolerance, mutual respect and pluralistic values. Since young students readily and unconsciously learn whatever is taught to them, whether good or bad, if they do not have proper guidance, they may get misled. Therefore, it is crucial that the students be given moral education which will make them acquire sound religious and moral principles, that will lead to the development of appropriate attitudes and values that will help them take good decisions in their adulthood.

Question (d)
The importance of Good Health
Answer:
We are familiar with the saying, “Health is wealth”. Health is a state of complete physical, social and mental well being and not merely the absence of a disease which is more important than any amounts of wealth. When there is health and peace of mind, a person can achieve more than even he/she can imagine. It is a resource of everyday life. Mahatma Gandhi has said, “It is health which is real wealth, and not pieces of gold and silver”. There is nothing more blessed than to be healthy all through life without being dependent on anyone. People who don’t have a healthy lifestyle, suffer a range of health disorders like obesity, high blood pressure, heart diseases, diabetes, high cholesterol, kidney problems, liver disorders, etc. An unhealthy person will always be worried and cannot be cheerful. Being healthy takes lots of efforts, although, it is rewarding. Being in good health alone allows a person to perform well in their daily lives and be successful.

Question (e)
The importance of Reading
Answer:
Descartes says, “The reading of all good books is like a conversation with the finest people of the past centuries.” It is rightly said that Books are your best friend as reading helps build up your confidence and uplifts your mood. Reading can help one grow and give a new perspective in life. The more one reads, the more one falls in love w’ith reading. Reading develops language skills and vocabulary. Reading books is also a way to relax and reduce stress. Reading increases creativity and enhances one’s understanding of life.

Reading also inspires one to develop writing skill as well. If one wants to adopt some good habits in life then reading should definitely be on the top of one’s list. It plays a vital role in the positive mental attitude and development of a person. Reading leads to self-improvement. The pleasure of reading cannot be expressed in words. One needs to read to experience the joy of reading. There are many advantages of good reading habits which keeps one’s mind active, strong and healthy. Reading is essential for one’s overall personality growth and development. Besides, one will never feel bored or lonely if one develops good reading habits.

Observe the following pictures and write a paragraph in about 150 words about each one of them.

Question (a)

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Answer:
Now, in India, we have the technology to predict the time and location of a cyclone at least 6 to 10 hours prior to its occurrence. This picture reminds one of the devastation caused by Gaja cyclone in the recent past.

Tamil Nadu government was much appreciated for the timely warning given to the people. Many farmers in Nagapattinam, Thiruvarur and Pudukkottai districts who had coconut farming were disheartened because it would take a minimum of 15 to 20 years to raise them again. On such disasters, instead of just waiting for the state or centre to give doles of mercy, youth across the state, ‘ who are volunteers in NSS, NCC, JRC, Scouts and Guides can swing into action and help rebuild the victims’ homes by raising funds and by offering labour.

Volunteers can generate awareness among people to go for mixed crops and not depend on only one type of crop for their sustenance. Students can dig wells in such cyclone prone districts because water becomes scarce as all electricity gets disrupted for many weeks. If students pitch in and join in rescue and rehabilitation work, they would be recognised as responsible citizens of the country.

Question (b)

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Answer:
Animals in captivity always long for freedom even if they are fed regularly. But, they don’t like it. Animals love to hunt and eat their prey alive. Cats roam freely and chase the rats and eat them. Even if domesticated they don’t want to be kept in a cage like an object showcased for an audience. They want to roam inside the house and even share the pillow of the mistress of the house. The canary’ bird we find in the picture is a singing bird. It is sure that if the cat were out, it would try to make a meal of him. Yet, the bird feels sorry for the caged cat. It tries to appeal to the mistress of the house to let the cat free.

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language About The Author

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George Luzerne Hart is a professor of Tamil language at the University of California, Berkeley. His work focuses on classical Tamil literature and on identifying the relationships between Tamil and Sanskrit literature. In 2015, the Government of India awarded him the title of Padma Shri, the third highest civilian honour. He studied Latin, Greek, Sanskrit and several modem and European languages.

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Summary in English

Introduction
Mr. George L. Hart, a linguistic anthropologist, has made an attempt to make a comparative analysis of classical languages of the world. In response to Prof. Maraimalai’s request, the author, after a meticulous analysis of world’s classical languages writes about the position of Tamil, which is the best among the equals.

Eligibility of the scholar
Prof. George L. Hart is heading the Department of Tamil in the University of Carolina, Berkeley, since 1975. Currently he holds the Tamil chair there. He has done his degree in Sanskrit in Harward. Initially, he was appointed as Professor of Sanskrit in the University of Wisconsin, Madison, in 1969. Besides Tamil and Sanskrit, the author is well-versed in Greek and Latin. He has read extensively in their literature in the original. He has a strong grounding in the comparative linguistics and literatures of modem Europe. In recognition of his deep knowledge of Indian classical languages, he was conferred Padma Shri award, the third highest civilian honour

Tamil – A classical language with classical tradition and literature

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Three most important things according to the author make Tamil indisputably the best classical language in the world in comparison with Greek, Latin, Arabic and Sanskrit. The first is its antiquity. Sangam literature and the Pattuppattu date to first two centuries of the current era. Secondly, Tamil possesses indigenous literary tradition independent of Sanskrit or any other Indian languages. | In fact, Tamil has influenced Sanskrit and Malayalam to a great extent. Thirdly, it is fit to stand beside the great literatures of Sanskrit, Greek, Persian and Arabic. The subtlety and profundity of Tamil works, their varied scope and universality qualify Tamil to be rated as one of the greater classical tradition of the world. Thirukkural is one of the world’s greatest work on ethics. It covers every facet of human life.

Meeting all criterion of a classical language

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-10

Tamil is extremely old (i.e.) as old as Latin and older than Arabic. It arose as an entirely independent tradition with almost no influence from Sanskrit or any other Indian Languages. There’s god’s plenty in Tamil literature.

Conclusion
It is established beyond doubt that Tamil is one of the greatest classical languages of the world. It has become a vital and central part of the greatness and richness of Indian culture.

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Summary in Tamil

முன்னுரை
திரு. ஜியார்ஜ் எல். ஹார்ட் எனும் மொழி விற்பன்னர் உலகத்தின் சிறந்த மொழிகளை ஒப்பிடும் முயற்சியில் ஈடுபட்டார். பேராசிரியர் மறைமலை அவர்களது வேண்டுகோளுக்கு இணங்க, ஆசிரியர் உலகத்தில் உள்ள தொன்மையான மொழிகளைப் பகுப்பாய்வு செய்து செம்மொழிகளுள் தமிழ் தலைசிறந்தது என்ற தமிழின் நிலையைப் பற்றி எழுதுகிறார்.

பண்டிதனின் தகுதி:
பெர்க்லேயில் உள்ள பேராசிரியர் ஜியார்ஜ் எல். ஹார்ட், கலிபோர்னியா பல்கழைக்கழகத்தில் தமிழ் துறையில் தலைமை பொறுப்பாளராகப் பொறுப்பேற்று 1975 முதலே பணியாற்றி வருகிறார். தற்போது தமிழ்த்துறையின்

பொறுப்பாளராகப்பணியாற்றுகிறார். சமஸ்கிருத மொழியில் பட்டப்படிப்பை ஹர்வேட் பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் முடித்தார். அவர் முதன் முதலாக மடின்சனில் உள்ள விஸ்கான்சின் பல்கலைக்கழகத்தின் சமஸ்கிருத மொழியின் பேராசிரியராக நியமிக்கப்பட்டார். தமிழ், சமஸ்கிருதத்தைத் தவிர கதாசிரியர் கிரேக்க மற்றும் லத்தீன் மொழிகளிலும் புலமை பெற்றிருந்தார். அந்த இலக்கிய நூல்களின் மூலப்பிரதிகளை பரவலாகப் படித்துள்ளார். மொழிகளை ஒப்பிடுவதிலும் ஐரோப்பிய இலக்கிய நூல்களிலும் பலமான அடிப்படை நுணுக்கங்களைப் பெற்றிருந்தார். இந்திய பாரம்பரிய மொழிகளின்பால் அவருக்கிருந்த ஆழ்ந்த’ புலமையை அங்கிகரிக்கும் வகையில் அவருக்கு மூன்றாம் நிலை உயர்ந்த குடிமகன் விருதான ‘பத்மஸ்ரீ’ வழங்கப்பட்டது.

தமிழ் – பாரம்பரியமும் மற்றும் இலக்கியமும் கொண்ட சிறந்த மொழி:

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லத்தீன், அரேபிய மற்றும் சமஸ்கிருத மொழிகளுக்கு நிகராக சர்ச்சைக்கு இடமே இல்லாத வகையில் தமிழ் மொழியை ஆசிரியர் கணிக்க மூன்று காரணங்கள் உள்ளன. முதலாவதாக தமிழ் பண்டைய காலத்திய மொழியாகும். சங்க இலக்கியமும் மற்றும் பத்துப்பாட்டும் இந்த நூற்றாண்டில் முதல் 200 ஆண்டுகளைத் தழுவியது. இரண்டாவதாக தமிழ் மொழியானது சமஸ்கிருத மொழியையோ அல்லது வேறு இந்திய மொழியையோ தழுவாத தேசிய இலக்கிய பாரம்பரியத்தைப் பெற்றது. இரண்டாவதாக, தமிழ்மொழி தேசிய இலக்கிய பாரம்பரியத்தைப் பெற்றிருப்பதோடு, சமஸ்கிருத மொழியிலிருந்தும் இதர இந்திய மொழிகளிலிருந்தும் தனித்துவம் பெற்று இருந்தது. சொல்லப் போனால், தமிழ் மொழி சமஸ்கிருத மற்றும் மலையாள மொழிக்கு ஊன்றுகோலாக அமைந்தது. மூன்றாவதாக சமஸ்கிருத, கிரேக்க, பெர்சிய மற்றும் அரேபிய இலக்கியங்களுக்கு நிகராக நிற்கும் தகுதியையும் அது பெற்றிருந்தது. தமிழ் மொழியின் நுணுக்கம், ஆழ்ந்த தன்மை, அதன் விசாலம் மற்றும் எங்கும் பரவியிருக்கும் தன்மைகள் தமிழை உலகிலேயே உன்னத பாரம்பரிய தத்துவங்களைத் தழுவியது என உறுதி செய்கிறது. திருக்குறள் உலகிலேயே உன்னதமான நீதிநெறி நூலாகும். அது மனித வாழ்க்கையின் எல்லாக் கோணங்களையும் படம் பிடித்துக் காட்டுகிறது.

பாரம்பரிய மொழிக்கான எல்லா தகுதியையும் உடையது:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-12

தமிழ் மிகப் பழமையான மொழியாகும். லத்தீன் மொழியை ஒத்ததும், அரேபிய மொழிக்கும் அப்பாற்பட்டதாகும். தமிழ் தனி பாரம்பரிய மொழியாக எந்த மொழியின் தொடர்பும் இன்றி சுயம்பு போலத் தோன்றியது. கடவுளின் அருள் நிறைந்தது தமிழ் மொழி.

முடிவுரை:
சந்தேகத்திற்கு இடமில்லாமல் தமிழ் உலகிலேயே மிகச் சிறந்த பாரம்பரிய மொழி என நிலைநாட்டப்பட்டுள்ளது. அது தமிழ் கலாச்சாரத்தின் முக்கிய மற்றும் மையமான புகழையும் மற்றும் சிறப்பையும் கொண்டதாக விளங்குகிறது.

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Glossary

Textual:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-13

Additional:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language img-14

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Synonyms

Find out the synonym of the underlined word in each of the following sentences.

Question 1.
Tamil is unequivocally one of the greatest classical literature.
(a) unruly
(b) unbiasedly
(c) unambiguously
(d) uncontrollably
Answer:
(c) unambiguously

Question 2.
I am well acquainted with comparative linguistics.
(a) familiar
(b) similar
(c) polar
(d) scholar
Answer:
(a) familiar

Question 3.
Tamil is of considerable antiquity.
(a) modernness
(b) staleness
(c) ancientness
(d) sophistication
Answer:
(c) ancientness

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
They are the first great secular body of poetry.
(a) religious
(b) devotional
(c) pious
(d) non – religious
Answer:
(d) non – religious

Question 5.
Tamil constitutes the only literary tradition indigenous to India.
(a) foreign
(b) alien
(c) native
(d) unique
Answer:
(c) native

Question 6.
It has its own aesthetics.
(a) fairness
(b) justice
(c) sense of humour
(d) sense of beauty
Answer:
(d) sense of beauty

Question 7.
It shows a sort of Indian sensibility.
(a) senility
(b) serenity
(c) serendipity
(d) sensibility
Answer:
(d) sensibility

Question 8.
The subtlety and profundity of its works amaze us.
(a) politeness
(b) nuance
(c) rudeness
(d) sanity
Answer:
(b) nuance

Question 9.
Tamil is the only pre-modem Indian literature to treat the subaltern extensively.
(a) narrowly
(b) wildly
(c) mildly
(d) broadly
Answer:
(d) broadly

Question 10.
Every facet of human existence is explored.
(a) face
(b) stage
(c) phase
(d) feature
Answer:
(d) feature

Question 11.
The sacred works of Tamil literature have undergirded the development of modem Hinduism,
(a) superficially supported
(b) ornamentally supported
(c) provided fundamental support
(d) gave fake support
Answer:
(c) provided fundamental support

Question 12.
Tirukkural has illuminated all facets of human life.
(a) made clear
(b) made ambiguous
(c) made vague
(d) made a clutter
Answer:
(a) made clear

Question 13.
Sanskrit is the most conservative language.
(a) modem
(b) radical
(c) traditional
(d) innovative
Answer:
(c) traditional

Question 14.
Tamil is the touchstone that linguists must consult to understand the nature of development of Dravidian.
(a) base
(b) foundation
(c) criterion
(d) cradle
(c) criterion

Question 15.
Modem Indian languages are the most fecund and productive ones.
(a) infertile
(b) arid
(c) fertile
(d) poor
Answers:
(c) fertile

The Status of Tamil as a Classical Language Antonyms

Find out the antonym of the underlined word in each of the

Question 1.
I am well acquainted with comparative linguistics.
(a) well-versed
(b) familiar
(c) conversant
(d) unfamiliar
Answer:
(d) unfamiliar

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 2.
Tamil is one of the greatest classical literatures.
(a) ancient
(b) time-tested
(c) medieval
(d) modern
Answer:
(d) modern

Question 3.
They are the first great secular body of poetry written in India.
(a) irreligious
(b) religious
(c) irrevered
(d) irascible
Answer:
(b) religious

Question 4.
Tamil is indigenous to India.
(a) native
(b) foreign
(c) local
(d) fecund
Answer:
(b) foreign

Question 5.
They are the most fecund and productive languages.
(a) fertile
(b) rich
(c) barren
(d) nutrients
Answer:
(c) barren

Question 6.
Tamil is unequivocally a classical language.
(a) clearly
(b) candidly
(c) slyly
(d) vaguely
Answer:
(d) vaguely

Question 7.
The great sacred works are equally important.
(a) holy
(b) unholy
(c) corrupt
(d) saintly
Answer:
(b) unholy

Question 8.
Sanskrit is the most conservative language in India.
(a) traditional
(b) orthodoxical
(c) ritualistic
(d) modern
Answer:
(d) modern

Question 9.
it is quite unique.
(a) normal
(b) distinctive
(c) common
(d) drab
Answer:
(c) common

Question 10.
Tamil has treated the subaltern extensively.
(a) inferior
(b) superior
(c) ugly
(d) wise
Answer:
(b) superior

Question 11.
Tirukkural illuminated every facet or human life.
(a) exposed
(b) explored
(c) exploited
(d) concealed
Answer:
(d) concealed

Question 12.
Their universality makes Tamil stand as one of the greatest.
(a) prevalence
(b) acceptance
(c) popularity
(d) denial
Answer:
(d) denial

Question 13.
It is patently obvious to anyone who knows the subject.
(a) clearly
(b) ambiguously
(c) candidly
(d) obviously
Answer:
(b) ambiguously

Question 14.
Tirukkural is merely one of the myriad of major works.
(a) plenty
(b) several
(c) a few
(d) bountiful
Answer:
(c) a few

Question 15.
Tamil is of considerable antiquity.
(a) ancientness
(b) modernness
(c) fun
(d) seriousness
Answer:
(b) modernness

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Exercise 2.1
Try These (Text book Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Find the percentage of children whose scores fall in different categories given in table below.
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 1
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 2

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Try These (Text book Page No. 29)

Question 1.
There are 50 students in class VII of a school. The number of students involved in these activities are :
Scout: 7
Red Ribbon Club : 6
Junior Red Cross : 9
Green Force : 3
Sports : 14
Cultural activity : 11
Find the percentage of students who involved in various activities.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 3

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Try These (Text book Page No. 30)

Question 1.
Convert the fractions as percentage.
(i) \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 } \)
(ii) \(\frac { 13 }{ 25 } \)
(iii) (i) \(\frac { 45 }{ 50 } \)
(iv) \(\frac { 18 }{ 5 } \)
(v) \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \)
(vi) \(\frac { 72 }{ 90 } \)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 } \)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 } \) × 100 %
= 5 %

(ii) \(\frac { 13 }{ 25 } \)
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 25 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 25 } \) × 100 %
= 52 %

(iii) \(\frac { 45 }{ 50 } \)
= \(\frac { 45 }{ 50 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 45 }{ 50 } \) × 100 %
= 90 %

(iv) \(\frac { 18 }{ 5 } \)
= \(\frac { 18 }{ 5 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 18 }{ 50 } \) × 100 %
= 360 %

(iv) \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \) × 100 %
= 270 %

(iv) \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 27 }{ 10 } \) × 100 %
= 270 %

(vi) \(\frac { 72 }{ 90 } \)
= \(\frac { 72 }{ 90 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 72 }{ 90 } \) × 100 %
= 80 %

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Question 2.
Convert the following percentage as fractions.
(i) 50%
(ii) 75%
(iii) 250%
(iv) 30 \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 } \) %
(v) \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \) %
(vi) 90 %
Solution:
(i) 50 %
= \(\frac { 50 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

(ii) 75 %
= \(\frac { 75 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)

(iii) 250 %
= \(\frac { 250 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 } \)

(iv) 30 \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 } \) %
= \(\frac{30 \frac{1}{5}}{100}=\frac{\left(\frac{151}{5}\right)}{100}\)
= \(\frac { 151 }{ 500 } \)

(v) \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \) %
= \(\frac{\frac{7}{20}}{100}=\frac{7}{20 \times 100}\)
= \(\frac { 7 }{ 2000 } \)

(vi) 90 % = \(\frac { 90 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 10 } \)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Think (Text book Page No. 32)

Question 1.
What is the difference between 0.01 and 1%.
Solution:
0.01 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) = 1%
0.01 and 1% are the same.

Question 2.
In a readymade shop there will be a board showing upto 50% off. Most of the people will realize that everything is half of its original price, Is that true?
Solution:
No. Only some of them are half of its original price.

Exercise 2.2
Try These (Text book Page No. 33)

Question 1.
Convert these decimals to percentage.
(i) 0.25
(ii) 0.07
(iii) 0.8
(iv) 0.375
(v) 3.75
Solution:
(i) 0.25
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \) = 25 %

(ii) 0.07
= \(\frac { 7 }{ 100 } \) = 7 %

(iii) 0.8
= \(\frac { 80 }{ 100 } \) = 80 %

(iv) 0.375
= \(\frac { 375 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 375 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= 37.5 %

(v) 3.75
= \(\frac { 375 }{ 100 } \) = 375 %

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Try These (Text book Page No. 34)

Question 1.
Write these percentage as decimals
(i) 3 %
(ii) 25 %
(iii) 80 %
(iv) 67 %
(v) 17.5 %
(vi) 135 %
(vii) 0.5 %
Solution:
(i) 3 %
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) = 0.03

(ii) 25 %
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \) = 0.25

(iii) 80 %
= \(\frac { 80 }{ 100 } \) = 0.8

(iv) 67 %
= \(\frac { 67 }{ 100 } \) = 0.67

(v) 17.5 %
= \(\frac { 17.5 }{ 100 } \) = 0.175

(vi) 135 %
= \(\frac { 135 }{ 100 } \) = 1.35

(vii) 0.5 %
= \(\frac { 0.5 }{ 100 } \) = 0.005

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Exercise 2.3
Try These (Text book Page No. 38)

Question 1.
Level of water in a tank is increased from 35 litres to 50 litres in 2 minutes, what is the Percentage of increase?
Solution:
Level of water in the tank originally = 35 litres.
Increase in the water level = amount of change = 50 – 35 = 15 litres
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 4Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 5

Exercise 2.4
Try These (Text book Page No. 41)

Question 1.
Arjun borrowed a sum of ₹ 5,000 from a bank at 5% per annum. Find the interest and amount to be paid at the end of three year.
Solution:
Here Principal (P) = ₹ 5,000
Rate of interest (r) = 5 % Per annum
Time (n) = 3 years
Simple Interest I = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac{5000 \times 3 \times 5}{100}\)
= ₹ 750
Amount to be paid A = P + I = ₹ 5,000 + ₹ 750 = ₹ 5,750
I = ₹ 750 ; A = ₹ 5,750

Question 2.
Shanti borrowed ₹ 6,000/- from a Bank for 7 years at 12 % per annum. What amount will clear off her debt?
Solution:
Here principal (P) = ₹ 6,000
Rate of Interest (r) = 12 % Per annum
Time (n) = 4 Years
Simple Interest (I) = \(\frac { pnr }{ 100 } \) =
= \(\frac{6000 \times 7 \times 12}{100}\)
I = ₹ 5,040
Amount to be paid A = P + I = 6,000 + 5,040 = ₹ 11,040

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions

Think (Text book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
In simple interest, a sum of money doubles itself in 10 years. In how many years it will get triple itself.
Solution:
Let the Principal be P and Rate of interest be r % per annum.
Here the number of years n = 10 years
Given in 10 years P becomes 2 P.
A = P + I
After 2 years A = 2P
i.e. 2P = P + I
2P – P = I
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 6
Now if the amount becomes triple then A = P + I = 3P
3P = P + I
3P – P = I
2P = I
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Intext Questions 7
∴ After 20 years the amount get tripled.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 1.
Given that x > y. Fill in the blanks with suitable inequality signs.
(i) y [ ] x
(ii) x+ 6 [ ] y + 6
(iii) x2 [ ] xy
(iv) -xy [ ] – y2
(v) x – y [ ] 0
Answer:
(i) y [<] x
(ii) x+ 6 [>] y + 6
(iii) x2 [>] xy
(iv) -xy [<] – y2
(v) x – y [>] 0

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 2.
Say True or False.

(i) Linear inequation has almost one solution.
Answer:
False

(ii) When x is an integer, the solution set for x < 0 are -1, -2,..
Answer:
False

(iii) An inequation, -3 < x < -1, where x is an integer, cannot be represented in the number line.
Answer:
True

(iv) x < -y can be rewritten as – y < x
Ans :
False

Question 3.
Solve the following inequations.
(i) x < 7, where x is a natural number.
(ii) x – 6 < 1, where x is a natural number.
(iii) 2a + 3 < 13, where a is a whole number.
(iv) 6x – 7 > 35, where x is an integer.
(v) 4x – 9 > -33, where x is a negative integer.
Solution:
(i) x < 7, where x is a natural number.
Since the solution belongs to the set of natural numbers, that are less than or equal to 7, we take the values of x as 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

(ii) x – 6 < 1, where x is a natural number.
x – 6 < 1 Adding 6 on the both the sides x – 6 + 6 < 1 + 6
x < 7
Since the solutions belongs to the set of natural numbers that are less than 7, we take the values of x as 1,2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

(iii) 2a + 3 < 13, where a is a whole number.
2a + 3 < 13
Subtracting 3 from both the sides 2a + 3 – 3 < 13 – 3
2a < 10
Dividing both the side by 2. \(\frac { 2a }{ 2 } \) < \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \)
a < 5
Since the solutions belongs to the set of whole numbers that are less than or equal to 5 we take the values of a as 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

(iv) 6x – 7 > 35, where x is an integer.
6x – 7 > 35 Adding 7 on both the sides
6x – 7 + 7 > 35 + 7
6x > 42
Dividing both the sides by 6 we get \(\frac { 6x }{ 6 } \) > \(\frac { 42 }{ 6 } \)
x > 7
Since the solution belongs to the set of integers that are greater than or equal to 7, we take the values of x as 7, 8, 9, 10…

(v) 4x – 9 > -33, where x is a negative integer.
4x – 9 > – 33 + 9 Adding 9 both the sides
4x – 9 + 9 > -33 + 9
4x > – 24
Dividing both the sides by 4
\(\frac { 4x }{ 4 } \) > \(\frac { -24 }{ 4 } \)
x > -6
Since the solution belongs to a negative integer that are greater than -6, we take values of u as -5, -4, -3, -2 and -1

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 4.
Solve the following inequations and represent the solution on the number line:
(i) k > -5, k is an integer.
(ii) -7 < y, y is a negative integer.
(iii) -4 < x < 8, x is a natural number.
(iv) 3m – 5 < 2m + 1, m is an integer.
Solution:
(i) k > -5, k is an integer.
Since the solution belongs to the set of integers, the solution is -4, -3, -2, -1, 0,… It’s graph on number line is shown below.
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 1

(ii) -7 < y, y is a negative integer.
-7 < y
Since the solution set belongs to the set of negative integers, the solution is
-7, -6, -5, -4, -3, -2, -1.
Its graph on the number line is shown below
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 2

(iii) -4 < x < 8, x is a natural number.
-4 < x < 8
Since the solution belongs to the set of natural numbers, the solution is
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8.
Its graph on number line is shown below
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 3

(iv) 3m – 5 < 2m + 1, m is an integer.
3m – 5 < 2m + 1
Subtracting 1 on both the sides
3m – 5 – 1 < 2m + 1 + 1
3m – 6 < 2m
Subtracting 2m on both the sides 3m- 6 – 2m < 2m -2m
m – 6 < 0
Adding 6 on both the sides m – 6 + 6 < 0 + 6
m < 6
Since the solution belongs to the set of integers, the solution is
6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0,-1,…
Its graph on number line is shown below
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 4

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 5.
An artist can spend any amount between ₹ 80 to ₹ 200 on brushes. If cost of each brush is ₹ 5 and there are 6 brushes in each packet, then how many packets of brush can the artist buy?
Solution:
Given the artist can spend any amount between ₹ 80 to ₹ 200
Let the number of packets of brush he can buy be x
Given cost of 1 brush = ₹ 5
Cost of 1 packet brush (6 brushes) = ₹ 5 × 6 = ₹ 30
∴ Cost of x packets of brushes = 30 x
∴ The inequation becomes 80 < 30x < 200
Dividing throughout by 30 we get \(\frac { 80 }{ 30 } \) < \(\frac { 30x }{ 30 } \) < \(\frac { 200 }{ 30 } \)
\(\frac { 8 }{ 3 } \) < x < \(\frac { 20 }{ 3 } \) ;
2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \) < x < 6 \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \)
brush packets cannot get in fractions.
∴ The artist can buy 3 < x < 6 packets of brushes,
or x = 3, 4, 5 and 6 packets of brushes.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
The solutions set of the inequation 3 < p < 6 are (where p is a natural number)
(i) 4,5 and 6
(ii) 3,4 and 5
(iii) 4 and 5
(iv) 3,4,5 and 6
Answer:
(iv) 3,4,5 and 6

Question 2.
The solution of the inequation 5x + 5 < 15 are (where x is a natural number)
(i) 1 and 2
(ii) 0,1 and 2
(iii) 2, 1,0, -1,-2
(iv) 1, 2, 3..
Answer:
(i) 1 and 2
Hint: 5x + 5 < 15
5x < 15 – 5 = 10
x < \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \) = 2

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 3.
The cost of one pen is ₹ 8 and it is available in a sealed pack of 10 pens. If Swetha has only ₹ 500, how many packs of pens can she buy at the maximum?
(i) 10
(ii) 5
(iii) 6
(iv) 8
Answer:
(iii) 6
Hint:
Price of 1 pen = ₹ 8
Price of 1 pack = 10 × 8 = 80
Number of packs Swetha can buy = x
80x < 500
8x < 50
x < \(\frac { 50 }{ 8 } \) = 6.25
x is a natural number x = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Question 4.
The inequation that is represented on the number line as shown below is _______.
Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 5
(i) -4 < x < 0
(ii) -4 < x < 0
(iii) -4 < x < 0
(iv) -4 < x < 0
(v) -4 < x < 2
Answer:
(v) -4 < x < 2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements Text Book Evalution

I. Choose the correct answer.

Questions 1.
Sc ( Z=21) is a transition element but Zinc (z=30) is not because ……………..
(a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
(c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
Answer:
(c) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled

Question 2.
Which of the following d block element has half filled penultimate d sub shell as well as half filled valence sub shell?
(a) Cr
(b) Pd
(c) Pt
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Cr
Hint: Cr ⇒ [Ar]3d5 4s1

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 3.
Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has highest negative (M2+/ M) standard electrode potential is ……………..
(a) Ti
(b) Cu
(c) Mn
(d) Zn
Answer:
(a) Ti

Question 4.
Which one of the following ions has the same number of unpaired electrons as present in V3+?
(a) Ti3+
(b) Fe3+
(c) Ni2+
(d) Cr3+
Answer:
(c) Ni2+

Question 5.
The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is ……………..
(a) 5.92BM
(b) 2.80BM
(c) 8.95BM
(d) 3.90BM
Answer:
(a) 5.92BM
Hint: Mn2+ ⇒ 3d contains 5 unpaired electrons
n = 5
= \(\sqrt { n(n+2) } BM\)
= \(\sqrt { 5(5+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 35 }\) = 5.92 BM

Question 6.
Which of the following compounds is colourless?
(a) Fe3+
(6) Ti4+
(c) CO2+
(d) Ni2
Answer:
(b) Ti4+
Hint: Ti4+ contains no unpaired electrons in d orbital, hence no d-d transition.

Question 7.
The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to ……………..
(a) their magnetic behaviour
(b) their unfilled d orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(d) their chemical reactivity
Answer:
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states

Question 8.
The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series ……………..
(a) \({ VO }_{ 2 }^{ + }\) < \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) < \(Mn{ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\)
(b) \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) < \({ VO }_{ 2 }^{ + }\) < \(Mn{ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\)
(c) \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) < \(Mn{ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) < \({ VO }_{ 2 }^{ + }\)
(d) \(Mn{ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) < \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) < \({ VO }_{ 2 }^{ + }\)
Answer:
(a) \({ VO }_{ 2 }^{ + }\) < \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) < \(Mn{ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\)
Hint: Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-1.1 greater the oxidation state, higher is the oxidising power.

Question 9.
The alloy of copper that contain Zinc is ……………..
(a) Monel metal
(b) Bronze
(c) bell metal
(d) brass
Answer:
(d) brass

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Question 10.
Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?
(a) K2Cr2O7
(b) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(c) KClO3
(d) Zn(ClO3)2
Answer:
(b) (NH4)2Cr2O7
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-1

Question 11.
In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid to ……………..
(a) Oxalate
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) acetate
(d) acetic acid
Answer:
(b) Carbon dioxide
Hint: \({ 5(COO) }_{ 2 }^{ 2- }\) + \({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 16H+ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) 2Mn2+ + 10CO2+\(\uparrow\) + 8H2O

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Question 12.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) on passing H2S, through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
(c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange in colour
(d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
Answer:
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis

Question 13.
Permanganate ion changes to in acidic medium ……………..
(a) \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
(b) Mn2+
(c) Mn3+
(d) MnO2
Answer:
(b) Mn2+
Hint: \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O

Question 14.
A white crystalline salt (A) react with dilute HCl to liberate a suffocating gas (B) and also forms a yellow precipitate . The gas (B) turns potassium dichromate acidified with dil H2SO4 to a green coloured solution(C). A,B and C are respectively ……………..
(a) Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2(SO4)3
(b) Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2(SO4)3
(c) Na2S, SO2, Cr2(SO4)3
(d) Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2(SO4)3
Answer:
(a) Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2(SO4)3
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-2

Question 15.
\({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) react with Br in alkaline PH to give ……………..
(a) \({ BrO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\), MnO2
(b) Br3, \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
(c) Br3, MnO3
(d) BrO, \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
Answer:
(a) \({ BrO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\), MnO2
Hint: \({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + Br- + H2O → 2OH- + 2MnO2 + \({ BrO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\)

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Question 16.
How many moles of I2 are liberated when 1 mole of potassium dichromate react with potassium iodide?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer
(c) 3
Hint: K2Cr2O7 + 6KI + 7H2SO4 → 4K2SO4 + Cr2 (SO4)3 + 7H2O + 3I2

Question 17.
The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to oxidize 1 mole of ferrous oxalate(FeC2O4) is …………..
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 0.6
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(c) 0.6
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-3

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Question 18.
When a brown compound of Mn (A) ids treated with HCl, it gives a gas (B). The gas (B) taken in excess reacts with NH3 to give an explosive compound (C). The compound A, B and C are ……………
(a) MnO2, Cl2, NCl3
(b) MnO, Cl2, NH4Cl
(c) Mn3O4, Cl2, NCl3
(d) MnO3, Cl2, NCl2
Answer:
(a) MnO2, Cl2, NCl3
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-4

Question 19.
Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?
(a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
(d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in volumetric analysis.
Answer:
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
Hint: As we move from La to Lu , their metallic behaviour because almost similar to that of aluminium.

Question 20.
Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(a) Eu2+
(b) Yb2+
(c) Ce2+
(d) Sm2+
Answer:
(6) Yb2+
Hint: Yb2+ – 4f14 – no unpaired electrons – diamagnetic

Question 21.
Which of the following oxidation states is most common among the lanthanoids?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 3
Answer:
(d) 3

Question 22.
Assertion: Ce4+ is used as an oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
Reason: Ce4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. .
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

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Question 23.
The most common oxidation state of actinoids is ……………
(a) +2
(b) +3
(c) +4
(d) +6
Answer:
(c) +4

Question 24.
The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation state of +7 are ……………
(a) Np, Pu, Am
(b) U, Fm, Th
(c) U, Th, Md
(d) Es, No, Lr
Answer:
(a) Np, Pu, Am

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Question 25.
Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather than lanthanide series
(d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
Answer:
(a) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3

II. Answer the Following Questions:

Question 1.
What are transition metals? Give four examples.
Answer:
The metallic elements that have incompletely filled d or f subshell in the neutral or cationic state are called transition metals.
Examples: Copper, Iron, Cobalt, Nickel.

Question 2.
Explain the oxidation states of 3d series elements.
Answer:
1. The first transition metal Scandium exhibits only +3 oxidation state, but all other transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states by losing electrons from (n-l)d orbital and ns orbital as the energy difference between them is very small.

2. At the beginning of the 3d series, +3 oxidation state is stable but towards the end +2 oxidation state becomes stable.

3. The number of oxidation states increases with the number of electrons available, and it decreases as the number of paired electrons increases. For example, in 3d series, first element Sc has only one oxidation state +3; the middle element Mn has six different oxidation states from +2 to +7. The last element Cu shows +1 and +2 oxidation states only.

4. Mn2+ (3d5) is more stable than Mn4+ (3d3) is due to half-filled stable configuration.

Question 3.
What are inner transition elements?
Answer:

The elements which in their elemental or ionic form have partly filled f orbitals are called f block elements.
As the f orbitals lie inner to the penultimate shell, therefore these elements having partially filled f orbitals, are also called inner transition elements.

Question 4.
Justify the position of lanthanides and actinides in the periodic table. (PTA – 1)
Answer:
Lanthanides:

  • The actual position of lanthanides in the periodic table is at group number 3 and period number 6.
  • In the sixth period, the electrons are perferentially filled in inner 4f-sub shell.
  • The fourteen elements following lanthanum (Ce to Lu) show similar chemical properties.
  • Hence they are grouped together and placed at the bottom of the periodic table.
  • This position is justified as follows:
    (1) General electronic configuration:

Question 4.
Justify the position of lanthanides and actinides in the periodic table.
Answer:
1. In sixth period after lanthanum, the electrons are preferentially filled in inner 4f sub shell and these 14 elements following lanthanum show similar chemical properties. Therefore these elements are grouped together and placed at the bottom of the periodic table. This position can be justified as follows.

  • Lanthanoids have general electronic configuration [Xe] 4f2-14 5d0-1 6s2
  • The common oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3
  • All these elements have similar physical and chemical properties.

2. Similarly the fourteen elements following actinium resemble in their physical and chemical properties.

3. If we place these elements after Lanthanum in the periodic table below 4d series and actinides below 5d series, the properties of the elements belongs to a group would be different and it would affect the proper structure of the periodic table.

4. Hence a separate position is provided to the inner transition elements at the bottom of the periodic table.

 

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Question 5.
What are actinoids? Give three examples.
Answer:
Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromite – Iron ore, or Chromite ore. Concentration method: gravity separation
i) Conversion of chromite iron ore into sodium chromate.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements 2
ii) Conversion of sodium chromate into sodium dichromate:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements 3
iii) Conversion of sodium dichromate into potassium dichromate :
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements 4

Question 6.
Why Gd3+ is colourless?
Answer:
Gd – Electronic Configuration: [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
Gd3+ – Electronic Configuration: [Xe] 4f7
In Gd3+, no electrons are there in outer d-orbitals. d-d transition is not possible. So it is colourless.

Question 7.
Explain why compounds of Cu2+ are coloured but those of Zn2+ are colourless.
Answer:
Cu (Z = 29) Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Cu2+: Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d9.
In Cu2+, promotion of electrons take place in outer d-orbital by the absorption of light form visible region involves d-d transition. Due to this Cu2+ compounds are coloured. Where in Zn2+ electronic configuration is [Ar]3d10. It has completely filled d-orbital. So there is no chance of d – d transition. So Zn2+ compounds are colourless.

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Question 8.
Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate.
Answer:
Preparation of potassium dichromate:
1. Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromite ore. The ore FeO. Cr2O3 is concentrated by gravity separation process.

2. The concentrated ore is mixed with excess sodium carbonate and lime and roasted in a reverbratory furnace.
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 \(\underrightarrow { 900-{ 1000 }^{ 0 }C }\) 8 Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2\(\uparrow\)

3. The roasted mass is treated with water to separate soluble sodium chromate from insoluble iron oxide. The yellow solution of sodium chromate is treated with concentrated sulphuric acid which converts sodium chromate into sodium dichromate.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-5

4. The above solution is concentrated to remove less soluble sodium sulphate. The resulting solution is filtered and concentrated. It is cooled to get the crystals of Na2SO2.2H2O.

5. The saturated solution of sodium dichromate in water is mixed with KCl and then concentrated to get crystals of NaCl. It is filtered while hot and the filtrate is cooled to obtain K2Cr2O7 crystals.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-6

Question 9.
What is lanthanide contraction and what are the effects of lanthanide contraction?
Answer:
As we move across 4f series, the atomic and ionic radii of lanthanoids show gradual decrease with increase in atomic number. This decrease in ionic size is called lanthanoid contraction.
Effects (or) Consequences of lanthanoid contraction:
1. Basicity differences: As we move from Ce3+ to Lu3+ , the basic character of Ln3+ ions decrease. Due to the decrease in the size of Ln3+ ions, the ionic character of Ln – OH bond decreases (covalent character increases) which results in the decrease in the basicity.

2. Similarities among lanthanoids – In the complete f-series only 10 pm decrease in atomic radii and 20 pm decrease in ionic radii is observed. Because of this very small change in radii of lanthanoids, their chemical properties are quite similar.

The elements of second and third transition series resemble each other more closely than the elements of first and second transition series due to lanthanoid contraction. For example,

  • 4d series – Zr – Atomic radius 145 pm
  • 5d series – Hf – Atomic radius 144 pm

Question 10.
Complete the following
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-7

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Question 11.
What are interstitial compounds?
Answer:

  1. An interstitial compound or alloy is a compound that is formed when small atoms like hydrogen, boron, carbon or nitrogen are trapped in the interstitial holes in a metal lattice.
  2. They are usually non-stoichiometric compounds.
  3. Transition metals form a number of interstitial compounds such as TiC, ZrH1.92, Mn4N etc.
  4. The elements that occupy the metal lattice provide them new properties.
    • They are hard and show electrical and thermal conductivity
    • They have high melting points higher than those of pure metals
    • Transition metal hydrides are used as powerful reducing agents
    • Metallic carbides are chemically inert.

Question 12.
Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in Ti3+, Mn2+ and calculate the spin only magnetic moment.
Answer:
Ti3+:
Ti (Z = 22). Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2 4s2
Ti3+ – Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d1
So, the number of unpaired electrons in Ti3+ is equal to 1.
Spin only magnetic moment of Ti3+ = \(\sqrt { 1(1+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.73µB

Mn2+:
Mn (Z = 25). Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d5 4s2
Mn2+ – Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d5
Mn2+ has 5 unpaired electrons.
Spin only magnetic moment of Mn2+ = \(\sqrt { 5(5+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 35 }\) = 5.91µB

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Question 13.
Write the electronic configuration of Ce4+ and CO2+.
Answer:
Ce (Z = 58) → Ce4+4e
Ce4+ – Is2 – 2s22p63s23p64s23d104p6 5s24d10 5p6
CO2+ – Is22s22p63s23p64s23d5.

Question 14.
Explain briefly how +2 states becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number.
First transition series.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-8

Question 15.
Which is more stable? Fe3+ or Fe2+ – explain.
Answer:
Fe (Z = 26)
Fe → Fe2+ + 2e
Fe → Fe3+ + 3e
Fe2+ [Number of electrons 24]
Electronic configuration = [Ar]3d6
Fe3+ [Number of electrons 23]
Electronic configuration = [Ar]3d5
Among Fe3+ and Fe2+, Fe3+ is more stable due to half filled d-orbital. This can be explained by Aufbau principle. Half filled and completely filled d-orbitals are more stable than partially filled d-orbitals. So Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+.

Question 16.
Explain the variation in E0M2+/M3+3d series.
Answer:
1. In transition series, as we move down from Ti to Zn, the standard reduction potential E0M2+/M3 value is approaching towards less negative value and copper has a positive reduction potential, i.e. elemental copper is more stable than Cu2+.

2. E0M2+/M value for manganese and zinc are more negative than regular trend. It is due to extra stability arises due to the half filled d5 configuration in Mn2+ and completely filled d10 configuration in Zn2+.

3. The standard electrode potential for the M3+ / M2+ half cell gives the relative stability between M3+ and M2+.

4. The high reduction potential of Mn3+ / Mn2+ indicates Mn2+ is more stable than Mn3+.

5. For Fe3+ / Fe2+ the reduction potential is 0.77 V, and this low value indicates that both Fe3+ and Fe2+ can exist under normal condition.

6. Mn3+ has a 3d2 configuration while that of Mn2+ is 3d5. The extra stability associated with a half filled d sub-shell makes the reduction of Mn3+ very feasible [E° = +1.51 V]

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Question 17.
Compare lanthanides and actinides.
Answer:
Lanthanoids:

  1. Differentiating electron enters in 4f orbital
  2. Binding energy of 4f orbitals are higher
  3. They show less tendency to form complexes
  4. Most of the lanthanoids are colourless
  5. They do not form oxo cations
  6. Besides +3 oxidation states lanthanoids show +2 and +4 oxidation states in few cases.

Actinoids:

  1. Differentiating electron enters in 5f orbital
  2. Binding energy of 5f orbitals are lower
  3. They show greater tendency to form complexes
  4. ost of the actinoids are coloured.
    E.g : U3+ (red), U4+ (green), \({ UO }_{ 2 }^{ 2+ }\)(yellow)
  5. They do form oxo cations such as \({ UO }_{ 2 }^{ 2+ }\) \({ NpO }_{ 2 }^{ 2+ }\) etc.
  6. Besides +3 oxidation states actinoids show higher oxidation states such as +4, +5, +6 and +7.

Question 18.
Explain why Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn3+ is strongly oxidizing.
Answer:
Cr2+ is strong reducing while Mn3+ is strongly oxidising.
E0Cr3+/Cr2+ is -0.41 V
Cr2+ + 2e → Cr E° = – 0.91V.
If the standard electrode potential E° of a metal is large and negative, the metal is a powerful reducing agent because it loses electrons easily.
Mn → Mn3+ + 3e
Mn3+ + e → Mn2+

Mn3+ [Ar]3d4
E° = + 1.51 V
If the standard electrode potential E° of a metal is large and positive, the metal is a powerful oxidising agent because it gains electrons easily.

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Question 19.
Compare the ionization enthalpies of first series of the transition elements. Ionization enthalpies of first transition series:
Answer:

  1. Ionization energy of transition element is intermediate between those of s and p block elements.
  2. As we move from left to right in a transition metal series, the ionization enthalpy increases as expected. This is due to increase in nuclear charge corresponding to the filling of d electrons.
  3. The increase in first ionisation enthalpy with increase in atomic number along a particular series is not regular. The added electron enters (n-l)d orbital and the inner electrons act as a shield and decrease the effect of nuclear charge on valence ‘ns’ electrons. Therefore, it leads to variation in the ionization energy values.

Question 20.
Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than the lanthanoid contraction, why?
Answer:

  1. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. The 5f orbitals in Actinoids have a very poorer shielding effect than 4f orbitals in lanthanoids.
  2. Thus, the effective nuclear charge experienced by electron in valence shells in case of actinoids is much more than that experienced by lanthanoids.
  3. In actinoids, electrons are shielded by 5d, 4f, 4d and 3d whereas in lanthanoids, electrons are shielded by 4d, 4f only.
  4. Hence, the size contraction in actinoids is greater as compared to that in lanthanoids.

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Question 21.
Out of LU(OH)3 and La(OH)3 which is more basic and why?
Answer:

  1. As we move from Ce3+ to Lu3+, the basic character of Lu3+ ions decreases.
  2. Due to the decrease in the size of Lu3+ ions, the ionic character of Lu – OH bond decreases, covalent character increases which results in the decrease in the basicity.
  3. Hence, La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3.

Question 22.
Why europium (II) is more stable than Cerium (II)?
Answer:
Eu (Z = 63) – Electronic configuration – [Xe] 4f7 5d° 6s2
Eu2+ – Electronic configuration Electronic 6s1
Ce (Z = 58) – configuration – [Xe] 4f2+ 5d° 6s2+
Ce2+ – Electronic confluration – [Xe] 4f2 5d°
According to Aufbau principle, half filled and completely filled d (or) f orbitals are more stable than partially filled f orbitals.
Hence Eu2+ [Xe] 4f7 5d° is more stable than Ce2+ [Xe] 4f2 5d°

Question 23.
Why do zirconium and Hafnium exhibit similar properties?
Answer:

  1. The element of second and third transition series resemble each other more closely than the elements of first and second transition series due to lanthanoid contraction.
  2. e.g., Zr – 4d series -Atomic radius 145 pm Hf – 5d series – Atomic radius 144 pm
  3. The radii are very similar even though the number of electrons increases.
  4. Zr and Hf have very similar chemical behaviour, having closely similar radii and electronic configuration.
  5. Radius dependent properties such as lattice energy, solvation energy are similar.
  6. Thus lanthanides contraction leads to formation of pair of elements and those known as chemical twins, e.g., Zr – Hf

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Question 24.
Which is stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ ?
Answer:
Cr2+ and Fe2+
Cr (Z = 24) – Electronic configuration – [Ar] 3d5 4s1
Cr2+ Electronic configuration – [Ar] 3d4 4s0
Fe (Z = 26) – Electronic configuration – [Ar] 3d6 4s2
Fe2+ Electronic confimiration – [Ar] 3d6 4s0

If standard electrode potential (E°) of a metal is large and negative, the metal is a powerful reducing agent

Cr2+ + 2e → Cr
Fe2++2e → Fe
E° = – 0.91V
E°= – 0.44V

By comparing the above equation, Cr2+ is a powerful reducing agent.

Question 25.
The E0M2+/M value for copper is positive. Suggest a possible reason for this.
Answer:

  1. Copper has a positive reduction potential. Elemental copper is more stable than Cu2+.
  2. Copper having positive sign for electrode potential merely means that copper can undergo reduction at faster rate than reduction of hydrogen.
  3. The electron giving reaction (oxidation) of copper is slower than that of hydrogen. It is determined from the result of S.H.E (Standard Hydrogen Electrode) potential value experiment.

Question 26.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution Ti2+ , V3+, Sc4+, Cu+, SC3+, Fe3+, Ni2+ and CO3+
Answer:
Among Ti2+ , V3+, Sc4+, Cu+, Sc3+, Fe3+, Ni2+ and CO3+ in aqueous solution state.
Ti (Z = 22) – Ti2+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d2
V (Z = 23) – V3+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d2
Sc (Z = 21) – SC4+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
Cu (Z = 29) – Cu+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10
Sc (Z = 21) – SC3+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d°4s°
Fe (Z = 26) – Fe3+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d5
Ni (Z = 28) – Ni2+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d5
CO (Z = 27) – CO3+ – Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d6
A transition metal ion is coloured if it has one or more unpaired electrons in (n-l)d orbital, i.e. 3d orbitals in the case of first transition series, when such species are exposed to visible radiation, d – d transition take place and the species are coloured.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-9

Question 27.
Describe the variable oxidation state of 3d series elements.
Answer:
1. The first transition metal Scandium exhibits only +3 oxidation state, but all other transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states by loosing electrons from (n-l)d orbital and ns orbital as the energy difference between them is very small.

2. At the beginning of the 3d series, +3 oxidation state is stable but towards the end +2 oxidation state becomes stable.

3. The number of oxidation states increases with the number of electrons available, and it decreases as the number of paired electrons increases. For example, in the 3d series, first element Sc has only one oxidation state +3 the middle element Mn has six different oxidation states from +2 to +7. The last element Cu shows +1 and +2 oxidation states only.

4. Mn2+ (3d5) is more stable than Mn4+ (3d3) is due to half filled stable configuration.

Question 28.
Which metal in the 3d series exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Answer:
1. The first transition metal copper exhibits only +1 oxidation state.

2. It is unique in 3d series having a stable +1 oxidation state.
Cu (Z = 29) Electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2

3. So copper element only can have +1 oxidation state.

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Question 29.
Why first ionization enthalpy of chromium is lower than that of zinc?
Answer:
The first ionization enthalpy of chromium is lower than that of zinc. Cr (Z = 24) Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d5 4s1. In the case of Cr, first electron has to be removed easily from 4s orbital to attain the more stable half filled configuration. So Cr has lower ionization enthalpy. But in the case of Zinc (Z = 30), electronic configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s2. The first electron has to be removed from the most stable fully filled electronic configuration becomes difficult and it requires more energy.

Question 30.
Transition metals show high melting points why?
Answer:

  1. All the transition metals are hard.
  2. Most of them are hexagonal close packed, cubic close packed (or) body centered cubic which are characteristics of true metals.
  3. The maximum melting point at about the middle of transition metal series indicates that d5 configuration of favourable for strong inter atomic attraction.
  4. Due to the strong metallic bonds, atoms of the transition elements are closely packed and held together. This leads to high melting point and boiling point.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Compare the stability of Ni4+ and Pt4+ from their ionisation enthalpy values
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-10
Pt4+ compounds are stable than Ni4+ compounds because the energy needed to remove 4 electrons in Pt is less than that of Ni.

Question 2.
Why iron is more stable in +3 oxidation state than in +2 and the reverse is true for Manganese?
Answer:
Fe (Z = 26). Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d4s2
Fe → Fe3+ + 3e
Fe3+ Electronic configuration p° [Ar]3d5.
If’d’ orbital is half filled, it is more stable than . Fe2+ where it is [Ar]3d6.
Mn (Z = 25). Electronic configuration [Ar]3d5 4s2
Mn → Mn2+ + 2e . By the loss of 2e, Mn2+ is more stable due to half filled configuration. Mn → Mn3+ + 3e.
Mn3+ Electronic configuration [Ar]3d4 4s°.
Among this Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+ and the Mn2+ is more stable than Mn3+.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The elements whose atom has incomplete d sub-shell are called …………..
(a) s-block element
(b) Alkali metals
(c) transition elements
(d) Representative elements
Answer:
(c) transition elements

2. Which one of the following is the other name of d-block elements?
(a) Chalcogens
(b) Halogens
(c) Inner-transition elements
(d) Transition elements
Answer:
(d) Transition elements

Question 3.
Which metals play an important role in the development of human civilization?
(a) Al and Mg
(b) Na and K
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Mn and Ni
Answer:
(c) Fe and Cu

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Question 4.
Which transition element is used in light bulb filaments?
(a) Al
(b) Ni
(c) W
(d) Fe
Answer:
(c) W

Question 5.
Which metal is used in manufacturing artificial joints?
(a) Molybdenum
(6) Titanium
(c) Tungsten
(d) Iron
Answer:
(b) Titanium

Question 6.
Which transition metal is applied in the manufacturing of boiler plants?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Molybdenum
Answer:
(d) Molybdenum

Question 7.
Identify the transition metal present in Hemoglobin …………..
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 8.
Which of the following transition metal is present in Vitamin B12?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Platinum
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Cobalt

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Question 9.
The metal cobalt is present in
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Vitamin-B
(c) Vitamin-B12
(d) Vitamin-B6
Answer:
(c) Vitamin-B12

Question 10.
Consider the following statements.
Answer:
(i) Transition metals occupy group-3 to group-12 of the modem periodic table.
(ii) Representative elements occupy group-3 to group-12 of the modem periodic table.
(iii) Except group-11 elements of all transition metals are hard.
(iv) d-block elements are mostly non-metals.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv)

Question 11.
Consider the following statements.
Answer:
(i) d-block elements composed of 3d series, Sc to Zn (4th period).
(ii) 4d series composed of Y to Cd.
(iii) 5d series composed of La, Hf to Mercury.
(iv) d-block elements composed of 4d series Y to Cd.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) only
Ans.
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 12.
Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of Sc (Z = 21)?
(a) [Ar] 3d3
(b) [Ar] 3d’ 4s2
(c) [Ar] 3d2 4s1
(d) [Ar] 4s2 4p’
Answer:
(b) [Ar] 3d’ 4s2

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Question 13.
The correct electronic configuration of Cr is …………..
(a) [Ar] 3d4 4s2
(b) [Ar] 3d5
(c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(d) [Ar] 3d6
Answer:
(c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1

Question 14.
Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of copper?
(a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1
(c) [Ar] 3d9 4s2
(d) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 4p1
Answer:
(b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1

Question 15.
Which one of the following is the general electronic configuration of transition elements?
(a) [Noble gas] ns2 np6
(b) [Noble gas] ( n – 2 ) f1-14(n-l)d1-10 ns2
(c) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 (n-l)f1-14 ns2
(d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 ns2
Answer:
(d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 ns2

Question 16.
Which of the following d-block elements has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Aluminium
(d) Tungsten
Answer:
(b) Silver

Question 17.
Consider the following statements.
(i) The melting point decreases from Scandium to Vanadium in 3d series.
(ii) In 3d transition series, atomic radius decreases from Sc to V and upto copper atomic radius nearly remains the same.
(iii) As we move down in 3d transition series, atomic radius increases.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i) only

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Question 18.
Which of the following transition element exhibit only +3 oxidation state?
(a) Cu
(b) Sc
(c) Mn
(d) Cr
Answer:
(b) Sc

Question 19.
Which one of the following transition element has maximum oxidation states?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Scandium
(d) Titanium
Answer:
(a) Manganese

Question 20.
Consider the following statements.
(i) In 3d series, the middle element Mn has +2 to +7 oxidation states.
(ii) The oxidation state of Ru and Os is +8.
(iii) Scandium has six different oxidation states.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 21.
Which one of the following elements show high positive electrode potential?
(a) Ti+
(b) Mn2+
(c) CO2+
(d) Cr2+
Ans.wer:
(c) CO2+

Question 22.
Which one of the following elements show high negative electrode potential?
(a) Copper
(b) Manganese
(c) Cobalt
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(d) Zinc

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Question 23.
Which one of the following is diamagnetic in nature?
(a) Ti3+
(b) Cu2+
(c) Zn2+
(d) V3+
Answer:
(c) Zn2+

Question 24.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
(a) Sc3+
(b) Ti4+
(c) V5+
(d) Cu2+
Answer:
(d) Cu2+

Question 25.
Which of the following pair has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mn2+, Fe3+
(b) CO3+, Fe2+
(c) Cr3+, Mn4+
(d) Ti2+, V3+
Answer:
(a) Mn2+, Fe3+

Question 26.
Which of the following pair has d10 electrons?
(a) Ti3+, V4+
(b) CO3+, Fe2+
(c) Cu+ , Zn2+
(d) Mn2+, Fe3+
Answer:
(c) Cu+, Zn2+

Question 27.
Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulphuric acid form SO3.
(a) V3O5
(b) Rh-Ir
(c) Ni
(d) Fe
Answer:
(a) V5O5

Question 28.
Which one of the following is Zeigler – Natta catalyst?
(a) CO2(CO)8
(b) Rh/Ir complex
(c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3
(d) Fe / Mo
Answer:
(c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3

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Question 29.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the polymerisation of propylene?
(a) V2O5
(b) Pt
(c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3
(d) Fe / Mo
Answer:
(c)TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3

Question 30.
Consider the following statements.
Answer:
(i) Transition metal hydrides are used as powerful oxidising agents.
(ii) Metallic carbides are chemically active.
(iii) Interstitial compounds are hard and show electrical and thermal conductivity.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii)

Question 31.
Which one of the following oxide is covalent?
(a) Cr2O3
(b) CrO
(c) Mn2O7
(d) Na2O
Answer:
(c) Mn2O7

Question 32.
Which one of the following oxide is amphoteric in nature?
(a) CrO
(b) Cr2O3
(c) Mn2O7
(d) MnO
Answer:
(b) Cr2O3

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Question 33.
The oxidation state of Chromium in \({ CrO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) and in \({ Cr }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) are …………..
(a) +3, +6
(b) +7, +4
(c) +6, +6
(d) +4, +6
Answer:
(c) +6, +6

Question 34.
Which one of the following is used to identify chloride ion in inorganic qualitative analysis?
(a) Barium chloride test
(b) Chromyl chloride test
(c) Brown ring test
(d) Ammonium molybdate test
Answer:
(b) Chromyl chloride test

Question 35.
Which one of the following is the formula of chromyl chloride?
(a) CrOCl2
(b) CrCl3
(c) CrO2 Cl2
(d) CrCl
Answer:
(c) CrO2 Cl2

Question 36.
Which ore is used to prepare potassium permanganate?
(a) Pyrolusite
(b) Chromite
(c) Argentite
(d) Cuprite
Answer:
(a) Pyrolusite

Question 37.
Which one of the following geometry is possesed by permanganate ion?
(a) Pyramidal
(b) Tetrahedral
(c) Octahedral
(d) linear
Answer:
(b) Tetrahedral

Question 38.
The hybridisation state of Mn+7 is permanganate ion is …………..
(a) sp2 hybridisation
(b) dsp2 hybridisation
(c) d2sp3 hybridisation
(d) sp3 hybridisation
Answer:
(d) sp3 hybridisation

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Question 39.
Which one of the following is known as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4
(b) Chromyl Chloride
(c) Acidified potassium dichromate
(d) Acidified potassium manganate
Answer:
(a) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4

Question 40.
Which reagent is used in the conversion of ethylene into ethylene glycol?
(a) Chromyl chloride
(b) Zeigler – Natta catalyst
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4
(d) Acidified K4Cr2O7
Answer:
(c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4

Question 41.
Baeyer’s reagent is used to detect unsaturation in an organic compound.
(a) Chloride ion
(b) unsaturated organic compound
(c) Sulphate ion
(d) Chromate ion
Answer:
(b) unsaturated organic compound

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Question 42.
What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acid medium?
(a) 158
(b) 52.67
(c) 31.6
(d) 392
Answer:
(c) 31.6

Question 43.
What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in basic medium?
(a) 158
(b) 52.67
(c) 392
(d) 31.6
Answer:
(a) 158

Question 44.
Which one of the following is used for the estimation of ferrous salts, oxalates, hydrogen peroxide and iodides?
(a) K2MnO4
(ft) KMnO4
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) CrO2 Cl2
Answer:
(b) KMnO4

Question 45.
Which of the following is the general electronic configuration of lanthanoids?
(a) [Xe] 4f7 3d1-10 5s2
(b) [Xe] 4f1-14 3d10 6s2
(c) [Xe] 5f2-14 4d10 6s2
(d) [Xe] 4f2-14 5d1-10 6s2
Answer:
(d) [Xe] 4f2-14 5d1-10 6s2

Question 46.
The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoids is …………..
(a) + 4
(b) + 3
(c) + 6
(d) +5
Answer:
(b) + 3

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Question 47.
The expected electronic configuration of lanthanum (La) (Z = 57) is …………..
(a) [Xe] 4f1 5d° 6s2
(b) [Xe] 4f0 5d1 6s2
(c) [Xe] 4f3
(d) [Xe] 4f0 5d3
Answer:
(a) [Xe] 4f1 5d° 6s2

Question 48.
The actual electronic configuration of La (Z = 57) is …………..
(a) [Xe] 4f1 5d° 6s2
(b) [Xe] 4f3
(c) [Xe] 4f0 5d1 6s2
(d) [Xe] 4f0 5d3
Answer:
(c) [Xe] 4f0 5d1 6s2

Question 49.
Which of the following lanthanoids have half-filled 4f orbital?
(a) Gd
(b) Tb
(c) Lu
(d) La
Answer:
(a) Gd

Question 50.
Which one of the following lanthanoids have completely filled 4f orbital?
(a) Gd and Eu
(b) La and Ce
(c) Yb and Lu
(d) Pr and Pm
Answer:
(c) Yb and Lu

Question 51.
Which one of the following is the main cause of lanthanoid contraction?
(a) Poor shielding effect of 5f sub-shell
(b) More shielding effect of 4f sub-shell
(c) Poor shielding effect of 4f sub-shell
(d) More shielding effect of 5f sub-shell
Answer:
(c) Poor shielding effect of 4f sub-shell

Question 52.
Which of the following pair has more or less same atomic radius due to lanthanide contraction?
(a) Ti and V
(b) Fm and Md
(c) No and Lr
(d) Zr and Hf
Answer:
(d) Zr and Hf

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Question 53.
Consider the following statement.
(i) All the actinoids are non radioactive.
(ii) Neptunium and other heavier elements are produced by artificial transformation of naturally occurring elements by nuclear reactions.
(iii) Most of the actinoids have long half lives.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii)

Question 54.
The general valence shell electronic configuration of actinoids is …………..
(a) [Xe] 4f2-14 5d0-2 6s2
(b) [Rn] 4f2-14 5d0-2 6s2
(c) [Rn] 5f2-14 6d0-1 7s2
(d) [Rn] 4f0-7 5d0-1 s2
Answer:
(c) [Rn] 5f2-14 6d0-2 7s2

Question 55.
Which pair of actinoids show +2 oxidation state?
(a) Am and Th
(b) Pa and U
(c) Pu and Cm
(d) No and Lr
Answer:
(a) Am and Th

Question 56.
Neptunium and Plutonium exhibit the maximum oxidation state as …………..
(a) + 8
(b) + 7
(c) + 6
(d) + 4
Answer:
(b) + 7

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Question 57.
Consider the following statement.
Answer:
(i) Most of the actinoids are coloured.
(ii) Actinoids show greater tendency to form complexes.
(iii) Most of the actinoids are non-radioactive.

Which of the above statements is/are correct.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii)

Question 58.
Consider the following statement.
Answer:
(i) Lanthanoids do not form oxo cations.
(ii) Most of the lanthanoids are colourless.
(iii) Binding energy of 4f orbitals are lower.

Which of the above statement is/are not correct.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iii) only

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Question 59.
Which one of the following is more basic in nature?
(a) La(OH)3
(b) Ce(OH)3
(c) Gd(OH)3
(d) Lu(OH)3
Answer:
(a) La(OH)3

Question 60.
Which one of the following is less basic in nature?
Answer:
(a) La(OH)3
(b) Gd(OH)3
(c) Lu(OH)3
(d) Ce(OH)3
Answer:
(c) LU(OH)3

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. Transition elements occupy the central position of the periodic table between …………. elements.
  2. Except …………. elements, all transition metals are hard and have very high melting point.
  3. The metal present in Vitamin – B12 is ………….
  4. …………. metal is used in manufacture of artificial joints.
  5. The extra stability of Cr and Cu is due to …………. of electrons and exchange energy.
  6. Of all the known elements …………. has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature.
  7. The maximum melting point at about the middle of transition metal series indicates that …………. configuration is favourable for strong attraction.
  8. The atomic radius of 5d elements and 4d elements are nearly same due to ………….
  9. Ni (II) compounds are thermodynamically …………. than Pt (II) compounds.
  10. The first transition metal …………. exhibits only +3 oxidation state.
  11. The middle transition element …………. has six different oxidation states.
  12. The oxidation state of Ru and Os is ………….
  13. …………. is unique in 3d series having a stable +1 oxidation state.
  14. The substance which is oxidised is a …………. agent and the one which is reduced is an …………. agent.
  15. The oxidising and reducing power of an element is measured in terms of ………….
  16. If the E° of a metal is large and negative, the metal is a ………….
  17. The species with all paired electrons exhibit ………….
  18. The magnetic moment of an ion is given by ………….
  19. Many industrial processes use …………. or their as catalyst.
  20. In the catalytic hydrogenation of an alkene …………. is used as catalyst.
  21. In the preparation of acetic acid from acetaldehyde the catalyst used in ………….
  22. The catalyst used in the hydroformylation of olefins is ………….
  23. …………. catalyst is used in polymerization of propylene.
  24. Metallic carbides are chemically ………….
  25. Except Scandium all other 3d series transition elements form …………. metal oxides.
  26. Cr2O3 …………. is and CrO is …………. in nature.
  27. Mn2O7 dissolves in water to give ………….
  28. On heating potassium dichromate, it decomposes to give …………. and molecular oxygen.
  29. Potassium dichromate is a powerful …………. agent in acidic medium.
  30. ………….is used in leather tanneries for chrome tanning.
  31. Potassium dichromate is used in quantitative analysis for the estimation of …………. and ………….
  32. Permanganate ion has …………. geometry in which Mn+7 is …………. hybridised.
  33. Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 is known as ………….
  34. …………. is used for the treatment of skin infections and fungal infections of the foot.
  35. Baeyer’s reagent is used for detecting …………. in an organic compounds.
  36. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in neutral medium is ………….
  37. The common oxidation state of lanthanoids is ………….
  38. Due to the decrease in the size of Ln3+ ions, the ionic character of Ln – OH bond decreases which results in the ………….
  39.  All the actinoids are …………. and most of them have …………. half lives.
  40. ………….do not form oxo cations.

Answer:

  1. sandpblock
  2. group-II
  3. cobalt
  4. Titanium
  5. symmetrical distribution
  6. silver
  7. d5, inter atomic
  8. lanthanoid contraction
  9. more stable
  10. Scandium
  11. Manganese
  12. + 8
  13. Copper
  14. reducing, oxidising
  15. Standard electrode potential
  16. powerful reducing agent
  17. diamagnetism
  18. μ=\(g\sqrt { S(S+1) } \)μB
  19. transition metals, compounds
  20. Nickel
  21. Rh/Ir complex
  22. CO2(CO)8
  23. Zeigler – Natta (or) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3
  24. inert
  25. ionic
  26. amphoteric, basic
  27. permanganic acid (HMnO4)
  28. Chromium (III) oxide – Cr2O3
  29. Potassium dichrom.ate
  30. iron compounds, iodides
  31. tetrahedral,sp3
  32. Baeyer’s reagent
  33. Potassium permanganate
  34. unsaturation
  35. 52.67
  36. + 3
  37. decrease in the basicity
  38. radioactive. shoit
  39. Lanthanoids

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III. Match the following using the code given below.

Question 1.
A. Tungsten – 1. Development of human civilization
B. Titanium – 2. Light bulb filament
C. Molybdenum – 3. Artificial joint
D. Copper – 4. Boiler plants
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-1
Answer:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 2.
A. Iron – 1. Artificial joints
B. Platinum – 2. Hemoglobin
C. Cobalt – 3. Catalysis
D. Titanium – 4. Vitamin – B12
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-2
Answer:
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 3.
A. Sc to Zn – 1. 5d series
B. Y to Cd – 2. Actinoids
C. LatoHg – 3. 3dseries
D. Ac to Lr – 4. 4d series
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-3
Answer:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Question 4.
A. Cr – 1. [Ar] 3d10 4s2
B. Cu – 2. [Ar] 3d5 4s1
C. Zn – 3. [Ar]3d1 4s2
D. Sc – 4. [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-4
Answer:
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3

Question 5.
A. Scandium – 1. + 7
B. Manganese – 2. + 2
C. Copper – 3.+3
D. Titanium – 4. + I
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-5
Answer:
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 6.
A. Sc3+ – 1. 3d1
B. Ti3 – 2. 3d0
C. Mn2+ – 3. 3d10
D. Zn2+ – 4. 3d5
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-6
Answer:
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

IV. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – Cr and Cu having [Ar] 3d5 4s1 and [Ar] 3d10 4s1 are more stable.
Reason (R) – The extra stability of elements Cr and Cu is due to symmetrical distribution of electrons and exchange energy.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

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Question 2.
Assertion (A) – In 3d transition elements, the expected decrease in atomic radius is observed from Sc to V, thereafter upto Cu, the atomic radius nearly remains the same.
Reason (R) – As we move from Sc to V, the added 3d electrons only partially shield the increased nuclear charge but upto Cu, the extra electron added to 3d sub-shell repel the 4s electrons and the slight increase in nuclear charge operated in opposite direction and it leads to constancy in atomic radii.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – In transition metal series, the ionization enthalpy increases.
Reason (R) – This is due to increase in nuclear charge corresponding to the filling of d electrons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – Ni (II) compounds are thermodynamically more stable than Pt (II) compounds.
Reason (R) – The energy required to form Ni2- is less than that of Pt2+.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Except Scandium all 3d series, transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states.
Reason (R) – By loosing electrons from (n – l)d orbital and ns orbital as the energy difference between them is very small.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – Mn2+ is more stable than Mn4+.
Reason (R) – Mn2+(3d5) is more stable than Mn4+(3d3) is due to extra stability of half-filled electronic configuration.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 7.
Assertion (A) – Copper is unique in 3d series having a stable +1 oxidation state.
Reason (R) – Copper is prone to disproportionate to the +2 and 0 oxidation states.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

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Question 8.
Assertion (A) – Transition metals form large number of complexes.
Reason (R) – Transition metals are small and highly charged and they have vacant low energy orbitals to accept an electron pair donated by other groups.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation

V. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) Sc
(b) Ti
(c) Y
(d) Cr
Answer:
(c) Y
Reason: Yttrium be1ons to 4d series whereas others are 3d series

Question 2.
(a)Ru
(b)Rh
(c)Pd
(d) Pt
Answer:
(d) Pt
Reason: Pt belongs to 5d series whereas others are 4d series.

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Question 3.
(a) Th
(b) La
(c) Ce
(d) Lu
Answer:
(a) Th
Reason: Th belongs to actinoids whereas others are lanthanoids.

Question 4.
(a) La
(b) Pr
(c) Am
(d) Lu
Answer:
(c) Am
Reason: Am belongs to actinoids whereas others are lanthanoids.

Question 5.
(a) Ce
(b) Th
(c) U
(d) Pu
Answer:
(a) Ce
Reason: Ce belongs to lanthanoids whereas others are actinoids.

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Question 6.
(a) Ac
(b) U
(c) Pa
(4) Np
Answer:
(a) Ac
Reason: Except Actinium all the remaining elements are synthetically prepared.

Question 7.
(a) Ti2+
(b) V2+
(c) Zn2+
(d) Cu2+
Answer:
(d) Cu2+
Reason: It has positive reduction potential whereas others have negative reduction potential.

Question 8.
(a) CO3+
(b) Cr3+
(c) V3+
(4) Ti3+
Answer:
(a) CO3+
Reason: It has positive reduction potential whereas others have negative reduction potential.

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Question 9.
(a) Mn3+
(b) Fe3+
(c) Cr3+
(d) CO3+
Answer:
(c) Cr3+
Reason: It has negative reduction potential whereas others have positive reduction potential.

Question 10.
(a) SC3+
(b) Ti4+
(c) V5+
(d) Cu2+
Answer:
(d) Cu2+
Reason: It is paramagnetic whereas others are diamagnetic.

Question 11.
(a) Cr3+
(b) Mn4+
(c) V2+
(d) Zn2+
Answer:
(d) Zn2+
Reason: It is diamagnetic whereas others are paramagnetic

VI. Find Out the correct pair.

Question 1.
(a) \({ CrO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) and Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\)
(b) \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) and \({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
(c) H2CrO4 and HMnO4
(d) Cr2O3 and Mn2O7
Answer:
(a) \({ CrO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) and Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\)
In this pair Cr has +6 oxidation states whereas in others the metal has different oxidation state.

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Question 2.
(a) Zn, Cu
(b) Hf, Zr
(c) Ag , Au
(d) Ti, Cu
Answer:
(b) Hf, Zr
This pair has same atomic radius whereas others have different atomic radius.

Question 3.
(a) Ru , Os
(b) Mn , Cu
(c) Sc , Cu
(d) Ni, Co
Answer:
(a) Ru , Os
Both has +8 as oxidation state whereas others have different oxidation state.

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Question 4.
(a) Ti2+, CO2+
(b) Cr2+, Mn3+
(c) Fe2+ and CO3+
(d) CO3+ and Cu2+
Answer:
(d) CO3+ and Cu2+
Both have positive electrode potential whereas others have different value.

Question 5.
(a) Cu2+, Zn2+
(b) CO3+, Cr3+
(c) Ti3+, V3+
(d) Mn3+, Cr3+
Answer:
(c) Ti3+, V3+
have negative electrode potential whereas others have different values.

VII. Find out the incorrect pair.

Question 1.
(a) Sc3+, Ti4+
(b) Ti3+, Ti2+
(c) Cr2+, Mn3+
(d) Cu+, Zn2+
Answer:
(b) Ti3+, Ti2+
have d1 and d1 configuration whereas others have same configuration.

Question 2.
(a) Sc and Zn
(b) Y and Cd
(c) Ag and Au
(d) Na and K
Answer:
(d) Na and K. They belong to alkaline metals whereas others are d-block elements.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
d-block elements are called transition elements. Justify this statement.
Answer:
1. d-block elements occupy the central position of the periodic table, between s and p block elements.

2. Their properties are transitional between highly reactive metals of s-block and elements of p-block which are mostly non-metals. That is why d-block elements are called transitional elements.

Question 2.
How many series are in d-bloclc elements? What are they?
Answer:

  • There are 4 series in d-block e1ements They are,
  • 3d series – 4th period – Scandium to Zinc
  • 4d series – 5th period – Yttrium to Cadmium
  • 5d series – 6th period – Lanthanum to Mercury
  • 6d series – 7th period – Actinium to Californium

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Question 3.
Zn, Cd, Hg belong to d-block elements even though they do not have partially filled d-orbitals. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Zn, Cd, Hg belong to d-block elements even though they do not have partially filled d-orbitals either in their elemental state or in their normal oxidation states.
2. However they are treated as transition elements, because their properties are an extension of the properties of the respective transition elements.

Question 4.
Applying Aufbau principle, write down the electronic configuration of Sc (Z = 21) and Zn (Z = 30).
Answer:

  1. According to Aufbau principle, the electron first fills the 4s orbital before 3d orbital.
  2. Sc (Z = 21) Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1
    • Zn (Z = 30) Is2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10

Question 5.
Write a note about atomic radius of Zinc.
Answer:
At the end of 3d series, d-orbitals of Zinc contain 10 electrons in which the repulsive interaction between the electrons is more than the effective nuclear charge and hence the orbitals slightly expand and atomic radius slightly increases.

Question 6.
Write a not about oxidation state of 3d series.
Answer:

  1. The number of oxidation states increases with the number of electrons available, and it decreases as the number of paired electrons increases.
  2. Hence, the first and last elements show less number of oxidation states and the middle elements with more number of oxidation states.
  3. For example, the first element Sc has only one oxidation state +3, the middle element Mn has six different oxidation states from +2 to +7. The last element Cu shows +1 and +2 oxidation states only.

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Question 7.
Mn2+ is more stable than Mn4+. Why?
Answer:

  1. The relative stability of different oxidation states of 3d metals is correlated with the extra stability of half-filled and fully filled electronic configurations.
  2. Example – Mn2+ (3d5) is more stable than Mn4+ (3d3)

Question 8.
Ru and Os have highest oxidation state in which compounds? Explain with example.
Answer:

  1. Ru and Os have +8 as the highest oxidation state.
  2. The highest oxidation state of 4d and 5d elements are found in their compounds with the higher electronegative elements like O, F and Cl. For example: RuO4, OsO4

Question 9.
Copper is unique in 3d series. Prove this statement.
Answer:
Copper is unique in 3d series having a stable +1 oxidation state. It is prone to disproportionate to the +2 and 0 oxidation states.

Question 10.
Define – Standard electrode potential.
Answer:
Standard electrode potential is the value of the standard emf of a cell in which molecular hydrogen under standard pressure (latm) and temperature (273K) is oxidised to solvated protons at the electrode.

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Question 11.
Which metal is used to reduce Cr3+ ion? Why?
Answer:
A stable Cr3+ ion, strong reducing agent which has high negative value for reduction potential like metallic zinc (E° = – 0.76 V) is required. Metallic zinc is a powerful reducing agent due to its large negative values.

Question 12.
Sc3+, Ti4+, V5+ are diamagnetic. Give reason.
Answer:

  1. Sc3+, Ti4+, V5+ have d° electronic configuration, n = 0
  2. µ = \(\sqrt { 0(0+2) }\) = 0 µB So they are diamagnetic.

Question 13.
Calculate the magnetic moment of Ti3+ and V4+.
Answer:
Ti (Z = 22) Ti3+ 3d1
V (Z = 23) V4+ 3d1
µ = \(\sqrt { 1(1+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 35 }\) = 1.73 µB. So they are paramagnetic.

Question 14.
Cr3+, Mn4+, V2+ are paramagnetic. Calculate their magnetic moment values.
Answer:
Cr3+, Mn4+, V2+ Configuration is d3. Due to 3 unpaired electrons, they are paramagnetic.  µ = \(\sqrt { 3(3+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 35 }\) = 3.87 µB

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Question 15.
Mn2+, Fe3+ have high magnetic moment. Prove it.
Answer:

  1. Mn2+, Fe3+ configuration is d5.
  2. µ = \(\sqrt { 5(5+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 35 }\) = 5.916 µB
    Among 3d series, Mn2+, Fe3+ have high magnetic moment as 5.916 µB .

Question 16.
How many unpaired electrons are present in CO3+, Fe2+? Calculate their magnetic moment.
Answer:
Answer:
CO (Z = 27) CO3+ [Ar] 3d6
Fe (Z = 26) Fe2+ [Ar] 3d6
The number of unpaired electrons are 4 as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-11
Their magnetic moment is µ = \(\sqrt { 4(4+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 24 }\) = 4.89 µB

Question 17.
Calculate the magnetic moment and the number of unpaired electrons in Cu2+.
Answer:
Cu (Z = 29) Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Cu2+ Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d9
The number of unpaired electrons
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-12 is 1.
Magnetic moment µ = \(\sqrt { 1(1+2) }\) = \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732 µB

Question 18.
Cu+, Zn2+ are diamagnetic. Prove it.
Answer:
Cu+, Zn2+ electronic configuration [Ar] 3d10
The number of unpaired electron is 0.
µ = \(\sqrt { 0(0+2) }\) = 0 µB. Cu+, Zn2+ are diamagnetic.

Question 19.
Most of the transition metals act as catalyst. Justify this statement.
Answer:
1. Many industrial processes use transition metals or their compounds as catalysts. Transition metal has energetically available d orbitals that can accept electrons from reactant molecule or metal can form bond with reactant molecule using its ‘d’ electrons.

2. For example, in the catalytic hydrogenation of an alkene, the alkene bonds to an active site by using its n electrons with an empty d orbital of the catalyst.

Question 20.
Explain the catalytic hydrogenation of alkene to alkane with equation.
Answer:
The σ bond in the hydrogen molecule breaks, and each hydrogen atom forms a bond with a d electron on an atom in the catalyst Nickel. The two hydrogen atoms then bond with the partially broken π -bond in the alkene to form an alkane.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-13

Question 21.
Which catalyst is used in the hydroformylation of olefins? Give equation
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-14

Question 22.
Which catalyst is used in the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid? Give equation
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-15

Question 23.
What is Zeigler -Natta catalyst? In which reaction it is used? Give equation.
Answer:
A mixture of TiCl4 and trialkyl aluminium is Zeigler – Natta catalyst. It is used in the polymerization
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-16

Question 24.
d-block elements readily form complexes. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Transition elements (d-block elements) have a tendency to form coordination compounds (complexes) with a species that has an ability to donate an electron pair to form a coordinate

2. Transition metal ions are small and highly charged and they have vacant low energy orbitals to accept an electron pair donated by other groups. Due to these properties, transition metals form large number of complexes.

3. Examples – [Fe(CN)6]4-, [CO(NH3)6]3+

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Question 25.
Prove that acidified potassium dichromate is a powerful oxidising agent.
Answer:
K2Cr2O7 act as power oxidising agent in acidic medium. In the presence of H+ ions, the oxidation state of Cr froms Cr6+ is changed to Cr3+
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 14H+ + 6 → 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O

Example:
Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises Ferrous salts to Ferric salts.
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 6Fe2+ + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O.

Question 26.
What are the uses of potassium dichromate?
Answer:
K2Cr2O7 is used

  1. as a strong oxidising agent
  2. in dyeing and printing
  3. in leather tanneries for chrome plating
  4. in quantitative analysis for the estimation of iron compounds and iodides

Question 27.
Draw and explain about the structure of permanganate ion.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-17
Permanganate ion has tetrahedral geometry in which the central Mn7+ is sp3 hybridised.

Question 28.
Explain the action of heat on potassium permanganate.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-18

Question 30.
What happens when thiosuiphate ion is treated with permanganate ion?
Answer:
Permanganate ion oxidises thiosulphate into sulphate.
\({ 8MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 3S2\({ O }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\) → \({ 6SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + 8MnO2 + 2OH

Question 31.
What is Baeyer’s reagent? Where it is used?
Answer:

  1. Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 is known as Baeyer’s reagent. It is used to oxidise alkene into diols.
  2. For example, ethylene can be converted into ethylene glycol and this reaction is used as a test for unsaturation.

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Question 32.
Acidified KMnO4 is a very strong oxidising agent. Prove it.
Answer:
1. In the presence of dilute sulphuric acid, potassium permanganate acts as a very strong oxidising agent. Permanganate ion is converted into Mn2+ ion.
\({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O

2. Permanganate oxidises ferrous salt to ferric salt.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 10Fe2+ + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10Fe3+ + 8H2O

Question 33.
KMnO4 does not act as oxidising agent in the presence of HCl. Why?
Answer:
HCl cannot be used for making acidified KMnO4 as oxidising agent, since it reacts with KMnO4 as follows.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 10Cl + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5Cl2 + 8H2O

Question 34.
HNO3 cannot be used as an acid medium along with KMnO4. Why?
Answer:
HNO3 cannot be used since it is a good oxidising agent and it reacts with reducing agents in the reaction.

Question 35.
Among HCl, HNO3 and H2SO4, which is the suitable medium for KMnO4 in oxidising reaction?
HCl and HNO3 cannot be used. HCl react with KMnO4. HNO3 is itself a good oxidising agent. However, H2SO4 is found to be most suitable since it does not react with potassium permanganate.

Question 36.
Explain about the causes of lanthanide contraction.
Answer:
1. As we move from one element to another in 4f series ( Ce to Lu) the nuclear charge increases by one unit and an additional electron is added into the same inner 4f sub-shell.

2. 4f sub-shell have a diffused shapes and therefore the shielding effect of 4f electrons are relatively poor. Hence, with increase of nuclear charge, the valence shell is pulled slightly towards nucleus.

3. As a result, the effective nuclear charge experienced by the 4f elelctoms increases and the size of Ln3+ ions decreases.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements 3 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cr and Cu are more stable. Give reason.
Answwer:
1. The electronic configuration of Cr and Cu are [Ar] 3d3 4s1 and [Ar] 3d10 4s1 respectively. The extra stability of half filled and fully filled d orbitals, as already explained in XI STD, is due to symmetrical distribution of electrons and exchange energy.

2. The extra stability of half filled and fully filled d orbitals is due to symmetrical distribution of electrons and exchange energy.

3. When the d orbitals are considered together, they will constitute a sphere. So the half filled and fully filled configuration leads to complete symmetrical distribution of electron density.

4. On the other hand, an unsymmetrical distribution of electron density will result in building up of a potential difference. To decrease this and to achieve a tension free state with lower energy, a symmetrical distribution is preferred.

Question 2.
Explain about the metallic behaviour of d-block elements.
Answer:
1. All the transition elements are metals. They are good conductors of heat and electricity. Of all the known elements, silver has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature.

2. Most of the transition elements are hexagonal close packed, cubic close packed or body centered cubic which are the characteristics of true metals.

Question 3.
Explain about the variation of melting point among the transition metal series.
Answer:
1. As we move from left to right along the transition metal series, melting point first increases as the number of unpaired d electrons available for metallic bonding increases, reach a maximum value and then decreases, as the d electron pairs up and become less available for bonding.

2. For example, in the first series the melting point increases from Scandium to a maximum of 2183 K for Vanadium, which is close to 2180K for chromium.

3. Manganese in 3d series and has low melting point. The maximum melting point at about the middle of transition metal series indicates that d5 configuration is favorable for strong interatomic attraction.

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Question 4.
Explain about the variation of atomic radius along a period of 3d series.
Answer:
1. In general, atomic radius decreases along a period. But for the 3d transition elements, the expected decrease in atomic radius is observed from Sc to V , thereafter upto Cu the atomic radius nearly remains the same.

2. As we move from Sc to Zn in 3d series, the extra electrons are added to the 3d orbitals, the added 3d electrons only partially shield the increased nuclear charge and hence the effective nuclear charge increases slightly.

3. However, the extra electrons added to the 3d sub shell strongly repel the 4s electrons and these two forces are operated in opposite direction and as they tend to balance each other, it leads to constancy in atomic radii.

Question 5.
Ni (II) compounds are more stable than Pt (II) compounds. Give reason.
1. The ionisation enthalpy values can be used to predict the thermodynamic stability of their compounds. .

2. For Nickel I.E1 + I.E2 = 737+ 1753
= 2490 kJ mol-1
For platinum, I.E1 + I.E2 = 864+ 1791
= 2655 kJ mol-1
Since, the energy required to form Ni2+ is less than that of Pt2+ , Ni(II) compounds are thermodynamically more stable than Pt(II) compounds.

Question 6.
Compare the reduction potentials of Mn3+ / Mn2+ and Fe3+ / Fe2+ .
Answer:
1. Mn3+ + e → Mn2+
E° = + 1.51V
Fe3+ + e → Fe2+
E° = + 0.77V

2. The high reduction potential of Mn3+ / Mn2+ indicates Mn2+ is more stable than Mn3+. For Fe3+ / Fe2+ the reduction potential is 0.77V, this low value indicates that both Fe3+ and Fe2+ can exist under normal conditions.

3. The drop from Mn to Fe is due to the electronic structure of the ions concerned. Mn3+ has 3d4 configuration while that of Mn2+ is 3d5. The extra stability associated with a half filled d sub-shell makes the reduction of Mn3+ very feasible.

Question 7.
How alloys are formed in d-biock elements?
Answer:
1. An alloy is formed by blending a metal with one or more other elements. The elements may be metals or non-metals or both.

2. The bulk metal is named as solvent, and the other elements in smaller portion is called solute.

3. According to Hume – Rothery rule to form an alloy, the difference between the atomic radii of the solvent and solute is less than 15%. Both the solvent and solute must have the same crystal structure and valence and their electro negativity difference must be close to zero.

4. Since their atomic sizes are similar and one metal atom can be easily replaced by another metal atom from its crystal lattice to form an alloy. The alloys are hard and have high melting points. Examples – Gold – copper alloy.

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Question 8.
What are interstitial compounds? Give their properties.
Answer:
An interstitial compound or alloy is a compound that is formed when small atoms like hydrogen, boron, carbon or nitrogen are trapped in the interstitial holes in a metal lattice. They are usually non-stoichiometric compounds, e.g., TiC, ZrH1.92, Mn4N.

  1. They are hard and show electrical and thermal conductivity.
  2. They have high melting points.
  3. Transition metal hydrides are used as powerful reducing agents.
  4. Metallic carbides are chemically inert.

Question 9.
Explain the action of heat on potassium dichromate.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-19

Question10.
Draw and explain about the structure of chromate and dichromate ion.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-20

  1. Both chromate and dichromate ions are oxo anions of chromium and they are moderately strong oxidising agents.
  2. In both structures, chromium is in +6 oxidation state.
  3. In an aqueous solution, chromate and dichromate ions can be inter convertible, and in an alkaline solution, chromate ion is predominant, whereas dichromate ion becomes predominant in acidic solutions. .

Question 11.
Explain the action of acidified K2Cr2O7 – with

  1. Iodide
  2. Sulphide

Answer:
1. Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises iodide ions to iodine.
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 6I + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ +3I2 + 7H2O

2. Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises Sulphide ions to Sulphur.
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 3S2- + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 3S + 7H2O

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Question 12.
Explain the action of acidified K2Cr2O7 with

  1. Sulphur dioxide
  2. Alcohols.

Answer:
1. Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises SO2 to sulphate ion.
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 3SO2 + 2H+ -> 2Cr3+ + \({ 3SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + H2O

2. Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises alcohol to acid. .
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-21

Question 13.
Explain about chromyl chloride test.
Answer:
1. When potassium dichromate is heated with any chloride salt in the presence of Conc.H2SO4, orange red vapours of chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2) is evolved. This reaction is used to confirm the presence of chloride ion in inorganic qualitative analysis.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-22

2. The chromyl chloride vapours are dissolved in sodium hydroxide solution and then acidified with acetic acid and treated with lead acetate. A yellow precipitate of lead chromate is obtained.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-23

Question 14.
Explain the action of Conc.H2SO4 on potassium permanganate.
Answer:
1. On treating with cold conc.H2SO4, it decomposes to form manganese heptoxide, which subsequently decomposes explosively.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-24

2. With hot Conc.H2SO4, potassium permanganate give MnSO4 [Manganese(II) sulphate]
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-25

Question 15.
What are the uses of Potassium permanganate?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is used,

  1. as a strong oxidising agent.
  2. for the treatment of various skin infections and fungal infections of foot.
  3. used in water treatment industries to remove iron and hydrogen sulphide from well water.
  4. as a Baeyer’s reagent for detecting unsaturation in an organic compound.
  5. in quantitative analysis for the estimation of ferrous salts, oxalates, hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and iodides.

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Question 16.
Calculate the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in

  1. Acidic medium
  2. Basic medium
  3. Neutral medium

Answer:
1. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acidic medium
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-26

2. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 in basic medium
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-27

3. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 in neutral medium
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-28

Question 17.
Explain about the oxidation state of actinoids.
Answer:

  1. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is +3.
  2. In addition to that actinoids show variable oxidation states such as +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7.
  3. The elements Americium (Am) and Thorium (Th) show +2 oxidation state in some compounds.
  4. Th, Pa, U, Np, Pu and Am show +5 oxidation states.
  5. Np and Pu exhibit +7 oxidation state.

Question 18.
Write the electronic configuration of

  1. Ac (Z = 89)
  2. Am (Z = 95)
  3. Lr (Z = 103)

Answer:

  1. Ac (Z = 89): [Rn] 5f0 6d1 7s2
  2. Am (Z = 95) : [Rn] 5f7 6d0 7s2
  3. Lr (Z = 103): [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Transition and Inner Transition Elements 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain about the magnetic properties of transition elements.
Answer:
1. Most of the compounds of transition elements are paramagnetic.

2. Materials with no elementary magnetic dipoles are diamagnetic. In other words a species with all paired electrons exhibits diamagnetism.

3. Paramagnetic solids having unpaired electrons possess magnetic dipoles which are isolated from one another.

4. Ferromagnetic materials have domain structure and in each domain the magnetic dipoles are arranged. But the spin dipoles of the adjacent domains are randomly oriented. Some transition elements or ions with unpaired d electrons show ferromagnetism.

5. 3d transition metal ions in paramagnetic solids often have a magnetic dipole moment corresponding to the electron spin contribution only. So the magnetic moment of the ion is given by
µ = \(g\sqrt { S(S+1) }\) µB
Where g = 2, S is the total spin quantum number of the electrons.
µB = Bohr Magneton.
For an ion with ‘n’ unpaired electrons S = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)
Therefore the spin only magnetic moment is µ = \(2\sqrt { \left( \frac { n }{ 2 } \right) \left( \frac { n }{ 2 } +1 \right) }\)µB
µ = \(2\sqrt { \left( \frac { n\left( n+2 \right) }{ 4 } \right) }\)µB
µ = \(2\sqrt { n(n+2) }\)µB

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Question 2.
How will you prepare potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is prepared from pyrolusite (MnO2) ore. The preparation involves the following steps.
1. Conversion of MnO2 to potassium manganate:
Powdered ore is fused with KOH in the presence of air or oxidising agents like KNO3. A green coloured potassium manganate is formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-29

2. Oxidation of potassium manganate to potassium permanganate:
Potassium manganate can be oxidised in two ways, either by chemical oxidation or electrolytic oxidation.

3. Chemical oxidation – In this method potassium manganate is treated with ozone (O3) or chlorine to get potassium permanganate.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + O3 + H2O → \({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + 2OH + O2
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + Cl2 → \({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) + 2Cl

4. Electrolytic oxidation: In this method aqueous solution of potassium manganate is electrolyzed in the presence of little alkali.
K2MnO4 \(\equiv\) 2K+ + \({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
H2O \(\equiv\) H+ + OH

Manganate ions are converted into permanganate ions at anode.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-30
The purple coloured solution is concentrated by evaporation and forms crystals of potassium permanganate on cooling.

Question 3.
Explain acidified KMnO4 is a powerful oxidising agent with 5 examples.
Answer:
1. In the presence of dilute sulphuric acid, potassium permanganate acts as a very strong oxidising agent. Permanganate ions is converted into Mn2+ ion.
\({ MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 8H+ +5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O
Example:
1. Potassium permanganate oxidises ferrous salts to ferric salts.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements-31

2. Potassium permanganate oxidises iodide ions to iodine.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 10I + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O

3. Potassium permanganate oxidises sulphide ion to sulphur.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 5S2- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5S + 8H2O

4. Potassium permanganate oxidises oxalic acid to CO2.
\({ 2MnO }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + 5(COO)2- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

5. Potassium permanganate oxidises alcohols to aldehyde.
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5CH3CH2OH → 2K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5CH3CHO + 8H2O

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
Explain about the oxidation state of Lanthanoids.
Answer:

  1. The common oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3. In addition to that some of the lanthanoids also show either +2 or +4 oxidation states.
  2. Gd3+ and Lu3+ ions have extra stability, it is due to half filled and completely filled f-orbitals.
  3. Cerium and terbium attain 4f7 and 4f14 configurations respectively in the +4 oxidation states.
  4. Eu2+ and Yb2+ ions have exactly half filled and completely filled f orbitals.
  5. Lu shows only +3 oxidation state.
  6. Ce, Pr, Nd, Tb and Dy exhibit +3 and +4 oxidation states.
  7. Nd, Sm, Eu, Tm, Yb exhibit +2 oxidation states also.

Common Errors:
Atomic number of d-block elements may get confused.

Rectifications:
Atomic number of d-block elements in group-wise jumped as 18, 18, 18, 32.
e.g. Sc (Z = 21)
Y (Z = 39)
La (Z = 57)
Ac (Z = 89)

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

Students can Download English Poem 1 Special Hero Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

Special Hero Poem 8th Standard Read And Understand

B. Find a line from the poem to match the statements given below and write it in the blank.

  1. He always saves me from harm ________
  2. I am so lucky to get you ________
  3. The affection between us has no end ________

Answer:

  1. “keeping me safe from harm”
  2. “How did I get so lucky. You were the Dad chosen for me”.
  3. “Our love is everlasting”

C. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The poetess is the speaker.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

Question 2.
Who is the special hero mentioned in the poem?
Answer:
The poet’s father is a special hero mentioned in the poem.

Question 3.
How did the child feel when it was held by its dad?
Answer:
The child felt love and tenderness when his father held the child in his arms.
‘Seems it was sent to me from someplace up above.’

Question 4.
What do the above lines mean?
Answer:
The above lines mean that the poet’s father is sent to her from heaven.

Question 5.
What did the child want to tell its dad?
Answer:
The child wants to tell its dad that its father is the special hero of the child.

D. Work in pairs and answer the questions below.

Question 1.
“There is something special about a father’s love”.
Identify the alliteration in the given lines.
Answer:
something – special is the alliterated words in the given lines.

Question 2.
Pick out the rhyming word from the poem.
Answer:
arms – harm,
see – me,
love – above,
know – so

Writing

E. Write a paragraph on the father’s love as described in the poem.
Answer:
The poet describes her father’s love in this poem. When she was a baby, he held her in his arms. She felt his love and kindness. He always kept her safe from harm. She saw his love for her in his eyes. She said that she was lucky that he was the dad chosen for her. There was something special about her father’s love. He was sent to her from heaven. She wanted him to know that their love lasts forever. She also wanted to tell him that he was her special hero.

Special Hero Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension – Additional

Question 1.
I felt the love and tenderness
keeping me safe from harm

(a) Who felt love and tenderness?
Answer:
The poet felt the love and tenderness of her father.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

(b) What did he keep her safe?
Answer:
He kept her safe from harm.

(c) What do you mean by‘tenderness’?
Answer:
‘Tenderness’ means “Gentleness and kindness”.

Question 2.
How did I get so lucky,
You were the dad chosen for me

(a) Who was lucky?
Answer:
The poet was lucky.

(b) Why was she lucky?
Answer:
She was lucky because he was the dad chosen for her.

(c) Is the poet excited about her father’s love?
Answer:
Yes, she is excited and feels lucky to get a Dad like him.

II. Poetic Devices.

Question 1.
Seems it was sent to me from someplace up above
Pick out the alliterated words?
Answer:
Seems – sent are alliterated words.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

Question 2.
I just wanted you to know
That you’re my special hero
and I wanted to tell you so.
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
know – so are the rhyming words.

Warm-Up

What are the sacrifices made by your father for your family?

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Special Hero

Special Hero Poem Summary In English By Christina M Kerschen

The poem is about the father’s love for a child. The poet describes her father’s love and care towards her. When she was a baby, he held her in his arms. She felt his love and kindness. He always kept her safe from harm. She was able to experience his love for her in his eyes. She felt that she was lucky that he was the dad chosen for her. There was something special about the father’s love. She thought that he was sent to her from heaven. She just wanted him to know that their love lasts forever. She wanted to tell him that he was her special hero.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 5 The River

You can Download The River Poem Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Exploring the textbook concepts is not enough for students who dreamt to do a cakewalk in English grammar. Consistently do your learning and practicing session with Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Grammar study material and achieve all your dreams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 5 The River

The River Poem Questions and Answers

The River Warm Up:

Question 1.
Have you ever been to a river?
Answer:
Yes, I have been to a river.

Question 2.
Describe the beauty of the river you have seen?
Answer:
The river I have seen is shallow and the water is clear. It is a natural stream of water meandering. It looks beautiful.

Question 3.
Do you think rivers have life like human beings?
Answer:
Yes, I think rivers have life like human beings.

The River 9th Class Poem Questions and Answers

B. Read the following lines and answer the River Poem 9th Standard questions given below.

1. O’re the yellow pebbles dancing,
Through the flowers and foliage glancing.

Question (а).
How does the river flow?
Answer:
The river flows glancing through the flowers and foliage.

Question (b).
What is meant by ‘foliage’?
Answer:
Foliage is a cluster of leaves, flowers and branches.

Additional:

Question (a).
What is a pebble?
Answer:
A Pebble is usually a small rounded stone found in water bodies like river.

Question (b).
What is the poetic device employed in the first line.
Answer:
Imagery is the poetic device employed in the first line.

Question (c).
What is the poetic device employed in the second line.
Answer:
Alliteration is the poetic device employed in the second line.

Question (d).
Give the rhyming word for ‘dancing’.
Answer:
The rhyming word for ‘dancing’ is glancing.

Question (e).
Is the river like a child? Why?
Answer:
Yes the river is like a child. The river like a child is bright and sparkling on its way. It dances and plays behind flowers and leaves of trees like a child playing hide and seek.

2. River, river! Swelling river!
On you rush through rough and smooth;

Question (a).
Why does the poet mention the river to be swelling?
Answer:
There is a lot of water flowing heavily in the river. So the poet mentions the river to be swelling.

Question (b).
What are the surfaces the river flows through?
Answer:
The surfaces the river flows through are the rough rocks and smooth places like rose banks where the roses grow.

Additional:

Question (a).
What does the word ‘swelling’ indicate?
Answer:
The word ‘swelling’ indicates the ebb and flow of the river.

Question (b).
Which word is the antonym for ‘rough’?
Answer:
The antonym for the word rough is smooth.

3. Over rocks, by rose-banks, sweeping Like impetuous youth.

Question (a).
Where does the rose grow?
Answer:
The rose grows on the rose banks.

Question (b).
Which stage of man is compared here?
Answer:
The period of youth is compared here.

Additional:

Question (a).
Where does it spend its y lounger days?
Answer:
It spends younger days through rocks and woods.

Question (b).
What is sweeping?
Answer:
The river is sweeping.

Question (c).
Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
Simile is the figure of speech.

Question (d).
What is meant by ‘impetuous’?
Answer:
‘Impetuous’ means reckless or hasty.

Question (e).
Why is the river compared to an ‘impetuous youth’?
Answer:
The river is compared to an impetuous youth because of its reckless and hasty movements over rocks and rose-banks.

4. Broad and deep, and still as time;
Seeming still, yet still in motion,

Question (a).
What is broad and deep?
Answer:
The river is broad and deep.

Question (b).
Is time still?
Answer:
No, the time is not still, yet it seems to be still.

Additional:
(a) Which words describe the river?
Answer:
Broad, deep and still describe the river.

Question (b).
What is the figure of speech in the second line?
Answer:
The figure of speech is alliteration.

Question (c).
Explain ‘still in motion’.
Answer:
Though the river seems to be quiet and motionless, it is always in motion.

5. Tending onward to the ocean,
Just like a mortal prime.

(a) Where is the river flowing to?
Answer:
The river is flowing to the ocean.

Question (b).
What does the poet mean by ‘ mortal Prime’?
Answer:
By the term ‘Mortal prime’, the poet means the man is in the best age of his life.

Additional:

Question (a).
Explain ‘Tending’.
Answer:
‘Tending’ here means inclining towards a habitual action.

Question (b).
What is the figure of speech employed here?
Answer:
The figure of speech is a simile.

The River Poem 9th Class  Additional Questions

1. River, river, little river!
Bright you sparkle on your way;

Question (i).
What is the river?
Answer:
A river is a small little stream.

Question (ii).
Where is the river born?
Answer:
The river is born in the mountains.

Question (iii).
Why is it called ‘little river’?
Answer:
It is called a Tittle river’ because of its size.

Question (iv).
Give the example for epithet in the above lines.
Answer:
Tittle river’ is the example for epithet in the above lines.

2. Louder, faster, brawling, leaping,

Question (i).
What is meant by ‘brawling’?
Answer:
‘Brawling’ is a noisy quarrel.

Question (ii).
What is louder and faster?
Answer:
The river’s movement is louder and faster.

3. River, river! Headlong river!
Down you dash into the sea,

Question (i).
Why is the river said to be ‘headlong’?
Answer:
The river is said to be ‘headlong’ because of its reckless movement.

Question (ii).
Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
The alliterated words are ‘down’ and ‘dash’.

Question (iii).
Where does the headlong river rush to?
Answer:
The headlong river rush towards the sea.

4. Sea that line hath never sounded,
Sea that sail hath never rounded,
Like eternity.

Question (i).
What is the figure of speech in the above lines?
Answer:
Anaphora is the figure of speech in the above lines.

Question (ii).
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
The rhyming words are sounded and rounded

Question (iii).
What is the figure of speech in the second line?
Answer:
The figure of speech is alliteration.

Question (iv).
Explain ‘hath never rounded’.
Answer:
No ship has completely gone around the sea to be compared to eternity.

Question (v).
What is meant by ‘hath’?
Answer:
‘hath’ is the old English word for ‘has’.

Question (vi).
What do the river and the sea remind the poet of?
Answer:
The river is like transient human life. The sea reminds the poet of eternity.

Question (vii).
How does the sea remind you of eternity?
Answer:
Sea is endless and hence it cannot be measured. We do not know where it begins from and where it would end. Hence it reminds me of eternity.

Question (viii).
What happens to the river when it approaches the ocean?
Answer:
It seems wider and seems even slower when it approaches the ocean.

Question (iv).
When does a river grow and vanish?
Answer:
As it approaches to the ocean the river grows and then vanishes into the ocean.

C. Read the following lines and answer the questions.

1. Bright you sparkle on your way;
O’er the yellow pebbles dancing,
Through the flowers and foliage glancing,
Like a child at play.
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
The rhyming words are: Way, play; dancing, glancing.

2. Mention the rhyme scheme of the poem.
The rhyme scheme of the poem is a b c c b.
River, river, little river! a
Bright you sparkle on your way; b
O’er the yellow pebbles dancing, c
Through the flowers and foliage glancing, c
Like a child at play. b

River, river! swelling river! a
On you rush through rough and smooth; b
Louder, faster, brawling, leaping, c
Over rocks, by rose-banks, sweeping c
Like impetuous youth. b

River, river! Brimming river! a
Broad and deep, and still as time; b
Seeming still, yet still in motion, c
Tending onward to the ocean, c
Just like mortal prime. b

River, river! Headlong river! a
Down you dash into the sea, b
Sea that line hath never sounded, c
Sea that sail hath never rounded, c
Like eternity. b

3. Through the flowers and foliage glancing,
Like a child at play.
Mention the figure of speech used in the above lines. Give various other examples from the poem.
Alliteration is the figure of speech used in the above line.
Various other examples from the poem are:-

  1. On you rush through rough and smooth
  2. Over rocks, by rose-banks
  3. Seeming still, yet still in motion
  4. Tending onward to the ocean
  5. Down you dash into the sea
  6. Sea that line hath never sounded
  7. Sea that sail hath never rounded

4. Seeming still, yet still in motion
(a) Pick out the words in alliteration from the above line.
Seeming still

(b) Identify other examples from the poem for alliteraion.
Other examples from the poem are:-

  1. On you rush through rough and smooth
  2. Over rocks, by rose-banks
  3. Seeming still, yet still in motion
  4. Tending onward to the ocean
  5. Down you dash into the sea
  6. Sea that line hath never sounded
  7. Sea that sail hath never rounded

5. Pick out the examples for epithet from the poem.

Little river!
Swelling river!
Brimming river!
Headlong river!

6. Pick out the examples for imagery from the poem.

Yellow pebbles
dancing Brawling, leaping
dash into the sea

D. Answer the following in a paragraph of about 120-150 words.

1. How does the poet bring about the comparison of life with the river? Explain it with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Title: The River
Poet: Caroline Ann Bowles (1786 -1854)
Theme: The journey of life to eternity.

In the poem “The River”, the poet Caroline Ann Bowles compares river with various stages in a person’s life. The river sparkles brightly. It dances over the yellow pebbles. It glances through the flowers and foliage. The river swells and rushes through rough and smooth places.’ It also brawls and leaps. It goes by rough rocks and rose – banks. The river is like a reckless youth. The river is full, wide, and deep. It is motionless like time.

Though it seems to be still, moves towards the ocean. It is like a man in his prime. The river moves down quickly into .1 *. -ea. The sea is very deep down quickly into the sea. The sea is very deep and its depth lias never been measured by a line. None has gone by ship completely around the sea which is like an eternity.
“It the earth is the mother, the rivers are her veins”

2. Describe how the poem clearly describes the features, functions, and destructive power of the river.
Answer:
The River is little. It is sprightly and it sparkles on its way. It dances over the yellow pebbles and plays hide and seek through the flowers and foliage. This poem describes the beauty of a river, in all its glory.

The river swells and rushes through rough and smooth paths. It moves with speed and fights and jumps over rocks and rose banks as they sweep across like the reckless youth. When the river brims, it appears broad and deep yet still as time. It seems to be still but it is always in motion. The final stage is the headlong river that dashes into the sea. Thus, the flow of the river shows the journey of life to eternity.

The different stages of life are brought in through the various imageries used in the poem. As the human life passes through childhood, youth, old age and eternity, likewise the river also undergoes changes in its own way. At first it is gentle, sparkling and dancing, moves faster, fights and leaps showing the destructive power of the river. However it gets subdued, becomes still and merges with the sea.

E. Based on your understanding of the poem, complete the summary of the poem by choosing the words/phrases given below.
prime phase, the yellow pebbles, motionless, stages of human life, sweeping, child, journey, reckless youth.

In the poem ‘The River’, the poet compares the flow of the river with different (1) ……………………… The first stanza explains how the sparkling river goes dancing over (2) …………………… and glancing through the flowers and leaves. These acts of the river is compared to a curious and innocent (3) …………………. at play. The second stanza compares the river to a (4) ……………………. who goes through rough and smooth patches of life. Like a youth, here the river becomes louder, faster, and (5) ……………………. everything all along the way. In the third stanza, the river becomes like a hard-working man who is at the (6) …………………… of life. Here the deep and broad river seems (7) ………………… but it keeps moving towards the sea like a matured man who silently marches towards the goal. In the last stanza, the long (8) ……………………. of the river reaches the endless sea like a human life attains eternity.
Answers:

  1. stages of human life
  2. the yellow pebbles
  3. child
  4. reckless youth
  5. sweeping
  6. prime phase
  7. motionless
  8. journey

The River by About Caroline Ann Bowles The Poet:

Caroline Ann Bowles (1786-1854), the British poet and writer were married to Robert Southey who was the poet laureate of Britain. She wrote various other works including Chapter On Churchyard and Tales Of The Factories. The River is a poem that describes a river in all its vitality and splendour.

The Little River Poem Summary By Caroline Ann Bowles

Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 The Spider and the Fly 3

Oh! Little River – you sparkle brightly as you move along your way. As you move on, you go dancing over the yellow pebbles. You glance through the flowers and leaves of trees, dancing throughout like a child who is at play.
Oh! the river that ebbs and flows – you rush through rough and smooth pathways. You are louder, faster, clashing, and hurdling. You go past rough rocks and banks where roses grow. This movement of yours is very similar to a hasty youth.
Oh! River, which is overflowing – you are broad and deep and silent as time. Though you seem motionless, you are inclining towards the ocean just like a man in the best age of his lifespan.
Oh! River, you are so reckless and you rush down into the sea. That sea’s depth has never been measured by a weighted line. None has gone by ship completely around the sea to-be compared to eternity.

The River Glossary:

Textual:
eternity – life continuing without end after death foliage – a cluster of leaves, flowers, and branches
glancing – touching or hitting something lightly from the side, without causing much damage
hath – in the past, the third person singular form of the word ‘have’
headlong – with the head first and the rest of the body following
impetuous – acting quickly and without thought or care
rose-banks – riverbanks where roses (flowers) appear along
swelling – becoming greater in intensity or volume
tending – going in a particular way