Class 10

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Link Words

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations. Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Link Words

Linking words and phrases in English (also called ‘connective’ or ‘transition’ words) are used to combine two clauses or sentences presenting contrast, comparison, condition, supposition, purpose, etc. They enable us to establish clear connections between ideas.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Link Words

Complete the sentence with an appropriate link word.
1. Promise me that you will phone me …………………………. you get to the railway station.
2. “I’ll take some money with me just …………………………. I see something I want to buy.”
3. Jenni promised to look after Hari’s cat …………………………. she was on holiday.
4. It is a small house and requires a lot of repairs …………………………., it is a long way from the center.
5. He was let off …………………………. he would not repeat the offense.
6. He wore a coat …………………………. he might not catch cold.
7. It has been raining continuously …………………………. last week.
8. She was …………………………. unable to attend the meeting.
9. He was so tired …………………………. he had stayed up late to watch the football match.
10. …………………………. you stop eating so much chocolate you won’t be able to fit into your favorite dress.
11. I have to complete this assignment …………………………. the end of the day.
12. I saw him go into the office and ten minutes …………………………. he came out looking very pale.
13. …………………………. having a swim we lay in the sun, watching the boats in the distance.
14. He could beat his father at chess …………………………. he was only 8.
15. I like holidays by the sea …………………………. my husband prefers to go to the mountains.
16. …………………………. the high risk involved, many scientists chase tornadoes so they can study them more closely.
17. …………………………. television can be educational, I think it’s better to read a book.
18. …………………………. the rain and the high winds, they never went camping.
19. You are not eligible for a subsidized bus pass …………………………. you are a full-time student.
20. He was an absolute failure in medical school, so he decided to try law ………………………….
Answer:
1. as soon as
2. in case
3. while
4. Moreover
5. on condition that
6. in order that
7. since
8. therefore
9. because
10. Unless
11. by
12. later
13. After
14. although
15. whereas
16. Despite
17. Even though
18. Due to
19. unless
20. instead

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Link Words

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations. Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation

A. TAMIL TO ENGLISH
1. You see a notice at the bus terminus. A North Indian, who cannot read Tamil, needs your help in understanding the notice. Give him the message in English.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 1
Answer:
Danger: The smoke left by a smoker could cause cancer in a non-smoker. Avoiding smoking in public places is good for others. Abstaining from the habit of smoking completely is good for all.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation

2. A foreigner is driving a car. He comes to a river which has two bridges. He sees before him a board in Tamil. As he does not know Tamil, help him to understand the instructions through your translation.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 2
Answer:
Warning: This bridge is under repair. Four wheelers and heavy vehicles should pass only through the new bridge.

3. A co-passenger on the bus you travel in has slipped and sprained his ankle. He wishes to go to a hospital nearby. Someone gives him the instructions in Tamil. As he is new to Tamil Nadu, as he does not understand the language. Translate the instructions into English to help him.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 3
Answer:
From the bus stop, go straight in the Mahatma Gandhi Road. There is a big post of fice to your right. Cross the road across. Enter the road near Indian Bank. To your left you would find Malar Hospital in the second building.

4. You see a notice in the railway station. A North Indian who cannot read tamil, needs your help in understanding the notice. Give him the message in English.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 4
Answer:
Do not accept food from unfamiliar persons. Do not board or alight from running train. Do not carry easily inflammable articles in train.

5. Your neighbour wants to go to SBI, ATM. As your neighbour does not know Tamil, translate the instruction into English.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 5
Answer:
Those who travel in Electric trains must renew their passes every month. Apart from this, they can also get their passes for a quarter, six months or a year after paying the required money for it. Whenever Ticket Examiner asks for Ticket, they must show the train pass.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation

B. English To Tamil
6. “An old farmer from a village has come to a city public school to obtain an application for his grandson. He is unable to read the instructions which are in English as he doesn’t know the language. Translate the instructions into Tamil to help the farmer: Parents wishing to admit their wards in this school can obtain the application forms by paying ₹100 in cash at Counter No. : 1. If you require the application form to be sent by post, kindly submit a Demand Draft (D.D) for ₹ 100 payable to “The Principal, Orion Public School, Chennai – 14”. Enclose the D.D. with a requisition letter containing the address to which the application form should be sent. Submit the letter and D.D. at Counter No. : 2.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 6

7. Scientists say that millet cultivation needs to be further encouraged to adapt to global warming that leads to losses in crop yields. There is a marked improvement in our health and stamina after we reverted to a millet diet from rice a few years back.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 6.1
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 7

8. The flora and fauna of our country are in a great threat due to fast development of technology. Pollution of land, air and water and radio active waste has led to lesser availability of sources of drinking water.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 8

9. Three wild elephants, including two pregnant females, were killed by a speeding train in Assam early on Monday, the official said.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 9

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation

10. “Charity begins at home”, is the famous phrase which completely suits to those people who have forgotten the real preferences in their life like family, close relatives, society, community or their own country. They just help or donate money to others while their family members need them first; in fact completely depended on them.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Translation 10

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

Question 1.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “vision”.
(a) in ______ (b) un ______ (c) dis ______ (d) en ______
Answer:
(d) envision

Question 2.
Form a new word by adding a prefix to the root word “noble”.
(a) in ______ (b) ig ______ (c) dis ______ (d) mis ______
Answer:
(b) ignoble

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

Question 3.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “compass”.
(a) in ______ (b) un ______ (c) en ______ (d) mis ______
Answer:
(c) encompass

Question 4.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “miser”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ly (d) ______ness
Answer:
(c) miserly

Question 5.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “music”.
(a) ______s (b) ______ian (c) ______ir (d) ______ion
Answer:
(b) musician

Question 6.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “announce”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______r (d) ______ment
Answer:
(d) announcement

Question 7.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word ‘secure’.
(a) ______ity (6) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(a) security

Question 8.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “bright”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ness (d) ______ion
Answer:
(c) brightness

Question 9.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “colour”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ful
Answer:
(d) colourful

Question 10.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “human”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ity (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(b) humanity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

Question 11.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “secure”.
(a) in ______ (b) un ______ (c) dis ______ (d) mis ______
Answer:
(a) insecure

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a prefix to the root word “fair”.
(a) in______ (b) un______ (c) re______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(b) unfair

Question 13.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “standard”.
(a) in______ (b) un______ (c) dis______ (d) sub______
Answer:
(d) substandard

Question 14.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “violet”.
(a) ultra______ (b) un______ (c) dis______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(a) ultraviolet

Question 15.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “power”.
(a) in______ (b) em______ (c) dis______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(b) empower

Question 16.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “lock”.
(a) in______ (b) un______ (c) dis______ (d) inter______
Answer:
(d) interlock

Question 17.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “need”.
(a) ______al (b) ______y (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(b) needy

Question 18.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “danger”.
(a) ______ous (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(a) dangerous

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

Question 19.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “narrate”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ive (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(b) narrative

Question 20.
form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “kind”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ness
Answer:
(d) kindness

Question 21.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “lap”.
(a) in______ (b) un______ (c) over______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(c) overlap

Question 22.
Form a new word by adding a prefix to the root word “visible”.
(a) in______ (b) un______ (c) dis______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(a) invisible

Question 23.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “national”.
(a) in______ (b) ir______ (c) multi______ (d) mis______
Answer:
(c) multinational

Question 24.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “harm”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ful
Answer:
(d) harmful

Question 25.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “neighbour”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______hood (d) ______ion
Answer:
(c) neighbourhood

Question 26.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “exception”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(a) exceptional

Question 27.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word ‘national’.
Answer:
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ity (d) ______ion
Answer:
(c) nationality

Question 28.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “champion”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ship (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(b) championship

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Affixes (Prefix & Suffix)

Question 29.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “wilder”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ness (d) ______ion
Answer:
(c) wilderness

Question 30.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “tradition”.
(a) ______al (b) ______ic (c) ______ile (d) ______ion
Answer:
(a) traditional

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

Question 1.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “flash”.
(a) table (b) post (c) back (d) pen
Answer:
(c) back

Question 2.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “make”.
(a) late (b) plaza (c) life (d) over
Answer:
(d) over

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

Question 3.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “soft”.
(a) hand (b) ware (c) head (d) back
Answer:
(b) ware

Question 4.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “deep”.
(a) road (b) fry (c) wind (d) thick
Answer:
(b) fry

Question 5.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “down”.
(a) Low (b) slope (c) safe (d) cast
Answer:
(d) cast

Question 6.
Choose the w&d from the options given to form a compound word with “light”.
(a) glare (b) low (c) sensitive (d) land
Answer:
(c) sensitive

Question 7.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “fast”.
(a) food (b) slow (c) mode (d) pace
Answer:
(a) food

Question 8.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “good”.
(a) person (b) will (c) rid (d) call
Answer:
(b) will

Question 9.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “sea”.
(a) food (b) space (c) snare (d) cast
Answer:
(a) food

Question 10.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with ‘radio”.
(a) street (b) active (c) park (d) top
Answer:
(b) active

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with ‘out’.
(a) field (b) sourcing (c) ground (d) area
Answer:
(b) sourcing

Question 12.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “welt”.
(a) done (b) light (c) defined (d) fine
Answer:
(c) defined

Question 13.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “walking”.
(a) stick (b) post (c) park (d) fast
Answer:
(a) stick

Question 14.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “river”.
(a) drive (b) flowing (c) bed (d) nice
Answer:
(c) bed

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

Question 15.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “safe”.
(a) role (b) guard’ (c) mat (d) mate
Answer:
(b) guard

Question 16.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “hand”.
(a) machine (b) beaten (c) written (d) will
Answer:
(c) written

Question 17.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “gazing”.
(a) goat (b) boy (c) land (d) star
Answer:
(d) star

Question 18.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “head”.
(a) leader (b) master (c) manager (d) up
Answer:
(b) master

Question 19.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “walk”.
(a) man (b) sat (c) milk (d) load
Answer:
(a) man

Question 20.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “back”.
(a) box (b) rest (c) tin (d) on
Answer:
(b) rest

Question 21.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with ‘Grass’.
(a) rest (b) green (c) garden (d) hopper
Answer:
(d) hopper

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

Question 22.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “skate”.
(a) stake (b) blank (c) board (d) road
Answer:
(c) board

Question 23.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with ‘Sun”.
(a) flower (b) drive (c) gaze (d) glare
Answer:
(a) flower

Question 24.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “grand”.
(a) gear (b) rose (c) mother (d) car
Answer:
(c) mother

Question 25.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “base”.
(a) post (b) boast (c) ball (d) long
Answer:
(c) ball

Question 26.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “night”.
(a) right (b) fame (c) mare (d) mire
Answer:
(c) mare

Question 27.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “doer”.
(a) step (b) more (c) look (d) up
Answer:
(a) step

Question 28.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “cycle”.
(a) river (b) more (c) motor (d) bike
Answer:
(c) motor

Question 29.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “band”.
(a) rag (b) width (c) bog (d) up
Answer:
(b) width

Question 30.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “match”.
(a) right (b) box (c) hatch (d) mixing
Answer:
(b) box

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Compound Words

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Framing Sentence

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations. Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Framing Sentence

A word assumes different functions depending on the spot in a sentence. By adding a suffix or converting a word into a noun, adverb or an adjective, the structure of the sentence will undergo a change naturally. To facilitate students to acquire mastery in the use of the right or of the word in the right place, this practice is necessary.

Construct sentences using one of the words given below.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Framing Sentence

Question 1.
Use the word “misery” as a noun, verb and adverb in your own sentences.
Answer:

  • The misery of the common man infront of ATMs has given fodder for the opposition party, (norm)
  • Aged people, who are abandoned by their children, lead miserable lives, (verb)
  • The England cricket team scored miserably in the test cricket match against India, (adverb)

Question 2.
Use the word ‘generous’ as a noun, verb and adverb in your own sentences.
Answer:

  • RajaRaja Chola was generous in his patronage of temple art. (verb)
  • The Royal family generously dated gold and lands for construction and maintenance of temples. (adverb)
  • The generosity of Chola Kings is evident in the copper plate inscriptions found by archeologists. (noun)

Question 3.
Use the word ‘thick’ as a noun, verb and adverb in your own sentences.
Answer:

  • The thicknes of the glass pleased the merchant. (noun)
  • The cover of this book is thick. (verb)
  • Mumbai is thickly populated. (adverb)

Question 4.
Use the word ‘strange’ as a noun, verb and an adjective in your own sentences.
Answer:

  • The stranger who tried to cut the line at ATM was beaten up. (noun)
  • The wind was strangely calm after the storm. (verb)
  • I saw a strange bird. (adj)

Question 5.
Use the word “sadist” as an adjective, a noun and a verb.
Answer:

  • The sadistic torture ofjews during the second world war has left a scar in the memory of world population. (adj)
  • The sadist is one who derives pleasure from others pam. (noun)
  • The extremists sadistically kidnapped 400 school girls and when they were rescued most of them were pregnant. (adverb)

Question 6.
Use the word “apology” as an adverb, a preposition and conjunction.
Answer:

  • Spencer wrote po1ogy for poetry. (noun)
  • Sita pologized for hurting her friend’s feelings. (verb)
  • Ram said to Rahim, “you need not be ‘apologetìc’ for stepping on my toe by mistake”. (adj)

Question 7.
Use the word “ecology” as an adjective, adverb and a noun.
Answer:

  • Environmentalists are worried about the growing ecological imbalance. (adj)
  • The new scheme was objected by experts as it was ecologically unsound. (adv)
  • Chitra is doing her research in ecology. (noun)

Question 8.
Use the word “dependable” as an adjective and a pronoun.
Answer:

  • Bhagya is a dependable friend of Narendra devi. (adj)
  • The solar light is known for its efficiency, affordability and dependability. (noun)
  • He conducts himself dependably in critical situations. (adv)

Question 9.
Use the word “constant” as a noun, adverb, and adjective.
Answer:

  • Raju was in constant trouble with his peers. (adj)
  • Radhika is constantly changing her wardrobe. (adv)
  • The constancy of love moved the dog’s master. (noun)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Framing Sentence

Question 10.
Use the word “fast” as a noun, an adjective and adverb.
Answer:

  • He didn’t take anything during the fast. (noun)
  • I missed the fast train. (adj)
  • She speaks fast. (adv)

Question 11.
Use the word ‘love’ as a verb and as a noun in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • I love my family. (Verb)
  • God is love. (Noun)

Question 12.
Use the word ‘fortune’ as a noun, adverb and as an adjective in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • He earned a fortune by selling his lands. (noun)
  • He is fortunate to have got a doting wife. (adj)
  • Fortunately, we reached the examination hall in time. (adv)

Question 13.
Use the word ‘rough’ as a noun, adjective and as an adverb in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • The roughness of the surface helps the vehicles stop in time. (noun)
  • The watchman was a rough fellow. (adj)
  • He handled the device roughly. (adv)

Question 14.
Use the word ‘amaze’ as a noun and as an adjective in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • The children watched with amazement the acrobatics of the clown in the circus. (noun)
  • The amazing model of the satellite town was displayed in the Secretariat. (adj)

Question 15.
Use the word ‘articulate’ as a noun and as an adjective in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • Articulation is an important skill for an executive. (noun)
  • Einstein was able to articulate his ideas on relativity well. (adj)

Question 16.
Use the word ‘compose’ as a noun and as a verb in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • Beethoven is a talented composer. (noun)
  • A.R. Rahman is able to compose music spontaneously. (verb)

Question 17.
Use the word ‘observe’ as a verb, adjective and as a noun in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • Galileo’s observation that the earth revolves around the sun was ridiculed by his contemporaries and religious teachers. (noun)
  • Changes in growing children are at times subtle and unobservable. (adj)
  • The doctor wanted to observe the patient two days more to ensure or diagnose the disease. (verb)

Question 18.
Use the word ‘survive’ as a noun and as a verb in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • One Iakh trees could not survive vardha cyclone. (verb)
  • The survivors of Bhopal gas leak tragedy did not get ample compensation. (noun)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Framing Sentence

Question 19.
Use the word ‘dare’ as a verb and as an adjective in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • Some snakes are not poisonous but dare you to hold ¡tin your hand. (Verb)
  • He was always known as a dare devil. (Adj)

Question 20.
Use the word ‘vision’ as a noun, adverb and as a verb in sentences of your own.
Answer:

  • Milton lost his vision before he started writing his famous epics. (noun)
  • Now-a-days children wish to learn more through visual mode (Le) videos. (verb)
  • The State Government opened a school for visually challenged children. (adverb)

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Textual Solved Problems

Question 1.
Identify A, B, C, and D from the following nuclear reactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 1
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 2
A is alpha particle, B is neutron, C is proton and D is electron.

Question 2.
A radon specimen emits radiation of 3.7 × 103 GBq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of a curie, (one curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegration per second)
Solution:
1 Bq = one disintegration per second
one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 3

Question 3.
\(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\) experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Solution:
Let X and Y be the resulting nucleus after the emission of the alpha and beta particles respectively.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 4
Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number = 231 – 91 = 140.

Question 4.
Calculate, the amount of energy released when a radioactive substance undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 2 kg.
Solution:
Mass defect in the reaction (m) = 2 kg
Velocity of light (c) = 3 × 108 ms-1
By Einstein’s equation,
Energy released E = mc2
= 2 × (3 × 108)2
= 1.8 × 1017 J.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Man – made radioactivity is also known as _____.
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) & (c).
Answer:
(d) (a) & (c).

Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is:
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by _____.
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr.
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place:
(i) a decay;
(ii) P decay
(iii) y decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
_____ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel.
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

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Question 6.
Gamma radiations are dangerous because:
(a) it affects eyes and bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
_____ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is / are correct?
(i) α particles are photons
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for α rays
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of:
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction \(_6^{\mathrm{X}^{12}} \stackrel{\alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{z}^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\), the value of A & Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data.
Answer:
(c) 4, 8

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled.
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled.
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb.
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
One roentgen is equal to ______ disintegrations per second?
Answer:
3.7 × 1010.

Question 2.
Positron is an _____.
Answer:
antiparticle of electron.

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Question 3.
Anaemia can be cured by _____ isotope.
Answer:
Radio iron (Fe59).

Question 4.
Abbreviation of ICRP _____.
Answer:
International Commission on Radiological Protection.

Question 5.
_____ is used to measure the exposure rate of radiation in humans.
Answer:
Roentgen.

Question 6.
_____ has the greatest penetration power.
Answer:
Gamma ray.

Question 7.
\(z^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}} \rightarrow_{\mathrm{Z}+1} \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}+\mathrm{X}\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
\(_{-1} \mathrm{e}^{0}\) (β decay).

Question 8.
\(z^{\mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}}} \rightarrow_{\mathrm{Z}}^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\) This reaction is possible in _____ decay.
Answer:
Gamma (γ).

Question 9.
The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about _____ J.
Answer:
3.84 × 10-12.

Question 10.
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of _____ K.
Answer:
107 to 109.

Question 11.
The radioisotope of _____ helps to increase the productivity of crops.
Answer:
phosphorous (P – 32).

Question 12.
If radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause _____.
Answer:
fatal disease.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement

Question 1.
Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.

Question 3.
Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nuclear fission is more dangerous than nuclear fusion. Because the average energy released in fission (3.2 × 10-11 J) process is more than the average energy released in fusion (3.84 × 10-12 J).

Question 4.
Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: U-238 is not a fissile material but are abundant in nature. But in a reactor, this can be converted into a fissile material Pu239 and U233. Only fissile materials are used in the fuel of a nuclear reactor.

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Question 5.
If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave like an atom bomb.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Einstein’s theory of mass-energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. BARC (a) Kalpakkam
2. India’s first atomic power station (b) Apsara
3. IGCAR (c) Mumbai
4. The first nuclear reactor in India (d) Tarapur

Answer:
1. (c) Mumbai
2. (d) Tarapur
3. (a) Kalpakkam
4. (b) Apsara

Question 2.

1. Fuel (a) lead
2. Moderator (b) heavy water
3. Coolant (c) Graphite
4. Shield (d) Uranium

Answer:
1. (d) uranium
2. (c) Graphite
3. (b) heavy water
4. (a) lead

Question 3.

1. Soddy Fagan (a) Natural radioactivity
2. Irene Curie (b) Displacement law
3. Henry Becquerel (c) Mass energy equivalence
4. Albert Einstein (d) Artificial Radioactivity

Answer:
1. (b) Displacement law
2. (d) Artificial Radioactivity
3. (a) Natural radioactivity
4. (c) Mass energy equivalence

Question 4.

1. Uncontrolled fission Reaction (a) Hydrogen Bomb
2. Fertile material (b) Nuclear Reactor
3. Controlled fission Reaction (c) Breeder reactor
4. Fusion reaction (d) Atom bomb

Answer:
1. (d) Atom bomb
2. (c) Breeder reactor
3. (b) Nuclear Reactor
4. (a) Hydrogen Bomb

Question 5.

1. Co – 60 (a) Age of fossil
2. I – 13 (b) Function of Heart
3. Na – 24 (c) Leukaemia
4. C – 14 (d) Thyroid disease

Answer:
1. (c) Leukemia
2. (d) Thyroid disease
3. (b) Function of Heart
4. (a) Age of fossil

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power.

  1. Alpha rays
  2. Beta rays
  3. Gamma rays
  4. Cosmic rays.

Answer:

  1. Gamma rays
  2. Beta rays
  3. Alpha rays
  4. Cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.

  1. A nuclear reactor
  2. Radioactivity
  3. Artificial radioactivity
  4. Discovery of radium.

Answer:

  1. Radioactivity (1896)
  2. Discovery of radium (1898)
  3. Artificial radioactivity (1934)
  4. Nuclear reactor (1942).

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank

Question 1.
Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process: _____.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity
(or)
Man – made activity.

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Question 2.
Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission: _____.
Answer:
Room temperature.

Question 3.
Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart: _____.
Answer:
Radio sodium (Na24).

Question 4.
Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection: _____.
Answer:
γ ray (Gamma – ray).

VII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
\(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{Ra}^{226}}\) experiences three α-decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Solution:
\(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{Ra}^{226}}\) consider as a parent element that is \(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{X}^{226}}\) and their daughter element is \(z^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\)
According to α decay process,
\(88^{\mathrm{X} 26} \stackrel{3 \alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow} 82^{214}+3 \alpha\) decay
During the 3α decay, the atomic number decreases by 6 and mass number decreases by 12.
So the number of neutrons in the daughter element
N = A – Z
N = 214 – 88 = 126
Number of neutrons in the daughter element N = 126.

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq).
Solution:
Cobalt specimen emits induced radiation = 75.6 millicurie per second
(1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq)
So 75.6 millicurie = 75.6 × 103 × 1 curie
= 75.6 × 10-3 × 3.7 × 1010 Bq
= 279.72 × 107
= 2.7972 × 109 Bq
75.6 millicurie per second is equivalent to 2.7972 × 109 Bq.

VIII. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U235, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U-235 is a fissile material.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a β – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In β – decay atomic number increases by one.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Explanation: In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘Neutron seeking rods’
Reason: Control rods are used to perform a sustained nuclear fission reaction.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained the chain reaction. They absorb the neutrons, (they seeking the neutrons)

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA)

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel was discovered natural radioactivity.

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium

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Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:

  1. Boron and Aluminium.
  2. Alpha particle and neutron.

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α-particle and produces \({ { _{ 104 }{ Rf } } }^{ 259 }\). Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:
In α decay
\(\begin{array}{l}{_{\mathrm{z}} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}} \frac{\alpha \text { decay }}{263} \times \mathrm{z}-2 \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}-4}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}(\alpha \text { decay })} \\ {106^{\mathrm{X}^{263}} \stackrel{\alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow}_{104} \mathrm{Rf}^{259}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}}\end{array}\)
In element A having atomic number is 106 and mass number is 263.

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
The average energy released from a single fission process is about 3.2 × 10-11 J.

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disorders (or) effect?
Answer:
Radioactive radiations

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause the death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to death.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 in Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
Becquerel

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with the hazardous area. These materials are used to protects us from radiation.

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
1. Emission of radiation due to the self-disintegration of a nucleus. 1. Emission of radiation due to the disintegration of a nucleus through the induced process.
2. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations are emitted. 2. Mostly elementary particles such as neutron, positron, etc. are emitted.
3. It is a spontaneous process. 3. It is an induced process.

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (mc). It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define One roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fagan’s displacement law.
Answer:
During a radioactive disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called a parent nucleus and that which remains after the disintegration is called the daughter nucleus.

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Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
During the Second World War American, a bomber dropped the nuclear weapons over the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. In the explosion of the atomic bomb to release the high energy dangerous radiation. In the explosion period, Japanese peoples are affected by radiation. This is the reason in Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not Wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr Ramu?
Answer:
X – rays have a destructive effect on living tissue. When the human body is exposed to X – rays, it causes redness of the skin, sores and serious injuries to the tissues and glands. They destroy the white corpuscles of the blood. If you don’t wear the lead aprons these kinds of diseases formed in your body. In my suggestion, you must wear lead aprons.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radioisotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:

  • The radioisotope of phosphorus (P – 32) helps to increase the productivity of crops.
  • The radiations from the radioisotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(a) Controlled chain reaction

  • In the controlled chain reaction, the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission.
  • Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes.
  • The controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(b) Uncontrolled chain reaction:

  • In the uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material.
  • This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second.
  • This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.
    Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 5

Question 2.
Compare the properties of Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations.
Answer:

Properties α rays β rays γ rays
What are they? Helium nucleus \(\left(_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\right)\) consisting of two protons and two neutrons. They are electrons \(\left(_{-1} e^{\mathrm{0}}\right)\), basic elementary particle in all atoms. They are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.
Charge Positively charged particles. Charge of each alpha particle = +2e Negatively charged particles. Charge of each beta particle = -e Neutral particles. Charge of each gamma particle = zero
Ionising Power 100 time greater than β rays and 10,000 times greater than γ rays Comparatively low Very less ionization power
Penetrating power Low penetrating power (even stopped by a thick paper) Penetrating power is greater than that of α rays. They can penetrate through a thin metal foil. They have a very high penetrating power greater than that of β rays. They can penetrate through thick metal blocks.
Effect of an electric and magnetic field Deflected by both the fields. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule) Deflected by both the fields, but the direction of deflection is opposite to that for alpha rays. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule) They are not deflected by both the fields.
Speed Their speed ranges from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light. Their speed can go up to 9/10 times the speed of light. They travel with the speed of light.

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
Nuclear reactor: A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self – sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 6
Components of a Nuclear Reactor:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

  • Fuel: A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
  • Moderator: A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are commonly used moderators.
  • Control rod: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained a chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
  • Coolant: A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
  • Protection wall: A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
Mass number A = 232
Atomic number Z = 90
Daughter element:
Mass number A = 208
Atomic number Z = 82
Difference in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24
Difference in atomic number
= 90 – 82 = 8
Atomic number of α = 2
Atomic number of β = -1
Mass number of α = 4
Mass number of β = 0
Difference in mass number in transformations
= 24
Number of a decays = \(\frac{24}{4}\) = 6
Difference in atomic number = 8
ΔZ = 6α + 4β
= 6(2) + 4(-1)
= 12 – 4
= 8
∴ Number of β decays = 4
∴ Number of α decays = 6
∴ Number of β decays = 4

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:

  • Radiation does involve in X – rays tests and isotope scans (in nuclear medicine) are too low to cause immediate hazardous effects.
  • If should be taken often, X – ray radiation from medical examinations though slightly increases one’s risk for cancer which can occur year or decades after X-ray exposure.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area. why?
Answer:

  1. Living near a cell phone tower is not healthy. There is multiple health risks associated with living near a cell phone tower.
  2. Cell phone towers communicate by use pulsed microwave signals (radiofrequency radiation) with each other.
  3. That is the reason cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Questions

I. Choose the best Answer.

Question 1.
Radium was discovered by _____.
(a) Marie curie
(b) Irene curie
(c) Henri Becquerel
(d) F. Joliot.
Answer:
(a) Marie Curie

Question 2.
How many radioactive substances discovered so far?
(a) 83
(b) 92
(c) 43
(d) 29
Answer:
(d) 29

Question 3.
The SI unit of Radioactivity is _____.
(a) Curie
(b) Rutherford
(c) Becquerel
(d) Roentgen (R).
Answer:
(c) Becquerel

Question 4.
Radioactivity is _____.
(a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increase in pressure
(c) depends on the number of electrons
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon.
Answer:
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon

Question 5.
Which of the following processes is a spontaneous process?
(a) Artifical radioactivity
(b) Natural radioactivity
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Collisions
Answer:
(b) Natural radioactivity

Question 6.
The charge of the β rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) -e

Question 7.
The charge of the γ rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) 0

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Question 8.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit artifical radioactivity is:
(a) more than 82
(b) more than 83
(c) less than 83
(d) less than 82
Answer:
(c) less than 83

Question 9.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in the increasing order of their ionizing power.
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, β, α
(d) γ, α, β.
Answer:
(c) γ, β, α

Question 10.
Which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4 Coulomb in 1 Kg of air?
(a) Curie
(b) Becquerel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Roentgen
Answer:
(d) Roentgen

Question 11.
Ionising power of the γ rays _____.
(a) Comparatively very high ionization power
(b) 100 times greater than the α rays
(c) 100 times greater than the β rays
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.
Answer:
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.

Question 12.
Ionization power maximum for _____.
(a) neutrons
(b) α particles
(c) γ rays
(d) β particles.
Answer:
(b) α particles

Question 13.
Charge of gamma particle is:
(a) +2e
(b) -e
(c) Zero
(d) +1e
Answer:
(c) Zero

Question 14.
Which has low penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(a) α rays

Question 15.
In β – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) the mass number decreases by one
(c) proton number remains the same
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(d) neutron number decreases by one

Question 16.
In which decay the energy level of the nucleus changes:
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(c) γ – decay

Question 17.
In γ – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(c) energy only changes in the decay process
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).

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Question 18.
The unit of decay constant is _____.
(a) no unit
(b) second
(c) second-1
(d) curie.
Answer:
(c) second-1

Question 19.
The range of temperature required for nuclear fusion is from:
(a) 107 to 109 K
(b) 10-9 to 10-7 K
(c) 105 to 109
(d) 105 to 107 K
Answer:
(a) 107 to 109 K

Question 20.
1 Rd is equal to _____.
(a) 106 decay / second
(b) 1 decay / second
(c) 3.7 × 1010 becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 1012 decay / second.
Answer:
(a) 106 decay / second

Question 21.
An element \(Z^{X^{A}}\) successively undergoes three α decays and four β decays and gets converted an element Y are respectively _____.
(a) \({ { _{ Z-6 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(b) \({ { _{ Z+2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(c) \({ { _{ Z-2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(d) \({ { _{ Z-10 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\).
Answer:
(c) \({ { _{ Z-2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)

Question 22.
In the nuclear reaction 88Ra226 → X + 2He4 X is:
(a) 90Th234
(b) 91Pa234
(c) 86Rn222
(d) 88Rn226
Answer:
(d) 88Rn226

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used in the treatment of skin diseases _____.
(a) Na24
(b) I31
(c) Fe59
(d) P32.
Answer:
(d) P32.

Question 24.
Anaemia can be diagnosed by _____.
(a) \({ { _{ 15 }{ P } } }^{ 31 }\)
(b) \({ { _{ 15 }{ P } } }^{ 32 }\)
(c) \({ { _{ 26 }{ P } } }^{ 59 }\)
(d) \({ { _{ 11 }{ P } } }^{ 24 }\).
Answer:
(c) \({ { _{ 26 }{ P } } }^{ 59 }\)

Question 25.
Which is used as a coolant?
(a) Graphite
(b) Liquid sodium
(c) Boron
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(b) Liquid sodium

Question 26.
The energy released per fission is _____.
(a) 220 MeV
(b) 300 MeV
(c) 250 MeV
(d) 200 MeV.
Answer:
(d) 200 MeV.

Question 27.
In the reaction 1N14 + 0n1 → X + 1H1 X is:
(a) 15P30
(b) 6C14
(c) 6C12
(d) 11Na23
Answer:
(c) 6C12

Question 28.
Natural uranium consists of _____.
(a) 99.72 % of U-238
(b) 0.28 % of U-238
(c) 0.72 % of U-238
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.
Answer:
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.

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Question 29.
The number of power reactors in India is _____.
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 2.
Answer:
(a) 14

Question 30.
In the nucleus of 11Na23 the number of protons and neutrons are:
(a) 12, 11
(b) 10, 12
(c) 11, 12
(d) 11, 23
Answer:
(c) 11, 12

Question 31.
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) cadmium
(b) boron carbide
(c) heavy water
(d) uranium \(\left(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\right)\).
Answer:
(c) heavy water

Question 32.
The first nuclear reactor was built at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam, India
(b) Hiroshima, Japan
(c) Chicago, USA
(d) Trombay, Bombay.
Answer:
(c) Chicago, USA

Question 33.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of skin cancer?
(a) Radio Cobalt
(b) Radio gold
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold

Question 34.
The explosion of an atom bomb is based on the principle of _____.
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction
(b) fusion reaction
(c) controlled fission reaction
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction

Question 35.
The reactor in which no moderator used is _____.
(a) fast breeder reactor
(b) pressurised water reactor
(c) pressurised heavy water reactor
(d) boiled water reactor.
Answer:
(a) fast breeder reactor

Question 36.
The number of neutrons present in 92U235 is:
(a) 133
(b) 143
(c) 43
(d) 243
Answer:
(b) 143

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Question 37.
In fast breeder, the coolant system used is _____.
(a) heavy water
(b) light water
(c) liquid sodium
(d) boiled water.
Answer:
(c) liquid sodium

Question 38.
The only reactor in the world which uses U-233 as fuel is _____.
(a) Zerlina
(b) Purnima
(c) Kamini
(d) Tires.
Answer:
(c) Kamini

Question 39.
The temperature of the interior of Sun is about _____.
(a) 1.4 × 107 K
(b) 108 K
(C) 14 × 107 K
(d) 600 K.
Answer:
(a) 1.4 × 107 K

Question 40.
Total energy radiated by Sun is about _____.
(a) 3.6 × 1028 Js-1
(b) 3.8 × 1028 Js-1
(c) 3.8 × 1026 Js-1
(d) 3.8 × 1023 Js-1.
Answer:
(c) 3.8 × 1026 Js-1

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Cathode rays are discovered by _____.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson.

Question 2.
Positive rays discovered by _____.
Answer:
Goldstein.

Question 3.
The chargeless particles are called neutron, it was discovered by _____.
Answer:
James Chadwick.

Question 4.
Ernest Rutherford explained that the mass of an atom is concentrated in its central part called _____.
Answer:
Nucleus.

Question 5.
The radioactive elements emit harmful radiations are ____, ____, ____ rays.
Answer:
alpha, beta, gamma.

Question 6.
_____ is an spontaneous process.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 7.
The element whose atomic number is more than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
spontaneous process.

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Question 8.
______ radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.
Answer:
Uranium.

Question 9.
_____ are the example of artificial (or) man-made radioactive elements.
Answer:
Boron, Aluminium.

Question 10.
The element whose atomic number is less than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
induced radioactivity.

Question 11.
______ is an controlled manner.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity.

Question 12.
Spontaneous radioactivity is also known as _____.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 13.
One Curie is equal to _____ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
3.7 × 1010

Question 14.
One Rutherford (Rd) is equal to ______ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
106

Question 15.
The radioactive displacement law is framed by _____.
Answer:
Soddy and Fajan.

Question 16.
During the α decay process, the atomic number is ______ by 2 and the mass number is decreases by _____.
Answer:
decreases, 4.

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Question 17.
In β-decay the atomic number increases by ____ unit and mass number _____.
Answer:
One, remains the same.

Question 18.
In α radiation, the charge of each alpha particle is _____.
Answer:
+2e.

Question 19.
In γ radiation, the charge of each gamma particle is _____.
Answer:
Zero.

Question 20.
In radioactive radiation, which one is travel with the speed of light _____.
Answer:
Gamma radiation.

Question 21.
\(z^{Y^{A}} \rightarrow z_{-2} Y^{A-4}+X\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
\(_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α decay).

Question 22.
\(z^{Y^{A}} \rightarrow_{z} Y^{{A}+X}\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
γ decay.

Question 23.
The average energy released in each fission process in about _____.
Answer:
3.2 × 10-11 J.

Question 24.
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a _____.
Answer:
Neutron.

Question 25.
_____ isotope is used to detect the presence of block in blood vessels and also used for the effective functioning of the heart.
Answer:
Na24 – Radio sodium.

Question 26.
_____ is used to cure goitre.
Answer:
Radio Iodine – I131

Question 27.
_____ is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
Answer:
Radio – iron (Fe59).

Question 28.
Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of _____.
Answer:
Skin cancer.

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Question 29.
_____ are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
Answer:
Radiations.

Question 30.
The age of the earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined by _____. technique.
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Question 31.
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to _____.
Answer:
Death.

Question 32.
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick – walled container of _____.
Answer:
Lead.

Question 33.
_____ is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam.
Answer:
Coolant.

Question 34.
The abbreviation of BARC is _____.
Answer:
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.

Question 35.
India’s 1st nuclear power station is _____.
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic Power Station.

Question 36.
The first nuclear reactor built in India was _____.
Answer:
Apsara.

Question 37.
The total nuclear power operating sites in India is _____.
Answer:
7

Question 38.
The energy released in a nuclear fission process is about ______
Answer:
200 Mev.

Question 39.
The number of \({ { _{ 0 }{ n } } }^{ 1 }\) released on an average per fission is _____.
Answer:
2.5.

Question 40.
A hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of _____.
Answer:
Nuclear fusion.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Natural radioactivity (a) 3.7 × 1010 decay/second
2. Artificial radioactivity (b) spontaneous process
3. 1 curie (c) 106 decay/second
4. 1 Rd (Rutherford) (d) induced process

Answer:
1. (b) spontaneous process
2. (d) induced process
3. (a) 3.7 × 1010 decay / second
4. (c) 106 decay / second

Question 2.

1. Charge of each α particle (a) γ ray
2. Charge of each β particle (b) +2e
3. Penetration power is maximum (c) α ray
4. Ionisation power is maximum (d) zero

Answer:
1. (b) +2e
2. (d) zero
3. (a) γ ray
4. (e) α ray

Question 3.

1. Deuterium (a) \(-1^{e^{0}}\)
2. Protium (b) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
3. Tritium (c) \(_{2} \mathrm{H}^{4}\)
4. α – decay (d) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{1}\)
5. β – decay (e) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}\)

Answer:
1. (e) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}\)
2. (d) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{1}\)
3. (b) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
4. (c) \(_{2} \mathrm{H}^{4}\)
5. (a) \(-1^{e^{0}}\)

Question 4.

1. Uranium core bomb (a) fusion bomb
2. Plutonium core bomb (b) fission bomb
3. Hydrogen bomb (c) Nagasaki
4. Atom bomb (d) Hiroshima

Answer:
1. (d) Hiroshima
2. (c) Nagasaki
3. (a) fusion bomb
4. (b) fission bomb

Question 5.

1. Radio iron (Fe59) (a) treatment of skin diseases
2. Radio phosphorous (P32) (b) smoke detector
3. Radio gold (Au198) (c) diagnose anaemia
4. An isotope of Americium (Am241) (d) treatment of skin cancer

Answer:
1. (c) diagnose anaemia
2. (a) treatment of skin diseases
3. (d) treatment of skin cancer
4. (b) smoke detector

IV. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in ascending order, on the basis of their penetrating power?
Answer:
Ascending order:

  • Alpha (α)
  • Beta (β)
  • Gamma (γ)

Question 2.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their Ionisation power.
Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
Answer:

  1. Ascending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α)
  2. Descending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)

Question 3.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their biological effect.
Alpha (α), Gamma (γ), Beta (β)
Answer:

  1. Ascending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
  2. Descending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α).

V. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
\(_{92} U^{238}\) emits 8α particles and 6β particles. What is the neutron / proton ratio in the product nucleus?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 7

Question 2.
The element with atomic number 84 and mass number 218 change to another element with atomic number 84 and mass number 214. The number of α and β particles emitted are respectively?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 8
Number of alpha decay, x = 1
Number of beta decay, y = 2.

Question 3.
The number of α and β particles emitted in the nuclear reaction \(_{90} \mathrm{Th}^{228} \longrightarrow_{83} \mathrm{Bi}^{12}\) are respectively.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 9
Number of α decay, x = 4
Number of β decay, y = 1.

VI. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: All the radioactive element are ultimately converted in lead.
Reason: All the elements above lead are unstable.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Explanation: When they are converted into a lead, the emission is stopped because the nucleus of lead is stable (or lead is most stable elements in radioactive series)

Question 2.
Assertion: Among the alpha, beta and gamma-ray a particle has maximum penetrating power.
Reason: The alpha particle is heavier than beta and gamma rays.
Answer:
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.
Explanation: The penetrating power is maximum in case of gamma rays because gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation of very small wavelength.

Question 3.
Assertion: The ionising power of β – particle is less compared to α – particles but their penetrating power is more.
Reason: The mass of β-particle is less than the mass of α-particle
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: β – particle being emitted with very high speed compared to α – particle. Due to this reason, their loss of energy is very slow and they can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.

Question 4.
Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Neutron is about 0.1 % more massive than a proton. But the unique thing about the neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). This lack of charge gives it the ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the beta particles or alpha particles.

Question 5.
Assertion: \(_{z} X^{A}\) undergoes a decays and the daughter product is \({ _{ z-2 } }Y^{ A-4 }\)
Reason: In α – decay, the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: \(_{z} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}} \longrightarrow_{z-2} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}-4}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α decay)

Question 6.
Assertion: Moderator is used to slowing down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons.
Reason: Cadmium rods are used as control rods.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Graphites and heavy water are commonly used moderators. This helps in moderator to slow down the fast neutrons.

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Question 7.
Assertion: Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.
Reason: Nuclear fission process can be performed at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: At room temperature, the nuclear fission process can perform breaking up of heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei. In this process to emitted the alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

Question 8.
Assertion: An enormous amount of energy is released which is called stellar energy.
Reason: Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy.

Question 9.
Assertion: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process.
Reason: It is a spontaneous process – natural radioactivity.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process. It is an induced process and man-made radioactivity.

Question 10.
Assertion: Gamma rays, penetrates through materials most effectively.
Reason: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation. This is a reason they can penetrate through materials most effectively.

VII. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Define ‘Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
By whom radioactivity is detected in pitchblende?
Answer:
Marie curie and Purie curie.

Question 3.
Define ‘Artificial Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘Artificial radioactivity’ or ‘Man – made radioactivity’.

Question 4.
Define ‘One curie’.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium 226.
Curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.

Question 5.
In which elements artifical radioactivity is induced?
Answer:
Boron and aluminum

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Question 6.
What is alpha decay (α decay)? give an example.
Answer:
A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus is called ‘alpha decay’.
E.g. Decay of uranium (U238) to thorium (Th234) with the emission of an alpha particle.
\(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{238} \rightarrow_{90} \mathrm{Th}^{234}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α – decay).

Question 7.
What is beta decay (β decay)? Give an example?
Answer:
A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
E.g. Beta decay of phosphorous.
\(_{15} \mathrm{P}^{32} \rightarrow_{16} \mathrm{S}^{32}+_{-1} \mathrm{e}^{0}\) (β – decay)

Question 8.
What is gamma decay (γ decay)?
Answer:
In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 9.
State the value of Roentgen in terms of Coulomb.
Answer:
Roentgen = 2.58 × 10-4 Coulomb in / kg of air.

Question 10.
Define ‘nuclear fission’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons are called ‘nuclear fission’.
E.g. Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U235)
\(92^{\mathrm{U}^{235}}+_{0} \mathrm{n}^{1} \rightarrow_{56} \mathrm{Ba}^{141}+_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{92}+_{30} \mathrm{n}^{1}+\mathrm{Q}(\text { energy })\)

Question 11.
Define ‘Nuclear fusion’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘Nuclear fusion’.
E.g. \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}+_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2} \rightarrow_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}+\mathrm{Q}(\text { Energy })\)

Question 12.
Write down the types of the nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Breeder reactor, fast breeder reactor, pressurized water reactor, pressurized heavy water reactor, boiling water reactor, water – cooled reactor, gas – cooled reactor, fusion reactor and thermal reactor are some types of nuclear reactors, which are used in different places worldwide.

Question 13.
What is the safe limit of receiving radioactive radiations?
Answer:
100 m R per week

VIII. Answer in the details:

Question 1.
Explain the principle and working of an atom bomb?
Answer:
Atom bomb:
(i) The atom bomb is based on the principle of the uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression.

(ii) This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 10

Structure:
(i) An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void.

(ii) It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive.

(iii) The two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. During this explosion, a tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released.

(iv) A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs was exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during World War II.

Question 2.
State and define the units of radioactivity.
Answer:
Curie : It is the traditional unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of lg of radium 226. 1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.

Rutherford (Rd) : It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 106 disintegrations per second.

Becquerel (Bq) : It is the SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Roentgen (R) : It is the radiation exposure of γ and x-rays is measured by another unit called roentgen. One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 3.
Write down the features of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
1. The process of breaking up (splitting) of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called ‘nuclear fission’. 1. Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus.
2. Can be performed at room temperature. 2. Extremely high temperature and pressure are needed.
3. Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted. 3. Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are emitted.
4. Fission leads to emission of gamma radiation. This triggers the mutation in the human gene and causes genetic transform diseases. 4. Only light and heat energy are emitted.

Question 4.
Write down the medical and industrial application of radioisotopes?
Answer:

  1. Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective functioning of the heart.
  2. Radio – Iodine (I131) is used to cure goitre.
  3. Radio – Iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
  4. Radio Phosphorous (P32) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
  5. Radio Cobalt (Co60) and radio – gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
  6. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
  7. Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio – gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
  8. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 5.
Write a note about stellar energy.
Answer:
The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy. Where does this high energy come from? All-stars contain a large amount of hydrogen. The surface temperature of the stars is very high which is sufficient to induce fusion of the hydrogen nuclei.

Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as ‘stellar energy’. Thus, nuclear fusion or thermonuclear reaction is the source of light and heat energy in the Sun and other stars.

IX. Additional HOT Questions

Question 1.
Why is neutron so effective as bombarding particle?
Answer:
A neutron carries no charge. It easily penetrates even a heavy nucleus without being repelled or attracted by nucleus and electrons. So it serves as an ideal projectile for starting a nuclear reaction.

Question 2.
Is there any difference between electron and a beta particle.
Answer:
Basically, there is no difference between an electron and a beta particle. β particle is the name given to an electron emitted from the nucleus.

Question 3.
Why are the control rods made of cadmium?
Answer:
Cadmium has high cross – section for the absorption of neutrons.

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Question 4.
Name two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities why is it so?
Answer:
Tritium and Plutonium are two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities in the universe.
It is because half-life period of each of two elements is very short compared to the age of the universe.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics Read More »

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Textual Problems Solved

Question 1.
Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HNO3?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 1

Question 2.
The hydroxyl ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10-9 M. What is the pOH of the solution?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 2

Question 3.
A solution has a pOH of 11.76. What is the pH of this solution?
Solution:
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 11.76 = 2.24.

Question 4.
Calculate the pH of 0.001 molar solution of HCl.
Solution:
HCl is a strong acid and is completely dissociated in its solutions according to the process:
\(\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
From this process it is clear that one mole of HCl would give one mole of H+ ions.
Therefore, the concentration of H+ ions would be equal to that of HCl, i.e., 0.001 molar or 1.0 × 10-3 mol litre-1.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 3

Question 5.
What would be the pH of an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid which is 5 × 10-5 mol litre-1 in concentration?
Solution:
Sulphuric acid dissociates in water as:
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}(\mathrm{aq})\)
Each mole of sulphuric acid gives two moles of H+ ions in the solution. One litre of H2SO4 solution contains 5 × 10-5 moles of H2SO4 which would give 2 × 5 × 10-5 = 10 × 10-5 or 1.0 × 10-4 moles of H+ ion in one litre of the solution.
Therefore,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 36

Question 6.
Calculate the pH of 1 × 10-4 molar solution of NaOH.
Solution:
NaOH is a strong base and dissociates in its solution as:
\(\mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
One mole of NaOH would give one mole of OH ions.
Therefore,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 4

Question 7.
Calculate the pH of a solution in which the concentration of the hydrogen ions is 1.0 × 10-8 mol litre-1.
Solution:
Here, although the solution is extremely dilute, the concentration given is not of an acid or a base but that of H+ ions. Hence, the pH can be calculated from the relation:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 5

Question 8.
If the pH of a solution is 4.5, what is its pOH?
Solution:
pH + pOH = 14
⇒ pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5
⇒ pOH = 9.5.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
\(\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\) is a ______.
(a) Decomposition Reaction
(b) Combination Reaction
(c) Single Displacement Reaction
(d) Double Displacement Reaction.
Answer:
(b) Combination Reaction
Hint: It is a combination reaction between H2 and Cl2 to form HCl as product.

Question 2.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by:
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 3.
A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by \(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction
(ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction
(iv) Irreversible Reaction
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iv
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iv.
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iv.
Hint:

  • It is a combination reaction with one product.
  • It involves the combustion of carbon to form CO2.
  • The reaction is irreversible and we cannot reverse the reaction.

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Question 4.
The chemical equation
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCI2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq) represents which of the following types of reaction?
(a) Neutralisation
(b) Combustion
(c) Precipitation
(d) Single displacement
Answer:
(c) Precipitation

Question 5.
Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i, ii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, iii and iv.
Answer:
(a) i, ii and iii
Hint: Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for a reversible reaction.
At equilibrium, Rate of forwarding reaction = Rate of backward reaction.

Question 6.
A single displacement reaction is represented by
X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g). Which of the following(s) could be X?
(i) Zn
(ii) Ag
(iii) Cu
(iv) Mg. Choose the best pair.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv)

Question 7.
Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
(a) \(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
(b) \(2 \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(l)} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{KBr}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(c) \(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
(d) \(4 \mathrm{Fe}_{(\mathrm{s})}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Fe}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3(\mathrm{s})}\).
Answer:
(c) \(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Hint: It involves one reactant compound i.e., carbon monoxide (CO).
\(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

Question 8.
Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{l})}\)
(c) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{l})}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\)
Hint: It involves the formation of solid precipitation by mixing of two aqueous solutions.

Question 9.
The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH] concentration is:
(a) 1 × 10-3 M
(b) 3 M
(c) 1 × 10-11 M
(d) 11 M
Answer:
(c) 1 × 10-11 M

Question 10.
Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of ______.
(a) large surface area
(b) high pressure
(c) high concentration
(d) high temperature.
Answer:
(a) large surface area
Hint: We know that greater the surface area, faster will be a chemical reaction. Hence powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly.

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
A reaction between an acid and a base is called ______.
Answer:
Neutralization.

Question 2.
When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, _______ gas is evolved.
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Question 3.
The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as ______.
Answer:
Physical equilibrium.

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Question 4.
The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ______ (increase/decrease)
Answer:
Increases.

Question 5.
The value of the ionic product of water at 25°C is ______.
Answer:
1 × 10-14

Question 6.
The normal pH of human blood is ______.
Answer:
7.4.

Question 7.
Electrolysis is type of _______ reaction.
Answer:
Decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is ______.
Answer:
One.

Question 9.
Chemical volcano is an example for ______ type of reaction.
Answer:
Decomposition reaction.

Question 10.
The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water is called ______.
Answer:
Hydronium ion.

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Identify the types of reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 6
Answer:
i – c, ii-a, iii – d, iv- b.

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

Question 1.
Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In the activity series, any metals that are below hydrogen will not react with HNO3.

Question 2.
The pH of rainwater containing dissolved gases like SO3, CO2, NO2 will be less than 7.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: At equilibrium rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction.

Question 4.
Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.
Answer:
True.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{KCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{AgNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{AgCl}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\)
Formation of white precipitate by the above reaction is due to formation of silver chloride (AgCl).

Question 2.
Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
The rate of a reaction increases at higher temperature, because the heat to the reactants provide energy to breakup more bonds and speeds up the reaction.

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Question 3.
Define a combination reaction. Give one example of an exothermic combination reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction in which 2 or more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is known as combination reaction. Most of the combination reaction are exothermic because they involve formation of new bonds. For example,
\(\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
\(\mathrm{SiO}_{2(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CaSiO}_{3(\mathrm{s})}\).

Question 4.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:

Reversible reaction Irreversible reaction
1. Reactions can be reversed 1. The reaction cannot be reversed
2. It proceeds in both directions 2. It is unidirectional
3. It attains equilibrium 3. Equilibrium is not attained
4. It is relatively slow 4. It is fast

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is called thermolysis reactions?
Answer:
A chemical reaction is a process in which old bond breaks up and new chemical bond get formed. Thermolysis chemical reactions is a special type of chemical reaction in which the reactant get decomposed by heat. For example,
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\rightleftharpoons} \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
\(2 \mathrm{HgO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Heat}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}_{(\mathrm{l})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
In these reactions heat is supplied to break the bonds, so generally they are endothermic in nature.

Question 2.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
When two compounds react, if their ions are interchanged, then the reaction is called double displacement reactions. There are two types of double displacement reactions. They are
(i) Precipitation reactions : When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction. Because the insoluble compound, formed as one of the products, is a precipitate and hence the reaction is so called.

(ii) When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead (II) nitrate are mixed, a double displacement reaction takes place between them.
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s)↓ + 2KNO3(aq).

(iii) Potassium and lead displace or replace one other and form a yellow precipitate of lead (II) iodide.

(iv) Neutralization reactions: When an acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralization reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.

(v) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid is a typical neutralization reaction. Here, sodium replaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid forming sodium chloride, a neutral soluble salt.
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

Question 3.
Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors influencing the rate of a reaction are,
(i) Nature of the reactants: The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid. Do you know why? Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influences the reaction rate.
\(\begin{aligned} 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} & \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}(\mathrm{fast}) \\ 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} & \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COONa}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}(\mathrm{slow}) \end{aligned}\).

(ii) The concentration of the reactants: Changing the number of reactants also increases the reaction rate. The amount of the substance present in a certain volume of the solution is called ‘concentration’. More the concentration, more particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

(iii) Temperature: Most of the reactions go faster at a higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

(iv) Pressure: If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

(v) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

(vi) The surface area of the reactants: When solid reactants are involved in a reaction, their powdered form reacts more readily. For example, powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on the collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased. You will study more about reaction rate in your higher classes.

Question 4.
How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Answer:
Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. Different body fluids have different pH values.
Eg: pH of blood is ranging from 7.35 to 7.45. Any increase or decrease in this value leads to diseases. The ideal pH for blood is 7.4.

pH in our digestive system : It is very interesting to note that our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach. During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation. pH of the stomach fluid is approximately 2.0.

pH changes as the cause of tooth decay : pH of the saliva normally ranges between 6.5 to 7.5. White enamel coating of our teeth is calcium phosphate, the hardest substance in our body. When the pH of the mouth saliva falls below 5.5, the enamel gets weathered. Toothpastes, which are generally basic ate used for cleaning the teeth that can neutralise the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.

pH of soil : In agriculture, the pH of the soil is very important. Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.

pH of rain water : The pH of rain water is approximately 7, which means that it is neutral and also represents its high purity. If the atmospheric air is polluted with oxide gases of sulphur and nitrogen, they get dissolved in the rain water and make its pH less than 7. Thus, if the pH of rain water is less than 7, then it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers it lowers the pH of the river water also. The survival of aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult.

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Question 5.
What is chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Chemical equilibrium is the state for a reversible chemical reaction where the rate of forwarding direction is equally balanced by the rate of backward direction and the process seems like to be stopped.
Its characteristics are,

  • The rate of the forward and backward reaction are equal in chemical equilibrium.
  • The observable properties such as pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity, etc. of the system unchanged with time.
  • In physical equilibrium, the volume of all phases remains constant.

VII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’ On passing the gas ‘C’ through water. It becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{s})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Calcium carbonate decomposes into solid Calcium oxide and a gas CO2. This CO2 dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid.
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \longrightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3}\) (Carbonic acid).

Question 2.
Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, a nickel spatula cannot be used to stir CuSO4 solution, because Nickel will displace copper from CuSO3 solution and Cu gets deposited on the Ni spatula.

VIII. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
Lemon juice has a pH = 2, what is the concentration of H+ ions?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 7

Question 2.
Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10-4 molar solution of HNO3?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 8

Question 3.
What is the pH of 1.0 × 10-5 molar solution of KOH?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 9

Question 4.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10-11. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 10

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Question Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Methane + Oxygen → A + Water. Identify A ______.
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) ethane
(d) LPG.
Answer:
(i) Carbon dioxide

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which electricity is used to bring about the change is:
(a) Thermal decomposition
(b) Photo decomposition
(c) Single displacement reaction
(d) Electrolytic decomposition
Answer:
(d) Electrolytic decomposition

Question 3.
Decomposition of the molecule occurs on passing an electric current through its aqueous solution. This process is termed as ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Electrolysis

Question 4.
The most reactive element in the activity series is:
(a) platinum
(b) potassium
(c) sodium
(d) gold
Answer:
(b) potassium

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Question 5.
Which one of the following is a more reactive element?
(a) Cu
(b) Li
(c) Zn
(d) Pb.
Answer:
(b) Li

Question 6.
Which one of the following is the least reactive element?
(a) Au
(b) Fe
(c) Ca
(d) Na.
Answer:
(a) Au

Question 7.
Double displacement reaction is also called as ______.
(a) Metastasis
(b) Metathesis
(c) Methanolysis
(d) Metalysis.
Answer:
(b) Metathesis

Question 8.
The acidic solution among the following is:
(a) seawater
(b) coffee
(c) lime water
(d) antacid
Answer:
(b) coffee

Question 9.
The reaction of sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid is an example for ______.
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Thermolysis reaction
(c) Neutralization reaction
(d) Precipitation reaction.
Answer:
(c) Neutralization reaction

Question 10.
In agriculture, the nature of the soil for rice is:
(a) alkaline
(b) neutral
(c) acidic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) acidic

Question 11.
The role of manganese dioxide in the decomposition of potassium chlorate is ______.
(a) act as a reactant
(b) act as a catalyst
(c) act as a reagent
(d) act as a reaction medium.
Answer:
(b) act as a catalyst

Question 12.
The ionic product of water Kw is ______.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 11
Answer:
(c) \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{W}}=\left[\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{+}\right]\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]\)

Question 13.
Unit of ionic product of water is ______.
(a) mol-2 dm-6
(b) mol2 dm-6
(c) mol2 dm6
(d) mol dm-3.
Answer:
(b) mol2 dm-6

Question 14.
What is the value of ionic product of water?
(a) 1 × 10-4
(b) 1 × 10-1
(c) 1 × 1014
(d) 1 × 10-14.
Answer:
(d) 1 × 10-14.

Question 15.
pH of milk of magnesia is ______.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 10.5.
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 16.
What is the relationship between pH and pOH?
(a) pH – pOH = 14
(b) pH + pOH = 14
(c) pH/pOH = 14
(d) pH + pOH = 1.4.
Answer:
(b) pH + pOH = 14

Question 17.
\(\mathrm{Zn}+2 \mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnCl}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \uparrow\)
The above reaction is an example of ______.
(а) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction.
Answer:
(c) Displacement reaction

Question 18.
A student tests the pH of pure water using a pH paper. It shows a green colour. If a pH paper is after adding lemon juice to water, what colour will he observe?
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Pink.
Answer:
(b) Red

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Question 19.
When aqueous solution of silver nitrate and sodium chloride are mixed, ______ precipitate is immediately formed.
(a) white
(b) yellow
(c) red
(d) black.
Answer:
(a) white

Question 20.
pH = – log10 [H+]. The pH of a solution containing hydrogen ion concentration of 0.001 M solution is ______.
(a) 3
(b) 11
(c) 14
(d) 15.
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 21.
Silver anklet has got tarnished due to the formation of ______.
(a) Ag2O
(b) AgNO3
(c) Ag2S
(d) AgBr.
Answer:
(c) Ag2S

Question 22.
The colour of the precipitate formed by the reaction of lead nitrate with potassium iodide is ______.
(a) white
(b) yellow
(c) black
(d) red.
Answer:
(b) yellow

Question 23.
The reaction of calcium oxide with water is a ______ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) isothermic
(d) adiabatic.
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 24.
The gas released when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is ______.
(a) NO2
(b) CO
(c) CO2
(d) H2.
Answer:
(c) CO2

Question 25.
The chemical used in whitewashing on the walls is ______.
(a) CaO
(b) CaCl2
(c) CaOCl2
(d) Ca(OH)2.
Answer:
(d) Ca(OH)2.

Question 26.
The chemical formula of marble is ______.
(a) CaCO3
(b) CaOCl2
(c) CaSO4. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) H2O
(d) Ca(OH)2.
Answer:
(a) CaCO3

Question 27.
Combustion of coal is an example of _____ reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) reduction
(c) decomposition
(d) combination.
Answer:
(d) combination.

Question 28.
The colour change takes place when copper carbonate is strongly heated is ______.
(a) green to black
(b) green to blue
(c) blue to green
(d) blue to black.
Answer:
(a) green to black

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Question 29.
The reaction of heat on copper carbonate into copper (II) oxide is _________ reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) redox.
Answer:
(b) decomposition

Question 30.
The dissolution of glucose in water is a _____ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) neutralisation
(d) combination.
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 31.
All combustion reactions are _______ reactions.
(a) combination
(b) exothermic
(c) endothermic
(d) neutralisation.
Answer:
(b) exothermic

Question 32.
The factor that affects the rate of the chemical reaction is ______.
(a) temperature
(b) concentration
(c) catalyst
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 33.
Magnesium ribbon reacts at a very faster rate with ______ acid.
(a) hydrochloric
(b) acetic
(c) formic
(d) oxalic.
Answer:
(a) hydrochloric

Question 34.
Our body metabolism is carried out by means of ______ secreted in our stomach.
(a) sulphuric acid
(b) hydrochloric acid
(c) nitric acid
(d) acetic acid.
Answer:
(b) hydrochloric acid

Question 35.
Which metals do not liberate gas on reaction with acids?
(a) Zn, Mg
(b) Ag, Cu
(c) Na, K
(d) Cr, Al.
Answer:
(b) Ag, Cu

Question 36.
When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns ______.
(a) milky
(b) black
(c) red
(d) blue.
Answer:
(a) milky

Question 37.
The physical form of calcium carbonate is ______.
(a) limestone
(b) chalk
(c) marble
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

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Question 38.
The colour change takes place when copper (II) oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is ______.
(a) blue to green
(b) black to green
(c) green to black
(d) green to blue.
Answer:
(b) black to green

Question 39.
Which of the following is a strong base?
(a) NH4OH
(b) Ca(OH)2
(c) Al(OH)3
(d) NaOH.
Answer:
(d) NaOH.

Question 40.
Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide to form ______.
(a) Zinc hydroxide + H2O
(b) Sodium zincate + H2
(c) Zinc oxide + H2
(d) Zinc oxide + H2O.
Answer:
(b) Sodium zincate + H2

Question 41.
_____ reacts with sodium hydroxide.
(a) Cu
(b) Ag
(c) Cr
(d) Zn.
Answer:
(d) Zn.

Question 42.
________ is used as a medicine for stomach disorder.
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Ammonium hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Calcium hydroxide.
Answer:
(c) Magnesium hydroxide

Question 43.
The pH of stomach fluid is ______.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 2
(d) 1.
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 42.
The hardest substance in the human body is ______.
(a) bone
(b) the enamel coating of teeth
(c) brain
(d) liver.
Answer:
(b) the enamel coating of teeth

Question 43.
Sugarcane requires _______ soil.
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) neutral
(d) amphoteric.
Answer:
(c) neutral

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Question 44.
Rice requires _____ soil.
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) alkaline
(d) neutral.
Answer:
(a) acidic

Question 45.
______ is a double salt.
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Washing soda
(c) Potash alum
(d) Bleaching powder.
Answer:
(c) Potash alum

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
During chemical changes _____ are formed and these changes are more _____ than physical changes.
Answer:
New products, permanent.

Question 2.
Calcium oxide reacts with water to produce ______ and the reaction is ______.
Answer:
Slaked lime, exothermic.

Question 3.
During whitewashing, ______ reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in the air to form a thin layer of _______ on the walls.
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide, calcium carbonate.

Question 4.
When copper carbonate is heated, the products formed are _____ , ______ and change of colour from ______ to ____ is observed.
Answer:
CuO, CO2, green, black

Question 5.
When lead nitrate is heated, the gas liberated is ______ and its colour is ______.
Answer:
NO2, Reddish – brown

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Question 6.
Copper sulphate solution changes its blue colour into _____ colour when an iron nail is added to it and it acquires _____ colour.
Answer:
Green, brownish.

Question 7.
When Barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate, the product formed is _____ and it is a ______ precipitate.
Answer:
Barium sulphate, white.

Question 8.
Powdered ____ reacts more quickly with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.
Answer:
CaCO3

Question 9.
Calcium carbonate present in the marble reacts with hydrochloric acid at a faster rate at _______ temperature.
Answer:
Higher.

Question 10.
______ is a substance which furnishes H+ ions when dissolved in water and a ______ is a substance which furnishes OH ions in water.
Answer:
Acid, Base.

Question 11.
Acids present in plants and animals are ______ and the acids in rocks and minerals are ______.
Answer:
Organic acid, inorganic acid.

Question 12.
Metal displaces _______ gas from dilute acid and the flame goes off with a ______ sound.
Answer:
Hydrogen, popping.

Question 13.
_____ is used in the manufacturing of soap and ______ is used in whitewashing buildings.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide.

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Question 14.
pH scale was introduced by ______ and the pH of the solution is 7, it is a ______ solution.
Answer:
S.P.L. Sorenson, neutral.

Question 15.
The pH of a normal healthy human skin is _____ and the pH of the stomach fluid is ______.
Answer:
7.4, 5.5.

Question 16.
The ideal pH for blood is _______ and pH of the mouth falls below ______.
Answer:
7.35 – 7.45, Sulphuric acid.

Question 17.
All photo decomposition reaction are _______ reactions.
Answer:
Endothermic.

Question 18.
Precipitation reactions give a _____ as the product.
Answer:
Insoluble salt.

Question 19.
Plants cannot grow in a ______ soil.
Answer:
Acidic.

Question 20.
Equilibrium is possible in a _____ system.
Answer:
Closed.

Question 21.
Pure water is a _______ electrolyte.
Answer:
Weak.

Question 22.
Most of the combination reactions are _______ in nature.
Answer:
Exothermic.

Question 23.
Silicon dioxide reacts with calcium oxide to form ______.
Answer:
Calcium silicate.

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Question 24.
Our mobile phones get energy from its _____ battery by chemical reaction.
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 25.
A ______ is a substance which increases the reaction rate.
Answer:
Catalyst.

Question 26.
pH range of human saliva is ______.
Answer:
6 – 8.

Question 27.
pH range of fresh milk is ______.
Answer:
5.

Question 28.
The pH of a solution can be determined by using a _______ indicator.
Answer:
Universal.

Question 29.
pH is ______.
Answer:
-log10 [H+].

Question 30.
The white enamel coating of our teeth is ______.
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

(i) \(\mathrm{S}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{SO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) (a) Electrolytic decomposition reaction
(ii) \(2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) (b) Combination reaction
(iii) \(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) (c) Single displacement reaction
(iv) \(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) (d) Photo decomposition reaction

Answer:
i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c.

Question 2.

Sample pH
(i) Oranges (a) 8
(ii) Grapes (b) 7
(iii) Pure water (c) 3.5
(iv) Egg white (d) 4

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 3.

Sample pH
(i) Sour milk (a) 4.2
(ii) Tomato juice (b) 4.5
(iii) Seawater (c) 12
(iv) Lime water (d) 8

Answer:
i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c.

Question 4.

(i) Citrus fruits (a) Neutral soil
(ii) Rice (b) pH = 7
(iii) Sugarcane (c) alkaline soil
(iv) Rainwater (d) acidic soil

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b.

Question 5.

(i) Sodium hydroxide (a) medicine
(ii) Calcium hydroxide (b) stain remover
(iii) Ammonium hydroxide (c) soap
(iv) Magnesium hydroxide (d) whitewashing

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 6.

(i) Gain of electrons (a) Oxidation reaction
(ii) Loss of electrons (b) Combination reaction
(iii) Combustion of coal (c) Redox reaction
(iv) Rusting of iron (d) Reduction reaction

Answer:
i – d, ii-a, iii – b, iv – e.

IV. State true or false. If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Chemical changes are reversible changes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Chemical changes are irreversible changes.

Question 2.
The silver anklet has got tarnished when exposed to air due to the formation of silver oxide. (Ag2O).
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The silver anklet has got tarnished when exposed to air due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag2S).

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Question 3.
Brisk effervescence takes place with the evolution of CO2 when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The chemical formula for marble is CaCl2.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The chemical formula for marble is CaCO3

Question 5.
A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as displacement reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as a combination reaction.

Question 6.
Lead Nitrate on heating decomposes to give lead oxide with the evolution of reddish-brown gas NO2 and O2 gas.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Any reaction that produces a precipitate is called a redox reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Any reaction that produces a precipitate is called a precipitation reaction.

Question 8.
The reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound is called displacement reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called exothermic reaction.

Question 10.
All combustion reactions are endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.

Question 11.
Our body metabolism is carried out by means of sulphuric acid secreted in our stomach.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Our body metabolism is carried out by means of hydrochloric acid secreted in our stomach.

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Question 12.
Limestone, chalk and marble are different physical forms of calcium oxide.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Limestone, chalk and marble are different physical forms of calcium carbonate.

Question 13.
The atmosphere of earth is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The atmosphere of Venus is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 14.
Bond breaking releaser energy whereas bond formation absorbs energy.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Bond breaking absorbs energy whereas bond formation releases energy.

Question 15.
More active elements readily displace less active elements from their aqueous solution.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The irreversible reaction is relatively slow.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Irreversible reaction is fast.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The lustrous white colour of the silver anklet slowly changes into slightly back colour.
Reason (R): silver anklet reacts with H2S in the air to form Ag2S (Silver Sulphide) which is black in colour.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

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Question 2.
Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): The reaction is accompanied by a hissing sound and formation of bubbles leading to the absorption of a considerable amount of heat.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid, brisk effervescence takes place.
Reason (R): Brisk effervescence is due to the evolution of carbon dioxide gas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: When copper carbonate is heated strongly, the green colour is changed into a black colour.
Reason (R): The colour change is due to the decomposition of copper carbonate into copper oxide.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 5.
Assertion (A): when lead nitrate is heated, the gas released has red – orange colour and it is lead oxide.
Reason (R): Lead nitrate on heating undergoes combination reaction.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

Question 6.
Assertion (A): iron js more reactive than copper.
Reason (R): iron js displaced from iron sulphate by copper.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Copper displaces zinc (or) lead from the salt solution.
Reason (R): Copper is more reactive than zinc and lead.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.
Reason (R): During combustion reaction, heat energy is liberated.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

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Question 9.
Assertion (A): when glucose is kept on our tongue, a cooling effect is felt.
Reason (R): It is an endothermic reaction in which heat is absorbed.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more quickly with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.
Reason (R): Powdered calcium carbonate offers a large surface area than marble chips. Because the greater the surface area, the greater is the rate of the reaction.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Combination reaction is exothermic in nature.
Reason (R): During the formation of new bonds, releases a huge amount of energy in the form of heat.
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)

Question 12.
Assertion (A): When glucose is kept on our tongue, a cooling effect is felt.
Reason (R): It is an endothermic reaction in which heat is absorbed.
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What type of chemical reaction takes place when
(i) limestone is heated
(ii) a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air?
Answer:
(i) When limestone is heated, the reaction takes place is a decomposition reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 12

(ii) When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, it is an oxidation reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 13

Question 2.
What is a combustion reaction?
Answer:
A combustion reaction is one in which the reactant rapidly combines with oxygen to form one or more oxides and energy (heat). So in combustion reactions, one of the reactants must be oxygen.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a combustion?

  1. Digestion of food
  2. Rusting of iron.

Answer:

  1. Digestion of food : Not a combustion reaction, because it is a endothermic process and where energy is utilized.
  2. Rusting of iron : Combustion reaction.

Question 4.
When the lead powder is added to copper chloride solution, a displacement reaction occurs and solid copper is formed.
(i) Write the equation for the reaction.
(ii) Why does the displacement reaction occur?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 14

(ii) Copper is less reactive than lead. So lead has displaced copper from copper chloride. It is a displacement reaction.

Question 5.
What happens when lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide solution?
Answer:
Lead nitrate solution when reacts with a potassium iodide solution, a deep yellow precipitate of Pbl2 is formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 15

Question 6.
Differentiate Exothermic reaction and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction
1. The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called exothermic reactions. 1. The chemical reactions which take place with the absorption of heat energy a called endothermic reactions.
2. e.g. All combustion reactions are exothermic. 2. e.g. Dissolution of glucose is the endothermic reaction.
3. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 + Heat 3. 2NH3 + Heat → N2 + 3H2

Question 7.
Why the study of reaction rate is important?
Answer:
Faster the reaction, more will be the amount of the product in a specified time. So, the rate of a reaction is important for a chemist for designing a process to get a good yield of a product. Rate of reaction is also important for a food processor who hopes to slow down the reactions that cause food to spoil.

Question 8.
What is meant by decomposition reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A single compound breaks down to produce two or more substances. Such type of reaction is called decomposition reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 16

Question 9.
Give reason.
(a) Granulated Zinc reacts faster with 2M HCl than 1M HCl.
Answer:
Reason: As the concentration of the reactant increases the rate of the reaction increases.

(b) Food kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator.
Answer:
Reason: In the refrigerator the temperature is lower than room temperature, so the reaction rate is less.

Question 10.
What is meant by double displacement reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A double decomposition reaction is a reaction in which the exchange of ions between two reactants occur leading to the formation of two different products.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 17

Question 11.
Why the toothpastes are generally basic in nature?
Answer:
The pH of the saliva is usually between 6.5 to 7.5, when the pH of the mouth saliva falls below 5.5 the enamel coating of our teeth calcium phosphate gets weathered. That is why the tooth pastes are generally basic in nature.

Question 12.
What happens to food containing fat and oil kept open for a long time?
Answer:
When food containing fat and oil is left as such for a long time, it becomes stale. The stale food develops bad taste and foul smell. This is very common in curd and cheese, particularly in summer. Oils and fats are slowly oxidised to certain foul – smelling compounds.

Question 13.
Define the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer:
The rate of a chemical reaction is defined as the change in concentration of any one of the reactants or product per unit time.
\(\text { Rate }=-\frac{\mathrm{d}[\mathrm{A}]}{\mathrm{dt}}\).

Question 14.
Define catalyst.
Answer:
A substance which alters the rate of a reaction without undergoing any change in mass and composition is known as a catalyst.

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Question 15.
What happens during a chemical reaction?
Answer:

  • In a chemical reaction, the atoms of the reacting molecules or elements are rearranged to form new molecules.
  • Old chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new chemical bonds are formed.
  • Bond breaking absorbs energy whereas bond formation releases energy.

Question 16.
What; is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation is the simplified representation of a chemical reaction which describes the chemical composition, the physical state of the reactants and the products, and the reaction conditions.

Question 17.
What are the main classes of decomposition reactions?
Answer:
There are three main classes of decomposition reactions. They are,

  • Thermal decomposition reactions
  • Electrolytic decomposition reactions
  • Photo decomposition reactions

Question 18.
What are thermal decomposition reactions?
Answer:
In a thermal decomposition reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat.
For example, on heating mercury (II) oxide is decomposed into mercury metal and oxygen gas.
\(2 \mathrm{HgO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}_{(\mathrm{l})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 19.
What are Electrolytic decomposition reactions?
Answer:
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying electricity.
For example, decomposition of sodium chloride occurs on passing electric current through its aqueous solution.
\(2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \stackrel{\text { Electricity }}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 20.
What is the photodecomposition reaction?
Answer:
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying light.
For example, when silver bromide is exposed to light, it breaks down into silver metal and bromine gas.
\(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Light}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 21.
What is Metathesis reaction?
Answer:
The ion of one compound is replaced by the ion of another compound. Ions of identical charges are only interchanged, i.e. a cation can be replaced by another cation. This reaction is called metathesis reaction.

Question 22.
What is a precipitation reaction?
Answer:
When aqueous solution of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
e.g„ \(\mathrm{Pb}\left(\mathrm{NO}_{3}\right)_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+2 \mathrm{KI}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{PbI}_{2(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\).

Question 23.
How will you distinguish between combination and decomposition reactions?
Answer:

Combination Reactions Decomposition Reactions
One or more reactants combine to form a single product A single reactant is decomposed to form one or more products
Energy is released Energy is absorbed
Elements or compounds may be the reactants The single compound is the reactant

Question 24.
What is a neutralization reaction?
Answer:
It is another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called neutralization reaction as both acid and base neutralizes each other.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 18

Question 25.
What is Combustion reaction?
Answer:
A combustion reaction is one in which the reactant rapidly combines with oxygen to form one or more oxides and energy (heat).
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 19

Question 26.
What are reversible and irreversible reactions?
Answer:
Reversible reaction : A reversible reaction is a reaction that can be reversed, i.e., the products can be converted back to the reactants.
e.g., \(\mathrm{PCl}_{5(\mathrm{g})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{PCl}_{3(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Irreversible reaction: The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. The irreversible reactions are unidirectional.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 20

Question 27.
Why is the reaction rate important?
Answer:
Faster the reaction, more will be the amount of the product in a specified time. So, the rate of a reaction is important for a chemist for designing a process to get a good yield of a product. Rate of reaction is also important for a food processor who hopes to slow down the reactions that cause food to spoil.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Suggest a reason for each observation given below.
Answer:
(i) In fireworks, powdered Mg is used rather than Mg ribbon.
Powdered Mg will have larger surface area than Mg ribbon and the rate of the reaction increases.

(ii) Zn and dil. H2SO4 react much more quickly when a few drops of CuSO4 solution are added.
When few drops of CuSO4 are added to the solution containing Zn and dil. H2SO4, the rate of the reaction increases, because CuSO4 acts as catalyst.

(iii) The reaction between MgCO3 and dil. HCl speeds up when some con. HCl is added. As the concentration of the reactant increases, the rate of the reaction increases.

Question 2.
Observe the given chemical change and answer the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 21

  1. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
  2. Write the commercial name of calcium hydroxide.
  3. Identify products ‘C’ and ‘D’ when HCl is allowed to oxide react with calcium oxide.
  4. Say whether calcium oxide is acidic or basic.

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 22

  1. A is calcium carbonate. B is carbon-di-oxide.
  2. Slaked lime is the commercial name of calcium hydroxide.
  3. The products C and D are calcium chloride (CaCl2) and water (H2O).
  4. Calcium oxide is basic in nature.

Question 3.
Take copper nitrate in a test tube and heat it over the flame.

  1. What is the colour of cupric nitrate?
  2. What do you observe?
  3. Name the type of reaction that takes place.
  4. Write the balanced equation.

Answer:

  1. The colour of cupric nitrate is Blue.
  2. When cupric nitrate is heated in a test tube, we can observe the evolution of reddish-brown gas (NO2) Nitrogen dioxide.
  3. The reaction takes place is a decomposition reaction.
  4. Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 23

Question 4.
Redox reactions are reactions during which electron transfer takes place. Here magnesium atom transfers two electrons one each to the two chlorine atoms.
(i) What are the products of this reaction?
(ii) Write the balanced equation for the complete reaction.
(iii) Which element is being oxidized?
(iv) Which element is being reduced?
(v) Write the reduction part of the reaction.
Answer:
(i) Magnesium atom is converted to Mg2+ ion. Two chlorine atoms are converted to 2Cl ions. So the products are Mg2+ ion and 2Cl ions.
(ii)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 24
(iii) Mg atom is being oxidised by donating 2 electrons.
(iv) Cl2 molecule is being reduced by accepting 2 electrons.
(v) Cl2 + 2e → 2Cl. It is a reduction reaction in which gain of e take place.

Question 5.
Take Cu(NO3)2 in a test tube and heat it over the flame.
(i) What is the colour of Cu(NO3)2?
Answer:
Blue

(ii) What do you observe?
Answer:
Evolution of reddish-brown gas.

(iii) Name the type of reaction that takes place.
Answer:
Decomposition.

(iv) Write the balanced equation.
Answer:
Cu(NO3)2 → 2CuO + 4NO2 + O2

Question 6.
Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid react as shown in this equation.
\(\mathbf{N a O H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathbf{H}_{2} \mathbf{O}_{(\mathrm{l})}\)
(i) Which type of chemical reaction is this?
(ii) The reaction is exothermic. Explain what that means.
(iii) Differentiate exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction.
(iv) What happens to the temperature of the solution as the chemicals react?
Answer:
(i) It is a neutralisation reaction.
(ii) An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction in which the evolution of heat energy takes place.
(iii)

Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction In which heat energy is evolved is known as an exothermic process. 1. The reaction in which heat energy is absorbed is known as an endothermic process.
2. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 + Heat 2. 2NH3 + Heat → N2 + 3H2

(iv) When NaOH reacts with HCl to give NaCl and water, heat is evolved. So the solution’s temperature increases.

VIII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. The amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube does the reaction occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
In the test tube, the reaction occurs more vigorously.
Comparing hydrochloric acid and acetic acid, HCl (hydrochloric acid) is a strong acid and more reactive whereas acetic acid is a weak organic acid and less reactive.
\(\mathrm{Mg}+2 \mathrm{HCl} \stackrel{\text { Fast reaction }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{MgCl}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \uparrow\).

Question 2.
Classify the following reactions based on the rate of the reactions as very fast or instantaneous slow and moderate reactions.
(a) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3(aq)
Answer:
Very fast reaction (or) Instantaneous reaction.

(b) 2 Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
Answer:
Very fast reaction.

(c) Rusting of iron.
Answer:
Very slow reaction.

(d) Inversion of cane sugar into Glucose and fructose.
Answer:
Moderately slow reaction.

(e) Fermentation of sugar into alcohol.
Answer:
Very slow reaction.

Question 3.
What is the chemical reaction taken place in the tarnishing of silver anklet?
Answer:
The lustrous white colour of the silver anklet slowly changes into a slightly black colour. It is due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag2S) as a result of the reaction between silver and hydrogen sulphide in the air.

Question 4.
Why toothpaste are basic in nature?
Answer:
The white enamel coating of our teeth is calcium phosphate, the hardest substance in our body. It does not dissolve in water. If the pH of mouth falls below 5.5, the enamel gets corroded. Toothpaste is generally basic and used for cleaning the teeth can neutralize the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.

Question 5.
Why the solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing?
Answer:
A solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing walls. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in the air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of whitewashing and gives a shiny finish to the walls. It is interesting to note that the chemical formula for marble is also CaCO3.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 25

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 26
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 27

Question 7.
Let us consider the following two reactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 28
Which reaction will not occur. Why?
Answer:
The first reaction involves the displacement of chlorine from NaCl, by fluorine. In the second reaction, chlorine displaces fluorine from NaF. Out of these two, the second reaction will not occur. Because fluorine is more active than chlorine and occupies the upper position in the periodic table. So, in displacement reactions, the activity of the elements and their relative position in the periodic table are the key factors to determine the feasibility of the reactions. More active elements readily displace less active elements from their aqueous solutions.

Question 8.
Which of the metals displaces hydrogen gas from hydrochloric acid? Silver or zinc. Give the chemical equation of the reaction and justify your answer.
Answer:
Zinc displaces hydrogen gas from hydrochloric, acid.
Zinc is more reactive than silver.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 ↑.

Question 9.
Foods kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator. Why?
Answer:
Food kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator. In the refrigerator, the temperature is lower than the room temperature and hence the reaction rate is less.

Question 10.
How will you enhance the rate of decomposition of potassium chlorate?
Answer:
On heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 29
Here MnO2 is the catalyst. Therefore the addition of MnO2 enhances the rate of decomposition of potassium chlorate.

Question 11.
Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Why?
Answer:
Powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on the collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased. Hence powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Problems Solved

Question 1.
The [OH] ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10-8 M. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:
The concentration of hydroxide ion = [OH] = 1.0 × 10-8 M.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 30

Question 2.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10-9 m. What is the pH of the solution? Find out whether the given solution is acidic, basic or neutral.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 31

Question 3.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 0.001 m. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 32
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 3 = 11
pH = 11.

Question 4.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10-9 m. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 33

Question 5.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10-4 m. Calculate the pH and pOH of that solution.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 34

Question 6.
Calculate the pH of sodium hydroxide solution having the concentration of OH 0.01 mL-1.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions 35

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations. Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

There are two ways of expressing an action by using a transitive verb.
Read the following sentences:

  1. Magesh killed a rat.
  2. A rat was killed by Magesh..

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

These two sentences have the same meaning. These are simply two different ways of saying the same thing. There is, however, a shift in stress on the agent and also a change in the form of verb. In sentence (i), the subject ‘Magesh ‘ is the ‘doer of the action. It acts or is active. So the verb ‘killed’ is in active voice.

In sentence (ii), the subject ‘A rat’ is the ‘receiver’ of action. It suffers the action done by someone else (Magesh, in this case). It is acted upon. So the verb ‘was killed’ is in passive voice.

A. Rewrite the following sentences using passive voice:
1. This mango tastes sweet.
This mango is sweet when tasted.

2. The rose smells sweet.
The rose is sweet when smelt.

3. Grass grows over the fields.
The fields are overgrown with grass.

4. It is time to ring the bell.
It is time for the bell to be rung.

5. This bottle contains milk.
Milk is contained in this bottle.

6. One must do one’s duty.
Duty must be done.

7. Your shirt needs washing.
Your shirt needs to be washed.

8. She accused him of theft.
He was accused of theft by her.

9. She might win the match.
The match might be won by her.

10. How will you cross the river?
How will the river be crossed by you?

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

11. When did you write the letter?
When was the letter written by you?

12. Have you taught the boy?
Has the boy been taught by you?

13. Why did she beat the servant?
Why was the servant beaten by her?

14. Where will you spend your holidays?
Where will your holidays be spent by you?

15. Light the lamp.
Let the lamp be lighted.

16. People harvest water during the rainy season.
Water is harvested by people during the rainy season.

17. Rekha has forgotten the answer to the first question. She is answering the last question now.
The answer to the first question has been forgotten by Rekha. Now, the last question is being answered by her.

18. He does not obey his teachers.
His teachers are not obeyed by him.

19. I shall help him.
He will be helped by me.

20. You will not disturb me.
I shall not be disturbed by you.

B. Rewrite the following sentences using active voice:
I. By whom are you taught Physics?
Who teaches you Physics?

2. What was bought by her?
What did she buy?

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

3. By whom will the bill be paid?
Who will pay the bill?

4. A letter was being written by him.
He was writing a letter.

5. My work was not being done by me.
I was not doing my work.

6. Was hockey being played by the children?
Were the children playing hockey?

7. The food had already been cooked by her.
She had already cooked the food.

8. By whose team had the match been won?
Whose team had won the match?

9. You are requested to post this letter.
Please post this letter.

10. You are advised to work hard.
Work hard.

11. Was the window broken by him?
Did he break the window?

12. What is wanted by you?
What do you want?

13. The match might be won by her.
She might win the match.

14. My proposal was objected to by her.
She objected to my proposal.

15. His request was acceded to by us.
We acceded to his request.

16. It is said that he is a rich man.
People say that he is a rich man.

17. I am surprised at your behavior.
Your behavior surprises me.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Active And Passive Voice

18. Milk is contained in this bottle.
This bottle contains milk.

19. Is French spoken by them?
Do they speak French?

20. From where was this pen bought by you?
Where did you buy this pen from?

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.
Question 1.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) partial (b) entire (c) unabridged (d) hollow
Answer:
(a) partial

Question 2.
They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion (b) enclosure (c) addition (d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

Question 3.
Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete (b) perfect (c) partial (d) whole
Answer:
(c) partial

Question 4.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure (b) sure (c) convinced (d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 5.
Your refrigerator can directly link to the e-commerce site.
(a) unswervingly (b) openly (c) indirectly (d) straightly
Answer:
(c) indirectly

Question 6.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed (b) cancelled (c) threshold (d) bridge
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 7.
It is a great boost to women in the country.
(a) broaden (b) increase (c) knock (d) brew
Answer:
(c) knock

Question 8.
You don’t have to use any auxiliary means of repulsion.
(a) disgust (b) revolution (c) repercussions (d) attraction
Answer:
(d) attraction

Question 9.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce (b) vigour (c) weakness (d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 10.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable (b) dishonesty (c) rectitude (d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 11.
So my contention was to go by the rules of circumnavigation.
(a) disagreement (b) agreement (c) dispute (d) deputation
Answer:
(b) agreement

Question 12.
The ghost raised such a hullabaloo of misunderstandings.
(a) misinterpretation (b) calculations (c) silence (d) tumult
Answer:
(c) silence

Question 13.
They were the steps of a man walking rapidly.
(a) forcibly (b) speedily (c) hurriedly (d) leisurely
Answer:
(d) leisurely

Question 14.
The cops were reluctant to leave.
(a) indisposed (b) settle (c) keen (d) lazy
Answer:
(c) keen

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

Question 15.
The police were on hand in a commendably short time.
(a) laudably (b) outrageously (c) committedly (d) admirably
Answer:
(b) outrageously

Question 16.
He believed that General Meade’s men, were beginning to retreat.
(a) rejoice (b) advance (c) evacuation (d) withdrawal
Answer:
(b) advance

Question 17.
The steps had ceased.
(a) stopped (b) seized (c) begun (d) terminated
Answer:
(c) begun

Question 18.
Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go.
(a) hassled (b) released (c) relaxed (d) warmed
Answer:
(c) relaxed

Question 19.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) liberated (b) released (c) conquered (d) controlled
Answer:
(a) liberated

Question 20.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed (b) brought (c) triumphed (d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 21.
He has been sinking.
(a) drowning (b) foaling (c) running (d) sleeping
Answer:
(b) foaling

Question 22.
The man was startled.
(a) reassured (b) amused (c) alarmed (ð) annoyed
Answer:
(a) reassured

Question 23.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak (b) feeble (c) strong (d) thin
Answer:
(c) strong

Question 24.
How ignorant you are!
(a) lacking in knowledge (b) well- informed (c) uninformed (d) unaware
Answer:
(b) well- informed

Question 25.
You will Persuade him to come.
(a) dissuade (b) urge (c) distract
Answer:
(a) dissuade

Question 26.
He failed to muster up courage to take that plunge.
(a) dive (b) climb (c) fall (d) plume
Answer:
(b) climb

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

Question 27.
He even gnawed at the dried pieces of eggshell.
(a) parched (b) dehydrated (c) fresh (d) new
Answer:
(c) fresh

Question 28.
He then trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other.
(a) scurried (b) sauntered (c) tracked (d) rolled
Answer:
(b) sauntered

Question 29.
The precipice was sheer.
(a) steep (b) gradual (c) effervescence (d) recap
Answer:
(b) gradual

Question 30.
They were beckoning to him, calling shrilly.
(a) summoning (b) signaling (c) dismissing (d) requesting
Answer:
(c) dismissing

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Antonyms

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

PART – I

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
Question 1.
Technology has empowered the disabled.
(a) brightened (b) endowed (c) triggered (d)
Answer:
(b) endowed

Question 2.
Technology impacts the environment.
(a) influences (b) imparts (c) impedes (d)
Answer:
(a) influences

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

Question 3.
India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) deviated (b) decomposed (c) rundown (d)
Answer:
(c) rundown

Question 4.
Consumable products can be self-ordered.
(a) disposable (b) durable (c) challenged (d)
Answer:
(a) disposable

Question 5.
Anything which is below a certain threshold can be self-ordered.
(a) floor (b) edge (c) thrift (d)
Answer:
(b) edge

Question 6.
The voyage was aimed to show case ‘Make in India’ initiative.
(a) intuition (b) inventiveness (c) interrogation (d)
Answer:
(b) inventiveness

Question 7.
NSP was a project undertaken in consonance with the National policy.
(a) agreement (b) alignment (c) arrangement (d)
Answer:
(a) agreement

Question 8.
The vessel is built indigenously in India.
(a) locally (b) indirectly (c) invisibly (d)
Answer:
(a) locally

Question 9.
Women were permitted to go out only with an escort.
(d) enigma (b) enemy (c) attendant (d)
Answer:
(c) attendant

Question 10.
INSV Tarini has an array of satellite communication systems.
(a) collection (b) rainbow (c) disorder (d) variety
Answer:
(a) collection

Question 11.
‘Burglars?’ she shouted, intuitively.
(a) intentionally (b) thoughtfully (c) knowingly (d) instinctively
Answer:
(d) instinctively

Question 12.
I gripped his arm.
(a) cut (b) grieved (c) grasped (d) damaged
Answer:
(c) grasped

Question 13.
I suspected next that it was a burglar.
(a) alerted (b) blamed (c) called (d) doubted
Answer:
(d) doubted

Question 14.
Instantly the steps began again.
(a) blatantly (b) callously (c) suddenly (d) definitely
Answer:
(c) suddenly

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

Question 15.
I could hear a rending of wood.
(a) shredding (b) breaking (c) rubbing (d) rushing
Answer:
(a) shredding

Question 16.
I could see the faint shine of plates on the plate-rail.
(a) tired (b) feeble (c) weary (d)
Answer:
(b) feeble

Question 17.
Tyranny of all sorts may stare at you.
(a) autocracy (b) aristocracy (c) animals
Answer:
(a) autocracy

Question 18.
Grandfather had evidently jumped to a conclusion.
(a) immediately (b) earnestly (c) obviously (d)
Answer:
(c) obviously

Question 19.
Herman rushed to his room and slammed the door.
(a) altered (b) banged (c) sliced (d) dug
Answer:
(b) banged

Question 20.
Herman ventured out of his room.
(a) volunteered (b) venerated (c) visioned (d) vagaries
Answer:
(a) volunteered

Question 21.
Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) discord (b) harmony (c) usage (d) underway
Answer:
(b) harmony

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

Question 22.
The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods.
(a) cheating (b) duplicitous (c) tweeting (d) clinging
Answer:
(c) tweeting

Question 23.
Wachter was there with his apprentice.
(a) appearance (b) baggage (c) calmness (d) trainee
Answer:
(d) trainee

Question 24.
The teacher’s great ruler rapped on the table.
(a) tapped (b) sang (c) reigned (d) kept
Answer:
(a) tapped

Question 25.
Hauser had brought an old primer.
(a) prankster (b) textbook (c) guitar (d) machine
Answer:
(b) textbook

Question 26.
T sat in silent dejection.
(a) optimism (b) depression (c) hope (d) delight
Answer:
(b) depression

Question 27.
Holmes groaned.
(a) whispered (b) whined (c) sang in joy (d) grounded
Answer:
(b) whined

Question 28.
It was a contagious disease.
(a) impregnable (,b) crisp (c) cussed (d) spreadable
Answer:
(d) spreadable

Question 29.
His hand twitched.
(a) trembled (b) got crushed (c) shivered (d) suddenly jerked
Answer:
(a) trembled

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

Question 30.
He was delirious.
(a) relaxed (b) calm (c) composed (d) incoherent
Answer:
(d) incoherent

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