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Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Inertia of a body depends on ______.
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Magnification of a convex lens is _______.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
The number of neutrons is ₈O¹⁶ is _______.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 6.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) phloem
(b) epidermis
(c) cortex
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 8.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31^st
(b) April 22^nd
(c) June 6^th
(d) October 2^nd
Answer:
(a) May 31^st

Question 9.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

Question 10.
The phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidised to release ethyl alcohol is
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(d) Fermentation

Question 11.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 12.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 14.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass	Weight
1. The quantity of matter contained in the body	1. The gravitation force exerted on it due to the Earth’s gravity alone.
2. Scalar quantity	2. Vector quantity
3. Unit: kg	3. Unit: N
4. Constant at all the places	4. Variable with respect to gravity.

Question 15.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 16.
Define volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Answer:
Heterodiatomic molecules -E.g: HCl, NaCl.

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 19.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Endocrine	Exocrine
1. Secretion of endocrines are hormones	1. Secretion of exocrines are enzymes
2. Endocrine glands do not have specific duct hence ductless gland.	2. Exocrine glands have specific duct to carry their secretions.
3. Eg. Pituitary gland	3. Eg. Salivary gland

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C and D.
Answer:

A – Exine, B – Intine, C – Generative cell, D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
Define Cancer.
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm: It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductor is 110 V. How much work moving 5C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Given, V = 110 V , Charge q = 5C
V = \(\frac{W}{q}\)
W = V × q
W = 110 × 5 = 550 J
∴ Work done W = 550 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Describe the rocket propulsion.
Answer:

• Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion.
• Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
• To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
• While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
• Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved.
• The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket.
• At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 24.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as,

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

1. Elastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

2. Inelastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.
The nature and size of the scattered results in different types of scattering. They are

• Raylight scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 25.
(a) Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Answer:
Given, P = 100 W, V = 200 V
Power P = VI

(b) What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

• The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
• The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
• Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one nonpolar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 27.
(a) Explain the various types of binary solutions based on the physical states of solute and solvent table.
Answer:

(b) State Henry’s law?
Answer:
Henry’s law states that, the solubility of a gas in a liquid, is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 28.
(a) Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes which required conscious training effort.

(b) How many cranial nerves and spinal nerves are present in man?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in man.

Question 29.
(a) What are Allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. There are two types of sex chromosomes. X and Y chromosomes. Human male have one X chromosome and one Y chromosomes and the human female have two X chromosomes.

(b) What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The opening and closing of stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guard cells. When the water enters into the guard cells, they become turgid and the stomata open. When guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 30.
(a) Draw and label the structure of oxysomes
Answer:

(b) What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)

Question 31.
(a) Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. Hence dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

(b) Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 32.
(a) State Newton’s third law of motion and explain with examples:
Answer:
Law: ‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
They always act on two different bodies’.
F_B = – F_A

Examples:
(i) When birds fly:
Push the air downwards with their wings – Action
Air push the bird upwards – Reaction

(ii) When firing bullet:
Gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward – Action
Gun equals this forward action by moving backward – Reaction.

(b) How will you identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• If the given compound is saturated it will not decolourise bromine water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering, S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

(ii) Explain the construction and working of a ‘compound microscope’.
Answer:
Construction
A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:
(i) The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u >fo).
(ii) A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
(iii) This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
(iv) This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
(v) Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

[OR]

(b) (i) A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1:2)
Answer:
Given: Let m_b , m_t are the masses of truck and bike.
mt = 4m_b ………(1)

(ii) Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.16 T)
T = 46°C, v₀ =331 ms^-1
_VT = 331 +(0.61 × 46)
= 331 +28.06
V_T = 359.06 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15 g of NaCl in 85 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of solute = 15 g
Mass of solvent = 85 g

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH.
Answer:
[OH^–] = Normality = Molarity × acidity
= 0.001 × 1 = 1 × 10^-3
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ ¹× [10^-3]
= -log ¹– log₁₀ 10^-3
= 0 – (-3 log₁₀ ¹⁰)
pOH = 3
pH + pOH = 14 .
pH = 14 – pOH= 14 – 3
pH = 11

(iii) Calculate the mass of 0.01 mole of H₂O.
Answer:
n = 0.01 mole; μ = 18 g mol^-1; W = ?
W = n × M
= 0.01 × 18 = 0.18 g

[OR]

(b) (i) In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the casewith deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

Hygroscopic substances	Deliquescence substance
1. When exposed to the atmosphere at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and do not dissolve.	1. When exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and dissolve.
2. Hygroscopic substances do not change its physical state on exposure to air.	2. Deliquescent substances change its physical state on exposure to air.
3. Hygroscopic substances may be amorphous solids or liquids.	3. Deliquescent substances are crystalline solids.

(ii) Define solubility.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth, inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

(ii) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Binary fission	Multiple fission
1. Binary fission is the splitting of a cell into two daughter cell	1. Multiple fission is splitting of a parent cell into two or more daughter cells.
2. It takes place in favourable conditions. Eg. Amoeba	2. It takes place in unfavourable conditions. Eg. Plasmodium

(iii) What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:
(1) Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.

(2) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.

(3) Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.

(4) Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit?
Answer:

The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes which are ovoid in shape. Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules.
This network of tubules lead into Cowper s glands a coiled tubule called epididymis, Perineal glands which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens.

The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder. The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and perineal gland. Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

(ii) What are vestigeal organs?
Answer:
The degenerated and non functional organs of animals are called Vestigeal organs. Eg. Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra, coccyx.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai . NOTICE Articles for School Magazine 20th October, 2020 Students from Std. VI to X are requested to write and submit articles for the school magazine. You can write essays, poems, short stories, snippets, real life incidents, pencil sketches and paintings, Jokes and riddles in English, Tamil and Hindi. Do keep in mind the theme of the year ‘Be the Change to Bring a Change’. Last date for submission of articles to the undersigned is 5th January, 2020. All the club secretaries are requested to submit the activities report too. Caleb / Christabel Student Editors

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
then adj (AB)| = ……….
(a) – 40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(b) -20
Answer:
(b) -80

Question 2.
iⁿ + 1ⁿ⁺¹ + i^{n + 2} + i^{n +3} is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)- 1
(d) i
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 3.
If ω = \(\text { cis } \frac{2 \pi}{3}\) , then the number of distinct roots of
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
z+1 & \omega & \omega^{2} \\
\omega & z+\omega^{2} & 1 \\
\omega^{2} & 1 & z+\omega
\end{array}\right|=0\)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 4.
sin^-1(cos x) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\) is valid for ……….
(a) -π ≤ x ≤0
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π
(c) \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π

Question 5.
tan^-1 x + cot^-1 = …….
(a) 1
(b) -π
(c) π/2
(d) π
Answer:
(c) π/2

Question 6.
The equation of the normal to the circle x² + y² – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 which is parallel to the line 2x + 4y = 3 is …………..
(a) x + 2y = 3.
(b) x + 2y + 3 = 3
(c) 2x + 4y + 3 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 3 = 0
Answer:
(a) x + 2y = 3.

Question 7.
The axis of the parabola x² = 20y is ……….
(a) y = 5
(b) x = 5
(c) x = 0
(d) y = 0
Answer:
(c) x = 0

Question 8.
If \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})=(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) for non-coplanar vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) then…….
(a) \(\vec{a}\) parallel to \(\vec{b}\)
(b) \(\vec{b}\) parallel to \(\vec{c}\)
(c) \(\vec{c}\) parallel to \(\vec{a}\)
(d) \(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}=\overrightarrow{0}\)

Question 9.
The vector equation of a plane whose distance from the origin is p and perpendicular to a unit vector n̂ is ….
(a) \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{n}=p\)
(b) \(\begin{aligned}
&-n\\
&r \cdot n=q
\end{aligned}\)
(c) \(\vec{r} \times \vec{n}=p\)
(d) \(\vec{r} \cdot \hat{n}=p\)

Question 10.
The point of inflection of the curve y=(x – 1)³ is …………..
(a) (0,0)
(b) (0,1)
(c) (1,0)
(d) (1,1)
Answer:
(c) (1,0)

Question 11.
The asymptote to the curve y²(1 + x) = x² (1 – x) is …………..
(a) x = 1
(b) y = 1
(c) y = -1
(d) x = -1
Answer:
(d) x = -1

Question 12.
The solution of a linear differential equation ax + Px = Q where P and Q are function of y, is ……….
(a) y (I.F) = ∫(I.F) Q dx + c
(b) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c
(c) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c .
(d) x (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dx + c

Question 13.
A circular template has a radius of 10 cm. The measurement of radius has an approximate error of 0.02 cm. Then the percentage error in calculating area of this template is ……..
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.08%
Answer:
(b) 0.4%

Question 14.
For any value of n∈z, \(\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos ^{2} x} \cos ^{3}[(2 n+1) x] d x \) is……….
(a) π/2
(b) π
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 15.
If n is odd then \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin ^{n} x d x\) is …. ….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{n-1}{n} \cdot \frac{n-3}{n-2} \cdot \frac{n-5}{n-4} \dots \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1\)

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}=2^{y-x}\)is ……….
(a) 2^x + 2^y = c
(b) 2^x – 2^y = c
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)
(d) x + y = c
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)

Question 17.
If p and q are the order and degree of the differential equation \(y \frac{d y}{d x}+x^{3}\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)+x y=\cos x\) when…..
(a) p < q
(b) p = q
(c) p > q
(d) p exists and q does not exist
Answer:
(c) p > q

Question 18.
A pair of dice numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 of a six-sided die and 1, 2, 3, 4 of a four-sided die is rolled and the sum is determined. Let the random variable X denote this sum. Then the number of elements in the inverse image of 7 is ……….
(a) 1
(6) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 19.
If in 6 trials, X is a binomial variate which follows the relation 9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2),
then the probability of success is …….
(a) 0.125 .
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.375
(d) 0.75
Answer:
(b) 0.25

Question 20.
Which one of the following statements has truth value F ?
(a) Chennai is in India or √2 is an integer
(b) Chennai is in India or √2 is an irrational number
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer
(d) Chennai is in China or √2 is an irrational number
Answer:
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14)

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
8 & -4 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), verify that A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I₂,

Question 22.
Find the value of \(\sum_{k=1}^{8}\left(\cos \frac{2 k \pi}{9}+i \sin \frac{2 k \pi}{9}\right)\)
Answer:
We know that the 9th roots of unity are 1, 6, 62, …, 08 Sum of the roots:
1 + ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = 0
⇒ ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = -1

Question 23.
Solve the equation 😡⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0.
Answer:
The given equation is x⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0
Let x² = y
y² – 14y + 45 = 0 ⇒ (y – 9)(y – 5) = 0
y = 9,5
∴ x² = 9, x²= 5
x = ±3, x = ±√5
∴ The roots are ±3, ±√5

Question 24.
Find the principal value of sin \(\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) (in radians and degrees).
Answer:

Question 25.
Show that the points (2,3,4),(-1,4,5) and (8,1,2) are collinear.
Answer:
Given points are (2, 3, 4), (-1,4,5) and (8,1,2). Equation of the line joining of the first and
second point is
\(\frac{x-2}{-3}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-4}{1}=m(\text { say })\)
(-3m + 2, m + 3, m + 4)
On putting m = -2, we get the third point is (8, 1, 2)
∴ Given points are collinear.

Question 26.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Answer:
I = \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Put 4 + 3 sin x = t, so that 3 cos x dx = dt = cosx dx = \(\frac{1}{3} dt\) When x = 0, t = 4 + 3(0) = 4 and when x = 2π, t = 4+ 3(0) = 4

Question 27.
Find the order and degre of the diferential equation center equation \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\)
Answer:

Question 28.
Suppose the amount of milk sold daily at a milk booth is distributed with a minimum
of 200 litres and a maximum of 600 litres with probability density function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lr}
k & 200 \leq x \leq 600 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) Find the probability that daily sales will fall between 300 otherwise litres and 500 litres?
Answer:
The probability that daily sales will fall between 300 litres and 500 litres is

Question 29.
Let A = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) ,B = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) , C = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
0 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) be any three boolean matrices of the same type. Find A V B
Answer:

Question 30.
Find the general equation of a circle with centre (-3,- 4) and radius 3 units.
Answer:
Equation of the circle in standard form is (x – h)² + (y – k)² = p²
(x-(-3))² + (y-(-4))² = 3² .
(x + 3)² + (y + 4)² = 3²
x² + y² + 6x + 8y + 16 = 0.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
If A = \(-\left[\begin{array}{lll}
8 & 1 & 4 \\
4 & 4 & 7 \\
1 & 8 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) prove that A^-1 = A^T.
Answer:

Question 32.
If z₁ = 2 + 5i, z₂ = -3 – 4i, and z₃ = 1 + i, find the additive and multiplicative inverse of z₁, z₂, and z₃.
Answer:

Question 33.
Solve the equation 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0 if its roots form a geometric progression
Answer:
The given equation is 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0

Given that the root are GP
∴ The roots are \(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) , α, αr
\(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) x α x αr = (-8)
α³ = 8
α = 2

Question 34.
Find the value of \(\cot \left(\sin ^{-1} \frac{3}{5}+\sin ^{-1} \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If the normal at the point“ t₁‘ on the parabola y² = 4ax meets the parabola again at the point ‘t₂’, then prove that \(t_{2}=-\left(t_{1}+\frac{2}{t_{1}}\right)\)
Answer:
Equation of normal to y² = 4ax at ‘t’ is y + xt = 2at + at³.
So equation of normal at ‘t₁,’ is y + xt₁, = 2at₁ + at₁³ ……….(1)
The normal meets the parabola y² = 4ax at “t₂‘ (ie.,) at (at₂², 2at₂)

Question 36.
Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (-1, 2, 3) to the straight line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\). Also, find the shortest distance from the given point to the straight line.
Answer:

Comparing the given equation \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\) with \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+t \vec{b}\) we get \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\). We denote the given point (-1,2,3) by D, and the point (1,-4,3) on the straight line by A . If F is the foot of the perpendicular from D to the straight line, then F is of the form (2t+1, 3t – 4, t + 3) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OF}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OD}}=(2 t+2) \hat{i}+(3 t-6) \hat{j}+t \hat{k}\) .
Since \(\vec{b}\) is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\), we have
Line \(\vec{b} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\) = 0 = 2(2t + 2) + 3(3-6) +1(t) = 0 = t=1
Therefore, the coordinate of F is (3,-1, 4).
Now, the perpendicular distance from the given point to the given line is
\(\mathrm{DF}=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}|=\sqrt{4^{2}+(-3)^{2}+1^{2}}=\sqrt{26}\) units.

Question 37.
Find the asymptotes of the curve f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x-4}{3 x-6}\)
Answer:
Since the numerator is of highest degree than the denominator. We have a slant
asymptote to find it we have to divide the numerator by the denominator.

So the equation of asymptote is \(y=\frac{x}{3}+\frac{8}{3}\) and 3x – 6 = 0
x = 2

Question 38.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{1} x(1-x)^{n} d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
For the distribution function given by \(\mathbf{F}(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
0 & x<0 \\ x^{2} & 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\ 1 & x>1
\end{array}\right.\), find the density function. Also evaluate
(i) P(0.5<x<0.75), (ii) P(X ≤ 50.5) (iii) P(x > 0.75)
Answer:

Question 40.
Let w (x, y) = \(x y+\frac{e^{y}}{y^{2}+1}\) for all (x, y) ∈ R². Calculate \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial y \partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial x \partial y}\)
Answer:

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) An amount of ₹ 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is ₹ 5,000. The income from the third bond is ₹ 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Answer:
Let the amount invested in 6% bond be ₹ x
and the amount invested in 8% bond be ₹y
and the amount invested in 10% bond be ₹z
Now x + y + z = 65000

(i.e) 6x + 8y + 10z = 500000
(÷by 2) 3x + 4y + 5z = 250000
Also given that
\frac{10}{100} z-\frac{8}{100} y = 800 (i.e) -8y + 10z = 80000
(÷ by 2) -4y + 5z = 40000

(i.e,) x + y + z  = 65000…..(1)
y + 2z = 55000…..(2)
13z = 260000 …..(3)
Form (3) z = \(\frac{260000}{13}\)
Substituting z = ₹ 20000 in (2) we get
y + 40000 = 55000 = y ⇒ 55000 – 40000 = ₹ 15000
Substituting z = ₹ 20000, y = ₹ 15000 in (1) we get
x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 65000 – 35000 = ₹ 30000
So the amount invested in
6% bond x = ₹ 30000
8% bond y = ₹ 15000
and 10% bond z = ₹ 20000

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac{y-1}{x^{2}+x}\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) If arg (z – 1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) and arg (z + 1) = 2\(\frac{\pi}{3}\) , then prove that |z| = 1.
Answer:
Given arg (z-1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = 30° and arg (z + 1) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) = 120°
So, arg (z + 1) – arg (z – 1) = 120° – 30° = 90°
ie, ang \(\frac{z+1}{z-1}=90^{\circ}=\frac{\pi}{2}\)
\(\operatorname{Re} \frac{z+1}{z-1}=0\) [∴arg = \(\tan \theta=\frac{I P}{R P}\)

Therefore x= -1 and x=1 are vertical asymptotes.
The rough sketch of the curve is shown on the right side.

Question 43.
(a) Solve the equation x³ – 9x² + 14x + 24 = 0 if it is given that two of its roots are in the ratio 3:2.
Answer:
The given equation is x³ – 9x² +14x + 24 = 0…
Since, the two roots are in the ratio 3:2.
The roots are α , 3λ, 2λ
α + 3λ + 2λ = -b = 9
= a + 5λ = 9 (a) ….. (1)
α (3λ) (2λ) = -24
6λ²a = -24 => λ²α = -4 …….(2)
α = 9 – 5λ
λ² (9 – 52) = -4
9λ² – 5λ³ + 4 = 0
5λ³ – 9λ² – 4 = 0
(λ – 2) (5λ² + λ + 2) = 0
λ = 2,5λ² + λ+ 2 = 0 has only Imaginary roots ∆ < 0
∴ when λ = 2, α = 9-5 (2) = 9 – 10 = -1
∴ The roots are α, 3λ, 2λ i.e., -1, 6, 4

[OR]

(b) Show that the lines \(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{-1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-5}{5}\)
are coplanar. Also -3 .. 1 5 -1 2 find the equation of the plane containing these two lines.
Answer:
From the lines we have,
(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (-3, 1, 5); (b₁, b₂, b₃) = (-3, 1, 5)
(x₂, y₂, z₂) = (-1, 2, 5); (d₁, d₂, d₃) = (-1, 2,5)
Conditions for coplanar

\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 1 & 0 \\
-3 & 1 & 5 \\
-1 & 2 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(5 – 10) – 1(-15 + 5) + ((-6 + 1) = -10 + 10 = 0
Given two lines are coplanar

(x + 3)(5 – 10) – (y – 1)[-15 + 5) + (2 – 5)(-6 + 1] = 0
5(x + 3) + 10(y – 1) – 5(z – 5) = 0
(÷ by -5) ⇒ (x + 3) – 2 (y – 1) + (z – 5) = 0
x + 3 – 2y + 2 + 2 – 5 = 0 .
or x – 2y + z = 0

(x + 1)(5 – 10) – (y – 2)(-15 + 5) + (z – 5)(-6 + 1) = 0
-5(x + 1) + 10(y – 2) – 5(2 – 5) = 0
(x + 1) – 2(y – 2) + (2 – 5) = 0
x + 1 – 2y + 4 + 2 – 5 = 0
x – 2y + z = 0

Question 44.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y² = x and the line y = x -2.
Answer:
To find the points of intersection solve the two equations y² = x and y=x-2

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x \log x}=\frac{\sin 2 x}{\log x}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Solve \(\cos \left(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\right)\right)=\sin \left\{\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\right\}\)
Answer:

(b) Find the mean and variance of a random variable X, whose probability density x for x 20 function is \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} & \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
Observe that the given distribution is continuous

Question 46.
(a) Show that the equation of the normal to the curve x= a cos³θ, y = a sin³ θ at ‘θ’ is
x cos θ – y sin θ= a cos 2 θ.
Answer:
x = a cos³θ
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = a[ 3cos²θ](-sin θ) = -3acos²θ sin θ
y= a sin³θ

Slope of the normal = \(\frac{-1}{m}=\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)Point = (x1, yy) = (a cos³ θ , a sin³ θ ) sin θ
So, equation of the normal is
Y-a sin³ θ = \(\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)(x- a cos³ θ)
i.e. y sin θ – a sin⁴ θ = x cos θ – a cos⁴ θ
x cos θ – sin θ = a cos⁴ θ – a sin⁴ θ
i.e x cos θ – y sin θ = a [cos²θ+ sin²θ] [cos²θ – sin²θ]
= a [cos 2 θ]
So, the equation of the normal is x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ

[OR]

(b) Verify (i) closure property (ii) commutative property (iii) associative property (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the operation +₅ on Z₅ using table corresponding to addition modulo 5.
Answer:
It is known that Z₅ = {[O], [1], [2], [3], [4]} . The table corresponding to addition modulo 5 is as follows: We take reminders {0,1,2,3,4} to represent the classes {[0],[1],[2],[3],[4]}.

(i) Since each box in the table is filled by exactly one element of Z₅, the output a +₅b is unique
and hence +₅ is a binary operation.

(ii) The entries are symmetrically placed with respect to the main diagonal. So +₅ has commutative
property.

(iii) The table cannot be used directly for the verification of the associative property. So it is to be verified as usual.
For instance, (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 0 +₅ 4 = 4 (mod 5)
and 2 +₅ (3 +₅ 4) = 2 +₅ 2 = 4 (mod 5). Hence (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 2 +₅ (3 +₅4).
Proceeding like this one can verify this for all possible triples and ultimately it can be shown that +₅ is associative.

(iv) The row headed by 0 and the column headed by 0 are identical. Hence the identity element is 0.

(v) The existence of inverse is guaranteed provided the identity O exists in each row and each column. From Table-A, it is clear that this property is true in this case. The method of finding the inverse of any one of the elements of Z₅ , say 2 is outlined below.

First find the position of the identity element 0 in the III row headed by 2. Move horizonta along the III row and after reaching 0, move vertically above 0 in the IV column, because 0 is in the III row and IV column. The element reached at the topmost position of IV column is 3. This element 3 is nothing but the inverse of 2, because, 2 +₅ 3 = 0 (mod 5). In this way, the inverse of each and every element of Z₅ can be obtained. Note that the inverse of 0 is 0, that of 1 is 4, that of 2 is 3, that of 3 is 2 , and that of 4 is 1.

Question 47.
(a) Identify the type of conic and find centre, foci, vertices, and directrices the following:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
Answer:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
(18x² – 144x) + (12y² + 48y) = -120
18(x² – 8x) + 12 ( 12 + 4y) = -120
18(x² – 8x + 16 – 16) + 12 (12+ 4y + 4 – 4) = -120
18(x – 4)² – 288 + 12(y + 2)² – 48 = -120
18(x – 4)² + 12(y + 2)² = -120 + 288 + 48 = 216

[OR]

(b) Prove that g(x, y) = x log \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) is homogeneous; what is the degree? Verify Euler’s Theorem for g.
Answer:
g (x, y) = x log(y/x)
8 (tx, ty) = (tx) log \(\left(\frac{t y}{t x}\right)\)
= txlog \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
g(tx, ty) = t g(x, y)
∴ ‘g’is a homogeneous function of degree 1. By Euler’s theorem, we have

∴ Euler’s theorem verified.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His brothers and his little sister ran to the brink.
(a) bark
(b) sea
(c) water
(d) edge
Answer:
(d) edge

Question 2.
‘Open up! ’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) rough
(b) sharp
(c) haughty
(d) soft
Answer:
(a) rough

Question 3.
Trying to revive old childhood memories may prove disappointing! ’
(a) reveal
(b) resuscitate
(c) cancel
(d) cover
Answer:
(b) resuscitate

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable
(b) dishonesty
(c) rectitude
(d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 5.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 6.
M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) clarify
(b) beautify
(c) answer
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(c) answer

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘sister-in-law‘.
(a) sister-in-laws
(b) sisters-in-law
(c) sisters-in-laws
(d) sisters-n-law
Answer:
(b) sisters-in-law

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘help’.
(a) ful
(b) less
(c) ly
(d) graphy
Answer:
(b) less

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DSLR.
(a) Digital Single Lens Refraction
(b) Digital Single Light Reflex
(c) Digital Service Lens Reflex
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex
Answer:
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
I will not ……………. to pressure. I shall face the challenge bravely.
(a) give away
(b) give in
(c) give out
(d) give off
Answer:
(b) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘rain‘ to form a compound word,
(a) well
(b) dance
(c) wet
(d) coat
Answer:
(d) coat

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
None of you bothered to leave a bottle of water …………. my bed.
(a) within
(b) outside
(c) beside
(d) for
Answer:
(c) beside

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The dog never liked to be left alone and kept on ………… the entire night.
(a) whined
(b) whining
(c) whine
(d) will whine
Answer:
(b) whining

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
It was a great feeling ………. I learnt to use it.
(a) that
(b) whether
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(d) when

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the young bird utter a joyful scream?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly and uttered a joyful scream falling outwards and downwards into space.

Question 16.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 17.
What was the information given by Mrs. Hudson to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson said that Holmes was working on a case down at Rotherhithe, near the river and had brought an illness back with him since Wednesday afternoon. He had neither taken food nor water for the past three days.

Question 18.
What did Aditya do when he went to the attic?
Answer:
When Aditya went up the attic, he got on top of the packing case and pushed his hand inside the ventilator. He upset a sparrow’s nest, a part of which fell to the ground. It looked as if he was in search of something that he had left there 29 years ago.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“They growl at that and they growl at this;
Whatever comes, there is something amiss;”
(a) What does the word ‘growl’ mean here?
(b) Why do they find everything amiss?
Answer:
(a) The word growl here means ‘grumbling’.
(b) They find everything amiss, since they are not satisfied or contented with anything.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then ”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away ”. ”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.

Question 21.
“Remember; we who take arms against each other”
(a) What should we remember?
(b) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
(a) We should remember that no men are foreign and no country is strange.
Answer:
(b) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(а) To whom does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) How does the house appear in May?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the poetess, Nadia Bush.
(b) The house appears a bit brighter in May.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The burglars had cut a huge hole in the wooden door.
A huge hole had been cut in the wooden door by the burglars.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“Do they live here?” asked Manohar
Answer:
Manohar asked me if they lived here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
‘what was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin round the house last night’ he demanded
‘What was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin’ round the house last night?’ he demanded.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
It is not known what is the purpose of his visit to this place.
Answer:
The purpose of his visit to this place is not known.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) writing/ system/ telephone/ am/ to/I/ about/ banking/ your/ complain
(b) crashed/ on/I/ the/ system/ been/ that/ each/ informed/ computer/ has/ have/ occasion
Answer:
(a) I am writing to complain about your telephone banking system.
(b) On each occasion, I have been informed that the computer system has crashed.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger approaches you and asks you to guide her/him the way to S.S. Market. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the Steps.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the left immediately after the school in the comer of Anna Road and Flower Street
• After the school, take the right and walk further till you find S.S. Market on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received is a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do analyse problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you have in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family is a must to carry out the expedition.

“It s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 30.
Discuss the role played by Kim and Stephen Hawking to utilize technology for the disabled?
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realize life isn’t tough because you are differently-abled. Kim made them realize that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people like me. It can make friends communicate and control the environment. It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work.

It can make them confident and independent. World renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world. So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently-abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.

“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools.

The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals. When things come easy, we do not realise its value.

Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.

“ Understand your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings. ”

Question 32.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past.

He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek. He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members.

He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.

“ Self-respect permeates every’ aspect of your life.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How are today’s women portrayed by the poet in, ‘I Am Every Woman’?
Answer:
Rakhi Nariani Shirke is an academician with a passion for writing poems as a medium of self-expression. This poem talks about the multifaceted nature of women. A woman is born beautiful and beauty is an inborn trait. She is a symbol of supremacy and strength. She takes risks in life for she is real and always genuine. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute.

They are always ready to take up new ventures. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Women have to be treated respectfully for the growth of a nation. As stated earlier, she is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs. In spite of all the out breaths and cries and laments, she is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring. She is a disciplinarian and will not tolerate your pranks with her. She is a woman of today to beware of.

“Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.”

Question 34.
Comment on the house located on Elm street.
Answer:
Nadia Bush brings out the eerie nature while reading her poem. The House On Elm Street.” There aren’t any houses around this house located on Elm Street. It stood all alone in an isolated place. Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like the house since no leaves sprout in any of the seasons. It is said to be a mysterious place since no one knows who lives there or what is inside. No one knows what happens inside that house and hence it is very mysterious. It is for sure a big house with vast space inside the house. Generally, at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in it.

Lights are switched on and off. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter on a fine warm summer day in the month of May. The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the areas known around. Likewise, the tree too is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth and hence feels it is a mysterious place.

“The mystery’ of existence will always remain a mystery and secret.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,
And hope the road’s last turn will be the best.”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Quest and best are the rhyming words.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the above stanza is abcc.
(iii) Couplet is the figure of speech in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘Still seeking’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it lives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv)
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
‘Come in, Zigzag, come in, dear! ’coazed Visu, and in tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird the Krishnan family had ever seen. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. ‘This is Zigzag! Announced Visu with a flourish. ‘His’ full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of- the-Tonga. How I’m going to miss him! So beautifully he talks! He can even recite French Poetry!’

The object of all this praise was standing cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes.
(i) Describe Zigzag’s plumage.
(ii) What is the full name of Zigzag?
(iii) What can Zigzag do according to Visu?
(iv) What was the colour of Zigzag’s eyes?
(v) Who brought home Zigzag?
Answer:
(i) Zigzag’s plumage was a crown of pink feathers and the rest of the feathers were muddiest and sludgiest brown.
(ii) Zigzag’s full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga.
(iii) Zigzag can recite French Poetry, according to Visu.
(iv) Zigzag’s eyes were cola-coloured.
(v) Visu brought home Zigzag.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Fly India – Fly five star – sky is the best place on earth.
Answer:

Question 40.
Vivek has been asked to deliver a speech on ‘The Brain Drain Problem’. Use your own ideas, and write the speech in about 150-200 words.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends!
Good morning to one and all present here. I, Vivek of Std. X, am thankful to the teachers for giving me this opportunity.

The problem of brain-drain has assumed serious proportion in the last thirty years or so. The nation spends its hard-earned meagre resources on the education and training of its doctors, engineers, scientists, etc. But these highly talented and trained men and women of genius migrate to developed countries.

They desert the ranks for the lure of money, better facilities and living conditions. Some of them get opportunities for fulfilment of their ambitions and development of personality as there is full scope for it. They enjoy unlimited freedom for experiments and research and fear no resources crunch.

The parent countries become poorer by the depletion of resources as a result of migration of trained and talented persons. The migrants too feel maladjusted in the new country where they are considered second grade citizens. Living and working in an alien culture among foreigners, they find themselves cut off from their own social modes and customs. They do suffer emotional vacuum as the memories of friends and relatives in their country haunt their minds.

India too has been facing this problem. We must take steps to ensure them better facilities, improved living conditions, freedom for experimentation and research. In addition to this, their talents must be utilised for proper work and their work must be given due recognition. These measures, if adopted seriously, can check the problem effectively.
Thank you.

Question 41.
You are Dhinesh/Malu. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

To	[email protected]
From	[email protected] / [email protected]
Subject	Inability to attend the function
Dear Siddharth, Thank you for your cordial invitation of your sister’s wedding. I, however, regret my inability to be with you on this happy occasion as we shall be leaving for Munar for summer holidays on 1st May, 20XX. Please excuse my absence. Do convey my regards and best wishes to the couple. Yours sincerely Dhinesh/Malu

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:
An evening at the Park
Corporation has constructed and maintains quite a few parks in the city. Young and old throng these parks in the morning or in the evening to relax and stay fit. Now-a-days, people are conscious about their health and hence keep themselves fit by walking or doing aerobic exercises in the park.

They also help keeping the park clean and tidy. An ice-cream vendor makes use of the opportunity to make his living.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.

The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals. We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society.

The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey: (i) lives & efforts; (ii) our actions & desires – bound up Practices: Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others Lang. – learnt 4m others – for mental power
Status: (i) Indiv. if left alone – be primitive; (ii) The individual – much in virtue member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.
Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language;indiv.-individual; 4m- from;
mat. – material

Title: Man is a Social Animal
Rough draft
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have produced clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe our principal knowledge-over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remamplmfitiyeThey are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from but birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair draft
Title : Man is a Social Animal
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief they are interdependent. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.
No. of words written in the summary: 48

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Two-thirds of the content were rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar is not attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house in Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me when you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well but we might have to fail you.
Answer:
(a) Two-thirds of the content was rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar has not been attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house on Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me if you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well or we might have to fail you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
We will serve ………… and read and write!
Answer:
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Prospero a sympathetic character – uses magic to control – learns sorcery – protects Miranda – control Ariel and others – alter weather – raise the dead – demands attention – an insensitive character to compassionate character – rightful duke of Milan – humanity in his treatment of Antonio – extremely forgiving – helpless against his enemies – white magic and not black magic – complex personality – refuses to free Ariel – subjugates Caliban – ruler appears insensitive and harsh – tyrannical – understanding – protective just and fair, intelligent.
Answer:
In ‘The Tempest’ by William Shakespeare, Prospero is the main character yet a sympathetic character. You could also say he isn’t very sympathetic because he uses magic to control other people. He has learned sorcery from books, and uses it while on the island to protect Miranda and control the other characters. Prospero’s sorcery is sufficiently powerful to control Ariel and other spirits, as well as to alter weather and even raise the dead.

Prospero insists that others listen to him even when they do not want to. His character grows from being an insensitive character to a much more compassionate and likable character with positive characteristics. Prospero is the rightful duke of Milan who is usurped by his brother. Prospero’s humanity is clearly obvious in his treatment of Antonio.

In spite of him being a traitor, he is extremely forgiving in nature. He is helpless against his enemies and wait for them to come close to his island so that he can use his magic to create a storm and bring them under his control. Prospero’s magic is the white magic of nature and not the black magic of evil nature. He is surely a complex personality.

Although he refuses to free Ariel and subjugates Caliban, Prospero is really a generous ruler, never intending to harm even his enemies. At first, Prospero appears insensitive and harsh, especially in his treatment of Ariel and Caliban. He is seen as tyrannical in his treatment of Ferdinand, but Prospero realizes that Ferdinand and
Miranda will value one another more if there are a few obstacles to their wooing. Prospero is protective of those who are close to him especially Miranda. Throughout, Prospero makes sure Ferdinand’s and Miranda’s love stays strong. Ultimately, we see Prospero to be just and fair besides being intelligent.

[OR]

(b) Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain by developing the given hints. A mother’s affection – insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain – eternal and unconditional love is invaluable – the law – tyrant ruler – changes decision – a kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – Her heart is concerned.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.
A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
In Titanic the ‘older’ Rose throws the Heart of the Ocean diamond over the side of the ship. While the Heart of the Ocean is only a fairy tale, it is based on the Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire. It was bought in India by a French jeweller in the 1660s and brought back to France.

The Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV where it began to attract a reputation as a cursed creature. Things did not end well with Louis XIV who was flat broke at the end of his life and who was eaten by a pack of wild dogs. It then passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded. The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

The last owner’s brother died early, her son was run over by a car when he was nine years old, she got divorced, her husband perished in a mental institution, her daughter died of an overdose and she herself died of pneumonia.
The Hope Diamond is now housed in the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.

Questions.
(a) Where did The Blue Fire originate?
(b) To whom was the Blue Beauty passed on after Louis XIV was dead?
(c) How did the diamond affect Louis XIV?
(d) Under what circumstances did the Hope Diamond resurface after two decades?
Ans.
(a) The Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire was bought in India originally by a French jeweller in the 1660s and taken back to France.
(b) The Blue Beauty was passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded.
(c) When the diamond, Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV, things did not end well with him as he was flat broke at the end of his life and was eaten by a pack of wild dogs.
(d) The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
PIPING DOWN THE VALLEYS

Piping down the valleys wild,
Piping songs of pleasant glee,
On a cloud, I saw a child,
And he laughing said to me :

“Pipe a song about a Lamb !”
So I piped with merry cheer.
“Piper, a pipe that song again;”
So I piped: he wept to hear.

Drop thy pipe, thy happy pipe;
“Sing thy songs of happy cheer.”
So I sang the same again,
While he wept with joy to hear.

“Piper, sit thee down and write
In a book, that all may read.”
So he vanish’d from my sight,
And I pluck’d a hollow reed,

And I made a rural pen,
And I stain’d the water clear,
And I wrote my happy songs
Every child may joy to hear.

Questions.
(a) Whom did the piper see in a cloud?
(b) What did the child ask the piper to do?
(c) When did the piper pluck a hollow reed?
(d) What did the child do after singing?
Answer:
(a) The piper saw a child in a cloud.
(b) The child asked the piper to sing a song about a Lamb.
(c) The piper plucked a hollow reed after the boy had vanished.
(d) After singing, the child disappeared from the Piper’s sight.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………………… refers to any type of application that involves more than one type of media such as text, graphics video animation and sound
(a) an executable file
(b) desktop publishing
(c) multimedia
(d) hypertext
Answer:
(c) multimedia

Question 2.
One of the disadvantages of the multimedia is its …………………………….
(a) cost
(b) adaptability
(c) usability
(d) relativity
Answer:
(a) cost

Question 3.
Expand JPEG
(a) joint photo experts gross
(b) joint photographic experts group
(c) joint processor experts group
(d) joint photographic expression group
Answer:
(b) joint photographic experts group

Question 4.
You need hardware, software and …………………….. to make multimedia.
(a) network
(b) compact disk drive
(c) good idea
(d) programming knowledge
Answer:
(b) compact disk drive

Question 5.
Match the following by choosing the right one.
(i) Text – 1.TGA
(ii) Image – 2. MIDI
(iii) Sound – 3. MPEG
(iv) Video – 4. RTF
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3

Question 6.
Find the odd one on the following which is not an image format
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) RTF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(c) RTF

Question 7.
………………………….. is the process displaying still images they give continuous movement
(a) Text formats
(b) Sound
(c) MP3
(d) Animation
Answer:
(d) Animation

Question 8.
The live telecasting of real time program through Internet is known as ……………………………..
(a) web casting
(b) web hosting
(c) data manipulation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) web casting

Question 9.
GIF use ………………………. color look up table
(a) 8 bit
(b) 8 KB
(c) 8 MB
(d) 8 GB
Answer:
(a) 8 bit

Question 10.
RTF file format was introduced by ……………………………
(a) TCS
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

PART – II
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Multimedia and their features?
Answer:
The word multimedia consists of two words “multi” and “media” which means that multiple forms of media are combined to gather and provide services like storage, communication, presentation and Input/output interactions of text, video, image, graphics and audio.
Features of Multimedia:

1. The information they handle is represented digitally.
2. Multimedia Systems are integrated, computer controlled and usually interactive.

Question 2.
List out Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.

Question 3.
Classify the TEXT component in multimedia?
Answer:
Text is classified as static text and hypertext. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

Question 4.
Classify the IMAGE component in multimedia?
Answer:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the Image components are classified in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images:
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

Vector Images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Question 5.
Define Animation and their features?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.
Features:

1. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation.
2. The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second.

Question 6.
List out image file formats?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics).

Question 7.
List out audio file formats?
Answer:
WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format).

Question 8.
List out video file formats?
Answer:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave) and MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 9.
Define Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Question 10.
List out Multimedia Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager, Content Specialist, Script Writer, Text Editor, Multimedia Architect, Computer Graphic Artist, Audio and Video Specialist, Computer Programmer, Web Master.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain about Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.
Text:
Text is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person.

Image:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images.

Sound:
Sound is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

Video:
Video is defined as the display of recorded event, scene.

Animation:
Animation is the process of displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.

Question 2.
Describe the features and techniques of animation?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation. Using numerical transformations the movement of that image along its paths is calculated for their defining coordinates.

The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second. Animations may be in two or three dimensional. The two dimensional animation, bring an image alive, that occur on the flat X and Y axis of the screen, while in three dimensional animation it occurs along the three axis X, Y and Z. Animation tools are very powerful and effective. The two basic types of animations are Path animation and Frame animation.

Question 3.
Write roles and responsibilities of Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content.

Script Writer:
The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page.

Question 4.
Describe the various file formats in multimedia?
Answer:
Text Formats: RTF, Plain text, Image Formats:TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Jbint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics), Digital Audio File Formats: WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format), Digital Video File Formats: AVI (Audio/Video Interleave), MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 5.
Explain animation industry and their scope?
Answer:
1. The Indian Animation Industry encompasses traditional 2D animations, 3D animation <& visual effects for films.

2. An animation Studio is a company producing animated media. Many of these studios help with the fulfillment of animation works for big brand names and have carried out outsourced projects including Nemo.

3. The first Indian animated TV series was Ghayab Aya in the year 1986. The first Indian animated film was The Banyan Deer in 1957.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain in detail Process of Multimedia ?
Steps in Multimedia Production
Answer:
Adequate time and efficient planning is required for multimedia production, which assures that the project will be proceed smoothly and certainly ensures that the information reaches the target audience. Following are the phases for development of complex multimedia projects. Multimedia and Desktop Publishing.

Conceptual Analysis and Planning:
The process of multimedia making begins with a conceptual ignition point. Conceptual analysis identifies a appropriate theme, budget and content availability on that selected theme. Additional criteria like copyright issues also are considered in this phase.

Project design:
Once the theme is finalized objectives, goals, and activities are drawn for the multimedia project. General statements are termed as goals. The specific statements in the project is known as the objectives. Activities are series of actions performed to implement an objective. These activities contribute to the Project design phase.

Pre-production:
Based on the planning and design, it is necessary to develop the project.
The following are the steps involved in pre-production:

Budgeting:
Budgeting for each phases like consultants, hardware, software, travel, communication and publishing is estimated for all the multimedia projects.

Multimedia Production Team:
The production team for a high-end multimedia project requires a team efforts. The team comprises of members playing various roles and responsibilities like Script writer, Production manager, Editor, Graphics Architect, Multimedia Architect and Web Master.

Hardware/Software Selection:
All multimedia Application requires appropriate tools to develop and playback the application. Hardware includes the selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing the records. Selection of the suitable software and file formats depends on the funds available for the project being developed.

Defining the Content:
Content is the “stuff’ provided by content specialist to the multimedia architect with which the application is developed, who prepares the narration, bullets, charts and tables etc.

Preparing the structure:
A detailed structure must have information about all the steps ‘along with the time line of the future action. This structure defines the activities, responsible person for each activity and the start/end time for each activity.

Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Testing:
The complete testing of the pilot product is done before the mass production to ensure that everything is in place, thereby avoiding the failure after launch. If it’s an web . based product its functioning is tested with different browsers like Internet Explorer, Chrome, Mozilla and Netscape Navigator. If it is a locak multimedia application on a LAN it must be deployed in the server for testing purpose. After the testing process are over, the product is incorporated with valid suggested changes.

Documentation User documentation is a mandatory feature of all multimedia projects. The documentation has all the valuable information’s starting from the system requirement till the completion of testing. Contact details, e-mail address and phone numbers are provided for technical support and sending suggestions and comments.

Delivering the Multimedia Product:
Multimedia applications are best delivered on CD/DVD or in the website . In reality various challenges are faced while delivering through internet, like bandwidth problems, huge number of plug-ins required to play audio and video and long downloading time. Finally, a multimedia application is delivered in a more effective way by the integration of two mediums CD-ROM/DVD and Internet.

Question 2.
Explain in detail Techniques of Animation?
Answer:
The various animation techniques are
(i) Traditional Animation:
Traditional animation involved animators drawing by hand for each and every frame. It is creating the drawings one by one on the frame. Eg. Snow White and the Seven Dwarf Movie

(ii) Computer animation – 2D, 3D:

1. The famous mickey mouse was created using the 2D animation technique.
2. The first 2D animation was called Fantasmagorie. It is a short cartoon made by Emile Cohl. It is entirely in black and white

(iii) Digital 2D animation:

1. Creating animations in the 2 dimensional space with the help of digital technologies is called digital 2D animation.
2. Create 100s of drawing and animate them to show same kind of movement in technically called digital 2d animations.

(iv) Digital 3D animation:
3D animation models are highly realistic. They are used to create Short Films, TV Commercials.

(v) Stop-motion animation:
Using frame by frame animation, physical static objects are moved around. Eg. Movie “The Teddy Bears”.

(vi) Mechanical Animations:
Instead of robotics, machines can be animated by using the mechanical animation techniques. It helps the animator to understand how the machine works.

(vii) Chuckimation:
Chuckimation is one of the popular animation techniques created by “Action League Now!” creators. It is the combination of stop frame animation and live shots, where characters are dropped into a particular frame.

(Viii) Clay animation (or) claymation:
Pieces of clay are moulded to create characters and based on the imagination of the animator, a story is unfolded. There are oil based and water based clays available.

(ix) Typography Animation:
Typography is nothing but font faces and letters and combination of text in motion.
Eg. Titles part of movie “The Atlantic”

(x) Sand Animation:
A lit glass table is used as a canvas and the animator creates animation by moving the sand in certain directions.

(xi) ZoetrOpe Animation:
Some still images are drawn on a drum and when turned in a circular way, we will get an illusion of movement.

Question 3.
Explore the opportunities in Animation filed movie industry?
Answer:
In India, the VFX domain, or the animation and visual effects industry has been growing stronger and stronger in recent years.

1. Animation and visual effects requirement for massive international projects such as HBO’s top TV series and Marvels’ hit Infinity War and Black Panther was outsourced to Indian companies in Mumbai and Pune.
2. This led to the significant increase in the number of students enrolling for a VFX course.
3. As such, a student that completes a 3D animation course cap hope to build a rewarding and satisfying career in the Media and Entertainment field these days.
4. The timeless classics Tom and Jerry and Mickey Mouse created a milestone but the legacy is not disappointing.
5. Indian animation has risen from an amateur piece of craft like “The Banyan Deer” to the million rupees project “Chhota Bheem”
6. POGO, the leading cartoon channel in India is the most successful entertainment channel for kids.
7. Indian animation industry is anticipated to grow faster than the IT industry.
8. The industry has grown to a multibillion net work standard.
9. As a result of the growing demand in industry, the scope of animation course in tremendous.
10. The number of VFX artists and animators that worked on Baahubali was around 750.
11. Ex. For Top animates Movies: Spider-Man, Incredibles 2, Zootopia, Inside Out, Toy Story 3, Finding Nemo, Frozen, etc.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about production team Roles and Responsibilities?
Answer:
Multimedia Production Team:
Managing team members in a way to get maximum outcome with high degree of efficiency is mandatory in multimedia production. The fine quality high-end multimedia production application requires a specialize team comprises of the following members:

Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality. The production manager should be an expertise in the technology expert, good at proposal writing, good communication skills and budget management skills. Also must have experience in human resource management and act as an efficient team leader.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content. Program content refers to projects information, graphics, data or facts presented through the multimedia production.

Script Writer:
Video and film scripts represents a linear sequence of events. The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments and if needed uses the virtual reality integration into the program.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically. Text and narration is an integrated part of the application.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
The roles of these specialists are needed for dealing with narration and digitized videos to-be added in a multimedia presentation. They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language. These scripts usually develops special functions like developing the software to give the size and shape of video windows, controlling peripherals and so on.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page. They converts a multimedia presentation into a web page. Final multimedia product is ready for consultation is a joint effort of the entire team. Initially, the production manager identifies the project content, while the web master provides access to a wide range of community through web-services.

Question 5.
Explain about different file formats in multimedia files?
Answer:
File Formats for Multimedia:
The following is an outline of current file formats used for the production and delivery of multimedia data.
Text Formats:
RTF Rich Text Format:
is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Plain text:
Plain text files can be opened, read, and edited with most text editors. Commonly used are Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X) and so on. Other computer programs are also capable of reading and importing plain text. Plain text is the original and popular way of conveying an e-mail.

Image Formats:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format):
This format is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

BMP (Bitmap):
Initially this format is in use with Windows 3.1. It is quite large and uncompressed and hence BMP is used for the high-resolution or large images.

DIB (Device Independent Bitmap):
This format which is similar to BMP, allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format):
GIF is a compressed image format. Most of the computer color images and backgrounds are GIF files. This file format is best suitable for graphics that uses only limited colors, and it is the most popular format used for online color photos. 13-bit Color look up table is used by the GIF format to identify its color values. This format is supported widely.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG was designed to attain maximum image compression. It uses loss compression technique, where a compression method is referred that loses some of the data required for the image reconstruction. It works good with photographs, naturalistic artwork, and similar material but functions less on lettering, live drawings or simple cartoons.

TGA (Tagra):
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like worldwide web. So it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Digital Audio File Formats:
1. WAV (Waveform Audio File Format):
It is the most popular audio file format in windows for storing uncompressed sound files. In order to attain the. reduced file size it can also be converted to other file formats like MP3.

2. MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format)
3. MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

4. OGG:
A free, open source container format that is designed for obtaining better streaming and evolving at high end quality digital multimedia. It can be compared to MP3 files in terms of quality.

5. AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format):
A standard audio file format used by Apple which is like a WAV file for the Mac.

6. WMA (Windows Media Audio):
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

7. RA (Real Audio Format):
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD. Besides the variety of audio file formats available, the most common formats are wave files (.WAV) and MPEG Layer-3 files (.MP3), WMA and RA.

Digital Video File Formats:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave):
AVI is the video file format for Windows. Here sound and picture elements are stored in alternate interleaved chunks in the file.

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group):
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1
……………………….. applications plays vital role in presenting information to the user.
(a) Power point
(b) Multimedia
(c) Star office
(d) php
Answer:
(b) Multimedia

Question 2.
In the term multimedia, multi refers to …………………………….
(a) medium
(b) single
(c) hybrid
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 3.
What is the plural form of medium?
(a) medium
(b) mediu
(c) media
(d) median
Answer:
(c) media

Question 4.
How many major components are there in Multimedia?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 5.
Which is not a multimedia components? [Pick the odd one out].
(a) Test
(b) Image
(c) Sound
Answer:
(a) Test

Question 6.
Identify the static element from the following.
(a) Video
(b) graphics
(c) Animation
Answer:
(b) graphics

Question 7.
…………………………. is the basic components of Multimedia.
(a) Video
(b) Animation
(c) Text
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 8.
In …………………… the words are given along with the images to explain about the images.
(a) Static text
(b) Hyper text
(c) Multi text
(d) Super text
Answer:
(a) Static text

Question 9.
The readability of the text depends on the ………………………….
(a) pronunciation
(b) spacing
(c) punctuation
(d) b & c
Answer:
(d) b & c

Question 10.
In how many ways, in ages can be generated by the computer?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 11.
Bitmap images are otherwise called as ………………………… images.
(a) multimedia
(b) vector
(c) Raster
Answer:
(c) Raster

Question 12.
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is ……………………………
(a) raster images
(b) bitmap
(c) vector
(d) both (a) &(b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) &(b)

Question 13.
The tiny dots which forms on the screen (picture elements) are called as …………………………
(a) pitel
(b) pixel
(c) dots
(d) dpi
Answer:
(b) pixel

Question 14.
……………………… is a simple matrix of pixel that forms a raster image.
(a) Bitmap
(b) Pixel
(c) Vector
(d) Animation
Answer:
(a) Bitmap

Question 15.
In determining number of colors, ……………………. bits indicates 256 colors.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 16.
………………………… is a techniques used to reduce the file size of the images.
(a) Animation
(b) Rendering
(c) Compression
(d) Morphing
Answer:
(c) Compression

Question 17.
Identify which is not a compression format?
(a) GIF
(b) TIFF
(c) JPEG
(d) MIDI
Answer:
(d) MIDI

Question 18.
What is the least frame rate for smooth appearance of images?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 19.
How many frames per second are needed for a normal natural looking images?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 20.
If the image appears in xy axis of the screen, then it is called as ………………………… animation.
(a) picture
(b) Image xy
(c) 2D
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) 2D

Question 21.
If the image appears inXYZ axis of the screen then it is called as ………………………. animation.
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) XYZ
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 22.
How many types of animations are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 23.
The two types of animations are …………………………
(a) Frame, object
(b) path, object
(c) path, Frame
Answer:
(c) path, Frame

Question 24.
Which animation involves moving an object on the screen with constant background?
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(b) Path

Question 25.
Multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously in ……………………………. animations.
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(c) Frame

Question 26.
Which one of the following is the most serious element in multimedia and provides the pleasure of music, special effects etc?
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Sound
(d) Video
Answer:
(c) Sound

Question 27.
What is the unit of sound?
(a) Decibels
(b) Newton
(c) Hertz
(d) Frequency
Answer:
(a) Decibels

Question 28.
MIDI stand for ………………………………..
(a) Magic In Data Interface
(b) Musical Instrument Digital Identifier ,
(c) Magnetic Induction Drive Input
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface
Answer:
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface

Question 29.
………………………….. Sound is a digitized sound.
(a) Recorded
(b) Digital
(c) Frame
(d) Sampled
Answer:
(d) Sampled

Question 30.
is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample.
(a) Digitized sound
(b) sampling rate
(c) compression
(d) compression ratio
Answer:
(b) sampling rate

Question 31.
How many types of videos are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 32.
The display of recorded event, scene etc. are called as …………………………..
(a) Video
(b) Sampling
(c) Frames
(d) Modelling
Answer:
(a) Video

Question 33.
How many categories of Analog videos’are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 34.
Which video format have all the components like brightness, color and synchronization are combined into one signal?
(a) Digital video
(b) MIDI
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 35.
Which video format produces low plarity videos?
(a) Analog video
(b) Digital video
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 36.
Which one of the following format was used for customer analog video recording tape formats?
(a) Beta max
(b) MIDI
(c) DIB
(d) BMP
Answer:
(a) Beta max

Question 37.
How many different multimedia file formats are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 38.
RTF stand for …………………………..
(a) Rich Text Format
(b) Real Time Format
(c) Red Tagra Format
(d) Recording to file Format
Answer:
(a) Rich Text Format

Question 39.
The RTF was introduced in the year …………………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1987

Question 40.
Match the following editors with OS?
1. Gedit/Nano – (a) windows
2. Text Edit – (b) Unix / Linux
3. Notepad – (c) Mac OS
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)
(b) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a)
(c) 1-(a),2-(b),3-(c)
(d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)

Question 41.
Identify which is not an editor?
(a) Notepad
(b) Gotit
(c) Nano
(d) Text Edit
Answer:
(b) Gotit

Question 42.
………………………….. is the popular way of conveying an e-mail.
(a) RTF
(b) plaintext
(c) BMP
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) plaintext

Question 43.
TIFF is a ………………………….. Format of file.
(a) Sound
(b) Video
(c) Text
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 44.
identify the statement which is correct.
(i) RTF was developed by apple.
(ii) TIFF format is common in desktop publishing world.
(iii) GIF uses lossy compression technique
(iv) JPEG works good with photographs.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct

Question 45.
Which is the first popular format for high resolution images?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) JPEG
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 46.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) DIB
(b) BMP
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 47.
TIFF Stand for …………………………
(a) Time Interchange File Format
(b) Tagged Image File Format
(c) Time In File Format
(d) Task Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(b) Tagged Image File Format

Question 48.
Which one of the following format produces high quality output in DTP world?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) PNG
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) TIFF

Question 49.
BMP stands for …………………………..
(a) Bitwise Manipulation
(b) Binary Manipulations
(c) Bitmap
(d) Binary Map
Answer:
(c) Bitmap

Question 50.
Pick out the correct statement from the following.
(a) GIF are good with photographs
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications
(c) TIFF produces two quality output
(d) BMP is used for high resolution & small images
Answer:
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications

Question 51.
DIB stands for …………………………..
(a) Drive in Bus
(b) Devuce Input Bias
(c) Device Interface Format
(d) Device Independent Bitmap
Answer:
(d) Device Independent Bitmap

Question 52.
GIF stands for ……………………….
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphics Interchange File
(c) Graphics Interface Format
(d) Grahics Interface File
Answer:
(a) Graphics Interchange Format

Question 53.
TGA means …………………………
(a) Tagged
(b) Tagra
(c) tamil graphics
(d) Tiff graphics
Answer:
(b) Tagra

Question 54.
PNG means ………………………
(a) Power Net Gate
(b) Portable
(c) Portable Network Graphics
(d) Power Network Graphics
Answer:
(c) Portable Network Graphics

Question 55.
WAV stands for …………………………..
(a) Wave
(b) Waveform
(c) Waveform Audio Video Format
(d) Waveform Audio File Format
Answer:
(d) Waveform Audio File Format

Questionv 56.
AIFF stands for ………………………..
(a) Audio Interchange File Format
(b) Audio In File Format
(c) Audio Interference File Format
(d) Audio Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(a) Audio Interchange File Format

Question 57.
WMA means ……………………………
(a) Wave Media Animation
(b) Wave Moving Animation
(c) Windows Media Audio
(d) Waveform Media Audio
Answer:
(c) Windows Media Audio

Question 58.
RA stands for ……………………………
(a) Rich Animation
(b) Real Audio
(c) Rapid Audio
(d) Raster Audio
Answer:
(b) Real Audio

Question 59.
AVI means ……………………………
(a) Audio Video Interleave
(b) Animation Video Interface
(c) Audio Video Interchange
(d) Animation Video Intechange
Answer:
(a) Audio Video Interleave

Question 60.
The MPEG layer-3 Format is ……………………………
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) MIDI
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 61.
Which image format is used for storing high-resolution large images?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) DIB
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) BMP

Question 62.
Which image format allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices?
(a) BMP
(b) DIB
(c) DIP
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) DIB

Question 63.
What is the table used by the GIF format to identify colors?
(a) Color
(b) Look color
(c) Color Look up
(d) Color up
Answer:
(c) Color Look up

Question 64.
………………………… is a compressed image format.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) PNG
(d) DIB
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 65.
What is the compression technique used by JPEG image format?
(a) Lossless
(b) Lossy
(c) Full compression
(d) Half / partial
Answer:
(b) Lossy

Question 66.
Which image format is good with photographs, naturalistic artworks?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) GIF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(d) JPEG

Question 67.
…………………………… is the first popular format for high resolution images.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 68.
Most of the video – capture boards supports …………………………… formats.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 69.
…………………………… format is fully streameable with a best display option.
(a) JPEG
(b) GIF
(c) PNG
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(c) PNG

Question 70.
Which format works good with online viewing applications like www?
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) PNG

Question 71.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 72.
Identify the wrongly matched pair from the following.
(a) OGG – (i) Audio
(b) MPEG – (ii) Video
(c) MIDI- (iii) Text
(d) TGA – (iv) image
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(a) OGG – (i) Audio

Question 73.
Identify which is not an Digital Audio File Format.
(a) OGG
(b) AVI
(c) AIFF
(d) WMA
Answer:
(b) AVI

Question 74.
Which format is most popular for storing and downloading music?
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) JPEG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 75.
…………………………… format stores uncompressed sound files.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) WAV

Question 76.
Which files are compressed to onw-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file?
(a) WAV
(b) OGG
(c) WMA
(d) MP3
Answer:
(d) MP3

Question 77.
AIFF was developed by …………………………
(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) IBM
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 78.
……………………….. is a free, open source container format.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) WMA
Answer:
(c) OGG

Question 79.
Expand DRM.
(a) Digi Read Memory
(b) Digital Rich MP3
(c) Data Read Memory
(d) Digital Right Management
Answer:
(d) Digital Right Management

Question 80.
Which digital Audio format is designed with DRM facility?
(a) WMA
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) MP3
Answer:
(a) WMA

Question 81.
Identify the format which is not developed by Microsoft?
(a) AVI
(b) WMA
(c) AIFF
(d) RTF
Answer:
(c) AIFF

Question 82.
Who developed WMA?
(a) Apple
(b) Microsoft
(c) Macromedia
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 83.
…………………………… abilities are provided in WMA format for copyright protection.
(a) DMA
(b) DRA
(c) DRM
(d) DMR
Answer:
(c) DRM

Question 84.
The sound and picture elements in AVI are stored in alternate …………………………… chunks in the file.
(a) interleaved
(b) interface
(c) interrupt
(d) interchange
Answer:
(a) interleaved

Question 85.
Multimedia Framework was started in the year ……………………………
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 86.
Find the pair wrongly matched.
(i) MPEG-2 – DVD, TV set top Boxes
(ii) MPEG-4 – Multimedia
(iii) MPEG-1 – Mobile
(iv) MPEG-7 -Video CD
(v) MPEG-21 – Multimedia Framework
(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (v)
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv)

Question 87.
Which MPEG format is used for multimedia and mobile web?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-21
(c) MPEG-7
(d) MPEG-2
Answer:
(a) MPEG-4

Question 88.
………………………. is a standard format for generation digital video and audio compression under the ISO.
(a) AVI
(b) MP3
(c) JPEG
(d) MPEG
Answer:
(d) MPEG

Question 89.
Which format had research on “Multimedia Framework” in the year 2000?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-2
(c) MPEG7
(d) MPEG-21
Answer:
(d) MPEG-21

Question 90.
How many steps are there in Multimedia production?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 91.
The first step in Multimedia production is ……………………………
(a) project design
(b) conceptual analysis
(c) planning
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 92.
The general statements in project design stage are termed as ……………………………
(a) goals
(b) objectives
(c) Aim
(d) planning
Answer:
(a) goals

Question 93.
The selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing comes under
(a) content definition
(b) RAM capacity
(c) structure preparing
(d) Hardware / Software selection
Answer:
(d) Hardware / Software selection

Question 94.
Find the correct statement from the following
(i) Start / end time of each activity are defined in preparing the structure stage.
(ii) A pilot project will be ready in the production stage.
(iii) Suggestions and comments are given in the documentation phase.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 95.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia applications through internet.
(a) Bandwidth
(b) Plugins
(c) Downloading time
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 96.
Which software is used to incorporate the text in the production stage?
(a) Light pen
(b) Scanner
(c) OCR
(d) OMR
Answer:
(c) OCR

Question 97.
Identify which is not a browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Trash
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Google Chrome
Answer:
(b) Trash

Question 98.
Arrange the options given below in the proper order.
(i) Budgeting
(ii) project design
(iii) Documentation
(iv) Hardware / software selection
(v) Testing
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Question 99.
Copyright issues are considered in the …………………………… phase.
(a) conceptual analysis and planning
(b) project design
(c) pre-production
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) conceptual analysis and planning

Question 100.
How many members are there in multimedia production team?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 9

Question 101.
The production manager should not be an expertise in ……………………………
(a) technology
(b) proposal writing
(c) communication
(d) Text Narration
Answer:
(d) Text Narration

Question 102.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The text should always be structured
(b) The text should be grammatically correct
(c) The text must flow logically
(d) All the above statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are correct

Question 103.
The multimedia presentation is converted into a web page by
(a) computer programmer
(b) web master
(c) graphic artist
(d) multimedia architect
Answer:
(b) web master

Question 104.
…………………………… represents a linear sequence of events.
(a) video
(b) film scripts
(c) Text
(d) a & b
Answer:
(d) a & b

Question 105.
Who plays a vital role in dealing with backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3D objects, animations, logos of the programs.
(a) Multimedia Architect
(b) Web Master
(c) Computer Graphic Artist
(d) Video Specialist
Answer:
(c) Computer Graphic Artist

Question 106.
Identify the person who is not a member of Multimedia Production team.
(a) Content specialist
(b) Program debugger
(c) Script writer
(d) Text Editor
Answer:
(b) Program debugger

Question 107.
How many million consumers uses Internet, radio and video services every month?
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75
Answer:
(a) 55

Question 108.
…………………………… is a multimedia based teaching and learning system at GMU in Germany to provide decentralized learning environment to the students.
(a) MODULO
(b) MODULES
(c) MODE
(d) MODEL
Answer:
(a) MODULO

Question 109.
…………………………… is an Education satellite launched in India to provide virtual classrooms.
(a) EDSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) E-SAT
(d) E SATELLITE
Answer:
(b) EDUSAT

Question 110.
……………………………. conferencing is a system that performs face to face interactions for the users.
(a) Multimedia
(b) Video
(c) Audio
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 111.
…………………………… is a free standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen.
(a) Kiosk
(b) Helpdesk
(c) Customer care
(d) ATM
Answer:
(a) Kiosk

Question 112.
Banks uses Kiosks in the form of
(a) Cash
(b) Finance
(c) Credit Cards
(d) ATM
Answer:
(d) ATM

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of vector images?
Answer:
Relatively small amount of data is required to represent the image and thereby only less memory is needed to store.

Question 2.
Define compression?
Answer:
Compression is a technique used to reduce the file size of images that is useful for storing large number of images and speeding transmission for networked applications.

Question 3.
Mention some compression formats?
Answer:

1. GIF – Graphics Interface Format
2. TIFF – Tagged Image File Format
3. JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 4.
Define frame Animation?
Answer:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

Question 5.
Define sampling rate?
Answer:
Sampling rate is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample (bit depth, resolution and sample size).

Question 6.
Write note on MIDI?
Answer:
Musical Instrument Digital Identifier (MIDI) is a standard communication tool developed for computers and electronic instruments. This tool is flexible and easy for composing the projects in multimedia. Tools for synthesizing the sound and software for sequencing are necessary for MIDI.

Question 7.
Classify video?
Answer:
The video can be categorized into two types as:
Analog video and Digital video

Question 8.
Classify Analog video?
Answer:
Analog Video’s are classified as

1. composite Analog video
2. component Analog video

Question 9.
Write note on RTF text format?
Answer:
Rich Text Format is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Question 10.
Mention some text editors?
Answer:
Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X)

Question 11.
Compare BMP and DIB?
Answer:
DIB is similar to BMP. It allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

Question 12.
Write note on Tagra?
Answer:
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

Question 13.
Write note on MP3 format?
Answer:
MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

Question 14.
Write note on WMA?
Answer:
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

Question 15.
Write note on RA Format?
Answer:
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD.

Question 16.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia product?
Answer:

1. Bandwidth issues.
2. Huge Number of Plugins required to play audio and video.
3. Long downloading time.

Question 17.
Name the various fields where multimedia plays a vital role?
Answer:
Education, Entertainment, Business Systems, Medical Services, Public Places and Multimedia Conferencing.

Question 18.
What is Kiosk?
Answer:
Kiosk is a free-standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen. It is^ commonly used in airports and other public locations to provide directions and few mandatory information’s.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define path animation?
Answer:
Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e.g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

Question 2.
Define composite Analog video? Mention same characteristics of composite Analog video?
Answer:
Composite Analog Video has all the video components like brightness, color, and synchronization combined into one signal. Due to the combining of the video components, the quality of the composite video resulted in color blending, low clarity and high generational loss.

Question 3.
Write note on TIFF?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate GIF and JPEG?
Ans
GIF:

1. It is lossless format
2. It is limited to 8 bit palette
3. Size of GIF is more
4. Good for animation works

JPEG:

1. It uses lossy format
2. It allows multiple colors
3. It is lesser
4. Good for photographs

Question 5.
Explain PNG format?
Answer:
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like world wide web. so it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Question 6.
Write note on MPEG?
Answer:
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on , MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Question 7.
List out the steps in Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Conceptual Analysis and Planning, Project design, Pre-production, Budgeting, Multimedia Production Team, Hardware/Software Selection, Defining the Content, Preparing the structure, Production, Testing, Documentation and Delivering the Multimedia Product.

Question 8.
What is meant by digital library?
Answer:
Information’s are available in digital formats It include digital books, scanned images, graphics and digitized audio-visual clips etc. digital library projects were based on textual data, images, audio and video recordings were also integrated under the collection of digital library.

IV. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain various components of Multimedia?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation. They are explained in detail below:
1. Text:
is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

2. Images:
acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images: The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

3. Vector images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

4. Frame animation:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

5. Sound:
is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

6. Video:
is defined as the display of recorded event, scene etc. The powerful way to convey information in multimedia applications are embedding of video. The video can be categorized in two types as Analog video and Digital video.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

To Dr. C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Sunshine Public School, Elagiri Admission Notice 7th December, 2019 The admission for the coming academic year viz. 2020-2021 will begin from the second week of January, 2020. The prospectus and admission forms can be purchased from the school office from 8th January to 30th January, 2020 between 10 a.m. and 4.30 p.m. The last date for the submission of the duly filled forms is 28th February, 2020. Principal Mr. Samson – Sunshine Public School

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun-Yat-Sen
(d) MaoTsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ……………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about ………………….
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Black Soil is also called as ………………….
(a) Arid soil
(b) Saline soil
(c) Regur soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Regur soil

Question 8.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ………………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 10.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ………………….
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 11.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ………………….
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 12.
Apartheid is ………………….
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination

Question 13
…………………. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value added approach

Question 14.
Tuticorin is known as ………………….
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:

• In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome.
• Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 16.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force.

(ii) Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads.

(iii) On 29 October Israels forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 17.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 18.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaravelar, Pandithar Iyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillai and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region. –
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.

Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres). …

The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.

One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil.

Question 20.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sight seeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as they accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 21.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 22.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry’ of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
Write the importance of gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 26.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:

• Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNC) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE).
• Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries – USA, UK, France and Germany.

Question 27.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:

• Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes.
• There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed
  while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 28.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and Physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………. known as the “Father of modem china.
(ii) Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……………….
(iii) Fundamental duties have been gives to the citizen of India under Article ……………….
(iv) ……………….  is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….
Answers:
(i) Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(ii) Railways
(iii) 51 A
(iv) Entrepreneur
(v) Balance of trade.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains,
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Nar-mada and Tapi forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. They are wide and level plains with an aver¬age width of 80-100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern
5. part is known as the Coromandal coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.

Tropical Evergreen forest:

• These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.
• The trees in these forests are evergreen.
• These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
• The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany, and Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yield valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 33.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:
(i) The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.

(ii) Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.

(iii) The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subj ect to untouchability. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.

(iv) There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.

(v) There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 34.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th century.
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.
• In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.
• C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.
• The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.
• Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 35.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Formation:

• • The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• • This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying on the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:
It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.

Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

• In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
• The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
• The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:

• The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
• The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like
Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:

• In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:

• South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
• The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:

• The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
• The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:

• The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.
• The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun.
• So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers.
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 38.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

Question 39.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air, which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970’s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens – because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 40.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

• They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
• They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
• They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
• They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
• Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
• They enable the people to avail better quality goods, at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
1905 – Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906  – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916 – Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
1919 – Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920 – Khilafat Movement / Non Co-operation Movement

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(i) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
(ii) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
(iii) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
(iv) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Ho Chi Minh:
(i) Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.
(ii) Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
(iii) In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.
(iv) The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(if) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU:
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA.
(i) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA:
(i) First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.
(ii) Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.
(iii) Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.
(iv) He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’. ‘

(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu.
(i) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Why did Subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry?
(tii) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
(iv) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:
(i) Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.
(ii) Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.
(iii) Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.
(iv) Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D ’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 1 Living World Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 1 Living World

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Living World Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Which one of the following statement about virus is correct?
(a) Possess their own metabolic system
(b) They are facultative parasites
(c) They contain DNA or RNA
(d) Enzymes are present
Answer:
(c) They contain DNA or RNA

Question 2.
Identify the incorrect statement about the Gram positive bacteria.
(a) Teichoic acid absent
(b) High percentage of peptidoglycan is found in cell wall
(c) Cell wall is single layered
(d) Lipopolysaccharide is present in cell wall
Answer:
(a) Teichoic acid absent

Question 3.
Identify the Archaebacterium.
(a) Acetobacter
(b) Erwinia
(c) Treponema
(d) Methanobacterium
Answer:
(d) Methanobacterium

Question 4.
The correct statement regarding Blue green algae is
(a) lack of motile structures
(b) presence of cellulose in cell wall
(c) absence of mucilage around the thallus
(d) presence of floridean starch
Answer:
(a) lack of motile structures

Question 5.
Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) Actinomycete – 1. Late blight
(b) Mycoplasma – 2. Lumpy jaw
(c) Bacteria – 3. Crown gall
(d) Fungi – 4. Sandal spike
Answer:
(c) Bacteria – 3. Crown gall

Question 6.
Differentiate Homoiomerous and Heteromerous lichens.
Answer:
Homoiomerous and Heteromerous Lichens:

Homoiomerous	Heteromerous
1. Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus	1. A distinct layer of algae and fungi present

Question 7.
Write the distinguishing features of Monera.
Answer:
Distinguishing Features of Monera:

1. This kingdom includes all prokaryotic organisms. Example: Mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes and cyanobacteria.
2. These are microscopic. They do not have a true nucleus and membrane bound organelles.
   
3. Many other bacteria like Rhizobium, Azotobacter and Clostridium can fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
   
4. Some bacteria are parasites and others live as symbionts.

Question 8.
Why do farmers plant leguminous crops in crop rotations/mixed cropping?
Answer:
Rotations / Mixed Cropping:

1. Legumes have bacteria on nodules which are on the roots of the plants. The bacteria on the nodules takes nitrogen from the air and fixes it into the soil, so that other plants that require nitrogen can use it as well.
2. Rotation of crops improves the fertility of the soil and hence brings about an increase in the production of food grains.
3. Rotation of crops helps in saving on nitrogenous fertilizers, because leguminous plants grown during the rotation of crops can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil with the help of nitrogen fixing bacteria.
4. Crop rotation adds diversity to an operation.

Question 9.
Briefly discuss on five kingdom classification. Add a note on merits and demerits.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five kingdom classification in the year 1969. The kingdoms include Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship. A comparative account of the salient features of each kingdom is given in table.

Merits:

• The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
• It is based on the mode of nutrition.
• Separation of fungi from plants.
• It shows the phylogeny of the organisms

Demerits:

• The kingdom monera and protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
• Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 10.
Give a general account on lichens.
Answer:
The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens. The algal partner is called Phycobiont and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partner and also help in fixing the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia and Isidia. Phycobionst reproduce by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore, etc. Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.
Classification:

1. Based on the habitat lichens are classified into following types: Corticolous (on bark) Lignicolous (on wood) Saxicolous (on rocks) Terricolous (on ground) Marine (on siliceous rocks of sea) and Fresh water (on siliceous rock of fresh water).
2. On the basis of morphology of the thallus they are divided into Leprose (a distinct fungal layer is absent) Crustose – crust like; Foliose – leaf like; Fruticose – branched pendulous shrub like.
3. The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into two forms namely Homoiomerous (Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and Fleteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).
4. If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes it is called Basidiolichen.

Textbook Activity Solved

Get a button mushroom. Draw diagram of the fruit body. Take a thin longitudinal section passing through the gill and observe the section under a microscope. Record your observations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Living World Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Earth was formed around billion years ago …………… .
(a) 3.3
(b) 5.6
(c) 4.6
(d) 5.9
Answer:
(c) 4.6

Question 2.
According to Mora et al., in 2011, the number of estimated species on Earth is …………… .
(a) 8.7 million
(b) 9.7 million
(c) 7.7 million
(d) 9.7 billion
Answer:
(a) 8.7 million

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a prokaryote?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Oedogonium
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(c) Oedogonium

Question 4.
Which of the following organism undergoes regeneration?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Planaria
(c) Yeast
(d) Aspergillus
Answer:
(b) Planaria

Question 5.
Vaccination for small pox was discovered by …………… .
(a) W.M. Stanley
(b) Adolf Mayer
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Edward Jenner
Answer:
(d) Edward Jenner

Question 6.
Who coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’?
(a) F.W. Twort
(b) d’Herelle
(c) Ivanowsky
(d) Robert Gallo
Answer:
(b) d’Herelle

Question 7.
The size of TMV is …………… .
(a) 300 × 20 mm
(b) 300 × 200 µm
(c) 300 × 20 nm
(d) 300 × 20 Å
Answer:
(c) 300 × 20 nm

Question 8.
One nanometer equals to metres …………… .
(a) 10^-9
(b) 10^-6
(c) 10^-5
(d) 10^-12
Answer:
(a) 10^-9

Question 9.
Which is a non – living character of viruses?
(a) Undergoes mutation
(b) Host – specific
(c) Crystallized
(d) Irritability
Answer:
(c) Crystallized

Question 10.
According to David Baltimore, the viruses are classified …………… into classes.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 11.
Identify the criteria not used in classifying viruses by Baltimore …………… .
(a) ss (or) ds
(b) use of RT
(c) capsid
(d) sense or antisense
Answer:
(c) capsid

Question 12.
Viruses with dsRNA is …………… .
(a) Toga viruses
(b) Retro viruses
(c) Reo viruses
(d) Rhabdo viruses
Answer:
(c) Reo viruses

Question 13.
Which of the plant virus contains DNA as genome?
(a) Tobacco mosaic virus
(b) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(c) Sugarcane mosaic virus
(d) Cucumber mosaic virus
Answer:
(b) Cauliflower mosaic virus

Question 14.
Parvo viruses have …………… .
(a) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) ssRNA
(d) dsRNA
Answer:
(a) ssDNA

Question 15.
Molecular weight of TMV is dalton …………… .
(a) 39 × 10⁶
(b) 39 × 10^-6
(c) 39 × 10⁹
(d) 39 × 10^-9
Answer:
(a) 39 × 10⁶

Question 16.
Approximate number of capsomeres in TMV is …………… .
(a) 3120
(b) 1203
(c) 2130
(d) 3021
Answer:
(c) 2130

Question 17.
The empty protein coat left outside after penetration is …………… .
(a) host
(b) ghost
(c) capsid
(d) capsomeres
Answer:
(b) ghost

Question 18.
The genome of viroid is …………… .
(a) linear ssRNA
(b) dumb – bell shaped ssRNA
(c) circular ssRNA
(d) linear dsRNA
Answer:
(c) circular ssRNA

Question 19.
Viroids were discovered by …………… .
(a) Ivanowsky
(b) Robert Gallo
(c) Diener
(d) d’Herelle
Answer:
(c) Diener

Question 20.
Mad cow disease is caused by …………… .
(a) viroids
(b) virusoids
(c) prions
(d) viruses
Answer:
(c) prions

Question 21.
Match the Following:

(a) 1- d, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – c
(b) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b
(c) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – d
(d) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c
Answer:
(c) 1- c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – d

Question 22.
Identify the correct sequence regarding lytic cycle of viruses …………… .
(A) Penetration
(B) Adsorption
(C) Assembly
(D) Synthesis

(a) BADC
(b) CABD
(c) BDAC
(d) ADBC
Answer:
(a) BADC

Question 23.
Mycophages infect …………… .
(a) blue green algae
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) cyanobacteria
Answer:
(c) fungi

Question 24.
Rice tungro is caused by …………… .
(a) fungi
(b) bacteria
(c) mycoplasma
(d) viruses
Answer:
(d) viruses

Question 25.
Father of Botany …………… .
(a) Aristotle
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Lederberg
(d) Whittaker
Answer:
(b) Theophrastus

Question 26.
Three kingdom classification was proposed by …………… .
(a) Copeland
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Haeckel
Answer:
(d) Haeckel

Question 27.
Which Is not a part of five kindgom classification?
(a) Viruses
(b) Monera
(c) Protista
(d) Mycoplasma
Answer:
(a) Viruses

Question 28.
Six kingdom classification was proposed by …………… .
(a) Haeckel
(b) Copeland
(c) Woese
(d) Cavalier – Smith
Answer:
(d) Cavalier – Smith

Question 29.
Ruggerlo et al., in 2015 proposed …………… kingdom classification.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 30.
…………… is a new kingdom in seven kingdom classification.
(a) Eubactena
(b) Plantae
(c) Chromista
(d) Archaebacteria
Answer:
(c) Chromista

Question 31.
Actinomycetes comes under …………… kindgom.
(a) fungi
(b) chromista
(c) monera
(d) protista
Answer:
(c) monera

Question 32.
The sourness of curd is due to …………… .
(a) acetic acid
(b) galactic acid
(c) lactic acid
(d) lactone
Answer:
(c) lactic acid

Question 33.
Who is the founder of Modern Bacteriology …………… ?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Pasteur
(d) Linnaeus
Answer:
(b) Robert Koch

Question 34.
The term bacterium was coined by …………… .
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 35.
Plasmids were discovered by …………… .
(a) Ehrenberg
(b) H.Bergy
(c) Joshua Lederberg
(d) Koch
Answer:
(c) Joshua Lederberg

Question 36.
Genophore is seen in …………… .
(a) Amoeba
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Euglena
Answer:
(b) Cyanobacteria

Question 37.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese …………… .
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 38.
Which is not a component of bacterial cell?
(a) Mesosomes
(b) Glycocalyx
(c) Polysomes
(d) Histones
Answer:
(d) Histones

Question 39.
The most abundant polypeptide in bacterial cell wall is …………… .
(a) chitin
(b) amylopectin
(c) porin
(d) pectin
Answer:
(c) porin

Question 40.
Extra chromosomal element in bacterial cells are …………… .
(a) plasmids
(b) mesosomes
(c) histones
(d) genophores
Answer:
(a) plasmids

Question 41.
Bacteriocins are found in …………… .
(a) genophore
(b) plasmids
(c) nucleoids
(d) mesosomes
Answer:
(b) plasmids

Question 42.
Colour revealed by Gram positive bacteria after Gram staining is …………… .
(a) red
(b) indigo
(c) dark violet
(d) blue
Answer:
(c) dark violet

Question 43.
How many number of basal body rings seen in the flagella of Gram negative bacteria?
(a) 2
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 44.
Capnophilic bacteria require for growth …………… .
(a) C₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) O₃
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 45.
The pigment present in green sulphur bacteria is …………… .
(a) bacterioviridin
(b) bacteriochlorophyll
(c) chlorophyll a
(d) xanthophyll
Answer:
(b) bacteriochlorophyll

Question 46.
The hydrogen donor of purple sulphur bacteria is …………… .
(a) H₂S
(b) thiosulphate
(c) ethanol
(d) acetic acid
Answer:
(b) thiosulphate

Question 47.
Campylobacter is a …………… .
(a) obligate aerobe
(b) obligate anaerobe
(c) capnophilic
(d) aerobe
Answer:
(c) capnophilic

Question 48.
Mycobacterium is a …………… .
(a) parasite
(b) symbiont
(c) saprophyte
(d) free – living
Answer:
(a) parasite

Question 49.
Which is the most common mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria?
(a) Endospore formation
(b) Fission
(c) Budding
(d) Conidia
Answer:
(b) Fission

Question 50.
…………… are thick walled resting spores.
(a) Aplanospores
(b) Endospores
(c) Conidia
(d) Zoospores
Answer:
(b) Endospores

Question 51.
In which of the following method genetic recombination does not occur?
(a) Generalised transduction
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transformation
(d) Fission
Answer:
(d) Fission

Question 52.
During conjugation in bacteria, which of the following is transferred from donor to recipient cell?
(a) R factor
(b) F factor
(c) Ti factor
(d) Ri factor
Answer:
(b) F factor

Question 53.
Griffith used …………… for his experiment.
(a) rat
(b) rabbit
(c) mice
(d) monkey
Answer:
(c) mice

Question 54.
Transformation in bacteria was demonstrated by …………… .
(a) Lederberg
(b) Zinder
(c) Edward
(d) Griffith
Answer:
(d) Griffith

Question 55.
Lederberg studied transduction in bacterium …………… .
(a) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Escherichia coil
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi

Question 56.
Bacteria used in the curing of tea is …………… .
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Eseherichia coli
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Streptococcus lactis
Answer:
(a) Mycococcus candisans

Question 57.
Syphilis k caused by …………… .
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycohacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 58.
Methanobacterium is …………… .
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Malobacteria
(c) Eubacteria
(d) Archaebacteria
Answer:
(d) Archaebacteria

Question 59.
…………… is NOT a phycobiont in lichens.
(a) Gloeocapsa
(b) Dermacarpa
(c) Scytonema
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(b) Dermacarpa

Question 60.
Red sea is red colour due to …………… .
(a) Dermacarpa sps.
(b) Trichodesmium sps.
(c) Scytonema sps.
(d) Gloeocapsa sps.
Answer:
(b) Trichodesmium sps.

Question 61.
Filamentous trichome is the plant body of …………… .
(a) Chroococcus
(b) Gloeocapsa
(c) Nostoc
(d) Oscillatoria
Answer:
(c) Nostoc

Question 62.
Stromatolites are the colonies of cyanobacteria bind with …………… .
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) calcium hydroxide
(c) magnesium sulphate
(d) calcium silicate
Answer:
(a) calcium carbonate

Question 63.
…………… sps. is an endophyte in coralloid roots of Cycas.
(a) Gioeocapsa
(b) Scytonerna
(c) Nostoc
(d) Azolla
Answer:
(c) Nosloc

Question 64.
Myxophyceae refers to …………… .
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(d) Cyanobacteria

Question 65.
…………… is used in single cell protein.
(a) Spirulina
(b) Azolla
(c) Dermacarpa
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(a) Spirulina

Question 66.
…………… is a pleomorphic organism.
(a) Fungi
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
Answer:
(b) Mycoplasma

Question 67.
Pleuropneumonia is caused by …………… .
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) mycoplasma
(d) viruses
Answer:
(c) mycoplasma

Question 68.
…………… is also called as Ray fungi.
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Actinomycetes

Question 69.
Earthy odour of soil after rain is due to …………… .
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Actinomycetes

Question 70.
Viruses that attack blue green algae are called as …………… .
(a) Mycophages
(b) Phycophages
(c) Cyanophages
(d) Bacteriophages
Answer:
(c) Cyanophages

Question 71.
Cell membrane of Archaebacteria has …………… .
(a) glycine and isopropyl ethers
(b) glycerol and isobutyl ethers
(c) glycerol and isopropyl ethers
(d) cellulose and isobutyl ethers
Answer:
(c) glycerol and isopropyl ethers

Question 72.
Which is a true bacteria?
(a) Halobacterium
(b) Thermoplasma
(c) Methanobacteriurn
(d) Azotobacter
Answer:
(d) Azolobacter

Question 73.
Study of fungus is called as …………… .
(a) phycology
(b) mycology
(c) algology
(d) biology
Answer:
(b) mycology

Question 74.
Who is considered as the founder of mycology?
(a) K.C.Mehta
(b) G.C.Ainsworth
(c) P.A.Micheli
(d) T.S.Sadasivan
Answer:
(c) P.A.Micheli

Question 75.
Asexual phase of fungi is called as …………… .
(a) telomorph
(b) holomorph
(c) metamorph
(d) anamorph
Answer:
(d) anamorph

Question 76.
In which mycelium, the hyphae are arranged loosely?
(a) Prosenchyma
(b) Plectenchyma
(c) Pseudoparenchyrna
(d) Arenchyma
Answer:
(a) Prosenchyma

Question 77.
Number of nuclei in coenocytic mycelium …………… .
(a) 2
(b) many
(c) nil
(d) 9
Answer:
(b) many

Question 78.
Thallospores are produced by …………… .
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Erysiphe
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Fusarium
Answer:
(b) Erysiphe

Question 79.
In Agaricus, …………… type of sexual reproduction occurs.
(a) spermatization
(b) somatogamy
(c) oogamy
(d) isogamy
Answer:
(b) somatogamy

Question 80.
Albugo belongs to …………… .
(a) oomycetcs
(b) zygomycetes
(c) ascomycetes
(d) deuteromycetes
Answer:
(a) oomycetes

Question 81.
Fungi growing on dung is called as …………… .
(a) Mold fungus
(b) Saprophytes
(c) Capnophilous
(d) Coprophilous
Answer:
(d) Coprophilous

Question 82.
Coprophilous belongs to …………… group.
(a) basidiomycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) zygomycetes
(d) oomycetes
Answer:
(c) zygomycetes

Question 83.
Which of the following is a coprophilous fungi?
(a) Albugo
(b) Entomophthora
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Pilobolus
Answer:
(d) Pilobolus

Question 84.
Cup fungus belongs to …………… .
(a) zygomycetes
(b) oomycetes
(c) ascomycetes
(d) actinomycetes
Answer:
(c) ascomycetes

Question 85.
Which group of fungus is called as Sac fungi?
(a) Deuteromycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
(d) Oomycetes
Answer:
(c) Ascomycetes

Question 86.
Number of ascospores in an asci is …………… .
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question 87.
Shape of perithecium is …………… .
(a) cup shaped
(b) flask shaped
(c) completely closed
(d) open type
Answer:
(b) flask shaped

Question 88.
…………… are called as Club fungi.
(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Basidiomycetes

Question 89.
Parasexual cycle is observed in …………… .
(a) basidiomycetes
(b) zygomycetes
(c) deuteromycetes
(d) ascomycetes
Answer:
(c) deuteromycetes

Question 90.
Which is called as imperfect fungi?
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes
(d) Ascomycetes
Answer:
(c) Deuteromycetes

Question 91.
In basidiomycetes, clamp connections are formed to maintain …………… condition.
(a) monokaryotic
(b) coenocytic
(c) dikaryotic
(d) zygotic
Answer:
(c) dikaryotic

Question 92.
…………… is a single celled fungus used in dairy industry.
(a) Volvariella
(b) Agaricus
(c) Penicillin
(d) Yeast
Answer:
(d) Yeast

Question 93.
Ergot alkaloids are produced by …………… .
(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Acremonium chrysogenum
(c) Claviceps purpurea
(d) Penicillium griseofulvum
Answer:
(c) Claviceps purpurea

Question 94.
Kojic acid is produced by …………… .
(a) Aspergillus terreus
(b) Aspergillus niger
(c) Aspeigillus oryzae
(d) Agaricus hisporus
Answer:
(c) Aspergillus oryzae

Question 95.
…………… infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin.
(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Amanita verna
(c) Amanita phalloides
(d) Rhizopus
Answer:
(a) Aspergillus flavus

Question 96.
Rust of wheat is produced by …………… .
(a) Albugo candida
(b) Puccinia graminis tritici
(c) Candida albicans
(d) Colletotrichum sps
Answer:
(b) Puccinia graminis tritici

Question 97.
VAM is a type of …………… .
(a) Endomycorrhiza
(b) Ectomycorrhiza
(c) Ectendomycorrhiza
(d) Endectomycorrhiza
Answer:
(a) Endomycorrhiza

Question 98.
Algal partner of lichen is …………… .
(a) phycobiont
(b) phytobiont
(c) mycobiont
(d) both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(a) phycobiont

Question 99.
Asexual reproduction by Soredia is seen in …………… .
(a) fungi
(b) lichen
(c) mycorrhiza
(d) algae
Answer:
(b) lichen

Question 100.
Saxicolous lichen grow on …………… .
(a) ground
(b) bark
(c) wood
(d) rock
Answer:
(d) rock

Question 101.
In leprose form of lichen distinct …………… layer is absent.
(a) fungal
(b) algal
(c) both
(d) none
Answer:
(a) fungal

Question 102.
…………… are used as pollution indicators.
(a) Algae
(b) Lichen
(c) Fungi
(d) Mycorrhiza
Answer:
(b) Lichen

Question 103.
…………… acid is obtained from lichen acting as antibiotics.
(a) Alginic
(b) Acetic
(c) Oxalic
(d) Usnic
Answer:
(d) Usnic.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
Differentiate plant growth from animal growth.
Answer:
Plant Growth From Animal Growth:

S. No.	Plant growth	Animal growth
1.	1. Growth is indefinite.	1. Growth is definite.
2.	2. It occurs throughout life.	2. It occurs for some period.

Question 2.
Define Growth.
Answer:
Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass.

Question 3.
Growth of living thing is an intrinsic property – Justify.
Answer:
Living cells grow by the addition of new protoplasm within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is intrinsic.

Question 4.
Define reproduction and Mention its types.
Answer:
Reproduction is the tendency of a living organism to perpetuate its own species. There are two types of reproduction namely asexual and sexual.

Question 5.
What is metabolism? Mention its types.
Answer:
The sum total of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism. It is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism.

Question 6.
What is consciousness and irritability?
Answer:
Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called consciousness. Respond of plants to the stimuli is called irritability.

Question 7.
List out few attributes of living organisms.
Answer:
The attributes of living organisms are growth, metabolism, movement, reproduction, nutrition, excretion, etc.

Question 8.
Define cyclosis.
Answer:
The movement of cytoplasm inside the cell is called cytoplasmic streaming or cyclosis.

Question 9.
How will you define viruses?
Answer:
Viruses are sub – microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat.

Question 10.
Mention the size of Bacteriophage and tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
Answer:
Bacteriophage measures about 10 – 100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300 × 20 nm.

Question 11.
Classify viruses based on nature of nucleic acid with example.
Answer:
On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four categories. They are viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (wound tumour virus).

Question 12.
Distinguish between deoxyviruses and riboviruses.
Answer:
Deoxyviruses and Riboviruses:

1. Deoxyviruses: Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV
2. Riboviruses: Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g. Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV)

Question 13.
Write the constituents of virions.
Answer:
The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid.

Question 14.
What are capsomeres?
Answer:
The protein coat of viruses is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres.

Question 15.
Name the two types of phage multiplication.
Answer:
Phages multiply through two different types of life cycle:

1. Lytic or Virulent cycle
2. Lysogenic or Avirulent life cycle

Question 16.
What do you mean by a ‘ghost’ in virology?
Answer:
The empty protein coat left outside by the phage after penetrating the host cell is called as ghost.

Question 17.
What do you understand by “pinning” of phage?
Answer:
Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phase and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

Question 18.
What is prophage?
Answer:
As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage.

Question 19.
When does a prophage enters lytic cycle?
Answer:
On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.

Question 20.
Define virion?
Answer:
Virion is an intact infective virus particle which is non – replicating outside a host cell.

Question 21.
What are viroids?
Answer:
Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid. RNA is of low molecular weight.

Question 22.
Name any two disease caused by viroids.
Answer:
Two Disease:

1. Citrus exocortis
2. Potato spindle tuber disease

Question 23.
What are virusoids?
Answer:
Virusoids are the small circular RNAs which are similar to viroids but they are always linked with larger molecules of the viral RNA.

Question 24.
Who discovered viroids and virusolds?
Answer:
Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971. Virusoids were discovered by J.W.Randles in 1981.

Question 25.
Name the causative organism for mad cow disease.
Answer:
Prions are the causative organisms for mad cow disease, Prions are the proteinaceous infectious particles.

Question 26.
What are cyanophages? Who reported it first?
Answer:
Viruses infecting blue green algae are called Cyanophages and are first reported by Safferman and Morris in the year 1963.

Question 27.
Name any two disease caused by Prions.
Answer:
Two Disease:

1. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (mad cow disease)
2. Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD)

Question 28.
What are mycophages? Who first reported it?
Answer:
Viruses infecting fungi are called mycophages or mycoviruses. Mycophages were first reported by Hollings in 1962.

Question 29.
Expand the following acronyms: (a) SARS and (b) AIDS.
Answer:
Acronyms:
(a) SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
(b) AIDS: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 30.
Name the two groups of aninmals according to Aristotle.
Answer:
Two Groups of Aninmals:

1. Enaima – animals with red blood.
2. Anaima – animals without red blood.

Question 31.
Which are the major setbacks of Linnaeus classification?
Answer:
Linnaeus classification faced major setback because prokaryotes and eukaryotes were grouped together. Similarly fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

Question 32.
Name the viruses which are employed as potential insecticides?
Answer:
Cytoplasmic polyhedrosis Granulo viruses and Entomopox virus were employed as potential insecticides.

Question 33.
Who proposed five kingdom classification? Mention the five kingdoms.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker proposed the five kingdom classification. It includes Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

Question 34.
List out the criteria undertaken for Whittaker’s classification.
Answer:
The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

Question 35.
Point out the demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
(a) The kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
(b) Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 36.
Who proposed six kingdom classification? Mention the kingdoms.
Answer:
Thomas Cavalier – Smith proposed six kingdom classification.
The kingdom includes:

1. Archaebacteria
2. Eubacteria
3. Protista
4. Fungi
5. Plantae and
6. Animalia.

Question 37.
How milk is changed into curd, if a few drops of curd is added to it? What is the reason for its sourness?
Answer:
The change is brought by Lactobacillus lactis, a bacterium present in the curd. The sourness is due to the formation of lactic acid.

Question 38.
Define bacteria and bacteriology.
Answer:
Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiquitous, microscopic organisms. The study of bacteria is called bacteriology.

Question 39.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 40.
List out the cytoplasmic inclusions of bacterial cell.
Answer:
Glycogen, poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles.

Question 41.
Define Genophore.
Answer:
The bacterial chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule, tightly coiled and is not enclosed in a membrane as in Eukaryotes. This genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore.

Question 42.
Write the chemical composition of bacterial cell wall.
Answer:
The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N – acetyl glucosamine, N – acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids).

Question 43.
What are polysomes?
Answer:
During protein synthesis, the ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form the polysomes.

Question 44.
What are Pili?
Answer:
Pili or fimbriae are hair like appendages found on surface of cell wall of gram – negative bacteria.

Question 45.
What are capnophilic bacteria? Give an example.
Answer:
Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria.
Example: Campylobacter.

Question 46.
Distinguish between Photolithotrophs and Photoorganotrophs.
Answer:
Between Photolithotrophs and Photoorganotrophs:

1. Photolithotrophs: In photolithotrophs, the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance. E.g. Chlorobium
2. Photoorganotrophs: In Photoorganotrophs, the hydrogen donor is an organic acid or alcohol. E.g. Rhodospirillum

Question 47.
Name the hydrogen donor of green sulphur bacteria and purple sulphur bacteria.
Answer:
Hydrogen donor of green sulphur bacteria is H₂S. Hydrogen donor of purple sulphur bacteria is thiosulphate.

Question 48.
Name the bacterial pigment of green sulphur bacteria and purple sulphur bacteria.
Answer:
Bacteria’s:

1. Green sulphur bacteria – Bacterioviridin
2. Purple sulphur bacteria – Bacteriochlorophyll

Question 49.
What are endospores?
Answer:
Endospores are thick walled resting spores developed by bacteria during unfavourable condition.
E.g. Clostridium tetani produces endospores.

Question 50.
Mention the various ways by which genetic recombination occurs.
Answer:
Genetic recombination in bacteria occurs by conjugation, transduction and transformation.

Question 51.
Name the eminent persons who demonstrated the conjugation process.
Answer:
J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum.

Question 52.
What is transformation? Name the bacteriologist who described it.
Answer:
The Bacteriologist Who Described it:

1. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation.
2. Fredrick Griffith demonstrated the transformation process.

Question 53.
Which organism and bacterial species was used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?
Answer:
Mice and Diplococcus pneumoniae.

Question 54.
List out the asexual modes of reproduction of bacteria.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction in bacteria includes binary fission, conidia formation and endospore formation.

Question 55.
Who discovered transduction? Define it.
Answer:
Zinder and Lederberg (1952) discovered transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called transduction.

Question 56.
Name any two bacterial species and the antibiotic produced by them.
Answer:

Bacteria	Antibiotic
1. Streptomyces griseus	1. Streptomycin
2. Bacillus polymyxa	2. Polymyxin

Question 57.
How bacteria helps in vinegar production?
Answer:
Acetobacter aceti bacteria oxidises ethanol obtained from molasses by fermentation to form vinegar.

Question 58.
Name any two ammonifying bacteria.
Answer:
Two Ammonifying Bacteria:

1. Bacillus ramosus and
2. Bacillus mycoides.

Question 59.
What do you mean by retting of fibres?
Answer:
The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Closiridium is called retting of fibres.

Question 60.
Name any two plant disease caused by the bacteria and mention the host.
Answer:

Question 61.
Name any four animal disease caused by bacteria.
Answer:
Four Animal Disease:

1. Anthrax
2. Brucellosis
3. Bovine tuberculosis and
4. black leg.

Question 62.
Name any four human disease caused by bacteria.
Answer:
Four Human Disease:

1. Cholera
2. Typhoid
3. Tuberculosis and
4. Leprosy.

Question 63.
What are Archaebacteria?
Answer:
Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity and low pH.
E.g., Thermoplasma.

Question 64.
How stromatolites are formed?
Answer:
Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with calcium carbonate.

Question 65.
What is the reason for the colour of Red Sea?
Answer:
A cyanobacteria called Trichodesmium erythraeum imparts red colour to sea.

Question 66.
Mention the cyanobacteria leading endophytic relation with Cycas roots.
Answer:
Nostoc and Anabaena.

Question 67.
Define Cyanobacteria.
Answer:
Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms. Cyanobacteria are primitive forms and are found in different habitats.

Question 68.
Blue green algae can also be called as Myxophyceae. How?
Answer:
The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of cyanobacteria group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.

Question 69.
Define mycoplasma?
Answer:
The mycoplasma are very small (0.1 – 0.5 μm), pleomorphic gram negative microorganisms.

Question 70.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma.
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 71.
Draw and label the structure of mycoplasma.
Answer:
The Structure of Mycoplasma:

Question 72.
What is the reason behind the earthy odour after raining?
Answer:
Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odour” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of geosmines (volatile organic compound).

Question 73.
When and by whom the penicillin was discovered?
Answer:
Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in 1928.

Question 74.
Define Fungi.
Answer:
Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

Question 75.
Define mycology. Who is the founder of mycology?
Answer:
Study of fungi is called mycology. P.A. Micheli is considered as the founder of mycology.

Question 76.
Name few eminent Mycologists.
Answer:
John Webster, G.C. Ainsworth, T.S. Sadasivan and C.V. Subramanian.

Question 77.
With example define coenocytic mycelium.
Answer:
In lower fungi the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (Example: Albugo).

Question 78.
What is plectenchyma? Mention its types.
Answer:
The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types: prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma.

Question 79.
Distinguish between Anamorph and Telomorph.
Answer:
Between Anamorph and Telomorph:

Anamorph	Telomorph
The asexual phase of fungi is called anamorph.	The sexual phase of fungi is called telomorph.

Question 80.
What is holomorph?
Answer:
Fungi showing both sexual and asexual phases are called holomorph.

Question 81.
What is planogametic copulation? Mention its types.
Answer:
Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation.
Types:

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy and
3. Oogamy.

Question 82.
List out the asexual spores produced by fungus.
Answer:
Zoospores, conidia, oidia and chlamydospores.

Question 83.
What are coprophilous fungi? Give an example.
Answer:
Fungi growing on dung are called coprophilous fungi.
Example: Pilobolus.

Question 84.
Ascomycetes are called sac fungi. Give reason.
Answer:
In ascomycetes the ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”.

Question 85.
Name the four types of ascocarps produced by ascomycetes.
Answer:
Four Types Of Ascocarps Produced By Ascomycetes:

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium and
4. Pseudothecium.

Question 86.
Basidiomycetes are called club fungi. Give reason.
Answer:
In basidiomycetes the basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

Question 87.
Name the special structures in deuteromycetes that produces conidia.
Answer:
Pycnidium, acervulus, sporodochium and synnemata.

Question 88.
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi – Justify.
Answer:
The fungi belonging to deuteromycetes lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

Question 89.
List out the antibiotics produced by fungi.
Answer:
Penicillin, cephalosporins and griseofiilvin.

Question 90.
Name some toxins produced by Fungus.
Answer:
Alfatoxin, Patulin and Ochratoxin – A.

Question 91.
Name 2 fungal species employed as Biopesticides.
Answer:
Two Fungal Species Employed As Biopesticides:

1. Beauveria bassiana and
2. Metarhizium anisopliae.

Question 92.
Name few fungal diseases in plants.
Answer:
Blast of paddy, rust of wheat, red rot of sugarcane and white rust of crucifers.

Question 93.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:
Fungal Diseases in Humans:

S. No.	Human Diseases	Causative Fungi
1.	Athlete’s foot	Epidermophyton floccosum
2.	Candidiasis	Candida albicans
3.	Coccidioidomycosis	Coccidioides immitis
4.	Aspergillosis	Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 94.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 95.
What are 3 types of mycorrhiza?

Answer:
3 types of mycorrhiza:

1. Ectomycorrhiza
2. Endomycorrhiza and
3. Ectendomycorrhiza

Question 96.
Define lichen.
Answer:
Lichen is a symbiotic association between algae and fungi.

Question 97.
What is a phycobiont and mycobiont?
Answer:
Fungal partner of lichen is called as mycobiont. Algal partner of lichen is called as phycobiont.

Question 98.
How symbiosis workout in lichen?
Answer:
In lichens, algae provide nutrition for fungal partner in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae.

Question 99.
Classify lichens based on morphology.
Answer:
Morphology:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust-like
3. Foliose – Leaf-like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub-like

Question 100.
What is homoiomerous and heteromerous?
Answer:
In homoiomerous (algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).

Question 101.
Define ascolichen and basidiolichen.
Answer:
If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes it is called basidiolichen.

Question 102.
Lichens are pollution indicators. How?
Answer:
Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.

Question 103.
Classify lichens based on habitat.
Answer:

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Distinguish between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:
Between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:

Question 2.
List out various types of asexual reproduction in living organisms.
Answer:
Reproduction in Living Organisms:

Question 3.
Define Homeostasis. Why it is essential?
Answer:
Property of self – regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

Question 4.
Viruses are considered as biological puzzle – Justify.
Answer:
Viruses are considered as biological puzzle since they exhibit both living and non – living characters.

Question 5.
State the 3 types of viral symmetry.
Answer:
3 Types Of Viral Symmetry:

1. Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus and Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus and TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage and Vaccinia virus.

Question 6.
List out the non – living characters of viruses.
Answer:
The non – living characters of viruses:

• Can be crystallized.
• Absence of metabolism.
• Inactive outside the host.
• Do not show functional autonomy.
• Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

Question 7.
Name any one RNA animal virus and DNA plant virus.
Answer:
RNA animal virus and DNA plant virus:L

1. RNA animal virus is HIV.
2. DNA plant virus is Cauliflower mosaic virus.

Question 8.
What are the prominent symptoms of TMV affected tobacco plants?
Answer:
The first visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaf colour along the veins and show typical yellow and green mottling which is the mosaic symptom. The downward curling and distortion of young apical leaves occurs, plant becomes stunted and yield is affected.

Question 9.
What are bacteriophages? Where can we find it?
Answer:
Viruses infecting bacteria are called bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’. Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables and milk.

Question 10.
Sequencely mention the types of lytic cycle.
Answer:
Types of Lytic Cycle:

1. Adsorption
2. penetration
3. synthesis
4. assembly
5. maturation and
6. release.

Question 11.
Why classification of organisms is important?
Answer:
Classification is essential to achieve following needs:

1. To relate things based on common characteristic features.
2. To define organisms based on the salient features.
3. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms.
4. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

Question 12.
List out the merits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
Five kingdom Classification:

1. The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
2. It is based on the mode of nutrition.
3. Separation of fungi from plants.
4. It shows the phylogeny of the organisms.

Question 13.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax. Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 14.
Draw Amphitrichous, Lophotrichous and Peritrichous flagellation in bacteria.
Answer:
Amphitrichous, Lophotrichous and Peritrichous flagellation in bacteria:

Question 15.
What are the three layers of bacterial cell?
Answer:
The bacterial cell reveals three layers:

1. capsule / glycocalyx
2. cell wall and
3. cytoplasm.

Question 16.
What is a capsule? Mention its role.
Answer:
Some bacteria are surrounded by a gelatinous substance which is composed of polysaccharides or polypeptide or both. A thick layer of glycocalyx bound tightly to the cell wall is called capsule. It protects cell from desiccation and antibiotics. The sticky nature helps them to attach to substrates like plant root surfaces, Human teeth and tissues. It helps to retain the nutrients in bacterial cell.

Question 17.
What are plasmids? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome.

Question 18.
Classfiy plasmids based on function.
Answer:
Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumor inducing) plasmids.

Question 19.
Give a brief note on Mesosomes.
Answer:
Mesosomes are localized infoldings of plasma membrane produced into the cell in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae. They are clumped and folded together to maximize their surface area and helps in respiration and in binary fission.

Question 20.
How Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria react on Gram staining process?
Answer:
The Gram positive bacteria retain crystal violet and appear dark violet, whereas Gram negative type loose the crystal violet and when counterstained by safranin appear red under a microscope.

Question 21.
Name the three components of gram negative cell wall.
Answer:
Three Components Of Gram Negative Cell Wall:

1. Lipoprotein
2. outermembrane and
3. lipopolysaccharide.

Question 22.
What are Magnetosomes?
Answer:
Intracellular chains of 40 – 50 magnetite (Fe₃O₄) particles are found in bacterium Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum and it helps the bacterium to locate nutrient rich sediments.

Question 23.
Write a note on binary fission.
Answer:
Under favourable conditions the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of two cells.

Question 24.
How do archaebacteria thrive at extreme temperatures and against lytic agents?
Answer:
The unique feature of archaebacteria is the presence of lipids like glycerol and isopropyl ethers in their cell membrane. Due to the unique chemical composition the cell membrane show resistance against cell wall antibiotics and lytic agents.
E.g. Methanobacterium.

Question 25.
Name few members of cyanobacteria which act as phycobiont in lichen thalli.
Answer:
Gloeocapsa, Nostoc and Scytonema.

Question 26.
Describe in brief about Actinomycetes.
Answer:
Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia like growth. They are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are Gram positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contain high guanine and cytosine content (E.g., Streptomyces).

Question 27.
Mention few antibiotics produced by Streptomyces group of fungi.
Answer:
Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline.

Question 28.
Explain in brief about the plant body of fungi?
Answer:
Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N – acetyl glucosamine).

Question 29.
Point out the steps involved in sexual reproduction of fungi.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps:

1. Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy)
2. Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy) and
3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

Question 30.
Differentiate between Anisogamy and Oogamy with an example of fungus.
Answer:
Between Anisogamy and Oogamy with an example of fungus:

Anisogamy	Oogamy
Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes. E.g. Allomyces	Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. E.g. Monoblepharis

Question 31.
Define Spermatization.
Answer:
In spermatization method a uninucleate pycniospore / microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: PuccinialNeurospora).

Question 32.
Draw a simple diagram showing the budding of yeast.
Answer:
Diagram showing the budding of yeast:

Question 33.
Write a simple note on Oomycetes.
Answer:
Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of glucan and cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous.
Example: Albugo.

Question 34.
Give a brief account on fungal food.
Answer:
Mushrooms like Lentinus edodes. Agaricus bisporus and Volvariella volvaceae are consumed for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of vitamin B₁₂

Question 35.
List out the importance of mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The Importance Of Mycorrhiza:

1. Helps to derive nutrition in Monotropa, a saprophytic angiosperm.
2. Improves the availability of minerals and water to the plants.
3. Provides drought resistance to the plants.
4. Protects roots of higher plants from the attack of plant pathogens.

Question 36.
How symbiotic relationship is executed in mycorrhiza?
Answer:
In mycorrihiza, relationship fungi absorbs nutrition from the root and in turn the hyphal network of mycorrhiza forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Define metabolism. List out the differences between the types of metabolism.
Answer:
Metabolism: The sum total of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism. It is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism. The difference between anabolism and catabolism is given in table.

Question 2.
Draw a flow chart representing the various levels of organisation and integration in living organisms.
Answer:
A flow chart representing the various levels of organisation and integration in living organisms:

Question 3.
Enumerate the living and non – living characters of viruses.
Answer:
Living characters:

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein.
2. Capable of mutation.
3. Ability to multiply within living cells.
4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings.
5. Show irritability.
6. Host – specific.

Non – living characters:

1. Can be crystallized.
2. Absence of metabolism.
3. Inactive outside the host.
4. Do not show functional autonomy,
5. Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

Question 4.
Draw and describe the structure of tobacco mosaic virus.
Answer:

Electron microscopic studies have revealed that TMV is a rod shaped helical virus measuring about 280 × 150 pm with a molecular weight of 39 × 10⁶ Daltons. The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid. The protein coat is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres which are present around a central single stranded RNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its RNA. The RNA consists of 6,500 nucleotides.

Question 5.
Write a note on David Baltimore’s classification of viruses.
Answer:
David Baltimore (1971) classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded -ss or double stranded – ds ), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (-) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

Question 6.
Give an account of viral genome.
Answer:
Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumour virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments. The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’.

Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded. On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four categories. They are viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (wound tumour virus).

Question 7.
Explain the structure of T₄ bacteriophage with a labelled diagram.
Answer:

The T₄ phage is tadpole shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate and fibres (figure). The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core which is connected to the head by a collar. There is a base plate attached to the end of tail The base plate contains six spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 50 μm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times longer than the phage itself.

Question 8.
Describe in detail about the lytic cycle of phages with diagram.
Answer:
Lytic cycle: During lytic cycle of phage, dis integration of host bacterial cell occurs and the progeny virions are released.

The steps involved in the lytic cycle are as follows:
(i) Adsorption: Phage (T₄) particles interact with cell wall of host (E. coli). The phage tail makes contact between the two, and tail fibres recognize the specific receptor sites present on bacterial cell surface. The lipopolysaccharides of tail fibres act as receptor in phages. The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called landing. Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phage and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

(ii) Penetration: The penetration process involves mechanical and enzymatic digestion of the cell wall of the host. At the recognition site phage digests certain cell wall structure by viral enzyme (Jysozyrne). After pinning the tail sheath contracts (using ATP) and appears shorter and thicker. After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which DNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of DNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘ghost’.

(iii) Synthesis: This step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of phage DNA also takes place.

(iv) Assembly and Maturation: The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as maturation. After 20 minutes of infection about 300 new phages are assembled

(v) Release: The phage particle gets accumulated inside the host cell and are released by the lysis of the host cell wall

.

Question 9.
Explain the lysogenic multiplication of phages.
Answer:
In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host DNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. No independent viral particle is formed.

As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage. The activity of the prophage gene is repressed by two repressor proteins which are synthesized by phage genes. This checks the synthesis of new phages within the host cell. However, each time the bacterial cell divides, the prophage multiplies along with the bacterial chromosome. On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.

Question 10.
Draw a tabular column and compare the characters of five kingdoms.
Answer:

Question 11.
List out the general characters of bacteria.
Answer:
The General Characters of Bacteria:

1. They are prokaryotic organisms and lack nuclear membrane and membrane bound organelles.
2. The genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore or incipient nucleus.
3. The cell wall is made up of polysaccharides and proteins.
4. Most of them lack chlorophyll, hence they are heterotrophic (Vibrio cholerae) but some are autotrophic and possess Bacteriochlorophyll (Chromatium).
5. They reproduce vegetatively by binary fission and endospore formation.
6. They exhibit variations which are due to genetic recombination and is achieved through conjugation, transformation and transduction.

Question 12.
Draw and label the ultra structure of a bacterium.
Answer:
The ultra structure of a bacterium:

Question 13.
Write in detail about Plasmids.
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double stranded, circular, self – replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help 1 in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome.

The size of a plasmid varies from 1 to 500 kb usually plasmids contribute to about 0.5 to 5% of the total DNA of bacteria. The number of plasmids per cell varies. Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumour inducing) plasmids.

Question 14.
Describe the structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacterial cell wall using diagram.
Answer:
Most of the gram positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules. The gram negative cell wall contains three components that lie outside the peptidoglycan layer:

1. Lipoprotein
2. Outer membrane and
3. Lipopolysaccharide.

Thus the different results in the gram stain are due to differences in the structure and composition of the cell wall.

Question 15.
Tabulate the differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
Answer:

Question 16.
Give an account on respiration types of bacteria.
Answer:
Two types of respiration is found in bacteria.
They are:

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Anaerobic respiration

1. Aerobic respiration: These bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions (i.e. in the absence of O₂) Example: Streptococcus.

(i) Obligate aerobes: Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have 1 oxygen to survive).

2. Anaerobic respiration:
These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions. Example: Clostridium.

(i) Facultative anaerobes: There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available O₂ and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease.
Example: Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

(ii) Capnophilic bacteria: Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria.
Example: Campylobacter.

Question 17.
Explain the mode of nutrition in bacteria.
Answer:
On the basis of their mode of nutrition bacteria are classified into two types namely autotrophs and heterotrophs.
I. Autotrophic bacteria:
Bacteria which can synthesis their own food are called autotrophic bacteria. They may be further subdivided as

A. Photoautotrophic bacteria – Bacteria use sunlight as their source of energy to synthesize food. They may be:

1. Photolithotrophs: In Photolithotrophs the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance.
   • Green sulphur bacteria: In this type of bacteria the hydrogen donor is H₂S and possess pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.
   • Purple sulphur bacteria: For bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present. Example: Chromatium.
2. Photoorganotrophs: They utilize organic acid or alcohol ‘as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non-sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.

B. Chemoautotrophic bacteria – They do not have photosynthetic pigment hence they cannot use sunlight energy. These type of bacteria obtain energy from organic or inorganic substance.

1. Chemolithotrophs: This type of bacteria oxidize inorganic compound to release energy.
Examples:

• Sulphur bacteria – Thiobacillus thiooxidans
• Iron bacteria – Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
• Hydrogen bacteria – Hydrogenomonas and
• Nitrifying bacteria – Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

2. Chemoorganotrophs: This type of bacteria oxidize organic compounds to release energy.
Examples:

• Methane bacteria – Methanococcus
• Acetic acid bacteria – Acetobacter and
• Lactic acid bacteria – Lactobacillus

II. Heterotrophic bacteria:
They are parasites (Clostridium and Mycobacterium), Saprophytes (Bacillus mycoides) or symbiotic (Rhizobium in root nodules of leguminous crops).

Question 18.
Describe the process of transformation.
Answer:
The process of transformation:

Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation. In 1928, the bacteriologist Fredrick Griffith demonstrated transformation in mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae. Two strains of this bacterium are present. One strain produces smooth colonies and are virulent in nature (S type), in addition another strain produced rough colonies and are avirulent (R type). When S-type of cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died. When R-type of cells were injected, the mouse survived. He injected heat killed S-type cells into the mouse the mouse did not die.

When the mixture of heat killed S-type cells and R-type cells were injected into the mouse. The mouse died. The avirulent rough strain of Diplococcus had been transformed into S-type cells. The hereditary material of heat killed S-type cells had transformed R-type cell into virulent smooth strains. Thus the phenomenon of changing the character of one strain by transferring the DNA of another strain into the former is called transformation.

Question 19.
Define conjugation and its mechanism.
Answer:
J. Lederberg and Edward L Tatum demonstrated conjugation in E. coil in the year 1946. In this method of gene transfer the donor cell gets attached to the recipient cell with the help of pili.

The pilus grows in size and forms the conjugation tube. The plasmid of donor cell which has the F+ (fertility factor) undergoes replication. Only one strand of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of double stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.

Question 20.
Write in detail about transduction and its types.
Answer:
Zinder and Lederhcrg (1952) discovered transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called transduction.

Transduction is of two types:

1. Generalized transduction and
2. Specialized or restricted transduction.

1. Generalized transduction: The ability of a bacteriophage to carryr genetic material of any region of bacterial DNA is called generalised transduction.

2. Specialized or restricted transduction: The ability of the bacteriophage to carry only a specific region of the bacterial DNA is called specialized or restricted transduction.

Question 21.
List out the uses of bacteria in industries.
Answer:
The uses of bacteria in industries:

Question 22.
Explain the role of bacteria in antibiotic production and medicines.
Answer:
The role of bacteria in antibiotic production and medicines:

Question 23.
Explain the role of bacteria in soil fertility.
Answer:
The role of bacteria in soil fertility:

Question 24.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria.
Answer:
The Salient Features Of Cyanobacteria:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatoria).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c-phyocyanin and c-phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos-aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

Question 25.
Explain the various types of asexual reproduction in fungi.
Answer:
The Various Types Of Asexual Reproduction In Fungi:

1. Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids)
2. Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus)
3. Oidia / Thallospores / Arthrospores: The hypha divide and develop into spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe).
4. Fission: The vegetative cell divide into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces – yeast).
5. Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and become independent. (Example: Saccharomyces-yeast).
6. Chlamydospore: Thick walled resting spores are called chlamydospores. (Example: Fusarium).

Question 26.
Explain the various types of sexual reproduction in fungi.
Answer:
The Various Types Of Sexual Reproduction In Fungi:

1. Planogametic copulation: Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation.
   • Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically and physiologically similar gametes. (Example: Synchytrium).
   • Anisogamy – Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes (Example: Allomyces).
   • Oogamy – Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. (Example: Monoblepharis).
2. Gametangial contact: During sexual reproduction a contact is established between antheridium and oogonium (Example: Albugo).
3. Gametangial copulation: Fusion of gametangia to form zygospore. (Example: Mucor and Rhizopus).
4. Spermatization: Auninucleate pycniospore/microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: Puccinia / Neurospora)
5. Somatogamy: Fusion of two somatic cells of the hyphae (Example: Agaricus).

Question 27.
List out the salient features of zygomycetes.
Answer:
The salient features of zygomycetes:

1. Most of the species are saprophytic and live on decaying plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on housefly)
2. Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor and Rhizopus) and Coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on dung Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group.
3. The mycelium is branched and coenocytic.
4. Asexual reproduction by means of spores produced in sporangia.
5. Sexual reproduction is by the fusion of the gametangia which results in thick walled zygospore. It remains dormant for long periods. The zygospore undergoes meiosis and produce spores.

Question 28.
List out the salient features of ascomycetes.
Answer:
Features of Ascomycetes:

1. Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on.
2. Although majority of the species live in terrestrial environment, some live in aquatic environments both fresh water and marine.
3. The mycelium is well developed, branched with simple septum.
4. Majority of them are saprophytes but few parasites are also known. (Powdery mildew – Erysiphe).
5. Asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia and chlamydospore.
6. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nuclei.
7. Plasmogamy is not immediately followed by karyogamy, instead a dikaryotic condition is prolonged for several generations.
8. A special hyphae called ascogenous hyphae is formed.
9. A crozier is formed when the tip of the ascogenous hyphae recurves forming a hooked cell. The two nuclei in the penultimate cell of the hypha fuse to form a diploid nucleus. This cell form young ascus.
10. The diploid nucleus undergo meiotic division to produce four haploid nuclei, which further divide mitotically to form eight nuclei. The nucleus gets organised into 8 ascospores.
11. The ascospores are found inside a bag-like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”.
12. Asci gets surrounded by sterile hyphae forming fruit body called ascocarp.
13. There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped and open type) and Pseudothecium.

Question 29.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes.
Answer:
Features of Basidiomycetes:

1. Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
2. The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
3. The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
4. Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
5. Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
6. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
7. The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

Question 30.
Compare the characters of different types of Mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The characters of different types of Mycorrhiza:

Question 31.
List out the beneficial aspects of lichens.
Answer:
The Beneficial Aspects of Lichens:

1. Lichens secrete organic acids like oxalic acids which corrodes the rock surface and helps in weathering of rocks, thus acting as pioneers in Xerosere.
2. Usnic acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties.
3. Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.
4. The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from Roccella montagnei.
5. Cladonia rangiferina (Reindeer moss) is used as food for animals living in Tundra regions.

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Viruses and viroids are infectious particles. How do you differentiate one from other?
Answer:
Viruses and viroids are infectious particles:

S.No.	Viruses	Viroids
1.	Viruses may have DNA or RNA as genetic material.	Viroids has ssRNA as genetic material
2.	Capsid is present	Capsid is absent

Question 2.
In R.H. Whittaker’s classification, how many kingdoms come under prokaryotes and how many kingdoms come under eukaryotes.
Answer:
Monera is the only prokaryotic kingdom in Whittaker’s classification, whereas protista, fungi, plantae and animalia comes under eukaryotes.

Question 3.
Arrange the following in a proper sequence with respect to fungal sexual cycle. Karyogamy, protoplasmic fusion, meiosis and spores production.
Answer:
Protoplasmic fusion → Karyogamy → Meiosis → Spores production.

Question 4.
List out major attributes and features that a cell must possess to call it as a living one.
Answer:
Growth, reproduction, metabolism, nutrition, movement and irritability, etc.

Question 5.
In five kingdom classification, actinomycetes and mycoplasma belongs to same kingdom.
(a) Name the kingdom.
(b) Which level of body organization does they exhibit.
Answer:
Actinomycetes and Mycoplasma belongs to kingdom Monera. Moneras are unicellular organisms.

Question 6.
Viruses are useful to us – Justify. Majority of viruses are harmful, causing wide range of diseases among organisms. But certain viruses of Baculoviridae group are commercially used as insecticides.
Answer:
E.g. Cytoplasmic polyhedrosis granulo viruses and Entomopox viruses.

Question 7.
Write the appropriate term for each of the following:
(a) Complex sugar that makes fungal cell wall.
(b) Blue green algae
Answer:
(a) Chitin
(b) Cyanobacteria.

Question 8.
Why fungi is not placed under kingdom plantae, though it has cell wall?
Answer:
Though fungi has cell wall, it differs from plants in their mode of nourishment. Fungi shows heterotropic mode of nutrition, whereas plants are autotrophs.

Question 9.
Which organisms is more complex and highly evolved among blue green algae, mushroom and maize? Give reason.
Answer:
Maize plant is more complex and highly evolved as it is a eukaryotic and autotrophic organism, showing tissue grade organisation. The blue green algae is a unicellular prokaryote and mushroom is a fungus, which is heterotrophic with no tissue grade of organisation.

Question 10.
Why viruses are not included in the category of microorganisms?
Answer:
Viruses possess characters of both living and non – living and also they does not have well defined body organisation. Hence they are not included in the category of microorganism.

Question 11.
Generally nucleic acid in viruses is present as single unit. Name any two viruses that possess segmented nucleic acid.
Answer:

1. Wound tumour virus
2. Influenza virus

Question 12.
Name any two recent viral diseases that threaten human life.
Answer:

1. Ebola
2. Nipah

Question 13.
When does a prophage enter lytic cycle?
Answer:
On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals, the prophage enters the lytic cycle.

Question 14.
Capsule layer helps the bacterium. How?
Answer:
Capsule in bacteria protects the cell from desiccation and antibiotics.

Question 15.
Imagine yourself as Carl Woese and explain your colleagues about your classification.
Answer:
I (Carl Woese) classified the living organisms into three domains based on the differences in rRNA nucleotide sequence and lipid structure of the cell membrane. The three domains are Bacteria, Archae and Eukarya.

Question 16.
Name the strains used in Gram staining procedure.
Answer:
Crystal violet and safranin.