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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 3 Scoping

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Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 3 Scoping Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 3 Scoping

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Scoping Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following refers to the visibility of variables in one part of a program to another part of the same program?
(a) Scope
(b) Memory
(c) Address
(d) Accessibility
Answer:
(a) Scope

Question 2.
The process of binding a variable name with an object is called ………………………….
(a) Scope
(b) Mapping
(c) Late binding
(d) Early binding
Answer:
(b) Mapping

Question 3.
Which of the following is used in programming languages to map the variable and object?
(a) ::
(b) : =
(c) =
(d) = =
Answer:
(c) =

Question 4.
Containers for mapping names of variables to objects is called ………………………….
(a) Scope
(b) Mapping
(c) Binding
(d) Namespaces
Answer:
(d) Namespaces

Question 5.
Which scope refers to variables defined in current function?
(a) Local Scope
(b) Global scope
(c) Module scope
(d) Function Scope
Answer:
(a) Local Scope

Question 6.
The process of subdividing a computer program into separate sub – programs is called ………………………….
(a) Procedural Programming
(b) Modular programming
(c) Event Driven Programming
(d) Object oriented Programming
Answer:
(b) Modular programming

Question 7.
Which of the following security technique that regulates who canuse resources in a computing environment?
(a) Password
(b) Authentication
(c) Access control
(d) Certification
Answer:
(c) Access control

Question 8.
Which of the following members of a class can be handled only from within the class?
(a) Public members
(b) Protected members
(c) Secured members
(d) Private members
Answer:
(d) Private members

Question 9.
Which members are accessible from outside the class?
(a) Public members
(b) Protected members
(c) Secured members
(d) Private members
Answer:
(a) Public members

Question 10.
The members that are accessible from within the class and are also available to its subclasses is called ………………………….
(a) Public members
(b) Protected members
(c) Secured members
(d) Private members
Answer:
(b) Protected members

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a scope?
Answer:
Scope refers to the visibility of variables, parameters and functions in one part of a program to another part of the same program.

Question 2.
Why scope should be used for variable. State the reason?
Answer:
Essentially, variables are addresses (references, or pointers), to an object in memory. When you assign a variable with := to an instance (object), you’re binding (or mapping) the variable to that instance. Multiple variables can be mapped to the same instance.

Question 3.
What is Mapping?
Answer:
The process of binding a variable name with an object is called mapping. = (equal to sign) is used in programming languages to map the variable and object.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Namespaces?
Answer:
Programming languages keeps track of all these mappings with namespaces. Namespaces are containers for mapping names of variables to objects.

Question 5.
How Python represents the private and protected Access specifiers?
Answer:
Private members of a class are denied access from the outside of the class. They can be handled only within the class.
Protected members of a class are accessible from within the class and are also available to its sub-classes. No other process is permitted access to it.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define Local scope with an example?
Answer:
Local Scope:
Local scope refers to variables defined in current function. Always, a function will first look up for a variable name in its local scope. Only if it does not find it there, the outer scopes are checked.
Look at this example

On execution of the above code the variable a displays the value 7, because it is defined and available in the local scope.

Question 2.
Define Global scope with an example?
Answer:
Global Scope:
A variable which is declared outside of all the functions in a program is known as global variable. This means, global variable can be accessed inside or outside of all the functions in a program. Consider the following example

On execution of the above code the variable a which is defined inside the function displays the value 7 for the function call Disp( ) and then it displays 10, because a is defined in global scope.

Question 3.
Define Enclosed scope with an example?
Answer:
Enclosed Scope:
All programming languages permit functions to be nested. A function (method) with in another function is called nested function. A variable which is declared inside a function which contains another function definition with in it, the inner function can also access the variable of the outer function. This scope is called enclosed scope. When a compiler or interpreter search for a variable in a program, it fist search Local, and then search Enclosing scopes. Consider the following example

Question 4.
Why access control is required?
Answer:
Access control is a security technique that regulates who or what can view or use resources in a computing environment.
It is a fundamental concept in security that minimizes risk to the object. In other words access control is a selective restriction of access to data.
In Object oriented programming languages it is implemented through access modifies.
Classical object – oriented languages, such as C++ and Java, control the access to class members by public, private and protected keywords.

Question 5.
Identify the scope of the variables in the following pseudo code and write its output?
Answer:

Output:
Red, blue, green
Red blue
Red

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain the types of scopes for variable or LEGB rule with example?
Answer:
LEGB rule
Scope also defines the order in which variables have to be mapped to the object in order to obtain the value. Let us take a simple example as shown below:

x: = ‘outer x variable’
display ( ):
x: = ‘inner x variable’
print x
display ( )

When the above statements are executed the statement (4) and (5) display the result as
Output
outer x variable
inner x variable
Above statements give different outputs because the same variable name x resides in different scopes, one inside the function display( ) and the other in the upper level. The value ‘outer x variable’ is printed when x is referenced outside the function definition. Whereas when display( ) gets executed, ‘inner x variable’ is printed which is the x value inside the function definition. From the above example, we can guess that there is a rule followed, in order to decide from which scope a variable has to be picked. The LEGB rule is used to decide the order in which the scopes are to be searched for scope resolution. The scopes are listed below in terms of hierarchy (highest to lowest).

Types of Variable Scope:
There are 4 types of Variable Scope, let’s discuss them one by one:

Local Scope:
Local scope refers to variables defined in current function. Always, a function will first look up for a variable name in its local scope. Only if it does not find it there, the outer scopes are checked. Look at this example

On execution of the above code the variable a displays the value 7, because it is defined and available in the local scope.

Global Scope:
A variable which is declared outside of all the functions in a program is known as global variable. This means, global variable can be accessed inside or outside of all the functions in a program. Consider the following example

On execution of the above code the variable a which is defined inside the function displays the value 7 for the function call Disp( ) and then it displays 10, because a is defined in global scope.

Enclosed Scope:
All programming languages permit functions to be nested. A function (method) with in another function is called nested function. A variable which is declared inside a function which contains another function definition with in it, the inner function can also access the variable of the outer function. This scope is called enclosed scope. When a compiler or interpreter search for a variable in a program, it first search Local, and then search Enclosing scopes. Consider the following example

In the above example Disp1 ( ) is defined with in Disp ( ). The variable ‘a’ defined in Disp ( ) can be even used by Disp 1 ( ) because it is also a member of Disp

Built – in Scope:
Finally, we discuss about the widest scope. The built-in scope has all the names that are pre-loaded into the program scope when we start the compiler or interpreter. Any variable or module which is defined in the library functions of a programming language has Built-in or module scope. They are loaded as soon as the library files are imported to the program.

Normally only Functions or modules come along with the software, as packages. Therefore they will come under Built in scope.

Question 2.
Write any Five Characteristics of Modules?
Answer:
Characteristics of Modules:
The following are the desirable characteristics of a module.

Modules contain instructions, processing logic, and data.
Modules can be separately compiled and stored in a library.
Modules can be included in a program.
Module segments can be used by invoking a name and some parameters.
Module segments can be used by other modules.

Question 3.
Write any five benefits in using modular programming?
Answer:
The benefits of using modular programming include:

Less code to be written.
A single procedure can be developed for reuse, eliminating the need to retype the code many times.
Programs can be designed more easily because a small team deals with only a small part of the entire code.
Modular programming allows many programmers to collaborate on the same application.
The code is stored across multiple files.
Code is short, simple and easy to understand.
Errors can easily be identified, as they are localized to a subroutine or function.
The same code can be used in many applications.
The scoping of variables can easily be controlled.

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Observe the following diagram and Write the pseudo code for the following?
Answer:

sum ( ):
num 1: = 20
sum 1 ( )
num1: = num1 + 10 sum2 ( )
num1: = num1 + 10
sum2 ( ) sum1 ( ) num1: = 10
sum ( )
Print num 1

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Scoping Additional Questions and Answers

PART -1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Names paces are compared with ……………………….
(a) Programs
(b) Dictionaries
(c) Books
(d) Notebooks
Answer:
(b) Dictionaries

Question 2.
Write the output (value stored in b)
1. a: = 5
2. b: = a
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 3.
Find the value of a.
1. a: = 5
2. b: = a
3. a: = 3
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 4.
The ………………………. of a variable is that part of the code where it is visible.
Answer:
Scope

Question 5.
The duration for which a variable is alive is called its ……………………………
(a) Scale
(b) Life time
(c) Static
(d) Function
Answer:
(b) Life time

Question 6.
…………………………… also defines the order in which variables have to be mapped to the object in order to obtain the value.
(a) Scope
(b) Local
(c) Event
(d) Object
Answer:
(a) Scope

Question 7.
The …………………………… rule is used to decide the order in which the scopes are to be searched for scope resolution.
Answer:
LEGB

Question 8.
How many types of variable scopes are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 9.
A function will first look up for a variable name in its …………………………… scope.
(a) Local
(b) Enclosed
(c) Global
(d) Built in
Answer:
(a) Local

Question 10.
A variable which is declared outside of all the functions in a program is known as …………………………… variable.
(a) L
(b) E
(c) G
(d) B
Answer:
(c) G

Question 11.
A …………………………… variable can be accessed inside or outside of all the functions in a program.
(a) Local
(b) Global
(c) Enclosed
(d) Built – in
Answer:
(b) Global

Question 12.
A function defined within another function is called …………………………… function
(a) Member
(b) Looping
(c) Nested
(d) Invariant
Answer:
(c) Nested

Question 13.
Functions are otherwise called as …………………………..
(a) Methods
(b) Attributes
(c) Class
(d) Structures
Answer:
(a) Methods

Question 14.
The scope of nested function is …………………………… scope
(a) Local
(b) Global
(c) Enclosed
(d) Built – in
Answer:
(c) Enclosed

Question 15.
When a compiler or interpreter search for a variable in a program, it first search and then search …………………………… scope
(a) L, E
(b) EG
(c) GB
(d) BL
Answer:
(a) L, E

Question 16.
Built – in scopes are called as …………………………… scope.
Answer:
Module

Question 17.
Any variable or module defined in the library functions has …………………………… scope.
Answer:
Built – in

Question 18.
Variables of built – in scopes are loaded as …………………………… files.
(a) Exe
(b) Linker
(c) Object
(d) Library
Answer:
(d) Library

Question 19.
Identify which is not a variable scope.
(a) Module
(b) Built – in
(c) Enclosed
(d) Pointer
Answer:
(d) Pointer

Question 20.
A single …………………………… can contain one or several statements closely related to each other.
Answer:
Module

Question 21.
A …………………………… is a part of a program.
(a) Code
(b) Module
(c) Flowchart
(d) System software
Answer:
(b) Module

Question 22.
Identify which is not a module?
(a) Algorithm
(b) Procedures
(c) Subroutines
(d) Functions
Answer:
(a) Algorithm

Question 23.
Find the wrong statement from the following
(a) Modules contains data and instructions
(b) Modules can be included in a program
(c) Modules cannot have processing logic
(d) Modules can be separately combined
Answer:
(c) Modules cannot have processing logic

Question 24.
Which is true about modular programming?
(a) Single procedure can be reused
(b) Single procedure cannot be reused
Answer:
(a) Single procedure can be reused

Question 25.
The arrangement of private instance variables and public methods ensures the principle of ……………………………
(a) Security
(b) Data encapsulation
(c) Inheritance
(d) Class
Answer:
(b) Data encapsulation

Question 26.
All members in a python class are by …………………………… default.
(a) Private
(b) Public
(c) Protected
(d) Local
Answer:
(b) Public

Question 27.
The members in C ++ and Java, by default are ……………………………
(a) Private
(b) Public
(c) Protected
(d) Local
Answer:
(a) Private

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define life time?
Answer:
The duration for which a variable is alive is called its ‘life time’.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the output for the pseudo code?
Answer:

x: = ‘outer x variable’
display( ):
x: = ‘inner x variable’
print x
display Q

Output:
outer x variable
inner x variable

Question 2.
List the scope in hierarchical order from highest to lowest?
Answer:

Question 3.
Write note on modules?
Answer:
A module is a part of a program. Programs are composed of one or more independently developed modules. A single module can contain one or several statements closely related each other. Modules work perfectly on individual level and can be integrated with other modules.

Question 4.
Write note on public members?
Answer:
Public members (generally methods declared in a class) are accessible from outside the class. The object of the same class is required to invoke a public method. This arrangement of private instance variables and public methods ensures the principle of data encapsulation.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) Gujarat

Question 2.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) third

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu is rich in
(a) Forest resource
(b) human resource
(c) mineral resource
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) human resource

Question 4.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is
(a) river
(b) tank
(c) well
(d) canals
Answer:
(c) well

Question 5.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 6.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 7.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruchirappalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Paramakudi

Question 8.
TN tops in the production of the following crops except
(a) Banana
(b) Coconut
(c) plantation crops
(d) cardamom
Answer:
(d) cardamom

Question 9.
Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of
(a) Paddy
(b) sugarcane
(c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 10.
In literacy rate, TN ranks
(a) second
(b) fourth
(c) sixth
(d) eighth
Answer:
(d) eighth

Question 11.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 12.
Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Tiruchirapalli
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(b) Nilgiris

Question 13.
Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
(a) Madurai
(b) Theni
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Cuddalore
Answer:
(c) Ariyalur

Question 14.
Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadeep
(d) Andaman Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 15.
The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from
(a) agriculture
(b) industry
(c) mining
(d) services
Answer:
(d) services

Question 16.
In human development index, TN is ranked
(a) Second
(b) fourth
(c) sixth
(d) third
Answer:
(d) third

Question 17.
SPIC is located in
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 18.
The TICEL park is
(a) Rubber Park
(b) Textile park
(c) Food park
(d) Bio
Answer:
(d) Bio

Question 19.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks
(a) third
(b) fourth
(c) first
(d) second
Answer:
(a) third

Question 20.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios.
Answer:
Population Growth in Tamil Nadu: At a glance (2011 census)

1. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with highest:
The Nilgiris (1041 females) Thanjavur (1031 females) Nagapattinam (1025 females)

2. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with Lowest:
Theni (900 females) Dharmapuri (946 females)

Question 22.
Define GSDP.
Answer:
The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.

Question 23.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Rice: Tamil Nadu is India’s second-biggest producer of rice.
Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in the production of Banana and coconut.
Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in the production of cashew nut.
Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in the production of pepper.
Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in the production of Sugarcane.

Question 24.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Major ports at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin Intermediate port in Nagapattinam.

Question 25.
What is heritage tourism?
Answer:

Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism.
In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
The State currently ranks the highest among the Indian States with about 25 crore arrivals (in 2013). Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the State.

Question 26.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear power plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear power plant.

Question 27.
Define Micro industry.
Answer:

Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs that produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery, and garments sector.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
Write a note on mineral resources in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu:

Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led the development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in the Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and carbonization plants.
Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron ore at Kanjamalai.
Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Question 29.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal terms and the GDP of UAE on PPP terms. Per capita, GSDP would be better for intercountry or interstate comparisons.
Tamil Nadu GSDP = $207.8 billion in 2016 – 17.

Question 30.
Describe development of textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Development of textile industry in Tamil Nadu:

Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country.
Tamil Nadu accounts for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
It produce direct employment to 35 million people.
It contributes 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India.
Answer:

Asia result of Government’s efforts Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops, among the states in India.
Among Indian states Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, Kambu, Groundnut, Oil seeds and Cotton.
Second in rice and coconut.
Third in Sugarcane, Sunflower and Jowar.

Question 32.
Explain the prospect for the development of tourism.
Answer:

Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism. In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals in 2013.
Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the State.

Question 33.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu:

Tamil Nadu is the fore front of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai.
Wind energy contributes 2% of the total power output of India.
Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India.
There are about 20 hydro electric units in Tamil Nadu.

Question 34.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health.
Answer:
Performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health:

Tamil Nadu has a three-tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and sub-centres.
Tamil Nadu has placed third in health index as per the NITIAAYOG report.
The neo natal mortality rate is 14 which is lower than many other states.
The under 5 mortality has dropped from 21 in 2014 to 20 in 2015.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Describe the qualitative aspects of population.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore against India’s 121 crores as per 2011 census. Tamil Nadu’s population is higher than that of several countries according to UN Report. Tamil Nadu population 7.2 [crores] in 2017.

Density:

The density of population which measures population per sq.km is 555 [2011] against 480 [2001].
Tamil Nadu ranks 12^th in density among the Indian States and overall it is 382 for India.

Urbanization:

Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole.
The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against 6% share of total population.

Sex Ratio [Numbers of females per 1000 males].

A balanced sex ratio implies improvement in the quality of life of the female population.
The sex ratio in Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which is far better compared to most of the States and all India level.
Tamil Nadu stands third next only to Kerala State and Puducherry Union Territory in sex ratio.

Question 36
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern states. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian states in installed capacity.
Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, Supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

1. Nuclear energy : The Kalpakkam and the Koddankulam Nuclear Power Plants are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

2. Thermal power: In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu, Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.

3. Hydel energy : There are about 20 hydro electric units in Tamil Nadu. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson valley etc.

4. Solar energy : Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions the country for developing solar power projects.

5. Wind energy : Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
The state has very high quality of off shore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and Southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 37.
Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Transport: Tamil Nadu has a well-established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State.

Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centers, agricultural market-places, and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

There are 28 national highways in the State, covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by the Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered in Chennai.
Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli, and Tirunelveli.
Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system, and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
Chennai International Airport is currently the third-largest airport in India.
Other international airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport, and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24% share of India).
All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
Ennore Port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Additional Questions and Answers

Part-A
Choose the best options

Question 1.
Molybdenum is found in the _____ district of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Madurai

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu has _____ Population as against 121 crores of India.
(a) 7.12 crore
(b) 1.72 crore
(c) 7.21 crore
(d) 1.27 crore
Answer:
(c) 7.21 crore

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu’s per capital income is _____
(a) 1100 dollar
(b) 2200 dollar
(c) 3360 dollar
(d) 4400 dollar
Answer:
(d) 4400 dollar

Question 4.
Gross state domestic product is
(a) GSDP
(b) MMR
(c) GDP
(d) IMF
Answer:
(a) GSDP

Question 5.
The Detroit of Asia is _____
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Madurai
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Chennai

Question 6.
_____ is Tamil Nadu’s steel city
(a) Chennai
(b) Karur
(c) Salem
(d) Namakkal
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 7.
_____ is famous for the bus body building.
(a) Karur
(b) Trichy
(c) Vellore
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Karur

Question 8.
_____ is the yarn bowl of India.
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 9.
Gateway of Tamil Nadu is _____
(a) Thoothukudi
(b) Chennai
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Ranipet
Answer:
(a) Thoothukudi

Question 10.
_____ is the knitting city.
(a) Erode
(b) Karur
(c) Namakkal
(d) Tirupur
Answer:
(d) Tirupur

Question 11.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) SAIL – Salem
(b) The Pumpcity – Coimbatore
(c) BHEL – Trichy
(d) Knitting City – Karur
Answer:
(d) Knitting City – Karur

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Answer:
(a) 4 3 2 1

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) Little japan (iii) Coimbatore

Question 4.

Answer:
(d) Steel City (iv) Erode

Choose the correct statement

Question 5.
(a) Tamil Nadu is the third largest contributor to India’s GDP
(b) Tamil Nadu ranks second in coconut production.
(c) Tamil Nadu ranks first in cement production
(d) Chennai is called as Detroit of Asia.
Answer:
(d) Chennai is called as Detroit of Asia.

Question 6.
(a) The population density of T.N is 480 as per 2011 census,
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India
(d) The headquarters of southern railway is at Trichy.
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) Artificial Harbour (ii) Chennai

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) Highest sex ratio (i) The Nilgiris

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) Rajapalayam (i) Surgical cotton product

Pick the odd one out

Question 10.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Erode
(c) Madurai
(d) Trichy
Answer:
(b) Erode

Question 11.
(a) Coconut
(b) Groundnut
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(c) Rice

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 12.
(a) Chennai is referred as banking capital of India.
(b) Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize production.
(c) Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in human development Index.
(d) Tamil Nadu is the third-largest contributor to India’s GDP
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu is the third-largest contributor to India’s GDP

Question 13.
(a) Tamil Nadu has eight agro-climatic zones
(b) There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu.
(c) The tertiary sector is the major contributor to Tamil Nadu’s GSDP.
(d) Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India.

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 14.
Tamilnadu has _______ population as against 121 crore of India
(a) 7.12 crore
(b) 1.72 crore
(c) 7.21 crore
(d) 1.27 crore
Answer:
(c) 7.21 crore

Question 15.
Tamil Nadu’s per capita income is ______
(a) 1100 dollar
(b) 2200 dollar
(c) 3360 dollar
(d) 4400 dollar
Answer:
(b) 2200 dollar

Question 16.
Gross state domestic product is ______
(a) GSDP
(b) MMR
(c) GDP
(d) IMF
Answer:
(a) GSDP

Question 17.
IMR is the number of mortality before completing
(a) 1 year of age
(b) 5 years of age
(c) 3 years of age
(d) 10 years of age
Answer:
(a) 1 year of age

Question 18.
The world’s biggest bagasse based paper mill is at ______
(a) Trichy
(b) Karur
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Erode
Answer:
(b) Karur

Question 19.
Every year India international leather fair is hosted at ______
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Madurai
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 20.
______ wind farm is a renewable energy source
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Valapandal
(c) Nagercoil
(d) Muppandal
Answer:
(d) Muppandal

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
How can you calculate per capita income?
Answer:
Percapita income =

Question 2.
Define infant mortality rate
Answer:
IMR is the number of mortality before completing 1 year of age.

Question 3.
What is cash – deposit ratio?
Answer:
C-D ratio is the ratio of bank advances to deposits.

Question 4.
What is the position of Tamil Nadu in automotives?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has 28% share each in automotive and auto components industries, 19% in the trucks segment and 18% each in passenger cars and two-wheelers.

Question 5.
Why is Sivakasi called Little Japan?
Answer:
Sivakasi is a leader in the areas of printing, fireworks, and safety matches. It contributes 80% of India’s fireworks production and 60% of India’s total offset printing solution. As there are too many industries in Sivakasi it is called Little Japan.

Question 6.
Name the cement manufacturing places of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Ariyalur, Virudhunagar, Coimbatore, and Tirunelveli.

Question 7.
What is the measure of unemployment in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with unemployment rate of 42 per 1000.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain about unemployment and poverty in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Unemployment: Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with unemployment rate of 42 per 1000 as against national average of 50.

Poverty:

Tamil Nadu is one of India’s richest states.
Since 1994, the state has seen a steady decline in poverty.
Tamil Nadu has lower levels of poverty than most other states in the country.

Question 2.
Explain about water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Water resources of Tamil Nadu:

Tamil Nadu is not endowed with rich natural resources compared to other states.
It accounts for three percent of water sources, four percent of land area against six percent of population.
North east monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by the south west monsoon.
There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal, Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar etc.
Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Name the water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Water resources of Tamil Nadu:

Ranipet, Ambur, Vaniyambadi – Leather
Salem . – Powerlooms, Home textiles, Steel, Sago
Sankagiri – Lorry fleet operators
Tiruchengode – Borewell drilling services
Naakkal – Transportation Poultry
Karur – Coach-building, Powerlooms
Erode – Powerlooms, Turmeric
Coimbatore – Spinning mills, Engineering industries
Tirupur – Knitwear, Readymade garments
Rajapalayam – Surgical cotton products
Sivakasi – Safety matches, Fireworks, Printing

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Elaborate the highlights of Tamil Nadu economy.
Answer:
Highlights of Tamil Nadu economy:

Growth of GSDP in Tamil Nadu has been among the fastest in India since 2005.
Poverty reduction is faster than that in many other states.
It contains a smaller proportion of India’s poor population.
Second largest contributor to India’s GDP.
3rd in Human Development Index.
Ranks 3rd in terms of invested capital and value of total industrial output.
Ranks first among the states in terms of invested capital and value of total industrial output.
Third in the health index
Has highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.
Has the largest number of engineering colleges.
Has emerged as a major hub for renewable energy.
Has highest credit deposit ratio in commercial and cooperative banks.
Ranks first on investment proposals filled by MSMEs.

Question 2.
Compare the per capital income of Tamil Nadu with other countries.
Answer:

The per capita GSDP of Tamil Nadu is $ 2200 which is higher than that of many other states in India.
Per capita, the GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data.
In terms of the per capital income in Tamil Nadu was Rs. 1,03,600 in 2010-11 and it has increased to Rs. 1,88,492 in 2017-18 as per the budget figures 2018.

Question 3.
Explain the role of MSMEs in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Role of MSMEs in Tamil Nadu:

The MSME enterprises are classified as manufacturing and service enterprises based on the investment in plant, machinery and equipment MSMED act 2006.
Tamil Nadu accounts of 15,07% micro, small and medium enterpriser which is highest in the country.
There are 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs producing over 8000 varieties of product for investment more than Rs. 32,008 crore.
The prominent products of MSMEs are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with a total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 4.
Explain about banks in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, Nationalised banks account for 52% with 5,337 branches, private commercial banks 30% (3060) branches, state bank of India and its associates 13% (1,364) RRBs 5% (537) branches and the remaining 22 foreign bank branches.

Deposits of the banks:

Total deposits of the banks in Tamil Nadu increased by 14.32% by March 2017 and touched Rs. 6,65,068.59 crores.
Total credits of the banks increased by 13.50% by March 2017 and touched Rs. 6,95,500.31 crores.

Advances of the banks:

The share of priority sector advances stands at 45.54% as against the national average of 40%
Primary sector advances stand at 45.54%
Agricultural advances stands at 19.81% on March 2017.
Banks in Tamil Nadu has the highest credit deposit ratio of 119.15% in the country.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics

Leave a Comment / Class 12 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Economics Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The word ‘statistics’ is used as ………………………
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Singular and Plural
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Singular and Plural

Question 2.
Who stated that statistics as a science of estimates and probabilities?
(a) Horace Secrist
(b) R. A Fisher
(c) Ya-Lun-Chou
(d) Boddington
Answer:
(d) Boddington

Question 3.
Sources of secondary data are …………………………..
(a) Published sources
(b) Unpublished sources
(c) Neither published nor unpublished sources
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
The data collected by questionnaires are …………………………..
(a) Primary data
(b) Secondary data
(c) Published data
(d) Grouped data
Answer:
(a) Primary data

Question 5.
A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists between two variables is called …………………………..
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Correlation coefficient
(d) Regression equation
Answer:
(c) Correlation coefficient

Question 6.
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will be …………………………..
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) One
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 7.
If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable increases the other variable tends to decrease the value of r will be …………………………..
(a) Perfect positive
(b) Perfect negative
(c) Negative
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Negative

Question 8.
The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between …………………………..
(a) 0 and 1
(b) – 1 and 0
(c) – 1 and + 1
(d) – 0.5 and + 0.5
Answer:
(c) – 1 and + 1

Question 9.
The term regression was used by …………………………..
(a) Newton
(b) Pearson
(c) Spearman
(d) Galton
Answer:
(d) Galton

Question 10.
The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to …………………………..
(a) Predict one variable from another variable
(b) Replace points on a scatter diagram by a straight-line
(c) Measure the degree to which two variables are linearly associated
(d) Obtain the expected value of the independent random variable for a given value of the dependent variable
Answer:
(a) Predict one variable from another variable

Question 11.
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent variables is called …………………………..
(a) Correlation
(b) Regression
(c) Residual
(d) Slope
Answer:
(b) Regression

Question 12.
If Y = 2 – 0.2X, then the value of Y intercept is equal to …………………………..
(a) -0.2
(b) 2
(c) 0.2X
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 13.
In the regression equation Y = β₀ + β₁ X, the Y is called …………………………..
(a) Independent variable
(b) Dependent variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Dependent variable

Question 14.
In the regression equation X = β₀ + β₁ X, the X is called …………………………..
(a) Independent variable
(b) Dependent variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Independent variable

Question 15.
Econometrics is the integration of …………………………..
(a) Economics and Statistics
(b) Economics and Mathematics
(c) Economics, Mathematics and Statistics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Economics, Mathematics and Statistics

Question 16.
Econometric is the word coined by …………………………..
(a) Francis Galton
(b) Ragnar Frish
(c) Karl Person
(d) Spearsman
Answer:
(b) Ragnar Frish

Question 17.
The raw materials of Econometrics are ……………………………
(a) Data
(b) Goods
(c) Statistics
(d) Mathematics
Answer:
(a) Data

Question 18.
The term Uiin regression equation is …………………………..
(a) Residuals
(b) Standard error
(c) Stochastic error term
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Stochastic error term

Question 19.
The term Uiis introduced for the representation of …………………………..
(a) Omitted Variable
(b) Standard error
(c) Bias
(d) Discrete Variable
Answer:
(a) Omitted Variable

Question 20.
Econometrics is the amalgamation of …………………………..
(a) 3 subjects
(b) 4 subjects
(c) 2 subjects
(d) 5 subjects
Answer:
(a) 3 subjects

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 21.
What is Statistics?
Answer:

The term‘Statistics’is used in two senses: as singular and plural.
In singular form it simply means statistical methods.
Statistics when used in singular form helps in the collection, presentation, classification and interpretation of data to make it easily comprehensible.
In its plural form it denotes collection of numerical figures and facts.
In the narrow sense it has been defined as the science of counting and science of averages.

Question 22.
What are the kinds of Statistics?
Answer:
Types of Statistics:
1. There are two major types of statistics named as Descriptive Statistics and Inferential Statistics.

2. Descriptive Statistics:
The branch of statistics devoted to the summarization and description of data is called Descriptive Statistics.

3. Inferential Statistics:
The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a population of data is called Inferential Statistics.

Question 23.
What do you mean by Inferential Statistics?
Answer:
Inferential Statistics:

The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a population of data is called Inferential Statistics.
It draws conclusion for the population based on the sample result.
It uses hypotheses, testing and predicting on the basis of the outcome.
It tries to understand the population beyond the sample.

Question 24.
What are the kinds of data?
Answer:

Question 25.
Define Correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables. Sir Francis Galton, is responsible for the calculation of correlation coefficient.

Question 26.
Define Regression?
Answer:

The term ‘Regression’ was first coined and used in 1877 by Francis Galton while studying the relationship between the height of fathers and sons.
The average height of children bom of parents of a given height tended to move or “regress” toward the average height in the population as a whole.
Gabon’s law of universal regression was confirmed by his friend Karl Pearson, who collected more than a thousand records of heights of members of family groups.
The literal meaning of the word “regression” is “Stepping back towards the average”.

Question 27.
What is Econometrics?
Answer:
Origin Of Econometrics:

Economists tried to support their ideas with facts and figures in ancient times.
Irving Fisher is the first person, developed mathematical equation in the quantity theory of money with help of data.
Ragnar Frisch, a Norwegian economist and statistician named the integration of three subjects such that mathematics, statistical methods and economics as Econometrics” in 1926.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the functions of Statistics?
Answer:
Functions of Statistics:

Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
It simplifies mass of figures.
It facilitates comparison.
It helps in formulating and testing.
It helps in prediction.
It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.

(I) Statistics are an aggregate of facts:
For example, numbers in a calendar pertaining to a year will not be called statistics, but to be included in statistics it should contain a series of figures with relationships for a prolonged period.

(II) Statistics are numerically enumerated, estimated and expressed.

(III) Statistical collection should be systematic with a predetermined purpose:
The purpose of collection of statistics should be determined beforehand in order to get accurate information.

(IV) Should be capable of being used as a technique for drawing comparison:
It should be capable of drawing comparison between two different sets of data by tools such as averages, ratios, rates, coefficients etc.

Question 29.
Find the Standard Deviation of the following data:
14, 22, 9, 15, 20, 17, 12, 11

∴ σ = 4.18

Question 30.
State and explain the different kinds of Correlation?
Answer:

Type I:
Based on the direction of change of variables:
Correlation is classified into two types as Positive correlation and Negative Correlation based on the direction of change of the variables.

Positive Correlation:
The correlation is said to be positive if the values of two variables move in the same direction.

Ex 1:
If income and Expenditure of a Household may be increasing or decreasing simultaneously. If so, there is positive correlation. Ex. Y = a + bx

Negative Correlation:
The Correlation is said to be negative when the values of variables move in the opposite directions. Ex. Y = a – bx

Ex 1:
Price and demand for a commodity move in the opposite direction.

Type II:
Based upon the number of variables studied
There are three types based upon the number of variables studied as

Simple Correlation
Multiple Correlation
Partial Correlation

Simple Correlation:
If only two variables are taken for study then it is said to be simple correlation. Ex. Y = a + bx

Multiple Correlations:
If three or more than three variables are studied simultaneously, then it is termed as multiple correlation.

Ex: Determinants of Quantity demanded
Qd = f (P, Pc, Ps, t, y)
Where Qd stands for Quantity demanded, f stands for function.
P is the price of the goods,
P_c is the price of competitive goods
P_s is the price of substituting goods
t is the taste and preference
y is the income.

Partial Correlation:
If there are more than two variables but only two variables are considered keeping the other variables constant, then the correlation is said to be Partial Correlation.

Type III: Based upon the constancy of the ratio of change between the variables

Correlation is divided into two types as linear correlation and Non – Linear correlation based upon the Constancy of the ratio of change between the variables.

Linear Correlation:
Correlation is said to be linear when the amount of change in one variable tends to bear a constant ratio to the amount of change in the other.
Ex. Y = a + bx

Non Linear:
The correlation would be non-linear if the amount of change in one variable does not bear a constant ratio to the amount of change in the other variables.
Ex. Y = a + bx²

Question 31.
Mention the uses of Regression Analysis?
Answer:
Use of Regression Analysis:

Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
Both the variables may be random variables.
It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes functional relationship.
Besides verification it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
Regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
In regression there is no such spurious regression.
It has wider application, as it studies linear and nonlinear relationship between the variables.
It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 32.
Specify the objectives of econometrics?
Answer:
Objectives of Econometrics:
The general objective of Econometrics is to give empirical content to economic theory. The specific objectives are as follows:

It helps to explain the behaviour of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic phenomena.
It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the variables
It helps to establish new theories and new relationships.
It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter.

Question 33.
Differentiate the economic model with econometric model?
Answer:
Economic Model:

Economic model is the theoretical construct that represents the complex economic process.
Economic model is based on mathematical modeling.
Economic model is focused on establishing the logical relationships between the variables in the model.
Economic model is applied in stating the theoretical relationship into mathematical equations.
Economic model believes that outcome is certain and exact. So disturbance term is not required.
Economic model is deterministic in nature.
The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by is the economic model

Econometric Model:

Econometric model is the statistical concept that represents the numerical estimate of the variables involved in economic process.
Econometric model is based on statistical modeling.
Econometric model is focused on estimating the magnitude and direction of relationship between the variables.
Econometric model is applied in stating the empirical extent of the economic model.
Econometric model believes that outcome is certain but not exact. So disturbance term plays the vital role.
Econometric model is stochastic in nature.
The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by + µ is the econometric model

Question 34.
Discuss the important statistical organizations (offices) in India?
Answer:

Official Statistics are statistics published by government agencies or other public bodies such as international organizations.
They provide quantitative or qualitative information on all major areas of citizens’ lives.
Official Statistics make information on economic and social development accessible to the public, allowing the impact of government policies to be assessed, thus improving accountability.
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) came into existence as an Independent Ministry in 1999 after the merging of the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
The Ministry has two wings, Statistics and Programme Implementation.

National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO):

The National Sample Survey Organisation, now known as National Sample Survey Office, is an organization under the Ministry of Statistic of the Government of India.
It is the largest organisation in India, conducting regular socio-economic surveys.
It was established in 1950. NSSO has four divisions:
1. Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
2. Field Operations Division (FOD)
3. Data Processing Division (DPD)
4. Co-ordination and Publication Division (CPD)

The Programme Implementation Wing has three Divisions, namely,

Twenty Point Programme
Infrastructure Monitoring and Project Monitoring
Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme.

Besides these three wings, there is National Statistical Commission created through a Resolution of Government of India (MOSPI) and one autonomous Institute, viz., Indian Statistical Institute declared as an institute of National importance by an Act of Parliament.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions.

Question 35.
Elucidate the nature and scope of Statistics?
Nature of Statistics:

Different Statisticians and Economists differ in views about the nature of statistics, some call it a science and some say it is an art.
Tipett on the other hand considers Statistics both as a science as well as an art.

Scope of Statistics:
Statistics is applied in every sphere of human activity – social as well as physical – like Biology, Commerce, Education, Planning, Business Management, Information Technology, etc.

Statistics and Economics:

Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic problems
Such as fluctuation in wages, prices, production, distribution of income and wealth and so on.

Statistics and Firms:
Statistics is widely used in many firms to find whether the product is conforming to specifications or not.

Statistics and Commerce:

Statistics are life blood of successful commerce.
Market survey plays an important role to exhibit the present conditions and to forecast the likely changes in future.

Statistics and Education:

Statistics is necessary for the formulation of policies to start new course, according to the changing environment.
There are many educational institutions owned by public and private engaged in research and development work to test the past knowledge and evolve new knowledge.
These are possible only through statistics.

Statistics and Planning:
1. Statistics is indispensable in planning. In the modem world, which can be termed as the “world of planning”, almost all the organisations in the government are seeking the help of planning for efficient working, for the formulation of policy decisions and execution of the same.

2. In order to achieve the above goals, various advanced statistical techniques are used for processing, analyzing and interpreting data.

3. In India, statistics play an important role in planning, both at the central and state government levels, but the quality of data highly unscientific.

Statistics and Medicine:

In Medical sciences, statistical tools are widely used. In order to test the efficiency of a new drug or to compare the efficiency of two drugs or two medicines, t – test for the two samples is used.
More and more applications of statistics are at present used in clinical investigation.

Statistics and Modern applications:

Recent developments in the fields of computer and information technology have enabled statistics to integrate their models and thus make statistics a part of decision making procedures of many organisations.
There are many software packages available for solving simulation problems.

Question 36.
Calculate the Karl Pearson Correlation Co-efficient for the following data?
Answer:

Question 37.
Find the regression equation Y on X and X on Y for the following data?
Answer:

= $\frac { 16810 }{ 17250-225 } $ = 1.01
X on Y
X – $\bar { X } $ = b_Xy (Y – $\bar { Y } $ )
X – 43.5 = 1.01 (Y – 64.5)
X – 43.5 = 1.01 Y – 65.145 [64.5 × 1.01]
X – 43.5 = 1.01 Y – 65.145
X – 43.5 = 0.01 Y – [65.145 – 43.5]
X = 0.01 Y – 21.645

Question 38.
Describe the application of Econometrics in Economics?
Answer:
Origin Of Econometrics:

Economists tried to support their ideas with facts and figures in ancient times.
Irving Fisher is the first person, developed mathematical equation in the quantity theory of money with help of data.
Ragnar Frisch, a Norwegian economist and statistician named the integration of three subjects such that mathematics, statistical methods and economics as Econometrics” in 1926. Ragnar Anton Kittil Frisch Noble Memorial Prize in 1969.
The term econometrics is formed from two words of Greek origin, ‘oukovouia’ meaning economy and ‘uetpov’ meaning measure. Econometrics emerged as an independent discipline studying economics phenomena.
Econometrics may be considered as the integration of economics, Statistics and Mathematics.
Econometrics is an amalgamation of three subjects which can be easily understood by following Venn diagram and picture representation.
Economics + Mathematics = Mathematical Economics
Mathematical Economics + Statistical Data & Its Technique = Econometrics
{Economics + Statistics + Mathematics} + Empirical Data = Econometrics

Definitions:

In the words of Arthur S. Goldberger, “Econometrics may be defined as the social science in which the tools of economic theory, mathematics and statistical inference are applied to the analysis of economic phenomena”.
Gerhard Tinbergen points out that “Econometrics, as a result of certain outlook on the role of economics, consists of application of mathematical statistics to economic data to lend empirical support to the models constructed by mathematical economics and to obtain numerical results”.
H Theil“Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws”
In the words of Ragnar Frisch “The mutual penetration of quantitative econometric theory and statistical observation is the essence of econometrics”.
Econometrics means economic measurement. Econometrics deals with the measurement of economic relationships.

Objectives Of Econometrics:
The general objective of Econometrics is to give empirical content to economic theory. The specific objectives are as follows:

It helps to explain the behaviour of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic phenomena.
It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the variables
It helps to establish new theories and new relationships.
It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The term statistics originated in the Latin word known as ………………………….
(a) Statistik
(b) Status
(c) Statisque
(d) Statistics
Answer:
(b) Status

Question 2.
The fundamental principles of statistics were developed by the biologist ………………………….
(a) Ronald Fisher
(b) Gottfried Achenwall
(c) R.A. Fisher
(d) GR Neison
Answer:
(a) Ronald Fisher

Question 3.
The first book to have statistics as its title was ………………………….
(a) Contributions to vital statistics
(b) Principles of statistics
(c) Statistics principles
(d) Statistics probabilities
Answer:
(a) Contributions to vital statistics

Question 4.
The subjects of statistics can be attributed to ………………………….
(a) Francis GP. Neison
(b) Ronald Fisher
(c) Gottfried Achenwall
(d) R.A. Fisher
Answer:
(d) R.A. Fisher

Question 5.
To prepare a systematic study of birth and death related data is called ………………………….
(a) Principles of statistics
(b) Contributions of vital statistics
(c) Subject of statistics
(d) Statistics evolution
Answer:
(b) Contributions of vital statistics

Question 6.
Who is the father of statistics?
(a) Gottfried Achenwall
(b) Francis GP. Neison
(c) Ronald Fisher
(d) R.A. Fisher
Answer:
(d) R.A. Fisher

Question 7.
…………………………. form helps in the collection, presentation, classificationandinterpretation of data make it easily comprehensible.
(a) Singular form
(b) Plural form
(c) Collection form
(d) Presentation form
Answer:
(a) Singular form

Question 8.
Statistics is applied in every sphere of ………………………….
(a) Physical activity
(b) Human activity
(c) Maths activity
(d) Statistics activity
Answer:
(b) Human activity

Question 9.
Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many …………………………. problems.
(a) Statistical
(b) Technical
(c) Economic
(d) Maths
Answer:
(c) Economic

Question 10.
Statistics are life blood of successful ………………………….
(a) Maths
(b) Datas
(c) Calculations
(d) Commerce
Answer:
(d) Commerce

Question 11.
In the modem world, which can be termed as the “World of planning”?
(a) Statistics
(b) Datas
(c) Numerical data
(d) Five year plan
Answer:
(a) Statistics

Question 12.
Since 2007, 29^th June every year is celebrated as …………………………
(a) Economic day
(b) Datas day
(c) Statistics day
(d) Planning day
Answer:
(c) Statistics day

Question 13.
In India, statistics play an important role of planning, both at the central and ……………………….. government levels.
(a) State
(b) Local
(c) District
(d) National
Answer:
(a) State

Question 14.
Statistical tools are widely used in …………………………..
(a) Statistical science
(b) Technical science
(c) Medical science
(d) Engineering science
Answer:
(c) Medical science

Question 15.
The branch of statistics devoted to the summerization and description of data is called ………………………… statistics.
(a) Descriptive
(b) Inferential
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer:
(a) Descriptive

Question 16.
The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data is called ……………………… statistics.
(a) Descriptive
(b) Qualitative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Inferential
Answer:
(d) Inferential

Question 17.
…………………………. are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement
(a) Quantitative
(b) Qualitative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Inferential
Answer:
(a) Quantitative

Question 18.
……………………….. is called a measure of central tendency or an average or a measure of location.
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Mean
(c) Cental value
(d) Geometric mean
Answer:
(c) Cental value

Question 19.
…………………….. is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.
(a) Standard Deviation
(b) Arithmetic mean
(c) Mean
(d) Median
Answer:
(a) Standard Deviation

Question 20.
…………………… is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables.
(a) Deviation
(b) Standard deviation
(c) Correlation
(d) Median
Answer:
(c) Correlation

Question 21.
………………………. Method is very simple and non-mathematical method.
(a) Scatter Diagram
(b) Graphic
(c) Karl Pearson’s
(d) Actual mean
Answer:
(a) Scatter Diagram

Question 22.
The literal meaning of the word “Regression” is stepping back towards the …………………………….
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Mean deviation
(c) Average
(d) Median
Answer:
(c) Average

Question 23.
…………………………. may be considered as the integration of economics, statistics and mathematics.
(a) Mathematical economics
(b) Statistical economics
(c) Technic economics
(d) Econometrics
Answer:
(d) Econometrics

Question 24.
The Central statistical office is one of the two – wings of the …………………………
(a) State statistical organisation
(b) National statistical organisation
(c) District statistical organisation
(d) World statistical organisation
Answer:
(b) National statistical organisation

II. Match The Following And Choose The Correct Answer By Using Codes Given Below.

Question 1.
A. Galton – (i) Principle of statistics
B. Ragnar Frisch – (ii) Regression
C. P.C. Mohalanobis – (iii) Econometrics
D. Ronald Fisher – (iv) Modem Statistics
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 2.
A. Statistics – (i) Solving economic problems
B. Statistical data – (ii) Successful commerce
C. Statistical tools – (iii) World of planning
D. Statistics life blood – (iv) Medical science
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
Answer:
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

Question 3.
A. Types of statistics – (i) Central value
B. Statistics data categories – (ii) Primary data
C. Collection of data – (iii) Central value
D. Measure of central tendency – (iv) Descriptive statistics
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (ii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
Answer:
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)

Question 4.
A. Karl Pearson – (i) Regression
B. Measures of dispersion – (ii) Standard Deviation
C. Sir. Francis Galton – (iii) Absolute
D. Stepping back towards the average – (iv) Correlation
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
Answer:
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 5.
A. NSSO – (i) 1999
B. MOSPI – (ii) 1877
C. Francis Galton – (iii) 1890 – 1962
D. R.A. Fisher – (iv) 1950
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
Answer:
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)

Question 6.
A. Francis GP. Neison – (i) England
B. Gottfried Achenwall – (ii) Contributions to vital statistics
C. Ronald Fisher – (iii) P.C. Mahalanobis
D. Modem statistics – (iv) Statistik
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

III. Choose The Correct Statement:

Question 1.
(i) Statistics is indispensable planning.
(ii) In the modem world, it can be termed as the “World of planning”.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic problems.
(ii) Fluctuation in Inflation, Deflation.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 3.
(i) Quantitative data are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement.
(ii) These refer to characteristics in successive measurements yield quantifiable observations.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 4.
(i) Karl Pearson introduced the concept of Standard deviation.
(ii) Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Relative measure of dispersion.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) The term econometrics is formed from two words of Greek origin, ‘Oukovovia’ meaning economy and ‘vetpov’ meaning measure.
(ii) Econometrics may be considered as integration of economics, statistics and mathematics.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

IV. Which of The Following Is Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Gottfried Achenwall – Statistics
(b) GP. Neison – Contributions to vital statistics
(c) Ronald Fisher – Movemental contribution
(d) Modem statistics – Ronald Fisher
Answer:
(b) GP. Neison – Contributions to vital statistics

Question 2.
(a) Quantitative data – Gender, community
(b) Qualitative data – Age, income
(c) Nominal data – Classification of students
(d) Rank data – Collection of data
Answer:
(c) Nominal data – Classification of students

Question 3.
(a) Central value – Measure of central tendency
(b) Dispersion – Average
(c) Standard Deviation – Ronald Fisher
(d) Sir Francis Galton – Graphic Method
Answer:
(a) Central value – Measure of central tendency

Question 4.
(a) Francis Galton – Stepping back towards the average
(b) Irving Fisher – Data
(c) Ragner Frisch – Technique
(d) Econometrics – Economy + Metrics
Answer:
(a) Francis Galton – Stepping back towards the average

Question 5.
(a) Arthur S. Gold Berger – Maths
(b) Gerherd Tinbergen – Social
(c) H. Theil – Economic laws
(d) Ragnar Frisch – Statistics
Answer:
(c) H. Theil – Economic laws

V. Which of The Following is Not Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Statistic Regression – Y₁ = β₀ + β₁X₁
(b) Econometrics Regression – Y₁ = β₀ + β₁X₁ + U₁
(c) Regression lines – X on Y ⇒ X = a + by
(d) Actual Mean Method = $\frac { \Sigma X }{ N } $
Answer:
(d) Actual Mean Method = $\frac { \Sigma X }{ N } $

Question 2.
(a) SDRD – Survey Design and Research Division
(b) FOD – Field Operations Division
(c) DPD – Division Processing Data
(d) CPD – Co – Operation and Publication Division
Answer:
(c) DPD – Division Processing Data

Question 3.
(a) NSO – National Statistical Office
(b) CSO – Cental Statistical Office
(c) NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation
(d) NAD – National Arithematic Division
Answer:
(d) NAD – National Arithematic Division

Question 4.
(a) NAD – National Accounts Division
(b) SSD – Social Stastistics Division
(c) ESD – Economic Social Division
(d) TD – Training Division
Answer:
(c) ESD – Economic Social Division

Question 5.

Answer:

VI. Pick The Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Functions of Statistics
(a) Statistics presents facts in a definite form
(b) It simplifies mass of figures
(c) It helps firms
(d) It helps in formulating and testing
Answer:
(c) It helps firms

Question 2.
Based upon the number of variables studied as
(a) Simple correlation
(b) Multiple correlation
(c) Partial correlation
(d) Linear correlation
Answer:
(d) Linear correlation

Question 3.
Methods of studying correlation
(a) Scatter diagram method
(b) Graphic method
(c) Maths method
(d) Method of least squares
Answer:
(c) Maths method

Question 4.
NSSO divisions are
(a) Survey Design and Research Division [SDRD]
(b) Fashion Operation Division [FOD]
(c) Data Processing Division [DPD]
(d) Co – ordination and Publication Division [CPD]
Answer:
(b) Fashion Operation Division [FOD]

Question 5.
CSO Director Generals are
(a) National Accounts Division [NAD]
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]
(c) Economic Statistics Division [ESD]
(d) Co – ordination and Publication Division [CPD]
Answer:
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The monumental contribution to the subject of statistics can be attributed to R.A. Fisher was able to apply statistics to a variety.
Reason (R): Fields such as Biometry, Genetics, Psychology, Education, Agriculture and others.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In singular form it simply means simple method.
Reason (R): Singular forms help in the collection, presentation, classification and interpretation of data.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Statistics is indispensable in planning.
Reason (R): In the modem world, which can be termed as the “World of Planning” almost all organisations.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Quantitative data are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement.
Reason (R): These refer to characteristics of a subject or an object.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are tme and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are tme but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Ronald Fisher introduced the concept of Standard Deviation.
Reason (R): Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Write five averages?
Answer:

There are five averages.
Among them mean, median and mode are called simple averages and the other two averages geometric mean and harmonic mean are called special averages.

Question 2.
Write meaning of averages?
Answer:

“A measure of central tendency is a typical value around which other figures congregate.”
“An average stands for the whole group of which it forms a part yet represents the whole.”
“One of the most widely used set of summary figures is known as measures of location.”

Question 3.
Write the kinds of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

Absolute measure of dispersion
Relative measure of dispersion

Question 4.
Explain the calculation of standard deviation individual series?
Answer:
Calculation of Standard deviation-individual Series:
There are two methods of calculating Standard deviation in an individual series.
(a) Deviations taken from Actual mean
(b) Deviation taken from Assumed mean
Standard Deviation =
Where, $\bar { X } $ = mean value of distribution
n = number of observations

Question 5.
Write the four methods of studying correlation?
Answer:
Methods of Studying Correlation:
The various methods of ascertaining whether two variables are correlated or not are:

Scatter diagram Method
Graphic Method
Karl Pearson’s Co-efficient of correlation and
Method of Least Squares.

Question 6.
Explain the advantages of Scatter diagram method?
Answer:
Advantages of Scatter Diagram method:

It is very simple and non- mathematical method
It is not influenced by the size of extreme item.
It is the first step in resting the relationship between two variables.

Question 7.
Write the two regression lines?
Answer:
Two Regression lines:
X on Y => X = a + by
Y on X => Y = a + bx

Question 8.
Write flow chart of Anatomy/Methodology of Econometrics?
Answer:
Flow Chart of Anatomy / Methodology of Econometrics:
Anatomy of Econometric Modeling

Question 9.
Explain the statistics and econometrics regression equations?
Answer:
Statistics Regression:
Yi = β₀ + β₁X₁
Econometrics Regression:
Yi = β₀ + β₁X_i + U_i
(with more than 2 variables) or
Y = β₀ + β₁X₁ + β₂X₂ + β₃X₃ + U_i

Systematic Part: β₀ + β₁X₁ or explained part and Random Part: U_f unexplained part in a regression.
U_i represents the role of omitted variables in specifying a regression relationship of Y on X.
Hence, the U_i cannot and should not be ignored.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the sources of collection of data?
Answer:
Sources of Collection of data:
Based on the data sources, data could be seen as of two types, viz., secondary data and primary data. The two can be defined as under:

(I) Primary data:

Those data which do not already exist in any form, and thus have to be collected for the first time from the primary source(s).
By their very nature, these data are fresh and first-time collected covering the whole population or a sample drawn from it.

(II) Secondary data:

They already exist in some form: published or unpublished in an identifiable secondary source.
They are, generally, available from published source(s), though not necessarily in the form actually required, e.g. Data from CSO, NSSO, RBI….

Question 2.
Briefly explain the kinds of measures of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

Absolute measure of dispersion
Relative measure of dispersion

Absolute measure of dispersion indicates the amount of variation in a set of values in terms of units of observations. Relative measures of dispersion are free from the units of measurements of the observations. They are pure numbers. They are used to compare the variation in two or more sets, which are having different units of measurements of observations. Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.

Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation in 1893. Standard deviation is also called Root- Mean Square Deviation. The reason is that it is the square – root of the mean of the squared deviation from the arithmetic mean. It provides accurate result. Square of standard deviation is called Variance.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the calculation of standard deviation individual series steps?
Answer:
Steps:

Find out the actual mean of given data ( $\bar { X } $ )
Find out the deviation of each value from the mean (x = X – $\bar { X } $ )
Square the deviations and take the total of squared deviations Σx²
Divided the total Σx² by the number of observation ( $\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } $ )
The square root of ( $\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } $ ) is standard deviation.

$\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } $ = Variance = $\frac { \Sigma (x-\bar { x } )^{ 2 } }{ n } $
When the sample size is less than 30, variance = $\frac { \Sigma (x-\bar { x } )^{ 2 } }{ n-1 } $
When n = number of observations.

Question 4.
Calculate the standard deviation from the following data by Actual Mean Method?
125, 15, 23, 42, 27, 25, 23, 25 and 20
Solution:
Deviations from actual mean.

$\bar { X } $ = $\frac{225}{9}$ = 25

σ = 6.88

Question 5.
Calculate the standard deviation for the following data by assumed mean method?
[43, 48, 65, 57, 31, 60, 37, 48, 78, 59]
Solution:
Deviation from assumed mean

Question 6.
Write the assumptions of the Linear Regression Model?
Answer:
Assumptions of the Linear Regression Model:
The Linear regression model is based on certain assumptions

Some of them refer to the distribution of the random variable .
Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i and the explanatory variables (x₁, x₂, x₃ given in the above example).
Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i the explanatory variables themselves.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
Explain the Scatter Diagram Method. Advantages and Disadvantages with diagram?
Answer:
Scatter Diagram Method:

Scatter diagram is a graph of observed plotted points where each point represents the values of X and Y as a coordinate.
It portrays the relationship between these two variables graphically.

Advantages of Scatter Diagram method:

It is very simple and non- mathematical method
It is not influenced by the size of extreme item.
It is the first step in resting the relationship between two variables.

Disadvantages of Scatter diagram method:

It cannot establish the exact degree of correlation between the variables, but provides direction of correlation and depicts it is high or low.

Question 2.
Briefly explain Karl Pearson’s co-effecient of correlation?
Answer:
Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Correlation:

Karl Pearson’s Method is popularly known as Pearson’s coefficient of correlation denoted by the symbol V.
The coefficient of correlation V measures the degree of linear relationship between two variables say X and Y.
The Formula for computing Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of correlation is:

(I)

‘r’ is caluculated by Direct Method without taking deviation of terms either from actual mean or assumed mean.

(II) r is calculated by taking the Deviation from actual mean.

(III) ‘r’ is caluculated by taking assumed mean

Where dx refers to deviations ofx series from assumed mean (x – $\bar { x } $ ), dy refers to deviations of y series from an assumed mean of (y – $\bar { y } $ )
Σdxdy = Sum of product of the deviations x and y series from their assumed means.
Σdx² = Sum of the squares of the deviation of x series from an assumed mean
Σdy² = Sum of the squares of the deviations of y series from an assumed mean
Σdx = Sum of the deviation of x series from an assumed mean of x
Σdy = Sum of the deviation of y series from an assumed mean of y

Question 3.
Explain the procedure for computing the correlation co – effecient for direct and deviation from actual mean method steps?
Answer:
Procedure for Computing the Correlation Coefficient: (For Direct and Deviation from actual mean method).

Step – 1 Calculate the mean of two series ‘X’ ‘Y’
Step – 2 Calculate the deviations ‘X’ and Y in two series from their respective mean.
Step – 3 Square each deviations of ‘X’ and ‘ Y’ then obtain the sum of the Squared deviation
Step – 4 Multiply each deviation under X with each deviation under Y and obtain the product of ‘xy’. Then obtain the sum of the product of X, Y. Then obtain the sum of the product of x, y is Σxy.
Step – 5 Substitute the value in the formula.

Question 4.
State the formula of Karl Pearson’s co – effecient of correlation upgrouped data?

1. Direct Method:
(I)

(II) Assumed Mean Deviation Method

2. Indirect Method:
dx = (x – $\bar { x } $ ) and dy = (y – $\bar { y } $ )
r is free from origin
r is free from unit of measurement -1 ≤ r ≤ + 1

Question 5.
Calculate Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of correlation from the following data and interpret its value:

Solution: Let us take Price as X and supply as Y
Computation of Pearson’s Correlation Coefficient:

Price of the product and supply for the product is positively correlated. When price of the product increases then the supply for the product also increases.

Question 6.
Estimate the coefficient of correlation with actualmean method for the following data?

Solution:

Applying in Formula

r = 0.327, The Car is getting old in years the cost of maintainance is also increasing. The age of Car and its maintainance are positively correlated.

Question 7.
Find the Karl Pearson coefficient of Correlation between X and Y from the following data:

Solution:
Formula for Assumed Mean Deviation method.

Take the assumed values A = 16 & B = 27 therefore dx = X – A ⇒ X – 16 and
dy = Y – A ⇒ Y = 27

There exists a positive high correlation between X and Y.

Question 8.
Explain the difference between correlation and regression?
Answer:
Difference between Correlation and Regression:
Correlation:

Correlation is the relationship between two or more variables, which vary with the other in the same or the opposite direction.
Both the variables X and Y are random variables.
It finds out the degree of relationship between two variables and not the cause and effect relationship.
It is used for testing and verifying the relation between two variables and gives limited information.
The coefficient of correlation is a relative measure. The range of relationship lies between -1 and +1.
There may be spurious correlation between two variables.
It has limited application, because it is confined only to linear relationship between the variables.
It is not very useful for further mathematical treatment.

Regression:

Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
Both the variables may be random variables.
It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes functional relationship.
Besides verification it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
Regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
In regression there is no such spurious regression.
It has wider application, as it studies linear and nonlinear relationship between the variables.
It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 9.
Explain Fit the Regression equation on [X on Y]?
Answer:
Fit regression equation X on Y and Y on X for the following data.
$\bar { X } $ = 12, $\bar { Y } $ = 10, σy = 0.2, σx = 0.1 and r = 0.85
Solution:
The regression X on Y is
(X – $\bar { X } $ ) r = r × $\frac{σx}{σy}$ × (X – $\bar { X } $ )
Given $\bar { X } $ = 12, $\bar { Y } $ = 10
r = 0.85, σx = 0.1 and σy = 0.2
Then substituting the values in formula
(X – 12) = 0.85 × (0.1/0.2) × (Y – 10)
(X – 12) = 0.85 × (0.5) × (Y – 10)
X = 0.425 × (Y – 10) + 12
X = 0.425 Y – 4.25 + 12
X = 0.425 Y + 7.75
Y on X
Y = 0.425 Y + 7.75

Question 10.
Explain Fit the Regression equation on [Y on X]?
Answer:
The regression Y on X is
(Y – $\bar { Y } $ ) r = r × $\frac{σx}{σy}$ × (X – $\bar { X } $ )
Given $\bar { X } $ = 12, $\bar { Y } $ = 10
r = 0.85, σx = 0.1 and σy = 0.2
Then substituting the values in formula
(Y – 10) = 0.85 × (0.2/0.1) × (X – 12)
(Y – 10) = 0.85 × (2) × (X – 12)
Y = 1.7 × (X – 12) + 10
Y = 1.7 X – 20.4 + 10
Y = 1.7 X – 10.4
Y on X
Y = 1.7 X – 10.4

Question 11.
Briefly explain Methodology of Econometrics?
Answer:
Methodology of Econometrics:
Broadly speaking, traditional or classical econometric methodology consists of the following steps.

Statement of the theory or hypothesis
Specification of the mathematical model of the theory
Specification of the econometric model of the theory
Obtaining the data
Estimation of the parameters of the econometric model
Hypothesis testing
Forecasting or prediction
Using the model for control or policy purposes.

Question 12.
Explain the explanatory variables Assumptions?
Answer:
The explanatory variables are called assumptions.
Assumptions:

“U” is a random real variable. That is “U” may assume positive, negative or zero values. Hence the mean of the “U” will be zero.
The variance of “U” is constant for all values of “U”
The “U” has a normal distribution.
The Covariances of any U. with any other U are equal to zero
“U” is independent of explanatory variable (s)
Explanatory variables are measured without error.
The explanatory variables are not perfectly linearly correlated.
The variables are correctly aggregated.
The relationship is correctly identified and specified.
Parameters are linear.

Question 13.
Explain the flow chart of statistics and programme Implementation of the Ministry wings?
Answer:
The Ministry has two wings, Statistics and Programme Implementation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 6 Control Structures

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Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 6 Control Structures Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 6 Control Structures

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Control Structures Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
How many important control structures are there in Python?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 2.
elif can be considered to be abbreviation of ……………………….
(a) Nested if
(b) If … else
(c) Else if
(d) If ……… Else
Answer:
(a) Nested if

Question 3.
What plays a vital role in Python programming?
(a) Statements
(b) Control
(c) Structure
(d) Indentation
Answer:
(d) Indentation

Question 4.
Which statement is generally used as a placeholder?
(a) Continue
(b) Break
(c) Pass
(d) Goto
Answer:
(c) Pass

Question 5.
The condition in the if statement should be in the form of ……………………….
(a) Arithmetic or Relational expression
(b) Arithmetic or Logical expression
(c) Relational or Logical expression
(d) Arithmetic
Answer:
(c) Relational or Logical expression

Question 6.
Which is the most comfortable loop?
(a) do..while
(b) While
(c) For
(d) if….elif
Answer:
(c) For

Question 7.
What is the output of the following snippet?
i = 1
while True:
if i % 3 = 0:
break
print(i, end = “)
i + = 1
(a) 12
(b) 123
(c) 1234
(d) 124
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 8.
What is the output of the following snippet?
T = 1
while T: print(True)
break
(a) False
(b) True
(c) 0
(d) No output
Answer:
(d) No output

Question 9.
Which amongst this is not a jump statement?
(a) For
(b) Goto
(c) Continue
(d) Break
Answer:
(a) For

Question 10.
Which punctuation should be used in the blank?
if _
statements – block 1
else:
statements – block 2
else:
(a) ;
(b) :
(c) ::
(d) !
Answer:
(b) :

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
List the control structures in Python?
Answer:
There are three important control structures

Sequential
Alternative or Branching
Iterative or Looping

Question 2.
Write note on break statement?
Answer:
The break statement terminates the loop containing it. Control of the program flows to the statement immediately after the body of the loop.

Question 3.
Write is the syntax of if .. else statement?
Answer:
Syntax:
if:
statements – block 1
else:
statements – block 2

Question 4.
Define control structure?
Answer:
A program statement that causes a jump of control from one part of the program to another is called control structure or control statement. As you have already learnt in C++, these control statements are compound statements used to alter the control flow of the process or program depending on the state of the process.

Question 5.
Write note on range 0 in loop?
Answer:
Usually in Python, for loop uses the rangeQ function in the sequence to specify the initial, final and increment values. rangeQ generates a list of values starting from start till stop – 1.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program to display?
A
A B
A B C
A B C D
A B C D E
Answer:
Program code: for i in range(1, 6):
for i in range(65, 65 + i)
a = chr (j)
print a
print

Question 2.
Write note on ifi.else structure?
if .. else statement
Answer:
The if., else statement provides control to check the true block as well as the false block. Following is the syntax of ‘if.else’ statement.
Syntax:
if:
statements – block 1
else:
statements – block 2

Question 3.
Using if..else..elif statement write a suitable program to display largest of 3 numbers. Display Largest of 3 Numbers?
Answer:
num 1 = int (input(“Enter first number : “))
num 2 = int (input(“Enter second number : “))
num 3 = int (input(“Enter third number : “))
if (num 1 > num 2) and (num 1 > num 3):
largest = num 1
elif (num 2 > num 1) and (num 2 > num 3):
largest = num 2
else:
largest = num3
print (“The largest number is”, largest)
Output:
Enter first number: 7
Enter second number: 5
Enter third number: 4
The largest number is 7

Question 4.
Write the syntax of while loop?
Answer:
The syntax of while loop in Python has the following syntax:
Syntax:
while:
statements block 1
[else:
statements block 2]

Question 5.
List the differences between break and continue statements?
Answer:
Break statement:
Break statement has even skipped the ‘else’ part of the loop and has transferred the control to the next line following the loop block.

Continue statement:
Continue statement unlike the break statement is used to skip the remaining part of a loop and start with next iteration.

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions.

Question 1.
Write a detail note on for loop?
for loop:
for loop is the most comfortable loop. It is also an entry check loop. The condition is checked in the beginning and the body of the loop(statements – block 1) is executed if it is only True otherwise the loop is not executed.
Syntax:
for counter _ variable in sequence:
statements block 1
# optional block
[else:
statements block 2]
The counter_variable mentioned in the syntax is similar to the control variable that we used in the for loop of C++ and the sequence refers to the initial, final and increment value.

Usually in Python, for loop uses the rangeQ function in the sequence to specify the initial, final and increment values, ranged) generates a list of values starting from start till stop – 1.
The syntax of range O is as follows:
range (start, stop, [step])
Where,
start – refers to the initial value
stop – refers to the final value
step – refers to increment value, this is optional part.
Examples for range 0
range (1, 30, 1) will start the range of values from 1 and end at 29
range (2, 30, 2) will start the range of values from 2 and end at 28
range (30, 3, -3) will start the range of values from 30 and end at 6
range (20) will consider this value 20 as the end value(or upper limit) and starts the range count from 0 to 19 (remember always range 0 will work till stop – 1 value only).

# program to illustrate the use of for loop – to print single digit even number
fori in range (2, 10, 2):
print (i, end = ‘ ‘)
Output:
2 4 6 8

Question 2.
Write a detail note on if..else..elif statement with suitable example?
Answer:
Nested if..elif…else statement:
When we need to construct a chain of if statement(s) then ‘elif’ clause can be used instead of ‘else’.
Syntax:
if:
statements – block 1
elif:
statements – block 2
else:
statements – block n

In the syntax of if..elif..else mentioned above, condition – 1 is tested if it is true then statements-block 1 is executed, otherwise the control checks condition – 2, if it is true statements-block2 is executed and even if it fails statements – block n mentioned in else part is executed.

‘elif’ clause combines if.else – if.else statements to one if.elif… else, ‘elif’ can be considered to be abbreviation of ‘else if’. In an ‘if’ statement there is no limit of ‘elif’ clause that can be used, but an ‘else ’clause if used should be placed at the end

m1 = int (input(“Enter mark in first subject: ”))
m2 = int (input(“Enter mark in second subject: ”))
avg = (m1 + m2)/2
if avg> = 80:
print (“Grade: A”)
elif avg> = 70 and avg<80: print (“Grade: B”) elif avg> = 60 and avg<70: print (“Grade: C”) elif avg> = 50 and avg<60:
print (“Grade: D”)
else:
print (“Grade: E”)

Output 1:
Enter mark in first subject: 34
Enter mark in second subject: 78
Grade: D

Question 3.
Write a program to display all 3 digit odd numbers?
Answer:
Odd Number (3 digits)
for a in range (100, 1000)
if a % 2 = = 1:
print b
Output:
101, 103, 105, 107, .. …… 997, 999

Question 4.
Write a program to display multiplication table for a given number?
Answer:
Multiplication table
num = int (input(“Enter the number : “))
print (“multiplication Table of “, num)
for i in range(1, 11):
print (num, “x”, i,”=”, num*i)
Output:
Enter the number: 6
Multiplication Table of 6
6 × 1 = 6
6 × 2 = 12
6 × 3 = 18
6 × 4 = 24
6 × 5 = 30
6 × 6 = 36
6 × 7 = 42
6 × 8 = 48
6 × 9 = 54
6 × 10 = 60

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Write a program to check whether the given character is a vowel or not?
Answer:
ch = input(“Enter a character : “)
if ch in (‘a’, ’A’, ‘e’, ‘E’, ‘i’, ‘I’, ‘o’, ‘O’, ‘u’, ‘U’):
print (ch,’is a vowel’)
else:
print (ch the letter is not a vowel’)
Output:
Enter a character: e
e is a vowel

Question 2.
Using if..else..elif statement check smallest of three numbers?
Answer:
num 1 = int (input(“Enter first number : “))
num 2 = int (input(“Enter second number : “))
num 3 = int (input(“Enter third number : “))
if (num 1 < num 2) and (num 1 < num 3):
smallest = num 1
elif (num 2 < num 1) and (num 2 < num 3): smallest = num 2 else: smallest = num 3 print(” The smallest number is”, smallest) Output: Enter first number: 12 Enter second number: 7 Enter third number: 15 The smallest number is 7 Question 3. Write a program to check if a number is Positive, Negative or zero? Answer: num = int(input(“Enter a number : “)) if num > 0:
print (“positive number”)
elif num = = 0:
print(“zero”)
else:
print (“Negative number”)
Output:
Enter a number: 2
positive number

Question 4.
Write a program to display Fibonacci series 01 1235 (up to n terms)?
Answer:
n terms = int (input (“How many terms?”))
n1 = 0
n2 = 1
count = 2
# check if the number of tenns is valid
if n terms <= 0:
print (“please enter a positive integer”)
elif n terms = =1:
print (“Fibonacci sequence:”)
print(n1)
else:
print (“Fibonacci sequence :”)
print (n1, n2, end = “,”)
while count < nterms: nth = n1 + n2 print(nth, end =’, ‘) n1 = n2 n2 = nth count + = 1 Output: How many terms? 10 Fibonacci sequence: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34

Question 5.
Write a program to display sum of natural numbers, upto n?
Answer:
n = input(“Enter any number”) sum = 0 for i in range(i, n + 1): sum = sum + i print “sum = “, sum
Output:
Enter any number 5
sum =15

Question 6.
Write a program to check if the given number is a palindrome or not?
Answer:
n = int(input(“Enter any Number : “)) temp = n rev = 0 while (n >0):
dig = n%10
rev = rev * 10 + dig
n = n // 10
if (temp = = rev):
print (“palindrome”)
else:
print (“not a palindrome”)
Output:
Enter any Number 2332
palindrome

Question 7.
Write a program to print the following pattern?

Program:
for i in range(0, 5):
for j in range(5, i, -1):
print (“*”, end = “”)
print ( )

Question 8.
Write a program to check if the year is leap year or not?
Answer:
n = int (input(“Enter any year”))
if (n % 4 = 0):
print “Leap Year”
else:
print “Not a Leap Year”
Output:
Enter any Year 2000
Leap Year

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Control Structures Additional Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Executing a set of statements multiple times are called as …………………………..
(a) Iteration
(b) Looping
(c) Branching
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 2.
A program statement that causes a jump of control from one part of the program to another is called ………………………….
Answer:
Control Structure.

Question 3.
Identify which is not a control structure?
(a) Sequential
(b) Alternative
(c) Iterative
(d) Break
Answer:
(d) Break

Question 4.
A ………………………… is composed of a sequence of statements which are executed one after the another.
Answer:
Sequential Statement

Question 5.
Branching statements are otherwise called as ……………………………
(a) Alternative
(b) Iterative
(c) Loop
(d) Sequential
Answer:
(a) Alternative

Question 6.
…………………………… is the simplest of all decision making statements.
Answer:
Simple If

Question 7.
…………………………….. statement provides control to check the true block as well as the false block.
Answer:
If ………. else

Question 8.
How many blocks can be given in Nested if.. elif.. else statements?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) n
Answer:
(d) n

Question 9.
How many types of looping constructs are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 10.
The ………………….. part of while is optional.
Answer:
Else

Question 11.
What types of Expressions can be given in the while loop?
(a) Arithmetic
(b) Logical
(c) Relational
(d) Boolean
Answer:
(d) Boolean

Question 12.
Which one of the following is the entry check loop type?
(a) While
(b) Do while
(c) If
(d) If…else
Answer:
(a) While

Question 13.
How many parameters are there in print function?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 14.
Escape sequences can be given using …………………………. parameter in print ( ) function.
(a) Ret
(b) Let
(c) End
(d) Sep
Answer:
(c) End

Question 15.
Which parameter is used to specify any special characters?
(a) Ret
(b) Let
(c) End
(d) Sep
Answer:
(d) Sep

Question 16.
If the condition is checked in the beginning of the loop, then it is called as ……………………… loop.
(a) Exit
(b) Exit check
(c) Entry check
(d) Multiple
Answer:
(c) Entry check

Question 17.
range ( ) generates a list of values starting from start till ………………………..
Answer:
Stop – 1

Question 18.
Which is the optional part in range ( ) function?
(a) Start
(b) Stop
(c) Step
(d) Incr
Answer:
(c) Step

Question 19.
The end value of range (30, 3, -3) is ………………………..
(a) 30
(b) -3
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

Question 20.
range(20) has the range value from ……………………….. to ………………………..
Answer:
0 to 19

Question 21.
range ( ) cannot take the values from ………………………..
(a) String
(b) Print
(c) List
(d) Dictionary
Answer:
(b) Print

Question 22.
A loop placed within another loop is called as ………………………..
Answer:
Nested loop

Question 23.
……………………….. statements are used to unconditionally transfer the control from one part of the program to another.
(a) While
(b) Jump
(c) For
(d) If
Answer:
(b) Jump

Question 24.
How many keywords are there to achieve Jump statements in python?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 25.
Pick the odd one out.
break, for, continue, pass.
Answer:
For

Question 26.
………………………. is used to come out of loop.
(a) Break
(b) For
(c) Continue
(d) Pass
Answer:
(a) Break

Question 27.
If a loop is left by ……………………… then the else part is not executed.
Answer:
Break

Question 28.
………………………….. statement forces the next iteration to takes place.
(a) Break
(b) For
(c) Continue
(d) Pass
Answer:
(c) Continue

Question 29.
……………………. is the null statement.
(a) Break
(b) For
(c) Continue
(d) Pass
Answer:
(d) Pass

Question 30.
Python …………………….. will throw error for all indentation errors.
Answer:
Interpreter.

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on sequential statements?
Answer:
A sequential statement is composed of a sequence of statements which are executed one after another. A code to print your name, address and phone number is an example of sequential statement.

Question 2.
Name the different types of alternative statements in Python?
Answer:
Python provides the following types of alternative or branching statements:
Simple if statement if……else statement if….elif statement

Question 3.
Define loops?
Answer:
Iteration or loop are used in situation when the user need to execute a block of code several of times or till the condition is satisfied. A loop statement allows to execute a statement or group of statements multiple times.

Question 4.
Give the diagram for while loop execution?
Answer:

Question 5.
Give the syntax of range O in for loop?
Answer:
The syntax of range ( ) is as follows:
range (start, stop, [step] )
Where,
start – refers to the initial value
stop – refers to the final value
step – refers to increment value, this is optional part.

Question 6.
Give the diagram for ‘for loop’ execution?
Answer:

Question 7.
Define nested loops?
Answer:
A loop placed within another loop is called as nested loop structure. One can place a while within another while; for within another for; for within while and while within for to construct such nested loops.

Question 8.
Write note on Jump statements in python?
Answer:
The jump statement in Python, is used to unconditionally transfer the control from one part of the program to another. There are three keywords to achieve jump statements in Python : break, continue, pass.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Give the syntax for simple if statements and if else
simple if
Syntax:
Answer:
if:
statements – block 1
if else
Syntax:
variable = variable 1 if condition else variable 2

Question 2.
Give the flow chart diagram for if..else statement execution?
Answer:
if..else statement thus provides two possibilities and the condition determines which BLOCK is to be executed.

Question 3.
Write a python program to check whether the given number is odd or even?
Example: #Program to check if the accepted number odd or even
Answer:
a = int (input(“Enter any number:”))
if a%2 = = 0:
print (a, ” is an even number”)
else:
print (a,” is an odd number”)

Output 1:
Enter any number: 56
56 is an even number

Output 2:
Enter any number: 67
67 is an odd number

Question 4.
Give the flowchart diagram for if..elif…else statement execution?
Answer:

Question 5.
Give a diagram to illustrate how looping construct get executed?
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the two parameters of print ( ) function?
Answer:
print can have end, sep as parameters, end parameter can be used when we need to give any escape sequences like ‘\t’ for tab, ‘\n’ for new line and so on. sep as parameter can be used to specify any special characters like, (comma); (semicolon) as separator between values.

Question 7.
Give the syntax for ‘for loop’?
Answer:
Syntax:
for counter_variable in sequence:
statements – block 1
[else: # optional block
statements – block 2]

Question 8.
Write the program to calculate the sum of numbers from 1 to 100.
Example: # program to calculate the sum of numbers 1 to 100
Answer:
n = 100
sum = 0
for counter in range (1, n + 1):
sum = sum + counter
print (“Sum of 1 until %d: %d” % (n,sum))
Output:
Sum of 1 until 100: 5050

Question 9.
Draw the flowchart to illustrate the use of break and continue statements in loop?
Answer:

Question 10.
Give the syntax for break, continue and pass?
Answer:
Syntax:
break
Syntax:
continue
Syntax:
pass

Question 11.
Write short note on pass statements?
Answer:
pass statement in Python programming is a null statement, pass statement when executed by the interpreter it is completely ignored. Nothing happens when pass is executed, it results in no operation. pass statement can be used in ‘if’ clause as well as within loop construct, when you do not want any statements or commands within that block to be executed.

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain If and If..else with sample programs?
Answer:
Simple if statement:
Simple if is the simplest of all decision making statements. Condition should be in the form of relational or logical expression.

Syntax:
if :
statements – block 1
In the above syntax if the condition is true statements – block 1 will be executed.

Example
# Program to check the age and print whether eligible for voting
x = int (input (“Enter your age :”))
if x > = 18:
print (“You are eligible for voting”)

Output 1:
Enter your age: 34 You are eligible for voting

Output 2:
Enter your age: 16
>>>
As you can see in the second execution no output will be printed, only the Python prompt will be displayed because the program does not check the alternative process when the condition is failed.

if..else statement:
The if., else statement provides control to check the true block as well as the false block. Following is the syntax of ‘if.else’ statement.

Syntax:
if:
statements – block 1
else:
statements – block 2

if..else statement thus provides two possibilities and the condition determines which BLOCK is to be executed.
Example: #Program to check if the accepted number odd or even
a = int(input(“Enter any number :”)) if a%2==0:
print (a,” is an even number”)
else:
print (a, ” is an odd number”)

Output 1:
Enter any number: 56 56 is an even number

Output 2:
Enter any number: 67 67 is an odd number
An alternate method to rewrite the above program is also available in Python. The complete if.else can also written as:

Syntax:
variable = variable 1 if condition else variable 2

Question 2.
Explain while loop with sample program,
while loop
The syntax of while loop in Python has the following syntax:
Syntax:
while:
statements block 1

In the while loop, the condition is any valid Boolean expression returning True or False. The else part of while is optional part of while. The statements block 1 is kept executed till the condition is True. If the else part is written, it is executed when the condition is tested False.

Recall while loop belongs to entry check loop type, that is it is not executed even once if the condition is tested False in the beginning.
Example: program to illustrate the use of while loop – to print all numbers from 10 to 15
i = 10 # initializing part of the control variable
while (i< = 15): # test condition
print (i, end =’\t’) # statements – block 1
i = i + 1 # Updation of the control variable
Output:
10 11 12 13 14 15

Question 3.
Write a python program to display the following output.?
Answer:

i = 1
while (i< = 6):
for j in range (1, i):
print (j, end = \t’)
print (end =’\n’)
i + = 1f

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Leave a Comment / Class 11 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Chemistry Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The IUPAC name of is ………….
(a) 2-Bromopent – 3 – ene
(b) 4-Bromopent – 2 – ene
(c) 2-Bromopent – 4 – ene
(d) 4-Bromopent – 1 – ene
Answer:
(b) 4 – Bromopent – 2 – ene

Question 2.
Of the following compounds. which has the highest boiling point’?
(a) n-Butyl chloride
(b) Isobutyl chloride
(c) t-Butyl chloride
(d) n-propyl chloride
Answer:
(a) n-Butyl chloride

Question 3.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their density.
(A) CCl₄
(B) CHCl₃
(C) CH₂Cl₂
(D) CH₃Cl
(a) D<C<B<A
(b) C<B<A<D
(c) A<B<C<D
(d) C<A<B<D
Answer:
(a) D<C<B<A

Question 4.
With respect to the position of – Cl in the compound CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₂ – Cl, it is classified as ………..
(a) Vinyl
(b) Allyl
(c) Secondary
(d) Aralkyl
Answer:
(b) Allyl

Question 5.
What should be the correct IUPAC name of diethyl chioromethane?
(a) 3-Chioropentane
(b) 1-Chloropentane
(c) 1-Chloro- 1, 1, diethylmethanc
(d) 1-Chloro- 1 -ethylpropane
Answer:
(a) 3-Chioropentane

Question 6.
C-X bond is strongest in …………
(a) Chioromeihane
(b) lodomethane
(c) Bromomethane
(d) Fluoromethanc
Answer:
(d) Fluoromethane

Question 7.
In the reaction X + N₂, X is …………

Answer:

Question 8.
Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH^– ion?

(a) (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(c) (iii)

Question 9.
The treatment of ethyl formate with excess of RMgX gives –

Answer:
(c) R—CHO

Question 10.
Benzene reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of FeCl₂ and in absence of sunlight to form –
(a) Chiorobenzene
(b) Benzyl chloride
(c) Benzal chloride
(d) Benzene hexachloride
Answer:
(a) Chiorobenzene

Question 11.
The name of C₂F₄Cl₂ is –
(a) Freon – 112
(b) Freon – 113
(c) Freon – 114
(d) Freon – 115
Answer:
(c) Freon – 114

Question 12.
Which of the following reagent is helpful to differentiate ethylene dichloride and ethylidene chloride?
(a) Zn / methanol
(b) KOH / ethanol
(c) Aqueous KOH
(d) ZnCl₂ / Cone. HCl
Answer:
(e) Aqueous KOH

Question 13.
Match the compounds given in Column I with suitable items given in Column II.
Answer:

Code:
(a) A→2,B→4,C→1,D→3
(b) A→3,B→2,C→4,D→1
(c) A→1,B→2,C→3,D→4
(d) A→3,B→1,C→4,D→2
Answer:
(d) A→3,B→1,C→4,D→2

Question 14.
Assertion : in monohaloarenes, electrophilic substitution occurs at oriho and para positions.
Reason : Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
(a) If both assertion and reason arc true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 15.
Consider the reaction, CH₃CH₂CH₂Br + NaCN → CH₃CH₂CH₂CN + NaBr This reaction will be the fastest in …………
(a) ethanol
(b) methanol
(c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl forrnamide)
(d) water
Answer:
(c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl fonuarnide)

Question 16.
Freon-12 is manufactured from tetrachioromethane by …………
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Swarts reaction
(c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl tòrmamide)
(d) water
Answer:
(c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl formarnide)

Question 16.
Frcon-12 is manufactured from tetrachioromethane by …………
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Swans reaction
(c) Haloform reaction
(d) Gattennann reaction
Answer:
(b) Swarts reaction

Question 17.
The most easily hydrolysed molecule under S_N¹ condition is …………
(a) allyl chloride
(b) ethyl chloride
(c) isopropyl chloride
(d) benzyl chloride
Answer:
(a) benzyl chloride

Question 18.
The carbocation formed in S_N¹ reaction of alkyl halide in the slow step is …………
(a) sp³ hybridised
(b) sp² hybridised
(c) sp hybridised
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) sp² hybridised

Question 19.
The major products obtained when chiorobenzene is nitrated with HNO₃ and cone. H₂SO₄
(a) 1-chloro-4-nitrobenzenc
(b) 1-chloro-2-n itrobenzene
(c) 1-chloro-3-n itroberizene
(d) 1-chloro- 1 -nitrobenzene
Answer:
(a) 1 -chloro-4-nitrobenzene

Question 20.
Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?

Answer:

Question 21.
Ethylidene chloride on treatment with aqueous KOH gives …………
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) ehtylene glycol
(c) formaldehyde
(d) glyoxal
Answer:
(a) acetaldehyde

Question 22.
The raw material for Rasching process is …………
(a) chiorobenzene
(b) phenol
(c) benzene
(d) anisole
Answer:
(c) benzene

Question 23.
Chloroform reacts with nitric acid to produce …………
(a) nitro-toluene
(b) nitro-glycerine
(c) chloropicrin
(d) chioropicric acid
Answer:
(c) chioropicrin

Question 24
Acetone X, X is …………
(a) 2-propanol
(b) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(c) 1 -propanol
(d) acetonol
Answer:
(b) 2-methyl-2-propanol

Question 25.
Silver propionate when refluxed with Bromine in carbon tetrachioride gives …………
(a) propionic acid
(b) chioroethane
(c) bromoethane
(d) chioropropane
Answer:
(c) bromoethane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Short Answer Questions

Question 26.
Classify the following compounds in the form of alkyl. allylic, vinyl, benzylic halides:
(a) CH₃-CH = CH-Cl
(b) C₆H₅CH₂I

(d) CH₂ = CH – Cl
Answer:
(a) CH₃-CH = CH-Cl – Allylic halide
(b) C₆H₅CH₂ – Benzylic halide

(d) CH₂ = CHCl – Vinyl halide

Question 27.
Why chlorination of methane is not possible in dark?
Answer:
The reaction of chlorine and methane is a free radical reaction under the influence of light energy. Chlorine molecules first split into two Cl atoms or radicals. These are both very reactive species in contact with methane they form methyl radical and HCl.

Methyl radical further reacts with Cl to give CH₃Cl and another Cl atom thus of a chain reaction. So this reaction takes place only under the influence of light. Hence the reaction does not take place in dark conditions.

Question 28.
How will you prepare n-propyl iodide from n-propyl bromide?
Answer:
Finkelstein reaction:
n-propyl bromide on heating with a concentrated solution of sodium iodide in dry acetone gives n-propyl iodide. This S_N² reaction is called the Finkelstein reaction.

Question 29.
Which alkyl halide from the following pair is –
1. chiral
2. undergoes faster S_N² reaction?

Answer:
1.

Here the C* is chiral carbon atom and it is surrounded by four different groups. Br
2. i.e., 1-chlorobutane undergoes faster S_N² reaction. CH₃-CH₂-CH₂Cl is a primary alkyl halide and so it undergoes faster S_N² reaction.

Question 30.
How does chiorobenzene react with sodium in the presence of ether? What is the name of the reaction?
Answer:
Chiorobenzene when heated with sodium in ether solution will forrn biphenyl as the product. This reaction is called fitting reaction.

Question 31.
Give reasons for polarity of C-X bond in haloalkancs.
Answer:

Carbon halogen bond is a polar bond as halogens are more electronegative than carbon.
The carbon atom exhibits a partial positive change (δ⁺) and halogen atom acquires a partial negative change. (δ^–)

Question 32.
Why is it necessary to avoid even traces of moisture during the use of Grignard reagent?
Answer:
Grignard reagents are highly reactive substances. They react with any source of proton to form hydrocarbons. Even water is sufficiently acidic to convert it into the corresponding hydrocarbon. So it is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture with the Grignard reagent as they arc highly reactive.

Question 33.
What happens when acetyl chloride is treated with excess of CH₃ MgI?
Answer:
When acetyl chloride is treated with excess of Grignard reagent, the product formed is tertiary butyl alcohol.

Question 34.
Arrange the following alkyl halideïniiicreasing order of bond enthalpy of RX: CH₃Br, CH₃F, CH₃Cl, CH₃I. increasing order of bond enthalpy of RX is …………
Answer:
CH₃ I bond enthalpy 234 kJ mol^-1
CH₃ Br bond enthalpy 293 kJ mol^-1
CH₃ Cl bond enthalpy 351 kJ mol^-1
CH₃ F bond enthalpy 452 kJ mol^-1
CH₃ F > CH₃ Cl> CH₃Br < CH₃ I

Question 35.
What happens when chloroform reacts with oxygen in the presence of sunlight?
Answer:
Chloroform undergoes oxidation in the presence of sunlight and air to form phosgene (carboxyl chloride)

Since phosgene is very poisonous, therefore its presence makes chloroform unfit for use as an anesthetic.

Question 36.
Write down the possible isomers of C₅H₁₁Br and give their IUPAC and common names.
Answer:
C₅H₁₁Br: 8 isomers are possible.

Question 37.
Mention any three methods of preparation of haloalkanes from alcohols.
Answer:
Haloalkanes are prepared from alcohols by treating with –

HCl
PCl₅
SO₂Cl₂

1. Reaction of alcohol with hydrogen halide:

2. Reaction of alcohol with phosphorous halide:

3. Reaction of alcohol with thionyl chloride:

Question 38.
Compare S_N¹ and S_N² reaction mechanisms.
Answer:
S_N¹ Mechanism:
1. It is a unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction of the first order.
2. It takes place in two steps.
3. It leads to racemization.
4. It mostly takes place in tertiary alkyl halides.
5. The rate of the reaction depends only on the concentration of substrate and so it is a first-order reaction.
Step – I

Step – II

S_N² Mechanism:
1. It is a bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction of second order.
2. It takes place in one step.
3. It leads to the invention of configuration.
4. It mostly takes place in primary alkyl halides.
5. The rate of the reaction depends on the concentration of both the substrate as well as the nucleophile and so it is a second-order reaction.

Question 39.
Compare S_N¹ and S_N² reaction mechanisms.

Answer:

Question 40.
Discuss the aromatic nucleophilic substitution reactions of chlorobenzene.
Answer:
Aromatic nucleophilic substitution reactions:
Dow’s process:

Question 41.
Account for the following –
1. t-butyl chloride reacts with aqueous KOH by S_N¹ mechanism while n-butyl chloride reacts with S_N² mechanism.
2. p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of o-and m-dichlorobenzene.
Answer:
1. In t-butyl chloride, there is niore steric hindrance and it involves formation of a stable tertiary carbocation. Therefore it reacts with KOH by S_N¹mechanism rather than S_N²mechanism because S_N¹mechanism is faourable in case of steric crowding and is directly proportional to partial positive charge on carbon atom. In n-butyl chloride, there is least steric hindrance and involves the formation of less stable primary carbocation. Thus it takes place in one step and is favoured by S_N² mechanism.

2. Melting point of p – dichlorobenzene is higher than that of ortho and meta-dichlorobenzene. This is due to the fact that it has a symmetrical structure and therefore, its molecules can easily pack closely in the crystal lattice. p-dichlorobenzene being more symmetrical fits closely in the crystal lattice and has stronger intermolecular attraction than o & m isomers. So p-isomer has high melting point than the corresponding o & m-isomers.

Question 42.
In an experiment ethyl iodide in ether is allowed to stand over magnesium pieces. Magnesium dissolves and the product is formed
(a) Name the product and write the equation for the reaction.
(b) Why all the reagents used in the reaction should be dry? Explain.
(c) How is acetone prepared from the product obtained in the experiment?
Answer:
(a) When ethyl iodide in ether is allowed to stand over magnesium pieces. the product formed will be Ethyl magnesium iodide.

(b) Gngnard reagent are highly reactive compounds and react with any source of proton to give hydrocarbons. Even when water is there, it is sufficiently acidic to convert it into the corresponding hydrocarbon. So it is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture with the grignard reagent as they are highly reactive. That is why the all reagents used in the reaction should be dry.

Methyl magnesium iodide reacts with acetyl chloride to form acetone.

Question 43.
Write a chemical reaction useful to prepare the following:
1. Freon- 12 from carbon tetrachioride.
2. Carbon tetrachioride from carbon disulphide.
Answer:
1. Freon-12 from carbon tetrachioride:
Freon- 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachioride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride. This is called “swartz reaction”.

2. Carbon tetrachioride from carbon disuiphide:
Carbon disuiphide reacts with chlorine gas in the presence ofanhydrous AlCl₃ as catalyst to give carbon tetrachloridc.

Question 44.
What are Freons? Discuss their uses and environmental effects.
Answer:
Freons are the chiorofluoro derivatives of methane and ethane.
Freon is represented as Freon – cba
Where, c = number of carbon atoms, b = number of hydrogen atoms, a = total number of fluorine atoms.
CF₂Cl₂ = 0
c = 1 – 1 = 0
H = 0 +1 = 1
F = 2
So Freon – 12 is CF₂Cl₂

Uses of Freons:

Freons are used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
it is used as a propellant for aerosols and foams.
it is used as a propellant for foams to spray out deodorants, shaving creams and insecticides.

Environmental effects of Freons:
1. Freon gas is a very powerful greenhouse gas which means that it traps the heat normally radiated from the earth out into space. This causes the earth’s temperature to increase, resulting in rising sea levels, droughts. stronger storms, flash floods and a host of another very unpleasant effect.

2. As freon moves throughout the air, its chemical ingredients cause depletion of ozone layer. Depletion of ozone increases the amount of ultraviolet radiation that reaches the earth’s surface, resulting in serious risk to human health. High levels of ozone, in turn, causes respiratory problems and can also kill olants.

Question 45.
Predict the products when bromoethane is treated with the fòllowing:
1. KNO₂
2. AgNO₂
Answer:
1. When bromoethane is treated with KNO₂ the product formed is Ethyl nitrite.

2. When bromoethane is treated with AgNO₂ nitroethane will be formed as the product.

Question 46.
Explain the mechanism of S_N¹ reaction by highlighting the stereochemistry behind it.
Answer:
1. S_N¹ stands for unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction of first order reaction.
2. The rate of the following S_N¹ reaction depends upon the concentration of alkyl halide
(RX) and it is independent of the concentration of the nucicophile (OH^– ) used.
3. R-Cl + OH^– R – OH + Cl^–
4. This S_N¹ reaction follows first order kinetics and it occurs in two steps:
5. S_N¹ reaction mechanism takes place in tertiary butyl bromide with aqueous KOH a follows:

6. the 2 steps of the reaction are:
Step 1:
Formation of carbocation:
The polar C-Br bond breaks first forming a carbocation and bromide ion. This step is slow and hence it is the rate determining step.

The carbocation has two equivalent lobes of the vaccant 2p orbital, So it can react equally fast form either face.

Step 2:
The nucleophile immediately reacts with the carbocation. This step is fast and hence does not affect the rate of the reaction.

The nucleophile OH can attack carbocation from both the sides.

Question 47.
Write short notes on the the following:
1. Raschig process
2. Dows Process
3. Darzens process
Answer:
1. Raschig process:
Chiorobenzene is commercially prepared by passing a mixture of benzene vapour in air and HUt over heated cupric chloride.

2. Dow’s process:
Chlorobenzene is boiled with Sodium hydroxide to get Phenol. This reaction is called Dow’s process.

3. Darzens process:
Ethanol reacts with SOCl, in the presence of pyridine to form chloroethane. This reaction is called Darzens process.

Question 48.
Starting from CH₃MgI. How will you prepare the following?

Acetic acid
Acetone
Ethyl acetate
Isopropyl alcohol
Methyl cyanide

Answer:
1. Acetic acid from grignard reagent:

2. Acetone from Gngnard reagent:

3. Ethyl acetate from Grignard reagent:

4. Isopropyl alcohol from Grignard reagent:

5. Methyl cyanide form Grignard reagent:

Question 49.
Complete the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 50.
Explain the preparation of the following compounds:

DDT
Chloroform
Biphenyl
Chloropicrin
Freon-12

Answer:
1. DUT

2. Chloroform:

3. Biphenyl:
Fittig reaction:

4. Chioropicrin.

5. Freon – 12.

Question 51.
An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C₂H₅Cl reacts with KOH gives compounds (B) and with alcoholic KOH gives compound (C). Identify (A), (B) and (C)
Answer:

1. An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₅Cl is identified as Chioroethane with molecular formula CH₂-CH₂Cl from the formula.

2. Chioroethane reacts with aqueous KOH to give ethanol, i.e., Aqueous C₂H₅OH as (B) by substitution reaction.

3. ChIooethane reacts with alcoholic KOH to give ethene C₂H₄ as (C) by elimination reaction.

Question 52.
The simplest alkene (A) reacts with HCl to form a compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with ammonia to form compound (C) of molecular formula C₂H₂N. Compound (C) undergoes carbylarnine test. Identify (A), (B), and (C).
Answer:

1. The simplest alkene (A) is CH₂ = CH₂, ethene.

2. Ethene reacts with HCl to give Chioroethane CH₂-CH₂Cl as (B) by addition reaction.

3. Chioroethane reacts with ammonia to give Ethylamine CH₃-CH₂ NH₂ as (C). It is a primary amine and the Carbylamine test is the characteristic test for 1° amine.

Question 53.
A hydrocarbon C₃H₆ (A) reacts with HBr to form compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with aqueous potassium hydroxide to give (C) of molecular formula C₃H₈O. What are (A) (B) and (C). Explain the reactions.
Answer:

1. The hydrocarbon with molecular formula C₃H₆ (A) is identified as propene,
CH₃-CH = CH₂

2. Propene reacts with HBr to form brornopropane CH₃—CH₂—CH₂Br as (B).

3. 1 -bromopropanc react with aqueous potassium hydroxide to give 1 -propanol
CH₃ – CH₂ CH₂OH as (C).

4. 2-bromo propane reacts with aqueous KOH to give 2-propanol as (C)

Question 54.
Two isomers (A) and (B) have the same molecular formula C₂H₄Cl₂. Compound (A) reacts with aqueous KOK, gives compound (C) of molecular formula C₂H₄O. Compound (B) reacts with aqueous KOH, gives compound (D) of molecular formula C₂H₆O₂. Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Answer:

1. The compounds (A) and (B) with the molecular formula C₂H₄Cl₂ are and respectively with IUPAC names: 1, 1-dichloroethane (A) and 1.

2. 1, 1-dichloroethane reacts with aqueous KOH tp give CH₃CHO Acetaldehyde as (C).

3. 1 ,2-dichloroethane reacts with aqueous KOH to give ethylene glycol as (D).

[Evaluate Yourself ]

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC name of the following:

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the structure of the following compounds:

1-Bromo-4-cthylcyclo hexane
1 4-Dichlorobut-2-ene
2 Chloro-3-methyl pentane

Answer:
1. 1-Bromo-4 ethylcyclo hexane

2. 1. 4-Dichioro but-2-ene

3. 2-Çhloro-3-methyl pentane

Question 3.
Write all possible chain isomers with molecular formula C₅H₁₁Cl
Answer:
C₅H₁₁Cl:
8 isomers arc possible. These are –

Question 4.
neo-pentyl bromide undergoes nucleophilic substitution reactions very slowly. Justify.
Answer:
1. neo-pentyl bromide undergoes nucleophilic substitution reactions very slowly due to steric hindrance of many alkyl groups. When bromide is attached to neo-pentyl carbon atom, the heterolytic cleavage of C-Br takes place very slowly and substitution is also a very slow reaction.

2. Due to bulky neo-pentyl group, it becomes difficult for a nucleophile to attack from the back side of carbon having C-Br bond.

3. Splitting of C-Br gives a primary carbocation which is very less stable. So neo-pentyl bromide undergoes nucleophilic substitution reactions very slowly.

Question 5.
Why Grignard reagent should be prepared in anhydrous condition’?
Answer:
Grignard reagent are highly reactive species and react with any source of proton to give hydrocarbons. Even when water is there, it is sufficiently acidic to convert it into the corresponding hydrocarbon. So it is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture while preparing grignard reagent as they are highly reactive and that is why gngnard reagent should be prepared in anhydrous conditions.

Question 6.
Haloalkanes undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction whereas haloarenes undergo electrophilic substitution reaction. Comment.
Answer:
Haloalkanes undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions due to high clectronegativity of the halogen atom. The C-X bond in haloalkanes is slightly polar, thereby the C atom acquires a slight positive charge in C-X bond. [lence C atom is a good target for attack for nucleophiles. Therefore C-X atom of haloalkanes is replaced by a nucleophile easily.

On the other hand in haloarenes, the halogen atom releases electron to the benzene nucleus relatively electron rich with respect to the halogen atom. As a result the electrophilic attack occurs at ortho and para positions. Hence haloarenes undergo electrophilic substitution reactions.

Question 7.
Chloroform is kept with a little ethyl alcohol in a dark coloured bottle. Why?
Answer:
1. Chlorofòrm is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas, carboxyl chloride (phosgene). it is therefore stored in closed dark coloured bottles completely filled so that air is kept out.

2. With the use of 1% ethanol we can stabilise chloroform, because ethanol can convert the poisonous COCl₂ gas into non poisonous diethyl carbonate.
COCl₂ + 2C₂H₅OH CO(OC₂H₅)₂ + 2HCl

Question 8.
What is the IUPAC name of the insecticide DDT? Why is their use banned in most of the countries?
Answer:
1. The IUPAC name of the insecticide DDT isp, p-dichloro-diphenyl trichioroethane.
2. Even DDT is an effective insecticide. Now-adays it is banned because of its long term toxic effects.
3. DDT is very persistent in the environment and it has a high affinity for fatty tissues. As a result, DDT gets accumulated in animal tissue fat, in particular that of birds of prey with subsequent thinning of their eggs shells and impacting their rate of reproduction. That is why DDT is banned in most of the countries.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is 1° alkyl halide
a) R – CH₂ – X
b) R₂CHX
C) R₃C – X
d) R – H
Answer:
a) R – CH₂ – X

Question 2.
Which of the following is a secondary haloalkane?
(a) Bromoethane
(b) 2-Chioropropane
(c) 2-Jodo-2-methylpropane
(d) 1-Chloropropane
Answer:
(b) 2-Chioropropane

Question 3.
Ethylidene dibromide is
a) CH₃CH₂Br
b) Br – CH₂ – CH₂ – Br
c) CH₃ – CHBr₂
d) CH₂ = CH Br
Answer:
c) CH₃ – CHBr₂

Question 4.
How many isomers are possible for the formula C₅H₁₁Br?
(a) 11
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 5.
Vicinal dihalide is
a) CH₃CH₂Br
b) Br – CH₂ – CH₂ – Br
c) CH₃ – CHBr₂
d) CH₂ = CHBr
Answer:
b) Br – CH₂ – CH₂ – Br

Question 6.
Which of the following mechanism is followed in the halogenation of alkanes in the presence of U-V light?
(a) Nucleophilic substitution
(b) Electrophilic addition
(c) Free radical substitution
(d) Elimination reaction
Answer:
(c) Free radical substitution

Question 7.
For the preparation of alkyl halides from alcohols which among the following cannot be used
a) PCl₅
b) SOCl₂
c) PCl₃
d) NaCl
Answer:
d) NaCl

Question 8.
Which of the following reagent is not used to convert alcohol to haloalkane?
(a) H-X
(b) PX₅
(c) CCl₄
(d) SOCl₂
Answer:
(c) CCl₄

Question 9.
In the preparation of alkyl halide from alkane and halogen which of the following reaction involved
a) Free radical substitution
b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Electrophilic substitution
d) Nucleophilic substitution
Answer:
a) Free radical substitution

Question 10.
Identify the correct order of boiling point of haloalkanes?

Answer:

Question 11.
When alkyl halide reacts with moist Ag₂O gives
a) alcohol
b) ether
c) alkane
d) Alkene
Answer:
a) alcohol

Question 12.
Which one following mechanism will be followed when Tertiary butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH?
(a) S_N¹ mechanism
(b) E₁ mechanism
(c) S_N² mechanism
(d) E₂ mechanism
Answer:
(b) E₁ mechanism

Question 13.
Cyanide is formed as the major product of the reaction when alkyl halide is treated with one of the following :
a) AgNO₂
b) KNO₂
c) AgCN
d) KCN
Answer:
c) AgCN

Question 14.
Which one of the following react with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis will yield primary alcohol?
(a) CH₃ CHO
(b) HCHO
(c) CH₃ COCH₃
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(b) HCHO

Question 15.
Treatment of ammonia with excess ethyl chloride will yield
a) Diethylamine
b) Ethane
c) Tetra ethyl ammonium chloride
d) methylamine
Answer:
c) Tetra ethyl ammonium chloride

Question 16.
Which one of the following reacts with CH₃Mg I followed by hydrolysis to yield tert. butyl alchol?
(a) CH₃CHO
(b) HCHO
(c) CH₃COOC₂H₅
(d) CH₃COCH₃
Answer:
(d) CH₃COCH₃

Question 17.
Which of the following is used as a refrigerant?
a) CH₃COCH₃
b) CCl₄
c) C₂H₅Cl
d) CF₄
Answer:
c) C₂H₅Cl

Question 18.
Which one of the following reagent reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to give ethyl acetate?
(a) Chiorodimethyl ether
(b) Ethyl chloroformate
(c) Ethyl formate
(d) Acetaldehyde
Answer:
(b) Ethyl chloroformate

Question 19.
The rate of an SN² reaction is maximum when the solvent is
a) Methyl alcohol
b) Water
c) Dimethyl sulphoxide
d) Benzene
Answer:
c) Dimethyl sulphoxide

Question 20.
Which one of the following is a gemdihalide?
(a) CH₃CHCl₂

(c) CH₃-CH₂Cl
(d) C₆H₄Cl₂
Answer:
(a) CH₃CHCl₂

Question 21.
The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is
a) CH₃F > CH₃Cl > CH₃Br > CH₃I
b) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl > CH₃F
c) CH₃I > CH₃Cl > CH₃Br > CH₃F
d) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃F > CH₃Cl
Answer:
b) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl > CH₃F

Question 22.
Which one of the following is used in the conversion of ethylidene dichloride to Acetylene?
(a) Zn + Methanol
(b) KOH + Ethanol
(c) Aqueous NaOH
(d) Alcoholic KOH
Answer:
(b) KOH + Ethanol

Question 23.
SN² mechanism proceeds through the formation of a
a) carbocation
b) transition state
c) free radical
d) carbanion
Answer:
b) transition state

Question 24.
Which one of the following is used as an insecticide and as a soil sterilizing agent?
(a) Chloroform
(b) Chlorai
(c) Chioropicrin
(d) Tetrachioromethane
Answer;
(c) Chloropicrin

Question 25.
Chloro benzene is prepared commercially by
a) Dow’s process
b) Decon’s process
c) Raschig process
d) Etard’s process
Answer:
c) Raschig process

Question 26.
Which one of the following is used as a propellant for aerosols and foams?
(a) Freons
(b) Methylidene chloride
(c) Chlorai
(d) Chloroform
Answer:
(a) Freons

Question 27.

the product X is –

Question 28.
Which one of the following will undergo S_N¹ reaction faster?

Answer:

Question 29.
An organic compound which produces a bluish-green coloured flame on heating in the presence of copper is,
a) chlorobenzene
b) benzaldehyde
c) aniline
d) benzoic acid
Answer:
a) chlorobenzene

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:
“17” />

Question 6.

Answer:

III. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
is used in the treatment of typhoid ……….
Answer:
chloramphenicol

Question 2.
………. is used in the treatment of malaria
Answer:
Chloroquine

Question 3.
………. is used as an anesthetic ……….
Answer:
Halothane

Question 4.
………. is used for cleaning electronic equipment……….
Answer:
Trichloroethylene

Question 5.
The IUPAC name of CH₂=CH-CH₂Cl is ……….
Answer:
3-Chioro-prop- 1-ene

Question 6.
The structure of Vinyl iodide is ……….
Answer:
CH₂=CHI

Question 7.
2-iodo-2-methylpropane belongs to type ……….
Answer:
3°haloalkanes

Question 8.
The structure of 2-Iodo-2-methyl propane is ………
Answer:

Question 9.

the IUPAC name of this compound is ……..
Answer:
1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane

Question 10.
The IUPAC name of CH₂=CHCl is ………
Answer:
Chioroethene

Question 11.
The IUPAC name of is ………
Answer:
2-Bromo-3-chloro-2, 4-dimethylpentane.

Question 12.
The IUPAC name of is ………
Answer:
3-Chloro-2-methyl-prop- 1 -ene

Question 13.
The reactivity of haloacids (HCl, HBr, HI) with alcohol is in the order ………
Answer:
HI > HBr > HCl

Question 14.
The decreasing order of bond length among alkyl halides (CH₂I, CH₂ Br, CH₃F, CH₃Cl ) is in the order ………
Answer:
CH₃F < CH₃Cl < CH₃Br < CH₃I

Question 15.
The bond strength of C-X for the C-Cl, C-Br, C-I, C-F decreases in the order is ………
Answer:
C-F < C-Cl<C-Br < C-I

Question 16.
The catalyst used in Darzen halogenation of alcohol is ………
Answer:
Pyridine

Question 17.
In Finkeistein reaction, the mechanism followed is
Answer:
S_N²

Question 18.
Silver salt of fatty acid is converted to bromo alkanc by ………
Answer:
Hunsdicker reaction

Question 19.
In Swarts reaction, chioroalkane is converted to ………
Answer:
Fluoroalkane.

Question 20.
The conversion of Bromo alkane to Fluro alkane by heating with AgF is called ………
Answer:
Swartz reaction

Question 21.
The decreasing order of boiling point of haloalkanes CH₃ Br , CH₃Cl , CH₃F CH₃I is ………
Answer:
CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃CI > CH₃F

Question 22.
The correct increasing order of boiling point of haloalkanes CH₃Cl , CHCl₃ , CH₂Cl₂ , CCl₄ is ………
Answer:
CCl₄> CHCl₃> CH₂Cl₂ > CH₃Cl

Question 23.
Haloalkanes reacts with aqueous solution of KOH to form ………
Answer:
Alcohol

Question 24.
Haloalkane reacts with alcoholic solution of KOH to form ………
Answer:
Alkene

Question 25.
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic AgCN to form ………
Answer:
CH₃CH₂NC

Question 26.
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic KNO₂ to form ………
Answer:
Ethyl nitrite

Question 27.
The reaction in which sodium alkoxide react with haloalkane to form ether in called ………
Answer:
Williamson’s synthesis

Question 28.
Primary alkyl halide react with aqueous NaOH follows ………
Answer:
S_N²

Question 29.
Tertiary butyl bromide reacts with aqueous KOH follows ………
Answer:
S_N² mechanism

Question 30.
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic KOH following mechanism. ………
Answer:
E₁

Question 31.
The product formed when tertiary butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH is ………
Answer:
Iso-butylene

Question 32.
When 2-bromobutane react with alcoholic KOH, the products formed are ………
Answer;
1-butene & 2-butene

Question 33.
The product formed when iodoethane is treated with HI in the presence of red phosphorous is ………
Answer:
CH₃-CH₃

Question 34.
……… is used as an antiseptic
Answer:
Iodoform

Question 35.
……… is used for extinguishing the fire caused by oil or petrol under the commercial name pyrene
Answer:
Tetrachioromethane

Question 36.
……… Ethyl formate reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to yield
Answer:
Acetaldehyde

Question 37.
……… Ethyl-methyl ether ethene is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide with
Answer:
Chioro-aimethyl-ether

Question 38.
The hybridised state of carbon in haloarenes is ………
Answer:
sp²

Question 39.
The catalyst used in the preparation of chiorobenzene from benzene is ………
Answer:
FeCl₃

Question 40.
In the Gattermann reaction of preparation of chiorobenzene from benzene, the catalyst used is ………
Answer:
Cu / HCl

Question 41.
The conversion of benzene diazoniurn chloride to chiorobenzene in the presence of Cu₂Cl₂ + HCl is named as ………
Answer:
Sandmeyer reaction

Question 42.
Fluorobenzene is prepared from benzene diazonium chloride by ………
Answer:
BaIz-Scheimann reaction

Question 43.
Conversion of benzene to chiorobenzene in the presence of CuCl₂/ HCl is named as ………..
Answer:
Gattermann reaction

Question 44.
The conversion of chiorobenzene to phenol by the action of NaOH is called ………..
Answer:
Dow’s process

Question 45.
In Wurtz fittig reaction, chiorohenzene is converted to by reacting it with ethyl chloride.
Answer:
Ethylbenzene

Question 46.
The product obtained in fittig reaction of chiorobenzene is ………..
Answer:
Biphenyl

Question 47.
The reagent used in the conversion of Chiorobenzene to Benzene is ………..
Answer:
Ni-Al/NaOH

Question 48.
The catalyst used in the preparation of Phenyl magnesium chloride from chiorobenzene is ………..
Answer:
THF

Question 49.
Iso-propylidene chloride is an example of ………..
Answer:
vicinal dihalide

Question 50.
The IUPAC name of is ………..
Answer:
1, 2-dibromo-2-methylpropane

Question 51.
The reagent used in the conversion of ethylene dichioride is ………..
Answer:
Zn + CH₃OH

Question 52.
Chloroform is converted to methylene-chioride by the action of ………..
Answer:
Zn + HCl and H₂/ Ni

Question 53.
The reagents used in the preparation of chloroform are ………..
Answer:
Ethanol + Bleaching powder

Question 54.
The formula of Chioropicrin is ………..
Answer:
CCl₃NO₂

Question 55.
The product formed when methylamine react with chloroform and alkali is ………..
Answer:
CH₃NC

Question 56.
The product formed when CCI4 reacts with hot water vapours is
Answer:
COCl₂

Question 57.
The formula of Freon -11 is ………..
Answer:
CFCl₃

Question 58.
The formula of Freon – 12 is ………..
Answer:
CF₂Cl₂

Question 59.
The catalyst used in the preparation of CCl₂F₂ from CCl₄ and HF is ………..
Answer:
SbCl₅

Question 60.
The reagents used to prepare DDT are ………..
Answer:
Chlorai and Chiorobenzene

Question 61.
……….. is used to kill various insects like housefly and mosquitoes.
Answer:
(c) DDT

Question 62.
The name of CFCl₃ is
Answer:
Freon-11

Question 63.
The treatment of acetone with excess of RMgX gives:
Answer:

Question 64.
The most easily hydrolysed molecule under S_N² reaction is………..
Answer:
Ten. butyl chloride

Question 65.
. The product ‘X’ is ………..
Answer:
Ethanol

Question 66.
The product X is ………..
Answer:
CH₄

Question 67.
On heatrng CHCl₃ with aqueous NaOH solution, the product formed is
Answer:
HCOONa

Question 68.
Depletion of ozone layer is caused by
Answer:
Freons

Question 69.
Chloropicrin is used as
Answer:
soil sterilizing agent

Question 70.
iodoform can be used as
Answer:
Antiseptic.

Question 71.
in an oil fire extinguisher, the compound used pyrene is chemically
Answer:
CCl₄

Question 72.
Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium metal leads to the formation of
Answer:
n-Butane

Question 73.
When chloroform is treated with primary amine and KOH, we get ………..
Answer:
Offensive odours

IV. Choose the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) CH₃Br
(b) CH₃-CH₂Br
(c) (CH₃)₃C-Br
(d) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂Br
Answer:
(c) (CH₃)₃C-Br. It is a haloalkane whereas others are 1° haloalkanes.

Question 2.
(a) Finkeistein reaction
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Swarts reaction
(d) Friedel crafts alkylation
Answer:
(d) Friedel crafts alkylation. It is used to prepare aromatic hydrocarbon whereas others are used to prepare alkanes.

Question 3.
(a) PCl₅
(b) SOCl₂
(c) HCl
(d) HF
Answer:
(cl) HF It is not used to prepare directly fluoro alkane whereas others are used to prepare directly chioro alkanes.

Question 4.
(a) Aerosol spray propellant
(b) Metal cleaning agent
(c) Anaesthetic agent
(d) Solvent in paint remover
Answer:
(c) Anaesthetic agent. It is not the use of methylene chloride whereas others are uses of methylene chloride.

V. Choose the correct pair.

Question 1.
(a) Chiorobenzene + chloral : DDT
(b) Chloroform + HNO₃ : Phosgene
(c) Chloroform + Zn / HCl : Methyl isocyanide
(d) Methane + 4Cl₂ : Carbon tetra chloride
Answer:
(c) Chlorobenzene + chloral : DDT

Question 2.
(a) Chloroform : Analgesic
(b) Freon : Propellant
(c) Chioropicrin : Antiseptic
(d) DDT : Soil sterilizing agent
Answer:
(b) Freon : Propellant

Question 3.
(a) Freon : Refrigerant
(b) DDT : Antiseptic
(c) Methylene : Soil sterilizing agent
(d) Iodotorni : Anaesthetic
Answer:
(a) Freon : Refrigerant

Question 4.
(a) HCOH + CH₃MgI : Secondary alcohol
(b) CH₃CHO + CH₃MgI : Tertiary alcohol
(c) CH₃COCH₃ + CH₃MgI : Primary alcohol
(d) CO₂ + CH₃MgI : Acetic acid
Answer:
(d) CO₂ + CH₃MgI : Acetic acid

Question 5.
(a) (C₃H)₃C-Cl + alcoholic KOH : S_N¹ reaction
(b) (CH₃)₃C-Cl + alcoholic KOH : E₁ reaction
(c) (CH₃)₃C-Cl + aqueous KOH : S_N² reaction
(cl) CH₃-Cl + aqueous KOH : S_N¹ reaction
Answer:
(b) (CH₃)₃C-Cl + alcoholic KOH : E₁ reaction

VI. Choose the incorrect pair.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.
(a) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl > CH₃F : decreasing order of boiling point
(b) CCl₄ > CHCl₃> CH₂Cl₂ > CH₃Cl : increasing order of boiling point
(c) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂Cl <CH₃ CH₂ Cl <CH₃Cl : increasing order of boiling point

Answer:
(c) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂Cl <CH₃ CH₂Cl <CH₃Cl : increasing order of boiling point

Question 3.
(a) (CH₃)₃ C-Br + aqueous KOH : S_N¹ reaction
(b) (CH₃)₃ C-Br + alcoholic KOH: E₁ reaction
(c) CH₃Br – aqueous KOH : E₂ reaction
(d) CH₃Br + aqueous KOH : S_N² reaction
Answer:
(c) CH3Br + aqueous KOH : E₂ reaction

Question 4.
(a) 1-chioro propane + Alcoholic KOH : Propene
(b) Tert.butyl bromide + Alcoholic KOH : Isobutylenc
(c) CH₃-CH₂I + HI + Red p : Ethanc
(d) CH₃CHO + CH₃Mg I : Ten. Butyl alcohol
Answer:
(d) CH₃CHO + CH₃Mg I : Ten. Butyl alcohol

Question 5.
(a) HCHO + CH₃MgI : Primary alcohol
(b) CH₃CHO + CH₃MgI : Secondary alcohol
(c) CH₃COCH₃ + CH₃MgI : Aromatic alcohol
(d)CO₂ + CH₃MgI : Acetic acid
Answer:
(c) CH₃COCH₃ + CH₃MgI : Aromatic alcohol

VII. Assertion & Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The C-I in CH₃X is weak.
Reason (R): Larger the size, greater is the bond length and weaker is the bond formed.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(a) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Haloalkanes have higher boiling point and melting point than the parent alkanes having the same number of carbon.
Reason (R): The intermolecular forces of attraction and dipole-dipole interactions are
stronger in haloalkanes.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Among isomenc halides, the boiling point decreases with increase in branching in alkyl group.
Reason (R): With the increase in branching, the molecule attains spherical shape with less surface area and fewer forces of interaction.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The melting point of para halóbenzene is higher than that of ortho and meta isomers.
Reason (R): The higher melting point of p-isomer is due to its symmetry which leads to more close packing of its molecules in the crystal and subsequently p-isomer have strong intermolecular attractive forces.
(a) both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of(A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A) : Haloarenes are insoluble in water.
Reason (R) : Haloarenes are able to form hydrogen bonds with water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(e) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A) : Haloarenes do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions readily.
Reason (R) : The C-X bond in aryl halides is short and stronger and also the aromatic ring is a center of high electron density.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(h) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Chloroform vapours can be used as an anaesthetic.
Reason (R): Chloroform vapours depresses the central nervous system and cause unconsciousness.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Nowadays chloroform is not used as an anaesthetic.
Reason (R): Chloroform undergoes oxidation in the presence of light and air to form highly poisonous phosgene.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(cl) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 9.
Assertion (A): DDT is banned nowadays.
Reason (R): DDT has a long-term toxic effect.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

VIII. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) Haloalkanes have higher boiling point than the parent alkane with same number of carbons because of strong inter molecular forces of attraction.
(b) The boiling point of haloalkanes decreases with the increase of halogen atoms.
(c) The boiling point of mono halo alkanes decreases with the increase in the number of carbon atoms.
(d) Halo alkanes are soluble in water.
Answer:
(a) Halo alkanes have higher boiling point than the parent alkane with same number of carbons because of strong inter molecular forces of attraction.

Question 2.
(a) Halo alkanes are soluble in water.
(b) The boiling point of halo alkanes increase with the increase in the number of halogen atoms.
(c) The melting point of mono halo alkane decrease with the increase in the number of carbon atoms.
(d) The density of alkyl halides are lesser than those of hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight.
Answer:
(b) The boiling point of halo alkanes increase with the increase in the number of halogen atoms.

Question 3.
(a) Williamson’s synthesis of ether is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(b) Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous potassium hydroxide is an example ofelimination reaction.
(c) Reaction of Tertiary butyl bromide with alcoholic KOH is an example of SN2 reaction.
(d) Reaction of Tertiary butyl bromide with alcoholic KOH is an example of E, reaction.
Answer:
(a) Williamson’s synthesis of ether is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC names of –

CH₂=CHCI
CH₂=CH-CH₂Br.

Answer:

CH₂=CHCl : Chloroethene
CH₂=CH-CH₂Br : 3-Bromo-prop- 1-ene

Question 2.
Write the structural formula of the following compounds:

2-Chloro-2-Methylpropane
1 -Bromo-2, 2-Dimethylpropane

Answer:
1. 2-Chloro-2-Methylpropane

2. 1 -Brorno-2, 2-dimethyipropane

Question 3.
How many isomers are possible for the formula C₃H₇F? Give their structures and names.
Answer:
C₃H₇F – 2 isomers are possible.
1. CH₃-CH₂-CH₂F – 1- fiuoropropene

Question 4.
Write the isomeric structures and names for the formula C₂H₄Cl₂.
Answer:

Ethylene dichioride (or) 1, 2-dichioroethane.

Ethylidene chloride (or) 2-dichioroethane.

Question 5.
Draw the structures of –

1-brorno-2, 3-dichiorobutane
2-bromo-3-chloro-2, 4-dimethyl pentane

Answer:
1. 1 -bromo-2, 3-dichiorobutane

2. 2-bromo-3-chloro-2, 4-dimethy 1 pentane

Question 6.
What happens when HI reacts with ten. butyl alcohol?
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the action of
(i) PCl₅
(ii) PCl₃ with ethanol.
Answer:

Question 8.
How does HBr react with propene?
Answer:
Propene react with HBr and follows Markovnikov’s rule.

Question 9.
How methane reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of light?
Answer:

Question 10.
Explain-Finkelstein reaction.
Answer:
Chioro (or) bromoalkane on heating with sodium iodide in dry acetone gives jodo alkane. This reaction is called Finkeistein reaction.
Answer:

Question 11.
Explain Swans reaction.
Answer:
Chioro (or) bromoalkanes on heating with AgF give fluoroalkanes. This reaction is called Swans reaction.

Question 12.
What happens when silver propionate reacts with Br, in CCl₄?
Answer:
Silver salt of fatty acids (CH₃CH₂COOAg), e.g., silver propionate treated with Br₂/ CCl₄ gives bromoalkane. This reaction is called Hunsdicker reaction.

Question 13.
What are organic metallic compounds? Give example.
Answer:
Organometallic compounds are organic compounds in which there is a direct carbon-metal bond
Example:
CH₃ Mg I – Methyl magnesium iodide
CH₃CH₂Mg Br – Ethyl magnesium bromide

Question 14.
CCl₄ > CHCl₃ > CH₂Cl₂ > CH₃Cl is the decreasing order of boiling point in haloalkanes. Give reason.
Answer:
The boiling point of chioro, bromo and iodoalkanes increases with increase in the number of halogen atoms. So the correct decreasing order of boiling point of haloalkanes is:
CCl₄> CHCl₃ > CH₂Cl₂> CH₃Cl.

Question 15.
Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling point. Give reason.
(CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl, CH₃CH₂Cl, CH₃Cl)
Answer:
The correct order of boiling point of haloalkanes is:
CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl > CH₃CH₂Cl > CH₃Cl.
The boiling point of monoalkanes increase with the increase in the number of carbon atoms.

Question 16.
Why haloalkanes arc insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents?
Answer:
Haloalkanes are polar covalent compounds, soluble in organic solvents, but insoluble in water because they are unable to form hydrogen bond with water molecules.

Question 17.
What happens when bromoethane is treated with moist silver oxide?
Answer:
When bromoethane is treated with moist silver oxide, ethanol will be formed as product:

Question 18.
Complete the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 19.
Explain the action of sodium hydrogen suiphide with bromoethane?
Answer:

Question 20.
Explain Williamson’s synthesis.
Answer:
Williamson’s synthesis:
Haloalkanes when boiled with sodium alkoxide gives the corresponding ether.

Question 21.
Explain the action of alcoholic potash with bromoethane.
Answer:
Elimination reaction takes place when alcoholic potash reacts with bromoethane:

Question 22.
State-Saytzeff’s rule.
Answer:
Some haloalkanes when treated with alcoholic KOH yield a mixture of olefins with different amounts. It is explained by Saytzeff’s rule which states that in a dehydrohalogenation reaction, the preferreed product is that alkene which has more number ofalkyl group attached to the doubly bonded carbon atom.

Question 23.
How will you convert 1-chioropropanc to propene?
Answer:

Question 24.
What is Grignard reagent? How is it prepared from ethyl bromide?
Answer:
When a solution of haloalkane in either is treated with magnesium, we will get alkyl magnesium halide known as Grignard reagent, ethyl magnesium bromide is prepared from ethyl bromide as:

Question 25.
How will you prepare ethyl lithium’?
Answer:
When bromoethane is treated with an active metal like lithium in the presence of dry ether, then ethyl lithium will be formed.

Question 26.
What is tetraethyl Lead? How is it prepared?
Answer:

Question 27.
Convert bromoethane to ethane.
Answer:

Question 28.
How is iodoethane converted to ethane?
Answer:

Question 29.
Starting from CH₃MgI, how will you prepare acetaldehyde?
Answer:

Question 30.
How will you get acetone from methyl manesium iodide?
Answer:

Question 31.
Explain the action of Ethyl chioroformate with Methyl magnesium iodide.
Answer:
Ethyl chioroformate reacts with Grignard reagent to form esters as follows:

Question 32.
Write the IUPAC names of:

Answer:
1 – bromo-4-fluoro-2-iodobenzene
1 – bromo-2-fluoro-4-iodobenzene

Question 33.
How is benzene directly converted to chiorobenzene?
Answer:

Question 34.
Explain Sandmeyer’s reaction.
Answer:
Sandmeyer’s reaction:
The reaction in which benzene-diazonium chloride is converted to chiorobenzene on heating it with Cu₂Cl₂/HCl is known as sand Meyer’s reaction.

Question 35.
Explain Gattcrrnann reaction.
Answer:
Gattermann reaction:
The reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with copper in the presence of HCl, chlorobenzene is formed, called Gatterrnann reaction.

Question 36.
How will you prepare iodobenzene?
Answer:

Question 37.
Explain-Balz-Schiernann reaction.
Answer:
Fluorobenzene is prepared by treating benzene diazonium chloride with fluoro boric acid. This reaction produces diazonium fluoroborate which on heating produce fluorobenzene. this reaction is called Balz-Schiernann reaction.

Question 38.
p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than ortho and meta dichlorobenzene. Why?
Answer:
The melting point of p-dichlorobenzene is higher than the melting point of the corresponding ortho and meta isomers. The higher melting leads to more close packing of its molecules in the crystal lattice and consequently strong intermolecular attractive forces which requires more energy for melting.
p-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene

Question 39.
Explain Wurtz-fìtting reaction.
Answer:
Wurtz-fitting reaction:
Chlorobenzene and chioroethane are heated with sodium in ether solution to form ethylbenzene. This reaction is called Wurtz-fìtting reaction.

Question 40.
How will you get benzene from chlorobenzene?
Answer:
Chiorobenzene is reduced with Ni-Al Alloy in the presence of NaOH to give benzene.

Question 41.
Explain about the preparation of phenyl magnesium chloride.
Answer:

Question 42.
How will you prepare ethylidcne dichioride from acetylene?
Answer:

Question 43.
What is gern-dihalide? Give one example and explain its preparation.
Answer:
1. If two halogen atoms are attached to one carbon atom of alkyl halide, it is named as gem dihalide. e.g., CH₃-CHCl₂ (ethylidene dichloride.)

2. Preparationof CH₃-CHCl₂:

Question 44.
Explain the action of zinc and HCl on chloroform.
Answer:

Question 45.
How does nickel react with chloroform?
Answer:

Question 46.
Convert methane to methylene chloride.
Answer:

Question 47.
Explain Carbylamine reaction. (or) Give the characteristic test for primary amine.
Answer:
Chlorofonn reacts with aliphatic or aromatic primary amines and alcoholic caustic potash to give foul smelling alkyl isocyanide (carbylamine).

Question 48.
How will you prepare carbon tetrachioride?
Answer:
The reaction of methane with excess of chlorine in the presence of sunlight give carbon tetrachioride as major product.

Question 49.
How will you convert carbon tetrachioride to chloroform?
Answer:

Question 50.
What are freons? How are they named? Give two examples.
Answer:
(i) The chioro-fluoro derivatives of methane and ethane are called freons.
(ii) Freon is represented as freon-cba
c = number of C atoms –
b = number of H atoms + 1
a = total number ofF atoms

Question 51.
What are ambident nucleophiles’? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Nucleophiles which can attack through two different sites are called ambident nucicophiles. For example, cyanide group is a resonance hybrid of two contributing structures and therefore it can act as a nucleophile in two different ways:

It can attack through carbon to form cyanides and through nitrogen to form isocyanides or carbylamines.

Question 52.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N² reaction with OH ion?
1. CH₃Br or CH₃I
2. (CH₃)₃CCl or CH₃Cl
Answer:
1. Since I^– ion a better-leaving group than Br^– ion, therefore CH₃I will react faster than CH₃Br in S_N² reaction with OH^– ion.
2. On steric grounds 1° alkyl halides are more reactive than tert alkyl halide in S_N² reactions. Therefore, CH₃Cl will react at a faster rate than (CH₃)₃CCl in an S_N² reaction with OH^– ion.

Question 53.
What happens when bromoethane reacts with alcoholic KCN and alcoholic AgCN?
Answer:
Reaction with alcoholic KCN:
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic KCN solution to form ethyl cyanides.
CH₃ – CH₂ – Br + KCN → CH₃ – CH₂ – CN + KBr
Bromoethane Ethyl cyanide

Reaction with alcoholic AgCN:
Haloalkanes react with alcoholic AgCN solution to form alkyl isocyanide.
CH₃CH₂Br + AgCN → CH₃CH₂NC + AgBr
Bromoethane Ethyl isocyanide

Question 54.
Give one example of each of the following reactions:
1. Wurtz Reaction
2. Wurtz – Fittig reaction
Answer:
1. Wurtz Reaction:
It involves the conversion of alkyl halides into an alkane.
Example:

2. Wurtz-Fittig reaction:
It involves the reaction of an aryl halide and alkyl halide to form the corresponding hydrocarbon.

Question 55.
How will you distinguish between the following pair of compounds:
1. Chloroform and carbon tetrachloride,
2. Benzyl alcohol and chiorobenzene.
Answer:
1. On heating chloroform and carbon tetrachloride with aniline with ethanoic acid and potassium hydroxide separately, chloroform forms a pungent-smelling isocyanide compound but carbon tetrachloride does not form this compound.

2. On adding sodium hydroxide and silver nitrate to both the compounds, benzyl chloride forms a white precipitate but chlorobenzene does not form any white precipitate.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Give one example with structure and name for each of the following compounds.
(a) Primary haloalkane
(b) Secondary haloalkane
(c) Tertiary haloalkane
Answer:
(a) Primary haloalkane

(b) Secondary haloalkane

Question 2.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₄H₉Cl with structures and names.
Answer:
C₄H₉Cl (4 isomers):

Question 3.

Answer:
For a compound with molecular formula C₄H₉Cl – 3 isomers (1°, 2°, 3°) arc possible. Among the isomeric alkyl halides, the boiling point decreases with the increase in branching in the alkyl chain. This is because with increase in branching, the molecule attains spherical shape with less surface area. As a result, the intermolecular forces become weak, resulting in lower boiling point. Therefore the boiling point decreases in the order:

Hence, (CH₃)₃ C-Cl has the lowest boiling point.

Question 4.
Explain ammonolysis of haloalkanes. (or) How excess of haloalkanc react with alcoholic ammonia?
Answer:
With excess of haloalkanes, ammonia react to give primary, secondary, tertiary amines along with quarternary ammonium salt:

Question 5.
Explain how bromoethane reacts with –
1. alcoholic KCN
2. alcoholic AgCN
Answer:
1. Bromoethanc reacts with alcoholic KCN to form ethyl cyanide.

2. Bromoethane reacts with alcoholic AgCN to form alkyl isocyanide.

Question 6.
The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH solution leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH solution, alkenes are the major product. Explain.
Answer:
In aqueous solution, KOH is almost completely ioniscd to give OH^– ions which being a strong nucleophile brings about a substitution reaction of alkyl halides to form alcohols. In aqueous solution, OH^– ions are highly hydrated. This solvation reduces the basic character of OH^– ions which therefore, abstract fails to abstract a hydrogen atom from the n-carbon of the alkyl chloride to form an alkene. In contrast, an alcoholic solution of KOH contains alkoxide (RO^–) ions which being a much stronger base than OH^– ions preferentially eliminates a molecule of HCl from an alkyl chloride to form alkenes.

Question 7.
Explain the action of alcoholic KOH with 2-bromobutanc.
Answer:

According to Saytzcff’s rule, when 2-bromobutanc reacts with alcoholic KOK, yields a mixture of olefins in different amounts.

(ii) In a dehydrohalogenation reaction, the preferred product is that alkene which has more number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon alkene.

Question 8.
Mention the uses of chloroform.
Answer:

Chloroform is used as a solvent in pharmaceutical industry.
It is used for producing pesticides and drugs.
It is used as an anaesthetic.

Question 9.
Write the uses of carbon tetrachloride.
Answer:

Carbon tetrachloride is used as dry cleaning agent.
It is used as a solvent for oils, fats and waxes
As the vapour of CCl₄ is non-combustible, it is used under the name pyrene for extinguishing the fire in oil or petrol.

Question 10.
What are ogranometallic compounds? Give one example. Explain the nature of the carbon-metal bond.
Answer:

Organometallic compounds are organic compounds in which there ¡s a direct carbon-metal bond.
Example : CH₃MgI. methyl magnesium iodide.
The carbon-magnesium bond in Grignard reagent is covalent but highly polar. The carbon atom is more electronegative than magnesium. Hence, the carbon atom has partial negative charge and magnesium atom has a partial positive charge.

Question 11.
How would you prepare acetic acid from methyl magnesium iodide?
Answer:
Solid carbon dioxide reacts with grignard reagent to form addition product which on hydrolysis yields acetic acid.

Question 12.
Explain the nature of C-X bond in haloarenes and its resonance structure.
Answer:

In haloarenes, the carbon atom is sp² hybridised. The sp² hybridised orbitais arc shorter and holds the electron pair bond more.
Halogen atom contains p-orbital with lone pair of electrons which interacts with π – orbitaIs of berizene ring to form extended conjugated system of π – orbitals.
The delocalisation of these electrons give double bond character to C-X bond. The resonance structure of halobenzene are given as:

Question 13.
Compare the bond length C-X in haloarenes and C-X in haloalkanes.
Answer:
1. Due to this double bond character of C-X bond in haloarenes, the C-X bond length is shorter length and stronger than in haloalkanes.
2. Example:

Question 14.
Write the uses of chloro benzene.
Answer:

Chloro benzene is used in the manufacture of pesticides like DDT
It is used as high boiling solvent in organic synthesis.
It is used as fibre – swelling agent in textile processing.

Question 15.
What are polyhalogen compounds? Give its types with examples.
Answer:

Carbon compounds containing more than one halogen atom are called polyhalogen compounds.
They are classified as
- gem dihalides
- Vicinal dihalides.

(a) Gem dihalide:
In this compound, two halogen atoms are attached to one carbon atom.
e.g, CH₃CHCl₂ – ethylidene chloride.

(b) Vicinal dihalide:
In this compound, two halogen atoms are attached to two adjacent carbon atoms.
1,2-dichloroethane

Question 16.
Give two examples for –
1. gem dihalide
2. vicinal dihalide.
Answer:
1. Gem dihalides:

2. Vicinal dihalides:

Question 17.
Explain two methods of preparation of ethylene diehioride.
Answer:
1. Addition of Cl₂ to Ethylene:

2. Action of PCl₅ on Ethylene glycol:

Question 18.
How would you distinguish gern-dihalides and iinal dihalides?
Answer:
(i) Gem-dihalides on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH gives an aldehyde or a ketone whereas vicinal dihalides on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH give glycols.

The above reaction can be used to distinguish between gem-dihalides and vicinal dihalides.

Question 19.
Explain the action of metallic zinc with –
(i) Ethylidene dichioride
(ii) Ethylene dichloridc.
Answer:

Question 20.
What happens when alcoholic KOH is treated with
(i) Ethylidene dichioride
(ii) Ethylene dich I onde?
Answer:
(i) Gem-dihalides and vicinal dihalides both on treatment with alcoholic KOH give alkynes.

Question 21.
Write the uses of methylene chloride.
Answer:
Methylene chloride is used as

aerosol spray propellant
the solvent in paint remover
process solvent in the manufacture of drugs
a metal cleaning solvent

Question 22.
Explain the laboratory preparation of chloroform.
Answer:
Haloform reaction:
Chloroform is prepared in the laboratory by the reaction between ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder followed by the distillation of the final product chloroform. Bleaching powder acts as a source of chlorine and calcium hydroxide. The reaction takes place in 3 steps.
Step 1:
Oxidation-

Step 2:
Chlorination-

Step 3:
Hydrolysis-

Question 23.
What is chloropicrin? How is it obtained? Mention its uses.
Answer:
1. Chioropicrin is CCl₃NO₂.

2. Chloroform reacts with nitric acid to form chioropicrin (trichioro-nitromethane):

3. Chioropicrin is used as an insecticide and soil sterilising agent.

Question 24.
What are the uses of freons?
Answer:

Freons are used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
It is used as a propellant for foams and aerosols.
It is used as a propellant for foams to spray out deodorants, shaving creams and insecticides.

Question 25.
What is DDT? How is it prepared’?
Answer:
(i) DDT is p, p’-dichloro-diphenyi-trichloroethane
(ii) DDT can be prepared by heating a mixture of chloro benzene with chlorai in the presence of conc. H₂SO₄

Question 26.
Mention the uses of DDT.
Answer:

DDT is used lo control certain insects which carries diseases like malaria and yellow fever.
It is used in farms to control some agricultural pests.
It is used in building construction as pest control agent.
It is used to kill certain kind of insects like housefly and mosquitoes due to its high and specific toxicity.

Question 27.
Write the equations for the preparation of I-iodobutane from:
(i) 1 -butanol
(ii) 1 -chiorobutane
(iii) but- 1-ene
Answer:

Question 28.
Explain why:

the dipole moment of chiorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
alkyl halides though polar, are immiscible with water?
Gringard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?

Answer:

Chlorobenzene is stabilised by resonance and there is negative charge on ‘Cl’ in 3 out of 5 resonating structures, therefore it has a lower dipole moment than cyclohexyl chloride in which there is no such negative charge.
Alkyl halides cannot form H-bond with water and cannot break H-bonds between water molecules, therefore they are insoluble in water.
Grignard reagents react with H₂O to form alkanes, therefore they are prepared under anhydrous conditions.

Question 29.
Explain as to why haloarenes arc much less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions?
Answer:
Haloarenes are much less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions due to the following reasons:

1. Resonance effect:
In haloarenes the electron pair on the halogen atom is in conjugation with the π – electrons of the ring and the following resonating structures are possible. C-Cl bond acquires a partial double bond character due to resonance. As a result, the bond cleavage in haloarenes is difficult than in case of haloalkanes and therefore they are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.

2. The C-Cl bond length in haloalkanes is 177 pm while in haloarenes it is 169 pm. Since it is difficult to break shorter bond than a longer bond. Therefore, haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.

Question 30.
Do the following conversions:
(i) Methyl bromide to acetone
(ii) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylacetic acid
Answer:

Question 31.
Give reasons for the following:

Ethyl iodide undergoes S_N² reactions faster than ethyl bromide.
(±) 2-Butanol is optically inactive.
C-X bond length in halobenzene is smaller than C-X bond length in CH₃-X.

Answer:

Because in ethyl iodide, iodide being the best leaving group among all the halide ions. Rate of S_N² reaction ability of leaving group.
(±) 2-hutanol is a racemic mixture which is optically inactive due to the external compensation.
Due to resonance in halobenzene, it has a smaller bond length value as compared to CH₃-X.

Question 32.
Write the structure of diphenyl. How is it prepared from chlorobcnzene?

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5 Marks Question And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the classification of organic compounds with examples.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the S_N² mechanism with suitable examples.
Answer:

S_N² reaction means bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction of second order.
The rate of S_N² reaction depends upon the concentration of both alkyl halides and the nucleophile.
This reaction involves the formation of a transition state in which both the reactant molecules are partially bonded to each other. The attack of nucleophile occurs from the backside.
The carbon at which substitution occurs has inverted configuration during the course of reaction just as an umbrella has the tendency to invert in a wind-storm. This inversion of configuration is called walden inversion.

Question 3.
S_N² reaction of an optically active haloalkane is accompanied by inversion of configuration at the asymmetric centre. Prove it.
Answer:
1. S_N² reaction of an optically active haloalkane (e.g., 2-bromo-octane) is accompanied by inversion of configuration at the asymmetric center.

2. When 2-bromooctane is heated with sodium hydroxide, 2-octanol is formed with inversion of configuration. (-) 2-bromo-octane on heating with sodium hydroxide gives (+) 2-octanol is formed in which -OH group occupies a position opposite to what bromine had occupied in the optically active haloalkane.

Question 4.
Explain E₂ reaction mechanism with a suitable example.
Answer:

E₂ reaction stands bimolecular elimination reaction of second order. The rate of E₂ reaction depends on the concentration of alkyl halide and the base.
Primary alkyl halide undergoes this reaction in the presence of alcoholic KOH.
It is a one step process in which the abstraction of the proton from the 3 carbon atom and expulsion of halide from the x carbon atom occur simultaneously.
The mechanism that follows is shown below:

Question 5.
Describe E₁ reaction mechanism with a suitable example.
Answer:
1. E₁ stands for unimolecular elimination reaction of first order.
2. Tertiary alkyl halides undergoes elimination reaction in the presence of alcoholic KOH.
3. It takes place in two steps.
4. Step 1.
Heterolytic fission to yield a carbocation:

5. Step 2.
Elimination of a proton from the fl-carbon to produce an alkene:

Question 6.
Starting from methyl magnesium iodide how would you prepare –

Ethanol
2-propanol
Tert-butyl alcohol.

Answer:
1. Ethanol:
Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgI to give an addition product which on hydrolysis yields ethanol.

2. 2-Propanol :
Acetaldehyde react with CH₃MgI to give an addition product which on hydrolysis yields 2-propanol.

Question 7.
Starting from methyl magnesium iodide, how would you prepare –

Ethyl methyl ether
methyl cyanide
methane.

Answer:
1. Ethyl methyl ether:
Lower halogenated ether reacts with grignard reagent to form higher ether.

2. Methyl cyanide:
Grignard reagent reacts 4rith cyanogen chloride to form alkyl cyanide.

3. Methane:
Grignard reagent reacts with waler to give methane as product.

Question 8.
Describe electrophilic substitution reaction of chiorohenzene with equations.
Answer:

Question 9.
An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₃H₆react with HBr in the presence of peroxide to give C₃H₇Br as Ⓑ Ⓑ on reaction with aqueous KOH gives © with molecular formula C₃H₈O. Identify Ⓐ Ⓑ and ©
Answer:
1. An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₃H₆ is CH₃-CH=CH₂, Propene

2. Propene Ⓐ reacts ith HRr in the presence of peroxide to give 1-bromopropane

3. 1-Bromopropane on reaction with aqueous KOH undergoes hydrolysis to give Propan- 1-ol. CH₃-CH₂-CH₂OH as ©

Question 10.
An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts with thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine gives Ⓑ C₂H₅Cl. Ⓑ on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives Ⓒ, C₂H₄. Ⓒ on treatmeni with Cl₂ gives C₂H₄Cl₂ as Ⓓ. Identify Ⓐ Ⓑ Ⓒ Ⓓ and explain the reaction.
Answer:
1. An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₂H₆O is Ethanol CH₃-CH₂OH.

2. Ethanol reacts with thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine to give CH₃-CH₂Cl Ⓑ as product.

3. Ethyl chloride on treatment with alcoholic KOH, undergoes dehydrohalogenation to give C₂H₄, ethylene Ⓒ as the product.

4. Ethylene on reaction with Cl₂ yield ethylene dichioride as Ⓓ as the product.

Question 11.
The simplest aromatic hydrocarbon C₆H₆ reacts Ⓑ on treatment with sodium hydroxide will (C₆H₅OH), Phenol, Ⓒ as the product. Also Cl₂ to give Ⓐ which on reaction with sodium hydroxide gives Ⓑ.Ⓑ of molecular formula C₆H₆O. Ⓑ on treatment with ammonia will give C₆H₇N as D. Identify Ⓐ, Ⓑ,Ⓒ, and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. The aromatic hydrocarbon Ⓑ is Benzene, C₆H₆.

2. Benzene reacts with Cl, to give chiorobenzene (C₆H₅Cl), as Ⓑ as the product.

3. Chiorobenzene Ⓑ reacts with sodium hydroxide to give (C₆H₅OH) phenol, Ⓒ as the product.

4. Chiorobenzene reacts with ammonia to give Aniline, C₆H₅NH₂ Ⓓ as the product.
Question 12.
An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₂H₂ reacts with HCl to give C₂H₄Cl₂ as Ⓑ. Ⓑ on reaction with aqueous KOH will give C₂H₄O as Ⓒ Identify Ⓐ, Ⓑ,Ⓒ and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula C₂H₂ is CH ≡ CH (Acetylene)

2. Acetylene Ⓐ reacts with HCl to give ethylene dichioride Ⓑ as the product.

3. Ethylidene dichioride on reaction with aqueous KOH will give acetaldehyde, © as the product.

Question 13.
Two isomers of formula C₄H₉Br are Ⓐ and B. Ⓐ on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives of molecular formula C₈H₈ by E₁ reaction. Ⓑ on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives Ⓓ and Ⓔ as products by Saytzefì’s rule. Idcnti’ A, B, C, D, E.
Answer:
1. C₄H₉Br: Two isomers may be there: Tert butyl bromide and

2. Ⓐ on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives iso butylene © as the product.

3. 2-bromobutane Ⓑ on reaction with alcoholic KOH follows Saytzeff s rule to give a mixture of olefins in different amounts.

Question 14.
A simple aromatic hydrocarbon Ⓐ reacts with Cl₂ to give Ⓑ of molecular formula C₆H₅Cl. Ⓑ on reaction with ethyl chloride along with sodium metal gives © of formula C₈H₁₀. © alone reacts with Na metal in the presence of ether to give Ⓓ C₁₂H₁₀. Identify Ⓐ Ⓑ Ⓒ & Ⓓ
Answer:
1. The simple aromatic hydrocarbon is C₆H₆. Benzene (A)

2. Benzene reacts with Cl₂ to give chiorobenzene.

3. Chiorobenzene reacts with ethyl chloride to form ethylbenzene, © as the product

4. Chiorobenzene on reaction Na metal gives Biphenyl compound © as the product.

Question 15.
An organic compound Ⓐ of molecular formula CH₂O reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to give Ⓑ of moLecular formula C₂H₆O. Ⓑ on reaction with PCl₅ gives Ⓑ. © on reaction with alcoholic KOK gives Ⓓ an alkene as the product. Identif’ Ⓐ Ⓑ Ⓒ Ⓓ and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. Ⓐ of molecular formula CH₂O is identified as HCHO, formaldehyde.

2. Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis to give ethanol, CH₃-CH₂OH B as the product.

3. Ethanol Ⓑ reacts with PCl₅ to give C₂H₅Cl, Ethyl chloride © as the product.

4. CH₃-CH₂Cl © on reaction with alcoholic KOH undergoes dehydrohalogenation to give ethylene CH₂=CH₃ Ⓓ as the product.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

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Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 2 Data Abstraction Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Abstraction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following functions that build the abstract data type?
(a) Constructors
(b) Destructors
(c) Recursive
(d) Nested
Answer:
(a) Constructors

Question 2.
Which of the following functions that retrieve information from the data type?
(a) Constructors
(b) Selectors
(c) Recursive
(d) Nested
Answer:
(b) Selectors

Question 3.
The data structure which is a mutable ordered sequence of elements is called ………………………
(a) Built in
(b) List
(c) Tuple
(d) Derived data
Answer:
(b) List

Question 4.
A sequence of immutable objects is called ………………………
(a) Built in
(b) List
(c) Tuple
(d) Derived data
Answer:
(c) Tuple

Question 5.
The data type whose representation is known are called ………………………
(a) Built in data type
(b) Derived data type
(c) Concrete data type
(d) Abstract data type
Answer:
(c) Concrete data type

Question 6.
The data type whose representation is unknown are called ………………………
(a) Built in data type
(b) Derived data type
(c) Concrete data type
(d) Abstract datatype
Answer:
(d) Abstract datatype

Question 7.
Which of the following is a compound structure?
(a) Pair
(b) Triplet
(c) Single
(d) Quadrat
Answer:
(a) Pair

Question 8.
Bundling two values together into one can be considered as ………………………
(a) Pair
(b) Triplet
(c) Single
(d) Quadrant
Answer:
(a) Pair

Question 9.
Which of the following allow to name the various parts of a multi – item object?
(a) Tuples
(b) Lists
(c) Classes
(d) quadrats
Answer:
(c) Classes

Question 10.
Which of the following is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets?
(a) Tuples
(b) Lists
(c) Classes
(d) Quadrats
Answer:
(b) Lists

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is abstract data type?
Answer:
Abstract Data type (ADT) is a type (or class) for objects whose behavior is defined by a set of value and a set of operations. The definition of ADT only mentions what operations are to be performed but not how these operations will be implemented.

Question 2.
Differentiate constructors and selectors?
Answer:
Constructors are functions that build the abstract data type. Selectors are functions that retrieve information from the data type.
To create a city object, you’d use a function like
city = makecity (name, lat, Ion)
To extract the information of a city object, you would use functions like
getname (city)

Question 3.
What is a Pair? Give an example?
Answer:
Pair is a compound structure which is made up of list or Tuple.
lst[(0, 10), (1, 20)] -where

Any way of bundling two values together into one can be considered as a pair. Lists are a common method to do so. Therefore List can be called as Pairs.

Question 4.
What is a List? Give an example?
Answer:
List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets separated by commas. Example for List is [10, 20].

Question 5.
What is a Tuple? Give an example?
Answer:
A tuple is a comma-separated sequence of values surrounded with parentheses. Tuple is similar to a list. The difference between the two is that you cannot change the elements of a tuple once it is assigned whereas in a list, elements can be changed.
Example colour = (‘red’, ‘blue’, ‘Green’)

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate Concrete data type and abstract datatype?
Answer:
Concrete data type:

A concrete data type is a data type whose representation is known.
Concrete data types or structures (CDT’s) are direct implementations of a relatively simple concept.

Abstract data type:

Abstract data type the representation of a data type is unknown.
Abstract Data Types (ADT’s) offer a high level view (and use) of a concept independent of its implementation.

Question 2.
Which strategy is used for program designing? Define that Strategy?
Answer:
We are using here a powerful strategy for designing programs: ‘wishful thinking’.
Wishful Thinking is the formation of beliefs and making decisions according to what might be pleasing to imagine instead of by . appealing to reality.

Question 3.
Identify Which of the following are constructors and selectors?
Answer:
(a) N1 = number ( ) – constructors
(b) Accetnum (n1) – selectors
(c) Displaynum (n1) – selectors
(d) eval (a/b) – selectors
(e) x, y = makeslope(m), makeslope (n) – constructors
(f) display O – selectors

Question 4.
What are the different ways to access the elements of a list. Give example?
Answer:
List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets separated by commas. Example for List is [10, 20].
The elements of a list can be accessed in two ways. The first way is via our familiar method of multiple assignment, which unpacks a list into its elements and binds each element to a different name.
1st: = [10, 20]
x, y: = 1st
In the above example x will become 10 and y will become 20.
A second method for accessing the elements in a list is by the element selection operator, also expressed using square brackets. Unlike a list literal, a square – brackets expression directly following another expression does not evaluate to a list value, but instead selects an element from the value of the preceding expression.
1st [0]
10
1st [1]
20

Question 5.
Identify Which of the following are List, Tuple and class?
(a) arr [1, 2, 34]
(b) arr (1, 2, 34)
(c) student [rno, name, mark]
(d) day = (‘sun’, ‘mon’, ‘tue’, ‘wed’)
(e) x= [2, 5, 6.5, [5,6], 8.2]
(f) employee [eno, ename, esal, eaddress]
Answer:
List: (a) arr [1, 2, 34]
(e) x= [2, 5, 6.5, [5,6], 8.2]
Tuple: (b) arr (1, 2, 34)
(d) day = (‘sun’, ‘mon’, ‘tue’, ‘wed’)
Class: (c) student [mo, name, mark]
(f) employee [eno, ename, esal, eaddress]

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
How will you facilitate data abstraction. Explain it with suitable example?
Answer:
The definition of ADT only mentions what operations are to be performed but not how these operations will be implemented. It does not specify how data will be organized in memory and what algorithms will be used for implementing the operations. It is called “abstract” because it gives an implementation independent view. The process of providing only the essentials and hiding the details is known as abstraction.
To facilitate data abstraction, you will need to create two types of functions.

constructors and selectors:
Constructors are functions that build the abstract data type. Selectors are functions that retrieve information from the data type.
To create a city object, you’d use a function like city = makecity (name, lat, Ion)
To extract the information of a city object, you would use functions like

getname(city)
getlat(city)
getlon(city)

In the above pseudo code the function which creates the object of the city is the constructor, city = makecity (name, lat, Ion)
Here makecity (name, lat, Ion) is the constructor which creates the object city.

Selectors are nothing but the functions that retrieve information from the data type. Therefore in the above code

getname(city)
getlat(city)
getlon(city)

are the selectors because these functions extract the information of the city object.

Data abstraction is supported by defining an abstract data type (ADT), which is a collection of constructors and selectors. Constructors create an object, bundling together different pieces of information, while selectors extract individual pieces of information from the object.

Question 2.
What is a List? Why List can be called as Pairs. Explain with suitable example?
Answer:
List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets separated by commas. Example for List is [10, 20],
The elements of a list can be accessed in two ways. The first way is via our familiar method of multiple assignment, which unpacks a list into its elements and binds each element to a different name.
1st: = [10, 20]
x, y: = 1st
In the above example x will become 10 and y will become 20.
A second method for accessing the elements in a list is by the element selection operator, also expressed using square brackets. Unlike a list literal, a square – brackets expression directly following another expression does not evaluate to a list value, but instead selects an element from the value of the preceding expression.
1st [0]
10
1st [1]
20
In both the example mentioned above mathematically we can represent list similar to a set.
1st [(0, 10), (1, 20)] – where

Any way of bundling two values together into one can be considered as a pair. Lists are a common method to do so. Therefore List can be called as Pairs.

Question 3.
How will you access the multi – item. Explain with example?
Answer:
List allow data abstraction in that you can give a name to a set of memory cells. For instance, in the game Mastermind, you must keep track of a list of four colors that the player guesses. Instead of using four separate variables (color 1, color2, color3, and color4) you can use a single variable ‘Predict’, e.g.,
Predict = [‘red’, ‘blue’, ‘green’, ’green’]
What lists do not allow us to do is name the various parts of a multi- item object. In the case of a Predict, you don’t really need to name the parts:
using an index to get to each color suffices.
But in the case of something more complex, like a person, we have a multi – item object where each ‘item’ is a named thing: the firstName, the last Name, the id, and the email. One could use a list to represent a person.

Person = [‘Padmashri’, ‘Baskar’, ‘994 – 222 – 1234’, ‘[email protected]’]
but such a representation doesn’t explicitly specify what each part represents.
For this problem instead of using a list, you can use the structure constmct (In OOP languages it’s called class construct) to represent multi-part objects where each part is named (given a name). Consider the following pseudo code:
class Person:
creation( )
firstName: = “”
lastName: = ” ”
id: = ” ”
email : = “”
The new data type Person is pictorially represented as

The class (structure) constmct defines the form for multi – part objects that represent a person. Its defintion adds a new data type, in this case a type named Person. Once defined, we can create new variables (instances) of the type. In this example Person is referred to as a class or a type, while p1 is referred to as an object or an instance. You can think of class Person as a cookie cutter, and p1 as a particular cookie. Using the cookie cutter you can make many cookies. Same way using class you can create many objects of that type.

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Abstraction Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
How many types of functions are needed to facilitate abstraction?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 2.
ADT stands for …………………………..
(a) Advanced Data Typing
(b) Application Developing Tool
(c) Abstract data types
(d) Advanced data types
Answer:
(c) Abstract data types

Question 3.
The Splitting of program into many modules are called as ……………………………
(a) Modularity
(b) Structures
(c) Classes
(d) List
Answer:
(a) Modularity

Question 4.
……………………………. are the representation for ADT.
(a) List
(b) Classes
(c) Int
(d) Float
Answer:
(b) Classes

Question 5.
Linked list are of …………………………..
(a) Single
(b) Double
(c) Multiple
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 6.
The process of providing only the essentials and hiding the details is known as …………………………..
(a) Modularity
(b) Structure
(c) Tuple
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(d) Abstraction

Question 7.
Identify the constructor from the following
(a) City = makecity(name, lat, lon)
(b) getname(city)
(c) getlat(city)
(d) getlon(city)
Answer:
(a) City = makecity(name, lat, lon)

Question 8.
: = is called as …………………………..
(a) Assigned as
(b) Becomes
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both a and b

Question 9.
In list 1st [(0, 10), (1, 20)] – 0 and 1 represents …………………………..
(a) Value
(b) Index
(c) List identifier
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(b) Index

Question 10.
How many ways of representing pair data type are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 11.
nums [1] represent that you are accessing ………………………….. element.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 12.
nums [1] indicate that we are accessing ………………………….. element.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) many
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 13.
How many objects can be created from a class?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the two parts of a program?
Answer:
The two parts of a program are, the part that operates on abstract data and the part that defines a concrete representation.

Question 2.
Give the pseudo code to represent a rational number as a pair of two integers?
Answer:
You can now represent a rational number as a pair of two integers in pseudo code: a numerator and a denominator.
rational (n, d):
return [n, d]
numer (x):
return x [0]
denom (x):
return x [1]

Question 3.
What are the two ways of representing the pair data type?
Answer:
Two ways of representing the pair data type. The first way is using List construct and the second way to implement pairs is with the tuple construct.

Question 4.
Differentiate tuple and list?
List:
In List square bracket is used.

Tuple:
In Tuple parenthesis is used.

Question 5.
Give an example for representation of Tuple as a pair?
Answer:
Representation of Tuple as a Pair
nums : = (1, 2)
nums [0]
1
nums [1]
2

Question 6.
Define class?
Answer:
A class as bundled data and the functions that work on that data.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Give the pseudo code to compute the distance between two city objects?
Answer:
The following pseudo code will compute the distance between two city objects:
distance(city 1, city2):
1t1, 1g1: = getlat (city1), getlon (city1)
1t2, 1g2: = getlat (city2), getlon (city2)
return ((1t1 – 1t2) ** 2 + (1g1 – 1g2) ** 2)^1/2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Accounts of Not-For-Profit Organisation

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Accounts of Not-For-Profit Organisation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Accounts of Not-For-Profit Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Receipts and payments account is a …………….
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(b) Real A/c

Question 2.
Receipts and payments account records receipts and payments of …………….
(a) Revenue nature only
(b) Capital nature only
(c) Both revenue and capital nature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both revenue and capital nature

Question 3.
Balance of receipts and payments account indicates the …………….
(a) Loss incurred during the period
(b) Excess of income over expenditure of the period
(c) Total cash payments during the period
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date
Answer:
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date

Question 4.
Income and expenditure account is a …………….
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(a) Nominal A/c

Question 5.
Income and Expenditure Account is prepared to find out …………….
(a) Profit or loss
(b) Cash and bank balance
(c) Surplus or deficit
(d) Financial position
Answer:
(c) Surplus or deficit

Question 6.
Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
(a) Sale of old news papers
(b) Loss on sale of asset
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture
Answer:
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture

Question 7.
Subscription due but not received for the current year is …………….
(a) An asset
(b) A liability
(c) An expense
(d) An item to be ignored
Answer:
(a) An asset

Question 8.
Legacy is a …………….
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Revenue receipt
(d) Capital receipt
Answer:
(d) Capital receipt

Question 9.
Donations received for a specific purpose is …………….
(a) Revenue receipt
(b) Capital receipt
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
(b) Capital receipt

Question 10.
There are 500 members in a club each paying ₹ 100 as annual subscription. Subscription due but not received for the current year is ₹ 200; Subscription received in advance is ? 300. Find out the amount of subscription to be shown in the income and expenditure account,
(a) ₹ 50, 000
(b) ₹ 50, 200
(c) ₹ 49, 900
(d) ₹ 49, 800
Answer:
(a) ₹ 50,000

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the meaning of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:
Some organisations are established for the purpose of rendering services to the public without any profit motive. They may be created for the promotion of art, culture, education and sports, etc. These organisations are called not-for-profit organisation.

Question 2.
What is receipts and payments account?
Answer:
Receipts and Payments account is a summary of cash and bank transactions of not-for-profit organisations prepared at the end of each financial year. It is a real account in nature.

Question 3.
What is legacy?
Answer:
It is the amount given to a non-trading concern as per the will. It is like a donation. It appears on the debit side of receipts and payments account, but is not treated as income because it is not of recurring nature. It is a capital receipt.

Question 4.
Write a short note on life membership fees.
Answer:
Life membership fee is accounted as a capital receipt and added to capital fund on the liabilities side of Balance sheet. It is non – recurring in nature.

Question 5.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:

Life membership fees
Legacies
Specific donation
Sale of fixed assets

Question 6.
Give four examples for revenue receipts of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:

Subscription
Interest on investment
Interest on fixed deposit
Sale of old sports material

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is income and expenditure account?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is a summary of income and expenditure of a not-for-profit organisation prepared at the end of an accounting year. It is prepared to find out the surplus or deficit pertaining to a particular year. It is a nominal account in nature in which items of revenue receipts and revenue expenditure relating to the current year alone are recorded.

Question 2.
State the differences between Receipts and Payments Account and Income and Expenditure Account.
Answer:

Question 3.
How annual subscription is dealt with in the final accounts of not-for-profit organisation?
Answer:
(A) Treatment in income and expenditure account:
When subscription received for the current year, previous years and subsequent period are given separately, subscription received for the current year will be shown on the credit side of income and expenditure account after making the adjustments given below:

Subscription outstanding for the current year is to be added.
Subscription received in advance in the previous year which is meant for the current year is to be added.

When total subscription received in current year is given:

Subscription outstanding in the previous year which is received in the current year will be subtracted.
Subscription received in advance in the previous year which is meant for the current year is added and subscription received in advance must be subtracted.

(B) Treatment in Balance sheet:

Subscription outstanding for the current year and still outstanding for the previous year will be shown on the asset side of the Balance sheet.
Subscriptions received in advance in the current year will be shown on the liabilities side of the Balance sheet.

Question 4.
How the following items are dealt with in the final accounts of not-for-profit organisation?

Sale of sports materials
Life membership fees
Tournament fund

Answer:
1. Sale of sports materials:
The sale proceeds of old sports materials like balls and bats, etc., are revenue receipts.

2. Life membership fees:
Amount received like membership fee from members is a capital receipt as it is non – recurring in nature.

3. Tournament fund:
It is recurring in nature. It is revenue receipt. It is shown on liabilities side of balance sheet. Opening balance added donations and subtracted expenses incurred.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Kurunji Sports Club for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.

Answer:
Kurinji Sports Club Account for the year ended 31st Dec 2018
Receipts and Payments

Question 2.
From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Coimbatore Cricket Club for the year ending 31^st March, 2019.

Answer:
Coimbatore Cricket Club Receipts and Payments Account
for the year ending 31.03.19

Question 3.
From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Madurai Mother Theresa Mahalir Mandram for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.

Answer:
Madurai Mother Theresa Mahalir Mandram Receipts and Payments Account for the year ending 31.12.18

Question 4.
Mayiladuthurai Recreation Club gives you the following details. Prepare Receipts and Payments account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.

Answer:
Mayiladuthurai Recreation Club Receipts and Payments Account for the year ending 31.3.19

Question 5.
From the following information, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Cuddalore Kabaddi Association for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.

Cuddalore Kabadi Association Receipts and Payments Account for the year ending 31.03.19
Answer:

Question 6.
From the following receipts and payments account of Tenkasi Thiruvalluvar Manram, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.

Answer:
Tenkasi Thiruvalluvar Manram Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19

Question 7.
From the following receipts and payments account, prepare income and expenditure account of Kumbakonam Basket Ball Association for the year ended 31^st March, 2018.

Answer:
Kumbakonam Basket Ball Association Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19

Question 8.
From the following receipts and payments account and the additional information given below, calculate the amount of subscription to be shown in Income and expenditure account for the year ending 31^st December, 2018.

Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.12.18

Question 9.
How the following items will appear in the final accounts of a club for the year ending 31st March 2019?
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31st March, 2019

Answer:
There are 200 members in the club each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 400 per annum. Subscription still outstanding for the year 2017 – 2018 is ₹ 2,000.
Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2019

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.19

Question 10.
How will the following items appear in the final accounts of a club for the year ending 31st March 2017? Received subscription of ₹ 40,000 during the year 2016 – 17. This includes subscription of ₹ 5,000 for 2015 – 16 and ₹ 3,000 for the year 2017 – 18. Subscription of ₹ 1,000 is still outstanding for the year 2016 – 17.
Answer:
Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19
Balance Sheet as on 31.03.19

Question 11.
Compute income from subscription for the year 2018 from the following particulars relating to a club.

Answer:
Subscription received during the year 2018: ₹ 45,000. Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2019

Question 12.
From the following particulars, show how the item ‘subscription’ will appear in the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31 – 12 – 2018?
Subscription received in 2018 is ₹ 50,000 which includes ₹ 5,000 for 2017 and ₹ 7,000 for 2019. Subscription outstanding for the year 2018 is ₹ 6,000. Subscription of ₹ 4,000 was received in advance for 2018 in the year 2017.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.12.2018

Question 13.
How the following items appear in the final accounts of Thoothukudi Young Pioneers Association?
There are one hundred members in the association each paying ₹ 25 as annual subscription. By the end of the year 10 members had not paid their subscription but four members had paid for the next year in advance.
Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended
Answer:

Balance Sheet as on …………..

Question 14.
How will the following appear in the final accounts of Marthandam Women Cultural Association?

Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.19

Question 15.
How will the following appear in the final accounts of Vedaranyam Sports club?

Answer:
Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended

Balance Sheet as on …………..

Question 16.
Show how the following items appear in the income and expenditure account of Sirkazhi Singers Association?

Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.18

Question 17.
Chennai tennis club had Match fund showing credit balance of ₹ 24,000 on 1^st April, 2018. Receipt to the fund during the year was ₹ 26,000. Match expenses incurred during the year was ₹ 33,000. How these items will appear in the final accounts of the club for the year ended 31^st March, 2019?
Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2019
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.18

Question 18.
How will the following appear in the final accounts of Karaikudi sports club for the year ending 31^stMarch, 2019?

Answer:
Balance Sheet as on 31.03.19

Question 19.
Compute capital fund of Salem Sports Club as on 1.4.2019.

Answer:
Balance Sheet as on 01.04.2019

Question 20.
From the following Receipts and Payments account and from the information given below of Ramanathapuram Sports Club, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the year ended 31st December, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2018

Additional information:

Capital fund as on 1^st January 2018 ₹ 30,000.
Opening stock of sports material ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000.

Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.12.18

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.18

Question 21.
From the following Receipts and Payments account of Yercaud Youth Association, prepare Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019

Additional information:

Opening capital fund ₹ 20,000.
Stock of books on 1.4.2018 ₹ 9,200.
Subscription due but not received ₹ 1,700.
Stock of stationery on 1.4.2018 ₹ 1,200 and stock of stationery on 31.3.2019, ₹ 2,000

Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.19

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2019

Question 22.
Following is the Receipts and Payments account of Neyveli Science Club for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2018

Additional information:

Opening capital fund ₹ 6,400
Subscription includes ₹ 600 for the year 2019
Science equipment as on 1.1.2018 ₹ 5,000
Surplus on account of exhibition should be kept in reserve for new auditorium.

Prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st December, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.12.18

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2018

Question 23.
From the following Receipts and Payments account of Sivakasi Pensioner’s Recreation Club, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2018

Additional information:

The club had 300 members each paying ₹ 100 as annual subscription.
The club had furniture ₹ 10,000 on 1.4.2017.
The subscription still due but not received for the year 2016 – 2017 is ₹ 1,000.

Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.18

Opening Balance Sheet as on 1.1.18

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2019

Question 24.
Following is the Receipts and payments account of Virudhunagar Volleyball Association for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2018

Answer:
Additional information:

On 1.1.2018, the association owned investments ₹ 10,000, premises and grounds ₹ 40,000, stock of bats and balls ₹ 5,000.
Subscription ₹ 5,000 related to 2017 is still due.
Subscription due for the year 2018, ₹ 6,000.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Accounts of Not-For-Profit Organisation Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
State the primary motive of not-for-profit organisation?
(a) Producing goods
(b) Provide service
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Provide service

Question 2.
State the nature of Life membership subscription.
(a) Cash Payments
(b) Cash Receipts
(c) Capital Receipt
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cash Receipts

Question 3.
On which basis Receipt and Payment Account is prepared?
(a) Cash basis
(b) Credit basis
(c) Accrual basis
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Cash basis

Question 4.
Classify the subscription received during the year of not-for-profit organisation.
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Revenue Receipt
(d) Both
Answer:
(c) Revenue Receipt

Question 5.
State the nature of Receipt and Payment A/c for not-for-profit organisation.
(a) Real Account
(b) Personal A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) Representative Personal A/c
Answer:
(a) Real Account

Question 6.
Subscription received in advance is
(a) An Asset
(b) Income
(c) A Liability
(d) Expenditure
Answer:
(c) A Liability

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 7.
Not-for-profit organisation set up with the objective of ……………. of the society.
Answer:
Welfare

Question 8.
The nature of Receipt and Payments Account is …………….
Answer:
An Asset

Question 9.
Receipt and Payment Account is prepared as ……………. basis of accounting.
Answer:
Cash

Question 10.
Nature of Income over Expenditure Account is …………….
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 11.
Excess of Income over Expenditure, the result is …………….
Answer:
Real surplus Account

Question 12.
Excess of Expenditure over the Income, the result is …………….
Answer:
Definite Liability

III. Match the following

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

IV. Assertion and Reason:

Question 15.
Assertion : Life Membership Fee: Amount received towards life membership fee from the members is a capital receipt.
Reason : It is non – recurring nature.
(a) Assertion and Reason is correct
(b) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct
(c) Assertion is correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason is correct

Question 16.
Specific Donation : Assertion : Donation is received with a specific condition for a particular purpose like sports fund is a specific donations.
Reason : It is Capital Receipt.
(a) Assertion and Reason is incorrect
(b) Assertion and Reason is correct
(c) Assertion is correct Reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct
Answer:
(b) Assertion and Reason is correct

Question 17.
Identify wrong statement about Entrance Fees
(a) Is a amount paid by a person at the time of becoming a member
(b) Is a income of Not-for-profit organisation
(c) It is a revenue receipt of organisation
(d) Is debited to Income and Expenditure Account
Answer:
(d) Is debited to Income and Expenditure Account

V. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of Not-for-profit-organisation?
Answer:

Main aim is service
Profit is not the criterion
Surplus not distributed among its members
Separate entity
Unique names connect their working
Management by elected persons

Question 2.
What are books maintained by Not-for-profit organisation?
Answer:

Cash Book
Ledger
Member’s Register
Register of Assets
Final Accounts: (a) Receipt and payments Account
Income and Expenditure Account
Balance Sheet

VI. Exercises:

Question 1.

Subscription of ₹ 9,000 is still in arrears for the year 2012 – 13. Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for 2013 – 2014.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year 31.03.14

Question 2.

Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year 31.3.14

Question 3.
What are the steps in preparation of Income and Expenditure from Receipts and Payments account?
Answer:

1. Opening and Closing balances of cash and bank a/cs in receipts and payment account must be excluded.

2. Capital receipts and capital expenditure must be excluded.

3. Only revenue receipts pertaining to the current year should be taken to the credit side of income and expenditure account. Due adjustments should be made for income received in advance income accrued for the current year and for the amount relating to the previous year or years.

4. Similarly revenue expenditure relating to the current year only must be taken in the debit side of income and expenditure account. Adjustment must be made for outstanding expenses of the previous year and current year and for the prepaid expenses of the previous year and current year.

5. Any income or expense relating to specific fund must not be taken to income and expenditure account.

6. Non – Cash items such as bad debts, depreciation, loss or gain on sale of assets etc. which are not recorded in receipt and payments account must be recorded in income and expenditure account.

7.The balancing figure of income and expenditure account is either surplus or deficit and will be transferred to capital fund in the balance sheet. If the total of credit side of income and expenditure account is more than the total of debit side (excess of income over expenditure), the difference represents surplus. If the debit side total income and expenditure is more than the total of credit side), the difference represents deficit.

Question 4.
Following is the summary of cash transactions of Friends Club for the year ended 31^st March 2016. Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March 2016, and also Balance Sheet at that date.
Receipts and Payments Account

Additional Information:

In the beginning of the year, the club had books worth ₹ 3,00,000 and Furniture worth ₹ 58,000.
Subscription in Arrear 1^st April 2015 When ₹ 6,000 and ₹ 7,000 on 31st March 2016.
18,000 was due by of Rent in the beginning as well at the end of the year.
Write off Rs. 5,000 from Furniture and ₹ 30,000 from Banks.

Balance Sheet as on 01.04.2015

Answer:
Friends Club:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended.

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2016

Question 5.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account of Defence Club and from the information supplied, prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March 2016 and Balance Sheet as on that date.
Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31.3.2016

The Club has 50 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 2,500. Subscription outstanding in 31.03.2015 were to extent of ₹ 3,000
On 31^st March 2016, Salaries Outstanding amounted to ₹ 10,000. Salaries Paid in 2015 – 16 included ₹ 30,000 for the year 14 – 15
On 1^st April 2015, the Club owned Building valued @ ₹ 10,00,000; Furniture Worth of ₹ 1,00,000 and Books ₹ 1,00,000

Balance Sheet as on 1.4.2015

Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.3.16

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2016

Question 6.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account of Defence Club and from the information supplied, prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March 2016 and Balance sheet as on that date.
Receipts and Payments Accounts for the year ended 31^st March 2016

The Club has 50 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 2,500. Subscriptions outstanding on 31^st March, 2015 were to the extent of ₹ 30,000.
On 31^st March, 2016, Salaries Outstanding amounted to ₹ 10,000. Salaries Paid in 2015 – 16 included ₹ 30,000 for the year 2014 – 15
On 1^st April 2015, the Club owned building valued at ₹ 10,00,000. Furniture worth ₹ 1,00,000 and Books ₹ 1,00,000.

Answer:
Defence Club
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2016

Balance Sheet as at 31^st March 2016

Working Notes 1. Calculation of Capital Fund as at 1^st April, 2015

Balance Sheet as at 31^st April, 2015

Question 7.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of the Mumbai Club for the year ended 31^st March 2016:
Receipts and Payments Accounts for the year ended 31^st March 2016

Additional Information:

Stationery Expenses, etc ₹ 3,120 related to 2014 – 15 still owing ₹ 3,640.
Subscription unpaid for 2015 – 16 ₹ 8,680; Special subscriptions for Governor’s party outstanding ₹ 5,500. Governor’s party is to be held in April 2016.
The Club owned sports materials of the value ₹ 1,60,000 on 1^st April, 2015. This was valued at ₹ 1,35,000 on 31^st March, 2016, stock includes sports materials of ₹ 5,000, which is to be written off being not usable. The club took a loan of ₹ 2,00,000 in 2014 – 15.

Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended on 31st March, 2016 and Balance Sheet as on that date.
Balance Sheet as on 1^st April 2015

Mumbai Club Income And Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2016

Balance Sheet as on 31^st March, 2016

Question 8.
Distinction between Receipts and Payments Account and Cash Book.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 3 Accounts of Partnership Firms-Fundamentals

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 3 Accounts of Partnership Firms-Fundamentals

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Accounts of Partnership Firms-Fundamentals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
In the absence of a partnership deed, profits of the firm will be shared by the partners in …………….
(a) Equal ratio
(b) Capital ratio
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Equal ratio

Question 2.
In the absence of an agreement among the partners, interest on capital is …………….
(a) Not allowed
(b) Allowed at bank rate
(c) Allowed @ 5% per annum
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum
Answer:
(a) Not allowed

Question 3.
As per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the rate of interest allowed on loans advanced by partners is …………….
(a) 8% per annum
(b) 12% per annum
(c) 5% per annum
(d) 6% per annum
Answer:
(d) 6% per annum

Question 4.
Which of the following is shown in Profit and loss appropriation account?
(a) Office expenses
(b) Salary of staff
(c) Partners’ salary
(d) Interest on bank loan
Answer:
(c) Partners’ salary

Question 5.
When fixed capital method is adopted by a partnership firm, which of the following items will appear in capital account?
(a) Additional capital introduced
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on drawings
(d) Share of profit
Answer:
(a) Additional capital introduced

Question 6.
When a partner withdraws regularly a fixed sum of money at the middle of every month, period for which interest is to be calculated on the drawings on an average is …………….
(a) 5.5 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6.5 months
Answer:
(b) 6 months

Question 7.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
(a) Interest on drawings – Debited to capital account
(b) Interest on capital – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account
(d) Share of profit – Credited to capital account
Answer:
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account

Question 8.
In the absence of an agreement, partners are entitled to …………….
(a) Salary
(b) Commission
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Interest on capital
Answer:
(c) Interest on loan

Question 9.
Pick the odd one out …………….
(a) Partners share profits and losses equally
(b) Interest on partners’ capital is allowed at 7% per annum
(c) No salary or remuneration is allowed
(d) Interest on loan from partners is allowed at 6% per annum.
Answer:
(b) Interest on partners’ capital is allowed at 7% per annum

Question 10.
Profit after interest on drawings, interest on capital and remuneration is ₹ 10,500. Geetha, a partner, is entitled to receive commission @ 5% on profits after charging such commission. Find out commission. …………….
(a) ₹ 50
(b) ₹ 150
(c) ₹ 550
(d) ₹ 500
Answer:
(d) ₹ 500

II. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Define partnership.
Answer:
According to section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the partnership is defined as, “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all.

Question 2.
What is a partnership deed?
Answer:
A partnership deed is a document in writing that contains the terms of the agreement among the partners. It is not compulsory for a partnership to have a partnership deed as per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932. But, it is desirable to have a partnership deed as it serves as evidence of the terms of the agreement among the partners.

Question 3.
What is meant by the fixed capital method?
Answer:
Under the fixed capital method, the capital of the partners is not altered and it remains generally fixed. Two accounts are maintained for each partner namely

Capital account
Current account.

The transactions relating to initial capital introduced, additional capital introduced, and capital permanently withdrawn are entered in the capital account and all other transactions are recorded in the current account.

Question 4.
What is the journal entry to be passed for providing interest on capital to a partner?
Answer:
(a) For providing interest on capital

(b) For closing interest on capital account

Question 5.
Why is the Profit and loss appropriation account prepared?
Answer:
The profit and loss appropriation account is an extension of the profit and loss account prepared for the purpose of adjusting the transactions relating to amounts due to and amounts due from partners. It is a nominal account in nature. It is credited with net profit, interest on drawings and it is debited with interest on capital, salary, and other remuneration to the partners. The balance being the profit or loss is transferred to the partners’ capital or current account in the profit-sharing ratio.

III. Short answer questions

Question 1.
State the features of a partnership.
Answer:

A partnership is an association of two or more persons. The maximum number of partners is limited to 50.
There should be an agreement among the persons to share the profit or loss of the business. The agreement may be oral or written or implied.
The agreement must be to carry on a business and to share the profits of the business.
The business may be carried on by all the partners or any of them acting for all.

Question 2.
State any six contents of a partnership deed.
Answer:
The contents of the partnership deed are:

The name of the firm and nature and place of business.
Date of commencement and duration of business.
Names and addresses of all partners.
Capital contributed by each partner.
Profit-sharing ratio.
Amount of drawings allowed to each partner.

Question 3.
State the differences between the fixed capital method and the fluctuating capital method.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write a brief note on the applications of the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 in the absence of a partnership deed.
Answer:

Remuneration to partners: No salary or remuneration is allowed to any partner; op [ Section 13 (a)]
Profit-sharing ratio: Profits and losses are to be shared by the partners equally. [ Section 13 (b)]
Interest on capital: No interest is allowed on the capital. Where a partner is entitled to interest on capital contributed as per partnership deed, such interest on capital will be payable only out of profits. [ Section 13 (c)]
Interest on loans advanced by partners to the firm: Interest on the loan is to be allowed at the rate of 6 percent per annum. [ Section 13 (d)]
Interest on drawings: No interest is charged on the drawings of the partners.

Question 5.
Jayaraman is a partner who withdrew ₹ 10,000 regularly in the middle of every month. Interest is charged on the drawings at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings for the year ended 31st December 2018.
Answer:
Jayaraman:
Interest on drawings: 10,000 × $\frac { 12 }{ 24 }$ × $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ × 12 = ₹ 3600

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Akash, Bala, Chandru, and Daniel are partners in a firm. There is no partnership deed. How will you deal with the following?

Akash has contributed maximum capital. He demands interest on capital at 10% per annum.
Bala has withdrawn ₹ 3,000 per month. Other partners ask Bala to pay interest on drawings @ 8% per annum to the firm. But, Bala did not agree to it.
Akash demands the profit to be shared in the capital ratio. But, others do not agree.
Daniel demands a salary at the rate of ₹ 10,000 per month as he spends full time for the business.
The loan advanced by Chandru to the firm is ₹ 50,000. He demands interest on loan @ 12% per annum.

Answer:

No interest on capital is payable to any partner.
No interest is charged on the drawing made by the partner.
Profit should be distributed equally.
No remuneration is payable to any partner.
Interest on the loan is payable at 6% per annum.

Question 2.
From the following information, prepare capital accounts of partners Rooban and Deri, when their capitals are fixed.

Answer:
Capital Account

Current Account

Question 3.
Arun and Selvam are partners who maintain their capital accounts under fixed capital method. From the following particulars, prepare capital accounts of partners.

Answer:
Capital Account

Current Account

Question 4.
From the following information, prepare capital accounts of partners Padmini and Padma, when their capitals are fluctuating.

Answer:

Question 5.
Mannan and Ramesh share profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 and their capital on 1^st April, 2018 was Mannan ₹ 1,50,000 and Ramesh ₹ 1,00,000 respectively and their current accounts show a credit balance of’ 25,000 and ₹ 20,000 respectively. Calculate interest on capital at 6% p.a. for the year ending 31^st March, 2019 and show the journal entries.
Answer:

Question 6.
Prakash and Supria were partners who share profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. Balance in their capital account on 1^st April, 2018 was Prakash ₹ 3,00,000 and Supria ₹ 2,00,000. On 1^st July, 2018 Prakash introduced additional capital of ₹ 60,000. Supria introduced additional capital of ₹ 30,000 during the year. Calculate interest on capital at 6% p.a. for the year ending 31^st March, 2019 and show the journal entries.
Answer:

Journal Entries

Question 7.
The capital account of Begum and Fatima on 1^st January, 2018 showed a balance of ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 40,000 respectively. On 1^st October, 2018, Begum introduced an additional capital of? 10,000 and on 1^st May, 2018 Fatima introduced an additional capital of ₹ 9,000.
Answer:
Calculate interest on capital at 4% p.a. for the year ending 31^st December 2018.

Question 8.
From the following balance sheets of Subha and Sudha who share profits and losses in 2:3, calculate interest on capital at 5% p.a. for the year ending 31st December 2018.
Balance sheet as on 31^st December, 2018

Drawings of Subha and Sudha during the year were ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 10,000, respectively. Profit earned during the year was ₹ 30,000.
Answer:

Question 9.
From the following balance sheets of Rajan and Devan who share profits and losses 2:1, calculate interest on capital at 6% p.a. for the year ending 31^stDecember 2018.
Balance sheet as on 31^st December 2018

On 1^st April, 2018, Rajan introduced an additional capital of ₹ 40,000 and on 1^st September, 2018, Devan introduced ₹ 30,000. Drawings of Rajan and Devan during the year were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000 respectively. Profit earned during the year was ₹ 70,000.
Answer:

Question 10.
Ahamad and Basheer contribute ₹ 60,000 and ₹ 40,000 respectively as capital. Their respective share of profit is 2 : 1 and the profit before interest on capital for the year is ₹ 5,000. Compute the amount of interest on capital in each of the following situations:

if the partnership deed is silent as to the interest on capital
if the interest on capital @ 4% is allowed as per the partnership deed
if the partnership deed allows interest on capital @ 6% per annum.

Answer:
1. No Interest on capital is allowed.

2. Since the profit is sufficient, Interest on capital will be provided.
Ahamad:
60, 000 × $\frac { 4 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 2, 400
Basheer:
40, 000 × $\frac { 4 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 1, 600

3. Since the profit is insufficient, Interest on capital will be provided.
Ahamad:
60, 000 × $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 3, 600
Basheer:
40, 000 × $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 2, 400
Profit of 5,000 will be distributed to the partners in their capital ratio of 3:2.

Question 11.
Mani is a partner, who withdrew ₹ 30,000 on 1^st September, 2018. Interest on drawings is charged at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings on 31^st December, 2018 and show the journal entries by assuming that the fluctuating capital method is followed.
Answer:
Mani:
30, 000 × $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 600
Interest on drawings of Mani = ₹ 600.

Question 12.
Santhosh is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the partnership deed, interest on drawings is charged at 6% per annum. During the year ended 31^st December, 2018 he withdrew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawings.
Interest on Drawings = Amount x Rate of Interest x Period
Feb 1 ⇒ 2,000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 600
May 1 ⇒ 10, 000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 8 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 400
July 1 ⇒ 4,000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 120

Question 13.
Kumar is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the partnership deed, interest on drawings is charged at 6% per annum. During the year ended 31^st December, 2018 he withdrew as follows:

Interest on Drawings = Amount x Rate of Interest x Period
March 1 ⇒ 4, 000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ = ₹ 200
June 1 ⇒ 4, 000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 7 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 140
Sep 1 ⇒ 4,000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 4 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 80

Question 14.
Mathew is a partner who withdrew ₹ 20,000 during the year 2018. Interest on drawings is charged at 10% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings on 31^st December 2018.
Mathew:
20 000 x $\frac { 10 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 1, 000

Question 15.
Santhosh is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the partnership deed, interest on drawings is charged at 6% per annum. During the year ended 31^st December, 2018 he withdrew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawings by using product method.

Interest on drawings = Product x Rate of interest x $\frac { 1 }{ 12 }$
= 1,44,000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 1 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 720

Question 16.
Kavitha is a partner in a firm. She withdraws ₹ 2,500 p.m. regularly. Interest on drawings is charged @ 4% p.a. Calculate the interest on drawings using average period, if she draws

At the beginning of every month
In the middle of every month
At the end of every month

Answer:
1. At the beginning of every month = 2, 500 x 12 x $\frac { 4 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 13 }{ 24 }$ = ₹ 650
2. In the middle of every month = 2,500 x 12 x $\frac { 4 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 12 }{ 24 }$ = ₹ 600
3. At the end of every month = 2, 500 x 12 x $\frac { 4 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 11 }{ 24 }$ = ₹ 550

Question 17.
Kevin and Francis are partners. Kevin draws ₹ 5,000 at the end of each quarter. Interest on drawings is chargeable at 6% p.a. Calculate interest on drawings for the year ending 31^st March 2019 using the average period.
Answer:
Calculation of interest on drawings of Kevin.
Total amount of drawings = 5000 x 4 = 20,000

= 20,000 x $\frac { 6 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 4.5 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 450

Question 18.
Ram and Shyam were partners. Ram withdrew ₹ 18,000 at the beginning of each half year. Interest on drawings is chargeable @ 10% p.a. Calculate interest on the drawings for the year ending 31^st December 2018 using the average period.
Answer:
Total amount of drawing: 18, 000 x 2 = 36,000
Interest on drawings = Amount x Rate of Interest x
= 36,000 x $\frac { 10 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 9 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 2700

Question 19.
Janani, Kamali and Lakshmi are partners in firm sharing profits and losses equally. As per the terms of the partnership deed, Kamali is allowed a monthly salary of ₹ 10,000 and Lakshmi is allowed a commission of ₹ 40,000 per annum for their contribution to the business of the firm. You are required to pass the necessary journal entry. Assume that their capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:

Question 20.
Sibi and Manoj are partners in a firm. Sibi is to get a commission of 20% of net profit before charging any commission. Manoj is to get a commission of 20% on net profit after charging all commission. Net profit for the year ended 31^st December 2018 before charging any commission was ₹ 60,000. Find the commission of Sibi and Manoj. Also, show the distribution of profit.
Answer:

Question 21.
Anand and Narayanan are partners in firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. On 1^st January 2018, their capitals were ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 30,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following:

Interest on capital is to be allowed at 6% per annum.
Interest on drawings charged to Anand and Narayanan are ₹ 1,000 and ₹ 800, respectively.
The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 35,000.

Give necessary journal entries and prepare profit and loss appropriation account as of 31^st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

Journal Entries

Question 22.
Dinesh and Sugumar entered into a partnership agreement on 1^st January 2018, Dinesh contributing ₹ 1,50,000 and Sugumar ₹ 1,20,000 as capital. The agreement provided that:

Profits and losses to be shared in the ratio 2 : 1 as between Dinesh and Sugumar.
Partners to be entitled to interest on capital @ 4% p.a.
Interest on drawings to be charged Dinesh: ₹ 3,600 and Sugumar: ₹ 2,200
Dinesh to receive a salary of ₹ 60,000 for the year, and
Sugumar to receive a commission of ₹ 80,000

During the year ended on 31^st December 2018, the firm made a profit of ₹ 2,20,000 before adjustment of interest, salary, and commission.
Prepare the Profit and loss appropriation account.
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

Question 23.
Antony and Ranjith started a business on 1st April 2018 with capitals of ₹ 4,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000 respectively. According to the Partnership Deed, Antony is to get the salary of ₹ 90,000 per annum, Ranjith is to get 25% commission on profit after allowing salary to Antony and interest on capital @ 5% p.a. but before charging such commission. Profit-sharing ratio between the two partners is 1:1. During the year, the firm earned a profit of ₹ 3,65,000.
Answer:
Prepare profit and loss appropriation account. The firm closes its accounts on 31^st March every year.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Accounts of Partnership Firms-Fundamentals Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Under the fixed capital system, the capitals of the partners ……………. year after year.
(a) keep changing
(b) remain fixed
(c) Both are possible
Answer:
(b) remain fixed

Question 2.
Under fluctuating capital system, the capitals of the partners year after years …………….
(a) keep changing
(b) Remain fixed
(c) Both are possible
Answer:
(a) keep changing

Question 3.
Under the fluctuating capital system, the partners ……………. accounts are opened.
(a) current
(b) drawing
(c) capital
Answer:
(c) capital

Question 4.
Under the fixed capital system, the profits and losses of partners will be transferred to their ……………. accounts.
(a) current
(b) drawings
(c) Both
Answer:
(a) current

Question 5.
Interest capital is calculated as the …………….
(a) opening capital
(b) closing capital
(c) Both
Answer:
(a) opening capital

Question 6.
……………. is an extension of profit and loss account
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Profit and loss appropriation account
(c) Both
Answer:
(b) Profit and loss appropriation account

Question 7.
The persons who have entered into partnership are collectively known as …………….
(a) partnership
(b) partners
(c) firm
Answer:
(c) firm

Question 8.
Name the method of calculating interest on drawings of the partner if different amounts are withdrawn are different dates …………….
(a) Direct method
(b) Product method
(c) Average period method
Answer:
(A) Product method

Question 9.
Which of the following items, does not appear in the profit and loss appropriation account?
(a) Salaries to partners
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on drawings
(d) Drawings
Answer:
(d) Drawings

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 10.
The partners share the ……………. of the business.
Answer:
Profit and losses.

Question 11.
The ……………. accounts of partners may show credit or debit balance.
Answer:
Current.

Question 12.
Interest on partners drawings is changed to their respective …………….
Answer:
Capital A/c.

Question 13.
Salary to the partner will be paid only if it is allowed by the …………….
Answer:
Agreement

Question 14.
The capital accounts of partners may be ……………. or fluctuating.
Answer:
Fixed

Question 15.
Interest Drawings for the regular interval is calculated by the formula …………….
Answer:
Total Drawings x $\frac { Rate }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 16 }{ 12 }$

Question 16.
In the case of fluctuating capital, where will you record drawings, interest on drawing …………….
Answer:
Dr. Side of Capital A/c

III. Match the following

Question 17.

Answer:
(ii) 4 3 2 1

IV. Short-answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a Current Account?
Answer:
Under the fixed capital method, Capital Account and Current accounts are maintained. In current a/c all adjustments relating to partners are recorded on the credit side of the current account viz. Interest on capital, the share of profits, salary and commission etc., are recorded. On the debit side, drawings, interest on drawings, share of loss are recorded. Current accounts sometimes shows credit balance or debit balance.

Question 2.
Interest on Capital: Mr. A and B started a business on 1.4.2014, with a capital of Rs. 60,000 and 50,000, respectively. On 1^st July 2014. Mr. A withdrew Rs 8,000 from his capital. Mr. B introduced additional capital of Rs 10,000 on 30.9.2014. Calculate interest on capital @ 5% p.a. for year ending 31.3.2015.
Solution:

Question 3.
Prince, Queen, and Kings had a capital of Rs. 1,60,000, Rs. 1,20,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively, on 1.4.2010. Queen withdraw Rs. 16,000 on 30.9.2010. King introduced additional capital Rs. 24,000 on 31.12.10. Calculate interest on capital @ 6% p.a. on 31.3.2011.
Solution:

Question 4.
A and B are partners, sharing profits and losses in an equal ratio with Capital of Rs. 50,000 and Rs 40,000 on 1.4.2017. On 1^st July 2017, A introduced Rs 10,000 as his additional capital, where B introduced only Rs 1,000. Interest 10% p.a. Calculate interest on capital.
Solution:

Question 5.
Interest on Drawings:
Sundar and Shanmugam are two partners equally. Sundar drew regularly Rs. 4,000 end of every month. Shanmugam draws Rs. 8,000 regularly beginning of every month. Calculate interest on their drawings @10%.
Solution:
Interest on Drawings of Sundar:
Total drawings x $\frac { Rate }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 5.5 }{ 12 }$
4000 x 12 x $\frac { 10 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 5.5 }{ 2 }$
= ₹ 2, 200
Interest on Drawings of Shanmugam:
Total drawing x $\frac { Rate }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6.5 }{ 12 }$
8000 x 12 x $\frac { 10 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6.5 }{ 12 }$
= ₹ 5, 200

Question 6.
Priya and Kala are partners Priya draws Rs. 8,000 at end of each quarter. Interest on drawings @6% p.a. Kala draws Rs. 2000/- per month at the end of the month.
Solution:
Interest of drawings:
Priya: 8,000 x 4 = 32,000

V. Exercise

Question 1.
Arun and Arora were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. Their fixed capitals on 1.4.2016 were Arun Rs. 60,000; Arora Rs. 80,000. Interest on capital @ Rs. 12%. Interest on drawings @15% p.a. Profit for the year ended 31.3.2017 before all above adjustment was Rs. 12,600. Drawings: Arun Rs. 2,000. Arora Rs. 4,000 during the year. Prepare profit and loss appropriation account.
Solution:

Interest on Drawings:
Arun: 2000 x $\frac { 15 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6 }{ 12 }$ = ₹ 150
Arora: 4000 x $\frac { 15 }{ 100 }$ x $\frac { 6}{ 12 }$ = ₹ 300

Question 2.
Write up the capital accounts and current accounts of the partners Kaviya and Divya from the following:

Solution:
Capital Account

Current Account

Question 3.
Distribution of Profits: Anitha, Ramita were partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 7:3. Their capitals were Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 60,000, respectively.

Interest on capital @10% p.a.
Interest on drawings @12% p.a.
Both to get a salary of Rs. 10,000 each per annum.
Anitha to get a commission of 10% on the net profit before charging such commission.

The profit for the year Rs. 60,000. Drawings were Anitha Rs. 12,000 and Ramita Rs. 8,000. Show profit and loss appropriation account and the capital A/c.
Solution:
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

Capital Accounts

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Function

Leave a Comment / Class 12 / By Prasanna

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 1 Function Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Function

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Function Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
The small sections of code that are used to perform a particular task is called ……………………….
(a) Subroutines
(b) Files
(c) Pseudo code
(d) Modules
Answer:
(a) Subroutines

Question 2.
Which of the following is a unit of code that is often defined within a greater code structure?
(a) Subroutines
(b) Function
(c) Files
(d) Modules
Answer:
(b) Function

Question 3.
Which of the following is a distinct syntactic block?
(a) Subroutines
(b) Function
(c) Definition
(d) Modules
Answer:
(c) Definition

Question 4.
The variables in a function definition are called as ……………………….
(a) Subroutines
(b) Function
(c) Definition
(d) Parameters
Answer:
(d) Parameters

Question 5.
The values which are passed to a function definition are called ……………………….
(a) Arguments
(b) Subroutines
(c) Function
(d) Definition
Answer:
(a) Arguments

Question 6.
Which of the following are mandatory to write the type annotations in the function definition?
(a) Curly braces
(b) Parentheses
(c) Square brackets
(d) Indentations
Answer:
(b) Parentheses

Question 7.
Which of the following defines what an object can do?
(a) Operating System
(b) Compiler
(c) Interface
(d) Interpreter
Answer:
(c) Interface

Question 8.
Which of the following carries out the instructions defined in the interface?
(a) Operating System
(b) Compiler
(c) Implementation
(d) Interpreter
Answer:
(c) Implementation

Question 9.
The functions which will give exact result when same arguments are passed are called ……………………….
(a) Impure functions
(b) Partial Functions
(c) Dynamic Functions
(d) Pure functions
Answer:
(d) Pure functions

Question 10.
The functions which cause side effects to the arguments passed are called ……………………….
(a) Impure functions
(b) Partial Functions
(c) Dynamic Functions
(d) Pure functions
Answer:
(a) Impure functions

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a subroutine?
Answer:
Subroutines are the basic building blocks of computer programs. Subroutines are small sections of code that are used to perform a particular task that can be used repeatedly. In Programming languages these subroutines are called as Functions.

Question 2.
Define Function with respect to Programming language?
Answer:
A function is a unit of code that is often defined within a greater code structure. Specifically, a function contains a set of code that works on many kinds of inputs, like variants, expressions and produces a concrete output.

Question 3.
Write the inference you get from X: = (78)?
Answer:
Value 78 being bound to the name X.

Question 4.
Differentiate interface and implementation?
Answer:
Interface:
Interface just defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it.

Implementation:
Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface.

Question 5.
Which of the following is a normal function definition and which is recursive function definition?
Answer:
(I) Let Recursive sum x y:
return x + y

(II) let disp:
print ‘welcome’

(III) let Recursive sum num:
if (num! = 0) then return num + sum (num – 1) else
return num

Recursive function
Normal function
Recursive function

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Mention the characteristics of Interface?
Answer:
Characteristics of interface:

The class template specifies the interfaces to enable an object to be created and operated properly.
An object’s attributes and behaviour is controlled by sending functions to the object.

Question 2.
Why strlen is called pure function?
Answer:
strlen (s) is called each time and strlen needs to iterate over the whole of ‘s’. If the compiler is smart enough to work out that strlen is a pure function and that ‘s’ is not updated in the lbop, then it can remove the redundant extra calls to strlen and make the loop to execute only one time. This function reads external memory but does not change it, and the value returned derives from the external memory accessed.

Question 3.
What is the side effect of impure function. Give example?
Answer:
Impure Function:

The return value of the impure functions does not solely depend on its arguments passed. Hence, if you call the impure functions with the same set of arguments, you might get the different return values. For example, random( ), Date( ).
They may modify the arguments which are passed to them.

Question 4.
Differentiate pure and impure function?
Answer:
Pure Function:

The return value of the pure functions solely depends on its arguments passed.
If you call the pure functions with the same set of arguments, you will always get the same return values.
They do not have any side effects.
They do not modify the arguments which are passed to them.

Impure Function:

The return value of the impure functions does not solely depend on its arguments passed.
If you call the impure functions with the same set of arguments, you might get the different return values. For example, random( ), Date( ).
They have side effects.
They may modify the arguments which are passed to them.

Question 5.
What happens if you modify a variable outside the function? Give an example?
Answer:
When a function depends on variables or functions outside of its definition block, you can never be sure that the function will behave the same every time it’s called.
For example let y: = 0
(int) inc (int) x
y: = y + x;
return (y)
In the above example the value of y get changed inside the function defintion due to which the result will change each time. The side effect of the inc ( ) function is it is changing the data ‘ of the external visible variable ‘y’.

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are called Parameters and write a note on?
Answer:

Parameter without Type
Parameter with Type Parameters (and arguments)

Parameters are the variables in a function definition and arguments are the values which are passed to a function definition.

(I) Parameter without Type
Let us see an example of a function definition:
(requires: b> = 0)
(returns: a to the power of b)
let rec pow a b: =
if b = 0 then 1
else a * pow a (b – 1)
In the above function definition variable ‘b’ is the parameter and the value which is passed to the variable ‘b’ is the argument. The precondition (requires) and postcondition (returns) of the function is given. Note we have not mentioned any types: (data types). Some language compiler solves this type (data type) inference problem algorithmically, but some require the type to be mentioned.

In the above function definition if expression can return 1 in the then branch, by the typing rule the entire if expression has type int. Since the if expression has type ‘int ’, the function’s return type also be ‘inf. ‘b ’is compared to 0 with the equality operator, so ‘b ’is also a type of ‘int. Since a is multiplied with another expression using the * operator, ‘a’ must be an int.

(II) Parameter with Type
Now let us write the same function definition with types for some reason:
(requires: b > 0)
(returns: a to the power of b)
let rec pow (a: int) (b: int): int : =
if b = 0 then 1
else a * pow b (a – 1)
When we write the type annotations for ‘a ’ and ‘b ’ the parentheses are mandatory. Generally we can leave out these annotations, because it’s simpler to let the compiler infer them. There are times we may want to explicitly write down types. This is useful on times when you get a type error from the compiler that doesn’t make sense. Explicitly annotating the types can help with debugging such an error message.

The syntax to define functions is close to the mathematical usage: the definition is introduced by the keyword let, followed by the name of the function and its arguments; then the formula that computes the image of the argument is written after an = sign. If you want to define a recursive function: use “let rec ” instead of “let
Syntax: The syntax for function definitions:

let rec fnal a2 … an : = k
Here the fn is a variable indicating an identifier being used as a function name. The names ‘al ’ to ‘an ’ are variables indicating the identifiers used as parameters. The keyword ‘rec ’ is required if fn ’ is to be a recursive function; otherwise it may be omitted.
For example: let us see an example to check whether the entered number is even or odd.
(requires: x> = 0)
let rec even x : = x = 0 || odd (x – 1)
return ‘even’
(requires: x> = 0)
let odd x : =
x< >0 && even (x – 1)
return ‘odd’
The syntax for function types:
x → y
x₁ → x₂ → y
x₁ → … → x_n → y
The ‘x’ and ‘y’ are variables indicating types. The type x → y is the type of a function that gets an input of type ‘x’ and returns an output of type ‘y’. Whereas x₁ → x₂ → y is a type of a function that takes two inputs, the first input is of type ‘x1 ’ and the second input of type ‘x2’, and returns an output of type ‘y’. Likewise x1 → … → xn → y has type ‘x’ as input of n arguments and ‘y’ type as output.

Question 2.
Identify in the following program
Answer:
let rec gcd a b : =
if b < > 0 then gcd b (a mod b) else return a
(I) Name of the function
gcd

(II) Identify the statement which tells it is a recursive function
let rec

(III) Name of the argument variable
a, b

(IV) Statement which invoke the function recursively
gcd b(a mod b) [when b < > 0]

(V) Statement which terminates the recursion
return a (when b becomes 0).

Question 3.
Explain with example Pure and impure functions?
Answer:
Pure functions:
Pure functions are functions which will give exact result when the same arguments are passed. For example the mathematical function sin (0) always results 0. This means that every time you call the function with the same arguments, you will always get the same result. A function can be a pure function provided it should not have any external variable which will alter the behaviour of that variable.
Let us see an example
let square x
return: x * x
The above function square is a pure function because it will not give different results for same input. There are various theoretical advantages of having pure functions. One advantage is that if a function is pure, then if it is called several times with the same arguments, the compiler only needs to actually call the function once. Let’s see an example let i: = 0;
if i < strlen (s) then – Do something which doesn’t affect s ++ i If it is compiled, strlen (s) is called each time and strlen needs to iterate over the whole of ‘s’.

If the compiler is smart enough to work out that strlen is a pure function and that ‘s’ is not updated in the loop, then it can remove the redundant extra calls to strlen and make the #loop to execute only one time. From these what we can understand, strlen is a pure function because the function takes one variable as a parameter, and accesses it to find its length.

This function reads external memory but does not change it, and the value returned derives from the external memory accessed. Impure functions: The variables used inside the function may cause side effects through the functions which are not passed with any arguments.

In such cases the function is called impure function. When a function depends on variables or functions outside of its definition block, you can never be sure that the function will behave the same every time it’s called. For example the mathematical function random Q will give different outputs for the same function call, let Random number let a : = random( ) if a > 10 then
return: a
else
return: 10
Flere the function Random is impure as it is not sure what will be the result when we call the function.

Question 4.
Explain with an example interface and implementation?
Answer:
Interface Vs Implementation:
An interface is a set of action that an object can do. For example when you press a light switch, the light goes on, you may not have cared how it splashed the light. In Object Oriented Programming language, an Interface is a description of all functions that a class must have in order to be a new interface.

In our example, anything that “ACTSLIKE” a light, should have function defnitions like turn on ( ) and a turn off ( ). The purpose of interfaces is to allow the computer to enforce the properties of the class of TYPE T (whatever the interface is) must have functions called X, Y, Z, etc.

A class declaration combines the external interface (its local state) with an implementation of that interface (the code that carries out the behaviour). An object is an instance created from the class. The interface defines an object’s visibility to the outside world.

The difference between interface and implementation is:

Interface:
Interface just defines what an object can do, but won’t actually do it. Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface.

Implementation:
Implementation carries out the instructions defined in the interface.
In object oriented programs classes are the interface and how the object is processed and executed is the implementation.

Characteristics of interface

The class template specifies the interfaces to enable an object to be created and operated properly.
An object’s attributes and behaviour is controlled by sending functions to the object.

For example, let’s take the example of increasing a car’s speed.

The person who drives the car doesn’t care about the internal working. To increase the speed of the car he just presses the accelerator to get the desired behaviour. Here the accelerator is the interface between the driver (the calling / invoking object) and the engine (the called object). In this case, the function call would be Speed (70): This is the interface.

Internally, the engine of the car is doing all the things. It’s where fuel, air, pressure, and electricity come together to create the power to move the vehicle. All of these actions are separated from the driver, who just wants to go faster.

Let us see a simple example, consider the following implementation of a function that finds the minimum of its three arguments:
let min 3 x y z : =
if x < y then
if x < z then x else z
else
if y < z then y else z

Practice Programs
Question 1.
Write algorithmic function definition to find the minimum among 3 numbers?
Answer:
let min 3 x y z : =
if x < y then
if x < z then x else z
else
if y < z then y else z

Question 2.
Write algorithmic recursive function definition to find the sum of n natural numbers?
Answer:
let rec sum num:
if (num! = 0) then return num + sum (num – 1)
else
return num

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Function Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
……………………… are expressed using statements of a programming language.
(a) Algorithm
(b) Procedure
(c) Specification
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(a) Algorithm

Question 2.
……………………… are the basic building blocks of a computer programs.
(a) Code
(b) Subroutines
(c) Modules
(d) Variables
Answer:
(b) Subroutines

Question 3.
In programming languages, subroutines are called as …………………………..
(a) Functions
(b) Task
(c) Modules
(d) Code
Answer:
(a) Functions

Question 4.
Find the correct statement from the following.
(a) a : = (24) has an expression
(b) (24) is an expression
Answer:
(a) a : = (24) has an expression

Question 5.
……………………… binds values to names.
(a) Algorithms
(b) Variables
(c) Interface
(d) Definitions
Answer:
(d) Definitions

Question 6.
Identify the statement which is wrong.
(a) Definitions are expressions
(b) Definitions are distinct syntactic blocks.
(c) Definitions can have expressions, nested inside them.
Answer:
(a) Definitions are expressions

Question 7.
The name of the function in let rec pow ab : = is …………………………
(a) Let
(b) Rec
(c) Pow
(d) a b
Answer:
(c) Pow

Question 8.
In function definition pre condition is given by ……………………….
(a) Needed
(b) Let
(c) Returns
(d) Requires
Answer:
(d) Requires

Question 9.
In function definition post condition is given by …………………………
(a) Needed
(b) Let
(c) Returns
(d) Requires
Answer:
(c) Returns

Question 10.
In b = 0, = is ……………………….. operator
(a) Assignment
(b) Equality
(c) Logical
(d) Not equal
Answer:
(b) Equality

Question 11.
The formula should be written after ……………………….. sign
(a) +
(b) –
(c) =
(d) ++
Answer:
(c) =

Question 12.
To define a recursive function, …………………………. is used.
(a) Let
(b) Let r
(c) Let rfn
(d) Let rec
Answer:
(d) Let rec

Question 13.
Find which is false.
(a) All function definitions are static
(b) All function definitions are dynamic
Answer:
(b) All function definitions are dynamic

Question 14.
A ……………………….. combines the external interface with an implementation of that interface.
Answer:
class declaration

Question 15.
An …………………………. is an instance created from the class.
(a) Object
(b) Functions
(c) Subroutines
(d) Definitions
Answer:
(a) Object

Question 16.
Find the statement which is not true.
(a) The interface defines an objects visibility to the outside world
(b) Interface defines what an object can do.
(c) In object oriented programs, objects are interfaces
Answer:
(c) In object oriented programs, objects are interfaces

Question 17.
An ………………………… attributes and behaviour is controlled by sending functions to the object.
Answer:
Objects

Question 18.
The class template specifies the ………………………. to enable an object to be created and operated properly.
Answer:
Interfaces

Question 19.
The accelerator is the …………………………… between the driver and the engine.
(a) Interface
(b) Object
(c) Instruction
(d) Code
Answer:
(a) Interface

Question 20.
sin (0) = 0 is an example for ………………………. function.
(a) Impure
(b) Pure
(c) Interface
(d) Instruction
Answer:
(b) Pure

Question 21.
Find the impure function from the following.
(a) Sin (0)
(b) Square x
(c) Strlen (s)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 22.
The function random ( ) is an example for …………………….. functions.
Answer:
Impure

Question 23.
Why is the function random( ) is a impure function?
(a) It gives different outputs for same function call
(b) It gives different outputs when 0 is given
(c) It will not give different output
Answer:
(a) It gives different outputs for same function call

Question 24.
Which function definition, doesn’t modify the arguments passed to them?
(a) Pure function
(b) Impure function
(c) Object
(d) Interface
Answer:
(a) Pure function

Question 25.
How many parameters are defined in the function let rec gcd a b : =
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 26.
In the function definition, the keyword let is followed by …………………………
(a) Function name
(b) Arguments
(c) Parameters
(d) Implementations
Answer:
(a) Function name

Question 27.
Find the correct statement from the following function definitions. let rec p on a b : =
(a) data type of the parameters are given
(b) data type of the parameters are not mentioned
Answer:
(b) data type of the parameters are not mentioned

Question 28.
If a function is not a recursive one, then ……………………………. is used
(a) abc
(b) gcd
(c) let
(d) let rec
Answer:
(c) let

Question 29.
Find the name of the function,
let rec even x : =
(a) Let
(b) Rec
(c) Even
(d) x
Answer:
(c) Even

Question 30.
Match the following function definitions with their terms.
let rec odd xy : =

Keyword – (i) Xy
Recursion – (ii) Odd
Function name – (iii) Rec
Parameters – (iv) let

(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)
(b) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv) 2 – (i) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (iv) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)

Question 31.
In object oriented programming language, an is a description of all functions that a class must have
(a) Object
(b) Class
(c) Interface
(d) Code
Answer:
(c) Interface

Question 32.
The ……………………… defines an object’s visibility to the outside world.
(a) Object
(b) Interface
(c) Pure function
(d) Impure function
Answer:
(b) Interface

Question 33.
Find the correct statement.
(i) Evaluation of pure function causes side effects to its output.
(ii) Evaluation of Impure function causes side effects to its output.
Answer:
(ii) Evaluation of Impure function causes side effects to its output.

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What are the two types of parameter passing?
Answer:

Parameter without type
Parameter with type

Question 2.
In the function definition
let rec pow a b : = Is it recursive function. If so Explain. Why?
Answer:
Yes it is a recursive function. It is given in the function definition as rec which indicates recursive function.

Question 3.
Write the syntax for the function definitions?
Answer:
let rec f_n a₁ a₂ … a_n : = k
f_n : Function name
a₁ … a_n – variable
rec: recursion

Question 4.
Define recursive functions: How will you define it?
Answer:
A function definition which calls itself is called recursive functions. It is given by let rec.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on Definitions?
Answer:
Definitions bind values to names, Definitions are not expressions, Definitions are distinct syntactic blocks. Definitions can have expressions nested inside them, and vice – versa.

Question 2.
Write the pre condition and post condition for the function?
Answer:
(requires: b > 0)
– (returns: a to the power of b) let rec pow(a : int) (b : int): int: =

Pre condition : b > 0
Post condition : a to the power of b.

Question 3.
Give function definition for the Chameleons of Chromeland problem?
Answer:
let rec monochromatize abc : =
if a > 0 then
a, b, c : = a – 1, b – 1, c + 2
else
a: = 0, b: = 0, c: = a + b + c
return c

Question 4.
Give the flow chart for Chameleons of Chromeland problem?
Answer:
The algorithm is depicted in the flowchart as below:

Question 5.
Give the example function definition for parameter with type?
Answer:
Parameter with Type:
Now let us write the same function definition with types for some reason:
(requires: b> 0)
(returns: a to the power of b ) let rec pow (a: int) (b: int): int : =
if b = 0 then 1
else a * pow b (a – 1)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economic Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ____________
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 2.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ____________
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical Geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical Geometry

Question 3.
The first person used the mathematics in Economics is ____________
(a) Sir William Petty
(b) Giovanni Ceva
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Irving Fisher
Answer:
(a) Sir William Petty

Question 4.
Function with single independent variable is known as ____________
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polvnomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 5.
A statement of equality between two quantities is called ____________
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 6.
An incremental change in dependent variable with respect to change in independent variable is known as ____________
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 7.
(y – y₁) = m (x – x₁) gives the ____________
(a) Slope
(b) Straight line
(c) Constant
(d) Curve
Answer:
(b) Straight line

Question 8.
Suppose D = 50 – 5P. When D is zero then ____________
(a) P is 10
(b) P is 20
(c) P is 5
(d) Pis-10
Answer:
(a) Pis 10

Question 9.
Suppose D = 150 – 50P. Then, the slope is
(a) -5
(b) 50
(c) 5
(d) – 50
Answer:
(d) – 50

Question 10.
Suppose determinant of a matrix A = 0, then the solution ____________
(a) Exists
(b) Does not exist
(c) Is infinity
(d) Is zero
Answer:
(b) Does not exist

Question 11.
State of rest is a point termed as ____________
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 12.
Differentiation of constant term gives ____________
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) infinity
(d) non – infinity
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 13.
Differentiation of xⁿ is ____________
(a) nx ^{(n – 1)}
(b) nx ^{(n + 1)}
(c) zero
(d) one
Answer:
(a) nx ^{(n – 1)}

Question 14.
Fixed Cost is the ____________ term in cost function represented in mathematical form.
(a) Middle
(b) Price
(c) Quantity
(d) Constant
Answer:
(d) Constant

Question 15.
The first differentiation of Total Revenue function gives ____________
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Profit
(c) Marginal Revenue
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Marginal Revenue

Question 16.
The elasticity of demand is the ratio of ____________
(a) Marginal demand function and Revenue function
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function
(c) Fixed and variable revenues
(d) Marginal Demand function and Total demand function
Answer:
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function

Question 17.
If x + y = 5 and x – y = 3 then, Value of x ____________
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 18.
Integration is the reverse process of
(a) Difference
(b) Mixing
(c) Amalgamation
(d) Differentiation
Answer:
(d) Differentiation

Question 19.
Data processing is done by ____________
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 20.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ____________
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) getting new slide
(d) deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) getting new slide

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
If 62 = 34 + 4x what is x?
solution:
If 62 = 34 + 4x what is x
Given:
62 = 34 + 4x
34 + 4x = 62
4x = 62 – 34
4x = 28
x = $\frac { 28 }{ 4 }$
x = 7

Question 22.
Given the demand function q = 150 – 3p, derive a function for MR.
Solution:
Given:
q = 150 – 3p
$\frac { dq }{ dq }$ = 0 – 3 (1)
$\frac { dq }{ dq }$ = – 3
Revenue = price × quantity = p (150 – 3p)
= p (150 – 3p)
= 150p – 3p²
MR = $\frac { dq }{ dq }$ = 150 $\frac { dq }{ dq }$ -6p $\frac { dq }{ dq }$
= 150 ($\frac { – 1 }{ 3 }$) – 6p ($\frac { – 1 }{ 3 }$)
= – 50 + 2p
= – 50 = 2 ($\frac { 150 – q }{ 3 }$)
= 50 + 100 + $\frac { – 2 q }{ 3 }$
= 50 – $\frac { 2 q }{ 3 }$
= 50 – $\frac { 2 }{ 3 }$ (150 – 3p)
MR = 2p – 50

Question 23.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + 10x +15x²
Solution:
Given:
Formula = $\frac{TC}{x}$
Average cost function = $\frac{60}{x}$ + $\frac{10x}{x}$ + $\frac { 15x^{ 2 } }{ x } $
Average cost = $\frac{60}{x}$ + 10 + 15x

Question 24.
The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the price and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5.
Solution:
Given:
x = 20 – 2p – p²
p = 2.5
e_d= ($\frac { p }{ x }$) ($\frac { dx }{ dp }$)
If p = 2.5 then x,
x = 20 – 2 (2.5) – (2.5)²
= 20 – 5 – (6.25)
= 15 – 6.25
x = 8.75
Here x = 20 – 2p – p²
$\frac { dx }{ dp }$ = 0 – 2 (1) – 2p
= -2 – 2p
If P = 2.5 then
$\frac { dx }{ dp }$ = -2 – 2 (2.5)
= -2 – 5
$\frac { dx }{ dp }$ = – 7
e_d = $\frac { -2.5 }{ 8.75 }$ × – 7
= 0.2857 × – 7
e_d = 2

Question 25.
Suppose the price p and quantity q of a commodity are related by the equation q = 30 – 4p – p²
find :

e_d at p = 2
MR

Solution:
Given:
q = 30 – 4p – p²
1. e_d = ($\frac { p }{ x }$)($\frac { dx }{ dp }$)
If P = 2 then
x = 30 – 4 (2) – 2²
= 30 – 8 – 4
=20 – 12
x = 18
$\frac { dx }{ dp }$ =30 – 4p – p²
= 0 – 4 – 2p
= 0 – 4 – 2 (2)
= -4 -4
= -8
e_d = $\frac { 2 }{ 18 }$ (-8)
x = – $\frac { 16 }{ 18 }$
e_d = – 0.88

2. MR
TR = p ×q
TR = p (30 – 4p – p²)
= 30p – 4p² – p³
MR = $\frac { d(TR) }{ dp }$
= 30 – 8p – 3p²
If p = 2
MR = 30 – 8 (2) – 3 (2)²
= 30 – 16 12
MR = 2

Question 26.
What is the formula for elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Solution:
Elasticity of supply = ($\frac { p }{ q }$) ($\frac { dq }{ dp }$)

Question 27.
What are the main menus of MS Word?
Answer:

Home menu
Insert
Page layout
Reference
Review
View
Print layout
Outline
Task pane
Toolbars
Header and footer
Footnotes

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics.
Answer:

Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
Mathematical Methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
Mathematical Methods help to quantify the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by the Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 29.
Solve for A: quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Solution:
Given:
16x – 4 = 68 + 1x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = ($\frac { 72 }{ 9 }$)
x = 8

Question 30.
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC.
Solution:
Given:
(I) Average Revenue = $\frac{R}{q}$
$\frac { 600q-0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } $ = $\frac{600q}{q}$ – $\frac { 0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } $
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average Cost = $\frac{C}{q}$
= $\frac{150q}{q}$ + $\frac{60000}{q}$
AC = 150 + $\frac{60000}{q}$

(III) Marginal Revenue = $\frac{dR}{dq}$
R = 600q – 0.03q²
$\frac{dR}{dq}$ = 600 – (0.03) (2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = $\frac{dC}{dq}$
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 150

Question 31.
Solve the following linear equations by using Cramer’s rule.
x₁ – x₂ + x₃ = 2
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = 0
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = – 6
Solution:

= 1 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (- 1 + 1)
= 1(- 2) + 1 (0)
∆ = – 2 – 2
∆ = – 2 – 2
∆ = – 4

= 2 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (0 + 6) + 1 (0 – 6)
= 2 (- 2) + 1(6) + 1 (- 6)
= – 4 + 6 – 6
∆ = – 4

= 1 (0 – 6) – 2 (- 1 – 1)+1(- 6 + 0)
= 1 (- 6) – 2 (- 2) + 1 (- 6)
= – 6 + 4 – 6
= – 12 + 4
∆x₃ = -8

1 (- 6 + 0) + 1 (- 6 + 0) + 2 (- 1 + 1)
= 1 (- 6) + 1 (- 6) + 2 (0)
= – 6 – 6
∆x₃ = – 12

Question 32.
If a firm faces the total cost function TC = 5+ x² where x is output, what is TC when x is 10?
Solution:
Given:
TC = 5 + x²
If x = 10
TC = 5 + 10²
= 5 + 100
TC = 105

Question 33.
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q²+ 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function.
solution:
Given:
TC= 2.5q³ – 13q²+ 50q + 12
Marginal cost function
MC = $\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }$
= $\frac { d }{ dq }$ [2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12]
= 2.5 (3q²) – 13 (2q) + 50 (1) + 0
MC = 7.5q – 26q + 50
Average cost AC =$\frac { TC }{ q }$
= $\frac{2.5 q^{3}-13 q^{2}+50 q+12}{q}$
= $\frac{2.5 q^{3}}{q}$ – $\frac{13 q^{2}}{q}$ + $\frac { 50q }{ q }$ + $\frac { 12 }{ q }$
AC = 2.5q – 13q + 50 + $\frac { 12 }{ q }$

Question 34.
What are the steps involved in executing an MS Excel Sheet?
Answer:
MS Excel is used in data analysis by using formulas. A spreadsheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
To start an excel there are various options.
Click Start → Program → Microsoft Excel
Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
A Research scholar researching the market for fresh cow milk assumes that Qt = f (Pt, Y, A, N, Pc) where Qt is the quantity of milk demanded, Pt is the price of fresh cow milk, Y is average household income, A is advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk, N is population and Pc is the price of processed pocket milk.

What does Qt= f (Pt, Y,A,N, Pc) mean in words?
Identify the independent variables.
Make up a specific form for this function. (Use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the coefficients of the different independent variables should be positive or negative.)

Solution:
1. Qt is the function of Pt, Y, A, N, Pc
The determinants of demand are
Pt = Price of fresh cow milk.
Y = Average household income
A = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
N = Population
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk.

2. Y and N are independent variables

3. Average household income and population are directly proportional to quantity demanded of cow’s milk (ie if Y and N increases Qt also increase)
Price of fresh cow milk, advertising expenditure on pocket milk and price of processed pocket milk are inversely proportional to Qt.
There
Qt = – aPt + by – CA + dN – ePc

Question 36.
Calculate the elasticity of demand for the demand schedule by using differential calculus method P = 60 – 0.2 Q where price is

zero
Rs.20
Rs.40

Solution:
P = 60 – 0.2 Q
0.2 Q = 60 – P
(0.2 Q) 10 = (60 – p) 10
2 Q = 600 – 10p
Q = 300 – 5p
Given demand function Q = 300 – 5p
1. If P = 0 then Q = 300 – 5 (0)
= 300
$\frac { dq }{ dp }$ = 300 – 5p
= 0 – 5
$\frac { dq }{ dp }$ = – 5
e_d = $\frac { p }{ p }$($\frac { dq }{ dp }$)
= $\frac { 0 }{ 300 }$(-5)
e_d = 0

2. If p = 20 then Q = 300 = 5 (20)
= 200
e_d = $\frac { 20 }{ 200 }$ (-5)
= – $\frac { 100 }{ 200 }$
e_d = – 0.5

3. If = 40 then Q = 300 – 5 (40)
= 300 – 200
Q = 100
e_d= $\frac { p }{ q }$($\frac { dq }{ dp }$)
= $\frac { 40 }{ 100 }$ (-5)
e_d = – $\frac { 200 }{ 100 }$
e_d = -2

Question 37.
The demand and supply functions are pd=1600 – x² and ps = 2x² + 400 respectively. Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus at an equilibrium point.
Answer:
At equilibrium p_d = p_s
1600 – x² = 2x² + 400
– x² – 2x² = 400 – 1600
– 3x² = – 1200
x² = $\frac { 1200 }{ 3 }$
x² = 400
x = 20
If x = 20 p_o = 1600 – (20)²
= 1600 – 400
p_o = 1200
p_o x_o = 1200 × 20
= 24000

= 8000 – $\frac { 8000 }{ 3 }$
= $\frac { 24000 – 8000 }{ 3 }$
= $\frac { 16000 }{ 3 }$
C.S = 5333.3

Question 4.
What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in economics?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate

In economics the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for data compiling, editing, manipulating and presenting the results.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction To Micro-Economics Additional Questions and Answers

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Answer:
(c) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 3.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 4.
(a) Differentiation of constant is zero
(b) Differentiation of xn is x
(c) Constant value is known as fixed cost
(d) x° = 1 when x = 0
Answer:
(d) x° = 1 when x = 0

Question 5.
(a) The population density of T.N is 480 as per 2011 census.
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
(d) The headquarters of southern railway is at Trichy
Answer:
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.

Pick the odd one out

Question 6.
(a) Arithmetic
(b) Comparison
(c) Text concatenation
(d) Foot note
Answer:
(d) Foot note

Question 7.
(a) X = independent variable
(b) Y = dependent variable
(c) X = f (y)
(d) M – slope
Answer:
(c) X = f (y)

Choose the correct statement

Question 8.
(a) X + Y = 6 and X – Y = 2 then X = 4
(b) If D = 60 – 6P when D is 0 then P is 20
(c) In the equation 0.1 X² + 1 OX + 100 constant = 10
(d) If Y = 6X³ then slope is 9X:
Answer:
(a) X + Y = 6 and X – Y = 2 then X = 4

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 9.

Answer:
(c) $\frac { d(c) }{ dx }$ = 0 where c is a variable

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) ∫f(x) dx – (i) F (x) + C

Fill in the blanks with suitable option given below

Question 11.
__________ is the first to use mathematics in economics.
(a) Giovanni Ceva
(b) William petty
(c) J.M.Keynes
(d) None
Answer:
(b) William petty

Question 12.
The formula for constructing a straight line is __________
(a) $\mathrm{m}=\frac{\mathrm{y}_{2}-\mathrm{y}_{1}}{\mathrm{x}_{2}-\mathrm{x}_{1}}$
(b) y = mx
(c) $\frac { Change in x }{ Change in y }$
(d) (y -y₁) = m (x – x₁)
Answer:
(d) (y -y₁) = m (x – x₁)

Question 13.
If the determinant ∆ = ?, then solution does not exist
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) -1
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 14.
Power rule ∫xdx ______
(a) $\frac{x^{2}}{n+1}$ + C
(b) $\frac { pq }{ n + 1 }$ + C
(c) $\frac{\mathrm{x}^{(\mathrm{n}+1)}}{\mathrm{n}+1}$ + C
(d) None
Answer:
(c) $\frac{\mathrm{x}^{(\mathrm{n}+1)}}{\mathrm{n}+1}$ + C

Question 15.
______ is a rectangular array of numbers systematically arranged in rows and columns within brackets.
(a) Matrix
(b) Determinants
(c) Function
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Matrix

Choose the best option

Question 16.
__________ provides the solution of a system of linear equations with ‘n’ variables and ‘n’ equations
(a) Demand function
(b) Consumer’s surplus
(c) Equilibrium
(d) Cramer’s rule
Answer:
(d) Cramer’s rule

Question 17.
The first known writer to apply the mathematical method to economic problems was __________
(a) Giovanni Ceva
(b) William petty
(c) Keynes
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Giovanni ceva

Question 18.
In y = f (x) which is the independent variable
(a) f
(b) y
(c) x
(d) None
Answer:
(c) x

Question 19.
Formula for marginal cost is
(a) MC = $\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }$
(b) MC = $\frac { d(TC) }{ dP }$
(c) MC = $\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }$
(d) None
Answer:
(a) MC = $\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }$

Question 20.
Function with a single independent variable are called _____
(a) Multivariate function
(b) Consumption function
(c) Simple univariate function
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Simple univariate function

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is economic analysis?
Answer:
Economic analysis is a systematic approach to determine the optimum use of scare resources and choose available alternatives and select the best alternative to achieve a particular objective.

Question 2.
What is the slope of a straight line ?
Answer:
Slope or gradient of the line represents the ratio of the changes in vertical and horizontal lines

Question 3.
State the phases of evolution of ICT?
Answer:

Computer
PC
Micro Processor
Internet and
Wireless links.

Question 4.
What are determinants?
Answer:
The determinant is an arrangement of the same elements of the corresponding matrix into rows and columns by enclosing vertical lines.

Question 5.
State the application of differential calculus.
Answer:

To find the rate of change in demand with respect to price.
To find the rate of change in income with respect to the investment.

Question 6.
What is ICT?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.

Question 7.
What is a worksheet?
Answer:
A worksheet is a table like a document containing rows and columns with data and formula

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
The marginal cost function for producing x units is y = 23 + 16.x – 3.x2 and the total cost for producing zero unit is Rs. 40. Obtain the total cost function and the average cost function.
Solution:
Given Marginal cost functions
y = 23 + 16x – 3x²
C = 40

Average cost function = $\frac { TC }{ x }$
= $\frac{23 x+8 x^{2}-x^{3}+40}{x}$
AC = 23 + 8x – x + $\frac { 40 }{ x }$

Question 2.
Find the solution of the system of equations
5x₁ + 3x₂ = 30
6x₁ – 2X₂ = 8
Solution :

Question 3.
If the demand function is p = 35 – 2x – x² and the demand x_o is 3, what will be the consmer’s surplus
Solution:
Given:
p = 35 – 2x – x²
If x = 3 then
p = 35-2 (3) – 3²
= 35 – 6 – 9
p = 20

= 35 (3) – 9 – 9 – 60
= 105 – 9 – 9 – 60
CS = 27 units

Question 4.
Given the total cost function TC = 15 + 3Q2 + 7Q3 drive the marginal cost function.
Solution:
Given:
TC = 15 + 3Q² + 7Q²
MC = $\frac { d(15) }{ dQ }$ + $\frac{\mathrm{d}\left(3 \mathrm{Q}^{2}\right)}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{Q}}$ + $\frac{\mathrm{d}\left(7 \mathrm{Q}^{3}\right)}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{Q}}$
= 0+ 3 (2) Q + 7 (3) Q + (3) Q²
MC = 6Q + 21 Q²

Question 5.
Find the value of the determinant of the matrix
Solution:
Given:

= 3 (-5) -4 (-19) +7 (-3)
= -15 + 76 – 21
A = 40

Question 6.
Find the value of the determinant of the matrix A =.
Solution:
Given:

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Find the equation of a straight line which passes through two points (2,2) and (4, -8) which are (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) respectively.
Note: For drawing a straight line, at least two points are required. Many straight lines can pass through a single point.
Solution:
Here x₁ = 2 y_1- = 2 and x₂ = 4 y₂ = – 8
Formula for constructing a straight line.

Slope (m) = -5
y intercept = 12
Constant = C
This is of this from y = mx + C
y = 12 – 5x
When x = 0
y = 12
When y = 0
x = $\frac { 12 }{ 5 }$ = 2.4

Question 2.
Find the solution of the equation system
Solution:
7x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = 0
10x₁ – 2x₂ + x₃ = 8
6x₁ + 3x₂ – 2x₃ = 7

= 7 (4 – 3) + 1 (-20 -6) -1 (30 + 12)
= 7 (1) + 1 (-26) -1 (42)
+ 7 -26 – 42
∆ = – 61

= 0 (4 -3) + 1 (-16 -7) – 1 (24+14)
= 0 + 1 (-23) – 1 (38)
= -23 – 38
= -61

= 7 (-16 – 7) – 0 (- 20 – 6) – 1 (70 – 48)
= 7 ( -23) + 0 (-20 – 6) – 1(70 – 48)
= – 161 – 22
= – 183

= 7(-14 -24) + 1 (70 – 48) + 1 (30 + 12)
= 7 (-38) + 1 (22) + 0
= – 266 + 22
= – 244

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