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Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai . NOTICE Articles for School Magazine 20th October, 2020 Students from Std. VI to X are requested to write and submit articles for the school magazine. You can write essays, poems, short stories, snippets, real life incidents, pencil sketches and paintings, Jokes and riddles in English, Tamil and Hindi. Do keep in mind the theme of the year ‘Be the Change to Bring a Change’. Last date for submission of articles to the undersigned is 5th January, 2020. All the club secretaries are requested to submit the activities report too. Caleb / Christabel Student Editors

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Subsidiary Books – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Purchases book is used to record ……………..
(a) all purchases of goods
(b) all credit purchases of assets
(c) all credit purchases of goods
(d) all purchases of assets
Answer:
(c) all credit purchases of goods

Question 2.
A periodic total of the purchases book is posted to the ……………..
(a) debit side of the purchases account
(b) debit side of the sales account
(c) credit side of the purchases account
(d) credit side of the sales account
Answer:
(a) debit side of the purchases account

Question 3.
Sales book is used to record ……………..
(a) all sales of goods
(b) all credit sales of assets
(c) all credit sales of goods
(d) all sales of assets and goods
Answer:
(c) all credit sales of goods

Question 4.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ……………..
(a) Sales account
(b) Cash account
(c) Purchases account
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(a) Sales account

Question 5.
Purchase returns book is used to record ……………..
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Question 6.
Sales return book is used to record ……………..
(a) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(c) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(d) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
Answer:
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately

Question 7.
Purchases of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ……………..
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Question 8.
The source document or voucher used for recording entries in sales book is ……………..
(a) Debit note
(b) Credit note
(c) Invoice
(d) Cash receipt
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Cash discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(b) Assets purchased on credit are recorded in journal proper
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(d) 3 grace days are added while determining the due date of the bill
Answer:
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts

Question 10.
Closing entries are recorded in ……………..
(a) Cash book
(b) Ledger
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchases book
Answer:
(c) Journal proper

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention four types of subsidiary books.
Answer:

1. Purchase Book
2. Sales Book
3. Purchase Return Book
4. Sales Return Book

Question 2.
What is purchases book?
Answer:
Purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded. When business wants to know the information about the credit purchases of goods at a glance, the information can be made available if purchases of goods on credit are separately recorded.

Question 3.
What is purchases returns book?
Answer:
Purchases returns book is a subsidiary book in which transactions relating to return of previously purchased goods to the suppliers, for which cash is not immediately received are recorded. Since goods are going out to the suppliers, they are also known as returns outward and the book is called as ‘returns outward book or returns outward journal’.

Question 4.
What is sales book?
Answer:
Sales book is a subsidiary book maintained to record credit sale of goods. Goods mean the items in which the business is dealing. These are meant for regular sale. Cash sale of goods and sale of property and assets whether for cash or on credit are not recorded in the sales book. This book is also named as sales day book, sold day book, sales journal or sale register.

Question 5.
What is sales returns book?
Answer:
Sales returns book is a subsidiary book, in which, details of return of goods sold for which cash is not immediately paid are recorded. Just as goods may be returned to suppliers, goods may be returned by customers.

Question 6.
What is debit note?
Answer:
A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned. This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned. It contains the description and details of goods returned, name of the party to whom goods are returned and net value of the goods so returned with reason for return.

Question 7.
What is credit note?
Answer:
A credit note is prepared by the seller and sent to the buyer when goods are returned indicating that the buyer’s account is credited in respect of goods returned. Credit note is a statement prepared by a trader who receives back the goods sold from his customer. It contains details such as the description of goods returned by the buyer, quantity returned and also their value.

Question 8.
What is journal proper?
Answer:
Journal proper is a residuary book which contains record of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary books such as cash book, purchases book, sales book, purchases returns book, sales returns book, bills receivable book and bills payable book. Thus, journal proper or general journal is a book in which the residual transactions which cannot be entered in any of the sub divisions of journal are entered.

Question 9.
Define bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 10.
What is an opening entry?
Answer:
Journal entry made in the beginning of the current year with the balances of assets and liabilities of the previous year is opening journal entry. In this entry, asset accounts are debited, liabilities and capital accounts are credited.

Question 11.
What is an invoice?
Answer:
Entries in the purchases day book are made from invoices which are popularly known as bills. Invoice is a business document or bill or statement, prepared and sent by the seller to the buyer giving the details of goods sold, such as quantity, quality, price, total value, etc. Thus, the invoice is a source document of prime entry both for the buyer and the seller.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the format of purchases book.
Answer:
Format of Purchases book / Purchases Journal

Question 2.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Purchases of goods on credit
4. When the proprietor takes goods for personal use
5. Goods returned to suppliers for which cash is not received immediately
6. Asset purchased as credit.

Answer:

1. Cash book
2. Sales book
3. Purchase book
4. Journal proper
5. Purchase return book
6. Journal proper

Question 3.
What are the advantages of subsidiary books?
Answer:
The advantages of maintaining subsidiary books are:
1. Proper and systematic record of business transactions: All the business transactions are classified and grouped conveniently as cash and non cash transactions, which are further classified as credit purchases, credit sales, returns, etc. As separate books are used for each type of transactions, individual transactions are properly and systematically recorded in the subsidiary books.

2. Convenient posting: All the transactions of a particular nature are recorded at one place, i.e., in one of the subsidiary books. For example, all credit purchases of goods are recorded in the purchases book and all credit sales of goods are recorded in the sales book. It facilitates posting to purchases account, sales account and concerned personal accounts.

3. Division of work: As journal is sub-divided, the work will be sub – divided and different persons can work on different books at the same time and the work can be speedily completed.

4. Efficiency: The sub – division of work gives the advantage of specialisation. When the same work is done by a person repeatedly the person becomes efficient in handling it. Thus, specialisation leads to efficiency in accounting work.

5. Helpful in decision making: Subsidiary books provide complete details about every type of transactions separately. Hence, the management can use the information as the basis for deciding its future actions. For example, information regarding sales returns from the sales returns book will enable the management to analyse the causes for sales returns and to adopt effective measures to remove deficiencies.

6. Prevents errors and frauds: Internal check becomes more effective as the work can be divided in such a manner that the work of one person is automatically checked by another person. With the use of internal check, the possibility of occurrence of errors or fraud may be avoided or minimised.

7. Availability of requisite information at a glance: When all transactions are entered in one journal, it is difficult to locate information about a particular item. When subsidiary books are maintained, details about a particular type of transaction can be obtained from subsidiary books. The maintenance of subsidiary books helps in obtaining the necessary information at a glance.

8. Detailed information available: As all transactions relating to a particular item are entered in a subsidiary book, it gives detailed information. It is easy to arrive at monthly or quarterly totals.

9. Saving in time: As there are many subsidiary books, work of entering can be done simultaneously by many persons. Thus, it saves time and accounting work can be completed quickly.

10. Labour of posting is reduced: Labour of posting is reduced as posting is made in periodical totals to the impersonal account, for example, Purchases account.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:

1. Endorsement of a bill and
2. Discounting of a bill

Answer:
1. Endorsement means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person. The person who endorses is called the “Endorser”. The person to whom a bill is endorsed is called the “Endorsee”. The endorsee is entitled to collect the money.

2. When the holder of a bill is in need of money before the due date of a bill, cash can be received by discounting the bill with the banker. This process is referred to as the discounting of bill. The banker deducts a small amount of the bill which is called discount and pays the balance in cash immediately to the holder of the bill.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods. (3 Marks)
2017:
April 5 – Purchased from Karthik Electric Co., on credit
10 Electric iron box @ ₹ 2,500 each
5 electric stoves @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 19 – Purchased on credit from Khaitan Electric Co.,
3 electric heaters @ ₹ 6,000 each
April 25 – Purchased from Polar Electric Co., on credit.
10 Fans @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 29 – Purchased from M & Co. for cash
10 electric stoves @ ₹ 3,000 each
Solution:
In the books of M/s Subhashree Electric Co.
Purchases book

Question 2.
Enter the following credit transactions in the purchases book of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Bought from Vasu 100 bags of rice @ ₹ 800 per bag
2. May 8 – Bought from Cheyyar Sugar Mills Ltd., 20 bags of sugar @ ₹ 2,600 per bag
3. May 10 – Bought from Ram Flour Mill, Coimbatore, 10 bags of wheat flour @ ₹ 750 per bag
4. May 15 – Bought from Nilgiri Tea Co., Nilgiris, 15 cases of tea @ ₹ 900 per case
5. May 25 – Bought from Sairam Coffee Works Ltd., 100 kgs of Coffee @ ₹ 190 per kg.
6. May 29 – Bought from X & Co. furniture worth ₹ 2,000

Solution:
In the books of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant
Purchase book

Question 3.
From the following transactions write up the Sales day book of M/s. Ram & Co., a stationery merchant. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. Jan. 1 – Sold to Anbu & Co., on credit 20 reams of white paper @ ₹ 150 per ream
2. Jan. 2 – Sold to Jagadish & Sons on credit 6 dozen pens @ ₹ 360 per dozen
3. Jan. 10 Sold old newspapers for cash @ ₹ 620
4. Jan. 15 – Sold on credit M/s. Elango & Co., 10 drawing boards @ ₹ 170 per piece
5. Jan. 20 – Sold to Kani & Co., 4 writing tables at ₹ 1,520 per table for cash

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ram & Co., Stationery Merchant
Sales book

Question 4.
Enter the following transactions in the Sales book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Sold to Naveen Stores, Trichy on credit 5 computer tables @ ₹ 1,750 per table
2. May 9 – Sold to Deepa & Co., Madurai on credit 6 dining tables @ ₹ 1,900 per dining table
3. May 15 – Sold to Rajesh 10 dressing tables @ ₹ 2,750 each on credit
4. May 24 – Sold to Anil 5 wooden tables @ ₹ 1,250 per table on credit
5. May 27 – Sold to Gopi 3 old computers @ ₹ 3,500 each
6. May 29 – Sold 50 chairs to Anil @ ₹ 275 each for cash

Solution:
In the books of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop
Sales book

Question 5.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases and sales books of Kannan, an automobile dealer, for the month of December, 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Kannan, an automobile dealer
Purchases book

Sales Book

Question 6.
Prepare Purchases book and Sales book in the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd., from the following transactions given for April, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017:
April 1 Purchased goods from Prasad, Kancheepuram on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 450 per meter
75 meters Velvet @ ₹ 180 per meter
April 10 Sold goods to Rathinam, Chennai on credit
60 meters Silk @ ₹ 490 per meter
50 meters Velvet @ ₹ 210 per meter
April 18 Nathan & Sons purchased from us on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 510 per meter
April 20 Purchased goods from Hari Ram & Sons, Madurai on credit
50 rolls kada cloth @ ₹ 730 per roll
80 rolls cotton cloth @ ₹ 650 per roll
April 24 Purchased from Mohan, Karur for cash
Shirting cloth @ ₹ 7,000
Sarees @ ₹ 25,000
Solution:
In the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd.,
Purchase book

Sales book

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare purchase day book and purchases returns book for the month of June, 2017 and post them into ledger accounts in the books of Robert Furniture Mart. (5 Marks)
2017:

June 1 – Purchased from Balu Traders 20 chairs @ ₹ 150 each on credit

June 13 – Bought from Subash & Co., on credit
2 Almirah @ ₹ 3,100 each
10 tables @ ₹ 1,500 each
15 chairs @ ₹ 200 each
Less: 10 % Trade discount on all items
Add: Freight charges ₹ 220

June 21 – Returned 2 damaged chairs to Balu Traders and cash not received

June 24 – Purchased from Sunrise Furniture Mart on credit
25 Almirahs @ ₹ 1,300 each

June 27 – Purchased from Mouli Traders on credit
10 executive tables @ ₹ 3,275 each

June 29 – Returned 3 Almirahs to Sunrise Furniture Mart and cash not received
Solution:
In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases book

In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases Return book

Ledger Acconts
Purchase A/c

Balu Traders A/c

Sunrise Furniture Mart A/c

Subash & Co.A/c

Mouli Traders A/c

Ledger Accounts
Purchase Return A/c

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017
Jan. 2 – Purchased from M/s. Raj Electronics on credit
20 cell phones @ ₹ 5,500 per piece
10 colour TVs @ ₹ 14,500 per piece

Jan. 5 Purchased from M/s. Ruby Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 1,650 per piece
8 Tape recorders @ ₹ 2,500 per piece
Trade discount on all items @ 10%

Jan. 10 Returned to M/s. Raj Electronics 4 cell phones damaged and cash not received

Jan. 20 Purchased from M/s. Suganthi Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 3,700 per piece
2 Sony colour TVs @ ₹ 27,000 per piece
Trade discount @ 5% on all items
Solution:
In the books of Suman
Purchase book

In the Books of Suman
Purchase returns book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Guhan & Sons, who is a textile dealer. (5 Marks)
2017
May 2 – Sold to M/s. Karan & Co., on credit
100 pieces towels @ ₹ 280 per piece
200 metres shirtings @ ₹ 270 per metre

May 5 – Sold to M/s. Veeran & Sons on credit
10 pieces ready – made dress @ ₹ 1,500 per piece

May 16 – Sold to M/s. Jain & Sons on credit
50 blankets @ ₹ 240 each

May 20 Damaged 10 pieces towels returned by Karan & Co. and cash not paid

May 25 Sold old furniture to M/s. Saran & Co., on credit ₹ 18,000

May 27 Returned 2 pieces ready-made dresses by M/’s. Veeran&Sons due to inferior qualityand cash not paid
Solution:
In the books of M/s Guhan & Sons, a textile dealer
Sales book

Sales return book

Question 10.
Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Ponni & Co., and post them to ledger. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. Aug. 1 – Sold goods to Senthil as per Invoice No. 68 for ₹ 20,500 on credit
2. Aug. 4 – Sold goods to Madhavan as per Invoice No. 74 for ₹ 12,800 on credit
3. Aug. 7 – Sold goods to Kanagasabai as per Invoice No. 78 for ₹ 7,500 on credit
4. Aug. 15 – Returns inward by Senthil as per Credit Note no. 7 for ₹ 1,500 for which cash is not paid
5. Aug. 20 – Sold goods to Selvam for ₹ 13,300 for cash
6. Aug. 25 – Sales returns of ₹ 1,800 by Madhavan as per Credit Note No. 11 for which cash is , not paid

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ponni & Co.,
Sales book

Sales returns book

Ledger Accounts in the books of M/s Ponni & Co.
Sales A/c

Sales Return A/c

Senthil A/c

Madhavan A/c

Kanagasabai A/c

Question 11.
Prepare necessary subsidiary books in the books of Niranjan and also Sachin account and Mukil account from the following transactions for the month of February, 2017.

In the books of Niranjan
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase return book

Sales return book

Sachin A/c

Mukil A/c

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book Stores.
2017:
Dec. 1 – Bought from M/s. Umadevi on credit
100 copies of Business Statistics Book @ ₹ 80 each
100 copies of Accountancy Book @ ₹ 150 each

Dec.7 – Sold to Sridevi & Co., on credit
240 copies of Business Statistics @ ₹ 90 each
250 copies of Accountancy books @ ₹ 170 each

Dec. 10 – Bought from Subha & Co.,
40 copies of Economics Books @ ₹ 80 each
Less: 15% Trade Discount

Dec. 15 Returned to M/s. Uma Devi 10 copies of damaged Accountancy book for which cash is not received

Dec. 18 Sold to Gupta Bros., on credit
200 copies of Economics book @ ₹ 95 each

Dec. 26 Returned 6 copies of Economics books to Subha & Co.,
Solution:
In the books of Nalanda Book Store
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase Return book

Textbook Case Study Solved

Mr. Joseph started a trading business of selling readymade clothes. In the earlier period, he dealt only with cash, because he felt that would be risk-free. But, later on, he had to give credit period for his regular customers in order to retain them. For some customers, when they made bulk purchase, he offered them some discount. That brought him even more customers. But, some of his customers are not prompt in making the payment.

He expanded his business and employed few staff. As the credit transactions were numerous, he found it difficult to maintain properly. One of his friends, who is a Chartered Accountant advised him to maintain subsidiary books.
Discuss on the following points.

Question 1.
What could be the reason for Joseph’s feeling that dealing in cash is risk free?
Answer:
When we sell the goods, immediately we can get cash at once. So no debts had occurred in the business.

Question 2.
What type of discount is offered by Joseph?
Answer:
He offered trade discount.

Question 3.
Suggest some ways to Joseph for making his customers to pay on time.
Answer:
The cash discount may be offered by Joseph to his customers to pay on time.

Question 4.
Do you think that maintaining the subsidiary books will be useful to Joseph?
Answer:
Yes. it is useful.

1. Sales book
2. Sales returns book
3. Purchases book
4. Purchase returns book

Question 5.
What business documents are needed to maintain the subsidiary books?
Answer:

1. Invoice
2. Debit note
3. Credit note

 

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TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
then adj (AB)| = ……….
(a) – 40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(b) -20
Answer:
(b) -80

Question 2.
iⁿ + 1ⁿ⁺¹ + i^{n + 2} + i^{n +3} is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)- 1
(d) i
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 3.
If ω = \(\text { cis } \frac{2 \pi}{3}\) , then the number of distinct roots of
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
z+1 & \omega & \omega^{2} \\
\omega & z+\omega^{2} & 1 \\
\omega^{2} & 1 & z+\omega
\end{array}\right|=0\)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 4.
sin^-1(cos x) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\) is valid for ……….
(a) -π ≤ x ≤0
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π
(c) \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π

Question 5.
tan^-1 x + cot^-1 = …….
(a) 1
(b) -π
(c) π/2
(d) π
Answer:
(c) π/2

Question 6.
The equation of the normal to the circle x² + y² – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 which is parallel to the line 2x + 4y = 3 is …………..
(a) x + 2y = 3.
(b) x + 2y + 3 = 3
(c) 2x + 4y + 3 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 3 = 0
Answer:
(a) x + 2y = 3.

Question 7.
The axis of the parabola x² = 20y is ……….
(a) y = 5
(b) x = 5
(c) x = 0
(d) y = 0
Answer:
(c) x = 0

Question 8.
If \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})=(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) for non-coplanar vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) then…….
(a) \(\vec{a}\) parallel to \(\vec{b}\)
(b) \(\vec{b}\) parallel to \(\vec{c}\)
(c) \(\vec{c}\) parallel to \(\vec{a}\)
(d) \(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}=\overrightarrow{0}\)

Question 9.
The vector equation of a plane whose distance from the origin is p and perpendicular to a unit vector n̂ is ….
(a) \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{n}=p\)
(b) \(\begin{aligned}
&-n\\
&r \cdot n=q
\end{aligned}\)
(c) \(\vec{r} \times \vec{n}=p\)
(d) \(\vec{r} \cdot \hat{n}=p\)

Question 10.
The point of inflection of the curve y=(x – 1)³ is …………..
(a) (0,0)
(b) (0,1)
(c) (1,0)
(d) (1,1)
Answer:
(c) (1,0)

Question 11.
The asymptote to the curve y²(1 + x) = x² (1 – x) is …………..
(a) x = 1
(b) y = 1
(c) y = -1
(d) x = -1
Answer:
(d) x = -1

Question 12.
The solution of a linear differential equation ax + Px = Q where P and Q are function of y, is ……….
(a) y (I.F) = ∫(I.F) Q dx + c
(b) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c
(c) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c .
(d) x (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dx + c

Question 13.
A circular template has a radius of 10 cm. The measurement of radius has an approximate error of 0.02 cm. Then the percentage error in calculating area of this template is ……..
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.08%
Answer:
(b) 0.4%

Question 14.
For any value of n∈z, \(\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos ^{2} x} \cos ^{3}[(2 n+1) x] d x \) is……….
(a) π/2
(b) π
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 15.
If n is odd then \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin ^{n} x d x\) is …. ….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{n-1}{n} \cdot \frac{n-3}{n-2} \cdot \frac{n-5}{n-4} \dots \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1\)

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}=2^{y-x}\)is ……….
(a) 2^x + 2^y = c
(b) 2^x – 2^y = c
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)
(d) x + y = c
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)

Question 17.
If p and q are the order and degree of the differential equation \(y \frac{d y}{d x}+x^{3}\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)+x y=\cos x\) when…..
(a) p < q
(b) p = q
(c) p > q
(d) p exists and q does not exist
Answer:
(c) p > q

Question 18.
A pair of dice numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 of a six-sided die and 1, 2, 3, 4 of a four-sided die is rolled and the sum is determined. Let the random variable X denote this sum. Then the number of elements in the inverse image of 7 is ……….
(a) 1
(6) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 19.
If in 6 trials, X is a binomial variate which follows the relation 9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2),
then the probability of success is …….
(a) 0.125 .
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.375
(d) 0.75
Answer:
(b) 0.25

Question 20.
Which one of the following statements has truth value F ?
(a) Chennai is in India or √2 is an integer
(b) Chennai is in India or √2 is an irrational number
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer
(d) Chennai is in China or √2 is an irrational number
Answer:
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14)

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
8 & -4 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), verify that A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I₂,

Question 22.
Find the value of \(\sum_{k=1}^{8}\left(\cos \frac{2 k \pi}{9}+i \sin \frac{2 k \pi}{9}\right)\)
Answer:
We know that the 9th roots of unity are 1, 6, 62, …, 08 Sum of the roots:
1 + ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = 0
⇒ ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = -1

Question 23.
Solve the equation 😡⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0.
Answer:
The given equation is x⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0
Let x² = y
y² – 14y + 45 = 0 ⇒ (y – 9)(y – 5) = 0
y = 9,5
∴ x² = 9, x²= 5
x = ±3, x = ±√5
∴ The roots are ±3, ±√5

Question 24.
Find the principal value of sin \(\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) (in radians and degrees).
Answer:

Question 25.
Show that the points (2,3,4),(-1,4,5) and (8,1,2) are collinear.
Answer:
Given points are (2, 3, 4), (-1,4,5) and (8,1,2). Equation of the line joining of the first and
second point is
\(\frac{x-2}{-3}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-4}{1}=m(\text { say })\)
(-3m + 2, m + 3, m + 4)
On putting m = -2, we get the third point is (8, 1, 2)
∴ Given points are collinear.

Question 26.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Answer:
I = \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Put 4 + 3 sin x = t, so that 3 cos x dx = dt = cosx dx = \(\frac{1}{3} dt\) When x = 0, t = 4 + 3(0) = 4 and when x = 2π, t = 4+ 3(0) = 4

Question 27.
Find the order and degre of the diferential equation center equation \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\)
Answer:

Question 28.
Suppose the amount of milk sold daily at a milk booth is distributed with a minimum
of 200 litres and a maximum of 600 litres with probability density function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lr}
k & 200 \leq x \leq 600 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) Find the probability that daily sales will fall between 300 otherwise litres and 500 litres?
Answer:
The probability that daily sales will fall between 300 litres and 500 litres is

Question 29.
Let A = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) ,B = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) , C = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
0 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) be any three boolean matrices of the same type. Find A V B
Answer:

Question 30.
Find the general equation of a circle with centre (-3,- 4) and radius 3 units.
Answer:
Equation of the circle in standard form is (x – h)² + (y – k)² = p²
(x-(-3))² + (y-(-4))² = 3² .
(x + 3)² + (y + 4)² = 3²
x² + y² + 6x + 8y + 16 = 0.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
If A = \(-\left[\begin{array}{lll}
8 & 1 & 4 \\
4 & 4 & 7 \\
1 & 8 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) prove that A^-1 = A^T.
Answer:

Question 32.
If z₁ = 2 + 5i, z₂ = -3 – 4i, and z₃ = 1 + i, find the additive and multiplicative inverse of z₁, z₂, and z₃.
Answer:

Question 33.
Solve the equation 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0 if its roots form a geometric progression
Answer:
The given equation is 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0

Given that the root are GP
∴ The roots are \(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) , α, αr
\(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) x α x αr = (-8)
α³ = 8
α = 2

Question 34.
Find the value of \(\cot \left(\sin ^{-1} \frac{3}{5}+\sin ^{-1} \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If the normal at the point“ t₁‘ on the parabola y² = 4ax meets the parabola again at the point ‘t₂’, then prove that \(t_{2}=-\left(t_{1}+\frac{2}{t_{1}}\right)\)
Answer:
Equation of normal to y² = 4ax at ‘t’ is y + xt = 2at + at³.
So equation of normal at ‘t₁,’ is y + xt₁, = 2at₁ + at₁³ ……….(1)
The normal meets the parabola y² = 4ax at “t₂‘ (ie.,) at (at₂², 2at₂)

Question 36.
Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (-1, 2, 3) to the straight line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\). Also, find the shortest distance from the given point to the straight line.
Answer:

Comparing the given equation \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\) with \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+t \vec{b}\) we get \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\). We denote the given point (-1,2,3) by D, and the point (1,-4,3) on the straight line by A . If F is the foot of the perpendicular from D to the straight line, then F is of the form (2t+1, 3t – 4, t + 3) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OF}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OD}}=(2 t+2) \hat{i}+(3 t-6) \hat{j}+t \hat{k}\) .
Since \(\vec{b}\) is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\), we have
Line \(\vec{b} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\) = 0 = 2(2t + 2) + 3(3-6) +1(t) = 0 = t=1
Therefore, the coordinate of F is (3,-1, 4).
Now, the perpendicular distance from the given point to the given line is
\(\mathrm{DF}=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}|=\sqrt{4^{2}+(-3)^{2}+1^{2}}=\sqrt{26}\) units.

Question 37.
Find the asymptotes of the curve f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x-4}{3 x-6}\)
Answer:
Since the numerator is of highest degree than the denominator. We have a slant
asymptote to find it we have to divide the numerator by the denominator.

So the equation of asymptote is \(y=\frac{x}{3}+\frac{8}{3}\) and 3x – 6 = 0
x = 2

Question 38.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{1} x(1-x)^{n} d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
For the distribution function given by \(\mathbf{F}(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
0 & x<0 \\ x^{2} & 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\ 1 & x>1
\end{array}\right.\), find the density function. Also evaluate
(i) P(0.5<x<0.75), (ii) P(X ≤ 50.5) (iii) P(x > 0.75)
Answer:

Question 40.
Let w (x, y) = \(x y+\frac{e^{y}}{y^{2}+1}\) for all (x, y) ∈ R². Calculate \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial y \partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial x \partial y}\)
Answer:

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) An amount of ₹ 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is ₹ 5,000. The income from the third bond is ₹ 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Answer:
Let the amount invested in 6% bond be ₹ x
and the amount invested in 8% bond be ₹y
and the amount invested in 10% bond be ₹z
Now x + y + z = 65000

(i.e) 6x + 8y + 10z = 500000
(÷by 2) 3x + 4y + 5z = 250000
Also given that
\frac{10}{100} z-\frac{8}{100} y = 800 (i.e) -8y + 10z = 80000
(÷ by 2) -4y + 5z = 40000

(i.e,) x + y + z  = 65000…..(1)
y + 2z = 55000…..(2)
13z = 260000 …..(3)
Form (3) z = \(\frac{260000}{13}\)
Substituting z = ₹ 20000 in (2) we get
y + 40000 = 55000 = y ⇒ 55000 – 40000 = ₹ 15000
Substituting z = ₹ 20000, y = ₹ 15000 in (1) we get
x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 65000 – 35000 = ₹ 30000
So the amount invested in
6% bond x = ₹ 30000
8% bond y = ₹ 15000
and 10% bond z = ₹ 20000

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac{y-1}{x^{2}+x}\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) If arg (z – 1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) and arg (z + 1) = 2\(\frac{\pi}{3}\) , then prove that |z| = 1.
Answer:
Given arg (z-1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = 30° and arg (z + 1) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) = 120°
So, arg (z + 1) – arg (z – 1) = 120° – 30° = 90°
ie, ang \(\frac{z+1}{z-1}=90^{\circ}=\frac{\pi}{2}\)
\(\operatorname{Re} \frac{z+1}{z-1}=0\) [∴arg = \(\tan \theta=\frac{I P}{R P}\)

Therefore x= -1 and x=1 are vertical asymptotes.
The rough sketch of the curve is shown on the right side.

Question 43.
(a) Solve the equation x³ – 9x² + 14x + 24 = 0 if it is given that two of its roots are in the ratio 3:2.
Answer:
The given equation is x³ – 9x² +14x + 24 = 0…
Since, the two roots are in the ratio 3:2.
The roots are α , 3λ, 2λ
α + 3λ + 2λ = -b = 9
= a + 5λ = 9 (a) ….. (1)
α (3λ) (2λ) = -24
6λ²a = -24 => λ²α = -4 …….(2)
α = 9 – 5λ
λ² (9 – 52) = -4
9λ² – 5λ³ + 4 = 0
5λ³ – 9λ² – 4 = 0
(λ – 2) (5λ² + λ + 2) = 0
λ = 2,5λ² + λ+ 2 = 0 has only Imaginary roots ∆ < 0
∴ when λ = 2, α = 9-5 (2) = 9 – 10 = -1
∴ The roots are α, 3λ, 2λ i.e., -1, 6, 4

[OR]

(b) Show that the lines \(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{-1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-5}{5}\)
are coplanar. Also -3 .. 1 5 -1 2 find the equation of the plane containing these two lines.
Answer:
From the lines we have,
(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (-3, 1, 5); (b₁, b₂, b₃) = (-3, 1, 5)
(x₂, y₂, z₂) = (-1, 2, 5); (d₁, d₂, d₃) = (-1, 2,5)
Conditions for coplanar

\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 1 & 0 \\
-3 & 1 & 5 \\
-1 & 2 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(5 – 10) – 1(-15 + 5) + ((-6 + 1) = -10 + 10 = 0
Given two lines are coplanar

(x + 3)(5 – 10) – (y – 1)[-15 + 5) + (2 – 5)(-6 + 1] = 0
5(x + 3) + 10(y – 1) – 5(z – 5) = 0
(÷ by -5) ⇒ (x + 3) – 2 (y – 1) + (z – 5) = 0
x + 3 – 2y + 2 + 2 – 5 = 0 .
or x – 2y + z = 0

(x + 1)(5 – 10) – (y – 2)(-15 + 5) + (z – 5)(-6 + 1) = 0
-5(x + 1) + 10(y – 2) – 5(2 – 5) = 0
(x + 1) – 2(y – 2) + (2 – 5) = 0
x + 1 – 2y + 4 + 2 – 5 = 0
x – 2y + z = 0

Question 44.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y² = x and the line y = x -2.
Answer:
To find the points of intersection solve the two equations y² = x and y=x-2

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x \log x}=\frac{\sin 2 x}{\log x}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Solve \(\cos \left(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\right)\right)=\sin \left\{\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\right\}\)
Answer:

(b) Find the mean and variance of a random variable X, whose probability density x for x 20 function is \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} & \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
Observe that the given distribution is continuous

Question 46.
(a) Show that the equation of the normal to the curve x= a cos³θ, y = a sin³ θ at ‘θ’ is
x cos θ – y sin θ= a cos 2 θ.
Answer:
x = a cos³θ
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = a[ 3cos²θ](-sin θ) = -3acos²θ sin θ
y= a sin³θ

Slope of the normal = \(\frac{-1}{m}=\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)Point = (x1, yy) = (a cos³ θ , a sin³ θ ) sin θ
So, equation of the normal is
Y-a sin³ θ = \(\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)(x- a cos³ θ)
i.e. y sin θ – a sin⁴ θ = x cos θ – a cos⁴ θ
x cos θ – sin θ = a cos⁴ θ – a sin⁴ θ
i.e x cos θ – y sin θ = a [cos²θ+ sin²θ] [cos²θ – sin²θ]
= a [cos 2 θ]
So, the equation of the normal is x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ

[OR]

(b) Verify (i) closure property (ii) commutative property (iii) associative property (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the operation +₅ on Z₅ using table corresponding to addition modulo 5.
Answer:
It is known that Z₅ = {[O], [1], [2], [3], [4]} . The table corresponding to addition modulo 5 is as follows: We take reminders {0,1,2,3,4} to represent the classes {[0],[1],[2],[3],[4]}.

(i) Since each box in the table is filled by exactly one element of Z₅, the output a +₅b is unique
and hence +₅ is a binary operation.

(ii) The entries are symmetrically placed with respect to the main diagonal. So +₅ has commutative
property.

(iii) The table cannot be used directly for the verification of the associative property. So it is to be verified as usual.
For instance, (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 0 +₅ 4 = 4 (mod 5)
and 2 +₅ (3 +₅ 4) = 2 +₅ 2 = 4 (mod 5). Hence (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 2 +₅ (3 +₅4).
Proceeding like this one can verify this for all possible triples and ultimately it can be shown that +₅ is associative.

(iv) The row headed by 0 and the column headed by 0 are identical. Hence the identity element is 0.

(v) The existence of inverse is guaranteed provided the identity O exists in each row and each column. From Table-A, it is clear that this property is true in this case. The method of finding the inverse of any one of the elements of Z₅ , say 2 is outlined below.

First find the position of the identity element 0 in the III row headed by 2. Move horizonta along the III row and after reaching 0, move vertically above 0 in the IV column, because 0 is in the III row and IV column. The element reached at the topmost position of IV column is 3. This element 3 is nothing but the inverse of 2, because, 2 +₅ 3 = 0 (mod 5). In this way, the inverse of each and every element of Z₅ can be obtained. Note that the inverse of 0 is 0, that of 1 is 4, that of 2 is 3, that of 3 is 2 , and that of 4 is 1.

Question 47.
(a) Identify the type of conic and find centre, foci, vertices, and directrices the following:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
Answer:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
(18x² – 144x) + (12y² + 48y) = -120
18(x² – 8x) + 12 ( 12 + 4y) = -120
18(x² – 8x + 16 – 16) + 12 (12+ 4y + 4 – 4) = -120
18(x – 4)² – 288 + 12(y + 2)² – 48 = -120
18(x – 4)² + 12(y + 2)² = -120 + 288 + 48 = 216

[OR]

(b) Prove that g(x, y) = x log \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) is homogeneous; what is the degree? Verify Euler’s Theorem for g.
Answer:
g (x, y) = x log(y/x)
8 (tx, ty) = (tx) log \(\left(\frac{t y}{t x}\right)\)
= txlog \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
g(tx, ty) = t g(x, y)
∴ ‘g’is a homogeneous function of degree 1. By Euler’s theorem, we have

∴ Euler’s theorem verified.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The unit of ‘g’ is ms^-2. It can be also expressed as _______.
(a) cm s^-1
(b) N kg^-1
(c) N m² kg^-1
(d) cm² s^-2
Answer:
N kg^-1

Question 2.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2 f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 3.
Velocity of sound is maximum in ________.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gases
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 4.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P _______.
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 5.
Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
Answer:
(a) He

Question 6.
Deliquescence is due to ________.
(a) Strong affinity to water
(b) Less affinity of water
(c) Strong hatred to water
(d) Inertness to water
Answer:
(a) Strong affinity to water

Question 7.
Decrease in leucocytes is _______.
(a) Leucopenia
(b) Leukemia
(c) Anaemia
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Leucopenia

Question 8.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are ______.
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 9.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ________.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasan
(c) conjoint
(d) amphicribral
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 10.
______ is the green coloured plastids.
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Chromoplast
(c) Leucoplast
(d) Stele
Answer:
(a) Chloroplast

Question 11.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by ________.
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 12.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) Box
(b) Pai
(c) Scanner
(d) Folder
Answer:
(d) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
When two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct points constitute couple. A couple results in causes the rotation of the body. This rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.

Question 14.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor?
Answer:

Resistivity	Conductivity
1. It is the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section.	1. It is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity of material.
2. It’s unit is ohm metre	2. Its unit is ohm–1 metre-1 or ohm metre-1

Question 15.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 16.
What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust?
Answer:
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of formation of rust is known as rusting.

Question 17.
Give an example each
(i) gas in liquid
(ii) solid in liquid
(iii) solid in solid
(iv) gas in gas.
Answer:
(i) Carbon-di-oxide dissolved in water (Soda water)
(ii) Sodium chloride dissolved in water.
(iii) Copper dissolved in gold (Alloy)
(iv) Mixture of Helium – Oxygen gases

Question 18.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in leech. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin into haemocoelic fluid, while carbon dioxide diffuses out.

Question 19.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 20.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)

Question 21.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The reappearance of ancestral characters in some individuals is called atavism. E.g. Presence of rudimentary tail in new born babies.

Question 22.
Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 7 kg whose linear momentum is 5 kg ms^-1
Answer:
Given, p = 5 kg ms^-1
m = 7 kg
p =m × v
v = \(\frac{p}{m}=\frac{5}{7}\)
∴ v = 0.71 ms^-1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:
(i) There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external force acts on them.
(ii) Let us prove the law of conservation of linear momentum with the following illustration:

(iii) Let two bodies A and B having masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocity u₁ and u₂ in a straight line.
(iv) Let the velocity of the first body be higher than that of the second body. i.e., U₁ > u₂.
(v) During an interval of time t second, they tend to have a collision. After the impact, both of them move along the same straight line with a velocity v, and v2 respectively.

By Newton’s III law of motion
Action force = Reaction force
F_A = -F_B
\(\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}=-\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
m₁v₁ – m₁u₁ = m₂u₂ + m₂u₂
m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ = m₁u₁ + m₂u₂

The above equation confirms in the absence of an external force, the algebraic sum of the momentum after collision is numerically equal to the algebraic sum of the momentum before collision. Hence the law of conservation linear momentum is proved.

Question 24.
(i) Explain about domestic electric circuits.
Answer:

• Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
• The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
• The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
• The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
• The function of the fuse wire or a MCB is to protect the house hold electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

(ii) What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

• In domestic appliance is used parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
• One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

Question 25.
(i) What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.

(ii) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
Answer:
(i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that we can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is atleast 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Question 26.
(i) What are the advantages of detergents over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are better than soaps because they:

• can be used in both hard and soft water and can clean more effectively in hard water than soap.
• can also be used in saline and acidic water.
• do not leave any soap scum on the tub or clothes.
• dissolve freely even in cool water and rinse freely in hard water.
• can be used for washing woollen garments, where as soap cannot be used.
• have a linear hydrocarbon chain, which is biodegradable.
• are active emulsifiers of motor grease.
• do an effective and safe cleansing, keeping even synthetic fabrics brighter and whiter.

(b) Mention the disadvantages of detergents.
Answer:

• Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-organisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
• They are relatively more expensive than soap.

Question 27.
(a) Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils – faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

(b) Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions:
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s)↓+ 2KNO_3(aq)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions:
Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(i)

Question 28.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
All information from the environment are detected by the receptors, located in the sense organs such as the eyes, nose, skin, etc.

Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.
On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response. The flow of nerve impulses from axon end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synapatic transmission.

Question 29.
(a) How is dihybrid cross differ from monohybrid cross?
Monohybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves a single pair of genes.
• In this cross, Parents differ by single trait (Eg : height)
• Monohybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

Dihybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two traits.
• In this cross, the parents have two different independent traits. Eg: Flower colour, stem length
• The dihybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.

Question 30.
(a) Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem (Eg. sunflower) are conjoint, collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

(b) Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 31.
(a) What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
The drugs which act on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception, are called Psychotropic drugs. They are also called Mood altering drugs.

(b) State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:

• DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit.
• It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
• It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 32.
(a) What are the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile:

• A source emitting electromagnetic wave is attached to a police car
• The wave is reflected by a moving source.
• From the frequency shift, the over speeding vehicles can be determined.

(ii) Tracking a satellite:

• The frequency of radio waves decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth.
• By this change in frequency, the location of the satellites is determined.

(iii) RADAR:

• The radio waves are detected by the receivers.
• The frequency change tracks the speed and location of the aircraft’s.

(iv) SONAR:

• There is a frequency change between the sent signal and received signal.
• This helps to determine the speed of submariners and marine animals.

(ii) A solution is made from 25 mi of ethanol and 75 ml of water. Calculate the volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume of ethenol = 25 ml
Volume of water = 75 ml

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 x 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What are the characteristic features of heat energy transfer?
Answer:

• Heat always flows from a system of higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
• The mass of a system is not altered when it is heated or cooled.
• Heat gained by the cold system is equal to heat lost by the hot system.

(ii) Explain linear expansion with diagram?
Answer:

• When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature.
• Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.
• The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion.
• It is different for different materials. Its SI unit is K^-1.
• The equation is \(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\) = α_LΔT
  ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
  L₀ – Original length (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
  α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion

[OR]

(b) (i) In the circuit diagram given below, three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ of 5 Ω, 10Ω and 20Ω respectively are connected as shown.
Calculate:
(A) Current through each resistor
(B) Total current in the circuit
(C) Total resistance in the circuit
Answer:

(A) Since the resistors are connected in parallel, the potential difference across each resistor
is same (i.e. V = 10V)
Therefore, the current through R₁ is,

(B) Total current in the circuit,
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
= 2 + 1 + 0.5 = 3.5 A

(C) Total resistance in the circuit

(ii) A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb in 6 seconds. What is the current through the bulb?
Answer:
Charge Q = 12 C, Time t = 6 s. Therefore,
Current I = \(\frac{Q}{t}=\frac{12}{6}\) = 2A

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of moles in 27 g of Al.
Answer:

(ii) Find the percentages of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1 × atomic mass of nitrogen + 3 × atomic mass of hydrogen
= (1 × 14) + (3 × 1)
= 14 + 3 = 17g

The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia = 82.35 %

(iii) Calculate the molecular mass of C₂H₆.
Answer:
Molecular mass of C₂H₆ = (2 × atomic mass of C) + (6 × atomic mass of H)
= (2 × 12) + (6 × 1)
= 24 + 6 = 30 g

[OR]

(b) Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
Factors affecting solubility : There are three main factors which govern the solubility of a solute. They are Nature of the solute and solvent, Temperature, and Pressure.

Nature of the solute and solvent:

• The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role in solubility.
  ) Solubility is based on the phrase “like dissolves like.” The expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute.
  For example: Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.
  (iii) Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents. For example, Sulphur dissolves in carbon di sulphide.

Effect of Temperature:
Solubility of Solids in Liquid:

• Generally, solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.
• In endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
• In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

Solubility of Gases in liquid:
Solubility of gases in liquid decrease with increase in temperature.

Effect of Pressure:
When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increase. When pressure is increased, more gas molecules strike the surface of the liquid and mix into the solution.

Question 35.
(i) What is Cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism: It is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone (thyroxine) in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones.

(ii) Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers?
Answer:

• Brightly coloured flowers, with smell and nectar.
• Pollen grain are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny so they can be adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.

(iii) What are the advantages of using bio-gas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It bums without smoke and therefore causing less pollution.
• An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the amount of green house gases emitted.

[OR]

(b) (i) What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
Hermaphrodite: If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same individual, it is called hermaphrodite animal. Eg. Leech.

(ii) What are the effects of hybrid vigour?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called as heterosis or hybrid vigour. Its effects in animal breeding are:

• Increased production of milk by cattle
• Increased production of egg by poultry
• High quality of meat is produced
• Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His brothers and his little sister ran to the brink.
(a) bark
(b) sea
(c) water
(d) edge
Answer:
(d) edge

Question 2.
‘Open up! ’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) rough
(b) sharp
(c) haughty
(d) soft
Answer:
(a) rough

Question 3.
Trying to revive old childhood memories may prove disappointing! ’
(a) reveal
(b) resuscitate
(c) cancel
(d) cover
Answer:
(b) resuscitate

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable
(b) dishonesty
(c) rectitude
(d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 5.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 6.
M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) clarify
(b) beautify
(c) answer
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(c) answer

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘sister-in-law‘.
(a) sister-in-laws
(b) sisters-in-law
(c) sisters-in-laws
(d) sisters-n-law
Answer:
(b) sisters-in-law

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘help’.
(a) ful
(b) less
(c) ly
(d) graphy
Answer:
(b) less

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DSLR.
(a) Digital Single Lens Refraction
(b) Digital Single Light Reflex
(c) Digital Service Lens Reflex
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex
Answer:
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
I will not ……………. to pressure. I shall face the challenge bravely.
(a) give away
(b) give in
(c) give out
(d) give off
Answer:
(b) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘rain‘ to form a compound word,
(a) well
(b) dance
(c) wet
(d) coat
Answer:
(d) coat

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
None of you bothered to leave a bottle of water …………. my bed.
(a) within
(b) outside
(c) beside
(d) for
Answer:
(c) beside

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The dog never liked to be left alone and kept on ………… the entire night.
(a) whined
(b) whining
(c) whine
(d) will whine
Answer:
(b) whining

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
It was a great feeling ………. I learnt to use it.
(a) that
(b) whether
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(d) when

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the young bird utter a joyful scream?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly and uttered a joyful scream falling outwards and downwards into space.

Question 16.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 17.
What was the information given by Mrs. Hudson to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson said that Holmes was working on a case down at Rotherhithe, near the river and had brought an illness back with him since Wednesday afternoon. He had neither taken food nor water for the past three days.

Question 18.
What did Aditya do when he went to the attic?
Answer:
When Aditya went up the attic, he got on top of the packing case and pushed his hand inside the ventilator. He upset a sparrow’s nest, a part of which fell to the ground. It looked as if he was in search of something that he had left there 29 years ago.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“They growl at that and they growl at this;
Whatever comes, there is something amiss;”
(a) What does the word ‘growl’ mean here?
(b) Why do they find everything amiss?
Answer:
(a) The word growl here means ‘grumbling’.
(b) They find everything amiss, since they are not satisfied or contented with anything.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then ”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away ”. ”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.

Question 21.
“Remember; we who take arms against each other”
(a) What should we remember?
(b) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
(a) We should remember that no men are foreign and no country is strange.
Answer:
(b) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(а) To whom does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) How does the house appear in May?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the poetess, Nadia Bush.
(b) The house appears a bit brighter in May.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The burglars had cut a huge hole in the wooden door.
A huge hole had been cut in the wooden door by the burglars.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“Do they live here?” asked Manohar
Answer:
Manohar asked me if they lived here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
‘what was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin round the house last night’ he demanded
‘What was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin’ round the house last night?’ he demanded.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
It is not known what is the purpose of his visit to this place.
Answer:
The purpose of his visit to this place is not known.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) writing/ system/ telephone/ am/ to/I/ about/ banking/ your/ complain
(b) crashed/ on/I/ the/ system/ been/ that/ each/ informed/ computer/ has/ have/ occasion
Answer:
(a) I am writing to complain about your telephone banking system.
(b) On each occasion, I have been informed that the computer system has crashed.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger approaches you and asks you to guide her/him the way to S.S. Market. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the Steps.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the left immediately after the school in the comer of Anna Road and Flower Street
• After the school, take the right and walk further till you find S.S. Market on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received is a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do analyse problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you have in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family is a must to carry out the expedition.

“It s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 30.
Discuss the role played by Kim and Stephen Hawking to utilize technology for the disabled?
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realize life isn’t tough because you are differently-abled. Kim made them realize that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people like me. It can make friends communicate and control the environment. It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work.

It can make them confident and independent. World renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world. So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently-abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.

“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools.

The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals. When things come easy, we do not realise its value.

Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.

“ Understand your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings. ”

Question 32.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past.

He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek. He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members.

He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.

“ Self-respect permeates every’ aspect of your life.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How are today’s women portrayed by the poet in, ‘I Am Every Woman’?
Answer:
Rakhi Nariani Shirke is an academician with a passion for writing poems as a medium of self-expression. This poem talks about the multifaceted nature of women. A woman is born beautiful and beauty is an inborn trait. She is a symbol of supremacy and strength. She takes risks in life for she is real and always genuine. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute.

They are always ready to take up new ventures. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Women have to be treated respectfully for the growth of a nation. As stated earlier, she is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs. In spite of all the out breaths and cries and laments, she is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring. She is a disciplinarian and will not tolerate your pranks with her. She is a woman of today to beware of.

“Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.”

Question 34.
Comment on the house located on Elm street.
Answer:
Nadia Bush brings out the eerie nature while reading her poem. The House On Elm Street.” There aren’t any houses around this house located on Elm Street. It stood all alone in an isolated place. Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like the house since no leaves sprout in any of the seasons. It is said to be a mysterious place since no one knows who lives there or what is inside. No one knows what happens inside that house and hence it is very mysterious. It is for sure a big house with vast space inside the house. Generally, at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in it.

Lights are switched on and off. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter on a fine warm summer day in the month of May. The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the areas known around. Likewise, the tree too is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth and hence feels it is a mysterious place.

“The mystery’ of existence will always remain a mystery and secret.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,
And hope the road’s last turn will be the best.”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Quest and best are the rhyming words.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the above stanza is abcc.
(iii) Couplet is the figure of speech in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘Still seeking’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it lives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv)
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
‘Come in, Zigzag, come in, dear! ’coazed Visu, and in tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird the Krishnan family had ever seen. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. ‘This is Zigzag! Announced Visu with a flourish. ‘His’ full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of- the-Tonga. How I’m going to miss him! So beautifully he talks! He can even recite French Poetry!’

The object of all this praise was standing cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes.
(i) Describe Zigzag’s plumage.
(ii) What is the full name of Zigzag?
(iii) What can Zigzag do according to Visu?
(iv) What was the colour of Zigzag’s eyes?
(v) Who brought home Zigzag?
Answer:
(i) Zigzag’s plumage was a crown of pink feathers and the rest of the feathers were muddiest and sludgiest brown.
(ii) Zigzag’s full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga.
(iii) Zigzag can recite French Poetry, according to Visu.
(iv) Zigzag’s eyes were cola-coloured.
(v) Visu brought home Zigzag.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Fly India – Fly five star – sky is the best place on earth.
Answer:

Question 40.
Vivek has been asked to deliver a speech on ‘The Brain Drain Problem’. Use your own ideas, and write the speech in about 150-200 words.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends!
Good morning to one and all present here. I, Vivek of Std. X, am thankful to the teachers for giving me this opportunity.

The problem of brain-drain has assumed serious proportion in the last thirty years or so. The nation spends its hard-earned meagre resources on the education and training of its doctors, engineers, scientists, etc. But these highly talented and trained men and women of genius migrate to developed countries.

They desert the ranks for the lure of money, better facilities and living conditions. Some of them get opportunities for fulfilment of their ambitions and development of personality as there is full scope for it. They enjoy unlimited freedom for experiments and research and fear no resources crunch.

The parent countries become poorer by the depletion of resources as a result of migration of trained and talented persons. The migrants too feel maladjusted in the new country where they are considered second grade citizens. Living and working in an alien culture among foreigners, they find themselves cut off from their own social modes and customs. They do suffer emotional vacuum as the memories of friends and relatives in their country haunt their minds.

India too has been facing this problem. We must take steps to ensure them better facilities, improved living conditions, freedom for experimentation and research. In addition to this, their talents must be utilised for proper work and their work must be given due recognition. These measures, if adopted seriously, can check the problem effectively.
Thank you.

Question 41.
You are Dhinesh/Malu. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

To	[email protected]
From	[email protected] / [email protected]
Subject	Inability to attend the function
Dear Siddharth, Thank you for your cordial invitation of your sister’s wedding. I, however, regret my inability to be with you on this happy occasion as we shall be leaving for Munar for summer holidays on 1st May, 20XX. Please excuse my absence. Do convey my regards and best wishes to the couple. Yours sincerely Dhinesh/Malu

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:
An evening at the Park
Corporation has constructed and maintains quite a few parks in the city. Young and old throng these parks in the morning or in the evening to relax and stay fit. Now-a-days, people are conscious about their health and hence keep themselves fit by walking or doing aerobic exercises in the park.

They also help keeping the park clean and tidy. An ice-cream vendor makes use of the opportunity to make his living.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.

The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals. We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society.

The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey: (i) lives & efforts; (ii) our actions & desires – bound up Practices: Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others Lang. – learnt 4m others – for mental power
Status: (i) Indiv. if left alone – be primitive; (ii) The individual – much in virtue member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.
Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language;indiv.-individual; 4m- from;
mat. – material

Title: Man is a Social Animal
Rough draft
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have produced clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe our principal knowledge-over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remamplmfitiyeThey are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from but birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair draft
Title : Man is a Social Animal
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief they are interdependent. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.
No. of words written in the summary: 48

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Two-thirds of the content were rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar is not attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house in Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me when you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well but we might have to fail you.
Answer:
(a) Two-thirds of the content was rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar has not been attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house on Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me if you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well or we might have to fail you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
We will serve ………… and read and write!
Answer:
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Prospero a sympathetic character – uses magic to control – learns sorcery – protects Miranda – control Ariel and others – alter weather – raise the dead – demands attention – an insensitive character to compassionate character – rightful duke of Milan – humanity in his treatment of Antonio – extremely forgiving – helpless against his enemies – white magic and not black magic – complex personality – refuses to free Ariel – subjugates Caliban – ruler appears insensitive and harsh – tyrannical – understanding – protective just and fair, intelligent.
Answer:
In ‘The Tempest’ by William Shakespeare, Prospero is the main character yet a sympathetic character. You could also say he isn’t very sympathetic because he uses magic to control other people. He has learned sorcery from books, and uses it while on the island to protect Miranda and control the other characters. Prospero’s sorcery is sufficiently powerful to control Ariel and other spirits, as well as to alter weather and even raise the dead.

Prospero insists that others listen to him even when they do not want to. His character grows from being an insensitive character to a much more compassionate and likable character with positive characteristics. Prospero is the rightful duke of Milan who is usurped by his brother. Prospero’s humanity is clearly obvious in his treatment of Antonio.

In spite of him being a traitor, he is extremely forgiving in nature. He is helpless against his enemies and wait for them to come close to his island so that he can use his magic to create a storm and bring them under his control. Prospero’s magic is the white magic of nature and not the black magic of evil nature. He is surely a complex personality.

Although he refuses to free Ariel and subjugates Caliban, Prospero is really a generous ruler, never intending to harm even his enemies. At first, Prospero appears insensitive and harsh, especially in his treatment of Ariel and Caliban. He is seen as tyrannical in his treatment of Ferdinand, but Prospero realizes that Ferdinand and
Miranda will value one another more if there are a few obstacles to their wooing. Prospero is protective of those who are close to him especially Miranda. Throughout, Prospero makes sure Ferdinand’s and Miranda’s love stays strong. Ultimately, we see Prospero to be just and fair besides being intelligent.

[OR]

(b) Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain by developing the given hints. A mother’s affection – insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain – eternal and unconditional love is invaluable – the law – tyrant ruler – changes decision – a kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – Her heart is concerned.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.
A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
In Titanic the ‘older’ Rose throws the Heart of the Ocean diamond over the side of the ship. While the Heart of the Ocean is only a fairy tale, it is based on the Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire. It was bought in India by a French jeweller in the 1660s and brought back to France.

The Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV where it began to attract a reputation as a cursed creature. Things did not end well with Louis XIV who was flat broke at the end of his life and who was eaten by a pack of wild dogs. It then passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded. The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

The last owner’s brother died early, her son was run over by a car when he was nine years old, she got divorced, her husband perished in a mental institution, her daughter died of an overdose and she herself died of pneumonia.
The Hope Diamond is now housed in the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.

Questions.
(a) Where did The Blue Fire originate?
(b) To whom was the Blue Beauty passed on after Louis XIV was dead?
(c) How did the diamond affect Louis XIV?
(d) Under what circumstances did the Hope Diamond resurface after two decades?
Ans.
(a) The Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire was bought in India originally by a French jeweller in the 1660s and taken back to France.
(b) The Blue Beauty was passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded.
(c) When the diamond, Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV, things did not end well with him as he was flat broke at the end of his life and was eaten by a pack of wild dogs.
(d) The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
PIPING DOWN THE VALLEYS

Piping down the valleys wild,
Piping songs of pleasant glee,
On a cloud, I saw a child,
And he laughing said to me :

“Pipe a song about a Lamb !”
So I piped with merry cheer.
“Piper, a pipe that song again;”
So I piped: he wept to hear.

Drop thy pipe, thy happy pipe;
“Sing thy songs of happy cheer.”
So I sang the same again,
While he wept with joy to hear.

“Piper, sit thee down and write
In a book, that all may read.”
So he vanish’d from my sight,
And I pluck’d a hollow reed,

And I made a rural pen,
And I stain’d the water clear,
And I wrote my happy songs
Every child may joy to hear.

Questions.
(a) Whom did the piper see in a cloud?
(b) What did the child ask the piper to do?
(c) When did the piper pluck a hollow reed?
(d) What did the child do after singing?
Answer:
(a) The piper saw a child in a cloud.
(b) The child asked the piper to sing a song about a Lamb.
(c) The piper plucked a hollow reed after the boy had vanished.
(d) After singing, the child disappeared from the Piper’s sight.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………………… refers to any type of application that involves more than one type of media such as text, graphics video animation and sound
(a) an executable file
(b) desktop publishing
(c) multimedia
(d) hypertext
Answer:
(c) multimedia

Question 2.
One of the disadvantages of the multimedia is its …………………………….
(a) cost
(b) adaptability
(c) usability
(d) relativity
Answer:
(a) cost

Question 3.
Expand JPEG
(a) joint photo experts gross
(b) joint photographic experts group
(c) joint processor experts group
(d) joint photographic expression group
Answer:
(b) joint photographic experts group

Question 4.
You need hardware, software and …………………….. to make multimedia.
(a) network
(b) compact disk drive
(c) good idea
(d) programming knowledge
Answer:
(b) compact disk drive

Question 5.
Match the following by choosing the right one.
(i) Text – 1.TGA
(ii) Image – 2. MIDI
(iii) Sound – 3. MPEG
(iv) Video – 4. RTF
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3

Question 6.
Find the odd one on the following which is not an image format
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) RTF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(c) RTF

Question 7.
………………………….. is the process displaying still images they give continuous movement
(a) Text formats
(b) Sound
(c) MP3
(d) Animation
Answer:
(d) Animation

Question 8.
The live telecasting of real time program through Internet is known as ……………………………..
(a) web casting
(b) web hosting
(c) data manipulation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) web casting

Question 9.
GIF use ………………………. color look up table
(a) 8 bit
(b) 8 KB
(c) 8 MB
(d) 8 GB
Answer:
(a) 8 bit

Question 10.
RTF file format was introduced by ……………………………
(a) TCS
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

PART – II
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Multimedia and their features?
Answer:
The word multimedia consists of two words “multi” and “media” which means that multiple forms of media are combined to gather and provide services like storage, communication, presentation and Input/output interactions of text, video, image, graphics and audio.
Features of Multimedia:

1. The information they handle is represented digitally.
2. Multimedia Systems are integrated, computer controlled and usually interactive.

Question 2.
List out Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.

Question 3.
Classify the TEXT component in multimedia?
Answer:
Text is classified as static text and hypertext. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

Question 4.
Classify the IMAGE component in multimedia?
Answer:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the Image components are classified in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images:
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

Vector Images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Question 5.
Define Animation and their features?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.
Features:

1. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation.
2. The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second.

Question 6.
List out image file formats?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics).

Question 7.
List out audio file formats?
Answer:
WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format).

Question 8.
List out video file formats?
Answer:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave) and MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 9.
Define Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Question 10.
List out Multimedia Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager, Content Specialist, Script Writer, Text Editor, Multimedia Architect, Computer Graphic Artist, Audio and Video Specialist, Computer Programmer, Web Master.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain about Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.
Text:
Text is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person.

Image:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images.

Sound:
Sound is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

Video:
Video is defined as the display of recorded event, scene.

Animation:
Animation is the process of displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.

Question 2.
Describe the features and techniques of animation?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation. Using numerical transformations the movement of that image along its paths is calculated for their defining coordinates.

The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second. Animations may be in two or three dimensional. The two dimensional animation, bring an image alive, that occur on the flat X and Y axis of the screen, while in three dimensional animation it occurs along the three axis X, Y and Z. Animation tools are very powerful and effective. The two basic types of animations are Path animation and Frame animation.

Question 3.
Write roles and responsibilities of Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content.

Script Writer:
The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page.

Question 4.
Describe the various file formats in multimedia?
Answer:
Text Formats: RTF, Plain text, Image Formats:TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Jbint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics), Digital Audio File Formats: WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format), Digital Video File Formats: AVI (Audio/Video Interleave), MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 5.
Explain animation industry and their scope?
Answer:
1. The Indian Animation Industry encompasses traditional 2D animations, 3D animation <& visual effects for films.

2. An animation Studio is a company producing animated media. Many of these studios help with the fulfillment of animation works for big brand names and have carried out outsourced projects including Nemo.

3. The first Indian animated TV series was Ghayab Aya in the year 1986. The first Indian animated film was The Banyan Deer in 1957.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain in detail Process of Multimedia ?
Steps in Multimedia Production
Answer:
Adequate time and efficient planning is required for multimedia production, which assures that the project will be proceed smoothly and certainly ensures that the information reaches the target audience. Following are the phases for development of complex multimedia projects. Multimedia and Desktop Publishing.

Conceptual Analysis and Planning:
The process of multimedia making begins with a conceptual ignition point. Conceptual analysis identifies a appropriate theme, budget and content availability on that selected theme. Additional criteria like copyright issues also are considered in this phase.

Project design:
Once the theme is finalized objectives, goals, and activities are drawn for the multimedia project. General statements are termed as goals. The specific statements in the project is known as the objectives. Activities are series of actions performed to implement an objective. These activities contribute to the Project design phase.

Pre-production:
Based on the planning and design, it is necessary to develop the project.
The following are the steps involved in pre-production:

Budgeting:
Budgeting for each phases like consultants, hardware, software, travel, communication and publishing is estimated for all the multimedia projects.

Multimedia Production Team:
The production team for a high-end multimedia project requires a team efforts. The team comprises of members playing various roles and responsibilities like Script writer, Production manager, Editor, Graphics Architect, Multimedia Architect and Web Master.

Hardware/Software Selection:
All multimedia Application requires appropriate tools to develop and playback the application. Hardware includes the selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing the records. Selection of the suitable software and file formats depends on the funds available for the project being developed.

Defining the Content:
Content is the “stuff’ provided by content specialist to the multimedia architect with which the application is developed, who prepares the narration, bullets, charts and tables etc.

Preparing the structure:
A detailed structure must have information about all the steps ‘along with the time line of the future action. This structure defines the activities, responsible person for each activity and the start/end time for each activity.

Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Testing:
The complete testing of the pilot product is done before the mass production to ensure that everything is in place, thereby avoiding the failure after launch. If it’s an web . based product its functioning is tested with different browsers like Internet Explorer, Chrome, Mozilla and Netscape Navigator. If it is a locak multimedia application on a LAN it must be deployed in the server for testing purpose. After the testing process are over, the product is incorporated with valid suggested changes.

Documentation User documentation is a mandatory feature of all multimedia projects. The documentation has all the valuable information’s starting from the system requirement till the completion of testing. Contact details, e-mail address and phone numbers are provided for technical support and sending suggestions and comments.

Delivering the Multimedia Product:
Multimedia applications are best delivered on CD/DVD or in the website . In reality various challenges are faced while delivering through internet, like bandwidth problems, huge number of plug-ins required to play audio and video and long downloading time. Finally, a multimedia application is delivered in a more effective way by the integration of two mediums CD-ROM/DVD and Internet.

Question 2.
Explain in detail Techniques of Animation?
Answer:
The various animation techniques are
(i) Traditional Animation:
Traditional animation involved animators drawing by hand for each and every frame. It is creating the drawings one by one on the frame. Eg. Snow White and the Seven Dwarf Movie

(ii) Computer animation – 2D, 3D:

1. The famous mickey mouse was created using the 2D animation technique.
2. The first 2D animation was called Fantasmagorie. It is a short cartoon made by Emile Cohl. It is entirely in black and white

(iii) Digital 2D animation:

1. Creating animations in the 2 dimensional space with the help of digital technologies is called digital 2D animation.
2. Create 100s of drawing and animate them to show same kind of movement in technically called digital 2d animations.

(iv) Digital 3D animation:
3D animation models are highly realistic. They are used to create Short Films, TV Commercials.

(v) Stop-motion animation:
Using frame by frame animation, physical static objects are moved around. Eg. Movie “The Teddy Bears”.

(vi) Mechanical Animations:
Instead of robotics, machines can be animated by using the mechanical animation techniques. It helps the animator to understand how the machine works.

(vii) Chuckimation:
Chuckimation is one of the popular animation techniques created by “Action League Now!” creators. It is the combination of stop frame animation and live shots, where characters are dropped into a particular frame.

(Viii) Clay animation (or) claymation:
Pieces of clay are moulded to create characters and based on the imagination of the animator, a story is unfolded. There are oil based and water based clays available.

(ix) Typography Animation:
Typography is nothing but font faces and letters and combination of text in motion.
Eg. Titles part of movie “The Atlantic”

(x) Sand Animation:
A lit glass table is used as a canvas and the animator creates animation by moving the sand in certain directions.

(xi) ZoetrOpe Animation:
Some still images are drawn on a drum and when turned in a circular way, we will get an illusion of movement.

Question 3.
Explore the opportunities in Animation filed movie industry?
Answer:
In India, the VFX domain, or the animation and visual effects industry has been growing stronger and stronger in recent years.

1. Animation and visual effects requirement for massive international projects such as HBO’s top TV series and Marvels’ hit Infinity War and Black Panther was outsourced to Indian companies in Mumbai and Pune.
2. This led to the significant increase in the number of students enrolling for a VFX course.
3. As such, a student that completes a 3D animation course cap hope to build a rewarding and satisfying career in the Media and Entertainment field these days.
4. The timeless classics Tom and Jerry and Mickey Mouse created a milestone but the legacy is not disappointing.
5. Indian animation has risen from an amateur piece of craft like “The Banyan Deer” to the million rupees project “Chhota Bheem”
6. POGO, the leading cartoon channel in India is the most successful entertainment channel for kids.
7. Indian animation industry is anticipated to grow faster than the IT industry.
8. The industry has grown to a multibillion net work standard.
9. As a result of the growing demand in industry, the scope of animation course in tremendous.
10. The number of VFX artists and animators that worked on Baahubali was around 750.
11. Ex. For Top animates Movies: Spider-Man, Incredibles 2, Zootopia, Inside Out, Toy Story 3, Finding Nemo, Frozen, etc.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about production team Roles and Responsibilities?
Answer:
Multimedia Production Team:
Managing team members in a way to get maximum outcome with high degree of efficiency is mandatory in multimedia production. The fine quality high-end multimedia production application requires a specialize team comprises of the following members:

Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality. The production manager should be an expertise in the technology expert, good at proposal writing, good communication skills and budget management skills. Also must have experience in human resource management and act as an efficient team leader.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content. Program content refers to projects information, graphics, data or facts presented through the multimedia production.

Script Writer:
Video and film scripts represents a linear sequence of events. The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments and if needed uses the virtual reality integration into the program.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically. Text and narration is an integrated part of the application.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
The roles of these specialists are needed for dealing with narration and digitized videos to-be added in a multimedia presentation. They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language. These scripts usually develops special functions like developing the software to give the size and shape of video windows, controlling peripherals and so on.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page. They converts a multimedia presentation into a web page. Final multimedia product is ready for consultation is a joint effort of the entire team. Initially, the production manager identifies the project content, while the web master provides access to a wide range of community through web-services.

Question 5.
Explain about different file formats in multimedia files?
Answer:
File Formats for Multimedia:
The following is an outline of current file formats used for the production and delivery of multimedia data.
Text Formats:
RTF Rich Text Format:
is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Plain text:
Plain text files can be opened, read, and edited with most text editors. Commonly used are Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X) and so on. Other computer programs are also capable of reading and importing plain text. Plain text is the original and popular way of conveying an e-mail.

Image Formats:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format):
This format is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

BMP (Bitmap):
Initially this format is in use with Windows 3.1. It is quite large and uncompressed and hence BMP is used for the high-resolution or large images.

DIB (Device Independent Bitmap):
This format which is similar to BMP, allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format):
GIF is a compressed image format. Most of the computer color images and backgrounds are GIF files. This file format is best suitable for graphics that uses only limited colors, and it is the most popular format used for online color photos. 13-bit Color look up table is used by the GIF format to identify its color values. This format is supported widely.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG was designed to attain maximum image compression. It uses loss compression technique, where a compression method is referred that loses some of the data required for the image reconstruction. It works good with photographs, naturalistic artwork, and similar material but functions less on lettering, live drawings or simple cartoons.

TGA (Tagra):
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like worldwide web. So it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Digital Audio File Formats:
1. WAV (Waveform Audio File Format):
It is the most popular audio file format in windows for storing uncompressed sound files. In order to attain the. reduced file size it can also be converted to other file formats like MP3.

2. MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format)
3. MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

4. OGG:
A free, open source container format that is designed for obtaining better streaming and evolving at high end quality digital multimedia. It can be compared to MP3 files in terms of quality.

5. AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format):
A standard audio file format used by Apple which is like a WAV file for the Mac.

6. WMA (Windows Media Audio):
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

7. RA (Real Audio Format):
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD. Besides the variety of audio file formats available, the most common formats are wave files (.WAV) and MPEG Layer-3 files (.MP3), WMA and RA.

Digital Video File Formats:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave):
AVI is the video file format for Windows. Here sound and picture elements are stored in alternate interleaved chunks in the file.

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group):
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1
……………………….. applications plays vital role in presenting information to the user.
(a) Power point
(b) Multimedia
(c) Star office
(d) php
Answer:
(b) Multimedia

Question 2.
In the term multimedia, multi refers to …………………………….
(a) medium
(b) single
(c) hybrid
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 3.
What is the plural form of medium?
(a) medium
(b) mediu
(c) media
(d) median
Answer:
(c) media

Question 4.
How many major components are there in Multimedia?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 5.
Which is not a multimedia components? [Pick the odd one out].
(a) Test
(b) Image
(c) Sound
Answer:
(a) Test

Question 6.
Identify the static element from the following.
(a) Video
(b) graphics
(c) Animation
Answer:
(b) graphics

Question 7.
…………………………. is the basic components of Multimedia.
(a) Video
(b) Animation
(c) Text
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 8.
In …………………… the words are given along with the images to explain about the images.
(a) Static text
(b) Hyper text
(c) Multi text
(d) Super text
Answer:
(a) Static text

Question 9.
The readability of the text depends on the ………………………….
(a) pronunciation
(b) spacing
(c) punctuation
(d) b & c
Answer:
(d) b & c

Question 10.
In how many ways, in ages can be generated by the computer?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 11.
Bitmap images are otherwise called as ………………………… images.
(a) multimedia
(b) vector
(c) Raster
Answer:
(c) Raster

Question 12.
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is ……………………………
(a) raster images
(b) bitmap
(c) vector
(d) both (a) &(b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) &(b)

Question 13.
The tiny dots which forms on the screen (picture elements) are called as …………………………
(a) pitel
(b) pixel
(c) dots
(d) dpi
Answer:
(b) pixel

Question 14.
……………………… is a simple matrix of pixel that forms a raster image.
(a) Bitmap
(b) Pixel
(c) Vector
(d) Animation
Answer:
(a) Bitmap

Question 15.
In determining number of colors, ……………………. bits indicates 256 colors.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 16.
………………………… is a techniques used to reduce the file size of the images.
(a) Animation
(b) Rendering
(c) Compression
(d) Morphing
Answer:
(c) Compression

Question 17.
Identify which is not a compression format?
(a) GIF
(b) TIFF
(c) JPEG
(d) MIDI
Answer:
(d) MIDI

Question 18.
What is the least frame rate for smooth appearance of images?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 19.
How many frames per second are needed for a normal natural looking images?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 20.
If the image appears in xy axis of the screen, then it is called as ………………………… animation.
(a) picture
(b) Image xy
(c) 2D
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) 2D

Question 21.
If the image appears inXYZ axis of the screen then it is called as ………………………. animation.
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) XYZ
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 22.
How many types of animations are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 23.
The two types of animations are …………………………
(a) Frame, object
(b) path, object
(c) path, Frame
Answer:
(c) path, Frame

Question 24.
Which animation involves moving an object on the screen with constant background?
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(b) Path

Question 25.
Multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously in ……………………………. animations.
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(c) Frame

Question 26.
Which one of the following is the most serious element in multimedia and provides the pleasure of music, special effects etc?
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Sound
(d) Video
Answer:
(c) Sound

Question 27.
What is the unit of sound?
(a) Decibels
(b) Newton
(c) Hertz
(d) Frequency
Answer:
(a) Decibels

Question 28.
MIDI stand for ………………………………..
(a) Magic In Data Interface
(b) Musical Instrument Digital Identifier ,
(c) Magnetic Induction Drive Input
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface
Answer:
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface

Question 29.
………………………….. Sound is a digitized sound.
(a) Recorded
(b) Digital
(c) Frame
(d) Sampled
Answer:
(d) Sampled

Question 30.
is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample.
(a) Digitized sound
(b) sampling rate
(c) compression
(d) compression ratio
Answer:
(b) sampling rate

Question 31.
How many types of videos are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 32.
The display of recorded event, scene etc. are called as …………………………..
(a) Video
(b) Sampling
(c) Frames
(d) Modelling
Answer:
(a) Video

Question 33.
How many categories of Analog videos’are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 34.
Which video format have all the components like brightness, color and synchronization are combined into one signal?
(a) Digital video
(b) MIDI
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 35.
Which video format produces low plarity videos?
(a) Analog video
(b) Digital video
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 36.
Which one of the following format was used for customer analog video recording tape formats?
(a) Beta max
(b) MIDI
(c) DIB
(d) BMP
Answer:
(a) Beta max

Question 37.
How many different multimedia file formats are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 38.
RTF stand for …………………………..
(a) Rich Text Format
(b) Real Time Format
(c) Red Tagra Format
(d) Recording to file Format
Answer:
(a) Rich Text Format

Question 39.
The RTF was introduced in the year …………………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1987

Question 40.
Match the following editors with OS?
1. Gedit/Nano – (a) windows
2. Text Edit – (b) Unix / Linux
3. Notepad – (c) Mac OS
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)
(b) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a)
(c) 1-(a),2-(b),3-(c)
(d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)

Question 41.
Identify which is not an editor?
(a) Notepad
(b) Gotit
(c) Nano
(d) Text Edit
Answer:
(b) Gotit

Question 42.
………………………….. is the popular way of conveying an e-mail.
(a) RTF
(b) plaintext
(c) BMP
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) plaintext

Question 43.
TIFF is a ………………………….. Format of file.
(a) Sound
(b) Video
(c) Text
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 44.
identify the statement which is correct.
(i) RTF was developed by apple.
(ii) TIFF format is common in desktop publishing world.
(iii) GIF uses lossy compression technique
(iv) JPEG works good with photographs.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct

Question 45.
Which is the first popular format for high resolution images?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) JPEG
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 46.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) DIB
(b) BMP
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 47.
TIFF Stand for …………………………
(a) Time Interchange File Format
(b) Tagged Image File Format
(c) Time In File Format
(d) Task Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(b) Tagged Image File Format

Question 48.
Which one of the following format produces high quality output in DTP world?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) PNG
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) TIFF

Question 49.
BMP stands for …………………………..
(a) Bitwise Manipulation
(b) Binary Manipulations
(c) Bitmap
(d) Binary Map
Answer:
(c) Bitmap

Question 50.
Pick out the correct statement from the following.
(a) GIF are good with photographs
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications
(c) TIFF produces two quality output
(d) BMP is used for high resolution & small images
Answer:
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications

Question 51.
DIB stands for …………………………..
(a) Drive in Bus
(b) Devuce Input Bias
(c) Device Interface Format
(d) Device Independent Bitmap
Answer:
(d) Device Independent Bitmap

Question 52.
GIF stands for ……………………….
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphics Interchange File
(c) Graphics Interface Format
(d) Grahics Interface File
Answer:
(a) Graphics Interchange Format

Question 53.
TGA means …………………………
(a) Tagged
(b) Tagra
(c) tamil graphics
(d) Tiff graphics
Answer:
(b) Tagra

Question 54.
PNG means ………………………
(a) Power Net Gate
(b) Portable
(c) Portable Network Graphics
(d) Power Network Graphics
Answer:
(c) Portable Network Graphics

Question 55.
WAV stands for …………………………..
(a) Wave
(b) Waveform
(c) Waveform Audio Video Format
(d) Waveform Audio File Format
Answer:
(d) Waveform Audio File Format

Questionv 56.
AIFF stands for ………………………..
(a) Audio Interchange File Format
(b) Audio In File Format
(c) Audio Interference File Format
(d) Audio Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(a) Audio Interchange File Format

Question 57.
WMA means ……………………………
(a) Wave Media Animation
(b) Wave Moving Animation
(c) Windows Media Audio
(d) Waveform Media Audio
Answer:
(c) Windows Media Audio

Question 58.
RA stands for ……………………………
(a) Rich Animation
(b) Real Audio
(c) Rapid Audio
(d) Raster Audio
Answer:
(b) Real Audio

Question 59.
AVI means ……………………………
(a) Audio Video Interleave
(b) Animation Video Interface
(c) Audio Video Interchange
(d) Animation Video Intechange
Answer:
(a) Audio Video Interleave

Question 60.
The MPEG layer-3 Format is ……………………………
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) MIDI
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 61.
Which image format is used for storing high-resolution large images?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) DIB
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) BMP

Question 62.
Which image format allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices?
(a) BMP
(b) DIB
(c) DIP
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) DIB

Question 63.
What is the table used by the GIF format to identify colors?
(a) Color
(b) Look color
(c) Color Look up
(d) Color up
Answer:
(c) Color Look up

Question 64.
………………………… is a compressed image format.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) PNG
(d) DIB
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 65.
What is the compression technique used by JPEG image format?
(a) Lossless
(b) Lossy
(c) Full compression
(d) Half / partial
Answer:
(b) Lossy

Question 66.
Which image format is good with photographs, naturalistic artworks?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) GIF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(d) JPEG

Question 67.
…………………………… is the first popular format for high resolution images.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 68.
Most of the video – capture boards supports …………………………… formats.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 69.
…………………………… format is fully streameable with a best display option.
(a) JPEG
(b) GIF
(c) PNG
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(c) PNG

Question 70.
Which format works good with online viewing applications like www?
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) PNG

Question 71.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 72.
Identify the wrongly matched pair from the following.
(a) OGG – (i) Audio
(b) MPEG – (ii) Video
(c) MIDI- (iii) Text
(d) TGA – (iv) image
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(a) OGG – (i) Audio

Question 73.
Identify which is not an Digital Audio File Format.
(a) OGG
(b) AVI
(c) AIFF
(d) WMA
Answer:
(b) AVI

Question 74.
Which format is most popular for storing and downloading music?
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) JPEG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 75.
…………………………… format stores uncompressed sound files.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) WAV

Question 76.
Which files are compressed to onw-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file?
(a) WAV
(b) OGG
(c) WMA
(d) MP3
Answer:
(d) MP3

Question 77.
AIFF was developed by …………………………
(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) IBM
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 78.
……………………….. is a free, open source container format.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) WMA
Answer:
(c) OGG

Question 79.
Expand DRM.
(a) Digi Read Memory
(b) Digital Rich MP3
(c) Data Read Memory
(d) Digital Right Management
Answer:
(d) Digital Right Management

Question 80.
Which digital Audio format is designed with DRM facility?
(a) WMA
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) MP3
Answer:
(a) WMA

Question 81.
Identify the format which is not developed by Microsoft?
(a) AVI
(b) WMA
(c) AIFF
(d) RTF
Answer:
(c) AIFF

Question 82.
Who developed WMA?
(a) Apple
(b) Microsoft
(c) Macromedia
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 83.
…………………………… abilities are provided in WMA format for copyright protection.
(a) DMA
(b) DRA
(c) DRM
(d) DMR
Answer:
(c) DRM

Question 84.
The sound and picture elements in AVI are stored in alternate …………………………… chunks in the file.
(a) interleaved
(b) interface
(c) interrupt
(d) interchange
Answer:
(a) interleaved

Question 85.
Multimedia Framework was started in the year ……………………………
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 86.
Find the pair wrongly matched.
(i) MPEG-2 – DVD, TV set top Boxes
(ii) MPEG-4 – Multimedia
(iii) MPEG-1 – Mobile
(iv) MPEG-7 -Video CD
(v) MPEG-21 – Multimedia Framework
(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (v)
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv)

Question 87.
Which MPEG format is used for multimedia and mobile web?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-21
(c) MPEG-7
(d) MPEG-2
Answer:
(a) MPEG-4

Question 88.
………………………. is a standard format for generation digital video and audio compression under the ISO.
(a) AVI
(b) MP3
(c) JPEG
(d) MPEG
Answer:
(d) MPEG

Question 89.
Which format had research on “Multimedia Framework” in the year 2000?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-2
(c) MPEG7
(d) MPEG-21
Answer:
(d) MPEG-21

Question 90.
How many steps are there in Multimedia production?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 91.
The first step in Multimedia production is ……………………………
(a) project design
(b) conceptual analysis
(c) planning
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 92.
The general statements in project design stage are termed as ……………………………
(a) goals
(b) objectives
(c) Aim
(d) planning
Answer:
(a) goals

Question 93.
The selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing comes under
(a) content definition
(b) RAM capacity
(c) structure preparing
(d) Hardware / Software selection
Answer:
(d) Hardware / Software selection

Question 94.
Find the correct statement from the following
(i) Start / end time of each activity are defined in preparing the structure stage.
(ii) A pilot project will be ready in the production stage.
(iii) Suggestions and comments are given in the documentation phase.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 95.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia applications through internet.
(a) Bandwidth
(b) Plugins
(c) Downloading time
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 96.
Which software is used to incorporate the text in the production stage?
(a) Light pen
(b) Scanner
(c) OCR
(d) OMR
Answer:
(c) OCR

Question 97.
Identify which is not a browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Trash
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Google Chrome
Answer:
(b) Trash

Question 98.
Arrange the options given below in the proper order.
(i) Budgeting
(ii) project design
(iii) Documentation
(iv) Hardware / software selection
(v) Testing
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Question 99.
Copyright issues are considered in the …………………………… phase.
(a) conceptual analysis and planning
(b) project design
(c) pre-production
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) conceptual analysis and planning

Question 100.
How many members are there in multimedia production team?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 9

Question 101.
The production manager should not be an expertise in ……………………………
(a) technology
(b) proposal writing
(c) communication
(d) Text Narration
Answer:
(d) Text Narration

Question 102.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The text should always be structured
(b) The text should be grammatically correct
(c) The text must flow logically
(d) All the above statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are correct

Question 103.
The multimedia presentation is converted into a web page by
(a) computer programmer
(b) web master
(c) graphic artist
(d) multimedia architect
Answer:
(b) web master

Question 104.
…………………………… represents a linear sequence of events.
(a) video
(b) film scripts
(c) Text
(d) a & b
Answer:
(d) a & b

Question 105.
Who plays a vital role in dealing with backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3D objects, animations, logos of the programs.
(a) Multimedia Architect
(b) Web Master
(c) Computer Graphic Artist
(d) Video Specialist
Answer:
(c) Computer Graphic Artist

Question 106.
Identify the person who is not a member of Multimedia Production team.
(a) Content specialist
(b) Program debugger
(c) Script writer
(d) Text Editor
Answer:
(b) Program debugger

Question 107.
How many million consumers uses Internet, radio and video services every month?
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75
Answer:
(a) 55

Question 108.
…………………………… is a multimedia based teaching and learning system at GMU in Germany to provide decentralized learning environment to the students.
(a) MODULO
(b) MODULES
(c) MODE
(d) MODEL
Answer:
(a) MODULO

Question 109.
…………………………… is an Education satellite launched in India to provide virtual classrooms.
(a) EDSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) E-SAT
(d) E SATELLITE
Answer:
(b) EDUSAT

Question 110.
……………………………. conferencing is a system that performs face to face interactions for the users.
(a) Multimedia
(b) Video
(c) Audio
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 111.
…………………………… is a free standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen.
(a) Kiosk
(b) Helpdesk
(c) Customer care
(d) ATM
Answer:
(a) Kiosk

Question 112.
Banks uses Kiosks in the form of
(a) Cash
(b) Finance
(c) Credit Cards
(d) ATM
Answer:
(d) ATM

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of vector images?
Answer:
Relatively small amount of data is required to represent the image and thereby only less memory is needed to store.

Question 2.
Define compression?
Answer:
Compression is a technique used to reduce the file size of images that is useful for storing large number of images and speeding transmission for networked applications.

Question 3.
Mention some compression formats?
Answer:

1. GIF – Graphics Interface Format
2. TIFF – Tagged Image File Format
3. JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 4.
Define frame Animation?
Answer:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

Question 5.
Define sampling rate?
Answer:
Sampling rate is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample (bit depth, resolution and sample size).

Question 6.
Write note on MIDI?
Answer:
Musical Instrument Digital Identifier (MIDI) is a standard communication tool developed for computers and electronic instruments. This tool is flexible and easy for composing the projects in multimedia. Tools for synthesizing the sound and software for sequencing are necessary for MIDI.

Question 7.
Classify video?
Answer:
The video can be categorized into two types as:
Analog video and Digital video

Question 8.
Classify Analog video?
Answer:
Analog Video’s are classified as

1. composite Analog video
2. component Analog video

Question 9.
Write note on RTF text format?
Answer:
Rich Text Format is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Question 10.
Mention some text editors?
Answer:
Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X)

Question 11.
Compare BMP and DIB?
Answer:
DIB is similar to BMP. It allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

Question 12.
Write note on Tagra?
Answer:
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

Question 13.
Write note on MP3 format?
Answer:
MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

Question 14.
Write note on WMA?
Answer:
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

Question 15.
Write note on RA Format?
Answer:
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD.

Question 16.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia product?
Answer:

1. Bandwidth issues.
2. Huge Number of Plugins required to play audio and video.
3. Long downloading time.

Question 17.
Name the various fields where multimedia plays a vital role?
Answer:
Education, Entertainment, Business Systems, Medical Services, Public Places and Multimedia Conferencing.

Question 18.
What is Kiosk?
Answer:
Kiosk is a free-standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen. It is^ commonly used in airports and other public locations to provide directions and few mandatory information’s.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define path animation?
Answer:
Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e.g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

Question 2.
Define composite Analog video? Mention same characteristics of composite Analog video?
Answer:
Composite Analog Video has all the video components like brightness, color, and synchronization combined into one signal. Due to the combining of the video components, the quality of the composite video resulted in color blending, low clarity and high generational loss.

Question 3.
Write note on TIFF?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate GIF and JPEG?
Ans
GIF:

1. It is lossless format
2. It is limited to 8 bit palette
3. Size of GIF is more
4. Good for animation works

JPEG:

1. It uses lossy format
2. It allows multiple colors
3. It is lesser
4. Good for photographs

Question 5.
Explain PNG format?
Answer:
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like world wide web. so it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Question 6.
Write note on MPEG?
Answer:
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on , MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Question 7.
List out the steps in Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Conceptual Analysis and Planning, Project design, Pre-production, Budgeting, Multimedia Production Team, Hardware/Software Selection, Defining the Content, Preparing the structure, Production, Testing, Documentation and Delivering the Multimedia Product.

Question 8.
What is meant by digital library?
Answer:
Information’s are available in digital formats It include digital books, scanned images, graphics and digitized audio-visual clips etc. digital library projects were based on textual data, images, audio and video recordings were also integrated under the collection of digital library.

IV. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain various components of Multimedia?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation. They are explained in detail below:
1. Text:
is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

2. Images:
acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images: The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

3. Vector images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

4. Frame animation:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

5. Sound:
is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

6. Video:
is defined as the display of recorded event, scene etc. The powerful way to convey information in multimedia applications are embedding of video. The video can be categorized in two types as Analog video and Digital video.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 5

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
Nicola was glaring at his young brother in vexation.
(a) approval (b) appreciation (c) annoyance (d) admiration
Answer:
(c) annoyance

Question 2.
Suffering seems so cruelly prevalent in this world today.
(a) common (b) scarce (c) abundant (d) meagre
Answer:
(c) abundant

Question 3.
Seeing your car pulled up by his insolence of office, feel that your liberty has been outraged.
(a) calmness (b) rudeness (c) closeness (d) attraction
Answer:
(b) rudeness

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Let me state unequivocally that Tamil is one of the greatest classical literature and traditions of the world. (excluded from the textbook)
(a) ambiguously (b) clearly (c) unmistakably (d) undoubtedly
Answer:
(a) ambiguously

Question 5.
China tea has virtues that are not to be despised.
(a) hated (b) loath (c) averted (d) liked
Answer:
(d) liked

Question 6.
One night, we came upon them in the windy and deserted square.
(a) inhabited (b) unoccupied (c) crowded (d) shrouded
Answer:
(a) inhabited

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word “clear cut”.
(a) Adjective + Verb (b) Gerund + Noun (c) Noun + Noun (d) Noun + Verb
Answer:
(a) Adjective + Verb

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of GDP.
(a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Gross Domestic Purchase (c) Great Demand for Purchase (d) Great Domestic Purchase
Answer:
(a) Gross Domestic Product

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence: English is the lingua franca of many countries.
(a) Mother tongue (b) Foreign Language (c) Unknown Language (d) Common Language
Answer:
(d) Common Language

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word ‘diplonomics’.
(a) Diplo + Economics (b) Diplomacy + Economy (c) Diplo + Economy (d) Diplomacy + Economics
Answer:
(d) Diplomacy + Economics

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for ‘pianoforte’.
(a) Port (b) Pite (c) Piano (d) Pianoforte
Answer:
(c) Piano

Question 12.
Study of codes is called
(a) Cynology (b) Cryptology (c) Criminology (d) Cytology
Answer:
(b) Cryptology

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘argue’.
(a) Contra (b) Counter (c) Bi (d) Pre
Answer:
(b) Counter

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun. He hesitates is lost.
(a) whose (b) whom (c) who (d) that
Answer:
(c) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition. Here is the watch that you asked
(a) of (b) from (c) for (d) at
Answer:
(c) for

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. Let’s go to the beach,?
(a) don’t we (b) do we (c) shall we (d) didn’t we
Answer:
(c) shall we

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence. When asked to reconsider his decision, he put his foot down.
(a) Accepted (b) Refused (c) Felt happy (d) Grew angry
Answer:
(b) Refused

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. She is a fat woman.
(a) bulky (b) obese (c) full-figured (d) heavy weight
Answer:
(c) full-figured

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. The Headmaster sent the latecomer out.
(a) SVC A (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVIODO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. Project is a placement in Australia.
(a) longing on (b) longing to (c) longing for (d) longing of
Answer:
(c) longing for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Our gates were strong, our walls were thick,
So smooth and high, no man could win”
(а) How safe was the castle?
(b) What was the firm belief of the soldiers?
Answer:
(a) No enemy could think of climbing the castle which had high and smooth walls as soldiers were ready to shoot the enemy at first sight. The moat was also deadly and deep and hence one can say that the castle was quite safe.
(b) The firm belief of the soldiers was that their castle was unconquerable as they felt safe and secure behind the castle.

Question 22.
“A creeper climbs, in whose embraces bound No other tree could live.”
(а) Which tree is referred to in the above lines?
(b) How does the tree survive the tight hold of the creeper?
Answer:
(a) The tree referred to in the above lines is Casuarina.
(b) The tree survives the tight hold of the creeper like the embraces of a lady love. So the embraces doesn’t hurt the tree as it grows stronger bearing the bite marks of love.

Question 23.
“Then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail Unwillingly to school.”
(a) Which stage of life is being referred to here by the poet?
(b) What are the characteristics of this stage?
Answer:
(a) The stage of life referred to here by the poet is ‘Boyhood’.
(b) Innocence, joy and care-free life are the characteristics of the boyhood stage.

Question 24.
“for my purpose holds
To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths
Of all the western stars, until I die. ”
(а) What was Ulysses’ purpose in life?
(b) How long would his venture last?
Answer:
(a) Ulysses wants to sail beyond the sunset and the baths of all the western stars before his death. He seeks life in death. Mortals can’t reach such places while they are alive. Ulysses wants to find direct signs of spiritual reality after death wanting to venture into the unknown.
(b) His venture would last as long as he doesn’t face his death.

Question 25.
“Let him have lazy days seeking his deeper motives. Let him seek deep for where he is born natural.”
(а) Why does the son need lazy days?
(b) What is the figure of speech used here?
Answer:
(a) Lazy days would help the boy to find his inborn abilities and spur him to discover the purpose for which he came into this world.
(b) Transferred Epithet.

Question 26.
“A film the mother-eagle’s eye
When her bruised eaglet breathes
(a) Who is compared to the mother eagle in the above lines?
(b) What are the alliterated words?
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is compared to mother eagle.
(b) The alliterated words are bruised breathes.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Customer : Do you have a thesaurus?
Shop owner : Yes. We have. Which publication do you want?
The customer asked the shop owner if they had a thesaurus.
The shopkeeper replied that they had and also asked which publication he wanted.

Question 28.
I was ill. I did not attend the exam, (combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I were ill, I would not attend the exam. [Or]
If I weren’t ill I would have attended the exam.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
Answer:
Had I a car, I would drop you.

Question 30.
I watched a fantastic movie. (Change the following into a complex sentence)
Answer:
I watched a movie which was fantastic.
Or
I watched a movie that was fantastic.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They seemed to be no threat to us at all.
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “The Castle” written by Edwin Muir.

Context: The poem says that greed must be rooted out from one’s soul to keep a country safe.

Explanation: The poet says these words while exhibiting the invincibility of their strong castle. They could watch the movement of enemies from the steeple wall and shoot down the enemy at a distance of half-a-kilometer. They had a stock pile of arms. Their granary was full to sustain the people in the event of a siege. Only a bird could have got into the castle. So, the enemies did not seem to be a threat at all to the soldiers.

Question 32.
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: This poem clearly states that life is a drama and all who pass this are mere actors.

Explanation: William Shakespeare says these words while describing the fourth stage. Here, the young man becomes a soldier and runs after short-lived glory. He has an inflated sense of honour and is ready to insist on duals to settle matters touching his honour. He does not realise that the name he seeks is short-lived like a bubble.

Question 33.
‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The poet emphasizes the fact that liberty gains value when it is curtailed.

Explanation: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy- soldier. The boy-soldier who brought the news of conquest of Ratisbon was all but split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said these words with a smile on his lips as he fell beside his Chief.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What were the various jobs undertaken by Nicola and Jacopo?
Answer:
There were various jobs undertaken by Nicola and Jacopa. They sold wild berries. They polished shoes. They showed visitors through the town to Juliet’s tomb and other places of interest. They even booked a seat for the narrator in a theatre and got American cigars for him.

Question 35.
How did the hospitalization of Dr. Barnard and his wife affect their routine?
Answer:
As a heart surgeon, Dr. Barnard had to operate many patients suffering from heart ailments. He was helpless as he had perforated lungs and broken ribs. His wife could not take care of the baby. Thus the routine life of both Dr. Barnard and his wife was affected adversely.

Question 36.
Define liberty as perceived by A.G. Gardiner.
Answer:
Liberty is an accommodation of interests. It is a social contract rather than a personal affair, requiring an adjustment of our interests.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Which is the most favourite game of the students?
(b) Name the game preferred by the least number of students?
(c) W hich two games have equal number of students?
Answer:
(a) Cricket is the most favourite game of the students.
(b) Volley Ball is the game preferred by the least number of students.
(c) Badminton and Football are the two games which have equal number of students.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a student and a cultural secretary.
Answer:
Student : When is this year’s cultural competition scheduled?
Cultural Secretary: Mostly, it will be during the third week of October.
Student : Are there any new and exciting events proposed?
Cultural Secretary : Yes, there is plenty in store and we are waiting for the consent from our Principal.
Student : Okay great. When is the last date of registration?
Cultural Secretary: The last date for registration is on 23rd September.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making onion raita.
Answer:
• Take two or three big onions and peel the covering layer.
• Chop the tips on both the sides.
• Slice them into small chunks and add two to three chopped green chillies.
• Mix in it slightly thinned curd and add salt to taste. Garnish with coriander leaves.
• Onion raita is ready to be served.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) Brevity is the of wit. (base, soul, root)
(b) alone triumphs. (Truth, God, Love)
(c) A man is known by the he keeps, (company, relatives, neighbours)
Answer:
(a) soul (b) Truth (c) company

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Justify the title of the story ‘Two Gentleman of Verona’.
Answer:
In the story, ‘Two gentlemen of Verona’, Archibald Joseph Cronin portrays the two orphan boys Jacopo and Nicola who work immensely and exhaustively. They shine shoes, sell newspapers, run errands and show tourists all around the city. They take only figs and black tea as food. They save every penny for the medical treatment of their sister Lucia who is suffering from Tuberculosis of the spine. The narrator himself admits that their willingness to work impressed him.

They demonstrate an unusual devotion to their work. The objective of their hard work and purpose behind their half-starved daily routine is not known to many in Verona. Anyone may polish shoes or hawk newspapers but it is the magnanimity of heart and nobleness of purpose that actually determines whether one is a real gentleman or a hypocrite. Hence the title “Two gentlemen of Verona” is justified with no further dispute.

Or

How does George L. Hart justify the statement that Tamil is a classical language? (excluded from the textbook)

Question 42.
Describe the various stages of a man’s life picturised in the poem “All the World’s a stage.”
Answer:
William Shakespeare has beautifully portrayed this world as a huge open theatre where in all human beings play the seven acts/ages of life. In the first act, he is a helpless infant puking on the nurse’s arms, mewling like a kitten. In the second stage, he is the grumbling/whining school student. He moves to school like a snail, reluctant to go to school with his slate and bag. In the third act, he is a lover sighing and yearning for the attention of his lady love.

He composes romantic ballads complaining to his love that he needs a better deal. In the fourth act, he becomes a quick-tempered soldier, aggressive and ambitious, ready to stake his life for the sake of bubble reputation. As he matures, he becomes a wise judge of contemporary life quoting wise maxims to endorse his opinion. He is firm and serious. In the sixth act, his stout legs become thin making his trousers of youth unsuitable.

Thin and lean legs easily travel through them but are unable to stay due to a slimmed waist. His bass voice has become treble like that of a child. In the last act, he is without teeth, without eyes, without taste and without everything (i.e.) loses all senses thus leading to his departure from the world.

Or

The young soldier matched his emperor in courage and patriotism. Elucidate your answer.
Answer:
In the poem, Incident of the French Camp by Robert Browning, Emperor Napoleon was an astute planner planning the moves of the battle observing each step the French army made. As Emperor Napoleon was a bold and wise warrior, he always had two plans. One was to advance forward if the battle brought victory and the next was to decide what had to be done in case the battle was lost. He was not resting at a tent during the battle. He was very close to the place of battle planning the strategic steps. Similarly, the boy-soldier was also equally brave.

Unlike the emperor, the boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting the French national flag. Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse-back to communicate the news of the conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. So, it is obvious that the boy soldier’s patriotism and gallantry are equal to that of Napoleon, his emperor.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Ivan Dmitrich Aksionov – merchant in Vladimir – goes to fair on business – meets another merchant – retire separately – stopped by the police – charged of murder and robbery – sentenced and sent to Siberia – 26 years in jail – new prisoner – Makar Semyonich – admits his crime – Aksionov dies.
Answer:
Aksionov was a businessman. He lived with his wife and children. He was full of life. He sang and played the Guitar and occasionally drank too. Once he got ready to go to the fair. His wife tried to stop him saying that she had a bad dream. On his return from the fair, his hair had turned grey. It was ominous. But Ivan ignored his wife’s warning and went to the fair. As he liked cool weather, he left the inn early. He was intercepted by the police who searched his belongings. Finding a blood-stained knife in his bag, he was arrested on charges of murder.

His wife’s petition for clemency to the Tsar was turned down. His wife’s unwillingness to trust him was more devastating than Tsar’s rejection of mercy petition. He was flogged. After the wounds healed he was sent to work in the mines of Siberia. Staying 26 years in Siberia he grew a long beard. He became grand father to the prisoners. He read “The lives of saints” and was found praying and singing in the choir. He was respected both by the fellow prisoners and the jail authorities for his gentle behaviour. Everyone in the jail believed in his innocence and unjust condemnation.

One day a new convict namely Makar Semyonich came there. When Makar blurted out how the knife went to his bag kept under his head, Ivan recognized Makar as the real murderer of the merchant. Ivan had a chance to expose Makar to the jail authorities. But he kept quiet. Makar became remorseful and asked Ivan’s forgiveness. He forgave him. Makar confessed to the authorities. The order of pardon came but then Ivan was dead.

[OR]

Group of school children – planet Venus raining for seven years – predicted sun -for two hours – children in activity – Margot thin girl – not mingling – children locked her in a closet – sun appeared – children played – rain clouds appeared – unlocked the closet – Margot came out – power of sun.
Answer:
This story ‘All in a Summer Day’ by Ray Bradbury’ is set on the planet Venus, where the sun shines for only two hours every seven years. It opens on the day when scientists state that the sun is due to make its appearance. Margot and the other children in her school on Venus are nine years old. Margot came from Earth to Venus five years ago and so she accurately recalls the sun the way she had experienced it in Ohio. However, this is not the case with the other children. They were far too young to remember what the sun was like when last it shone upon them.

They can only imagine the warmth of that sun upon their arms and legs. Margot tells the others that the sun is round like a penny and hot like a fire in the stove. The other children accuse her of lying, and they show their resentment by locking her in a closet. When the Venus rains finally stop and the sun comes out, it sends a flaming bronze colour. The children soak up the life-giving sunshine until the rains start to fall again. The children now know that Margot was telling the truth about the sun and remember that Margot is still locked in the closet but for her, it is too late — she must wait seven years to see the sun again

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The aim of education is to enable human personality to grow to its full stature. We have a body, a mind and a spirit. Accordingly, education aims at our physical, intellectual, spiritual and moral development.

Games are a means of keeping the body healthy and fit. Physical fitness and freedom from all kinds of ailments are the desire and ambition of every human being. Indeed, good health is the first condition of happiness in life. Those who play games generally maintain good health. Games are an excellent means of bodily exercise. Whether it is sophisticated games like hockey, football and tennis or simple games like Kabbadi, they provide the much needed exercise to the body and thus keep the body healthy and strong. Players always have a better appetite and a better digestion than those who play no games or do exercises. Games not only make the body healthy and strong, but also make it muscular.

Notes
Title: Aim of Education

Human personality growth:
Full stature – Body, mind, spirit
Physical, Intellectual, spiritual and moral
Desire of Human-being

Benefits of Games:
Keep body fit
Physical fitness
Freedom from all ailments
Good health
Excellent body exercise
Good appetite and digestive system

Types of Games:
Sophisticated games – hockey, football, tennis
Simple games – kabbadi

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 156
No. of words to be written in the summary: 156/3 = 32 ± 5

Title: Aim of Education
Rough Draft

The-aim of education is to enable human personality to grow fully in body, mind and spirit enabling physical, intellectual, spiritual and moral development. Games keep the body healthy and fit free from all kinds of elements. Good health is the first condition of happiness in life. Those who play games generally mainten good health for it’s an excellent means of bodily exercise. Sophisticated games or simple games keeps the body healthy and strong. Players have better appetite and digestion. Games not only make the body helthy and strong, but also make it muscular.

Enabling human personality to develop physically, intellectually, spiritually and morally is the aim of education. Those who play games maintain good health for it’s an excellent means of bodily exercise. Sophisticated games or simple games keeps the body healthy and strong. Players have better appetite and digestion. Games not only make it fit but also muscular.
No. of words written in the summary: 56

Question 45.
You have got a job offer for the post of clerk at Cheyyur Construction Pvt. Ltd., Mount Road, Chennai – 02, but cannot join due to some urgent work at home. Write a letter to the HR (Human Resource Manager) of that company, and in your letter :
Say why you are writing; Explain your situation What you want to request from manager (write XXX for your name and YYY for your address).
Answer:
12th November, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
To
Human Resource Manager
Cheyyur Construction Pvt.Ltd.
Mount Road
Chennai – 02
Respected Sir,

Sub.: Regret joining duty immediately
Ref. : Letter dtd. 10.11.2020 – Reg. Job offer

Thank you very much for your letter dated 10th November, 2020 offering me a job at your esteemed organisation.

I am extremely sorry to inform you that I will not be able to j oin duty on 1 st December, due to family constraints. As my younger sister is getting married on 15th December at Rajasthan, it is impossible for me to j oin duty on 1 st December. Marriage is more a ritual than a celebration and hence my presence at home is inevitable.

I request you to thereby consider my plea to join duty any day after the 20th of December,
2020.
Thanking you in advance for your understanding and acceptance. Looking forward to a promising career ahead.

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope:
To
Human Resource Manager
Cheyyur Construction Pvt.Ltd.,
Mount Road,
Chennai – 02

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Newspaper Reading”.

Newspaper Reading

Today, reading a newspaper is a powerful tool which enhances confidence and personality of a person. It is a good source of getting more knowledge and information as well as enhancing skill level. It is available in almost all languages. It is difficult to imagine life without a newspaper. It is the first and foremost thing everyone looks for every morning. It is a publication of the news which gets printed on the paper and distributed to everyone. Newspaper gives us the information about the happenings in and around us. Various newspaper in market costs differently according to their news details and popularity in the area. Newspapers serve more than one purpose according to the need and requirement of the people. In comparison to the information it gives, its cost is very less. It helps us a lot by keeping us up-to-date about news all over the world. It helps us in widening our knowledge, skill, and technical awareness. We should continue to read newspapers and motivate other family members and friends also to read them.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(a) He gave a lot of advices.
(b) I have finished my meals.
(c) They discussed about politics.
(d) Though he is ill, but he attends the class.
(e) If they had contacted me, I would help them.
Answer:
(a) He gave a lot of advice.
(b) I have finished my meal.
(c) They discussed politics.
(d) Though he is ill, he attends the class. [Or]
He is ill but he attends the class.
(e) If they had contacted me, I would have helped them.

[Or]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) I can’t the heat, if I want on …………… foot, (bare / bear)
(b) …………… excuse me for a moment? (Use a modal verb)
(c) You …………… not lose anymore weight. You are already slim. (Use a Semi modal verb)
(d) My brother …………… (buy) a bike recently. (Use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bear, bare (b) Will (c) dare not (d) bought

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) India, U.K. Oncologists collaborate.
(b) Ganesha idols immersed.
(c) Kejriwal wins the conference vote.
(d) Sunflower oil cuts down cholesterol.
(e) Green tea plantations in Ooty.
[Health, Medicine, Agriculture, Religion, Politics]
Answer:
(a) Medicine (b) Religion (c) Politics (d) Health (e) Agriculture

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.

Kabbadi is contact team sport that originated in Tamil Nadu. It is the national sport of Bangladesh. Kabbadi is played between two teams of seven players, the objective of the game is for a single player on offence referred to as a ‘raider’ to run into the opposite teams half of a court, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court-all without being tackled by the defenders. Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider, while the opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider. Players are taken out of the game, if they are tagged or tackled, but can be revived for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle. The raider should hold his breath and utter the words like “Kabbadi, Kabbadi” “hututu hututu”, “chadu kudu”, etc., while the opponents try to catch him. If he stops uttering those words, he is considered out.

Questions:
a. Kabbadi is a national sport of
b. Kabbadi is played between two teams of players.
c. How does a raider score points for his team?
d. When does a raider concede a point to the opponent team?
e. Can a player be revived when he/she is out of the game?
Answers:
(a) Bangladesh.
(b) seven
(c) Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider.
(d) The opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider.
(e) Yes. The player can be revived for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

To Dr. C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Sunshine Public School, Elagiri Admission Notice 7th December, 2019 The admission for the coming academic year viz. 2020-2021 will begin from the second week of January, 2020. The prospectus and admission forms can be purchased from the school office from 8th January to 30th January, 2020 between 10 a.m. and 4.30 p.m. The last date for the submission of the duly filled forms is 28th February, 2020. Principal Mr. Samson – Sunshine Public School

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 10 Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 10 Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following statements and choose the right option:
(i) Cereals are members of grass family.
(ii) Most of the food grains come from monocotyledon.
(a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: Vegetables are important part of healthy eating.
Reason: Vegetables are succulent structures of plants with pleasant aroma and flavours.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
(b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
(d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
Answer:
(d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.

Question 3.
Groundnut is native of _____________
(a) Philippines
(b) India
(c) North America
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 4.
Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine.
Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer.
(a) A is correct, B is wrong
(b) A and B – Both are correct
(c) A is wrong, B is correct
(d) A and B – Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct, B is wrong

Question 5.
Tectona grandis is coming under family _____________
(a) Lamiaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Dipterocaipaceae
(d) Ebenaceae
Answer:
(a) Lamiaceae

Question 6.
Tamarindus indica is indigenous to _____________
(a) Tropical African region
(b) South India, Sri Lanka
(c) South America, Greece
(d) India alone
Answer:
(a) Tropical African region

Question 7.
New world species of cotton _____________
(a) Gossipium arboretum
(b) G.herbaceum
(c) Both a and b
(d) G.barbadense
Answer:
(d) G.barbadense

Question 8.
Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds of cancer.
Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant present in turmeric.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
(b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

Question 9.
Find out the correctly matched pair:
(a) Rubber Shorea robusta
(b) Dye
(c) Timber Cyperus papyrus
(d) Pulp Hevea brasiliensis
Answer:
(b) Dye

Question 10.
Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I – Perfumes are manufactured from essential oils.
Statement II – Essential oils are formed at different parts of the plants.
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both statements are correct

Question 11.
Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I: The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, ores and minerals.
Statement II: Minerals are used for preparing drugs with long shelf-life.
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both statements are correct

Question 12.
The active principle trans-tetra hydro canabial is present in _____________
(a) Opium
(b) Curcuma
(c) Marijuana
(d) Andrographis
Answer:
(c) Marijuana

Question 13.
Which one of the following matches is correct?
(a) Palmyra – Native of Brazil
(b) Saccharun – Abundant in Kanyakumari
(c) Steveocide – Natural sweetener
(d) Palmyra sap – Fermented to give ethanol
Answer:
(c) Steveocide – Natural sweetener

Question 14.
The only cereal that has originated and domesticated from the New world.
(a) Oryza sativa
(b) Triticum aestivum
(c) Triticum duram
(d) Zea mays
Answer:
(c) Triticum duram

Question 15.
Write the cosmetic uses of Aloe.
Answer:

• Skin tonic
• Due to cooling effect, moisturising characteristics, used in preparation of cream, lotion, shampoo, sharing cream, aftershave lotion.
• Gerontological application for rejuvenation of aging skin. (Gerontology -வயதாவதினால் தோலில் ஏற்படும் மாற்றங்கள் குறித்த படிப்பு )
• Products are emollient (lubricant), antibacterial, antioxidant, antifungal and antiseptic.

Question 16.
What is pseudo cereal? Give an example.
Answer:
The term pseudo-cereal is used to describe foods that are prepared and eaten as a whole grain, but are botanical outliers from grasses. Example: quinoa. It is actually a seed from the Chenopodium quinoa plant, belongs to the family Amaranthaceae.

Question 17.
Discuss which wood is better for making furniture.
Answer:

• Teak (Tectona grandis) is from South East Asia.
• Cultivated in Bengal, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Northwest India.
• Heartwood is golden yellow to a golden brown.
• Durable and Immune to termite and fungi attack.
• Carpenter friendly. It does not split or crack.
• Used in
• Railway carriage, Wagon
• Shipbuilding
• Bridge-building
• Making toys, boats, plywood, door frame, doors.

Question 18.
A person got irritation while applying chemical dye. What would be your suggestion for alternative?
Answer:
If a grey haired person is allergic on using chemical dyes then he can go for natural dyes like Henna. Henna is an organic dye obtained from leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis. The principal colouring matter is Tacosone’ which is harmless and causes no irritation on skin.

Question 19.
Name the humors that are responsible for the health of human beings.
Answer:

• Vatam
• Pittam
• Kapam

Question 20.
Give definitions for organic farming?
Answer:
Organic farming is an alternative agricultural system in which plants/crops are cultivated – in natural ways by using biological inputs to maintain soil fertility and ecological balance thereby minimizing pollution and wastage.

Question 21.
Which is called the “King of Bitters”? Mention their medicinal importance.
Answer:

• Nilavembu is called King of Bitter
• Botanical name is Andrographis paniculata.
• It is hepatoprotective
• It treats liver disorders.
• Concoction (Mixture of medicines) of Andrographis paniculata and 8 other herbs (Nilavembu kudineer) treats malaria and dengue.

Question 22.
Differentiate bio-medicines and botanical medicines.
Answer:

1. Bio-medicines: Medically useful molecules obtained from plants that are marketed as drugs are called Bio-medicines.
2. Botanical medicines: Parts of medicinal plants which are modified as powers or pills or other forms and marketed. These are called botanical medicines.

Question 23.
Write the origin and area of cultivation of green gram and red gram.
Answer:

Question 24.
What are millets? What are its types? Give example for each type.
Answer:
Millet’s: Small seeds cultivated by ancient people of Africa, Asia. Gluten-free with a less glycemic index.

Finger Millet (Ragi) (Eleusine coracana)
Came to India from East Africa. It is rich in calcium.’

Uses:

• Staple food in South Indian hills.
• Made into porridge, gruel.
• Ragi malt is a nutrient drink.
• Source of fermented beverages.

Sorghum vulgare.
Native of Africa. Major millet of the world with calcium, iron
Uses:

• Feed to poultry, birds, pigs, cattle
• Alcoholic beverage source.

Fox tail Millet (Setariaitalica)
Oldest traditional millet of India. Domesticated in China about 6000 years.
Uses: Strengthens heart, eye sight, lactation.

Kodo Millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum)
From West Africa.
Uses:

• Flour for pudding
• Diuretic, cures constipation.
• Reduce obesity, blood sugar, blood pressure.

Question 25.
If a person drinks a cup of coffee daily it will help him for his health. Is this correct? If it is correct, list out the benefits.
Answer:
Yes, drinking coffee in moderation enhances the health of a person. Caffeine enhances release of acetylcholine in brain, which in turn enhances efficiency. It can lower the incidence of fatty liver diseases, cirrhosis and cancer. It may reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Question 26.
Enumerate the uses of turmeric.
Answer:

• Ancient Indian spice used for culinary, cosmetic, dyeing, medicinal purpose.
• Used in curry powder
• Colouring agent in food industry, pharmacy and confectionery.
• Turmeric coloured rice is used sacred in ceremonies.
• Dyeing leather, fiber, paper, toys.
• Curcumin of turmeric gives yellow colour. It is a good anti-oxidant fighting cancer.
• It is anti inflammatory
  • anti diabetic
  • antibacterial
  • anti fungal
  • anti viral
• Stops clotting in arteries and heart attack.

Question 27.
What is TSM? How does it classified and what does it focuses on?
Answer:
TSM stands for Traditional Systems of Medicines India has a rich medicinal heritage. Anumber of Traditional Systems of Medicine (TSM) are practiced in India some of which come from outside India. TSM in India can be broadly classified into institutionalized or documented and non-institutionalized or oral traditions. Institutionalized Indian systems include Siddha and Ayurveda which are practiced for about two thousand years.

These systems have prescribed texts in which the symptoms, disease diagnosis, drugs to cure, preparation of drugs, dosage and diet regimes, daily and seasonal regimens. Non-institutional systems, whereas, do not have such records and or practiced by rural and tribal peoples across India. The knowledge is mostly held in oral form. The TSM focus on healthy lifestyle and healthy diet for maintaining good health and disease reversal.

Question 28.
Write the uses of nuts you have studied.
Answer:
Uses of Nuts:
Good source of healthy fat, fibre, protein, vitamin, mineral and antioxidants.

Uses of Cashew nuts:

• Used for garnishing sweets or curries.
• Ground into paste and used for sauces of curries, sweets.
• Roasted, raw kernels are used as snacks.

Question 29.
Give an account on the role of Jasminum in perfuming.
Answer:
The essential jasmine oil is present in the epidermal cells of the inner and outer surfaces of both the sepals and petals. One ton of Jasmine blossom yields about 2.5 to 3 kg of essential oil, comprising 0.25 to 3% of the weight of the fresh flower. Jasmine oil is an essential oil that is valued for its soothing, relaxing and antidepressant qualities.

Question 30.
Give an account of active principle and medicinal values of any two plants you have studied
Answer:

Question 31.
Write the economic importance of rice.
Answer:
Economic Importance of Rice:

• Easily digestible, calorie rice, a staple food in southern, northeast India.
• Flaked rice (Aval), Puffed rice / Parched rice (Pori) are used as breakfast cereal, snack.
• Rice bran oil is used in culinary, industrial purposes.
• Husks are used to prepare fuel, packing material, fertilizer.

Question 32.
Which TSM is widely practiced and culturally accepted in Tamil Nadu? – explain.
Answer:
Siddha is the most popular, widely practiced and culturally accepted system in Tamil Nadu. It is based on the texts written by 18 Siddhars. There are different opinions on the constitution of 18 Siddhars. The Siddhars are not only from Tamil Nadu, but have also come from other countries. The entire knowledge is documented in the form of poems in Tamil. Siddha is principally based on the Pancabuta philosophy. According to this system three humors namely Vatam, Pittam and Kapam that are responsible for the health of human beings and ‘ any disturbance in the equilibrium of these humors result in ill health.

The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, marine products and minerals. This system specializes in using minerals for preparing drugs with a long shelf-life. This system uses about 800 herbs as a source of drugs. Great stress is laid on disease prevention, health promotion, rejuvenation and cure.

Question 33.
What are psychoactive drugs? Add a note of Marijuana and Opium.
Answer:
Psychoactive drugs:

• These are drugs from plants.
• They alter the individual’s perception of the mind.
• It produces hallucination
• In ancient culture, it was used by shamans, traditional healers.

A) Opium Poppy (Papaver somniferum)

• Native to southeastern Europe and west Asia.
• Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh are licensed states to cultivate.
• Opium is derived from exudates of fruits.
• They induce sleep and relieve pain.
• Opium yields Morphine. Analgesic in surgery. Addiction forming drug.

B) Cannabis Marijuana (Cannabis sativa)

• Native of China
• Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarkand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh cultivate.
  Active Principle:
• Trans – tetra-hydro canabinal (THC)

Medicinal Properties:

•  Pain reliever.
• Reduces hypertension
• Treats glaucoma (pressure in eye)
• Reduce nausea in cancer patients undergoing radiation, chemotherapy.
• Relief to Bronchitis, asthma, dilates bronchial vessels.
• Prolonged use cause addiction. Affects health and society.

Question 34.
What are the King and Queen of spices? Explain about them and their uses.
Answer:

King of Spices: Pepper is one of the most important Indian spices referred to as the “King of Spices” and also termed as “Black Gold of India”. Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the top producers in India. The characteristic pungency of the pepper is due to the presence of an alkaloid Pipeline. There are two types of pepper available in the market namely black and white pepper.

Uses:

• It is used for flavouring in the preparation of sauces, soups, curry powder and pickles.
• It is used in medicine as an aromatic stimulant for enhancing salivary and gastric secretions and also as a stomachic.
• Pepper also enhances the bio-absorption of medicines.

Queen of Spices: Cardamom is called “Queen of Spices”. In India, it is one of the main cash crops cultivated in the Western Ghats, and North-Eastern India.

Uses:

• The seeds have a pleasing aroma and a characteristic warm, slightly pungent taste.
• It is used for flavouring confectionaries, bakery products and beverages.
• The seeds are used in the preparation of curry powder, pickles and cakes.
• Medicinally, it is employed as a stimulant and carminative.
• It is also chewed as a mouth freshener.

Question 35.
How will you prepare an organic pesticide for your home garden with the vegetables available from your kitchen?
Answer:
Step 1: Mix 120 g of hot chillies with 110 g of garlic or onion. Chop them thoroughly.

Step 2: Blend the vegetables together manually or using an electric grinder until it forms a thick paste.

Step 3: Add the vegetable paste to 500 ml of warm water. Give the ingredients a stir to thoroughly mix them together.

Step 4: Pour the solution into a glass container and leave it undisturbed for 24 hours. If possible, keep the container in a sunny location. If not, at least keep the mixture in a warm place.

Step 5: Strain the mixture. Pom- the solution through a strainer, remove the vegetables and collect the vegetable-infused water and pour into another container. This filtrate is the pesticide. Either discard the vegetables or use it as a compost.

Step 6: Pour the pesticide into a squirt bottle. Make sure that the spray bottle has first been cleaned with warm water and soap to get rid it of any potential contaminants. Use a funnel to transfer the liquid into the squirt bottle and replace the nozzle.

Step 7: Spray your plants with the pesticide. Treat the infected plants every 4 to 5 days with the solution. After 3 or 4 treatments, the pest will be eliminated. If the area is thoroughly covered with the solution, this pesticide should keep bugs away for the rest of the season.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Paddy, Wheat and Sorghum, etc., come under the category of cereals. All the members of cereals belong to which of the following family?
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Poaceae
(c) Leguminoneae
(d) Caesalpinaeceae
Answer:
(b) Poaceae

Question 2.
Match the common names of the given plant species with their respective binomials

Answer:
(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – iv, C – ii and D – i

Question 3.
Given below are the plant species and their parts used. Which is the incorrect pair(s)?
(i) Cajanus cajan : Seeds
(ii) Anacardium occidentale : nuts
(iii) Borassus flabellifer : Endosperm
(iv) Capsicum annum : leaves
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii only
(d) iv only
Answer:
(d) iv only

Question 4.
Identify the Tamil name for flaked rice
(a) Nel
(b) Aval
(c) Pori
(d) Umi
Answer:
(b) Aval

Question 5.
Pigeon pea is the common name for.
(a) Vigna radiata
(b) Vigna mungo
(c) Cajanus cajan
(d) Sorghum vulgare
Answer:
(c) Cajanus cajan

Question 6.
Sorghum is native to ______ continent.
Answer:
Africa

Question 7.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv and 4 – i

Question 8.
_____ is the state tree of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Palmyra

Question 9.
Statement 1: Arachis hypogea belong to Fabaceae Statement 2: It is a native of Brazil.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 10.
Statement 1: Chinese discovered the paper.
Statement 2: Eucalyptus and Casuarina are the widely used tree species for making paper pulp.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 11.
Statement 1: Andrographis paniculata is known as King of Bitters.
Statement 2: The decoction of Andrographis is used against Diabetes mellitus.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect

Question 12.
Statement 1: Aloe vera belongs to the family Asphodelaceae.
Statement 2: Jasminum grandiflorum belongs to the family of Oleaceae.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 13.
Which district of Tamil Nadu is the World’s largest wholesale turmeric dealer?
Answer:
Erode

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Turmeric is used to treat cancer.
Reason (R): Curcumin is a biomolecule present in turmeric.
(a) A is right R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is the wrong R is right
(d) A and R are right. R explains A.
Answer:
(d) A and R are right. R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Black pepper is a spice.
Reason (R): Condiments are flavouring substances, generally added after the cooking of food.
(a) A is right R is wrong
(b) R explains A
(c) Both A and R are right. R is not the correct explanation for A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are right. R is not the correct explanation for A.

Question 16.
Select the new world species of cotton.
(i) Gossypium hirsutum
(ii) Gossypium arboreum
(iii) Gossypium arboreum
(iv) Gossypium
(a) i and ii only
(b) i and iii only
(c) iii and iv only
(d) ii and iv only
Answer:
(a) i and ii only

Question 17.
Binomial of teak is ________
Answer:
Tectona grandis

Question 18.
The plant source of Marijuana is ________
(a) Andrographis paniculata
(b) Phyllanthus maderspatensis
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Papaver somniferum
Answer:
(c) Cannabis sativa

Question 19.
Identify the incorrect statements:
(a) Morphine is used as a potent hepatoprotective.
(b) Phyllanthin is used as a strong analgesic in surgery.
(c) Indian Acalypha is used to cure skin diseases.
(d) Cissus quadrangularis is widely used for treating bone fractures.
(i) a and c
(ii) a and d
(iii) b and c
(iv) a and b
Answer:
(iv) a and b

Question 20.
Identify the mismatched pair:
(a) Holy basil – Ocimum sanctum
(b) Indian gooseberry – Phyllanthus amarus
(c) Vilvam – Aegle marmelos
(d) Veldt grape – Cissus quadrangularis
Answer:
(b) Indian gooseberry – Phyllanthus amarus

Question 21.
The active principle in Marijuana is _________
Answer:
Trans-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

Question 22.
The second GI tag for Jasmine is ‘Madurai Malli’, which jasmine type has got the first GI tag?
Answer:
‘Mysore Malli’

Question 23.
The principal coloring agent present in the leaf paste of Lawsonia inermis which give orange to dark red when applied on skin is _______
Answer:
Lacosone

Question 24.
Which state of India ranks first in coffee consumption?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
Name the plant family to which the coffee plant belongs to?
Answer:
Rubiaceae

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Give the binomials of paddy and wheat.
Answer:

1. Paddy: Oryza sativa.
2. Wheat: Triticum aestivum.

Question 2.
What is maida? Mention its culinary purpose.
Answer:
Processed wheat flour, which has little fibre, is called Maida which is used extensively in making parotta, naan and bakery products.

Question 3.
Name any four millet varieties.
Answer:
Finger millet, Sorghum, Foxtail millet and Kodo millet.

Question 4.
Ragi rich food helps to overcome bone-related ailments – justify.
Answer:
Ragi (Finger millet) is a kind of millet that has a less glycemic index and rich in calcium. Hence consuming ragi food items enhances bone strength.

Question 5.
Eating millets are good for diabetic patients. How?
Answer:
Millets are gluten-free and have a less glycemic index, hence it is good for diabetic patients.

Question 6.
Write the health benefits of Kodo millet.
Answer:
Kodo millet is a good diuretic and cures constipation. Helps to reduce obesity, blood sugar, and blood pressure.

Question 7.
Name the family does the cereals and pulses belong.
Answer:

1. Cereals belong to the family Poaceae.
2. Pulses belong to the family Fabaceae.

Question 8.
Write the common name for

1. Vigna radiata
2. Cajanus cajatt

Answer:

1. Vigna radiata – Green gram.
2. Cajanus cajan – Red gram or pigeon pea.

Question 9.
Why do we take vegetables in our diet?
Answer:
Vegetables are an important part of healthy eating and provide many nutrients, including potassium, fiber, folic acid and vitamins A, E and C. The nutrients in vegetables are vital for the maintenance of our health.

Question 10.
Write the binomial and the family to which the lady’s finger belongs to.
Answer:
Binomial of lady’s finger is Abelmoschus esculentus.
Family: Malvaceae.

Question 11.
Which are our National fruit and State tree of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. National fruit of India is Mango.
2. State tree of Tamil Nadu is Palmyra.

Question 12.
Point out the uses of sugarcane.
Answer:
Sugar cane is the raw material for extracting white sugar. Sugarcane supports large number of industries like sugar mills producing refined sugars, distilleries producing liquor grade ethanol and millions of jaggery manufacturing units. Fresh sugarcane juice is a refreshing drink. Molasses is the raw material for the production of ethyl alcohol.

Question 13.
What is toddy?
Answer:
Inflorescence of palmyra is tapped for its sap which is used as health drink. Sap is processed to get palm jaggery or fermented to give toddy.

Question 14.
How coffee plants are introduced to India?
Answer:
Coffea arabica is the prime source of commercial coffee which is native to tropical Ethiopia. An Indian Muslim saint, Baba Budan introduced coffee from Yemen to Mysore.

Question 15.
Compare Spices and Condiments.
Answer:
Spices are accessory foods mainly used for flavouring during food preparation to improve their palatability. Spices are aromatic plant products and are characterized by sweet or bitter taste. Spices are added in minimal quantities during the cooking process. For example black pepper. Condiments, on the other hand, are flavouring substances having a sharp taste and are usually added to food after cooking. For example, curry leaves.

Question 16.
Mention any two Jute species.
Answer:

1. Corchorus capsularis
2. Corchorus olitorius

Question 17.
Name the plant species used for making paper pulp.
Answer:
Wood of Melia azadirachta, Neolamarkia chinensis, Casuarina spp and Eucalyptus spp are used for making paper pulp.

Question 18.
What does NCB stands for? Mention its role.
Answer:
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India and is responsible for fighting drug trafficking and the abuse of illegal substances.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 19.
Write a short note on foxtail millet. Foxtail Millet
Answer:
Botanical name: Setaria italica This is one of the oldest millet used traditionally in India. Which is domesticated first in China for about 6000 years. Rich in protein, carbohydrate, vitamin B and C, Potassium, and Calcium.

Uses:

• It supports the strengthening of the heart and improves eyesight.
• Thinai porridge is given to lactating mothers.

Question 20.
Write the botanical name and culinary uses of green gram.
Answer:
Botanical name: Vigna radiata Uses It can be used as roasted, cooked, and sprouted pulse. Green gram is one of the ingredients of Pongal, a popular breakfast dish in Tamil Nadu. Fried dehulled and broken or whole green gram is used as a popular snack. The flour is traditionally used as a cosmetic, especially for the skin.

Question 21.
Mention the ways in which mangoes are used in Indian culinary.
Answer:
Mango is the major table fruit of India, which is rich in beta carotenes. It is utilized in many ways, as dessert, canned, dried and preserves in Indian cuisine. Sour, unripe mangoes are used in chutneys, pickles, side dishes, or maybe eaten raw with salt and chili. Mango pulp is made into jelly. Aerated and non-aerated fruit juice is a popular soft drink.

Question 22.
Write a note on origin and area of cultivation of cotton.
Answer:
Cotton is one of the oldest cultivated crops of the world. It has been cultivated for about 8000 years both in the new world and in old world. Commercial cotton comes from four cotton species: two from the new world and two from the old world.

1. Gossypium hirsutum
2. G.barbadense is the New World species and
3. G. arboretum
4. G. herbaceum are the old world species. In India, cotton is cultivated in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 23.
What is vulcanization? Who invented it?
Answer:
The heating of the rubber with sulphur under pressure at 150°C is called vulcanization. It was invented by Charles Goodyear.

Question 24.
Write a note on Henna.
Answer:

1. Botanical name: Lawsonia inermis.
2. Family: Lythraceae.
3. Origin and Area of cultivation: It is indigenous to North Africa and South-west Asia. It is grown mostly throughout India, especially in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

Uses:

• An orange dye ‘Henna’ is obtained from the leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis.
• The principal colouring matter of leaves Tacosone” is harmless and causes no irritation to the skin.
• This dye has long been used to dye skin, hair, and fingernails.
• It is used for colouring leather, for the tails of horses, and in hair-dyes.

Question 25.
What are organic pesticides?
Answer:
Pest like aphids, spider and mites can cause serious damage to flowers, fruits, and vegetables. These creatures attack the garden in swarms, and drain the life of the crop and often invite disease in the process. Many chemical pesticides prove unsafe for human and the environment. It turns fruits and vegetables unsafe for consumption. Thankfully, there are many homemade, organic options to turn to war against pests.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 26.
Write the botanical name, origin, cultivational area and uses of a Black gram.
Answer:
Botanical name : Vigna mungo

Origin and Area of cultivation: Black gram is native to India. Earliest archaeobotanical evidence record the presence of black gram about 3,500 years ago. It is cultivated as a rain-fed crop in drier parts of India. India contributes to 80% of the global production of black gram. Important states growing black gram in India are Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, and Karnataka.

Uses:

• Black gram is eaten whole or split, boiled or roasted or ground into flour.
• Black gram batter is a major ingredient for the preparation of popular Southern Indian breakfast dishes.
• Split pulse is used in seasoning Indian curries.

Question 27.
Give a detailed account on any one fibe yielding plant. Jute
Answer:

1. Botanical name : Corchorus app.
2. Family: Malvaceae
3. Origin and Area of cultivation: Jute is derived from the two cultivated species Corchorus capsularis  Colittorius is of African origin whereas C. Capsularis, is believed to Indo- Burmaese origin. It is an important cultivated commercial crop in Gangetic plains of India and Bangladesh.
4. Use : It is one of the largest exported fibre material of India. The jute industry occupies an important place in the national economy of India. Jute is used for ‘safe’ packaging in view of being natural, renewable, bio-degradable and eco-friendly product. It is used in bagging and wrapping textile. About 75% of the jute produced is used for manufacturing sacks and bags. It is also used in manufacture of blankets, rags, curtains etc. It is also being used as a textile fibre in recent years.

Question 28.
Draw a table mentioning binominals, family name, useful part and their medical uses of any five local medicinal plants.
Answer:

Question 29.
Explain the stepwise preparation of Bio-pest repellent from the leaves of Azadirachta indica
Answer:
Botanical pest repellent and insecticide made with the dried leaves of Azadirachta indica
Preparation of Bio-pest repellent

1. Pluck leaves from the neem tree and chop the leaves finely.
2. The chopped up leaves were put in a 50-liter container and fill to half with water; put the lid on and leave it for 3 days to brew.
3. Using another container, strain the mixture which has brewed for 3 days to remove the leaves, through fine mesh sieve. The filtrate can be sprayed on the plants to repel pests.
4. To make sure that the pest repellent sticks to the plants, add 100 ml of cooking oil and the same amount of soap water. (The role of the soap water is to break down the oil, and the role of the oil is to make it stick to the leaves).
5. The stewed leaves from the mixture can be used in the compost heap or around the base of the plants.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
The following are the binomials of economically useful plants. Mention their respective families.
(a) Borassus flabellifer
(b) Mangifera indica
(c) Saccharum officinarum
(d) Curcuma longa
(e) Capsicum annum
(f) Tamarindus indica
Answer:

Question 2.
Name the plant source from which the following products are obtained.

1. Maida
2. Rubber
3. Morphine
4. Coffee

Answer:

1. Maida – Triticum durum
2. Rubber – Hevea brasiliensis
3. Morphine – Papaver somniferum
4. Coffee – Coffea arabica

Question 3.
Mention the plant species or their products which are popularly known as

1. Queen of species
2. Black Gold of India and
3. King of bitters.

Answer:

1. Queen of Species – Cardamom
2. Black Gold of India – Pepper
3. King of bitters – Andrographis paniculata

Question 4.
Complete the statements.

1. Alphonsa is a variety of ______
2. Cayenne pepper is a variety of ______

Answer:

1. Mango
2. Capsicum

Question 5.
Siddha medicine is an age-old practice in our nation. According to this medicinal system, what is the major cause for all sort of illness in humans?
Answer:
According to Siddha medicine, three humors namely vatam, pittam and kapam are responsible for the health of human being and any disturbance in the equilibrium of these humors result in ill health.