Class 10

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Prose Chapter 7 The Dying Detective

The Dying Detective Warm up:

1. Solve the crossword using the list of words and the clues.
Answer:

The Dying Detective Intext Questions

Question a.
How did Watson feel when he heard of Holme’s illness?
Answer:
Watson felt horrified when he heard of Holme’s illness.

Question b.
Why didn’t the landlady call the doctor?
Answer:
The landlady didn’t call the doctor because Holmes would not allow her to bring one.

Question c.
What was the condition of Holmes when Watson saw him?
Answer:
When Watson saw Holmes, his eyes had the brightness of fever, his cheeks were flushed and his hand twitched all the time.

Question d.
According to Holmes what was the disease he was suffering from?
Answer:
Holmes was suffering from Tarpaunli fever or black Formosa plague.

Question e.
Who did Watson see when he entered the room?
Answer:
Watson saw the butler when he entered the room.

Question f.
What were the instructions given by Holmes to Watson?
Answer:
Holmes did not want Watson to go before six. He asked Watson to persuade Smith to come, to tell Smith that Holmes was dying and force Smith to come. Watson should return to Holmes’ house, before Smith’s arrival. He asked Watson to light the gas and keep it half-on.

Question g.
Why did Holmes plead with Smith?
Answer:
Holmes pleaded with Smith to get a cure for his deadly disease.

Question h.
Who was responsible for Victor Savage’s death? What was the evidence for it?
Answer:
Culverton Smith was responsible for Victor Savage’s death. The ivory box was the last piece of evidence of it.

Question i.
What explanation did Holmes give for speaking rudely to Watson?
Answer:
Holmes explained to Watson that he had spoken rudely to Watson because he didn’t want Watson to know that he was not ill.

Question j.
How was Holmes able to look sick?
Answer:
Holmes starved for three days without food and water to look really sick.

The Dying Detective Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was Mrs. Hudson? Why was she worried?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson was the landlady of Holmes. She was worried of Holmes illness.

Question 2.
Why didn’t Holmes let Watson examine him?
Answer:
Holmes didn’t let Watson examine him by telling him that he was suffering from a deadly and contagious disease. In fact, Holmes was acting as if he was a sick person. If Watson examined him, he would know that Holmes was not ill.

Question 3.
Why did Holmes warn Watson against touching his things? What was Watson’s reaction?
Answer:
Holmes warned Watson because he hated his things to be touched by others. Eventually, Watson sat in silent dejection.

Question 4.
What did Watson find on the table near the mantelpiece?
Answer:
Watson found a small black and white ivory box with a sliding lid, on the mantelpiece.

Question 5.
Who is Mr. Culverton Smith?
Answer:
Mr. Culverton Smith is a planter. He lives in Sumatra. He murdered his nephew Victor savage.

Question 6.
What did Holmes ask Watson to do before leaving his room?
Answer:
Holmes asked Watson to put the money in his pockets, light the gas lamp half on, and place some letters and paper on the table. He also asked him to place the ivory box within his reach.

Question 7.
What instructions did Holmes give Watson to get Mr. Smith?
Answer:
Holmes asked Watson to convince Mr. Smith to bring to Holmes, house to cure him.

Question 8.
Why did Holmes want Smith to treat him?
Answer:
Holmes wanted Smith, to treat him because he was the only man with the knowledge of the disease Holmes was suffering from.

Question 9.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes got the illness by touching the sharp spring inside the box.

Question 10.
Who arrested Smith? What were the charges against him?
Answer:
Inspector Morton arrested Smith on charges of murder of Victor Savage.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
How did Holmes show his madness to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
When Dr. Watson offered to examine symptoms and treat him Holmes said he would have a doctor in whom he had confidence. This was really very rude of Holmes and showed his madness.

Question 2.
Why was Smith startled?
Answer:
Smith was startled to know that Holmes was seriously ill. He had sent for him pleading to cure him.

Question 3.
How did Dr. Watson manage to avoid accompanying Smith during his visit to Holmes?
Answer:
Dr. Watson pretended to have some other appointment. Thus he avoided accompanying Mr. Smith during his visit to Holmes.

Question 4.
Who came to visit Holmes when Dr. Watson was waiting for his cab?
Answer:
Mr. Morton Inspector of Scotland Yard in plain clothes had come to visit Holmes.

Question 5.
What was shocking to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
The dying Holmes had the boldness to bolt the door and order him to stay indoors till six p.m.

Question 6.
Who is Victor Savage?
Answer:
Victor Savage is Smith’s nephew. He was murdered by Culverton Smith but was believed to be dead on the fourth day in spite of being a strong and healthy man because of an Eastern disease.

Question 7.
Why didn’t Holmes want Dr. Watson to go before six?
Answer:
Holmes did not want Watson to go and meet Smith before six since he would not be able to find Smith in his study.

Question 8.
Who stopped Dr. Watson at Smith’s house?
Answer:
Dr. Watson was stopped by the butler who appeared at the doorway to Smith’s room.

B. Answer the following questions in about 80 – 100 words.

Question 1.
How did Holmes trap Mr. Culverton Smith to confess the murder?
Answer:
Introduction:
Sherlock Holmes was seriously ill. His housekeeper Mrs. Hudson was worried. The lesson “The Dying Detective” brings out the mystery behind Holme’s illness and how Watson helped to solve the mystery.

Sherlock Holmes on Death Bed:
Sherlock Holmes had been seriously ill for 3 days. His housekeeper wanted to bring in a doctor, but Holmes refused and at last, he asked her to call Dr. Watson.

Dr. Watson arrives:
Dr. Watson arrived and he was shocked to see Holmes lying listless. Holmes did not allow Watson to examine him. Holmes asked Watson to bring a specialist to treat his disease.

Holmes Strange Condition:
When Watson attempted to leave to get the doctor. Holmes asked Watson to sit and leave at 6’0 clock. Watson got bored. He picked up an ivory box. At once, Holmes shouted and asked him to keep the box down and warned him.

Mr. Culverton Smith arrives:
Mr. Culverton Smith arrived and entered the darkroom. Before that Watson had to enter the next room before Smith comes and Holmes asked Watson to leave the gaslight half-on.

The Truth is out:
Mr. Culverton Smith accepted that he only murdered his nephew for the property. He thought that Holmes got the contagious disease by touching the sharp spring inside the box. Now, Holmes asked Watson to turn the gaslight fully. It was a signal for Inspector Morton who was waiting outside. Morton came inside and arrested Smith.

Conclusion:
Holmes explained to Watson that he acted to confess Smith’s crime and asked sorry for behaving rudely to Watson. He didn’t eat food or drink for three days. So he was weak. Thus Watson unknowing helped Holmes to catch smith.

Question 2.
How did Watson help his friend to arrest the criminal?
Answer:
Dr. Watson is called to tend Holmes, who is apparently dying of a rare tropical disease, Tarpaunli fever, contracted while he was on a case at Rotherhithe. Mrs. Hudson says that Holmes has neither eaten nor taken any liquids in the last three days. Holmes forbids Watson to go near him because the illness is highly infectious. In fact, he refutes Watson and insults his abilities. Although Watson wishes to examine Holmes himself or send for a specialist, Holmes demands that Watson wait several hours before seeking help.

While Watson waits, he examines several objects in Holmes’s room. Holmes is angered when Watson touches things on his table stating his dislike for people fidgeting his things. At six o’clock, Holmes asks Watson to turn the gaslight on, but only half-full. He then instructs Watson to bring Mr. Culverton Smith from 13 Lower Burke Street to see Holmes but to make sure that Watson returns to Baker Street before Smith arrives. Watson goes to Smith’s address. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in.

Once Watson explains his duty on behalf of Sherlock Holmes, Smith’s assertiveness changes significantly. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour. Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment, and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. It soon appears, to the hiding Watson’s horror, that Holmes has been sickened by the same illness that killed Smith’s nephew Victor.

In the end, Holmes calls for Watson to come out from behind the screen, to present himself as another witness to the conversation. Holmes explains his illness was feigned as a trick to induce Smith to confess to his nephew’s murder. Starving himself for three days and claiming to be suffering from a deadly infectious disease was to keep Watson from examining him and discovering the ruse, since, as he clarifies, he has every respect for his friend’s medical skills.
‘A detective’s perspective traps the criminal.’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What makes Culverton Smith fall prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him. Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness.

Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.
‘You cannot escape from a detective’s eye.’

Vocabulary

C. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct options given.

1. Niteesh bought a ………………. (knew/new) cricket bat.
2. The shepherd ………………… (herd/heard) the cry of his sheep.
3. Lakshmi completed her baking ……………….. (course/coarse) successfully.
4. Priya has broken her …………….. (four/fore) limbs.
5. Leaders of the world must work towards the ……………… (peace/piece) of the human race.

Answers

1. new
2. heard
3. course
4. fore
5. peace

Use the given examples and make sentences of your own.
Commonly confused words
brought – past participle of bring. E.g. Anitha had brought a book from the library.
Kavitha brought sweets on her birthday.
bought – past participle of buy. E.g. Lalitha had bought a new dress last week.
Avinash bought a new Hero cycle.
affect – to have an effect on. E.g. The pet’s death affected his master.
The fever affected Dhanush’s studies.
effect – anything brought about by a cause or agent; result. E.g. Both El Nino and La Nina are opposite effects of the same phenomenon.
The effect of ozone layer depletion is catastrophic.

D. Complete the tabular column by finding the meaning of both the words given in the boxes. Use them in sentences of your own.

Answer:

Listening Activity:

E. Listen to the story and answer the question given below.

“Something is very wrong,” says the detective.
“I know!” says Ms. Gervis. “It is wrong that someone has stolen from me!”
The detective looks around Ms. Gervis’ apartment. “ at is not what I am talking about, ma’am. What is wrong is that I do not understand how the robber got in and out.”
Ms. Gervis and the detective stand in silence. Ms. Gervis’ eyes are full of tears. Her hands are shaking.
“The robber did not come through the window,” says the detective. “These windows have not been opened or shut in months.”
The detective looks at the fireplace. “The robber did not squeeze down here.”
The detective walks to the front door. He examines the latch. “And since there are no marks or scratches, the robber definitely did not try to break the lock.”
“I have no idea how he did it,” says a bothered Ms. Gervis. “It is a big mystery.”
“And you say the robber stole nothing else?” asks the detective. “No money, no jewelry, no crystal?”
“That’s right, detective. He took only what was important to me,” Ms. Gervis says with a sigh. “There is only one thing I can do now.”
“And what is that?” the detective asks with surprise.
“I will stop baking cakes,” Ms. Gervis says. “They are mine to give away. They are not for someone to steal.”
“You can’t do that!” says the detective with alarm. “Who will bake those delicious cakes?”
“I am sorry. I do not know,” says Ms. Gervis.
“I must solve this case immediately!” says the detective.

1. Where does this story take place?
(a) in a bakery
(b) at the police station
(c) in Ms. Gervis’ house
(d) in Ms. Gervis’ apartment
Answer:
(d) in Ms. Gervis’ apartment

2. Near the beginning of the story, “Ms. Gervis’ eyes are full of tears. Her hands are shaking.” How does Ms. Gervis probably feel?
(a) She is upset
(b) She is tired
(c) She is hungry
(d) She is confused
Answer:
(d) She is confused

3. What makes the detective sure that the robber did not come through the windows?
(a) The windows are locked
(b) The windows face the police station
(c) The windows have not been used in months
(d) The windows are too small for a person to fit through
Answer:
(c) The windows have not been used in months

4. What else was stolen from the apartment?
(a) crystal
(b) jewelry
(c) money
(d) nothing
Answer:
(d) nothing

5. “And the robber definitely did not use the front door.” Which is the best way to rewrite this sentence?
(a) “And the robber may not have used the front door.”
(b) “And the robber probably did not use the front door.”
(c) “And the robber was not able to use the front door.”
(d) “And the robber certainly did not use the front door.”
Answer:
(d) “And the robber certainly did not use the front door.”

6. What does Ms. Gervis do with her cakes?
(a) She eats them
(b) She sells them
(c) She hides them
(d) She gives them away
Answer:
(d) She gives them away

7. What does the detective seem to think will happen if he solves the mystery?
(a) Ms. Gervis will start baking cakes again
(b) Ms. Gervis will bake him extra cakes
(c) Ms. Gervis will give him her secret recipe
(d) Ms. Gervis will give him money and jewels
Answer:
(a) Ms. Gervis will start baking cakes again

8. Do you like mysteries? What is your favorite kind of story? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, I do.
I like detective stories. Lena Tamilvanan and Rajesh Kumar are good detective story writers.
The novels written by them are gripping and sustain the readers interest till the last page.

Speaking Activity

F. Exercise

1. Present the review of a movie that you have watched recently.
Review of Super Deluxe Movie I saw
Thiagarajan Kumararaja’s Super Deluxe opens with a shot of Vaembu (Samantha) lying beside someone on a bed. The camera slowly moves around the room, pulling you in the direction it travels. Soon you realise that it’s not the camera, but the director Thiagarajan Kumararaja who has lured you into his world.

And this world has eccentric characters like Arputham (Mysskin), who believes that he is god’s right hand because he was the only one who survived the Tsunami when millions died. Kumararaja doesn’t stop there. His thoughts are out-of-the-world (literally), outlandish, and outstanding.

There are 4 parallel plots taking place at the same time, involving the lives of Shilpa (Vijay Sethupathi), Leela (Ramya Krishnan), and Arputham (Mysskin), Vaembu (Samantha) and Mugil (Fahadh Faasil), and another one involving four boys. The best part about the writing is that these plotlines don’t merge at one point.

One sub-plot becomes an influencing factor in another, but after that, they part ways. The way the events unfold is interesting and makes the movie more engrossing. The trademark qualities NalanKumarasamy and Mysskin’s writing is seen at a lot of places. A lot of humourous portions belong to Nalan’s ‘crazy’ world. Who else can write a scene where a man dies while having sex? On the other hand, towards the end, there a sequence involving Mysskin, set in a subway, with green lighting.

What more do we need to figure out that this has been written by Mysskin himself?
PS Vinod and Nirav Shah’s visuals have an ever-lasting effect on us. The wise usage of ffame- within-frame shots through doors, windows, and alleys creates a sense of being trapped, and this has been used for all major characters. The wise usage of vintage tracks of Ilayaraja falls on point.

Yuvan Shankar Raja makes sure we feel the heat and soul of the scenes through his brilliant background scores and apt silences. The walls on all the houses and a police station, “the make-shift flower pot on one of the apartments, the borders of sarees, the costumes of the characters, are all blue in colour. While this is supposed to create a stable feel, the characters are all unstable. This irony has been effectively used to elevate our cinematic experience. Vaembu and Mugil’s story becomes melodramatic after a point of time.

And the biggest issue with the film is that they have the maximum screentime. Even the way their conflict gets resolved looks implausible. But, the way the terrific FahadhFaasil and Samantha act, these issues are covered up. Shilpa’s characterization brings out the best in Vijay Sethupathi, but not Vijay Sethupathi. Apart from the main leads, BhagavathiPerumal and Master Aswanth, have done their job well and scored in their plot points. On the flip side, the second half could have been a bit more crisp, due to the three hours runtime.

2. Give the review of a book that has interested you a lot.
’ Review of the most interesting book I read The Noodle Maker by Ma Jian The pace of change in China over the last fifteen years has been extraordinarily fast; the pace at which its literature reaches us in translation shamefully slow. Chinese dissident writer Ma Jian is already known in the English-speaking world for his award-winning travel memoir of rural China in the 1980s, Red Dust. Since the Chinese takeover of Hong Kong in 1997, he has been living with his partner and translator in London.

The Noodle Maker, the first of Jian’s novels to appear in English, is set soon after the events of Tiananmen Square in 1989, already ancient history to today’s young entrepreneurs, artists, and university students. Reading The Noodle Maker now has some of the blurred effects of a time-lapsed photograph- -it is a hard-hitting satire of a cultural moment that has already come and gone. Only a reviewer intimate with today’s China could judge to what extent its critique is still sharp. Perhaps this question of timeliness should be irrelevant.

The Noodle Maker is fiction, after all, constructed with a good deal of artfulness on the frame of a drunken evening shared between a professional writer and his best friend, a professional blood donor. The professional blood donor considers himself a practical man; he boasts of the excellent pay and perks he receives as rewards for being bled for the benefit of the nation.

Each Sunday he brings good food and drinks to the writer, who is, of course, a poverty-stricken idealist. Their discussion is interwoven with the stories the professional writer is crafting based on people he has known: an actress who stages her own suicide; her boyfriend, a painter with a talking three-legged dog

(the novel’s most reliable narrator); a literary editor humiliated by the success of his wife, an acclaimed novelist; a father trying to abandon his retarded daughter; an entrepreneur whose success with a musically-enhanced crematorium gives him the confidence to bum his own mother alive. Each of these characters is manipulated not only by the noodle-making hands of the professional writer, but by a ruthless society, which with its new “Open Door Policy” has imported some superficial commercial elements of Westemness, yet still maintains a stranglehold on personal freedom.

(“Imported” products as symbols of moral weakness, hypocrisy, and corruption are a satiric mantra throughout the book.) Fans of the absurdity and dark humour of Milan Kundera’s portraits of life behind the Iron Curtain will appreciate these same elements in Ma Jian’s work-though Kundera is a good deal lighter on his feet and the clever and humorous aspects of The Noodle Makerstruck this reviewer as heavy-handed.

As fiction that comments on social and political reality, The Noodle Maker is far less emotionally engaging than Yu Hua’s Chronicle of a Blood Merchant, which tells the life of another professional blood donor, and is a character-driven social realist novel in the old nineteenth-century Dickensian mode, though written in a crisp contemporary style.

It tells us about China, but something convincing about people, too. For all its postmodern strands, the heart of The Noodle Maker (like all satire?) is in a kind of journalism, so that ultimately its success depends on whether or not it still tells a timely truth.

3. Review an event which your school has hosted recently.
A school is a place where we get to know about different activities for the first time. Participating in these activities is always memorable and exciting. My favorite school event is the “Mental Maths Competition”. This event is held once a year. One student is selected from each section of a class. Then they are teamed up with other students to form three teams.

This competition is basically to enhance mental skills. Students have to answer these questions in a time span of seconds. Questions are not repeated at all and students have to be very quick in understanding the questions, in calculations, and then answering it. Last year I was also selected as one of the finalists. Our team A and team C reached the final rounds. The winning round lasted for thirty questions as both teams were not ready to give up. In the end, team C couldn’t answer a question and we answered it to win the event.

We were highly appreciated and were given certificates and shields. Winning is always exciting and encouraging. I would always like to participate in this event again because this event helps me in enhancing my mental skills and to speed up my mental calculations.

Reading:

Read the story carefully and answer the questions asked below

A Mystery Case:
For a man of ease, John Mathew kept an arduous schedule. On Wednesdays, for example, he was awakened at 9.00 and served breakfast in bed by Emanuel, his chef. Next came a quick fitness session with Basky, his personal trainer. Then, at 10.30, John Mathew answered his mail, returned phone calls and rearranged his social calendar helped by Louise, his secretary.

At noon, John Mathew drove his Jaguar to the station and took a commuter train into Guindy for his weekly lunch with Lalli and Lolly, his two oldest and dearest friends. Then, on to a little shopping. The 4:05 nonstop would bring him back to Tambaram. As John Mathew drove up to the house at 5:00, Basky would have already set up the massage table and warmed the scented oils for a soothing herbal wrap. It was a grueling life but John seemed to thrive on it. On this Wednesday, however, there was an unexpected change of plans.

Today John’s shopping errand involved taking his diamond bracelet into the jeweller’s for cleaning. He threw the expensive jewel into his purse and proceeded on to lunch. As John waved his friend’s good-bye and exited the restaurant, he sensed he was being followed. The feeling continued until he reached Tenth Avenue. Then, as he joined the throng of shoppers, John felt a hug. Within a split-second, a man riding a pillion on a bike rode past him, grabbing his purse. He couldn’t guess who the culprit was?

G. Match the following.

1. A man of ease – Emanuel
2. John’s trainer – Lalli and Lolly
3. Mathew’s secretary – John Mathew
4. John’s chef – Louise
5. Mathews friends – Basky
Answer:

H. State whether the given statements are true or false. If false correct the statements.

Answer:
1. Mathew is a very busy man
[true]

2. He woke up very late in the morning
[True]

3. He always had lunch with his family
[False] He always had lunch with Lalli and Lolly, his two oldest and dearest friends.

4. He exercised with Louise every day.
[True]

5. He preferred handling mail by himself
[True]

Writing

Pamphlet

I. Create a pamphlet for the following:

1. Make a pamphlet on ‘Dengue Awareness’ (Focus on its causes, preventions, symptoms, and precautions).

2. Make an attractive pamphlet for your school’s Fair organised for raising funds for (any) relief (Specify the date, time, types of stalls, and the reasons for the fair).

3. Make a pamphlet on the latest gadgets (Mention the variety of models, uses, need and availability).

J. Write a letter of enquiry for the following

1. You’re a librarian in a newly established school. Write a letter to the book dealer inquiring about the list of newly arrived English children’s storybooks and various subject books relevant to 10 – 14 age groups.
From
S. Sangeetha
Librarian
ABC School
XXXX
23.04.2019

To
Sales Manager
Higginbothams Books dealers
Mount Road
Chennai 2
Sir,
Sub: Enquiry about children’s story book-Reg.
I would like to know about the new arrivals in English children’s storybooks and subject books appropriate to the children in the age group of 10-14. Kindly send the list/catalogue with the price and the details of the discount offered to schools.
Thank you
Yours sincerely
S. Sangeetha
Sales Manager
Higginbothams Books dealers
Mount Road
Chennai 2

2. Venkat hails from a remote village of Kancheepuram District, Tamil Nadu who aspires to become an IAS officer. Currently, he is in class X. He notices an advertisement on free classes for the IAS aspirants by a trust in a newspaper. He writes a letter to the coordinator of the trust inquiring for further details.
From
R Venkat
14, Velakkadi Koil St
Kancheepuram 2
[email protected]
13.08.2018

To
The Liasion Officer
Manitha Neyam Trust
CITNagar
Chennai 17
Sir,
Sub: Enquiry about IAS orientation programme – Reg.
I saw your advertisement in The Hindu Tamil newspaper dated 12th August, about a free seminar, in Pallavaram Govt. Hr. Sec. School.
I am doing my Std. X, I cherish the dream of becoming an IAS officer. I heard the entry is free for graduates. Will you please allow me also to attend the seminar? I wish to listen to achievers and subject experts. Kindly communicate your consent through my email venkat2002@gmail. com.
Thank you
Yours sincerely
P. Venkat

To
The Liasion Officer
Manitha Neyam Trust
CIT Nagar
Chennai 17

3. Write a letter to the head of the BSNL office enquiring regarding the internet broadband scheme launched recently.
From
K.Joseph
18, Akilan St
Kalpakkam
jose2000@gmail. com
20.03.2019

To
Manager
BSNL Office
head Office
Chengalpattu
Kancheepuram 10
Sir,
Sub: Enquiry about internet broadband scheme launched recently – Reg.
I heard that you have recently launched an attractive scheme for students to promote the use of high-speed Broadband connectivity. I would like to know the details of the cost involved, bandwidth, usage limit (i.e.) GB per day, details about speed, type of modem, and warranty details. As a representative of my school, I would like to share this with my school also for the upcoming ICT lab in the school. Kindly mention the scheme for Institute and individuals separately.
Thank you
Yours sincerely
K. Joseph

To
Manager
BSNL Office
Head Office
Chengalpattu
Kancheepuram 10

Grammar

A. Transform the following sentences as instructed.

1. On seeing the teacher, the children stood up. (into Complex)
As soon as the children saw the teacher, they stood up.

2. At the age of six, Varsha started learning music, (into Complex)
When Varsha was six, she started learning music.

3. As Vanin is a voracious reader, he buys a lot of books, (into Simple)
Being a voracious reader, Varun buys a lot of books.

4. Walk carefully lest you will fall down, (into Complex)
If you don’t walk carefully, you will fall down.

5. Besides being a dancer, she is a singer, (into Compound)
She is not only a dancer but also a singer.

6. He is sick but he attends the rehearsal, (into Simple)
In spite of being sick, he attends the rehearsal.

7. If Meena reads more, she will become proficient in the language, (into Compound) Meena should read more or she will not become proficient in English.

8. He confessed that he was guilty, (into Simple)
He confessed his guilt.

9. The boy could not attend the special classes due to his mother’s illness, (into Compound)
The boy’s mother was ill and so he did not attend the special classes.

10. He followed my suggestion, (into Complex)
He followed what I suggested.

B. Combine the pairs of sentences below into simple, complex, and compound

1. Radha was ill. She was not hospitalised
In spite of being ill, Radha was not hospitalised, (simple)
Radha was ill but she was not hospitalised, (compound)
Though Radha was ill, she was not hospitalised, (complex)

2. The students were intelligent. They could answer the questions correctly
Being intelligent, the students were able to answer the questions correctly, (simple)
The students were intelligent and so they were able to answer the questions correctly, (compound)
As the students were intelligent, they were able to answer the questions correctly, (complex)

3. I must get a visa. I can travel abroad
I must get a visa to travel abroad, (simple) .
I must get a visa or else I can’t travel abroad, (compound)
If I don’t get a visa, I can’t travel abroad, (complex)

4. I saw a tiger it was wounded
I saw a wounded tiger, (simple)
I saw a tiger and it was wounded, (compound)
I saw a tiger which was wounded, (complex)

5. There was a bandh. The shops remained closed
The shops were closed due to Bandh. (simple)
There was a bandh and so the shops were closed, (compound)
As there was a bandh, the shops were closed, (complex)

The Dying Detective by About the Author:

Sir Arthur Ignatius Conan Doyle (1859-1930) was a British writer popularly known the world over for his detective stories involving Sherlock Holmes stories, which are generally considered milestones in the field of fiction. Doyle wrote forty-six short stories featuring the famous detective. His notable works included “Stories of Sherlock Holmes and the Lost World”.

The Dying Detective summary:

Introduction:
The author has given an interesting accord of how the detective outsmarted the culprit to zero in on him.

Home’s incurable disease Dr. Watson was informed by Mrs. Hudson, the landlady of Sherlock Holmes that Mr. Holmes was dying. He was bedridden for three days. He had neither taken food nor drinks. He was sinking. The landlady was permitted to inform only Dr. Watson about his ill health. She could not call for a doctor because Sherlock Holmes had prevented her from doing so. When Dr. Watson reached Holmes, he cautioned him to stay away from him as he was suffering from some contagious disease that he had picked up from Rotherhithe. The disease from Sumatra was deadly and could spread even with a touch.

Home’s peculiar behaviour
Watson advanced to examine symptoms but was stopped midway by the stem warning from Holmes. Sherlock Holmes declared that he wanted a doctor in whom he would have confidence. This really upset Dr. Watson. He offered to bring the best doctors of London viz. Sir Jasper Meek or Penrose Fisher.

Holmes reprimanded Dr. Watson’s ignorance and asked him what he knew about Tarpaunli fever or black Formosa plague. When Dr. Watson offered to bring Dr. Ainstree, Holmes bolted the door and ordered him not to move till six in the evening. Dr. Watson did not know what to do for two hours. He just walked around the room slowly. He came across a small black and white ivory box with a sliding lid.

When he was about to examine its contents, he heard a dreadful cry from Holmes. He forbade him from touching his things. In a kind of delirium, Holmes ordered to take out his coins and keep all the half-crowns in his watch pocket. He was instructed to light the gas lamp and keep it half on. He requested him to place some letters on the table within his reach.

He instructed him to slide the lid of the ivory box with Tongs and put the Tongs and the ivory box on the table. He instructed Dr. Watson to bring Mr. Culverton Smith from 13, Lower Burke Street, as Holmes was serious. Dr. Watson was hesitant to go.

Holmes clarified that he was not a doctor but a plantation man with a deep knowledge of the disease. Holmes asked Watson to plead with him to come and save Holmes who was seriously ill. Dr. Watson offered to bring him in a cab. However, Holmes instructed that he should plead with him and reach Holmes before him.

Holmes’ plan
While waiting for the cab, Mr. Morton, in civil dress asked after Holmes. Dr. Watson entered Mr. Culverton Smith’s room by force. On hearing Mr. Holmes’s name, he enquired how Holmes was doing. When he learned that he was very ill and believed that only he could save his life, he enquired how Holmes got the eastern disease. Dr. Watson told him all he knew. Dr. Watson, on the pretext of an appointment, returned to Holmes earlier and stayed in a room there as per Holmes’s order.

Smith’s careless attitude
Smith arrived and called out for Holmes. Holmes responded to his questions in a feeble voice. He asked Holmes to describe the symptoms. When Holmes completed describing the symptoms Smith was strangely happy. He blurted out, “Poor victor Savage was a dead man on the fourth day. A strong and healthy young man. What a coincidence indeed!” Holmes said, “I know that you did it”. Holmes groaned and asked for water. Smith gladly gave him water. He requested Smith to cure him and offered to forget his hand in the murder of Victor.

Smith said that Watson shared the information that Holmes got the fever from Chinese sailors. He wanted to know seriously if there could be any other reason.

Holmes outsmarts Smith
Holmes said, ‘successful acting’. Just then Inspector Morton said to Smith that he was arrested on a charge of murder. There was a scuffle. Inspector Morton overpowered Smith and handcuffed him. Holmes apologized to Dr. Watson for being rude to him and undermining his capability as a doctor. All the acting was done just to bring Smith there. Even the coin trick was to make Watson believe that Holmes was really delirious. Holmes asked Dr.Watson to take him to eating something nutritious at Simpson’s.

Conclusion
The author has made us understand a criminal cannot get away for long. The criminal may also be caught by his own words.

The Dying Detective Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. He has been sinking.
(a) rising
(b) deteriorating
(c) improving
(d) dreaming
Answer:
(b) deteriorating

2. The sick room was a gloomy spot.
(a) spotless
(b) illuminated
(c) dim
(d) bright
Answer:
(c) dim

3. The gaunt face was staring at the ceiling
(a) stout
(b) strong
(c) thick
(d) lean
Answer:
(d) lean

4. The dying man bolted the door.
(a) closed
(b) opened
(c) broke
(d) slithered
Answer:
(a) closed

5. It was a contagious disease.
(a) impregnable
(b) crisp
(c) cussed
(d) infectious
Answer:
(d) infectious

6 His hand twitched.
(a) trembled
(b) got crushed
(c) shivered
(d) jerked
Answer:
(d) jerked

7. How ignorant you are!
(a) knowledgeable
(b) uninformed
(c) well informed
(d) wise
Answer:
(b) uninformed

8. I heard a dreadful cry.
(a) loud
(b) mild
(c) frightening
(d) sweet
Answer:
(c) frightening

9. I sat in silent dejection.
(a) optimism
(b) depression
(c) hope
(d) delight
Answer:
(b) depression

10. You will persuade him to come.
(a) deny
(b) urge
(c) order
(d) request
Answer:
(b) urge

11. He was delirious.
(a) relaxed
(b) calm
(c) composed
(d) incoherent
Answer:
(d) incoherent

12. He was frail.
(a) plump
(b) weak
(c) strong and tall
(d) well-built
Answer:
(b) weak

13. The little man was startled.
(a) reassured
(b) alarmed
(c) annoyed
(d) agreed
Answer:
(b) alarmed

14. I left him pretending that I had an appointment.
(a) feigning
(b) imagining
(c) lending
(d) receiving
Answer:
(a) feigning

15. Go and fetch Smith.
(a) see off
(b) summon
(C) bring
(d) send
Answer:
(C) bring

16. “My mind is gone. help me”, pleaded Holmes.
(a) ordered
(b) begged
(c) urged
(d) commanded
Answer:
(b) begged

17. “I arrest you on charge of murder’ he said.
(a) fees
(b) rate
(c) indictment
(d) appreciation
Answer:
(c) indictment

18. What a coincidence indeed.
(a) actually
(b) in pursuit
(c) in charge
(d) in spate
Answer:
(a) actually

19. You can only cure me.
(a) inflict pain
(b) alleviate pain
(c) heal
(d) curse
Answer:
(c) heal

20. Holmes groaned.
(a) whispered
(b) whined
(c) sang in joy
(d) grounded
Answer:
(b) whined

Antonyms

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. He has been sinking.
(a) drowning
(b) floating
(c) running
(d) sleeping
Answer:
(b) floating

2. I don’t dare disobey him.
(a) rebel
(b) defy
(c) challenge
(d) obey
Answer:
(d) obey

3. He brought this illness back with him.
(a) sickness
(b) ailment
(c) disease
(d) health
Answer:
(d) health

4. It is deadly and contagious.
(a) safe
(b) unsafe
(c) dangerous
(d) lethal
Answer:
(a) safe

5. I said advancing towards him.
(a) going forward
(b) retreating
(c) regurgitating
(d) belching
Answer:
(b) retreating

6. How ignorant you are!
(a) tacking in know ledge
(b) well- informed
(c) uninformed
(d) unaware
Answer:
(b) well- informed

7. You will persuade him to come.
(a) dissuade
(b) urge
(c) distract
(d) disembark
Answer:
(a) dissuade

8. He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) strong
(d) thin
Answer:
(c) strong

9. The man was startled.
(a) reassured
(b) amused
(c) alarmed
(d) annoyed
Answer:
(a) reassured

10. You will tell him exactly how you have left one.
(a) accurately
(b) carefully
(c) adequately
(d) superficially
Answer:
(d) superficially

11. You disappear to the next room.
(a) vanish
(b) distress
(c) distinct
(d) appear
Answer:
(d) appear

12. He pleaded to cure him.
(a) requested
(b) beseeched
(c) ordered
(d) begged
Answer:
(c) ordered

13. It was successful acting.
(a) victorious
(b) unsuccessful
(c) joyful
(d) triumphant
Answer:
(b) unsuccessful

14. James at last talked in his natural voice.
(a) innate
(b) native
(c) nature
(d) unnatural
Answer:
(d) unnatural

15. There was silence.
(a) solemnity
(b) noise
(c) contempt
(d) concept
Answer:
(b) noise

You can Download Zigzag Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 2 Zigzag

Zigzag Textual Questions

A. Identify the speaker/character.

1. ‘Even though I clearly said no!’
Answer:
Dr. Krishnan

2. ‘The one that spits deadly poison straight into its opponent’s eyes’
Answer:
Maya

3. ‘Remember the. tiny penknife the gave me last year’.
Answer:
Maya

4. ‘It’s Somu’s thoughtless ways that reduce me to tears’.
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan

5. ‘Gome in, Zigzag, come in dear!’
Answer:
Visu, the old cook

Additional Questions

Question 1.
‘Find Visu! I will not keep Zigzag here another minute!’
Answer:
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan

Question 2.
‘Don’t you dare sleep!’
Answer:
Dr. Krishnan

Question 3.
‘May I take Zigzag to school, Papa?’
Answer:
Arvind

Question 4.
We’ve been truly blessed!
Answer:
Lakshmi

Question 5.
Just wait till Zigzag settles down in this new home.
Answer:
Visu

Question 6.
‘And what about the aboriginal boomerang?
Answer:
Arvind

Question 7.
Then you can have a great time listening to him.
Answer:
Visu

Question 8.
It’s raining papayas and bananas in this room!’
Answer:
Lakshmi

Question 9.
‘But Zigzag is different. Somu says we are sure to love Zigzag.’
Answer:
Dr. Krishnan

Question 10.
Most of these so-called “favourite” possessions that he has given us were absolute nuisances!’
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan

Question 11.
‘Remember the rare insect-eating plant he brought back from the rainforest!
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan

Question 12.
I thought it was a scientific fact that birds couldn’t snore.’
Answer:
Maya

Question 13.
That wretched plant requires a room heater to keep it alive.
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan

Question 14.
‘Ma! Uncle Somu’s given us some really fabulous gifts.’
Answer:
Arvind

B. Read the story again and write how these characters reacted in these situations:

1. You’re both quite mistaken.
Answer:
Dr. Krishnan hastened to explain.
Mrs. Krishnan was horrified on hearing about Zigzag.

2. It’s Somu’s thoughtless ways that reduce me to tears.
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan spoke irritably.
Dr. Krishnan was in a hurry to his clinic.

3. Just wait till zigzag settles down in this new home.
Answer:
Visu comforted everyone.
Arvind and Maya excited to listen to the bird’s talk.

4. Zigzag hardly never sleeps.
Answer:
Somu sent an email to Dr. Krishnan about zigzag.
Dr. Krishnan’s prediction was ridiculously simple.

5. You are an absolute treasure……….
Answer:
Dr.Krishnan sighed and spoke to Zigzag
Zigzag didn’t bother to reply.

C. Complete the given tabular column.

Answers:

1. liking the new nuisance.
2. painting exhibition to be held the next week.
3. dropped one wizened eyelid in another solemn wink as he sank his beak into plump guava.
4. it rained papayas and bananas.
5. ask him to find out what they should do.
6. predicted the reply to be ridiculously simple.
7. I have never heard a Zigzag snore.
8. not accustomed to being kept waiting and was already making his way to the clinic where he perched himself on the nurse’s reception table.
9. realised what an absolute treasure he was!

D. Answer the following question in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why did Dr. Asholds cousin call him?
Answer:
Dr. Ashok’s cousin called him to shelter zigzag, his pet bird when he left for Alaska.

Question 2.
Mention at least two expressions which show that Mrs. Krishnan was not willing to have Zigzag at home?
Answer:
The following two expressions show that Mrs. Krishnan was not willing to have Zigzag at home.
(i) “I am going crazy with the sound of Zigzag snoring, plus all these angry telephone calls.”
(ii) “And my beautiful painting…”

Question 3.
What other various pets did Somu have?
Answer:
Somu had a giant green and gold fighting beetle and an African snake.

Question 4.
What was Mrs. Krishnan busy with?
Answer:
Mrs. Krishnan was busy with her paintings to be displayed for sale the following week.

Question 5.
What commotion did the boomerang cause in the neighborhood?
Answer:
Boomerang sliced through all the TV aerials in the neighbourhood. It caused permanent damage to several cars in the parking lot. It also knocked out their watchman cold with the force thrown by Aravind.

Question 6.
What happened when Somu left Zigzag with the Krishnan’s?
Answer:
Zigzag transferred all the walnuts and the fruits to the Chandelier and on the blades of the ceiling fan. Then it perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep.

Question 7.
How did Zigzag communicate with the Krishnan’s?
Answer:
Zigzag did not communicate with the Krishnas although everyone tried several times in different languages to speak to him, he only slept and snored.

Question 8.
What was the e-mail message sent to Somu by Dr.Krishnan?
Answer:
Krishnan sent an e-mail to Somu, asking for instructions on how to stop Zigzag from snoring.

Question 9.
What did Aravind confess?
Answer:
Aravind confessed that for the first time in his life he was actually looking forward to go to school. The school Was as calm as a monastery compared to the house.

Question 10.
Why did Mrs. Jhunjhunwalla buy the painting?
Answer:
Mrs. Jhunjhunwalla bought the painting because she liked the new technique of painting.

E. Answer the following questions in about 100 -150 words:

Question 1.
Write in your own words the various commotions caused by Zigzag at Dr. Krishnan’s residence.
Answer:
Introduction:
This story is about a weird bird named zigzag. It was Dr. Somu’s pet bird. He left it with Dr. Krishnan when he went for Alaska. Now, we are going to see about the commotions caused by zigzag in Dr. Krishnan’s house.

Introduction of Zigzag:
Dr. Somu went for Alaska. He left his pet bird zigzag to Krishnan. Dr. Somu’s cook Visu brought the bird. He told that zigzag can speak 21 languages. It was a multi-lingual bird. But, he didn’t speak any word.

Commotions caused by zigzag:
Aravind brought some fruits and nuts. Zigzag did not eat them but transferred them on the fan blades. Then he perched on the curtain rod and slept. At once he started to snore. He snored loudly. When the fan was switched on, the fruits spoiled Mrs. Krishnan’s painting.

Zigzag’s talent:
Dr. Krishnan took it to the clinic. Suddenly, a zigzag flew on the nurse table. Surprisingly, zigzag ordered the naughty kids to be silent. Zigzag recited French poetry and kindly comforted the crying children.

Conclusion:
Thus, Dr. Krishnan was surprised and wanted to keep zigzag with them. Mrs. Krishnan’s painting was also sold for Rs. 5000. Thus, zigzag was an absolute treasure for them.

Question 2.
What was the turn of events when Zigzag was taken to the clinic?
Answer:
When Zigzag was taken into the clinic, he was asked to wait in the car by Dr. Krishnan. He warned him not to sleep and snore. But Zigzag was not accustomed to being kept waiting. So he made his way to the reception and perched himself on the nurse’s reception table.

Krishnan had hardly walked through the swinging half-door that separated his clinic from the waiting room when he heard a voice. The voice was from Zigzag. It was clear and commanding. There was pin-drop silence in the room as everyone waited, open-mouthed, for Zigzag s next sentence. Dr. Krishnan was amazed. Zigzags bored and grumpy expressions were gone. Instead, the bird ‘ looked happy and alert as it went about the job.

It had been trained for this job with the doctors. Thus Dr. Krishnan’s clinic, which was usually a noisy sea of tears and outbursts, was transformed into a calm, orderly place. He efficiently soothed the patients and naughty ones.

Question 3.
Narrate the story Zigzag in your own words.
Answer:
Title: Zigzag
Author: Asha Nehemiah
Characters: Zigzag, the Krishnan’s and family, Dr. Somu, Visu, the old cook.
Theme: “What is coming is better than what is gone”

This story is about Zigzag, a multilingual bird. Dr. Krishnan’s clinic usually sounded noisy as there was shouting and crying of children. His friend Dr. Somu asked him to shelter his pet zigzag because he left for Alaska.

When zigzag was brought to his house, he did not speak to anyone. He could talk and sing in 21 languages. But he transferred the fruits and nuts given to him to a chandelier and the plates of a ceiling fan. Then he perched on a curtain rod and went off to sleep. When the maid switched on the fan, the fruits and nuts fell down.

The papaya slices splattered on the painting of Mrs. Krishnan and spoilt it. Mrs. Krishnan got irritated and told Dr. Krishnan to send the bird to Visu’s house. Dr. Krishnan took Zigzag to his clinic. He commanded the patients and changed the clinic a calm and orderly place. The bird spoilt the painting but it was considered a new technique. Mrs. Krishnan was happy to sell it for Rs. 5000. Mrs. Krishnan wanted to keep Zigzag with them for one more week.

Additional:

Question 1.
Describe the entry of ZigZag and his behaviour thereafter as soon as he entered the residence of Krishnan.
Answer:
Into Krishnan’s residence tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird, ZigZag. He was brought in by Somu’s cook, Visu. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest and sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the qolour of cola held to sunlight.

Visu introduced ZigZag as Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga añd that he talks very beautifully. He even added that he could recite French Poetry! In spite of all the praise showered on him, he stood cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in bis cola-colored eyes.

Arvind tried his best to make ZigZag speak. He dashed into the kitchen and brought a plate with juicy fruit slices and some nuts. Bored eyes brightened as Zigzag picked up a walnut. It refused to speak., dropped one wrinkled eyelid in a solemn wink, and flew clumsily to deposit the nut on the enormous chandelier hanging from the ceiling. Silently and slowly, all the fruit on the plate was transferred to the chandelier and the blades of the ceiling fan. As soon as the cook Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep.
“Zigzag is Queer and Weird.”

Additional Questions

A. Rearrange the following sentences in a coherent order.

1. a. Their nine-year-old daughter Maya was excited about Zigzag’s arrival.
b. Mrs.Ashok was busy getting ready for the painting exhibition.
c. Zigzag is an unusual bird that speaks in 21 different languages.
d. Due to the commotion Somu mistook Ashok’s commitment to keeping zigzag.
e. Dr. Ashok’s clinic usually sounded like an ancient Chinese torture chamber.
Answers:
e, d, b, a, c
e. Dr. Ashok’s clinic usually sounded like an ancient Chinese torture chamber.
d. Due to the commotion Somu mistook Ashok’s commitment to keeping zigzag.
b. Mrs. Ashok was busy getting ready for the painting exhibition.
a. Their nine-year-old daughter Maya was excited about Zigzag’s arrival.
c. Zigzag is an unusual bird that speaks in 21 different languages.

2. a. Apparently, Zigzag was bred by a genuine African witch doctor.
b. But most of his possessions were absolute nuisances!
c. Isn’t that Uncle Somu’s prized giant green-and-gold fighting beetle?
d. Somu says the bird is an absolute treasure and real help.
e. Somu had cured the witch doctor’s son last month.
Answers:
c, a, e, d, b
c. Isn’t that Uncle Somu’s prized giant green-and -gold fighting beetle?
a. Apparently, Zigzag was bred by a genuine African witch doctor,
e. Somu had cured the witch doctor’s son last month.
d. Somu says the bird is an absolute treasure and real help.
b. But most of his possessions were absolute nuisances!

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases given below to form a complete meaningful paragraph.

1. (crying so loudly / for your exhibition next week / who were his patients / to ask whether /more like an)

Dr. Ashok T. Krishnan’s clinic usually sounded (i) ……………….. ancient Chinese torture chamber than a child specialist’s clinic. This was because the tiny children (ii) ……………….. left out a variety of blood-curdling yells and ear-splitting sobs. ‘It’s all because my patients were making so much noise and (iii) ……………. He rang me in the clinic (iv) …………… we could keep zigzag with us when he leaves for Alaska. I know you are busy getting your painting ready (v) ……………….
Answers:
(i) more like an
(ii) who were his patients
(iii) crying so loudly
(iv) to ask whether
(v) for your exhibition next week

2. (went off to sleep / fell asleep,/ when Zigzag stubbornly refused / Even though they tried/perched comfortably)

Zigzag (i) …………………. on a curtain rod and dropped one wizened eyelid in another solemn wink. Visu comforted the children, noticing how disappointed they looked (ii) ……………….. to say a single word to them, (iii) …………………. speaking to him in English, Hindi, Tamil, and French, Zigzag spoke no word. As soon as Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, (iv) …………… And the moment he (v) ………………….., he began to SNORE!
Answers:
(i) perched comfortably
(ii) when Zigzag stubbornly refused
(iii) Even though they tried
(iv) went off to sleep
(v) fell asleep

C. Choose the correct answer.

1. Somu was leaving for ……………………
(a) Alaska
(b) Antarctica
(c) Africa
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(a) Alaska

2. Maya mistook Zigzag to be ………………….
(a) snake
(b) beetle
(c) cat
(d) insect
Answer:
(b) beetle

3. Zigzag was bred by a genuine African ……………………………
(a) Witchdoctor
(b) witch
(c) tribe
(d) Witch surgeon
Answer:
(d) Witch surgeon

4. Mrs. Krishnan applied a dab of yellow-ochre paint on Sunset at ………………………….
(a) Bengal
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Besant
(d) Marina
Answer:
(d) Marina

5. The rare insect-eating plant came from Amazonian ……………………………..
(a) Rainforest
(b) Black forest
(c) White forest
(d) Jungle
Answer:
(a) Rainforest

6. That wretched plant required a ………………. to keep it alive in Chennai!
(a) water heater
(b) room heater
(c) air cooler
(d) hair conditioner
Answer:
(b) room heater

7. The aboriginal boomerang was a gift from ………………………
(a) Africa
(b) Amazon
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(c) Australia

8. Zigzag could speak in ……………………. different languages.
(a) twenty-four
(b) twelve
(c) seven
(d) twenty-one
Answer:
(d) twenty-one

9. When Zigzag sings, it moves the listeners to ……………………..
(a) tears
(b) laughter
(c) sighs
(d) boredom
Answer:
(a) tears

10. Arvind wants to display Zigzag in the ………………………… exhibition.
(a) Tradefair
(b) Children’s
(c) Science
(d) Arts
Answer:
(c) Science

D. Match the following appropriately:

1.
Answer:
2.
Answer:

3.
Answer:

E. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Dr. Ashok T. Krishnan’s clinic usually sounded more like an ancient Chinese torture chamber than a child specialist’s clinic. This was because the tiny children who were his patients left out a variety of blood -curdling yells and ear-splitting sobs. ‘It’s all because my patients were making so much noise and crying so loudly, ‘ he apologized to his wife one evening, ‘that Somu couldn’t hear me properly. He rang me in the clinic to ask whether we could keep zigzag with us when he leaves for Alaska. And now Somu thinks I said “yes”, even though I clearly said “no”! I know you are busy getting your painting ready for your exhibition next week. ’

(a) What was Dr.Ashok T.Krishnan’s specialisation in the medical field?
Answer:
Dr. Ashok T. Krishnan specialised in children’s health and so he was a Paediatrician or a child specialist.

(b) How did Dr. Krishnan’s clinic generally sound?
Answer:
Dr.Krishnan’s clinic generally sounded like an ancient Chinese torture chamber.

(c) Why couldn’t Somu hear the telephonic conversation with Ashok clearly?
Answer:
Somu couldn’t hear Ashok clearly over the telephone because the children in the clinic were making so much noise and crying loudly.

(d) Where was Somu going to?
Answer:
Somu was going on an official trip to Alaska.

(e) What did Ashok say was the reason to deny Somu’s request?
Answer:
Ashok said that he denied Somu’s request since he knew about his wife’s painting exhibition next week.

2. ‘Zigzag! ’ interrupted their nine-year-old daughter Maya.
Isn’t that Uncle Somu’s prized giant green-and -gold fighting beetle. The one that spits deadly poison straight into its opponent’s eye?’
‘No, no,’ corrected her older brother Arvind, eyes shining in pure delight. ‘The beetle is called Spitfire. Zigzag must be Uncle Somu’s pet snake. The African sidewinder! You know, the one that slithers zigzag all over his house!’
‘You’re both quite mistaken,’ their father hastened to explain, seeing his wife’s horrified expression. ‘Zigzag is a mostly harmless, unusual, and lovable bird. Apparently, it was bred by a genuine African witch doctor, who gifted it to Somu when he being a child specialist like me cured the witch doctor’s son while he was touring the deepest jungles of equatorial Africa last month. Somu says the bird is an absolute treasure and real help. It’s his favourite pet, you know’.

(а) Who is Maya?
Answer:
Maya is Dr. Krishnan’s nine-year-old daughter.

(b) What did Maya mistake Zigzag to be?
Answer:
Maya mistook Zigzag to be Uncle Somu’s prized giant and gold fighting beetle, Spitfire.

(c) According to Maya’s brother, who was Zigzag? Why?
Answer:
According to Maya’s brother Arvind, Zigzag was Uncle Somu’s pet snake, the African sidewinder that slithers zigzag all over his house.

(d) Why did Ashok hasten to explain to his children the mistaken identity?
Answer:
Ashok observed his wife’s a horrified expression and hastened to explain to his children.

(e) Who was Zigzag according to Ashok?
Answer:
Zigzag was a harmless, unusual, and lovable bird bred by a genuine African doctor who gifted it to Somu as a gift for treating his son while touring the jungles of equatorial Africa.

F. Study the given mind map and fill in the incomplete details:

Answers:
(i) picked up a walnut.
(ii) all the fruit on the plate was transferred to the chandelier.
[iii) comfortably on a curtain rod.
(iv) great time listening to him.
(v) went off to sleep and began to

Answers:
(i) but he was saved by the telephone bell.
(ii) rang up to demand some peace
(iii) Zigzag slept on unconcerned
(iv) an exhausted Mrs.Krishnan
(v) I am going crazy with the sound of Zigzag snoring

Zigzag by Asha Nehemiah About the Author:

Asha Nehemiah born in 1958 in Chennai has lived, studied and worked in eight different cities and small towns and is now a resident of Bangalore. She has always been interested in writing. Her love for reading led her to study Literature in college. If she had not been a writer, she would have been a teacher. Humour, fantasy mystery and adventure are the strong elements in her work. She loves baking, walking, reading and travelling.

Zigzag Summary:

Introduction:
Author Asha Nehemiah unfolds the delicate love a bird can exhibit to the astonishment of the inmates. Interesting facts about plants and animals will draw the attention of students. Let us read the family’s reaction towards the wonder bird Zigzag.

Zigzag finds new home:
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family shelters Somu’s new pet, ZigZag, a queer-looking African bird, who is known for talking and singing in twenty-one different languages brought in by Visu after a telephonic conversation which wasn’t audible due to the variety of blood-curdling yells and ear-splitting sobs. Mr. Krishnan knows about Mrs. Krishnan’s painting exhibition the next week and denies the plea of Somu to shelter the pet.

An Unusual Bird:
Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird bred by a genuine African witch doctor, who gifted it to Somu when he, being a child specialist like Dr. Krishnan cured the witch doctor’s son, while he was touring the deepest jungles of Africa a month ago.

Mistaken conversation:
To Somu, the bird is an absolute treasure and real help. However, Somu mistakes Krishnan to have agreed to the request. Their son Arvind and daughter Maya are keen on bringing the pet home. They both discuss the unique gifts given by Uncle Somu such as the insect-eating plant, tiny penknife with the genuine shark’s tooth blade, the aboriginal boomerang, and so on. But this strange guest turns out to be a disappointment for the Krishnan family.

A sleeping bird:
Zigzag does nothing but sleeps and snores all the time at home that even the neighbours complain about the noise in person and over the phone. All attempts to awaken the bird go in vain. They finally feel a big escape to leave home and stay far away from the sound of snoring. The bird at first before resorting to a steadfast sleep eats the nuts and fruits, keeps them safe in the chandelier and the fan blades.

Maid makes a mess:
The maid Lakshmi shrieks when she switches on the fan in an excited manner thinking she is blessed with papayas and bananas raining inside the room not knowing the bird’s play. Mbs. Krishnan is annoyed at the slice of overripe? papaya whizzing off the fan and splattering all over her unfinished masterpiece – sunset at Marina spreading streaks of gooey orange pulp and shiny black seeds all over it.

Six Frantic Days:
Dr. Krishnan leaves an e-mail message for Somu, asking him for clear instructions on how to stop Zigzag from snoring. Six frantic days of checking their e-mail day and night make them dumbstruck by the reply from Somu on the seventh day that the bird never sleeps nor snores. Mrs. Krishnan wants it to be sent to Visu as her friends and experts will come home and choose her paintings for the exhibition.

Dr. Krishnan takes it to clinic:
Krishnan takes Zigzag in the car and hopes to find Visu so that Zigzag’s snore doesn’t add to the din of the sobs and shrieks produced by the tiny patients waiting for him. However, Ziggy-Zagga, King-of-the- Tonga was not familiar to being kept waiting and was already making his way to the clinic where he perched himself on the nurse’s reception table. Dr. Krishnan warned Zigzag fiercely as he went towards his room.

Zigzag Speaks:
Dr. Krishnan had barely walked through the door that separated his clinic from the waiting room when he heard a strange voice say, ‘You there in the blue T-shirt, don’t jump on the sofa and you in the red dress, don’t swing on the curtain.’ It was Zigzag’s voice, clear and commanding. There was pin-drop silence in the room as everyone waited for Zigzag’s next sentence. Dr. Krishnan was amazed!

Cheerful Zigzag:
Gone was Zigzag’s bored and grumpy expression. Instead, the bird looked happy and alert as it went about the job it had been trained for, first with the African witch doctor and then with Dr.Somu. To top it all, Zigzag never slept nor snored. ZigZag was an absolute treasure and Dr. Krishnan never wanted Visu to take away ZigZag.

Mrs. Krishnan rewarded for the art:
Mrs. Krishnan too calls at the same time sounding very pleased with herself. She said that ‘Mrs. Jhunjhunwula, the art critic did not want to exhibit ‘Sunset at Marina’ since she would buy it for herself, for Rs. 5,000/- for she loved my new technique of painting! She simply adored those streaky orangey bits!

Dr. Krishnan rewards the bird:
Dr. Krishnan gave the bird a toffee from his desk as a compliment, but he just ate the toffee, paper wrapper and all, and then lowered one crinkly eyelid in a knowing wink.

Conclusion:
Zigzag attracts Rnshnan’s family after all the mess and irritating snores. It is interesting to watch the activities of a wild bird that belongs to the deepest jungles of Africa. The lesson has amazing facts about African animals and plants adding to the students delight.

Zigzag Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

You can Download The Tempest Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 1 The Tempest

The Tempest Textual Questions

A. Choose the correct answer.

1. ………………. was the chief of all spirits.
(a) Sycorax
(b) Caliban
(c) Ariel
(d) Prospero
Answer:
(c) Ariel

2. ……………….. raised a dreadful storm.
(a) Ariel
(b) Prospero
(c) Miranda
(d) Sycorax
Answer:
(b) Prospero

3. Miranda was brought to the island …………… years ago.
(a) fourteen
(b) ten
(c) twelve
(d) five
Answer:
(c) twelve

4. Prospero ordered Ariel to bring ………………… to his place.
(a) Gonzalo
(b) Ferdinand
(c) King of Naples
(d) Antonio
Answer:
(b) Ferdinand

5. …………….. had provided Prospero formerly with books and provisions.
(a) Antonio
(b) Ferdinand
(c) Gonzalo
(d) Antonio
Answer:
(c) Gonzalo

6. The second human being that Miranda saw on the island was …………. .
(a) Ariel
(b) Prospero
(c) Ferdinand
(d) Gonzalo
Answer:
(c) Ferdinand

Additional Questions

1. Prospero and Miranda lived in a cave divided into several ………….. .
(a) compartments
(b) apartments
(c) vestibules
(d) partitions
Answer:
(b) apartments

2. Prospero released many good spirits like …………….. .
(a) Sycorax
(b) Ariel
(c) Caliban
(d) Ferdinand
Answer:
(a) Sycorax

3. Sycorax, a good spirit imprisoned many in the bodies of large ……………. .
(a) animals
(b) bottles
(c) barrels
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

4. Ariel tormented an ugly monster called …………………….. .
(a) Miranda
(b) Sycorax
(c) Caliban
(d) Prospero
Answer:
(c) Caliban

5. ……………… was the son of Sycorax.
(a) Caliban
(b) smooth
(c) bumpy
(d) blunt
Answer:
(a) Caliban

6. Mirnda was just ………………. years old when she came to this cell.
(a) five
(b) three
(c) seven
(d) twelve
Answer:
(b) three

7. Prospero was the Duke of ……………… .
(a) Naples
(b) Milan
(c) Mulan
(d) Maples
Answer:
(b) Milan

8. Prospero had a younger brother by name …………….. .
(a) Antonio
(b) Caliban
(c) Shylock
(d) Ferdinand
Answer:
(a) Antonio

9. Antonio joined hands with the king of ……………… and betrayed his brother.
(a) Maples
(b) Naples
(c) Milan
(d) Mulan
Answer:
(b) Naples

10. ………………. was a kind lord of Prospero’s court.
(a) Gonzalo
(b) Ferdinand
(c) Ariel
(d) Milan
Answer:
(a) Gonzalo

B. Identify the character or speaker.

Question 1.
He imprisoned the spirits in the bodies of large trees.
Answer:
Sycorax

Question 2.
He was the chief of all spirits.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 3.
It seems to me like the recollection of a dream.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero (Not in the textual passage)

Question 4.
I was the Duke of Milan, and you were a princess.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 5.
What trouble must I have been to you then!
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 6.
Now, pray to tell me, sir, your reason for raising this sea-storm?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 7.
I will soon move you.
Answer:
Ariel to Ferdinand

Question 8.
I will tie your neck and feet together.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 9.
I must finish my task before I take my rest.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Miranda

Question 10.
He repented and implored his brother’s forgiveness.
Answer:
Antonio to Prospero

Additional Questions

Question 1.
She came to this island so young, that she had no memory other than her father.
Answer:
Miranda

Question 2.
They lived in a cave made out of a rock.
Answer:
Prospero and Miranda

Question 3.
He kept his books to chiefly create magic.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 4.
This spirit imprisoned many in the bodies of large trees.
Answer:
Sycorax

Question 5.
He was the chief of all the gentle spirits.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 6.
He took too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 7.
He was the son of Sycorax.
Answer:
Caliban

Question 8.
He was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
Answer:
Caliban

Question 9.
He had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 10.
With the help of spirits, he could command the winds and the waves of the sea.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 11.
“Have pity on their sad distress. See! the vessel will be dashed to pieces.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 12.
Be not so amazed, there is no harm done.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 13.
No person in the ship shall receive any hurt.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 14.
What I have done has been in the care of you.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 15.
Can you remember a time before you came to this cell?
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 16.
You were not then three years of age.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 17.
I was Duke of Milan, and you were a princess and my only heir.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 18.
Prospero had a younger brother.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 19.
He began to think himself the duke indeed.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 20.
Wherefore, did they not That hour destroy us?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 21.
He forced us into a small boat, without either tackle, sail, or mast.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 22.
A kind lord of my court placed water, provisions, apparel, and some books.
Answer:
Gonzalo

Question 23.
What trouble must I have been!
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 24.
You were a little angel.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 25.
“Well, my brave spirit,” “how have you performed your task?”
Answer:
Prospero to Ariel

Question 26.
Where is the king, and my brother?
Answer:
Prospero to Ariel

Question 27.
Tell me what you are looking at yonder?
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 28.
Believe me, it is a beautiful creature. Is it not a spirit?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 29.
“It eats, and sleeps, and has senses such as we have”.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 30.
This young man you see was altered by grief.
Answer:
Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 31.
He has lost his companions and is wandering about to find them.
Answer:
Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 32.
She was the goddess of the place.
Answer:
Ferdinand about Miranda

Question 33.
He resolved to throw some difficulties to check on Ferdinand’s constancy.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 34.
I will tie your neck and feet together.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 35.
You shall drink sea-water; shell-fish and withered roots.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 36.
I will resist this and drew his sword.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Prospero

Question 37.
He fixed Ferdinand to the spot where he stood so that he had no power to move.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 38.
Why are you so ungentle?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 39.
Have pity, sir; I will be his surety.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 40.
This is the second man I ever saw, and to me he seems a true one.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 41.
Silence, one word more will make me chide you!
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 42.
What! An advocate for an impostor!
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 43.
My affections are most humble. I have no wish to see a goodlier man.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 44.
You have no power to disobey me.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 45.
“Alas! Do not work so hard; my father is at his studies.”
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 46.
Pray rest yourself.
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 47.
I dare not. I must finish my task before I – take my rest.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Miranda.

Question 48.
I will carry your logs.
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 49.
Fear nothing, I have overheard, and approve of all you have said.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand and Miranda

Question 50.
He soon returned with the king, Antonio, and old Gonzalo.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 51.
Who is this maid?
Answer:
King of Naples about Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 52.
He has made himself to be a second father, giving me this dear lady.
Answer:
Ferdinand about Prospero to the King of Naples.

Question 53.
Let us not remember our troubles past, since they so happily have ended.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 54.
And then Prospero embraced his brother and again assured him of his forgiveness.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 55.
He dismissed Ariel from his service to the great joy of that lively little spirit.
Answer:
Prospero

C. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who were the inhabitants of the island?
Answer:
Prospero and his daughter Miranda were the inhabitants of the island.

Question 2.
What powers did Prospero possess?
Answer:
Prospero possessed magical powers.

Question 3.
Who was Caliban? What was he employed for?
Answer:
Caliban was an ugly monster. He was employed for fetching wood and doing the most laborious offices.

Question 4.
Who was on the ship? How were they related to Prospero?
Answer:
Prospero’s brother Antonio, the King of Naples, the king’s son Ferdinand and an old lord Gonzalo were on the ship. Antonio, with the help of the King of Naples, deprived Prospero of his dukedom.

Question 5.
Why had Prospero raised a violent storm in the sea?
Answer:
Prospero had raised a violent storm in the sea to destroy the ship.

Question 6.
How did Miranda feel when her father raised the storm to destroy the ship?
Answer:
Miranda felt extremely sad for the distress of the members of the ship. She wanted Prospero to have pity on the poor souls.

Question 7.
What was Ariel ordered to do with the people on the ship?
Answer:
Ariel was ordered that no person in the ship shall receive any hurt.

Question 8.
Give two reasons why Miranda was so concerned about Ferdinand.
Answer:
Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father. She was attracted by him and had more concern towards him.

Question 9.
Why did Prospero set Ferdinand a severe task to perform?
Answer:
Prospero wanted to try Ferdinand’s constancy. So he set Ferdinand a severe task to perform.

Question 10.
How was Gonzalo helpful to Prospero when he left Milan?
Answer:
Gonzalo had privately placed water, provisions, clothes, and some books, which Prospero loved the most in the boat.

D. Answer the questions in a paragraph of about 100 – 150 words.

Question 1.
Write a detailed character sketch of Prospero.
Answer:
Introduction:
Prospero was an old man. He was the famous Duke of Milan. The people of Milan loved him very much. He was fond of reading magic books. He was sent to an Island by his cunning brother Antonio. Prospero lived on the Island and wanted to restore the kingdom.

Antonio’s cunningness:
Antonio brother of Prospero wanted to usurp the kingdom. So, by his cunningness, he usurped the kingdom. He sent them to an Island. He and his daughter were the only inhabitants of the Island. Ariel was the chief spirit. He obeyed them.

Prospero’s Revenge:
Prospero was a genuine person. One day, his brother Antonio, the King of Naples, and Lord Gonzalo were traveling by ship. Knowing this Prospero ordered Ariel to wreck the ship. Ariel brought Ferdinand Prospero gave hard work to Ferdinand. In turn, Miranda and Ferdinand started loving each other.

Returning of Kingdom:
Ariel made Antonio and the King of Naples to repent for their deeds. Antonio with sad words of sorrow repented for his mistake. Thus, Prospero restored his kingdom.

Conclusion:
Prospero returned to his kingdom. He set Ariel free. Ariel thanked Prospero and left. Thus Miranda and Ferdinand got married. Prospero became the king of Milan. He was a nobleman.

Question 2.
Narrate how Prospero made his enemies repent to restore his dukedom.
Answer:
Prospero, the Duke of Milan, was more interested in reading books and in the art of magic. He trusted his brother Antonio and asked him to look after his affairs in his kingdom. But Antonio overthrew Prospero out of the kingdom, with the help of the king of Naples.

Prospero reached an island with his daughter and stayed there for twelve years. He released many good spirits from the clutches of the witch Sycorax. With the help of Ariel, he created a violent storm in the sea. He made his enemies travelling in the ship, to suffer for their mistakes done to him. He asked Ariel to bring Ferdinand to the cave. There, Miranda and Ferdinand were attracted to each other.

But Prospero tested Ferdinand to try his constancy. At last, he forgave all of them, as they realized their mistakes and repented. Everyone left the island and Prospero restored his dukedom.

E. Rearrange the following sentences in a coherent order.

1. He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
2. Miranda was attracted by Ferdinand and had more concern towards him.
3. Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
4. Prospero forgave them and restored his dukedom, Milan.
5. He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
6. Prospero wanted to test Ferdinand and gave a severe task to perform.
Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
8. The King of Naples, and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
9. Ariel was instructed to bring Ferdinand, the prince of Naples to his cave.
10. Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father.
Answer:
3, 7, 5, 1, 9, 10, 2, 6, 8, 4
3. Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
7. Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
5. He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
1. He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
9. Ariel was instructed to bring Ferdinand, the prince of Naples to his cave.
10. Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father.
2. Miranda was attracted by Ferdinand and had more concern towards him.
6. Prospero wanted to test Ferdinand and gave a severe task to perform.
8. The King of Naples, and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
4. Prospero forgave them and restored his dukedom, Milan.

Additional Questions:

A. Rearrange the following sentences in a coherent order.

1. a. Of these Ariel was the chief.
b. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax.
c. Prospero and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants in an island.
d. Ariel took pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban.
e. These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero.
Answers:
c, b, e, a, d
c. Prospero and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants in an island.
b. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax.
e. These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero.
a. Of these Ariel was the chief.
d. Ariel took pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban.

2. a. Ariel had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
b. Caliban was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
c. Miranda was worried about the inmates of a fine large ship which could be shipwrecked.
d. Prospero assured his daughter about the safety of all those who were in the ship.
e. At Prospero’s Commands, they raised a violent storm.
Answers:
b, a, e, c, d
b. Caliban was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
a. Ariel had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
e. At Prospero’s Commands, they raised a violent storm.
c. Miranda was worried about the inmates of a fine large ship which could be shipwrecked.
d. Prospero assured his daughter about the safety of all those who were in the ship.

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases given below to form a complete meaningful paragraph.

1. (in the bodies of large trees / in the sea / treated of magic / with no memory of / made out of a rock.)
There was an island (i) ………………………. where an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda lived. She came to this island (ii) ………………. seeing any other human face than her father’s. They lived in a cave (iii) ………………. In his study, Prospero kept his books, which chiefly (iv) ………………… By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned (v) …………………….
Answers:
(i) in the sea
(ii) with no memory of
(iii) made out of a rock
(iv) treated of magic
(v) in the bodies of large trees

2. (who was my enemy/1 was Duke of Milan /to think himself / whose name was Antonio / of my dukedom)
“Twelve years ago, Miranda,” continued Prospero,” (i) ………………………., and you were a princess and my only heir. I had a younger brother, (ii) …………………, to whom I trusted everything; My brother Antonio began (iii) ………………. the duke indeed. The opportunity I gave him deprived me (iv) ………………. this he soon effected with the aid of the King of Naples, (v) ……………….
Answers:
(i) I was Duke of Milan
(ii) whose name was Antonio
(iii) to think himself
(iv) of my dukedom
(v) who was my enemy

C. Match the following appropriately:

1.
Answer:
(i)(e), (ii)(d), (iii) (a), (iv)(c), (v)(b).

2.
Answer:
(i)(e), (ii)(d), (iii)(a), (iv)(b), (v)(c).

3.
Answer:
(i)(b), (ii)(d), (iii)(c), (iv)(a), (v)(c).

D. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. There was an island in the sea, the only inhabitants of which were an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda, a very beautiful young lady. She came to this island so young, that she had no memory of having seen any other human face than her father’s.

They lived in a cave made out of a rock; it was divided into several apartments, one of which Prospero called his study; there he kept his books, which chiefly treated of magic. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned in the bodies of large trees.

These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero. Of these Ariel was the chief. Ariel took rather too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax.

(а) Who were the only inhabitants of the island in the sea?
Answer:
Prospero an old man and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants of the island in the sea.

(b) Where did Prospero and Miranda live?
Answer:
Prospero and Miranda lived in a cave made out of a rock.

(c) Who is Sycorax?
Answer:
Sycorax is a witch who had imprisoned many good spirits in the bodies of large trees.

(d) Who was the chief of all the gentle spirits?
Answer:
Ariel was the chief of all the gentle spirits.

(e) Why did Ariel find pleasure in tormenting Caliban?
Answer:
Ariel found pleasure in tormenting Caliban an ugly monster because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax.

2. Ariel took rather too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax. Caliban was employed as a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices; and Ariel had the charge of compelling him to these services. With the help of these spirits, Prospero could command the winds and the waves of the sea.

By his orders, they raised a violent storm, in the midst of which, he showed his daughter a fine large ship, which he told her was full of living beings like themselves. “Oh my dear father,” said she, “if by your art you have raised this dreadful storm, have pity on their sad distress. See! The vessel will be dashed to pieces. Poor souls! They will all perish.”

“Be not so amazed, daughter Miranda,” said Prospero; “there is no harm done. I have so ordered it, that no person in the ship shall receive any hurt.

(a) Who was Caliban?
Answer:
Caliban, an ugly monster was the son of Ariel’s old enemy Sycorax, the witch.

(b) What was the work given to Caliban by Ariel?
Answer:
Ariel made Caliban fetch wood and do most of the laborious offices.

(c) How did Prospero use the spirits?
Answer:
Prospero with the help of the spirits commanded the winds and the waves of the sea.

(d) What did Prospero show his daughter?
Answer:
Prospero showed a fine large ship in the midst of a violent storm that he had created.

(e) What was the fear of Miranda?
Answer:
Miranda feared that the vessel would be dashed to pieces and that the people in the ship may perish.

E. Study the given mind map and fill in the incomplete details:

Answers:
(i) to pfle up some heavy logs of wood.
(ii) is at his studies, pray rest yourself.
(iii) my task before I take my rest.
(iv) I will carry your logs the while.
(v) would by no means agree to.

Answers:
(i) the beauty of young Miranda.
(ii) who is the famous Duke of Milan?
(iii) a second father.
(iv) our troubles past, since they so happily have ended.
(v) embraced his brother.

The Tempest by William Shakespeare About the Author:
William Shakespeare (1564-1616) was born in Stratford-upon-Avon, England. He was an English poet, playwright and actor, widely regarded as the greatest writer in the English language and the world’s greatest dramatist. He is often called England’s national poet and the “Bard of Avon”. His surviving body of work includes 37 plays, 154 sonnets and two narrative poems, the majority of which he penned between 1589 and 1613.

The Tempest Summary:

Introduction:
The Tempest was considered one of Shakespeare’s well-written plays. It is believed that the play was based on an actual wreck of a ship called the Sea Venture off Bermuda that was headed to Virginia. There is strong evidence that Shakespeare used elements of the story of the wreck.

Tragedy that surrounded Prospero
When the play, The Tempest by William Shakespeare begins, Prospero, the overthrown Duke of Milan, and his teenage daughter, Miranda, live on an isolated island where they have been marooned for the past twelve years. Their only companions are Ariel, a magical spirit and Caliban, enslaved by Prospero. Prospero was originally Duke of Milan, but his position was appropriated by his brother Antonio, possibly with the approval of King of Naples.

Ariel’s violent storm
A ship with King of Naples, his son Ferdinand, Antonio, and other nobles, is wrecked in a sea storm created by the spirit Ariel, under the magic art of Prospero. Ariel explains that he has carried out Prospero’s orders: He admits that be had destroyed the ship and dispersed its passengers across the island. Prospero instructs Ariel to be invisible and spy on them. Prospero explains to his daughter that the crew members in the ship are all safe and sound when he sees her glum. He puts Miranda to sleep as Ariel comes there to report that the lords are on the island as he had commanded, with Ferdinand separated from the others. Caliban, a vicious native of the island who is also controlled by Prospero, expresses his hatred to Prospero, but is forced to do his command.

Ferdinand meets Miranda
Prospero gets Ariel to lead Ferdinand across the island so that he meets Miranda, and fall in love. As planned, Ferdinand stumbles across Miranda and they fall in love and decide to marry. Prospero warns Miranda off and decides to test Ferdinand’s loyalty. To test his worth, Prospero makes Ferdinand carry out menial tasks. Ferdinand finds his labour pleasant because of Miranda. Miranda, thinking that her father is asleep, tells Ferdinand to take a break. They propose marriage and they accept each other. Prospero who has been on stage invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda is pleased with this development.

Grieving ship wrecked crew
The rest of the shipwrecked crew are grieving for their lost, loved ones. The search for Ferdinand goes in vain and Antonio and the King of Naples fear him drowned. Gonzalo and the others think that the spellbound men are suffering from the guilt of their past actions and promise to ensure their safety.

King of Naples punished for disloyalty
Ariel places a magical delicious banquet before the lords which vanishes when they crave to eat. Ariel leads the lords to Prospero, and they stand in a trance before him.

Prospero pardons Antonio
Ariel rouses them, and they beg forgiveness, which Prospero grants, and he is restored to his dukedom. Ferdinand and Miranda are then revealed to them to their happiness. At the end of the play, Ariel is told to provide good weather to guide the king’s ship back to the royal fleet and then to Naples, where Ferdinand and Miranda will be married.

Conclusion:
Thus the story ends happily. Prospero pardons Antonio for his disloyalty. The Duke regains his Dukedom. His daughter is married to Ferdinand.

William Shakespeare Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Deforestation leads to ______ in rainfall.
Answer:
Reduction

Question 2.
Removal of soil particles from the land is called ______
Answer:
Soil erosion

Question 3.
Chipko movement is initiated against ______
Answer:
the cutting down of trees

Question 4.
______ is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Nilgiris

Question 5.
Tidal energy is ______ type of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional or renewable

Question 6.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ______ fuels.
Answer:
Fossil

Question 7.
______ is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.
Answer:
Coal

II. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement:

Question 1.
Biogas is a fossil fuel.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Biogas is the mixture of methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon-di-oxide and hydrogen.

Question 2.
Planting trees increase the groundwater level.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Habitat destruction caused loss of wildlife.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Nuclear energy is renewable energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Nuclear energy is a non-renewable energy source. The material used in nuclear plants is not renewable.

Question 5.
Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: During overgrazing, most of the plants are eaten up. If the plants or vegetation is retained, the soil is not exposed. Soil erosion occurs due to overgrazing.

Question 6.
Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Poaching should be prohibited.

Question 7.
The national park is a protected park.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Wildlife protection act was established in 1972.
Answer:
True

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Soil erosion	(a) energy saving
2. Bio-gas	(b) acid rain
3. Natural gas	(c) removal of vegetation
4. Greenhouse gas	(d) renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs	(e) CO2
6. Wind	(f) non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste	(g) lead and heavy metals

Answer:

1. (c) Removal of vegetation
2. (d) Renewable energy
3. (f) Non-renewable energy
4. (e) CO₂
5. (a) energy saving
6. (b) acid rain
7. (g) Lead and heavy metals

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is/are a fossil fuel?
i. Tar
ii. Coal
iii. Petroleum
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(c) ii and iii

Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust is _________
i. Carbon monoxide
ii. Sulphur dioxide
iii. Oxides of nitrogen
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by:
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is ______
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is:
(a) no rain fall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rain fall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rain fall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is _______
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wildlife
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is:
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
The greenhouse effect refers to _____
(a) cooling of Earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of Earth
Answer:
(d) warming of Earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is:
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(c) wind energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause _______
(a) raise in the level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
Soil erosion occurs and ecological imbalance takes place if trees are cut down.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitat of wild animal is disturbed it leads to extinction of animals or on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
The high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, landslide, human activities such as deforestation, farming and mining, and overgrazing by cattle are the agents of soil erosion.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
The formation of fossil fuels is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewals so fossil fuels are to conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is renewable, free source of energy, that is sustainable and totally inexhaustible.

Question 6.
How are e- wastes generated?
Answer:
e-wastes are spoiled, out dated, non-repairable, electrical and electronic devices like computer components electronic and electrical appliances.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The importance of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• overcome the rapid depletion of groundwater levels.
• To meet the increased demand for water.
• Reduces flood and soil erosion.
• Water stored in-ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:

1. It bums without smoke and therefore causes less pollution.
2. An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
3. Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
4. It is safe and convenient to use.
5. It can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What is the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:

• Sewage is the leading polluter of water resources in India.
• Different species of fishes are killed.
• Contaminated water can cause diseases such as e-coli, diarrhoea and hepatitis A.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collecting and storing rainwater for future use. The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater percolate under the ground, so as to recharge ‘groundwater level’.

Methods of rainwater harvesting
(i) Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater that falls on the roof of the houses, apartments and commercial buildings, etc, is collected and stored in the surface tank and is used for domestic purpose.

(ii) Recharge pit: The collected rainwater is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for Alteration. After Alteration, the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

• Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris): Eris is constructed in such a way that, if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.
• Ooranis: These are small ponds to collect rainwater. They are used for various domestic purposes.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
2. Cattle grazing should be controlled.
3. Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
4. Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
5. Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
6. Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil, which results in landscape pollution. Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

• Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
• Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
• Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
• Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:
Forests are an important component of our environment and are dominated by microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers, dense trees and provide a vast habitat for wild animals. Forests also contribute to the economic development of our country. Forests are vital for human life, it is a source for a wide range of renewable natural resource. They provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.

Forests are major factor of environmental concern. They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall, reduce global warming, prevent natural hazards like flood and landslides, protect wildlife and also act as catchments for water conservation. They also play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The consequences of soil erosion are as follows:

• It has led to increased pollution and sedimentation in streams and rivers.
• Clogging the waterways and causing a decrease in fish species.
• Degraded lands often have less ability to hold on to water.
• Topsoil is removed.
• Topsoil quality is reduced.
• No medium crops to grow in soil with poor quality.
• Use of artificial fertilizers.
• Disrupts ecosystem.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
People would consider forest is a source of raw materials for the factories and industries, and utilise it for development of human without considering about other organism. There are many stake holders of forest. They are those people who are directly or indirectly involved in forest. Management of forest and called life has to take into account the interest of all stake holders which become a challenging task.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

In each of the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rainwater.
Reason: Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Energy-efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason: CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:

• The coal and petroleum reserves can get exhausted, if we use them at a rapid rate.
• The formation of fossil fuel is a very slow process and takes a very long time for renewal.
• It is necessary to conserve the resource, for the future generation, by reducing their consumption.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:
Non conventional energy resources are non-polluting renewable sources which are environmentally clean. It is available in unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:
Government is imposing a ban on the use of plastic bags and plastics because,

• Plastics pollute on land, rivers, ponds and all water bodies and soil, etc.
• Burning of plastic in open air leads to environmental pollution, due to the release of poisonous gas.
• The accumulation of plastic bags and plastics prevent the seeping of water into the Earth, which brings down the levels of groundwater.
• Plastic bags can travel long distances by wind and water. They litter our landscapes and water bodies.

Alternatives:

• Bring your own containers and bags to buy things from the shop.
• Use paper wraps or compostable bags with cloth or brown paper.

Improvement of the environment on plastic ban:

• Improve the health of individuals.
• Driving to innovate alternatives.
• Plastic pollution reduced.
• The nation is safe.

X. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support to your answer.
Answer:
In solar cells, the solar panel convert solar energy into electricity, which stored in storage battery. The storage battery gives direct current, which is to be converted into alternating current by an suitable appliances before it can be used to run various, devices. So, it increases the cost of using panels as the source of energy.

In the solar cells the energy is obtained only during the day, when the sun shines. So the solar cells is not used to meet our energy needs.

Question 2.
How would you dispose of the following wastes?

1. Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
2. Industrial wastes like metallic cans

Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:

1. Domestic wastes have to be thrown out with the trash.
2. Do vermiform composting system for vegetable wastes which can be used as a manure. Industrial wastes like metallic cans can be recycled.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:
Recycling : Using recycled material of glass plastic, paper, metal etc.
Reuse : Repeating use of items.
Reduce : Avoid the use of materials which increases the solid waste.
Use of public transport instead of personal transport to reduce to consumption of fuel. Use of materials such as paper should be preferred.

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collect information regarding the
(i) Tehri Dam project
(ii) Sardar Sarovar Dam project
Answer:
(i) Tehri Dam project:
Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-filled embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of the THDC India limited and the Tehri hydro-electric complex. The Tehri Dam withholds a reservoir for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 megawatts of hydroelectricity.

(ii) Sardar Sarovar dam project:
Sardar Sarovar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmadha river near Navagam. It is a part of the Narmada valley project, a large hydraulic engineering project.
Benefits:

• Provides irrigation facilities.
• Drinking water supply.
• There are two powerhouses, red bed powerhouse and canal head powerhouse with a capacity of 1200 MW and 250 MW, respectively.
• It provides flood protection.
• Wildlife sanctuaries are maintained.
• Development of fisheries.
• Water supply for industries.
• Protection of conserved forests.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ is used for generation of _____, at thermal power plants.
Answer:
Coal, Electricity

Question 2.
Petroleum is refined to produce _____ and _____, which are used to run automobiles, trucks, trains and ships, etc.
Answer:
Petrol, Diesel

Question 3.
______ and ______ obtained from petroleum are used as domestic fuel.
Answer:
Kerosene, LPG

Question 4.
Solar energy is obtained from ______
Answer:
Sun

Question 5.
Solar cells convert sunlight directly into ______
Answer:
Electricity

Question 6.
_______ plants convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
Answer:
Hydropower

Question 7.
The 3R approach such as _____, _____ and ______ may be followed to effective waste management.
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle

Question 8.
_______ is a reserved area for the conservation of entire wildlife including plants and animals.
Answer:
National park

Question 9.
______ is a place reserved exclusively for the use of animals.
Answer:
Sanctuary

Question 10.
Unwanted, non-working and out-dated electronic products become ______
Answer:
e-waste

Question 11.
In India, the forests are classified into ______ forests and ______ forests.
Answer:
Reserved, Protected

Question 12.
The small ponds to collect rainwater is called ______
Answer:
Ooranis

II. Write true or false for the following statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
Conservation of natural resources makes an important contribution to the social and economic development of the country.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, the increase of animals and the nourishment of wildlife.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, in animals becoming extinct, some are threatened and some are on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
The potential energy possessed by the wind, due to lower speed, that can be converted into chemical power by wind turbines.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The kinetic energy possessed by the wind is due to its high speed, that can be converted into mechanical power by wind turbines.

Question 4.
The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, run on its surface of Earth.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, to percolate under the ground, so as to recharge the groundwater level.

Question 5.
The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called electronic wastes.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called incineration.

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Van Mahotsav	(a) Destruction of forests
2. Bombay Natural History Society	(b) Crude oil
3. Deforestation	(c) Photovoltaic devices
4. Erosion	(d) Afforestation programme
5. Solar cells	(e) Conservation of wildlife
6. Petroleum	(f) Removal of an upper layer of soil

Answer:

1. (d) Afforestation programme
2. (e) Conservation of wildlife
3. (a) Destruction of forests
4. (f) Removal of an upper layer of soil
5. (c) Photovoltaic devices
6. (b) Crude oil

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The new sources of energy are termed as _______
(a) fossil fuel
(b) Conventional energy resources
(c) Non-conventional sources of energy
(d) conservation
Answer:
(c) non-conventional sources of energy

Question 2.
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because:
(a) They are made of materials with light weight
(b) They are made of toxic materials.
(c) They are made of biodegradable materials.
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.

Question 3.
The other name for Biogas is ______
(a) Natural gas
(b) Nitrogen gas
(c) Gobar gas
(d) Shale gas
Answer:
(c) Gobar gas

Question 4.
Wildlife includes:
(a) Wild animals only
(b) Wild plants only
(c) Wild plants and animals
(d) All plants and animals
Answer:
(d) All plants and animals

Question 5.
E-wastes are generally called as _______
(a) garbages
(b) electronic waste
(c) decomposition
(d) solid wastes
Answer:
(b) electronic waste

V. Answer the following shortly.

Question 1.
Why should we conserve forests and wild life?
Answer:
We should conserve forest and wild life to preserve the biodiversity, so as to avoid the loss of ecological stability. Without proper management of forest and wild life, the quality of soil, the water sources, and even the amount of rainfall may be affected.

Question 2.
What are the effects of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 3.
Name the organisation involved in wild life conservation.
Answer:
Organisations Involved in Conservation of Wildlife

1. Indian Board for WildLife (IBWL)
2. World Wildlife Fund (WWF) for Nature
3. World Conservation Union (WCN) ,
4. International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources (IUCN)
5. Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
6. Bombay Natural History Society
7. Wild life Preservation Society of India, Dehradun

Question 4.
What are fossil fuels? How are they formed?
Answer:
The fossil fuels are petroleum, coal and natural gas. Due to the anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, by a natural process over millions of years, energy-rich substances are formed. As the accumulating sediment layers produce heat and pressure, the remains of the organisms are gradually transformed into hydrocarbons.

Question 5.
Write the uses of solar cells.
Answer:

1. It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping, battery charging system etc.
2. It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
3. It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
4. It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

Question 6.
Write short notes about shale gas.
Answer:
Due to the compaction of small old rocks, which contain mud and minerals such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath Earth’s surface and form the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock called shale. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores. This fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing.

Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate drinking water. It also affects the fertility of the soil. A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas which in turn can affect the fertility of the soil.
A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which in turn can affect the water table.

Question 7.
What is Tidal energy? What is it’s advantages?
Answer:
The energy obtained from the movement of water, due to ocean tides is called tidal energy. Tides are the rise and fall of sea level, caused by the combined effects of the gravitational force. A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.
Advantages:

• It does not produce any pollution.
• It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
• Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
• Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 8.
How is electric energy conserved?
Answer:

• Use energy-efficient appliances to save electricity like compact fluorescent lamps (CFL), Light Emitting Diode [LED] bulbs and other electrical equipment.
• Switch off the lights and fans, television and other electrical appliances, when not in use.
• Switch off the mobile phone chargers when not in use.
• Use more off solar radiation. Solar water heating system can be used instead of electric geysers.
• Minimise the use of air conditioners.

Question 9.
What are the sources of e-waste? What is the environmental impact of e-waste?
Answer:
E-wastes are called electronic wastes, which includes the spoiled, outdated; non-repairable electrical and electronic devices. These wastes contain toxic metals like lead, cadmium, chromium and mercury, and also contains iron, copper, silicon, aluminium and gold, which can be recovered. The sources of e-wastes are:

• Electronic device: Computers, laptops, mobile phones, printers, monitors, televisions, DVD players, calculators, toys and sports equipment.
• Household electrical appliances: Refrigerators, washing machine, microwave oven, mixer, grinder and water heater, etc.
• Accessories: Printing cartridges, batteries and chargers.

Environmental impact of e-wastes:
Disposal of any kind of electrical and electronic devices without knowledge can become the landfill and water pollutants.
Electronic equipment contains many heavy metals such as lead and cadmium that can cause severe soil and groundwater pollution. E-waste dumping yards and the places, nearby are polluted and cause a severe health hazard.

Question 10.
What is the 3R approach of ineffective waste management?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle are the 3R approach for effective waste management. Reducing the amount of waste, we produce is the best way to help the environment. Buying products with minimum packaging, not borrowing things which we do not use often, starting a compost bin, saving energy and water by turning are ways to reduce. Reuse materials in their original form or pass those materials on to others, who could use them. Paper cardboard, metals, plastics and textiles, etc can be recycled. The compost or reuse of bio-degradable wastes is also a kind of recycling.

Question 11.
What are non-conventional energy resources? What does it include?
Answer:
The energy resources available in an unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously is called the non-conventional energy resources.

The non-conventional energy resources include biofuel, bio mass-energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 12.
What is the composition of Bio-gas? How is it formed?
Answer:

• Bio-gas is the mixture of methane (75%), hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
• It is produced by the decomposition of animal wastes (cow dung) and plant wastes in the ‘ absence of oxygen.
• It is also commonly called as “Gobar gas”, as the starting material used is cow dung, which ~ means gobar in Hindi.

Question 13.
What are hydropower and hydropower electricity?
Answer:
Earth is covered with 71% of water. The technique to harness the water energy, from the flowing water is called the hydropower.

The electrical energy is derived from water flow and water falling from a height. In hilly areas, there is a continuous flow of water in large amounts falling from high slopes. The electricity produced by flowing water is called hydropower electricity.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are the aims of wildlife management?
Answer:
The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

1. To control and limit exploitation of species.
2. To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
3. Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
4. Preserve the endangered species.
5. To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
6. Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
7. Establishment of National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and Biosphere reserves.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the classification of energy resources.
Answer:
Energy resources can be classified as renewable and non-renewable.
(i) Non-renewable (exhaustible) energy resources:
The energy obtained from sources that cannot renew themselves over a short period of time is called non-renewable energy. They include coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear power. The conventional energy resources account for 90% of the world’s production of commercial energy and nuclear power account for 10%.

(ii) Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources:
Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources are available in the unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harnessed continuously. These are called non-conventional energy resources, which include biofuel, biomass energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 3.
Write a note an shale gas. Explain the environment impact of shale gas.
Answer:
Shale refers to the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock that is formed from the compaction of small old rocks containing mud and minerals – such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath earth’s surface. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores.

The fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing (drilling or well boring of sedimentary rocks layers to reach productive reservoir layers).

Environmental concerns of shale gas:

1. Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate the drinking water resources and also affect the fertility of the soil.
2. Million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which intum can affect the water table.

Question 4.
(a) How does windmill work?
(b) List out the uses of wind energy and the advantages of wind energy.
Answer:
(a) A windmill is a machine, that converts the energy of wind, into rotational energy by broad blade attached to the rotating axis. When the blowing air strikes the blades of the windmill, it exerts force and causes the blades to rotate. The rotational movement of the blades operate the generator and the electricity is produced. The energy output from each windmill is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.

(b) The uses of wind energy are as follows:

• Generating electricity.
• Run water pumps and flour mills, etc.
• Rotatory motion of windmill is used to draw water from wells.

Advantages of wind energy:

• Wind energy is a free, eco-friendly and renewable source of energy.
• It does not cause pollution.
• Expenses on periodic maintenance are low when compared to the other power sources.

Question 5.
(a) What are the sources of sewage or wastewater?
(b) Expiate the methods which involve in conventional wastewater treatment.
Answer:
(a) The sources of sewage or wastewater involve:

• The domestic purpose or household activities
• Dye and textile industries
• Leather industries
• Sugar and breweries industries
• Paper and pulp industries

(b) The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following step:

• Pre-screening: Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.
• Aeration: Screened wastewater is pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation, that occurs, in the presence of air.
• Sedimentation process: In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.
• Sludge removal: The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
• Disinfection: Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.
• Water recycling: The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
There are certain NGOs which ask people to donate their used clothes, toys, school books, house hold items. These NGOs segregate the collected items and distribute them to the needy people. What objectives do these NGOs fulfil by this initiatives?
Answer:
The objective behind this is Reuse and Recycle.

Question 2.
Name the national park, which was first established at Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Jim Corbett national park.

Question 3.
An environmentalist on your visit to your school suggested the use of 3R’s to same the environment. Explain the 3R’s.
Answer:
The 3R’s are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
Reuse : Instead of throwing thing away, try to find ways to use them again.
Recycle : Creating new product out of the materials from the old.
Reduce : It is the best way to help the environment by reducing the amount of waste you produce.

Question 4.
Where does India stand at the consumer of crude oil?
Answer:
India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil in the world after the United States and China.

Question 5.
Why does the white marble of Tajmahal become yellow?
Answer:
The Mathura oil refinery owned by Indian Oil Corporation presents around this area, which produces sulphur and nitrogen oxides. The white marble became yellow due to air pollution. The Government of India has set up emission standards around the monument to protect it from the damage.

Question 6.
Name the fourth oldest dam in the world? Where is it located?
Answer:
Kallanai Dam, which is also Called Grand Anicut, is the fourth oldest dam in the world. The dam is located on the river Kaveri, 20 km from the city of Tiruchirappalli.

Question 7.
Where is the world’s largest and tallest wind turbine located?
Answer:
The world’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in Hawai. One wind turbine can produce electricity for 300 homes.

Question 8.
Name the health effects of the following E-wastes.
Answer:

• Lead: Damages the central and peripheral nervous system. It also affects brain development in children.
• Chromium: Asthmatic bronchitis.
• Cadmium: Accumulates in kidney and liver; Neural damage.
• Mercury: Chronic damage to the brain and respiratory system.
• Plastics including polyvinyl chloride [PVC]: Burning produces, dioxin, which can cause developmental and reproductive problems and damage the immune system.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate the secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be _______.
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) Leptin.
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 2.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on:
(a) May 31
(b) June 6
(c) April 22
(d) October 2
Answer:
(a) May 31

Question 3.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are _______.
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells
(d) Undergoing rapid division.
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division.

Question 4.
Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Answer:
(c) Leukemia

Question 5.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to _______.
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Suppression of brain function.
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Question 6.
Coronary heart disease is due to:
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) Weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles

Question 7.
Cancer of the epithelial cells is called _______.
(a) Leukaemia
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Lipoma.
Answer:
(c) Carcinoma

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with:
(a) Malignant tumour
(b) Benign tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour
Answer:
(a) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in _______.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) AIDS.
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 10.
Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
(a) Eyes
(b) Auditory region
(c) Liver
(d) Central Nervous System
Answer:
(d) Central Nervous System

II. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement:

Question 1.
AIDS is an epidemic disease.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: AIDS is a viral disease.

Question 2.
Cancer-causing genes are called Oncogenes.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Obesity is characterized by tumour formation.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Obesity is characterized by an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight.

Question 4.
In leukaemia, both WBCs and RBCs increase in number.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Leukemia is characterized by an increase in the formation of white blood cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes.

Question 5.
Study of the cause of the disease is called aetiology.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Study of a cause of the disease is called Pathology.

Question 6.
AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In type 2 diabetes mellitus, Insulin production by the Pancreas is normal, but the target cells do not respond to insulin.

Question 8.
Carcinogens are cancer-causing agents.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Nicotine is a narcotic drug.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nicotine is a stimulant, highly harmful and poisonous substance, in Tobacco.

Question 10.
Cirrhosis is associated with the brain disorder.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Liver damage resulting in Fatty liver which leads to Cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

Question 1.

1. IDDM
2. HIV
3. BMI
4. AIDS
5. CHD
6. NIDDM.

Answer:

1. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
2. Human Immunodeficiency Vims
3. Body Mass Index
4. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
5. Coronary Heart Disease
6. Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Sarcoma	(a) Stomach cancer
2. Carcinoma	(b) Excessive thirst
3. Polydipsia	(c) Excessive hunger
4. Polyphagia	(d) Lack of blood flow to the heart muscle
5. Myocardial Infarction	(e) Connective tissue cancer

Answer:

1. (e) Connective tissue cancer
2. (a) Stomach cancer
3. (b) Excessive thirst
4. (c) Excessive hunger
5. (d) Lack of blood flow to the heart muscle.

V. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Cirrhosis is caused in the liver due to excessive use of _______.
Answer:
Alcohol.

Question 2.
A highly poisonous chemical derived from tobacco is _______.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 3.
Blood cancer is called _______.
Answer:
Leukaemia.

Question 4.
Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called _______.
Answer:
Tolerance.

Question 5.
Insulin resistance is a condition in _______ diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
Type – 2.

VI. Analogy Type Questions.

Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

Question 1.
Communicable : AIDS :: Non – communicable : _______.
Answer:
Obesity.

Question 2.
Chemotherapy : Chemicals :: Radiation therapy : _______.
Answer:
Radiation.

Question 3.
Hypertension : Hypercholesterolemia :: Glycosuria : _______.
Answer:
Polyphagia.

VII. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
The drugs which act on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception, are called Psychotropic drags. They are also called Mood altering drugs.

Question 2.
Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema hypoxia, lung cancer, hypertension gastric and duodenal ulcer are diseases caused be tobacco smoke.

Question 3.
What are the contributing factors for obesity?
Answer:
Obesity is due to genetic factors, physical inactivity, overeating and endocrine factors.

Question 4.
What is adult onset diabetes?
Answer:
Type-2 Non Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM) is called as adult onset diabetes.

Question 5.
What is metastasis?
Answer:
The Cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues and this process is called Metastasis.

Question 6.
How does insulin deficiency occur?
Answer:
Insulin deficiency occur due to the destruction of B – cells of the pancreas, characterized by abnormally elevated blood glucose level resulting from inadequate insulin secretion.

VIII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
HIV is transmitted generally by:

1. Sexual contact with infected person
2. Use of contaminated needles or syringes especially in case of intravenous drag abusers
3. By transfusion of contaminated / infected blood or blood products (iv) From infected mother to her child through placenta.

Question 2.
How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy the surrounding tissue, forming a tumour or neoplasm. It is a heterogeneous group of cells, that do not respond to the normal cell division. The cancer cells move to distant parts of bodies such as lungs, bones, liver, skin and brain.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Type-1 Diabetes mellitus	Type-2 Diabetes mellitus
1. People with type – 1 diabetes do not produce insulin in the pancreas.	1. People with type – 2 diabetes do not respond to insulin.
2. the immune system destroys insulin – producing beta cells in the pancreas.	2. People with type – 2 diabetes are Insulin Resistant. The body produces insulin but unable to use effectively.
3. Cannot be controlled without taking insulin.	3. Possible to treat initially without medication or treating with tablets.

Question 4.
Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity has a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. To avoid the dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

Question 5.
What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
Answer:
Diet Management: Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol – rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the Dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins are needed.

• Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for bodyweight maintenance.
• Avoid Addictive substances: Alcohol consumption, Psychotropic drugs and smoking are to be avoided.

IX. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
Answer:
Education and counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
Physical activity : Individuals undergoing rehabilitation should be channelized into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.

Seeking help from parents and peer groups : When a problematic situation occurs, the affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety, wrong dping and get rid of the habit.

Medical assistance : Individual should seek help from psychologists and psychiatrists to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.

Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the individual so that they could get rid of the problem completely and can lead a normal and healthy life.

Question 2.
Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for the occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Answer:
The lifestyle can be modified to prevent cardiovascular diseases. These are the measures for prevention:

• Do not smoke or use Tobacco.
• Do Exercise for about 30 minutes.
• Eat a heart-healthy diet.
• Reduce the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
• Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential.
• Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins are essential.
• Maintain a healthy weight.
• Get enough quality sleep.
• Manage stress.
• Get regular health screens.
• Control Blood pressure.
• Keep the cholesterol and triglyceride levels under control.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis?
Answer:
The deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessels gradually develops from which form a fatty streak called plaque. This blocks the pathway of blood flow by narrowing the blood vessels leading to atherosclerosis.

Question 2.
Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still, children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food / consumption of soft drinks?
Answer:
Suggestions, to avoid children, eating Junk food / consumption of soft drinks.

• Carry a water bottle and drink water.
• Instead of soft drinks, drink fruit juices, sports drinks or energy drinks.
• Base meals around protein, legumes, chickpeas, kidney beans and nuts, etc.
• Avoid getting extremely hungry.
• Fight stress.
• Practice mindful eating.
• Have a piece of fruit, yoghurt, or some crackers.

Question 3.
Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of the human body. What are the advantages of practising exercise in daily life?
Answer:

1. Physical exercises help us to live longer and prevent many chronic diseases.
2. It improves cardiorespiratory and muscular fitness.
3. It reduces stress, anxiety and depression and improves our mood.
4. Improves sleep quality and overall quality of life.

Question 4.
A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that a number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against the dreadful disease.
(a) What problem do you face when trying to educate the people in your village near your school?
(b) How do you overcome the problem?
Answer:
(a) The main problem, we face, is as follows:

• AIDS patients find it difficult to accept the news.
• Many people are afraid of telling others because they feel ashamed or they are worried about being rejected.
• AIDS patients are really discouraged with anxiety about their future.

(b)

• Confirm the disease by Western Blot Analysis or ELISA.
• Antiretroviral drugs and immunostimulating therapy can prolong the life of the infected person.
• Do not tell anyone about our friend’s HIV.
• Be there to talk to them.
• Do things together that can reduce stress. Go for a walk. Do something that we enjoy with our AIDS patient friend.
• Advice the patient friend to avoid activities that have bad health effects like smoking.
• Patients with HIV / AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

XI. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
Answer:
The addictive potential of the drugs pulls the individual into a viscous cycle leading to regular abuse and depending. Moreover, some drugs act in the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception.

Question 2.
Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide of tobacco smoke binds to the haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen-carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.

Question 3.
Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
Answer:
Refined sugar, carbohydrates rich food and high fat content rich foods should be avoided.
Low carbohydrate and fibre rich diet. Diet comprising whole grains, millet, green leafy vegetables should be included in the diet.

Question 4.
How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
Answer:

• Find the latest information about viral suppression and Viral Load Monitoring.
• Find the latest prevention and how to talk with patients with HIV about, what it means for them.
• Learn how HIV care providers, can identify and address mental health and substance use disorders to help patients, adhere to HIV treatment and remain in care.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion Mid Reason is true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: All drugs act on the brain.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in the urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collect pictures of people affected by tobacco chewing and tobacco smoking. Identify which part of the body is affected and the health hazards it can lead to?
Answer:
The students should collect pictures of people affected by Tobacco Chewing and Tobacco smoking.
Health Hazards: Affected part is mouth on Tobacco Chewing. Chewing Tobacco causes mouth cancer, throat cancer, soreness, gum diseases, tooth decay, tooth loss, possible links to other cancer and Cardiovascular diseases.

Tobacco smoking causes Lung diseases causing damaging alveoli, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, cough, cold, wheezing, asthma, pneumonia and lung cancer. It also affects the central nervous system, increases blood pressure and heartbeat. It also damages DNA.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of individuals with normal liver and alcoholic liver, compare and indicate the changes you find in them.
Answer:

• The students should collect pictures of normal liver and alcoholic liver.
• Normal liver: Under normal circumstances, the normal liver is smooth with no irregularities. The enzymes mostly reside within the cells of the liver.

Fatty liver disease occurs as a result of alcohol drinking, which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues, which replaces the normal liver tissue.

Question 3.
Prepare a chart showing the food items which are preferable and which should be avoided to prevent high blood pressure and heart disease. Apart from diet what are the other lifestyle modifications to be followed to manage this condition?
Answer:

1. Food items which are preferable: Whole grains, fruits and vegetables, low – fat dairy products, Green tea, Hibiscus tea, Pineapple juice and low carbohydrate food items.
2. Food items to be avoided: Salt, Meat, Pickles, Canned Soups, Tomato products, sugar, packaged foods, White bread and packaged snacks, etc.

Other Life Style Modification:

• Exercise for about 30 minutes.
• Eat a heart-healthy diet.
• Do not smoke or use tobacco.
• Get regular health screenings.
• Get enough quality sleep.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Tobacco is obtained from the Tobacco plant _____ and ______.
Answer:
Nicotiana tobacco and Nicotiana rustica.

Question 2.
The increased urine output, leading to dehydration is termed as ______.
Answer:
Polyuria.

Question 3.
The inflammation of throat and bronchi due to smoke of Tobacco lead to the conditions of _____ and ______.
Answer:
Bronchitis and Pulmonary tuberculosis.

Question 4.
The study of cancer is called ______.
Answer:
Oncology.

Question 5.
The uncontrolled division of cells destroy the surrounding tissue forming a tumour or ______.
Answer:
Neoplasm.

Question 6.
_____ and ______ hydrocarbons present in tobacco smoke is carcinogenic causing Lung cancer.
Answer:
Benzopyrene and Polycyclic.

II. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ for the following statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
The psychological dependent persons feel that drugs do not help them to reduce stress.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The psychological dependent persons feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.

Question 2.
Individuals should seek help from psychologists and psychiatrists to get relief from alcohol abuse.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Tobacco chewing does not cause oral cancer.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer.

Question 4.
In Type – 2 Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus, the target cells respond to insulin and allow the movement of glucose into cells.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In Type – 2 Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus, the target cells do not respond to insulin and does not allow the movement of glucose into cells.

Question 5.
Low Carbohydrate food in the form of starch, complex sugars, and fibre-rich diets are more appropriate for the Dietary management pf Diabetes.
Answer:
True.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

Question 1.

1. CVD
2. HDL
3. PUFA
4. NACO
5. NGO
6. ELISA
7. WHO
8. NCPCR
9. CPCR
10. LOL
11. UV rays.

Answer:

1. Cardio-vascular Disease
2. High-Density Lipoprotein
3. Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids
4. National AIDS Control Organization
5. Non-Government Organization
6. Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay
7. World Health Organization
8. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
9. Commission for Protection of Child Rights
10. Low-Density Lipoprotein
11. Ultra Violet rays.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Psychotropic drugs	(a) Nicotine
2. Chronic metabolic disorder	(b) Emphysema
3. Addiction to Tobacco	(c) Polyphagia
4. Excess hunger	(d) Polydipsia
5. Inflammation of lung alveoli	(e) Mood Altering drugs
6. Loss of water leads to thirst	(f) Diabetes Mellitus

Answer:

1. (e) Mood Altering drugs
2. (f) Diabetes Mellitus
3. (a) Nicotine
4. (c) Polyphagia
5. (b) Emphysema
6. (d) Polydipsia.

V. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When powdered tobacco is taken through the nose, it is called ______.
(a) smoking
(b) stimulant
(c) snuffing
(d) addiction.
Answer:
(c) snuffing

Question 2.
Causative factor of cancer is called:
(a) Oncogenes
(b) Radiogenes
(c) Oestrogenes
(d) Carcinogens
Answer:
(d) Carcinogens

Question 3.
Insulin deficiency due to the destruction of β – cells occur in ______.
(a) IDDM
(b) BMI
(c) NIDDM
(d) CVD.
Answer:
(a) IDDM

Question 4.
Which is not cancer?
(a) Leukaemia
(b) Glaucoma
(c) Sarcoma
(d) Carcinogen
Answer:
(b) Glaucoma

Question 5.
The HIV Virus attack the body’s disease – fighting mechanism and the individual is prone to infectious diseases.
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Thrombocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) platelets.
Answer:
(c) Lymphocytes

VI. Write the correct dates for the following:

Question 1.

1. December 1st
2. 4th February
3. 7th November
4. May 31st
5. June 26th.

Answer:

1. World AIDS Day
2. World Cancer day
3. National Cancer awareness day
4. No Tobacco Day or World Anti-Tobacco day
5. International day against Drug abuse and Illicit Trafficking.

VII. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
What are stimulants?
Answer:
Drugs that increase the activities of Central Nervous System.

Question 2.
What is abuse? What does it include?
Answer:
Abuse refers to cruel, violent, harmful or injurious treatment of another human being. It includes physical, emotional or psychological, verbal, child and sexual abuses.

Question 3.
List the instruction to be given to prevent child sexual abuse.
Answer:

1. Do not talk to any suspected person or strangers and to maintain a distance.
2. Not to be alone with unknown person.
3. To be careful while travelling alone in public or private transport:
4. Not to receive money, toys, gifts or chocolates from known or unknown person to them without the knowledge of their parents.
5. Not to allow known or unknown person to touch them.

Question 4.
What is an addiction? What is the effect of addiction on individuals?
Answer:
The physical and mental dependency on – alcohol, smoking and drugs are called addiction. The addictive potential of these substances pulls an individual into a vicious cycle leading to regular abuse and dependency.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms of diabetes?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is associated with several metabolic alterations. The most important symptoms are

1. Increased blood glucose level (Hyperglycemia).
2. Increased urine output (Polyuria) leading to dehydration.
3. Loss of water leads to thirst (Polydipsia) resulting in increased fluid intake.
4. Excessive glucose excreted in urine (Glycosuria).
5. Excess hunger (Polyphagia) due to loss of glucose in urine.
6. Fatigue and loss of weight.

Question 6.
Explain the types of cancers on the basis of the tissues from which they are formed?
Answer:
Cancers are classified on the basis of the tissues, from which they are formed:

• Carcinomas arise from epithelial and glandular tissues.
• Sarcomas occur in connective and muscular tissue. They include the cancer of bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose tissue and muscles.
• Leukaemia is characterised by an increase in the formation of white blood cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes Leukaemia is called blood cancers.

Question 7.
Name the test done to diagnosis Aids.
Answer:
The presence of HIV virus can be confirmed by western Blot analysis or Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

Question 8.
What is the treatment of cancer and the preventive measures for cancer?
Answer:
The treatment of cancer involves the following methods:

• Surgery: Tumours are removed by surgery to prevent further spread of cancer cells.
• Radiation therapy: Tumour cells are irradiated by lethal doses of radiation while protecting the surrounding normal cells.
• Chemotherapy: It involves the administration of anticancerous drugs, which prevent cell division and are used to kill cancer cells.
• Immunotherapy: Biological response modifiers like interferons are used to activate the immune system and help in destroying the tumours.

Preventive measures for cancer:

• Cancer control programmes should focus on primary prevention and early detection.
• To prevent lung cancer, tobacco smoking is to be avoided.
• Protective measures to be taken against exposure to toxic pollutants of industries.
• Excessive exposure to radiation is to be avoided to prevent skin cancer.

Question 9.
Explain the symptoms and treatment of AIDS.
Answer:

• Infected individuals become immunodeficient.
• The person becomes more susceptible to viral, bacterial, protozoan and fungal diseases.
• Swelling of lymph nodes, damage to the brain, loss of memory, lack of appetite and weight loss, fever, chronic diarrhoea, cough, lethargy, pharyngitis, nausea and headache.

1. Diagnosis: The presence of the HIV virus can be detected by Western Blot Analysis or Enzyme – Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay (ELISA).
2. Treatment: Anti – retroviral drugs and immunostimulating therapy can prolong the life of the infected person.

Question 10.
Briefly note down the prevention and control of AIDS.
Answer:
The following steps help in controlling and preventing the spreading of HIV:

• Screening of blood from blood banks for HIV, before transfusion.
• Ensuring the use of disposable needles and syringes in hospitals and clinics.
• Advocating safe sex and the advantages of using condoms.
• Creating an awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS.
• Persons with HIV / AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

Question 11.
What is obesity and body mass Index?
Answer:
Obesity is the state in which there is an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight.
Body Mass Index (BMI) is an estimate of body fat and health risk.
BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m)²

Question 12.
What are the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease?
Answer:
Hypercholesterolemia (High blood cholesterol) and high blood pressure (Hypertension) are the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease.

1. Heredity (family history)
2. Diet rich in saturated fat and cholesterol
3. Obesity, increasing age
4. Cigarette smoking
5. Emotional stress
6. Sedentary lifestyle
7. Excessive alcohol consumption and
8. Physical inactivity are some of the causes.

VIII. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

Question 1.
Drug abuse : addictive drug :: Tobacco chewing : ______.
Answer:
Oral cancer or mouth cancer.

Question 2.
Insulin : Diabetes :: Benzopyrene : ______.
Answer:
Lung cancer.

Question 3.
Disease of heart and blood vessels : Cardiovascular disease :: Deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessel : ______.
Answer:
Coronary Heart Disease (CHD).

Question 4.
Deficient blood supply to heart muscle : Ischemia :: Death of the heart muscle tissue : ______.
Answer:
Myocardial Infarction.

Question 5.
HIV Virus : ELISA :: Leukaemia : ______.
Answer:
Blood cancer.

X. Explain the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the approaches for protection of an abused child and the prevention of child sexual abuse.
Answer:

• Child helpline: The Child Helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection.
• Counselling the child: Psychologists and social workers should provide guidance, counselling and continous support to a victim child.
• Family support: The victimized child should be supported by the family members. They should provide proper care and attention to child to overcome his/her sufferings.
• Medical care: A child victim of sexual offences should receive medical care and treatment from health care professionals to overcome mental stress and depression.
• Legal Counsel: The family or the guardian of the child victim shall be entitled to free assistance of a legal counsel for such offence.
• Rehabilitation: Enrolling in schools and resuming their education is an important step towards the rehabilitation of the child.
• Community – based efforts: Conducting awareness campaign on child abuse and its prevention.

Question 2.
List out the harmful effects of Alcohol to health.
Answer:
Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance. Some of the harmful effects are:

1. Nerve cell damage resulting in various mental and physical disturbances.
2. Lack of co-ordination of body organs.
3. Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
4. Dilation of blood vessels which may affect functioning of the heart.
5. Liver damage resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
6. Body loses its control and consciousness eventually leading to health complications and ultimately to death.

Question 3.
Explain in detail the Smoking Hazards and effects of Tobacco. How can it be prevented?
Answer:
When smoke is inhaled, the chemicals get absorbed by the tissues and cause the following harmful effects:

• Benzopyrene and polycyclic hydrocarbons present in Tobacco smoke are carcinogenic causing lung cancer.
• Causes inflammation of throat and bronchi leading to conditions like bronchitis and pulmonary tuberculosis.
• Inflammation of lung alveoli, decrease surface area for gas exchange and cause emphysema.
• Carbon monoxide of Tobacco smoke binds to the haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen-carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.
• Increased blood pressure caused by smoking leads to increased risk of heart disease.
• Causes increased gastric secretion which leads to gastric and duodenal ulcers.
• Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer (mouth cancer).

Prevention: Adolescents and old people need to avoid these habits. Proper counselling and medical assistance can help an addict to give up the habit of smoking.

XI. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What do the following symbols represent?

Answer:
(a) 1. No Smoking
2. No Alcohol
3. No Psychotropic drugs
(b) 4. No – International Tobacco day
5. Inflammation of Lung Alveoli and decreased surface area.

Question 2.
Some human diseases are transmitted only through blood in one of such diseases, there is a progressive decrease in the number of lymphocytes of the patient.
(a) Name the disease and its causative agent.
(b) Write any two symptoms of it.
Answer:
(a) Name the disease is the AIDS caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
(b) Weight loss and lack of appetite are the symptoms of AIDS.

Question 3.
Which is the desirable blood cholesterol level for Indians?
Answer:
200 mg / dl.

Question 4.
Which cholesterol lowers the risk of heart disease and which cholesterol increases the risk of heart diseases?
Answer:

• HDL (High – Density Lipoprotein) or good cholesterol lowers the risk of heart disease.
• LDL (Low – Density Lipoprotein) or bad cholesterol increases the risk of heart diseases.

Question 5.
What are the two types of tumours?
Answer:

• Benign tumours or Non – malignant tumours: Remain confined in the organ affected and do not spread to other parts of the body.
• Malignant tumours: Mass of proliferating cells, which grow very rapidly invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.

Question 6.
Name some foods which help to reduce blood sugar levels.
Answer:
Flax seeds containing insoluble fibre, Guava, Tomatoes and spinach are the foods, which helps to reduce blood sugar levels.

You can Download The Last Lesson Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Attempt all english grammar practice sections covered in the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Book and excel in reading, writing, and speaking english with great fluency.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Prose Chapter 6 The Last Lesson

The Last Lesson Warm up:

A. Fill the globe with an acrostic poem.

Answer:

B. How can you make the world a better place?

While “making the world a better place” often calls to mind the image of Michael Jackson’s song, ‘Heal the world’, there is plenty of room for less lofty acts that create small measures of happiness in the lives of those around us. Little gesticulations can create or fortify our sense of community and of the shared human race, lessening our problems for just a moment and giving us something to smile about.

C. What does the picture symbolise?
Answer:
The picture symbolises Peace and tranquillity.

D. Find the names of the various UN organizations with the logo given below and fill in the blanks.

Answer:

The Last Lesson Intext Questions

Question a.
What kind of news was usually put up on the bulletin board?
Answer:
All bad news like lost battles, the draft, the orders of the commanding officer, came from the Bulletin board.

Question b.
What was the usual scene when school began every day?
Answer:
When school began every day, there used to be great excitement. The moving sound of the desks, the lesson repeated by the students, the teacher’s ruler knocking on the table.

Question c.
Other than the students, who were present in the class?
Answer:
The village people, old Hauser, the former mayor, the former postmaster, and several others were present in the class, besides the students.

Question d.
Why did Mr. Hamel say it was the last French lesson?
Answer:
The order had come from Berlin to teach German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. So M. Hamel said that it was the last French lesson.

Question e.
What was Franz asked to tell? Was he able to answer?
Answer:
Franz was asked to recite the rule for participle all through. But he got mixed up on the first words and stood there nervous.

Question f.
Why did Mr.Hamel blame himself?
Answer:
He had often sent his pupils to water his plants instead of studying at school.

Question g.
What did M. Hamel say about the French language?
Answer:
M. Hamel said that French was the most beautiful language in the world – the clearest, the most logical, and that they must guard it and never forget it.

Question h.
How many years had M. Hamel been in the village?
Answer:
M. Hamel had been in the village for forty years.

The Last Lesson Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Why did Franz dread to go to a school that day?
Answer:
M. Hamel said that he would ask questions on participles. So he dreaded going to school that day.

Question 2.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The day was warm and bright. The birds were chirping and in the open field back of the sawmill, the Prussian soldiers were drilling.

Question 3.
Why was the narrator not able to get to his desk without being seen?
Answer:
The school was unusually calm. His classmates were already in their places and M. Hamel was walking up and down with his terrible iron ruler.

Question 4.
What was Franz sorry for?
Answer:
Franz was sorry for not learning his lessons, for having found his books heavy and his history of the saints, were old friends, now that he couldn’t give up. He also felt sorry for Hamel who was going away.

Question 5.
Why were the old villagers sitting in the last desk?
Answer:
The old villagers were sitting in the last desk to honour and thank M. Hamel.

Question 6.
What were the thoughts of the narrator’s parents?
Answer:
The narrator’s parents preferred to send him to work on a farm or at the mills so as to have a little more money.

Question 7.
Why does M. Hamel say that we must guard our language?
Answer:
M. Hamel says that we must guard our language because it must be used as a key to the prison of the enslaved.

Question 8.
M. Hamel was gazing at many things. What were they?
Answer:
M.Hamel was gazing at his garden outside the window, his class in front of him, the walnut- trees in the garden and the hop vine that he had planted twined about the windows to the roof, with a broken heart that he is leaving all.

Question 9.
When and how did M. Hamel bid farewell to the class?
Answer:
When the church clock struck twelve, M. Hamel stood up and wrote, “Long Live France” on the board. Thus he bid farewell to the class.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What was Franz expected to be prepared with for school that day?
Answer:
That day Franz was expected to be prepared with participles because M. Hamel had said that he would question them on participles. Franz did not know anything about participles.

Question 2.
What had been put up on the bulletin- board?
Answer:
An order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. The Germans had put this notice upon the bulletin-board.

Question 3.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board-the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Question 4.
Who was Wachter? What did he ask Franz and why? How did Franz react?
Answer:
Wachter, a blacksmith was reading the latest bulletin. He asked Franz not to rush to his school and said that he would get to his school well ahead of time. Franz thought that the blacksmith was making fun of him not realizing the order that was announced. So, he ignored Wachter and rushed so that he would escape M. Hamel’s rebuke.

Question 5.
What changes did the order from Berlin cause in school that day?
Answer:
M. Hamel had put on his best dress-his beautiful green coat, his frilled shirt and the little black silk cap, all embroidered. The whole school seemed so strange and solemn. On the backbenches that were always empty, the elderly village people were sitting quietly like the kids.

Question 6.
Why was Franz not scolded for reaching the school late that day?
Answer:
Franz was late for school. Usually, there was a great hustle and bustle in the morning. He had anticipated taking benefit of that noise and hubbub. He wanted to get to his desk without being noted. But that day he had to go in before everybody. M. Hamel politely requested him to take his seat without scolding him as it was Hamel’s last lesson of French in that school.

Question 7.
What did Franz wonder about when he entered the class that day?
Answer:
M. Hamel was to question the students on participles and Franz knew nothing about them and feared caning or scolding. He wondered about the big crowd he had seen around the notice board at the Town Hall and also the empty back benches filled by the villagers including the Mayor and the Postmaster.

Question 8.
What happened when the lesson in History was over?
Answer:
After the History lesson, the babies chanted their ba, be, bi, bo, bu. Old Hauser, who was sitting at the back of the room had put on his spectacles. He was holding his primer in both hands and was spelling the last lesson. He was seated motionless in his chair during the writing lesson. He gazed at one thing or the other. Perhaps he wanted to fix in his mind how everything looked in that little schoolroom. Surely, it must have pained his heart to leave his familiar spot after forty long years.

Question 9.
“He had the courage to hear every lesson to the very last.” What led Franz to make this remark?
Answer:
Franz observed that M. Hamel was feeling sad to leave the place after forty years and not being allowed to teach French any longer. Yet, he did not emote his feelings. Rather, he performed his duties faithfully listening to every lesson to the last till the school was dismissed at mid-day prayer time.

B. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
Introduction:
The Last Lesson prose was written by Alphonse Daudet. The Last lesson is set in the days of the Franco-Prussian war. This lesson is an acknowledgment of the narrator’s sense of loss over French.

The Narrator:
Alsace and Lorraine fell into the hands of Prussians. They wanted them to learn and speak only German in their nation. The narrator was a student named Franz. That morning he is late. He is afraid. M. Hamel told his students the previous day that he would ask questions on participles. The narrator doesn’t know anything. The scene outside is attractive. He is tempted to skip the class.

The News:
Franz walks past the town hall. He sees a huge crowd at the notice board. All news regarding the occupation of France is displayed on it. He keeps walking to school.

Unusual Scene at School:
Franz peeps inside the class. His classmates are already seated. His teacher is walking in the class with the ruler under his arms. M. Hamel politely asks him to go to his seat. The whole school seems strange to Franz. M. Hamel was in his Sunday’s best dress. The villagers are sitting quietly on the backbenches.

The Last Lesson:
M. Hamel mounts the chair. He announces in the same sad and gentle voice. He told me that this is the last lesson. A new master comes the following day to teach German.

It is the narrator’s last French lesson. He feels sorry that he did not learn French, Franz did not know any word about participles. The French teacher M. Hamel calls Franz to recite about participles. Franz fails miserably. The French teacher M. Hamel did not scold Franz and blame himself for not doing enough to make his students learn French.

Importance of French:
M. Hamel says that French is the most beautiful language in the world. It is the clearest and most logical one. He wants the village people to guard the language. It is the language that frees a nation from being enslaved.

Conclusion:
The church clock strikes twelve. The trumpets of Prussians returning from drill is heard. M. Hamel writes in a huge manner “Vive La France” (Long live France) on the blackboard. Then he dismisses the class in a sad manner.

Question 2.
Give an account of the last day of M. Hamel in school.
Answer:
The story described what was just another ordinary day for Franz who started very late for school that morning. Franz, who played truant with the French class, feared M. Hamel’s iron rod. He came to the school thinking he would be punished as he had not learned his lesson on participles.

In fact, he was reluctant to go to school. Initially, he thought of spending the bright warm day outdoors enjoying the chirping of birds and seeing the drilling of Prussian soldiers at the back of the sawmill. On the way, Franz passed the Townhall, where he saw a large crowd reading the bulletin board which had been a source of all bad news.

Franz rushed to his classroom, overseeing it for the fear of being chided. When Franz arrived at the school, his classmates were already seated and the teacher had already started teaching. The backbenches were occupied by grim and solemn villagers including the Mayor, The Postmaster, Hauser, and many others. To his surprise, M. Hamel was in his Sunday clothes. Franz found M. Hamel to be kinder than usual. Franz was shocked to know that it was the last French lesson and the German teacher would start classes the next day. He was full of regret for not learning his mother tongue and felt a sudden love for French.

He even started liking M. Hamel and forgot all about his ruler. When M. Hamel asked Franz to recite the rules of the participle, he was petrified. M. Hamel didn’t scold him and remarked that the only problem with people of, Alsace was procrastinating learning. He blamed parents and himself for exploiting children. Hamel then talked of the French language, calling it the most beautiful language in the world. He said that when we were enslaved knowing our mother tongue was similar to having the key to prison. As the church clock bell struck twelve, M. Hamel with a choked throat wrote on the Blackboard Vive La France!, i.e. Long Live France, and dismissed the class.
‘Our memories of yesterday will last a lifetime.’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
‘The bird of love flies on two wings Faith and Dedicated Service.’

Question 2.
Justify the title ‘The Last Lesson’.
Answer:
The title The Last Lesson’ is noteworthy and conveys the principal theme of the story. The story has an appropriate and suggestive title. It highlights the fact that sometimes even the most precious things in our lives are taken for granted by us. The people of Alsace never give much thought or importance to their mother tongue, French. They least expect such a situation in their motherland. Parents prefer their children to go to the farm and bring an extra income rather than learn French.

They hardly encourage regular attendance in school. They think there will be plenty of time to leam the language in their life but it’s a sudden bolt from the blue when the order is announced. The order from Berlin to ban French and make German compulsory had to be accepted without any rejection. This ruthless order from Prussians makes them realise various things in life. The beginning of the story serves as preparation for it. The unusual quietness at school, presence of village elders and the teacher in his best Sunday dress—all point out to the unusual and unique occasion-the last lesson in French in a French village conquered by the Prussians. While delivering the last lesson, the teacher wants to transmit all his knowledge in one stretch. He explains everything with patience and the students as well as old villagers listen attentively.

As the teacher is unable to express his emotions because of choked throat, he ends the lesson by writing ‘Vive La France’ on the blackboard. He makes a gesture with his hand to indicate that the school is dismissed and students can go home. This was the last class of French. Hamel was the last teacher of the last French class. Perhaps this was the last attentive class too. Thus, the title The Last Lesson’ reveals the theme of the story and is fully justified.
‘Do it with passion The last may be sudden.’

Question 3.
Write a character sketch of little Franz. Franz was a typical schoolboy who played truant. He hated school or learning. He was afraid of his
Answer:
French Teacher M. Hamel’s ‘iron ruler’. He was more eager to spend his time outside the school. Many times, he missed the school and went in search of ‘bird’s eggs’. He preferred to watch the Prussian soldiers drilling at the saw-mill. He did not realise the importance of learning his mother tongue till the time his country passed into Prussian hands and teaching French was banned.

This was a rude shock to him when he came to school and found it to be his last French lesson. At this point, he lamented the loss of his language. His entire perspective towards the language and the teacher changed. He was surprised to learn and understand everything on the last day and did not find M. Hamel strict during the lesson nor did he find his teaching complicated. He felt he was able to understand the rules of grammar so very easily and thought it was his readiness to learn that mattered. He was really a child and was not able to understand the. severity of war and wondered whether the Pigeons would be made to coo in German too. Such was his innocence!
‘Thoughts change, Perceptions change, ‘Changes are inevitable.’

Question 4.
“Order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school.” Comment.
Answer:
The order from Berlin brought a sense of shock and surprise in the class. They were all dumbstruck. As per the order, this was the last French class. Alsace and Lorraine had been captured by the Prussians. So only German was to be taught in the schools. Hamel had to leave the next day. Now they all felt passionate about their mother tongue. All the eminent village elders felt guilty for neglecting their mother tongue.

Now they came to the class and showed their love and respect for their mother tongue. They were in awe for their French teacher M. Hamel. The entire school was filled with an air of repentance and guilt. There was complete quietness. The teacher, M. Hamel, was dressed at his best and was full of emotions. Even the students in the class, including little Franz, felt remorse for their indifference to their mother tongue. There was an atmosphere of stillness and quietness in the class.
‘Education prepares you for the future.’

Question 5.
Give a character sketch of M. Hamel.
Answer:
M. Hamel is a strict disciplinarian at a school in a village in the French districts of Alsace and Lorraine. M. Hamel is an experienced teacher who has been teaching in that village school for forty years. He imparts primary education in all subjects. He is a hard taskmaster and students like Franz, who are not good learners, are in great dread of being scolded by him. He loves his profession from the bottom of his heart and holds a deep sense of respect for the mother tongue.

The latest order of the Prussian conquerors upset him. He has to leave the place forever and feels heartbroken. He feels sad but exercises self-control. He has the courage to hear every lesson to the last. This thought completely shatters a calm and composed man like M. Hamel. He tries his level best to remain calm and unruffled but breaks down at the end. His performance during the last lesson is exemplary. He is kind even to a latecomer like Franz. He uses a solemn and gentle tone while addressing the students.

He has a logical mind and can analyse problems and deduce the reasons responsible for it. He feels grief-stricken at the fact that people became indifferent to learning French. He charms them to keep their language alive. Hamel is a patriot in the real sense. He regards the mother tongue to be a means of holding one’s identity and self-respect. He knows the emotional hold of a language over its users. He is a good communicator and explains everything patiently. Partings are painful and being human, M. Hamel too is no exception. He fails to say goodbye as his throat is choked
‘Good teachers are rarity. M.Hamel is an exception to rarity!’

Vocabulary:

C. In column A are some of the idiomatic phrases from the essay. Match them with equivalent single words in column B:

Answer:

D. Frame sentences of your own using the above idiomatic phrases.

1. You will go far (succeed) if you learn to persevere and never give up.
2. I just knew that Sasikala would blow up (explode) as a result of her sustained anger.
3. The records show up (reveal) the true personality of the Managing Director of the factory.
4. This project calls on (requires) all the creative hands to launch it immediately.
5. Although Leela was angry, she did not want to break off (finish) her long relationship with Chandran.
6. I hate to knuckle under (submit) my boss, just to hold on to my job.

E. Given below are some idiomatic phrases. Find the meaning of it using the dictionary:

Frame sentences of your own to bring out the meaning.

1. Put on – (assume) They put on an American Accent which sounded perfect.
2. Come in – (join later) Ashish will sing the verse and then the rest of choristers will come in on the chorus.
3. Try again – (don’t quit) Oh common, just try again.
4. Walk away – (escape a danger) You were lucky to walk away from that ghastly car accident.
5. Time out – (a short break) Workaholics rush around so much nowadays that they all need a time out now and then.
6. Try again – (never give up) It’s hard at first to shift gears but try, try again till you feel at ease with changing gears.

Listening Activity

F. Listen to the article titled “Remembering Nel Jayaraman”

It must have been eight years ago I was at Thiruvarur to attend the Nel Thiruvizha (seed festival) organised by Jayaraman.
I went there to volunteer; I’d heard about him from organic farming pioneer G. Nammalvar and wanted to see if we could bring the varieties Jayaraman revived, to the market.

It was just a small affair then; some people attended. But the festival grew exponentially from then on; from 500, the number of participants went up to 1,500 next year; and then to 2,500, 5,000… there was no looking back. When I entered the village Adhirangam where the festival took place, I saw men carrying sacks of paddy, they came with five kilograms and returned with 10 kilograms the next year. That was how the seed exchange work.

I remember how Jayaraman cycled across villages to find traditional paddy seeds and distribute them. I asked him how he planned to carry his vision forward; what would he do for funds/ But he replied, “What do I need funds for ? I have seeds and my cycle will take me to everywhere. Or I’ll take a bus”.

If people called him asking for his number of varieties of seeds, he went directly to see to it – that they got what they wanted. I participated in the planning of his seed festivals.

But the man didn’t believe I going by a strict plan. He was always cool when those around him panicked. For instance, if I told him there were many people coming for the event and that we had to pain for meals and plates, he would respond unfettered, “Thambi, it’ll fall in place. If there are no plates we can buy banana leaves; if there’s no food. We can cook and serve rice, we have it in plenty, don’t we?”

What if the sound system doesn’t work, I insisted and he said.’Then we might have to speak louder”. I joked that I would refuse to come for planning meetings because anyway, he didn’t need them. On a serious note, all the festivals he organised went on smoothly, as he believed. During floods or droughts, he took the collector of Nagapattinam to show him how our traditional paddy withstood the forces of Nature.

He visited collectorates to submit petitions against genetically modified crops whenever he encountered them. Later in life, when his popularity grew, he spent more time in the field; but that’s where his heart was. Hundreds of people called me from India and abroad, enquiring about his health during his final days. He showed that if you worked selflessly for society, it will give back.

Student A: (interviewer) – Vanakkam sir. For what cause do you organise festivals?
Student B: ( NJ) – I organise these festivals with a difference. I present seeds to all the 1 participating farmers.
Student A: (interviewer) – Oh! That’s really good, Sir. What do you expect in return?
Student B : (NJ) – In return I expect them to have double the harvest next year.
Student A: (interviewer) – Where did you organise the NEL festival?
Student B:(NJ) – (1) ……………………………………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – Can you mention how many people congregated for the meeting?
Student B : (NJ) – (2) …………………………………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – What did you distribute to the farmers?
Student B : (NJ) – (3) ……………………………………………………………………………………
Student A: (interviewer) – How did you commute to each of these villages?
Student B : (NJ) – (4) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – Ayya, Do you plan your schedules?
Student B : ( NJ) (5) ……………………………………………………………….
Student B : ( NJ) – 1 have an alternative (6) ……………………………………………………………
Student A: (interviewer) – Where was your heart and soul?
Student B : (NJ) – (7) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – People say when your popularity grew, you spent less time in the field?
Student B : (NJ) – (8) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A : (interviewer) – What is your message to the world?
Student B :(NJ) – (9) ……………………………………………………………….
Student A: (interviewer) – Thank you, Sir. Nandri
Student B : (NJ) – Nandri.
Answers:

1. I organized the Nel festival at Thiruvarur.
2. Around 500 people congregated for the meeting.
3. I distributed traditional paddy seeds to the farmers.
4. I used to cycle across to these villages.
5. Yes, I do plan my seed festival schedules.
6. to everything – no plates meant that we could buy banana leaves; no food meant that we could cook and serve rice which was available in plenty; no mike meant that we have to just raise our voices and speak!
7. My heart and soul were in the field.
8. That’s the world we live in!
9. If you work selflessly for society, it will give back.

Speaking Activity:

G. A road map is given below. Answer the questions that follow with the help of the road map. Work in pairs and discuss to give directions to get to one place from another.

Answer:

Question 1.
You are on the market. You need directions to go to the pharmacy.
Answer:
From the market on George Street, go past two crossroads. After you cross the library and the bakery on the left, take your right on South road at the crossroads just before the Art Gallery. You will find a Gift shop as soon as you turn on the left side. After a kilometer or so you will find a Hospital on the left. Take left immediately and you will find the pharmacy just opposite the hospital on Central Avenue.

Question 2.
You are in a book shop. Ask your partner to direct you to the Art Gallery.
Answer:
Walk straight on Central Avenue and go past the School on your right. Proceed further and cross the Post office on the left. After a couple of buildings, take the immediate left on South Road. Walk down further till you arrive at the crossroads on George street. At the crossroads, you will find the Art Gallery, diagonally opposite to you on the right side on George Street.

Question 3.
Give your partner the directions to go from the Bank to the hotel.
Answer:
Go to the Bank out-gate on Park Street and take your left. Go past the Swimming pool on the left and take the right on George Street. Further down you will find a Police station on the right before the next crossroad at North Road. A few buildings after the North road crossing you will find the Hotel on the right side.

Question 4.
Direct your partner from the post office to the market.
Answer:
Use the gate on Central Avenue and take your right. Go past the Museum on the right and take the right turn on Park Street just before the Bank. Proceed further and keep left. You will find a Swimming pool on the left. Take the immediate right after the Swimming pool. You will find the Market just opposite to the Swimming pool on George Street.

Question 5.
Your partner wants to go to the library from school. Give suitable directions.
Answer:
Take the right on Central Avenue. Take the first right again on Park street. Keep to the left of Park Street and walk further. Cross the Bank and the Swimming pool till you reach the junction at George Street. Take your right and walk further. You will find the Library just opposite the Police station on George Street.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Direct your partner who had visited the museum with her family to go to the Gift Shop on South Road.
Answer:
Use the gate on Central Avenue and take your left. Go past the Post office on the left and take the left on South Road. Keep left and walk further. Cross the road to take the first lane on your right. You will find the Gift shop after three or four buildings on the left side of the road.

Question 2.
Guide a stranger from the Police Station to the Hospital.
Answer:
Take the right on George Street. Proceed further and cross the Hotel after the Crossroads of North Road. Take the right after the Hotel on South Road. Walk straight and go past the lane on the left. Take the left on Central Avenue at the Crossroads. You will find the Hospital on the left after a furlong or so.

Reading:

H. Read the poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Fill in the blanks.

1. (a) ………………………. is the festival which fills our hearts with delight.
(b) ………………….. is referred to as a festival of sacrifice.
(a) Festival of light
(b) Unfurling the joy of giving

2. What kind of joy is unfurled during the festival of sacrifice?
The joy of giving is unfurled during the festival of sacrifice.

3. How can we make our life worth living?
By celebrating all festivals well and nicely, we can make our life worth living.

4. What does the poet mean by ‘Festival of flowers’?
By festival of flowers, the poet means that they brighten up with colours.

5. When are we in a state of trance?
We are in a state of trance when we celebrate the festival of dance.

6. What do the people do when the festival of Music is celebrated?
They sing the joyous lyric when the festival of music is celebrated.

7. What makes us happy and free, according to the poet?
The festival of love spreads treasures on a tree, shares the word from above, and makes us happy and free.

8. Find out the rhyme scheme employed in the fourth stanza.
‘abab’ is the rhyme scheme employed in the fourth stanza.

9. Pick out the rhyming words from the first stanza of the poem.
‘Harvest-best; and light-delight’ are the rhyming words from the first stanza of the poem.

10. Write down the words that alliterate in the poetic lines below.

• Festival of Flowers
• That spreads treasures on a tree
• Festival of Flowers
• That spreads treasures on a tree

Writing:

I. Create posters for the following:

1. You are Raja/ Ranjani. Draft a poster to create awareness about the harmful effects of using plastics, in not more than 50 words

2. Say ‘No to Drugs’ – Design a poster for it in not more than 50 words. You may use slogans/ phrases.

3.“ Save our Earth” is the need of the hour. Draft a poster with attractive slogans/ phrases for the same in not more than 50 words. Use attractive drawings.

4. You are Sita/ Sudhan. Design a poster in not more than 50 words to focus on not wasting water. Be creative.

5. Good handwriting is the index of an individual. Design a poster on the importance of good handwriting. Use catchy slogans or phrases. Your poster should not exceed 50 words.

J. Draft Letters for the following

1. You are Ajeet, living in a remote village in Tirunelveli. You participated in a health camp organised by your school. You were surprised to observe that most of the residents were unaware of health and hygiene. As a concerned citizen, write a letter to the editor stating the need to organise such camps focusing on the importance of health and hygiene.
From
Mast. Ajeet.
SGH High School
Meviyar kuppam
Tenkasi
Tirunelveli district
20.10.2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
New Town
Tirunelveli
Respected Sir
Subject: Requisition for more Camps on Health and Hygiene
Recently the Health and Hygiene club of SGH High school at Meviyar Kuppam conducted a health camp on the school campus. Three doctors from the nearby Public Health Centre were kind enough to be a part of this successful camp.
I was quite shocked as the Secretary of the Health and Hygiene Club to note that most of the villagers who came that day were unaware of the importance of health and hygiene. It is also alarming to note that many of them needed immediate medical treatment.
As a well-wisher of the village community in Meviyar Kuppam, I request you to publish this article in your days so that the authorities in the Government Health Department will take the necessary steps to organize such camps frequently.
Thank you
Yours faithfully
Ajeet
To
The Editor
The Hindu
New Town
Tirunelveli

2. You are Sanjay. Your colony utilises solar energy to light the common areas. You find many friends of your colony forgetting to switch off the lights in the common area. As a responsible citizen, write a letter to a newspaper, echoing the importance to conserve and preserve solar energy.
From
Mr.Sanjay,
7, Shanaz street,
TNGO Colony,
Adambakkam,
Chennai – 600088
30th September 2020
To
The Editor
The Times of India
Chennai – 600001
Sir,
Sub: Importance of Conserving and Preserving Solar Energy Through the esteemed column of your daily, I wish to bring to the Readers the importance to conserve and preserve solar energy.

Our colony Samba colony at Adambakkam uses Solar energy to lighten up the common area. Though we may save on electricity charges, it is important that we reduce the usage of solar energy also when not needed. I had noticed that in many areas the lights are not switched off in the mornings.

Although it may not be obvious, there’s a direct connection between your energy use and the environment. When you consume less power, you reduce the number of toxic fumes released by power plants, conserve the earth’s natural resources and protect ecosystems from destruction. By taking steps to reduce your energy intake, you’ll contribute to a healthier and happier world. When you opt to cut back on energy use, you also help conserve limited natural resources that would otherwise be used to power the power plants. Less demand for energy creates less demand for harvesting fossil fuels.

Turning off the lights at night or washing clothes in cold water can save trees, coal, natural gas, and more. From an economic standpoint, it’s critical to conserve our finite resources. Reducing electricity use in your home – or going off the power grid with solar energy -can benefit the environment, conserve resources, and save lives. Although your own energy-saving adjustments may seem inconsequential, small steps become great leaps when multiplied by the number of people living in the vicinity. Thereby I appeal to all the importance to conserve and preserve energy resources and save Mother Earth and lead a pollution-free atmosphere.
Thank you
Yours faithfully
Sanjay
To
The Editor
The Times of India
Chennai – 600001

3. You are Sadasivam. You recently visited your native town in Vellore. You happened to accompany your grandmother to your family temple. You were shocked to notice the poor condition and maintenance of the temple. Write a letter to the Editor of the local newspaper highlighting the poor condition of the temple. Also, give some suggestions and request the HRC to take steps to improve the situation.
From
Mr.Sadasivam
Subash street
Sathuvachary
Vellore
21st June 2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Bose Bank Road
Vellore
Sir / Madam
Sub: Poor maintenance of the Temple
This is to bring to the notice of the authorities concerned over the deliberate damage done to Vinayagar Temple in Sathuvachary.
What shocks me most is the negligence and indifference of the civic authorities to the maintenance and conservation of these temples frequently visited by tourists. These temples are not only the irreplaceable symbols of our past culture and traditional importance but also a very rich source of earnings. If foreign and local tourists stop visiting these places because of poor maintenance, the consequences will be quite massive.
The damaged areas of these buildings must be improved and repaired. Installation of CCTV cameras, putting sentries on duty, sanitation, and providing some facilities for the tourists also must be looked into. In the absence of proper restrooms, the immediate surroundings of these places have become very unhealthy.
Through the columns of your venerated daily I appeal to the concerned authorities of HRC to look into the problem and do the needful. After all these temples are symbols and treasures of our cultural heritage.
Through this letter, let me request the public to showcase their civic responsibilities.
I also appeal to the authorities to take the necessary action to maintain a congenial atmosphere to worship the deity.
Yours truly,
Sadasivam
To
The Editor.
The Hindu
Bose Bank Road
Vellore

4. You are Sudha. Your neighbour has a pet dog that barks continuously. Write a letter to the Editor of a weekly newspaper of your locality, highlighting the nuisance and noise pollution created thus. Also, suggest ways to solve the problem.
From
Ms. Sudha,
Lawyer Road.
Medavakam
Chennai-89
4th July 2020
To
The Editor
The Indian Express
Sreyas Chamiers Towers,
Chamiers Road, Teynampet,
Chennai – 600 018
Sir,
Subject: Nuisance and Noise pollution
Through the esteemed columns of your daily/ newspaper, I wish to bring to your kind notice the sleepless nights we are having at home because of the continuous barking of the neighbour’s dog.
Noisy dogs are a common lawful argument. After all, while pet owners may feel irritation at a dog that barks at every little sound, a neighbour has unquestionably no control over teaching the dog not to retort in this manner.
I tried in vain to resolve the issue simply by talking with my neighbour, politely explaining my concerns, and asking if a compromise can be made that will satisfy both of us. However, my neighbour is unwilling to do what is necessary to quieten their pet without requiring me to take the next step.
I am writing to let the SPCA know that the dog’s barking has been disrupting our ability to have peace inside our home and in our back yard. I believe that if the dog isn’t chained, it might not bark at least in night. Please take the necessary action immediately so that we can have peaceful nights.
Yours sincerely,
Sudha
To
The Editor
The Indian Express
Chamiers Road, Teynampet,
Chennai – 600 018

5. You are Raja. The street lights of your area do not work properly. As a responsible citizen, write a letter to the newspaper enlightening them about the problem and also suggest ways to brighten the area.
From
Mr. Raja,
17-A, Abraham Street,
Nellikuppam,
Royapuram,
Chennai – 13
12.11.2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Anna Salai
Chennai – 2
Sir,
Sub: Dark Roads lead to Chain Snatching
I am writing to your esteemed self to express my deep concern and anguish over the poor state of street lights in our colony. Almost all the street lights are not burning. After it gets dark, moving on the colony streets is unsafe and perilous. Many chain snatching incidents have happened owing to poor visibility on the roads. Even mobile phones and purse snatching cases have also been reported. We fear other antisocial activities to be on the rise.
Through the medium of your esteemed daily, I appeal to the concerned authorities in the municipal corporation to look into the matter and make the street lights functional again in the Nellikupam area.
I hope you will give space to my voice in your esteemed daily.
Thank you
Raja
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Anna Salai
Chennai – 2

Grammar

A. Fill in the blanks appropriately:

1. Mahatma Gandhi ……………….. the father of our nation.
2. There ………………. ten dogs in my street.
3. They …………….. to write the exercises neatly.
4. Buttermilk …………….. good for health.
5. Fruits ……………… good for health.

Answers:

1. is
2. are
3. have
4. is
5. are

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate verb:

1. The quality of dal …………………. not good.
2. The horse carriage …………………… at the door.
3. My friend and teacher ……………….. come.
4. …………….. your father and mother at home?
5. Honour and glory ………………… his reward.
6. The ship with its crew ………………… sailing good.
7. Gullivers Travels ………………….. an excellent story.
8. Neither food nor water ………………… found here.
9. Mathematics ………………. a branch of study.
10. Fifteen minutes …………………… allowed to read the question paper.

Answers:

1. is
2. is
3. has
4. is
5. is
6. is
7. is
8. is
9. is
10. is

C. Change the singular nouns to plurals by either adding ‘s’, ‘ies’, ‘es\ ‘ves

D. Identify the non-finite in the following sentences and underline them
E. g., Children love eating chocolates

1. Roshan dreams of becoming an architect.
Answer:
Roshan dreams of becoming an architect.

2. We must aim at fulfilling Dr. AP J Abdul Kalam’s dream to make India the most developed country by 2020.
Answer:
We must aim at fulfilling Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam’s dream to make India the most developed country by 2020.

3. Taking the children to the museum is Seema’s responsibility.
Answer:
Taking the children to the museum is Seema’s responsibility.

4. Having finished the work, the manager decided to return home.
Answer:
Having finished the work, the manager decided to return home.

5. Travelling with her family, Tara enjoyed every minute of it.
Answer:
Travelling with her family, Tara enjoyed every minute of it.

E. Replace the underlined words by a participle in the following sentences:

Example: When young people wear soiled clothes on formal occasions to show rebelliousness.
Answer:
Young people wear soiled clothes on formal occasions to show rebelliousness.

1. While Sudha was climbing the stairs, she tripped and fell down.
Answer:
While climbing the stairs, Sudha tripped and fell down.

2. After her evening prayers, my grandmother went to the temple.
Answer:
Having said her evening prayers, my grandmother went to the temple.

3. Since he is a king, he can order everybody.
Answer:
Being a King, he can order everybody.

4. They took the last wicket and walked back to the pavilion.
Answer:
Having taken the last wicket, they walked back to the pavilion.

5. When he saw the train in the platform he rushed.
Answer:
Seeing the train in the platform, he rushed.

F. Fill in the blank with the correct alternative:

1. ………………….. on the flute, Krishna returned it. (played/having played)
2. We wish she continues ……………….. healthy, (being /be)
3. The doctor advised him against ………………. in the sun. (wander/wandering)
4. I like ………………………. rasam. (drinking/drink)
5. …………………. the scissors I returned it to her. (using/having used)

Answers:

1. Having played
2. being
3. wandering
4. drinking
5. Having used

G. Tick the correct sentences:

Answer:

The Last Lesson by Alphonse Daudet About the Author:
Alphonse Daudet born on 13th May 1840, was a French novelist and short story writer. His creativeness resulted in characters that were real and also typical. His other work includes Jack, a novel about an illegitimate child, a martyr to his mother’s selfishness, which followed in 1876, served only to deepen the same impression. Daudet died in Paris on 16 December 1897 and was interred at Pere Lachaise Cemetery. The story, ‘The Last Lesson’ highlights the pain that is inflicted on the people of a territory by its conquerors by taking away their right to study or speak their own language.

The Last Lesson Summary:

Introduction:
The Last Lesson is set in the days of the Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871) when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. The French districts of Alsace and Lorraine went into
Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers discontinued the teaching of French and introduced German in the schools of these two districts. The story deals with the theme of language imposition and language loyalty. The French teachers were asked to leave. Pmssia at that time, consisted of Germany, Poland and parts of Austria.

Worry of Franz
Franz started for school quite late that morning. He was afraid of being scolded by M. Hamel. He was to question them on participles and little Franz hadn’t studied. He wanted to spend the day out of doors admiring the warm bright day, chirping birds and the Prussian soldiers drilling in the open field back of the sawmill. But he resisted the temptation and rushed to school.

The idea that M. Hamel was going away made the narrator forget all about his iron ruler. Now Franz understood the situation well. The villagers were there to thank the master for his forty years of faithful service and to show their respect for the country that was theirs no more.

M. Hamel asked Franz to recite in vain. The teacher did not scold but confessed that his parents and he himself were at fault. Then he talked of the French language, the best in the world. He asked them to guard and never forget for it was the key to their prison. Then they had lesson in grammar and writing.

The pigeons cooed very low on the roof. Franz wondered if they would even make the pigeons sing in German. All the while M. Hamel was sitting motionless in his chair and gazing at one thing or the other. His sister was packing their trunks in the room above as they had to leave the country next day.

After writing, they had a lesson in history, and then the babies chanted their ba, be, bi, bo, bu. Even old Hauser was crying. All at once the church-clock struck twelve and then the mid-day prayers. At the same moment the trumpets of the Prussians, returning from drill, sounded under the windows.

M. Hamel stood up. He wanted to speak but something choked him. Then he took a piece of chalk and wrote on the blackboard as large as he could “Vive La France!” After this he stopped and leaned his head against the wall. Without a word, he made a gesture with his hand to indicate that the school was dismissed and they might go.

Now M. Hamel could no longer stay in his school. Still he gave a lesson to his students with utmost devotion and sincerity as ever.

Conclusion:
The author has expressed the true feeling of loyalty, duty and concern of a teacher towards his pupils. The helplessness of the citizens and the unawareness of the impending danger to the nation is portrayed well by the author.

The Last Lesson Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms:

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. I was in great dread of a scolding.
(a) fear
(b) tread
(c) walk
(d) footfall
Answer:
(a) fear

2. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods.
(a) cheating
(b) duplicitous
(c) tweeting
(d) clinging
Answer:
(c) tweeting

3. Wachter was there with his apprentice.
(a) appearance
(b) baggage
(c) calmness
(d) trainee
Answer:
(d) trainee

4. Usually, when school began, there was a great bustle.
(a) commotion
(b) bus
(e) haste
(d) silence
Answer:
(a) commotion

5. Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) discord
(b) harmony
(c) usage
(d) underway
Answer:
(b) harmony

6. The teacher’s great ruler rapped on the table.
(a) tapped
(b) sang
(c) reigned
(d) kept
Answer:
(a) tapped

7. I had counted on the commotion to get to my desk without being seen.
(a) blocked
(b) reckoned
(c) cancelled
(d) dreaded
Answer:
(b) reckoned

8. You can imagine how I blushed and how frightened I was.
(a) blamed
(b) beamed
(c) bleated
(d) flushed
Answer:
(d) flushed

9. Hauser had brought an old primer.
(a) prankster
(b) textbook
(c) guitar
(d) machine
Answer:
(b) textbook

10. I want you to be very attentive.
(a) attendance
(b) concentrating
(c) creative
(d) distracted
Answer:
(b) concentrating

Antonyms:

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. This lesson is set in the days of France-Prussian war.
(a) avarice
(b) battle
(c) combat
(d) peace
Answer:
(d) peace

2. The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

3. The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) liberated
(b) released
(c) conquered
(d) controlled
Answer:
(a) liberated

4. M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) beautify
(b) answer
(c) clarify
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(b) answer

5. The birds were chirping in the open field back of the saw mill.
(a) enrolled
(b) built-up
(c) enclosed
(d) vulnerable
Answer:
(c) enclosed

6. I had the strength to resist.
(a) asset
(b) forte
(c) weakness
(d) dream
Answer:
(c) weakness

7. There was a crowd in front of the bulletin-board.
(a) averse
(b) reverse
(c) anterior
(d) façade
Answer:
(b) reverse

8. Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go.
(a) hassled
(b) released
(c) relaxed
(d) Warmed
Answer:
(c) relaxed

9. Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) accord
(b) discord
(c) united
(d) ignited
Answer:
(b) discord

10. Everything had to be as quiet as Sunday morning.
(a) queer
(b) quaint
(c) noisy
(d) calm
Answer:
(c) noisy

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pure line selection
(d) hybridisation.
Answer:
(a) clonal selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komai is a disease resistant variety of:
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of ______.
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat.
Answer:
(d) wheat.

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is:
(a) IR 8
(b) IR 24
(c) Atomita 2
(d) Ponni
Answer:
(a) IR 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of:
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a ______.
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA
(d) satellite DNA.
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying sequences of DNA:
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as ______.
(a) transgenic organisms
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(a) transgenic organisms

Question 10.
In hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of chromosomes are:
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 1 and x = 1
(d) n = 21 and x = 7
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7

II Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ______.
Answer:
Breeding.

Question 2.
A protein rich wheat variety is ______.
Answer:
Atlas 66.

Question 3.
_______ is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
Answer:
Colchicine.

Question 4.
The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients is called ______.
Answer:
Biofortification.

Question 5.
Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but _____ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
Answer:
Atomita – 2 rice

Question 6.
_____ technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA.

Question 7.
Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as ______.
Answer:
Molecular scissors.

Question 8.
Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ______.
Answer:
Identical twins.

Question 9.
______ cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
Answer:
Pleuripotent.

Question 10.
In gene cloning, the DNA of interest is integrated in a ______.
Answer:
Vector [plasmid].

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

Question 1.
Raphano brassica is a man – made tetraploid produced by colchicine treatment.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.

Question 3.
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones.

Question 4.
Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Iron fortified rice variety determines the iron quality of the cultivated plant.

Question 5.
Golden rice is a hybrid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Golden rice is a genetically modified plant.

Question 6.
Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Molecular scissors refers to Restriction Enzymes.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Sonalika	(a) Phaseolus mungo
2. IR-8	(b) Sugarcane
3. Saccharum	(c) Semi-dwarf wheat
4. Mung No. 1	(d) Groundnut
5. TMV-2	(e) Semi-dwarf Rice
6. Insulin	(f) Bacillus thuringienesis
7. Bt toxin	(g) Beta carotene
8. Golden rice	(h) the first hormone produced using rDNA technique

Answer:

1. (c) Semi – dwarf wheat
2. (e) Semi – dwarf Rice
3. (b) Sugarcane
4. (a) Phaseolus mungo
5. (d) Groundnut
6. (h) the first hormone produced using rDNA technique
7. (f) Bacillus thuringienesis
8. (g) Beta carotene.

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) The assertion is correct and the reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

Question 1.
Assertion: Hybrid is superior to either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(a) The assertion is correct and the reason is wrong.

Question 2.
Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

Question 3.
Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Atlas 66, a protein-rich variety, having higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
Dee-geo-woo-gen a dwarf variety from China.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to another organism to create a new DNA called recombinant DNA (rDNA). Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology.

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells.
Answer:
Embryonic stem cells and somatic stem cells are the types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are called transgenic organisms.

Question 6.
State the importance of biofertiliser.
Answer:
Biofertilizer adds nutrients through the natural process of nitrogen fixation, stimulate the plant growth through the synthesis of growth-promoting substance.

VII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:
Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi. This affects crop yield. To develop disease-resistant varieties of crops, that would increase the yield and reduce the use of fungicides and bactericides are important. Some disease-resistant varieties are as follows:

Crop	Variety	Resistance to diseases
Wheat	Himgiri	Leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt
Cauliflower	Pusa Shubhra, Pusa Snowball K-1	Black rot
Cowpea	Pusa Komal	Bacterial blight

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:
Sonalika, kalyan and sona are the three improved characteristic of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine – rich maize hybrids, which are developed in India.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) Somatic gene therapy and germline gene therapy.
(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
(a) Somatic gene therapy and germline gene therapy.

Somatic gene therapy	Germline gene therapy
Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in somatic cells.	Germline gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in the germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.

Undifferentiated cells	Differentiated cells
Our body is composed of over 200 specialised cell types, that can carry out specific functions, eg. Neurons or nerve cells that can transmit signals. Pancreatic cells to secrete insulin. These specialised cells are called as differentiated cells.	The cells which are variable potency, undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells are called stem cells. The stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting:
(i) DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
(ii) It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in the regenerative process?
Answer:
Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations, stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases, which is called stem – cell therapy. In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Inbreeding:
When breeding or mating takes place between animals of the same breed, for about 4 – 6 generations, then it is called inbreeding. Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs. It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of undesirable genes. Inbreeding depression is the continued inbreeding, which reduces fertility and productivity. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

Outbreeding:
The breeding of unrelated animals is outbreeding. The offsprings formed are called hybrids. The hybrids are stronger and vigorous than their parents. Cross between two different species with desirable features of economic value is mated. Mule is superior to the horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases, but they are sterile.

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
Answer:

1. Increased production of milk by cattle.
2. Increased production of egg by poultry.
3. High quality of meat is produced.
4. Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
The mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. The genetic variations brings out changes in an organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.
The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. The mutagens are of two types:
(a) Physical mutagens: Radiations like X – rays, a, P and Y – rays, UV rays and temperature, etc, which induce, maturations are called physical mutagens.

(b) Chemical mutagens: Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens, eg. Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilization of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation inbreeding.
Achievements of mutation breeding:

• Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora – 64 by using gamma rays.
• Atomica – 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
• Groundnuts with thick shells.

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification: Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Some examples of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are given below:

1. Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids (developed in India).
2. Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
3. Iron rich fortified rice variety’.
4. Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:
The carbon copy or more appropriately, a clone means to make a genetically exact copy of an organism. ‘Dolly’ is the cloned sheep.

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell, where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides.
The basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

• Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
• Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (plasmid) to make rDNA.
• Transfer of rDNA into the bacterial host cell (Transformation).
• Selection and multiplication of the recombinant host cell to get a clone.
• Expression of the cloned gene in the host cell.

Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides that form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

1. Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
2. Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
3. Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
4. Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and prevent heart attack.
5. Development of vaccines against various diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
The list of character he will incorporate are:

1. High yielding and better quantity
2. Disease resistance
3. Insects pest resistance
4. Improved nutritional quality
5. Short duration

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Dwarfness is desired in cereals, so fewer nutrients are consumed by the crops.
• Fertilizer is responsive.
• Disease resistant varieties.
• Insect and pest resistant crop varieties.
• High levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than two set of chromosome is called polyploidy. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine. As organisms produced by polyploidy have more than two set of chromosomes they are gigantic.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with the genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’.
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i)  The P, Q and R:

• P – Beta – carotene gene.
• Q – Prevent vitamin A deficiency.
• R – Golden rice.

(ii) Importance of rice in India:

• Rice is the most important staple food for millions of people in developing countries like India.
• Beta – carotene is produced in the endosperm of the grain. It could control the chronic health problems caused by vitamin A deficiency, especially among the poor in developing countries like India.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Plant ______ is the art of developing economically important plants.
Answer:
Breeding.

Question 2.
Plant diseases are caused by ______ like viruses, bacteria and fungi.
Answer:
Pathogen.

Question 3.
______ is the first man – made cereal hybrid.
Answer:
Triticale.

Question 4.
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross-breeding is called _____ or ______.
Answer:
Heterosis
or
Hybrid vigour.

Question 5.
The other name for genetic engineering is ______.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA technology.

Question 6.
The organism which undergoes mutation is called a ______ and the factors which induce mutations are ______.
Answer:
Mutant; mutagenic agents.

Question 7.
The replacement of the defective gene in a germ cell (egg or sperm) is called ______.
Answer:
Germline gene therapy.

Question 8.
Blood clotting factors are developed to treat ______.
Answer:
Haemophilia.

Question 9.
Stem cells, which are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells can be used for the treatment is called ______.
Answer:
Stem cell therapy.

Question 10.
_______ is used in the treatment of diabetes.
Answer:
Insulin.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Cowpea	(a) Joining the DNA fragments
2. UV rays	(b) New breed of sheep
3. Lady’s finger	(c) Bacterial blight
4. DNA ligase	(d) Flat bean
5. Pusasem 3	(e) Pusa Sawani
6. Hissardale	(f) Induce mutation

Answer:
1. (c) Bacterial blight
2. (f) Induce mutation
3. (e) Pusa Sawani
4. (a) Joining the DNA fragments
5. (d) Flat bean
6. (b) New breed of sheep.

III. Write “True or False” statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
Modem Agricultural practices are activities carried out to improve the plants.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called outbreeding.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called inbreeding.

Question 3.
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called a selection.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called Exotic species.

Question 4.
The mutation is a sudden inheritable change in the nucleus sequence of DNA in an organism.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Mutation is a sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism.

Question 5.
A breed is a group of animals of common origin within a species, which has certain characters, that are not found in other members of the same species.
Answer:
True.

IV. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The high yielding rice variety from Indonesia and China are ______.
(a) Peta and DGWG
(b) IR-8 and Gold rice
(c) Hexaploid Triticale and Triticum durum
(d) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
(a) Peta and DGWG

Question 2.
First artificially synthesized hormone is:
(a) Secretin
(b) Insulin
(c) Glucagon
(d) Renin
Answer:
(b) Insulin

Question 3.
The presence of this substance in bacteria can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA ______.
(a) heritable
(b) colchicine
(c) mutation
(d) plasmid.
Answer:
(d) plasmid.

Question 4.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) stains have been used for designing novel.
(a) Bio-metallogical techniques
(b) Bio-insecticidal plants
(c) Bio-mineralization
(d) Bio-fertilizer
Answer:
(b) Bio-insecticidal plants

Question 5.
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction is called ______.
(a) Transgenic
(b) Hexaploid
(c) clones
(d) mutation.
Answer:
(b) Hexaploid

V. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
What is the green revolution? Who is the “Father of Green Revolution”?
Answer:
Green Revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques in underdeveloped and developing nations. Dr Norman. E. Borlaug, an American agronomist is the “Father of Green Revolution”.

Question 2.
Write the role of polyploidy in crop improvement.
Answer:
The role of polyploidy in crop improvement are production of:

1. Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
2. TV-29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
3. Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. To make this plant fertile polyploidy is induced. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
4. Raphanobrassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 3.
What is Bio – fortification? Give any two examples.
Answer:
Bio – fortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
Examples of crop varieties developed as a result of bio – fortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine – rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, A protein – rich wheat variety.

Question 4.
Give two examples of cross-breeding in animals.
Answer:
Cross breed of fowls: White Leghorn X Plymouth Rock
↓
Hybrid fowl – yield more eggs

Cross breed of cows : Developed by mating the bulls of exotic breeds and cows of indigenous breeds.
Brown Swiss X Sahiwal
↓
Karan Swiss – yield 2-3 times more milk than indigenous cows.

Question 5.
What is hybridization? Explain the hybridization experiment.
Answer:
The process of crossing two or more types of plants for bringing their desired characters together into one progeny hybrid is called hybridization. Hybridization is creating a genetic variation to get improved varieties.

Hybridization Experiment:
Triticale is the first man-made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat (Triticum durum, 2n = 28) and rye (Secale cereal, 2n = 14). The F, a hybrid is sterile (2n = 21). Then the chromosome number is doubled using colchicine and it becomes hexaploid triticale (2n = 42). The cycle of crop raising and selection continues until the plants with the desired characters are finally obtained.

Question 6.
Name the methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
The methods of plant breeding to develop high yielding varieties, for crop improvement, are as follows:

• Introduction of new varieties of plants
• Selection
• Polyploid breeding
• Mutation breeding
• Hybridization.

Question 7.
Explain briefly about gene therapy.
Answer:
The replacement of a defective gene by the direct transfer of functional genes into humans to treat genetic disease or disorder is referred to as gene therapy.
The recombinant DNA technology is used for gene therapy:

• Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in somatic cells.
• Gene line gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in the germ cell (egg or sperm).

Question 8.
What were the important discoveries that led to the stepping stones of recombinant DNA technology?
Answer:

1. Presence of plasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 9.
What does modern agriculture include?
Answer:
Modem agricultural practices are activities carried out to improve the cultivation of plants. It includes:

1. Preparation of soil
2. Sowing
3. Application of manures and fertilizers
4. Proper irrigation
5. Protection from weeds and pests
6. Harvesting and threshing
7. Storage

Question 10.
What is the aim of crop improvement?
Answer:
The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties possessing higher yield, better quality, resistance to diseases and shorter duration.

Question 11.
(a) What are the two important properties of stem cells?
(b) Write a short note on two types of stem cells.
Answer:
(a) Properties of stem cells:
It’s the ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
It’s the ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

(b) Types of cells:

• Embryonic stem cells: Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst, which can be extracted from the early embryos. These cells can be developed into any cell in the body.
• Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell: These cells are found in the newborn and adults. They have the ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. Sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.

Question 12.
What are bulk genomic DNA and satellite DNA?
Answer:
In human beings, 99 % of the DNA base sequences are the same and this is called a bulk genomic DNA. The remaining 1 % of the DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as a small stretch of repeated sequences, which is called satellite DNA.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are stem cells? Explain its types.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells. The stem cells are the cells of variable potency. The two important properties of stem cells that differentiate them from other cells are:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Types of stem cells Embryonic stem cells can be extracted and cultured from the early embryos. These cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These cells can be developed into air, cell in the body.

Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell are found in the neonatal (new bom) and adults. They have tne ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. Sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.

Question 2.
Explain with examples the inbreeding and outbreeding of animal breeding.
Answer:
Animal breeding aims at the genotypes of domesticated animals to increase their yield and improve the desirable qualities to produce milk, egg and meat. When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called inbreeding.
The cross between different – breeds is called outbreeding.

1. Inbreeding:
Inbreeding refers to the mating of closely related animals within the same breed for about 4 – 6 generations. Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs. It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and elimination of genes, which are undesirable. Hissardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri (Magra) ewes and Australian Marino rams.

2. Inbreeding depression:
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

3. Outbreeding:
It is the breeding of unrelated animals. The offsprings formed are called hybrids. The hybrids are stronger and vigorous than their parents. Cross between two different species with desirable features of economic value are mated. Let’s see what cross produce a mule. Mule is superior to a horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases but they are sterile

Question 3.
Explain the DNA fingerprinting technology with an illustration.
Answer:
The DNA pattern of two individuals cannot be the same except for identical twins. Each persons DNA sequence is unique, due to the small difference in the base pairs. DNA fingerprinting is the easier and quicker method, to compare the genetic difference among the two individuals. This technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.

Each individual’s unique DNA sequences provides distinct characteristics of an individual, which helps in identification. A variable number of tandem repeat sequences [VNTRs] serve as molecular markers for identification.

In human beings, 99 % of DNA base sequences are the same and this is called as bulk genomic DNA. The remaining 1 % DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as a small stretch of repeated sequences which is called as satellite DNA. The number of copies of the repeat sequence also called VNTRs differs from one individual to another and results in variation in the size of the DNA segment.

As shown in the illustration, the sequence AGCT is repeated six times in the first person, five times in the second person and seven times in the third person. Because of this, the DNA segment of the third person will be larger in size followed by a DNA segment of first – person and then the second person. Thus it is clear that satellite DNA brings about variation within the population. Variation in the DNA banding pattern reveals differences among the individuals.

Question 4.
Write a detailed account of stem cells, types of stem cells and stem cell therapy?
Answer:
Our body is composed of over 200 specialised cell types, that can carry out specific functions, eg. Neurons or nerve cell that can transmit signals or heart cells which contract to pump blood or pancreatic cells to secrete insulin. These specialised cells are called differentiated cells. These specialised cells are called as differentiated cells. In contrast to differentiated cells, stem cells are the undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells. The stem cells are the cells of variable potency.
The two important properties of stem cells are:

• its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal,
• its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Types of stem cells:

1. Embryonic stem cells: These cells are extracted and cultured from the early embryos. These cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These cells can be developed into any cell in the body.
2. Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell: They are found in the neonatal (newborn) and adults. They have the ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. The sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.
3. Stem – cell therapy: Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations, stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases, which is called stem cell therapy. In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.

Question 5.
(a) Explain genetically modified organisms |GMOs|.
(b) With the help of a tabular column tabulate the genetically modified plants and animals, with the objectives, gene inserted and achievement.
Answer:
(a) Genetic modification is the alteration or manipulation of genes in the organisms using rDNA techniques in order to produce the desired characteristics. The DNA fragment inserted is called transgene. Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environmental conditions. Similarly, transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

(b) Genetically modified plants and animals:
1. Genetically Modified Plants:

Objective	Gene Inserted	Achievement
Improved nutritional quality in Rice	Beta carotene gene (In humans, Beta carotene is required for the synthesis of Vitamin A)	Golden Rice (Genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene, that can prevent Vitamin A deficiency)
Increased crop production	Bt gene from bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis. (Bt gene produces a protein that is toxic to insects)	Insect resistant plants (These plants can produce the toxin protein that kills the insects which attack them)

2. Genetically Modified Animals:

Objective	Gene inserted	Achievement
The improved wool quality and production	Genes for synthesis of amino acid, cysteine	Transgenic sheep (gene expressed)
Increased growth in fishes	Salmon or Rainbow trout or Tilapia growth hormone gene	Transgenic fish (gene expressed)

VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Name the Indian scientist who is known for his leading role in India’s green revolution.
Answer:
Dr M. S. Swaminathan.

Question 2.
The application of biotechnology ‘A’ to treat a person born with a hereditary disease.
(a) What does ‘A’ mean?
(b) Mention its types.
Answer:
(a) Gene therapy refers to the replacement of defective gene.
(b) The two type of gene therapy are Somatic and Germline.

Question 3.
Write the crossbreeds of the following:
(a) Crossbreed of fowls
(b) Crossbreed of cows
Answer:
(a) A crossbreed of fowls:

• White Leghorn × Plymouth Rock
  ↓
  Hybrid fowl – yield more eggs

(b) A crossbreed of cows:

• Brown Swiss × Sahiwal
  ↓
  Karan Swiss [yield 2 – 3 times more milk than indigenous cows]

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Biogenetic law states that _____.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together.
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny.
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny.
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.

Question 2.
The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by _____.
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Gregor Mendel.
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 3.
Paleontologists deal with _____.
(a) Embryological evidences
(b) Fossil evidences
(c) Vestigial organ evidences
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(b) Fossil evidences

Question 4.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by _____.
(a) Radio – carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium – argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(a) Radio – carbon method

Question 5.
The term Ethnobotany was coined by _____.
(a) Khorana
(b) J.W. Harshberger
(c) Ronald Ross
(d) Hugo de Vries.
Answer:
(b) J.W. Harshberger

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called _____.
Answer:
Acquired characters.

Question 2.
The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called _____.
Answer:
Vestigial organ.

Question 3.
The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of ______ organs.
Answer:
Homologous.

Question 4.
The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by _____.
Answer:
Charles Darwin.

III. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement.

Question 1.
‘The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin?
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: ‘The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.

Question 2.
The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern?
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The homologous organs look dissimilar and perform dissimilar functions, but they have the same origin and developmental pattern.

Question 3.
Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Atavism	(a) caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
2. Vestigial organs	(b) a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
3. Analogous organs	(c) rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
4. Homologous organs	(d) a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
5. Wood park	(e) radiocarbon dating
6. W.F. Libby	(f) Thiruvakkarai

Answer:

1. (c) rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
2. (a) caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
3. (d) a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
4. (b) a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
5. (f) Thiruvakkarai
6. (e) radiocarbon dating.

V. Answer in a word or Sentence

Question 1.
A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
Answer:
Homologous organs.

Question 2.
Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Answer:
Fossil bird Archaeopteryx.

Question 3.
What is the study of fossils called?
Answer:
Palaeontology.

VI. Short Answers Questions

Question 1.
The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
Answer:
Kiwi does not have the need to fly that is why they do not have wings. The characters developed by the animals during their life in response to environmental changes. The vestigial wings are so small (invisible) under the bristly, hair-like two-branched feathers. So the degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character.

Question 2.
What is the study of fossils called?
Answer:
Palaeontology is called as the study of fossils.

Question 3.
Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
Answer:
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:

• It provides traditional uses of the plant.
• It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
• The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for the chemists, pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
• Tribal communities utilize ethnomedicinal plant parts like bark, stem, roots, leaves, flowers, flower bud, fruits, seeds, oils, resins, dyes and gum for the treatment of diseases like diarrhoea, fever, headache, diabetes, jaundice, snakebites and leprosy, etc.

Question 4.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. They may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
Darwin published his observations under the name “origin of species”. It elaborates on the theory of natural selection for evolutionary transformation.
The principles of Darwinism tells that natural selection is a driving force for evolution.

1. Overproduction: Living beings have the ability to reproduce and have the capacity to multiply in a geometrical manner.

2. Struggle for existence: Due to overproduction, a geometric ratio of increase in population occurs. The space to live and food available for the organisms remain the same. This creates a competition among the organisms, for food and space, leading to struggle.

• The competition may be among the individuals of the same species (Intraspecific struggle).
• Competition between the organisms of different species living together (Interspecific struggle).
• Natural conditions like extreme heat or cold drought and floods can affect the existence of organisms (Environmental struggle).

3. Variations: Small variations are important for evolution. According to Darwin, favourable variations are useful to the organisms and unfavourable variations are harmful or useless to the organisms.

4. Survival of the fittest or Natural selection: During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms, which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called Natural selection.

5. Origin of species: According to Darwin, new species originates by the gradual accumulation of favourable variations for a number of generations.

Question 2.
How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Answer:

Homologous organs	Analogous organs
1. The homologous organs have been inherited from common ancestors, with similar developmental pattern in embryos.	1. Analogous structures are shown in a batwing, a bird wing and an insect wing.
2. The forelimbs of a human hand, a front leg of a cat, the flipper of a whale and a bat’s, wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions.	2. The analogous organs look similar but perform similar functions.
3. Their mode of development and the basic structure of bone are similar.	3. They have a different origin. Wings of insect are membranous extensions whereas wings of a bat is a bony structure. But performing the same function of flying.

Question 3.
How does fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
A plant fossil is any preserved part of a plant that has died long back. Fossils may be a prehistoric impression that may be hundred to millions of years old. Majority of the plant fossils are disarticulated parts of plants, it is rare to find plants to be preserved as whole.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragonfly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. He is not correct. Both crow and dragonfly have the same function of flying with wings. But it’s the origin (basic structure) is different. Dragonfly wing is the membranous extension. But the wing of the crow is the modification of forelimb.

Question 2.
Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution- How?
Answer:
Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to complex organisms. The study of fossils helps us to understand the link of evolution. The origin of modem birds is supported by the evidence of palaeontology.

Question 3.
Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Convergent evolution is the process, by which the independently evolved features, may similar to each other, but can arise through different developmental pathways. So the octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. The independently evolved eye may similar in each other, but can arise through different developmental pathways.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The history of life has two aspects namely ______ and ______.
Answer:
Origin of life; The evolution of life.

Question 2.
The theory which postulates that life originates from pre – existing life is ______.
Answer:
Biogenesis.

Question 3.
_____ is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a period of time.
Answer:
Evolution.

Question 4.
Sexual reproduction, which involves meiosis helps in the recombination of ______ during gametic fusion.
Answer:
Genes.

Question 5.
The major concept in astrobiology is the ______.
Answer:
Habitable zone.

Question 6.
The organisms, which live in extreme environmental conditions on Earth are called ______.
Answer:
Extremophiles.

Question 7.
Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to _______ organisms.
Answer:
Complex.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Big Bang theory	(a) study of regions and practical use of plants
2. Petrifaction	(b) organisms buried and cause depression
3. Archaeopteryx	(c) other names for astrobiology
4. Ethnobotany	(d) preserve hard and soft parts
5. Mould	(e) origin of the universe
6. Exobiology	(f) fossil bird

Answer:

1. (e) origin of the universe
2. (d) preserve hard and soft parts
3. (f) fossil bird
4. (a) study of regions and practical use of plants
5. (b) organisms buried and cause depression
6. (c) other names for astrobiology.

Question 2.

1. Oparin and Haldane	(a) use and disuse theory
2. Ernest Haeckel	(b) Mutation theory
3. Leonardo da Vinci	(c) Father of Indian palaeobotany
4. Jean Baptiste Lamarck	(d) Life from the chemical reaction
5. Darwin	(e) Father of palaeontology
6. De Vries	(f) Radioactive carbon
7. Birbal Sahni	(g) Ethnobotany
8. W.F. Libby	(h) Origin of species
9. J.W. Harshberger	(i) Biogenetic law

Answer:

1. (d) Life from a chemical reaction
2. (i) Biogenetic law
3. (e) Father of palaeontology
4. (a) use and disuse theory
5. (h) Origin of species
6. (b) Mutation theory
7. (c) Father of Indian palaeobotany
8. (f ) Radioactive carbon
9. (g) Ethnobotany.

III. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The theory of idea embodies that life on Earth is a divine creation ______.
(a) chemical reaction
(b) special creation
(c) spontaneous generation
(d) Biogenesis.
Answer:
(b) special creation

Question 2.
Palaeontology deals with the study of ______.
(a) analogous organs
(b) fossils
(c) gradual change
(d) homologous organ.
Answer:
(c) gradual change

Question 3.
The other name for continuous variation is ______.
(a) germinal variation
(b) somatic variation
(c) discontinuous variation
(d) fluctuating variation.
Answer:
(d) fluctuating variation.

Question 4.
It is a branch of palaeontology that deals with the recovery and identification of plant remain of geological past ______.
(a) palaeobotany
(b) Embryology
(c) mutation
(d) palaeontology.
Answer:
(a) palaeobotany

Question 5.
Book ‘Philosophic Zoologique’ published in the year 1809 was written by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Wallace
(d) Mendel
Answer:
(b) Lamarck

IV. Answer the following shortly.

Question 1.
What is Abiogenesis?
Answer:
Abiogenesis or spontaneous generation theory states that life originated spontaneously from lifeless matter. It was believed that fishes originated from mud, frogs from moist soil and insects from decaying matter.

Question 2.
What is the cosmic origin?
Answer:
Cosmic origin of extraterrestrial theories states that life came from outer space. The unit of life called spores (panspermia) were transferred to different planets including Earth.

Question 3.
What is the chemical evolution of life?
Answer:
Chemical evolution of life theory states that life arose by a series of sequential chemical reactions. The first form of life could have come from pre – existing non – living inorganic molecules, which gave rise to the formation of diverse organic molecules, which are transformed into a colloid system to produce life.

Question 4.
Name the evidence of evolution What do they support?
Answer:

• Evidence from morphology and Anatomy.
• Evidence from embryology.
• Evidence from palaeontology.

Evolution is best understood by observing the relationship between the existing organisms and the similarities of the extinct organisms. This evidence supports the concept that all organisms have evolved from common ancestors.

Question 5.
Explain the evidence of evolution from Embryology.
Answer:
The embryos from fish to mammals are similar in their early stages of development. The study of comparative embryology of different animals supports the concept of evolution. The differentiation of their special characters appears in the later stages of development. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. The stages of development of the individual animal repeat the evolutionary history of the entire race of the animal.

Question 6.
Represent a flow chart showing the postulates of Lamarckism?
Answer:
The postulates of Lamarckism:

Question 7.
Explain the evidence of evolution from palaeontology.
Answer:
Palaeontology deals with the study of fossils. The study of fossils helps us to understand the line of evolution of many invertebrates and vertebrates. Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to complex organisms.

The origin of modem birds is supported by the evidence from palaeontology. Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers, like a bird. It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptile.

Question 8.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Formation of new species due to changes in specific characters over several generations as a response to natural selection is called evolution. Evolution is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a period of time.

Question 9.
Represent a flow chart showing the postulates of Darwinism?
Answer:
The postulates of Darwinism:

Question 10.
Explain the types of variation?
Answer:
Variations are the differences found among individuals of the same species and the offspring of the same parent. New species originate by the gradual accumulation of variations. Evolution would not be possible without variation.
Somatic variation and germinal variation are the two types of variations:

1. Somatic variation: The variation which affects the body (somatic) cells of the organisms are called somatic variation, which is not heritable. They occur due to environmental factors.
2. Geminal variation: The variations, which are produced in germ cells and inherited are called germinal variation. They are classified into two types.
   • Continuous variation: Small variations which occur among individuals of a population, and occur by gradual accumulation is called continuous variation. They are also called fluctuating variation, e.g. skin colour, height and weight and colour of the eye, etc.
   • Discontinuous variation: These changes are sudden, which occur in an organism, due to mutations. These large variations are not useful for evolution, e.g. short – legged Ancon sheep and six or more digits (fingers) in human, etc.

Question 11.
Explain the importance of fossils?
Answer:
Importance of fossils:

1. They throw light on phylogeny and evolution of plants.
2. Fossil plants give a historical approach to the plant kingdom.
3. Fossils are useful in the classification of plants.
4. Fossil plants can be used in the field of descriptive and comparative anatomy.

Question 12.
What are Extremophiles?
Answer:
The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on Earth are called extremophiles within our own solar system, there are many areas that are different from the Earth. We may find the presence of life similar to extremophile bacteria.

Question 13.
What is Astrobiology or Exobiology? What does it deal?
Answer:
Astrobiology or exobiology is the science which looks for the presence of extraterrestrial in the universe.
Astrobiology deals with the origin, evolution and distribution of life in the universe and to investigate the possibility of living in another world.

The major concept in astrobiology is the habitable zone. Astrobiology explains that any planets can support the existence of life if it fulfils two criteria:

• It must have the right mass to retain an atmosphere.
• It must have an orbit at the right distance from Sun, that it allows liquid water to exist. The distance needs to be neither too hot nor too cold and is often called the Goldilocks zone for life.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain in detail with diagrams, the evidence of evolution, through morphology and anatomy.
Answer:
The comparative study of morphology and anatomy of organisms have evolved from a common ancestor.

(i) Homologous organs: The homologous organs are those which have inherited from common ancestors with similar developmental pattern in embryos. The forelimbs of mammals are homologous structures. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. Their mode of development and the basic structure of bone are similar.

(ii) Analogous organs: The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern. The function of the wings of a bat, the wings of a bird and wings of an insect are similar, but their basic structures are different.

(iii) Vestigial organs: The degenerated and non¬functional organs of animals are called vestigial organs. The same organs are found to be well- developed and functional, in some of the related forms. Some of the vestigial organs in man are a vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra and coccyx, etc.

(iv) Atavism: The reappearance of ancestral characters in some individuals is called atavism, e.g. Presence of rudimentary tail in newborn babies, the presence of thick hair on the human body.

Question 2.
(a) Name the popular names of Lamarckism.
(b) Explain the principles of Lamarckism.
Answer:
(a) Lamarckism is the hypothesis that an organism can pass on characteristics, that it has acquired through use or disuse, during it’s lifetime to the offspring. Lamarck’s theory of evolution was published in ‘Philosophic Zoologique’ in the year 1809. Lamarckism is popularly known as ‘Theory of inheritance of Acquired Characters” or “Use and Disuse theory”

(b) (i) internal vital force: Due to the inherent ability of the living organisms or their component parts tend to increase in ‘ size continuously.

(ii) Environment and new needs: A change in the environment brings about changes in the need of the organisms. In response to the changing environment, the organisms develop certain adaptive characters. The adaptations may be in the form of development of new parts of the body.

(iii) Use and disuse theory: Lamarck’s use and disuse theory state that, if an organ is used constantly, the organ develops well and gets strengthened. When an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually degenerates. The ancestors of Giraffe were provided with a short neck and short forelimbs. Due to a shortage of grass, they are forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimbs resulted in the development of long neck and long forelimbs, which is an example fcc constant use of an organ. The degenerated wing of Kiwi is an example for organ of disuse.

(iv) Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters: Animals respond to the changes when there is a change in the environment. The develop adaptive structures. The characters, developed during their lifetime, in response to the environmental changes are called acquired characters. The acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

VI. Higher-Order Thinking skills [HOTS] Questions

Question 1.

1. What is the reason for the long neck of a giraffe.
2. Name the theory based on the shown figure.

Answer:

1. Due to a shortage of grass, they were forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimb as resulted in the development of a long neck and long forelimbs.
2. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 2.
What are living fossils?
Answer:
Living fossils are living organisms that are similar in appearance to their fossilized distant ancestors and usually have no extinct close features, eg. Ginko Biloba.

Question 3.
What is Mars 2020 Astrobiology?
Answer:
NASA is developing the Mars 2020, Astrobiology to investigate an astrobiological relevant ancient environment on Mars, its surface geological processes and the possibility of past life on Mars and preservation of biosignatures within accessible geological materials.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 18 Heredity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
According to Mendel, alleles have the following character ______.
(a) Pair of genes
(b) Responsible for character
(c) Production of gametes
(d) Recessive factors.
Answer:
(a) Pair of genes

Question 2.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to:
(a) Segregation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Independent assortment
(d) Recessiveness
Answer:
(c) Independent assortment

Question 3.
The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division ______.
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centrosome
(c) Centromere
(d) Chromonema.
Answer:
(c) Centromere

Question 4.
The centromere is found at the centre of the ……… chromosome.
(a) Telocentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Sub-metacentric
(d) Acrocentric
Answer:
(b) Metacentric

Question 5.
The ______ units form the backbone of the DNA.
(a) 5 carbon sugar
(b) Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous bases
(d) Sugar phosphate.
Answer:
(c) Nitrogenous bases

Question 6.
Okasaki fragments are joined together by:
(a) Helicase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA ligase
Answer:
(d) DNA ligase

Question 7.
The number of chromosomes found in human beings are ______.
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
(b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome.
(c) 46 autosomes.
(d) 46 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
Answer:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.

Question 8.
The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called:
(a) Tetraploidy
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Euploidy
(d) polyploidy
Answer:
(b) Aneuploidy

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ______.
Answer:
Alleles or allelomorphs.

Question 2.
The physical expression of a gene is called ______.
Answer:
Phenotype.

Question 3.
The thin thread-like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ______.
Answer:
Chromosomes.

Question 4.
DNA consists of two _______ chains.
Answer:
Polynucleotide.

Question 5.
An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ______.
Answer:
Mutation.

III. Identify whether the statement is True or False. Correct the False Statement.

Question 1.
A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 3 : 1.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 2.
A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage known as a telomere.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob – like appendage known as the satellite.

Question 6.
New nucleotides are added and a new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 21 chromosomes.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Autosomes	(a) Trisomy 21
2. Diploid condition	(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3. Allosome	(c) 22 pair of chromosome
4. Down’s syndrome	(d) 2n
5. Dihybrid ratio	(e) 23rd pair of chromosome

Answer:
1. (c) 22 pair of chromosome
2. (d) 2n
3. (e) 23rd pair of chromosome
4. (a) Trisomy 21
5. (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

V. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters is studied?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross.

Question 2.
Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical.
Answer:
Homozygous

Question 3.
A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait?
Answer:

• Axial position – a dominant trait
• White flowers – a recessive trait
• Terminal position – a recessive trait
• Violet flower – dominant trait.

Question 4.
What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
Answer:
Genes

Question 5.
Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Answer:
The hydrogen bonds bind the nucleotides in a DNA.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Answer:

• The pea plant is self-pollinating and so it is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
• It has a short life span, as it is an annual.
• It is easy to cross-pollinate.
• It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
• The flowers are bisexual.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
Answer:
Phenotype is the outward appearance or morphological character of an organism. The expression of gene or the genetic make up of an individual for a particular trait is called genotype.

Question 3.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are autosomes and the 23rd pair is the allosome or sex chromosome.

Question 4.
What are Okazaki fragments?
Answer:
For the synthesis of new DNA, two things are required one is RNA primer and the enzyme primase. The DNA polymerase moves along the newly formed RNA primer nucleotides, which leads to the elongation of DNA. In the other strand, DNA is synthesis in small fragments called okazaki fragments. These fragments are linked by the enzyme called ligase.

Question 5.
Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
In euploidy condition, the individual bears more than the usual number of diploid chromosomes. The triploid plants and animals are sterile. The tetraploid plants, often result in increased fruit and flower size.

Question 6.
A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F₁ and F₂ generations? Explain.
Answer:
When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), In F₁ generation all the plants will be tall. In F₂ generation by selling the F₁ monohybrid the tall and dwarf plant will be in the ratio of 3 : 1. In F₂ generation phenotypic ratio will be 3 : 1. genotypic ratio will be 1 : 2 : 1

Question 7.
Explain the structure of a chromosome.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin long and thread-like structures, consisting of two identical strands called sister chromatids. They are held together by a centromere. Each chromatid is made up of a spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The bead-like structures along the length are called chromomeres. The chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins (histones and non-histones) and certain metallic ions. These proteins give structural support to the chromosome.

Question 8.
Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly. Structure of DNA.
Answer:
DNA is the hereditary material as it contains the genetic information. DNA is a large molecule, consisting of millions of nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of three compounds.

(a) A sugar molecule – Deoxy Ribose sugar

(b) A nitrogenous base [Purines and Pyrimidines]

• Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
• Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(c) A phosphate group Nucleoside and Nucleotide:
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide = Nucleoside + Phosphate
The nucleotides are formed according to the purines and pyrimidines present in them.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain with an example of the inheritance of the dihybrid cross. How is it different from a monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrast characteristics, round – yellow seeds and wrinkled – green seeds. When pea plants having round – yellow seeds cross – bred with pea plants having wrinkled – green seeds, in the first generation (F₁), only round yellow seeds were produced.
No wrinkled – green seeds were obtained. Round yellow colour seeds were dominant and wrinkled-green seeds were recessive.

When round – yellow seeds were cross-bred by self-pollination, four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and colour were obtained in the F₂ generation. They were round- yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled – green seeds.

A dihybrid cross produced four types of F₂ offsprings in the ratio of 9 with two dominant traits, 3 with one dominant trait and one recessive trait, 3 with another dominant trait and another recessive trait and one with two recessive traits. The new combinations of traits with round green and wrinkled yellow had appeared in the dihybrid cross (F₂ generation). The ratio of each phenotype of seeds in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.

Difference between a monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross:
Monohybrid cross:
Monohybrid cross is a genetic cross, that involves a single pair of genes, which is responsible for one trait.
Parents differ by a single trait.
Monohybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1.

Dihybrid cross:
Dihybrid cross is a genetic cross, that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two traits,
The parents have two different independent traits.
The dihybrid ratio in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 2.
How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
Answer:
DNA is the hereditary material, as it contains the genetic information. It is a large molecule consisting of millions of nucleotides, so it is called a polynucleotide. Each nucleotide consists of three components.
(a) A sugar molecule – Deoxyribose sugar

(b) A nitrogenous base – There are two types of the nitrogenous base in DNA they are

• Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
• Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(c) A phosphate group – The polynucleotide chains from a double helix. Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar – phosphate units, which form the backbone of the DNA. Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine, linked by hydrogen bonds.

Adenine (A) links Thymine (T) with two hydrogen bonds [A=T]. Cytosine (C) links Guanine (G) with three hydrogen bonds (C = G). The hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases make the DNA molecule stable. The nucleotides in a helix are joined together by phosphodiester bonds.

The biological significance of DNA:

• It is responsible for the transmission of heredity information from one generation to the next generation.
• It contains the information required for the formation of proteins.
• It controls the developmental process and life activities of an organism.

Question 3.
The sex of the newborn child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
Answer:
Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair (23rd pair) is the sex chromosome. The female gametes or the eggs formed are similar in their chromosome type [22 + XX], So human females are homogametic. The male gametes or sperms produced are of two types. They are produced in equal proportions. The sperm bearing [22 + X] chromosomes and the sperm bearing (22 + Y) chromosomes. So human males are called heterogametic.

It is a chance, as to which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg [X] is fused by the X – bearing sperm an [XX] individual (female) is produced. If the egg [X] is fused by the Y – bearing sperm an [XY] individual (male) is produced. The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible for determining the sex of the child.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen grains. How Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
Answer:
As the garden pea is self-pollinating plant the parent plant were emasculated to prevent self pollination.
The anthers were collected from male parent and dusted on the female parent and the stigma was bagged.

Question 2.
Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea – plants obtained in the F₁ generation are then cross-bred to produce F₂ generation of pea plants.

1. What do the plants of the F₁ generation look like?
2. What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in the F₂ generation?
3. Which type of plants was missing in F₁, generation but reappeared in the F₂ generation?

Answer:

1. Tall
2. 1 : 2 : 1
3. Dwarf plants.

Question 3.
Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the statement is not true.
Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with the eggs. If the egg(x) is fused by the x-bearing sperm, then
individual is female. If the egg (x) is fused by the y-bearing sperm then the individual is male. The sperm produced by the father only determines the sex of the child.

IX. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Under which conditions does the law of independent assortment hold good and why?
Answer:
Mendel gave this law based on his dihybrid cross experiment. Here the total number of individuals is F₂ will be sixteen which occur in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 where two parental classes and two new combination will be produced.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The branch of biology that deals with the genes, genetic variation and heredity of living organisms is called ______.
Answer:
Genetics.

Question 2.
The chromatids are held together by ______.
Answer:
Centromere.

Question 3.
______ is the enzyme, which separates the double helix of DNA, above the replication fork.
Answer:
Topoisomerase.

Question 4.
_____ mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene.
Answer:
Gene or point.

Question 5.
The end of the chromosome is called ______.
Answer:
Telomere.

Question 6.
The constriction of the chromosome at any point is called ______.
Answer:
Nuclear Zone.

Question 7.
The nucleotides in a helix are joined together by ______ bonds.
Answer:
Phosphodiester.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Homozygous	(a) polynucleotide
2. Genes	(b) human male
3. DNA	(c) occurs in pairs and alike
4. Heterozygous	(d) segments of DNA
5. Heterogametic	(e) bind DNA to the origin of replication site
6. Autosome	(f) occurs in pairs and unlike
7. Helicase	(g) somatic characters

Answer:

1. (c) occurs in pairs and alike
2. (d) segments of DNA
3. (a) polynucleotide
4. (f) occurs in pairs and unlike
5. (b) Human male
6. (g) somatic characters
7. (e) bind DNA to the origin of replication site.

III. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The thin long thread-like structures consisting of two identical strands ______.
(a) Hybrid
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Genes
(d) DNA and RNA.
Answer:
(b) Chromosomes

Question 2.
A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness in the dominant trait
(c) Tallness in the recessive trait
(d) Height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
Answer:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

Question 3.
The number, size and shape of chromosomes in the cell nucleus of an organism ______
(a) Karyotype
(b) Heterozygous
(c) Autosome
(d) Nucleotide
Answer:
(a) Karyotype

Question 4.
In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. The unpaired chromosomes are:
(a) large chromosome
(b) small chromosome
(c) Y- chromosome
(d) X- chromosome
Answer:
(c) Y- chromosome

Question 5.
The addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell is called _______
(a) Homogametic
(b) Polymerase
(c) Ploidy
(d) Nucleoside
Answer:
(c) Ploidy

IV. Write true or false for the statements. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
The character which expresses itself is called the dominant condition and that which is masked is called recessive condition. Answer:
True

Question 2.
The chromosomes of body cells of an organism are haploid in condition and the single set of chromosomes in gametes are diploid in condition.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The chromosomes of body cells of an organism are diploid in condition and the single set of chromosomes in gametes are haploid in condition.

Question 3.
The mother is responsible for determining the sex of the child. The sperm produced by the father does not determine the sex of the child.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The mother is not responsible for determining the sex of the child. The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child.

Question 4.
The human female is called Homogametic. The human males are called heterogametic.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Adenine always links with Guanine with three hydrogen bonds and cytosine always links with thymine with two hydrogen bonds.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Adenine always links with thymine with two hydrogen bonds. Cytosine always links with Guanine with three hydrogen bonds.

V. Match the following persons with the correct statements.

Question 1.

1. Waldeyar	(a) Role of chromosome in heredity
2. James Watson and Crick	(b) Father of genetics
3. Hugo de Vries	(c) Down’s syndrome
4. Langdon Down	(d) Chromosomes
5. T.H Morgan	(e) Mutation
6. Gregor Johan Mendel	(f) Model of DNA

Answer:

1. (d) chromosomes
2. (f) Model of DNA
3. (e) Mutation
4. (c) Down’s syndrome
5. (a) Role of chromosome in heredity
6. (b) Father of genetics

VI. Answer the following in a word or with a sentence.

Question 1.
Who is the father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel.

Question 2.
Name the plant on which Mendel performed his experiment.
Answer:
Pisum sativum (Garden Pea).

Question 3.
What is locus?
Answer:
Each gene is present at a specific position on a chromosome called its locus.

Question 4.
Who proposed the double helical model of DNA?
Answer:
Watson and Crick

Question 5.
What does the dihybrid cross involve?
Answer:
The dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characteristics.

Question 6.
What are the components of chromosome?
Answer:
The components of chromosomes are DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins like histones and non histones and certain metallic ions.

Question 7.
What are Nucleoside and Nucleotide?
Answer:
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide = Nucleoside + phosphate

VII. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write the Law of purity of gametes.
Answer:
When a pair of contrasting alleles are brought together in a heterozygote, the two members of the allelic pair remain together without mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out, so that only one enters each gamete.

Question 2.
What are chromonema and chromomeres?
Answer:
Each chromatid is made up of a spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The chromonema has a number of bead – like structures along its length which are called chromomeres.

Question 3.
Explain the types of chromosome-based on the position of the centromere.
Answer:

Based on the position of the centromere, the chromosomes are classified as follows:

• Telocentric: The centromere is at the proximal end. The chromosomes are rod – shaped.
• Acrocentric: The centromere is found at the end with a short arm and a long arm. They are rod-shaped chromosomes.
• Sub metacentric: The centromere is found near the centre of the – chromosome. Thus forming two unequal arms. They are J shaped or L shaped chromosomes.
• Metacentric: The centromere occurs in the centre of the chromosome and forms two equal arms. They are V – shaped chromosomes.

Question 4.
Give reason for the appearance of new combination of characters in F₂ progene.
Answer:
At the time of gamete formation in the F₁ Hybrid genes character asserted independently resulted in the appearance of new combination of character in the F₂ progene.

Question 5.
What is sickle cell anaemia?
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the mutation of a single gene. This alteration in gene brings a change in the structure of protein part of Haemoglobin molecule. The red blood cells, that carry the haemoglobin is sickle-shaped and oxygen-carrying capacity reduces, causing sickle cell anaemia.

Question 6.
Represent the phenotypic, genotypic ratio of both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross in 72 generations of pea plants.
Answer:
Monohybrid cross:
Phenotypic ratio – 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1

Dihybrid cross:
Phenotypic ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1.

Question 7.
How do chromosomes take part in the formation of the male and female child?
Answer:
Fertilization of the egg (22 + X) with a sperm [22 + X] will produce a female child [44 + XX] The fertilization of the egg (22 + X) with a sperm [22 + Y] will give rise to a male child [44 + XY].

VIII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the regions of chromosomes with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin, long and thread-like structures, with two identical strands called chromatids. They are held together by a centromere. The chromatid is made up of spirally coiled, a thin structure called chromonema, which has a number of bead-like structures along its length called chromomeres.

A chromosome consists of the following regions:

1. Primary constriction: The two arms of a chromosome meet at a point called primary constriction or centromere. The centromere is the region, where spindle fibres attach to the chromosome during cell division.
2. Secondary constriction: Some chromosomes have a secondary constriction at any point of the chromosome, called the nuclear zone or nucleolar organizer. (Formation of the nucleolus in the nucleus).
3. Telomere: The end of the chromosome is called telomere. Each extremity of the chromosome has a polarity and prevents it from joining the adjacent chromosome. It maintains and provides stability to the chromosomes.
4. Satellite: Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage at one end of the chromosome, known as a satellite. The chromosomes with satellites are called as sat- chromosomes.
   

Question 2.
Given an account of the Laws of Mendel.
Answer:
Mendel proposed three important laws which are now called as Mendel’s Laws of Heredity.
(i) Law of Dominance : “When two homozygous individuals with one or more sets of contrasting characters are crossed, the characters that appear in the F₁ hybrid are dominant and those that do not appear in F₁ are recessive characters”.

(ii) Law of Segregation or Law of purity of gametes : “When a pair of contrasting factors or genes or allelomorphs are brought together in a heterozygote or hybrid, the two members of the allelic pair remain together without mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out, so that only one enters each gamete.”

(iii) Law of independent assortment : “In case of inheritance of two or more pairs of characters simultaneously, the factors or genes of one pair assort out independently of the other pair.”

Question 3.
Explain the monohybrid cross, with a diagram and describe the interpretation of Mendel oh monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Crosses involving the inheritance of only one pair of contrasting characters are called monohybrid cross. It is a cross between two forms of a single trait like a cross between tall and dwarf plant. In a monohybrid cross, a pure breeding tall plant and a pure breeding dwarf plant, results, tall and monohybrids in the F₁ generation.

In the F₂ generation, selfing of the F₁ monohybrids resulted in tall and dwarf plants in the ratio of 3 : 1. The external expression of a particular trait is known as the phenotype. So the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.
In the F₂ generations, 3 different types were obtained.
Tall Homozygous – TT (pure) – 1
Tall Heterozygous – Tt – 2
Dwarf Homozygous – tt – 1
So the genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1.
A genotype is the genetic expression of an organism.

Mendel’s interpretation on monohybrid cross:
Factors are passed on from one generation to another, factors are referred to as genes. Tallness and dwarfism are determined by a pair of contrasting factors tall plant T, a dominant character and a plant is dwarf’s’, recessive character in pairs. Pure breeding tall plants (TT) and pure dwarf plants (tt) are called homozygous. If they are unlike, (Tt) they are referred to as heterozygous.

(i) Two factors make up a pair of contrasting characters are called alleles or allelomorphs. One member of each pair is contributed by one parent.

(ii) When two factors of a trait are brought together, by fertilization, only one expresses itself (tallness), masking the expression of the other (dwarfness). The character which expresses itself is called dominant and the character, which is masked is called recessive.

(iii) The factors for tallness [T] and dwarfness (t) are separate entities, and in a gamete either T or t is present. When F₁ hybrids are self crossed the two entities separate and then unite independently, forming tall and dwarf plants.

Question 4.
Explain Mendel’s laws of heredity with the results of a dihybrid cross.
Answer:
Mendel crossed pea plants having round yellow seeds (dominant) with pea plants having wrinkled green seeds. In the F₁ generation, round shape, yellow colour of the seeds were dominant over the wrinkled green colour seeds. When the hybrids of the F₁ generation were cross-bred by self-pollination, the dihybrid cross, produced four types of F₂ offsprings in the ratio of 9, with two dominant traits, 3 with one dominant trait and one recessive trait, 3 with another dominant trait and another recessive trait and 1 with two recessive traits.

Two new combinations of traits with round green and wrinkled yellow had appeared in the dihybrid cross. [F₂ generation]
Mendel’s law of heredity:
(i) Law of dominance: When two homozygous individuals with contrasting characters are crossed, the characters, that appear in the F₁ hybrid are dominant and those do not appear in F₁ are recessive characters.

(ii) Law of segregation or Law of purity of gametes: When a pair of contrasting factors or genes are brought together, in a heterozygote the contrasting pair remain together without, mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out so that only one enters each gamete.

(iii) Law of Independent Assortment: In case of inheritance of two or more pairs of characters simultaneously, the factors or genes of one pair assort out independently of the other pair.

Question 5.
Explain the Watson and Crick model of DNA.
Answer:
Watson and Crick model of DNA:
DNA molecules consist of two polynucleotide chains. These chains form a double helix. Structure, with two strands, which run anti-parallel to one another. Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar – phosphate units, which form the backbone of the DNA. Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine linked by hydrogen bonds.

Adenine [A] links Thymine [T] with two hydrogen bonds (A = T)
Cytosine [C] links Guanine [G] with three hydrogen bonds (C = G). This is called complementary base pairing.
Hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases make the DNA molecule stable.
Each turn of the double helix is 34 A° (3.4 nm). There are ten base pairs in a complete turn.
Nucleotides in a helix are joined together by phosphodiester bonds.

Question 6.
Explain in detail, the various steps of DNA replication.
Answer:
Replication of DNA:
Replication of DNA occurs within a cell. DNA molecule produces exact copies of its own structure during replication.
The two strands of a DNA molecule have complementary base pairs, the nucleotides of each strand, provide the information needed to produce its new strand. The two resulting daughter cells contain exactly the same genetic information as the parent cell.

DNA replication involves the following steps:
(a) Origin of replication: The points on the DNA, where replication begins, is the site of origin of replication. The two strands open and separate at this point, forming the replication fork.

(b) An unwinding of DNA molecule: The enzyme, helicase, bind to the origin of a replication site. Helicase separates the two strands of DNA. The enzyme called topoisomerase separates the double helix above the replication fork and removes the twists formed during the unwinding process.

(c) Formation of RNA primer: An RNA primer is a short segment of RNA nucleotides. The primer is synthesized by the DNA template, close to the origin of a replication site.

(d) Synthesis of the new complementary strand from the parent strand: After the formation of RNA primer, nucleotides are added with the help of an enzyme DNA polymerase, a new complementary strand of DNA is formed from each of the parent strands. The daughter strand is synthesized as a continuous strand, which is called the leading strand.

The short segments of DNA are synthesized, in the other strand and called lagging strand. The short segments of DNA are called Okazaki fragments. The enzyme DNA ligase joins the fragments. The replication fork of the two sides meets at a site called terminus, which is stimulated opposite to origin of a replication site.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills [HOTS] Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand about DNA, gene and chromosome in short?
Answer:
Deoxy ribonucleic acid [DNA] is the material located in the cells and nucleus, that makes up the chromosomes and genes. Its molecule is in the shape of a double helix.

A gene is a segment of DNA that is passed down from parents to children and confers a trait to the offspring. Genes are organised and packaged in units called chromosomes.

Chromosomes are thin, long thread-like structures contain two identical strands, called chromatids, held together by a centromere. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 2.
What is the difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation?
Answer:

Gene mutation	Chromosomal mutation
1. A change in the nucleotide sequence, in a particular gene.	1. A change in several genes in the chromosome.
2. Gene mutation is only a structural alteration.	2. The chromosomal mutation is either numerical or structural changes in the entire DNA strand.