Class 10

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Textual Solved Problems

Question 1.
At what temperature will the velocity of sound in the air be double the velocity of sound in air at 0° C?
Solution:
Let T° C be the required temperature. Let v₁ and v₂ be the velocity of sound at temperatures T₁K and T₂K respectively.
T₁ = 273K (0°C) and T₂ = (T°C + 273)K
\(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}}=\sqrt{\frac{273+\mathrm{T}}{273}}=2\)
Here, it is given that, v₂/v₁ = 2
So \(\frac{273+\mathrm{T}}{273}=4\)
T = (273 × 4) – 273 = 819° C.

Question 2.
A source producing a sound of frequency 90 Hz is approaching a stationary listener with a speed equal to (1 / 10) of the speed of sound. What will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{s}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{=\left(\frac{v}{v-\left(\frac{1}{10}\right) v}\right) n=\left(\frac{10}{9}\right) n} \\ {=\left(\frac{10}{9}\right) \times 90=100 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\)

Question 3.
A source producing a sound of frequency 500 Hz is moving towards a listener with a velocity of 30 ms^-1. The speed of the sound is 330 ms^-1. What will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
n’ = \(\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
= \(\left(\frac{330}{330-30}\right) \times 500\)
= 550 Hz.

Question 4.
A source of sound is moving with a velocity of 50 ms^-1 towards a stationary listener. The listener measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. what will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the listener after crossing him? (velocity of sound in the medium is 330 ms^-1)
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ 1000 &=\left(\frac{330}{330-50}\right) n \\ n &=\left(\frac{1000 \times 280}{330}\right) \end{aligned}\)
n = 848.48 Hz.
The actual frequency of the sound is 848.48 Hz. When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{330}{330+50}\right) \times 848.48 \end{aligned}\)
= 736.84 Hz.

Question 5.
A source and listener are both moving towards each other with a speed v/10 where v is the speed of sound. If the frequency of the note emitted by the source is f, what will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When source and listener are both moving towards each other, the apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v+v_{l}}{v-v_{s}}\right) n \\ n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v+\frac{v}{10}}{v-\frac{v}{10}}\right) n \\ n^{\prime} &=\frac{11}{9} \cdot f \\ &=1.22 f \end{aligned}\)

Question 6.
At what speed should a source of sound move away from a stationary observer so that the observer finds the apparent frequency equal to half of the original frequency?
Solution:
When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for the apparent frequency is
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n} \\ {\frac{n}{2}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n} \\ {v_{\mathrm{s}}=v}\end{array}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best Answer

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _____.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 2.
Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature,
the velocity of sound in the gas is:
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms¹
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is _____.
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz.
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz
Hint: Audible frequency hearing the human ear range between 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320 × √2 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be _____.
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m.
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m
Hint: Velocity of sound = frequency × wavelength
v = nλ
\(\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{344}{1.24 \times 10^{4}}\)
λ = 0.02752 m.

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(d) none of these.
Hint: If there is the same medium of a reflected obstacle is used, there is no change in speed, frequency and wavelength of the sound.

Question 7.
Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hear the echo, in point Is is:
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m
Answer:
(c) 25 m

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called _____.
Answer:
vibrations.

Question 2.
If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in _____.
Answer:
both north and south.

Question 3.
A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ______.
Answer:
Data:
v = 330 ms^-1
v_S = 33 ms^-1
n = 450 Hz
n’ =?
Apparent frequency
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{330}{330-33}\right) \times 450=1.11 \times 450 \end{aligned}\)
n’ = 500 Hz.

Question 4.
A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is _____.
Answer:
2068 Hz
Hint: Apparent frequency heard by the observer.
Data:
v = 1220 km/h (or) 339 ms^-1
v_S = 40 km/h (or) 11.1 ms^-1
n = 2000 Hz
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{339}{339-11.1}\right) \times 2000 \end{aligned}\)
= 1.03385 × 2000
n’ = 2068 Hz.

III. True or False. If false give the reason

Question 1.
Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
Answer:
False.
Reason: Sound can not travel in a vacuum. This is because sound waves are vibrating waves. In vacuum, where there are no atoms or molecules to vibrate.

Question 2.
Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
Answer:
False.
Reason: For an ideal gas the velocity of sound depends on its temperature and is independent of gas pressure.

Question 4.
The velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.
Answer:
False.
Reason: Velocity of a sound wave is maximum in solids because they are more elastic in nature than liquids and gases. Since gases are least elastic in nature, the velocity of sound is the least in a gaseous medium.
So V_S > V_L > V_G.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Infrasonic	(a) Compressions
2. Echo	(b) 22 kHz
3. Ultrasonic	(c) 10 Hz
4. High-pressure region	(d) Ultrasonography

Answer:
1. (c) 10 Hz
2. (d) Ultrasonography
3. (b) 22 kHz
4. (a) Compressions

V. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion: Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason: Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer very briefly

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
If the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:

1. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air.
2. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with a speed of 331 m s^-1?
Answer:
Speed v = 331 m/s
Let the wave length be λ = 0.2 m
Let the frequency be n
∴ Frequency n = \(\frac{v}{λ}\) = \(\frac{331}{0.2}\) = \(\frac{3310}{2}\)
∴ Frequency = 1655 Hz

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
Mosquitos, bats and dogs are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

VII. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
In an empty vessel, multiple reflections of sound takes place. Hence more sound is produced in an empty vessel than tilled one.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound, v₀ = 331 ms^-1
Air temperature, T = 46° C
Velocity of sound in air temperature v_T = (v₀ + 0.61T) ms^-1
= 331 + (0.61 × 46)
= 331 + 28.06
v_T = 359.06 ms^-1.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:
The ceilings of concert halls are curved so that multiple reflections of sound waves can take place.
The parabolic surfaces are used to focus the sound at a particular point. Hence sound will be louder.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the centre of the circle along which the listener is moving.

VIII. Problem Corner

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms^-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Solution:
A sound wave of frequency, n = 200 Hz
Speed, v = 400 ms^-1
The wavelength of the sound wave, λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
λ = \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m.

Question 2.
The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Answer:
Speed of sound in air v = 330 m/s
Time to hear thunder t = 9.8 s
∴ Height of the cloud = v × t
= 330 × 9.8
= 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Solution:
Frequency = \(\frac{1}{\text { Time period }}\)
Time period = \(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}=\frac{1}{600}\)
T = 0.00167 seconds
The time period between successive compressions from the source is 0.00167 seconds.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Solution:

The depth of the sea is 1120 m.

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 seconds respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Solution:
Given data is
d = 680 m
t₁ = 0.9 s
t₂ = 1.1 s
v = ?
\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
\(v=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, under water, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Answer:
Distance of boats d = 4.5 × 10³ m
= 4500 m.
Time t = 3 s
Speed of sound in water = \(\frac{d}{t}\)
= \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
= 1500 m/s

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after 1 s What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Solution:
Velocity of sound in water \(=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
Depth of the sea, d = velocity × time
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}=\frac{1450 \times 1}{2}\) = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
In the case of gases, the following factors affect the velocity of sound waves.
Effect of density : The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
v ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature : The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature v ∝ √T. Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_r = (v_o + 0.61 T)ms^-1.
Here, v_o is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v_o = 331 ms^-1. Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one degree Celsius.

Effect of relative humidity : When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by the reflection of sound? Explain.
Answer:
Reflection of Sound:
The bouncing of sound waves from the interface between two media is termed as the reflection of sound.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium

• Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium.
• As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any deformation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards.
• As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, compression is reflected as rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

• A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in the air from left to right reaches a rigid wall.
• The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and
  opposite reaction R = -F on the air molecules. This results in a compression near the rigid wall.
• Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at sound in curved surfaces

• When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed.
• When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased.
• When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.
• Parabolic surfaces are used when it is required to focus the sound at a particular point. Hence, many halls are designed with parabolic reflecting surfaces.
• In elliptical surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected the other focus, no matter where it strikes the wall.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic vibrations are the vibration with frequency greater than 20 KHz. Human ear cannot detect the ultrasonic vibration.

(b) (i) Ultrasonic waves are used in ultrasonography.
(ii) It is used to get signal images of a developing embryo in the mother’s uterus.
(in) They are used to forecast about tsunami and earthquake.

(c) Certain creatures like dog, bats, dolphins and mosquito can detect the waves.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
Echo: An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.

(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that we can hear two sound waves clearly if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of the sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:
\(\begin{aligned} \text { Velocity } &=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Timetaken }} \\ v &=\frac{2 d}{t} \\ d &=\frac{v t}{2} \end{aligned}\)
Since, t = 0.1 second, then \(d=\frac{v \times 0.1}{2}=\frac{v}{20}\)

(b) (i) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real – time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus.
(ii) This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver and a stopwatch.
Calculation of speed of sound:
The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2nd while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
\(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Timetaken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\).

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound
(b) Light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) data not sufficient.
Answer:
(b) light
Explanation: The light wave has a longer wavelength because it has much greater speed.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Echo of sound is heard with less velocity and intensity on a hotter day. Because the velocity of sound is directly proportional to temperature of air. On a hotter day temperature will be higher so velocity of sound will be changed by higher values.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Light can travel in a vacuum but not sound because of ______.
(a) speed of sound is very slow than light.
(b) light waves are electromagnetic in nature.
(c) sound waves are electromagnetic in nature.
(d) light waves are not electromagnetic in nature.
Answer:
(a) speed of sound is very slow than light.
Hint: Light can travel in a vacuum because light waves are electromagnetic in nature.

Question 2.
In a longitudinal wave there is a state of maximum compression at a point at an instant. The frequency of wave is 50 Hz. After what time will the same point be in the state of maximum rarefaction:
(a) 50 s
(b) 25 s
(c) 0.01 s
(d) 0.002 s
Answer:
(c) 0.01 s

Question 3.
When sound travels from air to water, which parameter does not change?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) Temperature.
Answer:
(b) Frequency
Hint: Frequency remains unchanged when sound travels from air to water.

Question 4.
When a wave passes from one medium to another, there is a change of:
(a) Wavelength and velocity
(b) Wavelength and frequency
(c) Velocity and frequency
(d) Velocity only
Answer:
(a) Wavelength and velocity

Question 5.
At what temperature, the speed of sound in the air will become double of its value at 27°C?
(a) 54° C
(b) 627° C
(c) 327° C
(d) 927° C.
Answer:
(d) 927° C.
Hint:
\(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}} \Rightarrow \frac{v_{1}}{2 v_{1}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{4}=\frac{27+273}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
⇒ T₂ = 300 × 4 = 1200 K
⇒ T₂ = 1200 – 273 = 927° C.

Question 6.
Sound waves from a point source are propagating in all directions. What will be the ratios of amplitude at a distance 9 m and 25 m from the source?
(a) 9 : 25
(b) 25 : 9
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 81 : 625
Answer:
(b) 25 : 9

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Sound waves in a gas are ______.
Answer:
Longitudinal.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound is the largest in ______.
Answer:
Steel.

Question 3.
Hertz is the unit of ______.
Answer:
Frequency.

Question 4.
Sound travels in rocks in the form of ______.
Answer:
Both longitudinal and transverse elastic waves.

Question 5.
The velocity of sound varies directly as the square root of the ______.
Answer:
The absolute temperature of the gas.

Question 6.
Reflection of sound waves obey the ______.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.

Question 7.
RADAR is the short form of ______.
Answer:
Radio Detection and Ranging.

Question 8.
The abbreviation of SONAR is ______.
Answer:
Sound Navigation and Ranging.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Medium	Speed of Sound (m/s)
(i) Copper	(a) 343
(ii) Water	(b) 331
(iii) Air (0° c)	(c) 5010
(iv) Air (at 20° c)	(d) 1493

Answer:
(i) (c) 5010
(ii) (d) 1493
(iii) (b) 331
(iv) (a) 343.

Question 2.

Waves	Range
(i) Audible	(a) 340 m/s
(ii) Sound	(b) greater than 20kHz
(iii) Infrasonic	(c) 20Hz – 20 kHz
(iv) Light	(d) below 20 Hz
(v) Ultrasonic	(e) 3 × 108 m/s

Answer:
(i) (c) 20 Hz – 20 kHz
(ii) (a) 340 m/s
(iii) (d) below 20 Hz
(iv) (e) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(v) (b) greater than 20 kHz.

IV. Assertion and Reason Questions

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound wave cannot propagate through a vacuum but light can.
Reason: Sound wave cannot be polarised but light can.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Sound waves, being mechanical waves, cannot travel through a vacuum. Light waves, electromagnetic waves, can travel through a vacuum.

Question 2.
Assertion: The velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity.
Reason: Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.
(a) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
Explanation: Velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity. The velocity of sound depends upon medium.

V. Answer Very Briefly

Question 1.
What is sound? Is it a force or energy?
Answer:
Sound is a vibration that typically propagates as an audible wave of pressure, through a transmission medium such as a gas, liquid or solid. Sound is not a force, it is an energy.

Question 2.
In which type of media, can longitudinal waves be propagated?
Answer:
Longitudinal waves can be propagated through solids, liquids and gases.

Question 3.
How does sound reach our ears from various sources?
Answer:
Sound reaches our ears in the form of transverse waves or vibrations from its source of production.

Question 4.
What is the minimum distance between two points in a wave having a phase difference of 2π?
Answer:
The minimum distance is the wavelength.

Question 5.
Suppose you and your friend are on the Moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?
Answer:

• As the Moon does not have air, you will not be able to hear any sound produced by your friend.
• Hence, you understand that the sound produced due to the vibration of different bodies needs a material medium like air, water, steel, etc, for its propagation.
• Hence, sound can propagate through a gaseous medium or a liquid medium or a solid medium.

Question 6.
What is the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in gas?
Answer:
The increase of pressure has no effect on the speed of sound in a gas.

Question 7.
Write down the difference between the sound and light waves.
Answer:

Sound	Light
1. Medium is required for the propagation	1. Medium is not required for the propagation.
2. Sound waves are longitudinal.	2. Light waves are transverse.
3. Wavelength ranges from 1.65 cm to 1.65 m.	3. Wavelength ranges from 4 × 10-7 m to 7 × 10-7 m.
4. Sound waves travel in the air with a speed of about 340 ms-1 at NTP.	4. Light waves travel in the air with a speed of 3 × 108 ms-1

Question 8.
Define particle velocity.
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 9.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity.

Question 10.
Define velocity of a sound wave.
Answer:
The distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time taken }}\)

Question 11.
State the laws of reflection of sound.
Answer:
The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 12.
State ‘Laws of reflection’.
Answer:

• The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
• The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 13.
What is meant by rarer and denser medium?
Answer:

1. Rarer medium: The medium in which the velocity of sound increases compared to other medium is called rarer medium. (Water is rarer compared to air for sound).
2. Denser medium: The medium in which the velocity of sound decreases compared to other medium is called denser medium. (Air is denser compared to water for sound)

VI. Problem Corner

Question 1.
A wave of length 0.60 cm is produced in air and travels with a velocity of 340 ms^-1. Will it be audible to the human ear?
Solution:
Wavelength, λ = 0.6 × 10^-2 m
Velocity of sound, v = 340 ms^-1
Frequency, n = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}\)
⇒ n = \(\frac{340}{0.6 \times 10^{-2}}\)
⇒ n = 566.66 × 10²
⇒ n = 567 × 10² Hz.

Question 2.
Consider a source moving towards a listener at a speed of 0.9 v. Where v is the velocity of sound. Calculate the apparent frequency if the actual frequency is 600 Hz.
Solution:

Question 3.
Audible frequencies have a range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Express it in terms of wavelength in air.
Answer:
Let the velocity of sound in air be 340 m/s
Initial frequency v₁ = 20 Hz
Initial wavelength λ₁ = \(\frac{v}{V_1}\)
= \(\frac{340}{20}\) = 17 m
Final frequency v₂ = 20 × 10³ Hz
Final wavelength λ₂ = \(\frac{340}{20×10³}\)
= 17 × 10^-3 = 0.017 m
The range of wavelength is from 17 m to 0.017 m

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write down the applications of echo?
Answer:
Applications of echo:

• Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.
• The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real – time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.
• Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 2.
Classify sound waves based on their frequencies.
Answer:
(i) Audible waves : These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. These are generated by vibrating bodies such as vocal cords, stretched strings etc.

(ii) Infrasonic waves : These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. eg: waves produced during earth quake, ocean waves, sound produced by whales, etc.

(iii) Ultrasonic waves : These are sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 kHz, Human ear cannot detect these waves, but certain creatures like mosquito, dogs, bats, dolphins can detect these waves, eg: waves produced by bats.

Question 3.
Write down the concept of Ear trumpet and Megaphone.
Answer:
Ear trumpet:

• Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing.
• In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

Megaphone:

• A megaphone is a horn – shaped device used to address a small gathering of people.
• It’s one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 4.
What is the Doppler effect? Derive the formula for the change in apparent frequency
1. Both source and listener move towards and away from each other.
2. Both source and listener move one behind the other source follows the listener and listener follows the source.
3. A source at rest, listener moves towards and away from the source.
4. A listener at rest, the source moves towards and away from the listener.
Answer:
1.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move towards each other	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move away from each other	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vS and vL become opposite to that in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v+v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)

2.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move one behind the other (iii) Source follows the listener	(a) Apparent frequency depends on the velocities of the source and the listener. (b) vS becomes opposite to that in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move one behind the other (iii) The listener follows the source	(a) Apparent frequency depends on the velocities of the source and the listener. (b) vS and vL become opposite to that in case-3.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)

3.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Source at rest (ii) Listener moves towards the source	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency. (c) vS = 0 in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v}\right) n\)
(i) Source at rest (ii) Listener moves away from the source	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vS = 0 in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v}\right) n\)

4.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Listener at rest (ii) Source moves towards the listener	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency. (c) vL = 0 in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Listener at rest (ii) Source moves away from the listener	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vL = 0 in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)

Question 5.
Explain echo method to measure velocity’ of sound.
Answer:
Apparatus required: A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stop watch.
Procedure:

1. Measure the distance ‘d’ between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
2. The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
3. The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
4. Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound : The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound = \(\frac{distence Travelled}{Time Taken}\)
= \(\frac{2d}{t}\)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is ……………….
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ……………
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 16
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes …………….. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river …………..
3. Tamil Nadu ranks …………….. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………….. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ………….
Answers:
1. 21
2. Thenpennai
3. Second
4. Chennai International Airport
5. Balance of trade

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reasoning (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu
Reasoning (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(а) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)

V. Answer the following in briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Coimbatore has the ideal conditions for cotton cultivation – Humid weather in the early stages and hot weather during the harvest period. Cotton cultivation and the textile industries are the reasons to call Coimbatore as the “Manchester of Tamil Nadu”.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:

1. Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) a well established suburban railway network. Currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground operation since May 2017.
2. It is mainly started to manage the crowd during peak hours. The elevated metro system. Connects the heart of the city from North to South.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

1. Chennai International Airport
2. Coimbatore International Airport
3. Madurai International Airport
4. Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:

1. Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

1. Chennai
2. Ennore and
3. Tuticorin
   Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
During Athivaradhar festival minor stampede that brokeout on Thursday (18^th July 2019) the crowd flocked to Kancheepuram as it was an auspicious day after the lunar eclipse. Four people died.

On 21^st April 2019 atleast seven people died in stampede in Tamil Nadu during a temple festival at Muthuaiyampalayam Karuppusamy temple in Thuraiyur a village near Trichy (Sunday).

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and Inland fishing
Answer:

Marine Fishing	Inland Fishing
It is carried out in oceans and seas.	Inland fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
Large mechanised boats are used for fishing.	Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used in fishing.
The fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, catfish, silver bellies and crabs.	Oysters and prawns are cultured in original nurseries.
Chennai, KanyaKumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram.	Vellore, Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts are inland fish production of the state.

Question 2.
Food Crops and Non- Food Crops
Answer:

Food Crops	Non- Food Crops
Food crops are mainly grown for consumption	They are mainly grown for sale purpose
Paddy is the main food crop and cereals, pulses and millets are also the second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu	Sugarcane, cotton, tree and coffee
Cauvery delta is known as the Granary of South India leading in rice cultivation	Tiruvallur, Kancheepuram, Vellore, coimbatore, Cuddalore, Erode, Madurai, Ramanatha Puram, Salem, Thoothukudi, Nilgiris and yercaud.

Question 3.
Surface Water and Ground Water
Answer:

Surface Water	Ground Water
The total surface water potential of the state is about 24,864 mem.	The utilizable groundwater resource of the state is 22,423 mem.
There are 17 major river basins in the state with 81 reservoirs and about 41,262 tanks	The current level of utilization of water is about 13,558 mem.
Most of the surface water has already been tapped, primarily for irrigation, where water use in the largest.	60% of the available recharge, while about (8875 mcm) 40% is the balance available for use.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
By continuous usage of chemical fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides the soil became unfit for cultivation after some years. It causes a threat to agriculture. So to bring back the soil to fertility and to make it fit for cultivation farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming. Organic wastes, biological pest control crop residues and animal manure only used under organic farming.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Agriculture, job opportunities and industrial development are the main causes of population density in the cities then the villages.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is an industry town and is very famous for cottage and hand-loom textile industries. Moreover state’s most of the textile goods exports is from Karur district. That is why Karur is called the textile capital of Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
Most of the religious festivals are located in areas like banks of rivers hilly terrains or mountain tops. These areas lack proper pathways, posing a geographical risk to the pilgrims. It often disrupts the orderly movement of crowds resulting in irrational and dangerous movement for self-protection, leading to injuries and fatalities. Because of the lack of physical infrastructure, the mob behaviour increases the sense of threat, which results in a stampede.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Plantation Crops: Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber, pepper and cinchona.

The hill slopes with laterite soil and acidic-nature is ideal for the plantation crops.

Tea: Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgins and Coimbatore. Notable region for tea estates Nilgiris.

Coffee: Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats. It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigui, Madurai, Theni and Salem districts.
Notable places: Yercaud, Kolli hills and Kodaikanal,

Rubber: Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.

Cashew: It is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.

Pepper: Confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

Cinchona: It is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.

Cardamom: Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Position: Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of tea and coffee next to Assam and Karnataka respectively.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu constitutes 4% of India’s land area and is inhabited by 6% of India’s population, but has-only 2.5% of India’s water resources.
2. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.
3. Major uses of water include human/animal consumption irrigation and industrial use.
4. The state is heavily dependent on monsoon rains.
5. The annual average rainfall is around 930 mm (47% during the northeast monsoon, 35% during the south west monsoon, 14% in summer and 4% in winter.
   

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

(ii) The state accounts for the country’s 55.3% of lignite, 75% of vermiculite, 69% of dunite, 59% of garnet, 52% of molybdenum and 30% of titanium mineral resources.
Important minerals are found in the state are as follows:

1. Neyveli has large lignite resources.
2. Coal is available in Ramanathapuram
3. Oil gas are found in the Cauvery basin
4. Iron deposits are found in Kanjamalai region in Salem district and Kalrayan Malai region of Tiruvannamalai district.
5. Magnesite ores are available near Salem.
6. Bauxite is found in Servarayan Hills, Kotagiri, Udagamandalam, Palani and Kollimalai areas.
7. Gypsum is obtained in Tiruchirappalli, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi and Virudhunagar districts.
8. Ilmenite and rutile are found in the sands of Kanyakumari beach.
9. Limestone is available in Coimbatore, Cuddalore, Dindigul, Kancheepuram, Karur, Madurai, Nagapattinam, Namakkal, Perambalur, Ramanathapuram, Salem and Tiruvallur districts.
10. Magnesite is obtained in Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Karur, Namakkal, the Nilgiris, Salem.
11. Feldspar, quartz, copper and lead are found in some parts of the state.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The number of persons living per square km is referred as population density.
2. A place is said to have high density of population if number of persons living per sq km is above 800.
3. As per 2011 census the density of population in Tamil Nadu is 555 per sq.km

Densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu:
Chennai is the densest district – 26,903 persons per sq.km followed by Kanyakumari (1106), Tiruvallur (1049), Kancheepuram (927), Madurai (823), Coimbatore (748), Cuddalore (1702), Thanjavur (691), Nagapattinam (668-), Salem (663), Vellore (646), Tiruchirappalli (602).

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Roadways:
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, In which 60,628km are maintained by state Highways Department. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered at Chennai.
  The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s southern peninsula, covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km with 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most of the major cities in India.
• Main rail junctions in the state include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

Water ways:

• Tamil Nadu has 3 major ports. They are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin. It has an intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports. Ennore intermediate port was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and ore traffics in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:
In recent years the number of road accidents in Tamil Nadu has been increasing. It is reported that 15% of the road accidents of the country takes place in Tamil Nadu.

Basic road safety rules:

1. Aware of the road signals
2. Stop, look and cross
3. Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
4. Don’t rush on roads
5. Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
6. Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles.
7. Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle.
8. Avoid speeding, Drunk and driving, use helmets and seat belts and follow traffic rules.

“Know – Risk! No – risk!”

IX. Map Study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airport and seaports.
Answer:

Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Tea, Coffee, rubber, pepper and cashew are …………. crops.
(a) Food
(b) Fiber
(c) Plantation
Answer:
(c) Plantation

Question 2.
The word Agriculture is derived from the ……………….. words “ager and Cultura”.
(a) Latin
(b) Greek
(c) Tamil
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 3.
Rice, Cotton, Sugercane are grown with …………….
(a) Drying farming
(b) Irrigation farming
(c) Cattle reasing
Answer:
(b) Irrigation farming

Question 4.
In Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute is situated at:
(a) Aduthurai
(b) Madurai
(c) Thiruvallur
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Aduthurai

Question 5.
Millets are ……………… crops.
(a) Wet crops
(b) Dry crops
(c) Plantation
Answer:
(b) Dry crops

Question 6.
To promote ……………….. a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’was launched.
(a) mixed farming
(b) organic farming
(c) aquaculture
(d) plantation farming
Answer:
(b) organic farming

Question 7.
Which is known as the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Salem
(b) Karur
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(b) Karur

Question 8.
……………….. is also known as ‘poor man’s cow’.
(a) Goat
(b) Sheep
(c) Buffalo
(d) Horse
Answer:
(a) Goat

Question 9.
The most populated district in Tamil Nadu is …………….
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruvallur
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 10.
districts lead in the Inland fish production.
(a) Chennai
(b) Cuddalore
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(d) Vellore

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………. irrigation is most predominant irrigation system in TamilNadu.
2. ……….. Dam is one of the biggest earthen dams in the country.
3. Amaravathi reservoir is notable for the …………….
4. Papanasam dam is also known as ………….. dam.
5. Parappalar project is located near …………….
6. Tamil Nadu occupies ……………… position in the country in silk production.
7. The Vellore district is the top exporter of finished …………. in the country.
8. Tamil Nadu accounts for about ………….. of India’s …………. exports.
9. Tamil Nadu ranks among the Indian states in population density.
10. ………… in considered the ‘fire works capital’ of India.
Answers:
1. Well
2. Bhavani
3. Mugger crocodiles
4. Karaiyar
5. Ottanchatram
6. Fourth
7. leather goods
8. 17%, Software
9. 12th
10. Sivakasi

III. Match the following.

a.

1.	Rearing of birds	(a)	Apiculture
2.	Rearing of honeybees	(b)	Horticulture
3.	Rearing of silkworms	(c)	Poultry farming
4.	Growing fruits	(d)	Sericulture

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3.(d)
4.(b)

b.

1.	Wet fanning	(a)	Millets
2.	Dry farming	(b)	Rice
3.	Plantation farming	(c)	Sugarcane
4.	Market gardening	(d)	Tea, Coffee
5.	Irrigation farming	(e)	Kancheepuram

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (c)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is a practice of farming that includes cultivation of crops, rearing of animals, birds, forestry, fisheries and other related activities.

Question 2.
What is the Multipurpose River Valley Projects?
Answer:
Multipurpose river valley projects are basically designed for the development of irrigation for agriculture and hydropower generation they are used for many other purposes as well.

Question 3.
List out the major food crops and commercial crops of the state.
Answer:

1. The principal food crops – paddy, millets and pulses.
2. The commercial crops – sugarcane, cotton, oilseeds, spices, tea, and coffee and cashew.

Question 4.
Define Trade.
Answer:
Trade-in an exchange of goods and commodities either within the country or between countries.

Question 5.
Write a note on Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute was established in April 1985 under Tamil Nadu Agricultural University.
2. It is situated at AduthUrai (Thanjavur).
3. It’s function is to perform lead function for rice and rice based cropping system research with the help of existing agriculture colleges and research centers.

Question 6.
Name any four districts with low density of population.
Answer:
Nilgiris, Perambalur, Dharmapuri and Sivagangai.

Question 7.
What are minor ports?
Answer:
Minor ports are anchorage ports where cargo is transhipped from the vessel to the store.
Ex. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Kolachal and Rameshwaram.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Chinchona?
Answer:

• Chinchona is a forest product.
• From chinchona quinine a drug is extracted.
• Malaria is treated with this medicine.

Question 9.
Write the expansion of these abbreviated terms.

1. TNAU
2. TANTEA
3. TNPL
4. TANCEM
5. Gl
6. CLRI
7. SEZ
8. TTDC

Answer:

1. TNAU: Tamil Nadu Agriculture University
2. TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited
3. TNPL: Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited
4. TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited
5. GI: Geographical Indication
6. CLRI: Central Leather Research Institute –
7. SEZ: Special Economic Zone
8. TTDC: Tamil Nadu Tourism-Development Corporation

Question 10.
Name the factors influencing agriculture.
Answer:
The factors influencing agriculture can be classified as Physical, Social and economic factors.

• Physical factors includes soil, temperature, rainfall, humidity, climate and slope of land.
• The social factors includes traditional knowledge belief and myths of farmers, farm size and holdings and fanners acceptance towards innovation.
• Economic factors are market loan assistance, government subsidy and incentives.

V. Distinguish:

Question 1.
Wet farming and Dry farming
Answer:

Wet farming	Dry farming
Water supply is available through out the year from rain fall and irrigation for farming.	Farming is carried out only during rainy season.
Rice and sugarcane are grown.	Ragi and millets are grown.

Question 2.
Commercial crops and Plantation crops
Answer:

Commercial crops	Plantation crops
Sugarcane, tobacco, oil seeds, spices, turmeric etc are commercial crops.	Tea, coffee, rubber, pepper and cashewnut are the main plantation crops.
Tobacco is yet another commercial crop grown an Dindigul, Teni and Madurai districts.	Coffee in grown in the W.Ghats and E. Ghats.

Question 3.
Imports and Exports
Answer:

Imports	Exports
Goods and services bought from overseas producers.	Goods and services sold to overseas consumers.
A country that imports goods and services loses foreign exchage currency.	A country that exports goods and services gains foreign exchange currency.
Tamil Nadu imports machineries, electrical equipments, mineral, fuel and pharmaceutical products.	Tamil Nadu exports agricultural products, Leather products, Gems, and jewellery, chemical and related products.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Tourism is considered as an industry – justify. Give an account on Tourism in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tourism is considered as an industry because of its enormous potential in creating employment for a large number of people.
2. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit our state (Tamil Nadu) annually.
3. Reasons: The presence of ancient temples and monuments, hill stations pilgrim centres, a variety of natural land scapes, long coast line along with rich culture and heritage make Tamil Nadu the best destination for tourists.
4. Promoter: Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC).
5. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals (in 2013).

Question 2.
Give an account for the distribution of Textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Textile industry is one of the traditionally well-developed industries in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu has a major share in the Indian Textile industry in terms of production and export of yams, fabrics, knitwear and garments. Tamil Nadu contributes 30% of India’s share in export of cotton, yam and fabrics.

Tropical climate availability of raw materials, demand for cotton in market, power supply from numerous power projects and abundant cheap labour are favourable factors for widespread distribution of textile industries in Tamil Nadu. The textile mills are concentrated in Coimbatore, Tirupur, Salem, Palladam, Kamr, Dindigul, Vimdhunagar, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi, Madurai and Erode. Tamil Nadu has about 3,50,000 power looms manufacturing cotton fabrics.

Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region for this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. Timpur and Erode contributes much for the state economy, therefore they are referred to as ‘Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu’.

Timpur alone contributes 70% of export of knitwear of Tamil Nadu. Erode specializes in garments and bedspreads. The city of Kamr is known as ‘Textile capital of Tamil Nadu Silk Textiles’. Tamil Nadu occupies fourth place in silk textile production in our country Kancheepuram silk is unique in its quality and is known for its traditional value all over the world. Arani, Rasipuram and Thimbuvanam are other silk centres of Tamil Nadu.

Sericulture Training Institute in Hosur training farmers to adopt agriculture along with farm work to accelerate rural industrialization Mettur, Madurai and Ramanathapuram are specialized areas for manufacturing synthetic clothes.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called ……..
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is:
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh.
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of …….
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

Question 4.
…………………. transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways.
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is:
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is:
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter services?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is:
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (f)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
Dr Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “it is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. International migration.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:
Advantages of Railways:

1. Cater to the needs of large scale movement of traffic for freight and passengers.
2. Promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
3. Promotes National integration by bringing people together.
4. Facilitates the quick movement of perishable goods.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants. Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation. The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:

1. Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hoogly river system between Haldia and Allahabad.
2. Stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya National Waterway.
3. The waterway between Kollam and Kottapuram – the first national waterway.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication refers to exchange of ideas, messages, emotions, either written or oral, from one place to another.
Types of communications are :

1. personal communication and
2. mass communication.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
Trade carried on between two or more countries is called “International trade”. It is also called as external trade or foreign trade. It has two components Exports and Imports.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

1. Cost of construction of roads is much lower.
2. Provides door to door services thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
3. Used as feeder to other modes of transport to reach any destination be it railway station, sea port or airport, one need to travel through roads.

IV. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
The density of population and growth of population.
Answer:

Question 2.
Personal communication and mass communication.
Answer:

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:

Question 5.
Waterways Airways
Answer:

Question 6.
Internal trade and International trade.
Answer:

V. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
“The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization”.

Impacts of Urbanization:

1. Overcrowding in urban centres.
2. It creates urban sprawl.
3. It leads to the formation of slums.
4. Shortage of houses in urban areas.
5. It creates water scarcity in the cities.
6. It creates drainage problem.
7. It poses the problem of solid waste management.
8. It increases traffic congestion in cities.
9. It increases the rate of crime.

A rapid rate of urbanization in society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:
Satellite images are used for weather forecasting, monitory of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas etc. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in communication in our country after the establishment of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969. Satellite systems in India can be grouped into two on the basis of two satellites namely “Indian National Satellite” (INSAT) and “Indian Remote Sensing Satellite” (IRS). These satellites collect data in several spectral band and transmit there to ground stations for various uses. The communication and remote sensing satellites INSAT and IRS have revolutionized India’s communication system. Metrological studies and natural resource management.

The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. There is no doubt that India has irrefatably arrived as a space power in the world. The INSAT series are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio, mobile phone. It is also useful in weather detection, internet. The INSAT series GSAT series, GSAT series KALPANA -1, HAMSAT, EDUSAT are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose. GSAT – 7A is the recent launch for communication programs. INSAT – IB launched on 30th August, 1983 is the first communication satellite in INSAT series.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term “Population Distribution” refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface.

The distribution of population in India is unevenly distributed due to the vast variation in the availability of resources.

Factors that affect the distribution of population are: Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization.

Areas of high concentration of population: Industrial centres and the areas of good agricultural lands.

Areas of thin population: high mountains, arid lands, thickly forested areas and some remote comers and some areas are even uninhabited.

Most populous states in India: Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India (199.5 million) followed by Maharashtra (112.3 million), Bihar (103.8 million) West Bengal (91.3 million) and the combined Andhra Pradesh (84.6 million).

Least populated State: Sikkim (0.61 million).

Union territory with high population: Delhi (16.75 million). Union territory with least population – Lakshadweep (64,073).

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub – ul – Haq defined as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment”. Human
Development Index (HDI) is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

1. Health – life expectancy at birth,
2. Education – expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population,
3. Income – Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:
Roadways play an important role in carrying goods and passengers for short, medium and long distances. It is highly suitable for short-distance services.

For the purpose of construction and maintenance Roadways in India are classified into:

1. National Highways (NH)
2. State Highways (SH)
3. District Roads
4. Rural Roads (Village roads)
5. Border Roads
6. International Highways

National Highways:

1. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways of India is responsible for the development and maintenance of the National Highways in India.
2. These Highways are connecting capitals of states, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
3. The total length of the National Highways in India is 1,01,011 Km which accounts for 1.8% of total road network length in 2016.
4. The longest National Highway NH-7 runs from Varanasi (U.R) to Kanyakumari (T.N) to a distance of 2369 km.
5. The shortest National Highway is NH-47A, runs from Emakulum to Kochi port (Willington Island) covering a distance of 6 km.

State Highways:

1. These roads are administered and financed by State Governments.
2. These highways link important cities, towns and district headquarters within the state and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
3. State highways run to a length of 1,76,166 km as of 2016.

District Roads:

1. District Roads are constructed and maintained by the Public Works Department of the states.
2. District Roads provide connectivity between the district and taluk headquarters with the state highways and national highways.
3. The total length of the road is 5,61,940 km in 2016.
4. Rural Roads (Village Roads): They are maintained by village Panchayats.
5. It links different villages with their neighbouring towns.
6. Rural roads connectivity is a key component of Rural development.
7. The total length of Rural roads in India is 39,35,337 km as of 2016.
8. Rural roads consists of Panchayat roads, (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat), roads of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) and those constructed by the State PWDs.

Border Roads:

1. They are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization established in 1960 for the development of the roads of Northern and North Eastern border areas.
2. These are the roads of strategic importance in border areas.
3. The Border Road organization has constructed world’s highest road joining Chandigarh and Leh in Ladak (at an altitude 4,270 mt).
4. Golden Quadrilateral: This project was launched in 1999.
5. It connects India’s four metropolitan cities Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai Mumbai.
6. It has 4/6 lanes and of 5,846 km long.
7. North-South and East-West corridors: These two corridors intersect at Jhansi.
8. North-South Corridor connects Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kaniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (4,076 km).
9. The East-West corridor connects Silchar in Assam with port town of Porbandar in Gujarat (3,640 km).

Express ways: These are the multi lane good quality highways for high speed traffic. Eg: (a) Mumbai – Pune Road, (b) Delhi – Agra.

International Highways:

1. These Highways have been constructed with an aid from World Bank under an agreement with the Economic and Social Commission for Asia-pacific (ESCAP).
2. These roads link India with her neighbouring countries – Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar.

India has the second-longest road network in the world.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

1. National Highway NH-7.
3. Major International Airports in India.

2. Major seaports in India.
4. Densely populated state of India.
5. State of highest literacy in India.

6. Railway zones of India

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
What could be the reason for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical ones.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural, vegetation, mineral and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, political issues economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

• Widening gap between birth and death rates.
• Low age at marriage.
• High illiteracy.
• Religious attitudes towards family planning.

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Attitude of the people: Prestige and pride in having male child made them to prefer a male child to a female child.
2. Female infanticide: Even now in same places it is being done for fear of neglect by their family members if they give birth to a female child.
3. Future marriage expenses on female child.
4. Considered as weaker sex so will not be given opportunity to prove their ability suppressed by male domination.

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI.
Answer:
The functions of National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) are:

• To develop, maintain and manage the national highways and any other highways vested in, or entrusted to it by the Government.
• Survey, develop, maintain and manage highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct offices or workshops and establish and maintain hotels, motels, restaurants and rest-rooms at or near the highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct residential buildings and townships for its Employees.
• Regulate and control the plying of vehicles on the highways vested in or entrusted to it for the proper management thereof.
• Provide such facilities and amenities for the users of the highways vested in, or entrusted to it as are in the opinion the Authority, necessary for the smooth flow of traffic on such highways.
• Advise the Central Government on matters relating to highways.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways?
Answer:
The main objective of this project is connectivity, speed and safety.

Connectivity: Connects four major metropolitan cities enhances the movement of goods and people to the industrial areas enhances job development.
Access to hinterland of agricultural areas to market areas, ports for export needs.

Speed: Reduces the travel time.

Safety: Six lanes super highways meant for safety.

This project was launched in the year 1999. Implemented by National Highway Authority of India.

Encourages the private sector companies to invest, develop and maintain these highways.

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the north eastern states?
Answer:

• Due to mountains, rivers, etc. road journey becomes too long even for short distance.
• So air travel is the most feasible option and the costs are also quite low due to subsidies by the government.
• Most of the cities have regional active airports.
• Air transport is preferred mainly in the North eastern states of India.

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocks which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Major trade blocks useful for Multilateral trade.

EU: European Union

APEC: (Asian Pacific Economic Community) .

ASEAN: (Association of South East Asian Nations)

SAPTA: (South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement)

These trade blocks made the international trade easier. All member countries who signed the agreement are treated equally. These trade blocks remove the barriers and complications arose between nations in international trade.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”.
Answer:
Role of Railways in Indian Economy

• Railways are the principle mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
• Railways also make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
• Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industry and agriculture.
• The distribution pattern of the railway netw ork in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors.

Question 2.
Collect the names for different types of goods and differentiate it and make a table as perishable and non-perishable goods.
Answer:
Perishable goods are foods like fresh meat, seafood, and ripe fruits.
Non-perishable are items that do not spoil or decay.
Ex. Canned goods, all pasta types, sugar, flour, curls and chips if air-sealed.

Question 3.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:

Find Out:

The important National Highways in India and label it on the outline map of India.

The important National Highways in India are:
NH-6- Hazira to Kolkata (via Nagpur, Raipur, Sambalpur and Dhule)
NH-7 -Varanasi to Kanyakumari (Nagpur, Bangaluru and Madurai
NH-8 – Delhi to Mumbai (Jaipur, Ahmedabad and Vadodara)
NH-9 – Pune to Machilipatnam and Hyderabad, Vijayawada

The important National Highways in India.

India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India is the ……. most populous country in the world.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) sixth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 2.
The …………………. is the least populous state.
(a) Assam
(b) Goa
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Question 3.
Postal service and telegraph are some of the ………. communication.
(a) personal
(b) professional
(c) mass
Answer:
(a) personal

Question 4.
In India the year of demographic divide registered negative growth rate is ………………….
(a) 1921
(b) 1931
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(a) 1921

Question 5.
The headquarters of the Northern Railways is ………
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Allahabad
(c) Guwahati
Answer:
(c) Guwahati

Question 6.
The National Highways Authority of India was established in:
(a) 1975
(b) 1985
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 7.
The first railway line was laid between in 1853.
(a) Delhi and Kolkata
(b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Mumbai and Thane
Answer:
(c) Mumbai and Thane

Question 8.
Indian Railways is organized into …………………. zones for operations and management.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 19
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 9.
Trade blocs are created to make the ……. trade easier.
(a) Multilateral
(b) Bilateral
(c) Local
Answer:
(a) Multilateral

Question 10.
The …………………. is the fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Waterways
(d) Airways
Answer:
(c) Waterways

Question 11.
The headquarters of Indian Railways is ……..
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Nagpur
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 12.
The …………………. are the most powerful means of print media.
(a) Radio
(b) Magazines
(c) Fax
(d) Newspapers
Answer:
(d) Newspapers

Question 13.
The highways connecting the four metropolitan cities – Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.
(a) Six lanes super highways
(b) Expressways
(c) Border Roads
Answer:
(a) Six lanes super highways

Question 14.
Primitive method of trade was known as system.
(a) communication
(b) barter
(c) bilateral
(d) balanced
Answer:
(b) barter

Question 15.
Metro Rail transport in Chennai was introduced in …….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2005
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 16.
Since 1957 All India Radio came to be called ……..
(a) Akshvani
(b) Sooriyan FM
(c) Vivith Bharathy
Answer:
(a) Akshvani

Question 17.
The Government of India merged all the Indian Airlines under ………
(a) TATA Airline
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India
(c) Airport Authority of India
Answer:
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India

Question 18.
Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays.
(a) Railways
(b) Pipelines
(c) Roadways
Answer:
(b) Pipelines

Question 19.
Which of the following sates is not connected with the H.V.J. Pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 20.
Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the
east coast?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradip
(c) Vishakhapatnam
Answer:
(c) Vishakhapatnam

Question 21.
Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
(a) Internal Trade
(b) International Trade
(c) Local Trade
Answer:
(b) International Trade

Question 22.
The National Highway No.l is also known as
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Marg
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru Road
Answer:
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg

Question 23.
Trade carried in cities, towns and villages is called
(a) External trade
(b) Local trade
(c) international trade
Answer:
(b) Local trade

Question 24.
The Indian National Highways are maintained by the department of …….
(a) State Public Works Department
(b) Zila Parishad
(c) Central Public Works Department
Answer:
(c) Central Public Works Department

Question 25.
Which one of the following organizations constructs Border roads in India?
(a) PWD
(b) CPWD
(c) NHAI
Answer:
(c) NHAI

Question 26.
World has become a global village due to which of the following?
(a) Transport and communication
(b) Engineering Industry
(c) International trade
Answer:
(a) Transport and communication

Question 27.
Border Roads Organization was established in
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1960

Question 28.
The longest highways of India is
(a) National Highway – 8
(b) National Highway – 7
(c) National Highway – 1
Answer:
(b) National Highway – 7

Question 29.
Delhi and Mumbai are connected by …..
(a) National Highway – 1
(b) National Highway – 15
(c) National Highway – 8
Answer:
(c) National Highway – 8

Question 30.
Which Port is the major iron ore exporting port of the country?
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(b) Marmagoa

Question 31.
The biggest port is …….
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa Port
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(a) Mumbai Port

Question 32.
The extreme south – western port is …….
(a) Tuticorin Port
(b) Kochi Port
(c) New Mangalore Port
Answer:
(b) Kochi Port

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……
2. …… have been replaced by more powerful diesel or electric engines.
3. There are ……… major ports located on the coast line of India.
4. Crude oil, petroleum and natural gas are transported by ……….
5. The largest terrestrial network of the world is ……….
6. The latest means of communication is ………
7. The multi purpose satellite system for telecommunication is …… – INSAT
8. The roadways are able to connect most of the ……… villages.
9. It is easier to construct and maintain ………..
10. National highways are maintained by ……… Government.
11. Indian railways system is the ……… in Asia.
12. Under transport the ….. forms the lifeline of the country.
13. The city ……. is the focal point from where railway lines radiate in all directions.
14. River Ganga is navigable upto …….
15. This world has been shrunk since the introduction of ……..
Answers:
1. Railways
2. Steam Engines
3. 13
4. pipelines
5. Doordharshan
6. Satellite
7. Indian National Satellite
8. remote
9. roadways
10. Central
11. largest
12. Railways
13. Delhi
14. Varanasi
15. Internet

III. Match the following.

Answers:
(1 – c)
(2 – d)
(3 – a)
(4 – e)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – a)
(3 – e)
(4 – c)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – e)
(2 – c)
(3 – a)
(4 – b)
(5 – d)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – c)
(3 – e)
(4 – b)
(5 – a)

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
What provides information regarding the population of our country?
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
When was the first Census held in India?
Answer:
1872

Question 3.
When was the first complete census taken?
Answer:
1881

Question 4.
After how many years Census is held in India?
Answer:
Census is held regularly after every tenth year.

Question 5.
Which is the most comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data in India?
Answer:
Indian Census

Question 6.
What is the population of India according to 2001 and 2011 Census?
Answer:
India’s population size as on March 2001 stood at 1,028 million and in 2011 is 1,210 million.

Question 7.
Which is the most populous state of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 8.
Which is the least populated state of India?
Answer:
Sikkim

Question 9.
Which is the least populated region of India?
Answer;
Lakshadweep

Question 10.
Name the five most populated states in India.
Answer:

1. Uttar Pradesh,
2. Maharashtra,
3. Bihar,
4. West Bengal and
5. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 11.
Define population density.
Answer
It is calculated as the number of persons per unit area.

Question 12.
Which is the least densely populated state of India?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh with 17 persons per sq.km.

Question 13.
Name the three main processes of change of population.
Answer:
Birth rates, death rates and migration.

Question 14.
Which two countries have a higher average population density than India?
Answer:
Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 15.
What are various types of migration?
Answer:
Internal migration and International migration.

Question 16.
Define age structure.
Answer:
It refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 17.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the popultion.

Question 18.
Is sex ratio balanced in India?
Answer:
No

Question 19.
Which regions of India has the highest and lowest sex ratio as per Census 2011?
Answer:
Kerala has a sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males, Delhi has only 866 females per 1000 males.

Question 20.
Who is a literate?
Answer:
A person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

V. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
National Highways and State Highways.
Answer:

Question 2.
Exports and Imports.
Answer:

Question 3.
Village Roads and District Roads.
Answer:

Question 4.
Bilateral Trade and Multilateral Trade
Answer:

Question 5.
Birth Rate and Death Rate
Answer:

Question 6.
Favourable balance of trade and Unfavaourable balance of Trade
Answer:

VI. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is the position of Indian population in the World?
Answer:

1. India is the second most populous country in the world.
2. It is the home of 17.5% of world’s population.
3. One out of every six persons in the w orld is from India.
4. Our population is almost equal to the combined population of USA, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 2.
How is the population of India grouped?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children (below 15 years): They are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.
2. Working Age (15-59 years): They are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the working population.
3. Aged (above 59 years): They can be economically productive though they may have retired.

Question 3.
What does the term “population change” refer to?
Answer:
The term “population change” refers to an increase or decrease of population of an area from one period to another period.

Question 4.
Name the three major superhighway project.
Answer:

1. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways: It links Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai and Delhi by six lane Super Highways.
2. North – South Corridor: Linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu).
3. East-West Corridor: Linking Silcher (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). The major objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of India.

Question 5.
Name the three major means of transport in the world?
Answer:
The three major means of transport in the world are:

1. Land transport: Roadways, Railways and pipelines.
2. Waterways: Inland waterways and ocean routes
3. Air transport: Domestic airways and International airways.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the types of ti;ade?
Answer:

1. Trade is an act or process of buying, selling or exchanging goods and services.
2. Types of trades are
   • Internal trade
   • International trade.

Question 7.
Write about the merits of air transport.
Answer:
Airways are the quickest, costliest most modem and comfortable means of transport.

1. Facilitates connectivity on a regional, national and international scale.
2. Made accessibility by connecting difficult terrains like high mountains and deserts.
3. It carries passengers, freight and mail.
4. Air transport plays a key role in times of emergency, during the time of natural and man made calamities like floods, epidemics and wars.

Question 8.
What are the merits of pipeline transport?
Answer:

1. It can be laid through difficult terrain as well as under water.
2. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent cost for maintenance and operation is low.
3. It ensures steady supply and minimizes transhipment losses and delays.
4. Pipeline operation involves very low consumption of energy.

Question 9.
What are the different kinds of mail services introduced by Department of posts?
Answer:

1. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and airlifted between ‘ stations both land and air.
2. The second class mail includes-book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals, carried by surface mail covering land and water transport.
3. Recently six mail channels have been introduced to facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities. They are Rajdhani channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk mail Channel

Question 10.
Explain MRTS (Metro Rail System).
Answer:

1. The Mass Rapid Transit System is an elevated line of the suburban railways in Chennai.
2. This Railway is administrated by the state owned Southern Railway.
3. This railway line currently runs from Chennai beach to Velachery covering 17 stations for a distance of 25 km.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Foreign Exchange?
Answer:
Foreign Exchange is the mechanism or process by which payments between any two places operating under different national currency systems are effected without passing of actual money or gold etc.

Question 12.
What are the four ship building yards in India?
Answer:

1. Hindustan Shipyard at Vishakhapatnam.
2. Garden reach workshop at Kolkata.
3. Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai.
4. Kochin Ship Yard and Kochi.

Question 13.
Define the term Dependency Ratio.
Answer:
The ratio between the economically active and economically inactive of population is termed as Dependency Ratio.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Define population. Why there is a need to study population?
Answer:

1. The total number of people residing in a country at a specified period of time is called “population” of that country. The study of population is known as Demography.
2. The human population has many components but the most fundamental are its numbers, composition, distribution and density. The study on these aspects also would reveal the work force of the country.
3. Population census of India provides the detailed information about the demography of India.

Question 2.
Name the major National Waterways of our country.
Answer:

1. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km). National Waterways No. 1
2. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) – National Waterways No.2
3. The West Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram – Komman – Udyogmandal and Champakkara Canals – 205 km) – National Waterways No.3
4. Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry Stretch of canals (1078 km) – National Waterways No.4 (v) Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal (588 km) – National Waterways No.5.

There are some other inland waterways on which substantial transportation taken place. These are Mandavi, Zuari and cumberjua, Sundarbans, Barak, backwaters of Kerala and tidal stretches of some other rivers.

Question 3.
Explain about the population composition.
Answer:
Population composition refers to characteristics such as age, sex, marital status, caste, language, education, occupation etc.

The study of composition of population helps us to understand the Social, economic and demographic structure of population.

Age Composition: Population of a county is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children less than 15 years of age (29.5%)
2. The people above 60years (8%)
3. These two categories falls under dependent population (37,5%)
4. Independent population 16 – 59 years (62.5%)

It shows that our country has enormous man power i.e., working force.

Sex Ratio: Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 male population.

This is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given rime.

According to 2011 census the sex ratio of the country is 940 females per 1000 males.

Literacy Rate: It is an important indicator of quality of people.

The people who are able to read and write are known as literates. The percentage of literate people to the total population is termed as literacy rate.

As per 2011 India’s literacy rate is 74.04%.

Occupational Structure: The economically active part of a country’s population are termed as workers.

They are placed under three categories as main workers, marginal workers and non workers.

Main workers are those who worked for the major part of the preceding year at least 6 months or 183 days.

Who worked less than six months are marginal.

People who have not worked at all comes under non workers.

In India as per 2011 census 75.23% are main workers and 24.77% of the people belong to marginal workers.

Question 4.
What are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Answer:
The development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement to their destination. Transport plays an important role in the economy. Because of transport raw materials reach to the factory or industry, and finally finished products reach to the consumer. It has helped in both production and distribution of goods. Hence, all efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development.

India is well – linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has also enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. Hence, it is right to say that means of transportation and communication are the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Textual Solved Problems

Question 1.
A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb in 5 seconds. What is the current through the bulb?
Solution:
Charge Q = 12 C, Time t = 5s. Therefore,
Current \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{12}{5}=2.4 \mathrm{A}\).

Question 2.
The work done in moving a charge of 10 C across two points in a circuit is 100 J. What is the potential difference between the points?
Solution:
Charge Q = 10 C, Work Done W = 100 J
Potential Difference \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{Q}}=\frac{100}{10}\)
Therefore, V = 10 volt.

Question 3.
Calculate the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 2 A passes, when the potential difference between its ends is 30 V.
Solution:
Current through the conductor I = 2 A,
Potential Difference V = 30 V
From Ohm’s Law: R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Therefore, R = \(\frac{30}{2}\) = 15 Ω.

Question 4.
The resistance of a wire of length 10 m is 2 ohm. If the area of cross-section of the wire is 2 × 10^-7 m², determine its

1. Resistivity
2. Conductance
3. Conductivity

Solution:
Given: Length, L = 10 m, Resistance, R = 2 ohm
and Area, A = 2 × 10^-7 m²

Question 5.
Three resistors of resistances 5 ohms, 3 ohms and 2 ohms are connected in series with 10 V battery. Calculate their effective resistance and the current flowing through the circuit.
Solution:
R₁ = 5 Ω, R₂ = 3 Ω, R₃ = 2 Ω, V = 10 V
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10 Ω
The current, \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s}}}=\frac{10}{10}=1 \mathrm{A}\).

Question 6.
An electric heater of resistance 5 Ω is connected to an electric source. If a current of 6 A flows through the heater, then find the amount of heat produced in 5 minutes.
Solution:
Given resistance R = 5 Ω, Current I = 6 A,
Time t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 s = 300 s
Amount of heat produced, H = I²Rt = 6² × 5 × 300 = 54000 J
Hence, H = 54000 J.

Question 7.
Two bulbs are having the ratings as 60 W, 220 V and 40 W, 220 V respectively. Which one has a greater resistance?
Solution:
Electric power \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
For the same value of V, R is inversely proportional to P.
Therefore, the lesser the power, the greater the resistance
Hence, the bulb with 40 W, 220 V rating has greater resistance.

Question 8.
Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Solution:
Power P = 100 W and Voltage V = 200 V
Power P = VI
So, Current, I = \(\frac{P}{V}\) = \(\frac{100}{200}\) = 0.5 A
Resistance, R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) = \(\frac{200}{0.5}\) = 400 Ω.

Question 9.
In the circuit diagram is given below resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ of 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 20 Ω respectively are connected as shown in fig.
Calculate:
(A) Current through each resistor
(B) The total current in the circuit
(C) The total resistance in the circuit

Solution:
(A) Since the resistors are connected in parallel, the potential difference across each resistor is same (i.e. V = 10 V)
Therefore, the current through R₁ is, \(\mathrm{I}_{1}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}=\frac{10}{5}=2 \mathrm{A}\)
Current through R₂, \(\mathrm{I}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{10}{10}=1 \mathrm{A}\)
Current through R₃, \(I_{3}=\frac{V}{R} \quad \frac{10}{20}=0.5 A\)

(B) Total current in the circuit, I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃ = 2 + 1 + 0.5 = 3.5 A

(C) Total resistance in the circuit

Hence, \(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}=\frac{20}{7}=2.857 \Omega\).

Question 10.
Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 4 Ω are connected in parallel in a circuit. If a 1 Ω resistor draws a current of 1 A, find the current through the other two resistors.
Solution:
R₁ = 1 Ω, R₂ = 2 Ω, R₃ = 4 Ω, Current I₁ = 1 A
The potential difference across the 1 Ω resistor = I₁R₁ = 1 × 1 = 1 V
Since, the resistors are connected in parallel in the circuit, the same potential difference will exist across the other resistors also.
So, the current in the 2 Ω resistor, \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{1}{2}=0.5 \mathrm{A}\)
Similarly, the current in the 4 Ω resistor, \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}=\frac{1}{4}=0.25 \mathrm{A}\).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.
(c) Rate of change in energy is current.
(d) Rate of change of current is a charge.
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is ______.
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) ohm
(d) ohmmeter.
Answer:
(c) ohm

Question 3.
In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
(a) The switch produces electricity.
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
(d) The bulb is getting charged.
Answer:
(d) The bulb is getting charged.

Question 4.
Kilowatt-hour is the unit of _______.
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power.
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
When a circuit is open, ______ cannot pass through it.
Answer:
Current.

Question 2.
The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ______.
Answer:
Ohm’s law.

Question 3.
The wiring in a house consists of ______ circuits.
Answer:
domestic electric

Question 4.
The power of an electric device is a product of _____ and ______.
Answer:
electric current, the potential difference.

Question 5.
LED stands for ______.
Answer:
Light Emitting Diode.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

Question 1.
Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Ohm’s law states the relationship between potential difference and current.

Question 2.
MCB is used to protect household electrical appliances.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The SI unit of electric current is Ampere.

Question 4.
One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt-hour.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest of the individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II:

Question 1.

1. Electric current	(a) Volt
2. Potential difference	(b) Ohmmeter
3. Specific resistance	(c) Watt
4. Electrical power	(d) Joule
5. Electrical energy	(e) Ampere

Answer:
1. (e) Ampere
2. (a) Volt
3. (b) Ohmmeter
4. (c)Watt
5. (d) Joule

V. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three – pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Correct Reason: Three – pin connections to protect the electrical shocking. Because appliances carry high electric current.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Correct Reason: The current flows towards the points of the lower potential.

Question 3.
Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\).

Question 2.
What happens to the resistance, when the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of cross section of the conductors. Hence, resistance is inversely proportional to square of the radius of the conductor.
R ∝ \(\frac{1}{A}\)
R ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^2}\)
When a conductor is made thicker, radius will be increased and so its resistance will be decreased.

Question 3.
Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not infuse wires?
Answer:
Because tungsten has a high melting point it is used in blubs. It cannot be used in fuse wires because in fuse wires the material must have a low melting point.

Question 4.
Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Answer:
(i) Electric heater
(ii) Fuse wire

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Electric Potential Difference: The electric potential difference between two points is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another point against the electric force.

Question 2.
What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:
This wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current. The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance. Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V
V = IR.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Answer:

Resistivity	Conductivity
1. It is the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross-section.	1. It is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material.
2. Its unit is ohm metre	2. Its unit is ohm-1 metre-1 or mho metre-1
3. It is the measure of the resisting power of a specified material to the passage of an electric current.	3. It is the measure of its ability to pass the current through it.

Question 5.
What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:
Parallel connection is used in domestic appliances. When any disconnection of one circuit in our home, does not affect the other circuit.

VIII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:
(a) in series and
(b) in parallel
Answer:
(a) Resistors in Series:
A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single-loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if

(i) Resistors are connected end to end so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.

(ii) Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series.

(iii) Let the current flowing through them be I.

(iv) According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁, V₂ and V₃ across R₁ , R2 and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = IR₁ …. (1)
V₂ = IR₂ …. (2)
V₃ = IR₃ …. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃ …. (4)

(v) The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit.

(vi) Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_S. Then,
V = IR_S ….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5)
IR_S = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
Thus, we can understand that

(vii) When a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.

(viii) When V resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘nR’. i.e., R_S = nR

(ix) The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel:
A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

(i) Consider that three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected across two common points A and B.

(ii) The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is measured using the voltmeter.

(iii) The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I₁, I₂ and I₃ passing through R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, we have,
\(I_{1}=\frac{V}{R_{1}}\) …(1)
\(I_{2}=\frac{V}{R_{2}}\) ….(2)
\(I_{3}=\frac{V}{R_{3}}\) …. (3)
The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
\(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}+\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}\) …. (4)
Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be R_P Then,
\(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}}\) …. (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we have
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}+\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}\).

(iv) When a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance.

(v) When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\)
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}} \ldots+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Hence, \(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\)

(vi) The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by electric current?
(b) Name and define its unit.
(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
Answer:
(a) Electric current is the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
(b) The unit of current is ampere. The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 coulomb}{1 second}\)
(c) Ammeter is used to measure electric current. Ammeter is always connected in series.

Question 3.
(a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
(a) The heat produced in the resistor is H = W = VQ
We know that the relation between the charge and current is Q = It.
Using this, we get H = VIt
From Ohm’s Law, V = IR. Hence, we have H = I²Rt
This is known as Joule’s law of heating.
Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

• Directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor. H = VIt
• Directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor. V = IR
• Directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor. H = I²Rt

(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Because:

• it has high resistivity
• it has a high melting point
• it is not easily oxidized.

(c) (i) The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit.
(ii) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected.
(iii) Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.
(iv) The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Question 4.
Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)
Answer:
In our homes, electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians. The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer. The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy. The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB). The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

An MCB is a switching device, which can be activated automatically as well as manually. It has a spring attached to the switch, which is attracted by an electromagnet when an excess current passes through the circuit. Hence, the circuit is broken and the protection of the appliance is ensured.

The electricity is brought to houses by one wire has a red insulation and is called the ‘live wire’. The other wire has a black insulation and is called the ‘neutral wire’. The electricity supplied to your house is actually an alternating current having an electric potential of 220 V. Both, the live wire and the neutral wire enter into a box where the main fuse is connected with the live wire. After the electricity meter, these wires enter into the main switch, which is used to discontinue the electricity supply whenever required. After the main switch, these wires are connected to live wires of two separate circuits.

Out of these two circuits, one circuit is of a 5 A rating, which is used to run the electric appliances with a lower power rating, such as tube lights, bulbs and fans. The other circuit is of a 15 A rating, which is used to two insulated wires. Out of these two wires, run electric appliances with a high power rating, such as air-conditioners, refrigerators, electric iron and heaters. It should be noted that all the circuits in a house are connected in parallel, so that the disconnection of one circuit does not affect the other circuit. One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

Question 5.
(a) What are the advantages of LED TV on normal TV?
(b) List the merits of the LED bulb.
Answer:
(a) (i) It has a brighter picture quality.
(ii) It is thinner in size.
(iii) It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
(iv) Its life span is more
(v) It is more reliable

(b) (i) As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat. It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.
(ii) In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have a significantly low power requirement.
(iii) It is not harmful to the environment.
(iv) A wide range of colours is possible here.
(v) It is cost-efficient and energy-efficient.
(vi) Mercury and other toxic materials are not required.

IX. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
Solution:
Case: 1
Power (P) = 420W
Applied Voltage (V) = 220V
Current \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{420}{220}=1.9 \mathrm{A}\)

Case: 2
Power (P) = 180 W
Applied Voltage (V) = 2.20 V
Current \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{180}{220}=0.8 \mathrm{A}\)

Question 2.
A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Answer:
Energy used by 100 W bulb is E = P × t
= 100 × 5 = 500 Wh
Energy used by four 60 W bulbs E = 4 × 60 × 5 = 1200 Wh
Total energy per day = 500 + 1200 = 1700 Wh
= 1.7 kWh
Number of days in January = 31 days.
Energy consumed in January = 31 × 1.7 = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.
A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s?
(a) power
(b) resistance
(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hours.
Solution:
V = 3V and I = 600 mA = 600 × 10^-3 A
(a) Power (P) = VI
= 3 × 600 × 10^-3
= 1800 × 10^-3
= 1.8 W (or) watt.

(b) Resistance (R) = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) = \(\frac{3}{600 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 5 Ω.

(c) Power (P) = 1.8 W and
Time = 4 hours = 4 × 60 × 60 = 14400 second
Energy consumed E = P × t = 1.8 × 14400 = 25920 joules
E = 25.9 KJ.

Question 4.
A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compare with the original resistance?
(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
(c) What will be the ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Solution:
(a) Consider a piece of wire having resistance R. It cut into 5 equal parts. So number of equal resistros are 5. n = 5
When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘nR’
R_S = nR
⇒ R_S = 5R
⇒ R = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s}}}{5}\)
⇒ R = 0.2 R_S
Each part of resistance ‘R’ is equal to 0.2 times of original resistance.

(b) Effective Resistance of 5 Resistors
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{5}{\mathrm{R}}\)
\(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{5}=0.2 \mathrm{R}\) = 0.2 R.

(c) Effective resistance of series combination R_S = 5R
Effective resistance of parallel combination \(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{5}\)
The ratio of series connection to the parallel connection
\(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}}=\frac{5 \mathrm{R}}{(\mathrm{R} / \mathrm{s})}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}}=5 \mathrm{R} \times \frac{5}{\mathrm{R}}\) = 25
R_S : R_P = 25 : 1.

XI. HOTS Questions

Question 1.
Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohms, but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohms. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Solution:
Resultant resistance of parallel combination R_P = 2 Ω
Resultant resistance of series combination R_S = 9 Ω

2(R₁ + R₂) = R₁R₂ ….. (1)
R_S = R₁ + R₂
⇒ 9 = R₁ + R₂
⇒ R₁ = 9 – R₂ ….. (2)
Substitute equation (2) in equation (1)
2(9 – R₂ + R₂) = (9 – R₂) R₂
⇒ \(18=9 \mathrm{R}_{2}-\mathrm{R}_{2}^{2}\)
⇒ \(\mathrm{R}_{2}^{2}-9 \mathrm{R}_{2}+18=0\)
⇒ (R₂ – 3) (R₂ – 6) = 0
⇒ R₂ = 3, 6
(i) If R₂ = 3; R₁ = 9 – R₂ = 9 – 3 = 6 Ω
(ii) If R₂ = 6; R₁ = 9 – R₂ = 9 – 6 = 3 Ω.

Question 2.
How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Answer:
A current 10¹⁸ electrons
A current of 5A consists
= 5 × 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons = 31.25 × 10¹⁸
Number of electrons passing per second
= 31.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 3.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohms is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Solution:
Specific resistance (ρ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
\(\mathrm{R}=\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
When the length is increased by three and then the area of cross-section is reduced by three,

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The motion of electric charges through a conductor will constitute ______.
(a) electric current
(b) electric potential
(c) electric field
(d) none.
Answer:
(a) electric current

Question 2.
Electric charge is expressed in:
(a) Volt
(b) Joule
(c) Coulomb
(d) Ohm
Answer:
(c) Coulomb

Question 3.
A charge of 60 coulomb flows through a bulb in 5 minutes what is the current through the bulb?
(a) 2 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 12 A
(d) 0.12 A.
Answer:
(b) 0.2 A
Hint: \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{60}{5 \times 60}=\frac{1}{5}=0.2 \mathrm{A}\)

Question 4.
1 coulomb of charge is equivalent to the charge of:
(a) 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons
(b) 6 × 10¹⁸ protons
(c) 1.6 × 10^-19 electrons
(d) 1.6 × 10^-19 protons
Answer:
(a) 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 5.
The S.I. unit of electric potential difference is ______.
(a) Ampere
(b) Joule
(c) Watt
(d) Volt.
Answer:
(d) Volt

Question 6.
The potential difference V is proportional to the current I, the graph between V and I is a _____.
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) ellipse
(d) none.
Answer:
(a) straight line

Question 7.
In an electric circuit, voltmeter reads 24V and ammeter reads 6A. The value of resistance is:
(a) 40Ω
(b) 2Ω
(c) 0.25Ω
(d) 4Ω
Answer:
(d) 4Ω

Question 8.
What is the potential difference between the ends of a resistor of 15 Ω when a current of 2 A passes through it?
(a) 30 V
(b) 7.5 V
(c) 3 V
(d) 300 V.
Answer:
(a) 30 V

Question 9.
How much heat is generated when current I is passing through a resistor for time t?
(a) I²Rt
(b) IR²t
(c) VI
(d) I²R
Answer:
(a) I²Rt

Question 10.
The unit of conductance is _____.
(a) ohm^-1
(b) volt^-1 ampere
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) ohm.
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1 : 2. If they are joined in series, the energy consumed in these are in the ratio:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 1
Answer:
(a) 1 : 2

Question 12.
The resistance of a wire of length 10 cm is 2 ohm, then its conductance is _____.
(a) 0.5 ohm
(b) 5 ohm^-1
(c) 0.5 ohm^-1
(d) 20 ohm^-1.
Answer:
(c) 0.5 ohm^-1

Question 13.
The value of current flowing through a circuit consisting of two resistance 6Ω and 18Ω in series with a battery of 3 V is:
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.125 A
(c) 6 A
(d) 0.25 A
Answer:
(b) 0.125 A

Question 14.
When two 2 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, the effective resistance is _____.
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 5 Ω.
Answer:
(b) 1 Ω

Question 15.
When two 2 Ω resistors are connected in series, the effective resistance is ______.
(a) 1 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 2 Ω.
Answer:
(b) 4 Ω

Question 16.
One kilowatt-hour is:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶J
(b) 1000 W
(c) 3600 W^-1
(d) 2.778 × 10³ J
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶J

Question 17.
When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in parallel, the effecive resistance for parallel is _____.
(a) nR
(b) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)

Question 18.
The effective resistance for the given circuit in AB _____.

(a) 1 Ω
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 3 Ω
(d) 1.5 Ω.
Answer:
(d) 1.5 Ω.

Question 19.
The effective resistance between AB in the given circuit _____.

(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\) Ω
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) Ω
(c) \(\frac{3}{4}\) Ω
(d) \(\frac{4}{3}\) Ω.
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{4}{3}\) Ω.

Question 20.
The symbol of Ammeter is:
(a) V
(b) A
(c) G
(d) I
Answer:
(b) A

Question 21.
Tungsten material is used in _____.
(a) Fuse wire
(b) bulbs
(c) batteries
(d) none.
Answer:
(b) bulbs

Question 22.
When a charge 24 C flow through a bulb in 10 second then the current flowing through the bulb is:
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 2.4 A
(c) 4.8 A
(d) 0.06 A
Answer:
(b) 2.4 A

Question 23.
The unit of electric power is _____.
(a) Volt-ampere
(b) Watt
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 24.
One horsepower is equal to _____.
(a) 764 watt
(b) 746 watt
(c) 647 watt
(d) 674 watt.
Answer:
(b) 746 watt

Question 25.
Unit of specific resistance is:
(a) mho
(b) mho m
(c) ohm m
(d) ampere
Answer:
(c) ohm m

Question 26.
To protect the horse hold electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current _____.
(a) Fuse wire
(b) MCB
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none.
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 27.
In India, domestic circuits are supplied with a frequency of ______.
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 220 Hz
(d) 230 Hz.
Answer:
(b) 50 Hz

Question 28.
What is the unit of conductivity?
(a) ohm m^-1
(b) mho m
(c) ohm m
(d) mho m^-1
Answer:
(d) mho m^-1

Question 29.
The colour of the LED will depend on the type of _____ used.
(a) circuit
(b) materials
(c) display
(d) segment.
Answer:
(b) materials

Question 30.
One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more _______ bulbs.
(a) filament
(b) glass
(c) LCD
(d) LED.
Answer:
(d) LED

Question 31.
When resistances are connected in parallel current is more as effective resistance is:
(a) maximum
(b) less
(c) more
(d) minimum
Answer:
(b) less

Question 32.
The current in the electric bulb of 100 W and 200 V electric circuit is _____.
(a) 5 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 50 A
(d) 500 A.
Answer:
(b) 0.5 A

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Rate of flow of charges in a conductor is _____.
Answer:
electric current.

Question 2.
_____ is used to fix the magnitude of the current through a circuit.
Answer:
Resistor.

Question 3.
______ is used to select the magnitude of the current through a circuit.
Answer:
Rheostat.

Question 4.
_____ is used to measure the current.
Answer:
Ammeter.

Question 5.
______ is used to measure the potential difference.
Answer:
Voltmeter.

Question 6.
______ is used to indicate the direction of the current.
Answer:
Galvanometer.

Question 7.
Electric current passes in the circuit from _____ terminal to the _____ terminal.
Answer:
positive, negative.

Question 8.
Electrical resistivity is _____ for different materials.
Answer:
different.

Question 9.
Reciprocal of resistance is ______.
Answer:
conductance.

Question 10.
Reciprocal of electrical resistivity is ______.
Answer:
electrical conductivity.

Question 11.
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is _____ than the highest of the individual resistances.
Answer:
greater.

Question 12.
The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is _____ than the lowest of the individual resistances.
Answer:
less.

Question 13.
The heating effect of current is used in devices like _____ and _____.
Answer:
electric heater, electric iron.

Question 14.
Nichrome is an alloy of _____ and _____.
Answer:
Nickel, Chromium.

Question 15.
The filament is made up of a material whose ______ is very high.
Answer:
melting point.

Question 16.
Electric power is the product of _____ and _____.
Answer:
electric current, a potential difference.

Question 17.
The important components of main box are _____ and _____.
Answer:
fuse box, meter.

Question 18.
LED is _____.
Answer:
Light Emitting Diode.

Question 19.
LCD is _____.
Answer:
Liquid Crystal Display.

Question 20.
An array of LEDs act as ______.
Answer:
pixels.

Question 21.
A _____ is the display device used to give an output in the form of _____.
Answer:
Seven Segment display, numbers or text.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. LED	(a) heating device
2. Fuse wire	(b) alloy
3. Tungsten	(c) semiconductor device
4. Nichrome	(d) Filament
5. Electric heater	(e) MCB

Answer:
1. (c) semiconductor device
2. (e) MCB
3. (d) Filament
4. (b) alloy
5. (a) heating device

Question 2.

1. Power	(a) V = IR
2. Joule’s law	(b) \(\rho=\frac{R A}{l}\)
3. Ohm’s law	(c) P = VI
4. Specific Resistance	(d) I = \(\frac { Q }{ t }\)
5. Electric energy	(e) H = I2RT

Answer:
1. (c) P = VI
2. (e) H = I²RT
3. (a) V = IR
4. (b) \(\rho=\frac{R A}{l}\)
5. (e) I = \(\frac { Q }{ t }\)

Question 3.

1. Ammeter	(a) To measure resistance
2. Voltmeter	(b) Direction of current
3. Galvanometer	(c) To measure voltage
4. Ohmmeter	(d) To measure current

Answer:
1. (d) To measure current
2. (c) To measure voltage
3. (b) Direction of current
4. (a) To measure resistance

Question 4.

1. \(\rho=\frac{R A}{l}\)	(a) watt
2. \(\sigma=\frac{1}{\rho}\)	(b) Ωm
3. E = P × t	(c) coulomb
4. P = VI	(d) m-1Ω-1
5. q = It	(e) Kilowatt-hour

Answer:
1. (b) Ω^-1m
2. (d) m^-1Ω^-1
3. (e) Kilowatt-hour
4. (a) watt
5. (c) coulomb

Question 5.

Answer:
1. (c) Resistor
2. (e) Rheostat
3. (b) Voltmeter
4. (a) Ammeter
5. (d) Diode

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

Question 1.
The equivalent resistance in a series combination in lesser than the highest of the individual resistances.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
When ‘n’ number of resistors of equal resistance R connected in series, the equivalent resistance is \(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\).
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: R_S = nR.

Question 3.
When resistors are connected in series, a current is less as effective resistance is more.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Current is more as effective resistance is less.

Question 4.
Nichrome is an alloy of copper and chromium.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nichrome is an alloy of nickel and chromium.

Question 5.
The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively high.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

V. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
When a steady current flows in a conductor of non-uniform cross-section will the charge passing per unit time depend on area of cross section of the conductor?
Answer:
No, the charge passing per unit time through the conductor is independent of area of cross-section of the wire.

Question 2.
Name any two – component and give its use?
Answer:

Question 3.
Define the unit of electric potential?
Answer:

1. The SI unit of electric potential or potential difference is volt (V).
2. The potential difference between two points is one volt if one joule of work is done in moving one coulomb of charge from one point to another against the electric force.
   \(1 \text { volt }=\frac{1 \text { joule }}{1 \text { coulomb }}\)

Question 4.
Draw a graph between V and I for a conductor by ohm’s law?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the relationship between conductance and resistance? State the Unit of conductance.
Answer:
conductance = \(\frac{1}{resistance}\)
G = \(\frac{1}{R}\)
Unit of conductance is mho.

Question 6.
Define the unit of electric power.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric power is watt. When a current of 1 ampere passes across the ends of a conductor, which is at a potential difference of 1 volt, then the electric power is
P = 1 volt × 1 ampere = 1 watt.

Question 7.
Define one kilowatt-hour? Give its value?
Answer:
One kilowatt-hour is otherwise known as one unit of electrical energy. One kilowatt-hour means that electric power of 1000 watt has been utilized for an hour.
1 kWh = 1000 watt-hour = 1000 × (60 × 60) watt-second = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.

Question 8.
Define electric current.
Answer:
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of charge in a conductor.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define electrical resistivity? Give its unit.
Answer:
The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross – section.
Its unit is ohm metre.

Question 2.
Define specific resistance electrical conductivity? Give its unit.
Answer:
The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
\(\sigma=\frac{1}{\rho}\)
Its unit is ohm^-1 metre^-1. It is also represented as mho metre^-1.

Question 3.
Differences between series and parallel circuit?
Answer:

Criteria	Series	Parallel
Equivalent resistance	More than the highest resistance	Less than the lowest resistance
Amount of current	Current is less as effective resistance is more	Current is more as effective resistance is less
Switching ON/OFF	If one appliance is disconnected, others also do not work.	If one appliance is disconnected, others will work independently.

Question 4.
Distinguish electric power and electric energy?
Answer:

Electric Power	Electric Energy
Electric Power is defined as the rate of doing work	It is the capacity to do electric work
P = VI	E = P × t
Unit is watt	Unit is joule (or) [kWh]

Question 5.
Define electric potential difference.
Answer:
The electric potential difference between two points is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another point against the electric force.

Question 6.
Define Volt.
Answer:
The potential difference between two points is one volt, if one joule of work is done in moving one coulomb of charge from one point to another against the electric force.
1 volt = \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\)

Question 7.
What is the unit of resistance? Define its unit of resistance is ohm.
Answer:
Resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.
1 ohm = \(\frac{1volt}{1amphre}\)

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the series connection of parallel resistors.
Answer:
(i) If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, we get a series – parallel circuit.
(ii) Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_P1.
(iii) Similarly, let R₃ and R₄ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_P2.
(iv) Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series.


Finally, using the equation the R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ net effecitve resistance is given by R_total = R_P1 + R_P2

Question 2.
Explain the parallel connection of series resistors.
Answer:
(i) Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_P1.
(ii) If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, we get a parallel-series circuit.
(iii) Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S1.
(iv) Similarly, let R₃ and R₄ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S2.
(v) Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.

Parallel – Series combination of resistors
Using equation R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ we get
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
R_S1 = R₁ +R₂
R_S2 = R₃ + R₄
Finally, using equation, \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}\) the net effective resistance is given by \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\text {total }}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s} 1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s} 2}}\).

VIII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
Show that one ampere is equivalent to a flow of 6.25 × 10¹⁸ elementary charges per second.
Solution:
I = 1 A, t = 1 s, e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
q = ne
\(\mathrm{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{n e}{t}\)
Number of electrons, \(n=\frac{\mathrm{I} t}{e}=\frac{1 \times 1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}=6.25 \times 10^{18}\).

Question 2.
How many electrons pass through a lamp in one minute, if the current is 300 mA?
Solution:

Question 3.
Calculate the resistivity of the material of wire 10 m long, 0.4 mm in diameter and having a resistance of 20 Ω.
Solution:
l = 10 m; d = 0.4 mm = 0.4 × 10^-3 m
r = 0.2 × 10^-3 m
R = 20 Ω
Resistivity (or) specific resistance of a material

Question 4.
Find the effective resistance between A and B in the given circuit.
Solution:
Effective resistance in parallel combination 3 Ω and 2 Ω

\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{2+3}{6}=\frac{5}{6} \Omega\)
\(R_{P}=\frac{6}{5}\) = 1.2 Ω

R_S = R₁ + R₂ = 1.2 + 2 = 3.2 Ω.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
…………….. established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, atTranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W. Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 3.
……………. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by :
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………… founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ……………..
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
……………. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
…………….. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M.C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M.C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The college of Fort St. George was founded by ……………….
3. …………….. is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………. was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as …………
6. ………….. gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was …………
Answers:
1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party government
5. Parithimar Kalignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Reddi

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement. .
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Flindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:

1. The cultural hegemony of colonialism and the rise of humanism brought several changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian subcontinent.
2. Modem Tamil Nadu too experienced such a historical transition.
3. Tamil language and cultural played a significant role in their identity construction.
4. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages etc under pinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
5. Religious literature was taken up for publication after the advent of printing technology.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:
In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages. Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856. He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903), Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their ownways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil Literature.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justice ministry?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to the mismanagement of public resources. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:

1. Caste based discrimination in the dinning hall at the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam (School), which was run by V.V. Subramaniam (a Congress leader) with the financial support of theTamil Nadu Congress Committee.
2. Periyar was disappointed when, despite his objections and protests against this discrimination, the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Name of the newspapers:

1. Dravidian in Tamil
2. Justice in English
3. Andhra Prakasika in Telugu

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a Feminist.
Answer:

1. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
2. Right from 1929, when the Self – Respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.
3. Periyar objected to terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said treats woman as a thing.
4. He wants it substituted by “Valkaithunai” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Thirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the woman is enslaved?
5. Periyar believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.
6. He was a strong champion of birth control and contraception and said that motherhood was a burden to women.
7. In 1989 Government of Tamil Nadu fulfilled the dream of radical reformers by the introduction of the Hindu Succession Tamil Nadu Amendment Act of 1989, which ensured the equal rights to ancestral . property for women in inheritance.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register, restrictions on exporting foodstuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the government, just as employers had representation on legislative councils.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Periyar E.V.R
(a) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi, Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:
In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour movement in tamilnadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement
Answer:
The First World War (1914 – 18) provides stimulus to industrial growth in India. At the end of the war there were retrenchments across the industries. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.

(b) dentify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
B.P. Wadia, Singaravelar, Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
Bombay

(d) Who organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai Adigal
(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimali Adigal’s life.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) spent their lifetime in the re-discovery of the Tamil classics.
2. C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
3. His editions included such texts as Tolkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar-Akapporul, Ilakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai and Culamani.
4. U.V. Swaminathar a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar took efforts to publish the classical texts such a Civakachinthamani (1887), Paththupattu (1889), Chilapathikaram (1892), Purananuru (1894), Purapporul – Venpa – Malai (1895), Manimekalai (1898), Ainkurunuru (1903) and Pathitrupathu (1904).
5. The publication of these ancient literary texts created an awareness among the Tamil people about their historical tradition, language, literature and religion.
6. In 1816 F.W. Ellis (1777 – 1819) who founded the College of Fort . St. George formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
7. Robert Caldwell (1814 – 1891) expanded this argument in a book titled A Comparative Grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of Languages in 1856.
8. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
9. Tamil intellectuals of this period identified the fundamental differences between Tamil / Dravidian / Egalitarian and Sanskrit / Aryan Brahmanism.
10. They argued that Tamil was a language of Dravidian people who are Non – Brahmin and their social life was casteless, gender – sensitised and egalitarian.
11. These ideas are exemplified in the Tamil invocation song in the play, Manonmaniam written by R Sundaranar (1855 – 1897).
12. Abraham Pandithar (1859 – 1919) gave prominence to Tamil music and published books on the history of Tamil music.
13. C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar Thiru.Vi. kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903) Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their own ways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil literature.
14. V.G. Suryanarayana Sastri one of the earliest scholars to identify the influence of Sanskrit on Tamil and adopted a pure Tamil name for himself: Parithimar Kalaignar.
15. He was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical language and demanded that the University of Madras should not call Tamil a vernacular language.
16. Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950) is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism and the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
17. His daughter Neelambikai complied a dictionary that provided pure Tamil equivalents to Sanskrit words that had crept into Tamil vocabulary.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice party and point out its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:
It was the period of World War I. The British government thought to introduce representative institutions for Indians after the war. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated non-Brahmins decided to organize themselves politically. So, in 1916, some prominent non-Brahmin leaders came together from South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). It later came to be known as the Justice Party. It was a political party in the Madras Presidency of British India.

Contribution of the Justice Party to the cause-social justice:
The Justice Party government widened education and employment opportunities for the majority of the population and created space for them in the political sphere. The Justices removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Adi Dravidars from the use of public wells and tanks. In 1921, the Madras legislature under the Justice Party government was the first to approve participators of women in the electoral politics.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservations in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
2. Periyar understood the relevance of mass communication in spreading rationalist thought. He started a number of newspapers and journals.
3. He also supported Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorates for scheduled castes.
4. Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India and a pioneer of Buddhism.
5. In 1937, in opposition to the Rajaji’s Government move to introduce compulsory Hindi in schools, he launched a popular movement to oppose it.
6. The anti – Hindi agitation (1937 – 39) had a big impact of Tamil Nadu’s politics. Periyar was imprisoned for his role in the movement.
7. Rajaji, the Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54), introduced a vocational education programme with training in tune with their father’s occupation.
8. Periyar criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam (caste – based education scheme) and opposed it tooth and nail.
9. Anti-north Indian campaigns had made Periyar to take an anti – Hindi stand.
10. Periyar’s experiences taught him that it was necessary to eradicate religion in order to impart progress and Justice.
11. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
12. Periyar objected to the hereditary priesthood in temples.
13. He advocated inter – caste and Self Respect Marriages devoid of any such rituals.
14. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child – marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
15. Periyar objeeted to terms like “giving in marriage” This he said, treats women as a thing- He wants it substituted by Valkaithunai (companion).
16. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why women is enslaved? (xvz7) Periyar believe that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection.
17. Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organizations be done by students.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
South Indian Liberal Federation is otherwise known as the ……………….
(a) Dravidian Party
(b) Janatha Party
(c) Justice Party
Answer:
(c) Justice Party

Question 2.
………………. is an ideological and cultural phenomenon.
(a) Culture
(b) Heritage
(c) Renaissance
(d) Architecture
Answer:
(c) Renaissance

Question 3.
The greatest social reformer of Tamil Nadu ……………
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Nehru
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 4.
The fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their:
(a) religious
(b) social
(c) culture
(d) dignity
Answer:
(d) dignity

Question 5.
All India Women conference was organized at
(a) Pune
(b) Bombay
(c) Thame
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
………………. is one of earliest Tamil literary text.
(a) Thirukkural
(b) Chilapathikaram
(c) Purananuru
(d) Manimekalai
Answer:
(a) Thirukkural

Question 7.
Justice Party failed in the year ……………
(a) 1937
(b) 1934
(c) 1930
Answer:
(a) 1937

Question 8.
………………. and ………………. spent their life time in the discovery of the Tamil classics.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) U.V. Swaminathar
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
In 1921, the Justice Party granted women the right to ……………
(a) Education
(b) Vote
(c) Property
Answer:
(b) Vote

Question 10.
Who was a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar?
(a) P. Sundaranar
(b) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Parithimar Kalaignar
Answer:
(c) U.V. Swaminathar

Question 11.
Who collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature?
(a) Ziegenbalg
(b) C. W. Damotharanar
(c) Singaravelar
(d) Subramaniya Bharati
Answer:
(b) C. W. Damotharanar

Question 12.
Whose writings contributed to the revival of Tamil literature?
(a) Subramania Bharathi
(b) Bharathidasan
(c) Thiru.Vi.Ka
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Women’s India Association was started in ……………….
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1920
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1917

Question 14.
Who wrote commentaries on the sangam texts?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(b) Maraimalai Adigal

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Justice Party was established in ……………
2. …………… was the first Non – European language that went for print.
3. In 1578 a Tamil book ThambiranVanakkam was published from …………….
4. In 1816 ……………. founded the college of Fort St. George.
5. Ramalinga Adigal is popularly known as ………….
6. ……………. was founded by Pandithar Iyotheethassar.
7. …………. popularly known as M. C. Rajah.
8. M. Singaravelar organized the first celebration of ……………. in 1923.
9. WIA was started in 1917 by ………………
10. The Self-Respect Movement championed not only the causes of the non-Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the ………………
11. ……………. is known for the crucial role he played in the abolition of Sati.
12. Tamil Renaissance questioned the cultural ceremony of ………………
13. ……………… was an early pioneer in Buddhist revival.
14. The Madras Non-Brahmin Association was founded in 1909 to help the …………. students.
Answers:
1. 1916
2. Tamil
3. Goa
4. F. W. Ellis
5. Vallalar
6. Advaidananda Sabha
7. Mylai Chinnathambi Raja
8. May Day
9. Annie Besant
10. Muslims
11. Raja Rammohan Roy
12. Brahminism
13. M. Singaravelu
14. Non-Brahmin

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Rettaimalai Srinivasan was a close associate of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(ii) He participated in the third Round Table Conference held in London.
(iii) He voiced the opinions of the marginalised sections of the society.
(iv) He was a signatory to the Poona Pact of 1932.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i)Agamic temples permitted the performance of rituals in Tamil.
(ii) Tamil songs had a marginal place in musical concerts.
(iii) M.C. Rajah systematically studied the history of Tamil music.
(iv) Abraham Pandithar founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following.

1.	Justice	(a)	E. V. Ramasamy Periyar
2.	Vaikom Hero	(b)	T. M. Nair
3.	Devadasi System	(c)	Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
4.	Justice Party	(d)	English News Paper

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)

1.	Andhra University	(a)	Kerala
2.	Vaikom Sathyagraha	(b)	1924
3.	Widow Remarriage Act	(c)	1856
4.	Public Service Commission	(d)	1925
5.	Vaikom	(e)	1929

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5. (a)

1.	Self Respect Movement	(a)	Anna Durai
2.	Dravidan	(b)	Periyar
3.	Dravida Munnetra kazhagam	(c)	Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
4.	The First Woman Doctor	(d)	News paper

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4.(c)

1.	Manonmaniam	(a)	Tamil language movement
2.	Tamil Isai Iyakkam	(b)	Liberation
3.	Valkaitunai	(c)	Regions
4.	Viduthalai	(d)	P. Sundaram Pillai
5.	Tinais	(e)	Companion

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is Renaissance?
Answer:
Renaissance is an ideological and cultural phenomenon. It is closely tied to modernity, rationalism, and the progressive movement of the society.

Question 2.
Narrate Dr. Muthulakshmi rule in the agitation against Devadasi system.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Muthulakshmi dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice of devadasi system from Tamil Nadu. She fought against this system vigorously.

(ii) Appreciating her role in the agitation against Devadasi System she was nominated to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council in 1929.

(iii) She was vehemently supported in her efforts by Thiru. Muvalur Ramamirtham and Periyar.

(iv) As a result the Justice Party Government enacted a law abolishing Devadasi System.

Question 3.
How for printing press played a significant role in Tamil literary works?
Answer:

1. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
2. Religious literature was taken up for publication in the early years after the advent of printing technology.
3. This led the resurgence of interest among Tamil scholars in publishing the more ancient Tamil classics around that period.

Question 5.
Write about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy.
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was the first woman in India to get a degree in medicine. She started the cancer institute at Adyar. She dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice devadasi system from Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
What kind of vocational education programme was introduced by C. Rajagopalachari in Madras State? How did Periyar react to this?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced a vocational education programme that encouraged imparting school children with training in tune with their father’s occupation. Periyar criticised it as caste-based education scheme and opposed it severely.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
Answer:

1. Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influence from the Tamil language.
2. The movement made a great impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.
3. His daughter Neelambikai played an important role in its foundation.
4. The movement was critical of Hindi, Sanskrit and Brahminical hegemony in Tamil society.
5. This movement paved the way for later social movements that countered Brahminical and the Sanskrit tradition in Tamil society.

Question 8.
Throw light on the context in which the Dravidian Movement emerged.
Answer:
In Madras Presidency, Brahmins dominated all the fields of society, especially politics, education and job opportunities in the government. The 1911 census showed that Brahmins were slightly over 3 percent of Madras Presidency’s population, and non-Brahmins 90 percent. Yet in the ten years from 1901 to 1911 Madras University turned out 4074 Brahmin graduates compared with only 1035 non-Brahmin graduates. It was in this context the Dravidian movement emerged as a defense of the non-Brahmin castes against the Brahmin dominance.

Question 9.
Mention the women activists in the Self – Respect Movement.
Answer:
There were several women activists in the Self Respect Movement. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar, Nagammai Kannamma, Nilavathi, Muvalu Ramamirtham, Rukmani Ammal, Alarmelmangai Thayammal, Nilambikai and Sivakami Chidambaranar.

Question 10.
What are the countries Periyar visited over the years?
Answer:
Over the years Periyar visited many countries and interacted with intellectuals all over. He visited Singapore and Malaya, Egypt, U.S.S.R, Greece, Turkey, Germany, England, Spain, France and Portugal.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
The Justice Party.
(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
Dr. C. Natesanar, Sir Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal established the Justice Party.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
The Justice Party came to power in 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
The Justice Party was defeated in 1937.

(d) Write any two achievements of the Justice Party.
Answer:

• It introduced the system of giving free pattas for housing sites to the poor.
• In 1929 Annamalai university was opened.

Question 2.
The Justice Party

(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraja Chetty.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
In 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
In 1937.

(d) Write the work of the Justice Party.
Answer:
The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal . representation-reservations for various communities. Two communal Government orders (1921 and 1922) were passed to ensure equitable distribution in appointments to achieving social Justice.

Question 3.
Language agitation before Indian Independence
(a) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.

(b) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
Answer:
Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.

(c) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
Answer:
The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.

(d) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 4.
Women’s movements
(a) Why were several streams of women’s movements and organisations established in the early twentieth century?
Answer:
They were established to address the question of women empowerment in Madras Presidency.

(b) Why did women’s India Association publish pamphlets and bulletins in different languages?
Answer:
It published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

(c) Why was the All India Women’s Conference formed in 1927?
Answer:
It was formed to address the problem of women’s education and recommended that the government implement various policies for the uplift of women.

(d) What was one major objective of the Self-Respect movement?
Answer:
One major objective of the Self-Respect movement was women’s liberation.
IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:

Year	Events
1905	Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906	Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916	Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917	Champaran Satyagraha
1918	Kheda Satyagraha
1919	Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920	Khilafat Movement /Non-Co-operation Movement
1922	Chauri Chaura incident
1923	The formation of Swaraj Party
1927	The appointment of the Simon Commission
1928	Motilal Nehru Report
1929	The Lahore Congress Session
1930	Salt Satyagraha / First Round Table Conference
1931	Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932	Communal Award / Poona Pact / Third Round Table Conference
1935	The Government of India Act
1937	First Congress Ministry in Provinces
1940	August Offer / Individual Satyagraha
1942	Cripps Mission / Quit India Movement
1945	Wavell Plan / Simla Conference
1946	RIN Revolt / Cabinet Mission / Interim Government
1947	Mountbatten Plan / India won Independence

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew

Question 2.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Nagpur

Question 3.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(a) 26th January 1930

Question 4.
When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 5.
On 8 January 1933 which day was observed …………..
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
Answer:
(a) Temple Entry Day

Question 6.
Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Govemment of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Govemment of India Act, 1935

Question 7.
Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress in 1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subash Chandra Bose
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose

Question 8.
Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Wardha
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first-class compartment in ………….. station.
2. Gandhi regarded ……………. as his political guru.
3. Khilafat Movement was led by …………….
4. Government of India Act of 1919 introduced …………….. in the provinces.
5. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by …………….
6. Ramsay Macdonald announced ……………….. which provided separate electorates to the minorities and the depressed classes.
7. ………….. established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
8. …………….. coined the term ‘Paksitan’.
Answers:
1. Pietermaritzburg railway
2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. AH Brothers
4. Dyarchy
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. Communal Award
7. Usha Mehta
8. Choudhry Rahmat Ali

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelu was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-lrwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation .
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 4.
Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress ministries.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Answer:

1. To protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of the two prominent local leaders Dr. Saifuddin kitchlew and Dr. Sathyapal at Amritsar a public meeting was arranged on 13^th April 1919 at Jallianwalla Bagh in Amritsar.
2. Thousands of villagers assembled there.
3. General Dyer heard about the gathering, surrounded the place with his troops and an armoured vehicle.
4. The only entrance to the park was blocked.
5. without any warning firing took place for ten minutes till the troops ran out of ammunition.
6. Nearly 379 were killed and more than thousands injured due to stampede.
7. After this incident martial law was declared in Punjab especially in Amritsar.
8. The brutality enraged Indians. This incident made Rabindranath Tagore and Gandhi to renounce and surrender their titles and medal.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
After World War I, the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a very harsh treatment. The Khilafat Movement started in support of the Caliph. It was led by Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers. It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement and saw it an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 3.
Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
On February 5^th 1922 a mass procession was took over by the nationalists and the peasants.

1. Gandhiji advised them not to indulge in any violence. Provoked by the police the people turned in to violence. The angry mob burnt the police station killing 22 policemen.
2. Gandhiji was upset and immediately withdrew the movement.

Question 4.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 5.
Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
Answer:
On 8 December 1927, the British Government announced Indian statutory commission to super-wise and bring changes in the functioning of the Government in India, (to review the working of the Government of India Act of 1919 and to further suggest reforms in the administration)

1. The committee composed of seven members headed by Sir John Simon, widely known as “Simon Commission”.
2. No Indian members were there in the committee, Indians felt denial of their right to decide their own constitution. So all sections of India including congress and Muslim league decided to boycott the Simon commission.
3. When the Simon commission came to India they were greeted with flag marches with slogan “Go back Simon” and protest wherever they went.

Question 6.
What is Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:
Some of the Congressmen were not satisfied with dominion status of India and wanted to demand complete independence. In the Congress Session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the President, Poorna Swaraj was declared as the goal. Subsequently, 26 January 1930 was declared as the Independence Day and a pledge was taken all over the country to attain Poorna Swaraj without using any kind of violence.

Question 7.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:

1. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and their comrades reorganized the ‘Hindustan Republican Army’ (HRA) in Punjab.
2. By the influence of socialistic ideals they named it as “Hindustan Socialist Republican Association” in 1928.
3. Bhagat Singh was held responsible for the assassination of ‘Sanders’ a British police officer who lathi charged Lala Laj pat Rai that led to his death.
4. Secondly he along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb in to the central assembly in 1929 and threw pamphlets shouting Inquilab Zindabadh.
5. He along with Rajaguru was arrested and sentenced to death at the age of 23.
6. Bhagat Singh’s daring and courage inspired many youths across India.

Question 8.
What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
Answer:
The main terms of the Poona Pact were:
(i) The principle of separate electorates was abandoned. Instead, the principle of joint electorate was accepted with reservation of seats for the depressed classes.

(ii) Reserved seats for the depressed classes were increased from 71 to 147. In the Central Legislature 18 per cent of the seats were reserved.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Gandhi and Mass Nationalism

(a) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
Answer:
The racial discrimination Gandhi had personally in South Africa was a turning point.

(b) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
Answer:
He was deeply influenced by the works of Tolstoy “The Kingdom of God is within you” Ruskins ‘Unto this last’ and Thoreau’s ‘Civil Disobedience’.

(c) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
Answer:
Gandhiji used the strategy of Satyagraha for fighting the issues of immigration and racial discrimination.

(d) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha ended the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters. It gave the object of ‘Civil Disobedience’. The success of champaran Satyagraha made Gandhiji as a leader of mass struggle.

Question 2.
Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(a) What is constructive programme?
Answer:
Programmes that aimed at Khadi promotion, Hindu-Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability are called constructive programmes.

(b) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
Answer:
He exhorted the Congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj.

(c) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
Answer:
Gandhi tried to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity to strengthen the cause of Swaraj.

(d) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
Gandhiji wanted to abolish untouchability from the country. He undertook an all-India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquor among the depressed class. He also launched the Temple Entry Movement.

Question 3.
Subhas Chandra Bose and Ina

(a) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose made his way and reached Japan on a Submarine.

(b) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
Answer:
The women wing of Indian National Army was headed by captain Lakshmisahgal.

(c) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized INA in to three brigades: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women brigade named after Rani of Jhansi.

(d) Name the slogan provided by Subhas Chandra Bose.
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose gave the Slogan‘Dilli Chalo’.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
Answer:

1. Gandhi was a person dedicated to the cause of poorest of the poor instantly gained the goodwill of the masses.
2. He visited Champaran (Bihar) for the cause of getting the solution for the peasants and the people suffering under the exploitation of indigo planters.
3. On reaching Champaran he was asked by the police to return back but he refused.
4. He was summoned for trial.
5. The news spread like wildfire and people in thousands swarmed the place in support of Gandhi.
6. Eventually a committee was formed with Gandhi as a member recommended the abolition of the “tinkathia system”. Thus ending the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters.
7. His fruitful intervention in Ahmadabad mill strike and kheda Satyagraha helped Gandhi to establish as a leader of mass struggle.
8. His ability to mobilise the common people across the country through truth and Non- violence transformed Gandhi into a mass leader.

Question 2.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective.

The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
Answer:

1. Muslim League was formed mainly to fight for the political rights of the Indian Muslims.
2. Jinnah revived the Muslim League in 1934 with the determination of demanding separate state for Muslims.
3. By 1940 he was demanding a separate nation for Muslims arguing that in Independent India Muslims would lose all political power to the Hindus.
4. The Muslim league dubbed the congress as a Hindu organisation.
5. The British policy of Divide and rule had encouraged the vested interests of the Muslims to exploit the religious differences.
6. Cripps mission declared that it would provide a federal Government and the provinces were divided in to three groups namely.
7. Non – Muslim majority provinces, Muslim majority provinces in the North west and in the North East.
8. This proposal was agreed by both the parties but interpreted it differently.
9. The congress wanted the division temporary but the Muslim league wanted to be permanent.
10. Differences arose between the congress and the Muslim League led to the Hindu – Muslim conflicts bringing the communal violence.
11. Finally Mountbatten plan – Two Nation theory – dividing India in to two states India and Pakistan.
12. Partition of India was the ultimate outcome to split the unity of Independent India.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to mark the important places of Gandhian Movement in a map and write a sentence or two about what happened there.

• Amritsar and Lahore: The anti-Rowlatt protest was intense in Punjab, especially in Amritsar and Lahore.
• Delhi: All India Khilafat Conference was held at Delhi in November 1919.
• Calcutta: The Indian National Congress approved the non-cooperation movement in a special session held in Calcutta on September 1920.
• Gorakhpur: On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.
• Sabarmati Ashram: At the break of dawn on 12 March 1930 Gandhi set out from Sabarmati Ashram with 78 of its inmates.
• Dandi: At the age of 61 Gandhi covered a distance of 241 miles in 24 days to reach Dandi at sunset on 5 April 1930.
• Vedaranyam: In Tamil Nadu, C. Rajaji led a similar salt march from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam.

Question 2.
Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of Gandhi, Jinnah, B.R. Ambedkar, Revolutionaries and Communists.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The unification of the country was brought by the British ……………
(a) Imperialism
(b) Politics
(c) Conquerts
Answer:
(a) Imperialism

Question 2.
Gandhi sailed to England to study.
(a) law
(b) Politics
(c) business
(d) Philosophy
Answer:
(a) law

Question 3.
The religious and social reformers prepared the ground for the rise of …………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Revolution
(c) Mutiny
Answer:
(a) Nationalism

Question 4.
In South Africa ……………… were treated as coolies.
(a) Gujarathi’s
(b) Indians
(c) South African people
(d) English people
Answer:
(b) Indians

Question 5.
Home – Rule league in Bombay was formed by ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Tilak
(c) Bharathi
Answer:
(b) Tilak

Question 6.
Towards the end of 19th ……………… century synthetic dyes had forced indigo out of the market.
(a) British
(b) Chinese
(c) German
(d) French
Answer:
(c) German

Question 7.
The slogan adopted during Swadeshi movement was ………….
(a) Go back to Vedas
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Swaraj is my birth right
Answer:
(b) Vande Mataram

Question 8.
………………… returned his knighthood after the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy for the brutality by the British.
(a) Maulana Mohammed Ali
(b) Mrs. Annie Besant
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer:
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 9.
The first session of the Indian National Congress was chained by …………..
(a) Tilak
(b) A.O. Hume
(c) W.C. Bannerjee
Answer:
(c) W.C. Bannerjee

Question 10.
Khilafat movement came to an end with the abolition of caliphate in:
(a) Isreal
(b) Arabia
(c) Turkey
(d) India
Answer:
(c) Turkey

Question 11.
Dr. Annie Besant was an …………..
(a) English lady
(b) Indian lady
(c) Irish lady
Answer:
(c) Irish lady

Question 12.
In Tamil Nadu C. Rajaji led the salt March from ………………… to vedaranyam
(a) Tanjore
(b) Madurai
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tiruchirapalli
Answer:
(d) Tiruchirapalli

Question 13.
Rowlatt Act was passed in …………
(a) 1919
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
Answer:
(a) 1919

Question 14.
Gandhi attended the ………………… held at London in 1931 after Gandhi – Irwin pact was signed.
(a) First Round Table Conference
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Third Round Table Conference
(d) Cabinet mission
Answer:
(b) Second Round Table Conference

Question 15.
C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed ……………… party.
(a) Khadar
(b) DMK
(c) Swarajya
Answer:
(c) Swarajya

Question 16.
To form the interim Government Nehru sought the help of ……………
(a) Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Jinnah
(c) Salimullah Khan
Answer:
(b) Jinnah

Question 17.
Separate state for Muslims was demanded by ……………
(a) Netaji
(b) Jinnah
(c) Ali brothers
Answer:
(b) Jinnah

Question 18.
In which year, Ahmedabad mill strike took place?
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
Answer:
(c) 1918

Question 19.
Anti-Rowlatt protest was intense in ……………
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 20.
The Khilafat Committee meeting was held in ………….
(a) Lucknow
(b) Allahabad
(c) Amritsar
(d) Kanpur
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 21.
The Poona Pact took place between Mahatma Gandhi and …………….
(a) Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) M. N. Roy
Answer:
(a) Ambedkar

Question 22.
Who was sent as Viceroy to India with the specific task of transfer of power?
(a) Sir John Simon
(b) Pethick Lawrence
(c) Sir Strafford Cripps
(d) Lord Mountbatten
Answer:
(d) Lord Mountbatten

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Indian National Congress was founded in ………………
2. The congress became divided as …………. and …………….
3. The Moderates and the Extremists joined in the Lucknow session in …………..
4. In the …………… session Jawaharlal Nehru met Gandhiji for the first time.
5. ‘Nethaji’ means …………….
6. The All India Muslim League was formed by a group of Muslim …………… and ……………
7. The Rowlatt Act curbed …………… rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened powers.
8. Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the ………………. movement when it took violent turn.
9. The congress resolved to fight for Puma Swaraj in 1929 under the presidentship of ………………
10. The Quit India Movement started in ………………
11. The programme of Non-cooperation included boycott of foreign goods and spreading the doctrine of ……………….
12. During 1902 the Hindu Mahasabha was gaining popularity under ………………. and the Muslim League under Ali Brothers.
13. In the Congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the President, …………….. was declared as the goal.
14. Gandhiji started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of ……………..
15. The All India Congress Committee that met at ………….. on 8 August, 1942 passed the Quit India Resolution demanding immediate ending of the British mle in India.
Answers:
1. 1885
2. Extremist, Moderates
3. 1916
4. Lucknow
5. Leader
6. landlords, nawabs
7. Fundamental
8. Non-cooperation
9. Jawaharlal Nehru
10. 1942
11. Swadeshi
12. Madan Mohan Malaviya
13. Pooma Swaraj
14. discriminations
15. Bombay

III. True or false:

1. Subash Chandra Bose was a moderate nationalist.
2. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred in Amritsar on Baisaki day.
3. The Swadeshi Movement started after the partition of Bengal.
4. Maulan Azad became the major spokes person for the demand for Pakistan.
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan also known as Badshah Khan founded the Khudai Khidmatgar.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Wavell Plan was announced in June 1945.
(ii) It provided for an interim government, with an equal number of Hindus and Muslims in the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(iii) All portfolios, including war portfolio, was to be held by Indian ministers.
(iv) However, in Shimla Conference, the Congress and the Muslim League could not come to an agreement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct .
(c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: After the First World War the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a harsh treatment.
Reason: The Khilafat Movement was started in support of the Caliph.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation.
(b) A is right but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation.

V. Match the following.

1.	Surat split	(a)	1905
2.	Swadeshi Movement	(b)	1906
3.	Home Rule Movement	(c)	1907
4.	Minto-Morley Reforms	(d)	1916
5.	Birth of Muslim League	(e)	1909

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

1.	Motilal Nehru	(a)	Uttar Pradesh
2.	Chauri Chaura	(b)	Swarajya party
3.	Lion of Punjab	(c)	Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
4.	Communal Award	(d)	Lala Lajpat Rai
5.	Frontier Gandhi	(e)	Ramsay Mac Donald

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (c)

1.	Cripp’s Mission	(a)	1922
2.	Cabinet Mission	(b)	1932
3.	The August offer	(c)	1940
4.	Poona Pact	(d)	1942
5.	Chauri Chaura incident	(e)	1946

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)

1.	Gandhiji returned to India from South Africa	(a)	1931
2.	Jallianwala Bagh massacre	(b)	1915
3.	No tax campaign in Bardoli	(c)	1919
4.	Third Round Table Conference	(d)	1922
5.	Gandhiji revived the Civil Disobedience Movement	(e)	1932

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Gandhi’s early life.
Answer:
Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi was bom in a well to do family on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar.

1. His father was Kaba Gandhi served as Diwan of Porbandar and Rajkot.
2. Mother was putlibai, a devout vaishavite influenced the young Gandhi.
3. After passing matriculation Gandhi sailed to England to study law in 1888.
4. After becoming barrister Gandhi returned to India in June 1891.
5. He strongly believed in British sense of justice and fair play till he experienced racial discrimination by himself.
6. A Gujarati firm sought his service for assistance in a law suit in South Africa, and he left in April 1893 to South Africa.

Question 2.
Name some of the important moderate leaders.
Answer:

• Dadabai Naoroji
• Surendranath Banarjee
• Pheroze Sha Mehta
• Gopala Krishna Gokhale
• M. G. Ranade

Question 3.
What influenced Gandhi to get trained in the path of Satyagraha?
Answer:

1. Gandhi ideas were formed due to a blend of Indian and Western thoughts.
2. He was greatly influenced by western thinkers and was highly critical of western civilisation and industrialisation.
3. He was inspired by writings of Ruskin and established the phoenix settlements and the Tolstoy Farm.
4. These settlements had equality, community living and dignity of labour and formed as training grounds for the Satyagraha.

Question 4.
When and by whom was the Indian National Congress founded?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume, a retiree L civil servant.

Question 5.
Write a note on Pro – changers and no – changers of group of congress.
Answer:
In 1923 there was a split in congress namely prochangers and no changers after the suspension of Non – cooperation movement by Gandhi in 1922.

Pro – Changers: The congressmen led by Mothilal Nehru and C.R Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

They had the notion that national interest could be promoted by working in the legislative councils under Dyarchy and wreck the colonial Government within.

They effectively used the legislature as a platform for propagation of nationalist ideas.

No. Changers: Staunch followers of Gandhi like Vallabhbhai Patel. C. Rajaji and others who wanted to continue non – cooperation with the Government.

Question 6.
Why was Khilafat Movement started?
Answer:

1. After the defeat of Germany in the first world war, the Turkish empire was broken up.
2. Its territories were shared by British and France.
3. The Sultan of Turkey was humiliated.
4. The Sultan was also the caliph or the religious leader of the Muslims.
5. So the Muslims started the Khilafat Movement.
6. The Ali brothers Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali started the Khilafat Movement in India.

Question 7.
Write a note on Direct Action Day call by Muslims.
Answer:

1. Differences arose between congress and Muslim league.
2. When the congress nominated a Muslim member the league argued it was to be sole representative of the Muslim and withdrew its approval.
3. Jinnah declared 16th August 1946 as the “Direct Action Day”.
4. Hartals, and demonstrations took place which soon turned in to Hindu – Muslim conflict.
5. It spread to other districts of Bengal. The worst affected district was ‘ Noakhali.
6. Gandhi left for the worst affected regions bringing the communal violence under control and spread the message of peace and non – violence.

Question 8.
Write about Swaraj party.
Answer:
(i) In order to lead the national movement a section of the nationalist leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj party in 1923.

(ii) Instead of boycotting the Assemblies there leaders wanted to oppose the British Government from within the legislature.

(iii) It passed the resolution demanding the establishment of a responsible Government in India,

(iv) After the death of C. R. Das the Swaraj party was dissolved.

Question 9.
Who were the members of the Cabinet Mission?
Answer:

1. Pethick Lawrence
2. A.V. Alexander
3. Sir Stafford Cripps

Question 10.
Explain the Communal Award and Poona Pact of 1932.
Answer:

• At the end of the Second Round Table Conference the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald announced a scheme known as the communal Award.
• It provided separate electorates for the minorities and the depressed classes.
• Dr. Ambedkar accepted it but Gandhiji protested against this and went on a fast into death.
• After the Poona Pact in 1932 Gandhiji’s ended his fast.
• The depressed communities agreed to have joint electorates with adequate representation.

Question 11.
How India was partitioned?
Answer:

• The new state Pakistan comprised of west Punjab, Sind, north west frontier provinces.
• All the remaining provinces remained with the Indian dominion.

Question 12.
Inspired by Ruskin, Gandhiji established two settlements. Write their names and features.
Answer:
Inspired by Ruskin Gandhiji established the Phoenix Settlements in 1905 and the Tolstoy Farm in 1910. Equality, community living and dignity of labour were inculcated in the settlements. They were also the training grounds for the satyagrahis.

Question 13.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
Gahdhiji supported the Khilafat Movement as he saw it as an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 14.
The Non-cooperation Movement got nation-wide support. Support the statement with valid points.
Answer:
The Non-cooperation Movement was supported by the people of all sections. They boycotted foreign goods and spread the doctrine of Swadeshi. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices. They also boycotted the Prince of Wales’ visit to India. The trade unions and workers also participated actively.

Question 15.
What were the recommendations of the Nehru Report?
Answer:

1. Dominion status for India
2. Elections of the Central Legislature and the Provincial Legislatures on the basis of joint and mixed electorates
3. Reservation of seats for the Muslims in Central Legislature and in provinces where they are in a minority and for the Hindus in North West Frontier Province where they were in a minority
4. Provision of fundamental rights, and universal adult franchise.

Question 16.
Jinnah was hailed as ambassador of Hindu-Muslim unity. What made him change his stand?
Or
Under what circumstances did Jinnah begin to espouse the cause of separate nation for Muslims?
Answer:
Jinnah demanded one-third of seats be reserved for Muslims. But it was rejected in the All Party Conference. Later he proposed a resolution which came to be known as Jinnah’s Fourteen Points. However, it was also rejected. Thereafter, he changed his stand and began to espouse the cause of separate nation for Muslims.

Question 17.
Why did the negotiations between the Cripps Mission and the Congress fail? What did the Cripps Mission offer?
Answer:
The negotiations between the Cripps Mission and the Congress failed because Britain was not willing to transfer of effective power immediately. The Cripps Mission offered:

1. Grant of Dominion Status after the War
2. Indian Princes could sign a separate agreement with the British implying the acceptance for the demand of Pakistan.
3. British control of defence during the War.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Factors leading to the rise of National Movement
(a) How did the national leaders inspire the people?
Answer:
They inspired the people with the ideas of self-respect and self-confidence.

(b) When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?
Answer:
The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878.

(c) What was the policy of the British?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

(d) How did the British consider the Indians?
Answer:
The British considered the Indians as inferior and uncivilized.

Question 2.
Role of socialists

(a) Who provided the leadership for the Quit India movement when the leaders of congress were in jail?
Answer:
The socialists provided the leadership for the movement in the absence of congress leaders.

(b) Who escaped from the jail and what they did?
Answer:
Jayaprakash Narayan and Ramanand Misra escaped from the prison and organised underground movement.

(c) Who was the women activists who played a heroic role?
Answer:
Aruna Asaf Ali was the woman activists who played a heroic role.

(d) What Gandhi did to stop the atrocities done by the British Government?
Answer:
Gandhi commenced a twenty one day fast in February 1943 which nearly threatened his life.

Question 3.
Extremists
(a) Name the extremists leaders:
Answer:

1. Lokmanya Bala Gangadhar Tilak
2. Bipin Chandra Pal
3. Lala Lajpat Rai
4. Arabind Ghosh

(b) What did Tilak declare?
Answer:
Tilak declared, “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”.

(c) Name the festivals revived by Tilak?
Answer:
Tilak revived the celebration of “Ganapathi and “Shivaji” festivals.

(d) What was the desire of the militant nationalists?
Answer:
The Militant Nationalists desired to change the aim of the congress and the means to attain it.

Question 4.
Royal indian Navy Revolt

(a) When and where the Royal Indian Navy ratings revolt?
Answer:
In February 1946 at Bombay the Royal Indian Navy ratings revolted.

(b) Where was similar strikes occurred?
Answer:
Strikes occurred in the Indian Air Force and the Indian signal corps Jabalpur.

(c) What was big blow to the imperial power?
Answer:
British surrender in South – East Asia to the Japanese was a big blow to imperial prestige.

(d) What was the effect of this revolt?
Answer:
All political leaders were released and ban on congress was lifted.

Question 5.
The Mount Batten Plan
(a) Who became the Governor General of India in 1947?
Answer:
Lord Mount Batten became the Governor General of India in 1947.

(b) Who was the last British Governor General?
Answer:
Lord Mount Batten was the last British Governor General.

(c) What was Mount Batten Plan?
Answer:
India would be divided into two independent countries namely Indian Union and the Pakistan Union.

(d) What was the reaction of the Congress and Muslim League?
Answer:
Both the Congress and the Muslim League accepted this plan.

Question 6.
Direct Action Day call by Muslim League
(a) What led to a difference between Congress and Muslim League?
Answer:
The nomination of a Muslim member by the Congress led to a difference between Congress and Muslim League.

(b) What was the League’s argument?
Answer:
The League argued it was to be the sole representative of the Muslims and so withdrew its approval.

(c) What happened on the Direct Action Day?
Answer:
Hartals and demonstrations took place which soon turned into Hindu-Muslim communal conflict.

(d) Which district of Bengal was the worst affected? What did Gandhiji do to control the situation?
Answer:
The district of Noakhali was the worst affected. Gandhiji toured the worst affected regions on bare foot spreading the message of peace and non-violence.

Question 7.
Independence and Partition.
(a) Which Act gave effect to the Mount Batten Plan?
Answer:
The Indian Independence Act gave effect to the Mount Batten Plan.

(b) When did the Act come into being?
Answer:
The Act came into being on 18 July 1947.

(c) What changes came with the enactment of the Act?
Answer:
The Act abolished the sovereignty of the British Parliament over India. India was partitioned into two dominions—India and Pakistan.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Narrate how the tribal groups were affected by the Forest Acts enacted by the British? Who attained martyrdom for the cause of forest dwellers?
Answer:

1. The First Forest Act was enacted by the British in 1865.
2. This act restricted the access of the forest dwellers to the forest areas to collect firewood, cattle fodder and other minor forest produce such as honey seeds, nuts, medicinal herbs.
3. Indian Forest Act of 1878.
4. Claimed that original ownership of forests was with the state.
5. Waste lands and fallow lands were included as forests.
6. Shifting cultivation practiced by the tribal people was prohibited.
7. Alienation of forests from local control was stiffly resisted by the aggrieved tribals and the nationalists.
8. Uprising of adivasis (1922 – 24) organised by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Rampa.
9. He made Adivasi areas – the forest area along the Godawari district Vishakapatnam (Eastern ghats) his home.
10. The Adivasis lived in utter poverty and were harassed by police, forest and revenue officials.
11. The efforts of Raju against corrupt officials to protect the interests of Rampa tribals altered the British to target his life.
12. A special team of Malabar police was sent to suppress the uprising of Rampa Adivasis in 1922 – 24.
13. For the cause of forest dwellers Alluri Sitarama Raju attained martyrdom.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Salt Satyagraha. Causes for the Salt Satyagraha:
Answer:

1. The British Government levied tax on common salt used by millions of people.
2. It hit the poor hard. So Gandhiji started the civil disobedience movement on 12th March 1930
3. This movement is known as Salt Satyagraha or the civil disobedience movement.

Dandi March:

1. Gandhi had 78 chosen followers including Sarojini Naidu left Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi.
2. It covered nearly a distance of 400 km. Thousands of Indians joined the March.
3. They reached Dandi on 6th April. The slogan “Vande Mathara”, echoed every where Gandhiji broke the salt laws on the same day by preparing salt from sea water.

Results:

1. Gandhiji was arrested and put into the prison.
2. In Tamil Nadu Rajagopalachari organized a march from Trichy to Vedaranyam on Tanjore coast to break the salt laws.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph on Quit India Movement:
Answer:
Quit India Movement – 1942:

1. The failure of Cripps mission brought about a change in Gandhi’s attitude.
2. He felt that non-violent methods so far followed did not yield the desired effect. !*‘) Therefore he asked for the complete withdrawal of the British from India.

Resolution:

1. During the Second World War Japan got victory over victory.
2. The Congress leaders felt that the presence of English in India would naturally invite Japan to invade India.
3. So the congress working committee passed a resolution on 8th August 1942 demanding the immediate withdrawal of the British from India.

Gandhi’s memorable speech:
I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall do or die. We shall either free India or die in the attempt.
Results:

• Gandhiji, Nehru, Abul Kalam Azad and other prominent leaders of the congress were arrested.
• Due to lack of proper leadership violent riots took place everywhere.
• At the end of the Second World War, labour party under Clement Atlee came to power in England. He was the supporter of Indian freedom struggle.
• He withdraw all the prohibitory orders imposed on the Congress by the British and also deputed a mission to find a solution for India’s problem.

Question 4.
Throw light on the Round Table Conferences. How did they disappoint the Congress leaders?
Answer:
The First Round Table Conference was held at London in November 1930 in the midst of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, proposed a federal government with provincial autonomy. There was a deadlock over the question of separate electorates for the minorities. The Congress did not attend this conference as all its leaders were in jail. So, the conference closed without any result. It was clear that without
‘ Congress participation the discussions were of no value. Gandhiji was released from the jail unconditionally.

The Viceroy Lord Irwin held talks with Gandhiji on 5 March 1931. The British agreed to the demand of immediate release of all political prisoners not involved in violence, return of confiscated land and lenient treatment of the government employees who had resigned. It also permitted the people of coastal villages to make salt and non-violent picketing. The Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and attend the Second Round Table Conference. Gandhiji attended this conference which began on 7 September 1931 but refused to accept separate electorates for the minorities. As a result, the second conference also failed.

On returning to India on 28th December 1931, Gandhiji revived the Civil Disobedience Movement. This time the government was prepared to meet the resistance. So, it enforced martial law and arrested Gandhiji on 4th January 1932. Soon all the Congress leaders were also arrested. Protests and picketing by people were suppressed with force. The national st press was completely banned. In the meantime, the Third Round Table Conference was he id from 17 November to 24 December 1932. The Congress did not participate in the confers ce as it had revived the Civil Disobedience Movement.
IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:

Year	Events
1915	Gandhiji arrived in India from South Africa
1918	Kheda Satyagraha
1919	Rowlatt Act, Government of India Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920	Non Co-operation Movement
1921	Ahmedabad Congress Session
1922	Chauri Chaura incident / Suspension of Non Co-operation movement
1923	Birth of Swaraj Party
1924	Formation of Hindustan Republican Army
1925	Death of C.R. Das / Swaraj Party dissolved
1927	Formation of Simon Commission
1928	Arrival of Simon Commission to India / The Nehru Report
1929	Lahore Congress
1930	Salt Satyagraha / Civil Disobedience Movement / Dandi March / First Round Table Conference
1931	Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932	Poona Pact / The Communal Award / Third Round Table Conference
1935	Government of India Act
1937	Provincial Elections
1939	Second World War started
1940	Jinnah’s demand for separate nation – Pakistan / August offer
1945	End of Second World War
1946	Arrival of Cabinet Mission / Interim Government under Nehru
1947	Mount Batten Plan / Indian Independence Act / India became independent
1948	Gandhiji assassination
1950	Indian constitution came to force / India became a republic

 

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Laws of Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Laws of Motion Textual Solved Problems

Question 1.
Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 5 kg whose linear momentum is 2.5 kg ms^-1.
Solution:
Linear momentum = mass × velocity
Velocity = \(\frac { linear momentum }{ mass }\)
V = \(\frac { 2.5 }{ 0.5 }\) = 0.5 ms^-1.

Question 2.
A door is pushed, at a point, whose distance from the hinges is 90 cm, with a force of 40 N. Calculate the moment of the force about the hinges.
Solution:
Formula: The moment of a force M = F × d
Given: F = 40 N and d = 90 cm = 0.9 m.
Hence, moment of the force = 40 × 0.9 = 36 Nm.

Question 3.
At what height from the centre of the Earth the acceleration due to gravity will be \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)th of its value as at the Earth.
Solution:
Data: Height from the centre of the Earth, R’ = R + h
The acceleration due to gravity at that height, g’ = \(\frac { g }{ 4 }\)
Formula:

From the centre of the Earth, the object is placed at twice the radius of the earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Laws of Motion Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The inertia of a body depends on _____ .
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b.
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Impulse is equals to:
(a) rate of change of momentum
(b) rate of force and time
(c) change of momentum
(d) rate of change of mass
Answer:
(c) change of momentum

Question 3.
Newton’s III law is applicable to ______ .
(a) for a body is at rest
(b) for a body in motion
(c) both a & b
(d) only for bodies with equal masses.
Answer:
(c) both a & b

Question 4.
Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time on Y-axis. The slope of the momentum-time graph gives:
(a) Impulsive force
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Rate of force
Answer:
(c) Force

Question 5.
In which of the following sport the turning of the effect of force used?
(a) swimming
(b) tennis
(c) cycling
(d) hockey.
Answer:
(c) cycling

Question 6.
The unit of ‘g’ is ms^-2. It can be also expressed as _____ .
(a) cm s^-1
(b) N kg^-1
(c) Nm² kg^-1
(d) cm² s^-2
Answer:
(b) N kg^-1

Question 7.
One kilogram force equals to:
(a) 9.8 dyne
(b) 9.8 × 10⁴ N
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne
(d) 980 dyne
Answer:
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne

Question 8.
The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth then its value will be ____ kg.
(a) 4M
(b) 2M
(c) \(\frac { M }{ 4 }\)
(d) M.
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { M }{ 4 }\)

Question 9.
If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will _____ .
(a) decrease by 50%
(b) increase by 50%
(c) decrease by 25%
(d) increase by 300%.
Answer:
(c) decrease by 25%

Question 10.
To project the rockets which of the following
principle(s) is /(are) required?
(a) Newton’s third law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of gravitation
(c) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
To produce a displacement _____ is required.
Answer:
force.

Question 2.
Passengers lean forward when the sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This can be explained by ____.
Answer:
the inertia of motion.

Question 3.
By convention, the clockwise moments are taken as _____ and the anticlockwise moments are taken as _____.
Answer:
negative, positive.

Question 4.
______ is used to change the speed of the car.
Answer:
Acceleration.

Question 5.
A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of _____ at the surface of the Earth.
Answer:
980 N.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false:

Question 1.
The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved if no external force acts.

Question 2.
The apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual weight.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar region.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Weight of a body is lesser at the equator and greater at the polar region.

Question 4.
Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy than one with a long handle.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so harder than one with a long handle.

Question 5.
There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the Earth. So the astronauts feel weightlessness.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: There is a gravity in the orbiting space station around the earth. Since space station and astronauts have equal acceleration. Both the astronauts and space station are in the state of weightlessness.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Newton’s I law	(a) Propulsion of a rocket
2. Newton’s II law	(b) Stable equilibrium of a body
3. Newton’s III law	(c) Law of force
4. Law of conservation of linear momentum	(d) Flying nature of a bird

Answer:
1. (b) Stable equilibrium of a body
2. (c) Law of force
3. (d) Flying nature of a bird
4. (a) Propulsion of a rocket

V. Assertion & Reasoning

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The sum of the clockwise moments is equal to the sum of the anticlockwise moments.
Reason: The principle of conservation of momentum is valid if the external force on the system is zero.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.

1. Assertion: The value of ‘g’ decreases as height and depth increase from the surface of the Earth.
2. Reason: ‘g’ depends on the mass of the object and the Earth.

Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Define inertia. Give its classification.
Answer:
Inertia: The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion, unless it is influenced upon by an external unbalanced force, is known as ‘inertia’.
Types of Inertia

• Inertia of rest
• Inertia of motion
• Inertia of direction

Question 2.
Classify the types of force based on their application.
Answer:

1. Like parallel forces
2. Unlike parallel forces

Question 3.
If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another. Find the resultant force and the direction of action of the resultant force.
Solution:
The two forces are unlike parallel forces

Let P = 5N, Q = 15N
Resultant force (R) = P – Q = 5 + (-15) = -10N
R = -10N.
The resultant force acting along the direction of “Q”.

Question 4.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass	Weight
The quantity of matter contained in the body	The gravitation force exerted on it due to the Earth’s gravity alone.
Scalar quantity	Vector quantity
Unit: Kg	Unit: N
Constant at all the places	Variable with respect to gravity.

Question 5.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
Rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.
Moment of a couple = Force × perpendicular distance between the line of action of forces
M = F × S

Question 6.
State the principle of moments.
Answer:
When a number of like or unlike parallel forces act on a rigid body and the body is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the moments in the clockwise direction is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 7.
State Newton’s second law.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.

Question 8.
Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
Answer:
This is because turning effect to tighten the screws depends upon the perpendicular distance of the applied force from the axis of rotation is power arm. Larger the power armless is the force required to turn the screws. So spanner is provided with a long handle.

Question 9.
While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
Answer:
(i) When the fielder lowers his hands backwards, he increases the value of time of collision and so retardation is decreased.
(ii) Hence retarding force becomes lesser than before and the palm of the fielder is not hurt very much.

Question 10.
How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
Answer:
An astronaut float in a space shuttle because both are in the state of weightlessness. Both are experiencing equal acceleration towards earth as free fall bodies. Astronauts are not floating but falling freely.

VII. Solve the given problems.

Question 1.
Two bodies have a mass ratio of 3 : 4. The force applied to the bigger mass produces an acceleration of 12 ms^-2. What could be the acceleration of the other body, if the same force acts on it?
Solution:
Mass ratio of the bodies = 3 : 4 and same force is (m₁ : m₂) acting on the body and a₂ = 12 ms^-2
∴ m₁a₁ = m₂a₂
\(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}=\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}} \Rightarrow \frac{3}{4}=\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}}\)
\(a_{1}=\frac{4}{3} \times 12=16 \mathrm{ms}^{-2}\)

Question 2.
A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a speed of 10 ms^-1 rebounds after a perfectly elastic collision with the floor. Calculate the change in linear momentum of the ball.
Solution:
Mass of a ball = 1 kg
Velocity of the bail before collision,
u = 10 m/s
Velocity of the ball after collision,
v = – u
= -10 m/s
Change in momentum,
P = m(v – u)
P = 1(-10 – 10)
= -20 kg m/s.

Question 3.
A mechanic unscrews a nut by applying a force of 140 N with a spanner of length 40 cm. What should be the length of the spanner if a force of 40 N is applied to unscrew the same nut?
Solution:
Given F₁ = 140 N, d₁ = 40 cm, F₂ = 40 N, d₂ = ?
In, both the cases, moment of forces applied are equal
F₁d₁ = F₂d₂
\(\begin{array}{l}{d_{2}=\left(\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}\right) d_{1}} \\ {d_{2}=40 \times \frac{140}{40}=140 \mathrm{cm}}\end{array}\)

Question 4.
The ratio of masses of two planets is 2 : 3 and the ratio of their radii are 4 : 7 Find the ratio of their accelerations due to gravity.
Solution:
The ratio of masses of two planets m₁ : m₂ = 2 : 3
The ratio of radii of two planets R₁ : R₂ = 4 : 7
Formula:

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Answer:
Types of Inertia:
(i) Inertia of rest: The resistance of a body to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest. Eg: When you vigorously shake the branches of a tree, some of the leaves and fruits are detached and they fall down.

(ii) Inertia of motion: The resistance of a body to change its state of motion is called inertia of motion. Eg: An athlete runs some distance before jumping. Because, this will help him jump longer and higher.

(iii) Inertia of direction: The resistance of a body to change its direction of motion is called inertia of direction. Eg: When you make a sharp turn while driving a car, you tend to lean sideways.

Question 2.
State Newton’s laws of motion.
Answer:
Newton’s First Law: Everybody continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a straight line unless it is acted upon by some external force.

Newtons Second law: The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force.

Newtons Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act on two different bodies.

Question 3.
Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.
Let, ‘m’ be the mass of a moving body, moving along a straight line with an initial speed ‘u’ After a time interval of ‘t’, the velocity of the body changes to ‘v’ due to the impact of an unbalanced external force F.
Initial momentum of the body (P_i) = mu
Final momentum of the body (P_f) = mv
Change in momentum ∆p = P_f – P_i = mv – mu
By Newton’s second law of motion,
Force, F ∝ rate of change of momentum
F ∝ change in momentum / time
\(\begin{array}{l}{\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{m v-m u}{t}} \\ {\mathrm{F}=\frac{k m(v-u)}{t}}\end{array}\)
Here, k is the proportionality constant, k = 1 in all systems of units.
Hence, \(\mathrm{F}=\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)
Since, acceleration = change in velocity / time,
a = (v – u)/t.
Hence, we have F = m × a
Force = mass × acceleration

• No external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.
• When the net force acting on a body is not equal to zero, then definitely the velocity of the body will change.
• Thus, change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force. The change may take place either in magnitude or in direction or in both.

Question 4.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:
(i) There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external force acts on them.
(ii) Let us prove the law of conservation of linear momentum with the following illustration:

(iii) Let two bodies A and B having masses m1 and m2 move with initial velocity u₁ and u₂ in a straight line.
(iv) Let the velocity of the first body be higher than that of the second body. i.e., u₁ > u₂.
(v) During an interval of time t second, they tend to have a collision. After the impact, both of them move along the same straight line with a velocity v₁ and v₂ respectively.
Force on body B due to A,
\(\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
Force on body A due to B,
\(\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}\)
By Newton’s III law of motion, Action force = Reaction force
F_A = -F_B
\(\begin{aligned} \frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t} &=\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t} \\ m_{1} v_{1}+m_{2} v_{2} &=m_{1} u_{1}+m_{2} u_{2} \end{aligned}\)
The above equation confirms in the absence of an external force, the algebraic sum of the momentum after collision is numerically equal to the algebraic sum of the momentum before collision.
Hence the law of conservation linear momentum is proved.

Question 5.
Describe rocket propulsion.
Answer:
Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion. Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum. To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.

While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out. Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved. The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket. At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 6.
State the universal law of gravitation and derive its mathematical expression.
Answer:
This law states that every particle of matter in this universe attracts every other particle with a force. This force is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of these masses. The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.

The force between the masses is always attractive and it does not depend on the medium where they are placed.
Let, m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies A and B placed r metre apart in space.
Force F ∝ m₁ × m₂
F ∝ \(1 / r^{2}\)
On combining the above two expressions
\(\begin{array}{l}{\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{m_{1} \times m_{2}}{r^{2}}} \\ {\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{G} m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}}\end{array}\)
Where G is the universal gravitational constant.
Its value in SI unit is 6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2.

Question 7.
Give the applications of the universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
Application of Newton’s law of gravitation are:
(i) Dimensions of the heavenly bodies can be measured using the gravitation law. Mass of the Earth, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity, etc., can be calculated with a higher accuracy.
(ii) Helps in discovering new stars and planets.
(Hi) Helps to explain germination of roots is due to the property of geotropism which is the property of a root responding to the gravity.
(iv) One of the irregularities in the motion of stars is called ‘Wobble’ lead to the disturbance in the motion of a planet nearby. In this condition the mass of the star can be calculated using the law of gravitation.
(v) Helps to predict the path of the astronomical bodies.

IX. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively, lie on a smooth horizontal surface in contact with one other. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. Calculate the force exerted on the 2 kg mass.
Solution:

Given: m₁ = 8 kg, m₂ = 2 kg, F = 15 N
F = mtotal, F = (m₁ + m₂) a = (8 + 2) a = 10 a
15 = 10 a
⇒ a = \(\frac{15}{10}=\frac{3}{2}\) ms^-2
Force exerted by mass of 8 kg
F = m₁ a = \(8 \times \frac{3}{2}\) = 12 N.

Question 2.
A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1 : 2)
Solution:
Given: Let m₁, m₂ are the masses of truck and bike.
m₁ = 4m₂
Here kinetic energies of both truck and bike are same
\(\begin{aligned} m_{1} v_{1}^{2} &=m_{2} v_{2}^{2} \\ 4 m_{2} v_{1}^{2} &=m_{2} v_{2}^{2} \\ \frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}} &=\frac{1}{2} \\ v_{2} &=2 v_{1} \end{aligned}\)
Ratio of momenta: \(\frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{m_{1} v_{1}}{m_{2} v_{2}}=\frac{4 m_{2}}{m_{2}} \cdot \frac{v_{1}}{2 v_{1}}\) = 2
P₁ : P₂ = 2 : 1.

Question 3.
“Wearing a helmet and fastening the seat belt is highly recommended for the safe journey”.Justify your answer using Newton’s laws of motion.
Answer:
During the motion of car and two wheelers, when the brakes are applied, the vehicles slow down but our body tends to continue in the same state of motion due to inertia. So this may cause injury to passengers. Hence they are advised to wear a helmet and seat belt.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Laws of Motion Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm in 0.1s and which is moving with a speed of 20 ms^-1, then he experiences the force of ____ _.
(a) 300 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 0.3 N.
Answer:
(b) 30 N
Hint: Impulse = change in momentum
F.∆t = mv – mu
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{m v-m u}{\Delta t}\)
\(=\frac{150 \times 10^{-3} \times 20}{0.1}=30 \mathrm{N}\)

Question 2.
SI unit of force is:
(a) Dyne
(b) newton
(c) kgms^-1
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) newton

Question 3.
A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t₁ to reach the floor, when the lift is stationary, it takes time t₂, when the lift is moving up with constant acceleration, then ____ _.
(a) t₁ > t₂
(b) t₁ < t₂
(c) t₁ = t₂
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) t₁ > t₂

Question 4.
An unbalanced force acts on a body, the body:
(a) must remain at rest
(b) must be accelerated
(c) must move with uniform velocity
(d) move with uniform motion
Answer:
(b) must be accelerated

Question 5.
A satellite in its orbit around the earth is weightless on account of its _____.
(a) velocity
(b) momentum
(c) angular momentum
(d) acceleration.
Answer:
(c) angular momentum

Question 6.
When two or more forces acting on a body and the body does not change its position, then the forces are:
(a) imbalanced
(b) mechanical force
(c) balanced forces
(d) none
Answer:
(c) balanced forces

Question 7.
What would be the acceleration due to gravity at another planet, whose mass and radius core twice that of earth?
(a) g
(b) \(\frac{g}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{g}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{g}{2}\)
Hint: We know that \(\mathrm{g}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
\(\frac{g_{1}}{g_{2}}=\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)}{\left(\frac{\mathrm{G} .2 \mathrm{M}}{4 \mathrm{R}^{2}}\right)}\)
\(\frac{g_{1}}{g_{2}}=2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad g_{2}=\frac{1}{2} g_{1}\)

Question 8.
At sea level, the value of “g” is maximum at _____.
(a) the poles
(b) the equator
(c) 45° south latitude
(d) 45° north of longitude.
Answer:
(a) the poles

Question 9.
An object cannot change the state of rest or motion, until a force is applied. This inability of the object is called:
(a) inertia
(b) mass
(c) weight
(d) acceleration
Answer:
(a) inertia

Question 10.
The ability of a body to maintain its state of rest or motion is called ______.
(a) mechanics
(b) kinematics
(c) kinetics
(d) Inertia.
Answer:
(d) Inertia.

Question 11.
_____ deals with the bodies, which are at rest under the action of forces.
(a) Statics
(b) Dynamics
(c) Kinematics
(d) Kinetics.
Answer:
(a) Statics

Question 12.
A motor car starts from rest and moves after 5 seconds. If its velocity is 200 m/s then its acceleration is:
(a) 100 m/s²
(b) 40 m/s²
(c) 20 m/s²
(d) 80 m/s²
Answer:
(b) 40 m/s²

Question 13.
_____ deals with the motion of bodies considering the cause of motion.
(a) Force
(b) Dynamics
(c) Statics
(d) Kinetics.
Answer:
(d) Kinetics

Question 14.
Linear momentum = _____
(a) mass × velocity
(b) mass × distance
(c) distance × time
(d) \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { velocity }}\).
Answer:
(a) mass × velocity

Question 15.
The inability of the body to change its state is:
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) acceleration
(d) inertia
Answer:
(d) inertia

Question 16.
Two or more forces of equal or unequal magnitude acting along the same direction, parallel to each other are called _____.
(a) like parallel forces
(b) unlike parallel forces
(c) resultant force
(d) balanced force.
Answer:
(a) like parallel forces

Question 17.
The axis of the fixed edge about which the thing is rotated is called as _____ .
(a) axis of rotation
(b) fixed axis rotation
(c) point of rotation
(d) Fixed point.
Answer:
(a) axis of rotation

Question 18.
When a net force acts on an object, the object will be accelerated in the direction of force with an acceleration proportional to:
(a) force on the object
(b) velocity
(c) mass
(d) inertia
Answer:
(a) force on the object

Question 19.
Rotating effect of a couple is known as ______ .
(a) product of forces
(b) the momentum of a couple
(c) mass
(d) momentum.
Answer:
(b) momentum of a couple

Question 20.
The amount of force required to produce an acceleration of 1 ms^-2 in a body of mass _____ is called unit force.
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1 kg
(d) 0 kg.
Answer:
(c) 1 kg

Question 21.
The acceleration of a body is due to:
(a) balance force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) unbalanced force
(d) conservative force
Answer:
(c) unbalanced force

Question 22.
Universal gravitational constant ______ .
(a) G = 6.684 × 10^-10 Nm² kg^-1
(b) G = 7.4 × 10¹⁰ Nm²
(c) G = 6.623 × 10¹¹ Nm² kg^-1
(d) G = 6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2
Answer:
(d) G = 6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2

Question 23.
Mean value of the acceleration due to gravity is ______ .
(a) 10.1 ms^-2
(b) 8.8 ms^-2
(c) 9.8 ms^-2
(d) 9.8 ms.
Answer:
(c) 9.8 ms^-2

Question 24.
The unit of weight is:
(a) kg
(b) g
(c) Newton
(d) ms^-1
Answer:
(c) Newton

Question 25.
The value of accelaration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is _____ .
(a) 1.75 ms^-1
(b) 3.8 ms^-2
(c) 1.625 ms^-2
(d) 1.625 ms^-1
Answer:
(c) 1.625 ms^-2

Question 26.
The unit of weight is _____ .
(a) kg m
(b) kg
(c) newton
(d) kg m^-1
Answer:
(c) newton

Question 27.
The weight of a body is _____ poles than at the equatorial region.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) zero
(d) one.
Answer:
(a) more

Question 28.
In a collision between a heavier body and a lighter body, which body experiences greater force?
(a) heavier body
(b) lighter body
(c) both the body experience same force
(d) both body exchange acceleration
Answer:
(c) both the body experience same force

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Turning a tap is an example of ____
Answer:
couple.

Question 2.
Torque is a _______ quantity.
Answer:
vector.

Question 3.
1 gf is equal to _____ dyne.
Answer:
980.

Question 4.
The resultant force acting on a body is equal to zero then the body will be in ______
Answer:
equilibrium.

Question 5.
The force equal to resultant but opposite in direction is ______
Answer:
equilibrate.

Question 6.
The product of force and time is ______
Answer:
impulse.

Question 7.
The force between the masses is always ______
Answer:
attractive.

Question 8.
The quantity of matter contained in the object is known as _____
Answer:
mass.

Question 9.
The magnitude of the universal gravitational constant is _____.
Answer:
6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2

Question 10.
Propulsion of rockets is based on the ____ and ____
Answer:
Law of conservation of linear momentum & Newton’s third law.

Question 11.
Parallel unequal forces are acting in ______ directions.
Answer:
Opposite.

Question 12.
Torque and force are the ____ quantities.
Answer:
vector.

Question 13.
The unit of moment of a couple is _____ .
Answer:
newton metre (Nm).

Question 14.
A _____ enables you to manoeuvre a car easily by transferring a _______ to the wheels with less effort.
Answer:
steering wheel, torque.

Question 15.
_____ is required to produce the acceleration of a body.
Answer:
Force.

Question 16.
The acceleration is produced along the radius is called ______
Answer:
centripetal acceleration.

Question 17.
______ is equal to the magnitude of change in momentum.
Answer:
impulse.

Question 18.
A large force acting for a very short interval of time is called as ______ .
Answer:
impulse Force.

Question 19.
Mass of the earth _____
Answer:
5.972 × 10²⁴ kg.

Question 20.
The relation between acceleration due to gravity (g) and the universal gravitational constant (G) is _____ .
Answer:
\(g=\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\).

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, correct the statement if it is false.

Question 1.
Rest and motion are interrelated terms.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
In the C.G.S. system, the unit of linear momentum is kg ms^-1.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In the C.G.S. system, the unit of linear momentum is g cms^-1.

Question 3.
An external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: No external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.

Question 4.
The amount of force required for a body of mass 1 gram produces an acceleration of 1 cm s^-2
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
By Newton’s III – law of motion, the action force is not equal to the reaction force.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: By Newton’s III – law of motion, the action force is equal to the reaction force.

Question 6.
The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) is not the same at all the points on the surface of the earth.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
The value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1.625 ms^-2.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The regularities in the motion of stars are called ‘wobble’.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The irregularities in the motion of stars is called ‘wobble’.

Question 9.
Mechanics is divided into kinematics and kinetics.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Mechanics is divided into statics and dynamics.

Question 10.
Application of Newton’s law of gravitation helps to predict the path of the astronomical bodies.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Linear momentum	(a) Mass and acceleration
2. Force	(b) Change in momentum
3. Moment of force	(c) GM/R2
4. Impulse	(d) Mass and velocity
5. Acceleration due to gravity	(e) Force and perpendicular distance

Answer:
1. (d) Mass and velocity
2. (a) Mass and acceleration
3. (e) Force and perpendicular distance
4. (b) Change in momentum
5. (c) GM/R²

Question 2.

1. Kinetics	(a) Causes the motion
2. Kinematics	(b) In equilibrium
3. Balanced force	(c) The motion of bodies without cause
4. Unbalanced force	(d) The motion of bodies with cause

Answer:
1. (d) The Motion of bodies with cause
2. (c) The Motion of bodies without cause
3. (b) In equilibrium
4. (a) Causes the motion

V. Assertion & Reasoning

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: At poles value of acceleration due to gravity (g) is greater than that of the equator.
Reason: Earth rotates on its axis in addition to revolving around the sun.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The force exerted by the earth on an apple is more than that exerted by apple on the earth.
Reason: The force on apple exerts on the earth is determined by the mass of the apple only.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true

Question 3.
Assertion: A freely falling body is in the state of weightlessness
Reason: A body becomes conscious of its weight only when it is opposed
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Newton’s third law of motion is applicable only when bodies are in motion.
Reason: Newton’s third law applies to all types of forces, e.g. gravitational, electric or magnetic forces.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 5.
Assertion: The apparent weight of the person is zero, in which condition or state is known as weightless.
Reason: When the person in a lift moves down with an acceleration (a) is equal to the acceleration due to gravity (g)
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: A gear is a circular wheel with teeth around its rim.
Reason: It helps to change the speed of rotation of a wheel by changing the force and helps to transmit power.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 7.
Assertion: Mass of a body is defined as the gravitational force exerted on it due to earth’s gravity alone
Reason: Weight = mass × acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 8.
Assertion: Weight is a vector quantity.
Reason: Direction of weight is always towards the centre of the earth.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: Resultant force is equal to the vector sum of all the forces.
Reason: A system cannot be brought to equilibrium by applying another force.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define Linear momentum.
Answer:
The product of mass and velocity of a moving body gives the magnitude of linear momentum. It acts in the direction of the velocity of the object. Linear momentum is a vector quantity.
Linear Momentum = mass × velocity.
Unit of momentum in SI system is Kg ms^-1 and in C.G.S system its unit is g cm s^-1

Question 2.
What is the resultant force?
Answer:
When several forces act simultaneously on the same body, then the combined effect of the multiple forces can be represented by a single force, which is termed as ‘resultant force’.

Question 3.
What is meant by equilibrant?
Answer:
A system can be brought to equilibrium by applying another force, which is equal to the resultant force in magnitude, but opposite in direction. Such force is called as ‘Equilibrant’.

Question 4.
Explain the Newton third law of motion with examples.
Answer:
‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act in two different bodies’.
Example: When you fire a bullet, the gun recoils backwards and the bullet is moving forward (Action) and the gun equalises this forward action by moving backwards (Reaction).

Question 5.
How did the change in momentum achieve?
Answer:
Change in momentum can be achieved in two ways. They are:

• A large force acting for a short period of time and
• A smaller force acting for a longer period of time.

Question 6.
Define impulse.
Answer:
A large force acting for a very short interval of time is called as ‘Impulsive force’.When a force F acts on a body for a period of time t, then the product of force and time is known as ‘impulse’ represented by ‘J’
Impulse, J = F × t …….. (1)
By Newton’s second law
F = ∆p / t (A refers to change)
∆p = F × t ………. (2)
From (1) and (2)
J = ∆p
Impulse is also equal to the magnitude of change in momentum.
Its unit is kg ms^-1 or Ns.

Question 7.
What is meant by free fall?
Answer:

1. When the person in a lift moves down with an acceleration (a) equal to the acceleration due to gravity (g), i.e., when a = g, this motion is called as ‘free fall’.
2. The apparent weight (R = m (g – g) = 0) of the person is zero. This condition or state refers to the state of weightlessness.

Question 8.
Define weightlessness.
Answer:
Whenever a body or a person falls freely under the action of Earth’s gravitational force alone, it appears to have zero weight. This state is referred to as ‘weightlessness’.

Question 9.
Explain the various causes of the apparent weight of a person in a moving lift.
Answer:

Case 1: Lift is moving upward with an acceleration ‘a’	Case 2: Lift is moving downward with an acceleration ‘a’	Case 3: Lift is at rest.	Case 4: Lift is falling down freely
R – W = Fnet = ma ⇒ R = W + ma ⇒ R = mg + ma ⇒ R = m(g + a)	W – R = Fnet = ma ⇒ R = W – ma ⇒ R = mg – ma ⇒ R = m(g – a)	Here,the acceleration is zero a = 0 R = W R = mg	Here,the acceleration is equal to g a = g R = m(g – g) = 0
R > W	R < W	R = W	R = 0
Apparent weight is greater than the actual weight.	Apparent weight is lesser than the actual weight.	Apparent weight is equal to the actual weight.	Apparent weight is equal to zero.

Question 10.
Explain the variation of acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
Variation of acceleration due to gravity (g):

1. Since, g depends on the geometric radius of the Earth, (g ∝ 1 / R²), its value changes from one place to another on the surface of the Earth.
2. The geometric radius of the Earth is maximum in the equatorial region and minimum in the polar region, the value of g is maximum in the polar region and minimum at the equatorial region.
3. When you move to a higher altitude from the surface of the Earth, the value of g reduces.
4. when you move deep below the surface of the Earth, the value of g reduces. Value of g is zero at the centre of the Earth.

Question 11.
Define one newton and one dyne.
Answer:
Definition of 1 newton (N): The amount of force required for a body of mass 1 kg produces an acceleration of 1 ms^-2, 1 N = 1 kg ms^-2
Definition of 1 dyne: The amount of force required for a body of mass 1 gram produces an acceleration of 1 cms^-2, 1 dyne = 1 g cms^-2; also 1 N = 10⁵ dyne.

Question 12.
How can you measure the moment of the couple?
Answer:
(i) Rotating effect of a couple is known as the moment of a couple.
(ii) Moment of a couple is measured by the product of any one of the forces and the perpendicular distance between the line of action of two forces. The turning effect of a couple is measured by the magnitude of its moment.
(iii) Moment of a couple = Force × perpendicular distance between the line of action of forces
M = F × S
(iv) The unit of moment of a couple is newton metre (N m) in SI system and dyne cm in the CGS system.
(v) By convention, the direction of moment of a force or couple is taken as positive if the body is rotated in the anti-clockwise direction and negative if it is rotating in the clockwise direction.
They are shown in Figures.

Question 13.
Define Torque.
Answer:
(i) The rotating or turning effect of a force about a fixed point or fixed axis is called the moment of the force about that point or torque (τ).
(ii) τ = F × d
(iii) Torque is a vector quantity.
(iv) Its SI unit is Nm.

VII. Answ er in detail.

Question 1.
Explain any three application of Torque.
Answer:
Application of Torque:
(i) Gears: A gear is a circular wheel with teeth around its rim. It helps to change the speed of rotation of a wheel by changing the torque and helps to transmit power.

(ii) Seasaw: Most of you have played on the seesaw. Since there is a difference in the weight of the persons sitting on it, the heavier person lifts the lighter person. When the heavier person comes closer to the pivot point (fulcrum) the distance of the line of action of the force decreases. It causes less amount of torque to act on it. This enables the lighter person to lift the heavier person.

(iii) Steering Wheel: A small steering wheel enables you to manoeuvre a car easily by transferring torque to the wheels with less effort.

Question 2.
State Newton’s third law. Explain it with three examples.
Answer:
Newton’s third law of motion: Newton’s third law states that ‘for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act in two different bodies’.
If a body A applies a force F_A on a body B, then the body B reacts with force F_B on the body A, which is equal to F_A in magnitude, but opposite in direction.
F_B = -F_A
Examples:

• When birds fly they push the air downwards with their wings (Action) and the air pushes the bird upwards (Reaction).
• When a person swims he pushes the water using the hands backwards (Action), and the water pushes the swimmer in the forward direction (Reaction).
• When you fire a bullet, the gun recoils backwards and the bullet is moving forward (Action) and the gun equalises this forward action by moving backwards (Reaction).

Question 3.
Derive the relation between ‘g’ and G. Explain how to determine the mass of earth.
Answer:
(i) Let us compute the magnitude of this force in two ways. Let, M be the mass of the Earth and m be the mass of the body.
(ii) The entire mass of the Earth is assumed to be concentrated at its centre.
(iii) The radius of the Earth is R = 6378 km (= 6400 km approximately). By Newton’s law of gravitation, the force acting on the body is given by
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{GM} m}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) ….(1)

(iv) The radius of the body considered is negligible when compared with the Earth’s radius. Now, the same force can be obtained from Newton’s second law of motion.
(v) According to this law, the force acting on the body is given by the product of its mass and acceleration (called weight). Here, acceleration of the body is under the action of gravity hence a = g
F = ma = mg
F = weight = mg ……. (2)
Comparing equations J = F × t and ΔP = F × t, we get
\(m g=\frac{G M m}{R^{2}}\) …….. (3)
Acceleration due to gravity
\(g=\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) ……. (4)
Mass of the Earth (M):
Rearranging the equation (4), the mass of the Earth is obtained as follows:
Mass of the Earth M = g R² / G
Substituting the known values of g, R and G, you can calculate the mass of the Earth as M = 5.972 × 10²⁴ kg.

VIII. Problems.

Question 1.
A cricket ball of mass 0.5 kg strikes a bat normally with a velocity of 30 ms^-1 and rebounds with a velocity of 20 ms^-1 in the opposite direction, calculate the impulse of the force exerted by the ball on the bat.
Solution:
Impulse = change in momentum = mu – (-mv)
= m (u + v)
= 0.5 (30 + 20)
= 25 Ns

Question 2.
A force exerted on a body of mass 100 g changes its speed by 0.2 ms^-1 in each second. Calculate the magnitude of the force.
Given, mass m = 100 g = 0.1 kg and acceleration a = 200 cms^-2 = 0.2 ms^-2.
Solution:
F = ma = 0.1 × 0.2 = 0.02 N.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Resources and Industries

Resources and Industries Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Manganese is used in …
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel Making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
Answer:
(b) Steel Making

Question 2.
The Anthracite coal has:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 70% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
Answer:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon

Question 3.
The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Question 4.
The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is:
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 5.
The first Jute mill of India was established at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Baroda
Answer:
(a) Kolkata

Question 6.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Biomass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil
Answer:
(b) Sun

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in:
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The nucleus for the development of the Chotanagpur plateau region is
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
Answer:
(b) Mineral Deposits

Question 10.
One of the shore based steel plants of India is located at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Goa
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(d) Visakhapatnam

II. Match the following.

Answer:
a – 2,
b – 1,
c – 4,
d – 5,
e – 3

Answer:
a – 5,
b – 4,
c – 1,
d – 2,
e – 3

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment and is used by living things including humans is termed as resource. Based on continued availability classified into Renewable and Non-Renewable Resources.

Question 2.
Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand, Odisha Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Minerals are broadly grouped into two Metallic minerals and Non-Metallic minerals.

Question 4.
State the uses of magnesium.
Answer:

1. It is an important minerals used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material for alloying.
2. It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Question 5.
What is natural gas?
Answer:

1. Natural gas is a natural hydrocarbon gas mixture primarily consisting of methane.
2. Usually accompanies the petroleum accumulations.
3. It is formed when layers of decomposed plants and animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure over thousands of years.

Question 6.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:

1. Anthracite: contains 80 to 90% Carbon
2. Bituminous: contains 60 to 80% Carbon
3. Lignite : 40 to 90% Carbon
4. Peat: Contains less than 40% Carbon

Question 7.
Mention the major areas of jute.production in India.
Answer:

1. The major Jute producing area are in West Bengal and concentrated along Hoogly river within the radius of six kilometer of Kolkata.
2. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh and Odisha are other jute producing areas.

Question 8.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
Oil in India is obtained from both from on-shore and off-shore areas.

Western Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Mumbai high oil fields
2. Gujarat Coast
3. Basseim oil field, South of Mumbai high
4. Ankleshwar
5. Cambay-Luni Region
6. Ahemedabad-Kalol Region
7. Aliabet oil feild, south of Bhavanagar

Eastern Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Brahmaputra valley
2. Digboi oil feilds
3. Nahoratiya oil fields
4. Moran-Hugrijan oil field
5. Rudrasagar-Lawa oil feilds
6. Surrma valley
7. Offshore of Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Baleshwar coast, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

IV. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Renewable and Non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Question 2.
Metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

Question 3.
Agro based industry and mineral based industry.
Answer:

Question 4.
Jute industry and the sugar industry.
Answer:

Question 5.
Conventional energy and Non-conventional energy.
Answer:

V. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India.

The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the States of Maharashtra. Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

The location of cotton textile industries states are due to the presence of black cotton soil, humid climate, cheap labour, availability of capital, transport facilities, port facilities, power supply and good market.

Mumbai: Manchester of India.
Coimbatore: Manchester of South India
Kanpur: Manchester of Uttar Pradesh

The above cities have more number of cotton mills.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the hoogly region.
Answer:
Most of the Jute mills of India are centralised in “Hooghly Basin” of the West Bengal. The factors responsible for the concentration of Jute industry in Hooghly Basin region are:

1. Ganga, Brahmaputra delta regions grow about 90% of India’s Jute and provides raw materials in jute mills.
2. Coal for power is obtained from Raniganj coalfields.
3. Hooghly River provides cheap water transport and soft water for washing, processing, retting and dyeing jute.
4. Humid climate is favourable for spinning and weaving.
5. Cheap labour is available from West Bengal, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
6. Conductive port facility of Kolkata for export and import at Kolkata.

In addition to West Bengal, Jute mills are also located in Andhra pradesh, Uttar pradesh, Bihar, Madhya pradesh and Odisha.

India exports jute products to Australia, U.K, Thailand, U.S.A, Canada, Argentina, East Africa, New Zealand and Indonesia.

Question 3.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:

1. Mineral based industries:

• The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
• It is a key or basic industry and lays the foundation for other industries.
• These industries form the economic backbone of a country.

2. Location of Iron and Steel Industries:
Most of our country’s major iron and steel industries are located in the Chotanagpur plateau region.

3. Distribution of Iron and Steel Industries:
India has 11 integrated steel plant and 150 mini steel plants and a large number of rolling and re-rolling mills.

1. Tata Iron and Steel Company [TISCO]: In 1911, Tata Iron and Steel Company was setup at Jamshedpur. Its major products are Pig Iron and Crude steel.
2. Indian Iron and Steel Company [IISCO]: The Steel plant at Kulti, Bumpur and Hirapur were integrated and the Indian iron and steel company was set up at Bumpur in 1972.
3. Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd(VISL): Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Limited was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Karnataka. Its major products are alloy and sponge steel.
4. • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bhilai: It is located in Durg district of Chattisgarh. It started its production in 1957. Its major products are Railway Equipment and shipbuilding.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Rourkela: It was established in 1965 in Odisha. Its major products include hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plates.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Durgapur: It was established in 1959 in Durgapur of West Bengal. Its major products are alloy,steel, construction materials and railway equipments.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bokaro: It is situated in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It started its operation in 1972. Its major products are sludge and slog.
5. Salem Steel Ltd: It is located at salem in Tamil Nadu. It started its production in 1982. The major products are stainless steel.
6. Vijayanagar Steel Plant: The Vijayanagar Steel Plant has been set up at Tomagal in Karnataka. It started its production in 1994. The major products are flat steel and long steel.
7. The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(VSP): It started its operation in 1981 at Visakhapatnam in Andhra pradesh. Its major products are Hot metal.

4. Mini Steel Plants:

1. Mini steel plants are decentralized secondary units with capacity ranging from 10,000 tonnes to 5 lakh tonnes per year.
2. They produce mild steel, alloy steel and stainless steel.
3. Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the major steel plants so that they can meet the local demands.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
Iron ore production centres.
Answer:

Question 2.
Centres of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
Answer:

Question 3.
Coal mining centres.
Answer:

Question 4.
Areas of cltivation of cotton.
Answer:

Question 5.
Iron and Steel Industries.
Answer:

Resources and Industries Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The cotton textile industry is ……..
(a) Mineral-based industry
(b) Agro-based industry
(c) Forest-based industry
Answer:
(b) Agro-based industry

Question 2.
………………. is the largest coal-producing state in India.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) TamilNadu
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(c) Jharkhand

Question 3.
Tata Iron and Steel industry is located at ………
(a) Durgapur
(b) Bhilai
(c) Jamshedpur
Answer:
(c) Jamshedpur

Question 4.
………………. is the oldest oil field in the country.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Dibrugarh
(c) Digboi
(d) Rudra Sagar
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 5.
The City Known as Electronic Capital is ……….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Delhi
(c) Bangalore
Answer:
(c) Bangalore

Question 6.
The flexible mode of power generation is ………………. very quickly adapting to changing demands.
(a) Thermal power
(b) Hydropower
(c) Solar power
(d) Nuclear power
Answer:
(b) Hydropower

Question 7.
…….. is the major exporter of jute.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) Bangladesh

Question 8.
Development of wind power in India began in the year:
(a) 1976
(b) 1966
(c) 1986
(d) 1906
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 9.
Petroleum is also known as ……..
(a) Black oil
(b) Mineral oil
(c) Yellow liquid
Answer:
(b) Mineral oil

Question 10.
………………. is the process by which the cotton seeds are removed from the cotton fibre.
(a) Ginning
(b) Relting
(c) Pruning
(d) Tapping
Answer:
(a) Ginning

Question 11.
The first automobile industry was started at ………
(a) Uttar pradesh
(b) Kurla
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Kurla

Question 12.
Make in India programme was launched in ………………. the year:
(a) 2000
(b) 2004
(c) 2014
(d) 2016
Answer:
(c) 2014

Question 13.
The Oldest and the largest integrated Iron and Steel plant of India is
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(b) Salem Steel Ltd
(c) Indian Iron and Steel Company
Answer:
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company

Question 14.
India exports software service to nearly ………………. countries in the world.
(a) 65
(b) 75
(c) 85
(d) 95
Answer:
(d) 95

Question 15.
Jharkhand is the leading producer of
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Indian ore
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 16.
………. is contained in the Monazite sand.
(a) Oil
(b) Thorium
(c) Coal
Answer:
(b) Thorium

Question 17.
Where are minerals usually found?
(a) On rocks
(b) On earth crust
(c) On ores
Answer:
(c) On ores

Question 18.
Minerals occur igneous and metamorphic rocks in
(a) the veins and the lodes
(b) layers
(c) alluvial deposit
Answer:
(a) the veins and the lodes

Question 19.
…….. is the basic minerals and the backbone of industrial development.
(a) Coal
(b) Copper
(c) Iron ore
Answer:
(c) Iron ore

Question 20.
…….. metal has a very high content of iron up to 70%.
(a) Magnetic ore
(b) Limonite ore
(c) Hematite ore
Answer:
(a) Magnetic ore

Question 21.
……… is the largest producer of manganese ore in India.
(a) Kudremukh
(b) Odisha
(c) Bailadila
Answer:
(b) Odisha

Question 22.
……… is the basic raw material for the cement industry.
(a) Gypsum
(b) Limestone
(c) Potash salt
Answer:
(b) Limestone

Question 23.
……. is the hardest mineral.
(a) Gold
(b) Diamond
(c) Ruby
Answer:
(b) Diamond

Question 24.
…….. is the softest mineral.
(a) Talc
(b) Salt
(c) Cement
Answer:
(a) Talc

Question 25.
Which one is not a ferrous mineral?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Copper
(c) Hematite
Answer:
(b) Copper

Question 26.
Which one of the following is not a property of Copper?
(a) It is ductile
(b) It is a good conductor
(c) It is hard
Answer:
(c) It is hard

Question 27.
The mineral ore from which aluminium is mainly obtained.
(a) Copper
(b) bauxite
(c) iron ore
Answer:
(b) bauxite

Question 28.
…….. is the finest iron ore.
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Lignite
Answer:
(b) Magnetite

Question 29.
……. and …….. are obtained from veins and Nodes.
(a) Zinc and copper
(b) Copper and coal
(c) Coal and Bauxite
Answer:
(a) Zinc and copper

Question 30.
……. is not a conventional source of energy.
(a) Coal
(b) Biogas
(c) firewood
Answer:
(b) Biogas

Question 31.
The largest solar plant of India is located at …….
(a) Madhapur
(b) Nagarcoil
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… is a silvery grey element.
2. ……… is the first metal used by man.
3. Bauxite is an important one from which …….. is extracted.
4. In ancient time, ……… was used in ayurvedic medicine.
5. ……… is an inflammable organic substance composed mainly of hydrocarbons.
6. …….. usually accompanies petroleum accumulation.
7. India is the second-largest producer of ……..
8. ……… is the largest producer of silk.
9. The first paper mill of India was started in ………
10. The first Jute mill in India was established ……… at near Kolkata.
11. The by-product of the sugar industry are ……. and ……………
12. Most of the jute mills of India are centralized in …….. basin of the West Bengal
13. India is the ……… sugar-producing country in the world.
14. High-grade iron ore is available in …… in Jharkhand.
15. The fast-growing industry of India is …….. industry.
16. The Manchester of Tamil Nadu is ……..
17. The process of rearing silkworm is called ………
18. The first short based integrated steel plant in the country is the …
19. The Electronic capital of India is called ……….
20. Low quality brown coal is called ……..
21. …….. makes our toothpaste white.
22. The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at …….
23. Limestone is found in ………. rocks.
Answers:
1. Manganese
2. Copper
3. aluminium
4. Mica
5. Coal
6. Natural gas
7. raw silk
8. Karnataka
9. West Bengal
10. Rishra
11. Bagasse, Molasses
12. Hooghly
13. second
14. Singbhum
15. automobile
16. Coimbatore
17. Sericulture
18. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant
19. Bangalore
20. lignite
21. Titanium Oxide
22. Darjeeling
23. Sedimentary

III. Match the following.

Answers
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3.(e)
4. (b)
5. (e)

IV. Answer in one or two words.

Question 1.
What makes our toothpaste white?
Answer:
Titanium oxide

Question 2.
Name the rock which is made of one mineral.
Answer:
Limestone

Question 3.
How many minerals have been identified so far in the world?
Answer:
Nearly 2000

Question 4.
Name the mineral which is used to harden steel during manufacturing.
Answer:
Manganese

Question 5.
Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel?
Answer:
Coal

Question 6.
How many thermal power plants are there in India?
Answer:
310 thermal plants

Question 7.
Which energy can be produced from ocean water?
Answer:
Tidal energy

Question 8.
What are two categories of minerals?
Answer:

1. Metallic
2. Non-metallic

Question 9.
Name the two countries which import iron ore from India?
Answer:
Japan and India

Question 10.
In what form ore minerals generally found?
Answer:
In the form of ores.

Question 11.
Name the two important coalfields of India?
Answer:
Jharia and Bokaro

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Give the full form of these abbreviated words:
Answer:
SAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
MOIL – Manganese Ore India Limited
HCL – Hindustan Copper Limited
NALCO – National Aluminium Company Limited
NLCIL – Neyveli Lignite Corporation of India Limited

Question 2.
How do we get metals?
Answer:
We get metals by processing minerals ores.

Question 3.
What are the uses of petroleum?
Answer:
Petroleum is used as a source of power and fuel for automobiles, aeroplanes, ships and locomotives.

Question 4.
What are the by products of Jute industry?
Answer:
Gunny bags, canvas, pack sheets, jute webs, lassian, carpets, cordage and twines

Question 5.
What are the by-products of petroleum?
Answer:
The by-products of petroleum are Lubricants, Kerosene, Vaseline, Tar, Soap, Terylene and Wax.

Question 6.
List out the sugar-producing states of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Name some of the Nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:

1. Rawatbhatta-Kota in Rajasthan.
2. Kalpakkam and Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu.
3. Narora in Uttar Pradesh.
4. Kaiga in Karnataka and Kakrapara in Gujarat.

Question 8.
List out the leading states of paper production in our country.
Answer:
West Bengal, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 9.
Name some of the major software industries in the country?
Answer:
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) , L and T Infotech, i-Flex, Accenture, Cognizant, GalexE Solutions India Pvt Limited and ITC Infotech are the major software industries in the country.

Question 10.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:

1. Agro based industries
2. Forest based industries
3. Mineral based industries

Question 11.
Define the term ‘ore’.
Answer:
The term ‘ore’ is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements.

Question 12.
Why is natural gas considered an eco-friendly fuel?
Answer:
Because of low carbon dioxide emissions.

Question 13.
How is thermal electricity generated?
Answer:
Thermal electricity is generated by using coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 14.
How is hydro-electricity generated?
Answer:
Hydro-electricity is generated by fast flowing water.

Question 15.
What is called pruning?
Answer:
Trimming of over grown branches of tea plants is known as pruning.

Question 16.
What is ginning?
Answer:
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by means of a process called ginning.

Question 17.
Name the chief silk weaving centers of India.
Answer:
Srinagar, Amritsar, Murshidabad, V aranasi, Pune, Mysore, Bangalore, Arani and Kanchipuram. Karnataka is famous for silk worm rearing.

Question 18.
What is Byssionosis?
Answer:
Byssionosis also called “Brown lung disease” or “Monday fever” ia an occupational lung disease caused dust in inadequately ventilated working environments.

Question 19.
Mention any four activities which require energy.
Answer:

1. Cook food
2. Provide light and heat
3. Propel vehicles
4. Drive machinery in industries

Question 20.
How is natural gas used?
Answer:
Natural gas is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry.

Question 21.
Mention any three major iron ore belts of India.
Answer:

1. Odisha – Jharkhand belt
2. Durg – Bastar – Chandrapur belt in Chattisgarh and Maharashtra
3. Bellary – Chitradurga – Chikmangalur – Tumkur belt in Karnataka

Question 22.
Mention the properties of Mica.
Answer:

1. It is made up of a series of plates or leaves.
2. It splits easily into thin sheets.
3. Mica can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
4. Mica is considered an important mineral used in electric and electronic industries.

Question 23.
What is solar energy?
Answer:
The energy obtained from the sun is known as the solar energy. It does not cause environmental problems as it is pollution free.

Question 24.
Mention the importance of sugar industry.
Answer:
India is the world’s second largest producer of sugarcane after Brazil. Sugar industry provide employment to 2.86 lakh workers, besides creating extensive indirect employment and income for 25 million cultivators of sugarcane. It is also an important source of excise duty.

Question 25.
Write about Silk industry.
Answer:
India is one of the large producer of raw silk. Sericulture is the process of rearing silkworm. The chief silk weaving centres are Srinagar, Amritsar, Murshidabad, Varanasi, Pune, Mysore, Bangalore, Salem, Arani and Kanchipuram. Karnataka is famous for silkworm rearing.
India exports exclusively silk fabrics like scarves, dress-materials and sarees. The principal buyers of Indian silk are West Germany, Singapore, USA, UK, Russia, Saudi Arabia and Kuwait.

Question 26.
How are deposits of bauxite formed and aluminium obtained?
Answer:
Bauxite deposits are formed due to decomposition of wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates. Ores containing aluminium are obtained from bauxite which is a clay-like substance from which alumina and later aluminium is obtained.

Question 27.
Write the importance of Solar energy.
Answer:

1. Solar energy does not cause environmental problems as it is pollution free.
2. India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar system.
3. It is becoming popular in rural and remote areas of India. Thus, it will be able to minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dunk cake.

Question 28.
How is nuclear energy obtained?
Answer:
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When such an alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used to generate electric power. Uranium and thorium, which are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power. The monazite sands of Kerala is also rich in thorium.

Question 29.
Give the importance of the Salem Steel Plant.
Answer:
Salem Steel Plant started for commercial production in 1982. It is a major producer of world class stainless steel, which is exported to USA, Mexico, Australia and some other countries of South East Asia.

Question 30.
Give an account of Electronic industry of India.
Answer:
India has made remarkable progress in electronic and computer technology since 1996. “Bangalore” is known as the Electronic Capital of India as it is the leading centre for the production of electronic goods. The other centres are Hyderabad, Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Kanpur, Pune, Lucknow, Jaipur, Coimbatore etc. India can now boast as the leading exporter of electronic goods. It covers a wide range of products including television, transistor, telephone, cellular phones, computer and varied equipment for posts and telegraph, defence, railway and meteorological departments.

VI. Distinguish Between.

Question 1.
Textile industry and Jute industry
Answer:

Question 2.
Solk industry and Jute industry
Answer:

Question 3.
Automobile industry and Electronic industries
Answer:

Question 4.
Forest based industries and Agro based industries
Answer:

Question 5.
Ginning and Retting
Answer:

Ginning Retting
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by the process of Ginning. Retting is a micro-biology process which loosens the outer bark and makes it easier to remove the jute fibres from the stalk.

Question 6.
Iron and steel industry and Software industry
Answer:

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are Resources? How they are classified based on their availability? Give examples.
Answer:

(i) Natural resources are the matter or energy obtained from the environment used by living things including human beings.

(ii) Natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, fossil, fuels, plants, wild life etc..

(iii) They are classified on several basis. Based on continued availability the resources are classified into two types:

Renewable Resources:
The resources which have natural regeneration after their utilization. Eg: Solar energy, Wind energy, Bio gas, tidal energy, wave energy etc

Non – Renewable Resources:
The resources that cannot be replaced again after utilization.
Eg: Minerals like Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Iron ore, Manganese, Bauxite etc.

(iv) Many natural resources are used as raw materials and they play a vital role in the economic development of a region.

Question 2.
Describe the factors encouraging cotton textile industry in Mumbai.
Answer:
Mumbai in Maharashtra is the leading cotton textile center and it is called the “Manchester of India”.
The following factors favour the cotton industries in Mumbai:

1. Location of port facilities for the export of finished goods.
2. Well connected to rail and road links with cotton growing area.
3. Humid coastal climate favours yarning.
4. Availability of capital goods and finance.
5. Availability of manpower.

VIII. Expand the following:

1. NFTDC – Non-Ferrous Material Technology Department Centre
2. SAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
3. MOIL Manganese Ore India Limited
4. HCL – Hindustan Copper Limited
5. NALCO – National Aluminium Company Limited
6. CIL Coal India Limited
7. MOP & NG – The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
8. GAIL The Gas Authority of India Limited
9. CNG Compressed Natural Gas
10. NPCIL – The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
11. DAE – Department of Atomic Energy
12. NHPC National Hydroelectric Power Corporation
13. MNES Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Source
14. NIWE – The National Institute of Wind Energy
15. CSTRI – Central Silk Technological Research Institute
16. NEPA National Newsprint and Paper Mills
17. BHEL – Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited
18. TCS Tata Consultancy Service
19. NTPC – National Thermal Power Corporation