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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.7

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences are in G.P?
(i) 3, 9, 27, 81, ……..
(ii) 4, 44, 444, 4444, ………
(iii) 0.5, 0.05, 0.005, ……..
(iv) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \)………
(v) 1, -5, 25, -125, …….
(vi) 120, 60, 30, 18, …….
(vii) 16, 4, 1, \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ……
Solution:
(i) 3, 9, 27, 81
r = Common ratio




Question 2.
Write the first three terms of the G.P. whose first term and the common ratio are given below.
(i) a = 6, r = 3
(ii) a = \(\sqrt { 2 }\) , r = \(\sqrt { 2 }\)
(iii) a = 1000, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \)
Solution:
(i) a = 6, r = 3
t_n = ar^n-1
t₁ = ar^1-1 = ar⁰ = a = 6
t₂ = ar^2-1 = ar¹ = 6 × 3 = 18
t₃ = ar^3-1 = ar² = 6 × 3² = 54
∴ The 3 terms are 6, 18, 54, ….

The 3 terms are 1000, 400, 160, ……………

Question 3.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Solution:
G.P = 729, 243, 81 ……
t₇ = ?

Question 4.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}\) = \(\frac { x+12 }{ x+6 } \),\(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}\) = \(\frac { x+15 }{ x+12 } \)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac { x+12 }{ x+6 } \) = \(\frac { x+15 }{ x+12 } \)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac { -54 }{ 3 } \) = -18

Question 5.
Find the number of terms in the following G.P.
(i),4, 8, 16, …, 8192
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 9 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 27 } \),……\(\frac { 1 }{ 2187 } \)
Solution:
(i) 4, 8, 16, …… 8192

Question 6.
In a G.P. the 9^th term is 32805 and 6^th term is 1215. Find the 12th term.
Solution:
In a G.P
t_n = ar^n-1
t₉ = 32805
t₆ = 1215
t₁₂ = ?
Let
t₉ = ar⁸ = 32805 ………(1)
t₆ = ar⁵ = 1215 ………. (2)

Question 7.
Find the 10th term of a G.P. whose 8^th term is 768 and the common ratio is 2.
Answer:
Here r = 2, t₈ = 768
t₈ = 768 (t_n = ar^n-1)
a. r^8-1 = 768
ar⁷ = 768 …..(1)
10^th term of a G.P. = a.r 10^-1
= ar⁹
= (ar⁷) × (r²)
= 768 × 2² (from 1)
= 768 × 4 = 3072
∴ 10^th term of a G.P. = 3072

Question 8.
If a, b, c are in A.P. then show that 3^a,3^b,3^c are in G.P.
Solution:
If a, b, c are in A.P
t₂ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂
b – a = c – b
2b = c + a
To prove that 3^a, 3^b, 3^c are in G.P
⇒ 3^2b = 3^c+a + a [Raising the power both sides]
⇒ 3^b.3^b = 3^c.3^a
\(\Rightarrow \frac{3^{b}}{3^{a}}=\frac{3^{c}}{3^{b}}\)
\(\Rightarrow \frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{t_{3}}{t_{1}}\)
⇒ Common ratio is same for 3^a,3^b,3^c
⇒ 3^a, 3^b, 3^c forms a G.P
∴ Hence it is proved .

Question 9.
In a G.P. the product of three consecutive terms is 27 and the sum of the product of two terms taken at a time is \(\frac { 57 }{ 2 } \). Find the three terms.
Solution:
Let the three consecutive terms in a G.P are \(\frac { a }{ r } \), a, ar.
Their Product = \(\frac { a }{ r } \) × a × ar = 27
a³ = 27 = 3³
a = 3
Sum of the product of terms taken two at a time is \(\frac { 57 }{ 2 } \)

Question 10.
A man joined a company as Assistant Manager. The company gave him a starting salary of ₹60,000 and agreed to increase his salary 5% annually. What will be his salary after 5 years?
Solution:
Starting salary = ₹ 60,000
Increase per year = 5%
∴ At the end of 1 year the increase
= 60,0,00 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
₹ 3000
∴ At the end of first year his salary
= ₹ 60,000 + 3000
I year salary = ₹ 63,000
II Year increase = 63000 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
At the end of II year, salary
= 63000 + 3150
= ₹ 66150
III Year increase = 66150 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
= 3307.50
At the end of III year, salary = 66150 + 3307.50
= ₹ 69457.50
IV year increase = 69457.50 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
= ₹ 3472.87

Question 11.
Sivamani is attending an interview for a job and the company gave two offers to him. Offer A: ₹ 20,000 to start with followed by a guaranteed annual increase of 3% for the first 5 years.
Offer B: ₹ 22,000 to start with followed by a guaranteed annual increase of 3% for the first 5 years.
What is his salary in the 4th year with respect to the offers A and B?
Solution:
Offer A
Starting salary ₹ 20,000
Annual increase 6%

At the end of
III year ,salary = 22472 + 1348 = 23820
∴ IV year salary = ₹ 23820
Offer B
Starting salary = ₹ 22,000

Salary as per Option A = ₹ 23820
Salary as per Option B = ₹ 24040
∴ Option B is better.

Question 12.
If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P. then prove that x^b-c × y^c-a × z^a-b = 1.
Solution:
a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an AP.
∴ Let a, b, c be a, a + d, a + 2d respectively ………… (1)
x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a GP.
∴ Assume x, y, z as x, x.r, x.r² respectively ……… (2)
PT : x^b-c , y^c-a , z^a-b = 1
Substituting (1) and (2) in LHS, we get
LHS = x^a+d-a-2d × (xr)^a+2d-a × (xr²)^a-a-d
= (x)^-d . (xr)^2d (xr²)^-d
= \(\frac{1}{x^{d}}\) × x^2d . r^2d × \(\frac{1}{x^{d} r^{2 d}}\) = 1 = RHS

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.6

Question 1.
Find the sum of the following
(i) 3, 7, 11, …….. up to 40 terms.
(ii) 102, 97, 92, ……… up to 27 terms.
(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + ……… + 97
Solution:
(i) 3, 7, 11,. . . upto 40 terms.
a = 3, d = t₂ – t₁ = 7 – 3 = 4
n = 40
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
S₄₀ = \(\frac{20}{2}\) (2× 3 + 39d)
= 20(6 + 39 × 4)
= 20(6 + 156)
= 20 × 162
= 3240

(ii) 102, 97, 952,… up to 27 terms
a = 102,
d = t₂ – t₁
= 97 – 102 = -5
n = 27

(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + … + 97
a = 6,d = 7, l = 97

Question 2.
How many consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480?
Answer:
5,7,9, 11, 13,…
S_n = 480
a = 5, d = 2, S_n = 480

2n² + 8n – 960 = 0
⇒ n² + 4n – 480 = 0
⇒ n² + 24n – 20n – 480 = 0
⇒ n(n + 24) – 20(n + 24) = 0
⇒ (n – 20)(n + 24) = 0
⇒ n = 20,-24
No. of terms cannot be -ve.
∴ No. of consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480 is 20.

Question 3.
Find the sum of first 28 terms of an A.P. whose n^th term is 4n – 3.
Answer:
Number of terns (n) = 28
t_n = 4n – 3
t₁ = 4(1) – 3 = 4 – 3 = 1
t₂ = 4(2) – 3 = 8 – 3 = 5
t₃ = 4(3) – 3 = 12 – 3 = 9
Here a = 1, d = 5 – 1 = 4
S₂₈ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= \(\frac { 28 }{ 2 } \) [2 + (27) (4)]
= 14 [2 + 108]
= 14 × 110
= 1540
Sum of 28 terms = 1540

Question 4.
The sum of first n terms of a certain series is given as 2n2 – 3n. Show that the series is an A.P.
Solution:
Given S_n = 2n² – 3n
S₁ = 2(1)² – 3(1) = 2 – 3 = – 1
⇒ t₁ = a = – 1
S₂ = 2(2²) – 3(2) = 8 – 6 = 2
t₂ = S₂ – S₁ = 2 – (-1) = 3
∴ d = t₂ – t₁ = 3 – (-1) = 4
Consider a, a + d, a + 2d, ….….
-1, -1 + 4, -1 + 2(4), …..…
-1, 3, 7,….
Clearly this is an A.P with a = – 1, and d = 4.

Question 5.
The 104^th term and 4th term of an A.P are 125 and 0. Find the sum of first 35 terms.
Solution:
t₁₀₄ = 125
t₄ = 0
a + (n – 1)d = t_n

Question 6.
Find the sum of all odd positive integers less than 450.
Solution:
Sum of all odd positive integers less than 450 is given by
1 + 3 + 5 + … + 449
a = 1
d = 2
l = 449


= 50625
Another method:
Sum of all +ve odd integers = n².
We can use the formula n² = 225²
= 50625

Question 7.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
Answer:
Natural numbers between 602 and 902
603,604, …, 901
a = 603, l = 901, d = 1,

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are divisible by 4.
l = 902 – 2 = 900
To make 602 divisible by 4 we have to add 2 to 602.
∴ 602 + 2 = 604 which is divisible by 4.
To make 902 divisible by 4, subtract 2 from 902.
∴ 900 is the last number divisible by 4.

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible 4.
= 224848 – 56400
= 168448

Question 8.
Raghu wish to buy a Laptop. He can buy it by paying ₹40,000 cash or by making 10 installments as ₹4800 in the first month, ₹4750 in the second month, ₹4700 in the third month and so on. If he pays the money in this fashion, Find
(i) Total amount paid in 10 installments.
(ii) How much extra amount that he pay in installments.
Answer:
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments
4800 + 4750 + 4700 + ……………. 10
Here a = 4800; d = – 50 ; n = 10
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a +(n – 1)d]
S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 4800 +9(-50)]
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [9600 – 450]
= 5 [9150]
= 45750
Amount paid in 10 installments
= ₹45750
(ii) Extra amount paid = amount paid in 10
installment – cost of the laptop
= ₹45750 – 40,000
= ₹ 5750
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments = ₹ 45750
(ii) Difference in payment = ₹ 5750

Question 9.
A man repays a loan of ₹65,000 by paying ₹400 in the first month and then increasing the payment by ₹300 every month. How long will it take for him to clear the loan?
Solution:
Loan Amount = ₹ 65,000
Repayment through installments
400 + 700 + 1000 + 1300 + …
a = 400
d = 300
S_n = 65000
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
= 65000
\(\frac{n}{2}\)(2 × 400 + (n – 1)300) = 65000
n(800 + 300n – 300) = 130000
n(500 + 300n) = 130000
500n + 300n² = 130000

Number of terms should be (+ve) and cannot be (-ve) or fractional number.
∴ He will take 20 months to clear the loans.

Question 10.
A brick staircase has a total of 30 steps. The bottom step requires 100 bricks. Each successive step requires two bricks less than the previous step.
(i) How many bricks are required for the top most step?
(ii) How many bricks are required to build the stair case?
Answer:
Total number of steps = 30
∴ n = 30
Number of bricks for the bottom = 100
a = 100
2 bricks is less for each step

(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₃₀ = 100 + 29 (-2)
= 100 – 58
= 42

(ii) Number of bricks required
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n-1) d]
S₃₀ = \(\frac { 30 }{ 2 } \) [200 + 29 (-2)]
= 15[200 – 58]
= 2130
(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step = 42 bricks
(ii) Number of bricks required = 2130

Question 11.
If S₁,S₂,S₃ , …. , S_m are the sums of n terms of m A.P.’s whose first terms are 1,2,3,…,m and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5,…, (2m – 1) respectively, then show that
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …. + Sm = \(\frac{1}{2}\)  mn(mn + 1).
Solution:

Question 12.
Find the sum

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Additional Questions

Question 1.
Solve the following system of linear equations in three variables. x + y + z = 6; 2x + 3y + 4z = 20;
3x + 2y + 5z = 22
Solution:
x + y + z = 6 ………….. (1)
2x + 3y + 4z = 20 ………… (2)
3x + 2y + 5z = 22 …………(3)

Sub. z = 3 in (5) ⇒ y – 2(3) = -4
y = 2
Sub. y = 2, z = 3 in (1), we get
x + 2 + 3 = 6
x = 1
x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 2.
Using quadratic formula solve the following equations.
(i) p²x² + (p² – q²) x – q² = 0
(ii) 9x² – 9 (a + b)x + (2a² + 5ab + 2b²) = 0
Solution:
(i) p²x² + (p² – q²)x – q² = 0
Comparing this with ax² + bx + c = 0, we have
a = p²
b = p² – q²
c = -q²
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (p² – q²)-4 × p² × -q²
= (p² – q²)² + 4p² q²
= (p² + q²)² > 0
So, the given equation has real roots given by
\(\alpha=\frac{-b-\sqrt{\Delta}}{2 a}=\frac{-\left(p^{2}-q^{2}\right)+\left(p^{2}+q^{2}\right)}{2 p^{2}}=\frac{q^{2}}{p^{2}}\)
\(\beta=\frac{-b-\sqrt{\Delta}}{2 a}=\frac{-\left(p^{2}-q^{2}\right)-\left(p^{2}+q^{2}\right)}{2 p^{2}}\)
= -1

(ii) 9x² – 9(a + b)x + (2a² + 5ab + 2b²) = 0
Comparing this with ax² + bx + c = 0.
a =9
b = -9 (a + b)
c = (2a² + 5 ab + 2b²)
Δ = B² – 4AC
⇒ 81 (a + b)² – 36(2a² + 5ab + 2b²)
⇒ 9a² + 9b² – 18ab
⇒ 9(a – b)² > 0
∴ the roots are real and given by

Question 3.
Find the HCF of x³ + x² + x + 1 and x⁴ – 1.
Answer:
x³ + x² + x + 1 = x² (x + 1) + 1 (x + 1)
= (x + 1) (x² + 1)
x⁴-1 = (x²)² – 1
= (x² + 1) (x²– 1)
= (x² + 1) (x + 1) (x – 1)
H.C.F. = (x² + 1)(x + 1)

Question 4.
Prove that the equation x²(a² + b²) + 2x(ac + bd) + (c² + d²) = 0 has no real root if ad ≠ bc
Solution:
Δ = b² – 4ac
⇒ 4(ac + bd)² – 4(a² + b²)(c² + d²)
⇒ 4[(ac + bd)² – (a² + b²)(c² + d²)]
⇒ 4(a²c² + b²d² + 2acbd – a²c²b²c² – a²d² – b²d²]
⇒ 4[2acbd – a²d² – b²c²]
⇒ 4 [a²c² + b²c² – 2adbc]
⇒ -4[ad – bc]²
We have ad ≠ bc
∴ ad – bc > 0
⇒ (ad – bc)² > 0
⇒ -4(ad – bc)² < 0 ⇒ Δ < 0
Hence the given equation has no real roots.

Question 5.
Find the L.C.M of 2(x³ + x² – x – 1) and 3(x³ + 3x² – x – 3)
Answer:
2[x³ + x² – x – 1] = 2[x²(x+ 1)- 1 (x + 1)]
= 2(x + 1) (x² – 1)
= 2(x + 1) (x + 1) (x – 1)
= 2(x + 1)² (x – 1)
3[x³ + 3x² – x – 3] = 3[x²(x + 3) -1 (x + 3)]
= 3[(x + 3)(x² – 1)]
= 3(x + 3)(x + 1) (x – 1)
L.C.M. = 6(x + 1)²(x – 1) (x + 3)

Question 6.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to the number the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the ten’s digit of the number be x. It is given that the product of the digits is 12.
Unit’s digit = \(\frac{12}{x}\)
Number = 10x + \(\frac{12}{x}\)
If 36 is added to the number the digits interchange their places.

x = -6, 2.
But a number can never be (-ve). So, x = 2.
The number is 10 × 2 + \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 26

Question 7.
Seven years ago, Vanin’s age was five times the square of swati’s age. Three years hence Swati’s age will be two fifth of Varun’s age. Find their present ages.
Solution:
Seven years ago, let Swathi’s age be x years.
Seven years ago, let Varun’s age was 5x² years.
Swathi’s present age = x + 7 years
Varun’s present age = (5x² + 7) years
3 years hence, we have Swathi’s age = x + 7 + 3 years
= x + 10 years
Varun’s age = 5x² + 7 + 3 years
= 5x² + 10 years
It is given that 3 years hence Swathi’s age will be \(\frac{2}{5}\) of Varun’s age.
∴ x + 10 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) (5x² + 10)
⇒ x + 10 = 2x² + 4
⇒ 2x² – x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x(x – 2) + 3(x – 2) = 0
⇒ (2x + 3)(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 2 (∵ 2x + 3 ≠ 0 as x > 0)
Hence Swathi’s present age = (2 + 7) years
= 9 years
Varun’s present age = (5 × 2² + 7) years = 27 years

Question 8.
A chess board contains 64 equal squares and the area of each square is 6.25 cm². A border round the board is 2 cm wide find its side.
Solution:
Let the length of the side of the chess board be x cm. Then,

Area of 64 squares = (x – 4)²
(x – 4)² = 64 × 6.25
⇒ x² – 8x+ 16 = 400
⇒ x² – 8x-384 = 0
⇒ x² – 24x + 16x – 384 = 0
⇒ (x – 24)(x + 16) = 0
⇒ x = 24 cm.

Question 9.
Find two consecutive natural numbers whose product is 20.
Solution:
Let a natural number be x.
The next number = x + 1
x (x + 1) = 20
x² + x – 20 = 0
(x + 5)(x – 4) = 0
x = -5, 4
∴ x = 4 (∵ x ≠ -5, x is natural number)
The next number = 4 + 1 = 5
Two consecutive numbers are 4, 5

Question 10.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18, when 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the tens digit be x. Then the units digits = \(\frac{18}{x}\)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.5

Question 1.
Check whether the following sequences are in A.P.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7, ………
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..
(iii) 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, ………
(iv) \(\frac { -1 }{ 3 } \),0,\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \),………..
(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
Solution:
To prove it is an A.P, we have to show d = t₂ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7………
t₁,t₂,t₃
d = t₂ – t₁ = a – 5 – (a – 3) = a – 5 – a + 3 = -2
∴ d = -2    ∴ It is an A.P.
d = t₃ – t₂ = a – 7 – (a – 5) = a – 7 – a + 5 = -2

(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..

(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
d = t₂ – t₁ = -1 -1 = -2
d = t₃ – t₂ = 1 – (-1) = 2
-2 ≠ 2 ∴ It is not an A.P.

Question 2.
First term a and common difference d are given below. Find the corresponding A.P.
(i) a = 5, d = 6
(ii) a = 7, d = 5
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
Solution:
(i) a = 5, d = 6
A.P a, a + d, a + 2d, ………
= 5, 5 + 6, 5 + 2 × 6, ………
= 5, 11, 17,…
(ii) a = 7,d = -5
A.P. = a,a + d,a + 2d,…
= 7,7 + (-5), 7 + 2(-5), ……….
= 7, 2, -3, …….,…
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

Question 3.
Find the first term and common difference of the Arithmetic Progressions whose nthterms are given below

(i) t_n = -3 + 2n
Answer:
t_n = -3 + 2 n
t₁ = -3 + 2(1) = -3 + 2
= -1
t₂ = -3 + 2(2) = -3 + 4
= 1
First term (a) = -1 and
Common difference
(d) = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2

(ii) t_n = 4 – 7n
Answer:
t_n = 4 – 7n
t₁ = 4 – 7(1)
= 4 – 7 = -3
t₂ = 4 – 7(2)
= 4 – 14 = -10
First term (a) = – 3 and
Common difference (d) = 10 – (-3)
= – 10 + 3
= – 7

Question 4.
Find the 19th term of an A.P. -11, -15, -19, ………..
Solution:
A.P = -11, -15, -19, ……..
a = -11
d = t₂ – t₁ =-15-(-11)
= -15 + 11
= -4
n = 19
∴ t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₁₉ = -11 + (19 – 1)(-4)
= -11 + 18 × -4
= -11 – 72
= -83

Question 5.
Which term of an A.P. 16, 11, 6, 1,… is -54?
Answer:
First term (a) = 16
Common difference (d) = 11 – 16 = -5
t_n = – 54
a + (n – 1) d = -54
16 + (n – 1) (-5) = -54
54 + 21 = -54
54 + 21 = 5n
75 = 5n
n = \(\frac { 75 }{ 5 } \) = 15
The 15^th term is – 54

Question 6.
Find the middle term(s) of an A.P. 9, 15, 21, 27, ……. ,183.
Solution:
A.P = 9, 15, 21, 27,…, 183
No. of terms in an A.P. is
n = \(\frac { l-a }{ d } \) + 1
a = 9, l = 183, d = 15 – 9 = 6
∴ n = \(\frac { 183-9 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= \(\frac { 174 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= 29 + 1 = 30
∴ No. of terms = 30. The middle must be 15th term and 16th term.
∴ t₁₅ = a + (n – 1)d
= 9 + 14 × 6
=9 + 84
= 93
t₁₆ = a + 15 d
= 9 + 15 × 6
= 9 + 90 = 99
∴ The middle terms are 93, 99.

Question 7.
If nine times the ninth term is equal to the fifteen times fifteenth term, Show that six times twenty fourth term is zero.
Answer:
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
9 times 9^th term = 15 times 15^th term
9t₉ = 15 t₁₅
9[a + 8d] = 15[a + 14d]
9a + 72d = 15a + 210d
9a – 15a + 72 d – 210 d = 0
-6a – 138 d = 0
6a + 138 d = 0
6 [a + 23 d] = 0
6 [a + (24 – 1)d] = 0
6 t₂₄ = 0
∴ Six times 24th terms is 0.

Question 8.
If 3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P. then find k.
Solution:
3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P
⇒ 2b = a + c if a, b, c are in A.P

Question 9.
Find x,y and z gave that the numbers x,
10, y, 24, z are in A.P.
Answer:
x, 10, y, 24, z are in A.P
t₂ – t₁ = 10 – x
d = 10 – x …..(1)
t₃ – t₂ = y – 10
d = y – 10 ……(2)
t₄ – t₃ = 24 – y
d = 24 – y …..(3)
t₅ – t₄ = z – 24
d = z – 24 …..(4)
From (2) and (3) we get
y – 10 = 24 – y
2y = 24 + 10
2y = 34
y = 17
From (1) and (2) we get
10 – x = y – 10
– x – y = -10 -10
-x -y = -20
x + y = 20
x + 17 = 20(y = 17)
x = 20 – 17 = 3
From (1) and (4) we get
z – 24 = 10 – x
z – 24 = 10 – 3 (x = 3)
z – 24 = 7
z = 7 + 24
z = 31
The value of x = 3, y = 17 and z = 31

Question 10.
In a theatre, there are 20 seats in the front row and 30 rows were allotted. Each successive row contains two additional seats than its front row. How many seats are there in the last row?
Solution:
t₁ = a = 20
t₂ = a + 2 = 22
t₃ = a + 2 + 2 = 24 ⇒ d = 2
∴ There are 30 rows.
t₃₀ = a + 29d
= 20 + 29 × 2
= 20 + 58
= 78
∴ There will be 78 seats in the last row.

Question 11.
The Sum of three consecutive terms that are in A.P. is 27 and their product is 288. Find the three terms.
Answer:
Let the three consecutive terms be a – d, a and a + d
By the given first condition
a – d + a + a + d = 27
3a = 27
a = \(\frac { 27 }{ 3 } \) = 9
Again by the second condition
(a – d) (a) (a + d) = 288
a (a² – d²) = 288
9(81 – d²) = 288 (a = 9)
81 – d² = \(\frac { 288 }{ 9 } \)
81 – d² = 32
∴ d² = 81 – 32
= 49
d = \(\sqrt { 49 }\) = ± 7
When a = 9, d = 7
a + d = 9 + 7 = 16
a = 9
a – d = 9 – 7 = 2
When a = 9, d = -7
a + d = 9 – 7 = 2
a = 9
a – d = 9 – (-7) = 9 + 7 = 16
The three terms are 2, 9, 16 (or) 16, 9, 2

Question 12.
The ratio of 6th and 8^th term of an A.P is 7:9. Find the ratio of 9^th term to 13^th term.
Solution:
\(\frac{t_{6}}{t_{8}}=\frac{7}{9}\)
\(\frac { a+5d }{ a+7d } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 9 } \)
9a + 45d = 7a + 49d
9 a + 45 – 7d = 7a + 49 d
9a + 45d – 7a – 49d = 0
2a – 4d = 0 ⇒ 2a = 4d
a = 2d
Substitue a = 2d in

Question 13.
In a winter season let us take the temperature of Ooty from Monday to Friday to be in A.P. The sum of temperatures from Monday to Wednesday is 0° C and the sum of the temperatures from Wednesday to Friday is 18° C. Find the temperature on each of the five days.
Solution:
Let the five days temperature be (a – d), a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d.
The three days sum = a – d + a + a + d = 0
⇒ 3a = 0 ⇒ a = 0. (given)
a + d + a + 2d + a + 3d = 18
3a + 6d = 18
3(0) + 6 d = 18
6d = 18
d = \(\frac { 18 }{ 6 } \) = 3
∴ The temperature of each five days is a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d
0 – 3, 0, 0 + 3, 0 + 2(3), 0 + 3(3) = -3°C, 0°C, 3°C, 6°C, 9°C

Question 14.
Priya earned ₹ 15,000 in the first month. Thereafter her salary increased by ₹1500 per year. Her expenses are ₹13,000 during the first year and the expenses increases by ₹900 per year. How long will it take for her to save ₹20,000 per month.
Solution:

We find that the yearly savings is in A.P with a₁ = 2000 and d = 600.
We are required to find how many years are required to save 20,000 a year …………..
a_n = 20,000
a_n = a + (n – 1)d
20000 = 2000 + (n – 1)600
(n – 1)600 = 18000
n – 1 = \(\frac { 18000 }{ 600 } \) = 30
n = 31 years

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Chemical Coordination and Integration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textbook Evaluation Solved
Choose The Correct Answer
Question 1.
The maintenance of constant internal environment is referred as .
(a) Regulation
(b) Homeostasis
(c) Co-ordination
(d) Hormonal control
Answer:
(b) Homeostasis

Question 2.
Which of the following are exclusive endocrine glands?
(a) Thymus and testis
(b) Adrenal and ovary
(c) Parathyroid and adrenal
(d) Pancreas and parathyroid
Answer:
(c) Parathyroid and adrenal

Question 3.
Which of the following hormone is not secreted under the influence of pituitary gland?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Glucocorticoids
Answer:
(A) Insulin

Question 4.
Spermatogenesis in mammalian testes is controlled by?
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(c) FSH and prolactin
(d) GH and prolactin
Answer:
(A) Follicle stimulating hormone

Question 5.
Serum calcium level is regulated by?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) FSH
(c) Pancreas Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Thyroid and parathyroid
Answer:
(d) Thyroid and parathyroid

Question 6.
Iodised salt is essential to prevent?
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer:
(c) Goitre

Question 7.
Which of the following gland is related with immunity?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Thymus
(d) Parathyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Thymus

Question 8.
Which of the following statement about sex hormones is correct?
(a) Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone
(b) Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and softens pelvic ligaments during child birth
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by both sertoli cells and corpus luteum
(d) Progesterone produced by corpus luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone

Question 9.
Hypersecretion of GH in children leads to
(a) Cretinism
(b) Gigantism
(c) Graves disease
(d) Tetany
Answer:
(b) Gigantism

Question 10.
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of …………….
(a) Low secretion of growth hormone
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland
(c) Over secretion of pars distalis
(d) Deficiency of iodine in diet.
Answer:
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland

Question 11.
The structure which connects the hypothalamus with the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the
(a) Dendrites of the neurohypophysis
(b) Axons of the neurohypophysis
(c) Bands of white fibers from the cerebellar region
(d) Hypophysial portal system
Answer:
(b) Axons of the neurohypophysis

Question 12.
Comment on homeostasis?
Answer:
Homeostasis: Maintenance of the constant internal environment of the body by the different coordinating systems.

Question 13.
Which one of the following statement is correct
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in the stomach
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones

Question 14.
Which of the given option shows all wrong statement for thyroid gland Statements
(i) It inhibits the process of RBC formation
(ii) It helps in the maintenance of water and electrolytes
(iii) It’s more secretion can reduce blood pressure
(iv) It stimulates osteoblast
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 15.
Hormones are known as chemical messengers? Justify?
Answer:
Hormones are chemical messengers because they act as organic catalysts and co-enzymes to perform specific functions in the target organs.

Question 16.
Write the role of oestrogen in ovulation?
Answer:
Oestrogen is the ovarian hormone secreted during the proliferation phase of the menstrual cycle from the 6th day to the 14th day of the cycle. On the 14th day of the cycle, under the influence of luteinizing hormone, the ovum is released from the graffian follicles. This process is known as ovulation.

Question 17.
Comment on Acini of thyroid gland?
Answer:

• The thyroid gland is a bilobed gland. Each lobe is made up of many lobules.
• The lobules consist of follicles called acinus. Each acinus is lined with glandular cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells.
• The lumen of the acinus is filled with colloid which contains thyroglobulin molecules.

Question 18.
Write the causes for diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipid?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is caused due to reduced secretion of insulin. As a result, the blood glucose level is elevated. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to under secretion of ADH or vasopressin. As a result, reabsorption of water gets affected and hende large amount of urine is produced.

Question 19.
Specify the symptoms of acromegaly?
Answer:
Acromegaly is due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. The symptoms are an overgrowth of hand bones, feet bones, Jawbones malfunctioning of gonads enlargement of Viscera. Tongue, lungs, heart, liver spleen, thyroid, and adrenal gland.

Question 20.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms:-

1. Retarded skeletal growth.
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Thick wrinkled skin
6. Bloated face
7. Protruded enlarged tongue
8. Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature, and elevated blood cholesterol levels

Question 21.
Briefly explain the structure of the thyroid gland?
Answer:

• It is the largest endocrine gland.
• The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped bi-lobed gland located below the larynx on each side of the upper trachea.
• The two lateral lobes are connected by a median tissue mass called isthmus.
• Each lobe is made up of many lobules.
• The lobules consist of follicles called acini.
• Each animus is lined with glandular cuboidal squamous epithelial cells.
• The lumen of the acinus is filled with colloid a thick glycoprotein mixture consisting of thyroglobulin molecules.

Question 22.
Name the layers of the adrenal cortex and mention their secretions?
Answer:
A pair of adrenal glands are located at the anterior end of the kidneys. Elence, they are called suprarenal glands. The outer region is called the cortex and the inner region is the medulla. The adrenal cortex has three distinct zones,

1. Zona Glomerulosa
2. Zona fasciculata
3. Zona reticularis

1. Zona Glomerulosa:

• It is the outer thin layer. It constitutes about 15% of the cortex.
• It secretes mineralocorticoids.

2. Zona fasciculata:

• It is the middle wide layer constituting about 15% of adrenal cortex.
• It secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen.

3. Zona reticularis:

• It is the inner zone of adrenal cortex.
• It constitutes about 10% of adrenal cortex.
• It constitutes about 10% of adrenal cortex.
• It secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Question 23.
Differentiate hyperglycemia from hypoglycemia?
Answer:

Hyperglycemia	Hypoglycemia
1. Elevation in the blood sugar level is called hyperglycemia	1. Decrease in the blood sugar level is called hypoglycemia.
2. This happens due to reduced secretion of insulin.	2. This happens due to increased secretion of insulin.

Question 24.
Write the functions of CCK?
Answer:
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet. It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge.

Question 25.
Growth hormone is important for normal growth. Justify the statement?
Answer:
Growth hormone promotes growth of all the tissues and metabolic process of the body. It influences the metabolism of carbohydrate, proteins and lipids. It increases the rate of protein biosynthesis in the cells.

It stimulates chondrogenesis (cartilage formation), osteogenesis (bone formation) and helps in the retention of minerals like nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus, sodium etc in the body. It increases the release of fatty acid from adipose tissue and decreases the rate of glucose utilization for energy by the cells. The hyposecretion of growth hormones causes dwarfism in children.

Question 26.
Pineal gland is an endocrine gland, write its role?
Answer:

• As pineal gland secretes the hormone melotonin it is an endocrine gland.
• Melotonin hormone plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm of our body and maintains the normal sleep-wake cycle.
• It also regulates the timing of sexual maturation of gonads.
• Melatonin also influences metabolism pigmentation menstrual cycle and defence mechanism of our body.

Question 27.
Comment on the functions of adrenalin?
Answer:
Adrenalin increases liver glycogen breakdown into glucose and increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells. During emergency, it increases heart beat rate and blood pressure.lt stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow. It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and nervous tissue.

Question 28.
Predict the effects of removal of pancreas from the human body?
Answer:

• Surgical removal of pancreas is due to some clinical reasons is known as pancreatectomy.
• The following are the effect of pancreatectomy.
• There may be hypoglycemic and hyperglycemic manifestation. As there is a complete absence of endogenous insulin and glycogen leads to pancreatic diabetic mellitus. There may be anastomatic ulcer.
• There may be low level of fat souble vitamin.
• There may be weight loss
• There may be chronic diarrohea
• There may be loss of appetite
• There may be fatiqueness and vomiting, Elevated cholesterol level
• There may be poor life expectancy.
• There may be physical emotional cognitive and social functional declining. 30. Write a detailed account of gastrointestinal tract hormones.
• These are specialized endocrine cells present in gastro-intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin cholecystokinin secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides.
• Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HC1 and Pepsinogen.
• Cholecystokinin is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.
• It acts on the gall bladder to release in to duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge.
• Secretion acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity.
• Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits, gastric secretion and motility.

Question 29.
Enumerate the role of kidney as an endocrine gland?
Answer:
Kidney has endocrine tissues which act as partial endocrine gland. It secretes renin, erythropoietin and calcitripl. Renin is secreted by juxta glomerular cells. It increases blood pressure when angiotensin is formed in blood.

Erythropoietin is also secreted by the juxta glomerular cells of the kidney and stimulates erythropoieis in bone marrow. Calcitriol is secreted by proximal tubes of nephrons. It is an active form of vitamin D3 which promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption from intestine and accelerates bone formation.

Question 30.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro-intestial tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HC1 and pepsinogen.

Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet. It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

In-Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
Pituitary gland is located in a depression in the sphenoid bone of skull below the brain, so is also called hypothalamus cerebri. Discuss the following:
(a) Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body?
(b) Discuss the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining physiological processes?
(c) How does the posterior lobe of pituitary help in osmoregulation?
Answer:
(a) Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body because it regulates the activity of other endocrine glands such as adrenal gland, thyroid gland, testis and ovary.

(b) The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary gland to release or inhibit pituitary hormone releasing factor production thus maintaining Homeostasis of the body.

(c) The posterior lobe of pituitary helps in osmoregulation by secreting the hormones namely vasopressin and oxytocin which increases tubular reabsorption of water in the nephrons.

Question 2.
Endocrine glands control and coordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones. Due to certain physiological reasons, the blood glucose level of an otherwise normal person?
(a) Give the possible cause for the increases in blood glucose level?
(b) What is the chemical nature of this hormone? Discuss its role in the body?
(c) How can this condition be reversed?
Answer:
(a) Stress and anxiety could have been the possible causes for the sudden increase in blood glucose level.

(b) Insulin is a polypeptide hormone. Insulin is secreted by the Islets of Langerhans of pancreas. It helps in converting glucose into glycogen or fat and allowing-oxidation of glucose inside the cells. Thus, insulin helps maintain the blood sugar level.

(c) This condition can be reversed by relaxing and taking a walk.

Question 3.
Identify the peaks of FSH, LH, Oestrogen and Progesterone hormones through out the menstrual cycle?
Answer:

Oestrogen, FSH are in the peak during the follicular phase (6 -13 days) of menstruation. LH is at the peak during ovulation that is on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Progesterone is at the peak in the luteal phase of menstruation (14 – 28 days).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Chemical Coordination and Integration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is not related to hormones?
(a) They are secreted by ductless glands
(b) They act on the target
(c) They act as chemical messengers
(d) They play an important role in digestion
Answer:
(d) They play an important role in digestion

Question 2.
Which of the following is a partial endocrine?
(a) Thymus gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Gonads
(d) Parathyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Gonads

Question 3.
Which of the following is the function of Growth Hormone?
(a) It increases blood pressure
(b) It influences the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
(c) It stimulates melanin synthesis in melanocytes
(d) It promotes reabsorption of water by nephrons
Answer:
(b) It influences the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids

Question 4.
Which of the following stimulates milk secretion after the child birth in females?
(a) Luteotropic hormone
(b) Luteinizing hormone
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Somatotropin
Answer:
(a) Luteotropic hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following is the reason for calling vasopressin as the anti Jiuretic hormone?
(a) It promotes dilution of urine
(b) It reduces dilution of urine
(c) It increases blood pressure
(d) It constricts blood vessels
Answer:
(b) It reduces dilution of urine

Question 6.
A person is unable to sleep normally. He may not get proper secretion of?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Vasopression
(c) Melatonin
(d) Oxytocin
Answer:
(c) Melatonin

Question 7.
Why is parathormone called hypercalcemic hormone?
(a) It decreases blood calcium level
(b) It increases blood potassium level
(c) It increases blood calcium level
(d) It decreases blood potassium level
Answer:
(b) It increases blood potassium level

Question 8.
Which of the following is not the function of cortisol?
(a) It produces anti inflammatory reactions
(b) It stimulates RBC production
(c) It supresses the immune response
(d) It regulates water and electrolyte balance of the body
Answer:
(d) It regulates water and electrolyte balance of the body

Question 9.
Which adrenal hormone is concerned with maintaining electrolytes, osmotic pressure and blood pressure?
(a) Cortisol
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Adrenalin
Answer:
(c) Aldosterone

Question 10.
Which of the following hormones prepares the body for meeting emergency situations?
(a) Aderenalin and noradrenalin
(b) Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
(c) Cortisol and Aldosterone
(d) Glucocorticoids and corticosterone
Answer:
(a) Aderenalin and noradrenalin

Question 11.
Which of the following is the function of insulin?
(a) It promotes Glycogenolysis
(b) It increases the uptake of glucose into the body cells
(c) It promotes gluconeogenesis
(d) It reduces the cellular uptake and utilization of glucose
Answer:
(b) It increases the uptake of glucose into the body cells

Question 12.
Which of the following is the functiion of Glucogon?
(a) It increases the cellular utilization of glycogen into glucose
(b) It promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
(c) It inhibits the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
(d) It inhibits the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
Answer:
(b) It promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

Question 13.
Which of the following promotes the appearance of secondary sexual characters in male and female respectively?
(a) Testosterone and progesterone
(b) Progesterone and testosterone
(c) Testosterone and oestrogen
(d) Oestrogen and testosterone
Answer:
(c) Testosterone and oestrogen

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of progesterone?
(a) Implantation of zygote in the uterus
(b) Decreasing the contraction of uterus
(c) Formation of placenta
(d) Maturation of reproductive organs
Answer:
(d) Maturation of reproductive organs

Question 15.
Which of the following hormone is secreted by proximal tubules of nephron?
(a) Renin
(b) Calcitriol
(c) Erythropoietin
(d) Cholecystokinin
Answer:
(b) Calcitriol

Question 16.
A person attains a maximum of 4 feet height. What could be the reason for this?
(a) Hypersecretion of somatotropic hormone
(b) Hypersecretion of ACTH
(c) Hyposecretion of TSH
(d) Hyposecretion of somatotropic hormone
Answer:
(d) Hyposecretion of somatotropic hormone

Question 17.
An excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults lead to ……………….
(a) Gigantism
(b) Dwarfism
(c) Acromegaly
(d) Cretinism
Answer:
(c) Acromegaly

Question 18.
Why does cretenism occur?
(a) Hypothyroidism in adults
(b) Hypothyroidism in infants
(c) Hyperthroidism in adults
(d) lower level of iodine in blood
Answer:
(b) Hypothyroidism in infants

Question 19.
Increased heartbeat, high BP and protrusion of eyeball are the characteristics of …………….
(a) Endemic goitre
(b) Tetany
(c) Myxodema
(d) Grave’s disease
Answer:
(d) Grave’s disease

Question 20.
Hypocalcemia occures due to?
(a) Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
(b) Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone
(c) Hypersecretion of cortisol
(d) Hyposecretion of cortisol
Answer:
(b) Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone

Question 21.
Demineralization occurs due to?
(a) Hypoparathyroidism
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer:
(d) Hyperparathyroidism

Question 22.
Hyper pigmentation of skin and low metabolic rate are the symptoms of …………………..
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Grave’s disease
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(b) Addison’s disease

Question 23.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s diesease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

Question 24.
In Type I diabetes ………………
(a) Insulin is produced in sufficient quantity
(b) Insulin resistance occurs
(c) Insulin is produced more
(d) Insulin is not produced
Answer:
(d) Insulin is not produced

Question 25.
Excessive intake of food in diabetes is called as …………………..
(a) Polydipsia
(b) Polyurea
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Ketosis
Answer:
(c) Polyphagia

Question 26.
The hyposecretion of vasopressin results in …………….. ?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Ketosis
(d) Hyperglycemia
Answer:
(b) Diabetes insipidus

Question 27.
What does peptide hormone do as it cannot cross the phospholipid cell membrane?
(a) It combines with cAMP
(b) It binds to the receptors on the exterior cell surface
(c) It combines with steroids
(d) It combines with adenylate cyclases
Answer:
(a) It binds to the receptors on the exterior cell surface

Question 28.
In case of steroids hormones, dimer of receptor-hormone complex is formed. What does it do then?
(a) It binds with golgi complex
(b) It binds with tRNA
(c) It binds with mRNA
(d) It binds with DNA
Answer:
(d) It binds with DNA

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The hormones are converted into inactive compounds by the …………………….. and excreted by the ……………………..
Answer:
(liver, kidneys )

Question 2.
Hormones act as …………………….. to perform specific functions in the target organs.
Answer:
( organic catalysts / coenzymes )

Question 3.
The pituitary gland is controlled by the ……………………..
Answer:
(hypothalamus)

Question 4.
Hypothalamus produces …………………….. which regulate the secretions of the pituitary gland.
Answer:
(neurotransmitters)

Question 5.
The pituitary gland is located in the bony cavity of the sphenoid bone called ……………………..
Answer:
( sella turcica)

Question 6.
The pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus by a stalk called ……………………..
Answer:
(infundibulum)

Question 7.
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland originates from the embriyonic invagination of pharyngeal epithelium called ……………………..
Answer:
(Rathke’s pouch)

Question 8.
…………………….. decreases the rate of glucose
Answer:
(Growth Hormone)

Question 9.
ACT4 stimulates melanin synthesis in ……………………..
Answer:
(Melanocytes)

Question 10.
LH is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
(Interstitial cell stimulating Hormone)

Question 11.
FSH and LH are collectively referred as ……………………..
Answer:
(gonadotropins)

Question 12.
High prolactin secretion during lactation supresses LH secretion and ……………………..
Answer:
(ovulation)

Question 13.
…………………….. promotes reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal tubules of nephron.
Answer:
(ADH / vasopressin )

Question 14.
…………………….. stimulates ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Answer:
(oxytocin)

Question 15.
The pineal gland secretes …………………….. which plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm of our body.
Answer:
(melatonin)

Question 16.
The two lateral lobes of thyroid gland are connectd by a median tissue mass called ……………………..
Answer:
(isthmus)

Question 17.
…………………….. gland produces ‘T’ lymphocytes which provides cell mediated immunity.
Answer:
(Thymus)

Question 18.
…………………….. produces anti inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response.
Answer:
(cortisol)

Question 19.
…………………….. increases the breakdown of liver glycogen into glucose
Answer:
(Adrenalin)

Question 20.
Both adrenalin and nor adrenalin are ……………………..
Answer:
(catecholamines)

Question 21.
…………………….. stimulates the reabsorption of sodium and water.
Answer:
(Aldosterone)

Question 22.
The beta cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(Insulin)

Question 23.
The alpha cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(glucagon)

Question 24.
The delta cells of islets of langerhans secrete ……………………..
Answer:
(somatostatin)

Question 25.
Insulin inhibits the breakdown of …………………….. into glucose.
Answer:
(glycogen)

Question 26.
…………………….. is called a hypoglycemic hormone.
Answer:
(Insulin)

Question 27.
…………………….. promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
Answer:
(Glucogon)

Question 28.
The breakdown of glucose is called ……………………..
Answer:
(glycogenolysis)

Question 29.
The synthesis of glucose from non – carbohydrate molecules is called ……………………..
Answer:
(gluconeolysis)

Question 30.
…………………….. reduces the cellular update and utilization of glucose.
Answer:
(Glugocon)

Question 31.
…………………….. is called a hyperglycemic hormone.
Answer:
(Glucogon)

Question 32.
The …………………….. cells of testes secrete male sex hormone.
Answer:
(Leydig)

Question 33.
…………………….. is reposible for development of secondary sexual charactes of female.
Answer:
(Oestrogen)

Question 34.
…………………….. prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum.
Answer:
(Progesterone)

Question 35.
…………………….. on the atrial wall secretes atrial natriuretic factor to reduce the blood pressure .
Answer:
(cardiocytes)

Question 36.
…………………….. increases blood pressure when angiotension is formed in blood.
Answer:
(Renin)

Question 37.
stimulates the erythyropoiesis in bone marrow.
Answer:
(Erythropoietin)

Question 38.
…………………….. is the hormone secreted by proximal tubules of nephron which promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption from intestine.
Answer:
(Calcitriol)

Question 39.
…………………….. stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen.
Answer:
(Gastrin)

Question 40.
…………………….. stimulates the release of bile into duodenum and secretion of panereatic enzymes.
Answer:
(Cholecystokinin)

Question 41.
…………………….. acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralise the acidity.
Answer:
(secretin)

Question 42.
…………………….. is caused due to hyposecretion of growth hormone in children.
Answer:
(dwarfism)

Question 43.
…………………….. is caused due to hypersecretion of growth hormone in childre.
Answer:
(Gigantism)

Question 44.
…………………….. is caused due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults.
Answer:
(Acromegaly)

Question 45.
The hypothyroidism in children causes ……………………..
Answer:
(cretinism)

Question 46.
The hyposecretion of thyriod in adults causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Myxodema)

Question 47.
Myxodema is otherwise called ……………………..
Answer:
(Gull’s disease)

Question 48.
The hypersecretion of thyriod gland causes as ……………………..
Answer:
(exopthalmic goitre)

Question 49.
The hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Tetany)

Question 50.
The exophthalmic goiter is called as ……………………..
Answer:
(Grave’s disease/thyrotoxicosis)

Question 51.
Due to hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone serum …………………….. level decreases.
Answer:
(calcium)

Question 52.
Demineralization is caused due to ……………………..
Answer:
(hyperparathyroidism)

Question 53.
…………………….. is caused due to hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids from the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
(Addison’s disease)

Question 54.
The hypersecretion of cortisol causes ……………………..
Answer:
(Cushing’s syndrome)

Question 55.
Type II diabetes is caused due to ……………………..
Answer:
(insulin resistance)

Question 56.
Type I diabetes is ……………………..
Answer:
insulin-dependent

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Exocrine glands and Endocrine glands?
Answer:

Exocrine	Endocrine glands
1. Exocrine glands have ducts to carry their secretions.	1. Endocrine glands do not have ducts to carry their secretions. They are directly released into the blood. Hence these are called ductless glands.
2. These are concerned with digestion and other functions.	2. These are concerned with growth, puberty, metabolism, and maintenance of homeostasis.
3. eg. liver, tear gland, mammary gland.	3. eg. pituitary gland, thyroid gland.

Question 2.
If you are encountered suddenly by a person. What may be your other reactions?
Answer:
As there is a more supply of blood to the skeletal muscles during an emergency due to the secretion of adrenalin I will flee from the spot.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the hypothalamus?
Answer:
Hypothalamus maintains homeostasis, blood pressure, body temperature, the cardio and fluid-electrolyte balance of the body. It influences various emotional responses.

Question 4.
What is the function of hormones?
Answer:
Hormones may speed up or slow down or alter the activity of the target cells.

Question 5.
What are the lobes of adenohypophysis?
Answer:
Pars distalis, Pars intermedia and Pars tuberalis.

Question 6.
What are exocrine glands?
Answer:
Exocrine glands have a duct that carries their substances to the membrane surfaces.
Ex. Salivary gland, Gastric gland.

Question 7.
Name the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland?
Answer:
The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes six tropic hormones such as growth hormone (GH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulation hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), luteotropic hormone (LTH), and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) (in lower animals only). The posterior lobe of the pituitary secretes the hormones namely vasopressin and oxytocin.

Question 8.
What is the chemical nature of the hormone of amine?
Answer:
They are small water-soluble derived from tyrosine or tryptophan.
Ex. Adrenalin, noradrenalin, melatonin, and thyroid hormone.

Question 9.
Write on the role of Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Adreno cortico tropic hormone? Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) or thyrotropin?
Answer:
TSH is a glycoprotein hormone, which stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete Triiodothyronine (T₃) and thyroxine (T₄). TSH secretion is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism. Its release from the anterior pituitary is induced by the thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). When thyroxine level in the blood increases, TRH acts on both the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TSH secretion.

Adreno cortico tropic hormone (ACTH):
ACTH is a peptide hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. It stimulates melanin synthesis in melanocytes, induces the release of fatty acids from adipose tissues, and stimulates insulin secretion. ACTH secretion is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism.

Question 10.
Point out the nature of hormones of Adenohypophysis
Answer:

• Growth Hormone or somatotrophic hormone (GH) Peptide hormone
• Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) or ThyrotropinGlycoprotein hormone
• Adreno corticotropic Hormone (ACTH) – Peptide hormone
• Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) – Glycoprotein hormone
• Luteinizing hormone (LH) – Glycoprotein hormone
• Luteotropic hormone (LTH) or luteotropin or lactogenic hormone or Prolactin or mammotropin – Protein hormone

Question 11.
What is the role of the Luteinizing hormone (LH)?
Answer:
Luteinizing Hormone is a glycoprotein hormone which is also known as interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH). In males, ICSH acts on the interstitial cells of the testis to produce the male sex hormone, testosterone. In females, LH along with FSH matures the ovarian follicles.

LH independently induces ovulation, maintains the corpus luteum, and promotes synthesis and release of ovarian hormones. FSH and LH are collectively referred to as gonadotropins. FSH and LH are not produced during childhood. The secretion of FSH and LH starts only during the prepubertal period.

Question 12.
What is the significance of Luteotropic hormone (LTH)?
Answer:
Luteo Tropic Hormone is also called luteotropin or lactogenic hormone or prolactin or mammotropin. It is a protein hormone which stimulates milk secretion after the child birth in females. High prolactin secretion during lactation suppresses LH secretion and ovulation since it induces the corpus luteum hence named as luteo tropic hormone.

Question 13.
What are the hormones of neurohypophysis?
Answer:
(i) Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
ADH is a peptide hormone which promotes reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal tubules of nephron and thereby reduces loss of water through urine. Hence it is called as anti diuretic hormone. It also causes constriction of blood vessels when released in large amount and increases blood pressure. ADH deficiency causes Diabetes insipidus which induces the production of large amount of urine.

(ii) Oxytocin (means quick birth):
It is a peptide hormone which stimulates vigorous contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus during childbirth and ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

Question 14.
What are the functions of follicle stimulation hormone?
Answer:
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH):
FSH is a glycoprotein hormone which regulates the functions of the gonads (ovary and testis). In males, FSH along with androgens acts on the germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules and stimulates the production and release of sperms (spermatogenesis). In females, FSH acts on the ovaries and brings about the development and maturation of gratfran follicles.

Question 15.
Write on the role of the parathyroid gland?
Answer:
In human, four tiny parathyroid glands are found in the posterior wall of the thyroid glands. This gland is composed of two types of cells, the chief cells and oxyphil cells. The chief cells secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the functions of oxyphil cells are not known. Parathyroid hormone or parathormone (PTH).

PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone. It is a peptide hormone involved in controlling the calcium and phosphate homeostasis. The secretion of PTH is controlled by calcium level in the blood. It increases the blood calcium level by stimulating osteoclasts to dissolve the bone matrix.

As a result calcium and phosphate are released into the blood. PTH enhances the reabsorption of calcium and excretion of phosphates by the renal tubules and promotes activation by vitamin D to increase calcium absorption by intestinal muscosal cells.

Question 16.
Write a paragraph on the Thymus gland?
Answer:
Thymus gland is partially an endocrine and partially a lymphoid organ. It is a bilobed structure located just above the heart and aorta, behind the sternum. It is covered by fibrous capsule and anatomically it is divisble into an outer cortex and an inner medulla.

It secretes four hormones such as thymulin, thymosin, thymopoietin and thymic humoral factor (THF). The primary function of thymus is the production of immunocompetent ‘T’ lymphocytes which provides cell-mediated immunity.

Question 17.
Explain the hormones secreted by Adrenal gland?
Answer:
A pair of adrenal glands are located at the anterior end of the kidneys, hence also called suprarenal glands. Anatomically the outer region is the cortex and the inner region is the medulla.

Histologically the adrenal cortex has three distinct zones, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis. Zona glomerulosa an outer thin layer constitutes about 15% of adrenal cortex, and secretes mineralocorticoids.

Zona fasciculata, the middle widest layer constitutes about 75% of adrenal cortex and secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen. Zona reticularis, an inner zone of adrenal cortex constitute about 10% of adrenal cortex and secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Adrenal medulla:
It is the central part of adrenal gland and is composed of ovoid and columnar cells, which are found around the network of blood capillaries. Adrenalin (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) are the two hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla. Both adrenalin and noradrenalin are catecholamines.

Function of adrenal hormones:
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis (the life-saving activity). Cortisol is a glucocorticoid invloved in maintaining cardiovascular and kidney functions.

It produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response. It stimulates RBC production. It is also known as stress combat hormone. Mineralocorticoids regulate water and electrolyte balance of our body.

Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium and water and eliminates potassium and phosphate ions through excretion,, thus it helps in maintaining electrolytes, osmotic pressure and blood pressure. Adrenal androgen plays a role in hair growth in the axial region, pubis and face during puberty.

The adrenal medulla secretes the hormones adrenalin and noradrenalin and is referred to as “3F hormone” (fight, flight and fright hormone). Adrenalin increases liver glycogen breakdown into glucose and increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells.

During emergency it increases heart beat rate and blood pressure. It stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow. It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles therby increases the metabolic rate of skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles and nervous tissue.

Question 18.
What are the causes of myxoedema? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Hypo secretion of thyroid in adults causes myxedema or Gull’s disease.
The symptoms are

• Decreased mental activity
• Memory loss
• The slowness of movement speech
• General weakness of body
• Dry coarse skin
• Scarce hair
• Puffy appearance
• Disturbed sexual function
• Low BMR
• Poor appetite
• Subnormal body temperature

Question 19.
Explain the endorenal function of gonads?
Answer:
Testis:
A pair of testis is present in the scrotal sac of males. The testis functions as a sex organ and also as an endocrine gland. The testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells or Leyding cells. The Leyding cells secrete several male sex hormones, collectively called androgens, mainly testosterone.

Functions of testosterone:
Under the influence of FSH and LH testosterone initiates maturation of male reproductive organs, and the appearance of secondary sexual characters, muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, masculine voice and male sexual behaviour. It enhances the total bone matrix and plays a stimulating role in the process of spermatogenesis.

Ovary:
Females have a pair of ovaries located in the pelvic region of the abdomen. The ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues. Besides producing the eggs or ova, the ovaries secrete the steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone. Oestrogen is responsible for the maturation of reproductive organs and the development of secondary sexual characters at puberty. Along with progesterone, oestrogens promote breast development and initiate cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.

Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum. It decreases uterine contraction during pregnancy and stimulates mammary glands and milk secretion. It is responsible for premenstrual changes in the uterus and is essential for the formation of the placenta.

Question 20.
Write the disorders associated with growth hormone?
Answer:
Dwarfism is due to hyposecretion of growth hormone (GH) in children, skeletal growth and sexual maturity are arrested. They attain a maximum height of 4 feet only. Gigantism is due to hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in children. Overgrowth of the skeletal structure occurs (up to 8 feet) and the visceral growth is not appropriate with that of limbs.

Acromegaly is due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. Overgrowth of hand bones, feet bones, jawbones, malfunctioning of gonads, enlargement of viscera, tongue, lungs, heart, liver, spleen, and endocrine gland-like thyroid, adrenal, etc., are the symptoms of acromegaly.

Question 21.
Why adrenalin is a hormone of flight fright and fight?
Answer:

• Adrenalin during the time of emergency increases liver glycogen.
• It increases the release of fatty acids from fat cells.
• It increases heartbeat rate and blood pressure.
• It stimulates the smooth muscles of cutaneous and visceral arteries to decrease blood flow.
• It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and increases the metabolic rate of skeletal muscles cardiac muscles and nervous tissue. Hence it is known as a hormone of fight-flight and fright hormones.

Question 22.
List the functions of testosterone.
Answer:

• Testosterone initiates the maturation of male reproductive organs.
• It is responsible for the secondary sexual characters like muscular growth facial and axillary hair masculine voice and male sexual behavior.
• It enhances the total bone matrix.
• It plays a stimulating role in spermatogenesis.

Question 23.
Write a paragraph on Addison’s disease?
Answer:
Addison’s disease is caused due to hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids from the adrenal cortex. Muscular weakness, low BP, loss of appetite, vomiting, hyperpigmentation of the skin, low metabolic rate, subnormal temperature, reduced blood volume – weight loss are the symptoms that occur in Addison’s disease. Reduces aldosterone secretion increases urinary excretion of Na Cl. and decreases potassium excretion leading to dehydration.

Question 24.
Write a paragraph on Cushing’s syndrome?
Answer:
Cushing’s syndrome is caused due to excess secretion of cortisol. Obesity of the face and trunk, redness of the face, hand, feet, thin skin, excessive hair growth, loss of minerals from bone (osteoporoses) systolic hypertension are features of Cushing’s syndrome. Suppression of sexual function like atrophy of gonads is the other symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome.

Question 25.
Write on Hypoglycaemia?
Answer:
Hypoglycemia is due to increased secretion of insulin thereby blood glucose level decreases. In this disorder blood, glucose level lowers than the normal fasting index. Increased heartbeat, weakness, nervousness, headache, confusion, lack of coordination, slurred speech, serious brain defects like epilepsy and coma occur.

Question 26.
Endocrine glands control and co-ordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones. Due to certain physiological reasons; the blood glucose level of an otherwise normal person
a) Give the possible cause for the increase in blood glucose level.
b) What is the chemical nature of this hormone? Discuss its role in the body.
c) How can this condition be reversed.
Answer:

• Insulin hormone plays an important role in glucose homeostasis.
• If insulin secretion is reduced a condition called hyperglycemia occurs in our body ie. Diabetes mellitus.
• As a result glucose level is elevated.
• The reason for this is in the absence of insulin the uptake of glucose especially into muscle and fat cells is prohibited.
• At the same time breakdown of glycogen to glucose, the conversion of amino acids or fats to glucose is enhanced. Thus glucose level increases.
• Moreover in Type II diabetes also known as Non-insulin-dependent diabetes caused due to reduced sensitivity to insulin also called insulin resistance is due to obesity and inadequate exercise the tissues are not able to utilize glucose. And so the blood glucose level increases.

Question 27.
Explain the mechanism of hormone action?
Answer:
Peptide hormones cannot cross the phospolipid cell membrane and bind to the receptors on the exterior cell surface. They are transported to the golgi, which is the site of modification. It acts as a first messenger in the cell. Hormones on binding to their receptors do not enter target cell but generate the production of second messengers such as cyclic AMP (cAMP), which in turn regulates cellular metabolism.

This is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase. The interaction between the hormone at the surface and the effect brought out by cAMP within the cell is known as signaling cascade. At each step there is a possibility of amplification.

1. One hormone molecule may bind to multiple receptor molecule before it is degraded.
2. Each receptor may activate several adenylate cyclases each of which make many camps.
3. Thus there is more signal after each step.

The actions of CAMP are terminated by phosphodiesterases. The effect of peptide hormones like insulin, glucagon, somatotropin are uauslly short-lived because they work through second messenger system.

Steroid hormones can easily cross the cell membrane and bind to their receptors, which are intracellular or intranuclear. Upon binding to the receptors, they pair up with another receptor – hormone complex (dimerize). This dimer can then bind to DNA and alter its transcription.

The effect of steroid hormones such as aldosterone, FSH is long-lived, as they alter the amount of mRNA and protein in a cell.

Amino acid-derived hormones are derived from one or two amino acid with a few additional modifications. Thyroid hormone is synthesised from tyrosine and includes the addition of several iodine atoms. Epinephrine an amino acid derivative may function through second messenger system like peptide hormone or they may actually enter the cell and function like steroid hormones.

Question 28.
Tabulate the major hypothalamic hormones and their functions?
Answer:

S.No	Hormones	Functions
1.	Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)	Stimulate the secretion of TSH
2.	Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)	Stimulates the secretion of FSH
3.	Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)	Stimulates the secretion of ACTH
4.	Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)	Stimulates the secretion of GH
5.	Prolactin releasing hormone (PRH)	Stimulates the secretion of Prolactin
6.	Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)	Stimulates the secretion of LH
7.	MSH releasing hormone	Stimulates the secretion of MSH
8.	Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)	Inhibits the secretion of GH
9.	Prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)	Inhibits the secretion of Prolactin
10.	MSH inhibiting hormone	Inhibits the secretion of MSH

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The members that are accessible from within the class and are also available to its subclasses is called……….
(a) public
(b) protected
(c) secured
(d) private
Answer:
(b) protected

Question 2.
Built in scopes are called as scope.
(a) private
(b) public
(c) protected
(d) module
Answer:
(d) module

Question 3.
The complexity of Bubble sort is…………
(a) θ (n2)
(b) θ (n(logn)2)
(c) θ (n)
(d) θ (2n)
Answer:
(a) θ (n2)

Question 4.
How many integer data types are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 5.
Branching statements are otherwise called as………..
(a) alternative
(b) Iterative
(c) loop
(d) sequential
Answer:
(a) alternative

Question 6.
……….. functions are anonymous un-named functions.
(a) User defined
(b) Built-in
(c) Lambda
(d) Recursive
Answer:
(c) Lambda

Question 7.
The code block always comes after……..
(a) ;
(b) +
(c) =
(d) :
Answer:
(d) :

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the membership operator?
(a) is
(b) at
(c) to
(d) in
Answer:
(d) in

Question 9.
Which operator is used to join two tuples?
(a) –
(b) _
(c) +
(d) +:
Answer:
(c) +

Question 10.
A table is otherwise called as…………
(a) tuple
(b) relation
(c) attribute
(d) degree
Answer:
(b) relation

Question 11.
Who developed ER model?
(a) Chen
(b) E F Codd
(c) Chend
(d) Chand
Answer:
(a) Chen

Question 12.
The latest SQL was released in………
(a) 1987
(b) 1992
(c) 2008
(d) 2012
Answer:
(c) 2008

Question 13.
How many ways are there to read the CSV files?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 14.
CSV files cannot be opened with………
(A) notepad
(b) MS Excel
(c) Open office
(d) html
Answer:
(d) html

Question 15.
getopt mode is given by………..
(a) ;
(b) =
(c) #
(d) :
Answer:
(d) :

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
List the characteristics of an algorithm.
Answer:
Input, Output, Finiteness, Definiteness, Effectiveness, Correctness, Simplicity, Unambiguous, Feasibility, Portable and Independent.

Question 17.
What are the escape sequences for Backslash, Newline, Tab, Single quotes.
Answer:

1. Backslash – \\
2. New line – \n
3. Tab – \t
4. Single quotes – \’

Question 18.
Define composition.
Answer:
The value returned by a function may be used as an argument for another function in a nested manner. This is called composition.

Question 19.
Name the different types of functions.
Answer:

1. User-defined Functions
2. Built-in Functions
3. Lambda Functions
4. Recursion Functions

Question 20.
Write note on center function, center (width, fillchar)
Answer:
Returns a string with the original string centered to a total of width columns and filled with fillchar in columns that do not have characters.

Question 21.
Write a program to create a list of numbers in the range 1 to 20. Then delete all the numbers from the list that are divisible by 3.
num = []
for x in range(1 21):
num.append(x)
print(“The list of numbers from 1 to 20 =”, num)
for index, i in enumerate(num):
if (i % 3 = 0)
del num[index]
print (“The list after deleting numbers”, num)
Output:
The list of numbers from 1 to 20 = [1, 2, 3, 4… 20]
The list after deleting numbers [l, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13, 14, 16, 17, 19, 20]

Question 22.
Write note on dictionary comprehensions.
Answer:
In Python, comprehension is another way of creating dictionary. The following is the syntax of creating such dictionary.
Syntax
Diet = {expression for variable in sequence [if condition]}

Question 23.
What is data consistency?
Answer:
On live data, it is being continuously updated and added, maintaining the consistency of data can become a challenge. But DBMS handles it by itself. Data Consistency means that data values are the same at all instances of a database.

Question 24.
Define database.
Answer:
Database is a repository collection of related data organized in a way that data can be easily accessed, managed and updated. Database can be a software or hardware based, with one sole purpose of storing data.

PART – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Define constructors and selectors functions.
Answer:

1. Constructors are functions that build the abstract data type.
2. Selectors are functions that retrieve information from the data type.

Question 26.
What are the steps to do Dynamic programming?
Answer:

1. The given problem will be divided into smaller overlapping sub-problems.
2. An optimum solution for the given problem can be achieved by using result of smaller sub-problem.
3. Dynamic algorithms uses Memoization.

Question 27.
Write note on delimiters.
Answer:
Python uses the symbols and symbol combinations as delimiters in expressions, lists, dictionaries and strings. Following are the delimiters.

Question 28.
Write note on Nested loop structure.
Answer:
A loop placed within another loop is called as nested loop structure. One can place a while within another while; for within another for; for within while and while within for to construct such nested loops.
Following is an example to illustrate the use of for loop to print the following pattern
1
12
123
1234
12345

Question 29.
Write a program to display the sum of natural numbers upto n.
Answer:
n = input (“Enter any number”)
sum = 0
for i in range (i, n+1):
sum = sum + i
print “sum = “, sum
Output:
Enter any number 5
sum = 15

Question 30
Differentiate list and dictionary.
Answer:

	list	dictionary
1.	List is an ordered set of elements.	A dictionary is a data structure that is used for matching one element (Key) with another (Value).
2.	The index values can be used to access a particular element.	In dictionary key represents index. Remember that, key may be a number of a string.
3.	Lists are used to look up a value.	A dictionary is used to take one value and look up another value.

Question 31.
Explain the commands which comes under TCL.
Answer:
SQL command which come under Transfer Control Language are:

1. Commit Saves any transaction into the database permanently.
2. Roll back Restores the database to last commit state.
3. Save point Temporarily save a transaction so that you can rollback.

Question 32.
Differentiate Python from C++.
Answer:

Question 33.
Give the Pseudo code for Bubble sort algorithm.
Answer:
Pseudo code

1. Start with the first element i.e., index = 0, compare the current element with the next element of the array.
2. If the current element is greater than the next element of the array, swap them.
3. If the current element is less than the next or right side of the element, move to the next element. Go to Step 1 and repeat until end of the index is reached.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
Explain the rules to be followed to format data in a CSV file.
Answer:
Rules to be followed to format data in a CSV file
1. Each record (row of data) is to be located on a separate line, delimited by a line break by pressing enter key.
For example: ↵
xxx, yyy ↵
↵ denotes enter Key to be pressed

2. The last record in the file may or may not have an ending line break.
For example:
ppp, qqq ↵
yyy, xxx

3. There may be an optional header line appearing as the first line of the file with the same format as normal record lines. The header will contain names corresponding to the fields in the file and should contain the same number of fields as the records in the rest of the file.
For example: field_namel, field_name2, field_name3 ↵
aaa,bbb,ccc ↵
zzz, yyy, xxx CRLF (Carriage Return and Line Feed)

4. Within the header and each record, there may be one or more fields, separated by commas. Spaces are considered part of a field and should not be ignored. The last field in the record must not be followed by a comma. For example: Red , Blue

5. Each field may or may not be enclosed in double quotes. If fields are not enclosed with double quotes, then double quotes may not appear inside the fields.
For example:

6. Fields containing line breaks (CRLF), double quotes, and commas should be enclosed in double-quotes.
For example:
Red, ”, “, Blue CRLF # comma itself is a field value. So it is enclosed with double quotes Red, Blue , Green.

7. If double-quotes are used to enclose fields, then a double-quote appearing inside a field ‘ must be preceded with another double quote.
For example:
“Red, ” “Blue”, “Green”, # since double quotes is a field value it is enclosed with another double quotes,, White

[OR]

(b) Write a program to add a prefix text to all the lines in a string.
Answer:
import textwrap
text =
‘”Strings are immutable. Slice is a
substring of a main string. Stride is a third argument in slicing operation'”
text_without_lndentation = textwrap.dedent(text)
wrapped = textwrap.fill(text_without_Indentation, width = 50)
print(textwrap.indent(wrapped, ‘*’)
print()
Output:

1. Strings are immutable. Slice is a
2. substring of a main string. Stride
3. is a third argument in slicing operation.

Question 35 (a).
Explain the purpose of range with an example.
Answer:
The range( ) is a function used to generate a series of values in Python. Using range( ) function, you can create list with series of values. The range() function has three arguments.

Syntax of range () function:
range (start value, end value, step value)
where,
start value – beginning value of series. Zero is the default beginning value.
end value – upper limit of series. Python takes the ending value as upper limit – 1.
step value – It is an optional argument, which is used to generate different interval of values.
Example:
Generating whole numbers upto 10
for x in range (1, 11):
print(x)
Output
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

[OR]

(b) Explain the various processing skills of SQL.
Answer:
The various processing skills of SQL are :

1. Data Definition Language (DDL) : The SQL DDL provides commands for defining relation schemes (structure), deleting relations, creating indexes and modifying relation schemes.
2. data Manipulation Language (DML) : The SQL DML includes commands to insert, delete, and modify tuples in the database.
3. Embedded Data Manipulation Language : The embedded form of SQL is used in high level programming languages.
4. View Definition : The SQL also includes commands for defining views of tables.
5. Authorization : The SQL includes commands for access rights to relations and views of tables.
6. Integrity : The SQL provides forms for integrity checking using condition.
7. Transaction control : The SQL includes commands for file transactions and control over transaction processing.

Question 36 (a).
Explain various set operations.
Answer:
As we leamt in mathematics, the python is also supports the set operations such as Union, Intersection, difference and Symmetric difference.

(i) Union: It includes all elements from two or more sets
In python, the operator | is used to union of two sets. The function union() is also used to join two sets in python.
Example:
Program to Join (Union) two sets using union operator

set_A = {2, 4, 6, 8}
set_B = {‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C, ‘D’}
U_set = set_A| set_B
print(U_set)
Output:
{2, 4, 6, 8, ‘A’, ‘D’, ‘C, ’B’}

(ii) Intersection: It includes the common elements in two sets.
The operator & is used to intersect two sets in python. The function intersection ) is also used to intersect two sets in python.
Example:

Program to insect two sets using intersection operator
set_A = {‘A’, 2, 4, ‘D’}
set_B = {‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’}
print(set_A & set_B)
Output:
{‘A’, ‘D’}

(iii) Difference: It includes all elements that are in first set (say set A) but not in the second set (say set B)
The minus (-) operator is used to difference set operation in python.
The function difference() is also used to difference operation.
Example:

Program to difference of two sets using minus operator
set_A = {’A’, 2, 4, ’D’}
set_B = {‘A’, ’B’, ‘C’, ’D’}
print(set_A – set_B)
Output:
{2, 4}

(iv) Symmetric difference: It includes all the elements that are in two sets (say sets A and B) but not the one that are common to two sets.
The caret (^) operator is used to symmetric difference set operation in python. The function symmetric_difference() is also used to do the same operation.
Example:

Program to symmetric difference of two sets using caret operator
set_A = {‘A’, 2, 4, ‘D’}
set_B = {‘A’, ‘B’, ’C’, ‘D’}
print(set_A ^ set_B)
Output:
{2, 4, ’B’, ‘C’}

[OR|

(b) Write a program that accept a string from the user and display the same after removing vowels from it.
Answer:
def rem_vowels(s):
temp_str = ”
for i in s:
if i in “aAeEiIoOuU”:
pass
else:
temp_str+ = i
print (“The string without vowels: “, temp str)
strl= input (“Enter a String: “)
rem_vowels (strl)
Output:
Enter a String: Mathematical foundations of Computer Science The string without vowels: Mthmtcl fndtns f Cmptr Scnc

Question 37 (a).
Write a program to display all records using fetchall().
Answer:
The fetchall() method is used to fetch all rows from the database table
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy, db”)
cursor = connection.cursor()
cursor.execute(“SELECT * FROM student”)
print(“fetchall:”)
result = cursor.fetchall()
for r in result:
print(r)
Output:
fetchall:
(1, ‘Akshay’, ‘B’, ‘M’, 87.8, ’2001-12-12′)
(2, ‘Aravind’, ’A’, ‘M’, 92.5, ‘2000-08-17’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’,’C’, ‘M’, 75.2, ‘1998-05-17’)
(4, ‘SAJINT, ‘A’, ‘F’, 95.6, ‘2002-11-01’)
(5, ‘VARUN’,’B’, ‘M’, 80.6,’2001-03-14′)
(6, ‘PRIYA’, ‘A’, ‘F’, 98.6, ‘2002-01-01’)
(7, ‘TARUN’, ‘D’, ‘M’, 62.3, ‘1999-02-01’)

[OR]

(b) Write a C++ program using user defined function to find cube of a number.
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
// Function declaration
int cube(int num);
int main()
{
int num;
int c;
cout <<“Enter any number: “<<endl;
cin>>num;
c = cube(num);
cout<<“Cube of” <<num<<” is “<<c;
return 0;
}
//Function to find cube of any number
int cube(int num)
{
return (num * num * num);
}
// Save this file as cubefile.cpp
#Now select File→New in Notepad and type the Python program
# Save the File as fun.py
# Program that compiles and executes a .cpp file
# Python fun.py -i c:\pyprg\cube_file.cpp
import sys, os, getopt
def main (argv):
cppfile = ”
exefile = ”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=’])
for o, a in opts:
if o in (“-i”, “–ifile”):
cpp_file = a + ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a + ‘.exe’
run (cpp_file, exe_file)
def run (cpp_file, exe_file):
print(“Compiling” + cpp file)
os.system (‘g++ ‘ + cpp_file +’ -o ‘ + exe_file)
print (“Running ” + exe_file)
print(“———-“)
print
os.system(exe_file)
print
if_name_ == ‘_main_’:
main(sys.argv[l:])
Output of the above program
Compiling c:\pyprg\cube_file.cpp
Running c:\pyprg\cube_file.exe
————–
Enter any number:
5
Cube of 5 is 125

Question 38 (a).
Explain reverse Indexing in list using python program.
Answer:
Python enables reverse or negative indexing for the list elements. Thus, python lists index in opposite order. The python sets -1 as the index value for the last element in list and -2 for the preceding element and so on. This is called as Reverse Indexing.
Example:
Marks = [10, 23, 41, 75]
i = -1
while i > = -4:
print (Marks[i])
i = i + -l
Output
75
41
23
10

[OR]

(b) Explain sort function in list with examples.
Answer:
Sorts the element in list
Both arguments are optional
1. If reverse is set as True, list sorting is in descending order.
2. Ascending is default.
3. Key=myFunc; “myFunc” – the name of the user defined function that specifies the sorting criteria.
MyList = [‘Thilothamma’, ‘Tharani’, ‘Anitha’, ‘SaiSree’, ‘Lavanya’]
MyList.sort( )
print (MyList)
MyList.sort(reverse = True)
print (MyList)
Output:.
[‘Anitha’, ‘Lavanya’, ‘SaiSree’, ‘Tharani’, ‘Thilothamma’]
[‘Thilothamma’, ‘Tharani’, ‘SaiSree’, ‘Lavanya’, ‘Anitha’]

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Maths Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Maths Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The range of the function \(\frac{1}{1-2sin x}\) is………….
(a) (-∞, -1) ∪(\(\frac{1}{3}\), ∞)
(b) (-1, \(\frac{1}{3}\))
(c) [-1, \(\frac{1}{3}\)]
(d) (-∞, -1] ∪(\(\frac{1}{3}\), ∞)
Answer:
(d) (-∞, -1] ∪(\(\frac{1}{3}\), ∞)

Question 2.
If the function f : [-3, 3] → S defined by f(x) = x² is onto, then S is…………
(a) [-9, 9]
(b) R
(c) [-3, 3]
(d) [0, 9]
Answer:
(d) [0, 9]

Question 3.
The number of solutions of x² + |x – 1| = 1 is ………..
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 4.
cos 1° + cos 2° + cos 3° + …. + cos 179° =……………..
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 89
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 5.
If tan α and tan β are the roots of x² + ax + b = 0, then \(\frac{sin(α+β)}{sin α sin β}\) is equal to…………
(a) \(\frac{b}{a}\)
(b) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
(c) –\(\frac{a}{b}\)
(d) –\(\frac{b}{a}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{a}{b}\)

Question 6.
The number of sides of a polygon having 44 diagonals is…………
(a) 4
(b) 4
(c) 11
(d) 22
Answer:
(d) 22

Question 7.
The H.M. of two positive numbers whose A.M. and G.M. are 16, 8 respectively is………….
(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 8.
The nth term of the sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{3}{4}\), \(\frac{7}{8}\), \(\frac{15}{16}\) is……………
(a) 2ⁿ – n – 1
(b) 1 – 2^-n
(c) 2^-n+ n – 1
(d) 2^n-1
Answer:
(b) 1 – 2^-n

Question 9.
The intercepts of the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining (1,2) and (3,4) with coordinate axes are
(a) 5, -5
(b) 5, 5
(c) 5, 3
(d) 5, -4
Answer:
(b) 5, 5

Question 10.
The image of the point (2, 3) in the line y = -x is
(a) (-3, -2)
(b) (-3, 2)
(c) (-2, -3)
(d) (3, 2)
Answer:
(a) (-3, -2)

Question 11.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc} \lambda & 1 \\ -1 & -\lambda \end{array}\right]\), then for what value of λ, A² = 0?………
(a) 0
(b) ± 1
(c) -1
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) ± 1

Question 12.
If \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) are having same magnitute and angle between them is 60° and their scalar product is \(\frac{1}{2}\), then |\(\vec {a}\)| is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 13.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a^{x}-b^{x}}{x}\) = …………..
(a) log ab
(b) log (\(\frac{a}{b}\))
(c) log (\(\frac{b}{a}\))
(d) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
Answer:
(b) log (\(\frac{a}{b}\))

Question 14.
If f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{ccc}x, & x \text { is irrational } \\ 1-x, & x \text { is rational }\end{array}\right.\) then f is………..
(a) discontinuous at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) continuous at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) continuous everywhere
(d) discontinuous everywhere
Answer:
(b) continuous at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 15.
The derivative of f(x) = x |x| at x = -3 is…………..
(a) 6
(b) -6
(c) does not exist
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 16.
If f(x) = x² – 3x, then the points at which f(x) = f'(x) are…………..
(a) both positive integers
(b) both negative integers
(c) both irrational
(d) one rational and another irrational
Answer:
(c) both irrational

Question 17.
\(\int \tan ^{-1}(\sqrt{\frac{1-\cos 2 x}{1+\cos 2 x}})\) dx ………….
(a) x² + c
(b) 2x² + c
(c) \(\frac{x²}{2}\) + c
(d) –\(\frac{x²}{2}\) + c
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{x^2}{2}\) + c

Question 18.
e^-7x sin 5x dx is…………
(a) \(\frac{e^{-7x}}{74}\) [-7 sin 5x – 5 cos 5x] + c
(b) \(\frac{e^{-7x}}{74}\) [7 sin 5x + 5 cos 5x] + c
(c) \(\frac{e^{-7x}}{74}\) [7 sin 5x – 5 cos 5x] + c
(d) \(\frac{e^{-7x}}{74}\) [-7 sin 5x + 5 cos 5x] + c
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{e^{-7x}}{74}\) [-7 sin 5x – 5 cos 5x] + c

Question 19.
If A and B are any two events then the probability that exactly one of them occur is
(a) P(A ∪\(\bar { B }\)) + P(\(\bar { A }\) ∪B)
(b) P(A ∩\(\bar { B }\)) + P(\(\bar { A }\) ∩B)
(c) P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
(d) P(A) + P(B) + 2P(A ∩ B)
Answer:
(a) P(A ∪\(\bar { B }\)) + P(\(\bar { A }\) ∪B)

Question 20.
In a certain college 4% of the boys and 1 % of the girls are taller than 1.8 meter. Further 60% of the students are girls. If a student is selected at random and is taller than 1.8 meters, then the probability that the student is a girl is ………….
(a) \(\frac{2}{11}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{11}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{11}\)
(d) \(\frac{7}{11}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3}{11}\)

PART- II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No: 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Resolve \(\frac{3x+1}{(x-2)(x+1)}\) into partial fractions.
Answer:

Equating numerator parts
3x + 1 = A (x + 1) + B (x – 2)
This equation is true for any value of x.
To find A and B
Put x = -1
-3 + 1 = A (0) + B (-1 -2)
-3 B = -2 ⇒ B = 2/3
Put x = 2
3(2) + 1 = A(2 + 1) + B (0)
3A = 7 ⇒ A = 7/3
Hence \(\frac{3x+1}{(x-2)(x+1)}\) = \(\frac{7}{3(x-2)}\) + \(\frac{2}{3(x+1)}\)

Question 22.
Prove that

Answer:
cot (180° + θ) = cot θ
sin (90° – θ) = cos θ
cos (- θ) = cos θ
sin (270 + θ) = – cos θ
tan (-θ) = – tan θ
cosec (360° + θ) = cosec θ

Question 23.
If cos θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (a + \(\frac{1}{a}\)), show that cos 3θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (a³ + \(\frac{1}{a³}\))
Answer:

Question 24.
If the letters of the word IITJEE are permuted in all possible ways and the strings thus formed are arranged in the lexicographic order, find the rank of the word IITJEE.
Answer:
The lexicographic order of the letters of given word is E, E, I, I, J, T. In the lexicographic order, the strings which begin with E come first. If we fill the first place with E, remaining 5 letters (E, I, I, J, T) can be arranged in \(\frac{5!}{2!}\) ways. On proceeding like this we get,
E – – – – = \(\frac{5!}{2!}\) = 60 ways
IIE – – – = 3! = 6 ways
IIJ – – – = \(\frac{3!}{1!}\) = 3 ways
IITE – – =2! = 2 ways
IITJEE = 1 way
The rank of the word IITJEE = 60 + 6 + 3 + 2 +1 = 72.

Question 25.
Prove that \(\frac{(2n)!}{n!}\) = 2ⁿ (1, 3, 5 ……..(2n – 1)).
Answer:

Question 26.
Write the equation of the line passing through the point (1, -1) and parallel to the line x + 3y – 4 = 0
Answer:
Equation of a line parallel to x + 3y – 4 = 0 will be of the form x + 3y + k = 0
It passes through (1,-1)
⇒ (1) + 3(-1) + k = 0
-2 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 2
So the required equation is x + 3y + 2 = 0

Question 27.
If (k, 2), (2, 4) and (3, 2) are vertices of the triangle of area 4 square units then determine the value of k.
Answer:
Area of Δ with vertices (k, 2) (2, 4) and (3, 2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) \(\left|\begin{array}{lll} k & 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 4 & 1 \\ 3 & 2 & 1 \end{array}\right|\) = 4 (given)
⇒ \(\left|\begin{array}{lll} k & 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 4 & 1 \\ 3 & 2 & 1 \end{array}\right|\) = 2(4) = 8
(i.e.,) k (4 – 2) -2(2 – 3) + 1 (4 – 12) = ±8
(i.e.,) 2k – 2(-1) + 1(-8) = ± 8
(i.e.,) 2k + 2 – 8 = 8
(i.e.,) 2k = 8 + 8 – 2 = 14
k = 14/2 = 7
∴ k = 7
or
2k + 2 – 8 = -8
⇒ 2k = -8 + 8 – 2
2k = -2
k = -1
So k = 7 (or) k = -1

Question 28.
Find λ, when the projection of \(\vec {a}\) = λ\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{j}\) + 4\(\hat{k}\) on \(\vec {b}\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) + 6\(\hat{j}\) + 2\(\hat{k}\) is 4 units.
Answer:
\(\vec {a}\) = λ\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{j}\) + 4\(\hat{k}\) and \(\vec {b}\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) + 6\(\hat{j}\) + 2\(\hat{k}\)
Now \(\vec {a}\) – \(\vec {b}\) = (λ) (2) + (1) (6) + (4) (3)
= 2λ + 6 + 12 = 2λ +18
|\(\vec {a}\)| = \(\sqrt{4+36+9}\) = \(\sqrt{49}\) = 7
Here \(\frac{2λ+18}{7}\) = 4
⇒ 2λ+ 18 = 4 × 7 = 28
2λ = 28 – 18 = 10
λ = 10/2 = 5

Question 29.
Find \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) if y = e^x sin x
Answer:
y = e^x sin x
⇒ y’ = uv’ + vu’
Now u = e^x ⇒ u’ = \(\frac{du}{dx}\) = e^x
v = sin x ⇒ v’ = \(\frac{dv}{dx}\) = cos x
y’ = e^x (cos x) + sin x (e^x)
= e^x [sin x + cos x]

Question 30.
Find \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) if x² + y² = 1
Answer:
We differentiate both sides of the equation.
\(\frac{d}{dx}\) (x)² + \(\frac{d}{dx}\) (y)² = \(\frac{d}{dx}\) (1)
2x + 2y \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) = 0
Solving for the derivative yields
\(\frac{dy}{dx}\) = –\(\frac{x}{y}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the curve y = sin x, draw y = sin |x|
Answer:

Question 32.
If one root of k (x – 1)² = 5x – 7 is double the other root, show that k = 2 or -25
Answer:
k(x – 1)² = 5x – 7
(i.e.,) k (x² – 2x + 1) – 5x + 7 = 0
x² (k) + x(-2k – 5) + k + 7 = 0
kx² – x(2k + 5) + (k + 7) = 0
Here it is given that one root is double the other.
So let the roots to α and 2α
Sum of the roots = α + 2α = 3α = \(\frac{2k+5}{k}\) α \(\frac{2k+5}{3k}\) ……..(1)
Product of the roots = α(2α) = 2α² = \(\frac{k+7}{k}\)
⇒ α² = \(\frac{k+7}{2k}\) = ……..(2)
Substituting a value from (1) in (2)

2(4k² + 25 + 20k) = 9k (k + 7)
2(4k² + 25 + 20k) = 9k² + 63k
8k² + 50 + 40k – 9k² – 65k = 0
-k² – 25k + 50 = 0
k² + 23k – 50 = 0
(k + 25) (k – 2) = 0
k = -25 or 2

Question 33.
If θ + ∅ = α and tan θ = k tan ∅, then prove that sin(θ – ∅) =\(\frac{k-1}{k+1}\)
Answer:

Question 34.
If a, b, c are in geometric progression, and if a^{\(\frac{1}{x}\)} = b^{\(\frac{1}{y}\)} = c^{\(\frac{1}{z}\)} then prove that x, y, z are in arithmetic progression.
Answer:
Given a, b, c are in G.P.
⇒ b² = ac
⇒ log b² = log ac
(i.e.) 2 log b = log a + log c …(1)
We are given a^{\(\frac{1}{x}\)} = b^{\(\frac{1}{y}\)} = c^{\(\frac{1}{z}\)} = k (say)
⇒ log a^k = \(\frac{1}{x}\) = b^k \(\frac{1}{y}\) = c^k \(\frac{1}{z}\)
⇒ a^k = \(\frac{1}{x}\) ⇒ x = log k^a
Similarly y = log k^b
z = log k^c
Substituting these values in equation (1) we get 2y = x + z ⇒ x, y, z are in A.P.

Question 35.
Show that the points (1,3), (2,1) and (\(\frac{1}{2}\), 4) are collinear.
Answer:
Let the given points be A (1, 3), B (2, 1), and C (\(\frac{1}{2}\), 4)
Slope of AB = \(\frac{1-3}{2-1}\) = \(\frac{-2}{1}\) = -2 = m₁
Slope of BC = \(\frac{4-1}{1/2-1}\) = \(\frac{3}{-3/2}\) = -2 = m₂
Slope of AB = Slope of BC ⇒ AB parallel to BC but B is a common point.
⇒ The points A, B, C are collinear.

Question 36.
If A and B are symmetric matrices of same order, prove that AB + BA is a symmetric matrix.
Answer:
Given A and B are symmetric matrices
⇒ A^T = A and B^T = B
To prove AB + BA is a symmetric matrix.
Proof: Now(AB + BA)^T = (AB)^T + (BA)^T = B^TA^T + A^TB^T
= BA + AB = AB + BA
i.e. (AB + BA)^T = AB + BA
⇒ (AB + BA) is a symmetric matrix.

Question 37.
Let \(\vec {a}\), \(\vec {b}\), \(\vec {c}\) be three vectors such that |\(\vec {a}\)| = 3, |\(\vec {b}\)| = 4, |\(\vec {c}\)| = 5 and each one of them being perpendicular to the sum of the other two, find |\(\vec {a}\) + \(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {c}\)|.
Answer:
Given |\(\vec {a}\)| = 3; |\(\vec {b}\)| = 4; |\(\vec {c}\)| = 5
Now, (\(\vec {a}\) + \(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {c}\))² = a^-2 +b ^-2+c^-2 + 2(\(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {b}\).\(\vec {c}\) + \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {c}\))
= 3² + 4² + 5² + 2 \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {b}\) + 2\(\vec {b}\).\(\vec {c}\) + 2\(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {c}\)
= 9 + 16 + 25 + \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {b}\).\(\vec {c}\) + \(\vec {b}\).\(\vec {c}\) + \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {c}\) + \(\vec {a}\).\(\vec {c}\)
= 50 + \(\vec {a}\).(\(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {c}\)) + \(\vec {b}\).(\(\vec {c}\) + \(\vec {a}\)) + \(\vec {c}\).(\(\vec {a}\) + \(\vec {b}\))
= 50 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 50
(one vector is ⊥^r to the sum of other two vectors)
|\(\vec {a}\) + \(\vec {b}\) + \(\vec {c}\)| = \(\sqrt {50}\) = \(\sqrt {25×2}\) = 5√2

Question 38.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}-1}{x}\)
Answer:

Question 39.
Find the derivatives of the following functions y = x^{cos x}
Answer:
y = x^{cos x}
Taking log on both sides, we get
log y = log x^{cos x} = cos x log x
Differentiating w.r.to x we get

Question 40.
Evaluate

Answer:

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Let f, g: R → R be defined as f(x) = 2x – |x| and g(x) = 2x + |x|. Find fog.
Answer:

fog (x) = f(g(x))
= f(x) = 3x
For x > 0
fog (x) = f(g(x))
= f(3x) = 3x

[OR]

(b) Prove that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}\) = 1
Answer:
Let θ → 0, thought positive values
∴ Let 0 < θ < \(\frac{π}{2}\)
Draw a circule center O and radius unity and let
∠AOB = θ radiAnswer:
Let the tagent at A meet OB product in the piont P.
Jion AB. From the figure it is clear that
Area of ΔAOB < Area of sector AOB < Area of ΔOAP

i.e., \(\frac{1}{2}\) OA. OB sin θ < 1 (radius)² θ < \(\frac{1}{2}\) OA. AP
or sin θ < θ < tan θ
[ ∵ \(\frac{AP}{OA}\) = tan θ or AP = tan θ as OA = 1
Dividing by sin θ, which is positive

Question 42 (a).
(i) If A × A has 16 elements, S = {(a, b) ∈ A × A: a < b} ; (-1, 2) and (0,1) are two elements of S, then find the remaining elements of S.
(ii) Find the range of the function \(\frac{1}{2 cos x – 1}\)
Answer:
(i) n(A × A) = 16
⇒ n(A) = 4
S = {(-1, 0), (-1, 1), (0, 2), (1, 2)}

(ii) The range of cos x is – 1 to 1
-1 ≤ cos x ≤ 1
(× by 2) -2 ≤ 2 cos x ≤ 2
adding -1 throughout
-2 -1 ≤ 2 cos x – 1 ≤ 2 – 1
(i.e.,) -3 ≤ 2 cos x – 1 ≤ 1
so 1 ≤ \(\frac{1}{2 cos x – 1}\) ≤ \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
The range is outside \(\frac{-1}{3}\) and 1
i.e., range is (-∞,\(\frac{-1}{3}\)] ∪ [1, ∞)

[OR]

(b) Evaluate: \(\int \frac{3 x+5}{x^{2}+4 x+7}\) dx
Answer:
Let I = \(\int \frac{3 x+5}{x^{2}+4 x+7}\) dx
3x + 5 = A \(\frac{d}{dx}\) (x² + 4x + 7) + B
3x + 5 = A(2x + 4) + B
Comparing the coefficients of like terms we got
2A = 3 ⇒ A = \(\frac{3}{2}\); 4A + B = 5 ⇒ B = -1

Question 43 (a).
Derive cosine formula using the law of sines in a ΔABC.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Find \(\sqrt[3]{65}\) using binomial expansion upto two decimal places.
Answer:
We know that for |x| < 1,

≈ 4 + 0.02 ( Since \(\frac{1}{36864}\) + …….. is very small)
\(\sqrt[3]{65}\) = 4.02 (approximately)

Question 44 (a).
(i) Do the limit of the function \(\frac{sin |x|}{x}\) Li exist as x → 0? State reason for the answer.
Answer:

Hence the limit does ndt exist. Since that f(0^–) ≠ f(0⁺)

[OR]

(b)
Answer:

Question 45.
(i) Evaluate \(\int \frac{x \sin ^{-1} x}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\) dx
Answer:
Let sin^-1 x = t
⇒ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\) dx = dt
Now sin^-1 x = t ⇒ x = sin t
So I = ∫(sin t) (t) dt = ∫ t sin t dt
Now ∫t sin t dt = ∫ t d (-cos t)
= t(- cos t) – ∫(-cos t) dt
= -t cos t + ∫cos t dt
= – t cos t + sin t

[OR]

(b) Show that the points whose position vectors 4\(\hat{i}\) + 5\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\),- \(\hat{j}\) – \(\hat{k}\), 3\(\hat{i}\) +9\(\hat{j}\) + 4\(\hat{k}\) and -4\(\hat{i}\) + 4\(\hat{j}\) + 4\(\hat{k}\) are coplanar.
Answer:
Let the given points be A, B, C and D. To prove that the point A, B, C, D are coplanar, we have to prove that the vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AC}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AD}}\) are coplanar.

Equating \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{j}\) and \(\hat{k}\) components we get
-4 = -m – 8n
⇒ m + 8n = 4 ….(i)
-6 = 4m – n
⇒ 4m – n = -6 ……. (ii)
-2 = 3m + 3n
⇒ 3m + 3n = -2 …….. (iii)
Solving (i) and (ii)

Substituting m = –\(\frac{4}{3}\) in (i) we get,
–\(\frac{4}{3}\) + 8n = 4

we are able to write one vector as a linear combination of the other two vectors ⇒ the given vectors \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\), \(\vec{c}\) are coplanar.
(i.e.,) The given points A, B, C, D are coplanar.

Question 46 (a).
If Q is a point on the locus of x² + y² + 4x – 3x + 7 = 0, then find the equation of locus of P which divides segment OQ externally in the ratio 3 : 4, where O is the origin.
Answer:
Let (h, k) be the moving-point O = (0, 0), Let PQ = (a, b) on x² + y² + 4x – 3y + 7 = 0
P divides OQ externally in the ratio 3 : 4

h² + k² – 12h + 9k + 63 = 0, Locus of (h, k) is x² + y² – 12x + 9y + 63 = 0

[OR]

(b) A consulting firm rents car from three agencies such that 50% from agency L, 30% from agency M and 20% from agency N. If 90% of the cars from L, 70% of cars from M and 60% of cars from N are in good conditions (i) what is the probability that the firm will get a car in good condition? (ii) if a car is in good condition, what is probability that it has come from agency N?
Answer:
Let A₁, A₂ and A₃ be the events that the cars are rented from the agencies X, Y and Z respectively.
Let G be the event of getting a car in good condition.
We have to find

(i) The total probability of event G that is, P(G).
(ii) Find the conditional probability A3, given G that is, P(A₃/G) We have
P(A₁) = 0.50, P(G/A₁) = 0.90
P(A₂) = 0.30, P(G/A₂) = 0.70
P(A₃) = 0.20, P(G/A₃) = 0.60.

(i) Since A₁, A₂ and A₃ are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events and G is an event in S, then the total probability of event G is P(G).
P(G) = P(A₁) P(G/A₁) + P(A₂) P(G/A₂) + P(A₃) P(G/A₃)
P(G) = (0.50) (0.90) + (0.30) (0.70) + (0.20) (0.60)
P(G) = 0.78.

(ii) The conditional probability A₃ given G is P(A₃/G)
By Bayes’ theorem,

Question 47 (a).
Using the Mathematical induction, show that for any natural number n,

Answer:


∴ P(k + 1) is true
Thus P(k) is true ⇒ P(k + 1) is true.
Hence by principle of mathematical induction,
P(n) is true for all n ∈ Z.

(b) If 7 = (cos^-1 x)², prove that (1 – x²) \(\frac{d²y}{dx²}\) -x\(\frac{dx}{dy}\) -2 = 0. Hence find y₂, when x = 0.
Answer:

Squaring on both sides (1 – x²) (\(y_{1}^{2}\)) = 4(cos^-1 x)² = 4y
⇒ (1 – x²)(\(y_{1}^{2}\)) = 4y
Differentiating again w.r.to x we get
(1 – x²) (2y₁, y₂) + (\(y_{1}^{2}\)) (-2x) = 4y₁
⇒ (1 – x²) (2y₁, y₂) = 4y₁ + 2xy\(y_{1}^{2}\)
(i.e.,) (1 – x²) (2y₁, y₂) = 2y₁ (2 +xy₁)
(÷ by 2y₁)(1 – x²)y² = 2 + xy₁
So (1 – x²)y₂ – xy₁ – 2 = 0
When x = 0
(1 – 0) y₂ – 0y₁ – 2 = 0
y₂ – 2 = 0
y₂ = 2

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 8 Excretion Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 8 Excretion

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Excretion Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textbook Evulation Solved 
Question 1.
Arrange the following structures in the order that a drop of water entering the nephron would encounter them?

1. (a) Afferent arteriole
2. (b) Bowman’s capsule
3. (c) Collecting duct
4. (d) Distal tubule
5. (e) Glomerulus
6. (f) Loop of Henle
7. (g) Proximal tubule
8. (h) Renal pelvis

Answer:

1. (a) Afferent arteriole
2. (b) Bowman’s capsule
3. (e) Glomerulus
4. (g) Proximal tubule
5. (j) Loop of Henle
6. (d) Distal tubule
7. (c) Collecting duct
8. (h) Renal pelvis

Question 2.
Name the three filtration barriers that solutes must come across as they move from plasma to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule. What components of the blood are usually excluded by these layers?
Answer:
1. Glomerulus net filtration pressure – 55 mm Hg
2. Colloidal osmotic pressure – 30 mm Hg
3. Capsular Hydrostatic pressure -15 mm Hg
Protein aminoacid glucose urea, uric acid creatinine, etc are excluded by these layers.

Question 3.
What forces promote glomerular filtration? What forces oppose them? What is meant by net filtration pressure?
Answer:
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (55 mm Hg) is the force that promotes filtration. The colloidal osmotic pressure (30 mm Hg) and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (15 mm Hg) are the two opposing forces.

The difference between the force promoting and opposing filtration is the net filtration pressure. It is responsible for filtration. Net filtration pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure).

Question 4.
Identify the following structures and explain their significance in renal physiology?

1. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
2. Podocytes
3. Sphincters in the bladder
4. Renal cortex

Answer:
1. Juxtaglomerular apparatus:
Juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron that consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter. The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. It plays an important role in reabsorption of water, Na⁺ and excretion of K⁺.

2. Podocytes:
The visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits. It is important for glomerular filtration.

3. Sphincters in the bladders:
Sphincter muscles in the bladder controls the flow of urine from the bladder. When urinary bladder is filled with urine, it stretches and stimulates the central nervous system through the sensory neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system and brings about contraction of the bladder.

Simultaneously, somatic motor neurons induce the sphincters to close. Smooth muscles contracts resulting in the opening of the internal sphincters passively and relaxing the external sphincter. When the stimulatory and inhibitory controls exceed the threshold, the sphincter opens and the urine is expelled out.

4. Renal cortex:
The outer portion of the kidney is the renal cortex. It contains renal corpuscles and the proximal and distal tubules. It is thin and fibrous.

Question 5.
In which segment of the nephron most of the re-absorption of substances takes place?
Answer:
In proximal convoluted tubule cells, Glucose, lactate, amino acids, Na+ and water, are reabsorbed. In the descending limb of Henle’s loop, water is reabsorbed. In the ascending limb, Na⁺, Cl and K⁺ are reabsorbed. In the distal convoluted tubule, water is reabsorbed.

Question 6.
When a molecule or ion is reabsorbed from the lumen of the nephron, where does it go? If a solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule, where does it go?
Answer:
If a solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule, where does it go?

• The reabsorbed molecule of the lumen of the nephron goes to interstitial fluid and then goes to the blood.
• The filtered molecule when it is not reabsorbed by the tubules it will be excreted out through urine.

Question 7.
Match each of the following substances with its mode of transportation in proximal tubular reabsorption?
(a) Na⁺ – 1. indirect active transport
(b) Glucose – 2. endocytosis
(c) Urea – 3. paracellular movement
(d) Plasma – 4. facilitated diffusion
(e) Water – 5. primary active transport
Answer:
(a) 5
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
(e) 3

Question 8.
Which segment is the site of secretion and regulated reabsorption of ions and pH homeostasis?
Answer:
Distal convoluted tubule.

Question 9.
What solute is normally present in the body to estimate GFR in humans?
Answer:
Creatinine.

Question 10.
Which part of the autonomic nervous system is involved in the micturition process?
Answer:
Para sympathetic nervous system.

Question 11.
Match the following terms.
(a) a- adrenoceptor – 1. afferent arteriole
(b) Autoregulation – 2. basal lamina
(c) Bowman’s capsule – 3. capillary blood pressure
(d) Capsule fluid – 4. colloid osmotic pressure
(e) Glomerulus – 5. GFR
(f) Podocyte – 6. JG cells
(g) Vasoconstriction – 7. plasma proteins Norepinepherine
Answer:
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 1
(f) 2
(g) 4

Question 12.
If the afferent arteriole of the nephron constricts, what happens to the GFR in that nephron? If the efferent arteriole constricts what happens to the GFR in that nephron? Assume that no autoregulation takes place?
Answer:
If the afferent arteriole of the nephron constricts, GFR is reduced. If the efferent arteriole constricts, GFR is increased.

Question 13.
How is the process of micturition altered by toilet training?
Answer:
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called micturition or urination. It is controlled by central nervous system and smooth muscles of sphincter. In young children, micturition cannot be controlled. By toilet training, one can temporarily postpone the signal reaching from the central nervous system to the motor neurons carrying stimuli to the urinary bladder.

Question 14.
Concentration of urine depends upon which part of the nephron?
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Length of Henle’s loop
c. P.C.T.
d. Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
Answer:
b. length of Henle’s loop

Question 15.
If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
a. There will be no urine formation.
b. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
c. The urine will be more concentrated.
d. The urine will be more dilute.
Answer:
d. The urine will be more dilute.

Question 16.
A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
a. Less amino acids in his urine
b. Macula densa cells
c. Less urea in his urine
d. More sodium in his urine
Answer:
d. More sodium in his urine

Question 17.
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
a. Micturition will continue
b. Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
c. There will be no micturition
d. Orine will not collect in the bladder
Answer:
c. There will be no micturition

Question 18.
The end product of Ornithine cycle is
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Uric acid
c. Urea
d. Ammonia
Answer:
c. Urea

Question 19.
Identify the wrong match
a. Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular Alteration
b. DCT – Absorption of glucose
c. Henle’s loop – Concentration of urine
d. PCT – Absorption of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
Answer:
b. DCT – Absorption of glucose

Question 20.
Podocytes are the cells present on the
a. Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
b. Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
c. Neck of nephron
d. Wall glomerular capillaries
Answer:
b. Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule

Question 21.
Glomerular filtrate contains
a. Blood without blood cells and proteins
b. Plasma without sugar
c. Blood with proteins but without cells
d. Blood without urea
Answer:
a. Blood without blood cells and proteins

Question 22.
Kidney stones are produced due to deposition of uric acid and
a. Silicates
b. Minerals
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium oxalate
Answer:
d. calcium oxalate

Question 23.
Animal requiring minimum amount of water to produce urine are
a. Ureotelic
b. Ammonotelic
c. Uricotelic
d. Chemotelic
Answer:
c. Uricotelic

Question 24.
Aldosterone acts at the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct resulting in the absorption of water through
a. Aquaporins
b. Spectrins
c. GLUT
d. Chloride channels
Answer:
a. Aquaporins

Question 25.
The hormone which helps in the reabsorption of water in kidney tubules is ………..
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Angiotensin II
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Pancreozymin
Answer:
b. Angiotensin II

Question 26.
Malphigian tubules remove excretory products from ………….
a. Mouth
b. Oesophagus
c. Haemolymph
d. Alimentary canal
Answer:
d. Alimentary canal

Question 27.
Identify the biological term Homeostasis, excretion, glomerulus, urea, glomerular filtration, ureters, urine, Bowman’s capsule, urinary system, reabsorption, micturition, osmosis, glomerular capillaries via efferent arteriole, proteins?

1. A liquid which gathers in the bladder?
2. Produced when blood is filtered in a Bowman’s capsule?
3. The temporary storage of urine?
4. A ball of inter-twined capillaries?
5. A process that changes glomerular filtrate into urine?
6. Removal of unwanted substances from the body?
7. Does each contain a glomerulus?
8. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder?
9. Contains urea and many useful substances?
10. Blood is filtered through its walls into the Bowman’s capsule?
11. Scientific term for urination?
12. Regulation of water and dissolved substances in blood and tissue fluid?
13. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder?
14.  Consists of the kidneys, ureters and bladder?
15. Removal of useful substances from glomerular filtrate?
16. The process by which water is transported in the proximal convoluted tubule?
17. Where has the blood in the capillaries surrounding the proximal convoluted tubule come from?
18. What solute does blood contain that is not present in the glomerular filtrate?

Answer:

1. Urine
2. Glomerular filtrate
3. Urinary bladder
4. Glomerulus
5. Reabsorption
6. Excretion
7. Bowman’s capsule
8. Ureters
9. Glomerular filtrate
10. Glomerulus
11. Micturition
12. Homeostatic
13. Ureters
14. Urinary system
15. Reabsorption
16. Osmosis
17. Glomerular capillaries via the efferent arteriole
18. Proteins

Question 28.
With regards to toxicity and the need for dilution in water, how’ different are ureotelic and uricotelic excretions? Give examples of animals that use these types of excretion?
Answer:
Ureotelic animals excrete urea with minimum loss of water, e.g., Mammals and terrestrial amphibians. Uricotelic animals excrete uric acid with the least loss of water, e.g., Birds and reptiles.

Question 29.
Differentiate protonephridia from metanephridia?
Answer:

Protonephridia	Metanephridia
1. Primitive kidneys are protonephridia	1. Tubular excretory structures are
2. These are found in flatworms.	2. These are found in annelids and mollusks

Question 30.
What is the nitrogenous waste produced by amphibian larvae and by adult animals?
Answer:
Amphibian larvae produce ammonia and the adult produces urea.

Question 31.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 32.
Differentiate cortical from medullary nephrons?
Answer:

Cortical nephrons	Medullary nephrons
1. These are found in the cortex.	1. These are found in the medulla.
2. These have short Henle’s loop.	2. These have long Henle’s loop.

Question 33.
What vessels carry blood to the kidneys? Is this blood arterial or venous?
Answer:
The renal artery carries oxygenated (arterial) blood to the kidney.

Question 34.
Which vessels drain filtered blood from the kidneys?
Answer:
Renal veins carry deoxygenated blood from the kidney.

Question 35.
What is tubular secretion? Name the substances secreted through the renal tubules?
Answer:
The movement of substances such as H⁺, K⁺, NH₄⁺, creatinine, and organic acids from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid, the filtrate is called Tubular secretion.

Question 36.
How are the kidneys involved in controlling blood volume? How is the volume of blood in the body related to arterial pressure?
Answer:
Renin-Angiotensin stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption from the glomerular filtrate. This stimulates Adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na⁺, K⁺ excretion and absorption of water.

This reduces the loss of water into the urine. This maintains the volume of blood. An increase in blood volume increases central venous pressure. This increases right atrial pressure, right ventricular end-diastolic pressure, and volume. This increases ventricular stroke volume and cardiac output and arterial blood pressure.

Question 37.
Name the three main hormones that are involved in the regulation of renal function?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide factor.

Question 38.
What is the function of the antidiuretic hormone? Where is it produced and what stimuli increase or decreases its secretion?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone increases reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules. It is produced in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. When there is excess loss of fluid from the body or increase in the blood pressure, ADH is secreted more. When there is no loss of fluid from the body, it is secreted less.

Question 39.
What is the effect of aldosterone on kidneys and where is it produced?
Answer:
Aldosterone is produced by the Adrenal cortex. It increases reabsorption of sodium and water by distal convoluted tubule and increased secretion of potassium. Hence, it maintains blood volume, blood pressure and urine output.

Question 40.
What evolutionary hypothesis could explain the heart’s role in secreting a hormone that regulates renal function? What hormone is this?
Answer:
The cardiac atrial cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide or factor. It travels to the kidney and increases blood flow to the glomerulus. It acts as a vasodilator on the afferent arteriole and vasoconstrictor on the efferent arteriole. It decreases aldosterone release for the adrenal cortex and decreases the release of renin Angiotensin-II. Health of the heart depends on the normal blood pressure and hence evolution might have preserved atrial natriuretic factor which acts upon the renal function.

In-Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
What is the importance of having a long loop of Henle and short loop of Henle in a nephron?
Answer:
The major function of Henle’s loop is to concentrate Na⁺ and Cl^–. The longer the Henle’s loop, the more concentrated is the urine that is above the osmotic concentration of plasma.

Question 2.
A person with cirrhosis of the liver has lower than normal levels of plasma proteins and higher than normal GFR. Explain why a decrease in plasma protein would increase GFR?
Answer:
The net filtration pressure of 10 mmHg is responsible for the renal filtration. Net filtration Pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure). Therefore, when there is decrease in plasma proteins, the value of Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure decreases. This contributes to the increased net filtration pressure resulting in increase of GFR.

Question 3.
List various pathways involved in the homeostatic compensation in the case of severe dehydration?
Answer:
The below flowchart shows the pathways involved in the homeostatic compensation in case of severe dehydration.

1. If there is decreased extracellular fluid volume, it increases sympathetic stimulation and decreases blood pressure and decreases fluid and sodium delivery to the distal tubule.
2. This enhances the secretion of renin.
3. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensen 1 and angiotensen 1 to angiotehsen 2.
4. This increase in angiotensin 1 increases the secretion of aldosterone which increases the reabsorption of sodium by distal tubule and increased secretion of potassium.
5. The increase in angiotensin 2 increases thirst and reabsorption of sodium in the PCT.

Question 4.
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used to treat high blood pressure. Using a flow chart, explain why these drugs are helpful in treating hypertension?
Answer:

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) prevent the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I and angiotensin I into angiotensin II. This decreases the reabsorption of sodium by proximal convoluted tubule and secretion of aldosterones. This prevents the increased secretion of potassium. All these reactions help in treating hypertension.

Question 5.
Consider how different foods affect water and salt balance, and how the excretory system must respond to maintain homeostasis?
Answer:
The excessive intake of sodium chloride„i.e. common salt increases osmolarity. This increases thirst and secretion of vasopressin. The vasopressin increases the reabsorption of water in the renal tubule. Kidneys prevent the loss of water. Due to the intake of water due to thirst, extracellular fluid volume increases.

This stimulates kidneys to excrete salt and water to bring osmolarity to normal. When there is an increase in the blood pressure due to increase in the extracellular fluid volume, cardiovascular reflexes occur to reduce the blood pressure. This brings the volume and blood pressure to normal. Thus, the excessive intake of sodium affects the water and salt balance. The excretory system responds to those changes and maintains homeostasis.

Text Book Activities Solved

Question 1.
Visit a nearby health center to observe the analysis of urine. Dip strips can be used to test urine for a range of different factors such as pH, glucose, ketones, and proteins. Dipsticks for detecting glucose contain two enzymes namely, glucose oxidase and peroxidase? These two enzymes are immobilized on a small pad at one end of the stick. The pad is immersed in urine. If the urine contains glucose, a brown colored compound is produced. The resulting colour pad is matched against a color chart. The colour does not indicate the current blood glucose concentrations?
Answer:
Students can visit nearby health centre under the guidance of the teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Excretion Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The elimination of ……………………….. requires a large amount of water.
(a) Urea
(b) Uric acid
(c) Ammonia
(d) creatinine
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 2.
Reptiles, birds, land snails, and insects excrete ……………..
(a) Ammonia
(b) Urea
(c) Uric
(d) purines
Answer:
(c) uric acid

Question 3.
Solenocytes are the specialized cells for excretion in
(a) Flatworms
(b) Molluscs
(c) Insects
(d) Amphioxus
Answer:
(d) amphioxus

Question 4.
Insects have for excretion.
(a) Flame cells
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Solenocytes
(d) Green glands
Answer:
(b) Malpighian tubules

Question 5.
…………………… have antennal glands or green glands which perform an excretory function.
(a) Insects
(b) Annelids
(c) Crustaceans
(d) Flatworms
Answer:
(c) Crustaceans

Question 6.
Reptiles produce very little ……………….. urine
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Isotonic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Hypotonic

Question 7.
Mammals have long Henle’s loop, hence they produce ……………………… urine.
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hyperosmotic
(c) Isotonic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Hyperosmotic

Question 8.
Aglomerlar kidneys of marine fishes produce little urine that is ………………………. to the body fluid.
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hyperosmotic
(c) Isoosmotic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Isoosmotic

Question 9.
The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple ……………………. epithelium.
(a) Columnar
(b) Ciliated
(c) Squamous
(d) Glandular
Answer:
(c) Squamous

Question 10.
The nitrogenous wastes are formed as a result of catabolism of …………..
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) proteins

Question 11.
The net filtration pressure ………………………. of is responsible for renal filtration.
(a) 15mmHg
(b) 30 mmHg
(c) 55 mmHg
(d) 10 mmHg
Answer:
(d) 10 mmHg

Question 12.
Glucose, amino acids, Na+, and water in the filtrate are reabsorbed in the
(a) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(b) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(c) proximal convoluted tubule
(d) distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 13.
Defects in ADH receptors or inability to secrete ADH leads to a condition called ……………….
(a) diabetes mellitus
(b) diabetes insipidus
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) renal failure
Answer:
(b) diabetes insipidus

Question 14.
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called …………….
(a) Ultra filtration
(b) Reabsorption
(c) Micturition
(d) Secretion
Answer:
(c) Micturition

Question 15.
The pH value of human urine is ……………
(a) 7.5
(b) 6.0
(c) 4.3
(d) 9.5
Answer:
(a) 6.0

Question 16.
On average, …………………… gm of urea is excreted per day.
(a) 10 – 15
(b) 15-20
(c) 40 – 50
Answer:
(d) 25 – 30

Question 17.
…………………….. is characterized by an increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine.
(a) Renal calculi
(b) Uremia
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(d) Renal failure
Answer:
(b) Uremia

Question 18.
The formation of hard stone-like masses in the renal tubules of the renal pelvis is called ……………
(a) Uremia
(b) Micturition
(c) Renal calculi
(d) Renal failure
Answer:
(c) Renal calculi

Question 19.
The inflammation of the glomeruli of kidneys due to Streptococcus bacteria is called …………..
(a) Renal failure
(b) Uremia
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(d) Renal calculi
Answer:
(c) Glomerulonephritis

Question 20.
Through hemodialysis, ……………………….. can be removed from the blood.
(a) Ketone bodies
(b) Glucose
(c) Amino acids
(d) Urea
Answer:
(d) Urea

Question 21.
The transfer of a healthy kidney from one person to another person with kidney failure is called ……………
(a) Kidney failure
(b) Haemodialysis
(c) Kidney transplantation
(d) Uremia
Answer:
(c) Kidney transplantation

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
……………………………. regulation is the control of tissues osmotic pressure which acts as a driving force for the movement of water across biological membranes.
Answer:
Osmotic

Question 2.
……………………. regulation is the control of the ionic composition of body fluids.
Answer:
Ionic

Question 3.
……………………. is the toxic nitrogenous end product of protein catabolism.
Answer:
Ammonia

Question 4.
…………………….. are able to change their internal osmotic concentration with a change in the external environment.
Answer:
Osmoconformers

Question 5.
…………………….. maintain their internal osmotic concentration irrespective of their external osmotic environment.
Answer:
Osmoregulation

Question 6.
The …………………. animals can tolerate only narrow fluctuations in the salt concentration.
Answer:
stenohaline

Question 7.
The ……………………. animals are able to tolerate wide fluctuations in the salt concentrations.
Answer:
euryhaline

Question 8.
…………………….. is the waste product of protein metabolism in spiders.
Answer:
Guanine

Question 9.
…………………….. requires a large amount of water for its elimination.
Answer:
Ammonia

Question 10.
…………………. is the least toxic waste product of protein metabolism.
Answer:
Uric acid

Question 11.
Animals that excrete ammonia are called …………
Answer:
Ammonites

Question 12.
The animals that excrete uric acid crystals are called ……………………..
Answer:
Uricoteles

Question 13.
The animals that excrete urea are called ……………………..
Answer:
Ureoteles

Question 14.
…………………….. are the excretory structures in flatworms.
Answer:
Flame cells

Question 15.
Solenocytes are the excretory cells present in ……………………..
Answer:
Amphioxus

Question 16.
…………………….. are the excretory structures in insects.
Answer:
Malphigian tubules

Question 17.
…………………….. function excretory function in prawns.
Answer:
Antennal glands/ Green glands

Question 18.
…………………….. are the structural and functional unit of kidneys.
Answer:
Nephrons

Question 19.
The right kidney is placed slightly lower than the left kidney due to the presence of ……………………..
Answer:
liver

Question 20.
The medulla of kidney is divided into a few conical tissue masses called ……………………..
Answer:
Renal pyramids

Question 21.
The urinary bladder opens into ……………………..
Answer:
Urethra

Question 22.
The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together constitute the ……………………..
Answer:
Renal corpuscle

Question 23.
Some nephron has a very long loop of Henle that run deep into the medulla and are called ……………………..
Answer:
Juxta medullary nephrons

Question 24.
The nitrogenous waste formed as a result of the breakdown of amino acids is converted to urea in the …………………….. Ornithine cycle.
Answer:
Liver

Question 25.
The filtration of blood that takes place in the ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulus.

Question 26.
The fluid that leaves the glomerular capillaries and enters the Bowman’s capsule is called the ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerular filtrate

Question 27.
Sodium is reabsorbed by …………………….. in the proximal convoluted Tubule.
Answer:
Active transport

Question 28.
Descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water due to the presence of ……………………..
Answer:
Aquaporins

Question 29.
Reabsorption of …………………….. ions regulates the pH of the blood.
Answer:
Bicarbonate

Question 30.
…………………….. Is the hormone that facilitates the reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the DCT and collecting duct.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone/ vasopressin

Question 31.
The under secretion of ADH leads to ……………………..
Answer:
Diabetes insipidus

Question 32.
The granular cells of afferent arteriole secrete an enzyme called ……………………..
Answer:
Renin

Question 33.
Renin converts …………………….. into angiotensin.
Answer:
Angiotensinogen

Question 34.
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or factor decreases the release of …………………….., thereby decreasing angiotensin II.
Answer:
Renin

Question 35.
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called ……………………..
Answer:
Micturition

Question 36.
The yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of a pigment, ……………………..
Answer:
Urochrome

Question 37.
The presence of ketone bodies in the urine is called ……………………..
Answer:
Ketonuria

Question 38.
…………………….. is characterized by an increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in the blood.
Answer:
Uremia

Question 39.
The formation of hard stone-like masses in the renal tubules of the renal pelvis is called ……………………..
Answer:
Renal calculi

Question 40.
Renal calculi are due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of …………………….. and certain phosphates.
Answer:
Sodium oxalates

Question 41.
Renal stones can be removed by techniques like …………………….. or lithotripsy.
Answer:
Pyleothotomy

Question 42.
Inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys is known as ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis/ Bright’s disease

Question 43.
haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension, and pulmonary oedema are symptoms of ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis/ Bright’s disease

Question 44.
The process of removing toxic urea from the person with kidney failure is called ……………………..
Answer:
Haemodialysis

Question 45.
…………………….. drugs are administered to the patient after kidney transplantation to avoid tissue rejection.
Answer:
Immunosuppressive

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is osmotic regulation?
Answer:
Osmotic regulation is the control of tissue osmotic pressure which acts as a driving force for the movement of water across biological membranes.

Question 2.
What is ionic regulation?
Answer:
Ionic regulation is the control of the ionic composition of body fluids.

Question 3.
Define excretion?
Answer:
The process by which the body gets rid of the nitrogenous waste products of protein metabolism is called excretion.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Osmoconformers and Osmoregulators?
Answer:

Osmoconformers	Osmoregulation
1. These animals are able to change their internal osmotic concentration with changes in the external environment.	1. These animals maintain their internal osmotic concentration irrespective of their external osmotic environment.
2. e.g. Marine mollusks and Sharks	2. e.g. Otters

Question 5.
Distinguish between Stenohaline and Euryhaline animals?
Answer:

Stenohaline	Euryhaline
1. These animals can tolerate only narrow fluctuations in salt concentration.	1. These animals are able to tolerate wide fluctuations in salt concentrations.
2. e.g. Goldfish	2. e.g. Artemia, Tilapia and Salmon.

Question 6.
Name some nitrogenous waste product produced by various animals?
Answer:
Some of the nitrogenous wastes produced by various animals other than ammonia, urea and uric acid are:
Jrimethyl amine oxide (TMO) in marine teleosts, guanine in spiders, hippuric acid in mammals, reptiles and other nitrogenous wastes include allantonin, allantoic acid, omithuric acid, creatinine, creatine, purines, pyramidines and pterines.

Question 7.
What are ammonotelic animals?
Answer:
Animals that excrete ammonia with excess water are called ammonoteles. e.g., fishes, aquatic amphibians, and aquatic insects.

Question 8.
What are the excretory organs of crustaceans?
Answer:
Antennal glands or green glands.

Question 9.
What is the difference between nephrons present in reptiles and mammals?
Answer:
Reptiles have reduced glomerulus or lack glomerulus and Henle’s loop. Mammals have a long Henle’s loop. Reptiles produce hypotonic urine whereas mammals produce hypertonic urine.

Question 10.
Explain the structure of the human excretory system?
Answer:
1. Excretory system in humans consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Kidneys are reddish-brown, bean-shaped structures that lie in the lumbar region between the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra.

2. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney. Each kidney weighs about 120-170 grams. The outer layer of the kidney is covered by three layers of supportive tissues namely, renal fascia, perirenal fat capsule and fibrous capsule.

3. The longitudinal section of kidney shows an outer cortex, inner medulla and pelvis. The medulla is divided into a few conical tissue masses called medullary pyramids or renal pyramids.

4. The part of cortex that extends in between the medullary pyramids is the renal columns of Bertini. The centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney has a notch called the renal hilum.

5. Through this ureter, blood vessels and nerves innervate. There is a broad funnel-shaped space called the renal pelvis with projection called calyces.

6. The walls of the calyces, pelvis and ureter have smooth muscles. The calyces collect the urine and empties into the ureter. It is stored in the urinary bladder temporarily. The urinary bladder opens into the urethra through which urine is expelled out.

Question 11.
Explain the structure of Nephron?
Answer:
Each kidney has nearly one million tubular structures called nephrons. Each nephron consists of a filtering corpuscle called renal corpuscle or malphigian body and a renal tubule. The renal tubule opens into a longer tubule called the collecting duct. The renal corpuscle has a double-walled cup-shaped structure called the Bowman’s capsule. It encloses a ball of capillaries called the glomerulus.

The Bowman’s capsule and the Glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle. The endothelium of the glomerulus has many pores called fenestrae.

The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple squamous epithelium. The visceral layer is made of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits.

The renal tubule continues further to form the proximal convoluted tubule, Henle’s loop, and the distal convoluted tubule. The Henle loop has a thin descending limb and a thick ascending limb.

The distal convoluted tubule of many nephrons opens into a collecting duct. The proximal and the distal convoluted tubule are situated in the cortical region whereas Henle’s loop is situated in the medullary region of the kidney.

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of urine formation in humans?
Answer:
The nitrogenous waste formed as a result of the breakdown of amino acids is converted to urea in the liver by the Ornithine cycle or urea cycle. Urine formation involves three main processes:

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion

1. Glomerular Filtration:
Blood enters the kidney from the renal artery, into the glomerulus. The glomerular membrane has a large surface area and is more permeable to water and small molecules present in the blood plasma.

Blood enters the glomerulus faster with greater force through the afferent arteriole and leaves the glomerulus through the efferent arterioles, much slower. This is because of the wider afferent arteriole and glomerular hydrostatic pressure which is around 55 mm Hg.

This is the chief force that pushes water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane. The pressure is much higher than in other capillary beds. The colloidal osmotic pressure (30 mm Hg) and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (15 mm Hg) are the opposing forces.

The net filtration pressure of 10 mm Hg is responsible for the renal filtration.
Net filtration pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure) = 55 mm Hg – (30 mm Hg + 15 mm Hg) = 10 mm Hg.

The effective glomerular pressure of 10 mm Hg results in ultrafiltration. The fluid that leaves the glomerular capillaries and enters the Bowman’s capsule is called the glomerular filtrate.

It is similar to blood plasma except that there are no plasma proteins. Kidneys produce about 180L of glomerular filtrate in 24 hours. It has water, glucose, amino acids and minerals along with urea and other nitrogenous waste.

2. Tubular Reabsorption:
The substances of glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed by the renal tubules as they are needed by the body. This process is called selective reabsorption.

In the Proximal Convoluted Tubule, glucose, lactate, amino acids, Na^+, and water are reabsorbed. Sodium is reabsorbed by active transport through the sodium-potassium pump. The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water due to the presence of aquaporins, but impermeable to salts.

Water is lost in this region and hence Na⁺ and Cl^– get concentrated in the filtrate. In the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, Na⁺, Cl^-, and K⁺ are reabsorbed. This region is impermeable to water. The distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs water and secretes potassium into the tubule. Na⁺, Cl^-, and water remain in the filtrate. In the collecting duct, water and Na⁺ are reabsorbed and K⁺ is secreted.

3. Tubular secretion:
In this process, substances such as H⁺, K⁺, NH4⁺, creatinine and organic acids move into the filtrate from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid. Human produces 1.5 L of urine per day.

Question 13.
What is Diabetes insipidus?
Answer:
The defect in the production of ADH results in the excretion of large quantities of dilute urine, this is called Diabetes insipidus. This results in dehydration and a fall in blood pressure.

Question 14.
What is Micturition?
Answer:
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called micturition or urination.

Question 15.
What is the nature of urine of human beings?
Answer:
The urine formed is a yellow coloured watery fluid which is slightly acidic in nature (pH 6.0).

Question 16.
What is glucosuria and ketonuria?
Answer:
The presence of glucose in the urine is called glucosuria. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine is called ketonuria. These are the indications of Diabetes Mellitus.

Question 17.
Name the pigment present in the urine?
Answer:
The yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of pigment urochrome.

Question 18.
Explain the excretory role of other organs?
Answer:

• Lungs: Lungs remove large quantities of carbon dioxide (18 L /day) and significant quantities of water.
• Liver: The liver secretes bile which contains bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, steroid hormones, vitamins and drugs. These are excreted out along with the digestive wastes.
• Skin: Sweat glands eliminate certain wastes like urea and lactate. Sebaceous glands eliminate sterols, hydrocarbons, and waxes through the serum.
• Saliva: Small quantities of nitrogenous wastes are excreted through saliva.

Question 19.
Explain the hormones regulating kidney function?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin, juxtaglomerular apparatus, and atrial natriuretic factor regulate kidney function. Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin When there is excessive loss of fluid from the body or when there is an increase in the blood pressure, the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus stimulates the neurohypophysis to secrete the antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin.

It facilitates the reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the cell surface membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

When the water loss from the body is less or when you drink excess amount of juice, osmoreceptors stop secreting ADH and the aquaporins of the collecting ducts move into the cytoplasm. Hence dilute urine is produced to maintain the blood volume.

Renin-angiotensin:
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron. It consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter.

The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate, can activate JG cells to release renin.

This converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I. Angiotensin converting enzyme converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin- II. Angiotensin-II stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule by vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and increases the glomerular blood pressure.

Angiotensin- II stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na⁺, K⁺ excretion, and absorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate. This complex mechanism is generally known as Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).

Atrial natriuretic factor:
The excessive stretch of cardiac atrial cells causes an increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart and release Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or Factor (ANF). It travels to the kidney where it increases Na⁺ excretion and increases the blood flow to the glomerulus, acting as a vasodilator on the afferent glomerular arterioles and as a vasoconstrictor on efferent arterioles.

It decreases aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex and decreases the release of renin, thereby decreasing angiotensin-II. ANF acts antagonistically to the renin-angiotensin system, aldosterone and vasopressin.

Question 20.
Write a short note on urinary tract infection?
Answer:
The Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever, and sometimes cloudy or blood-tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Question 21.
Write a short note on Renal Failure or Kidney Failure?
Answer:
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with a marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure is of two types, acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure, the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure, there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Question 22.
Write a short note on Uremia?
Answer:
Uremia is characterized by an increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in the blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17-30 mg/100 mL of blood. The urea concentration rises to 10 times normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Question 23.
Write a short note on Renal calculi?
Answer:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone-like masses in the renal tubules of the renal pelvis. It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This results in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyelolithotomy or lithotripsy.

Question 24.
Write a short note on Glomerulonephritis?
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension, and pulmonary oedema.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Haemodialysis?
Answer:
Malfunction of the kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea and other toxic substances, leading to kidney failure. In such patients, toxic urea can be removed from the blood by a process called haemodialysis. A dialyzing machine or an artificial kidney is connected to the patient’s body. A dialyzing machine consists of a long cellulose tube surrounded by the dialyzing fluid in a water bath.

The patient’s blood is drawn from a convenient artery and pumped into the dialyzing unit after adding an anticoagulant like heparin. The tiny pores in the dialysis tube allow small molecules such as glucose, salts, and urea to enter the water bath, whereas blood cells and protein molecules do not enter these pores.

This stage is similar to the filtration process in the glomerulus. The dialysing liquid in the water bath consists of a solution of salt and sugar in the correct proportion in order to prevent loss of glucose and essential salts from the blood. The cleared blood is then pumped back to the body through a vein.

Question 26.
Write a short note on Kidney Transplantation?
Answer:
Kidney Transplantation is the ultimate method for correction of acute renal failures. This involves the transfer of a healthy kidney from one person (donor) to another person with kidney failure.

The donated kidney may be taken from a healthy person who is declared brain dead or from sibling or close relatives to minimize the chances of rejection by the immune system of the host. Immunosuppressive drugs are usually administered to the patient to avoid tissue rejection.

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TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Identify the flow variable.
(a) money supply
(b) assets
(c) income
(d) foreign exchange reserves
Answer:
(c) income

Question 2.
Economic planning is an important feature of Economy………..
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(a) Mixed

Question 3.
The financial year in India is…………
(a) April 1 to March 31
(b) March 1 to April 30
(c) March 1 to March 16
(d) January I to December 31
Answer:
(a) April 1 to March 31

Question 4.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Question 5.
Aggregate supply is equal to…………
(a) C + I + G
(b) C + S + G + (x – m)
(c) C + S + T + (x – m)
(d) C + S + T + Rf
Answer:
(d) C + S + T + Rf

Question 6.
……….. means that persons who are willing to work and able to work must have employment or a job.
(a) Full employment
(b) Unemployment
(c) Educational unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment
Answer:
(a) Full employment

Question 7.
The average propensity to consume is measured by
(a) C/Y
(b) C × Y
(c) Y/C
(d) C + Y
Answer:
(a) C/Y

Question 8.
Additional investment that is independent of income is called…………
(a) Autonomous Investment
(b) Autonomous Consumption
(c) Average Investment
(d) Marginal Investment
Answer:
(a) Autonomous Investment

Question 9.
Money is ……….
(a) acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(b) constant in purchasing power
(c) the most liquid of all assets
(d) needed for allocation of resources
Answer:
(c) the most liquid of all assets

Question 10.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Code:

Answer:
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Question 11.
NABARD was set up in…………
(a) July 1962
(b) July 1972
(c) July 1982
(d) July 1992
Answer:
(c) July 1982

Question 12.
Open Market operations enable the ………….. to reduce the money supply in the economy.
(a) Commercial bank
(b) SBI
(c) ICICI
(d) RBI
Answer:
(d) RBI

Question 13.
Exchange rate for currencies is determined by supply and demand under the system of…………
(a) Fixed exchange rate
(b) Flexible exchange rate
(c) Constant
(d) Government regulated
Answer:
(b) Flexible exchange rate

Question 14.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) David Ricardo – Factor Endowment Theory
(b) Eli Heckscher – British Economist
(c) Marshall – Swedish Economist
(d) Adam Smith – Theory of Absolute cost advantage
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith – Theory of Absolute cost advantage

Question 15.
Which of the following is not the member of SAARC?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bhutan
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 16.
Objectives of WTO are……..
(i) To ensure reduction of tariff and other barriers.
(ii) Low level of standard of living.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 17.
The direct tax has the following merits except……….
(a) equity
(b) convenient
(c) certainty
(d) civic consciousness
Answer:
(b) convenient

Question 18.
The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is……….
(a) Automobiles
(b) Industrial process
(c) Stationary fuel combustion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Automobiles

Question 19.
Sarvodaya Plan was advocated by
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J.P. Narayan
(c) S. N Agarwal
(d) M.N. Roy
Answer:
(b) J.P. Narayan

Question 20.
To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model is called
(a) Decentralized planning
(b) Scenario planning
(c) Partial planning
(d) Comprehensive planning
Answer:
(a) Decentralized planning

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by an ‘Economy’?
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. An economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.

Question 22.
Define GDP deflator.
Answer:
GDP deflator is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. It is a price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.
GDP deflator = \(\frac{nominal GDP}{real GDP}\) × 100

Question 23.
Write the headlines of difficulties in Measuring National Income.
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:

1. Transfer payments
2. Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance
3. Unpaid services
4. Income from illegal activities
5. Production for self-consumption and changing price
6. Capital Gains
7. Statistical problems

Question 24.
What are the components of aggregate supply?
Answer:
Aggregate supply has the following components:

1. Aggregate (desired) consumption expenditure (C)
2. Aggregate (desired) private savings (S)
3. Net tax payments (T) (Total tax payment to be received by the government minus transfer payments, subsidy and interest payments to be incurred by the government) and
4. Personal (desired) transfer payments to the foreigners (Rf) (eg. Donations to international relief efforts)

Question 25.
What do you mean by propensity to consume?
Answer:
The consumption function or propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is a “functional relationship between two aggregates viz., total consumption and gross national income.”
Symbolically, the relationship is represented as C = f (Y)
Where, C = Consumption; Y = Income; f = Function

Thus the consumption function indicates a functional relationship between C and Y, where C is the dependent variable and Y is the independent variable, i.e., C is determined by Y. This relationship is based on the ceteris paribus (other things being same) assumption, as only income consumption relationship is considered and all possible influences on consumption are held constant.

Question 26.
Write Fisher’s Quantity Theory of money equation.
Answer:
The general form of equation given by Fisher is MV = PT. Fisher points out that in a country during any given period of time, the total quantity of money (MV) will be equal to the total value of all goods and services bought and sold (PT)
MV = PT

Question 27.
What are the credit control measures?
Answer:

Question 28.
Specify any two affiliates of World Bank Group.
Answer:

Question 29.
Specify the meaning of seed ball.
Answer:

1. A seed ball (or seed bomb) is a seed that has been wrapped in soil materials, usually a mixture of clay and compost, and then dried.
2. Essentially, the seed is ‘pre-planted’ and can be sown by depositing the seed ball anywhere suitable for the species, keeping the seed safely until the proper germination window arises.
3. Seed balls are an easy and sustainable way to cultivate plants that provide a larger window of time when the sowing can occur.

Question 30.
What is GNP?
Answer:
Gross National Product (GNP):
GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a particular year, plus income earned by its citizens (including income of those located abroad), minus income of non-residents located in that country.

GNP is one measure of the economic condition of a country, under the assumption that a higher GNP leads to a higher quality of living, all other things being equal.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the different types of economic systems.
Answer:
There are three major types of economic systems. They are:
Capitalistic Economy (Capitalism):

1. Capitalistic economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez faire, in Latin) or market
   economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.
2. The means of production in a capitalistic economy are privately owned.
3. Manufacturers produce goods and services with profit motive.
4. The private individual has the freedom to undertake any occupation and develop any skill.
5. The USA, West Germany, Australia and Japan are the best examples for capitalistic economies.
6. However, they do undertake large social welfare measures to safeguard the downtrodden people from the market forces.

Question 32.
Classify the concepts of Macro Economics.
Answer:
The important concepts used in macro economics are presented below:
Stock and Flow Variables: Variables used in economic analysis are classified as stock and flow. Both stock and flow variables may increase or decrease with time.

Stock refers to a quantity of a commodity measured at a point of time. In macro economics, money supply, unemployment level, foreign exchange reserves, capital etc are examples of stock variables.

Flow variables are measured over a period of time. National Income, imports, exports, consumption, production, investment etc are examples of flow variables.

Economic Models A model is a simplified representation of real situation. Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships and their behaviour. A model is an explanation of how the economy, or part of the economy, works. Most economic models are built with mathematics, graphs and equations, and attempt to explain relationships between economic variables. The commonly used economic models are the supply-demand models and circular flow models and Smith models.

Question 33.
Write briefly about national income and welfare.
Answer:
National Income and Welfare:
National Income is considered as an indicator of the economic wellbeing of a country. The per capita income as an index of economic welfare suffers from limitations which are stated below:

1. The economic welfare depends upon the composition of goods and services provided. The greater the proportion of capital goods over consumer goods, the improvement in economic welfare will be lesser.
2. Higher GDP with greater environmental hazards such as air, water and soil pollution will be little economic welfare.
3. The production of war goods will show the increase in national output but not welfare.
4. An increase in per capita income may be due to employment of women and children or forcing workers to work for long hours. But it will not promote economic welfare.

Question 34.
What do you mean by aggregate demand? Mention its components.
Answer:
The aggregate demand is the amount of money which entrepreneurs expect to get by selling the output produced by the number of labourers employed. Therefore, it is the expected income or revenue from the sale of output at different levels of employment.
Aggregate demand has the following four components:

1. Consumption demand
2. Investment demand
3. Government expenditure and
4. Net Export (export – import)

Question 35.
Differentiate autonomous and induced investment.
Answer:

SI.No	Autonomous Investment	Induced Investment
1	Independent	Planned
2	Income inelastic	Income elastic
3	Welfare motive	Profit Motive

Question 36.
Explain the Trade cycle Depression.
Answer:
Depression:

1. During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely low.
2. Firms incur losses and closure of business becomes a common feature and the ultimate result is unemployment.
3. Interest prices, profits and wages are low.
4. The agricultural class and wage earners would be worst hit.
5. Banking institutions will be reluctant to advance loans to businessmen.
6. Depression is the worst phase of the business cycle.
7. Extreme point of depression is called as “trough”, because it is a deep point in business cycle.
8. Any person fell down in deeps could not come out from that without other’s help.
9. Similarly, an economy fell down in trough could not come out from this without external help.
10. Keynes advocated that autonomous investment of the government alone can help the economy to come out from the depression.

Question 37.
Explain the Net Barter Terms of Trade.
Answer:
1. Net Barter Terms of Trade:
This type was developed by Taussig in 1927. The ratio between the prices of exports and of imports is called the “net barter terms of trade’. It is named by Viner as the ‘commodity terms of trade’.
It is expressed as:
T_n = (P_x /P_m) × 100 Where,
T_n = Net Barter Terms of Trade
P_x = Index number of export prices
P_m = Index number of import prices
This is used to measure the gain from international trade. If ‘Tn’ is greater than 100, then it is a favourable terms of trade which will mean that for a rupee of export, more of imports can be received by a country.

Question 38.
What is Multilateral Agreement?
Answer:

1. Multilateral trade agreement: It is a multi national legal or trade agreements between countries. It is an agreement between more than two countries but not many.
2. The various agreements implemented by the WTO such as TRIPS, TRIMS, GATS, AoA, MFA have been discussed.

Question 39.
What is primary deficit?
Answer:
Primary Deficit:
Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It shows the real burden of the government and it does not include the interest burden on loans taken in the past. Thus, primary deficit reflects borrowing requirement of the government exclusive of interest payments.
Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal deficit (PD) – Interest Payment (IP)

Question 40.
Explain different types of air pollution.
Answer:
Types of Air pollution:

1. Indoor Air Pollution: It refers to toxic contaminants that we encounter in our daily lives in our homes, schools and workplaces. For example, cooking and heating with solid fuels on open fires or traditional stoves results in high levels of indoor air pollution.
2. Outdoor Air Pollution: It refers to ambient air. The common sources of outdoor air pollution are caused by combustion processes from motor vehicles, solid fuel burning and industry.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Compare the features of capitalism and socialism.
Answer:
Features of Socialism:

1. Public Ownership of Means of Production: All resources are owned by the government. It means that all the factors of production are nationalized and managed by the public authority.
2. Central Planning: Planning is an integral part of a socialistic economy. In this system, all decisions are undertaken by the central planning authority.
3. Maximum Social Benefit: Social welfare is the guiding principle behind all economic ‘ activities. Investments are planned in such a way that the benefits are distributed to the society at large.
4. Non-existence of Competition: Under the socialist economic system there is absence of competition in the market. The state has full control over production and distribution of goods and services. The consumers will have a limited choice.
5. Absence of Price Mechanism: The pricing system works under the control and regulation of the central planning authority.
6. Equality of Income: Another essential feature of socialism is the removal and reduction of economic inequalities. Under socialism private property and the law of inheritance do not exist.

[OR]

(b) What are the difficulties involved in the measurement of national income?
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:

1. In India, a special conceptual problem is posed by the existence of a large, unorganised and non-monetised subsistence sector where the barter system still prevails for transacting goods and services.
2. Here, a proper valuation of output is very difficult.

Transfer payments:

1. Government makes payments in the form of pensions, unemployment allowance, subsidies, etc. These are government expenditure.
2. But they are not included in the national income.
3. Because they are paid without adding anything to the production processes.
4. During a year, Interest on national debt is also considered transfer payments because it is paid by the government to individuals and firms on their past savings without any productive work.

Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance:

1. The deduction of depreciation allowances, accidental damages, repair and replacement charges from the national income is not an easy task.
2. It requires high degree of judgment to assess the depreciation allowance and other charges.

Unpaid services:

1. A housewife renders a number of useful services like preparation of meals, serving, tailoring, mending, washing, cleaning, bringing up children, etc.
2. She is not paid for them and her services are not directly included in national income.

Income from illegal activities:

1. Income earned through illegal activities like gambling, smuggling, illicit extraction of liquor, etc., is not included in national income.
2. Such activities have value and satisfy the wants of the people but they are not considered as productive from the point of view of society.

Production for self-consumption and changing price:

1. Farmers keep a large portion of food and other goods produced on the farm for self consumption.
2. The problem is whether that part of the produce which is not sold in the market can be included in national income or not.

Capital Gains:

1. The problem also arises with regard to capital gains.
2. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase.
3. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Statistical problems:

1. There are statistical problems, too. Great care is required to avoid double counting. Statistical data may not be perfectly reliable, when they are compiled from numerous sources.
2. Skill and efficiency of the statistical staff and cooperation of people at large are also equally important in estimating national income.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the differences between classical theory and Keynes theory.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the features of Keynesianism.
Answer:

1. Short-run equilibrium
2. Saving is a vice
3. The function of money is a medium of exchange on the one side and a store of value on the other side.
4. Macro approach to national problems
5. State intervention is advocated.
6. Applicable to all situations – full employment and less than full employment.
7. Capitalism has inherent contradictions.
8. Budgeting should be adjusted to the requirements of economy.
9. The equality between saving and investment is advanced through changes in income.
10. Rate of interest is determined by the demand for and supply of money.
11. Rate of interest is a flow.
12. Demand creates its own supply.
13. Rate of interest is a reward for parting with liquidity.

Question 43 (a).
What are the differences between MEC and MEI?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Describe the phases of Trade cycle.
Answer:
Phases of Trade Cycle:
The four different phases of trade cycle is referred to as

1. Boom
2. Recession
3. Depression and
4. Recovery.

These are illustrated in the figure.

Phases of Trade Cycle The Economic Cycle
1. Boom or Prosperity Phase:

• The full employment and the movement of the economy beyond full employment is characterized as boom period.
• During this period, there is hectic activity in economy.
• Money wages rise, profits increase and interest rates go up.
• The demand for bank credit increases and there is all-round optimism.

2. Recession:

• The turning point from boom condition is called recession.
• This happens at higher rate, than what was earlier.
• Generally, the failure of a company or bank bursts the boom and brings a phase of recession.
• Investments are drastically reduced, production comes down and income and profits decline.
• There is panic in the stock market and business activities show signs of dullness.
• Liquidity preference of the people rises and money market becomes tight.

3. Depression:

• During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely low.
• Firms incur losses and closure of business becomes a common feature and the ultimate result is unemployment.
• Interest prices, profits and wages are low. The agricultural class and wage earners would be worst hit.
• Banking institutions will be reluctant to advance loans to businessmen.
• Depression is the worst phase of the business cycle.
• Extreme point of depression is called as “trough”, because it is a deep point in business cycle.

4. Recovery:

• After a period of depression, recovery sets in.
• This is the turning point from depression to revival towards upswing.
• It begins with the revival of demand for capital goods.
• Autonomous investments boost the activity.
• The demand slowly picks up and in due course the activity is directed towards the upswing with more production, profit, income, wages and employment.
• Recovery may be initiated by innovation or investment or by government expenditure (autonomous investment).

Question 44 (a).
What are the functions of NABARD?
Answer:
Functions of NABARD:
NABARD has inherited its apex role from RBI i.e, it is performing all the functions performed by RBI with regard to agricultural credit.
(i) NABARD acts as a refinancing institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and rural crafts and real artisans and other allied economic activities with a view to promoting integrated rural development.

(ii) NABARD gives long-term loans (upto 20 Years) to State Government to enable them to subscribe to the share capital of co-operative credit societies.

(iii) NABARD gives long-term loans to any institution approved by the Central Government or contribute to the share capital or invests in securities of any institution concerned with agriculture and rural development.

(iv) NABARD has the responsibility of co-ordinating the activities of Central and State Governments, the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) and other all India and State level institutions entrusted with the development of small scale industries, village and cottage industries, rural crafts, industries in the tiny and decentralized sectors, etc.

(v) It maintains a Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development

[OR]

(b) Discuss the various types of disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
Answer:
Types BOP Disequilibrium:
There are three main types of BOP Disequilibrium, which are discussed below.

1. Cyclical Disequilibrium,
2. Secular Disequilibrium,
3. Structural Disequilibrium.

1. Cyclical Disequilibrium: Cyclical disequilibrium occurs because of two reasons. First, two countries may be passing through different phases of business cycle. Secondly, the elasticities of demand may differ between countries.

2. Secular Disequilibrium: The secular or long-run disequilibrium in BOP occurs because of long-run and deep seated changes in an economy as it advances from one stage of growth to another. In the initial stages of development, domestic investment exceeds domestic savings and imports exceed exports, as it happens in India since 1951.

3. Structural Disequilibrium: Structural changes in the economy may also cause balance of payments disequilibrium. Such structural changes include development of alternative sources of supply, development of better substitutes, exhaustion of productive resources or changes in transport routes and costs.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the objectives of IMF.
Answer:
Objectives Of IMF:

1. To promote international monetary cooperation among the member nations.
2. To facilitate faster and balanced growth of international trade.
3. To ensure exchange rate stability by curbing competitive exchange depreciations.
4. To eliminate or reduce exchange controls imposed by member nations.
5. To establish multilateral trade and payment system in respect of current transactions instead of bilateral trade agreements.
6. To promote the flow of capital from developed to developing nations.
7. To solve the problem of international liquidity.

[OR]

(b) Explain the scope of public finance.
Answer:
Scope of Public Finance:
The subject ‘Public Finance’ includes five major sub-divisions, viz., Public Revenue, Public Expenditure, Public Debt, Financial Administration and Fiscal Policy.

(i) Public Revenue:
Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation, rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.

(ii) Public Expenditure:
This part studies the fundamental principles that govern the Government expenditure, effects of public expenditure and control of public expenditure.

(iii) Public Debt:
Public debt deals with the methods of raising loans from internal and external sources. The burden, effects and redemption of public debt fall under this head.

(iv) Financial Administration:

1. This part deals with the study of the different aspects of public budget.
2. The budget is the Annual master financial plan of the Government.
3. The various objectives and steps in preparing a public budget, passing or sanctioning, allocation evaluation and auditing fall within financial administration.

(v) Fiscal Policy:
Taxes, subsidies, public debt and public expenditure are the instruments of fiscal policy.

Question 46 (a).
Mention the Comparison of Direct and Indirect taxes.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write the limitations of statistics.
Answer:
Statistics with all its wide application in every sphere of human activity has its own limitations. Some of them are given below.
(i) Statistics is not suitable to the study of qualitative phenomenon: Since statistics is basically a science and deals with a set of numerical data. It is applicable to the study of quantitative measurements. As a matter of fact, qualitative aspects like empowerment, leadership, honesty, poverty, intelligence etc., cannot be expressed numerically and statistical analysis cannot be directly applied on these qualitative phenomena.

(ii) Statistical laws are not exact: It is well known that mathematical and.physical sciences are exact. But statistical laws are not exact and statistical laws are only approximations. Statistical conclusions are not universally true. They are true only on an average.

(iii) Statistics table may be misused: Statistics must be used only by experts; otherwise, statistical methods are the most dangerous tools on the hands of the inexpert. The use of statistical tools by the inexperienced and untrained persons might lead to wrong conclusions, (zv) Statistics is only one of the methods of studying a problem: Statistical method does not provide complete solution of the problems because problems are to be studied taking the background of the countries culture, philosophy, religion etc., into consideration. Thus the statistical study should be supplemented by other evidences.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the Environmental quality?
Answer:

1. Environmental quality is a set of properties and characteristics of the environment either generalized or local, as they impinge on human beings and other organisms.
2. It is a measure of the condition of an environment relative to the requirements of one or more species and to any human need. Environmental quality has been continuously declining due to capitalistic mode of functioning.
3. Environment is a pure public good that can be consumed simultaneously by everyone and from which no one can be excluded.
4. A pure public good is one for which consumption is non-revival and from which it is impossible to exclude a consumer.
5. Pure public goods pose a freerider problem.
6. As a result, resources are depleted.
7. The contribution of the nature to GDP as well as depletion of natural resources are not accounted in the present system of National Income Enumeration.

[OR]

(b) What are the approaches to Economic Development?
Answer:
There are two main approaches to the concept of development viz

1. the traditional approach and
2. the new welfare oriented approach.

1. Traditional Approach:

• The traditional approach defines development strictly in economic terms.
• The increase in GNP is accompanied by decline in share of agriculture in output and employment while those of manufacturing and service sectors increase.
• It emphasizes the importance of industrialization.
• It was assumed that growth in GNP per capita would trickle down to people at the bottom.

2. New Welfare oriented Approach:

• During 1970s, economic development was redefined in terms of reduction of poverty, ‘inequality’ and unemployment within the context of a growing economy.
• In this phase, ‘Redistribution with Growth’ became the popular slogan.
• To quote Michael P. Todaro, “Development must, therefore, be conceived as a multidimensional process involving major changes in social structures, popular attitudes and national institutions as well as the acceleration of growth, the reduction of inequality and the eradication of absolute poverty”.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If the function is not a recursive one, then is used.
(a) abc
(b) gcd
(c) let
(d) let rec
Answer:
(c) let

Question 2.
The process of providing only the essentials and hiding the details is called
(a) modularity
(b) structure
(c) tuple
(d) abstraction
Answer:
(d) abstraction

Question 3.
All members in a python class are by default.
(a) private
(b) public
(c) protected
(d) local
Answer:
(b) public

Question 4.
………… is a simple sorting algorithm.
(a) binary
(b) bubble
(c) selection
(d) insertion
Answer:
(b) bubble

Question 5.
………… is an example for octal integers.
(a) 102
(b) 08
(c) 0432
(d) 0 × 43
Answer:
(c) 0432

Question 6.
Which of the following operator is used for concatenation?
(a) +
(b) &
(c) *
(d) =
Answer:
(c) *

Question 7.
…………… function returns the sum of values in a list.
(a) sum
(b) total
(c) tot
(d) ε
Answer:
(a) sum

Question 8.
GIS stands for…………
(a) Geographic Information System
(b) Grap Individual System
(c) Graph Information System
(d) Global Information System
Answer:
(a) Geographic Information System

Question 9.
The default sorting order is…………..
(a) top
(b) bottom
(c) ascending
(d) descending
Answer:
(c) ascending

Question 10.
getopt mode is given by………..
(a) ;
(b) =
(c) #
(d) :
Answer:
(d) :

Question 11.
Which operators are used to fitter records based on more than one condition?
(a) AND
(b) NOT
(c) OR
(d) a & c
Answer:
(d) a & c

Question 12.
Which key is used to run the module?
(a) F6
(b) F4
(c) F3
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 13.
……… is used to add the elements in the list.
(a) add
(b) insert
(c) append
(d) update
Answer:
(c) append

Question 14.
The clause used to sort data in a database ..
(a) sort by
(b) order by
(c) group by
(d) select
Answer:
(b) order by

Question 15.
Which of the following method is used as destructor?
(a) _init_( )
(b) _dest-( )
(c) _rem_( )
(d) _del_( )
Answer:
(d) _del_( )

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What are the two types of parameter passing?
Answer:

1. Parameter without type
2. Parameter with type

Question 17.
What is mapping?
Answer:
The process of binding a variable name with an object is called mapping. = (equal to sign) is used in programming languages to map the variable and object.

Question 18.
Write note on delimiters.
Answer:
Python uses the symbols and symbol combinations as delimiters in expressions, lists, dictionaries and strings. Following are the delimiters.

Question 19.
Write note on range () in loop.
Answer:
Usually in Python, for loop uses the range() function in the sequence to specify the initial, final and increment values. range() generates a list of values starting from start till stop-1.

Question 20.
What are the two methods of passing arguments in variable length arguments?
Answer:
In Variable Length arguments we can pass the arguments using two methods.

1. Non keyword variable arguments
2. Keyword variable arguments

Question 21.
Write program to remove duplicates from a list.
Answer:
Method 1:
mylist = [2, 4, 6, 8, 8, 4, 10]
myset = set(mylist)
print(myset)
Output:
{2, 4, 6, 8, 10}

Method II:
def remove(duplicate):
final_list=[]
for num in duplicate:
if num not in final list:
finallist.append(num)
return final_list
duplicate = [2, 4, 10, 20, 5, 2, 20, 4]
print(remove(duplicate))
Output:
[2, 4, 10, 20, 5]

Question 22.
List some examples of RDBMS.
Answer:
SQL server, Oracle, mysql, MariaDB, SQLite.

Question 23.
Write note on drop table command.
Answer:
Drop table command is used to remove a table from the database.
DROP TABLE Student;

Question 24.
Write note on scripting language.
Answer:
A scripting language is a programming language designed for integrating and communicating with other programming languages. Some of the most widely used scripting languages are JavaScript, VBScript, PHP, Perl, Python, Ruby, ASP and Tel.

PART – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Give the syntax for getopt module.
Answer:
The syntax for this method
<opts>, <args>= getopt.getopt( argv, options, [long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –

Question 26.
Differentiate Concrete data type and abstract data type.

Concrete data type	Abstract data type
A concrete data type is a data type whose representation is known	Abstract data type the representation of a data type is unknown
Concrete data types or structures (CDT’s) are direct implementations of a relatively simple concept.	Abstract Data Types (ADT’s) offer a high level view (and use) of a concept independent of its implementation.

Question 27.
Write note on Asymptotic notation.
Answer:
Asymptotic Notations:
Asymptotic Notations are languages that uses meaningful statements about time and space complexity.
1. Big O: Big O is often used to describe the worst-case of an algorithm.

2. Big Ω: Big Omega is the reverse Big O, if Big O is used to describe the upper bound (worst – case) of a asymptotic function, Big Omega is used to describe the lower bound (best-case).

3. Big Θ: When an algorithm has a complexity with lower bound = upper bound, say that an algorithm has a complexity O (n log n) and Ω (n log n), it’s actually has the complexity Θ (n log n), which means the running time of that algorithm always falls in n log n in the best-case and worst-case.

Question 28.
What are string literals? Explain.
Answer:
String Literals
In Python a string literal is a sequence of characters surrounded by quotes. Python supports single, double and triple quotes for a string. A character literal is a single character surrounded by single or double quotes. The value with triple-quote ”’ ”’ is used to give multi-line string literal.
strings = “This is Python”
char = “C”
multiline_str = ‘”This is a multiline string with more than one line code.”‘

Question 29.
Write a program to display Fibonacci Series 0 1 1 2 3 5………….. (upto n terms)
Answer:
nterms = int(input(“How many terms?”))
n1 = 0
n2 = 1
count = 2
# check if the number of terms is valid
if nterms <= 0:
print(“please enter a positive integer”)
elif nterms ==1:
print(“Fibonacci sequence :”)
print (n1)
else:
print(“Fibonacci sequence : “)
print (n1, “, “, n2, end = “,”)
while count < nterms:
nth = n1 + n2
print(nth, end = ‘,’)
n1 = n2
n2 = nth
count + = 1
Output:
How many terms? 10
Fibonacci sequence:
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34

Question 30.
Write the different types of function?
Answer:

1. User-defined Functions
2. Built-in Functions
3. Lambda Functions
4. Recursion Functions

Question 31.
Write a note on pow( ) function.
Answer:
pow ()
Description: Returns the computation of ab i.e. (a**b ) a raised to the power of b.
Syntax : pow (a, b)
Example:
a = 5
b = 2
c = 3.0
print (pow (a,b))
print (pow (a,c))
print (pow (a+b, 3))
Output:
25
125.0
343

Question 32.
Write a note on Return Statement.
Answer:

1. The return statement causes your function to exit and returns a value to its caller. The point of functions in general is to take inputs and return something.
2. The return statement is used when a function is ready to return a value to its caller. So, only . one return statement is executed at run time even though the function contains multiple return statements.
3. Any number of ‘return’ statements are allowed in a function definition but only one of them is executed at run time.

Question 33.
Explain Intersection with example.
Answer:
Intersection (symbol: ∩) A ∩ B
Defines a relation consisting of a set of all tuple that are in both in A and B. However, A and B must be union-compatible.
Example:

Table A ∩ B
Studno	Name
csl	Kannan
cs3	Lenin

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
Explain various types of variable scope.
Answer:
There are 4 types of Variable Scope, let’s discuss them one by one:
Local Scope:
Local scope refers to variables defined in current function. Always, a function will first look up for a variable name in its local scope. Only if it does not find it there, the outer scopes are checked.
Look at this example

On execution of the above code the variable a displays the value 7, because it is defined and available in the local scope.

Global Scope:
A variable which is declared outside of all the functions in a program is known as global variable. This means, global variable can be accessed inside or outside of all the functions in a program.
Consider the following example

On execution of the above code the variable a which is defined inside the function displays the value 7 for the function call Disp() and then it displays 10, because a is defined in global scope.

Enclosed Scope:
All programming languages permit functions to be nested. A function (method) with in another function is called nested function. A variable which is declared inside a function which contains another function definition with in it, the inner function can also access the variable of the outer function. This scope is called enclosed scope.

When a compiler or interpreter search for a variable in a program, it first search Local, and then search Enclosing scopes.
Consider the following example.

In the above example Disp 1 () is defined with in Disp (). The variable ‘a’ defined in Disp () can be even used by Disp 1 () because it is also a member of Disp ().

Built-in Scope:
Finally, we discuss about the widest scope. The built-in scope has all the names that are pre-loaded into the program scope when we start the compiler or interpreter. Any variable or module which is defined in the library functions of a programming language has Built-in or module scope. They are loaded as soon as the library files are imported to the program.

Normally only Functions or modules come along with the software, as packages. Therefore they will come under Built in scope.

[OR]

(b) Explain pure functions with example.
Answer:
Pure functions are functions which will give exact result when the same arguments are passed. For example the mathematical function sin (0) always results 0. This means that every time you call the function with the same arguments, you will always get the same result. A function can be a pure function provided it should not have any external variable which will alter the behaviour of that variable. Let us see an example:

The above function square is a pure function because it will not give different results for same input.
There are various theoretical advantages of having pure functions. One advantage is that if a function is pure, then if it is called several times with the same arguments, the compiler only needs to actually call the function once. Lt’s see an example:

If it is compiled, strlen (s) is called each time and strlen needs to iterate over the whole of ‘s’. If the compiler is smart enough to work out that strlen is a pure function and that ‘s’ is not updated in the loop, then it can remove the redundant extra calls to strlen and make the loop to execute only one time. From these what we can understand, strlen is a pure function because the function takes one variable as a parameter, and accesses it to find its length. This function reads external memory but does not change it, and the value returned derives from the external memory accessed.

Question 35 (a).
Explain selection sort.
Answer:
The selection sort is a simple sorting algorithm that improves on the performance of bubble sort by making only one exchange for every pass through the list. This algorithm will first find the smallest elements in array and swap it with the element in the first position of an array, then it will find the second smallest element and swap that element with the element in the second position, and it will continue until the entire array is sorted in respective order. This algorithm repeatedly selects the next-smallest element and swaps in into the right place for every pass. Hence it is called selection sort.

Pseudo code:

1. Start from the first element i.e., index-0, we search the smallest element in the array, and replace it with the element in the first position.
2. Now we move on to the second element position, and look for smallest element present in the sub-array, from starting index to till the last index of sub – array.
3. Now replace the second smallest identified in step-2 at the second position in the or original array, or also called first position in the sub array.
4. This is repeated, until the array is completely sorted.

Let’s consider an array with values {13, 16, 11, 18, 14, 15}
Below, we have a pictorial representation of how selection sort will sort the given array.

In the first pass, the smallest element will be 11, so it will be placed at the first position. After that, next smallest element will be searched from an array. Now we will get 13 as the smallest, so it will be then placed at the second position.

Then leaving the first element, next smallest element will be searched, from the remaining elements. We will get 13 as the smallest, so it will be then placed at the second position.

Then leaving 11 and 13 because they are at the correct position, we will search for the next smallest element from the rest of the elements and put it at third position and keep doing this until array is sorted. Finally we will get the sorted array end of the pass as shown above diagram.

[OR]

(b) Explain operators in python.
Answer:
Operators:
In computer programming languages operators are special symbols which represent computations, conditional matching etc. The value of an operator used is called operands. Operators are categorized as Arithmetic, Relational, Logical, Assignment etc. Value and variables when used with operator are known as operands.
(i) Arithmetic operators:
An arithmetic operator is a mathematical operator that takes two operands and performs a calculation on them. They are used for simple arithmetic. Most computer languages contain a set of such operators that can be used within equations to perform different types of sequential calculations.
Python supports the following Arithmetic operators.

Program To test Arithmetic Operators:
#Demo Program to test Arithmetic Operators
a = 100
b = 10
print (“The Sum = “, a + b)
print (“The Difference = “, a – b)
print (“The Product. = “, a * b)
print (“The Quotient = “, a / b)
print (“The Remainder = “, a % 30)
print (“The Exponent = “, a ** 2)
print (“The Floor Division =”, a // 30)
#ProgramEnd
Output:
The Sum = 110
The Difference = 90
The Product = 1000
The Quotient = 10.0
The Remainder = 10
The Exponent = 10000
The Floor Division = 3

(ii) Relational or Comparative operators
A Relational operator is also called as Comparative operator which checks the relationship between two operands. If the relation is true, it returns True; otherwise it returns False.
Python supports following relational operators

Program To test Relational Operators:
#Demo Program to test Relational Operators
a = int (input(“Enter a Value for A:”))
b = int (input(“Enter a Value for B:”))
print (“A = “, a ,” and B = “, b)
print (“The a==b = “, a == b)
print (“The a > b = “, a > b)
print (“The a < b = “, a < b)
print (“The a >= b = “, a >= b)
print (“The a <= b = “, a <= 0)
print (“The a != b = “, a!=b)
#Program End
Output:
Enter a Value for A: 35
Enter a Value for B:56
A = 35 and B = 56
The a==b = False
The a > b = False
The a < b = True
The a >= b = False
The a <= b = False
The a != b = True

(iii) Logical operators
In python, Logical operators are used to perform logical operations on the given relational expressions. There are three logical operators they are and, or and not.

(iv) Assignment operators:
In Python, = is a simple assignment operator to assign values to variable. Let a = 5 and b = 10 assigns the value 5 to a and 10 to b these two assignment statement can also be given as a, b = 5, 10 that assigns the value 5 and 10 on the right to the variables a and b respectively. There are various compound operators in Python like +=, -=, *=, /=, %=, **= and //= are also available.

(v) Conditional operator:
Ternary operator is also known as conditional operator that evaluate something based on a condition being true or false. It simply allows testing a condition in a single line replacing the multiline if-else making the code compact.
The Syntax conditional operator is,
Variable Name = [on_true] if [Test expression] else [on_false]
Example:
min = 50 if 49 < 50 else 70 # min = 50 min = 50 if 49 > 50 else 70 # min = 70

Program to test Conditional (Ternary) Operator:
# Program to demonstrate conditional operator.
a, b = 30, 20
# Copy value of a in min if a < b else copy b
min = a if a < b else b print (“The Minimum of A and B is “,min) # End of the Program Output: The Minimum of A and B is 20

Question 36 (a).
Write a python script with SQL to display the name and grade of students who have born in the year 2001. Answer:
Querying a Date Column In this example we are going to display the name and grade of students who have born in the -year 2001
Example: import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect (“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor ( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student
WHERE(Birth_date >= 2001-01-01′ AND Birth_date <= ‘2001-12-01’)”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
Output:
(5, ‘VARUN’)

[OR]

(b) Write a python program to display-
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5
Answer:
Program to illustrate the use nested loop -for within while loop
i = 1
while (i <= 6): for j in range (1, i): print (j,end=’\t’) print (end-\n’) i + = 1
Output
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5

Question 37 (a).
Explain the following built in functions.
(a) id ()
(b) Chr ()
(c) round ()
(d) type ()
(e) pow ()
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain how to delete elements from a list.
Answer:
Deleting elements from a list There are two ways to delete an element from a list viz. del statement and remove() function, del statement is used to delete known elements whereas remove() function is used to delete elements of a list if its index is unknown. The del statement can also be used to delete entire list.
Syntax:
del List [index of an element]
# to delete a particular element
del List [index from : index to]
# to delete multiple elements
del List
# to delete entire list
Example:
>>> MySubjects = [‘Tamil’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Telugu’, ‘Maths’]
>>> print (MySubjects)
[‘Tamil’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Telugu’, ’Maths’]
>>> del MySubjects[1]
>>> print (MySubjects)
[‘Tamil’, ‘Telugu’, ‘Maths’]

In the above example, the list MySubjects has been created with four elements, print statement shows all the elements of the list. In >>> del MySubjects[1] statement, deletes an element whose index value is 1 and the following print shows the remaining elements of the list.
Example:
>>> del MySubjects [1 :3]
>>> print(My Subjects)
[‘Tamil’]

In the above codes, >>> del MySubjects [1 : 3] deletes the second and third elements from the list. The upper limit of index is specified within square brackets, will be taken as -1 by the python.

Question 38 (a).
Explain various data model.
Answer:

1. A data model describes how the data can be represented and accessed from a software after complete implementation
2. It is a simple abstraction of complex real world data gathering environment.
3. The main purpose of data model is to give an idea as how the final system or software will look like after development is completed.

Types of Data Model
Following are the different types of a Data Model

1. Hierarchical Model
2. Relational Model
3. Network Database Model
4. Entity Relationship Model
5. Object Model

1. Hierarchical Model:
Hierarchical model was developed by IBM as Information Management System.

In Hierarchical model, data is represented as a simple tree like structure form. This model represents a one-to-many relationship i.e. parent – child relationship.

One child can have only one parent but one parent can have many children. This model is mainly used in IBM Main Frame computers.

2. Relational Model:
The Relational Database model was first proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970 . Now a days, it is the most widespread data model used for database applications around the world.

The basic structure of data in relational model is tables (relations). All the information’s related to a particular type is stored in rows of that table. Hence tables are also known as relations in a relational model. A relation key is an attribute which uniquely identifies a particular tuple (row in a relation (table)).

3. Network Model:
Network database model is an extended form of hierarchical data model. The difference between hierarchical and Network data model is:

• In hierarchical model, a child record has only one parent node,
• In a Network model, a child may have many parent nodes. It represents the data in many to – many relationships.

This model is easier and faster to access the data

School represents the parent node
Library, Office and Staff room is a child to school (parent node)
Student is a child to library, office and staff room (one to many relationship)

4. Entity Relationship Model.
In this database model, relationship are created by dividing the object into entity and its characteristics into attributes.

It was developed by Chen in 1976. This model is useful in developing a conceptual design for the database. It is very simple and easy to design logical view of data. The developer can easily understand the system by looking at ER model constructed.

Rectangle represents the entities. E.g. Doctor and Patient
Ellipse represents the attributes E.g. D-id, D-name, P-id, P-name. Attributes describes the characteristics and each entity becomes a major part of the data stored in the database. Diamond represents the relationship in ER diagrams
E.g. Doctor diagnosis the Patient.

5. Object Model
Object model stores the data in the form of objects, attributes and methods, classes and Inheritance. This model handles more complex applications, such as Geographic information System (GIS), scientific experiments, engineering design and manufacturing. It is ‘ used in file Management System. It represents real world objects, attributes and behaviors. It provides a clear modular structure. It is easy to maintain and modify the existing code.

An example of the Object model is Shape,
Circle, Rectangle and Triangle are all objects in this model.

• Circle has the attribute radius.
• Rectangle has the attributes length and breadth.
• Triangle has the attributes base and height.
• The objects Circle, Rectangle and Triangle inherit from the object Shape.

[OR]

(b) Explain creating a New Normal CSV file with syntex and program.
Answer:
Creating A New Normal CSV File
When you have a set of data that you would like to store inside a CSV file, it’s time to do the opposite and use the write function.
The csv.writer() method returns a writer object which converts the user’s data into delimited strings on the given file-like object. The writerow() method writes a row of data into the specified file.

You can create a normal CSV file using writer() method of csv module having default delimiter comma (,)
Here’s an example.
The following Python program converts a List of data to a CSV file called “Pupil.csv” that uses, (comma) as a value separator.

When you open the “Pupil.csv” file with a text editor, it will show the content as follows.

In this program, csv.writer() method converts all the data in the list “csvData” to strings and create the content as file like object. The writerows () method writes all the data in to the new CSV file “Pupil.csv”.