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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 5

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
Nicola was glaring at his young brother in vexation.
(a) approval (b) appreciation (c) annoyance (d) admiration
Answer:
(c) annoyance

Question 2.
Suffering seems so cruelly prevalent in this world today.
(a) common (b) scarce (c) abundant (d) meagre
Answer:
(c) abundant

Question 3.
Seeing your car pulled up by his insolence of office, feel that your liberty has been outraged.
(a) calmness (b) rudeness (c) closeness (d) attraction
Answer:
(b) rudeness

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Let me state unequivocally that Tamil is one of the greatest classical literature and traditions of the world. (excluded from the textbook)
(a) ambiguously (b) clearly (c) unmistakably (d) undoubtedly
Answer:
(a) ambiguously

Question 5.
China tea has virtues that are not to be despised.
(a) hated (b) loath (c) averted (d) liked
Answer:
(d) liked

Question 6.
One night, we came upon them in the windy and deserted square.
(a) inhabited (b) unoccupied (c) crowded (d) shrouded
Answer:
(a) inhabited

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word “clear cut”.
(a) Adjective + Verb (b) Gerund + Noun (c) Noun + Noun (d) Noun + Verb
Answer:
(a) Adjective + Verb

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of GDP.
(a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Gross Domestic Purchase (c) Great Demand for Purchase (d) Great Domestic Purchase
Answer:
(a) Gross Domestic Product

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence: English is the lingua franca of many countries.
(a) Mother tongue (b) Foreign Language (c) Unknown Language (d) Common Language
Answer:
(d) Common Language

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word ‘diplonomics’.
(a) Diplo + Economics (b) Diplomacy + Economy (c) Diplo + Economy (d) Diplomacy + Economics
Answer:
(d) Diplomacy + Economics

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for ‘pianoforte’.
(a) Port (b) Pite (c) Piano (d) Pianoforte
Answer:
(c) Piano

Question 12.
Study of codes is called
(a) Cynology (b) Cryptology (c) Criminology (d) Cytology
Answer:
(b) Cryptology

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘argue’.
(a) Contra (b) Counter (c) Bi (d) Pre
Answer:
(b) Counter

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun. He hesitates is lost.
(a) whose (b) whom (c) who (d) that
Answer:
(c) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition. Here is the watch that you asked
(a) of (b) from (c) for (d) at
Answer:
(c) for

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. Let’s go to the beach,?
(a) don’t we (b) do we (c) shall we (d) didn’t we
Answer:
(c) shall we

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence. When asked to reconsider his decision, he put his foot down.
(a) Accepted (b) Refused (c) Felt happy (d) Grew angry
Answer:
(b) Refused

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. She is a fat woman.
(a) bulky (b) obese (c) full-figured (d) heavy weight
Answer:
(c) full-figured

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. The Headmaster sent the latecomer out.
(a) SVC A (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVIODO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. Project is a placement in Australia.
(a) longing on (b) longing to (c) longing for (d) longing of
Answer:
(c) longing for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Our gates were strong, our walls were thick,
So smooth and high, no man could win”
(а) How safe was the castle?
(b) What was the firm belief of the soldiers?
Answer:
(a) No enemy could think of climbing the castle which had high and smooth walls as soldiers were ready to shoot the enemy at first sight. The moat was also deadly and deep and hence one can say that the castle was quite safe.
(b) The firm belief of the soldiers was that their castle was unconquerable as they felt safe and secure behind the castle.

Question 22.
“A creeper climbs, in whose embraces bound No other tree could live.”
(а) Which tree is referred to in the above lines?
(b) How does the tree survive the tight hold of the creeper?
Answer:
(a) The tree referred to in the above lines is Casuarina.
(b) The tree survives the tight hold of the creeper like the embraces of a lady love. So the embraces doesn’t hurt the tree as it grows stronger bearing the bite marks of love.

Question 23.
“Then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail Unwillingly to school.”
(a) Which stage of life is being referred to here by the poet?
(b) What are the characteristics of this stage?
Answer:
(a) The stage of life referred to here by the poet is ‘Boyhood’.
(b) Innocence, joy and care-free life are the characteristics of the boyhood stage.

Question 24.
“for my purpose holds
To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths
Of all the western stars, until I die. ”
(а) What was Ulysses’ purpose in life?
(b) How long would his venture last?
Answer:
(a) Ulysses wants to sail beyond the sunset and the baths of all the western stars before his death. He seeks life in death. Mortals can’t reach such places while they are alive. Ulysses wants to find direct signs of spiritual reality after death wanting to venture into the unknown.
(b) His venture would last as long as he doesn’t face his death.

Question 25.
“Let him have lazy days seeking his deeper motives. Let him seek deep for where he is born natural.”
(а) Why does the son need lazy days?
(b) What is the figure of speech used here?
Answer:
(a) Lazy days would help the boy to find his inborn abilities and spur him to discover the purpose for which he came into this world.
(b) Transferred Epithet.

Question 26.
“A film the mother-eagle’s eye
When her bruised eaglet breathes
(a) Who is compared to the mother eagle in the above lines?
(b) What are the alliterated words?
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is compared to mother eagle.
(b) The alliterated words are bruised breathes.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Customer : Do you have a thesaurus?
Shop owner : Yes. We have. Which publication do you want?
The customer asked the shop owner if they had a thesaurus.
The shopkeeper replied that they had and also asked which publication he wanted.

Question 28.
I was ill. I did not attend the exam, (combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I were ill, I would not attend the exam. [Or]
If I weren’t ill I would have attended the exam.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
Answer:
Had I a car, I would drop you.

Question 30.
I watched a fantastic movie. (Change the following into a complex sentence)
Answer:
I watched a movie which was fantastic.
Or
I watched a movie that was fantastic.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They seemed to be no threat to us at all.
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “The Castle” written by Edwin Muir.

Context: The poem says that greed must be rooted out from one’s soul to keep a country safe.

Explanation: The poet says these words while exhibiting the invincibility of their strong castle. They could watch the movement of enemies from the steeple wall and shoot down the enemy at a distance of half-a-kilometer. They had a stock pile of arms. Their granary was full to sustain the people in the event of a siege. Only a bird could have got into the castle. So, the enemies did not seem to be a threat at all to the soldiers.

Question 32.
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: This poem clearly states that life is a drama and all who pass this are mere actors.

Explanation: William Shakespeare says these words while describing the fourth stage. Here, the young man becomes a soldier and runs after short-lived glory. He has an inflated sense of honour and is ready to insist on duals to settle matters touching his honour. He does not realise that the name he seeks is short-lived like a bubble.

Question 33.
‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The poet emphasizes the fact that liberty gains value when it is curtailed.

Explanation: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy- soldier. The boy-soldier who brought the news of conquest of Ratisbon was all but split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said these words with a smile on his lips as he fell beside his Chief.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What were the various jobs undertaken by Nicola and Jacopo?
Answer:
There were various jobs undertaken by Nicola and Jacopa. They sold wild berries. They polished shoes. They showed visitors through the town to Juliet’s tomb and other places of interest. They even booked a seat for the narrator in a theatre and got American cigars for him.

Question 35.
How did the hospitalization of Dr. Barnard and his wife affect their routine?
Answer:
As a heart surgeon, Dr. Barnard had to operate many patients suffering from heart ailments. He was helpless as he had perforated lungs and broken ribs. His wife could not take care of the baby. Thus the routine life of both Dr. Barnard and his wife was affected adversely.

Question 36.
Define liberty as perceived by A.G. Gardiner.
Answer:
Liberty is an accommodation of interests. It is a social contract rather than a personal affair, requiring an adjustment of our interests.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Which is the most favourite game of the students?
(b) Name the game preferred by the least number of students?
(c) W hich two games have equal number of students?
Answer:
(a) Cricket is the most favourite game of the students.
(b) Volley Ball is the game preferred by the least number of students.
(c) Badminton and Football are the two games which have equal number of students.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a student and a cultural secretary.
Answer:
Student : When is this year’s cultural competition scheduled?
Cultural Secretary: Mostly, it will be during the third week of October.
Student : Are there any new and exciting events proposed?
Cultural Secretary : Yes, there is plenty in store and we are waiting for the consent from our Principal.
Student : Okay great. When is the last date of registration?
Cultural Secretary: The last date for registration is on 23rd September.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making onion raita.
Answer:
• Take two or three big onions and peel the covering layer.
• Chop the tips on both the sides.
• Slice them into small chunks and add two to three chopped green chillies.
• Mix in it slightly thinned curd and add salt to taste. Garnish with coriander leaves.
• Onion raita is ready to be served.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) Brevity is the of wit. (base, soul, root)
(b) alone triumphs. (Truth, God, Love)
(c) A man is known by the he keeps, (company, relatives, neighbours)
Answer:
(a) soul (b) Truth (c) company

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Justify the title of the story ‘Two Gentleman of Verona’.
Answer:
In the story, ‘Two gentlemen of Verona’, Archibald Joseph Cronin portrays the two orphan boys Jacopo and Nicola who work immensely and exhaustively. They shine shoes, sell newspapers, run errands and show tourists all around the city. They take only figs and black tea as food. They save every penny for the medical treatment of their sister Lucia who is suffering from Tuberculosis of the spine. The narrator himself admits that their willingness to work impressed him.

They demonstrate an unusual devotion to their work. The objective of their hard work and purpose behind their half-starved daily routine is not known to many in Verona. Anyone may polish shoes or hawk newspapers but it is the magnanimity of heart and nobleness of purpose that actually determines whether one is a real gentleman or a hypocrite. Hence the title “Two gentlemen of Verona” is justified with no further dispute.

Or

How does George L. Hart justify the statement that Tamil is a classical language? (excluded from the textbook)

Question 42.
Describe the various stages of a man’s life picturised in the poem “All the World’s a stage.”
Answer:
William Shakespeare has beautifully portrayed this world as a huge open theatre where in all human beings play the seven acts/ages of life. In the first act, he is a helpless infant puking on the nurse’s arms, mewling like a kitten. In the second stage, he is the grumbling/whining school student. He moves to school like a snail, reluctant to go to school with his slate and bag. In the third act, he is a lover sighing and yearning for the attention of his lady love.

He composes romantic ballads complaining to his love that he needs a better deal. In the fourth act, he becomes a quick-tempered soldier, aggressive and ambitious, ready to stake his life for the sake of bubble reputation. As he matures, he becomes a wise judge of contemporary life quoting wise maxims to endorse his opinion. He is firm and serious. In the sixth act, his stout legs become thin making his trousers of youth unsuitable.

Thin and lean legs easily travel through them but are unable to stay due to a slimmed waist. His bass voice has become treble like that of a child. In the last act, he is without teeth, without eyes, without taste and without everything (i.e.) loses all senses thus leading to his departure from the world.

Or

The young soldier matched his emperor in courage and patriotism. Elucidate your answer.
Answer:
In the poem, Incident of the French Camp by Robert Browning, Emperor Napoleon was an astute planner planning the moves of the battle observing each step the French army made. As Emperor Napoleon was a bold and wise warrior, he always had two plans. One was to advance forward if the battle brought victory and the next was to decide what had to be done in case the battle was lost. He was not resting at a tent during the battle. He was very close to the place of battle planning the strategic steps. Similarly, the boy-soldier was also equally brave.

Unlike the emperor, the boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting the French national flag. Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse-back to communicate the news of the conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. So, it is obvious that the boy soldier’s patriotism and gallantry are equal to that of Napoleon, his emperor.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Ivan Dmitrich Aksionov – merchant in Vladimir – goes to fair on business – meets another merchant – retire separately – stopped by the police – charged of murder and robbery – sentenced and sent to Siberia – 26 years in jail – new prisoner – Makar Semyonich – admits his crime – Aksionov dies.
Answer:
Aksionov was a businessman. He lived with his wife and children. He was full of life. He sang and played the Guitar and occasionally drank too. Once he got ready to go to the fair. His wife tried to stop him saying that she had a bad dream. On his return from the fair, his hair had turned grey. It was ominous. But Ivan ignored his wife’s warning and went to the fair. As he liked cool weather, he left the inn early. He was intercepted by the police who searched his belongings. Finding a blood-stained knife in his bag, he was arrested on charges of murder.

His wife’s petition for clemency to the Tsar was turned down. His wife’s unwillingness to trust him was more devastating than Tsar’s rejection of mercy petition. He was flogged. After the wounds healed he was sent to work in the mines of Siberia. Staying 26 years in Siberia he grew a long beard. He became grand father to the prisoners. He read “The lives of saints” and was found praying and singing in the choir. He was respected both by the fellow prisoners and the jail authorities for his gentle behaviour. Everyone in the jail believed in his innocence and unjust condemnation.

One day a new convict namely Makar Semyonich came there. When Makar blurted out how the knife went to his bag kept under his head, Ivan recognized Makar as the real murderer of the merchant. Ivan had a chance to expose Makar to the jail authorities. But he kept quiet. Makar became remorseful and asked Ivan’s forgiveness. He forgave him. Makar confessed to the authorities. The order of pardon came but then Ivan was dead.

[OR]

Group of school children – planet Venus raining for seven years – predicted sun -for two hours – children in activity – Margot thin girl – not mingling – children locked her in a closet – sun appeared – children played – rain clouds appeared – unlocked the closet – Margot came out – power of sun.
Answer:
This story ‘All in a Summer Day’ by Ray Bradbury’ is set on the planet Venus, where the sun shines for only two hours every seven years. It opens on the day when scientists state that the sun is due to make its appearance. Margot and the other children in her school on Venus are nine years old. Margot came from Earth to Venus five years ago and so she accurately recalls the sun the way she had experienced it in Ohio. However, this is not the case with the other children. They were far too young to remember what the sun was like when last it shone upon them.

They can only imagine the warmth of that sun upon their arms and legs. Margot tells the others that the sun is round like a penny and hot like a fire in the stove. The other children accuse her of lying, and they show their resentment by locking her in a closet. When the Venus rains finally stop and the sun comes out, it sends a flaming bronze colour. The children soak up the life-giving sunshine until the rains start to fall again. The children now know that Margot was telling the truth about the sun and remember that Margot is still locked in the closet but for her, it is too late — she must wait seven years to see the sun again

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The aim of education is to enable human personality to grow to its full stature. We have a body, a mind and a spirit. Accordingly, education aims at our physical, intellectual, spiritual and moral development.

Games are a means of keeping the body healthy and fit. Physical fitness and freedom from all kinds of ailments are the desire and ambition of every human being. Indeed, good health is the first condition of happiness in life. Those who play games generally maintain good health. Games are an excellent means of bodily exercise. Whether it is sophisticated games like hockey, football and tennis or simple games like Kabbadi, they provide the much needed exercise to the body and thus keep the body healthy and strong. Players always have a better appetite and a better digestion than those who play no games or do exercises. Games not only make the body healthy and strong, but also make it muscular.

Notes
Title: Aim of Education

Human personality growth:
Full stature – Body, mind, spirit
Physical, Intellectual, spiritual and moral
Desire of Human-being

Benefits of Games:
Keep body fit
Physical fitness
Freedom from all ailments
Good health
Excellent body exercise
Good appetite and digestive system

Types of Games:
Sophisticated games – hockey, football, tennis
Simple games – kabbadi

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 156
No. of words to be written in the summary: 156/3 = 32 ± 5

Title: Aim of Education
Rough Draft

The-aim of education is to enable human personality to grow fully in body, mind and spirit enabling physical, intellectual, spiritual and moral development. Games keep the body healthy and fit free from all kinds of elements. Good health is the first condition of happiness in life. Those who play games generally mainten good health for it’s an excellent means of bodily exercise. Sophisticated games or simple games keeps the body healthy and strong. Players have better appetite and digestion. Games not only make the body helthy and strong, but also make it muscular.

Enabling human personality to develop physically, intellectually, spiritually and morally is the aim of education. Those who play games maintain good health for it’s an excellent means of bodily exercise. Sophisticated games or simple games keeps the body healthy and strong. Players have better appetite and digestion. Games not only make it fit but also muscular.
No. of words written in the summary: 56

Question 45.
You have got a job offer for the post of clerk at Cheyyur Construction Pvt. Ltd., Mount Road, Chennai – 02, but cannot join due to some urgent work at home. Write a letter to the HR (Human Resource Manager) of that company, and in your letter :
Say why you are writing; Explain your situation What you want to request from manager (write XXX for your name and YYY for your address).
Answer:
12th November, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
To
Human Resource Manager
Cheyyur Construction Pvt.Ltd.
Mount Road
Chennai – 02
Respected Sir,

Sub.: Regret joining duty immediately
Ref. : Letter dtd. 10.11.2020 – Reg. Job offer

Thank you very much for your letter dated 10th November, 2020 offering me a job at your esteemed organisation.

I am extremely sorry to inform you that I will not be able to j oin duty on 1 st December, due to family constraints. As my younger sister is getting married on 15th December at Rajasthan, it is impossible for me to j oin duty on 1 st December. Marriage is more a ritual than a celebration and hence my presence at home is inevitable.

I request you to thereby consider my plea to join duty any day after the 20th of December,
2020.
Thanking you in advance for your understanding and acceptance. Looking forward to a promising career ahead.

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope:
To
Human Resource Manager
Cheyyur Construction Pvt.Ltd.,
Mount Road,
Chennai – 02

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Newspaper Reading”.

Newspaper Reading

Today, reading a newspaper is a powerful tool which enhances confidence and personality of a person. It is a good source of getting more knowledge and information as well as enhancing skill level. It is available in almost all languages. It is difficult to imagine life without a newspaper. It is the first and foremost thing everyone looks for every morning. It is a publication of the news which gets printed on the paper and distributed to everyone. Newspaper gives us the information about the happenings in and around us. Various newspaper in market costs differently according to their news details and popularity in the area. Newspapers serve more than one purpose according to the need and requirement of the people. In comparison to the information it gives, its cost is very less. It helps us a lot by keeping us up-to-date about news all over the world. It helps us in widening our knowledge, skill, and technical awareness. We should continue to read newspapers and motivate other family members and friends also to read them.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(a) He gave a lot of advices.
(b) I have finished my meals.
(c) They discussed about politics.
(d) Though he is ill, but he attends the class.
(e) If they had contacted me, I would help them.
Answer:
(a) He gave a lot of advice.
(b) I have finished my meal.
(c) They discussed politics.
(d) Though he is ill, he attends the class. [Or]
He is ill but he attends the class.
(e) If they had contacted me, I would have helped them.

[Or]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) I can’t the heat, if I want on …………… foot, (bare / bear)
(b) …………… excuse me for a moment? (Use a modal verb)
(c) You …………… not lose anymore weight. You are already slim. (Use a Semi modal verb)
(d) My brother …………… (buy) a bike recently. (Use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bear, bare (b) Will (c) dare not (d) bought

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) India, U.K. Oncologists collaborate.
(b) Ganesha idols immersed.
(c) Kejriwal wins the conference vote.
(d) Sunflower oil cuts down cholesterol.
(e) Green tea plantations in Ooty.
[Health, Medicine, Agriculture, Religion, Politics]
Answer:
(a) Medicine (b) Religion (c) Politics (d) Health (e) Agriculture

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.

Kabbadi is contact team sport that originated in Tamil Nadu. It is the national sport of Bangladesh. Kabbadi is played between two teams of seven players, the objective of the game is for a single player on offence referred to as a ‘raider’ to run into the opposite teams half of a court, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court-all without being tackled by the defenders. Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider, while the opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider. Players are taken out of the game, if they are tagged or tackled, but can be revived for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle. The raider should hold his breath and utter the words like “Kabbadi, Kabbadi” “hututu hututu”, “chadu kudu”, etc., while the opponents try to catch him. If he stops uttering those words, he is considered out.

Questions:
a. Kabbadi is a national sport of
b. Kabbadi is played between two teams of players.
c. How does a raider score points for his team?
d. When does a raider concede a point to the opponent team?
e. Can a player be revived when he/she is out of the game?
Answers:
(a) Bangladesh.
(b) seven
(c) Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider.
(d) The opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider.
(e) Yes. The player can be revived for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

To Dr. C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Sunshine Public School, Elagiri Admission Notice 7th December, 2019 The admission for the coming academic year viz. 2020-2021 will begin from the second week of January, 2020. The prospectus and admission forms can be purchased from the school office from 8th January to 30th January, 2020 between 10 a.m. and 4.30 p.m. The last date for the submission of the duly filled forms is 28th February, 2020. Principal Mr. Samson – Sunshine Public School

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 10 Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 10 Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following statements and choose the right option:
(i) Cereals are members of grass family.
(ii) Most of the food grains come from monocotyledon.
(a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: Vegetables are important part of healthy eating.
Reason: Vegetables are succulent structures of plants with pleasant aroma and flavours.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
(b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
(d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
Answer:
(d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.

Question 3.
Groundnut is native of _____________
(a) Philippines
(b) India
(c) North America
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 4.
Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine.
Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer.
(a) A is correct, B is wrong
(b) A and B – Both are correct
(c) A is wrong, B is correct
(d) A and B – Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct, B is wrong

Question 5.
Tectona grandis is coming under family _____________
(a) Lamiaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Dipterocaipaceae
(d) Ebenaceae
Answer:
(a) Lamiaceae

Question 6.
Tamarindus indica is indigenous to _____________
(a) Tropical African region
(b) South India, Sri Lanka
(c) South America, Greece
(d) India alone
Answer:
(a) Tropical African region

Question 7.
New world species of cotton _____________
(a) Gossipium arboretum
(b) G.herbaceum
(c) Both a and b
(d) G.barbadense
Answer:
(d) G.barbadense

Question 8.
Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds of cancer.
Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant present in turmeric.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
(b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

Question 9.
Find out the correctly matched pair:
(a) Rubber Shorea robusta
(b) Dye
(c) Timber Cyperus papyrus
(d) Pulp Hevea brasiliensis
Answer:
(b) Dye

Question 10.
Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I – Perfumes are manufactured from essential oils.
Statement II – Essential oils are formed at different parts of the plants.
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both statements are correct

Question 11.
Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I: The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, ores and minerals.
Statement II: Minerals are used for preparing drugs with long shelf-life.
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both statements are correct

Question 12.
The active principle trans-tetra hydro canabial is present in _____________
(a) Opium
(b) Curcuma
(c) Marijuana
(d) Andrographis
Answer:
(c) Marijuana

Question 13.
Which one of the following matches is correct?
(a) Palmyra – Native of Brazil
(b) Saccharun – Abundant in Kanyakumari
(c) Steveocide – Natural sweetener
(d) Palmyra sap – Fermented to give ethanol
Answer:
(c) Steveocide – Natural sweetener

Question 14.
The only cereal that has originated and domesticated from the New world.
(a) Oryza sativa
(b) Triticum aestivum
(c) Triticum duram
(d) Zea mays
Answer:
(c) Triticum duram

Question 15.
Write the cosmetic uses of Aloe.
Answer:

• Skin tonic
• Due to cooling effect, moisturising characteristics, used in preparation of cream, lotion, shampoo, sharing cream, aftershave lotion.
• Gerontological application for rejuvenation of aging skin. (Gerontology -வயதாவதினால் தோலில் ஏற்படும் மாற்றங்கள் குறித்த படிப்பு )
• Products are emollient (lubricant), antibacterial, antioxidant, antifungal and antiseptic.

Question 16.
What is pseudo cereal? Give an example.
Answer:
The term pseudo-cereal is used to describe foods that are prepared and eaten as a whole grain, but are botanical outliers from grasses. Example: quinoa. It is actually a seed from the Chenopodium quinoa plant, belongs to the family Amaranthaceae.

Question 17.
Discuss which wood is better for making furniture.
Answer:

• Teak (Tectona grandis) is from South East Asia.
• Cultivated in Bengal, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Northwest India.
• Heartwood is golden yellow to a golden brown.
• Durable and Immune to termite and fungi attack.
• Carpenter friendly. It does not split or crack.
• Used in
• Railway carriage, Wagon
• Shipbuilding
• Bridge-building
• Making toys, boats, plywood, door frame, doors.

Question 18.
A person got irritation while applying chemical dye. What would be your suggestion for alternative?
Answer:
If a grey haired person is allergic on using chemical dyes then he can go for natural dyes like Henna. Henna is an organic dye obtained from leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis. The principal colouring matter is Tacosone’ which is harmless and causes no irritation on skin.

Question 19.
Name the humors that are responsible for the health of human beings.
Answer:

• Vatam
• Pittam
• Kapam

Question 20.
Give definitions for organic farming?
Answer:
Organic farming is an alternative agricultural system in which plants/crops are cultivated – in natural ways by using biological inputs to maintain soil fertility and ecological balance thereby minimizing pollution and wastage.

Question 21.
Which is called the “King of Bitters”? Mention their medicinal importance.
Answer:

• Nilavembu is called King of Bitter
• Botanical name is Andrographis paniculata.
• It is hepatoprotective
• It treats liver disorders.
• Concoction (Mixture of medicines) of Andrographis paniculata and 8 other herbs (Nilavembu kudineer) treats malaria and dengue.

Question 22.
Differentiate bio-medicines and botanical medicines.
Answer:

1. Bio-medicines: Medically useful molecules obtained from plants that are marketed as drugs are called Bio-medicines.
2. Botanical medicines: Parts of medicinal plants which are modified as powers or pills or other forms and marketed. These are called botanical medicines.

Question 23.
Write the origin and area of cultivation of green gram and red gram.
Answer:

Question 24.
What are millets? What are its types? Give example for each type.
Answer:
Millet’s: Small seeds cultivated by ancient people of Africa, Asia. Gluten-free with a less glycemic index.

Finger Millet (Ragi) (Eleusine coracana)
Came to India from East Africa. It is rich in calcium.’

Uses:

• Staple food in South Indian hills.
• Made into porridge, gruel.
• Ragi malt is a nutrient drink.
• Source of fermented beverages.

Sorghum vulgare.
Native of Africa. Major millet of the world with calcium, iron
Uses:

• Feed to poultry, birds, pigs, cattle
• Alcoholic beverage source.

Fox tail Millet (Setariaitalica)
Oldest traditional millet of India. Domesticated in China about 6000 years.
Uses: Strengthens heart, eye sight, lactation.

Kodo Millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum)
From West Africa.
Uses:

• Flour for pudding
• Diuretic, cures constipation.
• Reduce obesity, blood sugar, blood pressure.

Question 25.
If a person drinks a cup of coffee daily it will help him for his health. Is this correct? If it is correct, list out the benefits.
Answer:
Yes, drinking coffee in moderation enhances the health of a person. Caffeine enhances release of acetylcholine in brain, which in turn enhances efficiency. It can lower the incidence of fatty liver diseases, cirrhosis and cancer. It may reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Question 26.
Enumerate the uses of turmeric.
Answer:

• Ancient Indian spice used for culinary, cosmetic, dyeing, medicinal purpose.
• Used in curry powder
• Colouring agent in food industry, pharmacy and confectionery.
• Turmeric coloured rice is used sacred in ceremonies.
• Dyeing leather, fiber, paper, toys.
• Curcumin of turmeric gives yellow colour. It is a good anti-oxidant fighting cancer.
• It is anti inflammatory
  • anti diabetic
  • antibacterial
  • anti fungal
  • anti viral
• Stops clotting in arteries and heart attack.

Question 27.
What is TSM? How does it classified and what does it focuses on?
Answer:
TSM stands for Traditional Systems of Medicines India has a rich medicinal heritage. Anumber of Traditional Systems of Medicine (TSM) are practiced in India some of which come from outside India. TSM in India can be broadly classified into institutionalized or documented and non-institutionalized or oral traditions. Institutionalized Indian systems include Siddha and Ayurveda which are practiced for about two thousand years.

These systems have prescribed texts in which the symptoms, disease diagnosis, drugs to cure, preparation of drugs, dosage and diet regimes, daily and seasonal regimens. Non-institutional systems, whereas, do not have such records and or practiced by rural and tribal peoples across India. The knowledge is mostly held in oral form. The TSM focus on healthy lifestyle and healthy diet for maintaining good health and disease reversal.

Question 28.
Write the uses of nuts you have studied.
Answer:
Uses of Nuts:
Good source of healthy fat, fibre, protein, vitamin, mineral and antioxidants.

Uses of Cashew nuts:

• Used for garnishing sweets or curries.
• Ground into paste and used for sauces of curries, sweets.
• Roasted, raw kernels are used as snacks.

Question 29.
Give an account on the role of Jasminum in perfuming.
Answer:
The essential jasmine oil is present in the epidermal cells of the inner and outer surfaces of both the sepals and petals. One ton of Jasmine blossom yields about 2.5 to 3 kg of essential oil, comprising 0.25 to 3% of the weight of the fresh flower. Jasmine oil is an essential oil that is valued for its soothing, relaxing and antidepressant qualities.

Question 30.
Give an account of active principle and medicinal values of any two plants you have studied
Answer:

Question 31.
Write the economic importance of rice.
Answer:
Economic Importance of Rice:

• Easily digestible, calorie rice, a staple food in southern, northeast India.
• Flaked rice (Aval), Puffed rice / Parched rice (Pori) are used as breakfast cereal, snack.
• Rice bran oil is used in culinary, industrial purposes.
• Husks are used to prepare fuel, packing material, fertilizer.

Question 32.
Which TSM is widely practiced and culturally accepted in Tamil Nadu? – explain.
Answer:
Siddha is the most popular, widely practiced and culturally accepted system in Tamil Nadu. It is based on the texts written by 18 Siddhars. There are different opinions on the constitution of 18 Siddhars. The Siddhars are not only from Tamil Nadu, but have also come from other countries. The entire knowledge is documented in the form of poems in Tamil. Siddha is principally based on the Pancabuta philosophy. According to this system three humors namely Vatam, Pittam and Kapam that are responsible for the health of human beings and ‘ any disturbance in the equilibrium of these humors result in ill health.

The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, marine products and minerals. This system specializes in using minerals for preparing drugs with a long shelf-life. This system uses about 800 herbs as a source of drugs. Great stress is laid on disease prevention, health promotion, rejuvenation and cure.

Question 33.
What are psychoactive drugs? Add a note of Marijuana and Opium.
Answer:
Psychoactive drugs:

• These are drugs from plants.
• They alter the individual’s perception of the mind.
• It produces hallucination
• In ancient culture, it was used by shamans, traditional healers.

A) Opium Poppy (Papaver somniferum)

• Native to southeastern Europe and west Asia.
• Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh are licensed states to cultivate.
• Opium is derived from exudates of fruits.
• They induce sleep and relieve pain.
• Opium yields Morphine. Analgesic in surgery. Addiction forming drug.

B) Cannabis Marijuana (Cannabis sativa)

• Native of China
• Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarkand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh cultivate.
  Active Principle:
• Trans – tetra-hydro canabinal (THC)

Medicinal Properties:

•  Pain reliever.
• Reduces hypertension
• Treats glaucoma (pressure in eye)
• Reduce nausea in cancer patients undergoing radiation, chemotherapy.
• Relief to Bronchitis, asthma, dilates bronchial vessels.
• Prolonged use cause addiction. Affects health and society.

Question 34.
What are the King and Queen of spices? Explain about them and their uses.
Answer:

King of Spices: Pepper is one of the most important Indian spices referred to as the “King of Spices” and also termed as “Black Gold of India”. Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the top producers in India. The characteristic pungency of the pepper is due to the presence of an alkaloid Pipeline. There are two types of pepper available in the market namely black and white pepper.

Uses:

• It is used for flavouring in the preparation of sauces, soups, curry powder and pickles.
• It is used in medicine as an aromatic stimulant for enhancing salivary and gastric secretions and also as a stomachic.
• Pepper also enhances the bio-absorption of medicines.

Queen of Spices: Cardamom is called “Queen of Spices”. In India, it is one of the main cash crops cultivated in the Western Ghats, and North-Eastern India.

Uses:

• The seeds have a pleasing aroma and a characteristic warm, slightly pungent taste.
• It is used for flavouring confectionaries, bakery products and beverages.
• The seeds are used in the preparation of curry powder, pickles and cakes.
• Medicinally, it is employed as a stimulant and carminative.
• It is also chewed as a mouth freshener.

Question 35.
How will you prepare an organic pesticide for your home garden with the vegetables available from your kitchen?
Answer:
Step 1: Mix 120 g of hot chillies with 110 g of garlic or onion. Chop them thoroughly.

Step 2: Blend the vegetables together manually or using an electric grinder until it forms a thick paste.

Step 3: Add the vegetable paste to 500 ml of warm water. Give the ingredients a stir to thoroughly mix them together.

Step 4: Pour the solution into a glass container and leave it undisturbed for 24 hours. If possible, keep the container in a sunny location. If not, at least keep the mixture in a warm place.

Step 5: Strain the mixture. Pom- the solution through a strainer, remove the vegetables and collect the vegetable-infused water and pour into another container. This filtrate is the pesticide. Either discard the vegetables or use it as a compost.

Step 6: Pour the pesticide into a squirt bottle. Make sure that the spray bottle has first been cleaned with warm water and soap to get rid it of any potential contaminants. Use a funnel to transfer the liquid into the squirt bottle and replace the nozzle.

Step 7: Spray your plants with the pesticide. Treat the infected plants every 4 to 5 days with the solution. After 3 or 4 treatments, the pest will be eliminated. If the area is thoroughly covered with the solution, this pesticide should keep bugs away for the rest of the season.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Paddy, Wheat and Sorghum, etc., come under the category of cereals. All the members of cereals belong to which of the following family?
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Poaceae
(c) Leguminoneae
(d) Caesalpinaeceae
Answer:
(b) Poaceae

Question 2.
Match the common names of the given plant species with their respective binomials

Answer:
(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – iv, C – ii and D – i

Question 3.
Given below are the plant species and their parts used. Which is the incorrect pair(s)?
(i) Cajanus cajan : Seeds
(ii) Anacardium occidentale : nuts
(iii) Borassus flabellifer : Endosperm
(iv) Capsicum annum : leaves
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii only
(d) iv only
Answer:
(d) iv only

Question 4.
Identify the Tamil name for flaked rice
(a) Nel
(b) Aval
(c) Pori
(d) Umi
Answer:
(b) Aval

Question 5.
Pigeon pea is the common name for.
(a) Vigna radiata
(b) Vigna mungo
(c) Cajanus cajan
(d) Sorghum vulgare
Answer:
(c) Cajanus cajan

Question 6.
Sorghum is native to ______ continent.
Answer:
Africa

Question 7.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv and 4 – i

Question 8.
_____ is the state tree of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Palmyra

Question 9.
Statement 1: Arachis hypogea belong to Fabaceae Statement 2: It is a native of Brazil.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 10.
Statement 1: Chinese discovered the paper.
Statement 2: Eucalyptus and Casuarina are the widely used tree species for making paper pulp.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 11.
Statement 1: Andrographis paniculata is known as King of Bitters.
Statement 2: The decoction of Andrographis is used against Diabetes mellitus.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect

Question 12.
Statement 1: Aloe vera belongs to the family Asphodelaceae.
Statement 2: Jasminum grandiflorum belongs to the family of Oleaceae.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is also correct

Question 13.
Which district of Tamil Nadu is the World’s largest wholesale turmeric dealer?
Answer:
Erode

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Turmeric is used to treat cancer.
Reason (R): Curcumin is a biomolecule present in turmeric.
(a) A is right R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is the wrong R is right
(d) A and R are right. R explains A.
Answer:
(d) A and R are right. R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Black pepper is a spice.
Reason (R): Condiments are flavouring substances, generally added after the cooking of food.
(a) A is right R is wrong
(b) R explains A
(c) Both A and R are right. R is not the correct explanation for A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are right. R is not the correct explanation for A.

Question 16.
Select the new world species of cotton.
(i) Gossypium hirsutum
(ii) Gossypium arboreum
(iii) Gossypium arboreum
(iv) Gossypium
(a) i and ii only
(b) i and iii only
(c) iii and iv only
(d) ii and iv only
Answer:
(a) i and ii only

Question 17.
Binomial of teak is ________
Answer:
Tectona grandis

Question 18.
The plant source of Marijuana is ________
(a) Andrographis paniculata
(b) Phyllanthus maderspatensis
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Papaver somniferum
Answer:
(c) Cannabis sativa

Question 19.
Identify the incorrect statements:
(a) Morphine is used as a potent hepatoprotective.
(b) Phyllanthin is used as a strong analgesic in surgery.
(c) Indian Acalypha is used to cure skin diseases.
(d) Cissus quadrangularis is widely used for treating bone fractures.
(i) a and c
(ii) a and d
(iii) b and c
(iv) a and b
Answer:
(iv) a and b

Question 20.
Identify the mismatched pair:
(a) Holy basil – Ocimum sanctum
(b) Indian gooseberry – Phyllanthus amarus
(c) Vilvam – Aegle marmelos
(d) Veldt grape – Cissus quadrangularis
Answer:
(b) Indian gooseberry – Phyllanthus amarus

Question 21.
The active principle in Marijuana is _________
Answer:
Trans-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

Question 22.
The second GI tag for Jasmine is ‘Madurai Malli’, which jasmine type has got the first GI tag?
Answer:
‘Mysore Malli’

Question 23.
The principal coloring agent present in the leaf paste of Lawsonia inermis which give orange to dark red when applied on skin is _______
Answer:
Lacosone

Question 24.
Which state of India ranks first in coffee consumption?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
Name the plant family to which the coffee plant belongs to?
Answer:
Rubiaceae

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Give the binomials of paddy and wheat.
Answer:

1. Paddy: Oryza sativa.
2. Wheat: Triticum aestivum.

Question 2.
What is maida? Mention its culinary purpose.
Answer:
Processed wheat flour, which has little fibre, is called Maida which is used extensively in making parotta, naan and bakery products.

Question 3.
Name any four millet varieties.
Answer:
Finger millet, Sorghum, Foxtail millet and Kodo millet.

Question 4.
Ragi rich food helps to overcome bone-related ailments – justify.
Answer:
Ragi (Finger millet) is a kind of millet that has a less glycemic index and rich in calcium. Hence consuming ragi food items enhances bone strength.

Question 5.
Eating millets are good for diabetic patients. How?
Answer:
Millets are gluten-free and have a less glycemic index, hence it is good for diabetic patients.

Question 6.
Write the health benefits of Kodo millet.
Answer:
Kodo millet is a good diuretic and cures constipation. Helps to reduce obesity, blood sugar, and blood pressure.

Question 7.
Name the family does the cereals and pulses belong.
Answer:

1. Cereals belong to the family Poaceae.
2. Pulses belong to the family Fabaceae.

Question 8.
Write the common name for

1. Vigna radiata
2. Cajanus cajatt

Answer:

1. Vigna radiata – Green gram.
2. Cajanus cajan – Red gram or pigeon pea.

Question 9.
Why do we take vegetables in our diet?
Answer:
Vegetables are an important part of healthy eating and provide many nutrients, including potassium, fiber, folic acid and vitamins A, E and C. The nutrients in vegetables are vital for the maintenance of our health.

Question 10.
Write the binomial and the family to which the lady’s finger belongs to.
Answer:
Binomial of lady’s finger is Abelmoschus esculentus.
Family: Malvaceae.

Question 11.
Which are our National fruit and State tree of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. National fruit of India is Mango.
2. State tree of Tamil Nadu is Palmyra.

Question 12.
Point out the uses of sugarcane.
Answer:
Sugar cane is the raw material for extracting white sugar. Sugarcane supports large number of industries like sugar mills producing refined sugars, distilleries producing liquor grade ethanol and millions of jaggery manufacturing units. Fresh sugarcane juice is a refreshing drink. Molasses is the raw material for the production of ethyl alcohol.

Question 13.
What is toddy?
Answer:
Inflorescence of palmyra is tapped for its sap which is used as health drink. Sap is processed to get palm jaggery or fermented to give toddy.

Question 14.
How coffee plants are introduced to India?
Answer:
Coffea arabica is the prime source of commercial coffee which is native to tropical Ethiopia. An Indian Muslim saint, Baba Budan introduced coffee from Yemen to Mysore.

Question 15.
Compare Spices and Condiments.
Answer:
Spices are accessory foods mainly used for flavouring during food preparation to improve their palatability. Spices are aromatic plant products and are characterized by sweet or bitter taste. Spices are added in minimal quantities during the cooking process. For example black pepper. Condiments, on the other hand, are flavouring substances having a sharp taste and are usually added to food after cooking. For example, curry leaves.

Question 16.
Mention any two Jute species.
Answer:

1. Corchorus capsularis
2. Corchorus olitorius

Question 17.
Name the plant species used for making paper pulp.
Answer:
Wood of Melia azadirachta, Neolamarkia chinensis, Casuarina spp and Eucalyptus spp are used for making paper pulp.

Question 18.
What does NCB stands for? Mention its role.
Answer:
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India and is responsible for fighting drug trafficking and the abuse of illegal substances.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 19.
Write a short note on foxtail millet. Foxtail Millet
Answer:
Botanical name: Setaria italica This is one of the oldest millet used traditionally in India. Which is domesticated first in China for about 6000 years. Rich in protein, carbohydrate, vitamin B and C, Potassium, and Calcium.

Uses:

• It supports the strengthening of the heart and improves eyesight.
• Thinai porridge is given to lactating mothers.

Question 20.
Write the botanical name and culinary uses of green gram.
Answer:
Botanical name: Vigna radiata Uses It can be used as roasted, cooked, and sprouted pulse. Green gram is one of the ingredients of Pongal, a popular breakfast dish in Tamil Nadu. Fried dehulled and broken or whole green gram is used as a popular snack. The flour is traditionally used as a cosmetic, especially for the skin.

Question 21.
Mention the ways in which mangoes are used in Indian culinary.
Answer:
Mango is the major table fruit of India, which is rich in beta carotenes. It is utilized in many ways, as dessert, canned, dried and preserves in Indian cuisine. Sour, unripe mangoes are used in chutneys, pickles, side dishes, or maybe eaten raw with salt and chili. Mango pulp is made into jelly. Aerated and non-aerated fruit juice is a popular soft drink.

Question 22.
Write a note on origin and area of cultivation of cotton.
Answer:
Cotton is one of the oldest cultivated crops of the world. It has been cultivated for about 8000 years both in the new world and in old world. Commercial cotton comes from four cotton species: two from the new world and two from the old world.

1. Gossypium hirsutum
2. G.barbadense is the New World species and
3. G. arboretum
4. G. herbaceum are the old world species. In India, cotton is cultivated in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 23.
What is vulcanization? Who invented it?
Answer:
The heating of the rubber with sulphur under pressure at 150°C is called vulcanization. It was invented by Charles Goodyear.

Question 24.
Write a note on Henna.
Answer:

1. Botanical name: Lawsonia inermis.
2. Family: Lythraceae.
3. Origin and Area of cultivation: It is indigenous to North Africa and South-west Asia. It is grown mostly throughout India, especially in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

Uses:

• An orange dye ‘Henna’ is obtained from the leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis.
• The principal colouring matter of leaves Tacosone” is harmless and causes no irritation to the skin.
• This dye has long been used to dye skin, hair, and fingernails.
• It is used for colouring leather, for the tails of horses, and in hair-dyes.

Question 25.
What are organic pesticides?
Answer:
Pest like aphids, spider and mites can cause serious damage to flowers, fruits, and vegetables. These creatures attack the garden in swarms, and drain the life of the crop and often invite disease in the process. Many chemical pesticides prove unsafe for human and the environment. It turns fruits and vegetables unsafe for consumption. Thankfully, there are many homemade, organic options to turn to war against pests.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 26.
Write the botanical name, origin, cultivational area and uses of a Black gram.
Answer:
Botanical name : Vigna mungo

Origin and Area of cultivation: Black gram is native to India. Earliest archaeobotanical evidence record the presence of black gram about 3,500 years ago. It is cultivated as a rain-fed crop in drier parts of India. India contributes to 80% of the global production of black gram. Important states growing black gram in India are Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, and Karnataka.

Uses:

• Black gram is eaten whole or split, boiled or roasted or ground into flour.
• Black gram batter is a major ingredient for the preparation of popular Southern Indian breakfast dishes.
• Split pulse is used in seasoning Indian curries.

Question 27.
Give a detailed account on any one fibe yielding plant. Jute
Answer:

1. Botanical name : Corchorus app.
2. Family: Malvaceae
3. Origin and Area of cultivation: Jute is derived from the two cultivated species Corchorus capsularis  Colittorius is of African origin whereas C. Capsularis, is believed to Indo- Burmaese origin. It is an important cultivated commercial crop in Gangetic plains of India and Bangladesh.
4. Use : It is one of the largest exported fibre material of India. The jute industry occupies an important place in the national economy of India. Jute is used for ‘safe’ packaging in view of being natural, renewable, bio-degradable and eco-friendly product. It is used in bagging and wrapping textile. About 75% of the jute produced is used for manufacturing sacks and bags. It is also used in manufacture of blankets, rags, curtains etc. It is also being used as a textile fibre in recent years.

Question 28.
Draw a table mentioning binominals, family name, useful part and their medical uses of any five local medicinal plants.
Answer:

Question 29.
Explain the stepwise preparation of Bio-pest repellent from the leaves of Azadirachta indica
Answer:
Botanical pest repellent and insecticide made with the dried leaves of Azadirachta indica
Preparation of Bio-pest repellent

1. Pluck leaves from the neem tree and chop the leaves finely.
2. The chopped up leaves were put in a 50-liter container and fill to half with water; put the lid on and leave it for 3 days to brew.
3. Using another container, strain the mixture which has brewed for 3 days to remove the leaves, through fine mesh sieve. The filtrate can be sprayed on the plants to repel pests.
4. To make sure that the pest repellent sticks to the plants, add 100 ml of cooking oil and the same amount of soap water. (The role of the soap water is to break down the oil, and the role of the oil is to make it stick to the leaves).
5. The stewed leaves from the mixture can be used in the compost heap or around the base of the plants.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
The following are the binomials of economically useful plants. Mention their respective families.
(a) Borassus flabellifer
(b) Mangifera indica
(c) Saccharum officinarum
(d) Curcuma longa
(e) Capsicum annum
(f) Tamarindus indica
Answer:

Question 2.
Name the plant source from which the following products are obtained.

1. Maida
2. Rubber
3. Morphine
4. Coffee

Answer:

1. Maida – Triticum durum
2. Rubber – Hevea brasiliensis
3. Morphine – Papaver somniferum
4. Coffee – Coffea arabica

Question 3.
Mention the plant species or their products which are popularly known as

1. Queen of species
2. Black Gold of India and
3. King of bitters.

Answer:

1. Queen of Species – Cardamom
2. Black Gold of India – Pepper
3. King of bitters – Andrographis paniculata

Question 4.
Complete the statements.

1. Alphonsa is a variety of ______
2. Cayenne pepper is a variety of ______

Answer:

1. Mango
2. Capsicum

Question 5.
Siddha medicine is an age-old practice in our nation. According to this medicinal system, what is the major cause for all sort of illness in humans?
Answer:
According to Siddha medicine, three humors namely vatam, pittam and kapam are responsible for the health of human being and any disturbance in the equilibrium of these humors result in ill health.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 7 Subsidiary Books – II

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Subsidiary Books – II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Cash book is a ………………
(a) Subsidiary book
(b) Principal book
(c) Journal proper
(d) Both subsidiary book and principal book
Answer:
(d) Both subsidiary book and principal book

Question 2.
The cash book records ………………
(a) All cash receipts
(b) All cash payments
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All credit transactions
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
When a firm maintains a simple cash book, it need not maintain ………………
(a) Sales account in the ledger
(b) Purchases account in the ledger
(c) Capital account in the ledger
(d) Cash account in the ledger
Answer:
(d) Cash account in the ledger

Question 4.
A cash book with discount, cash and bank column is called ………………
(a) Simple cash book
(b) Double column cash book
(c) Three column cash book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(c) Three column cash book

Question 5.
In Triple column cash book, the balance of bank overdraft brought forward will appear in ………………
(a) Cash column debit side
(b) Cash column credit side
(c) Bank column debit side
(d) Bank column credit side
Answer:
(d) Bank column credit side

Question 6.
Which of the following is recorded as contra entry?
(a) Withdrew cash from bank for personal use
(b) Withdrew cash from bank for office use
(c) Direct payment by the customer in the bank account of the business
(d) When bank charges interest
Answer:
(b) Withdrew cash from bank for office use

Question 7.
If the debit and credit aspects of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, it is ………………
(a) Contra entry
(b) Compound entry
(c) Single entry
(d) Simple entry
Answer:
(a) Contra entry

Question 8.
The balance in the petty cash book is ………………
(a) An expense
(b) A profit
(c) An asset
(d) A liability
Answer:
(c) An asset

Question 9.
Petty cash may be used to pay ………………
(a) The expenses relating to postage and conveyance
(b) Salary to the Manager
(c) Purchase of furniture and fixtures
(d) Purchase of raw materials
Answer:
(a) The expenses relating to postage and conveyance

Question 10.
Small payments are recorded in a book called ………………
(a) Cash book
(b) Purchase book
(c) Bills payable book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(d) Petty cash book

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is cash book?
Answer:
Cash book is the book in which only cash transactions are recorded in the chronological order. The cash book is the book of original entry or prime entry as cash transactions are recorded for the first time in it. Cash transactions here may include bank transactions also. Cash receipts are recorded on the debit side while cash payments are recorded on the credit side.

Question 2.
What are the different types of cash book?
Answer:
The main cash book may be of various types and following are the three most common types.

1. Simple or single column cash book (only cash column)
2. Cash book with cash and discount column (double column cash book)
3. Cash book with cash, discount and bank columns (three column cash book)

Question 3.
What is simple cash book?
Answer:
Single column cash book or simple cash book, like a ledger account has only one amount column, i.e., cash column on each side. Only cash transactions are recorded in this book. All cash receipts and payments are recorded systematically in this book.

Question 4.
Give the format of ‘Single column cash book’.
Answer:
Simple Cash Book

Question 5.
What is double column cash book?
Answer:
It is a cash book with cash and discount columns. As there are two columns, i.e., discount and cash columns, both on debit and credit sides, this cash book is known as ‘double column cash book’.

Question 6.
Give the format of ‘Double column cash book’.
Answer:
Cash book with cash and discount columns

Question 7.
What is three column cash book?
Answer:
A three column cash book includes three amount columns on both sides, i.e., cash, bank and discount. This cash book is prepared in the same way as simple and double column cash books are prepared. The transactions which increase the cash and bank balance are recorded on the debit side of the cash and bank columns respectively. Opening balance of cash and favourable bank balance appear as the first item on the debit side of the three column cash book in case of existing business. If the business is a new one, capital contributed in cash and/or bank deposit appear as the first item on the debit side.

Question 8.
What is cash discount?
Answer:
Cash discount is allowed to the parties making prompt payment within the stipulated period of time or early payment. It is discount allowed (loss) for the creditor and discount received (gain) for the debtor who makes payment. The discount is allowed when payment is received or made and hence, the entry for discount is also passed with the entry of payment. The earlier the payment, the more may be the discount. Cash discount motivates the debtor to make the payment at an earlier date to avail discount facility.

Question 9.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a deduction given by the supplier to the buyer on the list price or catalogue price of the goods. It is given as a trade practice or when goods are purchased in large quantities. It is shown as a deduction in the invoice. Trade discount is not recorded in the books of accounts. Only the net amount is recorded.

Question 10.
What is a petty cash book?
Answer:
Business entities have to pay various small expenses like taxi fare, bus fare, postage, carriage, stationery, refreshment and other sundry items. These are small payments and repetitive in nature. If all these small payments are recorded in the main cash book, it will be loaded with lot of entries. Hence, all petty payments of the business may be recorded in a separate book, which is called as petty cash book and the person who maintains the petty cash book is called the petty cashier.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of imprest system of petty cash book.
Answer:
Under this system, a fixed amount necessary or sufficient to meet petty payments determined on the basis of past experience is paid to the petty cashier on the first day of the period. (It may be a week or fortnight or month). The amount given to the petty cashier in advance is known as “Imprest Money”.

The word imprest means payment in advance. The petty cashier makes payments from this amount and records them in petty cash book. At the end of a particular period, the petty cashier submits the petty cash book to the head cashier.

The head cashier scrutinises the petty payments and gives amount equal to the amount spent by petty cashier so that the total amount with the petty cashier is now equal to the amount he had received in the beginning as advance. Under the system, the total cash with the petty cashier never exceeds the imprest at any time during the period.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences between cash discount and trade discount.
Answer:
Following are the difference between cash discount and trade discount:

Question 3.
Write the advantages of maintaining petty cash book.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of maintaining petty cash book:

1. There can be better control over petty payments.
2. There is saving of time of the main cashier.
3. Cash book is not loaded with many petty payments.
4. Posting of entries from main cash book and petty cash book is comparatively easy.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on accounting treatment of discount in cash book.
Answer:
In the discount columns, cash discount, i.e., cash discount allowed and cash discount received are recorded. The net amount received is entered in the amount column on the debit side and the net amount paid is entered in the amount column on the credit side. For the seller who allows cash discount, it is a loss and hence it is debited and shown on the debit side of the cash book. For the person making payment, discount received is a gain because less payment is made and it is credited and shown on the credit side of the cash book.

Question 5.
Briefly explain about contra entry with examples.
Answer:
To denote that there are contra entries, the alphabet ‘C’ is written in L.F. column on both sides. Contra means that particular entry is posted on the other side (contra) of the same book, because Cash account and Bank account are there in the cash book only and there are no separate ledger accounts needed for this purpose. The alphabet ‘C’ indicates that no further posting is required and the relevant account is posted on the opposite side.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Seshadri for May, 2017.

Answer:
In the books of Seshadri
Single column cash book

Question 2.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Pandeeswari for the month ofJune, 2017

Answer:
In the books of Pandeeswari
Single column cash book

Question 3.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Ramalingam for month of July, 2017.

Answer:
In the books of Ramalingam
Single column cash book

Question 4.
Enter the following transaction in Ahamad’s cash book with discount and cash columns.

Answer:
In the books of Ahamad’s
Cash book with discount and cash columns

Question 5.
Enter the following transaction in Chandran’s cash book with cash and discount column.

Answer:
In the books of chandran
Cash book with cash and discount columns

Question 6.
Enter the following transactions in cash book with discount and cash column of Anand

Answer:
In the books of Anand
Cash book with cash and discount and cash columns

Question 7.
Write out a cash book with discount, cash and bank columns in the books of Mahendran.

Answer:
In the books of Mahendran
There – column cash book

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Kalyana Sundaram

Answer:
In the books of Kalyana Sundaram
There – column cash book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions of Fathima in the cash book with cash, bank and discount columns for the month of May, 2017.

Answer:
In the books of Fathima
Three – column cash book with cash, bank and discount

Question 10.
Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Chozhan.

Answer:
In the books of Fathima
Three – column cash book with cash, bank and discount

Question 11.
Enter the following transactions in a cash book with cash, bank and discount columns of Sundari.

Answer:
In the books of Sundari
Three – column cash book

Question 12.
Record the following transactions in the three column cash book of Rajeswari for the month of June, 2017.

Answer:
In the books of Rajeswari
Three – column cash book

Question 13.
Record the following transactions in three column cash book of Ramachandran.

Answer:
In the books of Ramachandran
Three – column cash book

Question 14.
Record the following transactions in the three column cash book of John Pandian.
In the books of John Pandian
Three – column cash book

Answer:
In the books of John Pandian
Three – column cash book

Question 15.
Prepare a triple column cash book of Rahim from the following transactions:

In the hooks of Rahim
Three – column cash book
Answer:

Question 16.
Prepare analytical petty cash book from the following particulars under imprest system:

Answer:
Analytical Petty Cash Book (in ₹)

Question 17.
From the following information prepare an analytical petty cash book under imprest system:

Answer:
Analytical Petty Cash Book (in ₹)

Question 18.
Record the following transactions in an analytical petty cash book and balance the same. On 1^st November, 2017, the petty cashier started with imprest cash ₹ 2,000.

Answer:
Analytical Petty Cash Book (in ₹)

Question 19.
Enter the following transactions in Iyyappan’s petty cash book with analytical columns under imprest system.

Answer:
Analytical Petty Cash Book (in ₹)

Textbook Case Study Solved

Vetri is a sole trader selling food products. He maintains a simple cash book. He sells and purchases goods both on cash and credit. He maintains the cash book by himself. He allows discount and receives discount. He has his personal bank account. He also has so many petty expenses. Now, he wants to establish his business. But he wants to maintain the cash book all by himself.
Now, discuss on the following points:

Question 1.
What could be the reason that Vetri maintains the cash book by himself?
Answer:
He is a sole trader, he need not show the accounts to anybody else, he wants to know about profit or loss for himself only. So he maintains cash book only.

Question 2.
Is it convenient for him to record all the cash transactions in the simple cash book?
Answer:
No, it is not convenient for him to record all the cash transactions in the simple cash book.

Question 3.
Will his personal bank account serve the purpose of his business transactions?
Answer:
No, his personal bank account will not serve the purpose of his business transactions.

Question 4.
Suggest him some better ways of maintaining the cash transactions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

He may maintain triple column cash book, because he can know all cash transactions is a same account.
Instead of personal bank account he can open business bank account (i.e.) current account.

Question 5.
When his business becomes large, what other books will he be maintaining?
Answer:
He will be maintaining the following other books:

1. Triple column cash book.
2. Petty cash book (Analytical).
3. Purchases book for credit purchases
4. Sales book for credit sales.
5. Purchases returns book.
6. Sales returns book.
7. Business book account (i.e. current account to be maintained).
8. Proper journal for other assets maintaining:
   • All cash transactions recorded in cash book.
   • All petty expenses are to recorded in analytical petty cash book.
   • All credit transactions to recorded in special purpose books (i.e. purchases book, sales book, purchases return book and sales returns book and proper journal.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Subsidiary Books – II Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Cash receipts are recorded on the ……………. of the cash book.
(a) debit side
(b) credit side
(c) journal
(d) ledger
Answer:
(a) debit side

Question 2.
Cash payments are recorded on the ……………. of the cash book.
(a) debit side
(b) credit side
(c) contra
(d) journal
Answer:
(b) credit side

Question 3.
All cash transactions are straightway recorded in the …………….
(a) cash book
(b) ledger
(c) journal
(d) contra
Answer:
(a) cash book

Question 4.
……………. serves the purpose of a journal and a ledger.
(a) cash book
(b) purchase book
(c) sales book
(d) petty cash book
Answer:
(a) cash book

Question 5.
There are ……………. types of cash book (common).
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) two
Answer:
(a) three

Question 6.
R.N. expands for …………….
(a) Receipts number
(b) Roll number
(c) Route number
(d) Rank number
Answer:
(a) Receipts number

Question 7.
L.F. expands for ……………..
(a) Long file
(b) Ledger folio
(c) Line folio
(d) Link file
Answer:
(b) Ledger folio

Question 8.
V.N. exapnds for …………….
(a) Value number
(b) Voucher number
(c) Vendor number
(d) Volume number
Answer:
(b) Voucher number

Question 9.
As both the debit and credit aspects of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, such entries are called ……………. entries.
(a) Contra
(b) Journal
(c) Compound
(d) Opening
Answer:
(a) Contra

Question 10.
The word ……………. means payment in advance.
(a) imprest
(b) loan
(c) money
(d) petty cash
Answer:
(a) imprest

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun-Yat-Sen
(d) MaoTsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ……………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about ………………….
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Black Soil is also called as ………………….
(a) Arid soil
(b) Saline soil
(c) Regur soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Regur soil

Question 8.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ………………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 10.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ………………….
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 11.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ………………….
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 12.
Apartheid is ………………….
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination

Question 13
…………………. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value added approach

Question 14.
Tuticorin is known as ………………….
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:

• In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome.
• Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 16.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force.

(ii) Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads.

(iii) On 29 October Israels forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 17.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 18.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaravelar, Pandithar Iyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillai and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region. –
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.

Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres). …

The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.

One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil.

Question 20.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sight seeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as they accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 21.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 22.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry’ of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
Write the importance of gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 26.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:

• Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNC) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE).
• Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries – USA, UK, France and Germany.

Question 27.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:

• Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes.
• There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed
  while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 28.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and Physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………. known as the “Father of modem china.
(ii) Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……………….
(iii) Fundamental duties have been gives to the citizen of India under Article ……………….
(iv) ……………….  is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….
Answers:
(i) Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(ii) Railways
(iii) 51 A
(iv) Entrepreneur
(v) Balance of trade.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains,
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Nar-mada and Tapi forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. They are wide and level plains with an aver¬age width of 80-100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern
5. part is known as the Coromandal coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.

Tropical Evergreen forest:

• These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.
• The trees in these forests are evergreen.
• These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
• The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany, and Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yield valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 33.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:
(i) The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.

(ii) Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.

(iii) The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subj ect to untouchability. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.

(iv) There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.

(v) There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 34.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th century.
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.
• In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.
• C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.
• The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.
• Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 35.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Formation:

• • The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• • This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying on the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:
It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.

Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

• In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
• The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
• The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:

• The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
• The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like
Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:

• In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:

• South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
• The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:

• The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
• The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:

• The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.
• The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun.
• So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers.
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 38.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

Question 39.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air, which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970’s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens – because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 40.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

• They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
• They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
• They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
• They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
• Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
• They enable the people to avail better quality goods, at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
1905 – Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906  – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916 – Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
1919 – Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920 – Khilafat Movement / Non Co-operation Movement

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(i) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
(ii) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
(iii) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
(iv) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Ho Chi Minh:
(i) Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.
(ii) Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
(iii) In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.
(iv) The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(if) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU:
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA.
(i) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA:
(i) First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.
(ii) Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.
(iii) Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.
(iv) He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’. ‘

(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu.
(i) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Why did Subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry?
(tii) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
(iv) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:
(i) Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.
(ii) Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.
(iii) Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.
(iv) Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D ’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 1 Living World Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 1 Living World

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Living World Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Which one of the following statement about virus is correct?
(a) Possess their own metabolic system
(b) They are facultative parasites
(c) They contain DNA or RNA
(d) Enzymes are present
Answer:
(c) They contain DNA or RNA

Question 2.
Identify the incorrect statement about the Gram positive bacteria.
(a) Teichoic acid absent
(b) High percentage of peptidoglycan is found in cell wall
(c) Cell wall is single layered
(d) Lipopolysaccharide is present in cell wall
Answer:
(a) Teichoic acid absent

Question 3.
Identify the Archaebacterium.
(a) Acetobacter
(b) Erwinia
(c) Treponema
(d) Methanobacterium
Answer:
(d) Methanobacterium

Question 4.
The correct statement regarding Blue green algae is
(a) lack of motile structures
(b) presence of cellulose in cell wall
(c) absence of mucilage around the thallus
(d) presence of floridean starch
Answer:
(a) lack of motile structures

Question 5.
Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) Actinomycete – 1. Late blight
(b) Mycoplasma – 2. Lumpy jaw
(c) Bacteria – 3. Crown gall
(d) Fungi – 4. Sandal spike
Answer:
(c) Bacteria – 3. Crown gall

Question 6.
Differentiate Homoiomerous and Heteromerous lichens.
Answer:
Homoiomerous and Heteromerous Lichens:

Homoiomerous	Heteromerous
1. Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus	1. A distinct layer of algae and fungi present

Question 7.
Write the distinguishing features of Monera.
Answer:
Distinguishing Features of Monera:

1. This kingdom includes all prokaryotic organisms. Example: Mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes and cyanobacteria.
2. These are microscopic. They do not have a true nucleus and membrane bound organelles.
   
3. Many other bacteria like Rhizobium, Azotobacter and Clostridium can fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
   
4. Some bacteria are parasites and others live as symbionts.

Question 8.
Why do farmers plant leguminous crops in crop rotations/mixed cropping?
Answer:
Rotations / Mixed Cropping:

1. Legumes have bacteria on nodules which are on the roots of the plants. The bacteria on the nodules takes nitrogen from the air and fixes it into the soil, so that other plants that require nitrogen can use it as well.
2. Rotation of crops improves the fertility of the soil and hence brings about an increase in the production of food grains.
3. Rotation of crops helps in saving on nitrogenous fertilizers, because leguminous plants grown during the rotation of crops can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil with the help of nitrogen fixing bacteria.
4. Crop rotation adds diversity to an operation.

Question 9.
Briefly discuss on five kingdom classification. Add a note on merits and demerits.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five kingdom classification in the year 1969. The kingdoms include Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship. A comparative account of the salient features of each kingdom is given in table.

Merits:

• The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
• It is based on the mode of nutrition.
• Separation of fungi from plants.
• It shows the phylogeny of the organisms

Demerits:

• The kingdom monera and protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
• Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 10.
Give a general account on lichens.
Answer:
The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens. The algal partner is called Phycobiont and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partner and also help in fixing the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia and Isidia. Phycobionst reproduce by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore, etc. Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.
Classification:

1. Based on the habitat lichens are classified into following types: Corticolous (on bark) Lignicolous (on wood) Saxicolous (on rocks) Terricolous (on ground) Marine (on siliceous rocks of sea) and Fresh water (on siliceous rock of fresh water).
2. On the basis of morphology of the thallus they are divided into Leprose (a distinct fungal layer is absent) Crustose – crust like; Foliose – leaf like; Fruticose – branched pendulous shrub like.
3. The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into two forms namely Homoiomerous (Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and Fleteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).
4. If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes it is called Basidiolichen.

Textbook Activity Solved

Get a button mushroom. Draw diagram of the fruit body. Take a thin longitudinal section passing through the gill and observe the section under a microscope. Record your observations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Living World Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Earth was formed around billion years ago …………… .
(a) 3.3
(b) 5.6
(c) 4.6
(d) 5.9
Answer:
(c) 4.6

Question 2.
According to Mora et al., in 2011, the number of estimated species on Earth is …………… .
(a) 8.7 million
(b) 9.7 million
(c) 7.7 million
(d) 9.7 billion
Answer:
(a) 8.7 million

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a prokaryote?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Oedogonium
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(c) Oedogonium

Question 4.
Which of the following organism undergoes regeneration?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Planaria
(c) Yeast
(d) Aspergillus
Answer:
(b) Planaria

Question 5.
Vaccination for small pox was discovered by …………… .
(a) W.M. Stanley
(b) Adolf Mayer
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Edward Jenner
Answer:
(d) Edward Jenner

Question 6.
Who coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’?
(a) F.W. Twort
(b) d’Herelle
(c) Ivanowsky
(d) Robert Gallo
Answer:
(b) d’Herelle

Question 7.
The size of TMV is …………… .
(a) 300 × 20 mm
(b) 300 × 200 µm
(c) 300 × 20 nm
(d) 300 × 20 Å
Answer:
(c) 300 × 20 nm

Question 8.
One nanometer equals to metres …………… .
(a) 10^-9
(b) 10^-6
(c) 10^-5
(d) 10^-12
Answer:
(a) 10^-9

Question 9.
Which is a non – living character of viruses?
(a) Undergoes mutation
(b) Host – specific
(c) Crystallized
(d) Irritability
Answer:
(c) Crystallized

Question 10.
According to David Baltimore, the viruses are classified …………… into classes.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 11.
Identify the criteria not used in classifying viruses by Baltimore …………… .
(a) ss (or) ds
(b) use of RT
(c) capsid
(d) sense or antisense
Answer:
(c) capsid

Question 12.
Viruses with dsRNA is …………… .
(a) Toga viruses
(b) Retro viruses
(c) Reo viruses
(d) Rhabdo viruses
Answer:
(c) Reo viruses

Question 13.
Which of the plant virus contains DNA as genome?
(a) Tobacco mosaic virus
(b) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(c) Sugarcane mosaic virus
(d) Cucumber mosaic virus
Answer:
(b) Cauliflower mosaic virus

Question 14.
Parvo viruses have …………… .
(a) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) ssRNA
(d) dsRNA
Answer:
(a) ssDNA

Question 15.
Molecular weight of TMV is dalton …………… .
(a) 39 × 10⁶
(b) 39 × 10^-6
(c) 39 × 10⁹
(d) 39 × 10^-9
Answer:
(a) 39 × 10⁶

Question 16.
Approximate number of capsomeres in TMV is …………… .
(a) 3120
(b) 1203
(c) 2130
(d) 3021
Answer:
(c) 2130

Question 17.
The empty protein coat left outside after penetration is …………… .
(a) host
(b) ghost
(c) capsid
(d) capsomeres
Answer:
(b) ghost

Question 18.
The genome of viroid is …………… .
(a) linear ssRNA
(b) dumb – bell shaped ssRNA
(c) circular ssRNA
(d) linear dsRNA
Answer:
(c) circular ssRNA

Question 19.
Viroids were discovered by …………… .
(a) Ivanowsky
(b) Robert Gallo
(c) Diener
(d) d’Herelle
Answer:
(c) Diener

Question 20.
Mad cow disease is caused by …………… .
(a) viroids
(b) virusoids
(c) prions
(d) viruses
Answer:
(c) prions

Question 21.
Match the Following:

(a) 1- d, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – c
(b) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b
(c) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – d
(d) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c
Answer:
(c) 1- c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – d

Question 22.
Identify the correct sequence regarding lytic cycle of viruses …………… .
(A) Penetration
(B) Adsorption
(C) Assembly
(D) Synthesis

(a) BADC
(b) CABD
(c) BDAC
(d) ADBC
Answer:
(a) BADC

Question 23.
Mycophages infect …………… .
(a) blue green algae
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) cyanobacteria
Answer:
(c) fungi

Question 24.
Rice tungro is caused by …………… .
(a) fungi
(b) bacteria
(c) mycoplasma
(d) viruses
Answer:
(d) viruses

Question 25.
Father of Botany …………… .
(a) Aristotle
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Lederberg
(d) Whittaker
Answer:
(b) Theophrastus

Question 26.
Three kingdom classification was proposed by …………… .
(a) Copeland
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Haeckel
Answer:
(d) Haeckel

Question 27.
Which Is not a part of five kindgom classification?
(a) Viruses
(b) Monera
(c) Protista
(d) Mycoplasma
Answer:
(a) Viruses

Question 28.
Six kingdom classification was proposed by …………… .
(a) Haeckel
(b) Copeland
(c) Woese
(d) Cavalier – Smith
Answer:
(d) Cavalier – Smith

Question 29.
Ruggerlo et al., in 2015 proposed …………… kingdom classification.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 30.
…………… is a new kingdom in seven kingdom classification.
(a) Eubactena
(b) Plantae
(c) Chromista
(d) Archaebacteria
Answer:
(c) Chromista

Question 31.
Actinomycetes comes under …………… kindgom.
(a) fungi
(b) chromista
(c) monera
(d) protista
Answer:
(c) monera

Question 32.
The sourness of curd is due to …………… .
(a) acetic acid
(b) galactic acid
(c) lactic acid
(d) lactone
Answer:
(c) lactic acid

Question 33.
Who is the founder of Modern Bacteriology …………… ?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Pasteur
(d) Linnaeus
Answer:
(b) Robert Koch

Question 34.
The term bacterium was coined by …………… .
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 35.
Plasmids were discovered by …………… .
(a) Ehrenberg
(b) H.Bergy
(c) Joshua Lederberg
(d) Koch
Answer:
(c) Joshua Lederberg

Question 36.
Genophore is seen in …………… .
(a) Amoeba
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Euglena
Answer:
(b) Cyanobacteria

Question 37.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese …………… .
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 38.
Which is not a component of bacterial cell?
(a) Mesosomes
(b) Glycocalyx
(c) Polysomes
(d) Histones
Answer:
(d) Histones

Question 39.
The most abundant polypeptide in bacterial cell wall is …………… .
(a) chitin
(b) amylopectin
(c) porin
(d) pectin
Answer:
(c) porin

Question 40.
Extra chromosomal element in bacterial cells are …………… .
(a) plasmids
(b) mesosomes
(c) histones
(d) genophores
Answer:
(a) plasmids

Question 41.
Bacteriocins are found in …………… .
(a) genophore
(b) plasmids
(c) nucleoids
(d) mesosomes
Answer:
(b) plasmids

Question 42.
Colour revealed by Gram positive bacteria after Gram staining is …………… .
(a) red
(b) indigo
(c) dark violet
(d) blue
Answer:
(c) dark violet

Question 43.
How many number of basal body rings seen in the flagella of Gram negative bacteria?
(a) 2
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 44.
Capnophilic bacteria require for growth …………… .
(a) C₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) O₃
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 45.
The pigment present in green sulphur bacteria is …………… .
(a) bacterioviridin
(b) bacteriochlorophyll
(c) chlorophyll a
(d) xanthophyll
Answer:
(b) bacteriochlorophyll

Question 46.
The hydrogen donor of purple sulphur bacteria is …………… .
(a) H₂S
(b) thiosulphate
(c) ethanol
(d) acetic acid
Answer:
(b) thiosulphate

Question 47.
Campylobacter is a …………… .
(a) obligate aerobe
(b) obligate anaerobe
(c) capnophilic
(d) aerobe
Answer:
(c) capnophilic

Question 48.
Mycobacterium is a …………… .
(a) parasite
(b) symbiont
(c) saprophyte
(d) free – living
Answer:
(a) parasite

Question 49.
Which is the most common mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria?
(a) Endospore formation
(b) Fission
(c) Budding
(d) Conidia
Answer:
(b) Fission

Question 50.
…………… are thick walled resting spores.
(a) Aplanospores
(b) Endospores
(c) Conidia
(d) Zoospores
Answer:
(b) Endospores

Question 51.
In which of the following method genetic recombination does not occur?
(a) Generalised transduction
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transformation
(d) Fission
Answer:
(d) Fission

Question 52.
During conjugation in bacteria, which of the following is transferred from donor to recipient cell?
(a) R factor
(b) F factor
(c) Ti factor
(d) Ri factor
Answer:
(b) F factor

Question 53.
Griffith used …………… for his experiment.
(a) rat
(b) rabbit
(c) mice
(d) monkey
Answer:
(c) mice

Question 54.
Transformation in bacteria was demonstrated by …………… .
(a) Lederberg
(b) Zinder
(c) Edward
(d) Griffith
Answer:
(d) Griffith

Question 55.
Lederberg studied transduction in bacterium …………… .
(a) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Escherichia coil
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi

Question 56.
Bacteria used in the curing of tea is …………… .
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Eseherichia coli
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Streptococcus lactis
Answer:
(a) Mycococcus candisans

Question 57.
Syphilis k caused by …………… .
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycohacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 58.
Methanobacterium is …………… .
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Malobacteria
(c) Eubacteria
(d) Archaebacteria
Answer:
(d) Archaebacteria

Question 59.
…………… is NOT a phycobiont in lichens.
(a) Gloeocapsa
(b) Dermacarpa
(c) Scytonema
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(b) Dermacarpa

Question 60.
Red sea is red colour due to …………… .
(a) Dermacarpa sps.
(b) Trichodesmium sps.
(c) Scytonema sps.
(d) Gloeocapsa sps.
Answer:
(b) Trichodesmium sps.

Question 61.
Filamentous trichome is the plant body of …………… .
(a) Chroococcus
(b) Gloeocapsa
(c) Nostoc
(d) Oscillatoria
Answer:
(c) Nostoc

Question 62.
Stromatolites are the colonies of cyanobacteria bind with …………… .
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) calcium hydroxide
(c) magnesium sulphate
(d) calcium silicate
Answer:
(a) calcium carbonate

Question 63.
…………… sps. is an endophyte in coralloid roots of Cycas.
(a) Gioeocapsa
(b) Scytonerna
(c) Nostoc
(d) Azolla
Answer:
(c) Nosloc

Question 64.
Myxophyceae refers to …………… .
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(d) Cyanobacteria

Question 65.
…………… is used in single cell protein.
(a) Spirulina
(b) Azolla
(c) Dermacarpa
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(a) Spirulina

Question 66.
…………… is a pleomorphic organism.
(a) Fungi
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
Answer:
(b) Mycoplasma

Question 67.
Pleuropneumonia is caused by …………… .
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) mycoplasma
(d) viruses
Answer:
(c) mycoplasma

Question 68.
…………… is also called as Ray fungi.
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Actinomycetes

Question 69.
Earthy odour of soil after rain is due to …………… .
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Actinomycetes

Question 70.
Viruses that attack blue green algae are called as …………… .
(a) Mycophages
(b) Phycophages
(c) Cyanophages
(d) Bacteriophages
Answer:
(c) Cyanophages

Question 71.
Cell membrane of Archaebacteria has …………… .
(a) glycine and isopropyl ethers
(b) glycerol and isobutyl ethers
(c) glycerol and isopropyl ethers
(d) cellulose and isobutyl ethers
Answer:
(c) glycerol and isopropyl ethers

Question 72.
Which is a true bacteria?
(a) Halobacterium
(b) Thermoplasma
(c) Methanobacteriurn
(d) Azotobacter
Answer:
(d) Azolobacter

Question 73.
Study of fungus is called as …………… .
(a) phycology
(b) mycology
(c) algology
(d) biology
Answer:
(b) mycology

Question 74.
Who is considered as the founder of mycology?
(a) K.C.Mehta
(b) G.C.Ainsworth
(c) P.A.Micheli
(d) T.S.Sadasivan
Answer:
(c) P.A.Micheli

Question 75.
Asexual phase of fungi is called as …………… .
(a) telomorph
(b) holomorph
(c) metamorph
(d) anamorph
Answer:
(d) anamorph

Question 76.
In which mycelium, the hyphae are arranged loosely?
(a) Prosenchyma
(b) Plectenchyma
(c) Pseudoparenchyrna
(d) Arenchyma
Answer:
(a) Prosenchyma

Question 77.
Number of nuclei in coenocytic mycelium …………… .
(a) 2
(b) many
(c) nil
(d) 9
Answer:
(b) many

Question 78.
Thallospores are produced by …………… .
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Erysiphe
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Fusarium
Answer:
(b) Erysiphe

Question 79.
In Agaricus, …………… type of sexual reproduction occurs.
(a) spermatization
(b) somatogamy
(c) oogamy
(d) isogamy
Answer:
(b) somatogamy

Question 80.
Albugo belongs to …………… .
(a) oomycetcs
(b) zygomycetes
(c) ascomycetes
(d) deuteromycetes
Answer:
(a) oomycetes

Question 81.
Fungi growing on dung is called as …………… .
(a) Mold fungus
(b) Saprophytes
(c) Capnophilous
(d) Coprophilous
Answer:
(d) Coprophilous

Question 82.
Coprophilous belongs to …………… group.
(a) basidiomycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) zygomycetes
(d) oomycetes
Answer:
(c) zygomycetes

Question 83.
Which of the following is a coprophilous fungi?
(a) Albugo
(b) Entomophthora
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Pilobolus
Answer:
(d) Pilobolus

Question 84.
Cup fungus belongs to …………… .
(a) zygomycetes
(b) oomycetes
(c) ascomycetes
(d) actinomycetes
Answer:
(c) ascomycetes

Question 85.
Which group of fungus is called as Sac fungi?
(a) Deuteromycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
(d) Oomycetes
Answer:
(c) Ascomycetes

Question 86.
Number of ascospores in an asci is …………… .
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question 87.
Shape of perithecium is …………… .
(a) cup shaped
(b) flask shaped
(c) completely closed
(d) open type
Answer:
(b) flask shaped

Question 88.
…………… are called as Club fungi.
(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
Answer:
(c) Basidiomycetes

Question 89.
Parasexual cycle is observed in …………… .
(a) basidiomycetes
(b) zygomycetes
(c) deuteromycetes
(d) ascomycetes
Answer:
(c) deuteromycetes

Question 90.
Which is called as imperfect fungi?
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes
(d) Ascomycetes
Answer:
(c) Deuteromycetes

Question 91.
In basidiomycetes, clamp connections are formed to maintain …………… condition.
(a) monokaryotic
(b) coenocytic
(c) dikaryotic
(d) zygotic
Answer:
(c) dikaryotic

Question 92.
…………… is a single celled fungus used in dairy industry.
(a) Volvariella
(b) Agaricus
(c) Penicillin
(d) Yeast
Answer:
(d) Yeast

Question 93.
Ergot alkaloids are produced by …………… .
(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Acremonium chrysogenum
(c) Claviceps purpurea
(d) Penicillium griseofulvum
Answer:
(c) Claviceps purpurea

Question 94.
Kojic acid is produced by …………… .
(a) Aspergillus terreus
(b) Aspergillus niger
(c) Aspeigillus oryzae
(d) Agaricus hisporus
Answer:
(c) Aspergillus oryzae

Question 95.
…………… infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin.
(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Amanita verna
(c) Amanita phalloides
(d) Rhizopus
Answer:
(a) Aspergillus flavus

Question 96.
Rust of wheat is produced by …………… .
(a) Albugo candida
(b) Puccinia graminis tritici
(c) Candida albicans
(d) Colletotrichum sps
Answer:
(b) Puccinia graminis tritici

Question 97.
VAM is a type of …………… .
(a) Endomycorrhiza
(b) Ectomycorrhiza
(c) Ectendomycorrhiza
(d) Endectomycorrhiza
Answer:
(a) Endomycorrhiza

Question 98.
Algal partner of lichen is …………… .
(a) phycobiont
(b) phytobiont
(c) mycobiont
(d) both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(a) phycobiont

Question 99.
Asexual reproduction by Soredia is seen in …………… .
(a) fungi
(b) lichen
(c) mycorrhiza
(d) algae
Answer:
(b) lichen

Question 100.
Saxicolous lichen grow on …………… .
(a) ground
(b) bark
(c) wood
(d) rock
Answer:
(d) rock

Question 101.
In leprose form of lichen distinct …………… layer is absent.
(a) fungal
(b) algal
(c) both
(d) none
Answer:
(a) fungal

Question 102.
…………… are used as pollution indicators.
(a) Algae
(b) Lichen
(c) Fungi
(d) Mycorrhiza
Answer:
(b) Lichen

Question 103.
…………… acid is obtained from lichen acting as antibiotics.
(a) Alginic
(b) Acetic
(c) Oxalic
(d) Usnic
Answer:
(d) Usnic.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
Differentiate plant growth from animal growth.
Answer:
Plant Growth From Animal Growth:

S. No.	Plant growth	Animal growth
1.	1. Growth is indefinite.	1. Growth is definite.
2.	2. It occurs throughout life.	2. It occurs for some period.

Question 2.
Define Growth.
Answer:
Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass.

Question 3.
Growth of living thing is an intrinsic property – Justify.
Answer:
Living cells grow by the addition of new protoplasm within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is intrinsic.

Question 4.
Define reproduction and Mention its types.
Answer:
Reproduction is the tendency of a living organism to perpetuate its own species. There are two types of reproduction namely asexual and sexual.

Question 5.
What is metabolism? Mention its types.
Answer:
The sum total of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism. It is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism.

Question 6.
What is consciousness and irritability?
Answer:
Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called consciousness. Respond of plants to the stimuli is called irritability.

Question 7.
List out few attributes of living organisms.
Answer:
The attributes of living organisms are growth, metabolism, movement, reproduction, nutrition, excretion, etc.

Question 8.
Define cyclosis.
Answer:
The movement of cytoplasm inside the cell is called cytoplasmic streaming or cyclosis.

Question 9.
How will you define viruses?
Answer:
Viruses are sub – microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat.

Question 10.
Mention the size of Bacteriophage and tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
Answer:
Bacteriophage measures about 10 – 100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300 × 20 nm.

Question 11.
Classify viruses based on nature of nucleic acid with example.
Answer:
On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four categories. They are viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (wound tumour virus).

Question 12.
Distinguish between deoxyviruses and riboviruses.
Answer:
Deoxyviruses and Riboviruses:

1. Deoxyviruses: Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV
2. Riboviruses: Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g. Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV)

Question 13.
Write the constituents of virions.
Answer:
The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid.

Question 14.
What are capsomeres?
Answer:
The protein coat of viruses is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres.

Question 15.
Name the two types of phage multiplication.
Answer:
Phages multiply through two different types of life cycle:

1. Lytic or Virulent cycle
2. Lysogenic or Avirulent life cycle

Question 16.
What do you mean by a ‘ghost’ in virology?
Answer:
The empty protein coat left outside by the phage after penetrating the host cell is called as ghost.

Question 17.
What do you understand by “pinning” of phage?
Answer:
Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phase and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

Question 18.
What is prophage?
Answer:
As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage.

Question 19.
When does a prophage enters lytic cycle?
Answer:
On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.

Question 20.
Define virion?
Answer:
Virion is an intact infective virus particle which is non – replicating outside a host cell.

Question 21.
What are viroids?
Answer:
Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid. RNA is of low molecular weight.

Question 22.
Name any two disease caused by viroids.
Answer:
Two Disease:

1. Citrus exocortis
2. Potato spindle tuber disease

Question 23.
What are virusoids?
Answer:
Virusoids are the small circular RNAs which are similar to viroids but they are always linked with larger molecules of the viral RNA.

Question 24.
Who discovered viroids and virusolds?
Answer:
Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971. Virusoids were discovered by J.W.Randles in 1981.

Question 25.
Name the causative organism for mad cow disease.
Answer:
Prions are the causative organisms for mad cow disease, Prions are the proteinaceous infectious particles.

Question 26.
What are cyanophages? Who reported it first?
Answer:
Viruses infecting blue green algae are called Cyanophages and are first reported by Safferman and Morris in the year 1963.

Question 27.
Name any two disease caused by Prions.
Answer:
Two Disease:

1. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (mad cow disease)
2. Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD)

Question 28.
What are mycophages? Who first reported it?
Answer:
Viruses infecting fungi are called mycophages or mycoviruses. Mycophages were first reported by Hollings in 1962.

Question 29.
Expand the following acronyms: (a) SARS and (b) AIDS.
Answer:
Acronyms:
(a) SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
(b) AIDS: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 30.
Name the two groups of aninmals according to Aristotle.
Answer:
Two Groups of Aninmals:

1. Enaima – animals with red blood.
2. Anaima – animals without red blood.

Question 31.
Which are the major setbacks of Linnaeus classification?
Answer:
Linnaeus classification faced major setback because prokaryotes and eukaryotes were grouped together. Similarly fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

Question 32.
Name the viruses which are employed as potential insecticides?
Answer:
Cytoplasmic polyhedrosis Granulo viruses and Entomopox virus were employed as potential insecticides.

Question 33.
Who proposed five kingdom classification? Mention the five kingdoms.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker proposed the five kingdom classification. It includes Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

Question 34.
List out the criteria undertaken for Whittaker’s classification.
Answer:
The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

Question 35.
Point out the demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
(a) The kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
(b) Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 36.
Who proposed six kingdom classification? Mention the kingdoms.
Answer:
Thomas Cavalier – Smith proposed six kingdom classification.
The kingdom includes:

1. Archaebacteria
2. Eubacteria
3. Protista
4. Fungi
5. Plantae and
6. Animalia.

Question 37.
How milk is changed into curd, if a few drops of curd is added to it? What is the reason for its sourness?
Answer:
The change is brought by Lactobacillus lactis, a bacterium present in the curd. The sourness is due to the formation of lactic acid.

Question 38.
Define bacteria and bacteriology.
Answer:
Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiquitous, microscopic organisms. The study of bacteria is called bacteriology.

Question 39.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 40.
List out the cytoplasmic inclusions of bacterial cell.
Answer:
Glycogen, poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles.

Question 41.
Define Genophore.
Answer:
The bacterial chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule, tightly coiled and is not enclosed in a membrane as in Eukaryotes. This genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore.

Question 42.
Write the chemical composition of bacterial cell wall.
Answer:
The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N – acetyl glucosamine, N – acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids).

Question 43.
What are polysomes?
Answer:
During protein synthesis, the ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form the polysomes.

Question 44.
What are Pili?
Answer:
Pili or fimbriae are hair like appendages found on surface of cell wall of gram – negative bacteria.

Question 45.
What are capnophilic bacteria? Give an example.
Answer:
Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria.
Example: Campylobacter.

Question 46.
Distinguish between Photolithotrophs and Photoorganotrophs.
Answer:
Between Photolithotrophs and Photoorganotrophs:

1. Photolithotrophs: In photolithotrophs, the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance. E.g. Chlorobium
2. Photoorganotrophs: In Photoorganotrophs, the hydrogen donor is an organic acid or alcohol. E.g. Rhodospirillum

Question 47.
Name the hydrogen donor of green sulphur bacteria and purple sulphur bacteria.
Answer:
Hydrogen donor of green sulphur bacteria is H₂S. Hydrogen donor of purple sulphur bacteria is thiosulphate.

Question 48.
Name the bacterial pigment of green sulphur bacteria and purple sulphur bacteria.
Answer:
Bacteria’s:

1. Green sulphur bacteria – Bacterioviridin
2. Purple sulphur bacteria – Bacteriochlorophyll

Question 49.
What are endospores?
Answer:
Endospores are thick walled resting spores developed by bacteria during unfavourable condition.
E.g. Clostridium tetani produces endospores.

Question 50.
Mention the various ways by which genetic recombination occurs.
Answer:
Genetic recombination in bacteria occurs by conjugation, transduction and transformation.

Question 51.
Name the eminent persons who demonstrated the conjugation process.
Answer:
J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum.

Question 52.
What is transformation? Name the bacteriologist who described it.
Answer:
The Bacteriologist Who Described it:

1. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation.
2. Fredrick Griffith demonstrated the transformation process.

Question 53.
Which organism and bacterial species was used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?
Answer:
Mice and Diplococcus pneumoniae.

Question 54.
List out the asexual modes of reproduction of bacteria.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction in bacteria includes binary fission, conidia formation and endospore formation.

Question 55.
Who discovered transduction? Define it.
Answer:
Zinder and Lederberg (1952) discovered transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called transduction.

Question 56.
Name any two bacterial species and the antibiotic produced by them.
Answer:

Bacteria	Antibiotic
1. Streptomyces griseus	1. Streptomycin
2. Bacillus polymyxa	2. Polymyxin

Question 57.
How bacteria helps in vinegar production?
Answer:
Acetobacter aceti bacteria oxidises ethanol obtained from molasses by fermentation to form vinegar.

Question 58.
Name any two ammonifying bacteria.
Answer:
Two Ammonifying Bacteria:

1. Bacillus ramosus and
2. Bacillus mycoides.

Question 59.
What do you mean by retting of fibres?
Answer:
The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Closiridium is called retting of fibres.

Question 60.
Name any two plant disease caused by the bacteria and mention the host.
Answer:

Question 61.
Name any four animal disease caused by bacteria.
Answer:
Four Animal Disease:

1. Anthrax
2. Brucellosis
3. Bovine tuberculosis and
4. black leg.

Question 62.
Name any four human disease caused by bacteria.
Answer:
Four Human Disease:

1. Cholera
2. Typhoid
3. Tuberculosis and
4. Leprosy.

Question 63.
What are Archaebacteria?
Answer:
Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity and low pH.
E.g., Thermoplasma.

Question 64.
How stromatolites are formed?
Answer:
Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with calcium carbonate.

Question 65.
What is the reason for the colour of Red Sea?
Answer:
A cyanobacteria called Trichodesmium erythraeum imparts red colour to sea.

Question 66.
Mention the cyanobacteria leading endophytic relation with Cycas roots.
Answer:
Nostoc and Anabaena.

Question 67.
Define Cyanobacteria.
Answer:
Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms. Cyanobacteria are primitive forms and are found in different habitats.

Question 68.
Blue green algae can also be called as Myxophyceae. How?
Answer:
The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of cyanobacteria group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.

Question 69.
Define mycoplasma?
Answer:
The mycoplasma are very small (0.1 – 0.5 μm), pleomorphic gram negative microorganisms.

Question 70.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma.
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 71.
Draw and label the structure of mycoplasma.
Answer:
The Structure of Mycoplasma:

Question 72.
What is the reason behind the earthy odour after raining?
Answer:
Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odour” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of geosmines (volatile organic compound).

Question 73.
When and by whom the penicillin was discovered?
Answer:
Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in 1928.

Question 74.
Define Fungi.
Answer:
Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

Question 75.
Define mycology. Who is the founder of mycology?
Answer:
Study of fungi is called mycology. P.A. Micheli is considered as the founder of mycology.

Question 76.
Name few eminent Mycologists.
Answer:
John Webster, G.C. Ainsworth, T.S. Sadasivan and C.V. Subramanian.

Question 77.
With example define coenocytic mycelium.
Answer:
In lower fungi the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (Example: Albugo).

Question 78.
What is plectenchyma? Mention its types.
Answer:
The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types: prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma.

Question 79.
Distinguish between Anamorph and Telomorph.
Answer:
Between Anamorph and Telomorph:

Anamorph	Telomorph
The asexual phase of fungi is called anamorph.	The sexual phase of fungi is called telomorph.

Question 80.
What is holomorph?
Answer:
Fungi showing both sexual and asexual phases are called holomorph.

Question 81.
What is planogametic copulation? Mention its types.
Answer:
Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation.
Types:

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy and
3. Oogamy.

Question 82.
List out the asexual spores produced by fungus.
Answer:
Zoospores, conidia, oidia and chlamydospores.

Question 83.
What are coprophilous fungi? Give an example.
Answer:
Fungi growing on dung are called coprophilous fungi.
Example: Pilobolus.

Question 84.
Ascomycetes are called sac fungi. Give reason.
Answer:
In ascomycetes the ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”.

Question 85.
Name the four types of ascocarps produced by ascomycetes.
Answer:
Four Types Of Ascocarps Produced By Ascomycetes:

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium and
4. Pseudothecium.

Question 86.
Basidiomycetes are called club fungi. Give reason.
Answer:
In basidiomycetes the basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

Question 87.
Name the special structures in deuteromycetes that produces conidia.
Answer:
Pycnidium, acervulus, sporodochium and synnemata.

Question 88.
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi – Justify.
Answer:
The fungi belonging to deuteromycetes lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

Question 89.
List out the antibiotics produced by fungi.
Answer:
Penicillin, cephalosporins and griseofiilvin.

Question 90.
Name some toxins produced by Fungus.
Answer:
Alfatoxin, Patulin and Ochratoxin – A.

Question 91.
Name 2 fungal species employed as Biopesticides.
Answer:
Two Fungal Species Employed As Biopesticides:

1. Beauveria bassiana and
2. Metarhizium anisopliae.

Question 92.
Name few fungal diseases in plants.
Answer:
Blast of paddy, rust of wheat, red rot of sugarcane and white rust of crucifers.

Question 93.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:
Fungal Diseases in Humans:

S. No.	Human Diseases	Causative Fungi
1.	Athlete’s foot	Epidermophyton floccosum
2.	Candidiasis	Candida albicans
3.	Coccidioidomycosis	Coccidioides immitis
4.	Aspergillosis	Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 94.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 95.
What are 3 types of mycorrhiza?

Answer:
3 types of mycorrhiza:

1. Ectomycorrhiza
2. Endomycorrhiza and
3. Ectendomycorrhiza

Question 96.
Define lichen.
Answer:
Lichen is a symbiotic association between algae and fungi.

Question 97.
What is a phycobiont and mycobiont?
Answer:
Fungal partner of lichen is called as mycobiont. Algal partner of lichen is called as phycobiont.

Question 98.
How symbiosis workout in lichen?
Answer:
In lichens, algae provide nutrition for fungal partner in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae.

Question 99.
Classify lichens based on morphology.
Answer:
Morphology:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust-like
3. Foliose – Leaf-like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub-like

Question 100.
What is homoiomerous and heteromerous?
Answer:
In homoiomerous (algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).

Question 101.
Define ascolichen and basidiolichen.
Answer:
If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes it is called basidiolichen.

Question 102.
Lichens are pollution indicators. How?
Answer:
Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.

Question 103.
Classify lichens based on habitat.
Answer:

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Distinguish between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:
Between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:

Question 2.
List out various types of asexual reproduction in living organisms.
Answer:
Reproduction in Living Organisms:

Question 3.
Define Homeostasis. Why it is essential?
Answer:
Property of self – regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

Question 4.
Viruses are considered as biological puzzle – Justify.
Answer:
Viruses are considered as biological puzzle since they exhibit both living and non – living characters.

Question 5.
State the 3 types of viral symmetry.
Answer:
3 Types Of Viral Symmetry:

1. Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus and Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus and TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage and Vaccinia virus.

Question 6.
List out the non – living characters of viruses.
Answer:
The non – living characters of viruses:

• Can be crystallized.
• Absence of metabolism.
• Inactive outside the host.
• Do not show functional autonomy.
• Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

Question 7.
Name any one RNA animal virus and DNA plant virus.
Answer:
RNA animal virus and DNA plant virus:L

1. RNA animal virus is HIV.
2. DNA plant virus is Cauliflower mosaic virus.

Question 8.
What are the prominent symptoms of TMV affected tobacco plants?
Answer:
The first visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaf colour along the veins and show typical yellow and green mottling which is the mosaic symptom. The downward curling and distortion of young apical leaves occurs, plant becomes stunted and yield is affected.

Question 9.
What are bacteriophages? Where can we find it?
Answer:
Viruses infecting bacteria are called bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’. Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables and milk.

Question 10.
Sequencely mention the types of lytic cycle.
Answer:
Types of Lytic Cycle:

1. Adsorption
2. penetration
3. synthesis
4. assembly
5. maturation and
6. release.

Question 11.
Why classification of organisms is important?
Answer:
Classification is essential to achieve following needs:

1. To relate things based on common characteristic features.
2. To define organisms based on the salient features.
3. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms.
4. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

Question 12.
List out the merits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
Five kingdom Classification:

1. The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
2. It is based on the mode of nutrition.
3. Separation of fungi from plants.
4. It shows the phylogeny of the organisms.

Question 13.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax. Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 14.
Draw Amphitrichous, Lophotrichous and Peritrichous flagellation in bacteria.
Answer:
Amphitrichous, Lophotrichous and Peritrichous flagellation in bacteria:

Question 15.
What are the three layers of bacterial cell?
Answer:
The bacterial cell reveals three layers:

1. capsule / glycocalyx
2. cell wall and
3. cytoplasm.

Question 16.
What is a capsule? Mention its role.
Answer:
Some bacteria are surrounded by a gelatinous substance which is composed of polysaccharides or polypeptide or both. A thick layer of glycocalyx bound tightly to the cell wall is called capsule. It protects cell from desiccation and antibiotics. The sticky nature helps them to attach to substrates like plant root surfaces, Human teeth and tissues. It helps to retain the nutrients in bacterial cell.

Question 17.
What are plasmids? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome.

Question 18.
Classfiy plasmids based on function.
Answer:
Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumor inducing) plasmids.

Question 19.
Give a brief note on Mesosomes.
Answer:
Mesosomes are localized infoldings of plasma membrane produced into the cell in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae. They are clumped and folded together to maximize their surface area and helps in respiration and in binary fission.

Question 20.
How Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria react on Gram staining process?
Answer:
The Gram positive bacteria retain crystal violet and appear dark violet, whereas Gram negative type loose the crystal violet and when counterstained by safranin appear red under a microscope.

Question 21.
Name the three components of gram negative cell wall.
Answer:
Three Components Of Gram Negative Cell Wall:

1. Lipoprotein
2. outermembrane and
3. lipopolysaccharide.

Question 22.
What are Magnetosomes?
Answer:
Intracellular chains of 40 – 50 magnetite (Fe₃O₄) particles are found in bacterium Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum and it helps the bacterium to locate nutrient rich sediments.

Question 23.
Write a note on binary fission.
Answer:
Under favourable conditions the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of two cells.

Question 24.
How do archaebacteria thrive at extreme temperatures and against lytic agents?
Answer:
The unique feature of archaebacteria is the presence of lipids like glycerol and isopropyl ethers in their cell membrane. Due to the unique chemical composition the cell membrane show resistance against cell wall antibiotics and lytic agents.
E.g. Methanobacterium.

Question 25.
Name few members of cyanobacteria which act as phycobiont in lichen thalli.
Answer:
Gloeocapsa, Nostoc and Scytonema.

Question 26.
Describe in brief about Actinomycetes.
Answer:
Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia like growth. They are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are Gram positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contain high guanine and cytosine content (E.g., Streptomyces).

Question 27.
Mention few antibiotics produced by Streptomyces group of fungi.
Answer:
Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline.

Question 28.
Explain in brief about the plant body of fungi?
Answer:
Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N – acetyl glucosamine).

Question 29.
Point out the steps involved in sexual reproduction of fungi.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps:

1. Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy)
2. Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy) and
3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

Question 30.
Differentiate between Anisogamy and Oogamy with an example of fungus.
Answer:
Between Anisogamy and Oogamy with an example of fungus:

Anisogamy	Oogamy
Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes. E.g. Allomyces	Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. E.g. Monoblepharis

Question 31.
Define Spermatization.
Answer:
In spermatization method a uninucleate pycniospore / microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: PuccinialNeurospora).

Question 32.
Draw a simple diagram showing the budding of yeast.
Answer:
Diagram showing the budding of yeast:

Question 33.
Write a simple note on Oomycetes.
Answer:
Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of glucan and cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous.
Example: Albugo.

Question 34.
Give a brief account on fungal food.
Answer:
Mushrooms like Lentinus edodes. Agaricus bisporus and Volvariella volvaceae are consumed for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of vitamin B₁₂

Question 35.
List out the importance of mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The Importance Of Mycorrhiza:

1. Helps to derive nutrition in Monotropa, a saprophytic angiosperm.
2. Improves the availability of minerals and water to the plants.
3. Provides drought resistance to the plants.
4. Protects roots of higher plants from the attack of plant pathogens.

Question 36.
How symbiotic relationship is executed in mycorrhiza?
Answer:
In mycorrihiza, relationship fungi absorbs nutrition from the root and in turn the hyphal network of mycorrhiza forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Define metabolism. List out the differences between the types of metabolism.
Answer:
Metabolism: The sum total of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism. It is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism. The difference between anabolism and catabolism is given in table.

Question 2.
Draw a flow chart representing the various levels of organisation and integration in living organisms.
Answer:
A flow chart representing the various levels of organisation and integration in living organisms:

Question 3.
Enumerate the living and non – living characters of viruses.
Answer:
Living characters:

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein.
2. Capable of mutation.
3. Ability to multiply within living cells.
4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings.
5. Show irritability.
6. Host – specific.

Non – living characters:

1. Can be crystallized.
2. Absence of metabolism.
3. Inactive outside the host.
4. Do not show functional autonomy,
5. Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

Question 4.
Draw and describe the structure of tobacco mosaic virus.
Answer:

Electron microscopic studies have revealed that TMV is a rod shaped helical virus measuring about 280 × 150 pm with a molecular weight of 39 × 10⁶ Daltons. The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid. The protein coat is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres which are present around a central single stranded RNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its RNA. The RNA consists of 6,500 nucleotides.

Question 5.
Write a note on David Baltimore’s classification of viruses.
Answer:
David Baltimore (1971) classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded -ss or double stranded – ds ), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (-) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

Question 6.
Give an account of viral genome.
Answer:
Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumour virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments. The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’.

Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded. On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four categories. They are viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (wound tumour virus).

Question 7.
Explain the structure of T₄ bacteriophage with a labelled diagram.
Answer:

The T₄ phage is tadpole shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate and fibres (figure). The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core which is connected to the head by a collar. There is a base plate attached to the end of tail The base plate contains six spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 50 μm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times longer than the phage itself.

Question 8.
Describe in detail about the lytic cycle of phages with diagram.
Answer:
Lytic cycle: During lytic cycle of phage, dis integration of host bacterial cell occurs and the progeny virions are released.

The steps involved in the lytic cycle are as follows:
(i) Adsorption: Phage (T₄) particles interact with cell wall of host (E. coli). The phage tail makes contact between the two, and tail fibres recognize the specific receptor sites present on bacterial cell surface. The lipopolysaccharides of tail fibres act as receptor in phages. The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called landing. Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phage and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

(ii) Penetration: The penetration process involves mechanical and enzymatic digestion of the cell wall of the host. At the recognition site phage digests certain cell wall structure by viral enzyme (Jysozyrne). After pinning the tail sheath contracts (using ATP) and appears shorter and thicker. After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which DNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of DNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘ghost’.

(iii) Synthesis: This step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of phage DNA also takes place.

(iv) Assembly and Maturation: The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as maturation. After 20 minutes of infection about 300 new phages are assembled

(v) Release: The phage particle gets accumulated inside the host cell and are released by the lysis of the host cell wall

.

Question 9.
Explain the lysogenic multiplication of phages.
Answer:
In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host DNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. No independent viral particle is formed.

As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage. The activity of the prophage gene is repressed by two repressor proteins which are synthesized by phage genes. This checks the synthesis of new phages within the host cell. However, each time the bacterial cell divides, the prophage multiplies along with the bacterial chromosome. On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.

Question 10.
Draw a tabular column and compare the characters of five kingdoms.
Answer:

Question 11.
List out the general characters of bacteria.
Answer:
The General Characters of Bacteria:

1. They are prokaryotic organisms and lack nuclear membrane and membrane bound organelles.
2. The genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore or incipient nucleus.
3. The cell wall is made up of polysaccharides and proteins.
4. Most of them lack chlorophyll, hence they are heterotrophic (Vibrio cholerae) but some are autotrophic and possess Bacteriochlorophyll (Chromatium).
5. They reproduce vegetatively by binary fission and endospore formation.
6. They exhibit variations which are due to genetic recombination and is achieved through conjugation, transformation and transduction.

Question 12.
Draw and label the ultra structure of a bacterium.
Answer:
The ultra structure of a bacterium:

Question 13.
Write in detail about Plasmids.
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double stranded, circular, self – replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help 1 in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome.

The size of a plasmid varies from 1 to 500 kb usually plasmids contribute to about 0.5 to 5% of the total DNA of bacteria. The number of plasmids per cell varies. Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumour inducing) plasmids.

Question 14.
Describe the structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacterial cell wall using diagram.
Answer:
Most of the gram positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules. The gram negative cell wall contains three components that lie outside the peptidoglycan layer:

1. Lipoprotein
2. Outer membrane and
3. Lipopolysaccharide.

Thus the different results in the gram stain are due to differences in the structure and composition of the cell wall.

Question 15.
Tabulate the differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
Answer:

Question 16.
Give an account on respiration types of bacteria.
Answer:
Two types of respiration is found in bacteria.
They are:

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Anaerobic respiration

1. Aerobic respiration: These bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions (i.e. in the absence of O₂) Example: Streptococcus.

(i) Obligate aerobes: Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have 1 oxygen to survive).

2. Anaerobic respiration:
These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions. Example: Clostridium.

(i) Facultative anaerobes: There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available O₂ and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease.
Example: Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

(ii) Capnophilic bacteria: Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria.
Example: Campylobacter.

Question 17.
Explain the mode of nutrition in bacteria.
Answer:
On the basis of their mode of nutrition bacteria are classified into two types namely autotrophs and heterotrophs.
I. Autotrophic bacteria:
Bacteria which can synthesis their own food are called autotrophic bacteria. They may be further subdivided as

A. Photoautotrophic bacteria – Bacteria use sunlight as their source of energy to synthesize food. They may be:

1. Photolithotrophs: In Photolithotrophs the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance.
   • Green sulphur bacteria: In this type of bacteria the hydrogen donor is H₂S and possess pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.
   • Purple sulphur bacteria: For bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present. Example: Chromatium.
2. Photoorganotrophs: They utilize organic acid or alcohol ‘as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non-sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.

B. Chemoautotrophic bacteria – They do not have photosynthetic pigment hence they cannot use sunlight energy. These type of bacteria obtain energy from organic or inorganic substance.

1. Chemolithotrophs: This type of bacteria oxidize inorganic compound to release energy.
Examples:

• Sulphur bacteria – Thiobacillus thiooxidans
• Iron bacteria – Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
• Hydrogen bacteria – Hydrogenomonas and
• Nitrifying bacteria – Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

2. Chemoorganotrophs: This type of bacteria oxidize organic compounds to release energy.
Examples:

• Methane bacteria – Methanococcus
• Acetic acid bacteria – Acetobacter and
• Lactic acid bacteria – Lactobacillus

II. Heterotrophic bacteria:
They are parasites (Clostridium and Mycobacterium), Saprophytes (Bacillus mycoides) or symbiotic (Rhizobium in root nodules of leguminous crops).

Question 18.
Describe the process of transformation.
Answer:
The process of transformation:

Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation. In 1928, the bacteriologist Fredrick Griffith demonstrated transformation in mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae. Two strains of this bacterium are present. One strain produces smooth colonies and are virulent in nature (S type), in addition another strain produced rough colonies and are avirulent (R type). When S-type of cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died. When R-type of cells were injected, the mouse survived. He injected heat killed S-type cells into the mouse the mouse did not die.

When the mixture of heat killed S-type cells and R-type cells were injected into the mouse. The mouse died. The avirulent rough strain of Diplococcus had been transformed into S-type cells. The hereditary material of heat killed S-type cells had transformed R-type cell into virulent smooth strains. Thus the phenomenon of changing the character of one strain by transferring the DNA of another strain into the former is called transformation.

Question 19.
Define conjugation and its mechanism.
Answer:
J. Lederberg and Edward L Tatum demonstrated conjugation in E. coil in the year 1946. In this method of gene transfer the donor cell gets attached to the recipient cell with the help of pili.

The pilus grows in size and forms the conjugation tube. The plasmid of donor cell which has the F+ (fertility factor) undergoes replication. Only one strand of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of double stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.

Question 20.
Write in detail about transduction and its types.
Answer:
Zinder and Lederhcrg (1952) discovered transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called transduction.

Transduction is of two types:

1. Generalized transduction and
2. Specialized or restricted transduction.

1. Generalized transduction: The ability of a bacteriophage to carryr genetic material of any region of bacterial DNA is called generalised transduction.

2. Specialized or restricted transduction: The ability of the bacteriophage to carry only a specific region of the bacterial DNA is called specialized or restricted transduction.

Question 21.
List out the uses of bacteria in industries.
Answer:
The uses of bacteria in industries:

Question 22.
Explain the role of bacteria in antibiotic production and medicines.
Answer:
The role of bacteria in antibiotic production and medicines:

Question 23.
Explain the role of bacteria in soil fertility.
Answer:
The role of bacteria in soil fertility:

Question 24.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria.
Answer:
The Salient Features Of Cyanobacteria:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatoria).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c-phyocyanin and c-phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos-aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

Question 25.
Explain the various types of asexual reproduction in fungi.
Answer:
The Various Types Of Asexual Reproduction In Fungi:

1. Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids)
2. Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus)
3. Oidia / Thallospores / Arthrospores: The hypha divide and develop into spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe).
4. Fission: The vegetative cell divide into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces – yeast).
5. Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and become independent. (Example: Saccharomyces-yeast).
6. Chlamydospore: Thick walled resting spores are called chlamydospores. (Example: Fusarium).

Question 26.
Explain the various types of sexual reproduction in fungi.
Answer:
The Various Types Of Sexual Reproduction In Fungi:

1. Planogametic copulation: Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation.
   • Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically and physiologically similar gametes. (Example: Synchytrium).
   • Anisogamy – Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes (Example: Allomyces).
   • Oogamy – Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. (Example: Monoblepharis).
2. Gametangial contact: During sexual reproduction a contact is established between antheridium and oogonium (Example: Albugo).
3. Gametangial copulation: Fusion of gametangia to form zygospore. (Example: Mucor and Rhizopus).
4. Spermatization: Auninucleate pycniospore/microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: Puccinia / Neurospora)
5. Somatogamy: Fusion of two somatic cells of the hyphae (Example: Agaricus).

Question 27.
List out the salient features of zygomycetes.
Answer:
The salient features of zygomycetes:

1. Most of the species are saprophytic and live on decaying plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on housefly)
2. Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor and Rhizopus) and Coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on dung Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group.
3. The mycelium is branched and coenocytic.
4. Asexual reproduction by means of spores produced in sporangia.
5. Sexual reproduction is by the fusion of the gametangia which results in thick walled zygospore. It remains dormant for long periods. The zygospore undergoes meiosis and produce spores.

Question 28.
List out the salient features of ascomycetes.
Answer:
Features of Ascomycetes:

1. Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on.
2. Although majority of the species live in terrestrial environment, some live in aquatic environments both fresh water and marine.
3. The mycelium is well developed, branched with simple septum.
4. Majority of them are saprophytes but few parasites are also known. (Powdery mildew – Erysiphe).
5. Asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia and chlamydospore.
6. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nuclei.
7. Plasmogamy is not immediately followed by karyogamy, instead a dikaryotic condition is prolonged for several generations.
8. A special hyphae called ascogenous hyphae is formed.
9. A crozier is formed when the tip of the ascogenous hyphae recurves forming a hooked cell. The two nuclei in the penultimate cell of the hypha fuse to form a diploid nucleus. This cell form young ascus.
10. The diploid nucleus undergo meiotic division to produce four haploid nuclei, which further divide mitotically to form eight nuclei. The nucleus gets organised into 8 ascospores.
11. The ascospores are found inside a bag-like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”.
12. Asci gets surrounded by sterile hyphae forming fruit body called ascocarp.
13. There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped and open type) and Pseudothecium.

Question 29.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes.
Answer:
Features of Basidiomycetes:

1. Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
2. The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
3. The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
4. Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
5. Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
6. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
7. The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

Question 30.
Compare the characters of different types of Mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The characters of different types of Mycorrhiza:

Question 31.
List out the beneficial aspects of lichens.
Answer:
The Beneficial Aspects of Lichens:

1. Lichens secrete organic acids like oxalic acids which corrodes the rock surface and helps in weathering of rocks, thus acting as pioneers in Xerosere.
2. Usnic acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties.
3. Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.
4. The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from Roccella montagnei.
5. Cladonia rangiferina (Reindeer moss) is used as food for animals living in Tundra regions.

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Viruses and viroids are infectious particles. How do you differentiate one from other?
Answer:
Viruses and viroids are infectious particles:

S.No.	Viruses	Viroids
1.	Viruses may have DNA or RNA as genetic material.	Viroids has ssRNA as genetic material
2.	Capsid is present	Capsid is absent

Question 2.
In R.H. Whittaker’s classification, how many kingdoms come under prokaryotes and how many kingdoms come under eukaryotes.
Answer:
Monera is the only prokaryotic kingdom in Whittaker’s classification, whereas protista, fungi, plantae and animalia comes under eukaryotes.

Question 3.
Arrange the following in a proper sequence with respect to fungal sexual cycle. Karyogamy, protoplasmic fusion, meiosis and spores production.
Answer:
Protoplasmic fusion → Karyogamy → Meiosis → Spores production.

Question 4.
List out major attributes and features that a cell must possess to call it as a living one.
Answer:
Growth, reproduction, metabolism, nutrition, movement and irritability, etc.

Question 5.
In five kingdom classification, actinomycetes and mycoplasma belongs to same kingdom.
(a) Name the kingdom.
(b) Which level of body organization does they exhibit.
Answer:
Actinomycetes and Mycoplasma belongs to kingdom Monera. Moneras are unicellular organisms.

Question 6.
Viruses are useful to us – Justify. Majority of viruses are harmful, causing wide range of diseases among organisms. But certain viruses of Baculoviridae group are commercially used as insecticides.
Answer:
E.g. Cytoplasmic polyhedrosis granulo viruses and Entomopox viruses.

Question 7.
Write the appropriate term for each of the following:
(a) Complex sugar that makes fungal cell wall.
(b) Blue green algae
Answer:
(a) Chitin
(b) Cyanobacteria.

Question 8.
Why fungi is not placed under kingdom plantae, though it has cell wall?
Answer:
Though fungi has cell wall, it differs from plants in their mode of nourishment. Fungi shows heterotropic mode of nutrition, whereas plants are autotrophs.

Question 9.
Which organisms is more complex and highly evolved among blue green algae, mushroom and maize? Give reason.
Answer:
Maize plant is more complex and highly evolved as it is a eukaryotic and autotrophic organism, showing tissue grade organisation. The blue green algae is a unicellular prokaryote and mushroom is a fungus, which is heterotrophic with no tissue grade of organisation.

Question 10.
Why viruses are not included in the category of microorganisms?
Answer:
Viruses possess characters of both living and non – living and also they does not have well defined body organisation. Hence they are not included in the category of microorganism.

Question 11.
Generally nucleic acid in viruses is present as single unit. Name any two viruses that possess segmented nucleic acid.
Answer:

1. Wound tumour virus
2. Influenza virus

Question 12.
Name any two recent viral diseases that threaten human life.
Answer:

1. Ebola
2. Nipah

Question 13.
When does a prophage enter lytic cycle?
Answer:
On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals, the prophage enters the lytic cycle.

Question 14.
Capsule layer helps the bacterium. How?
Answer:
Capsule in bacteria protects the cell from desiccation and antibiotics.

Question 15.
Imagine yourself as Carl Woese and explain your colleagues about your classification.
Answer:
I (Carl Woese) classified the living organisms into three domains based on the differences in rRNA nucleotide sequence and lipid structure of the cell membrane. The three domains are Bacteria, Archae and Eukarya.

Question 16.
Name the strains used in Gram staining procedure.
Answer:
Crystal violet and safranin.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 4

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
They had tangled hair.
(a) shiny (b) matted (c) straight (d) smooth
Answer:
(b) matted

Question 2.
The best manner of making it is the subject of violent disputes.
(a) agreements (b) applauses (c) conflicts (d) discussions
Answer:
(c) conflicts

Question 3.
Suffering seems cruelly prevalent in the world today.
(a) unique (b) uncommon (c) common (d) fair
Answer:
(c) common

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
They wear over-sized high altitude boots.
(a) height (b) light (c) depth (d) sound
Answer:
(c) depth

Question 5.
I felt a sense of freedom.
(a) liberty (b) slavery (c) equality (d) fraternity
Answer:
(b) slavery

Question 6.
They were now frozen solid.
(a) thick (b) liquid (c) concrete (d) firm
Answer:
(b) liquid

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word “bleaching Powder”.
(a) Noun+ Verb (b) Verb + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(c) Gerund + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of CMO.
(a) Chief Marketing Officer (b) Chief Managing Officer (c) Chief Mediocre Officer (d) Chief Maritime Organisation
Answer:
(a) Chief Marketing Officer

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
‘Tina really loves to make croissants because they taste better than other types of bread’.
(a) sweater (b) pastry (c) beverage (d) soup
Answer:
(b) pastry

Question 10.
Choose the correct combination for the blended word “Brunch”.
(a) Break + lunch (b) Post + lunch (c) breaking + lunch (d) Breakfast + lunch
Answer:
(d) Breakfast + lunch

Question 11.
Choose the clipped form of the word diskette.
(a) disk (b) disc (c) dike (d) kette
Answer:
(b) disc

Question 12.
A collection of selected literary passages is called
(a) Eulogy (b) Arthrology (c) Analogy (d) Anthology
Answer:
(d) Anthology

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word experienced.
(a) re (b) in (c) un (d) dis
Answer:
(b) in

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
Most of the girl students Mrs. Jeyaseela had informed came for the special class.
(a) which (b) who (c) whom (d) that
Answer:
(c) whom

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
Shankar has been absent Tuesday.
(a) from (b) for (c) since (d) till
Answer:
(c) since

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
Amanda would like to get a scholarship,?
(a) wouldn’t she (b) was she (c) can’t she (d) has she
Answer:
(a) wouldn’t she

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
I have given my bike to a new mechanic for service. Hope he delivers the goods!
(a) produce bike (b) to create a bike (c) give the bike (d) do what is expected or promised
Answer:
(d) do what is expected or promised

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Sam is buying a used car.
(a) pre-loved (b) tried (c) different (d) challenged
Answer:
(a) pre-loved

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
They were selling wild strawberries.
(a) SVOA (b) SVCO (c) SVIODO (d) SVIODOA
Answer:
(b) SVCO

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
Jacopo to the door handle of the car.
(a) looked at (b) brought forth (c) sent out (d) came up
Answer:
(d) came up

Part II
Section -1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay”
(a) How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
(b) What could they watch from the turret wall?
Answer:
(a) They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.
(b) They could watch the farmers mowing at a distance from inside their turret walls.

Question 22.
“But not because of its magnificence Dear is the Casuarina to my soul:
Beneath it we have played; though years may roll,”
(a) What is not the cause for Toru Dutt’s love for the Casuarina tree?
(b) What makes the tree dear to the poet?
Answer:
(a) The magnificence or the impressive appearance of the tree is not the cause for Toru Dutt’s love for the Casuarina tree.
(b) As children, the poet and her friends had played under the tree. This experience has made the tree dear to the poet.

Question 23.
“And then the justice,
In fair round belly with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws and modern instances; ”
(а) Whom does justice refer to?
(b) Describe his appearance.
Answer:
(a) Justice refers to a man in his fifth stage when he becomes critical of everyone else’s opinion in life.
(b) He has a pot belly and is fond of eating delicacies.

Question 24.
“…I mete and dole
Unequal laws unto a savage race,
That hoard, and sleep, and feed, and know not me. ”
(a) What does Ulysses do?
(b) Did he enjoy what he was doing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses, like a grocery shop owner, measures and delivers rewards and punishments unto a large number of uncivilized citizens.
(b) No, he did not enjoy his work. He does not like the idea of ministering variable justice to people who like “drones” or animals just eat, sleep and multiply their kind. He wants to leave such work to his son.

Question 25.
“Life is hard; be steel; be a rock.”
(а) How should one face life?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the above line.
Answer:
(a) One should face life like a steel.
(b) Metaphor

Question 26.
“Legs wide, arms locked behind,
As if to balance the prone brow
Oppressive with its mind.”
(а) Whose action is described here?
(b) What is meant by prone brow?
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte’s action is described here.
(b) “Prone brow” means brow accustomed or inclined down to contemplate on serious matters.

SECTION – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Michael: “What are you doing here, Shil? I haven’t seen you since June.”
Shil : “I’ve just come back from my holiday in Ireland.” .
Michael asked Shil what she was doing there and that he hadn’t seen her since June. Shil said that she had just come back from her holiday in Ireland.

Question 28.
Sheena must consult a dermatologist. Otherwise she will not know what her problem is. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If Sheena does not consult a dermatologist, she will not know what her problem is.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
Answer:
If you should require any further information, please contact us at our office in Madley Street.
Should you require any further information, please contact us at our office in Madley street.

Question 30.
Leonardo da Vinci, who was a renowned painter and sculptor, was also an inventor and scientist. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
Leonardo da Vinci, a renowned painter and sculptor, was also an inventor and scientist.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
How can this shameful tale be told?
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The narrator feels disgraced that their strong castle was overtaken without a groan.

Explanation: There was no fight. They were helpless because under the cover of darkness, they were sold for gold by the aged warder. It was a shameful and treacherous act of betrayal. The castle had fallen due to the greed of an aged warder. The narrator is hesitant to disclose the shameful betrayal to outsiders.

Question 32.
When first my casement is wide open thrown At dawn, my eyes delighted on it rest;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says these words while talking about the early influences of the Casuarina tree in her life.

Explanation: The young poet’s day started with seeing the tree with delight. The very first thing she used to see was the Casuarina tree through her casement (i.e.) door like window. The emotional bonding between herself and the giant Casuarina tree is beyond reason.

Question 33.
I cannot rest from travel: I will drink Life to the lees:
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: Ulysses says these words after settling down in his kingdom. He feels restless as he has stopped travelling and having adventures.

Explanation: Ulysses, after spending many years in the seas returns to Ithaca and starts ruling his country. However, his heart is not in the administration of his kingdom. He wants to sail again. At this context he says these words. He wishes to enjoy life to the fullest and so he can’t afford to idle away his remaining life as a king.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Describe the appearance of Nicola and Jacopo.
Answer:
One boy had worn Jersey and cut-off khaki pants. The other had a shortened army tunic gathered in loose folds about his skinny frame. They had tangled hair and dark earnest eyes.

Question 35.
What thoughts troubled Dr. Christiaan Barnard as he neared the end of his career as a heart surgeon?
Answer:
Towards the end of his career, Dr. Christiaan Barnard was troubled by the suffering of people and especially of young children. He could not accept the fact that twelve million children are unlikely to reach the age of one and about six million children die annually before reaching the age of five.

Question 36.
How did the firm snow at the higher regions fill them with hope?
Answer:
They were a little perturbed by slippery soft snow. As they reached higher up, they felt better. As one bottle of oxygen got exhausted, their load was now less. As Hillary’s axe bit into the first steep slope of the ridge, his high hopes were realized. The snow was crystalline and film. They were able to make comfortable belays to haul themselves up slowly.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the follow ing questions in about 30 words each.

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the drug which has the least sale record in the store.
(b) How many types of drugs are being sold at this store?
(c) Which drug is twice the sale of analgesics?
Answer:
(a) Sedatives have the least sale record in the store.
(b) Five types of drugs are sold in the store.
(c) Antibiotics is sold twice as much as analgesics.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a tourist and a guide.
Answer:
Tourist: Could you please tell me which are the important locations in Kanchipuram to be seen?
Guide: Of course yes, you must visit Kailasanathar Temple and Thennangur Panduranga Temple.
Tourist: Could I cycle to those locations?
Guide: Yes of course, let me bring my bicycle too. I will show you important things just for a price of Rs. 1000/
Tourist: Don’t you think your price is a bit high?
Guide: Okay. Last price Rs. 750/-

Question 39.
Describe the process of making a cup of tea.
Answer:
Boil water in a bowel. Add tea leaves. Wait till the water turns red or black. Now turn off the stove. Use a filter to remove the tea leaves from the essence. Now add hot milk and sugar to your taste. Those who prefer black tea need not add milk.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
Answer:
(a) A soft answer turns away ……………….. (villain, wrath, friend)
(b) A picture is worth a ……………….. words, (beautiful, thousand, describe)
(c) A bird in hand is worth ……………….. (hundreds, the freedom, two in the bush)
Answer:
(a) wrath (b) thousand (c) two in the bush

PART – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
What message is conveyed through the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’?
Answer:
Adversity is a touchstone of virtue. Both the little boys resemble tea leaves. Their best essence comes to limelight when they find themselves in hot waters. But they don’t complain. One does not give up on family relations when misfortune strikes. The bond becomes strong as the bond demands selfless sacrifice. The nobility of human life emerges from the precious lessons one learns from the supreme sacrifices of Nicola and Jacopo. One who shoulders the responsibility of taking care of the loved ones, irrespective of age, is an exemplary gentleman worthy of emulation. The primary motivational force of an individual is to find meaning in life. Both the little boys had a specific purpose for their life. They had made up their minds to do what ever work possible to earn money to save their sister and restore her singing career.

Or

How did Hillary and Tenzing prepare themselves before they set off to the summit?
Answer:
They started up their cookers and drank lots of lemon juice and sugar. Then they took sardines and biscuits. Hillary cleaned the ice off the oxygen sets. He rechecked and tested them. He had removed his boots which had become wet the day before. They were now frozen solid. It would be very challenging to start climbing ice-cold Himalayas with such wet and chilling boots.

So, he cooked them over the fierce flame of Primus and managed to soften them up. They were also conscious of the probability of braving snow storms during the ascent. They fortified their clothing with wind proof and also pulled three pairs of gloves silk, woollen, and windproof on to their hands. At 6.30 a.m. they crawled out of their tent into the snow. They hoisted their 30 lb. of oxygen gear on their backs. Connecting their oxygen masks they turned on the valves to bring life-giving oxygen into their lungs. Taking a few deep breaths, they got ready to go.

Question 42.
Describe the reminiscences of the poet, when she sees the casuarina tree.
Answer:
The poet remembers how her days started with the sight of the Casuarina tree from her casement. She remembers how her loving companions played under the giant Casuarina tree. The memory of her beloved companions bring hot tears because they had succumbed to cruel tuberculosis. She remembers how well the tree accommodated birds to sing songs during days and nights. The tree had allowed the creeper to embrace it like a lady love. Though it sapped its vitality, like a gallant lover, allowed the creeper to stay around its neck like a scarf. She remembers how a baboon seated at the crest of the tree had watched beautiful sunrise while her young ones were leaping and playing in the lower branches of the giant tree.

Or

Explain how the poet guides his son who is at the threshold of manhood, to face the challenges of life.

The poet shares his wisdom with his son who is at the threshold of manhood. He persuades his son to be hard like steel or rock to withstand challenges and unforeseen betrayals in life. A person with soft heart will crumble before a breach of trust. Similarly he wants his son to be discerning enough to be soft when needed to grow like a frail flower plant splitting a rock. Occasionally one has to go with the current because life is at times fertile with a lot of opportunities to grow even among the harshest circumstances. ‘Rich soft wanting’ can help a person to win against all odds. He reiterates this idea by explaining how gentleness can reform a hardened criminal when lashes would, in contrast, harden them further.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Martha and John – grudge – underpaid two decades – punishment – condemned the bribe – abusive language – one hundred thousand dollars – changed attitude – testify – three words – corrupt practices.
Answer:
Martha and John cherished a grudge against Gresham for having underpaid Baldwin for about two decades. They openly said that he deserved punishment. Initially Gresham condemned the bribe claimed as a difference in salary paid. Had he been made a similar offer he claimed he would have asked him to go to the devil. Baldwin said that having been a friend he couldn’t use such an abusive language. Casually John asked how much he offered.

Baldwin said that it was one hundred thousand dollars. Suddenly Martha and John changed their attitude towards Gresham. John viewed a shame if Gresham got indicted because he shared his name. Martha also desperately tried to convince him not to testify against Gresham. John even suggested that he could say those three words “I don’t remember” as the depositor would not lose a cent. Baldwin felt miserable because the family members who he wanted to feel proud of his uprightness wanted him to crossover to the side of corrupt practices because of the generous offer made by Gresham.

Or

“Remember Caesar” – light hearted comedy – tragic hero – rose tree planting-great loss to England – great impartial judge – Mrs. Weston’s entry – eating a game pie – immediate worry – French and Dutch – assassinate – pepper – bread – judge and his assistant – pet dishes – handful of candles – stay underground – infernal machine – doctor disapproves of excitement – nonsense and whimsical behavior – 15th March.
Answer:
Remember Caesar is a light hearted comedy. The name Caesar is the name of a. tragic hero Julius Caesar in one of the plays of William Shakespeare. Weston gives an appointment to Mr. Caesar to discuss rose tree planting work in his garden. Just to remind him of the proffered appointment, he scribbles two words “Remember Caesar” and keeps that scrap of paper in his coat pocket. Roger, the assistant of the judge elevates him to the level of a tragic hero. He flatters the judge that his death could be a great loss to England as he was a great impartial judge whose integrity could not be bargained or bribed. Mrs. Weston’s entry lightens up the whole drama and the tragedy transitions into a dark comedy.

Lady Weston keeps hinting about earlier attempts when he was eating a game pie. She becomes seriously playful when she says, “you’ve always wanted to be a great man and now you’ve got your wish. They don’t assassinate nobodies.” She cool-headedly tells her husband that he can stay indoors and have drinks. Lady Weston asks her husband if someone was planning to murder him. He says, “obviously”. She gives a curt retort, “I wonder someone hasn’t done it long ago. A great many people must hate judges. And you are a strict judge, they say.”

When Weston says he has instructed Roger to barricade all doors, her immediate worry is about the grocery awaited. She asks if he was expecting both French and Dutch together in the attempt to assassinate. When Weston asks if a little pepper was more important to her than her husband’s life, she says that he would be the first person to complain if the bread was short and the gravy thin. The cook disobeys the order. She has never been “behind the bars”. She will handle any one who enters by the kitchen. A judge and his assistant want the door locked but a cook is not afraid. Lady Weston doesn’t want to send away the cook. She is practical. She wants her to stay back to cook his pet dishes.

Lady Weston brings a handful of candles to keep the room lit if Mr. Weston has to stay underground for a while. A velvet coat is construed as an infernal machine that could blow up the whole place is smothered with books inside a pail of water to the great annoyance of Lady Weston. She casually reminds her husband that doctor disapproves of excitement. It was only on this account, Lady Weston bears the nonsense and whimsical behaviour of Mr. Weston. The arrival of Mr. Caesar only sorts out the knot. The judge remembers to meet Mr. Caesar on 15th March.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period, Indians excelled in art architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc. After our independence in 1947, the government took steps to improve our country in all spheres. By the five-years plans, provisions are made for the development of the country.

The first five-year plan was specially designed to improve irrigational methods. By the green revolution, we attained self-sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th May, 1974. This made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely the efforts of the Indian Scientists alone. We have sent our Indian Cosmonaut to space also on 3rd April, 1984. Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of the India Air Force travelled.into space with two Soviet Spaceman in Soyuz I Spaceship.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 185
No. of words to be written in the summary: 185/3 = 62 ± 5

Rough draft
Indians have been great human resources. Since ancient times, the have excelled in various fields such as metallugry nedicineand architecture in ancient period itself. After 1947, the Government through five year plan attend selfi-sufficiency in agricultural production. Gradually the Government focused on developing atoimic energy andspace technology. Atomic implosion in 1974 and conquest of space in 1984 are best examples of Indians success in joining space club and energy development.

Fair draft True Indians
Ancient Indians proved their expertise in metallurgy, medicine and architecture. After 1947, the country focused on agricultural self-sufficiency through five year plans. She attained it in, agricultural production. Then India joined the small band of atomic energy producing countries and by atomic explosion in 1974 proved her power. She also joined space club, in 1984 by sending Rakesh Sharma to space.

No. of words in the summary: 61

Or

Notes
Title: True Indians

Indians
best human resources
excelled in architecture, metallurgy and medicine

Five year plans
initial agriculture development
Energy development focus

Drive future
atomic energy nuclear implosion on 18th may 1974.

Space
Indian Cosmonaut on 3rd April 1984 – Rakesh Sharma I Cosmonaut.

Question 45.
As Cultural Secretary of your school, write a letter to the Cultural Program Coordinator, DAV Public School requesting him/her for details regarding the inter¬school competitions to be held on 20.3.2020.
Answer:
05 Jan, 2019
From
B. Amrita
Chettinad School
Ramapuram
Chennai

To
Cultural Program
Co-ordinator
DAV Public School
Perambur
Chennai
Sir,

Sub: Information regarding inter-school competitions

We have received the notification about the inter-school competitions to be held in your school. Kindly confirm the details that is mentioned in the poster.

• Participants from school: 30 No.’s
• Registration fees : Rs. 500/- (DD attached)
• Time of entry: 8.30 a.m.
• No. of competitions a participant can take part in: 3
• No. of teachers to accompany students: 3
• Last date for registration: 10.02.2020

The specific conditions and eligibility criteria may please be intimated to us.
I hope you will provide the necessary information at the earliest.

Yours faithfully
B. Amrita

Sports Secretary

Address on the envelope
To :
The Cultural Programme Co-ordinator
DAV Public School, Perambur
Chennai

[OR]

Write a paragraph in about 150 words on “The Importance Of Education That Gives Power To An Individual.”

Education Gives Power

Education provides us knowledge. It trains our mind and sharpens our skills and abilities. Education refines our tastes and temperaments and builds our thought process. Vocational courses help young boys to earn and learn together. They provide means of earning livelihood and open the route to employment. Professional courses, as is evident from the name itself, equip us for adopting various professions. Some of these highly skilled professionals seek placements or jobs in esteemed companies and business concerns. Thus education is important for our survival.

Decent living is impossible without good income or high salary. Education improves the quality of our life and frees us of superstition, foolish, meaningless mind-blocks and rituals. If women are educated the whole family benefits as the food is hygienically prepared, children are healthy, well-mannered and disciplined. Education gives us power over our environment. We can control the situation and shape our destiny. Education spreads awareness among people and gives them freedom from socialills. It makes people independent by providing them means to earn their living. They become responsible citizens and realise their rights and duties. In short, education gives one power.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) The collection ‘Fragrant flowers’ are quite interesting.
(b) It is an great honour to welcome you.
(c) Beside tennis, I play Cricket.
(d) The Chief Manager along with his deputies are visiting the factory tomorrow.
(e) Many have arrested at the meeting.
Answer:
(a) The collection ‘Fragrant flowers’ is quite interesting.
(b) It is a great honour to welcome you.
(c) Besides tennis, I play Cricket.
(d) The Chief Manager along with his deputies is visiting the factory tomorrow.
(e) Many have been arrested at the meeting.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(а) This ………………. is made out of plaster of Paris ………………. and painted after it solidifies. (flower/flour)
(b) I ………………. speak two languages. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) I am so tired! I ………………. take a nap. (use a semi-modal)
(d) I ………………. (sing) since I was four years old. (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) flower/flour (b) can (c) need to (d) have been singing

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
[Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer]
Answer:
(a) Weather (b) Nutrition and Dietetics (c) Sports (d) Commerce (e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
During the holidays, many people hang mistletoes over doorways. People share kisses under this evergreen plant, which is a popular Christmas tradition. However, one should never let the image of a romantic plant used during the happy times of the holidays fool. In the forests where they’re from, mistletoes can do some real damage. Let’s see the different ways in which they do harm others.

The mistletoe plant is evergreen. This means it has leaves that remain green throughout the year. It is poisonous and has white berries and small, yellow flowers. The mistletoe lives on other plants, taking water and nutrients from these plants. For this reason, mistletoes are considered parasites.

The white berries of the mistletoes contain seeds. Some birds and mammals like to feed on these berries. When they do, the seeds may attach to the animal eating the berries. The animal may carry the seeds to another part of the tree or shrub. They may also carry the seeds to another plant altogether. The seeds start to grow roots that dig through the bark of the tree or shrub. The roots grow into the tissues of the plant they’ve taken over.

That’s how mistletoes take nutrients and water away from the host plants. Mistletoe can be hard to remove once it infects a plant. The best way to fight off a mistletoe infestation is to cut off the infected branch completely. If the mistletoe takes over more parts of the plant, it can start to weaken the plant and make it harder for it to grow.

As mistletoes grow in the trees, they become a thick mix of branches and stems. This big mass is sometimes called a “witch’s broom.” Some animals nest in these witches’ brooms. These animals include chickadees, house wrens, and most Cooper’s hawks.

Questions:
(a) What is a popular Christmas tradition?
(b) Why is mistletoes considered a parasite?
(c) What is the best way to ward off the mistletoe infestation? id) What is called a ‘witch’s broom’?
(ie) Which animals nest in the witches’ brooms?
Answers:
(a) During Christmas holidays, many people hang mistletoes over doorways. People share kisses under mistletoes, an evergreen plant hung over doorways. This is a popular Christmas tradition.
(b) The mistletoe lives on other plants, taking water and nutrients from these plants. Hence, mistletoes are considered parasites.
(c) Mistletoe can be hard to remove once it infects a plant. The best way to fight off a mistletoe infestation is to cut off the infected branch completely.
(d) Mistletoes that grow in the trees become a thick mix of branches and stems. This big mass is called a “witch’s broom.”
(e) Some animals like chickadees, house wrens, and most Cooper’s hawks nest in the witches’ brooms.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 5 Trial Balance Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 5 Trial Balance

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Trial Balance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Trial balance is a ………………
(a) Statement
(b) Account
(c) Ledger
(d) Journal
Answer:
(a) Statement

Question 2.
After the preparation of ledger, the next step is the preparation of ………………
(a) Trading account
(b) Trial balance
(c) Journal
(d) Profit and loss account
Answer:
(b) Trial balance

Question 3.
The trial balance contains the balances of ………………
(a) Only personal accounts
(b) Only real accounts
(c) Only nominal accounts
(d) All accounts
Answer:
(d) All accounts

Question 4.
Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of preparing trial balance?
(a) Serving as the summary of all the ledger accounts
(b) Helping in the preparation of final accounts
(c) Examining arithmetical accuracy of accounts
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 5.
While preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of the credit column is short by ₹ 200. This difference will be ………………
(a) Debited to suspense account
(b) Credited to suspense account
(c) Adjusted to any of the debit balance
(d) Adjusted to any of the credit balance
Answer:
(b) Credited to suspense account

Question 6.
A list which contains balances of accounts to know whether the debit and credit balances are matched is ………………
(a) Journal
(b) Day book
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(c) Trial balance

Question 7.
Which of the following method(s) can be used for preparing trial balance?
(a) Balance method
(b) Total method
(c) Total and Balance method
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 8.
The account which has a debit balance and is shown in the debit column of the trial balance is ………………
(a) Sundry creditors account
(b) Bills payable account
(c) Drawings account
(d) Capital account
Answer:
(c) Drawings account

Question 9.
The difference of totals of both debit and credit side of trial balance is transferred to ………………
(a) Trading account
(b) Difference account
(c) Suspense account
(d) Miscellaneous account
Answer:
(c) Suspense account

Question 10.
Trial balance is prepared ………………
(a) At the end of the year
(b) On a particular date
(c) For a year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) On a particular date

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is trial balance?
Answer:
Trial balance is a statement containing the debit and credit balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date. It is arranged in the form of debit and credit columns placed side by side and prepared with the object of checking the arithmetical accuracy of entries made in the books of accounts and to facilitate preparation of financial statements.

Question 2.
Give the format of trial balance.
Answer:
Trial balance is prepared in the following format under the balance method:

Question 3.
What are the methods of preparation of trial balance?
Answer:

1. Balanced method
2. Total method
3. Total and balance method

Question 4.
State whether the balance of the following accounts should be placed in the debit or the credit column of the trial balance:

1. Carriage outwards
2. Carriage inwards
3. Sales
4. Purchases
5. Bad debts vi. Interest paid
6. Interest received
7. Discount received
8. Capital
9. Drawings
10. Sales returns
11. Purchase returns

Answer:
Trial balance as on 31^st March, 2017

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of preparing trial balance?
Answer:
Trial balance is prepared with the following objectives:
1. Test of arithmetical accuracy:
Trial balance is the means by which the arithmetical accuracy of the book – keeping work is checked. When the totals of debit column and credit column in the trial balance are equal, it is assumed that posting from subsidiary books, balancing of ledger accounts, etc. are arithmetically correct. However, there may be some errors which are not disclosed by trial balance.

2. Basis for preparing final accounts:
Financial statements, namely, trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet are prepared on the basis of summary of ledger balances obtained from the trial balance.

3. Location of errors:
When the trial balance does not tally, it is an indication that certain errors have occurred. The errors may have occurred at one or more of the stages of accounting process, namely, journalising or recording in subsidiary books, totalling subsidiary books, posting in ledger accounts.

Balancing the ledger accounts, carrying ledger account balances to the trial balance and totalling the trial balance columns, etc. Hence, the errors should be located and rectified before preparing the financial statements.

4. Summarised information of ledger accounts:
The summary of ledger accounts is shown in the trial balance. Ledger accounts have to be seen only when details are required in respect of an account.

Question 2.
What are the limitations of trial balance?
Answer:
The following are the limitations of trial balance:

1. It is possible to prepare trial balance of an organisation, only if the double entry system is followed.
2. Even if some transactions are omitted, the trial balance will tally.
3. Trial balance may tally even though errors are committed in the books of account,
4. If trial balance is not prepared in a systematic way, the final accounts prepared on the basis of trial balance may not depict the actual state of affairs of the concern.
5. Agreement of trial balance is not a conclusive proof of arithmetical accuracy of entries made in the accounting records. This is because there are certain errors which are not : disclosed by trial balance such as complete omission of a transaction, compensating errors and error of principle.

Question 3.
‘A trial balance is only a prima facie evidence of the arithmetical accuracy of records’. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement. ‘A trial balance is only a prima facie evidence of the arithmetical accuracy of records.

Reasons:
Trial balance is the means by which the arithmetical accuracy of the book – keeping. work is checked. When the totals of debit column and credit column in the trial balance are equal, it is assumed that porting from subsidiary books, balancing of ledger accounts, etc.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Prepare a trial balance with the following information: (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance

Question 2.
Prepare the trial balance from the following information: (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial Balance

Question 3.
Prepare the trial balance from the following balances of Chandramohan as on 31^st March, 2017. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Chandramohan as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 4.
Prepare the trial balance from the following balances of Babu as on 31^st March, 2016. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Babu as on 31^st March, 2016

Question 5.
From the following balances of Aijun, prepare the trial balance as on 31^st March, 2018. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Arjun as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 6.
Prepare the trial balance from the following balances of Rajesh as on 31^st March, 2017. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Rajesh as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 7.
Prepare the trial balance from the following balances of Karthik as on 31^st March, 2017. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Karthik as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 8.
From the following balance of Rohini, Prepare the trial balance as on 31^st March, 2016. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Rohini as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 9.
Balan who has a car driving school gives you the following ledger balances. Prepare trial balance as on 31^st December, 2016. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Balan as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 10.
The following balances are extracted from the books of Ravichandran on 31^st December, 2016. Prepare the trial balance. (5 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Rohini as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 11.
From the following balances, Prepare trial balanceof Baskar as on 31^st March 2017. Transfer the difference, if any, to suspense account. (5 Marks)

Answer:
Trial balance of Rohini as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 12.
From the following balances extracted from the books of Rajeshwari as on 31^st March, 2017, prepare the trial balance.

Answer:
Trial balance of Rajeshwari as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 13.
Correct the following trail balance:

Answer:
The Corrected Trial balance

Textbook Case Study Solved

Question 1.
Mary runs a textile store. She has prepared the following trial balance from her ledger balances. Her trial balance does not tally. She needs your help to check whether what she has done is correct.

Solution:
There are some errors in Mary’s Trial balance. The corrected trial balance has been written below:
The Corrected Trial balance of Mary

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer:

Question 1.
DTP stands for ………………………..
(a) Desktop Publishing
(b) Desktop Publication
(c) Doctor To Patient
(d) Desktop Printer
Answer:
(a) Desktop Publishing

Question 2.
……………………….. is a DTP software.
(a) Lotus 1-2-3
(b) PageMaker
(c) Doctor To Patient
(d) Lotus 1-2-3
Answer:
(b) PageMaker

Question 3.
Which menu contains the New option?
Answer:
(a) File menu
(b) Edit menu
(c) Layout menu
(d) Type menu
Answer:
(a) File menu

Question 4.
In PageMaker Window, the area outside of the dark border is referred to as ……………………………
(a) page
(b) pasteboard
(c) blackboard
(d) dashboard
Answer:
(b) pasteboard

Question 5.
Shortcut to close a document in PageMaker is ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + W
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + W

Question 6.
A …………………………… tool is used for magnifying the particular portion of the area.
(a) Text tool
(b) Line tool
(c) Zoom tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(c) Zoom tool

Question 7.
…………………………… tool is used for drawing boxes.
(a) Line
(b) Ellipse
(c) Rectangle
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Rectangle

Question 8.
Place option is present in …………………………… menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Layout
(d) Window
Answer:
(a) File

Question 9.
To select an entire document using the keyboard, press ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + D
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + A

Question 10.
Character formatting consists of which of the following text properties?
(a) Bold
(b) Italic
(c) Underline
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which tool lets you edit text?
(a) Text tool
(b) Type tool
(c) Crop tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(a) Text tool

Question 12.
Shortcut to print a document in Pagemaker is ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + P
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + V
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + P

Question 13.
Adobe PageMaker is a …………………………… software.
Answer:
Page layout

Question 14.
…………………………… Bar is the topmost part of the PageMaker window.
Answer:
TItle

Question 15.
…………………………… is the process of moving up and down or left: and right through the document window.
Answer:
Scrolling

Question 16.
…………………………… tool is used to draw a circle.
Answer:
Ellipse

Question 17.
The Insert pages option is available on clicking the …………………………… menu.
Answer:
Layout

Question 18.
Match the following.
(a) Cut – (i) Ctrl + Z
(b) Copy – (ii) Ctrl + V
(c) Paste – (iii) Ctrl + X
(d) Undo – (iv) Ctrl + C
Answer:
(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Question 19.
Choose the odd man out.
(i) Adobe PageMaker, QuarkXPress, Adobe InDesign, Audacity
(ii) File, Edit, Layout, Type, Zip
(iii) Pointer Tool, Line tool, Hide Tool, Hand Tool
(iv) Bold, Italic, Portrait, Underline
Answer:
(i) Audacity, (ii) Zip, (iii) Hide Tool, (iv) Potrait

Question 20.
Choose the correct statement.
(i) (a) Text can be selected using mouse only.
(b) Text can be selected using mouse or the keyboard.
(ii) (a) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publishing.
(b) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publication.
Answer:
(i) (b) & (ii) (a)

Question 21.
Choose the correct pair.
Answer:
(a) Edit and Cut
(b) Edit and New
(c) Undo and Copy
(d) Undo and Redo
Answer:
(d) Undo and Redo

PART – II
II. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is desktop publishing?
Answer:
Desktop publishing (abbreviated DTP) is the creation of page layouts for documents using DTP software.

Question 2.
Give some examples of DTP software?
Answer:
Some of the popular DTP software are Adobe PageMaker, Adobe InDesign, QuarkXPress, etc.

Question 3.
Write the steps to open PageMaker?
Answer:
In the Windows 7 operating system, we can open Adobe PageMaker using the command sequence Start →All Programs → Adobe → Pagemaker 7.0 → Adobe PageMaker 7.0.

Question 4.
How do you create a New document in PageMaker?
Answer:
To create a new document

1. Choose File > New in the menu bar. (or) Press Ctrl + N in the keyboard. Now Document Setup dialog box appears.
2. Enter the appropriate settings for your new document in the Document Setup dialog box.
3. Click on OK.

Question 5.
What is a Pasteboard in PageMaker?
Answer:
A document page is displayed within a dark border. The area outside of the dark border is referred to as the pasteboard. Anything that is placed completely in the pasteboard is not visible when you print the document.

Question 6.
Write about the Menu bar of PageMaker?
Answer:
Below the title bar is the Menu bar. It contains the following menus File, Edit, Layout, Type, Element, Utilities, View, Window, Help. When you click on a menu item, a pulldown menu appears.

Question 7.
Differentiate Ellipse tool from Ellipse frame tool?
Answer:
Ellipse tool:
Used to draw circles and ellipses.
Ellipse frame tool:
Used to create elliptical placeholders for text and graphics.

Question 8.
What is text editing?
Answer:
Editing meAnswer:Answer:Answer:Answer:making changes to the text. Editing encompasses many tasks, such as inserting and deleting words and phrases, correcting errors, and moving and copying text to different pfaces in the document.

Question 9.
What is text block?
Answer:
A text block contains text you type, paste, or import. You can’t see the borders of a text block until you select it with the pointer tool.

Question 10.
What is threading text blocks?
Answer:
All text in PageMaker resides inside containers called text blocks. A Text block can be connected to other text block so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block. Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded.

Question 11.
What is threading text?
Answer:
A Text block can be connected to other text block so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block. Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded. The process of connecting text among Text blocks is called threading text.

Question 12.
How do you insert a page in PageMaker?
Answer:

1. Go to the page immediately before the page you want to insert.
2. Choose Layout > Insert Pages in the menu bar. The Insert Pages dialog box appears.
3. Type the number of pages you want to insert.
4. To insert pages after the current page, choose ‘after’ from the pop-up menu.
5. Click on Insert.
6. The new pages are inserted in your publication.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer:

Question 1.
What is PageMaker? Explain its uses?
Answer:
Adobe PageMaker is a page layout software. It is used to design and produce documents that can be printed. You can create anything from a simple business card to a large book.
Page layout software includes tools that allow you to easily position text and graphics on document pages. For example, using PageMaker, you could create a newsletter that includes articles and pictures on each page. You can place pictures and text next to each other, on top of each other, or beside each other wherever you want them to go.

Question 2.
Mention three tools in PageMaker and write their keyboard shortcuts?
Answer:
Tools:

1. Printer Tool
2. Rotating Tool
3. Line Tool

Keyboard Short Cut:

1. F9
2. Shift + F2
3. Shift + F3

Question 3.
Write the use of any three tools in PageMaker along with symbols?
Answer:

Question 4.
How do you rejoin split blocks?
Answer:
Rbjoining split blocks
To rejoin the two text blocks

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle of the second text.block, click and drag the bottom handle up to the top.
2. Then place the cursor on the bottom handle of the first text block, and click and drag the bottom handle down if necessary.

Question 5.
How do you link frames containing text?
Answer:
Linking Frames containing Text
A single frame may not be large enough to hold an entire story when you are using a large amount of text, you can link frames together so that an entire story is visible.
To link Frames containing text

1. Draw a second frame With the Frame tool of your choice.
2. Click the first frame to select it.
3. Click on the red triangle to load the text icon.
4. Click the second frame. PageMaker flows the text into the second frame.

Question 6.
What is the use of Master Page?
Answer:
Any text or object that you place on the master page will appear on the entire document pages to which the master is applied. It shortens the amount of time because you don’t have to create the same objects repeatedly on subsequent pages. Master Pages commonly contain repeating logos, page numbers, headers, and footers. They also contain non printing layout guides, such as column guides, ruler guides, and margin guides.

Question 7.
How to you insert page numbers in Master pages?
Answer:
Inserting Page Numbers in Master Pages
To make page numbers appear on every page

1. Click on Master Pages icon.
2. Then click on Text Tool. Now the cursor changes to I – beam.
3. Then Click on the left Master page where you want to put the page number.
4. Press Ctrl + Alt + P.
5. The page number displays as ‘LM’ on the left master page.
6. Similarly click on the right Master page where you want to put the page number.
7. O Press Ctrl + Alt + P.
8. The page number displays as ‘RM’ on the right master page, but will appear correctly on the actual pages.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the tools in PageMaker toolbox?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the steps to place the text in a frame?
Answer:
Placing Text in a Frame
You can also use frames to hold text in place of using text blocks.
To place text in a Frame

1. Click on one of a Frame tool from the Toolbox.
2. Draw a frame with one of PageMaker’s Frame tools (Rectangle frame tool or Ellipse Frame Tool or Polygon frame Tool). Make sure the object remains selected.
3. Click on File. The File menu will appear.
4. Click on Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
5. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place, select it.
6. Click on Open.
7. Click in a frame to place the text in it. The text will be placed in the frame.

Question 3.
How can you convert text in a text block to a frame?
Answer:
Converting text in a Text block to a Frame
After created text in a text block, if you want to convert it to a frame. You can do this by using these steps.

1. Draw the frame of your choice using one of the PageMaker’s Frame tool.
2. Select the text block you want to insert in the frame.
3. Click the frame while pressing the Shift key. Now both elements will be selected.
4. Choose Element > Frame > Attach Content on the Menu bar.
5. Now the text appears in the frame.

Question 4.
Write the steps to draw a star using polygon tool?
Answer:
Drawing a Star using Polygon tool
To draw a Star
(i) Click on the Polygon tool from the toolbox.
The cursor changes to a crosshair.

(ii) Click and drag anywhere on the screen. As you drag, a Polygon appears.

(iii) Release the mouse button when the Polygon is of the desired size.

(iv) Choose Element > Polygon Settings in the menu bar.
Now Polygon Settings dialogue box appears.

(v) Type 5 in the Number of sides text box.

(vi) Type 50% in Star inset textbox.

(vii) Click OK. Now the required star appears on the screen.

Drawing a star with given number of sides and required inset
1. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 50%. The number of sides is 15.

2. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 25%. The number of sides is 25.

3. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 35%. The number of sides is 70.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Additional Question and Answers

I. Choose the Best Answer:

Question 1.
How will you get Document setup dialog box?
(a) Document → setup
(b) File → New
(c) File → Document
(d) File → setup
Answer:
(b) File → New

Question 2.
…………………………. is the shortcut key to create a new document.
Answer:
Ctrl + N

Question 3.
………………………… is used to temporarily hold elements while designing.
Answer:
Pasteboard

Question 4.
How many control buttons are present in the title bar?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 5.
The default name of the new document created is …………………………..
(a) untitled 1
(b) doc 1
(c) default 1
(d) untitled
Answer:
(a) untitled 1

Question 6.
When you move the mouse pointer on a button in the toolbar, a short text that appears is called ……………………………..
(a) Tool tip
(b) Text
(c) Show text
(d) Short text
Answer:
(a) Tool tip

Question 7.
Match the following.
(i) polygon – (a) Shift + alt + F4
(ii) cropping – (b) Shift + F6
(iii) constrained line – (c) Shift + alt + F2
(iv) Rectangle Frame – (d) Shift + alt + F4
(a) (i)-(a) (ii)-(b) (iii)-(c) (iv)-(d)
(b) (i)-(d) (;ii)-(b) (iii)-(c) (z’v)-(a)
(c) (z’)-(c) (ii)-(b) (iii)-(d) (iv)-(a)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

Question 8.
……………………. is the shortcut for the pointer tool.
Answer:
F9

Question 9.
Choose the correct pair.
(a) Zoom tool

(b) Polygon

(c) Ellipse

(d) line

Answer:
(a) Zoom tool

Question 10.
……………………….. tool is used to trim imported graphics.
(a) Text
(b) Rotating
(c) Trim
(d) Crop
Answer:
(d) Crop

Question 11.
How many scroll bars are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 12.
How many ruler bars are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 13.
The rulers are present at the ………………….. and …………………
(a) top, right
(b) right, left
(c) top, left
(d) bottom, top
Answer:
(c) top, left

Question 14.
…………………………. tool is used for creating text blocks.
(a) Block
(b) Text
(c) Footer
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(b) Text

Question 15.
The flashing verticle bar is called ……………………………
(a) sroll bar
(b) ruler
(c) Footer
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(d) Insertion point

Question 16.
Which key should be pressed at the end of the paragraph or when a blank line is to be inserted?
(a) Enter
(b) Tab
(c) Spacebar
(d) esc
Answer:
(a) Enter

Question 17.
Choose the correct statement.
(i) double click with I-beam to select a word.
(ii) double click with I beam to select a paragraph
Answer:
(i) double click with I-beam to select a word.

Question 18.
Which key is used to select the text with keyboard?
(a) Ctrl
(b) alt
(c) shift
(d) ctrl+tab
Answer:
(c) shift

Question 19.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) One line down – alt + ↓
(b) Beginning of current line – shift + home
(c) One character to the left – shift + ←
Answer:
(a) One line down – alt + ↓

Question 20.
Which key deletes the character to the left?
(a) Delete
(b) Backspace
(c) Remove
(d) Escape
Answer:
(a) Delete

Question 21.
To delete the characters to the right of the insertion point, key is used.
(a) delete
(b) backspace
(c) alt
(d) ctrl
Answer:
(b) backspace

Question 22.
To delete a block of text, press
(a) delete
(b) Backspace
(c) Edit → clear
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.
Undo option is present in ………………………….. menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Help
(d) Insert
Answer:
(b) Edit

Question 24.
Which command is not present in the Edit menu?
(a) Cut
(b) Paste
(c) Copy
(d) place
Answer:
(d) place

Question 25.
How many methods of creating text blocks are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 26.
While selecting a text block with the pointer tool, there will be a dark ……………………….. on both ends of the handle.
(a) rectangle
(b) circle
(c) square
(d) polygon
Answer:
(c) square

Question 27.
A red triangle in the bottom window shade meAnswer:Answer:Answer:Answer:…………………………..
(a) there is more text in the text block
(b) there is no text in the text block
(c) text block is deleted
(d) new text block appears
Answer:
(a) there is more text in the text block

Question 28.
Rearrange the sentences
(i) It has squiggly arrow
(ii) place the loaded text icon, click then page will automatically flow
(iii) Select Layout → Autoflow
(iv) Import the text
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Question 29.
Text that flows through one or more threaded blocks is
(a) blocks
(b) story
(c) thread
(d) unthread
Answer:
(b) story

Question 30.
A threaded block is identified by …………………….. sign in the handles.
(a) +
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer:
(a) +

Question 31.
In page maker, text and graphics that you draw or import are called ……………………………
(a) event
(b) handle
(c) tool
(d) objects
Answer:
(d) objects

Question 32.
Choose the wrong statement.
(a) An object can be on a page
(b) An object can be on the pasteboard
(c) An object cannot be on the pasteboard
(d) An object can be on a page or pasteboard
Answer:
(c) An object cannot be on the pasteboard

Question 33.
Which command is used to convert text into frame?
(a) Element → Frame → Attach Content
(b) Element → Frame → add content
(c) Add → Frame
(d) Add → content
Answer:
(a) Element → Frame → Attach Content

Question 34.
Which dialog box appears when File → Save command is given?
(a) Save
(b) Save as
(c) Save page
(d) Save publication
Answer:
(d) Save publication

Question 35.
Instead of File → Save as, we can use the shortcut key
(a) Ctrl + S
(b) alt + S
(c) shift + alt + S
(d) Ctrl + shift + S
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + shift + S

Question 36.
How will you get open publication dialog box?
(a) Ctrl + O
(b) Alt + O
(c) Shift + 0
(d) Shift + O + P
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + O

Question 37.
Find the wrong pair?
(a) Beginning of line – Home
(b) End of line – end
(c) One character to left-left arrow
(d) Up one line – Ctrl + up arrow
Answer:
(d) Up one line – Ctrl + up arrow

Question 38.
To toggle between magnification and reduction, press …………………………………. key.
(a) alt
(b) Ctrl
(c) shift
(d) esc
Answer:
(b) Ctrl

Question 39.
Find the wrong statement.
(a) Press Ctrl + spacebar to zoom in
(b) Press alt + spacebar to zoom out
(c) Press alt + Ctrl + spacebar to zoom out
Answer:
(b) Press alt + spacebar to zoom out

Question 40.
………………………… is the process of changing the general arrangement of text
(a) Text
(b) Alignment
(c) Formatting
(d) Editing
Answer:
(c) Formatting

Question 41.
To apply character formatting
(i) choose type → character
(ii) choose format → character
(iii) press Ctrl → T
(iv) Open character specification dialog box
(a) (i), (iv) are wrong
(b) (i), (iii) are wrong
(c) (ii) is wrong
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is wrong

Question 42.
How will you get control palette?
(a) alt + ’
(b) shift + ’
(c) esc
(d) Ctrl + ’
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + ’

Question 43.
How many line tools are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 44.
When a line tool is selected to draw a line, cursor becomes …………………………..
(a) +
(b) –
(c) double arrow
(d) cross hair
Answer:
(d) cross hair

Question 45.
Find the false statement.
(a) Custom Stroke dialog box is used to draw dotted line.
(b) Rounded comers dialog box is used to draw rounded comer rectangle.
(c) Both are correct.
Answer:
(c) Both are correct.

Question 46.
The constrained line tool draws line only at the increments of ………………………. degrees.
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
Answer:
(b) 45

Question 47.
Press the ………………………….. key while you are drawing to constrain the shape to a square or circle.
(a) alt
(b) shift
(c) del
(d) Ctrl
Answer:
(b) shift

Question 48.
Which menu has polygon settings options?
(a) Tools
(b) Layout
(c) Element
(d) Place
Answer:
(c) Element

Question 49.
To get color palette, press
(a) shift + J
(b) alt + J
(c) del + J
(d) Ctrl + J
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + J

Question 50.
Press alt + Ctrl + G to open go to page dialog box.
(a) true
(b) false
Answer:
(a) true

Question 51.
What are the two letters associated with master page option?
(a) L and R
(b) S R
(c) RT
(d) TB
Answer:
(a) L and R

Question 52.
By default, all the page maker document have a master page already created
(a) Master page
(b) Document Master
(c) Document Page
(d) Page Master
Answer:
(b) Document Master

Question 53.
Find the correct statement. .
(а) A master item can be selected on a document page.
(b) A master item cannot be selected on a document page.
Answer:
(b) A master item cannot be selected on a document page.

Question 54.
A sign or special character that can be inserted in the page maker document is on ………………………
(a) Symbol
(b) Menu
(c) Formula
(d) Sign
Answer:
(a) Symbol

Question 55.
…………………………. is the text that is repeated at the top of each page.
Answer:
Header

Question 56.
A ……………………………. is a set of letters, numbers or symbols in a certain style.
Answer:
Font

Question 57.
When the publication has reached its maximum magnification or reduction level, center becomes …………………………………
Answer:
Blank

Question 58.
To Scroll a relative distance …………………………… is used.
Answer:
Scroll box

Question 59.
To down one paragraph, …………………………. is used.
Answer:
ctrl+down arrow

Question 60.
……………………….. can be contained in text blocks or text frames.
Answer:
Text

Question 61.
Press ………………………….. for rotating tool.
Answer:
Shift+F2

II. Short Answer:

Question 1.
When will you get the cursor like this Find the name of the tool & write its uses.?
Answer:
It is hand tool which is used to scroll the page (an alternative to the scroll bar).

Question 2.
Write note on scroll bars?
Answer:
Scrolling is the process of moving up and down or left and right through the document window. There are two scroll bars namely Vertical and Horizontal scroll bars for scrolling the document vertically or horizontally.

Question 3.
What is meant by wrapping the text?
Answer:
When the text being typed reaches the end of the text block, PageMaker will automatically wrap the text to the next line.

Question 4.
What is the use of enter key?
Answer:
The Enter key should be pressed only at the end of a paragraph or when a blank line is to be inserted.

Question 5.
How will you select the word and a paragraph?
Answer:
To select:

1. A word
2. A paragraph

Press:

1. Double click with I – beam
2. Triple click with I – beam

Question 6.
Name the tools where you get cursor with *+’ symbol?
Answer:
Line tool, Constrained line tool, Rectangle tool, Rectangle frame tool, Ellipse tool, Ellipse frame tool, Polygon tool, and Polygon frame tool.
A Paragraph Triple-click with I-beam

Question 7.
What are the two ways of creating text blocks?
Answer:

1. Click or drag the text tool on the page or pasteboard, and then type
2. Click a loaded text icon in an empty column or page.

Question 8.
Define Windowshades?
Answer:
When you select a text block with the Pointer tool, the block’s boundaries become visible. Two handles are seen above and below the text block. These handles are called Windowshades.

Question 9.
How will you separate the text from the frame?
Answer:
To separate text from a frame

1. Click the frame with the Pointer tool.
2. Choose Element > Frame > Delete Content in the menu bar. The text will not appear in the frame.

Question 10.
Define font?
Answer:
A font is a set of letters, numbers or symbols in a certain style. Each font looks different from other fonts.

Question 11.
What are the two line tools in page maker?
Answer:
PageMaker has two Line tools. The first one creates a straight line at any orientation. The second is a constrained Line tool that draws only at increments of 45 degrees.

Question 12.
How will you change text colors in page maker?
Answer:
To color characters

1. Select the text you want to colour.
2. Choose Window > Show Colors in Menu bar. The Colors palette appears. Click the color you want to apply to the selected text.

Question 13.
Name any 4 options from the layout menu?
Answer:

1. Go to pages
2. Insert pages
3. Remove pages
4. Sort pages

Question 3.
How wOl you Show / hide the rulers?
Answer:
To show the ruler

1. Click on View. The View menu will appear.
2. Click on Show Rulers. Rulers appear along the top and left sides of the document window. To hide the ruler
3. Click on View. The View menu will appear.
4. Click on Hide Rulers to hide the rulers.

Question 4.
Differentiate moving and copying text?
Answer:
The Copy and Paste commands of PageMaker can be used to copy text from one location in a document and paste it at another location. The Copy command creates a duplicate of the selected text, leaving the original text unchanged. The Paste command pastes the copied text at the position where the insertion point is placed. The Cut and Paste commands can be used to move text from one position in a document to the other. The Cut command deletes the selected text from its original position. The Paste command then places this text at the position where the insertion point is placed.

Question 5.
How will you create a text block with text tool?
Answer:
To create a text block with the text tool:
(i) Select the text tool (T) from the toolbox. The pointer turns into an I-beam.

(ii) On an empty area of the page or pasteboard, do one of the following:
Click the I-beam where you want to insert text. This creates a text block the width of the column or page. By default, the insertion point jumps to the left side of the text block.

(iii) Type the text you want.
Unlike with a text frame, you do not see the borders of a text block until you click the text with the pointer tool.

Question 6.
How will you Split a text block into two?
Answer:
To split a text block into two

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle, click and drag upwards. When you release the bottom handle will contain a red triangle.
2. Click once on this, and the cursor changes to a loaded text icon.

Question 7.
How will you save a document with a new name or in a different location?
Answer:
To save a document with a new name or in a different location:

1. Choose File > Save As in the menu bar.
2. Press Shift + Ctrl + S in the keyboard.

Now Save Publication dialog box will appear:

1. Type a new name or specify a new location.
2. Click the Save button.

Question 8.
Give the functions of those keys give below?
Answer:

1. Left arrow
2. right arrow
3. Ctrl + left arrow
4. Ctrl + right arrow
5. up arrow
6. down arrow

Press:

1. Left Arrow
2. Right Arrow
3. Ctrl + Left Arrow
4. Ctrl + Right Arrow
5. Up Arrow
6. Down Arrow

Move:

1. One character to the left
2. One character to the right
3. One word to the left
4. One word to the right
5. Up one line
6. Down one line

Question 9.
How will you go to a specific page? (or) what are the 3 methods to go to a particular page?
Answer:
Pagemaker provides several methods for navigating the pages in your publication.
Method 1:
You can move from one page to another by using the Page up and Page down keys on your keyboard.

Method 2:
You can move from one page to another by using the page icons at the left bottom of the screen.

Method 3:
Using the Go to Page dialog box.

IV. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the different ways of selecting the text?
Answer:
Selecting Text:
Text can be selected using the mouse or the keyboard.
Selecting Text using the mouse:
To select text using a mouse, follow these steps :

1. Place the Insertion point to the left of the first character to be selected.
2. Press the left mouse button and drag the mouse to a position where you want to stop selecting.
3. Release the mouse button.
4. The selected text gets highlighted.

To Select Press:

1. A Word Double-click with I-beam
2. A Paragraph Triple-click with I-beam

Selecting Text using the Keyboard:
To select text using a keyboard, follow these steps :

1. Place the Insertion point to the left of the first character you wish to select.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.

To Select – Press
One character to the left – Shift + ←
One character to the right – Shift + →
One line up – Shift + ↑
One line down – Shift + ↓
To the end of the current line – Shift +End
To the beginning of the current line – Shift + Home,
Entire Document – Ctrl + A

Question 2.
How will import (place) the text from other software programs in the page maker?
Answer:
You can insert text from other software program like MS-Word in the PageMaker documents.

1. Choose File > Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
2. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place and select it.
3. Click on Open in the Place dialog box. The pointer changes to the loaded text icon ( )
4. Make a text block to place the text. (Or) Click in the page to place the text.

The text will be placed in the page.
If the text to be placed is too big to fit on one page, PageMaker allows you to place it on several pages. This can be done manually or automatically.

Manual text flow:

1. Position the loaded text icon at a comer of the area where you want to place text, hold down the mouse button, and drag to define the text block. Release the mouse button.

2. Text flows into the defined area. If there is more text than fits in the text block you defined, a red triangle appears in the bottom windowshade handle.

3. Click once on this and the loaded text icon reappears. Now generate a new text block and # click. Repeat this process until there is no more text to place.

Question 3.
Explain how will you draw a rounded corner rectangle?
Answer:
Drawing a Rounded Corner Rectangle
To draw a rounded-comer rectangle:

1. Double-click the Rectangle tool in the toolbox.
2. The Rounded Comers dialog box appears.
3. Choose a comer setting from the preset shapes.
4. Click on OK. The cursor changes to a cross hair.
5. Click and drag anywhere on the screen.
6. Release the mouse button when the rectangle is the desired size.
7. Press the Shift key as you draw to constrain the shape to a rounded-comer square.

Question 4.
Explain how will you draw a dotted line?
Answer:
To draw a Dotted line:

1. Double click the Line tool from the toolbox. A Custom Stroke dialogue box appears.
2. Select the required Stroke style in the drop-down list box.
3. Then click OK button. Now the cursor changes to a cross hair.
4. Click and drag on the screen to draw your dotted line. As you drag, the line appears.
5. Release the mouse button and the line will be drawn and selected, with sizing handles on either end.
   Resize the line by clicking and dragging the handles, if necessary.

Question 5.
Explain how will you print a document in the page maker?
Answer:
Print a document:

(i) Choose File > Print in the menu bar (or) Press Ctrl + P in the keyboard. The Print Document dialog box appears
(ii) Choose the settings in the Print Document dialog box as

• Select the printer from the Printer drop-down list box.
• Choose the pages to be printed in the Pages group box by selecting one of the following available options:

All:
This option prints the whole document.

Ranges:
This option prints individual pages by the page number or a range of pages.
You can use commas to separate the page numbers (e.g., 5,7,19).
Use a hyphen to print page ranges(e.g., 10-17; this will print all pages from page numbers 10 . to 17).
To print from a particular page to the end of the document, enter the starting page number followed by a hyphen (e.g., 5 -).
You may also combine individual page numbers and a range of pages (e.g., 5, 9, 15-26).
Print: You can also print only odd-numbered or even-numbered pages. Select the Odd pages or Even pages Option from the Print drop-down list box.

• Type the number of copies you want in the Copies text box.
• You can choose whether to collate the pages or not. Suppose you want to print 4 copies of a 5 pages document

If the Collate option is not selected. PageMaker will first print 4 copies of page 1, then 4 copies of page 2, and so on.
If the Collate option is selected, PageMaker will print a complete set of pages 1 to 5, then a second set, and so on.

(iii) After choosing from the options in the Print Document dialog box, click Print button to print the document. Make sure the printer is switched on.