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Students can Download Economics Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Countries today are to be ______ for their growth.
(a) Dependent
(b) Interdependent
(c) Free trade
(d) Capitalist
Answer:
(b) Interdependent

Question 3.
The Arguments against LPG is ______
(a) Economic growth
(b) More investment
(c) Disparities among people and regions
(d) Modernization
Answer:
(c) Disparities among people and regions

Question 4.
Expansion of FDI ______
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 5.
India is the largest producer of ______ in the world.
(a) fruits
(b) gold
(c) petrol
(d) diesel
Answer:
(a) fruits

Question 6.
Foreign investment includes ______
(a) FDI only
(b) FPI and FFI
(c) FDI and FPI
(d) FDI and FFI
Answer:
(a) FDI only

Question 7.
The Special Economic Zones policy was announced in ______
(a) April 2000
(b) July 1990
(c) April 1980
(d) July 1970
Answer:
(a) April 2000

Question 8.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a ______
(a) Advisory body
(b) Statutory body
(c) Both a and b
(d) none of these above
Answer:
(b) Statutory body

Question 9.
Goods and Services Tax is ______
(a) a multi point tax
(b) having cascading effects
(c) like Value Added Tax
(d) a single point tax with no cascading effects.
Answer:
(d) a single point tax with no cascading effects.

Question 10.
The New Foreign Trade Policy was announced in the year ______
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 11.
Financial Sector reforms mainly related to ______
(a) Insurance Sector
(b) Banking Sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Transport Sector
Answer:
(c) Both a and b

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax Act came in to effect on ______
(a) 1st July 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st January 2017
(d) 1st January 2016
Answer:
(a) 1st July 2017

Question 13.
The new economic policy is concerned with the following ______
(a) foreign investment
(b) foreign technology
(c) foreign trade
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 14.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was submitted in the year ______
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 15.
The farmers have access to credit under Kisan credit card scheme through the following except ______
(a) co-operative banks
(b) RRBs
(c) Public sector banks
(d) private banks
Answer:
(a) co-operative banks

Question 16.
The Raja Chelliah Committee on Trade Policy Reforms suggested the peak rate on import duties at ______
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 100%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 17.
The first ever SEZ in India was set up at
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kandla
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(c) Kandla

Question 18.
‘The Hindu Rate of Growth’ coined by Raj Krishna refers to ______
(a) low rate of economic growth
(b) high proportion of Hindu population
(c) Stable GDP
(d) none
Answer:
(a) low rate of economic growth

Question 19.
The highest rate of tax under GST ______ is (as on July, 2017)
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

Question 20.
The transfer of ownership from the public sector to the private sector is known as ______
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
Answer:
(c) Privatization

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Why was structural reform implemented in the Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. Indian Economy responded to the crisis by introducing a set of policies known as Structural Reforms.
2. These policies were aimed at correcting the weaknesses and rigidities in the various sectors of the economy such as industry, trade, fiscal, and agriculture.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG.
Answer:
To correct the weaknesses and rigidities in the various sectors of the economy India implemented LPG which is the triple pillar of New Economic Policy.

Question 23.
State the meaning of Privatization.
Answer:
Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.

Question 24.
Define disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of public sector undertakings to other PSUs or private sector or banks.

Question 25.
Write three policy initiatives introduced in 1991 – 1992 to correct the fiscal imbalance.
Answer:
The important policy initiatives introduced in the budget for the year 1991-92 for correcting the fiscal imbalance were:

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Special Economic Zones.
Answer:
SEZs is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country mainly aiming at increasing trade, investment, and job creation.

Question 27.
State the various components of Central government schemes under post-harvest measures.
Answer:

1. Mega food parks, Integrated Cold Chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and Modernization of Slaughterhouse.
2. Scheme for Quality Assurance, Codex Standards, Research and Development, and Other promotional activities.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
How do you justify the merits of Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatization was necessitated because of the belief that the private sector was not given enough opportunities to earn more money.

Question 29.
What are the measures taken towards Globalization?
Answer:

1. As globalization measures tend to integrate all economies of the world and bringing them all under one umbrella.
2. They pave the way for the redistribution of economic power at the world level.
3. Well-developed countries are favoured in this process and the welfare of the less- developed countries will be neglected.
4. Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world.
5. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 30.
Write a note on Foreign investment policy?
Answer:
The major feature of the economic reform opened the gate to foreign investment and foreign technology. Foreign investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.

In 1991, the government announced a specified list of industries wherein automatic permission was granted for FDI. Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve the foreign direct investment in select areas.

Question 31.
Give a short note on Cold storage.
Answer:

1. India is the largest producer of fruits and the second-largest producer of vegetables in the world.
2. In spite of that per capita availability of fruits and vegetables is quite low because of post-harvest losses which account for about 25% to 30% of production.
3. Besides, the quality of a sizable quantity of produce also deteriorates by the time it reaches the consumer.
4. Most of the problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables can be traced to their perishability.
5. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations, and other similar problems.
6. In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the Ministry of Agriculture promulgated an order known as “Cold Storage Order, 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act., 1955.

Question 32.
Mention the functions of APMC.
Answer:

1. To promote public-private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
2. To provide market-led extension services to farmers.
3. To promote agricultural activities.
4. To bring transparency in pricing systems and market transactions.
5. To ensure payments to the farmer for the sale on the same day.
6. To display data on arrivals and rates from time to time in the market.

Question 33.
List out the features of the new trade policy.
Answer:
The main feature of the new trade policy as it has evolved over the years since 1991 are as follows: Free imports and exports:

1. Prior to 1991, in India imports were regulated.
2. From 1992, imports were regulated by a limited negative list.
3. The trade policy of 1 April 1992 freed imports of almost all intermediate and capital goods. Rationalization of tariff structure and removal of quantitative restrictions:
4. The Chelliah Committee’s Report had suggested a drastic reduction in import duties.
5. It had suggested a peak rate of 50 percent.
6. With a gradual reduction in the tariffs, the 1991-92 budget had reduced the peak rate of import duty from more than 300 percent to 150 percent.
7. The process of lowering the customs tariffs was carried further in successive budgets.

The Chelliah Committee’s report had suggested a drastic reduction in import duties. As a first step towards a gradual reduction in the tariffs, the 1991 -92 budget had reduced the peak rate of import duty.

Question 34.
What is GST? Write its advantages.
Answer:
GST is a comprehensive indirect tax levied on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods as well as services.

Advantages of GST :

1. Removing cascading tax effect.
2. Single point tax.
3. Higher threshold for registration
4. Composition scheme for small business.
5. The online simpler procedure under GST.
6. Defined treatment for e-commerce.
7. Increased efficiency in logistics

Question 35.
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
Answer:
The policy has brought changes in the following aspects of industrial regulation.

• Industrial delicensing.
• De-reservation of the Industrial Sector.
• Public sector policy (dereservation and reform of PSEs).
• Abolition of MRTP Act.
• Foreign Investment policy and foreign technology policy.

Industrial delicensing policy:

• The most important objective of the new Industrial policy of 1991 was the end of the Industrial licensing or the license raj or red-tapism.
• The Industrial licensing policies, private sector firms had to secure licenses to start an Industry.

Dereservation of the Industrial Sector:

• The public sector was given reservation especially in the capital goods and key industries.
• Industrial deregulation, most of the industrial sectors were opened to the private sector as well.
• The new industrial policy, only three sectors viz., atomic energy, mining, and railways will continue as reserved for the public sector.

Reforms related to the Public Sector enterprises:

• Reforms in the public sector were aimed at enhancing the efficiency and competitiveness of the sector.
• The government identified strategic and priority areas for the public sector concentrate.

Abolition of MRTP Act:

• The New Industrial Policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
• In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watchdog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.

Foreign Investment Policy:

• Foreign investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
• In 1991, the government announced a specified list of high-technology and high-investment priority Industries.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) upto 51 percent foreign equity.
• Foreign Investment Promotion Board has been set up to negotiate with International firms and approve Foreign Direct Investment.

Question 36.
Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

1. Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export (International Business).
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

2. Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• The geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Question 37.
Describe the salient features of EXIM policy (2015 – 2020)
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production, and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India. Salient Features:

• Reduce export obligations by 25% and give a boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
• As a step to Digital India concept, the online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
• Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
• Export obligation period for export items related to defense, military store, aerospace, and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
• EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from the present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitious.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Additional Questions and Answers

Part-A
Choose the best options

Question 1.
The expansion of FDI is
(a) Foreign comprehensive investment ______
(b) Foreign direct investment
(c) Foreign indirect investment
(d) Foreign private investment
Answer:
(b) Foreign direct investment

Question 2.
India ranked ______ position in Asia’s GDP.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 3.
The monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act was abolished in ______
(a) 1919
(b) 1971
(c) 1991
(d) 1791
Answer:
(c) 1991

Question 4.
The crop Insurance scheme was launched on
(a) 2009
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2012
Answer:
(c) 2016

Question 5.
The expansion of KCC ______
(a) Kisan Crop Card
(b) Kisan Cash Card
(c) Kisan Credit Card
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Kisan Credit Card

Question 6.
EPZ means ______
(a) Export Pay Zone
(b) Export Policy Zone
(c) Export Processing Zone
(d) Special Economic Zone
Answer:
(c) Export Processing Zone

Question 7.
Goods and Services Tax came into effect on ______
(a) 30,h June 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st July 2017
(d) 1st April 2017
Answer:
(c) 1st July 2017

Question 8.
Fiscal deficit should not exceed ______ percent of GDP
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 3

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer:
(d) 3 1 4 2

Choose the correct option

Question 3.
New economic policy was introduced in
(a) 2010
(b) 1991
(c) 1884
(d) 1894
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 4.
Kisan card was introduced in
(a) 2000
(b) 2015
(c) 1998
(d) 2017
Answer:
(c) 1998

Question 5.
was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the export processing zone
(a) India
(b) China
(c) America
(d) the Soviet Union
Answer:
(a) India

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 6.
Disinvestment means
(a) Selling of government securities
(b) Selling of public sectors
(c) Selling of private securities
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Selling of government securities

Question 7.
was set up to encourage FDI
(a) Domestic investment promotion board
(b) Foreign investment promotion board
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Foreign investment promotion board

Question 8.
The share of India to Asia’s GDP is
(a) 7.50%
(b) 6.50%
(c) 8.50%
(d) 9.50%
Answer:
(c) 8.50%

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 9.
(a) Prime minister’s crop insurance scheme was launched on 2016
(b) New industrial policy was established on 1991
(c) Kisan credit card was introduced by RBI and NABARD
(d) Goods and Services Tax was introduced in 2015
Answer:
(d) Goods and Services Tax was introduced in 2015

Question 10.
(a) New foreign trade policy was introduced on 2015
(b) First ever export processing zone was set up by China
(c) Cold storage order was introduced in 1964.
(d) India’s GDP crossed 2 trillion dollars in 2015-16
Answer:
(b) First ever export processing zone was set up by China

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 11.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Question 12.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer:
(c) Chelliah committee (iii) GST

Choose the correct pair

Question 13.

Answer:
(d) Cash reserve ratio (iv) 1991

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) Dr.Raj Krishna (i) Low rate of economic growth

Pick the odd one out

Question 15.
(a) Liberalization
(b) Industrialization
(c) Privatization
(d) Globalization
Answer:
(b) Industrialization

Question 16.
(a) Crop insurance
(b) Cold storage
(c) Agriculture subsidy reduction
(d) Kisan credit card
Answer:
(c) Agriculture subsidy reduction

Choose the correct statement

Question 17.
(a) China is the largest producer of fruits.
(b) India is the largest producer of vegetables.
(c) Agricultural produce market committee (ADMC) promotes agricultural activities.
(d) Tobacco is a plantation crop
Answer:
(c) Agricultural produce market committee (ADMC) promotes agricultural activities.

Question 18.
(a) Privatization measures discourage the continuance of monopoly.
(b) Disinvestment process was fully implemented
(c) New industrial policy abolished the MRTP act.
(d) Foreign investment includes FDI and FII
Answer:
(c) New industrial policy abolished the MRTP act.

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Agriculture in India is highly prone to risks like droughts and floods.
Reason (R): Agriculture is a seasonal activity.
(a) (A) and (R) are true; (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is true (R) is false.
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are true; (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 20.
Assertion (A): GST is a comprehensive indirect tax.
Reason (R): GST is a multi-point tax
(a) (A) is true (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(a) (A) is true (R) is false.

Part -B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is an industrial delicensing policy or Red Tapism?
Answer:
The new industrial policy of 1991 abolished the procedure of securing licenses (Red Tapism) to start an industry which is called an industrial delicensing policy.

Question 2.
What is liberalization?
Answer:
Liberalization refers to the removal of the relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages in the industry.

Question 3.
What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?
Answer:
SLR refers to the amount that the commercial banks require to maintain in the form of cash or gold or government approved securities before providing credit to the customers. Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a statutory body constituted by the state government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock production.

Question 5.
Write a note on Kisan Credit Card.
Answer:
A Kisan Credit Card (KCC) is a credit delivery mechanism that is aimed at enabling farmers to have quick and timely access to affordable credit. It was launched in 1998 by RBI and NABARD.

Question 6.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization stands for the consolidation of the various economies of the world.

Question 7.
Explain the agrarian crisis after the economic reforms of 1991.
Answer:

1. High input costs
2. The cutback in agricultural subsidies
3. Reduction of import duties
4. The paucity of credit facilities.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
What is a crop insurance scheme?
Answer:
To protect the farmers from natural calamities and ensure their credit eligibility for the next season, the Government of India introduced many agricultural schemes throughout the country.

One of the schemes is the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana which was launched on 18 February 2016. It envisages a uniform premium of 2% for Kharif and 1.5% for Rabi and 5% for commercial and horticultural crops.

Question 2.
State the arguments against LPG.
Answer:

1. Liberalization measures favor the unrestricted entry of foreign companies which prevents the growth of the local manufactures.
2. Privatization measures favor the continuance of the monopoly power.
3. Only the developed countries are favored under globalization but the welfare of (he less developed countries will be neglected.

Question 3.
Explain the major changes in India after 1991.
Answer:

1. Foreign exchange reserves started rising.
2. There was rapid industrialization.
3. The pattern of consumption started improving.
4. Infrastructure facilities such as express highways, metro rails, flyovers, and airports started expanding (but the local people were thrown away).

Part -D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Explain the measures taken in the Ranking system under the new economic policy 1991.
Answer:

1. Reduction in statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) was recommended by the Narasimham Committee Report 1991.
2. Interest rate liberalization.
3. Greater competition among public, private, and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
4. Liberalization of bank branch licensing policy.
5. Banks were given the freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
6. Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
7. New accounting norms regarding the classification of assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced.

Students can Download Commerce Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Indirect Taxation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Who is the chairman of the GST council?
(a) RBI Governor
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President of India
Answer:
(b) Finance Minister

Question 2.
GST Stands for …………….
(a) Goods and Supply Tax
(b) Government sales Tax
(c) Goods and Services Tax
(d) General Sales Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Services Tax

Question 3.
What kind of Tax the GST is?
(a) Direct Tax
(b) Indirect Tax
(c) Dependence on the Type of Goods and Services
(d) All Business Organisations
Answer:
(b) Indirect Tax

Question 4.
What is IGST?
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax
(b) India Goods and Service Tax
(c) Initial Goods and Service Tax
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax

Question 5.
In India GST became effective from?
(a) 1^st April, 2017
(b) 1^st January, 2017
(c) 1^st July, 2017
(d) 1^st March, 2017
Answer:
(d) 1^st March, 2017

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Indirect tax.
Answer:
Indirect tax is a type of tax where the incidence and impact of taxation do not fall on the same entity. It is levied on goods and services. It is collected from the buyers by the sellers and paid by the sellers to the government.

Question 2.
List out any four types of indirect taxes levied in India.
Answer:

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. UGST
4. IGST

Question 3.
What do you mean by Goods and Services Taxes?
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the tax imposed on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products.

Question 4.
Write a note on SGST.
Answer:
SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – is imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)

Question 5.
What is CGST?
Answer:
CGST means Central goods and service tax to replace the existing tax like service tax, excise, etc. and it is levied by the central government.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two differences between direct taxes and indirect taxes?
Answer:

Basis	Direct Taxes	Indirect Taxes
1. Meaning	If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, it is called direct tax.	If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person is collected from he buyers by another person (seller) and paid by him to the Government it is called indirect tax.
2. Incidence and Impact	Falls on the same person. Imposed on the income of a person and paid by the same person.	Falls on different persons. Imposed on the sellers but collected from the consumers and paid by sellers.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

• The foremost objective of GST is to create a common market with a uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market)
• To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows the set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as an input tax credit.
• To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
• To increase the tax base by bringing more taxpayers and increase tax revenue.
• To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
• To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms. Goods and Services Network (GSTN), a robust Information Technology system has been created for the operation of GST.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the functions of GST council.
Answer:

1. The GST Council will oversee the implementation of the GST. But the Central Board of Excise and Customs is responsible for the administration of the CGST and IGST Acts.
2. The Council makes recommendations on rate of GST, apportionment of IGST, exemptions, model GST laws, etc.
3. The Minister of State in the Finance Ministry and all Finance Ministers of the State Governments shall be its members.
4. All decisions of the Council can be passed only with Atb of the total votes. Each state has one vote, irrespective of its size or population.

Question 4.
Explain IGST with an example.
Answer:
IGST refers to the Integrated Goods and Services Tax and it is a combined form of CGST and IGST and it is levied by the central government. Tax will be levied at a rate approximately equal to center & state share on inter-state supply of goods and services. The State, which is exporting goods and services, will transfer the credit of SGST used in payment of IGST to the Centre.

With this, exporting state will not be entitled to receive any revenue from tax. The Centre will transfer the credit of IGST used in payment of SGST to the importing State. With this, importer’s state will be entitled to receive the full amount of SGST.For example, if goods and services are moved from Delhi to Sikkim then the transaction will attract IGST. IGST is also applicable on goods being imported into India from outside the country. The IGST rates have been classified from 0.25% to 28%.

Question 5.
Write any three demerits of UGST.
Answer:

1. Several Economists says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent.
2. Another criticism is that CGST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/ Service Tax, VAT and CST. Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers.
3. A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments and clothes could become more expensive.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Discuss the different kinds of GST.
Answer:
GST is of three kinds: CGST, SGST/IJGST, and IGST.

• CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collectçd by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intra-state) under CGST Act 2017
• SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)
• UGST – Union Territory Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the five Union Territory Administrations in India under UGST Act 2017.
• IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue shared with States under IGST Act 2017.
• IGST on exports – All exports is treated as Inter-State supply under GST. Since exports are zero rated, GST is not imposed on all goods and sendees exported from India. Any input credit paid already on exports will be refunded.

Question 3.
Elucidate the merits of GST.
Answer:
A. To the Society and country
A unified common national market will attract more foreign investment. GST has integrated the economy of all States and Union Territories. It brings parity in taxation among imported goods and Indian manufactured goods. All imported goods will be charged with IGST which will be more or less equivalent to the total of CGST and SGST levied on manufactured goods. Removal of several taxes will make the price of Indian products more competitive in the world market.

• It will boost manufacturing, export, GDP leading to economic growth through an increase in economic activity.
• The creation of more employment opportunities will result in poverty eradication.
• It will bring more tax compliance (more taxpayers) and increase revenue to the Governments.
• It is transparent and will improve India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business’ in the world.
• Uniform rates of tax will reduce tax evasion and rate arbitrage between States.

B. To Business Community

• Simpler Tax System with fewer exemptions. 17 taxes were abolished and one tax exists today.
• The input tax credit will reduce cascading effect of taxes. Reduction in average tax burden will encourage manufacturers and help the “Make in India” campaign and make India a manufacturing hub.
• Common procedures, common classification of goods and services, and timelines will lend greater certainty to the taxation system.
• GSTN facility will reduce multiple record-keeping, lesser investment in manpower and resources, and improve efficiency.
• All interactions will be through a common GSTN portal and will ensure corruption-free administration.
• Uniform prices throughout the country. Expansion of business to all states is made easy.

C. To Consumers

• The input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the consumers.
• All small retailers will get exemptions and purchases from them will cost less for the consumers.

Question 4.
Compare CGST, SGST, and IGST.
Answer:

Students can Download Economics Chapter 10 Environmental Economics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Environmental Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Environmental Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The term environment has been derived from a French word …………………………
(a) Environ
(b) Environs
(c) Environia
(d) Envir
Answer:
(c) Environia

Question 2.
The word biotic means environment
(a) Living
(b) Non – living
(c) Physical
(d) None of the the above
Answer:
(a) Living

Question 3.
Ecosystem is smallest unit of …………………………
(a) Ionosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Biosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(c) Biosphere

Question 4.
Who developed Material Balance Models?
(a) Thomas and Picardy
(b) Non – market goods
(c) Joan Robinson and J.M. Keynes
(d) Joseph Stiglitz and Edward Chamberlin
Answer:
(d) Joseph Stiglitz and Edward Chamberlin

Question 5.
Environmental goods are …………………………
(a) Market goods
(b) Non – market goods
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non – market goods

Question 6.
In a pure public good, consumption is …………………………
(a) Rival
(b) Non – rival
(c) Both
(d) None of the the above
Answer:
(a) Rival

Question 7.
One of the most important market failures is caused by …………………………
(a) Positive externalities
(b) Negative externalities
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Negative externalities

Question 8.
The common source of outdoor air pollution is caused by combustion processes from the following …………………………
(a) Heating and cooking
(b) Traditional stoves
(c) Motor vehicles
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Traditional stoves

Question 9.
The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is …………………………
(a) Automobiles
(b) Industrial process
(c) Stationary fuel combustion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Automobiles

Question 10.
Which one of the following causes of global warming?
(a) Earth gravitation force
(b) Oxygen
(c) Centripetal force
(d) Increasing temperature
Answer:
(d) Increasing temperature

Question 11.
Which of the following is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet rays?
(a) UY – A
(b) UV – C
(c) Ozone layer
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ozone layer

Question 12.
Global warming also refers to as …………………………
(a) Ecological change
(b) Climate Change
(c) Atmosphere change
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 13.
Which of the following is the anticipated effect of Global warming?
(a) Rising sea levels
(b) Changing precipitation
(c) Expansion of deserts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Changing precipitation

Question 14.
The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as …………………………
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Limiting nutrients
(c) Enrichment
(d) Schistosomiasis
Answer:
(b) Limiting nutrients

Question 15.
Primary cause of Soil pollution is …………………………
(a) Pest control measures
(b) Land reclamation
(c) Agricultural runoff
(d) Chemical fertilizer
Answer:
(d) Chemical fertilizer

Question 16.
Which of the following is main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
Answer:
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 17.
Electronic waste is commonly referred as …………………………
(a) Solid waste
(b) Composite waste
(c) E – waste
(d) Hospital waste
Answer:
(c) E – waste

Question 18.
Acid rain is one of the consequences of ………………………… Air pollution.
(a) Water Pollution
(b) Land pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) Soil Pollution
Answer:
(a) Water Pollution

Question 19.
Sustainable Development Goals and targets are to be achieved by …………………………
(a) 2020
(b) 2025
(c) 2030
(d)2050
Answer:
(c) 2030

Question 20.
Alkali soils are predominantly located in the ………………………… plains?
(a) Indus – Ganga
(b) North – Indian
(c) Gangetic plains
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 21.
State the meaning of environment?
Answer:

1. Meaning of Environmental Economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity and makes choices based on those values.
2. The goal is to balance the economic activity and the environmental impacts by taking into account all the costs and benefits.
3. In short, Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies.
4. Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic effects of national or local environmental policies around the world.

Question 22.
What do you mean by ecosystem?
Answer:

1. An ecosystem includes all living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their non-living environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere).
2. Ecosystems are the foundations of the Biosphere and they determine the health of the entire earth system.

Question 23.
Mention the countries where per capita carbondioxide emission is the highest in the world?
Answer:

1. United States of America – (USA)
2. Europian Union – (EU)
3. Japan
4. Russian Federation
5. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
6. Saudi Arabia
7. China.

Question 24.
What are environmental goods? Give examples?
Answer:
1. Environmental goods are typically non-market goods, including clear air, clean water, landscape, green transport infrastructure (footpaths, cycle ways, greenways, etc.), public parks, urban parks, rivers, mountains, forests, and beaches.

2. Concerns with environmental goods focus on the effects that the exploitation of ecological systems have on the economy, the well – being of humans and other species, and on the environment.

Question 25.
What are the remedial measures to control noise pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Noise Pollution

1. Use of noise barriers
2. Newer roadway for surface transport
3. Traffic control
4. Regulating times for heavy vehicles
5. Installations of noise barriers in the work place
6. Regulation of Loudspeakers

Question 26.
Define Global warming?
Answer:
1. Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperatures around the world have risen by 0.75°C (1.4°F) over the last 100 years. About two thirds of this increase has occurred since 1975.

Carbon dioxide, methane, Chlorofluoro Carbon, nitrous oxides are the green house gases warming the earth’s surface. So it is also called green house effect. The CO₂ is the most important of the green house gases contributing to 50% of global warming.

2. Global warming adversely affects agriculture, horticulture and eco system.

Question 27.
Specify the meaning of seed ball?
Answer:

1. A seed ball (or seed bomb) is a seed that has been wrapped in soil materials, usually a mixture of clay and compost, and then dried.
2. Essentially, the seed is ‘pre-planted’ and can be sown by depositing the seed ball anywhere suitable for the species, keeping the seed safely until the proper germination window arises.
3. Seed balls are an easy and sustainable way to cultivate plants that provide a larger window of time when the sowing can occur.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 28.
Brief the linkage between economy and environment?
Answer:
Linkage between Economy and Environment:

1. Man’s life is interconnected with various other living and non-living things.
2. The life also depends on social, political, ethical, philosophical and other aspects of economic system.
3. In fact, the life of human beings is shaped by his living environment.
4. The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model”.
5. The model considers the total economic process as a physically balanced flow between inputs and outputs.
6. Inputs are bestowed with physical property of energy which is received from the environment.
7. The interdependence of economics and environment.

Economy – Environmental Interlinkages Material Balance Model

Question 29.
Specify the meaning of material balance principle?
Answer:

1. The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model” developed by AlenKneese and R.V. Ayres.
2. The model considers the total economic process as a physically balanced flow between inputs and outputs.
3. Inputs are bestowed with physical property of energy which is received from the environment.

1. The interdependence of economics and environment.

2. The first law of thermodynamics, i.e. the law of conservation of matter and energy, emphasizes that in any production system “what goes in must come out”. This is known as the Material Balance Approach or Material Balance Principle.

3. Moreover, all resources extracted from the environment eventually become unwanted wastes and pollutants. Production of output by firms from inputs resulting in discharge of solid, liquid and gaseous wastes. Similarly, waste results from consumption activities by households.

4. In its simple form the Material Balance Approach can be put in form equation.
M = G – R_C – R_P + R^r_P + R^r_c = R^d_c + R^d_c

Question 30.
Explain different types of air pollution?
Answer:
Types of Air pollution:
1. Indoor Air Pollution:
It refers to toxic contaminants that we encounter in our daily lives in our homes, schools and workplaces. For example, cooking and heating with solid fuels on open fires or traditional stoves results in high levels of indoor air pollution.

2. Outdoor Air Pollution:
It refers to ambient air. The common sources of outdoor air pollution are caused by combustion processes from motor vehicles, solid fuel burning and industry.

Question 31.
What are the causes of water pollution?
Answer:
Causes of Water Pollution:
Water pollution is caused due to several reasons. Here are the few major causes of water
pollution:

(I) Discharge of sewage and waste water:

1. Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agricultural runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
2. These wastes contain harmful chemicals and toxins which make the water poisonous for aquatic animals and plants.

(II) Dumping of solid wastes:
The dumping of solid wastes and litters in water bodies cause huge problems.

(III) Discharge of industrial wastes:
Industrial waste contains pollutants like asbestos, lead, mercury, grease oil and petrochemicals, which are extremely harmful to both people and environment.

(IV) Oil Spill:

1. Sea water gets polluted due to oil spilled from ships and tankers while travelling.
2. The spilled oil does not dissolve in water and forms a thick sludge polluting the water.

(V) Acid rain:

1. Acid rain is pollution of water caused by air pollution.
2. When the acidic particles caused by air pollution in the atmosphere mix with water vapor, it results in acid rain.

(VI) Global warming:
Due to global warming, there is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.

(VII) Eutrophication:

1. Eutrophication is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
2. This results in bloom of algae in water.
3. It also depletes the oxygen in water which negatively affects fish and other aquatic animal population.

Question 32.
State the meaning of e – waste?
Answer:
1. Electronic waste which is commonly referred as “e-waste” is the new byproduct of the Info Tech society.

2. It is a physical waste in the form of old discarded, end of life electronics.

3. It includes a broad and growing range of electronic devices from large household appliances such as refrigerators, air conditioners, cellular phones, computers and other electronic goods”.

4. Similarly, e-waste can be defined as the result when consumer, business and household devices are disposed or sent for re-cycling (example, television, computers, audio-equipments, VCR, DVD, telephone, Fax, Xerox machines, wireless devices, video games, other household electronic equipments).

Question 33.
What is land pollution? Mention the causes of land pollution?
Answer:
1. The land pollution is defined as, “the degradation of land because of the disposal of waste on the land”. Any substance (solid, liquid or gaseous) that is discharged, emitted or deposited in the environment in such a way that it alters the environment causes land pollution.

Causes of Land Pollution:

(I) Deforestation and soil erosion:

1. Deforestation carried out to create dry lands is one of the major concerns.
2. Land that is once converted into a dry or barren land, can never be made fertile again, whatever the magnitude of measures to convert it.

(II) Agricultural activities:

1. With growing human and pet animal population, demand for food has increased considerably.
2. Farmers often use highly toxic fertilizers and pesticides to get rid off insects, fungi and bacteria from their crops.
3. However the overuse of these chemicals, results in contamination and poisoning of land.

(III) Mining activities:
During extraction and mining activities, several land spaces are created beneath the surface.

(IV) Landfills:

1. Each household produces tones of garbage each year due to changing economic lifestyle of the people.
2. Garbage like plastic, paper, cloth, wood and hospital waste get accumulated.
3. Items that cannot be recycled become a part of the landfills that cause land pollution.

(V) Industrialization:

1. Due to increasing consumerism more industries were developed which led to deforestation.
2. Research and development paved the way for modem fertilizers and chemicals that were highly toxic and led to soil contamination.

(VI) Construction activities:

1. Due to urbanization, large amount of construction activities are taking place.
2. This has resulted in large waste articles like wood, metal, bricks, plastic.
3. These are dumped at the outskirts of urban areas that lead to land pollution.

(VII) Nuclear waste:

1. The leftover radioactive materials, harmful and toxic chemicals affect human health.
2. They are dumped beneath the earth to avoid any casualty.

Question 33.
Write a note on
(a) Climate change and
(b) Acid rain.
Answer:
(a) Climate Change:
1. The climate change refers to seasonal changes over a long period with respect to the growing accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

2. Recent studies have shown that human activities since the beginning of the industrial revolution, have contributed to an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by as much as 40%, from about 280 parts per million in the pre-industrial period, to 402 parts per million in 2016, which in turn has led to global warming.

3. Several parts of the world have already experienced the warming of coastal waters, high temperatures, a marked change in rainfall patterns, and an increased intensity and frequency of storms. Sea levels and temperatures are expected to be rising.

(b) Acid Rain:

1. Acid rain is one of the consequences of air pollution.
2. It occurs when emissions from factories, cars or heating boilers contact with the water in the atmosphere.
3. These emissions contain nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide which when mixed with water becomes sulfurous acid, nitric acid and sulfuric acid.
4. This process also occurs by nature through volcanic eruptions.
5. It can have harmful effects on plants, aquatic animals and infrastructure.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the relationship between GDP growth and the quality of environment?
Answer:
GDP Growth:

1. Ross domestic product is the money value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year.
2. GDP can determined in 3 ways in all of which should in principle give the same result.
3. The real Economic GDP growth rate expressed as percentage that shows the rate of change in a countries GDP.
4. The Four supply Factors are natural resources capital goods, human resources and technology.
5. GDP is a monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services.
6. The contribution of the nature to GDP as well as depletion of natural resources are not accounted in the present system of National Income.

Quality of Environment:

1. Environmental quality is a set of properties and characteristics of the environment either generalized or local as they impinge on human beings and other organisms.
2. It is measure of condition of an environment relative to one or more species any human need or purpose.
3. Environmental quality has been continuously declining due to capitalistic mode of functioning.
4. Environment is a pure public good that can be consumed simultaneously by everyone and from which no one can be excluded.
5. A pure public good is one for which consumption is non-revival and from which it is impossible to exclude a consumer.
6. The environment directly affects health status and plays a major role in quality of life lived and good health disparties.

Question 36.
Explain the concepts of externality and its classification?
Answer:

Externalities refer to external effects or spillover effects resulting from the act of production or consumption on the third parties. Externalities arise due to interdependence between economic units.

Positive Consumption Externality:
When some residents of a locality hire a private security agency to patrol their area, the other residents of the area also benefit from better security without bearing cost.

Negative Consumption Externality:
A person smoking cigarette gets may gives satisfaction to that person, but this act causes hardship (dissatisfaction) to the non – smokers who are driven to passive smoking.

Positive Production Externality:

1. The ideal location for beehives is orchards (first growing fields).
2. While bees make honey, they also help in the pollination of apple blossoms.
3. The benefits accrue to both producers (honey as well as apple). This is called reciprocal untraded interdependency.
4. Suppose training is given for the workers in a company. If those trained workers leave the. company to join some other company, the later company gets the benefit of skilled workers without incurring the cost of training.

Negative Production Externality:

Question 37.
Explain the importance of sustainable development and its goals?
Answer:
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
1. It is crucial to harmonize three core elements such as economic growth, social inclusion and environmental protection.

2. A set of 17 goals for the World’s future can be achieved before 2030 with three unanimous principles fixed by United Nations such as Universality, Integration and Transformation.

1. End Poverty in all its forms everywhere
2. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture
3. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages
4. Ensure inclusive and quality education for all and promote lifelong learning
5. Achieve gender equality and empower women.and girls
6. Ensure access to water and sanitation for all
7. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modem energy for all.
8. Promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth, employment and decent work for all.
9. Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation.
10. Reduce inequality within and among countries
11. Make cities inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable
12. Ensure sustainable consumption and production pattern
13. Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts
14. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources
15. Sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, halt and reverse land degradation, halt biodiversity loss
16. Promote just, peaceful and inclusive societies
17. Revitalize the global partnership for sustainable development.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Environmental Economics Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
“All the conditions, circumstances, and influences surrounding and affecting the development of an organism or group of organisms” is called ………………………..
(a) Environment
(b) Economics
(c) Eco system
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 2.
The relationship between the Economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a …………………….. model.
(a) Material Economic
(b) Material Eco
(c) Material balance
(d) Material Environment
Answer:
(c) Material balance

Question 3.
…………………….. Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the Economic effects.
(a) Biosphere
(b) Political
(c) Environment
(d) Philosphical
Answer:
(c) Environment

Question 4.
Environmental externalities are called ……………………..
(a) Externality
(b) Economic externalities
(c) Nagative externalities
(d) Positive externalities
Answer:
(d) Positive externalities

Question 5.
…………………….. is of contaminants environment.
(a) Pollution
(b) Air Pollution
(c) Water pollution
(d) Noise Pollution
Answer:
(a) Pollution

Question 6.
Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of ……………………..
(a) Carbon – di – oxide
(b) Carbon – monoxide
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Carbon – monoxide

Question 7.
…………………….. it creates several respiratory and heart ailments along with cancer.
(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Air pollution
(d) Land pollution
Answer:
(c) Air pollution

Question 8.
…………………….. is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.
(a) Oil spill
(b) Acid rain
(c) Global warming
(d) Eutrophication
Answer:
(c) Global warming

Question 9.
…………………….. is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) Land pollution
Answer:
(c) Noise pollution

Question 10.
…………………….. adversely affects agriculture, horticulture and eco system.
(a) Climate change
(b) Global warming
(c) Land pollution
(d) Acid rain
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 11.
Soil pollution is another form of …………………….. pollution.
(a) Land
(b) Fertilizer
(c) Chemical
(d) Medicinal
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 12.
…………………….. is the supplier of the forms of resources.
(a) Farmers
(b) Environment
(c) Chemicals
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(b) Environment

Question 13.
…………………….. is led to land pollution.
(a) Forestation
(b) Forest
(c) Fertilizers
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(d) Deforestation

Question 14.
Acid rain is one of the consequences of …………………….. pollution.
(a) Land
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Soil
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 15.
Atmospheric noise or static is caused by lighting discharges in ……………………..
(a) Thunder storms
(b) Flood
(c) Land slide
(d) Drought
Answer:
(a) Thunder storms

Question 16.
Polluted water is harmful for ……………………..
(a) Industries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Land pollution
(d) Soil pollution
Answer:
(b) Agriculture

Question 17.
Electronic waste is commonly referred as …………………….. is the new by product of the Info Tech society.
(a) E – waste
(b) Plastic waster
(c) Waste
(d) Rubber waste
Answer:
(a) E – waste

Question 18.
…………………….. is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface as well as its atmosphere.
(a) Globe warming
(b) Global warming
(c) Globe spoiled
(d) Temperature warming
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 19.
…………………….. is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Global warming
(c) Acid rain
(d) Oil spill
Answer:
(a) Eutrophication

Question 20.
…………………….. is the supplier of all forms of resources like renewable and non – renewable.
(a) Environment
(b) Environmental goods
(c) Environmental quality
(d) Environmental wastes
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 21.
Heavy machineries located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the ……………………..
(a) Land
(b) Soil
(c) Air
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 22.
…………………….. causes great damage to human beings, animals and crops.
(a) Natural
(b) Factories
(c) Acid rain
(d) Global warming
Answer:
(c) Acid rain

Question 23.
…………………….. is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
(a) Alternative approach
(b) Environmental protection
(c) Economic growth
(d) Sustainable development
Answer:
(d) Sustainable development

Question 24.
…………………….. is a system of agricultural production which relies on animal manure, organic waste, crop rotation, legumes and biological pest control.
(a) Organic farming
(b) Land forming
(c) Land pollution
(d) Soil pollution
Answer:
(a) Organic farming

II. Match The following And Choose The Correct Answer By Using Codes Given Below.

Question 1.
A. Causes of air pollution – (i) Solid waste
B. Types of water pollution – (ii) Vehicle exhaust smoke
C. Types of land pollution – (iii) Deforestation
D. Causes of land pollution (iv) Ground water pollution
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) c (ii) D(i)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B(i) C (iv) D (ii)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

Question 2.
A. Organic farming – (i) Global warming
B. Effects of noise pollution – (ii) Animal manure
C. Effects of water pollution – (iii) Hearing loss
D. Effects of air pollution – (iv) Death of aquatic animals
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
Answer:
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 3.
A. World commision – (i) Seawater
B. Organic farming – (ii) Environment and Development
C. Oil spill – (iii) Nutrients in water
D. Eutrophication – (iv) Animal husbandry
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)

Question 4.
A. Alkali soil – (i) High noise
B. Cardio vascular – (ii) Indo gangetic
C. Solid waste – (iii) Toxic chemicals
D. Skin cancer (iv) Rubbish
Codes:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(b) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D(i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C(i) D (ii)
Answer:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

Question 5.
A. Remedies of land pollution – (i) Sulphur dioxide
B. Acid rain – (ii) Degradation of land
C. Land pollution – (iii) Fossil fuel
D. Power plants – (iv) Usage of plastic
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C(iv) D (i)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B (iv) C(i) D(ii)
Answer:
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)

III. State Whether The Statements Are True or False.

Question 1.
(i) Environmental economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity.
(ii) Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic effects.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model”.
(ii) This model developed by Alenkneese and R.V. Ayres.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 3.
(i) Beneficial externalities are called “Positive externalities”.
(ii) Beneficial externalities are called “Negative externalities”.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 4.
(i) Surface water includes natural water found on the earth’s surface, like rivers, lakes, lagoons and oceans.
(ii) Hazardous substances coming into contact with this surface water, dissolving or mixing physically with the water can be called surface of land pollution.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) Noise pollution is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
(ii) Noise pollution is also comes from highway, railway and airplane traffic and from outdoor construction activities.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

IV. Which Of The Following Is Correctly Matched:

Question 1.
(a) Types of noise pollution – Death of aquatic animals
(b) Effects of water pollution – Factory mechinery
(c) Types of water pollution – Respiratory and heart problems
(d) Causes of air pollution – Vehicle exhaust smoke
Answer:
(d) Causes of air pollution – Vehicle exhaust smoke

Question 2.
(a) Environmental goods – Human beings
(b) Types of pollution – Transport
(c) Human health – Land pollution
(d) Microbiological pollution – Water pollution
Answer:
(d) Microbiological pollution – Water pollution

Question 3.
(a) Global warming – Affects industry
(b) Acid rain – Usage of pesticides
(c) Electronic waste – e – waste
(d) SDGs – Poverty increased
Answer:
(c) Electronic waste – e – waste

Question 4.
(a) Crackers – Big industry
(b) Soil pollution – Damaged river
(c) Farmers – Use highly toxic fertilizers
(d) Deforestation – Due to urbanisation
Answer:
(c) Farmers – Use highly toxic fertilizers

Question 5.
(a) Seed ball – Providing oxygen
(b) E – waste – Sustainable development
(c) Fertilizers used – Water pollution
(d) Oil spill – Sea water polluted
Answer:
(d) Oil spill – Sea water polluted

V. Which Of The Following Is Not Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Acid rain – Sulphur dioxide
(b) Agro – Eco system
(c) Negative production – Factory emission
(d) Ozone layer – Major cause of death
Answer:
(d) Ozone layer – Major cause of death

Question 2.
(a) Fossil fuel – Power plants
(b) Forest – Replenish soil
(c) Environmental goods – Pre – planted
(d) Agriculture – Fertilizer
Answer:
(c) Environmental goods – Pre – planted

Question 3.
(a) Sustainable development – Monitors
(b) Oil spill – Seawater
(c) Water – Land pollution
(d) Tree – Lungs of the Earth
Answer:
(c) Water – Land pollution

Question 4.
(a) Natural pollution – Aquatic and Human illness
(b) Global warming – Increasing temperature
(c) Discharge of sewage – Outdoor air pollution
(d) Organic farming – Deforestation
Answer:
(d) Organic farming – Deforestation

Question 5.
(a) Acid rain – Land pollution
(b) Soil – Soil contamination
(c) Heavy industries – Land pollution
(d) Environmental goods – Environmental quality
Answer:
(c) Heavy industries – Land pollution

VI. Pick The Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Types of Noise pollution
(a) Atmospheric noise pollution
(b) Industrial noise pollution
(c) Man made noise pollution
(d) Acid rain pollution
Answer:
(d) Acid rain pollution

Question 2.
Causes of Noise pollution
(a) Construction
(b) Motor vehicles
(c) Crackers
(d) Factory machinery
Answer:
(a) Construction

Question 3.
Types of Land pollution
(a) Solid waste
(b) Cardiovascular effects
(c) Pesticides and fertilizers
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(b) Cardiovascular effects

Question 4.
Causes of Land Pollution
(a) Deforestation and soil erosin
(b) Agriculture activities spoiled
(c) Fertilizer spoiled
(d) Mining activities spoiled
Answer:
(c) Fertilizer spoiled

Question 5.
Organic farming
(a) Manure
(b) Biofertilizers
(c) Crop rotation
(d) Solid waste
Answer:
(d) Solid waste

VII. Assertion And Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The natural pollution causes both aquatic and human illness.
Reason (R): Pollution is damage to eco system and aesthetics of our surrounding.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of carbon monoxide.
Reason (R): Chemicals like carbon-di-oxide are released during the burning process.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agriculture runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
Reason (R): These wastes contain useful chemicals and toxins.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Remedial measures to control air pollution is growing more plants and trees.
Reason (R): Remedial measures to control air pollution is establishment of industries in the town and cities.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Soil pollution is another form of water pollution.
Reason (R): The upper layer of the soil is damaged is caused by the over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Solid wastes”?
Answer:
Solid Wastes:

1. Non-liquid, non-soluble materials, ranging from municipal garbage to industrial wastes that contain complex, and hazardous, substances.
2. Solid wastes include sewage sludge, agricultural refuse, demolition wastes, and mining residues.

Question 2.
What is organic farming?
Answer:

1. Organic farming is a system of agricultural production which relies on animal manure, organic waste, crop rotation, legumes and biological pest control.
2. It avoids use of synthetic fertilizer, pesticides and livestock additives.
3. Organic inputs have certain benefits, such as enriching soil for microbes.

Question 3.
Define “Sustainable Development”?
Answer:

1. Sustainable Development is development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
2. “The alternative approach (to sustainable development) is to focus on natural capital assets and suggest that they should not decline through time.”

Question 4.
Define “Noise pollution”?
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
2. Noise pollution is commonly generated by many factories.
3. It also comes from highway, railway and airplane traffic and from outdoor construction ’ activities.

Question 5.
Define “Deforestation”?
Answer:

1. Humans depend on trees for many things including life.
2. Trees absorb carbon dioxide from the air and release Oxygen, which is needed for life.
3. Forest helps replenish soils and help retain nutrients being washed away.
4. Deforestation is led to land pollution.

Question 6.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
Types of Pollution:

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Noise pollution
4. Land pollution.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Write note on “Remedial Measures to control land pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Land Pollution:

1. Making people aware about the concept of a Reduce, Recycle and Reuse
2. Buying biodegradable products
3. Minimizing the usage of pesticides
4. Shifting cultivation
5. Disposing unwanted garbage properly either by burning or by burying under the soil.
6. Minimizing the usage of plastics.

Question 2.
Mention the Remedial Measures to control water pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Water Pollution:

1. Comprehensive water management plan.
2. Construction of proper storm drains and settling ponds.
3. Maintenance of drain line.
4. Effluent and sewage treatment plant.
5. Regular monitoring of water and waste water.
6. Stringent actions towards illegal dumping of waste into the water bodies.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Noise pollution?
Answer:
Types of Noise Pollution:
(I) Atmospheric Noise:
Atmospheric noise or static is caused by lighting discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electrical disturbances occurring in the atmosphere.

(II) Industrial Noise:

1. Industrial noise refers to noise that is created in the factories.
2. When sound becomes noise it becomes unwanted.
3. Heavy industries like ship building, iron and steel have long been associated with Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL).

(III) Man made Noise:
The main sources of man-made noise pollution are ships, aircraft, seismic exploration, marine construction, drilling and motor boats.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
What are the effects of Land pollution?
Answer:
Effects of Land Pollution:
(I) Soil pollution:

1. Soil pollution is another form of land pollution, where the upper layer of the soil is damaged.
2. This is caused by the overuse of chemical fertilizers, and pesticides.
3. This leads to loss of fertile land.
4. Pesticides kill not only pests and also human beings.

(II) Health Impact:

1. The land when contaminated with toxic chemicals and pesticides lead to problem of skin cancer and human respiratory system.
2. The toxic chemicals can reach our body through foods and vegetables.

(III) Cause for Air pollution:

1. Landfills and waste dumping lead to air pollution.
2. The abnormal toxic substances spread in the atmosphere cause transmit respiratory diseases among the masses.

(IV) Effect on wildlife:

1. The animal kingdom has suffered mostly in the past decades.
2. They face a serious threat with regards to loss of habitat and natural environment.
3. The constant human activity on land is leaving it polluted, forcing these species to move farther away.
4. Sometimes several species are pushed to the verge of extinction or disappear due to no conducive environment.

Question 2.
Briefly explain effects of Noise pollution?
Answer:
Effects of Noise Pollution:
(a) Hearing Loss:

1. Chronic exposure to noise may cause noise-induced hearing loss.
2. Older people are exposed to significant occupational noise and thereby reduced hearing sensitivity.

(b) Damage Physiological and Psychological health:

1. Unwanted noise can damage physiological and psychological health.
2. For example, annoyance and aggression, hypertension, and high stress levels.

(c) Cardiovascular effects:
High noise levels can contribute to cardiovascular problems and exposure to blood pressure.

(d) Detrimental effect on animals and aquatic life:
Noise can have a detrimental effect on animals, increasing the risk of death.

(e) Effects on wildlife and aquatic animals:
It creates hormone imbalance, chronic stress, panic and escape behavior and injury.

Question 3.
Explain the causes of Air pollution?
Answer:
Causes of Air Pollution:
(I) Vehicle exhaust smoke:

1. Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of Carbon monoxide.
2. Millions of vehicles are operated every day in cities, each one leaving behind its own carbon footprint on the environment.

(II) Fossil fuel based power plants:

1. Fossil fuels also present a wider scale problem when they are burned for energy in power plants.
2. Chemicals like sulphur dioxide are released during the burning process, which travel straight into the atmosphere.
3. These types of pollutants react with water molecules to yield something known as acid rain.

(III) Exhaust from Industrial Plants and Factories:
Heavy machineries located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the air.

(IV) Construction and Agricultural activities:

1. Potential impacts arising from the construction debris would include dust particles and gaseous emissions from the construction sites.
2. Likewise, using of ammonia for agriculture is a frequent byproduct that happens to be one of the most dangerous gases affecting air.

(V) Natural Causes:

1. Earth is one of the biggest polluters itself, through volcanoes, forest fires, and dust storms.
2. They are nature-borne events that dump massive amounts of air pollution into the atmosphere.

(VI) Household activities:
Household activities like cooking, heating and lighting, use of various forms of mosquito repellents, pesticides and chemicals for cleaning at home and use of artificial fragrances are some of the sources that contribute to air pollution.

Question 4.
Explain different sources of E – waste?
Answer: