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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Computerised Accounting System-Tally Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Accounting report prepared according to the requirements of the user is ……………..
Answer:
(a) Routine accounting report
(b) Special purpose report
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Special purpose report

Question 2.
Function key F11 is used for ……………..
(a) Company Features
(b) Accounting vouchers
(c) Company Configuration
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Company Features

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 3.
Which submenu displays groups, ledgers and voucher types in Tally?
(a) Inventory vouchers
(b) Accounting vouchers
(c) Company Info
(d) Account Info
Answer:
(d) Account Info

Question 4.
What are the predefined Ledger(s) in Tally?
(i) Cash
(ii) Profit and Loss A/c
(iii) Capital A/c
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 5.
Contra voucher is used for ……………..
(a) Master entry
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports
(d) Credit purchase of assets
Answer:
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use

Question 6.
Which is not the default group in Tally?
(a) Suspense account
(b) Outstanding expense
(c) Sales account
(d) Investments
Answer:
(b) Outstanding expense

Question 7.
Salary account comes under which of the following head?
(a) Direct Incomes
(b) Direct Expenses
(c) Indirect Incomes
(d) Indirect Expenses
Answer:
(d) Indirect Expenses

Question 8.
₹ 25,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transaction will be recorded ……………..
(a) Contra Voucher
(b) Receipt Voucher
(c) Payment Voucher
(d) Sales Voucher
Answer:
(a) Contra Voucher

Question 9.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally ……………..
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
Answer:
(b) Journal voucher

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 10.
Which of the following options is used to view Trial Balance from Gateway of Tally?
(a) Gateway of Tally -> Reports -> Trial Balance
(b) Gateway of Tally -> Trial Balance
(c) Gateway of Tally -> Reports -> Display -> Trial Balance
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Gateway of Tally -> Reports -> Display -> Trial Balance

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is automated accounting system?
Answer:
Automated accounting is an approach to maintain up-to-date accounting records with the aid of accounting software. Under manual accounting system entries are made in different books of accounts while accounting software packages allow manual entry in one field or one place. From that field or place, the software automatically relates the transaction to all other relevant records within the software package.

Question 2.
What are accounting reports?
Answer:
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

Question 3.
State any five accounting reports.
Answer:
Routine accounting reports include

  • Daybooks / Journal
  • Ledger
  • Trial balance
  • Income statement
  • Balance sheet
  • Cash flow statement

A special-purpose report is a report other than the routine accounting reports which is prepared according to the requirement of the user.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 4.
What is an Accounting Information system (AIS)?
Answer:
The accounting Information (AIS) system is one of the systems in MIS. It collects financial data (AIS) processes them and provides information to the various users.

Question 5.
What is a group in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
In Tally, a Group is a collection of ledgers of the same nature. There are predefined groups of accounts which are widely used in accounts of many organizations. These predefined groups comply with the basic accounting principles of classifying various account heads into Assets, Liabilities, Income, and Expenses.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on accounting vouchers?
Answer:
Following are some of the major accounting vouchers in an organization:

  1. Receipt Voucher
  2. Payment Voucher
  3. Contra Voucher
  4. Purchase Voucher
  5. Sales Voucher
  6. Journal Voucher

Question 2.
What are the predefined ledgers available in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
In Tally, to record transactions, the transactions are to be identified with the related ledger accounts. Tally has two predefined legers, Cash and Profit & Loss A/c.

Question 3.
Mention the commonly used voucher types in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
Voucher is a document which contains details of a transaction. Transactions are to be recorded through voucher entries. Tally has a set of predefined vouchers such as purchase, sales, payment, receipt and contra. To view the list of voucher type Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Voucher Types > Display
As per the requirement of users, an additional voucher type can be created.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 4.
Explain how to view the profit and loss statement in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
To view profit and loss accounts in Tally ERP9.
F10: A/c Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed)
or
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed)

Question 5.
Explain any five applications of the computerized accounting system (CAS).
Answer:
The applications of CAS are as follows

(1) Starting Tally:
Tally can be started in either of the ways given below:
Click on Start > All programs > Tally.ERP 9 > Tally.ERP 9 icon
(Or)
Click Tally.ERP. 9 icon (shortcut) on the desktop

(2) Creation of a company:
It is essential to enter the particulars of the company for which accounts are to be maintained in Tally. In order to create a company, the following steps are to be followed:
Company Info>Create Company

(3) Gateway of Tally:
After creation of a company and whenever Tally is started a screen Gateway of Tally appears. It shows the company selected under List of Selected Companies on the left pane.

Gateway of Tally is shown on the right pane which contains menu options such as Transactions and Reports. The shortcut key for each menu option is a letter from the option’s name, which will be highlighted in red.

Vertical button bar is placed on the extreme right of screen which contains buttons such as F1 and F2 for quick interaction with Tally.ERP 9.

Bottom horizontal information panel displays details of product, version, licence, configuration and calculator.

(4) Closing Tally
The following are the two ways for closing Tally:
Press Esc Key > Press Enter or Y or Click on yes
(or)
Press Ctrl + Q

(5) Select a company
If multiple companies are created, to choose a particular company, after opening Tally, click F1 (Select Cmp) on the vertical button bar. Tally.ERP 9 displays the Select Company screen, with a list of companies that are already created. Select the company for which accounting has to be done.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Record the following transactions in Tally.

(a) Devi commenced a business with a capital of ₹ 4,00,000
(b) An account was opened with Indian Bank and deposited ₹ 60,000
(c) Purchased furniture by paying cash ₹ 15,000
(d) Goods purchased on credit from Sumathy for ₹ 50,000
(e) Cash sales made for ₹ 10,000
(f) Goods purchased from Raja for ₹ 5,000 and paid by cheque
(g) Goods sold to Aran on credit for ₹ 70,000
(h) Money is withdrawn from bank for office use ₹ 25,000
(i) Part payment of ₹ 30,000 made to Sumathy by cheque
(j) Aran made part payment of ₹ 10,000 by cash
(k) Salaries paid to staff through ECS ₹ 36,000
(l) Carriage on purchases of ₹ 6,000 paid by cash
(m) Purchased computer from Muthu Ltd. on credit ₹ 44,000

Analysis of Transactions, Passing Journal entries. Identification of Voucher type and group.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Solution:
1. Following Steps are to be followed to enter the transactions in Tally ERP9,

1. To Create Company:
Company Info > Create Company
Type the Name as Devi and keep all other fields as they are and choose. “Yes” to accept

2. To maintain accounts only:
Gateway of Tally > Fll Accounting Features > General > Maintain Accounts only: Yes > Accept Yes

3. To Create Ledger Accounts:
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledgers > Single Ledger > Create

(i) To Create Devi’s Capital A/c
Name: Devi’s Capital A/c
Under: Capital Account Accept: Yes

(ii) To Create Indian Bank A/c
Name: Indian Bank A/c Under: Bank Accounts Accept: Yes

(iii) To Create Furniture A/c
Name: Furniture A/c Under Fixed Assets Accept: Yes

(iv) To Create Purchases A/c
Name: Purchases A/c Under Purchase Accept: Yes

(v) To Create Sumathy A/c Name: Sumathy A/c Under: Sundry Creditors Accept: Yes

(vi) To Create Sales A/c Name: Sales A/c Under: Sales Account Accept: Yes

(vii) To Create Aran A/c Name: Aran A/c Under: Debtors A/c Accept: Yes

(viii) To Create Salaries A/c Name: Salaries A/c Under: Indirect Expenses Accept: Yes

(ix) To Create Carriage A/c Name: Carriage A/c Under: Direct Expenses Accept: Yes

(x) To Create Computer A/c Name: Computer A/c Under: Assets A/c Accept: Yes

(xi) To Create Muthu Ltd A/c Name: Muthu Ltd A/c Under: Sundry Creditors Accept: Yes

4. To enter transactions through vouchers
Gateway of Tally > Transaction > Accounting vouchers
(i) Devi commenced a business with a capital of Rs.4,00,000
F6: Receipt Voucher Accounts: Cash
Particulars: Devi’s Capital A/c (Choose from List of Ledger Accounts)
Enter the Amount of Capital of Rs. 4,00,000
Narration: Capital introduced. Accept: Yes

(ii) An Account was opened with Indian Bank and deposited Rs. 60,000
F4: Contra Voucher Accounts: Indian Bank
Particulars: Cash Amount: Rs. 30,000
Narration: Opened Bank Account in Indian Bank Accept: Yes

(iii) Purchased furniture by paying cash Rs. 15,000
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Furniture A/c Amount: Rs. 15,000 Narration: Furniture bought by cash Accept: Yes

(iv) Goods purchased on credit from Sumathy for Rs. 50,000
F9: Purchase Voucher Party’ A/c, Name: Sumathy A/c
Particulars: Purchase A/c Amount: Rs. 50,000
Narration: Goods purchased on credit from Sumathy Accept: Yes

(v) Cash Sales made forRs. 10,000
F8: Sales Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Sales A/c Amount: Rs. 10,000
Narration: Cash Sales made Accept: Yes

(vi) Goods purchased from Raja Rs. 5,000 and paid by Cheque
F9: Purchase Voucher Account: Bank
Particulars: Purchase A/c Amount: Rs. 5,000
Narration: (Bank) Purchase by cheque

(vii) Goods sold to Arun on credit for Rs. 70,000
F8: Sales Voucher Party A/c Name: Arun A/c Amount: Rs. 70,000
Narration: Goods sold on credit to Arun Accept: Yes (viii) Money withdrawn from bank for office use Rs. 25,000 F4: Contra Voucher Account: Cash Particulars: Indian Bank Amount: Rs. 25,000 Narration: Cash withdrawn from bank Accept: Yes

(ix) Part Payment of Rs. 30,000 to Sumathy by Cheque
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Indian Bank
Particulars: Sumathy A/c Amount: Rs. 30,000
Narration: Payment made to Sumathy by Cheque Accept: Yes

(x) Salaries paid to staff through ECS Rs. 36,000
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Indian Bank
Particulars: Salaries A/c Amount: Rs. 36,000
Narration: Salaries paid through ECS Accept: Yes

(xi) Carriage of Rs. 6,000 paid by cash
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Carriage A/c Amount: Rs. 6,000
Narration: Carriage paid by Cash Accept: Yes

(xii) Purchase computer from Muthu Ltd. on credit Rs. 44,000
F7: Journal Voucher Particulars: Computer
Amount Rs. 44,000 To Muthu Ltd Amount: Rs. 44,000
Narration: Computer bought on credit from Muthu Ltd. Accept: Yes

5. To view reports:

(i) To view Trial Balance
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Display > Trial Balance > Alt FI (detailed)

(ii) To view Profit and Loss Account
F10: A/c Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Profit and Loss A/c Alt FI (detailed)

(iii) To view Balance Sheet
F10: A/c Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed)

(iv) To view Ratio Analysis
F10: A/c Reports > Ratio Analysis (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Ratio Analysis

(v) To view Day Book
F10: A/c Reports > Day Book> Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Display > Day Book > Alt FI (detailed)

Question 2.
The following balance sheet has been prepared from the books of Pearl on 1 – 4 – 2018.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

During the year the following transactions took place:

(a) Wages paid by cash ₹ 4,000
(b) Salaries paid by cheque ₹ 10,000
(c) Cash purchases made for ₹ 4,000
(d) Good purchased on credit from Yazhini ₹ 30,000
(e) Goods sold on credit to Jothi ₹ 40,000
(f) Payment made to Yazhini through NEFT ₹ 6,000
(g) Cash received from Peter ₹ 10,000
(h) Cash sales made for ₹ 4,000
(i) Depreciate buildings at 20%
(j) Closing stock on 31.03.2019 ₹ 9,000

You are required to prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended 31-03-2019 and a balance sheet as of that date using Tally.

1. To Create Company Company Info > Create Company
Type the Name as Pearl and keep all other fields as they are and choose. “Yes” to accept

2. To maintain accounts only
Gateway of Tally F11 Accounting Features > General > Maintain Accounts only: Yes > Accept: Yes

3. To Create Ledger Accounts with Opening Balances
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledgers > Single Ledger > Create
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally
Note: A cash account need not be created as it is a default ledger. Only the opening balance has to be recorded by altering the cash account.

To record the opening balances of cash
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledger > Single Ledger > Alter
After creating the Ledgers and recording the opening balances of ledger accounts the balance sheet of Pearl is shown as in the following figure.

3. To Create Ledger Accounts for Transactions
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

4. To enter transaction through vouchers
Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting Vouchers
Example: Wages of Rs. 4,000 paid by cash
F5: Payment Voucher
Account: Cash
Particulars: Wages A/c
Amount: Rs. 4,000
Narration: Wages paid by Cash
Accept: Yes
In a similar way, recorded the other transactions. Use payment voucher for salaries paid
and payments to yazhini.
Use purchase voucher for credit sales to Jothi and Cash sales. Use Receipt voucher for cash received from Peter.
Use Journal voucher for depreciation.

5. To record closing stock:
Since maintaining accounts only is set to ‘Yes’ and integrate accounts and inventory is set to ‘No’ under accounting features. The stock has to be recorded manually. Hence the closing stock has to be recorded by altering the stock account and while entering the date of closing stock, the date of opening stock has to be entered. The following procedure is to be followed: Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledger > Single Ledger > Alter > Stock > Closing Balance > Date (Opening date) > Amount > Accept: Yes

6. To view reports
(i) To view Profit and Loss Account
F10 A/c Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt F1 (detailed)
(or) Gateway of Tally > Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed)

(ii) To view Balance Sheet
F10 A/c Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed).

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Computerised Accounting System-Tally Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Tally is designed to meet the requirements of ………………
(a) All types of companies
(b) Small company
(c) Small and medium company
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) small and medium company

Question 2.
Gateway of Tally screen to separated into ………………
(a) Six sections
(b) Five sections
(c) Seven sections
(d) Eight sections
Answer:
(a) Six sections

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 3.
For creating a company we use ………………
(a) Alt + F3
(b) Alt + FI
(c)Alt + F2
(d) ESC key
Answer:
(a) Alt + F3

Question 4.
For selecting a company we use ………………
(a) Alt + FI
(b) F1
(c) Ctrl + FI
(d) F2
Answer:
(b) F1

Question 5.
Groups are ………………
(a) Collection of ledgers initially
(b) type of voucher entry
(c) both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) collection of ledgers initially

Question 6.
The 15 primary groups are ………………
(a) 12 sub – groups
(b) 13 sub – groups
(c) 11 sub – groups
(d) 10 sub – groups
Answer:
(b) 13 sub – groups

Question 7.
Bank Accounts comes under ………………
(a) Current Assets
(b) Loans
(c) Current Liabilities
(d) Capital Account
Answer:
(a) Current Assets

Question 8.
Nature of the primary group is among one of the following ………………
(a) Assets, Liabilities, Revenue and Capital
(b) Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account
(c) Assets, Liabilities, Income and Expenses
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Assets, Liabilities, Income and Expenses

Question 9.
When group behaviour is like sub-ledger is set to No ………………
(a) It behaves like a ledger
(b) The same will display all the ledgers grouped under the same in details mode
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The same will display all the ledgers grouped under the same in details mode

Question 10.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) All the transactions are recorded through voucher entry
(b) All the transactions are recorded through journal entry
(c) All the transactions are recorded through Receipts and Payment entry
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) All the transactions are recorded through voucher entry

Question 11.
How to enter the Receipt voucher? Option is ………………
(a) Gateway of Tally > Accounting vouchers > F6 – Receipt
(b) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > F6 – Receipt
(c) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting vouchers > F6 – Receipt
(d) Gateway of Tally ? F6 – Receipt > Transactions
Answer:
(c) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting vouchers > F6 – Receipt

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 12.
How to enter the contra voucher? Option is ………………
(a) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting > F4 – Contra
(b) Gateway of Tally > Accounting vouchers > F4 – Contra
(c) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > F4 – Contra
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting > F4 Contra

Question 13.
How to enter the sales voucher? Option is ………………
(a) Gateway of Tally > Transaction > F8 – Sales
(b) Gateway of Tally > Transaction > Accounting voucher > F8 – Sales
(c) Gateway of Tally > Accounting vouchers > F8 – Sales
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tally > Transaction > Accounting voucher > F8 – Sales

Question 14.
How to enter the Journal vouchers? Option is ………………
(a) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > F7 – Journal
(b) Gateway of Tally > Accounting vouchers > F7 – Journal
(c) Gateway of Tally > Accounting voucher > Transactions > F7 – Journal
(d) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting voucher > F7 – Journal
Answer:
(d) Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting voucher > F7 – Journal

II. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the steps involved in designing accounting reports?
Answer:
The following are the steps involved in designing accounting reports.

  1. Define the objectives of generating a report
  2. Specify the structure of the report.
  3. Creating database queries to interact with the database to retrieve, modify, add or delete data from the records.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘Tally ERP9”?
Answer:
A number of readymade accounting software are available off – the – shelf, i.e. ready to use such as Tally. Busy and Fact. But the most common and widely used accounting software is Tally. Accounting and Inventory management softwares available are fast, powerful, and multi – lingual.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 3.
What is the main area of Tally?
Answer:
The main area is separated into two:

  1. Left-hand side area: It provides the current period, the current date, and a list of selected companies.
  2. Right-hand side area: Company Information such as select a company, create a company, and Back up a company.

Question 4.
What is F – 11 Company Feature contents?
Answer:
F – 11 Features menu is displayed as shown.

  1. Accounting Features
  2. Inventory Features
  3. Statutory Features
  4. Tally_NET Features
  5. Tax Audit Features

Question 5.
What are thePre – defined Groups in Tally.ERP – 9?
Answer:
By default Tally. ERP9 provides a list of groups called pre-defined groups. The primary group cannot be deleted. However, it can be renamed which is not suggested. There are 28 Pre¬defined Groups in Tally. ERP9. Out of which 15 are primary groups and 13 are sub-groups.

Question 6.
What is meant by Hot Keys?
Answer:
Hot Keys are capitalized and are red in colour on all the menu screens. Using the Hot Keys in the company Info Screen will take you to that particular screen or display the sub – menus within that option.

III. Short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the salient features of computerised accounting system?
Answer:

  1. Simplicity: They are easy to set up and simple to use.
  2. Speed: They are capable of generating instant and accurate reports.
  3. Power: They are capable of maintaining accounts of multiple companies and with unlimited levels of classification.
  4. Flexibility: They provide flexibility to generate instant reports for a given period.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of computerised accounting system?
Answer:

  1. Speed
  2. Accuracy
  3. Reliability
  4. Up – to – date
  5. Scalability
  6. Ligibility
  7. Efficiency
  8. Quality Report
  9. MIS Report
  10. Automated document production
  11. Real – time user interface
  12. Storage
  13. Motivation and Retrieval Employees’ interest.

Question 3.
What is the voucher entry in the accounting system Tally ERP9?
Answer:
The following are the basic voucher types considered

  1. Receipts: To record receipts of money by cash, cheque, and basic transfer.
  2. Payments: To record payment of money by cash and cheque.
  3. Journal: To record all Non-cash transactions.
  4. Contra: To record the transfer of funds between cash and bank accounts.

The voucher Entry Screen is divided into three parts.

  1. Main voucher entry
  2. Button Bar
  3. Calculator

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

Question 4.
How too Quitting do Tally ERP9?
Answer:
To quit working and Tally ERP9

  • Press ESC until you see the message Quit?
    Yes or No. Press Enter or Y or Click Yes to quit Tally ERP9.
  •  Alternatively to exit without confirmation, Press Ctrl + Q from the Gateway of Tally
  • You can also enter while the option Quit is selected from Gateway of Tally.

Question 5.
How to shut a company in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
Go to the Gateway of Tally > Alt + F3 > Company Info > Shut company. Select the company which you need to shut down from the list of companies, you can also use Alt + FI to shut a company from the Gateway of Tally Screen.

Question 6.
How to alter the company details in Tally.ERP9?
Answer:
Go to the Gateway of Tally > Alt + F3 > Company Info > Alter. Select the Company which you need to alter from the list of companies and press Enter to view the company Alternation screen Alter the company details as required and, accept the screen.

IV. Exercise

Question 1.
Record the following transactions in tally.

(a) Kumar commenced a business with a capital of Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Opened an account with SBI and deposited Rs. 80,000
(c) Purchased furniture by paying cash Rs. 20,000
(d) Goods purchased on credit from Kalpana for Rs. 60,000
(e) Cash sales for Rs. 20,000
(f) Goods purchased from Ramu for Rs. 7,000 paid by cheque
(g) Goods sold to Venu on credit for Rs. 80,000
(h) Money is withdrawn from bank for office use Rs. 35,000
(i) Part payment of Rs. 40,000 made by Kalpana by cheque.
(j) Aran made part payment of Rs. 20,000 by Cash
(k) Salaries paid to staff through ECS Rs. 45,000
(l) Carriage on purchase of Rs. 8,000 paid by cash
(m) Purchased computer from Maria Ltd on Credit Rs. 50,000

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally
Solution:
The following steps are to be followed to enter the transactions in Tally ERP9,
1. To Create Company Company Info > Create Company
Type the Name as Kumar and keep all other fields as they are and choose. “Yes” to accept

2. To maintain accounts only
Gateway of Tally > FI 1 Accounting Features > General > Maintain Accounts only: ‘Yes’ > Accept: Yes

3. To create ledger accounts
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledger > Single Ledger > Create

(i) To create Kumar’s Capital A/c
Name: Kumar’s Capital A/c
Under: Capital Account Accept: Yes

(ii) To create State Bank of India A/c
Name: State Bank of India A/c
Under: Bank Accounts
Accept: Yes

(iii) To create Furniture A/c
Name: Furniture A/c
Under: Fixed Assets
Accept: Yes

(iv) To create Purchases A/c
Name: Purchases A/c
Under: Purchase
Accept: Yes

(v) To create Kalpana A/c
Name: Kalpana
Under: Sundry Creditors
Accept: Yes

(vi) To create Sales A/c
Name: Sales A/c
Under: Sales Account
Accept: Yes

(vii) To create Venu A/c
Name: Venu A/c
Under: Sundry Debtors A/c
Accept: Yes

(viii) To create Salaries A/c
Name: Salaries A/c
Under: Indirect Expenses
Accept: Yes

(ix) To create Carriage A/c
Name: Carriage A/c
Under: Direct Expenses
Accept: Yes

(x) To create Computer A/c
Name: Computer A/c
Under: Assets
Accept: Yes

(xi) To create Maria Ltd A/c
Name: Maria Ltd A/c
Under: Sundry Creditors
Accept: Yes

4. To enter transactions through vouchers
Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting vouchers
(i) Kumar commenced a business with a capital of Rs. 5,00,000
F6: Receipt Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Kumar’s Capital A/c
(Choose from the List of Ledger Accounts)
Enter the amount of capital: Rs. 5,00,000
Narration: Capital introduced Accept: Yes

(ii) An Account was opened with the State Bank of India and deposited Rs. 80,000
F4: Contra Voucher Account: State Bank of India
Particulars: Cash Amount: Rs. 80,000
Narration: Opened Bank Account in SBI
Accept: Yes

(iii) Purchased furniture by paying cash Rs. 20,000
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Furniture A/c
Amount: Rs. 20,000
Narration: Furniture bought by cash
Accept: Yes

(iv) Goods purchased on credit from Kalpana Rs. 60,000
F9: Purchase Voucher Party A/c Name: Kalpana A/c
Particulars: Purchases A/c Amount: Rs. 60,000
Narration: Goods purchased on credit from Kalpana Accept: Yes

(v) Cash Sales made for Rs. 20,000
F8: Sales Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Sales A/c Amount: Rs. 20,000
Narration: Cash Sales made Accept: Yes

(vi) Goods purchased from Arun for Rs. 7,000 and money deposited in CDM.
F9: Purchase Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Purchase A/c Amount: Rs. 7,000
Narration: Cash Purchases made Accept: Yes

(vii) Goods sold to Venu on credit for Rs. 80,000
F8: Sales Voucher Party A/c Name: Venu A/c
Particulars: Sales A/c Amount: Rs. 80,000
Narration: Goods sold on credit to Venu Accept: Yes

(viii) Money is withdrawn from bank for office use Rs. 35,000
F4: Contra Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: State Bank of India A/c Amount: Rs. 35,000
Narration: Cash withdrawn from bank Accept: Yes

(ix) Part Payment of Rs. 40,000 made to Kalpana by Cheque
F5: Payment Voucher Account: State Bank of India
Particulars: Kalpana Amount: Rs. 40,000
Narration: Payment made to Kalpana by Cheque Accept: Yes

(x) Salaries paid to staff through ECS Rs. 45,000
F5: Payment Voucher Account: State Bank of India
Particulars: Salaries A/c Amount: Rs. 45,000
Narration: Salaries paid through ECS Accept: Yes

(xi) Carriage of Rs. 8,000 paid by cash
F5: Payment Voucher Account: Cash
Particulars: Carriage A/c Amount: Rs. 8,000
Narration: Carriage paid by Cash Accept: Yes

(xii) Purchases computer from Maria Ltd. on credit Rs. 50,000
F7: Journal Voucher
Particulars: Computer
Amount: Rs. 50,000 To Maria Ltd. Amount: Rs. 50,000
Narration: Computer bought on credit from Maria Ltd. Accept: Yes

5. To view reports

(i) To view Trial Balance
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Display > Trial Balance > Alt FI (detailed)

(ii) To view Profit and Loss Account
F10: A/c Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed) or
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Profit and Loss A/c and Alt FI (detailed)

(iii) To view Balance Sheet
F10: A/c Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed)

(iv) To view Ratio Analysis
F10: A/c Reports > Ratio Analysis (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Ratio Analysis

(v) To view Day Book
F10: A/c Reports > Day Book> Alt FI (detailed) (or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Display > Day Book > Alt FI (detailed)

Question 2.
The following balance sheet has been prepared from the books of white on 1.4.2018
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally
During the year the following transactions took place:

(a) Wages paid by cash ₹ 4,000
(b) Rent paid by cheque ₹ 10,000
(c) Cash purchases made for ₹ 6,000
(d) Good purchased on credit from Mathi ₹ 30,000
(e) Goods sold on credit to Kala ₹ 50,000
(f) Payment made to Mathi by cheque ₹ 10,000
(g) Cash received from Venkat ₹ 60,000
(h) Cash sales made for ₹ 12,000
(i) Depreciate Buildings @ 10%
(j) Closing stock on 31.03.2019 ₹ 30,000

You are required to prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended 31-03-2019 and a balance sheet as of that date using Tally.
Solution:
The following steps are to be followed to enter the transactions in Tally ERP9.
1. To Create Company Company Info > Create Company
Type the Name as White and keep all other fields as they are and choose. ‘Yes’ to accept

2. To maintain accounts only
Gateway of Tally > F11 Accounting Features > General > Maintain Accounts only: Yes > Accept: Yes

3. To create ledger accounts with opening balances
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledgers > Single Ledger > Create
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally
Note: A cash account need not be created as it is a default ledger. Only the opening balance has to be recorded by altering the cash account.

To record the opening balance of cash:
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledgers > Single Ledger > Alter
After creating the ledgers and recording the opening balances of ledger accounts the balance sheet of White is shown as in the following figure.

3. To create ledger accounts for transactions
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 10 Computerised Accounting System-Tally

4. To enter transactions through vouchers
Gateway of Tally > Transactions > Accounting Vouchers
Example: Wages of Rs. 4,000 paid by cash
F5: Payment Voucher
Account: Cash
Particulars: Wages A/c
Amount: Rs. 4,000
Narration: Wages paid by Cash
Accept: Yes
In a similar way, record the other transactions. Use payment voucher for rent paid and payments to Babu.
Use a purchase voucher for credit purchase from Babu and Cash purchases.
Use Sales voucher for credit sales to Venkat and Cash sales Use Receipt voucher for cash received from Venkat Use Journal voucher for depreciation.

5. To record closing stock:
Since maintaining accounts only is set to “Yes” and integrate accounts and inventory is set to ‘No’ under accounting features. The stock has to be recorded manually. Hence, the closing stock has to be recorded by altering the stock account and while entering the date of closing stock, the date of opening stock has to be entered. The following procedure is to be followed: Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Ledgers > Single Ledger > Alter > Stock > Closing Balance > Date (Opening date) > Amount > Accept: Yes

6. To view reports:
(i) To view Profit and Loss Account
F10: A/c Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed)
(or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Profit and Loss A/c > Alt FI (detailed)

(ii) To view Balance Sheet
F10: A/c Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt FI (detailed)
(or)
Gateway of Tally > Reports > Balance Sheet > Alt F

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Structured Query Language (SQL) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which commands provide definitions for creating table structure, deleting relations, and modifying relation schemes?
(a) DDL
(b) DML
(c) DCL
(d) DQL
Answer:
(a) DDL

Question 2.
Which command lets to change the structure of the table?
(a) SELECT
(b) ORDER BY
(c) MODIFY
(d) ALTER
Answer:
(d) ALTER

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 3.
The command to delete a table is ……………………..
(a) DROP
(b) DELETE
(c) DELETE ALL
(d) ALTER TABLE
Answer:
(a) DROP

Question 4.
Queries can be generated using …………………….
(a) SELECT
(b) ORDER BY
(c) MODIFY
(d) ALTER
Answer:
(a) SELECT

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 5.
The clause used to sort data in a database ……………………….
(a) SORT BY
(b) ORDER BY
(c) GROUP BY
(d) SELECT
Answer:
(b) ORDER BY

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a query that selects all students whose age is less than 18 in order wise?
Answer:
SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE AGE <= 18 ORDER BY NAME.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
Differentiate Unique and Primary Key constraint?
Answer:
The unique constraint ensures that no two rows have the same value in the specified columns. Primary key constraint declares a field as a Primary key which helps to uniquely identify a record. The primary key is similar to unique constraint except that only one field of a table can be set as primary key.

Question 3.
Write the difference between table constraint and column constraint?
Column constraint:
Column constraint apply only to individual column.

Table constraint:
Table constraint apply to a group of one or more columns.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 4.
Which component of SQL lets insert values in tables and which lets to create a table?
Answer:
Insert values in tables – DML Create a table – DDL

Question 5.
What is the difference between SQL and MySQL?
Answer:
SQL-Structured Query Language is a language used for accessing databases while MySQL is a database management system, like SQL Server, Oracle, Informix, Postgres, etc. MySQL is a RDBMS.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a constraint? Write short note on Primary key constraint?
Answer:
Constraints are used to limit the type of data that can go into a table. This ensures the accuracy and reliability of the data in the database. Constraints could be either on a column level or a table level.

Primary Key Constraint:
This constraint declares a field as a Primary key which helps to uniquely identify a record. It is similar to unique constraint except that only one field of a table can be set as primary key. The primary key does not allow NULL values and therefore a field declared as primary key must have the NOT NULL constraint.
Example showing Primary Key Constraint in the student table:
CREATE TABLE Student
(
Admno integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, → Primary Key constraint
Name char(20)NOT NULL,
Gender char(l),
Age integer,
Place char(10),
);

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
Write a SQL statement to modify the student table structure by adding a new field?
Answer:
ALTER TABLE Student MODIFY Address char(25);

Question 3.
Write any three DDL commands
a. CREATE TABLE Command
Answer:
You can create a table by using the CREATE TABLE command.
CREATE TABLE Student
(Admno integer,
Name char(20), \
Gender char(1),
Age integer,
Place char(10),
);

b. ALTER COMMAND
The ALTER command is used to alter the table structure like adding a column, renaming the existing column, change the data type of any column or size of the column or delete the column from the table.
Alter table Student add address char;

c. DROP TABLE:
Drop table command is used to remove a table from the database.
DROP TABLE Student;

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 4.
Write the use of Savepoint command with an example?
SAVEPOINT command
Answer:
The SAVEPOINT command is used to temporarily save a transaction so that you can rollback to the point whenever required. The different states of our table can be saved at anytime using different names and the rollback to that state can be done using the ROLLBACK command.
SAVEPOINT savepoint_name;
UPDATE Student SET Name = ‘Mini ’ WHERE Admno=105;
SAVEPOINT A;

Question 5.
Write a SQL statement using DISTINCT keyword?
Answer:
DISTINCT Keyword:
The DISTINCT keyword is used along with the SELECT command to eliminate duplicate rows in the table. This helps to eliminate redundant data. For Example:
SELECT DISTINCT Place FROM Student;
Will display the following data as follows :
SELECT * FROM Student;
Output
Place
Chennai
Bangalore
Delhi

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the different types of constraints and their functions?
Answer:
Type of Constraints
Constraints ensure database integrity, therefore known as database integrity constraints. The different types of constraints are :
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 2

(i) Unique Constraint
This constraint ensures that no two rows have the same value in the specified columns. For example UNIQUE constraint applied on Admno of student table ensures that no two students have the same admission number and the constraint can be used as:
CREATE TABLE Student
(
Admno integer NOT NULL UNIQUE, → Unique constraint
Name char (20) NOT NULL,
Gender char (1),
Age integer,
Place char (10),
);
The UNIQUE constraint can be applied only to fields that have also been declared as NOT NULL.
When two constraints are applied on a single field, it is known as multiple constraints. In the above Multiple constraints NOT NULL and UNIQUE are applied on a single field Admno, the constraints are separated by a space and at the end of the field definition a comma(,) is added. By adding these two constraints the field Admno must take some value ie. will not be NULL and should not be duplicated.

(ii) Primary Key Constraint
This constraint declares a field as a Primary key which helps to uniquely identify a record. It is similar to unique constraint except that only one field of a table can be set as primary key. The primary key does not allow NULL values and therefore a field declared as primary key must have the NOT NULL constraint.
Example showing Primary Key Constraint in the student table:
CREATE TABLE Student
(
Admno integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, → Primary Key constraint
Name char(20)NOT NULL,
Gender char(I),
Age integer,
Place char(10),
);
In the above example the Admno field has been set as primary key and therefore will help us to uniquely identify a record, it is also set NOT NULL, therefore this field value cannot be empty.

(iii) DEFAULT Constraint
The DEFA ULT constraint is used to assign a default value for the field. When no value is given for the specified field having DEFAULT constraint, automatically the default value will be assigned to the field.
Example showing DEFAULT Constraint in the student table:
CREATE TABLE Student
(
Admno integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Name char(20)NOTNULL,
Gender char(1),
Age integer DEFAULT = “17”, → Default Constraint
Place char(10),
);
In the above example the “Age” field is assigned a default value of 17, therefore when no value is entered in age by the user, it automatically assigns 17 to Age.

(iv) Check Constraint:
This constraint helps to set a limit value placed for a field. When we define a check constraint on a single column, it allows only the restricted values on that field. Example showing check constraint in the student table:
CREATE TABLE Student
(
Admno integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY
Name char(20)NOTNULL,
Gender char(1),
Age integer (CHECK<=19),
→ Check Constraint
Place char(10),
);
In the above example the check constraint is set to Age field where the value of Age must be less than or equal to 19.
Note
The check constraint may use relational and logical operators for condition.

(v) TABLE CONSTRAINT
When the constraint is applied to a group of fields of the table, it is known as Table constraint. The table constraint is normally given at the end of the table definition. Let us take a new table namely Studentl with the following fields Admno, Firstname, Lastname, Gender, Age, Place: CREATE TABLE Student 1
Admno integer NOT NULL,
Firstname char(20),
Lastname char(20),
Gender char(1),
Age integer,
Place char(10),
PRIMARY KEY (Firstname, Lastname) → Table constraint
);
In the above example, the two fields, Firstname and Lastname are defined as Primary key which is a Table constraint.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
Consider the following employee table. Write SQL commands for the qtns.(i) to (v)?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 3

  1. To display the details of all employees in descending order of pay.
  2. To display all employees whose allowance is between 5000 and 7000.
  3. To remove the employees who are mechanic.
  4. To add a new row.
  5. To display the details of all employees who are operators.

Output:

  1. SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY DESC;
  2. SELECT * FROM employee WHERE ((allowance >= 5000) AND(allowance <= 7000));
  3. DELETE FROM employee WHERE desig = “Mechanic”;
  4. INSERT INTO employee(Empcode, Name, desig, pay, allowance) VALUES(‘M1006’, ‘RAM’, ‘Mechanic’,22000, 8000);
  5. SELECT * FROM employee WHERE desig = ‘operator’;

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 3.
What are the components of SQL? Write the commands in each? Components of SQL?
SQL commands are divided into five categories:
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 4

a. Data Definition Language
The Data Definition Language (DDL) consist of SQL statements used to define the database structure or schema. It simply deals with descriptions of the database schema and is used to create and modify the structure of database objects in databases.
SQL commands which comes under Data Definition Language are:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 5

b. Data Manipulation Language
A Data Manipulation Language (DML) is a computer programming language used for adding (inserting), removing (deleting), and modifying (updating) data in a database.
SQL commands which comes under Data Manipulation Language are :
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 6

c. Data Control Language:
A Data Control Language (DCL) is used for controlling privileges in the database SQL commands: GRANT, REVOKE

d. Transactional Control Language:
Transactional control language (TCL) is used to manage transactions i.e. changes made to the data in the database.
SQL commands: COMMIT, ROLLBACK, SAVEPOINT

e. Data Query Language:
The Data Query Language (DQL) have commands to query or retrieve data from the database.
SQL commands: SELECT.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 4.
Construct the following SQL statements in the student table –
(i) SELECT statement using GROUP BY clause.
(ii) SELECT statement using ORDER BY clause.

(i) GROUP BY clause
The GROUP BY clause is used with the SELECT statement to group the students on rows or columns having identical values or divide the table into groups. For example to know the number of male students or female students of a class, the GROUP BY clause may be used. It is mostly used in conjunction with aggregate functions to produce summary reports from the database.
The syntax for the GROUP BY clause is
SELECT <column-names> FROM <table-name> GROUP BY <column-name>HAVING condition];
To apply the above command on the student table :
SELECT Gender FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;
The following command will give the below given result:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 22
SELECT Gender, count(*) FROM Student GROUP BY Gender;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 23

(ii) ORDER BY clause
The ORDER RTclause in SQL is used to sort the data in either ascending or descending based on one or more columns.
1. By default ORDER BY sorts the data in ascending order.
2. We can use the keyword DESC to sort the data in descending order and the keyword ASC to sort in ascending order.
The ORDER BY clause is used as:
SELECT <column-name> [,<column-name>,….] FROM <table-name> ORDER
BY <column1>,<column2>, …ASC\ DESC;
For example :
To display the students in alphabetical order of their names, the command is used as
SELECT * FROM Student ORDER BY Name;
The above student table is arranged as follows :
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 7

Question 5.
Write a SQL statement to create a table for employee having any five fields and create a table constraint for the employee table?
Answer:
CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE
(Empcode integer NOT NULL,
Name char(20),
desig char(20),
pay integer,
allowance integer,
PRIMARY KEY(Name, desig));

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create a query of the student table in the following order of fields name, age, place and admno?
Answer:
CREATE TABLE Student(Name char(30), age integer, place char(30), admno integer)).

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
Create a query to display the student table with students of age more than 18 with unique city?
Answer:
SELECT * FROM student WHERE age >= 18 GROUP BY city.

Question 3.
Create a employee table with the following fields employee number, employee name, designation, date of joining and basic pay?
Answer:
CREATE TABLE employee(empNo integer, ename char(30), desig char(30), doj datetime, basic integer);

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 4.
In the above table set the employee number as primary key and check for NULL values in any field?
Answer:
CREATE TABLE employee(empno integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ename char(30) NOT NULL, desig char(30), doj datetime, basic integer).

Question 5.
Prepare a list of all employees who are Managers?
Answer:
SELECT * FROM employee WHERE desig = ’Managers’.

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Structured Query Language (SQL) Additional Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The SQL was called as …………………….. in early 1970’s.
(a) squel
(b) sequel
(c) seqel
(d) squeal
Answer:
(b) sequel

Question 2.
SQL means ………………………..
Answer:
Structured Query Language

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 3.
RDBMS Expansion ………………………
Answer:
Relational DataBase Management System

Question 4.
Expand ANSI ………………………
(a) American North South Institute
(b) Asian North Standard Institute
(c) American National Standard Institute
(d) Artie National Standard Institute
Answer:
(c) American National Standard Institute

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 5.
ANSI Published SQL standard in the year ………………………..
(a) 1986
(b) 1982
(c) 1984
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 6.
The latest SQL was released in ……………………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1992
(c) 2008
(d) 2012
Answer:
(c) 2008

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 7.
The latest SQL standard as of now is …………………….
Answer:
SQL 2008

Question 8.
Identify which is not a RDBMS package …………………….
(a) MySQL
(b) IBMDB2
(c) MS-Access
(d) Php
Answer:
(d) Php

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 9.
A ……………………… is a collection of tables.
Answer:
database

Question 10.
CRUD means ……………………
(a) creative reasoning under development
(b) create read update delete
(c) create row update drop
(d) calculate relate update data
Answer:
(b) create read update delete

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 11.
A …………………… is a collection of related data entries and it consist of rows and columns.
Answer:
table

Question 12.
……………………….. is the vertical entity that contains all information associated with a specific field in a table
(a) Field
(b) tuple
(c) row
(d) record
Answer:
(a) Field

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 13.
A ………………………… is a horizontal entity in the table.
Answer:
record

Question 14.
DDL means …………………………
Answer:
Data Defnition Language

Question 15.
Match the following:
1. DDL – (i) Modify Tuples
2. Informix – (ii) Create Indexes
3. DML – (iii) MySQL
4. DCL – (iv) Grant
(a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iiii
Answer:
(a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 16.
The SQL used in high level programming languages is ………………………….
Answer:
Embedded Data Manipulation Language

Question 17.
WAMP stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Windows, Apache, MySQ1 and PHP

Question 18.
To work with the databases, the command used is …………………….. database
(a) create
(b) modify
(c) use
(d) work
Answer:
(c) use

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 19.
Which is used to serve live websites?
(a) WAMP
(b) SAMP
(c) DAMP
(d) TAMP
Answer:
(a) WAMP

Question 20.
How many components of SQL are there?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 5

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 21.
Which among the following is not a WAMP?
(a) PHP
(b) MySQL
(c) DHTML
(d) Apache
Answer:
(c) DHTML

Question 22.
Which is used to define database structure or schema?
(a) DML
(b) DDL
(c) DCL
(d) DQL
Answer:
(b) DDL

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 23.
Identify which is not a SQL DDL command?
(a) create
(b) delete
(c) drop
(d) truncate
Answer:
(b) delete

Question 24.
Which command changes the structure of the database?
(a) update
(b) alter
(c) change
(d) modify
Answer:
(b) alter

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 25.
Identify which statement is given wrongly?
(a) DDL statement should specify the proper data type
(b) DDL should not identify the type of data division
(c) DDL may define the range of values
(d) DDL should define the size of the data item
Answer:
(b) DDL should not identify the type of data division

Question 26.
Identify which is wrong?
DML means
(a) Insertion
(b) Retrieval
(c) Modification
(d) alter
Answer:
(d) alter

Question 27.
How many types of DML commands are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 28.
Pick the odd out
Insert, update, alter, delete
Answer:
alter

Question 29.
Grant and Revoke commands comes under ……………………..
(a) DML
(b) DCL
(c) DQL
(d) DDL
Answer:
(b) DCL

Question 30.
…………………….. is a DQL command
(a) select
(b) commit
(c) update
(d) delete
Answer:
(a) select

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 31.
Which one restores the database to last commit state?
(a) commit
(b) Grant
(c) rollback
(d) save point
Answer:
(c) rollback

Question 32.
Which is used to query or retrieve data from a database?
(a) DQL
(b) DML
(c) DCL
(d) DCM
Answer:
(a) DQL

Question 33.
Variable width character string is given by the data type ……………………….
(a) char
(b) varchar
(c) dec
(d) real
Answer:
(b) varchar

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 34.
If the precision exceeds 64, then it is
(a) float
(b) real
(c) float
(d) decimal
Answer:
(c) float

Question 35.
…………………… have special meaning in SQL
(a) keywords
(b) commands
(c) clauses
(d) arguments
Answer:
(a) keywords

Question 36.
…………………… are the values given to make the clause complete
Answer:
Arguments

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 37.
Each table must have at least ………………………. column
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 38.
Which one of the following ensures the accuracy and reliability of the data in the database?
(a) Arguments
(b) constraints
(c) column
(d) clauses
Answer:
(b) constraints

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 39.
How many types of constraints are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 40.
The …………………….. constraint can be applied only to fields that have also been declared a NOT Null.
Answer:
unique

Question 41.
When two constraints are applied on a single field, it is known as ……………………….. constraints.
Answer:
multiple

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 42.
Which key helps to uniquely identify the record in the table?
(a) unique
(b) primary
(c) secondary
(d) null
Answer:
(b) primary

Question 43.
Which constraint is used to assign a default value for the field?
(a) unique
(b) primary
(c) secondary
(d) default
Answer:
(d) default

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 44.
The check constraint may use ………………….. operators for condition.
(a) relational
(b) logical
(c) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) both

Question 45.
When the constraint is applied to a group of fields of the table, then it is ………………………. constraint.
(a) table
(b) column
(c) multiple
(d) primary
Answer:
(a) table

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 46.
The …………………….. command is used to insert, delete and update rows into the table.
(a) DCL
(b) DML
(c) DTL
(d) TCL
Answer:
(b) DML

Question 47.
If the data is to be added for all columns in a table
(a) specifying column is optional
(b) specifying column is must
Answer:
(a) specifying column is optional

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 48.
Find the wrong statement from the following delete command
(a) permanently removes one or more records
(b) removes entire row
(c) removes individual fields
(d) deletes the record
Answer:
(c) removes individual fields

Question 49.
The update command specifies the rows to be changed using the …………………….. clause.
(a) where
(b) why
(c) what
(d) how
Answer:
(a) where

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 50.
Set keyword in update command is used to assign new data.
True / false
Answer:
True

Question 51.
Find the wrong one about alter command
(a) remove a column
(b) remove all columns
(c) rename a column
(d) delete row
Answer:
(d) delete row

Question 52.
The keyword …………………….. is used along with the select command to eliminate duplicate rows in the table.
Answer:
distinct

Question 53.
The ……………………. keyword in select command includes an upper value and a lower value.
Answer:
betweeen

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 54.
How many types of sorting are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 55.
The default sorting order is ……………………….
Answer:
ascending

Question 56.
……………………. clause is used to filter the records.
Answer:
where

Question 57.
The ……………………… clause is used to select the group of students on rows or columns having identical values.
Answer:
group by

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 58.
Which is to count the records?
(a) +
(b) *
(c) =
(d) /
Answer:
(b) *

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on RDBMS?
Answer:
RDBMS stands for Relational DataBase Management System. Orqcle, MySQL, MS SQL Server, IBM DB2 and Microsoft Access are RDBMS packages. RDBMS is a type of DBMS with a row-based table structure that connects related data elements and includes functions related to Create, Read, Update and Delete operations, collectively known as CRUD.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
What does data manipulation means?
Answer:
By Data Manipulation we mean,

  1. Insertion of new information into the database
  2. Retrieval of information stored in a database.
  3. Deletion of information from the database.
  4. Modification of data stored in the database.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 3.
What are the 2 types of DML?
Answer:
The DML is basically of two types:
Procedural DML – Requires a user to specify what data is needed and how to get it. Non-Procedural DML – Requires a user to specify what data is needed without specifying how to get it.

Question 4.
What is meant by data type?
Answer:
The data in a database is stored based on the kind of value stored in it. This is identified as the data type of the data or by assigning each field a data type. All the values in a given field must be of same type.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 5.
Write about ALL keyword in select?
Answer:
ALL Keyword
The ALL keyword retains duplicate rows. It will display every row of the table without considering duplicate entries.
SELECT ALL Place FROM Student:
The above command will display all values of place field from every row of the table without considering the duplicate entries.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 8

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on SQL?
Answer:

  1. The Structured Query Language (SQL) is a standard programming language to access and manipulate databases.
  2. SQL allows the user to create, retrieve, alter, and transfer information among databases.
  3. It is a language designed for managing and accessing data in a Relational Data Base Management System (RDBMS).

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
What are the various processing skills of SQL?
Answer:
The various processing skills of SQL are :
(i) Data Definition Language (DDL) :
The SQL DDL provides commands for defining relation schemes (structure), deleting relations, creating indexes and modifying relation schemes.

(ii) Data Manipulation Language (DML) :
The SQL DML includes commands to insert, delete, and modify tuples in the database.

(iii) Embedded Data Manipulation Language :
The embedded form of SQL is used in high level programming languages.

(iv) View Defintion :
The SQL also includes commands for defining views of tables.

(v) Authorization :
The SQL includes commands for access rights to relations and views of tables.

(vi) Integrity :
The SQL provides forms for integrity checking using condition.

(vii) Transaction control :
The SQL includes commands for file transactions and control over transaction processing.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 3.
How to create and work with database?
Answer:
Creating Database
(i) To create a database, type the following command in the prompt:
CREATE DATABASE database_name;
For example to create a database to store the tables:
CREATE DATABASE stud;

(ii) To work with the database, type the following command.
USE DATABASE;
For example to use the stud database created, give the command
USE stud;

Question 4.
What are the functions performed by DDL?
Answer:
A DDL performs the following functions :

  1. It should identify the type of data division such as data item, segment, record and database file.
  2. It gives a unique name to each data item type, record type, file type and data base.
  3. It should specify the proper data type.
  4. It should define the size of the data item.
  5. It may define the range of values that a data item may use.
  6. It may specify privacy locks for preventing unauthorized data entry.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 5.
Name the SQL Commands under TCL. Explain?
Answer:
SQL command which come under Transfer Control Language are:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 9

Question 6.
Write about the parts of SQL Commands?
Answer:
Keywords They have a special meaning in SQL. They are understood as instructions.
Commands They are instructions given by the user to the database also known as statements.
Clauses They begin with a keyword and consist of keyword and argument.
Arguments They are the values given to make the clause complete.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 7.
Write note on delete command?
Answer:
DELETE COMMAND
The DELETE command permanently removes one or more records from the table. It removes the entire row, not individual fields of the row, so no field argument is needed. The DELETE command is used as follows :
DELETE FROM table-name WHERE condition;
For example to delete the record whose admission number is 104 the command is given as follows:
DELETE FROM Student WHERE Admno=104;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 10
The following record is deleted from the Student table.
To delete all the rows of the table, the. command is used as :
DELETE * FROM Student;
The table will be empty now and could be destroyed using the DROP command.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 8.
Write note on delete, truncate, drop commands?
Answer:
DELETE, TRUNCATE AND DROP statement:
The DELETE command deletes only the rows from the table based on the condition given in the where clause or deletes all the rows from the table if no condition is specified. But it does not free the space containing the table.
The TRUNCATE command is used to delete all the rows, the structure remains in the table and free the space containing the table.
The DROP command is used to remove an object from the database. If you drop a table, all the rows in the table is deleted and the table structure is removed from the database. Once a table is dropped we cannot get it back.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 9.
Differentiate between and not between?
Answer:
BETWEEN and NOT BETWEEN Keywords
The BETWEEN keyword defies a range of values the record must fall into to make the condition true. The range may include an upper value and a lower value between which the criteria must fall into.
SELECT Admno, Name, Age, Gender FROM Student WHERE Age BETWEEN 18 AND 19;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 11
The NOT BETWEEN is reverse of the BETWEEN operator where the records not satisfying the condition are displayed.
SELECT Admno, Name, Age FROM Student WHERE Age NOT BETWEEN 18 AND 19;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 12

Question 10.
Differentiate IN and NOT IN
Answer:
IN Keyword
The IN keyword is used to specify a list of values which must be matched with the record values. In other words it is used to compare a column with more than one value. It is similar to an OR condition.
For example:
SELECT Admno, Name, Place FROM Student WHERE Place IN (“Chennai, “Delhi ”);
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 13
NOT IN: The NOT IN keyword displays only those records that do not match in the list. For example:
SELECT Admno, Name, Place FROM Student WHERE Place NOT IN (“Chennai”, ‘ “Delhi”);
will display students only from places other than “Chennai” and “Delhi”.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 14

Question 11.
Write note on NULL?
Answer:
NULL Value:
The NULL value in a field can be searched in a table using the IS NULL in the WHERE c lause. For example to list all the students whose Age contains no value, the command is used as:
SELECT * FROM Student WHERE Age IS NULL.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 12.
Write note on Roll Back?
Answer:
ROLLBACK command
The ROLLBACK command restores the database to the last committed state. It is used with SAVEPOINT command to jump to a particular savepoint location. The syntax for the ROLLBACK command is :
ROLL BACK TO Save point name.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 13.
Write note on having clause?
Answer:
HAVING clause:
The HAVING clause can be used along with GROUP BY clause in the SELECT statement to place condition on groups and can include aggregate functions on them. For example to count the number of Male and Female students belonging to Chennai.
SELECT gender, COUNT(*) FROM Student GROUP BY Gender HAVING Place = ‘Chennai’;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 15
The above output shows the number of Male and Female students in Chennai from the table student.

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write about data type and description?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 16

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL)

Question 2.
Write about DML Commands?
Answer:
DML COMMANDS
Once the schema or structure of the table is created, values can be added to the table. The DML commands consist of inserting, deleting and updating rows into the table.

(i) INSERT command
The INSERT command helps to add new data to the database or add new records to the table. Syntax:
INSERT INTO <table-name> [column-list] VALUES (values);

(a) INSER T INTO Student (Admno, Name, Gender, Age, Place)
VALUES (100, ‘Ashish ’, ‘M\ 17, ‘Chennai);

(b) INSERT INTO Student (Admno, Name, Gender, Age, Place)
VALUES (10, ‘Adarsh’, ‘M’, 18, ‘Delhi);

(c) INSERT INTO Student VALUES (102, ‘Akshith \ ‘M’, ‘17, ’ ‘Bangalore);
The above command inserts the record into the student table.
To add data to only some columns in a record by specifying the column name and their data, it can be done by:

(d) INSERT INTO Student(Admno, Name, Place) VALUES (103, ‘Ayush’, ‘Delhi’);

(e) INSERT INTO Student (Admno, Name, Place) VALUES (104, ‘Abinandh ‘Chennai); The student table will have the following data:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 17

(ii) DELETE COMMAND
The DELETE command permanently removes one or more records from the table. It removes the entire row, not individual fields of the row, so no field argument is needed. The DELETE command is used as follows:
DELETE FROM table-name WHERE condition;
For example to delete the record whose admission number is 104 the command is given as follows:
DELETE FROM Student WHERE Admno=104;

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 18

The following record is deleted from the Student table.
To delete all the rows of the table, the command is used as :
DELETE * FROM Student;
The table will be empty now and could be destroyed using the DROP command.

(iii) UPDATE COMMAND
The UPDATE command updates some or all data values in a database. It can update one or more records in a table. The UPDATE command specifies the rows to be changed using the WHERE clause and the new data using the SET keyword. The command is used as follows: UPDATE <table-name> SET column-name = value, column-name = value,… WHERE condition;
For example to update the following fields:
UPDATE Student SET Age = 20 WHERE Place = “Bangalore ”;
The above command will change the age to 20 for those students whose place is “Bangalore”.
The table will be as updated as below:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 19
To update multiple fields, multiple field assignment can be specified with the SET clause separated by comma. For example to update multiple fields in the Student table, the command is given as:
UPDATE Student SETAge=18, Place = ‘Chennai’ WHERE Admno = 102;
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 20
The above command modifies the record in the following way.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 12 Structured Query Language (SQL) img 21

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Ratio Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The mathematical expression that provides a measure of the relationship between two figures is called ……………..
(a) Conclusion
(b) Ratio
(c) Model
(d) Decision
Answer:
(b) Ratio

Question 2.
Current ratio indicates ……………..
(a) Ability to meet short term obligations
(b) Efficiency of management
(c) Profitability
(d) Long term solvency
Answer:
(a) Ability to meet short term obligations

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Question 3.
Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called ……………..
(a) Reserves
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Funds
(d) Quick assets
Answer:
(d) Quick assets

Question 4.
The debt equity ratio is a measure of ……………..
(a) Short term solvency
(b) Long term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long term solvency

Question 5.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 1
Answer:
(a) 1 4 3 2

Question 6.
To test the liquidity of a concern, which of the following ratios are useful?
(i) Quick ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Debt – equity ratio
(iv) Current ratio
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 7.
The proportion of share holder’s funds to total assets is called ……………..
(a) Proprietary ratio
(b) Capital gearing ratio
(c) Debt equity ratio
(d) Current ratio
Answer:
(a) Proprietary ratio

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Liquid ratio – Proportion
(b) Gross profit ratio – Percentage
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage
(d) Debt – equity ratio – Proportion
Answer:
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Question 9.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Current assets ₹ 1,00,000 ; Inventory ₹ 20,000 . Quick ratio is ……………..
(a) 1:1
(b) 2.5:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(c) 2:1

Question 10.
Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000; Inventory in the beginning of the year ₹ 60,000; Inventory at the close of the year ₹ 40,000. The inventory turnover ratio is
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 8 times
Answer:
(c) 6 times

II. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is meant by accounting ratios?
Answer:
The ratio is a mathematical expression of the relationship between two related or interdependent items. When ratios are calculated on the basis of accounting information, these are called ‘accounting ratios’.

Question 2.
What is the quick ratio?
Answer:
The quick ratio gives the proportion of quick assets to current liabilities. It indicates whether the business concern is in a position to pay its current liabilities as and when they become due, out of its quick assets. Quick assets are current assets excluding inventories and prepaid expenses. It is otherwise called “liquid ratio” or “acid test ratio”.
Quick ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses.
The higher the quick ratio, the better is the short-term financial position of an enterprise.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Question 3.
What is meant by debt-equity ratio?
Answer:
The debt-equity ratio is calculated to assess the long-term solvency position of a business concern. The debt-equity ratio expresses the relationship between long-term debt and shareholders’ funds.

Question 4.
What does the return on investment ratio indicate?
Answer:
It shows the proportion of net profit before interest and tax to capital employed (shareholder’s fund and long term debts). It is an overall measure of the profitability of a business concern.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 2
Capital employed = Shareholder’s funds + Non-current liabilities
Greater the return on investment better is than the profitability of a business and vice versa.

Question 5.
State any two limitations of ratio analysis.
Answer:

  • Ratios are only means: Ratios are not ended in themselves but they are the only means to achieve a particular purpose. Analysis of related items must be done by the management or experts with the help of ratios.
  • Accuracy of financial information: The accuracy of a ratio depends on the accuracy of information taken from financial statements. If the statements are inaccurate, ratios computed based on that will also be inaccurate.

III. Short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the objectives of ratio analysis.
Answer:
The objectives of ratio analysis:

  • To simplify accounting figures
  • To facilitate analysis of financial statements
  • To analyze the operational efficiency of a business
  • To help in budgeting and forecasting.
  • To facilitate intra firm and inter-firm comparison of performance.

Question 2.
What is the inventory conversion period? How is it calculated?
Answer:
It is the time taken to sell the inventory. A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of inventory. It is computed as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 3
(in days)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 4
(in months)

Question 3.
How is operating profit ascertained?
Answer:
It gives the proportion of operating profit to revenue from operations. Operating profit ratio is an indicator of the operational efficiency of an organisation. It may be computed as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 5
Alternatively, it is calculated as under:
Operating profit ratio = 100 – Operating cost ratio
Operating profit = Revenue from operations – Operating cost

Question 4.
State any three advantages of ratio analysis.
Answer:

  • Measuring operational efficiency: Ratio analysis helps to know the operational efficiency of a business by finding the relationship between operating cost and revenues and also by comparison of present ratios with those of the past ratios.
  • Measuring financial solvency: Ratio analysis helps to ascertain the liquidity or short term solvency and long term solvency of a business concern.
  • Facilitating investment decisions: Ratio analysis helps the management in making effective decisions regarding profitable avenues of investment.
  • Analysing the profitability: Ratio analysis helps to analyse the profitability of a business in terms of sales and investments.
  • Intra firm comparison: Comparison of the efficiency of different divisions of an organization is possible by comparing the relevant ratios.
  • Inter-firm comparison: Ratio analysis helps the firm to compare its performance with other firms.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Question 5.
Bring out the limitations of ratio analysis.
Answer:
Following are the limitations of ratio analysis:
1. Ratios are only means: Ratios are not ended in themselves but they are only meant to achieve a particular purpose. Analysis of related items must be done by the management or experts with the help of ratios.

2. Accuracy of financial information: The accuracy of a ratio depends on the accuracy of information taken from financial statements. If the statements are inaccurate, ratios computed based on that will also be inaccurate.

3. Consistency in preparation of financial statements: Inter-firm comparisons with the help of ratio analysis will be meaningful only if the firms follow uniform accounting procedures consistently.

4. Non – availability of standards or norms: Ratios will be meaningful only if they are compared with accepted standards or norms. Only a few financial ratios have universally recognized standards. For other ratios, comparison with standards is not possible.

5. Change in price level: Ratio analysis may not reflect price level changes and current values as they are calculated based on historical data given in financial statements.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Calculate the current ratio from the following information.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 7
Solution:
Current ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 6
Current assets = current investment + Inventories + Trade debtors + Bills receivable + Cash and cash equivalents
C. A = 40,000 + 2,00,000 + 1,20,000 + 80,000 + 10,000 = 4,50,000
Current liablities = Trade crditors + Bills payable + Expenses payable
C.L = 80,000 + 50,000 + 20,000 = 1,50,000
Current ratio = \(\frac { 4,50,000 }{ 1,50,000 }\)
Current ratio = 3:1

Question 2.
Calculate quick ratio: Total current liabilities ₹ 2,40,000; Total current assets ₹ 4,50,000; Inventories ₹ 70,000; Prepaid expenses ₹ 20,000
Solution:
Quick ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 6
Quick ratio = Current assets – Inventory – Prepaid expenses
= 4,50,000 – 70,000 – 20,000
= 3,60,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac { 3,60,000 }{ 2,40,000 }\) = 1.5 : 1

Question 3.
Following is the balance sheet of Lakshmi Ltd. as on 31st March, 2019:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 8
Calculate:
(i) Current ratio (ii) Quick ratio
Solution:
(i) Current ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 6
= \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\)
Current ratio = 1.5:1
Current assets = Inventories + Trade debtors + Cash and cash equivalents + other current assets prepaid expenses.
= 40,000 + 1,60,000 + 3,20,000 + 80,000
= 6,00,000
Current Liabilities = short-term loans + trade payables + Expenses payable + short term provision.
= 50,000 + 3,10,000 + 15,000 + 25,000
= 4,00,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventory – Prepaid expenses
= 6,00,000 – 1,60,000 – 40,000 = 4,00,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac { 4,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 1 : 1

Question 4.
From the following information calculate the debt-equity ratio.
Balance sheet (Extract) as on 31st March 2019:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 9
Solution:
Debt equity ratio = \(\frac{\text { Long term debt }}{\text { Shareholders funds }}\)
Debentures = 6,00,000
Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 6,00,000 + 2,00,000
= 8,00,000
Debt Equity ratio = \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 8,00,000 }\) = 0.75 : 1

Question 5.
From the following Balance Sheet of Pioneer Ltd. calculate proprietary ratio:
Balance sheet of Pioneer Ltd. as on 31.3.2019
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 10
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 11
Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,50,000 + 50,000
= 4,50,000
Total tanginle assets = Fixed assets capital + preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,00,000 + 40,000
=6,00,000
Proprietary Ratio = \(\frac { 4,50,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) = 0.75 : 1

Question 6.
From the following information calculate the capital gearing ratio:
Balance Sheet (Extract) as on 31.03.2018
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 12
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 13
Capital gearing ratio = 0.5 : 1
= \(\frac { 4,00,000 }{ 8,00,000 }\)
Funds bearing fixed interest and dividend Preference share capital + Debentures
= 1,00,000 + 3,00,000 = 4,00,000
Equity shareholder’s funds = Equity share capital + General reserve + Surplus
= 4,00,000 + 2,50,000 + 1,5,000 = 8,00,000

Question 7.
From the following Balance Sheet of Arunan Ltd. as of 31.03.2019 calculate

  1. Debt – equity ratio
  2. Proprietary ratio
  3. Capital gearing ratio

Balance Sheet of Arunan Ltd. as on 31.03.2019
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 14
Solution:
1. Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Long term debt }}{\text { Shareholders funds }}\)
Long term debt = Debentures = 3,00,000
Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 2,00,000 + 1 ,50,000
= 6,00,000
Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac { 3,00,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) = 0.5 : 1
Debt – equity ratio : 0.5 : 1

2. Proprietary ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 11
Total Tangible assets = 12,00,000
Proprietary ratio = \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 12,00,000 }\) = 0.5 : 1

3. Capital gearing ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 13
Funds bearing fixed interest or dividend = Preference share capital + Debentures + Long term borrowings.
= 2,00,000 + 4,00,000
= 5,00,000
Equity shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,50,000
= 4,00,000
Capital gearing ratio = \(\frac { 5,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 1.25 : 1

Question 8.
From the given information calculate the inventory turnover ratio and inventory conversion period (in months) of Sania Ltd.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 15
Solution:
Inventory turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 16
Cost of revenue from operations = Opening inventory + Net Purchases + Direct expenses (carriage inwards) – Closing inventory
= 1,70,000 + 6,90,000 + 20,000 – 1,30,000
= 7,50,000
Average inventory = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 17
= 1,50,000
Inventory Turnover ratio = \(\frac { 7,50,000 }{ 1,50,000 }\) = 5 times
Inventory conversion period = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 18
= \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 }\)
= 2.4 months

Question 9.
The credit revenue from operations of Harini Ltd. amounted to ₹ 9,60,000. Its debtors and bills receivable at the end of the accounting period amounted to ₹ 1,00,000 and ₹ 60,000, respectively. Calculate trade receivable turnover ratio and also collection period in months.
Solution:
Trade receivables turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 19
Average trade Receivables = Debtors + Bills receivable
Average Trade Receivables = \(\frac{1,10,000+1,40,000}{2}\) = 2,50,000
Trade receivable turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 10,00,000}{2,50,000}\) = 4 times
Debt collection period = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 20 = 3 months.

Question 10.
From the following figures obtained from Kalpana Ltd, calculate the trade payables turnover ratio and credit payment period (in days).
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 21
Solution:
Trade payable turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 22
Average trade payable = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 23
= \(\frac{60,000+50,000+45,000+35,000}{2}\)
= 95,000
Trade payable turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,50,000}{95,000}\) = 10 times
Credit payment period = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 24 = \(\frac{365}{10}\) = 36.5 days

Question 11.
From the following information of Ashika Ltd., calculate fixed assets turnover ratio:

  1. Revenue from operations during the year was ₹ 60,00,000.
  2. Fixed assets at the end of the year were ₹ 6,00,000.

Solution:
Fixed assets turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 25 = \(\frac{ 55,00,000}{ 5,00,000}\) = 11 times

Question 12.
Calculate:

  1. Inventory turnover ratio
  2. Trade receivable turnover ratio
  3. Trade payable turnover ratio and
  4. Fixed assets turnover ratio from the following information obtained from Delphi Ltd.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 26
Additional information:

  1. Revenue from operations for the year ₹ 10,50,000
  2. Purchases for the year ₹ 4,50,000
  3. Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 6,00,000. Assume that sales and purchases are for credit.

Solution:
1. Inventory turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 16
Average inventory = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 27
= \(\frac{3,60,000+4,40,000}{2}\) = 4,00,000
Inventory turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 16,00,000}{4,00,000}\) = 4 times

2. Trade receivables turnover ratio =
Average trade receivable = \(\frac{ 7,40,000 + 6,60,000 }{2}\) = 7,00,000

Trade receivables turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 35,00,000 }{ 7,00,000}\) = 5 times

3. Trade payable turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 22
Average trade receivable = \(\frac{ 1,90,000 + 2,30,000 }{2}\) = 21,00,000
Trade payable turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 21,00,000}{2,10,000}\) = 10 times

4. Fixed assets turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 25
Average fixed assets = \(\frac{ 6,00,000 + 8,00,000 }{2}\) = 7,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 35,00,000}{7,00,000}\) = 5 times

Question 13.
Calculate gross profit ratio from the following:
Revenue from operations ₹ 1,00,000, Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 80,000 and purchases ₹ 62,500.
Solution:
Gross profit ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 28
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 2,50,000 – 2,10,000
= 40,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{40,000}{2,50,000}\) x 100 = 16%

Question 14.
Following is the statement of profit and loss of Maria Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2018. Calculate the operating cost ratio.
Statement of Profit and Loss
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 29
Notes to Accounts
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 30
Solution:
Operating cost ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 31
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchases of stock-in-trade + Change in inventories of stock
= 8,60,000 + 40,000 = 9,00,000
Operating expenses = office and administrative expenses + Selling and distribution expenses + Employee benefits expenses salaries
= 50,000 + 90,000 + 1,60,000 = 3,00,000
Operating cost = Cost of revenue from operations + Operating expenses
= 9,00,000 + 3,00,000
= 12,00,000
Operating cost ratio = \(\frac{12,00,000}{15,00,000}\) x 100 = 80%

Question 15.
Calculate the operating profit ratio under the following cases.
Case 1: Revenue from operations ₹ 10,00,000, Operating profit ₹ 1,50,000.
Case 2: Revenue from operations ₹ 15,00,000, Operating cost ₹ 12,00,000.
Case 3: Revenue from operations ₹ 20,00,000, Gross profit 30% on revenue from operations, Operating expenses ₹ 4,00,000
Solution:
Operating ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 41
Case I :
Operating ratio = \(\frac{2,00,000}{8,00,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Case II.
Operating profit = Revenue from operation – Operating Cost
= 20,00,000 – 14,00,000 = 6,00,000
Operating ratio = \(\frac{6,00,000}{20,00,000}\) x 100 = 30%

Case III.
Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
Gross profit = 10,00,000 x \(\frac{ 25 }{ 100 }\) = 2,50,000
Operating profit = 2,50,000 – 1,00,000 = 1,50,000
Operating ratio = \(\frac{1,50,000}{10,00,000}\) x 100 = 1.5%

Question 16.
From the following details of a business, concern calculate net profit ratio.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 32
Solution:
Net Profit Ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 33
Net profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operation – office and administrative expenses – selling and distribution expenses
=9,60,000 – 5,50,000 – 1,45,000 – 1,25,000
= 2,40,000
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{2,40,000}{9,60,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Question 17.
From the following statement of profit and loss of Mukesh Ltd. calculate

  1. Gross profit ratio
  2. Net profit ratio.

Statement of Profit and Loss
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 34
Solution:
1. Gross Profit = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 28
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Purchase of stock in trade – Changes in inventories
= 24,00,000 – 18,80,000 – ( – 80,000)
= 6,00,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{6,00,000}{24,00,000}\) x 100 = 10%

2. Net Profit Ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 43
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{2,40,000}{24,00,000}\) x 100 = 10%

Question 18.
From the following trading activities of Naveen Ltd. calculate

  1. Gross profit ratio
  2. Net profit ratio
  3. Operating cost ratio
  4. Operating profit ratio

Statement of Profit and loss
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 35
Solution:
1. Gross profit ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 28
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Purchase of stock in trade – Changes in inventories
= 44,00,000 – 21,00,000 – 30,000
= 16,00,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{1,60,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 40%

2. Net Profit Ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 43
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{80,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 20%

3. Operating cost ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 31
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchases of stock-in-trade + Change in inventories of stock
= 2,10,000 + 30,000 = 2,40,000
Operating expenses = Administrative expenses + Selling and expenses = 60,000
Operating cost = 2,40,000 + 60,000 = 3,00,000
Operating cost ratio = \(\frac{3,00,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 75%

4. Operating profit ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
= 1,60,000 – 60,000 = 1,00,000
Operating profit ratio = \(\frac{10,00,00}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Question 19.
Following is the extract of the balance sheet of Babu Ltd., as on 31st March, 2018:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 36
Net profit before interest and tax for the year was ₹ 25,000. Calculate the return on capital employed for the year.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 37
Capital employed = Share capital + Reserves and surplus + Long term borrowings
= 2,00,000 + 50,000 + 1,50,000 = 4,00,000
Return on Capital employed = \(\frac{60,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 15%

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Ratio Analysis Additional Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the liquidity ratios?
Answer:
Liquidity ratios are the ratios meant for testing the short-term solvency position of the firm, i.e., Whether a company is able to repay the short-term loans on their due dates. They include

  1. Current ratio and
  2. Liquid ratio.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Question 2.
What is the activity ratio?
Answer:
Activity ratios measure the effectiveness with which assets are used for generating revenue from operations.They include

  1. Inventory turnover ratio and
  2. Trade receivable turnover ratio and
  3. Working capital turnover ratio, etc.

II. Exercise

Question 1.
From the following complete (i) current ratio, (ii) Quick ratio.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 38
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 39
Current assets = Current investments + Inventories + Trade receivables + Cash and cash + short – term loans and Advances
= ₹ 40,000 + 5,000 + 2,000 + 10,000 + 4,000 = ₹ 61,000
Current liabilities = Short – term borrowings + Trade payable + short-term provisions + other current liabilities
= ₹ 20,000 + 2,500 + 3,000 + 5,000 = ₹ 30,500
Current Ratio = \(\frac{61,000}{30,500}\) = 2 : 1

(ii) Quick ratio
Quick ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 40
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= ₹ 61,000 – 5,000 – Nil = ₹ 56,000
Quick Ratio = \(\frac{56,000}{30,500}\) = 1.8 : 1

Question 2.
Current ratio = 2:1. State and give a reason which of the following would improve, reduce or does not change the ratio
(a) Repayment of current liabilities
(b) Purchasing goods on credit
(c) Sale of office types of equipment for ₹ 4000 (book value ₹ 5000)
(d) Sale of goods ₹ 11,000 (cost ₹ 10,000)
(e) Payment of dividend
Answer:
Current ratio of a company is 2:1. In other words, it may be assumed that the current assets are ₹ 2,00,000 and current liabilities are ₹ 1,00,000.
(a) Repayment of current liabilities say ₹ 50,000
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 45
Ratio is improved

(b) Purchasing goods on credit say ₹ 60,000

Ratio reduced.

(c) Sale of office equipment for ₹ 4,000 (book value ₹ 5,000)

Ratio is improved.

(d) Sale of goods ₹ 11,000 [Cost value is ₹ 10,000]

Ratio is improved.

(e) Payment of dividend say ₹ 50,000
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 59
= 3 : 1 Ratio is Improved

Question 3.
Calculate current ratio of a company from the following information
Inventory turnover ratio = 4 times
Inventory in the end was ₹ 20,000 more than inventory in the beginning. Revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000 Gross profit ratio = 25%
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Quick ratio 0.75:1
Cost of revenue from operations
Answer:
Inventory turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 16
4(Given) =
Average Inventory =
Average inventory = \(\frac{2,25,000}{4}\) = ₹ 56,250
Closing inventory = 56,250 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (20,000)
₹ 56,250 + 10,000 = ₹ 66,250
Current assets = Liquid assets + Closing inventory with the help of quick ratio. We can findout liquid assets.
Quick ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 51
0.75(given) =\(\frac{\text { Liquid assets }}{40,000}\)
Liquid assets = ₹ 40,000 x 0.75 = ₹ 30,000
Current assets = Liquid assets + Inventory
= ₹ 30,000 + ₹ 66,250 = ₹ 96,250
Current ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 39
= \(\frac{96,250}{40,000}\) = 2.41:1

Question 4.
From the given balance sheet of Mr. A, calculate the activity (turnover) ratios.
The balance sheet as on 31.12.2004
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Additional Information: Credit purchase ₹ 5,00,000; credit sales ₹ 9,00,000
Answer:
(a) Capital Turnover Ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Capital employed = Share capital + Profit and loss A/c + Reserve and surplus + debentures
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,00,000 + ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 4,50,000
Capital turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{4,50,000}\) = 2 times

(b) Fixed assets turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Fixed assets = Land + Buildings + Equipments + Furniture
= ₹ 50,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,75,000 + 75,000
= ₹ 3,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{4,50,000}\)

(c) Debtors Turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Credit ₹ 9,00,000.
Average debtors = Closing debtors = ₹ 60,000
Debtors Turnover Ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{60,000}\) = 15 times

(d) Creditors turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis
Credit purchases = ₹ 5,00,000
Average creditors = closing creditors ₹ 1,25,000
Creditors turnover ratio = \(\frac{5,00,000}{1,25,00}\) = 4 times

Question 5.
From the following particulars ascertain gross profit ratio:
Cash sales – ₹ 30,000
Gross profit – ₹ 1,58,500
Credit sales – ₹ 1,70,000
Return inward – ₹ 5,000
Answer:
Gross profit = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Cash sales + Credit sales – Sales return
= ₹ 30,000 + 1,70,000 – 5,000
= ₹ 1,95,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{58,500}{1,95,000}\) x 100 = 30%

Question 6.
Calculate the current ratio
Cash ₹ 2,00,000; Sundry debtors ₹ 80,000
Stock ₹ 1,20,000; Sundry Creditors ₹ 1,50,000
Bills payable ₹ 50,000
Answer:
Current ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 39
Current Assets = Cash + Sundry debitor + Stock
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 80,000 + 1,20,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
= ₹ 1,50,000 + 50,000 = ₹ 2,00,000
Current ratio = \(\frac{4,00,000}{2,00,000}\) = 2:1

Question 7.
Calculate Liquidity ratio
Current assets – ₹ 20,000
Prepaid expenses – ₹ 1,000
Stock – ₹ 3,000
Current liabilities – ₹ 8,000
Answer:
Liquidity ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 51
Liquid assets = Current assets – (stock + Prepaid exp)
= ₹ 20,000 – (3000+ 1000)
= ₹ 20,000 – 4000
= ₹ 16,000
Current liabilities = ₹ 8,000
Liquid Ratio = \(\frac{16,000}{8,000}\) = 2:1

Question 8.
Calculate Debt – Equity ratio.
Equity share capital ₹ 2,00,000; General reserve ₹ 1,50,000; Long term loan Debt – Equity ₹ 50,000; Debenture ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:
Debt – Equity ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 57
Total long term debt = debentures + long term loan
= ₹ 1,00,000 + ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 1,50,000
Shareholders fund = Equity share capital + General reserve
= ₹ 2,00,000 + ₹ 1,50,000
= ₹ 3,50,000
Debt – equity ratio = \(\frac{1,50,000}{3,50,000}\) = 0.43 : 1

Question 9.
From the following calculate gross profit ratio:
Gross profit = ₹ 50,000
Sales = ₹ 5,50,000
Sales return = ₹ 50,000
Answer:
= \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Sales – sales returns
= ₹ 5,50,000 – ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 5,00,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{50,000}{5,00,000}\) = 10%

Question 10.
Calculate the gross profit ratio:
Sales ₹ 6,50,000; Cost of goods sold ₹ 4,80,000; Sales returns ₹ 50,000.
Answer:
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 6,50,000 – ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 6,00,000
Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold
= ₹ 6,00,000 – 4,80,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac { 1,20,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) x 100 = 20%

Question 11.
Calculate capital turnover ratio:
Sales ₹ 20,40,000; Equity share capital ₹ 2,00,000
Preference share capital ₹ 1,00,000; Sales return ₹ 40,000
Loan ₹ 50,000; Reserve ₹ 50,000.
Answer:
Capital turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 53
Sales = Sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 20,40,000 – ₹ 40,000
= ₹ 20,00,000
Capital employed = Equity share capitals + Preference share capital + Reserve + Loans
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 50,000 + 50,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
Capital turnover ratio = \(\frac { 20,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 5 times

Question 12.
From the following data, calculate the fixed assets turnover ratio: ₹ 6,00,000; fixed assets depreciation ₹ 2,00,000 Total sales ₹ 17,00,000; Sales returns ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:
Fixed assets turnover ratio =Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 54
Sales = Total sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 17,00,000 – 1,00,000
= ₹ 16,00,0000
Fixed assets = Fixed assets – depreciation
= ₹ 6,00,000 – ₹ 2,00,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac { 16,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 4 times

Question 13.
Calculate Stock – Turnover ratio:
Opening stock = ₹ 80,000; Closing stock ₹ 60,000; Purchases ₹ 1,90,000.
Answer:
Inventory turnover ratio = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 16
Cost of revenue from operation = Opening stock + Purchase – Closing stock
= ₹ 80,000 + 1,90,000 – 60,000 = ₹ 2,10,000
Average Inventory = Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis 58
= \(\frac{80,000+60,000}{2}\) = \(\frac{1,40,000}{2}\) = ₹ 70,000
Inventory Turnover Ratio = \(\frac{ 2,10,000 }{ 70,000 }\) = 3 times

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

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TN State Board 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

நேரம்: 2.30 மணி
மதிப்பெண்கள்: 90

குறிப்புகள்:

  • இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
  • பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
  • வினா எண் 1 முதல் 14 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
    ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதவும்.
  • வினா எண் 15 முதல் 30 வரை பகுதி-பால் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  • வினா எண் 31 முதல் 43 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் நான்கு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
  • வினா எண் 44 முதல் 46 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஆறு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
  • வினா எண் 47-ல் பகுதி-Vல் மனப்பாடப்பகுதி தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.

பகுதி -1

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடை தருக [14 x 1 = 14]

(விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன)

Question 1.
‘குவலயானந்தம்’ என்னும் நூல்……….. இலக்கணத்தை மட்டுமே கூறும்.
(அ) எழுத்திலக்கணம்
(ஆ) சொல்
(இ) யாப்பு
(ஈ) அணி
Answer:
(ஈ) அணி

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 2.
ஆணும் பென்னும் ஓருயிரின் தலைகள் என்றெழுது ‘ என தம்பிக்கு எழுதிய கவிஞர் ……….
(அ) பாரதியார்
ஆ) பாரதிதாசன்
(இ) மேத்தா
(ஈ) அப்துல் ரகுமான்
Answer:
(அ) பாரதியார்

Question 3.
அய்யப்ப மாதவன்………… கோட்டையைச் சேர்ந்தவர்.
(அ) வஞ்சிக்
(ஆ) நாட்டரசன்
(இ நாலுவாசல்
(ஈ) தேவ
Answer:
(ஆ) நாட்டரசன்

Question 4.
ஆங்கிலத்தில் இருந்த நீதி மன்றத் தீர்ப்புகளை முதன் முதலில் தமிழில் வெளியிட்டவர்.
(அ) நீதிபதி கிருஷ்ணய்யர்
(ஆ) நீதிபதி சோமநாதன்
(இ) மாயூரம் வேதநாயகம்
(ஈ) நீதிபதி இஸ்மாயில்
Answer:
(இ) மாயூரம் வேதநாயகம்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 5.
திருமணம் தொடங்கி முதல் குழந்தை பிறக்கும் வரை உள்ள காலகட்டத்தைக் குறிப்பது…..
(அ) மணந்தகம்
(ஆ) பிறந்தகம்
(இ) புகுந்தகம்
(ஈ) வளர்ந்தகம்
Answer:
(அ) மணந்தகம்

Question 6.
நான்கு முதல் பன்னிரண்டு வரை அடிவரையறை உடைய பாவகை…………. ஆகும்.
(அ) குறள் வெண்பா
(ஆ) பஃறொடை வெண்பா
(இ) கலிவெண்பா
(ஈ) சிந்தியல் வெண்பா
Answer:
(ஆ) பஃறொடை வெண்பா

Question 7.
புறம் என்றும் புறப்பாட்டு என்றும் அழைக்கப்படும் எட்டுத்தொகை நூல்களில் ஒன்றானது…….
(அ) அகநானூறு
(ஆ) புறநானூறு
(இ) தேவாரம்
(ஈ) கலித்தொகை
Answer:
(ஆ) புறநானூறு

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 8.
வெகுளி என்பதன் பொருள்……….
(அ) கோபம்
(ஆ) வியப்பு
(இ) மகிழ்ச்சி
(ஈ) பெருமை
Answer:
(அ) கோபம்

Question 9.
‘திண்ணியர்’ என்பதன் பொருள் தருக.
(அ) அறிவினார்
(ஆ) மன உறுதியுடையவர்
(இ) அறிவிலார்
(ஈ) தீக்காய்வார்
Answer:
(ஆ) மன உறுதியுடையவர்

Question 10.
வேளாண் மேலாண்மை என்பது ….
கூற்று 1: சரியான பயிரைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்தல், உரிய நேரத்தில் விதைத்தல்.
கூற்று 2 : நீர் மேலாண்மையை நெறிப்படுத்துதல்.
(அ) கூற்று 1, 2 சரி
(ஆ) கூற்று 1 தவறு, 2 சரி
(இ) கூற்று 1 சரி, 2 தவறு
(ஈ) கூற்று 1, 2 தவறு
Answer:
(அ) கூற்று 1, 2 சரி

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 11.
கிறிஸ்துவமும் தமிழும்’ என்னும் நூலை எழுதியவர்……….
(அ) மீனாட்சி
(ஆ) மயிலையார்
(இ) பாரதியார்
(ஈ) திரு. வி.க
Answer:
(ஆ) மயிலையார்

Question 12.
தெய்வமணிமாலை திருவருட்பாவில்……….. திருமுறையில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ளது.
(அ) இரண்டாம்
(ஆ) மூன்றாம்
(இ) நான்காம்
(ஈ) ஐந்தாம்
Answer:
(ஈ) ஐந்தாம்

Question 13.
பெருந்தோள் மடந்தை என்பவள் ……….
(அ) மாதவி
(ஆ) மாதிரி
(இ) கண்ண கி
(ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
(அ) மாதவி

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 14.
நடிகர் திலகத்துக்கு சிவாஜி எனப் பெயர் சூட்டியவர்………….
(அ) அண்ணா
(ஆ) வீரமணி
(இ) பெரியார்
(ஈ) எம். ஜி. ஆர்.
Answer:
(இ) பெரியார்

பகுதி – 1

இரண்டு அல்லது மூன்று வரிகளில் விடை தருக. [12x 2 = 24]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 15.
பிறகொரு நாள் கோடை என்னும் தலைப்பில் எழுதிய ஆசிரியர் யார்? அவரைப் பற்றிய குறிப்பு தருக.
Answer:
இக்கவிதை அய்யப்ப மாதவன் கவிதைகள்’ என்னும் தொகுப்பிலிருந்து எடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. சிவகங்கை மாவட்டம், நாட்டரசன் கோட்டையைச் சேர்ந்தவர் கவிஞர் அய்யப்ப மாதவன்.

இதழியல் துறை, திரைத்துறை சார்ந்து இயங்கி வருபவர், இன்று என்ற கவிதைக் குறும்படத்தையும் மழைக்குப் பிறகும் மழை, நானென்பது வேறொருவன் , நீர்வெளி முதலான கவிதை நூல்களையும் வெளியிட்டுள்ளார்.

Question 16.
வேடுவதலைவன் குகனிடம் இராமன் கூறியது என்ன?
Answer:
வேடுவ தலைவன் குகனிடம் இராமன், நீ என் தம்பி; இலக்குவன் உன் தம்பி; அழகிய நெற்றியைக் கொண்ட சீதை உன் அண்ணி; குளிர் கடலும் இந்நிலமும் எல்லாம் உனதேயாகும். மேலும் நான் உன்னுடைய ஏவலுக்கேற்பப் பணிபுரிபவன் என்று கூறினான்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 17.
எத்திசையிலும் சோறு தட்டாது கிட்டும்’ – யார்க்கு?
Answer:
கலைத் தொழிலில் வல்லவராய் இருப்பவர்களுக்கு இவ்வுலகில் எத்திசையில் சென்றாலும் உணவு தவறாமல் கிட்டும் என்று ஒளவையார் கூறுகிறார்.

Question 18.
இசைக்கருவிகள் ஒலித்த முறை யாது?
Answer:
குழலின் வழியே யாழிசை நின்றது. யாழிசைக்கு ஏற்ப தண்ணுமையாகிய மத்தளம் ஒலித்தது. தண்ணுமையோடு இயைந்து முழவு ஒலித்தது. முழவுடன் இடக்கை வாத்தியம் கூடி நின்று ஒலித்தது.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு விடை தருக

Question 19.
தமிழர் தம் பழம்பெருமையை உணர உதவும் புதையலாக விளங்கியது எது?
Answer:
ஒவ்வொரு தேசிய இனமும் தன்னுடைய கடந்த கால வரலாற்றை அறிந்திருந்தால் மட்டுமே எதிர்கால இலக்குகளை அடைய முடியும். அத்தகைய இன வரலாற்றை இலக்கியம், தொல்லியல், கல்வெட்டு, பண்பாடு ஆகியவற்றின் அடிப்படையில் தரவுகளைத் தேடி எழுதிய ஆளுமைகளில் முக்கியமானவர் மயிலை சீனி.

வேங்கடசாமி. இதழ் ஆசிரியராக வாழ்க்கையைத் தொடங்கிய அவர், பள்ளி ஆசிரியராகப் பணியாற்றியபடியே எழுதி முடித்த புத்தகங்களே, தமிழர் தம் பழம்பெருமையை உணர, உதவும் புதையலாக விளங்குகிறது.

Question 20.
பின்னணி இசை படத்தின் காட்சியமைப்புக்கு எவ்வாறு உயிருட்டும்? சான்று தருக
Answer:
பின்னனி இசை, திரைப்படத்தின் உணர்வுகளை வெளிக்கொணர உதவும் மற்றொரு கலை பின்னணி இசைச் சேர்ப்பும், சில வேளைகளில் மவுனமும் திரையில் உணர்வுகளை வெளிக்கொணர உதவுகின்றன. நமக்குப் பாத்திரங்களின் உணர்வுகளுக்கு விரிவுரை வழங்குவதாக இருக்க வேண்டும்.

அதே போல மவுனம், உரையாடலைவிட அதிகம் பேசுவதாக இருக்கும்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 21.
எழுத்தாணி எத்தனை வகைப்படும் அவை யாவை?
Answer:
எழுத்தாணி மூன்று வகைப்படும். அவை

  • மடக்கெழுத்தாணி,
  • வாரெழுத்தாணி,
  • குண்டெழுத்தாணி

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் ஏழனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 22.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்குப் பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.
(அ) வருவான் (ஆ) எழுகின்றாள்
(அ) வருவான் = வா (வரு) + வ் + ஆன்
Answer:
வா – பகுதி ; வரு – விகாரம் வ் – எதிர்கால இடைநிலை
ஆன் – ஆண்பால் வினைமுற்று விகுதி

(ஆ) எழுகின்றாள் = எழுது – கின்று – ஆள்
Answer:
எழுது – பகுதி கின்று – நிகழ்கால இடைநிலை
ஆள் – பெண்பால் வினைமுற்று விகுதி

Question 23.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் இலக்கணக்குறிப்புத் தருக.
Answer:
(அ) யாரையும் (ஆ) காய்நெல்
(அ) யாரையும் – முற்றும்மை
(ஆ) காய்நெல் – வினைத்தொகை

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 24.
மரபுப்பிழை நீக்குக.
வண்டுகளின் ஒலி கேட்டு புலிக்குட்டிகள் களிப்புற்றன.
Answer:
வண்டுகளின் முரலல் கேட்டுப் புலிப்பரள்கள் களிப்புற்றன.

Question 25.
சொல்லைச் சேர்த்தும், பிரித்தும் தொடரமைக்க கண்டதைக் கற்க
Answer:
கண்டதைக் கற்க : திருக்குறளில் கண்டதைக் கற்க மேன்மைதான். கண்டு அத கற்க : சிறந்த நூல்களைக் கண்டு அதைக் கற்பாயாக! 26. கொச்சைச் சொற்களைத் திருத்துக.

எத்தினி நபா சொன்னாலும் படிப்புல கவனத்தைக் காணோம்.

எத்தனை முறை சொன்னாலும் படிப்பில் கவனத்தைக் காணவில்லை.

Question 27.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா தருக.
Answer:
(அ) கொடுக்கக் கொடுக்கக் குறையாத செல்வம் கல்வியே!
(ஆ) சைவ சமயத்தின் தலைமைக் கடவுள் சிவபெருமான்.
(அ) கொடுக்கக் கொடுக்க குறையாத செல்வம் எது?
(ஆ) சிவபெருமான் எந்த சமயத்தில் தலைமைக் கடவுள்?

Question 28.
மயங்கொலிச் சொற்களின் பொருள் அறிந்து ஒரே தொடரில் அமைக்கவும்.
Answer:
கலை – களை
வயலில் களை பறித்தவர்கள் கூலியைப் பெற்றுக் கொண்டதும் கலைந்து சென்றனர்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 29.
வல்லின மெய்களைத் தேவையற்ற இடங்களில் நீக்கி எழுதுக.
Answer:
தான் பார்த்தப் பெண்ணைப் பிடிக்கவில்லை என்று சொன்னத் தந்தையிடம் கோபப்பட்டான் மகன்.

தான் பார்த்த பெண்ணைப் பிடிக்கவில்லை என்று சொன்ன தந்தையிடம் கோபப்பட்டான் மகன்.

Question 30.
வடமொழி நீக்கித் தனித்தமிழில் எழுதுக.
சுபமுகூர்த்தம் கூடிய நாளில் திருக்கோவிலில் கும்பாபிஷேக வைபவம் நடந்தது.
Answer:
நல்ல நேரம் கூடிய நாளில் திருக்கோவிலில் குடமுழுக்கு விழா நடந்தது.

பகுதி – III

ஐந்து அல்லது ஆறு வரிகளில் விடை தருக. [7×4 = 28]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக

Question 31.
சடாயுவைத் தந்தையாக ஏற்று, இராமன் ஆற்றிய கடமைகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:

  • இராமன், தன் தந்தையின் நண்பனான அக்கழுகு வேந்தனையும் தன் தந்தையாகவே கருதி, மகன் நிலையில் அவனுக்குரிய இறுதிச் சடங்குகளைச் செய்கிறான்.
  • பட்ட சிறப்பான விறகுகள் இவை என்று கண்டவர் வியக்கும்படியான கரிய அகில் கட்டைகளையும், சந்தனக் கட்டைகளையும் இராமன் கொண்டுவந்து வைத்தான்.
  • தேவையான அளவு தருப்பைப் புற்களையும் ஒழுங்குபட அடுக்கினான். பூக்களையும் கொண்டுவந்து தூவினான். மணலினால், மேடையைத் திருத்தமாக அமைத்தான்.
  • நன்னீரையும் எடுத்து வந்தான். இறுதிச்சடங்கு செய்யப்படக் கூடிய மேடைக்குத் தன் தந்தையாகிய சடாயுவைப் பெரிய கைகளில் தூக்கிக் கொண்டு வந்தான்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 32.
இராமலிங்க அடிகள் கந்தவேளிடம் எத்தகையோர் உறவு வேண்டுமெனக் கேட்கிறார்?
Answer:

  • அறம் செய்வார் நிறைந்திருக்கும் சென்னையின் கந்தகோட்டத்துத் திருக்கோவிலில் எழுந்தருளியிருக்கும் கந்தவேளே.
  • குளிர்ந்த முகத்தோற்றத்தையுடைய தூய மாணிக்க மணியே, அம்மணிகளுள் அருள் நிறைந்த சைவமணியே
  • ஒருநெறிப்பட்ட மனத்துடன் நின்னுடைய மலர்போன்ற திருவடிகளை நினைக்கின்ற உத்தமர்தம் உறவு வேண்டும்.
  • உள்ளத்தில் ஒன்றும் புறத்தில் ஒன்றுமாகப் பேசும் வஞ்சகர்தம் உறவு என்னைப் பற்றாதவாறு காக்க வேண்டும்.
  • பெருமை சான்ற நினது புகழையே நான் பேச வேண்டும்.
  • பொய் பேசாதிருக்க வேண்டும்.
  • சிறந்த வாழ்வியல் நெறியைப் பின்பற்றுமாறு எனக்கு அருள வேண்டும்.
  • மதமான பேய் என்னை அணுகாதிருக்க வேண்டும்.
  • துறவுக்கு எதிரான பெண்ணாசையை என் மனம் மறக்க வேண்டும்.
  • என்றும் உன்னை மறவாதிருக்க வேண்டும். மதியும் நின் கருணையாகிய நிதியும் நோயற்ற வாழ்வும் உடையவனாக நான் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
  • ஆறுமுகங்களை உடைய தெய்வமாகிய மணியே, இத்தகைய சிறப்புகளை நீ எனக்கு அருள்வாயாக.

Question 33.
‘ஈசன்மகன் நின்றனர் ஓர் ஏழையென ஓர்மின்’- இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்குக.
Answer:
இடம். எச். ஏ. கிருட்டிணனார் பாடி இரட்சணிய யாத்திரிகம்’ பாடலில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ளது.

பொருள் :
இயேசு பெருமான் அன்பு என்னும் உறுதியான கட்டிலிருந்து விடுபட முடியாமல் தான், எந்த உதவியும் பெற இயலாத ஓர் ஏழையைப் போல அமைதியுடன் நின்றார்.

விளக்கம் :
இறைமகன் தன்னைப் பிறர் கயிற்றால் கட்டும்போது அதற்கு உடன்பட்டு நின்றார். அச்செயலானது, இயல்பாக மனிதர்களிடம் காணப்படுகிற சாதாரண அன்புச்செயல் என்று கருத வேண்டியதில்லை. தம்மீது பகை கொண்டு தனக்கு இழிவான செயல்களைச் செய்த இம்மனிதர்கள் தாங்கள் வாழும் காலம் முழுவதும் துன்பத்தில் இருப்பார்களோ என்று எண்ணி அவர்களுக்காக இரக்கப்படுகிற தன்மையே காரணம். அந்த அன்பு என்னும் உறுதியான கட்டிலிருந்து விடுபட முடியாமல் தான், எந்த உதவியும் பெற இயலாத ஓர் ஏழையைப் போல அமைதியுடன் நின்றார்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 34.
இனநிரை – பிரித்துப் புணர்ச்சி விதி எழுதுக
Answer:
இனநிரை = இனம் + நிரை மவ்வீறு ஒற்றழிந்து உயிரீறு ஒப்பவும் ஆகும்

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக.

Question 35.
ஒரு நாட்டினுடைய வரலாற்றின் முக்கியத்துவத்தைக் கூறுக.
Answer:

  • நாட்டின் வரலாறு என்பது அந்நாட்டை ஆண்ட அரசர்களுடைய வரலாறு மட்டுமன்று அந்நாட்டில் வாழ்ந்த மக்களின் வாழ்க்கை வரலாறும் சேர்ந்ததே. ஒவ்வொரு நாட்டுக்கும் அந்தந்த நாட்டின் வரலாறு முதன்மையானதாகும்.
  • ஆனால் வரலாற்றை ஆவணப்படுத்தும் வழக்கம் நமது நாட்டில் மிக அரிதாகவே இருந்தது. எனவேதான், நமக்குப் பழைய வரலாறுகள் இன்றும் குறைவாகவே கிடைக்கின்றன.
  • பெரிதும் கவனம் குவிக்கப்படாத இத்தகு துறைகளில் வெளிச்சம் பாய்ச்சிய ஆளுமைகள் போற்றத்தக்கவர்கள்.
  • சான்றுகளை ஆய்வு நோக்கில் தந்து வரலாற்றையும் பண்பாட்டையும் செழுமைப்படுத்தும் சான்றோர்களின் ஆய்வு ஆளுமை அறியத்தக்கது.

Question 36.
சங்கப் பாடல்களின் ஒலிக்கோலம் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க ஒரு பண்பாகும் – விளக்குக ஒலிக்கோலங்கள்
Answer:

  • எல்லாத் தொன்மையான மொழியும் சமிக்ஞையிலிருந்தும், இசையிலிருந்தும் தான் தொடங்குகிறது.
  • மொழி சார்ந்த கவிதையும் இசையோடும் இசைக்கருவியோடும் தான் பிறக்கிறது.
  • ஓசையும் பொருளும் இணைந்து கலைவடிவம் கொள்கின்றன. இதனையே அந்தப் பனுவலின் – பாடலின் – ஒலிப்பின்னல் என்கிறோம்.

(எ.கா.) கடந்தடு தானை மூவிருங்கூடி
உடன்றனிர் ஆயினும் பறம்பு கொளற்கரிதே.
என்னும் இப்பாடலில் வன்மையான உணர்ச்சியைக் காட்டுகிற விதத்தில் க,த, ட, ற முதலிய வல்லின மெய்கள், பிற மெல்லின, இடையின மெய்களைக் காட்டிலும் அதிகமாக வருதலை அறிந்து கொள்ளலாம்.

படாஅம் ஈத்த கெடாஅ நல்லிசைக்
கடாஅ யானைக் கலிமான் பேக

இப்படிப் பல, உயிர் ஒலிகள் – குறிப்பாக நெடில் ஒலிகளின் வருகையும், சில ஒலிகளும் சில சொற்களும் திரும்பவரல் தன்மை பெற்றிருப்பதும் இவற்றோடு சேர்ந்து நிகழ்த்தப்பெறும் சொல் விளையாட்டுகளும் இங்கே கவனத்திற்குரியன. இந்த ஒலிக்கோலம் சங்கப்பாடல்களில் முக்கியமான ஒரு பண்பு.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 37.
மாணக்கர் அக்காலத்தில் சுவடிகளை எவ்வாறு அமைத்தனர்?
Answer:

  • இளம்பிள்ளைகளுக்கு உபாத்தியாயர் ஓலையை வாரி ஒழுங்காக நறுக்கித் துளையிட்டுக் கயிறு கோர்த்துத் தருவார்.
  • ஒரு துளையிடுவதும் இரண்டு துளையிடுவதும் உண்டு. மற்ற பிள்ளைகள் தாங்களே செய்து கொள்ளுவார்கள்.
  • பனையேடு, சீதாள பத்திரம் முதலியவற்றில் எழுதுவது வழக்கம்.
  • மேலே சட்டமாகப் பனைமட்டையின் காம்பை நறுக்கிக் கோர்ப்பார்கள். மரச்சட்டங்களையும் அமைப்பார்கள்.
  • செப்புத் தகட்டாலும் சட்டஞ் செய்து கோர்ப்பார்கள். அந்தச் சட்டங்களின் மேல் வர்ண மையினாற் பல வகையான சித்திரங்கள் எழுதுவதுண்டு.
  • இரட்டைத் துளையுள்ள ஏடுகளில் ஒரு துளையில் செப்புக் கம்பி அல்லது மூங்கிற் குச்சியைச் செருகிக் கட்டுவார்கள். அதற்கு நாராசம் என்று பெயர்.
  • சுவடியைக் கோர்க்கும் கயிற்றின் ஒரு தலைப்பில் தடையாக, பனையோலையை ஈர்க்கோடு கிளிமூக்குப் போலக் கத்தரித்து அமைப்பார்கள். அதற்குக் கிளிமூக்கென்று பெயர்.
  • இப்போது அச்சுப் புத்தங்களின் அளவில் எவ்வளவு வேறுபாடுகள் உண்டோ அவ்வளவு பனையோலைச் சுவடிகளிலும் உண்டு.

Question 38.
மணந்தகம் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

  • வாழ்க்கை என்னும் நீண்ட பாதையில் குடும்பத்தின் தொடக்கம் திருமணமே. மணம்புரிந்த கணவனும்.
  • மனைவியும் சேர்ந்து இல்லற வாழ்வில் ஈடுபடக்கூடிய தொடக்கக்கட்டமே ”மணந்தகம்” எனப்படுகிறது.
  • முதல் குழந்தை பிறக்கும் வரை உள்ள காலகட்டத்தை இந்நிலை குறிக்கிறது. தனிக்குடும்ப உருவாக்கத்தின் தொடக்க நிலையாக இது அமைகிறது.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக.

39. நெய்தல் திணையை உதாரணத்துடன் விவரி. (அல்லது) தலைமகன் பாங்கற்கு உரைத்த கூற்றை விவரி.
Answer:
முதற்பொருள்
நிலம் – கடலும் கடல் சார்ந்த இடமும்
பொழுது – சிறுபொழுது – எற்பாடு
பெரும்பொழுது – முன்பனி, பின்பனி, இளவேனில், முதுவேனில். கூதிர்

கருப்பொருள்
தெய்வம் – வருணன்
மக்கள் – பரதவர், பரத்தியர், நுளையர்
பறவை – நீர்க்காக்கை
விலங்கு – சுறா
ஊர் – பட்டினம், பாக்கம்
நீர் – உவர்நீர்க்கேணி, உவர்க்கழி
உணவு – மீனும், உப்பும் விற்றால் பெறும் பொருள்
தொழில் – மீன் பிடித்தல், உப்பு விற்றல்

உரிப்பொருள்:
‘இரங்கலும், இரங்கல் நிமித்தமும்’

சான்று: இறவுப்புறத் தன்ன பிணர்படு தடவுமுதற்
சுறவுக்கோட் டன்ன முள்ளிலைத் தாழை

என்ற நற்றிணைப் பாடல் நெய்தல் திணைக்குச் சான்றாகும்.

துறை: இது புணர்ந்து நீங்கிய தலைவனைத் தோழி வரைவு கடாயது.

விளக்கம் :
பகற்குறியில் தலைவன் தலைவியைச் சந்தித்துச் செல்கின்றான். அப்பொழுது தோழி தலைவனை நோக்கி “இவ்வாறு செல்வாயானால் மீண்டும் நீ வருவதற்குள் தலைவி இறந்து விடுவாள். ஆதலால் அதற்கு ஏற்றது செய்” என வரைவு (மணஞ் செய்து கொள்வது தோன்றக் கூறுவது வரைவு கடாதலாகும்.

(அல்ல து)

தலைமகன் பாங்கனுக்கு உரைத்த கூற்றை விவரி.

கூற்று:
பாங்கனிடம் தலைமகன் கூறியது.
(எ.கா) அம்மூவனார் எழுதிய பெருங்கடல் வேட்டத்து சிறுகுடிப் பரதவர்’ என்று துவங்கும் அகநானூற்றுப் பாடல்

விளக்கம் :
வண்டியை இழுக்கும் ‘எருதுகளின் துன்பத்தைத் தந்தை போக்கியது போல, தலைவியைக் கண்டதனால் எனக்கு ஏற்பட்ட துன்பத்தைப் போக்குவதற்கு உரியவன் நீயே’ என்று பாங்கனிடம் நெய்தல் நிலத்தலைமகன் தன் காதல் நிறைவேற உதவுமாறு கூறினான்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 40.
இல்பொருள் உவமையணி அல்லது மடக்கணியை தகுந்த குறட்பாவுடன் பொருத்திக் காட்டுக.
Answer:
அணி விளக்கம் :
உலகில் இல்லாத ஒன்றை உவமையாக்கிக் கூறுதல் இல்பொருள் உவமையணி’ ஆகும். உலகில் இயல்பாக நடக்காத நிகழ்ச்சியை உவமையாகக் கூறுவதும் இதில் அடங்கும்.

(எ.கா) அன்பகத் தில்லா உயிர்வாழ்க்கை வன்பாற்கண்
வற்றல் மரந்தளிர்த் தற்று

விளக்கம் :
பாலைவனத்தில் நீரின்றி வற்றிப்போன மரமானது மீண்டும் தளிர்த்தல் என்பது இல்லாத நடக்காத நிகழ்ச்சி. இந்நிகழ்ச்சியானது மனதில் அன்பு இல்லாதவர்க்கு உவமையாகக் கூறப்பட்டுள்ளது. எனவே, இது இல்பொருள் உவமையணி’ எனப்படும். (இல்பொருள் – உலகில் இல்லாத பொருள்)

(அல்லது)

மடக்கணி :
அணி விளக்கம்:
ஒரு சொற்றொடர் மீண்டும் வந்து வேறு பொருள் தருவது மடக்கணி’ எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா) அரிவையம்பாகத்தான்’

விளக்கம் :
இச்சொல், அரி + வை + அம்பு + ஆக = திருமால்
கூர்மையான அம்பாக விளங்க, என்னும் பொருளைத் தருகிறது. இதே சொல்லை, அரிவை + அம் + பாகத்தான் எனப் பிரித்தால், பார்வதி தேவியை அழகிய ஒரு பாகத்தில் உடையவன் சிவபெருமான், என வேறு பொருள் தருகிறது. ஒரே சொற்றொடர் இரு வேறு பொருள்
தருகிறது. எனவே, இது மடக்கணி’ எனப்படும்.

Question 41.
‘உப்பிட்டவரை உள்ளளவும் நினை’ பழமொழியை விளக்கி வாழ்க்கை நிகழ்வில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
பழமொழி விளக்கம்:
நமக்கு உதவி செய்தவரை நம் உயிர் உள்ளவரை நாம் மறக்கக் கூடாது.

வாழ்க்கை நிகழ்வு:
கல்லூரியில் பயிலும் வேலனும் கந்தனும் சிறு வயதிலிருந்தே நெருங்கிய நண்பர்கள். வேலன் ஏழைக் குடும்பத்தைச் சேர்ந்தவன். கந்தன் தன் நண்பனுக்குத் தன்னால் முடிந்த உதவிகளைச் செய்து வந்தான். ஒருமுறை, கல்லூரியில் தேர்வு தினம் அறிவிக்கப்பட்டது. அனைவரும் அவர்களின் தேர்வுக் கட்டணத்தைச் செலுத்திவிட்டனர். வேலனோ எவ்வளவு முயன்றும் அவனால் தன் கட்டணத்தைச் செலுத்த முடியவில்லை.

பணம் செலுத்தாவிட்டால் தேர்வு எழுத முடியாது என்னும் இக்கட்டான நிலையில் கந்தன் அவனது கட்டணத்தைக் கட்டி உதவினான். இவ்வாறு பல உதவிகளைக் கந்தன் செய்தான். வேலன். இந்த உதவிகளுக்கு உனக்கு நான் என்ன கைம்மாறு செய்யப் போகிறேனோ?’ என்று அடிக்கடி கூறுவான்.

ஒருநாள் கல்லூரிக்கு வரும் பாதையில் கந்தனுக்கு விபத்து ஏற்பட்டது. அவன் அவசர பிரிவில் சேர்க்கப்பட்டதை அறிந்த வேலன் மருத்துவமனைக்கு விரைந்தான். தன் நண்பனின் நிலையைக் கண்டு கண் கலங்கி நின்றான் வேலன். மருத்துவர் அவனிடம் கந்தனுக்கு இரத்தப் பிரிவும் அவனுடைய இரத்தப் பிரிவும் ஒன்று என்பதால் வேலன் தன் உதிரத்தைக் கொடுத்து தன் நண்பனைக் காப்பாற்றினான்.

(அல்ல து)

பின்வரும் உரைபத்தியை படித்து அதன் கருத்து மாறாமல் மூன்றில் ஒரு பங்காகச் சுருக்கி எழுதுக. சிக்கனமாய் வாழ்வதற்கு என்ன செய்ய வேண்டும் என்று தெரியுமா? செலவுகளைக் குறைத்தல் வேண்டும். அப்படியானால் நல்ல உணவு, சிறந்த ஆடை மற்றும் தேவையான பொருள்கள் முதலியவற்றுக்குப் போதிய அளவு செலவு செய்யாமல் வாழ்வதா? அற்றன்று.

நோய் வந்துவிட்டால் அதைத் தீர்ப்பதற்கு மருத்துவச் செலவு செய்யாமலிருப்பதா? அதுவும் அன்று தனக்கும் தன் குடும்பத்திற்கும் தேவையான இன்றியமையாத செலவுகளைச் செய்யத்தான் வேண்டும். தேவைக்குச் செலவிட்டது போக எஞ்சிய வருவாயில் எதிர்கால வாழ்க்கைக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்கும் பழக்கத்தை மேற்கொள்ளல் வேண்டும்.

எறும்பு மழைக்காலத்தில் தனக்கு வேண்டிய உணவைக் கோடைக் காலத்திலேயே தேடி வைத்துக்கொள்கிறது அன்றோ?

அதுபோல நாமும், உழைக்கவும் ஊதியம் மிகுதியாகத் தேடவும் வாய்ப்பும் வலிமையும் இருக்கும் போதே சேர்த்துவைக்க முயலுதல் வேண்டும். எதிர்காலப் பாதுகாப்பு மிக்க வாழ்க்கையின் பொருட்டாவது சிக்கனமாக வாழும் பயிற்சியை மேற்கொள்ளுதல் வேண்டும். சிறுதுளி பெருவெள்ளம் என்பது போல், சிறுகச் சிறுகச் சேமித்தாலே பெரும்பொருள் சேமித்துவிடலாம். சிக்கனமாக வாழ்வோம், சிறப்புடன் வாழ்வோம்.

திருந்தாப் படிவம்:
சிக்கனமாய் வாழ்வதற்குச் செலவுகளைக் குறைத்தல் வேண்டும். நல்ல உணவு, அழகிய ஆடைகள், தேவைப்படும் பொருள்கள், மருத்துவச் செலவு போன்றவற்றுக்கும் தனக்கும் குடும்பத்திற்கும் இன்றியமையாச் செலவுகளைச் செய்து எஞ்சிய வருவாயில் சேமிக்கும் பழக்கம் கொள்ளுதல் வேண்டும்.

மழைக்கால உணவைக் கோடைக்காலத்திலேயே சேமித்து வைக்கும் எறும்பு போல, நாமும் வாய்ப்பும் வலிமையும் இருக்கும் போதே சிக்கனமாக வாழ்ந்து சேமிக்கும் பழக்கம் கொண்டால் பெரும்பொருள் சேர்க்கலாம். சிக்கன வாழ்வே சிறந்த வாழ்வு

திருந்திய படிவம்:
சிறுதுளி பெருவெள்ளம் உணவு, உடை, மருத்துவம் போன்றவற்றிற்கும் தனக்கும் குடும்பத்திற்கும் இன்றியமையாச் செலவுகளைச் செய்து, பின் எஞ்சியுள்ள பொருளைச் சேமித்து வைத்தல் வேண்டும். மழைக்காலத்திற்குத் தேவையான உணவைக் கோடையில் சேமிக்கும் எறும்பு போல, நாமும் வாய்ப்பும் வலிமையும் இருக்கும் போதே உழைத்துப் பொருள் தேடி எதிர்கால நல்வாழ்வுக்குச் சேமித்தல் வேண்டும். சிக்கன வாழ்வே சிறந்த வாழ்வு.

  • கொடுக்கப்பட்ட சொற்கள் – 99
  • மூன்றில் ஒரு பங்கு – 99/3 = 33
  • திருந்தாப் படிவம் – 45
  • திருந்திய படிவம் – 36

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 42.
தமிழாக்கம் தருக
Answer:
1. Covet all lose all.
2. Think before you act.
3. Honesty is the best policy.
4. A penny saved is a penny gained.
1. பேராசை பெருநட்டம்
2. சிந்தித்துச் செயல்படு/எண்ணித் துணிக கருமம்
3. நேர்மையே சிறந்த கொள்கை
4. சிறுதுளி பெருவெள்ளம்

Question 43.
பின்வரும் தலைப்புகளில் ஒன்றின் கவிதை புனைக.
Answer:
அம்மா (அல்லது) வழிகாட்டி
Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3 1

பகுதி – IV

பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு இரு பக்கங்களுக்கு மிகாமல் விடை தருக. [3x 6 = 18]

Question 44.
(அ) நெடுநல்வாடையில் நக்கீரர் காட்டும் மழைக்கால வருணனையைச் சொல்லில் வடிக்க.
Answer:

  • ”ஐப்பசி அடை மழை! கார்த்திகை கனமழை” என்பது சொலவடை, ஓராண்டை ஆறு பருவங்களாக வகைப்படுத்திய பழந்தமிழர் ஐப்பசி, கார்த்திகை மாதங்களைக் கூதிர்ப்பருவம் என்று அழைத்தனர்.
  • பருவ மாற்றங்களால் உயிரினங்களின் இயல்பு வாழ்க்கை, மாற்றம் பெறுகிறது.
  • முல்லை நில மக்கள், பறவைகள், விலங்குகள் இவற்றின் வாழ்வில் மழையும் குளிரும் ஏற்படுத்தும் மாற்றத்தைச் சங்க இலக்கியம் பதிவு செய்துள்ளது.
  • தான் தங்கியிருந்த மலையை வலப்பக்கமாகச் சூழ்ந்து எழுந்த மேகமானது உலகம் குளிருமாறு புதிய மழையைப் பொழிந்தது.
  • தாழ்வான பகுதிகளில் பெருகிய வெள்ளத்தை வெறுத்த, வளைந்த கோலையுடைய ஆயர் எருமை, பசு ஆடு ஆகிய நிரைகளை வேறு மேடான நிலங்களில் மேய விட்டனர்.
  • தாம் பழகிய நிலத்தை விட்டுப் பெயரும் நிலையால் வருத்தம் அடைந்தனர்.
    அவர்கள் தலையில் சூடியிருந்த நீண்ட இதழ்களையுடைய காந்தள் மாலை கசங்கியது.
  • பலருடன் சேர்ந்து கொள்ளி நெருப்பினால் கைகளுக்குச் சூடேற்றிய போதிலும் அவர்களது பற்கள் நடுங்கின.
  • விலங்குகள் குளிர்மிகுதியால் மேய்ச்சலை மறந்தன. குரங்குகள் நடுங்கின.
  • மரங்களில் தங்கியிருந்த பறவைகள் நிலத்தில் வீழ்ந்தன.
  • பசுக்கள் பாலுண்ண வந்த கன்றுகளைத் தவிர்த்தன. மலையையே குளிரச் செய்வது போன்றிருந்தது அக்குளிர்கால நள்ளிரவு.

(அல்ல து)

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 44.
ஆ) நாட்டியக் கலைஞருக்குத் தமிழர் உரிய சிறப்பு அளித்தனர் என்பதைச் சிலப்பதிகாரப் பாடற்பகுதி கொண்டு நிறுவுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
சிலப்பதிகாரத்திலுள்ள அரங்கேற்று காதையின் ஒரு பகுதி பாடமாக வைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. தமிழரின் கலை, நாகரிகம், பண்பாடு முதலானவற்றை உள்ளடக்கிய கருவூலமாகச் சிலப்பதிகாரம் திகழ்கிறது.

அரசகுடி அல்லாதவர்களைக் காப்பியத்தின் தலைமக்களாக வைத்துப் பாடியதால் இது குடிமக்கள் காப்பியம்’ எனப்படுகிறது. புகார், மதுரை, வஞ்சிக் காண்டங்கள் முறையே சோழ, பாண்டிய, சேர மன்னர்களைப் பற்றியவை என்பதால் மூவேந்தர் காப்பியம்’ எனவும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.

மாதவியின் நாட்டியப் பயிற்சி :
மாதவி, அழகிய தோள்களை உடையவள்; தேனும் தாதுவும் நிறைந்த பூக்களை அணிந்த சுருண்ட கூந்தலை உடையவள். ஆடல், பாடல், அழகு என்னும் இம்மூன்றில் ஒன்றும் குறைபடாமல் (ஐந்தாண்டில் ஆடல் கற்பதற்கான சடங்குகளைச் செய்து) ஏழு ஆண்டுவரை ஆடல் கலையைப் பயின்றாள்.

அவள் தனது பன்னிரண்டாவது வயதில் ஆடலை அரங்கேற்ற விரும்பினாள், வீரக் கழல் பூண்ட சோழ மன்னனது அரசவைக்கு வந்தாள் அவளுடன் ஆடல், ஆசான், இசை ஆசான். கவிஞன், தண்ணுமை ஆசான், குழல் ஆசான், யாழ் ஆசான் ஆகியோரும் வந்திருந்தனர்.)

நாட்டிய அரங்கின் அமைப்பு:
திறம்படக் கற்றுணர்ந்த சிற்ப நூலாசிரியரால் சொல்லப்பட்ட இயல்புகளிலிருந்து மாறுபடாத நன்னிலத்தை, ஆடல் அரங்கிற்காகத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்தனர். பொதிகை மலை போன்ற மலைகளிலே நீண்டு வளர்ந்த மூங்கில்களிலே ஒன்றுக்கொன்று இடையே ஒரு சாண் அளவு கணுக்களைக் கொண்ட மூங்கிலைக் கொண்டு வந்தனர்.

நூல்களில் கூறப்பட்ட முறையாலே அரங்கம் அமைந்தனர். தம் கைப்பெருவிரலில் இருபத்து நான்கு அளவினைக் கொண்டதாக அம்மூங்கிலை வெட்டினர். அதை அரங்கம் அமைக்கும் கோலாகக் கொண்டு அதில் ஏழுகோல் அகலமும் எட்டுக்கோல் நீளமும் ஒரு கோல் உயரமும் உடையதாக நாட்டிய அரங்கத்தை அமைத்தனர்.

தலைக்கோல் :
அரங்கேற்றத்தை வெற்றிகரமாக முடிக்கும் ஆடல் மகளுக்குத் தலைக்கோல் அளித்துச் சிறப்பிப்பர். தலைக்கோல் என்பது. பெரும்புகழ் கொண்ட பகை மன்னனுடன் நிகழ்த்திய போரில், தோற்றுப் புறங்காட்டிய அவனிடமிருந்து பறிக்கப்பட்ட அழகுமிக்க வெண்கொற்றக் குடையின் காம்பில் செய்யப்படுவது அக்காம்பின் கணுக்கள் முழுவதும் நவமணிகளை இழைத்து அக்கணுக்களுக்கு இடைப்பட்ட பகுதிகளில் சாம்பூந்தம் எனும் பொன் தகட்டை வலம்புரியாகவும், இடம்புரியாகவும் சுற்றிக்கட்டி அதனை ஒரு கோலாக்குவர்.

வெண்கொற்றக்குடையுடன் உலகாளும் மன்னனின் அரண்மனையில் அதனை வைத்து இந்திரன் மகன் சயந்தன் என அக்கோலை நினைத்து மந்திர விதியாலே வழிபாடு செய்வர். அத்தலைக் கோலைப் புண்ணிய நதிகளிலிருந்து பொற்குடங்களில் முகந்து வந்த நன்னீரால் நீராட்டுவர்.

மாலைகளை அணிவித்துப் பொருத்தமான ஒரு நல்ல நாளிலே பொன்னாலான பூணினையும் முகப்படாத்தையும் கொண்டிருக்கிற பட்டத்து யானையின் கையில் வாழ்த்தித் தருவர்.

முரசுகள் முழங்கப் பல்வேறு வாத்தியங்கள் ஒலிக்க அரசரும் அவரின் ஐம்பெருங்குழுவினரும் சூழ்ந்து வரப்பட்டத்து யானை, தேரை வலம் வந்து அதன் மேல் உள்ள கவிஞனிடம் அத்தலைக் கோலைக் கொடுக்கும்.

அனைவரும் ஊர்வலமாக அரங்கிற்கு வந்த பின், அத்தலைக் கோலைக் கவிஞன் ஆடலரங்கில் வைப்பான். மாதவியின் ஆடலரங்கில் தலைக்கோல் வைக்கப்பட்டது.

மாதவி மன்னனிடம் பரிசு பெறுதல் :
பொன்னால் செய்யப்பட்ட ஒரு பூங்கொடி வந்து நடனமாடியது போல மாதவி அரங்கில் தோன்றி நாட்டிய நூலில் சொல்லப்பட்ட முறைமை தவறாது பாவம் அபிநயம் இவற்றைச் சரியாகக் கடைப்பிடித்து அனைவரும் கண்டுகளிக்கும்படி அழகுற ஆடினாள். மாதவி கூத்துக்கு உரிய இயல்பினிலிருந்து சற்றும் வழுவாது ஆடினாள்.

ஆடலைக் கண்டு அகமகிழ்ந்த மன்னனிடமிருந்து தலைக்கோலி என்னும் பட்டமும் பெற்றாள். அரங்கேற்றம் செய்யும் நாடகக் கணிகையர்க்குப் பரிசு இவ்வளவு என நூல் விதித்த முறைப்படி ஆயிரத்தெட்டுக் கழஞ்சுப் பொன் மாலையை மன்னனிடமிருந்து பரிசாகப் பெற்றாள்.

மாதவியின் நாட்டியம் :
அரசன் முதலானோர் யாவரும் தத்தம் தகுதிக்கு ஏற்ப அமைக்கப்பட்ட இருக்கையில் அமர்ந்தனர். அதனருகே இசைக் கருவிகளை வாசிப்போர், நிற்க வேண்டிய முறைப்படி அவரவர்க்கு உரிய இடத்தில் நின்றனர். அரங்கேற்றம் செய்ய வேண்டிய நாடகக் கணிகையாகிய மாதவி அரங்கில் வலக்காலை முன்வைத்து ஏறி.

பொருமுக எழினிக்கு நிலையிடனான வலத்தூண் அருகே போய் நிற்க வேண்டியது மரபு என்பதால் அங்குப் போய் நின்றாள். ஆடலில் தேர்ச்சி பெற்று அரங்கேறிய தோரியமகளிரும் தொன்றுதொட்டு வரும் முறைப்படி ஒருமுக எழினிக்கு நிலையிடனான இடப்பக்கத்தூணின் அருகே போய் நின்றனர்.

முடிவுரை:
தமிழர்கள் வீரத்திற்கு முக்கியத்துவம் கொடுத்து தன் வெற்றியை போற்றி தலைக்கோலை பாதுகாத்தனர். அத்தகைய தலைக்கோலையே நாட்டியத்திற்காக பரிசு வழங்குகையில் அவர்கள் நாட்டியக் கலைக்கு எத்தகைய முக்கியத்துவம் அளித்தனர் என்பதனை உணர்ந்து கொள்ள முடிகிறது.

Question 45.
(அ) மயிலையார் ஓர் “ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்” என்னும் கூற்றினைச் சான்றுகளுடன் கட்டுரைக்க.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:

  • ஒவ்வொரு தேசிய இனமும் தன்னுடைய கடந்தகால வரலாற்றை அறிந்திருந்தால் மட்டுமே எதிர்கால இலக்குகளை அடைய முடியும்.
  • அத்தகைய இன வரலாற்றை இலக்கியம், தொல்லியல், கல்வெட்டு, பண்பாடு ஆகியவற்றின் அடிப்படையில் தரவுகளைத் தேடி எழுதிய ஆளுமைகளில் முக்கியமானவர் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமி.
  • இதழ் ஆசிரியராக வாழ்க்கையைத் தொடங்கிய அவர், பள்ளி ஆசிரியராகப் பணியாற்றியபடியே எழுதி முடித்த புத்தகங்களே, தமிழர் தம் பழம்பெருமையை உணர, உதவும் புதையலாக விளங்குகிறது.

தொடக்ககால ஆய்வுகள் :

  • 1934 இல் தெ. பொ. மீனாட்சி சுந்தரனார் சிந்தாதிரிப்பேட்டை உயர்நிலைப் பள்ளியில் நடத்திய தமிழ் ஆராய்ச்சி மாநாட்டில் ச.த. சற்குணர், கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும் என்ற பொருள் குறித்து உரையாற்றினார்.
  • அவ்வுரையைக் கேட்டுப் பெற்ற ஆர்வத்தினால் கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும்’ என்னும் நூலை மயிலையார் எழுதினார். இதுவே அவருடைய முதல் நூலாகும்.
  • தமிழின் தொல் இலக்கியம். தொல் கலை, தொல்லெழுத்து ஆகியவற்றில் கொண்ட ஈடுபாடு காரணமாக, பௌத்தமும் தமிழும் சமணமும் தமிழும் ‘ ஆகிய நூல்களை அவர் இயற்றினார்.
  • சமயம், மானுடவியல், தமிழக வரலாறு. தொல்பொருள் ஆய்வு, கலை வரலாறு, மொழியாய்வு முதலான பல துறைகளிலும் இவர் கவனம் செலுத்தினார்.
  • குறிப்பாக கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வில் இவருக்குப் பயிற்சி அதிகம். தமிழ் எழுத்தியலின் வளர்ச்சியை நன்குணர்ந்தவர்.
  • வட்டெழுத்து, கோலெழுத்து, தமிழ் பிராம்மி ஆகியவற்றில் புலமை பெற்றிருந்த காரணத்தால் சாசனங்களை அவரால் எளிதாக வாசிக்க முடிந்தது.
  • வரலாறு இலக்கியம், கலையியல், சமயம் எனப் பல துறைகளிலும் நூல்களை எழுதியிருப்பது வேங்கடசாமியின் பன்முக அறிவை விளக்குகிறது.

வரலாற்று ஆய்வு :

  • மகேந்திரவர்மன், நரசிம்மவர்மன் ஆகியோர் குறித்த நூல்களைத் தொடர்ந்து மூன்றாம் நந்திவர்மன் என்னும் பல்லவ மன்னனைப் பற்றியும் அவர் எழுதினார்.
  • தமிழில் அம்மன்னனைப் பற்றி எழுதப்பட்ட முதல் நூல் என்னும் பெருமையைப் பெற்றது.
  • சங்க கால மூவேந்தர்கள், கொங்குநாட்டு மன்னர்கள், துளு நாட்டு மன்னர்கள், களப்பிரர் மற்றும் இலங்கை குறித்த வரலாறு ஆகியவற்றையும் எழுதியுள்ளார்.
  • சங்க காலத்துக்குப் பிற்பட்ட காலத்தில் தமிழகத்தைக் களப்பிரர்கள் என்ற மன்னர்கள் ஆட்சி புரிந்தனர்.
  • இக்காலம் தமிழர்களின் வரலாற்றில் இருண்ட காலம் என்று மரபு வழிப்பட்ட வரலாற்று ஆசிரியர்கள் குறித்தனர்.
  • இம்மன்னர்கள் குறித்த ஆய்வை வேங்கடசாமி விரிவாக ஆராய்ந்து களப்பிரர் குறித்த புதிய கண்ணோட்டத்தைக் களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம்’ என்னும் நூல் மூலம் வெளிப்படுத்தினார்.

கலையியல் ஆய்வு:

  • கலையியல் சார்ந்து தமிழில் வெளியான பல நூல்களுக்கும் வேங்கடசாமியே வழிகாட்டியாக விளங்கினார்.
  • தமிழரது கலைத்திறனை எடுத்தோதும் தமிழர் வளர்த்த அழகுக்கலைகள்’ என்னும் நூல், கவின் கலைகள் குறித்துத் தமிழில் வெளிவந்த முழுமையான முதல் நூல் ஆகும்.
  • இந்நூல் தமிழக அரசின் முதற்பரிசைப் பெற்றது. இறைவன் ஆடிய எழுவகைத் தாண்டவம்.
  • நுண்கலைகள், இசைவாணர் கதைகள் ஆகியவை கலை பற்றிய இவருடைய பிற நூல்கள் ஆகும்.
  • தமது நூல்களின் படங்களைத் தானே வரைந்து வெளியிட்டது இவரது கலைத்திறனுக்குச் சான்றாகும்.

கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வுகள்:

  • சங்ககாலத் தமிழக வரலாற்றில் சில செய்திகள், பழங்காலத் தமிழர் வணிகம். களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம், கொங்கு நாட்டு வரலாறு, தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு – சங்க காலம் (அரசியல்) ஆகிய நூல்களையும் எழுதினார்.
  • ஆய்வுலகில் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமியின் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க பங்களிப்பைக் கூற வேண்டுமானால் தமிழக வரலாற்றினைப் பல கோணங்களில் மீட்டுருவாக்கம் செய்ததைக் குறிப்பிடலாம்.
  • தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு என்னும் நூல் இவருடைய மீட்டுருவாக்க முயற்சிக்குச் சரியான சான்றாகும்.
  • தமிழியலுக்குத் தேவையான பல்வேறு ஆவணங்களையும் தொகுத்து ஆய்வு செய்யும் பணியை இவர் மேற்கொண்டார்.
  • இப்பணியின் விளைவாக. சாசனச் செய்யுள் மஞ்சரி, மறைந்துபோன தமிழ் நூல்கள் ஆகிய நூல்களை எழுதினார்.

பன்மொழிப் புலமை :

  • தமிழ் ஆய்வு மரபில், சொல் ஆய்வுகளை மேற்கொள்ளாத ஆய்வாளர் இல்லை. நீண்ட வரலாறு கொண்ட மொழியின் சொற்களில் இவ்வகையான ஆய்வுக்குரிய ஏதுக்கள் மிகுதியாகும்.
  • வேங்கடசாமி தொடர்ச்சியாக இத்தகைய சொல்லாய்வுப் பணியை மேற்கொண்டு வந்துள்ளார்.
  • ‘செந்தமிழ்ச் செல்வி என்னும் இதழில் அவர் எழுதிய சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள் அஞ்சிறைத் தும்பி’ என்ற தொகுப்பாக வெளியிடப்பட்டது.
  • மகேந்திரவர்மன் இயற்றிய மத்த விலாசம்’ என்ற நாடக நூலை ஆங்கிலம் வழியாகத் தமிழாக்கியுள்ளார்.
  • தமிழ்ப் பண்பாட்டிலும் தமிழர் வரலாற்றிலும் ஆழ்ந்த அக்கறை கொண்ட மயிலை சீனி.
  • அவர்கள் தமிழர் பண்பாட்டின் தனித்தன்மையை நிறுவுவதில் உறுதியான பார்வை கொண்டவர்.

ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்:

  • மயிலை சீனியாரால் பல ஆய்வுகள் தமிழுலகுக்கு முதன் முதலாக வழங்கப்பட்டவை.
  • இவரது ஆய்வுகள் அறிஞருக்கு மட்டுமன்றிப் பொதுமக்களுக்கும் அறிவு விருந்தோம்பியவை.
  • பல ஆய்வுகள் கிளைவிடுவதற்கு அடிமரமாக இருந்தவை. இவரது ஆய்வுகள்.
  • வேண்டாத நூலிது என்றோ நூலில் வேண்டாத பகுதி என்றோ ஒதுக்க முடியாத வகையில் இவரது எழுத்தாளுமை திகழ்ந்தது.

முடிவுரை:

  • தமிழக வரலாற்றுக் கழகத்திலும் தமிழகப் புலவர் குழுவிலும் உறுப்பினராக இருந்து பெருந்தொண்டாற்றிய வேங்கடசாமிக்கு 1962இல் தமிழ் எழுத்தாளர் சங்கம் பாராட்டிக் கேடயம் வழங்கியது.
  • மதுரைக் காமராசர் பல்கலைக்கழகம் தமிழ்ப் பேரவைச் செம்மல்’ என்ற விருதினை அளித்தது.
  • தமது ஓயாத தேடலினாலும் கடுமையான உழைப்பாலும் அரிய ஆய்வு முடிவுகளைக் கொணர்ந்த இம்மாமனிதருக்கு அறிஞர்கள் கூடிச் சென்னை கோகலே மண்டபத்தில் மணிவிழா எடுத்து ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்’ என்ற பட்டத்தை வழங்கினார்.

(அல்ல து)

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 45.
(ஆ) குடும்பம் என்னும் சிறிய அமைப்பிலிருந்தே மனித சமூகம் என்னும் பரந்த அமைப்பு கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது – எவ்வாறு? விளக்குக.
Answer:

  1. குடும்பம் எனும் சிறிய அமைப்பிலிருந்தே மனித சமூகம் எனும் பரந்த அமைப்பு கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது. குடும்பம் தொடங்கிக் குலம். கூட்டம். பெருங்குழு , சமூகம் என்ற அமைப்புவரை விரிவு பெறுகிறது.
  2. குடும்பமே மனித சமூகத்தின் அடிப்படை அலகாக உள்ளது. வாழுங்காலம் முழுவதும் தொடர்ந்து வேறு எந்த நிறுவனமும் இந்த அளவுக்கு மனிதனைச் சமூகவயப்படுத்தும் பணியைச் செய்ததில்லை.

குடும்பம் :
குடும்பம் எனும் அமைப்பு ஏற்படுவதற்கு அடிப்படை திருமணமே, குடும்பம் , திருமணம் இரண்டும் ஒன்றையொன்று சார்ந்தே செயல்படுகின்றன – நாணயத்தின் இரண்டு பக்கங்களைப் போல, இன்று நாம் வழங்கும் திருமணம் ‘, குடும்பம் ஆகிய இரண்டு சொற்களும் தொல்காப்பியத்திலும் சங்க இலக்கியங்களிலும் எங்கும் இடம்பெறவில்லை . குடும்பம் எனும் சொல் முதன் முதலில் திருக்குறளில் தான் (1029) வருகிறது.

வாழிடம் :
மருதத்திணைப் பாடல் ஒன்றில் மகளிர் தம்மனை’, ‘நும்மனை’ என மனைவியின் இல்லத்தையும் கணவனின் இல்லத்தையும் பிரித்துப் பேசும் போக்கினைக் காண முடிகிறது. இன்னும் சில இடங்களில் தற்காலிகத் தங்குமிடம் புக்கில் எனவும், திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் கணவனும் மனைவியும் பெற்றோரிடமிருந்து பிரிந்து. தனியாக வாழுமிடம் ‘தன்மனை’ எனவும் வழங்கப்பெற்றுள்ளன.

மணந்தகம் :
குடும்பமும் உயிரிகளைப் போன்றே தோன்றுகிறது; வளர்கிறது. பல கட்டங்களைக் கடக்கிறது. அதன் வாழ்க்கைச் சுழற்சியில் பல வடிவங்களில் நிலைமாற்றம் பெறுகிறது. இத்தகைய நீண்ட பாதையில் குடும்பத்தின் தொடக்கம் திருமணமே. மணம் புரிந்த கணவனும் மனைவியும் சேர்ந்து இல்லற வாழ்வில் ஈடுபடக்கூடிய தொடக்கக் கட்டமே ‘மணந்தகம்’ எனப்படுகிறது. முதல் குழந்தை பிறக்கும் வரை உள்ள காலகட்டத்தை இந்நிலை குறிக்கிறது. தனிக்குடும்ப உருவாக்கத்தின் தொடக்க நிலையாக இது அமைகிறது.

தாய்வழிக் குடும்பம் :
சங்ககாலத்தில் கண சமூகத்துக்குத் தாயே தலைமை ஏற்றிருந்தாள். தாய்வழியாகவே குலத்தொடர்ச்சி குறிக்கப்பட்டது. பதிற்றுப்பத்து கூறும் சேரநாட்டு மருமக்கள் தாய முறை இதற்குச் சிறந்த எடுத்துக்காட்டாகும்.

சிறுவர்தாயே பேரிற் பெண்டே
செம்முது பெண்டின் காதலஞ்சிறா அன்
வானரைக் கூந்தல் முதியோள் சிறுவன்
முளரி மருங்கின் முதியோள் சிறுவன்
என்மகள் ஒருத்தியும் பிறள் மகன் ஒருவனும்

முதலான தொடர்களில் ‘இவளது மகன்’ என்றே கூறப்பட்டது. இவனது மகன் எனக் கூறப்படவில்லை என்பது நோக்கத்தக்கது. இவை அனைத்தும் சங்ககாலத்தில் காணப்பட்ட தாய்வழிச் சமூகத்தின் நிலையைக் காட்டுகின்றன.

சங்ககாலத்தில் பெண் திருமணம் செய்த பின்னரும் தன் இல்லத்திலேயே தொடர்ந்து வாழ்க்கை நடத்தும் தாய முறை இருந்துள்ளது. திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் மனைவியின் இல்லத்துக்குச் சென்று கணவன் வாழ்வதே நடைமுறையாக இருந்துள்ளது.

தந்தைவழிக் குடும்பம் :
மனித குலத்தில் ஆதியில் தோன்றி வளர்ந்த தாய்வழி முறையானது தமிழர்களிடம் இருந்ததைச் சங்க இலக்கியங்களின் வழி அறிய முடிந்தாலும், சங்க காலத்திலேயே ஆண் மையச் சமூக முறை வலுவாக வேர் ஊன்றிப் பரவலாகி விட்டதையும் காணமுடிகிறது.

ஆண்மையச் சமூகத்தில் பெண் திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் தன் கணவனுடைய தந்தையகத்தில் வாழ வேண்டும். மணமானபின் தலைவன் தலைவியை அவனுடைய இல்லத்திற்கு அழைத்து வந்தபோது அவனுடைய தாய் அவளுக்குச் சிலம்புகழி நோன்பு செய்திருக்கிறாள்.

தனிக்குடும்பம் :
னிக்குடும்பம் தோன்றுவதற்கான தொடக்க நிலைக் குடும்பங்கள் பற்றிச் சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் மிகுதியாகப் பேசியிருக்கின்றன. இளமகவுநிலைக் குடும்பங்களின் காட்சிகளை ஐங்குறுநூறு தெளிவுபடுத்துகிறது. “மறியிடைப் படுத்த மான்பிணை போல்” மகனை நடுவணாகக்கொண்டு தலைவனும் தலைவியும் வாழ்ந்திருக்கின்றனர். தாய், தந்தை, குழந்தை மூவருமுள்ள தனிக்குடும்பம் மிகவும் நெருக்கமானது என்பதால் இது தொடக்கநிலை எளிய நெருக்கமான குடும்பம் எனப்படும்.

விரிந்த குடும்பம் :
சங்க காலத்தில் தனிக்குடும்ப அமைப்பு விரிவுபெற்று இவர்களுடன் பெற்றோர் ஒருவரின் தந்தையும் உடன் வாழும் விரிந்த குடும்ப முறையையும் காண முடிகிறது. கணவன், மனைவி, மகன் ஆகியோருடன் தந்தை சேர்த்து வாழ்ந்த நேர்வழி விரிந்த குடும்ப முறையை ஒக்கூர் மாசாத்தியாரின் புறநானூற்றுப் பாடல் கூறுகிறது. இவ்வாறு குடும்பம் என்னும் சிறிய அமைப்பு மனித சமூகம் என்னும் பரந்த அமைப்பாக கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது.

Question 46.
(அ) சாலை விபத்தில்லாத் தமிழ்நாடு’ – இக்கூற்று நனவாக நாம் செய்ய வேண்டியன யாவை?
Answer:
குறிப்புச் சட்டகம்

  • முன்னுரை
  • சாலை விதிகள்
  • கணக்கீடு
  • சாலைக்குறியீடு
  • மோட்டார் வாகனச் சட்டம்
  • முடிவுரை

முன்னுரை:
வாழ்வை முழுமையாக்கும் கூறுகளுள் முதன்மையானது பயணம் அதிலும் சாலை வழிப்பயணம் மனதிற்கு இன்பத்தை அளிக்கக் கூடியது. அத்தகைய பயணத்தை அனைவரும் பாதுகாப்பாக மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும். சாலை விதிகளைத் தெரிந்து கொள்வதும் கல்விதான். போக்குவரத்து குறித்த விதிகளையும், பாதுகாப்பு வழிகளையும் இக்கட்டுரை வழி காண்போம்.

  • அதில் 5,000 பேர் உயிரிழக்கின்றனர். சுமார் 2 இலட்சம் பேர் உடலுறுப்பை இழக்கின்றனர்.
  • நாளொன்றுக்கு 1317 விபத்துக்களும் அதில் 413 பேர் உயிரிழக்கின்றார்கள்.
  • இந்தியாவில் நடக்கும் விபத்துகளில் 15 சதவீதம் தமிழ்நாட்டில் நடப்பது வேதனைக்குரியது.

சாலை விதிகள் :

  • சாலையின் வகைகள், மைல் கற்களின் விவரங்கள் பற்றித் தெரிந்து வைத்திருக்க வேண்டும். படுத்தும் குறியீடுகள் மற்றும்.
  • போக்குவரத்துக் காவலர்களின் சாலை உத்தரவுகளுக்கு ஏற்பச் சாலையைப் பயன்படுத்த வேண்டும்.
  • நடைமேடை, நடைபாதையைப் பயன்படுத்துபவர்களையும் சாலையைக் கடப்பவர்களையும் அச்சுறுத்தக் கூடாது.
  • சாலைச் சந்திப்புகளில் எச்சரிக்கையான அணுகுமுறை தேவை. தேவையான இடங்களில் சரியான சைகையைச் செய்ய வேண்டும்.
  • எதிரில் வரும், கடந்து செல்ல முற்படும் ஊர்திகளுக்கு வழிவிட வேண்டும். தேவையெனில் வேகம் குறைத்து இதர வாகனங்களுக்குப் பாதுகாப்புடன் வழிவிட வேண்டும்.
  • பிற ஊர்தி ஓட்டிகளுக்கு விட்டுக்கொடுப்பது சிறந்தது.
  • இதர சாலைப் பயனாளிகளை நண்பராக எண்ண வேண்டும்.

சாலைக் குறியீடு :
சாலைகளில் இடம் பெற்றிருக்கும் குறியீடுகள் போக்குவரத்தினைச் சீர் செய்யவும் பாதுகாப்பாகப் பயணிக்கவும் உதவுகின்றன. அவை:

  • உத்தரவுக் குறியீடுகள்
  • எச்சரிக்கைக் குறியீடுகள்
  • தகவல் குறியீடுகள்

இக்குறியீடுகளைக் கவனத்தில் கொண்டு பயணித்தால் சிறந்தது. சாலைப் போக்குவரத்து உதவிக்கு 103 என்ற எண்ணைத் தொடர்பு கொள்ளலாம்.

மோட்டார் வாகனச் சட்டம்:

  • 18 வயதிற்குட்பட்ட குழந்தைகள் வாகனம் இயக்கக் கூடாது. அதை மீறி இயக்கினால் பெற்றோர்களுக்கு 3 ஆண்டு சிறைத் தண்டனை கிடைக்கும்.
  • ஓட்டுநர் உரிமம் இல்லாமல் இயக்கினால் ரூ.5,000 தண்டனைத் தொகையோ மூன்று மாதச் சிறைத் தண்டனையோ அல்லது இரண்டுமோ கிடைக்கும்.
  • அபாயகரமான முறையில் ஊர்தியை இயக்கினால் ரூ.5,000 தண்டத்தொகைப் பெறப்படும்.
  • மது அருந்திவிட்டு இயக்கினால் ரூ.10,000 தண்டத்தொகை கட்ட நேரும்.
  • மிக வேகத்தில் ஊர்தியை இயக்கினால் ரூ.5,000 தண்டத்தொகை கட்ட நேரும்.
  • இருவருக்கு மேல் இரண்டு சக்கர ஊர்தியில் பயணித்தால் ரூ.2,000 தண்டத்தொகை அல்லது 3 மாதத்திற்கு ஓட்டுநர் உரிமம் நீக்கம் செய்யப்படும்.
  • தலைக்கவசம் அணியாமல் இருந்தால் ரூ.1,000 தண்டத்தொகையுடன் மூன்று மாதம் ஓட்டுநர் உரிமம் நீக்கம்.

முடிவுரை:
சாலைப் பாதுகாப்பு உயிர் பாதுகாப்பு என்பதை உணர்ந்து போக்குவரத்து விதிகளைக் கடைப்பிடித்தல் அவசியமாகும் போக்குவரத்து விதிகளை பின்பற்றுவதன் மூலம் நம் உயிரையும் உடல் உறுப்புகளையும், உடைமைகளையும், மற்றவரின் உயிரையும் காக்க முடியும், மாணவர்களாகிய நீங்களும் பாதுகாப்புடன் பயணம் செய்யவும், மற்றவர்களுக்கும் அதனை எடுத்துரைக்க வேண்டியது மிகவும் அவசியமாகும்.
(அல்லது)

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Question 46.
(ஆ) கோடை மழை கதையை நாடக வடிவில் எழுதுக.
Answer:
கோடை மழை
– சாந்தா தத்

பங்கேற்போர் : பெரியவர் ஆறுமுகம் , பாபு, மருத்துவமனை ஊழியர், அரசு மருத்துவர்

காட்சி – 1

பங்கேற்பவர் : பெரியவர் ஆறுமுகம்
ஆறுமுகம்: (தனக்குள்ளே )

பேரப்புள்ளைக்கு இரண்டு நாளா ஒரே கஷ்டமா இருக்குது. குழந்தைக்குக் காய்ச்சலா, இருமலா, சளியா எதுவுமே சரியாக் கண்டு பிடிக்க என்னால் முடியலை.

தனியார் ஆஸ்பத்திரியில் போய்ப்பார்க்க நம்ம கைல காசும் இல்லே. பேசாம அரசாங்க ஆஸ்பத்திரிக்குப் போக வேண்டியதுதான். அங்கதான் மருந்தும், சிகிச்சையும் இலவசமாக் கெடைக்கும். அடேயப்பா… அரசு ஆஸ்பதிரியிலே காலைல 7 மணிக்கே எவ்வளவு கூட்டம் இருக்கு?!

புறநோயாளி பிரிவுல சீட்டு பதிஞ்சிட்டேன். இப்போ வரிசைலையும் நின்னுட்டேன். ஆனால் டாக்டரைப் பார்க்க இன்னும் 2 மணி நேரமாவது கட்டாயம் ஆகலாம்.

பேரப்புள்ளை குட்டிக் குழந்தைதான் 5 கிலோ தான் எடை ஆனால் தூக்கி வச்சிருந்த கையெல்லாம் கடுகடுன்னு கடுக்குதே என்ன செய்ய? பேரப்புள்ளையை சந்தோஷமா தூக்கி வச்சா எடையும் தெரியாது….. வலியும் வராது…. ஆனால்…. என்னோட நிலைமை அப்படியா?

கஷ்டப்பட்டு ஒரே மகன்னு செல்லமா வளர்த்தேன். கம்பெனில் வேலைக்கும் ஏற்பாடு பண்ணி கல்யாணமும் செய்து வச்சேன். அவன்.. எனக்குப் பாரமா இந்தப் பேரப்புள்ளையத் தந்துட்டு போயே போயிட்டாளே!

எனக்குக் கொள்ளி போட பொறந்த பையன் என்னையே கொள்ளி போட வச்சுட்டானே!? திடீர்னு நோய் வந்து இறந்துபோன மனைவியை நெனைச்சுகிட்டே தன்னோட வாழ்வை அவனே முடிச்சுகிட்டானே!

தன்னை வளர்த்து ஆளாக்கின அப்பா தான் பெத்த புள்ளை இதப்பத்தியெல்லாம் கொஞ்சம்கூட கவலைப்படாம், பொண்டாட்டி மேல் உள்ள பாசத்துல விஷம் குடிச்சு உயிரை விட்டுட்டானே! இந்த மாதிரி என்னோட மனைவி இறந்தப்போ நானும் போயிருந்தா.. இவனோட நிலைமை என்ன ஆயிருக்கும்னு யோசிச்சானா?

இப்போ…. என்னையே கவனிக்க ஆள் வேணும்கற நிலையிலே பேரப்புள்ளைய வளர்க்க நான் எவ்வளவு கஷ்டப்படறேன். மரத்தை வச்சவன் தண்ணி ஊத்துவான்னு மனசைக் கல்லாக்கிக்கிட்டு என்னால் வாழத் தெரியலையே!?

மருத்துவமனைப் பணியாளர் : அய்யா… பெரியவரே ! அடுத்து நீங்கதான்…… டாக்டரைப் பார்க்க உள்ளே போங்க அய்யா.

ஆறுமுகம் : வணக்கம் டாக்டர் அய்யா.

டாக்டர் : வணக்கம். அய்யா.

(குழந்தையை பரிசோதிக்கிறார்) அய்யா …. குழந்தையை சோதனை பண்ணிப்பாத்துட்டேன். கபம், சளிதான் …. கவலைப்பட வேண்டாம். 2 நாள் மருந்து மாத்திரை தவறாம் கொடுங்க. சரியாயிடும்.

ஆறுமுகம் : சரிங்க டாக்டர்.

காட்சி – 2

பங்கேற்பவர் : முதியவர் ஆறுமுகம், சமூக சேவக இளைஞர் பாபு
முதியவர்: பாபு ……. பாபு …… சுகந்தானா தம்பி.

பாபு : அய்யா… வணக்கம்…… பேரப்புள்ளை நல்லா இருக்காங்களா? நீங்க எப்படி இருக்கீங்க?

ஆறுமுகம் : நான் உடம்பு அளவுல நல்லாத்தான் இருக்கேன். மனசு அளவுல ரொம்ப நொந்து போயிருக்கேன். குழந்தைக்கு கடுமையான கபம்.. ச… 2 நாளா அவஸ்தை … அரசு மருந்தகத்துல சிகிச்சை கொடுத்தப்புறம்…. இப்போ நல்ல குணமாயிட்டான்.

பாபு : உங்க பேரப்புள்ள சம்பந்தமா நான் ஒரு விஷயம் கேட்டேனே! என்ன முடிவு பண்ணி இருக்கீங்க?

ஆறுமுகம் : படிச்சவங்கன்னு சொல்றீங்க… ரொம்ப தெரிஞ்சவங்கன்னு சொல்றீங்க…. புள்ளையப் பத்தி கவலைப்படவே தேவை இல்லைன்னு சொல்றீங்க. இனிமே யோசிக்க என்ன இருக்கு? உங்க பேராசிரிய நண்பரை வரச்சொல்லுங்க.

—— திரை ——
காட்சி – 3

இடம் : முதியவர் ஆறுமுகம் வீடு
பங்கேற்போர் : ஆறுமுகம், பாபு, பாபுவின் நண்பர் பேராசிரியர் கோபிநாத், கோகிலா [பேராசிரியர் கோபிநாத் மற்றும் கோகிலா தம்பதிகளை காரில் அழைத்துக் கொண்டு ஆறுமுகம் வீட்டிற்கு வருகிறார் பாபு]

பாபு : அய்யா ….. பெரியவரே

ஆறுமுகம் : தம்பி பாபு …. எல்லாரும் உள்ளே வாங்க….. வாங்க… வணக்கம். கோபிநாத் : அய்யா …. வணக்கம். பாபு எல்லாம் சொன்னாரு. உங்க குழந்தையை சட்டப்படி சுவீகாரம் எடுத்துக்கிறோம். கடவுள் கருணையால், உங்க உதவியால் எங்களுக்கு புள்ளைப் பாக்கியம் கொடச்சிருக்கு. இதுக்காக வாழ்க்கை முழுவதும் உங்களுக்கு நாங்க நன்றிக்கடன் பட்டிருக்கோம். அப்புறம்

ஆறுமுகம் : அப்புறம்…. என்ன தயக்கம்? வேற எதுவும் சொல்லணும் என்றாலும் சொல்லிடுங்க. பேராசிரியர் கோபிநாத் : எங்க குடும்பத்துல பெரியவங்க யாருமே இப்போ வழிகாட்ட இல்லை0

உங்களையும் எங்களோட கூட்டிட்டு போக எங்களுக்கு ஆசை. உங்க பேரனைவிட்டுப் பிரிச்ச பாவம் எங்களுக்கு வேண்டாம். எங்களுக்கு வழிகாட்ட நீங்களும் தேவை. நாம் ஒருத்தருக்கு ஒருத்தர் உதவுகரமா இருப்போமே! உங்க சம்மதம் ரொம்ப முக்கியம்.

ஆறுமுகம் : கரும்பு தின்னக் கூலியா? கட்டாயம் நானும் வாரேன்…… ‘திக்கற்றவர்களுக்குத் தெய்வந்தான் துணை’ அப்டீன்னு பலர் சொல்லிக் கேள்விப்பட்டிருக்கேன். இப்போதான் அதை உணர்கிறேன். பாபு தம்பி மனித உருவத்துல வந்து உதவின தெய்வம் நீ தாம்பா ….

பாபு : அய்யா ….. நான் ஒரு கருவிதான். எல்லாம் அந்த சிவன் செயல். ஆறுமுகம் : தத்தளிச்ச காலத்தில் பயிர்களைக் காப்பாத்த ‘கோடை மழை’ வந்தது போல, எங்களைக் காப்பாத்த கோபிநாந், கோகிலா தம்பிதிகள் வந்திருக்காங்க…. வாழ்க வையகம். வாழ்க வளமுடன்…

பகுதி – V

அடிமாறாமல் செய்யுள் வடிவில் எழுதுக. [1X4 = 4]

Question 47.
(அ) ‘விண்வேறு ‘ என்று துவங்கும் சுரதாவின் பாடல்.
Answer:
விண்வேறு; விண்வெளியில் இயங்கு கின்ற
வெண்மதியும் செங்கதிரும் முகிலும் வேறு
மண்வேறு; மண்ணோடு கலந்தி ருக்கும்
மணல் வேறு: பனித்துளியும் மழையும் வேறு:
புண்வேறு; வீரர்களின் விழுப்புண் வேறு
புகழ்வேறு; செல்வாக்கு வேறு; காணும்
கண்வேறு; கல்விக்கண் வேறு; கற்றார்
கவிநடையும் உரைநடையும் வேறு வேறு. – சுரதா

(ஆ) அஃகாமை’ என்று துவங்கும் திருக்குறளை எழுதுக. [1 x 2 = 2]
Answer:
அஃகாமை செல்வத்திற்கு யாதெனின் வெஃகாமை
வேண்டும் பிறன்கைப் பொருள் – திருவள்ளுவர்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
  3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Part-I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 1
This method is known as ……………..
(a) Liquation
(b) Van Arkel process
(c) Zone refining
(d) Mond’s process
Answer:
(b) Van Arkel process

Question 2.
The stability of+1 oxidation state increases in the sequence ……………
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(b) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(c) In < Tl < Ga < Al
(d) Ga < In < Al < Tl
Answer:
(a) A1 < Ga < In < Tl

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 3.
Assertion : bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas.
Reason: chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false

Question 4.
Which of the following pair has d10 electrons?
(a) Ti3+ , V4+
(b) CO3+ , Fe2+
(c) Cu+, Zn2+
(d) Mn2+, Fe3+
Answer:
(c) Cu+, Zn2+

Question 5.
Which is used for the separation of lanthanides, in softening of hard water and also in removing lead poisoning?
(a) [Ni(CO)4]
(b) EDTA
(c) [Ni(DMG)2]
(d) TiCl4 + Al (C2H5 )3
Answer:
(b) EDTA

Question 6.
The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ……………..
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers
(b) reflection of light from CF ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 7.
For a reaction Rate = k[acetone] then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction respectively is
(a) (mol L-1 s-1),(mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1)
(b) (mol-1/2 L-1/2 s-1) , (mol L-1 s-1)
(c) (mol-1/2 L-1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1)
(d) (mol L s-1), (mol-1/2 L-1/2 s)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 2

In this case, rate = k [Acetone]3/2
n= 3/2
mol1-(3/2)L(3/2)-1s-1 ⇒ mol-(1/2)L(1/2)s-1

Question 8.
Arrange the acids
(i) H2SO3
(ii) H3PO3 and
(iii) HClO3 in the decreasing order of acidity.

(a) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(b) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(c) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(d) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
Answer:
(d) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
Acidity is directly proportional to oxidation number. As the oxidation number of S, P and Cl in H2SO3, H3PO3 and HClO3 is +4, +3, +5 respectively. So decreasing order of acidity will be (iii) > (i) > (ii)

Question 9.
The value of cell emf of Mercury button cell is –
(a) 1.35 V
(b) – 0.76 V
(c) 0.34 V
(d) 100 V
Answer:
(a) 1.35 V

Question 10.
In an electrical field, the particles of a colloidal system move towards cathode. The coagulation of the same sol is studied using K2SO4 (i), Na3O4 (ii), K4[Fe(CN)6] (iii) and NaCl (iv). Their coagulating power should be ……….
(a) II > I > IV > III
(b) III > II > I > IV
(c) I > II > III > IV
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) III > II > I > IV

Question 11.
Which compound has the highest boiling point?
(a) Acetone
(b) Diethyl ether
(c) Methanol
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(d) Ethanol

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 12.
The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
(a) Tollens reagent
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(d) semicarbazide
Answer:
(b) Fehling’s solution

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 3
(a) bromomethane
(b) a – bromo sodium acetate
(c) methanamine
(d) acetamide
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 4
Answer:
(c) methanamine

Question 14.
Match the following.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 5
Answer:
(a) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2

Question 15.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
(b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
(c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
Answer:
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Give the uses of zinc.
Answer:

  • Metallic zinc is used in galvanising metals such as iron and steel structures to protect them . from rusting and corrosion.
  • Zinc is also used to produce die-castings in the automobile, electrical and hardware industries.
  • Zinc oxide is used in the manufacture of many products such as paints, rubber, cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, plastics, inks, batteries, textiles and electrical equipment. Zinc sulphide is used in making luminous paints, fluorescent lights and x-ray screens.
  • Brass an alloy of zinc is used in water valves and communication equipment as it is highly resistant to corrosion.

Question 17.
Explain why fluorine always exhibit an oxidation state of-1?
Answer:
Fluorine the most electronegative element than other halogens and cannot exhibit any positive oxidation state. Fluorine does not have d-orbital while other halogens have d-orbitals. Therefore fluorine always exhibit an oxidation state of-1 and others in halogen family shows +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states.

Question 18.
What is Zeigler -Natta catalyst? In which reaction it is used? Give equation.
Answer:
A mixture of TiCl4 and trialkyl aluminium is Zeigler – Natta catalyst. It is used in the polymerization.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 6

Question 19.
Give any three characteristics of ionic crystals.
Answer:

  • Ionic solids have high melting points.
  • These solids do not conduct electricity, because the ions are fixed in their lattice positions. ‘
  • They do conduct electricity in molten state (or) when dissolved in water because, the ions are free to move in the molten state or solution.

Question 20.
How is surface area of the reactant affect the rate of the reaction?
Answer:

  • In heterogeneous reactions, the surface area of the solid reactants play an important role in deciding the rate.
  • For a given mass of a reactant, when the particle size decreases surface area increases. Increase in surface area of reactant leads to more collisions per litre per second and hence the rate of reaction is increased.
  • For example, powdered calcium carbonate reacts much faster with dilute HCl than with the same mass of CaCO3 as marble.

Question 21.
Ksp of Al(OH)3 is 1 x 10-15M. At whatpH does 1.0 × 10-3 3M Al3+ precipitate on the addition of buffer of NH4Cl and NH4OH solution?
Answer:
Al(OH)3 ⇌ Al3+ (aq) + 3OH (aq)
Ksp – [Al3+ ][OH]3
Al(OH)3 precipitates when
[Al3+ ] [OH ]3 > Ksp
(1 × 10-3 )[OH ]3 > 1 × 10-15
[OH]-3] > 1 × 10-12
[OH ] > 1 × 10-4 M
[OH ] = 1 × 10-4 M
pOH = – log1o[OH] = – log(1 × 10-4) = 4
pH = 14 – 4 = 10
Thus, Al(OH)3 precipitates at a pH of 10

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 22.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point and give a reason for your ordering: Butan – 2- ol, Butan -l-ol, 2 -methylpropan -2-ol
Answer:
Boiling points increases regularly as the molecular mass increases due to a corresponding increase in their Van der waal’s force of attraction. Among isomeric alcohols 2°-alcohols have lower boiling points than 1 “-alcohols due to a corresponding decreases in the extent of H-bonding because of steric hindrance. Thus the boiling point of Butan – 2- ol is lower than that of Butan – l-ol. Overall increasing order of boiling points is,
2-methylpropan-2-ol < Butan-2- ol < Butan – l-ol

Question 23.
What are the uses of Benzaldehyde?
Answer:

  • as a flavoring agent
  • in perfumes
  • in dye intermediates
  • as starting material for the synthesis of several other organic compounds like cinnamaldehyde, cinnamic acid, benzoyl chloride etc.

Question 24.
What are anti fertility drugs? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially drugs are chemical substances which suppress the action of hormones that promote pregnancy. These drugs actually reduce the chances of pregnancy and act as a protection. Antifertility drugs are made up of derivatives of synthetic progesterone or a combination of derivatives of oestrogen and progesterone.
Example : Ethynylestradiol, menstranol and norethynodrel etc.

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [6 ×3 = 18]

Question 25.
Give the uses of silicones.
Answer:
Uses of silicones:

  • Silicones are used for low temperature lubrication and in vacuum pumps, high temperature oil baths etc.
  • They are used for making water proofing clothes
  • They are used as insulting material in electrical motor and other appliances
  • They are mixed with paints and enamels to make them resistant towards high temperature, sunlight, dampness and chemicals.

Question 26.
Complete the following reactions.
1. NaCl + MnO2 + H2SO4
2. I2 + S2O32-
3. P4 + NaOH + H2O →
Answer:
1. 4NaCl + MnO2 + 4H2SO4 → Cl2 + MnCl2 + 4NaHSO4 + 2H2O
2. I2 + 2S2O32- → S4O62- + 2I
3. P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3

Question 27.
Draw and explain about the structure of chromate and dichromate ion,
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 7
Answer:

  • Both chromate and dichromate ions are oxo anions of chromium and they are moderately strong oxidising agents.
  • In both structures, chromium is in +6 oxidation state.
  • In an aqueous solution, chromate and dichromate ions can be inter convertible, and in an alkaline solution, chromate ion is predominant, whereas dichromate ion becomes predominant in acidic solutions.

Question 28.
Why ionic crystals are hard and brittle?
Answer:
The ionic compounds are very hard and brittle. In ionic compounds the ions are rigidly held in a lattice because the positive and negative ions are strongly attracted to each other and difficult to separate. But the brittleness of a compound is now easy to shift the position of atoms or ions in a lattice. If we apply a pressure on the ionic compounds the layers shifts slightly. The same charged ions in the lattice comes closer. A repulsive forces arises between same charged ions, due to this repulsions the lattice structure breaks down chemical bonding.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 29.
Paracetamol is prescribed to take once in 6 hours. Justify this statement.
Answer:

  • Paracetamol is a well known antipyretic and analgesic that is prescribed in cases of fever
    and body pain.
  • Paracetamol has a half life of 2.5 hours within the body, (i.e) the plasma concentration of the drug is halved after 2.5 hours. So after 10 hours (4 half lives), only 6.25% of drug remains. Based on this, the dosage and frequency will be decided.
  • In the case of paracetamol, it is usually prescribed to take once in 6 hours.

Question 30.
A solution of a salt of metal was electrolysed for 150 minutes with a current of 0. 15 amperes. The mass of the metal deposited at the cathode is 0.783g. Calculate the equivalent mass of the metal.
Answer:
Given, I = 0.15 amperes
t = 150 mins ⇒ t = 150 x 60 sec ⇒ t = 9000 sec
Q = It ⇒ Q = 0.15 x 9000 coulombs ⇒ Q = 1350 coulombs Hence, 135 coulombs of electricity deposit is equal to \(\frac{0.783 \times 96500}{1350}=55.97\) g of metal.
∴ Hence equivalent mass of the metal is 55.97

Question 31.
What happens when
i. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCl
ii. Nitrobenzen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium.
Answer:
i. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCl: 2-nitropropane upon hydrolysis with boiling HCl give a ketone (2-propanone) and nitrous oxide.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 8

ii. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium: Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives aniline but in strongly acidic medium, it gives p-aminophenol obviously through the acid – catalysed rearrangement of the initially formed phenylhydroxylamine.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 9

Question 32.
Write a short note on peptide bond.
Answer:

  • The amino acids are linked covalently by peptide bonds.
  • The carbonyl group of the first amino acid react with the amino group of the second amino acid to give an amide linkage (-CONH) between these aminoacids. This amide linkage is called peptide bond.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 10

  • The resulting compound is called a dipeptide. Because, two amino acids are inovlved for getting one peptide bond.
  • If large number of amino acids combined through peptide bond, the resulting giant molecule is called a protein.
  • The amino end of the peptide is known as N-terminal, while the carboxy end is called C – terminal.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 33.
(i) What class of drug is Ranitidine?
(ii) If water contains dissolved Ca ions, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which will you use for cleaning clothes?
(iii) Which of the following is an antisepctic? 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol.
Answer:
(i) It is an antacid.
(ii) In this case we use synthetic detergents because it give foam with hard water.
(iii) 0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (0 Explain the concentration of copper pyrites and galena ores. (3)
(ii) Out of LU(OH)3 and La(OH)3 which is more basic and why? (2)
(b) Explain the preparation of silicones. (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) Froth floatation: This method is commonly used to concentrate sulphide ores such as galena (PbS), zinc blende (ZnS) etc. In this method, the metallic ore particles which are preferentially wetted by oil can be separated from gangue.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 11

In this method, the crushed ore is suspended in water and mixed with frothing agent such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil etc. A small quantity of sodium ethyl xanthate which acts as a collector is also added. A froth is generated by blowing air through this mixture.

The collector molecules attach to the ore particle and make them water repellent. As a result, ore particles, wetted by the oil, rise to the surface along with the froth. The froth is skimmed off and dried to recover the concentrated ore. The gangue particles that are preferentially wetted by water settle at the bottom.

When a sulphide ore of a metal of interest contains other metal sulphides as impurities, depressing agents such as sodium cyanide, sodium carbonate etc are used to selectively prevent other metal sulphides from coming to the froth. For example, when impurities such as ZnS is present in galena (PbS), sodium cyanide (NaCN) is added to depresses the floatation property of ZnS by forming a layer of zinc complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] on the surface of zinc sulphide.

(ii) 1. As we move from Ce3+ to Lu3+, the basic character of Lu3+ ions decreases.
2. Due to the decrease in the size of Lu3+ ions, the ionic character of Lu – OH bond decreases, covalent character increases which results in the decrease in the basicity.
3. Hence, La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3.

[OR]

(b) Generally silicones are prepared by the hydrolysis of dialkyldichlorosilanes (R2SiCl2 ) or diaryldichlorosilanes Ar2SiCl2, which are prepared by passing vapours of RCl or ArCl over silicon at 570 K with copper as a catalyst.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 12
The hydrolysis of dialkylchloro silanes R2SiCl2 yields to a straight chain polymer which grown from both the sides
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 13

The hydrolysis of monoalkylchloro silanes RSiCl3 yields to a very complex cross linked polymer. Linear silicones can be converted into cyclic or ring silicones when water molecules is removed from the terminal -OH groups.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 14

Question 35.
(a) Bleaching action of chlorine is permanent – Justify this statement and also give the uses of chlorine. (5)
[OR]
(b) (i) Complete the following (3)
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 15
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 16
(ii) What is linkage isomerism? Explain with an example.
Answer:
(a) Chlorine is a strong oxidising and bleaching agent because of the nascent oxygen.
H2O + Cl2 → HCl + HOCl (Hypo chlorous acid)
HOCl → HCl + (O)

Colouring matter + Nascent oxygen → Colourless oxidation product
Therefore, bleaching of chlorine is permanent. It oxidises ferrous salts to ferric, sulphites to sulphates and hydrogen sulphide to sulphur.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 17

Uses of chlorine:

  • Purification of drinking water
  • Bleaching of cotton textiles, paper and rayon
  • It is used in extraction of gold and platinum

[OR]

(b) (i)
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 18

(ii) This type of isomers arises when an ambidentate ligand is bonded to the central metal atom/ion through either of its two different donor atoms.
For examples,
[CO(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
(Pentaammine nitrito cobalt (III) chloride)
O – attached. (Red in colour).
[CO(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
(Pentaammine nitro cobalt (III) chloride)
N – attached (Yellow-brown in colour).

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Question 36.
(a) (i) What is the two dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close packed layer? (2)
(ii) Derive the integrated rate law for a first order reaction? (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Define solubility product. (2)
(ii) What is the pH of an aqueous solution obtained by mixing 6 gram of acetic acid and 8.2 gram of sodium acetate and making the volume equal to 500 ml. (Given: Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10-5) (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Square close packing : When the spheres of the second ” row are placed exactly above those of the first row.
This way the spheres are aligned horizontally as well as vertically. The arrangement is AAA type. Coordination number is 4.
(ii) Areaction whose rate depends on the reactant concentration raised to the first power is called a first order reaction.
First order reaction is A → product
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 19
Rate law can be expressed as, Rate = k [A]1
Where, k is the first order rate constant
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 20
Integrate the above equation (1) between the limits of time t = O and time equal to t,
while the concentration varies from initial concentration [A0]to [A] at the later time.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 21
This equation (2) is in natural logarithm. To convert it into usual logarithm with base 10,
we have to multiply the term by 2.303
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 22
[OR]

(b) (i) Solubility product : It is defined as the product of the molar concentration of the constituent ions, each raised to the power of its stoichiometric co-efficient in a balanced equilibrium equation.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 23
(ii) According to Henderson — Hessalbalch equation,
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 24

Question 37.
(a) (i) Why for CH3COOH cannot be determined experimentally? (2)
(ii) Write about the classification of organic nitro compounds. (3)
[OR]
(b) Describe about condensation methods of preparation of colloids. (OR)
Describe chemical methods of preparation of colloids. (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) Molar conductivity of weak electrolytes keeps on increasing with dilution and does not
become constant even at very large dilution.

(ii)
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 25

[OR]

(b) When the substance for colloidal particle is present as small sized particle, molecule or ion, they are brought to the colloidal dimension by condensation methods.
i. Oxidation method:- When hydroiodic acid is treated with iodic acid I sol is obtained.
HIO3 +5HI → 3H2O + 3I 2(sol)

ii. Reduction method:- Gold sol is prepared by reduction of auric chloride using formaldehyde.
2 AuCl3 + 3 HCHO + 3 H2O (sol) → 2 Au(sol) + 6HCl + 3HCOOH

iii. Hydrolysis:- Ferric chloride is hydrolysed to get ferric hydroxide colloid
FeCl3 + 3H2O → Fe(OH)3 (sol) + 3HCl

iv. Double decomposition:- When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a solution of arsenic oxide, a yellow coloured arsenic sulphide is obtained as a colloidal solution.
As2O3 + 3H2 → As 2S3 + 3H2O

v. Decomposition:- When few drops of an acid is added to a dilute solution of sodium thiosulphate, sulphur colloid is produced by the decomposition of sodium thio sulphate.
S2O32- + 2H+ → S(sol) + H2O + SO2

Question 38.
(a) (i) What is Clemmensen reduction ? Explain it. (2)
(ii) Write the structure of the major product of the aldol condensation of benzaldehyde
with acetone. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i)How will you convert nitrobenzene into (2)
1. 1,3, 5 – trinitrobenzene 2. o añd p- nitrophenol
(ii) Differentiate between Globular and fibrous proteins. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Aldehyde and ketones when heated with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid give hydrocarbons. This reaction is known as Clemmensen reduction.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 26

(ii) Aldol condensation of benzaldehyde with acetone:
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 27
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 28

(b) (i) 1. Conversion of nitrobenzene into 1,3,5 – trinitrobenzene:
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 29

2. Conversion of nitrobenzene into o and p- nitrophenol:
Nitrobenzene heated with solid KOH at 340 K gives a low yield of a mixture of O-and P-nitrophenols.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium - 30

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

(ii) Difference between Globular and fibrous proteins.

No. Globular proteins Fibrous Proteins
i They form a-helix structure They have (3-pleated structure.
ii They are soluble in water: They are insoluble in water.
iii They are cross lined condensation polymers of acidic and basic amino acids. They are linear condensation polymeric proteins.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Students can Download Chemistry  Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Select the molecule which has only one ir bond.
(a) CH3-CH=CH-CH3
(b) CH3-CH=CH-CHO
(c) CH3-CH=CH-COOH
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) CH3-CH=CH-CH3

Question 2.
In the hydrocarbon Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistrythe state of hybridisation of carbon 1,2,3,4 and 7 are in the following sequence.
(a) sp, sp, sp3, sp2, sp3
(b) sp2, sp, sp3, sp2, sp3
(c) sp, sp, sp2, sp, sp3
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) sp, sp, sp3, sp2, sp3

Question 3.
The general formula for alkadiene is ……….
(a) CnH2n
(b) CnH2n-1
(c) CnH2n-2
(d) CnHn-2
Answer:
(c) CnH2n-2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 5, 6 – dimethylhept-2-ene is ……….
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
The IUPAC name of the compound is …………
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(a) 2,3 – Diemethyiheptane
(b) 3 – Methyl – 4 – ethyloctane
(c) 5 – ethyl – 6 – methyloctanc
(d) 4 – Ethyl -3 – methyloctane.
Answer:
(d) 4 – Ethyl – 3 – methyloctane.

Question 6.
Which one of the following names does not fit a real name?
(a) 3 – Methyl – 3 – hexanone
(b) 4- Methyl – 3 – hexanone
(c) 3 – Methyl – 3 – hexanol
(d) 2 – Methyl cyclo hexanone.
Answer:
(a) 3 – Methyl – 3 – hexanone

Question 7.
The TUPAC name of the compound CH3— CII = CH -C CH is ……………
(a) Pent – 4 – yn – 2 – ene
(b) Pent -3-en – 1- yne
(c) pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne
(d) Pent – 1 – yn – 3 – ene
Answer:
(b) Pent -3-en – 1- yne

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 8.
IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is ……….
(a) 3, 4, 4 – Trimethylheptane
(b) 2 – Ethyl – 3, 3 – dimethyl heptane
(c) 3, 4, 4 – Trimethyloctane
(d) 2 Butyl – 2 -methyl – 3 – ethyl-butane.
Answer:
(c) 3, 4, 4 – Trimethyloctane

Question 9.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is ………
(a) 2 – Hydroxypropionic acid
(b) 2, 4. 4 – Trimethylpent -3-ene
(c) Propan – 2 – ol 1 – oie acid
(d) 2, 2, 4 – Trimethylpent -2-ene
Answer:
(b) 2 – Hydroxy Propanoic acid

Question 10.
The IUPAC name of the compound Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is ………
(a) 3 – Ethyl – 2- hexene
(b) 3 – Propyl – 3. hexene
(c) 4 – Ethyl – 4 – hexene
(d) 3 – Propyl -2-hexenc
Answer:
(a) 3 – Ethyl – 2- hexene

Question 11.
The IUPAC name of the compound Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is ……..
(a) 2 – Hydroxypropionic acid
(b) 2 – Hydroxy Propanoic acid
(c) Propan 2 – ol – 1 – oic acid
(d) 1 – Carboxyethanol.
Answer:
(b) 2 – Hydroxy Propanoic acid

Question 12.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is ………
(a) 2 – Bromo – 3 – methylbutanoic acid
(b) 2 – methyl – 3 – bromobutanoic acid
(c) 3 – Bromo – 2 – methylbutanoic acid
(d) 3 – Bromo – 2. 3 – dimethyl propanoic acid.
Answer:
(c) 3 – Bromo – 2 – methylbutanoic acid

Question 13.
The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is ………
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 14.
The number of stereoisomers of 1, 2-dihydroxycyclopentane is ……..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 15.
Which of the following is optically active?
(a) 3 – Chioropentane
(b) 2 – Chioropropane
(c) Meso – tat-tat-ic acid
(d) Glucose
Answer:
(d) Glucose

Question 16.
The isomer of ethanol is ……….
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) dimethylether
(c) acetone
(d) methyl carbinol
Answer:
(b) dimethylether

Question 17.
How many cyclic and acyclic isomers are possible for the molecular formula C3H6O?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 18.
Which one of the following shows functional isomerism?
(a) ethylene
(b) Propane
(c) ethanol
(d) CH2Cl2
Answer:
(c) ethanol

Question 19.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry are ………
(a) resonating structure
(b) taulomers
(c) optical isomers
(d) conformers
Answer:
(b) tautomers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 20.
Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is earned out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed is due to the formation of ………….
(a) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
(b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2
(d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3
Answer:
(b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Question 21.
Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in ………..
(a) H2N -CO – NH. NH2. HCl
(b) NH2 – NH2. HCl
(c) C6H5 – NH – NH2. HCl
(d) C6H5CONH2
Answer:
(c) C6H5 – NH – NH2. HCl

Question 22.
Connect pair of compounds which give blue colouration/precipitate and white precipitate respectively, when their Lassaigne’s test is separately done.
(a) NH2NH2HCl and CICH2 – CHO
(b) NH2CS NH2 and CH3 – CH2Cl
(c) NH2CH2 COOH and NH2CONH2
(d) C6H5NH2 and ClCH2 – CHO
Answer:
(d) C6H5NH2 and ClCH2 – CHO

Question 23.
Sodium nitropruside reacts with suiphide ion to give a purple colour due to the formation of ………..
(a) [Fe(CN)5N0]3-
(b) [Fe(NO)5CN]+
(c) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4-
(d) [Fe(CN)5NOS]3-
Answer:
(c) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4-

Question 24.
An organic compound weighing 0.15 g gave on carius estimation, 0.12 g of silver bromide. The percentage of bromine in the compound will be close to ……….
(a) 46%
(b) 34%
(c) 3.4%
(d) 4.6%
Answer:
(b) 34%

Question 25.
A sample of 0.5g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5M H2SO4. The remaining acid after neutralisation by ammonia consumed 80 mL of 0.5 M NaOH, The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is ……….
(a) 14%
(b) 28%
(c) 42%
(d) 56%
Answer:
(b) 28%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 26.
In an organm compound, phosphorus is estimated as ……….
(a) Mg2P2O7
(b) Mg3(PO4)2
(c) H3PO4
(d) P2O5
Answer:
(a) Mg2P2O7

Question 27.
Ortho and para-nitro phenol can be separated by ………….
(a) azeotropic distillation
(b) destructive distillation
(c) steam distillation
(d) cannot be separated
Answer:
(c) steam distillation

Question 28.
The purity of an organic compound is determined by …………
(a) Chromatography
(b) Crystallisation
(c) melting or boiling point
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 29.
A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point can be purified by …………
(a) distillation at atmospheric pressure
(b) distillation under reduced pressure
(c) fractional distillation
(d) steam distillation
Answer:
(b) distillation under reduced pressure

Question 30.
Assertion: Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is 3-carbethoxy -2- butenoicacid.
Reason: The principal functional group gets lowest number followed by double bond (or) triple bond.
(a) both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d both the assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Short Answer Questions

Question 31.
Give the general characteristics of organic compounds.
Answer:

  • All organic compounds are covalent compounds of carbon and are insoluble in water and soluble in organic solvents.
  • They are inflammable (except CCl4).
  • They possess low boiling and melting points due to their covalent nature.
  • They are characterized by functional groups.
  • They exhibit isomerism.

Question 32.
Describe the classification of organic compounds based on their structure.
classification of organic compounds based on the structure
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 33.
Write a note on the homologous series.
Answer:

  • A series of organic compounds each containing a characteristic functional group and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a CH2 group is called homologous series.
  • e.g., Alkanes, Methane (CH4) ethane (C2H6), Propane (C3H8) etc.
  • Compounds of the homologous series are represented by a general formula. e.g., Alkanes: C2H2nAlkene: CnH2n
  • They can be prepared by general methods.
  • They show regular gradation in physical properties but have almost similar chemical properties.

Question 34.
What is meant by a functional group? Identify the functional group in the following compounds.
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) oxalic acid
(c) dimethyl ether
(d) methylamine
Answer:
1. A functional group ¡s an atom or a specific combination of bonded atoms that react in a characteristic way, irrespective of the organic molecule in which it is present.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 35.
Give the general formula for the following classes of organic compounds
(a) Aliphatic monohydric alcohol
(b) Aliphatic ketones
(c) Aliphatic amines.
Answer:
(a) Aliphatic monohydric alcohol – CnH2n+1 + OH
(b) Aliphatic ketones – CnH2nO
(c) Aliphatic amines – C2H2n+1NH2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 36.
Write the molecular formula of the first six members of homologous series of nitroalkanes.
Nitroalkanes:
Answer:

  • CH2NO2 Nitromethane
  • CH2-CH2NO2 Nitroethane
  • CH3-CH2-CH2NO2 1- nitropropane
  • CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-NO2 1- nitrobutane
  • CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-NO2 1 – nitropentane
  • CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-NO2 1- nitrohexane

Question 37.
Write the molecular and possible structural formula of the first four members of homologous series of carhoxylic acids.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 38.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 2,3,5-tnmethylhexane
(ii) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
(iii) methoxymethane
(iv) 2-hydroxybutanal
(v) buta-1,3-diene
(vi) 4-chioropent-2-yne
(vii) 1 -bromobut-2-ene
(viii) 5-oxohexanoic acid
(ix) 3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
(x) 2, 4, 4-trimethylpent-2-ene
(xi) 2- methyl-I -phenyipropan- I -amine
(xii) 2,2- dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
(xiii) 2-ethoxypropane
(xiv) I -fluoro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
(xv) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

Question 39.
Give the structure for the following compound.
(i) 3 – ethyl – 2 methyl -1 – pentene
(ii) 1, 3, 5 – Tnmethyl cyclohex – 1 – ene
(iii) tertiary butyl iodide
(iv) 3 – Chlorobutanal
(y) 3 – Chlorobutanol .
(vi) 2 – Chloro – 2 – methyl propane
(vii) 2, 2-dimethyl- 1 – chioropropane
(viii) 3 – methylbut – 1 – ene
(ix) Butan – 2, 2 – diol
(x) Octane – 1 ,3 – diene
(xi) 1 ,5 – Dimethylcyclohexane
(xii) 2 – Chlorobut – 3 – ene
(xiii) 2 – methylbutan – 3 – ol
(xiv) acetaldehyde
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 40.
Describe the reactions involved in the detection of nitrogen in an organic compound by Lassaigne method.
Answer:
Detection of Nitrogen:
The following reactions are involved in the detection of nitrogen with formation of prussian blue precipitate conforming the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 41.
Give the principle involved in the estimation of halogen in an organic compound by Carius method.
Estimation of halogens:
Answer:
carius method:
1. A known mass of the organic compound is heated with fuming HNO3 and AgNO3.
2. C, H and S gets oxidised to CO2, H2O and SO2 and halogen combines with AgNO3 to form a precipitate of silver halide
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
3. The precipitate AgX is filtered, washed, dried and weighed.
4. From the mass of AgX and the mass of organic compound taken, the percentage of halogens are calculated.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 42.
Give a brief description of the principles of:
1. Fractional distillation
2. Column Chromatography
Answer:
1. Fractional distillation:
This is one method to purify and separate liquids present in the mixture having their boiling point close to each other. In the fractional distillation, a fractionating column is fitted with distillation flask and a condenser. A thermometer is fitted in the fractionating column near the mouth of the condenser. This will enable to record the temperature of vapour passing over the condenser.

The process of separation of the components in a liquid mixture at their respective boiling points in the form of vapours and the subsequent condensation of those vapours is called fractional distillation. The process of fractional distillation is repeated, if necessary. This method finds a remarkable application in the distillation of petroleum, coal-tar and crude oil.

2. Column Chromatography:
This is the simplest chromatographic method carried out in long glass column having a stop cock near the lower end. This method involves the separation of a mixture over a column of adsorbent (Stationery phase) packed in a column. In the column a plug of cotton or glass wool is placed at the lower end of the column to support the adsorbent powder. The tube is uniformly packed with suitable adsorbent constitutes the stationary phase. (Activated aluminum oxides (alumina), Magnesium oxide, starch are also used as adsorbents).

The mixture to be separated is placed on the top of the adsorbent column. Eluent which is a liquid or a mixture of liquids is allowed to flow down the column slowly. Different components depending upon the degree to which the components are adsorbed and complete separation takes place. The most readily adsorbed substances are retained near the top and others come down to various distances in the column.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 43.
Explain paper chromatography.
Answer:
Paper chromatography:
1. It is an example of partition chromatography. A strip of paper acts as an adsorbent. This method involves continues differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phase. In paper chromatography, a special quality paper known as the chromatographic paper is used. This paper act as a stationary phase.

2. A strip of chromatographic paper spotted at the base with the solution of the mixture is suspended in a suitable solvent which acts as the mobile phase. The solvent rises up and flows over the spot. The paper selectivity retains different components according to their different partition in the two phases where a chromatograrn is developed.

3. The spots of the separated coloured components are visible at different heights from the position of initial spots on the chromatogram. The spots of the separated colourless compounds may be observed either under ultraviolet light or by the use of an appropriate spray reagent.

Question 44.
Explain various types of constitutional isomerism (structural isomerism) in organic compounds.
Answer:
Constitutional isomers:
These isomers having the same molecular formula but differ in their bonding sequence. It is classified into 6 types:
1. Chain (or) nuclear (or) skeletal isomerism:
The phenomenon in which the isomers have similar molecular formula but differ in the nature of carbon skeleton (i.e., straight (or)
branched)
e.g., C5H12:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. Position isomerism:
If different compounds belonging to same homologous series with the same molecular formula and carbon skeleton but differ in the position of substituent or functional group or an unsaturated linkage are said to exhibit position isomerism.
e.g., C5H10:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

3. Functional isomerism:
Different compounds having same molecular formula but different functional groups are said to exhibit functional isomerism.
e.g., C3H6O:
(i) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH=CH2 propanal (Aldehyde group)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

4. Metamerism:
This isomerism anses due to the unequal distribution of carbon atoms on either side of the functional group or different alkyl groups attached to either side of the same functional group and having same molecular formula.
e.g., C4H10O:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

5. Tautomerism:
It is an isomerism in which a single compound exists in two readily inter convertible structures that differ markedly in the relative position of atleast one atomic nucleus generally hydrogen.
e.g., C2H4O:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

6. Ring chain isomerism:
It is an isomerism in which compounds having same molecular formula but differ in terms of bonding of carbon atom to form open chain and cyclic structures.
e.g., C2H6:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 45.
Describe optical isomerism with a suitable example.
Answer:
Compounds having same physical and chemical property but differ only in the rotation of plane of the polarized light are known as optical isomers and the phenomenon is known as optical isomerism.
Example:
Some organic compounds such as glucose have the ability to rotate the plane of the plane-polarized light and there called are said to be optically active compounds and this property of a compound is called optical activity. The optical isomer, which rotates the plane of the plane polarised light to the right or in clockwise direction is said to be dextrorotary (dexter means right) denoted by the sign (+), whereas the compound which rotates to the left or anticlockwise is said to be leavorotatory (leavues means left) denoted by sign (-). Dextrorotatory compounds are represented as ‘d’ or by sign (+) and laevorotatory compounds are represented as ‘l’ or by sign (-).

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 46.
Briefly explain geometrical isomerism in alkenes by considering 2- butene as an example.
Answer:
2-butene: Geometrical isomerism : CH3  -CH = CH – CH3

1. Geometrical isomers are the stereoisomers which have different arrangement of groups or atoms around a rigid framework of double bonds. This type of isomerism occurs due to restricted rotation of double bonds or about single bonds in cyclic compounds.

2. In 2-butene, the carbon-carbon double bond is sp2 hybridised. The carbon-carbon double bond consists of a a bond and a it bond. The presence of it bond lock the molecule in one position. Hence, rotation around C = C bond is not possible.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
4. These two compounds are termed as geometrical isomers and are termed as cis and trans form.

5. The cis-isomer is the one in which two similar groups arc on the same side otthe double bond. The trans-isomer is that in which two similar groups are on the opposite side of the double bond. Hence, this type of isomerism is called cis-Irans isomerism.

Question 47.
0.30 g of a substance gives 0.88 g of carbon dioxide and 0.54 g of water calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen in it.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.30 g
Weight of carbon-dioxide = 0.88 g
Weight of water = 0.54 g
Percentage of hydrogen:
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
0.54 g of water contain = \(\frac {2}{18}\) × 0.54 g of hydrogen
% of hydrogen = \(\frac {2}{18}\) × \(\frac {0.54}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac {2}{18}\) × \(\frac {54}{0.3}\)
% of H = 0.111 × 180 = 19.888 ≈ 20%

Percentage of carbon:
44 g of CO2 contains 12 g of carbon
0.88 g of CO2 contains = \(\frac {12}{44}\) × 0.88 g of carbon
% of carbon = \(\frac {12}{44}\) × \(\frac {0.88}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac {12}{44}\) × \(\frac {88}{0.3}\) = \(\frac {24}{0.3}\)
% of carbon = 80 % .

Question 48.
The ammonia evolved form 0.20 g of an organic compound by kjeldahl method neutralised 15m1 of N/20 Sulphuric acid solution. Calculate the percentage of Nitrogen.
Answer:
weight of organic compound = 0.20 g
Normality of acid = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{20}\)
Volume of standard acid neitralized by ammonia = 15 ml
1000 ml of N ammonia contains = 14 g of nitrogen
15 ml of ammonia of normality \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{20}\) contains nitrogen = \(\frac{14 \times 15 \times 1}{1000 \times 20}\)

0.20 g of compound contains nitrogen = \(\frac{14 \times 15}{1000 \times 20}\)

100 g of compound contains nitrogen = \(\frac{14 \times 15 \times 100}{1000 \times 20 \times 0.20}\) = 5.25 g
Percentage of nitrogen = 5.25 %

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 49.
0.32 g of an organic compound. after heating with fuming nitric acid and barium nitrate crystals is a scaled tube gave 0.466 g of barium sulphate. Determine the percentage of sulphur in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.32 g
Weight of BaSO4 formed = 0.466 g
233 g of BaSO4 contains = 32 g of sulphate
0.466 g of l3aSO4 contain = \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {0.466}{2.32}\) x 100
= \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {46.6}{0.32}\) = 19.999 g of sulphur
% of sulphur = 20 %

Question 50.
024 g of an organic compound gave 0.287 g of silver chloride in the carius method. Calculate the percentage of chlorine in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.24 g
Weight of silver chloride = 0.287 g
143.5 g of AgCl contains = 35.5 g of Cl
0.287 g of AgCl contains = \(\frac {35.5}{143.5}\) x 0.287 g of Cl
% of chlorine = \(\frac {35.5}{143.5}\) x \(\frac {0.287}{0.24}\) x 100 = 29.58 %

Question 51.
In the estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Dumas method 0.35 g yielded 20.7 mL of nitrogen at 15°C and 760 mm Hg pressure. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen ¡n the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.35 g
Volume of moist nitrogen (V1) = 20.7 ml = 20.7 x 10-3 L
Temperature = T1 = 15°C = 273 + 15°C = 288K
Pressure of moist nitrogen P1 = 760 mmHg
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
V0 = 19.62 x 10-3L
Percentage of nitrogen = \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{0}}{\mathrm{W}}\) x 100
= \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x \(\frac{19.62 \times 10^{-3}}{0.35}\) x 100
= \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x = \(\frac {19.62}{0.35}\) x 10-1
= 56.05 x 10-3 x 100 = 7.007%
Percentage of nitrogen = 7.007%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

In Text Questions – Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Give two examples for each of the following type of organic compounds.
1. non-benzonoid aromatic
2. aromatic heterocyclic
3.  alicycic
4. aliphatic open chain.
Answer:
1. Non benzenoid aromatic compounds
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. Aromatic heterocyclic compounds
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

3. Alicyclic compounds
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

4. Aliphatic open chain compounds

  • CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 n-pentane
  • CH3-CH2-CH2OH 1-propanol

Question 2.
Write structural formula for the following compounds
1. Cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
2. Ethynykyclohexane
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Write structural formula for the following compounds
1. m – dinitrobenzene
2. p-dichlorobenzene
3. 1, 3, S- Trimethytbeuzene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Write all the possible isomers of molecular formula C4H10O and identify the isomerisms found in them.
Answer:
C4H10O isomers:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
0.2346 g of an organic compound containing C, H & O, o comhution giweb 0.2754 g of H2O and 0.4488 g CO2. Calculate the % composition of C, H & O in the organic compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic substance (w) = 0.2346 g
Weight of water (x) = 0.2754 g
Weight of CO2 (y) = 0.4488 g
Percentage of carbon = \(\frac {12}{44}\)  x  \(\frac {y}{w}\) x 100
= \(\frac {12}{44}\) – \(\frac {0.4488}{0.2346}\) x 100 = 52.17%
Percentage of hydrogen = \(\frac {2}{18}\) x \(\frac {y}{w}\) x 100
= \(\frac {2}{18}\) x \(\frac {0.2754}{0.2346}\) x 100 = 13.04%
Percentage of oxygen = [100- (52.17 +13.04)] = 100 – 65.21 = 34.79%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
0.16 g of an organic compound was heated in a carlus tube and H2SO4 acid formed was precipitated with BaCl4. The mass of BaSO4 was 0.35 g. Find the percentage of sulphur.
Answer:
Weight of organic substance (w) = 0.16 g
Weight of Barium sulphate (x) = 0.35 g
Percentage of Sulphur = \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {x}{w}\) x 100
= \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {0.35}{0.16}\) x 100 = 30.04%

Question 7.
0.185 g of an organic compound when treated with Conc. HNO3 and silver nitrate gave 0.320 g of silver bromide. Calculate the % of bromine in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic substance (w) 0.185 g ;
Weight of silver bromide (x) = 0.320 g
Percentage of bromine = \(\frac {80}{188}\) x \(\frac {x}{w}\) x 100 = \(\frac {80}{188}\) x \(\frac {0.32}{0.185}\) x 100 = 73.6%

Question 8.
0.40 g of an iodo-substituted organic compound gave 0.235 g of Agi by carius method. Calculate the percentage of iodine in the compound. (Ag = 108, I = 127).
Answer:
Weight of organic substance (w) = 0.40 g
Weight of silver iodide (x) = 0.235 g
127 x 127 0.235
Percentage of iodine = \(\frac {127}{235}\) x \(\frac {x}{w}\) x 100
= \(\frac {x}{w}\) x \(\frac {0.235}{0.40}\) x 100 = 31.75%

Question 9.
0.33 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.397 g of Mg2P2O7 by the analysis. Calculate the percentage of P in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.33g ;
Weight of Mg,P,07 = 0.397g
222 g of Mg2P2O7 contains 62 g of phosphorous.
0.397 g of Mg2P2O7 will contain \(\frac {62}{222}\) x 0.397 g of P.
0.33 g of organic compound contains \(\frac {62}{222}\) x 0.397 g of P
100 g of organic compound will contain \(\frac {62}{222}\) x \(\frac {0.397}{0.33}\) x 100
= \(\frac {2,461.4}{73.26}\) = 33.59 %
Percentage of phosphorous = 33.59 %

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 10.
0.3 g of an organic compound on Kjeldahl’s analysis gave enough ammonia to just neutralise 30 mL of 0.1N H2SO4. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound (w) = 0.3 g
Strength of sulphuric acid used (N) = 0.1 N
Volume of sulphuric acid used (V) = 30 mL
30 ml of 0.1 N sulphuric acid 30 ml of 0.1 N ammonia
Percentage of nitrogen = \(\left(\frac{14 \times \mathrm{NV}}{1000 \times w}\right)\) x 100
= \(\left(\frac{14 \times 0.1 \times 30}{1000 \times 0.3}\right)\) x 100 = 14%

Example Problems

Question 1.
Classify the following compounds based on the structure
1. CH≡C-CH2-C≡CH
2. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. Unsaturated open chain compound
  2. Saturated open chain compound
  3. Aromatic benzenoid compound
  4. Alicyclic compound

Question 2.
0.26 g of an organic compound gave 0.039 g of water and 0.245 g of carbon dioxide on combustion. Calculate the percentage of C & H.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.26 g
Weight of water = 0.039 g
Weight of CO2 = 0.245 g
Percentage of hydrogen:
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
0.039 g of water contains = \(\frac {2}{18}\) x \(\frac {0.039}{0.26}\) of H
% of hydrogen = \(\frac {0.039}{0.26}\) x \(\frac {2}{18}\) x 100 = 1.66%
Percentage of carbon:
44 g of CO2 contains 12 g of C
0.245 g of CO2 contains = \(\frac {12}{44}\) x \(\frac {0.245}{0.26}\) g of C
% of Carbon = \(\frac {12}{44}\) x \(\frac {0.245}{0.26}\) x 100 = 25.69%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
In an estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.2 175 g of the substance gave 0.5825 g of BaSO4, calculate the percentage composition of S ¡n the compound.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.2 175 g
Weight of BaSO4 = 0.5825 g
233 g of BaSO4 contains = 32 g of S
0.5825 g of BaSO4 contains = \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {0.5825}{0.2175}\) g of S
Percentage of S = \(\frac {32}{233}\) x \(\frac {0.5825}{0.2175}\) x 100 = 36.78%

Question 4.
0.284 g of an organic substance gave 0.287 g AgCl in Carius method for the estimation of halogen. Find the percentage of Cl in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of the organic substance = 0.284 g
Weight of AgCl = 0.287 g
143.5 g of AgCl contains 35.5 g of chlorine
0.287 g of AgCl Contains = \(\frac {35.5}{143.5}\) x \(\frac {0.287}{0.284}\)
% of chlorine = \(\frac {35.5}{143.5}\) x \(\frac {0.287}{0.284}\) x 100 = 24.98%

Question 5.
0.24 g of organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.66 g of Mg2P2O7 by the usual analysis. Calculate the percentage of phosphorous ¡n the compound
Answer:
Weight of an organic compound = 0.24 g
Weight of Mg2P2O7 = 0.66 g
222 g of Mg2P2O7 contains = 62 g of P
o. 66 g contains = \(\frac {62}{222}\) x 0.66 g of P
Percentage of P = \(\frac {62}{222}\) x \(\frac {0.66}{0.24}\) x 100 = 76.80%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
0.1688 g when analysed by the Dumas method yield 31.7 mL of moist nitrogen measured at 14°C and 758mm mercury pressure. Determine the % of N in the substance (Aqueous tension at 14°C =12 mm of Hg).
Answer:
Weight of Organic compound = 0.168 g
Volume of moist nitrogen (V1) = 31.7 ml. = 31.7 x 10-3 L
Temperature (T1) = 14°C = 14 + 273 = 287 K
Pressure of Moist nitrogen (P) = 758 mm Hg
Aqueous tension at 14°C = 12 mm of Hg
\(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{0} V_{0}}{T_{0}}\)
V0 = \(\frac{746 \times 31.7 \times 10^{-3}}{287} \times \frac{273}{760}\)
V0 = 29.58 x 10-3 L
Percentage of nitrogen:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
= 21.90 %

Question 7.
0.6 g of an organic compound was Kjeldhalised and NH3 evolved was absorbed into 50 mL of semi-normal solution of H2SO4. The residual acid solution ws diluted with distilled water and the volume made up to 150 mL. 20 mL of this diluted solution required 35 mL of \(\frac {N}{2}\) NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. Calculate the % of N in the compound.
Answer:
Weight of Organic compound = 0.6 g
Volume of sulphuric acid taken = 50 mL
Strength of sulphuric acid taken = 0.5 N
20 ml of diluted solution of unreacted sulphuric acid was neutralised by 35 mL of 0.05 N Sodium hydroxide
Strength of the diluted sulphuric acid = \(\frac {35 x 0.05}{20}\) = 0.0875 N
Volume of the sulphuric acid remaining after reaction with ammonia = V1 mL
Strength of H2SO4 = 0.5 N
Volume of the diluted H2SO4 = 150 mL
Strength of the diluted sulphuric acid = 0.0875 N
V1 = \(\frac {150 x 0.087}{0.5}\) = 26.25 mL
Volume of H2SO2consumed by ammonia = 50 – 26.25 = 23.75 mL
23.75 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4 = 23.75 mL of 0.5N NH3
The amount of Nitrogen present in the 0.6 g of organic compound
= \(\frac{14 \mathrm{g}}{1000 \mathrm{mL} \times 1 \mathrm{N}}\) x 23.75 x 0.5 N = 0.166 g
Percentage of Nitrogen \(\frac {0.166}{0.6}\) x 100 = 27.66%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
Statement 1. The tendency of an atom to form a chain of bonds with the atoms of the same element is called catenation.
Statement 2. The high strength of C-C bond is responsible for its catenation property.
(a) Statement 1 & 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Statement 1 & 2 arc correct but statement 215 not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is wrong.
(d) Statement 1 is wrong but statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 & 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

Question 2.
Generally, organic compounds are
a) Amorphous
b) Complexes
c) Covalent
d) Electrovalent
Answer:
c) Covalent

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of an organic reaction?
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Combustion of magnesium
(c) Biochemical reactions
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Biochemical reactions

Question 4.
The first carbon compound prepared from its elements is
a) Urea
b) Acetic acid
c) Methane
d) benzene
Answer:
b) Acetic acid

Question 5.
Which of the following is an example of the non-benzenoid aromatic compound?
(a) Tolucnc
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(cl) azulene
Answer:
(d) azulene

Question 6.
The first organic compound synthesized in the laboratory from an inorganic compound is
a) NH4NCO
b) NH2 – CO – NH2
c) CH3COOH
d) CH4
Answer:
b) NH2 – CO – NH2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
Which of the following is an example of carbocyclic alicyclic compound?
(a) Pyrrole
(b) Thiophene
(c) Cyclopropane
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(c) Cyclopropane

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the functional group of ketone?
(a)-CHO
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(c) -O-
(d)-OH
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 9.
Which one of the following indicates isothiocyanate functional group?
(a) -NC
(b) -NCS
(c) -SCN
(d) -NCO
Answer:
(b) -NCS

Question 10.
n – Butane and isobutane are a pair of
a) chain isomers
b) position isomers
c) metamers
d) functional isomers
Answer:
a) chain isomers

Question 11.
Which structure ¡s named as 3-chlorocyclobut-1-ene?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry-

Question 12.
Which one of the following is called 2-cyclobutyipropanal?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 13.
Which one of the following is called cyclopentyl benzene’s?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 14.
Which one of the following is commonly called mesitylene?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 15.
The number of possible monochloro benzenes is
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
a) 1

Question 16.
Which of the following pair are called functional isomers?
(a) methyl propyl ether and diethyl ether
(b) 2-pentanone & 3-pentanone
(c) propanoic acid and methyl acetate
(d) I -butanol and 2-butanol
Answer:
(c) propanoic acid and methyl acetate

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 17.
Which of the following does not show optical isomerism’?
(a) Glucose
(b) Tartane acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Methane
Answer:
(d) Methane

Question 18.
Which metal is used to prepare Lassaigne’s extract?
(a) Copper
(b) Sodium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Iron
Answer:
(b) Sodium

Question 19.
The compound which is not isomeric with diethyl ether is
a) n – propyl methyl ether
b) Butan – 1 – ol
c) 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol
d) Butanone
Answer:
d) Butanone

Question 20.
Which one of the following is called feme ferrocyanide?
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(b) Na4[Fe(CN)6]3
(c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]
(d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Answer:
(d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Question 21.
What is the colour formed in Lassaigne’s test of an organic compound containing N and S?
(a) Prussian blue colour
(b) Blood red colour
(c) Purple colour
(d) Canary yellow colour
Answer:
(b) Blood red colour

Question 22.
Which one of the following is the formula of sodium nitroprusside?
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5N05]
(b) Na4[Fe(CN)5SON]
(c) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Answer;
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5N05]

Question 23.
According to Huckel’s rule, a compound is said to be aromatic if’ it contains
a) 4n bonds
b) 4n atoms
c) (4n + 2) atoms
d) (4n + 2) π electrons
Answer:
d) (4n + 2) π electrons

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 24.
Which one of the following solutions are added to Lassaigne’s extract to identify halogens?
(a) Acetic acid + Lead acetate
(b) dil HNO3 + AgNO3
(c) Fe(OH)2 + FeCl3
(d) Na2CO3 + KNO3
Answer:
(b) dil HNO3 + AgNO3

Question 25.
Which is a saturated compound?
a) alkanes
b) alkenes
c) alkynes
d) cyclo alkenes
Answer:
a) alkanes

Question 26.
Which one of the following test is used to detect phosphorous in an organic compound?
(a) Silver nitrate test
(b) Copper oxide test
(c) Ammonium molybdate test
(d) Lassaigne’s test
Answer:
(c) Ammonium molybdate test

Question 27.
Identify the colour formed in the test kr phosphorous using ammonium molybciate.
(a) Crimson red colour
(b) Deep violet colour
(c) Prussian blue colour
(d) Canary yellow colour
Answer:
(d) Canary yellow colour

Question 28.
Which of the following will absorb CO2?
(a) Conc. H2SO4
(b) KOH
(c) HCl
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) KOH

Question 29.
IUPAC name of ester is
a) Alkoxy alkane
b) Alkyl alkanoate
c) Alkanoyl halide
d) Alkanoic anhydride
Answer:
b) Alkyl alkanoate

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 30.
Which method is used to estimate sulphur?
(a) Lassaigne’s test
(b) Oxide test
(c) Carius method
(d) Kjedahl’s method
Answer:
(c) Cari us method

Question 31.
Which method is used to estimate nitrogen?
(a) Dumas method and Kjeldahl’s method
(b) Carius method & Oxide method
(c) Lassaignes test & Copper oxide test
(d) Ammonium molybdate test & Silver nitrate test
Answer:
(a) Dumas method and Kjeldahl’s method

Question 32.
IUPAC name of CH2OH – CH2OH is
a) 1, 2 – dihydroxy ethane
b) ethylene glycol
c) ethane – 1, 2 – diol
d) ethane – 1, 2 – dial
Answer:
c) ethane – 1, 2 – diol

Question 33.
Which of the following is used to decolourise the organic compounds?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Bleaching powder
(c) Animal charcoal
(d) Iodine
Answer:
(c) Animal charcoal

Question 34.
Which method is used to extract essential oils from plants and flowers?
(a) Crystallization
(b) Sublimation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Differential extraction
Answer:
(c) Steam distillation

Question 35.
Which of the following is used as adsorbent?
(a) silica gel and alumina
(b) glass wool and cotton
(c) glass plate and paper
(d) glucose and fructose
Answer:
(a) silica gel and alumina

Question 36.
Which of the following compounds gives prussian blue colour in Lassaigne’s test?
(a) CH4 and CH3OH
(b) CH3NH2 and CH3NO2
(c) CH3Cl and CHCl3
(d) CH3CHO and CH3COCH3
Answer:
(b) CH3NH2 and CH3NO2

Question 37.
Which of the following is the functional isomer of methyl acetate?
a) Ethyl acetate
b) Propanoic acid
c) Ethyl formate
d) Propanone
Answer:
b) Propanoic acid

Question 38.
Which one of the following is not used as air adsorbent in chromatography?
(a) Alumina
(b) Silica gel
(c) Magnesia
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(d) Sucrose

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 39.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry ……..
(a) 2-methyl butanal
(b) butan-2-aldehyde
(c) 2-ethyipropanal
(d) 3-methyl isobutraldehyde
Answer:
(c) 2-ethyipropanal

Question 40.
Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
Answer:
(a) 2-Buiene
(b) 2-Butyne
(c) 1-Butene
(d) 2-Butanol
Answer:
(a) 2-Butene

Question 41.
Which of the following sodium fusion extract of organic compound gives brilliant violet colour with sodium nitroprusside solution?
(a) Urea
(b) Thiourea
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) Thiourea

Question 42.
The IUPAC name of Cinnamaldehyde is
a) 3 – Phenyl prop – 2 – enal
b) 1 – Phenyl – prop – 1 – enal
c) 1 – Phenyl – prop – 2 – enal
d) 3 – Phenyl – prop – 1 – enal
Answer:
a) 3 – Phenyl prop – 2 – enal

Question 43.
In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?
(a) Alcohols
(b) Aldehydes
(c) Alkyl halides
(d) Cyanides
Answer:
(c) Alkyl halides

Question 44.
Which one of the following is used as a column in the separation of pigments of chlorophyll by chromatography technique?
(a) Petroleum ether
(b) CaCO3
(c) Activated charcoal
(d) Ethanoic acid
Answer:
(b) CaCO3

Question 45.
Which one of the following compound does not give Prussian blue colour in Lassaigne’s test?
(a) C6H5NH2
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(c) C6H5CONH2
(d) C6H5COCl
Answer:
(d) C6H5COCl

Question 46.
Which one of the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(a) n-Butane
(b) 1-butene
(c) 2-butene
(d) butyne
Answer:
(c) 2-butene

Question 47.
Which one of the following shows functional group isomerism?
(a) Ethene
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethane
(a) Propane
Answer:
(b) Acetone

Question 48.
Which of the following pair gives curdy white precipitate and yellow precipitate respectivety in their Lassaignes test?
(a) C2H5I and C2H5Br
(b) C2H5NO2 and C2H5NH2
(c) C6H5Cl and CH3
(d) CH4 and CH3OH
Answer:
(c) C6H5Cl and CH3

II. Match the following.

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 8.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

III. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The property catenation is possible in ……..
Answer:
Carbon.

Question 2.
Acetic acid was synthesised by ………
Answer:
Kolbe

Question 3.
Methane was synthesised in laboratory by ………
Answer:
Berthiot
CH3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry is an example of ………
Answer:
aromatic benzenoid compound

Question 5.
2-butene is an example of compound.
Answer:
unsaturated open chain

Question 6.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis …….
Answer:
2, 2, 5-trimethyl heptane

Question 7.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis ……..
Answer:
3, 4-diethyl, 4-methylheptane

Question 8.
The name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis ……….
Answer:
1-cyclobutyl-2-cyclopropylethene

Question 9.
The name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
2-(cyclobut-2-en-1-yl)-propanal

Question 10.
The name ofSamacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis …………
Answer:
2-cyclopentyipropanal

Question 11.
Esopentane and neopentane are the examples for ………
Answer:
chain isomerism

Question 12.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry are called ……….
Answer:
functional isomers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 13.
Copper oxide test is used to detect ………..
Answer:
Carbon & Hydrogen

Question 14.
The formula of feme suiphocyanide is ………
Answer:
Fe(CNS)3

Question 15.
In Lassaigne’s test for halogens, if colour of the precipitate is curdy white, the halogen present is ……….
Answer:
chlorine

Question 16.
The formula of ammonium phospho molybate is ……….
Answer:
(NH4)3.PO4. MO3

Question 17.
Silver nitrate test is used to detect the presence of ……….
Answer:
Halogens

Question 18.
During the estimation of carbon and hydrogen, presence of nitrogen can be avoided by using ………
Answer:
a spiral of copper

Question 19.
In Carius method, the sulphur in an organic compound is oxidised to ……….
Answer:
H2SO4

Question 20.
The method used to estimate nitrogen in foods and fertilisers is ………
Answer:
Kjeidahl’s method

Question 21.
The mixture of diethyl ether and ethanol can he purified by ………
Answer:
simple distillation

Question 22.
The method used to purify petroleum. coal-tar and crude oil is ………
Answer:
fractional distillation

Question 23.
The method used in the manufacture of aniline and turpentine is ……….
Answer:
steam distilation

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 24.
The mixture of exhanol and water are separated by ………..
Answer:
azeotropic distillation

Question 25.
The different coloured constituents of chlorophyll are separated by ………
Answer:
chromatography

Question 26.
The large number of organic compounds is due to of carbon ………..
Answer:
catenation

Question 27.
The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Answer:
1, 1-dichloropropane

Question 28.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryname of this compound is ………..
Answer:
2-chloro-3-ethyl- 1, 4-pentadiene

Question 29.
Carboxylic acids are isomenc with ……….
Answer:
esters

Question 30.
Alcohols are isomeric with ……….
Answer:
ethers

Question 31.
The correct IUPAC name for the following structure is ……….
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
5-hex-i -en-3-ol

Question 32.
The Prussian blue colour confirms the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound is due to the formation of ………
Answer:
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]I

Question 33.
The principle involved in paper chromatography is ……….
Answer:
partition

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 34.
Steam distillation is used for the extraction of ……..
Answer:
essential oils

Question 35.
In chromatography, if the stationary phase is solid, the basis is ……….
Answer:
adsorption

Question 36.
In chromatography, if the stationary phase is liquid, the basis is ………
Answer:
partition

Question 37.
The isomer of acetaldehyde is ……….
Answer:
acetone

Question 38.
The general formula of alkyne is ……….
Answer:
CnH2n-2

Question 39.
The IUPAC name of (CH3)2CH-CH2-CH(CH3)2-CH(CH3)2 is ……..
Answer:
2, 3, 5-trimethyl hexane

IV. Choose the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) THF
(b) Pyridine
(c) Phenol
(d) Thiophene
Answer:
(c) Phenol. ft is a homocyclic compound whereas others are heterocyclic compounds.

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
(a) Azulene
(b) Propane
(c) Butane
(d) Ethene
Answer:
(a) Azulene. It is a non-benzenoid aromatic homocyclic compound whereas others are aliphatic compounds.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
(a) Dyes
(b) Polymers
(c) Cosmetics
(d) Common salt
Answer:
(d) Common salt. It is an inorganic compound whereas others are organic compound.

Question 5.
(a) Renzene
(b) Water
(c) Ether
(d) Chloroform
Answer:
(b) Water. It is a polar solvent whereas others are non-polar solvents.

V Choose the correct pair.

Question 1.
(a) Benzene: Aliphatic compound
(b) Propane: Aromatic compound
(c) Pyridine: Heterocyclic compound
(d) Cyclohexane: Polycyclic compound
(c) Pyridine: Heterocyclic compound

Question 2.
(a)-OH : Ketone
(b)-CHO : Carboxylic acid
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(d)-NO2 : Amine
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
(a) Organic compounds: inflammable
(b) Organic compounds: ionic compound
(c) Organic compounds: high boiling point and high melting point
(d) Organic compounds: soluble in water
Answer:
(a) Organic compounds: inflammable

Question 4.
(a) CnH2n+2 : C2H4
(b) CnH2n : C3H6
(c) CnH2n-2 : C2H6
(d) CnH2n+2 : C3H4
Answer:
(b) CnH2n : C3H6

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
(a) n-pentane and iso pentane : position isomerism
(b) neopentane and n-pentane : chain isomerism
(c) propanal and propanone : position isomerism
(d) propañoic acid and methyl acetate : chain isomerism
Answer:
(b) neopentane and n-pentane : chain isomerism

VI. Choose The incorrect pair.

Question 1.
(a) Dumas method : Estimation of nitrogen
(b) Kjeldahls method : Estimation of nitrogen
(c) Carius method : Estimation of halogens
(d) Dumas method : Estimation of sulphur
Answer:
(d) Dumas method : Estimation of sulphur

Question 2.
(a)-CHO : Aldehyde
(b)-COOH : Carboxylic acid
(c)-NH2 : Nitro group
(d)-O- : Ether
Answer:
(c)-NH2 : Nitro group

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
(a) Benzene and nitro benzene : Distillation
(b) Coal tar and crude oil : Fractional distillation
(c) Aniline and turpentine : Steam distillation
(d) Naphthalcne and benzoic acid : Crystallization
Answer:
(d) Naphthalene and benzoic acid: Crystallization

Question 4.
(a) BaSO4 : White colour precipitate
(b) Ag2S : Black colour precipitate
(c) Fe(CNS)3 : Prussian blue colour
(d) PbS : Black colour precipitate
Answer:
(c) Fe(CNS)3 : Prussian blue colour

Question 5.
(a) propanal and propropane : Functional isomerism
(b) Nitrite fòrrn and nitro form : Tautomerism
(c) Pent- 1-ene and pcnt-2-ene : Chain isomerism
(d) Propanoic acid and methyl acetate: Functional isomerism
Answer:
(c) Pent-1-ene and pent-2-ene : Chain isomerism

VII. Assertion & Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Carbon cannot form ionic bond.
Reason (R) : It is not possible for the carbon to form either C4t or C ions, as it requires large amount of energy.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct hut R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is.correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but Ris correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of propan-1-ol (boiling point 97°C) and propanone (boiling point 56°C).
Reason (R) : Liquids with a dîftèrence of more than 30°C in their boiling points can be separated by simple distillation.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.
(d) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Pent-1 -ene and pent-2-ene are position isomers.
Reason (R) : Position isomers ditTer in the position of functional group or substituent.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

VIII. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) All organic compounds are ionic compounds.
(b) All organic compounds have high boiling point and high melting point.
(c) Many of the organic compounds are inflammable.
(d) Organic compounds are mostly soluble in water.
Answer:
(c) Many of the organic compounds are inflammable.

Question 2.
(a) Propane is heterocyclic compound.
(b) Azulene is a non benzenoid and aromatic homocyclic compound.
(c) Pyridine is a homocyc lic compound.
(d) Cyclopropane is an aromatic compound.
Answer:
(b) Azulene is a non henzenoid and aromatic homocyclic compound.

Question 3.
(a) CH≡CH-CH2-C≡CH is a saturated open chain compound.
(b) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 is an aromatic benzenoid compound.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis an aromatic benzenoid compound.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistryis an aromatic benzenoid compound.

Question 4.
(a) Organic compounds are covalent and generally insoluble in water.
(b) Organic compounds are ionic but generally soluble in water.
(c) Organic compounds non-inflammable
(d) Organic compounds do not show catenation.
Answer:
(a) Organic compounds are covalent and generally insoluble in water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] is prussian blue precipitate.
(b) Ag2S is a white precipitate.
(c) PbS is a blood red colour precipitate.
(d) BaSO4 is a black colour precipitate.
Answer:
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] is prussian blue precipitate.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 2 Mark Question and answers

Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 1.
What is catenation?
Answer:
The tendency of an atom to form a chain of bonds with the atoms of the same element is called catenation. The high strength of C-C bond is responsible for its catenation property.

Question 2.
Explain the following terms in IUPAC system of nomenclature. of organic compounds.
(i) Root word
(ii) prefix
(iii) suffix
Answer:
(i) Root word:
Root word denotes the number of carbon atoms in the longest continuous chain in molecules.
(ii) prefix:
Prefix denotes the group(s) attached to the main chain which is placed before the root.
(iii) suffix:
Suffix denotes the functional group and is paced after the root word.

Question 3.
What is meant by functional group? Give two example.
Answer:
A functional group is an atom or a specific combination of bonded atoms that react in a characteristic way. irrespective of organic molecule in which it is present. The reaction of an organic compound takes place at the functional group.
e.g.. Alcohol -OH group
Ether -O- group

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Classify the following compounds based on the structure.
(i) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
(ii) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) Unsaturated open chain compound
(ii) Saturated open chain compound
(iii) Aromatic benzenoid compound
(iv) Alicylic compound

Question 5.
Give one example for each of the following type of organic compounds.

  1. Non-benzeoid
  2. Aromatic heterocclic
  3. Alicyclic
  4. Aliphatic open chain

Answer:
1. Non-benzenoid aromatic compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. Alicyclic compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

3. Aromatic heterocyclic Compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

4. Atiphatic open chain compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
Give two examples for each of the following type of organic compounds.

  1. Aromatic homocyclic compound
  2. Aromatic heterocyclic compound

Answer:
1. Aromatic homocyclic compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. Aromatic heterocyclic compound
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
Write the functional group of the following compounds

  1. Aldehyde
  2. Ester
  3. Ether
  4. alcohol

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 8.
Write the functional group of –

  1. cyanide
  2. socyanide
  3. cyanate
  4. isocyanate

Answer:

  1. cyanide -CN
  2. isocyanide -NC
  3. cyanate -CNO
  4. isocyanate -NCO

Question 9.
Write the functional group of –

  1. thiocyanate
  2. isothiocyanate
  3. thiols
  4. thioether

Answer:

  1. Thio cyanale -SCN
  2. Isothiocyanate -NCS
  3. thiols -SH
  4. thicethers -S-

Question 10.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Answer:

  1. 3-methylpentane
  2. 2, 2, 5-trimethylheptane

Question 11.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. 3-ethyl-2-methyl pentane
  2. 2-methylbutanal

Question 12.
What are the IUPAC names of the following compounds?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. 2-ethyl-but-4-ene-oic acid
  2. 2, 2-dimethyl-hexanoic acid

Question 13.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. 2-ethyl-3-propyl pentane-dioic acid
  2. 3-methy-1 hexane

Question 14.
Predict the IUPAC names of the following compounds
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. cyclobutane
  2. cyclopentane
  3. cyclobutene
  4. cyclo octane

Question 15.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. Ethyl cyclobutane
  2. Methylcyclohexane
  3. Cyclohexanol

Question 16.
Write the ¡UPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. 2-cyclobutyl propanol
  2. 3-cyclohexyl pentan-2-one

Question 17.
Write the structural formula for the following compounds.
(i) cyclohexa- 1, 3-diene
(ii) methyl cyclopentane
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 18.
Draw the structures of –
(i) o-xylene
(ii) m-xylene
(iii) p-xylene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 19.
Draw the structure of –
(i) Mesitylene
(ii) 1,2, 3-trimethyl benzene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 20.
Write the structure of –
(i) p-dinitrobenzene
(ii) o-dichlorobenzene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 21.
Draw the structure of –
(i) 2-cyclopentyl propanal
(ii) 2-(cyclo-but-cnyl) propanal
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 22.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:

  1. N, N-dimethylbenzene amine
  2. N-ethyl-N-methylpropan-I-amine

Question 23.
Draw the structure of 4-hydroxy-3(2-hydroxy ethyl) hexanoic acid.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 24.
Explain about dash line structure with a suitable example.
Answer:
The line bond structure is obtained by representing the two electron covalent bond by a dash or line (-) in a lewis structure. A single line or dash represents a single covalent bond.
e.g., n- propanal:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 25.
What ¡s meant by condensed structure? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The bond line structure can be further abbreviated by omitting all these dashes representing covalent bonds and by indicating the number of identical groups attached to an atom by a subscript. The resulting expression of the compound is called a condensed structural formula.
e.g., 1, 3-butadiene.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 26.
What are bond-line structures? Give one example.
Answer:
The condensed structural formula is simplified in which only lines are used. In this type of representation of organic compounds, carbon and hydrogen atoms are not shown and the lines representing carbon-carbon bond are shown in zig-zag fashion. The only atoms are specially written are oxygen, chlorine, nitrogen etc. Example, Ten. butyl chloride
condensed structure
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
bond line structure
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 27.
Define isomerism. Give example.
Answer:
Isomerism represents the existence of two or more compounds with the same molecular formula but different structure and properties. Compounds exhibiting this isomerism are called isomers.
e.g., C2H6O:

  1. CH3-CH2OH Ethanol
  2. CH3-O-CH3 Methoxyrnethane

Question 28.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C5H10 with their name and type of isomerism present in it.
Answer:
C5H10:

  1. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH = CH2 (Pent-1-ene)
  2. CH3-CH2-CH=CH-CH3 (Pent-2-ene)
    The type of isomerism present above is position isomerism.

Question 29.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C5H10O with their name indicating position isomerism.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Question 30.
Draw the functional isomers for the formula C3H6O2 with their names.
Answer:
C3H6O2:

  1. CH3-CH2-COOH (Propanoic acid)
  2. CH3-COOCH2 (Methyl acetate)

Question 31.
What is metamerism? Give an example.
Answer:
Metamerism is one kind of structural isomerism which arises due to the unequal distribution of carbon atoms on either side of the functional group or diffèrent alkyl groups attached to the either side of the same functional group and having the same molecular formula.
e.g., C4H10O:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 32.
What is tautomerism?
Answer:
It is a special type of functional isomerism in which single compound exists in two readily interconvertible structures that differ markedly in the relative position of atleast one atomic hydrogen. The two different structures are known as tautomers.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 33.
What ¡s meant by dyad system? Explain with example.
Answer:
In this system, hydrogen atom oscillates between two directly linked polyvalent atoms.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 34.
What is triad system? Give example.
Answer:
1. In this system hydrogen atom oscillates between three polyvalent atoms. It involves 1. 3-migration of hydrogen atom from one polyvalent atom to other with in the molecule.
2. The most important type of triad system is keto-enol tautomerism and the two groups of tautomers are keto form and enol form.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 35.
What is enolisation? What is labile form?
Answer:
Enolisation is a process in which keto form is converted into eno! form. Both tautomeric forms are equally stable. The less stable form is known as labile form.

Question 36.
Give the structures of Nitro-aci tautomerism.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 37.
Explain ring chain isomerism with the formula C4H8.
Answer:
In ring chain isomerism, compounds have the same molecular formula but differ in terms of bonding of carbon atoms to form open chain and cyclic structures.
C4H8:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 38.
Define stereo-isomerism.
Answer:
The isomers which have same bond connectivity but different arrangement of groups or atoms in space are known as stereoisomers. This phenomenon is known as stereoisomerism.

Question 39.
Define geometrical isomerism with an example.
Answer:
Geometrical isomers are the stereoisomers which have different arrangement of groups or atoms around a rigid framework of double bonds. This type of isomerism occurs due to restricted rotation of double bonds or about single bonds in cyclic compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 40.
Trans isomer is more stable than cis isomer. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Trans isomer is more stable than cis isomer. This is because in the cis isomer, the bulky groups are on the same side of the double bond. The steric repulsion of the groups makes the cis isomers less stable than the trans isomers in which bulky groups are on the opposite side.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 41.
Draw the cis, trans isomeric structures of 1, 3-butadiene.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 42.
What are the condition for optical isomerism (or) enantiomerism.
Answer:
1. A carbon atom whose tetravalency in satisfied by four different substituents (atoms (or) groups) is called asymmetric carbon (or) chiral carbon. The optical isomer should have one or more chiral carbon to show optical activity.

2. The molecule possessing chiral carbon atom and is non-superimposable its own mirror image is said to be chiral ntolecule and the property is called chirality or dissymmetry.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 43.
How will you prepare Lassaigne’s extract?
Lassagine’s extract preparation:
Answer:

  • A small piece of Na dried by pressing between the folds of filter paper is taken in a fusion tube and it is gently heated. When it melts to a shining globule, a pinch of organic compound is added.
  • The tube is heated till reaction ceases arid become red hot. Then it is plunged in 50 ml of distilled water taken in a china dish and the bottom of the tube is broken by striking it against the dish.
  • The contents of the dish is boiled for 10 minutes and then it is filtered. The filtrate is known as Lassaigne’s extract.

Question 44.
What Is the need for purification of organic compounds?
Answer:
In order to study the structure, physical properties, chemical properties and biological properties of organic compounds, they must be in the pure state. So organic compounds must be purified.

Question 45.
Define sublimation. Give two examples.
Answer:
The process of conversion of solid to vapour without melting or heating and on cooling the vapours getting back solids, such phenomenon is known as sublimation.
e.g., Naphthalene, Camphor.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 46.
Explain the process of chromatography in chlorophyll.
Answer:
The separation of different coloured constituents of chlorophyll is done by chromatography by M.S. Tswelt. He achieved it by passing a petroleum ether solution of chlorophyll present in leaves through a column of CaCO3 firmly packed into a narrow glass tube. Different components of the pigments got separated and lands to form zones of different colours.

Question 47.
Draw the first six members of the carboxylic acid homologous series.
Answer:

  1. HCOOH
  2. CH3COOH
  3. CH3-CH2-COOH
  4. CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
  5. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2COOH
  6. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH

Question 48.
Give the condensed formula and bond line formula of 2, 2,4- trimethylpentane.
Answer:
2, 2, 4 –  irimethylpentane
(CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2-Condensed formula
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 49.
Differentiate between the principle of estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound by

  1. Dumas method
  2. Kjeldahl’s method.

Answer:
1. Dumas method:
The organic compound is heated strongly with excess of CuO (Cupic Oxide) in an atmosphere of CO2 where free nitrogen, CO2 and H2O are obtained.

2. Kjeldahl’s method:
A known mass of the organic compound is heated strongly with conc. H2SO4, a little amount of potassium sulphate and a little amount of mercury (as catalyst). As a result of reaction, the nitrogen present in the organic compound is converted to ammonium sulphate.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 50.
Explain the principle of paper chromatography.
Answer:
This is the simplest form of chromatography. Here a strip of paper acts as an adsorbent. It is based on the principle which is partly adsorption. The paper is made of cellulose fibres with molecules of water adsorbed on them. This acts as stationary phase. The mobile phase is the mixture of the components to be identified whose solution is prepared in a suitable solvent.

Question 51.
Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.
Answer:
Organic compound is fused with sodium metal so as to convert organic compounds into NaCN, Na2S, NaX and Na3PO4. Since these are ionic compounds and become more reactive and thus can be easily tested by suitable reagents.

Question 52.
Name a suitable technique of separation of the components from a mixture of calcium, sulphate and camphor.
Answer:
Sublimation. Because camphor can sublime whereas CaSO4 does not.

Question 53.
Explain, why an organic liquid vapourises at a temperature below its boiling point on steam distillation?
Answer:
It is because in steam distillation the sum of vapour pressure of organic compound and steam should be equal to atmospheric pressure.

Question 54.
Will CCl4give white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. CCl4 is a completely non-polar covalent compound whereas AgNO3 is ionic in nature. Therefore they are not expected to react and thus a white ppt. of silver chloride will not be formed.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 55.
Why is a solution of potassium hydroxide used to absorb carbon dioxide evolved during the estimation of carbon present in an organic compound?
Answer:
CO2 is acidic in nature and therefore it reacts with the strong base KOH to form K2CO3:
2KOH + CO2 – K2CO2 + H2O

Question 56.
Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur by lead acetate test?
Answer:
Sulphur sodium extract is acidified with acetic acid because lead acetate is soluble and does not interfere with the test.
Pb(OCOCH3)2 + H2SO4 → PbSO4-+ 2CH3COOH

Question 57.
Why is an organic compound fused with sodium for testing nitrogen, halogens and sulphur?
Answer:
On Ilising with sodium metal the elements present in an organic compound are converted into sodium salts which are water soluble which can be filtered and detected by the respective tests.

Question 58.
Under what conditions can the process of team distillation is used?
Answer:
Steam distillation is used to purify the Liquids which are steam volatile and not miscible with water.

Question 59.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
1, 2-dichloropropane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 60.
Write bond-line formulas for: Isopropyl alcohol, 2, 3-dimethvlbutanal, Heptan-4-one.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 3-Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write the functional group of the following compounds:
(i) carboxylic acid
(ii) Acid anhydride
(iii) Acyichioride
(iv) Amide
(v) imines
(vi) Nitroso compound
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 2.
What are the general molecular formula and functional group of the following compounds?
Answer:
(i) Ilydrazines
(ii) Hydrazo compound
(iii) Imide
(iv) Phenols
(v) Amine
(vi) Nitroalkane
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Write the tUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) Pentan-2a1
(ii) Pentan-(2-ene-2-propyl)- i -oic acid
(iii) 4-methyl-i -cyanohexane

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(I) Hex-4-ene-2-oI
(ii) 3-ethyl-5-methyl heptane

Question 5.
Draw the structure of
(i) 1-ethyl-2-methyl cyclopentane
(ii) 1-ethyl-2, 3-dimethyl cyclohexane
(iii) 5-ethyl-2-methylcyclohcx- I -ene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 6.
Draw the structures of:
(i) 2-cyclobutyl propane
(ii) 2-cyctopropyl butane
(iii) chiorocyclo but-2-eue
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 2-(cyclo but-2-en-1-yl)-propanal
(ii) 4-(cyclopent-3-en- 1-yl )-3-methylbutanoic acid
(iii) 3-(3-nitro cyclopenryl)-prop-2-enoic acid

Question 8.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(I) 2-(2-hydroxypropyl) cyclohexan- 1-01
(ii) CyclopentyÍ benzene
(iii) Cyclohexane carboxyl Ic acid

Question 9.
Draw the structure
(i) 1-(cyclo bytyl)-2 (cylopropyl) ethane
(ii) 2-carbamyl cyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 10.
Draw the structures of:
(i) Bromohenzene
(ii) 1, 2-dichlorobenzene
(iii) 1-chloro-3-methvlbenzene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 11.
Draw the structures of –
(i) Benzvl chloride
(ii) Benzal dichloride
(iii) Benzotrichloride
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 12.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 3-methylpentane
(ii) 2, 2. 5-trimethylheptane
(iii) 2-methylbutanal

Question 13.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 3-ethyl-2-methylpentane
(ii) 2-ethyl but-3-enoic acid
(iii) 2-forrnyl-2-methylheptanoic acid

Question 14.
Draw the structures of
(i) 3-methylpentanal
(ii) 5-hydroxy 2,2-dimethyl heptanoic acid
(iii) 2-ethyl-4-propy Ipentane-d ioic acid
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 15.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 3-methylhexane
(ii) 2-methylbutanal
(iii) 2-ethylbut-3-enoic acid

Question 16.
Give the IUPAC name Of –
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 4-methyl/hexanenitrite
(ii) 2-methyl but-3-en-amide
(iii) I-Iex-4-en-2-ol

Question 17.
Draw the structures of –
(i) 3-ethyl-5-methylheptane
(ii) 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane
(iii) 2, 4-dimethylpent-2-ene
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 18.
Draw the structures of:
(i) 3-methylhcpta 1, 3, 5-triene
(ii) pent-1-yne
(iii) 2-methylpropan-2-oI
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 19.
Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) 4-mcthylpcntan-1-ol
(ii) 2, 2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
(iii) Propanoic acid

Question 20.
Draw the structural formula of:
(i) 4-methylpent-3-en-2rone
(ii) pent-1-yne-3-one
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 21.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
CH3-CH2-CH2-NH-CH3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(i) N-methylpropan- 1 -amine
(ii) N-rnethylpropan-2-amine
(iii) N, N-dimethylpropan- 1-amine

Question 22.
Draw the structurai formula of the following compounds.
(i) N-cthyl-N-methylpropan-1-amine
(ii) N, N-dimethyl benzenamine
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 23.
Draw the complete structural formula, condensed structure and bond line structure of
(i) n-propanol
(ii) 1, 3-butadiene.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 24.
Draw the dash line structure, condensed structure and bond line structure of 1, 3-dimethyl cyclopentane.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 25.
What is wedge formula? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
1. The simplest convention is solid and dashed wedge formula in which 3-D image of a molecule can be perceived from two dimensional picture.

2. In this representation, a tetrahedral molecule with four atoms or groups a, b, e and d bonded to it can be represented by wedge formula as follows.

3. A solid wedge Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
or a heavy line is used to indicate a bond projecting above the plane of the paper and dashed wedge Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
or a dashed line is used to depict the bond below the plane. The bonds lying in the plane of the paper are shown by normal lines.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 26.
Draw the fisher projection formula for tartaric acid.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 27.
Explain the advantage of sawhorse projection formula over the fisher projection formula with an example.
Answer:
1. The fisher projection fonnula inadequately portrays the spatial relationship between ligands attached to the atoms. The sawhorse projection attempts to clarify the relative location of the groups.

2. In sawhorse projection formula, the bond between two carbon atoms ¡s drawn diagonally and slightly elongated. The lower left hand carbon is considered lying towards the front and the upper right hand carbon towards the back.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 28.
Explain about the Newmann projection formula with an example.
Answer:
1. In this method, the molecules are viewed from the front along the carbon-carbon bond axis.

2. The two carbon atom forming the G bond is represented by two circles. One behind the other so that only the front carbon is seen. The front carbon atom is shown by a point where as the carbon lying farther from the eye is represented by the origin of the circle.

3. Therefore the C-H bonds of the front carbon are depicted from the circle while the C H bonds of the back carbon are drawn from the circumferance of the circle with an angle of 120 to each other.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 29.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C5H12 with their names and structures.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(i), (ii) and (iii) are chain isomers.

Question 30.
What are the possible isomers for the formula C4H9Cl? Give their structures and IUPAC names.
Answer:
C4H9Cl:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 31.
Write the metamers for the formula C5H10O with their IUPAC names.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 32.
Explain about the geometrical isomerism possible in oximes.
Answer:
1. Restricted rotation around C = N (oximes) gives rise to geometrical isomerism in oximes. Here syn and anti are used instead of cis and trans respectively.

2. In the syn isomer the H atom of a doubly bonded carbon and OH group of doubly bonded nitrogen lie on the same side of the double bond, while in the anti isomer, they lie on the opposite side of the double bond.

3. for e.g.,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 33.
What are enantiomers?
Answer:
1. An optically active substance may exist in two or more isomeric forms which have same physical and chemical properties but diflèr in terms of direction of rotation of plane polarised light, such optical isomers which rotate the plane polarised light with equal angle but in opposite directions are known as enantiomers and (he phenomenon is known as enantiomerism.

2. Isomers which are non-super impossible mirror images of each other are called enantiomers.

Question 34.
How would you detect sulphur?
Answer:
1. To a portion of the Lassaigne’s extract, freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside solution is added. If deep violet or purple colour is formed, the presence of sulphur is confirmed.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. To another portion of Lassaignes extract, acetic acid and lead acetate solution are added. If black precipitate is formed, sulphur presence is confirmed.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 35.
Explain about the oxidation test for sulphur.
Answer:
1. Oxidation test:
The organic substances are fused with a mixture of KNO3 and Na2CO3. The sulphur if present is oxidised to sulphate.
Na2CO3 + S + 3(O) Na2SO4 + CO2

2. The fused mass is extracted with water, acidified with HCl and the BaCl2 solution is added to it. A while precipitate indicates the presence of sulphur.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 36.
How would you detect the halogens in an organic compound?
Answer:

  • To a portion of the Lassaigne’s filtrate. dii. HNO3 is added, warmed gently and AgNO3 solution is added.
  • Appearance of curdy white precipitate soluble in ammonia solution indicates the presence of chlorine.
  • Appearance of pale yellow precipitate sparingly soluble in ammonia solution indicates the presence of bromine.
  • Appearance of yellow precipitate insoluble in ammonia solution indicates the presence of iodine.
    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 37.
Why nitric acid is added in the Lassaigne’s test for halogens?
Answer:
1. if N (or) S is present in the organic compound along with the halogen, we might obtain Na2S and NaCN in the solution which interfere with the detection of the halogen in the AgNO3 test.

2. Therefore we boil the Lassiagne’s extract with HNO3 which decomposes NaCN and Na2 S as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 38.
Explain about the test for phosphorous in an organic compound.
Answer:

  • A solid organic compound is strongly heated with a mixture of Na2CO3 and KNO3. Phosphorous present in the compound is oxidised to sodium phosphate.
  • The residue is extracted with water and boiled with cone. HNO3. A solution of ammonium molyixiate is added to this solution.
  • A canary yellow precipitate shows the presence of phosphorous.

Question 39.
Explain about principle and reactions involved in carius method of estimation of sulphur. Carius method:
Answer:
1. Principle:
A known mass of the organic substance is heated strongly with fuming HNO3. C and H get oxidized to CO2. and H2O while sulphur is oxidised to sulphuric acid as follows.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

2. The resulting solution is treated with excess of BaCl2 solution, H2SO4 present in the solution is converted into BaSO4. From the mass of BaSO4, the percentage of sulphur can be calculated.

Question 40.
Explain about the procedure and calculation behind the carius method of estimation of sulphur.
Answer:
Carius method:
(I) Procedure:
A known mass of the organic compound is taken in a clean carius tube and few mL of fuming HNO3 is added and then the tube is sealed. It is then placed in an iron tube and bcatcd for 5 hours. The tube is allowed to cool and a hole is made to allow gases to escape. The carius tube is broken and the content collected in a beaker. Excess of BaCl, is added to the beaker. BaSO4 furmed is converted to BaSO4 (white ppt.) The precipitate is filtered. washed, dried and weight. From the mass of BaSO4, percentage of S is calculated.

(ii) Calculation:
Mass of organic compound = Wg
Mass of BaSO4 formed = r g
233 g of BaSO4 contains 32 g of sulphur
∴ x g of BaSO4 contain \(\frac {32}{233}\) x x g of sulphur
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 41.
What is Homologous Series? Give a suitable example.
Answer:
Homologous series:
It is a series of compounds in which the adjacent members differ by a – CH2 unit. Individual members of such series are called homologues, and the phenomenon is called homology. All the members of such a series of alkane have the general formula CnH2n + 2. Few members of this family are
CH4 – Methane
C2H6 – Ethane
C3H8 – Propane
C4H10 – Butane
C5H12 – Pentane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 42.
Explain the copper oxide test for the detection of carbon and hydrogen present in the given organic compound.
Answer:
Copper oxide test:
The organic substance is mixed intimately with about three times its weight of dry copper oxide by grinding. The mixture is then placed in a hard glass test tube fitted with a bent delivery tube. The other end of which is dipping into lime water in another test tube. The mixture is heated strongly and the following reaction take place.
C + 2CuO → CO2 + 2CuO
2H + CuO → H2O + Cu

Thus if carbon is present, it is oxidized to CO2 which turns lime water millcy. If hydrogen is also present, it will be oxidized to water which condenses in small droplets on the cooler wall of the test tube and inside the bulb. Water collected in the bulb is separated on anhydrous CuSO4 which turn blue. This confirms the presence of C and H in the compound. If however, H is not present water droplet is not obtained in the bulb.

Question 43.
Explain differential extraction.
Answer:

  • The process of removing a substance from its aqueous solution by shaking with a suitable organic solvent is termed extraction.
  • When an organic substance present as solution in water can be recovered from the solution by means of a separating funnel.
  • The aqueous solution is taken in a separating funnel with little quantity of ether or chloroform (CHCl3). The organic solvent immiscible with water will form a separate layer and the contents are shaken gently.
  • The solute being more soluble in the organic solvent is transferred to it.
  • The solvent layer is then separated by opening the tap of separating funnel and the substance is recovered.

Question 44.
Explain about the principle involved in chromatography. Give its types.
Answer:

  1. The principle behind chromatography is selective distribution of the mixture of organic substances between two phases-a stationary phase and a moving phase. The stationary phase can be a solid or liquid while the moving phase is a liquid or a gas.
  2. if the stationary phase is solid, the basis is adsorption and when it is a liquid, the basis is partition.
  3. Chromatography is defined as technique for the separation of a mixture brought about by differential movement of the individual compound through porous medium under the influence of moving solvent.
  4. The various methods of chromatography are:
    • Column chromatography (CC)
    • Thin layer chromatography (TLC)
    • Paper chromatography (PC)
    • Gas liquid chromatography (GLC)
    • Ion exchange chromatography

Question 45.
Describe about adsorption chromatography.
Answer:

  • The principle involved is different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degree.
  • Silica gel and alumina are the commonly used adsorbent. The components of the mixture move by varying distances over the stationary phase.

Question 46.
What are hybridisation states of each carbon atom ¡n the following compounds?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 47.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Answer:
(a) Propylbenzene
(b) Methylpentanenitrile
(c) 2, 5-Dimethyllieptanc
(d) 3-Bromo-3-chloroheptane
(e) 3-Chioropropanal
(f) 2, 2-Dichloroethanol

Question 48.
Write the formulas for the first five members of each homologous series beginning with the following compound. CH3COCH3
Answer:
CH3COCH3
CH3COCH2CH2CH3
CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH3
CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH3
CH3CO(CH2)4CH3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 49.
Write the formulas for the first five members of each homologous series beginning with the following compound: H-CH=CH2
Answer:
H-CH=CH2
CH3CH=CH2
CH3CH2CH=CH2
CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2

Question 50.
Identify the functional groups ¡n the following compounds.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 51.
What is the difference between distillation, distillation under reduced pressure and steam distillation?
Answer:
Distillation:
it is used in case of volatiLe liquid mixed with a non-volatile impurities.

Distillation under reduced pressure:
This method is used to purify such liquids which have very high boiling points and which decompose at or below their boiling points.

Steam distillation:
it is used to purify steam volatile liquids associated with water immiscible impurities.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 52.
(a) What is Lassaigne’s extract? Will NaCN give a positive Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen?
(b) Which colour will appear in the Lassaigne’s test if the compound contains both nitrogen and sulphur.
(c) Why is Lassaigne’s extract prepared in distilled water? Can we detect oxygen iii a compound by Lassaigne’s test?
Answer:
(a) When organic compounds is fused with sodium metal and then extracted by water it is called Lassaigne’s extract. Yes.
(b) Blood red colour.
(c) Lassaigne’s extract is prepared in distilled water since ta water contains Cl’ ions. No, oxygen cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test.

Question 53.
0.3780 g of an organic compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation. Calculate the percentage of chlorine in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of the compound = 0.3780
Mass of silver chloride 0.5740 g
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 54.
In an estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.468 of an organic sulphur compound gave 0.668 g of barium sulphate. Find the percentage of sulphur in the compound.
Answer:
Percentage of sulphur
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 5 marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain about the steps involved in naming an organic compound as per IUPAC nomenclature.
Answer:
The following steps should be followed for naming an organic compound as per IUPAC nomenclature.

  • Choose the longest carbon chain (Root word). Consider all other groups attached to this chain as substituents.
  • Numbering of the longest carbon chain.
  • Naming the substituents (prefixes) or (suffixes).
  • Arrange the substituents in the alphabetical order.
  • Write the name of the compound as below.

Prefix + Root word Primary suffix + r Secondary suffix

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 2.
How will you detect the presence of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound?
Answer:
Copper oxide test:
1. The organic substance is mixed with three times its weight of dry copper oxide by grinding. The mixture is placed in a hard glass test rube fitted with a bent delivery tube. The other end of which is dipping into lime water in an another test tube. The mixture is heated strongly.

2. 2CuO + C → CO2 + 2Cu
CuO + 2H → H2O + Cu

3. Thus if carbon is present, it is oxidized to CO2 which turns lime water milky. If hydrogen is also present, it will be oxidized to water and condenses in small droplets on the cooler wall of the test tube and inside the bulb. Water is collected on white anhydrous CuSO4 which turns blue.

4. This confirms the presence of C and H in the compound.

Question 3.
Explain lassaigne’s test for detection of nitrogen ¡n an organic compound.
Answer:
I step:
Preparation of sodium fusion extract:
A small piece of Na dried by pressing between the folds of filter paper is taken in a fusion tube and it is heated. When it melts to a shining globule, a pinch of organic compound is added to it. The tube is then heated till the reaction ceases and becomes red hot.

Then the test tube is plunged in about 50 ml of distilled water taken in a china dish and break the bottom of the tube by striking against the dish. The contents of the dish is boiled for about 10 minutes and then filtered. This filtrate is known as lassaigne’s extract (or) sodium fusion extract.

II step :
Test for Nitrogen:
If Nitrogen is present, it gets converted to sodium cyanide which reacts with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate and ferric ion followed by cone. HCl and gives a Prussian blue colour (or) green coloured precipitate, it confirms the presence of nitrogen. HCl is added to dissolve the greenish precipitate of ferrous hydroxide produced by the action of NaOH on FeSO4 which would otherwise mark the Prussian blue precipitate.

Reactions involved:
Na + C + N → NaCN
FeSO4 + 2NaOH → Fe(OH)2 + Na2SO4
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
if both N & S are present. a blood red colour is obtained due to the following reactions
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 4.
Explain about the estimation of carbon and hydrogen.
1. Principle:
A known weigIt of organic substance is brunt in excess of oxygen and the carbon and hydrogen present in it are oxidised to CO2 and H2O respectively.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
The weight of carbon dioxide and water thus formed are determined and the amount of carbon and hydrogen in the organic substance are calculated.

2. Description of the apparatus:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
(a) The oxygen supply (b) combustion tube (c) Absorption tube

Oxygen supply:
To remove the moisture from oxygen. it is allowed to bubble through sulphuric acid and then passed through a U-tube containing sodalime to remove CO2. The oxygen gas free from moisture and CO2 enters the combustion tube.

Combustion tube:
A hard glass tube open at both ends used for the combustion. It contains (i) an oxidized copper gauze to prevent the backward diffusion of the products of combustion (ii) a porcelain boat containing a known weight of the organic substance (iii) coarse copper oxide on either side and (iv) an oxidized copper gauze placed towards the end of the combustion tube. The combustion tube is heated by a gas burner.

Absorption apparatus:
The combustion products containing moisture and CO2 are then passed through the absorption apparatus which consists of(i) a weighed U-tube packed with pumice soaked in conc. H2SO4 to absorb water (ii) a set of bulbs containing a Strong solution of KOH to absorb CO2 and finally (iii) a guard tube filled with anhydrous CaCl2 to prevent the entry of moisture from atmosphere.

3. Procedure:
The combustion tube is heated strongly to dry its content. It is then cooled and connected to absorption apparatus. The other end of the combustion tube is open for a while and the boat containing weighed organic substance is introduced. The tube is again heated strongly till all the substance in the boat is burnt away. This takes about 2 hours. Finally a strong current of oxygen is passed. Then the U-tube and potash bulbs are then
detached and increase in weight of each of them is determined.

4. Calculation:
Weight of organic substance = W g
Increase in weight of H2O = x g
Increase in weight of CO2 = y g
18g of H2O contains 2 g of hydrogen
∴ x g of H2O contain \(\frac {1}{2}\) × x g of hydrogen.
∴ Percentage of hydrogen = (\(\frac {2}{18}\) x \(\frac {x}{w}\) x 100
44g of CO2 contains 12 g of carbon
∴ y g of CO2 contain \(\frac {12}{44}\) × y g of carbon
∴ Percentage of carbon = (\(\frac {12}{44}\) × \(\frac {12}{44}\) × 100)%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
Explain about the estimation of halogens by carius method.
Answer:
Carius method:
A known mass of the substance is taken along with fuming HNO3 and AgNO3 taken in a clean carius tube. The open end of the carius tube is sealed and placed in a iron tube for 5 hours in a range at 530 to 540 K. Then the tube is allowed to cool and a small hole is inade in the tube to allow the gases to excape. The tube is broken and the precipitate is filtered, washed, dried and weighed. From the mass of AgX produced percentage of halogen in the organic compound is calculated.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Calculation:
Weight of the organic compound = Wg
Weight of AgCl = a g
143.5 g AgCl contains 35.5g of Cl
a g of AgCl contain \(\frac {35}{143.5}\) x 9 g of Cl
Wg of organic compound contains \(\frac {35}{143.5}\) × 9 g of Cl
% of chlorine = (\(\frac {35}{143.5}\) × \(\frac {a}{w}\) × 100)%
Weight of silver bromide = b g
188 g of AgBr contains 80 g of Br
b g of AgBr contain = \(\frac {80}{188}\) × b g of Br
% of Bromine = (\(\frac {80}{188}\) × \(\frac {b}{w}\) × 100)
Weight of silver iodide = c g
235 g of AgI contains 127 g of I
c g of AgI contain = \(\frac {80}{188}\) × c g of I
% of Iodine = (\(\frac {80}{188}\) × \(\frac {c}{w}\) × 100)

Question 6.
How will you estimate phosphorous in an organic compound?
Answer:
Carius method:
Procedure:
A known mass of organic compound (wg) containing phosphorus is heated with fuming HNO3 in a sealed tube where C is converted into CO2 and H to H2O. Phosphorous present in the organic compound is oxidised to phosphoric acid which is precipitated as ammonium phospho molybdate by heating with conc. HNO3 and by adding ammonium molybdate.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
The precipitate of ammonium phrospho molybdate is filtered, washed, dried and weighed.

Calculation:
Mass of organic compound = Wg
Mass of ammonium phospho molybdate = x g
Molar mass of ammonium phospho molybdate 1877 g
1877 g of ammonium phospho molybdate contains 31 g of phosphorous
x g of ammonium phospho molybdate contain = \(\frac {31}{1877}\) × x g of phosphorous
% of phosphorous = (\(\frac {31}{1877}\) × \(\frac {x}{w}\) × 100)% of phosphorous
In an alternate method, phosphoric acid is precipitated as magnesium-ammoniumphosphate by adding magnesia mixture. The ppt. is washed dried and ignited to get magnesium pyrophosphate which is washed, dried and weighed.

Weight of magnesium pyrophosphate = y g
Molar mass of magnesium pyrophosphate = 222 g
222 g of magnesium pyrophosphate contains 62 g of P
y g of magnesium pyrophosphate contain = \(\frac {62}{222}\) × y g of P
% of phosphorous = (\(\frac {31}{1877}\) × \(\frac {y}{w}\) × 100)%

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
Explain Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen.
Answer:
Dumas method:
Principle:
This method is based on the fact that nitrogeneous compound when heated with cupric oxide in an atmosphere of CO2 yields free nitrogen.
Traces of nitrogen are reduced to elemental nitrogen by passing over heated copper spiral.
Description of the apparatus:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
CO2 Generator:
CO2 needed in this process’is prepared by heating magnetite or sodium bicarbonate contained in a hard glass tube (or) by the action of dil. HCl on marble in a kipps apparatus. The gas is passed through the combustion tube after dried by bubbling through cone. H2SO4.

Combustion tube:
The combustion tube is heated in a furnace is charged with (a) A roll of oxidised copper gauze to prevent the back diffusion of products of combustion and to heat the organic substance mixed with CuO by radiation (b) a weighed amount of organic substance mixed with excess of CuO (c) a layer of CitO packed in about 2/3 length of the tube and kept in position by loose asbestos plug on either side and (d) a reduced copper piral which reduces any oxides of nitrogen formed during combustion of nitrogen.

Schiff’s nitromctc:
The nitrogen gas obtained by the decomposition of the substance in the combustion tube is mixed with considerable excess of CO2. It is estimated by passing nitro meter when CO2 is absorbed by KOH and the nitrogen gas gets collected in the upper part of the graduated tube.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Calculation:
Weight of the substance taken Wg
Volume of nitrogen = V1L
Room temperature = T1K
Atmospheric pressure = p mm Hg
Aqueous tension al room temperature P’ nun of Hg
Pressure of dry nitrogen = P—P’ = P’1 mm Fig
P0, V0 and T0 be the pressure, volume and temperature respectively of dry nitrogen at S.T.P.
Then, \(\frac{P_{0} V_{0}}{T_{0}}=\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}\)
V0 = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}} \times \frac{T_{0}}{P_{0}}\)
V0 = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}} \times \frac{273 \mathrm{K}}{760 \mathrm{mm} \mathrm{Hg}}\)
22.4 L of N2 at STP weigh 28 g of N2
V0L of N2 at STP weigh \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x V0
W g of organic compound contain \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x V0 g of N2
100 g of organic contain \(\frac {28}{22.4}\) x \(\frac{V_{o}}{w}\) x 100 = % of Nitrogen

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 8.
Explain Kjeldahl’s method.
Answer:
Principle:
This method is based on the fact that an organic compound containing nitrogen is heated with cone. H2SO4. the nitrogen is conerted Lo ammonium sulphate. The resultant liquid is heated with excess of alkali and then liberated ammonia gas is absorbed in excess of standard acid. The amount of ammonia (nitrogen) is determined by finding the amount of acid neutralised by back titration with same standard alkali.

Procedure:
A weighed quantity of the substance 0.3 to 0.5g is placed in a special long necked Kjeldahl flask made of pyrex glass. About 25 ml of cone. H2SO4 together with a little K2SO4 and CuSO4 [catalyst] are added to il. the flask is loosely stoppered by a glass bulb and heated gently in an inclined position.

The heating is continued till the brown colour of the liquid disappears leaving the content clear as before. At this point all the nitrogen is converted to ammonium sulphate. The kjeldahl flask is cooled aiid its contents are diluted with distilled water and carefully transferred into a I litre round bottom flask. An excess NaOH is poured down the side of the flask and it is filled with a kjeldhals trap and a water condenser.

The lower end of the condenser dips in a measured volume of excess of \(\frac {N}{20}\) H2SO4 solution. The liquid in the round bottom flask is heated and liberated ammonia is distilled to sulphuric acid. When no more ammonia passes over (test the distillate with red litmus) the receiver is removed. The excess of acid is then determined by titration with alkali, using phenolphthalein as the indicator.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Calculation:
Weight of the substance = Wg
Volume of H2SO4 required for the complete neutralisation of evolved NH3 = V ml
Strength H2SO4 used to neutralise NH3 = N.
Let the volume and strength of NH3 formed are V1 and N1 respectively.
V1N1 = VN
The amount of nitrogen present in W g of organic compound = \(\frac{14 \times \mathrm{NV}}{1 \times 1000 \times w}}\)
Percentage of nitrogen = \(\frac{14 \times \mathrm{NV}}{1000 \times w} \times 100\) = \(\frac {1.4NV}{w}\) %

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 9.
How will you estimate carbon and hydrogen present in the given organic compound?
Answer:
Both carbon and hydrogen are estimated by the same method. A known weight of the organic substance is burnt in excess of oxygen and the carbon and hydrogen present in it are oxidized to carbon dioxide and water, respectively.
CXHY + O2 + XCO2 + \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{2}\)H2O

The weight of carbon dioxide and water thus formed are determined and the amount of carbon and hydrogen in the original substance is calculated. The apparatus employed for the purpose consists of three units (1) oxygen supply (2) combustion tube (3) absorption apparatus.

Oxygen supply:
To remove the moisture from oxygen it is allowed to bubble through sulphuric acid contained in a drech gel bottle and then passed through a U-tube charged with soda lime to remove CO2. The oxygen gas free from moisture and carbon dioxide enters the combustion tube.

Combustion tube:
A hard glass tube open at both end is used for the combustion of the organic substance. It is filled with
(i) a role of oxidized copper gauze to prevent the backward diffusion of the product of combustion
(ii) a porcelain boat containing a known weight of the organic substance
(iii) coarse copper oxide packed in about 2/3 of the entire length of the tube, and kept in position by loose asbestos plugs on either side and
(iv) a roll of oxidized copper gauze placed towards the end of the combustion tube to prevent any vapours of the organic substance having the tube unoxidized. The combustion tube is enclosed in a furnace, and heated by a gas burner.

Absorption Apparatus:
The products of combustion containing moisture and carbon dioxide are then passed through the absorption apparatus which consists of
(i) a weighed U-tube packed with pumice soaked in Conc. H2SO4 to absorb water
(ii) a set of bulbs containing strong solution of KOH to absorb CO2 and finally
(iii) a guard tube filled with anhydrous CaCl2 to prevent the entry of moisture from atmosphere.

Procedure:
To start with, before loading it with the boat, the combustion tube is detached from the absorption unit. The tube is heated strongly to dry its content and CO2 present in it is removed by passing a current of pure, dry oxygen through it. It is then cooled slightly and connected to the absorption apparatus. The other end of the combustion tube is open for a while and the boat containing weighed organic substance is introduced.

The tube is again heated strongly till the substance in the boat is burnt away. This takes about 2 hours. Finally, a strong current of oxygen is passed through the combustion tube to sweep away any traces of carbon dioxide or moisture which may have been left in it. The U-tube and the potash bulbs are then detached and the increase in weight of each of them is determined.

Calculation:
Weight of the organic substance taken = w g
Increase in weight of H2O = x g
Increase in weight of CO2 = y g
18 g of H2O contain 2 g of hydrogen
∴ x g of H2O contain = \(\left(\frac{2}{18} \times \frac{x}{w}\right)\)
% of hydrogen = \(\left(\frac{2}{18} \times \frac{x}{w} \times 100\right)\) %

44 g of CO2 contains = 12 g of carbon
∴ y g of CO2 contain = \(\left(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{y}{w}\right)\) g of carbon
Percentage of carbon = \(\left(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{y}{w} \times 100\right)\) %

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 10.
Explain steam distillation (or) How is essential oils are recovered from plants and flowers.
Steam distillation:
This method is applicable for solids and liquids. If the compound to be steam distilled and it should not decompose at any steam temperature should have a fairly high vapour pressure at 273 K, it should be insoluble in water and the impurities present should be non-volatile.

The impure liquid along with little water is taken in a round-bottomed flask which is connected to a boiler on one side and water condenser on the other side, the flask is kept in a slanting position so that no droplets of the mixture will enter into the condenser on the brisk boiling and bubbling of steam.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
The mixture in the flask is heated and then a current of steam passed into it. The vapours of the compound mix up with the steam and escape into the condenser. The condensate obtained is a mixture of water and organic compound which can be separated. This method is used to recover essential oils from plants and flowers also in the manufacture of aniline and turpentine oil.

Question 11.
Explain about azeotropic distillation.
Answer:
The mixture of liquids that cannot be separated by fractional distillation can be purified by azeotropic distillation. The mixture are called azeotropes. These azeotropes are constant boiling mixture which distill as a single component at a fixed temperature for example ethanol and water in the ratio of 95.87: 4.13. In this method, the presence of a third component C6H6, CCl4, ether, glycol glycerol which act as dehydrating agent depress the partial pressure of one component of azeotropic mixture and raises the boiling point of that component and thus the other component will distil over. Substance like C6H6, CCl4 have low b.pt. and reduce the partial vapour pressure of alcohol more than that of water while substance like glycerol and glycol have high boiling point and reduce the partial vapour pressure of water more than that of alcohol.

Question 12.
Explain about thin layer chromatography.
Answer:
A sheet of glass is coated with a thin layer of adsorbent (cellulose, silica gel (or) Alumina). This sheet of glass is called chromplate or thin layer chromatography plate. After drying the plate, a drop of the mixture is placed just above one edge and the plate is then placed in a closed jar containing eluant (solvent) .

The eluant is drawn up the adsorbent layer by capillary action. The components of the mixture move up along with the eluent to different distances depending upon their degree of adsorption of each component of the mixture. It is expressed in terms of its retention factor (Rf) value.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

The spots of coloured compounds are visible on TLC plate due to their original colour. The colourless compounds are viewed under Uy light or in another method using Iodine crystals or by using appropriate reagent.

Question 13.
An organic compound contains 69% carbon and 4.9% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen. Calculate the masses of carbon dioxide and water produced when 0.20 g of this compound is subjected to complete combustion.
Answer:
Step I.
Calculation of mass of CO2 produced
Mass of compound = 0.20 g
Percentage of carbon = 69 g
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Mass of CO2 formed = \(\frac{69 \times 44 \times(0.20 \mathrm{g})}{12 \times 100}\) = 0.506g

Step II.
Calculation of mass of H2O produced
Mass of compound = 0.20 g
Percentage of hydrogen = 4.8%
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Mass of H2O formed = \(\frac{4.8 \times 18 \times(0.20 \mathrm{g})}{2 \times 100}\) = 0.0864 g

Question 14.
0.50 g of an organic compound was Kjeldahlished. The ammonia eolved was passed in 50cm3 of IN H2SO2. The residual acid required 60 cm3 of N/2 NaOH solution. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
Answer:
Step 1.
Calculation of volume of unused acid
Volume of NaOli solution required = 60 cm3
Normality of NaOH solution = \(\frac {1}{2}\) N
Normality of H2SO4 solution = \(\frac {1}{N}\)
Volume of unused acid can be calculated by applying normality equation
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
1 x V = \(\frac {1}{2}\) x 60 = 30cm3

Step II.
Calculation of volume of acid used
Volume of acid added = 50 cm3
Volume of unused acid = 30 cm3
Volume of acid used = (50 – 30) = 20 cm3

Step III.
Calculation of percentage of nitrogen
mass of compound = 0.05 g
Volume of acid used = 20 cm3
Normality of acid used = 1 N
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
percentage of nitrogen = \(\frac{1.4 \times 20 \times 1}{0.50}=56 \%\)

Question 15.
In a Dumas nitrogen estimation method, 0.30 g of an organic compound gave 50 cm3 of N2 collected at 300 K and 715 mm Hg pressure. Calculate the percentage composition of nitrogen ¡n the compound. (‘apour pressure of water at 300 K is 15 mm Hg)
Answer:
P1 = 715 – 15 = 700mm Hg, P1 = 760 mm Hg
\(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)
T1 = 300 K, T2 = 273K, V1 = 50 cm3, V2 = ?
V2 = \(\frac{700 \times 50 \times 273}{300 \times 760}\) = 41.9 cm3
% of N = \(\frac {28}{22400}\) x 41.9 x \(\frac {100}{W}\) = 17.46%

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Students can Download Bio Botany Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Plant Tissue Culture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer from the given option

Question 1.
Totipotency refers to
(a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants
(b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell / explant
(c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts
(d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants
Answer:
(b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell / explant

Question 2.
Micro propagation involves
(a) vegetative multiplication of plants by using micro-organisms
(b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants
(c) vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores
(d) Non-vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores and megaspores
Answer:
(b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants

Question 3.
Match the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture
(a) C A D B
(b) A C B D
(c) B A D C
(d) D B C A
Answer:
(a) C A D B

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 4.
The time duration for sterilization process by using autoclave is ___________ minutes and the temperature is ___________
(a) 10 to 30 minutes and 125° C
(b) 15 to 30 minutes and 121° C
(c) 15 to 20 minutes and 125° C
(d) 10 to 20 minutes and 121° C
Answer:
(b) 15 to 30 minutes and 121° C

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae such as seaweeds
(b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids
(c) Surface sterilization of explants is done by using mercuric bromide
(d) PH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0
Answer:
(d) PH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0

Question 6.
Select the incorrect statement from given statements:
(a) A tonic used for cardiac arrest is obtained from Digitalis purpuria
(b) Medicine used to treat Rheumatic pain is extracted from Capsicum annum
(c) An anti-malarial drug is isolated from Cinchona officinalis
(d) Anti-carcinogenic property is not seen in Catharanthus roseus.
(e) All the above are correct
Answer:
(e) All the above are correct

Question 7.
Vims free plants are developed from
(a) Organ culture
(b) Meristem culture
(c) Protoplast culture
(d) Cell suspension culture
Answer:
(b) Meristem culture

Question 8.
The prevention of large scale loss of biological integrity
(a) Biopatent
(b) Bioethics
(c) Biosafety
(d) Biofuel
Answer:
(c) Biosafety

Question 9.
Cryopreservation means it is a process to preserve plant cells, tissues or organs
(a) at very low temperature by using ether
(b) at very high temperature by using liquid nitrogen
(c) at very low temperature of-196 by using liquid nitrogen
(d) at very low temperature by using liquid nitrogen
Answer:
(c) at very low temperature of-196 by using liquid nitrogen

Question 10.
Solidifying agent used in plant tissue culture is
(a) Nicotinic acid
(b) Cobaltous chloride
(c) EDTA
(d) Agar
Answer:
(d) Agar

Question 11.
What is the name of the process given below? Write its 4 types.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture
These are the basic steps in plat Tissue culture technology
The process is plant tissue culture. Based on the explants, plant tissue culture is classified as:

  1. Organ culture
  2. Meristem culture
  3. Protoplast culture
  4. Cell culture

Question 12.
How will you avoid the growing of microbes in nutrient medium during culture process? What are the techniques used to remove the microbes?
Answer:
Sterilization: Sterilization is the technique employed to get rid of microbes such as bacteria and fungi in the culture medium-vessels and explants.

(i) Maintenance of Aseptic Environment:

  • During in vitro tissue culture maintenance of aseptic environmental conditions should be followed, (ie.)
  • Sterilization of glassware, forceps, Scalpels, And all accessories in wet steam sterilization by autoclaving at 15 psi (121°C) for 15 to 30 minutes or dipping in 70% ethanol followed by flaming and cooling.

(ii) Sterilization of culture room:-

  • The floor and walls are washed first with detergent and then with 2% sodium hypochlorite or 95% ethanol.
  • The cabinet of laminar airflow is sterilized by clearing the work surface with 95% ethanol and then exposed to UV radiation for 15 minutes.

(iii) Sterilization of Nutrient Media

  • Culture media are dispensed in glass containers, plugged with non – absorbent cotton, or sealed with plastic closures and then sterilized using autoclave at 15 psi (121°c) for 15 to 30 minutes.
  • The plant extracts, vitamins, amino acids, and hormones are sterilized by passing through a Millipore filter with 0.2 mm pore diameter and then added to the sterilized culture medium inside the Laminar Airflow chamber under sterile conditions.

Question 13.
Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture.
Answer:
Step 1: Growing of cells/callus in medium (Single or aggregates).
Step 2: Transfer of callus to a liquid medium.
Step 3: Agitation of callus using rotary shaker.
Step 4: Filtration and separation of cells.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Embryoids? Write its application.
Answer:
Somatic embryogenesis is the formation of embryos from the callus tissue directly and these embryos are called Embryoids from the Vitro cells directly from pre-embryonic cells which differentiate into embryoids.

uses:
Somatic embryoids can be used for the production of synthetic seeds.

Example:
Allium Sativum, Hordeum Vulgare, Oryza sativa, Zea mays

Question 15.
Give examples of micropropagation performed plants.
Answer:
Pineapple, banana, strawberry and potato.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 16.
Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Basic concepts of PTC (Plant Tissue Culture):
1. Totipotency:
Plant cells have the inherent genetic potential to get different larged into a complete individual plant if provided a nutrient medium (they can also get redifferentiated or dedifferentiated)

2. Differentiation:
(Meristematic tissue is differentiated into simple or complex tissue) The biochemical and structural change – by which cells become specialized in form and function.

3. Re differentiation:

  • Callus has the ability to develop into a whole plant in a nutrient medium.
  • Already differentiated cell into another type of cell.

4. Dedifferentiation:
Reversion of mature tissue into a meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is called dedifferentiation.

Question 17.
Based on the material used, how will you classify the culture technology? Explain it.
Answer:
Based on explants used culture technology are of following types:

  1. Organ culture – Embryos, anthers, root and shoot part are used.
  2. Meristem culture – Meristematic tissues are used.
  3. Protoplast culture – Protoplasts are used.
  4. Cell culture – Single cells or aggregate of cells from callus are used.

Question 18.
Give an account on Cryopreservation.
Answer:

  • protoplasts, cells & tissues.
  • organelles & organs.
  • Extracellular matrix & other biological material.
  • When these are subjected to temperature treatment at -196 0 C using Liquid nitrogen – This low-temperature preservation is known as cryopreservation
  • Protectants such as dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol, or sucrose are added before cryopreservation
  • The cryopreservation stops the enzymatic or chemical activity, so whenever needed the substance is subjected to room temperature to restore activation

Question 19.
What do you know about Germplasm conservation? Describe it.
Answer:
Germplasm conservation refers to the conservation of living genetic resources like pollen, seeds, or tissue of plant material maintained for the purpose of selective plant breeding, preservation in live condition, and used for many research works.

Germplasm conservation resources are a part of the collection of seeds and pollen that are stored in seed or pollen banks, so as to maintain their viability and fertility for any later use such as hybridization and crop improvement. Germplasm conservation may also involve a gene bank, DNAbank of elite breeding lines of plant resources for the maintenance of biological diversity and also for food security.

Question 20.
Write the protocol for artificial seed preparation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

  • Artificial seeds (or) synthetic seeds (Synseeds) are produced by using embryoids (Somatic embryos) obtained through in vitro culture.
  • They may even be derived from single cells from any part of the plant that later divide to form cell mass containing dense cytoplasm, large nucleus, starch grains, proteins, and oils, etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Plant Tissue Culture Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
_________ is regarded as the Father of tissue culture.
Answer:
Gottlieb Haberland

Question 2.
Identify the group of scientists who developed the intergenic hybrid – the pomato.
(a) Yamada et al.
(b) Horsh et al.
(c) Takebe et al.
(d) Melchers et al.
Answer:
(d) Melchers et al.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Questiom 3.
The production of secondary metabolites require the use of ___________
(a) Protoplast culture
(b) Organ culture
(c) Cell suspension culture
(d) Virus free germ culture
Answer:
(c) Cell suspension culture

Question 4.
Which of the following condition favours callus induction?
(a) Temperature of 25°C ± 5°C with 12 hours of photoperiod
(b) Temperature of 25°C ± 2°C with 18 hours of photoperiod
(c) Temperature of 25°C + 5°C with 14 hours of photoperiod
(d) Temperature of 25°C ± 2°C with 16 hours of photoperiod
Answer:
(d) Temperature of 25°C ± 2°C with 16 hours of photoperiod

Question 5.
Protoplast are the cells devoid of ___________
(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) both A and B
Answer:
(a) Cell wall

Question 6.
A widely used fusogen in protoplast culture is ___________
(a) Polymethyl glycol
(b) Polyethylene glycol
(c) Polyethylene chloride
(d) Polyvinyl chloride
Answer:
(b) Polyethylene glycol

Question 7.
Source of agar is ___________
Answer:
Marine algae (Seaweeds)

Question 8.
Synseeds are developed by encapsulating embryoids with ___________
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Potassium iodide
(c) Sodium alginate
(d) Potassium dichromate
Answer:
(c) Sodium alginate

Question 9.
The optimal pH of culture medium is generally ___________
(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Neutral
(d) Slightly basic
Answer:
(a) Acidic

Question 10.
Identify the correct sequence regarding steps involved in PTC
(a) Sterilization → Incubation → Inoculation → Embryogenesis → Hardening
(b) Inoculation → Induction →Sterilization → Hardening → Embryogenesis
(c) Induction → Incubation → Inoculation → Hardening → Sterilization
(d) Sterilization → Inoculation → Incubation → Embryogenesis → Hardening
Answer:
(d) Sterilization → Inoculation → Incubation → Embryogenesis → Hardening

Question 11.
Dimethyl sulphoxide is a ___________
(a) Solidifying agent
(b) Cryoprotectant
(c) Fusogenic agent
(d) Stimulant
Answer:
(b) Cryoprotectant

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : Incubation is followed by Inoculation.
Reason (R) : Explant is inoculated to media.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A
(b) R explains A
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(b) R explains A

Question 13.
Assertion (A) : Sterilization helps to overcome microbes.
Reason (R) : Explants are autoclaved.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A
(b) R explains A
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) Both A and R incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct R is incorrect

Question 14.
Assertion (A) : Protoplasts are cells devoid of cell wall.
Reason (R) : Secondary metabolites are synthesized by protoplasmic fusion.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A
(b) R explains A
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct R is incorrect

Question 15.
Assertion (A) : Development of root from callus is called caulogenesis.
Reason (R) : Caulogenesis is the final step of protoplasmic fusion.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A
(b) R explains A
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are incorrect

Question 16.
Assertion (A) : Liquid nitrogen is used in cryopreservation techniques.
Reason (R) : Gene bank DNA bank are the parts of germplasm conservation.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A
(b) R explains A
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation to A

Question 17.
Identify the cryoprotectant
(a) Dimethylformamide
(b) Fructose
(c) Glycerol
(d) Sodium alginate
Answer:
(c) Glycerol

Question 18.
Identify the wrong statement:
(a) Artificial seeds are stored for long time under cryopreservation
(b) Somatic embryos are used for artificial seed production
(c) Period of dormancy of artificial seeds is greatly reduced
(d) Encapsulation of embryoids is done using cryoprotectant
Answer:
(d) Encapsulation of embryoids is done using cryoprotectant

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 19.
Identify the plant tissue used for virus-free germplasm
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Plate meristem
Answer:
(a) Apical meristem

Question 20.
Match the following:
(A) Solidifying agent (i) Sucrose
(B) Cryoprotectant (ii) PEG
(C) Growth hormone (iii) Agar
(D) Fusogen (iv) IAA
(1) A – iii B-i C – iv D – ii
(2) A – ii B – iv C – iii D – i
(3) A – iv B – ii C-i D – iii
(4) A – i B – iii C -ii D – iv
Answer:
(1) A – iii B – i C – iv D – ii

Question 21.
Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Explants are surface sterilized
(b) Nutrient media are autoclaved
(c) Culture rooms are UV radiated for 15 minutes
(d) Glasswares and accessories are autoclaved
(a) a only (b) b and c (c) d only (d) none of the avove
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 22.
The enzymatic mixture for chemical isolation of protoplast is
(a) 0.5% macrozyme, 2% onozuka cellulase, 13% mannitol
(b) 1.5% macrozyme, 0.5% onozuka cellulase, 12% sorbitol
(c) 2% macrozyme, 0.5% onozuka cellulase, 13% sorbitol
(d) 0.1% macrozyme, 2% onozuka cellulase, 15% mannitol
Answer:
(a) 0.5% macrozyme, 2% onozuka cellulase, 13% mannitol

Question 23.
The term used to define the ability of a cell to generate entire individual is
(a) Pleuripotent
(b) Totipotent
(c) Multipotent
(d) Unipotent
Answer:
(b) Totipotent

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 24.
The phenomenon of reversion of mature cells to meristematic state leading to callus ___________
formation is
(a) Redifferentiation
(b) Dedifferentiation
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) Dedifferentiation

Question 25.
Somatic hybridization is achieved through ___________
(a) Protoplast fusion
(b) r-DNA technology
(c) Transformation
(d) Grafting
Answer:
(a) Protoplast fusion

Question 26.
Identify the mismatched pair:
(a) Digoxin – Digitalis purpuria
(b) Codeine – Capsicum annum
(c) Vincristine – Catharanthus roseus
(d) Quinine – Cinchona officinalis
Answer:
(b) Codeine – Capsicum annum

2 – Marks Questions

Question 1.
Define tissue culture.
Answer:
Growing plant protoplasts, cells, tissues or organs away from their natural or normal environment, under artificial condition, is known as Tissue Culture.

Question 2.
Name the four basic concepts of plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Basic concepts of plant tissue culture are totipotency, differentiation, differentiation, and redifferentiation.

Question 3.
What is the term totipotency refers to?
Answer:
The property of live plant cells that they have the genetic potential when cultured in nutrient medium to give rise to a complete individual plant.

Question 4.
Define sterilization.
Answer:
Sterilization is the technique employed to get rid of microbes such as bacteria and fungi in the culture medium, vessels and explants.

Question 5.
Mention the way by which culture media and explants are sterilized.
Answer:

  • Culture media are sterilized by Autoclaving.
  • Explants are surface sterilized by chemicals.

Question 6.
Name any four culture media used in plant tissue culture,
Answer:

  1. Murashige and Skoog medium
  2. Gamborg medium
  3. White medium
  4. Nitsch’s medium

Question 7.
What is Agar? Mention its role in plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Agar is a complex mucilaginous polysaccharide obtained from marine algae (seaweeds), used: as solidifying agent of culture media.

Question 8.
Write the composition of vitamins used in MS medium.
Answer:
Glycine 2.0 mg/1, Nicotinic acid 0.5 mg/1, Pyridoxin HC10.5 mg/1 and Thiamine HC10.1 mg/1.

Question 9.
Define
(a) Callus
(b) Embryoids
Answer:
(a) Callus is a mass of unorganized growth of plant cells or tissues in in vitro culture medium,
(b) The callus cells undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryos, known as Embryoids.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 10.
What do you mean by “Hardening” in plant tissue culture technique?
Answer:
Hardening is the gradual exposure of in vitro developed plantlets in humid chambers in r diffused light for acclimatization so as to enable them to grow under normal field conditions.

Question 11.
Classify plant tissue culture based on types of explants used.
Answer:
Based on the explanin some other plant tissue culture
types are:

  1. Organ culture
  2. Meristem culture
  3. Protoplast culture
  4. Cell culture

Question 12.
What is cell suspension culture?
Answer:
The growing of cells including the culture of single cells or small aggregates of the cells in vitro in liquid medium is known as cell suspension culture.

Question 13.
What is a protoplast? Which chemical stain is used to test its viability?
Answer:
Protoplasts are the cells without a cell wall, bounded by cell membrane. Fluorescein diacetate (FDA) is used to test the viability of protoplast.

Question 14.
What is a Cybrid?
Answer:
Cybrid is a cytoplasmic hybrid obtained by the fusion of cytoplasm of cells of different parental sources a term applied to the fusion of cytoplasms of two different protoplasts.

Question 15.
Given below are the secondary metabolites. Mention their plant source.

  1. Digoxin
  2. Vincristine.

Answer:

  1. Digoxin is obtained from Digitalis purpuria.
  2. Vincristine is obtained from Catharanthus roseus.

Question 16.
Define Organogenesis.
Answer:
The morphological changes occur in the callus leading to the formation of shoot and roots is called organogenesis.

Question 17.
How virus free plants are developed?
Answer:
Shoot meristem tip culture is the method to produce virus-free plants, because the shoot meristem tip is always free from viruses.

Question 18.
State the role of cryoprotectants in conservation of plant resources.
Answer:
Cryoprotectants are the protective agents that are used to protect the cells or tissues from the stress of freezing temperature.
E.g: Sucrose.

Question 19.
Name any two widely used cryoprotectants.
Answer:

  1. Dimethyl sulphoxide
  2. Glycerol

Question 20.
Expand and define IPR.
Answer:
Intellectual property right (IPR) is a category of property that includes intangible creation of the human intellect, and primarily consists of copyrights, patents, and trademarks.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 21.
Define the patent type – Grant.
Answer:
Grant is a signed document, actually the agreement that grants patent right to the inventor. It is filled at patent office and not published.

Question 22.
Point any four ways by which IPR is protected in India.
Answer:
Patents, Copyrights, trade secrets and geographical indications.

Question 23.
What does ELSI represents to?
Answer:
ELSI which represents ethical, legal and social implications of biotechnology broadly covers the relationship between biotechnology and society with particular reference to ethical and legal aspects.

Question 24.
Mention any two competent national authorities that implement Biosafety guidelines.
Answer:

  1. Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
  2. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)

Question 25.
What does the term ‘Bioethics’ refers to?
Answer:
Bioethics refers to the study of ethical issues emerging from advances in biology and medicine. It is also moral discernment as it relates to medical policy and practice.

Question 26.
State the mission of ELSI program.
Answer:
The mission of the ELSI program was to identify and address issues raised by genomic research that would affect individuals, families and society.

Question 27.
Name the two inherent capacity responsible for cellular totipotency.
Answer:
Redifferentiation and Dedifferentiation.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 28.
Compare Redifferentiation with Dedifferentiation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 29.
How the autoclaving is done for culture media?
Answer:
Culture media are dispensed in glass containers, plugged with non-absorbent cotton or sealed with plastic closures and then sterilized using autoclave at 15 psi (121°C) for 15 to 30 minutes.

Question 30.
Briefly explain the surface sterilization of explants.
Answer:
The plant materials to be used for tissue culture should be surface sterilized by first exposing the material in running tap water and then treating it in surface sterilization agents like 0.1% mercuric chloride, 70% ethanol under .aseptic condition inside the Laminar Air Flow Chamber.

Question 31.
Point out the factors that determine success rate of tissue culturing.
Answer:
The success of tissue culture lies in the composition of the growth medium, plant growth [ regulators and culture conditions such as temperature, pH, light and humidity.

Question 32.
Mention any three macronutrients and micronutrients used in MS medium.
Answer:
Macronutrients:

  1. Ammonium nitrate
  2. Potassium nitrate
  3. Calcium chloride

Micronutrients:

  1. Manganese sulphate
  2. Zinc sulphate
  3. Potassium iodide

Question 33.
What are the optimal conditions that favours the induction of callus from the nutrient medium?
Answer:
After the inoculation of explant in the nutrient medium supplemented with auxins and incubated 1 at 25°C ± 2°C in an alternate light and dark period of 12 hours with light intensity of 1000 lux, induces cell division leading to the development of callus from the surface of explant.

Question 34.
How cell suspension is prepared?
Answer:
The cell suspension is prepared by transferring a portion of callus to the liquid medium and agitated using a rotary shaker instrument. The cells are separated from the callus tissue and used for cell suspension culture.

Question 35.
What are Secondary metabolites? Give example.
Answer:
Secondary metabolites are chemical compounds that are not required by the plant for normal growth and development but are produced in the plant as ‘byproducts’ of cell metabolism.
Example: Biosynthesis and isolation of indole alkaloids from Catharanthus roseus plant cell culture.

Question 36.
Name any three secondary metabolites obtained from plants and mention their medicinal aspects.
Answer:
Secondary Metabolites:

  1. Capsaicin
  2. Vincristine
  3. Quinine

Medicinal use:

  1. Rheumatic pain treatment
  2. Anti-carcinogenic
  3. Anti-malarial

Question 37.
What is somatic embryogenesis? Give any two of its applications.
Answer:
Somatic embryogenesis is the formation of embryos from the callus tissue directly and these embryos are called Embryoids.
Applications:

  1. Somatic embryogenesis provides potential plantlets which after the hardening period can establish into plants.
  2. Somatic embryoids can be used for the production of synthetic seeds.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Somaclonal and Gametoclonal variations.
Answer:

  1. Somaclonal variations: Somatic variations found in plants regenerated in vitro
    (i.e. variations found in leaf, stem, root, tuber or propagule).
  2. Gametoclonal variations: Gametophytic variations found in plants regenerated in vitro gametic origin
    (i.e. variations found in gametes and gametophytes)

Question 39.
How synthetic seeds are developed?
Answer:
Artificial seeds or synthetic seeds (synseeds) are produced by using embryoids (somatic embryos) obtained through in vitro culture. They may even be derived from single cells from any part of the plant that later divide to form cell mass containing dense cytoplasm, large nucleus, starch grains, proteins, and oils, etc. To prepare the artificial seeds different inert materials are used for coating the somatic embryoids like agrose and sodium alginate.

Question 40.
Give an account on germplasm conservation.
Answer:
Germplasm conservation refers to the conservation of living genetic resources like pollen, seeds or tissue of plant material maintained for the purpose of selective plant breeding, preservation in live condition and used for many research works.

Germplasm conservation resources is a part of collection of seeds and pollen that are stored in seed or pollen banks, so as to maintain their viability and fertility for any later use such as hybridization and crop improvement. Germplasm conservation may also involve a gene bank and DNA bank of elite breeding lines of plant resources for the maintenance of biological diversity and also for food security.

Question 41.
How cryopreservation works?
Answer:
Cryopreservation, also known as Cryo-conservation, is a process by which protoplasts, cells, tissues, organelles, organs, extracellular matrix, enzymes or any other biological materials are subjected to preservation by cooling to very low temperature of-196°C using liquid nitrogen. At this extreme low temperature any enzymatic or chemical activity of the biological material will be totally stopped and this leads to preservation of material in dormant status. Later these materials can be activated by bringing to room temperature slowly for any experimental work.

Question 42.
What does the terms specification and claim refers with respect to patents?
Answer:

  1. The specification part is narrative in which the subject matter of invention is described as how the invention was carried out.
  2. The claim specifically defines the scope of the invention to be protected by the patent which the others may not practice.

Question 43.
Comment on Biosafety.
Answer:
Biosafety is the prevention of large-scale loss of biological integrity, focusing both on ecology and human health. These prevention mechanisms include conduction of regular reviews of the biosafety in laboratory settings, as well as strict guidelines to follow. Biosafety is used to protect from harmful incidents.

Many laboratories handling biohazards employ an ongoing risk management assessment and enforcement process for biosafety. Failures to follow such protocols can lead to an increased risk of exposure to biohazards or pathogens. Human error and poor techniques contribute to unnecessary exposure to hazards and compromise the best safeguards set into place for protection.

Question 44.
Write any three points that you know about Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
Answer:
GEAC is an apex body under Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change for regulating manufacturing, use, import, export and storage of hazardous microbes or genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and cells in the country. It was established as an apex body to accord approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production.

The GEAC is also responsible for approval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).

Question 45.
What is cybrid?
Answer:
The fusion product of protoplasts without nucleus of different cells is called a cybrid.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 46.
Explain the steps involved in protoplast culture.
Answer:
Protoplasts are cells without a cell wall, but bounded by a cell membrane or plasma membrane. Using protoplasts, it is possible to regenerate whole plants from single cells and also develop somatic hybrids.
The steps involved in protoplast culture are:

(i) Isolation of protoplast: Small bits of plant tissue like leaf tissue are used for isolation of protoplast. The leaf tissue is immersed in 0.5% Macrozyme and 2% Onozuka cellulase enzymes dissolved in 13% sorbitol or mannitol at pH 5.4. It is then incubated overnight at 25°C. After a gentle teasing of cells, protoplasts are obtained, and these are then transferred to 20% sucrose solution to retain their viability. They are then centrifuged to get pure protoplasts as different from debris of cell walls.

(ii) Fusion of protoplast: It is done through the use of a suitable fusogen. This is normally PEG (Polyethylene Glycol). The isolated protoplast are incubated in 25 to 30% concentration of PEG with Ca++ ions and the protoplast shows agglutination (the formation of clumps of cells) and fusion.

(iii) Culture of protoplast: MS liquid medium is used with some modification in droplet, plating or micro-drop array techniques. Protoplast viability is tested with fluorescein diacetate before the culture. The cultures are incubated in continuous light 1000-2000 lux at 25°C. The cell wall formation occurs within 24-48 hours and the first division of new cells occurs between 2-7 days of culture.

(iv) Selection of somatic hybrid cells: The fusion product of protoplasts without nucleus of different cells is called a cybrid. Following this nuclear fusion happen. This process is called somatic hybridization.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 47.
Point out the applications of plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Plant tissue culture techniques have several applications such as:

  1. Improved hybrids production through somatic hybridization.
  2. Somatic embryoids can be encapsulated into synthetic seeds (synseeds).
  3. These encapsulated seeds or synthetic seeds help in the conservation of plant biodiversity.
  4. Production of disease-resistant plants through meristem and shoot tip culture.
  5. Production of stress-resistant plants like herbicide-tolerant, heat-tolerant plants.
  6. Micropropagation technique to obtain large numbers of plantlets of both crop and tree species useful in forestry within a short span of time and all through the year.
  7. Production of secondary metabolites from cell culture utilized in pharmaceutical,

Question 48.
Discuss the protocol for micropropagation of banana.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 49.
Enumerate the advantages of Artificial seeds.
Answer:
Advantages of Artificial seeds:
Artificial seeds have many advantages over the true seeds as follows:

  1. Millions of artificial seeds can be produced at any time at a low cost.
  2. They provide an easy method to produce genetically engineered plants with desirable traits.
  3. It is easy to test the genotype of plants.
  4. They can potentially be stored for a long time under the cryopreservation method.
  5. Artificial seeds produce identical plants.
  6. The period of dormancy of artificial seeds is greatly reduced, hence growth is faster with a shortened life cycle.

Question 50.
Prepare a protocol for virus-free meristem tip culture.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
Transferred to field condition
Study the process given below and mention the phenomena A and B

  1. Meristematic tissue → Permanent tissue
  2. Callus → Embryoid

Answer:

  1. A – Differentiation
  2. B – Redifferentiation

Question 2.
Given below is the list of components and accessories used in the PTC technique. Sort them out according to their mode of sterilization.

  1. Glasswares
  2. Laminar airflow chamber
  3. Nutrient medium
  4. Explain

Answer:

  1. Glasswares are sterilized by autoclaving.
  2. Nutrient medium is sterilized by autoclaving.
  3. The laminar airflow chamber is sterilized by UV radiation.
  4. The explant is surface sterilized using chemicals.

Question 3.
Name the explant through which virus-free plantlets can be generated using the tissue culturing technique.
Answer:
Shoot – tip meristem

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

Question 4.
Geographical Indication refers to the products confined to a specific geographical origin. Name any three Tamil Nadu products of your knowledge that hold GI tag.
Answer:
Kanchipuram Silk, Tanjavore dancing doll, Madurai malli.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
  3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
An electric dipole is placed at an alignment angle of 30° with an electric field of 2 × 105 NC-1. It experiences a torque equal to 8 N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 1 cm is ……………….
(a) 4 mC
(b) 8 mC
(c) 5 mC
(d) 7 mC
Answer:
(b) 8 mC

Question 2.
Dielectric constant of metals is
(a) 1
(b) greater then 1
(c) zero
(d) infinite
Answer:
(d) infinite

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 3.
Two wires of A and B with circular cross section made up of the same material with equal lengths. Suppose RA = 3 RB, then what is the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3
(b) √3
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 4.
A circular coil of radius 5 cm and 50 turns carries a current of 3 ampere. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
(a) 1.0 amp – m2
(b) 1.2 amp – m2
(c) 0.5 amp – m2
(d) 0.8 amp – m2
Answer:
(b) 1.2 amp – m2

Question 5.
A straight conductor carrying a current I, is split into a circular loop of radius r as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre O of the circle, in tesla is …………..
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 1
(a) \(\frac{\propto_{0} \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi r}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{\pi r}\)
(d) zero
Hint Field due to the upper and lower semicircles will cancel out.
Answer:
(d) zero

Question 6.
The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by ΦB = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is ………………. .
(a) -190 V
(b) -10 V
(c) 10 V
(d) 190 V
Answer:
(b) -10 V

Question 7.
Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) frequency
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) frequency

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 8.
The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an electromagnetic wave, propagating along X axis can be represented by
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E0ĵ and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = B0
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E0K̂ and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = B0
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E0î and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = B0
(d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E0ĵ and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = B0
Answer:
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) = E0K̂ and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = B0

Question 9.
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is
(a) √3
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
(d) 2
Hint. Angle of refraction r = 60° ;
Angle of incident i = 30°
sin i = n × sin r
n = \(\frac{\sin 30^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}}\) = √3
Answer:
(a) √3

Question 10.
For light incident from air onto a slab of refractive index 2. Maximum possible angle of refraction is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Hint. From Snell’s law, µ = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\)
Now consider an angle of incident is 90°
sinr = \(\frac{\sin 90^{\circ}}{2}\)
r = sin-1 (0.5)
r = 30°
Answer:
(a) 30°

Question 11.
A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive plate of photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the photo electrons emitted is be (Take h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js)
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.16 eV
Hint.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 2
= (2.48 – 1.235) eV= 1.245 eV
Answer:
(c) 1.24 eV

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 12.
In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolving in the fourth orbit, has angular momentum equal to ………….. .
(a) h
(b) \(\frac{h}{\pi}\)
(c) \(\frac{4 h}{\pi}\)
(d) \(\frac{2 h}{\pi}\)
Hint Angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
According to Bohr atom model,
Angular momentum of an electron mvr = \(\frac{nh}{2 \pi}\)
n = 4th orbit = \(\frac{4h}{2 \pi}\)
mvr = \(\frac{2 h}{\pi}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2 h}{\pi}\)

Question 13.
The barrier potential of a silicon diode is approximately
(a) 0.7 V
(b) 0.3V
(c) 2.0 V
(d) 2.2V
Answer:
(a) 0.7 V

Question 14.
The signal is affected by noise in a communication system
(a) At the transmitter
(b) At the modulator
(c) In the channel
(d) At the receiver
Answer:
(c) In the channel

Question 15.
The particle which gives mass to protons and neutrons are
(a) Higgs particle
(b) Einstein particle
(c) Nanoparticle
(d) Bulk particle
Answer:
(a) Higgs particle

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Define ‘electrostatic potential”.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point P is equal to the work done by an external force to bring a unit positive charge with constant velocity from infinity to the point P in the region of the external electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot\)

Question 17.
Define temperature coefficient of resistance.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of increase in resistivity per degree rise in temperature to its resistivity at T0
∴ \(\alpha=\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{T}}-\rho_{\mathrm{o}}}{\rho_{\mathrm{o}}\left(\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{o}}\right)}=\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 18.
The self-inductance of an air-core solenoid is 4.8 mH. If its core is replaced by iron core, then its self-inductance becomes 1.8 H. Find out the relative permeability of iron.
Answer:
Lair = 4.8 × 10-3
Liron = 1.8 H
Lair = μ0n2Al = 4.8 × 10″3H
Liron = μn2Al = μ0μr n2Al= 1.8 H
∴ \(\mu_{r}=\frac{L_{\text {ipon }}}{L_{\text {air }}}=\frac{1.8}{4.8 \times 10^{-3}}=375\)

Question 19.
What is meant by Fraunhofer lines?
Answer:
When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it consists of large number of dark lines (line absorption spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as Fraunhofer lines.

Question 20.
What is power of a lens?
Answer:
The power of a lens P is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
The unit of power is diopter D.

Question 21.
Calculate the cut-off wavelength and cutoff frequency of x-rays from an x-ray tube of accelerating potential 20,000 V.
Answer:
The cut-off wavelength of the characteristic x-rays is
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 3

Question 22.
What is mass defect?
Answer:
The mass of any nucleus is always less than the sum of the mass of its individual constituents. The difference in mass Am is called mass defect.
Δm = (Zmp + Nmn) – M

Question 23.
Simplify the Boolean identity AC + ABC = AC
Answer:
Step 1: AC (1 + B) = AC.1 [OR law-2]
Step 2: AC . 1 = AC [AND law 2]
Therefore, AC + ABC = AC
Circuit Description
Thus the given statement is proved.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 4

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 24.
What do you mean by Internet of Things?
Answer:
Internet of Things (IoT), it is made possible to control various devices from a single device. Example: home automation using a mobile phone.

PART-III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 26 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Give the relation between electric field and electric potential.
Answer:
Consider a positive charge q kept fixed at the origin. To move a unit positive charge by a small ‘ distance dx in the electric field E, the work done is given by dW = -E dx. The minus sign implies that work is done against the electric field. This work done is equal to electric potential difference. Therefore,
dW = dV. (or) dV = -E dx
Hence E = \(-\frac{d V}{d x}\)
The electric field is the negative gradient of the electric potential.

Question 26.
A cicopper wire of 10”6 m2 area of cross section, carries a current of 2 A. If the number of electrons per cubic meter is 8 × 1028, calculate the current density and average drift velocity
Answer:
Cross-sections area of copper wire, A = 10-6 m2
I = 2A
Number of electron, n = 8 × 1028
Current density, J = \(\frac{I}{A}=\frac{2}{10^{-6}}\)
J = 2 × 106Am-2
Average drift velocity, Vd = \(\frac{I}{n e A}\)
e is the charge of electron = 1.6 × 10-9 C
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 5
Vd = 0.15625 × 10-3 ; Vd = 15.6 × 10-5 ms-1

Question 27.
compare dia, para and ferromagnetism.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 6

Question 28.
State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
First law: Whenever magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit changes, an emf is induced in the circuit.
Second law: The magnitude of induced emf in a closed circuit is equal to the time rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit.

Question 29.
Why does sky appear blue?
Answer:
Blue colour of the sky is due to scattering of sunlight by air molecules. According to Rayleigh’s law, intensity of scattered light, I ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\). So blue light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more than red light of larger wavelength. The blue component is proportionally more in light coming from different parts of the sky. That is why the sky appears blue.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 30.
Write down the postulates of Bohr atom model.
Answer:
Postulates of Bohr atom model:
The electron in an atom moves around nucleus in circular orbits under the influence of Coulomb electrostatic force of attraction. This Coulomb force gives necessary centripetal force for the electron to undergo circular motion.

Electrons in an atom revolve around the nucleus only in certain discrete orbits called stationary orbits where it does not radiate electromagnetic energy. Only those discrete orbits allowed are stable orbits.

Question 31.
State De Morgan’s first and second theorems.
Answer:
De Morgan’s First Theorem:
The first theorem states that the complement of the sum of two logical inputs is equal to the product of its complements.
\(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

De Morgan’s Second Theorem:
The second theorem states that the complement of the product of two inputs is equal to the sum of its complements.
\(\overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 32.
Write down the advantages and limitations of amplitude modulation (AM).
Answer:
Advantages of AM

  • Easy transmission and reception
  • Lesser bandwidth requirements
  • Low cost

Limitations of AM

  • Noise level is high
  • Low efficiency
  • Small operating range

Question 33.
What are black holes?
Answer:
Black holes are end stage of stars which are highly dense massive object. Its mass ranges from 20 times mass of the sun to 1 million times mass of the sun. It has very strong gravitational force such that no particle or even light can escape from it. The existence of black holes is studied when the stars orbiting the black hole behave differently from the other starts. Every galaxy has black hole at its center. Sagittarius A* is the black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a dipole due to a uniform electric field.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 7
Torque experienced by an electric dipole in the uniform electric field: Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) placed in a uniform electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) whose field lines are equally spaced and point in the same direction. The charge +q will experience a force q \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) in the direction of the field and charge -q will experience a force -q \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) in a direction opposite to the field. Since the external field
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is uniform, the total force acting on the dipole is zero. These two forces acting at different points will constitute a couple and the dipole experience a torque. This torque tends to rotate the dipole. (Note that electric field lines of a uniform field are equally spaced and point in the same direction). The total torque on the dipole about the point O
\(\vec{\tau}=\overrightarrow{O A} \times(-q \vec{E})+\overrightarrow{O B} \times q \vec{E}\)
Using right-hand corkscrew rule, it is found that total torque is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed into it.
The magnitude of the total torque
\(\vec{\tau}=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|(-q \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}) \sin \theta+|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}} \| q \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}| \sin \theta\)
\(\vec{\tau}\) = qE 2a sin θ
where θ is the angle made by \(\vec{p}\) with \(\vec{E}\). Since p = 2aq, the torque is written in terms of the vector product as
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{p} \times \vec{E}\)
The magnitude of this torque is \(\tau\) =pE sin θ and is maximum when θ = 90°.
This torque tends to rotate the dipole and align it with the electric field \(\vec{E}\) . Once \(\vec{p}\) is aligned with \(\vec{E}\), the total torque on the dipole becomes zero.

OR

Question 34.
(b) Explain the determination of the internal resistance of a cell using voltmeter.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 8
Determination of internal resistance : The emf of cell \(\xi\) is measured by connecting a high resistance voltmeter across it without connecting the external resistance R. Since the voltmeter draws very little current for deflection, the circuit may be considered as open. Hence, the voltmeter reading gives the emf of the cell. Then, external resistance R is included in the circuit and current I is established in the circuit. The potential difference across R is equal to the potential difference across the cell (V).
The potential drop across the resistor R is
V = IR …………. (1)
Due to internal resistance r of the cell, the voltmeter reads a value V, which is less than the emf of cell . It is because, certain amount of voltage (Ir) has dropped across the internal resistance r.
Then V = \(\xi\) – Ir
Ir = \(\xi\) – V
Dividing equation (2) by equation (1). we get
\(\begin{aligned}
\frac{I r}{I R} &=\frac{\xi-V}{V} \\
r &=\left|\frac{\xi-V}{V}\right| R
\end{aligned}\)
Since \(\xi\), V and R are known, internal resistance r can be determined.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 35.
(a) Obtain the magnetic induction at a point on the equatorial line of a bar magnet.
Answer:
Magnetic field at a point along the equatorial line due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) Consider a bar magnet NS. Let N be the north pole and S be the south pole of the bar magnet, each with pole strength qm and separated by a distance of 2l. The magnetic field at a point C (lies along the equatorial line) at a distance r from the geometrical center O of the bar magnet can be computed by keeping unit north pole (qm C = 1 A m) at C. The force experienced by the unit north pole at C due to pole strength N – S can be computed using Coulomb’s law of
magnetism as follows:

The force of repulsion between North Pole of the bar magnet and unit north pole at point C
(in free space) is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}=-\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \cos \theta \hat{i}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \sin \theta \hat{j}\) ……….. (2)
Where FN = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{q_{m}}{r^{\prime 2}}\)

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 9
From equation (1) and equation (2). the net force at point C is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{S}}\) This net force is equal to the magnetic field at the point C.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) =—(FN+Fs)cosOi
Since, FN = Fs
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 10
In a right angle triangle NOC as shown in the Figure 1
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 11

Substituting equation 4 in equation 3 we get
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 12
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 13
Since, magnitude of magnetic dipole moment is |\(\vec{p}\)m| = Pm = qm.2l and substituting in equation (5), the magnetic field at a point C
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 14

If the distance between two poles in a bar magnet are small (looks like short magnet) when compared to the distance between geometrical center O of bar magnet and the location of point
C i.e., r >>l, then,
(r2 + l2)3/2 ≈ r3 …….. (7)
Therefore, using equation (7) in equation (6), we get
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 15
Since Pmî = \(\vec{p}\) m in general, the magnetic field al equatorial point is given by
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 16
Note that magnitude of Baxial is twice that of magnitude of Bequatorial and the direction of Baxial and Bequatorial are opposite.

[OR]

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 35.
(b) How will you induce an emf by changing the area enclosed by the coil?
Answer:
Induction of emf by changing the area of the coil: Consider a conducting rod of length 1 moving with a velocity v towards left on a rectangular metallic framework. The whole arrangement is placed in a uniform magnetic field B whose magnetic lines are perpendicularly directed into the plane of the paper. As the rod moves from AB to DC in a time dt , the area enclosed by the loop and hence the magnetic flux through the loop decreases.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 17

The change in magnetic flux in time dr is
B = B × change in area
= B × AreaABCD
= Blvdt
since Area ABCD l(vdt)
or = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{d t}=\mathrm{B} l v\)
As a result of change in flux, an emf is generated in the loop. The magnitude of the induced emf is
\(\varepsilon=\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{d t}=\mathrm{B} / v\)
This emf is called motional emf. The direction of induced current is found to be clockwise from Fleming’s right hand rule.

Question 36.
(a) Write down Maxwell equations in integral form.
Answer:
Maxwell’s equations in integral form: Electrodynamics can be summarized into four basic equations, known as Maxwell’s equations. These equations are analogous to Newton’s equations in mechanics. Maxwell’s equations completely explain the behaviour of charges, currents and prop

1. First equation is nothing but the Gauss’s law. It relates the net electric flux to net electric charge enclosed in a surface. Mathematically, it is expressed as
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {enclosed }}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is the electric field and Qenclosed is the charge enclosed. This equation is true for both discrete or continuous distribution of charges. It also indicates that the electric field lines start from positive charge and terminate at negative charge. This implies that the electric field lines do not form a continuous closed path. In other words, it means that isolated positive charge or negative charge can exist.

2. Second equation has no name. But this law is similar to Gauss’s law in electrostatics. So this law can also be called as Gauss’s law in magnetism. The surface integral of ‘ magnetic field over a closed surface is zero. Mathematically,
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=0\)
where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) is the magnetic field. This equation implies that the magnetic lines of force form a continuous closed path. In other words, it means that no isolated magnetic monopole exists.

3. Third equation is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. This law relates electric field with the changing magnetic flux which is mathematically written as
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\frac{d}{d t} \Phi_{\mathrm{B}}\)
where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is the electric field. This equation implies that the line integral of the electric field around any closed path is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the closed path bounded by the surface.

4. Fourth equation is modified Ampere’s circuital law. This is also known as ampere Maxwell’s law. This law relates the magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through that path.
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\text {enclosed }}+\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{d \mathrm{A}}\)
Where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) is the magnetic field. This equation shows that both conduction and also displacement current produces magnetic field. These four equations are known as Maxwell’s equations in electrodynamics.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Obtain lens maker’s formula and mention its significance.
Answer:
Lens maker’s formula and lens equation: Let us consider a thin lens made up of a medium of refractive index n2 is placed in a medium of refractive index n1 . Let R1 and R2 be the radii of curvature of two spherical surfaces (1) and (2) respectively and P be the pole. Consider a point object O on the principal axis. The ray which falls very close to P, after refraction at the surface (1) forms image at I’. Before it does so, it is again refracted by the surface (2). Therefore the final image is formed at I. The general equation for the refraction at a spherical surface is given by
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 18
For the refracting surface (1), the light goes from to n1 to n2
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 19
If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of the lens. Thus, for u = oo, v =/ Then the equation becomes.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 20
If the refractive index of the lens is n2 and it is placed in air, then n2 = n and n1 = 1. So the equation (4) becomes,
\(\frac{1}{f}=(n-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)

The above equation is called the lens maker’s formula, because it tells the lens manufactures what curvature is needed to make a lens of desired focal length with a material of particular refractive index. This formula holds good also for a concave lens. By comparing the equations (3) and (4) we can write,
\(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\) ……… (6)
This equation is known as lens equation which relates the object distance it and image distance v with the focal length / of the lens. This formula holds good for a any type of lens.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 37.
(a) Briefly discuss the observations of Hertz, Hallwachs and Lenard.
Answer:
Hertz observation:

  • In 1887, Heinrich Hertz first became successful in generating and detecting electromagnetic wave with his high voltage induction coil to cause a spark discharge between two metallic spheres.
  • When a spark is formed, the charges will oscillate back and forth rapidly and the electromagnetic waves are produced.
  • The electromagnetic waves thus produced were detected by a detector that has a copper wire bent in the shape of a circle. Although the detection of waves is successful, there is a problem in observing the tiny spark produced in the detector.
  • In order to improve the visibility of the spark, Hertz made many attempts and finally noticed an important thing that small detector spark became more vigorous when it was exposed to ultraviolet light.
  • The reason for this behaviour of the spark was not known at that time. Later it was found that it is due to the photoelectric emission.
  • Whenever ultraviolet light is incident on the metallic sphere, the electrons on the outer surface are emitted which caused the spark to be more vigorous.

Hallwachs’ observation:
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 22

  • In 1888, Wilhelm Hallwachs, a German physicist, confirmed that the strange behaviour of the spark is due to the action of ultraviolet light with his simple experiment.
  • A clean circular plate of zinc is mounted on an insulating stand and is attached to a gold leaf electroscope by a wire. When the uncharged zinc plate is irradiated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp, it becomes positively charged and the leaves will open.
  • Further, if the negatively charged zinc plate is exposed to ultraviolet light, the leaves will close as the charges leaked away quickly. If the plate is positively charged, it becomes more positive upon UV rays irradiation and the leaves will open further.
  • From these observations, it was concluded that negatively charged electrons were emitted from the zinc plate under the action of ultraviolet light.

Lenard,s observation:
1. In 1902, Lenard studied this electron emission phenomenon in detail. The apparatus consists of two metallic plates A and C placed in an evacuated quartz bulb. The galvanometer G and battery B are connected in the circuit.

2. When ultraviolet light is incident on the negative plate C, an electric current flows in the circuit that is indicated by the deflection in the galvanorneter. On other hand, if the positive plate is irradiated by
the ultraviolet light, no current is observed in the circuit.

3. From these observations, it is concluded that when ultraviolet light falls on the negative plate. electrons are ejected from it which are attracted by the positive plate A. On reaching the positive plate through the evacuated bulb, the circuit is completed and the current flows in it.

4. Thus, the ultraviolet light falling on the negative plate causes the electron emission from
the surface of the plate.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 23

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

[OR]

Question 37.
(b) Obtain the law of radioactivity.
Law of radioactive decay:
At any instant t, the number of decays per unit time, called rate of decay \(\left(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}\right)\) is proportional to the number of nuclei (N ) at the same instant.
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t} \propto \mathrm{N}\)

By introducing a proportionality constant, the relation can be written as dN
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}=-\lambda \mathrm{N}\) ……… (1)

Here proportionality constant X is called decay constant which is different for different radioactive sample and the negative sign in the equation implies that the N is decreasing with time. By rewriting the equation (1), we get
dN = -λ Ndt …………(2)

Here dN represents the number of nuclei decaying in the time interval dt. Let us assume that at time t = 0 s, the number of nuclei present in the radioactive sample is N0 . By integrating the equation (2), we can calculate the number of undecayed nuclei N at any time t.
From equation (2), we get
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 24
Taking exponentials on both sides, we get
N = N0e-λt …… (4)
[Note: elnx = ey ⇒ x = ey]
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 25

Equation (4) is called the law of radioactive decay. Here N denotes the number of undecayed nuclei present at any time t and N0 denotes the number of nuclei at initial time I = O. Note that the number of atoms is decreasing exponentially over the time. This implies that the time taken for all the radioactive nuclei to decay will be infinite. Equation (4) is plotted.
We can also define another useful quantity called activity (R) or decay rate which is the number of nuclei decayed per second and it is denoted as R = \(\left|\frac{d \mathbf{N}}{d t}\right|\)
Note: that activity R is a positive quantity. From equation (4), we get
R = \(\left|\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}\right|=\lambda \mathrm{N}_{0} e^{-\lambda t}\) …… (5)
R = R0e-λt …………..(6)
where R0 = λN0
The equation (6) is also equivalent to radioactive law of decay. Here RQ is the activity of the sample at t = 0 and R is the activity of the sample at any time t. From equation (6), activity also shows exponential decay behavior. The activity R also can be expressed in terms of number of undecayed atoms present at any time t. From equation (6), since N = N0 e-λt we write
R = λN …………..(7)
Equation (4) implies that the activity at any time t is equal to the product of decay constant and number of undecayed nuclei at the same time t. Since N decreases over time, R also decreases.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 38.
(a) Describe the function of a transistor as an amplifier with the neat circuit diagram. Sketch the input and output wave form.
Answer:
Transistor as an amplifier:
A transistor operating in the active region has the capability to amplify weak signals. Amplification is the process of increasing the signal strength (increase in the amplitude). If a large amplification is required, the transistors are cascaded with coupling elements like resistors, capacitors, and transformers which is called as multistage amplifiers.

Here, the amplification of an electrical signal is explained with a single stage transistor amplifier as shown in figure (a). Single stage indicates that the circuit consists of one transistor with the allied components. An NPN transistor is connected in the common emitter configuration.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 26
To start with, the Q point or the operating point of the transistor is fixed so as to get the maximum signal swing at the output (neither towards saturation point nor towards cut-off). A load resistance, Rc is connected in series with the collector circuit to measure the output voltage. The capacitor C1 allows only the ac signal to pass through. The emitter bypass capacitor CE provides a low reactance path to the amplified ac signal. The coupling capacitor Cc is used to couple one stage of the amplifier with the next stage while constructing multistage amplifiers. Vs is the sinusoidal input signal source applied across the base-emitter. The output is taken across the collector-emitter.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 30
Applying Kirchhoff ’s voltage law in the output loop, the collector-emitter voltage is given by
VCE = VCC – IC RC

Working of the amplifier:
During the positive half cycle
Input signal (Vs) increases the forward voltage across the emitter-base. As a result, the base current (IB) increases. Consequently, the collector current (IC) increases p times. This increases the voltage drop across RC which in mm decreases the collector-emitter voltage (VCE). Therefore, the input signal in the positive direction produces an amplified signal in the negative direction at the output. Hence, the output signal is reversed by 180° as shown in figure (b).

During the negative half cycle
Input signal (Vs) decreases the forward voltage across the emitter-base. As a result, base current (IB) decreases and in turn increases the collector current (IC). The increase in collector current (IC) decreases the potential drop across Rc and increases the collector-emitter voltage ( VCE). Thus, the input signal in the negative direction produces an amplified signal in the positive direction at the output. Therefore, 180° phase reversal is observed during the negative half cycle of the input signal.

Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) Explain the three modes of propagation of electromagnetic waves through space.
Answer:
Propagation of electromagnetic waves:
The electromagnetic wave transmitted by the transmitter travels in three different modes to reach the receiver according to its frequency range:
1. Ground wave propagation (or) surface wave propagation (nearly 2 kHz to 2 MHz)
2. Sky wave propagation (or) ionospheric propagation (nearly 3 MHz to 30 MHz)
3. Space wave propagation (nearly 30 MHz to 400 GHz)

1. Ground wave propagation:
If the electromagnetic waves transmitted by the transmitter glide over the surface of the earth to reach the receiver, then the propagation is called ground wave propagation. The corresponding waves are called ground waves or surface waves.

Both transmitting and receiving antennas must be close to the earth. The size of the antenna plays a major role in deciding the efficiency of the radiation of signals. During transmission, the electrical signals are attenuated over a distance. Some reasons for attenuation are as follows:
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 27
Increasing distance: The attenuation of the signal depends on

  • power of the transmitter
  • frequency of the transmitter, and
  • condition of the earth surface.

Absorption of energy by the Earth: When the transmitted signal in the form of EM wave is in contact with the Earth, it induces charges in the Earth and constitutes a current. Due to this, the earth behaves like a leaky capacitor which leads to the attenuation of the wave.

Tilting of the wave: As the wave progresses, the wavefront starts gradually tilting according to the curvature of the Earth. This increase in the ti It decreases the electric field strength of the wave. Finally, at some distance, the surface wave dies out due to energy loss.

The frequency of the ground waves is mostly less than 2 MHz as high frequency waves undergo more absorption of energy at the earth’s atmosphere. The medium wave signals received during the day time use surface wave propagation.

It is mainly used in local broadcasting, radio navigation, for ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore communication and mobile communication.

2. Sky Wave Propagation:
The mode of propagation in which the electromagnetic waves radiated from an antenna, directed upwards at large angles gets reflected by the ionosphere back to earth is called sky wave propagation or ionospheric propagation. The corresponding waves are called sky waves.

The frequency range of EM waves in this mode of propagation is 3 to 30 MHz. EM waves of frequency more than 30 MHz can easily penetrate through the ionosphere and does not undergo reflection. It is used for short wave broadcast services. Medium and high frequencies are for long-distance radio communication. Extremely long distance communication is also possible as the radio waves can undergo multiple reflections between the earth and the ionosphere. A single reflection helps the radio waves to travel a distance of approximately 4000 km.
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 28
Ionosphere acts as a reflecting surface. It is at a distance of approximately 50 km and spreads up to 400 km above the Earth surface. Due to the absorption of ultraviolet rays, cosmic ray, and other high energy radiations like a, p rays from sun, the air molecules in the ionosphere get ionized. This produces charged ions and these ions provide a reflecting medium for the reflection of radio waves or communication waves back to earth within the permitted frequency range. The phenomenon of bending the radio waves back to earth is nothing but the total internal reflection.

3. Space wave propagation:
The process of sending and receiving information signal through space is called space wave communication. The electromagnetic waves of very high frequencies above 30 MHz are called as space waves. These waves travel in a straight line from the transmitter to the receiver. Hence, it is used for a line of sight communication (LOS).
Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 29
For high frequencies, the transmission towers must be high enough so that the transmitted and received signals (direct waves) will not encounter the curvature of the earth and hence travel with less attenuation and loss of signal strength. Certain waves reach the receiver after getting reflected from the ground.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

நேரம் : 2.30 மணி
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 90

குறிப்புகள்:

  • இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
  • பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
  • வினா எண் 1 முதல் 14 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
    ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதவும்.
  • வினா எண் 15 முதல் 30 வரை பகுதி-பால் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  • வினா எண் 31 முதல் 43 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் நான்கு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
  • வினா எண் 44 முதல் 46 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஆறு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
  • வினா எண் 47-ல் பகுதி-Vல் மனப்பாடப்பகுதி தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பகுதி -1

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடை தருக [14 x 1 = 14]
(விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன)

Question 1.
‘இளந்தமிழே ‘ தலைப்பிலான சிற்பி பால சுப்ரமணியத்தின் பாடல் இடம் பெற்ற தொகுப்பின் பெயர்
(அ) கொத்துப்பூ
(ஆ) நிலவுப்பூ
(இ) ஆவாரம்பூ
(ஈ) தாழம்பூ
Answer:
(ஆ) நிலவுப்பூ

Question 2.
‘உயர்ந்தோர்’ என்பதன் இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு…….
(அ) பலர்பால் வினைமுற்று
(ஆ) பெயரெச்சம்
(இ) முன்னிலை ஆண்பால் வினைமுற்று
(ஈ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
Answer:
(ஈ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 3.
இருவேறு பொருள்களுக்கான ஒப்புமையைக் கூறிப் பின்னர் அவற்றின் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்துவது. ………
(அ) பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி
(ஆ) பிரிதுமொழிதல் அணி
(இ) சிலேடை அணி
(ஈ) தொழில் உவமை அணி
Answer:
(அ) பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி

Question 4.
‘உவா உற வந்து கூடும் உடுபதி, இரவி ஒத்தார் – யார் யார்?
(அ) சடாயு, இராமன்
(ஆ) குகன், இராமன்
(இ) சுக்ரீவன், இராமன்
(ஈ) சவரி, இராமன்
Answer:
(இ) சுக்ரீவன், இராமன்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 5.
‘உத்தமச் சோழனின்’ மனிதத் தீவுகள் என்பது…………
(அ) சிறுகதைத் தொகுப்பு
(ஆ) நெடுங்கதைத் தொகுப்பு
(இ) கவிதைத் தொகுப்பு
(ஈ) கட்டுரைத் தொகுப்பு
Answer:
(அ) சிறுகதைத் தொகுப்பு

Question 6.
சம்பந்தர் தேவாரத்தைத் தொகுத்தவர்…
(அ) மாணிக்க வாசகர்
(ஆ) திருமலை நம்பி
(இ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி
(ஈ) அப்பர்
Answer:
(இ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 7.
பூப்பெயர் முன் இன மென்மையுந் தோன்றும் என்னும் விதிப்படி அமைந்த சொல் …
(அ) திரைப்படம்
(ஆ) நாடக சபா
(இ) பூங்காற்று
(ஈ) பேரூர்
Answer:
(இ) பூங்காற்று

Question 8.
வெண்பாவிற்கான ஓசை……..
(அ) இன்னோசை
(ஆ) செப்பலோசை
(இ) அகவலோசை
(ஈ) துள்ளல் ஓசை
Answer:
(ஆ) செப்பலோசை

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 9.
சரியானதைச் தெரிவு செய்க
(அ) முதல் கல் – 1. தோப்பில் முகமது மீரான்
(ஆ) உரிமைத்தாகம் – 2. பூமணி
(இ) தலைக்குளம் – 3. உத்தமச் சோழன்
(ஈ) தம்பி நெல்லையப்பருக்கு – 4. பாரதியார்
(அ) 3214 (ஆ) 2314 (இ) 1234 (ஈ) 4 231
Answer:
(அ) 3214

Question 10.
இரவு பகல் என்பதன் இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு………..
(அ) எண்ணும்மை
(ஆ) உவமைத் தொகை
(இ) வினைத் தொகை
(ஈ) உம்மைத் தொகை
Answer:
(ஈ) உம்மைத் தொகை

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 11.
METRO TRAIN என்பதன் தமிழாக்கம் ……….
(அ) மகா தொடர்வண்டி
(ஆ) மாநகரத் தொடர்வண்டி
(இ) மெகா புகைவண்டி
(ஈ) பெருநகரத் தொடர்வண்டி
Answer:
(ஆ) மாநகரத் தொடர்வண்டி

Question 12.
‘செல்’ என்ற வேர்ச்சொல்லின் வியங்கோள் வினைமுற்றைத் தெரிவு செய்க.
(அ) செல்கிறான்
(ஆ) செல்க
(இ) செல்லும்
(ஈ) செல்லல்
Answer:
(ஆ) செல்க

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 13.
‘மூதூர்’ என்ற சொல்லில் எவ்வகைப் புணர்ச்சி நிகழ்ந்துள்ளது?
(அ) உடம்படு மெய்ப்புணர்ச்சி
(ஆ) குற்றியலுகரப் புணர்ச்சி
(இ) பண்புப் பெயர்ப்புணர்ச்சி
(ஈ) பூப்பெயர்ப் புணர்ச்சி
Answer:
(இ) பண்புப் பெயர்ப்புணர்ச்சி

Question 14.
சரியான குறளைத் தெரிவு செய்க
(அ) மறத்தல் வெகுளியை பார் மட்டும் தீய பிறத்தல் அதனால் வரும்
(ஆ) மறத்தல் யார்மாட்டும் வெகுளியை தீய பிறத்தல் அதனான் வரும்
(இ) மறத்தல் வெகுளியை யார்மாட்டும் தீய பிறத்தல் அதனான் வரும்
(ஈ) வெகுளியை மறத்தல் யார்மாட்டும் தீய பிறத்தல் அதனான் வரும்
Answer:
(இ) மறத்தல் வெகுளியை யார்மாட்டும் தீய பிறத்தல் அதனான் வரும்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பகுதி – II

இரண்டு அல்லது மூன்று வரிகளில் விடை தருக [12 x 2 = 24]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 15.
தமிழ்மொழியின் பெருமையைப் பற்றி பேசாத மரபுக் கவிஞர் இல்லை என்பதற்கான கூற்று யாது?
Answer:

  1. தமிழ் மொழி நம் அடையாளம் ; பண்பாட்டின் நீட்சி ; தோன்றிய காலந்தொட்டு மக்களால் பேசப்பட்டு எழுதப்பட்டு உயிர்ப்போடும், இளமையோடும் இருப்பது.
  2. இன்றும் தமிழ் மொழியின் புகழ் எத்திசையும் இலங்குகிறது. அத்தகைய தமிழின் பெருமையைப் பேசாத மரபுக்கவிஞர்கள் இல்லை

Question 16.
‘நகரம் பட்டை தீட்டிய வெள்ளை வைரமாகிறது’ – விளக்கம் தருக.
Answer:

  • பெய்யென பெய்யும் மழைக்காலத்தில் சூரியன் திடீரென்று பயணம் செய்கிறது.
  • அதனால் காய்கிறது. நனைந்து ஈரமாகிருந்த வெளிச்சம், நகரம் முழுக்க பளிச்சென்று பட்டை தீட்டிய வெள்ளை வைரம் போல காட்சியளிக்கிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 17.
நிலையாமை குறித்து, சவரி உரைக்கும் கருத்து யாது?
Answer:

  1. சவரி, இராமனைப் புகழ்ந்து அன்பின் கனிவினால் அருவி இழிவது போலக் கண்ணீர் வடித்தாள். (இராமனைக் கண்டதால்) ‘என் பொய்யான உலகப்பற்று அழிந்தது.
  2. அளவற்ற காலம் நான் மேற்கொண்டிருந்த தவம் பலித்தது என் பிறவி ஒழிந்தது.” என்று கூறினாள்.
  3. வேண்டிய எல்லாம் கொண்டுவந்து அவள் இராம இலக்குவருக்கு விருந்து செய்விக்க, அவர்களும் விருந்தை ஏற்றனர்.

Question 18.
ஊன் விற்பவர் எப்பொழுது இருக்கமாட்டார்கள்?
Answer:
உலகத்தார் புலால் தின்னும் பொருட்டு உயிர்களைக் கொல்பவர்கள் இல்லையாயின், வருவாயின் பொருட்டு ஊன் விற்பவர் யாரும் இருக்க மாட்டார்கள்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு விடை தருக

Question 19.
ஆனந்த் வேளாண்மை பல்கலைக்கழகம் மழையைக் கணிக்கும் அறிகுறிகளாகக் குறிப்பிடுபவை யாவை?
Answer:
கார்மேகங்கள், சூரிய உதயத்திற்கு 15, 20 நிமிடங்களுக்கு முன்னதாகக் கிழக்கு வானத்தில் தோன்றுதல், செம்மை நிற மேகங்கள், திடீர் புயல், காற்றின் திசை , இடி, மின்னல், பலமான காற்று, வானவில் முட்டைகளைச் சுமந்திருக்கும் எறும்புகள் வெப்பமும் ஈரப்பதமுமான வானிலை, தூசுப் பனிமூட்டம்.

Question 20.
மையாடல் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

  1. சுவடிகளிலுள்ள எழுத்துக்கள் செவ்வனே தெரிவதற்காகச் சுவடியில் வசம்பு, மஞ்சள், மணத்தக்காளி இலைச்சாறு அல்லது ஊமத்தையிலைச்சாறு, மாவிலைக்கரி, தர்ப்பைக்கரி முதலியவற்றைக் கூட்டிச் செய்த மையை அதில் தடவுவார்கள்.
  2. அந்த மை எழுத்துக்களை விளக்கமாகக் காட்டுவதோடு கண்ணுக்கும் குளிர்ச்சியைத் தரும்.
  3. இங்ஙனம் மை தடவிப் புத்தகத்தை வாசிக்கத் தொடங்குவதனால் அக்ஷராப்பியாசத்தை ‘மையாடல் விழா என்று சொல்வார்கள்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 21.
விரிபெரு தமிழர் மேன்மை ஓங்கிடச் செய்வ தொன்றே உயிர்ப்பணியாகக் கொண்டோன்’ – யார், யாரைப் பற்றி, எதற்காகக் கூறுகிறார்?
Answer:

  • பாவேந்தர் பாரதிதாசன் வேங்கடசாமியைப் பற்றி கூறுகிறார்.
  • தமிழ் கெட நேர்ந்த போது தமிழ்ப் பணியை உயிர்பணியாகக் கொண்டு தமிழரின் மேன்மையை ஓங்கிடச் செய்தல் வேண்டும் எனக் கூறுகிறார்.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் ஏழனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 22.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்குப் பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக
Answer:
(அ) அறிந்து (ஆ) நின்றேன்
Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 1

Question 23.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்கு பிரித்துப் புணர்ச்சி விதி தருக.
Answer:
(அ) எத்திசை (ஆ) தினந்தினம்
(அ) எத்திசை = எ + திசை
விதி : இயல்பினும் விதியினும் நின்ற உயிர்முன் கசதப மிகும்.
(ஆ) தினந்தினம் = தினம் – தினம்
தின – தினம் = தினந்தினம்
விதி : மவ்வீறு ஒற்றழிந்து உயிரீறு ஒப்பவும் வன்மைக்கு இனமாத்திரிபவும் ஆகும்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 24.
மரபுப்பிழைகளை நீக்குக. யானை கத்த மயில் கூவ நரி குரைத்தது?
Answer:
யானை பிளிற மயில் அகவ நரி ஊளையிட்டது.

Question 25.
வ. ம. பே. மே.து – என்பதன் விரிவாக்கம் தருக.
Answer:
வருவாய் மற்றும் பேரிடர் மேலாண்மைத்துறை

Question 26.
கொச்சைச் சொற்களைத் திருத்துக. உணவில் பாவக்காய் சேர்த்தால் ஒடம்புக்கு ரொம்ப நல்லது.
Answer:
உணவில் பாகற்காய் சேர்த்தால் உடம்பிற்கு மிகவும் நல்லது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 27.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா தருக.
அ) வாழ்வின் அணியாக விளங்குவது கல்வி
(ஆ) நிறைய அன்பு, குறைவில்லா ஆர்வம், தொண்டில் மகிழ்ச்சி என்பன சிறந்த மனித இயல்புகள்.
Answer:
(அ) வாழ்வின் அணியாக விளங்குவது எது?
(ஆ) சிறந்த மனித இயல்புகள் எவை?

Question 28.
உரிய இடங்களில் வல்லின மெய் இடுக
(அ) திறனாய்வு கலையை தமிழுக்கு அறிமுகப்படுத்தியவர்களில் தி.சு. நடராசன் குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவர்.
Answer:
திறனாய்வுக் கலையைத் தமிழுக்கு அறிமுகப்படுத்தியவர்களில் தி.சு. நடராசன் குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவர்.

(ஆ) குடும்பமும் உயிரிகளை போன்றே தோன்றுகிறது. வளர்கிறது. பல கட்டங்களை கடக்கிறது.
Answer:
குடும்பமும் உயிரிகளைப் போன்றே தோன்றுகிறது. வளர்கிறது, பல கட்டங்களைக் கடக்கிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 29.
மயங்கொலிச் சொற்களின் பொருள் அறிந்து ஒரே தொடரில் அமைக்கவும்.
Answer:
வலை – வளை விடை வலைக்குள் மாட்டிக் கொள்ளாத எலி தனது வளைக்குள் புகுந்துவிட்டது.

Question 30.
MORPHING என்பதன் கலைச்சொல்லாக்கம் தருக.
Answer:
விடை: உருமாற்றம்

பகுதி – III

ஐந்து அல்லது ஆறு வரிகளில் விடை தருக [784 = 28]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 31.
இளந்தமிழே’ என்னும் பாடலில் கவிஞர் எவற்றை கூவி வா வா என்றும் சீறி வா வா என்றும் அழைகின்றார்?
Answer:

  • திரண்டு வரும் கவிதை வெறிக்கு வெள்ளத்திற்கு உணவு எங்கள் முத்தமிழே நீ தானே
  • முன்னொரு காலத்தில் பாண்டியர்களின் தமிழ்ச்சங்கத்தில் கொலுவிலிருந்து வணங்கப்பட்டாய், பாரி, ஓரி, காரி, ஆய், அதிகன், பேகன், நள்ளி என் கடையேழு வள்ளல்களை பெற்றுத் தந்தாய்.
  • மீண்டும் அந்த பழந்தமிழை புகுத்தவும், உடலை சிலிர்க்க வைக்கவும் தமிழ்க்குயிலே உன்னை கூவி வா.. வா.. என்று அழைக்கிறேன்.
  • நீ கூண்டை உடைத்து வெளிவரும் சிங்கம் போல குளிரான பொதிகை மலைத் தேன்சுவை மிக்க தென் தமிழே நீ சீறி வா…. வா…. என மனமுருகி செந்தமிழை கவிஞர் அழைக்கின்றார்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 32.
”வருபவர் எவராயினும் நன்றி செலுத்து” – இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்குக.
Answer:

  • இடம் :- விருந்தினர் இல்லம் என்ற கவிதைப் பேழையிலிருந்து எடுக்கப்பட்டது.
  • பொருள் : வருபவர் எவராயினும் நன்றி செலுத்த வேண்டும். ஏனெனில் வருவதெல்லாம் ஒவ்வொரு வழிகாட்டியாகிய அனுபவமாக அனுப்பப்படுகிறது. எனவே வருபவர் எவராயினும் நன்றி செலுத்த வேண்டும்.
  • விளக்கம் : வக்கிரம், அவமானம், வஞ்சனை இவற்றையெல்லாம் இன்முகத்துடன் வரவேற்று, வருபவர் எவராயினும் நன்றி செலுத்த வேண்டும். ஏனெனில் ஒவ்வொருவரும் ஒரு வழிகாட்டி ஆவார்.

Question 33.
யானை புக்க புலம் போல, தானும் உண்ணான் உலகமும் கெடுமே – உவமையையும் பொருளையும் பொருத்தி விளக்குக.
Answer:
உவமை :
சிறிய நிலத்தில் விளைந்த நெல்லை அறுத்து யானைக்குக் கவளமாகக் கொடுத்தால் அது அதற்கு பலநாள் உணவாகும்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பொருள்:
அறிவுடைய அரசன் வரி திரட்டும் முறை அறிந்து மக்களிடம் வரிதிரட்டினால் நாடு கோடிக் கணக்கில் செல்வம் பெற்றுச் சிறப்படையும்.

உவமை:
யானை தான் புகுந்த நிலத்தில் தானும் உண்ணாமல் பிறருக்கும் பயன்படாமல் வீணாக்குவது போன்றது அரசனது நிலையும்.

பொருள்:
அரசன் அறிவில் குறைந்தவனாகி முறை அறியாத சுற்றத்தாரோடு ஆரவாரமாக, குடிமக்களின் அன்பு கெடுமாறு, நாள்தோறும் வரியைத் திரட்ட விரும்புவது யானை தான் புகுந்த நிலத்தில் தானும் உண்ணாமல் பிறருக்கும் பயன்படாமல் வீணாக்குவது போன்றது. அரசன் தானும் பயனடைய மாட்டான், நாட்டு மக்களும் துன்புறுவர்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 34.
சடாயுவைத் தந்தையாக ஏற்று, இராமன் ஆற்றிய கடமைகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:

  • இராமன், தன் தந்தையின் நண்பனான அக்கழுகு வேந்தனையும் தன் தந்தையாகவே கருதி, மகன் நிலையில் அவனுக்குரிய இறுதிச் சடங்குகளைச் செய்கிறான்.
  • எப்படிப்பட்ட சிறப்பான விறகுகள் இவை என்று கண்டவர் வியக்கும்படியான கரிய அகில் கட்டைகளையும், சந்தனக் கட்டைகளையும் இராமன் கொண்டு வந்து வைத்தான்.
  • தேவையான அளவு தருப்பைப் புற்களையும் ஒழுங்குபட அடுக்கினான். பூக்களையும் கொண்டு வந்து தூவினான். மணலினால். மேடையைத் திருத்தமாக அமைத்தான்.
  • நன்னீரையும் எடுத்து வந்தான். இறுதிச்சடங்கு செய்யப்படக் கூடிய மேடைக்குத் தன் தந்தையாகிய சடாயுவைப் பெரிய கைகளில் தூக்கிக் கொண்டு வந்தான்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 35.
தொல்காப்பியம் பாவகைகளுடன் அறவியல் கருத்துக்களையும் இணைத்துள்ளது என்பதற்கான சான்று தருக.
Answer:

  • அகம் ஐந்திணைகளைப் பேசுகிற தொல்காப்பியம் புணர்தல், பிரிதல் முதலான அகன் ஐந்திணைகளை இன்பம், பொருள், அறம் ஆகிய அறவியல் லட்சியப் பொருள்களோடு இரண்டற இணைத்துவிடுகின்றது.
  • அதுபோல், இன்னோரிடத்தில், பா வகைகள் ஆசிரியம் முதற்கொண்டு நான்கு எனச் சொல்லிவிட்டுத் தொடர்ந்து.

அந்நில மருங்கின் அறமுதலாகிய
மும்முதற் பொருட்கும் உரிய என்ப

என்று பாவகைகளோடு அறவியல் கருத்துக்களை இணைத்துச் சொல்லிவிடுகிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 36.
பேரிடர் மேலாண்மை ஆணையம் – விளக்கம் தருக.
Answer:

  1. பேரிடர் மேலாண்மை ஆணையம் நடுவணரசால் 23122005ல் தொடங்கப்பட்டது.
  2. புயல், வெள்ளம், சுனாமி, நிலநடுக்கம், தீவிபத்து பனிப்புயல், விபத்துகள் முதலான பேரிடர்கள் ழும் பொழுது இந்த அமைப்புகளை ஒருங்கிணைத்து செயல்படுத்த இந்த ஆணையம் உதவுகிறது.
  3. இக்குழு மாநிலம், மாவட்டம், ஊராட்சி. சிற்றூராட்சி என அனைத்து நிலைகளிலும் பேரிடர் காலங்களில் செயல்படுகின்றது.
  4. அரசு தீயணைப்புத்துறை, காவல், தன்னார்வத் தொண்டு நிறுவனம் போன்ற பாதுகாப்பு அமைப்புகள் தயார் நிலையில் இருத்தல் வேண்டும்.
  5. பேரிடர் மேலாண்மை ஆணையத்தின் சிறந்த எடுத்துக்காட்டாய் விளங்குவது, 2006 ஆம் ஆண்டில் ஏற்பட்ட சுனாமியைக் கூறலாம்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 37.
தென்னிந்திய சினிமாத் தொழில் வளர காரணமானவர் யாவர்?
Answer:

  1. படங்காட்டுதல் மூலம்தான் முதன் முதலாகத் தென்னிந்திய சினிமாத் தொழில் தோன்றியது.
  2. மனைவியின் வைரமாலையை விற்று சாமிக்கண்ணு வின்சென்ட், பிரெஞ்சுக்கார் டுபான் என்பவரிடமிருந்து 2500 ரூபாய்க்கு ஒரு புரொஜக்டரையும் சில துண்டுப்படங்களையும் வாங்கினார்.
  3. திருச்சியில் ஒரு கூடாரத்தில் படங்காட்ட ஆரம்பித்த அவர், பின்னர்.
  4. திருவனந்தபுரம், மதுரை நகர்களில் முகாமிட்டு, மதராசுக்கு வந்து காட்சிகள் நடத்தினார்.
  5. அங்கிருந்து வடக்கே சென்று பெஷாவர்.
  6. லாகூர் பின்னர் லக்னோ நகரங்களில் படக்காட்சிகள் நடத்திவிட்டு 1909 இல் மதராஸ் திரும்பினார்.
  7. அங்கே எஸ்பிளனேட்டில் (இன்றைய பாரிஸ் அருகே கூடாரம் போட்டுச் சலனப்படங்களைத் திரையிட்டார்.
  8. சென்னையிலிருக்கும் போது சினிமாத்தொழிலை இங்கு நிறுவ ஒரு முக்கியமான அடியெடுத்து வைத்தார்.
  9. புரொஜக்டர்களை இறக்குமதி செய்து விற்க ஆரம்பித்தார். இதனால் புதிய திரையரங்குகள் வர ஏதுவாயிற்று.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 38.
மழை வெள்ள பாதிப்பிலிருந்து காத்துக்கொள்ளும் முன்னெச்சரிகை நடவடிக்கைகளைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:

  1. பேரிடர்க் காலங்களில் தாங்கக்கூடியவையாக புதிய கட்டுமானங்களை அமைக்க வேண்டும்.
  2. நீர்வழிப் பாதைகளுக்கான தெளிவான வரைப்படம் உருவாக்கப்பட்டு அப்பாதைகளைத் தொடர்ந்து பராமரிக்க வேண்டும்.
  3. சமூகக் காடுகள் வளர்ப்புத் திட்டங்களைச் சமூக இயக்கமாக வளர்த்தெடுக்க வேண்டும்.
  4. கடற்கரை ஓரங்களில் சதுப்பு நிலக் காடுகளை வளர்த்தல் வேண்டும்.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 39.
பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி உதாரணத்துடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி:
“ஓங்கலிடை வந்து உயர்ந்தோர் தொழவிளங்கி
ஏங்கொலிநீர் ஞாலத்து) இருளகற்றும் “

விளக்கம் :
இருவேறு பொருள்களுக்கான ஒற்றுமையை முதலில் கூறிப் பின் வேறுபடுத்திக் காட்டுவது பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி எனப்படும். தமிழுக்கும் கதிரவனுக்கும் இடையே உள்ள பயன் சார்ந்த ஒற்றுமையை முதலில் கூறி அவற்றுள் தமிழ் தன்னேரிலாதது என்ற தன்மையைப் பின்னர் வேறுபடுத்திக் காட்டுவதால் இது பொருள் வேற்றுமை அணி ஆயிற்று. இது வேற்றுமை அணியின் ஒரு பிரிவாகும்.

(அல்ல து)

உருவக அணி உதாரணத்துடன் விளக்குக.

அணி விளக்கம் :
உவமானமும், உவமேயமும் வேறு வேறு பொருள் எனத் தோன்றாமல் ஒன்று போல் காட்டி, உவமானத்தின் தன்மை முழுவதும் உவமேயத்தில் மறைந்து நிற்கும்படிக் கூறுவது ‘உருவக அணி’ எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா) முகத்தாமரை

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

விளக்கம்
முகமானது தாமரையாக உருவகப்படுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. நாம் கூறும் பொருள் ‘உவமேயம்’ எனப்படும். ஒப்புமையாகக் காட்டும் பொருள் உவமை’ எனப்படும்.

Question 40.
இலக்கிய நயம் பாராட்டுக. கொடுக்கப்பட்ட பாடலில் பயின்று வந்துள்ள ஏதேனும்நயங்களை மட்டும் எழுதுக.
Answer:
வானரங்கள் கனிகொடுத்து மந்தியொடு கொஞ்சும்
மந்திசிந்து கனிகளுக்கு வான்கவிகள் கெஞ்சும்
கானவர்கள் விழியெறிந்து வானவரை யழைப்பார்.
கமனசித்தர் வந்து வந்து காயசித்தி விளைப்பார்.
தேனருவித் திரையெழும்பி வானின்வழி யொழுகும்
செங்கதிரோன் பரிக்காலுந் தேர்க்காலும் வழுகும்.
கூனலிளம் பிறைமுடித்த வேணியலங் காரர்
குற்றாலத் திரிகூட மலையெங்கள் மலையே
– திரிகூட ராசப்பக் கவிராயர்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

ஆசிரியர் குறிப்பு:
திரிகூடராசப்பக் கவிராயர் என்பவர் திருக்குற்றாலக் குறவஞ்சி என்ற இசை நாடகத்தின் ஆசிரியர் ஆவார். திருநெல்வேலி மாவட்டத்தில் தென்காசியை அடுத்துள்ள மேலகரம் என்னும் ஊரில் ஏறக்குறைய 18 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டில் பிறந்தவர்.

திரண்ட கருத்து:
ஆண்குரங்குகள் பலவகையான பழங்களைப் பறித்துப் பெண் குரங்குகளுக்குக் கொடுத்துத் தழுவுகின்றன. அவற்றுள் சில பழங்களைப் பெண் குரங்குகள் சிதறுகின்றன. அந்தப் பழங்களைத் தேவர்கள் இரந்து கேட்கின்றனர். வேடர்கள் தேவர்களைத் தம் கண்களால் ஏறெடுத்துப் பார்த்து அழைக்கின்றனர். வானத்தில் செல்ல வல்ல சித்தர்கள் மூலிகைகளை வளர்க்கின்றனர். மலையிலுள்ள அருவியின் அலைகள் எழுந்து வானத்தில் வழிந்து ஓடுகின்றன. இதனால் சூரியனின் குதிரைகளுடைய கால்களும் தேர்ச் சக்கரங்களும் வழுக்கி விழுகின்றன. இத்தகைய சிறப்புகளை உடையது குற்றால மலை என விளக்குகிறாள். இந்தக் காட்சியைக் கற்பனை செய்து பாருங்கள்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

மையக்கருத்து :
பெண் குரங்குகள் சிதறும் பழங்களைத் தேவர்கள் கேட்கின்றனர். சூரியனின் குதிரைகளும் கால்களும் தேர்ச் சக்கரங்களும் வழுக்கி விழுகின்றன என குற்றால மலையின் சிறப்பினைக் கூறுகிறது.

எதுகை : இரண்டாம் எழுத்து ஒன்றி வருவது எதுகை
வானரங்கள்
கானரங்கள்

மோனை : முதல் எழுத்து ஒன்றி வருவது மோனை
கானவர்கள்
கமனசித்தர்

இயைபு: கடைசி எழுத்து ஒன்றி வருவது இயைபு
அழைப்பார்
விளைப்பார்

அணி : இயல்பு நவிற்சி அணி

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 41.
‘இளங்கன்று பயமறியாது” – பழமொழியை வாழ்க்கை நிகழ்வில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
பழமொழி விளக்கம்:
இளமைப் பருவத்தினர், தனக்குப் பின்னால் நேரக்கூடிய துன்பத்தினைப் பற்றிய பயம் அறியாமல் தற்போது உடனே ஒரு முடிவினை எடுத்துவிடுவர். அது பேராபத்தாய்க் கூட முடிந்து விடும்.

வாழ்க்கை நிகழ்வு:
என் நண்பன் மாதவன் அவன் பத்தாம் வகுப்பில் பயிலும் மாணவன் மிகவும் துடிப்புடன் செயலாற்றக் கூடியவன். ஊரிலும் சரி, பள்ளியிலும் சரி, தன்னை ஒரு வீரன் என்று காட்டிக் கொள்வதில் பெருமைப்படக் கூடியவன். யாரும் செய்யத் துணியாத காரியத்தையும் உடலை வருத்தி கடினமானாலும் அதைச் செய்து முடிந்து விடுவான்.

ஒரு முறை அவனது நண்பர்கள் அவன் தெருவின் புற்றிலுள்ள பாம்பினைப் பிடிப்பதற்கு மாதவனிடம் பந்தயம் வைத்தனர். பந்தயத்தில் வெற்றிபெற வேண்டும் என நினைத்து மாதவன் பாம்பினைத் தன் கையால் பிடித்தான். பாம்பு கடித்து விடும் என்ற பயம் கூட அவனுக்கு இல்லை. இந்நிகழ்வு மூலமே இளங்கன்று பயமறியாது என்பதனை உணர்ந்தேன்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 42.
தமிழாக்கம் தருக.
Answer:

  1. As is the king, so are his subjects.
    மன்னன் எவ்வழி மக்கள் அவ்வழி.
  2. Practice makes one perfection
    சித்திரமும் கைப்பழக்கம்.
  3. Slow and steady win the race.
    நிதானம் பிரதானம்.
  4. Experience will make a person efficient.
    அனுபவம் ஒருவனைத் திறமை மிக்கவனாக்கும்.

Question 43.
பின்வரும் தலைப்புகளில் ஒன்றின் கவிதை புனைக. செந்தமிழ் (அல்லது) நிலா
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 2

பகுதி – IV

பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு இரு பக்கங்களுக்கு மிகாமல் விடை தருக. [3×6 = 18]

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 44.
(அ) தமிழின் சீரிளமைத் திறம் வியந்து கவிஞர் சிற்பி பாலசுப்பிரமணியம் கூறுவனவற்றைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக. தமிழின் சீரிளமைத் திறத்தை வியந்த கவிஞர் சிற்பி பின்வருமாறு கூறுகிறார்.
Answer:

  • செம்மை மிகுந்த சூரியன் மாலையில் மலை முகட்டில் மறையும் பொழுது வானம் செந்நிறப்பூக்காடாய் காட்சி தருகிறது.
  • தொழிலாளர்களின் கைகள் சிவந்து திரண்ட தோள்களில் வியர்வைத் துளிகள் முத்து முத்தாக காணப்படும்.
  • இக்காட்சிகளை எல்லாம் நான் வியந்து பாடி அன்னைத் தமிழே உன் துணை வேண்டும்.
  • பெருகி வரும் கவிதைகளுக்கு உணவாக இருக்கும் தமிழே.
  • பாரி முதல் வள்ளல்களை இவ்வுலகிற்கு தந்த தாயோ!
  • உன் பழமையான நலன்களை எல்லாம் புதுப்பித்து தமிழ்க்குயிலே நீ மெய்சிலிர்க்கக் கூவி வா.
  • கூண்டினை உடைத்தெறிந்த சிங்கம் போல வா!
  • குளிர் பொதிகையில் தோன்றிய தென் தமிழே சீறி வா.

இவ்வாறே தமிழின் சீரிளமைத்திறம் வியந்து கவிஞர் சிற்பி பாலசுப்பிரமணியம் கூறுகின்றார்.

(அல்லது)

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 44.
(ஆ) திருக்குறள் ஒரு வாழ்வியல் இலக்கியம் – நிறுவுக.
Answer:

  • திருக்குறள் என்பது புகழ் பெற்ற இலக்கியமாகும்.
  • உலகப்பொதுமறை, பொய்யாமொழி, வாயுறை வாழ்த்து, முப்பால், உத்திரவேதம், தெய்வநூல் என பல பெயர்களாலும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
  • இதனை இயற்றியவர் கி.மு. 2-ம் நூற்றாண்டுக்கும் கி.பி 5-ம் நூற்றாண்டுக்கும் இடையில் வாழ்ந்த திருவள்ளுவர் என்று அறியப்படுகிறது.
  • திருக்குறள் சங்க இலக்கிய வகைப்பாட்டில் பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கு எனப்படும் நூல்களின் திரட்டில் இருக்கிறது.
  • திருக்குறள், அடிப்படையில் ஒரு வாழ்வியல் நூல், மாந்தர்கள் தம் அகவாழ்விலும், புறவாழ்விலும் இன்பமுடனும், இசைவுடனும், நலமுடனும் வாழவும் தேவையான அடிப்படைப் பண்புகளை விளக்குகிறது.
  • இந்நூல் அறம், பொருள், இன்பம் அல்லது காமம் என்னும் முப்பெரும் பிரிவுகளாய்ப் பிரிந்தும், அழகுடன் இணைந்தும், கோர்த்தும் விளங்குகிறது.
  • இதில் அறத்துப்பாலில் – 38 அதிகாரமும், பொருட்பாலில் – 70 அதிகாரமும், காமத்துப்பாலில் 25 என 133 அதிகாரங்களைக் கொண்டுள்ளது.
  • திருக்குறளில் கூறப்பட்ட அனைத்து கருத்துக்களும் உலகின் பல்வேறு சமயங்களில் வலியுறுத்தப்பட்ட கருத்துக்களுடன் ஒப்பிட்டுப் பார்க்கும் போது, அனைத்து மதத்தினரும் ஏற்றுக்கொள்ளும் வகையில் உள்ளது.
  • எல்லா மதமும், எல்லா சமயமும், எல்லா நாட்டு மக்களும் ஏற்றுக்கொள்வதால் தான் உலகப்பொதுமறை என்று இந்நூல் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

“ஆயிரம் மொழிகளைக் கற்றுக் கொள்ளுங்கள்
ஆனால் தாய்மொழியை மறந்துவிடாதீர்கள் ”
“எந்த நாட்டில் வேண்டுமானாலும் வாழுங்கள்
ஆனால், சொந்த நாட்டை மறந்துவிடாதீர்கள்”

Question 45.
(அ) மயிலையார் ஓர் ” ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்” என்னும் கூற்றினைச் சான்றுகளுடன் கட்டுரைக்க.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:

  • ஒவ்வொரு தேசிய இனமும் தன்னுடைய கடந்தகால வரலாற்றை அறிந்திருந்தால் மட்டுமே எதிர்கால இலக்குகளை அடைய முடியும்.
  • அத்தகைய இன வரலாற்றை இலக்கியம், தொல்லியல், கல்வெட்டு, பண்பாடு ஆகியவற்றின் அடிப்படையில் தரவுகளைத் தேடி எழுதிய ஆளுமைகளில் முக்கியமானவர் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமி.
  • இதழ் ஆசிரியராக வாழ்க்கையைத் தொடங்கிய அவர், பள்ளி ஆசிரியராகப் பணியாற்றிய படியே எழுதி முடித்த புத்தகங்களே. தமிழர் தம் பழம்பெருமையை உணர உதவும் புதையலாக விளங்குகிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

தொடக்ககால ஆய்வுகள் :

  1. 1934 இல் தெ.பொ. மீனாட்சி சுந்தரனார் சிந்தாதிரிப்பேட்டை உயர்நிலைப் பள்ளியில் நடத்திய தமிழ் ஆராய்ச்சி மாநாட்டில் ச.த. சற்குணர், கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும் என்ற பொருள் குறித்து உரையாற்றினார்.
  2. அவ்வுரையைக் கேட்டுப் பெற்ற ஆர்வத்தினால் கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும்’ என்னும் நூலை மயிலையார் எழுதினார். இதுவே அவருடைய முதல் நூலாகும்.
  3. தமிழின் தொல் இலக்கியம், தொல் கலை, தொல்லெழுத்து ஆகியவற்றில் கொண்ட ஈடுபாடு காரணமாக, பௌத்தமும் தமிழும் சமணமும் தமிழும்’ ஆகிய நூல்களை அவர் இயற்றினார்.
  4. சமயம், மானுடவியல், தமிழக வரலாறு, தொல்பொருள் ஆய்வு, கலை வரலாறு, மொழியாய்வு முதலான பல துறைகளிலும் இவர் கவனம் செலுத்தினார்.
  5. குறிப்பாக, கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வில் இவருக்குப் பயிற்சி அதிகம். தமிழ் எழுத்தியலின் வளர்ச்சியை நன்குணர்ந்தவர்.
  6. வட்டெழுத்து, கோலெழுத்து, தமிழ் பிராம்மி ஆகியவற்றில் புலமை பெற்றிருந்த காரணத்தால் சாசனங்களை அவரால் எளிதாக வாசிக்க முடிந்தது.
  7. வரலாறு, இலக்கியம், கலையியல், சமயம் எனப் பல துறைகளிலும் நூல்களை எழுதியிருப்பது வேங்கடசாமியின் பன்முக அறிவை விளக்குகிறது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

வரலாற்று ஆய்வு :

  • மகேந்திரவர்மன், நரசிம்மவர்மன் ஆகியோர் குறித்த நூல்களைத் தொடர்ந்து மூன்றாம் நந்திவர்மன் என்னும் பல்லவ மன்னனைப் பற்றியும் அவர் எழுதினார்.
  • தமிழில் அம்மன்னனைப் பற்றி எழுதப்பட்ட முதல் நூல் என்னும் பெருமையைப் பெற்றது.
  • சங்க கால மூவேந்தர்கள், கொங்குநாட்டு மன்னர்கள், துளுநாட்டு மன்னர்கள், களப்பிரர் மற்றும் இலங்கை குறித்த வரலாறு ஆகியவற்றையும் எழுதியுள்ளார்.
  • சங்க காலத்துக்குப் பிற்பட்ட காலத்தில் தமிழகத்தைக் களப்பிரர்கள் என்ற மன்னர்கள் ஆட்சி புரிந்தனர்.
  • இக்காலம் தமிழர்களின் வரலாற்றில் இருண்ட காலம் என்று மரபுவழிப்பட்ட வரலாற்று ஆசிரியர்கள் குறித்தனர்.
  • இம்மன்னர்கள் குறித்த ஆய்வை வேங்கடசாமி விரிவாக ஆராய்ந்து களப்பிரர் குறித்த புதிய கண்ணோட்டத்தைக் களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம்’ என்னும் நூல் மூலம் வெளிப்படுத்தினார்.

கலையியல் ஆய்வு:

  • கலையியல் சார்ந்து தமிழில் வெளியான பல நூல்களுக்கும் வேங்கடசாமியே வழிகாட்டியாக விளங்கினார்.
  • தமிழரது கலைத்திறனை எடுத்தோதும் தமிழர் வளர்த்த அழகுக்கலைகள்’ என்னும் நூல், கவின் கலைகள் குறித்துத் தமிழில் வெளிவந்த முழுமையான முதல் நூல் ஆகும்.
  • இந்நூல் தமிழக அரசின் முதற்பரிசைப் பெற்றது. இறைவன் ஆடிய எழுவகைத் தாண்டவம்.
  • நுண்கலைகள், இசைவாணர் கதைகள் ஆகியவை கலை பற்றிய இவருடைய பிற நூல்கள் ஆகும்.
  • தமது நூல்களின் படங்களைத் தானே வரைந்து வெளியிட்டது இவரது கலைத்திறனுக்குச் சான்றாகும்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வுகள்:

  • சங்ககாலத் தமிழக வரலாற்றில் சில செய்திகள், பழங்காலத் தமிழர் வணிகம், களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம், கொங்கு நாட்டு வரலாறு, தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு – சங்க காலம் (அரசியல்) ஆகிய நூல்களையும் எழுதினார்.
  • ஆய்வுலகில் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமியின் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க பங்களிப்பைக் கூற வேண்டுமானால் தமிழக வரலாற்றினைப் பல கோணங்களில் மீட்டுருவாக்கம் செய்ததைக் குறிப்பிடலாம்.
  • தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு என்னும் நூல் இவருடைய மீட்டுருவாக்க முயற்சிக்குச் சரியான சான்றாகும்.
  • தமிழியலுக்குத் தேவையான பல்வேறு ஆவணங்களையும் தொகுத்து ஆய்வு செய்யும் பணியை இவர் மேற்கொண்டார். இப்பணியின் விளைவாக, சாசனச் செய்யுள் மஞ்சரி, மறைந்து போன தமிழ் நூல்கள் ஆகிய நூல்களை எழுதினார்.

பன்மொழிப் புலமை :

  • தமிழ் ஆய்வு மரபில், சொல் ஆய்வுகளை மேற்கொள்ளாத ஆய்வாளர் இல்லை. நீண்ட வரலாறு கொண்ட மொழியின் சொற்களில் இவ்வகையான ஆய்வுக்குரிய ஏதுக்கள் மிகுதியாகும்.
  • வேங்கடசாமி தொடர்ச்சியாக இத்தகைய சொல்லாய்வுப் பணியை மேற்கொண்டு வந்துள்ளார். செந்தமிழ்ச் செல்வி ‘ என்னும் இதழில் அவர் எழுதிய சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள் அஞ்சிறைத் தும்பி’ என்ற தொகுப்பாக வெளியிடப்பட்டது.
  • மகேந்திரவர்மன் இயற்றிய மத்த விலாசம்’ என்ற நாடக நூலை ஆங்கிலம் வழியாகத் தமிழாக்கியுள்ளார்.
  • தமிழ்ப் பண்பாட்டிலும் தமிழர் வரலாற்றிலும் ஆழ்ந்த அக்கறை கொண்ட மயிலை சீனி.
  • அவர்கள் தமிழர் பண்பாட்டின் தனித்தன்மையை நிறுவுவதில் உறுதியான பார்வை கொண்டவர்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்:

  • மயிலை சீனியாரால் பல ஆய்வுகள் தமிழுலகுக்கு முதன்முதலாக வழங்கப்பட்டவை. இவரது ஆய்வுகள் அறிஞருக்கு மட்டுமன்றிப் பொதுமக்களுக்கும் அறிவு விருந்தோம்பியவை.
  • பல ஆய்வுகள் கிளைவிடுவதற்கு அடிமரமாக இருந்தவை. இவரது ஆய்வுகள், வேண்டாத நூலிது என்றோ நூலில் வேண்டாத பகுதி என்றோ ஒதுக்க முடியாத வகையில் இவரது எழுத்தாளுமை திகழ்ந்தது.

முடிவுரை:

  • தமிழக வரலாற்றுக் கழகத்திலும் தமிழகப் புலவர் குழுவிலும் உறுப்பினராக இருந்து பெருந்தொண்டாற்றிய வேங்கடசாமிக்கு 1962இல் தமிழ் எழுத்தாளர் சங்கம் பாராட்டிக் கேடயம் வழங்கியது.
  • மதுரைக் காமராசர் பல்கலைக்கழகம் தமிழ்ப் பேரவைச் செம்மல்’ என்ற விருதினை அளித்தது.
  • தமது ஓயாத தேடலினாலும் கடுமையான உழைப்பாலும் அரிய ஆய்வு முடிவுகளைக் கொணர்ந்த இம்மாமனிதருக்கு அறிஞர்கள் கூடிச் சென்னை கோகலே மண்டபத்தில் மணிவிழா எடுத்து ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்’ என்ற பட்டத்தை வழங்கினார்.
    (அல்லது)

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 45.
(ஆ) ஒவ்வொரு நகரத்துக்கும் வரலாறும் வடிவழகும் உண்டு’ – நீங்கள் பார்த்த அல்லது வாழ்ந்த ஒரு நகரம் குறித்து இருபக்க அளவில் கட்டுரை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
மதுரை தமிழ்நாட்டில் அமைந்துள்ள ஒரு தொன்மையான நகரம் ஆகும். மதுரை மாவட்டத்தின் தலைநகராக இருப்பது மதுரை. அம்மதுரையின் சிறப்பு குறித்து இக்கட்டுரையில் காண்போம்.

மதுரை மாநகர்:
தமிழ்நாட்டின் 3 ஆவது பெரிய நகரம் மதுரை. 10 லட்சத்திற்கும் மேல் மக்கட்தொகை கொண்டது. இந்திய மாநகரங்களின் பட்டியலில் 31 ஆவது பெரிய நகரம் வைகை ஆற்றங்கரையில் அமைந்துள்ள மதுரை மீனாட்சியம்மன் கோவில் மிகவும் புகழ்வாய்ந்தது.

பழமை :
இந்திய துணைக் கண்டத்தில் தொன்மையான வரலாற்றை கொண்ட மதுரை சுமார் 25,000 ஆண்டுகள் பழமையானது, பாண்டிய மன்னர்களின் தலைமையிடமாக விளங்கியது.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பெயர்க்காரணம்:
இந்நகரம் மதுரை, கூடல், மல்லிகை மாநகர், நான் மாடக்கூடல் திரு ஆலவாய் போன்ற பல்வேறு பெயர்களால் குறிக்கப்படுகிறது. மருதத்துறை மதுரை, மருதமரங்கள் மிகுதியாகவிருந்ததால் மருதத்துறை என்பது மருவி, மதுரை என ஆனது. இந்துக்கடவுள் சிவனின் தலையிலிருந்து பொழிந்த மதுரத்தால் இப்பெயர் பெற்றது என்றும் கூறுவர்.

வரலாற்று நினைவிடங்கள்:
மதுரையில் வரலாற்று நினைவிடங்கள் பல அமைந்துள்ளன. மீனாட்சியம்மன் கோவில், திருமலை நாயக்கர் அரண்மனை, போன்றவை அவற்றில் புகழ் பெற்றவை. இந்நகரில் ஆண்டுதோறும் பல கொண்டாட்டங்கள் நடை பெறுகிறது. அவற்றில் புகழ் பெற்றது சித்திரைத் திருவிழா. இது 10 நாட்கள் நடைபெறும் திருகல்யாணம் ஆகும். அதில் கள்ளழகர் ஆற்றில் இறங்குதல் சிறப்பு.

ஏறுதழுவுதல் :
மதுரை மாநகரில் ஏறுதழுவுதல் மிகவும் சிறப்பு வாய்ந்த ஒன்று. பொங்கல் திருநாளை முன்னிட்டு நடைபெறும் ஏறுதழுவுதல் நகரின் அருகே உள்ள அலங்காநல்லூர், பாலமேடு பகுதிகளில் நடைபெறும். இது பலகாலமாக நடைப்பெற்று வரும் ஒரு நிகழ்வாகும். தற்பொழுது ஏறுதழுவுதலுக்கு தடைவிதிக்கப்பட்டு பல போராட்டங்களை மக்கள் நடத்தி அதில் வெற்றி பெற்றனர்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

தொழில் மற்றும் கல்வி :
மதுரை தென் தமிழகத்தின் முக்கிய தொழிற்துறை மையமாகவும், கல்வி மையமாகவும் திகழ்கிறது. இரப்பர், கிரானைட் போன்ற உற்பத்தித் தொழில்கள் மதுரையில் நடைபெறுகின்றன. தகவல் தொழில் நுட்பத்துறையில் இரண்டாம் அடுக்கு நகரமாகப் பட்டியலிடப்பட்டுள்ளது. இங்கு மென்பொருள் தயாரிப்பு நிறுவனங்கள் அமைந்துள்ளன.

மதுரை மருத்துவக் கல்லூரி, ஓமியோ மருத்துவக் கல்லூரி, மதுரை சட்டக் கல்லூரி, வேளாண் கல்லூரி மற்றும் ஆராய்ச்சி நிலையம் போன்ற கல்வி நிலையங்கள் மதுரையில் நகரில் அமைந்துள்ளது.

முடிவுரை:
முச்சங்கம் வளர்த்த மதுரையில் அன்பும் அருளும் நிறைந்திருக்கும். அவை வரலாறும் வடிவழகும் கொண்டது. அந்நகரில் வாழ்வது சிறப்பு வாய்ந்தன.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 46.
(அ கோடைமழை கதை வாயிலாக விளக்கப்படும் மனித நேயப் பண்புகளை விளக்குக.
Answer:
1. மருத்துவமனையின் உள்ளிருந்து வெளியே வந்தாள் ஒரு பெண்.

2. தாயின் தோளில் கோழிக்குஞ்சாய் ஒரு பிஞ்சு ஒடுங்கி இருக்க அவள் கை அதைச் சுற்றிப் படர்ந்து இருந்தது பார்க்கவும் நினைக்கவும் மிகவும் பாந்தமாக இருந்தது.

3. நெடுமூச்சு தவிர வேறு ஏதும் இல்லாத குழந்தை மீதான தன் கையை அழுத்தி இருத்திக் கொண்டாள். இந்த அரவணைப்பு இதற்கு இன்னும் எத்தனை நாட்களுக்கு…? தனக்குப் பிறகு….?

4. பிள்ளையைப் பரிசோதித்த டாக்டர் நெஞ்சில் சளி கட்டி இருப்பதால் காய்ச்சல்… பயப்படத் தேவையில்லை, பக்குவமாய்ப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டால் இரு தினங்களில் தணிந்துவிடும் என மருந்து எழுதிக் கொடுத்தார்.

5. ‘உங்க கை இப்படி நடுங்குது பெரியவரே… வீட்ல வேற யாரும் இல்லையா? ஊசி போட்ட வலியால் வீறிட்ட குழந்தையை லாவகமாய் அணைத்துச் சமாதானப்படுத்தி அவ்வாறு கேட்ட வெள்ளையுடை தேவதைக்கு நன்றிச் சிரிப்பை மட்டுமே பதிலாக விட்டு வெளியே வந்தார்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

6. தவித்த தொண்டையைத் தேநீரால் ஆசுவாசப்படுத்திக் கொண்டு வழக்கமாய் வாங்கும் மருந்துக் கடை நோக்கிப் பயணப்பட்டார்.

7. “வாங்கய்யா உட்காருங்க. புள்ளைக்கு உடம்பு சரியில்லையா? இப்படிக் கொடுங்க….. கைச்சுமை மட்டும் இடம் மாறியது.

8. ”மூணு நாளா சிரமப்படுது பாவம். டாக்டர் ஊசி போட்டு மருந்து எழுதிக் குடுத்திருக்கார். சரியாயிடும். இப்போ உன்கிட்ட மருந்து வாங்க மட்டும் வரல பாபு” ….. சீட்டை நீட்டியபடி அமைதியாய்ச் சொன்னவரை யோசனையுடன் பார்த்தான் பாபு.

9. “ரொம்ப நாளாகவே சொல்லிக்கிட்டு இருக்கே, இப்ப எனக்கும் சரியாய்த்தான் படறது. இதுக்காக இன்னும் நிறைய நாள் உசிரோட இருக்கணும்னு எனக்கும் ஆசைதான்.

10. நெஞ்சில் உரம் இருந்தாலும் உடம்பு கேட்கணுமே? சாவோட மல்லுக்கு நிக்கிற வயசா? அப்ப இதனோட கதி? சரி…. நாளைக்கு அவர்களைக் கூட்டிட்டு வந்துடறயா பாபு.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

11. “ஐயா’ ”ஆமாம்பா நெசமாத்தான் சொல்றேன். அம்மா என்கிற பாசமே தெரியாமல் இருக்க இது மட்டும் என்ன பாவம் செய்தது? பெண்ணோட பரிவும் பாசமும் ஒரு குழந்தைக்கு எவ்வளவு முக்கியம்னு இப்பதான் நல்லாப் புரிஞ்சது பாபு.

12. இதைப் பிரிஞ்சிருக்க முடியாதே என்கிற என்னோட சுயநலத்துக்காக இதை அனாதையா விட்டுட்டுப் போறது எவ்வளவு பெரிய பாதகம்..? அதான். அதுவும் இல்லாம அவங்க உனக்கு நல்லாத் தெரிஞ்சவங்க அதனால் பத்திரமான இடத்துக்குத் தான் போய்ச் சேருறது புள்ளையன்னு நிம்மதி. அவங்கள் உடனே வரச் சொல்லிடு. ஆக வேண்டியதைப் பார்க்கலாம்.”

13. வினாடி தாமதித்தாலும் மனம் மாறிவிடுமோ என்பது போல் மருத்தும் குழந்தையுமாக விடுவிடுவென நடந்தார்.

14. இரவெல்லாம் உறக்கமின்றிப் புரண்டு……… எல்லாம் இதோட நல்லதுக்குதானே எனத் திரும்பத் திரும்ப நினைத்துச் சமாதானப்படுத்திக் கொண்டார்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

15. பாபுவுடன் வந்த அவர்களைப் பார்த்த போது……… பிள்ளைப் பாக்கியம், ஏக்கம்…….. தவிப்பு……. எதிர்பார்ப்பு அத்தனையும் அம்முகங்களில் உணர்ந்த போது பிள்ளையின் பாதுகாப்புக் குறித்த நம்பிக்கை வலுத்தது.

16. நெடுநாள் தயக்கத்துக்குப் பின்னான தன் முடிவு குறித்து இனி இரண்டாவது கருத்துக்கு இடமில்லை என்ற அளவில் உறுதி கூடியது.

17. அந்நேரத்திற்கு நெருடல் எல்லாம் பிள்ளையைப் பிரிந்து இருக்க வேண்டுமே எனும் உதிரத்தை உறைய வைக்கும் உறுத்தல் மட்டுமே. விழி நீரைப் பிடிவாதமாய் வந்த வழி அனுப்பி வைத்தார்.

18. ”உங்களுக்குக் கவலையே வேணாம் ஐயா. இப்படிச் சொல்றது கூட சரியில்லைதான். நல்லாப் பார்த்துக்கிறோம்னு பெத்தவங்க யாராவது உறுதிமொழி அளிக்கிறார்களா என்ன…….” அப்பா’ என அழைக்கப்பட இருப்பவன் ஓரிரு கணம் போல் தயங்கிப் பிறகு தொடர்ந்தான்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

19. ”ஐயா, ரொம்ப பெரிய மனசோட எங்க வாழ்க்கைக்கு ஒரு நம்பிக்கை கொடுத்து இருக்கிறீங்க. நன்றி சொல்றதுக்குப் பதிலா உங்களிடமே இன்னுமொரு உதவி கேட்கின்றோம். குழந்தையைப் பிரிந்து சிரமப்படாமல் நீங்களும் எங்களோடு வந்துடுங்கய்யா.

20. எங்க மூணு பேருக்குமே ஒரு பெரிய துணையா பலமா இருக்கும் நீங்க எதுக்கும் தயங்காதீங்க. நாம் ஒருத்தருக்கு ஒருத்தர் முடிந்த அளவில் உதவியாய் இருப்போம். சரின்னு சொல்லுங்க ஐயா”.

21. இறைஞ்சும் தன்மையில் கேட்கப்பட…… அதிர்ந்து போனார் ஆறுமுகம். யாருக்கு யார் உதவி? எவ்வளவு பெரிய விஷயம்? இவ்வளவு எளிமையாய் …… தனக்கு எந்தச் சங்கடமும் கூடாதென மிகவும் பக்குவமாய் இவன்… மலை போன்ற அத்தனை பிரச்சனைகளும் எப்படி இப்படி ஒரே நாளில் தீர்வு கண்டு குழந்தையுடன் …… தன்னையும் சுவீகரித்து ………. .

22. ”பா…….. இப்போதைக்கு எனக்குச் சாவு வராதுனு தோணுதுப்பா………. கண்ணீரை இப்போது சுதந்திரமாய் வெளியனுப்பியபடி கைகூப்பினார்
முதியவர்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Question 46.
(ஆ) ‘உரிமைத்தாகம் ‘ கதையில் சகோதரர்கள் இருவரும் ஒன்றிணையாமல் இருந்திருந்தால்…. கதையைத் தொடர்ந்து எழுதி முடிக்க.
Answer:
1. மேலூர் பங்காருசாமியிடம் தன் நில பத்திரத்தை கொடுத்துப் பணம் பெற்ற வெள்ளைச்சாமி அதை அவனால் மீட்டுக்கொள்ள முடியவில்லை. தேவையான பணத்தைத் தயார் செய்ய முடியவில்லை. மேலும் வட்டியும் அதிகமாகிக் கொண்டே போனது.

2. இதை எப்படியோ தெரிந்து கொண்ட வெள்ளைச்சாமியின் அண்ணன் முத்தையா பங்காரு சாமியிடம் சென்று பத்திரத்தை மீட்பதற்காகப் பேசினான்.

3. ஆனால் அவன் தம்பி என் சொந்தப் பிரச்சனைகளில் தலையிட வேண்டாம் என்று சொல்லித் திட்டி அனுப்பிவிட்டான்.

4. காலம் கடந்து கொண்டே இருந்தது வெள்ளைச்சாமிக்குப் போதிய பணம் கிடைக்கவே இல்லை. வட்டியும் கொடுக்கவில்லை.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

5. பிறகு இறுதியாக வெள்ளைச்சாமியின் புஞ்சை நிலம் ஏலத்திற்கு விடப்பட்டது. ஏலத்தில் அவனுடைய நிலம் கைமாறிப்போனது.

6. வாங்கிய கடனைத் திருப்பிக் கொடுக்க முடியாமல் நிலத்தையும், தன் உறவுகளையும் பறிகொடுத்துவிட்டோம் என எண்ணி வெள்ளைச்சாமி மனநிம்மதியில்லாமல் இருந்தான்.

7. தன்னுடைய நிலத்தைப் பார்க்கும் போதெல்லாம் மனவேதனையில் துடித்தான்.

8. நாட்கள் பல கடந்தது. மழைக்காலம் தொடங்கியது. மழை பெய்யோ பெய்யெனப் பெய்தது. அதற்கு அடுத்த நாள் காட்டு மேட்டுப் பகுதியில் வெள்ளைச்சாமி செல்லும் போது அவனுடைய புஞ்சை நிலத்தினால் அவனுடைய அண்ணன் முத்தையா ஏர் உழுதுகொண்டு இருந்தான்.

9. அதைப் பார்த்த பிறகுதான் விசாரித்தான் யார் அந்த நிலத்தை ஏலத்தில் வாங்கியது? என்று, அப்பொழுது தான் அவனுக்கு தெரிந்தது தன்னுடைய அண்ணன் நிலத்தை வாங்கியுள்ளான் என தன்கையிலிருந்து சென்றாலும் என் அண்ணன் கையில் என் நிலம் உள்ளது என்ற சந்தோசத்தில் சென்றான் வெள்ளைச்சாமி. தான் ஆடாவிட்டாலும் தன் தசை ஆடுகிறது என்று சொல்லியதெல்லாம் உண்மைதான்.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

பகுதி -V

அடிமாறாமல் செய்யுள் வடிவில் எழுதுக. [1 x 4 = 4]

Question 47.
(அ) துன்பு உளது’ எனத் துவங்கும் கம்பராமாயணம் பாடல்.
Answer:
துன்பு உளது எனின் அன்றோ
சுகம் உளது? அது அன்றிப்
பின்பு உளது; இடை மன்னும்
பிரிவு உளது என உன்னேல்;
முன்பு உளெம் ஒரு நால்வேம்
முடிவு உளது என உன்னா
அன்பு உள, இனி, நாம் ஓர்
ஐவர்கள் உளர் ஆனோம் – கம்பர்

(ஆ) ‘சுடும்’ என முடியும் குறளை எழுதுக. [1x 2 = 21]
Answer:
சினம் என்னும் சேர்ந்தாரைக் கொல்லி இனம் என்னும் ஏமப் புணையைச் சுடும். – திருவள்ளுவர்

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts
  2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
  3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately
  4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
  5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
  6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
  7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Part-I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The change in Gibbs free energy for a reaction is expressed by ……………… .
(a) ∆G = ∆H + T∆S
(b) ∆G = ∆H – TS
(c)G = H-TS
(d) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Answer:
(d) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 2.
Consider the following statements
(i) In interhalogen compounds, the central atom will be the smaller one.
(ii) It can be formed only between two halogen and not more than two halogens.
(iii) They are strong reducing agents.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 3.
Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is ………….
(a) Diamond
(b) graphite
(c) Fullerene
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) graphite

Question 4.
Which one of the following transition element has maximum oxidation states?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Scandium
(d) Titanium
Answer:
(a) Manganese

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 5.
An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of a 0.01M solution of penta aquachlorido chromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.2
Answer:
(b) 0.002

Question 6.
Match the following.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 1

Question 7.
If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also doubled. Then the order of the reaction is ………..
(a) Zero
(b) one
(c) Fraction
(d) none
Answer:
For a first order reaction t1/2 is independent of initial concentration.
i.e n ≠ 1; for such cases.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 2
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 3

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a buffer solution?
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(b) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(c) H2CO3 + NaHCO3
(d) NaOH + NaCl
Answer:
(d) NaOH + NaCl

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 9.
In the electrochemical cell: ZnlZnSO4 (0.01M)||CuSO4 (1.OM)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1 When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0M and that CuSO4 changed to 0.01M, the emf changes to E2 From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(a) E1 < E2
(b) E1 > E2
(c) E2 = 0↑E1
(d) E1 = E2
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 4
Answer:
(b) E1 > E2

Question 10.
Which method is used to prepare metal sols?
(a) ultrasonic dispersion
(b) mechanical dispersion
(c) Bredig’s arc method
(d) peptisation
Answer:
(c) Bredig’s arc method

Question 11.
What are the products formed when methoxy ethane is treated with hydroiodic acid?
(a) Phenol + iodomethane
(b) Iodomethane + Ethanol
(c) Iodoethane + Methanol
(d) Iodobenzene + Methane
Answer:
(b) Iodomethane + Ethanol

Question 12.
Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 5
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 6
Answer:
(a) (CH3)2C(OH)C6H5

Question 13.
Assertion(A): 2-nitro propane is more acidic than nitro methane.
Reason (R): When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases, due to +I effect of alkyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 14.
Glucose(HCN) Product (hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) A, the compound A is
(a) Heptanoic acid
(b) 2-Iodohexane
(c) Heptane
(d) Heptanol
Answer:
(a) Heptanoic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine
(b) ampicillin
(c) erythromycin
(d) milk of magnesia
Answer:
(a) cetrizine

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Magnesite (Magnesium carbonate) is calcined to obtain magnesia, which is used to make refractory bricks. Write the decomposition reaction.
Answer:
Magnesite is a carbonate of magnesium. Magnesite when heated at 800°C to 1000°C at the CO2 content in it is driven off. The residue so obtained is known as calcined magnesite.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 7

Question 17.
Mention the application of Xenon?
Answer:

  • Xenon is used in fluorescent bulbs, flash bulbs and lasers.
  • Xenon emits an intense light in discharge tubes instantly. Due to this it is used in high speed electronic flash bulbs used by photographers.

Question 18.
Compare the stability of Ni4+ and Pt4+ from their ionisation enthalpy values.

lE Ni Pt
I 737 864
II 1753 1791
III 3395 2800
IV 5297 4150

Answer:
(i) Ni4+I.E. = 737+ 1753 + 3395 + 5297= 11182 kJmol-1
(ii) Pt4+ I.E. = 864 + 1791 + 2800 + 4150 = 9605 kJ mol-1
Pt4+ compounds are stable than Ni4+ compounds because the energy needed to remove 4 electrons in Pt is less than that of Ni.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 19.
Why is glass considered as super cooled liquid?
Answer:
Glass is an amorphous solid. Like liquids it has a tendency to flow, though very slowly. The proof of this fact is that glass panes in the windows or doors of old buildings are invariably found to be slightly thicker at the bottom than at the top.

Question 20.
Write Arrhenius equation and explains the terms involved.
Answer:
Arrhenius equation : \(\mathrm{k}=\mathrm{Ae}^{-}\left(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{a}}{\mathrm{RT}}\right)\)
where, k = Rate constant
A = Arrhenius factor (frequency factor)
Ea = Activation energy
R = Gas constant
T = Absolute temperature (in K)

Question 21.
Can Fe3+ oxidises Bromide to bromine under standard conditions?
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 8
Answer:
Required half cell reaction

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 9
If E°cell is -ve; ∆G is +ve and the cell reaction is non-spontaneous.
Hence, Fe3+ cannot oxidise Bromide to Bromine.

Question 22.
What are used of Urotropine? Give its structure.
Answer:
This is the structure of Urotropine (Hexamethylene tetramine)

  • Urotropine is used as a medicine to treat urinary infection.
  • Nitration of Urotropine under controlled condition gives an explosive RDX (Research and development explosive). It is also called cyclonite or cyclotri methylene trinitramine.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 10

Question 23.
Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not. Give reason.
Answer:
Ethylamine when added to water forms intermolecular H-bonds with water. And therefore it is soluble in water. But aniline does not form H-bond with water to a very large extent due to the presence of a large hydrophobic – C H group. Hence, aniline is insoluble in water.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 11

Question 24.
What are antihistamines? Give example and mention its use.
Answer:

  • Antihistamines block histamine release from histamine – 1 receptors.
  • eg., cetirizine, terfenadine, levocetirizine.
  • It is used to provide relief from the allergic effects.
  • Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 31 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Explain the action of heat on boric acid.
Answer:
Boric acid when heated at 373 K gives metaboric acid and at 413 K, it gives tetraboric acid. When heated at red hot, it gives boric anhydride which is a glassy mass.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 12

Question 26.
Draw the structure of (a) white phosphorous (b) red phosphorous
Answer:
(a) White phosphorous
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 13
(b) Red phosphorous
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 14

Question 27.
Why do zirconium and Hafnium exhibit similar properties?
Answer:

  1. The element of second and third transition series resemble each other more closely than the elements of first and second transition series due to lanthanoid contraction.
  2. e.g., Zr- 4d series -Atomic radius 145 pm
    Hf — 5d series – Atomic radius 144 pm
  3. The radii are very similar even though the number of electrons increases.
  4. Zr and Hf have very similar chemical behaviour, having closely similar radii and electronic configuration.
  5. radius dependent properties such as lattice energy, solvation energy are similar.
  6. Thus lanthanides contraction leads to formation of pair of elements and those known as chemical twins, e.g., Zr – Hf

Question 28.
How will derive the formula of density of a unit cell?
Answer:
Using the edge length of a unit cell, we can calculate the density (p) of the crystal by considering a cubic unit cell as follows.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 15
Substitute the value (3) in (2)
Mass of the unit cell = \(n \times \frac{\mathbf{M}}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\)
For a cubic unit cell, all the edge lengths are equal, i.e., a = b = c
Volume of the unit cell = a x a x a = a3
∴ Density of the unit cell = \(\rho=\frac{n M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)

Question 29.
The salt of strong acid and strong base does not undergo hydrolysis. Explain.
Answer:
(i) In this case, neither the cations nor the anions undergo hydrolysis. Therefore the solution remains neutral.
(ii) For example, in the aqueous solution of NaCl, its ions Na+ and Cl ions have no tendency to react with H+ or OH ions of water. This is because the possible products of such reaction are NaOH and HC1 which are completely dissociated. As a result, there is no change in the concentration of H+ and OH ions and hence the solution continues to remain neutral.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 30.
Write a note about medicinal applications of colloids.
Answer:

  • Antibodies such as penicillin and streptomycin are produced in colloidal form for suitable injections. They cure pneumonia.
  • Colloidal gold and colloidal calcium are used as tonics.
  • Milk of magnesia is used for stomach troubles.
  • Silver sol protected by gelatine known as Argyrol is used as eye lotion.

Question 31.
Predict the major product, when 2-methyl but -2-ene is converted into an alcohol in each of the following methods.
(i) Acid catalysed hydration (ii) Hydroboration (iii) Hydroxylation using bayers reagent
Answer:

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 16

Question 32.
Write the reactions of (i) aromatic and (ii) aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.
Answer:
Aromatic primary amines react with HNO2 at 273-278 K to form aromatic diazonium salts.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 17

Aliphatic primary amines also react with HNO2 at 273-278 K to form aliphatic diazonium salts. But these are unstable even at low temperature and thus decomposes readily to form a mixture of compounds consisting of alkyl chlorides, alkenes and alcohols, out of which ‘ alcohols generally predominates.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 18

Question 33.
What are the advantages of food additives?
Answer:

  • Uses of preservatives reduce the product spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
  • Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
  • Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
  • Antidxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) Out of coke and CO, which is better reducing agent for the reduction of ZnO? Why? (2)
(ii) An element (A) extracted from kernite. A reacts with nitrogen at high temperature gives B. A reacts with alkali to form C. Find out A, B and C. Give the chemical equations. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Deduce the oxidation number of oxygen in hypofluorous acid – HOF. (2)
(ii) Which catalyst is used in the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid? Give equation. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Coke (C) is a better reducing agent for the reduction of ZnO.
Because, when we use coke, the reduction can be easily carried out at 673 K. Thus Carbon (Coke) reduces zinc oxide more easily than carbon monoxide (CO). From the Ellingham diagrams, it is quite clear that the reduction of zinc oxide is more favourable using coke (∆G for the formation of carbon monoxide from carbon is more negative).

(ii)

  • An element (A) extracted from kernite is boron.
  • Boron reacts with nitrogen at high temperature to give. Boron nitride (B)
    Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 19
  • Boron reacts with alkali (NaOH) to give sodium borate (C).
    Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 20

    A Boron

    B

    B Boron nitride BN
    C Sodium borate Na3BO3

(b) (i)

  • Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 21

[OR]

In case of O – F bond is HOF, fluorine is most electronegative element. So its oxidation number is -1. Thereby oxidation number of O is +1. Similarly in case of O – H bond is HOF. O is highly electronegative than H. So its oxidation number is -1 and oxidation number of H is +1. So, Net oxidation of oxygen is – 1 + 1 = 0.
(ii)

  • Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 22

Question 35.
(a) (i) Prove that H2SO4 is a strong dibasic acid. (2)
(ii) Distinguish tetrahedral and octahedral voids. (3)
[OR]
(b) In an octahedral crystal field, draw the figure to show splitting of d orbitals. (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) Sulphuric acid forms two types of salts namely sulphates and bisulphates.

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 23

(ii)

Tetrahedral void Octahedral void
1. A single triangular void in a crystal is surrounded by four (4) spheres and is called a tetrahedral void A double triangular void like c is  surrounded by six(6) spheres and is called an octahedral void
2. A sphere of second layer is above the void of the first layer, a tetrahedral void is formed The voids ¡n the first layer are partially covered by the spheres of layer now such a void is called a octahedral void
3. This constitutes four spheres, three in the lower and one in upper layer. When the centres of these four spheres are joined a tetrahedron is formed This constitutes six spheres, three in the lower layer and three in the upper layer. When the centers of these six spheres are joined an octahedron is formed
4. The radius of the sphere which can be accommodated in an octahedral hole without disturbing the structure should not exceed 0.414 times that of the structure forming sphere The sphere which can be placed in  a tetrahedral hole without disturbing the close packed structure should not have a radius larger than 0.225 times the radius of the sphere.forming the structure
5. Radius of an tetrahedral void r/R = 0.225 Radius of a octahedral void r/R = 0.414

[OR]

(b) Step 1: In an isolated gaseous state, all the five d orbitals of the central metal ion are degenerate.
Initially, the ligands form a spherical field of negative charge around the metal. In this filed, the energies of all the five d orbitals will increase due to the repulsion between the electrons of the metal and the ligand.

Step 2: The ligands are approaching the metal atom in actual bond directions. To illustrate this let us consider an octahedral field, in which the central metal ion is located at the origin and the six ligands are coming from the +x, -x, +y, -y,
+z and -z directions as shown below.

As shown in the figure, the orbitals lying along the axes dx2 – y2 and dz2 orbitals will experience strong repulsion and raise in energy to a greater extent than the orbitals with lobes directed between the axes (dxy, dyz and dzx). Thus the degenerate d orbitals now split into two sets and the process is called crystal field splitting.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 24
Step 3: Up to this point the complex formation would not be favoured. However, when the ligands approach further, there will be an attraction between the negatively charged electron and the positively charged metal ion, that results in a net decrease in energy. This decrease in energy is the driving force for the complex formation.
During crystal field splitting in octahedral field, in order to maintain the average energy of the orbitals (barycentre) constant, the energy of the orbitals dx2 y2 and d z2 (represented as e2 orbitals) = will increase by 3/5 ∆0 while that of the- other three orbitais dxy , dyz and dzx (represented t2gas t orbitais) decrease by 2/5 ∆0 . Here, ∆0 represents the crystal field splitting energy in the octahedral field.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 25

Question 36.
(a) Explain briefly the collision theory of bimolecular reactions. (5)
[OR]
(b) Discuss about the hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and weak base and derive pH value for the solution. (5)
Answer:
(a) Collision theory is based on the kinetic theory of gases. According to this theory, chemical reactions occur as a result of collisions between the reacting molecules. Let its understand this theory by considering the following reaction.
A2(g) + B2(g) → 2AB(g)

If we consider that, the reaction between A2 and B2 molecules proceeds through collisions between them, then the rate would be proportional to the number of collisions per second.
Rate ∝ Number of molecules colliding per litre per second (or) Rate ∝ Collision rate.
The number of collisions is directly proportional to the concentration of both A2 and B2.
Collision rate ∝ [A2][B2] ; Collision rate = Z [A2][B2] where, Z is a constant.

The collision rate in gases can be calculated from kinetic theory of gases. For a gas at room temperature (298K) and 1 atm pressure, each molecule undergoes approximately 109 collisions per second, i.e., 1 collision in 10-9 second. Thus, if every collision resulted in reaction, the reaction would be complete in 10-9 second. In actual practice this does not happen. It implies that all collisions are not effective to lead to the reaction.

In order to react, the colliding molecules must possess a minimum energy called activation energy.
The molecules that collide with less energy than activation energy will remain intact and no reaction occurs.

Fraction of effective collisions (f) is given by the following expression, \(\mathbf{f}=e^{\frac{-\mathbf{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{\mathrm{RT}}}\)

Fraction of collisions is further reduced due to orientation factor i.e., even if the reactant collide with sufficient energy, they will not react unless the orientation of the reactant molecules is suitable for the formation of the transition state.

The fraction of effective collisions (f) having proper orientation is given by the steric factor R ’ Rate = P x f x collision rate
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 26
Where k is the rate constant.
On comparing equation (1) and (2), the rate constant k is,
k = PZ\(\frac{-E_{a}}{R T}\)

[OR]

(b) i. Consider the hydrolysis of ammonium acetate
CH3COONH4(aq) CH3COO(aq) + NH+4(aq)

ii. In this case both the cation (NH4+ ) and (CH3COO) anion have the tendency to react with water.
CH3COO+H2 ⇌ CH3COOH + OH
NH4+ + H2O ⇌ NH4OH + H+

iii. The nature of the solution depends on the strength of acid (or) base i.e., if Ka > Kb, then the solution is acidic and pH < 7, if Ka < Kb then the solution is basic and pH > 7.
If Ka= Kb, then the solution is neutral.
iv. The relation between the dissociation constant Ka, Kb and hydrolysis constant is given
Ka. Kb .Kh = Kw
v. pH of the solution pH = 7 + 1/2 PKa – 1/2 pKb

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 37.
(a) (i) Ionic conductance at infinite dilution of Al3+and SO42- are 189 and 160 mho cm2 equiv-1 . Calculate the equivalent and molar conductance of the electrolyte Al2(SO4)3 at infinite dilution. (3)
(ii) Suggest a way to determine λ0m value of water (2)

(OR)

(b) (i) Why does bleeding stop by rubbing moist alum. (2)
(ii) How is glycerol reacts with fuming nitric acid? (or) How would you convert glycerol into nitroglycerine? (3)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 27

(b) (i) Blood is a colloidal sol. When we rub the injured part with moist alum then coagulation of blood takes place. Hence main reason is coagulation, which stops the bleeding. Therefore bleeding stop by rubbing moist alum.
(ii)
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 28

Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Question 38.
(a) (i) What is crossed cannizaro reaction? Explain it. (2)
(ii) Complete the following reactions.(3)
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(b) (i) Is the following sugar, D – sugar or L – sugar? (2)
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 30
(ii) Write a note on vulcanization of rubber. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) When Cannizaro reaction (Auto redox reaction) takes place between two different aldehyde, the reaction is called as crossed cannizaro reaction.
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In crossed cannizaro reaction more reactive aldehyde is oxidized and less reactive aldehyde is reduced.
Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 32

[OR]

(b) (i) L-Sugar
(ii)

  • Natural rubber is very soft and brisky. it has high water absorption capacity and low tensile strength. Its properties can be improved by a process called vulcanization.
  • Natural rubber is mixed with 3-5% sulphur and heated at 100-150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 polyisoprene chains through disulphide (-S-S-) bonds.
  • The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization. When 3 to 10% sulphur is used the resultant rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.

Following properties of rubber improved by vulcanization:

  • Tensile strength
  • Elasticity
  • Hardness
  • Tear strength
  • Resistance to solvants.

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