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Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 2.
Who made peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russian
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 3.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prathana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 4.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic war?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) NawabofArcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) NawabofArcot

Question 5.
……………………..was the official newspaper of the Self-Respect Movement.
(c) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(c) Kudi Arasu

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is ……………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question 7
……………………is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Question 8.
The first Jute mill of India was established at ………………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 10.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is…………………..
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 11.
The Indian constitution gives to its citizens………………………
(a) Double citizenship
(b) Single citizenship
(c) Single citizenship in some states and double in others .
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single citizenship

Question 12.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related …………..
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence

Question 13.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Industrial Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Service Sector

Question 14.
………………are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference 1884-1885.
Answer:

• The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
• The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
  resolution.

Question 16.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:

• The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World.
• During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America.
• With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 17.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is called the drain to wealth.

Question 18.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite ministry ?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
• The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 19.
State the west flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

• The Narmada and the Tapi are the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India:
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
• These rivers form estuaries on the west coast.
• These rivers are devoid of an large tributary system.
• Narmada river is the largest among the west flowing rivers of peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Bushner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.
• Tapti river is one of only the three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west. The others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
• The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray Panjhra and Bori. It outfall into the Arabian sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 20.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:

• Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants.
• Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation.
• The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 21.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 22.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 23.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 24.
Write about India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
What is meant by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The GDP is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 26.
Write the types of globalization.
Answer:
There are three types of globalization –

• Archaic globalization
• Proto globalization and
• Modem globalization.

Question 27.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governance or to alter prices in order to affect demand. States and their functional equivalents throughout history have used money provided by taxation to carry out many functions.

Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure (transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, healthcare cur systems, to name a few), military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works and public insurance and the operation of government itself. A government’s ability to raise taxes is called its fiscal capacity.

Question 28.
Name the states that lead in the production of iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) Japan forced a war on China in the year ………………
(ii) The major tribal revolt took place in chota nagpur region was ……………
(iii) The Cauvery rises in hills of …………………. district in Karnataka.
(iv) Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to
(v) A better economy introduce rapid development of the ……………….
Answers
(i) 1894
(ii) Kolrevolt
(iii) Coorg
(iv) President
(v) Capital market

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers.
(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers

Himalayan Rivers:

• Originate from Himalayas.
• Long and wide Perennial in nature.
• Perennial in nature.
• Unsuitable for hydropower generation.
• Middle and lower courses are navigable.

Peninsular Rivers:

• Originate from Western Ghats.
• Short and arrow.
• Non Perennial in nature.
• Suitable for hydropower generation.
• Not useful for navigation.

(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands
Andaman and Nicobar Islands :

• They are located in the Bay of Bengal.
• They are far off from India.
• Port Blair is the capital.
• They are about 572 islands.
• Only 38 are inhabited.

Lakshadweep Islands:

• They are located in the Arabian Sea.
• They are of coral origin
• Kavaratti is the administration headquaters.
• They are 27 islands here.
• Only 11 islands are inhabited.

(b) Give reason: The great Indian desert is called Marusthali.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km2 and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.

Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great Indian Thar Desert in western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-Israeli wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:
(i) The formation of Palestinian Liberation Organisation (PLO) was never friendly to Israel. It came to be attached frequently by Palestinian guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan. Israel also made violent retaliation.

(ii) In November 1966, Israel attacked the village of Al-Sami in the Jordanian West Bank. The death toll in this attack was 18. In April 1967 Israel started air battle with Syria which resulted in the shooting down of six Syrian Mig fighter jet.

(iii) In his bid to show Egypt’s support for Syria, Nasser mobilised Egyptian forces in the Sinai, seeking the removal of UN emergency forces stationed there on May 18. On May 22, he closed the Gulf Aqaba to Israeli shifting.

(iv) On June 5, Israel stopped a sudden pre-emptive air strike that destroyed more than 90 percent of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac. A similar air assault was in capacitated the Syria air force. Within three ways, Israel captured the Gaza Strip and all the Senai Peninsula up to the East Bank of the Suez Canal.

(v) On June 7, the Israeli forces drove Jordanian forces out of East Jerusalem and most the West Bank. The War ended when the UN Security Council called for a ceasefire. Arab-Israel War of 1973: Egypt and Syria made a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.

(vi) Hafez al-Assad, the President of Syria was keen on retrieving Golan Heights. As Assad was aware that his country’s weapons were dated, he offered the Israelis a peace deal of they would withdraw from Sinai. Israel rejected the offer.

(vii) Egypt and Syria then launched a sudden attack on the Yom Kippur religions holiday on 6 October 1973. Though Israel suffered heavy casualties, it could finally push back the Arab forces. But this time, due to UN intervention, Israel was forced to return to 1967 position. Arabs gained nothing out of this war too.

Question 34.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.

• He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.
• He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.
• Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.
• He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
• He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities.
• It creates water scarcity in cities.
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Write about Road Safety Rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Cross roads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never cross road at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

Question 37.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the Chief Minister are:

• The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. He recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by the Governor. He allocates the portfolio among the ministers.
• He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
• The Chief Minister is the principal channel of communication between Governor and the Council of Ministers.
• He announces the Government policies on the floor of the House. He can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
• For smooth functioning of the State and for good Centre – State relations, he has to develop a rapport with the Union Government.

Question 38.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
The role of taxation in developing economics is as follows.

1. Resource mobilisation: Taxation enables the government to mobilise a substantial amount of revenue. The tax revenue is generated by imposing direct taxes such as personal income tax and corporate tax and indirect taxes such as customs duty, excise duty, etc.

2 Reduction in equalities of income: Taxation follows the principle of equity. The direct
taxes are progressive in nature. Also certain indirect taxes, such as taxes on luxury goods, is also progressive in nature.

3. Social welfare: Taxation generates social welfare. Social welfare is generated due to higher taxes on certain undesirable products like alcoholic products.

4. Foreign exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports, Generally developing countries and even the developed countries do not impose taxes on export items.

5. Regional development: Taxation plays an important role in regional development, Tax incentives such as tax holidays for setting up industries in backward regions, which induces business firms to set up industries in such regions.

6. Control of inflation: Taxation can be used as an instrument for controlling inflation. Through taxation the government can control inflation by reducing the tax on the commodities.

Question 39.
Write briefly the history of globalization.
Answer:
The historical background of globalization can be discussed in three steps –
(i) Archaic Globalization – It is an early form of globalization. It existed during the Hellenistic Age. It established a trade link between the Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han Dynasty. The commercial links between these powers inspired the development of the Silk Road. The Islamic Golden Age was also an important early stage of globalization.

(ii) Proto Globalization – It was characterised by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16th and 17th centuries. In the 17th century, globalization became private business phenomenon like British East India Company founded in 1600, described as the first multinational company.

(iii) Modern Globalization – The 19th and 20th centuries witnessed the advent of modem globalization. Global trade and capital investment increased. Several multinational firms came into being.

Question 40.
What are the contributions of Industrialization to development?
Answer:

(i) As stated earlier, it is essential to produce inputs to other producers in an economy. Even agriculture requires inputs from industry such as fertilisers and tractors to increase productivity.

(ii) Second, a market exists for both producers and consumer goods. Even services like banking, transport and trade are dependent on production of industrial goods.

(iii) Third, by using modem methods of production, industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production of all goods produced. It therefore helps people to buy goods at a cheaper rate and help create demand for more products.

(iv) Fourth, through such expansion of production, industrialisation helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture. Employment generation is therefore an important objective of industrialisation.

(v) Fifth, a related advantage of industrialisation is therefore technological change. Through use of modem techniques, industrialisation contributes to learning of such methods and their improvement. As a result labour productivity, ie, output per unit of labour input increases, which can help workers earn higher wages.

(vi) Sixth, expanding incomes lead to more demand for goods and services. If an economy is not able to produce enough to meet such demand, it has to rely on imports and therefore spend a lot of foreign exchange. If the economy does not earn enough from exporting, it will be difficult to meet the growing demand. Industrialisation therefore helps an economy to save and also generate foreign exchange through exports. .

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
five important events between 1889-1935.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium – 5

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia
(i) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
(ii) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
(iii) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
(iv) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia:

(i) Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies (Indonesia) and Burma.
(ii) The Allies faced many reverses in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparations. The colonial rulers, especially the British, withdrew from their territories, leaving the local people to face the atrocities of the Japanese.
(iii) The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway.
(iv) Many Indians walked all the way from Burma to the Indian border, facing hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion. Those who remained suffered under the Japanese.

(b) Aligarh Movement
(i) What is the main aim of this movement? ‘
(ii) Who is considered the soul of this movement?
(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
(b) Aligarh Movement:

(i) The main aim of the Aligarh Movement was to persuade the Muslims to acquire modem knowledge and English language.
(ii) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of the Aligarh Movement.
(iii) Many English Books were translated into Urdu in order to enable the Muslims to accept the western science and take up government services.
(iv) Aligarh Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement.
(i) How did the national leaders inspire the people?
(ii) When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?
(iii) What was the policy of the British?
(iv) How did the British consider the Indians?
Answer:
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement:

(i) They inspired the people with the ideas of self-respect and self-confidence.
(ii) The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878.
(iii) The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.
(iv) The British considered the Indians as inferior and uncivilized.

(d) Maraimalai Adigal
(i) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
(ii) Name the journal where he worked as a young man.
(iii) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
(iv) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

(i) Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.
(ii) Siddhanta Deepika
(iii) Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.
(iv) His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Let f and g be two functions given by f = {(0,1),(2,0),(3,-4),(4,2),(5,7)} g = {(0,2),(1, 0),(2,4),(-4,2),(7, 0)} then the range of fog is …………. .
(1) {0,2,3,4,5}
(2) {-4,1,0,2,7}
(3) {1,2,3,4,5}
(4) {0,1,2}
Answer:
(4) {0,1,2}

Question 2.
An A.P consists of 31 terms. If its 16^th term is m, then the sum of all the terms of this A.P. is …………. .
(1) 16m
(2) 62 m
(3) 31m
(4) \(\frac{31}{2}\)m
Answer:
(3) 31m

Question 3.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +….+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is …………. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square …………. .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of the quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the X axis is …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 or 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
In the adjacent figure ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥BC then …………. .

(1) BDCD = BC²
(2) AB.AC = BC²
(3) BD.CD = AD²
(4) AB.AC = AD²
Answer:
(3) BDCD = AD²

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3, p) and (6, 6) are collinear, then the value of p is …………. .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2

Question 9.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq. units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units

Question 10.
The mean of 100 observations is 40 and their standard deviation is 3. The sum of squares of all deviations is …………. .
(1) 40000
(2) 160900
(3) 160000
(4) 30000
Answer:
(2) 160900

Question 11.
The probability a red marble selected at random from a jar containing p red, q blue and r green marbles is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
(2) \(\frac{p}{p+q+r}\)
(3) \(\frac{p+q}{p+q+r}\)
(4) \(\frac{p+r}{p+q+r}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)

Question 12.
If there are 28 relation from a set A = {2,4, 6, 8} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is …………. .
(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 13.
If a₁ ,a₂, a₃ ……….. are in A.P. such that \(\frac{a_{4}}{a_{7}}=\frac{3}{2}\), then the 13th term of the AP is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(2) 0
(3) 12a₁
(4) 14a₁
Answer:
(2) 0

Question 14.
The X-intercept of the line 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(4) \(\frac{-2}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f(x)² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
– 2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
– 6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)(x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 16.
If f(x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if gof (a) = 1.
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But gof(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = √4 = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

Question 17.
Find the number of integer solutions of = 1 (mod 15).
Answer:
3x ≡ 1 (mod 15) can be written as
3x – 1 = 15k for some integer k
3x = 15k + 1
x = \(\frac{15 k+1}{3}\) = 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Since 5k is an integer, 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\) cannot be an integer. So there is no integer solution.

Question 18.
Find the rational form of the number \(0 . \overline{123}\)
Answer:
Let x = \(0 . \overline{123}\)
= 0.123123123 ….
= 0.123 + 0.000123 + 000000123 + ….
This is an infinite G.P
Here a = 0.123, r = \(\frac{0.000123}{0.123}\) = 0.001
S_n = \(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{0.123}{1-0.001}=\frac{0.123}{0.999}\)
S_n = \(\frac{41}{333}\)

Question 19.
Find the GCD of 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
Answer:

p(x) = 12(x⁴ – x³)
= 12x³(x – 1)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
= 8x²(x² – 3x + 2)
= 8x²(x – 2) (x – 1)
L.C.M = 24x³(x – 1) (x – 2)
G.C.D = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { L.C.M. }}\)
= \(\frac{12 x^{3}(x-1) \times 8 x^{2}(x-2)(x-1)}{24 x^{3}(x-1)(x-2)}\)
G.C.D = 4x²(x – 1)

Question 20.
Find the square root of the polynomial x⁴ – 12x³ + 42x² – 36x + 9 by division method
Answer:

\(\sqrt{x^{4}-12 x^{3}+42 x^{2}-36 x+9}\) = |x² – 6x + 3|

Question 21.
Write expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) interms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
In the given diagram show that ∆PST ~ ∆PQR
Answer:

In ∆PST and ∆PQR,
\(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{2}{2+1}=\frac{2}{3}\) , \(\frac{P T}{P R}=\frac{4}{4+2}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Thus, \(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{P T}{P R}\) and ∠P is common
Therefore, by SAS similarity,
∆PST ~ ∆PQR

Question 23.
Find the value of for which the given points (2,3), (4, a) and (6, -3) are collinear.
Answer:
Let the points be A (2, 3), B(4, a) and C(6, -3).
Since the given points are collinear.
Area of a triangle =0

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₁ + x₂y₂ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)] = 0
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(2a – 12 + 18) – (12 + 6a – 6)] = 0
2a + 6 – (6 + 6a) = 0
2a + 6 – 6 – 6a = 0
-4 a = 0 ⇒ a = \(\frac { 0 }{ 4 }\) = 0
The value of a = 0

Question 24.
The horizontal distance between two buildings is 70 m. The angle of depression of the top of the first building when seen from the top of the second building is 45°. If the height of the second building is 120 m, find the height of the first building.
Answer:

Let the height of the first building AD be “x” m
∴ EC = 120 – x
In the right ∆ CDE,
tan 45° = \(\frac{C E}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{120-x}{70}\) ⇒ 70 = 120 – x
x = 50m
∴ The height of the first building is 50 m

Question 25.
If the coefficient of variation of a collection of data is 57 and its standard deviation is 6,84, then find the mean.
Answer:
Given coefficient of variation =57
Standard deviation (σ) = 6.84
C.V = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}}\)
57 = \(\frac{6.84}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
x̄ = \(\frac{6.84}{57} \times 100=\frac{684}{57}=12\)
∴ Arithmetic mean x̄ = 12

Question 26.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 2:7. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 352 sq.cm. Find its radius.
Answer:
Let the radius be “2x” and the height be “7x”
Curved surface area = 352cm²
2πrh = 352
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2x × 7x = 352
44 × 2x² = 352
x² = \(\frac{352}{44 \times 2}=\frac{176}{44}=4\)
x = √4 = 2
Radius of the cylinder (2 × 2) = 4 cm

Question 27.
A number is selected at random from integers 1 to 100. Find the probability that it is not a perfect cube.
Answer:
Sample space = {1, 2, 3,…. 100}
n(S) = 100
Let A be the event of getting a perfect cube.
A = (1, 8, 27, 64)
n(A) = 4
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
p(A) = \(\frac{4}{100}=\frac{1}{25}\)
The Probability that the selected number is not a perfect cube is
P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{25}\)
= \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 28.
Find the value of k if 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
\(\left[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 2025
\(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{2025}\) = 45
k² + k = 90
K² + k – 90 = 0
(k + 10) (k + 9) = 0
k = -10 or k = 9 k = 9 (k = -10) is not possible
∴ The value of k = 9

Part – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let A = The set of all natural numbers less than 8, B = The set of all prime numbers less than 8, C = The set of even prime number. Verify that A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
Answer:
A= {1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7}; B = {2, 3, 5,7} and C= {2}
B – C = {2, 3, 5, 7} – {2}
= {3,5,7}
A × (B – C) = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {3, 5,7}
= {(1,3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5,3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} …. (1)

A × B = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {2, 3, 5,7}
= {(1,2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4,2) . (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}

A × C = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}

(A × B) – (A × C) = {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) 5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

Question 30.
If f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5 prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = x – 4; g(x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh(x) = fog[h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 …. (1)
goh(x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh) x = f[goh(x)]
= f [9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
Fróm (1) and (2) we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four numbers.
Answer:
Let us take the four terms in the form (a – 3d), (a – d), (a + d) and (a + 3d).
Since sum of the four terms is 28,
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 2%
4a = 28 gives a = 7
Similarly, since sum of their squares is 276,
(a – 3d)² + (a – d)² + (a + d)²+ (a + 3d)² = 276.
a² – 6ad + 9d² + a² – 2ad + d² + a² + 2ad + d² + a² + 6ad + 9d² = 276
4a² + 20d² = 276 ⇒ 4(7)² + 20d² = 276.
d² = 4 gives d = ± 2
If d = 2 then the four numbers are 7 – 3(2), 7 – 2, 7 + 2, 7 + 3(2)
That is the four numbers are 1, 5, 9 and 13.
If a = 7, d = -2 then the four numbers are 13, 9, 5 and 1
Therefore, the four consecutive terms of the A.P. are 1, 5, 9 and 13.

Question 32.
If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P. then prove that x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b} = 1.
Answer:
a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P
∴ a = a, b = a + d and c = a + 2d respectively ……. (1)
x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P
∴ x = x, y = xr, z = xr² respectively ….(2)
L.H.S = x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b}
( Substitute the values from 1 and 2 we get)

L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.
Answer:
Let the number of ₹5 currencies be “x”
Let the number of ₹10 currencies be “y”
and the number of ₹20 currencies be “z”
By the given first condition
x + y + z = 12 …….. (1)
By the given second condition
5x + 10y + 20z = 105
x + 2y + 4z = 21 (÷5) …….. (2)
By the given third condition
10x + 5y + 20z = 105 + 20
10x + 5y + 20z = 125
2x + y + 4z = 25 ………. (3)


Substituting the value of x = 7 in (5)
7 – y = 4 ⇒ – y = 4 – 7
-y = -3 ⇒ y = 3
Substituting the value of x = 7, y = 3 in …. (1)
7 + 3 + z = 12
z = 12 – 10 = 2
x = 7,y = 3,z = 2
Number of currencies in ₹ 5 = 7
Number of currencies in ₹ 10 = 3
Number of currencies in ₹ 20 = 2

Question 34.
Find the square root of the expression \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{y^{2}}+\frac{20 x}{y}+13-\frac{30 y}{x}+\frac{9 y^{2}}{x^{2}}\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 3 & 1 \\ -1 & 2 \end{matrix} \right]\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0
Answer:

L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0

Question 36.
State and prove Thales theorem
Answer:
A straight line drawn parallel to a side of triangle intersecting the other two sides, divides the sides in the same ratio.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, D is a point on AB and E is a point on AC.
To prove : \(\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}\)
Construction : Draw a line DE || BC

Question 37.
Find the value of k, if the area of a quadrilateral is 28 sq. units, whose vertices are (-4, -2), (-3, k), (3,-2) and (2,3)
Answer:
Let the vertices A (-4, -2), B (-3, k), C (3, -2) and D (2, 3)
Area of the Quadrilateral = 28 sq. units
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄)] = 28

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 6 + 9 – 4)-(6 + 3k – 4 – 12)] = 28
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 11) – (3k – 10)] = 28
-4k + 11 – 3k + 10 = 56
-7k + 21 = 56
-7k = 56 – 21
-7k = 35 ⇒ 7k = -35
k = \(-\frac{35}{7}\) = -5
∴ The value of k = -5

Question 38.
A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45° . The bird flies away horizontally in such away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30° . Determine the speed at which the bird flies. (√3 = 1.732)
Answer:
A is the initial position of the bird
B is the final position of the bird
Let the speed of the bird be “s”
Distance = speed × time

∴ AB = 2 s
Let CD be x
∴ CE = x + 2s
In the ∆ CDA, tan 45° = \(\frac{A D}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{80}{x}\)
x = 80 …(1)
In the ∆ BCE
tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{CE}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{80}{x+2 s}\)
x + 2 s = 80 √3
x = 80 √3 – 2 s …(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
80 √3 – 2 s = 80
80 √3 – 80 = 2s ⇒ 80(√3 – 1) = 2 s
s = \(\frac{80(\sqrt{3}-1)}{2}\) = 40 (1.732 – 1) = 40 × 0. 732 = 29. 28
Speed of the flying bird = 29. 28 m / sec

Question 39.
The total marks scored by two students Sathya and Vidhya in 5 subjects are 460 and 480 with standard deviation 4.6 and 2.4 respectively. Who is more consistent in performance?
Answer:
Total marks scored by Sathya = 460
Total marks scored by Vidhya = 480
Number of subjects = 5
x̄ = 92%
Mean marks of Sathya = \(\frac{460}{5}\)
Given standard deviation, (σ) = 4.6
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{4.6}{92} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{460}{92}=5 \%\)
Mean marks of vidhya = \(\frac{480}{5}\)
Given standard deviation (σ) = 2.4
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{2.4}{96} \times 100=\frac{240}{96}=2.5 \%\)
CV₁ > CV₂
Vidhya coefficient of variation is less than Sathya
∴ Vidhya is more consistent.

Question 40.
The perimeters of the ends of frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum be 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends be R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
∴ 2πR = 207.24 cm
⇒ R = \(\frac{207.24}{2 \pi}=\frac{207.24}{2 \times 3.14}=33\)
⇒ R = 33m and 2 πr = 169.56
⇒ r = \(\frac{169.56}{2 \pi}=\frac{169.56}{2 \times 3.14}=27\)
Slant-height of the frustum
l = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+(\mathrm{R}-r)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{8^{2}+(33-27)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{64+36}\) = 10 cm
The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r2²) + (R + r) l]
∴ Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 41.
A jar contains 54 marbles each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of selecting a blue marbles at random from the jar is \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) and the probability of selecting a green marble at random is \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) . How many white marbles does the jar contain?
Answer:
n(S) =54
Let the number of blue marble, be ‘x’
Let A be the event of getting blue marbles
n(A) = x
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{x}{54}\)
3x = 54
x = \(\frac{54}{3}\) = 18
Number of blue marble is 18. Let the number of green marble be “y”. Let B be the event of getting green marbles.

P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{4}{9}=\frac{y}{54}\)
9y = 54 × 4
y = \(\frac{54 \times 4}{9}\) = 24
Blue marbles + green marbles + white marbles = 54
18 + 24 + white marbles = 54
∴ Number of white marbles = 54 – 42 = 12
The jar contain 12 white marbles.

Question 42.
One – fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountain and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels.
Answer:
Le the total number of camels be ‘x’
Number of camels seen in the forest = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\)
Number of camels gone to the mountain = 2√x
Number of camels on the bank of river = 15
Total number of camels = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
x = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
4x = x + 8√x + 60 (muliply by 4)
3x – 8√x – 60 = 0
Let x = a²
3a² – 8√a² – 60 = 0
3a² – 8a – 6 = 0
3a (a – 6) + 10(a – 6) = 0
(3a + 10) (a – 6) = 0
3a + 10 = 0 or a – 6 = 0
a = \(\frac{-10}{3}\) or a = 6
x = \(\left(\frac{-10}{3}\right)^{2}\) or 6²(x = a²)
x = \(\frac{100}{9}\) (or) 36
Number of camels can-not be a fraction
∴ Number of camels = 36

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR
Answer:
Given a triangle PQR, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR.

Steps of construction
1. Construct a ∆PQR with any measurement.
2. Draw a ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to vertex P.
3. Locate 7 points (the greater of 7 and 4 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\))
Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, Q₄, Q₅, Q₆ and Q₇ on QX so that
QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃ = Q₃Q₄= Q₄Q₅ = Q₅Q₆ = Q₆Q₇
4. Join Q₄ (the 4^th point, 4 being smaller of 4 and 7 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\)) to R and draw a line through Q₇ parallel to Q₄ R, intersecting the extended line segment QR at R’.
5. Draw a line through R’ parallel to RP intersecting the extended line segment QP at P’ Then ∆P’QR’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is seven-fourths of the corresponding sides of ∆PQR.

[OR]

(b) Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Answer:
Radius = 4 cm; Distance 11 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle A and B.
5. Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents.
   This the length of the tangents PA = PB = 10.2 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 11² – 4² = 121 – 16= 105
PA = √105 = 10.2 cm
Length of the tangents = 10.2 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 preparing the table of values as below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 6), (-3, 2), (-2, 0), (-1, 0), (0, 2), (1, 6), (2, 12), (3, 20) (4, 30).
(iii) To solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0 subtract x² + 2x + 1 = 0 from y = x² + 3x + 2

(iv) Draw the graph of y = x +1 from the table

The equation y = x + 1 represents straight line.
This line intersect the curve at only one point (-1, 0). The solution set is (-1).

[OR]

(b) (2x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
y = (2x – 3) (x + 2)
= 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6
= 2x² + x – 6
(i) Prepare a table of values for y from x – 4 to 4

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 22) (-3, 9) (-2, 0) (-1, -5) (0, -6) (1,-3), (2, 4), (3, 15) and (4, 30).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The curve intersect the X – axis at (-2, 0) and \(\left(1 \frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
∴ The solution set is \(\left(-2,1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(iv) Since there are two points of intersection with X – axis, the quadratic equation has real and un – equal roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Inertia of a body depends on ______.
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Magnification of a convex lens is _______.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
The number of neutrons is ₈O¹⁶ is _______.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 6.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) phloem
(b) epidermis
(c) cortex
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 8.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31^st
(b) April 22^nd
(c) June 6^th
(d) October 2^nd
Answer:
(a) May 31^st

Question 9.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

Question 10.
The phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidised to release ethyl alcohol is
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(d) Fermentation

Question 11.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 12.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 14.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass	Weight
1. The quantity of matter contained in the body	1. The gravitation force exerted on it due to the Earth’s gravity alone.
2. Scalar quantity	2. Vector quantity
3. Unit: kg	3. Unit: N
4. Constant at all the places	4. Variable with respect to gravity.

Question 15.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 16.
Define volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Answer:
Heterodiatomic molecules -E.g: HCl, NaCl.

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 19.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Endocrine	Exocrine
1. Secretion of endocrines are hormones	1. Secretion of exocrines are enzymes
2. Endocrine glands do not have specific duct hence ductless gland.	2. Exocrine glands have specific duct to carry their secretions.
3. Eg. Pituitary gland	3. Eg. Salivary gland

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C and D.
Answer:

A – Exine, B – Intine, C – Generative cell, D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
Define Cancer.
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm: It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductor is 110 V. How much work moving 5C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Given, V = 110 V , Charge q = 5C
V = \(\frac{W}{q}\)
W = V × q
W = 110 × 5 = 550 J
∴ Work done W = 550 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Describe the rocket propulsion.
Answer:

• Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion.
• Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
• To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
• While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
• Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved.
• The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket.
• At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 24.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as,

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

1. Elastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

2. Inelastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.
The nature and size of the scattered results in different types of scattering. They are

• Raylight scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 25.
(a) Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Answer:
Given, P = 100 W, V = 200 V
Power P = VI

(b) What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

• The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
• The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
• Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one nonpolar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 27.
(a) Explain the various types of binary solutions based on the physical states of solute and solvent table.
Answer:

(b) State Henry’s law?
Answer:
Henry’s law states that, the solubility of a gas in a liquid, is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 28.
(a) Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes which required conscious training effort.

(b) How many cranial nerves and spinal nerves are present in man?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in man.

Question 29.
(a) What are Allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. There are two types of sex chromosomes. X and Y chromosomes. Human male have one X chromosome and one Y chromosomes and the human female have two X chromosomes.

(b) What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The opening and closing of stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guard cells. When the water enters into the guard cells, they become turgid and the stomata open. When guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 30.
(a) Draw and label the structure of oxysomes
Answer:

(b) What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)

Question 31.
(a) Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. Hence dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

(b) Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 32.
(a) State Newton’s third law of motion and explain with examples:
Answer:
Law: ‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
They always act on two different bodies’.
F_B = – F_A

Examples:
(i) When birds fly:
Push the air downwards with their wings – Action
Air push the bird upwards – Reaction

(ii) When firing bullet:
Gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward – Action
Gun equals this forward action by moving backward – Reaction.

(b) How will you identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• If the given compound is saturated it will not decolourise bromine water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering, S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

(ii) Explain the construction and working of a ‘compound microscope’.
Answer:
Construction
A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:
(i) The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u >fo).
(ii) A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
(iii) This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
(iv) This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
(v) Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

[OR]

(b) (i) A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1:2)
Answer:
Given: Let m_b , m_t are the masses of truck and bike.
mt = 4m_b ………(1)

(ii) Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.16 T)
T = 46°C, v₀ =331 ms^-1
_VT = 331 +(0.61 × 46)
= 331 +28.06
V_T = 359.06 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15 g of NaCl in 85 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of solute = 15 g
Mass of solvent = 85 g

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH.
Answer:
[OH^–] = Normality = Molarity × acidity
= 0.001 × 1 = 1 × 10^-3
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ ¹× [10^-3]
= -log ¹– log₁₀ 10^-3
= 0 – (-3 log₁₀ ¹⁰)
pOH = 3
pH + pOH = 14 .
pH = 14 – pOH= 14 – 3
pH = 11

(iii) Calculate the mass of 0.01 mole of H₂O.
Answer:
n = 0.01 mole; μ = 18 g mol^-1; W = ?
W = n × M
= 0.01 × 18 = 0.18 g

[OR]

(b) (i) In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the casewith deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

Hygroscopic substances	Deliquescence substance
1. When exposed to the atmosphere at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and do not dissolve.	1. When exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and dissolve.
2. Hygroscopic substances do not change its physical state on exposure to air.	2. Deliquescent substances change its physical state on exposure to air.
3. Hygroscopic substances may be amorphous solids or liquids.	3. Deliquescent substances are crystalline solids.

(ii) Define solubility.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth, inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

(ii) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Binary fission	Multiple fission
1. Binary fission is the splitting of a cell into two daughter cell	1. Multiple fission is splitting of a parent cell into two or more daughter cells.
2. It takes place in favourable conditions. Eg. Amoeba	2. It takes place in unfavourable conditions. Eg. Plasmodium

(iii) What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:
(1) Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.

(2) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.

(3) Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.

(4) Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit?
Answer:

The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes which are ovoid in shape. Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules.
This network of tubules lead into Cowper s glands a coiled tubule called epididymis, Perineal glands which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens.

The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder. The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and perineal gland. Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

(ii) What are vestigeal organs?
Answer:
The degenerated and non functional organs of animals are called Vestigeal organs. Eg. Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra, coccyx.

Students can Download Bio Zoology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which type of parthenogenesis are only males produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Thelytoky
(c) Amphitoky
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(a) Arrhenotoky

Question 2.
Animals giving birth to young ones:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) Viviparous
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Viviparous

Question 3.
The mode of reproduction in bacteria is by ___________
(a) Formation of gametes
(b) Endospore formation
(c) Conjugation
(d) Zoospore formation
Answer:
(c) Conjugation

Question 4.
In which mode of reproduction variations are seen?
(a) Asexual
(b) Parthenogenesis
(c) Sexual
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Sexual

Question 5.
Assertion and reasoning questions:
In each of the following questions, there are two statements. One is an assertion (A) and the other is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If both A and R are false
I. Assertion: In-bee society, all the members are diploid except drones.
Reason: Drones are produced by parthenogenesis.
A B C D
II. Assertion: Offsprings produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the parent.
Reason: Asexual reproduction involves only mitosis and no meiosis.
A B C D
III. Assertion: Viviparous animals give better protection to their offsprings.
Reason: They lay their eggs in the safe places of the environment.
A B C D
Answer:
(I) A (II) A (III) C

Question 6.
Name an organism where cell division is itself a mode of reproduction.
Answer:
Amoeba

Question 7.
Name the phenomenon where the female gamete directly develops into a new organism with an avian example.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis is the phenomenon where the unfertilized female gamete (egg) develops into a new individual, e.g. Turkey

Question 8.
What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples from animals.
Answer:
The development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis. It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet in 1745.
E.g. Honey bees, Aphis.

Question 9.
Which type of reproduction is effective – Asexual or sexual and why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is highly effective than asexual reproduction since the offsprings produced are genetically different from parents causing variations. Variation leads to evolution.

Question 10.
The unicellular organisms which reproduce by binary fission are considered immortal. Justify.
Answer:
In unicellular organisms during binary fission, the entire cell (organism) divides completely to form two daughter cells which later on develop into adults and the process goes on repeatedly during each division leading to the immortality of the cell (organism). Hence unicellular organisms like amoeba are ‘biologically immortal’.

Question 11.
Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as a clone?
Answer:
Offsprings developed by asexual reproduction are referred as clones since they are genetically & morphologically similar to this parent.

Question 12.
Why are the offsprings of the oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous organisms?
Answer:
Oviparous animals are egg-layers. The eggs containing embryos are laid out of their body and are highly susceptible to environmental factors (temperature, moisture etc.) and predators. Whereas, in viviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the body of female and comes out as young ones. Hence off springs of oviparous animals are at risk compared to viviparous animal.

Question 13.
Give reasons for the following:

1. Some organisms like honey bees are called parthenogenetic animals
2. A male honey bee has 16 chromosomes whereas its female has 32 chromosomes

Answer:
(1) Among honey bees, the queen bee and worker bees develop from fertilized eggs whereas the drones develop from unfertilized eggs. Hence the honey bees are parthenogenetic animals showing incomplete parthenogenesis.

(2) Female honey bees (Queen or worker bees) are diploid having 32 chromosomes since they develop from the fertilized egg. On the other hand, the male honey bees (drones) develop from unfertilized egg possessing only 16 chromosomes (i.e., Haploid)

Question 14.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium
(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra
(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria
Answer:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium

1. Binary fission in amoeba: In binary fission of amoeba, the plane of division is hard to observe. The nucleoli disintegrates. The nucleus divides mitotically forming two nucleus. The cell constricts in middle, so the cytoplasm divides forming two daughter cells.
2. Multiple fission: In Multiple fission of plasmodium, the oocyte or schizont divides into many similar daughter cells simultaneously. Nucleus undergoes repeated mitosis producing many nuclei without the division of cytoplasm. Later the cytoplasm divides & encircles each nucleus forming many daughter cells oocyte undergoes sporogony forming sporozoites. Schizont undergoes schizogony forming merozoites.

(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra:

1. Budding in Yeast: Yeast is xxxx cellular organism in which the bud develops as a small protuberance following the nuclear division and finally detached to new individual.
2. Budding in Hydra: Hydra is a multicellular organism where the bud xxxxxx from the parents body, grows gradually and finally gets detached.

(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria:

1. Regeneration of Lizard: If the tail of the lizard is cut and removed, a new tail will regenerate in the damaged part. In lizard only the new tail is regenerated.
2. Regeneration of Planaria: If a planarian worm get cut then each half regenerates the lost part resulting in two worms.
   In planaria, the cut removed part developed into an entire worm.

Question 15.
How is the juvenile phase different from the reproductive phase?
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase: Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the birth of an organism and before its reproductive maturity.
2. Reproduction phase: Reproductive phase is the period of growth after the juvenile phase when an individual attains reproductive maturity and reproduces.

Question 16.
What is the difference between syngamy and fertilization?
Answer:
Syngamy & fertilization both are more similar terms with a difference that syngamy refers to the process of fusion of two gametes forming zygote while fertilization refers to the process of being fertile.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Transverse binary fission is noticed in ___________
(a) Amoeba
(b) Planaria
(c) Ceratium
(d) Vorticella
Answer:
(b) Planaria

Question 2.
Multiple fission occurring in the oocyte of plasmodium is called ___________
(a) Schizogony
(b) Merogamy
(c) Syngamy
(d) Sporogony
Answer:
(d) Sporogony

Question 3.
Taenia solium requires ___________ as a secondary host to complete its life cycle.
(a) Mosquito
(b) pig
(c) dog
(d) human
Answer:
(b) pig

Question 4.
Which type of parthenogenesis only females are produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Amphitoky
(c) Thelytoky
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Thelytoky

Question 5.
Which among the following animal is not a continuous breeder?
(a) Hen
(b) Rabbit
(c) Honey bees
(d) Frogs
Answer:
(d) Frogs

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

Question 7.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding parthenogenesis.
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.
(b) It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet.
(c) Honey bees exhibit incomplete parthenogenesis.
(d) Amphitoky is a type of natural parthenogenesis.
Answer:
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.

Question 8.
Oblique binary fission is seen in ___________
Answer:
Dinoflagellates

Question 9.
The process by which gravid proglottids of tapeworm gets cut off is called ___________
Answer:
apolysis

Question 10.
The concept of regeneration was first noticed in ___________
Answer:
Hydra

Question 11.
Fusion of small-sized, morphologically different gametes is called ___________
Answer:
merogamy

Question 12.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Oviparous animals lays eggs.
(b) Viviparous animals give rise to young ones.
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.
(d) Amphibians are oviparous animals.
Answer:
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Organisms show three phases in their life cycle.
Reason (R): Juvenile phase is a degenerative phase.
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) R is the correct explanation for A
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.

Question 14
Match the statements.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c-i, d- ii.

Question 15.
The ploidy of males produced by arrhenotoky parthenogenesis is
Answer:
haploid

Question 16.
Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Paedogenesis – Liver fluke
(b) Strobilation – Aurelia
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee
(d) Encystment – Amoeba
Answer:
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee

Question 17.
Identify the proper sequence.
(a) juvenile phase, senescent phase, vegetative phase
(b) juvenile phase, a maturity phase, senescent phase
(c) vegetative phase, a maturity phase, juvenile phase
(d) senescent phase, juvenile phase, vegetative phase
Answer:
(b) juvenile phase, a maturity phase, senescent phase

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 19.
Which of the following types of asexual reproduction is noticed in Amoeba?
(a) Sporulation
(b) Encystment
(c) Binary fission
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
Pick out the organism whose fertilization occurs internally.
(a) reptiles
(b) sponges
(c) Pisces
(d) amphibians
Answer:
(a) reptiles

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Asexual reproduction is called blastogenic reproduction.
Reason (R): It is accomplished by mitotic and meiotic divisions.
(a) A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) Both A and R are incorrect
(d) R is the correct explanation for A
Answer:
(6) A is correct but R is incorrect

Question 22.
Egg-laying hen is an example for ___________
(a) Thelytoky
(b) Ovovivipary
(c) Vivipary
(d) Ovipary
Answer:
(d) Ovipary

Question 23.
Assertion (A): Syngamy refers to the fusion of two haploid gametes.
Reason (R): Syngamy leads to zygote formation.
(a) A and R are correct.
(b) A and R are incorrect.
(c) R is not the right explanation for A
(d) A is correct but R is incorrect.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct.

Question 24.
Human beings are an example for ___________ breeders.
Answer:
continuous

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Why asexual reproduction is called as somatogenic reproduction?
Answer:
Asexual reproduction is usually by amitotic or mitotic division of the somatic (body) cells, – hence is also known as somatogenic or blastogenic reproduction.

Question 2.
Name the four types of fission seen in animals.
Answer:
Binary fission, Multiple fission, Sporulation and Strobilation.

Question 3.
Define fission.
Answer:
Fission is the division of the parent body into two or more identical daughter individuals.

Question 4.
Differentiate between transverse binary fission and longitudinal binary fission.
Answer:
Transverse binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the transverse axis of the organism
2. Example: Paramecium

Longitudinal binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the longitudinal axis of the organism.
2. Example: Euglena

Question 5.
Define Plasmotomy with example.
Answer:
Plasmotomy is the division of multinucleated parent into many multinucleate daughter individuals with the division of nuclei. Nuclear division occurs later to maintain normal number of nuclei. Plasmotomy occurs in Opalina and Pelomyxa (Giant Amoeba).

Question 6.
What do you mean by regeneration in living organisms? Mention its types.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth of injured region.
It is of two types:

1. Morphallaxis
2. Epimorphosis.

Question 7.
How is the fertilization of amphibians differs from aves based on-site?
Answer:
In amphibians, the fertilization is external (taking place outside the body of a female organism) whereas internal fertilization takes place in aves.

Question 8.
What is Paedogamy?
Answer:
Paedogamy is the sexual union of young individuals produced immediately after the division of the adult parent cell by mitosis.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on conjugation.
Answer:
Conjugation is the temporary union of the two individuals of the same species. During their union both individuals, called the conjugants exchange certain amount of nuclear material (DNA) and then get separated. Conjugation is common among ciliates,
e.g. Paramecium, Vorticella and bacteria (Prokaryotes).

Question 10.
Classify animal breeding based on time.
Answer:
On the basis of time, breeding animals are of two types: seasonal breeders and continuous breeders. Seasonal breeders reproduce at particular period of the year such as frogs, lizards, most birds, deers etc., Continuous breeders continue to breed throughout their sexual maturity
e.g. honey bees, poultry, rabbit etc.

Question 11.
Define Vivipary.
Answer:
Vivipary is a condition in which animals give rise to live young ones after being nourished in the uterus though the placenta.
E.g. human.

Question 12.
List out the four types of binary fission.
Answer:

1. Simple irregular binary fission
2. Transverse binary fission
3. Longitudinal binary fission
4. Oblique binary fission

Question 13.
Repeated fission is a type of multiple fission. Yes or No? Why?
Answer:
Yes. If multiple fission produces four or many daughter individuals by equal cell division and the young ones do not separate until the process is complete, then this division is called repeated fission
e.g. Vorticella.

Question 14.
Define apolysis.
Answer:
The detachment of gravid proglottids either singly or in groups from the body of tapeworm is called apolysis.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 15.
Compare schizogony with sporogony of plasmodium.
Answer:
Schizogony:

1. In schizogony, the multiple fission occurs in the schizont.
2. It results in the formation of merozoites.

Sporogony:

1. In sporogony, the multiple fission occurs in the oocyte.
2. It results in the formation of sporozoites.

Question 16.
Write a short note on encystment in amoeba.
Answer:
During unfavorable conditions (increase or decrease in temperature, scarcity of food) Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst wall around it and becomes inactive. This phenomenon is called encystment. When conditions become favourable, the encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission and produces many minute amoebae called pseudopodiospore or amoebulae.

The cyst wall absorbs water and breaks off liberating the young pseudopodiospores, each with fine pseudopodia. They feed and grow rapidly to lead an independent life.

Question 17.
How exogenous buds are developed by Hydra?
Answer:
When buds are formed on the outer surface of the parent body, it is known as exogenous budding e.g. Hydra. In Hydra when food is plenty, the ectoderm cells increase and form a small elevation on the body surface. Ectoderm and endoderm are pushed out to form the bud. The bud contains an interior lumen in continuation with parent’s gastrovascular cavity. The bud enlarges, develops a mouth and a circle of tentacles at its free end. When fully grown, the bud constricts at the base and finally separates from the parent body and leads an independent life.

Question 18.
Apolysis favours Taenia solium. How?
Answer:
In the tapeworm, Taenia solium the gravid (ripe) proglottids are the oldest at the posterior end of the strobila. The gravid proglottids are regularly cut off either singly or in groups from the posterior end by a process called apolysis. This is very significant since it helps in transferring the developed embryos from the primary host (man) to find a secondary host (pig).

Question 19.
What is autogamy?
Answer:
In autogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by the same cell or same organism and both the gametes fuse together to form a zygote.
e.g. Actinosphaerium and Paramecium.

Question 20.
What is exogamy?
Answer:
In exogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by different parents and they fuse to form a zygote. So it is biparental. e.g. Human – dioecious or unisexual animal.

Question 21.
Give the definition for

1. Arrhenotoky
2. Thelytoky
3. Amphitoky

Answer:

1. Arrhenotoky: In this type, only males are produced by parthenogenesis
   eg: honey bees
2. Thelytoky: In this type of parthenogenesis only females are produced by parthenogenesis.
   e.g: Solenobia
3. Amphitoky: In this type parthenogenetic egg may develop into individuals of any sex.
   e.g: Aphis.

Question 22.
What is Incomplete parthenogenesis? Explain with example.
Answer:
Incomplete parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction in which both sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis occur. Example: In honey bees, the fertilized eggs develop into queen bees and worker bees, whereas the unfertilized eggs develop into drones (male).

Question 23.
Explain briefly the nature of Ovovivipary.
In Ovoviviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the egg and remains in the mother’s body until they are ready to hatch. This method of reproduction is similar to viviparity but the embryos have no placental connection with the mother and receive their nourishment from the egg yolk. Ovoviviparity is seen in fishes like sharks.

Question 24.
Point out any six modes of asexual reproduction seen in animals.
Answer:

1. fission
2.  budding
3. fragmentation
4. sporulation
5. regeneration
6. gemmule formation.

Question 25.
Enumerate the types of syngamy.
Answer:

1. Autogamy
2. Exogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Paedogamy
5. Merogamy
6. Isogamy
7. Anisogamy
8. Conjugation

Question 26.
Name the types of animals based on embryonic development with an example for each.
Answer:

1. Oviparous animals
   e.g. Birds
2. Viviparous animals
   e.g. Human beings
3. Ovoviviparous animals
   e.g. Shark

Question 27.
Write a short note on the phases of the life cycle.
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase – Period of growth between the birth of an individual and reproductive maturity.
2. Reproductive phase – Period of growth when an organism attains reproductive maturity and produces new offsprings.
3. Senescent plane – Period of growth when the structure and functioning of the body start degenerating.

Question 28.
What is Paedogenesis?
Answer:
In paedogenetic parthenogenesis (paedogenesis) the larvae produce a new generation of larvae by parthenogenesis. It occurs in the sporocysts and Redia larvae of liver fluke. It is also seen in the larvae of some insects,
e.g. Gall fly.

Question 29.
Draw and label a gemmule of sponge.
Answer:

Question 30.
Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction:

1.  Involves only one parent
2. Only mitotic cell division takes place.
3. Offsprings are genetically identical to parent.
4. Gametes are not produced

Sexual Reproduction:

1. Involves two parents (male & female)
2. Both mitosis & meiosis takes place.
3. Off springs genetically differ from the parents.
4. Gametes are produced.

5 – mark Questions

Question 31.
Describe the regeneration process noticed in living organisms.
Answer:
Regeneration is regrowth in the injured region. Regeneration was first studied in Hydra by Abraham Trembley in 1740. Regeneration is of two types, morphallaxis and epimorphosis. In morphallaxis, the whole body grows from a small fragment e.g. Hydra and Planaria. When Hydra is accidentally cut into several pieces, each piece can regenerate the lost parts and develop into a whole new individual. The parts usually retain their original polarity, with oral ends, by developing tentacles and aboral ends, by producing basal discs.

Epimorphosis is the replacement of lost body parts. It is of two types, namely reparative and restorative regeneration. In reparative regeneration, only certain damaged tissue can be regenerated, whereas in restorative regeneration severed body parts can develop
e.g. starfish, tail of wall lizard.

Question 32.
Given an account on the following terms.

1. Hologamy
2. Isogamy
3. Anisogamy
4. Merogamy
5. Paedogamy

Answer:

1. Hologamy: In Hologamy, the adult individuals do not produce gametes, but they themselves act as gametes and fuse to form new individuals.
   E.g: Trichonympha
2. Isogamy: Fusion of morphologically & physiologically similar gametes.
   E.g: Monocystis.
3. Anisogamy: Fusion of morphologically & physiologically dissimilar gametes.
   Eg: Vertebrates.
4. Merogamy: Fusion of small-sized morphologically different gametes (microgametes)
5. Paedogamy: Fusion of young individuals produced immediately after the mitotic division of adult parent cell.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Question

Question 1.
Under threat or attack, the garden lizard loses a part of its tail which trembles and avert the attention of predators, so that the lizard escapes later the tail regrown for the lizard. The same phenomenon can also be noticed in organisms like starfish etc. What do you call this phenomenon? Define it.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth in the injured region.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:
A – Only males
B – Only Females
C – Both Males & Females

Question 3.
In Vivipary, how the developing embryos are nourished?
Answer:
In Vivipary, the embryo develops inside the womb of the females body, hence they are nourished by the mother through the placenta.

Question 4.
How Charles Bonnet and Abraham Trembley contributed to the Biological field?
Answer:
Charles Bonnet discovered the process of parthenogenesis. Abraham Trembley was the first to study the concept of Regeneration in the Hydra

Question 5.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are the male & female sex cells respectively which look alike and perform similar functions. ‘A’ and ‘B’ fuse to form a new individual ‘D’ Which type of gametic fusion does this represent? Give an example.
Answer:
Isogamy Eg: Monocystis

Question 6.
Complete the flow chart by mentioning the ploidy of cells inboxes.
Answer:

1. Queen Bee Worker Bee – Diploid (2n)
2. Drones (Male Bee), Egg, sperm – Haploid (n)

Question 7.
Meiosis is a type of cell division where the chromosomal number is reduced to half the number daughter cells. Which type of cellular division occurs in the drones to produces spermatozoa? Why?
Answer:
The gonadal cells of drones undergo mitosis to form sperms. Because the drones are haploid in nature since they develop from unfertilized eggs. To avoid further reduction in chromosome no. and maintain the chromosomal constancy, (instead of undergoing meiosis), mitosis will take place leading to formation of haploid gametes.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai . NOTICE Articles for School Magazine 20th October, 2020 Students from Std. VI to X are requested to write and submit articles for the school magazine. You can write essays, poems, short stories, snippets, real life incidents, pencil sketches and paintings, Jokes and riddles in English, Tamil and Hindi. Do keep in mind the theme of the year ‘Be the Change to Bring a Change’. Last date for submission of articles to the undersigned is 5th January, 2020. All the club secretaries are requested to submit the activities report too. Caleb / Christabel Student Editors

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Subsidiary Books – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Purchases book is used to record ……………..
(a) all purchases of goods
(b) all credit purchases of assets
(c) all credit purchases of goods
(d) all purchases of assets
Answer:
(c) all credit purchases of goods

Question 2.
A periodic total of the purchases book is posted to the ……………..
(a) debit side of the purchases account
(b) debit side of the sales account
(c) credit side of the purchases account
(d) credit side of the sales account
Answer:
(a) debit side of the purchases account

Question 3.
Sales book is used to record ……………..
(a) all sales of goods
(b) all credit sales of assets
(c) all credit sales of goods
(d) all sales of assets and goods
Answer:
(c) all credit sales of goods

Question 4.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ……………..
(a) Sales account
(b) Cash account
(c) Purchases account
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(a) Sales account

Question 5.
Purchase returns book is used to record ……………..
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Question 6.
Sales return book is used to record ……………..
(a) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(c) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(d) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
Answer:
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately

Question 7.
Purchases of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ……………..
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Question 8.
The source document or voucher used for recording entries in sales book is ……………..
(a) Debit note
(b) Credit note
(c) Invoice
(d) Cash receipt
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Cash discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(b) Assets purchased on credit are recorded in journal proper
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(d) 3 grace days are added while determining the due date of the bill
Answer:
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts

Question 10.
Closing entries are recorded in ……………..
(a) Cash book
(b) Ledger
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchases book
Answer:
(c) Journal proper

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention four types of subsidiary books.
Answer:

1. Purchase Book
2. Sales Book
3. Purchase Return Book
4. Sales Return Book

Question 2.
What is purchases book?
Answer:
Purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded. When business wants to know the information about the credit purchases of goods at a glance, the information can be made available if purchases of goods on credit are separately recorded.

Question 3.
What is purchases returns book?
Answer:
Purchases returns book is a subsidiary book in which transactions relating to return of previously purchased goods to the suppliers, for which cash is not immediately received are recorded. Since goods are going out to the suppliers, they are also known as returns outward and the book is called as ‘returns outward book or returns outward journal’.

Question 4.
What is sales book?
Answer:
Sales book is a subsidiary book maintained to record credit sale of goods. Goods mean the items in which the business is dealing. These are meant for regular sale. Cash sale of goods and sale of property and assets whether for cash or on credit are not recorded in the sales book. This book is also named as sales day book, sold day book, sales journal or sale register.

Question 5.
What is sales returns book?
Answer:
Sales returns book is a subsidiary book, in which, details of return of goods sold for which cash is not immediately paid are recorded. Just as goods may be returned to suppliers, goods may be returned by customers.

Question 6.
What is debit note?
Answer:
A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned. This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned. It contains the description and details of goods returned, name of the party to whom goods are returned and net value of the goods so returned with reason for return.

Question 7.
What is credit note?
Answer:
A credit note is prepared by the seller and sent to the buyer when goods are returned indicating that the buyer’s account is credited in respect of goods returned. Credit note is a statement prepared by a trader who receives back the goods sold from his customer. It contains details such as the description of goods returned by the buyer, quantity returned and also their value.

Question 8.
What is journal proper?
Answer:
Journal proper is a residuary book which contains record of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary books such as cash book, purchases book, sales book, purchases returns book, sales returns book, bills receivable book and bills payable book. Thus, journal proper or general journal is a book in which the residual transactions which cannot be entered in any of the sub divisions of journal are entered.

Question 9.
Define bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 10.
What is an opening entry?
Answer:
Journal entry made in the beginning of the current year with the balances of assets and liabilities of the previous year is opening journal entry. In this entry, asset accounts are debited, liabilities and capital accounts are credited.

Question 11.
What is an invoice?
Answer:
Entries in the purchases day book are made from invoices which are popularly known as bills. Invoice is a business document or bill or statement, prepared and sent by the seller to the buyer giving the details of goods sold, such as quantity, quality, price, total value, etc. Thus, the invoice is a source document of prime entry both for the buyer and the seller.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the format of purchases book.
Answer:
Format of Purchases book / Purchases Journal

Question 2.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Purchases of goods on credit
4. When the proprietor takes goods for personal use
5. Goods returned to suppliers for which cash is not received immediately
6. Asset purchased as credit.

Answer:

1. Cash book
2. Sales book
3. Purchase book
4. Journal proper
5. Purchase return book
6. Journal proper

Question 3.
What are the advantages of subsidiary books?
Answer:
The advantages of maintaining subsidiary books are:
1. Proper and systematic record of business transactions: All the business transactions are classified and grouped conveniently as cash and non cash transactions, which are further classified as credit purchases, credit sales, returns, etc. As separate books are used for each type of transactions, individual transactions are properly and systematically recorded in the subsidiary books.

2. Convenient posting: All the transactions of a particular nature are recorded at one place, i.e., in one of the subsidiary books. For example, all credit purchases of goods are recorded in the purchases book and all credit sales of goods are recorded in the sales book. It facilitates posting to purchases account, sales account and concerned personal accounts.

3. Division of work: As journal is sub-divided, the work will be sub – divided and different persons can work on different books at the same time and the work can be speedily completed.

4. Efficiency: The sub – division of work gives the advantage of specialisation. When the same work is done by a person repeatedly the person becomes efficient in handling it. Thus, specialisation leads to efficiency in accounting work.

5. Helpful in decision making: Subsidiary books provide complete details about every type of transactions separately. Hence, the management can use the information as the basis for deciding its future actions. For example, information regarding sales returns from the sales returns book will enable the management to analyse the causes for sales returns and to adopt effective measures to remove deficiencies.

6. Prevents errors and frauds: Internal check becomes more effective as the work can be divided in such a manner that the work of one person is automatically checked by another person. With the use of internal check, the possibility of occurrence of errors or fraud may be avoided or minimised.

7. Availability of requisite information at a glance: When all transactions are entered in one journal, it is difficult to locate information about a particular item. When subsidiary books are maintained, details about a particular type of transaction can be obtained from subsidiary books. The maintenance of subsidiary books helps in obtaining the necessary information at a glance.

8. Detailed information available: As all transactions relating to a particular item are entered in a subsidiary book, it gives detailed information. It is easy to arrive at monthly or quarterly totals.

9. Saving in time: As there are many subsidiary books, work of entering can be done simultaneously by many persons. Thus, it saves time and accounting work can be completed quickly.

10. Labour of posting is reduced: Labour of posting is reduced as posting is made in periodical totals to the impersonal account, for example, Purchases account.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:

1. Endorsement of a bill and
2. Discounting of a bill

Answer:
1. Endorsement means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person. The person who endorses is called the “Endorser”. The person to whom a bill is endorsed is called the “Endorsee”. The endorsee is entitled to collect the money.

2. When the holder of a bill is in need of money before the due date of a bill, cash can be received by discounting the bill with the banker. This process is referred to as the discounting of bill. The banker deducts a small amount of the bill which is called discount and pays the balance in cash immediately to the holder of the bill.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods. (3 Marks)
2017:
April 5 – Purchased from Karthik Electric Co., on credit
10 Electric iron box @ ₹ 2,500 each
5 electric stoves @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 19 – Purchased on credit from Khaitan Electric Co.,
3 electric heaters @ ₹ 6,000 each
April 25 – Purchased from Polar Electric Co., on credit.
10 Fans @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 29 – Purchased from M & Co. for cash
10 electric stoves @ ₹ 3,000 each
Solution:
In the books of M/s Subhashree Electric Co.
Purchases book

Question 2.
Enter the following credit transactions in the purchases book of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Bought from Vasu 100 bags of rice @ ₹ 800 per bag
2. May 8 – Bought from Cheyyar Sugar Mills Ltd., 20 bags of sugar @ ₹ 2,600 per bag
3. May 10 – Bought from Ram Flour Mill, Coimbatore, 10 bags of wheat flour @ ₹ 750 per bag
4. May 15 – Bought from Nilgiri Tea Co., Nilgiris, 15 cases of tea @ ₹ 900 per case
5. May 25 – Bought from Sairam Coffee Works Ltd., 100 kgs of Coffee @ ₹ 190 per kg.
6. May 29 – Bought from X & Co. furniture worth ₹ 2,000

Solution:
In the books of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant
Purchase book

Question 3.
From the following transactions write up the Sales day book of M/s. Ram & Co., a stationery merchant. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. Jan. 1 – Sold to Anbu & Co., on credit 20 reams of white paper @ ₹ 150 per ream
2. Jan. 2 – Sold to Jagadish & Sons on credit 6 dozen pens @ ₹ 360 per dozen
3. Jan. 10 Sold old newspapers for cash @ ₹ 620
4. Jan. 15 – Sold on credit M/s. Elango & Co., 10 drawing boards @ ₹ 170 per piece
5. Jan. 20 – Sold to Kani & Co., 4 writing tables at ₹ 1,520 per table for cash

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ram & Co., Stationery Merchant
Sales book

Question 4.
Enter the following transactions in the Sales book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Sold to Naveen Stores, Trichy on credit 5 computer tables @ ₹ 1,750 per table
2. May 9 – Sold to Deepa & Co., Madurai on credit 6 dining tables @ ₹ 1,900 per dining table
3. May 15 – Sold to Rajesh 10 dressing tables @ ₹ 2,750 each on credit
4. May 24 – Sold to Anil 5 wooden tables @ ₹ 1,250 per table on credit
5. May 27 – Sold to Gopi 3 old computers @ ₹ 3,500 each
6. May 29 – Sold 50 chairs to Anil @ ₹ 275 each for cash

Solution:
In the books of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop
Sales book

Question 5.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases and sales books of Kannan, an automobile dealer, for the month of December, 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Kannan, an automobile dealer
Purchases book

Sales Book

Question 6.
Prepare Purchases book and Sales book in the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd., from the following transactions given for April, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017:
April 1 Purchased goods from Prasad, Kancheepuram on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 450 per meter
75 meters Velvet @ ₹ 180 per meter
April 10 Sold goods to Rathinam, Chennai on credit
60 meters Silk @ ₹ 490 per meter
50 meters Velvet @ ₹ 210 per meter
April 18 Nathan & Sons purchased from us on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 510 per meter
April 20 Purchased goods from Hari Ram & Sons, Madurai on credit
50 rolls kada cloth @ ₹ 730 per roll
80 rolls cotton cloth @ ₹ 650 per roll
April 24 Purchased from Mohan, Karur for cash
Shirting cloth @ ₹ 7,000
Sarees @ ₹ 25,000
Solution:
In the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd.,
Purchase book

Sales book

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare purchase day book and purchases returns book for the month of June, 2017 and post them into ledger accounts in the books of Robert Furniture Mart. (5 Marks)
2017:

June 1 – Purchased from Balu Traders 20 chairs @ ₹ 150 each on credit

June 13 – Bought from Subash & Co., on credit
2 Almirah @ ₹ 3,100 each
10 tables @ ₹ 1,500 each
15 chairs @ ₹ 200 each
Less: 10 % Trade discount on all items
Add: Freight charges ₹ 220

June 21 – Returned 2 damaged chairs to Balu Traders and cash not received

June 24 – Purchased from Sunrise Furniture Mart on credit
25 Almirahs @ ₹ 1,300 each

June 27 – Purchased from Mouli Traders on credit
10 executive tables @ ₹ 3,275 each

June 29 – Returned 3 Almirahs to Sunrise Furniture Mart and cash not received
Solution:
In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases book

In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases Return book

Ledger Acconts
Purchase A/c

Balu Traders A/c

Sunrise Furniture Mart A/c

Subash & Co.A/c

Mouli Traders A/c

Ledger Accounts
Purchase Return A/c

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017
Jan. 2 – Purchased from M/s. Raj Electronics on credit
20 cell phones @ ₹ 5,500 per piece
10 colour TVs @ ₹ 14,500 per piece

Jan. 5 Purchased from M/s. Ruby Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 1,650 per piece
8 Tape recorders @ ₹ 2,500 per piece
Trade discount on all items @ 10%

Jan. 10 Returned to M/s. Raj Electronics 4 cell phones damaged and cash not received

Jan. 20 Purchased from M/s. Suganthi Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 3,700 per piece
2 Sony colour TVs @ ₹ 27,000 per piece
Trade discount @ 5% on all items
Solution:
In the books of Suman
Purchase book

In the Books of Suman
Purchase returns book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Guhan & Sons, who is a textile dealer. (5 Marks)
2017
May 2 – Sold to M/s. Karan & Co., on credit
100 pieces towels @ ₹ 280 per piece
200 metres shirtings @ ₹ 270 per metre

May 5 – Sold to M/s. Veeran & Sons on credit
10 pieces ready – made dress @ ₹ 1,500 per piece

May 16 – Sold to M/s. Jain & Sons on credit
50 blankets @ ₹ 240 each

May 20 Damaged 10 pieces towels returned by Karan & Co. and cash not paid

May 25 Sold old furniture to M/s. Saran & Co., on credit ₹ 18,000

May 27 Returned 2 pieces ready-made dresses by M/’s. Veeran&Sons due to inferior qualityand cash not paid
Solution:
In the books of M/s Guhan & Sons, a textile dealer
Sales book

Sales return book

Question 10.
Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Ponni & Co., and post them to ledger. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. Aug. 1 – Sold goods to Senthil as per Invoice No. 68 for ₹ 20,500 on credit
2. Aug. 4 – Sold goods to Madhavan as per Invoice No. 74 for ₹ 12,800 on credit
3. Aug. 7 – Sold goods to Kanagasabai as per Invoice No. 78 for ₹ 7,500 on credit
4. Aug. 15 – Returns inward by Senthil as per Credit Note no. 7 for ₹ 1,500 for which cash is not paid
5. Aug. 20 – Sold goods to Selvam for ₹ 13,300 for cash
6. Aug. 25 – Sales returns of ₹ 1,800 by Madhavan as per Credit Note No. 11 for which cash is , not paid

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ponni & Co.,
Sales book

Sales returns book

Ledger Accounts in the books of M/s Ponni & Co.
Sales A/c

Sales Return A/c

Senthil A/c

Madhavan A/c

Kanagasabai A/c

Question 11.
Prepare necessary subsidiary books in the books of Niranjan and also Sachin account and Mukil account from the following transactions for the month of February, 2017.

In the books of Niranjan
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase return book

Sales return book

Sachin A/c

Mukil A/c

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book Stores.
2017:
Dec. 1 – Bought from M/s. Umadevi on credit
100 copies of Business Statistics Book @ ₹ 80 each
100 copies of Accountancy Book @ ₹ 150 each

Dec.7 – Sold to Sridevi & Co., on credit
240 copies of Business Statistics @ ₹ 90 each
250 copies of Accountancy books @ ₹ 170 each

Dec. 10 – Bought from Subha & Co.,
40 copies of Economics Books @ ₹ 80 each
Less: 15% Trade Discount

Dec. 15 Returned to M/s. Uma Devi 10 copies of damaged Accountancy book for which cash is not received

Dec. 18 Sold to Gupta Bros., on credit
200 copies of Economics book @ ₹ 95 each

Dec. 26 Returned 6 copies of Economics books to Subha & Co.,
Solution:
In the books of Nalanda Book Store
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase Return book

Textbook Case Study Solved

Mr. Joseph started a trading business of selling readymade clothes. In the earlier period, he dealt only with cash, because he felt that would be risk-free. But, later on, he had to give credit period for his regular customers in order to retain them. For some customers, when they made bulk purchase, he offered them some discount. That brought him even more customers. But, some of his customers are not prompt in making the payment.

He expanded his business and employed few staff. As the credit transactions were numerous, he found it difficult to maintain properly. One of his friends, who is a Chartered Accountant advised him to maintain subsidiary books.
Discuss on the following points.

Question 1.
What could be the reason for Joseph’s feeling that dealing in cash is risk free?
Answer:
When we sell the goods, immediately we can get cash at once. So no debts had occurred in the business.

Question 2.
What type of discount is offered by Joseph?
Answer:
He offered trade discount.

Question 3.
Suggest some ways to Joseph for making his customers to pay on time.
Answer:
The cash discount may be offered by Joseph to his customers to pay on time.

Question 4.
Do you think that maintaining the subsidiary books will be useful to Joseph?
Answer:
Yes. it is useful.

1. Sales book
2. Sales returns book
3. Purchases book
4. Purchase returns book

Question 5.
What business documents are needed to maintain the subsidiary books?
Answer:

1. Invoice
2. Debit note
3. Credit note

 

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
then adj (AB)| = ……….
(a) – 40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(b) -20
Answer:
(b) -80

Question 2.
iⁿ + 1ⁿ⁺¹ + i^{n + 2} + i^{n +3} is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)- 1
(d) i
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 3.
If ω = \(\text { cis } \frac{2 \pi}{3}\) , then the number of distinct roots of
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
z+1 & \omega & \omega^{2} \\
\omega & z+\omega^{2} & 1 \\
\omega^{2} & 1 & z+\omega
\end{array}\right|=0\)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 4.
sin^-1(cos x) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\) is valid for ……….
(a) -π ≤ x ≤0
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π
(c) \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π

Question 5.
tan^-1 x + cot^-1 = …….
(a) 1
(b) -π
(c) π/2
(d) π
Answer:
(c) π/2

Question 6.
The equation of the normal to the circle x² + y² – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 which is parallel to the line 2x + 4y = 3 is …………..
(a) x + 2y = 3.
(b) x + 2y + 3 = 3
(c) 2x + 4y + 3 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 3 = 0
Answer:
(a) x + 2y = 3.

Question 7.
The axis of the parabola x² = 20y is ……….
(a) y = 5
(b) x = 5
(c) x = 0
(d) y = 0
Answer:
(c) x = 0

Question 8.
If \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})=(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) for non-coplanar vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) then…….
(a) \(\vec{a}\) parallel to \(\vec{b}\)
(b) \(\vec{b}\) parallel to \(\vec{c}\)
(c) \(\vec{c}\) parallel to \(\vec{a}\)
(d) \(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}=\overrightarrow{0}\)

Question 9.
The vector equation of a plane whose distance from the origin is p and perpendicular to a unit vector n̂ is ….
(a) \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{n}=p\)
(b) \(\begin{aligned}
&-n\\
&r \cdot n=q
\end{aligned}\)
(c) \(\vec{r} \times \vec{n}=p\)
(d) \(\vec{r} \cdot \hat{n}=p\)

Question 10.
The point of inflection of the curve y=(x – 1)³ is …………..
(a) (0,0)
(b) (0,1)
(c) (1,0)
(d) (1,1)
Answer:
(c) (1,0)

Question 11.
The asymptote to the curve y²(1 + x) = x² (1 – x) is …………..
(a) x = 1
(b) y = 1
(c) y = -1
(d) x = -1
Answer:
(d) x = -1

Question 12.
The solution of a linear differential equation ax + Px = Q where P and Q are function of y, is ……….
(a) y (I.F) = ∫(I.F) Q dx + c
(b) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c
(c) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c .
(d) x (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dx + c

Question 13.
A circular template has a radius of 10 cm. The measurement of radius has an approximate error of 0.02 cm. Then the percentage error in calculating area of this template is ……..
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.08%
Answer:
(b) 0.4%

Question 14.
For any value of n∈z, \(\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos ^{2} x} \cos ^{3}[(2 n+1) x] d x \) is……….
(a) π/2
(b) π
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 15.
If n is odd then \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin ^{n} x d x\) is …. ….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{n-1}{n} \cdot \frac{n-3}{n-2} \cdot \frac{n-5}{n-4} \dots \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1\)

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}=2^{y-x}\)is ……….
(a) 2^x + 2^y = c
(b) 2^x – 2^y = c
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)
(d) x + y = c
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)

Question 17.
If p and q are the order and degree of the differential equation \(y \frac{d y}{d x}+x^{3}\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)+x y=\cos x\) when…..
(a) p < q
(b) p = q
(c) p > q
(d) p exists and q does not exist
Answer:
(c) p > q

Question 18.
A pair of dice numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 of a six-sided die and 1, 2, 3, 4 of a four-sided die is rolled and the sum is determined. Let the random variable X denote this sum. Then the number of elements in the inverse image of 7 is ……….
(a) 1
(6) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 19.
If in 6 trials, X is a binomial variate which follows the relation 9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2),
then the probability of success is …….
(a) 0.125 .
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.375
(d) 0.75
Answer:
(b) 0.25

Question 20.
Which one of the following statements has truth value F ?
(a) Chennai is in India or √2 is an integer
(b) Chennai is in India or √2 is an irrational number
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer
(d) Chennai is in China or √2 is an irrational number
Answer:
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14)

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
8 & -4 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), verify that A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I₂,

Question 22.
Find the value of \(\sum_{k=1}^{8}\left(\cos \frac{2 k \pi}{9}+i \sin \frac{2 k \pi}{9}\right)\)
Answer:
We know that the 9th roots of unity are 1, 6, 62, …, 08 Sum of the roots:
1 + ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = 0
⇒ ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = -1

Question 23.
Solve the equation 😡⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0.
Answer:
The given equation is x⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0
Let x² = y
y² – 14y + 45 = 0 ⇒ (y – 9)(y – 5) = 0
y = 9,5
∴ x² = 9, x²= 5
x = ±3, x = ±√5
∴ The roots are ±3, ±√5

Question 24.
Find the principal value of sin \(\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) (in radians and degrees).
Answer:

Question 25.
Show that the points (2,3,4),(-1,4,5) and (8,1,2) are collinear.
Answer:
Given points are (2, 3, 4), (-1,4,5) and (8,1,2). Equation of the line joining of the first and
second point is
\(\frac{x-2}{-3}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-4}{1}=m(\text { say })\)
(-3m + 2, m + 3, m + 4)
On putting m = -2, we get the third point is (8, 1, 2)
∴ Given points are collinear.

Question 26.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Answer:
I = \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Put 4 + 3 sin x = t, so that 3 cos x dx = dt = cosx dx = \(\frac{1}{3} dt\) When x = 0, t = 4 + 3(0) = 4 and when x = 2π, t = 4+ 3(0) = 4

Question 27.
Find the order and degre of the diferential equation center equation \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\)
Answer:

Question 28.
Suppose the amount of milk sold daily at a milk booth is distributed with a minimum
of 200 litres and a maximum of 600 litres with probability density function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lr}
k & 200 \leq x \leq 600 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) Find the probability that daily sales will fall between 300 otherwise litres and 500 litres?
Answer:
The probability that daily sales will fall between 300 litres and 500 litres is

Question 29.
Let A = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) ,B = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) , C = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
0 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) be any three boolean matrices of the same type. Find A V B
Answer:

Question 30.
Find the general equation of a circle with centre (-3,- 4) and radius 3 units.
Answer:
Equation of the circle in standard form is (x – h)² + (y – k)² = p²
(x-(-3))² + (y-(-4))² = 3² .
(x + 3)² + (y + 4)² = 3²
x² + y² + 6x + 8y + 16 = 0.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
If A = \(-\left[\begin{array}{lll}
8 & 1 & 4 \\
4 & 4 & 7 \\
1 & 8 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) prove that A^-1 = A^T.
Answer:

Question 32.
If z₁ = 2 + 5i, z₂ = -3 – 4i, and z₃ = 1 + i, find the additive and multiplicative inverse of z₁, z₂, and z₃.
Answer:

Question 33.
Solve the equation 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0 if its roots form a geometric progression
Answer:
The given equation is 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0

Given that the root are GP
∴ The roots are \(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) , α, αr
\(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) x α x αr = (-8)
α³ = 8
α = 2

Question 34.
Find the value of \(\cot \left(\sin ^{-1} \frac{3}{5}+\sin ^{-1} \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If the normal at the point“ t₁‘ on the parabola y² = 4ax meets the parabola again at the point ‘t₂’, then prove that \(t_{2}=-\left(t_{1}+\frac{2}{t_{1}}\right)\)
Answer:
Equation of normal to y² = 4ax at ‘t’ is y + xt = 2at + at³.
So equation of normal at ‘t₁,’ is y + xt₁, = 2at₁ + at₁³ ……….(1)
The normal meets the parabola y² = 4ax at “t₂‘ (ie.,) at (at₂², 2at₂)

Question 36.
Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (-1, 2, 3) to the straight line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\). Also, find the shortest distance from the given point to the straight line.
Answer:

Comparing the given equation \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\) with \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+t \vec{b}\) we get \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\). We denote the given point (-1,2,3) by D, and the point (1,-4,3) on the straight line by A . If F is the foot of the perpendicular from D to the straight line, then F is of the form (2t+1, 3t – 4, t + 3) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OF}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OD}}=(2 t+2) \hat{i}+(3 t-6) \hat{j}+t \hat{k}\) .
Since \(\vec{b}\) is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\), we have
Line \(\vec{b} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\) = 0 = 2(2t + 2) + 3(3-6) +1(t) = 0 = t=1
Therefore, the coordinate of F is (3,-1, 4).
Now, the perpendicular distance from the given point to the given line is
\(\mathrm{DF}=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}|=\sqrt{4^{2}+(-3)^{2}+1^{2}}=\sqrt{26}\) units.

Question 37.
Find the asymptotes of the curve f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x-4}{3 x-6}\)
Answer:
Since the numerator is of highest degree than the denominator. We have a slant
asymptote to find it we have to divide the numerator by the denominator.

So the equation of asymptote is \(y=\frac{x}{3}+\frac{8}{3}\) and 3x – 6 = 0
x = 2

Question 38.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{1} x(1-x)^{n} d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
For the distribution function given by \(\mathbf{F}(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
0 & x<0 \\ x^{2} & 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\ 1 & x>1
\end{array}\right.\), find the density function. Also evaluate
(i) P(0.5<x<0.75), (ii) P(X ≤ 50.5) (iii) P(x > 0.75)
Answer:

Question 40.
Let w (x, y) = \(x y+\frac{e^{y}}{y^{2}+1}\) for all (x, y) ∈ R². Calculate \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial y \partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial x \partial y}\)
Answer:

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) An amount of ₹ 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is ₹ 5,000. The income from the third bond is ₹ 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Answer:
Let the amount invested in 6% bond be ₹ x
and the amount invested in 8% bond be ₹y
and the amount invested in 10% bond be ₹z
Now x + y + z = 65000

(i.e) 6x + 8y + 10z = 500000
(÷by 2) 3x + 4y + 5z = 250000
Also given that
\frac{10}{100} z-\frac{8}{100} y = 800 (i.e) -8y + 10z = 80000
(÷ by 2) -4y + 5z = 40000

(i.e,) x + y + z  = 65000…..(1)
y + 2z = 55000…..(2)
13z = 260000 …..(3)
Form (3) z = \(\frac{260000}{13}\)
Substituting z = ₹ 20000 in (2) we get
y + 40000 = 55000 = y ⇒ 55000 – 40000 = ₹ 15000
Substituting z = ₹ 20000, y = ₹ 15000 in (1) we get
x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 65000 – 35000 = ₹ 30000
So the amount invested in
6% bond x = ₹ 30000
8% bond y = ₹ 15000
and 10% bond z = ₹ 20000

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac{y-1}{x^{2}+x}\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) If arg (z – 1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) and arg (z + 1) = 2\(\frac{\pi}{3}\) , then prove that |z| = 1.
Answer:
Given arg (z-1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = 30° and arg (z + 1) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) = 120°
So, arg (z + 1) – arg (z – 1) = 120° – 30° = 90°
ie, ang \(\frac{z+1}{z-1}=90^{\circ}=\frac{\pi}{2}\)
\(\operatorname{Re} \frac{z+1}{z-1}=0\) [∴arg = \(\tan \theta=\frac{I P}{R P}\)

Therefore x= -1 and x=1 are vertical asymptotes.
The rough sketch of the curve is shown on the right side.

Question 43.
(a) Solve the equation x³ – 9x² + 14x + 24 = 0 if it is given that two of its roots are in the ratio 3:2.
Answer:
The given equation is x³ – 9x² +14x + 24 = 0…
Since, the two roots are in the ratio 3:2.
The roots are α , 3λ, 2λ
α + 3λ + 2λ = -b = 9
= a + 5λ = 9 (a) ….. (1)
α (3λ) (2λ) = -24
6λ²a = -24 => λ²α = -4 …….(2)
α = 9 – 5λ
λ² (9 – 52) = -4
9λ² – 5λ³ + 4 = 0
5λ³ – 9λ² – 4 = 0
(λ – 2) (5λ² + λ + 2) = 0
λ = 2,5λ² + λ+ 2 = 0 has only Imaginary roots ∆ < 0
∴ when λ = 2, α = 9-5 (2) = 9 – 10 = -1
∴ The roots are α, 3λ, 2λ i.e., -1, 6, 4

[OR]

(b) Show that the lines \(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{-1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-5}{5}\)
are coplanar. Also -3 .. 1 5 -1 2 find the equation of the plane containing these two lines.
Answer:
From the lines we have,
(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (-3, 1, 5); (b₁, b₂, b₃) = (-3, 1, 5)
(x₂, y₂, z₂) = (-1, 2, 5); (d₁, d₂, d₃) = (-1, 2,5)
Conditions for coplanar

\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 1 & 0 \\
-3 & 1 & 5 \\
-1 & 2 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(5 – 10) – 1(-15 + 5) + ((-6 + 1) = -10 + 10 = 0
Given two lines are coplanar

(x + 3)(5 – 10) – (y – 1)[-15 + 5) + (2 – 5)(-6 + 1] = 0
5(x + 3) + 10(y – 1) – 5(z – 5) = 0
(÷ by -5) ⇒ (x + 3) – 2 (y – 1) + (z – 5) = 0
x + 3 – 2y + 2 + 2 – 5 = 0 .
or x – 2y + z = 0

(x + 1)(5 – 10) – (y – 2)(-15 + 5) + (z – 5)(-6 + 1) = 0
-5(x + 1) + 10(y – 2) – 5(2 – 5) = 0
(x + 1) – 2(y – 2) + (2 – 5) = 0
x + 1 – 2y + 4 + 2 – 5 = 0
x – 2y + z = 0

Question 44.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y² = x and the line y = x -2.
Answer:
To find the points of intersection solve the two equations y² = x and y=x-2

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x \log x}=\frac{\sin 2 x}{\log x}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Solve \(\cos \left(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\right)\right)=\sin \left\{\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\right\}\)
Answer:

(b) Find the mean and variance of a random variable X, whose probability density x for x 20 function is \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} & \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
Observe that the given distribution is continuous

Question 46.
(a) Show that the equation of the normal to the curve x= a cos³θ, y = a sin³ θ at ‘θ’ is
x cos θ – y sin θ= a cos 2 θ.
Answer:
x = a cos³θ
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = a[ 3cos²θ](-sin θ) = -3acos²θ sin θ
y= a sin³θ

Slope of the normal = \(\frac{-1}{m}=\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)Point = (x1, yy) = (a cos³ θ , a sin³ θ ) sin θ
So, equation of the normal is
Y-a sin³ θ = \(\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)(x- a cos³ θ)
i.e. y sin θ – a sin⁴ θ = x cos θ – a cos⁴ θ
x cos θ – sin θ = a cos⁴ θ – a sin⁴ θ
i.e x cos θ – y sin θ = a [cos²θ+ sin²θ] [cos²θ – sin²θ]
= a [cos 2 θ]
So, the equation of the normal is x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ

[OR]

(b) Verify (i) closure property (ii) commutative property (iii) associative property (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the operation +₅ on Z₅ using table corresponding to addition modulo 5.
Answer:
It is known that Z₅ = {[O], [1], [2], [3], [4]} . The table corresponding to addition modulo 5 is as follows: We take reminders {0,1,2,3,4} to represent the classes {[0],[1],[2],[3],[4]}.

(i) Since each box in the table is filled by exactly one element of Z₅, the output a +₅b is unique
and hence +₅ is a binary operation.

(ii) The entries are symmetrically placed with respect to the main diagonal. So +₅ has commutative
property.

(iii) The table cannot be used directly for the verification of the associative property. So it is to be verified as usual.
For instance, (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 0 +₅ 4 = 4 (mod 5)
and 2 +₅ (3 +₅ 4) = 2 +₅ 2 = 4 (mod 5). Hence (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 2 +₅ (3 +₅4).
Proceeding like this one can verify this for all possible triples and ultimately it can be shown that +₅ is associative.

(iv) The row headed by 0 and the column headed by 0 are identical. Hence the identity element is 0.

(v) The existence of inverse is guaranteed provided the identity O exists in each row and each column. From Table-A, it is clear that this property is true in this case. The method of finding the inverse of any one of the elements of Z₅ , say 2 is outlined below.

First find the position of the identity element 0 in the III row headed by 2. Move horizonta along the III row and after reaching 0, move vertically above 0 in the IV column, because 0 is in the III row and IV column. The element reached at the topmost position of IV column is 3. This element 3 is nothing but the inverse of 2, because, 2 +₅ 3 = 0 (mod 5). In this way, the inverse of each and every element of Z₅ can be obtained. Note that the inverse of 0 is 0, that of 1 is 4, that of 2 is 3, that of 3 is 2 , and that of 4 is 1.

Question 47.
(a) Identify the type of conic and find centre, foci, vertices, and directrices the following:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
Answer:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
(18x² – 144x) + (12y² + 48y) = -120
18(x² – 8x) + 12 ( 12 + 4y) = -120
18(x² – 8x + 16 – 16) + 12 (12+ 4y + 4 – 4) = -120
18(x – 4)² – 288 + 12(y + 2)² – 48 = -120
18(x – 4)² + 12(y + 2)² = -120 + 288 + 48 = 216

[OR]

(b) Prove that g(x, y) = x log \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) is homogeneous; what is the degree? Verify Euler’s Theorem for g.
Answer:
g (x, y) = x log(y/x)
8 (tx, ty) = (tx) log \(\left(\frac{t y}{t x}\right)\)
= txlog \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
g(tx, ty) = t g(x, y)
∴ ‘g’is a homogeneous function of degree 1. By Euler’s theorem, we have

∴ Euler’s theorem verified.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The unit of ‘g’ is ms^-2. It can be also expressed as _______.
(a) cm s^-1
(b) N kg^-1
(c) N m² kg^-1
(d) cm² s^-2
Answer:
N kg^-1

Question 2.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2 f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 3.
Velocity of sound is maximum in ________.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gases
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 4.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P _______.
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 5.
Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
Answer:
(a) He

Question 6.
Deliquescence is due to ________.
(a) Strong affinity to water
(b) Less affinity of water
(c) Strong hatred to water
(d) Inertness to water
Answer:
(a) Strong affinity to water

Question 7.
Decrease in leucocytes is _______.
(a) Leucopenia
(b) Leukemia
(c) Anaemia
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Leucopenia

Question 8.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are ______.
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 9.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ________.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasan
(c) conjoint
(d) amphicribral
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 10.
______ is the green coloured plastids.
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Chromoplast
(c) Leucoplast
(d) Stele
Answer:
(a) Chloroplast

Question 11.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by ________.
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 12.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) Box
(b) Pai
(c) Scanner
(d) Folder
Answer:
(d) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
When two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct points constitute couple. A couple results in causes the rotation of the body. This rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.

Question 14.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor?
Answer:

Resistivity	Conductivity
1. It is the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section.	1. It is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity of material.
2. It’s unit is ohm metre	2. Its unit is ohm–1 metre-1 or ohm metre-1

Question 15.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 16.
What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust?
Answer:
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of formation of rust is known as rusting.

Question 17.
Give an example each
(i) gas in liquid
(ii) solid in liquid
(iii) solid in solid
(iv) gas in gas.
Answer:
(i) Carbon-di-oxide dissolved in water (Soda water)
(ii) Sodium chloride dissolved in water.
(iii) Copper dissolved in gold (Alloy)
(iv) Mixture of Helium – Oxygen gases

Question 18.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in leech. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin into haemocoelic fluid, while carbon dioxide diffuses out.

Question 19.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 20.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)

Question 21.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The reappearance of ancestral characters in some individuals is called atavism. E.g. Presence of rudimentary tail in new born babies.

Question 22.
Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 7 kg whose linear momentum is 5 kg ms^-1
Answer:
Given, p = 5 kg ms^-1
m = 7 kg
p =m × v
v = \(\frac{p}{m}=\frac{5}{7}\)
∴ v = 0.71 ms^-1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:
(i) There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external force acts on them.
(ii) Let us prove the law of conservation of linear momentum with the following illustration:

(iii) Let two bodies A and B having masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocity u₁ and u₂ in a straight line.
(iv) Let the velocity of the first body be higher than that of the second body. i.e., U₁ > u₂.
(v) During an interval of time t second, they tend to have a collision. After the impact, both of them move along the same straight line with a velocity v, and v2 respectively.

By Newton’s III law of motion
Action force = Reaction force
F_A = -F_B
\(\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}=-\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
m₁v₁ – m₁u₁ = m₂u₂ + m₂u₂
m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ = m₁u₁ + m₂u₂

The above equation confirms in the absence of an external force, the algebraic sum of the momentum after collision is numerically equal to the algebraic sum of the momentum before collision. Hence the law of conservation linear momentum is proved.

Question 24.
(i) Explain about domestic electric circuits.
Answer:

• Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
• The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
• The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
• The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
• The function of the fuse wire or a MCB is to protect the house hold electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

(ii) What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

• In domestic appliance is used parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
• One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

Question 25.
(i) What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.

(ii) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
Answer:
(i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that we can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is atleast 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Question 26.
(i) What are the advantages of detergents over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are better than soaps because they:

• can be used in both hard and soft water and can clean more effectively in hard water than soap.
• can also be used in saline and acidic water.
• do not leave any soap scum on the tub or clothes.
• dissolve freely even in cool water and rinse freely in hard water.
• can be used for washing woollen garments, where as soap cannot be used.
• have a linear hydrocarbon chain, which is biodegradable.
• are active emulsifiers of motor grease.
• do an effective and safe cleansing, keeping even synthetic fabrics brighter and whiter.

(b) Mention the disadvantages of detergents.
Answer:

• Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-organisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
• They are relatively more expensive than soap.

Question 27.
(a) Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils – faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

(b) Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions:
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s)↓+ 2KNO_3(aq)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions:
Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(i)

Question 28.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
All information from the environment are detected by the receptors, located in the sense organs such as the eyes, nose, skin, etc.

Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.
On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response. The flow of nerve impulses from axon end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synapatic transmission.

Question 29.
(a) How is dihybrid cross differ from monohybrid cross?
Monohybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves a single pair of genes.
• In this cross, Parents differ by single trait (Eg : height)
• Monohybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

Dihybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two traits.
• In this cross, the parents have two different independent traits. Eg: Flower colour, stem length
• The dihybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.

Question 30.
(a) Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem (Eg. sunflower) are conjoint, collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

(b) Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 31.
(a) What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
The drugs which act on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception, are called Psychotropic drugs. They are also called Mood altering drugs.

(b) State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:

• DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit.
• It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
• It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 32.
(a) What are the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile:

• A source emitting electromagnetic wave is attached to a police car
• The wave is reflected by a moving source.
• From the frequency shift, the over speeding vehicles can be determined.

(ii) Tracking a satellite:

• The frequency of radio waves decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth.
• By this change in frequency, the location of the satellites is determined.

(iii) RADAR:

• The radio waves are detected by the receivers.
• The frequency change tracks the speed and location of the aircraft’s.

(iv) SONAR:

• There is a frequency change between the sent signal and received signal.
• This helps to determine the speed of submariners and marine animals.

(ii) A solution is made from 25 mi of ethanol and 75 ml of water. Calculate the volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume of ethenol = 25 ml
Volume of water = 75 ml

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 x 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What are the characteristic features of heat energy transfer?
Answer:

• Heat always flows from a system of higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
• The mass of a system is not altered when it is heated or cooled.
• Heat gained by the cold system is equal to heat lost by the hot system.

(ii) Explain linear expansion with diagram?
Answer:

• When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature.
• Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.
• The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion.
• It is different for different materials. Its SI unit is K^-1.
• The equation is \(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\) = α_LΔT
  ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
  L₀ – Original length (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
  α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion

[OR]

(b) (i) In the circuit diagram given below, three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ of 5 Ω, 10Ω and 20Ω respectively are connected as shown.
Calculate:
(A) Current through each resistor
(B) Total current in the circuit
(C) Total resistance in the circuit
Answer:

(A) Since the resistors are connected in parallel, the potential difference across each resistor
is same (i.e. V = 10V)
Therefore, the current through R₁ is,

(B) Total current in the circuit,
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
= 2 + 1 + 0.5 = 3.5 A

(C) Total resistance in the circuit

(ii) A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb in 6 seconds. What is the current through the bulb?
Answer:
Charge Q = 12 C, Time t = 6 s. Therefore,
Current I = \(\frac{Q}{t}=\frac{12}{6}\) = 2A

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of moles in 27 g of Al.
Answer:

(ii) Find the percentages of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1 × atomic mass of nitrogen + 3 × atomic mass of hydrogen
= (1 × 14) + (3 × 1)
= 14 + 3 = 17g

The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia = 82.35 %

(iii) Calculate the molecular mass of C₂H₆.
Answer:
Molecular mass of C₂H₆ = (2 × atomic mass of C) + (6 × atomic mass of H)
= (2 × 12) + (6 × 1)
= 24 + 6 = 30 g

[OR]

(b) Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
Factors affecting solubility : There are three main factors which govern the solubility of a solute. They are Nature of the solute and solvent, Temperature, and Pressure.

Nature of the solute and solvent:

• The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role in solubility.
  ) Solubility is based on the phrase “like dissolves like.” The expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute.
  For example: Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.
  (iii) Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents. For example, Sulphur dissolves in carbon di sulphide.

Effect of Temperature:
Solubility of Solids in Liquid:

• Generally, solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.
• In endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
• In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

Solubility of Gases in liquid:
Solubility of gases in liquid decrease with increase in temperature.

Effect of Pressure:
When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increase. When pressure is increased, more gas molecules strike the surface of the liquid and mix into the solution.

Question 35.
(i) What is Cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism: It is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone (thyroxine) in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones.

(ii) Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers?
Answer:

• Brightly coloured flowers, with smell and nectar.
• Pollen grain are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny so they can be adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.

(iii) What are the advantages of using bio-gas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It bums without smoke and therefore causing less pollution.
• An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the amount of green house gases emitted.

[OR]

(b) (i) What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
Hermaphrodite: If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same individual, it is called hermaphrodite animal. Eg. Leech.

(ii) What are the effects of hybrid vigour?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called as heterosis or hybrid vigour. Its effects in animal breeding are:

• Increased production of milk by cattle
• Increased production of egg by poultry
• High quality of meat is produced
• Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His brothers and his little sister ran to the brink.
(a) bark
(b) sea
(c) water
(d) edge
Answer:
(d) edge

Question 2.
‘Open up! ’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) rough
(b) sharp
(c) haughty
(d) soft
Answer:
(a) rough

Question 3.
Trying to revive old childhood memories may prove disappointing! ’
(a) reveal
(b) resuscitate
(c) cancel
(d) cover
Answer:
(b) resuscitate

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable
(b) dishonesty
(c) rectitude
(d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 5.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 6.
M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) clarify
(b) beautify
(c) answer
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(c) answer

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘sister-in-law‘.
(a) sister-in-laws
(b) sisters-in-law
(c) sisters-in-laws
(d) sisters-n-law
Answer:
(b) sisters-in-law

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘help’.
(a) ful
(b) less
(c) ly
(d) graphy
Answer:
(b) less

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DSLR.
(a) Digital Single Lens Refraction
(b) Digital Single Light Reflex
(c) Digital Service Lens Reflex
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex
Answer:
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
I will not ……………. to pressure. I shall face the challenge bravely.
(a) give away
(b) give in
(c) give out
(d) give off
Answer:
(b) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘rain‘ to form a compound word,
(a) well
(b) dance
(c) wet
(d) coat
Answer:
(d) coat

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
None of you bothered to leave a bottle of water …………. my bed.
(a) within
(b) outside
(c) beside
(d) for
Answer:
(c) beside

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The dog never liked to be left alone and kept on ………… the entire night.
(a) whined
(b) whining
(c) whine
(d) will whine
Answer:
(b) whining

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
It was a great feeling ………. I learnt to use it.
(a) that
(b) whether
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(d) when

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the young bird utter a joyful scream?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly and uttered a joyful scream falling outwards and downwards into space.

Question 16.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 17.
What was the information given by Mrs. Hudson to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson said that Holmes was working on a case down at Rotherhithe, near the river and had brought an illness back with him since Wednesday afternoon. He had neither taken food nor water for the past three days.

Question 18.
What did Aditya do when he went to the attic?
Answer:
When Aditya went up the attic, he got on top of the packing case and pushed his hand inside the ventilator. He upset a sparrow’s nest, a part of which fell to the ground. It looked as if he was in search of something that he had left there 29 years ago.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“They growl at that and they growl at this;
Whatever comes, there is something amiss;”
(a) What does the word ‘growl’ mean here?
(b) Why do they find everything amiss?
Answer:
(a) The word growl here means ‘grumbling’.
(b) They find everything amiss, since they are not satisfied or contented with anything.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then ”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away ”. ”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.

Question 21.
“Remember; we who take arms against each other”
(a) What should we remember?
(b) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
(a) We should remember that no men are foreign and no country is strange.
Answer:
(b) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(а) To whom does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) How does the house appear in May?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the poetess, Nadia Bush.
(b) The house appears a bit brighter in May.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The burglars had cut a huge hole in the wooden door.
A huge hole had been cut in the wooden door by the burglars.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“Do they live here?” asked Manohar
Answer:
Manohar asked me if they lived here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
‘what was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin round the house last night’ he demanded
‘What was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin’ round the house last night?’ he demanded.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
It is not known what is the purpose of his visit to this place.
Answer:
The purpose of his visit to this place is not known.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) writing/ system/ telephone/ am/ to/I/ about/ banking/ your/ complain
(b) crashed/ on/I/ the/ system/ been/ that/ each/ informed/ computer/ has/ have/ occasion
Answer:
(a) I am writing to complain about your telephone banking system.
(b) On each occasion, I have been informed that the computer system has crashed.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger approaches you and asks you to guide her/him the way to S.S. Market. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the Steps.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the left immediately after the school in the comer of Anna Road and Flower Street
• After the school, take the right and walk further till you find S.S. Market on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received is a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do analyse problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you have in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family is a must to carry out the expedition.

“It s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 30.
Discuss the role played by Kim and Stephen Hawking to utilize technology for the disabled?
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realize life isn’t tough because you are differently-abled. Kim made them realize that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people like me. It can make friends communicate and control the environment. It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work.

It can make them confident and independent. World renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world. So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently-abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.

“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools.

The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals. When things come easy, we do not realise its value.

Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.

“ Understand your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings. ”

Question 32.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past.

He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek. He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members.

He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.

“ Self-respect permeates every’ aspect of your life.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How are today’s women portrayed by the poet in, ‘I Am Every Woman’?
Answer:
Rakhi Nariani Shirke is an academician with a passion for writing poems as a medium of self-expression. This poem talks about the multifaceted nature of women. A woman is born beautiful and beauty is an inborn trait. She is a symbol of supremacy and strength. She takes risks in life for she is real and always genuine. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute.

They are always ready to take up new ventures. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Women have to be treated respectfully for the growth of a nation. As stated earlier, she is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs. In spite of all the out breaths and cries and laments, she is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring. She is a disciplinarian and will not tolerate your pranks with her. She is a woman of today to beware of.

“Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.”

Question 34.
Comment on the house located on Elm street.
Answer:
Nadia Bush brings out the eerie nature while reading her poem. The House On Elm Street.” There aren’t any houses around this house located on Elm Street. It stood all alone in an isolated place. Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like the house since no leaves sprout in any of the seasons. It is said to be a mysterious place since no one knows who lives there or what is inside. No one knows what happens inside that house and hence it is very mysterious. It is for sure a big house with vast space inside the house. Generally, at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in it.

Lights are switched on and off. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter on a fine warm summer day in the month of May. The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the areas known around. Likewise, the tree too is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth and hence feels it is a mysterious place.

“The mystery’ of existence will always remain a mystery and secret.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,
And hope the road’s last turn will be the best.”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Quest and best are the rhyming words.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the above stanza is abcc.
(iii) Couplet is the figure of speech in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘Still seeking’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it lives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv)
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
‘Come in, Zigzag, come in, dear! ’coazed Visu, and in tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird the Krishnan family had ever seen. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. ‘This is Zigzag! Announced Visu with a flourish. ‘His’ full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of- the-Tonga. How I’m going to miss him! So beautifully he talks! He can even recite French Poetry!’

The object of all this praise was standing cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes.
(i) Describe Zigzag’s plumage.
(ii) What is the full name of Zigzag?
(iii) What can Zigzag do according to Visu?
(iv) What was the colour of Zigzag’s eyes?
(v) Who brought home Zigzag?
Answer:
(i) Zigzag’s plumage was a crown of pink feathers and the rest of the feathers were muddiest and sludgiest brown.
(ii) Zigzag’s full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga.
(iii) Zigzag can recite French Poetry, according to Visu.
(iv) Zigzag’s eyes were cola-coloured.
(v) Visu brought home Zigzag.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Fly India – Fly five star – sky is the best place on earth.
Answer:

Question 40.
Vivek has been asked to deliver a speech on ‘The Brain Drain Problem’. Use your own ideas, and write the speech in about 150-200 words.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends!
Good morning to one and all present here. I, Vivek of Std. X, am thankful to the teachers for giving me this opportunity.

The problem of brain-drain has assumed serious proportion in the last thirty years or so. The nation spends its hard-earned meagre resources on the education and training of its doctors, engineers, scientists, etc. But these highly talented and trained men and women of genius migrate to developed countries.

They desert the ranks for the lure of money, better facilities and living conditions. Some of them get opportunities for fulfilment of their ambitions and development of personality as there is full scope for it. They enjoy unlimited freedom for experiments and research and fear no resources crunch.

The parent countries become poorer by the depletion of resources as a result of migration of trained and talented persons. The migrants too feel maladjusted in the new country where they are considered second grade citizens. Living and working in an alien culture among foreigners, they find themselves cut off from their own social modes and customs. They do suffer emotional vacuum as the memories of friends and relatives in their country haunt their minds.

India too has been facing this problem. We must take steps to ensure them better facilities, improved living conditions, freedom for experimentation and research. In addition to this, their talents must be utilised for proper work and their work must be given due recognition. These measures, if adopted seriously, can check the problem effectively.
Thank you.

Question 41.
You are Dhinesh/Malu. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

To	[email protected]
From	[email protected] / [email protected]
Subject	Inability to attend the function
Dear Siddharth, Thank you for your cordial invitation of your sister’s wedding. I, however, regret my inability to be with you on this happy occasion as we shall be leaving for Munar for summer holidays on 1st May, 20XX. Please excuse my absence. Do convey my regards and best wishes to the couple. Yours sincerely Dhinesh/Malu

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:
An evening at the Park
Corporation has constructed and maintains quite a few parks in the city. Young and old throng these parks in the morning or in the evening to relax and stay fit. Now-a-days, people are conscious about their health and hence keep themselves fit by walking or doing aerobic exercises in the park.

They also help keeping the park clean and tidy. An ice-cream vendor makes use of the opportunity to make his living.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.

The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals. We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society.

The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey: (i) lives & efforts; (ii) our actions & desires – bound up Practices: Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others Lang. – learnt 4m others – for mental power
Status: (i) Indiv. if left alone – be primitive; (ii) The individual – much in virtue member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.
Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language;indiv.-individual; 4m- from;
mat. – material

Title: Man is a Social Animal
Rough draft
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have produced clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe our principal knowledge-over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remamplmfitiyeThey are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from but birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair draft
Title : Man is a Social Animal
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief they are interdependent. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.
No. of words written in the summary: 48

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Two-thirds of the content were rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar is not attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house in Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me when you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well but we might have to fail you.
Answer:
(a) Two-thirds of the content was rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar has not been attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house on Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me if you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well or we might have to fail you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
We will serve ………… and read and write!
Answer:
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Prospero a sympathetic character – uses magic to control – learns sorcery – protects Miranda – control Ariel and others – alter weather – raise the dead – demands attention – an insensitive character to compassionate character – rightful duke of Milan – humanity in his treatment of Antonio – extremely forgiving – helpless against his enemies – white magic and not black magic – complex personality – refuses to free Ariel – subjugates Caliban – ruler appears insensitive and harsh – tyrannical – understanding – protective just and fair, intelligent.
Answer:
In ‘The Tempest’ by William Shakespeare, Prospero is the main character yet a sympathetic character. You could also say he isn’t very sympathetic because he uses magic to control other people. He has learned sorcery from books, and uses it while on the island to protect Miranda and control the other characters. Prospero’s sorcery is sufficiently powerful to control Ariel and other spirits, as well as to alter weather and even raise the dead.

Prospero insists that others listen to him even when they do not want to. His character grows from being an insensitive character to a much more compassionate and likable character with positive characteristics. Prospero is the rightful duke of Milan who is usurped by his brother. Prospero’s humanity is clearly obvious in his treatment of Antonio.

In spite of him being a traitor, he is extremely forgiving in nature. He is helpless against his enemies and wait for them to come close to his island so that he can use his magic to create a storm and bring them under his control. Prospero’s magic is the white magic of nature and not the black magic of evil nature. He is surely a complex personality.

Although he refuses to free Ariel and subjugates Caliban, Prospero is really a generous ruler, never intending to harm even his enemies. At first, Prospero appears insensitive and harsh, especially in his treatment of Ariel and Caliban. He is seen as tyrannical in his treatment of Ferdinand, but Prospero realizes that Ferdinand and
Miranda will value one another more if there are a few obstacles to their wooing. Prospero is protective of those who are close to him especially Miranda. Throughout, Prospero makes sure Ferdinand’s and Miranda’s love stays strong. Ultimately, we see Prospero to be just and fair besides being intelligent.

[OR]

(b) Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain by developing the given hints. A mother’s affection – insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain – eternal and unconditional love is invaluable – the law – tyrant ruler – changes decision – a kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – Her heart is concerned.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.
A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
In Titanic the ‘older’ Rose throws the Heart of the Ocean diamond over the side of the ship. While the Heart of the Ocean is only a fairy tale, it is based on the Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire. It was bought in India by a French jeweller in the 1660s and brought back to France.

The Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV where it began to attract a reputation as a cursed creature. Things did not end well with Louis XIV who was flat broke at the end of his life and who was eaten by a pack of wild dogs. It then passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded. The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

The last owner’s brother died early, her son was run over by a car when he was nine years old, she got divorced, her husband perished in a mental institution, her daughter died of an overdose and she herself died of pneumonia.
The Hope Diamond is now housed in the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.

Questions.
(a) Where did The Blue Fire originate?
(b) To whom was the Blue Beauty passed on after Louis XIV was dead?
(c) How did the diamond affect Louis XIV?
(d) Under what circumstances did the Hope Diamond resurface after two decades?
Ans.
(a) The Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire was bought in India originally by a French jeweller in the 1660s and taken back to France.
(b) The Blue Beauty was passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded.
(c) When the diamond, Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV, things did not end well with him as he was flat broke at the end of his life and was eaten by a pack of wild dogs.
(d) The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
PIPING DOWN THE VALLEYS

Piping down the valleys wild,
Piping songs of pleasant glee,
On a cloud, I saw a child,
And he laughing said to me :

“Pipe a song about a Lamb !”
So I piped with merry cheer.
“Piper, a pipe that song again;”
So I piped: he wept to hear.

Drop thy pipe, thy happy pipe;
“Sing thy songs of happy cheer.”
So I sang the same again,
While he wept with joy to hear.

“Piper, sit thee down and write
In a book, that all may read.”
So he vanish’d from my sight,
And I pluck’d a hollow reed,

And I made a rural pen,
And I stain’d the water clear,
And I wrote my happy songs
Every child may joy to hear.

Questions.
(a) Whom did the piper see in a cloud?
(b) What did the child ask the piper to do?
(c) When did the piper pluck a hollow reed?
(d) What did the child do after singing?
Answer:
(a) The piper saw a child in a cloud.
(b) The child asked the piper to sing a song about a Lamb.
(c) The piper plucked a hollow reed after the boy had vanished.
(d) After singing, the child disappeared from the Piper’s sight.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………………… refers to any type of application that involves more than one type of media such as text, graphics video animation and sound
(a) an executable file
(b) desktop publishing
(c) multimedia
(d) hypertext
Answer:
(c) multimedia

Question 2.
One of the disadvantages of the multimedia is its …………………………….
(a) cost
(b) adaptability
(c) usability
(d) relativity
Answer:
(a) cost

Question 3.
Expand JPEG
(a) joint photo experts gross
(b) joint photographic experts group
(c) joint processor experts group
(d) joint photographic expression group
Answer:
(b) joint photographic experts group

Question 4.
You need hardware, software and …………………….. to make multimedia.
(a) network
(b) compact disk drive
(c) good idea
(d) programming knowledge
Answer:
(b) compact disk drive

Question 5.
Match the following by choosing the right one.
(i) Text – 1.TGA
(ii) Image – 2. MIDI
(iii) Sound – 3. MPEG
(iv) Video – 4. RTF
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3

Question 6.
Find the odd one on the following which is not an image format
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) RTF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(c) RTF

Question 7.
………………………….. is the process displaying still images they give continuous movement
(a) Text formats
(b) Sound
(c) MP3
(d) Animation
Answer:
(d) Animation

Question 8.
The live telecasting of real time program through Internet is known as ……………………………..
(a) web casting
(b) web hosting
(c) data manipulation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) web casting

Question 9.
GIF use ………………………. color look up table
(a) 8 bit
(b) 8 KB
(c) 8 MB
(d) 8 GB
Answer:
(a) 8 bit

Question 10.
RTF file format was introduced by ……………………………
(a) TCS
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

PART – II
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Multimedia and their features?
Answer:
The word multimedia consists of two words “multi” and “media” which means that multiple forms of media are combined to gather and provide services like storage, communication, presentation and Input/output interactions of text, video, image, graphics and audio.
Features of Multimedia:

1. The information they handle is represented digitally.
2. Multimedia Systems are integrated, computer controlled and usually interactive.

Question 2.
List out Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.

Question 3.
Classify the TEXT component in multimedia?
Answer:
Text is classified as static text and hypertext. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

Question 4.
Classify the IMAGE component in multimedia?
Answer:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the Image components are classified in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images:
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

Vector Images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Question 5.
Define Animation and their features?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.
Features:

1. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation.
2. The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second.

Question 6.
List out image file formats?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics).

Question 7.
List out audio file formats?
Answer:
WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format).

Question 8.
List out video file formats?
Answer:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave) and MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 9.
Define Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Question 10.
List out Multimedia Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager, Content Specialist, Script Writer, Text Editor, Multimedia Architect, Computer Graphic Artist, Audio and Video Specialist, Computer Programmer, Web Master.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain about Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.
Text:
Text is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person.

Image:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images.

Sound:
Sound is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

Video:
Video is defined as the display of recorded event, scene.

Animation:
Animation is the process of displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.

Question 2.
Describe the features and techniques of animation?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation. Using numerical transformations the movement of that image along its paths is calculated for their defining coordinates.

The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second. Animations may be in two or three dimensional. The two dimensional animation, bring an image alive, that occur on the flat X and Y axis of the screen, while in three dimensional animation it occurs along the three axis X, Y and Z. Animation tools are very powerful and effective. The two basic types of animations are Path animation and Frame animation.

Question 3.
Write roles and responsibilities of Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content.

Script Writer:
The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page.

Question 4.
Describe the various file formats in multimedia?
Answer:
Text Formats: RTF, Plain text, Image Formats:TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Jbint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics), Digital Audio File Formats: WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format), Digital Video File Formats: AVI (Audio/Video Interleave), MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 5.
Explain animation industry and their scope?
Answer:
1. The Indian Animation Industry encompasses traditional 2D animations, 3D animation <& visual effects for films.

2. An animation Studio is a company producing animated media. Many of these studios help with the fulfillment of animation works for big brand names and have carried out outsourced projects including Nemo.

3. The first Indian animated TV series was Ghayab Aya in the year 1986. The first Indian animated film was The Banyan Deer in 1957.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain in detail Process of Multimedia ?
Steps in Multimedia Production
Answer:
Adequate time and efficient planning is required for multimedia production, which assures that the project will be proceed smoothly and certainly ensures that the information reaches the target audience. Following are the phases for development of complex multimedia projects. Multimedia and Desktop Publishing.

Conceptual Analysis and Planning:
The process of multimedia making begins with a conceptual ignition point. Conceptual analysis identifies a appropriate theme, budget and content availability on that selected theme. Additional criteria like copyright issues also are considered in this phase.

Project design:
Once the theme is finalized objectives, goals, and activities are drawn for the multimedia project. General statements are termed as goals. The specific statements in the project is known as the objectives. Activities are series of actions performed to implement an objective. These activities contribute to the Project design phase.

Pre-production:
Based on the planning and design, it is necessary to develop the project.
The following are the steps involved in pre-production:

Budgeting:
Budgeting for each phases like consultants, hardware, software, travel, communication and publishing is estimated for all the multimedia projects.

Multimedia Production Team:
The production team for a high-end multimedia project requires a team efforts. The team comprises of members playing various roles and responsibilities like Script writer, Production manager, Editor, Graphics Architect, Multimedia Architect and Web Master.

Hardware/Software Selection:
All multimedia Application requires appropriate tools to develop and playback the application. Hardware includes the selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing the records. Selection of the suitable software and file formats depends on the funds available for the project being developed.

Defining the Content:
Content is the “stuff’ provided by content specialist to the multimedia architect with which the application is developed, who prepares the narration, bullets, charts and tables etc.

Preparing the structure:
A detailed structure must have information about all the steps ‘along with the time line of the future action. This structure defines the activities, responsible person for each activity and the start/end time for each activity.

Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Testing:
The complete testing of the pilot product is done before the mass production to ensure that everything is in place, thereby avoiding the failure after launch. If it’s an web . based product its functioning is tested with different browsers like Internet Explorer, Chrome, Mozilla and Netscape Navigator. If it is a locak multimedia application on a LAN it must be deployed in the server for testing purpose. After the testing process are over, the product is incorporated with valid suggested changes.

Documentation User documentation is a mandatory feature of all multimedia projects. The documentation has all the valuable information’s starting from the system requirement till the completion of testing. Contact details, e-mail address and phone numbers are provided for technical support and sending suggestions and comments.

Delivering the Multimedia Product:
Multimedia applications are best delivered on CD/DVD or in the website . In reality various challenges are faced while delivering through internet, like bandwidth problems, huge number of plug-ins required to play audio and video and long downloading time. Finally, a multimedia application is delivered in a more effective way by the integration of two mediums CD-ROM/DVD and Internet.

Question 2.
Explain in detail Techniques of Animation?
Answer:
The various animation techniques are
(i) Traditional Animation:
Traditional animation involved animators drawing by hand for each and every frame. It is creating the drawings one by one on the frame. Eg. Snow White and the Seven Dwarf Movie

(ii) Computer animation – 2D, 3D:

1. The famous mickey mouse was created using the 2D animation technique.
2. The first 2D animation was called Fantasmagorie. It is a short cartoon made by Emile Cohl. It is entirely in black and white

(iii) Digital 2D animation:

1. Creating animations in the 2 dimensional space with the help of digital technologies is called digital 2D animation.
2. Create 100s of drawing and animate them to show same kind of movement in technically called digital 2d animations.

(iv) Digital 3D animation:
3D animation models are highly realistic. They are used to create Short Films, TV Commercials.

(v) Stop-motion animation:
Using frame by frame animation, physical static objects are moved around. Eg. Movie “The Teddy Bears”.

(vi) Mechanical Animations:
Instead of robotics, machines can be animated by using the mechanical animation techniques. It helps the animator to understand how the machine works.

(vii) Chuckimation:
Chuckimation is one of the popular animation techniques created by “Action League Now!” creators. It is the combination of stop frame animation and live shots, where characters are dropped into a particular frame.

(Viii) Clay animation (or) claymation:
Pieces of clay are moulded to create characters and based on the imagination of the animator, a story is unfolded. There are oil based and water based clays available.

(ix) Typography Animation:
Typography is nothing but font faces and letters and combination of text in motion.
Eg. Titles part of movie “The Atlantic”

(x) Sand Animation:
A lit glass table is used as a canvas and the animator creates animation by moving the sand in certain directions.

(xi) ZoetrOpe Animation:
Some still images are drawn on a drum and when turned in a circular way, we will get an illusion of movement.

Question 3.
Explore the opportunities in Animation filed movie industry?
Answer:
In India, the VFX domain, or the animation and visual effects industry has been growing stronger and stronger in recent years.

1. Animation and visual effects requirement for massive international projects such as HBO’s top TV series and Marvels’ hit Infinity War and Black Panther was outsourced to Indian companies in Mumbai and Pune.
2. This led to the significant increase in the number of students enrolling for a VFX course.
3. As such, a student that completes a 3D animation course cap hope to build a rewarding and satisfying career in the Media and Entertainment field these days.
4. The timeless classics Tom and Jerry and Mickey Mouse created a milestone but the legacy is not disappointing.
5. Indian animation has risen from an amateur piece of craft like “The Banyan Deer” to the million rupees project “Chhota Bheem”
6. POGO, the leading cartoon channel in India is the most successful entertainment channel for kids.
7. Indian animation industry is anticipated to grow faster than the IT industry.
8. The industry has grown to a multibillion net work standard.
9. As a result of the growing demand in industry, the scope of animation course in tremendous.
10. The number of VFX artists and animators that worked on Baahubali was around 750.
11. Ex. For Top animates Movies: Spider-Man, Incredibles 2, Zootopia, Inside Out, Toy Story 3, Finding Nemo, Frozen, etc.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about production team Roles and Responsibilities?
Answer:
Multimedia Production Team:
Managing team members in a way to get maximum outcome with high degree of efficiency is mandatory in multimedia production. The fine quality high-end multimedia production application requires a specialize team comprises of the following members:

Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality. The production manager should be an expertise in the technology expert, good at proposal writing, good communication skills and budget management skills. Also must have experience in human resource management and act as an efficient team leader.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content. Program content refers to projects information, graphics, data or facts presented through the multimedia production.

Script Writer:
Video and film scripts represents a linear sequence of events. The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments and if needed uses the virtual reality integration into the program.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically. Text and narration is an integrated part of the application.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
The roles of these specialists are needed for dealing with narration and digitized videos to-be added in a multimedia presentation. They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language. These scripts usually develops special functions like developing the software to give the size and shape of video windows, controlling peripherals and so on.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page. They converts a multimedia presentation into a web page. Final multimedia product is ready for consultation is a joint effort of the entire team. Initially, the production manager identifies the project content, while the web master provides access to a wide range of community through web-services.

Question 5.
Explain about different file formats in multimedia files?
Answer:
File Formats for Multimedia:
The following is an outline of current file formats used for the production and delivery of multimedia data.
Text Formats:
RTF Rich Text Format:
is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Plain text:
Plain text files can be opened, read, and edited with most text editors. Commonly used are Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X) and so on. Other computer programs are also capable of reading and importing plain text. Plain text is the original and popular way of conveying an e-mail.

Image Formats:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format):
This format is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

BMP (Bitmap):
Initially this format is in use with Windows 3.1. It is quite large and uncompressed and hence BMP is used for the high-resolution or large images.

DIB (Device Independent Bitmap):
This format which is similar to BMP, allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format):
GIF is a compressed image format. Most of the computer color images and backgrounds are GIF files. This file format is best suitable for graphics that uses only limited colors, and it is the most popular format used for online color photos. 13-bit Color look up table is used by the GIF format to identify its color values. This format is supported widely.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG was designed to attain maximum image compression. It uses loss compression technique, where a compression method is referred that loses some of the data required for the image reconstruction. It works good with photographs, naturalistic artwork, and similar material but functions less on lettering, live drawings or simple cartoons.

TGA (Tagra):
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like worldwide web. So it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Digital Audio File Formats:
1. WAV (Waveform Audio File Format):
It is the most popular audio file format in windows for storing uncompressed sound files. In order to attain the. reduced file size it can also be converted to other file formats like MP3.

2. MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format)
3. MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

4. OGG:
A free, open source container format that is designed for obtaining better streaming and evolving at high end quality digital multimedia. It can be compared to MP3 files in terms of quality.

5. AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format):
A standard audio file format used by Apple which is like a WAV file for the Mac.

6. WMA (Windows Media Audio):
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

7. RA (Real Audio Format):
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD. Besides the variety of audio file formats available, the most common formats are wave files (.WAV) and MPEG Layer-3 files (.MP3), WMA and RA.

Digital Video File Formats:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave):
AVI is the video file format for Windows. Here sound and picture elements are stored in alternate interleaved chunks in the file.

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group):
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1
……………………….. applications plays vital role in presenting information to the user.
(a) Power point
(b) Multimedia
(c) Star office
(d) php
Answer:
(b) Multimedia

Question 2.
In the term multimedia, multi refers to …………………………….
(a) medium
(b) single
(c) hybrid
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 3.
What is the plural form of medium?
(a) medium
(b) mediu
(c) media
(d) median
Answer:
(c) media

Question 4.
How many major components are there in Multimedia?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 5.
Which is not a multimedia components? [Pick the odd one out].
(a) Test
(b) Image
(c) Sound
Answer:
(a) Test

Question 6.
Identify the static element from the following.
(a) Video
(b) graphics
(c) Animation
Answer:
(b) graphics

Question 7.
…………………………. is the basic components of Multimedia.
(a) Video
(b) Animation
(c) Text
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 8.
In …………………… the words are given along with the images to explain about the images.
(a) Static text
(b) Hyper text
(c) Multi text
(d) Super text
Answer:
(a) Static text

Question 9.
The readability of the text depends on the ………………………….
(a) pronunciation
(b) spacing
(c) punctuation
(d) b & c
Answer:
(d) b & c

Question 10.
In how many ways, in ages can be generated by the computer?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 11.
Bitmap images are otherwise called as ………………………… images.
(a) multimedia
(b) vector
(c) Raster
Answer:
(c) Raster

Question 12.
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is ……………………………
(a) raster images
(b) bitmap
(c) vector
(d) both (a) &(b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) &(b)

Question 13.
The tiny dots which forms on the screen (picture elements) are called as …………………………
(a) pitel
(b) pixel
(c) dots
(d) dpi
Answer:
(b) pixel

Question 14.
……………………… is a simple matrix of pixel that forms a raster image.
(a) Bitmap
(b) Pixel
(c) Vector
(d) Animation
Answer:
(a) Bitmap

Question 15.
In determining number of colors, ……………………. bits indicates 256 colors.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 16.
………………………… is a techniques used to reduce the file size of the images.
(a) Animation
(b) Rendering
(c) Compression
(d) Morphing
Answer:
(c) Compression

Question 17.
Identify which is not a compression format?
(a) GIF
(b) TIFF
(c) JPEG
(d) MIDI
Answer:
(d) MIDI

Question 18.
What is the least frame rate for smooth appearance of images?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 19.
How many frames per second are needed for a normal natural looking images?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 20.
If the image appears in xy axis of the screen, then it is called as ………………………… animation.
(a) picture
(b) Image xy
(c) 2D
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) 2D

Question 21.
If the image appears inXYZ axis of the screen then it is called as ………………………. animation.
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) XYZ
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 22.
How many types of animations are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 23.
The two types of animations are …………………………
(a) Frame, object
(b) path, object
(c) path, Frame
Answer:
(c) path, Frame

Question 24.
Which animation involves moving an object on the screen with constant background?
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(b) Path

Question 25.
Multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously in ……………………………. animations.
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(c) Frame

Question 26.
Which one of the following is the most serious element in multimedia and provides the pleasure of music, special effects etc?
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Sound
(d) Video
Answer:
(c) Sound

Question 27.
What is the unit of sound?
(a) Decibels
(b) Newton
(c) Hertz
(d) Frequency
Answer:
(a) Decibels

Question 28.
MIDI stand for ………………………………..
(a) Magic In Data Interface
(b) Musical Instrument Digital Identifier ,
(c) Magnetic Induction Drive Input
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface
Answer:
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface

Question 29.
………………………….. Sound is a digitized sound.
(a) Recorded
(b) Digital
(c) Frame
(d) Sampled
Answer:
(d) Sampled

Question 30.
is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample.
(a) Digitized sound
(b) sampling rate
(c) compression
(d) compression ratio
Answer:
(b) sampling rate

Question 31.
How many types of videos are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 32.
The display of recorded event, scene etc. are called as …………………………..
(a) Video
(b) Sampling
(c) Frames
(d) Modelling
Answer:
(a) Video

Question 33.
How many categories of Analog videos’are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 34.
Which video format have all the components like brightness, color and synchronization are combined into one signal?
(a) Digital video
(b) MIDI
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 35.
Which video format produces low plarity videos?
(a) Analog video
(b) Digital video
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 36.
Which one of the following format was used for customer analog video recording tape formats?
(a) Beta max
(b) MIDI
(c) DIB
(d) BMP
Answer:
(a) Beta max

Question 37.
How many different multimedia file formats are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 38.
RTF stand for …………………………..
(a) Rich Text Format
(b) Real Time Format
(c) Red Tagra Format
(d) Recording to file Format
Answer:
(a) Rich Text Format

Question 39.
The RTF was introduced in the year …………………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1987

Question 40.
Match the following editors with OS?
1. Gedit/Nano – (a) windows
2. Text Edit – (b) Unix / Linux
3. Notepad – (c) Mac OS
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)
(b) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a)
(c) 1-(a),2-(b),3-(c)
(d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)

Question 41.
Identify which is not an editor?
(a) Notepad
(b) Gotit
(c) Nano
(d) Text Edit
Answer:
(b) Gotit

Question 42.
………………………….. is the popular way of conveying an e-mail.
(a) RTF
(b) plaintext
(c) BMP
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) plaintext

Question 43.
TIFF is a ………………………….. Format of file.
(a) Sound
(b) Video
(c) Text
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 44.
identify the statement which is correct.
(i) RTF was developed by apple.
(ii) TIFF format is common in desktop publishing world.
(iii) GIF uses lossy compression technique
(iv) JPEG works good with photographs.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct

Question 45.
Which is the first popular format for high resolution images?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) JPEG
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 46.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) DIB
(b) BMP
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 47.
TIFF Stand for …………………………
(a) Time Interchange File Format
(b) Tagged Image File Format
(c) Time In File Format
(d) Task Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(b) Tagged Image File Format

Question 48.
Which one of the following format produces high quality output in DTP world?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) PNG
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) TIFF

Question 49.
BMP stands for …………………………..
(a) Bitwise Manipulation
(b) Binary Manipulations
(c) Bitmap
(d) Binary Map
Answer:
(c) Bitmap

Question 50.
Pick out the correct statement from the following.
(a) GIF are good with photographs
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications
(c) TIFF produces two quality output
(d) BMP is used for high resolution & small images
Answer:
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications

Question 51.
DIB stands for …………………………..
(a) Drive in Bus
(b) Devuce Input Bias
(c) Device Interface Format
(d) Device Independent Bitmap
Answer:
(d) Device Independent Bitmap

Question 52.
GIF stands for ……………………….
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphics Interchange File
(c) Graphics Interface Format
(d) Grahics Interface File
Answer:
(a) Graphics Interchange Format

Question 53.
TGA means …………………………
(a) Tagged
(b) Tagra
(c) tamil graphics
(d) Tiff graphics
Answer:
(b) Tagra

Question 54.
PNG means ………………………
(a) Power Net Gate
(b) Portable
(c) Portable Network Graphics
(d) Power Network Graphics
Answer:
(c) Portable Network Graphics

Question 55.
WAV stands for …………………………..
(a) Wave
(b) Waveform
(c) Waveform Audio Video Format
(d) Waveform Audio File Format
Answer:
(d) Waveform Audio File Format

Questionv 56.
AIFF stands for ………………………..
(a) Audio Interchange File Format
(b) Audio In File Format
(c) Audio Interference File Format
(d) Audio Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(a) Audio Interchange File Format

Question 57.
WMA means ……………………………
(a) Wave Media Animation
(b) Wave Moving Animation
(c) Windows Media Audio
(d) Waveform Media Audio
Answer:
(c) Windows Media Audio

Question 58.
RA stands for ……………………………
(a) Rich Animation
(b) Real Audio
(c) Rapid Audio
(d) Raster Audio
Answer:
(b) Real Audio

Question 59.
AVI means ……………………………
(a) Audio Video Interleave
(b) Animation Video Interface
(c) Audio Video Interchange
(d) Animation Video Intechange
Answer:
(a) Audio Video Interleave

Question 60.
The MPEG layer-3 Format is ……………………………
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) MIDI
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 61.
Which image format is used for storing high-resolution large images?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) DIB
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) BMP

Question 62.
Which image format allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices?
(a) BMP
(b) DIB
(c) DIP
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) DIB

Question 63.
What is the table used by the GIF format to identify colors?
(a) Color
(b) Look color
(c) Color Look up
(d) Color up
Answer:
(c) Color Look up

Question 64.
………………………… is a compressed image format.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) PNG
(d) DIB
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 65.
What is the compression technique used by JPEG image format?
(a) Lossless
(b) Lossy
(c) Full compression
(d) Half / partial
Answer:
(b) Lossy

Question 66.
Which image format is good with photographs, naturalistic artworks?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) GIF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(d) JPEG

Question 67.
…………………………… is the first popular format for high resolution images.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 68.
Most of the video – capture boards supports …………………………… formats.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 69.
…………………………… format is fully streameable with a best display option.
(a) JPEG
(b) GIF
(c) PNG
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(c) PNG

Question 70.
Which format works good with online viewing applications like www?
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) PNG

Question 71.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 72.
Identify the wrongly matched pair from the following.
(a) OGG – (i) Audio
(b) MPEG – (ii) Video
(c) MIDI- (iii) Text
(d) TGA – (iv) image
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(a) OGG – (i) Audio

Question 73.
Identify which is not an Digital Audio File Format.
(a) OGG
(b) AVI
(c) AIFF
(d) WMA
Answer:
(b) AVI

Question 74.
Which format is most popular for storing and downloading music?
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) JPEG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 75.
…………………………… format stores uncompressed sound files.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) WAV

Question 76.
Which files are compressed to onw-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file?
(a) WAV
(b) OGG
(c) WMA
(d) MP3
Answer:
(d) MP3

Question 77.
AIFF was developed by …………………………
(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) IBM
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 78.
……………………….. is a free, open source container format.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) WMA
Answer:
(c) OGG

Question 79.
Expand DRM.
(a) Digi Read Memory
(b) Digital Rich MP3
(c) Data Read Memory
(d) Digital Right Management
Answer:
(d) Digital Right Management

Question 80.
Which digital Audio format is designed with DRM facility?
(a) WMA
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) MP3
Answer:
(a) WMA

Question 81.
Identify the format which is not developed by Microsoft?
(a) AVI
(b) WMA
(c) AIFF
(d) RTF
Answer:
(c) AIFF

Question 82.
Who developed WMA?
(a) Apple
(b) Microsoft
(c) Macromedia
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 83.
…………………………… abilities are provided in WMA format for copyright protection.
(a) DMA
(b) DRA
(c) DRM
(d) DMR
Answer:
(c) DRM

Question 84.
The sound and picture elements in AVI are stored in alternate …………………………… chunks in the file.
(a) interleaved
(b) interface
(c) interrupt
(d) interchange
Answer:
(a) interleaved

Question 85.
Multimedia Framework was started in the year ……………………………
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 86.
Find the pair wrongly matched.
(i) MPEG-2 – DVD, TV set top Boxes
(ii) MPEG-4 – Multimedia
(iii) MPEG-1 – Mobile
(iv) MPEG-7 -Video CD
(v) MPEG-21 – Multimedia Framework
(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (v)
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv)

Question 87.
Which MPEG format is used for multimedia and mobile web?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-21
(c) MPEG-7
(d) MPEG-2
Answer:
(a) MPEG-4

Question 88.
………………………. is a standard format for generation digital video and audio compression under the ISO.
(a) AVI
(b) MP3
(c) JPEG
(d) MPEG
Answer:
(d) MPEG

Question 89.
Which format had research on “Multimedia Framework” in the year 2000?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-2
(c) MPEG7
(d) MPEG-21
Answer:
(d) MPEG-21

Question 90.
How many steps are there in Multimedia production?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 91.
The first step in Multimedia production is ……………………………
(a) project design
(b) conceptual analysis
(c) planning
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 92.
The general statements in project design stage are termed as ……………………………
(a) goals
(b) objectives
(c) Aim
(d) planning
Answer:
(a) goals

Question 93.
The selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing comes under
(a) content definition
(b) RAM capacity
(c) structure preparing
(d) Hardware / Software selection
Answer:
(d) Hardware / Software selection

Question 94.
Find the correct statement from the following
(i) Start / end time of each activity are defined in preparing the structure stage.
(ii) A pilot project will be ready in the production stage.
(iii) Suggestions and comments are given in the documentation phase.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 95.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia applications through internet.
(a) Bandwidth
(b) Plugins
(c) Downloading time
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 96.
Which software is used to incorporate the text in the production stage?
(a) Light pen
(b) Scanner
(c) OCR
(d) OMR
Answer:
(c) OCR

Question 97.
Identify which is not a browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Trash
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Google Chrome
Answer:
(b) Trash

Question 98.
Arrange the options given below in the proper order.
(i) Budgeting
(ii) project design
(iii) Documentation
(iv) Hardware / software selection
(v) Testing
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Question 99.
Copyright issues are considered in the …………………………… phase.
(a) conceptual analysis and planning
(b) project design
(c) pre-production
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) conceptual analysis and planning

Question 100.
How many members are there in multimedia production team?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 9

Question 101.
The production manager should not be an expertise in ……………………………
(a) technology
(b) proposal writing
(c) communication
(d) Text Narration
Answer:
(d) Text Narration

Question 102.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The text should always be structured
(b) The text should be grammatically correct
(c) The text must flow logically
(d) All the above statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are correct

Question 103.
The multimedia presentation is converted into a web page by
(a) computer programmer
(b) web master
(c) graphic artist
(d) multimedia architect
Answer:
(b) web master

Question 104.
…………………………… represents a linear sequence of events.
(a) video
(b) film scripts
(c) Text
(d) a & b
Answer:
(d) a & b

Question 105.
Who plays a vital role in dealing with backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3D objects, animations, logos of the programs.
(a) Multimedia Architect
(b) Web Master
(c) Computer Graphic Artist
(d) Video Specialist
Answer:
(c) Computer Graphic Artist

Question 106.
Identify the person who is not a member of Multimedia Production team.
(a) Content specialist
(b) Program debugger
(c) Script writer
(d) Text Editor
Answer:
(b) Program debugger

Question 107.
How many million consumers uses Internet, radio and video services every month?
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75
Answer:
(a) 55

Question 108.
…………………………… is a multimedia based teaching and learning system at GMU in Germany to provide decentralized learning environment to the students.
(a) MODULO
(b) MODULES
(c) MODE
(d) MODEL
Answer:
(a) MODULO

Question 109.
…………………………… is an Education satellite launched in India to provide virtual classrooms.
(a) EDSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) E-SAT
(d) E SATELLITE
Answer:
(b) EDUSAT

Question 110.
……………………………. conferencing is a system that performs face to face interactions for the users.
(a) Multimedia
(b) Video
(c) Audio
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 111.
…………………………… is a free standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen.
(a) Kiosk
(b) Helpdesk
(c) Customer care
(d) ATM
Answer:
(a) Kiosk

Question 112.
Banks uses Kiosks in the form of
(a) Cash
(b) Finance
(c) Credit Cards
(d) ATM
Answer:
(d) ATM

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of vector images?
Answer:
Relatively small amount of data is required to represent the image and thereby only less memory is needed to store.

Question 2.
Define compression?
Answer:
Compression is a technique used to reduce the file size of images that is useful for storing large number of images and speeding transmission for networked applications.

Question 3.
Mention some compression formats?
Answer:

1. GIF – Graphics Interface Format
2. TIFF – Tagged Image File Format
3. JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 4.
Define frame Animation?
Answer:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

Question 5.
Define sampling rate?
Answer:
Sampling rate is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample (bit depth, resolution and sample size).

Question 6.
Write note on MIDI?
Answer:
Musical Instrument Digital Identifier (MIDI) is a standard communication tool developed for computers and electronic instruments. This tool is flexible and easy for composing the projects in multimedia. Tools for synthesizing the sound and software for sequencing are necessary for MIDI.

Question 7.
Classify video?
Answer:
The video can be categorized into two types as:
Analog video and Digital video

Question 8.
Classify Analog video?
Answer:
Analog Video’s are classified as

1. composite Analog video
2. component Analog video

Question 9.
Write note on RTF text format?
Answer:
Rich Text Format is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Question 10.
Mention some text editors?
Answer:
Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X)

Question 11.
Compare BMP and DIB?
Answer:
DIB is similar to BMP. It allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

Question 12.
Write note on Tagra?
Answer:
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

Question 13.
Write note on MP3 format?
Answer:
MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

Question 14.
Write note on WMA?
Answer:
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

Question 15.
Write note on RA Format?
Answer:
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD.

Question 16.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia product?
Answer:

1. Bandwidth issues.
2. Huge Number of Plugins required to play audio and video.
3. Long downloading time.

Question 17.
Name the various fields where multimedia plays a vital role?
Answer:
Education, Entertainment, Business Systems, Medical Services, Public Places and Multimedia Conferencing.

Question 18.
What is Kiosk?
Answer:
Kiosk is a free-standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen. It is^ commonly used in airports and other public locations to provide directions and few mandatory information’s.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define path animation?
Answer:
Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e.g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

Question 2.
Define composite Analog video? Mention same characteristics of composite Analog video?
Answer:
Composite Analog Video has all the video components like brightness, color, and synchronization combined into one signal. Due to the combining of the video components, the quality of the composite video resulted in color blending, low clarity and high generational loss.

Question 3.
Write note on TIFF?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate GIF and JPEG?
Ans
GIF:

1. It is lossless format
2. It is limited to 8 bit palette
3. Size of GIF is more
4. Good for animation works

JPEG:

1. It uses lossy format
2. It allows multiple colors
3. It is lesser
4. Good for photographs

Question 5.
Explain PNG format?
Answer:
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like world wide web. so it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Question 6.
Write note on MPEG?
Answer:
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on , MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Question 7.
List out the steps in Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Conceptual Analysis and Planning, Project design, Pre-production, Budgeting, Multimedia Production Team, Hardware/Software Selection, Defining the Content, Preparing the structure, Production, Testing, Documentation and Delivering the Multimedia Product.

Question 8.
What is meant by digital library?
Answer:
Information’s are available in digital formats It include digital books, scanned images, graphics and digitized audio-visual clips etc. digital library projects were based on textual data, images, audio and video recordings were also integrated under the collection of digital library.

IV. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain various components of Multimedia?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation. They are explained in detail below:
1. Text:
is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

2. Images:
acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images: The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

3. Vector images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

4. Frame animation:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

5. Sound:
is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

6. Video:
is defined as the display of recorded event, scene etc. The powerful way to convey information in multimedia applications are embedding of video. The video can be categorized in two types as Analog video and Digital video.