Class 7

Students can Download Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Market and Consumer Protection Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Market and Consumer Protection

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which case a consumer cannot complain against the manufacturer for a defective product?
(a) Date of expiry unspecified
(b) Price of the commodity
(c) Batch number of the commodity
(d) Address of the manufacturer
Answer:
(c) Batch number of the commodity

Question 2.
Consumer’s face various problems from the producer’s end due to
(a) Unfair trade practices
(b) Wide range of goods
(c) Standard quality goods
(d) Volume of production
Answer:
(a) Unfair trade practices

Question 3.
Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production
(b) Decision in sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods
(d) Decision in purchase of goods
Answer:
(d) Decision in purchase of goods

Question 4.
The system of consumer courts at the national, state, and district levels, looking into consumers grievances against unfair trade practices of businessmen and providing necessary compensation, is called
(a) Three tier system
(b) One tier system
(c) Two tier system
(d) Four tier system
Answer:
(a) Three tier system

Question 5.
Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is called
(a) Purification
(b) Adulteration
(c) Refinement
(d) Alteration
Answer:
(b) Adulteration

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A set up where two or more parties engage in __________ of goods, service, and information is called a market.
2. In regulated markets, there is some oversight by appropriate __________ authorities.
3.  __________ refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has control over the entire market.
4.  __________ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta in the field of consumer protection for checking unfair trade practices.

Answer:

1. exchange
2. Government
3. Monopoly
4. COPRA

III. Match the following

The Consumer Protection Act	–	1955
The Legal Metrology Act	–	1986
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act	–	2009
The Essential Commodities Act	–	1986

Answer:

The Consumer Protection Act	–	1986
The Legal Metrology Act	–	2009
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act	–	1986
The Essential Commodities Act	–	1955

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: In local Markets, the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or are
Reason: A market is not restricted to one physical or geographical location.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is the market?
Answer:
A setup where two or more parties engaged in an exchange of goods, services, and information is called a market.

Question 2.
Describe consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumer protection is a group of laws enacted to protect the rights of consumers, fair trade, competition, and accurate information in the marketplace.

Question 3.
List out the rights of consumers.
Answer:
The Eight Basic Consumer Rights:

1. The Right to Basic Needs.
2. The Right to Safety.
3. The Right to Information.
4. The Right to Choose.
5. The Right to Representation.
6. The Right to Redress.
7. The Right to Consumer Education.
8. The Right to a Healthy Environment.

Question 4.
Discuss the role of consumer courts.
Answer:
Consumer courts in India:

1. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): A national level court works for the whole country and deals compensation claimed exceeds rupees one core. The National Commission is the Apex body of Consumer Courts; it is also the highest appellate court in the hierarchy. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC): A state-level cour works at the state level with cases where compensation claimed is above 20 lakhs but up to one core.
3. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF): A district-level court works at the district level with cases where the compensation claimed is up to 20 lakhs.

Question 5.
Write about the types of markets and their functions.
Answer:
On the Basis of Geographic Location:

1. Local Markets: In such a market the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or area.
2. Regional Markets: These markets cover a wider are than local markets like a district, or a cluster of few smaller states
3. National Market: This is when the demand for the goods is limited to one specific country. Or the government may not allow the trade of such goods outside national boundaries.
4. International Market: When the demand for the product is international and the goods are also traded internationally in bulk quantities, we call it an international market.

On the Basis of Time:

1. Very Short Period Market: This is when the supply of the goods is fixed, and so it cannot be changed instantaneously. For example the market for flowers, vegetables. Fruits etc.
2. Short Period Market: The market is slightly longer than the previous one. Here the supply can be slightly adjusted. Example: The demand of fish, milk or egg,
3. Long Period Market: Here the supply can be changed easily by scaling production. So it can change according to the demand of the market.

On the Basis of Nature of Transaction

1. Spot Market: This is where spot transactions occur, that is the money is paid immediately. There is no system of credit.
2. Future Market: This is where the transactions are credit transactions. There is a promise to pay the consideration sometime in the future.

On the Basis of Regulation:

1. Regulated Market: In such a market there is some oversight by appropriate government authorities. For example, the stock market is a highly regulated market.
2. Unregulated Market: This is an absolutely free market. There is no oversight or regulation, the market forces decide everything.

On the basis of Nature of competition:

1. Monopoly: Monopoly refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has control over the entire market. This single seller deals in products that have no close substitutes.
2. Monopolistic Competition: Monopolistic competition refers to a market situation in which there are a large number of buyers and sellers of products.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There are _________ classifications of markets.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 2.
_________ market is where the transactions are credit transactions.
(a) National
(b) Spot
(c) Future
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(c) Future

Question 3.
_________ has widened the definition of ‘Consumer’
(a) The Consumer Protection Act 1986
(b) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
(c) District Forum
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019
Answer:
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019

Question 4.
The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR _________ on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement.
(a) 1,000,000
(b) 1,00,00,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 10,000,000
Answer:
(a) 1,000,000

Question 5.
The NCDRC is headed by _________
(a) Chief justice of the supreme court of India
(b) One of the judges of the high court
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. There has to more than one buyer or seller for the market to be _________
2. In a _________ market, the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
3. In a _________ market, there is no system of credit.
4. The stock market is a highly _________ market.
5. The term monopolistic competition was given by _________

Answer:

1. Competitive
2. Long-period
3. spot
4. regulated
5. Prof Edward H. Chamberlin

III. Match the following:

Unfair Trade practices	–	a) Few
Oligoi	–	b) Quasi-judicial commission
E-commerce	–	c) False representation
NCDRC	–	d) Teleshopping

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion (A) : Hoardings goods is an unfair Trade practice.
Reason (R) : It has the intention of raising the cost of these or similar goods.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who are the two parties involved in a transaction?
Answer:
The two parties involved in a transaction are called seller and buyer. The seller sells goods and services to the buyer in exchange for money.

Question 2.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A Consumer is a person who purchases a product or avails a service for a consideration, either for his personal use or to earn his livelihood by means of self-employment.

Question 3.
What is unfair trade practice?
Answer:
An “unfair trade practice” means a trade practice, which, for the purpose of promoting any sale, use or supply of any goods or services, adopts any unfair method, or unfair or deceptive practice.

Question 4.
Give a few examples of unfair trade practices.
Answer:

1. False representation
2. When goods and services are not of stated standard, quality, or grade
3. When second hand, renovated goods are sold as new ones
4. When goods and services do not have the claimed use, usefulness, or benefit
5. When products/services do not have the claimed warranty/guarantee
6. When the price of a product or service is misleading.
7. False and misleading advertisement for selling at a bargain price.

Question 5.
Why are consumer protection controls established?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Councils are established at the national, state, and district levels to increase consumer awareness.

Question 6.
Write a short note on E-commerce Transaction.
Answer:
The New Act has widened the definition of the consumer’. The definition now includes any person who buys any goods, whether through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling, or multi-level marketing.

Question 7.
How can consumers e-file complaints?
Answer:
The New Act contains enabling provisions for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Question 8.
Name the important Acts passed for consumer protection.
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (ii) The Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.
3. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
4. The prevention of Black Marketing and the maintenance of supplies of essential.
5. Commodities Act, 1980.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the features of a market.
Answer:

1. A market is also not restricted to one physical or geographical location. It covers a general wide area and the demand and supply forces of the region.
2. There must be a group of buyers and sellers of the commodity to constitute a market. And the relations between these sellers and buyers must be business relations.
3. Both the sellers and buyers must have access to knowledge about the market. There should be an awareness of the demand for products, consumer choices, and preferences, fashion trends, etc.
4. At any given time only one price can be prevalent in the market for the goods and services. This is only possible in the existence of perfect competition.

Students can Download Science Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Health and Hygiene Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Ravi has sound mind and physically fit body. Which refers to
(a) Hygiene
(b) Health
(c) Cleanliness
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(b) Health

Question 2.
Sleep is not only good for body, but it is also good for
(a) Enjoyment
(b) Relaxation
(c) Mind
(d) Environment
Answer:
(c) Mind

Question 3.
Our living place should be
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Clean
(d) Unclean / Untidy
Answer:
(c) Clean

Question 4.
The tobacco chewing causes
(a) Anamia
(b) Periodontitis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(b) Periodontitis

Question 5.
The first aid is to
(a) To save money
(b) To prevent scars
(c) To prevent the medical care
(d) To relieve the pain
Answer:
(d) To relieve the pain

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
A group of people living together in a particular area is called ______
Answer:
Community

Question 2.
Iam green colour box with garbage. Who am I ?
Answer:
Bio degradable waste

Question 3.
Eyes are considered as to the world.
Answer:
windows

Question 4.
The hair follicles produce which keeps the hair smooth.
Answer:
oil

Question 5.
Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium .
Answer:
Mycobacterium tuberculae

III. True (or) False, If false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
All food should be covered.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Chicken pox also known as Leucoderma.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Chicken pox is also known as vanicella.

Question 3.
Stomach ulcer is a non-commnicable disease.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Rabies is a fatal disease.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
First- degree bums damage the whole skin.
Answer:
False. Correct statement: First -degree bums affects the outer layer (epidermis) of the skin only

IV. Match the following:

1.	Rabie	(a)	Salmonella
2.	Cholera	(b)	Yellow urine
3.	Tuberculosis	(c)	Cramps in legs
4.	Hepatitis	(d)	Hydrophobia
5.	Typhoid	(e)	Mycobacterium

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. e
4. b
5. a

V. Analogy.

Question 1.
First degree bum: epidermis :: second degree bum : _________
Answer:
Dermis.

Question 2.
Typhoid: Bacteria:: Hepatitis: _________
Answer:
Vims.

Question 3.
Tuberculosis : air:: Cholera: _________
Answer:
Water.

VI. Choose the correct alternative from the following:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Oral hygiene is good.
Reason (R) : Sound teeth and healthy gums with healthy surrounding tissues,
(a) Both A and R are true
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Chicken pox is a viral communicable disease.
Reason (R) : Characterized by rashes on the whole body, fever, head ache and tiredness.
(a) Both A and R are true
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true

VII. Very short Answer.

Question 1.
What is hygiene?
Answer:
Hygiene refers to the good habits and their practices which is followed to prevent disease, maintain good health, especially through cleanliness, consumption of safe drinking water and proper disposal of sewage. It refers to all those activities that are done for improving and maintaining good health and sound mind.

Question 2.
Write about the right way of protect the eyes?
Answer:
Practices to be followed for eye care.

1. Do not rub the eyes
2. Do not watch TV / Computer for a long time.
3. Use cold water for cleaning the eyes.
4. Eat lot of carrots which is rich in vitamin A needed for good vision.
5. Eat fruits like oranges, sweet lemon etc., regularly.

Question 3.
How to keep your hair clean and health?
To keep the hair clean and healthy:
Answer:

1. The regular hair wash and massage of the scalp will remove the dead skin cells, excess oil and dust.
2. Rinsing the hair well with clear water and using good toothed comb for hair dressing is highly essential for their maintenance.

Question 4.
Sobi frequently playing with her mobile, suggest your ideas to protect his eye from irritation?
Answer:

1. Stop playing with the mobile for a long time
2. Keep the mobile at a distance from the eyes while playing.
3. Wash eyes with cold water at intervals.

Question 5.
Give any two communicable disease, which spreads in your locality during monsoon?
Answer:

1. Cholera
2. Diarrhoea

Question 6.
What first aid will you provide in the case of bruises?
Answer:

1. Bruises refer to scratches. It is a surface damage that does not penetrate the lower tissues.
2. The affected area should be washed with cold running water and cleaned with an antiseptic cram on the wound.

Question 7.
Ravi said “Ganga had minor burn, so I washed with water” Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, In case of minor bums, the affected area should be washed with cold water.
2. In case of severe bums, deeper layers of tissues get destroyed and blisters appear.

VIII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why the first aid is essential?
Answer:
Safety and First Aid
First aid is the immediate treatment given to the victim of trauma or sudden illness before medical help is made available. The first aid is

1. To save the life
2. To prevent further bleeding and determine the condition of the patient.
3. To relive the pain
4. To provide a medical care available at the earliest

Question 2.
What is this picture? Explain.

Answer:
It says that “Waste should not be thrown there”.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the following pairs Communicable diseases and Non communicable diseases.
Answer:

S.no
1.	These diseases spread from one person to another person.	These diseases do not spread from one person to another person.
2.	They are spread through contaminated air, water, food or vectors, e.g Tuberculosis, Cholera.	They are caused due to wearing out of body parts or malnutrition etc., eg. Goiter, Night blindness.

Question 4.
What steps you will follow to keep the teeth healthy?
Answer:

1. Good oral hygiene implies sound teeth and healthy gums with healthy surrounding tissues.
2. When you brush two times a day, it will prevent the formation of tartar and plaque on, your teeth and gums.
3. When you floss, it will remove food particles, plaque, and bacteria which build up between your teeth. When you start flossing, your gums may bleed a little bit, but after few days that will be stopped.
4. It should be started only with proper medical guidance.
5. Eat a well balanced diet and avoid habits like chewing tobacco.

Question 5.
Name the mode of transmission of communicable disease.
Answer:
Communicable diseases spread from one person to another person through various modes as given below.
Mode of Transmission:

1. Food and water borne diseases – e.g Cholera, Typhoid
2. Air borne diseases – e.g Tuberculosis, cold
3. Insect other animals borne diseases – e.g Malaria, Rabies.
4. Contaminated food and water, air and Insects are the modes for transmission of communicable disease.

Question 6.
The hair is thin, spares and lost very often. Suggested your ideas to reduce this problem?
Answer:
The condition of the hair reflects the nutritional status and general health of the body. Thin, sparse and lots of hair indicates poor nutritional status.
The following measures will help to maintain hair growth and avoid hair loss.

1. The regular hair wash and massage of the scalp will remove the dead skin cells, excess oil and dust.
2. Rinsing the hair well with clear water and using good toothed comb for hair dressing is highly essential for their maintenance.
3. Eating a balanced diet which provides all nutrients needed for the body will promote hair growth.
4. Applying oil to the skin and massaging the scalp will promote hair growth.
5. Use of chemicals (dyes, shampoos) must be used to avoid hair loss.

IX. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Write about any three communicable diseases in details.
Answer:
Communicable diseases are those that spread from one person to another. Diseases spread through contaminated air, water, food or vectors (insects and ohter animals) are palled as communicable diseases.

Tuberculosis:

1. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculae.
2. It spreads from one person to another person through air by spitting and prolonged contact with sharing materials of the patient.

Symptoms:
Fever, weight loss, Chronic cough, blood spitting and difficulty in breathing.

Prevention and treatment:

1. Getting BCG vaccination
2. Giving special attention to the patient,
3. Regular medication like DOT

Cholera:

1. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholera.
2. It spreads through the consumption contaminated food or water.

Symptoms:
The symptoms of Cholera is vomiting, severe diarrhoea and cramps in legs.

Hepatitis:

1. Hepatitis is one of the most dangerous and fatal diseases caused by Hepatitis Virus A, B, C, D, E.
2. Its mode of transmission are contaminated water, sharing of needles and blood transfusion.

Symptoms:
Loss of appetite, (Anorexia), vomiting, eyes and urine in yellow color.

Prevention and treatment:

1. Drink boiled water.
2. Proper cleaning of hands.

Question 2.
List the situations in which first aid is given. What would you do if a person suffers from skin burns?
Answer:
The tissue damage caused by heat, chemical, electricity, sunlight or nuclear radiation is known as Bums. Mostly bums are caused by scalds, building fires, flammable liquid and gases. According to burning. There are three types of bums.

1. First-degree bums affect only the outer layer (called the epidermis) of the skin.
2. Second-degree bums damage the epidermis and the layer beneath it called ther dermis.
3. Third -degree bums involve damage or complete destruction of the skin to its full depth and damage to underlying tissues also. People who experience such bums often require skin grafting.

First Aid for Burning
In case of minor bums, the affected area should be washed with cold water and an antiseptic cream should be applied. In case of severe bums, where deeper layers of tissues get destroyed and blisters appear, use of water should be avoided. The burnt area should be covered with a clean non-sticking cloth or bandages. Larger bums need immediate medical attention.
It is very important to keep a fire extinguisher readily available.

Question 3.
How the disease are transmitted from one person to the other person?
Answer:
Communicable Diseases are those that spread from one person to another. Diseases spread through contaminated air, water, food or vectors (insects and ohter animals) are called as Communicable diseases.

1. The communicable diseases are caused by disease causing microbes such as Bacteria, viruses etc.
2. These microbes are found in contaminated food, water, air etc.
3. Some of them like the malarial parasite complete their life cycle in the body of a mosquito.
4. Thus air food and water, sweat act as modes of transmitting these microbes from an infected person to a healthy person.
5. E.g. The cycle given below shows how food and water borne diseases are transmitted.
   

S.no	Mode of Transmission	Examples
1	Contaminated food and water	Cholera, Typhoid
2	Contaminated air	Tuberculosis
3	Insect / Animal borne diseases	Malaria, Rabies

X. Higher Order thinking question

Question 1.
A person is sleeping during day time. Why does this happen with some people that they feel sleepy during day time in office or in the classroom. Have you ever come across such situation? Explain.

Answer:

1. Many people are tired and do not have the energy to perform day to day activities. They tired and tend to sleep in the classroom or work place. Though sleep can be due to various reasons, the common reason for this condition is Anaemia.
2. People who are Anaemic have less number of Red blood cells in their blood.
3. The Red blood cells have haemoglobin which caries oxygen to all the cells of the body.
4. People who are Anaemic will have less slow oxygen supply to all the cells of the body.
5. Energy production in the cells is less and they feel tired and sleepy always. This is due to in the diet. Prevention : Eat food rich in Iron.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Anorexia means _______
(a) Excess thirst
(b) Excess sweating
(c) Loss of hair
(d) Loss of appetite
Answer:
(d) Loss of appetite

Question 2.
Drinking boiled water can prevent _______
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Rabies
(c) Cholera
(d) Chicken pox
Answer:
(c) Cholera

Question 3.
High fever is a symptom of _______
(a) Rabies
(b) Typhoid
(c) Scurvy
(d) Hepatits
Answer:
(b) Typhoid

Question 4.
_______ is a non communicable disease.
(a) small pox
(b) Varicella
(c) Rheumatism
(d) Flu
Answer:
(c) Rheumatism

Question 5.
Intake of _____ can help to prevent Anaemia.
(a) cod liver oil tablet
(b) oranges
(c) whole egg
(d) eggs
Answer:
(a) cod liver oil tablet

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Dengue causes decrease in number of _______ in blood
2. _____ is a non communicable disease caused by loss of pigmentation in the skin.
3. The pigment present in our skin is _______
4. Extreme fear for water is called _______
5.  _______ vaccine prevents Tuberculosis.

Answer:

1. Platelets
2. Leucoderma
3. Melanin
4. hydrophobia
5. BCG

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Rabies can be caused by the bite of monkeys.
True.

Question 2.
We must eat lot of carrots to prevent eye diseases.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chronic cough is a symptom of Typhoid.
Answer:
(False) Correct Statement: Chronic cough is a symptom of Tuberculosis.

Question 4.
Raju drank water in a fair and was affected by Dengue. Is this statement True or False.
Answer:
(False) Correct Statement: Dengue is not a water borne disease.

Question 5.
Bum injuries can be fatal.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Alcoholism is a communicable disease.
Answer:
(False) Correct Statement: Alcoholism is a Non-communicable disease.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Pellagra	(a)	Water
Allergies	(b)	Folic acid
Rabies	(c)	Pollen
Anaemia	(d)	skin

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

Hepatitis	(a)	Citrus fruits
Nightblindness	(b)	Vomiting
Bleeding gums	(c)	smoking
Heart attack	(d)	Poor light

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

V. Analogy.

Question 1.
Leucoderma: Melanin
Anaemia: ______.
Answer:
Iron.

Question 2.
Tuberculosis : Lungs
Rabies : _____.
Answer:
Nervous system.

VI. Assertion and Reason.

(a) Both A and R are true
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : We must offer first aid to a bleeding person.
Reason (R) : We must not use gloves while helping them.
(a) Both A and R are true
(b) Both A and R are false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Antibiotics do not help to cure communicable diseases.
Reason (R) : They are caused by microbes.
(a) Both A and R are true
(c) A is due but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

VII. Complete the table.

Question 1.
Tuberculosis _______
________ Virus
Answer:
Bacteria,Hepatitis

Question 2.
Night Blindness ________
_________ Iron
Answer:
Vitamin A, Anaemia

Question 3.
BCG __________
________ Chicken pox
Answer:
Tubeculosis, Varicella Vaccine

Question 4.
Dog ________
________ Dengue
Answer:
Rabies,Mosquito

Question 5.
Tuberculosis ________
__________ Rashes
Answer:
Chronic cough, Chicken pox

VIII. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Name some diseases which affect the teeth.
Answer:
Bleeding gums, Tooth decay, periodontis.

Question 2.
List two measures to maintain community hygiene.
Answer:

1. The surroundings should be kept clean.
2. Drains should be covered properly.

Question 3.
Name two disease which can be prevented by vaccination.
Answer:
Polio, Tuberculosis.

Question 4.
Name some diseases caused by lack of trace elements in the body.
Answer:
Anemia, pellagra, night blindness and xerophthalmia, goiter and hypothyroidism.

Question 5.
What is a Vaccine?
Answer:

1. A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular disease.
2. Vaccine (BCG, Polio, MMR) are given at early childhood to protect from other diseases.

Question 6.
How can we prevent fatality in the case of Rabies?
Answer:
Timely vaccination before the onset of symptoms can prevent fatality in the case of Rabies.

IX. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write a note on non-communicable diseases.
Answer:

1. Communicable diseases do not spread from person to person. They are caused by other factors.
2. Antibiotics, or medicines that fight against germs, do not help to cure non- communicable diseases.
3. Problems caused by wearing out of body parts:
   Rheumatism, heart attack, epileptic seizures, stroke, migraine headaches, Cataract and cancer.
4. Problems caused by external harmful agents entering the body:
   Allergies, asthma, poisons, snakebite, cough from smoking, stomach ulcer, alcoholism.
5. Problems caused by a lack of trace elements in the body:
   Anaemia, pellagra, night blindness and xerophthalmia, goiter and hypothyroidism.

Question 2.
Write a note on Chicken pox.
Answer:

1. Causal agent :Chickenpox (chicken pox), also known as varicella, is a highly contagious infection caused by the varicella zoster virus.
2. This disease spreads through air and contact with an infected person.
3. Symptoms: A appearance of rashes on the whole body, fever, headache and tiredness.
4. Prevention and treatment: The chickenpox (Varicella) vaccine is the best way to prevent chickenpox. Special attention should be given to the infected persons.

Question 3.
Write a note an Rabies.
Answer:

1. Rabies is a fatal disease, which is transmitted by the bite of the infected dog, rabbit, monkey, cat etc.
2. Causal agent: The virus present in the saliva of dog enters the brain via neurons.
3. Symptoms: The symptoms of rabies is hydrophobia (extreme fear for water), fever for 2-12 weeks and exaggerations in behavior.

Prevention and treatment

1. In early stages rabies is very difficult to detect.
2. After an animal is bitten it usually takes two to twelve weeks to shows any symptoms and it may take as long as two years also.
3. Fatality can be prevented by timely vaccination before the onset of symptoms.

Question 4.
We should use a handkarchief when we sneeze, Justify.
Answer:
When we are suffering from cold etc, the virus comes out with the droplets and spreads in air. This can infect a healthy individual. Thus we should use a handkerchief while sneezing.

Question 5.
What can we do to maintain personal hygiene?
Answer:

1. We must brush our teeth at least twice a day.
2. We must have a shower daily.
3. We must wash our hair regularly.
4. We must wash our face and hands regularly.
5. We should keep food covered with a lid.
6. We should wear washed and clean clothes.
7. We must wear slippers while we go out of the house. Drinking water must be stored in a clean and safe place.

X. Long Answer

Question 1.
List the diseases affecting the eye, their causative agents, impact and Remedial measures.
Answer:

S. No	Name of the Disease	Causative Agents	Impacts / Consequences	Remedial measures.
1.	Night Blindness	Lack of vitamin A, a disorder of the cells in your retina	Makes it hard to see well at night or in poor light.	Eat foods rich in antioxidant, vitamins and minerals.
2.	Conjuncitvitis (Pink eye)	Caused by a virus and bacteria	One or both eyes can be affected. Highly contagious; can be spread by coughing and sneezing	Antibiotic eye drops or ointments, home remedy
3.	Color blindness	genetic condition	1.  Difficulty distinguishing between colors. 2.   Inability to see shades or tones of the same color	There is no known cure for color blindness. Contact lenses and glasses are available with filters to help color deficiencies

XI. Hots

Question 1.
Richa had a pet dog. She vaccinated him regularly. He suddenly bit a stranger. Do you think that the person could have got Rabies.
Answer:
No, since the dog was vaccinated regularly, there is no chance of the person suffering from Rabies. But still the person should seek medical advise for the treatment.

Students can Download Science Chapter 3 Matter Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Matter Around Us Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following is an example of a metal?
(a) Iron
(b) Oxygen
(c) Helium
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Iron

Question 2.
Oxygen, hydrogen, and sulphur are examples of which of the following?
(a) Metals
(b) Non-metals
(c) Metalloids
(d) Inert gases
Answer:
(b) Non-metals

Question 3.
Which of the following is a short and scientific way of representing one molecule of an element or compound?
(a) Mathematical formula
(b) Chemical formula
(c) Mathematical symbol
(d) Chemical symbol
Answer:
(d) Chemical symbol

Question 4.
The metals which is a liquid at room temperature
(a) Chlorine
(b) Sulphur
(c) Mercury
(d) Silver
Answer:
(c) Mercury

Question 5.
An element which is always lustrous, malleable and ductile
(a) non-metal
(b) metal
(c) Metalloid
(d) gas
Answer:
(b) metal

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The smallest particle of matter that can exist by itself ______
2. A compound containing one atom of carbon and two atoms of oxygen is ______
3. ______ is the only non-metal conducts electricity.
4. Elements are made up of ______ kinds of atoms.
5. ______of some elements are derived from Latin or Greek names of the elements.
6. There are ______ number of known elements.
7. Elements are the ______ form of pure substances.
8. The first letter of an element always written in ______ letter.
9. Molecule containing more than three atoms are known as ______
10. ______ is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere.

Answer:

1. atom
2. CO₂
3. Graphite
4. same
5. Symbol
6. 118
7. simplest
8. capital
9. polyatomic molecule
10. Nitrogen

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. Mercury: liquid at room temperature:: Oxygen: _________
2. Non metal conducting electricity: _______ :: Metal conducting electricity: Copper
3. Elements: combine to form compounds:: Compounds: ________
4. Atoms: fundamental particle of an element:: ________ fundamental particles of a compound

Answer:

1. Gas at room temperature
2. Graphite
3. can be split into elements
4. elements

IV. True of False. If False, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Two different elements may have similar atoms.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Compounds and elements are pure substance.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Atoms cannot exist alone; they can only exist as groups called molecules.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
NaCl represents one molecule of sodium chloride.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Argon is mono atomic gas.
Answer:
True

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Write the chemical formula and name the elements present in the following compounds:
a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium hydroxide
c. Carbon-di-oxide
d. Calcium oxide
e. Sulphur dioxide
Answer:

		Chemical fromula	Elements present
a.	Sodium chloride	NaCl	Sodium (Na), Chlorine (Cl)
b.	Potassium hydroxide	KOH	Potassium (K), Oxygen (O), Hydrogen (H)
c.	Carbon-di-oxide	CO2	Carbon (C), Oxygen (O2)
d.	Calcium oxide	CaO	Calcium (C), Oxygen (O2)
e.	Sulphur dioxide	SO2	Sulphur (S), Oxygen (O2)

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.
What do you understand by chemical formula of a compound? What is its significance?
Answer:

1. A chemical formula is a symbolic representation of one molecule of an element or a compound.
2. It provides information about the elements present in the molecule and the number of atoms of each element. The chemical formula tells us the types of atoms and the number of each type of atom in one molecule of substance.

Question 4.
Define the following terms with an example of each:
a. Element
b. Compound
c. Metal
d. Non-metal
e. Metalloid
Answer:
(a) Element: It is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substance by chemical means Ex. : Oxygen, Hydrogen, Gold & Helium.

(b) Compound A compound is a pure substance that is formed when the atoms of two or more elements combine chemically in definite proportions. Ex : H?0, NaCl.

(c) Metal A chemical element that is an effective conductor of electricity and heat can be defined as a metal. Ex.: Copper, Iron, Silver, etc.
(d) Non-Metal Non-metal is an element that doesn’t have the characteristics of metal including, (i.e.) ability to conduct heat or electricity luster or flexibility. Ex. Carbon Iodine, Sulphur.

(e) Metalloid : Metalloid is a chemical element that exhibits some properties of metals and some of non-metals. Metalloids are generally semi-conductors. Ex. : Silicon. Arsenic, Antimony and Boron.

Question 5.
Write the symbols for the following elements and classify them as solid, liquid and gas.
Aluminum, carbon, chlorine, mercury, hydrogen and helium.
Answer:

Element	Symbol	Classification
Aluminum	Al	Solid
Carbon	C	Solid
Chlorine.	Cl	Gas
Mercury.	Hg	Liquid
Hydrogen.	H	Gas
Helium	He	Gas

Question 6.
Classify the following as metals, non-metals and metalloids
Sodium, Bismuth, Silver, Nitrogen, Silicon, carbon, chlorine, Iron, copper.
Answer:

Metal	Non-metal	Metal	Non-metal
Sodium	Metal	Carbon	Non-metal
Bismuth	Metal	Chlorine	Non-metal
Silver	Metal	Iron	Metal
Nitrogen	Non-metal	Copper	Metal
Silicon	Metalloid

Question 7.
Classify the following as elements and compounds.
Water, common salt, sugar, carbon dioxide, iodine and lithium
Answer:

Elements	Compounds
Water	Compound
Common salt	compound
Sugar	Compound
Carbon dioxide	Compound
Iodine	Element
Lithium	Element

Question 8.
Write the chemical formula for the following elements.
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Ozone
d. Sulphur
Answer:

Elements	Formula
Hydrogen	H
Nitrogen	N
Ozone	O3
Sulphur	S

Question 9.
What are elements? What are they made of. Give two examples.
Answer:

1. Elements are chemically the simplest substances and hence cannot be broken down using chemical reactions.
2. It is made of entirely from one type of atom.
3. Example : Hydrogen, Oxygen is made from atoms containing a single proton and a single electron.

Question 10.
Define molecule.
Answer:

1. When an atom combines with another atom (or atoms) and forms a compound it is called as molecule.
2. A molecule is made up of two or more atoms chemically combined.

Question 11.
What are compounds? Give two examples.
Answer:
A compound is a pure substance that is formed when the atoms of two or more elements combine chemically in definite proportions.
Example : H₂O, NaCl,

Question 12.
Give an example for the elements derived from their Latin names.
Answer:

Element	Latin Name	Symbol
Copper	Cuprum	Cu
Lead	Plumbum	Pb
Potassium	Kalium	K
Iron	Ferrum	Fe
Mercury	Hydrargyrum	Hg
Sodium	Natrium	Na

Question 13.
What is atomicity of elements?
Answer:
Atomicity is the total number of atoms present in one molecule of an element, compound or a substance.

Question 14.
Calculate the atomicity of H2S04.
Answer:
A molecule of sulphuric acid (H₂S0₄) consists of 2 hydrogen atom, 1 Sulphur atom and 4 oxygen atoms. Hence its atomicity 2 + 1 + 4 = 7.

VI. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Differentiate metals and non metals.
Answer:

Metals	Non-Metals
Metals are lustrous. They have a shiny	Non metals are non lustrous. They
surface	have non- shiny surface
Metals are generally hard	Non-metals are generally soft
Most metals are bendable	Non-metals are non bendable
Most metals can be bent, beaten into sheets and they can drawn into wires	Non-metals are non ductile
Most metals are good conductors of electricity	Non-metals are bad conductors of electricity
Most metals are good conductors of heat	Non-metals are bad conductors of heat
Most metals are making ringing sound when struck. Hence, they are used to make objects like bells	Non-metals does not make any sound when they struck
Ex. : Copper, Lead, Tin, Nickel	Ex. : Carbon, Iodine, Sulphur

Question 2.
Explain the characteristics of compounds.
Answer:

1. A compound is formed only when the constituent elements combine in a fixed proportion.
2. The properties of a compound are different from those of its constituent elements
3. A compound cannot be broken down by physical methods.
4. This is because a compound is made up of different elements that are chemically combined. Sodium chloride cannot be separated by physical methods such as filtration.
5. A compound can be separated into its constituent elements by chemical methods only.

Question 3.
Describe the different ways in which we can write the symbols of elements. Give appropriate examples.
Answer:
The following rules are followed while assigning symbol to an elements:

1. Chemical symbols usually consist of one or two letters.
2. The symbols of most elements correspond to the first letter (which is capitalized) of their English name. For example, the symbol for oxygen is “O” and that for hydrogen is “H”.
3. When there is more than one element that begins with the same letter, their symbols take two letters.
4. The first letter is capitalised while the second letter has a lower case.
5. For example, the names of both hydrogen and helium begin with H. So, hydrogen is represented by the symbol H and Helium by He.

Example:

Question 4.
Differentiate between elements and compounds.
Answer:

Elements	Compounds
An element is the simplest substance	A compound is a chemical substance formed by the combination of two or more elements
Elements combine to form compounds	Compounds can be split into elements
Atoms are the fundamental particle of an element	Molecules are the fundamental particles of a compound

Question 5.
Write any five characteristics of compound.
Characteristics of compound:
Answer:

1. A compound is formed only when the constituent elements combine in a fixed proportion.
2. The properties of a compound are different from those of its constituent elements.
3. A compound cannot be broken down by physical methods.
4. Compound is made up of different elements that are chemically combined.
5. A compound can be separated into its constituent elements by chemical methods only.

Question 6.
List comparative properties of metals and non-metals. Give three examples of each.
Answer:

Metals	Non-Metals
Metals are lustrous. They have a shiny	Non metals are non lustrous. They
surface	have non- shiny surface
Metals are generally hard	Non-metals are generally soft
Most metals are bendable	Non-metals are non bendable
Most metals can be bent, beaten into sheets and they can drawn into wires	Non-metals are non ductile

Question 7.
Write down the properties of metalloids.
Answer:
Properties of metalloids :

1. Metalloids usually look like metals but behave largely like non-metals.
2. Physically they are shiny, brittle solids with intermediate to relatively good electrical conductivity.
3. They can from alloys with metals.
4. Most of their physical and chemical properties are intermediate in nature, (v) They are semiconductors.
5. All are solids at room temperature.
6. Example : Germanium, Boron, Antimony, Silicon.

VII. Rewrite the sentence in correct form :

Question 1.
Elements contains two or more kinds of atoms and compounds contains only one kinds of atoms.
Answer:
Elements contains two or more kinds of atoms and compounds contains two or more kinds of elements.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking questions :

Question 1.
Lists the metals, non-metals and metalloids which you used in your house, schools. Compare their properties.
Answer:
Metals and their uses in our houses & schools :

1. Magnesium is used in the laboratory as magnesium ribbon.
2. Copper is used cooking utensils.
3. Zinc is mainly used as a protective coat for iron is our school and house gates.
4. Aluminum is used as cooking utensils and electrical cables which are used in our schools and houses.
5. Iron and steel are widely used is construction of house and school.
6. Sodium is used as a table salt and for flavoring, preserving food.
7. Coins are made up of nickel.
8. Lead is used in car batteries. Lead based alloys find extensive use in printing

Non-metals and their uses in houses & school:

1. Oxygen is essential for the breathing. It is used as oxidising agent in laboratory. Chlorine is used for purifying water.
2. Graphite is used in pencil leads.
3. Carbon is used as a fuel.
4. Bromine is used in dyes.
5. Iodine is used in laboratory to test for starch.

Metalloids and their uses in houses & schools :

1. Silicon is used in glass items.
2. Antimony is used in optical discs.
3. Tellurium is used in solar cells.
4. Boron is used in washing powders.
5. Germanium is used to make transistors which is used in laboratory in electrical devices.

Comparsion of properties of metals, non-metals & metalloids

Metals	Non-metals	Metalloids
They have lustre	They are not lustrous	Intermediate
Conduct heat and electricity	Poor conductors of electricity except graphite	Intermediate (semi­conductors)
They are malleable and ductile	They are neither malleable nor ductile.	Intermediate

Question 2.
Aakash noticed that the metal latch on gate was difficult to open during hot sunny days. However, this same latch was not difficult to open at night. Aakash observed that the latch and the gate are exposed to the sun during the day.
a) Formulate a hypothesis based on the information provided.
b) Briefly state how you would test the hypothesis stated in (a).
Answer:
(a) Solids (Iron) expand on heating and contract on cooling. This causes the volume to matter of increase during heating or expansion, the mass of matter does not change.
(b) During heating the distance between the particles of the iron latch change. In an iron latch the distance between the iron particles increases when they gain enough heat. So during hot days the latch on the gate was difficult to open. At night, because of cooling the distance between the particles decreases. So at night it was not difficult to open the latch on the gate.

Question 3.
What changes take place in the movement and arrangement of particles during heating process?
Answer:
When a substance is heated, its internal energy increases.

1. The movement of its particles increases.
2. Bonds between particles break when a substance melts evaporates. This causes the volume of matter to increase.
3. The closeness, arrangement and motion of the particles in a substance change when it changes state. But the size of the particles remain in same size, (i.e.) the mass of matter does not change.

Question 4.
In the diagram given below, the circle, square and triangle represent the atoms of different elements different elements.

Identify all combinations that represent.
a) A molecule of a compound
b) A molecule of an element consisting of two atoms
c) A molecule of an element consisting of three atoms
Answer:

IX. Assertion-reason questions :

Question 1.
Directions: Please refer to the following instructions:
A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement.
b. Both statements are true but the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement.
C. The 1st statement is false while the 2nd statement is true.
D. Both statements are false.

	1st Statement	2nd Statement
1.	Oxygen is a element	Oxygen cannot be broken down into anything simpler
2.	Hydrogen is an element	Hydrogen cannot be broken down into anything simpler
3.	Air is a compound	Air consists of carbon dioxide
4.	Air is a mixture of elements only	Only nitrogen, oxygen and neon gases exist in air
5.	Mercury is solid in room temperature	Mercury is a non-metal

Answer

1. (A) Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement.
2. (A) Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1 st statement.
3. (D) Both statements are false.
Correct statement:

1. Air is a mixture of gases.
2. Air consists of Nitrogen Oxygen, CO,, other noble gases.

4. (A) Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1 st statement.
5. (D) Both statements are false.
Correct statement:

1. Mercury is liquid at room temperature.
2. Mercury is a metal.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Matter Around Us Intext Activities

Activity – 1
Complete the following table by writing compounds of its constituents.
Answer:

Activity – 2
Complete the following table by counting the number of different elements in a compounds and give appropriate name.
Answer:

Activity – 3
Write down the symbols of the following elements.
Answer:

Activity – 4
Write down atomicity of the following elements and compounds
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Matter Around Us Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The graphite refill used is pencil is made of element called __________
(a) graphite
(b) carbon
(c) silicon
(d) sodium
Answer:
(b) carbon

Question 2.
The smallest unit of an element is __________
(a) atom
(b) molecule
(c) compound
(d) none
Answer:
(a) atom

Question 3.
The most abundant type of atom is the universe is __________
(a) Helium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Argon
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen

Question 4.
__________ can be formed by the same or different kinds of atoms.
(a) Atom
(b) Molecule
(c) Gases
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Molecule

Question 5.
__________ is a substance that is made up of three oxygen atoms chemically combined.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(b) Ozone
(d) CO2
Answer:
(a) Oxygen

Question 6.
A molecule containing three atoms is called a __________ molecule
(a) monoatomic
(b) diatomic
(c) triatomic
(d) polyatomic
Answer:
(c) triatomic

Question 7.
A molecule which contains only one atom is called __________ molecule
(a) monoatomic
(b) diatomic
(c) triatomic
(d) none
Answer:
(a) monoatomic

Question 8.
An atom of Oxygen (O) and two atoms of hydrogen (H.) combine to form a molecule of __________
(a) hydrogen
(b) ozone
(c) water
(d) none
Answer:
(c) water

Question 9.
__________ is the first scientist who used the term element.
(a) New ton
(b) Einstein
(c) Robertr boyle
(d) Robert hook
Answer:
(c) Robertr boyle

Question 10.
Matter is its simplest form is called __________
(a) molecule
(b) Metals
(c) element
(d) none
Answer:
(c) element

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The name copper was taken from ______
2. The first letter of a symbol of an element is always written as a the second letter as a ______ letter and the second letter as a _____ letter
3. There are ______ hydrogen atoms in water molecule.
4. There is ______ oxygen atom is water molecule.
5. ______ is the total number atoms present in one molecule of an element, compound or a substance.
6. ______ is a mixture of gases
7. ______ is the life-giving element is the air
8. During heating or expansion, the ______
9. ______ is the smallest particle of an element.
10. ______ of an element consist of a fixed number of different types of atom.

Answer:

1. cypress
2. capital,small
3. 2
4. 1
5. atomicity
6. Air
7. Oxygen
8. mass
9. Atom
10. Molecules

III. Write true or false :

Question 1.
Metals are usually solids or gases at room temperature.
Answer:
False. Metals are usually solids at room temperature.

Question 2.
Non-metals are non-malleable.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Non-metals are usually good conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
(False) Metals are usually good conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 4.
Sodium chloride is used as table salt and for flavoring and preserving food.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Lead is also known as plumbum.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1.	Co2	(a)	Robert Boyle
2.	Sulphur	(b)	Making mobile phones
3.	Element	(c)	triatomic molecule
4.	Gallium	(d)	Polyatomic molecule

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

1.	Non-metals	(a)	Silicon
2.	Metals	(b)	fire extinguisher
3.	Metalloids	(c)	dull and soft
4.	Oxygen	(d)	hard and shiny
5.	Water	(e)	supports fire

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. Give very short answer :

Question 1.
How many elements are known at present?
Answer:
118.

Question 2.
Name the element which is used for making computer chips.
Answer:
Silicon

Question 3.
Name the constituents of water.
Answer:
Hydrogen and Oxygen.

Question 4.
What is the expansion of IUPAC.
Answer:
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Question 5.
What is the Latin name of Sodium?
Answer:
Natrium

Question 6.
What is a molecule?
Answer:
Molecule is the smallest unit of compound.

Question 7.
What is the fundamental particle of an element?
Answer:
Atom.

Question 8.
What is a chemical formula?
Answer:
A chemical formula is a symbolic representation of one molecule of an element or a compound.

VI. Give short answer :

Question 1.
What is an atom?
Answer:
The smallest unit of an element that exhibits the properties of the element is called as ‘atom’.

Question 2.
What are the 3 most abundant atoms on the earth?
Answer:
On earth the three most abundant atom are iron, oxygen, and silicon.

Question 3.
Write any two classification of molecule.
Answer:

1. A molecule which contains only one atom is called monatomic molecule (inert gases)
2. A molecule which contains two atoms is called diatomic molecule (oxygen, nitric oxide, hydrogen, etc.).

Question 4.
Classify the following as element and compound, (i) Silver (ii) Ammonia (iii) Water (iv) Mercury.
Answer:

1. Silver – element
2. Ammonia – compound
3. Water – compound
4. Mercury – clement

Question 5.
Give an account of elements known to us.
Answer:
There are 118 known elements till date. 94 of these elements occur naturally while 24 elements have been created artificially in the laboratory.

Question 6.
What are metalloids? Give examples.
Answer:
Metalloids are the elements which have properties intermediate, between those of metals and non-metals. Ex.: Boron, Silicon, Germanium, Arsenic, Antimony.

Question 7.
Give an example of a metal which
(a) is liquid at room temperature.
(b) is the best conductor of heat.
Answer:
a) Mercury
b) Silver, Copper

Question 8.
Write any two properties of a compound.
Answer:

1. The properties of a compound are different from those of its constituent elements.
2. A compound cannot be broken down by physical methods. This is because a compound is made up of different elements that are chemically combined. Sodium chloride cannot be separated by physical methods such as filtration.

Question 9.
What happens to matter during heating?
Answer:

1. SOLID : When solid is heated, the particles gain energy and vibrate more vigorously.
2. LIQUID : Melting occurs when the melting point is reached. The solid changes to its liquid state.
3. LIQUID : When a liquid is heated the particles gain energy and vibrate more
4. GAS : Boiling occurs when the boiling point is reached. The liquid changes to its gaseous State.

Question 10.
How do hot air balloons float?
Answer:
When air inside the hot air balloon is heated with a burner, it expands. The expansion causes the density of the air inside the balloon to decrease. Hence, the air inside the balloon has a lower density that the air outside of the balloon. This difference is density allows the hot-air balloon to float.

VII. Complete the table

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Compound	Constituent elements
Sodium carbonate	Sodium, Carbon. Oxygen
Water	(i) ?
Calcium oxide	(ii) ?
Sugar	Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

Answer:

1. Hydrogen, Oxygen
2. Calcium, Oxygen.

Question 4.
Complete the table by writing the symbols of the following elements

Element	Symbol
Aluminium	Al
Nickel
Bromine
Helium
Magnesium

Answer:

Element	Symbol
Aluminium	Al
Nickel	Ni
Bromine	Br
Helium	He
Magnesium	Mg

Question 5.
Complete the table:

Element	Latin Name	Symbol
Mercury	–	Hg
Lead	Plumbum	–
Iron	–	Fe
Potassium	Kalium	–

Answer:

1. Hydrargyrum
2. Pb
3. Ferrum
4. K

VIII. Long answer questions :

Question 1.

1. Draw the symbol for some elements as proposed by Dalton.
2. What are rules to be followed while assigning symbol to element.

Answer:

1. Symbol for some elements as proposed by Dalton.
2. The following rules are followed while assigning symbol to an elements:

(a) Chemical symbols usually consist of one or two letters
(b) The symbols of most elements correspond to the first letter (which is capitalized) of their English name. For example, the symbol for oxygen is “O” and that for hydrogen is “H”.

Higher Order Thinking questions : (HOTS)

Question 1.
Why is hydrogen considered as an element?
Answer:
Hydrogen is considered as an element because,

1. Hydrogen cannot be broken into new substance by ordinary physical or chemical means, (i.e) by applying heat, light.
2. Hydrogen has one kind of atoms.

Question 2.
Why is water considered as compound?
Answer:
Water is considered as compound because,

1. Water is composed of two elements: H₂ and 0₂
2. The ratio of Hydrogen and Oxygen by mass in any sample of pure water is the same.
3. The properties of water are different from its constituent elements : Hydrogen and Oxygen.
4. Water can be decomposed only by chemical methods into Hydrogen and Oxygen.

Question 3.
Write the difference between a mixture and compound.
Answer:

Mixture	Compound
When two or more substances are mixed at random it forms a mixture.	A compound is a pure substance that is formed when the atoms of two or more elements combine chemically is definite proportion
The constituents can be separated easily by physical methods	The constituents can be separated only by chemical methods.

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ______ separates North America from Asia
(a) Bering Strait
(b) Palk Straits
(c) Malacca Strait
(d) Gibraltar straits
Answer:
(a) Bering Strait

Question 2.
__________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the world”
(a) Mexico
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Cuba
Answer:
(d) Cuba

Question 3.
__________ are the longest rivers in North America
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
(b) The Mackenzieriver
(c) The St. Lawrence river
(d) The Colorado river
Answer:
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers

Question 4.
__________ is the longest mountain chain in the world.
(a) The Andes
(b) TheRockies
(c) The Himalayas
(d) The Alps
Answer:
(a) The Andes

Question 5.
__________ basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location
(a) The Mackenzie
(b) The Orinoco
(c) The Amazon
(d) The Parana
Answer:
(c) The Amazon

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ 86 m below the sea level is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
2. _______ is one of the worlds best fishing grounds.
3. The highest peak in the Andes is ______ on the Chile – Argentina border.
4. _______ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”.
5. _______ is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world.

Answer:

1. Death valley is
2. Grand Bank
3. Mt Aconcagua
4. The Selvas
5. Brazil

III. Match the following

Mount McKinley	–	Tropical forests
Grand Canyon	–	The flightless bird
Ebony	–	The Colorado River
4’o Clock Rains	–	6194 m
Rhea	–	The equatorial regions

Answer:

Mount McKinley	–	6194 m
Grand Canyon	–	The Colorado River
Ebony	–	The equatorial regions
4’O Clock Rains	–	Tropical forests
Rhea	–	The flightless bird

IV. Give Reasons.

Question 1.
The eastern coast of North America particularly the USA enjoys a mild climate.
Answer:
The South and east is usually warm all the year-round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.

Question 2.
The United States of America is known as “Melting Pot”.
Answer:
The United States of America is known as “Melting Pot” where hundreds of different cultures meet, blend, and creating a new culture.

Question 3.
Though Quito and Amazon basin are in the same latitude Quito enjoys eternal Spring. Whereas the Amazon basin is hot.
Answer:

1. The climate of the continent of South America has been closely influenced by the latitudes, attitudes, and proximity of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
2. It is hot in the Amazon basin as the equator passes through it whereas Quito, situated almost on the same latitude on the Andes, has “Eternal Spring”.
3. That is, it has a pleasant climate throughout the year because of its high altitude at 9,350 feet or2849.88 meters above the sea level.

Question 4.
Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish.
Answer:

1. Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish. Here the cool Humboldt Current helps in bring plankton, which is the main food for fishes.
2. Commercial deep-sea fishing off of Peru’s coastal belt of over 3000 km.
3. Peruvian waters normally abound with sword fish, mackerel, yellow fin, pompano and shark.
4. More than 50 species are caught commercially. –
5. There are over 40 fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
6. Paita and Callao are being the most important centers in Peru.

V. Distinguish between

Question 1.
The Rocky Mountain and the Appalachian mountain.
Answer:

S.No.	Rocky mountain	Appalachian mountain
1.	The western part of North America is occupied by long ranges of young fold mountains known as Rocky mountains.	The eastern part of North America is formed of old fold Appalachian which are not continuous like Rockies.
2.	The width varies from 110 to 480 kms.	There are few peaks more than 1800m high.
3.	The Rocky mountains are west of the Mississippi River.	The Appalachian Mountains are east of the river.

Question 2.
The Prairies and the Pampas grassland.
Answer:

S.No.	Prairies grassland	Pampas grassland
1.	The temperate grasslands of North America are known as Prairies.	The temperate grasslands of South America are known as Pampas.
2.	Region – Central USA and Central Canada.	Region – North of Eastern part of Argentina, Uruguay and Southernmost Brazil.
3.	Winter is very cold, Summer is hot and rainfall is moderate.	Summer is quite warm and winter is cold and moderate rainfall.
4.	Flora – Grasses	Flora – short grass.
5.	Fauna – Coyote, Gophers, Rabbits Prairie Dogs and Bison.	Fauna – Rhea, Pampas Deer, Jaguar, Camel, Stag etc.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

S.No.	Tundra	Taiga
1.	Region – Northern coast of Canada and the Northern Islands.	Region – The coniferous forests are found in Alaska and Canada, South Central Alaska and North Eastern Canada.
2.	Climate – Winter is long and severely cold, Summer is short and cool. Rainfall is scanty.	Climate – Winter is very cold, Summer is warm and short. Heavy snowfall in winter.
3.	Flora – Mosses, Lichens and Dwarf willows.	Flora – Pine, Fir, Cedar and Spruce.
4.	Fauna – Arctic fox, Reindeer, Musk ox, Polar bears, Sable and Blue fox.	Fauna – Beaver, Fox, Sable, Ermine, Skunk, Caribou and Grizzly Bears.

VI. Put (✓) for the correct option

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R): Warm summer with frequent rainfall and the fertile soil which provide favourable condition.
(a) Both A and R is correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) industries in South America have developed rapidly.
Reason (R): The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) need for industrialization,
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) A is wrong and R is correct

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Name the boundaries of North America.
Answer:

1. North America is surrounded by the Pacific Ocean in the West, the Atlantic Ocean in the east, the Arctic Ocean in the north, and South America in the south.
2. North America is joined with South America by the Isthmus of Panama.
3. The Bering Strait separates North America from Asia.

Question 2.
Write a note on Mackenzie River.
Answer:
The Mackenzie River is the second-largest drainage basin of North America. It has it source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.

Question 3.
What type of fruits are cultivated in North America? Name some of them.
Answer:

1. Mainly Citrus Fruits are cultivated in Texas, California, Great Lakes regions, and St. Lawrence Valley.
2. The important Fruits of North America are Cranberries, Blueberries, Concord Grapes, Strawberries, Gooseberries, and other fruits.

Question 4.
Give a short note about the lifestyle of Eskimos.
Answer:

1. Eskimos live in a very cold and inhospitable region where plenty of fish varieties are available.
2. They were able to dress in thick warm clothes made of fur, they live in igloos.
3. Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
4. The specially designed house by ice and is known as igloos.

Question 5.
Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
Answer:
Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida, California, Mexico and Central America are the most densely populated areas.

Question 6.
Name the physiographic divisions of South America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following physiographic divisions:

1. The Andes Mountains
2. The River Basin or Central Plains
3. The Eastern Highlands

Question 7.
What is called “4’o clock rains”?
Answer:
In equatorial regions, convectional rain occurs almost daily in the afternoons. It generally occurs at 4 pm that’s why it is known as 4’o Clock Rain.

Question 8.
Name the flora and fauna of equatorial forest in South America.
Answer:

1. Flora: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Logwood, Brazil nuts, and Ceiba.
2. Fauna: Anaconda, Armadillo, Piranha, Monkey, Snake, Crocodile, and Parrots.

Question 9.
What is known as “Estancias”?
Answer:
The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias. These are divided into several paddocks. Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals are sorted and branded. The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.

Question 10.
Name the major export of South America.
Answer:
South America’s major exports are mostly primary commodities such as sugar, coffee, cocoa, tobacco, beef, corn, wheat, petroleum, natural gas, linseed, cotton, iron ore, tin, and copper. South America’s products include mostly exported to North America and Europe.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the climate of North America.
Answer:

1. The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.
2. Unlike the Himalayas, the Rockies run north to south which does not form a climatic barrier and does not prevent the icy winds from the Arctic region and penetrating the central plains which therefore have a very long cold winter and very short hot summer.
3. Precipitation occurs due to cyclonic storms.
4. The Arctic region is cold and mostly dry and has very short summers and a very long bitterly cold winter.
5. As one proceeds southwards the short summers become warm but the winters are very cold.
6. The central plains have extreme climates from freezing conditions in winter to tropical heat in summer.
7. The South is usually warm all the year-round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.
8. The warm moist South Westerlies not only bring rainfall to the North West coast and also keep it warm.
9. The warm Alaskan Current keeps the North West coast ice-free.
10. The State of California in the USA has a Mediterranean Climate with moist winter and dry summers.

Question 2.
Describe the Heavy Engineering Industries in North America.
Answer:
Heavy Engineering Industries:

1. Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, the involvement of huge investment, and large transport costs are called heavy industries.
2. These industries depend heavily on the Iron and Steel industry.
3. The important Heavy Industries are automobile industries, aircraft industries, shipbuilding industries, Railway Wagon industries, and farm equipment industries.
4. The USA is the largest producer of automobiles.
5. The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in the USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 3.
Describe the drainage system in South America.
Answer:

1. Owing to the position of the Andes all the great rivers of the continent drain into the Atlantic.
2. The Pacific streams are short and swift but along the coastlands of Peru their waters are used for irrigation and to some extent for hydro-electric power. Amazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world.
3. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
4. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
5. At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.
6. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
7. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
8. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the major races in South America.
Answer:

• South America contains the world s most mixed population.
• Many people in South America are descended from Europeans, especially the Spanish and Portuguese, who begin to arrive during the 15th century.
• The descendants of African slaves brought over by the Europeans. Native people still live in the mountain and the rainforests and keeping their own languages and traditions.
• There are three major races found in South America and are
  • American Indian
  • European
  • Blacks.
• The mixed population of Native Indians and Europeans is known as ‘Mestizo’.
• The mixed population of Europeans and Blacks is called ‘Mulato’ and the mixture of Native Indians and Blacks is called ‘Zambo’.
• The current population of South America is 429, 115, 060 (42.25 cores). The population density of South America is 21 persons per square kilometer.
• South America is positioned 5th rank in total population among the continents.

IX. Map skill

Question 1.
With the help of the map given in the text and an atlas, name the seas and bays in North America
Answer:

Question 2.
Mark the rivers Amazon, Orinoco, Negro, Paraguay, Uruguay on a map of South America.
Answer:

X. Activity

Question 1.
Given below are some important cities with industries placed in brackets. Pick out the correct answer from them.

1. Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping)
2. Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering)
3. Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement)
4. Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile)
5. Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)

Answer:

1. Iron and steel
2. Meat Packing
3. Paper
4. Oil refinery
5. Dairy products

Question 2.
Write down the answers to the question given in blocks:
(a) Name the highest peak in South America.

(b) An active volcano in South America

(c) The combined Parana and Paraguay river.

(d) The highest falls in the world.

(e) The largest river in the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In _______ North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
(a) 1492
(b) 1491
(c) 1498
(d) 1496
Answer:
(a) 1492

Question 2.
The landmass was named America in _____ after Italian explorer America Vespucci.
(a) 1506
(b) 1507
(c) 1508
(d) 1509
Answer:
(b) 1507

Question 3.
North America is the __________ largest continent next to Asia and Africa
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

Question 4.
North America has _____ time zones
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 5.
The _____ small countries which lie to the south of Mexico are referred to as central America
(a) six
(b) seven
(c) eight
(d) nine
Answer:
(b) seven

Question 6.
Death Valley is about _______ m below the sea level and is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
(a) 86
(b) 90
(c) 95
(d) 100
Answer:
(a) 86

Question 7.
Mount McKinley is about m _______ above the sea level and is the highest peak of North America.
(a) 6194
(b) 6195
(c) 6180
(d) 6185
Answer:
(a) 6194

Question 8.
The width of Rocky mountains varies from _______ to _______ kms.
(a) 100 to 500
(b) 110 to 480
(c) 115 to 485
(d) 120 to 490
Answer:
(b) 110 to 480

Question 9.
Mississippi and Missouri together form the _______ longest river system in the world.
(a) sixth
(b) fourth
(c) fifth
(d) third
Answer:
(b) fourth

Question 10.
The warm Alaskan Current keeps the _______ coast ice-free.
(a) Northwest
(b) Northeast
(c) Southwest
(d) Southeast
Answer:
(a) North West

Question 11.
Approximately _____ percentage of the total land area is under forest cover.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 30

Question 12.
North America accounts for approximately ________ Percentage of the world’s production of timber
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

Question 13.
Wheat was introduced by ________ settlers in North America.
(a) European
(b) Spanish
(c) Italian
(d) Dutch
Answer:
a) European

Question 14.
North America is the largest producer of meat and about ________ of world production.
(a) one fourth
(b) one-sixth
(c) half
(d) three fourth
Answer:
(a) one fourth

Question 15.
North America produces about ________ percent of the world total milk and dairy products.
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 25
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 16.
The New England region contains ________ % woolen textile industries.
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 50
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 70

Question 17.
North America is the ________ largest producer of synthetic fibers.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 18.
The population density in North America is about ________ present per sq.km.
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 19.
North America population is equivalent to ________ % of the world total population.
(a) 4.75
(b) 4.76
(c) 4.77
(d) 4.78
Answer:
(c) 4.77

Question 20.
________ has the biggest railway yard in the world.
(a) Chicago
(b) Vancouver
(c) Newyork
(d) San Francisco
Answer:
(a) Chicago

Question 21.
There are ________ great rivers in south America that drain into the Atlantic Ocean.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 22.
The ________ is grown extensively on the Pampas of Argentina.
(a) maize
(b) wheat
(c) millets
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(b) wheat

Question 23.
Brazil stands ________ in the production of Coffee and in Cocoa in the world.
(a) first, third
(b) third, first
(c) fourth, sixth
(d) fifth, sixth
Answer:
(a) first, third

Question 24.
South America has ________ varieties of fish that inhabit this river.
(a) 750
(b) 850
(c) 950
(d) 550
Answer:
(a) 750

Question 25.
There are over ________ fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
(a) 50
(b) 45
(c) 40
(d) 55
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 26.
River Amazon has ________ varieties of fish.
(a) 700
(b) 750
(c) 800
(d) 850
Answer:
(b) 750

Question 27.
South America contains ________ of the world’s iron ore reserves.
(a) one-seventh
(b) one fifth
(c) one-sixth
(d) one third
Answer:
(b) one fifth

Question 28.
Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of ________
(a) iron ore
(b) copper
(c) coal
(d) gypsum
Answer:
(a) iron ore

Question 29.
Brazil is estimated to have about ________ % of the world export of iron ore.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 30.
South America is positioned ________ rank in total population among the continents
(a) 4th
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 8th
Answer:
(c) 5th

Question 31.
Population density of south America is ________ personal per square kilometer.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 21

Question 32.
Chile is the ________ largest producer of copper in the world.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is a continent of great physical diversity.
2. The _______ mountain range extends for about. the Panama Strait in the south.
3. The_______ and ______ rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
4. The ______ river is the second-largest drainage basin in North America.
5. St. Lawrence has its origin in ______
6. The ______ river forms the boundary between USA and Mexico.
7. Lake ______ is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
8. ______ is a well-developed industry particular in Canada.
9. Cuba is known as ______
10. Edible oil is extracted from ______ .
11. Cattle and pigs are fed with ______ and ______
12. The ______ current brings plenty of plankton which provides food for fish.
13. ______ is the largest producer and exporter of all kinds of paper in the world.
14. Rayon and other synthetic fibers are made up of cellulose obtained from ______
15. The important ports in the west coast of North America are ______ and ______
16. The Great Lakes region along ______ waterway is the most important inland waterway in North America.
17. The USA has the best-laid ______ in the world.
18. The Andes are rich in minerals like ______ and ______
19. The longest river in South America is ______
20. The Geo-climatic condition of ______ are ideal for agriculture
21. Brazil is the largest producer of in ______ south America
22. Maize is also known as ______
23. _____and_____ are the most important crops of South America
24. Barley is a member of the ______ family.
25. The extensive tropical grasslands of South America are ______ and ______
26. Quebracho tree yields ______
27. South America is rich in ______
28. Northern Chile has the world s only natural deposits of ______
29. Venezuela is rice in ______ products
30. Peru has some of the biggest _____ mines of the world
31. The ______ and ______ river of south America Provide cheap water transport
32. The temperate grasslands of South America are Knows as ______

Answer:

1. North America
2. Rocky,4800
3. Mississippi and Missouri
4. Mackenzie
5. Lake Ontario
6. Rio Grande
7. Superior
8. Lumbering
9. sugar bowl of the world”
10. Soya beans
11. Potato and Sugar beet
12. Cold labrador
13. Canada
14. Wood pulp
15. Vancouver and San Francisco
16. St. Lawrence
17. roadways
18. Copper and Tin
19. Amazon
20. Pampas
21. Sugar
22. Corn
23. Coffee and Cocoa
24. grass
25. Lianos and Campos
26. tannis
27. Mineral
28. Sodium nitrate
29. Petroleum
30. copper
31. Amazon, plate
32. Pampas

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Continent		Peaks
Asia	(a)	Mount Kilimanjaro
South America	(b)	Mount McKinley
North America	(c)	Mount Elbrus
Africa	(d)	Mount Aconcagua
Europe	(e)	Mount Everest

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. c

Question 2.

Forest		Flora
Thundra	(a)	Grasses
Prairies	(b)	Mahogany
Desert	(c)	Pine
Tropical Rainforest	(d)	Cactus
Coniferous forest	(e)	Mosses

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

Question 3.

Mineral		Area
Iron ore	(a)	Appalachians
Copper	(b)	Mexico
Silver	(c)	Lake superior
Gold	(d)	Great lakes
Coal	(e)	California

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. e
5. a

Question 4.

Country		Population Density
USA	(a)	3 persons
Canada	(b)	51 persons
Mexica	(c)	30 persons
Central Highland	(d)	Densly Populated
Central America	(e)	Moderate Population

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. e
5. d

IV. Give reason.

Question 1.
Mississippi River has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy”.
Answer:

1. The Mississippi River has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodesa lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.
2. Some of the States of the United States are named after the tributaries of two mighty rivers the Mississippi and Missouri.

Question 2.
The Climate of North America is as varied as that of Asia.
Answer:
The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.

Question 3.
South America is also known as Latin America.
Answer:
Together with Central America, South America is also known as Latin America, having been discovered and colonized mostly by the Latins, i.e., The Spanish and the Portuguese.

Question 4.
Cordilleras come under the pacific ring of fire.
Answer:
The Cordilleras are also part of the Fire Ring of the Pacific. Because there are a number of active volcanoes and this area is also subject to earthquakes.

Question 5.
The selvas of the equatorial regions are called the lungs of the world.
Answer:
They are thick forests and provide fresh oxygen so are known as the lungs of the world.

V. Distinguish between,

Question 1.
Rocky Mountain and Andes Mountain.
Answer:

S.No.	Rocky Mountain	Andes Mountain
1.	Young fold mountains found in North America.	Young fold mountains found in South America.
2.	The highest peak is Mt. Mckinley.	The highest peak is Mt. Aconcagua.

Question 2.
Mississippi River and Amazon river.
Answer:

S.No.	Mississippi river	Amazon river
1.	The Source of the Mississippi river is lake Itasca.	The Source of the Amazon river is the high Andes mountains.
2.	The important tributaries are Arkansas, Illinois, Missouri etc.	The important tributaries Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos.
3.	The river drains into the Gulf of Mexico.	The river drains into the Atlantic ocean ore the North-Eastern coast of Brazil.

Question 3.
Bear Lake and Lake Titicaca.
Answer:

S.No:	Bear Lake	Lake Titicaca
1.	Found in North America.	Found in South America.
2.	It is located in the Rocky mountains.	It is located in the High Andes Mountains.
3.	Found at an elevation of 1806m.	The highest lake in the world.

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the prominent intermontane plateaus of North America.
Answer:
There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Name the fold mountains of North America.
Answer:
Rockies and Appalachians.

Question 3.
What are westerlies?
Answer:
The Westerlies or anti-trades are prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude.

Question 4.
Write a note on Grand Banks.
Answer:
Grand Banks: The Grand Banks is among the world’s largest and richest resource areas, renowned for both their valuable fish stocks and petroleum reserves.

Question 5.
Write a note on heavy industries of North America.
Answer:
Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, the involvement of huge investment, and large transport costs are called heavy industries.

Question 6.
Name the important centers of heavy engineering industries.
Answer:
The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in the USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 7.
Name the world’s important ports found in North America.
Answer:
Quebec City, Montreal, Boston, New York, Philadelphia, Charleston and New Orleans are the Worlds largest ports.

Question 8.
Write a note on the Panama canal.
Answer:

1. Panama Canal: In 1914 a Canal was cut across the Isthmus of Panama for 80 kms long which connects the Atlantic with the Pacific Ocean.
2. It greatly reduced the distance between Europe and the West Coast of North and South America.

Question 9.
Name the busiest international airports of the world found in North America.
Answer:
New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Atlanta, Toronto, Montreal and Mexico City are some of the busiest international airports in the World.

Question 10.
Write about Trade in North America.
Answer:

1. North America trades mainly with Asia, Europe, and Latin America.
2. Though Alaska belongs to the USA, it has to import practically every resource. It is being developed now due to its mineral wealth.
3. North America’s exports are mainly manufactured goods such as Industrial Machinery, Automobile, Paper, Fish, Arms and Ammunition, Aircraft, Telecom Equipments, Chemical, Plastics, Fertilizers, Wood Pulp, Timber, Crude Oil, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Aluminum, Nickel and Lead, etc.,
4. The countries of North America Imports Tropical goods and Textiles from Asia and Africa. The countries of Europe, Japan, China, and India are the major trading partners.

Question 11.
What are the main natural vegetation areas of South America?
Answer:
There are four main natural vegetation areas of South America and are the Amazon basin (the Selvas), the Eastern Highlands, the Gran Chaco and the slopes of the Andes.

Question 12.
Write a note on the coniferous forest of South America.
Answer:
The forests on the slopes of the Andes have coniferous such as pine, fir, and spruce. These forests are also called Montana. They yield valuable softwood for the paper and pulp industry.

Question 13.
Write a note on Orinoco and Paraguay rivers.
Answer:

1. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
2. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
3. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 14.
Write a note on the Amazon river.
Answer:

1. Amazon is the longest river in South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world. This river has over a thousand tributaries.
2. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira, and Tapajos are important tributaries.
3. At the point where it enters the sea, the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.

Question 15.
Define

1. Isthmus
2. Strait
3. Igloo
4. Selvas
5. Pampas.

Answer:

1. Isthmus – A narrow stretch of land joining two large landmasses
2. Strait – A narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies
3. Igloo – The specially designed house by ice
4. Selvas – A tract of land covered by dense equatorial forest in the Amazon basin.
5. Pampas – A temperate grassland of South America.

VII. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain about the Rocky mountains.
Answer:
The Rocky Mountains:

1. The western part of the continent is occupied by long ranges of young folded mountains interspersed with high plateaus, narrow valleys, and broad interior basins.
2. This mountain range extends for about 4800 km from Alaska in the North to the Panama Strait in the South.
3. The width varies from 110 to 480 Kms.
4. They are parallel ranges and are known as the Rockies in the east and the Coast Range Mountains in the west.
5. In Mexico, they are called the Sierra Madre.
6. The Rockies and the Coast Range are together called the “Western Cordilleras”.
7. There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges.
8. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau, and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the drainage of North America.
Answer:
Drainage:

1. Many rivers flow across this land and some of them following the valleys are formed by the glaciers.
2. The Mississippi and Missouri rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
3. The Mackenzie River is the second-largest drainage basin of North America. It has its source from Great Slave Lake and drains into the Arctic Ocean.
4. St. Lawrence has its origin in Lake Ontario which flows northeast and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.
5. The plateau of the west has been cut deeply by the River Columbia and its tributary which forms many gorges called Canyons.
6. The most famous is the Grand Canyon cut by the River Colorado which all flows over the plateau of Columbia.
7. The River Yukon rising in the north-west of the Western mountain system is frozen for eight months in the year. .
8. The River Rio Grande flows into the Gulf of Mexico and forms the boundary between the USA and Mexico.
9. The most important chain consists of five lakes. The biggest is Lake Superior and it is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
10. Lake Winnipeg, Great Bear Lake, and Lake Athabasca are some of the other lakes in Canada.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the crops grown in North America.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture:
Though the least proportion of the total workforce is engaged in agriculture America’s agriculture is the most productive in the world. Wheat, Corn (Maize), Oats, Soybean, Barley, and many other food crops are grown throughout the vast interior plains.

(ii) Wheat:
Wheat was introduced by European settlers in North America. It is grown extensively in the Prairies of North America. North America is the largest exporter in North America produces more than half of the world’s total Maize.

(iii) Barley and Oats:
These are temperate crops that withstand the cold climate and need less water. The Barley is grown in the United States and are produced in Minnesota, North Dakota, and Washington. Barley and Oats is used as cattle fodder.

(iv) Cotton:
Cotton grows well in Southern and Western States and it is dominated in Texas, California, Mississippi, South of the Prairies, and Mexico. Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil are favorable conditions for the growth of the cotton crops.

(v) Sugar cane:
Sugar cane is cultivated along the Gulf of Mexico, Parts of Central America and the West Indies. It is an important Cash Crop of the West Indies. Cuba is known as the “sugar bowl of the world” and it is the world’s largest exporter of sugar.

(vi) Soya beans:
It is raised in the same area where Maize is grown. It is used for the extraction of edible ml.

(vii) Potatoes and Sugar beet:
Prairie Region, North Dakota, and Minnesota are the producers of Sugar Beets and Potatoes. Sugar beet is used for making Sugar. Potato and Sugar Beet are used to feed cattle and pigs.

Question 4.
Write about population density in North America.
Answer:
The density of the population in North America is 19 people/Sq. km.
Population and Density of North America

S. No	Country	Population (in Millions)	Density
1.	United States	327.16	30 persons
2.	Canada	36.95	3 persons
3.	Mexico	123.00	51 persons

1. Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida, California, Mexico and Central America are the most densely populated areas.
2. Moderately populated areas: Central part of United States, Central Highland, Highlands of Mexico, Central and western Canada are the Moderately populated areas.
3. Sparsely populated areas: Northern Canada, Alaska, Rocky Mountain regions and desert regions are sparsely populated areas.

Question 5.
Explain in detail the physiographic divisions of south America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following physiographic divisions:
The Andes Mountains:

1. The Andes are Fold Mountains like the Himalayas.
2. The highest peak in the Andes is Mount Aconcagua (an extinct volcano) on the Chile- Argentina border which reaches at an elevation of 6,961 m. In Chile, the mountains run very close to the coast.
3. The slopes are steep on the western side and gentle on the eastern side like the Rockies in North America.
4. There are some active volcanoes like Cotopaxi (5,991m) on the Andes range. The Andes are rich in minerals like Copper, Tin and Precious Gems including Emerald.

The River Basins (or) the Central Plains:

1. Nearly half of the Continent is covered by the plains. Three great rivers drain into the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The biggest of them is Amazon.
3. The Amazon basin consisting mainly of the alluvial deposits is the thickly forested part of the world.

The Eastern Highlands:

1. These are considerably older than the Andes and are mainly Plateau which is cut by many rivers.
2. They lie to the north and south of the Amazon River.
3. The Brazilian Highlands are found to the south of the Amazon basin.
4. They are gently rolling plateaus with steep cliffs along the east coast.

Question 6.
Explain the mineral deposits of South America.
Answer:
Minerals:

1. South America is rich in minerals. These mineral deposits are unevenly distributed.
2. South America has many valuable deposits of minerals particularly iron ore, manganese, petroleum, copper and bauxite. There are some active mines producing silver and gold.
3. Northern Chile has the world’s only natural deposits of sodium nitrate an important ingredient of fertilizers.

Iron ore:

1. South America contains about one-fifth of the world s iron ore reserves.
2. Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of iron ore.
3. Brazil has the second-largest iron ore deposits in the world after Russia, Brazil is estimated to have about 15% of the world export of iron ore.

Manganese:

1. Brazil also has large deposits of Manganese.
2. Manganese ore is mined at Lafaiete, Minas Gerais, and in the Northern State of Amapa.

Petroleum:

1. Venezuela is rich in petroleum deposits.
2. Argentina, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Chile, and Bolivia are the other valuable oilfields. Petroleum is the only mineral produced in substantial quantity.

Copper:

1. Chile is the third-largest producer of copper in the world.
2. Copper provides over 40% of exports by value. Some of the biggest copper mines in the world are located in Peru.
3. It is found in the Atacama Desert.

Bauxite:

1. Brazil is the third-largest bauxite producing country.
2. An important bauxite mining centre is located near the mouth of the Amazon River. Bauxite is used for aluminum production.

Question 7.
Explain the industries of South America.
Answer:
Industries:

1. Industries in South America have developed slowly Argentina, Brazil, and Chile are the most highly developed industrial countries in this continent.
2. The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) which is an essential need for Industrialisation. Railways and the roads could not be developed sufficiently owing to rugged terrain.
3. In spite of having an abundance of natural resources, industrialisation started quite late in South America.

S.no	Country	Industries
1.	Brazil	Iron and steel, cotton textiles, sugar, food processing, oil refining, chemicals and automobiles
2.	Argentina	Meat processing and Canning, dairy products, food processing, leather processing, woolen textiles, sugar and oil refining
3.	Chile	Oil refining, chemical fertilizers and copper smelting
4	Peru	Mining and the processing of minerals, chemicals, fertilizers, sugar, coffee, and wool textiles
5.	Uruguay	Dairy products, meat processing, and woolen textiles
6.	Venezuela	Oil refining, chemical fertilizers and copper smelting

Question 8.
Explain about the Transport of South America.
Answer:
Transport:
Unlike North America, South America still does not have an adequately integrated transportation network. Significant efforts have been made to improve both the connection within the countries and the linkages between them.

Roadways:

1. South America has an extensive and rapidly expanding network of roads.
2. A Road linking Venezuela and Brazil allows north to south movement through the Amazon Basin.
3. Brazil continues to have the largest network of roads belonging to the Pan American Highway System which extends throughout the Americas.

Railways:

1. In most South American countries, railways have lost their dominant position of the major mode of transportation and have been replaced by the road networks that have developed rapidly since the 1960 s.
2. Moreover, rail transport is plagued by operational problems as well as by obsolete equipment.
3. Many countries have two or more track gauges which impede the efficient integration of the rails system.

Waterways:

1. Seaways have long been a vital component of the transport systems of South American countries.
2. The majority of imports and exports to and from the continent are moved by ship. South America has a number of outstanding natural harbours.
3. There is two inland waterways system of international importance. They are
   • The Paraguay – Uruguay basin includes territory in four countries and
   • The Amazon basin includes six countries. Each has several thousand miles of navigable waterways..

Airways:

1. Airways have developed rapidly since World War II.
2. The increase is particularly significant with respect to passenger traffic and also handling of bulky freights.
3. All the South American capitals and most of the large cities are linked by direct air services to the major traffic centres of the United States and Europe.

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science New Religious Ideas and Movements Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who of the following composed songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother Yashoda?
(a) Poigaiazhwar
(b) Periyazhwar
(c) Nammazhwar
(d) Andal
Answer:
(b) Periyazhwar

Question 2.
Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
(a) Ramanujar
(b) Ramananda
(c) Nammazhwar
(d) Adi Shankara
Answer:
(d) Adi Shankara

Question 3.
Who spread the Bhakthi ideology in northern India and made it a mass movement?
(a) Vallabhacharya
(b) Ramanujar
(c) Ramananda
(d) Surdas
Answer:
(c) Ramananda

Question 4.
Who made Chishti order popular in India?
(a) Moinuddin Chishti
(b) Suhrawardi
(c) Amir Khusru
(d) Nizamuddin Auliya
Answer:
(a) Moinuddin Chishti

Question 5.
Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
(a) Lehna
(b) Guru Amir Singh
(c) GuruNanak
(d) Guru Gobind Singh
Answer:
(c) GuruNanak

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Periyazhwar was earlier known as ______
2. ______ is the holy book of the Sikhs.
3. Meerabai was the disciple of ______
4. philosophy is known as Vishistadvaita ______
5. Gurudwara Darbar Sahib is situated at ______ in Pakistan.

Answer:

1. Vishnu Chittar
2. Guru Granth Sahib
3. Ravi das
4. Ramanuja’s
5. Karatarpur

III. Match the following.

Pahul	–	Kabir
Ramcharitmanas	–	Sikhs
Sri Vaishnavism	–	Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
Granthavali	–	Guru Gobind Singh
Suhrawardi	–	Tulsidas

Answer:

Pahul	–	Sikhs
Ramcharitmanas	–	Tulsidas
Srivaishnavism	–	Ramanuja
Granthavali	–	Kabir
Suhrawardi	–	Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs:

(1) Andal – Srivilliputhur
(2) Tukaram – Bengal
(3) Chaitanyadeva – Maharashtra
(4) Brahma-sutra – Vallabacharya
(5) Gurudwaras – Sikhs
Answer:
(1) Andal – Srivilliputhur
(5) Gurudwaras – Sikhs

Question 2.
Assertion (A): After Guru Gobind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib came to be considered the guru.
Reason (R): Guru Gobind Singh was the compiler of Guru Granth Sahib.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 3.
Find the odd person out
Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, Periazhwar, Andal, Nammazhwar.
Answer:
Andal

V. State true or false:

1. Sufism was responsible for the spread of Islamic culture.
2. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.
3. Guru Nanak is considered the first guru of Sikhs.
4. Sufis believed that the realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to God and intense meditation.
5. The basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon consists of 12 books.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
What do you know about Tirumuraii?
Answer:
Nambi Andar Nambi (1000 A.D.) is said to have compiled the songs of all of the Nayanmars that form the basis of Tirumurai, the basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon. It consists of 12 books, and 11 of them were assembled by Nambi. The 12th book is Sekkizhar s Periyapuranam.

Question 2.
How many Nayanmars were there and who were prominent among them?
Answer:
There are 63 legendary Nayanmars. Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.

Question 3.
How did Gurunanak help to found Sikhism?
Answer:

• Guru Nanak is considered the first guru by the Sikhs.
• The teachings of Guru Nanak formed the basis of Sikhism, a new religious order, founded in the late 15th century.
• His and his successors’ teachings are collected in the Guru Granth Sahib, which is the holy book of the Sikhs.

Question 4.
What had Tukkaram to do with the Vitthoba temple of Pantharpur?
Answer:
Tukaram, a 17th-century saint-poet of Maharashtra, is known for his spiritual songs abangas or Kirtanas, devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna. There is Vitthoba / Panduranga temple at Pantharpur or Pandaripuram in Sholapur district, Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Highlight the spiritual ideas of Kabir that appealed to lower classes.
Answer:

1. Kabir believed that God is one and formless, even though different religious sects give him different names and forms.
2. Kabir opposed discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, and wealth. He also condemned meaningless rituals.

VIII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give an account of the contributions of exponents of the Bhakti Movement in the southern as well as northern parts of India.
Answer:

1. The Azhwars, the Vaishnavite Bhakti sages and the originators of the Bhakti cult, and the Nayanmars, the worshipers of Siva or the Saivites, composed devotional hymns in Tamil language, dedicated to their respective gods.
2. Vishnu-bhakti or Vaishnavism is based on Vishnu’s avatars (incarnations), particularly Krishna and Rama. The 12 Tamil Azhwars are chiefly known for their immortal hymns.
3. Two Azhwars stand out distinctly for their contribution to the promotion of the Bhakti movement.

(a) Adi Shankara:

1. Adi Shankara or Shankarachariar (c. 700-750 A.D.) preached the Advaita philosophy.
2. He set up mathas (mutts), centres of learning and worship, at Badrinath, Puri, Dwarka and Sringeri.
3. His commentary on the Brahma-sutra, which is a fundamental text of the Vedanta school and on the principal Upanishads are considered equally important.

(b) Ramanuja:

1. Ramanuja, an 11th century Vaishnava saint, was the most influential thinker of Vaishnavism.
2. He established centres to spread his doctrine of devotion, Srivaishnavism, to God Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi.

Exponents of Bhakti Movement:

1. Ramananda spread the Bhakti ideology in northern India where it became a mass movement. Vallabhacharya, a Telugu philosopher, built a temple for Lord Krishna on the Govardhan Hills near Mathura. Surdas, a blind poet and musician, was associated with this temple as well as that of Agra. His famous collection of poetry is called Sursagar. Meera Bai, wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna.
2. Tulsidas’s Hindi retelling of the story of Rama in the Ramcharitmanas, the sentiment of friendship and loyalty is stressed.
3. Tukaram, a 17th-century saint-poet of Maharashtra, is known for his spiritual songs (abangas or kirtans), devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna.

Question 2.
What is Sufism? How did it find its footing in India?
Answer:
The advent of Sufis to India dates back to the Arab conquest of Sind. It gained prominence 1 during the reign of the Delhi Sultans. Sufism found adherents among both Muslims and Hindus.

1. Sufism: The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool. The Sufis wore course garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis.
2. Sufism was basically Islamic but was influenced by Hindu and Buddhist (Mahayana) ideas. It rejected the stringent conduct code of the ulemas. Sufis lived in hermitages akin to monasteries and functioned outside society.
3. Sufis in medieval India were divided into three major orders. They were Chisti, Suhrawardi, and Firdausi.
4. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti Order, who had a large number of followers among the ruling class in Delhi.
5. Suhrawardi order was founded by an Iranian Sufi Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib. The Firdausi order was a branch of the Suhrawardi order and its activities were confined to Bihar.

Question 3.
What impact did Bhakti movement make on Indian society?
Answer:

1. Vedic Hinduism was regenerated and thus saved from the onslaught of Islam.
2. The Islamic tenets – unity of God and universal brotherhood – emphasised by the saints promoted harmony and peace.
3. Bhakti was a movement of the common people; it used the language of the common people for its devotional literature.
4. Bhakti movement opened up space for Indian languages to grow. It stimulated literary activity in regional languages.
5. What sustained Sanskrit, despite its decline during this period, was the support extended by the rulers of Hindu kingdoms.
6. Tamil was the only ancient Indian language that remained vibrant during this period. Under the influence of devotional cults, its emphasis shifted to religion and religious literature.
7. Caste system and social disparities came to be criticised.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Examine the statement that the Bhakti movement saved Vedic Hinduism from the onslaught of Islam.
Answer:

1. The Bhakthi movement emphasised the mutual emotional attachment and love of a devotee towards a personal God and of God for the devotee.
2. The Azhwars and Nayanmars contributed a lot to Tamil literature through their devotional hymns.
3. They criticized caste-based social status and advocated gender equality
4. Sages like Ramanuja and Adi Shankara too articulated ideas of social equality.
5. In North India poets like Ramananda, Vallabhacharya and Tulsidas spread the Bhakthi cult through their devotional hymns which could save Vedic Hinduism from the onslaught of Islam.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science New Religious Ideas and Movements Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There is only one God, through Hindus and Muslims call him by different names stated __________
(a) Andal
(b) Haridasa
(c) Ramanuja
(d) MeeraBai
Answer:
(b) Haridasa

Question 2.
The Azhwars and the Nayanmars composed devotional hymns in _________ language.
(a) Tamil
(b) Sanksrit
(c) Hindi
(d) Urdu
Answer:
(a) Tamil

Question 3.
The _________ Tamil Azhwars are chiefly known for their immortal hymns.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c)12

Question 4.
_________ is said to have found Andal as a baby in the tulsi garden at Srivilliputhur.
(a) Poigai Azhwar
(b) Pei Azhwar
(c) Nammazhwar
(d) Periyazhvar
Answer:
(d) Periyazhvar

Question 5.
The poems of _________ are used in Vaishnava wedding ceremonies in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Andal
(b) Nathamuni
(c) Periyazhwar
(d) Pei Azhwar
Answer:
(a) Andal

Question 6.
There are _________ legendary Nayanmars.
(a) 54
(b) 63
(c) 60
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 63

Question 7.
_________ was a blind poet and musician.
(a) Vallabhacharya
(b) Surdas
(c) Tukaram
(d) Chaitanya
Answer:
(b) Surdas

Question 8.
Kabir’s verses were composed in _________ language mixed with Urdu.
(a) Hindi
(b) Oriya
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Bhojpuri

Question 9.
Poet _________ was one of its distinguished followers of Sufism.
(a) Kabir
(b) Surdas
(c) Tukaram
(d) Amir Khusru
Answer:
(d) Amir Khusru

Question 10.
Adi Shankara set up mathas (mutts) in _________ places in India.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The ______ were the Vaishnavite Bhakti sages.
2. The ______ were the worshipers of Siva
3. Nammazhwar’s fame lies in his 1,102-stanza ______
4. _______ collected the 4,000 poems of Nammazhwar.
5. The collection of 4,000 poems of Nammazhwar is called _______
6. The poems of Andal expressing her love for _______ the incarnation of Vishnu.
7. ________ is said to have compiled the songs Of all the Nayanmars.
8. Sekkizhar’s wrote _______
9. After a long pilgrimage, Ramanuja settled in _______
10. The Vadakalai Vaishnavism originally flourished around _______
11. Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on _______
12. The Panduranga temple is located in _______district, Maharashtra.
13. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was _______
14. Kabir came under the influence of Saint _______
15. Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through hymns called _______

Answer:

1. Azhwars
2. Nayanmars
3. Tiruvaimozhi
4. Nathamuni
5. Divya Prabandham
6. Ranganatha
7. Nambi Andar Nambil
8. Periyapuranantl
9. Srirangam
10. Kanchipuram
11. Srirangam
12. Sholapur
13. Nizamuddin Auliya
14. Ramananda
15. kirtan

III. Match the following

A			B
1.	Khalsa	–	a) Uncut hair
2.	Kesh	–	b) Dagger
3.	Kangha	–	c) The pure
4.	Kada	–	d) Comb
5.	kirpan	–	e) Steel bangle

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. e
5. b

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs.

Question 1.
(1) SivaBhakti – Saivites
(2) Andal – Tirumurai
(3) Kabir – Bijak
(4) Kachera – Dagger
Answer:
(1) Siva Bhakti – Saivites
(3) Kabir – Bijak

Question 2.
Assertion (A): During the Bhakti movement, Sankrit sustained despite its decline.
Reason (R): The Rules of the Hindu kingdom extended support to Sanskrit.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd person out.
Appar, Sekkizhar, Sundarar, Gnanasampandar.
Answer:
Sekkizhar

V. True or False

1. Several mystical religious movements, in both Hinduism and Islam, freely included elements of different faiths in their teachings.
2. The Vadakalai sect stressed the importance of Divya Prabandhams.
3. Vallabhacharya built a temple for Lord Krishna on the Govardhan Hills near Mathura.
4. Sufism accepted the stringent conduct code of the ulemas.
5. The message of Guru Granth Sahib is spread by the Khalsa.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

VI. Give short Answers.

Question 1.
What did The Bhagavad Gita propose?
Answer:
The Bhagavad Gita proposed that the path of bhakti marga (the path of bhakti) is superior to the two other religious approaches, namely, the path of knowledge (jnana) and the path of rituals and good works (karma), providing inspiration to the exponents of Bhakti cult.

Question 2.
Name the three Muthal Azhwars.
Answer
Three Muthal Azhwars: Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, and Pei Azhwar.

Question 3.
Name any five eminent Azhwars other than the Muthal Azhwar.
Answer:
Other Azhwars: Thirumalisai Azhwar, Periyazhwar, Thondaradippodi Azhwar, Thirumangai Azhwar, Thiruppanazhwar, Kulasekara Azhwar, Nammazhwar, Mathurakavi Azhwar and Andal.

Question 4.
What was the essence of the ‘Advaita’ philosophy?
Answer:
The essence of this philosophy is that the soul (Atma) unites with the universal soul (Brahma) through the attainment of knowledge.

Question 5.
How were the teachings of Guru Nanak spread?
Answer:
Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through the group singing of hymns, called kirtan. The devotees gathered in Dharamshala’s (rest houses), which became gurudwaras in course of’ time.

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Give an account of the growth of Sikhism after the period of Guru Nanak.
Answer:

1. Guru Nanak nominated his disciple Lehna to succeed him as the guru. Following this
   precedent, the successors are named by the incumbent Sikh Guru.
2. At the time of Guru Gobind Singh, the custom of pahul (baptism by sweetened water stirred with a dagger) was introduced.
3. Those who got baptised became members of a disciplined brotherhood known as the Khalsa (meaning the pure).
4. The men were given the title Singh (lion). Every member of the Khalsa had to have five distinctive things on his person.
5. These were kesh (uncut hair), kangha (comb), kirpan (dagger), Kada (steel bangle), and kachori (underpants).
6. After Guru Gobind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib is considered the guru, and its message is spread by the Khalsa.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Women Empowerment

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gender inequality?
(a) Poor maternal health
(b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS
(d) Lower literacy rates for women
Answer:
(b) Greater insecurity for men

Question 2.
Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
(a) Girls and women; its a womens issue
(b) All societies, women and men alike
(c) Third world countries only
(d) Developed Countries only
Answer:
(b) All societies, women and men alike

Question 3.
Which of the following strategies will help women become more socially and economically empowered?
(a) Women working together to challenge discrimination
(b) More income sources for women
(c) Improved access to education
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Why are girls more likely than boys to miss out on secondary education in the developing world?
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home
(c) Child Marriage restricts girls mobility and freedom
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of womens education in India. He, along with his wife ______ ,opened the first school for girls in 1848.
2. ________ is the first Woman to hold a Union Foreign Minister’s post.
3. ________ is the first Woman Director General of Police (DGP).
4. ________ is the first Indian Woman to win Booker

Answer:

1. Savitribai Phule
2. Sushma Swaraj
3. Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya
4. Arundhati Roy

III. Match the following

Sirimavo Bandaranaike	–	England
Valentina Tereshkova	–	Japan
Junko Tabei	–	Sri Lanka
Charlotte Cooper	–	USSR

Answer:

Sirimavo Bandaranaike	–	Sri Lanka
Valentina Tereshkova	–	USSR
Junko Tabei	–	Japan
Charlotte Cooper	–	England

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion: Violence against women cuts across caste, class, religion, age and even education. Reason: Domestic violence is manifested in the form of foeticide, infanticide, dowry murder, marital cruelty, battering, child abuse etc.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Discuss various roles played by women in Society.
Answer:

1. The importance of women’s economic empowerment in society is inevitable.
2. Women’s economic empowerment is central to realising women’s rights and gender equality.
3. Empowering women in the economy and bridging gender gaps in the world of work are key to achieving the agenda for Sustainable Development
4. When ‘more women work, economies grow.
5. Increasing women’s and girls’ educational attainment contributes to women’s economic empowerment and more inclusive economic growth.
6. Other than these, women also play the role of caretakers of children and elders at home.
7. Women have the capacity to transform society for the better.

Question 2.
What is gender equality?
Answer:
Gender equality is the state of the equal case of access to resources and opportunities regardless of gender.

Question 3.
Explain the woman’s rights.
Answer:
Woman’s rights are fundamental human rights which include the right to live free from violence, slavery, and discrimination, to be educated, to own property, to vote, and to earn a fair and equal wage.

Question 4.
List out the essential factors of woman empowerment.
Answer:
The essential factors for empowerment are :

1. Education: Education gives one the ability to think wisely and make thoughtful decisions.
2. Gender Discrimination: A Society that discriminates between the two genders can never be empowered.
3. Discrimination based on caste, creed, religion, etc.

Question 5.
Write an essay on the importance of a woman’s education.
Answer:
Importance of woman’s education:

1. Increased Literacy: Offering all children education will prop up literacy rates, pushing forward development in struggling regions.
2. Human Trafficking: Women are most vulnerable to trafficking when they are undereducated and poor. Through providing young girls with opportunities and fundamental skills, Human Trafficking can be significantly undermined.
3. Political Representation: Across the globe, women are underrepresented as voters and restricted from political involvement. Civic education, training, and all-around empowerment will reduce this gap.
4. Thriving Babies: Children of educated mothers are twice as likely to survive past the age of five.
5. Later Marriage: As suggested by the United Nations Population Fund, in underdeveloped countries, one in every three girls is married before reaching the age of 18. In a region where a girl receives seven or more years of education, the wedding date is delayed by four years.
6. Income Potential: According to (UNESCO) a single year of primary education has shown to increase a girl’s wages later in life by 20 percent.
7. Prospering GDP: Gross Domestic Product also rises when both girls and boys are being offered educational opportunities.
8. Poverty Reduction: When women are provided with equal rights and equal access to education, they go on to participate in economic activity. Increased earning power leads to a reduction in the poverty level.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
First Women’s University _____ starts SNDT University in Pune with five students.
(a) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(b)Maharshi Karve
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Arundhati Roy
Answer:
(b) Maharshi Karve

Question 2.
First Woman Prime Minister of India _____
(a) Fathima Beevi
(b) Kiran Bedi
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Meira Kumar
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

Question 3.
First woman defence Minister of India _____
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Sushma Swaraj
(d) Pratibha Patil
Answer:
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman

Question 4.
The women population shared _____ of the total population of the world.
(a) 75%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(d) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is the First Woman President of India.
2. ______ is the First Woman President of the UN General Assembly.
3. The First Woman Speaker of LokSabha is ______
4. The First Woman to win the Nobel Peace Prize is ______
5. The first Indian women to climb Mount Everest _______

Answer:

1. Pratibha Patil
2. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
3. Meira Kumar
4. Mother Teresa
5. Bachendri Pal

III. Match the following:

First Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State	–	a) Kiran Bedi
First Woman IPS Officer of India	–	b) Champion of women’s education
Barrack Obama	–	c) Sucheta Kripalani
Jyotirao Phule	–	d) 2012 UN General Assembly

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Assertion (A): It is everyone’s responsibility to make each woman into an independent and empowered woman.
Reason (R): World peace and prosperity cannot be achieved without empowering each and every woman on this planet.
a) A is true but R is false
b) A is false but R is true
c) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is feminism?
Answer:
“Feminism is not about making women stronger. Women are already strong. It’s about changing the way the world perceives that strength”.

Question 2.
Define Education.
Answer:
Education is one of the most important means of empowering women with the knowledge, skills, and self-confidence necessary to participate fully in the development process.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of educating a girl child?
Answer:

1. Educating the girl child produces mothers who are educated and who will, in turn, educate their children to care for their families, and provide their children care and support.
2. The girl child needs to be educated to acquire knowledge and skills needed to advance her status for social interactions and self-improvement.

Question 4.
What the factors responsible for the poor female literacy rate?
Answer:

1. Gender-based inequality.
2. Social discrimination and economic exploitation.
3. Occupation of girl child in domestic chores.
4. Low enrolment of girls in schools.
5. Low retention rate and high dropout rate.

Question 5.
What are the important aspects of woman empowerment?
Answer:
Personal rights, Social equality, Political Power, and Economic opportunity are the important aspects of woman empowerment.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the need for economic empowerment of women.
Answer:

1. Gender differences in laws affect both developing and developed economies, and women in all regions.
2. Women remain less likely to participate in the labour market than men around the world.
3. Women are more likely to be unemployed than men.
4. Women are over-represented in informal and vulnerable employment.
5. Globally, women are paid less than men.
6. Women bear disproportionate responsibility for unpaid care and domestic work.
7. Women are still less likely to have access to social protection.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Reproductive and Modification In Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Reproductive and Modification In Plants Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Vegetative propagation by leaves takes place in
(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum

Question 2.
Asexual reproduction in yeast is
(a) Spore formation
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Pollination
(d) Budding
Answer:
(d) Budding

Question 3.
Reproductive part of a plant is
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(d) Flower

Question 4.
Pollinators are
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 5.
Climbing roots are seen in
(a) Betel
(b) Black pepper
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them
Answer:
(c) Both of them

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The male reproductive part of a flower is __________
2. __________ is the basal swollen part of the Gynoecium.
3. After fertilization the ovule becomes __________
4. Breathing roots are seen in __________ plants.
5. Onion and Garlic are example of __________

Answer:

1. Androecium
2. Ovary
3. seed
4. mangrove
5. Bulb

III. True (or) False, unrite the correct answer for the false statement.

Question 1.
A complete flower has four whorls.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The transfer of pollen to the stigma is known as pollination.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Conical shaped root is carrot.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Ginger is an underground root.
Answer:
(False) Correct Statement: Ginger is an underground stem.

Question 5.
Leaves of Aloe vera are fleshy and store water.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

1.	Petal	(a)	Opuntia
2.	Fern	(b)	Chrysanthemum
3.	Phylloclade	(c)	Attracts insect
4.	Hooks	(d)	Spore
5.	Sucker	(e)	Bignonia

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. e
5. b

V. Very short answers.

Question 1.
Write two types of reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Sexual and Asexual Reproduction.

Question 2.
What are the two important parts of a flower?
Answer:
Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 3.
Define – pollination.
Answer:
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma is called pollination.

Question 4.
What are the agents of pollination?
Answer:
Insects, wind, water, animals.

Question 5.
Give example for
(a) Corm
(b) Tuber
Answer:

1. Corm-e.g Colocasia
2. Tuber – e.g Potato.

Question 6.
What is tendril?
Answer:

1. It is an elongated structure produced by the plant to help the plants to climb efficiently.
2. e.g In pea, the terminal leaflets are modified into a tendril.

Question 7.
What are thorns?
Answer:

1. Thoms are pointed and sharp structures formed in a plant.
2. Leaves other parts may be modified into thorns.
3. It helps the plant to safeguard itself from animals. Thoms may also help in climbing.

VI. Short answer.

Question 1.
Differentiate bisexual flower from unisexual flower.
Answer:

S. No.	Bisexual flower	Unisexual flower
(a)	It has Androecium and Gynoecium	It has only Androecium or Gynoecium
(b)	It can undergo self pollination and cross pollination e.g : Hibiscus	They can be pollinated only by cross pollination eg : papaya.

Question 2.
What is cross pollination?
Answer:

1. Pollen grains are transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same kind or different plant.
2. Plants need to produce pollen grains in larger quantities to increase the chance of pollination.
3. Cross pollination does introduce variations in characteristics of new plants.
4. Cross pollination is brought about by agencies like wind, water, animals and Insects of plums, apples.

Question 3.
Write notes on phyllode.
Answer:
In Acacia auriculiformis, petioles expand to form leaf like structure. They carry out the function of leaf (Photosynthesis).

VII. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Write a brief account on pollination.
Answer:
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called pollination. There are two types of Pollination.
(a) Self Pollination
(b) Cross Pollination

(a) Self pollination

1. Pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or to another flower of the same plant.
2. Plants do not need to produce pollen grains in a large quantity for self pollination.
3. It does not produce changes in the characteristics of new plants

(b) Cross Pollination

1. Pollen grains are transferee! for the anther of one flower to the stigma of anoter flower of the same kind or different plant.
2. Plants need to produce pollen grains in larger quantities to increase the chance of pollination.
3. Cross pollination does introduce variations in characteristics of new plants, e.g (apples, plums)
4. Agents like wind, water, insects and animals are helpful for pollination and are known as pollinators.
5. Wind pollinated plants produce pollen which are light. Insect pollinated flowers are brightly coloured and produce lot of pollen which sticks to the body of insects and are caused to other plants.
6. Pollination that occurs in nature is called Natural pollination.
7. Pollination between desired plants can be brought about by artificial methods.

Question 2.
Explain the underground stems.
Answer:
There are some stems that grow under the ground to store food. These underground stems swell and become thick.
There are four types of underground stems:

1. Rhizome.
2. Corm
3. Tuber
4. Bulb

(i) Rhizome : It is an underground thick stem with nodes and intemodes with scale , leaves at the node. It grows horizontally and has an irregular shape. Rhizome have buds. It gives rise to new stem and leaves. E.g. Ginger and Turmeric.

(ii) Corm: This underground stem is round in shape and flat at the top and bottom. It
is a condensed form of rhizome and bears one or more buds in the axils of scale leaves. Daughter plants arise from their buds. E.g. Colocasia.

(iii) Tuber: It is an enlarged, spherical underground stem that stores food. It has many dormant buds on its surface known as “Eyes”. If we plant a part of tuber with the bud, it grows into a new plant. E.g. Potato.

(iv) Bulb: It is condensed stem which is disc like and stores food in the fleshy leaves. The bulb has two types of leaves.

1. Fleshy Leaves
2. Scaly Leaves

The upper part of the stem has a terminal bud and it is covered by many scaly leaves, the inner fleshy leaves store food as seen in Garlic and Onion

VIII. Higher Order Questions :

Question 1.
Ginger is considered to be a stem, not a root. Why?
Answer:
Ginger has the following characteristics of a stem.

1. It has scale leaves
2. It has nodes and Intemodes
3. It has axillary buds and a terminal bud.
   Therefore Ginger is considered to be a stem but is is a modified underground stem which stores food.

Question 2.
What will happen if pollen grain of rose gets deposited on stigma of lily flower? Will pollen germination takes place? Why?
Answer:
No pollen of rose will get wasted and will not germinate on the stigma of lily flower. This is because pollen of a flower is compatible (match) only with stigma of a flower of the same species.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning types of Question :

Question 1.
Assertion : Pollination and fertilization in flowers, produces fruits and seeds. Reasoning :After fertilization the ovary becomes fruit and ovule becomes seed.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect
(b) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct
(c) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct
(d) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is incorrect
Answer:
(c) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct.

Question 2.
Assertion : The example of conical root is carrot.
Reasoning : It is an adventitious root modification.
(a) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct.
(b) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is incorrect
(c) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct
(d) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect
Answer:
(a) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct.

X. Picture Based question.

Question 1.
Observe the picture and draw the labels.
Parts of a Flower
Label the parts below :

Answer:

1. Stigma
2. Pistil
3. Filament
4. Ovule
5. Sepal
6. Stamen

Question 2.
Identify the four plants shown in the following Name the different modification in each of them.

	Name	Modification
1.	Garlic
2.	Turnip
3.	Rose plant

Answer:

	Name	Modification
1.	Garlic	Underground stem modification
2.	Turnip	Top Root modified for storage (Top shaped)
3.	Rose plant	Stem used for vegetative propagation / Asexual Reproduction by cutting
4.	Maize	Stilt Roots (Adventitious roots produced from the node for mechanical support).

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Reproductive and Modification In Plants Intext Activities

Activity 1

Using the information from the above complete the following table:

SI.No.	Name of the flower	Complete / incomplete	Unisexual / bisexual	If unisexual male or female
1.	Hibiscus	Complete	Bisexual	Both male & female present is same flower
2­	Pumpkin	Incomplete	Unisexual	Male in separate single flower & female in separate single flower
3.	Rose	Complete	Bisexual	Both male & female present is same flower
4.	Coconut	Incomplete	Unisexual	Male in separate single flower & female in separate single flower
5.	Jasmine	Complete	Bisexual	Both male & female present is same flower

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Reproductive And Modification Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
___________ do not produce spores.
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Datura
(d) Ferns
Answer:
(c) Datura

Question 2.
___________ have the smallest seeds in the plant kingdom.
(a) Coconut
(b) Orchids
(c) Onion
(d) Pumpkin
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 3.
Breathing Roots are seen in ___________
(a) Tarpa
(b) Avicennia
(c) Eicchomia
(d) pisum
Answer:
(b) Avicennia

Question 4.
___________ is a parasite.
(a) Cuscuta
(b) Hibiscus
(c) yeast
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(a) Cuscuta

Question 5.
In ___________ sepal is seen on the fruit after fertilization
(a) Brinjal
(b) Pumpkin
(c) Onion
(d) Garlic
Answer:
(a) Brinjal

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The tissue seen in epiphytic roots is called _________
2. Cactus is a example for _________
3. Ginger and _________ are examples of Rhizome.
4. In Gloriosa _________ is modified into a tendil leaf tip.
5. Spirogyra reproduces by _________

Answer:

1. Velamen
2. Phylloclade
3. Turmeric
4. leaf tip
5. fragmentation

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
In cactus stem is modified into spines.
Answer:
(False) In cactus, leaf is modified into spines

Question 2.
Ovules fall off after fertilization.
Answer:
(False) Style and stigma fall off after fertilization.

Question 3.
In Nepenthes, leaf is modified into a flask shaped structure.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Tuber is an enlarged underground root.
Answer:
(False) Tuber is an enlarged underground stem.

Question 5.
Scaly leaves are seen in onion.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Vanda	(a)	Climber
Pea	(b)	epiphyte
Eicchomia	(c)	offset
wild strawberry	(d)	Runner stolon

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. c
4. d

Question 2.

Pollen	(a)	anther
Ovule	(b)	protection
stamen	(c)	Powdery
Sepal	(d)	Seed

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. Assertion and Reason types of Question.

(a) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(b) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct
(d) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is incorrect

Assertion : In potato shoot arises from eyes.
Reason : Eyes represent the buds.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct.

Assertion : In Banyan prop roots grow horizontally from the tree.
Reason : They give additional support to the tree.
(b) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct.

Assertion : Corm is a condensed form of Bulb.
Reason : It has dry and fleshy scale leaves.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is incorrect.

VI. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Pollen, anther, ovule, filament Ovule
Reason : It is a part of Gynoecium whereas others are parts of Androecium.

Question 2.
Corm, Bulb, Rhizome, sucker
Answer:
Sucker
Reason : It is a sub aerial stem modification whereas others are underground stem modification.

Question 3.
Haustoria, Velamen, Prop Roots, Phylloda.
Answer:
Phylloda
Reason : It is a leaf modification whereas others are root modifications.

VII. Complete the table

Question 1.

Underground stem	_____(1)_____	Ginger
_____(2)_____	Runner	_____(3)_____
Leaf modification	_____(4)_____	Acacia
Root modification	sucking Roots	_____(5)_____

Answer:

1. Rhizome
2. Sub aerial stem
3. Centella
4. phylloda
5. Cuscuta.

Question 2.

Caly x	_____(1)_____	_____(2)_____
_____(3)_____	petal	attract insects
Androecium	_____(4)_____	Male reproductive part
_____(5)_____	_____(6)_____	Female reproductive part.

Answer:

1. sepal
2. protection
3. corolla
4. stamen
5. Gynoecium
6. Ovary, style, stigma.

VIII.Very short answers:

Question 1.
Name the whorls of a flower
Answer:
Calyx, corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 2.
What is an inflorescence?
Answer:
A group of flowers is called an inflorescence, e.g sunflower.

Question 3.
What is fertilization.
Answer:
Male gamete fuses with the female gamete to form zygote. This process is known as fertilization.

Question 4.
Name the sub aerial modifications of stem.
Answer:
Runner, stolum, sucker, offset.

Question 5.
Name the underground stem modifications.
Answer:
Rhizome, Corm, Tuber, Bulb.

Question 6.
What are sucking Roots?
Answer:

1. Sucking roots (or) Haustoria are found in parasite plants.
2. These roots penetrate the tissues of host plant and suck nutrients from then, e.g cuscuta.

Question 7.
Differentiate Phyllode and Phylloclade.
Answer:

Phyllode	Phylloclade
Petioles are modified to form leaf like structure, e.g. Acacia.	stem is modified to form leaf like structure, e.g. Cactus.

Question 8.
What are breathing Roots or Pneumatophores?
Answer:

1. Mangrove plants roots which are seen above the ground for the purpose of gaseous exchange.
2. These roots are erect, peg like structures with numerous pores through which air circulates.
3. These roots are called breathing roots, or pneumatophores. e.g Avicennia.

IX. Short answers.

Question 1.
List the post fertilization changes in a flower.
Answer:

1. Calyx sometimes persist with fruit
2. Petals wither / fall off
3. Androecium fall off
4. Pistil remain and develops into a fruit
5. Style and stigma fall off
6. Ovary enlarges to store food materials and develops into a fruit.
7. Ovules present inside the ovary develops into seeds.

Question 2.
Write a note an roots modified for mechanical support.
Answer:
Many Plants require additional support. Such plants develop roots on their aerial parts to provide mechanical support. These roots grow downward and act as supportive organs. There are three types of modified roots for support.

1. Prop roots : Roots are modified to provide mechanical support as seen in Banyan tree. These roots grow vertically from horizontal branches of a tree.
2. Stilt roots : In sugarcane, and maize adventitious roots arise from the nodes in cluster at the base of the stem. These roots are called stilt roots which gives additional support.
3. Climbing roots : In betel and black pepper, nodes or intermodes bear roots which help in climbing.

Question 3.
How do Epiphytic roots differ from Sucking roots?
Answer:

Epiphytic roots	Sucking roots
Vanda is an epiphytic plant, which grows on trees. The velamen tissue present in the epiphytic root, absorbs moisture, to perform photosynthesis.	Cuscuta a parasite plant, climb the trees and other vegetation and use the haustorial roots Sucking roots to penetrate the tissue of the host plant and suck nutrients from them. They are usually found in parasitic plants that depend on the host plants for nutrients.

Question 4.
Write a note on phylloclade.
Answer:

1. Plants growing in deserts try to store water. If the surface area is large, more water is lost by evaporation.
2. In plants like cactus, the stem is thick and becomes flat like leaves to do photosynthesis.
3. The leaves are reduced to small spines with less surface area. This kind of modification is called phylloclade. e.g. cactus.

Question 5.
What are traps or Insectivorous plants?
Answer:

1. These plants grow in nitrogen deficient places. In Nepenthes, the leaves are modified into a flask like structure, which is used to attract insects and other tiny animals.
2. The inner wall of the leaf secretes digestive enzymes that help to digest the insects and extract the nitrogen needed for the plant. E.g: Nepenthes.

Question 6.
Differentiate self pollination and cross pollination.
Answer:

S.no	Self pollination	Cross pollination
1.	Pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or to another flower of the same plant.	Pollen grains are transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same kind or different plant.
2.	Plants do not need to produce pollen grains in a large quantity for self pollination	Plants need to produce pollen grains in larger quantities to increase the chance of pollination.
3.	It does not produce changes in the characteristics of new plants.	Cross pollination does introduce variations in characteristics of new plants.

Question 7.
Identify the plant and the modification seen in it
.
Answer:
Chrysanthemum
Modification : Sucker (sub aerial stem modification).

X. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a note an sub aerial modifications of the stem.
Answer:
Sub- aerial Modifications : Stem of some plants remains sub- aerial which grow horizontally on the surface of the soil for the purpose of reproduction. There are four types.

1. Runner: The stem grows laterally on the surface of the soil, breaks up to produce roots where it touches the ground to give rise to new plants. Eg: Centelk (Vallarai).
2. Stolon: Stolon is a slender branch of the stem that grows upwards to some distance and then bends towards the ground. Upon touching the ground, it gives rise to a new plant. Eg. Wild strawberry.
3. Sucker Sucker is a short and weak lateral branch that grows diagonally upwards and directly gives rise to a new shoot. Eg. Chrysanthemum.
4. Offset: An offset is a short and thick branch that arises from the axial part of a leaf. It has thick intemodes. It produces a tuft of leaves and cluster of small roots below. Eg: Eichhornia.

Question 2.
Draw a diagram to show the life cycle of a plant.
Answer:

XI. Higher Order Questions : (HOTS)

Question 1.
Parasitic plants lack leaves.
Answer:
Parasites are plants which live on other living plants and derive nutrients from them. They are non-green and do not photosynthesize. They have sucking roots to absorb the nutrients directly from the host tissue. Thus they lack leaves.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
(a) Shore Temple
(b) Mandagapattu
(c) Kailasanatha Temple
(d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer:
(a) Shore Temple

Question 2.
In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO world Heritage site?
(a) 1964
(b) 1994
(c) 1974
(d) 1984
Answer:
(d) 1984

Question 3.
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
(a) bas-reliefs
(b) vimanas
(c) corridors
(d) gopurams
Answer:
(b) vimanas

Question 4.
Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
(a) Tirukkurungudi
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Srivilliputhur
Answer:
(a) Tirukkurungudi

Question 5.
Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
(a) Mahendravarman
(b) Narasimhavarman
(c) Rajasimha
(d) Rajarajall
Answer:
(b) Narasimhavarman

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. _______ was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king Mahendravarman.
2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of _______
3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshi Amman temple is the _______
4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful _______
5. Vijayanagar periods unique feature is the _______

Answer:

1. Mandagapattu temple
2. Sembian Mahadevi
3. Pudumandapam
4. gopurams
5. mandapam

III. Match the following.

Seven Pagodas	–	Madurai
Rathi mandapam	–	Darasuram
Iravatheswara temple	–	Tirukkurungudi
Adinatha Temple	–	Shore temple
Pudumandapam	–	Azhwar Tirunagari

Answer:

Seven Pagodas	–	Shore temple
Rathi mandapam	–	Tirukkurungudi
Iravatheswara temple	–	Darasuram
Adinatha Temple	–	Azhwar Tirunagari
Pudumandapam	–	Madurai

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs.

Question 1.
1. Krishnapuram Temple – Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis – Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore
Answer:
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking.
Reason (R): The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram, Tiruvannamalai.
Answer:
Kanchipuram

Question 4.
Name the epoch of the following:
(a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
(b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
(c) A.D. 1100 to 1350 – Later Chola Epoch
(d) A.D. 1350 to 1600 – Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch

Question 5.
Find out the correct statement/s:
1) The Arjunas Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2) Meenakshi Amman temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.
4) The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai Meenakshi Amman Temple.
Answer:
(1) The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder
(3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas

V. State true or false:

1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
4. Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at the temple at Dadapuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
Answer:

1. The Tamil Dravida tradition is exemplified by rock-cut monuments such as Pancha Pandava Rathas, namely Draupadi ratha, Dharmaraja ratha, Bheema ratha, Arjuna ratha and Nagula- Sahadeva ratha.
2. The outer walls of the rathas, especially of Arjuna, Bhima and Dharmaraja, are decorated with niches and motifs.
3. The niches have sculptures of gods, goddesses, monarchs and scenes from mythology

Question 2.
Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal.
Answer:

1. Caves at Sittanavasal, have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
2. Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the Jain monks. They painted the walls with fresco painting.
3. The lotus pond is notable for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the scene.
4. The image of lotus flowers, leaves spread all over the pond, animals, elephants, buffalos, swans and a man who plucks the flowers look brilliant.

Question 3.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
Answer:

1. At the time the Big Temple of Thanjavur was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
2. The 216 feet vimana (structure over the garbhagriha) is notable as it is one of the tallest man-made shikaras in the world.
3. Due to its massive height, the shikhara is called the Dakshina Meru.
4. The huge bull statue (Nandi) measures about 16 feet long and 13 feet in height and is carved out of a single rock.

Question 4.
Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.

1. In the temple of Rameswaram, the predominance of corridors is striking.
2. This temple has the longest set of corridors in the world. The temple has three sets of corridors.
3. The outer set of the temple corridors has a height of almost 7 metres and stretches for about 120 metres in both the eastern and western directions.
4. The outer corridor is also remarkable for the number of pillars that support it, which is over 1200 in number.
5. Moreover, many of these pillars are decorated with ornate carvings.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1
The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples – Explain.
Answer:

Pallava Epoch:

1. The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
2. Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then rocks were cut to build temples.
3. The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture. Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
4. The rock-cut cave structure has two pillars in the front that hold it.
5. This cave architecture reached its decadent phase after A.D.700 and gave way to the large structural temples probably because the structural temples provided a wider scope to the sculptor to use his skill.
6. The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, also called the Seven Pagodas, was built by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
7. The structural temples were built using blocks of rock instead of a whole block as earlier.
8. Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.

Question 2.
Discuss how the architecture of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Answer:

S.No.	Vijayanagara and Nayak Period of architecture	Pallavas and Later Cholas period of architecture
1.	The main features of Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas, ornamental pillars, life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and stone windows during the 15th to 17th centuries.	The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples. The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram was built by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
2.	Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from four directions with massive Gopurams.	The maturity attained by later chola architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Dharasuram is a later Chola period temple rich in architectural splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara.

VIII. HOTS.

Question 1.
Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin – Explain.
Answer:

1. Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin. It advanced over time by a process of evolution. The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were the 7th-century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
2. The absence of monuments in south India prior to the 7th century is attributed by scholars to temples ought to have been built in wood, which was eventually destroyed by forces of nature.
3. It consists primarily of Hindu temples where the main feature is the high gopura, large temples etc.
4. Mentioned as one of the three styles of temple building in the book. Vastu Shastra the majority of the structures are located in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Tamil Nadu & Karnataka.
5. The Cholas, Cheras, Pandyas, Pallavas Kakatiyas, Kadambas, Chalukyas, and the Vijayanagar kings contributed to this architecture.

Question 2.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. The practice of fitting the niches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period,
2. There was increased use of major sculpted figures (relief sculpture) as found at the Alakiya Nambi temple at Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
3. The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at Azhwar Tirunagari and the porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Narasimhavarman II, built the ______ temple at Kanchipuram.
(a) Vaikuntha Perumal
(b) Kailasanatha
(c) Meenakshi amman
(d) Nellaiappar
Answer:
(b) Kailasanatha

Question 2.
Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of the ______
(a) Cholas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Nayaks
Answer:
(b) Pallavas

Question 3.
Tirumalai Nayakkar museum is located at ______
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Salem
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 4.
______ from where we get early Pandya paintings are in a damaged condition.
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirumalaipuram
(d) Anaimalai
Answer:
(c) Tirumalaipuram

Question 5.
For the Early Chola epoch, the temple at ______ near Tindivanam in TamilNadu is worth mentioning.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(d) Dadapuram
Answer:
(d) Dadapuram

Question 6.
Thanjavur Big temple was built by ______ Chola.
(a) Rajaraja
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra
(d) Karikala
Answer:
(a) Rajaraja

Question 7.
______ near kumbakonam is a temple dedicated to Iravatheswara.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Dadapuram
(d) Tiruparankundram
Answer:
(b) Darasuram

Question 8.
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled ______
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 9.
_______ temple has the longest set of corridors in the world.
(a) Meenakshiamman
(b) Nellaiappar
(c) Ramanathaswamy
(d) Jalagandeshwarat
Answer:
(c) Ramanathaswamy

Question 10.
______ Pillars were the peculiar feature of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period.
(a) Cave
(b) Coin
(c) Musical
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(c) Musical

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Narasimhavarman II was also known as ______
2. In the Siva temple of Pandyas, the ______ is carved out of the mother rock.
3. The ______ is a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai.
4. The ______ paintings have similarities with the Ajantha paintings.
5. The Cholas came to the limelight in A.D. 850 under ______
6. Temples with the increased number of ______ figures belong to the Sembilan style.
7. ______ is an illustrious example of an early temple that was re-fashioned in the days of Sembilan Mahadevi.
8. ______ served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
9. ______ constructed the Iravatheswara temple at Darasuram.
10. In the temple of Rameswaram. the ______ set of corridors is the oldest of the three.

Answer:

1. Rajasimha
2. linga
3. Vettuvankoil
4. Sittanavasal
5. Vijaylaya Chola
6. devakoshta
7. Tiruppurambiyam
8. Gangaikonda Cholapuram
9. Rajaraja II
10. innermost

III. Match the following:

Varadaraia Perumal temple	(a)	Vellore
Talagandeshwar temple	(b)	Tirunelveli
Vanamamalai temple	(c)	Rameswaran
Nellaiappar temple	(d)	Kanchipuran
Ramanathaswamv temple	(e)	Nansuneri

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

IV.
Assertion (A): The Pallava King Mahendravarman was a Pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
Reason (R): Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one out.
Vijayalaya, Rajasimha, Rajaraja, Rajendra.
Answer:
Rajasimha

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s.
1) The illustrious example of the rock-cut style is the unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2) The lotus pond is notable for its execution of colours is found in Ajantha paintings.
3) Pillayarpatti is located near Vellore.
4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of the Vijayanagara Period.
Answer:
(1) The illustrious example of the rock-cut style is the unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
(4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of the Vijayanagara Period.

V. State true or false:

1. Dwarapalas mean Gatekeepers in temples.
2. Sittanavasal is famous for the tallest Vimanas in the world.
3. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur has 55-meter high Vimana The
4. Pallava period featured sculptural rocks.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Which are the most important Pandya cave temples found?
Answer:
The most important cave temples are found in Malaiyadikurichi, Anaimalai, Tiruparankundram and Trichirappali.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temples.
Answer:

1. An illustrious example of the rock-cut style is the Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2. The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
3. At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu, and Brahma are found.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the Dharasuram temple.
Answer:

1. Dharasuram, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple, rich in architectural splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara (Siva as the god of lord Indiras elephant).
2. The Mahamandapam is an elaborate structure. The entire structure looks like a ratha because it has four wheels at the Mahamandapam. The sanctum and pillars have many sculptures, of various mythological figures.
3. A compound wall runs round the temple with a gopuram.

Question 4.
What is the significance of the figure of Ganesha at Pillayarpatti?
Answer:

1. At Pillayarpatti a beautiful Ganesha is carved facing the entrance.
2. The importance of the figure referred to Desivinayaga in the cave inscription, is that there are two arms with the trunk turning to the right.

Question 5.
What is the new form of construction that emerged during the Vijayanagara epoch?
Answer:
Give examples.

1. During the Vijayanagara epoch, a new form of construction emerged. It is the mandapam (pavilion) to where the gods are carried every year.
2. Pillared outdoor mandapams are meant for public rituals with the ones in the east serving as the waiting room for devotees, which adorn the large temples.
3. The Kalyana mandapam at Kanchipuram (Varadaraja Perumal temple) and at Vellore (Jalagandeshwar temple) are notable examples.

Question 6.
What are the main features of the Vijayanagara and Nayak architecture?
Answer:

1. The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas, ornamental pillars, life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and stone windows.
2. Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to the temple are constructed from four directions with massive gopurams.

Question 7.
Describe the pillars of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period.
Answer:

1. The pillars of this period are more decorative than the previous period.
2. Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars, horse pillars with life-size portraits of mythological and royal family members, common folk, animals, and floral works were made.
3. Musical pillars were the peculiar feature of this time.

Question 8.
In which temples are Vijayanagara and Nayak paintings seen?
Answer:
Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at Varadharaja Perumal temple at Kanchipuram, Kudalazhagar Temple at Madurai and the temples of Srivilliputhur, Tiruvellarai, Azhaharkoil, Tiruvannamalai and Srirangam.

Question 9.
What do the paintings in temples of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period depict?
Answer:
The paintings mostly have the stories from Ramayana, palace scenes and mythological stories.

Question 10.
Who contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture?
Answer:
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled Ramanathapuram and contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture.

VII. Answer in Detail :

Question 1.
Write a note on Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:

1. Gangaikonda Cholapuram served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
2. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Gangaikonda Cholapuram, built by Rajendra Chola,’ is undoubted as worthy a successor to the Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur.
3. The height of the temple is 55 meters.
4. The sanctum has two stories as in the big temple at Thanjavur.
5. The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides.
6. In the niches, there are images of Siva, Vishnu, and other gods.
7. This temple complex has the shrines of Chandeeswarar, Ganesa, and Mahishasura Mardini.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Atomic Structure

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Atomic Structure Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
The basic unit of matter is __________
(a) Element
(b) Atom
(c) Molecule
(d) Electron
Answer:
(b) Atom

Question 2.
The subatomic particle revolve around the nucleus is __________
(a) Atom
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) Proton
Answer:
(c) Electron

Question 3.
__________ is positively charged.
(a) Proton
(b) Electron
(c) Molecule
(d) Neutron
Answer:
(a) Proton

Question 4.
The atomic number of an atom is __________
(a) Number of neutrons
(b) Number of protons
(c) Total number of protons and neutrons
(d) Number of atoms
Answer:
(b) Number of protons

Question 5.
__________ Nucleons comprises of
(a) Protons and electrons
(b) Neutrons and electrons
(c) Protons and neutrons
(d) Neutrons and Positron
Answer:
(c) Protons and neutrons

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The smaller particles found in the atom is called _____
2. The nucleus has _____ and _____
3. The _____ revolve around the nucleus.
4. If the valency of carbon is 4 and that of hydrogen is 1, then the molecular formula of methane is _____
5. There are two electrons in the outermost orbit of the magnesium atom. Hence, the valency of magnesium _____

Answer:

1. sub-atomic particels
2. Protons, Neutrons
3. electrons
4. CH₄
5. 2

III. Match the following :

1.	Valency	(a)	Fe
2.	Neutral Particle	(b)	Proton
3.	Iron	(c)	Electrons in the outermost Orbit
4.	Hydrogen	(d)	Neutron
5.	Positively charged Particle	(e)	Monovalent

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. e
5. b

IV. True or False. If False, give the correct statement (T/F).

Question 1.
The basic unit of an element is molecule.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: The basic unit of an element is atom.

Question 2.
The electrons are positively charged.
Answer:
False. Correct statement: The electrons are negatively charged.

Question 3.
An atom is electrically neutral.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The nucleus is surrounded by protons.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: The nucleus is surrounded by electrons.

V. Complete the analogy.

1. Sun: Nucleus, planets: ______
2. Atomic number: ______ , Mass number: number of protons and neutrons.
3. K: Potassium, C: ______.

Answer:

1. electrons
2. Number of protons
3. Carbon

VI. Assertion and reason.

Question 1.
Assertion : An atom is electrically neutral.
Reason : Atoms have equal number of protons and electrons.
Answer:
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion : The mass of an atom is the mass of nucleus.
Reason : The nucleus is at the centre.
Answer:
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion : The number of protons and neutrons is atomic number.
Reason : The mass number is sum of protons and neutrons.
Answer:
Assertion is false but the reason is true statement.
Correct statement: The number of protons and neutrons is mass number.

VII. Give very short answer.

Question 1.
Define an atom.
Answer:
An atom is the smallest particle of a chemical element that retains its chemical properties.

Question 2.
Name the sub-atomic particles.
Answer:
Proton, Electron, Neutrons.

Question 3.
What is atomic number?
Answer:
The number of electrons or protons in an atom is called the atomic number of that atom. It is represented by the letter Z.

Question 4.
What is the characteristics of proton?
Answer:
The proton is the positively charged particle and its located in the nucleus. Its positive Charge is of the same magnitude as that of the electron’s negative charge.

Question 5.
Why neutrons called neutral particles?
Answer:
Neutrons are the particles in an atom that have a neutral change (no charge). They are not positive like protons. They are not negative like electrons. So they are called as neutral particles.

VIII. Give short answer.

Question 1.
Distinguish Isotopes from Isobar.
Answer:

Isotopes	Isobar
Isotopes are atoms of the same element thus having same atomic number but different mass number.	Isobars are such atoms which have same mass number but different atomic numbers. Thus isobars are different elements
Example : Hydrogen has three isotopes protium, with deuterium, tritium atomic number 1 but mass number 1,2,3.	Example : Calcium and Argon are isobars as they have atomic number 20 and 18 but their mass number is 40.

Question 2.
What are the isotones give one example.
Isotones are the atoms of different elements with same number of neutrons.
¹³₆C Neutrons = 13-6 = 7
¹⁴₇C Neutrons = 13-6 = 7

Question 3.
Differentiate mass number from atomic number.
Answer:

Atomic number	Mass number
The number of electrons or protons in an atom is called atomic number of that atom.	The number of protons and neutrons present is its nucleus is called mass number of that atom.
It is represented by the letter Z	It is represented by the letter ‘A’.
Example : Helium (He) has 2 protons and two electrons hence its atomic number will be 2.	Example : Sodium (Na) has 11 protons and 12 Neutrons hence its mass number A= 11 + 12 = 23

Question 4.
The atomic number of an element is 9, it has 10 neutrons. Find the element from the periodic table. What will be its mass number?
Answer:
The element is Fluorine
Its mass number A
= n + p
= 10 + 9 = 19
∴Mass number of Fluorine = 19

IX. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Draw the atom structure and explain the position of the sub-atomic particles. »
Answer:
Structure of an atom.

Position of the subatomic – particles.
Atom consist of three sub-atomic.
Particles : 1. Protons, 2. Electrons, 3. Neutrons

1. The nucleus of the atom contains the protons (positively charged) and the neutrons (no change)
2. The outermost regions of the atom are called electron shells and contain the electrons (negatively charged)
3. The protons have a positive charge while neutrons have a neutral charge.
4. Electrons circle around the nucleus of an atom, they are negatively charged.

Question 2.
The atomic number and the mass number of an element is 26 and 56 respectively. Calculate the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in its atom. Draw the structure.
Answer:
Atomic number A = 26
Mass number A = 56
No. of Protons P = ?
No. of Electrons = ?
No. of Neutrons N = ?
Name of the element is Iron (Fe)
No. of proton (P) = 26
Mass number A = n+p
56 = n = 26
n = 56-26
∴ No. of neutrons n = 30
In an element No. of protons and No. of electrons is equal.
∴No of electrons = no. of protons
= 26
Structure of Iron:

Question 3.
What are nucleons? Why are they so called? Write the properties of the nucleons?
Answer:

1. Nucleons are sub-atomic particles (Protons and Neutrons) which are located in the nucleus of atoms.
2. Neutron and proton exist within the nucleus of the atom, together, they are called as nucleons.

Properties of Nucleons :
(a) Nucleons (Proton and Neutrons) have same mass as if they were identical particles that differ only in their electric charge.
(b) The proton carries a charge +1 and the Neutron is neutral.
(c) The size nucleon is about 1 : 6 fm (Femto meters)
(d) The force that holds the nucleus together is very short range.

Question 4.
Define valency? What is the valency of the element with atomic number 8? What is the compound by the element with hydrogen.
Answer:

1. Valency is defined as the combining capacity of an element.
2. Valency of the element with atomic number : 8 Name of the element:

Oxygen : 0
Atomic number: 8
Valency : 2
Water (H₂O) is the Oxide of Hydrogen and most familiar oxygen compound

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills. :

Question 1.
An atom of an element has no electron, will that atom have any mass or not? Can atom exist without electron? If so then give example.
Answer:

1. Atoms with no electron will have mass, because mass depends on number of Protons and Neutrons though it has no electron.
2. Atoms can exist without electrons, Matter is build out of neutrons, protons (+) and electrons (-). Matter becomes stable only if it is electrically neutral.
3. So atoms without electrons do exist and must have their own states (charged or uncharged transfered back and forth in their environment)
4. Example : He²⁺. It has 2 protons and 2 neutrons but no electrons.

Question 2.
Find what is common salt? Name the elements present in it? Write the formula of common salt. What are the atomic number and the mass number of the elements? Write the ions in the compound.
Answer:

1. Common salt is mostly sodium chloride. The ionic compound with the formula NaCl, representing equal proportions of sodium and chlorine.
2. Elements present is common salt: Sodium & Chlorine.
3. Formula of common salt: NaCl Atomic number and mass number of NaCl:
   Atomic number of Na = 1 Atomic number of Cl = 17 Mass number of Na = 23
   Mass number of Cl = 35
4. Ions present in the compound :
   Sodium ion Na+ and Chloride ion Cl

Try yourself:

Question 1.
Why are atomic numbers and mass numbers are always whole numbers ?
Answer:

1. The atomic number is always a whole number because there must always be a whole number of protons in a nucleus. In other words there can never exist fractions of a proton.
2. The atomic mass number is always a whole number for the same reason. Protons and neutrons always come in single units not in fractions.

Question 2.
A sulphur atom contains 16 Protons and 16 neutrons. Give its atomic number and atomic mass number.
Answer:
Atomic number of Sulphur = No.of proton sulpher
= 16
Atomic mass number of Sulphur = No. of Protons + No. of Neutrons
= 16 + 16
= 32

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Atomic Structure Intext Activities

 

Activity – 1

Some known objects are shown, also the broken particles of the objects are shown. Name the articles or objects you see here? Also try to write What each of it made of?
Answer:

1. Hummer made of Iron
2. Bangles made of glass
3. Tap made of steel
4. Vessels made of Aluminum or steel

Activity – 2

Let us learn the characteristics of the subatomic particles through the following activity. Label the parts in the given diagram and answer the following.

1. The positively charged particle is ________
2. The negatively charged particle is ________
3. ________ is neutral.

Answer:

1. Proton
2. Electron
3. Neutron

Activity – 3

Observe the table given above and answer the following questions.

1. I am used for breathing, without me you cannot live. Do you know me? Write my name and symbol ________
2. It is used in filling the balloons. It is a gas, identity it. What is its mass number?
3. Name the element present in banana. What is my atomic number?
4. I am found in crackers. How many protons do i have?
5. I am the most valuable element. Find who am I? Can you say my mass number?

Answer:

1. Oxygen, Symbol – O.
2. Helium, Mass no. 4 Potassium, Atomic number: 19.
3. Phosphorous, No. of Protons : 15.
4. Carbon, Mass number: 12.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Atomic Structure Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ is made up of two or more atoms.
(a) Atoms
(b) Molecule
(c) Compound
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Molecule

Question 2.
The average diameter of an atom is ________
(a) 10“8 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 1A°
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 1A°

Question 3.
Whose theory does not propose anything about the positive and negative charges of an atoms.
(a) J J. Thomson
(b) Dalton
(c) Rutherford
(d) Bohr
Answer:
(b) Dalton

Question 4.
________ is the smallest unit used to measure small lengths.
(a) Metre
(b) Nanometre
(c) Millimetre
(d) Centimetre
Answer:
(b) Nanometre

Question 5.
One Nano metre is equal to ________
(a) 10⁸ m
(b) 10^-9 m
(c) 10^-5 m
(d) 10⁹ m
Answer:
(b) 10⁹ m

Question 6.
One metre is equal to ________ mm.
(a) 10⁹
(b) 10⁸
(c) 10⁵
(d) 10¹⁰
Answer:
(a) 10⁹

Question 7.
Who discovered the existence of the negatively charged particles is an atom?
(a) John Dalton
(b) Rutherford
(c) Neils Bohr
(d) J.J. Thomson
Answer:
(d) J.J. Thomson

Question 8.
J.J Thomson’s atom model is also called as ________
(a) Plum pudding model
(b) gold foil
(c) alpha particle
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Plum pudding model

Question 9.
Protons and neutrons are called ________
(a) atom
(b) nucleons
(c) positive charge
(d) negative charge
Answer:
(b) nucleons

Question 10.
Proton was discovered by ________
(a) Rutherford
(b) Goldstein
(c) Chadwick
(d) J.J. Thomson
Answer:
(a) Rutherford

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ is the smallest particle of a chemical element.
2. The ______ are combination of atoms of various elements or the same element.
3. According to John Dalton, atom is a hard, solid, ball and it is ______
4. ________ compared an atom to a watermelon.
5. The particles that make up the atom are called _________ particles.

Answer:

1. Atom
2. molecules
3. indivisible
4. J.J. Thomson
5. sub-atomic

III. Write true or false :

Question 1.
A neutron is a neutral particle.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
J.J. Thomson proposed than an atom consists of positively charged sphere in which the electrons are embedded.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The outermost orbit of an atom can have more than 8 electrons.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement : The outermost orbit of an atom contains maximum of 8 electrons.

Question 4.
Most of the space in an atom is occupied by electrons.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Rutherford used beta particles in his scattering experiments.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Rutherford used alpha particles in his scattering experiments.

IV. Matrix matching :

Question 1.

Element		Symbol		Atomic No.
i)	Hydrogen	a)	0	1.	11
ii)	Helium	b)	Al	2.	8
iii)	Aluminium	c)	He	3.	1
iv)	Oxygen	d)	Na	4.	2
v)	Sodium	e)	H	5.	13

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. b
4. a
5. d

Question 2.

Particle		Charge		Discoverer
i)	Proton	a)	n	1.	James Chadwick
ii)	Electron	b)	P	2.	Rutherford
iii)	Neutron	c)	e	3.	J.J. Thomson

Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. a

V. Give very short answer :

Question 1.
What is atomic number?
Answer:
Atomic number is the number of protons, an atom contains.

Question 2.
What is mass number of an atom?
Answer:
It is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.

Question 3.
What is a neutron?
Answer:
Neutron is an elementary particle that carries no charge

Question 4.
Name the 3 sub-atomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
Electron, Proton, Neutron.

Question 5.
What are valence electrons?
Answer:
The number of electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as valence electrons.

Question 6.
What are nucleons?
Answer:
Protons and neutrons reside in the nucleus of an atom and are thus called nucleons.

Question 7.
What is an electron?
Answer:
It is negatively charged particle, which revolve around the nucleus of the atom is specific orbits.

Question 8.
What is the mass of a proton?
Answer:
1.6726 x 10^-27 kg.

VI. Give short answer :

Question 1.
Is the structure of the atom the same as the structure of the solar system.
Answer:
Yes It is similar to the solar system. It has a core center called nucleus and it has paths called orbits around the nucleus.

Question 2.
Draw the atomic structure of Oxygen :
Answer:

Question 3.
what is atomic mass number? mention its formula.
Answer:
Atomic mass number (A) is equal to the sum of the number of protons(p) and neutrons (n) in the nucleus.
Atomic mass or mass number = Number of Protons + Number of Neutrons

Question 4.
Define isotopes. Give example.
Answer:
Atoms of the same element can have different number of neutrons. Such atoms will have same atomic number but different mass numbers. These atoms are called isotopes. For example Hydrogen has three isotopes – Hydrogen,Deuterium,Tritium

Question 5.
Define Isobars. Give example.
Answer:
Atoms that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called Isobars.
Eg: Calcium – 40 and Argon – 40.

Question 6.
What are the limitations of Thomson’s model of an atom?
Answer:
J. J. Thomson’s theory does not propose anything about the positive and negative charges of an atom. Hence , it was not able to explain many of the properties of substances.

VII. Answer the following in detail :

Question 1.
What was the model of an atom proposed by Thomson?
Answer:

1. J.J. Thomson’s theory proposed that the atom has positively charged part like the red part of the watermelon and in it are embedded, like the seeds, negatively charged particles which he called electrons.
2. According to this theory as the positive and negative charges are equal, the atom as a whole does not have any resultant charge.
3. Thomson’s greatest contribution was to prove by experimentation the existence of the negatively charged particles or electrons in an atom.
   

Question 2.
Explain the following terms.

• Proton
• Electron
• Neutron.

Answer:

1. Proton (p): The proton is the positively charged particle and is located in the nucleus. Its positive charge is of the same magnitude as that of the electron’s , negative charge.
2. Neutron (n): Neutron is inside the nucleus. The neutron does not have any charge. Except hydrogen (protium), the nuclei of all atoms contain neutrons.
3. Electron (e): This is a negatively charged particle. Electrons revolve around the nucleus of the atom in specific orbits. The mass of an electron is negligible as compared to that of a proton or neutron.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking skills : (HOTS)

Question 1.
In Rutherford experiment of scattering of alpha particles, can we take foil of any other metal instead of gold?
Answer:

1. Yes, we can take foil of any other metal that is highly malleable because for this experiment we need a very thin foil.
2. Gold was used because it is highly malleable, the gold foil taken was about 1000 atoms thick.

Question 2.
How Rutherford’s model is different from that proposed by J.J. Thomson?
Answer:
According to Rutherford, most of the mass is concentrated is a small central part of the atom whereas J.J. Thomson thought that mass was uniformly distributed in the atom.

Students can Download English Lesson 3 Taking the Bully by the Horns Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3 Taking the Bully by the Horns

A. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What is bullying?
(a) When you and a friend get into a fight.
(b) When someone accidently bumps into you on the playground.
(c) When someone is hurt by others either by words or actions, feels bad because of it, and finds it hard to stop what’s happening to them.
(d) Rolling a ball to knock over pins.
Answer:
(c) When someone is hurt by others either by words or actions, feels bad because of it, and finds it hard to stop what’s happening to them.

Question 2.
What should you do if you are being bullied?
(a) Speak up.
(b) Tell an adult.
(c) Know that you have the right to be safe.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 3.
How do you recognise someone who bullies?
(a) Size – The person bullying is bigger than the person being bullied.
(b) Gender – Girls don’t bully, only boys do.
(c) Behaviour – They do something that hurts or harms another person.
(d) Age – It is always the older kids picking on the younger ones.
Answer:
(c) Behaviour – They do something that hurts or harms another person.

Question 4.
What should you do if you see bullying?
(a) Help get them away from the situation.
(b) Tell an adult.
(c) Let them know that no one deserves to be bullied.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

B. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What could be the reasons for bullying?
Answer:
The reasons for bullying could be to have fun together with friends or to have a feeling of control or to seek the attention of the friends.

Question 2.
Why do some children bully others?
Answer:
Some children bully to make fun, enjoy seeing others suffer, to get a feeling of bossing, strength over others, and get others’ attention.

Question 3.
What does Ajay enjoy about bullying?
Answer:
Ajay enjoys the attention that he is getting from others who laugh at his bully instead of telling him to stop.

Question 4.
What is empathy?
Answer:
Empathy means the ability to experience the feelings of a person in a situation, not as an onlooker, but as someone who is also experiencing the situation.

Question 5.
How does bullying affect one?
Answer:
Bullying affects the health and the routine of bullied persons. They may not like to eat, fall sick, get nightmares, and lack concentration in their studies. Even they may be injured if they are bullied physically.

C. Think and answer.

Question 1.
Suppose the person bullying is one of your friends.
Answer:
I will advice my friend not to bully.

Question 2.
Would you keep quiet?
Answer:
If they do so, I will not be quiet.

Question 3.
At what point would you do something?
Answer:
At the beginning of the bully itself, I would separate them.

Question 4.
What would you do?
Answer:
I would bring my friend away from the spot.

D. Take the Pledge

l ama kid against bullying!
And I will Speak up
When I see bullying Reach out
To others who are bullied Be a friend
Whenever I see bullying

Project

Here is a list of classroom rules that you can follow. Create posters for each rule as shown in the images. Collect all posters and paste them into your classroom.
Classroom rules:

1. We all belong to the same world
2. We don’t give up
3. We try our best
4. We encourage others
5. We take turns
6. We work as a team
7. We learn together
8. We smile always
9. We love each and every creature
10. We forgive others
11. We say ‘please’ to request
12. We say ‘thank’ you for help
13. We listen to each other
14. We listen to our teacher
15. We respect each other
16. We respect our school

Answer:
Project to be done by the students themselves.

Connecting To Self

Paste the photographs and write down the values which you learn from them
Answer:

Step To Success
Change the codes into letters with the sign codes given below and tell the sentence to your friend.

Answer:
Do Not Fear For I Am With You Do Not Be Afraid For I Am Your God

Taking the Bully by the Horns Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
The other name for bullying is ______
(a) abusing
(b) ragging
(c) teasing
Answer:
(b) ragging

Question 2.
The pressure we get from people like us is called ______
(a) peer pressure
(b) bully .
(c) intervention
Answer:
(a) peer pressure

Question 3.
The key word of stopping bullying is ______
(a) sympathy
(b) getting attention
(c) empathy
Answer:
(c) empathy

Question 4.
Children hesitate to speak up about bullies because of a sense of ______
(a) loyalty
(b) friendship
(c) fear
Answer:
(a) loyalty

Question 5.
Children who are bullied feel ______
(a) happy
(b) dejected
(c) feeling of control
Answer:
(b) dejected

Question 6.
The bullied person may get ______ due to the hurting comments of billies.
(a) thirsty
(b) nightmares
(c) rich
Answer:
(b) nightmares

Question 7.
Ajay continuously bullies Anu because it gives him a feeling of ______
(a) insult
(b) dejection
(c) control
Answer:
(c) control

Question 8.
Bullies who have a low opinion about themselves, ______ or put another person
down in order to feel better about them.
(a) humiliate
(b) control
(c) abuse
Answer:
(a) humiliate

II. Identify the Character / Speaker.

1. She is the shortest student in their class.
2. She does not want to say anything because she is Ajay s friend.
3. He is unhappy with his performance in the exams.
4. She doesn’t like her big ears and doesn’t want anyone to notice them.
5. He enjoys the attention he is getting from others.
6. She is Ajay’s friend and does not want to upset him.
7. She is self conscious, feels hurt but she doesn’t say anything.

Answer:

1. Anu
2. Meena
3. Ajay
4. Meena
5. Ajay
6. Meena
7. Anu

III. Write True or False against each statement

1. We like to have fun together with friends.
2. Bullying needn’t always be violent like hitting someone.
3. Your classmates, friends and teachers are your peers.
4. The bullied person often focus on his targets appearance.
5. Many schools, colleges and work places have strict rules to prevent bullying.
6. If you know someone who is getting bullied, the best way to stop it is to inform the police.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False

IV. Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did Ajay do to bully Anu?
Answer:
Ajay called Anu by nick names, and patted on her head to bully her.

Question 2.
Meena did not say anything when Ajay teased Anu. Why?
Answer:
Meena did not say anything because Ajay was her friend and so she did not want to upset him.

Question 3.
Meena felt better about her own problem. What was her problem? How did she feel better?
Answer:
Meena does not like her big ears. She does not want anybody to notice them. When she turns her attention to Anu being bullied, she forgets her ‘big ear’ problem

Question 4.
Why do people silently support the bullies?
Answer:
People silently suppbrt the bullies because they want to be part of the group.

Question 5.
What is ‘Tulir’?
Answer:
Tulir is the Centre for the Prevention and Healing of Child Sexual Abuse in Chennai.

Question 6.
What does bullying mean?
Answer:
If someone purposely makes fun of another, tease, mock or forces them to do things, even if they don’t want to, is called bullying.

Question 7.
What is the other word for bullying?
Answer:
Ragging.

Question 8.
Who are our peers?
Answer:
Our peers are people like ourselves by age and common interests. Our classmates and friends are our peers.

Question 9.
Suggest some ways to stop bullying.
Answer:
The best way to stop bullying is to inform a responsible adult, it may be the parent, teacher or anyone who can handle the problem. The adult would intervene and make the person who bullies to understand their inappropriate and unacceptable », behaviour. Feeling empathy also stops bullying.

Question 10.
How will you support a child who is being bullied?
Answer:
I will support the bullied person by including him while playing games, share my things with them, speak to them for more time and make them feel one among us.

Question 11.
Think that you are watching someone being bullied. Take a diary and write down your experience.
Answer:
Thursday, 25 July 2019
Today I saw Anu being bullied by Ajay in front of my eyes. I did not laugh but felt sorry for her. I asked Ajay to stop though he was my friend and it upset him. I did not like Meena supporting Ajay bullying Anu. Poor Anu felt hurt but did not say anything.
I informed my class teacher about the bullying. She spoke to Ajay and counselled him and made him feel empathy. Ajay could now feel the pain of Anu and felt bad about his actions.

V. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What are the different ways by which people are bullied ?
Answer:
The different ways by which people are bullied are- making fun of their height and size and body appearance, calling by nick names, patting on the head, mocking, violent hitting, verbally abusing, making fun of others, asking them to do things even if they don’t want to, not including a child in their games, spreading stories about someone and causing sadness, targeting someone repeatedly to hurt them by our actions, for the dress they wear, lack of abilities, family or social circle, etc.

Question 2.
Why do people bully others?
Answer:
People bully to have fun together with friends, bullying gives them a feeling of control, they enjoy the attention they get from others, they feel it as a strength, children bully because of low opinion about themselves. While bullying they feel better about their shortcomings, like Ajay was unhappy about his low performance in the exams and Meena not happy of her big ears.

VI. Read the passage and answer the questions.

1. Sometimes, we may even want to do somethings only because our friends are doing them, even if we know it will get us into trouble or wrong. For example, Meena knows that Anu feels hurt when Ajay teases her. But she does not want to say anything because she is Ajay’s friend and does not want to upset him.

Question 1.
Why do we do somethings even though we know it will get us into trouble?
Answer:
We do them only because our friends are doing them. We like our friends so we wish to identify with them.

Question 2.
How does Anu feel when Ajay teases her?
Answer:
Anu feels hurt when Ajay teases her.

Question 3.
Why doesn’t Meena stop Ajay from teasing Anu?
Answer:
Meena doesn’t say anything to stop Ajay teasing Anu because she is Ajay’s friend and does not want to upset him.

2. Byllying needn’t always be violent like hitting someone or verbally abusing them. If a group of children always refuse to include a particular child in their games, that’s bullying too! Or if you spread stories about someone and it is causing them sadness.

Question 1.
Give an example of violent bullying.
Answer:
Hitting someone.

Question 2.
Is hatred and bullying the same?
Answer:
No. Hatred actions are done when we do not like someone. But bullying is not done because we hate a person but to have fun, tease and enjoy.

Question 3.
What do you mean by spreading stories?
Answer:
Spreading a false information about a person that beings shame to him is called spreading stories or spreading rumours.

Question 4.
How would you feel if your friends keep you away from their games?
Answer:
I would feel hurt, cry and complain to my teacher.

3. Many schools and colleges and even work places have strict rules to prevent bullying but it can still happen. If you notice it taking place around you, make sure you report it so it is stopped. You would have then contributed to a safer and more peaceful world.

Question 1.
Name three places where bullying commonly occurs.
Answer:
Schools, colleges and work places.

Question 2.
What will you do if you notice bullying taking place around you?
Answer:
would report about it to the people concerned and stop it.

Question 3.
What does prevention of bullying contribute to?
Answer:
Prevention of bullying contributes to a safer and more peaceful world.

VII. Rearrange the jumbled sentence.

A.
1. He calls her by nick names which draw attention to her size.
2. Anu is the shortest in their class.
3. Meena sometimes laughs with Ajay when he is mocking Anu.
4. Ajay always makes fun of her height.
5. Meena, Anu and Ajay are in class 7.
6. Anu is already self conscious and feels hurt.
Answer:
5. Meena, Anu and Ajay are in class 7.
2. Anu is the shortest in their class.
4. Ajay always makes fun of her height.
1. He calls her by nick names which draw attention to her size.
6. Anu is already self conscious and feels hurt.
3. Meena sometimes laughs with Ajay when he is mocking Anu.

B.
1. This can be a parent, a teacher, or anyone who can do something.
2. Is there something you can do to stop bullying?
3. You can also show your support for the targeted person.
4. If someone is getting bullied, the best way to stop it is inform a responsible adult.
5. The adult can intervene and help the child who is bullying to understand his unacceptable behaviour.
Answer:
2. Is there something you can do to stop bullying?
4. If someone is getting bullied, the best way to stop it is inform a responsible adult.
1. This can be a parent, a teacher, or anyone who can do something.
5. The adult can intervene and help the child who is bullying to understand his unacceptable behaviour.
3. You can also show your support for the targeted person.

VIII. Match the following.

Answer:

1. (i)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (g)
5. (c)
6. (h)
7. (a)
8. (j)
9. (f)
10. (e)

Taking the Bully by the Horns Summary

Anu is bullied by her classmate Ajay for her height by nickname and by patting her. Anu is hurt and silent. Meena laughs but doesn’t speak against Ajay though she feels sorry for Anu. Ajay enjoys the attention he gets from others. No one stops him.

Boys like Ajay have a low opinion about themselves so they humiliate others in order to feel better who they are. Bullying is not only violent actions like hitting or abusing, it is also isolating a person, spreading stories about a person and hurting repeatedly bullying or ragging.

The bullies are avoided out of fear or silently supported, wanting to be part of a group. Peer pressure is when we disagree with something that everyone is doing but we end up doing it because we don’t want to be the odd one and isolated from the group.

Children who are bullied feel dejected, singled out, insulted before others, lose their confidence, feel lonely and isolated.
By bullying, a person’s health and daily routine are affected. They do not eat well, fall sick often, get nightmares, sleeplessness, lack of concentration on studies, physical hurt, get withdrawn, stop talking to people, display sudden extreme anger or may even start bullying others even horsely.

We can stop bullying by informing it to a responsible person like parent or teacher or anyone who can handle the problem. Proper counselling will make them understand their unacceptable behaviour. The best way is empathy. When you feel for others, the less you will want to bully.

Children hesitate to complain about bullying because of a sense of loyalty. They feel that complaining to an adult about peers would get them into trouble. Some feel they would lose the friendship of the bullying person. Situation like bullying requires intervention because the bullying person also needs help to come out of it.

Many schools, colleges and job spots have strict rules to prevent bullying but it can still happen. We have to stop bullying for a safer a more peaceful world.