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Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar ChartText Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which is a python package used for 2D graphics?
(a) matplotlib.pyplot
(b) matplotlib.pip
(c) matplotlib.numpy
(d) matplotlib.plt
Answer:
(a) matplotlib.pyplot

Question 2.
Identify the package manager for Python packages, or modules.
(a) Matplotlib
(b) PIP
(c) plt.show( )
(d) python package
Answer:
(b) PIP

Question 3.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip -version
(a) Check if PIP is Installed
(b) Install PIP
(c) Download a Package
(d) Check PIP version
Answer:
(d) Check PIP version

Question 4.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\Your Name\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list
(a) List installed packages
(b) list command
(c) Install PIP
(d) packages installed
Answer:
(a) List installed packages

Question 5.
To install matplotlib, the following function will be typed in your command prompt. Python -m pip install -U pip What does “-U”represents?
(a) downloading pip to the latest version
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version
(c) removing pip
(d) upgrading matplotlib to the latest version
Answer:
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version

Question 6.
Observe the output figure. Identify the coding for obtaining this output.

(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

(b) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit plt.plot([l,2],[4,5])
plt.show( )

(c) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([2,3],[5,l])
plt.show( )

(d) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([l,3],[4,l])
plt.show( )
Answer:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

Question 7.
Read the code:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
(b) plt.plot(3,2)
(c) plt.show( )
Identify the output for the above coding
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer:
(c)

Question 8.
Which key is used to run the module?
(a) F6
(b) F4
(c) F3
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 9.
Identify the right type of chart using the following hints.
Hint 1: This chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time.
Hint 2: The line in this type of chart is often drawn chronologically.
(a) Line chart
(b) Bar chart
(c) Pie chart
(d) Scatter plot
Answer:
(a) Line chart

Question 10.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following for pie chart.
Statement A: To make a pie chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.pie( ) function.
Statement B: The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.
(a) Statement A is correct
(b) Statement B is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define: Data Visualization?
Answer:
Data Visualization is the graphical representation of information and data. The objective of Data Visualization is to communicate information visually to users. For this, data visualization uses statistical graphics. Numerical data may be encoded using dots, lines, or bars, to visually communicate a quantitative message.

Question 2.
List the general types of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Charts
2. Tables
3. Graphs
4. Maps
5. Infographics
6. Dashboards

Question 3.
List the types of Visualizations in Matplotlib?
Answer:
There are many types of Visualizations under Matplotlib. Some of them are:

1. Line plot
2. Scatter plot
3. Histogram
4. Box plot
5. Bar chart and
6. Pie chart

Question 4.
How will you install Matplotlib?
Answer:
We can install matplotlib using pip. Pip is a management software for installing python packages.
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as plt

Question 5.
Write the difference between the following functions: plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), [1.4.9.16] ).
Draw line plt.plot(l,2,3,4] generate x values and given values are y values.
[1.4.9.16]) to plot x verses y

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Draw the output for the following data visualization plot?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.bar([l ,3,5,7,9],[5,2,7,8,2],
label=”Example one”)
plt.bar([2,4,6,8,10],[8,6,2,5,6], label=”Example two”, color=’g’)
pit. legend))
plt.xlabel(‘bar number’)
plt.ylabel(‘bar height’)
pit.title(‘Epic Graph\nAnother Line! Whoa’)
pit. show( )

Question 2.
Write any three uses of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Data Visualization help users to analyze and interpret the data easily.
2. It makes complex data understandable and usable.
3. Various Charts in Data Visualization helps to show relationship in the data for one or more variables.

Question 3.
Write the coding for the following:
a. To check if PIP is Installed in your PC.
b. To Check the version of PIP installed in your PC.
c. To list the packages in matplotlib.
Answer:
In command prompt type pip — version. If it is installed already, you will get version. Python -m pip install – U pip
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip – version
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list

Question 4.
Write the plot for the following pie chart output?
Answer:

‘import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
slices = [7,2,2,13]
activities = [‘sleeping’, ‘eating’, ‘working’, ‘playing’]
plt.pie(slices, labels = activities, autopct = ‘y.1.1 f % % ‘)
plt.title(‘Interesting Graph check it out’)
plt.show( )

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the types of pyplots using Matplotlib?
Answer:
Line Chart:
A Line Chart or Line Graph is a type of chart which displays information as a series of data points called ‘markers’ connected by straight line segments. A Line Chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time – a time series – thus the line is often drawn chronologically.
Example: Line plot
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years= [2014,2015,2016,2017,2018]
totaljopulations = [8939007, 8954518,8960387,8956741, 8943721]
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
pit. show( )
In this program,
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis
Output 4

Bar Chart
A BarPlot (or BarChart) is one of the most common type of plot. It shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
Bar chart represents categorical data with rectangular bars. Each bar has a height corresponds to the value it represents. The bars can be plotted vertically or horizontally. It’s useful when we want to compare a given numeric value on different categories. To make a bar chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.bar( ) function.
The above code represents the following:
Labels → Specifies labels for the bars.
Usage → Assign values to the labels specified.
Xticks → Display the tick marks along the x-axis at the values represented. Then specify the label for each tick mark.
Range → Create sequence of numbers.

Pie Chart:
Pie Chart is probably one of the most common type of chart. It is a circular graphic which is divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportion. The point of a pie chart is to show the relationship of parts out of a whole.
To make a Pie Chart with Matplotlib, we can use theplt.pie( ) function. The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.

Question 2.
Explain the various buttons in a matplotlib window?
Answer:

Home Button → The Home Button will help once you have begun navigating your chart. If you ever want to return back to the original view, you can click on this.
Forward/Back buttons → These buttons can be used like the Forward and Back buttons in your browser. You can click these to move back to the previous point you were at, or forward again.
Pan Axis → This cross-looking button allows you to click it, and then click and drag your graph around.
Zoom → The Zoom button lets you click on it, then click and drag a square that you would like to zoom into specifically. Zooming in will require a left click and drag. You can alternatively zoom out with a right click and drag.
Configure Subplots → This button allows you to configure various spacing options with your figure and plot.
Save Figure → This button will allow you to save your figure in various forms.

Question 3.
Explain the purpose of the following functions:
Answer:
a. plt.xlabel
b. plt.ylabel
c. plt.title
d. plt.legend( )
e. plt.show( )
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
Now you have imported Matplotlib in your workspace. You need to display the plots. Using Matplotlib from within a Python script, you have to add plt.show( ) method inside the file to display your plot.
With plt.xlabel and plt.ylabel, you can assign labels to those respective axis. Next, you can assign the plot’s title with plt.title, and then you can invoke the default legend with plt
legend( ).
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title → (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel → (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
plt.show( )
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create a plot. Set the title, the x and y labels for both axes?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
x = [1, 2, 3]
y = [5, 7, 4]
plt.plot(x,y)
plt.xlabel(‘x-axis’)
plt.ylabel(‘y-axis’)
plt.title(‘LINE GRAPH’)
plt.show( )

Question 2.
Plot a pie chart for your marks in the recent examination?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopct = “%.2f”)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”) plt.sbow( )
Output:

Question 3.
Plot a line chart on the academic performance of Class 12 students in Computer Science for the past 10 years?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years = [2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018]
cs = [65, 70, 75, 76, 78, 80, 82, 85, 87, 92]
plt.plot(years,cs)
plt.title(“COMPUTER SCIENCE ACADEMIC PERFORMANCE”)
plt.xlabel(“cs”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.show( )

Question 4.
Plot a bar chart for the number of computer science periods in a week?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
labels = [“MON”, “TUE”, “WED”, “THUR”, “FRI”, “SAT”, ]
usage = [3, 2, 1,3,2, 2]
y_positions = range(len(labels))
plt.bar(y_positions,usage)
plt.xticks(y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel(“PERIODS”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.title(“NO. OF CS PERIODS”)
plt.show( )

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Additional Questions and Answers

PART – I
1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………….. is the graphical representation of information and data.
Answer:
Data Visualization

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out.
Tables, databases, Maps, Infographics, Dashboards
Answer:
Databases

Question 3.
The representation of information in a graphic format is called …………………………
(a) chart
(b) graphics
(c) Infographics
(d) graphs
Answer:
Infographics

Question 4.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following.
Statement A: Dashboards are used to detect patterns and relationships easily.
Statement B: Dashboard is a type of game.
(a) A is correct
(b) B is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct

Question 5.
Various types of visualizations are available in
(a) stdlib
(b) graphics
(c) library
(d) matplotlib
Answer:
(d) matplotlib

Question 6.
Find the Incorrect match from the following.
(a) Scatter plot – collection of points
(b) line charts – markers
(c) Box plot – Boxes
Answer:
(c) Box plot – Boxes

Question 7.
The terms minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile maximum are related to ……………………… type of plot.
(a) Box
(b) scatter
(c) pie
(d) Bar
Answer:
(a) Box

Question 8.
The position of a point in scatter plot is ……………………. value
(a) ID
(b) 2D
(c) 3D
(d) U shaped
Answer:
(b) 2D

Question 9.
Which method is used to display the plot?
(a) disp( )
(b) display( )
(c) print( )
(d) show( )
Answer:
(d) show( )

Question 10.
Find the wrong statement
If single list is given to the plot( ) command, matplotlib assumes
(a) it is as a sequence of x values
(b) sequence of y values
Answer:
(a) it is as a sequence of x values

Question 11.
……………………….. is a versatile command, which takes an arbitrary number of arguments
Answer:
plot( )

Question 12.
The name to the x axis in the plot is given by ………………………….
(a) label
(b) x
(c) x label
(d) x axis
Answer:
(c) x label

Question 13.
Which one of the following is the cross-looking button that allows you to click it, and drag the . graph around?
(a) x axis
(b) y axis
(c) pan axis
(d) plot axis
Answer:
(c) pan axis

Question 14.
……………………. plot shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
(a) line
(b) Bar
(c) Scatter
(d) Box
Answer:
(b) Bar

Question 15.
…………………….. assign values to the labels specified in the bar chart.
(a) usage
(b) label
(c) values
(d) =
Answer:
(a) usage

Question 16.
……………………… displays the tick marks along the x axis at the values represented in bar chart.
Answer:
x ticks

Question 17.
A ……………………….. represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables.
Answer:
histogram

Question 18.
Find the Incorrect statement
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.
(b) Histogram represents numerical data
(c) Bar graph shows categorical data
Answer:
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.

Question 19.
Which function shows the percentage value in pie chart?
(a) percent
(b) percentage
(c) slice
(d) auto pet
Answer:
(d) auto pet

Question 20.
Match the following
1. pie chart – (i) Series of data point
2. Histogram – (ii) Parts out of a whole
3. line chart – (iii) Quartile
4. Box plot – (iv) Freqency distribution
(a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(b) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
Answer:
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Infographics?
Answer:
Infographics → An infographic (information graphic) is the representation of information in a graphic format.

Question 2.
Define Scatter plot?
Answer:
Scatter plot: A scatter plot is a type of plot that shows the data as a collection of points. The position of a point depends on its two-dimensional value, where each value is a position on either the horizontal or vertical dimension.

Question 3.
What is Box Plot?
Answer:
Box plot: The box plot is a standardized way of displaying the distribution of data based on the five number summary: minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile, and maximum.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define Dashboard?
Answer:
Dashboard → A dashboard is a collection of resources assembled to create a single unified visual display. Data visualizations and dashboards translate complex ideas and concepts into a simple visual format. Patterns and relationships that are undetectable in text are detectable at a glance using dashboard.

Question 2.
Write a program to create pie chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopet = “%.2f’)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”)
plt.show( )
Output:

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program for Bar chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
#Our data
labels= [“TAMIL”, “ENGLISH”, “MATHS”, “PHYSICS”, “CHEMISTRY”, “CS”]
usage= [79.8, 67.3, 77.8, 68.4, 70.2, 88.5]
# Generating they positions. Later, we’ll use them to replace them with labels.
y_positions =range (len(labels))
#Creating our bar plot plt.bar (y_positions, usage)
plt.xticks (y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel (“RANGE”)
pit.title (“MARKS”)

Question 2.
Explain the key differences between Histogram and Bar Graph?
Answer:
Key Differences Between Histogram and Bar Graph:
The differences between Histogram and bar graph are as follows:
1. Histogram refers to a graphical representation; that displays data by way of bars to show the frequency of numerical data. A bar graph is a pictorial representation of data that uses bars to compare different categories of data.

2. A histogram represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables. Conversely, a bar graph is a diagrammatic comparison of discrete variables.

3. Histogram presents numerical data whereas bar graph shows categorical data.

4. The histogram is drawn in such a way that there is no gap between the bars. On the other hand, there is proper spacing between bars in a bar graph that indicates discontinuity, (v) Items of the histogram are numbers, which are categorised together, to represent ranges of data. As opposed to the bar graph, items are considered as individual entities.

5. In the case of a bar graph, it is quite common to rearrange the blocks, from highest to lowest. But with histogram, this cannot be done, as they are shown in the sequence of classes.

6. The width of rectangular blocks in a histogram may or may not be same while the width of the bars in a bar graph is always same.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Dividing the work into small tasks is known as …………..
(a) discipline
(b) unity
(c) division of work
(d) equity
Answer:
(c) division of work

Question 2.
Delegation of Authority is easily done with the help of ………..
(a) MBM
(b) MBE
(c) MBO
(d) MBA
Answer:
(c) MBO

Question 3.
Participants is the capital market includes ……………
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporate
(c) Financial institutions
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Stock exchanges deal in ……………
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial securities
(d) Country’s currency
Answer:
(c) Financial securities

Question 5.
Planning is a …………….. function.
(a) selective
(b) pervasive
(c) both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) pervasive

Question 6
…………… refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
(a) selection
(b) training
(c) recruitment
(d) Induction
Answer:
(c) recruitment

Question 7.
The spot market is classified on the basis of …………….
(a) commodity
(b) transaction
(c) regulation
(d) time
Answer:
(b) transaction

Question 8.
Which one represents a cluster of manufacturers, content providers and online retailers organized around an activity?
(a) Virtual mall
(b) Association
(c) Metomediary
(d) Portal
Answer:

Question 9.
………….. is the king of modem marketing.
(a) consumer
(b) wholesales
(c) producer
(d) retailer
Answer:
(a) consumer

Question 10.
GST stands for ……………..
(a) Goods, Sales and Tax
(b) Goods and Services Tax
(c) Global Services and Tax
(d) Government Services and Tax
Answer:
(b) Goods and Services Tax

Question 11.
In case of the sale, the has the right to sell.
(a) buyer
(b) seller
(c) hirer
(d) consignee
Answer:
(b) seller

Question 12.
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
(a) spirit of enterprise
(b) flexibility
(c) self confidence
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 13.
………… is the government of India’s endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
(a) AIM
(b) STEP
(c) SEED
(d) AIC
Answer:
(a) AIM

Question 14.
A private company shall have a minimum of ………………
(a) seven directors
(b) five directors
(c) three directors
(d) two directors
Answer:
(d) two directors

Question 15.
Which of the following is verification function?
(a) planning
(b) Organisation
(c) staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 16.
Primary market is also called as ………………
(a) secondary market
(b) Money Market
(c) new issue market
(d) indirect market
Answer:
(c) new issue market

Question 17.
A major player in the money market is the
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Central Bank
Answer:
(a) Commercial Bank

Question 18.
In which year SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India?
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 2014
(d) 2013
Answer:
(a) 1988

Question 19.
Recruitment bridges gap between and
(a) Job seeker and Job provider
(b) Job seeker and agent
(c) Job provider and owner
(d) Owner and servant
Answer:
(a) Job seeker and Job provider

Question 20.
Vestibule training is provided
(a) On the job
(b) In the class room
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment
(d) By the committee
Answer:
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 22.
What is equity market?
Answer:
Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

Question 23.
What is a CD market?
Answer:
Certificate of Deposits are short-term deposit instruments issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificate of deposit.

Question 24.
What is Demat account?
Answer:
A demat account holds all the shares that are purchased in electronic or dematerialized form.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation

Question 26.
What is meant by training?
Answer:
Training is the act of increasing / enhancing the new skill of problem solving activity and technical knowledge of an employee for doing the jobs themselves.

Question 27.
Define Marketing Mix.
Answer:
“Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price variable, promotion variable, and place variable”.

Question 28.
What do you know about National Commission?
Answer:

• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is also called as National Commission.

Question 29.
What is Share?
Answer:
The term Share is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denomination.

Question 30.
Define Meeting.
Answer:
A company meeting must be convened and held in perfect compliance with the various provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management from Administration.
Answer:

Basis for Comparison	Management	Administration
Meaning	An organised way of managing people and things of a business organisation is called the management.	The process of administrating an organisation by a group of people is known as the administration.
Authority	Middle and lower level.	Top level
Role	Executive	Decisive
Concerned with	Policy Implementation.	Policy formulation.
Area of operation	It works under administration.	It has full control over the activities of the organisation.
Applicable for	Profit making organisations, i.e. business organisations.	Government offices,     military clubs, business enterprises,hospitals,religious and educational organisations.

Question 32.
State the importance of staffing.
Answer:
Staffing refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs. Staffing includes selection of right persons, training to those needy persons, promotion of best persons, retirement of old persons, performance appraisal of all the personnel, and adequate remuneration of personnel. The success of any enterprise depends upon the successful performance of staffing function.

Question 33.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
The capital market is divided into two i.e., primary market and secondary market.

• Primary Market: Primary market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Secondary Market: Secondary Market may be defined as the market for old securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.

Question 34.
Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
Answer:

• Stag: A stag is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange. He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium.
• Lame Duck: When a bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be struggling like a lame duck.

Question 35.
What is structured interview?
Answer:
Under this method, a series of questions to be asked by the interviewer are pre-prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.

Question 36.
What is need for market and explain the concept of marketing?
Answer:
Market is needed for the producers and consumers. For this there are various concepts:

• The products produced are to be marketed in the market for sales.
• First create a consumer and then create products.
• Keep respect and love customers than the products.
• Customer is the king of the business.

Question  37.
What are the important legislations related to consumerism in India?
Answer:
Consumer Legislation:

• The Indian Contract Act, 1982
• The Sale of Goods Act, 1982
• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
• The Agricultural Products Grading and Marketing Act, 1937
• The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
• Weights and Measures Act, 1958
• The Trademark Act, 1999

Question 38.
What are the political environment factors?
Answer:
Political and Legal environment – The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Question 39.
Distinguish between Negotiability and Assignability.
Answer:

S.No.	Basis of Difference	Negotiability	Assignability
1.	Legal Ownership	It passes to the transferee by mere endorsement in the case of a bearer instrument and by endorsement and delivery in the case of an order instrument.	An assignment can be made by observing certain formalities. For instance, an instrument is to be made in writing, duly stamped and signed by the transferor or his agent.
2.	Notice	Notice is not necessary for the holder of negotiable instrument to claim the payment from the debtor.	In case of actionable claim, notice of the assignment by the transferee regarding the transfer of debt to the debtor is necessary.
3.	Nature of title	Holder of negotiable instrument in due course gets a better title than even the transferor. It means that the transferee gets the instrument free from any defect existing in the title of the transferor or any prior party.	The transferee’s title to the instrument is subject to the defects of the transferor’s title. In other words, defects in the title of the transferor pass on to the transferee too.
4.	Consideration	Consideration is presumed.	The assignee has to prove the consideration for the transfer.

Question 40.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price above the face or nominal value, they are said to be issued at a premium. For example, a share having the face value of Rs.10 is issued at Rs.12. Here, Rs.2 is the premium. The amount of share premium has to be transferred to an account called the ‘Securities Premium Account’.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Briefly explain different types of Directors.
Answer:
Types of Directors as per Companies Act 2013:

• Residential Director: According to Section 149(3) ofCompaniesAct2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for a total period of 182 days.
• Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as Whole-time director or Nominee director.
• Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
• Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
• Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
• Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

[OR]

(b) Describe the steps for promoting Entrepreneurial venture.
Steps for promoting entrepreneurial venture:

• Selection of the product: An entrepreneur may select a product according to his capacity and motivation after a thorough scrutiny of micro and macro environment of business.
• Selection of form of ownership: Entrepreneur has to choose the form of organisation suitable and appropriate for his venture namely family ownership, partnership and private company.
• Selection of site: Entrepreneur has to choose suitable plot for starting his venture. The plot may be industrial site, land by the private people or housing board plot allotted.
• Designing capital structure: The entrepreneurs has to determine the source of finance for funding the venture. It may be own savings, loan from friends, relatives or loan from banks.
• Acquisition of Manufacturing know-how: Entrepreneur can acquire manufacturing know-how from government research laboratories and industrial consultants.
• Preparation of project report: Project reports needs to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application forms.

Question 42.
(a) Distinguish between an Entrepreneur and an Intrapreneur.
Answer:

Basis of difference	Entrepreneur	Intrapreneur
Thinking	Entrepreneur is a free thinker.	Intrapreneur is forced to think independently but within scope of business activities undertaken in the enterprise.
Dependency	Entrepreneur is an independent person.	Intrapreneur is dependent on the entrepreneur. He is an employee.
Fund Mobilization	Entrepreneur has to mobilize funds to finance the venture.	Intrapreneur does not engage in fund mobilization. But can access funds mobilized by the entrepreneur.
Reward	Entrepreneur is rewarded by profit for the risk bearing exercise.	Intrapreneur does not share in profits of venture. But gets perquisites, salary, incentives, etc., for the service.
Risk Bearing	Entrepreneur bears the risk involved in the venture undertaken.	Intrapreneur does not bear any risk in the venture and does not even share the risk inherent in the project or work assigned. However Intrapreneur is accountable for the task or project assigned.
	Entrepreneur is owner, and doesn’t report to anybody in the venture.	Intrapreneur is a salaried employee. Intrapreneur works within control put in place in the organization and is made accountable for the activities undertaken.

[OR]

(b) Explain the micro environmental factors of business.
Answer:
Micro environmental factors are those, which are in the immediate environment of a business affecting its performance. These include the following:

1. Suppliers: In any organisation the suppliers of raw materials and other inputs play a vital role. Timely procurement of materials from suppliers enables continuity in production and reduces the cost of production.
2. Customers: The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its customers. The customer is the king of the business.
3. Competitors: All organisations face competition at all levels local, national and global. Competitors maybe for the same product or for similar products.
4. Financiers: The financiers of a business includes the debenture holders and financial institutions.
5. Marketing Channel members: The marketing intermediaries serve as a connecting link between the business and its customers. The middlemen like dealers, wholesalers and retailers ensure transfer of product to customers.

Question 43.
(a) Describe the various strategies pursued in recent day’s marketers.
Answer
The market scenario in the world today is changing very rapidly.
Strategies of Recent Marketers:

• Due to the development in information technology, transportation, liberalisation, their buying habits are varying.
• In the globalised business environment, the marketer must move goods faster and quicker to satisfy the needs of the customer.
• It is possible to carryout all the business transactions over an electronic network.
• They use a variety of tools like computers, laptops, tablet or android phone devices to access different websites.

[OR]

(b) How the market can be classified on the basis of Economics?
The Market can be classified on the basis of Economics as follows:
(a) Perfect Market: A market is said to be a perfect market, if it satisfies the following conditions:

• Large number of buyers and sellers are there.
• Prices should be uniform throughout the market.
• Buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of market.
• Goods can be moved from one place to another without restrictions.

(b) Imperfect Market: A market is said to be imperfect when

• Products are similar but not identical.
• Prices are not uniform.
• There is lack of communication.

Question 44.
(a) Briefly explain the various types of tests.
Answer:
(1) Prospectus:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualifications.

(2) Ability Test: Ability test may be divided into:

• Aptitude Test
• Achievement Test
• Intelligence Test
• Judgment Test.

(3) Aptitude Test: Aptitude test is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post.

(4) Achievement Test: This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.

(5) Intelligence Test: Intelligence test is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

(6) Judgment Test: This test is conducted to test the presence of mind and reasoning capacity of the candidates.

(7) Personality Test: It refers to the test conducted to find out the non-intellectual traits of a candidate. It can be further divided into:

(8) Interest Test: Interest test measures a candidate’s extent of interest in a particular area. Projective

(9) Test: This test measures the candidate’s values, personality of the candidate.

(10) Attitude Test: measures candidate’s tendencies towards the people, situation, action and related things.

[OR]

(b) Elaborate on the Managerial functions of Human Resource Management.
Managerial Functions of Human Resource Management:

• Planning: Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do and who is to do it.
• Organising: It includes division of work among employees by assigning each employee their duties, delegation of authority required.
• Directing: It involves issue of orders and instructions along with guidance and motivation to get the best employees.
• Controlling: The control process includes fixing of standards, measuring actual
  performance, comparing actual with standard laid down, measuring deviations and taking corrective actions.

Question 45.
(a) What are the functions of SEBI?
Answer:
SEBI performs three key functions: quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive.

• Safeguarding the interests of investors by means of adequate education and guidance.
• Regulating and controlling the business on stock markets.
• Conduct inspection and inquiries of stock exchanges, intermediaries and self-regulating organizations.
• Barring insider trading in securities.
• Prohibiting deceptive and unfair methods used by financial intermediaries operating in securities market.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers, trustees, underwriters who are linked to securities market.
• SEBI issues Guidelines and Instructions to businesses orgnisations for issue of shares.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes such as mutual funds.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Benefits of Stock Exchange.

• Economic Development: It increases the economic development by ensuring steady flow of savings for production.
• Fund Raising Platform: It enables the well-managed companies to raise funds by issue of shares.

Benefits to the Company:

• Enhances Goodwill or Reputation: Companies whose shares are quoted on a stock exchange enjoy greater goodwill and credit standing.
• Raises huge funds: Stock exchange helps the companies to raise huge funds by issue of shares and debentures.

Benefits to Investors:

• Liquidity: Stock exchange helps to convert his shares into cash quickly.
• Investor protection: The stock exchange safeguards, investor’s interest by following strict rules and regulations.

Question 46.
(A) Explain the characteristics of Money Market.

1. Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.

2. Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.

3. Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.

4. No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.

5. Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets each specialising in a particular type of financing.

6. Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.

7. Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

8. Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.

9. Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.

8. Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.

9. Flexibility:  Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.

10. Presence of a Central Bank:  The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]
(b) Briefly explain the functions of capital market.
(i) Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt. etc.) The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.

(ii) Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.

(iii) Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.

(iv) Ready and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.

(v) Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.

(vi) Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.

(vii) Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium term loans to entrepreneurs.

(viii) Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.

(ix) Foreign Capital: Capital markets make possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.

(x) Easy Liquidity: With the help of secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 47.
(a) Enumerate the different kinds of financial markets.
Financial Markets can be classified in different ways.
On the Basis of Type of Financial Claim

• Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).
• Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

On the Basis of Maturity of Financial Claim

• Money Market is the market for short term financial claim (usually one year or less) E.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.
• Capital Market is the market for long term financial claim more than a year; E.g. Shares, Debentures.

On the Basis of Time of Issue of Financial Claim

• Primary Market is a term used to include all the institutions that are involved in the sale of securities for the first time by the issuers (companies). Here the money from investors goes directly to the issuers.
• Secondary Market is the market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

On the Basis of Timing of Delivery of Financial Claim

• Cash/Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately, i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
• Forward or Futures Market is a market where the delivery of asset and payment of cash takes place at a pre-determined time frame in future.

On the Basis of the Organizational Structure of the Financial Market

• Exchange-Traded Market is a centralized organization (stock exchange) with standardized procedures.
• Over-the-Counter Market is a decentralized market (outside the stock exchange) with customized procedures.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various functions of management.
Main Functions:
(i) Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.

(ii) Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.

(iii) Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.

(iv) Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(v) Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.

(vi) Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.

(vii) Motivating:- The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

• Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.
• Representation:- A manager has to act as representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.
• Decision-making:- Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
• Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
When the current changes from +2A to -2A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The co-efficient of self-induction of the coil is
(a) 0.2 H
(b) 0.4 H
(c) 0.8 H
(d) 0.1 H
Answer:
(d) 0.1 H

Question 2.
If λ_v , λ_x, λ_m, represent the wavelength of visible light, X-rays and microwaves, respectively, then
(a) λ_m > λ_v > λ_x
(b) λ_m > λ_x > λ_v
(c) λ_v > λ_m > λ_x
(d) λ_v > λ_x > λ_m
Answer:
(a) λ_m > λ_v > λ_x

Question 3.
The materials used in Robotics are:
(a) Aluminium and silver
(b) silver and gold
(c) Copper and gold
(d) Steel and aluminium
Answer:
(d) Steel and aluminium

Question 4.
Two wires of A and B with circular cross-section are made up of the same material with equal lengths. If R_A = 3R_B, then what is the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3
(b) √3
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 5.
The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) Space wave propagation
(c) Sky wave propagation
(d) Satellite communication
Answer:
(c) Sky wave propagation

Question 6.
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is,
(a) √3
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
(d) 2
Hint. Angle of refraction r = 60° ; Angle of incident i = 30°
sin i = n × sin r
n = \(\frac{\sin 30^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}}=\sqrt{3}\)
Answer:
(a) √3

Question 7.
If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V choose the correct conclusion
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
(d) Both Q and C remain same
Answer:
(c) C remains same, Q doubled

Question 8.
The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape. Then the surface area of the nucleus having mass number A varies as
(a) A^2/3
(b) A^4/3
(c) A^1/3
(d) A^5/3
Hint. Volume of nucleus is proportional to mass number 4
\(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) π R³ ∝ A : R = R₀ A^1/3
So, 4 π R² = R₀ A^2/3 ⇒ 4 π R² ∝ A^2/3
Surface area is proportional to (mass number)23
Answer:
(a) A^2/3

Question 9.
The given electrical network is equivalent to

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate
Answer:
(c) NOR gate

Question 10.
A wire of length / carries a current I along the Y direction and magnetic field is given by \(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\beta}{\sqrt{3}}\)(i +j +k)T- The magnitude of Lorentz force acting on the wire is
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta I l\)
(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{2} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta I l\)

Question 11.
When a point charge of 6 pC is moved between two points in an electric field, the work done is 1.8 × 10^-5 J. This potential difference between the two points is :
(a) 1.08 V
(b) 1.08 μV
(c) 3 V
(d) 30 V

\(=\frac{1.8 \times 10^{-5}}{6 \times 10^{-6}}=\frac{18}{6}\)
V = 3V
Answer:
(c) 3 V

Question 12.
The wavelength λ_e of an electron and λ_p of a photon of same energy E are related by
(a) λ_p ∝ λ_e
(b) λ_p ∝ \(\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}\)
(c) λ_p ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}}\)
(d) λ_p ∝ λ_e²
Hint:
de-Breglie wavelength of proton λ_e = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}}\)
∴ ie λ_e ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{E}}}\) ⇒ λ_e² ∝ \(\frac{1}{E}\) …….. (1)
de-Breglie wave length of proton
λ_p = \(\frac{h c}{E}\)
λ_p ∝ \(\frac{1}{E}\) …….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
λ_e² ∝ λ_p i.e., λ_p ∝ λ_e²
Answer:
(d) λ_p ∝ λ_e²

Question 13.
For a myopic eye, the defect is cured by using a:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) plane glass
Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 14.
In a tangent galvanometer experiment, for two different values of current if the deflection are 45° and 30° respectively, then the ratio of the current is:
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) √3 : 1
(d) 1 : √3
Hint: I₁ = tan θ₁
I₂ = tan θ₂
\(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\frac{\tan 45^{\circ}}{\tan 30^{\circ}}=\frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{1}\)
Answer:
(c) √3 : 1

Question 15.
If the current gain a of a transistor is 0.98, what is the value of p of the transistor?
(a) 0.49
(b) 49
(c) 4.9
(d) 5
Hint: \(\beta=\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}=\frac{0.98}{1-0.98}=49\)
Answer:
(b) 49

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 24 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What is meant by Fraunhofer lines?
Answer:
When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it consists of large number of dark lines (line absorption spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as Fraunhofer lines.

Question 17.
Why steel is preferred in making Robots?
Answer:
Steel is several time stronger. In any case, because of the inherent strength of metal, robot bodies are made using sheet, bar, rod, channel, and other shapes.

Question 18.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
Lenz’s law states that the direction of the induced current is such that it always opposes the cause responsible for its production.

Question 19.
Why do clouds appear white?
Answer:
Clouds have large particles like dust and water droplets which scatter light of all colours almost equally. Hence clouds generally appear white.

Question 20.
Calculate the radius of ¹⁹⁷₇₉Au nucleus.
Answer:
According to the equation R = R₀A^1/3
R = 1.2 × 10^-15 × (197)^1/3 = 6.97 × 10^-15 m (or) R = 6.97 F

Question 21.
What is the need for a feedback circuit in a transistor oscillator?
Answer:
The circuit used to feedback a portion of the output to the input is called the feedback network. If the portion of the output fed to the input is in phase with the input, then the magnitude of the input signal increases. It is necessary for sustained oscillations.

Question 22.
Show graphically the variation of electric held £ (y-axis) due to a charged infinite plane sheet with distance r (x-axis) from the plate.
Answer:
It independent of the distance. It straight line parallel to x-axis.

Question 23.
Give any two applications of internet.
(i) Search engine: The search engine is basically a web-based service tool used to search for information on World Wide Web.

(ii) Communication: It helps millions of people to connect with the use of social networking: emails, instant messaging services and social networking tools.

(iii) E-Commerce: Buying and selling of goods and services, transfer of funds are done over an electronic network.

Question 24.
Calculate the magnetic field inside a solenoid when the number of turns is halved and the length of the solenoid and the area remain the same.
Answer:
Magnetic field inside a solenoid is B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{NI}}{\mathrm{L}}\)
If the number of turns is havled B’ = \(\mathrm{B}^{\prime}=\frac{\mu_{0}\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}\right) \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{L}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{B}^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{NI}}{\mathrm{L}}\right)\)

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 33 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Two cells each of 5V are connected in series across a 8 12 resistor and three parallel resistors of 4 12, 6 12 and 12 12. Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement calculate
(i) the current drawn from the cell
(ii) current through each resistor.
Answer:
V₁ = 5 V; V₂ = 5 v
R₁ = 8 Ω; R₂ = 4Ω; R₃ = 6Ω; R₄ = 12Ω
Three resistors R₂, R₃ and R₄ are connected parallel combination

\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{1}{R_{2}}+\frac{1}{R_{3}}+\frac{1}{R_{4}}\)
\(=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{3}{12}+\frac{2}{12}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{6}{12}\)
R_p = 2Ω
Resistors R₁ and R_p are connected in series combination
R_s = R₁ + R_p = 8 + 2 = 10
R₂ = 10Ω
Total voltage connected series to the circuit
V = V₁ + V₂
= 5 + 5 =10
V = 10V

(i) Current through the circuit, I = \(\frac{V}{R_{s}}=\frac{10}{10}\)
I = IA
Potential drop across the parallel combination,
V’ = I R_p = 1 × 2 .
V’ = 2 V

(ii) Current in 4Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{2}}=\frac{2}{4}\) = 0.5 A
Current in 6Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{3}}=\frac{2}{6}\) = 0.33 A.
Current in 12Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{4}}=\frac{2}{12}\) = 0.17 A

Question 26.
Explain the various energy losses in a transformer.
Answer:
Energy losses in a’ transformer: Transformers do not have any moving parts so that its efficiency is much higher than that of rotating machines like generators and motors. But there are many factors which lead to energy loss in a transformer.

1. Core loss or Iron loss: This loss takes place in transformer core. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are known as core loss or Iron loss. When transformer core is magnetized and demagnetized repeatedly by the alternating voltage applied across primary coil, hysteresis takes place due to which some energy is lost in the form of heat. Hysteresis loss is minimized by using steel of high silicon content in making transformer core. Alternating magnetic flux in the core induces eddy currents in it. Therefore there is energy loss due to the flow of eddy current, called eddy current loss which is minimized by using very thin laminations of transformer core.

2. Copper loss: Transformer windings have electrical resistance. When an electric current flows through them, some amount of energy is dissipated due to Joule heating. This energy loss is called copper loss which is minimized by using wires of larger diameter.

3. Flux leakage: Flux leakage happens when the magnetic lines of primary coil are not completely linked with secondary coil. Energy loss due to this flux leakage is minimized by winding coils one over the other.

Question 27.
Discuss the alpha – decay process with example.
Answer:
When unstable nuclei decay by emitting an α-particle (⁴₂He nucleus), it loses two protons and two neutrons. As a result, its atomic number Z decreases by 2, the mass number decreases by 4. We write the alpha decay process symbolically in the following way

Here X is called the parent nucleus and Y is called the daughter nucleus.
Example: Decay of Uranium ²³⁸₉₂U to thorium ²³⁴₉₀Th with the emission of ⁴₂He nucleus (α-particle)
²³⁸₉₂U → ²³⁴₉₀Th + ⁴₂He
As already mentioned, the total mass of the daughter nucleus and 2 He nucleus is always less than that of the parent nucleus. The difference in mass ( Δm = m_x – m_y m_α) is released as energy called disintegration energy Q and is given by
Q = (m_x – m_y – m_α) c²
Note that for spontaneous decay (natural radioactivity) Q > 0. In alpha decay process, the disintegration energy is certainly positive (Q > 0). In fact, the disintegration energy Q is also the net kinetic energy gained in the decay process or if the parent nucleus is at rest, Q is the total kinetic energy of daughter nucleus and the ⁴₂He nucleus. Suppose Q < 0, then the decay process cannot occur spontaneously and energy must be supplied to induce the decay.

Question 28.
Obtain the expression for energy stored in the parallel plate capacitor.
Answer:
Energy stored in the capacitor: Capacitor not only stores the charge but also it stores energy. When a battery is connected to the capacitor, electrons of total charge -Q are transferred from one plate to the other plate. To transfer the charge, work is done by the battery. This work done is stored as electrostatic potential energy in the capacitor.
To transfer an infinitesimal charge dQ for a potential difference V, the work done is given by
dW = VdQ ….(1)
Where V = \(\frac{Q}{C}\)
The total work done to charge a capacitor is
W = \(\int_{0}^{0} \frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{C}} d \mathrm{Q}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\) ….. (2)
This work done is stored as electrostatic potential energy (U_E) in the capacitor.
U_E = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CV}^{2}\) (∴Q = CV) …… (3)
where Q = CV is used. This stored energy is thus directly proportional to the capacitance of the capacitor and the square of the voltage between the plates of the capacitor. But where is this energy stored in the capacitor? To understand this question, the equation (3) is rewritten as follows using the results
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) and V = Ed
U_E = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{A}}{d}\right)(\mathrm{E} d)^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0}(\mathrm{A} d) \mathrm{E}^{2}\) …… (4)
where Ad = volume of the space between the capacitor plates. The energy stored per unit Volume of space is defined as energy density u_E = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\text { Volume }}\) From equation (4) we get
U_E = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{E}^{2}\) ……. (5)
From equation (5), we infer that the energy is stored in the electric field existing between the plates of the capacitor. Once the capacitor is allowed to discharge, the energy is retrieved.

Question 29.
Explain any three recent advancements in medical technology.
Answer:
1. Virtual reality:
Medical virtual reality is effectively used to stop the brain from processing pain and cure soreness in the hospitalized patients. Virtual reality has enhanced surgeries by the use of 3D models by surgeons to plan operations. It helps in the treatment of Autism, Memory loss, and Mental illness.

2. Precision medicine:
Precision medicine is an emerging approach for disease treatment and prevention that takes into account individual variability in genes, environment, and lifestyle for each person. In this medical model it is possible to customise healthcare, with medical decisions, treatments, practices, or products which are tailored to the individual patient.

3. Health wearables:
A health wearable is a device used for tracking a wearer’s vital signs or health and fitness related data, location, etc. Medical wearables with artificial intelligence and big data provide an added value to healthcare with a focus on diagnosis, treatment, patient monitoring and prevention.
Note: Big Data: Extremely large data sets that may be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions.

Question 30.
Two light sources with amplitudes 5 units and 3 units respectively interfere with each other. Calculate the ratio of maximum and minimum intensities.
Answer:
Amplitudes, a₁ = 5, a₂ = 3
Resultant amplitude, A = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}+2 a_{1} a_{2} \cos \phi}\)
Resultant amplitude is maximum when,
Φ = 0, cos 0 = 1, A_max = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}+2 a_{1} a_{2}}\)
A_max = \(\sqrt{\left(a_{1}+a_{2}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5+3)^{2}}=\sqrt{(8)^{2}}\) = 8 units
Resultant amplitude is minimum when, Φ = π, cos π = -1, A_max = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}-2 a_{1} a_{2}}\)
A_min = \(\sqrt{\left(a_{1}-a_{2}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5-3)^{2}}=\sqrt{(2)^{2}}\) = 2 units
I ∝ A²
\(\frac{I_{\max }}{I_{\min }}=\frac{\left(A_{\max }\right)^{2}}{\left(A_{\min }\right)^{2}}\)
Substituting, \(\frac{I_{\max }}{I_{\min }}=\frac{(8)^{2}}{(2)^{2}}=\frac{64}{4}=16\) (or) I_max : I_min = 16 : 1

Question 31.
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v it produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. Prove that the radius of the circle is proportional to \(\sqrt{\frac{v}{\mathbf{B}}}\)
Answer:
The magnetic field produce by moving electron in circular path.

Question 32.
Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:

Photo emissive cell:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.
Construction:

• It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode are fixed.
• The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.
• A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.

Working:

• When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer.
• For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current depends on
  • the intensity to incident radiation and
  • the potential difference between anode and cathode.

Question 33.
In the circuit shown in the figure the input voltage V₁ = +5 V, V_BE = + 0.8 V and V_CE = + 0.12 V_CE. Find the values of I_B, I_C and β.
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Obtain the expression for electric field due to an uniformly charged spherical shell at a distance its centre.
Answer:
Electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell: Consider a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and total charge Q. The electric field at points outside and inside the sphere is found using Gauss law.

Case (a) At a point outside the shell (r > R): Let us choose a point P outside the shell at a distance r from the center as shown in figure (a). The charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of the sphere (spherical symmetry). Hence the electric field must point radially outward if Q > 0 and point radially inward if Q < 0. So we choose a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r and the total charge enclosed by this Gaussian surface is Q. Applying Gauss law,
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) …(1)

The electric field \(\vec{E}\) and \(d \vec{A}\) point in the same direction (outward normal) at all the points on the Gaussian surface. The magnitude of \(\vec{E}\) is also the same at all points due to the spherical symmetry of the charge distribution.


Substituting this value in equation (2).
E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) (or) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q}{r^{2}}\)
In vector form \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{Q}}{r^{2}} \hat{r}\)

The electric field is radially outward if Q > 0 and radially inward if Q < 0. From equation (3), we infer that the electric field at a point outside the shell will be same as if the entire charge Q is concentrated at the center of the spherical shell. (A similar result is observed in gravitation, for gravitational force due to a spherical shell with mass M)

Case (b): At a point on the surface of the spherical shell (r = R): The electrical field at points on the spherical shell (r = R) is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} R^{2}} \hat{r}\) …… (4)

Case (c) At a point inside the spherical shell (r < R): Consider a point P inside the shell at a distance r from the center. A Gaussian sphere of radius r is constructed as shown in the figure (b). Applying Gauss law

E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) ….. (5)
Since Gaussian surface encloses no charge, So Q = 0. The equation (5) becomes
E = 0 (r < R) …….. (6)
The electric field due to the uniformly charged spherical shell is zero at all points inside the shell.

[OR]

Question 34.
(b) Write any five properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer
Properties of electromagnetic waves:

1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated charge.
2. Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-mechanical wave.
3. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. This means that the oscillating electric field vector, oscillating magnetic field vector and propagation vector (gives direction of propagation) are mutually perpendicular to each other.
4. Electromagnetic waves travel with speed which is equal to the speed of light in vacuum, or freer space, c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}}}\) = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
5. The speed of electromagnetic wave is less than speed in free space or vacuum, that is, v < c. In a medium of refractive index,

Question 35.
(a) What is modulation? Explain the types of modulation with necessary diagrams.
Answer:
Modulation: For long distance transmission, the low frequency baseband signal (input signal) is superimposed onto a high frequency radio signal by a process called modulation.
There are 3 types of modulation based on which parameter is modified. They are
(i) Amplitude modulation,
(ii) Frequency modulation, and
(iii) Phase modulation.

(i) Amplitude Modulation (AM):
If the amplitude of the carrier signal is modified according to the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal, then it is called amplitude modulation. Here the frequency and the phase of the carrier signal remain constant. Amplitude modulation is used in radio and TV broadcasting.

The signal shown in figure (a) is the message signal or baseband signal that carries information, figure (b) shows the high frequency carrier signal and figure (c) gives the amplitude modulated signal. We can see clearly that the carrier wave is modified in proportion to the amplitude of the baseband signal.
Amplitude Modulation

(ii) Frequency Modulation (FM):
The frequency of the camer signal is modified according to the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal in frequency modulation. Here the amplitude and the phase of the carrier signal remain constant. Increase in the amplitude of the baseband signal increases the frequency of the carrier signal and vice versa. This leads to compressions and rarefactions in the frequency spectrum of the modulated wave. Louder signal leads to compressions and relatively weaker signals to rarefactions. When the amplitude of the baseband signal is zero in Figure (a), the frequency of the modulated signal is the same as the carrier signal. The frequency of the modulated wave increases when the amplitude of the baseband signal increases in the positive direction
(A, C). The increase in amplitude in the negative half cycle (B,D) reduces the frequency of the modulated wave (figure (c)).

(iii) Phase Modulation (PM):
The instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal modifies the phase of the camer signal keeping the amplitude and frequency constant is called phase modulation. This modulation is used to generate frequency modulated signals. It is similar to frequency modulation except that the phase of the carrier is varied instead of varying frequency. The carrier phase changes according to increase or decrease in the amplitude of the baseband signal. When the modulating signal goes positive, the amount of phase
lead increases with the amplitude of the modulating signal. Due to this, the carrier signal is compressed or its frequency is increased.

On the other hand, the negative half cycle of the baseband signal produces a phase lag in the carrier signal. This appears to have stretched the frequency of the carrier wave. Hence similar to frequency modulated wave, phase modulated wave also comprises of
compressions and rarefactions. When the signal voltage is zero (A, C and E) the carrier frequency is unchanged.

[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Find the expression for the mutual inductance between a pair of coils and show that (M₁₂ = M₂₁).
Answer:
Mutual induction: When an electric current passing through a coil changes with time, an emf is induced in the neighbouring coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction and the emf is called mutually induced emf.

Consider two coils which are placed close to each other. If an electric current q is sent through coil i₁ the magnetic field produced by it is also linked with coil 2.
Let Φ₂₁ be the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the coil 2 of N₂ turns due to coil 1, then the total flux linked with coil 2 (N₂Φ₂₁) is proportional to the current i₁ in the coil 1.
N₂Φ₂₁ ∝ i₁
N₂Φ₂₁ = M₂₁i₁ or M₂₁ = \(\frac{N_{2} \Phi_{21}}{i_{1}}\)
The constant of proportionality M₂₁ is the mutual inductance of the coil 2 with respect to coil 1. It is also called as coefficient of mutual induction. If i₁ = 1 A, then M₂₁ = N₂Φ₂₁.
Therefore, the mutual inductance M₂₁ is defined as the flux linkage of the coil 2 when 1A current flows through coil 1.
When the current i₁ changes with time, an emf ξ₂ is induced in coil 2. From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, this mutually induced emf ξ₂₁ is given by

The negative sign in the above equation shows that the mutually induced emf always opposes the change in current with respect to time. If \(\frac{d i_{1}}{d t}\) = 1 As^-1, then M₂₁ = -ξ₂.
Mutual inductance M₂₁ is also defined as the opposing emf induced in the coil 2 when the rate of change of current through the coil I is l As^-1.
Similarly, if an electric current i₂ through coil 2 changes with time, then emf ξ₁ is induced in coil 1. Therefore, N

where M₁₂ is the mutual inductance of the coil I with respect to coil 2. It can be shown that for a given pair of coils, the mutual inductance is same. i.e., M₂₁ = M₁₂ = M.
In general, the mutual induction between two coils depends on size, shape, the number of turns of the coils, their relative orientation and permeability of the medium.

Question 36.
(a) Derive the expression for the radius of the orbit of the electron and its velocity using Bohr atom model.
Answer:
Radius of the orbit of the electron and velocity of the electron:
Consider an atom which contains the nucleus at rest and an electron revolving around the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius rn as shown in figure. Nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons. Since proton is positively charged and neutron is electrically neutral, the charge of a nucleus is purely the total charge of protons.

Let Z be the atomic number of the atom, then +Ze is the charge of the nucleus. Let -e be the charge of the electron. From Coulomb’s law, the force of attraction between the nucleus and the electron is

\(\vec{F}\)_coloumb = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{(+\mathrm{Ze})(\mathrm{e})}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}^{2}} \hat{\mathrm{r}}\)
\(=-\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}} \hat{r}\)
This force provides necessary centripetal force
\(\vec{F}\)_centripetal = \(\frac{m v_{n}^{2}}{r_{n}} \hat{r}\)
where m be the mass of the electron that moves with a velocity DW in a circular orbit. Therefore,
|\(\vec{F}\)_coloumb| = |\(\vec{F}\)_centripetal|
\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}}=\frac{m v_{n}^{2}}{r_{n}}\)
r_n = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\left(m \mathrm{v}_{n} r_{n}\right) 2}{Z m e^{2}}\) ……. (1)
From Bohr’s assumption, the angular momentum quantization condition mυ_nr_n = l_n = n_n


where n ∈ N . Since, ε₀, h, e and n are constants. Therefore, the radius of the orbit becomes
r_n = a₀\(\frac{n^{2}}{Z}\)
Where a₀ = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} h^{2}}{\pi m e^{2}}\) = 0.529Å. This is known as Bohr radius which is the smallest radius of the orbit in an atom. Bohr radius is also used as unit of length called Bohr. 1 Bohr = 0.53 Å. For hydrogen atom (Z = 1), the radius of n^th orbit is
r_n = a₀n²
For the first orbit (ground state),
r₁ = a₀ = 0.529 Å
For the second orbit (first excited state),
r₂ = 4a₀ = 2.116 Å
For the third orbit (second excited state),
r₃ = 9a₀ = 4.761 Å and so on.
Thus the radius of the orbit from centre increases with n, that is, r_n ∝ c n² as shown in figure. Further, Bohr’s angular momentum quantization condition leads to
mυ_nr_n = mυ_na₀n² = n\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
υ_n = \(\frac{h}{2 \pi m a_{0}} \frac{Z}{n}\)
υ_n ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
Note that the velocity of electron decreases as the principal quantum number increases as shown in figure. This curve is the rectangular hyperbola. This implies that the velocity of electron in ground state is maximum when compared to excited states.

[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Discuss the working and theory of cyclotron in detail.
Answer:

Cyclotron: Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate the charged particles to gain large kinetic energy. It is also called as high energy accelerator. It was invented by Lawrence and Livingston in 1934.

Principle: When a charged particle moves normal to the magnetic field, it experiences magnetic Lorentz force.

Construction:The particles are allowed to move in between two semicircular metal containers called Dees (hollow D – shaped objects). Dees are enclosed in an evacuated chamber and it is kept in a region with uniform magnetic field controlled by an electromagnet. The direction of magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees. The two Dees are kept separated with a gap and the source S (which ejects the particle to be accelerated) is placed at the center in the gap between the Dees. Dees are connected to high frequency alternating potential difference.

Working: Let us assume that the ion ejected from source S is positively charged. As soon as ion is ejected, it is accelerated towards a Dee (say, Dee – 1) which has negative potential at that time. Since the magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees, the ion undergoes circular path. After one semi-circular path in Dee-1, the ion reaches the gap between Dees. At this time, the polarities of the Dees are reversed so that the ion is now accelerated towards Dee-2 with a greater velocity. For this circular motion, the centripetal force of the charged particle q is provided by Lorentz force.
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = qv B ⇒ r = \(\frac{m}{q \mathrm{B}} v\) ⇒ r ∝ v
From the equation, the increase in velocity increases the radius of circular path. This process continues and hence the particle undergoes spiral path of increasing radius. Once it reaches near the edge, it is taken out with the help of deflector plate and allowed to hit the target T. Very important condition in cyclotron operation is the resonance condition. It happens when the frequency f at which the positive ion circulates in the magnetic field must be equal to the constant frequency of the electrical oscillator f_osc From equation
f_osc = \(\frac{q \mathbf{B}}{2 \pi m} \Rightarrow \mathrm{T}=\frac{1}{f_{\mathrm{osc}}}\)
The time period of oscillation is T = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{q B}\)
The kinetic energy of the charged particle is K E = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}=\frac{q^{2} \mathbf{B}^{2} r^{2}}{2 m}\)
Limitations of cyclotron
(a) the speed of the ion is limited
(b) electron cannot be accelerated
(c) uncharged particles cannot be accelerated

Question 37.
(a) Obtain lens maker’s formula and mention its significance.
Answer:
Lens maker’s formula and lens equation: Let us consider a thin lens made up of a medium of refractive index n₂ is placed in a medium of refractive index n₁ . Let R₁ and R₂ be the radii of curvature of two spherical surfaces (1) and (2) respectively and P be the pole. Consider a point object O on the principal axis. The ray which falls very close to P, after refraction at the surface (1) forms image at I’. Before it does so, it is again refracted by the surface (2). Therefore the final image is formed at I. The general equation for the refraction at a spherical surface is given by

For the refracting surface (1), the light goes from to n₁ to n₂

If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of the lens. Thus, for u = oo, v =/ Then the equation becomes.

If the refractive index of the lens is n₂ and it is placed in air, then n₂ = n and n₁ = 1. So the equation (4) becomes,
\(\frac{1}{f}=(n-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)

The above equation is called the lens maker’s formula, because it tells the lens manufactures what curvature is needed to make a lens of desired focal length with a material of particular refractive index. This formula holds good also for a concave lens. By comparing the equations (3) and (4) we can write,
\(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\) ……… (6)
This equation is known as lens equation which relates the object distance it and image distance v with the focal length / of the lens. This formula holds good for a any type of lens.

Question 37.
(b) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a center tapped transfonner, and a load resistor (RL). The centre is usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point. Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.

During positive half cycle:
When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G’ is at zero potential and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₁ and reverse biases diode D₂ Hence, being forward biased, diode D₁ conducts and current flows along the path MD₁ AGC . As a result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the direction G to C.

During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₂ and reverse biases diode D₁. Hence, being forward biased, diode D₂ conducts and current flows along the path ND₂ BGC . As a result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the same direction from G to C

Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same direction as shown in figure (b). Though both positive and negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still pulsating in nature.

The efficiency ( η) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are rectified.

Question 38.
(a) (i) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\) = eV
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 e \mathrm{V}}{m}}\)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 e m \mathrm{V}}}\)
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get

For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 Å . Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written as
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\)

(ii) An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 81V. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength correspond?
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is

X-ray is the part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength corresponds. X-ray has the wavelengths ranging from about 10^-8 to 10^-12 m.

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) (i) How will you measure the internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer?
Answer:
Measurement of internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer:
To measure the internal resistance of a cell, the circuit connections are made as shown in figure. The end C of the potentiometer wire is connected to the positive terminal of the battery Bt and the negative terminal of the battery is connected to the end D through a key K₁ This forms the primary circuit.

The positive terminal of the cell ξ whose internal resistance is to be determined is also connected to the end C of the wire. The negative terminal of the cell ξ is connected to a jockey through a galvanometer and a high resistance. A resistance box R and key K₂ are connected across the cell ξ. With K₂ open, the balancing point J is obtained and the balancing length CJ = l₁ is measured. Since the cell is in open circuit, its emf is
ξ ∝ l₁ ….. (1)
A suitable resistance (say, 10 H) is included in the resistance box and key K₂ is closed.
Let r be the internal resistance of the cell. The current passing through the cell and the resistance R is given by
I = \(\frac{\xi}{R+r}\)
The potential difference across R is
V = \(\frac{\xi R}{R+r}\)
When this potential difference is balanced on the potentiometer wire, let /2 be the balancing length.
Then \(\frac{\xi R}{R+r} \propto l_{2}\) ….. (2)
From equations (1) and (2)

Substituting the values of the R, l₁ and l₂, the internal resistance of the cell is determined. The experiment can be repeated for different values of R. It is found that the internal resistance of the cell is not constant but increases with increase of external resistance connected across its terminals.

(ii) A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 1Ω resistor and a current of 0.3 A through a 2 Ω resistor. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Current from the cell 1,I₁, = 0.9 A and Resistor, R₁ = 1Ω
Current from the cell 2,I₂ = 0.3 A and Resistor, R₂ = 2Ω
Current in the circuit, I₁ = \(\frac{\xi}{r+R_{1}}\)
ξ = I₁r + I₁R₁ ….. (1)
Current in the circuit, I₂ = \(\frac{\xi}{r+R_{2}}\)
ξ = I₂r + I₂R₂ ….. (2)
From equation (1) and (2),

|r| = |-0.5| Ω
Magnitude of internal resistance r = 0.5 Ω

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

நேரம்: 3,00 மணி
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(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 x 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன)

Question 1.
”அன்னை மொழியே” என்ற தலைப்பில் அமைந்த கவிதையில் குறிப்பிடாத நூல் ………..
(அ) திருக்குறள்
(ஆ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
(இ) எட்டுத்தொகை
(ஈ) தொல்காப்பியம்
Answer:
(ஈ) தொல்காப்பியம்

Question 2.
செய்தி 1 – ஒவ்வோர் ஆண்டும் ஜுன் 15 ஐ உலகக் காற்று நாளாகக் கொண்டாடி வருகிறோம்.
செய்தி 2 – காற்றாலை உற்பத்தியில் இந்தியாவில் தமிழகம் இரண்டாமிடம் என்பது எனக்குப் பெருமையே.
செய்தி 3 – காற்றின் ஆற்றலைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கடல் கடந்து வணிகம் செய்து வெற்றி கண்டவர்கள் தமிழர்கள்.
(அ) செய்தி மட்டும் சரி
(ஆ) செய்தி 1, 2 ஆகியன சரி
(இ) செய்தி 1, 2, 3 சரி –
(ஈ) செய்தி 1, 3 ஆகியன சரி
Answer:
(இ) செய்தி 1, 2, 3 சரி –

Question 3.
சார்பெழுத்துக்களின் வகைகள்………
(அ) எட்டு
(ஆ) ஒன்பது
(இ) பத்து
(ஈ) ஏழு
Answer:
(இ) பத்து

Question 4.
பாரத ஸ்டேட் வங்கியின் உரையாடு மென்பொருள் எது?
அ) துலா
(ஆ) சீலா
(இ) குலா
(ஈ) இலா
Answer:
(ஈ) இலா

Question 5.
‘மூலித் தீர் தேன் வழிந்து ஒழுகு தாரானைக் கண்டு’ என்னும் தொடரில் தாரணை என்பது யாரைக் குறிக்கிறது?
(அ) சிவபெருமான்
(ஆ) கபிலர்
(இ பாண்டியன்
(ஈ) இடைக்காடனார்
Answer:
(இ பாண்டியன்

Question 6.
சரியான விடை வரிசையைத் தேர்ந்தெடு.
1) கரகாட்டம் – உறுமி எனப்படும் தேவதுந்துபி
2) மயிலாட்டம் – தோலால் கட்டப்பட்ட குடம், சிங்கி, டோலாக், தப்பு
3) ஒயிலாட்டம் – நையாண்டி மேள இசை
4) தேவராட்டம் – நையாண்டி மேள இசை, நாகசுரம், தவில், பம்பை
(அ) 4, 3, 2, 1 (ஆ) 1, 2, 3, 4- (இ) 3, 4, 1, 2 (ஈ) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer:
1) கரகாட்டம் – உறுமி எனப்படும் தேவதுந்துபி

Question 7.
‘நசை’ என்ற சொல்லின் பொருள் …..
(அ) விருப்பம்
(ஆ) அவமானம்
(இ) வசை
(ஈ) இசை
Answer:
(அ) விருப்பம்

Question 8.
காலக்கணிதம் கவிதையில் இடம்பெற்ற தொடர்….
(அ) இகழ்ந்தால் என்மனம் இறந்துவிடாது
(ஆ) என் மனம் இகழ்ந்தால் இறந்துவிடாது
(இ) இகழ்ந்தால் இறந்துவிடாது என் மனம்
(ஈ) என் மனம் இறந்துவிடாது இகழ்ந்தால்
Answer:
(அ) இகழ்ந்தால் என்மனம் இறந்துவிடாது

Question 9.
உயிரளபெடைகளின் வகைகள்
(அ) ஒன்று
(ஆ) இரண்டு
(இ) மூன்று
(ஈ) நான்கு
Answer:
(இ) மூன்று

Question 10.
செந்தீ – இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு
(அ) பண்புத்தொகை
(ஆ) வினைத்தொகை
(இ) வேற்றுமைத் தொகை
(ஈ) சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
Answer:
(அ) பண்புத்தொகை

Question 11.
சந்தக் கவிமணி எனப்படுபவர்…..
(அ) தமிழழகனார்
(ஆ) பெருஞ்சித்திரனார்
(இ) வெள்ளி வீதியார்
(ஈ) அம்மூவனார் பாடலைப்
Answer:
(அ) தமிழழகனார்

படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.
செந்தீச் சுடரிய ஊழியும், பனியொடு
தண்பெயல் தலைஇய ஊழியும், அவையிற்று
உள்முறை வெள்ளம் மூழ்கி ஆர்தருபு,
மீண்டும் பீடு உயர்பு ஈண்டி, அவற்றிற்கும்
உள்ளீடு ஆகிய இருநிலத்து ஊழியும்…..

Question 12.
பாடலிலுள்ள எதுகைச் சொற்கள்………
(அ) உள் முறை – உள்ளீடு
(ஆ) வெள்ளம் – மூழ்கி
(இ) தண்பெயல் – தலைஇய
(ஈ) செந்நீர் – தண்பெயல்
Answer:
(அ) உள் முறை – உள்ளீடு

Question 13.
மேற்கண்ட பாடலடிகள் இடம் பெற்ற நூல் ……..
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
(ஆ) சங்க இலக்கியங்கள்
(இ) பரிபாடல்
(ஈ) எட்டுத்தொகை
Answer:
(இ) பரிபாடல்

Question 14.
பாடலின் ஆசிரியர் …
(அ) நக்கீரர்
(ஆ) கீரந்தையார்
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்
(ஈ) குலசேகராழ்வார்
Answer:
(ஆ) கீரந்தையார்

Question 15.
தண்பெயல் என்பதன் பொருள்……..
(அ) குளிர்ந்த மழை
(ஆ) காற்று
(இ) வானம்
Answer:
(அ) குளிர்ந்த மழை

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்க ள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினாக்கள் அமைக்க.
(அ) இயல், இசை, நாடகம் ஆகியன முத்தமிழ் எனப்படும்.
(ஆ) முதற்சங்கம், இடைச்சங்கம், கடைச்சங்கம் விடை:
Answer:
(அ) முத்தமிழ்’ தொகைச் சொல்லை விரித்து எழுதுக.
ஆ) முச்சங்கம்’ தொகைச் சொல்லை விரித்து எழுதுக.

Question 17.
“கழிந்த பெரும் கேள்வியினான் எனக் கேட்டு முழுது உணர்ந்த கபிலன் தன் பால் பொழிந்த பெரும் காதல் மிகு கேண்மையினான் இடைக்காட்டுப் புலவன் தென் சொல்” – இவ்வடிகளில் கழிந்த பெரும் கேள்வியினான் யார்? காதல்மிகு கேண்மையினான் யார்?
Answer:
இவ்வடியில் கழிந்த பெரும் கேள்வியினான்: குசேல பாண்டியன் காதல்மிகு கேண்மையினான். இடைக்காடனார்.

Question 18.
ஆண்பாற் பிள்ளை தமிழ், பெண்பாற் பிள்ளை தமிழ் விளக்குக.
Answer:
ஆண்பாற் பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் (கடைசி மூன்று பருவம்) – சிற்றில், சிறுபறை, சிறுதேர் பெண்பாற் பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் (கடைசி மூன்று பருவம்) – கழங்கு, அம்மானை, ஊசல் இருபாலருக்கும் பொதுவான பருவங்கள் – காப்பு, செங்கீரை, தால், சப்பாணி, முத்தம், வருகை, அம்புலி

Question 19.
பாசவர், வாசவர், பல்நிண விலைஞர், உமணர் – சிலப்பதிகாரம் காட்டும் இவ்வணிகர்கள் யாவர்?
Answer:
வெற்றிலை விற்பவர் – பாசவர் என்றும், ஏலம் முதலான ஐந்து நறுமணப்பொருள் விற்பவர் – வாசவர் என்றும், பல வகையான இறைச்சிகள் விற்பவர் – பல் நிண விலைஞர் என்றும், வெண்மையான உப்பு விற்பவர் – உமணர் என்றும் சிலப்பதிகாரம் காட்டுகிறது.

Question 20.
தானியம் ஏதும் இல்லாத நிலையில் விதைக்காக வைத்திருந்த தினையை உரலில் இட்டுக் குற்றியெடுத்து விருந்தினருக்கு விருந்தளித்தாள் தலைவி’ என்பது இலக்கியச் செய்தி. விருந்தோம்பலுக்குச் செல்வம் மட்டுமே இன்றியமையாத ஒன்றா? உங்கள் கருத்தைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:
விருந்தளிக்க செல்வம் மட்டும் இருந்தால் போதாது விருந்து கொடுக்க வேண்டும் என்ற எண்ணமும் வேண்டும். பணம் இல்லை என்றாலும் எண்ணம் இருந்தால் தன்னிடம் இல்லை என்றாலும் பிறரிடம் கடன் பெற்றாவது விருந்து அளிக்கப்படும் அதற்குப் பணம் முக்கியம் இல்லை எண்ணம்தான் முக்கியம்.

Question 21.
‘பொருள்’ என முடியும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
பொருளல் லவரைப் பொருளாகச் செய்யும் பொருளல்ல தில்லை பொருள்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 x 2 = 10]

Question 22.
நேற்று என்னைச் சந்தித்தார். அவர் என் நண்பர். (வினைமுற்றை, வினையாலணையும் பெயராக மாற்றுக.)
Answer:
நேற்று என்னைச் சந்தித்தவர் என் நண்பர்.

Question 23.
கீழ்க்காணும் தொடரில் கோடிட்ட சொற்களுக்கு ஏற்ற அதே பொருளுடைய வேறு சொல் அமைத்து எழுதுக. (துணைவியும், முகில், மஞ்சை, களி)
Answer:
நளனும் அவனது துணைவியும் நிடதநாட்டுக்கு வந்ததைக் கண்டு, அந்நாட்டு மக்கள் மழைமுகில் கண்ட மஞ்ஞை போலக் களி கொண்டனர். நளனும் அவனது மனைவியும் நிடதநாட்டுக்கு வந்ததைக் கண்டு, அந்நாட்டு மக்கள் மழைமேகம் கண்ட மயில் போல மகிழ்ச்சி கொண்டனர்.

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களையும் ஒரே தொடரில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
தொடு – தோடு
காதை தொடு, தோடு இருக்கும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
Answer:
(அ) Homograph – ஒப்பெழுத்து
(ஆ) Conversation – உரையாடல்

Question 26.
வா – வேர்ச்சொல்லைக் கொண்டு எழுவாய் தொடர், வினையெச்சத் தொடர் ஆகியவை எழுதுக.
Answer:

Question 27.
பொருத்தமான நிறுத்தற் குறிகளை இடுக.
தமிழை அதன் வழிமொழிகளாகிய தெலுங்கு கன்னட மலையாள துளுவங்களோடு அடங்கி உண்ணாட்டு மொழிகள் என வகைப்படுத்தினர் சிலர்.
Answer:
விடை: தமிழை அதன் வழிமொழிகளாகிய தெலுங்கு, கன்னட, மலையாள, துளுவங்களோடு அடங்கி ‘உண்ணாட்டு மொழிகள்’ என வகைப்படுத்தினர் சிலர்.

Question 28.
பொறித்த – பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக
Answer:
பொறித்த = பொறி + த் + த் + அ
பொறி – பகுதி
த் – சந்தி
த் – இறந்தகால இடைநிலை
அ – பெயரெச்ச விகுதி பகுதி

III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 29.
தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து பற்றி விளக்குக.
Answer:

• தோலில் செய்த வெட்டு வரைபடங்களை, விளக்கின் ஒளி ஊடுருவும் திரைச்சீலையில் பொருத்தி, கதைக்கேற்ப மேலும் கீழும் பக்கவாட்டிலும் அசைத்துக்காட்டி, உரையாடியும் பாடியும் காட்டுவது தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து.
• தோலால் ஆன பாவையைக் கொண்டு நிகழ்த்தும் கலையாதலால் தோற்பாவை என்னும் பெயர் பெற்றது.
• இசை , ஓவியம், நடனம், நாடகம், பலகுரலில் பேசுதல் ஆகியவை இதில் இணைந்துள்ளன. கூத்து நிகழ்த்தும் திரைச்சீலையின் நீளம்.
• அகலம் ஆகியன பாவையின் அமைப்பையும் எண்ணிக்கையையும் பொறுத்து வேறுபடுகின்றன.
• இந்நிகழ்ச்சியில் பாவையின் அசைவு, உரையாடல், இசை ஆகியனவற்றோடு ஒளியும் முதன்மை பெறுகின்றது.

Question 30.
ஜெயகாந்தன் குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• கருத்தாழமும் வாசகச் சுவைப்பும் கலந்து இலக்கியங்கள் படைத்தவர் ஜெயகாந்தன்.
• சமகாலக் கருத்துகளையும் நிகழ்வுகளையும் சமகால மொழியில் சமகால உணர்வில் தந்தவர்.
• மனிதம் தோய்ந்த எழுத்தாளுமை மிக்கவர் ஜெயகாந்தன்.
• காந்தத் தன்மையுடைய எழுத்தை நினைவூட்டும் வகையில் அவரது படைப்புப் புதையலிலிருந்து சில.
• மணிகளைத் தொடுத்து ஜெயகாந்தம் என்னும் நினைவு இதழ் உருவாக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
• குறும்புதினங்களையும், புதினங்களையும், கட்டுரைகளையும், கவிதைகளையும் படைத்துள்ளார்.
• தன் கதைகளைத் திரைப்படமாக இயக்கியிருக்கிறார்; தலைசிறந்த உரத்த சிந்தனைப் பேச்சாளராகவும் திகழ்ந்தார்.
• சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருதையும் ஞானபீட விருதையும் பெற்ற இவருடைய கதைகள் பிறமொழிகளில் மொழிபெயர்க்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.
• அவருடைய படைப்புகள் உணர்ச்சி சார்ந்த எதிர்வினைகளாக இருக்கின்றன.

இதுவே அவருக்குச் “சிறுகதை மன்னன்” என்ற பட்டத்தைத் தேடித்தந்தது

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
ஒரு மொழி பொதுமக்களாலும் அதன் இலக்கியம், புல மக்களாலும் அமையப்பெறும். தமிழ்ப் பொதுமக்கள் உயர்ந்த பகுத்தறிவுடையர். எத்துணையோ ஆராய்ச்சி நடந்துவரும் இக்காலத்திலும் எத்துணையோ மொழிகளினின்று கடன் கொண்ட ஆங்கில மொழியிலும் நூலிலும் இலையைக் குறிக்க Leaf (லீஃப் என ஒரே சொல் உள்ளது.

ஆங்கில நூல்களிலும் வேறு பல வகைகளில் இலைகளைப் பாகுபாடு செய்தனரேயன்றி, தமிழ்ப்பொதுமக்களைப் போல வன்மை மென்மை பற்றித் தாள், இலை, தோகை, ஓலை எனப் பாகுபாடு செய்தாரில்லை. இத்தகைய பாகுபாடு ஏனைய உறுப்புகளுக்குள்ளும் செய்யப்பட்டது முன்னர்க் காட்டப்பெற்றது.

(அ) தமிழ்ப் பொதுமக்கள் எத்தகைய தன்மையுடையவர்?
Answer:
தமிழ்ப் பொதுமக்கள் உயர்ந்த பகுத்தறிவுடையவர்.

(ஆ) ஆங்கில மொழியிலும், நூலிலும் இலையைக் குறிக்கப் பயன்படும் ஒரே சொல் என்ன?
Answer:
Leaf (லீஃப்)

(இ) இலையைக் குறிக்கும் மற்ற சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
தோகை, ஓலை

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [233 = 6]

Question 32.
தமிழன்னையை வாழ்த்துவதற்கான காரணங்களாகப் பாவலரேறு சுட்டுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• அன்னைத் தமிழ்மொழியே! அழகாய் அமைந்த செந்தமிழே! பழமைக்கும் பழமையாய்த் தோன்றிய நறுங்கனி நீயே!
• கடல் கொண்ட குமரிக் கண்டத்தில் அரசாண்ட மண்ணுலகப் பேரரசே! பாண்டிய மன்னனின் மகளே!
• திருக்குறளின் பெரும் பெருமைக்குரியவளே, இனிமையான பத்துப்பாட்டே, எட்டுத்தொகையே பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கே நிலைத்த சிலப்பதிகாரமே.
• அழகான மணிமேகலையே ! விளங்கும் உன்னைத் தலைபணிந்து வாழ்த்துகின்றோம்.
• பழமைக்கும் பழமையாய்த் தோன்றியது.
• கடல் கொண்ட குமரிக்கண்டத்தில் அரசாண்ட மண்ணுலகப் பேரரசாகத் திகழ்வது.
• பாண்டிய மன்னனின் மகளாகத் தோன்றியது. திருக்குறளைப் பெற்ற பெருமைக்குரியது.
• பத்துப்பாட்டு, எட்டுத்தொகை, பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கு போன்ற நூல்களையும் சிலப்பதிகாரம்.
• மணிமேகலை போன்ற காப்பியங்களையும் பெற்ற பெருமைக்குரியது.

Question 33.
முல்லை நிலத்து முதற்பொருள் கரும்பொருள் உரிப்பொருள் ஆகியவற்றை விரித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• முதற்பொருள் நிலம் – காடும் காடு சார்ந்த இடமும்
• பொழுது – பெரும்பொழுது கார்காலம் ஆவணி, புரட்டாசி
• சிறுபொழுது – மாலை கருப்பொருள் – நீர்- குறுஞ்சுனை நீர், காட்டாறு
• மரம் – கொன்றை, காயா, குருந்தம்
• பூ- முல்லை, பிடவம், தோன்றிப்பூ
• உரிப்பொருள் – இருத்தலும் இருத்தல் நிமித்தமும்

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
Answer:
”தண்டலை மயில்களாட” எனத் தொடங்கும் கம்பராமாயணப் பாடல்.
தண்டலை மயில்களாட தாமரை விளக்கந் தாங்க,
கொண்டல்கள் முழவினேங்க குவளைகண் விழித்து நோக்க,
தெண்டிரை யெழினி காட்ட தேம்பிழி மகரயாழின்
வண்டுகளி னிதுபாட மருதம் வீற்றிருக்கும்மாதோ – கம்பர்

(அல்லது)

“தூசும் துகிரும்” எனத் தொடங்கும் சிலப்பதிகாரப் பாடல்.

தூசும் துகிரும் ஆரமும் அகிலும்
மாசு அறு முத்தும் மணியும் பொன்னும்
அருங்கல வெறுக்கையோடு அளந்துகடை அறியா
வளம் தலை மயங்கிய நனந்தலை மறுகும்;
பால்வகை தெரிந்த பகுதிப் பண்டமொடு
கூலம் குவித்த கூல வீதியும்; – இளங்கோவடிகள்.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 35.
தொழிற்பெயருக்கும், வினையாலணையும் பெயருக்கும் உள்ள வேறுபாட்டை எழுதுக.
Answer:

Question 36.
நன்றிக்கு வித்தாகும் நல்லொழுக்கம் தீயொழுக்கம் என்றும் இடும்பை தரும். இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட் பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
நிரல்நிறை அணி என்றால் என்ன? சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
நிரல் = வரிசை ; நிறை = நிறுத்துதல் சொல்லையும் பொருளையும் வரிசையாக நிறுத்தி அவ்வரிசைப்படியே இணைத்துப் பொருள் கொள்வது நிரல்நிறை அணி எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா.) அன்பும் அறனும் உடைத்தாயின் இல்வாழ்க்கை
பண்பும் பயனும் அது.

பாடலின் பொருள் : இல்வாழ்க்கை அன்பும், அறமும் உடையதாக விளங்குமானால், அந்த வாழ்க்கையின் பண்பும் பயனும் அதுவே ஆகும்.

அணிப்பொருத்தம்: இக்குறளில் அன்பும் அறனும் என்ற சொற்களை வரிசையாக நிறுத்தி, பண்பும் பயனும் என்ற சொற்களை முறைப்படக் கூறியுள்ளமையால் இது நிரல் நிறை அணி ஆகும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 38.
(அ) ஆற்றுப்படுத்தல் என்பது அன்றைக்குப் புலவர்களையும் கலைஞர்களையும்
வள்ளல்களை நோக்கி நெறிப்படுத்துவதாக இருந்தது. அது இன்றைய நிலையில் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியிருப்பதை விளக்குக.
Answer:

• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது வள்ளலை நாடி எதிர்வருபவர்களை அழைத்து யாம் இவ்விடத்தே சென்று இன்னவெல்லாம் பெற்று வருகின்றோம்.
• நீயும் அந்த வள்ளலிடம் சென்று வளம் பெற்று வாழ்வாயாக என்று கூறுதல் ஆற்றுப்படை ஆகும்.
• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது இன்றைய நிலையில் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக இருக்கிறது.
• தன்னிடம் இல்லை என்றோ அல்லது தெரியாது என்றோ கூறாமல் யார் வந்தாலும்.
• அவர்களுக்கு வழிகாட்டுதலாகவும் இருக்கிறது.
• அவர்களுக்கு அறிவுரை கூறி அவர்களை வழிகாட்டுகின்றனர்.
• அன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் இன்றைய வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியுள்ளது.
• இது ஒவ்வொரு நிலையிலும் மாற்றம் அடைந்துள்ளது. உதவி தேவைப்படுபவர்களுக்கு பெரும் உதவியாக இருந்து வருகிறது.
• இதுவே இன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் ஆகும். பாகானை

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) காலக்கணிதம் கவிதையில் பொதிந்துள்ள நயங்களைப் பாராட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:
கவிஞன் யானோர் காலக் கணிதம்
கருப்படு பொருளை உருப்பட வைப்பேன்!
புவியில் நானோர் புகழுடைத் தெய்வம்
பொன்னினும் விலைமிகு பொருளென் செல்வம்!
இவைசரி யென்றால் இயம்புவதென் தொழில்
இவைதவ றாயின் எதிர்ப்பதென் வேலை!
ஆக்கல் அளித்தல் அழித்தல் இம் மூன்றும்
அவனும் யானுமே அறிந்தவை, அறிக! – கண்ண தாசன்

கருத்து:
நான் தான் காலக்கணிதன் கருப்படும் பொருளை உருப்பட வைப்பேன் ! புவியில் நல்லவர்கள் பலபேர் இருக்கின்றனர். பொன்னும் விலைமிகு பொருளும் இருக்கிறது. அது செல்வம், இது சரி, இது தவறு என்று சொல்வது என் வேலை செய்வது தவறாயின் எதிர்ப்பது என் வேலை சரி என்றால் புகழ்வது என் தொழில் ஆக்கல், காத்தல், அழித்தல் இம்மூன்றும் இறைவனும் நானும் மட்டுமே அறிந்த தொழில்களாகும். எதுகை. செய்யுளின் இரண்டாம் எழுத்து ஒன்றி வரத் தொடுப்பது எதுகை.

கவிஞன், புவியில் மோனை: செய்யுளில் முதல் எழுத்து ஒன்றிவரத் தொடுப்பது மோனை. கவிஞன், காலம், கணிதம், கருப்படு முரண்: சரி X தவறு, ஆக்கல் x அழித்தல் சொல் நயம்: கவிஞன் யானோர் காலக் கணிதம் கருப்படு பொருளை உருப்பட வைப்பேன் என்ற சொற்றொடர்களை அமைத்துப் பாடலுக்குச் சிறப்புச் சேர்த்துள்ளார்.

(எ.கா.) தெய்வம் எனத் தன்னைக் கூறும் கவிஞர் புகழுடைத் தெய்வம் என்ற சொற்றொடரைக் கையாளும் நயம் படித்து இன்புறத்தக்கது.

பொருள் நயம்: ஆக்கல் அளித்தல் அழித்தல் இம்மூன்றும் அவனும் யானுமே அறிந்தவை என்றும் ஆழ்ந்த பொருள் சுவை உடையது (எ.கா.) தன் செல்வம் எது எனக் கூற வந்த கவிஞர், பொன் விலை உயர்ந்தது. அதைக் காட்டிலும் விலை உயர்ந்த கவிதைப்பொருளே என் செல்வம் எனக் கூறியிருக்கும். இக்கவிதையின் பொருள்நயம் போற்றுதற்குரியது.

Question 39.
(அ) உங்கள் பள்ளிக்குத் தேவையான கையேடுகளை அனுப்பித் தருமாறு புத்தக பதிப்பகத்திற்கு கடிதம் வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
கண்ண ன், அரசினர் மேல்நிலைப் பள்ளி, மேலூர்,
திருச்சி – 620 018.

பெறுநர்
உயர்திரு நவீன் அவர்கள்,
சாரதா பதிப்பகம், 10/34,
மகாலட்சுமி தெரு,
தி.நகர்,
சென்னை – 600 017.

ஐயா,
பொருள்: கையேடுகள் சில அனுப்பி வைத்தல் – தொடர்பாக வணக்கம். எம் பள்ளிக்கு சில கையேடுகள் தேவைப்படுகின்றன. அவற்றிற்குரிய தொகையினைப் பணவிடைத்தாள் மூலம் அனுப்பியுள்ளேன். கீழே குறிப்பிட்ட எனது முகவரிக்குப் பதிவஞ்சல் மூலமாகத் தாமதமின்றி கையேடுகளை அனுப்பி வைக்குமாறு. தாழ்மையுடன் வேண்டுகிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம்: திருச்சி
தேதி: 10.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள
கண்ண ன்.

தேவையான கையேடுகள்

• தமிழ் பத்தாம் வகுப்புக் கையேடு – 30 பிரதிகள்
• ஆங்கிலம் பத்தாம் வகுப்புக் கையேடு – 15 பிரதிகள்
• கணிதம் பத்தாம் வகுப்புக் கையேடு – 20 பிரதிகள்
• அறிவியல் பத்தாம் வகுப்புக் கையேடு – 10 பிரதிகள்

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
உயர்திரு நவீன் அவர்கள்,
சாரதா பதிப்பகம்,
10/34, மகாலட்சுமி தெரு, தி. நகர்,
சென்னை – 600017.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) பள்ளி வளாகத்தில் நடைபெற்ற மரம் நடுவிழாவுக்கு வந்திருந்த சிறப்பு விருந்தினருக்கும் பெற்றோருக்கும் பள்ளியின் பசுமைப் பாதுகாப்புப் படை’ சார்பாக நன்றியுரை எழுதுக.
Answer:
வீட்டுக்கொரு மரம் வளர்ப்போம் என்பது அன்றைய வாசகம். ஆளுக்கொரு மரம் வளர்க்க வேண்டிய தேவை இன்று ஏற்பட்டுள்ளது. மரங்கள் இயற்கையின் கொடை இயற்கை அன்னையின் மடியில் மலர்ந்த முதல் குழந்தை மரம் தானே! அவற்றை நாம் இல்லாமல் செய்யலாமா? இயற்கையின் வழியில் செல்வோம் ! மரங்களையும், பயனுள்ள செடி, கொடிகளையும் வளர்ப்போம் பயன் பெறுவோம் பசுமை பாரதத்தை உருவாக்குவோம் என்ற சிந்தனையை மாணவர்கள் மனதில் விதை ஊன்றிய எம் சிறப்பு விருந்தினருக்கு நன்றிகளை எங்கள் பள்ளியின் சார்பாகத் தெரிவித்துக் கொள்கிறோம். இங்கு வந்திருந்து எங்களைச் சிறப்பித்த பெற்றோருக்கும் நன்றிகளைத் தெரிவித்துக் கொள்கிறோம்.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற எழுதுக.

Answer:
விடை மனிதர்களே! தன் மனதிற்கும்
அறிவுக்கும் பூட்டு போட்டுக்கொள்ளாதீர்கள்
திறந்த மனதுடன் தொலைநோக்குடன்
கல்வியைக் கற்க பழகுங்கள் – நம்
எண்ணங்களுக்குப் பூட்டு போட்டுக்
கொண்டால் விழிப்புணர்வும் – அறிவு
முதிர்ச்சியும் இல்லாமல் போகும்.

Question 41.
கீழ்க்காணும் படிவத்தை நிரப்புக.
Answer:
நூலக உறுப்பினர் படிவம் மதுரை மாவட்ட நூலக ஆணைக்குழு மைய கிளை ஊர்ப்புற நூலகம் மைய நூலகம்.

உறுப்பினர் சேர்க்கை அட்டை

அட்டை எண்
உறுப்பினர் எண் 567

• பெயர் – கந்தன்
• தந்தை பெயர் – ஆறுமுகம்
• பிறந்த தேதி – 06.06.2005
• வயது – 14
• படிப்பு – பத்தாம் வகுப்பு
• தொலைபேசி எண் – 98678 64590
• முகவரி – 35 அம்மன் கோயில் தெரு

(அஞ்சல் குறியீட்டு எண்ணுடன்) – 5வது தெரு, மேலவீதி, மதுரை – 625 002

நான் அ. கந்தன் நூலகத்தில் உறுப்பினராகப் பதிவு செய்ய இத்துடன் காப்புத்தொகை ரூ 100 சந்தா தொகை ரூ 100 ஆக மொத்தம் ரூ 200 ரொக்கமாகச் செலுத்துகிறேன். நூலக நடைமுறை மற்றும் விதிகளுக்குக் கட்டுப்படுகிறேன் என உறுதியளிக்கிறேன்.

இடம் : மதுரை
நாள் : 24.5.2019

தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள
அ. கந்தன்

திரு/திருமதி / செல்வி /செல்வன் அவர்களை எனக்கு நன்கு தெரியும் எனச் சான்று அளிக்கிறேன்.

தீபா அலுவலக முத்திரை
பிணைப்பாளர் கையொப்பம்
(பதவி மற்றும் அலுவலகம்)

மாநில மைய அரசு அதிகாரிகள், கல்லூரி முதல்வர்கள் பேராசிரியர்கள்,
உயர் மேல்நிலைப்பள்ளி தலைமை ஆசிரியர்கள், சட்டமன்ற நாடாளுமன்ற
உறுப்பினர்கள், நகராட்சி/மாநகராட்சி ஒன்றிய பேரூராட்சி உறுப்பினர்கள்

Question 42.
(அ) புயலின் போது – கீழ்க்கண்ட அறிவிப்பைக் கேட்ட நீங்கள், உங்களையும் உங்கள் குடும்பத்தாரையும் காப்பாற்றும் வகையில் செய்யும் செயல்களை வரிசைப்படுத்தி எழுதுக.

Answer:

விடை

• புயலின் போது மின்சாரம் துண்டிக்க நேரிடும் அதனால் மெழுகுவர்த்தி தீப்பெட்டி அருகில் வைத்துக் கொள்ளவும்.
• பிஸ்கெட், பால் பாக்கெட்களை வாங்கி வைத்துக் கொள்ள வேண்டும்.
• வெளியே செல்வதைத் தவிர்க்க வேண்டும்.
• மரங்களின் அருகில் நிற்கக் கூடாது.
• உதவிக்கு அழைக்க அவசர எண்களைத் தெரிந்து வைத்துக் கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) மொழிபெயர்க்க.
Respected ladies and gentlemen, I am Ilangovan studying tenth standard. I have come here to say a few words about our Tamil culture. Sangam literature shows that Tamils were best in culture and civilization about two thousand years ago. Tamils who have defined grammar for language have also defined grammar for life. Tamil culture is rooted in the life styles of Tamils throughout India. Srilanka, Malaysia, Singapore, England and Worldwide. Though our culture is very old, it has been updated consistently. We should feel proud about our culture. Thank you one and all.

விடை இங்கு கூடி இருக்கும் அனைவருக்கும் என் மனமார்ந்த வணக்கம். என் பெயர் இளங்கோவன். நான் 10 ஆம் வகுப்பு படிக்கிறேன். தமிழ்க் கலாச்சாரத்தைப் பற்றி சில வார்த்தைகள் கூற வந்துள்ளேன். இரண்டாயிரம் ஆண்டுகளுக்கு முன்னரே தமிழன் கலாச்சாரத்திலும், நாகரிகத்திலும் மேம்பட்டு இருந்தான் என்பதைச் சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் புலப்படுத்துகின்றன தமிழ் மொழிக்கு இலக்கணம் வகுத்த தமிழன் வாழ்க்கை நெறிக்கும் இலக்கணம் வகுத்துள்ளான்.

தமிழ்க் கலாச்சாரம் இலங்கை, சிங்கப்பூர், இங்கிலாந்து மற்றும் உலகளாவிய இந்தியத் தமிழ் மக்களின் வாழ்வாதாரங்களில் வேரூன்றி நிற்கிறது. நம் கலாச்சாரம் பழமை வாய்ந்ததாக இருப்பினும் அது தொடர்ச்சியாகப் புதுப்பித்த வண்ணமே இருக்கின்றன. நாம் நம் கலாச்சாரத்தைப் பற்றி பெருமை கொள்ள வேண்டும். அனைவருக்கும் நன்றி.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24) 

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 x 8 = 24]

Question 43.
(அ) ஜெயகாந்தன் நினைவுச் சிறப்பிதழை, வார இதழ் ஒன்று வெளியிட இருக்கிறது. அதற்கான ஒரு சுவரொட்டியை வடிவமைத்து அளிக்க
மாவட்ட ஆட்சியர் தலைமையில்
நினைவுச் சிறப்பிதழ் வெளியீட்டு விழா
ஞானபீட விருது பெற்ற காலம் சென்ற
எழுத்துலக வித்தகர். தெய்வத்திரு
ஜெயகாந்தன்

அவர்களின் நினைவுச் சிறப்பிதழ் வெளியீட்டு விழா
நாள் : 14.4.2019
நேரம் : 6.00 மாலை

இடம் : கலையரங்கம்
சென்னை

(அல்லது)
(ஆ) ஒரு குழந்தையைத் தூக்கவும் கீழே விழுந்த ஒரு தேனீர்க் கோப்பையை எடுக்கவும் மென்பொருள் அக்கறை கொள்ளுமா? வெறும் வணிகத்துடன் நின்றுவிடுமா? இக்கருத்துகளை ஒட்டிச் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவின் எதிர்கால வெளிப்பாடுகள்’ பற்றி ஒரு கட்டுரை எழுதுக.

எதிர்காலத்தில் ரோபோக்கள் :
வேலை வாய்ப்புகளில் கணிசமான மாற்றங்களைச் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு கொண்டுவரப்போகிறது. எதிர்காலத்தில் ரோபோ’ விடம் குழந்தையை ஒப்படைத்துவிட்டு நிம்மதியாக அலுவலகம் செல்லும் பெற்றோர்களை நாம் பார்க்கப்போகிறோம். வயதானவர்களுக்கு உதவிகள் செய்தும் அவர்களுக்கு உற்ற தோழனாய்ப் பேச்சுக் கொடுத்தும் பேணும் ரோபோக்களை நாம் பார்க்கப்போகிறோம்! செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவுள்ள ரோபோக்களால், மனிதர் செய்ய இயலாத, அலுப்புத் தட்டக்கூடிய, கடினமான செயல்களைச் செய்ய முடியும்; மனித முயற்சியில் உயிராபத்தை விளைவிக்கக் கூடிய செயல்களைச் செய்யமுடியும்!

புதிய வணிக வாய்ப்புகளைச் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு நல்குகிறது. பெருநிறுவனங்கள் தங்கள் பொருள்களை உற்பத்தி செய்யவும் சந்தைப்படுத்தவும் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவைப் பயன்படுத்துகின்றன. விடுதிகளில், வங்கிகளில், அலுவலகங்களில் தற்போது மனிதர் அளிக்கும் சேவைகளை ரோபோக்கள் அளிக்கும். மேலும், நம்முடன் உரையாடுவது, ஆலோசனை வழங்குவது, பயண ஏற்பாடு செய்துதருவது, தண்ணீர் கொண்டு வந்து தருவது, உடன் வந்திருக்கும் குழந்தைகளுக்கு வேடிக்கை காட்டுவது எனப் பலவற்றைச் செய்யும்.

எதிர்காலத்தில் நாம் பயணிக்கும் ஊர்திகளைச் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவைக் கொண்டு இயக்கவேண்டியிருக்கும். இத்தகைய ஊர்திகள் ஏற்படுத்தும் விபத்துகள் குறையும்; போக்குவரத்து நெரிசல் இருக்காது. அதன்மூலம் பயண நேரம் குறையும் ; எரிபொருள் மிச்சப்படும். இத்தகைய மென்பொருள்கள் கவிதைகள், கதைகள், விதவிதமான எழுத்து நடைகள் போன்றவற்றைக் கற்றுக்கொண்டு மனிதர்களுடன் போட்டியிட்டாலும் வியப்பதற்கில்லை. கல்வித் துறையில் இத்தொழில் நுட்பத்தைப் பலவிதங்களில் பயன்படுத்தும் சாத்தியக்கூறுகள் இருக்கின்றன.

செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவின் பொதுவான கூறுகள்:
செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு நமது வாழ்க்கையையும் வணிகத்தையும் நம்மை அறியாமலேயே வளப்படுத்திக் கொண்டிருக்கின்றது. இந்தத் தொழில் நுட்பத்தைக் கண்டு அச்சப்பட்டவர்களின் அலறல்களை நாம் எதிர்கொள்வதே முதல் அறைகூவல். ஒவ்வொரு புதிய கண்டுபிடிப்பு அறிமுகமாகும் போதும் பழைய வேலைவாய்ப்புகள் புதிய வடிவில் மாற்றம் பெறுகின்றன. ஆகவே, செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவுத் தொழில்நுட்பம் அளிக்கும் வியக்கத்தக்க நன்மைகளைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளவும் வரவேற்கவும் நாம் தயாராக வேண்டும்.

மனித இனத்தைத் தீங்குகளிலிருந்து காப்பாற்றவும் உடல் நலத்தைப் பேணவும் கொடிய நோய்களைத் தொடக்க நிலையிலேயே கண்டறியவும் மருத்துவம் செய்யும் முறைகளைப் பட்டறிவு மிக்க மருத்துவரைப் போலப் பரிந்துரை செய்யவும் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவைப் பயன்படுத்தும் ஆராய்ச்சிகள் மும்முரமாக நடந்து வருகின்றன.

கல்வியில் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு :
ஒரு காலத்தில் வாழ்க்கையில் முன்னேறுவதற்கு எழுதப் படிக்கத் தெரிந்த கல்வியறிவே போதுமானதாக இருந்தது. இப்போது கல்வியறிவுடன் மின்னணுக் கல்வியறிவையும் மின்னணுச் சந்தைப்படுத்துதலையும் அறிந்திருப்பது வாழ்க்கையை எளிதாக்கவும் வணிகத்தில் வெற்றியடையவும் உதவுகிறது. ஆனால் எதிர்காலத்தில் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு பற்றிய அறிவும் நான்காவது தொழிற்புரட்சியின் தொழில் நுட்பங்களைப் பயன்படுத்தும் அறிவுமே நம்மை வளப்படுத்த உதவும்.

ஆனாலும் முன்னேற்றமே! :
மனிதக் கண்டுபிடிப்புகள் அனைத்திலும் நன்மை, தீமை என்று இரண்டு பக்கங்கள் இருந்தே வந்திருக்கின்றன. அதற்கேற்ப மனிதர்கள் தங்களை மாற்றிக்கொள்வார்கள். இப்போது உலகில் இங்கொன்றும் அங்கொன்றுமாகப் பயன்பாட்டில் இருக்கின்ற செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவுத் தொழில்நுட்பம், எதிர்காலத்தில் உலகின் ஒவ்வொரு துறையிலும் அளவிடற்கரிய முன்னேற்றத்தைத் தரும்.

Question 44.
(அ) குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு ஒரு பக்க அளவில் நாடகம் எழுதுக. மாணவன் – கொக்கைப் போல, கோழியைப் போல – உப்பைப் போல – இருக்க வேண்டும் – கொக்கு காத்திருந்து கிடைக்கும் வாய்ப்பைப் பயன்படுத்திக்கொள்ளும் – குப்பையைக் கிளறினாலும் தனது உணவை மட்டுமே எடுத்துக்கொள்ளும் கோழி – கண்ணுக்குத் தெரியாவிட்டாலும் உப்பின் சுவையை உணரமுடியும் – ஆசிரியர் விளக்கம் – மாணவன் மகிழ்ச்சி
Answer:

காட்சி – 1

இடம் : வகுப்பறை
பங்கு பெறுவோர் : தமிழ் ஆசிரியர் மாணவிகள் (செல்வி, மேரி, பர்வினா) (ஆசிரியர் இலக்கிய மன்றப் போட்டிக்கான தலைப்புகளை அறிவித்தல்) பாகை கலை கள்
மாணவர்கள் : வணக்கம் அம்மா ! ஆசிரியரே!)
ஆசிரியர் : வணக்கம் மாணவிகளே அனைவரும் நலம் தானே உங்களுக்கெல்லாம் ஒரு
மகிழ்ச்சியான செய்தி : சொல்லட்டுமா?
செல்வி : அது என்ன செய்தி ஆசிரியரே ஆர்வமாக இருக்கு கொஞ்சம் விளக்கிக் கூறுங்கள்
ஆசிரியர் : வருகின்ற புதன்கிழமையன்று, இலக்கிய மன்ற விழா நடைபெற இருக்கிறது. அதன் சிறப்பு விருந்தினர் நம் பள்ளி முதல்வர். அந்த விழாவில் சொற்பொழிவில் பங்குபெறும் மாணவிகளுக்குச் சிறப்பு பரிசுகளை நம் முதல்வர் கையால் வழங்குவார்.
மேரி : மிக்க மகிழ்ச்சி ஆசிரியரே அதன் தலைப்புகள் என்ன?
ஆசிரியர் : கொக்கு! கோழி ! உப்பு இவற்றின் சிறப்புத் தன்மைகளை விளக்கிக் கூற வேண்டும். இதைப்பற்றிய கூடுதல் தகவல்களை வீட்டில் உள்ளவர்களிடமும் கேட்டு அறிந்து கொண்டு, போட்டியில் பங்கு பெற்று, பரிசு பெற உங்களை வாழ்த்துகிறேன்.
பர்வின் : நன்றி ஆசிரியரே!
ஆசிரியர் : நாளை தான் கடைசி நாள்! போட்டியில் பங்கு பெறுவோர் பெயர் பட்டியலை கொடுக்கவும்.

காட்சி – 2

இடம் : வீடு
பங்கு பெறுவோர் : மேரி, அப்பா, அம்மா, தாத்தா (மாணவிகள் வீட்டுக்கு சென்று போட்டிக்கான விவரங்களை சேகரித்தல்)
அப்பா : மேரி இன்னைக்கு (இன்றைக்கு என்ன ஆச்சு உனக்கு? பள்ளி முடிந்து வீட்டிற்கு வந்ததிலிருந்து ஏதோ யோசிச்சிட்டே
இருக்கிற? : அது அப்பா ! எங்க பள்ளியிலே இலக்கிய மன்ற விழா நடக்க போகிறது. அதில் சொற்பொழிவு நடத்த எங்க தமிழ் ஆசிரியர் மூன்று தலைப்புகளை
கொடுத்திருக்காங்க அது பற்றிதான் ஒரே யோசனையா இருக்கு அப்பா!
அப்பா : அது என்ன தலைப்பு மேரி?
மேரி : கொக்கு, கோழி, உப்பு இவற்றின் சிறப்புகளைக் கூற வேண்டும் அப்பா.
அப்பா : அவ்வளவு தானே உன் சோகத்தை விடு எனக்குத் தெரிந்த கொக்கின் சிறப்புக்களைக் கூறுகிறேன் கேட்டுக்கோ!
மேரி : சரி அப்பா நீங்க சொல்ல சொல்ல நானும் எழுதிக் கொள்கிறேன்.
அப்பா : கொக்கானது தனக்கு ஏற்ற பெரிய மீன் வரும் வரை ஓடையில், வாடிய நிலையில் இருக்கும், தனக்கு ஏற்ற பெரிய மீன் வருவதை அறிந்தவுடன் விரைந்து தன் கூர்மையான அலகுகளால் கொத்தி எடுக்கும். அதுபோல நாமும் எந்தச் செயலைச் செய்தாலும் காலத்தின் இறப்பை உணர்ந்து விரைந்து செயல்பட வேண்டும். காலத்தின் முக்கியத்துவத்தை உணர்ந்ததால் தான் திருவள்ளுவரும், கொக்கொக்கக் கூம்பும் பருவத்து மற்றதன் குத்தொக்க சீர்த்த இடத்து என்று கூறியுள்ளார்.
மேரி : சிறப்பான செய்திகள் அப்பா
அப்பா : அடுத்த தலைப்பான கோழியின் தன்மைகளைத் தாத்தாவிடம் கேட்டுத் தெரிந்துகொள். அப்பாவிற்கு சில முக்கியமான அலுவலக வேலைக் காரணமாக வெளியே செல்ல வேண்டும் சரியா மேரி.
மேரி : சரி அப்பா ! தாத்தா ! தாத்தா! எனக்குக் கொஞ்சம் கோழியின் பண்புகளைச் சொல்வீங்களா!
தாத்தா : சொல்கிறேன் மேரி குட்டி ! கோழி தனக்கு வேண்டிய உணவினைக் குப்பைமேட்டில் தேடித்தான் உட்கொள்ளும். எல்லாக் குப்பைகளையும் உட்கொள்ளாமல், தனக்கு வேண்டிய உணவினை மட்டுமே உண்ணும் அதைப் போல நாமும், நம் முன்னேற்றத்திற்கான நல்ல செய்திகளை மட்டுமே எடுத்துக் கொண்டு வேண்டாதவற்றை விட்டொழிக்க வேண்டும் மேரி.
மேரி : தாத்தா உண்மையிலேயே நீங்க மிக நல்ல தாத்தா.
அம்மா : மேரி கொஞ்சம் சமையலறைக்கு ஓடி வா! (என்று அம்மா அழைக்க சமையலறைக்கு மேரி செல்கிறாள்)
மேரி : என்னம்மா அவசரம்! அம்மா : அண்ணாச்சி கடைக்குச் சென்று உப்பு வாங்கிக் கொண்டு வா !
மேரி : அம்மா உப்பு என்ற உடனேதான் ஞாபகம் வருது? உப்பின் சிறப்புகள் என்னம்மா?
அம்மா : உப்பில்லா பண்டம் குப்பையிலே’ என்ற பழமொழிக்கேற்பே உணவில் நாம் சுவைத்து உண்ண உப்புதான் முதற்காரணம் ! உப்பு சமையலில் சேர்த்த உடனே தான் இரண்டறக் கலந்து தன் சுவையினைக் கொடுக்கும், அதுபோல நீயும் சமூகப் பணிகளில் மக்களோடு மக்களாகக் கலந்து உன்னால் முடிந்த பயனைநாட்டுக்கும், சமுதாயத்திற்கும் செய்து சிறந்த தொண்டாற்றும் சாதனை பெண்ணாக உயர வேண்டும். சரியா மேரி?!

காட்சி-3

இடம் : பள்ளி (இலக்கிய மன்ற விழா)
பங்கு பெறுவோர் : (தலைமையாசிரியர், தமிழ் ஆசிரியர், மேரி மற்றும் சில மாணவர்கள்) (மேரி இலக்கிய மன்ற விழாவில் பங்கேற்றுத் தலைமையாசிரியர் கையால் பரிசு பெறுதல்)
தமிழ் ஆசிரியர் : இவ்விலக்கிய மன்ற விழாவிற்கு வருகை புரிந்துள்ள தலைமை ஆசிரியரையை வரவேற்று பேச்சுப்போட்டியில் முதலில் பேச ஒன்பதாம் வகுப்பு மாணவி மேரியை அழைக்கிறேன்.
மேரி : அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம்! (என்று கூறி தான் சேகரித்த செய்திகளை எல்லாம் நிரல்பட, சுவைபட அனைவரும் மகிழும் வண்ணம் எடுத்துக் கூறுதல்) [மேரியின் பேச்சுத்திறனைக் கேட்ட அனைவரும் கைகளைத்தட்டி தங்கள் மகிழ்ச்சியினை வெளிப்படுத்துதல்.
தமிழ் ஆசிரியர் : பேச்சுப் போட்டியில் பங்கேற்கப் பெயர்ப் பதிவு செய்துள்ள மாணவிகள் ஒவ்வொருவராக வந்து பேசுங்கள். [போட்டியாளர்கள் அனைவரும் பேசி முடிகின்றனர்)
தலைமையாசிரியர் : இவ்விலக்கிய மன்ற விழாவில் சிறப்பாகப் பேசிய அனைத்து மாணவிகளுக்கும் எனது பாராட்டுகள் ! வாழ்த்துகள்! பரிசு மட்டும் வெற்றியில்லை இம்மேடையில் பேசிய ஒவ்வொருவரும் வெற்றியாளர்களே ! என்றாலும் சிறப்பாகப் பேசி, நம்மை எல்லாம் சிந்திக்கச் செய்த மேரிக்கு இப்பரிசினை அளிப்பதில் நான் மிக்க மகிழ்ச்சியடைகிறேன்.
மேரி : நன்றி ஐயா! [பரிசினைப் பெற்ற பெருமிதத்தில் மேரி வீட்டுக்கு செல்லுதல்]

(அல்லது)
(அ) புயலிலே ஒரு தோணி கதையில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள வருணனைகளும் அடுக்குத் தொடர்களும் ஒலிக்குறிப்பு சொற்களும் புயலில், தோணி படும் பாட்டை எவ்வாறு விவரிக்கின்றன?

முன்னுரை :
1. இந்தோனேசியாவில் மெயின் நகரில் இருந்தபோது இரண்டாம் உலகப்போர் நிகழ்ந்தது.

2. ஆசிரியரின் நேரடி அனுபவங்களோடு கற்பனையும் கலந்த கதைதான் புயலிலே ஒரு தோணி என்னும் புதினம் கடற்பயணத்தில் கண்ட காட்சிகளும் அதன் தொடர்ச்சியாக நடைபெறும் நிகழ்வுகளும் தான் இக்கதைப்பகுதி.

3. தொங்கான் படும்பாடு கொளுத்திக் கொண்டிருந்த வெயில் இமை நேரத்தில் மறைந்துவிட்டது.

4. புழுங்கிற்று. பாண்டியன் எழுந்து போய் அண்ணாந்து பார்த்தான். மேகப் பொதிகள் பரந்து திரண்டு கும்மிருட்டாய் இறுகி நின்றன. அலைகள் எண்ணெய் பூசியவை போல் மொழுமொழுவென நெளிந்தன.

5. காற்றையே காணோம். ஒரே இறுக்கம். எதிர்க்கோடியில் வானையும், கடலையும் மாறிமாறிப் பார்த்தவாறு தலைமை மாலுமி பரபரப்பாகப் பேசிக் கொண்டிருந்தார். மாலுமிகள் திடுமெனப் பாய்மரத்தை நோக்கி ஓடிச்சென்று கட்டுக் கயிறுகளை இறுக்குகிறார்கள். விவரிக்க இயலாத ஓர் உறுத்தல் ஒவ்வோர் உணர்விலும் பட்டது.

6. எல்லோரும் எழுந்து ஒருவர் முகத்தை ஒருவர் பார்த்து மிரண்டு விழித்தனர். திடுமென அமைதி பாய்ந்து வந்து மிரட்டியது. வானும் கடலும் பிரிந்து தனித்துத் தென்பட்டன. பலகை அடைப்புக்குள்ளிருந்து கப்பித்தான் (கேப்டன்) கத்துகிறான்.

7. “ஓடி வாருங்கள் ! இங்கே ஓடி வாருங்கள்” பாண்டியன் எழுந்தான். எங்கெங்கோ இடுக்குகளில் முடங்கிக் கிடந்த உருவங்கள் தலை தூக்கின. தொங்கான் தள்ளாடுகிறது அலைகள் மலைத்தொடர் போன்ற அலைகள் மோதித் தாக்குகின்றன. தட்டுத் தடுமாறி நடந்தோடினர்.

தொங்கானின் நிலை:

• வானும் கடலும் வளியும் மழையும் மீண்டும் ஒன்றுகூடிக் கொந்தளிக்கின்றன.
• வானம் பிளந்து தீ கக்கியது. மழை வெள்ளம் கொட்டுகிறது. வளி முட்டிப் புரட்டுகிறது.
• கடல் வெறிக் கூத்தாடுகிறது.
• கப்பல் நடுநடுங்கித் தாவித் தாவிக் குதிகுதித்து விழுவிழுந்து நொறுநொறு நொறுங்குகிறது.
• முகத்தில் வெள்ளம் உடலில் வெள்ளம். கால் கையில் வெள்ளம்.
• உடை உடலை இறுக்கியிறுக்கி ரம்பமாய் அறுக்கிறது. மரத்தூண்.
• கல்தூண் இரும்புத்தூண், உயிர்த்தூண் கப்பல் தாவி விழுந்து சுழல்கிறது.
• மூழ்கி நீந்துகிறது, தாவி நீந்துகிறது. இருட்டிருட்டு கும்மிருட்டு, குருட்டிருட்டு.
• சிலுசிலு மரமரப்பு இடி முழக்கச் சீனப் பிசாசுகள் தாவி வீசுகின்றன.

தொங்கான் மிதந்து சென்ற காட்சி:

• • மூடைகள் சிப்பங்கள் நீந்தியோடி மறைகின்றன. தொங்கான் குதித்து விழுந்து நொறுநொறு நொறுங்குகிறது.
• சுழன்று கிறுகிறுத்துக் கூத்தாடுகிறது கலவை அடிக்கிறது.
• என்னயிது சூரிய வெளிச்சம் ! சூரியன் சூரியன் சூரியன் கப்பலில் நீர் நெளிகிறது.
• பாய்மரம் ஒடிந்து கிடக்கிறது. கப்பலின் இருபுறமும் பின்னேயும் தேயிலைப் பெட்டிகளும் புகையிலைச் சிப்பங்களும் மிதந்து வருகின்றன.
• பாண்டியன் நாற்புறமும் கடலைப் பார்த்து மலைத்து நின்றான்.
• கடற்கூத்து எவ்வளவு நேரம் நீடித்ததென்று கணக்கிட முடியவில்லை.
• தொடங்கியபோதோ, முடிந்தபோதோ முடிந்து வெகுநேரம் வரையிலோ யாரும் கடிகாரத்தைப் பார்க்கவில்லை.
• பார்த்தபோது எல்லாக் கடிகாரங்கள் நின்று போயிருந்தன.
• இனிமேல் பயமில்லை இரண்டு நாளில் கரையைப் பார்க்கலாம்.
• அன்றிறவு யாரும் உண்ணவில்லை பேச்சாடவில்லை.

முடிவுரை:

• கடற்கூத்துக்குப் பின் ஐந்தாம் நாள் மாலையில் வானொடு வானாய் கடலோடு கடலை மரப்பச்சை தெரிவது போலிருந்து அடுத்த நாள் முற்பகலால் பினாங்குத் துறைமுகத்தை அணுகினார்கள்.
• தொங்கான் கரையை நெருங்கிப் போய் நின்றது.

Question 45.
(அ) இந்தியாவின் கணினிப் புரட்சி – எனும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை ஒன்று எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
உலக நாடுகளிடையே இந்தியாவும் முன்னேற்ற மடைந்த வளர்ச்சியுற்ற நாடாக வேண்டும். இக்கனவு நனவாகுமா? இதற்குப் பாரதம் பல துறைகளிலும் நன்கு உழைக்க வேண்டும். அவற்றுள் ஒன்றுதான் கணினிப் புரட்சி. உலக நாடுகள் அனைத்தும் கணினித் துறையில் வளர்ந்த அளவிற்கு நாமும் உயர வேண்டும் என்ற எண்ணம் தான் 1984இல் கணினியைக் கொணர்ந்தோம். அன்றைய பிரதமர் திரு. ராஜீவ் காந்தி அவர்கள் கணினிக்கு முக்கியத்துவம் கொடுத்து முதலிடம் அளித்தார்.

பாரதத்தில் கணினியின் வளர்ச்சி :
முதன் முதலாக மும்பையிலுள்ள டாடா ஆய்வு மையம் தான் 1966இல் கணினியை செயல்படத் தொடங்கியது. நம் நாட்டிலுள்ள மின்னியல் கழகம் கணினிகளை வாணிக நோக்குடன் தயாரிக்கத் தொடங்கியது. மின்னியல் துறையில் ஒரு புரட்சி ஏற்பட்டது. அப்போதைய பிரதமர் திரு ராஜீவ் காந்தி அவர்கள் இந்தியாவிற்கு நல்ல எதிர்காலம் நல்கும் என வலியுறுத்தினார். வேலையில்லாத் திண்டாட்டத்திற்கு முற்றுப்புள்ளி வைக்கும் அளவிற்கு மின்னியல் துறையை வளர்த்தார். தற்போது நல்ல அடிப்படையுடன் கணினித் துறை பல துறைகளிலும் நிலைபெற்று விட்டது.

கணினியின் பயன்கள் :
மக்கள் சபையிலும், மாநில சட்ட மன்றங்களிலும் கூட கணினி பயன்படுகிறது. தேர்தல் முடிவுகளை உடனுக்குடன் அறிவிப்பதிலும், வானொலி, தொலைக்காட்சி நிகழ்ச்சிகளைத் தயாரிப்பதிலும் கணினித் தொழில் நுட்பம் அங்கம் வகிக்கிறது. எல்லா மாநிலத் தலைநகரங்களிலும், மாவட்டத் தலைநகரங்களிலும் கணினி மயமாக்கப்பட்டுவிட்டது. போர்க்கால அடிப்படையில் வங்கிகள் யாவும் கணினியை ஏற்றுக்

கொண்டுவிட்டன. தேசிய மயமாக்கப்பட்ட வங்கிகளைக் கணினியைக் கொண்டு கண்காணிக்க உதவுகிறது. தேசிய காப்பீட்டுக் கழகம் பெரிய அளவில் கணினி மயமாக்கப்பட்டு விட்டது.

பிறதுறைகளில் கணினி :
போக்குவரத்துத் துறையான விமான, இரயில் துறைகளில் இருக்கை முன்பதிவு செய்யவும், அவற்றைக் கட்டுப்பாட்டுக்குள் செயல்படவும் கணினி பயன்படுகிறது. குற்றவாளிகளைக் கண்டு பிடிக்கக் கூடிய முறைகள் கையாளப்படுகின்றன. மருத்துவத் துறையில் இரத்தப் பரிசோத ருத்துவத் துறையில் இரத்தப் பரிசோதனை, இருதய ஆய்வு, அறுவைச் சிகிச்சையிலும் கூட குறிப்பிடத்தக்க அளவில் பயன்படுத்தப்படுகிற.

கல்வி நிலையங்களிளும் கணினி :
வணிகம், தொழில், தபால், தந்தி போன்ற பல துறைகளிலும் கணினி புரட்சி ஏற்பட்டு விட்டது. கல்வி நிலையங்களில், பல்கலைக் கழகங்களில் கல்வி மேம்பாட்டுப் பணிகளைச் செய்து விடுகிறது. பலரும் கணினி பற்றிய கல்வி நிலையங்களைத் துவங்கி பட்டம் பட்டமேற்படிப்பு என வகைப்படுத்தி இந்தியாவில் அனைவருமே கணினி பற்றிய கல்வி நிலையங்களைத் துவங்கி பட்டம் பட்ட மேற்படிப்பு என வகைப்படுத்தி இந்தியாவில் அனைவருமே கணினி அறிவு பெற்றுத் திகழ வாய்ப்பினை ஏற்படுத்தி விட்டது. இதன்மூலம் நம் நாட்டு இளைஞர்கள் மேனாடுகளில் சென்று வேலைவாய்ப்பு பெற்று நிரம்பப் பொருளீட்டும் வாய்ப்பும் பெற்றுள்ளனர். கணினித் தொழில் நுட்பம் செய்திகளை அனுப்பவும், தொலை தூர நாடுகளிடையே தொடர்பு ஏற்படுத்தவும் பெரிதும் உதவுகிறது. கல்வி நிலையங்களில் கணினி ஒரு பாடத் திட்டமாக அமைந்துள்ளது. தற்கால இளைஞர்கள் கணினியை விரும்பிக் கற்று புரட்சி ஏற்படுத்துவதில் முனைந்துவிட்டனர்.

முடிவுரை:
கணினித்துறை, நம் நாட்டின் எதிர்காலத்தில் மிக விரைவாகவும், திறமையாகவும் செயல்படும் என்பதில் ஐயமில்லை. பாரதத்தின் தொழில் வளர்ச்சிக்கேற்ப கணினித் துறை பெருமளவில் வளர்ச்சி பெறுவது இயற்கை நியதிகளில் ஒன்றாகிவிடும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று வரைக.
முன்னுரை – முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் – நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல் – குறைபாடுகள் – திட்டம் – நன்மைகள் – முடிவுரை.
தேசிய நதி நீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டம்

முன்னுரை:
21 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் மிகப்பெரிய பிரச்சினையாக உருவெடுப்பது தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையாகும். இதனைத் தீர்க்க தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையைச் சமாளிக்க நதிகளை இணைக்க வேண்டும் என்பது பல்லாண்டுகளாகப் பேசப்பட்டு வருவதொன்றாகும். இதற்கு ஓராண்டில் 56 கோடி ரூபாய் செலவாகும் என்று திட்டமிடப்படுகிறது.

முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் :
ஆயிரம் கிலோ மீட்டர் நீளத்திற்குக் கால்வாய்கள் அமைத்து 30 நதிகளை அடுத்த இரண்டு ஆண்டுகளில் ஒன்றாக இணைக்கலாம். 10 ஆயிரம் மெகா வாட் மின்சாரம் எடுக்க முடியும் 11 ஆயிரம் கியூ செக்ஸ் நீர் தேவைப்படும். இதற்கு 400 புதிய நீர்நிலைகள் அமைக்கப்பட்டு நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டத்தைச் செயல்படுத்த எந்த இடத்தின் வழியாகக் கால்வாய் அமைத்தால் பயனுள்ளதாக அமையும் எனத் திட்டமிட வேண்டும். மகாந்தி, கோதாவரி ஆகிய நதிகளில் நீர் அதிகம் உள்ளது. ஆனால் வல்லுநர்களிடையே விவாதம் நடத்தி முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் ஏற்பட வேண்டும்.

நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல் :
மழைக் காலங்களில் வட இந்தியாவில் பாயும் பல நதிகளில் வெள்ள அபாயம் ஏற்படுகிறது. இதைத் தடுக்க வேண்டுமானால், கால்வாய்கள் வெட்டி அந்நீரை ஒருநிலைப்படுத்த வேண்டும். இதற்காக வெட்டப்படும் கால்வாய்கள் மூலம் ஏராளமான தொழிலாளர்களுக்கு வேலை கிடைப்பதுடன் கூடுதல் வருவாயும் கிடைக்கும். அதிகமாகக் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீரைச் சேமித்து வைக்கத் தேவையான திட்டங்கள் நிறைவேற்றப்படவேண்டும். இந்தியாவில் வறட்சி ஏற்படும் பெரும்பாலான பகுதிகளில் நீர் தேவையை எளிதாகச் சமாளிக்க முடியும்.

குறைபாடுகள் :
தமிழகத்தில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகள் இல்லாத காரணத்தால் மழைக்காலங்களில் மட்டுமே இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் நீர் பெறமுடியும். காவிரி டெல்டா பகுதியிலுள்ள நிலத்தடி நீர்வளம், குடிநீருக்கு ஆதாரமாக உள்ளது. இதனால் இப்பகுதிகளில் தண்ணீருக்காகக் கிணறுகள் தோண்ட வேண்டிய நிலை உள்ளது. இந்நிலையில் வற்றாத ஜீவந்திகளான கிருஷ்ணா, கோதாவரி, மகாந்தி போன்ற தென்னிந்திய நதிகளை தமிழகத்தின் நதிகளோடு இணைத்தால் மட்டுமே ஆண்டு முழுவதும் நீர்வளம் குறையாமல் இருக்கும். இன்றைய நிலையில் பல கடைக்கோடி கிராமங்களில் வசிக்கும் மக்களுக்குச் சராசரி இரண்டு லிட்டர் குடிநீர் கூடக் கிடைப்பதில்லை.

மூன்று நீர்வழித்திட்டம்:
மூன்று நீர்வழிகளைக் கொண்டதாக இத்திட்டம் அமைக்கப்பட்டு ஒன்றன் பின் ஒன்றாக நிறைவேற்றலாம்.

• இமயமலை நீர்வழி. இது கங்கை பிரம்மபுத்திரா நதிகளை இணைக்கும்.
• மத்திய நீர்வழி : கங்கை, மகாந்தி, தபதி ஆகிய நதிகளை இணைக்கிறது.
• தென்னக நீர்வழி: இது கோதாவரி, கிருஷ்ணா, காவிரி மற்றும் கேரள நதிகளை.

இணைக்கும் இந்நீர்நிலைகள் 120 மீட்டர் அகலமும் 10 மீட்டர் ஆழமும் கொண்டதாக இருக்கும். இவை உரிய வழியில் ஒன்றுடன் ஒன்று இணைக்கும். நீர் சேமிப்பு போக்குவரத்து மற்றும் நீரைப் பல்வேறு நதிகளில் பகிர்ந்தளித்தல் போன்ற பல நன்மைகளைக் கொண்டதாக விளங்கும்.

நன்மைகள் :
மழைக்காலங்களில் ஏற்படும் கட்டுப்படுத்த முடியாத வெள்ளத்தை இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் கட்டுப்படுத்தலாம். இதனால் அசாம், பீகார், உத்தரப் பிரதேசம், மேற்கு வங்கம் போன்ற மாநிலங்களில் ஏற்படும் அபாய வெள்ள அளவைக் குறைக்கலாம்.

வெள்ளத்தினால் ஏற்படும் பாதிப்பு குறைந்து வெள்ள நிவாரணப் பணிக்கு ஒதுக்கப்படும் தொகையும் வெகுவாகக் குறையும். அனைத்து முக்கிய நகரங்களுக்கும், கிராமங்களுக்கும் போதுமான குடிநீர் வசதியை ஆண்டு முழுவதும் வழங்க முடியும்.

முடிவுரை:
தேவையான அளவு நீர்வள மேலாண்மைத் திட்டங்கள் செயல்படுத்தாத காரணத்தால் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீர் அனைத்தும் கடலில் வீணாகக் கலந்து நாட்டில் நீர்ப் பற்றாக்குறை ஏற்பட்டு உழல்கிறோம். அதனால் தேசிய நதிகளை இணைத்து சிறந்த முறையில் சுற்றுச் சூழலைப் பாதுகாத்து வாழ்வோம்.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Inner most layer of anther wall is _________.
(a) Endothecium
(b) Endothelium
(c) Epithelium
(d) Tapetum
Answer:
(d) Tapetum

Question 2.
Test cross involves ______.
(a) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
(b) Crossing between two F₁ hybrids
(c) Crossing between F₁ hybrid with double recessive genotype
(d) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
Answer:
(c) Crossing between F₁ hybrid with double recessive genotype

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Gamma rays are generally used to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
Reason (R): Because they carry lower energy to non-ionize electrons from atom.
(a) A is correct. R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct. R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct. R is wrong explanation of A
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct. R is wrong explanation of A

Question 4.
Self-ligation is prevented by ________.
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Helicase
(c) Alkaline phosphate
(d) DNA lipase
Answer:
(c) Alkaline phosphate

Question 5.
Match the following:


Answer:
(a) 1- C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Question 6.
A Specific place in an ecosystem, where an organism lives and performs its functions is ______.
(a) habitat
(b) niche
(c) landscape
(d) biome
Answer:
(b) niche

Question 7.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Endemism – Species confined to a given region and not found anywhere else.
(b) Hotspots – Western ghats
(c) Ex-situ conservation – Zoological parks
(d) Sacred groves – Saintri hills of Rajasthan
(e) Alien species of India – Water hyacinth
Answer:
(d) Sacred groves – Saintri hills of Rajasthan

Question 8.
The plant source of Marijuana is ______.
(a) Andrographis paniculata
(b) Phyllanthus maderspatesis
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Papaver somniferum
Answer:
(c) Cannabis sativa

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
‘Pollination in Gymnosperms in different from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.
Answer:
In gymnosperms, the ovules are exposed and the pollens are deposited directly on it. Hence the pollination is direct in gymnosperm. Whereas in angiosperms it is said to be indirect, as the pollens are deposited on stigma or the pistil.

Question 10.
A B C C B D E F G H I
From the above figure identify the type of mutation and explain it.
Answer:
In reverse tandem duplication, the duplicated segment is located immediately after the normal segment but the gene sequence other will be reversed.

Question 11.
Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture.
Answer:
Step 1: Growing of cells/callus in medium (single or aggregates)
Step 2: Transfer of callus to a liquid medium
Step 3: Agitation of callus using rotary shaker
Step 4: Filtration and separation of cells.

Question 12.
Pyramid of energy is always upright. Give reasons.
Answer:
The energy pyramid represents a successive energy flow at each trophic level in an ecosystem. There is a gradual decrease in energy transfer at successive tropic levels from producers to higher levels, hence the pyramid of energy is always upright.

Question 13.
Write in brief about Atomic Garden.
Answer:
Atomic Garden: Is a form of mutation breeding where plants are exposed to radioactive sources typically cobalt-60 or caesium-137 in order to generate desirable mutation in crop plants.

Question 14.
Explain the law of dominance in monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Law of dominance states that the offsprings of an individual with contrasting (dissimilar) traits will only express the dominant trait in F₁ generation and both the characters are expressed in F₁ generation. This law also explains the proportion of 3 : 1 ratio in F₂ generation.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Give an account on cytoplasmic inheritance
Answer:
DNA is the universal genetic material. Genes located in nuclear chromosomes follow Mendelian inheritance. But certain traits are governed either by the chloroplast or mitochondrial genes. This phenomenon is known as extra nuclear inheritance. It is a kind of Non-Mendelian inheritance. Since it involves cytoplasmic organelles such as chloroplast and mitochondrion that act as inheritance vectors, it is also called Cytoplasmic inheritance.

Question 16.
How will you identify a vector?
Answer:

1. Vectors are able to replicate autonomously to produce multiple copies of them along with their DNA insert in the host cell.
2. It should be small in size and of low molecular weight, less than 10 Kb (kilo base pair) in size so that entry/transfer into host cell is easy.
3. Vector must contain an origin of replication so that it can independently replicate within the host.
4. It should contain a suitable marker such as antibiotic resistance, to permit its detection in transformed host cell.
5. Vector should have unique target sites for integration with DNA insert and should have the ability to integrate with DNA insert it carries into the genome of the host cell. Most of the commonly used cloning vectors have more than one restriction site. These are Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) or polylinker. Presence of MCS facilitates the use of restriction enzyme of choice.

Question 17.
What is Albedo effect? Write its effects.
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire, SO₂ and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 18.
Ozone acts as a natural sun screen- Justify.
Answer:
Ozone depletion in the stratosphere results in more UV radiations especially UV B radiations (shortwaves). UV B radiation destroys biomolecules (skin ageing) and damages living tissues. UV – C is the most damaging type of UV radiation, but it is completely filtered by the atmosphere (ozone layer). UV – a contribute 95% of UV radiation which causes tanning burning of skin and enhancing skin cancer. Hence the uniform ozone layer is critical for the well being of life on earth.

Question 19.
Which is called as “The King of Bitters”? Mention their medicinal importance.
Answer:
Andrographis paniculata is called as King of Bitters. Andrographis is a potent hepatoprotective agent and is widely used to treat liver disorders. Concoction of Andrographis paniculata and eight other herbs (Nilavembu Kudineer) is effectively used to treat malaria and dengue.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) With a suitable diagram, explain the structure of an ovule.
Answer:
Structure of ovule(Megasporangium):

Ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by one or two covering called integuments. Amature ovule consists of a stalk and a body. The stalk or the funiculus (also called funicle) is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta. The point of attachment of funicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum. It represents the junction between ovule and funicle. In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called raphe.

The body of the ovule is made up of a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials. The nucellus is enveloped by one or two protective coverings called integuments. Integument encloses the nucellus completely except at the top where it is free and forms a pore called micropyle. The ovule with one or two integuments are said to be unitegmic or bitegmic ovules respectively.

The basal region of the body of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle meet or merge is called as chalaza. There is a large, oval, sac-like structure in the nucellus toward the Raphe micropylar end called embryo sac or female \ gametophyte. It develops from the functional \ megaspore formed within the nucellus. In some species(unitegmic tenuinucellate) the inner layer of the integument may become specialized to perform the nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum (Example : Asteraceae).

[OR]

(b) List out the significance of ploidy.
Answer:

1. Many polyploids are more vigorous and more adaptable than diploids.
2. Many ornamental plants are autotetraploids and have larger flower and longer flowering duration than diploids.
3. Autopolyploids usually have increase in fresh weight due to more water content.
4. Aneuploids are useful to determine the phenotypic effects of loss or gain of different chromosomes.
5. Many angiosperms are allopolyploids and they play a role in an evolution of plants.

Question 21.
(a) Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Basic concepts of plant tissue culture are totipotency, differentiation, dedifferentiation and redifferentiation.

Totipotency: The property of live plant cells that they have the genetic potential when cultured in nutrient medium to give rise to a complete individual plant.

Differentiation: The process of biochemical and structural changes by which cells become specialized in form and function.

Redifferentiation: The further differentiation of already differentiated cell into another type of cell. For example, when the component cells of callus have the ability to form a whole plant in a nutrient medium, the phenomenon is called redifferentiation.

Dedifferentiation: The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is called dedifferentiation. These two phenomena of redifferentiation and dedifferentiation are the inherent capacities of living plant cells or tissue. This is described as totipotency.

[OR]

(b) Write a comparative note on Carbon Foot Print (CFP)
Answer:
Every human activity leaves a mark just like our footprint. This Carbon foot print is the total amount of green house gases produced by human activities such as agriculture, industries, deforestation, waste disposal, buring fossil fuels directly or indirectly. It can be measured for an individual, family, organisation like industries, state level or national level. It is usually estimated and expressed in equivalent tons of CO₂ per year.

The burning of fossil fuels releases CO₂ and other green house gases. In turn these emissions trap solar energy and thus increase the global temperature resulting in ice melting, submerging of low lying areas and inbalance in nature like cyclones, tsunamis and extreme weather conditions. To reduce the carbon foot print we can follow some practices like

• Eating indigenous fruits and products
• Reduce use of your electronic devices
• Reduce travelling
• Do not buy fast and preserved, processed, packed foods
• Plant a garden
• Less consumption of meat and sea food. Poultry requires little space, nutrients and less pollution comparing cattle farming
• reduce use of Laptops (when used for 8 hours, it releases nearly 2 kg. of CO₂ annually)
• Line dry your clothes.

(Example: If you buy imported fruit like kiwi, indirectly it increases CFP. How? The fruit has travelled a long distance in shipping or airliner thus emitting tons of CO₂)

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Match the following:


Answer:
(a) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A

Question 2.
The male sex hormone testosterone is secreted from ___________.
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Epididymis
(d) Prostate gland
Answer:
(b) Leydig cells

Question 3.
Select the incorrect action of hormonal contraceptive pills from the following
(a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis
(b) Inhibition of ovulation
(c) Changes in cervical mucus impairing its ability to allow passage and transport of sperm
(d) Alteration in uterine endometrium to make it unsustainable for implantation
Answer:
(a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis

Question 4.
Father of a child is colour blind and mother is carrier for colour blindness, the possibility of the child being colour blind is ________.
(a) 25 %
(b) 50%
(c) 100 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events with reference to the central dogma?
(a) Transcription, Translation, Replication
(b) Transcription, Replication, Translation
(c) Duplication, Translation, Transcription
(d) Replication, Transcription, Translation
Answer:
(d) Replication, Transcription, Translation

Question 6.
Who proposed the Germplasm theory?
(a) August Weismann
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Alfred Wallace
Answer:
(a) August Weismann

Question 7.
AIDS virus has ________.
(a) Single stranded RNA
(b) Single stranded DNA
(c) Double stranded RNA
(d) Double stranded DNA
Answer:
(c) Double stranded RNA

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Streptomycin is an antibiotic
Reason (R): Antibiotics are microbial products inhibits the growth of pathogenic microbe.
(a) A is right, R is wrong
(b) R explain A
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A and R are right. R does not explain A
Answer:
(b) R explain A

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is inhibin? State its functions.
Answer:
Inhibin is a hormone secreted by Sertoli cells of testes which is involved in the negative feedback control of sperm production.

Question 10.
Define criss-cross inheritance.
Answer:
Inheritance of genes from a male parent to female child and then to male grandchild or female parent to male child and then to female grandchild, eg., X-linked gene inheritance.

Question 11.
How does mutation theory of De vries differ from lamarck and Darwins view in the origin of new species.
Answer:
According to de Vries, sudden and large variations were responsible for the origin of new species, whereas Lamarck and Darwin believed in gradual accumulation of all variations as the causative factors in the origin of new species.

Question 12.
What is biological oxygen demand?
Answer:
The BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand or Biological oxygen demand). BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed, if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. The greater the BOD of the waste water more is its polluting potential.

Question 13.
Differentiate between Eurytherms and Stenotherms.
Answer:

Eurytherms	Stenotherms
Organism that can tolerate wide range of temperature. eg: Human beings	Organism that can tolerate narrow range of temperature. eg: Fish

Question 14.
Name the secondary pollutant in photochemical smog. Mention the adverse effect.
Answer:
Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary pollutant present in photochemical smog. It is thermally unstable and decomposes into peroxy ethanol radicals and nitrogen dioxide gas causing eye irritation.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is amniocentesis? Why a statutory ban is imposed on this technique?
Answer:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal technique used to detect any chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus and it is being often misused to determine the sex of the foetus. Once the sex of the foetus is known, there may be a chance of female foeticide. Hence, a statutory ban on amniocentesis is imposed.

Question 16.
DNA acts as genetic material for majority of living organisms and not the RNA. Give reasons to support the statement.
Answer:

1. RNA was reactive and hence highly unstable.
2. Some RNA molecules acts as gene regulators by binding to DNA and affect gene expression.
3. Uracil of RNA is less stable than thymine of DNA.

Question 17.
Draw and lable the structure of Immunoglobulin
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain how “Rosie” is different from a normal cow.
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein enriched milk, which contained the human alpha lactalbumin (2.4 gm. /litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 19.
Extinction of a keystone species led to loss of biodiversity – Justify.
Answer:
A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without the keystone species a particular ecosystem would be dramatically disturbed or even ceased. Keystone species either directly or indirectly affects every species in a particular ecosystem. If a keystone species is lost or removed no other organism would compensate its ecological niche.

eg: Jaguar is a keystone species. As a top predator, it plays a crucial role in ecosystem. Without jaguar there is an exponential increase in herbivoral population that would decimate the plants of the ecosystem. At one point even the herbivore populations also get declined due to the lack of vegetation. Thus jaguar acts a keystone species.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Define menstrual cycle. Explain its various phase.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The menstrual or ovarian cycle occurs approximately once in every 28/29 days during the reproductive life of the female from menarche (puberty) to menopause except during pregnancy. The cycle of events starting from one menstrual period till the next one is called the menstrual cycle during which cyclic changes occurs in the endometrium, every month. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase.

Menstrual cycle comprises of the following phases

1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular or proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal or secretory phase

1. Menstrual phase: The cycle starts with the menstrual phase when menstrual flow occurs and lasts for 3-5 days. Menstrual flow is due to the breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus, and its blood vessels due to decline in the level of progesterone and oestrogen. Menstruation occurs only if the released ovum is not fertilized. Absence of menstruation may be an indicator of pregnancy. However it could also be due to stress, hormonal disorder and anaemia.

2. Follicular or proliferative phase: The follicular phase extends from the 5th day of the cycle until the time of ovulation. During this phase, the primary follicle in the ovary grows to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously, the endometrium regenerates through proliferation.

These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by the secretion of gonadotropins like FSH and LH, which increase gradually during the follicular phase. It stimulates follicular development and secretion of oestrogen by the follicle cells.

3. Ovulatory phase: Both LH and FSH attain peak level in the middle of the cycle (about the 14^th day). Maximum secretion of LH during the mid cycle called LH surge induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of the ovum (secondary oocyte) from the ovary wall into the peritoneal cavity. This process is called as ovulation.

4. Luteal or secretory phase: During luteal phase, the remaining part of the Graafian follicle is transformed into a transitory endocrine gland called corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. If fertilization takes place, it paves way for the implantation of the fertilized ovum. The uterine wall secretes nutritious fluid in the uterus for the foetus. So, this phase is also called as secretory phase.

During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates completely and leaves a scar tissue called corpus albicans. It also initiates the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking the next cycle. ,

[OR]

(b) Write the salient features of genetic code.
Answer:
The salient features of genetic code are as follows:

1. The genetic codon is a triplet code and 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acid and function as stop codon (Termination).

2. The genetic code is universal. It means that all known living systems use nucleic acids and the same three base codons (triplet codon) direct the synthesis of protein from amino acids. For example, the mRNA (UUU) codon codes for phenylalanine in all cells of all organisms. Some exceptions are reported in prokaryotic, mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes. However similarities are more common than differences.

3. A non-overlapping codon means that the same letter is not used for two different codons. For instance, the nucleotide sequence GUU and GUC represents only two codons. .

4. It is comma less, which means that the message would be read directly from one end to the other i.e., no punctuation are needed between two codes. .

5. A degenerate code means that more than one triplet codon could code for a specific amino acid. For example, codons GUU, GUC, GUA and GUG code for valine.

6. Non-ambiguous code means that one codon will code for one amino acid.

7. The code is always read in a fixed direction i.e., from 5’ → 3’ direction called polarity.

8. AUG has dual functions. It acts as a initiator codon and also codes for the amino acid methionine.

9. UAA, UAG (tyrosine) and UGA (tryptophan) codons are designated as termination (stop) codons and also are known as “non-sense” codons.

Question 21.
(a) Suggest some of the ways to prevent drug and alcohol abuse.
Answer:
1. Effectively dealing with peer pressure:
The biggest reason for teens to start on drugs is due to their friends / peer groups imposing pressure on them. Hence, it is important to have a better group of friends to avoid such harmful drugs and alcohol.

2. Seeking help from parents and peers:
Help from parents and peer group should be sought immediately so that they can be guided appropriately. Help may even be sought from close and trusted friends. Getting proper advice to sort out their problems would help the young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.

3. Education and counselling:
Education and counselling create positive attitude to deal with many problems and to accept disappointments in life.

4. Looking for danger signs:
Teachers and parents need to look for sign that indicate tendency to go in for addiction.

5. Seeking professional and medical assistance:
Assistance is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes to help individuals to overcome their problems.

[OR]

(b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of cloning.
Answer:

1. Offers benefits for clinical trials and medical research. It can help in the production of
   proteins and drugs in the field of medicine.
2. Aids stem cell research.
3. Animal cloning could help to save endangered species.
4. Animal and human activists see it as a threat to biodiversity saying that this alters evolution which will have an impact on populations and the ecosystem.
5. The process is tedious and very expensive.
6. It can cause animals to suffer.
7. Reports show that animal surrogates were manifesting adverse outcomes and cloned animals were affected with disease and have high mortality rate.
8. It might compromise human health through consumption of cloned animal meat.
9. Cloned animals age faster than normal animals and are less healthy than the parent organism as discovered in Dolly
10. Cloning can lead to occurrence of genetic disorders in animals.
11. More than 90% of cloning attempts fail to produce a viable offspring.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 15 Data Manipulation Through SQL Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Data Manipulation Through SQL

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is an organized collection of data?
(a) Database
(b) DBMS
(c) Information
(d) Records
Answer:
(a) Database

Question 2.
SQLite falls under which database system?
(a) Flat file database system
(b) Relational Database system
(c) Hierarchical database system
(d) Object oriented Database system
Answer:
(b) Relational Database system

Question 3.
Which of the following is a control structure used to traverse and fetch the records of the database?
(a) Pointer
(b) Key
(c) Cursor
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(c) Cursor

Question 4.
Any changes made in the values of the record should be saved by the command
(a) Save
(b) Save As
(c) Commit
(d) Oblige
Answer:
(c) Commit

Question 5.
Which of the following executes the SQL command to perform some action?
(a) Execute( )
(b) Key( )
(c) Cursor( )
(d) run( )
Answer:
(a) Execute( )

Question 6.
Which of the following function retrieves the average of a selected column of rows in a table?
(a) Add( )
(b) SUM( )
(c) AVG( )
(d) AVERAGE( )
Answer:
(c) AVG( )

Question 7.
The function that returns the largest value of the selected column is ……………………………
(a) MAX( )
(b) LARGE( )
(c) HIGH( )
(d) MAXIMUM( )
Answer:
(a) MAX( )

Question 8.
Which of the following is called the master table?
(a) sqlite master
(b) sqlmaster
(c) main_master
(d) master_main
Answer:
(a) sqlite master

Question 9.
The most commonly used statement in SQL is
(a) cursor
(b) select
(c) execute
(d) commit
Answer:
(b) select

Question 10.
Which of the following clause avoid the duplicate?
(a) Distinct
(b) Remove
(c) Where
(d) GroupBy
Answer:
(a) Distinct

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Mention the users who uses the Database?
Answer:
Users of database can be human users, other programs or applications.

Question 2.
Which method is used to connect a database? Give an example?
Answer:
Step 1: create a connection using connect () method and pass the name of the database File
Connecting to a database in step 2 means passing the name of the database to be accessed. If the database already exists the connection will open the same. Otherwise, Python will open a new database file with the specified name.
# connecting to the database
connection = sqlite3.connect (“Academy.db”)

Question 3.
What is the advantage of declaring a column as “INTEGER PRIMARY KEY”?
Answer:
If a column of a table is declared to be an INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, then whenever a NULL . will be used as an input for this column, the NULL will be automatically converted into an integer which will one larger than the highest value so far used in that column. If the table is empty, the value 1 will be used.

Question 4.
Write the command to populate record in a table. Give an example?
Answer:
To populate (add record) the table “INSERT” command is passed to SQLite. “execute” method executes the SQL command to perform some action. In most cases, you will not literally insert data into a SQL table. You will rather have a lot of data inside of some Python data type e.g. a dictionary or a list, which has to be used as the input of the insert statement.

Question 5.
Which method is used to fetch all rows from the database table?
Answer:
Displaying all records using fetchall( )
The fetchall( ) method is used to fetch all rows from the database table
result = cursor.fetchall( )

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is SQLite?What is it advantage?
Answer:

1. SQLite is a simple relational database system, which saves its data in regular data files or even in the internal memory of the computer.
2. It is designed to be embedded in applications, instead of using a separate database server program such as MySQLor Oracle.
3. SQLite is fast, rigorously tested, and flexible, making it easier to work. Python has a native library for SQLite.

Question 2.
Mention the difference between fetchone( ) and fetchmany( )
Displaying A record using fetchone( )
Answer:
The fetchone( ) method returns the next row of a query result set or None in case there is no row left.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3 ,connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT * FROM student”)
print(“\nfetch one:”)
res = cursor. fetchone( )
print(res)
OUTPUT
fetch one:
(1, ‘Akshay’, ’B’, ’M’, 87.8, ‘2001-12-12’)
Displayingusing fetchmany( )
Displaying specified number of records is done by using fetchmany( ). This method returns the next number of rows (n) of the result set.
Example : Program to display the content of tuples using fetchmany( )
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(” Academy, db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT * FROM student”)
print(“fetching first 3 records:”)
result= cursor. fetchmany(3)
print( result)
OUTPUT
fetching first 3 records:
[ (1, ‘Akshay’, ’B’, ‘M’, 87.8, ‘2001-12-12’), (2, ‘Aravind’, ‘A’, ’M’, 92.5, ‘2000-08-17’), (3, ‘BASKAR’, ‘C, TVT, 75.2, ‘1998-05-17’)]

Question 3.
What is the use of Where Clause.Give a python statement Using the where clause?
Answer:
The WHERE clause is used to extract only .those records that fulfill a specified condition. In this example we are going to display the different grades scored by male students from “student table” import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT DISTINCT (Grade) FROM student where gender=’M'”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(‘B’,)
(‘A’,)
(‘C’,)
(‘D’,)

Question 4.
Read the following details.Based on that write a python script to display department wise records
database name:- organization.db
Table name:- Employee
Columns in the table:- Eno, EmpName, Esal, Dept
Display departmentwise records: import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“organization.db”)
c = conn.execute(“select * from Employee group by dept”)
for row in c:
print(row)
conn.close( )
Output:
(1000, ‘Ram’, 5000, ’Mech’)
(2000, ‘Hari’, 6500, ‘Mech’)
(1127, ’Vijay’, 10,000, ’cs )
(1130,’Raja’, 11,000,’cs’)

Question 5.
Read the following details.Based on that write a python script to display records in
desending order of
Eno
database name:- organization.db
Table name:- Employee
Columns in the table:- Eno, EmpName, Esal, Dept
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“organizatoin.db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“select * from Employee order by Eno Desc”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(result).
Output:
(2000, ‘Hari’, 6500, ‘Mech’)
(1130, ‘Raja’, 11,000, ‘cs’)
(1127, ‘Vijay’, 10,000, ‘cs’)
(1000, ‘Ram’, 5000, ‘Mech’)

PART – IV
Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief about SQLite and the steps used to use it?
Answer:
SQLite is a simple relational database system, which saves its data in regular data files or even in the internal memory of the computer. It is designed to be embedded in applications, instead of using a separate database server program such as MySQLor Oracle. SQLite is fast, rigorously tested, and flexible, making it easier to work. Python has a native library for SQLite. To use SQLite,
Step 1 import sqliteS
Step 2 create a connection using connect ( ) method and pass the name of the database File
Step 3 Set the cursor object cursor = connection.cursor( )

1. Connecting to a database in step2 means passing the name of the database to be accessed. If the database already exists the connection will open the same. Otherwise, Python will open a new database file with the specified name.
2. Cursor in step 3: is a control structure used to traverse and fetch the records of the database.
3. Cursor has a major role in working with Python. All the commands will be executed using cursor object only.

To create a table in the database, create an object and write the SQL command in it.
Example:- sql_comm = “SQL statement”
For executing the command use the cursor method and pass the required sql command as a parameter. Many number of commands can be stored in the sql comm and can be executed one after other. Any changes made in the values of the record should be saved by the command “Commit” before closing the “Table connection”.

Question 2.
Write the Python script to display all the records of the following table using fetchmany( )
Answer:

import sqlite3
connectoin = sqlite3.connect(“company.db”) cursor = connection.cursor() cursor.execute(“Select * from product”) print(“Displaying Records”) result = cursor.fetchmany(5) print(*result, Sep = “\n”)
Output:
Displaying records (1003, ‘Scanner’, 10500)
(1004, ’Speaker’, 3000)
(1005, ‘Printer’, 8000)
(1008,’Monitor’, 15000)
(1010, ‘Mouse’, 700)

Question 3.
What is the use of HAVING clause. Give an example python script?
Answer:
Having clause is used to filter data based on the group functions. This is similar to WHERE condition but can be used only with group functions. Group functions cannot be used in WHERE Clause but can be used in HAVING clause.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT GENDER,COUNT(GENDER) FROM Student GROUP BY GENDER HAVING COUNT(GENDER)>3 “)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
co= [i[0] for i in cursor, description]
print(co)
print( result)
OUTPUT
[‘gender’, ‘COUNT(GENDER)’]
[(‘M’, 5)]

Question 4.
Write a Python script to create a table called ITEM with following specification?
Add one record to the table.
Name of the database:- ABC
Name of the table:- Item
Column name and speculation:-

import sqlite 3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connectoin.cursor( )
sql_command -“””CREATE TABLE Item
(
Icode INTEGER PRIMARY KEY,
ItemName VARCHAR(25), Rate INTEGER);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
sql_command=””” INSERT INTO ITEM(lcode, ItemName, Rate) VALUES(1008, ‘Monitor’, 15000);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
connection.commit( )
connection.close( )
print(“Table created”)
Output:
Table created

Question 5.
Consider the following table Supplier and item .Write a python script for (i) to (ii)
Answer:

1. Display Name, City and Itemname of suppliers who do not reside in Delhi.
2. Increment the SuppQty of Akila by 40

Answer:
1. import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connection,cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Supplier.Name, Supplier.city, Item.ItemName FROM Supplier, Item
where Supplier.Icode = Item.Icode AND Supplier.city NOT IN ‘Delhi'”)
co=[i[0] for i in cursor.description]
print(co)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
for r in result:
print(r).
Output:
[‘Name’, ‘City’, ‘ItemName’]
[‘Anu’, ‘Bangalore’, ‘Mouse’]
[‘Shahid’, ‘Bangalore’, ‘Monitor’]
[‘Akila’, ‘Hydrabad’, ‘Printer’]
[‘Girish’, ‘Hydrabad’, ‘Scanner’]
[‘Shylaja’, ‘Chennai’, ‘Monitor’]
[‘Lavanya’, ‘Mumbai’, ‘Printer’]

2. Increment the suppQty of Akila by 40 import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“UPDATE Supplier SET SuppQty = SuppQty + 40 where Name = ‘Akila'”)
cursor.commit( )
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(result)
connection.close( )
Output:
(S004, ‘Akila’, ‘Hydrabad’, 1005, 235)

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create an interactive program to accept the details from user and store it in a csv file using Python for the following table?
Answer:
Database name;- DB1
Table name : Customer

import sqlite3 import io import csv
d = open(‘c:/pyprg/sql.csv’, ‘w’) c = csv.writer(d)
connection = sqlite3.connect(“dbl.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“create table customer(cust_Id, cust_Name, Address, Phone_no, City)”)
print(“Enter 3 customer details:”)
print(“Enter 3 customer Id :”)
cid = [int(input( )) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter customer names :”)
cname = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter their Address:”)
add = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
int(“Enter their phone numbers:”)
ph = [int(input( )) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter their cities:”)
city = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
n = len(cname)
for i in range (n):
cursor.execute(“insert into customer values (?,?,?,?,?)”, (cid[i], cname[i], add[i], ph[i], city[i]))
cursor.execute(“Select * from customer “)
co = [i[0] for i in cursor, description]
c.writerow(co)
data = cursor. fetchall( )
for item in data:
c.writerow(item)
– d.close( )
with open(‘c:/pyprg/sql.csv’, “r”, newline = None) as fd:
for line in fd:
line = line.replace(“\n”,” “)
print(line)
cursor. close( )
connection. close( )
OUTPUT:
Enter 3 customer details:
Enter 3 customer Id:
C008
C010
C012
Enter customer names:
Sandeep
Anurag Basu
Hrithik
Enter their Address:
14/1 Pritam Pura
15/A, Park Road
7/2 Vasant Nagar
Enter their Phone Numbers:
41206819
61281921
26121949
Enter their cities:
Delhi
Kolkata
Delhi
Displaying Data:
(‘cust_Id’, ‘cust_Name’, ‘Address’, ‘Phone_no’, ‘city’)
(C008, ‘Sandeep’, ’14/1 Pritampura’, ‘41206819’, ’Delhi’)
(C010, ‘Anurag Basu’, ’15A, Park Road’, ’61281921’, ’Kolkata’)
(C012, ’Hrithik’, ’7/2 Vasant Nagar’, ’26121949’, ’Delhi’)

Question 2.
Consider the following table GAMES. Write a python program to display the records for question (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii)?
Table: GAMES

1. To display the name of all Games with their Geodes in descending order of their schedule date.
2. To display details of those games which are having Prize Money more than 7000.
3. To display the name and gamename of the Players in the ascending order of Gamename.
4. To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Numberof participation groupings (as shown in column Number 4)
5. Display all the records based on GameName

1. To display the name of all Games with their Geodes in descending order of their schedule date.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select GameName, Geode from Games order by ScheduleDate Desc “)
result = cursor,fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(’Table Tennis’, 108)
(’Table Tennis’, 103)
(’Carom Board’, 101)
(’Carom Board’, 105)
(’Badminton1, 102)

2. To display details of those games which are having Prize Money more than 7000.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlit3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(” Select * from Games where prize money > 7000″)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(102, ‘Vidhya’, ‘Badminton’, 2, 12000, ’12-12-2013′)
(103, ‘Guru’, ’Table Tennis’, 4, 8000, ’02-14-2014’)
(105, ‘Keerthana’, ‘Carom Board’, 2, 9000, ’01-01-2014′)
(108, ’Krishna’, ’Table Tennis’, 4, 25000, ’03-19-2014′)

3. To display the name and gamename of the Players in the ascending order of Gamename.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(” Select Name, GameName from games order by GameName “)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(‘Vidhya’, ‘Badminton’)
(‘Padmaja’, ‘Carom Board’)
(‘Keerthana’, ‘Carom Board’)
(‘Guru’, ‘Table Tennis’)
(‘Krishna’, ‘Table Tennis’)

4. To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Numberof participation groupings (as shown in column Number 4)
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select Sum(Number * Prizemoney) from games”)
result = cursor, fetchall( )
print(result)
conn.close( )
Output:
[(184000)]

5. Display all the records based on GameName
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select * from games group by gamename”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(‘Carom Board’, 101, ‘Padmaja’, 2, 5000, ’01-23-2014′)
(’Carom Board’, 105, ‘Keerthana’, 2, 9000, ’01-01-2014′)
(‘Badminton’, 102, ‘Vidhya’, 2, 12000, ’12-12-2013′)
(‘Table Tennis’, 103, ‘Guru’, 4, 8000, ’02-14-2014′)
(’Table Tennis’, 108, ‘Krishna’, 4, 25000, ’03-19-2014′)

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The ………………………….. is a software application for the interaction between users and the databases.
Answer:
Database Management System

Question 2.
Which has a native library for sqlite?
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Java
(d) Python
Answer:
(d) Python

Question 3.
Which method is used to create a connection with database file?
(a) connect( )
(b) pass( )
(c) link( )
(d) create( )
Answer:
(a) connect( )

Question 4.
All the commands will be executed using ……………………………. object only.
Answer:
cursor

Question 5.
How many commands can be stored in the sql_comm?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Many
Answer:
(d) Many

Question 6.
What is the extension for database files?
(a) dot
(b) database
(c) .db
(d) .dot
Answer:
(c) .db

Question 7.
The SQL commands have to be defined with ……………………………. quotes.
(a) single
(b) double
(c) triple
(d) No quotes
Answer:
(c) triple

Question 8.
A column which is labelled like ………………………………. is automatically auto incremented in sqlite3.
Answer:
Integer primary key

Question 9.
What will be the value assigned to the empty table if it is given Integer Primary Key?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) -1
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 10.
Which command is used to populate the records in the table?
(a) populate
(b) create
(c) pop
(d) Insert
Answer:
(d) Insert

Question 11.
Which command in SQL is used to retrieve or fetch data from a table in the database?
(a) Select
(b) Fetch
(c) retrieve
(d) create
Answer:
(a) Select

Question 12.
Which method is used to fetch all rows from the database table?
(a) Fetch( )
(b) fetchall( )
(c) printall( )
(d) retrieveall( )
Answer:
(b) fetchall( )

Question 13.
Which method returns the next row of a query result set?
(a) Fetch ne( )
(b) fetch all( )
(c) fetch next( )
(d) fetch last( )
Answer:
(a) Fetch ne( )

Question 14.
What will be the result of fetchone( ) method if no row is left?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) none
Answer:
(d) none

Question 15.
Which one of the following methods displays the specified number of records?
(a) fetchone( )
(b) fetchmany( )
(c) fetchall( )
(d) fetchsome( )
Answer:
(b) fetchmany( )

Question 16.
Which one of the following is new line character?
(a) \n
(b) \r
(c) \t
(d) \nl
Answer:
(a) \n

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used to print all elements separated by space?
(a) ,
(b) .
(c) :
(d) ;
Answer:
(a) ,

Question 18.
SQL provides various clauses that can be used in the …………………………….. statements.
Answer:
SELECT

Question 19.
The clauses in SQL can be called through
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Python script
(d) DOS
Answer:
(c) Python script

Question 20.
In SQL, the …………………………. clause is used to extract only those records that fulfill a specified condition.
(a) why
(b) what
(c) where
(d) how
Answer:
(c) where

Question 21.
Which clause returns are record for each group?
(a) Select
(b) group in
(c) group with
(d) group by
Answer:
(d) group by

Question 22.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) Group by clause is used with aggregate functions
(b) group by clause groups records into summary rows
(c) group by clause is used to filter data
Answer:
(c) group by clause is used to filter data

Question 23.
Pick the odd one out.
(i) count, max, min, OR, SUM
(ii) AND, OR, MAX, NOT
(iii) COUNT, NULL, AVG, SUM
Answer:
(i) OR, (ii) MAX, (iii) NULL

Question 24.
How many types of sorting are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 25.
Which command is used to display the records in asscending or descending order.
(a) Group by
(b) order by
(c) group with
(d) order with
Answer:
(b) order by

Question 26.
Identify the Incorrect pair
(a) Group by – 1. Aggregate functions
(b) order by – 2. Sortind data
(c) Having – 3. filter data
(d) where – 4.Max, min
(a) 2
(b) (1)
(c) (4)
(d) (3)
Answer:
(c) d

Question 27.
Find the Incorrect statement?
(a) The WHERE clause can be combined with AND, OR, NOT
(b) Having clause is used to filter data based on the group function
(c) WHERE cannot be used with NOT
Answer:
(c) WHERE cannot be used with NOT

Question 28.
Which operators are used to filter records based on more than one condition?
(a) AND
(b) NOT
(c) OR
(d) a & c
Answer:
(d) a & c

Question 29.
How many values are returned from the aggregate functions?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 30.
Find the correct answer.
(i) count functions returns the number of rows in a table satisfying the criteria
(ii) count returns 0 if there were no matching rows
(iii) Null values are counted
(a) (i), (ii) – True
(b) (ii), (iii) – true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) – True
(d) (i),.(ii), (iii) – False
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) – True

Question 31.
Find the correct statement.
(a) A record can be deleted using sql command
(b) A record can be deleted with python
(c) both are true
Answer:
(c) both are true

Question 32.
Which command is used to accpet data during run time in python?
(a) Insert( )
(b) input( )
(c) create( )
(d) update( )
Answer:
(b) input( )

Question 33.
The two kinds Of placeholders in sqlite3 module are ………………………….. and ………………………….
Answer:
qmarkstyle, namedstyle

Question 34.
…………………………… is used to display the field names of the table
Answer:
cursor description

Question 35.
In cursor description o_index refers to the column name
Answer:
O

Question 36.
A) Query result can be stored in csv file.
R) To display the query output in a tabular form
(a) R is the reason for A
(b) R is wrong
(c) A is wrong
(d) both are not related
Answer:
(a) R is the reason for A

Question 37.
The path of a python file can be represented as ……………………….. and ………………………………
(a) /, //
(b) \, \\
(c) /, \\
(d) \, //
Answer:
(c) /, \\

Question 38.
Which table holds the key information about the database tables?
(a) page
(b) select
(c) primary
(d) Master
Answer:
(d) Master

Question 39.
………………………. functions are used to do operations from the values of the column and a single value is returned.
Answer:
Aggregate

Question 40.
Which function returns the smallest value of the selected columns?
(a) MIN( )
(b) MINIMUM( )
(c) SMALL( )
(d) LEAST( )
Answer:
(a) MIN( )

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on “Select” command?
Answer:
“Select” is the most commonly used statement in SQL. The SELECT Statement in SQL is used to retrieve or fetch data from a table in a database. The syntax for using this statement is “Select*from table_name” and all the table data can be fetched in an object in the form of list of lists.

Question 2.
Mention the frequently used clauses in SQL?
Answer:

1. DISTINCT
2. WHERE
3. GROUP BY
4. ORDER BY
5. HAVING

Question 3.
What is the use of distinct clause in SQL?
Answer:
The distinct clause is helpful when there is need of avoiding the duplicate values present in any specific columns/table. When we use distinct keyword only the unique values are fetched.

Question 4.
List some aggregate functions in SQL?
Answer:

1. COUNTO
2. SUM( )
3. MIN( )
4. AVG( )
5. MAX( )

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by cursor? How is it created?
Answer:
A cursor in SQL and databases is a control structure to traverse over the records in a database. So it’s used for the fetching of the results.
Cursor is used for performing all SQL commands.
The cursor object is created by calling the cursor( ) method of connection. The cursor is used to traverse the records from the result set.

Question 2.
Write a short note on fetchall( ), fetchone( ) and fetchmany( ) commands?
Answer:
cursor. fetchall( ) -fetchall ( )method is to fetch all rows from the database table
cursor. fetchone( ) – The fetchone ( ) method returns the next row of a query result set or None in case there is no row left.
cursor.fetchmany( ) method that returns the next number of rows (n) of the result set.

Question 3.
How will you use order by clause in SQL. Explain with sample program?
Answer:
The ORDER BY Clause can be used along with the SELECT statement to sort the data of specific fields in an ordered way. It is used to sort the result-set in ascending or descending order. In this example name and Rollno of the students are displayed in alphabetical order of names.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student Order BY sname”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=” \n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’)
(2, ‘Aravind’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’)
(6, ‘PRIYA’)
(4, ‘SAJINI’)
(7, ‘TARUN’)
(5, ‘VARUN’)

Question 4.
Write a program to count the number of male and female students from the student table
Example
Answer:
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT gender,count(gender) FROM student Group BY gender”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(‘F’, 2)
(‘M’, 5)

Question 5.
Write a program to count the number of records in a table?
Example 1 :In this example we are going to count the number of records( rows)
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT COUNT(*) FROM student”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print( result)
Output:
[(7,) ]

Question 6.
Write a program to display list of tables created in a database?
Example
Answer:
import sqlite3
con= sqlite3 .connect(‘Academy.db’)
cursor = con.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT name FROM sqlitemaster WHERE type-table’;”)
print(cursor. fetchall( ))
OUTPUT
[(‘Student’,), (‘Appointment’,), (‘Person’,)]

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain OR, AND and NOT operator in SQL?
Answer:
The WHERE clause can be combined with AND, OR, and NOT operators. The AND and OR operators are used to filter records based on more than one condition. In this example you are going to display the details of students who have scored other than ‘A’, or ‘B’ from the “student table”
Example for WHERE WITH NOT Operator
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT *FROM student where grade< >’A’ and Grade< >’B'”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(3, ‘BASKAR’, ’C, ’M’, 75.2, T998-05-17′)
(7, ‘TARUN’, ‘D’, ‘M’, 62.3, ‘1999-02-01’)
Example for WHERE WITH AND Operator
In this example we are going to display the name, Rollno and Average of students who have scored an average between 80 to 90% (both limits are inclusive)
Example
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno, Same, Average FROM student WHERE (Average>=80 AND Average<=90)”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’, 87.8)
(5, ‘VARUN’, 80.6)
Example for WHERE WITH OR Operator
In this example we are going to display the name and Rollno of students who have not scored an average between 60 to 70%
Example import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student WHERE (Average<60 OR Average> 70)”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’)
(2, ‘Aravind’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’)
(4, ‘SAJINI’)
(5, ‘VARUN’)
(6, ‘PRIYA’)

Question 2.
Write python program to accept 5 students names, their ages and ids during run time and display all the records from the table?
Answer:
In this example we are going to accept data using Python input() command during runtime and then going to write in the Table called “Person”
Example
# code for executing query using input data
import sqlite3
#creates a database in RAM
con =sqlite3.connect(“Academy,db”)
cur =con.cursor( )
cur.execute(“DROP Table person”)
cur.execute(“create table person (name, age, id)”)
print(“Enter 5 students names:”)
who =[input( ) for i in range(5)]
print(“Enter their ages respectively:”)
age =[int(input()) for i in range(5)]
print(“Enter their ids respectively:”)
p_d =[int(input( ))for i in range(5)]
n =len(who)
for i in range(n):
#This is the q-mark style:
cur.execute(“insert into person values(?,?,?)”, (who[i], age[i], p_id[i]))
#And this is the named style:
cur.execute(“select *from person”)
#Fetches all entries from table
print(“Displaying All the Records From Person Table”)
print (*cur.fetchall(), sep=’\n’)
OUTPUT
Enter 5 students names:
RAM
KEERTHANA
KRISHNA
HARISH
GIRISH
Enter their ages respectively:
28
12
21
18
16
Enter their ids respectively:
1
2
3
4
5
Displaying All the Records From Person Table
(‘RAM’, 28, 1)
(‘KEERTHANA’, 12, 2)
(‘KRISHNA’, 21, 3)
(‘HARISH’, 18,4)
(‘GIRISH’, 16, 5)

Question 3.
Considers the following tables appointments and students and write the python script to display the following output?
Answer:
Given:
Student → Table Rollno, Sname, grade, gender, average, birth-date
Appointment → rollno, duty, age
Example
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“””DROP TABLE Appointment;”””)
sql_command = “””
CREATE TABLE Appointment(rollnointprimarkey,Dutyvarchar(10),age int)”””
cursor.execute(sqlcommand)
sql command – ‘””INSERT INTO Appointment (Rollno,Duty ,age)
VALUES (“1”, “Prefect”, “17”);”””
cursor, execute(sql_command)
sql_command =”””INSERT INTO Appointment (Rollno, Duty, age)
VALUES (“2”, “Secretary”, “16”);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
# never forget this, if you want the changes to be saved:
connection.commit( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT student.rollno,student.sname,Appointment.
Duty,Appointment.Age FROM student,Appointment where student.
rollno= Appointment.rollno”)
#print (cursor.description) to display the field names of the table
co= [i[0] for i in cursor.description]
print(co)
# Field informations can be readfrom cursor.description.
result = cursor. fetchall( )
for r in result:
print(r)
OUTPUT
[‘Rollno’, ‘Sname’, ‘Duty’, ‘age’]
(1, ‘Akshay’, ‘Prefect’, 17)
(2,’Aravind’,’Secretary’, 16)

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. 1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
   2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
   4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
   5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) B = adj A and C = 3A, then |Adjb| / |C| =  ……………….
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/9
(c) 1/4
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 1/9

Question 2.
If the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\) is \(\frac{1}{11}\left[\begin{array}{ll}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}\right]\) , then the ascending order of a, b, c, d, is
(a) a, b, c, d
(b) d, b, c, a
(c) c, a, b, d
(d) b, a, c, d
Answer:
(b) d, b, c, a

Question 3.
The least value of n satisfying \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\frac{i}{2}\right)^{n}\) = 1 is
(a) 30
(b) 24
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 4.
The principal argument of \(\frac{3}{-1+i}\) is

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{-3 \pi}{4}\)

Question 5.
The polynomial equation x³ + 2x + 3 = 0 has
(a) one negative and two imaginary
(b) one positive and two imaginary roots
(c) three real roots
(d) no solution
Answer:
(a) one negative and two imaginary

Question 6.
The domain of the function defined by \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}(\sqrt{x-1})\) is
(a) [1, 2]
(b) [-1,1]
(c) [0, 1]
(d) [-1, 0]
Answer:
(a) [1, 2]

Question 7.
If x+y = A:isa normal to the parabola y² = 12x, then the value of k is
(a) 3
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9

Question 8.
The circle passing through (1, -2) and touching the x-axis (3,0), again passing through the point is
(a)(-5,2)
(b) (2,-5)
(c) (5, -2)
(d) (-2,5)
Answer:
(c) (5, -2)

Question 9.
The volume of the parallelepiped with its edges represented by the vectors \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}, \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}, \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\pi \hat{k}\) is
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(c) π
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:

Question 10.
If the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-5}=\frac{z+2}{2}\) lies in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0 then (α, β) is ………………
(a) (-5, 5)
(b) (-6, 7)
(c) (5, -5)
(d) (6, -7)
Answer:
(b) (-6, 7)

Question 11.
The function sin⁴ + cos⁴x is increasing in the interval

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\)

Question 12.
The curve y = ax⁴ + bx² with ab> 0
(a) has no horizontal tangent
(b) is concave up
(c) is concave down
(d) has no points of inflection
Answer:
(d) has no points of inflection

Question 13.
If u = (x-y)², then \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\) is …………….
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 14.
The value of \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{1+5 \cos x}\) is …………….
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) π
(c) \(3\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) 2π
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 15.
The volume of solid of revolution of the region bounded by y² = x(a – x) about x – axis is …….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi a^{3}}{6}\)

Question 16.
If m, n are the order and degree of the differential equation \(\left[\frac{d^{4} y}{d x^{4}}+\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}=a \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) respectively, then the value of 4m – n is
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 13
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 17.
The solution of differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y}{x}+\frac{\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}{\varphi^{\prime}\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}\) is

Answer:
(b) \(\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)=k x\)

Question 18.
A random variable X has the following distribution.

then the value of c is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4
Answer:
(a) 0.1

Question 19.
If P(X = 0) = 1 – P {X = 1} and E[X] = 3 Var (X), then P{X = 0} is
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 20.
Which one is the contrapositive of the statement (p v q) → r?

Answer:
(a) \(\neg r \rightarrow(\neg p \wedge \neg q)\)

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Solve the following system of linear equations by Cramer’s rule: 2x – y = 3,x + 2y = -1.
Answer:
2x – y = 3, x + 2y 2 -1 = -1

Question 22.
If z₁ z₂ and z₃ are complex numbers such that |z₁| = |z₂| = |z₃| = |z₁+ z₂ + z₃| = 1 find the value of \(\left|\frac{1}{z_{1}}+\frac{1}{z_{2}}+\frac{1}{z_{3}}\right|\)
Answer:

Question 23.
Find the value of \(\sin \left(\frac{\pi}{3}+\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{-1}{2}\right)\right)\)
Answer:

Question 24.
Find the equation of the parabola with vertex (-1,-2), axis parallel to x-axis and passing through (3, 6).
Answer:
Since axis is parallel to y-axis the required equation of the parabola is (x + 1)² = 4a (y + 2)
Since this passes through (3,6)
(3 + 1)² = 4a (6 + 2)
a = 1/2
Then the equation of parabola is (x + 1)² = 2 (y + 2) which on simplifying yields,
x² + 2x – 2y – 3 = 0.

Question 25.
If â, b̂, ĉ are three unit vectors such that b̂ and ĉ are non-parallel and â, x (b̂ x ĉ) = \(\frac{1}{2} \hat{b}\), find the angle between â and ĉ.
Answer:

Since b and c are non collinear vectors. So, equating corresponding coefficients on both sides.

Question 26.
If the mass m(x) (in kilograms) of a thin rod of length x (in meters) is given by, m(x) = \(m(x)=\sqrt{3 x}\) then what is the rate of change of mass with respect to the length when it is x = 27 metres?
Answer:

Question 27.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-a x} x^{n} d x\) where a > 0.
Answer:
Making the substitution t = ax, we get dt = adx and x = 0 ⇒ t = 0 and x = ∞ ⇒ t = ∞. Hence, we get

Question 28.
Show that y = ax + b/x, x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0.
Answer:
Given solution : y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)  …………..(1)
y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)
xy = ax²+b
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
xy’ + y.1 = a(2x) = 2ax …(2)
Differentiate again with respect to ‘x’
xy” + y’ . 1 + y’ = 2a ⇒ xy” + 2y’ = 2a …(3)
Substitute (3) in (2)
xy’ + y = (xy” + 2y’) x
xy’+ y = x²y” + 2xy’ ⇒ x²y” + xy’- y = 0
Hence proved.

Question 29.
Find the mean of a random variable X, whose probability density function is
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:

Question 30.
Let * be a binary operation on set Q of rational numbers defined as a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\) Write the identity for * if any.
Answer:
Let S = {Q}
a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\)
∀ a∈S, e∈S such that
a * e = a
\(\frac{a e}{8}=a\) ⇒ ae = 8a
e = 8 ∈ S .
Identity element exist.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find the inverse of \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) by Gauss-Jordan method.
Answer:

Question 32.
If w ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1,1- 2w, 1- 2 w²
Answer:

Question 33.
Find all real numbers satisfying 4^x – 3(2^x+2) + 2⁵ = 0
Answer:
4^x – 3 (2^x+2) + 25 = 0
⇒ (2²)^x – 3 (2^x ,2²) + 25 = 0
(2²)^x – 12 .2^x + 32 = 0
Let y = 2^x
y² – 12y + 32 = 0
(y – 4) (y – 8) = 0 .
y = 4,8
Case (i) 2^x = 4
2^x= (2)² ⇒ x = 2
Case (ii) 2^x = 8
2^x = (2)³ ⇒x = 3
∴ The roots are 2, 3

Question 34.
Find the centre, foci, and eccentricity of the hyperbola 12x² – 4y² – 24x + 32y – 127 = 0.
Answer:
12x² – 4y²– 24x + 32y – 127 = 0
12[x² – 2x] – 4[y² – 8y] = 127
12[(x – 1)² – 1] – 4[(y – 4)² – 16] = 127
12(x – 1)²– 4(y – 4)² = 127 +12 – 64
12(x- 1)² – 4(y-4)² = 75

Let X = x – 1; Y = y – 4

(i) Centre : c[0,0]
X = o
x – 1 = 0
x = 1

Y = o
y – 4 = 0
y = 4

Centre (1,4)

(iii) Foci F(± ae, 0) (i.e.,) F (± 5, 0)
X = 5
x- 1 = 5
x = 6
X = -5
x – 1 = -5
x = -4
Y = 0
y – 4 = 0
y = 4
Foci (6, 4) and (-4, 4)

Question 35.
Find the image of the point whose position vector is \(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}\) in the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k})=38\)
Answer:

Question 36.
Evaluate:  \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} x \log x\)
Answer:
This is an indeterminate of the form (0 x ∞). To evaluate this limit, we first simplify and bring it to the form (∞/∞) and apply 1’Hopital Rule

Question 37.
Find a linear approximation for the function given below at the indicate points f(x) = x³ -5x + 12, x₀ = 2.
Answer:
f(x) = x³ – 5x + 12 .
f'(x) = 3x² – 5
f(x₀) = f(2) = (2)³– 5(2) + 12 = 8 – 10 + 12 = 10
f'(x₀) = f'(2) = 3(2)² – 5 = 12 – 5 = 7
The required linear approximation L(x) = f(x₀) + f’ (x₀) (x – x₀)
= 10 + 7 (x – 2)
= 10 + 7x – 14
= 7x – 4

Question 38.
By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate \(\int_{0}^{3}|x-1| d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
Solve: \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2v cot x = 3x²cosec²x.
Answer:
This is in the form of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
P = 2 cot x ; Q = 3x²cosec²x.
∫ Pdx = ∫2 cot x dx = 2 log sin x = log (sin x)²
Integrating factor: e ^∫pdxe ^log(sinx)2 = (sinx)²

Question 40.
A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting seven heads is
equal to that of getting nine heads, find the probability of getting exactly two heads.
Answer:
p = \(\frac{1}{2}\) q = \(\frac{1}{2}g\)
In binomial distribution
P(X = x) = nC_xp^x q^n-x x = 0, 1, 2,.. . n
By the given data P (X = 7) = P(X = 9)

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) By using Gaussian elimination method, balance the chemical reaction equation:
C₂H₆ → H₂ + CO₂
Answer:
We are searching for positive integers x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ such that
x₁ C₂H₆ + x₂O₂ = x₃H₂O + x₄CO₂ …(1)
The number of carbon atoms on LHS of (1) should be equal to number of carbon atoms on the RHS of (1). So we get a linear homogeneous equation.
2x₁ = x₄ ⇒ 2x₁ – x₄ = 0………(2)
Similarly considering hydrogen and oxygen atoms we get respectively.
2x₂ = x₃ + 2x₄
⇒ 2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 ……… (3)
and -2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0 …(4)
Equations (2), (3) and (4) constitute a homogeneous system of linear equations in four unknowns.
The augmented matrix (A,B) is (A,B)

Now p(A, B) = ρ(A) = 3 < number of unknowns. So the system is consistent and has infinite number of solutions. Writing the equations using the echelon form we get
2₁ – x₄ = 0 …(5)
2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 …..(6)
-2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0…..(7)
Taking x₄ = t,(t ≠ 0) in (7) we get
2x₃ – 3t = 0
2x₃ = 3t
\(x_{3}=\frac{3}{2} t\)
Taking x₄ = t, in (5) we get
2₁ – t = 0
2x₁ = t
\(x_{1}=\frac{t}{2}\)

Since x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ are positive integers. Let us choose t = 4t.
Then we get x₁ = 2, x₂ = 7, x₃ = 6, and x₄ = 4
So the balanced equation is 2C₂H₆+7O₂
→ 6H₂O + 4CO₂

(b) If z = x + iy and arg \(\left(\frac{z-i}{z+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\), then show that x² + y² + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Solve the equation: 3x⁴ – 16x⁴ + 26x⁴ – 16x + 3 = 0.
Answer:
It is an even degree reciprocal equations
Dividing (1) by x²

3(y² – 2) – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 6 – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 16y + 20 = 0
(3y- 10) (y-2) = 0
3y- 10 = 0
3y = 10
3(x + \(\frac{1}{x}\)) = 10
3(x² + 1) = 10x
3x² – 10x + 3=0
(3x- 1) (x- 3) = 0
x = \(\frac{1}{x}\) and x = 3
The roots are 1, 1, \(\frac{1}{3}\), 3
y – 2 = 0
y = 2.
x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 2
x² + 1 = 2x
x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)² = 0
x = 1,1

OR

(b) Solve: \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium – 32

Question 43.
(a) A rod of length 1.2m moves with its ends always touching the coordinates axes. The locus of a point P on the rod, which is 0.3 m from the end in contact with x-axis is an ellipse. Find the eccentricity.
Answer:
From the diagram,
(i)∆^le OAB be a right angle triangle.

are corresponding angles, so corresponding angles are equal.

(b) Find the non-parametric and Cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4), and is perpendicular to the planes 2jt + 5y + 4z+l = 0 and 4JC + ly T 6z + 2 = 0.
Answer:
The required plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4) and parallel to the vectors

Question 44.
(a) A steel plant is capable of producing JC tonnes per day of a low-grade steel andy tonnes per day of a high-grade steel, where y = \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) If the fixed market price of low-grade steel is half that of high-grade steel, then what should be optimal productions in low-grade steel and high-grade steel in order to have maximum receipts.
Answer:
Let the price of low-grade steel be ₹p per tonne. Then the price of high-grade steel is ₹2p per tonne.

The total receipt per day is given by R = px + 2py = px + 2p \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) .
Hence the problem is to maximise R . Now, simplifying and differentiating R with respect to x, we get

and hence R will be maximum. If x = 10 – 2√5 then y = 5 – √5 Therefore the steel plant must produce low-grade and high-grade steels respectively in tonnes per day are 10 -2√5 and 5 – √5 .

[OR]

(b) Let z(x,y) xe^y+ye^x,x = ts²,y = st²,s,t ∈ R.Find \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial s}\) and \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded between the parabola x2 = y and the curve
y = |x|.
Answer:
Both the curves are symmetrical about y-axis.
The curve \(y=|x| \text { is } y=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
x \text { if } x \geq 0 \\
-x \text { if } x \leq 0
\end{array}\right.\)
It intersects the parabola x2 = y at (1, 1) and (-1, 1). The area of the region bounded by the curves is sketched in Fig. It lies in the first quadrant as well as in the second quadrant. By symmetry, the required area is twice the area in the first quadrant.
In the first quadrant, the upper curve is y = x,0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and the lower curve is y = x², 0 ≤ x ≤ 1.
Hence, the required area is given by

(b) Water at temperature 100°C cools in 10 minutes to 80°C in a room temperature
of 25°C. Find (i) The temperature of water after 20 minutes (ii) The time when the
temperature is 40°C. [log_e\(\frac{11}{5}\) = -0.3101; log_e5 = 1.6094]
Answer:
Let’T’ be the temperature in time ‘f

Question 46.
(a) Suppose a discrete random variable can only take the values 0,1, and 2.
The probability mass function is defined by \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{x^{2}+1}{k}, & \text { for } x=0,1,2 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find (i) the value of k (ii) cumulative distribution function (m) P(X ≥ 1).
Answer:

(b) Using truth table check whether the statements \(\neg(\boldsymbol{p} \vee \boldsymbol{q}) \vee \neg(\boldsymbol{p} \wedge \boldsymbol{q}) \text { and } \neg \boldsymbol{p}\) are logically equivalent.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Prove by vector method that sin(α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β.
Answer:
Take two points A and B on the unit circle with centre as origin ‘O’, so \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}|=1\)

• Let \(\vec{i}\) and \(\vec{j}\) be the unit vectors along the x, y direction respectively.
• The co-ordinates of A and B be (cos α, sin α) and (cos β, -sin β) respectively.


From (1) & (2), we get
sin (α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of tangent and normal to the curve y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0 at the point where it cuts the x-axis.
Answer:
y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0; given curve cuts the axis, so y = 0
.’. x = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
The required point ( \(\frac{5}{4}\) ,0)

(i) Equation of the tangent

(ii) Equation of the Normal

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Management is an …………….
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and Science
(d) Art or Science
Answer:
(c) Art and Science

Question 2.
Which of the following is verification function ……………?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 3.
Capital market is a market for …………..
(a) Short Term Finance
(b) Medium Term Finance
(c) Long Term Finance
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Long Term Finance

Question 4.
Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ………….
(a) Central Government
(b) State Governments
(c) Semi-government Authorities
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
Stock exchanges deal in …………….
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial Securities
(d) Country’s Currency
Answer:
(c) Financial Securities

Question 6.
The headquarters of SEBI is ……………
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 7.
Human resource is an asset…………..
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 8.
Advertisement is a …………….. source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) agent
(d) outsourcing
Answer:
(b) external

Question 9.
In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(a) Place Variable
(b) Product Variable
(c) Program Variable
(d) Price Variable
Answer:
(c) Program Variable

Question 10.
Selling goods/services through internet is ……………..
(a) Green marketing
(b) E-business
(c) Social marketing
(d) Niche marketing
(b) E-business

Question 11.
Who is the father of Consumer Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) Ralph Nader
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Ralph Nader

Question 12.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than ……………..
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 20,00,000
(c) ₹ 40,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 20,00,000

Question 13.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 14.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year
(a) 1940
(b) 1997
(c) 1930
(d) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1930

Question 15.
A cheque will become stale after months of its date.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 16.
Which of the below is not a characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?
(a) Conservative
(b) Risk averse
(c) Sceptical
(d) Adaptive
Answer:
(d) Adaptive

Question 17.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares
(b) Rights Shares
(c) Preference Shares
(d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
(b) Rights Shares

Question 18.
A person shall hold office as a director in companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 19.
Board meetings to be conducted minimum times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 20.
A special resolution is required to ………………
(a) redeem the debentures
(b) declare dividend
(c) appoint directors
(d) appoint auditor
Answer:
(d) appoint auditor

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Bring out the meaning of Management By Exception.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 22.
Write any two instruments of money market.
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market

Question 23.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
According to Husband and Dockerary, “Stock exchanges are privately organized markets which are used to facilitate trading in securities.”

Question 24.
Mention features of campus recruitment.
Answer:
Campus recruitment is one of the external sources of recruitment. Its features are:

• The organisations visit the educational institutions to identify and recruit suitable candidates.
• They have to conduct the test and other interview methods to find out the suitable persons.

Question 25.
Who is called Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a.‘promoter’.

Question 26.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

• Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
• Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 27.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O ‘Wheeler, Business environment is “the total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 28.
List down any two essential elements of the contract of sale.
Answer:
Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

• Two Parties: A contract of sale involves two parties – the seller and the buyer.
• Transfer of Property: To constitute sale, the seller must transfer or agree to transfer the ownership in the good to the buyer.

S.No.	Wholesale Market	Retail Market
1.	Goods are supplied in bulk quantity.	Goods are sold to customers in small quantities.
2.	Goods are supplied to dealers and retailers.	Goods are sold to the public.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management and Administration.
Answer:

Basis for Comparison	Management	Administration
Meaning	An organised way of managing people and things of a business organisation is called the management.	The process of administrating an organisation by a group of people is known as the administration.
Authority	Middle and lower level.	Top level
Role	Executive	Decisive
Concerned with	Policy Implementation.	Policy formulation.
Area of operation	It works under administration.	It has full control over the activities of the organisation.
Applicable for	Profit-making organisations; i.e. business organisations.	Government offices,    military clubs, business enterprises, hospitals, religious and educational organisations.

Question 32.
What are the features and types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short- term financial requirements of the Central Government.
Features of Treasury Bills:

• Issuer
• Finance Bills
• Liquidity
• Vital Source
• Monetary Management

Types of Treasury Bills:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 364 days Treasury Bills

Question 33.
Explain Bull and Bear Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour. They are:

• Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future. He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
• Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 34.
What are the features of Human Resources? (Any 3)
Answer:

• Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
• Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
• Human resources are emotional beings.

Question 35.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

• Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
• Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
• Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 36.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority; i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.

Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Question 37.
Explain the meaning of Agreement to sell.
Answer:
The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions specified in the contract. Where the goods under the agreement to sell are destroyed, the loss falls squarely on the seller as the ownership is still vested with the seller even though the possession of the goods is with the buyer.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of crossing.
Answer:
Crossing may be General crossing and Special crossing.
1. General crossing- The lines should be drawn across the face of a cheque and not on the reverse thereof. Further, they must by parallel and transverse. Cross marks such as ‘X’ does not constitute crossing.

2. Special crossing- may be of not negotiable crossing and Account payee crossing. But the A name of banker to whom the payment should be made is to be necessarily written on the face of the cheque.

Question 39.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Basis for Difference	Shares	Stocks
1. Meaning	The term ’share’ means a fraction or unit of the total capital of the company which have equal denomination.	Stock is created from fully paid shares by passing resolution in the general meeting. The Articles of Association of the company must permit this conversion.
2.Denomination	All the shares are of equal denomination.	The denomination of stocks may differ.
3. Paid up value	Shares can be partly or fully paid up.	Stock can only be fully paid up.

Question 40.
Write any three factors of political and legal environment.
Answer:
The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Explain the modern Principles of Management. (Any 5)
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr. Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organization.

• Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
• Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
• Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc. It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.
• Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
• Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market. (Any 5)

Basis For Comparison	New Issue Market	Secondary Market
Meaning	The market place for new shares is called primary market.(Initial Issues Market)	The place where formerly issued securities are traded is known as Secondary Market. (Resale Market)

Buying	Direct	Indirect
Financing	It supplies funds to budding enterprises and also to existing companies for expansion and diversification.	It does not provide funding to companies.
How can securities be sold?	Only once	Multiple times
Buying and Selling between	Company and Investors	Investors

Question 42(a) Explain the features of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

• Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
• Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
• Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
• Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
• Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

[OR]
(b) Explain the principles of placement.
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43(a).
What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?

	Basis for comparison	On the Job Training	Off the Job Training
1.	Meaning	The employee learns the job in the actual work environment.	The training of employees is done outside the actual work place.
2.	Cost	It is cheapest to carry out.	It is costly due to the expenses like separate training room, specialist, etc.
3.	Suitable for	Suitable for manufacturing related jobs.	It is suitable for managerial jobs.
4.	Approach	Practical approach	Theoretical approach
5.	Carried out	Provided by the experienced employee	Provided by the experts
6.	Methods	Coaching, mentoring, apprenticeship, job rotation	Seminar, lectures, vestibule, field trip, e-leaming

[OR]
(b) Narrate the elements of marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

• Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
• Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount charged for the product.
• Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
• Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 44(a).
How consumers are exploited? (Any 5)
Answer:
Consumer is one who consumes the goods manufactured or created. Consumers are exploited in many ways in the business. They are as follows:

• Selling at Higher Price: The price charged by the seller for a product or service may not be higher compared to the quality.
• Adulteration: It refers to mixing or substituting undesirable material in food. This leads to heavy loss to the consumer, (e.g. ) Mixing of stones with grains.
• Duplicate or Spurious goods: Duplicate products of popular products are illegally produced and sold.
• Artificial Scarcity: There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock” in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store.
• Sub-standard: On opening a packet or sealed container one may find the content to be of poor quality.

[OR]

(b) Explain the advantages of liberalization. (Any 5)
Answer:
Liberalization means relaxation of various government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies of the country.

Advantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in foreign investment: If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for inward investment.
• Increase the foreign exchange reserve: Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange has paved way for easy access to foreign capital.
• Increase in consumption: Liberalization increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country.

Question 45(a).
Distinguish between Condition and Warranty.

Basis for Difference	Condition	Warranty
1. Meaning	It is a stipulation which is essential to the main purpose of the contract of sale.	It is a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of contract.
2.Significance	Condition is necessary to the contract that the breaking of which cancels out the contract.	The violation of warranty will not revoke the contract.
3. Transfer of Ownership	Ownership on goods cannot be transferred without fulfilling the conditions.	Ownership on goods can be transferred on the buyer without fulfilling the warranty.
4. Remedy	In case of breach of contract, the affected party can cancel the contract and claim damages.	In the case of breach of warranty, the affected party cannot cancel the contract but can claim damages only.
5. Treatment	Breach of condition may be treated as breach of warranty.	Breach of warranty cannot be treated as breach of condition.

Question 46(a)
Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs.
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows:-
(1) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.

(2) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations.

(3) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.

(4) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.

(5) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Write the difference between Shares and Debentures. (Any 5)

S.No.	Shares	Debentures
1.	Shares are part of the capital of a company.	Debentures mean a loan.
2.	Shareholders gets dividends with a varying rate.	Debenture holder gets fixed rate of Interest.
3.	Shares do not carry any such charge.	Debentures generally have a charge on the assets of the company.
4.	Shares cannot be issued at a discount.	Debentures can be issued at a discount.
5.	Shareholders enjoy voting right.	Debenture holders do not have any voting right.

Question 47(a).
What are the collective duties of directors?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors: Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

• Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
• Appointment of First Auditors
• Passing of resolutions at board meetings
• Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

[OR]
(b) Elaborate the functions of the Company Secretary.
The functions of the Company Secretary may be divided into two types. They are:

• Statutory functions
• Non-Statutory functions

Statutory Functions: As the principal officer of the company, the secretary must observe all the legal formalities in respect of the provisions of the Companies Act and other laws, for the activities of the company.

According to Companies Act 2013:

• To sign document and proceedings requiring authentication by the company
• To maintain share registers and register of directors and of contracts.
• To give notice to register for increase in the share capital
• To send notice of general meeting to every member of the company
• To prepare minutes of every general meeting and board meeting within 30 days

Non-Statutory Functions: The secretary has to discharge non-statutory functions in relation to directors, shareholders and office and staff.

Functions in Relation to Directors:
A company secretary acts under the full control of the board of directors and carry out the instructions of the directors. The secretary will arrange board meetings issuing notice, and preparing agenda of meetings, recording the attendance and minutes of meetings.

Functions in Relation to Shareholders:
The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the shareholders.
He has to arrange the issue of allotment letters, call letters, letters of regret, share certificates, and share warrants to Shareholders.

Functions in Relation to Office and Staff:
The secretary is responsible for smooth functioning of the office work. He exercises an overall supervision, control and co-ordination of all clerical activities in the office.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 3

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

PART -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
Dr. Barnard had a perforated lung.
(a) inflated (b) shrunk (c) inebriated (d) pinpricked
Answer:
(d) pinpricked

Question 2.
The amalgamation of man and machine is sure to add a new dimension to life.
(a) recreation (b) integration (c) exploration (d) proposition
Answer:
(b) integration

Question 3.
Tenzing crawled into the tent.
(a) craved (b) crashed (c) craned (d) crept
Answer:
(d) crept

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
We set about descending from the ridge.
(a) ascending (b) condescending (c) stooping (d) dissenting
Answer:
(a) ascending

Question 5.
A stout old lady was walking.
(a) obese (b) brittle (c) lean (d) fat
Answer:
(c) lean

Question 6.
If you are a reasonable person, you would understand liberty.
(a) fair (b) sound (c) logical (d) unreasonable
Answer:
(d) unreasonable

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘downfall’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Verb + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(d) Preposition + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of SALT.
(a) Strategy Arms Limited Treaty (b) Strategic Automatic Limitation Treaty (c) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (d) Strategy Arms Limitation Treaty
Answer:
(c) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
My friends say that dancing the waltz is easy, but I can’t do it.
(a) informal dance (b) formal dance (c) folk dance (d) ballet
Answer:
(b) formal dance

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word ‘Blog ’.
(a) Web + log (b) Bleach + log (c) Blended +log (d) Bloated + log
Answer:
(a) Web + log

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for ‘advertisement’.
(a) advt (b) ad (c) adment (d) advtment
Answer:
(b) ad

Question 12.
One who is concerned with usefulness is
(a) Pragmatist (b) Journalist (c) Monotonist (d) Algebraist
Answer:
(a) Pragmatist

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word “slack”.
(a) ly (b) en (c) fill (d) ment
Answer:
(b) en

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
A pleasant-looking woman wore steel-rimmed spectacles appeared.
(a) which (b) whom (c) whose (d) who
Answer:
(d) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
All candidates are looking forward the announcement of results.
(a) for (b) with (c) to (d) on
Answer:
(c) to

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
Carol can cope with her studies,?
(a) can’t she (b) wouldn’t she (c) shouldn’t she (d) was she
Answer:
(a) can’t she

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
I must get all the ducks in a row before my final exams.
(a) caring for ducks (b) getting disoriented (c) getting freebies (d) getting things well organized
Answer:
(d) getting things well organized

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The lavatory is in the ground floor.
(a) toilet (b) bathroom (c) restroom (d) urinal
Answer:
(c) restroom

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
Creamy milk always gives tea a sickly taste.
(a) SAVOA (b) SVAA (c) SVOAA (d) SVCA
Answer:
(a) SAVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
We them in the windy and deserted square.
(a) looked back (b) pooped out (c) came upon (d) narrowed down
Answer:
(c) came upon

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“A foothold there, no clever trick
Could take us dead or quick,
Only a bird could have got in.”
(а) What was challenging?
(b) Which aspect of the castle’s strength is conveyed by the above line?
Answer:
(a) Scaling over the castle’s smooth and high walls was challenging.
(b) The physical strength of the castle (i.e.) its brave and loyal soldiers, the stockpile of arms and well stocked granary, is conveyed here.

Question 22.
“A gray baboon sits statue-like alone Watching the sunrise; while on lower boughs His puny offspring leap about and play;”
(а) What is called a baboon?
(b) What is curious about the baboon?
Answer:
(a) Baboon is a type of large monkey.
(b) The baboon sits like a statue and watches sunrise from the crest of the Casuarina tree!

Question 23.
“Yet all experience is an arch wherethrough Gleams that untravelled world, whose margin fades For ever andfor ever when I move.”
(a) What is experience compared to?
(b) How do the lines convey that the experience is endless?
Answer:
(a) Experience is compared to an arch.
(b) Through the arch of experience one can see the untravelled world. The experience in the untravelled has a margin whose border fades as one moves forward. Thus experience is endless.

Question 24.
“And then the lover,
Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow.”
Answer:
(a) What does the lover do for his mistress?
(b) Explain, ‘sighing like furnace’.
(a) The lover is always sighing and longing for his beloved. He writes a sad ballad describing the eyebrow of his mistress.
(b) It means moaning, breathing deeply and sadly like a fire place.

Question 25.
“Life is a soft loam; be gentle; go easy.
And this too might serve him.”
Answer:
(a) Why does the poet suggest to take life easy?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the above line.
(a) There are certain occasions one needs to treat life like wet clay very gently. Take life as it comes without hard resistance. The poet says, “Brutes have been gentled where lashes failed.”
(b) Metaphor

Question 26.
“ ‘You ‘re wounded! ’ ‘Nay’, his soldier’spride .
Touched to the quick, he said:”
Answer:
(a) Why did the boy contradict Napoleon’s words?
(b) Why was his pride touched?
(a) The boy contradicted Napoleon’s words because the word “wounded” hurt his sense of pride and patriotism and his voluntary sacrifice of life for his country.
(b) The boy was naturally proud to have perched the French flag and got shot by the enemy. He had hurried holding on to his life to disclose the news of conquest of Ratisbon to the French king. When he said, “you’re wounded”, he interpreted it as an insult to his bravery and patriotism. So, his pride was touched.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions.

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Mohan : Where is your school in Russia?
Sunil : It is in Rostov. Have you been there?
Answer:
Mohan asked Sunil where his school was in Russia asked Mohan if he had been there.

Question 28.
The receptionist should be careful. Otherwise she will lose her job. (combine using if)
Answer:
If the receptionist is not careful, she will lose her job.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
Answer:
If the negotiations were to fall through, it would bring about unforeseen problems. Were the negotiations to fall through, it would bring about unforeseen problems.

Question 30.
Annual plants survive only one season and must be replaced each year. (Change the following into a complex sentence)
Answer:
Annual plants which survive only one season must be replaced each year.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Unknown, yet well-known to the eye of faith! Ah,
Answer:
I have heard that wail far, far away
Reference: These words are from the poem, ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.
Context: The poet says these words while talking about the faith-fuelled communication between herself and the Casuarina though divided by thousands of kilometers of distance.
Explanation: William Wordsworth also could sense communication of nature similar to Torn Dutt. The tree and the poet shared an emotional bond. Even when she was far away she could hear the ‘wail’ or lament of the tree expressing the grief of missing her presence.

Question 32.
I am become a name;
For always roaming with a hungry heart
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: Ulysses says these words while discussing the reputation he has earned among the common multitude due to his daring adventures.

Explanation: He has roamed the world like a hungry lion. Though Ulysses is aware of his fame, it doesn’t motivate him to stay or settle down in the kingdom of Ithaca. His inquisitive spirit is always looking for newer knowledge through ‘the arch’ to the untravelled world.

Question 33.
As if to balance the prone brow
Oppressive with its mind.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these words about the ambitious emperor of France who was anxiously waiting for the news about the outcome of battle at Ratisbon.

Explanation: Emperor Napoleon being a wise and bold warrior always had two plans. He was not resting at a tent during the battle. He was very close to the place of battle planning the strategic steps. His inclined brow appeared as if it was trying to balance the heart laden with worry.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why does the author say that it is important to include a tea recipe in cookery books?
Answer:
It is important to include tea in the cookery book because tea is one of the mainstays of civilisation in England, Eire, Australia and New Zealand. Besides, the nicest manner of making tea is a subject of violent disputes among tea-loving nations.

Question 35.
How did the mountaineers belay?
Answer:
Belaying refers to a variety of techniques used by mountaineers to exert tension on a climbing rope so that a climber does not fall very far. A climbing partner typically applies tension at the other end of the rope whenever the climber is not climbing and removes the tension from the rope when the climber needs rope to continue to climb.

Question 36.
How would a reasonable person react when his actions affect other person’s liberty?
Answer:
A reasonable person would understand that if the traffic police doesn’t interfere with the liberty of individuals at signal points, there will be a huge traffic jam and none will be able to drive on the road.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart given and answer the questions that follow:

(a) What does a student spend the maximum time on?
(b) How much time does the student spend on entertainment?
(c) On what is the least time spent on by a student?
Answer:
(a) A student spends most of the time in school and sleep.
(b) A student spends 17% on entertainment.
(c) The least time is spent on meals by a student.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a doctor and a patient.
Answer:
Doctor : What brings you here?
Patient : Doctor, my hands often shiver.
Doctor : Does anyone have Parkinson’s disease in your family?
Patient : Yes doctor. My dad suffered from that.
Doctor : Then you have to consult a Neurologist as soon as possible.
Patient : Okay Doctor.

Question 39.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

• Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your campsite. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
• Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
• Lay out the poles and assemble them.
• Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
• Pull the tent upright.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) Ignorance is ……………… (gain, bliss, loss)
(b) Absence makes the ……………… grow fonder, (mind, body, heart)
(c) A chain is only as strong as its ……………… link, (weakest, strongest, lightest)
Answer:
(a) bliss (b) heart (c) weakest

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Summarise George Orwell’s distinctive ideas in, “A Nice Cup Of Tea”.
Answer:
Tea is one of the mainstays of civilizations of UK, New Zealand, Australia and Eire. But, it is not found in the recipes of cookery books. The nicest manner in which tea must be prepared has become a subject matter of violent disputes among tea loving persons even within a family. Indian tea fits in with the author’s description of “nicest cup of tea” as it rejuvenates the drinker with wisdom, stimulation, bravery and optimism. One cup of strong tea is equal to twenty weak ones. Best tea is prepared by boiling tea leaves first and then adding milk to taste.

Milk first schools and tea first schools still fight. Tea prepared in earthen pot or china ware is good. The real flavour of tea should never be imprisoned by strainers. Consuming tea leaves will not harm one’s health. Adding sugar to tea will naturally ruin its real flavour and taste. The author advises misguided people who drink sweet tea to desist from the practice for a fortnight. He guarantees them that they would like the natural taste of tea and would never again add sugar to tea. Tea should be taken in a cylindrical or breakfast cup to enjoy it. Shallow and flat cups don’t retain warmth and taste for a long time.

[OR]

What do you infer from Gardiner’s essay, “On the rule of the Road”?
Answer:
A.G. Gardiner’s essay ‘On the rule of the Road’ is a treatise on “liberty”. He starts the essay with an anecdote. A liberty-drunk Russian lady starts walking down the middle of Highway frustrating car drivers, bus drivers and the traffic police. When questioned about her behaviour, she just replied that she has the liberty to walk anywhere she liked. The author observes that if a pedestrian gives up the pavement in preference to the road, cars will be forced to move on to the pavement.

This would result in universal chaos. Everybody would be getting in everybody’s way. Nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. Under such circumstances the world is in the danger of getting liberty-drunk. The rule of the road reminds the readers that in order that liberties of all may be preserved, the liberty of everybody must be curtailed.

Thus the traffic police at Piccadilly Circus is not a symbol of tyranny but of liberty. He doesn’t hinder but help the smooth flow of traffic! One has to allow curtailment of one’s liberty to enjoy the fruits of a social order.

Question 42.
Bring out the contrasting picture of the castle.
Answer:
The gates of the castle were very strong. The walls were high and smooth. No enemy could ever enter it by trick. The soldiers were quite alert to the movement of the enemies. They were proud that only a bird could venture to scale over the castle. But the enemies entered through the wicket gate. The tunnelled stone walls became thin and treacherous. The famous citadel was overthrown without a fight. The cunning enemies, having bribed the aged warder, looted the treasures in the secret galleries. The citadel was lost without a fight and a groan of protest.

[OR]

What makes Ulysses seek newer adventures?
Answer:
In the context of the poem, Ulysses has grown old. He has experienced all daring adventures. He has won the hearts of people during the battle at Troy. Back home, as per the prophecy of Tiresias, he rules Ithaca for a brief time. But he is fed up with a conventional duties of a king. He laments his own uselessness as a ruler of idle people who lead life like savages, just eating and sleeping. They don’t understand the over vaulting ambition of their adventurous king Ulysses who had moved earth and heavens in the past. He wishes to embark upon his next voyage.

It might be his last. He is quite sensitive to the moans of the seas tantalising him and his compatriots to set sail quickly. He wants “to drink life to the lees”. Ulysses doesn’t want to bask on the glory he has earned in the past. His inquisitive spirit is restless. He has seen much and acquired knowledge of various cultures of the world. But he considers all such experiences like an “arch” leading him to the unexplored or “untravelled world”.

He wants to sail towards the area ‘beyond sunset’. He must shine in use like a sword but not “rust unbumished”. Yet at home, in the kingdom of Ithaca, he feels bored and yearns to truly engage with what is left of life. He is impatient for “new” experiences lamenting everyday and every hour to seek “something more”. His quest for adventure and fulfillment, like the goal of Goethe’s Faust is defined by the pursuit of new knowledge “beyond the utmost bound of human thought”.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Baldwin and Gresham – friendship – great virtues – thirty five year old friendship – greatest compliment – Gresham confesses – 60 dollars a week – uprightness and honesty – close the bank- return of deposits – unwillingness – both exhibit true friendship.
Answer:
This is a typical question for which much can be said on both the sides. Both Baldwin and Gresham exhibit true friendship from their respective sides. Baldwin is rich in great virtues like loyalty, honesty, frugality and valuing human relationships. He is loyal to Gresham with thirty five year old friendship. But the moment Gresham parts ways with honesty, Baldwin would part ways with him. The greatest compliment ever paid to Baldwin is not from Martha, Evie or John but Gresham.

Gresham meets Marshall and confesses that Baldwin is an honest man whose honesty cannot be purchased even with one hundred thousand dollars. He is poor earning just 60 dollars a week, now even that is gone as the bank is closed. He is richer than Gresham in terms of uprightness and honesty. Baldwin, being a friend, shows Gresham the right path even when he realizes that his friendship would be at stake.

Thiruvalluvar says, “Friendship is not meant for just laughing and having fun but to criticize a friend when he is wrong.” Likewise, it is Baldwin who compels Gresham to close the bank and ensure the return of deposits through honest means. He doesn’t want to support friendship when a friend parts ways with honesty. He doesn’t openly articulate his unwillingness to accept the bait but his uncomfortable silence says it all. Thus both exhibit true friendship towards one another.

[OR]

Compare the character traits of Lord Weston and his wife by developing the following hints.

Lord Weston – judge – advising Roger – clerk Mr. Clays – scrap of paper – “death warrant” – deduces a pirate – treason case – velvet coat parcel – hatred of many law breakers – sweet malice – ilex tree – an innocent Caesar – Mrs. Weston level headed than Mr. Weston.
Answer:
Lord Weston is a well established judge. He is respected for being the most impartial judge in England. He is inflated with pride on his success as a judge. He keeps on advising Roger about diligence, courage and attention to details to climb the ladder of success. He reprimands him for seeking half a day leave. When Roger qualifies his request with the purpose of interviewing the clerk Mr. Clays to get the data required for his case. A scrap of paper upsets him. He reads it out “Remember Caesar”.

Mr. Weston interprets those two words as “death warrant”. Mrs. Weston doesn’t take those words as any threat to anybody. But the judge senses something evil. He declares some illiterate must have scribbled those words. He deduces that a pirate he had punished or the offenders in the treason case could be behind the conspiracy to eliminate him. His undue fear of ‘velvet coat parcel’ is really comic. His wife’s efforts to be normal provokes him. She casually indicates that she was wondering why he was not assassinated earlier as he must have won the hatred of many law breakers.

She is a charming woman and an excellent housewife. One is never sure how much intelligence and sweet malice there lies behind her practical simplicity. She teasingly says were she to shoot him, she would choose the ilex tree as it had thick foliage to hide any sniper and still give him enough room to aim at the judge. Mrs. Weston mocks at Weston’s idea of shutting all the doors leaving large space at the roof. When someone knocks it is she who tells Weston that it could be some perfectly innocent person. She is right. It was an innocent Caesar who he had agreed to meet on that day. Mrs. Weston is more practical and level headed than Mr. Weston.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.

All fools day or April Fools’ Day is a day on which people have a lot of fun pulling pranks on others. We do not know exactly how April Fools’ Day began. Now it lives on as a day of fun and practical jokes. The sun starts its yearly journey towards the north from the equator on 21st March. A long time ago people celebrated that day as the beginning of the New Year. In fact many culture around the world still celebrate New Year at that time.

Earlier, Europe too celebrated New Year around 21st March till Pope Gregory changed the calendar in 1582. After that, the beginning of the New Year was celebrated on January 1st. People usually gave each other gifts for the New Year. When the date was changed people gave mock gifts to others on 1st April. Some people think that April Fools’ Day began in France and the custom made its way to other countries.

Summary

All fools day is a day on which people have a lot of fun pulling pranks on others. A long time ago people celebrated 21st March as New Year. Pope Gregory changed calendar in 1582. After that the beginning of the New Year was celebrated on January 1 st. People usually gave each other gifts on their day began in France and the custom made its way to other countries.

Fair Draft All Fools’ Day
All fools day is a day on which people have a lot of fun pulling pranks on others. A long time ago people celebrated 21st March as New Year. Pope Gregory changed calendar in 1582. After that the beginning of the New Year was celebrated on January 1 st. People usually gave each other gifts on their day.

No. of words: 57

Notes
Title: All Fools’ Day

• All fools day – a lot of fun pulling pranks on others
• Origin not known
• People celebrated 21st March as New Year
• Many cultures still celebrate New year on that day.
• Europe too celebrated on that day.
• Pope Gregory changed the calendar in 1582 and started celebrating on January 1st.
• People gave others gifts.
• Mock gifts on 1st April.

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper about the nuisance created by the roadside vendors blocking the pavements and occupying the parking zone.
25th December, 2020
From
M. Kala
24, South Car St
Madurai-10 To

The Editor
Dinamalar Tamil Daily
Madurai -12

Sir,

Sub: Nuisance of vendors in roads and parking spaces

Many foot path vendors are blocking the pavements and occupying parking areas in South Car St. and the nearby parking areas. All those vendors who eke out a living may be allotted shops elsewhere to curtail this menace. Kindly publish this in your newspapers so that Madurai corporation and the traffic police may take the necessary action.

Yours sincerely
M. Kala

Address on the envelope:
To
The Editor
Dinamalar Tamil Daily
Madurai – 10

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Cyber safety”.
Cyber safety

Every child needs to be taught the basics of cyber safety. All of us are aware of the fact that ‘Blue Whale’ game cost lives of many young ones across the globe. Children who are befriended through social websites reveal personal information unwittingly and are exploited by persons who have access to their personal details.

Children must be advised to refrain from sharing things with total strangers. Even adults are exploited through social websites and their budding lives are at stake. So, students must not evince keen interest in making friends with strangers online. If children do not do anything that is shameful to admit to parents, cyber crimes will be reduced to minimum.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) The whole range of mountains are visible from the sea.
(b) Each boy and girl have received good education.
(c) This is one of the best book that has been written on the subject.
(d) The tour group are in the bus.
(e) Five thousand bricks is what we need.
Answer:
(a) The whole range of mountains is visible from the sea.
(b) Each boy and girl has received good education.
(c) This is one of the best books that has been written on the subject.
(d) The tour group is in the bus.
(e) Five thousand bricks are what we need.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) There is no way to a great novel, (right/write)
(b) You eat your vegetables! (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) We be reaching there before sunset.(use a semi-modal)
(d) I (read) Edgar Allan Poe last night, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) right/write (b) must (c) ought to (d) was reading

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) The deliberate suppression of texts by organizations shrouds the subject.
(b) The study of stars and stellar evolution is fundamental to our understanding of the universe.
(c) This shift to farming may have occurred because of climate change.
(d) Sovereign power may be vested on an individual or it may be vested on a group.
(e) Some medicines may not be safe during pregnancy.
[Astronomy; Medicine; Politics; Literature; Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature (b) Astronomy (c) Agriculture (d) Politics (e) Health

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.

Galileo Galilei was bom in the year 1564 in the town of Pisa, Italy. When he was 20 years old, he was studying in Pisa. His father wanted him to be a doctor, but Galileo was bored with school except for math. Because math was the one subject where he was doing well, the court mathematician offered to tutor him privately so he could become a qualified mathematician. Galileo’s father was disappointed, but he agreed. Because he needed to earn money, Galileo began experimenting with different things, trying to come up with some sort of invention that he could sell for money.

He had a little bit of success with his invention that was like a compass that could be used to measure plots of land. He had already experimented with pendulums, thermometers, and magnets. When he heard that a Dutch inventor had invented something called a spyglass, but was keeping it a secret, Galileo decided to work on one of his own. Within 24 hours, he had invented a telescope that could magnify things to make them appear ten times larger than real life.

One night, he pointed his telescope toward the sky, and made his first of many space observations: the moon was not smooth, like everyone thought. The moon was covered in bumps and craters. As technology has improved, first Galileo, and then many others, have made improvements on the telescope, the wonderful device that allows us to see from a distance.

Questions:
a. When and where was Galileo Galilei born?
b. What was Galileo’s father’s desire?
c. What was the observation about the moon?
d. What prompted him to invent the telescope?
e. What made the court mathematician offer help?
Answers:
(a) Galileo Galilei was bom in the year 1564 in the town of Pisa, Italy.
(b) Galileo’s father desired him to become a doctor.
(c) Galileo observed that the moon was not smooth and that the moon was covered in bumps and craters.
(d) Galileo heard that a Dutch inventor had invented something called a spyglass, but was keeping it a secret, Galileo decided to work on one of his own and invented the telescope.
(e) Math was one subject where Galileo was doing well. So, the court mathematician offered to tutor him privately so he could become a qualified mathematician.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
She caused great peril to herself.
(a) frill (b) danger (c) shrill (d) safety
Answer:
(b) danger

Question 2.
I could not bear to intrude upon their privacy.
(a) protect (b) help (c) predate (d) encroach
Answer:
(d) encroach

Question 3.
He had a malignant tumour of the bone.
(a) harmful (b) harmless (c) helpful (d) friendly
Answer:
(a) harmful

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
I must not interfere with their liberty to sleep in quiet.
(a) solemnity (b) tranquillity (c) noise (d) quietude
Answer:
(c) noise

Question 5.
It was a great thrill to look down this enormous rock.
(a) large (b) tiny (c) colossal (d) huge
Answer:
(b) tiny

Question 6.
They go through mutilating surgery.
(a) crippling (b) maiming (c) paralysing (d) healing
Answer:
(d) healing

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word “house arrest”.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Verb + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Verb + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of M. Phil.
(a) Master of Philosophy (b) Master of Philology (c) Mistress of Philosophy (d) Mistress of Philology
Answer:
(a) Master of Philosophy

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
Our daughter is going to turn 5 next year, so we’ve been trying to find a good kindergarten for her.
(a) kindled (b) school (c) creche (d) Children’s garden
Answer:
(d) Children’s garden

Question 10.
Choose the correct combination for the blended word “travelogue”.
(a) tra + velogue (b) travel + dialogue (c) travel + monologue (d) travel + catalogue
Answer:
(d) travel + catalogue

Question 11.
Choose the clipped form for “helicopter”.
(a) helio (b) coter (c) copter (d) hecopter
Answer:
(c) copter

Question 12.
I have the fear of high buildings. I suffer from
(a) batophobia (b) linguistics (c) phonology (d) photophobia
Answer:
(a) batophobia

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘agree’.
(a) en (b) in (c) dis (d) re
Answer:
(c) dis

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
This is the town I spent my childhood
(a) which (b) where (c) when (d) that
Answer:
(b) where

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
Since our school was next to our house, I used to come home lunch time.
(a) for (b) from (c) of (d) at
Answer:
(d) at

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. Danny was relaxed?
(a) wasn’t he (b) isn’t he (c) doesn’t he (d) weren’t he
Answer:
(a) wasn’t he

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
It’s important to be on good terms with your teammates in an office.
(a) get in (b) get along (c) to be safe (d) to be alert
Answer:
(b) get along

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Raghav is drunk.
(a) merry (b) sensitive (c) relieved (d) tender
Answer:
(a) merry

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. Next morning, coming out of our hotel, we saw our friends.
(a) AS VC A (b) AASVO (c) SVOC (d) SVO
Answer:
(b) AASVO

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. The Opposition party the minister’s resignation after the scandal broke.
(a) called in (b) ask for (c) called (d) called for
Answer:
(d) called for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Oh then our maze of tunneled stone
Grew thin and treacherous as air.
The castle was lost without a groan,
The famous citadel overthrown,”
(a) Bring out the contrast in the first two lines.
(b) What happened to the castle?
Answer:
(a) The maze of tunnelled stone walls instead of intriguing the enemies, gave passage to them. So, the poet says the secret tunnelled path became thin and treacherous as air.
(b) The castle was captured by the enemies.

Question 22.
“Fear, trembling Hope, and Death, the skeleton,
And Time the shadow”, and though weak the verse
That would thy beauty fain, oh, fain rehearse,
May Love defend tree from oblivion’s curse.”
(a) What does the poet mean by the expression ‘May love defend thee from oblivion’s curse?’
(b) What does the poet convey through the expression ‘Fear, trembling hope’?
Answer:
(a) Any living thing will have to meet death. But the poet deeply believes that her love for the tree would ensure its immortality. She will live for ever in her verses.
(b) Fear and trembling hope mean the fear of lurking death and trembling hope is. that death may not attack in the near future.

Question 23.
“Then a soldier,
full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation Even in the cannon’s mouth.”
(a) What is the soldier ready to do?
(b) Explain ‘bubble reputation’.
Answer:
(a) The soldier is ready to lay down his life.
(b) Reputation is a transitory thing. It doesn’t even last a minute like the life of a bubble.

Question 24.
“Little remains: but every hour is saved From that eternal silence, something more,
A bringer of new things; and vile it were”
(a) How is every hour important to Ulysses?
(b) What does the term ‘Little remains’ convey?
Answer:
(a) One lives in this world for a limited time. Every hour can provide new knowledge. So, every hour is very important.
(b) Ulysses realizes that he has become old. He has not much time left. He doesn’t want to die resting in his kingdom. He states that his remaining lifetime is very limited.

Question 25.
“Tell him solitude is creative if he is strong
and the final decisions are made in silent rooms.”
(a) Can being in solitude help a strong human being? How?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the above line.
Answer:
(a) Yes, solitude helps the strong person to be creative. Solitude helps even a strong human being to introspect and analyse his own mistakes.
(b) Personification

Question 26.
“ Just as perhaps he mused, ‘My plans That soar, to earth may fall,”
(a) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(b) What may hamper the soaring plans of Napoleon?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The negative outcome of battle at Ratisbon may hamper his soaring plans.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the disclosure.
Mrs. Joseph : Rachel, where did you buy this practical file from? Can you buy one for me?
Rachel : Sure ma’am. Do you want exactly the same file?
Answer:
Mrs. Joseph asked Rachel where she had bought that practical file from and if she could buy one for her. Rachel agreed and asked if she wanted exactly the same file.

Question 28.
I drop this glass. It will break, (combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I drop this glass, it will break.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I had known about Mr Leslie’s behaviour sooner, I would have dismissed him immediately.
Answer:
Had I known about Mr. Leslie’s behaviour sooner, I would have dismissed him immediately.

Question 30.
Russia has a variety of natural resources, including oil, natural gas, timber, iron ore, copper, and lead. (Rewrite into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Russia has a variety of natural resources and it includes oil, natural gas, timber, iron ore, copper, and lead.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
The famous citadel overthrown,
And all its secret galleries bare.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from Edwin Muir’s poem, “The Castle”.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the evil impact of cunning invasion of the castle.

Explanation: The enemies ransacked the rare treasures of art and culture guarded in secret galleries in the castle. The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. The castle became exposed to the enemies due to the greed of one single person – the wicket keeper.

Question 32.
And so he plays his part. The sixth age shifts Into the lean and slipper’dpantaloon,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William Shakespeare. ‘

Context: The poet says these words while describing the impact of ageing on the physical appearance.

Explanation: In the sixth stage, man becomes thin and weak. His fashionable dresses of youthful days have now become too lose to use for his shrunk shank (i.e.) legs that have become very lean with age.

Question 33.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus.

Explanation: Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How did the boy who played the mechanic lose his eyesight?
Answer:
The mechanic was seven years old. One night, when his drunk father tortured his mom, she threw a lantern at him. The lantern broke over the child’s head and shoulders. He suffered third degree bums on the upper part of his body and lost both of his eyes.

Question 35.
Why was the original zest fading away?
Answer:
As Hillary tried to reach the peak, he had to negotiate giant cornices on the right and steep rock sloped on the left. They had no idea as they trudged forward where the peak was. As Hillary cut around the back of one hump, another higher one would swing into the view. So, their original zest was fading away.

Question 36.
What will happen if the police man does not interfere with traffic?
Answer:
If the traffic police does not interfere with the driving in any way, the result would be chaos. Piccadilly Circus would be a maelstrom which no one would be able to cross.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart given and answer the questions that follow:

(a) What gets the maximum attention in Narayanan’s home?
(b) Does the family spend a lot on education?
(c) What is your opinion about Narayanan’s spending habit?
Answer:
(a) Entertainment gets the maximum attention in Narayanan’s home.
(b) No, the family spends 25% of the income on education.
(c) Narayanan is wise. He is aware of the importance of education and nutritious food for the family. He spends 50% of his income on food and education.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Patient and a Clinic Receptionist.
Patient : Is Dr. Madhusudhan available this evening? I have some important things to be clarified from him regarding my surgery.
Receptionist: I am sorry madam, he is out of station and is expected to see patients from Thursday.
Patient : Can I fix an appointment for Friday, please?
Receptionist: Yes sir. You may please confirm the appointment for Friday at 6 p.m.
Patient : Thank you.
Receptionist: No mention. Please be here half an hour before time.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making the perfect brownies.
Answer:
In a medium bowl, combine the flour, sugar and cocoa powder.
In another small bowl, whisk together the butter and eggs.
Add the egg mixture into the flour mixture, and stir it well till it is mixed thoroughly.
Bake the brownies in an electric oven for 25 to 35 minutes, or until a toothpick inserted in the center comes out clean.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below:
(a) Even Homer ……………….. (slips, sleeps, nods)
(b) It’s no use crying over spilt ……………….. (coffee, milk, water)
(c) No man is an ……………….. (island, enigma, expert)
Answer:
(a) nods (b) milk (c) island

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Give an account of the medical problems for which the two boys were hospitalized.
Answer:
The seven years old mechanic suffered third degree bums on the upper part of his body. He had lost both his eyes. He was literally a walking horror. He was disfigured. A long flap of skin was hanging from the side of his neck to his body. As the wound healed around his neck, his lower jaw became gripped in a mass of fibrous tissue. The trolley driver had a malignant tumour of the bone. A few days before the race, his shoulder and arm were amputated. There was little hope of his recovery. If two adults had similar ailments, they would have got dejected with life. But the boys were just happy celebrating the joy of being alive.

[OR]

“My right to swing my fist ends, where your nose begins.” Elucidate with reference to, ‘On the Rule of the Road’.
Answer:
Rights are not completely individual affairs. In order to enjoy one’s rights one has to respect the rights of others too. The lady in Petrograd had the right to walk on the pavement. The right to move stops when the other person’s right to drive starts. A person may have a walking stick and roll it too. But his right just stops where the other person’s nose begins. No one has the right to violate the rights of others. The right, one exercises, must not affect or erode the rights of others. One should not think of one’s own rights but also the rights of others.

A.G.Gardiner beautifully illustrates this idea by emphasising the metaphor of traffic rules. Rules of road are in fact rules of politeness and unselfishness. One may have absolute freedom in the choice of food, religion, fashionable dress, up keep of hair, funny hairstyle, etc. But one must be conscious of the rights of others. So, the statement “my right to swing my fist ends, where your nose begins” fits well with the central theme of the essay ‘ On the Rule of the Road’.

Question 42.
The poet immortalizes the Casuarina tree. Elucidate.
Answer:
The poet, Torn Dutt was conscious of the fact that her most endeared Casuarina tree was growing old. The fate that befalls aged humans and trees would ultimately grab the Casuarina tree too. Time, though slow, is ready with its sickle to harvest the lives of all living things. Being a well-read poet, she recalls how William Wordsworth had immortalised his favourite lonely tall yew tree in his poem, “Yew-trees”. Taking inspiration from him, she decides toprevent her favourite tree from dying and passing into the irreversible world of oblivion by writing a poem about the tree. True to her faith the tree lives on in our memories. As long as tongues can speak and eyes can see, the Casuarina tree will live in the hearts of millions of people till the end of the world.

[OR]

How according to the poet is it possible for his son to bring changes into a world that resents change?
Answer:
The poet advises his son to introspect often and not feel ashamed of being called a fool especially when he pursues knowledge. He can examine himself and remove his follies. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. Being alone, he can identity his innate potential and talents. His free imagination will bring about changes even if the world resents them. The zest to bring about changes will elevate him to the level of Shakespeare, Pasteur, Wright Brothers, Pavlov and Michael Faraday. Thus he will be remembered as one of the greatest men who changed the world.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints into a paragraph:
Aksionov – blood-stained knife – wife’s suspicion-Tsar – Makar Semyonich – murder charges – twenty six long years – belated freedom – restoration of justice – cold-blooded murderer – blood-stained knife – changes his attitude – pardon arrives – before release.

Aksionov, a handsome man, full of life, enjoyed music. He loved his family and did honest business. He is innocent to the core. The very sight of blood-stained knife found in his bag sends chill down his spine. He is deeply sensitive. When he realizes that his wife too suspected him, he gives up petitioning to the Tsar for mercy. He recognized Makar Semyonich the person who had murdered the merchant and had him framed in murder charges and unjustly punished for twenty six long years. When an opportunity presents to wreak vengeance onhim, he keeps quiet.

He does not show any interest in his belated freedom and restoration of justice. He seeks refuge in God. Makar Semyonich is a cold-blooded murderer and’ scoundrel. Knowingly, he hides the blood-stained knife in Aksionov’s bag and tips off the police. He doesn’t confess his guilt on the day he meets Aksionov. It is only when he realizes that Aksionov is a noble soul and does not want to expose his plan to escape from the prison that he changes his attitude to Aksionov. He is haunted by guilt that he had wronged a noble soul. He confesses but it is in vain. The pardon arrives but Aksionov passes away in prison before release.

[OR]

Ausable, private detective – automatic gun – Berlin – nice story – balcony – displeasure – hotel management – Ausable’s room – times of danger – pre-ordered drinks – blatant lie – Max jumped – suicidal jump – outwitted the spy.

Ausable was a shrewd private detective. He did not become panicky on seeing Max with an automatic gun in his room. Even if he were, he did not show it off. Instead, he expressed surprise that he expected him to be in Berlin. He cooked up a nice story that it was the second time someone had broken into his room through the balcony of the neighbouring apartment which reaches down under his window. He expressed his displeasure. that he would raise hell with the hotel management for not blocking that balcony.

This gave a strong suggestion to Max, that he could have used the balcony instead of the pass key to enter Ausable’s room. Being a criminal or spy, a person always looks for various routes of escape in times of danger. Very rarely he starts direct encounter risking his life. When Henry, the waiter who arrived with the pre-ordered drinks, knocked, Mr. Ausable simply smiled. When Max asked who it was, he told a blatant lie that it was the police who had come for his extra protection and wouldn’t hesitate to fire as the door wasn’t locked but just closed. Max, assuming that there is a balcony extending below Ausable’s window, jumped. He never knew that it was a suicidal jump from the 6th floor. Thus, Ausable outwitted the spy, Max.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The Cacti, a native in American deserts, adapts to the dry surroundings by having unique body structures. The plant has swollen stems to help store water that carries it through months. By having sharp pines instead of leaves, water loss through respiration is minimized.

Besides, these pointed pines also help the plant ward off grazing animals, thus enhancing its survival period. Besides plants, there are also animals with distinct surviving tactics in deserts too. For instance, Skinks (desert lizards ) metabolize stored fats in their bulbous tails, producing water to supplement their needs, just like what camels do with the stored food in their humps during long journeys through deserts. Antelopes like the addax, have very low water needs and hence are able to tolerate the conditions in deserts, extracting moisture from the food they eat.

Finally, there are the sandgrouses (desert birds) which do not have special features to overcome the drought-like nature in deserts. Hence, to survive in these hot, dry deserts, they need to spend a large part of their time flying in search of waterholes.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 179
No. of words to be written in the summary: 179/3 = 59 ± 5

Rough Draft
Tbe-American Cacti has unique swollen stems with pointed spikes to store water and to prevent anrnTal5~fi=©m_£razing them. Besides plants, there are also animals with distinct surviving tactics in desertstooTSldiytsJitetabolize stored fats in their tails similar to humps of camels. Antelopes like the addax, have veryTotv-waterjieeds. Sahdgrouses (desert birds) which do not have special features to overcome the drought-IIkeTrafl»e-iii_deserts. Hence they fly in search of waterholes.

Fair Draft Drought Resistant Species
The American Cacti has unique swollen stems with pointed spikes to store water and to prevent animals from grazing them. Skinks metabolize stored fats in their tails similar to humps of camels. Antelopes extract moisture from the food they eat. Sandgrouse do not have special features hence they fly in search of waterholes.

No. of words in the summary: 53 Notes
Title: Drought Resistant Species
Drought resistant plants:
The Cacti: swollen stem with sharp pines;
pointed pines ensures safety from grazing animals.
Drought resistant animals:
Skinks: retains fat in tail
Antelopes: extract moisture from food.
Sandgrouses – No special features, spends long time in waterholes.

Question 45.
You are Rahul/Ranjini of Trichy. As the teacher-in-charge of an excursion party that your school is sending on an educational tour to Ajanta and Elora Caves during the Christmas vacation write a letter of enquiry to Best Tours & Travels, Trichy seeking information regarding transport, accommodation etc.
12 October, 2020
Ranjini R.
7th Main Road, Anbu Nagar
Trichy
M/s Happy Tours & Travels
11, Thendral Nagar
Trichy Sir,
Sub: Seeking information regarding transport, accommodation etc.

Adithya Vidhya Niketan – Matric Higher Secondary School, Trichy is planning an educational tour of students and teachers to the world famous caves of Ajanta and Elora. The tour party will consist of 40 senior students, two teachers and a peon. We would appreciate if you provide us the specific information regarding the following things at the earliest:

• Type of transport to be provided
• Rates for AC and Non-AC coaches
• Rates for budget-accommodation
• Rates for dormitory accommodation, if any.
• Separate two rooms for teachers and the peon

The itinerary is as follows:
Dec 20: Departure from Trichy
Dec 27: Back to Trichy

We expect complete transparency. No hidden charges, please. Any other details regarding the educational tour will be appreciated.

Yours faithfully,
Ranjini R.

To
M/s Best Tours & Travels
8, Thendral Nagar
Trichy

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Decision making is a challenge”.
Decision making is a challenge

Decision making is a process that plays a vital role in our daily lives. Some decisions are not very important whereas other imperative decisions, when cautiously carried out, can change the path of our lives. When faced with a crisis, one of the major issues is deciding the right thing. Decision making can be quite complicated and challenging in some cases. It is hence essential to gather as much information from different sources and assess all possible alternatives to the problem or situation at hand before making a decision. Doing so will permit us to land at the best possible result for the problem.

Such decisions can’t be an overnight one. It takes a couple of months to investigate and consult with friends, family and university professors to make a decision. Low cost tuition fee and the course time are also a big influence in taking decisions. An advantage of such decisions can only be an outcome of research and discussion and there is no conflict in that. This significantly decreases the probability of risk in any decision making. If a decision is made correct and one is quite pleased with the way it is turning out to be then one has crossed all barriers. It is imperative that one makes decisions in consultation with parents opinions and check on other surveys and researches to avoid challenges.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) Ten years are a long time.
(б) For the last three weeks the shop is closed.
(c) How long it takes to send a letter to Australia.
(d) One of the thieves were arrested.
(e) Neither the passenger nor the driver were injured in the accident.
Answer:
(a) Ten years is a long time.
(b) For the past three weeks the shop is closed.
(c) How long does it take to send a letter to Australia?
(d) One of the thieves was arrested.
(e) Neither the passenger nor the driver was injured in the accident.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) Its such a beautiful ………………….. (sight/site) to wake up in the morning and watch the ………………….. (see/sea)
(b) The kids ………………….. like carrots, but I’m. not sure. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) They ………………….. have returned home by now.(Use a semi-modal)
(d) I ………………….. (read) Nathaniel Hawthorne soon, (use the proper tense)
(a) sight/sea
(b) might
(c) ought to
(d) will be reading

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) A baby less than a month old has received a pacemaker.
(b) Did an asteroid hit south India millions of years ago?
(c) In 1988, the first Shatabdi Express was introduced between New Delhi and Jhansi.
(d) Sometimes A-class facilities are extended to even those imprisoned.
(e) Taxis are mobile spaces that enable strangers to be physically proximate for a short time.
[Astronomy, Legal, Transportation, Medicine, Tourism]
Answer:
(a) Medicine (b) Astronomy (c) Tourism (d) Legal (e) Transportation

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
This sequel to Anne of Green Gables follows Anne Shirley, a young Canadian orphan. Anne was sent to live with the Cuthberts, a brother and sister who have a farm on Prince Edward Island, Canada. In Anne of Avonlea, written in 1909, Anne is 16 years old and is going to teach school for the first time in the town of Avonlea.

When Anne reached the school that morning … for the first time in her life she had traversed the Birch Path deaf and blind to its beauties … all was quiet and still. The preceding teacher had trained the children to be in their places at her arrival, and when Anne entered the schoolroom she was confronted by prim rows of “shining morning faces” and bright, inquisitive eyes. She hung up her hat and faced her pupils, hoping that she did not look as frightened and foolish as she felt and that they would not perceive how she was trembling.

She had sat up until nearly twelve the preceding night composing a speech she meant to make to her pupils upon opening the school. She had revised and improved it painstakingly, and then she had learned it off by heart. It was a very good speech and had some very fine ideas in it, especially about mutual help and earnest striving after knowledge. The only trouble was that she could not now remember a word of it. After what seemed to her a year… about ten seconds in reality … she said faintly, “Take your Testaments, please,” and sank breathlessly into her chair under cover of the rustle and clatter of desk lids that followed. While the children read their verses Anne marshalled her shaky wits into order and looked over the array of little pilgrims to the Grownup Land.

Questions:
a. List any one example from the passage that shows Anne nervous on her first day of teaching school.
b. Where and with whom did Anne Shirley live with?
c. How old was Anne when she started to teach in the town of Avonlea?
d. How was Anne treated when she entered her schoolroom?
e. What did Anne do the previous night to starting school teaching?
Answers:
(a) “The only trouble was that she could not now remember a word” of her speech.
(b) Anne Shirley lived with the Cuthberts, a brother and sister who have a farm on Prince Edward Island, Canada.
(c) Anne was 16 years old, when she was going to teach school for the first time in the town of Avonlea.
(d) When Anne entered the schoolroom she was confronted by prim rows of “shining morning faces” and bright, inquisitive eyes.
(e) Anne had sat up till twelve the preceding night composing a speech on mutual help and earnest striving after knowledge. She meant to make to her pupils upon opening the school. She had revised and improved it painstakingly, and then she had learned it by heart.